TEST BANK for Psychology 6th Edition by Saundra K. Ciccarelli J. Noland White by StudyGuide

TEST BANK FOR PSYCHOLOGY 6TH EDITION BY SAUNDRA K.CICCARELLI J. NOLAND WHITE ISBN-10: 013521243X ISBN-13: 9780135212431

TABLE OF CONTENTS

1. The Science of Psychology 2. The Biological Perspective 3. Sensation and Perception 4. Consciousness 5. Learning 6. Memory 7. Cognition: Thinking, Intelligence, and Language 8. Development Across the Life Span 9. Motivation and Emotion 10. Sexuality and Gender 11. Stress and Health 12. Social Psychology 13. Theories of Personality 14. Psychological Disorders 15. Psychological Therapies

Name Chapter 1 – Quick Quiz 1 1. The goals of psychology are to . a) explore the conscious and unconscious functions of the human mind b) understand, compare, and analyze human behavior c) improve psychological well-being in all individuals from birth until death d) describe, explain, predict, and control behavior 2.

was an early proponent of functionalism. a) Ivan Pavlov c) Wilhelm Wundt b) William James d) Max Wertheimer

3. Freud said phobias were a) learned; inherited b) repressed conflicts; learned

, whereas Watson said phobias were c) sexual; unconscious d) conditioned; unconditioned

4. Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization? a) psychoanalysis c) cognitive perspective b) humanism d) behaviorism 5. The class is playing a game of Jeopardy! and it is your turn. “I’ll take Specialties in Psychology for $300.” The revealed answer is, “These psychological professionals work with situations in which environmental conditions may have an impact on mental health.” What will you say? a) “What is a neuropsychologist?” b) “What is a forensic psychologist?” c) “What is a psychiatric social worker?” d) “What is a developmental psychologist?” 6. When you watch dogs play in the park or watch how your professors conduct their classes, you are engaging in a form of . a) case study research c) survey research b) naturalistic observation d) psychometric study 7. A detailed description of a particular individual being studied or treated is called a a) representative sample c) single-blind study b) case study d) naturalistic observation

8. A negative correlation means that . a) high values of one variable are associated with low values of the other b) high values of one variable are associated with high values of the other c) low values of one variable are associated with low values of the other d) there is no relationship between the two variables 9.

is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group, but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group. a) The double-blind study c) The single-blind study b) Field research d) Correlational research

10. Experimenters can justify the use of deception because . a) there is informed consent c) it may be necessary for the experiment to work b) research is more important than people d) it is not that harmful

Chapter 1 – Quick Quiz 1

Answer Key 1.

Explanation: These goals adequately help uncover the mysteries of behavior. (Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach, Skill Level: Remember the Facts, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach, APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology.)

Explanation: William James was a functionalist. (Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James, Skill Level: Remember the Facts, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology, APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains.)

Explanation: Freud studied repressed conflict and Watson studied observable behavior. (Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism, Skill Level: Analyze It, Difficulty Level: Moderate, Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism, APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains.)

Explanation: The humanistic perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization. (Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives, Skill Level: Remember the Facts, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology, APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology.)

Explanation: Psychiatric social workers work with people in conditions of poverty or other types of environmental situations leading to mental disorders. (Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization, Skill Level: Apply What You Know, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology, APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology.)

Explanation: In naturalistic observation, you are just watching—that is, observing. (Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods, Skill Level: Apply What You Know, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior, APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.)

Explanation: A case study involves a detailed description of a particular individual. (Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods, Skill Level: Remember the Facts, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior, APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.)

Explanation: A negative correlation means that high values of one variable are associated with low values of the other. (Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships, Skill Level: Remember the Facts, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables, APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology.)

Explanation: The single-blind study is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group, but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group. (Topic: 1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects, Skill Level: Remember the Facts, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects, APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.)

10.

Explanation: Deception is justified if the study wouldn’t work any other way. (Topic: 1.11 The Guidelines for Doing Research with People, Skill Level: Analyze It, Difficulty Level: Moderate, Learning Objective: 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people, APA Learning Objective: 3.1 Apply ethical standards to evaluate psychological science and practice.)

Name Chapter 1 – Quick Quiz 2 1. The question “What is happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology? a) description c) prediction b) explanation d) control 2.

claimed that behavior is affected by reinforcement. a) William James c) B. F. Skinner b) Sigmund Freud d) Wilhelm Wundt

3. Dr. Ramos contends that humans are intelligent species due to the fact that intelligence gives us an advantage in the natural world. Dr. Ramos likely agrees with the theory of psychology. a) psychoanalytic c) cognitive b) behavioral d) evolutionary 4. “Children who watch violent cartoons will become more aggressive.” According to the scientific method, this statement is most likely a . a) conclusion c) hypothesis b) result d) fact 5. Which research method involves watching behaviors as they occur without intervening or altering the behaviors in any way? a) case study c) correlational studies b) experiment d) naturalistic observation 6. A(n)

is a measure of how strongly two variables are related to one another. a) independent variable c) experimental effect b) dependent variable d) correlation

7. Maricella has always been drawn to the saying “Absence makes the heart grow fonder,” and she decides to incorporate this saying into her research project. Maricella is trying to define absence in a way that can be empirically tested. She is attempting to find an appropriate . a) hypothesis c) double-blind study b) operationalization d) theory 8. A good control group . a) contains at least one confound b) has a limited number of dependent variables c) has a limited number of research participants d) holds constant all variables in the experiment 9. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The manipulated variable is called the . a) dependent variable c) independent variable b) experimental variable d) placebo 10. “There is no life outside this solar system and nothing you can say will change that fact!” Which criterion of critical thinking does this person lack? a) Evidence is only necessary if it can be tested. b) All evidence is not equal in quality. c) Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true. d) Critical thinking requires an open mind.

Chapter 1 – Quick Quiz 2

Answer Key 1.

Explanation: Asking “what” means asking for a description. (Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach, Skill Level: Understand the Concepts, Difficulty Level; Moderate, Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach, APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains.)

Explanation: Skinner believed that behavior that is followed by good consequences is reinforced. (Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives, Skill Level: Remember the Facts, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology, APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains.)

Explanation: Survival advantage is a basic premise of evolutionary psychology. (Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives, Skill Level: Analyze It, Difficulty Level: Moderate, Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology, APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology.)

Explanation: This statement is an educated guess about the effects of violent cartoons. (Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach, Skill Level: Apply What You Know, Difficulty Level: Moderate, Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach, APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains.)

Explanation: Naturalistic observation involves watching behaviors without intervening. (Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods, Skill Level: Remember the Facts, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior, APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.)

Explanation: A correlation measures how strongly two variables are related. (Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships, Skill Level: Remember the Facts, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables, APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains.)

Explanation: Operationalization defines terms in ways that render them measurable. (Topic: 1.9 The Experiment, Skill Level: Apply What You Know, Difficulty Level: Moderate, Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment, APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.)

Explanation: A control group is used as a baseline of comparison, so all variables should be held as constant as possible to avoid any confounds. (Topic: 1.9 The Experiment, Skill Level: Understand the Concepts, Difficulty Level: Moderate, Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment, APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.)

Explanation: The name for the variable that is manipulated in any experiment is the independent variable. (Topic: 1.9 The Experiment, Skill Level: Understand the Concepts, Difficulty Level: Easy, Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment, APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.)

10. d

Explanation: The statement implies narrowness of thinking and, thus, the lack of an open mind. (Topic: 1.5 Thinking Critically About Critical Thinking, Skill Level: Apply What You Know, Difficulty: Moderate, Learning Objective: 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives, APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology.)

The Science of Psychology

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of these is the most accurate definition of the discipline of psychology? a) the scientific study of behavior b) the scientific study of mental processes c) the scientific study of behavior and mental processes Correct. d) the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes Incorrect. The definition of psychology also includes animal behavior and mental processes. Answer: c Learning Objective: None Topic: 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 66 a= 2 b=1 c= 66 d= 32 r = .37 APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 2. In the definition of psychology, the term mental processes refers to . a) internal, covert activities Correct. b) outward behavior c) overt actions and reactions Incorrect. Overt means outward, not internal. d) only animal behavior Answer: a Learning Objective: None Topic: 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 85 a= 85 b= 1 c= 13 d= 1 r = .39 APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 3. You are at a basketball game and the arena is packed; the crowd is evenly split between fans of the two teams. At one point, the referee makes a call. Half of the fans yell insults; the other half shout their approval. The event reminds you of the topic of today’s lecture in psychology class. What was the likely topic of the lecture? a) bias Correct. b) experiments Incorrect. The fans are not part of any treatment groups. c) psychoanalysis d) extraneous variables Answer: a Learning Objective: None Topic: 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology Difficulty Level: Moderate

Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 4. Hunter is a fan of the Boston Celtics basketball team. With little provocation, he will engage his friends in a debate about whether it is the greatest team in basketball. Hunter may be demonstrating . a) bias Correct. b) critical thinking Incorrect. Critical thinking requires an open mind. c) an eclectic approach d) unconscious behavior Answer: a Learning Objective: None Topic: 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 5. The general curiosity about why people think, feel, and behave the way they do . a) primarily happened after World War II b) is about a century old c) is several centuries old Incorrect. These curiosities are probably much older than centuries, and have always been with us. d) has always probably been with us Correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: None Topic: 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 6. In 1879, in Leipzig, Germany, the first psychological laboratory was overseen by . a) William James b) William Tell c) Wilhelm Wundt Correct. d) Sigmund Freud Incorrect. Freud’s theory came later, and he had no lab. Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 88 a= 7 b= 1 c= 88 d= 4 r = .23 % correct 100 a= 0 b= 0 c= 100 d= 0 r = .00 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 7. Early in psychology’s history, research participants might have been asked to view a chair and describe its color, shape, and texture and other aspects of their conscious experience. These individuals would have been using a method called . a) hypnosis b) objective introspection

Correct. c) psychosurgery d) psychoanalysis Incorrect. Psychoanalysis was not concerned with these issues. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 8. Objective introspection required . a) metaphysical experiences b) self-skepticism about experiences c) empiricism Incorrect. Empiricism refers to using collected data to support a hypothesis. It is not related to the concept of introspection d) reflection on the self Correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 9. At the close of the nineteenth century, Gerhard is excited to learn that he has been accepted for training in the psychology laboratory of Wilhelm Wundt. It is likely that Gerhard will be trained to . a) analyze how to break down his sensations into their most basic elements Correct. b) determine the function or purpose of a particular human behavior c) listen intently while individuals tell him of their depression or nervousness Incorrect. Wundt was not a therapist. d) carefully feel the bumps on a person’s head in order to determine his or her character traits Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 10. The school of psychology known as structuralism used a technique called , which involved reporting the contents of consciousness to study a person’s experiences. a) intervention Incorrect. Intervention has a totally different meaning than introspection, even though it looks similar. b) objective introspection Correct. This requires self-examination of the structure of the mind. c) insight inventory d) induction Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 96 a= 0 b= 96 c= 4 d= 0 r = .24

% correct 92 a= 1 b= 92 c= 3 d= 4 r = .29 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 11. Which of the following is the BEST analogy for Wundt’s and Titchener’s mission for psychology? a) a chart listing the basic chemical elements Correct. They wanted to break down the mind into basic elements. b) a list of the courses required for graduation c) a list of the types of clothing sold at a retail outlet d) a computer program for word processing a term paper Incorrect. A computer program does not have basic elements. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 12. The structuralists were important in the history of psychology because they . a) examined consciousness and the structure of mental processes Correct. The structuralists were interested in understanding the basic structure of human consciousness. b) were the first to use brain-scanning techniques to learn about the structure of the brain c) realized the limits of introspection and focused on the function of behaviors d) were strongly influenced by Charles Darwin Incorrect. This would be a statement applicable to the functionalists, not the structuralists. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 13. Why was the perspective followed by Wilhelm Wundt and his followers called structuralism? a) They wanted to identify the major brain structures. b) Their primary goal was to understand the physiology of the mind. Incorrect. It was the structure of thought, not physiology. c) They focused their efforts on analyzing the elements of the nervous system. d) Their primary focus was on describing the structure of conscious experience. Correct. Structure was key in the definition. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Understand the Concepts % correct 48 a= 30 b= 19 c= 4 d= 48 r = .18 % correct 59 a= 13 b= 24 c= 3 d= 59 r = .37 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 14.

was an early proponent of functionalism. a) Ivan Pavlov b) William James Correct. James was a functionalist. c) Wilhelm Wundt Incorrect. Wundt was a structuralist. d) Max Wertheimer Answer: b

Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 100 a= 0 b= 100 c= 0 d= 0 r = .00 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 15. How our minds help us adapt to the world around us was a primary question addressed by which early movement of psychology? a) behaviorism b) cognitivism c) functionalism Correct. The functionalists were interested in determining the purpose of human consciousness, or how it helped us with our everyday lives. d) structuralism Incorrect. The structuralists were interested in determining the structure, or basic makeup, of human consciousness. Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 16. If an individual believed that why people think and feel as they do is more important than what they think and how they think, that individual would be a proponent of the approach to psychology. a) structuralist Incorrect. The structuralists were interested in determining the structure, or basic makeup, of human consciousness. b) functionalist Correct. The functionalists were interested in determining the purpose of human consciousness, or how it helped us with our everyday lives. c) psychodynamic d) behaviorist Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 17. If a functionalist from the 1870s were alive today, where would we most likely find him? a) in a laboratory, studying principles of perception b) in a school, working to improve teaching methods Correct. Functionalists applied research to actual problems. c) in a mountain retreat, contemplating the meaning of life d) in a sleep laboratory, trying to determine if our need for sleep is biologically based Incorrect. This would be considered pure research. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 18. Which psychologist was the first African American to receive a Ph.D. in educational psychology in 1925? a) Charles Henry Thompson

Correct. Charles Henry Thompson earned his Ph.D. in educational psychology in 1925 at the University of Chicago, the first African American to receive this degree in the United States. b) Linus Pauling Incorrect. The correct individual was Thompson, not Pauling. c) Albert Sidney Beckham d) Inez Beverly Prosser Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 19. While Margaret F. Washburn was the first woman to receive a Ph.D. in psychology in the United States (in 1894), the first African American woman to do so was in 1934 at the University of Minnesota. a) Inez Beverly Prosser b) Ruth Howard Correct. Howard was the first woman of color to receive the doctorate in psychology in the United States. c) Margaret Mahler d) Anna Freud Incorrect. Anna Freud did not do her studies in the United States. The correct answer is Ruth Howard. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 20. Which noted African American psychologist held a post as president of Shaw University in North Carolina and then president of Virginia State College? a) Charles Henry Thompson b) Howard Hale Long Incorrect. The correct psychologist referred to in this question is Robert Prentiss Daniel. c) Robert Prentiss Daniel Correct. This is the individual referred to in the question. d) Albert Sidney Beckham Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 21. Which type of early psychologist believed that “the whole is more than the sum of its parts”? a) Gestaltist Correct. The Gestaltists studied the perception of wholes. b) behaviorist c) structuralist Incorrect. Structuralists focused on the elements of consciousness. d) functionalist Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate

Skill Level: Understand the Concepts % correct 68 a= 68 b= 4 c= 19 d= 9 r = .39 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 22. “The whole is greater than the sum of its parts” is a statement associated with the perspective of . a) introspection b) functionalism c) psychoanalysis Incorrect. Psychoanalysis was concerned with unconsciousness, not “wholes.” d) Gestalt psychologists Correct. “The whole is greater than the sum of its parts” was the theme of the Gestaltists. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Understand the Concepts % correct 55 a= 14 b= 21 c= 11 d= 55 r = .43 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 23. While on a visit to a large city, you observe several billboards in which a series of lights seems to move. Which perspective in psychology would most likely help you understand this phenomenon? a) Gestalt Correct. Gestaltists focused on perception of wholes. b) behavioral c) humanistic d) psychodynamic Incorrect. This theory focused on the unconscious. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 24. Gestalt psychology attempted to discover . a) how the mind helped people adapt to the world b) the overall patterns of perceptions and thoughts Correct. Gestalt psychologists looked at larger wholes, rather than individual parts. c) the basic building blocks of consciousness Incorrect. This would be an emphasis of structuralists, not Gestalt psychologists. d) the unconscious motivations for human functioning Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 25. The early perspective called Gestalt psychology has evolved into what current perspective? a) psychoanalysis b) cognitive psychology

Correct. Gestalt psychology is now part of cognitive psychology, which focuses on perception as well as learning, memory, and thought processes. c) behavioral psychology Incorrect. This area of psychology only focuses on observable behavior. d) social psychology Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Analyze It % correct 63 a= 13 b= 63 c= 15 d= 9 r = .32 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 26. The belief that the unconscious mind has an influence on one’s behavior is part of what early field of psychology? a) structuralism Incorrect. Structuralism does not examine the unconscious. b) functionalism c) psychoanalysis Correct. The unconscious is a major component of psychoanalysis. d) behaviorism Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Understand the Concepts % correct 56 a= 7 b= 9 c= 56 d= 27 r = .37 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 27. What did Sigmund Freud consider to be the key to understanding the nervous disorders he observed? a) free will b) brain physiology Incorrect. There was no physical cause to the problems patients had. c) the unconscious mind Correct. Freud’s entire theory centered on the unconscious. d) external consequences Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 88 a= 1 b= 6 c= 88 d= 4 r = .42 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 28. The class is playing a game of Jeopardy! and it is your turn. “I’ll take Pioneers in Psychology for $100.” The revealed answer is “Focused on unconscious factors.” Just before the buzzer sounds, what will you say? a) “Who is B. F. Skinner?” Incorrect. Skinner rejected the unconscious. b) “Who are the humanists?” c) “Who is Sigmund Freud?” Correct. Freud based his entire theory on the unconscious. d) “Who are the behaviorists?”

Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 29. Freud stressed the importance of . a) early childhood experiences Correct. Freud believed personality was formed in the first 6 years of life. b) adolescence Incorrect. Freud stressed the first 6 years. c) early adulthood d) middle adulthood Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 79 a= 79 b= 14 c= 5 d= 2 r = .24 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 30. According to Freud, repressed unconscious urges . a) are able to be suppressed b) only pertain to sex Incorrect. Freud also felt that unconscious urges were related to aggressive impulses. c) can surface and create nervous disorders Correct. Freud believed that unconscious urges could not stay completely unconscious indefinitely, and that they would be expressed in one way or another. d) have no impact on everyday life Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 31. The work of Freud was built around a . a) theory of personality that emphasizes the awareness of one’s own cognitive processes b) theory of personality that emphasizes unconscious motives and conflicts Correct. Unconscious motives and conflicts are the essential elements of psychoanalysis. c) method of psychotherapy in which an observer carefully records and interprets behavior without interfering with the behavior Incorrect. Psychoanalysts don’t necessarily refrain from directing behavior. d) method of psychotherapy that emphasizes how maladaptive behaviors are learned through imitations of others and through cognitive expectations Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate

Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 32. Which treatment approach did Sigmund Freud develop for treating his patients? a) drug therapy b) neuropsychology c) clinical psychology Incorrect. This was not a discipline yet. d) psychoanalysis Correct. It fit with his assumptions about the mind. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 90 a= 0 b= 6 c= 4 d= 90 r = .29 % correct 85 a= 4 b= 7 c= 4 d= 85 r = .30 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 33. Which type of psychologist would be most likely to argue that a criminal engages in unlawful behavior because he grew up around older boys who engaged in criminal activities? a) Gestaltist b) behavioralist Correct. This theory focused on learned behavior. c) psychodynamic Incorrect. This theory focused on unconscious influences. d) functionalist Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 34. John B. Watson believed that psychology should involve the study of . a) behavior Correct. He thought that a focus on observable behavior was the most scientific method of study. b) the mind c) the brain d) consciousness Incorrect. This was not observable. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 74 a= 74 b= 6 c= 7 d= 12 r = .33 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 35. The school of behaviorism attempted to explain behavior by studying a) the reasons people give for their behaviors b) the specific personality traits that lead to behavior

c) how a specific stimulus evokes a specific response Correct. This relationship, called a stimulus–response association, is one of the major foundations of behaviorism. d) the purposes of people’s behavior Incorrect. This would be the focus of functionalism, not behaviorism. Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 36. Which of the following advice might John B. Watson have offered to psychologists of his time? a) “Focus on observable behavior.” Correct. Behaviorism was founded on the study of observable behavior. b) “Life is an effort to overcome inferiority.” c) “We cannot know others until we know ourselves.” Incorrect. Watson only studied what he observed. d) “Remember that what we accomplish is due to the composition of our genes.” Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 75 a= 75 b= 6 c= 14 d= 3 r = .38 % correct 78 a= 78 b= 3 c= 16 d= 3 r = .34 APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 37. The Russian physiologist Ivan Pavlov discovered that dogs would salivate to the sound of a ticking metronome due to . a) habituation Incorrect. Conditioning, not habituation, is the correct answer. b) reflexology c) a learned reflexive response called conditioning Correct. Dogs would salivate due to conditioning. d) their fear response Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 38. Summer has noticed that when her alarm clock goes off in the morning, her dog, Alfie, is standing by her bed salivating. This is because she immediately rolls out of bed and feeds Alfie, who very much enjoys his canned dog food. It is likely that Summer has conditioned Alfie to . a) enjoy canned dog food Incorrect. Alfie’s enjoyment of dog food would be an unconditioned response, not a conditioned response. b) sleep next to her bed c) salivate over canned dog food d) salivate to the sound of her alarm clock Correct. Alfie has learned to associate the sound of the alarm clock with being fed.

Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 39. Pavlov’s research demonstrated that . a) involuntary reaction (salivation) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (sound of a bell) Correct. This is true based on his research of conditioning. b) an unrelated stimulus (salivation) could occur in response to an involuntary reaction (sound of a bell) Incorrect. The involuntary reaction is salivation and the unrelated stimulus is the sound of the bell. c) involuntary reaction (sound of a bell) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (food) d) an unrelated stimulus (food) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (barking) Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 86 a= 86 b= 6 c= 8 d= 0 r = .43 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 40. According to Freud, phobias were ; according to Watson, phobias were . a) learned; inherited b) repressed conflicts; learned Correct. Freud studied repressed conflict and Watson studied observable behavior. c) sexual; unconscious Incorrect. Watson did not believe in the unconscious. d) conditioned; unconditioned Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 41. Which pair of scientists shared the most similar views of behavior? a) William James and Wilhelm Wundt Incorrect. One was a functionalist and the other was a structuralist. b) B. F. Skinner and Max Wertheimer c) Ivan Pavlov and John B. Watson Correct. They used conditioning in their theories. d) Carl Rogers and Edward Titchener Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Analyze It % correct 46 a= 31 b= 19 c= 46 d= 5 r = .28 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains.

42. Which founding contributors to psychology helped develop behaviorism? a) Gestalt and Wundt b) Freud and Watson Incorrect. Freud was a psychoanalyst. c) Watson and Pavlov Correct. They contributed to behaviorism. d) Pavlov and Wundt Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 78 a= 6 b= 10 c= 78 d= 7 r = .49 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 43. Suppose you were a graduate student studying for a Ph.D. in psychology in the 1920s. Your advisor was strongly influenced by John B. Watson. Which of the following might your advisor consider an acceptable choice for your research? a) a survey of daydreams b) an analysis of how specific behaviors are acquired Correct. Watson believed observable behavior should be the focus of study. c) a survey of sexual imagery in dreams of men and women d) an analysis of the thought processes students report while answering test items Incorrect. You cannot observe thought processes. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 81 a=7 b= 81 c=3 d= 7 r = .45 APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 44. The psychodynamic perspective was based on the work of . a) Watson Incorrect. Watson was a behaviorist. b) Wundt c) Gestalt d) Freud Correct. Freud developed the psychodynamic theory. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 62 a= 23 b= 2 c= 12 d= 62 r = .42 % correct 55 a= 10 b= 21 c= 14 d= 55 r = .38 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 45. Professor Wallis approaches questions about human behavior from a perspective that emphasizes unconscious processes within the individual, such as inner forces or conflicts. It is most likely that she accepts which of the following psychological approaches?

a) social-cognitive learning b) behaviorism c) the cognitive approach Incorrect. The cognitive approach focuses on how people think, remember, and store information, not on the unconscious. d) the psychodynamic approach Correct. The psychodynamic approach emphasizes unconscious dynamics. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 46. Who claimed that behavior is affected by reinforcement? a) William James b) Sigmund Freud Incorrect. Freud did not emphasize positive reinforcement. c) B. F. Skinner Correct. Skinner believed that behavior that is followed by good consequences is reinforced. d) Wilhelm Wundt Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 77 a= 11 b= 4 c= 77 d= 8 r = .40 % correct 66 a= 23 b= 6 c= 66 d= 3 r = .36 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 47. You attend a lecture by a psychologist who uses terms such as free will and self-actualization. Which psychological perspective is most consistent with the points the psychologist presented? a) behaviorism Incorrect. This perspective does not involve free will or human nature. b) humanism Correct. This perspective suggests people have many choices. c) functionalism d) psychodynamics Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 48. Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization? a) psychoanalysis Incorrect. This theory does not acknowledge free will. b) humanistic perspective Correct. Humanistic theory focuses on free will and self-actualization. c) cognitive perspective d) behaviorism Answer: b

Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 77 a= 2 b= 77 c= 10 d= 15 r = .33 APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 49. According to humanist Abraham Maslow, when people reach self-actualization, they . a) develop to their fullest potential Correct. When a person has become everything he or she is capable of, the person has become self-actualized, according to Maslow. b) avoid negative consequences of behavior c) seek maximum reward for all their behaviors Incorrect. This would be a theoretical suggestion of a behaviorist, not a humanist. d) learn from their mistakes and move on Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 50. In the early part of the past century, psychologists who broke down thought processes into their basic elements and analyzed them were called structuralists. What term might we use to describe psychologists with similar interests today? a) Gestalt Incorrect. Gestaltists were not involved in breaking down thought processes into basic elements. b) cognitive Correct. The cognitive perspective focuses on breaking down thought processes. c) behavioral d) humanistic Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 51. Cognitive neuroscientists can examine the brain with tools such as . a) electrolysis and PET b) PET, MRI, and fMRI Correct. These are all discussed in the text and used by cognitive neuroscientists. c) MRI and electrolysis d) Gamma images and electrolysis Incorrect. PET and MRI is the right answer. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 52. The emerging field of brain imagery in cognitive neuroscience has developed methods such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to examine .

a) images and activity of the living brain Correct. MRI and PET take images of a living brain for analysis. b) biopsies of the brain of a cadaver Incorrect. Biopsies are not taken by an MRI. c) select biopsied portions of a brain d) acute time of death in stroke patients Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 53. If you are interested in how patterns, beliefs, and customs influence behavior, you are interested in the perspective. a) behavioral b) sociocultural Correct. This approach focuses on social environment. c) psychodynamic d) cognitive Incorrect. This approach focuses on individual thought processes, not groups of people. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 66 a= 20 b= 66 c= 5 d= 10 r = .22 % correct 73 a= 17 b= 73 c= 2 d= 6 r = .28 APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 54. Eloise just had her purse stolen while walking down Fifth Avenue in New York City, which is a very busy part of Manhattan. She screamed loudly, and several people looked in her direction, but nobody stopped walking or made an attempt to help. She immediately broke down in tears and trembled for 10 minutes until she could walk to her car. Eloise’s experience is an example of . a) democracy b) the bystander effect Correct. This example would support this concept as nobody immediately helped despite being a heavily populated area. c) diffusion of effects Incorrect. The diffusion of responsibility could also be a correct answer, but not diffusion of effects. d) flaws in the judicial system Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 55. Jake’s car broke down and smoke started rising from the engine. He felt lucky to have broken down while parked in the center of town during lunch hour, when many people were outside and could help. However, 30 minutes has passed and despite the heavily populated area, nobody has offered assistance. Jake’s experience is an example of the .

a) zeitgeist b) behaviorist effect c) bystander effect Correct. This example would support the effect because of the principle of diffusion of responsibility. d) self-serving prophecy Incorrect. This concept is not discussed in the text. Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 56. In studying the bystander effect, a researcher is interested in looking at differences between prison guards in China and the United Kingdom. The researcher is taking a(n) perspective in this cross-cultural study. a) Eurocentric b) egocentric c) culturio Incorrect. This is not a real term or a concept discussed in the text. d) sociocultural Correct. The researcher is looking at cultures from a sociocultural perspective. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.5 Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry. 57. Darley and Latané (1968) theorized that the presence of other people in a distressing situation decreased the likelihood that someone would receive help due to . a) diffusion of anonymity Incorrect. Diffusion of responsibility is the correct choice. b) diffusion of responsibility Correct. When others are around, individuals have been found to believe that help is not needed and that another person will help. c) flaws in laws protecting Good Samaritans d) timeliness of onset Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 58. Professor Chen approaches questions about human behavior from a perspective that emphasizes bodily events and chemicals, such as hormones, associated with behavior. She most likely accepts which of the following psychological approaches? a) biopsychological Correct. The biopsychological perspective looks at the relationship between body chemistry and behavior. b) learning c) cognitive d) sociocultural

Incorrect. The sociocultural perspective focuses on culture and sociology, not biology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 91 a= 91 b= 2 c= 6 d= 1 r = .49 % correct 93 a= 93 b= 0 c= 0 d= 7 r = .56 APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 59. The field of biopsychology is part of the larger discipline of , which refers to the study of the physical structure, function, and development of the nervous system. a) neuroscience Correct. This is the proper definition of neuroscience. b) behavioral genetics c) sociobiology d) medicine Incorrect. The field of medicine is related to biopsychology, but this is not the best answer. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 60. Dr. Vaughan is a psychologist who tries to understand how people select their mates. She must be a(n) psychologist. a) behavioral b) cognitive c) evolutionary Correct. Evolutionary psychologists look at how human mate selection evolved. d) biopsychological Incorrect. Mate preference is an evolutionary issue. Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 61. Evolutionary psychology might suggest that certain cognitive strategies and goals are built into the brain because . a) they help humans adapt to their natural environment Correct. Adaptation and survival are the basic tenets of evolutionary theory. b) human brains are similar to the brains of the higher primates c) they are the result of learning that has taken place over many centuries Incorrect. In fact, evolutionary theory does not allow for the idea that learned behaviors can become genetically passed from generation to generation. d) they are the result of memories we have inherited from our ancestors Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Difficult

Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 62. Dr. Guerrero probably agrees with the theory of psychology, since he contends that humans are intelligent species due to the fact that intelligence gives us an advantage in the natural world. a) psychoanalytic b) behavioral c) cognitive Incorrect. Cognitive psychology does not address concepts such as advantages in the natural world. The best answer to this question is evolutionary psychology. d) evolutionary Correct. Survival advantage is a basic premise of evolutionary psychology. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 63. Which of the following statements concerning the field of psychology is correct? a) A psychologist has no medical training. Correct. Psychologists do not go to medical school; they go to graduate school. b) A psychiatrist generally goes to graduate school, not medical school. c) Psychiatric social workers can prescribe medication. Incorrect. Although the word psychiatric is in their title, they cannot prescribe medication since they don’t go to medical school. d) An M.D. and a Ph.D. are pretty much the same thing. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 22 a= 22 b=35 c= 36 d= 8 r = .24 APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology. 64. Dr. Turner has been treating a child with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. He decides to write a prescription for Ritalin. Given this information, it is most likely that Dr. Turner is a . a) psychiatrist Correct. Psychiatrists are medical doctors and can write prescriptions. b) psychoanalyst c) humanistic psychologist Incorrect. This type of psychologist would never write a prescription for Ritalin. d) school psychologist Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 71 a= 71 b= 8 c= 11 d= 10 r = .33 APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 65. A person who has suffered a major stroke and is now experiencing severe personality problems because of the damage would BEST be advised to see a .

a) psychiatrist Correct. A psychiatrist has a medical degree, and the problem appears to be a medical one. b) cognitive psychologist c) psychiatric social worker Incorrect. Social workers have no medical training. d) psychologist Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 37 a= 37 b= 37 c= 5 d= 21 r = .27 APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 66. Malik has a master’s degree and is interested in working on the causes of poverty. What type of professional is Malik most likely to become? a) educational psychologist b) psychiatrist c) school psychologist Incorrect. A school psychologist would focus on educational issues, not on poverty. d) psychiatric social worker Correct. A psychiatric social worker usually has a master’s in social work and focuses on social issues, such as poverty. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 67. Ashlee is a single mother living in a project in a poor section of the city. She has addiction issues and just lost custody of her three children. What type of mental health professional is most likely to get involved in Ashlee’s situation? a) educational psychologist b) psychiatrist Incorrect. A psychiatrist focuses on issues that are severe and often require medical training. c) psychiatric social worker Correct. A psychiatric social worker works with people in conditions of poverty or other types of environmental situations leading to mental disorder. d) counselor Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 68. The class is playing a game of Jeopardy! and it is your turn. “I’ll take Specialties in Psychology for $300.” The revealed answer is, “These psychological professionals work with situations in which environmental conditions may have an impact on mental health.” Just before the buzzer sounds, what will you say? a) “What is a neuropsychologist?” Incorrect. These psychologists work on brain issues.

b) “What is a forensic psychologist?” c) “What is a psychiatric social worker?” Correct. Psychiatric social workers work with people in conditions of poverty or other types of environmental situations leading to mental disorder. d) “What is a developmental psychologist?” Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 69. On a popular podcast, an actor describes the symptoms of anxiety he has been experiencing. He reports that the severity of the symptoms has decreased since he has been taking a drug prescribed by his therapist back in Hollywood. You conclude that the actor’s therapist is probably a . a) podiatrist b) psychiatrist Correct. Prescribing drugs is usually done by a psychiatrist (except in some states). c) clinical psychologist Incorrect. For the most part, clinical psychologists cannot write prescriptions. d) counseling psychologist Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 73 a= 0 b= 73 c= 25 d= 2 r = .33 % correct 67 a= 0 b= 67 c= 32 d= 1 r = .39 APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 70. In the statement “Critical thinking requires reasoned judgments,” the word reasoned means . a) giving it a lot of thought Incorrect. Quantity is only part of the characteristics of critical thinking. b) logical and well thought out Correct. Critical thinking requires logic as well as organized thinking. c) seeing one side of an argument very clearly d) focusing on opinion Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Topic: 1.5 Thinking Critically About Critical Thinking Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Analyze It % correct 90 a= 3 b= 90 c= 4 d= 3 r = .21 APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology. 71. Critical thinking means making judgments based on a) emotion b) keeping a closed mind c) reason and logical evaluation Correct. Reason and logic are necessary to think critically. d) authority and expertise Incorrect. Authorities are often wrong. Answer: c

Learning Objective: 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Topic: 1.5 Thinking Critically About Critical Thinking Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Understand the Concepts % correct 98 a= 0 b= 2 c= 98 d= 0 r = .43 APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology. 72. Several years ago, two scientists announced that they had evidence of “cold fusion” in the laboratory, but further studies failed to replicate their findings, and it was later found that the original scientists had used sloppy methods. This highlights which of the following critical thinking principles? a) Few “truths” do not need to be tested. b) All evidence is not equal in quality. Correct. The “so-called” evidence of cold fusion was not very solid, due to sloppy methodology. c) Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true. d) Critical thinking requires an open mind. Incorrect. The cold fusion issue was about evidence, not open-mindedness. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Topic: 1.5 Thinking Critically About Critical Thinking Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 42 a= 7 b= 42 c= 45 d= 6 r = .25 APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 73. The CEO of a large automobile company says the cars the company makes are safe despite the fact that they lead the country in accidents due to faulty equipment. This discrepancy highlights which of the following critical thinking principles? a) Few “truths” do not need to be tested. Incorrect. The question is focusing on the CEO’s authority rather than on what he is saying. b) All evidence is not equal in quality. c) Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true. Correct. In this case, the authority has a motivation to lie or mislead, and cannot be trusted, especially if the evidence belies his statement. d) Critical thinking requires an open mind. Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Topic: 1.5 Thinking Critically About Critical Thinking Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 66 a= 5 b= 24 c= 66 d= 5 r = .30 APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 74. “There is no life outside this solar system, and nothing you can say will change that fact!” Which criterion of critical thinking does the person who made this statement lack? a) Evidence is only necessary if it can be tested. Incorrect. The statement is not a criterion for critical thinking. b) All evidence is not equal in quality. c) Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true. d) Critical thinking requires an open mind. Correct. The statement implies narrowness of thinking and, thus, the lack of an open mind. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Topic: 1.5 Thinking Critically About Critical Thinking

Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 75.

is a system used for reducing bias and error in the measurement of data. a) Statistics b) The scientific approach Correct. The scientific approach systematically controls variables reducing bias and error. c) Checks and balances d) The double-blind method Incorrect. This is a method for reducing bias but is not involved in measuring data. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 33 a= 14 b= 33 c= 7 d= 47 r = .22 % correct 57 a= 3 b= 57 c= 3 d= 37 r = .23 APA Learning Objective: 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena.

