TEST BANK for Prescott's Microbiology 12th Edition, by Wille, Sandman and Wood. ISBN 9781264088393. by StudyGuide

CHAPTER 01 – 12e 1) All cellular organisms can be placed into one of three_________blank, which includes theBacteria, Archaea, and theEukarya.

Archaea are cellular organisms that have unique cell membrane_________blank.

3) Elie Metchnikoff discovered_________blank, which is a major feature of the host immune response.

4) An Italian physician,_________blank, challenged the concept of spontaneous generation by demonstrating that maggots do not arise from decaying meat but rather from developing fly eggs.

5) _________blank discovered that soil bacteria could oxidize iron, sulfur, and ammonia to obtain energy.

6) _________blank was the first to isolate a root nodule bacterium capable of nitrogen fixation.

7) The branch of microbiology that deals with diseases of humans and animals is called_________blank microbiology.

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8) The branch of microbiology that deals with the mechanisms by which the human body protects itself from disease-causing organisms is called_________blank.

9) _________blank _________blank microbiologists monitor community food establishments and water supplies in order to control the spread of communicable diseases.

10) The branch of microbiology that studies the relationship between microorganisms and their habitats is called _________blank _________blank.

11) _________blank microbiology involves the use of microorganisms to make products such as antibiotics, vaccines, steroids, alcohols, vitamins, amino acids, and enzymes.

12) Microbial_________blank are scientists who investigate the synthesis of antibiotics and toxins, the production of energy with microorganisms, and the ways in which microorganisms survive harsh environmental conditions.

13) Microbial_________blank focuses on the nature of heredity and how it regulates the development and function of cells and organisms.

14) A microbial _________blank is a collection of strains that share many stable properties and differ significantly from other groups of strains.

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15)

Protists contain all of the following forms of life EXCEPT _________blank. A) protozoa B) fungi C) slime molds D) algae

16) Cells with a relatively complex morphology that have a true membrane-delimited nucleus are called_________blank. A) prokaryotes B) eukaryotes C) urkaryotes D) nokaryotes

17) Cells with a relatively simple cell morphology that do not have a true membranedelimited nucleus are called_________blank. A) prokaryotes B) eukaryotes C) urkaryotes D) nokaryotes

18) The ribosomal RNA studies that led to the division of prokaryotic organisms into the Bacteria and the Archaea were begun by_________blank.

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A) Pasteur B) Woese C) Needham D) Watson

19)

Proteins function in modern cells as _________blank. A) catalysts B) hereditary information C) structural elements D) both catalysts and structural elements

20) RNA is a key intermediate molecule involved in the process that uses the information stored in DNA to ultimately produce _________blank. A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) lipids D) RNA

21) Which of the following distinguishes the field of microbiology from other fields of biology? A) The size of the organism studied. B) The techniques used to study organisms regardless of their size. C) Both the size of the organism studied and the techniques employed in the study of organisms. D) Neither the size of the organism studied nor the techniques employed in the study of organisms regardless of their size.

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22) In the following list of scientists, who developed a set of criteria that could be used to establish a causative link between a particular microorganism and a particular disease? A) Fracastoro B) Koch C) Pasteur D) Lister

23) In the following list of scientists who was the first to observe and accurately describe microorganisms? A) Pasteur B) Lister C) van Leeuwenhoek D) Tyndall

24) In the following list of scientists who provided the evidence needed to discredit the concept of spontaneous generation? A) Pasteur B) Koch C) Semmelweiss D) Lister

25) The concept that living organisms arise from nonliving material is called_________blank.

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A) biogenesis B) cell theory C) spontaneous generation D) germ theory

26) The concept that human and animal diseases are caused by microorganisms is called the_________blank. A) cell theory B) germ theory C) causative theory D) disease theory

27) Whose work on spontaneous generation first demonstrated the existence of a very heatresistant form of bacteria that are called endospores? A) Schwann B) Redi C) Tyndall D) Pasteur

28)

Antiseptic surgery was pioneered by_________blank. A) Pasteur B) Lister C) Jenner D) Kitasato

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29) Studies by Emil von Behring and Shibasaburo Kitasato demonstrated that inactivated toxins can induce the synthesis of antitoxins in the blood of rabbits. These antitoxins (antibodies) are the basis of_________blank. A) humoral immunity B) cell-mediated immunity C) antibiotic immunity D) phagocyte-mediated immunity

30)

The first surgical antiseptic to be used was_________blank. A) iodine B) ethanol C) phenol D) None of the choices are correct.

31) Old cultures of bacteria that have lost their ability to cause disease are said to be_________blank. A) impotent B) virulent C) pathogenic D) attenuated

32) Who is credited with developing and documenting the first vaccination procedure against smallpox?

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A) Koch B) Pasteur C) Jenner D) Lister

33)

Who is credited with developing a vaccine against chicken cholera? A) Koch B) Pasteur C) Jenner D) Lister

34) Who of the following first discovered that some blood leukocytes could engulf diseasecausing bacteria? A) von Behring B) Meister C) Metchnikoff D) Ivanowski

35)

The use of enrichment cultures and selective media was pioneered by_________blank. A) Beijerinck B) Jenner C) Pasteur D) von Behring

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36) Which of the following provides the best explanation for why viruses are not included in the three-domain system? A) Viruses are too small. B) Viruses have either DNA or RNA, not both. C) Viruses are not a cellular life form. D) Viruses show no evidence of evolution.

37) A new microbe has been discovered in the rumen of sheep. Microscopy shows no evidence of a nuclear membrane, and biochemical studies of the cell wall demonstrate the lack of peptidoglycan. Metabolic studies show that this microbe generates methane. This microbe would most likely be classified in _________blank. A) domain Bacteria B) domain Archaea C) domain Eukarya, Kingdom Fungi D) domain Eukarya, Protists

38) What is the most compelling reason why “protists” are not considered to be a taxonomic group? A) They are not cellular life forms. B) They are too small to be included among the eukaryotes. C) The group includes both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types. D) The organisms often included in this group are very diverse and don’t form a cohesive taxon.

39) Scientists study microorganisms on Earth today to search for life forms elsewhere, as well as to explore the origins of life on Earth. These microorganisms that are studied are referred to as _________blank.

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A) existing B) extant C) extinct D) extirpated

40) An important aspect of agar that makes it a useful ingredient for solidifying media for bacterial culture is _________blank. A) that it provides an excellent nitrogen source for bacteria B) that bacteria are unable to break it down so it stays solidified C) that it melts at 100oC and solidifies at temperatures below 40oC D) that it provides an excellent carbon and energy source for bacteria

41)

Which molecule is believed to have preceded the other two during the evolution of life? A) Proteins B) DNA C) RNA

42) What is the most compelling reason why DNA, rather than RNA, evolved to be the storage repository for genetic information in cellular life forms? A) DNA has deoxyribose rather than ribose. B) DNA molecules are more chemically stable than RNA molecules. C) DNA is double-stranded rather than single-stranded. D) DNA molecules are larger than RNA molecules.

43) Each of the following provides evidence in support of the primary role of RNA in the evolution of life EXCEPT _________blank. Version 1

A) some RNA molecules are catalytic B) RNA catalyzes peptide bond formation during protein synthesis C) ATP (energy currency of the cell) is a ribonucleotide D) RNA is less chemically stable than DNA E) RNA can regulate gene expression

44) The appearance of organisms that carry out aerobic respiration likely evolved as organisms that release oxygen during photosynthesis gradually changed Earth's atmosphere. These photosynthetic organisms were the precursor for _________blank. A) chloroplasts B) mitochondria C) the last universal common ancestor D) eukaryotes

45)

Which term is most inclusive? In other words, which term includes all the others? A) Microbial species B) Microbial strain C) Biovars D) Serovars

46) Which of the processes named here is the least likely to contribute to the evolution of genetic diversity of bacteria and archaea? A) Mutation B) Sexual reproduction C) Binary fission D) Horizontal gene transfer

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47) A student is observing microorganisms in a sample of pond water. One organism of interest has an obvious nucleus, small oval structures containing a green pigment, and does not appear to be motile. In which of the following groups would this microbe most likely be classified? A) Eukaryotes (Fungi) B) Eukaryotes (Algae) C) Bacteria D) Archaea E) Eukaryotes (Protozoa)

48) A student is observing microorganisms in a sample of pond water. One organism of interest has an obvious nucleus and has been moving rapidly during observation and appears to have rows of cilia along its surface. In which of the following groups would this microbe most likely be classified? A) Eukaryotes (Fungi) B) Eukaryotes (Algae) C) Bacteria D) Eukaryotes (Protozoa)

49) Morphovars, serovars, biovars, and pathovars are examples of terms that refer to microbial _________blank. A) species B) strains C) types D) Archaea

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50) In a search for new antibiotics, a previously unknown organism has been recovered from the soil. It is nonmotile and is composed of long thread-like structures formed from nucleated cells. It is non-photosynthetic and absorbs its nutrients. This organism will most likely be classified among the _________blank. A) bacteria B) Archaea C) eukaryotes (fungi) D) eukaryotes (protozoa) E) eukaryotes (algae)

51) Three of the SSU rRNA sequences of three organisms have been compared. For organisms 1 and 2, two of the twelve nucleotides in the sequence are different. For organisms 1 and 3, six of the twelve nucleotides are different. Which organism has a greater evolutionary distance from organism 1? A) Organism 2 B) Organism 3 C) The evolutionary distance is the same. D) Evolutionary distance cannot be predicted from this data.

52) Which group of microbes contains organisms necessary for production of wine and bread? A) Bacteria B) Archaea C) Fungi D) Algae

53) You discover a new microbe while working on a citizen scientist project. The microbe is taken to a lab that specializes in placing organisms in their correct phylogenic niche. In order to determine its evolutionary relatedness to other microbes, the lab carries out_________blank.

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A) SSU rRNA analysis B) microscopic analysis C) biochemical tests D) DNA fingerprinting

54) You are a medical microbiologist in Dallas, TX. A small population of individuals spread throughout the city has been experiencing alarming yet similar symptoms affecting the liver that have physicians puzzled as to the etiology, although they all suspect it is microbial in nature. What steps would you take to elucidate the organism? A) 1. Sample the livers from affected patients to culture and compare organisms; 2. Grow the suspected organisms in culture; 3. Inoculate the cultured organisms into a laboratory animal and monitor for similar symptoms; 4. Culture and analyze the organism from the lab animal and determine relatedness. B) 1. Inoculate all suspected organisms into a laboratory animal and monitor for similar symptoms; 2. Biopsy the original patient's liver to look for organisms; 3. Grow the suspected organisms from the liver in culture; 4. Culture and analyze the organism from the lab animal and determine relatedness. C) Sample the livers of all sick individuals and culture the organisms, comparing symptoms and microscopic characteristics. D) 1. Biopsy the patient's liver to look for organisms; 2. Culture the organisms obtained from the liver and run biochemical tests to determine similarities to other known liver pathogens; 3. Inoculate liver pathogens into lab animals to compare symptoms.

55) According to genome analysis, a member of the genus_________blank is most closely related to the mitochondrion. A) Escherichia B) Agrobacterium C) Prochloron D) Rickettsia

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56)

According to the endosymbiosis hypothesis _________blank. A) the first endosymbiotic event involved an anaerobic bacterium B) the first endosymbiont was a fermentative organism C) the mitochondrion evolved from the same endosymbiont as the hydrogenosome D) All of the choices are correct.

57) The ancestors of modern_________blank performed the oxygenic photosynthesis responsible for converting our anoxic planet to an oxygenated one. A) Crenarchaeota B) Proteobacteria C) Firmicutes D) cyanobacteria

58) Extant microorganisms are organisms from the fossil record that are no longer present on Earth today. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) Microbiologists study a variety of organisms, but all are considered either Bacteria or Archaea. ⊚ ⊚

60)

true false

All eukaryotes have a membrane-delimited nucleus.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Viruses are not generally studied by microbiologists because they are not classified as living organisms. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

Viruses constitute the fourth domain of life in current biological classification schemes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) The earliest microbial fossils that have been found are dated from approximately 4.5 million years ago. ⊚ ⊚

64)

true false

Fanny Hesse first suggested that agar be used to solidify microbiological media. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) M. J. Berkeley demonstrated that the great potato blight of Ireland was caused by a water mold (then thought to be a fungus). ⊚ true ⊚ false

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66) Invisible living creatures were thought to exist and cause disease long before they were ever observed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Koch's postulates were instrumental in establishing that the intracellular parasite Mycobacterium leprae is the causative organism of leprosy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Edward Jenner's work in preventing rabies led to the use of the term vaccination to describe a type of procedure used in the prevention of disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Although developed over 100 years ago, Koch's postulates continue to be used to find the causative organism for all known human infectious diseases. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

Viruses and bacteria were first cultured in the laboratory at about the same time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Charles Chamberland developed porcelain filters that allowed other scientists to demonstrate that viruses are smaller than bacteria.

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⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

The first disease to be identified as being caused by a virus was tobacco mosaic disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) John Tyndall demonstrated that microorganisms present in the air are carried on dust particles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Agostino Bassi demonstrated that a type of silkworm disease was caused by a fungus and proposed that many diseases are caused by microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) The usefulness of agar in solidifying microbiological growth media is limited because it does not remain solid at temperatures above 28oC. ⊚ ⊚

76)

true false

Robert Koch developed a vaccine that could be used to prevent anthrax. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

77) The endosymbiotic hypothesis is generally accepted as the origin of eukaryotic organelles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) The relationship between specific bacteria and specific diseases was first demonstrated by Koch. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Some microorganisms are useful in bioremediation processes that reduce the effects of pollution. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_12e_Willey 1) domains 2) lipids 3) phagocytosis 4) Redi 5) Winogradsky 6) Beijerinck 7) medical 8) immunology 9) Public health 10) microbial ecology 11) Industrial 12) physiologists 13) genetics 14) species 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) C 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) A 55) D 56) D Version 1

57) D 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE

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CHAPTER 02 – 12e 1) The_________blank_________blank is the point at which a lens focuses parallel beams of light.

2) The_________blank_________blank is the distance between the center of a lens and the point at which it focuses parallel beams of light.

3) The_________blank is the distance between the specimen and the objective lens when the specimen is in focus.

4) The useful magnification of a light microscope is limited by the_________blank of the light source being utilized.

5) The special dyes used in fluorescence microscopy that absorb light at one wavelength and emit light at a different wavelength are called_________blank.

6) In order to view a specimen with a total magnification of 400×, a_________blank objective must be used if the ocular is 10×.

7) The procedure in which a single stain is used to visualize microorganisms is called_________blank staining.

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8) _________blank is the process by which internal and external structures of cells and organisms are preserved and maintained in position.

9) Thin films of bacteria that have been air-dried onto a glass microscope slide are called_________blank.

10) A procedure that divides organisms into two or more groups depending on their individual reactions to the same staining procedure is referred to as_________blank staining.

11) An electron microscope uses_________blank lenses to focus beams of electrons onto a specimen.

12) _________blank breaks frozen specimens along lines of greatest weakness, often down the middle of lipid bilayer membranes so that they may be observed by transmission electron microscopy.

13) The_________blank microscope is capable of atomic resolution of specimens, even when they are immersed in water.

14) The designer of the first transmission electron microscope,_________blank, was awarded the 1986 Nobel Prize in physics.

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15)

Confocal microscopes exhibit improved contrast and resolution by_________blank. A) illumination of a large area of the specimen B) blocking out stray light with an aperture located above the objective lens C) use of light at longer wavelengths D) use of ultraviolet light to illuminate the specimen

16)

A 30× objective and a 20× ocular produce a total magnification of_________blank. A) 230× B) 320× C) 50× D) 600×

17)

A 45× objective and a 10× ocular produce a total magnification of_________blank. A) 900× B) 55× C) 450× D) 145×

18) A microscope that exposes specimens to ultraviolet, violet, or blue light and forms an image with the light emitted at a different wavelength is called a_________blank microscope.

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A) phase-contrast B) dark-field C) scanning electron D) fluorescence

19) Immersion oil can be used to increase the resolution achieved with some microscope lenses because it increases the_________blank between the specimen and the objective lens. A) optical density B) refractive index C) optical density and refractive index D) neither optical density nor refractive index

20) If the objective lenses of a microscope can be changed without losing focus on the specimen, they are said to be_________blank. A) equifocal B) totifocal C) parfocal D) optifocal

21) An instrument that magnifies slight differences in the refractive index of cell structures is called a(n)_________blank microscope. A) phase-contrast B) electron C) fluorescence D) densitometric

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22) The instrument that produces a bright image of the specimen against a dark background is called a(n)_________blank microscope. A) phase-contrast B) electron C) bright-field D) dark-field

23) As the magnification of a series of objective lenses increases, the working distance_________blank. A) increases B) decreases C) stays the same D) cannot be predicted

24) Prior to staining, smears of microorganisms must be heat-fixed in order to_________blank. A) allow eventual visualization of internal structures B) ensure removal of dust particles from the slide surface C) attach them firmly to the slide D) create small pores in cells that facilitates binding of stain to cell structures

25) Acid-fast organisms such asMycobacterium tuberculosis contain_________blank constructed from mycolic acids in their cell walls.

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A) proteins B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) peptidoglycan

26)

In the Gram-staining procedure, the primary stain is_________blank. A) iodine B) safranin C) crystal violet D) alcohol

27)

In the Gram-staining procedure, the decolorizer is_________blank. A) iodine B) safranin C) crystal violet D) ethanol or acetone

28)

In the Gram-staining procedure, the counterstain is_________blank. A) iodine B) safranin C) crystal violet D) alcohol

29)

In the Gram-staining procedure, the mordant is_________blank.

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A) iodine B) safranin C) crystal violet D) alcohol

30) After the primary stain has been added but before the decolorizer has been used, Grampositive organisms are stained_________blank and Gram-negative organisms are stained_________blank. A) purple; purple B) purple; colorless C) purple; pink D) pink; pink

31) After the decolorizer has been added, Gram-positive organisms are stained_________blank and Gram-negative organisms are stained_________blank. A) purple; purple B) purple; colorless C) purple; pink D) pink; pink

32) After the mordant has been added, Gram-positive organisms are stained _________blank and Gram-negative organisms are stained _________blank. A) purple; purple B) purple; colorless C) purple; pink D) pink; pink

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33) If the decolorizer is left on too long in the Gram-staining procedure, Gram-positive organisms will be stained_________blank and Gram-negative organisms will be stained_________blank. A) purple; blue B) purple; colorless C) purple; pink D) pink; pink

34) If the decolorizer is not left on long enough in the Gram-staining procedure, Grampositive organisms will be stained_________blank and Gram-negative organisms will be stained_________blank. A) purple; purple B) purple; colorless C) purple; pink D) pink; pink

35)

Which of the following is considered to be a differential staining procedure? A) Gram stain B) Acid-fast stain C) Both Gram stain and Acid-fast stain D) Leifson's flagella stain

36)

Basic dyes such as methylene blue bind to cellular molecules that are_________blank.

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A) hydrophobic B) negatively charged C) positively charged D) aromatic

37)

The Gram-staining procedure is an example of _________blank. A) simple staining B) negative staining C) differential staining D) fluorescent staining

38) Regions of a specimen with higher electron density scatter_________blank electrons and, therefore, appear_________blank in the image projected onto the screen of a transmission electron microscope. A) more; lighter B) more; darker C) fewer; darker D) fewer; lighter

39)

Scanning electron microscopy is most often used to reveal_________blank. A) surface structures B) internal structures C) both surface and internal structures simultaneously D) either surface or internal structures, but not simultaneously

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40)

Small internal cell structures are best visualized with a_________blank. A) light microscope B) dark-field microscope C) transmission electron microscope D) flagellar microscope

41) In transmission electron microscopy, spreading a specimen out in a thin film with uranyl acetate, which does not penetrate the specimen, is called_________blank. A) freeze-etching B) simple staining C) shadow staining D) negative staining

42) Atomic force microscopes use a scanning probe that maintains a fixed distance from the surface of the specimen. It is useful for specimens that_________blank. A) do not conduct electricity well B) have extremely uneven surfaces C) do not conduct electricity well, and have extremely uneven surfaces D) conduct electricity well, and have smooth surfaces

43)

If immersion oil was replaced with water, what would happen?

A) The refractive index would increase, improving resolution. B) The refractive index of water would be greater than air but less than oil, improving resolution less than oil. C) The refractive index of water would be less than that of air, decreasing resolution. D) There would be no difference.

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44) As the resolution of a microscope system improves, the size of the smallest object that can be seen clearly _________blank. A) is larger B) is smaller C) is not affected

45) If you forgot to heat fix a smear before doing a Gram stain, which of the following might occur? A) The stains would not adhere to the bacteria. B) The smear may not adhere to the slide. C) The decolorization step of the Gram stain would not work properly. D) Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria would both stain purple.

46) A specimen has been prepared for viewing with a transmission electron microscope, using uranyl acetate as a negative stain. The area stained by the uranyl acetate will be _________blank electron-dense compared to the specimen itself. A) more B) less C) equally

47) If you forgot the decolorization step while performing a Gram stain, which outcome would you expect? A) Gram-positive bacteria would stain pink B) Gram-negative bacteria would stain purple C) Gram-negative bacteria would be unstained D) Gram-positive bacteria would be unstained

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48) If you forgot to apply the safranin counterstain while performing a Gram stain, which outcome would you expect? A) Gram-positive bacteria would stain pink. B) Gram-negative bacteria would stain purple. C) Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria would be unstained. D) Gram-negative bacteria would be unstained.

49) Which type of microscopy would be preferred for creating a three-dimensional view of the distribution and arrangement of flagella on a bacterial cell surface? A) Bright-field microscopy B) Scanning electron microscopy C) Fluorescence microscopy D) Transmission electron microscopy

50) Which type of microscopy would be preferred for showing fine internal detail of the eukaryotic organelles? A) Bright-field microscopy B) Scanning electron microscopy C) Fluorescence microscopy D) Transmission electron microscopy

51) You are researching the structure of a transmembrane protein. Which type of microscopy would provide you the best view of this protein?

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A) Bright field microscopy B) Scanning electron microscopy C) Transmission electron microscopy D) Atomic force microscopy

52) If the strength of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length (1/f ), which of the following lenses will have the greatest strength? A) A lens with a focal length of 1cm B) A lens with a focal length of 100 mm C) A lens with a focal length of 0.1 mm D) A lens with a focal length of 1 mm

53)

Glass has a greater refractive index than air. This means that_________blank. A) the velocity of the light is slowed when it passes through the glass from the air B) the velocity of the light accelerates when it passes through the glass from the air C) the velocity of the light is slowed when it passes through the air from the glass D) the light is bent away from the normal when passing through glass from air

54) Light rays are refracted (bent) when they cross the interface between materials with different refractive indices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) A substage condenser is used to focus light onto the specimen, which increases the resolution of a light microscope.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

56) Confocal microscopes, in combination with specialized computer software, can be used to create three-dimensional images of cell structures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) A light microscope with an objective lens numerical aperture of 0.65 is capable of allowing two objects 400 nm apart to be distinguished when using light with a wavelength of 420 nm. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58)

Resolution improves when the wavelength of the illuminating light decreases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59)

Immersion oil is used to prevent a specimen from drying out. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) It is possible to build a light microscope capable of 10,000× magnification, but the image would not be sharp because resolution is independent of magnification. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

61)

Immersion oil increases the amount of light entering the objective lens. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) Gram staining divides bacterial species into two groups based on differences in cell wall structure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Negative staining facilitates the visualization of bacterial capsules that are intensely stained by the procedure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) Negative staining with India ink can be used to reveal the presence of capsules that surround bacterial cells. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

Mordants increase the binding between a stain and specimen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) In order to stain flagella so that they may be readily observed by light microscopy, it is usually necessary to increase their thickness.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

67) The Gram-staining procedure is widely used because it allows rapid identification of a microorganism with little additional testing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Because transmission electron microscopy uses electrons rather than light, it is not necessary to stain biological specimens before observing them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Scanning electron microscopes bombard specimens with a stream of electrons; however, the specimen image is produced by electrons that are derived from atoms of the specimen itself rather than by the electrons used to bombard the specimen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) It was possible to view viruses only after the invention of the electron microscope because they are too small to be seen with a light microscope. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Scanning tunneling electron microscopes create a three-dimensional image of specimens at atomic-level resolution.

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⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_12e_Willey 1) focal point 2) focal length 3) working distance 4) wavelength 5) fluorochromes 6) 40× 7) simple 8) Fixation 9) smears 10) differential 11) magnetic 12) Freeze-etching 13) scanning tunneling 14) Ernst Ruska 15) B 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) C Version 1

27) D 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) B 44) B 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) D 52) C 53) A 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1

57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE

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CHAPTER 03 – 12e 1) The genus of bacteria that undergoes cell division in random planes, forming grapelike clusters of round bacteria, are the_________blank.

Bacteria that do not have a fixed shape are said to be_________blank.

A branched network of hyphae formed by the Actinomycetes is called a_________blank.

Actinomycetes form long filaments called_________blank.

5) When the cell wall is removed from a Gram-negative bacterium without removing the outer membrane, the resulting form is called a(n)_________blank.

6) Molecules or regions of molecules that readily interact with water are said to be_________blank, whereas molecules or regions of molecules that are insoluble in water or do not readily interact with water are said to be_________blank.

7) A_________blank layer consists of diffuse unorganized polysaccharide material that lies outside the cell wall and is easily removed.

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8) A_________blank is a polysaccharide layer that lies outside the cell wall and is not easily removed.

_________blank bind ferric iron and transport it into a bacterial cell.

10)

Nutrients that are used by bacteria in relatively large amounts are _________blank.

11) Endospores are resistant to most environmental stressors because they have_________blank_________blank complexed with calcium ions which stabilize DNA.

12) The most widely accepted current model for membrane structures is called the_________blank_________blank model.

13) Intracellular granules of organic or inorganic material that are stockpiled by bacteria for future use are called_________blank.

14) Bacteria have a region of the cytoplasm known as the_________blank, which is not bounded by a membrane but contains the chromosome.

15) Small circular DNA molecules capable of replicating and containing genes that are useful but not necessary to the bacterium are called_________blank.

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16) Some species of aquatic bacteria use inclusion bodies known as_________blank to orient themselves in Earth's magnetic field.

17)

_________blank are the site of protein synthesis in the cell.

18) Bacterial flagella are composed of three parts: the_________blank body, which is embedded in the cell, the hook, and the_________blank, which is the longest part of the flagellum.

19) Proteinaceous projections from the surface of a bacterium that are used to mediate conjugation are called sex_________blank, whereas projections that mediate attachment to surfaces such as host cells are called_________blank.

20) The bacterium E. coli swims in a straight line, called a_________blank, for a few seconds; then it stops, tumbles, then swims away in a new direction.

21) In many spirochetes, multiple flagella combine to form a bundle known as a(n)_________blank fibril, which winds around the cell and confers motility on the cell.

22) cell.

_________blank is the process through which endospores are formed within a vegetative

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23) _________blank is the main part of the process through which a vegetative cell is formed from an endospore.

24) _________blank are required organic compounds because they are essential cell components or precursors of such components that cannot be synthesized by the organism.

25)

Small organic molecules called_________blank function as enzyme cofactors.

26) Many bacteria facilitate the uptake of iron by secreting low molecular weight molecules, called_________blank, to form complexes with the iron that can then be readily transported into the cell.

27) Transport of two different substances can be linked. If the transport is in the same direction it is called_________blank; if the transport is in opposite directions it is called_________blank.

28) _________blank are carrier proteins embedded in the membrane that increase the rate of diffusion of specific molecules across selectively permeable membranes.

29) Predict how the plasma membrane fatty acid composition would change as the temperature of the habitat of an aquatic bacterial species warms from 2oC to 15oC during the spring and summer months. Version 1

A) The percentage of saturated fatty acids would increase. B) The percentage of unsaturated fatty acids would increase. C) The percentage of saturated fatty acids would decrease. D) The percentage of saturated fatty acids would remain unchanged.

30) You discover a new transport system used by a newly discovered bacterial species. The sugars that are transported using this system are phosphorylated as they enter the bacterial cell. You would describe this transport system as a(n) _________blank. A) facilitated diffusion B) micronutrient regulator C) passive diffusion D) group translocation

31)

Which of the following structures is NOT found in an endospore? A) Capsule B) Coat C) Core D) Exosporium

32)

The concept of a prokaryote was first fully outlined in 1962 by_________blank. A) Watson and Crick B) Stanier and Van Niel C) Hershey and Chase D) Gilbert and Cech

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33)

Bacterial cells that are variable in shape are called_________blank. A) vibrio B) pleomorphic C) coccobacilli D) hyphal

34) The term used to describe bacteria that are intermediate in shape between spherical and rod-shaped is_________blank. A) cocci B) bacilli C) vibrio D) coccobacilli

35) Square planar arrangement of cells that forms when round bacteria remain attached to each other during reproduction are called_________blank. A) streptococci B) staphylococci C) tetrads D) sarcinae

36)

Flexible bacteria with a helical shape are called_________blank. A) vibrios B) spirilla C) spirochetes D) coccobacilli

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37)

Rigid bacteria with a helical cell shape are called_________blank. A) vibrios B) spirilla C) spirochetes D) coccobacilli

38)

The term used to describe bacteria that are shaped like curved rods is_________blank. A) coccus B) bacillus C) vibrio D) coccobacillus

39)

The term used to describe bacteria that are rod-shaped is _________blank. A) coccus B) bacillus C) vibrio D) coccobacillus

40)

The term used to describe bacteria that have a spherical shape is_________blank. A) coccus B) bacillus C) vibrio D) coccobacillus

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41)

The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria_________blank.

A) retains the cytoplasm and its contents B) acts as a selectively permeable barrier, allowing some molecules to pass while preventing the movement of others C) is the major site of ATP synthesis in aerobes D) All of the choices are correct.

42) The lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria is also known as_________blank. A) exotoxin B) teichoic acid C) murein D) endotoxin

43)

Which of the following is/are true of capsules? A) They help bacteria escape phagocytosis by host cells. B) They retain water and help prevent desiccation of the bacteria. C) They prevent entry of many bacterial viruses. D) All of the choices are correct.

44) Proteins that are loosely associated with the cytoplasmic membrane are called_________blank proteins.

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A) peripheral B) integral C) external D) internal

45) Proteins that are embedded within the cytoplasmic membrane and not easily extracted are called_________blank proteins. A) peripheral B) integral C) external D) internal

46) Shrinkage of the plasma membrane away from the cell wall when the bacterium is placed in a hypertonic environment is called_________blank. A) osmolysis B) plasmolysis C) hydrolysis D) hypertonolysis

47)

Lipids with polar and nonpolar ends are said to be_________blank. A) amphipathic B) amphibolic C) bilateral D) None of the choices are correct.

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48) Although penicillin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis, bacterial cells will continue to grow normally in the presence of penicillin in a(n)_________blank environment. A) hypotonic B) isotonic C) hypertonic D) nonpolar

49) All of the following statements about the periplasmic space are true except_________blank. A) it is found only in Gram-positive bacteria B) it is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria C) it contains hydrolytic enzymes and binding proteins involved in nutrient acquisition D) a minimal periplasmic space may be observed between the plasma membrane and the peptidoglycan in some Gram-positive bacteria

50) Which of the following protects bacteria from lysis in dilute solutions and helps to determine their cellular morphology or shape? A) Plasma membrane B) Peptidoglycan C) Capsule D) Gas vacuoles

51)

Which of the following is not true of bacterial plasmids?

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A) They can replicate independently of the chromosome. B) They may carry genes for drug resistance. C) They are required for host growth and/or reproduction. D) They may carry genes that enhance survival of the bacterium under certain conditions.

52) Bacterial and archaeal ribosomes are known as_________blank ribosomes, based on their sedimentation coefficient. A) 50S B) 30S C) 80S D) 70S

53)

Export of flagellin subunits is mediated by_________blank.

A) an apparatus in the basal body of the flagellum that is related to the type II secretion pathway B) the type I secretion pathway C) an apparatus in the basal body of the flagellum that is related to the type III secretion pathway D) None of the choices are correct.

54)

The power used by most bacterial flagellar motors is produced by_________blank. A) synthesis of glucose B) ATP hydrolysis C) proton motive force (PMF) D) All of the choices are correct.

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55)

Chemotaxis is a process by which bacteria_________blank. A) move toward an attractant or away from a repellent B) avoid phagocytosis C) respond metabolically to the presence of autoinducer molecules D) move on solid surfaces by means of type IV fimbriae

56)

Twitching motility involves _________blank. A) peritrichous flagella B) periplasmic flagella C) type IV pili D) monotrichous flagella

57) Endospores represent a challenge to the fields of industrial and medical microbiology because_________blank. A) they are resistant to harsh environments, thus allowing survival of endospore-forming organisms under conditions in which non-endospore-forming cells would not survive B) endospore-forming organisms are often dangerous pathogens C) endospores are significantly smaller than vegetative cells D) endospores are resistant to harsh environments, thus allowing survival of endosporeforming organisms under conditions in which non-endospore-forming cells would not survive, and endospore-forming organisms are often dangerous pathogens

58) Elements that are required in relatively large amounts by microorganisms are called_________blank.

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A) multivitamins B) meganutrients C) macronutrients D) macromolecules

59)

Which of the following is not considered a macronutrient? A) Carbon (C) B) Calcium (Ca) C) Potassium (K) D) Cobalt (Co)

60)

Which of the following is not considered a micronutrient? A) Manganese (Mn) B) Magnesium (Mg) C) Zinc (Zn) D) Copper (Cu)

61)

Which of the following is not a major class of growth factors? A) Amino acids B) Purines and pyrimidines C) Vitamins D) Nucleic acids

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62) A wide variety of microorganisms are commercially used to manufacture_________blank for human consumption. A) sugars B) vitamins C) fatty acids D) None of the choices are correct.

63) Which of the following processes can be used to bring nutrients into a cell against a concentration gradient? A) Active transport B) Facilitated diffusion C) Passive diffusion D) Active transport and facilitated diffusion

64)

Which of the following is a characteristic of active transport? A) Saturable uptake rate B) Use of ATP or a proton gradient as a source of metabolic energy C) Can move materials against a concentration gradient D) All of the choices are correct.

65) The movement of molecules across a membrane from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration with the expenditure of energy is called_________blank.

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A) facilitated diffusion B) osmosis C) passive diffusion D) active transport

66) The movement of molecules across a membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration with the use of a carrier molecule embedded in the membrane is called_________blank. A) facilitated diffusion B) osmosis C) passive diffusion D) active transport

67) The movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the participation of specific carrier molecules is called_________blank. A) facilitated diffusion B) osmosis C) passive diffusion D) active transport

68)

Nutrients can be concentrated from dilute solutions by_________blank. A) pinocytosis B) endocytosis C) active transport and group translocation D) electron transport

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69)

_________blank membranes allow some molecules to pass but not others. A) Permeable B) Inverted monolayer C) Selectively permeable D) Impermeable

70) Motile bacteria have been placed in an environment with a gradient of a chemical attractant. Which of the following behaviors would you predict? A) Bacteria will randomly switch back and forth between runs and tumbles. B) The bacteria will only exhibit runs away from the chemical. C) The bacteria will reduce tumbling frequency. D) The bacteria will reduce run duration in the direction of the chemical. E) The bacteria will both reduce tumbling frequency and increase run duration in the direction of the chemical.

71)

How do spheroplasts and protoplasts differ? A) Spheroplasts retain the peptidoglycan but protoplasts do not. B) Spheroplasts retain their outer membrane but protoplasts do not. C) There is no difference; these terms are synonyms. D) Spheroplasts form from cocci and protoplasts form from bacilli.

72) A pathogenic bacterial species has mutated and is no longer able to synthesize a capsule. Which outcome would you predict?

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A) The mutated bacteria will be more virulent. B) The mutated bacteria will not be able to cause disease as readily. C) The mutated bacteria will be protected from plasmolysis in hypertonic environments. D) The mutated bacteria will undergo osmotic lysis in hypotonic environments.

73) Which of the following statements is false regarding why some scientists believe that the term “prokaryote” is a somewhat artificial designation ? A) Some bacteria have internal membranous structures B) Some bacteria have their genetic material enclosed within a membrane C) Some bacteria have 80S ribosomes D) Many bacteria have cytoskeletal elements

74) A strain of Neisseria gonorrhoeae has undergone a mutation and is no longer able to make pili. Predict the most likely outcome. A) The bacterial strain will no longer be able to transport certain sugars into the cell. B) The bacteria will become more virulent and will more readily establish infection. C) The bacteria will become more resistant to antibiotics. D) The bacteria will become less virulent and will not be able to readily establish infection.

75) Predict the change in surface area and volume of a spherical cell if the diameter of the cell doubles.

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A) The surface area will increase by a factor of 4, while the volume will increase by a factor of 8. B) The surface area will increase by a factor of 8 while the volume will increase by a factor of 4. C) The surface area and volume will both increase by a factor of 4. D) The surface area will increase by a factor of 2 and the volume will increase by a factor of 4.

76) A new protein has been described that transports a growth factor across the plasma membrane. This protein is most likely a(n) _________blank. A) peripheral membrane protein, facing outward B) peripheral membrane protein, facing the cytoplasmic side C) integral membrane protein D) cytoplasmic protein

77) Which bacterial structure may survive if temperatures applied during food preservation processes are too low? A) Flagella B) Endospores C) Plasma membranes D) Ribosomes

78) Which of the following contribute to the environmental resistance of bacterial endospores?

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A) Spore coat B) Low water content of endospore C) Presence of calcium dipicolinate D) Lower pH E) All of the choices are correct.

79) Which of the following is not part of the process by which an endospore transforms to become a vegetative cell? A) Germination B) Activation C) Induction D) Outgrowth

80) Structural differences between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria are observed following the Gram-staining procedure since_________blank. A) the thick layer of peptidoglycan in Gram-positive bacteria is dehydrated during the alcohol step, thus acting as an impermeability barrier retaining the crystal violet/iodine complex B) the thick layer of peptidoglycan in Gram-negative bacteria is dehydrated during the alcohol step, thus acting as an impermeability barrier retaining the purple stain C) the thin layer of peptidoglycan in Gram-positive bacteria is dehydrated during the alcohol step, thus acting as an impermeability barrier allowing the stain to wash out D) the thin layer of peptidoglycan in Gram-negative bacteria is dissolved during the alcohol step, thus acting as an impermeability barrier allowing the crystal violet/iodine complex to be retained

81) Which of the following statements is false regarding the differences between bacterial and eukaryotic cytoskeletal proteins?

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A) Eukaryotic cells have cytoskeletal fibers comprised of tubulin and actin proteins, whereas bacterial cells lack cytoskeletal proteins. B) Proteins in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells are structurally similar to the tubulin and actin found in eukaryotic cells. C) Cytoskeletal proteins in both eukaryotes and bacteria function in cell division, protein localization, and determination of cell shape. D) The bacterial protein FtsZ is a homologue of the eukaryotic protein tubulin, and MreB and Mbl are homologues of actin.

82) Discovery of the bacterial cytoskeletal protein FtsZ provided an important link in the evolution of cells since_________blank. A) is was also discovered in mitochondria and chloroplasts B) it is unrelated to any eukaryotic proteins C) it has no known function D) it is only present inE. coli

83) One benefit of transporting molecules via outer membrane vesicles and extracellular vesicles versus a typical section system is that_________blank. A) the vesicle contents are protected by the lipid bilayer that surrounds them, extending their viability outside of the cell B) it requires much less energy to transport the molecules in vesicles than it does to operate a secretion system C) transporting from one cell to another via a vesicle occurs at a much faster rate D) vesicles form regardless of the environmental conditions that surround the cell

84)

Extracellular vesicles formed by Gram-positive cells are_________blank.

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A) cytoplasm surrounded by plasma membrane B) peptidoglycan and plasma membrane surrounding the cytoplasm C) LPS, which surrounds the periplasm D) outer membrane, plasma membrane, and cytoplasm

85)

Which of the following statements is true regarding pili and flagella assembly?

A) Pili grow when protein subunits are added to the base, whereas flagellin proteins are added to the tip of the flagella during growth. B) Pili grow when protein subunits are added to the tip, whereas flagellin proteins are added to the base of the flagella during growth. C) Pili and flagella are synthesized in a similar fashion; the proteins are produced internally then added to the base of the growing appendage. D) Pili and flagella are synthesized in a similar, complex manner; approximately 20 different proteins are made inside the cell then secreted to extend the tip of the appendage.

86) Which of the following doesnot contribute to packaging the relatively large bacterial chromosome into the nucleoid region of the cell? A) Supercoiling B) Nucleoid-associated proteins C) Macromolecular crowding D) Thymine-rich domains

87) In order to fit the large bacterial chromosome into a relatively smaller space, it must be tightly packaged. What is the limiting factor in the process?

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A) It cannot be so tightly packaged that it cannot be replicated and transcribed. B) It cannot be so tightly packaged that mutations occur. C) It cannot be so tightly packaged that the DNA double helix is disrupted. D) They cannot be so tightly packaged that the cell density prevents binary fission.

88) Sterol-like molecules called hopanoids are thought to be important for the structural integrity of many bacteria because of their suspected role in membrane stabilization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) The cell membrane is a rigid structure that provides bacteria with their characteristic shapes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) Gram-positive bacteria have a thinner layer of peptidoglycan than Gram-negative bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Gram-positive bacteria have a structurally and chemically more complex cell wall than Gram-negative bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

92) Bacteria growing at lower temperatures have more saturated fatty acids in their membranes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Prokaryotes were once described based on structures that were present in eukaryotes, but absent in prokaryotes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Growth factors are molecules that cannot be synthesized by the bacteria that use them and include amino acids, pyrimidines, and vitamins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) If you remove the peptidoglycan layer from a Gram-positive cell, it would still stain purple with a Gram stain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96) The layers of peptidoglycan of the bacterial cell wall can be cross-linked by peptide intrabridges or by direct cross-linking. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Some photosynthetic aquatic bacteria produce gas vacuoles that lack a lipid-bound membrane in order to regulate their buoyancy.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Sedimentation coefficients are proportional to the molecular weight of a particle and are not affected by the volume and shape of the particle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) During the assembly of the flagellar filament, the flagellin protein monomers assemble from the base of the flagellum within the cell envelope. ⊚ ⊚

100)

true false

The rotation of bacterial flagella is powered by ATP hydrolysis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) The trace amounts of micronutrients needed by microorganisms are usually supplied as inadvertent contaminants in water and regular media components. ⊚ ⊚

102)

true false

Zinc (Zn) is considered a macronutrient. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

103)

Copper (Cu) is considered a micronutrient. ⊚ ⊚

104)

Sulfur can be obtained from inorganic sources only. ⊚ ⊚

105)

true false

Nitrogen can be obtained from either organic or inorganic sources. ⊚ ⊚

107)

true false

Phosphorus can be obtained from organic sources only. ⊚ ⊚

106)

true false

Organisms usually have only a single transport system for any nutrient. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) Different transport systems for the same nutrient that are part of the same organism are usually regulated in different ways.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

109) Permease proteins that aid in the transport of nutrients resemble enzymes in their specificity for the substance to be transported. Each carrier is selective and will transport only a closely related set of substances. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) The extreme insolubility of ferric iron leaves little free iron available for transport into bacterial cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Endotoxic shock, resulting from the release of endotoxin by bacteria infecting a patient, is only caused by Gram-negative bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

112)

Endospores are reproductive structures. ⊚ true ⊚ false

113) The original differentiation of prokaryotes and eukaryotes was based on structures found in prokaryotes that are lacking in eukaryotes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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114) Membrane vesicles are used to transport material between cells as an alternative to protein secretion systems. Regardless of the nature of the bacterial envelope, all vesicles are produced by the same mechanism. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Extracellular vesicles (EVs) derived from Gram-negative bacteria differ from those originating in Gram-positive bacteria in that Gram-positive EVs contain peptidoglycan, whereas those from Gram-negative organisms lack peptidoglycan. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_12e_Willey 1) staphylococci 2) pleomorphic 3) mycelium 4) hyphae 5) spheroplast 6) [hydrophilic, hydrophobic] 7) slime 8) capsule 9) Siderophores 10) macronutrients 11) dipicolinic acid 12) fluid mosaic 13) inclusions 14) nucleoid 15) plasmids 16) magnetosomes 17) Ribosomes 18) [basal, filament] 19) [pili, fimbriae] 20) run 21) axial 22) Sporulation 23) Germination 24) Growth factors 25) vitamins 26) siderophores Version 1

27) [symport, antiport] 28) Permeases 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) C 37) B 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) D 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) B 51) C 52) D 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) C Version 1

57) D 58) C 59) D 60) B 61) D 62) B 63) A 64) D 65) D 66) A 67) C 68) C 69) C 70) E 71) B 72) B 73) C 74) D 75) A 76) C 77) B 78) E 79) C 80) A 81) A 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) D Version 1

87) A 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE 113) FALSE 114) FALSE 115) FALSE

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CHAPTER 04 – 12e 1) Molecules or regions of molecules that readily interact with water are said to be_________blank, whereas molecules or regions of molecules that are insoluble in water or do not readily interact with water are said to be_________blank.

2) A(n)_________blank is a layer of protein or glycoprotein that exhibits a pattern resembling floor tiles.

3) _________blank is a peptidoglycan-like molecule found in the cell walls of some archaea.

_________blank are the site of protein synthesis in the cell.

External structures that are found in archaea but not bacteria are _________blank. A) pili B) flagella C) hami D) peptidoglycan

A feature unique to some archaeal plasma membranes is that they may_________blank.

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A) consist of a lipid bilayer that lacks integral membrane proteins B) consist of a lipid bilayer with embedded proteins C) contain sterols such as cholesterol D) consist of a lipid monolayer

7) Bacterial and archaeal ribosomes are known as_________blank ribosomes, based on their sedimentation coefficient. A) 50S B) 30S C) 80S D) 70S

Which statement correctly describes archaeal cell walls?

A) Some have an outer layer of complex polysaccharide. B) Some have an outer layer of protein. C) Many have peptidoglycan. D) Some have an outer layer of complex polysaccharide and some have an outer layer of protein.

Which of the following is not true about archaeal ribosomes?

A) They are 70S like bacterial ribosomes. B) They may possess ribosome binding sites homologous to bacterial Shine-Dalgarno sequences. C) They have similar antibiotic sensitivities to those of bacteria. D) Differences in rRNA nucleotide sequences led to the division of the prokaryotes into two separate taxa.

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10) The primary lipid components of the membranes of extreme thermophiles are_________blank. A) sulfolipids B) cholesterol C) 40 carbon diglycerol tetraethers D) 20 carbon diglycerol diethers

11)

Archaeal membranes contain which of the following lipids? A) Phospholipids B) Sulfolipids C) Glycolipids D) All of the choices are correct.

12) The Archaea generally lack which of the following that are normally found in Gramnegative bacteria? A) Outer membrane B) A complex peptidoglycan network C) Lipopolysaccharide D) All of the choices are correct.

13) Which of the following contribute(s) to the differences between the members of the Domain Archaea and the Domain Bacteria?

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A) Archaea lack muramic acid. B) Archaea have isopranyl glycerol ethers rather than fatty acid esters in their membrane lipids. C) Archaea differ from bacteria in their tRNA composition, ribosome structure, and antibiotic sensitivity. D) All of the choices are correct.

14)

Archaeal cell walls_________blank. A) are disrupted by treatment with lysozyme or penicillin B) are similar to those of Gram-negative bacteria C) lack murein and D-amino acids D) are unlike bacterial cells; they all have the same composition

15)

Diglycerol tetraether lipids_________blank. A) are a characteristic feature of thermophilic Archaea B) tend to make the membrane less rigid C) are found in some bacteria and some Archaea D) form typical bilayer membranes in thermophilic Archaea of the genus Thermoplasma

16) The cell membranes of archaeons that lack a cell wall are strengthened by_________blank. A) diglycerol ethers B) glycoprotein or protein layers C) pseudomurein D) diglycerol tetraethers

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17)

Which of the following structures are external to both bacterial and archaeal cells? A) Ribosomes B) Hami C) Pili D) Peptidoglycan

18) Penicillin inhibits bacterial growth by preventing cross-linking during peptidoglycan synthesis. Why does penicillin not inhibit the growth of archaeal cells? A) Archaeal cells do not have a cell wall. B) Most archaeal cells have a cell wall, but it is not composed of peptidoglycan. C) Penicillin is unable to penetrate the lipid outer membrane that blocks access of penicillin to the peptidogycan crosslinking enzymes. D) Pencillin is unable to penetrate the S layer to reach the peptidoglycan layer underneath.

19) One type of archaeon, Haloquadratum walsbyi, is shaped like a postage stamp with dimensions of 2 µm x 3 µm x 0.25 µm. What advantage would this shape provide? A) This shape enables these bacteria to float on surfaces and obtain better light exposure. B) This shape increases the surface-to-volume ratio enabling more efficient nutrient uptake. C) This shape is difficult for phagocytic cells to attach to and engulf. D) This shape is more conducive to the formation of biofilm communities.

20) Which cellular shape is seen among members of domain Bacteria that is not found among the domain Archaea?

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A) Cocci B) Bacilli C) Comma-shaped D) Spiral or corkscrew shapes

21) You are studying a newly discovered prokaryotic microorganism and are attempting to determine whether it will be classified in the domain Bacteria or in the domain Archaea. All of the following would be helpful in making that distinction except _________blank. A) sequence of small subunit ribosomal RNA B) type of membrane lipids C) presence or absence of peptidoglycan in cell walls D) presence or absence of double-stranded circular DNA genome

22)

Which of the following is the most unique aspect of archaeon cell envelopes? A) The plasma membrane is composed of phospholipids. B) The cell walls contain a modified type of peptidoglycan. C) Archaeon capsules can be composed of protein or polysaccharide. D) Some archaeons have lipid monolayers in their plasma membrane.

23) Which type of membrane transport is most important for nutrient acquisition in nutrientpoor environments? A) Simple diffusion B) Facilitated diffusion through channel proteins C) Facilitated diffusion through membrane carrier proteins D) Active transport

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24)

Which statement correctly explains the Gram-stain reaction of archaeal cells?

A) They are Gram-positive due to the pseudomurein layer in their cell walls. B) They are Gram-negative due to the lack of peptidoglycan in their cell walls. C) They don’t stain – basic dyes used in the Gram stain don’t adhere to archaeal cells. D) Some are Gram-positive and some are Gram-negative due to the diverse chemical structure.

25)

Select the correct statement about archaeal ribosomes.

A) Archaeal ribosomal proteins are more similar to bacterial ribosomal proteins than to eukaryotic ribosomal proteins. B) Archaeal ribosomes are susceptible to antibiotics, similar to bacterial ribosomes. C) Archaeal ribosomes have subunits that are identical in shape and chemical components to those of bacteria. D) The chemical components of archaean ribosomes are more similar to those of eukaryotic ribosomes than to those of bacterial ribosomes.

26) In order to distinguish them from bacterial flagella, archaeal flagella have been renamed as archaella because _________blank. A) they are more slender than bacterial flagella B) some archaeon flagella don’t have hooks C) archaean flagella are solid and not hollow D) archaean flagella are composed of more than one type of flagellin subunit E) All of the choices are correct.

27) _________blank are hollow tube-like structures that hold some archaeal daughter cells together after cell division while _________blank are grappling hook-like structures that appear to attach archaeal cells to surfaces.

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A) Pili; hami B) Cannulae; hami C) Hami; fimbriae D) Cannulae; pili

28) You are working with a newly described microorganism that has flagella that are solid, 10 nm in diameter, and composed of more than one type of flagellin subunit. Based on the type of flagella, which type of organism is this? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Protozoa D) Algae

29) Archaea often live in nutrient-poor environments. In order to ensure survival, they must_________blank. A) accumulate nutrients inside the cell at higher concentrations than the external environment, which requires active transport mechanisms B) acquire nutrients inside the cell at lower concentrations than the external environment, which requires passive transport mechanisms C) transport nutrients to the outside of the cell by facilitated diffusion D) develop metabolic pathways to synthesize their own nutrients using cytoplasmic molecules

30) A fundamental difference between bacterial and archaeal membranes is that_________blank.

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A) bacterial membranes are always comprised of phospholipid bilayers, whereas archaeal membranes can be bilayers or monolayers B) the phospholipids in archaea are comprised of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids vs. two fatty acids in bacteria C) archaeal membranes must be able to solidify due to the extreme habitats the organisms occupy D) archaeal membranes have a hydrophobic exterior and a hydrophilic interior vs. the reverse in bacterial membranes

31)

Cell walls of most archaea and bacteria contain peptidoglycan. ⊚ ⊚

true false

32) The hydrocarbons found in the membranes of archaea are identical to those found in bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

33) Archaeal flagella (archaella) are superficially similar to bacterial flagella, although archaella are much thicker than bacterial flagella. ⊚ ⊚

true false

34) The DNA of some archaeons is stabilized by association with archaeal histone proteins forming particles resembling eukaryotic nucleosomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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35)

Many archaeal genomes include chromosomes and plasmids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

36)

Some archaeons are symbionts in animal digestive tracts. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37)

Some archaeal cells lack a cell wall. ⊚ ⊚

38)

true false

Unlike members of domain Bacteria, most archaeans have linear chromosomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Methanogens may contribute to the greenhouse effect and global warming due to methane production. ⊚ ⊚

40)

true false

Archaeal and bacterial pili are identical in structure and function. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

41) In terms of membrane lipids, the plasma membranes of archaeons are more similar to those of the eukaryotes than to membranes of bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Archaeons power their flagella by proton motive force (PMF), whereas bacteria empower their flagella by ATP hydrolysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_12e_Willey 1) [hydrophilic, hydrophobic] 2) S-layer 3) Pseudomurein 4) Ribosomes 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) C 11) D 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) D 24) D 25) D 26) E Version 1

27) B 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) FALSE 32) FALSE 33) FALSE 34) TRUE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE

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CHAPTER 05 – 12e 1)

Which of the following eukaryotes typically have cell walls? (Check all that apply.) A) Algae B) Protozoa C) Fungi D) Animals E) Plants

2) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) with many ribosomes attached is called_________blank ER, whereas endoplasmic reticulum that is mostly devoid of ribosomes is called_________blank ER.

3) Ribosomes synthesizing proteins that are to be excreted are located on the_________blank.

4) The inner membrane system of chloroplasts consists of flattened sacs called_________blank that form stacks called_________blank.

5) Long filaments containing microtubules and used for cellular locomotion are called_________blank, whereas short fibers containing microtubules and used for cellular locomotion are called_________blank.

6) Cilia beat with two distinctive phases. With the_________blank stroke, they stroke like an oar, thereby propelling the organism through the water. With the_________blank stroke, cilia bend along their length while they are pulled forward.

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7) Eukaryotic ribosomes may be free in the cytoplasm or attached to the_________blank_________blank.

The region of the cell bounded by the plasma membrane is the _________blank.

9) Membrane delimited intracellular structures that perform specific functions in cells are called_________blank. A) organelles B) organs C) tissues D) systomis

10) The plasma membrane of eukaryotes contains all of the following except _________blank. A) phosphoglycerides B) sphingolipids C) sterols D) peptidoglycan

11)

Microdomains in eukaryotic plasma membranes can participate in_________blank.

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A) cell movement B) cell division C) signal transduction D) All of the choices are correct.

12)

The liquid component of the cytoplasm is known as the_________blank. A) thylakoid B) cytosol C) cytoskeleton D) stroma

13) Protein filaments with a diameter of 4–7 nm that play a role in cell movement and shape change are called_________blank. A) microtubules B) microfilaments C) intermediate filaments D) mycelia

14) Protein filaments with a diameter of about 10 nm that are major components of the cytoskeleton are called_________blank. A) microtubules B) microfilaments C) intermediate filaments D) mycelia

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15) A filamentous organelle comprised of tubulins with a diameter of 25 nm is called_________blank. A) microtubule B) microfilament C) intermediate filament D) mycelia

16)

The endoplasmic reticulum is composed of flattened sacs called_________blank. A) thylakoids B) cristae C) cisternae D) vacuomes

17) The process by which a cell imports large particles by enclosing them in vesicles pinched off from the plasma membrane is called_________blank. A) exocytosis B) phagocytosis C) pinocytosis D) nutrient cytosis

18)

The Golgi apparatus is responsible for the_________blank.

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A) the assembly of ribosomes B) packaging of materials for excretion C) formation of mesosomes D) replication of chromosomes

19)

A lysosome containing undigested material is called_________blank. A) a phagosome B) an endosome C) a residual body D) a coated vesicle

20) Which of the following organelles is involved in the modification, packaging, and secretion of materials? A) Lysosomes B) Golgi apparatus C) Mitochondria D) Centrioles

21)

Enzymes needed to hydrolyze all types of macromolecules are found in_________blank. A) lysosomes B) Golgi apparatus C) mitochondria D) centrioles

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22)

Proteins are synthesized on structures called_________blank. A) mesosomes B) lysosomes C) ribosomes D) chromosomes

23)

The major site of cell membrane synthesis is the_________blank. A) nucleus B) plasma membrane C) lysosome D) endoplasmic reticulum

24)

Which of the following parts of the Golgi complex receives materials from the ER? A) Cis face B) Trans face C) Cisternal edges D) None of the choices are correct.

25)

Receptor-mediated endocytosis_________blank.

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A) depends on the formation of clathrin-coated pits that pinch off B) is used to internalize molecules such as hormones, growth factors, iron, and cholesterol C) involves the formation of caveolae that are enriched in cholesterol and caveolin D) is typically used to internalize plasma membranes added by exocytosis E) depends on the formation of clathrin-coated pits that pinch off and is used to internalize molecules such as hormones, growth factors, iron, and cholesterol

26) The Golgi apparatus is comprised of flattened, saclike structures called_________blank, which may be clustered in one region or scattered throughout the cell. A) cristae B) thylakoids C) cisternae D) vesiculae

27)

Stacks of cisternae in the Golgi apparatus are referred to as_________blank. A) stigmata B) golgisomes C) dictyosomes D) lamellisomes

28) The nucleolar organizer is a part of a specific chromosome that directs the synthesis of_________blank.

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A) transfer RNA (tRNA) B) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) C) messenger RNA (mRNA) D) heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)

29) A(n)_________blank is a special type of lysosome used by a cell to selectively digest and recycle cytoplasmic contents, such as mitochondria. A) suicide vacuole B) turnover lysosome C) recycling vacuole D) autophagosome

30)

The nucleolus plays a major role in synthesis of_________blank. A) mRNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) transcription activation proteins

31)

Which of the following is a function of the mitochondrion? A) Tricarboxylic acid cycle enzyme reactions B) Electron transport C) ATP synthesis D) All of the choices are correct.

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32) The organelle responsible for harvesting light as an energy source for photosynthesis is the_________blank. A) kinetoplast B) centriole C) chloroplast D) mitochondrion

33) The enzymes and electron carriers involved in electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation are located in the_________blank membrane of the mitochondrion. A) inner B) outer C) inner and outer D) neither inner nor outer

34) The formation of carbohydrate (CO2 fixation) in the dark reaction of photosynthesis, takes place in the_________blank. A) stroma B) cytoplasm C) thylakoid membrane D) nucleus

35) The light reactions of photosynthesis, which form ATP and NADPH, take place in the_________blank.

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A) stroma B) cytoplasm C) thylakoid membrane D) nucleus

36)

Construction of flagella and/or cilia is directed by the_________blank. A) axoneme B) tubulin C) centriole D) basal body

37) An arrangement of microtubules located in the matrix of cilia and flagella is called the_________blank. A) axial bundle B) axial filament C) axoneme D) axillary tubule

38)

Flimmer filaments_________blank. A) permit flagella to pull rather than push the cell B) function to move cells on solid surfaces C) are components of all eukaryotic flagella D) are found on whiplash flagella

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39) Which of the following is useful in distinguishing between bacterial, archaeal, and eukaryotic cells? A) The use of DNA for the storage of genetic information B) The presence of ribosomes for the synthesis of proteins C) The presence of membrane-delimited organelles within the cytoplasm D) All of the choices are correct.

40) The most important distinguishing feature of eukaryotes that is lacking in bacteria and archaea is _________blank. A) the presence of a cell wall in eukaryotes B) the cell respiration process which is fundamentally different in bacteria and archaea C) the DNA replication mechanism D) the division of the cell into compartments that are bound by membranes

41) All of the following processes are located within a membranous structure except _________blank. A) cell respiration – electron transport chain B) photosynthesis – light reactions C) intracellular digestion of food particles D) protein synthesis (translation)

42)

Which mechanism of nutrient acquisition occurs in eukaryotes but is not seen in bacteria? A) Simple diffusion B) Facilitated diffusion C) Endocytosis D) Active transport E) Group translocation

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43) A drug, colchicine, can be added to cells in culture and it stops the polymerization of microtubules. What effect would this have on mitosis? A) It would speed up mitosis by increasing the rate of DNA replication. B) It would slow or block mitosis by preventing DNA replication. C) It would slow or block mitosis by interfering with the spindle apparatus function. D) It would speed up mitosis by increasing the elongation rate of the dividing cell.

44)

Food vacuoles and phagocytic vacuoles are most similar to _________blank. A) mitochondria B) chloroplasts C) lysosomes D) Golgi apparatus

45) Each of the following plays a role in the recycling of proteins in a cell except _________blank. A) ubiquitin B) proteasomes C) ATP D) clathrin

46)

Endocytic events _________blank. A) add membrane to the cell surface B) remove the membrane from the cell surface C) have no effect on the plasma membrane D) change the membrane composition

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47)

Which of the following must leave the nucleus via the nuclear pore complexes? A) Immature ribosomal subunits B) tRNA C) mRNA D) Immature ribosomal subunits, tRNA, and mRNA

48)

Which of the following is most likely synthesized on free ribosomes? A) Polypeptide chains that form enzymes that function in glycolysis B) Electron carriers of the electron transport chain C) Polypeptide chains that form immunoglobulin molecules D) Lysosomal enzymes

49) In eukaryotic cells, the enzymes involved in the tricarboxylic acid cycle (Kreb’s cycle) are located _________blank. A) in the cytoplasm B) in the outer mitochondrial membrane C) in the inner mitochondrial membrane D) in the matrix of the mitochondria E) in the cristae

50) Which of the following are characteristics of hydrogenosomes that distinguish them from mitochondria? A) Hydrogenosomes generate ATP by fermentation. B) The inner membrane of hydrogenosomes is not highly folded. C) Hydrogenosomes have no DNA. D) All of the choices are correct.

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51) A newly discovered microorganism has a circular chromosome that is complexed with histones but not enclosed within a membrane. The plasma membrane lipids include glycerol dietethers and diglycerol tetraethers. There are no mitochondria or chloroplasts, but the cells do contain 70s ribosomes. This microbe most likely is _________blank. A) a bacterium B) an archaeon C) a protozoan D) a fungus

52) A newly discovered unicellular microbe has a nucleus containing linear chromosomes and is surrounded by a membrane. It has mitochondria, 80s ribosomes, and is covered by cilia. There is no cell wall external to the plasma membrane. This organism most likely would be a/an _________blank. A) bacterium B) archaeon C) protozoan D) fungus E) algae

53) Which cell type ranges in size from about 10–100 µm, has 80s ribosomes, and has internal compartments bounded by membranes? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya

54)

Which types of eukaryotic cells have cell walls composed of cellulose?

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A) Algae B) Fungi C) Plants D) Protozoa E) Both algae and plants

55)

Where is the glycolysis pathway located in a cell?

A) Cristae of the mitochondria B) Matrix of the mitoconddria C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) Cytoplasm

56)

Which of the following has flagella that wave back and forth? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya

57)

Which of the following has flagella that contain microtubules? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya

58) The evolution of membrane-bound organelles and thus compartmentalization within eukaryotic cells likely arose due to all of the followingexcept _________blank. Version 1

A) the need to increase surface area to maximize those processes that take place in a membrane, such as oxidative phosphorylation B) the need to spatially separate simultaneous processes in order to ensure independent control C) the need to increase the overall amount of cell membrane to maximize efficiency of transport systems D) the need to prevent mixing of cellular macromolecules such as proteins and polysaccharides

59)

Mitochondria differ from hydrogenosomes in that_________blank.

A) pyruvate is catabolized as a continuation of the respiratory pathway in mitochondria, whereas in hydrogenosomes, fermentation takes place B) mitochondria have a double membrane system, whereas hydrogenosomes have only a single membrane C) mitochondria generate ATP, whereas hydrogenosomes generate NADH D) mitochondria are found in eukaryotic cells, whereas hydrogenosomes are found in bacteria and archaea

60) Which of the following statements is true regarding formation of both microvesicles and exosomes? A) Both form when the cell membrane pinches off, surrounding the contents in a lipid bilayer. B) Both form when vesicle contents bud out from the outer membrane. C) Both form in a multi-step process of fusing and pinching across the intracellular membranes. D) Both originate in endosomes within the host cell cytoplasm.

61)

The distribution of lipids in the plasma membrane of eukaryotes is symmetrical.

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⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

Like prokaryotic cells, most eukaryotic cells have an external cell wall. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Lysosomes maintain an acidic environment by actively pumping protons into their interior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) The endoplasmic reticulum is mostly devoid of ribosomes (smooth ER) when cells are producing large quantities of lipid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Coated pits containing clathrin do not permit concentration of ingested macromolecules prior to endocytosis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) The membrane-bound structure that contains the chromosomes of eukaryotes is called the nucleus. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

67) Although similar in function, the eukaryotic ribosome is generally smaller and more complex than bacterial and archaeal ribosomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) The nucleolus is a highly active region of the nucleus that is the site of ribosomal synthesis. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

Chloroplasts are the site for both the light and dark reactions of photosynthesis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) The majority of mitochondrial proteins are manufactured under the direction of the nuclear DNA by cytoplasmic ribosomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Electron transport reactions that occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotes take place on the inner membrane of that structure. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

72) The genetic code is expressed differently in bacterial and archaeal cells than in eukaryotic cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) The major difference between the vacuoles of eukaryotes and the inclusion bodies of bacteria and archaea is that the former are membrane-bound, whereas the latter are not. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74) Eukaryotes usually have more than one chromosome for the storage of genetic information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) A eukaryotic flagellum can either push a cell through a liquid environment or pull it through depending on the undulating pattern of movement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) Microvesicles and exosomes are both membrane-bound extracellular vesicles. They differ in that microvesicles are surrounded by a portion of the outer cell membrane following exocytosis, whereas exosomes form when an endomembrane pinches off inwardly. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_12e_Willey 1) [A, C, E] 2) [rough, smooth] 3) endoplasmic reticulum 4) [thylakoids, grana] 5) [flagella, cilia] 6) [effective, recovery] 7) endoplasmic reticulum 8) cytoplasm 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) E 26) C Version 1

27) C 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) C 38) A 39) C 40) D 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) D 48) A 49) D 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) C 54) E 55) D 56) C Version 1

57) C 58) D 59) A 60) A 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE

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CHAPTER 06 – 12e 1) _________blank are glycoprotein spikes that protrude from the outer surface of the viral envelope.

2) Icosahedral viruses are constructed from ring- or knob-shaped units called_________blank.

Viruses that are polyhedrons with 20 sides are said to have_________blank symmetry.

4) Some viruses cause abnormal growth of cells rather than destruction. This is called_________blank.

5) Microscopic or macroscopic degenerative changes or abnormalities in infected host cells and tissues are called_________blank_________blank.

6) Localized areas of destruction occurring on plants that have been infected by a virus are referred to as_________blank lesions.

7) Viruses can infect all known cell types. Specifically, the viruses that infect bacterial cells are called_________blank.

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Which isnot true of viruses? A) They can exist in an intracellular or extracellular phase. B) They infect animal and plant cells only. C) They can be observed with an electron microscope. D) They are acellular. E) They replicate only inside host cells.

Which of the following is true of viruses in the extracellular phase?

A) They possess many different enzymes. B) They can reproduce independently of living cells but only at a slow rate. C) They behave as a macromolecular complex and are no more alive than are ribosomes. D) They possess many different enzymes and they can reproduce independently of living cells but only at a slow rate.

10)

A complete virus particle is called a_________blank. A) capsid B) nucleocapsid C) virion D) cell

11)

The nucleic acids carried by viruses usually consist of_________blank. A) DNA B) RNA C) either DNA or RNA D) both DNA and RNA simultaneously

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12)

Which of the following isnot true of viruses?

A) Viruses are acellular. B) Viruses consist of one or more molecules of DNA or RNA enclosed in a coat of protein and sometimes in other more complex layers. C) Viruses can exist in two phases: intracellular and extracellular. D) Viruses replicate by binary fission.

13)

Virus morphology does not include which of the following characteristics? A) Size B) Shape C) Presence or absence of an envelope D) Host range

14)

The simplest viruses consist of_________blank. A) RNA only B) protein only C) RNA or DNA in a protein coat D) RNA or DNA in a protein coat covered with a lipid envelope E) RNA, DNA, and enzymes in a protein coat with a lipid envelope

15)

Viral capsid protein subunits are called_________blank.

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A) auxomers B) elastomers C) protomers D) viromers

16) In an enveloped virus, the part of the virus including the nucleic acid genome and the surrounding protein coat but not the envelope is called the_________blank. A) capsid B) nucleocapsid C) matrix D) virion

17) Some complex viruses have icosahedral symmetry in the head region and helical symmetry in the tail. Overall, these viruses are said to have_________blank symmetry. A) bilateral B) binal C) complex D) radial

18) Glycoprotein spikes protruding from the outer surface of viral envelopes function as_________blank. A) toxins B) factors that bind to host cells C) cell lysis factors D) factors needed for site-specific recombination

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19) A_________blank genome exists as several separate, nonidentical molecules that may be packaged together or separately. A) diploid B) segmented C) polyploid D) fractionated

20)

Many of the enzymes found in virus particles are_________blank. A) required for viral attachment to host cells B) involved in viral entry into host cells C) involved in the replication of viral nucleic acid D) All of the choices are correct.

21)

Which of the following is/arenot true about viral envelopes?

A) The envelope proteins are virus-specific. B) The envelope lipids and carbohydrates are derived from the host. C) They are typical lipid monolayers with embedded viral proteins. D) The envelope proteins are virus-specific and the envelope lipids and carbohydrates are derived from the host.

22)

Viral envelopes are composed of_________blank.

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A) proteins B) lipids C) carbohydrates D) All of the choices are correct.

23)

Two major types of symmetry found in viruses include_________blank. A) icosahedral and radial B) icosahedral and helical C) helical and radial D) radial and bilateral

24)

The function of the viral protein coat is to_________blank.

A) protect the viral genetic material B) aid in the transfer of the viral genetic material between host cells C) elicit the production of protective antibodies D) protect the viral genetic material and aid in the transfer of the viral genetic material between host cells

25)

The protein coat surrounding the viral genome is called the_________blank. A) capsule B) capsid C) matrix D) envelope

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26)

Which of the following is true of a viral DNA genome?

A) It uses the same four nitrogenous bases found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA. B) It may have the normal bases found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA, or it may have one or more unusual bases. C) It is usually composed of unusual bases unique to viruses. D) Viruses use only RNA for their genome.