76. The goals of psychology are to . a) explore the conscious and unconscious functions of the human mind b) understand, compare, and analyze human behavior Incorrect. Human behavior is only one part of psychology. c) improve psychological well-being in all individuals from birth until death d) describe, explain, predict, and control behavior Correct. These adequately help uncover the mysteries of behavior. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 40 a= 17 b=39 c= 3 d= 40 r = .35 % correct 96 a= 4 b= 0 c= 0 d= 96 r = .54 APA Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology; 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 77. Misaki was sent to the school psychologist to be tested. Based on her IQ scores, it was decided that she would do well in the gifted child program. This is an example of which goal of psychology? a) describing behavior b) explaining behavior Incorrect. Explaining focuses on why it is happening. c) predicting behavior Correct. Misaki’s score served as a predictor (“would do well”) of performance. d) controlling behavior Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 76 a= 8 b= 7 c= 76 d= 9 r = .20 % correct 80 a= 6 b=5 c= 80 d= 9 r = .21 APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology.

78. In addition to describing and explaining mental processes and behavior, psychology also attempts to these phenomena. a) predict and control Correct. These are two of the four goals of psychology. b) analyze and manipulate c) categorize and organize Incorrect. These are not mentioned by your authors as being goals of psychology. d) synthesize and regulate Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena. 79. Dr. Fitzgerald, a psychologist, is interested in finding out why identical twins have different personalities. She is most interested in the goal of . a) description Incorrect. “Why” does not describe; it explains. b) explanation Correct. “Why” asks for an explanation. c) prediction d) control Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 92 a= 2 b= 92 c= 4 d= 2 r = .24 APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena. 80. A teacher tells the school psychologist that Billie is late to class, does not turn in her homework, squirms around a lot in her seat, and swings her feet constantly. This is an example of which goal of psychology? a) describing behavior Correct. We only know WHAT she is doing. b) explaining behavior Incorrect. Explaining focuses on why it is happening, not what is happening. c) predicting behavior d) controlling behavior Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 85 a= 85 b= 14 c= 0 d= 0 r = .34 APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena. 81. The question “What is happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology? a) description Correct. Asking “what” means asking for a description. b) explanation

Incorrect. Explanation goes beyond “what.” c) prediction d) control Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Understand the Concepts % correct 64 a= 64 b= 28 c= 8 d= 1 r = .21 APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena. 82. The question “Why is it happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology? a) description Incorrect. Describing does not answer the question why. b) explanation Correct. Asking “why” calls for an explanation. c) prediction d) control Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Understand the Concepts % correct 90 a= 6 b= 90 c= 4 d= 0 r = .20 APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena. 83. The question “When will it happen again?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology? a) description b) explanation Incorrect. Explanation deals with the present. c) prediction Correct. Prediction deals with future events. d) control Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Understand the Concepts % correct 92 a= 0 b= 4 c= 92 d= 4 r = .36 APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena. 84. The question “How can it be changed?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology? a) description b) explanation Incorrect. Explanation deals with the present, while control deals with the future. c) prediction d) control Correct. Control deals with changing future events. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy

Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena. 85. Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of . a) description b) explanation Incorrect. The test is predicting, not explaining. c) prediction Correct. The test predicts behavior. d) control Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 83 a= 7 b=41 c= 83 d= 7 r = .29 APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena. 86. The first step in any scientific investigation is . a) forming the hypothesis Incorrect. This step follows the development of a question to test. b) perceiving the question Correct. This is the first step in any scientific investigation. c) coming to a conclusion d) developing an argument Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 79 a= 19 b= 79 c= 0 d= 2 r = .43 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 87. Perceiving the question is the first step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology? a) describing Correct. The question comes from observing a situation and asking “What is happening?” This is a description. b) explaining Incorrect. Perceiving the question comes from an observation and description. Explaining comes after the experiment. c) predicting d) changing Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Analyze It % correct 34 a= 34 b= 12 c= 53 d= 1 r = .29 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 88. “Children who watch violent cartoons will become more aggressive.” According to the scientific method, this statement is most likely a .

a) conclusion b) result c) hypothesis Correct. This statement is an educated guess about the effects of violent cartoons. d) fact Incorrect. This is merely a testable statement about the effects of violent cartoons on children’s behavior. Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 89. Forming a hypothesis is the second step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from two goals of psychology—description and . a) control Incorrect. Forming a hypothesis, or an educated guess, is not related to controlling a behavior. b) explanation Correct. Forming a hypothesis attempts to explain the question you are asking. c) predicting d) changing Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 90. Hanna proposes the idea that one’s sexual history prior to marriage may be linked to whether one ends up getting divorced. This best represents which step of the scientific method? a) testing the hypothesis b) observing events Incorrect. The speculation regarding the correct answer to this research question is called forming a hypothesis. c) forming a hypothesis Correct. Forming a hypothesis involves making an educated guess as to the answer to a research question. d) formulating a theory Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 91. After reading about the possible causes of schizophrenia, a scientist thinks that a virus is the most likely cause. What term most accurately describes the scientist’s idea? a) hypothesis Correct. A hypothesis is an “educated guess” based on solid information. b) dependent variable c) extraneous variable d) experimental estimate Incorrect. Experimental estimate is not a valid term used in science.

Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 94 a= 94 b= 1 c= 4 d= 2 r = .31 % correct 95 a= 95 b= 1 c= 2 d= 1 r = .41 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 92. The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called . a) the principle of falsifiability Incorrect. The principle of falsifiability refers to the idea that a proper research question must be capable of being disproven. b) confirmation bias Correct. Confirmation bias is the tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief. c) criterion validity d) volunteer bias Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 93. Testing a hypothesis is the third step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology? a) description Incorrect. Description comes from observing a situation and asking “What is happening?” b) explanation Correct. Testing a hypothesis attempts to explain the question you are asking. c) prediction d) control Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 94. What is one of the major reasons that psychologists report results publicly? a) to comply with legal requirements Incorrect. There are no legal requirements to report results publicly. b) to identify all the extraneous variables c) to allow researchers to replicate experiments Correct. Public reporting of results allows others to test the conclusions. d) to explain research results so that non-psychologists can understand them Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Understand the Concepts % correct 96 a= 4 b= 0 c= 96 d= 0 r = .23 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.

95. Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of . a) educational knowledge b) replication Correct. Others must know what was done so they can repeat the procedure and make sure everything was done correctly. c) finding a better way to support the hypothesis Incorrect. Complete reporting of methods is mainly for replication, not just finding support of the hypothesis. d) publication Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 96. Which of the following is an empirical question? a) “Would Martin Luther King, Jr., have been a good president?” Incorrect. This question cannot be answered through experimentation, observation, or measurement. b) “What is the meaning of life?” c) “Was the Civil War necessary?” d) “Is there life on other planets?” Correct. This question can be answered through observation, experimentation, and measurements. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 97. Which of the following statements is true about naturalistic observation? a) It re-creates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid. Incorrect. Naturalistic observation does not involve re-creating anything. b) It involves observing behavior in its natural context. Correct. Naturalistic observation does involve observing behavior in its natural context. c) It is basically the same process as objective introspection. d) It involves observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experimental findings. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 89 a= 7 b= 89 c= 2 d= 3 r = .45 % correct 88 a= 5 b= 88 c= 4 d= 4 r = .37 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 98. Ramesh went to McDonald’s to observe people eating in fast-food restaurants. He brought a camera crew and bright lights, and they all wore yellow jump suits. Ramesh said he wanted to do a naturalistic observation but may have had some problems because of . a) room crowding b) observer effects Correct. Ramesh’s equipment and crew would have made all the people very aware that they were being observed, thus affecting their behavior.

c) participant observation Incorrect. Ramesh was not participating in the eating behavior. d) eating McDonald’s food Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 99. Observing behavior as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the . a) naturalistic observation method Correct. Naturalistic observation entails observing behavior as it happens in real-life settings without imposing laboratory controls. b) experimental method c) survey method Incorrect. Surveys involve asking questions, not observing behavior. d) psychometric approach Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 97 a= 97 b= 2 c= 1 d= 0 r = .25 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 100. Systematically collecting data in real-world environments is the essence of which descriptive research method? a) case studies Incorrect. A case study is an in-depth analysis of one particular case or individual. b) naturalistic observation Correct. Naturalistic observation involves observing behaviors as they take place in the real-world setting. c) surveys d) correlational research Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 101. Which research method involves watching behaviors as they occur without intervening or altering the behaviors in any way? a) case study Incorrect. Case studies involve interacting with subjects, not just watching them, in order to get as much information about them as possible. b) experiment c) correlational studies d) naturalistic observation Correct. Naturalistic observation involves watching behaviors without intervening. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Easy

Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 96 a= 1 b= 1 c= 2 d= 96 r = .33 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 102. When you watch dogs play in the park, or watch how your professors conduct their classes, you are engaging in a form of . a) case study research Incorrect. Case study research follows one person closely for a long period of time. b) naturalistic observation Correct. In naturalistic observation, you are just watching—that is, observing. c) survey research d) psychometric study Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 96 a= 2 b= 96 c= 1 d= 1 r = .20 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 103. Dexter conducted a naturalistic observation as a project for a psychology class. He observed the interactions of parents and children at a restaurant. Many of the people he observed seemed to notice him. When Dexter described his work to his teacher, she suggested he find out more about the effect. a) restaurant b) parent c) butterfly Incorrect. There is no psychological concept known as the butterfly effect. d) observer Correct. In noticing Dexter, the parents may have realized they were being observed, which might have affected their behavior due to the observer effect. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 104. Dr. Sutton-Smith is conducting research in Kenya into the ways that mothers and their toddlers interact throughout the day. Given the purpose of her study, it is most likely that she is engaged in . a) naturalistic observation Correct. Naturalistic observation involves observing and describing, which is what the doctor seeks to do. b) laboratory observation c) case study research Incorrect. Case study research focuses on one subject at a time and involves more than simple observation and description. d) experimental research Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.

105. Zoe wanted to study the effects of having the oldest child in a family go off to college. She decided to use her own family after her brother left for a college in Spain. She took notes each day on her parents’ behavior and kept a diary on her own reactions. Zoe was using the technique called . a) participant observation Correct. Since Zoe was part of the family she was observing, she was a participant observer. b) family survey c) observer bias Incorrect. Although Zoe was a family member, there was no indication in the information given that she had any opinion one way or another. d) attribution effect Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 106. Kerri believes that people who eat at McDonald’s are overweight, so she decides to do a naturalistic observation of people eating at McDonald’s. What should most concern us about Kerri’s observations? a) the observer effect Incorrect. The observer effect would come into play only if the McDonald’s customers were to become aware of Kerri observing them. b) the bystander effect c) observer bias Correct. Kerri has a bias about McDonald’s customers, which might affect her observations due to a phenomenon known as observer bias. d) subject bias Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 74 a= 15 b= 2 c= 74 d= 7 r = .21 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 107. A detailed description of a particular individual being studied or treated is called a a) representative sample b) case study Correct. A case study involves a detailed description of a particular individual. c) single-blind study d) naturalistic observation Incorrect. Naturalistic observation involves more than one individual. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 94 a= 2 b= 94 c= 2 d= 2 r = .21 % correct 90 a= 4 b= 90 c= 4 d= 2 r = .35 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.

108. In the 1970s, a 13-year-old girl was found locked up in a room, strapped to a potty chair. Since she had grown up in a world without human speech, researchers studied “Genie’s” ability to acquire words, grammar, and pronunciation. This type of research is called a . a) case study Correct. A case study looks at only one person in great detail. b) representative sample c) single-blind study d) naturalistic observation Incorrect. Naturalistic observation involves studying more than one individual. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 109. A case study would be the most appropriate method to investigate which of these topics? a) the ways in which the games of boys differ from the games of girls b) the development of a male baby raised as a female after a surgical error destroyed his penis Correct. A case study involves investigating only one person in great detail. c) the math skills of students in Japan as compared to those of U.S. students Incorrect. A case study involves investigating only one person and is not appropriate for comparing cultures. d) physiological changes that occur when people watch violent movies Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 110. You overhear psychology students preparing for a test. They note that one of the research methods often “fails to generalize.” Which method is the MOST likely topic of their discussion? a) correlation b) case study Correct. A case study focuses on one subject, and the information gained from it might not be generally true of other similar subjects. c) experiment d) surveys Incorrect. Surveys typically do generalize because the samples taken are somewhat random. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 42 a= 15 b= 42 c= 8 d= 34 r = .49 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 111. Which of the following questions could be answered best by using the survey method? a) What is the effect of ingesting alcohol on problem-solving ability? Incorrect. Surveying students about their problem-solving abilities while drunk would allow too much room for subjectivity and give results with no accurate standards for analysis or comparison. b) Does wall color affect the frequency of violence in prison populations? c) Do students prefer a grading system with or without pluses and minuses?

Correct. Student preferences are about opinions, and surveys are good at gathering the opinions of many people. d) What is the relationship between number of hours of study per week and grade point average? Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 88 a= 2 b= 1 c= 88 d= 8 r = .46 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 112. Surveys, as discussed in the text, are a form of research. a) correlational b) descriptive Correct. A survey is a type of descriptive research, not experimental design. c) inferential d) experimental Incorrect. There is no manipulation of variables in a survey, so it is not experimental research. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 113. A researcher stops people at the mall and asks them questions about their attitudes toward gun control. Which research technique is being used? a) survey Correct. A survey asks the same questions of many people. b) experiment c) case study d) naturalistic observation Incorrect. Naturalistic observation never involves asking questions. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 95 a= 95 b= 1 c= 4 d= 1 r = .22 % correct 98 a= 98 b= 0 c= 1 d= 1 r = .21 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 114. A group of randomly selected subjects for a study that matches the population on important characteristics such as age and sex is called . a) volunteer bias b) a representative sample Correct. A representative sample is a randomly selected group that matches the population on important characteristics. c) an experimental group Incorrect. An experimental group is not necessarily representative of the population. d) a control group Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods

Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 84 a= 2 b= 84 c= 11 d= 2 r = .35 % correct 89 a= 0 b= 89 c= 7 d= 4 r = .36 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 115. Dr. Acosta wants to know about the alcohol consumption patterns among college juniors in the United States. He should . a) give the survey to every college junior in the country Incorrect. It is impossible to survey every college junior. b) remember that sample size is the most critical factor in survey research c) require students’ names on each survey to avoid the tendency to lie d) draw a representative sample among college juniors Correct. A representative sample should give enough information to enable him to generalize his findings to all juniors. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 85 a= 8 b= 7 c=0 d= 85 r = .27 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 116. The editors of Scientific American are able to obtain a representative sample of their readers in order to assess their attitudes toward preservation of the rainforests in Costa Rica. When interpreting the results of their survey, the editors will be able to apply the results to . a) the entire U.S. population Incorrect. Readers of Scientific American are not representative of the entire U.S. population. b) Costa Rica c) subscribers of Scientific American Correct. The editors picked a representative sample of their own readers. d) scientists Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 117. The magazine Desperate Wives publishes a survey of its female readers called “The Sex Life of the American Wife.” It reports that 87 percent of all wives like to make love in rubber boots. The critical flaw in this research would be the fact that . a) the sample is not representative of American wives Correct. The survey asks only readers of the magazine, and they are not representative of all American wives. b) a psychological test, rather than a survey, should have been given Incorrect. There is no mention of the need for a psychological test in this situation. c) rubber boots are not equally available in all regions of the country d) making love has not been operationally defined Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know

% correct 30 a= 30 b= 11 c= 26 d= 33 r = .23 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 118. The magazine Desperate Wives publishes a survey of its female readers called “The Sex Life of the American Wife.” It reports that 87 percent of all wives like to make love in rubber boots. A more accurate title for this survey would be . a) “Rubber Boot Preferences and the American Wife” b) “The New Sexuality in America: Rubber Boots in Bed!” c) “The Sex Lives of Our Readers: Desperate Wives Women Respond” Correct. The article, like the survey, should focus on the readers of the magazine. d) “Sex in America: These Boots Were Made for Walking and for…” Incorrect. The results of the survey do not apply to all Americans, only to the readers of the magazine. Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 119. A(n) is a measure of how strongly two variables are related to one another. a) independent variable Incorrect. The independent variable is the variable that the experimenter manipulates. b) dependent variable c) experimental effect d) correlation Correct. A correlation measures how strongly two variables are related. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 93 a= 0 b= 4 c= 3 d= 93 r = .56 % correct 98 a= 0 b= 2 c= 1 d= 98 r = .34 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 120. The word correlation is often used as a synonym for . a) validity Incorrect. Validity is unrelated to correlation. b) reliability c) variable d) relationship Correct. Correlation means relationship. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Understand the Concepts % correct 96 a= 2 b= 1 c= 2 d= 96 r = .21 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 121. A correlation coefficient is a numerical measure of the

a) unintended changes in participants’ behavior due to cues from the experimenter Incorrect. There are no cues involved in correlation. b) strength of the relationship between two variables Correct. Relationship strength is determined by the numerical correlation. c) behaviors of participants of different ages compared at a given time d) behaviors of participants followed and periodically assessed over time Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 122. Zhang Wei records data that indicate that the number of hot chocolates sold at the concession stand increases as temperature outside decreases (for example, more hot chocolates are purchased during late fall than late spring). Which of the following statements is the most accurate depiction of this finding? a) There is a correlation between the two variables. Incorrect. This answer is only partially accurate. The best answer is that there is a negative correlation between the two variables. b) There is a strong, positive correlation between the two variables. c) There is a weak, positive correlation between the two variables. d) There is a negative correlation between the two variables. Correct. Remember that a negative correlation indicates that two variables move in opposite directions. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 123. Leyna finds that the number of hours she sleeps each night is related to the scores she receives on quizzes the next day. As her sleep approaches 8 hours, her quiz scores improve; as her sleep drops to 5 hours, her quiz scores show a similar decline. Leyna realizes that . a) there is a negative correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades Incorrect. Both variables in the example move in the same direction and, therefore, have a positive correlation. b) there is a positive correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades Correct. Both variables in the example move in the same direction and, therefore, have a positive correlation. c) her low quiz scores are caused by sleep deprivation the night before a quiz d) she should sleep about 10 hours a night to ensure 100 percent quiz grades Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 124. Professor Venneti gives a psychology exam on the origins of intelligence. She gives a short answer question based on the IQ scores of a parent-child pair. In order to answer the question correctly, her students need to remember that . a) a parent’s high IQ does not necessarily cause a child to have a high IQ

Correct. Correlation does not prove causation. b) given these variables, the correlation will be positive Incorrect. The fact that a parent has a high IQ is not necessarily related to his or her child’s IQ. c) given these variables, the correlation will be negative d) given these variables, the correlation will be uncorrelated Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 125. A negative correlation means that . a) high values of one variable are associated with low values of the other Correct. A negative correlation means that high values of one variable are associated with low values of the other. b) high values of one variable are associated with high values of the other Incorrect. A negative correlation means that high values of one variable are associated with low values of the other. c) low values of one variable are associated with low values of the other d) there is no relationship between the two variables Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 76 a= 76 b= 2 c= 3 d= 16 r = .39 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 126. A correlation coefficient shows that smoking and life expectancy are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict that if the direction of the relationship is known. a) if a person smokes a lot of cigarettes, he or she will have less money monthly to buy gas b) the person’s life expectancy will go up or down based on the number of cigarettes the person smokes daily Correct. The directionality of the correlation coefficient can predict this relationship. c) if a person smokes cigarettes, he or she will eventually develop lung cancer d) a person’s lungs will repair themselves and he or she will live a longer life Incorrect. The correlation mentioned did not include information about lungs. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 127. Which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest relationship between two variables? a) .50 Incorrect. Because –.75 is closer to +1.00, it is the strongest relationship of the options. b) .25 c) –.25 d) –.75 Correct. The closer a correlation coefficient is to +1.00, the stronger the relationship it indicates.

Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 128. Which correlation coefficient is most likely to describe the relationship between brushing one’s teeth and thenumber of cavities one gets? a) –.62 Correct. One would expect that as brushing increases, cavities tend to decrease. Thus, a negative correlation would best describe the relationship. Further, one would expect the relationship to be fairly strong and thus closer to +1.0 than to 0. b) .83 Incorrect. This correlation coefficient would suggest that as brushing increases, the number of cavities increases. We would hope that the relationship between tooth brushing and the number of cavities one gets would be a strong negative correlation. c) –.08 d) .45 Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 129. Drinking orange juice is negatively correlated with the risk of cancer. Based on this information, which of the following statements is true? a) The more orange juice you drink, the higher your risk of cancer. Incorrect. When the two variables move up or down together, it is a positive correlation. b) The more orange juice you drink, the lower your risk of cancer. Correct. When as one variable goes up (juice drinking), the other goes down (risk of cancer); that is a negative correlation. c) The less orange juice you drink, the lower your risk of cancer. d) Drinking orange juice causes people to be cancer free. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 88 a= 6 b= 88 c= 6 d= 1 r = .20 % correct 89 a= 4 b= 89 c= 0 d= 7 r = .19 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 130. A correlation coefficient represents two things: and a) a representative sample; strength b) strength; direction of the relationship Correct. These are the two concepts that a correlation coefficient represents. c) the experimental group; control group d) direction of the relationship; expectant functionality

Incorrect. Direction of the relationship is accurate, but expectant functionality is a made-up term. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 66 a= 10 b= 66 c= 13 d= 11 r = .47 % correct 67 a= 9 b= 67 c= 16 d= 8 r = .50 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 131. A correlation coefficient shows that alcohol consumption and driving accidents are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict that the number of if the direction of the relationship is known. a) arrests a person has will go up or down based on the type of car he or she drives b) driving accidents a person has will go up or down based on the number of alcoholic drinks consumed Correct. The directionality of the correlation coefficient can predict this relationship. c) arrests will increase the fewer drinks an individual consumes d) driving accidents a person has will contribute to the number of days spent in jail Incorrect. The correlation mentioned did not include information about days spent in jail. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 132. Which of the following statements is correct concerning correlation coefficients? a) A correlation of +.89 is strong and –.89 is weak. Incorrect. Both +.89 and –.89 are equally strong since they are the same distance from 0. b) A correlation of +.89 and –.89 are both strong and equally so. Correct. Both +.89 and –.89 are the same distance from 0. c) Correlation coefficients are indicators of cause and effect. d) A correlation of +1.5 is very strong. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Analyze It % correct 56 a= 15 b= 56 c= 4 d= 26 r = .19 % correct 66 a= 15 b= 66 c= 10 d= 8 r = .30 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 133. A perfect correlation, whether positive or negative, is in the real world. a) expected b) imperfect Incorrect. The correct answer is rare. c) common d) rare Correct. Perfect correlations are not common in actual life examples. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables.

Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 134. As a project for a psychology course, a student correlated weight and intelligence scores for 250 students. The computed correlation coefficient was .00. What did the scatterplot look like? a) a random distribution of points Correct. When there is no correlation, the points are distributed all over the scatterplot with no particular shape or direction. b) a line with a positive slope Incorrect. A line with a positive slope indicates a correlation. c) a straight line from the lower left to the upper right-hand corner d) a straight line from the upper left to the lower right-hand corner Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 80 a= 80 b= 7 c= 9 d= 5 r = .34 % correct 85 a= 85 b= 4 c= 7 d= 4 r = .34 APA Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 135. Operationalization is . a) a statement that attempts to predict a set of phenomena and specifies relationships among variables that can be empirically tested b) an organized system of assumptions and principles that purports to explain a specified set of phenomena and their interrelationships Incorrect. Operationalization does not involve assumptions. c) the precise meaning of a term used to describe a variable, such as a type of behavior, that researchers want to measure Correct. Preciseness is essential for the scientific approach. d) the principle that a scientific theory must make predictions that are specific enough to expose the theory to the possibility of disconfirmation Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 40 a= 23 b= 23 c= 40 d= 12 r = .36 % correct 56 a= 4 b= 22 c= 56 d= 15 r = .53 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 136. As part of a psychology experiment, Santiago decides to measure a person’s “anxiety” by noting the number of blinks a person makes in a 20-minute social interaction with a stranger. Santiago appears to have offered a(n) of anxiety. a) variable b) operationalization Correct. Operationalization specifies how a particular concept is to be measured or manipulated. c) theory d) hypothesis Incorrect. A hypothesis is an educated guess about a sequence of events. Answer: b

Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 137. The steps or procedures an experimenter must use to control or measure the variables in a study is called the . a) hypothesis Incorrect. A hypothesis is an educated guess. b) operationalization Correct. This is the term used for the procedure experimenters use to control or measure variables in a study. c) double-blind study d) theory Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 138. Li Min is trying to define anxiety in a way that can be empirically tested. She is attempting to find an appropriate . a) hypothesis Incorrect. A hypothesis is an educated guess, not a definition. b) operationalization Correct. Operationalization defines responses in terms that allow them to be measured. c) double-blind study d) theory Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 139. Georgia has always been drawn to the saying “Absence makes the heart grow fonder,” and she decides to incorporate this saying into her research project. Georgia is trying to define absence in a way that can be empirically tested. She is attempting to find an appropriate . a) hypothesis Incorrect. A hypothesis is an educated guess, not a definition. b) operationalization Correct. Operationalization defines terms in ways that render them measurable. c) double-blind study d) theory Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 48 a= 37 b= 48 c= 1 d= 14 r = .42 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.

140. The administration of Midwest State University wants to know if the arrangement of chairs affects student participation in classrooms. What would be a good operationalization of the dependent variable in an experiment designed to measure this relationship? a) class size: under 50 or over 50 b) number of students enrolled in each class c) chair arrangement: theater style or circular Incorrect. Chair arrangement is controlled by the experimenter and is, therefore, the independent variable. d) frequency with which students ask questions Correct. Counting the number of questions students ask is one measurable way to define the dependent variable, which is student participation. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 47 a= 4 b= 11 c= 38 d= 47 r = .45 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 141. A researcher is investigating the effects of exercise on weight. What are the independent and dependent variables in this experiment? a) The dependent variable is weight; the independent variable is exercise. Correct. The exercise is controlled by the experimenter and is, therefore, independent of anything the participants do, whereas the participants’ weight is expected to be dependent on the amount of exercise. b) The independent variable is calories consumed; the dependent variable is diet. c) The independent variable is weight; the dependent variable is calories consumed. d) The dependent variable is amount of exercise; the independent variable is calories consumed. Incorrect. The exercise is controlled by the experimenter and is, therefore, the independent variable. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 78 a= 78 b= 4 c= 0 d= 19 r = .66 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 142. In order to increase typing speed, Minisoft Inc. has redesigned its keyboard and provided a chime that is related to typing speed. The company wants to know if its innovations affect typing speed. What are the independent and dependent variables in this proposed study? a) The dependent variable is the chime; the independent variables are the chime and typing speed. b) The dependent variable is speed of typing; the independent variables are the keyboard design and the chime. Correct. The speed of typing is expected to be dependent on the keyboard design and chime, which are independent variables controlled by the experimenter. c) The dependent variable is keyboard design; the independent variables are the speed of typing and the chime. Incorrect. Both the keyboard design and the chime are independent variables controlled by Minisoft. d) The dependent variable is the number of errors made; the independent variables are the chime and the speed of typing. Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Difficult

Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 143. A variable that the experimenter manipulates is called a(n) . a) coefficient of correlation b) dependent variable Incorrect. The dependent variable is what is measured. c) control condition d) independent variable Correct. Independent variables are controlled by the experimenter. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 70 a= 1 b= 21 c= 8 d= 70 r = .42 % correct 68 a= 1 b= 23 c= 8 d= 68 r = .34 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 144. Independent variable is to dependent variable as . a) effect is to confound b) experimental is to correlation c) measure is to manipulate Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. d) manipulate is to measure Correct. Independent variables are manipulated, while dependent variables are measured. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 145. In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the independent variable is the . a) use of nicotine Correct. The nicotine is controlled by the experimenter and is, therefore, the independent variable. b) use of a driving simulator c) number of collisions Incorrect. The number of collisions is believed to be dependent on the consumption of nicotine and is, therefore, the dependent variable. d) driving skills of each driver Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.

146. In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the dependent variable is the . a) use of nicotine Incorrect. The nicotine is controlled by the experimenter and is, therefore, the independent variable. b) use of a driving simulator c) number of collisions Correct. The number of collisions is believed to be dependent on the consumption of nicotine and is, therefore, the dependent variable. d) driving skills of each driver Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 147. DaVonte is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If DaVonte does not account for variables such as age, which could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a(n) variable. a) random b) dependent c) confounding Correct. Any variable that may influence outcome and is not controlled is called a confounding variable. d) independent Incorrect. This variable is accounted for and controlled. Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 148. Dr. Jones has individuals run on a treadmill for 0, 15, or 30 minutes and then measures their self-reported mood. In this hypothetical study, the independent variable is the . a) self-reported mood Incorrect. This is the variable that is measured, so it is the dependent variable. b) individuals who run for 15 or 30 minutes c) individuals who run for 0 minutes d) number of minutes individuals run on the treadmill Correct. This is the variable that is manipulated by the researcher, so it is the independent variable. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 149. Dr. Smith has individuals cycle on stationary bikes for 0, 10, 20, or 30 minutes, after which he measures their self-reported mood. In this hypothetical study, the dependent variable is the .

a) self-reported mood Correct. This is the variable that is measured, so it is the dependent variable. b) individuals who do not ride on the stationary bike c) number of minutes individuals ride the bike Incorrect. This is the variable that is manipulated, so it is the independent variable. d) riding of bikes Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 150. In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the participants who smoke a cigarette without nicotine make up the . a) control group Correct. A control group gets either no treatment or treatment with no effect; in this case, experimenters are controlling for the possibility that the cigarette itself (not the nicotine) might cause people to get into collisions. b) driving simulator c) experimental group Incorrect. The experimental group does get treatment that is expected to have an effect, whereas the control group gets either no treatment or treatment without effect. d) no-control group Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 78 a= 78 b= 0 c= 2 d= 0 r = .44 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 151. A good control group . a) contains at least one confound b) has a limited number of dependent variables c) has a limited number of research participants Incorrect. In fact, a good control group would have the same number of participants as an experimental group. d) holds constant all variables in the experiment Correct. A control group is used as a baseline of comparison, so all variables should be held as constant as possible to avoid any compound. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 152. Which of the following is CORRECT concerning random assignment? a) In random assignment, each participant has an equal chance for each condition. Correct. In random assignment, each participant has an equal chance of being assigned.

b) In random assignment, each participant is assigned alphabetically to each condition. c) Random assignment can only be determined after an experiment is over. d) The best formula for random assignment is birth dates. Incorrect. Birth dates are not random because many people are born on the same day. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 90 a= 90 b= 2 c= 4 d= 4 r = .20 % correct 90 a= 90 b= 3 c= 3 d= 3 r = .26 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 153. Which of the following situations best illustrates the placebo effect? a) You sleep because you are tired. b) You throw up after eating bad meat. Incorrect. Throwing up after eating bad food is caused by a physiological reflex, not by expectations, as would be the case in a placebo effect. c) You have surgery to repair a defective heart valve. d) You drink a nonalcoholic drink and become “intoxicated” because you think it contains alcohol. Correct. The placebo effect is brought on by expectations, and in this case, you felt drunk only because you believed you were drinking alcohol. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Topic: 1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 94 a= 5 b= 1 c= 0 d= 94 r = .32 % correct 98 a= 1 b= 0 c= 1 d= 98 r = .22 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 154. The placebo effect means . a) all conditions in an experiment are the same b) that there is no control group Incorrect. The placebo effect is one reason why it’s necessary to have a control group. c) the expectations of the participants influence their behavior Correct. The placebo effect occurs when the expectations of the participants influence their behavior. d) experimenter bias causes the subjects to act strangely Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Topic: 1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 77 a= 11 b= 8 c= 77 d= 4 r = .44 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 155. Harley was participating in an experiment in which she was given a pill that was supposed to cause her to get drowsy. Five minutes after taking the pill, Harley reported that she felt drowsy and wanted to lie down. The pill was actually made of sugar and had no ingredients to cause drowsiness. How do you explain Harley’s drowsy feeling? a) experimenter effect b) placebo effect

Correct. The placebo effect occurs when the expectations of participants influence their behavior; in this case, Harley expected the pill to make her drowsy, and that expectation—not the pill itself—made her feel drowsy. c) subject bias Incorrect. Harley is not biased, as she had no knowledge of the hypothesis. d) treatment effect Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Topic: 1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know % correct 90 a= 3 b= 90 c= 3 d= 6 r = .32 APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 156. Two groups of graduate students were given rats and instructed to teach the rats how to run mazes. Group 1 was told that they had “very smart” rats that should learn quickly. Group 2 was told that they had “very stupid” rats that should learn slowly. In actuality, neither group was any different, and the rats were randomly assigned. In spite of that, when the experiment concluded, the rats taught by Group 1 had learned the maze much more quickly. How can that be explained? a) experimenter effect Correct. The experimenter effect occurs when the participant’s performance is affected by the behavior of the experimenter. In this case, the experimenters who believed they had smart rats must have behaved in some way that boosted their rats’ performance. b) placebo effect c) subject bias Incorrect. The rats were the subjects, and they do not have bias. d) treatment effect Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Topic: 1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 157. Unintended changes in participants’ behavior due to cues inadvertently given by the experimenter are called . a) replications b) experimenter effects Correct. The experimenter effect occurs when the participant’s performance is affected by the behavior of the experimenter. c) volunteer biases Incorrect. There is no such thing as volunteer bias. d) single-blind studies Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Topic: 1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.

158. is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group, but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group. a) The double-blind study Incorrect. In a double-blind study, the experimenters would also be “blind,” meaning they would not know which participants are part of which group. b) Field research c) The single-blind study Correct. The single-blind study is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group, but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group. d) Correlational research Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Topic: 1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 93 a= 7 b= 0 c= 93 d= 0 r = .41 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 159. Double-blind studies control for . a) only the placebo effect b) only the experimenter effect Incorrect. Double-blind studies also control for placebo effects. c) both the placebo effect and the experimenter effect Correct. In double-blind studies, neither the participants nor the individuals running the experiment know which participants are in the experimental group. d) extrinsic motivation Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Topic: 1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Analyze It % correct 85 a= 7 b= 6 c= 85 d= 2 r = .21 % correct 86 a=5 b= 6 c= 86 d= 2 r = .21 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 160. is an experiment in which neither the participants nor the individuals running the experiment know if participants are in the experimental or the control group until after the results are tallied. a) The double-blind study Correct. The double-blind study is an experiment in which neither the participants nor the individuals running the experiment know if participants are in the experimental or the control group. b) Field research c) The single-blind study Incorrect. In a single-blind study, only the participants are “blind.” d) Correlational research Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Topic: 1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 96 a= 96 b= 1 c= 1 d= 3 r = .19 % correct 99 a= 99 b= 1 c= 0 d= 0 r = .29 APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.

161. Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association? a) Participants may not withdraw once they start. b) Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research. c) Participants cannot be subjected to any physically or emotionally painful stimuli. Incorrect. It is not a basic principle that participants cannot be subjected to any physically or emotionally painful stimuli. d) Deception must be justified. Correct. It is a basic principle that deception must be justified. Answer: d Learning Objective: 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. Topic: 1.11 The Guidelines for Doing Research with People Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 74 a=15 b= 7 c= 4 d= 74 r = .31 APA Learning Objective: 3.1 Apply ethical standards to evaluate psychological science and practice. 162. A common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association is that participants . a) may not withdraw once they start b) must be allowed to make an informed decision Correct. It is a basic principle that participants must be allowed to make an informed decision. c) cannot be subjected to shock of any kind Incorrect. It is not a basic principle that participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind. d) cannot be deceived about aspects of the research Answer: b Learning Objective: 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. Topic: 1.11 The Guidelines for Doing Research with People Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts % correct 67 a= 3 b= 67 c= 14 d= 15 r = .26 APA Learning Objective: 3.1 Apply ethical standards to evaluate psychological science and practice. 163. Experimenters can justify the use of deception because . a) there is informed consent b) research is more important than people Incorrect. It is a basic principle that people come first, research second. c) it may be necessary for the experiment to work Correct. Deception is justified if the study wouldn’t work any other way. d) it is not that harmful Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. Topic: 1.11 The Guidelines for Doing Research with People Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Analyze It % correct 67 a= 24 b= 0 c= 67 d= 8 r = .21 APA Learning Objective: 3.1 Apply ethical standards to evaluate psychological science and practice. 164. Which of the following statements concerning using animals in research is correct? a) There are no ethical guidelines when it comes to animals. b) There are rules that prevent the killing of animals. Incorrect. Animals are destroyed, and there are no rules for preventing this. c) Pain and suffering of animals are allowed, but only when necessary, and must be minimized as much as possible. Correct. Pain and suffering of animals are allowed under scientific guidelines.

d) New ethical guidelines prevent the use of primates in psychological research. Answer: c Learning Objective: 1.12 Explain why psychologists sometimes use animals in their research. Topic: 1.12 Animal Research Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 3.1 Apply ethical standards to evaluate psychological science and practice.

TRUE OR FALSE 165. The most accurate definition of the discipline of psychology today is that it is the science of behavior. Answer: False Learning Objective: None Topic: 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology. 166. Wilhelm Wundt used the method of objective introspection. Answer: True Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 167. Sigmund Freud was the father of psychology. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Difficult APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 168. Pavlov found that dogs would salivate to the sound of a bell before food was presented, demonstrating the process of conditioning. Answer: True Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 169. John Watson studied salivation in dogs in order to examine the concept of habituation. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 170. Cognitive neuroscience includes the use of tools such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and positron emission tomography (PET).

Answer: True Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objectives: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 171. Darley and Latané (1968) believe that the presence of other people in a distressing situation actually increased the likelihood that an individual in trouble would receive help. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 172. Diffusion of responsibility is the tendency to feel that someone else is responsible for responding in a crisis situation. Answer: True Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 173. The majority of psychologists are self-employed or work for private, not-for-profit agencies. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 174. Clinical psychology is the largest subfield of psychology. Answer: True Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 175. Dr. Flynn can prescribe drugs in some situations and works with depressed women. He must be a psychologist. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 176. Critical thinking requires making judgments that are well-reasoned and well thought out. Answer: True Learning Objective: 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Topic: 1.5 Thinking Critically About Critical Thinking Difficulty Level: Moderate

Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena. 177. The goals of psychology are to describe, explain, predict, and control behavior. Answer: True Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology. 178. The first step in the scientific approach is developing a method. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 179. Sam conducted a naturalistic observation as a project for a psychology class. He observed the interactions of parents and children at a football game. Many of the people he observed seemed to have noticed him. Sam forgot about the observer effect. Answer: True Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 180. The laboratory observation always involves watching behaviors as they occur without intervening or altering the behaviors in any way. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 181. Surveys are procedures used to measure and evaluate personality traits, emotional states, aptitudes, interests, abilities, and values. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 182. Dr. Khan wants to know how college students in her state will vote during the next election. By sampling the seniors at her college, she can get a representative sample. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know

APA Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology; 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 183. A negative correlation means that high values of one variable are associated with low values of the other. Answer: True Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 184. Direction and strength are important in understanding correlation coefficients. Answer: True Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 185. Control groups should receive exactly the same treatment as the experimental groups when conducting a research study. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 186. Random assignment is when each participant is assigned alphabetically to each condition. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 187. Double-blind studies control only for the placebo effect. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Topic: 1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 188. One of the common guidelines for ethical research is that participants may not withdraw from a study once they start. Answer: False Learning Objective: 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. Topic: 1.11 The Guidelines for Doing Research with People Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 3.1 Apply ethical standards to evaluate psychological science and practice.

SHORT ANSWER 189. What is the definition of psychology? Learning Objective: None Topic: 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology. 190. Describe a method used in one of the early schools of psychology. Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 191. How did Ivan Pavlov discover the process of conditioning when working with dogs? Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 192. What is the main emphasis of cognitive psychology? Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 193. What is cognitive neuroscience? Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 194. How does diffusion of responsibility contribute to the bystander effect? Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 195. How are psychologists and psychiatrists alike? How are they different? Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Topic: 1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 196. Describe one principle of critical thinking.

Learning Objective: 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Topic: 1.5 Thinking Critically About Critical Thinking Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena. 197. Pick a goal of psychology and provide a clear example of how it works. Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology. 198. What are the strengths of descriptive research methods? Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Topic: 1.7 Descriptive Methods Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 199. Describe a research method used in psychology. Learning Objectives: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior; 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topics: 1.7 Descriptive Methods; 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 200. What is meant by the “direction of the relationship” in a correlation coefficient? Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 201. Which two important factors contribute to the formula in measuring a correlation coefficient? Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Topic: 1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 202. What is operationalization? Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 203. What is the difference between the control group and the experimental group in a research study? Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Easy

Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 204. What is random assignment? Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Topic: 1.9 The Experiment Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 205. Describe one of the eight common ethical guidelines for conducting research. Learning Objective: 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. Topic: 1.11 The Guidelines for Doing Research with People Difficulty Level: Easy Skill Level: Remember the Facts APA Learning Objective: 3.1 Apply ethical standards to evaluate psychological science and practice.

ESSAY 206. Compare and contrast two early perspectives of psychology. Be sure to include comparisons of founders, methods, and philosophies. Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Topic: 1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 207. How did Pavlov and Watson’s focus on scientific inquiry of behaviors differ from the earlier viewpoints of structuralists, psychoanalysts, and functionalists? Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Analyze It APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains. 208. Provide a real-life example of conditioning according to Ivan Pavlov. Be sure to label each part of your example accordingly and be very detailed. Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Topic: 1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology. 209. Darley and Latané (1968) studied a concept called the bystander effect. Provide a detailed real-life example of this concept and explain how culture might be a factor. Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Topic: 1.3 Modern Perspectives Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains; 2.5 Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry.

210. What are the basic principles of critical thinking, and how can they be used in everyday life? Learning Objective: 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Topic: 1.5 Thinking Critically About Critical Thinking Difficulty Level: Moderate Skill Level: Understand the Concepts APA Learning Objective: 2.1 Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena. 211. Using an example of a study you might conduct, go through all of the steps of the scientific approach. Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Topic: 1.6 The Scientific Approach Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research. 212. Propose three methods typically used in psychology to test a topic, such as the effects of marijuana on GPA (grade point average). Learning Objectives: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior; 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment, and some ways to control for these effects. Topics: 1.7 Descriptive Methods; 1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects Difficulty Level: Difficult Skill Level: Apply What You Know APA Learning Objective: 2.4 Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research.

Test Yourself Pick the best answer. 1. In the definition of psychology, the term behavior means a. internal, covert processes. b. overt actions and reactions. c. outward behavior. d. only animal behavior. 2. Who is considered to be the father of African American psychology? a. Robert V. Guthrie b. Charles Henry Thompson c. Francis Cecil Sumner d. Howard Hale Long 3. Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalysis focused on a. introspection. b. observable behavior. c. Gestalt perceptions. d. early childhood experiences. 4. Which psychologist dared to ignore the whole consciousness issue and return to a study of scientific inquiry by focusing on observable behavior? a. Sigmund Freud b. Ivan Pavlov c. John Watson d. William James 5. Which perspective is often referred to as the “third force” in psychology and focuses on people’s freedom of choice in determining their behavior? a. biopsychological perspective b. humanism c. behaviorism d. cognitive psychology 6. Which perspective best explains the bystander effect whereby individuals will be less likely to help someone in need because of the presence of others close by? a. sociocultural b. psychoanalysis c. behaviorism d. cognitive psychology 7. If Dr. Byers uses an eclectic approach in her clinical treatment of children, what is it that she is doing? a. She is relying primarily on one psychological perspective to treat all her patients. b. She is using a combination of perspectives to treat different clients. c. She is using medications with all her patients, especially those suffering from depression. d. She relies heavily on the Freudian psychodynamic perspective to help children who show abnormal behavior. 8. Dr. Colton identifies himself with the largest subfield of psychology. What kind of psychologist is he? a. school b. counseling c. clinical d. experimental

9. Micah has recently been diagnosed with a psychological disorder that is best addressed initially with medication. He would likely benefit the most by first seeing a . a. psychiatrist b. psychologist c. psychiatric social worker d. psychoanalyst 10. A famous golfer advertises a new golf bracelet that helps minimize fatigue while playing. If Bethany decides to order the bracelet because she believes that such a well-known personality should know if it works or not, she has made an error in which of the following criteria for critical thinking? a. Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true. b. Few “truths” do not need to be tested. c. All evidence is not equal in quality. d. Critical thinking requires an open mind. 11. A psychologist is interested in finding out why married couples seemingly begin to look like each other after several years of marriage. This psychologist is most interested in the goal of a. prediction. b. description. c. explanation. d. control. 12. Which step in the scientific approach is derived from the goal of description? a. forming a hypothesis b. reporting your results c. drawing conclusions d. perceiving a question 13. Brianne wants to find an explanation for the behavior of her lab rats in her study. Which step in the scientific approach is she currently focusing on? a. testing a hypothesis b. perceiving the question c. drawing conclusions d. reporting her results 14. The famous study of Phineas Gage, who survived when a metal rod pierced his skull, is an example of a a. correlation. b. laboratory experiment. c. case study. d. survey. 15. A researcher finds that as her participants increased the number of hours they spent exercising, the overall weight of her participants decreased. This would be an example of a correlation. a. causal b. positive c. zero d. negative 16. A researcher wants to study the effects of texting on driving. Students in Group A drive a car in a computer game and see how many virtual accidents they have. Students in Group B are asked to drive the same virtual car but they must respond to and send at least three texts. The number of virtual accidents is measured for each group. What is the independent variable? a. the virtual car b. texting c. the number of virtual accidents d. the group assignment

17. A researcher asks an assistant to conduct a study on her behalf. She specifically tells her assistant only to share the results anonymously and not to include the names of the students along with their scores. Such an experiment would be considered a a. laboratory observation. b. single-blind experiment. c. correlational study. d. double-blind experiment. 18. Double-blind studies control for a. the placebo effect only. b. the placebo effect and the experimenter effect. c. the experimenter effect only. d. extrinsic motivation. 19. In the stereotypes-and-athletes study, who was the control group? a. those students who completed the survey after the intelligence test b. those students who completed the survey prior to the intelligence test c. those students who were not asked to complete the intelligence test d. those students who did not take part in the study at all 20. Dr. Calvin needs just one more participant to complete her experiment. Lisa, a student of Dr. Calvin, has almost completed the experiment when she announces she wants to quit because the experiment is boring. What options does Dr. Calvin have? a. Dr. Calvin can make Lisa stay since she is a student of hers and she requires students to take part in her experiments. b. Dr. Calvin can require that Lisa finish because students don’t have the same rights to quit an experiment as the general public does. c. Dr. Calvin can require that Lisa finish because boredom is not an acceptable excuse for quitting. d. Dr. Calvin must let Lisa go and find another participant.

EXTRA BANK OF QUESTIONS 1: THE SCIENCE OF PSYCHOLOGY

1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology 1. Cognitive psychologists are concerned with the scientific study of a. reinforcement b. alienation and apathy c. mental processes d. self-actualization Answer c % correct 90 a= 4 b= 0 c= 90 d= 6 r = .29

2. In the late twentieth century, psychology . a. expanded dramatically b. stagnated c. contracted slightly d. contracted dramatically Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 9 c= 4 d= 6 r = .29

1.1 In the Beginning: Wundt, Titchener, and James 3. By general agreement, psychology was born in a. 1642 b. 1853 c. 1879 d. 1906 Answer c % correct 32 a= 12 b= 50 c= 32 d= 6 4. The first psychology laboratory was opened by a. Wundt b. James c. Titchener d. Watson Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 2 c= 2 d= 1

r = .23 .

r = .20

5. Modern psychology is said to have begun when . a. Greek philosophers began studying the differences between people b. Wundt opened the first laboratory devoted to the scientific study of psychology c. Freud developed psychoanalytic theory and therapy d. it was discovered in the early 1900s that many illnesses have no medical basis Answer b % correct 77 a= 17 b= 77 c= 4 d= 3 r = .26 6. Psychology is said to have begun when . a. medicine was seen to be ineffective in treating neurosis b. Wilhelm Wundt started the first psychological laboratory c. Sigmund Freud opened his private practice in Vienna d. it was discovered in the early 1900s that many illnesses have no medical basis Answer b % correct 74 a= 8 b= 74 c= 3 d= 15 r = .28

7. Scientific psychology is formally recognized to have begun a. in Greece, with the work of Hippocrates b. in the United States, with the work of James c. in Austria, with the work of Freud d. in Germany, with the work of Wundt Answer d % correct 90 a= 2 b= 3 c= 5 d= 90 r = .30

8. Structuralism emphasizes . a. individual differences b. the application of biological principles to the mind c. the influence of subconscious urges on conscious behavior d. the basic units of experience and their combinations Answer d % correct 45 a= 12 b= 30 c= 14 d= 45 r = .41 9. Titchener was a member of the school of thought. a. structuralist b. functionalist c. behaviorist d. reductionist Answer a % correct 70 a= 70 b= 16 c= 12 d= 3 r = .39 10. Studying the elements of sensations, feelings, and images is most directly associated with which school of psychology? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. behaviorism d. humanism Answer a % correct 49 a= 49 b= 19 c= 22 d= 10 r = .38 Answer a % correct 64 a= 64 b= 14 c= 12 d= 10 r = .52 11. The psychological school that asks, “What are mental processes for?” rather than “What are mental processes?” is . a. structuralism b. functionalism c. humanism d. Gestalt Answer b % correct 76 a= 13 b= 76 c= 2 d= 10 r = .48

1.2 Three Influential Approaches: Gestalt, Psychoanalysis, and Behaviorism 12. Wertheimer was associated with psychology. a. functionalist b. psychoanalytic c. Gestalt d. existential Answer c % correct 50 a= 23 b= 21 c= 50 d= 6 r = .43 13. Wertheimer was associated with the school. a. functionalist b. psychoanalytic c. Gestalt d. behaviorist Answer c % correct 66 a= 9 b= 13 c= 66 d= 11 r = .43

14. Which of the following is associated with Gestalt psychology? a. Skinner b. Wertheimer c. James d. Jones Answer b % correct 80 a= 3 b= 80 c= 10 d= 7 r = .45 15. Which school of psychology assumes that human activity cannot be broken down into separate units for analysis but must be evaluated as wholes? a. humanism b. Gestalt c. functionalism d. behaviorism Answer b % correct 79 a= 7 b= 79 c= 8 d= 7 r = .43 16. John Watson was the founder of the school of thought that became known as a. functionalism b. structuralism c. behaviorism d. humanism Answer c % correct 50 a= 13 b= 20 c= 50 d= 17 r = .23

17. The school of thought that became known as behaviorism was founded by a. Watson b. Titchener c. James d. Wundt Answer a % correct 63 a= 63 b= 8 c= 15 d= 13 r = .50

18. a. James b. Skinner c. Watson d. Wundt Answer c

is the founder of behaviorism.

% correct 77

a= 2 b= 15 c= 77 d= 5

r = .41

19. John Watson, who is associated with the school of psychology, argued that psychology must concern itself only with . a. behavioral; behavior b. behavioral; mental processes c. cognitive; thought and action d. cognitive; behavior Answer a % correct 72 a= 72 b= 15 c= 11 d= 3 r = .33 20. The school of thought that became known as behaviorism was founded by a. Watson b. Titchener c. James d. Wundt Answer a % correct 53 a= 53 b= 11 c= 17 d= 17 r = .40

21. Which of the following psychologists was responsible for originating the behavioral school of psychology? a. Pavlov

b. Watson c. Skinner d. Rayner Answer b

% correct 49

a= 10 b= 49 c= 38 d= 3

r = .23

22. Behaviorist J. B. Watson objected to early theories of psychology because of their focus on a. evolution b. science c. mental processes d. physical processes Answer c % correct 35 a= 16 b= 22 c= 35 d= 28 r = .21 23. Psychologists should only study observable behavior, according to a. Freud b. Titchener c. Galton d. Watson Answer d % correct 58 a= 14 b= 17 c= 12 d= 58 r = .41 24. Watson felt that psychologists should study a. consciousness b. observable behavior c. mental imagery d. elements of thought Answer b % correct 86 a= 2 b= 86 c= 1 d= 11

r = .31

25. John Watson was a behaviorist who argued that the science of psychology must concern itself only with . a. experiences as whole units b. observable events c. unconscious mental processes d. early childhood experiences Answer b % correct 93 a= 1 b= 93 c= 3 d= 3 r = .23 26. Freud was the founder of . a. existential psychology b. behavioral psychology c. psychoanalysis d. behaviorism Answer c % correct 70 a= 2 b= 22 c= 70 d=6 27. For Freud, much of our behavior is controlled by a. unconscious desires b. environmental stimuli c. mental Gestalts d. mental associations Answer a % correct 90 a= 90 b= 7 c= 1 d= 2

r = .49 .

r = .27

28. Freud’s theories differed radically from the views of his predecessors because of a. its extensive use of laboratory research to support its claims b. the emphasis it placed on Eastern philosophies and culture c. the emphasis it placed on unconscious processes d. its emphasis on environmental learning as the source for most personality characteristics Answer c % correct 71 a= 6 b= 4 c= 71 d= 19 r = .40

29. Freud believed that many unconscious desires are a. the result of excessive punishment b. byproducts of introspection c. the result of excessive reinforcement d. sexual in nature Answer d % correct 79 a= 1 b= 8 c= 12 d= 79

r = .48

30. Wundt is to structuralism as is to psychoanalysis. a. Freud b. Watson c. Rogers d. Maslow Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 3 c= 0 d= 3 r = .24 31. Watson is to behaviorism as is to psychoanalysis. a. Freud b. James c. Skinner d. Wundt Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 1 c= 6 d= 2 r = .23 32. What early school of thought in psychology was noted for its emphasis on the unconscious determinants of behavior? a. structuralism b. behaviorism c. Gestalt psychology d. psychoanalytic theory Answer d % correct 86 a= 0 b= 8 c= 5 d= 86 r = .32 33. Owen, a college sophomore, is seeing a psychologist because of his intense fear of people. His counselor feels that Owen’s fear is a product of unresolved conflicts about his parents and his childhood experiences with them. Owen’s therapist is most characteristic of which school of psychology? a. behaviorism b. psychoanalytic c. humanistic d. Gestalt Answer b % correct 80 a= 6 b= 80 c= 13 d= 1 r = .33 34. Dr. Connolly, a psychologist, bases her theories completely on measuring observable behaviors. She is probably a. a. humanist b. behaviorist c. structuralist d. functionalist Answer b % correct 88 a= 1 b= 88 c= 9 d= 1 r = .21

1.3 –1.4 The Field of Psychology Today 1.3 Modern Perspectives 35. B. F. Skinner is associated with a. psychodynamic psychology b. behaviorism

c. Gestalt psychology d. existentialism Answer b % correct 69

a= 12 b= 69 c= 12 d= 8

r = .39

36. B. F. Skinner is most closely associated with which school of psychology? a. cognitive b. humanistic c. functionalism d. behaviorism Answer d % correct 62 a= 10 b= 15 c= 12 d= 62 r = .50 Answer d % correct 78 a= 9 b= 6 c= 8 d= 78 r = .46 37. Skinner is associated with . a. structuralism b. behaviorism c. Gestalt psychology d. existentialism Answer b % correct 78 a= 7 b= 78 c= 14 d= 1

r = .20

38. Like Watson, Skinner believed that psychology should study only a. mental processes b. perceptions c. elements of thought d. observable behavior Answer d % correct 62 a= 23 b= 5 c= 10 d= 62 r = .31

39. Anything that follows a response and makes that response more likely to recur is a. an antecedent b. an enhancement c. reinforcement d. a consequence Answer c % correct 88 a= 3 b= 4 c= 88 d= 4 r = .41

40. Each day in class, Dr. Peña explains to his students that they are wonderful whether they are academic successes or failures. He also points out that each individual consciously chooses to attend class and study and that these choices dramatically affect whether one is academically successful. Dr. Peña is most likely a psychologist. a. psychoanalytic b. humanistic c. behavioral d. Gestalt Answer b % correct 77 a= 3 b= 77 c= 17 d= 4 r = .36 41. Which of the following assumptions associated with the psychoanalytic school produced the strongest negative reaction? a. Psychology, as therapy, is more philosophical than scientific. b. All human behavior is a product of one’s experiences. c. Humans are basically good. d. All humans, including infants, have sexual motivations and drives. Answer d % correct 79 a= 7 b= 9 c= 5 d= 79 r = .31

1.4 Psychological Professionals and Areas of Specialization 42. Which of the following types of psychologists is most prepared to help a person who hears voices and believes she is Joan of Arc? a. forensic b. counseling c. school d. clinical Answer d % correct 87 a= 3 b= 10 c= 1 d= 87 r = .34 43. After more than a year in Iranian prisons, 52 American hostages were released by Iran’s revolutionary government and allowed to return to the United States. Of the following professionals, _ psychologists would probably have the LEAST professional interest in that event. a. counseling b. clinical c. social d. experimental Answer d % correct 77 a= 5 b= 11 c= 7 d= 77 r = .23

1.5 –1.10 Scientific Research 1.6 The Scientific Approach 44. Psychologists use techniques based on . a. cultural ethnocentrism b. objective introspection c. philosophical logic d. the scientific approach Answer d % correct 76 a= 0 b= 20 c= 3 d= 76 45. Psychologists use research techniques based on a. inductive reasoning b. objective introspection c. deductive reasoning d. the scientific approach Answer d % correct 86 a= 6 b= 3 c= 5 d= 86

r = .26 .

r = .36

46. Which of the following shows the correct order of the steps that psychologists use in studying a particular behavior? a. describe, explain, predict, control b. explain, describe, predict, control c. predict, describe, explain, control d. describe, predict, explain, control Answer a % correct 60 a= 60 b= 3 c= 24 d= 13 r = .53 47. Almost all research done in psychology is analyzed a. visually b. using correlational techniques c. statistically d. at the .1 level Answer c % correct 51 a= 13 b= 31 c= 51 d= 4

r = .34

1.7 Descriptive Methods 48. Naturalistic observation is . a. re-creating natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid b. studying behavior in its natural context c. basically the same process as objective introspection d. observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experiment findings Answer b % correct 97 a= 3 b= 97 c= 0 d= 0 r = .23 49. Observing behavior as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the . a. naturalistic observation method b. experimental method c. correlational method d. psychometric approach Answer a % correct 97 a= 97 b= 2 c= 1 d= 1 r = .20 50. Collecting objective data without interference in the subject’s normal environment is associated with . a. survey research b. applied research c. laboratory research d. naturalistic observation Answer d % correct 94 a= 1 b= 2 c= 3 d= 94 r = .25 Answer d % correct 95 a= 1 b= 1 c= 2 d= 95 r = .23 51. Research in which a carefully selected group of people is asked a set of predetermined questions in interviews or through questionnaires is known as research. a. correlational b. case study c. survey d. experimental Answer c % correct 83 a= 4 b= 13 c= 83 d= 0 r = .20 52. Political polls taken before major elections are examples of a. correlational b. experimental c. case study d. survey Answer d % correct 92 a= 4 b= 1 c= 3 d= 92 r = .21

research.

53. As part of an assignment, Taylor’s class was asked to complete an anonymous questionnaire on female sexual harassment. Which research method was Taylor’s professor using? a. field experiment b. survey c. naturalistic observation d. laboratory experiment Answer b % correct 97 a= 1 b= 97 c= 1 d= 0 r = .26 54. A weakness of is that subjects participating in the research often report, consciously and unconsciously, inaccurate information. a. naturalistic observation b. surveys c. field experiments

d. laboratory experiments Answer b % correct 80

a= 2 b= 80 c= 10 d= 8

r = .24

55. As part of an assignment, Callum’s class was asked to complete an anonymous questionnaire on prejudice. Which research method was Callum’s professor using? a. field experiment b. survey c. naturalistic observation d. laboratory experiment Answer b % correct 98 a= 1 b= 98 c= 1 d= 1 r = .24 56. A large group of people whom you want to know about is called a a. control group b. treatment group c. population d. sample Answer c % correct 79 a= 3 b= 3 c= 79 d= 16 r = .30 57. A subset of cases selected from a larger population is a a. control group b. target group c. treatment group d. sample Answer d % correct 89 a= 1 b= 9 c= 1 d= 89 r = .28

58. A psychologist, studying pilot trainees, picks a select group of trainees who are hopefully representative of all other trainees. The group of trainees being studied by this psychologist are collectively known to researchers as a . a. sample b. population c. target group d. control group Answer a % correct 81 a= 81 b= 8 c= 7 d= 4 r = .46 59. A detailed, well-researched biography of a famous historical person is technically an example of the method of research. a. psychometric b. naturalistic observation c. case study d. correlational Answer c % correct 83 a= 5 b= 9 c= 83 d= 2 r = .18 60. A research method in which the real-life behavior of a pre-selected person is studied at an in-depth level for some time through the use of observation, interviews, and writings (such as letters) is the method of research. a. survey b. psychometric c. case study d. naturalistic observation Answer c % correct 95 a= 3 b= 1 c= 95 d= 2 r = .20 61. One of the main reasons for using a laboratory for psychological research is to a. prevent subjects from escaping b. study behavior in a natural setting c. do large-scale studies

d. allow the researchers to control certain factors Answer d % correct 98 a= 0 b= 0 c= 2 d= 98

r = .33

1.8 Correlations: Finding Relationships 62. The degree of relationship between two or more variables is a. a correlation b. validity c. reliability d. a hypothesis Answer a % correct 97 a= 97 b=0 c= 1 d= 2 r = .09

63. Dr. Santos wishes to study the relationship between high school grades and college grades. Which of the following research methods would be the most appropriate for Dr. Santos’s study? a. case study b. correlation c. experiment d. survey Answer b % correct 37 a= 22 b= 37 c= 10 d= 31 r = .31 64. A correlation of .00 means that . a. you made a mistake in calculation b. you did not find out anything about the relationship between the two variables c. the two variables are unrelated d. everyone who scored low on one variable scored high on the other variable, and vice versa Answer c % correct 56 a= 2 b= 26 c= 56 d= 17 r = .25 65. The greatest disadvantage of correlation is that a. it has a limited range of values, being only -1 to +1 b. it does not enable cause-and-effect conclusions c. its value can be negative d. its value can be zero Answer b % correct 85 a= 11 b= 85 c= 4 d= 1 66. A correlation tells us . a. whether a cause-and-effect relationship exists b. whether two variables are related c. whether or not a test is efficient d. if people are responding to demand characteristics Answer b % correct 87 a= 9 b= 87 c= 4 d= 0 67. A psychologist uses the correlational method to a. explain the effects of one variable on another b. compare two groups of subjects c. determine what causes a variable to change d. identify relationships between variables Answer d % correct 73 a= 11 b= 14 c= 2 d= 73

r = .44

r = .35 .

r = .42

68. The survey method of research is in nature. a. correlational b. experimental c. field experimental d. both correlational and field experimental group Answer a % correct 31 a= 31 b= 9 c= 16 d= 43 r = .22

69. Positive correlation shows . a. the extent to which two independent variables change together b. that as one independent variable increases, another decreases c. that as one variable changes, another changes in the same direction d. that as one variable changes, another changes in the opposite direction Answer c % correct 62 a= 18 b= 9 c= 62 d= 11 r = .40 70. As children grow older, their discretionary income usually increases. The best conclusion to draw about the variables age and income are that they are . a. causally related b. uncorrelated c. negatively correlated d. positively correlated Answer d % correct 92 a= 1 b= 3 c= 4 d= 92 r = .31

1.9 The Experiment 71. The purpose of an experiment is to discover whether there is a relationship between the . a. independent variable; control variable b. dependent variable; control variable c. control group; experimental group d. independent variable; dependent variable Answer d % correct 69 a= 4 b= 3 c= 24 d= 69 r = .30

and the

72. Using both independent and dependent variables is associated with which of the following types of research used in psychology? a. experimentation b. naturalistic observation c. correlation d. correlation and experimentation Answer a % correct 55 a= 55 b= 1 c= 5 d= 39 r = .23 73. The process of establishing causal relationships is most associated with a. naturalistic observation b. experiments c. correlation d. surveys Answer b % correct 33 a= 45 b= 33 c= 14 d= 9 r = .43

74. Which of the following is a strength of experiments? a. They cannot be repeated by anyone other than the experimenter. b. They allow for the establishment of cause-and-effect relationships. c. They are not subject to demand characteristics since the subjects do not know they are being observed. d. They allow us to draw definitive conclusions about behavior in the natural environment based on subjects’ behavior in the laboratory. Answer b % correct 71 a= 0 b= 71 c= 5 d= 23 r = .25 75. Cause-and-effect conclusions can be drawn from the results of an experiment because . a. it is almost always performed in a laboratory setting b. statistical analysis can be applied to data from an experiment c. the independent variable is manipulated while other possible causes of change in the dependent variable are held constant

d. several groups of subjects, not just one sample, are typically investigated in a laboratory experiment Answer c % correct 68 a= 4 b= 15 c= 68 d= 13 r = .28 76. Which method of psychological research utilizes a control group, a dependent variable, and an independent variable? a. experiment b. survey c. case study d. naturalistic observation Answer a % correct 93 a= 93 b= 0 c= 4 d= 3 r = .21 77. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The second variable, which is observed for any possible effects, is called the variable. a. dependent b. control c. independent d. hypothetical Answer a % correct 78 a= 78 b= 8 c= 9 d= 4 r = .47 Answer a % correct 87 a= 87 b= 1 c= 10 d= 3 r = .40 78. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The manipulated variable is called the variable. a. dependent b. control c. independent d. hypothetical Answer c % correct 83 a= 12 b= 4 c= 83 d= 1 r = .46 79. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. What is the manipulated variable called? a. dependent variable b. experimental variable c. independent variable d. placebo Answer c % correct 80 a= 14 b= 5 c= 80 d= 1 r = .45 80. In a controlled experiment, the group subjected to a change in the independent variable is called the group. a. independent b. experimental c. dependent d. control Answer b % correct 77 a= 2 b= 77 c= 9 d= 12 r = .34 81. In an experiment to test the effects of anxiety on performance, the dependent variable is the a. amount of anxiety b. age of the person c. person’s performance d. cause of the anxiety Answer c % correct 76 a= 18 b= 1 c= 76 d= 5 r = .30 82. If explanation of the causes of thoughts, feelings, and behavior is a psychologist’s goal, which method of research should be used? a. correlation b. experiment

c. survey d. naturalistic observation Answer b % correct 45

a= 15 b= 45 c= 14 d= 26

r = .52

83. In a controlled experiment, the group not subjected to a change in the independent variable, and used for comparison with the group receiving the experimental change, is the group. a. independent b. experimental c. dependent d. control Answer d % correct 90 a= 3 b= 4 c= 4 d= 90 r = .42 84. Professor Marquez designed an experiment to test his hypothesis that exercise will increase spelling ability. He divided children into three groups and had one group do 10 minutes of exercises, one group do 30 minutes of exercises, and the third group do no exercise. He then tested all three groups of children to see how many words they could spell correctly on a spelling test. In this experiment, the scores on the spelling test serve as the . a. dependent variable b. independent variable c. control group d. reliability measure Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 8 c= 0 d= 7 r = .46 85. To determine if sugar-rich diets affect hyperactivity in kids, a researcher prepared two daily menus that children would receive for a 30-day period. A high-sugar diet was given to the boys, while the girls had a menu that seemed identical but was not a high-sugar diet. At the end of 30 days, the boys and girls were evaluated to determine their levels of hyperactivity. In this study, the high-sugar diet is the . a. placebo b. independent variable c. dependent variable d. control group Answer b % correct 65 a= 8 b= 65 c= 13 d= 14 r = .51 Answer b % correct 82 a= 3 b= 82 c= 9 d= 5 r = .49 86. Based on her review of relevant scientific studies, Dr. Tanaka believes that there is a relationship between the frequency of a baby’s crying and whether it was nursed at set intervals or on a demand schedule. If this belief were tested by experimentally manipulating feeding schedules, the feeding schedule would be called the . a. independent variable b. dependent variable c. extraneous variable d. control factor Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 17 c= 1 d= 6 r = .44 87. Based on her review of relevant scientific studies, Dr. Tanaka believes that there is a relationship between the frequency of a baby’s crying and whether it was nursed at set intervals or on a demand schedule. If this belief were tested by experimentally manipulating feeding schedules, frequency of crying would be called the . a. latent factor b. dependent variable c. independent variable d. control factor Answer b % correct 64 a= 24 b= 64 c= 24 d= 9 r = .43 88. Dr. Simmons tests the hypothesis that students who study in the room where they take their tests will perform better on the tests than students who study in other rooms. She requires one group to study in the classroom where the exam is given and another group to study in the library. All students take the test in the classroom, and their test performance is compared. In this example, where students study is the .