27)

Virion size ranges from_________blank. A) 1–40 nm B) 10–400 nm C) 600–1,000 nm D) 1,000–10,000 nm

28) Viral capsids are generally constructed without any outside aid once the subunits have been synthesized. This process is called_________blank. A) facilitated assembly B) self-assembly C) spontaneous maturation D) self-maturation

29) In which of the following stages of the viral infectious cycle do enveloped viruses usually acquire their envelopes?

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A) Penetration B) Component biosynthesis C) Assembly D) Release

30)

Most enveloped viruses use the host_________blank membrane as their envelope source. A) plasma B) nuclear C) mitochondrial D) None of these choices are correct.

31)

Poliovirus receptors are found_________blank. A) in cells of all tissues B) in the spinal cord anterior horn cells only C) in the nasopharynx, gut, and spinal cord anterior horn cells D) in gut cells only

32)

Nonenveloped viruses most often gain access to eukaryotic host cells by_________blank.

A) fusion with the host cell plasma membrane followed by entrance of the nucleocapsid into the cytoplasm B) endocytosis C) pinocytosis D) nucleic acid injection through the plasma membrane

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33) Which of the following represent(s) the way(s) in which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes? A) Budding through the plasma membrane. B) Budding through internal cellular membranes. C) Viral enzymes are responsible for production of the envelope. D) Some viruses bud through the plasma membrane while others bud through internal cellular membranes.

34)

Animal viruses have been cultivated in_________blank. A) suitable host animals B) embryonated eggs C) tissue cultures (monolayers of animal cells) D) All of the choices are correct.

35)

Which of the following can be used to cultivate plant viruses? A) Cultures of separated plant cells B) Whole plants C) Plant protoplast cultures D) All of the choices are correct.

36) 0.2 mls of a 10-4 dilution of a virus preparation yields 90 plaques. What is the number of plaque-forming units (PFUs) per ml in the undiluted virus preparation? A) 9.0 × 105 B) 4.5 × 106 C) 4.5 × 107 D) 9.0 × 108

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37) A _________blank assay is most useful for determining the viability of a viral preparation. A) direct (electron microscopic) count B) hemagglutination C) plaque D) PCR

38) Which of the following isnot a mechanism by which viruses cause cancer in eukaryotic animal cells? A) They carry a cancer-causing gene into the cell. B) They encode proteins that bind to and inactivate host cell proteins known as tumor suppressor proteins. C) They produce defective interfering particles. D) An expression of viral proteins results in abnormal expression of genes that regulate cell growth and reproduction.

39)

Which of the following isnot true of viroids? A) Viroids are small circular ssRNA molecules. B) Viroids have no protein capsids. C) Viroid RNA does not serve as mRNA nor does it direct the synthesis of mRNA. D) Extracellular viroids have a lipid bilayer envelope.

40)

Viroids are of economic significance because they cause disease in_________blank.

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A) plants B) animals C) humans D) All of the choices are correct.

41)

Viroids are_________blank. A) proteins that may infect man and other animals causing spongiform encephalopathy B) a class of so-called slow viruses C) a new class of small single-stranded DNA viruses that infect some animals D) short infectious single-stranded RNAs that can infect some plants

42)

Prions are of significance because they cause infections of_________blank. A) domestic animals and humans B) plants C) fungi D) prokaryotes

43)

Which of the following diseases is (are) caused by prions? A) Scrapie B) Mad cow disease C) Kuru and Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease D) All of the choices are correct.

44)

Which virion release process is most often used by enveloped viruses?

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A) Lysis B) Facilitated diffusion C) Budding D) Diffusion through a channel protein

45)

Which type of virus is most likely to be released by lysis of the host cell? A) Enveloped virus B) Nonenveloped virus

46)

For a temperate phage to produce more phage, which of the following must happen? A) Lysogeny B) Induction C) Lysogenic conversion D) Prophage formation

47) The production of cholera toxin by virulent strains of Vibrio cholera is dependent upon genes in a bacteriophage. This is an example of _________blank. A) lysogenic conversion B) induction C) bacterial transformation D) transduction

48) Diphtheria toxin is produced only by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that are infected with a particular bacteriophage. This is an example of _________blank.

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A) conjugation B) induction C) lysis D) lysogenic conversion

49)

Which type of phage always lyses its host cell? A) Temperate B) Virulent C) Lysogenic D) Prophage

50)

Which of the following encodes its own capsid proteins? A) Satellite virus B) Satellite DNA C) Satellite RNA D) Prion

51)

Which of the following is/are necessary for the replication of a satellite virus? A) Host cell only B) Helper virus only C) Prion only D) Host cell and helper virus

52) The most notable difference between PrPC (normal protein) and PrPSc (prion protein) is _________blank.

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A) PrPC is a much longer polypeptide chain, compared to PrPSc B) PrPC causes a cell to undergo rapid apoptosis C) PrPc folds appropriately whereas PrPSc does not fold correctly D) PrPc is a functional glycolytic enzyme whereas PrPSc is nonfunctional

53)

All of the following are methods of prion disease transmission except _________blank. A) ingestion of infected tissue B) inheritance (genetic) C) organ or tissue transplantation D) contamination through use of inadequately processed surgical instruments E) inhalation (airborne)

54) What is the minimum number of phage that can initiate the development of a plaque in a bacterial lawn? A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 25

55)

Virulent and temperate phages differ in that_________blank.

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A) virulent phages always result in the lysis of the host cell, whereas temperate phages may lyse the host cell, or they can enter a lysogenic cycle whereby they integrate their genome into the genome of the host cell B) temperate phages always result in the lysis of the host cell, whereas virulent phages may lyse the host cell, or they can enter a lysogenic cycle whereby they integrate their genome into the genome of the host cell C) temperate phages integrate their genome into that of the host cell, causing uncontrolled growth and ultimately lysis of the cell, whereas virulent phages remain in the lysogenic phase indefinitely D) virulent phages cause mutations in the host cell genome, whereas temperate phages have no genetic effect on the host cell

56) Diseases caused by prions that are seen in domesticated animals and humans have which of the following manifestations in common? A) All diseases cause neurodegeneration B) All diseases cause gastrointestinal upset C) All diseases affect the cardiovascular system D) All diseases affect the musculoskeletal system E) All diseases cause skin lesions

57)

Viruses have a typical cellular structure like other living organisms. ⊚ ⊚

58)

true false

Viruses in the extracellular state possess few, if any, active enzymes. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

59)

Viruses infecting protists, including algae, have never been detected. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) One way in which small viruses package more information into a very small genome is to use overlapping genes so that the same base sequence is read in more than one reading frame. ⊚ ⊚

61)

Almost all known plant viruses are RNA viruses. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

The most common capsid morphologies are icosahedral and helical. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) The largest of the viruses are similar in size to some small bacteria and are large enough to be seen with a light microscope. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) The presence or absence of an envelope is not useful in classifying viruses because any given virus may at one time have an envelope and at another time not have an envelope. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Viruses such as MS2 and Qß pack additional information into their genomes through the use of overlapping genes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Enveloped viruses may enter their host cells by fusion of their envelope with the cytoplasmic membrane, thereby depositing their nucleocapsid within the cell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Enveloped viruses may enter their host cells by engulfment within coated vesicles (endocytosis). ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) In a plaque assay, the number of infectious virions is usually identical to the number of virus particles present. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Like bacteria and eukaryotic microorganisms, most viruses can be cultured using artificial media. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 17

70) Bacterial viruses are so named because they have prokaryotic cell structures similar to their bacterial hosts. ⊚ ⊚

71)

true false

Prions consist of proteins and have no apparent nucleic acid genome. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Available evidence is consistent with the proposal that prion diseases are caused by infectious proteins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) The mechanism of pathogenesis by prions may involve a conformational change in the prion protein (PrP) to an abnormal form. ⊚ ⊚

74)

There are no known human diseases that have been linked to prions. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

A temperate phage always lyses its host cell.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

76)

true false

A PrPc protein can convert a PrPSc to a PrPc. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is known to have been transmitted by surgical instruments and transplanted nerve tissue. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_12e_Willey 1) Peplomers 2) capsomers 3) icosahedral 4) transformation 5) cytopathic effects 6) necrotic 7) bacteriophages 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) D 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) D 52) C 53) E 54) A 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE

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CHAPTER 07 – 12e 1) Growth media that will support the growth of many different types of microorganisms are called_________blank_________blank growth media, whereas those that are supplemented by blood or other rich nutrient sources in order to support the growth of fastidious organisms are called_________blank media.

2) Macroscopically visible growths or clusters of microorganisms on solid media are called_________blank.

3) The cell wall of bacteria constrains the_________blank_________blank that results from the osmolarity of the cytoplasmic contents.

4) Microbial_________blank is an increase in cell constituents that may or may not be accompanied by an increase in cell number.

5) The_________blank_________blank is the length of time it takes for a population of microorganisms to double in number.

6) Organisms that can grow in habitats with low water activity by maintaining a high internal salt concentration are called_________blank organisms.

7) Organisms that require high levels of sodium chloride in order to grow are called_________blank organisms.

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8) Organisms that have their optimum growth pH between 0.0 and 5.5 are called_________blank.

9) Organisms that have their optimum growth pH between 5.5 and 8.0 are called_________blank.

10) Organisms that have their optimum growth pH between 8.5 and 11.5 are called_________blank.

11) Organisms that grow best at pH levels above 10 are called_________blank_________blank.

12) Complex microbial communities that grow tightly adhered to surfaces are called_________blank.

13) Quorum sensing in Gram-positive bacteria generally involves the use of_________blank as the external signaling molecules.

14) Bacteria that live attached to surfaces are described as _________blank, whereas bacteria that are free-living, floating with a fluid environment are described as _________blank.

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15) A culture technique that encourages the growth of specific microbes while inhibiting the growth of others is _________blank.

16) When counting colonies during viable cell counts, the results are expressed as _________blank _________blank _________blank because it is impossible to determine that each colony arose from a single cell.

17) Media containing some ingredients of unknown chemical composition are called_________blank media. A) undefined B) complex C) defined D) synthetic

18) Agar is an excellent solidifying agent for microbiological media because_________blank. A) it is not degraded by most microorganisms B) solid agar remains solid until the temperature is raised to 90°C, and liquid agar remains liquid if the temperature is lowered to 45°C C) it is not degraded by most microorganisms and solid agar remains solid until the temperature is raised to 90°C, and liquid agar remains liquid if the temperature is lowered to 45°C D) agar provides an excellent source of nutrition for a variety of different microorganisms

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19) For surface cultivation of microorganisms, a sulfated polymer called agar can be extracted from_________blank and added to liquid media to solidify it. A) bacteria B) animal fat C) algae D) fungi

20) A growth medium that favors the growth of some microorganisms but inhibits the growth of other microorganisms is_________blank. A) a selective medium B) a differential medium C) both selective and differential D) neither selective nor differential

21) A growth medium that distinguishes among different groups of bacteria on the basis of their biological characteristics is called a(n)_________blank medium. A) selective B) differential C) enrichment D) transport

22) Mannitol salt agar (MSA) only allows the growth of halophiles (salt-loving microbes); nonhalophiles will not grow. Among the halophiles, mannitol fermenters will produce acid that turns the pH indicator yellow; mannitol nonfermenters leave the medium red. Onto MSA you inoculate a halophilic mannitol fermenter and a halophilic mannitol nonfermenter. In this case, the medium is acting __________.

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A) as a selective medium B) as a differential medium C) as both selective and differential media D) as an enrichment medium

23) Mannitol salt agar (MSA) only allows the growth of halophiles (salt-loving microbes). Among the halophiles, mannitol fermenters release acid that turns the pH indicator yellow; mannitol nonfermenters leave the medium red. Onto MSA you inoculate a halophilic mannitol nonfermenter and a nonhalophilic mannitol nonfermenter. Here the medium acts as a(n)_________blank medium. A) selective B) differential C) selective and differential D) enrichment

24) Mannitol salt agar (MSA) only allows the growth of halophiles (salt-loving microbes). Among the halophiles, mannitol fermenters release acid that turns the pH indicator yellow; mannitol nonfermenters leave the medium red. Onto MSA you inoculate a halophilic mannitol fermenter, a nonhalophilic mannitol fermenter, and a halophilic mannitol nonfermenter. In this case, it is_________blank. A) a selective medium B) a differential medium C) both selective and differential D) neither selective nor differential

25) Media in which all components and their concentration are known are called_________blank media.

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A) transport B) defined C) selective D) enrichment

26) You would like to culture a bacterium that is growing in the lung of a human patient with pneumonia. Which media would be of most use in culturing this organism? A) Transport media B) Mannitol salt agar C) MacConkey's agar D) Complex medium supplemented with whole blood E) None of the choices are correct.

27)

All fastidious microorganisms require which of the following for growth? A) Oxygen B) Temperatures near normal for the human body C) Extra nutrients (such as whole blood) D) Iron

28)

Which of the following can be used to isolate pure cultures of bacteria from mixtures? A) Spread plates B) Streak plates C) Pour plates D) All of the choices are correct.

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29)

Most bacterial and archaeal cells divide by_________blank. A) mitosis B) meiosis C) binary fission D) All of the choices are correct.

30)

Which of the following is the correct order for binary fission?

A) A septum forms at midcell, the cell elongates, replicates its chromosome, and separates the chromosome into the two parts of the cell. B) The cell elongates, a septum forms at midcell, the cell replicates its chromosome, and separates the chromosome into the two parts of the cell. C) The cell elongates, replicates its chromosome, and separates the chromosome into the two parts of the cell, and a septum forms at midcell. D) None of the choices are correct.

31) The_________blank is a group of proteins needed for DNA synthesis that assembles at the origin of replication. A) septum B) replisome C) prospore D) None of the choices are correct.

32) The process of forming a cross wall between two daughter cells is known as _________blank.

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A) replication B) septation C) sporulation D) mitosis

33) The site at which replication of DNA starts in bacterial cells is known as the_________blank. A) origin of replication B) initiation center C) replication initiation site D) start complex

34) The actin-like protein that seems to be involved in determining cell shape is_________blank. A) MreB B) ActA C) SpnC D) FtsZ

35)

During cytokinesis, a critical step in septation is the assembly of the_________blank. A) replisome B) spindle body C) Z ring D) cytoskeletal spiral

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36)

The limitation on microbial growth rate at high nutrient levels is/are _________blank. A) the rate of protein synthesis B) the rate of DNA replication C) the saturation of the transport proteins for nutrient uptake D) All of the choices are correct.

37) The total number of viable microorganisms remains constant in stationary phase because_________blank. A) there is a balance between cell division and cell death B) there is a cessation of cell division even though the cells may remain metabolically active C) either there is a balance between cell division and cell death or there is a cessation of cell division even though the cells may remain metabolically active D) None of the choices are correct.

38)

Cells may enter stationary phase because of_________blank. A) the depletion of an essential nutrient B) a lack of available oxygen C) the accumulation of toxic waste products D) All of the choices are correct.

39) A culture in a closed vessel to which no additional medium is added and from which no waste products are removed is called a_________blank culture.

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A) continuous B) batch C) fed-batch D) semicontinuous

40) Given a log phase bacterial culture with 1 x 106 cells per ml and a generation time of 30 minutes, how long does it take the culture to reach a density of 6.4 × 107 cells per ml? A) 1 hour B) 2 hours C) 3 hours D) 4 hours

41) Microorganisms are at their most uniform in terms of chemical and physiological properties during_________blank phase. A) lag B) exponential C) stationary D) decline

42) Which of the following is a reason for the occurrence of a lag phase in a bacterial growth curve?

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A) The cells may be old and depleted of ATP, essential cofactors, and ribosomes that must be synthesized before growth can begin. B) The medium may be different from the previous growth medium so that the cells must synthesize new enzymes to use different nutrients. C) The organisms may have been injured and require time to recover. D) All of these are potential reasons.

43)

The length of the lag phase of growth can vary depending on_________blank. A) the condition of the microorganisms B) the nature of the growth medium C) the temperature D) All of the choices are correct.

44) At 4:00 p.m. a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 1 hour. At 9:00 p.m. the culture enters stationary phase with a population of approximately 41 million cells. At what time is the population half-maximal? A) 6:30 p.m. B) 7:20 p.m. C) 8:20 p.m. D) 8:40 p.m.

45) At 4:00 p.m. a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 1 hour. At 9:00 p.m. the log phase culture has a population of approximately 41 million cells. The estimated number of generations that have occurred is_________blank.

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A) 5 B) 12 C) 21 D) 27

46) Which of the following can be used to estimate the number of microorganisms in a culture? A) Direct counts of microbial cells B) Counts of viable cells using colony growth procedures C) Measurements of microbial biomass D) All of the choices are correct.

47) Which of these methods can be used to determine the number of viable microorganisms in a sample? A) Light scattering in a spectrophotometer B) Measuring total cell mass C) Measuring colony forming units per ml D) Counting a known volume of cells in a hemocytometer

48) At 4:00 p.m. a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 1 hour. At 9:00 p.m. the log phase culture has a population of approximately 41 million cells. The mean generation time is calculated as_________blank. A) 10 minutes B) 20 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 40 minutes

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49) A culture system with constant environmental conditions maintained through continual provision of nutrient and removal of wastes is called_________blank culture system. A) continuous B) batch C) fed-batch D) semicontinuous

50) An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by adding a nutrient (present in limiting quantities) at the same rate that medium containing microorganisms is removed is called a _________blank. A) manostat B) chemostat C) turbidostat D) culturostat

51) An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by the removal and addition of media at such a rate as to maintain a constant cell density is called a_________blank. A) manostat B) chemostat C) turbidostat D) culturostat

52) In a continuous culture system, the rate at which media is added and removed is called the_________blank rate.

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A) dilution B) chemostatic C) pass-through D) flow-through

53)

Which of the following is considered a cardinal growth temperature? A) The minimum temperature B) The maximum temperature C) The optimum temperature D) All of these are considered cardinal growth temperatures.

54) Organisms that grow well at 0°C and have optimum growth temperatures of 15°C or lower are called_________blank. A) psychrotrophs B) psychrophiles C) frigiphiles D) mesophiles

55) Organisms that grow at 0°C and have a maximum growth temperature of 35°C are called_________blank. A) psychrotrophs B) psychrophiles C) frigiphiles D) mesophiles

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56) Organisms that do not require oxygen for growth but grow better in its presence are called_________blank. A) facultative anaerobes B) microaerophiles C) aerotolerant D) anoxygenic

57) Organisms that ignore oxygen and grow equally well in its presence or absence are called_________blank. A) facultative anaerobes B) microaerophiles C) aerotolerant D) anoxygenic

58) Organisms that are damaged by the normal atmospheric levels of oxygen (20%) but require oxygen at levels of 2–10% for growth are called_________blank. A) facultative anaerobes B) microaerophiles C) aerotolerant D) anoxygenic

59) The membranes of psychrophilic bacteria have relatively high levels of _________blank fatty acids, which allow them to remain semifluid at cold temperatures.

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A) saturated B) unsaturated C) sterol D) aromatic

60) Organisms that are not drastically affected by increased pressure are called_________blank. A) barotolerant B) osmotolerant C) barophilic D) osmophilic

61) Organisms that require increased pressure for optimum growth are called_________blank. A) barotolerant B) osmotolerant C) barophilic D) osmophilic

62)

Most known microorganisms maintain their internal pH _________blank. A) near neutral (pH 7) B) near their optimum growth pH C) slightly acidic (pH 4–6) D) slightly alkaline (pH 8–10)

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63)

Organisms that grow near deep-sea volcanic vents are likely to be_________blank. A) psychrophilic B) psychrotrophic C) mesophilic D) thermophilic

64)

Organisms that grow near deep-sea volcanic vents are likely to be_________blank. A) alkalophilic B) acidophilic C) barophilic or barotolerant D) psychrophilic

65) Organisms that grow in mud under relatively nonturbulent bodies of water are likely to be_________blank. A) obligate aerobes B) thermophilic C) barophilic D) anaerobes

66) Membranes of thermophilic bacteria are stabilized by phospholipids with_________blank. A) fatty acids that tend to be more saturated B) fatty acids that have lower molecular weights C) fatty acids that have more double bonds D) All of the choices are correct.

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67)

Quorum sensing_________blank. A) is a phenomenon in which bacteria monitor their own population density B) depends on the sensing of signal protein molecules C) plays an important role in formation of biofilms by Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) All of the choices are correct.

68)

Bacteria reproductive strategies include all of the following except _________blank. A) binary fission B) budding C) multiple fission D) formation of multinucleoid filaments that break apart into uninucleate spores E) fusion of two bacterial cells that then split into four uninucleate cells

69)

How is budding of bacteria to produce daughter cells different from binary fission? A) The chromosome does not need to be replicated. B) The cytoplasmic division is unequal. C) The bud doesn’t receive any DNA. D) A septum must form during budding.

70)

How is the cell cycle of Sulfolobus spp. similar to that of eukaryotes?

A) Sulfolobus has microtubules composed of a tubulin homolog that separate the chromosomes. B) Sulfolobus demonstrates prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. C) A centrosome is apparent in Sulfolobus during G2. D) The cytokinesis process in Sulfolobus is similar to the process in eukaryotes.

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71) Which of the following is most similar between the cell cycle process of Sulfolobus and that of bacteria? A) The segregation of the chromosomes B) The cytokinesis process C) The timing of events during G1, S, and G2

72) Unlike Sulfolobus, some Archaea use _________blank protein(s) to accomplish cytokinesis. A) Tubulin B) Seg A and Seg B C) CdvA, CdvB, and CdvC D) FtsZ

73) Which of the following strategies enable non-acidophilic bacteria to endure lower pH environments? A) Presence of internal buffers B) Proton pumps that pump H+ out of the cell C) Synthesis of acid shock proteins that protect other cellular proteins D) All of the choices are correct.

74) Which of the following are used by airborne microorganisms and microorganisms on light-exposed surfaces to protect themselves from photooxidation? A) Catalase enzymes B) Peroxidase enzymes C) Carotenoid pigments D) Superoxide dismutase

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75) Which of the following proteins is central to starvation survival strategies in many bacteria? A) Fts Z B) RpoS C) Superoxide dismutase D) ATPase

76)

Which type of lifestyle is demonstrated by bacteria in biofilms? A) Planktonic B) Photoautotrophic C) Parasitic D) Sessile

77) A microbiologist is trying to isolate a pathogen expected to be present in very small numbers from a stool specimen in which there are abundant normal microbiota. Which strategy would most likely accomplish this purpose? A) Culture on enriched media B) Enrichment culture followed by culture on selective agar C) Culture on differential media D) Culture in an anaerobe jar

78)

All of the following are characteristics of spread plates except _________blank. A) they have colonies that grow on the surface of the agar B) specimens are typically diluted prior to inoculation of a spread plate C) spread plates readily grow anaerobic bacteria D) spread plates are typically inoculated with a bent glass rod

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79) Which of the following is a reason(s) for the decline in cell numbers during the death phase? A) Depletion of nutrients B) Accumulation of toxic waste materials C) Depletion of D) All of the choices are correct.

80) One hypothesis regarding cells living in oligotrophic environments is that the cells aren’t all dying but instead remain alive but unable to grow when cultured, at least temporarily. These are known as _________blank. A) viable but nonculturable cells B) ghost cells C) death phase cells D) programmed death cells

81) Which of the following might be missed if viable counts are done on food and/or water specimens? A) Endospores B) Aerobic bacteria C) Viable but nonculturable cells D) Pathogenic bacteria

82) Which of the following methods could be used to detect the presence of viable but nonculturable cells of a pathogen in a water or food specimen?

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A) Culture on enriched agar B) Use of enrichment techniques C) Polymerase chain reaction D) Culture on selective agar

83)

Which of the following may form one colony? A) A single bacterial cell B) A short chain of bacteria C) A small clump of bacteria D) All of the choices are correct.

84) A microbiologist is testing the drinking water for a municipality. What would be the best method for testing the purified water? A) Viable plate count B) Measurement of microbial mass C) Direct microscopic count D) Membrane filtration

85) A microbiologist is studying the growth of a particular strain of bacteria to determine when it will transition from exponential growth to stationary phase and from stationary phase to death phase. Which of the following methods of measuring microbial growth would be best for this purpose? A) Direct microscopic count B) Determining dry weight of microbes C) Turbidimetric measurements using a spectrophotometer D) Viable plate count

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86) A microbiologist is attempting to determine the size of a microbial population and has employed several methods. She noticed that the direct count she obtained using a counting chamber and microscope was much higher than her estimate from doing a viable plate count. This discrepancy was encountered during multiple trials. What is the most likely reason for the discrepancy? A) She counted incorrectly. B) She did not correctly do the serial dilutions prior to the viable plate count. C) Many of the organisms viewed during the direct count may be dead. D) The medium and growth conditions used for the viable count will not support the growth of the organisms. E) The organisms were not readily cultured on the viable count, either because many were dead or because the medium and growth conditions used for the viable count will not support the growth of the microorganism.

87)

Aerotolerant anaerobes_________blank. A) synthesize superoxide dismutase, but not catalase B) synthesize both superoxide dismutase and catalase C) synthesize neither superoxide dismutase nor catalase D) synthesize catalase but not superoxide dismutase

88)

Facultative anaerobes differ from aerotolerant anaerobes in that_________blank.

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A) facultative anaerobes synthesize both superoxide dismutase and catalase for protection against reactive oxygen species (ROS), whereas aerotolerant anaerobes synthesize superoxide dismutase only, allowing survival in the presence of ROS, but they do not utilize O2 in their metabolic pathways B) aerotolerant anaerobes synthesize both superoxide dismutase and catalase for protection against reactive oxygen species (ROS), whereas facultative anaerobes synthesize superoxide dismutase only, allowing survival in the presence of ROS, but they do not utilize O2 in their metabolic pathways C) facultative anaerobes synthesize neither superoxide dismutase nor catalase so they lack protection against reactive oxygen species (ROS), whereas aerotolerant anaerobes synthesize both superoxide dismutase and catalase, allowing survival in the presence of ROS that form during respiration D) facultative anaerobes synthesize neither superoxide dismutase nor catalase so they lack protection against reactive oxygen species (ROS), whereas aerotolerant anaerobes synthesize superoxide dismutase only, allowing survival in the presence of ROS, but they do not utilize O2 in their metabolic pathways

89)

The ability to study microorganisms is hindered by the fact that_________blank. A) over 95% of microorganisms currently have noin vitro culturing system available B) space limitations prevent culture of all known organisms C) pathogens are too dangerous to isolate and study D) an oxygen-free environment cannot be created for strict anaerobes

90) Explain why a scientist would need to increase the dilution rate in a chemostat from 0.20 -1 hr to 0.50 hr-1.

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A) When the dilution rate is low, the availability of an essential nutrient is limited, creating an environment where the organism can expend energy on survival only, not growth and reproduction. Increasing the dilution rate enables an increase in cell density. B) When the dilution rate is low, cell reproduction is high, creating a space limitation for the rapidly-dividing organisms. Increasing the dilution rate slows growth to free up available space. C) When the dilution rate is low, the availability of an essential nutrient is limited, creating an environment where the organism synthesizes nutrients rapidly to overcome the deficit in the media thus producing toxic waste products. Increasing the dilution rate provides a greater quantity of the nutrient effectively slowing growth and minimizing the level of waste. D) When the dilution rate is low, the total available energy provided by the media exceeds the maintenance energy required by the culture. Increasing the dilution rate flushes out some of the organisms to strike a balance between available energy and maintenance energy.

91)

A given medium can be either selective or differential but not both. ⊚ ⊚

92)

true false

Blood agar is both a differential and enriched medium. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Isolating individual colonies using the streak-plate technique is not useful for rudimentary identification of a microorganism because most microorganisms produce colonies that are indistinguishable from one another. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

94) Serial dilutions can be used to estimate the total number of bacterial cells, both living and dead, in a solution. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

All bacterial and archaeal cells are diploid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) The purpose of the penicillin-binding proteins is to link phospholipids together in the cellular membrane. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) When a young, vigorously growing culture of bacteria is transferred to a fresh medium of the same composition, the lag phase is usually short or absent. ⊚ ⊚

98)

true false

During the lag phase of microbial growth, the cells are metabolically inactive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) When a young, vigorously growing culture of bacteria is transferred to fresh medium of different composition, the lag phase is usually short or absent.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

100) The growth rate of a given species of microorganism is dependent on the composition of the medium in which it is grown. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) One of the major advantages of a continuous culture system is that the cells can be maintained in the exponential growth phase for extended periods of time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Obligate anaerobes are usually poisoned by molecular oxygen but may grow in aerobic habitats if associated with facultative anaerobes that use up all available oxygen. ⊚ ⊚

103)

DNA of thermophiles is stabilized by binding of special nucleoid-associated proteins. ⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

Membranes of some thermophilic Archaea are stabilized by ether-linked phospholipids. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

105) A common type of autoinducer found in Gram-negative bacteria is acyl-homoserine lactones (AHL). ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) A microbial environment containing high nutrient concentrations is called an oligotrophic environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) The process of segregating the daughter chromosomes in Sulfolobus is more similar to the process in eukaryotic cells than in bacterial cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

108) During the cell division process, Sulfolobus segregates its chromosomes in a manner similar to bacteria, and performs cytokinesis in a manner similar to that of eukaryotes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

109) There doesn’t appear to be much diversity in the cell cycle processes of the Archaea, therefore Sulfolobus serves as an excellent model for all other Archaea. ⊚ true ⊚ false

110)

Most microorganisms live in eutrophic environments.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

111) All of the colonies form on the surface of a spread plate, whereas on a pour plate, colonies may be embedded in the agar as well as on the surface. ⊚ true ⊚ false

112) Researchers have successfully isolated the majority of microbes from their natural habitats and have cultured themin vitro on artificial media to facilitate extensive study. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_12e_Willey 1) [general purpose, enriched] 2) colonies 3) turgor pressure 4) growth 5) generation time 6) osmotolerant 7) halophilic 8) acidophiles 9) neutrophiles 10) alkalophiles 11) extreme alkalophiles 12) biofilms 13) oligopeptides 14) [sessile, planktonic] 15) enrichment 16) colony forming units 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) D Version 1

27) C 28) D 29) C 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) D 44) D 45) B 46) D 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) D 54) B 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) B 60) A 61) C 62) A 63) D 64) C 65) D 66) A 67) D 68) E 69) B 70) D 71) A 72) D 73) D 74) C 75) B 76) D 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) A 81) C 82) C 83) D 84) D 85) D 86) E Version 1

87) A 88) A 89) A 90) A 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE

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CHAPTER 08 – 12e 1)

An agent that kills bacteria is referred to as_________blank.

2) An agent that prevents the growth of bacteria without causing irreversible damage to the bacteria is referred to as_________blank.

3) The disinfecting properties of Lysol, a common household disinfectant, depend upon the presence of_________blank.

4) The type of filter used in a laminar flow biological safety cabinet is called a(n)_________blank filter.

5) The disinfectant screening method that is known as the_________blank_________blank test, is used to measure the potency of a disinfectant.

6) Bacterial pathogens may be controlled by _________blank, which are viruses that specifically infect and lyse the bacterial host.

7) The use of bacteriophage to treat human infections is referred to as _________blank _________blank.

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8) The substantial reduction of the total population of microorganisms on inanimate objects and the destruction of potential pathogens is called_________blank. A) disinfection B) antisepsis C) sterilization D) sanitization

The prevention of infection caused by microorganisms is called_________blank. A) disinfection B) antisepsis C) sterilization D) sanitization

10)

A(n)_________blank is a chemical that can be used to sterilize materials. A) oxidant B) disinfectant C) antiseptic D) sterilant

11) When antiseptics and disinfectants are compared, antiseptics are generally_________blank. A) less toxic B) more toxic C) equally as toxic D) unpredictable in toxicity

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12)

Which of the following represents the best definition for microbial death? A) The organism will not grow on minimal medium. B) The organism will not grow on a medium that normally supports its growth. C) The organism no longer retains its original shape and structures. D) None of these choices adequately describe microbial death.

13)

Which of the following inhibits bacterial growth but does not kill bacteria? A) Lysozyme B) Bactericidal agent C) Bacteriostatic agent D) Antiseptic agent

14) An agent that specifically kills fungi but not other kinds of microorganisms is also known as a_________blank. A) fungistatic agent B) mycostatic agent C) fungicidal agent D) germicidal agent

15) The time required to kill 90% of the microorganisms or spores in a sample at a specified temperature is the_________blank.

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A) thermal death time (TDT) B) thermal death point (TDP) C) decimal reduction time (D value) D) z value

16)

Which of the following isnot true regarding the decimal reduction time?

A) It is a measure of the effective concentration of disinfectant that kills within a specific time period B) It is the time taken to reduce the number of pathogens in a sample by one log cycle C) The Z value is the temperature equivalent of the D value D) Once the number of organisms has been reduced to 10%, the killing may slow due to resistant strains that remain in the population

17)

Sterilization involves_________blank all viable microorganisms. A) killing B) removing C) killing OR removing D) metabolically inactivating

18)

The destruction or removal of all viable organisms is called_________blank. A) disinfection B) antisepsis C) sterilization D) sanitization

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19) The reduction of the microbial population to levels that are considered safe by public health standards is called_________blank. A) disinfection B) antisepsis C) sterilization D) sanitization

20)

Which of the following is not a method of heat sterilization? A) Autoclaving B) Incineration C) Pasteurization D) Heating in a dry air oven

21)

Which of the following is a function of pasteurization? A) Killing pathogenic microorganisms B) Reducing the total microbial population C) Increasing the shelf life of the product D) All of the choices are correct.

22)

Which of the following is MOST effective against resistant endospores?

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A) Autoclaving B) Boiling C) Pasteurization D) All of these are equally effective against resistant endospores.

23)

Which of the following lacks sufficient penetrating power for bulk sterilization? A) Ultraviolet (UV) radiation at 260 nm B) X rays C) Gamma radiation D) Alpha and beta particles

24)

Moist heat sterilization at 100°C kills all of the following EXCEPT _________blank. A) bacterial endospores B) fungal spores C) viruses D) protists

25)

Which kind of sterilization procedure takes advantage of the size of microorganisms? A) Autoclaving B) Open flame C) Use of chemicals D) Filtration

26)

Pasteurization is used to_________blank.

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A) kill any pathogens present B) retard spoilage C) sterilize beverages D) kill any pathogens present and retard spoilage

27)

When comparing dry heat and moist heat sterilization, dry heat is_________blank. A) faster B) slower C) equally as fast D) sometimes faster but sometimes slower

28) The disinfectant action of phenol and phenolic derivatives mainly is due to_________blank. A) its inherent detergent action B) membrane damage and protein denaturation C) oxidation of disulfide bonds in proteins D) extraction of lipids from membranes E) damage to nucleic acids and proteins caused by free radicals

29)

Moist heat sterilizes by_________blank. A) causing the formation of thymine dimers B) denaturing proteins C) causing the production of singlet oxygen D) All of the choices are correct.

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30)

Gamma radiation_________blank. A) is a type of nonionizing radiation B) has poor penetrating power C) is used to sterilize some food products D) has a longer wavelength than UV radiation

31)

The first product to be commercially treated by pasteurization was_________blank. A) milk B) wine C) beer D) cheese

32) Iodine can be complexed with an organic carrier to form water-soluble, stable complexes called_________blank, which release iodine slowly and eliminate skin burns and irritation associated with iodine use. A) iodides B) tinctures C) iodophors D) iodochromes

33) Although heavy metals are no longer widely used as germicides,_________blank is an effective algicide in lakes and swimming pools.

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A) lead acetate B) copper sulfate C) silver nitrate D) mercuric chloride

34) Which of the following would be most appropriate for removal of bacteria and some viruses from a liquid? A) HEPA filter B) N95 filter C) Membrane filter (< 0.1μm) D) Depth filter (diatomaceous earth)

35) Which of these is an agent that is used to sterilize the plastic tubing of heart-lung machines? A) Phenol B) Mercaptoethanol C) Ethylene oxide D) 70% ethanol

36)

The two most important alcohol germicides are_________blank and_________blank. A) ethanol; methanol B) ethanol; isopropanol C) methanol; butanol D) methanol; isopropanol

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37)

Joseph Lister_________blank. A) pioneered the use of gamma rays for sterilizing food B) demonstrated that microorganisms are carried on dust particles in the air C) revolutionized surgery by introducing phenol as a disinfectant D) designed and built the first autoclave

38)

The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supplies is_________blank. A) fluorine B) chlorine C) either fluorine or chlorine D) ultraviolet light

39) Which of the following would be most effective and practical for routine home disinfection of a toothbrush between uses? A) 70% Isopropyl alcohol B) Glutaraldehyde C) Bleach D) Hydrogen peroxide

40)

Which of the following is true about membrane filters?

A) It can be used only to remove organisms from liquids. B) It does not truly sterilize because it removes rather than kills microorganisms. C) It can be used only to remove organisms from liquids and it does not truly sterilize because it removes rather than kills microorganisms. D) It can't be depended on to remove all viruses from liquids.

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41) Which of the following is (are) a sterilizing gas(es) that can be used on heat-sensitive materials? A) Ethylene oxide B) Glutaraldehyde C) Chlorine gas D) Isopropanol

42) Amphipathic organic molecules that serve as disinfectants by disrupting membranes and denaturing proteins are called_________blank. A) sterilants B) oxidants C) detergents D) soaps

43) Which of the following would be most effective and practical for routine home disinfection of a kitchen sponge between uses? A) 70% Isopropyl alcohol B) Iodophor C) Chlorine bleach D) Hydrogen peroxide

44)

Which of the following influence(s) the efficiency of an antimicrobial agent?

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A) Concentration of the agent B) Duration of exposure C) Temperature D) All of the choices are correct.

45) Which of the following environmental factors generally do(es) not have an impact on the efficiency of an antimicrobial agent? A) pH B) Presence or absence of a biofilm C) Concentration of organic matter D) Refractive index

46)

Which will require a longer time to kill? A) A larger population of microorganisms B) A smaller population of microorganisms C) Killing will be equally as rapid in a large or a small microbial population D) There is no way to predict which will require a longer kill time.

47)

Disinfectants are generally regulated by the_________blank. A) Food and Drug Administration B) Environmental Protection Agency C) National Institutes of Health D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

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48)

Antiseptics are generally regulated by the_________blank. A) Food and Drug Administration B) Environmental Protection Agency C) National Institutes of Health D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

49) The higher the phenol coefficient value, the_________blank effective the disinfectant under the test conditions. A) more B) less

50) Several new materials have been developed for use in the microbiology lab. These materials must be sterilized before use, but cannot withstand a temperature over 60oC and can’t be exposed to water. Which method of sterilization would be applicable? A) Steam autoclave B) Oven-dry heat C) UV radiation D) Ionizing radiation

51) Portable UV room sterilizing units are being used to reduce endospores of Clostridioides difficile in hospital rooms after patients have vacated. Which of the statements best describes this application?

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A) UV radiation will not destroy C. difficile endospores. B) UV radiation will destroy C. difficile endospores assuming it is applied for a long enough period and directly contacts all surfaces. C) UV radiation will destroy C. difficile endospores and penetrates well to all locations within the room. D) UV radiation will destroy C. difficile endospores and has residual sporicidal effects that will persist after the unit has been removed from the patient’s room.

52) Which of the following is a Gram-negative bacterium that acts as a predator on other Gram-negative bacteria, and might be used to control populations of Gram-negative human pathogens in locations such as poultry farms? A) E. coli B) Salmonella enteritidis C) Bdellovibrio D) Vibrio cholerae

53) Which of the following is/are advantages of using bacteriophage to treat human bacterial infections? A) Bacteriophage can kill the bacteria. B) Bacteriophage will not cause disease or harm humans. C) Bacteriophage are very specific for the target bacteria and won’t affect normal microbiota. D) All of the choices are correct.

54) A peptidoglycan-hydrolyzing protein isolated from bacteriophage P68 has been used in synergy with the antimicrobial agent gentamicin, enhancing the antimicrobial effects of the drug towardStaphylococcus aureus. This is an example of microbial control by_________blank.

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A) enzybiotics B) sterilization C) predation D) antisepsis E) heavy metals

55) The rate of killing by an antimicrobial agent may slow when the microbial population has been greatly reduced because the remaining population may have a high proportion of resistant organisms. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

All germicides are capable of killing all pathogenic organisms and endospores. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57)

A biological safety cabinet filters out more microorganisms than an N95 mask. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58)

Ultraviolet radiation is an effective means of sterilizing surfaces. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) Dry heat methods usually require lower temperatures and shorter exposure times than moist heat methods to achieve the same degree of killing because of the drying effects of this form of heat. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Because filtration removes rather than destroys microorganisms, it does not truly sterilize the materials passing through the filter. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) If one left a "pasteurized" flask of broth for a long time at room temperature, it would stay sterile forever, at least in principle. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) Heavy metals are effective antimicrobial agents but are not widely used because of their high toxicity to humans. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

Heavy metals may inactivate proteins by reacting with their sulfhydryl groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Alcohols are widely used as antiseptics and disinfectants because they are effective against endospores as well as vegetative cells. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

65)

Microorganisms show differential sensitivity to antimicrobial agents. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

Larger populations generally are killed as rapidly as smaller populations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Fecal transplants have been successfully used to treat Clostridioides difficile colitis by reintroducing healthy fecal microbiota that outcompetes the C. difficile. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) Bacteriophage therapy was developed after antibiotics were first discovered and used for treating bacterial infections. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_12e_Willey 1) bactericidal 2) bacteriostatic 3) phenolics 4) HEPA 5) phenol coefficient 6) bacteriophage 7) phage therapy 8) A 9) B 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) C 43) C 44) D 45) D 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) D 54) A 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE

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CHAPTER 09 – 12e 1) _________blank are activities of a chemotherapeutic agent that damage the host either by inhibiting the same process in the host as in the target cell or by damaging other processes.

2) When a chemotherapeutic agent is effective against many different pathogens including both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, it is said to be a_________blank antibiotic.

A/an_________blank is a drug that blocks the function of a metabolic pathway.

4) A neuraminidase inhibitor called_________blank is sometimes used in the treatment of people infected with influenza viruses.

5) An antimicrobial drug that inhibits the growth of bacteria without affecting the growth or function of cells in the human host is described as having _________blank.

Who is usually credited with the discovery of penicillin? A) Fleming B) Florey and Chain C) Duchesne D) Ehrlich

Whose discovery of streptomycin stimulated an intense search for other antibiotics?

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A) Waksman B) Ehrlich C) Fleming D) Pasteur

8) The use of the arsenic compound Salvarsan as a treatment for syphilis is credited to_________blank. A) Fleming B) Ehrlich C) Waksman D) Chain

9) Chemotherapeutic agents that are natural products of microorganisms are most specifically referred to as_________blank. A) antimicrobial agents B) synthetic drugs C) antibiotics D) semisynthetic drugs

10) Who is generally credited with the discovery of sulfanilamide as a chemotherapeutic agent? A) Gerhard Domagk B) Ernest Duchesne C) Ernst Chain D) Robert Koch

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11) The drug level required for the clinical treatment of a particular infection is called the_________blank. A) therapeutic dose B) toxic dose C) therapeutic index D) minimal inhibitory concentration

12)

Which of the following inhibits protein synthesis? A) Dapsone B) Erythromycin C) Penicillin D) Isoniazid

13)

Which of the following is likely to have the most toxic side effects to humans? A) Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis B) Inhibitors of protein synthesis C) Disrupters of cell membrane structure D) Inhibitors of DNA synthesis

14)

Isoniazid is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic that_________blank.

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A) is not useful as a chemotherapeutic agent B) is one of the few drugs effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) is one of the few drugs effective against systemic fungal infections D) None of the choices are correct.

15) Consider an antibacterial drug. In which of the following cases would the action of the drug be considered primarily bacteriostatic? A) The minimal lethal concentration (MLC) is equal to the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC). B) The MLC is lower than the MIC. C) The MLC is 2–4 times higher than the MIC. D) The MLC is 10–20 times higher than the MIC.

16) Chemotherapeutic agents that are chemically modified natural products of microorganisms are most specifically referred to as_________blank. A) antimicrobial agents B) synthetic drugs C) antibiotics D) semisynthetic drugs

17) Chemotherapeutic agents that are artificially produced are most specifically referred to as_________blank. A) antimicrobial agents B) synthetic drugs C) antibiotics D) semisynthetic drugs

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18)

The ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose is called the_________blank. A) toxicity index B) phenol coefficient C) therapeutic index D) susceptibility quotient

19)

The minimal lethal concentration (MLC) is the_________blank. A) lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen B) highest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen C) lowest concentration of a drug that kills a particular pathogen D) highest concentration of a drug that kills a particular pathogen

20)

The lowest concentration of an antibiotic that prevents growth is the_________blank. A) minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) B) minimal lethal concentration (MLC) C) 50% inhibitory dose D) All of the choices are correct.

21)

Which of the following is a desirable general characteristic of antimicrobial drugs? A) Selective toxicity B) Broad-spectrum of activity C) Bactericidal rather than bacteriostatic D) All of the choices are correct.

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22) Which of the following affects the size of the clear zone in a disk diffusion test of antimicrobial susceptibility? A) The initial concentration of the drug B) The solubility of the drug C) The diffusion rate of the drug D) All of the choices are correct.

23)

The E test is_________blank.

A) a rapid serological test used to detect the presence of eastern equine encephalitis virus in cerebrospinal fluid B) a quantitative antibiotic sensitivity test that utilizes plastic strips impregnated with an antibiotic of interest C) used to quantify levels of IgE antibody in serum samples D) used to measure esculine levels in pasteurized milk

24)

Which of the following is NOT true about Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion method?

A) Bacteria used to swab a test plate should be at least a week old. B) The designation of resistance or sensitivity to a drug is determined by comparing the size of the zone of inhibition to a standard table. C) As the minimum inhibitory concentration value increases, the sensitivity of the organism to the drug decreases. D) The diameters of the zones of inhibition are measured to the nearest millimeter.

25)

Which of the following does not inhibit protein synthesis?

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A) Tetracycline B) Streptomycin C) Erythromycin D) Penicillin E) All of the choices inhibit protein synthesis.

26) The most selective antibacterial agents are those that interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis. This is because_________blank. A) bacterial cell walls have a unique structure not found in eukaryotic host cells B) bacterial cell wall synthesis is easily inhibited whereas eukaryotic cell wall synthesis is more resistant to the actions of the drugs C) eukaryotic cells do not take up the drugs D) eukaryotic cells inactivate the drugs before they can do any damage

27) In addition to inhibiting the transpeptidation reaction in cell wall synthesis, penicillins may also destroy bacteria by_________blank. A) inhibiting DNA replication B) stimulating proteins to form holes in the plasma membrane C) inhibiting protein synthesis D) None of the choices are correct.

28)

Aminoglycoside antibiotics_________blank. A) inhibit cell wall synthesis B) inhibit folic acid biosynthesis C) bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit D) bind to bacterial DNA polymerase

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29) Sulfonamides and other drugs that inhibit folic acid synthesis have a high therapeutic index because_________blank. A) humans do not use folic acid B) humans do not synthesize folic acid but obtain it in their diets C) humans synthesize folic acid by a process that is not sensitive to sulfonamides D) None of the choices are correct.

30) Antibiotics that are given by injection are said to have a/an_________blank route of administration. A) oral B) venal C) parenteral D) topical

31) Sulfonamides inhibit the production of folic acid and, therefore, inhibit the synthesis of_________blank. A) purines and pyrimidines B) ribose C) aromatic amino acids D) peptidoglycan

32)

Which of the following is (are) true about cephalosporins?

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A) They, like penicillin, inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis. B) There are four generations of cephalosporins. C) They can be given to patients with penicillin allergies. D) All of the choices are correct.

33)

Bacitracin_________blank. A) inhibits DNA replication B) inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis C) interferes with protein synthesis D) interferes with plasma membrane function

34)

Vancomycin_________blank.

A) inhibits the transglycosylase reaction in peptidoglycan biosynthesis B) interferes with the action of the lipid carrier that transports peptidoglycan precursors across the plasma membrane C) inhibits the transpeptidation reaction in peptidoglycan biosynthesis D) blocks the addition of the pentapeptide chain during peptidoglycan biosynthesis

35)

Which of the following is a useful mechanism of action for an antibacterial drug? A) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis B) Inhibition of protein synthesis C) Interference with RNA and DNA synthesis D) All of the choices are correct.

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36)

Which of the following antibiotics specifically inhibits DNA synthesis? A) Gentamycin B) Polymyxin B C) Quinolones D) Tetracycline

37)

Which of the following is normally treated by antifungal creams and solutions? A) Systemic mycoses B) Superficial mycoses C) Subcutaneous mycoses D) Intramuscular mycoses

38) The treatment for pneumonia caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci in AIDS patients is_________blank. A) streptomycin B) miconazole C) combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxasole D) amantadine

39)

Which of the following is sometimes useful against viral infections? A) Trimethoprim B) Streptomycin C) Azidothymidine D) Rifampin

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40) Which of the following is the major reason why it has been difficult to treat viral infections with chemotherapeutic agents? A) Viral metabolism resembles that of their hosts so there is no selective point of attack. B) Viruses use the metabolic machinery of their hosts, which limits many of the potential points of attack. C) Viruses have no metabolism and therefore offer no selective point of attack. D) Actually, viruses are not difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents.

41) All of the following are reverse transcriptase inhibitors used to treat HIV infection EXCEPT _________blank. A) azidothymidine B) zalcitabine C) lamivudine D) didanosine E) acyclovir

42)

The antiviral drugs currently approved for use in HIV disease include_________blank. A) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors B) nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors C) protease inhibitors D) fusion inhibitors E) All of the choices are correct.

43)

Drugs used to treat malaria include_________blank.

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A) chloroquine B) qualaquin C) metronidazole D) chloroquine and qualaquin

44) The antimicrobial action of artemisinin is not well understood but this chemical appears to_________blank. A) swell the Plasmodium falciparum food vacuoles B) form reactive oxygen intermediates insidePlasmodium-infected red blood cells C) inhibit heme polymerase, an enzyme that converts toxic heme into nontoxic hemazoin D) raise the internal pH, clump the plasmodial pigment, and intercalate into plasmodial DNA

45) The chemotherapeutic agent must reach levels in the body that are_________blank the pathogen’s MIC value if it is going to be effective. A) greater than B) equal to C) less than

46) The concentration of an antimicrobial drug that is reached in the body will depend on_________blank. A) the amount of drug administered B) the route of administration and speed of uptake C) the rate at which the drug is cleared or eliminated from the body D) All of the choices are correct.

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47)

Genes for drug resistance may be present_________blank. A) on the chromosome B) on plasmids C) on mitochondrial DNA D) both on the chromosome and on plasmids

48)

Development of drug resistance is encouraged by _________blank.

A) use of a high enough concentration of the drug to destroy any spontaneous resistant mutants that might arise B) use of two drugs simultaneously with the hope that each will prevent the emergence of resistance to the other C) avoidance of indiscriminate use of drugs D) using drugs appropriate for the infectious agent being treated E) widespread use of broad-spectrum drugs

49) Which of the following is (are) used by microorganisms to become resistant to a particular drug? A) Enzymatic inactivation of the drug B) Exclusion of the drug from the cell C) An alternate metabolic pathway that bypasses the drug-sensitive step D) All of the choices are correct.

50) The aminoglycosides and tetracyclines specifically target the _________blank interfering with _________blank.

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A) 30S ribosomal subunit; protein synthesis B) cell membrane enzymes; transpeptidation step of peptidoglycan synthesis C) topoisomerases; DNA replication D) tRNAs; protein synthesis

51) The major reason why there are fewer antiprotozoal drugs than antibacterial drugs is because _________blank. A) antiprotozoal drugs are not needed in the United States B) antiprotozoal drugs cost much more than antibacterial drugs to develop C) it is much more difficult to develop selectively toxic antiprotozoal drugs since protozoan cells are eukaryotic D) antiprotozoal drugs are only effective when injected

52) All of the following are appropriate strategies for overcoming drug resistance in bacteria except _________blank. A) decreasing the use of antibiotics in agriculture B) patient compliance with dosage instructions when taking antibiotics C) heightened infection control in health care facilities D) prudent use of antibiotics when treating viral infections

53)

Select the response that describes a broad-spectrum drug.

A) A drug that is effective againstE. coli (Gram-negative) andStaphylococcus aureus (Gram-positive) B) A drug that is effective againstStaphylococcus andStreptococcus (Gram-positive) but notKlebsiella (Gram-negative) C) A drug that is effective against Gram-positive organisms D) A drug that is effective against Gram-negative organisms

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54) Fluoroquinolones are known to damage tendons and nerves in patients taking the drug. Side effects from quinolones are unavoidable because_________blank. A) they inhibit DNA synthesis, and bacteria and eukaryotes carry out very similar mechanisms for DNA replication B) their mechanism of action is to disrupt cytoskeletal fibers in bacteria, which correlates to connective tissue in humans C) they disrupt folic acid synthesis, and both bacteria and humans require folic acid for growth D) they inhibit protein synthesis in bacterial cells, which simultaneously disrupts protein synthesis in the host, preventing the production of cartilage

55) Compared to antibiotics, there are fewer antiviral agents available because_________blank. A) before drugs were developed that could directly target virus-specific enzymes, it was thought that any antiviral agent would have to target host cell processes, ultimately damaging cells and tissues B) they are much more costly to produce due to the small size of viruses compared to bacteria C) antibiotics are produced by other bacteria, whereas all antivirals have to be synthesized in a laboratory D) viruses are not as deadly as bacteria so research dollars have been spent developing antibacterial drugs

56) Medicinal chemists that synthesize drugs to kill pathogenic protozoans aim to target a novel mechanism to promote selective toxicity. The reason there are fewer antiprotozoal drugs compared to antibacterials is that_________blank.

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A) there are few novel molecular mechanisms in protozoa compared to human hosts since both are eukaryotes, so toxicity is an issue B) targeting novel mechanisms in protozoans is far more costly than it is for bacterial cells C) protozoans are not pathogenic compared to bacteria so developing drugs is not costeffective D) most antiprotozoal drugs also kill bacteria so they are not given their own category

57) The minimum lethal concentration (MLC) is the lowest concentration of drug from which organisms fail to recover when removed from the drug. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Agents that are static and, therefore, do not kill infecting microorganisms are not useful as chemotherapeutic agents. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) A drug that disrupts a microbial function not found in animal cells usually has a higher therapeutic index. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) When comparing two drugs in a disk diffusion assay for drug susceptibility, the drug that produces the larger zone of inhibition is always more effective than the one that produces the smaller zone. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

61) In the broth dilution test, the highest concentration of the antibiotic resulting in no growth after 16 to 20 hours of incubation is the MIC. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Protein synthesis inhibitors have a low therapeutic index because they usually cannot discriminate between prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Ampicillin, like penicillin, must be administered by injection because it is rapidly degraded in the stomach and cannot, therefore, be given orally. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Treatment of fungal infections is more difficult than treatment of bacterial infections because the greater metabolic similarity between the fungi and their hosts limits the ability of a drug to have a selective toxicity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Amphotericin B from Streptomyces spp. binds to the sterols in fungal membranes, disrupting membrane permeability and causing leakage of cell constituents. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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66)

Metronidazole is used to treat Entamoeba infections. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Most of the drugs used to treat protozoan infection have insignificant side effects; because protozoa are eukaryotes, the potential for drug action on host cells and tissues is less than it is when targeting bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Bacteria in biofilms or abscesses may be replicating very slowly and are therefore resistant to chemotherapy because many agents affect pathogens only if they are actively growing and dividing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Penicillin G is frequently injected but not normally given orally because it is rapidly degraded in the stomach. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70) One way in which organisms may exhibit resistance to a drug is the ability to pump the drug out of the cell immediately after it has entered. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

71) The effects of most antimicrobial drugs are greater if the microorganisms are actively growing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) One way that the development of drug resistance in viruses has been reduced has been by the use of a cocktail of several drugs at high doses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) In order for successful antibiotic therapy, the in vivo level of the antibiotic must be greater than or equal to the MIC. ⊚ true ⊚ false

74) Most antiprotozoal drugs have few side effects since there are numerous cellular targets found in protozoa but not found in host cells that can be targeted with antiprotozoal drugs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75) Genes for antibiotic resistance can be found in antibiotic-producing bacteria as well as in non-antibiotic-producing bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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76) One strategy to overcome antibiotic resistance is to use the same antibiotics in animal husbandry as those that are prescribed for humans, since the potential for resistant bacteria to evolve would be limited to only a small number of drug classes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_12e_Willey 1) Side effects 2) broad-spectrum 3) antimetabolite 4) Tamiflu 5) selective toxicity 6) A 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) D 22) D 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) C 37) B 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) E 42) E 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) D 48) E 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE

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CHAPTER 10 – 12e 1)

Which of the following are components of the ATP molecule? (Check all that apply.) A) Adenine B) Ribose C) Deoxyribose D) Three phosphates

2) How does the binding of a regulatory molecule to the allosteric site affect the activity of an enzyme? (Check all that apply.) A) It causes the enzyme to denature and become inactive. B) It may change the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate. C) It may cause the active site to disappear altogether. D) It may change the maximum velocity of the enzyme. E) It may decrease the activity of the enzyme. F) It may increase the activity of the enzyme. G) It may change the shape of the enzyme.

3) Which three of the following groups are most commonly used to covalently modify an enzyme and its activity? (Check all that apply.) A) Phosphoryl group B) Hydroxyl group C) Methyl group D) Adenyl group

_________blank reactions capture energy from the organisms' energy source.

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_________blank is the total of all chemical reactions occurring in the cell.

6) _________blank reactions build new organic molecules from smaller inorganic and organic compounds.

7) In thermodynamic studies, energy changes are analyzed in a collection of matter called a_________blank. All other matter in the universe is called the_________blank.

_________blank is the science that analyzes energy changes in a collection of matter.

9) A reaction in which the forward rate is equal to the reverse rate is said to be at_________blank.

10) Cells must efficiently transfer energy from their energy-trapping systems to the systems actually carrying out work and also use various metabolic processes to replace the energy used in doing work. This is called the _________blank _________blank.

11) The energy made available during cell respiration and fermentation is used to make _________blank, which is then available to provide energy for cellular work.

12) In order for the cell to be able to input energy into necessary endergonic reactions, energy-generating processes such as photosynthesis, fermentation, and respiration are used to produce_________blank.

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13)

The molecules formed by an enzyme-catalyzed reaction are called_________blank.

14)

The reacting molecules in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction are called_________blank.

15) Disruption of an enzyme's structure with loss of activity caused by extremes of pH, temperature, or other factors is called_________blank.

16) A molecule that binds to an enzyme at a location other than the active site and thereby alters the enzyme's shape, making it inactive or less active is a(n)_________blank inhibitor.

17) Until the discovery of _________blank, enzymes were the only recognized biological molecules that were catalytic.

18) The_________blank_________blank is the substrate concentration needed for an enzyme to achieve half maximal velocity.

19) A molecule that binds noncovalently to an enzyme at the active site and thereby prevents a substrate from binding and reacting is a(n)_________blank inhibitor.

20)

RNA molecules that have catalytic activity are known as_________blank.

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21) A complex formed during a reaction that resembles both the substrate and the product is called the_________blank state complex.

22) A positive allosteric effector will _________blank the activity of an enzyme while a negative effector will _________blank the activity.

23)

__________ is the total energy change that accompanies a chemical reaction. A) Entropy B) Enthalpy C) Free energy D) Synergy

24)

A reaction that releases energy is __________. A) exergonic B) endergonic C) impossible D) None of the choices are correct.

25) Cells carry out three major types of work; which of the following involves the synthesis of macromolecules as well as the breakdown of substances for their energy?

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A) Chemical work B) Transport work C) Mechanical work D) None of the choices are correct.

26) Cells carry out three major types of work; which of the following involves nutrient uptake and waste elimination? A) Chemical work B) Transport work C) Mechanical work D) None of the choices are correct.

27) The amount of heat energy needed to raise 1 gram of water from 14.5°C to 15.5°C is called a(n) _________. A) joule B) calorie C) erg D) thermal unit

28) ATP has a phosphate transfer potential of 30.5, whereas glucose-6-phosphate has a phosphate transfer potential of 13.8. Based on these differences, which of the following will happen? A) ATP will transfer phosphate to glucose-6-phosphate. B) Glucose-6-phosphate will transfer phosphate to ADP forming ATP. C) Phosphates will not be transferred between these molecules. D) ATP will transfer phosphate to phosphoenolpyruvate.

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29)

A chemical reaction that requires an input of energy in order to proceed is __________. A) exergonic B) endergonic C) impossible D) None of the choices are correct.

30) Cells carry out three major types of work. Which of the following involves energy for cell motility and the movement of structures within cells? A) Chemical work B) Transport work C) Mechanical work D) None of the choices are correct.

31) The change in __________ is the amount of energy in a system that is available to do work. A) entropy B) enthalpy C) free energy D) synergy

32) For the reaction A + B → C + D, the equilibrium constant (Keq) is expressed as _________.

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A) [A][B]/[C][D] B) [C][D]/[A][B] C) [A][D]/[B][C] D) [B][C]/[A][D]

33)

__________ is a measure of the randomness or disorder of a system. A) Entropy B) Enthalpy C) Free energy D) Synergy

34) The __________ law of thermodynamics states that energy can be neither created nor destroyed. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth

35) The __________ law of thermodynamics states that physical and chemical processes occur in such a way that randomness (disorder) increases to a maximum. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth

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36) What nucleoside triphosphate, other than ATP, provides some of the energy for protein synthesis? A) UTP B) TTP C) CTP D) GTP

37)

In addition to ATP, what nucleoside triphosphate provides energy for lipid synthesis? A) UTP B) TTP C) CTP D) GTP

38) In addition to ATP, what nucleoside triphosphate provides energy for peptidoglycan synthesis? A) UTP B) TTP C) CTP D) GTP

39)

Based on phosphate transfer potential, which is more likely to happen? A) Phosphoenolpyruvate will transfer phosphate to ADP B) ATP will transfer phosphate to phosphoenolpyruvate C) There will be no phosphate transfer between these molecules

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40)

In the equationΔG'o = nF ⋅ ΔE'o, __________.

A) the greater the difference in standard reduction potentials between the electron donor and electron acceptor, the greater the free energy available to do work B) when the difference in reduction potentials between the electron donor and electron acceptor is small, the yield of free energy is great C) the greater the difference in reduction potentials of the participants of the redox reaction, the smaller the energy yield to the surroundings D) the difference between the reduction potentials of the redox participants is inversely proportional to the change in free energy

41) Consider the following two half reactions: + NAD + H+ + 2e− → NADH Eo (volts) = − 0.32 Pyruvate− + 2H+ + 2e− → lactate 2− Eo(volts) = − 0.19 In a redox reaction involving NAD/NADH and pyruvate, __________ will be the electron donor and _________ will be the electron acceptor. A) lactate; pyruvate B) NADH; pyruvate C) NAD+; pyruvate D) pyrvuate; lactate

42)

The __________ is the electron acceptor in a redox reaction. A) reductant B) oxidant C) enzyme D) product

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43)

The __________ is the electron donor in a redox reaction. A) reductant B) oxidant C) enzyme D) product

44) As the difference in reduction potential between a redox pair increases, the amount of free energy made available _________. A) decreases B) increases C) remains the same D) cannot be determined

45) The standard reduction potential of a redox reaction is a measure of the tendency of the __________ to __________ electrons. A) reductant; gain B) reductant; lose C) oxidant; gain D) oxidant; lose

46)

Which of the following is used as an electron carrier by living organisms?

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A) NAD+ B) NADP+ C) Ubiquinone D) All of the choices are correct.

47) In bacterial and archaeal cells, the electron transport chain is located in the _________ whereas in eukaryotic cells, the electron transport chain is located in the ____________. A) inner mitochondrial membrane; outer mitochondrial membrane B) plasma membrane; outer mitochondrial membrane C) inner mitochondrial membrane; plasma membrane D) plasma membrane; mitochondrial matrix E) plasma membrane; inner mitochondrial membrane

48) Arrange the following electron carriers in the electron transport chain, based on their standard reduction potentials. Cytochroms a3(Fe3+) + e− → Cytochrome a3 (Fe2+) Eo (volts) = 0.35 Ubiquinone + 2H+ + 2e− → Ubiquinone H2 Eo (volts) = 0.10 Cytochrome a (Fe3+) + e− → Cytochrome a (Fe2+) Eo (volts) = 0.29 Cytochrome c (Fe3+) + e− → Cytochrome c (Fe2+) Eo (volts) = 0.25 A) ubiquinone − cytochrome c − cytochrome a − cytochrome a3 B) cytochrome a3 − cytochrome a − cytochrome c − ubiquinone C) ubiquinone − cytochrome a − cytochrome a3 − cytochrome c D) cytochrome c – ubiquinone − cytochrome a − cytochrome a3

49)

Electron transport molecules that only transfer electrons include _________.

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A) ubiquinone B) NADP C) FAD D) ferredoxin

50)

Where is the electron transport chain located in bacterial cells? A) Plasma membrane B) Periplasm C) Mitochondrial inner membrane D) Mitochondrial outer membrane

51) In the electron transport chain, why do electrons flow in one direction from NADH to O2 rather than the reverse direction, or randomly? A) Electrons flow from NADH to O2 because NADH has the most negative reduction potential and O2 the most positive with electron carriers in between, each becoming more positive to direct the electron flow. B) Electrons flow from NADH to O2 because NADH has the most positive reduction potential and O2 the most negative with electron carriers in between, each becoming more negative to direct the electron flow. C) Electrons flow from NADH to O2 because the change in free energy directs the electron flow from the molecule with the most positive reduction potential to the one with the most negative. D) Electrons flow from NADH to O2 using ATP as a source of energy to drive the flow against their gradient from most negative reduction potential to most positive.

52)

Enzymes are usually named based on _________.

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A) the substrates they act on B) their molecular structure C) the type of reaction they catalyze D) the substrates they act on and the type of reaction they catalyze E) All of the choices are correct.

53) The most specific term usually used to describe a substance in a biological system that increases the rate of a reaction without being permanently changed by the reaction is a(n) _________. A) catalyzer B) reductant C) enzyme D) rate increaser

54)

The substrate of an enzyme binds at the _________. A) affinity site B) active site C) determinative site D) reaction site

55) If an enzyme consists of a protein component and a nonprotein component, the protein component is referred as the _________. A) apoenzyme B) coenzyme C) holoenzyme D) prosthetic group

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56) If all available enzyme molecules are binding substrate and converting it to product as rapidly as possible, the reaction is said to be proceeding at __________ velocity. A) terminal B) maximal C) optimal D) infinite

57) A(n) _________ increases the rate of a reaction without being permanently altered by the reaction. A) catalyzer B) catalyst C) reactant D) rate increaser

58)

Enzymes function as catalysts by _________. A) concentrating the substrates together at the active site B) correctly orienting the substrates at the active site C) concentrating the substrates and correctly orienting them at the active site D) None of the choices are correct.

59)

Enzymes catalyze a reaction by _________.

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A) decreasing the amount of energy released by the reaction B) increasing the amount of energy released by the reaction C) decreasing the activation energy of the reaction D) increasing the activation energy of the reaction

60) A complete enzyme that consists of a protein component and a nonprotein component is called a(n) _________. A) apoenzyme B) heteroenzyme C) holoenzyme D) multienzyme

61) Catalytic proteins are known as _________ whereas catalytic RNA molecules are known as __________. A) ribozymes; enzymes B) enzymes; ribozymes C) enzymes; catalozymes D) catalozymes; ribozymes

62)

Which of the following is/are true about enzymes?

A) Enzymes are catalysts that speed up reactions. B) Enzymes are proteins that can be denatured by changes in pH or temperature. C) Enzymes are highly specific for the substrates they react with and catalyze only one or a limited set of possible reactions with those substrates. D) All of the choices are correct.

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63) The nonprotein component of an enzyme that is firmly attached to the protein is called a(n) _________. A) apoenzyme B) coenzyme C) holoenzyme D) prosthetic group

64) The energy required to bring the substrates of a reaction together in the correct way to reach the transition state is called _________. A) free energy B) activation energy C) enthalpy D) entropy

65) A nonprotein component of an enzyme that is loosely attached to the protein component is referred to as a(n) _________. A) apoenzyme B) coenzyme C) holoenzyme D) prosthetic group

66)

Which of the following is a reason for metabolic regulation?

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A) Maintain cell components at appropriate levels B) Conserve materials C) Ensure efficient use of energy stores D) All of the choices are correct.

67) In metabolic channeling, the regulation of metabolic pathways is controlled by the __________ of metabolites and enzymes involved in the pathway. A) amount B) location C) activity D) All of the choices are correct.

68) Metabolic channeling involves the localization of __________ in different parts of a cell in order to influence the activity of metabolic pathways. A) activators B) repressors C) substrates and enzymes D) inhibitors

69) When the end product of a pathway inhibits catalysis of the first step of that pathway, this phenomenon is called _________. A) reversible covalent modification B) feedback inhibition C) metabolic channeling D) noncompetitive inhibition

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70)

Enzyme activity can be controlled by _________. A) allosteric regulation B) covalent modification C) feedback (end product) inhibition D) All of the choices are correct.

71)

In allosteric regulation, effector molecules usually bind _________. A) reversibly and covalently B) irreversibly and covalently C) reversibly and noncovalently D) irreversibly and noncovalently

72) In a branched pathway with many end products, an abundance of one of the end products will usually inhibit _________. A) the first step in the set of pathways B) the first committed step in the branch of the pathway leading to the production of that particular product C) the last step before the branch leading to the production of that particular end product D) the last step in the production of that particular product

73)

Which of the following reactions is catalyzed by a ribozyme?

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A) First reaction in glycolysis (phosphorylation of glucose) B) Attachment of amino acid to transfer RNA C) Peptide bond formation during protein synthesis D) Last step in electron transport chain (reduction of O2 to form H2O)

74)

Which strategy can be used for regulation of metabolism? A) Feedback inhibition B) Allosteric regulation C) Regulation of enzyme synthesis D) Covalent modification of enzymes E) All of the choices are correct.