a. independent variable b. dependent variable c. manipulation d. hypothesis Answer a % correct 64

a= 64 b= 22 c= 10 d= 3

r = .27

89. Dr. Simmons tests the hypothesis that students who study in the room where they take their tests will perform better on the tests than students who study in other rooms. She requires one group to study in the classroom where the exam is given and another group to study in the library. All students take the test in the classroom, and their test performance is compared. In this example, test performance is the . a. dependent variable b. independent variable c. manipulation d. control group Answer a % correct 67 a= 67 b= 16 c= 11 d= 7 r = .47 90. In an experiment on the effects of level of motivation on the performance of typists, the researcher randomly assigned one-third of her subjects to each of three levels of motivation (and then induced different levels of motivation in the three groups). She measured the average words typed per minute by each group, and found that performance was highest under medium motivation, average under low motivation, and worst under high motivation. What was the independent variable in this experiment? a. motivation b. typing speed c. variation in typing speed d. manipulation of typing speed Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 10 c= 3 d= 2 r = .40 91. In an experiment, four groups of college students used different memorizing strategies to learn the material in one chapter of a textbook. Then each group was given the same multiple-choice test on the material. What was the dependent variable in this study? a. the students’ performance on the test b. the four different groups c. the four different memorizing strategies d. manipulation of memorizing strategies Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 7 c= 9 d= 5 r = .58 92. For her psychology class, Yasmine conducted an experiment in which Group A was given 3 minutes to study a word list, while Group B was given 10 minutes to study the same list. Later, both groups were asked to recall words from the list. In this study, the number of words recalled is the . a. independent variable b. dependent variable c. placebo d. control group Answer b % correct 82 a= 10 b= 82 c= 5 d= 3 r = .40 93. Dr. Archer wanted to see if people are more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be “tested” in a group setting and how many chose to be “tested” alone. What was the independent variable in this study? a. tendency to desire the company of others b. level of shock c. level of anxiety d. the anxious group Answer c % correct 54 a= 15 b= 22 c= 54 d= 9 r = .30

94. Dr. Archer wanted to see if people are more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be “tested” in a group setting and how many chose to be “tested” alone. What was the dependent variable in this study? a. the two groups b. the level of anxiety c. preference for being alone or in a group d. manipulation of anxiety Answer c % correct 77 a= 4 b= 10 c= 77 d= 10 r = .64 95. In an experiment, the group of subjects to which the experimental group is compared is called the group. a. comparison b. standard c. confederate d. control Answer d % correct 97 a= 2 b= 1 c= 0 d= 97 r = .21 96. In an experiment concerning the effect of auditory feedback on accuracy in writing computer programs, one group hears a computer-simulated voice say each character or symbol that they type in as they are writing their programs. The second group does not receive the auditory feedback as they type their program lines. This second group is the group. a. experimental b. control c. placebo d. confederate Answer b % correct 79 a= 16 b= 79 c= 3 d= 3 r = .25 97. Dr. Archer wanted to see if people are more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be “tested” in a group setting and how many chose to be “tested” alone. In this study, the group that was NOT frightened would be called the group. a. experimental b. control c. placebo d. test Answer b % correct 90 a= 8 b= 90 c= 2 d= 0 r = .27 98. In psychological studies, randomization is used to ensure that a. there will be an independent and dependent variable b. each person has an equal chance of being assigned to each group c. the control group does not know the purpose of the study d. the experimenter won’t know who is in each group Answer b % correct 84 a= 5 b= 84 c= 3 d= 7 r = .33

1.10 Experimental Hazards and Controlling for Effects 99. A “fake treatment” is one way to define a a. decoy b. demand characteristic c. control group

d. placebo Answer d

% correct 81

a= 7 b= 6 c= 6 d= 81

r = .39

100. Dr. Aziz is conducting a research study on sleep and learning. She questions her own objectivity and decides to let another researcher, who is not associated with conducting the experiment, score the tests. Dr. Aziz is probably trying to eliminate bias. a. experimenter b. sample c. control d. treatment Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 2 c= 3 d= 1 r = .25 101. The experimenter effect can best be controlled by using a. a placebo b. a double-blind study c. randomization d. subjects who do not know the purpose of the study Answer b % correct 79 a= 2 b= 79 c= 16 d= 4 r = .46

102. Mr. McCarthy hired Anya to collect data from a group of subjects. Neither Anya nor the subjects were aware of the independent variable that Mr. McCarthy had manipulated. This is an example of . a. randomization b. a placebo c. double-blind control d. experimenter bias Answer c % correct 97 a= 2 b= 1 c= 97 d= 1 r = .20

Revel Quizzes The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel for Psychology, Sixth Edition. End of Module Quiz 1.1: The History of Psychology EOM Q1.0.1 In the definition of psychology, the term mental processes means . a) internal, covert processes b) unconscious processes Consider This: Mental processes include thinking, feeling, and remembering. See introduction to 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology. c) outward or overt actions and reactions Consider This: Mental processes include thinking, feeling, and remembering. See introduction to 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology. d) only human behavior Consider This: Mental processes include thinking, feeling, and remembering. See introduction to 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: See introduction to 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology. Module: The History of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Easy EOM Q1.1.2 Which early psychologist was the first to try to bring objectivity and measurement to the concept of psychology? a) Wilhelm Wundt b) William James Consider This: The attention to objectivity and the establishment of the first true experimental laboratory in psychology are why this psychologist is known as the father of psychology. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. c) John Watson Consider This: The attention to objectivity and the establishment of the first true experimental laboratory in psychology are why this psychologist is known as the father of psychology. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. d) Sigmund Freud Consider This: The attention to objectivity and the establishment of the first true experimental laboratory in psychology are why this psychologist is known as the father of psychology. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Module: The History of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Easy EOM Q1.1.3 Which of the following early psychologists would have been most likely to agree with the statement, "The study of the mind should focus on how it functions in everyday life"? a) William James b) Wilhelm Wundt

Consider This: This psychologist focused on how the mind allows people to work, play, and adapt to their surroundings. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. c) John Watson Consider This: This psychologist focused on how the mind allows people to work, play, and adapt to their surroundings. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. d) Sigmund Freud Consider This: This psychologist focused on how the mind allows people to work, play, and adapt to their surroundings. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Module: The History of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Easy EOM Q1.1.4 Who was the first woman to complete the coursework for a doctorate at Harvard University? a) Mary Whiton Calkins b) Mary Cover Jones Consider This: She eventually established a psychological laboratory at Wellesley College. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. c) Margaret Washburn Consider This: She eventually established a psychological laboratory at Wellesley College. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. d) Ruth Howard Consider This: She eventually established a psychological laboratory at Wellesley College. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Module: The History of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Easy EOM Q1.2.5 Which early perspective tried to return to a focus on scientific inquiry by ignoring the study of consciousness? a) behaviorism b) functionalism Consider This: This perspective focused on behavior that could be directly seen and measured. 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. c) psychoanalysis Consider This: This perspective focused on behavior that could be directly seen and measured. 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. d) Gestalt Consider This: This perspective focused on behavior that could be directly seen and measured. 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Module: The History of Psychology Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Moderate

End of Module Quiz 1.3–1.4: The Field of Psychology Today EOM Q1.3.1 Which of the following perspectives focuses on the biological bases of universal mental characteristics? a) evolutionary b) humanistic Consider This: This perspective seeks to explain general mental strategies and traits, such as why we lie or how attractiveness influences mate selection. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. c) behavioral Consider This: This perspective seeks to explain general mental strategies and traits, such as why we lie or how attractiveness influences mate selection. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. d) psychodynamic Consider This: This perspective seeks to explain general mental strategies and traits, such as why we lie or how attractiveness influences mate selection. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Module: The Field of Psychology Today Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.3.2 Which perspective offers the best explanation for schizophrenia? a) biopsychological b) psychodynamic Consider This: There is clear evidence that genetics play a role in the development of schizophrenia. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. c) behavioral Consider This: There is clear evidence that genetics play a role in the development of schizophrenia. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. d) humanistic Consider This: There is clear evidence that genetics play a role in the development of schizophrenia. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Module: The Field of Psychology Today Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.3.3 Wesley has learned that if he cries with his mother in public, she will often get him a new toy or a piece of candy so as to quiet him. Which of the following perspectives explains Wesley's behavior? a) behavioral b) psychodynamic Consider This: In this theory, responses that are followed by pleasurable consequences are strengthened, or reinforced. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. c) cognitive Consider This: In this theory, responses that are followed by pleasurable consequences are strengthened, or reinforced. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. d) biopsychological

Consider This: In this theory, responses that are followed by pleasurable consequences are strengthened, or reinforced. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Module: The Field of Psychology Today Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.3.4 Which perspective would a researcher be taking if she were studying a client's early childhood experiences and his resulting development of self? a) psychodynamic b) cognitive Consider This: In this perspective, there is emphasis on the development of a sense of self, social and interpersonal relationships, and the discovery of other motivations behind a person's behavior. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. c) behavioral Consider This: In this perspective, there is emphasis on the development of a sense of self, social and interpersonal relationships, and the discovery of other motivations behind a person's behavior. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. d) evolutionary Consider This: In this perspective, there is emphasis on the development of a sense of self, social and interpersonal relationships, and the discovery of other motivations behind a person's behavior. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Module: The Field of Psychology Today Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.4.6 If Dr. Swasey is like most psychologists, where does she probably work? a) university/college b) independent practice Consider This: There are many different work settings for psychologists. 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. c) government/VA medical center Consider This: There are many different work settings for psychologists. 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. d) business/nonprofit Consider This: There are many different work settings for psychologists. 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Module: The Field of Psychology Today Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Moderate End of Module Quiz 1.5–1.10 Scientific Research EOM Q1.5.1 A common and very dangerous misconception often seen on the Internet is the idea that a childhood immunization, the MMR vaccine, causes autism. This is completely false, but began when a man published a falsified and now

discredited paper making that claim. He was later found to have received money from lawyers representing parents of children with autism who wanted to sue the vaccine companies. Which criterion of critical thinking is most clearly being violated by those who accepted the false claim? a) All evidence is not equal in quality. b) Authority or claimed expertise does not make something true. Consider This: This involves looking at the quality of the research to support some statement, such as the ability to be replicated and the use of a control group. 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. c) Very few "truths" do not need to be tested. Consider This: This involves looking at the quality of the research to support some statement, such as the ability to be replicated and the use of a control group. 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. d) Keep an open mind. Consider This: This involves looking at the quality of the research to support some statement, such as the ability to be replicated and the use of a control group. 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Module: Scientific Research Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.6.2 Dr. White noticed something odd happening to the behavior of his students as midterm exams neared. He decided to take notes about this behavior to find out exactly what was happening and the circumstances surrounding the behavior. His goal is clearly . a) description b) explanation Consider This: This involves observing a behavior and noting everything about it: what is happening, where it happens, to whom it happens, and under what circumstances it seems to happen. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. c) prediction Consider This: This involves observing a behavior and noting everything about it: what is happening, where it happens, to whom it happens, and under what circumstances it seems to happen. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. d) control Consider This: This involves observing a behavior and noting everything about it: what is happening, where it happens, to whom it happens, and under what circumstances it seems to happen. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Module: Scientific Research Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.8.3 Which of the following would indicate the weakest relationship and thus be close to complete randomness? a) +0.01 b) +1.04 Consider This: The closer the number is to zero, the weaker the relationship becomes. 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. c) −0.89 Consider This: The closer the number is to zero, the weaker the relationship becomes. 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables.

d) −0.98 Consider This: The closer the number is to zero, the weaker the relationship becomes. 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Module: Scientific Research Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.7.4 Which of the following is an example of observer bias? a) You develop an opinion of what you expect to see in an experiment. b) You ask your fellow students to be participants in a study of adult memory. Consider This: This happens when the person doing the observing has a particular idea about what he or she expects to see. 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. c) You ask people from your church to participate in a study of family values. Consider This: This happens when the person doing the observing has a particular idea about what he or she expects to see. 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. d) You allow a student to quit an experiment simply because he or she is bored. Consider This: This happens when the person doing the observing has a particular idea about what he or she expects to see. 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Module: Scientific Research Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.9.5 In an experiment to examine the effects of sleep deprivation on completion of a puzzle, one group is allowed to sleep 8 hours while another group is made to stay awake. In this experiment, the control group is . a) the group that gets to sleep b) the group that remains awake Consider This: The control group is used to control for the possibility that other factors might be causing the effect that is being examined. 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. c) the puzzle Consider This: The control group is used to control for the possibility that other factors might be causing the effect that is being examined. 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. d) the difference in time for each group to complete the puzzle Consider This: The control group is used to control for the possibility that other factors might be causing the effect that is being examined. 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Module: Scientific Research Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.10.6 In a study, the participants do not know if they are part of the control group or the experimental group. Only the experimenter knows who is in each group. a) single-blind b) placebo

Consider This: For a long time, this was the only type of experiment researchers carried out in psychology. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. c) double-blind Consider This: For a long time, this was the only type of experiment researchers carried out in psychology. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. d) triple-blind Consider This: For a long time, this was the only type of experiment researchers carried out in psychology. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Module: Scientific Research Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Moderate End of Module Quiz 1.11–1.12 Ethics of Psychological Research EOM Q1.11.1 What is the first guideline for doing research with people? a) The rights and well-being of the participants must come first. b) Participants have to give informed consent. Consider This: There are quite a few ethical concerns when dealing with human subjects in an experiment or other type of study. 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. c) Deception cannot be used in any studies with human beings. Consider This: There are quite a few ethical concerns when dealing with human subjects in an experiment or other type of study. 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. d) Data must remain confidential. Consider This: There are quite a few ethical concerns when dealing with human subjects in an experiment or other type of study. 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. Module: Ethics of Psychological Research Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.11.2 What happens when the results of a study create an undesirable outcome for the participant? a) The researcher must find some way of helping the participant deal with the negative impact. b) The participants signed permission forms and must take their chances. Consider This: Sometimes people react in unexpected ways to the manipulations in an experiment, despite the researcher's best efforts to prevent any negative impact on participants. 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. c) The participant is institutionalized for further study. Consider This: Sometimes people react in unexpected ways to the manipulations in an experiment, despite the researcher's best efforts to prevent any negative impact on participants. 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. d) The researcher simply adds an addendum to the report of the study's results. Consider This: Sometimes people react in unexpected ways to the manipulations in an experiment, despite the researcher's best efforts to prevent any negative impact on participants. 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. Module: Ethics of Psychological Research Skill Level: Understand the Concepts

Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.12.3 What is the biggest reason we use animals in research? a) We can do things to animals that we can't do to people. b) Animals have simple behavior that makes it easy to see changes. Consider This: Some animal rights activists disagree with this point of view. 1.12 Explain why psychologists sometimes use animals in their research. c) Animals don't live as long as humans. Consider This: Some animal rights activists disagree with this point of view. 1.12 Explain why psychologists sometimes use animals in their research. d) Animals are easier to control. Consider This: Some animal rights activists disagree with this point of view. 1.12 Explain why psychologists sometimes use animals in their research. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.12 Explain why psychologists sometimes use animals in their research. Module: Ethics of Psychological Research Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Moderate EOM Q1.12.4 Which of the following is an ethical consideration when using animals in research? a) Avoiding exposing them to unnecessary pain. b) Animals cannot be killed during the course of an experiment. Consider This: If surgery is part of an animal study, it is done under anesthesia. 1.12 Explain why psychologists sometimes use animals in their research. c) Animals must not experience any pain during an experiment. Consider This: If surgery is part of an animal study, it is done under anesthesia. 1.12 Explain why psychologists sometimes use animals in their research. d) There are no ethical considerations when using animals in research. Consider This: If surgery is part of an animal study, it is done under anesthesia. 1.12 Explain why psychologists sometimes use animals in their research. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.12 Explain why psychologists sometimes use animals in their research. Module: Ethics of Psychological Research Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Moderate End of Chapter Quiz: The Science of Psychology EOC Q1.1 In the definition of psychology, the term behavior means . a) overt actions and reactions b) internal, covert processes Consider This: Psychology is the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. See introduction to 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology. c) outward behavior Consider This: Psychology is the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. See introduction to 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology. d) only animal behavior Consider This: Psychology is the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. See introduction to 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology. Answer: a

Learning Objective: See introduction to 1.1–1.2 The History of Psychology. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Easy EOC Q1.2 Who is considered to be the father of African American psychology? a) Francis Cecil Sumner b) Charles Henry Thompson Consider This: He was the first African American to receive a Ph.D. in psychology. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. c) Robert V. Guthrie Consider This: He was the first African American to receive a Ph.D. in psychology. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. d) Howard Hale Long Consider This: He was the first African American to receive a Ph.D. in psychology. 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the contributions of some of the early pioneers in psychology. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Easy EOC Q1.3 Sigmund Freud's psychoanalysis focused on . a) early childhood experiences b) observable behavior Consider This: Freud believed if there were significant problems, those problems must have begun in the early years. 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. c) Gestalt perceptions Consider This: Freud believed if there were significant problems, those problems must have begun in the early years. 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. d) introspection Consider This: Freud believed if there were significant problems, those problems must have begun in the early years. 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Easy EOC Q1.4 Which psychologist dared to ignore the whole consciousness issue and return to a study of scientific inquiry by focusing on observable behavior? a) John Watson b) Ivan Pavlov Consider This: By the early 1900s, he challenged the functionalist viewpoint, as well as psychoanalysis, with his own "science of behavior." 1.2: Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism.

c) Sigmund Freud Consider This: By the early 1900s, he challenged the functionalist viewpoint, as well as psychoanalysis, with his own "science of behavior." 1.2: Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. d) William James Consider This: By the early 1900s, he challenged the functionalist viewpoint, as well as psychoanalysis, with his own "science of behavior." 1.2: Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.2: Summarize the basic ideas and the important people behind the early approaches known as Gestalt, psychoanalysis, and behaviorism. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Easy EOC Q1.5 Which perspective is often referred to as the "third force" in psychology and focuses on people's freedom of choice in determining their behavior? a) humanism b) biopsychological perspective Consider This: This was really a reaction to both psychoanalytic theory and behaviorism. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. c) behaviorism Consider This: This was really a reaction to both psychoanalytic theory and behaviorism. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. d) cognitive psychology Consider This: This was really a reaction to both psychoanalytic theory and behaviorism. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Easy EOC Q1.6 Which perspective best explains the bystander effect whereby individuals will be less likely to help someone in need because of the presence of others close by? a) sociocultural b) psychoanalysis Consider This: This perspective looks at the effect that people have on one another, either individually or in a larger group such as a culture. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. c) behaviorism Consider This: This perspective looks at the effect that people have on one another, either individually or in a larger group such as a culture. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. d) cognitive psychology Consider This: This perspective looks at the effect that people have on one another, either individually or in a larger group such as a culture. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Easy

EOC Q1.7 If Dr. Byers uses an eclectic approach in her clinical treatment of children, what is it that she is doing? a) She is using a combination of perspectives to treat different clients. b) She is relying primarily on one psychological perspective to treat all her patients. Consider This: Some psychological perspectives are related to each other. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. c) She is using medications with all her patients, especially those suffering from depression. Consider This: Some psychological perspectives are related to each other. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. d) She relies heavily on the Freudian psychodynamic perspective to help children who show abnormal behavior. Consider This: Some psychological perspectives are related to each other. 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.3 Summarize the basic ideas behind the seven modern perspectives in psychology. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOC Q1.8 Dr. Colton identifies himself with the largest subfield of psychology. What kind of psychologist is he? a) clinical b) counseling Consider This: Psychology is a large field, and the many professionals working within it have different training, different focuses, and may have different goals from the typical psychologist. 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. c) school Consider This: Psychology is a large field, and the many professionals working within it have different training, different focuses, and may have different goals from the typical psychologist. 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. d) experimental Consider This: Psychology is a large field, and the many professionals working within it have different training, different focuses, and may have different goals from the typical psychologist. 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOC Q1.9 Micah has recently been diagnosed with a psychological disorder that is best addressed initially with medication. He would likely benefit the most by first seeing a . a) psychiatrist b) psychoanalyst Consider This: This is a physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders. 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. c) psychiatric social worker Consider This: This is a physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders. 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. d) psychologist Consider This: This is a physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders. 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.4 Differentiate between the various types of professionals within the field of psychology.

Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOC Q1.10 A famous golfer advertises a new golf bracelet that helps minimize fatigue while playing. If Bethany decides to order the bracelet because she believes that such a well-known personality should know if it works or not, she has made an error in which of the following criteria for critical thinking? a) Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true. b) Few "truths" do not need to be tested. Consider This: Remember, it is the evidence that is important in determining an explanation for some phenomenon. 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. c) All evidence is not equal in quality. Consider This: Remember, it is the evidence that is important in determining an explanation for some phenomenon. 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. d) Critical thinking requires an open mind. Consider This: Remember, it is the evidence that is important in determining an explanation for some phenomenon. 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.5 Recall the basic criteria for critical thinking that people can use in their everyday lives. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOC Q1.11 A psychologist is interested in finding out why married couples seemingly begin to look like each other after several years of marriage. This psychologist is most interested in the goal of . a) explanation b) description Consider This: The goal of description provides observations, and the goal of explanation helps build a theory. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. c) prediction Consider This: The goal of description provides observations, and the goal of explanation helps build a theory. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. d) control Consider This: The goal of description provides observations, and the goal of explanation helps build a theory. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOC Q1.12 Which step in the scientific approach is derived from the goal of description? a) perceiving a question b) reporting your results Consider This: The first step in understanding anything is to describe it. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. c) drawing conclusions Consider This: The first step in understanding anything is to describe it. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. d) forming a hypothesis

Consider This: The first step in understanding anything is to describe it. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Easy EOC Q1.13 Brianne wants to find an explanation for the behavior of her lab rats in her study. Which step in the scientific approach is she currently focusing on? a) testing a hypothesis b) perceiving the question Consider This: Brianne is at the stage where she might make more detailed observations or design an experiment. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. c) drawing conclusions Consider This: Brianne is at the stage where she might make more detailed observations or design an experiment. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. d) reporting her results Consider This: Brianne is at the stage where she might make more detailed observations or design an experiment. 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.6 Recall the five steps of the scientific approach. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Easy EOC Q1.14 The famous study of Phineas Gage, who survived when a metal rod pierced his skull, is an example of a . a) case study b) laboratory experiment Consider This: The advantage of this method is the tremendous amount of detail it provides. 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. c) correlation Consider This: The advantage of this method is the tremendous amount of detail it provides. 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. d) survey Consider This: The advantage of this method is the tremendous amount of detail it provides. 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.7 Compare and contrast some of the methods used to describe behavior. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Understand the Concepts Difficulty Level: Easy EOC Q1.15 A researcher finds that as her participants increased the number of hours they spent exercising, the overall weight of her participants decreased. This would be an example of a correlation. a) negative b) positive

Consider This: A correlation is a measure of the relationship between two or more variables. A variable is anything that can change or vary. 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. c) zero Consider This: A correlation is a measure of the relationship between two or more variables. A variable is anything that can change or vary. 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. d) causal Consider This: A correlation is a measure of the relationship between two or more variables. A variable is anything that can change or vary. 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.8 Explain how researchers use the correlational technique to study relationships between two or more variables. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOC Q1.16 A researcher wants to study the effects of texting on driving. Students in Group A drive a car in a computer game and see how many virtual accidents they have. Students in Group B are asked to drive the same virtual car but they must respond to and send at least three texts. The number of virtual accidents is measured for each group. What is the independent variable? a) texting b) the virtual car Consider This: The independent variable is the variable that is manipulated in an experiment. 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. c) the number of virtual accidents Consider This: The independent variable is the variable that is manipulated in an experiment. 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. d) the group assignment Consider This: The independent variable is the variable that is manipulated in an experiment. 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.9 Identify the steps involved in designing an experiment. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOC Q1.17 A researcher asks an assistant to conduct a study on her behalf. She specifically tells her assistant only to share the results anonymously and not to include the names of the students along with their scores. Such an experiment would be considered a . a) double-blind experiment b) single-blind experiment Consider This: Studies have highlighted the need for the experimenter to be "blind" as well as the participants in research. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. c) correlational study Consider This: Studies have highlighted the need for the experimenter to be "blind" as well as the participants in research. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. d) laboratory observation Consider This: Studies have highlighted the need for the experimenter to be "blind" as well as the participants in research. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Answer: a

Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate EOC Q1.18 Double-blind studies control for . a) the placebo effect and the experimenter effect b) the placebo effect only Consider This: In a double-blind study, neither the participants nor the person or persons measuring the dependent variable know who got what. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. c) the experimenter effect only Consider This: In a double-blind study, neither the participants nor the person or persons measuring the dependent variable know who got what. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. d) extrinsic motivation Consider This: In a double-blind study, neither the participants nor the person or persons measuring the dependent variable know who got what. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Moderate EOC Q1.19 In the stereotypes-and-athletes study, who was the control group? a) those students who completed the survey after the intelligence test b) those students who completed the survey prior to the intelligence test Consider This: The control group is used to control for the possibility that other factors might be causing the effect that is being examined. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. c) those students who were not asked to complete the intelligence test Consider This: The control group is used to control for the possibility that other factors might be causing the effect that is being examined. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. d) those students who did not take part in the study at all Consider This: The control group is used to control for the possibility that other factors might be causing the effect that is being examined. 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.10 Recall two common sources of problems in an experiment and some ways to control for these effects. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Remember the Facts Difficulty Level: Moderate

EOC Q1.20 Dr. Calvin needs just one more participant to complete her experiment. Lisa, a student of Dr. Calvin, has almost completed the experiment when she announces she wants to quit because the experiment is boring. What options does Dr. Calvin have? a) Dr. Calvin must let Lisa go and find another participant. b) Dr. Calvin can require that Lisa finish because students don't have the same rights to quit an experiment as the general public does. Consider This: There are ethical concerns when dealing with human subjects in an experiment or other type of study. 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. c) Dr. Calvin can require that Lisa finish because boredom is not an acceptable excuse for quitting. Consider This: There are ethical concerns when dealing with human subjects in an experiment or other type of study. 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. d) Dr. Calvin can make Lisa stay since she is a student of hers and she requires students to take part in her experiments. Consider This: There are ethical concerns when dealing with human subjects in an experiment or other type of study. 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. Answer: a Learning Objective: 1.11 Identify some of the common ethical guidelines for doing research with people. Module: The Science of Psychology Skill Level: Apply What You Know Difficulty Level: Moderate

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 2 – Quick Quiz 1 1.

Which component of personality represents morality and parental authority? a. the id c. the libido b. the ego d. the superego

Luke is obsessive about cleanliness. He can’t stand it when someone creates a mess in his house or puts something back in the wrong place. A Freudian psychoanalyst would likely say that Luke is fixated in the _________ stage. a. latency c. anal b. oral d. phallic

Which of the following describes the general relationship between genes and personality? a. A genetic predisposition does not necessarily imply genetic inevitability. b. Personality problems that have a genetic component will inevitably occur if a person has the particular gene(s). c. In spite of genetic dispositions and temperament, we can transform our personality completely. d. Individual personality traits are likely to depend on a single gene.

A culture in which people tend to see themselves as autonomous, and value individual goals and wishes above duty and relations with others would be described as a. individualist. c. autonomic. b. narcissistic. d. collectivist.

_______________ cultures value group harmony, duty, obligation, and security. a. Collectivist c. Individualist b. Shared environment d. Western

10.

Which of the following theories of personality would be most likely to emphasize the freedom of

individuals to choose to act in particular ways? a. humanist c. b. behaviorist d.

psychodynamic collectivist

Chapter 2 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: This is a description of the superego. (Page 40, Factual)

Rationale: Those fixated at the anal stage may become “anal retentive,” holding everything in, obsessive about neatness and cleanliness, or they may become just the opposite, “anal expulsive”—messy and disorganized. (Page 42, Factual)

Rationale: Carl Jung believed that all human beings share a vast collective unconscious, containing universal memories, symbols, images, and themes, which he called archetypes. (Page 43, Applied)

Rationale: There is little evidence to support the Myers-Briggs test’s key premise that knowledge of a person’s type reliably predicts behavior on the job or in relationships. (Page 46, Factual)

Rationale: Most researchers today agree that the Big Five do lie at the core of key personality variations among individuals. The Big Five have emerged as distinct, central personality dimensions throughout the world, in countries as diverse as Britain, Canada, the Czech Republic, China, Ethiopia, Turkey, the Netherlands, Japan, Spain, the Philippines, Germany, Portugal, Israel, Korea, Russia, and Australia. (Pages 47–48, Conceptual)

Rationale: Genes are not destiny. A person might have genes that predispose him or her to a personality trait, but without certain environmental stresses or circumstances, the trait may not develop. (Pages 53–54, Conceptual)

Rationale: In social-cognitive theories, the two-way interaction between aspects of the environment and aspects of the individual in the shaping of personality traits is called reciprocal determinism. (Page 55, Conceptual)

Rationale: In individualistic cultures the independence of the individual often takes precedence over the needs of the group. (Page 58, Factual)

Rationale: This is a description of collectivist cultures. (Pages 58–59, Conceptual)

10.

Rationale: The humanist approach to personality emphasizes our uniquely human capacity to determine our own actions and futures. (Page 63, Conceptual)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 2 – Quick Quiz 2 1.

Winnie is attracted to her best friend’s boyfriend. Despite her friendship, when her friend isn’t around, Winnie tries to steal him away. According to Freud, which part of the personality would be responsible for this behavior? a. projection c. the ego b. the id d. the superego

Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five personality traits? a. agreeableness c. neuroticism b. openness to experience d. psychoticism

The nature–nurture debate can be summarized by asking which of the following questions? a. Are differences between people caused by genes or the environment? b. Are people naturally nurturing? c. Can all people be divided into “nature” or “nurture” personality types? d. Do animals have personalities?

In behavioral-genetic research, _______________ includes the family background in which you grew up and the experiences you shared with your siblings and parents. a. the surface structure c. the shared environment b. the nonshared environment d. the deep structure

Which statement reflects the relative influence of parent and peer influences on academic achievement? a. A child’s parents usually have about the same influence as the child’s peers. b. Male children are usually more influenced by their peers, but female children are more influenced by their parents. c. Parents usually have more influence than peers. d. Peers usually have more influence than parents.

Based on his research, Richard Nisbett has hypothesized that ________________ is the cause of higher

rates of white homicide in some regions of the United States. a. higher testosterone levels c. poverty b. a history of slavery d. an economy originally based on herding 10.

Chapter 2 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: The id is the reservoir of unconscious psychological energies and the motives to avoid pain and obtain pleasure. (Page 40, Applied)

Rationale: When displacement serves a higher cultural or socially useful purpose, as in the creation of art or inventions, it is called sublimation. In this example, sexual energy has been channeled into art. (Page 41, Applied)

Rationale: According to object-relations theorists, the central problem in life is to find a balance between the need for independence and the need for others. (Page 43, Conceptual)

Rationale: The Big Five personality factors are extroversion vs. introversion, neuroticism vs. emotional stability, agreeableness vs. antagonism, conscientiousness vs. impulsiveness, and openness to experience vs. resistance to new experience. (Page 47, Factual)

Rationale: The nature–nurture debate centers around whether individual differences are caused nature (biology/genes) or nurture (experience/environment). (Page 49, Conceptual)

Rationale: Because identical twins come from the same fertilized egg, they are far more genetically alike than are other siblings. (Page 52, Applied)

Rationale: This is a definition of shared environment. (Pages 55–56, Factual)

Rationale: Peer support is typically more influential in academic achievement than parental values. (Page 57, Conceptual)

Rationale: White homicide rates in the United States are highest in the South and some western regions where cultures were historically based on herding rather than agriculture. (Page 60, Factual)

10.

Rationale: Rogers feels that parents can correct a child without withdrawing love from the child by drawing attention to rules and pointing out that behavior, not the child, is what is bad. (Page 63, Conceptual)

Chapter 2 – Theories of Personality Multiple Choice Questions PSYCHODYNAMIC THEORIES OF PERSONALITY Learning Objectives 2.1 Freud’s theory of the structure and development of personality 2.2 Carl Jung’s theory of the collective unconscious and how it applies to Harry Potter’s archenemy, Lord Voldemort 2.3 The nature of the “objects” in the object-relations approach to personality 2.4 Why many psychologists reject most psychodynamic ideas 1.

_______________ is defined as a distinctive and relatively stable pattern of behavior, thoughts, motives, and emotions that characterizes an individual throughout life. a. A trait b. Personality c. Reciprocal determinism d. The ego Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 39–40 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is a definition of personality.

% correct 96 a= 4 b= 96 c= 0 d= 0 r = .21 2.