75) Feedback inhibition, covalent modification, and allosteric regulation are all examples of __________. A) regulation of gene expression B) posttranslational regulation C) metabolic channeling D) compartmentalization

76)

The binding of a positive allosteric regulator molecule will _________. A) decrease the ability of the substrate to bind to the allosteric site B) increase the ability of the substrate to bind to the catalytic site C) decrease the ability of the substrate to bind to the catalytic site

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77) Consider a biochemical pathway with five steps that lead to the production of product Q. If there is an abundance of product Q, the most efficient way to slow down the entire pathway would be to regulate __________. A) the first enzyme in the pathway B) the last enzyme in the pathway C) every enzyme in the pathway

78) Consider a biochemical pathway that branches to form two different products. If the end product of one of the branches is present in a large amount, at what point would the pathway be regulated to ensure adequate production of the end product of the alternative pathway while slowing or stopping production of the product already present in excess? A) At the very first step in the entire pathway B) At the last step in the pathway to the product in excess C) At the last step in the pathway to the alternative product still needed D) At the point where the two pathways branch

79) A bacterial biosynthetic pathway synthesizes an amino acid in a series of steps, each catalyzed by a different enzyme. The bacteria is transferred to fresh media where the amino acid is present in abundance. The amino acid binds to a regulatory site on the first enzyme in the pathway, effectively shutting down the entire process. This is an example of __________. A) feedback inhibition B) covalent modification C) metabolic channeling D) gene regulation

80) The numerical value of the free energy change indicates how fast a reaction will reach equilibrium.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Energy can be redistributed within a collection of matter (called a system) or can be redistributed between the system and its surroundings. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Some endergonic reactions can be made to proceed forward if they are coupled to hydrolysis of one or more of the phosphates of ATP. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83)

In an ATP molecule, the phosphates are bonded to the adenine ring. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84)

The most commonly used practical form of energy used in cells is adenosine diphosphate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) The electron transport chain is based on the principle that redox couples with more positive reduction potentials will donate electrons to couples with more negative potentials. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

86)

The equilibrium constant for a redox reaction is called the standard reduction potential. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) One of the components used during photosynthetic electron transport is ferredoxin, a nonheme iron protein. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by increasing molecular motion, thereby providing kinetic energy to drive the reaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89)

Enzymes decrease the overall free energy change in a chemical reaction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90)

Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction but do not alter equilibrium constants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) When the amount of enzyme present is held constant, the rate of a reaction will continue to increase as long as the substrate concentration increases. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

92) best.

Each enzyme normally has specific pH and temperature optima at which they function ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Enzyme activity can be greatly affected by the pH and the temperature of the environment in which the enzyme must function. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) The Michaelis constant (Km) of an enzyme is the substrate concentration that produces maximum velocity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Ribozymes are responsible for catalyzing peptide bond formation during protein synthesis and are located in the mitochondria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Isoenzymes are different enzymes that catalyze the same reaction but can be regulated independently of one another. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

97)

The regulatory site in an allosteric enzyme is found within the catalytic site. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) Covalent modification of enzymes most commonly uses phosphoryl, methyl, and adenyl groups. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, D] 2) [B, D, E, F, G] 3) [A, C, D] 4) Catabolic 5) Metabolism 6) Anabolic 7) [system, surroundings] 8) Thermodynamics 9) equilibrium 10) energy cycle 11) ATP 12) ATP 13) products 14) substrates 15) denaturation 16) noncompetitive 17) ribozymes 18) Michaelis constant (Km) 19) competitive 20) ribozymes 21) transition 22) [increase, decrease] 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) B 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) E 48) A 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) D 53) C 54) B 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) B 58) C 59) C 60) C 61) B 62) D 63) D 64) B 65) B 66) D 67) B 68) C 69) B 70) D 71) C 72) B 73) C 74) E 75) B 76) B 77) A 78) D 79) A 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE Version 1

87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE

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CHAPTER 11 – 12e 1)

Select the terms that describe an organism’s carbon source. A) Heterotroph B) Lithotroph C) Chemotroph D) Autotroph E) Organotroph

2) Indicate the processes below that represent the basic types of chemoorganotrophic metabolism. A) Photosynthesis B) Aerobic respiration C) Fermentation D) Oxidation-reduction E) Anaerobic respiration

Indicate the products of aerobic respiration. A) Water B) O2 C) CO2 D) NADH E) ATP F) All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following names refer to the tricarboxlic acid cycle?

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A) Krebs cycle B) Pentose phosphate pathway C) Calvin cycle D) Citric acid cycle E) Cyclic phosphorylation

Which of the following are consequences of anaerobic respiration? (Check all that apply.)

A) Some bacteria are able to readily survive in both well-oxygenated as well as anoxic environments. B) Some bacteria may cause denitrification. C) Some bacteria are able to perform nitrogen fixation. D) Bacteria are able to reduce the levels of NO3− in sewage plant effluents.

6) Photoheterotrophs that use light to generate ATP, but do not fix CO2 _________. (Check all that apply.) A) would best be described as photosynthetic B) would use both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle C) would use neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle D) would best be described as phototropic E) would use the light reactions but not the Calvin cycle

7) Which of the following described roles attributed to accessory pigments such as carotenes and phycobiliproteins? (Check all that apply.) A) These pigments absorb light in ranges not absorbed by chlorophylls and transfer the energy to chlorophylls. B) These pigments extend the spectrum of wavelengths that will drive photosynthesis. C) The accessory pigments are involved in maintaining the Calvin cycle. D) Accessory pigments protect organisms from potentially damaging intense sunlight.

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In what ways are oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation similar? A) The source of energy is highly reduced organic compounds B) An electron transport chain is used C) Proton motive force is generated D) Water is split to provide electrons E) ATP synthase enzyme phosphorylates ADP to make ATP

9) Which of the following processes utilize energy generated by the proton motive force during glucose catabolism? (Check all that apply.) A) Ribosome synthesis B) Flagella rotation C) Peptidoglycan formation D) NAD+ reduction E) Molecular transport

10)

_________blank pathways are those that function both catabolically and anabolically.

11) _________blank_________blank is a process that can completely catabolize an organic energy source to CO2 using the glycolytic pathways and TCA cycle with O2 as the terminal electron acceptor for an electron transport chain.

12) After glycolysis, pyruvate is oxidized to one CO2 and the two-carbon molecule acetylCoA by a multienzyme system called the_________blank_________blank complex.

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13)

TCA cycle enzymes are found in the_________blank_________blank of eukaryotic cells.

14) When mitochondria pass electrons donated by NADH through the electron transport chain to molecular oxygen, a theoretical maximum of_________blank molecules of ATP can be made per oxygen molecule reduced.

15) The hypothesis that the proton motive force drives ATP synthesis is called the_________blank hypothesis.

16) The most commonly accepted hypothesis for the production of ATP that results from electron transport system is called the_________blank hypothesis.

17) When cells of a facultative anaerobe such asParacoccus denitrificans are growing under anaerobic conditions and using nitrate as the terminal electron acceptor,_________blank nitrate reduction is occurring.

18) Organisms that form lactate, ethanol, and CO2 as end products of glucose metabolism are called_________blank fermenters.

19) Organisms that directly reduce almost all of their pyruvate to lactate are called_________blank fermenters.

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20) Large external polysaccharides are degraded by bacteria and archaea using _________blank _________blank, which they secrete outside the cell.

21) Disaccharides and polysaccharides can be processed as nutrients after first being cleaved to monosaccharides by either_________blank or_________blank.

22) Proteins are catabolized by hydrolytic cleavage to amino acids by the action of enzymes called_________blank.

23) _________blank is a two-step process that depends on the activity of at least two genera to carry out the oxidation of ammonia to nitrate.

24) The six carbons of the glucose molecule that enter the cell respiration pathway end up in/as _________blank _________blank by the end of the process.

25) Whereas the Embden-Meyerhof pathway produces two molecules of pyruvate (net) for each glucose, the Entner-Doudoroff pathway produces one molecule each of _________blank and _________blank.

26) A _________blank hydrolyzes a protein into its constituent amino acid monomers and a _________blank enzyme removes amino groups from the amino acids.

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27)

The total of all chemical reactions occurring in a cell is called _________. A) anabolism B) catabolism C) metabolism D) None of the choices are correct.

28) The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose metabolized anaerobically via the EmbdenMeyerhof pathway in prokaryotes is _________. A) 2 B) 36 C) 38 D) 85

29) The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose metabolized to pyruvate using EntnerDoudoroff pathway is _________. A) 4 B) 2 C) 1 D) 0

30)

The pentose phosphate pathway produces _________.

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A) CO2 B) NADPH C) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D) All of the choices are correct.

31) The synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi, when coupled with an exergonic chemical reaction is called __________ phosphorylation. A) chemiosmotic B) oxidative C) substrate-level D) conformational change

32)

The most common pathway for conversion of glucose to pyruvate is _________. A) Entner-Doudoroff B) Pentose phosphate C) Embden-Meyerhoff D) mixed acid fermentation

33) The TCA cycle generates all of the following from each acetyl-CoA molecule oxidized except _________. A) three NADH molecules B) two CO2 molecules C) one FADH2 molecule D) two ATP or GTP molecules

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34) The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex oxidizes and cleaves pyruvate to form one CO2 and _________. A) lactate B) isocitric acid C) acetyl-CoA D) succinyl-CoA

35) In the TCA cycle, two carbons are removed from citric acid in the form of __________, thereby regenerating oxaloacetate to complete the cycle. A) acetyl-CoA B) ethanol C) carbon dioxide D) methanol

36) In the TCA cycle, two carbons in the form of __________ are added to oxaloacetate at the start of the cycle. A) acetyl-CoA B) ethanol C) carbon dioxide D) methanol

37)

The major function(s) of the TCA cycle is(are) _________.

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A) energy production B) provision of carbon skeletons for biosynthesis of cell components C) electron transport D) energy production and provision of carbon skeletons for biosynthesis of cell components

38) Differences between mitochondrial and E. coli electron transport chains include which of the following? A) The E. coli chain contains a different array of cytochromes. B) The fundamental principles on which they operate are different. C) Higher P/O values are observed in E. coli. D) The electron transport chain does not involve membranes in E. coli.

39)

Which of the following is NOT true regarding ATP synthases?

A) They require proton motive force to make ATP. B) They span the inner membrane of mitochondria. C) The proton flow is outward during ATP synthesis. D) The subunits of ATP synthase undergo conformational changes during ATP production.

40) The theoretical maximum net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose metabolized aerobically in eukaryotes is _________. A) 2 B) 32 C) 38 D) 85

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41) Production of ATP using the energy liberated when electrons from reduced chemical bonds are passed through the electron transport system is generally referred to as _________. A) chemiosmotic B) respiration C) substrate-level D) conformational change

42)

Mitochondrial electron transport takes place _________. A) on the outer mitochondrial membrane B) on the inner mitochondrial membrane C) in the fluid matrix of the mitochondria D) on the outer mitochondrial membrane and on the inner mitochondrial membrane

43)

In higher eukaryotes, most aerobically generated ATP is produced by _________.

A) glycolysis B) the TCA cycle C) a membrane-bound proton translocating ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation D) All of the choices are correct.

44) The number of ATP molecules generated per atom of oxygen that is reduced when electrons are passed from NADH or reduced FAD (FADH) to O2 is called the _________.

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A) utilization ratio B) energy yield C) P/O ratio D) phosphorylation coefficient

45) In aerobic conditions, it takes __________ sugar to produce the same amount of ATP when compared to anaerobic conditions due to the difference in standard reduction potentials of the terminal electron acceptors. A) more B) less C) the same amount of

46)

Which of the following can be used as electron acceptors during anaerobic respiration? A) Nitrate B) Sulfate C) Carbon dioxide D) All of the choices are correct.

47)

Fatty acids are metabolized by the __________ pathway. A) alpha-oxidation B) beta-oxidation C) gamma-oxidation D) delta-oxidation

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48) During breakdown of fatty acids, carbons are removed __________ at a time with each turn of the cycle, and two carbon units are released as __________. A) one; carbon dioxide B) one; methane C) two; acetyl-CoA D) two; ethanol

49)

Amino acids are processed first by the removal of the amino group through _________. A) deamination B) transamination C) phosphorolytic cleavage D) deamination or transamination

50)

Which of the following may be used as sources of energy by chemolithotrophs? A) Hydrogen gas B) Reduced nitrogen compounds C) Reduced sulfur compounds D) All of the choices are correct.

51) How many molecules of ATP are needed to reduce one molecule of carbon dioxide to carbohydrate by oxygenic phototrophs during the dark reactions of photosynthesis? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 10–12

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52) How many molecules of NADPH are needed to reduce one molecule of carbon dioxide to carbohydrate by oxygenic phototrophs during the dark reactions of photosynthesis? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 10–12

53) How many quanta of light are needed to reduce one molecule of carbon dioxide to carbohydrate during photosynthesis? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 10–12

54)

In the process of noncyclic photophosphorylation, _________.

A) water is split to form oxygen gas B) electrons from water flow through electron transport chains resulting in synthesis of ATP and NADPH C) photosystems I and II are both required D) All of the choices are correct.

55) In the process of __________, ATP is synthesized when excited electrons from chlorophyll P700 pass through a series of electron carriers then return to chlorophyll P700.

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A) photosynthesis B) cyclic photophosphorylation C) acyclic photophosphorylation D) noncyclic photophosphorylation

56)

Photosynthetic electron transport in cyanobacteria takes place _________. A) on the plasma membrane B) in the chloroplast C) in the cytoplasm D) on the thylakoid membranes

57)

The terms phototroph and chemotroph refer to an organism's source of _________. A) energy B) electrons C) carbon D) nitrogen

58) A newly described bacterial species has been shown to use CO2 as its carbon source. Its energy source and its source of reducing power (electrons) are inorganic chemicals. Which term would best describe this nutritional type? A) Chemolithoheterotroph B) Photoorganoheterotroph C) Photolithoheterotroph D) Chemolithoautotroph

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59) Which nutritional classification would you predict to fit most of the well-known members of the human microbiome? A) Photolithoautotrophs B) Chemoorganoheterotrophs C) Chemolithoautotrophs D) Chemolithohetertrophs

60) Processes that supply ATP, reducing power, and precursor metabolites are collectively referred to as __________ reactions. A) redox B) fueling C) synthetic D) generating

61)

In most cases, fueling reactions are __________ reactions. A) catabolic B) anabolic C) reducing D) synthesizing

62)

Respiration and fermentation are the two basic types of _________. A) chemoorganoheterotrophic metabolism B) photolithoautotrophic metabolism C) chemolithoautotrophic metabolism D) chemoorganoautotrophic metabolism

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63) What distinguishing feature characterizes aerobic and anaerobic respiration but does not play a role in fermentation pathways? A) Oxidation-reduction reactions B) Hydrolysis reactions C) The absence of O2 D) The presence of an electron transport chain

64)

Which of the following produces the most ATP during aerobic respiration? A) Glycolysis B) TCA cycle C) Fermentation D) Electron transport chain and chemiosmosis E) Substrate level phosphorylation

65) During glycolysis, ATP is produced when 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate transfers a phosphate to ADP forming ATP. This is an example of _________. A) photophosphorylation B) oxidative phosphorylation C) substrate-level phosphorylation D) glycolytic phosphorylation

66) In order for a substance to transfer a phosphate to ADP in a substrate-level phosphorylation reaction, which of the following must be true? A) The phosphate donor must have a lower phosphate transfer potential than ATP. B) The phosphate donor must have a higher oxidation-reduction potential than ATP. C) The phosphate donor must have a higher phosphate transfer potential than ATP. D) The phosphate donor must have a lower oxidation-reduction potential than ATP.

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67)

Which of the following is the major glycolytic pathway used by plants and animals? A) Tricarboxylic acid cycle B) Embden-Meyerhof pathway C) Entner-Doudoroff pathway D) Pentose phosphate pathway

68)

Which of the following is produced in largest numbers by the TCA cycle? A) ATP (GTP) B) NADH C) FADH D) CO2

69) The TCA cycle is located in the _________ of bacteria, and in the _________ of eukaryotes. A) cytoplasm; mitochondrial matrix B) plasma membrane; inner mitochondrial membrane C) plasma membrane; mitochondrial matrix D) cytoplasm; inner mitochondrial membrane

70) When nitrate is used as a final electron acceptor by bacteria growing in anoxic soils, the nitrogen is no longer available for the construction of precursor metabolites. This is referred to as _________. A) nitrification B) nitrogen fixation C) nitrogen respiration D) dissimilatory nitrate reduction

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71) The amount of ATP produced during anaerobic respiration is _________ that produced during aerobic respiration, because the difference in the standard reduction potential between NADH and the final electron acceptor is __________. A) less than; larger B) less than; smaller C) greater than; larger D) greater than; smaller

72)

How is ATP produced during fermentation? A) Cyclic phosphorylation B) Substrate-level phosphorylation C) Oxidative phosphorylation D) Use of proton motive force to drive ATP synthase E) Chemosynthetic phosphorylation

73)

How does a fermenter generate proton motive force (PMF) to drive active transport? A) Fermenters use an electron transport chain for this purpose. B) Fermenters cannot generate proton motive force. C) Fermenters can reverse the direction of the ATP synthase to generate PMF.

74) How does the phosphorylation of galactose differ from the phosphorylation of glucose, mannose, and fructose prior to catabolism?

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A) Phosphorylation of galactose requires NADPH to phosphorylate galactose-1phosphate B) Phosphorylation of galactose requires PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate) to phosphorylate galactose-1-phosphate C) Phosphorylation of galactose requires ATP to phosphorylate galactose-1-phosphate D) Phosphorylation of galactose requires TTP to phosphorylate galactose-1-phosphate E) Phosphorylation of galactose requires UTP to phosphorylate galactose-1-phosphate

75)

Complete catabolism of lactose requires _________. A) ATP, NAD, and appropriate enzymes B) ATP, UTP, NAD, and appropriate enzymes C) NAD and appropriate enzymes

76)

What enzymes hydrolyze proteins, releasing amino acids? A) Tranaminases B) Proteases C) Decarboxylases D) Deaminases

77) ___________ refers to the removal of an amino group from an amino acid. One mechanism for this removal is __________, in which the amino group is transferred to an acceptor molecule. A) Deamination; hydrolysis B) Deamination; transamination C) Transamination; deamination D) Hydrolysis; transamination

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78) The substances that donate electrons to the electron transport chains of chemolithotrophs are ___________. A) carbohydrates B) inorganic compounds C) lipids D) methane gas and alcohols

79) Chemolithotrophs generally derive ________ ATP from oxidation of inorganic substrates because the reduction potentials of those substrates are much more ________ than the reduction potential of organic substrates. A) more; positive B) more; negative C) less; positive D) less; negative

80) _________ is an aerobic chemolithotrophic process that ultimately oxidizes ammonia to nitrate, whereas _________ is a form of anaerobic respiration involving the oxidation of an organic compound using an oxidized nitrogenous compound, such as nitrate, as the terminal electron acceptor. A) Ammonification; nitrification B) Denitrification; nitrification C) Ammonification; denitrification D) Nitrification; denitrification

81) Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b as well as the accessory pigments are arranged in an antenna array with a reaction center chlorophyll. These antenna arrays with the reaction center chlorophyll are known as _________.

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A) reaction center systems B) photomembrane systems C) photosystems D) Calvin systems

82) Consider the metabolism of a chlorophyll–based phototroph. In oxidative phosphorylation during cell respiration, the source of energy is _________ whereas in photophosphorylation the source of energy is __________. A) highly reduced organic compounds; light B) NADH; NADPH C) electron transport chain; chlorophyll D) ATP; light

83) The Embden-Meyerhof, Entner-Doudoroff and pentose phosphate pathways all bring about the reduction of coenzymes (either NAD+ or NADP+). The reduced coenzymes __________. A) provide reducing power to fuel subsequent reactions B) are converted into ATP for energy C) serve as precursor molecules for anabolic reactions D) can no longer be oxidized

84)

The TCA cycle __________.

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A) provides reducing power in the form of NADH and FADH2, and precursor molecules for anabolic reactions B) yields 34 molecules of ATP C) produces pyruvate as a source of electrons to drive the electron transport chain D) is a divergent pathway that produces ATP and CO2

85)

The TCA cycle begins when __________.

A) pyruvate from the glycolytic pathway is oxidized to acetyl-CoA, which is added to oxaloacetate B) NADH is oxidized to NAD+, which provides a source of electrons to drive the cycle C) ATP from the glycolytic pathway is hydrolyzed, providing the energy to start the cycle D) pyruvate from the glycolytic pathway is added to oxaloacetate

86) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of electron transport chain length on energy production? A) As electrons are passed from carrier to carrier, each oxidation releases enough energy to actively transport protons across a membrane, thus, the more carriers, the greater the proton motive force produced. B) The length of the electron transport chain does not play a role in the magnitude of the proton motive force produced. C) The longer the electron transport chain, the less energy is stored in the proton motive force, since energy must be expended when passing electrons down the chain. D) Bacterial and archaeal electron transport chains are the same as eukaryotic chains, so the same amount of energy is produced from the resulting proton motive force, regardless of the organism.

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87) The oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O with the subsequent production of energy is best reflected in which of the following statements? A) Glucose is oxidized in a stepwise fashion beginning with a glycolytic pathway and continuing with the TCA cycle where the remainder of the energy from the glucose is harnessed in reduced coenzymes, which transport electrons to an electron transport chain where ATP is made by oxidative phosphorylation. B) Glucose is reduced in a stepwise fashion beginning with the Entner-Doudoroff pathway and continuing with the TCA cycle where 38 molecules of ATP are made by oxidative phosphorylation. C) Glucose is oxidized in a stepwise fashion beginning with the Embden-Meyerhof pathway and continuing with the TCA cycle where the remainder of the energy from the glucose is harnessed in oxidized coenzymes, which transport electrons to an electron transport chain where ATP is made by substrate-level phosphorylation. D) Glucose is reduced in a stepwise fashion beginning with the TCA cycle and continuing with a glycolytic pathway where the remainder of the energy from the glucose is harnessed in oxidized coenzymes, which transport electrons to an electron transport chain where ATP is made by oxidative phosphorylation.

88) The energy source for substrate-level phosphorylation (SLP) differs from that of oxidative phosphorylation (OP) in that __________. A) OP is driven using energy provided by a proton motive force, whereas the energy to add a phosphate group to ADP during SLP comes from the direct transfer of a phosphate group from a molecule with a higher phosphate transfer potential than ATP B) SLP is driven using energy provided by a proton motive force, whereas the energy to add a phosphate group to ADP during OP comes from the direct transfer of a phosphate group from a molecule with a higher phosphate transfer potential than ATP C) OP is driven using energy provided by a proton motive force, whereas the energy to add a phosphate group to ADP during SLP comes from the direct transfer of a phosphate group from a molecule with a lower phosphate transfer potential than ATP D) SLP is driven using energy provided by a proton motive force, whereas the energy to remove a phosphate group from ATP during OP comes from the direct transfer of a phosphate group from a molecule with a lower phosphate transfer potential than ATP

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89)

Chemolithotrophs obtain their energy from __________.

A) inorganic molecules that are oxidized, providing electrons to create a proton motive force that drives oxidative phosphorylation B) inorganic molecules that directly transfer a phosphate group to ATP during substratelevel phosphorylation C) organic molecules that are oxidized via a glycolytic pathway and the TCA cycle D) inorganic molecules that are reduced, providing electrons to create a proton motive force that drives oxidative phosphorylation

90)

Which statement best describes the concept of electron bifurcation?

A) A flavoenzyme oxidizes an electron donor and directs two electrons to two different recipients, one being an exothermic reduction that pulls the simultaneous endothermic reduction to completion. B) A flavoenzyme oxidizes an electron donor and directs two electrons down a series of carriers creating a proton motive force. C) A flavoenzyme oxidizes an electron donor and directs two electrons to a single, more electronegative recipient that releases energy for the production of ATP. D) A flavoenzyme reduces an electron donor and directs two electrons to two different recipients, one being an exothermic oxidation that pulls the simultaneous endothermic oxidation to completion.

91) Endergonic reactions in cells do not happen spontaneously, that is, they require an input of energy. Coupling such reactions with exothermic ones, such as the hydrolysis of ATP drives the reaction forward. Certain organisms are able to bypass the need for ATP or a proton motive force by __________.

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A) tightly coupling an endergonic and an exergonic reduction so the exergonic reduction can drive the completion of the endergonic one in a process known as electron bifurcation B) tightly coupling an endergonic and an exergonic oxidation so the endergonic oxidation can drive the completion of the exergonic one in a process known as electron bifurcation C) using glucose as a direct source of energy in a process similar to spontaneous combustion D) circumventing the need for endergonic reactions

92) Although most metabolic reactions are freely reversible, a few irreversible catabolic steps are bypassed during biosynthesis with special enzymes that catalyze the reverse reaction in order to allow for independent regulation of catabolic and anabolic pathways. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

Metabolic pathways can be either catabolic or anabolic but not both. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) The catabolism of glucose begins with one or more of the glycolytic pathways that yield pyruvate. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

Very few Gram-positive bacteria utilize the Entner-Doudoroff glycolytic pathway. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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96) Some aerobic bacteria lack the Entner-Doudoroff and Embden-Meyerhoff pathways and instead use the pentose phosphate pathway for glycolysis. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

An organism may use glycolysis and the pentose phosphate pathway simultaneously. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Bacterial electron transport chains may be comprised of fewer components and have lower phosphate to oxygen (P/O) ratios than mitochondrial transport chains. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) The electron transport systems in eukaryotes and prokaryotes use different electron carriers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) In addition to being used in the making of ATP, a proton motive force is used directly to power the rotation of bacterial flagella. ⊚ ⊚

101)

true false

Prokaryotes may use several different terminal oxidases for the electron transport system.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Reduction of nitrate to nitrite by Paracoccus denitrificans is an example of anaerobic respiration. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Fermentation involves the use of pyruvate and/or other organic molecules as electron acceptors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) In the process of fermentation an organic substrate, such as glucose, is reduced and an intermediate of the pathway, such as pyruvate, is oxidized. ⊚ ⊚

105)

true false

Oxygen is always required for the regeneration of NAD from NADH. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Nitrification of ammonia occurs when ammonia is first converted to nitrite and then is converted to nitrate by the nitrogen-fixing bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

107)

All prokaryotic photosynthesizers are anoxygenic. ⊚ ⊚

108)

Photosynthetic organisms serve as the base for most food chains in the biosphere. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

All eukaryotic photosynthesizers are oxygenic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) An organism can fit into only one nutritional pattern, such as photoheterotrophy, and cannot change if the environmental conditions change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

111) An organism can take advantage of energy available from both light and from organic molecules and exhibit both phototrophy and chemoorganotrophy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

112) Glycolysis and the TCA cycle are two of the most important catabolic pathways in chemoorganotrophs.

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⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

The pentose phosphate pathway is the major glycolytic pathway used by archaea. ⊚ true ⊚ false

114) The terms Krebs cycle, tricarboxylic acid cycle, and citric acid cycle all refer to the same process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

115) The major difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration is the final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

116) Most chemolithotrophs have electron transport chains that terminate with O2 as the final electron acceptor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

117) Many chemolithotrophs are able to produce more ATP from oxidation of their inorganic energy source than chemoheterotrophs produce from the aerobic oxidation of glucose. ⊚ true ⊚ false

118)

All forms of phototropy “harvest” light energy to fix carbon, producing sugar.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

119) Oxidative decarboxylation takes place when pyruvate from the glycolytic pathway is oxidized, producing acetyl-CoA along with one CO2 and one NADH. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) The catabolism of glucose through a glycolytic pathway, followed by the TCA cycle and culminating in ATP production via the formation of a proton motive force in the electron transport chain, represents the overall reduction of glucose. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) Flavoenzymes oxidize an electron donor then direct the two electrons to two different recipients having different reduction potentials. ⊚ ⊚

true false

122) Electron bifurcation is a useful way for organisms to circumvent the need for ATP hydrolysis and/or a proton motive force because it tightly couples reactions that are thermodynamically unfavorable with those that occur spontaneously, providing an excess of energy to drive the former. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

123) Ammonia, nitrites, and sulfur-containing compounds can all be used by chemolithotrophs since they are all available in a fully oxidized form. Their electrons can be donated to the electron transport chain to generate a PMF. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_12e_Willey 1) [A, D] 2) [B, C, E] 3) [A, C, E] 4) [A, D] 5) [A, B, D] 6) [D, E] 7) [A, B, D] 8) [B, C, E] 9) [B, E] 10) Amphibolic 11) Aerobic respiration 12) pyruvate dehydrogenase 13) mitochondrial matrix 14) three 15) chemiosmotic 16) chemiosmotic 17) dissimilatory 18) heterolactic 19) homolactic 20) hydrolytic enzymes 21) [hydrolysis, phosphorolysis] 22) proteases 23) Nitrification 24) carbon dioxide 25) [pyruvate, glyceraldehyde] 26) [protease, deaminase] Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) C 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) B 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) B 48) C 49) D 50) D 51) B 52) A 53) D 54) D 55) B 56) D Version 1

57) A 58) D 59) B 60) B 61) A 62) A 63) D 64) D 65) C 66) C 67) B 68) B 69) A 70) D 71) B 72) B 73) C 74) E 75) B 76) B 77) B 78) B 79) C 80) D 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) A 89) A 90) A 91) A 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) FALSE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) FALSE 114) TRUE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE Version 1

117) FALSE 118) FALSE 119) TRUE 120) FALSE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) FALSE

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CHAPTER 12 – 12e 1) Large structures (e.g., ribosomes) form spontaneously from their macromolecular components by a process known as ________ ________.

2) Eukaryotic cells compartmentalize some anabolic and catabolic pathways so that these pathways can be operated __________.

Unsaturated fatty acids are those containing carbon-carbon ________ bonds.

4) A ________ ________, such as uridine diphosphate glucose (UDPG), is often attached to many sugars during synthesis.

5) The bacterial cell wall component, ________, is a long, polypeptide chain of NAM and NAG residues that provide the bacterial cell protection from lysis.

6) A pyrimidine or purine base that has been joined with a ribose or deoxyribose sugar moiety is now termed a ________.

7) The synthesis of ________, a component of Gram-negative bacterial outer membranes, is complex because it requires understanding both carbohydrate and lipid biosynthesis pathways.

8) Eukaryotic cell membranes use many sterol molecules for construction, which contrasts with archaeal membranes that utilize _________.

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9) In the synthesis of amino acids, the addition of the amino nitrogen usually occurs __________ the synthesis of the carbon skeletons. A) before B) after C) during

10) Which of the following is true about the synthesis of macromolecules from monomeric subunits? A) It saves genetic storage capacity B) It saves biosynthetic raw materials C) It saves energy D) All of the choices are correct.

11) Synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones with the input of energy is called __________. A) metabolism B) anabolism C) catabolism D) amphibolism

12) Large numbers of small monomeric molecules join together to form large molecules that are known as _________.

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A) multimers B) polymolecules C) macromolecules D) maximolecules

13) Which of the following is a source of carbon skeletons that are used in the synthesis of amino acids? A) Acetyl-CoA B) TCA cycle intermediates C) Glycolysis intermediates D) All of the choices are correct.

14) Microorganisms assimilate large amounts of all of the following atoms into organic molecules, except _________. A) nitrogen B) phosphorus C) sodium D) sulfur

15)

The process of carbon dioxide fixation refers to _________.

A) release of carbon dioxide during catabolic reactions B) reduction of carbon dioxide and incorporation into organic molecules that are assimilated C) release of carbon dioxide during anabolic reactions D) reaction of carbon dioxide with water to form carbonic acid

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16)

Which pathway(s) are used by eukaryotic microorganisms to fix carbon dioxide? A) Calvin-Benson cycle B) Reductive tricarboxylic pathway C) Entner-Doudoroff D) None of the choices are correct.

17)

Which pathway(s) is used to fix carbon dioxide? A) Glycolysis B) Reductive TCA pathway C) Entner-Doudoroff D) Pentose phosphate pathway

18)

Which of the following is NOT a phase of the Calvin-Benson cycle? A) Carboxylation phase B) Oxidation phase C) Reduction phase D) Regeneration phase

19) In order to form a single molecule of glucose, it takes ______ turns through the reactions of the Calvin-Benson cycle. A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 12

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20)

Photoautotrophs use light energy directly for _________.

A) the production of ATP and NADPH B) the reduction of carbon dioxide to glucose C) both the production of ATP and NADPH and the reduction of carbon dioxide to glucose D) neither the production of ATP and NADPH nor the reduction of carbon dioxide to glucose

21) The photosynthetic production of one molecule of glucose requires _______ molecule(s) of NADPH. A) 6 B) 12 C) 18 D) 24

22) The photosynthetic production of one molecule of glucose requires ________ molecule(s) of ATP. A) 6 B) 12 C) 18 D) 24

23) A series of enzymatic steps that fixes carbon dioxide into carbohydrate is called the _________.

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A) Pentose phosphate pathway B) Embden-Meyerhoff pathway C) Calvin-Benson cycle D) Entner-Doudoroff pathway

24) The synthesis of glucose 6-phosphate from noncarbohydrate precursors is called _________. A) glycolysis B) glutamine synthase C) gluconeogenesis D) None of the choices are correct.

25) ________ is the carrier molecule required to transport peptidoglycan subunits to the location where they will be incorporated into the growing bacterial cell wall. A) Bactoprenol B) UDP glucose C) Acyl carrier protein D) Malonyl-CoA

26) _________ reactions are used to replace TCA cycle intermediates that have been used to provide carbon skeletons for amino acid biosynthesis. A) Amphibolic B) Anaplerotic C) Anabolic D) Catabolic

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27) Symbiotic nitrogen fixation can consume up to ______% of the ATP generated by the host plant. A) 5 B) 20 C) 30 D) 50

28) The major reductive amination pathway for incorporation of nitrogen into amino acids initially involves the production of __________ from alpha-ketoglutarate. A) tryptophan B) cysteine C) arginine D) glutamate

29)

Most microorganisms assimilate nitrogen as _________. A) nitrite B) hydrazine C) nitrate D) N2

30) The reduction of sulfate as a terminal electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration is called __________ sulfate reduction.

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A) assimilatory B) dissimilatory C) amodulatory D) demodulatory

31) The reduction of sulfate for use in the production of compounds such as cysteine is called __________ sulfate reduction. A) assimilatory B) dissimilatory C) amodulatory D) demodulatory

32) Many microbes use pyruvate carboxylase or phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase _________. A) to synthesize amino acids B) to synthesize glucose C) to synthesize oxaloacetate D) to synthesize acetyl-CoA

33)

The reduction of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia is called ________. A) ammonification B) nitrification C) denitrification D) nitrogen fixation

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34) Nitrogen fixation depends on the enzyme nitrogenase, which is produced by some _________. A) archaea B) bacteria C) eukaryotes D) bacteria and archaea but not eukaryotes E) fungi and bacteria

35)

Phosphorous is usually assimilated by microorganisms as _________. A) polyphosphate (volutin) B) phosphene C) elemental phosphate (Po) D) phosphate

36)

Which of the following cofactors is very important in the synthesis of purines? A) Acetyl-CoA B) Cytidine diphosphate C) Folic acid D) Glutathione

37) Assimilation of organic phosphates from the surroundings uses enzymes known as _________. A) phosphorylases B) phosphatases C) phosphosynthetases D) phosphoisomerases

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38)

Purines and pyrimidines are precursors for synthesis of _________. A) fatty acids B) nucleic acids C) proteins D) peptidoglycan

39) A purine or pyrimidine that is attached to a sugar, either ribose or deoxyribose, which is attached to one or more phosphate groups is called a _________. A) nucleotide B) nucleoside C) nitrogenous base D) nucleic acid

40) A purine or pyrimidine that is attached to a sugar, either ribose or deoxyribose, is called a ________. A) nucleotide B) nucleoside C) nitrogenous base D) nucleic acid

41) __________ are cyclic nitrogenous bases with two rings and pronounced aromatic properties.

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A) Purines B) Quinones C) Amino acids D) Fatty acids

42) Which of the following is not generally true about fatty acids produced by microorganisms? A) Fatty acids are monocarboxylic acids. B) Fatty acids have long alkyl chains. C) Gram-positive bacteria often make cyclopropane fatty acids. D) All of the choices are correct.

43) Which of the following do(es) not contribute to the construction of membrane phospholipids? A) Glycolysis B) Fatty acid biosynthesis C) Amino acid biosynthesis D) Nucleotide biosynthesis

44)

Unsaturated fatty acids are those containing ________ carbon-carbon double bond(s). A) only one B) exactly two C) one or more D) two or more

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45)

Which of the following is the best description of a precursor metabolite? A) A carbon skeleton used as a starting substrate B) A macromolecule consumed in the first steps of metabolism C) An intermediate in the formation of cursor metabolites D) An enzyme that is reduced in a metabolic reaction

46) Which of the following has the phases of the Calvin-Benson cycle in the correct order, starting with the entry of ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate? A) Carboxylation phase, reduction phase, regeneration phase B) Regeneration phase, carboxylation phase, reduction phase C) Reduction phase, carboxylation phase, regeneration phase D) Carboxylation phase, regeneration phase, reduction phase

47) How many enzyme pathways are shared between gluconeogenesis and the EmbdenMeyerhof pathway? A) 3 B) 6 C) 8 D) 11

48) In bacteria, synthesis of long chain polysaccharides, such as starch and glycogen, have glucose donated to the end of the growing chain by _________. A) ADP-glucose B) UTP-galactose C) ATP-mannose D) UDPG

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49)

The cyclic nitrogenous base used in transcription, uracil, is a _________. A) pyrimidine B) purine C) protein D) porphyrin

50)

To convert a nucleoside into a nucleotide, what moiety must be added? A) One or more phosphate groups B) One or more double bonds C) One or more purine bases D) One or more pyrimidine bases

51) In the biosynthesis of glycerol, the reduction of dihydroxyacetone phosphate produces what important precursor molecule? A) Glycerol 3-phosphate B) Coenzyme A C) Phospholipids D) Dihydrogen monoxide

52) In bacterial synthesis of polysaccharides, such as starch and glycogen, glucose is donated to the end of the growing chain by ADP-glucose. A similar reaction occurs in bacterial branching of phospholipids when phosphatidic acid is attached to a ________. A) cytidine diphosphate carrier B) fatty acyl-ATP C) dihydroxyacetone phosphate D) acetyl-CoA

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53) A CDP derivative reacts with serine to form phosphatidylserine, and decarboxylation yields ________. A) phosphatidylethanolamine B) peptidoglycan C) lipopolysaccharide D) lipid rafts

54) Lipopolysaccharide is comprised of three moieties (lipid A, core oligosaccharide, and Oantigen), which require ________ biosynthetic pathway(s). A) one B) two C) three D) six

55) Because bacterial LPS is both hydrophilic and hydrophobic, a specialized transporting system, ________, is required for membrane transport and insertion. A) Lpt B) cytidine diphosphate carrier protein C) Tol D) acyl-carrier protein

56)

The β-jelly roll of the Lpt system functions to _________.

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A) help hide lipid A from the hydrophilic periplasm during LPS transport to the membrane B) help attach the O-antigen to core oligosaccharide moieties during synthesis of LPS C) help translocate assembled LPS across the outer membrane of the bacterial cell D) help anchor the newly positioned LPS on the bacterial cell surface

57) Two intermediates of the sterol biosynthesis pathway, isopentenyl diphosphate and dimethylallyl diphosphate, are used by archaea in the biosynthesis of _________. A) isoprenoids B) nucleotides C) diacylglycerol D) hormones

58) Purine bases, such as adenine and guanine, have __________ joined ring(s) for their structure, compared to pyrimidine bases, such as cytosine and thymine, that have __________ ring(s) in their structure. A) two; one B) one; two C) two; three D) three; one

59) Cells save energy and materials by using many of the same enzymes for both __________ and __________.

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A) anabolism; catabolism B) metabolism; catabolism C) ATP; NADPH D) peptidoglycan; lipopolysaccharides

60) In order to synthesize deoxyribonucleotides from ribonucleotides, the second carbon of the sugar must be __________. A) reduced B) oxidized C) phosphorylated D) assimilated

61) The reduction of the second carbon in the nucleoside sugar to produce deoxyribose from ribose, requires the protein __________ as a reducing agent. A) thioredoxin B) ATP C) phosphatase D) ribonuclease

62) In order to synthesize new peptidoglycan for bacterial cell walls, the cells utilizes_________blank which synthesizes a glycosidic bond. A) lysozyme B) glycosyltransferases C) autozymes D) peptidoglycolysins

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63)

Which statement reflects the correct order in the synthesis of triacylglycerol?

A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate → glycerol 3-phosphate → phosphatidic acid → diacylglycerol → triacylglycerol B) Diacylglycerol → glycerol 3-phosphate → phosphatidic acid → dihydroxyacetone phosphate → triacylglycerol C) Glycerol 3-phosphate → diacylglycerol → phosphatidic acid → dihydroxyacetone phosphate → triacylglycerol D) Phosphatidic acid → glycerol 3-phosphate → dihydroxyacetone phosphate → diacylglycerol → triacylglycerol

64)

Which of the following is the building structure for macromolecules? A) Polymers B) Monomers C) Multimers D) Proteins

65) Many enzyme-catalyzed reactions are freely reversible; however, some key steps require separate enzymes for the reverse step in order to provide for independent regulation of anabolic and catabolic pathways. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Nongrowing cells continuously degrade and resynthesize cellular molecules during a process known as cellular turnover. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false

67) The use of compartmentation for the simultaneous but independent regulation of anabolic and catabolic pathways occurs generally in eukaryotes but not in bacterial and archaeal cells. ⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

Anabolic and catabolic pathways use different cofactors for similar reactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Although most autotrophic microorganisms fix carbon dioxide using the Calvin-Benson cycle, this pathway is absent in archaea. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Photoautotrophs are the only organisms that can incorporate (fix) carbon dioxide into biomolecules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Because peptidoglycan lies outside the plasma membrane, all steps in the complex synthesis process of this molecule takes place outside the cell. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

72)

Nitrogen fixation is used to form ATP, which is then used for energy reserves. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) In the biosynthesis of nucleotides, pyrimidines are assembled starting with ribose-5phosphate while ribose-5-phosphate is added after synthesis of the nitrogenous base for purines. ⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

Bacteria can synthesize unsaturated fatty acids only under anaerobic conditions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) An autotroph is likely to convert CO2 into reduced organic carbon in order to produce precursor metabolites. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) The use of pyruvate carboxylase to convert pyruvate into oxaloacetate is a step unique to gluconeogenesis compared to the Embden-Meyerhof pathway. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77) Bacterial peptidoglycan is not a good target for antibiotics because it is present in human cells as well, leading to host damage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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78) Anabolism is defined as a process that consumes energy and most anabolic processes are endergonic. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_12e_Willey 1) self assembly 2) independently 3) double 4) nucleotide diphosphate 5) peptidoglycan 6) nucleoside 7) lipopolysaccharide 8) isoprenoids 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) B 28) D 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) B 38) B 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) D 44) C 45) A 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) A 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) B 63) A 64) B 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE

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CHAPTER 13 – 12e 1) Select the secretion systems that are found in both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV

2) Which of the following are exceptions to the universal genetic code that is used by most organisms? A) Selenocysteine B) Stop C) Pyrrolysine D) Lysine E) Phenylalanine

3) Proteins that recognize unfolded polypeptides and help them fold into their proper conformations are called ___________.

4) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases catalyze covalent addition of __________ __________ to tRNAs.

5) Messenger RNA molecules that direct the synthesis of more than one polypeptide are said to be __________.

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6) On mRNA molecules, a nontranslated sequence called the _________ usually precedes the initiation codon.

7) Messenger RNA molecules have a nontranslated sequence called the __________, which is located downstream of the termination codon.

8) A consensus sequence in the untranslated leader sequence of a prokaryotic mRNA, which serves as a ribosome binding site is called the _____ _____ sequence.

A molecule of RNA has 99 phosphodiester bonds connecting ribonucleotides.

10) The two strands of a DNA molecule are __________; that is, they are oriented in opposite directions.

11) Hershey and Chase demonstrated that when the bacteriophage T2 infected its host cell, the __________ is injected into the host but the __________ remained outside.

12)

When a protein is synthesized, cis- or trans-splicing of that protein occurs _________. A) following translation B) between transcription and translation C) during transcription D) prior to transcription

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13) What might be a reason for the accumulation of improperly folded protein complexes in the bacterial cell cytoplasm following translation? A) A problem exists with the functioning of molecular chaperones B) The cell is synthesizing proteins too rapidly C) Polysomes are forming on the mRNA D) The proteins are being transcribed but not translated

14)

The Sec system is used by _________. A) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria B) neither Gram-positive nor Gram-negative bacteria C) Gram-positive bacteria only D) Gram-negative bacteria only

15) During proteins are moved from the cytoplasm to the membrane or periplasmic space, while during proteins are moved from the cytoplasm to the external environment. A) translocation; secretion B) secretion; translocation C) transcription; translation D) translocation; translation E) secretion; translation

16) The process by which the base sequence of an RNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of a protein is called _________.

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A) replication B) transcription C) reverse transcription D) translation

17)

During translation elongation, which event happens last? A) A tRNA carrying an amino acid binds to the A site. B) A peptide bond forms. C) A tRNA molecule translocates from the A site to the P site. D) A tRNA molecule translocates from the P site to the E site.

18)

Which is true regarding translation in bacteria? A) Translation begins with formation of the 30S initiation complex. B) Translation ends when the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is reached. C) The 70S ribosome is composed of a 20S and 50S subunit. D) All of the choices are correct.

19) If you wished to design an antimicrobial agent that prevented the formation of the 70S initiation complex in bacterial translation, which molecule should specifically be targeted? A) IF-3 B) mRNA C) Peptidyl transferase D) EF-1

20) What is the minimum number of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzymes needed to attach amino acids to all the various tRNA molecules? Version 1

A) 20 B) 61 C) 64 D) As many as there are different tRNAs

21) In __________, ribosomes can attach to the mRNA and begin translation even though transcription has not been completed. A) bacteria B) eukaryotes C) fungi D) protozoa and some plants

22) A complex consisting of a single mRNA molecule with several ribosomes is called a _________. A) polysome B) multisome C) maxisome D) proteosome

23) The __________ reaction sequentially links adjacent amino acids into the growing polypeptide chain. A) dipeptidation B) transpeptidation C) peptidation D) propeptidation

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24) Ribosomes consist of ________ separate subunits that come together as part of the initiation process and dissociate immediately after termination. A) two B) three C) four D) five

25) In order to add a single amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain, a total of __________ molecules or ATP of GTP are utilized. A) two B) three C) four D) six

26)

The energy needed for protein synthesis is provided by the hydrolysis of _________. A) ATP B) GTP C) UTP D) ATP and GTP E) ATP and UTP

27)

________ molecules deliver amino acids to ribosomes during translation.

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A) Messenger RNA (mRNA) B) Transfer RNA (tRNA) C) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) D) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)

28)

How many different termination codons are used in translation? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

29)

How many RNA codons encode 60 amino acids? A) 60 B) 180 C) 20 D) 30

30)

Which set of codons terminate transcription in most organisms? A) UGA, UAG, UAA B) AGU, UAG, UAA C) ACT, TAC, ATT D) TGA, TAG, TAA

31)

What would be the most likely outcome if the genetic code was not degenerate?

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A) The effect of some mutations would increase. B) The effect of some mutations would decrease. C) The mutation rate would remain the same. D) The number of stop codons would increase.

32) Two amino acids that are found in some proteins due to exceptions in the universal genetic code are _________. A) pyrrolysine and selenocysteine B) lysine and selenocysteine C) pyrrolysine and cysteine D) lysine and cysteine

33) The portion of the tRNA molecule that binds to the codon on the mRNA is called the _________. A) c-codon B) anticodon C) complementary codon D) paracodon

34)

Which of the following is the initiator codon? A) AUG B) UAA C) UAG D) UGA

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35)

Which of the following is not a termination codon? A) AUG B) UAA C) UAG D) UGA

36) The genetic code is said to be __________ because more than one codon will specify a particular amino acid. A) ambiguous B) degenerate C) multiplicative D) repetitious

37)

The genetic code is translated in groups of __________ bases. A) two B) three C) four D) five

38) Choose the description below that best matches the current model of RNA polymerase holoenzyme. A) A core enzyme composed of five polypeptides bound by a transcription factor. B) A core enzyme composed of five polypeptides bound by ribosomes. C) A core enzyme composed of five sigma factors bound by a polypeptide chain. D) An open complex or "bubble" formed by DNA, mRNA, and RNA polymerase.

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39) During transcription elongation, how many pyrophosphate molecules are produced from the incorporation of 20 ribonucleoside monophosphates? A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 5

40) Which of the following is a correct comparison between RNA polymerase holoenzyme that functions in transcription and the primase enzyme that functions in DNA replication? A) Both enzymes synthesize RNA. B) Both enzymes are bound by sigma factor. C) Both enzymes synthesize DNA. D) Both enzymes are composed of RNA.

41) When RNA polymerase catalyzes the addition of a nucleotide to a growing mRNA chain, a byproduct of this reaction is _________. A) phosphate B) pyrophosphate C) orthophosphate D) water

42) Which modification of the terminator region of a gene would specifically prevent rhoindependent termination?

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A) Change in the adenine-rich sequence of nucleotides of the terminator region. B) Change in the adenine-thymine sequence of the Pribnow box. C) Change in the sequence that encodes the mRNA leader. D) Change in the rut binding site.

43) Which of the following is common to both factor-dependent and factor-independent transcription termination? A) Both types of termination occur following a pause by the polymerase. B) Both types of termination are associated with rho termination factor. C) Both types of termination involve NusA protein. D) None of the choices are correct.

44) The process by which the base sequence of all or a portion of a DNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule is called _________. A) replication B) transcription C) reverse transcription D) translation

45) Key sequences exist within promoters, which vary somewhat among various promoters but are sufficiently constant that they can be represented by a sequence of bases most often found at each position. These representations are called __________ sequences. A) convergence B) idealized C) consensus D) common

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46)

The promoter region of E. coli _________. A) is centered approximately 35 bp upstream of the start site of transcription B) is centered between 7 and 13 bp upstream of the start codon C) is centered approximately 10 bp upstream of the start site of transcription D) is located at the site of addition of poly (A) in eukaryotic mRNAs

47) A bacterial __________ is the nontranscribed region of the DNA to which RNA polymerase binds in order to initiate transcription. A) operon B) operator C) promoter D) initiator

48) Which statement defends the concept that the term "gene" is better defined as a nucleotide sequence that encodes for one or more functional products rather than encoding for one or more functional proteins? A) Products of genes include ribonucleotides as well as proteins. B) Intron sequences in DNA do not encode proteins. C) The genetic code is redundant, therefore the same codon may be encoded by different DNA triplets. D) Genes in bacteria are organized as operons that can lead to several protein products.

49) If the product of a functional gene is not a protein, what other product(s) might be encoded by the gene?

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A) tRNA and rRNA B) tRNA and mRNA C) mRNA and rRNA D) mRNA, tRNA, and RNA

50) Modify the following statement to make it correct: Ribozymes are ribonucleosomes used by bacteria and eukaryotic cells to modify DNA. A) Ribozymes are ribonucleases used by bacteria and eukaryotic cells to modify RNA. B) Ribozymes are ribonucleosomes used by bacteria and eukaryotic cells to modify RNA. C) Ribozymes are ribonucleases used by bacteria and eukaryotic cells to modify DNA. D) Ribozymes are ribonucleosomes used only by eukaryotic cells only to modify RNA.

51)

The transcribed and translated region of a gene is the __________ region. A) leader B) promoter C) coding D) trailer

52)

Which of the following is in the coding region of a gene? A) Promoter B) Leader C) Trailer D) None of the choices are correct.

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53)

The region at which the RNA polymerase binds is the __________ region. A) leader B) promoter C) coding D) trailer

54) The transcribed, but not translated, sequence that is immediately upstream of the region that encodes the functional product is called the __________ region. A) leader B) promoter C) coding D) trailer

55) The coding sequence in the DNA of __________ is normally continuous; that is, it is not interrupted by noncoding sequences. A) bacteria B) plants C) mammals D) most insects

56) The strand of DNA for a particular gene that is copied by the RNA polymerase to form mRNA is called the __________ strand.

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A) leading B) template C) transcription D) copy

57)

The genetic information in DNA is divided into units called _________. A) proteins B) genes C) genotype D) phenotype

58) A scientist wishes to develop an antimicrobial agent that specifically targets replication elongation in Escherichia coli without interfering with proteins that catalyze other replication processes. Which of the following experimental designs is most appropriate for the scientist to explore? A) Develop a molecule that interferes with the DNA-binding ability of DNA polymerase III core enzyme B) Modify an existing antibiotic to act as a competitive inhibitor of DNA polymerase I C) Design a drug that modifies the structural configuration of DNA at the oriC locus D) Create a novel protein that acts as a competitive inhibitor of the DNA ligase binding site

59) While examining the sequence of nucleotides in the replicon region of bacterial DNA, you note an abundance of adenine and thymine base pairs. This leads you to conclude that this particular section of the DNA must be the _________.

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A) oriC site B) Pribnow box C) Shine-Dalgarno sequence D) ter site

60) The Y-shaped part of the DNA molecule where the actual replication process occurs is called the replication __________. A) tongue B) fork C) junction D) splice

61) Choose the correct order of proteins that function in the initiation, elongation, and termination stages of DNA replication. A) DnaA, DNA polymerase III, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase B) DnaA, DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III, DNA ligase C) DNA polymerase III, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase, DnaA D) DNA polymerase I, DnaA, DNA polymerase III, DNA ligase

62) In terms of relatedness to a specific cellular process, which protein does not belong with the others? A) RNA polymerase holoenzyme B) DNA polymerase holoenzyme C) Ribonuclease D) DNA ligase

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63)

Which enzyme is a topoisomerase? A) DNA gyrase B) DNA ligase C) DNA polymerase I D) DNA polymerase III

64)

Each chromosome has one or more __________ site(s) where replication begins. A) promoter B) replicon C) origin D) bifurcate

65) When a DNA molecule is replicated, the daughter molecules contain one strand of parental DNA and one strand of newly synthesized DNA; this is called __________ replication. A) hemiconservative B) conservative C) semiconservative D) dispersive

66) During replication, which enzyme unwinds the two strands of the DNA molecule from one another?

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A) Ligases B) Unwindases C) Helicases D) Primases

67)

Over twisting or under twisting of helical DNA generates _________. A) hypertwists B) hypotwists C) hypercoils D) supercoils

68)

Bacterial DNA replication occurs at a rate of _________. A) 1,000 base pairs per second B) 1,000 base pairs per minute C) 100 base pairs per second D) 100 base pairs per minute

69) If you were to design a novel hydrophobic protein, which type of monomers would be most essential to incorporate in the molecule in order to achieve the desired result? A) Amino acids with nonpolar side chains B) Amino acids with charged side chains C) Purine-containing deoxyribonucleotides D) Hydrophobic nucleic acids E) Polar amino acids

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70) How many phosphodiester bonds are needed to join 50 deoxyribonucleotides in a DNA strand? A) 49 B) 50 C) 51 D) 100 E) 102

71)

Which of the following is not present in DNA? A) Alpha carbon B) 5'-carbon C) Minor groove D) 3'-hydroxyl E) Double helix

72)

Which of the following nitrogenous bases is usually found in RNA but not in DNA? A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Uracil D) Guanine

73) If 20% of nucleotides in the DNA of a particular organism contain thymine, estimate the percentage of cytosine that is present in the DNA.

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A) 30% B) 20% C) 15% D) 80% E) 40%

74)

Which of the following is NOT a pyrimidine? A) Adenine B) Cytosine C) Thymine D) Uracil

75)

Which of the following is not a complementary base pair found in DNA molecules? A) Adenine-thymine B) Guanine-cytosine C) Adenine-uracil D) All of the choices are correct.

76)

Which of the following is true about the structure of DNA? A) Purine and pyrimidine bases are attached to the 1'-carbon of the deoxyribose sugars. B) Nucleotides are joined by phosphodiester bonds. C) Adjacent nucleotides are stacked on top of each other. D) All of the choices are correct.

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77) How were experiments done by Griffith similar to those done by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty? A) Both used pneumococcal bacteria B) Both used purified DNA C) Both used a mouse host D) Both were done in the 1940s E) Both used enzymes that destroyed DNA

78) Which was common to experiments done by Avery and colleagues as well as Hershey and Chase? A) Radioactive DNA B) Virulent bacteriophage C) Bacterial cells D) Radioactive protein E) Escherichia coli

79) In the Hershey and Chase experiment, how did labeling DNA and protein with different radioactive isotopes demonstrate that DNA, rather than protein, carried the genetic information in the T2 virus? A) Researchers could track which part of the virus entered a bacterial cell. B) Researchers could use radio labeling to inactivate DNA and protein in the bacteria. C) Researchers could distinguish bacterial DNA from viral protein. D) Researchers could better elucidate DNA or protein structure. E) Researchers could monitor how DNA interacted with protein in the virus.

80) Which of the following were used by Avery and colleagues to determine the molecule required to transform bacterial cells?

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A) Protease B) RNase C) DNase D) All of the choices are correct.

81) How could the Hershey and Chase experimental procedure be redesigned to support a hypothesis that RNA carries genetic information? A) Replace T2 bacteriophage with an RNA virus B) Replace Escherichia with an RNA virus C) Use 35S to label an RNA virus and 32P to label a DNA virus D) Extract RNA from Escherichia and mix it with the T2 bacteriophage E) Use 35S and 32P to label the same components of an RNA virus and T2 bacteriophage, then add both viruses to Escherichia cells

82) Griffith's experiment demonstrated transformation because a mouse injected with live R and heat-killed S strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae resulted in death of the mouse and the isolation of live R as well as live S cells. Hypothesize as to the type of cells that Griffith would have observed if transformation had NOT occurred. A) Griffith would have isolated only live R cells from the mouse host. B) Griffith would have isolated both live R and heat-killed S cells from the mouse host. C) Griffith would have isolated only live S cells from the mouse host. D) Griffith would have isolated no cells from the mouse host.

83) Who first demonstrated transformation using mice and two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

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A) Griffith B) Hershey and Chase C) Avery, McCarty, and MacLeod D) Watson and Crick E) Jacob and Monod

84) You and a classmate are discussing early experiments in genetics, and you state that Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty provided the first evidence that DNA carries genetic information. Your classmate argues that Griffith was the first to demonstrate this. Which statement best defends your argument? A) Although Griffith first demonstrated transformation, Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty provided evidence that DNA rather than protein or RNA was the transforming agent. B) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty worked with purified DNA extracts while Griffith worked with bacterial strains. C) Enzymes were used in the experiments carried out by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty while Griffith transformed cells chemically or by using heat. D) Because Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty did their experiments after those done by Griffith, they had much more information regarding the structure and function of DNA. E) DNA used by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty was extracted solely from transformed strains of pneumococci, while Griffith used native pneumococcal strains.

85) Why did scientists originally believe that proteins, rather than DNA, were the molecules that directed protein synthesis? A) Proteins were the more complex molecules in which genetic information could be stored. B) Proteins were more likely to have catalytic properties for synthesis reactions. C) Proteins were the same types of molecules as those that were being synthesized. D) At the time, more was known about the structure of proteins than that of DNA.

86)

DNA polymerases require which of the following elements to replicate DNA?

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A) A template, a primer, a source of energy B) A source of energy, an RNA strand, a ribosome C) A ribosome, a template, an RNA polymerase D) A source of energy, a template, an RNA polymerase

87)

Bacterial ribosomes __________. A) comprise two rRNA subunits, multiple proteins, and three tRNA binding sites B) comprise two tRNA binding sites, three rRNA subunits, and multiple proteins C) comprise two proteins, three tRNA binding sites, and multiple rRNA subunits D) comprise multiple tRNA binding sites, three proteins, and two rRNA subunits

88) One benefit of transporting molecules via outer membrane vesicles and extracellular vesicles versus a typical secretion system is that __________. A) the vesicle contents are protected by the lipid bilayer that surrounds them, extending their viability outside of the cell B) transport from one cell to another occurs at a much more rapid rate C) it requires much less energy to transport the molecules in vesicles D) vesicles form regardless of the environmental conditions that surround the bacterial cells

89)

In bacteria, splicing of proteins occurs __________.

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A) cotranslationally, and minimally involves splicing the N-formyl group from the initiator amino acid as it exits the ribosome B) posttranslationally, and minimally involves splicing the N-formyl group from the initiator amino acid as it exits the ribosome C) posttranslationally, and always involves splicing the first two amino acids from the Nterminus as it exits the ribosome D) cotranslationally, and always involves splicing the first two amino acids from the Nterminus as it exits the ribosome

90)

Which of the following is not an enzymed involved in DNA replication? A) Lactase B) Helicase C) DNA Polymerase D) RNA Polymerase

91)

Signal recognition particles (SRPs) are associated with the Sec translocation system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92)

The Tat and Sec pathways are protein translocation systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) A bacterial cell that secretes proteins by types II and V systems is most likely Gramnegative. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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94) Prior to secretion, Gram-negative bacterial proteins are translocated across one membrane while Gram-positive proteins are translocated across two membranes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

95) DNA polymerase and aminoacyl-tRNA synthase are similar in that both have proofreading ability, but differ in the substrates that they act upon. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96) This initiator tRNA of the bacterium Escherichia is a modified form of the initiator tRNA used by the yeast Saccharomyces. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) The first amino acid in a bacterial protein isN-formylmethionine; the presence of the formyl group makes it the initiator amino acid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) The stop codons are translated codons; that is, they specify amino acids to be inserted into the last position of a growing polypeptide chain. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

99) In Escherichia coli, if σ70 is not bound to RNA polymerase core enzyme, active transcription of the gene is not occurring. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100) If the DNA of a new discovered organism exhibits genes that are arranged as operons and lacks intron sequences, the hypothesis that this organism is bacterial rather than mammalian would be supported by the evidence. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) Bacterial chromosomes, unlike eukaryotic chromosomes, often consist of a single replicon. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) During DNA replication, deoxyribonucleosides are added to the 5' end of Okazaki fragments and to the 3' end of the leading strand. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) Catenanes are interlocked chromosomes that form during the termination stage of DNA replication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104) Bacteria with DNA described as having "hairpin ends with inverted repeats" must not have circular chromosomes.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

105) DNA replication is a complex process, and, as a result, the frequency of error is quite high. ⊚ true ⊚ false

106) The number of N and C termini in a polypeptide chain is equal to the number of amino acids that make up that chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

107)

The molecular weights of a nucleic acid and an amino acid are approximately the same. ⊚ true ⊚ false

108) The basic differences between RNA and DNA reside in their sugar and pyrimidine bases; RNA has ribose and uracil whereas DNA has deoxyribose and thymine. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) The B form of the DNA double helix contains a wider major groove and a narrower minor groove because the two polynucleotide strands are not positioned directly opposite one another in the helical cylinder. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

110) Hershey and Chase used 35S-labeled protein and 32P-labeled DNA of T2 bacteriophage to infect cells of Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

111) The genes that code for tRNA often contain multiple tRNA sequences controlled by a single promoter, requiring posttranscriptional modification by ribonucleases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Membrane vesicles are used to transport material between cells as an alternative to protein secretion systems. Regardless of the nature of the bacterial envelope, all vesicles are produced by the same mechanism. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_12e_Willey 1) [A, D] 2) [A, C] 3) chaperones 4) amino acids 5) polycistronic 6) leader 7) trailer 8) Shine-Dalgarno 9) 100 10) antiparallel 11) [DNA, protein] 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) B 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) B 54) A 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) A 60) B 61) A 62) A 63) A 64) C 65) C 66) C 67) D 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) A 72) C 73) A 74) A 75) C 76) D 77) A 78) C 79) A 80) D 81) A 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) A 89) A 90) A 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) FALSE 106) FALSE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE

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CHAPTER 14 – 12e 1)

Check all of the following that make up thelac operon. A) lacl B) lacZ C) lacY D) lacA E) lac terminator

2) When arabinose is present in the environment, the AraC protein acts as a/an _________ for the E. coli ara operon.

3) When there is no arabinose available in the environment, the AraC protein acts as a ________ for the E. coli ara operon.

4) If a set of genes is repressed in the presence of the controlling substance, it is referred to as __________ control.

5) If a set of genes is induced in the presence of the controlling substance, it is referred to as __________ control.

6) ____________ is used to measure the amount of a chemoattractant encountered over time.

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7) A collection of genes or operons controlled by a common regulatory protein is called a ___________.

8) In order for high level expression of the E. coli lac operon to occur, a complex of catabolite activator protein and __________ must be bound to the DNA near the promoter.

9) Surface adhesins_________blank attach cells to a substrate and are anchored to the cell through_________blank.

10) While undergoing transcription, sequences in leader RNA fold into a structure called the_________blank box.

11)

How do translational riboswitches and transcriptional riboswitches differ?

A) Translational riboswitches are mainly observed in Gram-negative bacteria while transcriptional riboswitches are associated with Gram-positive bacteria. B) Translational riboswitches are located in the mRNA trailer while transcriptional riboswitches are in mRNA leader sequence. C) Translational riboswitch effectors bind to ribosomes while transcriptional riboswitch effectors bind to mRNA. D) All of these are differences between translational and transcriptional riboswitches.

12) Most E. coli antisense RNAs work with a protein called __________ to regulate their target mRNAs.

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A) CAP B) MicF C) Hfq D) None of the choices are correct.

13) An sRNA is isolated from a bacterial cell. What would you do to determine whether it is a cis-encoded or a trans-encoded sequence? A) Identify whether or not the sRNA sequence is complementary to the coding strand of mRNA gene target. B) Analyze the molecular position of hydrogen atoms in the sRNA nucleotides. C) Determine whether the sRNA binds to mRNA or to tRNA. D) Find out if the sRNA acts as a transcriptional or as a translational inhibitor.

14) What is the key factor determining whether or not attenuation will occur when transcription of the E. coli trp operon has been initiated? A) The activity level of adenyl cyclase B) The trp operon repressor C) The level of tryptophan in the environment D) The level of trp-tRNA that is charged with tryptophan

15) The __________ is a factor-independent termination site found in the leader region of certain operons, which, under the influence of ribosome behavior, controls the continued transcription of that operon.

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A) modulator B) operator C) attenuator D) terminator

16) _________ is used to control transcription of some anabolic pathways involved in amino acid biosynthesis. A) Attenuation B) Catabolite repression C) Induction D) All of the choices are correct.

17)

Which is a false statement regarding riboswitches?

A) Riboswitches are regions in the 5’ untranslated leader of an mRNA. B) The effector molecules that bind to riboswitches are proteins. C) When the effector binds the riboswitch, it may serve to terminate transcription of its target mRNA. D) When the effector binds the riboswitch, it may serve to continue transcription of its target mRNA.

18) With the E. coli trp operon where both repression and attenuation occur, the extent of regulation achieved by repression is _________ the extent of regulation achieved by attenuation. A) the same as B) less than C) greater than D) Repression is not used in the regulation of the E. coli trp operon.

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19) The terminator versus anti-terminator function of a specific riboswitch used by bacteria to regulate amino acid-related genes is determined by _________. A) the binding of the appropriate uncharged tRNA B) the rate of leader peptide synthesis C) the binding of the T box binding protein D) the utilization of the appropriate sigma factor by RNA polymerase

20) In general, riboswitches regulate in Gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia and in Gram-positive bacteria such as Bacillus. A) transcription; translation B) translation; transcription C) replication; translation D) transcription; replication

21) In attenuation regulation of the trp operon, which stem loop forms when tryptophan is readily available to the cell? A) 3:4 B) 1:3 C) 2:3 D) 2:4

22) Which of the following is not a regulatory mechanism used to control thetrp operon in Escherichia coli?

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A) Repression B) Catabolite repression C) Attenuation D) All of the choices are correct.

23) Serratia marcescens bacteria has a gene that regulates red pigment production by cells. A student inoculates two nutrient agar plates of Serratia and incubates one at 25oC and the other at 37oC. Following incubation, the student observes that colonies on the 25oC plate are red while those on the 37oC plate are nonpigmented. Which of the following statements is a logical conclusion based on these results? A) Serratia genes for pigment production are induced at certain temperatures. B) This is an example of constitutive gene expression. C) Low temperatures cause repression of certain housekeeping genes. D) Serratia cells undergo a genotypic change that is proportional to changes in temperature.

24) In terms of transcription regulation, the structure of a helix-turn-helix is most similar to that of a . A) second level protein B) sigma factor C) poly-A tail D) guanine cap

25) __________ activate repressor proteins, thereby decreasing the synthesis of certain enzymes.

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A) Inducers B) Corepressors C) Effectors D) Modulators

26)

__________ alter repressor proteins thereby increasing the rate of transcription initiation. A) Inducers B) Corepressors C) Effectors D) Modulators

27)

When a repressor binds to the operator site on the DNA it normally _________. A) inhibits the initiation of transcription B) reduces the rate of transcription C) terminates transcription that has already been initiated D) has no effect on transcription

28) Which of the following is not a regulatory mechanism used to control thelac operon in Escherichia coli? A) Induction B) Catabolite repression C) Attenuation D) All of the choices are correct.

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29)

Enzymes that are expressed at a constant level all the time are said to be . A) inducible B) repressible C) constitutive D) attenuated

30)

The site on the DNA to which a repressor protein binds is the __________. A) operon B) operator C) promoter D) regulator

31) When bound to the DNA, the repressor protein usually prevents attachment of the RNA polymerase to the __________. A) operon B) operator C) promoter D) regulator

32) Which statement best describes the mechanism(s) of posttranslational regulation of gene expression?

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A) Allosteric regulation following transcription of mRNA occurs in many biosynthetic pathways. B) Protein synthesis is often repressed by feedback or noncompetitive inhibition. C) Covalent modification of newly synthesized proteins generally has no marked effect on protein function. D) Once a protein is synthesized, there is little to no postranslational modification.

33) Which of the following statements best explains why microbial geneticists initially focused on regulation of gene expression at the transcriptional, rather than the translational, level? A) By regulating the first step of protein synthesis, cells conserve the greatest amount of energy. B) The process of transcription was best understood by researchers at the time. C) Cellular regulation of transcription is common to all prokaryotic cells. D) The process of synthesizing an mRNA transcript is much less complex than translation of mRNA into protein.

34)

Which of the following is an example of gene regulation at the posttranslational level? A) Alteration of protein structure B) Early termination of an mRNA transcript C) Initiation of protein synthesis D) Prevention of RNA synthesis

35)

When does a cell regulate gene expression? A) Pretranscription through posttranslation B) Posttranscription through posttranslation C) Pretranscription through pretranslation D) Posttranscription through pretranslation

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36) In two component regulatory systems, the response regulator typically receives a/an __________ from the sensor kinase when it has been activated. A) pyruvate group B) phosphoryl group C) acetyl group D) methyl group

37) While standard two-component regulatory systems typically act to control gene transcription, phosphorelay systems can act either to control gene transcription or to control . A) translation B) protein activity C) DNA replication D) All of the choices are correct.

38)

The sensor kinase for the OmpF: OmpC two-component regulatory system is _________. A) the OmpK protein B) the EnvZ protein C) the MicF RNA D) None of the choices are correct.

39)

The E. coli lac operon has ________ operator sequences.

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A) one B) two C) three D) four

40)

Which is false regarding the two-component regulatory system in bacteria?

A) The system involves a sensor kinase and a response regulator. B) The sensor kinase is phosphorylated by the response regulator when the extracellular environment changes. C) Regulation of OmpF and OmpC porin proteins in E. coli is modulated by this type of system. D) One part of the system is exposed to the external cellular environment while another part is exposed to the cytoplasm.

41)

If Escherichia coli is cultured in broth containing both glucose and lactose, it _________. A) uses glucose preferentially until the supply is exhausted, then uses lactose B) uses lactose preferentially until the supply is exhausted, then uses glucose C) uses glucose and lactose simultaneously D) uses only the glucose (it cannot use lactose as a source of carbon)

42)

What term describes a set of genes that is controlled by a common regulatory protein? A) Codon B) Regulon C) Transcription D) Kinase

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43) In some circumstances, when two different carbon sources are available, growth will occur first using one carbon source, then after a short lag period, growth will resume using the second carbon source. This process is called __________ growth. A) alternating B) bimorphic C) diauxic D) dimorphic

44)

The activity of adenyl cyclase is influenced by _________. A) the phosphotransferase system B) the presence of lactose in the environment C) homoserine lactones D) None of the choices are correct.

45) The standard or housekeeping sigma factor used most often by E. coli RNA polymerase under normal growth conditions is called sigma _________. A) 70 B) 32 C) S D) E

46) Acylhomoserine lactones used in quorum sensing regulate their own synthesis by a/an _________ system.

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A) riboswitch B) antisense C) catabolite repression D) autoinduction

47) During sporulation in Bacillus subtilis, the response regulator that positively controls many genes needed for sporulation and negatively controls genes not needed during sporulation is _________. A) SpoOB B) SpoOA C) SpoOF D) SpoOC

48) During theearly stages of sporulation in Bacillus subtilis, ________ is active in the forespore and ________ is active in the mother cell. A) σE; σF B) σK; σF C) σF; σK D) σF; σE

49) During sporulation in B. subtilis, inactive precursor forms of new sigma factors are activated at the appropriate time by which mechanism? A) Proteolysis B) Phosphorylation C) RNA-binding D) Chaperone refolding

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50)

The sensing of starvation that leads to sporulation in B. subtilis is accomplished by a . A) small RNA B) sensor kinase C) response regulator D) quorum regulatory effector

51) Cell-to-cell communication by quorum sensing has been shown to be important in the regulation of genes needed for _________. A) virulence B) biofilm production C) plasmid transfer D) All of the choices are correct.

52)

When the catabolite activator protein binds to its binding site in DNA, it _________. A) displaces repressors B) bends the DNA C) promotes the assembly of other transcription factors at the promoter D) eliminates the need for a sigma factor on the part of RNA polymerase

53)

Guanine tetraphosphate (ppGpp) is associated with which process? A) Spore formation in Bacillus B) Chemiosmosis in Paracoccus C) Stringent response in Escherichia D) Quorum sensing in Vibrio

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54) During the stringent response, ppGpp-regulated genes for amino acid biosynthesis form a/an open initiation complex. A) unstable B) less stable C) more stable D) completely stable

55) In which situation might methylation of membrane proteins in Escherichia coli initiate a phosphorelay system that evokes clockwise rotation of flagella? A) Presence of a chemorepellent in the extracellular environment B) Change in environmental osmotic pressure C) Utilization of lactose due during diauxic growth D) Cellular population reaches a quorum

56) If autophosphorylation of CheA protein does not occur, then Escherichia coli cells must be _________. A) in a gradient of a chemoattractant B) in a gradient of a chemorepellant C) tumbling D) rotating flagella clockwise

57)

If flagellar rotation of Escherichia coli cells is , then CheA is . A) counterclockwise; unphosphorylated B) counterclockwise; autophosphorylated C) clockwise; autophosphorylated D) clockwise; unphosphorylated

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58) Which of the following events occurs initially when Escherichia coli cells are in a gradient of a chemorepellent? A) CheA autophosphorylates B) Flagella rotate clockwise C) Cells tumble D) CheY is phosphorylated

59) In terms of global gene regulation, which of the following molecules is most similar to cdi-GMP and cAMP? A) ppGpp B) rRNA C) ATP D) EnvZ

60)

What is the function of cyclic dimeric GMP in bacterial global regulation systems? A) It acts as a secondary nucleotide messenger B) It is a sensor kinase C) It converts GTP to cGTP D) It is an autoinducer

61) In catabolite repression systems of some Gram-positive bacteria, such as B. subtilis, transcription of catabolic operons is regulated by CcpaA (catabolite control protein A) rather than cAMP. Propose a hypothesis to explain the preferential use of glucose in the presence of a second sugar such as sucrose by B. subtilis.

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A) CcpaA acts as a repressor of sucrose operon genes in B. subtilis when both sugars are present. B) CcpaA acts as an inducer of sucrose operon genes in B. subtilis when both sugars are present. C) CcpaA acts as a repressor of sucrose operon genes in B. subtilis when lactose, but not glucose, is present. D) CcpaA acts as an inducer of sucrose operon genes in B. subtilis when glucose, but not lactose, is present.

62) It has been observed that when the sugar source changes in a growth medium, the growth rate of yeast vary widely in response. Some strains of yeast are slow to induce catabolic operons while other strains quickly synthesize proteins to process the new sugar. What might be one explanation for this difference in the growth rate of the strains? A) Different sugars can act as effector or repressor molecules in various strains, promoting or inhibiting transcription of genes depending on the type of sugar present. B) Operons for anabolic pathways are controlled by many global regulatory mechanisms, and different sugars can favor initiation of different pathways depending on the strain of yeast. C) All of the choices are correct. D) Catabolic repression strategies of operons for using different sugars may vary among strains, thereby favoring initiation of transcription in one strain over another depending on the sugar.

63)

Bioluminescence inVibrio fischeri is dependent on __________. A) autoregulation of theluxI gene B) destabilization of luxM mRNA C) posttranslational regulation of Spo0A protein D) phosphorylation of CheY protein

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64) Bacterial responses to phage infection can be compared to the human immune system. Which of the phrases is true? A) Restriction-modification can be compared to innate immunity and CRISPR/Cas to adaptive immunity. B) Restriction-modification can be compared to adaptive immunity and CRISPR/Cas to innate immunity. C) Restriction-modification can be compared to the complement system and CRISPR/Cas to inflammation. D) Restriction-modification can be compared to B cell responses and CRISPR/Cas to T cell responses.

65)

In the CRISPR/Cas system __________.

A) bacteria integrate portions of the viral genome into their own so they have a molecular snapshot of their attacker to prevent future encounters B) restriction endonucleases digest viral genomes once they enter the cell if the viral DNA is not methylated C) methylase enzymes add methyl groups to the viral nucleic acids, preventing transcription D) methylated DNA sequences are hydrolyzed, effectively destroying the viral DNA

66) Small RNAs that regulate translation by binding to the leader region of mRNAs are called antisense RNAs. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

The THI-element is part of the operon that controls synthesis of thymine in mRNA. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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68)

Riboswitches regulate transcription, rather than translation, in cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) During tryptophan synthesis in Escherichia coli, the 1:2 attenuator sequence of mRNA is called the pause loop. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70) During regulation by attenuation in the trp operon, if the pause and terminator loops form in mRNA, transcription is uncoupled to translation and protein synthesis is not occurring. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) When tryptophan levels in a cell are low, a cell will stall transcription but continue translation of the trp operon. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72)

Helix-turn-helix is a secondary structural motif in DNA and RNA, respectively. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73) The binding of arabinose to the AraC protein allows it to form a loop in the DNA upstream of the ara operon promoter.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Scientists first focused on gene regulation at the level of translation, rather than transcription, because more was known about protein than nucleic acids at the time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75) The inducer for the E. coli lac operon is allolactose produced by the action of permease on lactose. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) In the presence of both glucose and lactose, the lactose repressor is not bound to the operator and the genes of the lactose operon are expressed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) One way to regulate gene expression is through the production of different sigma factors. These cause RNA polymerase to bind to different sets of promoters, thereby altering the pattern of gene expression. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) Gene regulation during sporulation in B. subtilis involvesboth temporal and spatial control. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

79) Two-component signal transduction systems are found in the Bacteria, but not in Archaea. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) During regulation of biofilm formation in Pseudomonas, cells leave the biofilm when levels of cyclic dimeric GMP are high. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81)

A domain is a portion of a protein with a specific function. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_12e_Willey 1) [B, C, D, E] 2) activator 3) repressor 4) negative 5) positive 6) Methylation 7) regulon 8) cAMP 9) [LapA, LapE] 10) rfn 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) B 38) B 39) C 40) B 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) A 46) D 47) B 48) D 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) B 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) A 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) D 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE

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CHAPTER 15 – 12e 1) Eukaryotic and archaeal cells are able to regulate cellular processes at which of the following levels? A) Transcriptional B) Translational C) Posttranscriptional D) Mutational E) Physiological

Check the two following factors that are most important in archaeal transcription. A) TBP B) TCP C) TFB D) TBF

3) A consensus sequence in the untranslated leader sequence of a bacterial mRNA, which serves as a ribosome binding site is called the _____ _____ sequence.

4) In eukaryotes a so-called cap consisting of __________ is attached to the 5' end of the molecule during posttranscriptional modification of hnRNA to produce functional mRNA.

_______ is the initiator tRNA for bacterial mRNA translation.

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6) Proteins that recognize unfolded polypeptides and help them fold into their proper conformations are called ___________.

7) The role of folding and secretion of proteins in eukaryotes and archaea is facilitated by the use of _________ protein systems.

8) The majority of control elements for regulation of cellular processes in eukaryotes and archaea occurs at the level of ________ initiation.

9) The RNase known as a ________ ________ helps cut eukaryotic double-stranded RNAs to form the miRNA species.

10)

A DNA site called a ________ is the binding location for a transcriptional repressor.

11)

Historically repressor binding sites were termed_________blank.

12)

Transcription initiation requires that_________blank be recruited to a promoter.

13) When a DNA molecule is replicated, the daughter molecules contain one strand of parental DNA and one strand of newly synthesized DNA; this is called __________ replication.

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A) hemiconservative B) conservative C) semiconservative D) dispersive

14)

The chromosomes of most bacteria are comprised of _________. A) double-stranded circular molecules B) double-stranded linear molecules C) single-stranded circular molecules D) single-stranded linear molecules

15)

Each chromosome has one or more __________ site(s) where replication begins. A) promoter B) replicon C) origin D) bifurcate

16) The transcribed, but not translated, sequence that is immediately upstream of the region that encodes the functional product is called the __________ region. A) leader B) promoter C) coding D) trailer

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17)

The region at which the RNA polymerase binds is the __________ region. A) leader B) promoter C) coding D) trailer

18)

The unexpressed regions of split genes are called _________. A) exons B) endons C) introns D) codons

19) A bacterial __________ is the nontranscribed region of the DNA to which RNA polymerase binds in order to initiate transcription. A) operon B) operator C) promoter D) initiator

20)

RNA polymerase III of eukaryotes is responsible for transcribing _________. A) rRNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) All of the choices are correct.

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21)

RNA polymerase II of eukaryotes is responsible for transcribing ________. A) rRNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) All of the choices are correct.

22)

Which of the following statements is the best definition of a telomerase? A) Telomerase is an enzyme that helps separate DNA strands. B) Telomerase is an enzyme that helps proofread and correct newly synthesized DNA. C) Telomerase is an enzyme that helps solve the "end replication problem." D) Telomerase is an enzyme that cleaves introns and exons.

23) The process by which the base sequence of all or a portion of a DNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule is called __________. A) replication B) transcription C) reverse transcription D) translation

24) In eukaryotes a series of __________ residues are added to the 3' end of an RNA molecule as part of the posttranscriptional processing used to produce functional mRNA. A) adenine B) guanine C) cytosine D) uracil

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25)

The genetic code is translated in groups of __________ bases. A) two B) three C) four D) five

26)

________ molecules deliver amino acids to ribosomes during translation. A) Messenger RNA (mRNA) B) Transfer RNA (tRNA) C) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) D) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)

27) The process by which the base sequence of an RNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of a protein is called __________. A) replication B) transcription C) reverse transcription D) translation

28) What is the minimum number of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzymes needed to attach amino acids to all the various tRNA molecules?

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A) 20 B) 61 C) 64 D) Each tRNA requires its own aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.

29) In __________, the ribosomes can attach to the mRNA and begin translation even though transcription has not been completed. A) bacteria B) eukaryotes C) fungi D) algae

30) Ribosomes consist of __________ separate subunits that come together as part of the initiation process and dissociate immediately after termination. A) two B) three C) four D) five

31) A complex consisting of a single mRNA molecule with several ribosomes is called a _______. A) polysome B) multisome C) maxisome D) complexisome

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32) In order to add a single amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain, a grand total of __________ molecules or ATP or GTP are utilized. A) two B) three C) four D) six

33)

Archaeal promoters are most similar to those of _________. A) viruses B) bacteria C) eukaryotes D) both viruses and bacteria

34)

Which of the following is incorrect about archaeal translation?

A) Archaeal translation uses 70S ribosomes, similar to bacterial ribosomes. B) Archaeal translation may recognize ribosome binding sites homologous to bacterial Shine-Dalgarno sequences. C) Archaeal translation uses no chaperone proteins for folding new polypeptides. D) Archaeal translation is coupled to transcription, similar to bacterial processes.

35)

Which of the statements best describes the function of telomerase?

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A) Telomerase uses internal RNA as a template for lengthening the DNA single strand and preventing information loss. B) Telomerase stabilizes the RNA polymerase during bacterial protein transcription. C) Telomerase is responsible for forming the Okazaki fragments that allow for noncontinuous replication. D) Telomerase binds to specific DNA sequences that are not to be replicated and blocks polymerases.

36) Eukaryotes are able to express different proteins over time or at certain points in the life cycle by using ________. A) enhancers B) siRNAs C) silencers D) mediators

37) Which of the following statements is false when comparing replication in eukaryotes and bacteria? A) Primers are made by the same RNA polymerase enzyme (primase) in both bacteria and eukaryotes. B) In bacteria the leading and lagging strands are made by the same polymerase, whereas in eukaryotes, the strands are made by different polymerases. C) Both bacteria and eukaryotes use an ATP-dependent DNA ligase. D) In eukaryotes, replication is initiated by a number of proteins called the "origin recognition complex," whereas in bacteria, a single protein, DNaA, binds to the origin.

38)

Transcription in archaea resembles transcription in bacteria in that archaea __________.

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A) contain operons, have few, if any, introns, and use a single RNA polymerase for transcription B) lack operons, contain introns, and use a different RNA polymerase to make mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA C) have operons, have introns, and use a single RNA polymerase to make all types of RNA D) lack operons, lack introns, and use a different RNA polymerase to make mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA

39)

The initiation of translation in archaea __________.

A) employs Met-tRNAiMet the same as eukaryotic cells, but proceeds in a mechanism similar to bacteria B) employs fMet-tRNAifMet the same as bacterial cells, but proceeds in a mechanism similar to eukaryotes C) employs Met-tRNAiMet and proceeds in a mechanism similar to eukaryotic cells D) employs fMet-tRNAifMet and proceeds in a mechanism similar to bacterial cells

40) Which of the following describes a mechanism that eukaryotic organisms can employ to alter protein production as an alternative to regulating transcription initiation? A) RNA molecules within the spliceosome can direct alternative splicing of the primary transcript so that different proteins can be made from the same coding region. B) A phosphorelay signal transduction mechanism directs the repression or induction of certain eukaryotic genes to regulate the protein end-products. C) Catabolite repression plays a role in the synthesis of proteins that break down alternatives to glucose—if the substrate is not present, the proteins will not be made. D) During times of cell starvation, the second messenger ppGpp destabilizes the DNA open complexes that code for rRNA and tRNA, saving energy by halting protein synthesis.

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41)

DNA is wound around which of the following to form nucleosomes? A) Histones B) Operons C) Chromatin D) Leaders

42) DNA replication is a complex and ungoverned process, and, as a result, the frequency of error is quite high. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Because of its larger size, the replication rate of eukaryotic genomes is significantly faster than the replication rate of bacterial and archaeal genomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) Bacterial chromosomes, unlike eukaryotic chromosomes, often consist of a single replicon. ⊚ ⊚

45)

true false

Split or interrupted genes have been found in eukaryotes but not in bacteria or archaea. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

46) Eukaryotic mRNAs are modified by the addition of a poly(A) sequence at the 3' end and 7-methyl guanosine at the 5' end. ⊚ ⊚

true false

47) Circular chromosomes of archaea are replicated by proteins similar to those of eukaryotes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48)

Most archaeal mRNAs like those of eukaryotes are spliced. ⊚ ⊚

49)

true false

Unlike bacteria, archaeons (exceptHaloferax volcanii) have two origins of replication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

50) Unlike bacteria, most archaeons have linear chromosomes with multiple origins of replication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

51) Differences in eukaryotic, bacterial, and archaeal transcription are attributable to both polymerase differences and organization of protein-coding genes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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52) Homologues of the Sec protein translocation system are found in bacteria, eukaryotes, and archaea. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) Homologues of the nascent-chain-associated chaperone (NAC) protein folding system are found in bacteria, eukaryotes, and archaea. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Enhancer sequences for transcription activation in eukaryotes can exert effects from a great distance of the transcription target by forming loops or changing DNA structural elements. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) Regulation of cellular processes via chromatin remodeling or compaction are used by eukaryotic cells but not archaeal cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56)

Biomolecular condensates are not exclusively a eukaryotic phenomenon. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) One of the first proteins made by SARS-CoV-2 when it enters host cells has two names: Nsp1 and host shutoff factor.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Carriers in the electron transport chain are ordered within the mitochondrial cristae for efficient electron transfer. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, C] 2) [A, C] 3) Shine-Dalgarno 4) 7-methylguanosine 5) fMet-tRNA 6) chaperones 7) chaperone 8) transcription 9) primer remover 10) silencer 11) silencers 12) RNAPII 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) B Version 1

27) D 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE Version 1

57) TRUE 58) TRUE

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CHAPTER 16 – 12e 1) A(n) __________ is a latent form of a virus genome that remains within the host without destroying it.

2) In order to take up a free DNA molecule, a cell must be __________, which may occur only at certain stages in the life cycle of the organism.

3) A plasmid that can either exist independently of the chromosome or be integrated into it is called a(n) __________.

A __________ is a piece of extrachromosomal DNA that has its own replication origin.

5) Plasmids that have genes for pili and can transfer copies of themselves to other bacteria during conjugation are called __________ plasmids.

6) In mismatch repair on newly replicated DNA, enzymes distinguish between old and newly replicated DNA strands based on the fact that newly replicated DNA strands are ________-methylated relative to older DNA.

The __________ __________ is the most prevalent form of a gene in a population.

__________ are physical or chemical agents that cause mutation.

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__________ mutations affect only a single base pair in a gene.

10) Mutations resulting from exposure to physical or chemical agents are called __________ mutations.

11) __________ mutations occur in the promoter or operator region of a gene or set of genes and affects the expression of the downstream genes without affecting the amino acid sequences of the gene products.

12)

During generalized transduction _________. A) the host chromosome is degraded into randomly sized fragments B) any DNA fragment of the appropriate size is packaged C) any bacterial gene may be transferred to the subsequent host D) All of the choices are correct.

13) All of the following are appropriate strategies for overcoming drug resistance in bacteria except _________. A) decreasing the use of antibiotics in agriculture B) patient compliance with dosage instructions when taking antibiotics C) heightened infection control in health care facilities D) prudent use of antibiotics when treating viral infections

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14)

Specialized transduction can be carried out by _________. A) any bacteriophage B) any temperate bacteriophage C) only those temperate bacteriophages that integrate into the host chromosome D) All of the choices are correct.

15)

Which of the following is not true of specialized transduction? A) It is carried out by temperate phage. B) It is restricted to those genes on either side of an integrated prophage. C) The phage genome retains the full complement of phage genes. D) All of the choices are correct.

16) If chromosomal DNA from a host is the only type of DNA carried by a transducing particle, what can be concluded regarding transduction in this case? A) Transduction in this case is generalized rather than specialized. B) Transduction in this case is specialized rather than generalized. C) Transduction in this case could be generalized or specialized depending on the phage involved. D) Transduction in this case is neither generalized nor specialized.

17) If chromosomal DNA from a host and phage DNA are carried by a transducing particle, what can be concluded regarding transduction in this case?

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A) Transduction in this case is generalized rather than specialized. B) Transduction in this case is specialized rather than generalized. C) Transduction in this case could be generalized or specialized depending on the phage involved. D) Transduction in this case is neither generalized nor specialized.

18) If the att site of Escherichia coli was dissimilar to that of lambda phage due to a mutation, how would transduction be affected? A) Phage DNA would be unable to integrate into host DNA. B) Lambda phage would be unable to package host DNA. C) Specialized transduction would become generalized. D) Transduction would not be affected since mutation is only in the host cell.

19) A microbiologist is working with two genera of bacteria, A and B, to determine if cells are competent. Strains are grown under optimal conditions, and DNA fragments that carry the gene for green fluorescent protein are added to each culture at 20-minute intervals. Samples from each treatment are plated to nutrient agar and incubated, after which the plates are examined under an ultraviolet lamp. The microbiologist observes that all plates of bacteria B contain colonies that are fluorescent, while for bacteria A only the plates from stationary phase demonstrate fluorescent colonies. What can be concluded from these results? A) Both bacteria A and bacteria B cells are competent. B) Competence in bacteria A is constitutively expressed. C) Competence in bacteria B is dependent on the phase of growth. D) Neither bacteria A nor bacteria B cells are competent.

20) A microbiologist is working with a bacteria strain to determine if cells are competent. Cells are grown under optimal conditions with DNA fragments that carry two genes, green fluorescent protein and ampicillin resistance, and then plated to nutrient agar with and without ampicillin. Following incubation, plates are examined for fluorescent colonies under a UV lamp. Predict the results if cells are competent. Version 1

A) Fluorescent colonies will be present on both types of plates. B) Fluorescent colonies will be present on the ampicillin agar plates, but there will be no growth on the nutrient agar plates. C) Colonies will be present on both types of plates, but will only fluoresce on the ampicillin agar plates. D) There will be no growth on either type of plate.

21) Which procedure is most associated with unsuccessful transformation and degradation of DNA? A) Naturally-occurring transformation with DNA fragments in competent bacteria. B) Induced transformation with plasmid DNA in noncompetent bacteria. C) Integration of DNA fragments in competent bacteria following naturally-occurring transformation. D) Addition of DNA fragments from competent bacteria to live, noncompetent bacteria without artificial induction.

22)

Complete transfer in an Hfr × F− mating takes approximately __________ minutes. A) 20 B) 50 C) 100 D) 200

23)

Predict the outcome of an F+ to F− mating if the F+ cell lacked a functional tra operon.

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A) Upon entering the recipient, the F factor would be unable to integrate into to host chromosome. B) Conjugation would not occur because there would be no contact between the F+ and F− cells. C) Conjugation would occur, but the F- recipient could not become Hfr. D) There would be no effect on conjugation.

24) An Hfr cell and an F− cell result from conjugation between a donor cell and a recipient cell. Which statement is false regarding this event? A) The donor could have been either F− or F+. B) The donor could have been Hfr. C) The recipient could have been F−. D) The donor could not have been F−.

25) Who is credited with demonstrating unidirectional and nonreciprocal transfer of DNA between two mating E. coli cells? A) Hayes B) Lederberg C) Tatum D) None of the choices are correct.

26)

The order of gene transfer in an Hfr × F− mating is best represented by _________.

A) all plasmid genes followed by some or all of the chromosome B) part of the plasmid followed by the chromosome followed by the rest of the plasmid C) the chromosome followed by the plasmid D) part of the chromosome followed by the plasmid followed by the rest of the chromosome

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27) When an F' plasmid acts as the donor in a mating, which of the following do(es) not happen? A) The recipient becomes F'. B) The plasmid is transferred, including the chromosomal genes now on the plasmid. C) Some chromosomal genes not on the plasmid are transferred. D) All of the choices are correct.

28) When an F plasmid integrates into the host chromosome, the strain is referred to as _________. A) F+ B) Hfr C) F' D) F−

29)

An F' plasmid results when _________. A) an F+ × F− mating is interrupted before completion B) an Hfr × F− mating is interrupted before completion C) an integrated F plasmid is incorrectly excised, bringing host genes with it D) None of the choices are correct.

30) Plasmids that have genes that decrease bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics are called __________ factors.

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A) col B) resistance C) virulence D) metabolic

31)

Following an F+ × F− mating, the donor is __________ and the recipient is __________. A) F+; F− B) F−; F+ C) F−; F− D) F+; F+

32)

In an F+ × F− conjugation, the donor is the __________ strain. A) F+ B) F− C) both F+ and F− (it is a reciprocal exchange) D) neither F+ nor F− (there is no exchange)

33)

Conjugative transposons _________. A) can be transferred from one bacterium to another by a phage-mediated process B) may be involved in the spread of antibiotic resistance in bacteria C) often express enzymes that degrade aromatic compounds D) All of the choices are correct.

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34) An insertion sequence is distinguishable from other mobile genetic elements because _________. A) it is smallest B) it encodes a transposase C) it is highly complex D) it is composed of DNA

35) A transposable element composed of an antibiotic resistance gene, a recombinase gene, and inverted repeats is identified in a bacterial genome. This element can be any of the following except _________. A) an insertion sequence B) a composite transposon C) a unit transposon D) an integrated conjugative element

36)

Insertion sequences are _________. A) normally relatively short (700 to 1,650 bp) B) capable of transposition C) are discrete genetic elements bounded at both ends with inverted repeats D) All of the choices are correct.

37) Transposons that insert at a new location while a copy remains at the original location are said to mediate ________ transposition. A) simple B) composite C) incomplete D) replicative

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38) Which of the following conclusions can be made if two identical insertion sequences are identified in separate locations on a chromosome? A) The insertion sequence was transferred via replicative transposition. B) The insertion sequence was a "cut-and-paste" transposon. C) The insertion sequence was transferred via simple transposition. D) A mutation occurred during transposition of the insertion sequence.

39)

Which of the following effects may be mediated by transposable elements? A) A mutation may result from insertion into a gene. B) Activation of nearby genes may occur. C) Genetic deletions may form. D) All of the choices are correct.

40) Which of these transposable elements do not carry genes for functions other than those needed for transposition? A) Insertion sequences B) Composite transposons C) Retrotransposons D) Conjugal transposons

41) When a recipient cell acquires a piece of free DNA from the environment, it is called _________.

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A) conjugation B) transformation C) transduction D) transfection

42) If one reproductive strategy of a eukaryotic organism is gamete fusion, what can be concluded about that organism? A) The organism participates in vertical gene transfer. B) The organism participates in horizontal gene transfer. C) The organism reproduces asexually. D) Progeny organisms are identical to each other.

43) Which of the following methods of genetic recombination is common to both eukaryotic and bacterial cells? A) Vertical gene transfer B) Crossing over C) Gamete fusion D) All of the choices are correct.

44) Which statement best summarizes the major distinction between horizontal gene transfer and vertical gene transfer?

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A) The recipient of genes in horizontal transfer is a mature cell, whereas the recipient of genes in vertical transfer is a progeny cell. B) Horizontal transfer is observed in bacteria and archaea, whereas vertical transfer is observed in all cells. C) Organisms that use horizontal transfer can only reproduce asexually, whereas organisms that use vertical transfer can reproduce sexually or asexually. D) Genes are more stable in recipient cells following horizontal transfer that in those following vertical transfer.

45) The process in which one or more nucleic acid molecules are rearranged or combined to produce a new nucleotide sequence is called _________. A) transformation B) conjugation C) recombination D) transduction

46)

Site-specific recombination systems _________. A) do not depend on extensive nucleotide sequence homology B) depend on enzymes that are often specific for sequences within the host C) are features of some viruses D) All of the choices are correct.

47) A reciprocal exchange in which two DNA molecules with the same nucleotide sequence break and rejoin in a crossover is called __________ recombination.

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A) homologous B) site-specific C) replicative D) None of the choices are correct.

48) The incorporation of a single strand of donor DNA into a recipient DNA duplex so that the donor strand replaces one of the strands or the recipient duplex generates __________ DNA. A) aberrant B) unstable C) heterogeneous D) heteroduplex

49) When bacterial genes are transferred to another bacterium by a virus, it is called _________. A) conjugation B) transformation C) transduction D) transfection

50) Which of the following is true of the integration of a viral genome into the host chromosome? A) Integration of the viral genome is a form of site-specific recombination. B) The enzymes that are used in integration are nonspecific for the virus and its host. C) Integration begins the process of host chromosome degradation. D) All of the choices are correct.

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51)

Transfer of genes from one mature independent organism to another is called _________. A) horizontal gene transfer B) lateral gene transfer C) vertical gene transfer D) orthogonal gene transfer

52) If you wished to study the SOS response in Escherichia coli, which of the following experimental procedures could be used? A) Expose cells to nonionizing radiation for 20 minutes. B) Expose cells to ionizing radiation for 10 minutes. C) Transfer log phase cells from complete medium to thymine minimal medium. D) Inactivate genes that encode DNA polymerases. E) All of the choices are correct.

53) What would be the hypothetical outcome if the action of RecA was inhibited during the SOS response? A) LexA would not autolyse, and therefore the transcription of DNA repair genes would not occur. B) LexA would autolyse, and therefore the transcription of DNA repair genes would occur. C) LexA would autolyse, and therefore the transcription of repair genes would not occur. D) LexA would not autolyse, and therefore the transcription of repair genes would occur.

54) Repair of an apurinic or apyrimidinic site in DNA by AP endonuclease must be completed by the action of _________.

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A) UvrABC endonuclease B) RecA protein C) DNA polymerase I D) None of the choices are correct.

55)

Which of the following is the most error-prone of the repair mechanisms? A) Postreplication repair B) Recombination repair C) SOS repair D) Photoreactivation

56) Repair of thymine dimers using light to split the dimers apart into separate monomers is called _________. A) photodedimerication B) photoreactivation C) photoreparation D) None of the choices are correct.

57)

SOS repair _________. A) requires RecA protein B) is inducible by DNA damage C) is error prone, i.e., produces mutations D) All of the choices are correct.

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58)

Microbial strains that can grow on minimal medium are called __________. A) autotrophs B) auxotrophs C) prototrophs D) minitrophs

59) A public health microbiologist plans to screen a particular bacterial species that was isolated from several patients in an intensive care unit to detect if any of the cells are penicillinresistant mutants. What is the first step in conducting this experiment? A) Determine whether or not wild type cells of the same bacterial species are susceptible to penicillin. B) Test the cells to see if they can grow on media to which penicillin has been added. C) Perform an antibiotic susceptibility test on the cells using antibiotics other than penicillin that are known to be effective. D) Set up an Ames test to see if any of the isolates are mutagenic.

60)

Which type of medium support growth of mutant bacteria that are threonine auxotrophs?

A) Threonine auxotrophs only grow on media that is supplemented with threonine. B) Threonine auxotrophs only grow on media that lacks threonine. C) Since threonine is essential for growth, threonine auxotrophs do not grow on any type of media. D) Since threonine is essential for growth, threonine auxotrophs can grow on any type of media.

61) What type of procedure is appropriate to isolate revertants from a population of threonine auxotrophic cells?

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A) Grow the auxotrophic cells on an agar plate without threonine; any colonies that form are presumed revertant. B) Grow the auxotrophic cells on and agar plate with threonine; any colonies that form are presumed revertant. C) Grow the auxotrophic cells in broth with threonine; if the broth becomes cloudy, revertants are presumed present. D) Threonine auxotrophic revertants could not be isolated on any type of media.

62)

Which type(s) of mutation might lead to a threonine auxotrophic revertant? A) Base substitution B) Missense mutation C) Point mutation D) All of the choices are correct.

63) _______ are strains that are unable to grow on a minimal medium that supports growth of the wild type strain, but are able to grow on the minimal medium if one or more nutritional supplements are added. A) Autotrophs B) Auxotrophs C) Prototrophs D) Minitrophs

64)

Replica plating _________. A) can be used to measure the mutagenicity of chemicals B) is used to measure the repair of thymine dimers C) is used to measure levels of oxygen-free radicals D) None of the choices are correct.

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65) If a region of DNA contained numerous mismatches due to a modifying agent that caused methylation of guanine, which of the following mutagens is most likely the cause? A) A deaminating base such as nitrous oxide B) An intercalating agent such as acridine orange C) A DNA modifier such as an alkylating agent D) Ionizing energy such as gamma radiation

66) Which of the following mutagens is most different than the others in terms of its effect on DNA? A) Acridine orange B) Intercalating agent C) Planar mutagen that inserts between stacked bases D) Base analogue

67) A microbial geneticist observes that a significant number of pyrimidine dimers are present in bacterial DNA following exposure to a particular mutagen. To which mutagen were the bacterial cells likely exposed? A) UV light B) Acridine orange C) 5-bromouracil D) X-rays

68)

A change in genotype, but not in phenotype, is most likely due to _________.

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A) a nonsense mutation at the beginning of a gene B) a point mutation in the third position of a DNA triplet C) a mutation that leads to a frameshift in the middle of a gene D) thymine dimer formation in the coding region of a gene

69) Predict the outcome of protein synthesis if a gene undergoes a mutation in its anticodon region where a charged tRNA recognizes a nonsense mutation. A) Transcription and translation both would continue. B) Transcription would continue but translation would not continue. C) Transcription and translation both would not continue. D) Transcription would not continue but translation would continue.

70)

Lethal mutations can be maintained in diploid organisms if they are _________. A) dominant B) recessive C) deletions D) None of the choices are correct.

71) Mutations that result in the death of an organism when expressed are called __________ mutations. A) dominant B) recessive C) lethal D) conditional

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72)

Alternate forms of genes resulting from mutations are called _________. A) isoforms B) alterons C) alleles D) lethal

73) A mutation from the most prevalent form of a gene to a mutant form is called a __________ mutation. A) forward B) reverse C) wild card D) escalating

74) A mutagen that inserts between the stacked bases of a DNA double helix, distorting the DNA to induce single-pair insertions or deletions is called a(n) __________ agent. A) insertional B) interspersing C) intercalating D) distortional

75) By definition, if the DNA of a cell undergoes a spontaneous mutation, is was NOT due to _________. A) errors in DNA replication B) insertion of transposons C) exposure to radiation D) spontaneous depurination of nucleotides

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76)

A __________ mutation does not alter the amino acid sequence of the resulting protein. A) missense B) nonsense C) silent D) None of the choices are correct.

77) As the result of exposure to a mutagen, cytosine is substituted for thymine in one strand of DNA. Upon subsequent DNA replication, one of the daughter cells will have a GC pair in this position instead of an AT pair. This is called a(n) __________ mutation. A) transversion B) transition C) frameshift D) insertion

78)

Transition mutations can result from _________.

A) incorporation of a base analog that exhibits different base-pairing properties from the base it replaces B) chemical modification of an existing base in the DNA so that in the next round of replication it will pair differently from the unmodified base C) incorporation of a base analog that exhibits different base-pairing properties from the base it replaces and chemical modification of an existing base in the DNA so that in the next round of replication it will pair differently from the unmodified base D) a small insertion or deletion

79) Which of the following is considered a reverse mutation that will restore the wild type phenotype?

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A) True reversion back to the wild type base sequence B) Mutation to a different base sequence, but one that restores the amino acid sequence in the protein to the wild type sequence C) A mutation that restores the function of a protein, even though it does not restore the base sequence or the amino acid sequence to the wild type D) All of the choices are correct.

80) Which of the following types of mutation may play an important role in driving evolution because they are often nonlethal and, therefore, remain in the gene pool? A) Nonsense B) Missense C) Frameshift D) Deletion

81) A mutation that changes the amino acid sequence of the resulting protein by substitution is called a __________ mutation. A) missense B) nonsense C) silent D) None of the choices are correct.

82)

Lethal mutations can be recovered in bacteria if they are _________. A) dominant B) active C) conditional D) None of the choices are correct.

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83) A __________ mutation is one that causes premature termination of the synthesis of the protein product. A) missense B) nonsense C) silent D) None of the choices are correct.

84)

Transfer of genetic information via direct cell-cell contact is called _________. A) transformation B) transduction C) transfection D) conjugation

85) Which of the following statements is false regarding the consequences of horizontal gene transfer? A) Horizontal gene transfer is the main mechanism that drives the evolution of microorganisms. B) Horizontal gene transfer allows microbes to better survive environmental stresses such as UV radiation by replacing their own damaged DNA with intact DNA from another organism. C) Genetic changes resulting from horizontal gene transfer affects the virulence of bacteria when pathogenicity islands are transferred between organisms. D) Microbes can expand their ecological niche when horizontal gene transfer bestows beneficial traits such as antibiotic resistance. E) Horizontal gene transfer allows the donor DNA to self replicate, simultaneously repressing reproduction in the recipient.

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86)

Homologous recombination differs from site-specific recombination in that __________.

A) homologous recombination involves long stretches of similar-sequence nucleotides on two DNA molecules that break and reanneal in a crossover mechanism, whereas site-specific recombination occurs at target sites, catalazed by recombinases B) homologous recombination takes place at specific target sites catalazed by recombinases, whereas site-specific recombination involves long stretches of same-sequence nucleotides on two DNA molecules that break and reanneal in a crossover mechanism C) homologous recombination takes place in eukaryotic cells during meiosis, whereas site-specific recombination takes place in bacteria and archaea during horizontal gene transfer D) homologous recombination utilizes enzymes collectively called recombinases, whereas site-specific recombination involves RecA to bring about the crossover between DNA molecules

87) Mobilizable genomic islands (MGIs) differ from integrative conjugative elements (ICEs) in that __________. A) MGIs include anatt site, allowing large portions of the bacterial chromosome to be transferred, whereas ICEs are transposons in nature B) MGIs are insertion sequences, whereas ICEs are transposons C) MGIs are transferred by conjugation, whereas ICEs are transferred by transduction D) MGIs transfer pathogenicity islands, whereas ICEs transfer antibiotic-resistance genes

88)

Which of the following exhibits gene exchange that is mediated by viruses? A) Transduction B) Conjugation C) Lysogeny D) Transformation

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89) Genes for antibiotic resistance can be found in antibiotic-producing bacteria as well as in non-antibiotic-producing bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90) One strategy to overcome antibiotic resistance is to use the same antibiotics in animal husbandry as those that are prescribed for humans, since the potential for resistant bacteria to evolve would be limited to only a small number of drug classes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) During specialized transduction carried out by lambda phage in Escherichia coli, differences in the phage and host attachment ( att) sites mediate insertion of phage DNA into host DNA. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92) Stable integration of foreign DNA into a bacterial host genome is generally accomplished through induced plasmid transformation than by natural uptake of free DNA fragments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) The transformation frequency of very competent cells is about 10−6, or about 1 in 1,000,000 when an excess of DNA is used. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Competency has been observed in only a limited number of species in nature, but we have found ways to induce the process upon other species in the laboratory.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

95) When assessing the role of conjugative bacteria in the spread of antibiotic resistance genes, it is fair to say that Hfr cells contribute most while F− cells contribute least. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96)

A cell that is Hfr and a cell that is F+ can be the same cell. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) In an F+ × F− mating, all or part of the host chromosome usually is transferred to the recipient. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) In the mechanics of conjugation, exclusive of gene transfer, Hfr and F+ strains behave the same. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) In an Hfr × F− mating, the conjugation bridge usually breaks before chromosomal transfer is complete. Therefore, the recipient remains F−. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

100) The conjugation bridge in an Hfr × F− mating usually breaks before chromosome transfer is complete; however, because at least part of the plasmid is transferred first, the recipient becomes F+. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Transposable elements have been found only in bacteria and do not appear to play a major role in eukaryotes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Bacterial isolates from post-surgical infections of several patients on the same hospital floor demonstrate an increase in resistance to similar antibiotics. The pattern of antibiotic resistance in these cases is most likely due to vertical gene transfer among bacteria that carry resistance genes to bacteria that lack those genes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103)

Photoreactivation repairs thymine dimers by splitting them back into separate thymines. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) To best isolate mutant bacteria that are threonine auxotrophs from a larger population, threonine-rich media should be inoculated and any colonies that form are presumptive auxotrophic mutants. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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105) test.

Approximately half of known animal carcinogens can be detected by the replica plating ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) If 5-bromouracil was added to a culture of actively dividing bacterial cells, resulting mutations could eventually become a stable part of the cellular genome. ⊚ true ⊚ false

107) Horizontal gene transfer is the main mechanism in which bacteria and archaea evolve from. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_12e_Willey 1) prophage 2) competent 3) episome 4) plasmid 5) conjugative 6) under 7) wild type 8) Mutagens 9) Point 10) induced 11) Regulatory 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) D 47) A 48) D 49) C 50) A 51) A 52) E 53) A 54) C 55) C 56) B Version 1

57) D 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) D 63) B 64) A 65) C 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) C 73) A 74) C 75) C 76) C 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) B 81) A 82) C 83) B 84) D 85) E 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) A 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE

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CHAPTER 17 – 12e 1) A genomic __________ is a sufficiently large collection of recombinant DNA molecules in which the inserted sequences together represent the entire genome of an organism.

2) In _________, cells are mixed with recombinant DNA and exposed to a brief pulse of high-voltage electricity to cause the membrane to become permeable and allow the uptake of DNA from its environment.

3) A(n)__________ __________ is a piece of DNA with all of the features necessary for chromosomal replication and that can carry large (up to 1000 kb) pieces of foreign DNA into a host organism.

4) The production of large quantities of a particular DNA sequence is known as gene ___________.

_________blank takes a more rational approach to strain development.

A class of engineered receptor-ligand RNAs has been given the name_________blank.

7) _________blank involves the forward engineering of biological systems to perform completely novel functions.

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8) A(n) __________ vector contains promoters that result in high-level transcription of the gene cloned within a multicloning site. A) shuttle B) chimeric C) expression D) phage

9) Which of the following components of PCR ensures amplification of the target DNA sequence only, despite the presence of many other DNA sequences? A) Primers B) Polymerases C) dNTPs D) High temperatures

10) During the investigation of a convenience store robbery, witnesses report that the perpetrator exited through a main entry door without wearing gloves. The police are holding a prime suspect in custody while samples from the door are collected and analyzed for a DNA match. Since the door was handled by many people before the robbery, how will the forensics department distinguish the suspect's DNA from the DNA of others using PCR? A) Sequence-specific primers to the suspect's DNA will be used for PCR amplification. B) Sequence-specific primers to the suspect's DNA will be added following PCR amplification. C) PCR will be used to make sequence-specific primers that are complementary to the suspect's DNA. D) Since multiple people touched the doorknob without gloves, it is impossible to use PCR to distinguish the suspect's DNA.

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11) A molecular biologist is interested in purifying a recombinant protein by His-tagging, but the protein and vector both lack histidine residues. In this case, the molecular biologist could use which of the following technique(s) to achieve purification? A) Add a 6xHis-tag to the C-terminus of the protein B) Add a series of histidine residues to the N-terminus of the protein C) Amplify the histidine-encoding sequence by PCR and add it to the gene of interest D) All of the choices are correct.

12) Which situation(s) might warrant the removal of a histidine tag when purifying a recombinant protein? A) Histidine residues bind preferentially to nickel resins on the column during purification, and are not washed away. B) The expression vector used for inserting the gene of interest already contains histidine-encoding sequences. C) Histidine residues inhibit protein folding, thereby decreasing the functionality of the protein. D) All of the choices are correct.

13)

Which is most analogous to the role of GFP in recombinant DNA technology?

A) Using dyes to stain and detect bacteria under light microscopy from the sputum of a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis. B) Comparing the RFLP patterns of DNA from various suspects to DNA isolated from the scene of a crime using gel electrophoresis. C) Creating a metagenomic library representing archaea bacteria that thrive in the hot springs of Yellowstone National Park. D) Monitoring the spread of multi-drug resistant pathogens on a hospital floor by comparing antibiotic susceptibility patterns.

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14) As a newly hired molecular biologist for a company that produces genetically modified seeds, your first project is to ensure that a GM cotton plant carrying a bacterial insecticide gene is expressed in tissues of seedlings as well as mature plants. To better understand regulation of the gene, you decide to use GFP fusion to detect activity of the promoter and also use GFP fusion to determine the location of the protein in plants tissues at various stages of growth. A) transcriptional; translational B) translational; transcriptional C) transcriptional; transcriptional D) translational; translational

15)

Which of the following terms is most closely related to genetic complementation? A) Phenotypic rescue B) Naked DNA C) Reverse transcription D) SOS response

16)

Which of the following techniques exemplifies phenotypic rescue in a host cell?

A) Introducing a genomic library from a cell that produces a particular gene product into a mutant host cell auxotroph that cannot synthesize the product. B) Introducing a genomic library from a mutant cell auxotroph for a particular gene product into a host cell that can synthesize that product constitutively. C) Removing genes that encode a particular gene product from a cell that expresses that product constitutively before creating a genomic library. D) Replacing a mutant gene with a functional gene in a DNA library from an auxotrophic mutant cell prior to introducing the library into a related host cell.

17) Which of the following bacterial hosts should be used to avoid degradation of DNA that is introduced via a cloning vector?

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A) Escherichia coli that lack endonucleases B) RecA-expressing Escherchia coli C) Escherchia coli RecA mutants D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae wild type cells

18) A microbiologist would like to use a noncompetent genus of streptococcal bacteria, Enterococcus faecalis, as a cloning host to express genes from Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is naturally competent. Is this possible? A) Yes; electroporation or chemical transformation can be used to make Enterococcus competent, and then genes from Streptococcus can be introduced via a cloning vector. B) Yes; electroporation or chemical transformation can be used to make noncompetent Streptococcus mutants, from which genes can be inserted into a cloning vector and introduced into Enterococcus. C) No; competence factor is an essential protein that enables the uptake of foreign DNA, therefore a cloning host such as Enterococcus that lacks competence factor protein is unable to be transformed by electroporation or chemical transformation. D) Yes; since the cloning host and the DNA to be introduced are both from bacteria that are streptococci, natural competence in this case is not necessary as long as the appropriate vector is used.

19) Which cloning vector should be used to express a 500-kb DNA fragment in Saccharomyces cerevisiae? A) YAC B) BAC C) pUC19 D) λ1059

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20) You and a friend are student assistants in a research laboratory that investigates the anticancer properties of proteins isolated from marine organisms. Your friend mentions that they are using a BAC vector to insert shark DNA into Escherichia coli, but after repeated attempts, has found that the bacterial cells fail to synthesize the encoded protein. What is your advice? A) If the shark DNA is unmodified, it contains introns that are not recognized by bacteria, therefore protein synthesis will not occur. B) Since shark DNA is eukaryotic, the cloning vector should be a YAC derived from yeast rather than a BAC derived from bacteria. C) It is impossible to clone eukaryotic DNA into a bacterial host, since eukaryotic DNA has introns and prokaryotic DNA does not. D) Because Escherichia coli is not naturally competent, it cannot serve as the cloning host for foreign DNA.

21)

Which of the following is not true of cloning vectors? A) They usually contain multicloning sites or polylinkers. B) They contain at least two replication origins. C) They can be replicated within an appropriate host. D) All of these choices are correct.

22)

Which of the following can be used as vectors for cloning DNA fragments? A) Plasmids B) Cosmids C) Bacteriophages D) All of the choices are correct.

23)

Plasmid cloning vector DNA is usually introduced into bacterial hosts by _________.

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A) ligation B) transformation C) transduction D) plasmolysis

24) Plasmid vectors often contain __________ genes that can be used to screen for recombinants. A) metabolic activation B) antibiotic resistance C) insertion sequence D) promoter/operator

25) A DNA molecule used to carry a foreign gene into a host organism is called a _________. A) plasmid B) vector C) probe D) blot

26)

Antibiotics incorporated into the culture medium can _________. A) select against organisms that have not incorporated the plasmid B) select against organisms that have incorporated a plasmid not containing the desired

gene C) enhance production of recombinant proteins D) select against organisms that have not incorporated the plasmid and select against organisms that have incorporated a plasmid not containing the desired gene

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27) A(n) __________ vector is a plasmid that can be replicated in several different organisms because it has at least one origin of replication that will function in each host. A) shuttle B) chimeric C) expression D) phage

28)

_________ is a bacterial plasmid vector. A) Lambda B) T4 DNA ligase C) pUC19 D) SV40

29)

Which of the following is not part of a yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)? A) The F factor B) A selectable marker C) An ARS D) A CEN sequence

30) Which of the following types of cloning vector can carry the largest amount of foreign DNA?

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A) Bacterial artificial chromosome B) Bacteriophage C) Cosmid D) Plasmid

31)

Cloning a gene involves all of the following EXCEPT _________. A) isolating the fragment of DNA containing the desired gene B) insertion of the gene into an appropriate vector C) expression of the vector and the gene in a cell-free environment D) introducing ligated DNA into E. coli cells

32)

Which of the following PCR procedures includes all of the others? A) DNA is amplified for one cycle. B) DNA is denatured at 95oC. C) DNA is reannealed at 50oC D) Primers are extended at 72oC.

33)

Which is a true statement regarding the size of PCR products?

A) Since the number of DNA products extends beyond each primer with each cycle, when PCR is completed, the majority of products are of various sizes. B) Since the length of primers increases with each cycle, when PCR is completed, the majority of products are of various sizes. C) Since the number of DNA products ending exactly between both primers increases with each cycle, when PCR is completed, the majority of products are of similar size. D) None of the choices are correct.

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34) Sputum from a patient with a history of tuberculosis due to Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria is collected and sent to the microbiology lab for analysis. X-ray analysis and an acid-fast smear made from the sputum indicate that the patient has active tuberculosis. The physician has requested that the sputum be analyzed for pathogen load, but because colonies of Mycobacterium typically take between 3 to 8 weeks to appear on agar, results from traditional culture methods are often delayed. If you were the microbiologist in this case, what would you do? A) Using the sputum, apply real-time PCR with primers to Mycobacterium tuberculosis DNA to estimate the pathogen load, then follow up with a traditional culture. B) Using the sputum, apply end-point PCR with primers to Mycobacterium tuberculosis DNA to estimate the pathogen load, then follow up with a traditional culture. C) Set up a traditional culture on the sputum, then use the colonies for real-time PCR with primers to Mycobacterium tuberculosis DNA to quantify the pathogen load. D) Set up a traditional culture on the sputum, then use the colonies for end-point PCR with primers to Mycobacterium tuberculosis DNA to quantify the pathogen load.

35) Which procedure is most useful in quantifying the active transcription of botulism toxin genes in a can of food that is contaminated? A) Southern blot B) End-point PCR C) Real-time PCR D) DNA hybridization

36)

The three steps that take place in each cycle during PCR occur in which order? A) DNA annealing, denaturation, and synthesis B) DNA denaturation, annealing, and synthesis C) DNA synthesis, denaturation, and annealing D) DNA denaturation, synthesis, and annealing

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37) A PCR procedure that allows a determination of the amount of a particular DNA fragment that is present in a sample is called _________. A) quantitative PCR B) analytical PCR C) real-time PCR D) reverse PCR

38)

The PCR method was developed by _________. A) Boyer B) Mullis C) Cohen D) Sanger

39) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to produce __________ of copies in a few hours. A) hundreds B) thousands C) millions D) billions

40) When separating DNA fragments by gel electrophoresis, what is the purpose of including molecular weight markers?

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A) Markers are used as a control to determine the relative size of restriction fragments. B) Markers provide an indication as to the total number of restriction fragments on the gel. C) Markers are needed to estimate the relative charges on each of the restriction fragments. D) Markers ensure that fragments having a greater molecular weight migrate at the same rate as those having a lighter molecular weight.

41) Plasmid DNA having one EcoRI recognition sequence is treated with EcoRI restriction endonuclease. Following gel electrophoresis, how many bands should be visible on the gel? A) One B) Two C) Four D) Zero

42) If DNA were a positively charged rather than negatively charged, what change to the gel electrophoresis procedure must be made? A) Migration time of restriction fragments must be increased. B) DNA must be loaded at the positive pole rather than at the negative pole. C) Type of buffer used must be basic rather than neutral. D) All of the choices are correct.

43) A molecular biologist treats a 600-bp length of linear DNA with HindIII restriction endonuclease. Following gel electrophoresis, the biologist observes that there is only one band on the gel and it corresponds with the migration distance of the 200-bp molecular weight marker. Assuming that no procedural errors were made, what can be concluded from these results?

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A) Two HindIII recognition sequences were present in the original DNA. B) Three HindIII recognition sequences were present in the original DNA. C) There were no HindIII recognition sequences present in the original DNA. D) One HindIII recognition sequence was present in the original DNA.

44)

Recombinant DNA technology does not rely on which of the following enzymes? A) Restriction endonucleases B) RNA methylase C) DNA ligase D) Reverse transcriptase

45)

Which of the following is true about restriction endonucleases?

A) They make a blunt cut on the two DNA strands so that there are no single-strand regions. B) They make staggered cuts on the DNA so that single-strand ends are formed that can be used to insert foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme. C) Some make a blunt cut on the two DNA strands so that there are no single-strand regions and some make staggered cuts on the DNA so that single-strand ends are formed that can be used to insert foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme. D) Depending on the incubation conditions, the same enzyme can either make a blunt cut on the two DNA strands so that there are no single-strand regions OR make staggered cuts on the DNA so that single-strand ends are formed that can be used to insert foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme.

46) When a eukaryotic gene is cloned into a bacterium, the advantage of a complementary DNA (cDNA) gene being used instead of fragments of genomic DNA is that _________.

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A) the promoter and terminator are found in the cDNA gene but not in the genomic fragment B) the introns have been removed from the cDNA gene but not from the genomic fragment C) the cDNA is made with the nucleotides found in the prokaryote but not in the eukaryote D) there is no advantage to using a cDNA gene rather than a genomic fragment

47)

Restriction endonucleases in bacteria may have evolved in order to _________. A) carry out natural genetic engineering B) protect the bacteria from infection by viruses C) use nucleic acids as a food (energy) source D) All of the choices are correct.

48) An enzyme that cleaves internal phosphodiester bonds of a DNA molecule is a(n) _________. A) exonuclease B) endonuclease C) ligase D) methylase

49)

Complementary DNA (cDNA) probes are produced using _________. A) restriction endonucleases B) RNA polymerase C) DNA ligase D) reverse transcriptase

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50) A __________ is a DNA molecule used in hybridization reactions to detect the presence of a particular gene in separated DNA fragments. A) plasmid B) vector C) probe D) blot

51) In order to express eukaryotic genes in a bacterium, the __________ must first be removed. A) introns B) exons C) enhancers D) 3' poly A sequence

52) Which of the following was first produced commercially using recombinant DNA technology? A) Human growth hormone B) Interleukins C) Hepatitis B vaccine D) Human insulin

53)

The enzyme reverse transcriptase was discovered by _________.

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A) Arber and Smith B) Jackson, Symons, and Berg C) Boyer and Cohen D) Temin and Baltimore

54)

Restriction endonucleases were discovered by _________. A) Arber and Smith B) Jackson, Symons, and Berg C) Boyer and Cohen D) Temin and Baltimore

55)

Restriction endonucleases are produced by _________. A) fungi B) bacteria C) protozoa D) plants E) All of the choices are correct.

56) Movement of charged molecules in an electrical field, which is used to separate nucleic acid fragments for recombinant DNA work, is called _________. A) iontophoresis B) nucleophoresis C) electrophoresis D) plasmaphoresis

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57) Which of the following best describes the basis for separation of DNA fragments during agarose gel electrophoresis? A) The fragments with the highest percentage of G and C will migrate fastest. B) The fragments with the highest percentage of A and T will migrate fastest. C) The largest fragments will migrate fastest. D) The smallest fragments will migrate fastest.

58)

Which is the most frequently chosen prokaryotic host for use in cloning techniques? A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae B) Bacillus subtilis C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Escherichia coli

59) Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of oligonucleotide primers in PCR? A) Only a portion of the oligonucleotide primers need to hybridize to the 3' template DNA strand; the 5' "overhang" can contain a restriction site that will be copied during the second and all subsequent cycles of PCR. B) Oligonucleotide primers must hybridize completely to the template DNA strand in order for PCR to proceed; nonhybridized DNA will be degraded. C) The use of oligonucleotide primers is obsolete with the Gibson method of seamless cloning; instead, DNA polymerase and DNA ligase are able to copy the DNA independently. D) Oligonucleotide primers must hybridize to the 5' end of the template strand leaving a 3' primer "overhang"; that sequence will be copied and incorporated into the daughter strands allowing seamless cloning to occur.

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60)

Which of the following statements is false regarding the process of seamless cloning?

A) The 5' ends of the oligonucleotide primers contain a recognition site for a restriction enzyme that allows sticky ends to form between the inserted DNA and the vector. B) The 5' ends of the oligonucleotide primers are specific to nucleotides at the desired junction site of the vector. C) Following PCR, the generated insert DNA is mixed with the cleaved vector and an exonuclease is added to degrade the 5' ends of all strands. D) 3' sticky ends on both the insert and the vector hybridize, and DNA polymerase and DNA ligase complete the circular recombinant molecule.

61)

Cas9 endonuclease differs from a restriction enzyme in that __________.

A) restriction enzymes recognize a 4-8bp target sequence in the DNA and directly cleave at that site, whereas Cas9 contains a guide RNA that is complementary to a specific DNA site and a polypeptide that cleaves once hybridization is complete B) Cas9 recognizes a 4-8bp target sequence in the DNA and directly cleave at that site, whereas restriction enzymes contain a guide RNA that is complementary to a specific DNA site and a polypeptide that cleaves once hybridization is complete C) restriction enzymes recognize 4-8bp sequence of the DNA, whereas the amino acids in Cas9 recognizes sequences that are approximately 20bp in length D) restriction enzymes can cleave any loci in the DNA molecule, whereas Cas9 can only cleave DNA fragments that originated as mobile genetic elements such as phages and transposons

62) I am a ribonucleoprotein; I contain both a polypeptide and an RNA molecule. My RNA binds to unique sequences on a DNA molecule, targeting them for cleavage by my polypeptide. I occur naturally in microbes to protect against viral attack, and I can be engineered in the lab for precision DNA editing. What am I?

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A) Cas9 nuclease B) EcoR1 restriction enzyme C) RNA polymerase D) 3' oligonucleotide

63)

The Cas9 nuclease is able to cleave target DNA at a single precise site by __________.

A) using a guide RNA that hybridizes to a unique sequence on the target DNA molecule B) recognizing a palindromic sequence on the DNA and cleaving at that site leaving sticky ends C) associating with a single-stranded DNA molecule that binds to its complement on the genome to be cleaved D) altering its active site to bind to and cleave any DNA sequence that is targeted

64)

The advantage of homologous recombination is that __________.

A) following a splice with Cas9, the ends of the chromosome can be seamlessly joined with a piece of donor DNA that has been engineering to contain flanking sequences homologous to the broken chromosome ends B) following a splice with a restriction enzyme, the sticky ends can be combined with a piece of donor DNA that has the same sticky ends C) following a splice with Cas9, the ends are joined back together with the induction of a frameshift mutation resulting in an inactive protein D) genes from two different sources can be joined together when the wild-types contain homology between the two molecules, allowing DNA ligase to join the naturally-occurring sticky ends

65)

Which of the following is NOT one of the three advantages offered by synthetic biology?

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A) Improves efficacy B) Limits metabolic engineering C) Increases the ability to mix-and-match regulatory mechanisms D) Decreases error during the synthesis process

66) Some plasmid vectors have incorporated the regulatory sequences of the lactose operon so that the expression of the recombinant gene can be induced at the appropriate time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) When a eukaryotic gene is expressed in a bacterium, the eukaryotic regulatory sequences should be maintained in order to achieve maximum expression of the gene. ⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

Promoters for genes that code for proteins can be isolated from a cDNA library. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) A microbial ecologist who is interested in studying how gene expression is influenced by different species of bacteria in a biofilm would most likely find a metagenomic library more useful than a genomic library. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70) Regardless of the exact approach taken to recombinant DNA technology, one of the keys to successful cloning is choosing the right vector. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Cosmids are plasmids that can be packaged into capsids of the bacteriophage lambda; therefore, they can be transmitted like phages, but they can exist and replicate in a cell like plasmids. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

Transposons are frequently used as cloning vectors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Cosmids are so named because they can be used to express foreign genes in a variety of different hosts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) One of the major advantages to using plasmids as cloning vectors is that very high copy numbers can be achieved with many types of plasmid vectors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) If all of the PCR products of a DNA sequence are 4000 bp, then the DNA sequence that was amplified must have been 8000 bp. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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76)

The thermostable enzyme most commonly used in PCR is reverse transcriptase. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) If all of the restriction fragments in a DNA digest were of very low molecular weight, then all of the fragments on the electrophoretic gel will be closest to the positive pole and furthest from the negative pole. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78)

Genetic engineering methods have been used to produce vaccines. ⊚ ⊚

79)

true false

Electroporation is commonly used to introduce recombinant DNA molecules into cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Oligonucleotide primers require only a portion of the sequence to hybridize to the template DNA; the non-hybridized 5' end of the primer can be engineered to contain a recognition sequence for a restriction endonuclease that will be incorporated into the doublestranded daughter DNA after the second cycle. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

81) A researcher wants to cleave the DNA of a target organism at a single, precise location in the genome. The best way to achieve this is to select a restriction enzyme that recognizes a 4–8 bp palindromic sequence on the double-stranded DNA. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) The difference between nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ) and homologous recombination is that NHEJ introduces a piece of donor DNA with seamless integration between the chromosome and donor DNA, whereas homologous recombination introduces a frameshift mutation when the repair is made between the broken chromosome ends. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) In a functional screen, the genes are cloned into vectors and expressed in microbes such asE. coli. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_12e_Willey 1) library 2) electroporation 3) artificial chromosome 4) amplification 5) Directed evolution 6) aptamers 7) Synthetic biology 8) C 9) A 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) A 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) A 41) A 42) B 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) B 47) B 48) B 49) D 50) C 51) A 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) D 58) D 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) A 63) A 64) A 65) D 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE

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CHAPTER 18 – 12e 1) The method of nucleotide sequence determination that utilizes dideoxynucleotides was developed by_________blank.

2) Automated nucleotide sequencing machines detect DNA bands by laser induced_________blank.

3) An acronym that describes sequences of a protein-coding gene that specify the amino acid sequence is_________blank.

4) _________blank is the field concerned with the management and analysis of biological data using computers.

5) Nucleic acids to be analyzed using microarrays are usually tagged by covalent attachment of_________blank molecules.

6) _________blank technology can be used to simultaneously monitor the level of expression of every gene in a cell.

7) Research focused on determining the function of different cellular proteins, protein interactions, and protein regulation is called _________blank proteomics.

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8) Isoelectric focusing separates proteins based on the pH at which they are electrically_________blank.

9) The subdiscipline of genomics that seeks to identify similarities and differences between genomes of different strains and species is called_________blank genomics.

10) Mobile genetic elements that are permanently integrated into a microbial genome are known as_________blank.

11) The technique of _________blank is used to copy the genome of a single microbial cell so there is sufficient DNA for sequencing.

12) Genes from different organisms with similar sequences or open reading frames (ORFs) are called _________blank.

13)

Each of the four Sanger sequencing reactions include_________blank. A) a combination of the four different dideoxynucleotides B) a single dideoxynucleotide triphosphate C) ATP D) tRNA

14)

Most automated nucleotide sequencing machines detect bands by_________blank.

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A) laser induced fluorescence B) measuring incorporated radioactivity C) autoradiography D) sizing DNA fragments produced by base specific chemical cleavage reactions

15)

The Sanger sequencing approach developed in the 1970s_________blank.

A) has been rendered obsolete by the development of fundamentally different methodologies B) is still the main approach used to determine nucleotide sequences C) is useful for sequencing small DNAs but is not applicable to genome-sized DNA molecules D) is applicable to RNA but not DNA

16)

Genomics is the study of_________blank. A) the molecular organization of genomes B) the information content of genomes C) the gene products that genomes encode D) All of the choices are correct.

17) Clonal libraries used to determine the sequence of a microbial genome using the wholegenome shotgun approach are typically generated by_________blank.

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A) cloning small gene-sized DNA fragments produced by breaking chromosomal DNA with ultrasonic waves B) cloning large DNA fragments produced by breaking chromosomal DNA with ultrasonic waves C) cloning random PCR fragments amplified from genomic DNA D) cloning large DNA fragments produced by restriction endonuclease cleavage

18) The whole-genome shotgun approach for collecting the data used to determine the nucleotide sequence of microbial genomes uses_________blank. A) adapters that are added to genomic DNA fragments B) powerful computers and specialized software C) automated sequencing of random fragments of genomic DNA D) powerful computers and specialized software and automated sequencing of random fragments of genomic DNA

19)

ORF refers to_________blank. A) the location of the start site of transcription B) the region of a gene that codes for a protein or a functional RNA product C) the region of a gene that serves as the promoter D) the region between the ribosome binding site and translation initiation codon

20) When two or more genes from the same genome have nucleotide sequences so alike that they most probably arose from gene duplication those genes are called _________blank.

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A) homologues B) orthologues C) paralogues D) duologues

21)

DNA microarray technology is used to measure the_________blank. A) specific DNA content of cells B) levels of specific proteins expressed by cells C) levels of specific RNAs expressed by cells D) genetic complexity of cells of interest

22)

The genome sequence ofTreponema pallidum _________blank.

A) almost immediately provided explanations for how this organism causes syphilis B) should ultimately help us understand the mechanism by which this organism causes syphilis C) identified proteins that have already been used to produce the first successful vaccine for syphilis D) has led us to be able to completely eradicate this organism

23)

Treponema pallidum_________blank. A) requires protein factors found in blood B) lacks numerous biosynthetic pathways and thus has numerous nutritional requirements C) is missing the pathway for peptidoglycan synthesis D) is missing several important genes essential for DNA replication

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24) Analysis of the genome and transcriptome of the highly radiation resistant bacterium Deinococcus radiodurans has revealed all of the following EXCEPT _________blank. A) its genome consists of two circular chromosomes and two plasmids B) it has more DNA repair genes than E. coli C) genes whose products are involved in DNA replication and recombination are dramatically up-regulated after irradiation D) genes whose products are involved in cell wall metabolism and cellular transport are dramatically up-regulated after irradiation

25)

The proteome refers to _________blank. A) the composite database of amino acid sequences B) the protein complex responsible for degrading ubiquitin labeled proteins C) all of the proteins that an organism produces D) which proteins are secreted from the cell

26)

Isoelectric focusing_________blank. A) separates proteins based on the pH at which they are electrically neutral B) separates proteins based on their size and shape C) directly reveals the identity of unknown proteins in a complex mixture D) focuses the data gathered onto a specific protein or ORF

27)

Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis_________blank.

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A) separates proteins based on their isoelectric pH B) separates proteins based on their size C) can be used to resolve thousands of proteins in a complex mixture D) All of the choices are correct.

28) Protein spots eluted from a two-dimensional gel analysis can be identified and correlated to specific genes that code for them using _________blank. A) Sanger sequencing and computer analysis B) mass spectrometry C) gas chromatography D) None of the choices are correct.

29) In modern proteomic analysis, the amino acid sequence of a protein can be determined by_________blank. A) two-dimensional gel electrophoresis B) mass spectrometry C) determining its nucleotide sequence D) analysis using protein chips with appropriate probes

30)

The proteome_________blank.

A) is another way of referring to the array of proteins that cover the surface of some prokaryotes B) refers to the complete amino acid sequence of a protein C) is the entire collection of proteins that an organism can produce D) is a proteinaceous organelle of cyanobacteria that can be used as a source of carbon and fixed nitrogen

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31) A long-term goal(s) of the bioinformatic analysis of a pathogenic bacterium is_________blank. A) assembly of accurate and complete genomic nucleotide sequences B) identification of molecules that could be used to treat genetic disorders C) identification of molecules that can be passed to a new host D) identification of molecules that could be used as targets by antimicrobial agents, or develop or improve a vaccine

32) In an experiment, you have created a microbial strain in which you have deleted a single gene; to evaluate the transcriptome and the proteome, you_________blank. A) run microarray analysis B) perform DNA sequencing C) run two-dimensional gels D) run microarray analysis and two-dimensional gels

33) Which of the following is not a required characteristic of antigens from microbial pathogens that might be used in vaccine production? A) It must be excreted or found on the surface of the pathogen. B) It must be found in all strains of the pathogen. C) It must be essential for the survival of the pathogen in the host. D) All of the choices are correct.

34) The application called multiple strand displacement amplification is a powerful tool because _________blank.

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A) it allows single-cell genomic sequencing that can analyze uncultivated microorganisms B) it provides data on the pathogenic nature of the microorganism C) it identifies the transcriptome of the microorganism D) it provides errorless sequencing results for that microorganism

35) Which of the following statements is correct in comparing metagenomic (next generation) sequencing to whole-genome (shotgun) sequencing? A) Both sequencing methods utilize overlapping sequence contigs to assemble the full sequence. B) Metagenomic sequencing uses a bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC) genomic library as the template. C) Whole-genome sequencing does not fragment genomic sequences, but rather utilizes adaptor molecules on the template DNA. D) Both sequencing methods have equal depth and coverage from the polymerase "reads" on the template.

36) One of the first sequenced genomes was for the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae. Once the genes were annotated, a(n) _________blank was constructed to represent the entire genome visually. A) physical genome map B) color-code map C) metagenomic map D) ORF map

37) Which of the following is a technology that can be used to identify the DNA to which a protein binds?

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A) ChIP-Seq analysis B) RNA-seq and microarray analysis C) PCR and RT-PCR analysis D) Isoelectric focusing and 2D gel electrophoresis analysis

38) As systems biology matured, genomics led to understanding cellular regulatory systems and a new level of metabolic engineering, called _________blank, such that a microbe could be constructed with novel genetic networks (e.g., rerouting amino acid biosynthetic pathways in E. coli to produce biofuels). A) synthetic biology B) functional proteomics C) metaprotein genetics D) parts listing

39) Genome sequencing and annotation of metabolic pathways has led to predicted interactions that can be tested by transcriptomics, proteomics, and metabolomics. These interactions between the individual products can then be linked in a predictive network and used to construct testable hypotheses. The field best suited to investigate these statements would be _________blank. A) systems biology B) synthetic biology C) adaptive biology D) pathway-predictive biology

40)

The difference between Sanger sequencing and NGS is that_________blank.

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A) Sanger sequencing is expensive and time consuming whereas NGS is faster and cheaper B) Sanger uses a chain termination method whereas NGS uses parallel sequencing of identical fragments C) Sanger uses dideoxynucleotide triphosphates in solution whereas NGS uses oligonucleotide adapters D) All of the choices are correct.

41) One advantage to using NGS genome assembly over the Sanger method is that_________blank. A) NGS avoids the need to insert fragments into cloning vectors, using oligonucleotide adapters that bind to a solid surface instead B) NGS involves inserting the genomic fragments into vectors, which is an efficient process compared to using the oligonucleotide adapters employed in the Sanger method C) NGS involves the construction of a genomic library, giving extra depth of coverage compared to the Sanger method D) NGS sequences the same fragment no more than 10 times, avoiding wasteful processes compared to the Sanger method

42)

Which of the following describes the construction of a metagenomic library?