A _______________ is a habitual way of behaving, thinking, and feeling. a. personality b. trait c. personality type d. temperament Section: Chapter Introduction Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: This is a definition of a trait. % correct 67 a= 20 b= 67 c= 13 d= 0 r = .26 3.

Page(s): 39–40 Answer: b

After twelve years of attending the same schools, Holly and Amy chose to attend colleges in different states. Holly remembered Amy as a shy but friendly girl who rarely took risks, and so Holly was surprised when her friend sent an e-mail describing the thrill of sky-diving. Holly’s surprise occurred because Amy’s behaviors don’t match the _______________ that Holly had observed in high school. a. collective unconscious b. archetypes c. personality traits d. defense mechanisms Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 39–40 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Holly’s personality traits—habitual ways of behaving, thinking, and feeling—seemed to have changed when she was away at school. 4.

The first psychodynamic theory of personality was developed by a. Sigmund Freud. b. John Watson. c. Abraham Maslow. d. Carl Jung.

Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Freud developed the first psychodynamic theory.

Page(s): 40 Answer: a

During a job interview, Dr. Sardonicus informs the search committee that she is a psychodynamic theorist. Given this information, the committee concludes that Dr. Sardonicus probably believes that a. humans are rational decision makers. b. personality development is smooth and continuous. c. psychologists need to rely on objective rather than subjective methods. d. adult personality is formed primarily by experiences in early childhood. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The two primary emphases of all psychodynamic theories are the role of the unconscious and the importance of childhood experiences. 6.

Which of the following is NOT an emphasis shared by all psychodynamic theories? a. an emphasis on unconscious processes within the mind b. an emphasis on the role of early childhood experiences c. an emphasis on adult experiences as the cause of ongoing problems d. an emphasis on unconscious thoughts and feelings from childhood that later form characteristic habits, conflicts, and often self-defeating behavior Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The two primary emphases of all psychodynamic theories are the role of the unconscious and the importance of childhood experiences.

% correct 67 a= 17 b= 13 c= 67 d= 3 r = .33 7.

Theorists within the psychodynamic tradition would agree that a. psychological theories should only be developed by studying large groups of subjects. b. the first five years are critical in the development of adult personalities. c. psychologists need to rely on objective rather than subjective methods. d. personality development is smooth and continuous. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The two primary emphases of all psychodynamic theories are the role of the unconscious and the importance of childhood experiences. 8.

Which aspect of the mind held the greatest fascination for Freud? a. the preconscious mind b. the conscious area c. suppressions d. the unconscious Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Sigmund Freud emphasized unconscious motives and conflicts. % correct 86 a= 14 b= 0 c= 0 d= 86 r = .26 9.

Page(s): 40 Answer: d

John dreamed that he was in a train that entered a tunnel. If a psychologist believed that the dream expressed John's unconscious sexual desires, the psychologist would likely be a a. humanist. b. learning theorist. c. personologist. d. psychoanalyst. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d

Rationale: Psychoanalysis was originally formulated by Sigmund Freud and emphasizes unconscious motives and conflicts. Freud believed that the unconscious reveals itself in art, dreams, jokes, apparent accidents, and slips of the tongue. % correct 97 a= 0 b= 0 c= 3 d= 97 r = .25 10.

Which component of personality is present at birth and is the reservoir of unconscious psychological energies and the motives to avoid pain and obtain pleasure? a. the id b. the ego c. the libido d. the superego Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is a description of the id.

% correct 79

a= 79 b= 7 c= 3 d= 11

r = .21

11.

Which component of personality is a “referee” between the needs of instinct and the demands of society? a. the id b. the ego c. the libido d. the superego Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is a description of the ego.

% correct 75

a= 3 b= 75 c= 0 d= 21

r = .43

12.

Which component of personality represents morality and parental authority? a. the id b. the ego c. the libido d. the superego Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a description of the superego.

% correct 75

a= 11 b= 14 c= 0 d= 75

Page(s): 40 Answer: d

r = .69

13.

In Freud’s theory, the psychic energy that fuels the sexuality instinct is called a. the libido. b. the ego. c. the superego. d. the id. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of libido. 14.

Page(s): 40 Answer: a

Rationale: The id is the reservoir of unconscious psychological energies and the motives to avoid pain and obtain pleasure. 15.

Cecil is sexually attracted to his middle-school English teacher. He doesn’t act on his feelings however, because he realizes that it is unrealistic that his teacher would respond positively to his advances. According to Freud, which part of the personality would be responsible for Cecil’s restraint? a. denial b. the id c. the ego d. the superego Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The ego is a referee between the needs of instinct and the demands of society. It bows to the realities of life, putting a rein on the id’s desire for sex and aggression until a suitable, socially appropriate outlet for them can be found. 16.

Latasha sees a cell phone sitting on a park bench. If her superego had a voice, it would probably tell her a. to take the phone because she really wants it and it will bring her pleasure. b. that stealing is wrong and she should leave the phone where it is. c. that if she wants a phone, the logical thing to do is save her money so she can buy one. d. it’s ok to take the phone because the owner clearly didn’t want it anymore. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The superego, the last system of personality to develop, is the voice of conscience, representing morality and parental authority. 17.

According to Freud, the major components of personality do not develop at the same time. The _______________ is present at birth, then the _______________ develops, and finally the _______________. a. libido; superego; ego b. id; ego; superego c. ego; id; superego d. superego; libido; ego Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The id is present at birth, the ego develops during early childhood, and finally the superego develops. 18.

Psychoanalysts sometimes describe personality as an iceberg, with the largest part hidden deep below the water. A person in a boat is aware of only a small part of the iceberg sticking out above the water. In this metaphor, which part of the personality would the majority of the ice showing above the water represent? a. the unconscious b. the id c. the ego d. the libido Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: According to Freud, most of the personality is unconscious. The ego is the largely conscious part of the personality. 19.

In psychodynamic theory, an inner voice that says that you did something wrong would be most closely connected with the a. libido. b. id. c. ego. d. superego.

Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The superego is the voice of conscience, representing morality and parental authority. 20.

Davey is a person who strives to be a perfectionist. When he does not meet his self-imposed goals, he is likely to feel guilt and shame. A Freudian would probably say that Davey’s personality is dominated by his a. libido. b. id. c. ego. d. superego. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40–41 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The superego represents morality and parental authority. Someone who is too controlled by the superego is rigid, moralistic, and bossy. 21.

Lou has very little regard for other people’s feelings or property when he steals from them. A Freudian is likely to consider which part of Lou’s personality to be underdeveloped? a. superego b. id c. mandala d. Oedipus complex Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40–41 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: A well-developed superego would mean Lou had feelings of guilt and shame about breaking the rules. 22.

According to Freud, if a person’s id is in conflict with social rules, one strategy the ego can use is a. a defense mechanism. b. fixation. c. a mandala. d. the Oedipus complex. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 41 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: If a person feels anxious or threatened when the wishes of the id conflict with social rules, the ego has weapons at its command to relieve the tension. These unconscious strategies are called defense mechanisms. 23.

During a grade school field trip, Ryan and his friends were running down a hill when he stepped on a snake. He was unharmed but shaken by the experience. When one of his friends mentioned the incident months later, Ryan could not remember running down the hill that day. Freud would say that this is an example of a. sublimation. b. displacement. c. repression. d. reaction formation. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 41 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The memory of the snake was distressing to Ryan so it was repressed or pushed into the unconscious.

% correct 93 24.

a= 0 b= 0 c= 93 d= 7

r = .21

Anna is a morally rigorous person who demands that her daughter remain a virgin until she is married. Anna cannot remember her own premarital sexual encounters. Which defense mechanism would likely account for this memory lapse? a. rationalization b. denial

c. repression d. projection Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 41 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Repression occurs when a threatening idea, memory, or emotion is blocked from consciousness. % correct 76 a= 3 b= 21 c= 76 d= 0 r = .24 25.

Vito is angry when the school bus driver blames Vito for misbehaving when it actually was the child behind him who had been acting up. As he gets off the bus, he kicks the bus tire. Freud would say that Vito is unconsciously using the defense mechanism of a. displacement. b. repression. c. projection. d. denial. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 41 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of displacement, where Vito’s anger is directed toward the bus tire rather than the true object of his anger, the bus driver. 26.

Which defense mechanism involves reversion to an earlier phase of psychological development? a. repression b. regression c. denial d. projection Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 41 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is a definition of regression. 27.

The junior class at a local high school was stunned when an alcohol-impaired driver missed a turn and caused a fatal accident involving a classmate. The school crisis team noted that many classmates responded in ways that seemed to indicate that they were invulnerable to this kind of tragedy because “They were careful drivers who always wore seatbelts.” The crisis team concluded that these students were using the defense mechanism called a. regression. b. projection. c. displacement. d. denial. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 41 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Denial is a refusal to admit to something unpleasant or distressing. 28.

Making a vow of celibacy was difficult for Andrew when he became a priest, but he remained true to his vow. On his 25th anniversary, the congregation held a reception and displayed several pieces of liturgical art that Andrew had created over the past two decades. According to Freud, Andrew’s artistic creations might be the result of a. sublimation. b. reaction formation. c. denial. d. projection. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 41 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When displacement serves a higher cultural or socially useful purpose, as in the creation of art or inventions, it is called sublimation. In this example, sexual energy has been channeled into art. 29.

Diego hears from the doctor that he has a serious disease. Diego’s response is “This can’t be true! There’s been a mistake. It cannot be me.” What Freudian defense mechanism is Diego using?

a. denial b. projection c. repression d. displacement Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 41 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Denial occurs when people refuse to admit that something unpleasant is happening. 30.

If the frustration, conflict, and anxiety associated with a particular psychosexual stage are not properly resolved, Freud believed children may a. jump forward to the genital stage. b. regress back to the anal stage. c. remain fixated, or stuck, at that stage. d. fail to develop a superego. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 41–42 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Fixation occurs when a person essentially gets stuck in a particular stage because its problems and conflicts were unresolved. 31.

According to Freud, personality develops through a series of psychosexual stages. The stage that occurs during the first year of life is called the __________ stage. a. latency b. oral c. anal d. phallic Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The oral stage occurs during the first year of life. 32.

An orally fixated person would most likely a. be an only child. b. dislike his or her father. c. be a sloppy dresser. d. eat and smoke a great deal. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Freud believed that some people who become fixated at the oral stage will seek oral gratification in smoking, overeating, nail biting, or chewing on pencils as adults. % correct 95 a= 5 b= 0 c= 0 d= 95 r = .20 33.

The process of toilet training occurs during the _______ stage. a. phallic b. oral c. anal d. genital Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: According to Freud, the anal stage occurs at ages 2 to 3, when toilet training and control of bodily wastes are the key issues. % correct 95 a= 0 b= 0 c= 95 d= 5 r = .55 34.

c. anal d. phallic Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Those fixated at the anal stage may become “anal retentive,” holding everything in, obsessive about neatness and cleanliness, or they may become just the opposite, “anal expulsive”—messy and disorganized. 35.

Four-year-old Lindsey squeezes between her Mommy and Daddy as they sit together on the couch. She cuddles her Daddy but refuses to kiss her Mommy. This illustrates which Freudian concept? a. the genital stage b. the Oedipus complex c. fixation d. the collective unconscious Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of the Oedipus complex where a child wishes to possess the parent of the other sex and get rid of the parent of the same sex. 36.

Which psychosexual stage is most crucial for the formation of personality, according to Freud? a. the oral stage b. the anal stage c. the phallic stage d. the genital stage Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Freud thought the phallic stage with its Oedipal complex was the most crucial stage for the formation of personality.

% correct 83

a= 10 b= 13 c= 83 d= 3

r = .45

37.

What are the stages of psychosexual development in order, beginning from birth? a. anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital b. oral, anal, latency, genital, phallic c. oral, anal, genital, latency, phallic d. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The oral stage occurs during the first year, the anal stage during the second and third years, the phallic stage during the preschool period, the latency through the elementary school years until puberty, and then the genital stage.

% correct 93

a= 3 b= 0 c= 3 d= 93

r = .43

38.

When boys are in the Oedipal stage, according to Freud, a. they are distressed because when they grow up they won’t be able to have babies. b. they are horrified by naked girls, because girls have had their penises cut off. c. they are distressed to learn that they can never nurse a baby like Mommy can. d. they do not have a powerful motivation to give up their Oedipal feelings for their mothers. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Freud believed that both boys and girls would think that girls were born with a penis and somehow lost it. 39.

The stage of personality development which lasts from about age 6 until puberty is known as the _______ stage. a. phallic b. anal

c. genital d. latency Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Freud believed that when the Oedipus complex is resolved, at about age 5 or 6, the child settles into a supposedly nonsexual latency stage, in preparation for the genital stage, which begins at puberty and leads to adult sexuality. % correct 79 a= 10 b= 0 c= 10 d= 79 r = .32 40.

Which of the following statements most closely reflects the current view of Freudian theory? a. Freud’s works have been thoroughly and completely rejected by virtually all respectable psychologists. b. Most psychologists agree that careful scientific study has confirmed most of Freud’s ideas. c. While some of Freud’s ideas have been proven wrong, almost all psychologists agree that he used good scientific methodology. d. Freud’s basic ideas are accepted by many psychologists, while others reject them as unscientific. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Many believe the overall framework of Freud’s theory is timeless and brilliant while others think psychodynamic theory is nonsense. 41.

Which psychoanalyst is known for arguing that the concept of “penis envy” was insulting and misguided? a. Carl Jung b. Sigmund Freud c. Karen Horney d. Raymond Cattell Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 43 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Karen Horney argued that it was insulting and unscientific to claim that half the human race is dissatisfied with its anatomy. 42.

According to _______________, there is a collective unconscious shared by all human beings, containing universal memories, symbols, and images that are the legacy of human history. a. Carl Jung b. Sigmund Freud c. Karen Horney d. Raymond Cattell Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 43 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Carl Jung, a psychodynamic theorist, proposed the idea of the collective unconscious to explain myths and superstitions.

% correct 77

a= 77 b= 0 c= 20 d= 3

r = .60

43.

Carl Jung believed that the visual archetype called a _____________ in Eastern religions symbolizes the unity of life and “the totality of the self.” a. Earth Mother b. shadow c. mandala d. Oedipus Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 43 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: An archetype can be an image, such as the “magic circle,” called a mandala in Eastern religions, which Jung thought symbolizes the unity of life and “the totality of the self.” 44.

Carl Jung would agree that a. Darth Vader represents the shadow archetype. b. the collective unconscious differs for each person.

c. human personality is mostly driven by “dark” forces. d. past conflicts provide the only motivation for current behaviors. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 43 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The shadow archetype reflects the prehistoric fear of wild animals and represents the evil side of human nature. 45.

Penny is a folklorist who studies myths and stories from different cultures around the world. She notices that there are some character types that appear frequently, despite the fact that the cultures she studies have had little to no contact with each other. Whose work would Penny likely cite to explain this observation? a. Karen Horney b. Sigmund Freud c. Clara Thompson d. Carl Jung Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 43 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Carl Jung believed that all human beings share a vast collective unconscious, containing universal memories, symbols, images, and themes, which he called archetypes. 46.

Which of the following statements summarizes a key principle of the object-relations school of thought? a. Infants develop their personality based upon which objects they encounter. b. All human beings share a vast collection of universal memories and beliefs. c. Individuals need to find a balance between the need for independence and the need for others. d. Infants only care about adults who fulfill their basic needs and desires. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 43 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: According to object-relations theorists, the central problem in life is to find a balance between the need for independence and the need for others. 47.

Dr. Simmons is a psychologist who believes that the central problem in life is to find a balance between the need for independence and the need for others. She is most likely to be interested in the writings of a. Melanie Klein and D. W. Winnicott. b. Karen Horney. c. Carl Jung. d. Anna Freud Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 43 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: According to object-relations theorists like Melanie Klein and Donald Winnicott, the central problem in life is to find a balance between the need for independence and the need for others. 48.

Suppose a student in your class asked the professor, “Why is it important to study the psychodynamic view of personality?” Which of the following would be a valid response? a. Most psychologists agree that it is still valid today. b. It is based on rigorous scientific study. c. It has had a huge impact on the way psychologists and nonpsychologists think about personality. d. It is the only theory that accurately explains personality. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40–45 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Psychodynamic theory has been widely influential, not only in the way we think about personality, but also in literature, philosophy, and popular culture. 49.

The “objects” in the object-relations school of thought refers to a. both real and mental representations of other people. b. the toys an infant plays with. c. the parts of a person’s personality. d. a person’s most basic needs and desires.

Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 44 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: “Objects” are both real people and mental representations. For example, a child may create a mental representation of the mother based on his or her perceptions of the parent. 50.

In the object-relations view of development a. boys identify first with the mother and girls identify with the father. b. boys identify first with the father and girls identify with the mother. c. children of both sexes identify first with the father. d. children of both sexes identify first with the mother. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 44 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The object-relations school departs from Freudian theory regarding the nature of male and female development. In the object-relations view, children of both sexes identify first with the mother. 51.

Asked about a recently published study showing that little girls do not have penis envy, a psychodynamic theorist immediately says that the little girls are all in denial and do not want to admit to the feelings that they have. This response is an example of a. basing theories on the retrospective accounts of adults. b. overgeneralization. c. the illusion of causality. d. violating the principle of falsifiability. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 44 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The principle of falsifiability refers to the idea that any theory can be proven wrong in the face of certain evidence. In this example, there is no evidence that would prove the psychoanalyst’s beliefs wrong because the person automatically discounts that evidence as being improperly obtained. 52.

Which is the scientific failing of psychodynamic theories when a researcher concludes from a few cases that something is true for all? a. falsifiability b. generalizing from small sample sizes c. relying on emotional reactions rather than sound reasoning d. basing theories on retrospective accounts Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 44 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Generalizing becomes a problem when observers fail to confirm their observations by studying larger, more representative samples and including appropriate control groups. 53.

Some psychologists critique psychodynamic theories because they are largely based on the retrospective accounts of adults. One reason this is a problem is that a. adult memories for childhood experiences may be flawed. b. random samples are biased. c. childhood experiences can affect adult personalities. d. retrospective studies only focus on atypical adults. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 45 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Retrospective studies work backward, creating theories based on themes in adults’ recollections of childhood. One reason this is problematic is that childhood memories are often inaccurate, and may be influenced as much by what is going on in our lives now as by what happened in the past. 54.

Which type of research is likely to create an illusion of causality? a. longitudinal studies b. retrospective analysis c. experiments d. cross-sectional studies

Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 45 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: A major problem with retrospective analysis is that it creates an illusion of causality between events.

THE MODERN STUDY OF PERSONALITY Learning Objectives 2.5 Whether you can trust tests that tell you what “personality type” you are 2.6 How psychologists can tell which personality traits are more central or important than others 2.7 The five dimensions of personality that describe people the world over 55.

Early philosophers suggested that human personality is based on a. the sense of being able to achieve goals. b. early relationships with the mother. c. four different mixes of basic body fluids. d. a person’s subjective sense of self and free will. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 46 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Early Greek philosophers thought our personalities fell into four fundamental categories, depending on mixes of body fluids. 56.

What does the empirical evidence show about the Myers-Briggs test’s ability to predict a person’s behavior on the job or in relationships? a. The measure has never been applied to this task. b. The evidence does not support it. c. There are mixed results. d. The test has been clearly established as strong and reliable. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 46 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: There is little evidence to support the Myers-Briggs test’s key premise that knowledge of a person’s type reliably predicts behavior on the job or in relationships. 57.

Howard’s psychologist asks him to take a personality test. The test consists of a series of standardized multiple choice items. The test also includes a section where Howard is asked to rate himself on a series of scales. It is likely that this is a(n) a. factor analysis. b. objective test. c. heredity test . d. humanist analysis. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 46 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is a description of an objective test. 58.

For Gordon Allport, our personalities reflect a. a few central traits and a greater number of secondary traits. b. the ways we cope with the struggle to find meaning in existence. c. whether or not a person received unconditional positive regard throughout childhood. d. a gradual progression toward self-actualization. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 46–47 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Allport believed that each person has a small number of central traits and a larger number of secondary traits. 59.

Raymond Cattell advanced the study of personality by

a. developing case-study analysis. b. disproving Early Greek theories of personality. c. devising the Myers-Briggs inventory. d. using factor analysis. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Cattell used factor analysis to identify clusters of correlated items that seem to be measuring some common, underlying factor. 60.

Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five personality traits? a. agreeableness b. openness to experience c. neuroticism d. psychoticism Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The Big Five personality factors are extroversion vs. introversion, neuroticism vs. emotional stability, agreeableness vs. antagonism, conscientiousness vs. impulsiveness, and openness to experience vs. resistance to new experience.

% correct 97

a= 0 b= 0 c= 3 d= 97

r = .18

61.

_______________ describes the extent to which people are outgoing or shy. a. Agreeableness vs. antagonism b. Extroversion vs. introversion c. Neuroticism vs. emotional stability d. Openness to experience vs. resistance to new experience Section: The Modern Study of Personality Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a description of extroversion vs. introversion.

% correct 73

a= 3 b= 73 c= 0 d= 23

Page(s): 47 Answer: b

r = .45

62.

Walter prefers to stay home on a Friday night and read a good book to hanging out with other people. In fact, he tends to be fairly reclusive in general. Walter would be best described as a. introverted . b. extroverted. c. neurotic. d. antagonist. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Extroversion and introversion describes the extent to which people are outgoing or shy, respectively. A person who is introverted may be more reclusive, cautious, socially passive, and prefer to stay in the shadows. 63.

_______________ describes the extent to which people are anxious and impulsive. a. Agreeableness vs. antagonism b. Extroversion vs. introversion c. Neuroticism vs. emotional stability d. Openness to experience vs. resistance to new experience Section: The Modern Study of Personality Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This defines neuroticism vs. emotional stability.

% correct 83

a= 0 b= 17 c= 83 d= 0

r = .21

Page(s): 47 Answer: c

64.

Amir is constantly worrying about things, even though he really doesn’t have anything to worry about. He constantly complains about his coursework, and gives up on difficult projects easily. Amir is best described as highly a. antagonistic. b. extroverted. c. impulsive. d. neurotic. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Neurotic individuals are worriers, complainers, and defeatists, even when they have no major problems. They are always ready to see the sour side of life and none of its sweetness. 65.

_______________ describes whether people are cooperative and secure, or irritable and abrasive. a. Agreeableness vs. antagonism b. Extroversion vs. introversion c. Neuroticism vs. emotional stability d. Openness to experience vs. resistance to new experience Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This defines agreeableness vs. antagonism.

% correct 83

a= 83 b= 3 c= 13 d= 0

r = .38

66.

Most of Candice’s relationships with other people are hostile. She frequently gets in fights with strangers and even close friends. Candice is highly a. introverted . b. antagonistic. c. extroverted. d. neurotic. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Agreeableness and antagonism reflects the tendency to have friendly relationships or hostile ones, respectively. 67.

_______________ describes whether people are steadfast and persevering, or fickle and careless. a. Agreeableness vs. antagonism b. Extroversion vs. introversion c. Conscientiousness vs. impulsiveness d. Openness to experience vs. resistance to new experience Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: This defines conscientiousness vs. impulsiveness.

% correct 97 68.

a= 3 b= 0 c= 97 d= 0

r = .17

_______________ describes the extent to which people are imaginative and questioning, or conforming

and predictable. a. Agreeableness vs. antagonism b. Extroversion vs. introversion c. Conscientiousness vs. impulsiveness d. Openness to experience vs. resistance to new experience Section: The Modern Study of Personality Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This defines openness vs. resistance to new experience.

% correct 73 69.

a= 10 b= 10 c= 7 d= 73

Page(s): 47 Answer: d

r = .39

Rene is 85 years old. It is most likely that he has become __________ open to new experiences and

_________ extroverted over the last few decades. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: In later adulthood, people become less extroverted and less open to new experience. 70.

Which trait among the Big Five typically decreases by age 30? a. extroversion b. neuroticism c. agreeableness d. openness to experience Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Neuroticism is highest in young people, ages 16 to 21, but usually decreases between ages 30 and 40. 71.

According to many clinical psychologists, an important trait, _______________, is not included among the Big Five. a. carelessness b. suspicion c. self-absorption d. neuroticism Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Important traits involved in mental disorders such as psychopathy, self-absorption, and obsessionality are not included in the Big Five. 72.

Regarding the Big Five, most psychologists would probably agree with the statement that a. an individual’s core traits change a lot throughout his or her lifetime. b. important traits involved in mental disorders are included in the Big Five. c. they only apply to people in Western cultures, such as the United States and Great Britain. d. they lie at the core of key personality variations among individuals throughout the world. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47–48 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Most researchers today agree that the Big Five do lie at the core of key personality variations among individuals. The Big Five have emerged as distinct, central personality dimensions throughout the world, in countries as diverse as Britain, Canada, the Czech Republic, China, Ethiopia, Turkey, the Netherlands, Japan, Spain, the Philippines, Germany, Portugal, Israel, Korea, Russia, and Australia.

GENETIC INFLUENCES ON PERSONALITY Learning Objectives 2.8 Whether animals have “personalities” just as people do 2.9 The extent to which genes influence temperamental and personality differences among people 2.10 Why people who have highly heritable personality traits are not necessarily stuck with them forever 73.

The nature–nurture debate can be summarized by asking: a. are differences between people caused by genes or the environment? b. are people naturally nurturing?

c. can all people be divided into “nature” or “nurture” personality types? d. do animals have personalities? Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 49 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The nature–nurture debate centers around whether individual differences are caused by nature (biology/genes) or nurture (experience/environment). 74.

The functional units of heredity that are composed of DNA and specify the structure of proteins are called a. heritability. b. genes. c. traits. d. chromosomes. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 49 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is the definition of a gene. 75.

Of our total DNA, 98.8 percent is a. protein. b. genes. c. noncoding DNA. d. chromosomes. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 49 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: 98.8 percent of our total DNA is called noncoding DNA and lies outside the genes. 76.

Which of these research methods would a psychologist be likely to employ to study the influence of genetics on personality? a. examining heritability in twins and adopted individuals b. interviewing people who have known others who were particularly odd or unique c. administering paper and pencil or computerized questionnaires to hundreds of people d. documenting the patterns of development and difficulties of psychiatric patients Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 50 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: One method of measuring genetic contributions is by studying heritability in twins and adopted individuals. 77.

In the study of dogs and their owners, Samuel Gosling and his colleagues found a. dogs do not have personalities. b. the owners and neutral observers could not agree on the dogs’ personalities. c. all of the dogs had similar personality traits. d. the dog owners and the neutral observers all agreed strongly in their ratings of the dogs’ personalities along four of the Big Five dimensions. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 50 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The dog owners, their friends, and the neutral observers all agreed strongly in their ratings of the dogs’ personalities along four of the Big Five dimensions: extroversion, agreeableness, emotional reactivity (neuroticism), and openness to experience. 78.

Research on animal personality suggests that a. many different species demonstrate most of the Big Five factors. b. only humans have true personalities. c. only primates (humans, apes, monkeys) have distinctive, characteristic ways of behaving that make them different from their follows. d. pet owners make poor observers of their pet’s personality. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 50

Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: To date, Gosling and his colleagues have found evidence of most of the Big Five factors in 64 different species, including the squishy squid, bears, dogs, pigs, hyenas, goats, cats, and of course primates. 79.

Sonia owns a small dog. Both she and a close friend agree that the dog is very extroverted, but a little neurotic. What is probably true about their opinion? a. It is incorrect because pet owners have very biased views of their pets’ personality. b. It is incorrect because extroversion and neuroticism are not personality traits seen in dogs. c. It is correct because dog owners and friends are fairly good at rating the personality traits of their dogs. d. It is correct because almost all dogs are extroverted but a little neurotic. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 50 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: When tested, dog owners, their friends, and neutral observers all agreed strongly in their ratings of the dogs’ personalities along four of the Big Five dimensions: extroversion, agreeableness, emotional reactivity (neuroticism), and openness to experience. 80.

Physiological dispositions to respond to the environment in certain ways are present in infancy. These dispositions, called _______________, are assumed to be innate. a. personalities b. aptitudes c. temperaments d. traits Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 50 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is a definition of temperament. % correct 79 a= 0 b= 0 c= 79 d= 21 r = .59 81.

At the age of four months, Zach was excitable and fearful. His dad taped a colorful picture beside the changing table to entertain Zach during diaper changes. Zach overreacted to the picture and became agitated and nervous. Zach is most likely to be classified as a(n) ___________ child. a. introverted b. extroverted c. reactive d. nonreactive Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 51 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Reactive children overreact to any little thing and tend to be wary and fearful. They also show greater physiological arousal than nonreactive children. 82.

As an infant, Melanie would lie in her crib without fussing and would rarely cry. As a toddler, she was curious and fairly extroverted. Melanie would most likely be classified as a ___________ child. a. precocious b. nonreactive c. reactive d. responsive Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 51 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Nonreactive infants take things easy. They lie there without fussing; they rarely cry; they babble happily. As toddlers, they are outgoing and curious about new toys and events. They continue to be easygoing and extroverted throughout childhood. 83.

During a mildly stressful task, reactive children are more likely than nonreactive to show

a. high levels of stress hormone. b. increased brain activity. c. no physiological change. d. decreased heart rates. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 51 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: During mildly stressful tasks, reactive children are more likely than nonreactive children to have increased heart rates, heightened brain activity, and high levels of stress hormones. 84.

_______________ is a statistical estimate of the proportion of the total variance in some trait that is attributable to genetic differences among individuals within a group. a. Reciprocal determinism b. Heritability c. Factor analysis d. Congruence Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 51 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is the definition of heritability. % correct 87 a= 0 b= 87 c= 10 d= 3 r = .20 85.

Your whole class takes a test to obtain scores on “approachability.” Which one of the following describes the heritability of the trait? a. the calculated difference between the highest score in the class and the lowest score b. how much each student’s particular approachability score is due to genetic differences c. the extent to which your class’s variation in approachability is due to genetic differences d. the similarity of scores within the class to each of their nearest blood relatives’ scores on the same test Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 51 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Heritability is a statistical estimate of the proportion of the total variance in some trait that is attributable to genetic differences among individuals within a group. This estimate applies only to the group as a whole. It does not tell you anything about the impact of genetics on any particular individual. 86.

What is the maximum value for heritability? a. .1 b. 1.0 c. 10 d. 100 Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 51 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Because the heritability of a trait is expressed as a proportion, the maximum value it can have is 1.0 (which would mean that 100 percent of the variation in the trait was due to genetic variation). 87.

Karen reads a study that estimates the heritability of intelligence at .6. She tells a friend that, according to the article she just read, that 60 percent of her intelligence is determined by her genes. What is true about Karen’s statement? a. It is correct. b. It is incorrect; only 6 percent of her intelligence is determined by her genes. c. It is incorrect; 60 percent of her intelligence is determined by her environment. d. It is incorrect; heritability does not tell you anything about the impact of genetics on any particular individual. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 51 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Heritability is a statistical estimate of the proportion of the total variance in some trait that is attributable to genetic differences among individuals within a group. This estimate applies only to the group

as a whole. It does not tell you anything about the impact of genetics on any particular individual. 88. Dr. Vongasser works with both biologists and psychologists to study the heritability of personality traits such as stubbornness and generosity. Which field does Dr. Vongasser likely work in? a. behavioral genetics b. psychiatry c. social-cognitive genetics d. object relations Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 51 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Behavioral genetics is an interdisciplinary field of study concerned with the genetic bases of individual differences in behavior and personality. 89.

Which trait likely has the highest heritability? a. speaking accent b. height c. table manners d. music preference Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 51–52 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Height is about 90 percent heritable. Most of the variation in the other traits is likely due to upbringing. 90.

Which of these sibling pairs will share the greatest number of genes? a. two brothers who were born of the same two parents 18 months apart b. a brother and sister who are fraternal twins c. two brothers who develop from the same fertilized egg d. two sisters who are fraternal twins Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 52 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Because identical twins come from the same fertilized egg, they are far more genetically alike than are other siblings. 91.

New research on identical twins suggests that a. duplicated or missing blocks of DNA can exist in one identical twin but not the other. b. they are no more alike genetically than any other two siblings. c. they can develop when a woman’s ovaries release two eggs instead of one and each egg is fertilized by a different sperm. d. they can be born several years apart. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 52 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Because the twins come from the same fertilized egg, scientists have always assumed that they share all their genes. Some surprising recent work, however, suggests that duplicated or missing blocks of DNA can exist in one identical twin but not the other. 92.

Fraternal twins a. share almost all of the same genes. b. typically share about half of their genes. c. share fewer genes than identical twins, but many more than nontwin siblings. d. share very few genes. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 52 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Fraternal twins are wombmates, but they are no more alike genetically than any other two siblings (that is, they share, on average, only half their genes). 93.

Which research approach is probably the best for exploring the heritability of traits?

a. b.

studying adopted siblings and comparing them comparing children adopted into another family with their siblings who remained with their birth parents c. comparing fraternal twins d. comparing identical twins who were raised in different homes Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 52 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Because identical twins come from the same fertilized egg, they share the vast majority of their genes. By studying identical twins raised apart, psychologists can be more certain that any similarities are due to genetics and not to a shared environment. 94.

Nelda hopes to study the influence of genetics on personality in adults. Which of these research methods is she likely to employ? a. examining heritability in twins and adopted individuals b. interviewing people who have known others who were particularly odd or unique c. administering paper and pencil or computerized questionnaires to hundreds of people d. documenting the patterns of development and difficulties of patients in her clinical practice Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 52 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: One method of measuring genetic contributions is by studying heritability in twins and adopted individuals. 95.

Identical twins reared apart will often have a. no more in common than same sex fraternal twins reared apart. b. similar physical features, but dissimilar personalities. c. similar physical features and personalities. d. identical personalities. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 53 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Identical twins reared apart will often have unnerving similarities in gestures, mannerisms, and moods; indeed, their personalities often seem as similar as their physical features. 96.

Behavioral geneticists are finding that within a group of people, up to_______________ of the variation in personality traits such as happiness is attributable to genetic differences. a. 10 percent b. 50 percent c. 70 percent d. 100 percent Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 53 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: For the Big Five and for many other traits, from aggressiveness to overall happiness, heritability ranges from .20 to .50. This means that within a group of people, up to 50 percent of the variation in such traits is attributable to genetic differences among the individuals in the group. 97.

Which of the following describes the general relationship between genes and personality? a. A genetic predisposition does not necessarily imply genetic inevitability. b. Personality problems that have a genetic component will inevitably occur if a person has the particular gene(s). c. Despite genetic dispositions and temperament, we can transform our personality completely. d. Individual personality traits are likely to depend on a single gene. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 53–54 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a

Rationale: Genes are not destiny. A person might have genes that predispose him or her to a personality trait, but without certain environmental stresses or circumstances, the trait may not develop.