A) A sample of ocean water is collected, the DNA is extracted and fragmented, then next-generation sequencing leads to the alignment of the 100-300 bp sequences to known microbial genomes. B) A sample of ocean water is collected, the microbes are cultured on saline agar, then their DNA is extracted and sequenced using the Sanger method before constructing a library. C) A sample of ocean water is collected, the DNA is extracted and fragmented, then inserted into plasmid vectors before sequencing using the Sanger chain termination method. D) A sample of ocean water is collected and the organisms present are sequenced, which allows construction of a library containing the whole genome.

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43) Bioinformatics provides database information to align proteins from novel sequences with known proteins. If a new amino acid sequence does not match an existing sequence_________blank. A) it is either a conserved hypothetical protein, i.e., the DNA matches genes in the database but they have no known function, or it is a protein of unknown function; the genes are unique to that organism B) it is either a protein of unknown function, i.e., the DNA matches genes in the database but they have no known function, or it is a conserved hypothetical protein; the genes are unique to that organism C) it is called an orthologue; the DNA that codes the ORF does not match any other organism in the database and the function is not known D) it is called an paralogue; the DNA that codes the ORF does not match any other organism in the database and the function is not known

44) Which statement best reflects the main difference between the genomes of bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes? A) Intracellular parasites have the smallest genomes since they have evolved to lack genes that code for the synthesis of essential metabolites. B) Eukaryotes have a high gene density compared to bacteria and archaea since their genes contain introns. C) Eukaryotes have larger genomes than bacteria and archaea since they are larger cells. D) Pathogens have larger genomes than non-pathogenic microbes since genome size is generally dependent on the presence of pathogenicity islands.

45)

The use of metagenomics across biological disciplines is due to which of the following?

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A) The ability to sample the genetic information of a microbial community in any specified ecosystem. B) The ability to recreate the exact gene pool of any specified ecosystem. C) The use of DNA to clone organisms within an ecosystem. D) The usage of DNA sequencing to identify all organisms within a specified ecosystem.

46) Modern automated sequencing machines detect DNA bands by measuring incorporated radioactivity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

47) Dideoxynucleotide sequencing methodologies rely on the ability of dideoxynucleotides to facilitate chain extension after incorporation by DNA polymerase. ⊚ ⊚

true false

48) After completing the nucleotide sequence of a microbial genome, computer translation of the DNA sequence allows enzymes to be identified based on a short pattern of amino acid sequence called a contig that corresponds to the active site of the enzyme. ⊚ ⊚

true false

49) The whole-genome shotgun approach is useful for sequencing small bacterial genomes but has failed in the case of larger eukaryotic genomes such as those of Drosophila and human. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

50) In genomic research, the term contig refers to overlapping nucleotide sequences that are not adjacent in the genome and are formed from smaller fragments. ⊚ ⊚

51)

The proteome refers to the collection of open reading frames in a genome. ⊚ ⊚

52)

true false

Expressed sequence tags are nucleotide sequences derived from cDNA molecules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) Since proteins are encoded by nucleotide sequences, the proteome of a microorganism can be readily inferred from the given complete nucleotide sequence of a genome and a highspeed computer with specialized software. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) Bioinformatic analysis of genomic nucleotide sequences using specialized software and high-speed computers make it possible to determine how proteins encoded by ORFs are posttranslationally modified. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

55)

The term "proteome" refers to the complete amino acid sequence of a protein. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) Genome analysis has revealed that horizontal gene transfer is frequently mediated by phages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Mobile genetic elements that encode proteins that contribute to or confer virulence are known as contiguous sequences. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Analysis of the nucleotide sequence of the genome of microorganisms has revealed important information about their metabolic potential. ⊚ ⊚

59)

true false

Environmental genomics is sometimes called metagenomics. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

60) Microbiome sequencing requires the construction of a genomic library, while wholegenome shotgun sequencing does not. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) One reason to study DNA-protein interactions is because many proteins (e.g., regulatory proteins and proteins involved in replication and transcription) directly interact with DNA, and by understanding those interactions, we may be able to inhibit microorganism pathways in the future. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) One area where genomics has been applied to systems biology is the study of metabolism, by using genome sequencing and annotation to lead to predictions that can be tested by transcriptomics, proteomics, and metabolomics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Horizontal gene transfers commonly exhibit deviations from the amount of G + C shown by the inner circle on a physical genome map. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 18_12e_Willey 1) Sanger 2) fluorescence 3) ORF 4) Bioinformatics 5) fluorescent 6) Microarray 7) functional 8) neutral 9) comparative 10) genomic islands 11) strand displacement 12) orthologues 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) D 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE Version 1

57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE

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CHAPTER 19 – 12e 1)

Phyla Methanobacteriota and Halobacteriota have been isolated _________blank. A) from marine plankton B) as symbiotes of sea sponges and sea cucumbers C) from rice paddies and lake sediment D) as pathogens of whales and giant squid

2) A large number of the genes shared by bacteria and Archaea produce proteins that are involved in _________blank.

3) Pyrolobus fumarii is considered an extreme thermophile or _________blank, because it can grow at temperatures above 100°C.

4) Thermophilic members of the phylum _________blank can grow in geothermally heated water or soils that contain elemental sulfur.

The metabolic feature that defines Nitrosphaeria is _________blank.

6) Symboisis between an archaeon and a bacterium is believe to show the formation of the first eukaryotic cell._________blank is the phylum that is considered to be the closest living relative to the original archaeon host cell.

7) TheAsgardarchaeota , Nanoarchaeota,Thermoproteota,Nitrosphaeria,Methanobacteriota,Halobacteriota, and Thermoplasmatota are_________blank. Version 1

A) the seven phyla of Archaea B) very closely related based on 16S rRNA comparisons C) photosynthetic Archaea D) now classified with the bacteria based on genomic sequence analysis

Because archaeons lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls_________blank. A) some have an outer layer of complex polysaccharide B) some have an outer layer of protein C) they must always be grown in isotonic medium D) some have an outer layer of complex polysaccharide and some have an outer layer of

protein

9) The primary lipid components of the membranes of extreme thermophiles are _________blank. A) sulfolipids B) cholesterol C) C40 isoprenoid tetraethers D) C20 diglycerol diethers

10)

Archaeal membranes contain which of the following lipids? A) Phospholipids B) Sulfolipids C) Glycolipids D) All of the choices are correct.

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11)

Methanogens can live only in_________blank environments. A) aerobic B) anaerobic C) microaerophilic D) All of the choices are correct.

12) Archaea generally lack which of the following that are normally found in Gram-negative bacteria? A) Outer membrane B) A complex peptidoglycan network C) Lipopolysaccharide D) All of the choices are correct.

13)

Which of the following genera of Archaea do not have cell walls? A) Halobacterium B) Thermoplasma C) Thermococcus D) None of the choices are correct.

14) Which of the following contribute(s) to the differences between Archaea and the bacteria?

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15) Which of the following is/are true of most of the extreme thermophilic Archaea in the phylum ofThermoproteota? A) They are sulfur dependent B) They are acidophiles C) Their cell walls contain lipoprotein and carbohydrate D) Unlike most other Archaea, their membrane lipids are similar to those of the bacteria E) They are sulfur dependent, they are acidophiles, and their cell walls contain lipoprotein and carbohydrate

16) An organism with a temperature growth optimum near 80°C and a pH growth optimum between two and three is usually referred to as a(n) _________blank. A) halophile B) thermoacidophile C) thermophile D) thermoalkalophile

17)

Methanogenic Archaea are_________blank.

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A) obligate anaerobes that produce methane B) obligate anaerobes that consume methane C) obligate aerobes that produce methane D) obligate aerobes that consume methane

18)

Archaeal cell walls_________blank. A) are disrupted by treatment with lysozyme or penicillin B) are similar to those of Gram-negative bacteria C) are diverse in their chemical composition depending on their environment D) include orthomureine

19)

20)

Which of the following is true about the cell-wall-less archaeal genus Thermoplasma?

A) They are spherical at temperatures below 59°C. B) They are filamentous at temperatures at 59°C and higher. C) They are nonmotile. D) They are spherical at temperatures below 59°C and they are filamentous at temperatures at 59°C and higher.

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21)

The photosynthetic membrane of Halobacterium salinarium contains _________blank. A) bacteriorhodopsin B) chlorophyll a and b C) bacteriochlorophyll D) archaeochlorophyll

22)

The cell membranes of wall-less archaeons are strengthened by _________blank. A) caldarchaeol B) lipid-containing polysaccharide C) glycoproteins D) All of the choices are correct.

23)

Methanogens link ATP synthesis to methanogenesis by _________blank. A) substrate-level phosphorylation B) the reverse TCA cycle C) the use of bacteriorhodopsin D) electron transport to generate proton motive force

24)

Which of the following is currently the largest group of cultured Archaea? A) Extreme halophiles B) Methanogens C) Extreme thermophiles D) Sulfate reducers

25)

Defining features of the halobacteria include_________blank.

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A) absolute dependence on temperatures above 65ºC for growth B) the production of methane C) absolute dependence on a high concentration of NaCl for growth D) absolute dependence on low pH conditions for growth

26) Substrates used by methanogens include compounds such as _________blank.

and

as well as short-chain organic

A) formate B) acetate C) methanol D) All of the choices are correct.

27)

Autotrophy has been observed among the _________blank. A) methanogens B) extreme thermophiles C) cyanobacteria D) All of the choices are correct.

28)

Which of the following do methanogensnot use to form methane? A) Carbon dioxide B) Formate C) Acetate D) Phosphate

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29) An organism that requires at least 1.5 M NaCl in order to grow is referred to as a(n) _________blank. A) facultative halophile B) extreme halophile C) sodiophile D) barophile

30) A modified cell membrane that carries out photosynthesis using bacteriorhodopsin in the absence of chlorophyll is called the _________blank membrane. A) colorless B) orange C) purple D) green

31) Caldarchaeol lipids are extremely thermostable tetraethers found in many _________blank. A) hyperthermophilic archaea B) hypersalinic archaea C) psychrophile archaea D) autotrophic archaea

32) Microbes that were found to possess the ability to oxidize ammonia and considered mixotrophic are now placed in the phylum _________blank. A) Nitrosphaeria B) Thermoplasmatota C) Thermoproteota D) Euryarchaeota

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33) The distinct archaeal gene versions of Nitrosphaeria that oxidize ammonia into hydroxylamine ( ) is catalyzed by _________blank. A) ammonia monooxygenase (AMO) B) methanofuran (MFR) C) methylaspartate pathway (MAP) D) ammonium dismutase (ADM)

34) Archaea in the class _________blank are thermoacidophiles that lack cell walls, but strengthen their plasma membranes with large quantities of caldarchaeol, glycoproteins, and lipid-containing polysaccharides. A) Thermoplasmata B) Thermococci C) Pyrococci D) Archaeoglobus

35) Asgard archaea are currently a proposed superphylum rather than being universally accepted because_________blank. A) they are known only through DNA sequence fragments; they have not been cultivated in the laboratory B) they have genes that encode eukaryotic signature proteins such as actin and tubulin C) they are found in chemically and geographically diverse sites D) they possess intracellular trafficking proteins even though they lack endoplasmic reticula and Golgi apparati

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36) Scientists on a marine expedition collecting metagenomic data discover a novel genome that contains sequences for intracellular trafficking proteins similar to those found associated with the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. They initially hypothesize it is eukaryotic in nature, but discover additional sequences that are distinctly archaeal. The most appropriate classification is_________blank. A) the proposed superphylum Asgard B) the TACK superphylum C) the Euryarchaeota superphylum D) the DPANN superphylum

37) Organisms in phylumNitrosphaeria were first identified as distinct when_________blank. A) the unique membrane lipid thermarchaeol was discovered in mesophilic ammonia oxidizers B) all members of the phylumMethanobacteriota were cultured in the laboratory and found to be different C) not all members of the phylum could oxidize ammonia D) whole-genome sequences were processed and compared

38) Members of the phylumNitrosphaeria produce a membrane lipid that differs from other diglycerol tetraethers found inMethanobacteriota in that_________blank. A) it contains a cyclohexane ring that promotes membrane fluidity at lower temperatures B) it contains several cyclopentane rings that stiffen the membrane at lower temperatures C) it contains several cyclohexane rings that stabilize the membrane at high temperatures D) it contains a single cyclohexane ring within the phosphilipid bilayer that promotes membrane fluidity

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39) Studying the partial-genome sequences that result from metagenomic analyses of extreme environments allows researchers to_________blank. A) infer the metabolic characteristics of the proposed organisms by analyzing their putative proteins B) classify them in a specific phylum described inBergey's Manual C) finalize the organization of domain Archaea D) limit the phyla of archaea by sorting them according to their habitats

40) Metabolism of uncultured organisms can be inferred from partial-genome sequence data since_________blank. A) comparison of genes and the proteins they encode with genes from known organisms allows researchers to gain insight into the metabolic pathways of proposed organisms B) the genomes can be spliced into vectors and the proteins made by alternative organisms C) metabolic pathways do not vary among organisms D) the organisms may be grown in the laboratory once the analysis is complete, and the metabolic pathways can be studied

41)

Glycogen is used as a major carbon and energy reserve by some archaeons. ⊚ ⊚

42)

Some methanogenic Archaea are capable of fixing nitrogen. ⊚ ⊚

43)

true false

Archaeons have been isolated from both temperate and cold environments.

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⊚ ⊚

44)

Archaeal genomes often include plasmids. ⊚ ⊚

45)

true false

Some members of Archaea lack a cell wall. ⊚ ⊚

47)

true false

Some archaeons are symbionts in animal digestive tracts. ⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

Archaeons are not known to incorporate (fix) carbon dioxide. ⊚ ⊚

true false

48) Although Sulfolobus solfataricus grows at pH 2 to 4, it maintains a cytoplasmic pH of about 2, thereby generating a large pH gradient across the plasma membrane. ⊚ ⊚

49)

true false

Pyrolobus fumarii have been isolated from hydrothermal vents.

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⊚ ⊚

50)

Picrophilus has a pH optimum below 1 and can even grow at or near pH 0. ⊚ ⊚

51)

true false

Archaeal sulfate reducers use elemental sulfur as an electron acceptor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) If the NaCl concentration drops below 1.5 M the cell walls of Halobacterium disintegrate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) If the NaCl concentration drops below 1.5 M the cell walls of Halobacterium become more rigid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) Methanogens may contribute to the greenhouse effect and global warming due to methane production. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

55) Members of the hyperthermophilic anaerobe lineage are known to reside in marine and terrestrial geothermal habitats. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) Most euryarchaea, except the class Archaeoglobi and the order Archaeoglobales, reduce sulfur during anaerobic respiration by using sulfate as a terminal electron acceptor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Currently,Nanoarchaeota undergo fermentation but they do possess proteins that encode for unknown functions related to metabolism. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Ignicoccus hospitalis andNanoarchaeum equitans both depend on the symbiotic interactions between their inner and outer membranes to utilize ATP. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 19_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, C] 2) metabolic pathways 3) hyperthermophile 4) Thermoproteota 5) ammonia fixation 6) Asgardarchaeota 7) A 8) D 9) C 10) D 11) B 12) D 13) B 14) D 15) E 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) D 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

57) TRUE 58) FALSE

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CHAPTER 20 – 12e 1) Although Deinococcota stain Gram-positive, which reason(s) exclude them from this Gram type? A) They have L-ornithine in their peptidoglycan B) They lack teichoic acids C) Their cell envelope includes an S-layer D) Their plasma membrane has phosphatidylglycerol phospholipids instead of palmitoleic acids

2) Which of the following is involved in synthesizing lipopolysaccharides attaching to the outer membrane. A) Encoding proteins B) Working proteins C) Translating proteins D) Microscopy proteins

Check all of the following substrates that can be utilized by SRB. A) Lactate B) Pyruvate C) Methane D) Acetate

Check all the diseases associated with an infection ofCampylobacter.

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A) Septicemia B) Enteritis C) Paralysis D) Difficulty speaking

5) Which two of the following bacteria that are strictly anaerobic with respiratory or fermentative metabolism are most similar in physiological function? A) Desulfuromonaceae B) Geobacteraceae C) Bdellovibrionaceae D) Enterobacteriaceae

6) As a part of a DNA amplifying technique, polymerase chain reaction,_________blank is an important enzyme used because of its ability to survive and function in high temperature environments.

7) Some cyanobacteria are not blue-green, rather they are red or brown; this is due to the presence of the photosynthetic pigment_________blank.

8) The site of anaerobic ammonia oxidation in the recently described phyla Planctomycetota is called the _________blank.

9) A unique feature of _________ that distinguishes them from other bacteria is their ability to move through highly viscous liquids.

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10) _________blank is commonly used in DNA replication techniques, due to the enzyme taq and its ability to survive and function in higher temperature environments.

11) SRB are able to reside in_________blank and_________blank habitats due to the large amounts of sulfur present in these environments.

12) Helicobacter possesses unique pili that allow them to avoid an_________blank environment in the_________blank and proliferate.

13) The member of the domain Bacteria whose genome shows it to be most closely related to the Archaea is _________blank. A) Thermotoga B) Aquifex C) Deinococcus D) Synechococcus

14)

Thermotoga can grow anaerobically on which of the following? A) Methane and methanol B) Protein digests and carbohydrates C) Lignin D) Cellulose

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15)

Aquifex cannot use which of the following as electron donors? A) Hydrogen B) Thiosulfate C) Sulfur D) Glucose

16)

Members of the phylum Thermotogota can be found growing in_________blank. A) marine hydrothermal vents and terrestrial solfataric hot springs B) marine salterns of the shore of the Dead Sea C) soils of the Antarctic D) the intestinal tract of mammals

17)

The phylum_________blank is thought to represent the oldest branch of the bacteria. A) Thermotogota B) Aquificota C) Cyanobacteria D) Spirochetes

18)

Which of the following is extremely radiation resistant? A) Deinococcus B) Aquifex C) Thermotoga D) Cytophaga

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19)

Which of the following are used by cyanobacteria for reproduction? A) Binary fission B) Budding C) Fragmentation D) All of the choices are correct.

20)

Which of the following best describes the photosynthetic membranes of Chlorobium?

A) Accessory bacteriochlorophylls are located in the chlorosomes, but the reaction center bacteriochlorophyll is located in the plasma membrane. B) Accessory bacteriochlorophylls are located in the plasma membrane, but the reaction center bacteriochlorophyll is located in the chlorosomes. C) Accessory and reaction center bacteriochlorophylls are located in the chlorosomes. D) Accessory and reaction center bacteriochlorophylls are located in the plasma membrane.

21)

Prochlorophytes lack which of the following? A) Chlorophyll a B) Chlorophyll b C) Phycobilins D) None of the choices are correct.

22) Some cyanobacteria form_________blank, which are comprised of chains of bacterial cells that are in close contact with one another over a large area.

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A) hypha B) mycelia C) trichomes D) cell mats

23) Dormant, thick-walled resting cells of cyanobacteria that are resistant to desiccation are called _________blank. A) baeocytes B) akinetes C) hormogonia D) thylakoids

24)

Which of the following contain both chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b? A) Cyanobacteria B) Prochloron C) Green sulfur bacteria D) Purple sulfur bacteria

25)

Some marine species of cyanobacteria_________blank. A) have flagella and are, therefore, motile B) do not have flagella and are, therefore, nonmotile C) do not have flagella but are, nonetheless, motile by some unknown mechanism D) do not have flagella but are motile by means of pseudopods

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26) Cyanobacteria modulate the relative amounts of their different photopigments in response to the wavelength of incident light by a process known as _________blank. A) chromatic acclimation B) wavelength adaptation C) adaptive photopigmentation D) light shifting

27)

Which of the following best describes cyanobacteria? A) They carry out anoxygenic photosynthesis. B) They carry out oxygenic photosynthesis. C) They all can use as a source of electrons for photosynthesis. D) Their photosynthetic pigments are carried in chlorosomes.

28)

Cyanobacteria are best described as_________blank. A) all being obligate photolithoautotrophs B) all being obligate chemoheterotrophs C) some being photolithoautotrophs that can function as chemoheterotrophs in the dark D) None of the choices are correct.

29) Although similar to eukaryotic photosynthetic organisms, cyanobacteria are different because they_________blank. A) have only photosystem I not photosystem II B) have only photosystem II not photosystem I C) do not have chloroplasts D) do not have any photosynthetic membranes

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30) Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes that carry out oxygenic photosynthesis like green plants; this means that_________blank. A) they use water as their electron source B) they produce oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis C) they have two distinct photosystems D) All of the choices are correct.

31)

The green sulfur bacteria are _________blank. A) obligate anaerobes B) facultative anaerobes C) microaerophilic D) either obligate anaerobes or facultative anaerobes

32)

The photosynthetic membranes of the green sulfur bacteria are called _________blank. A) chlorosomes B) chloroplasts C) chlorocytes D) chlorophylls

33)

The green sulfur bacteria _________blank. A) deposit granules of sulfur within the cell B) deposit granules of sulfur outside the cell C) deposit granules of sulfur within and outside the cell D) do not deposit granules of sulfur

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34) Large spherical cells of cyanobacteria that are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen are referred to as _________blank. A) heterocysts B) microcysts C) oocysts D) nitrocysts

35)

Which of the following is NOT true about anoxygenic photosynthesis? A) Does not produce oxygen B) Often produces sulfur granules C) Water is the usual source of electrons for photosynthesis D) Does not produce oxygen and often produces sulfur granules

36)

Some anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria use_________blank as their electron source. A) hydrogen sulfide B) sulfur C) hydrogen D) All of these choices are correct.

37) Which of the following groups of photosynthetic bacteria are capable of oxygenic photosynthesis?

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A) The green bacteria B) The purple bacteria C) The cyanobacteria D) All of the choices are correct.

38)

Which of the following are photosynthetic bacteria? A) The green bacteria B) The purple bacteria C) The cyanobacteria D) All of the choices are correct.

39)

Unique features of the planctomycetes include _________blank. A) resistance to ionizing radiation B) their size: some are as large as protozoa C) a membrane-bound anammoxosome D) twitching fimbriae that are required for motility

40)

The infectious stage of chlamydiae is called a(n) _________blank body. A) elementary B) reticulate C) contagious D) oogonial

41)

The Gram-negative chlamydiae are _________blank.

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A) photosynthetic B) motile due to periplasmic flagella C) obligate intracellular parasites D) Gram-positive, spore-forming rods

42) The part of the spirochete that houses the cytoplasm and the nucleoid of spirochetes is called the _________blank cylinder. A) ectoplasmic B) cytoplasmic C) protoplasmic D) mesoplasmic

43) The complex of periplasmic flagella that mediates the movement of spirochetes is referred to as the _________blank. A) periplasmic flagella B) axillary filament C) axial filament D) peritrichal axon E) periplasmic flagella or axial filament

44)

The spirochetes include the causative agents for _________blank. A) Gonorrhea B) Lyme disease C) Bubonic plague D) whooping cough

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45)

Nitrogen fixation in the hindgut of the termite is carried out by _________blank. A) cyanobacteria B) bacilli C) deinococci D) spirochetes

46)

Spherical resting cells produced by Sporocytophaga are called _________blank. A) heterocysts B) microcysts C) oocysts D) nitrocysts

47) Bacteroides inhabit the intestinal tract of mammals and benefit the host by degrading which of the following? A) Cellulose B) Pectin C) Complex carbohydrates D) All of the choices are correct.

48)

Gliding motility can be used to propel bacteria _________blank. A) through the air only B) through liquids only C) across solid substrates only D) along the framework of the cytoskeleton of host cells

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49) As much as_________blank of the bacteria isolated from human feces belong to the genus Bacteroides. A) 0.1% B) 2.0% C) 30% D) 90%

50)

Which of these is NOT a location where you might find members of the Cyanobacteria? A) Deep ocean thermal vents B) Microbial mats C) "Blooms" on lakes D) Sulfide-rich mud on lake bottoms

51)

Which of the following is properly paired for the anammox reaction? A) Ammonium

as the electron donor; Nitrite

as the electron acceptor

B) Sulfate

as the electron donor; Sulfite

as the electron acceptor

C) Nitrate

as the electron donor; Nitrite

as the electron acceptor

D) Phosphate acceptor

as the electron donor; Carbonate

as the electron

52) It is estimated that as much as _________blank of the cycling nitrogen in the oceans is contributed by anammox bacteria. A) 10% B) 25% C) 40% D) 70%

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53)

The primary source of energy for bacteria in phylumFusobacteria is_________blank. A) amino acids B) glucose C) lactose D) lipids

54) An oncologist specializing in tumor development noticed that the presence of certain bacterial species in a tumor appeared to promote rapid progression of the cancerous cells. On microscopic examination, the cells were spindle-shaped and the culture had a rancid odor. The bacteria are likely to be_________blank. A) Fusobacteria B) Borrelia C) Chlamydia D) cyanobacteria

55) Which of the following statements support the evidence that suggestsFusobacteria play a role in tumor development? A) Fusobacteria appear to activate signaling pathways that prohibit apoptosis in tumor cells. B) Fusobacteria are present in abundance in certain tumors. C) In vitro studies have shown thatFusobacteria can live in co-culture with cancer cells. D) Fusobacteria are commensals and may cause opportunistic infections in humans.

56)

Most myxobacteria_________blank.

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A) are micropredators because they secrete digestive enzymes that lyse bacteria and yeasts B) have the ability to aggregate and form a fruiting body under conditions of nutrient limitation C) produce desiccation resistant dormant myxospores D) All of the choices are correct.

57)

The genusBdellovibrio_________blank. A) form long filaments called trichomes B) prey on Gram-negative bacteria by becoming an intracellular parasite C) use reduced sulfur compounds as a source of energy D) are responsible for causing diarrhea in humans

58) Myxobacteria lyse bacteria and yeasts by secretion of digestive enzymes then use the resulting peptides and amino acids as a source of_________blank. A) phosphate B) nitrogen C) iron D) sodium

59)

The genus Desulfovibrio_________blank. A) is a strict anaerobe B) uses sulfate as a terminal electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration C) produces D) All of the choices are correct.

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60) Members of the order Desulfovibrionales use which of the following as electron acceptors during anaerobic respiration? A) Elemental sulfur or sulfate B) C) D) Organic acids and alcohols

61)

Helicobacter pylori is responsible for _________blank. A) pneumonia B) cholera C) dysentery D) peptic ulcer disease

62)

Campylobacter jejuni is the cause of _________blank. A) abortion in sheep and enteritis diarrhea in humans B) wilt disease in plants C) fowl cholera D) meningitis

63) Filamentous microbial mats in anoxic, sulfide-rich cave springs are dominated by members of the _________blank. A) alpha proteobacteria B) beta proteobacteria C) delta proteobacteria D) epsilon proteobacteria

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64)

Thermatogota would grow best in which of the following environments? A) Between 50°C and 60°C in geothermal environments B) Between 50°C and 60°C in colder environments C) Between 80°C and 90°C in geothermal environments D) Between 50°C and 60°C in colder environments

65) The ability of deinococci to resist radiation is due in part to an unusual ability to repair chromosome damage, even fragmentation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Deinococci can be isolated from ground meat, feces, air, freshwater, and other sources, but their natural habitat is soil. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Deinococci stains Gram-positive but have a layered cell wall and an outer membrane that is more like a Gram-negative organism. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68)

Cyanobacteria capable of fixing atmospheric ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

always produce heterocysts.

true false

69)

A trichome is a bacterial cell with three different photosynthetic pigments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Green sulfur bacteria are nonmotile but can control their depth by using gas vesicles to control buoyancy. ⊚ ⊚

71)

true false

Some species of cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Cyanobacteria are so named because many species have a blue-green appearance caused by the photosynthetic pigment phycocyanin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) The chlorosomes of Bacteroidota are attached to the plasma membrane by a lipid-derived baseplate. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

74) It is estimated that anammox and the anammox reaction may contribute as much as 20% to the cycling of nitrogen in the world’s oceans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Chlamydiae are incapable of producing many key metabolites, for which they must rely on their host. ⊚ ⊚

76)

true false

Elementary bodies of chlamydiae are specialized for reproduction rather than infection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Analysis of the nucleotide sequence of the genome of Chlamydia trachomatis suggests that it may be able to synthesize some of its own ATP. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) Although the function of the flexible outer sheath in which the axial filaments of spirochetes lay is unknown, it is nonetheless essential (i.e., the bacteria will not survive if it is removed). ⊚ true ⊚ false

79) Many bacteria that exhibit gliding motility are able to use insoluble material that they encounter while gliding as a nutrient source.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Member of the genusSporoc ytophaga contribute significantly to the process of wastewater treatment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Gliding motility is a mechanism used by some prokaryotes to swim slowly through liquids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) A newly reported member of the phylum Verrucomicrobiota has been found to be thermophilic, acidophilic, and photosynthetic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) While Deinococci can be isolated from sources such as meat and feces, their true natural habitat remains unknown. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84) While rather metabolically limited, Chlamydiae reticulate bodies can still synthesize DNA, RNA, glycogen, lipids, and proteins if supplied with precursors from the host. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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85) Bacteria in phylum Fusobacteria are anaerobes that predominantly ferment sugars as their source of fuel, often producing butyric acid as an end product that smells rancid in culture. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) In dissimilatory sulfate reduction by Desulfuromonas, electrons are passed out of the cell, where they are used to reduce sulfide completely to sulfate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) Diderms contain two membranes; the plasma membrane and the outer membrane allowing differentiation following a Gram-stain. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

Monoderms typically stain Gram-negative similar to diderms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Dependency on genomic sequences has been growing rapidly due to the ease to replicate membrane structures in laboratory settings. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

90) Thermotoga possesses an outer sheathlike envelope that allows for growth in extreme thermophilic temperatures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Desulfobacterota are a phylum of SRB that contains the structure to physiologically process a large amount of methane. ⊚ ⊚

92)

true false

SRB breakdown carbohydrate sources to a final product of ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) A water source that shows a blackening in color and exudes an odor of rotten-egg is due to sulfate reduction in that environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) The life cycle ofBdellovibrio involves a parasitic relationship with other types of diderm bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 20_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, C] 2) [A] 3) [A, B] 4) [A, B, C] 5) [A, B] 6) taq 7) phycoerythrin 8) anammoxosome 9) spirochetes 10) Thermotoga 11) [terrestrial, aquatic] 12) [acidic, stomach] 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) C 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) E 44) B 45) D 46) B 47) D 48) C 49) C 50) A 51) A 52) D 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) D 60) A 61) D 62) A 63) A 64) C 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE Version 1

87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE

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CHAPTER 21 – 12e 1) Which of the following could be considered an oligotrophic (growing at low nutrient levels) environment inhabited by Alphaproteobacteria? (Check all that apply.) A) Symbiotic growth with another organism B) Anaerobic environment C) Remote marine environments D) Growth in food items

2) Shewanella spp. show great metabolic flexibility and can use a variety of electron acceptors, including _________blank. A) uranium and plutonium B) chromium and tellurite C) iodate and selnite D) technetium and neptunium

3) Escherichia coli uses mixed acid fermentation pathways that depend on which of the following enzymes? A) Pyruvate formate-lyase B) Formate dehydrogenase C) Ammonia monooxygenase D) C-type cytochrome

Rickettsias enter host cells by inducing _________blank.

5) Members of the genus Rhizobium, when growing symbiotically within root nodule cells, are referred to as _________blank.

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A _________blank is a hollow tubelike structure that surrounds a chain of cells.

7) Recently a methanotrophic proteobacterium was reported that oxidizes methane in anoxic environments by coupling methanotrophy with nitrite reduction, known as _________blank. In this process of reducing nitrite to nitrogen gas microbe, which it harnesses for methane oxidation.

, molecular oxygen is released within the

8) Species of Shewanella, Geobacter, and some cyanobacteria have evolved a strategy to enable their use of insoluble compounds as electron acceptors: the production of electrically conductive _________blank that transfer electrons from the terminal point in the ETC to a metal surface.

9) Desulfuromonaceae and Geobacteraceae are strict anaerobic mesophilic bacteria and have been isolated from anoxic _________blank environments.

10)

The cristae of mitochondria is similar to the_________blank of α-proteobacteria.

11)

Which of the following genera include bacteria with stalks? A) Vibrio B) Campylobacter C) Caulobacter D) Rhizobium

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12) An appendage that is an extension of the bacterial cell wall and plasma membrane is a(n) _________blank. A) flagellum B) prostheca C) pilus D) mycelium

13) An organism that uses methane or methanol as its sole carbon and energy source is called a _________blank. A) methanogen B) methylotroph C) methanotroph D) methylogen

14) Species of the genus Nitrobacter are budding bacteria that attach to solid objects and are _________blank. A) found in marine and freshwater environments B) aerobic chemoheterotrophs C) able to reproduce by budding D) All of the choices are correct.

15)

Which of the following statements is false regarding the characteristics of Rickettsias? A) They use glucose as an energy source. B) They are the cause of Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C) They are obligate intracellular parasites. D) They belong to class Alphaproteobacteria.

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16)

Members of the genus Rhizobium _________blank. A) infect broad-leaved plants and cause crown gall disease B) are free living soil bacteria that fix nitrogen C) grow symbiotically in root nodules of legumes where they fix nitrogen D) are important nitrifying bacteria that convert nitrite to nitrate

17)

The process of conversion of ammonia to nitrate is referred to as _________blank. A) nitrogen fixation B) nitrification C) ammonification D) denitrification

18)

Most of the oligotrophic proteobacteria are found in the _________blank. A) α-proteobacteria B) β-proteobacteria C) γ-proteobacteria D) δ-proteobacteria

19) Which of the following best describes the photosynthetic membranes of the purple nonsulfur bacteria?

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A) The photosynthetic membranes are attached to the plasma membrane but not continuous with it. B) The photosynthetic membranes are not associated with the plasma membrane. C) The photosynthetic membranes are continuous with the plasma membrane. D) There are no photosynthetic membranes in the purple nonsulfur bacteria.

20) Which of the following genera grow symbiotically within root nodules of legumes as nitrogen-fixing bacteroids? A) Agrobacterium B) Rhizobium C) Nitrosomonas D) Bacteroides

21)

Which of the following is true of Agrobacterium tumefaciens? A) It is capable of nitrogen fixation B) It causes crown gall disease when it carries a tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid C) It can enter plants through unbroken leaf tissue D) All of the choices are correct.

22)

The purple nonsulfur bacteria_________blank. A) grow anaerobically as photoorganoheterotrophs B) utilize organic molecules as a source of electrons for photosynthesis C) typically can grow aerobically in the dark as chemoorganoheterotrophs D) All of the choices are correct.

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23)

Species of the genus Thiobacillus _________blank. A) oxidize inorganic sulfur compounds and produce ATP B) produce acids that leach metals out of ore C) are ubiquitous in soil, freshwater, and marine environments D) All of the choices are correct.

24) Burkholderia cepacia and Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be a particular problem with _________blank. A) pneumonia patients B) decay of iron pipes under anaerobic conditions C) myasthenia gravis patients D) cystic fibrosis patients

25)

Members of the genus Neisseria cause which of the following human diseases? A) Gonorrhea B) Syphilis C) Genital herpes D) Diarrhea gastroenteritis

26)

Which of the following is/are true of the sheath of Leptothrix? A) Attaches bacteria to surfaces B) May contain ferric and manganic oxides C) Helps protect against microbial predators D) All of the choices are correct.

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27)

Whooping cough is caused by _________blank. A) Klebsiella pneumoniae B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus C) Bordetella pertussis D) Yersinia pestis

28)

Coxiella burnetii is responsible for _________blank. A) Q-fever B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever C) Lyme disease D) Typhoid fever

29)

Coxiella burnetii reproduces in the_________blank of a eukaryotic host cell. A) cytoplasm B) phagolysosome C) nucleus D) endoplasmic reticulum

30)

Members of the genus Pseudomonas_________blank. A) are aerobes that mineralize a wide variety of organic compounds B) are obligate intracellular parasites C) form cysts when starved for nutrients D) perform anaerobic photosynthesis

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31)

Mineralization refers to_________blank. A) the breakdown of organic materials to inorganic materials B) the release of various minerals from ores C) the utilization of minerals as energy sources D) the incorporation of inorganic material into organic materials

32) Bacteria that naturally exhibit bioluminescence have been found in which of the following genera? A) Vibrio B) Shigella C) Pasteurella D) Pseudomonas

33)

The largest group of proteobacteria are the _________blank. A) α-proteobacteria B) β-proteobacteria C) γ-proteobacteria D) δ-proteobacteria

34)

Which of the following is NOT true about Methylococcus and Methylomonas? A) They are strict anaerobes. B) Most species are capable of forming cysts. C) They contain complex arrays of intracellular membranes when using methane. D) All of the choices are correct.

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35)

Which of the following genera fix nitrogen nonsymbiotically? A) Rhizobium B) Nitrosomonas C) Nitrobacter D) Azotobacter

36)

Members of the genus Salmonella are common causes of _________blank. A) gastroenteritis B) pneumonia C) meningitis D) urinary tract infections

37)

Which of the following organisms causes plague? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Yersinia pestis C) Helicobacter pylori D) Campylobacter jejuni

38)

Beggiatoa are _________blank. A) obligate aerobes B) facultative anaerobes C) microaerophiles D) obligate anaerobes

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39)

The causative agent of cholera in humans is a member of the genus _________blank. A) Escherichia B) Vibrio C) Enterobacter D) Shigella

40)

Methylotrophic bacteria_________blank. A) are strict anaerobes B) use reduced one-carbon compounds as their main source of carbon C) are members of the Archaea based on 16S rRNA sequencing D) produce methane as a by-product of their metabolism

41) A genus in the family Enterobacteriaceae that is a major pathogen of crop plants is _________blank. A) Yersinia B) Erwinia C) Proteus D) Shigella

42) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the purple photosynthetic bacteria photosynthetic apparatus?

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A) Apparatus is straight to decrease surface area and contain reactions B) Performs anoxygenic photosynthesis C) Possesses bacteriochlorophylls a or b D) Apparatus is continuous with the plasma membrane E) Has intracytoplasmic membranes (ICMs) to provide space for photosynthetic units (PSUs)

43)

Which of the following is recognized as a microbe capable of nitrification? A) Nitrosomonas europaea B) Purple nonsulfur bacteria C) Hyphomicrobium spp. D) Red photosynthetic bacteria

44) The use of metals as terminal electron acceptors is/are known as _________blank because the metals are not incorporated into biomass. A) dissimilatory metal reduction B) metallo-neutral C) Fenton reactions D) negative metallic addition

45) The enzyme formate dehydrogenase (FDH) splits formic acid to and and is crucial to survival during fermentation because if fermentive intermediates were allowed to accumulate within the cell, the internal pH would become far too _________blank to support viability. A) acidic B) alkaline C) hypertonic D) hypotonic

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46)

Nitrification and denitrification differ in that_________blank.

A) nitrification oxidizes ammonia into a still-usable form, whereas denitrification oxidizes a usable form of nitrogen into unusable nitrogen gas B) nitrification adds a nitrogen atom to an organic compound, whereas denitrification removes a nitrogen atom from an organic compound C) nitrification oxidizes the nitrate ion into unusable nitrogen gas, whereas denitrification oxidizes ammonia into the nitrite ion D) nitrification produces ammonia whereas denitrification produces the nitrite ion

47) Insoluble iron and manganese can be used as electron acceptors by certain bacteria that are able to_________blank. A) embed cytochromes in their outer membrane rather than the plasma membrane, allowing them to directly transfer electrons to the metal B) dissolve the metals using acids produced as metabolic biproducts C) transfer the electrons from D) convert the insoluble metals into soluble ions by oxidizing them first then taking them into the cytoplasm

48) Which of the following statements is false regarding the characteristics of αproteobacteria? A) Certain species are oxygenic photoheterotrophs B) Certain species are predators C) All of the choices are correct. D) Certain species are anaerobic

49)

Which of the following accumulates sulfur granules inside the cell?

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A) Purple sulfur bacteria B) Green sulfur bacteria C) Cyanobacteria D) None of the choices are correct.

50) Which of these organisms contributes most to the global methane oxidation and greenhouse gas conversion? A) Candidatus B) Chlamydia C) Treponema D) Bacteroides

51)

Which of the following provides a covering for the LOS? A) Polysaccharide capsule B) Protein capsule C) RNA capsule D) Solid capsule

52) Rickettsia species are unable to use glucose as a carbon and energy source, but can use glutamate or succinate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) The stalk of Caulobacter increases in the surface area of the cell, which facilitates absorption of nutrients from nutrient poor environments.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

54) Although discussed with the bacteria, rickettsias are small obligate intracellular parasites and are therefore more properly classified as viruses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) Caulobacter is a genus of bacteria with a unique cell division cycle that yields two morphologically distinct cell types. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) Sheaths of the bacterium Sphaerotilus are tubelike structures that are in intimate contact with the chain of cells that they enclose. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Methylotrophic bacteria generate ATP by oxidizing methane to methanol then to formaldehyde, which is excreted. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58)

Escherichia coli is a good indicator of fecal contamination of water supplies. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

59) The enterobacteria in the order Enterobacteriales are readily distinguishable from one another by morphological criteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Because of the similarity in cellular morphology among the Enterobacteriales, biochemical or genetic tests are needed for identification of particular genera and species. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

Escherichia coli has not been found to be pathogenic in humans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Members of the genus Thiothrix are sheathed bacteria that can replicate by releasing gonidia from the open end of the sheath. ⊚ ⊚

63)

Biochemical tests are no longer very important for the identification of enteric bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

64)

true false

Haemophilus influenzae type b is a causative agent of meningitis in children.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

65) An example of purple photosynthetic bacteria's metabolic flexibility is seen in Rhodospirillum rubrum using a "decision-making" process. When oxygen is present, the bacterium uses fermentation, photoheterotrophy, or photoautotrophy but if oxygen is absent, it switches metabolic pathways to grow chemoorganotrophically. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66) All terrestrial ammonia-oxidizing bacteria are β-proteobacteria, including Nitrosomonas and Nitrosospira in the Nitrosomonadaceae family. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67) One strategy used by dissimilatory metal-reducing bacteria that enable their use of insoluble compounds as electron acceptors is to localize cytochromes in the outer membrane, rather than the plasma membrane. This enables the direct transfer of electrons from cytochromes to the extracellular metal. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) In general, the sulfate-reducing bacteria (SRB) can oxidize carbon substrates such as lactate, formate, butyrate, propionate, pyruvate, or aromatic compounds to acetate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) Because of their environments and physiology, there is great interest in using members of the sulfate-reducing bacteria (SRB) Shewanella and Geobacter in bioremediation or to generate electricity in microbial fuel cells.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Sulfate-reducing bacteria (SRB) are very important in the cycling of sulfur within ecosystems because significant amounts of sulfate are present in almost all aquatic and terrestrial habitats, making SRB widespread and active. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) While methane is produced abiotically in certain geochemically active areas, these sites are also hotspots for aerobic methane oxidation because they are rich in , which microbes convert to sulfuric acid. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72) Rhizobiales use the β-hydroxyaspartate cycle to remove providing an alternative to greenhouse gas . ⊚ ⊚

from the biosphere and

true false

73) The process by which mitochondria are considered to be involved in a major part of cellular evolution is endosymbiosis. ⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

There is a low rate of solute passage due to the cell component make-up. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 17

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 21_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, C] 2) [A, B, C, D] 3) [A, B] 4) phagocytosis 5) bacteroids 6) sheath 7) denitrification 8) nanowires 9) water 10) intracellular matrix 11) C 12) B 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) D 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) B 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) A 35) D 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) B 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE

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CHAPTER 22 – 12e 1) Which of the following characteristics are representative of the bacterium Listeria? (Check all that apply.) A) Listeria is a Gram-positive rod. B) Listeria is a facultative anaerobe. C) Listeria has a catalase enzyme. D) Listeria is nonmotile.

2) The Nocardiaceae bacterium, Rhodococcus, is of considerable interest because of its variety of enzymatic degradation pathways. Which of the following is(are) able to be broken down by Rhodococcus? (Check all that apply.) A) Pesticides B) Petroleum hydrocarbons C) Detergents D) Stainless steel

3) Which of the following is(are) correct regarding Actinoplanete spores? (Check all that apply.) A) Actinoplanete have a rudimentary aerial mycelium. B) Actinoplanete are often colored and pigmented. C) Actinoplanete form spores without the use of a sporangium. D) Actinoplanete spores can be motile via flagellation.

Which of the following suppresses the growth ofClostridioides difficile?

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A) Bile acids B) Endospores C) Peptidoglycan D) Sodium

5) Two classes of Firmicutes have _________blank envelopes related to Gram-negative phyla.

6) Clostridium tetani in deep puncture wounds can cause the disease_________blank in humans.

7) Gene duplications inBacillus subtilis have resulted in a large gene family that encodes_________blank transporters.

8) Pyogenic streptococci usually produce_________blank-hemolysis when cultured on blood agar.

9) Staphylococcus aureus produces the enzyme_________blank, which causes blood plasma to clot.

10)

Bacteria in the genus _________blank are sulfate and sulfite reducers.

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11) Although Firmicutes stain Gram-_________blank , two classes possess a cell wall more closely related to Gram-_________blank bacteria.

12)

Actinoplanetes have extensive_________blank mycelia.

13)

Actinomycete spores are usually formed on_________blank mycelia.

14) A(n)_________blank mycelium is a branching network of fibers on and/or beneath the surface of the agar growth medium.

15) A(n)_________blank mycelium is a branching network of filaments that rises above the agar growth medium.

16) Members of the genus Actinomyces are either facultative or strict anaerobes that require_________blank for optimal growth.

17) Members of the genusMycobacterium are said to be_________blank because basic fuchsin dye cannot be removed even with acid-alcohol treatment.

18) Bacteria can act as probiotic agents, such as species of _________blank added to yogurt, to help impart health effects to the intestinal tract.

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19) Snapping division occurs in bacteria with a two-layered cell wall because only the_________blank layer grows inward to generate a septum.

20) The mycolic acid outer membrane of genusMycobacterium make the cell wall extremely_________blank and impenetrable to many antibiotics.

21) _________blank are bacteria characterized by the absence of cell walls, their small genomes, and simplified metabolic pathways.

22) Ureaplasma conserves energy and compensates for an absent electron transport chain by creating chemiosmotic energy gradients and ATP from the breakdown of _________blank into ammonia/ammonium.

23) Some Mycoplasmas, such as M. mobile, can move at a steady pace across a solid surface by using _________blank.

24)

Which of the following genera is photosynthetic using bacteriochlorophyllg? A) Heliobacterium B) Veillonella C) Clostridium D) Caryophanon

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25)

The photosynthetic pigments ofHeliobacterium andHeliophilum _________blank. A) are in separate membrane structures attached to the plasma membrane B) are in separate membrane structures that are not attached to the plasma membrane C) are in the plasma membrane and not in separate structures D) are in separate structures and also in the plasma membrane

26) Members of the genusVeillonella are part of the normal microflora of the_________blank. A) sweat glands and hair follicles B) stomach C) upper and lower respiratory tract D) mouth

27)

ATP can be produced via the Stickland reaction by _________blank. A) Bacillus B) Clostridium C) Epulopiscium D) Desulfotomaculum

28)

Which of the following is responsible for causing tetanus? A) Clostridium perfringens B) Clostridium botulinum C) Clostridium acetobutylicum D) Clostridium tetani

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29)

Which of the following is not normally considered a pathogenic species of Clostridium? A) C. acetobutylicum B) C. botulinum C) C. perfringens D) C. tetani

30)

Clostridium causes which of the following? A) Botulism B) Pneumonia C) Fire blight disease of pears D) Tuberculosis

31) Although lacking a TCA cycle and a respiratory chain,_________blank can divide with a generation time of eight to ten minutes when growing in a human host. A) Streptococcus B) Staphylococcus C) Clostridium D) Helicobacter

32)

Members of the genus Staphylococcus are normally associated with _________blank. A) skin B) skin glands C) mucous membranes D) All of the choices are correct.

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33)

Abscesses and boils are often associated with _________blank. A) Streptococcus mutans B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Lactococcus lactis D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

34)

Thermoactinomyces vulgaris is the causative agent for _________blank. A) cystic fibrosis B) farmer's lung disease C) primary atypical pneumonia D) vaginitis

35)

The Lancefield grouping system_________blank.

A) depends on serological detection of polysaccharide and teichoic acid antigens B) is used to identify β-hemolytic streptococci C) is based on a DNA fingerprinting assay specific for streptococci D) depends on serological detection of polysaccharide and teichoic acid antigens and is used to identify β -hemolytic streptococci

36)

Members of the genusThermoactinomyces_________blank. A) produce spores on its hyphae B) are commonly found in damp haystacks and compost piles C) are thermophiles D) All of the choices are correct.

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37)

Which of the following antibiotics are produced by members of the genus Bacillus? A) Bacitracin B) Gramicidin C) Polymyxin D) All of the choices are correct.

38)

Lactobacillus grows optimally at_________blank pH. A) slightly acidic B) neutral C) slightly alkaline D) very acidic

39)

Which of the following genera produce numerous useful antibiotics? A) Bacillus B) Clostridium C) Leuconostoc D) Helicobacterium

40)

Members of the genus Leuconostoc are important in the production of _________blank. A) pickles B) sauerkraut C) cheese D) All of the choices are correct.

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41)

Which of the following is pyogenic (pus forming)? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Streptococcus mutans C) Streptococcus fecaelis D) Lactococcus lactis

42)

The largest genus in the orderLactobacillales is_________blank with around 100 species. A) Lactobacillus B) Leuconostoc C) Streptococcus D) Listeria

43)

Listeria monocytogenes causes listeriosis, an important _________blank. A) water-borne infection B) insect-borne infection C) air-borne infection D) food-borne infection

44)

Streptococcal pharyngitis, commonly called "strep throat," is caused by _________blank. A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Streptococcus mutans C) Streptococcus trachius D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

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45)

Enterococcus faecalis has been associated with _________blank. A) endocarditis B) abscesses C) diarrhea D) sinus infection

46)

Which of the following is not one of the groups of streptococci? A) Pyogenic streptococci B) Oral streptococci C) Dermal streptococci D) None of the choices are correct.

47)

Which of the following is NOT true of the genus Lactobacillus?

A) They are used in the production of fermented vegetable foods, beverages, sour dough, hard cheeses, yogurt, and sausages. B) They are responsible for spoilage of beer, milk, and meat. C) Many species are pathogenic in humans and animals. D) They do not produce endospores.

48)

Members of the genusLactobacillus_________blank. A) grow optimally under slightly alkaline conditions B) are normal flora of the human body in the mouth, intestinal tract, and vagina C) are strict aerobes D) produce large amounts of as a byproduct of metabolism when growing on glucose

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49) Which of the following members of the genus Bacillus is currently used as a biological insecticide? A) B. cereus B) B. subtilis C) B. anthracis D) B. thuringiensis

50) Endospore-forming Gram-positive bacteria are found primarily in _________blank habitats. A) soil B) freshwater C) marine D) All of the choices are correct.

51)

Which of the following is used in the production of buttermilk and cheese? A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Streptococcus mutans C) Enterococcus faecalis D) Lactococcus lactis

52)

Which of the following will grow in broth with 6.5% salt?

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A) Streptococcus mutans B) Enterococcus faecalis C) Lactococcus lactis D) All of the choices are correct.

53)

Which of the following is associated with dental caries? A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Streptococcus mutans C) Enterococcus faecalis D) Lactococcus lactis

54) Some species of Streptococcus, when grown on blood agar, produce a complete hemolysis with the formation of a clear zone around the colony; this is referred to as _________blank. A) alpha-hemolysis B) beta-hemolysis C) gamma-hemolysis D) None of the choices are correct.

55) Some species of Streptococcus, when grown on blood agar, produce an incomplete hemolysis with the formation of a greenish zone around the colony; this is referred to as _________blank. A) alpha-hemolysis B) beta-hemolysis C) gamma-hemolysis D) None of the choices are correct.

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56)

Members of the genusStreptococcus carry out_________blank fermentation. A) butanediol B) heterolactic C) homolactic D) mixed acid

57)

Which of the following is a normal skin resident? A) Staphylococcus epidermidis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus mutans D) Clostridium perfringens

58)

The organisms that causes toxic shock syndrome is _________blank. A) Staphylococcus epidermidis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Lactococcus lactis D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

59)

Which of the following is true of the actinomycetes? A) They divide by budding B) They closely resemble fungi in morphology C) Some are photosynthetic D) They are unique among prokaryotes in producing sexual spores

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60)

Actinomycetes form_________blank. A) substrate mycelia and aerial mycelia B) heat-resistant endospores C) prostheca with holdfasts D) a sheath made of polysaccharides and proteins

61) The medically useful compounds some actinomycetes produce when forming aerial mycelia are called _________blank. A) antimetabolites B) primary metabolites C) secondary metabolites D) inhibitory metabolites

62)

Actinomycetes_________blank. A) form asexual spores B) form sexual spores that are used for sexual reproduction C) form heat-resistant spores D) do not form spores

63)

Which of the following is true about actinomycete spores? A) They are heat resistant. B) They withstand desiccation well. C) They are true bacterial endospores. D) They are all motile due to the presence of a flagellum.

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64)

Actinomycete spores formed within a special structure are called _________blank. A) endospores B) conidiospores C) sporangiospores D) myxospores

65) The special structure in which some actinomycetes form their spores is called a _________blank. A) sporangium B) conidium C) sporatorium D) basidium

66)

Which of the following can be used to help classify actinomycetes? A) Cell wall composition B) Percent G + C content C) Phospholipid composition of the membrane D) All of these can be used to classify actinomycetes.

67)

Actinomycetes are usually found in_________blank habitats. A) soil B) freshwater C) marine D) medical

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68)

The genusArthrobacter_________blank.

A) is a significant component of the microbial flora of soil B) plays an important role in the degradation of some herbicides and pesticides C) forms heat-resistant endospores D) is a significant component of the microbial flora of soil and plays an important role in the degradation of some herbicides and pesticides

69)

Members of the genus Micrococcus are usually _________blank. A) aerobic B) anaerobic C) facultatively anaerobic D) microaerophilic

70)

Members of the genus Micrococcus usually exist as _________blank. A) pairs B) tetrads C) irregular clusters D) All of the choices are correct.

71)

Species of the genusCorynebacterium_________blank. A) form helical-shaped cells B) sometimes divide to form characteristic club-shaped cells C) are harmless saprophytes D) form elongated rod-shaped cells

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72)

Nocardia are typically found in which of the following environments? A) Soil B) Intestinal tract of warm-blooded animals C) Geothermally heated springs D) Root nodules of some higher plants

73)

Members of the genus Mycobacterium cause which of the following diseases in humans? A) Tuberculosis and Leprosy B) Abscesses C) Diphtheria D) Meningitis

74)

Diphtheria is caused by a member of which of the following genera? A) Mycobacterium B) Corynebacterium C) Propionibacterium D) Nocardia

75)

The genus Mycobacterium _________blank.

A) are strict anaerobes and catalase positive B) have cell walls similar to Gram-negative bacteria C) stain acid-fast D) are strict anaerobes and catalase positive and have cell walls similar to Gram-negative bacteria

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76)

The actinoplanetes can be found in_________blank habitats. A) soil B) freshwater C) marine D) All of the choices are correct.

77)

Which of the following antibiotics is/are produced by actinoplanetes? A) Nalidixic acid B) Gentamicin C) Cycloserine D) Penicillin

78)

Which of the following is correct about members of the genus Propionibacterium? A) They are used in the production of Swiss cheese. B) They cause acne vulgaris and contribute to the development of body odor. C) They are typically found growing on the skin and in the digestive tract of animals. D) All of the choices are correct.

79)

The spores of streptomycetes are_________blank. A) motile by means of flagella B) motile by means of cilia C) motile by means of pseudopodia D) nonmotile

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80) The streptomycetes form spores by division of the cells of the aerial mycelia in_________blank. A) a single division plane B) two division planes simultaneously C) two division planes consecutively D) multiple division planes

81)

Members of the genus Thermoactinomyces _________blank. A) produce single spores on their mycelia B) spores can form on either aerial or substrate mycelia C) can be isolated in compost piles and hay D) All of the choices are correct.

82)

The genusFrankia_________blank. A) grows in symbiotic association with the roots of some higher plants and fixes nitrogen B) produces heat-resistant endospores C) is strictly a marine bacterium D) produces heat-resistant endospores and is strictly a marine bacterium

83)

Species of the genusLactobacillus_________blank. A) are important normal vaginal flora B) are motile spore-forming cocci C) are normal flora found on the skin of humans D) All of the choices are correct.

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84) Overgrowth of the skin bacterium Proprionibacterium acnes may lead to _________blank. A) body odor B) bloodstream infection C) warts D) rash

85)

Which of the following antibiotics is produced by bacteria in the genus Streptomycetes? A) Vancomycin B) Tetracycline C) Chloramphenicol D) All of the choices are correct.

86)

Which of the following bacteria is both photosynthetic and Gram-positive? A) Purple bacteria B) Green bacteria C) Heliobacteria D) Cyanobacteria E) None of the choices are correct.

87) Which of the following is NOT a reaction pathway involved in the catabolism of arginine to generate ATP? 88) In the catabolism of arginine to generate ATP in mycoplasmas, the first reaction is catalyzed by _________blank.

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A) arginine deaminase B) ATP synthetase C) Embden-Meyerhof pathways D) pentose phosphate pathways

89) Specialized cell surface proteins on the neck of Mycoplasma mobile allow for _________blank. A) gliding motility B) flagellar motility C) "inchworm" motility D) "rolling" motility

90)

Which of the following organ systems is affected byClostridioides difficile? A) Respiratory B) Digestive C) Urinary D) Nervous

91) Which of the following classes within the phylum Firmicutes is thought to have lost the ability to synthesize the outer envelope? A) Bacilli B) Clostridia C) Heliobacter D) Halanaerobiia

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92) Recent studies have shown that some Clostridia species have peptidoglycan between an inner and outer membrane, and were therefore properly reclassed as Gram-negative because of their unrelatedness. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) The genus Veillonella is unusual because it grows well on organic acids such as lactate and pyruvate, but is normally unable to ferment glucose and other carbohydrates. ⊚ ⊚

94)

true false

Members of the genus Clostridium are spore-forming and aerobic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Desulfotomaculum are Gram-positive but stain Gram-negative because their cell walls have a lower than normal concentration of peptidoglycan. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Many bacteria that were originally classified in the genus Streptococcus are now placed into two new genera, Enterococcus and Lactococcus. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97)

Members of the genus Bacillus are spore-forming, aerobic, and catalase positive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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98) Lactobacilli are alkalophilic, preferring conditions that are slightly alkaline for optimal growth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Leuconostoc species have the ability to grow in high concentrations of sugar, making them a major problem in sugar refineries during the production of heavy syrup. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) When they ferment glucose, members of the genus Streptococcus produce lactic acid, but no gas. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) Species of Veillonella are always parasites of warm-blooded animals and are never found as part of the normal biota. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) Terminal electron acceptors used by Desulfitobacteriia include sulfate and sulfite, converted to hydrogen sulfide. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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103) It has been determined from several human disease samples that bacteria exist that are 16S rRNA sequenced to be Gram-positive, but morphologically double-membraned like Gramnegatives, therefore requiring a new class. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104) Bacillus species are facultative anaerobes that can use nitrate as a terminal electron acceptor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

105) Staphylococcus respire using oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor, although some can reduce nitrate to nitrite. ⊚ true ⊚ false

106)

Actinomycetes are Gram-positive, spore-forming bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

107)

Septa divide the actinomycete mycelia into cells, each containing a single nucleoid. ⊚ ⊚

108)

true false

The sexual spores of actinomycetes are called sporangiospores. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

109) Although the actinomycetes are generally nonmotile, the spores may be flagellated and, therefore, motile. ⊚ ⊚

110)

true false

Although actinomycetes vary in many ways, they all share a common type of cell wall. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) A distinguishing characteristic of actinomycetes that can be used to classify these organisms is the types of sugars found in extracts of the organisms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Streptomycetes degrade a variety of organic compounds and are, therefore, important in mineralization processes in the environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) Features considered taxonomically important to the actinomycetes include morphology, peptidoglycan composition and structure, and color of mycelia and sporangia. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

114)

Actinomycetes produce many of the antibiotics we use in medicine. ⊚ ⊚

115)

true false

Septa divide the actinomycete mycelia into long cells each containing several nucleoids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Although the spores of actinomycetes are not as heat resistant as endospores, the extent of heat resistance they demonstrate can be used to help classify these organisms. ⊚ ⊚

117)

true false

The streptomycetes are capable of degrading a wide variety of organic compounds. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) Members of the genus Actinomyces are either straight or slightly curved rods, or slender filaments with true branching. ⊚ ⊚

true false

119) Members of the genus Micrococcus are frequently pigmented and may grow in yellow, red, or orange colonies. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

120) The genus Arthrobacter has a distinctive growth cycle in which branched rod-shaped bacteria are produced in the exponential phase, and cocci are found in stationary phase cultures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) Some of the high G + C Gram-positive bacteria such as Arthrobacter divide by means of snapping division. ⊚ true ⊚ false

122)

None of the nocardioform actinomycetes are pathogenic to humans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) Actinoplanetes that dwell in the soil play an important role in plant and animal decomposition. ⊚ ⊚

124)

Nocardia cause biodeterioration of rubber joints in water and sewer pipes. ⊚ ⊚

125)

true false

Most actinoplanetes are found in marine habitats.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

126) A few species of actinomycetes have been found to be pathogenic in humans, other animals, and plants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

127) Of the nearly 150 species in the genus Streptomyces, onlyS. sudanensis and S. somaliensis are known to be pathogenic in humans. ⊚ ⊚

128)

The streptomycetes form spores on their substrate mycelia. ⊚ ⊚

129)

true false

Bifidobacterium bifidum is a major pathogen in breast-fed babies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) Nitrogen fixation by Frankia bacteria is efficient enough to allow alder trees to grow in the absence of combined nitrogen. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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131)

Bifidobacteriales are best characterized as Gram-positive, motile, spore-forming rods. ⊚ true ⊚ false

132) The most common terminal electron acceptor forStaphylococcus species is carbon dioxide. ⊚ ⊚

true false

133) Order Mycoplasmatales includes all bacteria that lack walls and do not synthesize peptidoglycan precursors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

134) Ureaplasma urealyticum generates an electrochemical gradient, despite the absence of an electron transport chain, by synthesizing urea from ammonia/ammonium to generate chemiosmotic potentials. ⊚ true ⊚ false

135) Mycoplasmas are able to colonize mucous membranes and can lead to pneumonia and respiratory tract disease. ⊚ true ⊚ false

136) Some Mycoplasma species can be transmitted via sexual contact and lead to genitourinary tract infections in humans. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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137) The genusT. vulgaris was found after 7,500 years of dormancy and was able to proliferate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

138) Taking into account the vast differences in cell envelope structures, it appears that endospore formation may have been an evolutionary adaptation within the phylum of Firmicutes. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 22_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, C] 2) [A, B, C] 3) [A, B, D] 4) [A] 5) diderm 6) tetanus 7) ABC 8) beta 9) coagulase 10) Desulfotomaculum 11) [positive, negative] 12) substrate 13) aerial 14) substrate 15) aerial 16) carbon dioxide 17) acid fast 18) Bifidobacterium 19) inner 20) hydrophobic 21) Mycoplasmas 22) urea 23) gliding motility 24) A 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) D 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) D 44) A 45) A 46) C 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) B 54) B 55) A 56) C Version 1

57) A 58) B 59) B 60) A 61) C 62) A 63) B 64) C 65) A 66) D 67) A 68) D 69) A 70) D 71) B 72) A 73) A 74) B 75) C 76) D 77) B 78) D 79) D 80) A 81) D 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) D 86) C Version 1

87) A 88) A 89) A 90) B 91) D 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) FALSE 109) TRUE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE Version 1

117) TRUE 118) TRUE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE 122) FALSE 123) TRUE 124) TRUE 125) FALSE 126) TRUE 127) TRUE 128) FALSE 129) FALSE 130) TRUE 131) FALSE 132) FALSE 133) TRUE 134) FALSE 135) TRUE 136) TRUE 137) TRUE 138) TRUE

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CHAPTER 23 – 12e 1)

Select the disease(s) caused by trypanosomes. A) Chagas' disease B) Trichomoniasis C) Giardiasis D) Leishmaniasis E) African sleeping sickness

What is/are the role(s) of clia in a ciliate? (Check all that apply.) A) Assist with cell fusion in sexual reproduction B) Move the organism through a liquid environment C) Direct food particles toward the cytostome D) Adhere to surfaces

Select the disease(s) that is(are) caused by apicomplexans. A) Malaria B) Trypanosomiasis C) Cryptosporidiosis D) Lyme disease E) Giardiasis

Which of the following are characteristics of mitosomes? (Check all that apply.) A) Mitosomes are involved in energy production. B) Mitosomes help produce FeS proteins. C) Mitosomes are bound by two membranes. D) Mitosomes are not evolutionarily linked to mitochondria.

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Check all of the following processes associated with the massive blooms ofE. huxleyi. A) Alteration of nutrient fluxation B) Release of DMS to the atmosphere C) Dehydration of the surrounding environment D) Enlarged growth of clouds

6) Pigment is contained in an eyespot or_________blank that helps certain organisms orient to light.

Acellular slime molds form a large multinucleate mass called a(n)_________blank.

Protist cells that produce gametes for sexual reproduction are called_________blank.

9) _________blank from foraminifera make up the White Cliffs of Dover and the stones used to build the great pyramids.

10)

_________blank produce 40 to 50% of the organic carbon in the ocean.

11)

Both Chagas’ disease and African sleeping sickness are _________blank-borne diseases.

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12) Some amoebae have a covering over their plasma membrane. These amoebae are referred to as _________blank amoebae.

13) The stramenopiles are an extremely diverse group of organisms which would appear to have very little in common with one another. The one unifying feature in this group is the presence of _________blank at some point in the life cycle.

14) A patient in the United States complains of severe diarrhea after drinking water on a camping trip. This patient has most likely consumed_________blank.

15) A(n)_________blank is evolutionary structure that allows for motility in coccolithophores.

16) The simultaneous use of both organic and inorganic forms of carbon is called _________blank. A) osmotrophy B) omnitrophy C) mixotrophy D) metatrophy

17) When protists feed on solid nutrients such as bacteria by phagocytosis, they are said to be using_________blank nutrition.

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A) saprozoic B) holozoic C) endozoic D) parasitic

18)

All photosynthetic protists_________blank. A) carry out oxygenic photosynthesis using two photosystems B) carry out oxygenic photosynthesis using one photosystem C) carry out anoxygenic photosynthesis using two photosystems D) carry out anoxygenic photosynthesis using one photosystem

19)

The study of algae is referred to as_________blank. A) phycology B) phytology C) mycology D) None of the choices are correct.

20)

Which of the following statements is NOT true of protists? A) Moisture is absolutely essential to their existence. B) Most are free-living. C) They make up a substantial fraction of the marine plankton. D) They are not known to cause diseases of humans.

21)

Which of the following characteristics is rare among protists?

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A) Motility B) Multicellular C) Eukaryotic D) None of these characteristics are rare among protists.

22)

The pellicle of aEuglena cell consists of_________blank. A) glycoproteins B) polysaccharides C) peptidoglycans D) protein strips and microtubules

23) The cellulase-excreting protist that can account for up to one-third of the biomass of a termite is a member of the genus_________blank. A) Hexamida B) Trichomonas C) Trichonympha D) Euglena

24)

A typical Euglena cell is elongated and bounded by a_________blank. A) protuberance B) pellicle C) cytoproct D) plasmalemma

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25) Which of the following is found in the intestine of termites and produces enzymes needed to digest wood particles? A) Giardia B) Trichomonas C) Trichonympha D) Nyctotherus

26) Which of the following is a unique organelle found within some protists but not in higher animal cells? A) Mitochondrion B) Contractile vacuole C) Golgi apparatus D) Endoplasmic reticulum

27)

The most common method of asexual reproduction in protists is_________blank. A) budding B) cytokinesis C) fission D) fragmentation

28)

Some anaerobic protists obtain energy using_________blank. A) mitochondria B) cytochromes C) hydrogenosomes D) All of the choices are correct.

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29) Sexual reproduction in the cellular slime mold Dictyostelium discoideum involves the production of special spores called _________blank. A) amoeba flagellates B) macrocysts C) sporozoites D) discoidia

30)

Which of the following is NOT a type of pseudopod found in protozoa? A) Lobopodia B) Peripodia C) Reticulopodia D) Filopodia

31)

A cyst formed by a protist functions_________blank.

A) as a protective mechanism against adverse changes in the environment B) in repair of damage to the cell envelope C) in transfer from one host to the next D) as a protective mechanism against adverse changes in the environment and in transfer from one host to the next

32)

Foraminifera are a type of protist that_________blank.

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A) help in estimating the age of ocean deposits B) move by means of flagella C) cause malaria D) are associated with human disease

33) Filopodia supported by microtubules that are used primarily in feeding are called _________blank. A) lobopodia B) reticulopodia C) axopodia D) micropodia

34)

Most radiolaria have an internal skeleton made of_________blank. A) microtubules B) glycoproteins C) cellulose D) siliceous material

35) The Stramenopila are a very large and diverse group that all possess_________blank at some point in their life cycle. A) a macronucleus B) chloroplasts C) an exoskeleton D) heterokont flagella

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36) Some ciliophora can discharge toxic threadlike darts called _________blank, which are used in capturing prey. A) spikes B) spicules C) toxicysts D) toxipodia

37) A protist with two flagella where one is wrapped around a transverse groove and the other is draped in a longitudinal groove would be a member of which group? A) Ciliophora B) Dinoflagellate C) Trypanosome D) Oomycete

38) Apicomplexan organisms such as Plasmodium possess a motile, infective stage called the _________blank. A) sporozoite B) trophozoite C) apizoite D) None of the choices are correct.

39)

Which of the following groups is responsible for toxic red tides? A) Dinoflagellates B) Diatoms C) Trypanosomes D) Foraminifera

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40)

Diatoms_________blank. A) are photosynthetic with frustules composed of two halves B) can reproduce asexually C) are motile by virtue of having flagella D) are photosynthetic with frustules composed of two halves and can reproduce asexually

41) Those dinoflagellates that live in an intimate association with corals are called_________blank. A) zooxanthellae B) parasites C) lichens D) phytoplankton

42) In labyrinthulids, the nonflagellated stage of the life cycle features spindle-shaped cells that form complex colonies that glide rapidly along an_________blank net made by the organism. A) ectoplasmic B) endoplasmic C) protoplasmic D) pellicular

43) Ciliate sexual reproduction by conjugation differs from sexual reproduction in most animals in that_________blank.

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A) both parents are converted into zygotes B) meiosis occurs in both partners C) cell fusion occurs during fertilization D) the zygotic nucleus is diploid

44)

Which of the following ciliates produces the disease "ick" in fish? A) Entodinium B) Nyctotherus C) Ichthyophthirius D) Balantidium

45)

Which of the following apicomplexan genera cause coccidiosis in chickens? A) Pneumocystis B) Eimeria C) Plasmodium D) Toxoplasma

46)

The apical complex in the apicomplexans_________blank. A) is located at one end of the cell B) aids in penetration of host cells C) contains mitochondria D) is located at one end of the cell and aids in penetration of host cells

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47) If plants originated from an organism like Chlamydomonas, then the origin of plants involved the loss of_________blank. A) chloroplasts B) microtubules C) cell walls D) flagella

48)

Which of the following is NOT true of Chloroplastida (green algae)? A) Their cell walls contain chitin. B) They are found in fresh and salt water. C) They have chlorophyllsa andb. D) They store carbohydrates as starch.

49) Upon ingestion of a food particle by a protozoan, the food particle is in a(n) _________blank. A) lysosome B) mitochondrion C) phagocytic vacuole D) endoplasmic reticulum

50) After ingestion of a food particle, pH changes and enzymes contributed by the _________blank will digest and hydrolyze the ingested particle in the phagocytic vacuole. A) mitochondria B) lysosome C) plasma membrane D) endoplasmic reticulum

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51)

Which of the following would inhibit binary fission in protists, but not in bacteria? A) Blocking DNA replication B) Blocking RNA synthesis C) Blocking spindle function D) Blocking ribosome function

52) Sexual reproduction in protists involves diverse strategies. Which of the following is common to all types of sexual reproduction in protists? A) Syngamy B) Isogamy C) Heterogamy D) Anisogamy E) Conjugation

53) Which of the following statements best describes the difference between mitosomes and mitochondria? A) Mitosomes have one membrane whereas mitochondria have a double membrane. B) Mitosomes are not involved in ATP production. C) Mitosomes are much larger than mitochondria. D) Mitosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that help the protozoan digest food particles.

54) In which of the following locations would you be most likely to find a species of Euglena?

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A) Rumen of a dairy cow B) Intestine of humans C) Pond D) Garden soil

55) If a population of termites were treated with a chemical that destroyed all of the trichonymphids living in their gut, what would be the most likely consequence? A) The individual termites would grow to be much larger. B) The termites would die because they would not be able to digest cellulose in wood. C) The termites would be able reproduce more rapidly and their population would expand. D) The termites would turn to alternative sources of nutrients.

56) Trichomoniasis in humans is caused by a member of the _________blank group of protists. A) Haptista B) Metamonada C) Archaeplastida D) Amoebozoa

57) You’re describing a newly discovered protozoa that has long filamentous pseudopods. Which term best fits these pseudopods? A) Lobopods B) Hyphopods C) Reticulopods D) Filopods

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58)

What is the most likely role of the tests in a testate amoeba? A) Provide motility B) Concentrate nutrients C) Provide protection D) Enable adherence to surfaces

59)

What conditions result in the release of cAMP from Dictyostelium discoideum? A) Abundance of nutrients B) Adequate moisture C) Shortage of nutrients D) Presence of predatory bacteria

60)

What are the results of the release of cAMP from Dictyostelium discoideum?

A) The cells develop flagella. B) The cells form cysts until the growing conditions improve. C) The larger cells cannibalize the smaller, less developed cells. D) The cells aggregate, forming a large motile multicellular slug that serves as a precursor to the development of a fruiting body.

61)

Which would be the--- most likely location to find a slime mold? A) Swiftly running stream B) Animal gastrointestinal tract C) Pond D) Rotting log

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62)

Filopodia that are supported by microtubules are known as _________blank. A) axopodia B) lophopodia C) micropodia D) reticulopodia E) tubulopodia

63)

Which statement about the macronucleus and the micronucleus of ciliates is correct?

A) The micronucleus transmits genetic information through mitosis and meiosis, while the macronucleus maintains routine cellular functions. B) The macronucleus is diploid and the micronucleus is haploid. C) The micronucleus is formed by fission of the macronucleus. D) The macronucleus forms by the fusion of micronuclei from two different mating types.

64)

What is the role of the apical complex in apicomplexans? A) The apical complex is a motility structure that enables cell movement. B) The apical complex enables the apicomplexan to penetrate and bore into a host cell. C) The apical complex is a feeding structure through which small food particles are taken

in. D) The apical complex is a defensive structure that is used to destroy bacteria.

65) All of the following are true statements about events that occur in the apicomplexan life cycle EXCEPT _________blank.

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A) the life cycles include both sexual and asexual stages B) the sporozoite is the motile infective stage C) often two completely different organisms host different stages of the life cycle D) the haploid and diploid generations alternate E) There is no exception here. All of these statements are true.

66) What is the most likely reason the peronsporomycetes were originally thought to be fungi? A) Macroscopic appearance of fuzzy growth B) Cell wall composition C) Yeast like cellular morphology D) Life cycle similar to that of many fungi

67)

Which of the following morphologies are seen among the Chloroplastida? A) Filamentous B) Unicellular C) Colonial D) Sheet-like E) All of the choices are correct.

68)

All of these statements about Chlamydomonas are true EXCEPT _________blank. A) Chlamydomonas only reproduces asexually B) Chlamydomonas has two flagella C) each motile Chlamydomonas cell has a single haploid nucleus D) Chlamydomonas is photoautotrophic

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69)

Contractile vacuoles maintain osmotic balance by_________blank. A) expelling water from the cell B) drawing water into the cell C) filtering ions D) sensing surrounding moisture levels

70)

Which of the following Metamonoda members have hydrogenosomes? A) Trichomonadida B) Trichonymphida C) Giardia D) Euglenozoa

71) Which of the following characteristics best distinguishes dinoflagellates from the other Alveolata? A) All dinoflagellates have two distinctively placed flagella. B) All dinoflagellates are photoautotrophic. C) All dinoflagellates are free-living. D) All dinoflagellates have a macronucleus and micronucleus.

72)

Which of the following is a unique feature associated specifically with coccolithophores? A) Calcite scales B) Formite scales C) Sulfide scales D) Phosphate scales

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73) Trypanosomes that cause disease in humans escape destruction by the human immune system because they are resistant to phagocytosis. ⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

Unlike Giardia, most members of Metamonada are harmless symbionts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Recent evidence suggests that hydrogenosomes and mitochondria evolved from different endosymbiotically derived organelles. ⊚ ⊚

76)

Euglena use a contractile vacuole for osmotic regulation. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

Diatoms have a distinctive two-piece cell wall of silica called a frustule. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) Species of dinoflagellates are responsible for much of the phosphorescence seen in ocean waters at night.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Protothecosis is an infection of humans or animals that is caused by a chlorophyte (green algae). ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Chloroplastida (green algae) include a wide diversity of forms ranging from unicellular to colonial individuals. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

Axopodia of Rhizaria are used for feeding rather than for motility. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82) While members ofTubulinea are normally found in marine or freshwater environments, they can also be found in ventilation ducts where they feed on bacterial biofilms. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

AllEntamoeba are harmful to their hosts. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

84) The amount of carbon available for use on Earth is influenced by the metabolic processes of coccolithophores and forams. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 23_12e_Willey 1) [A, D, E] 2) [B, C] 3) [A, C] 4) [B, C] 5) [A, B, D] 6) stigma 7) plasmodium 8) gamonts 9) Tests 10) Diatoms 11) vector 12) testate 13) heterokont flagella 14) Giardia intestinalis 15) haptonema 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) B 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) B Version 1

57) D 58) C 59) C 60) D 61) D 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) E 66) A 67) E 68) A 69) A 70) C 71) A 72) A 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE

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CHAPTER 24 – 12e 1) Which of the following human diseases can be caused by microsporidia? (Check all that apply.) A) Diarrhea B) Nephritis C) Contact dermatitis D) Pneumonia E) Encephalitis

2) Most fungi secure their nutrients from dead organic matter and are therefore called_________blank.

3) When infecting host plants, Glomeromycetes form specialized flat hyphae called _________blank that enable penetration and subsequent reproduction within the host.

4) The ustilaginomycete Ustilago maydis is_________blank; plant-associated fungi grow in the_________blank form but are yeastlike in the external environment.

5) Edible truffles are in the fungal group termed_________blank, while edible mushrooms are in the fungal group termed_________blank.

The_________blank are fungi that lack mitochondria, peroxisomes, and centrioles.

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7) Microsporidia have a unique organelle, the _________blank that is used to invade the host cell.

8) Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis infects the skin of amphibians and leads to their death by blocking_________blank.

9) The small basidia that form during aUstilago maydis infection in corn trigger the plant to form_________blank.

10)

Fungi are found primarily in which of the following environments? A) Marine B) Freshwater C) Terrestrial D) Arboreal

11)

Fungi can form functional associations with which of the following? A) Plant roots B) Phototrophic microbes C) Animals D) Plant roots and phototrophic microbes

12)

Diseases in animals caused by fungi are called _________blank.

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A) funguses B) mycoses C) dictyoses D) cystoses

13)

The primary ecological function of fungi is that of _________blank. A) producer B) consumer C) pathogen D) decomposer

14)

Fungi digest macromolecules by _________blank. A) phagocytosis B) intracellular digestion C) extracellular enzyme activity D) active transport

15)

Which of the following is not true about yeast? A) Yeast contain two or more nuclei. B) Yeast reproduce either asexually by budding or sexually through spore formation. C) Yeast are larger than most bacteria. D) Yeast possess eukaryotic organelles.

16)

Fungi_________blank.

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A) are eukaryotic organisms B) produce chlorophyll under aerobic conditions C) are prokaryotes or eukaryotes, depending on the species D) produce chlorophyll under aerobic conditions and are prokaryotes or eukaryotes, depending on the species

17)

Fungi_________blank. A) absorb nutrients from the environment B) take in food by phagocytosis C) generate ATP and reducing equivalents by photosynthesis D) All of the choices are correct.

18)

Features that are useful for identification of fungal species include_________blank. A) presence of a membrane bound nucleus B) ability to produce chlorophyll a C) size, shape color, and number of spores D) All of the choices are correct.

19)

The tangled mass or tissue-like aggregation in a mold is called a _________blank. A) hyphae B) hypha C) mycelium D) thallus

20)

The common bread mold Rhizopus stolonifer belongs to the _________blank.

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A) Zygomycota B) Ascomycota C) Basidiomycota D) Glomeromycota

21) The toxin that allows Rhizopus to cause the rice disease known as seedling blight is actually produced by_________blank growing within the fungus. A) Staphylococcus B) Burkholderia C) Clostridium D) Staphylococcus or Burkholderia, but not Clostridium E) None of the choices are correct.

22)

Zygomycetes live on _________blank. A) bread B) organic matter in the soil C) fruits and vegetables D) All of the choices are correct.

23)

Which of the following is not found among the zygomycetes? A) Saprophytic nutrition B) Nonseptate hyphae C) Flagellated cells D) Fusion of gametes

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24) The_________blank are of critical ecological importance because most are endomycorrhizal symbionts of vascular plants. A) Glomeromycotina B) Basidiomycotina C) Deuteromycotina D) Zygomycotina

25) The _________blank of the glomeromycetes do not penetrate host root cells; instead, the fungal hyphae grow between and around cells. A) arbuscular mycorrhizal hyphae B) progametangia hyphae C) ectomycorrhizal hyphae D) stolon hyphae

26) Asexual reproduction is common in the filamentous ascomycetes and is associated with the production of _________blank. A) basidia B) conidia C) ascospores D) zoospores

27) The sac fungi are distinguished from all other groups of fungi because their reproductive structures are _________blank. A) inside an ascus B) borne on basidia C) zygospores D) motile

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28)

The fungus used in the production of saki and soy sauce is _________blank. A) Aspergillus oryzae B) Aspergillus fumigatus C) Aspergillus nidulans D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

29)

Asexual spores such as conidia develop by the process of _________blank. A) meiosis B) mitosis C) parthenogenesis D) fission

30)

The hallucinogen LSD is a product of _________blank. A) yeasts B) zygomycetes C) ascomycetes D) basidiomycetes

31)

Which of the following yeasts is not pathogenic to humans? A) Saccharomyces B) Candida C) Cryptococcus D) Saccharomyces and Cryptococcus

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32) The ascomycetes are named for their characteristic reproductive structure called a(n) _________blank. A) hypha B) ascus C) thallus D) ascocarp

33)

Asexual reproduction in fungi can be accomplished by_________blank. A) binary fission B) hyphal fragmentation C) budding of somatic vegetative cells D) All of the choices are correct.

34)

All of the following are included in the Basidiomycetes EXCEPT _________blank. A) stolons B) puffballs C) yeasts D) smuts

35) The fruiting body of members of the Basidiomycota can produce millions of _________blank. A) gametes B) spores C) rhizoids D) zygotes

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36)

The rusts of grain crops are good examples of _________blank. A) ascomycetes B) basidiomycetes C) zygomycetes D) Rusts fall in several different fungal groupings.

37)

In mushrooms, the sexual spores are produced in a(n) _________blank. A) basidium B) ascus C) sporophyte D) sporangiophore

38)

Toadstools are good examples of _________blank. A) zygomycetes B) ascomycetes C) basidiomycetes D) yeasts

39)

A basidium _________blank. A) is found within basidiocarp (fruiting body) B) is produced at the tip of hyphae C) is club-shaped D) All of the choices are correct.

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40) Human pathogens of the genus Encephalitozoon belong to the _________blank and cause encephalitis. A) Microsporidia B) Glomeromycota C) Urediniomycetes D) Chytridiomycota

41) In which of the following is the presence of different mating types critical to sexual reproduction? A) Homothallic species B) Heterothallic species C) Sporangiospore-producing species D) Arthrospore-producing species

42) Which of the following strategies of sexual reproduction will result in the most genetic diversity? A) Sexual reproduction of homothallic species B) Sexual reproduction via sporangiospores C) Sexual reproduction via arthroconidia D) Sexual reproduction of heterothallic species

43)

Which of the following best describes a dikaryotic fungus?

A) A fungus in which the hyphae repeatedly branch forming a network B) A stage in sexual reproduction of some fungi in which plasmogamy has occurred, but karyogamy has not C) A stage in sexual reproduction of some fungi, in which both plasmogamy and karyogamy have occurred D) A fungus that produces a branched fruiting body

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44)

Which of the following genetic notations refers to a dikaryotic fungal stage? A) n B) 2n C) n + n D) 2n + 2n E) 2n + n

45)

Among the fungi, which feature is uniquely present in the chytrids? A) Cell wall composed of mannans B) Pellicle C) Polysaccharide capsule D) Flagella

46)

All of the following are common habitats or hosts of chytrids EXCEPT _________blank. A) freshwater B) mud C) soil D) the human intestine E) insects

47) What group of fungi is largely responsible for the reduction in amphibian populations worldwide?

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A) Chytridiomycota B) Basidiomycetes C) Glomerulomycetes D) Ascomycetes E) Microsporidia

48) A newly described fungal species has been isolated from the rumen of sheep. It is microscopic, unicellular, and produces spores that have a flagellum. This species will most likely be classified as a(n) _________blank. A) Basidiomycota B) Ascomycota C) Microsporidia D) Glomerulomycota E) Chytridiomycota

49)

The spores that are released when the zygospore splits open are _________blank. A) diploid B) triploid C) haploid D) motile E) sterile

50) Tempeh and sufu are food products made from soybeans. Which fungal group is responsible for the production of these two food products?

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A) Basidiomycetes B) Ascomycetes C) Glomerulomycetes D) Zygomycetes E) Microsporidia

51) Which fungal group includes organisms used for the manufacture of anesthetics, birth control agents, industrial alcohols, meat tenderizers, and yellow food coloring? A) Basidiomycetes B) Ascomycetes C) Glomerulomycetes D) Zygomycetes E) Microsporidia

52) During sexual reproduction, Saccharomyces cerevisiae forms haploid spores that are enclosed in a sac. Therefore Saccharomyces is classified as a(n) _________blank. A) glomerulomycete B) ascomycete C) basidiomycete D) cryptomycete E) chytrid

53)

Which of the following conditions would encourage the development of sclerotia? A) Nutrient-rich B) Warm, humid C) Nutrient-poor D) Nutrient-rich and warm and humid

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54)

What is the function of sclerotia? A) Survival in stressful conditions B) Sexual reproduction C) Asexual reproduction D) Waste disposal

55) Which of the following organisms produces the toxin associated with St. Anthony’s Fire (ergotism)? A) Aspergillus nidulans B) Claviceps purpurea C) Amanita phalloides D) Stachybotrys chartarum

56)

Which of the following organisms is responsible for “sick building syndrome?” A) Aspergillus nidulans B) Claviceps purpurea C) Amanita phalloides D) Stachybotrys chartarum

57)

On what basis have Microsporidia been classified as fungi? A) Lack of mitochondria B) Presence of mitosomes C) Analysis of ribosomal RNA D) Presence of a polar tube E) Role as an obligate intracellular parasite

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58)

How do glomeromycetes benefit from their mutualistic relationships with plant hosts? A) The plant provides carbohydrates for the fungus. B) The plant delivers soil nutrients to the fungus. C) The plant provides water for the fungus. D) The plant protects the fungus from predation.

59)

Which of the following is not a zoosporic fungi? A) Microsporidia B) Chytridiomycota C) Ascomycota

60)

Fungi are essential in industrial production of many foods and spirits. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Like some bacteria, fungal cells secrete enzymes that promote exodigestion after which the released nutrients are transported into the cell across the plasma membrane. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Yeast are true eukaryotes with a nucleus, mitochondria, and other membrane bound organelles including flagella. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 15

63) Recent analysis indicates that the chytrids are the most primitive division of fungi and that a single event resulted in the loss of flagella in the more advanced fungi. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Some chytrids have true mycelia, but others may consist of a single cell or a small multinucleate mass. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Fungal spores are usually responsible for the bright colors and fluffy textures of the molds that produce them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Although mating in yeast strains leads to sexual reproduction, asexual reproduction by budding predominates when cultured on rich growth medium. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Most basidiomycetes are autotrophs that decompose plant debris, especially cellulose and lignin. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

68) The common fungus Polyporus squamous forms large shelf-like structures that project from the lower portion of dead trees. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

Fungi are decomposers, converting carbon from ⊚ true ⊚ false

into organic macromolecules.

70) Chytrids usually develop long branching hyphae that form a visible mycelium on the surface of leaf litter in the soil. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) Rhizopus will switch from asexual to sexual reproduction when it is in an unfavorable, nutrient-poor environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72)

During sexual reproduction, Saccharomyces cerevisiae produces blastospores. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

Urediniomycetes are the class of basidiomycetes that cause plant rusts.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

74) An evolutionary trait retained by zoosporic fungi is the exhibition of a posterior flagellum. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 24_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, D, E] 2) saprophytes 3) appressoria 4) [dimorphic, mycelial] 5) [Ascomycota, Basidiomycota] 6) Microsporidia 7) polar tube 8) gas exchange 9) tumors 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) A 48) E 49) C 50) D 51) D 52) B 53) C 54) A 55) B 56) D Version 1

57) C 58) A 59) C 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE

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CHAPTER 25 – 12e 1)

Check all of the following that are associated with the ICTV classification system. A) Capsid symmetry B) Presence of an envelope C) Absence of an envelope D) Absence of flagella

_________blank mRNA is synthesized before replication of the viral nucleic acid.

3) Bacteriophage T4 blocks transcription of host genes using an enzyme that transfers an_________blank from NAD onto the alpha subunit of RNA polymerase.

4) If the bacteriophage lambda enters into a host cell and integrates its genome into the host cell, the phage has entered the _________blank cycle.

_________blank is an unusual base found in the DNA of T4 phages.

6) When a_________blank enters a host cell, it loses the outermost protein layer and is then referred to by virologists as a double-layered particle (DLP).

7) After infecting the cell, HBV's gapped DNA is released into the nucleus where host_________blank enzymes fill the gap and seal the nick, yielding a covalently closed, circular DNA.

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8) _________blank is a host cell-dependent enzyme that serves during the process of mRNA synthesis.

Rubulavirus falls under which group of the ICTV nomenclature system? A) Order B) Family C) Subfamily D) Genus

10) Using the ICTV taxonomy system, a virus name ending in "viridae" would be part of which grouping? A) Order B) Family C) Subfamily D) Genus

11) If a single-stranded RNA virus contains genomic RNA that is identical to the mRNA that it produces, what type of virus is this categorized as? A) Plus strand B) Positive strand C) Plus strand or positive strand is acceptable. D) Minus strand E) Negative strand

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12) If a single stranded RNA virus contains genomic RNA that is complementary to the mRNA that it produces, what type of virus is this categorized as? A) Plus strand B) Positive strand C) Minus strand or negative strand is acceptable. D) Minus strand E) Negative strand

13) A reverse transcribing DNA virus that wants to replicate its genome must first convert the dsDNA to _________blank before using that to create copies of the dsDNA genome. A) single strand DNA B) double strand DNA C) double strand RNA D) single strand RNA

14)

Bacteriophage that only exhibit lytic replication cycles are called_________blank phages. A) temperate B) virulent C) intemperate D) lytigate

15) The sequence of genes in each T4 virus within a population is the same but starts with a different gene at the 5' end. If each of these linear pieces is circularized, the gene sequences would be identical. The T4 DNA, therefore, is described as being_________blank.

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A) twofold rotationally symmetrical B) a linear repeat C) circularly permuted D) linearly palindromic

16)

Which of the following does not use RNA as the genome? A) Poxvirus B) Poliovirus C) Influenza virus D) Rabies virus

17) _________blank is/are able to degrade infecting bacteriophage DNA, thus protecting the host cell. A) Lysozyme B) Protection exonucleases C) Restriction endonucleases D) Modification methylases

18)

A _________blank is a sequence-specific recognition protein with endonuclease activity. A) helicase enzyme B) terminal transferase C) restriction enzyme D) ligase enzyme

19)

The tails of some bacteriophage_________blank.

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A) include a tail sheath that shortens B) rotate like flagella to drive the phage genome into the cytoplasm of the host C) exhibit oar-like motion that drives the phage genome into the cytoplasm of the host D) None of the choices are correct.

20)

Attachment of a bacteriophage to its host requires_________blank.

A) specific surface proteins on the bacteriophage B) specific receptor molecules on the host cell C) nucleic acid protein interactions D) specific surface proteins on the bacteriophage and specific receptor molecules on the host cell

21) When a viral genome is integrated into the host chromosome but does not result in the lysis of the host cell, the condition is referred to as _________blank. A) temperate infection B) a virulent infection C) lysogeny D) a lytic infection

22) The latent form of a bacteriophage genome that exists when a phage establishes lysogeny is called a _________blank. A) lysogen B) prophage C) viroid D) prion

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23) A bacteriophage that can integrate its genome into the host chromosome and not cause lysis of the host cell is said to be _________blank. A) virulent B) avirulent C) moderate D) temperate

24)

Establishment of lysogeny by phage is usually influenced strongly by_________blank. A) the previous host infected by the virus B) components of the host replication machinery C) the physiological condition of the host at the time of infection D) None of the choices are correct.

25) The cascade of events determining whether bacteriophage lambda elects to purpose lysogeny or a lytic cycle begins with a race between the production of the lambda repressor and _________blank. A) integrase B) N protein C) endolysin D) Cro protein

26) The protein required for the establishment and maintenance of lysogeny in cells infected with the temperate bacteriophage lambda is the_________blank.

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A) lac repressor B) lambda repressor C) lambda cos D) lambda Xis and Int proteins

27) Entry of a virus into the lytic cycle after lysogeny has been established is called _________blank. A) lysogenic conversion B) lysogenic reversion C) induction D) None of the choices are correct.

28) Phage T4 protects its DNA from cleavage by host restriction enzymes by_________blank. A) inactivating restriction enzymes B) substituting glucosylated hydroxymethylcytosine for cytosine C) methylating bases D) replicating very rapidly

29) In order for bacteriophage to be released from the host by a lysis mechanism, enzymes are required that_________blank. A) halt ATP synthesis B) stabilize the cytoplasmic membrane and cell wall C) damage the cell wall and cytoplasmic membrane D) degrade the host chromosome

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30)

Late mRNA products in T4 phage include_________blank. A) phage structural proteins B) proteins that help with phage assembly without becoming part of the virion C) proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release D) All of the choices are correct.

31)

Release of T4 phage from host cells after assembly_________blank.

A) occurs by extrusion and does not result in cell lysis B) depends on a protein that interacts with MurA and interferes with normal peptidoglycan synthesis C) requires holin protein that allows the T4 lysozyme to attack the peptidoglycan D) occurs by exocytosis

32) In T4 phages, which of the following makes the initial contact with the appropriate receptor site? A) Tail fiber B) Base plate C) Collar D) Tail tube

33) A_________blank infection is one in which the virus quits reproducing and remains dormant for a period before becoming active again.

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A) persistent B) latent C) slow virus D) None of the choices are correct.

34) Which of the following represent(s) the way(s) in which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes? A) Budding through the plasma membrane. B) Budding through internal cellular membranes. C) Viral enzymes are responsible for production of the envelope. D) Depending on the virus, budding may be either through the plasma membrane or internal cellular membranes.

35) Unlike most enveloped viruses, herpes viruses involve the host_________blank membrane in the formation of their envelope. A) plasma B) nuclear C) mitochondrial D) None of the choices are correct.

36) In which of the following stages of the viral infectious cycle do enveloped viruses usually acquire their envelopes? A) Penetration B) Component biosynthesis C) Assembly D) Release

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37)

The largest viruses known are the _________blank. A) herpesviruses B) hepadnaviruses C) adenoviruses D) mimiviruses

38) Which of the following is not a function of the replicative form (dsDNA) of phage phiX174? A) Function to direct the synthesis of more RF copies. B) Function to direct the synthesis of negative-stranded DNA. C) Function to direct the synthesis of positive-stranded DNA. D) Function to direct the synthesis of mRNA.

39)

The genome of phiX174 is_________blank. A) double-stranded DNA B) single-stranded DNA C) double-stranded RNA D) single-stranded RNA

40)

Which of the following uses ssDNA as the genome? A) Parvovirus B) Poliovirus C) Herpesvirus D) Poxvirus

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41) If a viral gene prevents peptidoglycan units from being linked to lipid carriers, what will happen to the bacterial cell? A) The cell wall with become stronger leading to virus to enter the lysogenic cycle. B) The cell wall will weaken, eventually leading to cell lysis. C) The bacterial cell will start to take on the properties of a Gram-negative cell. D) Lipid metabolism will become impaired.

42)

Which enzyme is used by RNA viruses to directly replicate the viral RNA genome? A) Reverse transciptase B) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase D) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

43) When RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is synthesizing mRNA it is functioning as a _________blank. A) replicase B) ligase C) helicase D) transcriptase

44) When RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is copying the genome it is functioning as a _________blank. A) replicase B) ligase C) helicase D) transcriptase

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45)

Which of the following uses dsRNA as the genome? A) Parvovirus B) Bunyavirus C) Rotavirus D) Poxvirus

46)

RNA-dependent RNA polymerases are needed by which group of viruses? A) Double-stranded RNA viruses B) Positive-strand RNA viruses C) Negative-strand RNA viruses D) All of these types of RNA viruses require RNA dependent RNA polymerase.

47) For bacteriophage with +ssRNA as their genome, which type of nucleic acid is used as the template for the production of more genomic RNA? A) −ssRNA B) dsRNA C) −ssDNA D) dsDNA

48) A group of viruses that cause severe diarrhea, resulting in over 600,000 deaths worldwide annually is the _________blank.

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A) polioviruses B) rotaviruses C) poxviruses D) herpesviruses

49) The genomes of _________blank cannot function as mRNA and therefore these viruses must bring at least one RNA-dependent RNA polymerase into the host cell during entry. A) positive-strand RNA viruses B) double-stranded DNA viruses C) negative-strand RNA viruses D) single-stranded DNA viruses

50) Which of the following must bring in a virion-associated RNA-dependent RNA polymerase when it infects host cells? A) +ssRNA viruses B) −ssRNA viruses C) +dsRNA viruses D) All of the choices are correct.

51) How many times does a negative-strand RNA virus have to replicate its genome to produce a copy ready for assembly into a new virion? A) Once B) Twice C) Three separate times D) It first requires reverse transcription

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52)

Which viral proteins help influenza bind to and enter a host cell? A) Hemagglutin and neuraminidase B) Membrane protein M2 and nucleoprotein C) PB1, PB2, and PA D) Nuclear export protein and nucleoprotein

53)

How do HIV virions acquire their envelope? A) When they exit the host via budding B) When they exit the host after lysis C) Before the cell undergoes lysis D) HIV does not have an envelope.

54) Retroviruses have a +ssRNA as their genome. In order to complete an infection, they must first make a_________blank molecule, which they use to direct the synthesis of mRNA. A) dsRNA B) dsDNA C) DNA:RNA hybrid D) −ssRNA

55) The host cell enzyme that HIV relies on for the synthesis of its genome is a(n) _________blank.

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A) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase B) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase D) Reverse transcriptase

56) HIV makes use of overlapping genes that are processed in different reading frames by the process of ribosomal _________blank. A) frameshifting B) reverse transcription C) integrase D) provirus

57) In retroviruses, what helps the newly synthesized dsDNA insert itself into the host genome? A) Provirus B) Reverse transcriptase C) Integrase D) Gag polyprotein

58) The enzyme used by retroviruses to make a DNA copy of their RNA genome is called_________blank. A) RNA polymerase B) DNA polymerase C) RNA replicase D) reverse transcriptase

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59) Is reverse transcriptase a RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, or a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase? A) It is a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase. B) It is a RNA-dependent DNA polymerase. C) It is both a a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase and a RNA-dependent DNA polymerase. D) It is neither. Reverse transcriptase is actually a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

60) What is unique about reverse transcriptase that makes it different from other DNA polymerases? A) It is found exclusively in DNA viruses. B) It has ligase ability built in so host enzymes are not needed to seal up breaks in DNA made during replication. C) It lacks normal proofreading ability leading to many errors during replication. D) It manufactures a special tRNA molecule that it uses as a primer to initiate replication.

61)

Which of the following is a function of reverse transcriptase? A) It functions as a RNA-dependent DNA polymerase B) It functions as a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase C) It functions as a ribonuclease to degrade the viral RNA once it has been copied into

DNA D) All of these are functions of reverse transcriptase.

62) During viral reproduction, HBV form an immature core particle made up of which components?

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A) Reverse transcriptase B) Positive-strand RNA pregenome C) Core protein D) All of these make up the immature core particle.

63)

The HBV genome is a circular dsDNA molecule that consists of_________blank. A) one complete but nicked strand B) segmented DNA C) a complementary strand D) one complete but nicked strand and a complementary strand

64) Due to the diversity of retroviruses, they can be placed into more than one Baltimore system group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65)

Lysogeny always requires integration of the viral genome into the host chromosome. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

Once a virus establishes lysogeny, it may not switch to the lytic cycle at some later time. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

67) In the case of phage lambda, termination of lysogeny and entry into the lytic cycle usually occurs in response to environmental damage to the host DNA. ⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

For most T4 phages, the nucleic acid enters the host cell but the capsid is left outside. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) Glycosylation of hydroxymethylcytosine residues protects phage T4 DNA from cleavage by bacterial restriction enzymes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Phage T4 gains release from the infected host cell like many other double-stranded DNA phages by interfering with the activity of enzymes that synthesize peptidoglycan. ⊚ ⊚

71)

Viruses infecting algae have never been detected. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

Parvoviruses are among the simplest known DNA viruses of animals. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

73) Because their host cells have dsDNA genomes, viruses with RNA genomes cannot rely on host cell enzymes for genome replication or mRNA synthesis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74)

Most known plant viruses are RNA viruses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75)

Tobacco mosaic virus can be transmitted between individual plants by biting insects. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Although poliovirus capsids contain several distinct proteins, these are synthesized as a single polypeptide then cleaved by proteases to produce the individual proteins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Segmented genomes in negative-strand RNA viruses may include two to eight segments each coding for a unique protein. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78) HIV uses a 5' cap structure to distinguish copies of the genome destined for translation versus copies used for replication.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

79) One way in which small viruses package more information into a very small genome is to use overlapping genes so that the same base sequence is read in more than one reading frame. ⊚ ⊚

80)

true false

The HIV viral envelope protein gp120 binds to the host cell CD4 receptor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Hepatitis B virus is an example of a DNA virus that uses reverse transcriptase in its replication cycle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) The three viral taxonomic domains were established based on RNA sequences by Woese in the 1980s. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) The segmented negative-strand RNA of the influenza virus lacks base pairing but is coated with nucleocapsid protein, which maintains the double helix. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

84)

The infectious virion particle of influenza enters the cell by osmosis. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 25_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, C] 2) Early 3) ADP 4) lysogenic 5) Hydroxymethylcytosine 6) rotavirus 7) repair 8) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase 9) D 10) B 11) C 12) C 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) B 29) C 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) C 50) B 51) B 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) B 56) A Version 1

57) C 58) D 59) C 60) C 61) D 62) D 63) D 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE

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CHAPTER 26 – 12e 1) Suppose a microbiologist wanted to assess the microbial community in a gram of forest soil. Which of the following technique(s) would help them to enumerate a specific genus or type of microbe? (Check all that apply.) A) Fluorescent in-situ hybridization (FISH) B) Catalyzed reported deposition-FISH (CARD-FISH) C) Optical tweezers D) Phylochip

2) Suppose a marine microbiologist wanted to assess the microbial community in a milliliter of sea water. Which of the following technique(s) may be useful to help them enumerate a specific genus or type of microbe? (Check all that apply.) A) DAPI nucleic acid stain B) Fluorescence activated cell sorting (FACS) C) Catalyzed reported deposition-FISH (CARD-FISH) D) Most probable number (MPN) technique

3) In the study of microbial communities, a new technique using microelectrodes is helping us to infer data about microbial activity. Microelectrodes are capable of measuring which of the following data? (Check all that apply.) A) Measuring pH B) Measuring DNA amounts in the sample C) Measuring electron donors and receptors D) Measuring oxygen and nitrogen tension

4) Bacteria that normally require communication signals from other microbes in their environment in order to grow may seem to be unculturable in the laboratory. What are some strategies that could be used to promote culturing of these bacteria? (Check all that apply.)

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A) Grow in spent medium of the other organism B) Increase the incubation time of the culture C) Use vPCR to differentiate between live and dead cells D) Co-cultivate with the other organism

5) Many clinical microbiology laboratories and public health laboratories use techniques such as microbial staining, microbial growth, enzymatic testing, fermentation testing, and microscopic analysis to identify pathogens in samples. Which categories of classical characteristics for taxonomy are represented here? (Check all that apply.) A) Morphological characteristics B) Physiological and metabolic characteristics C) Biochemical characteristics D) Molecular characteristics

6) Select the characteristics that are used in the morphological identification of microorganisms. A) Cell shape B) Staining behavior C) Salt tolerance D) Presence of cilia and flagella E) Fermentation products F) Temperature growth range

7) A traditional technique used to quantify specific types of microbes in natural samples, enrichment cultures, and food or water samples is known as the _______ ________ _______ technique.

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_______ cultures are pure cultures, consisting of a single species.

9) ________ culture techniques are based on the expansion of the microenvironment to allow abundant growth of a microorganism formerly restricted to a small ecological niche.

10) In _______ _______, cells are tagged with a fluorescent dye and injected into a flowing, progressively narrowing stream of fluid, forcing one cell at a time through a laser beam that scatters its fluorescence to a detector.

11) The technique known as _______ _______ _______ can be used to examine nutrient cycling in microbial communities as well as identify the microbes taking up the element of interest.

12) In a classical approach called ________, relatedness is determined by a wide range of phenotypic and genotypic information.

13) In a functional screen of the _________blank, the genes are cloned into vectors and expressed in microbes such as E. coli or Bacillus subtilis, which are then screened for the acquisition of a new, specific function.

14)

What percentage of microbes have been cultured in the laboratory?

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A) 5% B) 10% C) 20% D) 30%

15) The discrepancy between the number of microbial cells observed by microscopic examination and the number of colonies that can be cultivated from the same natural sample may be due to _________. A) nonviable organisms B) incorrect culture conditions C) microbial motility D) nonviable organisms and incorrect culture conditions

16)

Optical tweezers can be used to _______. A) help dissect individual microorganisms B) remove structures from the surface of cells C) study nucleic acids recovered from individual cells D) All of the choices are correct.

17) Recent evidence suggests that most microbial communities have many individuals representing at least ______ taxa. A) 1,000 B) 100,000 C) 10,000,000 D) 1,000,000,000

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18) Determining the functional nature of a microbial community by analysis of bulk DNA samples extracted from environmental samples may be misleading for all of the following reasons EXCEPT _________. A) DNA is of little use in identifying unknown microbes B) some of the DNA recovered may be from nonliving organisms C) some of the DNA may be from entities such as spores D) the DNA obtained can depend on the extraction method used

19) When PCR amplification of SSU (small subunit ribosomal RNA) yields a population of different PCR products of about the same molecular weight, these fragments can be separated for further analysis by ________. A) isoelectric focusing B) size exclusion chromatography C) denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis D) DNA hybridization

20) When doing SSU (small subunit ribosomal RNA) of a mixed population of microbes from an environmental sample, specific _______ are identified. A) phenotypes B) phylotypes C) genotypes D) unknown microbes

21) Which of the following is microscopy in which the microscope is fitted with light filters that enable the excitation of the specimen with a specific wavelength?

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A) Epifluorescence microscopy B) Electron microscopy C) Bright-field microscopy D) Dark-field microscopy

22) When fluorescently labeled oligonucleotides that are known to be specific to the microbe of interest are used to label natural samples, the technique is known as ________. A) polymerase chain reaction B) fluorescent in situ hybridization C) epifluorescence microscopy D) gel electrophoresis

23) The fact that certain nucleotide templates are more readily amplified than others is termed _______. A) multiplex PCR B) analytical PCR C) real-time PCR D) PCR bias

24) The goal of _______ is to identify each protein present in a given microenvironment at the time of sampling. A) metagenomics B) metaproteomics C) both metagenomics and metaproteomics D) None of the choices are correct.

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25) Stable isotope analysis to indicate whether or not certain elements have been processed by an organism is based on the observation that ________. A) microbes have no preference with regard to heavy versus light isotopes B) microbes generally prefer using the heavier of two stable isotopes C) microbes generally prefer using the lighter of two stable isotopes D) None of the choices are correct.

26) _________ techniques are based on recreating a microenvironment in the laboratory to promote the growth of a microorganism formerly restricted to a small ecological niche. A) Enrichment culture B) Fastidious growth C) PCR D) Community growth

27) Which of the following samples of microbial communities would be best suited for study by microelectrode experiments? A) Striated microbial mats B) Ten gallons of seawater C) Sample sorted by optical tweezers D) During infection in a human patient

28) Suppose a microbiologist wanted to identify the microbe responsible for a specific metabolic activity. To simultaneously assess metabolic activity and phylogenetic identity, the best technique would be _________.

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A) microautoradiography with fluorescent in situ hybridization (MAR-FISH) B) metatranscriptomics C) isotope fractionation D) optical tweezers with microelectodes

29)

It is beneficial to study microbial communities in situ because _________. A) microbes can be studied even if they are nonculturable B) in situ studies maintain the relative concentrations of different microorganisms in a

sample C) gene expression may be different in an environmental sample versus an anexic culture D) All of these are reasons to study microbial communities in situ.

30) Phylochips assess the relative abundance of a microbe in a community by reporting the fluorescence intensity of its specific ________. A) 16S rRNA B) radioactive isotopes C) ribosomal proteins D) lipids

31)

The determination of the taxon to which an organism belongs is called _________. A) taxonomy B) classification C) systematics D) identification

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32)

The science dealing with classification is called _________. A) taxonomy B) nomenclature C) systematics D) identification

33)

The arrangement of organisms into groups is best described as _________. A) taxonomy B) classification C) systematics D) identification

34) A classification system based on mutual similarity that involves comparing as many characteristics as possible is called a __________ system. A) phylogenetic B) phyletic C) phenetic D) determinative systematic

35)

A classification system based on evolutionary relationships is called a ________ system. A) phylogenetic B) phenetic C) systematic D) determinative

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36) A general term used to describe groups based on mutual similarity or evolutionary relatedness is _________. A) class B) taxa C) system D) group

37)

Which of the following is useful in biological systematics? A) Physiology B) Epidemiology C) Ecology D) All of the choices are correct.

38) Stable annealing due to hydrogen bonding between DNAs of similar nucleotide sequence from different organisms is referred to as _______. A) hydrolysis B) restriction C) hybridization D) ligation

39)

Conserved indels are _________.

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A) a type of transposable sequence characteristic of a particular genus, and useful for taxonomic analysis B) sequences in eukaryotic mRNAs that are removed by RNA splicing C) a type of signature sequence particularly useful for phylogenetic analysis D) sequences of protein coding genes that are found altered in related species due to their tendency to accumulate small deletions

40) The analysis of genetic relatedness by observing the DNA fragmentation patterns resulting from restriction endonuclease cleavage is referred to as _________. A) genetic fingerprinting B) genetic patterning C) genetic restriction D) genetic chunking

41) Fatty acid methyl ester (FAME) analysis is particularly important in public health because in this application, microbiologists seek to identify specific microbial pathogens in _________. A) food and water B) patient samples C) genomic analysis D) genetic diseases

42)

Which evolution technology takes advantage of labeling genetic sequences called probes? A) FISH B) DNA shuffling C) Whole genome shuffling D) Metabolic pathway engineering

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43) Why is there a new reliance on metagenomics to find new organisms that may produce a medically or industrially important product? A) So far, only about 10% of useful microbes have been grown in the laboratory. B) Soils contain so many potential sources of microbes producing antibiotics it would take more than a century to screen them all. C) We do not have the techniques for growing most microbes found in nature. D) All of these answer choices argue for the need to use metagenomics to identify new useful microbial products.

44) The use of modern molecular techniques has provided a mechanism for growing some of the microorganisms previously referred to as unculturable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

45) It is generally agreed that SSU (small subunit ribosomal RNA) analysis is a technique that is well suited to identifying species present in a given community. ⊚ ⊚

true false

46) The level of specific mRNA, and therefore the expression of a given gene in a particular ecosystem, can be evaluated in the environment using in situ reverse transcriptase (ISRT)-FISH. ⊚ ⊚

true false

47) In two-dimensional nano-liquid chromatography, a complex mixture of peptides is separated first by charge and then by solubility.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

48) While there are many uses for flow cytometry, a powerful addition to this technique is the ability to further sort, count, and collect individual fluorescent cells, known as fluorescence activated cell sorting (FACS). ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Because so few bacteria can be grown easily in culture but all of them contain DNA, molecular techniques like PCR and SSU rRNA are used to be able to identify and quantify microorganisms as a "census" for diversity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) Microbial ecologists seek to understand how microbes drive and respond to the biogeochemical cycles that are essential for life on Earth. However, at this time it is only possible to make concrete connections, identifications, or measurements about the abiotic flux of nutrients rather than the interactions between microbes that make these fluxes possible. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) In situ mRNA techniques are powerful and can be run at almost any time, in any condition, because bacterial mRNAs are so stable. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) When MAR is combined with FISH, one can analyze the phylogenetic identity and the specific substrate uptake patterns of microbes of interest at the level of a single cell in complex microbial communities.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

53) The most probable number (MPN) technique is an approach that can be used to quantify the presence of a particular microbe whether or not that microbe is culturable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) Understanding the abiotic microenvironment of a community is not very informative when studying the microbial populations in that environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) Microorganisms do not generally reproduce sexually; therefore, species are usually defined by phenotypic and genotypic similarities. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

rRNA signature sequences can be used to place microorganisms in the correct domain. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 26_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, D] 2) [B, C] 3) [A, C, D] 4) [A, D] 5) [A, B, C] 6) [A, B] 7) most probable number 8) Axenic 9) Enrichment 10) flow cytometry 11) stable isotope probing 12) taxonomy 13) metagenomic library 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) D 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1

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CHAPTER 27 – 12e 1) A close physical relationship between two different species that may or may not be beneficial is called ________.

2) A relationship in which one organism is found on the surface of another is referred to as a(n) _________.

3) _________ is a beneficial relationship similar to mutualism, in which the relationship is not obligatory.

4) The specialized structure in a tube worm in which endosymbiotic, chemolithotrophic bacteria live is called a(n) __________.

5) _________ enzymes catalyze the hydrolysis of beta (1–4) linkages between successive D-glucose residues of cellulose.

A _________ is any disease-producing microorganism.

7) The loss of genetic information no longer needed for an intracellular existence by an obligate parasite is called genomic ___________.

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8) An example of microbial _________ is the ability of Vampirococcus to attach to the outer membrane of its prey and then secrete degradative enzymes that result in the release of the prey’s cytoplasmic contents.

Which of the following processes is not one that is common to all symbionts? A) Predation B) Colonization C) Reproduction D) Persistence

10) Several cases of an emerging infectious disease are reported in workers at a research station that borders a tropical rainforest region. The pathogen is identified as a species of bacteria carried by nematodes that infect mosquitos, and disease transmission occurs in a human host following a mosquito bite. Which organisms should be targeted in the treatment of infected patients? A) Mosquito, nematode, and bacteria B) Mosquito and nematode C) Nematode and bacteria D) Mosquito and bacteria

11) Why were the advent of metagenomics, and the application of molecular techniques such as single-cell and next-generation sequencing, important for defining a microbial relationship?

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A) Newer methods revealed that symbiotic relationships exist between a host and one to thousands or more microorganisms, challenging the former definition of a symbiotic relationship as one that occurs between a single microbe and its host. B) Newer methods revealed that symbiotic relationships exist between a host and only one microbe, challenging the former definition of a symbiotic relationship as one that occurs between thousands to trillions of microbes and its host. C) Microbiologists originally defined symbiotic relationships as those existing only between bacteria and animal hosts; the advent of newer methods broadened the definition of a host to include organisms other than animals. D) Microbiologists originally defined symbiotic relationships as those that were parasitic, where the microbe harmed the host; the advent of newer methods broadened the definition of symbiosis to include mutualistism and commensalism.

12)

The rickettsial parasite Wolbachia pipientis can _________. A) sometimes alter the sex of an infected wasp B) confer toxicity to the sting of an infected wasp C) enhance the lifespan of an infected wasp D) None of the choices are correct.

13) Any microorganism that spends a portion of its life associated with another organism of a different species is engaged in _________. A) symbiosis B) synergy C) parasitism D) commensalism

14) ________ arises when different microbes within a population or community try to acquire the same resource.

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A) Amensalism B) Competition C) Disruption D) Syntropism

15) Microorganisms in the human colon are more often being described as mutualistic with human hosts rather than commensalistic. Why has this change in the definition of a symbiotic relationship occurred? A) As we learn more about the ecology of the human microbiome, we recognize our dependence on these organisms for immunity, vitamin production, and other essential processes. B) As we learn more about the ecology of the human microbiome, we have learned that these organisms are dependent on the nutrients that we provide for their survival. C) As we learn more about the makeup of the human digestive tract, we realize that some microorganisms are potentially pathogenic, while others are not. D) All of the choices are correct.

16) Dinoflagellates that exist endosymbiotically within a variety of marine invertebrates are called _________. A) endoflagellates B) parasites C) endotrophic D) zooxanthellae

17)

How are termite-related protists and aphid-related proteobacteria similar?

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A) Both are mutualists with their respective hosts. B) Both are parasites to their respective hosts. C) Both are types of endosymbiotic bacteria. D) Both are protozoans that live within insect hosts.

18)

In mutualism _________. A) the mutualist is dependent on the host B) a reciprocal benefit accrues to both partners C) the partners will not survive separately in many cases D) All of the choices are correct.

19) A researcher proposes that the relationship between a particular bacterial species that produces a fat-soluble vitamin is mutualistic with its insect host. Which of the following procedures would best test the researcher's hypothesis? A) Determine which antibiotic kills the bacteria without harming the host, then administer this antibiotic to the insect and compare its growth with and without the vitamin. B) Determine which insecticide kills the insect without harming the bacterial host, then compare vitamin production by the bacteria from insects treated with the insecticide to those from untreated insects. C) Design a method to isolate the bacteria from the insect, then mutate the bacteria in the region of DNA that controls vitamin production and compare growth of the mutant and wild-type bacteria on minimal media. D) Extract the DNA from the bacteria and from the insect, then use reverse-transcriptase PCR and primers specific to the gene that controls vitamin synthesis to compare transcription of RNA in both organisms.

20) Buchnera aphidicola provides ________ to its aphid host that are essential to the survival of the insect.

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A) carbohydrates B) vitamins C) amino acids D) cellulases

21) Methanogens are always engaged in relationships with other microbes because methane production requires _________. A) removal of oxygen from the environment by another microbe B) energy provided by another microbe C) interspecies hydrogen transfer D) None of the choices are correct.

22) The reason coral reefs are among the most productive and successful ecosystems is due to _________. A) the coral-dinoflagellate mutualistic relationship B) the lichen mutualistic relationship C) commensalisms D) All of the choices are correct.

23)

In the rumen, the carbohydrate fermentation end products include _________. A) acetate B) carbon dioxide C) methane D) All of the choices are correct.

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24)

Riftia tube worms make a unique kind of hemoglobin to _________. A) transport oxygen B) transport hydrogen sulfide C) to assist in the transport of carbon dioxide D) All of the choices are correct.

25) The endosymbionts of ruminant animals are useful to their hosts in which of the following ways? A) They digest the cellulose of plant cell walls. B) They produce most of the vitamins needed by the ruminant. C) They convert glucose to organic acids. D) All of the choices are correct.

26)

In the rumen, food is quickly attacked by cellulase _________. A) enzymes produced by the ruminant B) enzymes produced by microbes C) enzymes produced by both the ruminant and the microbe D) archeons

27)

Pseudonocardia is an organism that is hosted by _________.

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A) wood-eating insects B) marine invertebrates C) ants that cultivate fungal gardens D) people with severe acne

28) Biofilm formation by Pseudomonas bacteria on the surface of a natural loofa sponge kept in the shower is an example of which type of relationship? A) Commensalism B) Mutualism C) Parasitism D) Predation

29) ________ is a predator that bores a hole through the outer membrane of its Gramnegative bacterial prey and then reproduces in the periplasm. A) Vampirococcus B) Bdellovibrio C) Mycococcus D) Syntrophobacter

30)

Which of the following is not part of the lichen association? A) Ascomycetes B) Green algae C) Brown algae D) Cyanobacteria

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31)

In a lichen, the fungal partner _________. A) protects the alga from excess light intensities B) provides water and minerals to the alga C) provides a substratum within which the alga grows D) All of the choices are correct.

32) In lichens, the fungi send projections of their hyphae across the algal cell wall in order to obtain nutrients from the photosynthetic partner. These projections are called _________. A) mycelia B) hyphal extensions C) haustoria D) lichenthropes

33) When Nitrobacter utilizes nitrite produced from ammonia by Nitrosomonas to obtain energy by converting the nitrite to nitrate, the relationship between the two organisms is _________. A) commensal B) amensal C) mutual D) parasitic

34) Insects frequently contain bacteria in their cytoplasm, and these bacteria form a mutualistic association with their host. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

35) When two different microbes are engaged in a cooperative relationship, they do as well when living separately as they do when living together. ⊚ ⊚

true false

36) The relationship between Trichonympha protozoa and its termite host, and Xenorhabdus bacteria and its nematode host, are both obligatory relationships. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) Coral bleaching where the photosynthetic endosymbiont is lost or becomes nonfunctional can be caused by temperature increases as small as 2oC. ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) In the host-parasite relationship, it is advantageous for the parasite to disable and kill its host as quickly as possible. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 27_12e_Willey 1) symbiosis 2) ectosymbiosis 3) Cooperation 4) trophosome 5) Cellulase 6) pathogen 7) reduction 8) predation 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) D 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE 38) FALSE

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CHAPTER 28 – 12e 1)

Which of the following contribute to atmospheric CO2 levels? (Check all that apply.) A) Respiration B) Chemoautotrophy C) Photosynthesis D) Burning fossil fuel E) Deforestation

Check the statements that apply to oxidation and reduction reactions. A) Environments that are more positive accept electrons. B) Environments that are more positive donate electrons. C) Environments that are more negative donate electrons. D) Environments that are more negative receive electrons.

3) ___________ have been defined as communities of organisms and their physical and chemical environments that function as self-regulating units.

4) The removal of nutrients from nutrient cycling when those nutrients are converted to biomass is referred to as nutrient _________.

5) Microbes such as Geobacter metallireducens obtain energy from organic matter under anaerobic conditions by using MnO2 as a/an __________ __________.

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6) Bacterioplankton (floating bacteria) use _________ as a sulfur source for protein synthesis.

7) Methane is usually released directly to the atmosphere in environments without an overlying ______ water zone.

8) Since the beginning of the twentieth century, the rate at which ________ and other socalled greenhouse gases have entered the atmosphere has been faster than at any other time in the known history of life on Earth.

9) The manufacture of fertilizer is an energy-intensive process that uses ________ gas to reduce N2 to NH4+ at high temperature and pressure.

10) Since the beginning of the twentieth century, the rate at which CO2, CH4, and nitrogen oxides have been released into the atmosphere has outpaced the rate at which they can be recycled. Thus these _______ _______ are accumulating in Earth’s atmosphere and are correlated with an increase in the global annual-mean surface air temperature.

11) The accumulation of greenhouse gases leads to reflection of heat from the Earth's surface in the atmosphere and is often called "global warming." However, with the changes in patterns of wind, precipitation, and ocean temperature also involved, the term _______ _______ _______ is more accurate.

12) Microbes that use ammonium and nitrate as a source of electrons and CO2 as their sole source of carbon are said to be _____________.

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13) Which organisms would most likely be present on the bottom or closest to the attachment surface of a complex microbial biofilm? A) Anaerobic sulfate-reducing bacteria B) Cyanobacteria C) Facultative chemoorganotrophs D) Eukaryotic protists

14) Microbes sometimes make metals such as mercury more volatile and lipid soluble by _________. A) phosphorylation B) aggregation C) methylation D) None of the choices are correct.

15) Which of the following microbes can oxidize ferrous iron while using chlorate or perchlorate as the electron acceptor? A) Pseudomonas denitrificans B) Thiobacillus ferrooxidans C) Ferribacterium limneticum D) Dechlorosoma suillum

16) Because of the high requirement for reducing power in nitrogen fixation, the nitrogenase enzyme that carries out the reaction is very sensitive to the presence of _________.

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A) light B) carbon dioxide C) oxygen D) None of the choices are correct.

17)

Which of the following is not an example of symbiotic nitrogen fixation? A) Rhizobium with leguminous plants B) Azotobacter with certain photosynthetic protists C) Anabaenea with a water fern D) Frankia with woody shrubs

18) The release of excess nitrogen into the environment when certain complex organic substrates are used to make new microbial biomass is called __________. A) mineralization B) nitrification C) denitrification D) dissimilation

19)

Degradation of organic matter is influenced by _________. A) nutrient availability B) abiotic conditions C) the nature of the microbial community present D) All of the choices are correct.

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20) Which of the following does not contribute to the increasing levels of methane in the atmosphere? A) Methane production in termites B) Methane production in rice paddies C) Methane production at sewage treatment plants D) Methane production beneath an aerobic water column

21)

The carbon cycle begins with _________. A) the conversion of carbon dioxide to methane B) carbon dioxide fixation C) aerobic respiration D) anaerobic respiration

22)

The process of nitrogen fixation involves the transformation of _________. A) ammonia to organic matter nitrogen B) nitrogen gas to ammonia C) nitrate to nitrogen gas D) ammonia to nitrate

23) When a usable organic electron donor is present, sulfate serves as a terminal electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration by _______. A) Desulfovibrio B) Desulfonema C) Archaeoglobus D) All of the choices are correct.

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24) When nitrate is reduced to dinitrogen gas (N2), nitrogen is removed from the ecosystem and returned to the atmosphere through a series of reactions collectively known as _________. A) nitrogen fixation B) denitrification C) anammox reaction D) All of the choices are correct.

25)

Biological nitrogen fixation is carried out _________. A) by bacteria and archaea and some protists B) only by bacteria and archaea in symbiotic relationships with plants C) only in totally anaerobic environments D) only by a limited number of bacteria and archaea

26)

In the anammox reaction _________. A) anaerobic oxidation of ammonia is coupled to the reduction of nitrite B) nitrogen gas is evolved C) all reactions must take place in the absence of O2 D) All of the choices are correct.

27) The oxidized form of inorganic iron that results from microbial oxidative processes is ________. A) ferrous iron B) ferric iron C) sulfate iron D) nitrate iron

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28) Biomagnification involves compounds having higher relative concentrations in _________. A) top consumers B) lower trophic levels C) higher trophic levels D) top consumers or higher trophic levels

29) Peat bogs occur in flooded areas because the rate of decomposition of _________ is slower under anaerobic conditions. A) starch B) lignin C) protein D) lipids

30) A major fully reduced form of carbon, important in biogeochemical cycling is _________. A) carbon dioxide B) carbohydrate C) methane D) hydrogen sulfide

31)

The process of denitrification involves the transformation of _________.

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A) ammonia to organic matter nitrogen B) nitrogen gas to ammonia C) nitrate to nitrogen gas D) ammonia to nitrate

32)

Forests are generally regarded as CO2 ________. A) sources B) sinks C) both a source and a sink D) None of the choices are correct.

33) one?

All of the following statements concerning nitrogen fixation are true EXCEPT which

A) Nitrogen fixing microbes convert N2 to ammonia. B) The products of nitrogen fixation are incorporated into amino acids and nucleic acids. C) The amount of carbon that is taken up by plants and microbes can be dictated by how much nitrogen is available to support growth. D) Nitrogen fixation does not affect the rate of carbon flux.

34) Which of the following microbes play an important role in the process of immobilization? A) Saprophytes B) Viruses C) Protists D) All of these choices are correct.

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35) Some microbes convert iron to magnetite, which is then used as an internal compass to help position the microbe correctly in its environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

36) Inorganic phosphorus complexed with cations in the environment is most available to microbes at pH 4 and below because of solubility considerations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

37) The use of sulfate as a terminal electron acceptor by Desulfovibrio is an example of assimilatory sulfate reduction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) Nutrients are often transformed and cycled by oxidation-reduction reactions that can change the chemical and physical characteristics of the nutrients. ⊚ ⊚

true false

39) An example of biomagnification is the ability of Desulfovibrio to catalyze production of methyl mercury, which is lipid soluble, thereby increasing the concentration of mercury in the food chain. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

40)

Nitrogen fixation is an energy-yielding process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

41) Sulfate and sulfite reductions carried out by Desulfovibrio and related microorganisms are assimilatory processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

42) A single outbreak of a tropical infectious disease in a temperate climate is considered evidence of the effects of global climate change on infectious disease epidemiology. ⊚ ⊚

true false

43) Despite the dramatic increase in microbial nitrification fueled by fertilizer use, nitrification is not a major contributor to the increase in greenhouse Nox gases because nitrate can be immobilized by plants and microbes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) The consistency of the number of atoms within a system remains balanced due to an equal input and output of energy. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

45) The large amount of carbon associated with biogeochemical cycles has accumulated in several places yet to be explored by scientists, but is known to have a huge effect within nutrient cycling. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 28_12e_Willey 1) [A, D, E] 2) [A, C] 3) Ecosystems 4) immobilization 5) electron acceptor 6) dimethylsulfonopropionate 7) oxic 8) CO2 9) hydrogen 10) greenhouse gases 11) global climate change 12) chemolithoautotrophs 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) B 22) B 23) D 24) B 25) D 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) D 35) TRUE 36) FALSE 37) FALSE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE

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CHAPTER 29 – 12e 1) The depth to which light penetrates with sufficient intensity to support the activities of photoautotrophic organisms in the ocean is called the _______ zone.

2) Bacteria in the α-proteobacterial _______ clade are the most abundant organisms on Earth and demonstrate unique adaptations to life in the oligotrophic open ocean.

3) The biologically available carbon that is produced within large, lentic rivers and lakes is called __________.

4) The solubility of oxygen in water will change in which way when the water temperature is lowered? A) No change will occur B) The solubility will increase C) The solubility will decrease D) The solubility will first decrease then increase

5) The possible effect of failing to limit greenhouse gas emissions on the oceans is likely to be which of the following? A) An increase in dissolved methane will stimulate microbial growth. B) An increase in dissolved methane will hinder microbial growth. C) An increase in dissolved carbon dioxide will lower the pH. D) An increase in dissolved carbon dioxide will raise the pH.

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6) The discharge of high levels of microbial nutrients into marine environments has _________. A) resulted in the production of large hypoxic or anoxic regions B) had negative impacts on shellfish and other bottom-dwelling marine animals C) resulted in algal blooms and red tides that have killed marine mammals D) All of the choices are correct.

7) A potent neurotoxin that causes paralytic shellfish poisoning in coastal temperate North America is produced by _________. A) diatoms B) red algae C) green algae D) dinoflagellates

Water ecosystems become eutrophic when there is _________. A) nutrient enrichment of waters B) nutrient removal from waters C) acidification of waters D) deoxygenation of waters

Most microbes that inhabit estuaries are _________. A) halophilic B) halotolerant C) halophobic D) halovariable

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10) The chemolithotrophs that metabolize reduced sulfur compounds using oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor in the Winogradsky column include _________. A) Desulfovibrio B) Beggiatoa C) Chromatium D) cyanobacteria

11) The initial degradation of cellulose that initiates microbial growth in the Winogradsky column is carried out by _________. A) Clostridium B) Desulfovibrio C) cyanobacteria D) Rhodopseudomonas

12)

Winogradsky columns _________. A) are typically used to isolate aquatic protozoa B) are used as a model system for studying microbial interactions C) are used in the process of isolating nanobacteria D) are used in the process of isolating aquatic viruses (virioplankton)

13) Among the eukaryotic microbes in the phytoplankton, the ________ are most noted for their contribution to carbon fixation.

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A) dinoflagellates B) green algae C) diatoms D) cyanobacteria

14) In general, microbial growth in the open ocean is most limited by the availability of _________. A) phosphorus B) manganese C) iron D) nitrogen

15)

The cyanobacterium Trichodesmium _________. A) fixes N2 during the day B) fixes a significant amount of N2 in oceanic environments C) uses nitrite as a source of nitrogen D) is a spherical organism

16) What fraction of all of the organic carbon on Earth results from microbial fixation of carbon dioxide in the oceans? A) About 3/4 B) About 1/2 C) About 1/4 D) About 1/8

17)

Which of the following statements concerning the microbial loop is not true?

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A) Microbes consume dissolved organic matter. B) Marine viruses contribute to the production of dissolved organic matter. C) Microbes constitute particulate organic matter for zooplankton consumption. D) All of the choices are correct.

18)

In the ocean, organic matter sinks from the surface to great depths as _________. A) marine snow B) particulate debris C) photosynthetic potential D) None of the choices are correct.

19) Pelagibacteriales (SAR11 clad) are now thought to constitute about _____% of all microbial life on earth. A) 5 B) 10 C) 25 D) 75

20)

The open ocean is a/an ________ environment. A) eutrophic B) oligotrophic C) neotrophic D) phylotrophic

21) Much of the loss of biologically available nitrogen in the ocean is now thought to be due to a consortium of microbes carrying out _________. Version 1

A) the anammox reaction B) denitrification C) nitrification D) nitrogen fixation

22) When direct examination of virioplankton is carried out by transmission electron microscopy, the numbers obtained are reported as _________. A) plaque-forming units B) virus-like particles C) viral potential D) particulate organic matter

23)

Piezophilic bacteria _________.

A) tolerate high concentration of barium B) grow at pressures exceeding 100 atm C) grow only in environments of reduced atmospheric pressure, such as found at high elevation D) require high concentrations of H2S gas for growth

24)

Thiomargarita species utilize large amounts of _________ . A) nitrate B) sulfur C) oxygen D) carbon dioxide

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25) The impacts of the microbial types that inhabit cross-sections of water sediment are vast. Consider that sediments deep beneath water surfaces are home to perhaps _______ of the world’s bacterial and archaeal biomass. A) 10% B) 20% C) 50% D) 95%

26)

Methane hydrates found at the bottom of the ocean _________. A) vastly exceed in amount the world's current known natural gas reserves B) float to the surface where they are consumed by methylotrophs C) are only formed in areas of thermal heating D) All of the choices are correct.

27)

The oceans contain about ______% of the Earth's water. A) 91 B) 93 C) 95 D) 97

28)

Microbes within glaciers are _________. A) dormant B) active C) nonexistent D) barophilic

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29) In which of the following types of waters do seasonal climatic temperature changes result in distinct chemical and microbial stratification? A) Oceans B) Lakes in temperate areas C) Lakes in tropical areas D) Fast flowing rivers

30)

Competitive advantages for cyanobacteria in the aquatic environment include _________. A) the ability of many to fix nitrogen B) the production of toxins to resist predation C) the production of siderophores to bind iron D) All of the choices are correct.

31) If phosphorus is added to water that contains no other major nutrients, the major microbial group that will bloom if the water is exposed to light will be the _________. A) green sulfur bacteria B) green nonsulfur bacteria C) green algae D) cyanobacteria

32)

What limits phytoplankton growth in streams? A) Light blocked by overhanging foliage B) Rapid flow and mixing of water C) Turbidity D) All of the choices are correct.

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33) The buffering effect of the balance between carbon dioxide, bicarbonate, and carbonate is stronger in freshwater than it is in the marine environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

34) In marine and freshwater environments, the penetration of sunlight and the mixing of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products are the dominant factors controlling the microbial community. ⊚ ⊚

true false

35) Salt marshes differ from estuaries in that the freshwater input in salt marshes is from a single source. ⊚ ⊚

true false

36) Cyanobacteria such as Synechococcus and Prochlorococcus are predominate members of the phytoplankton in illuminated surface waters. ⊚ ⊚

true false

37) Silicobacter pomeroyi produces carbon monoxide dehydrogenases so that it can use carbon monoxide as a source of carbon. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

38)

Viruses in the marine environment (virioplankton) are very abundant. ⊚ ⊚

39)

The largest fraction of saltwater is that which is frozen at the Earth’s polar regions. ⊚ ⊚

40)

true false

In general, cyanobacteria prefer higher pH and temperature conditions than algae. ⊚ ⊚

41)

true false

The epilimnion of a lake is located below the hypolimnion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

42) Low-nutrient, oligotrophic waters will usually become stratified and have an anaerobic hypolimnion at certain times of the year. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 29_12e_Willey 1) photic 2) SAR11 3) autochthonous 4) B 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) A 9) B 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) D 28) B 29) B 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) FALSE 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE

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CHAPTER 30 – 12e 1) The common building block of _______ is the phenylpropene unit, which consists of a hydroxylated six-carbon aromatic benzene ring and a three-carbon linear side chain.

Microbes that live on the surface of plants are called __________.

3) An important bacterial mediated process that occurs on the surface of plant roots is called _________ nitrogen fixation.

The surface of a plant root is called the __________.

5) A substance that promotes binding of Rhizobium to plant root hairs is called a ________ factor.

6) In the shallow subsurface, surface waters often move through ________, which are porous geological structures below the plant root zone.

7) Ionized ammonia applied to soil is effectively retained because clays in the soil have a charge that is ________.

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A) positive B) negative C) uncharged D) None of the choices are correct.

An average gram of forest soil contains about ________. A) 2 × 109 bacteria and archaea B) 4 × 107 bacteria and archaea C) 4 × 107 protists D) 2 × 109 fungi

9) One of the more important genera of gram-positive aerobic actinomycetes found in soils is ________. A) Streptomyces B) Bdellovibrio C) Acinetobacter D) Pseudomonas

10) Geosmin, which contributes to the characteristic earthy odor of soils, is produced primarily by the genus ________. A) Streptomyces B) Paramecium C) Caenorhabditis D) Armillaria

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11) A unique feature of terrestrial filamentous fungi that allows them to bridge open areas between soil particles is/are _________. A) oxygen-impermeable structures including sclerotia and hyphal cords B) formation of flagellated spores that aid in spore dispersal C) mitochondria with highly invaginated cristae that permit more rapid diffusion of oxygen for oxidative phosphorylation D) All of the choices are correct.

12)

Most organic matter found in soils results from primary producers such as ________. A) cyanobacteria B) vascular plants C) photosynthetic protists D) None of the choices are correct.

13) Which of the following is inconsistent with the current understanding of how plants and microbes interact with each other? A) Plants are able to send chemical signals to microbes but they are not able to receive signals from the microbes. B) Plants produce chemical signaling molecules that microbes can detect and react to. C) Microbes produce chemical signaling molecules that plants can react to. D) All of these statements are inconsistent with our understanding of how plants and microbes interact with each other.

14)

A common resident of the rhizosphere that can enhance plant growth is ________.

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A) Azotobacter B) Erwinia C) Sphingomonas D) Pseudomonas

15) A major organism involved in associative nitrogen fixation in the rhizosphere of many plants is ________. A) Azospirillum B) Rhizobium C) Frankia D) Pseudomonas

16)

The region of soil in the immediate vicinity of the roots of plants is called the ________. A) plant crust B) rhizosphere C) phyllosphere D) microbivory

17) The bacterial genera that produces pigments which protect plant leaves from UV irradiation is ________. A) Nocardia B) Cellulomonas C) Sphingomonas D) Arthrobacter

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18) The stems and leaves of plants, called the _______, provide a habitat for a wide variety of microorganisms. A) plant crust B) rhizosphere C) phyllosphere D) microbivory

19)

Mycorrhizae are formed by the association of plants with ________. A) algae B) actinomycetes C) cyanobacteria D) fungi

20) In a mycorrhizal relationship, the fungal component can assist in providing phosphorus and water to the plant. The plant in turn provides the fungus with ________. A) metal cofactors B) organic carbon C) nitrogen D) carbon dioxide

21)

Which of the following statements is correct? A) All plants maintain a mycorrhizal relationship. B) Most plants maintain a mycorrhizal relationship. C) Some plants maintain a mycorrhizal relationship. D) Only a few plants maintain a mycorrhizal relationship.

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22)

The _________ mycorrhizae are the most common type of mycorrhizae. A) arbuscular B) ericaceous C) orchidaceous D) monotropoid

23) Legume plants provide certain amino acids to the _______ so that they do not need to assimilate _______. In return, the bacteroids shuttle amino acids bearing the fixed nitrogen back to the plant. A) bacteroids; nitrogen B) bacteroids; phosphorus C) bacteroids; ammonia D) root hairs; nitrogen

24) In the process of forming a root nodule, species of Rhizobium differentiate to form a type of cell called a ________. A) lymph node B) bacteroid C) nucleoid D) vesicle

25) The formation of an infection thread is an important initial part of microbial interactions with plants in the process of ________.

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A) nitrification B) nitrogen fixation C) denitrification D) sulfate reduction

26)

When rhizobia approach a plant root, the plant initially responds by _________. A) an oxidative burst B) an increase in exudate C) releasing flavonoid inducer molecules D) producing leghemoglobin

27) Rhizobium and Bradyrhizobium are significant contributors to which process when engaged in a symbiotic relationship with leguminous plants? A) Nitrification B) Nitrogen fixation C) Denitrification D) Sulfate reduction

28)

Which of the following are associated with the process of stem nodulation? A) Bacteria enter through ruptures in the stem epidermal cells. B) A common bacterial species associated with stem nodulation is Bradyrhizobium. C) Nod factors are not part of stem nodulation. D) All of these choices are associated with stem nodulation.