ENVIRONMENTAL INFLUENCES ON PERSONALTIY Learning Objectives 2.11 How social-cognitive theory accounts for apparent changes in personality across situations 2.12 The extent to which parents can—and can’t—influence their children’s personalities 2.13 How your peers shape certain aspects of your personality and suppress others 98.

A social-cognitive learning theorist is likely to attribute an individual’s personality traits to a. a combination of learning experiences, expectations, and beliefs. b. genes. c. parenting influence alone. d. peer influence alone. Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 54–55 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In social-cognitive theories, personality traits result from a person’s learning history and his or her expectations, beliefs, perceptions of events, and other cognitions. 99.

A person’s personality can affect the way they perceive an experience. Conversely, different experiences can change the way a person’s perceptions take place. This is an example of which concept? a. social-cognitive interaction b. nature–nurture theory c. heritability d. reciprocal determinism Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 55 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In social-cognitive theories, the two-way interaction between aspects of the environment and aspects of the individual in the shaping of personality traits is called reciprocal determinism. 100.

In behavioral-genetic research, _______________ includes personal experiences, such as winning the lead in the school play. a. peer influence b. the nonshared environment c. the shared environment d. parental influence Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 55 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Behavioral geneticists refer to the unique and chance experiences that are not shared with other family members as the nonshared environment. 101.

In behavioral-genetic research, _______________ includes the family background in which you grew up and the experiences you shared with your siblings and parents. a. the influence of “nature” b. the nonshared environment c. the shared environment d. heritability Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 55–56 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: This is a definition of shared environment. 102.

Which of the following would have the most influence on the personality development of an adopted child? a. experiences the child has independently from the adoptive family members b. adoptive family environment

c. adoptive mother’s personality d. adoptive father’s personality Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 55–56 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The nonshared environment seems to have more influence than patenting or shared environments on a child’s personality development. 103.

When child-rearing methods are studied, researchers have found that a. almost all children have lasting emotional damage if their parents use abuse methods. b. loving parents who are consistent in their child rearing seldom have troubled children. c. the shared environment of the home has little if any influence on personality. d. parents adopt a preferred method of child rearing and seldom vary it from child to child. Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 55–56 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Adoption studies suggest the influence of childrearing practices and family life is small. Research has also indicated the other options are false. 104.

Developmental psychologists have attempted to identify the effects of many specific child-rearing practices on children’s personality traits. The problem with this line of research discussed in the textbook is that a. parents who use physical punishment won’t be honest with the researchers. b. psychologists cannot agree on whether to use cross-sectional or longitudinal approaches. c. it is difficult to recruit parents to serve as participants in this research. d. parents are inconsistent from day to day and over the years. Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 56 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Few parents have a single child-rearing style that is consistent over time and that they use with all their children. 105.

Which of the following is true regarding the influence of parenting on the development of their children? a. Parenting has no influence of children. b. What parents do profoundly affects the quality of their relationship with their children. c. Parenting cannot influence traits that are highly heritable. d. Parenting is the single most important factor in the development of a child’s personality. Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 56 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: What parents do profoundly affects the quality of their relationship with their children—whether their children feel loved, secure, and valued or humiliated, frightened, and worthless. 106.

When two psychologists surveyed 275 freshmen at Cornell University, they found that: a. most of them had “secret lives” that they never revealed to their parents. b. most of them had confessed at least one rule violation to their parents in the past year. c. the women shared their “private selves” with parents but the men did not. d. only stern and authoritarian parents had adolescents with “secret lives.” Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 56 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Most students surveyed at Cornell had “secret lives” and private selves that they never revealed to their parents. 107.

Rationale: Peer support is typically more influential in academic achievement than parental values. 108.

Jerry’s parents place a high value on academic achievement, but his peers do not. Jerry is most likely to a. split the difference and become an average student. b. suffer psychological damage. c. be more strongly influenced by the values of his parents. d. be more strongly influenced by his peers. Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 57 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Research indicates that peers have more influence than parents on students’ attitudes about academic achievement.

CULTURAL INFLUENCES ON PERSONALITY Learning Objectives 2.14 How culture influences your personality, and even whether you think you have a stable one 2.15 Why men in the South and West are more likely to get angry when insulted than other American men are 2.16 How to appreciate cultural influences on personality without stereotyping 109.

A psychologist is studying how a society’s shared rules, along with the values, beliefs, and attitudes shared by most members of that community, affect the behavior of individuals. This research could be described as investigating the effect of _____________ on behavior. a. culture b. the collective unconscious c. shared environment d. reciprocal determinism Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 58 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is a definition of culture. 110.

A culture in which people tend to see themselves as autonomous and value individual goals and wishes above duty and relations with others would be described as a. individualist. b. narcissistic. c. autonomic. d. collectivist. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 58 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In individualistic cultures the independence of the individual often takes precedence over the needs of the group. 111.

Which of the following is true of an individualist culture? a. Group harmony takes precedence over the wishes of the individual. b. The self is defined in the context of relationships. c. The independence of the individual often takes precedence over the needs of the group. d. The sense of self is viewed as more flexible than it is in collectivist cultures. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 58–59 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Individualist cultures value the individual person over the needs of the group. 112.

In Ana’s culture, group harmony takes precedence over the wishes of the individual. It is most likely that Ana defines her “self” a. in occupational terms. b. in regard to her personality traits.

c. in terms of her life goals. d. in the context of her relationships. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 58–59 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In collectivist cultures where group harmony is more important than the wishes of an individual, the self is defined in the context of a person’s relationships. 113.

In Kaiti’s culture, the wishes of the individual take precedence over group harmony. It is most likely that Kaiti defines her “self” a. in the context of her community. b. in regard to her personality traits. c. in regard to her birth order position. d. in the context of her relationships. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 58–59 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In individualist cultures, the self is defined as a collection of personality traits. 114.

_______________ cultures value group harmony, duty, obligation, and security. a. Collectivist b. Shared environment c. Individualist d. Western Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a description of collectivist cultures. Members of individualist cultures a. give priority to personal goals. b. value obligation and security. c. stay in relationships beneficial to the group. d. tend to explain behaviors through group norms. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Individual goals and wishes have high importance in individualist cultures.

Page(s): 58–59 Answer: a

115.

Page(s): 58–59 Answer: a

116.

Members of collectivist cultures a. give priority to personal goals. b. value duty, obligation, and security. c. explain behavior by looking at the person’s attitudes and preferences. d. value achievement, leadership, and self-fulfillment. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 58–59 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Group harmony, cooperation, obligation, and security have high importance in collectivist cultures. 117.

In a study comparing Japanese and Americans, the Japanese reported that their sense of self changes _______________ in different situations, whereas the Americans said that _______________ of their sense of self changes in different situations. a. 5 percent to 10 percent; 90 percent to 99 percent b. 20 percent to 30 percent; 70 percent to 80 percent c. 55 percent to 59 percent; 35 percent to 39 percent d. 90 percent to 99 percent; 5 percent to 10 percent Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 59 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Japanese perceive themselves as changing from one situation to another, whereas Americans view their sense of self as stable from one situation to another.

118.

Studies of altruistic behavior found that children from _______________ were the least altruistic and most egoistic of those studied. a. Kenya b. Mexico c. the United States d. India Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 59 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: American children were the least altruistic and most egoistic of children studied. In cultures that value individual achievement and self-advancement, altruism as a personality trait is not cultivated to the same extent as other cultures. 119.

Cross-cultural research revealed that the most altruistic children come from societies in which a. children’s work makes a genuine contribution to the well-being of the family. b. parents encourage children toward individual achievement. c. parents want their children to be leaders and to be self-fulfilled. d. children are expected to spend their time playing rather than working. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 59 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In cultures where children are assigned a lot of tasks such as caring for younger children and gathering and preparing food, altruism is more common in children. 120.

Which one of these representatives at a United Nations committee conference is probably going to be the most upset when the conference “starts late”? a. the Canadian delegate b. the Venezuelan delegate c. the Congolese delegate d. the Iraqi delegate Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 60 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Members of individualistic cultures like Canada tend to be more concerned that things go according to schedule than do people from Latin American, African, or Middle Eastern cultures. 121.

Rana is eager to begin a semester of college in an overseas exchange program because she has wanted to immerse herself in a culture with a different view of “being on time.” It is likely that Rana will leave her home in Missouri and study in a. Latin America. b. Northern Europe. c. Canada. d. Australia. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 60 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: In Mexico, southern Europe, the Middle East, South America, and Africa people do many things at once, and the needs of friends and family supersede mere appointments. 122. On his first overseas business trip, Mr. Streeter finds it rude that he is constantly kept waiting. After all, his appointments were set up a week in advance through e-mail. If the lack of punctuality is due to cultural reasons, it is most likely that his business trip has taken him to a. a Northern European country. b. the Middle East. c. a Canadian province. d. Australia. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 60 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b

Rationale: In the Middle East, Mexico, southern Europe, South America, and Africa, time is organized along parallel lines. People do many things at once and the needs of friends and family supersede mere appointments. 123.

Based on his research, Richard Nisbett has hypothesized that ________________ is the cause of higher rates of white homicide in some regions of the United States. a. higher testosterone levels b. a history of slavery c. poverty d. an economy originally based on herding Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 60 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: White homicide rates in the United States are highest in the South and some western regions where cultures were historically based on herding rather than agriculture. 124.

In which region of the United States are rates of white homicide highest? a. South b. Midwest c. Northeast d. Atlantic coast Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 60 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: White homicide rates in the United States are highest in the South and some western regions where cultures were historically based on herding rather than agriculture. 125.

Research on aggressiveness has shown that a. male aggression is more likely among cultures based on agriculture. b. men who depend on herding for survival tend to foster cooperative strategies. c. male aggression results more from cultural factors than biological ones. d. men develop a culture of honor when their livelihoods are based on agriculture. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 60 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Research suggests that the culture plays more of a role in male aggressiveness than do biological factors. 126.

Carson comes from a culture of honor and tends to get quite riled up when he is insulted. Carson is most likely from a. California. b. Wisconsin. c. Massachusetts. d. Maine. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 60–61 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The emphasis on aggressiveness and vigilance in herding cultures fosters a culture of honor in areas such as the southern and western United States. 127.

Male aggression is likely high in a culture a. in which resources are abundant and there are no serious hazards. b. primarily based on agriculture. c. in which competition for limited resources is fierce and survival is difficult. d. with a history of slavery. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 60–61 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Cultures in which competition for limited resources is fierce and survival is difficult, men are “toughened up” and pushed to take risks, even with their lives.

128.

Peter was raised in the southern United States. When he feels that he has been insulted, it is likely that a. his body will produce large amounts of cortisol. b. he will quickly realize it is unimportant and shrug it off. c. his body will decrease the amount of cortisol it produces. d. he will feel ashamed and will experience a decrease in testosterone production. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 61 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When studied, the levels of the stress hormone cortisol shot up in many southerners when they were insulted. 129.

PRIOR to being insulted, southerners are more likely to _________________ when compared to northerners. a. have low cortisol levels b. have high cortisol levels c. be impolite and aggressive d. be polite and deferential Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 61 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: When studied, southerners and northerners who were not insulted were alike on most measures, with the exception that the southerners were actually more polite and deferential. 130.

Hika comes from a small island culture where resources are abundant and there are no serious hazards or enemies to worry about. The men in her society are likely to be a. highly aggressive. b. not very aggressive. c. no more or less aggressive than men in any society. d. polite unless they are insulted or feel their honor threatened. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 61 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When a society becomes more peaceful, so do its men. For example, among the Ifaluk, the Tahitians, and the people of Sudest Island near New Guinea, where resources are abundant and there are no serious hazards or enemies to worry about, men do not feel they have to prove themselves and they are not raised to be tough and aggressive. 131.

A problem that cultural psychologists face is how to a. develop an operational definition for “culture.” b. describe cultural influences on personality without oversimplifying or stereotyping. c. identify cultural differences that apply to every member. d. determine which cultures are collectivist and which are individualist. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 62 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: While on average, members from different cultures tend to differ, the study of culture does not rest on the assumption that all members of a culture behave the same way or have the same personality traits.

THE INNER EXPERIENCE Learning Objectives 2.17 How humanist approaches to personality differ from psychodynamic and genetic ones 2.18 The contributions of Abraham Maslow, Carl Rogers, and Rollo May to understanding our “inner lives” 2.19 How psychological scientists evaluate humanist views 132.

Professor Hirth takes a humanist approach to personality. She would most likely agree that the most influential aspect of human personality is a. our genetic makeup. b. our past learning.

c. our unconscious conflicts. d. our capacity to shape our own futures. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Humanist psychologists emphasize the individual’s ability to control his or her own destiny. 133.

Which of the following theories of personality would be most likely to emphasize the freedom of individuals to choose to act in particular ways? a. humanist b. behaviorist c. psychodynamic d. collectivist Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The humanist approach to personality emphasizes our uniquely human capacity to determine our own actions and futures. 134.

According to Abraham Maslow, the most important aspects of personality are a. the Big Five personality traits. b. the instincts and repressed conflicts of a person. c. the qualities of the self-actualized person. d. the reinforcers and punishers in a person’s learning history. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Maslow saw personality development as a gradual progression toward self-actualization. 135.

The personality theorist who described the importance of peak experiences was a. Abraham Maslow. b. Carl Rogers. c. Rollo May. d. Karen Horney. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The personality theorist who described the importance of peak experiences was Abraham Maslow. 136.

According to Carl Rogers, __________ is love and support given to another with no strings attached. a. the condition of worth b. unconditional positive regard c. existentialism d. self-actualization Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: To Carl Rogers, unconditional positive regard is love and support given to another with no conditions attached. 137.

Which of the following, according to Rogers, is MOST likely to become a fully functioning person? a. someone with a strongly developed superego b. someone with an extroverted personality c. someone brought up with conditional positive regard d. someone brought up with unconditional positive regard Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: To become fully functioning people, Rogers maintained, we all need unconditional positive regard, love and support for the people we are, without strings (conditions) attached. % correct 59 a= 7 b= 3 c= 31 d= 59 r = .63

138.

If parents accept Carl Rogers’s approach to personality development, then they are likely to respond in which of the following ways when their daughter kicks her little brother? a. “How can you be such a mean child? Now you’ll go to your room for 30 minutes.” b. “Our rule is that it’s not OK to hurt one another.” c. “If you don’t tell brother you are sorry, then Mommy won’t kiss you good night.” d. “Daddy has unconditional love for you and understands that you just felt like kicking someone.” Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Rogers feels that parents can correct a child without withdrawing love from the child by drawing attention to rules and pointing out that behavior, not the child, is what is bad. 139.

According to Carl Rogers, if a man loves his wife only when she is looking her best, then a. his shadow has dominated his unconscious personality. b. he is giving her conditional positive regard. c. he is fixated at the phallic stage of psychosexual development. d. he would receive a high score on the Big Five trait of neuroticism. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Conditional positive regard is love with strings attached. 140.

Carl Rogers would agree that a. a parent can correct a child’s behavior without withdrawing love from the child. b. punishment is of major importance in becoming a fully functioning person. c. it is best to raise children with conditional positive regard. d. human nature involves a fear of freedom, loneliness, and the struggle for meaning. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Rogers felt that parents can correct a child without withdrawing love from the child by drawing attention to rules and pointing out that behavior, not the child, is what is bad. 141.

Allison believes that life is full of such inevitable challenges of existence as the search for the meaning of life, the need to confront death, and the necessity of taking responsibility for our actions. Which approach or tradition is she likely to agree with? a. social-cognitive learning theory b. psychoanalysis c. existentialism d. self-actualization Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Existentialism is a philosophic approach that emphasizes the inevitable dilemmas and challenges of human existence. 142.

Rollo May would be most likely to agree that a. our personalities primarily reflect the culture in which we are raised. b. most people have five to ten central traits that reflect characteristic ways of behaving. c. adult personalities are formed through experiences that occur in the first five years of life. d. our personalities reflect the ways we cope with the inevitable struggle to find meaning in life. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: For May, personality is viewed as a constant search for meaning in life. 143.

Which one of the following statements is most consistent with the writings of Rollo May? a. A parent can correct a child’s behavior without withdrawing love from the child. b. Life is dominated by the positive aspects, such as joy, laughter, love, happiness, and peak experiences. c. Individuals can choose to make the best of themselves by drawing on inner resources such as love and courage.

d. It is possible to escape the harsh realities of life. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: May popularized the humanist idea that we can choose to make the best of ourselves by drawing on inner resources such as love and courage, but he added that we can never escape the harsh realities of life and loss. 144.

People who do not understand the concept of unconditional positive regard fully are likely to misinterpret the concept as a. offering constructive criticism when a child needs guidance. b. setting limits in order to facilitate the child’s development. c. assurance that a child is loved despite mistakes that are made. d. an unwillingness to ever say “no” to a child. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63–64 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Unconditional positive regard does not mean that you should never say “no” to a child. 145.

A major criticism of humanist theories of personality is that a. it is overly pessimistic about human beings . b. many of the humanist assumptions are untestable. c. its operational definitions cannot be generalized to everyday life. d. peak experiences occur too frequently to be indicators of self-actualization. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 64 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: As with psychodynamic theories, the major criticism of humanist psychology is that many of its assumptions are untestable. 146.

Many critics of the humanist theory argue that a. the theory places too much emphasis on “nature,” and not enough on “nurture.” b. although the concepts in the theory are intuitively appealing, they are difficult to define operationally. c. although rational decision making is acknowledged, the dominant emphasis on the unconscious hinders research. d. the theory provides an excellent framework for interpreting personality in collectivist cultures, but is inadequate in individualist cultures. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 64 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: As with psychodynamic theories, a major criticism of humanist psychology is that many of its assumptions are untestable, at least in part because it is difficult to operationally define its concepts. 147.

Which contemporary specialty follows in the footsteps of humanism by focusing on the qualities that enable people to be optimistic and resilient in times of stress? a. positive psychology b. existentialism c. psychoanalysis d. collectivist psychology Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 64 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is a description of positive psychology. 148.

One example of the lasting influence of the humanist psychologists is the interest of many contemporary psychologists in studying a. the unconscious mind. b. the role of culture in personality. c. the many positive human traits, such as courage, altruism, and self-confidence. d. the role of biology in determining personality. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 64

Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Influenced in part by the humanists, psychologists are studying many positive human traits, such as courage, altruism, the motivation to excel, and self-confidence. 149.

The Barnum effect occurs when a. an individual’s temperament emerges early in life, therefore influencing subsequent personality development. b. parental influence over a child begins to wane as the child is influenced by aspects of nonshared environment. c. a man in a culture of honor becomes angry after a perceived insult and then behaves aggressively to restore his honor. d. an individualized personality analysis is given but it is written in such vague terms that it could apply to almost everyone. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 66 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The Barnum effect refers to the great circus showman, P. T. Barnum, who knew that the formula for success was to “have a little something for everybody,” just like unscientific personality profiles and horoscopes. 150.

Cassandra visits a fortune-teller. She is surprised that many of the things the fortune-teller tells her about herself are accurate. What is the most likely reason for this? a. the Barnum effect b. the fortune-teller’s special powers c. the use of unconditional positive regard d. the graphology effect Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 66 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The Barnum effect refers to the great circus showman, P. T. Barnum, who knew that the formula for success was to “have a little something for everybody,” just like unscientific personality profiles and horoscopes.

True-False Questions 1.

Personality refers to a distinctive pattern of behavior, mannerisms, thoughts, motives, and emotions that characterize an individual over time and across different situations. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 40 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 2.

Freud believed that unconscious conflicts have more power over human behavior than do our conscious intentions. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 3. In Freud’s structure of personality there are five major systems that influence a person’s actions. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: According to Freud, the three major systems that interact to produce personality are the id, ego, and superego. 4. Freud believed that the ego was the first of the personality components to become evident. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The id is present at birth, and the ego develops during early childhood.

5. Defense mechanisms are used by the ego to prevent threatening thoughts from entering consciousness. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 41 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 6.

The defense mechanism of projection is illustrated by the behavior of a 9-year-old boy who starts having tantrums after his family moves to a different state. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 41 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is an example of regression, not projection. 7.

According to Freud, when the Oedipus complex is resolved by about age 5 or 6, the child’s fundamental personality patterns are formed. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 8. An archetype is a universal symbolic image that appears in myths, art, and dreams. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 43 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 9.

Although Carl Jung was fascinated with the darker aspect of human personality, he also had confidence in the positive strength of the ego. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 43 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 10.

To object-relations theorists, the central problem in life is to find a balance between the need for independence and the need for others. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 43–44 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 11.

According to object-relations theory, a baby constructs unconscious representations of his or her parents, which will influence the child’s relations with others throughout life. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 44 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 12.

Although modern psychodynamic theorists differ in many ways, they share a general belief that the way to understand personality is by exploring its unconscious dynamics. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 44 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 13.

Violating the principle of falsifiability is illustrated when a professor’s case study presentation is criticized, and he tells his supporters that the critic is in denial. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 44 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 14.

One of the difficulties of retrospective analysis as the foundation for theory development is the fact that it creates an illusion of causality between events. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 45 Type: Factual Answer: True

Rationale: Statement of fact. 15. Objective tests are standardized questionnaires that require written responses. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 46 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

16.

Central traits are changeable aspects of personality, such as musical preferences, habits, and casual opinions. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 46–47 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Central traits are characteristic ways of behaving, dealing with others, and reacting to new situations. 17.

Raymond B. Cattell advanced the study of personality by applying a statistical method called case-study analysis. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Cattell is well known for his use of the statistical technique of factor analysis. 18.

Cross-cultural research has identified the Big Five personality traits in places as diverse as China, Spain, Israel, and Australia. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 19. The Big Five personality traits are relatively stable throughout a person’s life. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

20. The Big Five personality traits represent all the traits that make up personality. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47–48 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The Big Five are major personality traits, but do not include all possible traits. 21. Temperaments fluctuate dramatically over time. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 50–51 Type: Factual Rationale: Temperament is a relatively stable aspect of personality.

Answer: False

22.

Heritability is an interdisciplinary field of study concerned with the genetic bases of behavior and personality. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 51 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Heritability is a statistical estimate of the proportion of the total variance in some trait that is attributable to genetic differences among individuals within a group. 23. About 90 percent of the variation in personality traits is due to genetic differences. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 53 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: For the Big Five and for many other traits, heritability ranges from .20 to .50. This means that up to 50 percent of the variation in such traits is attributable to genetic differences. 24.

Social-cognitive learning theory emphasizes the continual interaction between persons and a given situation.

Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 54–55 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

25. The shared environment of the home has a strong influence on a child’s personality development. Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 55–56 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The shared environment of the home has little, if any, influence on personality. 26. Most parents have a single child-rearing style that they use consistently with all their children. Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 56 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Most parents are not consistent in their parenting style. 27.

There may be little relation between what parents do in child rearing and the way that children eventually turn out. Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 56 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 28. Even traits that are highly heritable are not rigidly fixed. Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 56 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

29.

Most of the freshmen who participated in a survey at Cornell University reported that they had “secret lives” that they never revealed to their parents. Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 56 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 30.

When parents value academic achievement but the child’s peers do not, the child usually follows the parental lead and values academic achievement. Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 57 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: In this situation, the child generally follows the lead of his or her peers. 31. In individualist cultures, group harmony takes precedence over the wishes of the individual. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 58 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The individual takes priority over the group in individualist cultures. 32.

People from individualist cultures tend to regard “personality” and the sense of self as being more flexible than people from collectivist cultures do. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 59 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: People from collectivist cultures tend to regard “personality” and the sense of self as being more flexible than people from individualist cultures do. 33. Humanist psychology emphasizes the scientific understanding and assessment of human behavior. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Humanist psychology emphasizes the self, free will, and tendencies toward growth. 34.

Abraham Maslow suggested that personality theorists study healthy, strong, creative individuals.

Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Rationale: Statement of fact.

Type: Factual

Answer: True

35.

Carl Rogers maintained that to become fully functioning, a person needs to receive unconditional positive regard. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 36. According to Rollo May, the price of free will is often anxiety and despair. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

37. If you do not want to be taken in by the Barnum effect, beware of your selective perceptions. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 66 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact.

Short-Answer Questions 1.

Identify the theory of personality that predominated during most of the twentieth century and briefly describe its core principles. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Factual Answer: Psychodynamic theory dominated the field for much of the twentieth century. All psychodynamic theories emphasize unconscious processes and the effect of early childhood experiences on adult personality. 2.

What are the three major systems in the structure of personality according to Sigmund Freud? Briefly describe their roles. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 40 Type: Factual Answer: The id is the reservoir of unconscious psychological energies and the motives to avoid pain and obtain pleasure. The ego is a referee between the needs of instinct and the demands of society and represents reason and good sense. The superego represents morality and parental authority and is the voice of conscience. 3.

Freud maintained that personality develops in a series of psychosexual stages. Name each of the stages in the order in which it appears and explain how a fixation at the first three stages might be manifest in an individual’s personality. Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42 Type: Factual Answer:  Oral stage—Fixation at this stage results in dependent behavior and seeking oral gratification through such things as smoking, overeating, and nail biting.  Anal stage—Fixation at this stage can be represented in obsessive neatness and cleanliness (anal retentive) or in impulsive, messy, and disorganized behavior (anal expulsive).  Phallic stage—Fixation at this stage may result in unconscious conflicts with parents, unresolved guilt, and immature reactions to people of the same and opposite sex.  Latency stage  Genital stage 4. What is the “illusion of causality,” and why is it a problem for psychodynamic explanations? Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 45 Type: Factual

Answer: There is a tendency to believe that if A came before B, then A must have caused B, but that is not necessarily so. Psychodynamic explanations look at the situations and events of someone’s past and attempt to use them to explain feelings or behaviors in the present, often leading to false conclusions about causes. 5. Explain the differences between central traits and secondary traits, as defined by Gordon Allport. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 46 Type: Conceptual Answer: According to Allport, people only have five to ten central traits that reflect a characteristic way of behaving, dealing with others, and reacting to new situations. In contrast, people have a larger number of secondary traits, which are more changeable aspects of personality. 6. What are the Big Five personality traits? Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Factual Answer: Introversion vs. extraversion, neuroticism vs. emotional stability, agreeableness vs. antagonism, conscientiousness vs. impulsiveness, openness to experience vs. resistance to new experience. 7.

Neuroticism is one of the Big Five personality traits. Compare the specific qualities of an individual who scores high in neuroticism with the qualities found in an emotionally stable person. Section: The Modern Study of Personality Page(s): 47 Type: Factual Answer: A person who scores high in neuroticism would suffer from traits like anxiety, an inability to control impulses, and a tendency to feel negative emotions such as anger, guilt, contempt, and resentment. Neurotic individuals are worriers, complainers, and defeatists, even when they have no major problems. They are always ready to see the sour side of life and none of its sweetness. 8.

Define heritability and describe an example of a highly heritable trait and an example of a trait that would have low heritability. Section: Genetic Influences on Personality Page(s): 51–52 Type: Conceptual Answer:  Heritability is a statistical estimate of the proportion of the total variation in a trait that is attributable to genetic variation within a group.  The text gives height as a highly heritable trait.  Preference for hip-hop music would be a low heritability trait. 9. What is meant by “nonshared environment”? Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 55 Type: Factual Answer: The nonshared environment is defined as unique aspects of a person’s environment and experience that are not shared with family members. 10. Describe the ways in which humanist psychologists have added balance to the study of personality. Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63–64 Type: Conceptual Answer: The humanist approach to personality emphasizes our uniquely human capacity to determine our own actions and futures, and focuses on positive traits and human potential.

Essay Questions 1.

It was over a century ago that Sigmund Freud published his theory. How has his work stood the test of time? How is psychodynamic theory regarded by psychologists and other scholars of the twenty-first century? Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 42, 44–45 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.

    

Both then and now, some people revered Freud as a hero and others viewed him as a crackpot. His theories are either viewed as brilliant or nonsense. Many psychologists today view psychodynamic ideas as literary metaphors rather than as scientific rationales. Psychological scientists have shown that psychodynamic theories are guilty of three scientific failings: cannot be falsified, overgeneralization, and basing theories on retrospective accounts. Although some empirical research supports a few psychodynamic processes such as defense mechanisms, much empirical data refute concepts like repression.

How does the object-relations school depart from Freudian theory regarding the nature of male and female development? Section: Psychodynamic Theories of Personality Page(s): 43–44 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Children of both sexes originally identify with the mother.  Girls do not need to separate from the mother because they are the same sex.  The mother treats girls as an extension of herself.  Boys need to break away from the mother to develop a masculine identity.  The mother encourages a son to be independent and separate.  Thus, men have more rigid boundaries between themselves and others than do women. 3.

Three crucial aspects of the environment are parents, peers, and particular situations. How much, and in what ways, does each of these aspects contribute to personality? Section: Environmental Influences on Personality Page(s): 54–57 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Parents have little direct influence on personality; however, the child’s personality is shaped in part by the two-way interaction between parent and child.  Peers often have a very strong impact on personality development.  Though people have a set of central or core traits that are relatively stable, their behavior can vary across situations.  There is a continual two-way interaction between an individual (including temperament, learned habits, perceptions, and beliefs) and aspects of the situation (such as opportunities for reward or punishment, chance events, etc.).  This interaction is called reciprocal determinism.  In sum, core personality traits may stem from genetic dispositions, but they are profoundly shaped by learning, peers, situations, experience, and the culture. 4.

Contrast the characteristics of individualist and collectivist cultures in regard to:  definitions of self  goals  values  individual attitudes  group norms  cost/benefit ratio in maintaining relationships. Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 58–59 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Individualist cultures define the self as autonomous, independent of groups; collectivist cultures define the self as an interdependent part of groups.  Individualist cultures give priority to individual, personal goals; collectivist cultures give priority to the needs and goals of the group.  Individualist cultures value independence, leadership, achievement, and self-fulfillment; collectivist cultures value group harmony, duty, obligation, and security.  Individualist cultures give more weight to an individual’s attitudes and preferences than to group norms as explanations of behavior; collectivist cultures give more weight to group norms



than to individual attitudes. Individualist cultures attend to the benefits and costs of relationships; collectivist cultures attend to the needs of group members.

What is meant by a “culture of honor”? What role does a culture’s historical means of livelihood (herding vs. agriculture) play in this phenomenon? Section: Cultural Influences on Personality Page(s): 60–61 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  A culture of honor is a culture in which even apparently small disputes and trivial insults put a man’s reputation for toughness on the line, requiring him to respond with violence to restore his status.  In cultures that are agricultural, cooperative strategies are more important for survival.  In cultures based on herding, individuals work individually and their survival is threatened if someone steals a member of the herd.  Cultures of honor are more likely to develop in herding communities. 6.

In the 1960s, a group of psychologists argued that it was time for a “third force” in psychology. What were the first two forces that were perceived as inadequate? What alternate perspective would be taken by the “third force” in describing human personality? Section: The Inner Experience Page(s): 63 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The first two forces are psychoanalysis and behaviorism.  The humanist perspective, the third force, takes a positive, growth-oriented perspective.  It treats humans as having the unique capacity to determine their own actions and futures (free will).

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 3 – Quick Quiz 1 1.

A toddler smacks her lips to let her parents know that she wants food. This is an example of a. telegraphic speech. c. a language acquisition device. b. parentese. d. a symbolic gesture.

In which stage of cognitive development does the conservation concept first appear? a. formal operations c. preoperational b. concrete operations d. sensorimotor

The term __________ has replaced the term hermaphroditism. a. transsexual c. intersex condition b. transvestite d. transgender

Early-maturing boys generally have _______________ than do late-maturing boys. a. more negative concepts about their bodies b. fewer problems with the law c. fewer problems with drugs and alcohol d. more size and strength advantages to boost sports skills

10.

According to Erikson, a conflict of identity versus role confusion occurs during

a. b.

adolescence. young adulthood.

c. d.

middle adulthood. old age.

Chapter 3 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: All of the sensory abilities are functional at birth and the infant is able to discriminate many different sensations. The sense of vision has a focus range of only about 8 inches, but it develops rapidly. (Page 76, Factual)

Rationale: These studies showed that attachment does not depend on feeding. Harlows’ baby monkeys ran to the terry-cloth mother when they were frightened or startled, and snuggling up to it calmed them down. (Page 76, Factual)

Rationale: Securely attached infants cry or protest when the mother leaves, whereas insecurely attached infants may ignore the mother or protest loudly when she leaves. (Page 77, Factual)

Rationale: The development of symbolic gestures at the end of the first year is an important development with regard to language acquisition. (Page 80, Conceptual)

Rationale: According to Piaget, children at the concrete operations stage come to understand the principles of conservation. (Pages 84–85, Factual)

Rationale: Piaget believed that preoperational children were egocentric and could see the world only from their own frame of reference, but this was later shown to be inaccurate. (Page 86, Factual)

Rationale: Induction is a strategy in which the parent appeals to the child’s own abilities, empathy, helpful nature, affection for others, and sense of responsibility. (Page 89, Applied)

Rationale: What was once called hermaphroditism is now known as an intersex condition. (Page 91, Factual)

Rationale: Because puberty results in growth of muscles and bones, early-maturing boys may have an advantage in sports. (Page 96, Factual)

10.

Rationale: According to Erikson, identity versus role confusion is the great challenge of adolescence, when teenagers must decide who they are, what they are going to do, and what they hope to make of their lives. (Pages 98–99, Factual)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 3 – Quick Quiz 2 1.

Margaret and Harry Harlow demonstrated the importance of __________ in their experiments with rhesus monkeys. a. contact comfort c. food access b. safety d. proximity control

The adage, "Out of sight, out of mind," is most accurately applied to the early part of the _______ stage of development. a. formal operations c. preoperational b. concrete operations d. sensorimotor

In the 1960s, this theorist proposed that children's ability to understand right and wrong developed right along with the rest of their cognitive abilities, and progressed through three levels. a. Lawrence Kohlberg c. Carl Rogers b. Carl Jung d. Jerome Kagan

Puberty is defined as the age at which a person a. enters middle school or junior high. c. b. begins to be treated in an adult manner. d.

10.

experiences his or her growth spurt. becomes capable of sexual reproduction.

According to Erikson, the last stage of development involves the crisis of a. identity versus role confusion. c. autonomy versus doubt.

generativity versus stagnation.

ego integrity versus despair.

Chapter 3 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: An infant touched on the cheek or corner of the mouth will turn toward the touch and search for something to suck on. This is called the rooting reflex. (Page 76, Applied)

Rationale: Margaret and Harry Harlow demonstrated the importance of contact comfort in their experiments with rhesus monkeys. (Page 76, Factual)

Rationale: Separation anxiety is the distress that most children develop, at about 6 to 8 months of age, when their primary caregivers temporarily leave them with strangers. (Pages 76–77, Applied)

Rationale: Baby talk (also called parentese) is higher in pitch and more varied than usual speech. It helps babies learn the melody and rhythm of their native language. (Page 80, Factual)

Rationale: Chomsky maintained that the human brain must contain an innate mental module that allows young children to develop language if they are exposed to an adequate sampling of conversation. (Page 81, Conceptual)

Rationale: In the first few months of the sensorimotor stage, infants have yet to develop object permanence: the understanding that an object continues to exist even when they cannot see it or touch it. (Page 84, Conceptual)

Rationale: This was the viewpoint of Lawrence Kohlberg. (Pages 87–88, Factual)

Rationale: When Brenda was 14 and refused to live as a girl, his father finally told him the truth. Brenda’s name was changed to David and he began living as a boy. He eventually married, but later committed suicide. (Page 92, Factual)

Rationale: Puberty is biologically determined as the age at which a person becomes capable of sexual reproduction. (Page 95, Factual)

10.

Rationale: According to Erikson, ego integrity versus despair is the final challenge of old age. As they age, people strive to reach the ultimate goals of wisdom, spiritual tranquility, and acceptance of their lives. (Page 99, Factual)

Chapter 3 – Development Over the Life Span Multiple Choice Questions FROM CONCEPTION THROUGH THE FIRST YEAR Learning Objectives 3.1 The stages of prenatal development and some factors that can harm an embryo or fetus during pregnancy 3.2 How culture affects a baby’s physical maturation 3.3 Why contact comfort and attachment are so important for infants (and adults) 3.4 The varieties of infant attachment 1.

A psychologist spends her entire career studying how and why changes occur in people as they get older. This psychologist is most likely a(n) __________ psychologist. a. evolutionary b. personality c. health d. developmental Section: Introduction Page(s): 73 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Developmental psychologists study physiological and cognitive changes across the life span and how these are affected by a person’s genetic predispositions, culture, circumstances, and experiences. % correct 98 a= 2 b= 0 c= 0 d= 98 r = .21 2.

A child who never underwent the process of _______________ would not know how they are expected to behave and would not understand the rules that they are expected to follow. a. socialization b. maturation c. development d. acculturation Section: Introduction Page(s): 73–74 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Socialization is the process by which children learn the rules and behavior expected of them by society. 3.

The germinal stage of prenatal development begins with a. the maturation of the female ovum and its entry into the fallopian tube. b. the uniting of the female ovum and the male sperm. c. the entry of the zygote into the uterus. d. the attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The germinal stage begins with fertilization, when the male sperm unites with the female ovum (egg). 4.

Which of the following developmental sequences is in correct order? a. embryo, zygote, fetus, infant b. ovum, embryo, fetus, infant c. fetus, embryo, ovum, infant d. ovum, fetus, embryo, infant Section: From Conception through the First Year Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate

Page(s): 74 Answer: b

Rationale: Prenatal development is divided into three stages: the germinal (fertilization of the ovum and development of the zygote), the embryonic, and the fetal. % correct 96 a= 1 b= 96 c= 0 d= 3 r = .21 5.

Which of the following is true regarding risk factors related to fathers? a. Babies of men exposed to workplace chemicals are more likely to be miscarried. b. Babies of young fathers have an increased probability of autism. c. Fathers under the age of 25 have three times the risk of conceiving a child who develops schizophrenia as do fathers over the age of 50. d. There is an increased risk that the babies of teenaged fathers will be bipolar. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Babies of men exposed to solvents and other chemicals in the workplace are more likely to be miscarried, be stillborn, or develop cancer later in life. 6.

Which of the following is one of the functions of the placenta during pregnancy? a. triggering the division of the zygote b. preventing nutrients from reaching the embryo c. secreting testosterone when the embryo is male d. screening out some, but not all harmful substances Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The placenta, connected to the embryo by the umbilical cord, serves as the growing embryo’s link for food from the mother. It allows nutrients to enter and wastes to exit, and it screens out some, but not all, harmful substances. 7.

After implantation of the zygote is completed, the __________ stage of prenatal development begins. a. embryonic b. structural c. germinal d. fetal Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: After implantation of the zygote is completed, the embryonic stage of prenatal development begins. 8.

For genetic males, the hormone testosterone begins to be secreted by a set of rudimentary testes during the __________ stage of prenatal development. a. embryonic b. structural c. germinal d. fetal Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: During the embryonic stage of prenatal development, the hormone testosterone is secreted by the rudimentary testes in embryos that are genetically male. 9.

During the fetal stage of development, which begins at _______________, further development of the organs and systems occurs. a. conception b. 14 days c. eight weeks d. 40 weeks Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The fetal stage begins at eight weeks.

10.

Which of the following outcomes may occur when the mother has German measles (rubella) early in pregnancy? a. defects in the eye, ear, and heart b. attention problems and lower IQ c. increased likelihood of prematurity and low birth weight d. mental retardation, blindness, and other physical disorders Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The most common result of German measles is deafness, in addition to other possible defects in the eye, ear, and heart. 11.

Which of the following outcomes is associated with maternal exposure to lead during pregnancy? a. defects in the eye, ear, and heart b. attention problems and lower IQ c. facial deformities, lack of coordination, and mental retardation d. mental retardation, blindness, and other physical disorders Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74–75 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Attention problems and lower IQ are associated with maternal exposure to lead during pregnancy. 12.

Which of the following outcomes is associated with maternal cigarette smoking during pregnancy? a. defects in the eye, ear, and heart b. smaller brain, facial deformities, lack of coordination c. increased likelihood of miscarriage, premature birth, and low birth weight d. mental retardation, blindness, and other physical disorders Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 75 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: In addition to increased risk of miscarriage, premature birth, and low birth weight, smoking can also cause increased rates of infant sickness, sudden infant death syndrome, and later hyperactivity and learning difficulties. 13.

Which of the following outcomes is caused by sexually transmitted diseases during pregnancy? a. defects in the eye, ear, and heart b. smaller brain, facial deformities, and lack of coordination c. a 50 percent chance of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) d. mental retardation, blindness, and other physical disorders Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 75 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Mental retardation, blindness, and other physical disorders may be caused by sexually transmitted diseases during pregnancy. 14.

Dr. McKenzie decides to perform a Cesarean section in order to avoid potential harm to a baby during birth. She is most likely concerned about the mother’s a. exposure to lead during the last weeks of pregnancy. b. outbreak of genital herpes. c. cigarette smoking just before the onset of labor. d. consumption of more than two alcoholic drinks per day. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 75 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: If the mother has an outbreak of genital herpes at the time of delivery, the baby will be exposed to the virus during a vaginal birth. Cesarean section can eliminate the risk. 15.

The newborn infant has a number of _______________ such as sucking, grasping, and rooting that aid in his or her survival. a. instincts b. traits

c. motor reflexes d. innate perceptual abilities Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 75–76 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Newborns begin life with several motor reflexes, automatic behaviors that are necessary for survival.

% correct 83

a= 13 b= 3 c= 83 d= 0

r = .64

16.

A reflex crucial to an infant's survival is a. cooing. b. grasping. c. sucking. d. stepping. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 75–76 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: While all four reflexes are important, the sucking reflex allows an infant to feed from a breast or bottle. % correct 98 a= 0 b= 2 c= 98 d= 0 r = .20 17.

Eve touches the cheek of her two-month-old daughter, Elise. In response, Elise turns her head toward the touch in search of something to suck. Elise is demonstrating the __________ reflex. a. sucking b. contact comfort c. rooting d. Babinski Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 76 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: An infant touched on the cheek or corner of the mouth will turn toward the touch and search for something to suck on. This is called the rooting reflex. 18.

The sensory abilities of newborn infants a. are poor, resulting in a confused picture of the world. b. include the ability to see and hear, but not to discriminate tastes and smells. c. include visual abilities that are much like that of an adult. d. include the ability to discriminate smells, tastes, and sounds almost immediately. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 76 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: All of the sensory abilities are functional at birth and the infant is able to discriminate many different sensations. The sense of vision has a focus range of only about 8 inches, but it develops rapidly.

% correct 50

a= 30 b= 13 c= 7 d= 50

r = .21

19.

_______________, the pleasure of being touched and held, is important throughout life. a. Socialization b. Contact comfort c. Synchrony d. Maturation Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 76 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Contact comfort, the pleasure of being touched and held, is not only crucial for newborns; it continues to be important throughout life, releasing a flood of pleasure-producing and stress-reducing endorphins. 20.

Margaret and Harry Harlow demonstrated the importance of __________ in their experiments with rhesus monkeys. a. contact comfort

b. safety c. food access d. proximity control Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 76 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Margaret and Harry Harlow demonstrated the importance of contact comfort in their experiments with rhesus monkeys. 21.

How did infant rhesus monkeys that were raised with both an artificial “wire mother” and an artificial “cloth mother” respond to these objects? a. They became attached to the artificial mother that supplied milk. b. They avoided both mothers except when they were hungry. c. They would not eat or drink, and soon died. d. They would cling to the “cloth mother,” especially when they were frightened or startled. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 76 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: These studies showed that attachment does not depend on feeding. Harlows’ baby monkeys ran to the terry-cloth mother when they were frightened or startled, and snuggling up to it calmed them down. 22.

Between the ages of _______________, children begin to show separation anxiety. a. 1 to 2 months b. 3 to 5 months c. 6 to 8 months d. 10 to 12 months Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 76 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Most children develop separation anxiety at about 6 to 8 months of age, when their primary caregivers temporarily leave them with strangers.

% correct 58

a= 6 b= 23 c= 58 d= 13

r = .21

23.

In Harlow's studies with young monkeys, the monkeys were exposed to a wire mother with a bottle and a cloth mother without a bottle. The young monkeys spent their nonfeeding time a. with the wire mother. b. with both mothers equally. c. with the cloth mother. d. away from both mothers. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 76–77 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: The young monkeys would cling to the cuddly mother even when they were not being fed, and they would run to her for comfort when they were frightened. % correct 85 a= 7 b= 4 c= 85 d= 4 r = .42 24.

After greeting her relatives at the airport, Joey’s mother leaves him with his grandma and gets the luggage. Eight-month-old Joey becomes fearful of the stranger holding him and he begins to wail. This distress would be an example of a. insecure attachment. b. separation anxiety. c. avoidant attachment. d. sensorimotor thinking. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 76–77 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Separation anxiety is the distress that most children develop, at about 6 to 8 months of age, when their primary caregivers temporarily leave them with strangers. 25.

Mary Ainsworth devised an experimental method called the Strange Situation in order to determine a. the nature of gestural communication between mothers and babies.

b. aspects of purposeful exploration as the baby investigates a strange environment. c. parental discipline styles in the first year of life. d. the nature of attachment between mothers and babies. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 77 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Ainsworth was interested in the nature of the attachment between mothers and babies.

% correct 100

a= 0 b= 0 c= 0 d= 100

r = .00

26.

Mary Ainsworth observed that securely attached infants a. do not seem to care when the mother leaves the room and do not seek her out on her return. b. protest loudly when the mother leaves but resist contact with her when she returns. c. cry or protest if the mother leaves the room and welcome her back when she returns. d. are not concerned upon separation, but cry to be picked up and held on her return. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 77 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Securely attached infants cry or protest when the mother leaves, whereas insecurely attached infants may ignore the mother or protest loudly when she leaves.

% correct 83

a= 7 b= 3 c= 83 d= 7

r = .21

27.

If a child throws a tantrum when his or her mother leaves but resists contact with her when she returns, the child’s attachment style would be identified as a. avoidant. b. securely attached. c. resistant. d. anxious or ambivalent. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 77 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Anxious or ambivalent infants protest loudly if the mother leaves but resist contact with her at reunion. 28.

When Larry’s mother leaves a room, he does not care, and upon her return he makes little effort to seek contact with her. Larry’s attachment style is a. avoidant. b. securely attached. c. aloof. d. anxious or ambivalent. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 77 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: An avoidant child is insecurely attached and may make little effort to seek contact with his/her mother and may treat a stranger the same as a mother. 29.

The two types of insecure attachment, according to Mary Ainsworth, are a. avoidant attachment and anxious-ambivalent attachment. b. hostile attachment and withdrawn attachment. c. anxious attachment and withdrawn attachment. d. resistant attachment and hostile attachment. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 77 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: According to Ainsworth, insecurely attached child may show avoidant attachment, ignoring the mother when she leaves and returns, or anxious-ambivalent attachment, protesting loudly when the mother leaves, but resisting contact with the mother on her return.

% correct 80 30.

a= 80 b= 3 c= 7 d= 7

r = .22

Mary Ainsworth believed that insecure attachment results primarily from the way mothers treat their children during the

a. first week of life. b. first month of life. c. first year of life. d. first three years of life. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 77 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: According to Ainsworth, mothers who are sensitive and responsive to their babies’ needs during the first year create securely attached infants; mothers who are uncomfortable with or insensitive to their babies create insecurely attached infants. 31.

When researchers compared infants who were in child care for varying hours each week, they found that a. day care has no effect on the security of a child’s attachment. b. day care significantly impacts the security of a child’s attachment. c. thirty or more hours per week in day care decreases secure attachment. d. fifteen or more hours per week in day care decreases secure attachment. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 78 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When researchers compared infants who were in child care for varying hours each week they found day care has no effect on the security of a child’s attachment. 32.

Which of the following appears to have a large effect on the security of a child’s attachment? a. the child’s own genetically influenced temperament b. time spent in daycare c. the mother’s sensitivity d. cultural differences in parenting Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 77–78 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Babies who are fearful and prone to crying from birth are more likely to show insecure behavior in the Strange Situation, suggesting that their later insecure attachment may reflect a temperamental predisposition. 33.

Which sentence sums up the current understanding about infant attachment? a. Healthy attachment is becoming increasingly rare. b. Maternal sensitivity is critical to developing healthy attachment. c. Normal, healthy attachment will occur within a wide range of cultural, family, and individual variations in child-rearing customs. d. Parents have no effect on the type of attachment their children form. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 78 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Infants are biologically disposed to become attached to their caregivers. Normal, healthy attachment will occur within a wide range of cultural, family, and individual variations in child-rearing customs. 34.

Anatolie was raised in a substandard orphanage where he was given little attention. He wasn’t adopted until he was 6 years old. Anatolie is ________________ to become securely attached to his adoptive parents compared to a child who did not experience the same level of abandonment and deprivation. a. no more or less likely b. slightly more likely c. much more likely d. less likely Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 78 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Institutionalized babies are more likely than adopted children to have later problems with attachment, whereas babies adopted before age 1 or 2 eventually become as securely attached as their nonadopted peers.

LANGUAGE DEVELOPMENT Learning Objectives 3.5 What a language is—and what it allows us to do that other animals cannot 3.6 The importance of baby talk in the development of language 3.7 Milestones in the development of language 3.8 Innate and learned aspects of acquiring language 35.

Which of the following is true about language? a. Any type of communication is a language. b. All languages involve the making of sounds. c. Language allows a near infinite number of novel ideas to be communicated. d. Scientists are surprised humans evolved to use language, because it probably wasn’t very beneficial for our prehistoric ancestors. Section: Language Development Page(s): 79 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Language, whether spoken or signed, allows human beings to express and comprehend an infinite number of novel utterances, created on the spot. This ability is critical; except for a few fixed phrases (“How are you?” “Get a life!”), most of the utterances we produce or hear over a lifetime are new. 36.

Psychologists studying the acquisition of language have found that a. at 12 months of age, babies begin to recognize their own names. b. the process begins when babies recognize the sound structure of their native language. c. it may begin in the womb. d. at 6 months of age, babies begin to respond to the pitch and sound of language. Section: Language Development Page(s): 80 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: In an experiment, newborns whose mothers spoke only English during pregnancy showed a clear preference for English. Those whose bilingual mothers spoke both languages showed equal preference for both languages. 37.

Researchers have found that “baby talk” by parents a. helps babies learn the melody and the rhythm of their native language. b. holds children back from learning real language faster. c. promotes telegraphic speech, especially if overused. d. teaches children the correct grammar of their native language. Section: Language Development Page(s): 80 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Baby talk (also called parentese) is higher in pitch and more varied than usual speech. It helps babies learn the melody and rhythm of their native language. 38.

Emily calls her husband into the living room saying, “I’m just sure that the baby recognized the word ‘Mommy’!” If Emily is right, then her baby is most likely a. 1 to 3 months of age. b. 4 to 6 months of age. c. 9 to 12 months of age. d. 18 to 20 months of age. Section: Language Development Page(s): 80 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: By 4 to 6 months of age, babies can often recognize their own names and other words that are regularly spoken with emotion, such as “mommy” and “daddy.” 39.

A toddler smacks her lips to let her parents know that she wants food. This is an example of: a. telegraphic speech. b. parentese.

c. a language acquisition device. d. a symbolic gesture. Section: Language Development Page(s): 80 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The development of symbolic gestures at the end of the first year is an important development with regard to language acquisition. 40.

Which of the following is an example of telegraphic speech? a. a toddler at the laundromat saying, “Mama dress” b. a toddler pointing to an object that is out of her reach c. a baby endlessly repeating, “ba-ba-ba-ba” d. a baby absorbing a new word spoken by her father Section: Language Development Page(s): 81 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Telegraphic speech is a term that describes a child’s first word combinations, which omit unnecessary words. 41. A child’s first word combinations, which omit unnecessary words, are called a. telegraphic speech. b. language acquisition device. c. assimilation. d. accommodation. Section: Language Development Page(s): 81 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: A child’s first word combinations that omit unnecessary words are called telegraphic speech. 42.

Noam Chomsky viewed language acquisition in children as the result of a. utilitarian learning in which children learn that correct language produces desirable results. b. reinforcement by adults of correct language production. c. an innate mental module that allows young children to develop language. d. imitating adults. Section: Language Development Page(s): 81 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Chomsky maintained that the human brain must contain an innate mental module that allows young children to develop language if they are exposed to an adequate sampling of conversation. 43.

The surface structure of a sentence is a. evident in the overregularizations in a child’s early speech. b. demonstrated by the implicit knowledge of grammatical rules. c. the meaning of the sentence despite different phrases used. d. the way a sentence is actually spoken or signed. Section: Language Development Page(s): 81 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The surface structure of a sentence is the way a sentence is actually spoken or signed. 44.

What reason might Noam Chomsky give to explain why it is so difficult to teach language to animals? a. Most animals do not live long enough to acquire language. b. Animals are not born with a universal grammar. c. Only humans are capable of communication. d. Animals have their own languages and do not want to learn ours. Section: Language Development Page(s): 81 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Chomsky’s Theory states that human children are born with a universal grammar—that is, their brains are sensitive to the core features common to all languages, such as nouns and verbs, subjects and objects, and negatives. Because animals do not have this innate system, it would be much more difficult—or impossible—for them to acquire language.

45.

Over time, researchers have gathered many types of evidence that support the theory that all children have an innate mental module that allows them to develop language if they are exposed to conversation. Which one of the following is an example of such evidence? a. Children in different cultures go through the same stages of linguistic development. b. Young infants show no ability to understand linguistic rules. c. Adults must consistently correct their children’s syntax or else their children will not learn to speak correctly. d. Deaf children who are not exposed to adult language cannot communicate at all. Section: Language Development Page(s): 82 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Children in different cultures go through similar stages of linguistic development. 46.

Laytoya is trying to convince her friend that Noam Chomsky’s theory of language development is correct. Which piece of evidence is she likely to cite to support her claim? a. Children in different cultures go through very different stages of linguistic development. b. Infants as young as 7 months can derive simple linguistic rules from a string of sounds. c. Many languages sound very different. d. Deaf children who are not exposed to adult language cannot communicate at all. Section: Language Development Page(s): 82 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Many researchers believe that babies can discriminate different types of artificial sentence structures. Astonishingly, this ability emerges even before they can understand or produce any words. 47.

A researcher who believes that experience, and not universal grammar, is responsible for the development of language in children is likely to argue that children develop grammar rules by a. learning the probability that any given word or syllable will follow another. b. comparing spoken language to written language. c. counting the number of nouns, adjectives, and verbs in the sentences they hear. d. listening to their parents explain how each grammar rule works. Section: Language Development Page(s): 83 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Many researchers argue that instead of inferring grammatical rules because of an innate disposition to do so, children learn the probability that any given word or syllable will follow another, something infants as young as 8 months are able to do. 48.

Rakeish was kept locked in a basement for most of his childhood. During this period, he almost never heard a human voice. Finally, he was rescued from this abusive situation. It is likely that Rakeish will a. very quickly acquire the ability to speak normally. b. learn to speak normally after many years. c. eventually understand speech, but will never be able to talk. d. never learn to speak normally. Section: Language Development Page(s): 83 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Abused children who are not exposed to language during their early years rarely speak normally or catch up grammatically. Such sad evidence suggests a critical period in language development during the first few years of life or possibly the first decade.

COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT Learning Objectives 3.9 Piaget’s stages of cognitive development and their hallmarks 3.10 Modern approaches to children’s mental development 49.

Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of a. cognitive development.

b. language development. c. perceptual development. d. attachment. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: In the 1920s, Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget proposed that children’s cognitive abilities unfold in stages. Piaget’s keen observations of children caused a revolution in thinking about how thinking develops. % correct 86 a= 86 b= 1 c= 7 d= 4 r = .42 50.

Piaget’s great insight regarding children was that a. children say illogical things because they are trying to get attention. b. it is difficult to predict when children will develop specific cognitive skills. c. if children make illogical statements after the age of 5 or 6, they most likely have a cognitive disability. d. errors of logic reflect a predictable interaction between a child’s maturational stage and the child’s experience in the world. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Piaget believed that the strategies that children use to think and solve problems are not random or meaningless. They reflect a predictable interaction between the child’s maturational stage and the child’s experience in the world. 51.

Janis sees a bat flying over the lake and says, “Birdie”! Her mother says, “That flies like a bird, Janis, but that is a bat.” Janis begins pointing saying, “Bat! Bat! Bat!” Piaget would say that this is an example of a. accommodation. b. preoperational thought. c. assimilation. d. egocentric thinking. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Accommodation occurs when a child must change their mental categories to fit new experiences or information.

% correct 73

a= 73 b= 20 c= 3 d= 3

r = .37

52.

In Piaget’s theory, the process of absorbing new information into existing cognitive structures is called a. operations. b. assimilation. c. conservation. d. accommodation. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Assimilation refers to the process of trying to fit new information or experience into existing mental categories. 53.

In Piaget’s theory, the process of modifying existing cognitive structures in response to experience and new information is called a. operations. b. accommodation. c. conservation. d. assimilation. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Accommodation occurs when a child must change his or her mental categories to fit new experiences or information.

% correct 81

a= 7 b= 81 c= 3 d= 10

r = .22

54.

Peter is 10 months old. He likes to touch objects, put things in his mouth, suck, and grasp. In addition, Peter is beginning to understand that his toys still exist even though they are in his toy box. Peter is in Piaget’s __________ stage. a. preoperational b. formal operations c. sensorimotor d. concrete operations Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: During the sensorimotor stage infants learn through concrete actions; looking touching, hearing, putting things in the mouth, and grasping. They also develop an understanding of object permanence. 55.

The adage, "Out of sight, out of mind," is most accurately applied to the early part of the _______ stage of development. a. formal operations b. concrete operations c. preoperational d. sensorimotor Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In the first few months of the sensorimotor stage, infants have yet to develop object permanence: the understanding that an object continues to exist even when they cannot see it or touch it. % correct 41 a= 5 b= 27 c= 27 d= 41 r = .21 56.

According to Piaget, _______________represents the beginning of the child’s capacity to use mental imagery and other symbolic systems. a. egocentric thinking b. accommodation c. object permanence d. assimilation Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: When object permanence develops, a child becomes able to hold a concept in mind and use mental imagery and symbols to represent the object.

% correct 60

a= 6 b= 30 c= 60 d= 10

r = .42

57.

The belief that one is the center of the world is called by Piaget a. animism. b. egocentrism. c. self-centering. d. centrismic thinking. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Piaget believed that preoperational children cannot take another person’s point of view because their thinking is egocentric: They see the world only from their own frame of reference and cannot imagine that others see things differently. % correct 91 a= 0 b= 91 c= 5 d= 5 r = .57 58.

Layla understands that “Daddy” is her father but does not yet understand that she is Daddy’s daughter. Piaget would say that Layla is in the a. preoperational stage. b. formal operations stage. c. sensorimotor stage. d. concrete operations stage. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a

Rationale: A child in the preoperational stage is unable to reverse mental operations.

% correct 50

a= 50 b= 13 c= 23 d= 13

r = .36

59.

In which stage of cognitive development does the conservation concept first appear? a. formal operations b. concrete operations c. preoperational d. sensorimotor Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84–85 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: According to Piaget, children at the concrete operations stage come to understand the principles of conservation. % correct 82 a= 7 b= 82 c= 7 d= 4 r = .33 60.

The mother of a young child who didn't like to drink milk was trying to coax him to drink some. Taking the glass of milk, she poured it all into a smaller cup and said, "There! Now you won't have to drink so much." She would never have fooled the child if he had not been in the __________ stage. a. preconventional b. preoperational c. concrete operations d. formal operations Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84–85 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: According to Piaget, preoperational children cannot grasp the concept of conservation, the notion that physical properties do not change when their form or appearance changes. This ability develops at the concrete operations stage. % correct 64 a= 5 b= 64 c= 21 d= 10 r = .39 61.

According to Piaget, __________ is the understanding that the physical properties of objects do not change when their form or appearance changes. a. egocentric thinking b. conservation c. accommodation d. reversibility Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84–85 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: According to Piaget, conservation is the understanding that the physical properties of objects— such as the number of items in a cluster or the amount of liquid in a glass—can remain the same even when their form or appearance changes. 62.

Suzanne is sitting at a table in school with several of her classmates. The teacher spreads out a pile of pennies in front of them and asks the children to put the pennies into a stack. Suzanne is the only child in her class who realizes that the number of pennies remains the same whether they are spread out on the table or in a stack. According to Piaget, Suzanne has already entered the __________ stage of development. a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operations d. formal operations Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84–85 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: During the concrete operations stage of development, children learn the concept of conservation, which is that the physical properties of objects do not change when their form or appearance changes. 63.

According to Piaget, at what stage would a child come to understand conservation, reversibility, and cause and effect?

a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operations d. formal operations Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 85 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: According to Piaget, it is during the concrete operations stage when a child comes to understand the principles of conservation, reversibility, and cause and effect. 64.

Which of the following is the correct order of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development? a. Preoperationalconcrete operationssensorimotor formal operations b. Concrete operations sensorimotorpreoperationalformal operations c. Sensorimotorpreoperationalconcrete operationsformal operations d. Preoperationalsensorimotorconcrete operationsformal operations Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84–85 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is the correct order of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development. % correct 60 a= 27 b= 13 c= 60 d= 0 r = .58 65.

Based on Piaget’s theory, which of the following relationships is correct? a. concrete operations = abstract reasoning b. preoperational = conservation c. formal operations = egocentrism d. sensorimotor = developing object permanence Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84–85 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In the sensorimotor stage, infants develop the concept of object permanence: the understanding that an object continues to exist even when they cannot see it or touch it. 66.

According to Piaget, children begin to develop concepts and the ability to think in terms of abstractions in the __________ stage. a. preoperational b. formal operations c. concrete operations d. sensorimotor Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 85 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: According to Piaget, people do not become capable of abstract reasoning until the formal operations stage. % correct 76 a= 14 b= 10 c= 76 d= 7 r = .49 67.

According to Piaget, what are the ages for the formal operations stage? a. birth to age 2 b. age 2 to 7 c. age 7 to 11 d. beyond age 12 or 13 Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 85 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: According to Piaget, beginning at about age 12 or 13 and continuing into adulthood, people become capable of abstract reasoning and enter the formal operations stage. 68.

If a child can tell you what "Y" is equal to when you give her the equation X = Y + 10, then she is in the _______ stage of cognitive development. a. formal operations b. concrete operations

c. preoperational d. sensorimotor Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 85 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Algebra requires abstract reasoning which Piaget believed does not develop until the formal operations stage. % correct 35 a= 35 b= 49 c= 12 d= 4 r = .39 69.

A characteristic that first shows up in the formal operations stage is a. irreversibility. b. abstract thinking. c. egocentrism. d. logical thinking. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 85 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: According to Piaget, people become capable of abstract reasoning as they enter the formal operations stage. % correct 77 a= 0 b= 77 c= 14 d= 9 r = .37 70.

In the concrete operations stage, children come to understand all of the following EXCEPT: a. principles of conservation. b. abstract thought. c. reversibility of mental operations. d. cause and effect. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 85 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Children do not acquire the ability to think abstractly until the formal operations stage that begins at about age 12.

% correct 48

a= 42 b= 48 c= 10 d= 0

r = .27

71.

Piaget mistakenly believed that a. children began to grasp the concept of object permanence during the sensorimotor stage. b. during the stage of concrete operations, children have the ability to compare and classify ideas. c. an understanding of serial ordering does not emerge until the stage of formal operations. d. preoperational children cannot take another person’s point of view. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 86 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Piaget believed that preoperational children were egocentric and could see the world only from their own frame of reference, but this was later shown to be inaccurate. 72.

Theory of __________ is the ability to think about how one’s own and other people’s thought processes work and how cognitions and feelings affect behaviors. a. cognition b. perception c. brain d. mind Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 86 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Theory of mind is a system of beliefs about the way one’s own mind and the minds of others work, and of how individuals are affected by their beliefs and feelings. 73.

Which of the following research findings regarding cognitive development is a challenge to Piaget’s theory? a. Children actively interpret their worlds, using their developing abilities to assimilate new information and figure things out. b. Abstract reasoning is one of the last cognitive skills to develop fully.

c. New reasoning abilities depend on the emergence of previous abilities. d. Cognitive abilities develop in overlapping waves rather than in discrete steps. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 86 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Newer research indicates that cognitive development is continuous; new abilities do not simply pop up when a child turns a specific age. 74.

Which of the following is a valid challenge to Piaget’s theory? a. Cognitive abilities develop in discrete steps or stages rather than continuous, overlapping waves. b. Young children do not understand as much as Piaget gave them credit for. c. Preschoolers are not as egocentric as Piaget thought. d. Cognitive development around the world is more consistent than Piaget thought. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 86 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Most 3- and 4-year-olds can take another person’s perspective.

MORAL DEVELOPMENT Learning Objectives 3.11 How moral feelings and behavior develop 3.12 Why shouting “Because I say so!” does not get most children to behave well 3.13 The importance of a child’s ability to delay gratification 75.

Lawrence Kohlberg is noted for his theories of __________ development. a. cognitive b. social c. moral d. emotional Section: Moral Development Page(s): 87–88 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In the 1960s, Lawrence Kohlberg argued that children’s ability to understand right from wrong evolved along with the rest of their cognitive abilities. % correct 74 a= 14 b= 10 c= 74 d= 2 r = .38 76.

Kohlberg's theory of moral development is based on _______ theory. a. Piaget's b. Erikson's c. Freud's d. social-learning Section: Moral Development Page(s): 87–88 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Lawrence Kohlberg was inspired by Piaget’s work. Similar to Piaget stages of cognitive development, Kohlberg argued that children’s ability to understand right from wrong evolved along with the rest of their cognitive abilities, progressing through three levels. % correct 50 a= 50 b= 18 c= 0 d= 32 r = .28 77.

In the 1960s, which theorist proposed that children's ability to understand right and wrong developed right along with the rest of their cognitive abilities, and progressed through three levels? a. Lawrence Kohlberg b. Carl Jung c. Carl Rogers d. Jerome Kagan Section: Moral Development Page(s): 87–88 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This was the viewpoint of Lawrence Kohlberg.

78.

Tyrel is only 5 years old. He is angry at his brother and is about to hit him when he stops. According to Kohlberg, it is most likely that Tyrel did not hit his brother because he a. respects the rules of the house. b. does not want to get into trouble. c. realizes that all human beings deserve to live without violence. d. wants to conform to the rules of the house. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 88 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Kohlberg found that very young children (till about age 10) obey rules because they fear being punished if they disobey, and later because they think it is in their best interest to obey. 79.

When asked about whether the death penalty is morally defensible, Mandi argued that it is never acceptable to take a life. According to Kohlberg, Mandi is at the phase of moral development where moral judgments are based upon a. conformity and loyalty to others. b. what is in her own interest. c. universal human rights. d. the rule of law. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 88 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Some adults come to base their moral judgments on universal human rights. In this example, Mandi’s objection to the death penalty is based on her belief that the taking of a human life is simply wrong. 80.

Today, a developmental psychologists studying moral development is likely to emphasize a. how children learn to regulate their own emotions and behavior. b. the distinct stages of moral development. c. the development of the universal human rights orientation. d. how young children lack a moral sense. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 88 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Developmental psychologists today place greater emphasis on how children learn to regulate their own emotions and behavior. Most children learn to inhibit their wishes to beat up their younger siblings, steal a classmate’s toy, or scream at the top of their lungs if they don’t get their way. 81.

The concept of a moral sense can be described as a. the ability to detect morality in others. b. an innate understanding of what is right and what is wrong. c. the way we learn through experience to behave towards others. d. the ability to avoid punishment by acting in a certain way. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 88 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Many psychologists conclude that the capacity for understanding right from wrong, like that for language, is inborn. Jerome Kagan (1984) wrote, “Without this fundamental human capacity, which nineteenth-century observers called a moral sense, the child could not be socialized.” 82.

Although Kenya was an easygoing baby, her mother was impatient and rejecting of her. Which of the following is true about Kenya’s personality according to a controversial theory? a. It is unlikely to be affected very much by her mother’s bad parenting. b. She is likely to become aggressive, difficult, and defiant. c. She is likely to change her personality to match her mother. d. She is likely to become introverted and withdrawn. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 88 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Easygoing babies may not benefit as much from good parenting nor suffer as much from bad parenting.

83.

A controversial theory about gene-environment interactions can be summarized as: a. Bad parenting has little effect on children, but all children benefit from good parenting b. Good parenting has little effect on children, but bad parenting harms all children. c. Bad parenting is much more destructive for babies with easy-going temperaments. d. Parenting ability is much more important with temperamentally difficult babies. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 88 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: One controversial hypothesis suggests that infants and toddlers who show high levels of distress and irritability are actually more responsive to, and influenced by, styles of parenting than easygoing babies are. 84.

A mother who primarily uses power assertion to influence her child’s behavior is most likely to a. appeal to the child’s own helpful inclinations. b. encourage the child to be assertive and stand up to adults. c. threaten to take away the child’s videogame system for bad behavior. d. correct the child’s misbehavior by appealing to the child’s own resources. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 88–89 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Power assertion includes threats, physical punishment, depriving the child of privileges, and generally taking advantage of being bigger, stronger, and more powerful. 85.