29)

Actinorhizae can benefit the plant by providing it with the products of ________.

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A) nitrification B) denitrification C) nitrogen fixation D) sulfate reduction

30)

Ti plasmids in the species Agrobacterium tumefaciens _________. A) is required for nitrogen fixation B) causes the formation of tumors C) carries the genes needed for root nodule development D) carries the genes needed for formation of bacteroids

31)

Biotrophic fungi would be most likely to consume which type of plant material? A) Dead plant matter B) Living plant matter C) Both living and dead plant matter D) None of these are correct because biotrophic fungi provide nitrogen to the plant cells.

32) A fungus that destroys host plant cells by releasing toxins and enzymes would be categorized as which of these? A) Biotrophic fungi B) Enzytrophic fungi C) Necrotrophic fungi D) Parasitic fungi

33)

Which organism was responsible for the Irish Potato Famine?

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A) Sclerotinia sclerotiorum B) Botrytis cinerea C) Tobacco mosaic virus D) Phytophthora infestans

34) Which fungi are responsible for infecting hundreds of plant species and cause the loss of millions of pounds of produce each year? A) White and gray mold fungus B) Tobacco mosaic virus C) Cryphonectria parasitica, which also causes chestnut blight D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

35) Recent studies indicate that active prokaryotic assemblages are present in hightemperature oil reservoirs, including genera such as _________. A) Thermotoga B) Thermoanaerobacter C) Agrobacterium D) only Thermotoga and Thermoanaerobacter

36)

Microbial processes take place in _________. A) shallow subsurface where water flowing from the surface moves below the plant root

zone B) regions where organic matter, originating from the Earth’s surface in times past, has been transformed by chemical and biological processes to yield coal C) zones where methane is being synthesized as a result of microbial activity D) All of the choices are correct.

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37) A large reserve of methane is found in a pocket below the ocean floor and isotope analysis revealed that the 13C/12C ratio is lower than that predicted by the natural occurrence of these isotopes. This finding suggests that the methane was produced by ________. A) a geochemical process B) the metabolic activity of microorganisms C) a radioactive decay process D) oxidation of sulfite

38) An organism found in the deep hot biosphere that used hydrogen as an electron donor and sulfate as a terminal electron acceptor would be categorized as which of the following? A) A sulfate-reducing chemoautotroph B) A sulfate-oxidizing photoautotroph C) A nitrogen-reducing chemoautotroph D) A nitrogen-reducing photoautotroph

39) Microorganisms in soil are located in thin water films on particle surfaces where oxygen is present at high levels. ⊚ ⊚

40)

true false

Oxygen diffuses equally well through waterlogged soil and dry soil. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) A mineral soil contains less than 20% organic carbon while an organic soil contains at least that amount.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

42) Lignin degradation by basidiomycetes is an aerobic process that is catalyzed by phenoloxidases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

43) In bog soils, the decomposition rate of lignin-cellulose complexes is accelerated by the waterlogged, predominately anoxic conditions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) A carbon to nitrogen (C/N) ratio of 20 or less in soil results in the loss of soluble nitrogen from the system. ⊚ ⊚

45)

Fungi can be present at up to several hundred meters of hyphae per gram of soil. ⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

Molecular techniques have shown that Cyanobacteria are not present in soil. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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47) The vast majority of microorganisms found in soils have been successfully cultured in the laboratory. ⊚ ⊚

48)

true false

Soil protists often utilize bacteria as a nutrient source. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Filamentous fungi found in soils are able to form bridges across aggregates and facilitate nutrient transfer processes. ⊚ ⊚

50)

The plant leaf surface is called the rhizosphere. ⊚ ⊚

51)

true false

Mycorrhizal fungi can either be intracellular or extracellular. ⊚ ⊚

52)

true false

Most ectomycorrhizae produce signaling molecules that limit the growth of root hairs. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

53) Bacteroids are terminally differentiated—they can neither divide nor revert back to the nondifferentiated state. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) The protein that maintains microaerobic conditions within a root nodule is called leghemoglobin. ⊚ ⊚

55)

Actinorhizae nodules can grow to be as large as sports balls. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

Agrobacterium has the ability to infect plants and produce tumor-like growths. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Porous geological structures below the plant root zone where water flows are known as glaciated subterranean lakes. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

58) Except for a shallow surface layer, the earth's crust is known to be free of microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 30_12e_Willey 1) lignin 2) epiphytes 3) associative 4) rhizoplane 5) NOD 6) aquifers 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) A 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1

57) FALSE 58) FALSE

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CHAPTER 31 – 12e 1) During the acute inflammatory response, ________ binds to receptors on the capillary wall to open junctions between the cells that allow fluid and leukocytes to enter the tissue.

2) A class of pathogen recognition receptors that function exclusively as signaling receptors are known as the _____ _____ receptors.

3) _______ is a process by which microorganisms or other particles are coated by serum components, preparing them for recognition and ingestion by phagocytic cells.

4) The ________ is a large organ in the abdominal cavity that specializes in filtering the blood and trapping bloodborne microorganisms and antigens.

5) ________ are a group of cytokines produced by some eukaryotic cells in response to a viral infection.

Which is not a cardinal sign or symptom of inflammation? A) Humor B) Rubor C) Calor D) Dolor E) Tumor

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7) Which is the correct order of protein mediators that are produced during an acute inflammatory response? A) Selectins, integrins, chemotaxins, kallikreins B) Kallikreins, chemotaxins, integrins, selectins C) Chemotaxins, selectins, kallikreins, integrins D) Integrins, kallikreins, selectins, chemotaxins

Which is the correct order of events during the inflammatory response? A) Vasodilation, margination, diapedesis, phagocytosis B) Phagocytosis, margination, diapedesis, vasodilation C) Diapedesis, vasodilation, phagocytosis, margination D) Margination, vasodilation, diapedesis, phagocytosis

9) During chronic inflammation when the macrophages are unable to protect the host from tissue damage, the body attempts to wall off and isolate the site by forming a ______. A) clot B) cyst C) granuloma D) vesicle

10) How does the action of exocytosis by dendritic cells and macrophages differ from that of neutrophils?

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A) Dendritic cells and macrophages primarily act as antigen-presenting cells, whereas neutrophils primarily release microbial fragments. B) Dendritic cells and macrophages primarily release microbial fragments, whereas neutrophils primarily act as antigen-presenting cells. C) Dendritic cells and macrophages primarily release products of autophagy, whereas neutrophils primarily release products of any cellular origin. D) Dendritic cells and macrophages primarily release products of any cellular origin, whereas neutrophils primarily release products of autophagy.

11)

Microbe-associated molecular patterns (MAMPs) include _______. A) lipopolysaccharide B) peptidoglycan C) viral nucleic acids D) fungal cell wall components E) All of the choices are correct.

12) In the recognition of foreign microbial pathogens by host cell phagocytes, which of the following are found on the pathogen rather than on or in the phagocyte? A) MAMPs B) NOD-like receptors C) Pattern recognition molecules D) Toll-like receptors

13) Phagocytosis leads to destruction of engulfed pathogens by which of the following mechanisms?

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A) Lysosomal-mediated hydrolysis B) Production of bacteriocins C) Complement fixation D) All of the choices are correct.

14) Opsonizing antibodies must be against ________ components if they are to effectively stimulate phagocytosis. A) surface B) internal C) protein D) phagocytic

15) Which of the following characteristics differentiates mast cells from neutrophils and monocytes? A) Mast cells do not act as phagocytes. B) Mast cells are derived from bone marrow. C) Mast cells participate in the inflammatory response. D) Mast cells originate as stem cells.

16)

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes T cells from B cells? A) B cells produce immunoglobulin while T cells do not. B) B cells originate in the bone marrow while T cells do not. C) B cells are lymphocytes while T cells are not. D) B cells form memory cells while T cells do not.

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17) Approximately one month upon returning from a river rafting trip in South America, a college student develops a fever accompanied by chills, muscle aches, and abdominal discomfort. After being examined by physicians at the university health center, the student is referred to an infectious disease specialist, where a diagnosis of schistosomiasis is made. Schistosoma is a helminth that contaminates freshwater in areas that lack proper sanitation, and often leads to infection when the water is used for swimming or bathing. In this case, bloodwork from the student would most likely reveal an elevation in which of the following cells? A) Eosinophils B) Basophils C) Erythrocytes D) Platelets

18) Which of the following types of leukocytes is typically elevated in cases of bacterial, rather than viral or helminthic, infection? A) Neutrophils B) Basophils C) Monocytes D) Eosinophils

19)

Macrophages ________.

A) are derived from monocytes B) have receptors for compounds released by the immune system that coat microorganisms and enhance phagocytosis C) spread throughout the body of animals and take up residence in specific tissues D) All of the choices are correct.

20)

Dendritic cells ________.

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A) play an important role in the development of allergies and hypersensitivity B) contain granules with histamine and other pharmacologically active substances that contribute to the inflammatory response C) are capable of recognizing specific pathogen-associated molecular patterns and play an important role in nonspecific resistance D) are mainly important in the defense against protozoan and helminth parasites

21)

Macrophages are derived from ________. A) granulocytes B) basophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes

22)

Eosinophils defend against protist and helminth parasites by ________. A) phagocytosis B) complement activation C) antibody production D) releasing cationic proteins and reactive oxygen metabolites

23) Which of the following remain in the blood circulation rather than taking up residence in other tissues? A) Monocytes B) Macrophages C) Neutrophils D) All of the choices are correct.

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24) Which of the following cell types migrates to the lymphoid tissue after encountering pathogens in the skin or the mucous membranes? A) Mast cells B) Dendritic cells C) Macrophages D) None of the choices are correct.

25)

A mature, activated B cell is called a ________. A) plasma cell B) dendritic cell C) natural killer cell D) spleen cell

26)

Natural killer cells specifically kill which of the following? A) Tumor cells and cells infected by microorganisms B) Gram-positive bacteria C) Fungi and protozoa D) Foreign transplanted tissue

27) Blood cell development occurs in the bone marrow of mammals during the process of ________.

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A) hemolysis B) hematopoesis C) hemostasis D) homeostasis

28)

A mast cell is similar to a basophil in that both ________. A) are types of white blood cells B) are agranulocytic C) are vasoactive mediators D) act as primary phagocytes E) None of the choices are correct.

29)

Lymphocytes are comprised of which of the following cell types? A) T cells B) B cells C) NK cells D) T cells and B cells only E) All of the choices are correct.

30)

The alternate complement pathway plays an important role in ________. A) innate immunity B) acquired immunity C) specific immunity D) both innate immunity and specific immunity

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31) Acute phase mediators such as C-reactive protein and antiviral proteins such as interferon can be described as similar because both ________. A) prepare host cells for pathogen invasion B) depend on activation of complement C) are acquired immune defenses D) All of the choices are correct.

32) Which of the following pathways for complement activation is generally dependent upon the formation of antigen-antibody complexes? A) Classical pathway B) Alternative pathway C) Lectin complement pathway D) All of the choices are correct.

33)

Which of the following mediators would not be categorized as a cytokine? A) A protein that regulates innate resistance mechanisms B) A protein that regulates adaptive immunity C) A protein that stimulates hematopoiesis D) A protein that is released by a bacterial cell following phagocytosis

34)

Complement-mediated lysis is achieved by ________. A) formation of the MAC, which is particularly effective against Gram-negative bacteria B) formation of the MAC, which is particularly effective against Gram-positive bacteria C) coating of the pathogen with complement protein C3b D) stimulation of the inflammatory response

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35)

Complement _________.

A) augments opsonization of bacteria by antibodies B) results in lysis of Gram-negative bacteria C) results in lysis of Gram-positive bacteria D) both augments opsonization of bacteria by antibodies and results in lysis of Gramnegative bacteria E) All of the choices are correct.

36)

Cytokines _________.

A) cause lysis of invading microorganisms B) play key roles in both specific and nonspecific immunity C) are required for regulation of the immune response D) play key roles in both specific and nonspecific immunity and are required for regulation of the immune response

37)

How does the complement system aid in the defensive responses of an organism? A) Lysis of Gram-negative bacteria B) Attraction of phagocytic cells C) Activation of phagocytic cells D) All of the choices are correct.

38)

The lungs are protected from microorganisms by ________.

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A) the mucociliary blanket B) lysozyme in mucus C) phagocytic action of alveolar macrophages D) All of the choices are correct.

39) The inhalation of cigarette smoke and similar pollutants has a gradual effect on cilia lining the respiratory tract, first causing the beating to slow and eventually stop. How does this change in cilia most directly impact the resistance mechanisms of the host? A) Innate host immunity due to mechanical barrier protection would be lost B) Acquired immunity due to antibody response would be lost C) Both acquired and nonspecific immunity would be lost D) Neither acquired nor nonspecific immunity would be lost

40) In which of the following areas of the human body do secretions play the greatest role in preventing microbial colonization? A) Stomach B) Large intestine C) Genital tract D) Upper respiratory tract

41)

Tears protect the eyes by ________. A) flushing and lysozyme B) inflammation C) vasodilation D) stimulating opsonization E) flushing and lysozyme and vasodilation

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42) Under normal circumstances, which of the following is(are) normally pathogen-free environments in mammals? A) Kidneys B) Ureters C) Urinary bladder D) All of the choices are correct.

43)

Which of the following is used to help protect the lungs from infection? A) Turbulent airflow deposits airborne pathogens on sticky mucosal surfaces. B) The mucociliary escalator moves trapped organisms away from the lungs by ciliary

action. C) Coughing and sneezing forcefully expel organisms away from the lungs. D) All of the choices are correct.

44)

Lysozyme is an enzyme that lyses ________. A) viruses B) fungi C) bacteria D) parasites

45) Which is a primary reason that females are at greater risk of a urinary tract infection than are males?

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A) The urethra is shorter in women; therefore, bacteria are closer in proximity to the bladder. B) The urethra is longer in women; therefore, more bacteria can colonize the pathway to the bladder. C) The pH of women is lower due to a greater abundance of lactobacilli, which can overcolonize the urethra and migrate to the bladder. D) Hormonal shifts in women can lead to overgrowth of genitourinary bacteria that eventually colonize the bladder.

46)

Which of the following is considered to be a biological defense mechanism? A) Skin B) Fever C) Gastric acid D) Normal microbiota

47) Which of the following is a physical barrier in the nonspecific defense of a mammalian host? A) Inflammation B) Phagocytosis C) Fever D) Mucous membranes

48) All of the following are components of the mammalian host immune system EXCEPT ________.

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A) antigens B) antibodies C) phagocytes D) leukocytes

49)

Why is innate host resistance a type of nonspecific immune response?

A) Innate resistance is nonspecific because any foreign material, microorganisms, or antigens encountered by the host are targeted. B) Innate resistance is nonspecific because any type of immune response, such as inflammation, phagocytosis, or humoral immunity, is activated in the host by foreign material. C) Innate resistance is nonspecific because it is impossible to determine the specific degree by which any host will respond when foreign material or microorganisms are present. D) Innate resistance is nonspecific because it depends on the life experience of the individual, for example, receiving a vaccine or acquiring a disease due to a particular pathogen.

50) Which of the following types of immunity primarily relies on interactions between antigens and antibodies? A) Natural immunity B) Adaptive immunity C) Nonspecific immunity D) Innate immunity

51) Substances that are recognized as foreign and provoke immune responses are called ________. A) antibodies B) antigens C) infective agents D) inducers

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52)

Antigens __________. A) are any molecules that are recognized by the immune system B) are often protein or sugar in nature C) can be described as self or foreign D) All of the choices are correct.

53)

Which of the following statements regarding the lymphoid tissues is false? A) The spleen is a primary lymphoid organ. B) GALT and SALT are secondary lymphoid tissues. C) The spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ. D) The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ. E) The bone marrow is a primary lymphoid tissue.

54)

Inflammation is a nonspecific defensive reaction to a tissue injury. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) During phagocytosis, signs and symptoms of illness peak following phagolysosome formation if the pathogen is Gram-positive. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

During phagocytosis, the phagolysosome forms before the phagosome forms.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Reactive oxygen intermediates and reactive nitrogen intermediates produced by phagocytic cells are effective in killing invading microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

58)

true false

The average adult has approximately 100,000 leukocytes per mm3 of blood. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) A patient with a viral infection would typically demonstrate a decline in the number of agranulocytic leukocytes in circulating blood with an accompanying increase in the number of granulocytic white blood cells, such as basophils and eosinophils. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) Dendritic cells are similar to cytokine-producing cells in that both bridge innate and adaptive immunity in the host. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61)

T cells undergo maturation in the bone marrow. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

62)

Lymphoid tissues are always highly organized cellular complexes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) The lymph nodes lie at the junctions of lymphatic vessels where they filter out microbes and antigens from the lymph. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) An intraepidermal lymphocyte migrates to a lymph node and matures into a dendritic cell after phagocytosis of an antigen. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65)

Defensins act against bacteria and fungi by permeabilizing cell membranes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Lectin binds to certain carbohydrates to begin the activation of the classical complement pathway. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

The bacteriocins produced by Escherichia coli are called colicins. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

68)

Antimicrobial peptides are produced by host cells and by cells of the normal microbiota. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) The alternative complement pathway plays an important role in innate immunity, but it is not an effective defense against intravascular invasion by bacteria and some fungi. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) It is correct to say that cytokines serve to bridge the innate and adaptive immune responses. This is because the synthesis of cytokines can be induced by microbial and nonmicrobial stimuli, while the action of cytokines can stimulate cells that participate in active immune responses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) Lactobacillus contributes to the antimicrobial defenses for the adult female reproductive tract by making lactic acid to lower the pH. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) The skin surface is a very favorable environment for colonization by most microorganisms. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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73)

The lower genitourinary tract is usually free of microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

Cervical mucus has antibacterial activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) The shorter urethra in females is one reason why urinary tract infections are more common in females than in males. ⊚ ⊚

76)

The mucociliary blanket is found in the digestive system of mammals. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

GALT is an acronym that stands for glial-associated lymphoid target. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78) The innate response resists a particular foreign agent; moreover, innate immune responses improve on repeated exposure to the agent. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

79) The membrane of a phagosome is derived from intracellular membranes, whereas the the membrane enclosing an autosome is from the cell membrane of the leukocyte. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 31_12e_Willey 1) bradykinin 2) toll-like 3) Opsonization 4) spleen 5) Interferons 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) C 10) A 11) E 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) E 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) D 38) D 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) D 43) D 44) C 45) A 46) D 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) A 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE Version 1

57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE

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CHAPTER 32 – 12e 1) Identify the signals necessary for maturation and activation of a B cell by a T-dependent antigen. (Check all that apply.) A) Antigen is internalized and presented by a dendritic cell B) Antigen binds to a B-cell receptor C) B cell secretes cytokines to activate a T-helper cell D) B-cell growth factors secreted by TH2 cells mature and activate the antigen-stimulated B cell

2) Indicate the cell types that are most likely involved in tissue rejection. (Check all that apply.) A) Cytotoxic T cells B) T-helper cells C) Macrophages D) B cells E) Neutrophils

3) Antigens that depend on the function of T-helper cells to activate B cells are called ________ antigens.

4) Molecules that stimulate T cells to proliferate nonspecifically, causing the release of massive quantities of cytokines, which, in turn, can lead to tissue damage are called ________.

5) The specific regions within the variable region of an antibody that are responsible for antibody diversity and antigen specificity are called ________ regions.

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In an antibody molecule, the ________ region mediates binding to host cells.

7) In an antibody molecule, each loop of approximately 60 amino acids is called a ________.

8) The changeover in production from IgM to IgG by an activated B cell is called a ________ ________ event.

The ________ chains are structurally distinct for each immunoglobulin class.

10) Acquired immune tolerance is the body’s ability to produce T cells and antibodies against antigens such as microbial antigens, while “tolerating” ________ ________.

11)

________ anaphylaxis is referred to as an atopic reaction.

12) Type _______ hypersensitivity is generally called a cytolytic or cytotoxic reaction because it results in the destruction of host cells, either by lysis or toxic mediators.

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13) CD4 molecules are found on T ______ cells, whereas CD8 molecules are characteristic of T ______ cells.

14) In addition to the clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells that occurs during embryonic development, autoreactivity of T cells and B cells is also inhibited by T _______ cells.

15)

The immune system normally discriminates between ________ antigens. A) self and non-self B) B and T cells C) humoral and cell-mediated D) primary and secondary response

16)

T cells attack ________. A) host cells that have been parasitized by microorganisms B) transplanted tissue cells from one host to another C) cancer cells D) All of the choices are correct.

17)

The humoral immune response defends against ________. A) bacteria B) bacterial toxins C) viruses D) All of the choices are correct.

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18) T cells produce and secrete factors that do not directly interact with invading microorganisms but that augment the body's defense mechanisms. These molecules are called ________. A) antibodies B) cytokines C) immunogens D) augmetins

19) An immune complex resulting from an interaction of antibody with cells or particles that becomes large enough to settle out of solution is called a(n) ________. A) agglutination reaction B) precipitation reaction C) hemagglutination D) ouchterlony double diffusion

20)

Adaptive immunity refers to the type of specific immunity that ________. A) develops after exposure to antigen B) can result from transfer of antibodies from one individual to another C) can be induced by natural or artificial means D) All of the choices are correct.

21)

The transfer of antibodies in breast milk is a good example of ________. A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity

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22)

A vaccination is a good example of ________. A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity

23) Botulinum antitoxin produced in a horse and given to a human suffering from botulism food poisoning is an example of ________. A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity

24) When an individual's immune system responds to an appropriate antigenic stimulus during the course of daily activities, this is called ________. A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity

25)

Class I and II MHC molecules ________.

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A) consists of a complex of two protein chains B) contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket C) consists of a complex of two protein chains and contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket D) neither consists of a complex of two protein chains nor contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket

26) The major histocompatibility complex directs the production of proteins called ________. A) class I B) class II C) class IV D) both class I and class II E) both class I and class IV

27) Class II major histocompatibility complex molecules are found on all of the following types of cells EXCEPT ________. A) red blood cells B) B cells C) macrophages D) dendritic cells

28)

Class I major histocompatibility complex molecules are found on ________ cells.

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A) all nucleated B) antigen-presenting C) all anucleated D) None of the choices are correct.

29) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are distinguished from other lymphocytes by the presence of _________. A) CD8 B) CD4 C) CD19 D) All of the choices are correct.

30) If a T cell that has received signal 1 for activation fails to also receive signal 2 it may become _________. A) anergic B) apoptotic C) anuclear D) cancerous

31)

Which type(s) of antigen-presenting cell can activate T cells? A) Macrophages B) B cells C) Dendritic cells D) All of the choices are correct.

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32) When a presented antigen fragment interacts with the T-cell receptor of a T-helper cell, the coreceptor that must also participate to finalize recognition is _________. A) CD4 B) CD8 C) MHC I D) All of the choices are correct.

33) During activation of a T cell, the cytokine it produces to stimulate its own proliferation is _________. A) interferon gamma B) interleukin 1 C) interleukin 2 D) tumor necrosis factor

34)

Multivalent antigens cause _________.

A) specific activation of phagocytic cells B) stimulation of T cells to overproduce cytokines C) specific activation of phagocytic cells and stimulation of T cells to overproduce cytokines D) None of the choices are correct.

35)

Antigens that exhibit out of control growth exert their damaging effects by _________. A) forming harmful antibody aggregates B) causing the massive and non-specific release of cytokines by T cells C) killing large numbers of phagocytic cells D) All of the choices are correct.

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36)

Cytotoxic T cells destroy target cells by _________. A) direct killing mediated by activated oxygen species B) the perforin pathway C) the CD95 pathway D) both direct killing mediated by activated oxygen species and the perforin pathway E) both the perforin pathway and the CD95 pathway

37)

In humans, the antigen-presenting cells include all of the following EXCEPT _________. A) eosinophils B) dendritic cells C) macrophages D) B cells

38)

The T-cell receptor is comprised of _________. A) alpha and beta protein chains B) a delta protein chain C) a gamma protein chain D) All of the choices are correct.

39) The humoral immune response differs from the cell-mediated immune response in that only in the humoral immune response is there _________.

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A) secretion of antibody B) a precommitted lymphocyte C) a clonal selection mechanism D) the development of memory cells

40)

One plasma cell can synthesize approximately ________ antibody molecules per minute. A) 10, 000 B) 100 C) 10,000,000 D) 10

41)

Which of the following is not true concerning T-independent B-cell activation? A) Affinity maturation does not occur B) No B memory cells are formed C) B cell receptors are not involved in activation D) All of the choices are true.

42) B cells are more effective than macrophages in presenting antigens to activate T cells when _________. A) macrophages are in short supply B) antigen concentrations are high C) antigen concentrations are low D) None of the choices are correct.

43)

The variable domain of antibody molecules _________.

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A) interacts with various cells of the immune system B) binds target antigen C) interacts with phagocytic cells D) interacts with the first component of the complement system

44)

A type of antibody light chain is the ________ chain. A) omega B) lambda C) delta D) alpha

45) The class of immunoglobulin transferred from mother to infant during breastfeeding is _________. A) IgA B) IgD C) IgG D) IgM

46) The only immunoglobulin class with members able to cross the placental barrier is _________. A) IgA B) IgM C) IgG D) IgE

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47)

Which enzyme inserts nucleotides at the V-J junction to add further diversity? A) DNA polymerase B) RAG enzymes C) Reverse transcriptase D) Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

48) Which of the following is not a function of the Fc portion of the immunoglobulin molecule? A) Binding to host cells including some cells of the immune system and some phagocytic cells B) Binding to a component of the complement system C) Binding to the antigen D) All of the choices are functions of the Fc end of an immunoglobulin molecule.

49)

Which of the following function(s) as the B-cell antigen receptor? A) IgG B) Monomeric IgM C) IgE D) IgA

50) The protein chains in a complete antibody molecule are connected to each other by ________ bonds.

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A) peptide B) ionic C) disulfide D) None of the choices are correct.

51) The secondary immune response is typically stronger than the primary response because ________ during the secondary response. A) all classes of immunoglobulins are active B) both B and T cells are activated C) the antigen is weakened by the primary response D) a larger population of lymphocytes reactive to antigen has developed

52)

Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is most abundant in serum? A) IgA B) IgG C) IgE D) IgM

53)

Which of the following is a characteristic associated with secondary antibody responses? A) Shorter lag phase B) Higher antibody titer C) Higher antibody affinity D) All of the choices are correct.

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54)

Which of the following prevents some bacteria from adhering to mucosal surfaces? A) IgD B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE

55)

Antibodies ________. A) can bind to an immunogen B) can target the immunogen for destruction C) are part of the nonspecific immune response D) both can bind to an immunogen and can target the immunogen for destruction E) both can bind to an immunogen and are part of the nonspecific immune response

56)

Which of the following is (are) involved with an antigen binding to an antibody? A) Folding of both the V(H) and V(L) regions B) Amino acids and the antigen's epitope determinant C) Noncovalent bonds D) All of the choices are correct.

57) The inability of a virus to bind to its target cell as a result of antibody binding to the virus is referred to as _________. A) toxin neutralization B) adherence prevention C) viral neutralization D) cytotoxicity

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58)

Which of the following is (are) true about monoclonal antibodies? A) They are made by hybridizing a myeloma cell and an activated B cell B) They recognize a specific epitope C) They are a useful tool in disease diagnosis D) All of the choices are correct.

59) Tumor cells of the immune system that produce large quantities of antibodies and can be readily cultivated are called _________. A) myeloma cells B) monoclonal antibodies C) lymphoma D) All of the choices are correct.

60)

Which of the following antibodies is (are) involved in opsonization? A) IgG1 B) IgG3 C) IgD D) Only IgG1 and IgG3

61) Clonal deletion that removes lymphocytes that recognize any self antigens that are present is known as _________.

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A) positive selection B) negative selection C) neutralization D) None of the choices are correct.

62)

What type of hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated? A) Type IV B) Type III C) Type II D) Type I

63)

Type III hypersensitivity conditions such as arthritis involve _________. A) the activation of mast cells B) a cytotoxic reaction C) delayed, cell-mediated immune reactions D) the formation of immune complexes E) All of the choices are correct.

64)

Type _________ hypersensitivity involves delayed, cell-mediated immune reactions. A) I B) II C) III D) IV

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65)

Which of the statements about haptens is correct? A) Haptens are usually large proteins. B) Haptens are usually small organic molecules. C) Haptens are typically lipid molecules. D) Haptens are generally large polysaccharides.

66) Which of the following enables almost all cells of the body to be recognized by an individual’s immune system as “self"? A) The presence of Ig D molecules on cell surfaces B) The presence of class I MHC molecules on cell surfaces C) The presence of class II MHC molecules on cell surfaces D) The presence of ABO antigenic markers on cell surfaces

67) Consider the transplantation of tissue from a donor to a recipient who has a different HLA type but the same ABO blood type. Why will the recipient be likely to reject a kidney from the donor, but will not reject the blood from the donor? A) There are no Class I MHC molecules on the red blood cells in the donor blood. B) There are no Class I MHC molecules on the kidney tissue from the donor. C) There are no Class II MHC molecules on the red blood cells in the donor blood. D) There are no ABO antigens on the kidney tissue.

68) Clusters of differentiation (CDs) molecules are used to differentiate, classify, and name different cells of the immune system. Where are these molecules located? A) Cytoplasm B) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Nucleus D) Plasma membrane E) Blood plasma

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69) Due to a genetic defect, an individual is unable to make cytotoxic T cells. Predict the most likely consequence. A) The individual will not be able to synthesize any antibodies. B) The individual will have SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency disease). C) The person will have frequent infections caused by Staphylococcus and Streptococcus. D) The person will not be able to adequately fight viral infections and infections caused by intracellular bacteria.

70) An undifferentiated CD4+ TH0 cell can undergo differentiation into a number of different cells, which include all of the following EXCEPT _______. A) TH1 B) TH2 C) TC D) TReg E) TH17

71)

What determines the cell type that a given CD4+ TH0 cell will differentiate into? A) Specific antibody exposure B) Type of cytokine exposure C) Antigen exposure D) Hormones

72) Antigen presented within Type I MHC molecules will activate T _______ cells, while antigens presented within Type II MHC molecules will activate T _______ cells.

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A) cytotoxic; helper B) helper; cytotoxic C) CD4+; CD8+ D) regulatory; cytotoxic

73) All of the following events occur during T-dependent activation of a B cell EXCEPT _________. A) an antigenic fragment held within an MHC Class II molecule of a dendritic cell binds to a specific T-cell receptor on a naïve T-helper cell B) antigen binds to specific B-cell receptor molecules C) antigen bound to the B-cell receptor is internalized and transferred to an MHC class II molecule which then moves to the plasma membrane D) antigen within MHC class II molecule is presented by B cell to an activated T-helper cell E) specific cytokines from the T-helper cells stimulate maturation and complete activation of the antigen-stimulated B cell F) There are no exceptions. All of these events occur during T-dependent activation of B cells.

74)

What antibody predominates during secondary antigen exposures? A) IgA B) IgM C) IgG D) IgE E) IgD

75)

What type of antibody is produced first after the initial exposure to antigen?

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A) IgA B) IgM C) IgG D) IgE E) IgD

76) Which of the following statements describes how antibody-binding brings about the removal of antigens? A) Antibodies directly lyse cells expressing foreign antigen, thus removing the antigen. B) Antibodies tag antigens for destruction, either via phagocytes or via complement activation. C) Antibodies directly hydrolyze antigens, destroying them. D) Antibodies bind to antigens and hasten their removal through the kidneys.

77) Binding of antibody to antigen _______ the likelihood of the antigen being phagocytosed. A) increases B) decreases C) does not affect

78)

What types of antigens are most susceptible to the action of precipitins? A) Antigens on bacterial surfaces B) Antigens on the surface of viral particles C) Soluble antigens D) Host cellular antigens

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79) All of the following might bring about the removal or destruction of bacteria by binding to antigens on bacterial surfaces EXCEPT _________. A) antitoxins B) agglutinins C) complement-fixing antibodies D) opsonizing antibodies

80)

Which of the following may result from improper activation of B cells by self antigens? A) Anergy B) Production of autoantibodies C) Production of self-reactive T cells D) Allergic reactions E) Peripheral tolerance

81) Self-reactive B cells are removed during embryonic development in the bone marrow through a process referred to as _______ selection. A) negative B) positive C) clonal D) ablative

82) All of the following are the result of B-cell maturation and activation EXCEPT _________. A) memory cells are produced B) plasma cells are produced C) antibody is produced D) macrophages are activated

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83) Which of the following is a possible consequence of self-reactive B cells and/or T cells in the body? A) Anergy B) Allergic reactions C) Cytokine storms D) Autoimmune diseases

84)

How do cytotoxic T cells recognize that a transplant is foreign? A) Presence of different class I MHC molecules on the graft B) Presence of different class II MHC molecules on the graft C) Presence of different complement factors on the graft D) Presence of class III MHC molecules on the graft

85)

Which of the following would be the most practical treatment for agammaglobulinemia? A) Regular transfusions of whole blood B) Regular shots of gamma globulin C) Regular T-cell transplants from matched donors D) Regular B-cell transplants

86)

Innate and adaptive immunity differ from one another in that __________.

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A) innate immunity involves general barriers and mechanisms in effect regardless of the nature of the antigen, whereas adaptive immunity is a targeted response to a specific antigen B) innate immunity involves the B lymphocytes, whereas adaptive immunity involves the T lymphocytes C) innate immunity involves MHC I molecules, whereas adaptive immunity involves MHC II molecules D) innate immunity is a targeted response to a specific antigen, whereas adaptive immunity involves general barriers and mechanisms in effect regardless of the nature of the antigen

87)

Which of the following can lead to cytotoxic T lymphocyte activation?

A) A TH0 cell differentiates into a TH1 cell after stimulation by the MHC II/antigen complex and secretes IL-2. B) A TH1 cell differentiates into a TH2 cell after stimulation by the MHC I/antigen complex and secretes IL-17. C) A TH0 cell differentiates into a TH4 cell after stimulation by the MHC II/antigen complex and secretes IL-4. D) A TH2 cell differentiates into a TH17 cell after stimulation by the MHC I/antigen complex and secretes IL-10.

88)

The B-cell receptor is comprised of __________. A) monomeric IgM or IgD as well as Ig-α/Ig-β heterodimer proteins B) monomeric IgG or IgA as well as Ig-α/Ig-β heterodimer proteins C) a heterodimeric polypeptide receptor, and six accessory polypeptides D) α and β transmembrane proteins and clusters of differentiation

89)

Most antigens are monovalent.

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⊚ ⊚

90)

Each antigen has one antigenic determinant site or epitope. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

Penicillin is a good example of a hapten. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) T-cell receptors can only recognize antigens on the surfaces of antigen-presenting cells; they cannot bind free antigen. ⊚ ⊚

93)

T cells are so named because they mature in the thyroid. ⊚ ⊚

94)

true false

Lipopolysaccharides are a common class of T-dependent antigens. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

Most known antigens are composed of various macromolecules, including glycolipids.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

96) If the clonal selection theory is correct, there exists at least one lymphocyte capable of synthesizing an antibody specific to each antigen prior to exposure to the antigen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Pentameric IgM activates complement up to 20-fold more effectively than does the hexameric form of IgM. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) T-cell tolerance induced in the thymus and B-cell tolerance in the bone marrow is called peripheral tolerance. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

Autoimmunity and autoimmune disease are usually fatal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) There is more diversity in heavy chains resulting from combinatorial joining than is seen in light chains. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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101) Immune tolerance of some self antigens need only be maintained in the T-cell population because certain B cells cannot become activated without the help of T cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) Patients with SCID have severely reduced T-cell populations but relatively normal B-cell populations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) A deficiency of T-helper cells would affect both cell-mediated immunity as well as antibody production. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 32_12e_Willey 1) [B, D] 2) [A, B, C] 3) T-dependent 4) superantigens 5) hypervariable 6) Fc 7) domain 8) class switching 9) heavy 10) self antigens 11) Localized 12) II 13) [helper, cytotoxic] 14) regulatory 15) A 16) D 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) E 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) C 41) C 42) C 43) B 44) B 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) C 49) B 50) C 51) D 52) B 53) D 54) B 55) D 56) D Version 1

57) C 58) D 59) A 60) D 61) B 62) D 63) D 64) D 65) B 66) B 67) A 68) D 69) D 70) C 71) B 72) A 73) F 74) C 75) B 76) B 77) A 78) C 79) A 80) B 81) A 82) D 83) D 84) A 85) B 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) A 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE

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CHAPTER 33 – 12e 1)

Check all of the following conditions that are associated with metabolic syndrome. A) Large waist circumference B) High blood pressure C) High blood triglycerides D) Type 1 diabetes E) High fasting blood glucose F) Low LDL levels G) Low blood pressure

2) The term that refers to those microbes found as symbionts in a short relationship of a nongrowing nature is ________.

A _________ is any disease-producing microorganism.

4) The combination of all the genes present in the human genome and those present in the trillions of microbes living in and on adults is known as the human ________.

5) The ________ is the collection of microorganisms (and their genes) that are normally present in and on an organism.

6) From which of the following body sites would you expect to isolate Staphylococcus, Propionibacterium, Streptococcus, and Corynebacterium as the primary colonizing microbiota?

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A) Skin B) Deep gum regions C) Small intestine D) Stomach

7) From which body region would you expect to isolate Clostridium, Bacteroides, Faecalibacterium , and other anaerobic genera? A) Large intestine B) Skin C) Nasopharynx D) Stomach

8) If the predominating microbiota of a particular human body site included Lactobacillus and Bacteroides, it would not be unusual to isolate which of the following genera as well? A) Candida B) Neisseria C) Bacillus D) Hemophilus

Microbes such as Lactobacillus acidophilus colonize the human vagina by fermenting . A) glycogen B) glucose C) lactose D) sucrose

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10) A species of bacterium associated with the oil glands of the skin belongs to the genus ________. A) Staphylococcus B) Pityrosporum C) Cutibacterium D) Corynebacterium

11)

Which of the following would you not find in the nasopharynx? A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Neisseria meningitidis C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Branhamella catarrhalis

12)

Which of the following would you expect to find in the tonsilar crypts? A) Micrococcus B) Staphylococcus C) Streptococcus D) Neisseria

13)

Microbiota of the skin are most likely to be found _________. A) where there is little moisture B) where the pH of the skin secretions is below 4 C) in association with oil and sweat glands D) All of the choices are correct.

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14)

Under normal circumstances, the microbiota of the skin is kept in check by _________. A) a pH above 8 B) a slightly acidic pH C) phagocytic activity D) excessive moisture

15) A bacterial genus that is found in large numbers in the intestinal tract of breast-fed infants is _________. A) Bacteroides B) Bifidobacteria C) Escherichia D) Doderlein's bacillus

16) Which of the following areas of the human body is(are) not normally free of microorganisms? A) Respiratory tract B) Intestinal tract C) Eyes D) All of the choices are correct.

17)

While the lungs are not sterile, they are protected from pathogens by _________.

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A) the ciliated epithelial cells B) lysozyme in mucus C) phagocytic action of alveolar macrophages D) All of the choices are correct.

18) Gram-positive bacteria such asCutibacterium limit the growth of Gram-negative bacteria and some fungi on the human skin by converting secreted ________ to compounds with antimicrobial activity. A) lipids B) organic acids C) salts D) urea

19) Recent research has demonstrated a correlation between the presence of certain types of Gram-positive bacteria in the human gut with obesity and type 2 diabetes. These findings best support which of the following statements? A) Normal microbiota may significantly impact human health and disease. B) The presence of Gram-positive bacteria in the human gut causes obesity and type 2 diabetes. C) Gram-positive bacteria compose the majority of normal microbiota in the human gut of people with obesity and type 2 diabetes. D) Obesity and type 2 diabetes is caused by normal microbiota in the human gut.

20) A microbiologist studying the human microbiome is interested in how a particular bacterial species may impact water absorption in the large intestine. Which of the following models is appropriate for this investigation?

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A) A germfree mouse raised in a sterile environment B) A normal mouse colonized with enteric microbiota found in the human colon C) A germfree mouse inoculated with human microbiota shortly after birth D) A human volunteer who is a carrier of that particular bacterial species

21) Which of the following types of experimental evidence suggests that a particular organism thought to be part of the human microbiome is, in fact, just a laboratory contaminant? A) Absence of ribosomal RNA evidence in a specific host location where the organism was believed to have colonized B) Presence of ribosomal RNA evidence in a specific host location where the organism was believed to have colonized C) Absence of ribosomal RNA evidence in a specific host location where the organism was not expected to have colonized D) Presence of ribosomal RNA evidence in a specific host location where the organism was not expected to have colonized

22) Microorganisms in the human colon are more often being described as mutualistic with human hosts rather than commensalistic. Why has this change in the definition of a symbiotic relationship occurred? A) As we learn more about the ecology of the human microbiome, we recognize our dependence on these organisms for immunity, vitamin production, and other essential processes. B) As we learn more about the ecology of the human microbiome, we have learned that these organisms are dependent on the nutrients that we provide for their survival. C) As we learn more about the makeup of the human digestive tract, we realize that some microorganisms are potentially pathogenic while others are not. D) All of the choices are correct.

23) Microorganisms commonly associated with the human body are traditionally referred to as the ________.

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A) normal microbial flora B) normal microbes C) normal microbiota D) normal microbial flora or the normal microbiota

24) Why were the advent of metagenomics, and the application of molecular techniques such as single-cell and next-generation sequencing, important for defining a microbial relationship? A) Newer methods revealed that symbiotic relationships exist between a host and one to thousands or more microorganisms, challenging the former definition of a symbiotic relationship as one that occurs between a single microbe and its host. B) Newer methods revealed that symbiotic relationships exist between a host and only one microbe, challenging the former definition of a symbiotic relationship as one that occurs between thousands to trillions of microbes and its host. C) Microbiologists originally defined symbiotic relationships as those existing only between bacteria and animal hosts; the advent of newer methods broadened the definition of a host to include organisms other than animals. D) Microbiologists originally defined symbiotic relationships as those that were parasitic, where the microbe harmed the host; the advent of newer methods broadened the definition of symbiosis to include mutualistism and commensalism.

25) Which of the following is attributed to the derivation of the word “microbiome” by Joshua Lederberg? A) As holobionts, humans live symbiotically with billions of microbes. B) Microbial inhabitants do not affect human physiology. C) As humans evolve, the microbes that coexist with them remain genetically unchanged. D) Human health is unrelated to the microbes that cohabit the human ecosystem.

26)

The human microbiome ________.

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A) evolves with humans over time B) is the same for each person C) is unrelated to an individual’s lifestyle or gender D) remains unchanged throughout a lifetime

27)

Holobionts ________. A) are a collection of species that make up an ecosystem B) comprise a variety of niches on and within the host organism C) exhibit unique symbiotic relationships that vary from host to host D) evolve with the host species over time E) All of the choices are correct.

28)

All of the following are true of holobionts except ________. A) the microbial inhabitants of the host remain unchanged throughout the host’s lifetime B) the development of the microbiome is a selective process C) factors such as body location and environment influence microbial cohabitation D) the availability of oxygen and nutrients creates unique niches within the human host

29)

The importance of E. coli and streptococci in the newborn is that ________.

A) they facilitate removal of available oxygen thereby promoting the growth of bifidobacteria B) they cause disease, strengthening the immune system C) they prevent the growth of other, more dangerous microbes D) they protect the infant from disease if they are bottle-fed

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30)

What factors promote the colonization of bifidobacteria in the newborn? A) Limited oxygen in the intestines, and breast-feeding B) Bottle-feeding and cesarean delivery C) Early transition to solid food D) Withholding infant vaccinations

31)

Organisms of the microbiome that are halophiles are predominantly found ________. A) on the skin B) in the stomach C) in the large intestine D) in the vaginal tract

32)

Organisms of the microbiome that are acidophiles can be found ________. A) in the stomach B) in the mouth C) in the large intestine D) in the esophagus

33)

The adult female genital tract has a pH between 4.4 and 4.6. This is due to ________. A) fermentation of glycogen by resident Lactobacillus B) fungi that secrete acids C) repeated use of vinegar-based products D) acid-producing epithelial cells that line the mucus membrane

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34)

Which statement regarding the skin microbiome is correct? A) Dry areas, such as the forearms and buttocks, host the greatest diversity of bacteria. B) Sites rich in sebaceous glands have the greatest diversity of bacteria. C) The dry sites of the skin exhibit a lack of microbial diversity compared to other sites. D) The skin microbiome is uniform, regardless of localized pH, salt content or moisture.

35)

The microbiota of the human large intestine ________. A) varies at the level of the genus, rather than the phyla B) is diverse but uniform from person to person C) is unaffected by variations in lifestyle choices D) can be permanently altered by dietary changes

36) Defining the “functional core microbiome”, rather than simply characterizing each microorganism, attempts to ________. A) describe the holistic benefits provided to the host by the collective biota B) determine the genetic sequence all the organisms in the human microbiome C) enumerate the organisms in each specific niche D) dispel the myth that the microbiome affects human behavior

37) The peptidoglycan cell wall and short-chain fatty acids released by bacteria induces Clectin production in the host cell, which kills Gram-positive microbes. This is an example of ________.

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A) indirect microbiome-pathogen resistance B) direct microbiome-pathogen resistance C) homeostasis D) mucosal tolerance

38) Which of the following statements represents the influence the gut microbiota has on immune regulation and homeostasis? A) The gut microbiota sends signals that influence the morphology and migration of tissue macrophages. B) The gut microbiota releases metabolites that affect circulating myeloid cells, ensuring their appropriate maintenance and removal. C) The gut microbiota sends signals that influence the appropriate development of myeloid cells in the bone marrow. D) All of the choices are correct.

39) Rationalize the following statement: "Toddlers who are administered frequent rounds of antibiotic treatment will suffer an inefficient immune system." A) Antibiotics will kill the microbiome as well as any pathogens, which affects immune function since the microbiota release chemicals that affect the maturation and homeostasis of innate leukocytes. B) Antibiotics kill innate white blood cells as well as any pathogens. C) Antibiotics suppress inflammation as well as killing pathogens and since inflammation is a mechanism of defense, the toddler will lack that important process. D) Antibiotics will kill the microbiome instead of the pathogens, since they are more abundant, thereby preventing the process of colonization resistance.

40)

Determine the connection between the gut microbiome and the central nervous system.

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A) Imbalance in the gut microbiome upregulates the production of IL-17 a proinflammatory cytokine, which alters the function of neurons and microglia. B) Bacteria can directly stimulate the neurons of the enteric nervous system that line the gut, sending a message to the brain via the vagus nerve. C) Soluble microbial products impact the CNS by affecting the permeability of the bloodbrain barrier. D) All of the choices are correct.

41)

Which of the following statements is false regarding metabolic syndrome?

A) Metabolic syndrome develops when an individual cannot metabolize fats due to a genetic anomaly, resulting in obesity. B) Metabolic syndrome involves the inability of the body to take up glucose from the bloodstream due to insulin resistance. C) Insulin resistance can lead to type 2 diabetes and both conditions are associated with obesity, a hallmark of metabolic syndrome. D) Metabolic syndrome and obesity are associated with chronic inflammation, which has a known link to diet-induced dysbiosis.

42) Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between diet and the gut microbiome is false? A) A diet rich in red meat and high fat results in an overproduction of short-chain fatty acids. B) A diet rich in fiber results in a microbiome population that produces short-chain fatty acids. C) A diet rich in red meat promotes the production of trimethylamine in "meat-eating" microbes, which has been shown to promote atherosclerosis. D) Microbes normally fed a vegetarian diet produce low levels of the atherosclerosispromoting trimethylamine even when fed a diet high in red meat.

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43)

Helicobacter pylori has been shown to cause cancer by __________.

A) increasing production of stomach acids, which erodes the stomach lining resulting in proliferation to overcome the loss of cells B) producing a metalloprotease called Bft that stimulates the production of high levels of radical oxygen species by host cells, which in turn are mutagenic C) producing CagA protein and injecting it into host cells, which leads to upregulation of genes that control cell proliferation, survival, migration, and blood vessel formation D) All of the choices are correct.

44)

Probiotics are __________.

A) live microorganisms, which, when administered in adequate amounts, confer a health benefit to the host B) foods or supplements that include both a substance that enhances colonization and live microorganisms C) compounds added to the diet to enhance the colonization and positive health benefits of the microbiome D) FDA-approved supplements to promote the colonization of live microorganisms and simultaneously prevent the growth of pathogens

45)

One proposed way probiotics may be used in illness prevention is __________.

A) the administration of a consortia of organisms to outcompete infection-causing antibiotic-resistant bacteria B) tourists taking a probiotic preparation in anticipation of a trip to an area lacking U.S. standards of food and water treatment C) outpatients are given a cocktail of organisms to reconstitute a depleted microbiome following aggressive treatment, which promotes colonization resistance D) All of the choices are correct.

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46)

The lower respiratory tract has a normal microbiota. ⊚ ⊚

47)

true false

The lower genitourinary tract is usually free of microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

48)

The skin surface is a favorable environment for colonization of Gram-negative bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49)

Many anaerobic Gram-negative bacteria are normally found in the duodenum. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) The oral cavity of humans normally becomes colonized with microorganisms within hours after birth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

51) Although the intestinal microbiota for most people consists of the same types of organisms, the relative percentages of organisms varies significantly from person to person. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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52) A germfree mouse that is not born by cesarean section is not a suitable animal model for investigating the interaction between a host and one type of bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) The average adult houses about the same number of microbial cell as they have human cells (about 1014). ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) The microbiome represents all the genes present in the trillions of microbes living on and in adult humans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) Metagenomics has helped us to understand that the composition of the microbiome may be connected to many aspects of human health. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) The number of microbes that make up the human microbiome is approximately equal to the number of human somatic cells. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

57) When a Gram-positive bacteria produces bacteriocins that kill other Gram-positive bacteria while they themselves are unharmed, it is an example of a direct mechanism of colonization resistance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Short-chain fatty acids such as butyrate, negatively impact the central nervous system by making the blood-brain barrier more permeable, allowing toxins and infectious agents to cross. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) Metabolic endotoxemia refers to the diet-induced change in the microbiome leading to limited microbial diversity and dysbiosis, which allows LPS to pass through leaky colonocyte junctions, stimulating pro-inflammatory chemicals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Microbial metabolism of L-carnitine produces trimethylamine, which travels to host liver cells where it is oxidized to trimentylamineN-oxide and has been shown to accelerate atherosclerosis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Viruses are known to cause cancer in humans by altering the cell cycle and preventing DNA repair. Bacteria in the microbiome have also been shown to cause cancer, however they do by a different mechanism; once they infect a cell they take over the host cell machinery causing proliferation and tumor formation. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false

62) The term "probiotics" refers to FDA-approved supplements that promote the colonization of live microorganisms and simultaneously prevent the growth of pathogens in the human gut. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Probiotics have long been regulated and used in the prevention of illness in humans; now strategies are being explored to utilize probiotics in animals. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 33_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, C, E] 2) transient 3) pathogen 4) metagenome 5) microbiome 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) B 16) D 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) C 44) A 45) D 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE

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CHAPTER 34 – 12e 1)

A(n) _______ is an organism that transfers pathogens from one host to another.

2) ______ bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotics, antibodies, and phagocytes than bacteria in biofilms.

Because LPS is bound to the surface of bacteria, it is called a(n) _______.

A neutralizing antibody against a toxin is called a(n) _______.

5) Many bacteria are pathogenic because they carry large segments of DNA called ______ ______, which were acquired by horizontal gene transfer, and which carry genes responsible for virulence.

6) Once a pathogen has infected the host, ______ is a measure of the pathogen's ability to spread to adjacent or other tissues.

The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is called ________.

The term ________ refers to the degree or intensity of pathogenicity.

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9) Virulence may be measured experimentally at the host level by the ________ ________ ________, which measures the number of pathogens that kills 50% of an experimental group of hosts within a specified amount of time.

10)

Infectious diseases passed from animals to humans are called ________.

11) Transfer of pathogens from host to environment and then to another host are said to be transmitted _________.

12)

A(n) _______ pathogen can cause disease in a host with impaired resistance.

13) One way viruses like SARS-CoV-2 can overcome a host’s immune response is to change their surface ________ by mutation or recombination.

14) Hemolysins help pathogens compete with host cells for ______, a chemical element that is essential for both bacterial cell growth and human cell growth.

15) In which of the following situations did disease develop due to vertical transmission of the pathogen?

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A) A fetus develops listeriosis after unpasteurized cheese infected with Listeria bacteria is consumed by the mother during pregnancy B) A traveler develops COVID-19 after sharing a buffet with 900+ other individuals on a cruise ship. C) A dog develops rabies after being scratched during a fight with a raccoon that carries the virus D) A hospitalized patient develops MRSA bacteria in a wound following surgery

16) A person ingests a pathogen, but fails to develop signs or symptoms of disease. The pathogen likely has a infectious dose and/or a replication rate. A) high; low B) low; high C) low; low D) high; high

17)

An inanimate object that may be contaminated with a pathogen is called a ________. A) vector B) fomite C) zoonoses D) None of the choices are correct.

18)

Which of the following is a facultative, rather than obligate, intracellular pathogen? A) Brucella abortus B) Chlamydia spp. C) Rickettsia rickettsii D) All of the choices are correct.

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19)

One example of infectious disease transmission by a fomite is _______. A) a baby born with congenital syphilis from an infected mother B) a child developing a cold after playing with a toy that harbored rhinovirus C) a teenager with severe acne due to propionibacteria growing in sebaceous glands D) None of the choices are correct.

20) Which of the following features of a pathogen is not considered to be a virulence factor when establishing infection within a host? A) Pigment production B) Attachment fimbriae C) Slime layer D) Protein spikes

21) All of the following situations are passive modes of penetration for the invasion of host tissues by opportunistic pathogens EXCEPT _______. A) a child falling and scraping her knee B) a firefighter receiving third-degree burns on the skin C) a hiker being bitten by a tick D) a bacterium adhering to intravenous tubing, forming a biofilm

22)

Listeria monocytogenes propels itself through mammalian host cells using _______. A) a modified form of gliding motility B) host cell actin and other cytoskeletal proteins C) periplasmic flagella D) fimbriae-based twitching motility

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23)

The toxic component of lipopolysaccharide is called ________. A) lipid A B) exotoxin C) hemolysin D) O-antigen

24) The characteristics of a pathogen that determine its virulence include which of the following? A) Pathogenicity B) Invasiveness C) Infectivity D) All of the choices are correct.

25)

Which of the following is not a biological effect associated with endotoxin? A) Coagulation B) Paralysis C) Fever D) Fibrinolysis

26)

Endotoxin is released when _________. A) Gram-negative pathogens lyse or divide B) cells are starved for iron C) cells are lysogenic for the beta phage D) All of the choices are correct.

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27)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of lipid A? A) Heat stable B) Toxic in nanogram amounts C) Weakly immunogenic D) Neurotoxicity

28)

Endotoxins include which of the following? A) Diphtheria toxin B) Lipopolysaccharide C) Tetanus toxin D) Botulinum toxin

29)

Bacteria within biofilms exchange _________. A) plasmids B) quorum-sensing molecules C) nutrients D) All of the choices are correct.

30) The condition in the host that results from a microorganism growing and multiplying within or on the host is called ________.

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A) an infection B) an virulent disease C) pathogenesis D) All of the choices are correct.

31)

The final outcome of most host-pathogen relationships depends on _________. A) the number of organisms present in or on the host B) the virulence of the organism C) the host's defenses D) All of the choices are correct.

32) Direct contact transmission can be accomplished by all the following EXCEPT _________. A) nursing mothers B) sexual contact C) vehicles D) vectors

33) When a pathogen is transferred from a water source to an animal before being transferred to a human, the animal is called a(n) ________ agent. A) reservoir B) endoparasitic C) transfer D) intermediate

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34) Which of the following must a pathogen possess in order for it to be successful at causing infectious disease? A) Ability to be transported initially to the host B) Ability to adhere to, colonize, or invade the host C) Ability to damage the host D) All of the choices are correct.

35)

What effect does host cell fusion have on viruses? A) Minimizes their exposure to host defenses B) Prevents their spread to uninfected cells C) Provides the virus greater access to essential nutrients D) Produces viral proteins that serve as decoys to bind antimicrobial proteins

36)

Which of the following is NOT a virulence factor encoded by a pathogenicity island? A) Ability to capture iron from host tissues B) Lysozyme C) Proteins associated with cell surface adhesion D) Superantigens

37) Colonization specifically refers to the multiplication of a pathogen on or within a host, and includes the resulting tissue invasion and damage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) The term "sexually transmitted infection" is more accurate than "sexually transmitted disease" because a sexually transmitted pathogen may colonize host tissues without causing further damage to the host. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

39) While exotoxin production is most generally associated with Gram-positive bacteria, some Gram-negative bacteria also produce exotoxins. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40)

Macrophages are phagocytic cells. ⊚ ⊚

41)

Fever response can be triggered by an endogenous pyrogen called interleukin-1. ⊚ ⊚

42)

true false

Generally, exotoxins tend to be more heat stable than endotoxins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

43)

The only organisms to produce endotoxins are Gram-negative bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44)

Inanimate materials involved in pathogen transmission are called reservoirs.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

45) Before bacteria can establish an infection, they must be able to overcome resident microorganisms in direct competition for space and nutrients. ⊚ ⊚

true false

46) SARS-CoV-2 enters cells by binding to the ACE2 receptor. Because ACE2 is present only on nasal epithelial cells, it's transmission and ability to cause multiorgan disease is limited. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 34_12e_Willey 1) vector 2) Planktonic 3) endotoxin 4) antitoxin 5) pathogenicity islands 6) invasiveness 7) toxigenicity 8) virulence 9) lethal dose 50 10) zoonoses 11) indirectly 12) opportunistic 13) protein 14) iron 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) D 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) D 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) FALSE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE

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CHAPTER 35 – 12e 1) Determining the capacity of an infectious agent to spread (the calculations and assumes which of the following parameters?

) involves complex

A) All members of the population are susceptible to the disease B) Herd immunity has been achieved in the population C) No one in the population has been vaccinated D) No one has had the disease E) At least 50% of the population have had the disease F) There is no means of controlling disease spread

The location where a disease-causing organism is normally found is called the ________.

3) It is likely that an act of ________ will be defined by a sudden spike in an unusual disease reported to the public health system.

4) The ______ ______ ______ is responsible for the monitoring of infectious disease and the implementation of prevention and control strategies worldwide.

5) The ________ of a disease compares the number of people with the disease to the number of individuals in the population.

6) An infected individual who is a potential source of infection for others and plays an important role in the epidemiology of the disease is a(n) _________.

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A) carrier B) reservoir C) host D) index case

7) Precautions that can be taken by individuals to prevent travel-related infectious diseases include _________. A) wash hands with soap and water frequently B) get or update vaccinations appropriate for specific destinations C) take antibiotics prophylactically for potential bacterial infections D) wash hands with soap and water frequently and get or update vaccinations appropriate for specific destinations E) wash hands with soap and water frequently, get or update vaccinations appropriate for specific destinations, and take antibiotics prophylactically for potential bacterial infections

8) Consider the links in the chain of infection. Which of the links is broken when the susceptible members of the population are immunized? A) The agent B) Virulence C) Dose D) Susceptibility

9) Consider the links in the chain of infection. Which of the links is broken when hands are thoroughly washed?

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A) The agent B) Exposure C) Virulence D) Susceptibility

10)

_______ are the leading cause of healthcare–associated diseases. A) Bacteria B) Viruses C) Protozoa D) Fungi

11)

The most common types of healthcare–associated infections are _________. A) respiratory tract infections B) urinary tract infections C) gastrointestinal tract infections D) skin infections

12) The Centers for Disease Control estimate that _______ of all hospital patients acquire some type of healthcare–associated infection. A) between 1 and 5 percent B) between 5 and 10 percent C) between 10 and 20 percent D) about 50 percent

13) Which of the following is a major cause of healthcare–associated infections in the United States? Version 1

A) Alpha hemolytic streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Staphylcoccus aureus D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

14) Which of the following frequently causes healthcare–associated infections of the GI tract? A) Clostridium difficile B) Salmonella enteritidis C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Escherichia coli

15)

The first epidemiologist was _________. A) Robert Koch B) Louis Pasteur C) John Snow D) Edward Jenner

16)

Public health surveillance is the proactive evaluation of _________. A) genetic background B) environmental conditions C) human behaviors and lifestyle choices D) emerging infectious agents E) All of the choices are correct.

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17) Which of the following terms refers to a disease that maintains a relatively steady, lowlevel frequency at a moderately regular interval? A) Sporadic B) Hyperendemic C) Endemic D) Epidemic

18) Which of the following terms refers to a sudden increase in the occurrence of a disease above the expected level? A) Sporadic B) Hyperendemic C) Endemic D) Epidemic

19)

The first case in an epidemic is called the _________ case. A) break B) index C) prime D) alpha

20) A(n) _______ is an increase in disease occurrence within a large population over a very wide region (usually the world). A) endemic B) pandemic C) epidemic D) sporadic disease

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21) The sudden, unexpected occurrence of a disease in a limited segment of a population is called a(n) _________. A) outbreak B) incident C) epidemic D) sporadic disease

22)

Which of the following is the major focus of epidemiologists?

A) The discovery of factors essential to disease occurrence B) The development of methods for disease prevention C) Measuring the level of resistance to antimicrobial agents D) Both the discovery of factors essential to disease occurrence and the development of methods for disease prevention E) Both the discovery of factors essential to disease occurrence and measuring the level of resistance to antimicrobial agents F) Both the development of methods for disease prevention and measuring the level of resistance to antimicrobial agents

23)

An epidemic is _________. A) a disease that maintains a steady low-level frequency B) when a disease occurs occasionally and at erratic intervals in the human population C) a sudden increase in the occurrence of a disease above the expected level D) a sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a limited segment of a population

24) A ______ rate measures the number of individuals who become ill as a result of a specific disease within a susceptible population during a specific time period.

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A) prevalence B) morbidity C) mortality D) index

25) The ______ rate refers to the total number of individuals infected at any one time regardless of when the disease began. A) prevalence B) morbidity C) mortality D) index

26) The ______ rate is the relationship of the number of deaths from a given disease to the total number of cases of the disease. A) prevalence B) morbidity C) mortality D) index

27) A _______ epidemic is characterized by a sharp rise to a peak then a rapid, but not as pronounced, decline in the number of individuals infected. A) propagated B) common-source C) herd D) sporadic

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28) A _______ epidemic is characterized by a relatively slow and prolonged rise then a gradual decline in the number of individuals infected. A) propagated B) common-source C) herd D) sporadic

29)

Which type of epidemic usually results from a single contaminated source such as food? A) Propagated B) Common-source C) Herd D) Sporadic

30) Which type of epidemic usually results from the introduction of a single infected individual into a susceptible population? A) Propagated B) Common-source C) Herd D) Sporadic

31) ______ immunity is an epidemiological concept that explains the resistance of a population to infection and the spread of an infectious organism due to the immunity of a high percentage of the population.

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A) Natural B) Experimental C) Herd D) Innate

32) An organism that is able to be transmitted from one host to another is said to be _________. A) infective B) virulent C) pathogenic D) communicable

33) The natural site or environmental location in which the causative organism is normally found is called the _________. A) reservoir B) source C) carrier D) animate phase

34) Which of the following is a mechanism by which new susceptible individuals enter a population? A) Birth of new individuals B) Migration of individuals into the population C) Enhancement of immune systems through immunization D) Birth of new individuals and migration of individuals into the population

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35)

Which of the following is considered an emerging or reemerging disease? A) Escherichia coli O157:H7 B) Zika C) COVID-19 D) All of the choices are correct.

36)

Which of the following contributes to the emergence of new diseases? A) Rapid transportation systems and the mobility of the population B) Ecological disruption such as the loss of predators and the destruction of rain forests C) Increased drug usage D) All of the choices are correct.

37) Chlorination of water supplies represents an epidemiological technique directed at ________. A) eliminating susceptible individuals B) eliminating sources of infection C) sterilizing water D) improving the palatability of water

38)

Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate the source of an infection?

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A) Treatment of sewage to reduce water contamination B) Destruction of vectors by spraying insecticides C) Destruction of an animal reservoir of the infectious agent D) All of the choices are used to reduce or eliminate the source of an infection.

39) The intentional or threatened use of viruses, bacteria, fungi, or toxins from living organisms to produce death or disease in humans, animals, and plants is known as _________. A) chemical warfare B) bioterrorism C) zoonosis D) All of the choices are correct.

40) Which agency is specifically responsible for the monitoring of disease and the implementation of prevention and control strategies in the United States? A) World Health Organization B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention C) Food and Drug Administration D) Department of Health and Human Services

41) The impact of public health measures in the United States has resulted in a(n) ________ in infectious disease-related deaths over the past 100 years. A) increase B) no change C) decrease

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42) Over the past 100 years, the number of deaths due to infectious disease has _______ while the deaths due to metabolic diseases have _______. A) decreased; increased B) increased; remained the same C) increased; decreased D) remained the same; increased E) decreased; remained the same

43) A group of scientists that are studying the spread of Lyme disease suspect that it is spreading north due to movement of the tick vector brought about by climate change. What application(s) below would assist with this study? A) Remote sensing B) DNA fingerprinting C) Geographic information systems D) Remote sensing and geographic information systems E) DNA microarrays

44) A graduate student is researching the spread of mosquito vectors and dengue fever into the southern United States. The student has collected a substantial amount of data regarding the locations where the vector has been detected as well as the incidence of the dengue fever virus in both the vector population and in humans. What application would enable them to effectively illustrate patterns of vector and disease spread? A) Geographic information systems B) Remote sensing C) DNA microarrays D) DNA fingerprinting

45)

Which of the following is an example of a noncommunicable infectious disease?

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A) Influenza B) Diabetes mellitus C) Urinary tract infection D) Strep throat

46) Consider the following hypothetical situation. Researchers doing influenza surveillance involving molecular analysis of recent isolates of the virus notice a major change in the H and N antigens. What is a likely outcome? A) The number of cases of influenza will increase significantly. B) The number of cases of influenza will decrease significantly. C) There will be no significant change in the number of cases of influenza.

47) Increasing global population, overcrowding, and international travel have contributed to many changes in epidemiological trends of infectious disease. Which of the following would have been just as likely to occur a century ago as today? A) West Nile encephalitis, a zoonotic disease caused by a virus first isolated in Uganda, is now a world-wide pandemic in human and animals. B) An individual was placed under a government-ordered isolation after traveling while infected with a drug resistant strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C) The incidence of bubonic plague in humans, transmitted via the rat flea, is gradually increasing in the United States with most of the cases reported in the west. D) Gonorrhea, one of the oldest known STDs, is becoming increasingly difficult to treat due to multi-drug resistance strains of Neisseria gonorrhea.

48) The single most effective and practical way to prevent the spread of infection among patients is _________.

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A) isolating patients in private rooms B) attentiveness of healthcare providers and patients to handwashing C) wearing gloves, gowns, and masks D) placing patients in negative pressure rooms

49) Eight 10-year-olds in the community became sick within a 24-hour period with vomiting and diarrhea. Personnel from the health department interviewed the children and their families, attempting to determine the source of the illness. Which piece of information below is most suggestive of the common source? A) All eight children go to the same school. B) In two of the eight families, siblings were just beginning to show signs of illness at the time of the interview. C) All eight children attended the same birthday party two days prior to becoming ill. D) Five of the eight children ride the same school bus. E) Six of the eight children are on the same soccer team, which practices three times/week.

50) Which of the following public health methods impacted the quality of life through the 20th century by lowering the incidence of many infectious diseases? A) Water treatment B) Strict sanitation guidelines C) Antimicrobial agents D) Immunizations E) All of the choices are correct.

51) Consider a community in which the vaccination rate for measles is 99 percent. A 2-yearold with leukemia, has not received the measles vaccination because of their immunocompromised status. The child is unlikely to get measles because _________.

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A) measles has been completely eradicated and is no longer a threat B) there is substantial herd immunity in his community C) he is protected by antibodies from his mother that crossed the placenta D) the measles virus does not typically affect children with leukemia

52) A disease will be ________ likely to circulate in a community with a high percentage of individuals who are immune to the disease. A) more B) less

53) To determine the frequency of an infectious disease event, epidemiologists calculate which of the following? A) Number of individuals in the total population B) Number of individuals exposed to the pathogen C) Number of infected individuals D) All of the answers are correct.

54)

Which of the following is NOT a Tier 1 agent? A) Bacillus anthracis B) Hantavirus C) Clostridium botulinum toxin D) Yersinia pestis

55) The Laboratory Response Network is associated with all of the following EXCEPT the _______.

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A) CDC B) FBI C) EPA D) APHL

56) The Public Health Security and Bioterrorism Preparedness and Response Act governs the ________ of select agents. A) possession B) transport C) use D) All of the answers are correct.

57) Considering well-known bioterrorism attacks in the United States, how were the Rajneeshees able to infect so many people with Salmonella enterica serovar Typhimurium? A) By releasing the agent in a local swimming pool B) By releasing the agent in a hospital waiting room C) By contaminating local restaurant salad bars with the agent D) By mailing envelopes containing the agent to local election offices

58) Most organisms that cause healthcare–associated infections come from endogenous sources. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) Surveillance of health issues is typically accomplished by two methods: population surveys and antibiotic treatment.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

60) After an infectious disease has been identified in a population, the next step is to correlate the disease outbreak with a specific organism. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) An infection that is incubating in a patient at the time of admission and which develops clinical symptoms during the patient's stay in a healthcare facility is not considered to be a healthcare–associated infection. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62)

Healthcare–associated infections may develop within any healthcare facility. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63)

Active immunization of a population will raise the general level of herd immunity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Antigens in vaccines are mixed with an adjuvant to enhance the rate and degree of immunization. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

65) Vaccines using inactivated pathogens do not stimulate cell-mediated immunity as effectively as vaccines using attenuated pathogens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) The Public Health Security and Bioterrorism Preparedness and Response Act identifies select agents and identifies a Tier 1 subset of particularly hazardous microorganisms. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67)

Tetanus would be classified as a communicable noninfectious disease. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) Over the past 100 years, the decrease in deaths due to infectious disease has been somewhat offset by an increase in death due to metabolic diseases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) The best measure for preventing healthcare–associated infections is to prohibit visitors from bringing flowers and balloons to patients. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) The Department of Health and Human Services maintains the system for monitoring bioterrorism events. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

71) The quantifies the capacity of an infectious agent to spread; a of 4.0 in a specified population indicates that one infected person can spread the disease to 4 others. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 35_12e_Willey 1) [A, C, D, F] 2) reservoir 3) bioterrorism 4) World Health Organization 5) incidence 6) A 7) D 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) E 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) C Version 1

27) B 28) A 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) D 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) C 50) E 51) B 52) B 53) D 54) B 55) C 56) D Version 1

57) C 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE

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CHAPTER 36 – 12e 1) Which of the following factors are considered during the risk assessment process for creating a safe microbiology laboratory? (Check all that apply.) A) Experience of the individuals working in the lab B) Infectious agent risk groups C) Types of procedures to be performed with the infectious agents D) Cost of personal protective equipment

2) You are developing an ELISA test to detect cysts of a parasitic protozoan in stool specimens. Select the following items that would be part of this test. (Check all that apply.) A) Enzyme-labeled antibody against the parasite B) Enzyme-labeled rabbit anti-human-IgG antibody C) Microtiter plate containing wells coated with antibody against the parasite D) Chromogenic enzyme substrate E) Patient specimens

3) Recommended guidelines for laboratory microbiological precautions should reflect the laboratory’s ________ _________.

The use of rRNA gene sequences to identify bacterial strains is referred to as _______.

5) ________ can also be used to differentiate strains of microorganisms that differ in the antigenic composition of a structure or product.

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6) Recommendations regarding hand-washing, handling of pipettes and sharps, prohibition of personal activities such as eating, applying makeup and handing contact lenses, directions regarding decontamination of work surfaces, cultures, and other potentially infectious material are all included in a set of guidelines known as ______ ______ _______.

Standard microbiological practices include all of the following EXCEPT _________.

A) work space should be disinfected only when contaminating spills occur B) eating, drinking, manipulation of contact lenses, and the use of cosmetics, gum, and tobacco products are strictly prohibited in the lab C) lab personnel should know how to use the emergency eyewash and shower stations D) hair longer than shoulder length should be tied back

8) Which of the following is not a guideline on selection, collection, and handling of clinical specimens? A) A small quantity of specimen should be obtained. B) The specimen selected should be representative of the infectious disease process. C) The specimen should be forwarded promptly to the clinical laboratory. D) Attention must be given to avoid contamination of the specimen.

Which of the following tests can be used to distinguish Escherichia from Enterobacter? A) IMViC B) ONPG test C) Citrate utilization D) Starch hydrolysis

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10) The clinical microbiology laboratory can provide preliminary identification of microorganisms based on _________. A) microscopic examination of specimens B) growth or biochemical characteristics C) immunologic techniques that detect microbial antigens D) All of the choices are correct.

11)

Which of the following can be examined with an ordinary bright-field microscope? A) Wet mounts B) Heat-fixed specimens C) Chemical-fixed specimens D) All of the choices are correct.

12)

Ten percent Calcofluor white stain is often used in wet mounts of _________. A) bacteria B) parasites C) molds D) protozoa

13) In the clinical laboratory, which of the following is (are) used as a rapid method of identification? A) Manual biochemical kit systems B) Mechanized/automated systems C) Immunologic systems D) All of the choices are correct.

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14) An example of miniaturized commercial rapid bacterial identification system based on biochemical analysis is the _________. A) API 20E system B) Widal test C) Kirby-Bauer test D) All of the choices are correct.

15) Which of the following media will permit the growth of one group of bacteria while inhibiting the growth of some other groups? A) Differential B) Selective C) Enrichment D) Characteristic

16) The most common method used by clinical microbiology labs for identifying bacteria are _________. A) biochemical B) morphological C) PCR D) DNA fingerprinting

17)

Which of the following is useful in the identification of bacteria?

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A) Source of the culture specimen B) Growth patterns on selective and differential media C) Hemolytic, metabolic, and fermentative properties D) All of the choices are correct.

18) The immunologic technique involving the transfer of proteins separated by electrophoresis to nitrocellulose sheets is _________. A) complement fixation B) direct immunofluorescence C) immunoblotting D) immunoelectrophoresis

19)

Which of the following uses red blood cells? A) Hemagglutination inhibition B) MIC C) ELISA D) RIA

20)

Which of the following tests is an agglutination test for syphilis? A) Quellung reaction B) API 20E system C) Rapid Plasmin Reagin test D) IMViC

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21) Detection of single or multiple microorganisms based on their cytometric parameters is known as _________. A) flow cytometry B) complement fixation C) agglutination D) serotyping

22) The immunological reaction that occurs when there is an optimal ratio of antigen and antibody, producing a lattice at the zone of equivalence is known _________. A) immunoblotting B) immunoelectrophoresis C) immunodiffusion D) immunoprecipitation

23) A colorless substrate acted on by the enzyme portion of the ligand to produce a colored product is known as a/an _________. A) antibody B) chromogen C) antigen D) serotype

24) Of the scientific disciplines listed, which is the least directly relevant to the study of clinical microbiology? A) Physiology B) Microscopy C) Ecology D) Biochemistry E) Immunology

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25) Clinical microbiologists diagnose some diseases by detecting and measuring the specific host response to the infection. What subdiscipline encompasses these methods? A) Immunology B) Microscopy C) Physiology D) Genetics E) Ecology

26) All of the following methods are employed to identify pathogens in clinical specimens EXCEPT _________. A) special stains and microscopy B) culture on a variety of all-purpose, selective, and/or differential media C) biochemical tests D) molecular testing for nucleic acids E) immunoassays F) There are no exceptions here. All of these methods are used to identify pathogens

27)

Which infectious agent risk group would Mycobacterium tuberculosis be placed in? A) Risk group 1 B) Risk group 2 C) Risk group 3 D) Risk group 4

28)

Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes are in which risk group?

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A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

29) All of the following would be appropriate for handling routine patient specimens (urines, sputums, wound swabs) for microscopy and culture EXCEPT _________. A) gloves B) lab coat C) full-body positive pressure suit with air supply D) biological safety cabinet E) appropriate waste decontamination

30) Patients are instructed to collect sputum specimens in such a way as to minimize contamination with normal microbiota from the mouth. A sputum specimen has arrived in the clinical laboratory and a Gram-stained smear of the specimen reveals a mixture of Gram-positive cocci, Gram-negative cocci, and Gram-positive bacilli as well as numerous squamous epithelial cells. This result indicates _________. A) a poor quality specimen of primarily saliva and oropharyngeal microbiota B) that the specimen has been properly collected and is representative of sputum C) that the patient has a pneumonia caused by a mixture of different bacteria D) that the patient has bacterial pneumonia rather than viral pneumonia

31) A growth medium used for the recovery of fungal isolates from patient specimens contains antibiotics to prevent the overgrowth of bacteria and cycloheximide to prevent the growth of saprophytic fungi. This medium would be categorized as _________.

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A) differential B) selective C) enriched D) enrichment E) both selective and differential

32) A patient specimen was Gram-stained upon arrival in the clinical laboratory and revealed both Gram-positive cocci and Gram-negative bacilli. The specimen was cultured on sheep blood agar and chocolate agar, and after incubation, the culture grew only the Gram-negative bacilli. Which of the following is/are a likely explanation(s) for the failure of the Gram-positive cocci to grow? A) The Gram-negative bacilli may have grown very quickly and overgrew the slower growing Gram-positive cocci. B) The media used may not support the growth of the Gram-positive cocci. C) The growth temperature may have enabled the growth of the Gram-negative bacilli but not the growth of the Gram-positive cocci. D) The Gram-positive cocci may be an obligate anaerobe and was unable to grow in an ambient air incubator. E) All of the choices are possible explanations.

33) What is the first piece of information that is used in the identification of an unknown bacterial isolate? A) The ability of the bacterial isolate to ferment glucose B) The ability of the bacterial isolate to ferment lactose C) The presence of catalase enzyme D) The Gram stain morphology

34) An ELISA test to detect antibodies to the Rubella virus would include/use all of the following EXCEPT _________.

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A) microtiter wells coated with rubella antigen B) enzyme-labeled rabbit antihuman IgG antibodies C) a chromogenic enzyme substrate D) the patient serum specimen E) There are no exceptions here. Each of these items would be used.

35)

Which biosafety level(s) requires showering before exit? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 3 and 4

36)

Fungal infections are often diagnosed by direct microscopic examination of specimens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

37) The major focus of the clinical microbiologist is to rapidly isolate and identify microorganisms from clinical specimens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) The purpose of the clinical microbiology laboratory is to maintain cultures of microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

39) A clinical specimen represents a portion or quantity of human material for testing, examination, or study in order to determine the presence or absence of specific microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

40)

true false

DNA probe technology identifies microorganisms by probing their genetic composition. ⊚ ⊚

true false

41) Determining the susceptibility of a microorganism to specific chemotherapeutic agents is an important service performed in the clinical microbiology laboratory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

42) The Gram stain is used for bacteria that have cell walls while the acid-fast stain is used primarily for wall-less bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

43) Indirect immunofluorescence involves fixing the specimen onto a slide, adding fluorochrome-labeled antibodies and then incubating before examining on the microscope. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

44) Identification and characterization of ova, trophozoites, and cysts of parasites is typically accomplished by direct microscopic evaluation of the clinical specimen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

45) PCR is considered more flexible and easier to modify than antibody-based identification technologies. ⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

The indirect immunosorbent assay detects antibodies rather than antigens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

47) An elevated IgM titer typically indicates an active infection while an elevated IgG titer does not distinguish between active and past infections. ⊚ ⊚

true false

48) A test which uses specific monoclonal antibodies to detect the presence of a pathogen (such as an indirect ELISA) is classified as a molecular genomic technique. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49)

BSL 1-4 microbiological laboratories are all required to have an autoclave available. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 12

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 36_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, C] 2) [A, C, D, E] 3) biosafety level 4) ribotyping 5) Serotyping 6) standard microbiological practices 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) F Version 1

27) C 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) E 33) D 34) E 35) C 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE

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CHAPTER 37 – 12e 1) What characteristics of polio virus and infection make it possible that this disease will likely be eradicated? (Check all that apply.) A) Polio virus has no animal reservoirs. B) There is an effective vaccine that prevents polio. C) There is effective antiviral therapy for polio infection.

Which of the following are members of the Togaviridae? (Check all that apply.) A) Alphavirus that causes Equine encephalitis B) Chikungunya virus C) Dengue virus D) West Nile virus

Check all of the following associated with coronaviruses. A) There are seven coronavirus species with the ability to infect humans. B) Sixty percent of individuals who contract COVID-19 are asymptomatic. C) The coronavirus has a large genome for an RNA virus. D) There have been multiple mutations of the coronavirus spread across the world.

The AIDS virus becomes established in cells bearing the ______ receptor.

A type of cancer associated with AIDS is _______ sarcoma.

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Cold sores or fever blisters are caused by the ______ ______ virus.

7) A major cause of blindness in the United States that results from the HSV-1 virus is ________ ________.

In influenza virus, antigenic shift _________.

A) results from reassortment of genomes when two different strains of flu viruses infect the same cell B) results from the accumulation of mutations in HA and NA in a single strain of flu virus C) can result in major epidemics or pandemics D) results from reassortment of genomes when two different strains of flu viruses infect the same cell and can result in major epidemics or pandemics

The rash associated with German measles is most likely caused by _________. A) the virus infecting the cells of the skin B) the virus infecting the cells of the dermal layer beneath the skin C) an immunological reaction to the virus D) All of the choices are correct.

10)

Chickenpox is caused by the _______ virus.

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A) rubella B) rubeola C) coxsackievirus B D) varicella

11)

The reactivated form of chickenpox is called _________. A) rubella B) adenovirus C) herpes zoster D) rubeola

12)

German measles is caused by the _______ virus. A) rubella B) herpes-zoster C) reovirus D) coxsackievirus A

13)

Women of childbearing age should be vaccinated against _________. A) chickenpox B) German measles C) shingles D) influenza A

14)

Congenital rubella syndrome usually occurs in the time frame of the _________.

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A) first trimester of pregnancy B) second trimester of pregnancy C) third trimester of pregnancy D) entire pregnancy

15)

Antigenic variation occurs almost yearly with the influenza _______ virus. A) A B) B C) C D) D

16) Which of the following drugs has been shown to reduce the duration and symptoms of influenza? A) Penicillin B) AZT C) Oseltamivir D) Acyclovir

17)

Mumps is caused by a(n) _________. A) morbillis virus B) paramyxovirus C) adenovirus D) synctial virus

18)

Acute respiratory viruses cause _________.

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A) rhinitis B) tonsillitis C) bronchitis D) All of the choices are correct.

19)

Which of the following did not play a role in the eradication of smallpox? A) Ease of diagnosis by readily recognized clinical features B) No known reservoir outside of human hosts C) A short period of infectivity D) The availability of effective antiviral agents that block replication E) All of these characteristics played a role in the eradication of smallpox

20) Koplik's spots are small red lesions with a white center that form in the mouth and are associated with _________. A) mumps B) measles C) chickenpox D) flavivirus infection

21) Which of the following syndromes may result from infection by an arthropod-borne virus? A) Fevers of undifferentiated type with or without a rash B) Encephalitis, often with a high fatality rate C) Hemorrhagic fevers D) All of the choices are correct.

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22)

West Nile virus has been detected in ______ states of the United.States. A) 25 B) 50 C) 47 D) 10

23)

Which of the following does not transmit the AIDS virus? A) Semen B) Blood C) Vaginal secretions D) Mosquitoes

24)

Colds are common because _________. A) domestic animals serve as a persistent reservoir B) immunity once obtained is not protective C) there is a lack of effective antiviral drugs D) of the antigenic diversity of the rhinoviruses and the lack of long-lasting immunity

25)

Which of the following is known to activate the genital herpes virus? A) Sunlight B) Stress C) Sex hormones D) All of the choices are correct.

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26)

Which of the following is not associated with genital herpes? A) Congenital herpes B) Cervical cancer C) Miscarriages D) Aplastic crisis

27) Large-scale screening of blood for the hepatitis B virus uses an assay designed to detect _________. A) the Delta agent B) the Dane particle C) viral surface antigens D) alanine transaminase

28)

The leading reason for liver transplantation in the United States is _________. A) hepatitis C B) hepatitis B C) hepatitis A D) hepatitis D

29)

Control measures for hepatitis B include _________. A) excluding contact with contaminated materials B) passive immunotherapy within 7 days of exposure C) vaccination of high-risk groups D) All of the choices are correct.

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30)

Which of the following can stimulate a reactivation of the virus that causes cold sores? A) Physical stress (fever, cold winds, trauma, hormonal changes) B) Emotional stress C) Ultraviolet light D) All of the choices are correct.

31)

Which of the following is the typical mode of transmission for hepatitis C? A) Contaminated blood and blood products B) Inhalation of droplets C) Bite from body louse D) Contaminated shellfish

32)

Which of the following drugs is (are) effective against cold sores? A) Valcyclovir and acyclovir B) Amantadine C) AZT and ddC D) Protease inhibitors such as ritonavir

33)

Acyclovir is the drug used to treat genital herpes; it _________. A) cures the disease B) reduces the healing time C) lyses the virus D) All of the choices are correct.

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34) Which of the following is correct about the protease inhibitor drugs designed to treat HIV infection? A) They slow the progress of the disease B) They cure the disease C) They prevent entry of the virus into cells D) They result in lysis of virus particles

35) Most drugs used to slow the progress of AIDS fall into which of the following categories? A) Reverse transcriptase and protease inhibitors B) Topoisomerase inhibitors C) RNA polymerase II inhibitors D) Protein synthesis inhibitors

36)

The main route of transmission of the poliovirus is _________. A) body contact B) fomites C) food and water D) respiratory secretions

37)

Infectious hepatitis (hepatitis A) is usually transmitted by __________.

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A) ingestion of fecal-contaminated food or drink B) sexual activity C) contaminated blood D) inhalation of droplets

38)

Acute viral gastroenteritis can be caused by the _________. A) norovirus and the rotavirus group B) cytomegalovirus and hepatitis E C) the Delta agent D) varicella zoster virus and rubeola virus

39)

Acute viral gastroenteritis is the leading cause of death in _________. A) children worldwide B) children in the United.States C) children in developing countries D) children in day care centers

40)

Prevention and control of rabies includes _________. A) pre-exposure vaccination of dogs and cats B) post-exposure vaccination of humans C) pre-exposure vaccination of humans at high risk D) All of the choices are correct.

41)

The rabies virus is transmitted to humans by _________.

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A) the bite of an infected animal B) aerosols of the virus that can be present in caves where bats roost C) contamination of scratches with saliva from an infected animal D) All of the choices are correct.

42)

Negri bodies are produced within _______ of rabies-infected humans. A) skeletal muscle B) connective tissue C) brain neurons D) the skin

43)

Who should be vaccinated against rabies? A) Nurses B) Farmers C) Veterinarians D) Physicians

44)

The Ebola virus causes _________. A) encephalitis B) pulmonary syndrome C) hemorrhagic fever D) lassa fever

45) Which of the following is a disease of humans that is probably caused by a prion and was originally associated with cannibalism?

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A) Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker disease B) Creutzfeld-Jakob disease C) Kuru D) Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker and Creutzfeld-Jakob diseases E) Both Creutzfeld-Jakob disease and kuru F) Both Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker disease and kuru

46)

Iatrogenic CJD has been transmitted by all of the following EXCEPT _________. A) human growth hormone B) corneal grafts C) liver transplants D) grafts of dura mater

47) Consider the possibility of a mutation occurring in a strain of avian influenza virus, which enables the bird-specific strain to readily infect humans. Such a mutation would most likely result in changes within the _________. A) viral capsid B) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase C) HA protein D) nucleoprotein (NP)

48)

What critical role is often played by pigs in the epidemiology of influenza virus?

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A) Pigs are the reservoir for influenza virus and most humans become infected by contact with respiratory secretions of pigs. B) Pigs are the reservoir for influenza viruses and disease can be transmitted to humans by consuming undercooked pork. C) Pigs can become infected simultaneously with both human, avian, and swine varieties of influenza viruses, providing an opportunity for genetic recombination resulting in antigenic shift. D) Pigs harbor influenza viruses that are much more virulent than avian strains and human strains.

49)

Which of the following is the most common outcome of infection with polio virus? A) Paralysis of the lower extremities B) Paralysis involving the muscles that enable respiration C) Severe gastrointestinal disease with vomiting and diarrhea D) Mild infection with fever, headache, sore throat, or asymptomatic

50)

What is the most likely reason why Reston ebolavirus does not cause human disease? A) The human body temperature prohibits viral replication. B) Human tissues lack the appropriate receptors for this viral strain. C) Humans have antibodies that prevent establishment of infection with this viral strain. D) Human interferons prevent the establishment of infection with this viral.

51) What is the most likely reason that bats, raccoons, and foxes readily become infected with the rabies virus, whereas opossums are resistant to infection? A) The rabies virus is unable to replicate once it has entered the opossum cells. B) Infected opossums do not shed rabies virus in their saliva. C) Opossums lack the appropriate receptor for the rabies virus. D) Opossums rarely contact other infected animals.

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52) A patient visits the doctor complaining of mild fever, rash, joint pain, and conjunctivitis. Which arthropod-borne virus could be responsible for these symptoms? A) Zika virus B) Dengue virus C) Chikungunya virus D) West Nile virus

53)

Which of the following has not been found in the United States? A) Eastern equine encephalitis B) Western equine encephalitis C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis D) All of these strains have been found in the United States.

54)

Antigenic variation is common in influenza B and C but is rare in influenza A. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) Hepatitis can be caused by cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus as well as by the hepatitis viruses. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

The Epstein-Barr virus is the etiologic agent of infectious mononucleosis.

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⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

Antiviral drugs are frequently used for the treatment of infectious mononucleosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) The formation of intranuclear inclusion bodies is associated with cytomegalovirus infection. ⊚ ⊚

59)

Warts or verrucae are caused by the papillomaviruses. ⊚ ⊚

60)

true false

Plantar warts represent a sexually transmitted disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) The most likely mode of transmission of the common cold is by hand-to-hand contact between a rhinovirus donor and a susceptible recipient. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

62) Coinfection with HIV and Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) can greatly promote the development of cancer in AIDS patients. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

One hundred fifty-one deaths have been attributed to vCJD in the United States. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) Arthropod-borne encephalitis would show less seasonality in a tropical or subtropical climate than what is seen in a temperate climate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65)

Most cases of viral gastroenteritis are accompanied by high fevers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66)

Preventing prion contamination of food would prevent all prion diseases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Guillain-Barré syndrome is a possible complication of the Chikungunya and Zika virus infections. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 37_12e_Willey 1) [A, B] 2) [A, B] 3) [A, C, D] 4) CD4 5) Kaposi's 6) herpes simplex 7) herpetic keratitis 8) D 9) C 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) D 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) D 26) D Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) C 40) D 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) C 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) D 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1

57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE

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CHAPTER 38 – 12e 1) Which of the following characterize biofilms that form within the body? Check all that apply. A) Biofilms help microorganism adhere to human tissue. B) Biofilms protect microbes from the body’s defenses. C) Biofilms protect microorganisms from antibiotics. D) Biofilms are formed only by Gram-positive bacteria. E) Biofilms are usually made up of only one species of bacteria.

2) ________ formation begins with the initial colonization of the pellicle by Streptococcus gordonii, S. oralis, and S. mitis.

Dental pathogens are called _______.

Inflammation of the membranes around the brain or spinal cord is called _______.

A(n) ______ is an enlarged lymph node that appears during cases of the plague.

Newborn infants can be infected with Group _______ streptococcus during birth.

7) In the primary stage of syphilis, the initial symptom is a small, painless, reddened ulcer called a ________.

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8) All of the following may result from overgrowth of Clostridium difficile in the large intestine EXCEPT _________. A) large volumes of rice-water stools B) toxic megacolon C) pseudomembranous colitis D) uncomplicated diarrhea

The disease caused by Streptococcus mutans is _________. A) trachoma B) dental decay or caries C) plague D) atypical pneumonia

10) Which etiologic agent is associated with an infection resulting in a copious, frothy, fishysmelling vaginal discharge? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae B) Treponema pallidum C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Gardnerella vaginalis

11)

Which of the following does(do) not always require the presence of living bacteria?

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A) Intoxications B) Food poisoning C) Bacterial diarrhea D) All of the choices are correct.

12)

The exotoxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae _________. A) causes an inflammatory response B) causes the formation of a pseudomembrane on the respiratory mucosa C) may destroy cardiac and kidney tissue D) All of the choices are correct.

13)

Legionella pneumophila may be found in _________. A) soil and aquatic ecosystems B) air-conditioning systems C) shower stalls D) All of the choices are correct.

14)

When in the human body, Legionella pneumophila resides _________. A) in alveolar macrophages B) in alveoli C) in the lower intestinal tract D) in the meninges

15)

Which of the following isnot a major cause of meningitis cases in the United States?

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A) Neisseria meningitides B) Haemophilus influenzae C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

16)

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease? A) Glomerulonephritis B) Rheumatic fever C) Scarlet fever D) Scarlatina

17)

In tuberculosis, when a caseous lesion calcifies, it is called a _________. A) tubercle B) Ghon complex C) tuberculous cavity D) All of the choices are correct.

18)

Which of the following drug(s) is(are) used to treat tuberculosis? A) Isoniazid B) Ethambutol C) Pyrazinamide D) All of the choices are correct.

19)

The causative agent of whooping cough is _________.

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A) Bartonella henselae B) Ehrlichia chaffeensis C) Bordetella pertussis D) Campylobacter jejuni

20)

Which of the following is prevented by a toxoid vaccine? A) Diphtheria B) Whooping cough C) Tetanus D) All of the choices are correct.

21)

Legionnaires' disease is so named because _________. A) it caused a large epidemic among members of the French Foreign Legion B) it was first identified at a convention of the American Legion C) it was a common infection among foot soldiers D) None of the choices are correct.

22)

Mycobacterial infections in AIDS patients are mostly likely to be caused by ________. A) Mycobacterium avium complex B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Mycobacterium bovis D) Mycobacterium africanum

23)

Diphtheria is an acute contagious disease caused by an exotoxin that _________.

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A) functions by inhibiting protein synthesis B) may cause destruction of cardiac, kidney, and nerve tissues C) can be neutralized as a result of immunity produced by the DTaP vaccine D) All of the choices are correct.

24) A sharp reduction in the incidence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b infections is principally due to _________. A) the discovery of new antibiotics B) the development of an effective vaccine C) the elimination of the natural reservoir of H. influenzae D) improvements in sanitary conditions in meat processing plants

25)

Group A streptococci are responsible for _________. A) rheumatic fever B) necrotizing fasciitis C) pharyngitis D) All of the choices are correct.

26)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae _________. A) does not cause pneumonia despite its name B) causes pneumonia more often than Streptococcus pneumoniae C) causes pneumonia only in conjunction with viral activity D) is one of the causes of atypical pneumonia

27)

The natural host(s) for Borrelia burgdorferi is(are) _________.

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A) mosquitoes B) birds C) ticks D) mice and woodrats

28)

The causative agent of bubonic plague is _________. A) Coxiella burnetii B) Ehrlichia chaffeensis C) Yersinia pestis D) Kingella kingae

29)

Which of the following is caused by a member of the rickettsias? A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever B) Q-fever C) Typhoid fever D) All of the choices are correct.

30)

The vector for Rocky Mountain spotted fever is the _________. A) louse B) flea C) tick D) mosquito

31)

Trachoma is transmitted by _________.

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A) contact with inanimate objects B) hand-to-hand contact C) flies D) All of the choices are correct.

32)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae may sometimes cause __________. A) ophthalmia neonatorum B) nongonococcal urethritis C) lymphogranuloma venereum D) scalded skin syndrome

33)

Chlamydia trachomatis causes _________. A) dental caries B) trachoma C) gonococcal urethritis D) trachoma and nongonococcal urethritis

34)

Helicobacter pylori is a principal causative agent of _________. A) human ehrlichiosis B) toxic shock syndrome C) peptic ulcer disease D) gastroenteritis

35)

The pathogen most frequently involved in causing clostridial myonecrosis is _________.

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A) Clostridium septicum B) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium tetani D) Streptococcus pyogenes

36)

Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a skin rash? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Latent

37) Which of the following is important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani? A) Proper care of wounds contaminated with soil B) Prophylactic use of antitoxin C) Administration of penicillin D) All of the choices are important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani.

38) Pathogenic staphylococci inhibit neutrophil chemotaxis, phagocytosis, and the action of vancomycin by the production of _________. A) hemolysins B) slime C) leukocidins D) a capsule

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39) Staphylococci can be divided into pathogenic and relatively nonpathogenic strains based on whether or not they synthesize _________. A) catalase B) coagulase C) leukocidins D) a capsule

40)

Which of the following is not usually involved in the spread of staphylococci? A) Sexual intercourse B) Respiratory secretions C) Hands D) Inanimate objects

41) Staphylococcus epidermidis can be characterized by all of the following except that it _________. A) does not produce coagulase B) is not pigmented C) produces a yellow pigment D) can be associated with nosocomial infections

42)

Leprosy is caused by a microbe of the genus ________.

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A) Chlamydia B) Streptococcus C) Staphylococcus D) Mycobacterium

43) Gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease, is an acute infection of the mucous membranes of the ________. A) genitourinary tract B) conjunctiva C) rectum D) All of the choices are correct.

44)

Pelvic inflammatory disease may result from infection with ________. A) Staphylococcus epidermidis B) Clostridium perfringens C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Mycobacterium leprae

45)

Treatment of gas gangrene may involve _________. A) wound debridement B) antimicrobial therapy with a β-lactam and a macrolide C) amputation D) All of the choices are correct.

46)

An acute infection and inflammation of the dermal layer of the skin is ________.

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A) scarlet fever B) cellulitis C) erysipelas D) pharyngitis

47)

A diffuse, spreading infection of subcutaneous skin tissue is ________. A) erysipelas B) cellulitis C) rheumatic fever D) glomerulonephritis

48)

Cholera is very prevalent in all of the following areas EXCEPT ________. A) Asia B) North America C) Middle East D) Africa

49)

Campylobacter jejuni is commonly found in the intestinal tract of ________. A) chickens B) turkeys C) cattle D) All of the choices are correct.

50) Campylobacter jejuni is transmitted to humans by all of the following EXCEPT _________.

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A) contaminated food and water B) infected animals C) insect vectors D) anal-oral sexual activity

51)

Which of the following is not involved in the transmission of salmonellosis? A) Poultry B) Eggs C) Canned vegetables D) Water

52) Staphylococcal food poisoning is caused by the ingestion of improperly stored or cooked food in which _______ has grown. A) Staphylococcus epidermidis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Staphylococcus pneumoniae D) All of the choices are correct.

53)

Humans acquire typhoid fever by _________. A) sexual activity B) mosquito bites C) inhalation of contaminated dust particles D) ingesting water or food contaminated with feces

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54)

Bacillus anthracis strains can be separated into five categories based on _________. A) spore morphology B) serological assays for lipopolysaccharide variants C) a genetic assay that detects variable numbers of tandem repeats in various genes D) membrane lipid composition as determined by gas chromatography

55)

Humans may contact psittacosis by _________. A) handling infected birds B) inhaling dried excreta of birds C) consuming undercooked chicken D) handling infected birds and the dried excreta of birds

56)

Ornithosis is caused by __________. A) Chlamydophilia psittaci B) Chlamydia trachomatis C) Ureaplasma urealyticum D) Mycoplasma hominis

57)

Q fever is apt to occur in epidemic form among _________. A) farmers B) slaughterhouse workers C) veterinarians D) All of the choices are correct.

58)

The disease anthrax is caused by a species belonging to which genus?

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A) Vibrio B) Kingella C) Ehrlichia D) Bacillus

59)

In humans the most common type of anthrax disease is _________.

A) cutaneous anthrax resulting from the introduction of spores into a break in the skin B) pulmonary anthrax from inhalation of spores attached to dust C) gastrointestinal anthrax resulting from consumption of undercooked food contaminated with spores D) tick borne anthrax resulting from direct introduction of vegetative Bacillus anthracis to the blood stream of a host

60)

Francisella tularensis is transmitted to humans by _________. A) biting arthropods B) direct contact with infected tissue C) inhalation of aerosols D) All of the choices are correct.

61) Two weeks following a hiking trip in which several ticks were noticed and numerous mosquitoes were biting, a 25-year-old man notices a rash shaped like a red ring on the back of his thigh. He was not concerned because he had no other symptoms. Three months later he noticed significant pain in his elbows and his knees. What is the most likely cause of his illness?

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A) West Nile encephalitis B) Lyme disease C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever D) Ehrlichiosis

62)

Which body defense is neutralized by the type III secretion system of Yersinia pestis? A) Phagocytes B) Complement C) TH cells D) Cytotoxic T cells E) Antibodies

63) Rickettsia rickettsii are readily phagocytized by macrophages. Why doesn’t this control the infection and prevent the development of Rocky Mountain spotted fever? A) The bacteria interfere with the development of antibodies B) The bacteria are toxic for T cells and prevent the development of cell-mediated immunity C) The bacteria escape from the phagosome and reproduce in the cytosol of endothelial cells D) The bacteria are unable to inactivate complement

64) If a strain of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is genetically altered such that it no longer has pili, predict how this might affect its virulence.

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A) It will be less able to establish infection because it won't be able to adhere to host tissue B) It will be less able to establish infection because it won’t be able to survive inside phagocytes C) It will be less able to establish infection because it will be more susceptible to host factors such as complement D) It will be better able to establish infection and will be more resistant to antibiotics

65)

What is the predominant symptom of staphylococcal food poisoning? A) Fever B) Vomiting C) Joint aches D) Constipation

66)

A strain of Vibrio cholerae lacking the cholera toxin gene ( ctxAB) would be ________. A) unable to survive outside of the human gut B) unable to adhere to the intestinal epithelium C) unable to cause watery diarrhea D) unable to survive inside the human digestive tract E) All of these choices are correct.

67) A 45-year-old individual living in Arkansas made an appointment with their physician after developing several ulcerative lesions on the hands. They also reported a high fever and swollen axillary lymph nodes. When taking the patient’s medical history, the physician made note of the fact that they had been hunting rabbits a week earlier, regularly drank unpasteurized milk, and had not received any vaccines since childhood. What is the most likely cause of the patient's current symptoms?

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A) Brucellosis B) Anthrax C) Tularemia D) Q fever

68)

What is the target of anthrax protective antigen, edema factor, and lethal factor? A) Endothelial cells lining the capillaries B) Cells lining the alveoli in the lungs C) Neurons D) Macrophages

69) Which of the following contributes significantly to the survival of Coxiella burnetti for long periods in the environment? A) Protective pili B) Endospore-like structure C) Gram-positive cell wall structure D) Polysaccharide capsule

70) Urinary tract infections are caused by bacteria in the nose that are transferred to the ureters by unclean hands. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Antibiotic-associated colitis and bacterial vaginosis result from bacteria that are normal inhabitants of the intestine and vagina, respectively, but their growth is usually inhibited by other bacteria.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Once the initial case has occurred, Legionnaires' disease spreads as a propagated epidemic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Diphtheria exotoxin is made only by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that carry a prophage containing the tox gene. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most prevalent Gram-negative bacterium isolated from pneumonia patients. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75) New cases of tuberculosis are frequently the result of reactivation of old dormant infections. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) Diphtheria is a contagious disease that spreads from person to person mainly by the fecaloral route. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

77) A variety of free-living amoebae and ciliated protozoa are thought to provide a natural reservoir for survival and growth of Legionella spp. in nature. ⊚ ⊚

78)

Lyme disease is spread from human to human by mosquito vectors. ⊚ ⊚

79)

true false

Plague is spread from wild rodents to humans by the bite of an infected tick. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Identity confirmation of Yersinia pestis by advanced laboratory techniques can be carried out in almost any hospital clinical laboratory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Chlamydia trachomatis is the most prevalent single cause of blindness resulting from an infectious agent. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

82) Passage of Vibrio cholerae through the human body results in reduced infectivity for the next human host. ⊚ ⊚

83)

Sepsis and septic shock cannot be categorized under a specific mode of transmission. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Escherichia coli O157:H7 is a major cause of hemorrhagic colitis in the United States. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85) Anthrax is a highly infectious disease of animals that can be transmitted to humans who come in direct contact with infected animals or their products. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Bacterial vaginosis may be the result of transfer from the rectum where the causative organisms usually reside in addition to occurring by means of sexual transmission. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Non-toxin-producing strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae could infect the body but would not cause the typical symptoms of diphtheria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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88) Individuals entering the room of a patient with Legionnaires’ disease should wear a mask to prevent acquiring the disease from exposure to the patient. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89)

Food intoxication usually has a shorter incubation period than food-borne infection. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90)

All strains of Staphylcoccus aureus can produce food poisoning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) Bacteria in biofilms are often more difficult to treat with antibiotics than planktonic bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 38_12e_Willey 1) [A, B, C] 2) Plaque 3) odontopathogens 4) meningitis 5) bubo 6) B 7) chancre 8) A 9) B 10) D 11) D 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) D 26) D Version 1

27) D 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) D 43) D 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) B 48) B 49) D 50) C 51) C 52) B 53) D 54) C 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) B 58) D 59) A 60) D 61) B 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) C 68) D 69) B 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE Version 1

87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE

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CHAPTER 39 – 12e 1) Fungal diseases are usually divided into _______ groups according to the level of infected tissue and the mode of entry into the host.

2) A ________ is a deformity that looks like a tumor that results from a subcutaneous fungal infection.

3) A(n) ________ organism is generally harmless in its normal host but can become pathogenic in a compromised host.

Most systemic mycoses are acquired from _________. A) puncture wounds B) inhaling spores C) insect vectors D) All of the choices are correct.

Some superficial mycoses are called _________. A) sporotrichosis B) tineas C) dermatophytoses D) mycetomas

Which of the following is not caused by a protozoan?

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A) Cryptosporidiosis B) Cryptococcosis C) Both cryptosporidiosis and cryptococcosis D) African sleeping sickness

Which of the following is not true with respect to the organism causing histoplasmosis? A) The fungus grows intracellularly as a facultative parasite. B) The mold form is found in humans. C) It is found worldwide in the soil. D) It produces microconidia and macroconidia.

Dried pigeon droppings are a potential source of infection with ________. A) Coccidioides immitis B) Blastomyces dermatitidis C) Cryptococcus neoformans D) Malassezia furfur

In humans, Cryptococcus grows as a _________. A) mold B) yeast C) dimorphic fungus D) mycelium

10) Which of the following fungi causes valley fever in semi-arid regions of North American?

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A) Coccidioides immitis B) Blastomyces dermatitidis C) Cryptococcus neoformans D) Histoplasma capsulatum

11)

Blastomyces dermatitidis causes _________. A) valley fever B) blastomycosis C) San Joaquin fever D) cryptococcosis

12)

Vaccines are not effective against trypanosomiasis because _________. A) the organisms are never exposed to the immune system B) the organism is only weakly antigenic C) the organism can change its protein coat and thereby evade the immune response D) All of the choices are correct.

13)

Which of the following is known to use tsetse flies as intermediate hosts? A) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense B) Giardia lamblia C) Entameoba histolytica D) Histoplasma capsulatum

14)

African sleeping sickness is caused by _________.

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A) Giardia lamblia B) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense C) Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense D) Histoplasma capsulatum E) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense both cause African sleeping sickness.

15) Diagnosis of the leishmaniasis is based on finding the parasite within infected _________. A) lymphocytes B) macrophages C) eosinophils D) mast cells

16)

Leishmania donovani is the major cause of __________. A) mucocutaneous leishmaniasis B) visceral leishmaniasis C) cutaneous leishmaniasis D) All of the choices are correct.

17) Once inside an erythrocyte, the Plasmodium begins to enlarge as a uninucleate cell called a _________. A) trophozoite B) sporozoite C) merozoite D) schizont

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18) Humans become infected with the malarial parasite when mosquitoes inject ________ into the bloodstream. A) trophozoites B) sporozoites C) merozoites D) schizonts

19)

Human malaria is caused by _______ known species of Plasmodium. A) one B) two C) four D) five E) many

20)

Piedraia hortae causes ________. A) tinea versicolor B) white piedra C) black piedra D) All of the choices are correct.

21)

The yeast Trichosporon beigelii causes ________. A) black piedra B) athlete's foot C) histoplasmosis D) white piedra

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22)

Cutaneous mycoses are called ________. A) dermatomycoses B) ringworms C) tineas D) All of the choices are correct.

23)

Which of the following does not cause cutaneous mycoses? A) Cryptococcus B) Microsporum C) Trichophyton D) Epidermophyton

24)

Which of the following is an oral agent used for treating dermatophytoses? A) AZT B) Itraconazole C) Bacitracin D) Chloroquine

25)

Which of the following is a dermatophytic infection of any part of the skin? A) Tinea barbae B) Tinea capitis C) Tinea corporis D) All of the choices are correct.

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26)

Tinea pedis is _________. A) a beard infection B) an infection of scalp hair C) known as "jock itch" D) known as "athlete's foot"

27)

A dermatophytic infection of the nail bed is ________. A) tinea manum B) tinea unguium C) tinea capitis D) tinea barbae

28) The dermatophytes that cause the subcutaneous mycoses are normal saprophytic inhabitants of _________. A) the digestive system of insects B) the digestive system of humans C) the soil and decaying vegetation D) plants

29)

The most common subcutaneous mycotic disease in the United States is ________. A) maduromycosis B) mycetoma C) sporotrichosis D) cryptococcosis

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30)

Trichomoniasis is a _________. A) disease caused by a flagellate B) sexually transmitted disease C) disease that can be treated with metronidazole D) All of the choices are correct.

31)

Which of the following is not a subcutaneous mycosis? A) Chromoblastomycosis B) Coccidiomycosis C) Maduromycosis D) Sporotrichosis

32) In sporotrichosis the lesions can remain localized or can spread throughout the body; in the latter case it is referred to as _________. A) extracutaneous sporotrichosis B) disseminated sporotrichosis C) systemic sporotrichosis D) fulminating sporotrichosis

33)

Which of the following is not an amoeba?

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A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Acanthamoeba species C) Cryptosporidium species D) Naegleria fowleri

34)

In the intestinal tract, Entamoeba histolytica _________. A) can undergo excystation in the small intestine B) lives as a commensal in the lumen of the intestine C) can invade the host tissue D) All of the choices are correct.

35)

Entamoeba histolytica feeds on _________. A) erythrocytes B) bacteria C) yeasts D) All of the choices are correct.

36)

Which of the following can prevent amebiasis? A) UV light treatment of water B) Avoidance of food or water that might be contaminated with human feces C) Metronidazole D) All of the choices are correct.

37)

Acanthamoeba species _________.

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A) directly invade the central nervous system B) cause encephalitis C) cause keratitis D) All of the choices are correct.

38)

The most common cause of epidemic waterborne diarrheal disease is _________. A) Acanthamoeba B) Naegleria C) Giardia intestinalis D) All of the choices are correct.

39)

Which of the following drugs is(are) used to treat giardiasis? A) Tinidazole B) Nitazoxanide C) Metronidazole D) All of the choices are correct.

40) Removal of Giardia intestinalis from municipal water supplies involves the use of ________. A) rapid sand filters B) slow sand filters C) gamma radiation D) predatory microorganisms

41)

Which of the following produces a highly resistant spore containing a polar tubule?

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A) Pneumocystis B) Microsporidia C) Trypanosoma cruzi D) Cyclosporans

42) Which of the following has emerged as one of the leading organisms responsible for death in AIDS patients? A) Toxoplasma gondii B) Pneumocystis jiroveci C) Acanthamoeba D) Naegleria

43)

Which of the following statements about Pneumocystis jiroveci is true? A) The disease it causes occurs almost exclusively in immunocompromised hosts B) The organism and the disease remains localized in the lungs even in fatal cases C) It causes the alveoli to fill with a frothy exudate D) All of the choices are correct.

44)

The major portal of entry for Aspergillus is the _________. A) gastrointestinal tract B) respiratory tract C) urinary tract D) skin

45)

Pneumocystis pneumonia occurs widely in ________.

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A) immunocompromised hosts B) prisons and military installations C) children D) cattle

46)

Which of the following is/are used to categorize fungal diseases? A) The type of asexual spores formed by the infecting fungus B) The type of sexual spores formed by the infecting fungus C) The route by which the disease becomes established in the host D) The environmental source of the fungi

47) A newly described fungus has been isolated from the lungs of several patients experiencing symptoms of pneumonia. All of these patients have a preexisting immunocompromising condition, including four patients with AIDS and two who have been recipients of organ transplants. The natural habitat of this fungal species is the soil. This fungal disease would most likely be classified as a(an) ________ mycosis. A) superficial B) cutaneous C) subcutaneous D) systemic E) opportunistic

48) Which of the following is most responsible for the increasing challenge of protist infections?

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A) Protists are mutating and gaining virulence factors. B) The size of the susceptible population is growing as the number of patients with immunocompromising conditions is increasing. C) Protists are not always recognized by the host immune response. D) Protists are becoming completely resistant to the drugs used to control them.

49)

Select the statement about coccidioidomycosis that is false.

A) In the United States, coccidioidomycosis is most often encountered in the southwestern states. B) In most infected patients, coccidiodomycosis causes an acute pneumonia characterized by production of large amounts of purulent sputum. C) Coccidioidomycosis is most often acquired by inhalation of the arthroconidia. D) Coccidioidomycosis may disseminate throughout the body in immunocompromised individuals.

50) An American nurse returning from serving in a hospital in the Congo experienced chills, fever, and sweats. The fever cycle peaked about every 48 hours. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis? A) Histoplasmosis B) Leishmaniasis C) African sleeping sickness D) Malaria

51) Which of the following does not occur during the erythrocytic stage of the malarial life cycle?

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A) Sporozoites are produced within erythrocytes and are released by the infected red blood cells. B) The parasites are protected from the host’s immune response. C) The parasite reproduces sexually producing microgametocytes and macrogametocytes. D) The parasite reproduces asexually via schizogony, producing merozoites.

52)

The fever paroxysms of malaria correlate with _________. A) the release of merozoites from infected liver cells during the exoerythrocytic cycle B) the entry of sporozoites into the blood following the bite of an infected mosquito C) the synchronized rupture of infected blood cells and release of merozoites D) the production of gametocytes within infected erythrocytes

53) A rural farm worker is brought to the clinic, experiencing a cluster of nodular skin lesions on their arm. Some lesions have ulcerated. The worker indicates that they frequently get scratches and abrasions on their hands and arms and that the first nodule appeared several weeks after they had removed a sliver. The nodules have been progressing slowly for the past six weeks. What is the most likely infection? A) Necrotizing fasciitis B) Erysipelas C) Subcutaneous mycosis D) Candidiasis

54) A 22-year-old individual is experiencing a malodorous greenish-yellow vaginal discharge. The pH of the discharge is 6. A microscopic exam of a drop of the discharge shows eukaryotic microorganisms with flagella. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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A) Candidiasis B) Trichomoniasis C) Giardiasis D) Bacterial vaginosis E) Sporotrichosis

55) Which of the fungi listed below will stay localized to the skin surface and will not invade and spread? A) Trichophyton spp. B) Candida spp . C) Sporothrix schenckii D) Blastomyces dermatitidis

56) An individual has been treated three times for trichomoniasis, and each time the symptoms disappear for a couple of weeks and then return. The patient indicates that they have been in a monogamous relationship and that their partner has experienced no symptoms. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for their repeated infections? A) The Trichomonas has become resistant to the antimicrobial that was prescribed. B) The individual is allergic to the prescribed antimicrobials. C) The individual has been misdiagnosed and has a yeast infection, which will need a different antimicrobial. D) The individual's partner has an asymptomatic infection and keeps reinfecting them.

57) Several friends returned from a backpacking trip in a nearby state forest area and began to experience bouts of abdominal cramping, flatulence, and severe diarrhea with greasy, fatty stools. What is the most likely cause?

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A) Amebic dysentery B) Giardiasis C) Toxoplasmosis D) Cryptosporidiosis

58) Which protozoan parasite can invade the intestinal wall using a protease enzyme that not only breaks down the wall tissue but also cleave IgA, IgG, and complement components? A) Giardia intestinalis B) Cryptosporidium parvum C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Cyclospora cayetanensis

59) What protozoan parasite is acquired by the oral route but once ingested can readily cross the placenta causing an infection in the fetus that can result in a number of congenital defects? A) Giardia intestinalis B) Toxoplasma gondii C) Cryptosporidium parvum D) Cyclospora cayetanensis

60) Which of the following parasites is the major parasitic cause of deaths worldwide, yet its transmission could be prevented by access to clean water? A) Cyclospora cayetanensis B) Giardia intestinalis C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Cryptosporidium parvum

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61) Thrush in a newborn’s oral cavity becomes less frequent as the infant ages. What is the most likely reason for this? A) The infant begins to produce antifungal antibodies. B) The eruption of the teeth inhibits the growth of yeast. C) The acquisition of normal microbiota prevents the overgrowth of yeast. D) Vaccines given in early infancy prevent the development of thrush.

62) All of the following must be overcome by an opportunistic fungal species as it attempts to establish infection in a new host EXCEPT _________. A) the presence of normal microbiota B) immune factors such as IgA, complement, and white blood cells C) non-optimal pH for fungal growth D) presence of nutrients

63) What virulence factor does Cryptococcus neoformans have in common with most of the bacteria that cause meningitis? A) Adhesive pili B) Capsule C) Toxin production D) Hyaluronidase production E) Superantigen characteristics

64)

Birds carry Histoplasma capsulatum. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

65) Most individuals with histoplasmosis exhibit a hypersensitive state that can be demonstrated by the histoplasmin skin test. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

All species of Leishmania utilize sand flies as intermediate hosts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Diagnosis of malaria is made by demonstrating the presence of parasites within Gramstained erythrocytes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Trichomoniasis is frequently asymptomatic in males but seldom is asymptomatic in females. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Candida albicans is normally found in the vagina but does not usually cause disease because the acidic pH created by the lactobacilli prevents their overgrowth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) As the population ages and the number of immunocompromised individuals increase, the number of serious fungal and protist infections is decreasing.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

71) The fungal diseases that are acquired via the airborne route typically stay localized to the lungs, causing pneumonia. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72) The ability of dermatophytes to grow on the skin surface and cause superficial mycoses is related to their ability to metabolize keratin. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73) Men rarely become infected with Trichomonas vaginalis because the male reproductive tract lacks the appropriate receptors and has a pH unfavorable for Trichomonas. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 39_12e_Willey 1) five 2) mycetoma 3) opportunistic 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) E 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) C 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) B 37) D 38) C 39) D 40) B 41) B 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) C 47) E 48) B 49) B 50) D 51) A 52) C 53) C 54) B 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) B 58) C 59) B 60) C 61) C 62) D 63) B 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE

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CHAPTER 40 – 12e 1) A food spoilage process called ________ results in the release of foul-smelling amine compounds.

Microorganisms that grow in media with low water availability are called _______.

3) If food-borne disease transmission does not require growth of the microorganism after ingestion because the toxic substances are already present in the food as a result of previous growth, then it is referred to as a food _______.

4) If food-borne disease transmission requires ingestion of the pathogen, followed by growth of the organism, and release of toxins in the intestine it is referred to as a food-borne _______.

_______ is produced through mixed acid fermentation and emits a very pleasant smell.

6) Sequential growth of microorganisms in which the growth of one organism produces environmental conditions suitable for the subsequent growth of another organism is called _______.

7) In breadmaking, yeast growth is usually carried out under _______ conditions, which results in more carbon dioxide production and less alcohol accumulation.

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Which soybean product utilizesRhizopus spp. for fermentation?

Fumonisin _________. A) is a contaminant that can cause esophageal cancer in humans B) is a food additive that blocks the growth of some Gram-positive bacteria C) is a bacteriocin produced by some strains of Lactococcus lactis D) All of the choices are correct.

10) The use of plastic film to wrap meat products can result in increased surface growth of microorganisms in part because of exposure to _________. A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) carbon dioxide D) water

11)

Lysozyme is an important antimicrobial substance found at high levels in which food? A) Fish B) Eggs C) Vegetables D) Fruits

12)

Which of the following can function better at lower pH?

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A) Yeasts and molds B) Bacteria C) Viruses D) Protozoa

13)

The first person to use heating processes to preserve foods was _________. A) Louis Pasteur B) Jacque Monod C) Robert Koch D) Nicholas Appert

14)

Which of the following represents ways in which canned foods may undergo spoilage? A) Spoilage before canning B) As a result of underprocessing during canning C) Leakage of contaminated water through can seams during cooling D) All of the choices are correct.

15)

A chemical that is effective in preserving foods with a low pH such as bread is ________. A) sodium propionate B) sodium nitrate C) sodium citrate D) sodium sulfite

16) Gamma irradiation has been used to sterilize certain types of foods. There are, however, certain limitations on its effectiveness. One of these is that it will only work on _________.

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A) moist foods B) dry foods C) foods that are not in metal cans D) It is effective with all foods.

17)

Which of the following helps preserve foods by controlling microbial access to water? A) Drying B) Addition of salt C) Addition of sugar D) All of the choices are correct.

18)

Pasteurization of milk _________. A) is no longer used for food processing in the United States B) usually eliminates all disease-causing organisms C) is a method for sterilization of food items D) reduces microbial growth by decreasing availability of water

19)

A major chemical used to preserve meat products is ________. A) ethylene oxide B) propionate C) nitrite D) refrigeration

20)

Which of the following represents a different principle for food preservation?

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A) Freeze-drying B) Addition of salt C) Addition of sugar D) Heating

21)

The term radappertization is used to describe food preservation by _________. A) heat B) chemicals C) UV irradiation D) gamma irradiation

22) The swelling of a food-containing can is frequently due to the production of _______ by spoilage microbes. A) oxygen gas B) nitrogen gas C) carbon dioxide gas D) All of the choices are correct.

23) The conventional low-temperature holding procedure used in the pasteurization of milk involves holding the milk at 62.8oC for _______ minutes. A) 5 B) 15 C) 30 D) 60

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24) To control microbial growth in a food, one can decrease water availability by the addition of ________. A) sugar or salt B) gelatin C) agar D) formaldehyde

25)

A major fungal genus that produces aflatoxin is _________. A) Rhizopus B) Aspergillus C) Claviceps D) Penicillium

26) Aflatoxins are planar, ringed compounds that interact with DNA by _______ and cause frameshift mutations. A) substitution B) rearrangement C) deletion D) intercalation

27) Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus cereus are important disease-causing microorganisms of food that cause _________. A) infections B) intoxications C) cancers D) birth defects

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28)

A major organism considered to cause food-borne infection is _________. A) Salmonella B) Staphylococcus C) Pseudomonas D) Bacillus

29) One of the largest meat recall in U.S. history was prompted by the discovery of contamination by _________. A) Listeria monocytogenes B) Clostridium botulinum C) Escherichia coli D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

30)

Food-borne pathogens are most commonly identified by _________. A) polymerase chain reaction (PCR) B) standard culture techniques C) pulsed-field gel electrophoresis D) None of the choices are correct.

31)

The process of racking, used in the production of wines, involves _________.

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A) depressurizing bottles B) addition of sulfites C) addition of carbon dioxide D) removal of sediments

32) The production of natural carbon dioxide by yeasts after a wine is bottled results in ________. A) sweet wine B) dry wine C) champagne D) brandy

33)

The process of beer lagering involves _________. A) carbonation B) aging C) distillation D) None of the choices are correct.

34) A microorganism that has been used in the production of sour mash whiskey is _________. A) Leuconostoc mesenteroides B) Lactobacillus delbrueckii C) Lactococcus lactis D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

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35) Bread products can be spoiled by the growth of Bacillus species that produce _________. A) gassy doughs B) nonrising breads C) ropiness D) sourdough bread

36)

Mashing is a process involving _________. A) carbonation B) protein putrefaction C) inoculation D) carbohydrate hydrolysis

37)

Which of the following determines whether or not a wine is considered to be dry? A) The percentage of alcohol after fermentation B) The amount of free sugar after fermentation C) The amount of carbon dioxide after fermentation D) The type of grape used as a starting material

38) Which of the following microbial genera is used in the production of fermented dairy products? A) Streptococcus B) Lactobacillus C) Leuconostoc D) All of the choices are correct.

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39)

The science of wine production is called ________. A) enology B) rheology C) horology D) eurology

40) Your roommate made potato salad and then let it sit on the counter overnight, forgetting to refrigerate it. When your roommate discovered it in the morning, they asked you whether you thought it would be safe to eat. How should you reply? A) Yes, as long as the roommate refrigerates it now, since the cold will kill the microorganisms. B) Yes, as long as the roommate refrigerates it now, since the cold will slow the growth of any contaminating microorganisms. C) No, because refrigeration will not inactivate microbial toxins that may have been produced while the salad sat at room temperature. D) Yes, as long as the roommate refrigerates it now, because any toxins produced will be destroyed by refrigeration. E) Yes, as long as the roommate refrigerates it now, since the cold will stop microbial growth and inactivate toxins.

41) You may have noticed that the prepackaged deli meats you purchase in the refrigerated section of the grocery store seem to last longer than the same meats purchased freshly sliced from the deli counter. You are puzzled because the meats are identical and you expect the products at the deli to be fresher. What is the primary reason the prepackaged meats last longer?

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A) The prepackaged meats are typically sprayed with bacteriophage to prevent the growth of Listeria monocytogenes, which typically causes spoilage. B) The prepackaged meats are stored at a much colder temperature than the deli case. C) The prepackaged meats are not handled by the deli workers. D) The prepackaged meats have modified atmosphere packaging that has excluded oxygen gas, which would promote the growth of spoilage organisms.

42)

All of the following are responsible for food safety EXCEPT _______. A) the grower/producer B) the wholesaler C) the trucker D) the retailer E) the preparer/server F) the consumer G) There are no exceptions here. All parties listed are responsible.

43) Which of the following is most often used as a starter culture for the production of cheese? A) Aspergillus species B) Lactobacillus species C) Rennet species D) S accharomyces species

44)

Preservation of fermented meat products is accomplished by _________.

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A) the lower pH B) pasteurization C) the lower water activity D) the lower pH and lower water activity E) All of these choices are correct.

45)

Why aren't foods tested for every potential pathogen before sale? A) Tests do not exist for all potential pathogens B) The practice is cost-prohibitive C) Product would spoil in the time it takes to complete testing D) All products are tested for all potential pathogens before sale.

46)

Which of the following is a nucleic acid-based method used to test foods for pathogens? A) Whole-genome sequencing B) Real-time PCR C) Multiplex PCR D) All of the options listed are nucleic acid-based methods of testing food for pathogens.

47) Which of the following is a fermented food item not commonly eaten in the United States? A) Gari B) Green olives C) Sauerkraut D) Coffee

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48) Which of the following applies to the proper way to clean, store, and transport chicken as a food supply? A) Scalding in water at 60 degrees Celsius. B) Cooling in water at 25 degrees Celsius. C) Soaking in water at 4 degrees Celsius. D) Soaking in an ice water bath at 10 degrees Celsius.

49) Temperature and relative humidity are important intrinsic factors in determining the rate of food spoilage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

50) Filtration is sometimes used to remove organisms from beer because it has less effect on the flavor than pasteurization. ⊚ ⊚

51)

true false

Growth of yeasts and molds will be favored in more acidic foods. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) Atmosphere is important in food spoilage; high H2S tends to reduce spoilage, while high CO2 tends to increase spoilage. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

53) Staphylococcus aureus, once it grows in a food, produces toxins that are not usually inactivated by heating. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis can be used to link a particular pathogen associated with disease outbreaks in a specific food source. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus contribute to the flavor of yogurt by producing diacetyl during the fermentation of lactose. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) In all cases, pathogens must be actively growing in food in order to transmit disease to humans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Freezing food is an excellent preservation method because freezing readily kills most if not all microorganisms contaminating the food. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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58)

The spoilage of most food during transport is related to canned goods. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 40_12e_Willey 1) putrefaction 2) xerophilic 3) intoxication 4) infection 5) Silage 6) succession 7) oxic 8) tempeh 9) A 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) D 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) G 43) B 44) D 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

57) FALSE 58) FALSE

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CHAPTER 41 – 12e 1)

In many ways, _______ as a biofuel compares very favorably to ethanol and other fuels.

2) Stirred fermenters can range in size from 3 liters to over ______ liters or larger, depending on production requirements.

3) Molecules produced by a cell that are not directly related to the synthesis of cell materials and that are usually produced after the growth phase has ended are called __________ __________.

4) A plasmid from the plant pathogenic bacterium ________ ________ is chiefly responsible for the successful genetic engineering of plants.

5) _______ are formed by certain bacteria that convert iron to magnetite; these structures are of interest to _______ because they are perfectly formed despite the fact that they are only tens of nanometers in diameter.

Penicillin is produced by some _________. A) bacteria B) fungi C) actinomycetes D) protozoan

Most antibiotics are produced by _________.

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A) unicellular bacteria B) Streptomyces C) yeasts D) protozoa

8) Phenylacetic acid is added to the penicillin fermentation to allow incorporation of which side chain group? A) Acetyl B) Benzyl C) Methyl D) Propyl

The ______ lactose is often used as a substrate for penicillin production. A) monosaccharide B) disaccharide C) trisaccharide D) more complex molecule

10) Corynebacterium glutamicum is used for the large scale industrial production of _________. A) vitamin B1 B) antibiotics C) amino acids D) polysaccharides

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11) Corynebacterium glutamicum is used to produce glutamic acid, and this is most successful when the cell permeability is _______. A) increased B) decreased C) not changed D) isotonic

12)

An amino acid that is used as a supplement for breads is _________. A) leucine B) aspartate C) proline D) lysine

13)

The major organism used in the microbial production of citric acid is _________. A) Penicillium notatum B) Rhizopus nigrificans C) Aspergillus niger D) Lactobacillus delbrueckii

14)

Most biopolymers industrially produced by means of microorganisms are _________. A) cell wall constituents B) nucleic acids C) histones D) polysaccharides

15)

Microbially produced glycolipid surfactants are used for _________.

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A) emulsification and increasing detergency, which aids in biodegradability B) solubilization of hydrophobic compounds, which enhances cleanup and recovery of oil from spills C) prevention or reduction of microbial growth on surfaces, decreasing transmission of disease D) both emulsification and increasing detergency and solubilization of hydrophobic compounds E) both emulsification and increasing detergency and prevention or reduction of microbial growth on surfaces

16) Which of the following is a reason why bioconversions are replacing chemical synthesis of certain compounds? A) Bioconversions facilitate the scaling up of reactions. B) Enzymes catalysts are not destroyed in the bioconversion process. C) Bioconversions yield specific and biologically active stereoisomers. D) Enzyme catalyzed reactions in the bioconversion process proceed much more rapidly.

17) The most commonly used substrate for the production of ethanol for use in fuel comes from which plant source? A) Algae B) Crop residue C) Corn D) Rice

18) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using corn to manufacture ethanol as a fuel additive?

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A) Use of corn as a fuel source drives up the cost of grain worldwide. B) Ethanol absorbs water and would thus corrode fuel pipelines used in transport. C) Ethanol contains far less energy than other fuels. D) All of the choices are correct.

19)

Which fuel contains more potential energy per unit weight than gasoline? A) Ethanol derived from corn B) Ethanol derived from algae C) Hydrogen D) None of these contain more energy per weight unit than gasoline.

20) Which is the key component in the process of successfully going from small-scale fermentation to large-scale industrial fermentation? A) The scale-up process B) Developing a suitable culture media C) Success in producing one liter of product D) Finding the right organism to repeatedly produce one liter of product

21) Frequently a critical component in the medium, often the carbon source, is added ________ so that the microorganisms will not have excess substrate available at any given time. A) sporadically B) continuously C) gradually D) None of these choices are correct.

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22)

Primary metabolites _________.

A) include compounds such as antibiotics and mycotoxins B) include bacteriocins and other similar cytotoxic compounds C) are compounds related to the synthesis of microbial cells in the primary growth phase D) are compounds that accumulate during the period after primary growth phase and have no direct relationship to the synthesis of cell materials

23) The first penicillin-producing fungus that could be grown in stirred fermenters was _________. A) Penicillium notatum B) Aspergillus niger C) Penicillium chrysogenum D) Pisolithus tinctorius

24)

A major organism used in the biocontrol of a variety of types of insects is _________. A) Bacillus subtilis B) Bacillus thuringiensis C) Clostridium botulinum D) Bacillus cereus

25) The Ti plasmid has been genetically engineered to improve its utility as a cloning vector by all of the following EXCEPT _________. A) elements found in other vectors, such as selectable markers and multicloning sites have been added B) genes responsible for resisting infection with B. thuringiensis have been added C) nonessential regions, including tumor-inducing genes, have been deleted D) genes required for the actual infection of the plant cell by the plasmid are retained

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26)

Which of the following is an advantage of using Bt to control insects?

A) Bt does not accumulate in the soil or in nontarget animals. B) Bt is easily degraded in the natural environment. C) It is a rather new agent, being only a few years old, so insects have not had time to develop resistance. D) Two of these are useful traits for the safe use of Bt to control insects.

27)

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using Bt to control insects?

A) Bt does not accumulate in the soil or in nontarget animals. B) Bt is easily degraded in the natural environment. C) The toxin can only be activated in target insects so it is nontoxic to mammals. D) Though not well documented it is possible for horizontal gene flow to introduce Bt genes into other plants.

28)

Biosensors involve linking which of the following with electronic circuitry?

A) Microorganisms B) Gene chips C) Microbially derived enzymes D) Both microorganisms and gene chips are used with electronic circuitry. E) Both microorganisms and microbially derived enzymes are used with electronic circuitry. F) Both gene chips and microbially derived enzymes are used with electronic circuitry.

29)

What percentage of pesticides is derived fromBacillus thuringiensis?

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A) 75 B) 80 C) 70 D) 85

30) Production of semisynthetic penicillins involves chemical modification of a penicillin product after it has been released from penicillin-producing cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

31) Although a small fraction of the citric acid used in the food and beverage industry is produced by microbial fermentation, most industrially used citric acid is derived directly from citrus fruit. ⊚ ⊚

true false

32) Use of microbial enzymes for bioconversion reactions is preferred because alternative chemical synthesis requires harsh manufacturing conditions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

33)

To industrial microbiologists, fermentation means the mass culture of microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

34) To ensure maximum production of desired metabolites, it is always necessary to maintain organisms in active logarithmic growth.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

35) Diatom shells are of use to nanotechnologists because they build precise, intricate threedimensional structures in large quantity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) Biosensors can be used to measure the concentration of substances in many different environments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) There are severe and adverse affects that come from introducing Bt toxins (cry genes) into genetically engineered plants. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 41_12e_Willey 1) hydrogen 2) [100, 000] 3) secondary metabolites 4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens 5) [Magnetosomes, nanotechnologists] 6) B 7) B 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) D Version 1

27) D 28) E 29) A 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE

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CHAPTER 42 – 12e 1) Microbial fuel cells are an emerging technology whereby _______ are donated to an anode during heterotrophic bacterial respiration.

Removal of environmental pollutants using microorganisms is called _______.

Cryptosporidium is an important waterborne pathogen. This organism is a _________. A) virus B) bacterium C) fungus D) protozoan

Potable water _________. A) requires boiling to make it safe to drink B) is not suitable for human consumption C) is suitable for human consumption D) requires chemical or biological treatment to remove heavy metals

Coagulation and filtration reduce virus levels about _________. A) 50–60% B) 65–75% C) 75–80% D) 90–99%

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Methods used to remove or destroy viruses from drinking water include _________. A) coagulation and filtration B) chemical oxidation and high pH C) photooxidation D) All of these choices are correct.

What is the target threshold to meet EPA maximum containment level goals? A) 100% inactivation of microbes present B) 99.9% inactivation of microbes present C) 90% inactivation of microbes present D) At least 50% inactivation of microbes present

8) Coliforms and fecal coliforms are often differentiated based on their responses to _________. A) temperature B) salinity C) pressure D) heavy metals

9) Fecal coliforms are useful indicator organisms for the contamination of water by _________. A) agricultural fertilizer runoff B) sewage C) phosphates D) All of these choices are correct.

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10)

The presence-absence test is a modification of which test? A) Membrane filter B) MPN C) Virus plaque assay D) None of these choices are correct.

11) In the testing of water for coliforms, the presumptive test involves detection of __________. A) gas production in a lactose broth medium B) sheen production on a selective medium C) a gram-negative nonspore-forming rod D) All of these choices are correct.

12)

Primary treatment of sewage involves the use of which type of process? A) Biological removal of dissolved organic matter B) Physical/chemical removal of insoluble particulate materials C) Biological removal of inorganic nutrients D) Virus removal/inactivation

13)

Secondary treatment of sewage involves the use of which type of process?

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A) Biological removal of dissolved organic matter B) Physical/chemical removal of insoluble particulate materials C) Biological removal of inorganic nutrients D) Virus removal/inactivation

14) Through secondary treatment _______ ________ is formed once the growth a microbes is complete. A) anaerobic sludge B) acidified sludge C) granular sludge D) building sludge

15)

Activated sludge is used in which sewage treatment step? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) All of these choices are correct.

16) Sewage treatment that involves horizontal flow in an agitated aeration tank is referred to as _________. A) lagooning B) activated sludge treatment C) trickling filter processing D) endogenous respiration

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17)

Which of the following is not an advantage of anaerobic sludge digestion? A) Most of the biomass produced aerobically is used for methane production. B) The remaining sludge can be dried easily before disposal. C) Heavy metals are concentrated in the sludge. D) All of these choices are correct.

18) In the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) test, the factor that should limit biological activity is _________. A) nitrogen B) phosphorus C) oxygen D) carbon

19) Which of the following contributes to the removal of organic material in home sewage treatment system leach fields? A) Aerobic digestion B) Adsorption of organic material C) Entrapment of microbes D) All of these choices are correct.

20)

Which causes the most stress to overloaded municipal wastewater plants? A) Population growth associated with increased volume delivered to the plant B) Global warming C) Too many people who flush prescription drugs down the toilet D) Antibiotic resistant bacteria in the system

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21)

In a microbial fuel cell, why are the organisms fed a rich diet of organic substrates?

A) The organic substrates ensure that the cells remain in log phase of the growth curve. B) The organic substrates ensure that very little biosysnthesis is completed to maximize the amount of substrate being oxidized instead. C) The organic substrates ensure that waste products are kept to a minimum. D) The organic substrates ensure that sufficient ATP is produced to drive the reaction.

22)

Which of these would not be a suitable use of microbial fuel cells? A) Use of unwanted organics leaching from landfills to power fuel cells. B) Fuel cells used to power equipment left in the field for long periods of time. C) Use in developing countries lacking in widespread power grids. D) All of these are suitable uses of microbial fuel cells.

23) Why are contaminants such as TCEs and PCBs so difficult to remove using traditional methods? A) They are so volatile they escape into the atmosphere so they're impossible to contain B) They naturally degrade into harmless forms that cannot be distinguished from the natural chemical makeup of the environment C) They are too toxic to be safely handled D) They easily adsorb onto organic matter in the environment

24) Biodegradation of oil in soil is difficult due to a lack of ______, which is very expensive to introduce into the sediments.

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A) nitrogen B) phosphorous C) oxygen D) carbon

25) The enhancement of the degradation of recalcitrant compounds by the addition of an easily metabolized carbon source such as glucose is called ________. A) spiking B) cometabolism C) balancing D) Such enhancement does not occur.

26)

Reductive dehalogenation occurs via ______. A) hydrogenolysis B) dihaloelimination C) both hydrogenolysis and dihaloelimination D) neither hydrogenolysis or dihaloelimination

27) Rapid sand filtration, used in many water purification plants, is sufficient to ensure that Giardia will be consistently removed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

28) Cryptosporidium has recently become of concern because it is hard to remove from water supplies.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

29) Canada geese have become a major source of Giardia and Cryptosporidium contamination of soil and fresh water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

30) Indicator organisms are added to drinking water to test whether the purification process is being carried out effectively. ⊚ ⊚

31)

true false

Chlorination alone will usually suffice to inactivate viruses present in drinking water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

32) Potable water is unfit for consumption or recreation because of the high levels of microbial contaminants present. ⊚ ⊚

33)

true false

All coliforms can grow at 44.5°C. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

34) Fecal enterococci are increasingly being used as an indicator of fecal contamination in brackish and marine water because they die at a faster rate than fecal coliforms thus providing a more reliable indicator of pollution. ⊚ ⊚

true false

35) The membrane filter technique can be used in all waters and has completely replaced the MPN technique. ⊚ ⊚

true false

36) Molecular techniques using 16S rRNA gene targeted primers are now used routinely to detect coliforms in water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

37) In the total organic carbon (TOC) test, microorganisms are used to measure the levels of carbon in a water sample. ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) The biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) test is primarily a measure of carbon demand and should not include nitrogen oxidation demand. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

39)

A septic tank will function effectively without a leach field. ⊚ ⊚

40)

true false

If a leach field floods it becomes anoxic and effective treatment ceases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

41) Purification of waters while generating power and providing energy for monitoring environmental processes is an application of microbial fuel cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

42) Reductive dehalogenation involves the removal of halogens, like chlorine or fluorine, while adding electrons at the same time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) It is usually beneficial to add nitrogen when one attempts to stimulate hydrocarbon degradation in the ocean. ⊚ ⊚

44)

true false

Water reuse is the purification of wastewater so that it can serve as drinking water.

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⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 42_12e_Willey 1) electrons 2) bioremediation 3) D 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) D 24) C 25) B 26) C Version 1

27) FALSE 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) FALSE 31) FALSE 32) FALSE 33) FALSE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE

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