Ruth’s parents frequently slap and spank her when she misbehaves. When they want her to do something, instead of asking her nicely, they bully her into doing it. Ruth is most likely to a. develop a strong sense of moral feelings. b. be impulsive, unmotivated, and irresponsible. c. confess rather than lie when she misbehaves. d. have reduced empathy for others and behave more aggressively. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 89 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Power assertion often results in greater aggressiveness in children, reduced empathy, and can cause a child to become angry and resentful. 86.

A method of child rearing in which the parent appeals to the child’s own resources, abilities, sense of responsibility, and feeling for others in correcting misbehavior is called a. induction. b. Kohlbergian parenting. c. justice-based reasoning. d. power assertion. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 89 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: A method of child rearing in which the parent appeals to the child’s own resources, abilities, sense of responsibility, and feeling for others in correcting misbehavior is called induction. 87.

Six-year-old Nettie doesn’t want to share her toys with a friend who has come over to play. Her mother puts her arm around her and says, “We all sometimes don’t feel like sharing. But think about how you would feel if you weren’t allowed to play with anything. I know you like to be fair to others.” Nettie’s mom is using the child-rearing method known as a. permissiveness. b. power assertion. c. manipulation. d. induction. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 89 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Induction is a strategy in which the parent appeals to the child’s own abilities, empathy, helpful nature, affection for others, and sense of responsibility.

88.

Seku really wants to play video games, but his mother tells him he needs to practice piano. By agreeing to practice, Seku is demonstrating a. self-regulation. b. induction. c. conscience. d. power assertion. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 89 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Self-regulation is the ability to suppress an initial wish to do something in favor of doing something else that is not as much fun. 89.

In general, Padma is a child who is willing to do something an adult asks, even if she really wants to do something else. It is likely that Padma a. has difficulty delaying gratification. b. gets distracted easily. c. will not do well in school. d. can control her negative emotions. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 89 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Self-regulation predicts a child’s ability to delay gratification now for a larger reward later, control negative emotions, pay attention to the task at hand, and do well in school, from kindergarten to college. 90.

In general, Padma is a child who is willing to do something an adult asks, even if she really wants to do something else. It is likely that Padma a. has difficulty delaying gratification. b. gets distracted easily. c. will do well in school d. cannot control her negative emotions. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 89 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Self-regulation predicts a child’s ability to delay gratification now for a larger reward later, control negative emotions, pay attention to the task at hand, and do well in school, from kindergarten to college. 91.

Which of the following describes the apparent relationship between parenting and self-regulation? a. Children who are better able to self-regulate have parents who rely more on power assertion. b. Children who are better able to self-regulate have parents who rely less on power assertion. c. Parents who regularly order their children to behave tend to have self-regulated children. d. Parenting has no effect on self-regulation. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 90 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In a study described in the textbook, self-regulation was negatively correlated with the mother’s use of power assertion, meaning that mothers who ordered their children to “behave” tended to have children who were impulsive and aggressive. 92.

How should the results from the study on the links between parental discipline, the child’s self-regulation, and the emergence of conscience discussed in the textbook be interpreted? a. Children become more self-regulating because of their mother’s parenting style. b. Mothers develop different parenting styles in response to their child’s behavior. c. Parenting style and a child’s self-regulation are fairly fixed. d. A child’s personality can affect his or her mother’s parenting style, but parenting style can also affect a child’s personality. Section: Moral Development Page(s): 90 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d

Rationale: In the study, mothers who ordered their children to “behave” tended to have children who were impulsive and aggressive, but cause and effect worked in both directions; some mothers relied on power assertion because their children were impulsive, defiant, and aggressive and would not listen to them.

GENDER DEVELOPMENT Learning Objectives 3.14 Why some people fail to identify themselves as either male or female 3.15 The biological explanation of why most little boys and girls are “sexist” in their choice of toys, at least for a while 3.16 When and how children learn that they are male or female 3.17 Learning explanations of some typical sex differences in childhood behavior 93.

The fundamental sense of being male or female, independent of whether you conform to the social rules of gender, is called a. gender typing. b. gender identity. c. gender schema. d. gender development. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 91 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is a definition of gender identity. 94.

When Steve was very young, he would sometimes insist to his parents that he was a girl just like his mother. After his fourth birthday, he stopped mentioning that he was a girl and regularly defined himself as a boy. Steve developed a sense of gender a. typing. b. identity. c. schema. d. bias. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 91 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The fundamental sense of being male or female, independent of whether the person conforms to the social and cultural rules of gender, is called gender identity. 95.

The term __________ has replaced the term hermaphroditism. a. transsexual b. transvestite c. intersex condition d. transgender Section: Gender Development Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: What was once called hermaphroditism is now known as an intersex condition. 96.

Page(s): 91 Answer: c

The process by which children learn the abilities, interests, personality traits, and behaviors associated with being masculine or feminine in their culture is called a. gender typing. b. gender establishment. c. gender schema development. d. learned gender differences. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 91 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is a definition of gender typing.

97.

In the dramatic case where a young boy lost his penis in a freak accident and was raised as a girl named Brenda beginning at the age of 2, Brenda a. was happy as a girl and ended up with a female gender identity. b. preferred “boys’ toys” for awhile, but by the age of 14 had successfully identified herself as a girl. c. was never happy as a girl and at the age of 14 refused to keep living as a female. d. was confused about her sense of gender identity, identifying herself as neither a boy nor a girl. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 92 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: When Brenda was 14 and refused to live as a girl, his father finally told him the truth. Brenda’s name was changed to David and he began living as a boy. He eventually married, but later committed suicide. 98.

Starting in _______________, boys and girls congregate primarily with other children of the same sex. a. preschool b. kindergarten c. middle school d. the later school years Section: Gender Development Page(s): 92 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Starting in the preschool years, boys and girls congregate primarily with other children of their sex, and most prefer the toys and games of their own sex. 99.

When boys and girls have a choice of “boy” or “girl” toys and games: a. their choices reflect whether parents encourage boys and girls to play together. b. children all over the world have a preference for same-sex toys. c. their choices reflect whether their culture provides distinctive “boy toys” and “girl toys.” d. children from individualist cultures choose same-sex and opposite-sex toys equally. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 92 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Children all over the world seem to choose same-sex toys and games, regardless of culture or religion. 100.

At 9 months of age, most babies a. understand cultural rules of gender. b. have no understanding of gender. c. can discriminate male from female faces. d. have strong gender identities. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 93 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: By the age of 9 months, most babies can discriminate male from female faces, and they can match female faces with female voices. 101.

Most children develop a stable gender identity at about ______ years of age. a. 2 b. 5 c. 8 d. 11 Section: Gender Development Page(s): 93 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: At about age 5, most children develop a stable gender identity, a sense of themselves as being male or female regardless of what they wear or how they behave. 102.

Dr. Sardonicus states that, as they mature, children develop a mental network of beliefs explaining what it means to be male or female. Dr. Sardonicus is most likely a a. biological psychologist. b. behavioral theorist. c. psychodynamic theorist.

d. cognitive psychologist. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 93 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: A mental network of beliefs about what it means to be male or female is called a gender schema, that is, a cognitive schema related to gender. 103.

A mental network of knowledge, beliefs, metaphors, and expectations about what it means to be male or female is called a. gender identity. b. gender typing. c. a gender schema. d. gender. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 93 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: A cognitive schema of knowledge, beliefs, metaphors, and expectations about what it means to be male or female is called gender schema. 104.

Children’s gender schemas are most rigid during the ages a. 2–3. b. 5–7. c. 8–12. d. 13–16. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 93 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Young children are very rigid in their gender schemas, especially between the ages of 5 and 7; at this age it is very difficult to dislodge a child’s notion of what boys and girls can do. 105.

Behavioral and social-cognitive learning theorists generally believe that gender socialization begins a. at the moment of a child’s birth. b. when the child comprehends speech. c. when children label themselves boys or girls. d. when children have developed a secure gender identity. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 94 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Behavioral and social-cognitive learning theorists generally find that gender socialization begins at the moment of birth. Parents tend to portray their newborn girls as more feminine and delicate than boys, and boys as stronger and more athletic than girls. 106.

An example of a learning influence on gender development would be a. the ability of babies to discriminate male and female faces. b. the effects of testosterone on a male fetus. c. parents dressing their children in gender specific clothing. d. a child’s gender schema. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 94 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Learning influences consist of the subtle and not-so-subtle messages about what girls and boys are supposed to do.

ADOLESCENCE Learning Objectives 3.18 The physiological changes of adolescence 3.19 The psychological issues of adolescence 3.20 Findings on brain development in adolescence

107.

Philip is technically considered an adolescent. Therefore, he must be between a. age 13 and age 19. b. grade school and college. c. puberty and adulthood. d. high school and marriage. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 95 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Adolescence refers to the period of development between puberty, the age at which a person becomes capable of sexual reproduction, and adulthood. 108.

Puberty is defined as the age at which a person a. enters middle school or junior high. b. begins to be treated in an adult manner. c. experiences his or her growth spurt. d. becomes capable of sexual reproduction. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 95 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Puberty is biologically determined as the age at which a person becomes capable of sexual reproduction. 109.

Stanley has just entered puberty. This means that he is a. entering middle school or junior high. b. beginning to be treated in an adult manner. c. experiencing his growth spurt. d. capable of sexual reproduction. Section: Adolescence Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Puberty is the age at which a person becomes capable of sexual reproduction.

Page(s): 95 Answer: d

110.

Comparisons of hormone production in boys and girls show that a. before puberty, boys have higher levels of estrogens than do girls. b. from puberty on, boys and girls produce the same amounts of androgens and estrogens. c. before puberty, girls have higher levels of estrogens than do boys. d. from puberty on, boys produce more androgens and girls produce more estrogens. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 95 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Before puberty, hormone levels are roughly the same in boys and girls, but beginning at puberty boys produce relatively more androgens and girls produce relatively more estrogens. 111.

Gwen and her brother Henry produce roughly the same levels of male hormones and female hormones. Given this information, it is likely that a. Gwen and Henry have not yet reached puberty. b. Gwen has reached puberty but Henry has not. c. Henry has reached puberty but Gwen has not. d. Gwen and Henry have both reached puberty. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 95 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Before puberty, hormone levels are roughly the same in boys and girls, but beginning at puberty boys produce relatively more androgens and girls produce relatively more estrogens. 112.

An adolescent has just experienced menarche. This means that a. the onset of menstruation has occurred. b. facial and chest hair has begun to appear. c. breasts have begun to develop and pubic hair has appeared. d. the testes have begun to mature and to produce sperm.

Section: Adolescence Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Menarche means the onset of menstruation.

Page(s): 95 Answer: a

113.

Research on the onset of puberty has revealed that a. the average age of menarche now occurs at about 15 years old. b. the average age at puberty is increasing in Europe and North America. c. menarche depends on a critical level of body fat. d. There is little variability in the onset of puberty. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 96 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Menarche depends on a female’s having a critical level of body fat, which is necessary to sustain a pregnancy and which triggers the hormonal changes associated with puberty. 114.

Amir matured earlier than the other boys in his class. Which of the following is more likely for Amir than his male classmates? a. He will have negative concepts about his body. b. He is likely to have fewer problems with the law. c. He will experience fewer problems with drugs and alcohol. d. He will excel in sports. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 96 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Because puberty results in growth of muscles and bones, early-maturing boys may have an advantage in sports. 115.

Hillary has a history of behavior problems and conflicts with her parents. Now, she is in sixth grade and is the first girl in her class to become sexually mature. Hillary is more likely than later-maturing girls to a. develop positive communication patterns with her parents. b. have a positive body image and gain prestige for athletic skills. c. drop out of school and have emotional problems. d. be socially unpopular for being “off-time” in maturation. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 96 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Partly because others in their peer group regard them as being sexually precocious, earlymaturing girls are more likely to fight with parents, drop out of school, have a negative body image, and be angry or depressed. 116. __________ may have a difficult time as the teen years approach, but by the end of adolescence many feel better about their appearance and are more popular than __________. a. Late-maturing girls; early-maturing girls b. Late-maturing boys; late-maturing girls c. Early-maturing girls; late-maturing girls d. Early-maturing boys; late-maturing boys Section: Adolescence Page(s): 96 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Girls who go through puberty late may have a more difficult time at first but by the end of adolescence may be happier with their appearance than early-maturing girls. 117.

As the mother of a late-maturing boy, Betty should be most concerned that, compared to early-maturing boys, her son will a. be more likely to use drugs and alcohol. b. have less success in sports. c. be more likely to disobey school regulations. d. be more likely to smoke cigarettes to fit in with peers. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 96 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b

Rationale: Late-maturing boys often have less athletic ability than their peers because they are slower to develop the increased strength and size that begins at puberty. 118.

The discrepancy between how good you actually are academically and how good you think you are is called a. unreasonable self-esteem. b. avoidant self-enhancement. c. unreasonable self-enhancement. d. avoidant self-esteem. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The discrepancy between how good you actually are academically and how good you think you are is called unreasonable self-enhancement. 119.

As children approach their teen years, contact with _______ becomes more important in their development. a. peers b. parents c. teachers d. adults Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Peers become especially important to adolescents because they represent the values and style of the generation that teenagers identify with. Many people report that feeling rejected by their peers when they were teenagers was more devastating than punitive treatment by parents. % correct 89 a= 89 b= 4 c= 0 d= 7 r = .28 120.

According to a 2008 government sponsored review, the most frequent danger that teenagers face on the Internet is a. pornography. b. predatory adults. c. sexting. d. bullying. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The Berkman Center for Internet & Society reported, “Bullying and harassment, most often by peers, are the most frequent threats that minors face, both online and offline.” 121.

Which of the following is one of the three kinds of problems that are more common during adolescence than during other developmental stages? a. conflicts with parents over autonomy b. physical inactivity and passivity c. overinflated self-esteem d. too little self-esteem Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The three types of problems that are more common in adolescence than in childhood or adulthood are conflict with parents, mood swings and depression, and higher rates of reckless, rule-breaking, and risky behavior. 122.

Adolescent boys who are lonely, depressed, worried, or angry are more likely than girls to express these concerns by a. externalizing their emotional problems in acts of aggression and other antisocial behavior. b. develop eating disorders. c. have low overall self-esteem. d. internalizing their feelings and becoming more withdrawn. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97

Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Boys tend to externalize their emotional problems and show outward acts of aggression and other antisocial behavior, whereas girls tend to internalize their feelings and problems, becoming withdrawn or developing eating disorders. 123.

Adolescent girls who are lonely, depressed, worried, or angry are more likely than boys to express these concerns by a. externalizing their problems and engaging in rule-breaking and risk-taking behaviors. b. internalizing their feelings and becoming withdrawn. c. externalizing their problems, becoming aggressive, and acting out sexually. d. developing low overall self-esteem. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Boys tend to externalize their emotional problems and show outward acts of aggression and other antisocial behavior, whereas girls tend to internalize their feelings and problems, becoming withdrawn or developing eating disorders. 124.

Based on their research, some scientists believe that a. adolescents who commit violent crimes should be tried as adults because their cognitive abilities and moral reasoning abilities are like those of an adult. b. the brain is not fully mature until the early to mid-twenties, so adolescents should not be held fully responsible for violent acts that they commit before that time. c. the human brain is fully developed around 10 years of age, so the risky, dumb, or criminal things adolescents do should be blamed entirely on hormonal changes. d. adolescents should be considered as adults in the eyes of the law as soon as they have completed puberty, because physically they are adults at that point. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 96 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Changes in the prefrontal cortex, which is responsible for impulse control and planning, and the limbic system, which is involved in emotional processing, occur throughout adolescence and are not complete until the early to mid-twenties.

ADULTHOOD Learning Objectives 3.21 Erik Erikson’s theory of the stages of adult development 3.22 The typical attitudes and experiences of “emerging adulthood,” the years from 18 to 25 3.23 Some common midlife changes for women and men 3.24 Which mental abilities decline in old age and which ones do not 125.

Which of the following statements best summarizes Erik Erikson’s theory? a. Personality is formed by the time a child turns 5 or 6 years old. b. Stage theories are inadequate in capturing life’s developmental changes. c. Eight inevitable crises must be resolved as one moves through life. d. Adult development is characterized by transitions and milestones. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Erikson said that all individuals go through eight stages in their lives and that each stage is characterized by a particular challenge or “crisis.” 126.

The first stage of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development is known as a. autonomy versus doubt. b. trust versus mistrust. c. initiative versus guilt.

d. industry versus inferiority. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Trust versus mistrust is the challenge that occurs during the baby’s first year, when the baby depends on others to provide food, comfort, cuddling, and warmth. % correct 89 a= 7 b= 89 c= 4 d= 0 r = .50 127.

Erik is a newborn. According to Erikson, his main task will be to develop a sense of a. trust. b. initiative. c. industry. d. autonomy. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: According to Erikson, trust versus mistrust is the challenge that occurs during the baby’s first year, when the baby depends on others to provide food, comfort, cuddling, and warmth. % correct 95 a= 95 b= 2 c= 0 d= 2 r = .30 128.

A baby learns that when he is hungry, food is provided, and when he is in pain, he is cuddled and comforted. Erikson suggested that this baby would be developing a sense of a. intimacy. b. trust. c. integrity. d. identity. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: An infant whose parents are sensitive to his or her needs and sees that they are satisfied will instill a sense of trust in the infant. 129.

During Erikson’s stage of _______________, a person must learn to be independent about his actions. a. trust versus mistrust b. ego integrity versus despair c. autonomy versus shame and doubt d. generativity versus stagnation Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Independence begins to develop in the toddler years when the child faces the crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt. % correct 63 a= 23 b= 10 c= 63 d= 3 r = .18 130.

Erikson's theory of social development viewed the ages of 2 to 3, his second stage, as being characterized by the major challenge of a. identity versus role diffusion. b. basic trust versus mistrust. c. industry versus inferiority. d. autonomy versus shame and doubt. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Autonomy (independence) versus shame and doubt is the challenge that occurs when the child is a toddler. The young child is learning to be independent and must do so without feeling too ashamed or uncertain about his or her actions. % correct 60 a= 7 b= 19 c= 14 d= 60 r = .30 131.

Erikson's theory of social development viewed the ages of 3 to 6, his third stage, as being characterized by the major challenge of a. identity versus role diffusion .

b. initiative versus guilt. c. industry versus inferiority. d. autonomy versus shame and doubt. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Initiative versus guilt is the challenge that occurs as the preschooler develops. The child is acquiring new physical and mental skills, setting goals, and enjoying newfound talents, but must also learn to control impulses. % correct 52 a= 10 b= 52 c= 24 d= 14 r = .20 132.

Holly, at age 13, is suspicious of both friends and strangers, and very cautious before trying anything new. According to Erikson, these traits were probably formed during Holly's passage through the stage of a. introversion versus extroversion. b. trust versus mistrust. c. autonomy versus doubt. d. initiative versus guilt. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Trust versus mistrust is the challenge that occurs during the baby’s first year, when the baby depends on others to provide food, comfort, cuddling, and warmth. If these needs are not met, the child may never develop the essential trust of others necessary to get along in the world. % correct 79 a= 7 b= 79 c= 11 d= 4 r = .27 133.

A person experiences too strong of a sense of guilt over his fantasies. According to Erikson’s theory, he had difficulty resolving the inevitable crisis that occurred when he was a. an infant. b. a preschooler. c. a young adult. d. in his middle years. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Initiative versus guilt is the challenge that occurs as the preschooler develops. According to Erikson, the danger lies in developing too strong a sense of guilt over his or her wishes and fantasies. %correct 50 a= 27 b= 50 c= 20 d= 3 r = .45 134.

A person feels competent in acquiring skills, using tools, and learning to make things. According to Erikson’s theory, she has successfully resolved the inevitable crisis that occurred when she was a. a preschooler. b. a school-age child. c. an adolescent. d. a young adult. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The school-age child must develop a sense of mastery and competence or end the stage feeling inadequate and inferior. % correct 47 a= 13 b= 47 c= 17 d= 23 r = .59 135.

According to Erikson, a conflict of identity versus role confusion occurs during a. adolescence. b. young adulthood. c. middle adulthood. d. old age. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98–99 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: According to Erikson, identity versus role confusion is the great challenge of adolescence, when teenagers must decide who they are, what they are going to do, and what they hope to make of their lives.

% correct 77

a= 77 b= 9 c= 9 d= 5

r = .43

136.

An identity crisis is most likely experienced, according to Erikson, at which of the following stages? a. late childhood b. adolescence c. early adulthood d. middle adulthood Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98–99 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Erikson used the term identity crisis to describe what he considered to be the primary conflict of adolescence. % correct 64 a= 0 b= 64 c= 14 d= 23 r = .42 137.

Will you sink into complacency and selfishness, or will you experience the pleasure of creativity and renewal? According to Erik Erikson, this is the crisis of a. initiative versus guilt. b. ego integrity versus despair. c. identity versus role confusion. d. generativity versus stagnation. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 99 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: The middle adult years are characterized by the challenge of generativity (creativity and renewal) or stagnation (complacency and selfishness). % correct 50 a= 23 b= 17 c= 10 d= 50 r = .31 138.

According to Erikson, the last stage of development involves the crisis of a. identity versus role confusion. b. generativity versus stagnation. c. autonomy versus doubt. d. ego integrity versus despair. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 99 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: According to Erikson, ego integrity versus despair is the final challenge of old age. As they age, people strive to reach the ultimate goals of wisdom, spiritual tranquility, and acceptance of their lives. % correct 63 a= 5 b= 24 c= 8 d= 63 r = .29 139.

According to Erikson's theory, the _______ stage of development occurs in old age. a. generativity versus stagnation b. intimacy versus isolation c. integrity versus despair d. trust versus mistrust Section: Adulthood Page(s): 99 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: According to Erikson, ego integrity versus despair is the final challenge of old age. As they age, people strive to reach the ultimate goals of wisdom, spiritual tranquility, and acceptance of their lives. % correct 51 a= 33 b= 12 c= 51 d= 4 r = .35 140.

According to Erik Erikson, the crucial task confronting a person approaching death is that of establishing or attaining a. trust. b. ego identity. c. ego integrity. d. autonomy. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 99 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: According to Erikson, ego integrity versus despair is the final challenge of old age. Just as the

healthy child will not fear life, said Erikson, the healthy adult will not fear death. % correct 41 a= 32 b= 18 c= 41 d= 9 r = .63 141.

Erikson saw the major challenge of young adulthood as that of a. intimacy versus isolation. b. identity versus role diffusion. c. generativity versus stagnation. d. integrity versus despair. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 99 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Intimacy versus isolation is the challenge of young adulthood. Once you have decided who you are, said Erikson, you must share yourself with another and learn to make commitments. % correct 33 a= 33 b= 62 c= 2 d= 2 r = .22 142.

Erikson's intimacy versus isolation crisis would most likely be associated with which event in the family cycle? a. your last child leaving home b. your first child leaving home c. marrying d. adolescence Section: Adulthood Page(s): 99 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Intimacy versus isolation is the challenge of young adulthood. Once you have decided who you are, said Erikson, you must share yourself with another and learn to make commitments. Decision to get married is an obvious example of this. % correct 42 a= 26 b= 8 c= 42 d= 23 r = .36 143.

Deanna is in her twenties and has successfully resolved each life crisis as it has occurred throughout her development. According to Erikson, Deanna now must resolve the crisis of a. trust versus mistrust. b. intimacy versus isolation. c. initiative versus guilt. d. ego integrity versus despair. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 99 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The challenge of early adulthood is learning to share yourself with another and make commitments, that is, intimacy versus isolation. % correct 70 a= 6 b= 70 c= 17 d= 0 r = .55 144.

Emerging adulthood, the years between the ages of 18 and 25, are considered to be a new phase of life in which a. people feel that they are no longer adolescents but are not yet adults. b. rates of emotional distress increase greatly as people assume adult responsibilities. c. people living in nonindustrialized cultures develop feelings of dissatisfaction with their countries and desire to move to more developed nations. d. crises similar to midlife crises commonly occur. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 100 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In industrialized nations, major demographic changes have postponed the timing of career decisions, marriage or cohabitation, and parenthood creating, as a result, a new phase of life involving prolonged exploration and freedom.

% correct 83 145.

a= 83 b= 13 c= 0 d= 3

The cessation of menstruation is called a. menopause. b. endometriosis.

r = .46

c. menarche. d. the climacteric. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 101 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Menopause, which usually occurs between ages 45 and 55, is the cessation of menstruation after the ovaries stop producing estrogen and progesterone. % correct 95 a= 95 b= 0 c= 5 d= 0 r = .21 146.

About _______________ of all women have severe physical symptoms during menopause. a. 10 percent b. 25 percent c. 50 percent d. 80 percent Section: Adulthood Page(s): 101 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Menopause does produce physical symptoms in many women, but only about 10 percent report severe symptoms and only 3 percent express regret at having reached menopause. 147.

As people move into old age, the speed of cognitive processing a. slows down. b. increases, but only for those who take vitamins. c. declines along with crystallized intelligence. d. does not change at all. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 102 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: It takes older people longer to retrieve names, dates, and other information; in fact, the speed of cognitive processing in general slows down. 148.

Crystallized intelligence consists of a. the capacity for deductive reasoning. b. cognitive skills and specific knowledge learned over a lifetime. c. the ability to use new information to solve problems. d. inherited predispositions to process information. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 102 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Crystallized intelligence consists of cognitive skills and specific knowledge learned over a lifetime. 149.

In general, as older adults age a. all cognitive abilities decline. b. no cognitive abilities decline in healthy adults. c. some cognitive abilities decline, while others are stable. d. many cognitive abilities actually improve. Section: Adulthood Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Some, but not all cognitive abilities worsen with age.

Page(s): 102 Answer: c

150. Fluid intelligence consists of a. the kind of intelligence that gives one the ability to do arithmetic and define words. b. intellectual abilities that develop from one’s environment. c. specific knowledge learned through education and life experiences. d. the ability to use new information to solve problems. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 102 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Fluid intelligence is the capacity for deductive reasoning and the ability to use new information to solve problems; it is relatively independent of education and tends to decline in old age.

151.

The frequency of intense negative emotions is highest among people aged a. 18 to 34 years. b. 35 to 45 years. c. 46 to 55 years. d. 56 to 65 years. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 103 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The frequency of intense negative emotions is highest from age 18 to 34 and then drops sharply until age 65, when it levels off.

THE WELLSPRINGS OF RESILIENCE Learning Objectives 3.25 Why terrible childhood experiences do not inevitably affect a person forever 3.26 What makes most children resilient in the face of adversity 152.

Children who have been beaten, neglected, or routinely subjected to verbal or physical abuse by their parents are more likely than other children to a. have more emotional problems. b. stay in school. c. attend college. d. abide by the law. Section: The Wellsprings of Resilience Page(s): 103 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: While children are resilient, those who have been beaten, neglected, or constantly subjected to verbal or physical abuse by their parents are more likely than other children to have more emotional problems, become delinquent and violent, commit crimes, have low IQs, drop out of school, develop mental disorders such as depression, and develop chronic stress-related illnesses. 153.

Which of the following best describes what psychologist Ann Masten found in her research regarding resilience? a. Most people do not recover from adversity. b. There is something special and rare about people who can recover from adversity. c. Those with an insecure attachment style recover more easily from adversity. d. Children are fairly resilient to trauma, especially if they have easygoing temperaments or personality traits. Section: The Wellsprings of Resilience Page(s): 104 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Masten found that resilience is very ordinary. Many of the children who outgrow early deprivation and trauma have easygoing temperaments or personality traits, such as self-efficacy and self-control, that help them roll with even severe punches. 154.

Crystal just found out that her young son has recently been the victim of sexual molestation. Which of the following should she know about her son’s long-term prognosis? a. Childhood traumas almost always have severe long-lasting negative effects. b. Most children are resilient, eventually overcoming severe traumatic experiences. c. Only securely attached children can overcome traumatic events. d. About 50 percent of children recover from traumatic events. Section: The Wellsprings of Resilience Page(s): 104 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Most children, they found, are resilient, eventually overcoming even the effects of war, childhood illness, having abusive or alcoholic parents, early deprivation, or being sexually molested 155.

Which of the following describes the relationship between a child’s resilience and his or her attachment to parents? a. Only securely attached children are resilient to trauma.

b. c. d.

Only insecurely attached children are resilient to trauma. A child’s attachment has no relationship with resilience. If children lack secure attachments with their own parents, they may be rescued by love and attention from others.

Section: The Wellsprings of Resilience Page(s): 104 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: If children lack secure attachments with their own parents, they may be rescued by love and attention from their siblings, peers, extended family members, or other caring adults.

True-False Questions 1.

Developmental psychologists study physiological and cognitive changes across the life span and how these changes are affected by a person’s genetic predispositions, culture, circumstances and experiences. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 73 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 2.

Socialization is the process by which children learn the behaviors, attitudes, and expectations required of them by their society or culture. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 73–74 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 3.

Maturation is the process by which children learn the behaviors, attitudes, and expectations required of them by their society or culture. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a definition of socialization, not maturation. 4. The germinal stage begins at conception and ends when implantation in the uterine wall is complete. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 5.

After years of extensive research, it has been determined that fathers have very little influence on prenatal development. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Most people don’t realize it, but fathers play an important role in prenatal development. 6.

When a mother contracts German measles (rubella) early in the pregnancy, the most common consequence to the embryo is deafness. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 7. Maternal use of cigarettes during pregnancy causes damage to the placenta but not to the baby itself. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 75 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Cigarette use can cause SIDS, hyperactivity, and learning disabilities. 8. Emotional attachment is a universal capacity of all primates. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 76 Type: Factual

Answer: True

Rationale: Statement of fact. 9. Babies become attached to their mothers because their mothers provide them with food and warmth. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 76 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Babies become attached to their mothers because of contact comfort. 10. The Strange Situation is an experimental method devised in order to test an infant’s depth perception. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 77 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: It is used to study the nature of the attachment between mothers and babies. 11.

Most German babies show insecure attachments to their mothers due to the cultural belief that babies should be left on their own for a few hours at a stretch in order to develop self-reliance. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 78 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: German child-rearing practices do not affect the nature of attachment. 12.

Recent longitudinal research mentioned in your text has found that time spent in daycare has no significant effect on the security of a child’s attachment. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 78 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 13. The child’s temperament has no effect on the security of a child’s attachment. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 78 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: A child’s own genetically influenced temperament does affect attachment. For example, babies who are fearful and prone to crying from birth are more likely to show insecure behavior. 14. Until the age of 12 months, babies have difficulty responding to the pitch, intensity, and sound of language. Section: Language Development Page(s): 80 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Babies respond to pitch, intensity, and sound of language in the first few months of life. 15. Parentese is defined as the parental use of symbolic gestures as a tool of communication with an infant. Section: Language Development Page(s): 80 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Parentese refers to “baby talk” that is higher in pitch and more varied than usual with exaggerated emphasis on vowels. 16.

Children whose parents encourage them to use gestures acquire smaller vocabularies than babies who are not encouraged to use gestures. Section: Language Development Page(s): 80 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Children whose parents encourage them to use gestures acquire larger vocabularies, have better comprehension, are better listeners, and are less frustrated in their efforts to communicate than babies who are not encouraged to use gestures. 17.

Babies who were given infant “brain stimulation” videos are actually slower at acquiring words than babies who did not watch the videos. Section: Language Development Page(s): 80 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 18.

When a child’s first word combinations omit unnecessary words, it is called telegraphic speech.

Section: Language Development Page(s): 81 Rationale: Statement of fact.

Type: Factual

19. Until the preschool years, children tend to acquire new words slowly. Section: Language Development Page(s): 81 Type: Factual Rationale: Children acquire several new words a day between the ages of 2 and 6.

Answer: True

Answer: False

20.

Jean Piaget said that strategies used by children to solve problems are meaningless until about 7 years of age. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: According to Piaget, children’s minds constantly adapt to new situations and experiences using the processes of assimilation and accommodation. 21. Assimilation occurs when you fit new information into your present system of knowledge and beliefs. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 22. Piaget said that in the first few months of life, infants seem to follow the motto “out of sight, out of mind.” Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 23.

A major accomplishment during the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development is grasping the concept of conservation. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84–85 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Gaining an understanding of conservation occurs during the concrete operations stage. 24.

Preschoolers are not as egocentric as Piaget thought. In fact, most 3- and 4-year-olds can take another person’s perspective. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 86 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 25. Piaget underestimated the cognitive skills of young children. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 86 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

26. Before children can recognize that there are two sexes, they must develop a gender schema. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 93 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Children typically recognize that there are two sexes before they can speak, but don’t develop gender schema until the age of 5. 27. Gender schemas are permanent conceptualizations of what it means to be masculine or feminine. Section: Gender Development Page(s): 93 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: A person’s gender schema can change at any point during life and is likely to change during adulthood. 28.

Puberty is defined as the age at which a person enters middle school or junior high.

Section: Adolescence Page(s): 95 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Puberty is the age at which a person becomes capable of sexual reproduction. 29. Menarche is defined as the onset of menstruation. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 95 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

30. The rate of violent crimes committed by adolescents has been increasing dramatically since 1993. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The rate of violent crimes committed by adolescents has been decreasing. 31.

According to the National Youth Risk Behavior Survey, today's teenagers are more liberal than their parents were at their age. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Teenagers are more conservative than their parents were. 32. Extreme turmoil and unhappiness during adolescence are the exception, not the rule. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Studies of representative samples of adolescents find that only a small minority is seriously troubled, angry, or unhappy. Most teenagers have supportive families, a sense of purpose and self-confidence, good friends, and the skill to cope with their problems. 33.

Boys who are lonely and depressed are more likely than depressed girls to become withdrawn and internalize their problems. Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Boys are more likely to externalize their problems, whereas girls internalize them. 34. Erikson showed that development is an ongoing process. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 99 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

35.

Apparent senility in the elderly is often caused by harmful combinations of over-the-counter and prescription medicines. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 102 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 36. Weakness and frailty in the elderly is an inevitable part of old age. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 102 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Weakness, frailty, and even many of the diseases associated with old age are often caused by being inactive and sedentary. 37. The majority of the children of abusive or alcoholic parents do not become abusers themselves. Section: The Wellsprings of Resilience Page(s): 104 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Most children are resilient, eventually overcoming even the effects of war, childhood illness, having abusive or alcoholic parents, early deprivation, or being sexually molested.

38. Childhood trauma almost always has long lasting negative effects. Section: The Wellsprings of Resilience Page(s): 104 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Most children are resilient and recover from even severe childhood trauma.

Short Answer Questions 1.

The choices a pregnant woman makes can affect the health and life of her child. Name five harmful influences to a growing fetus. Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 74–75 Type: Factual Answer: Rubella, radiation and toxic chemicals, STDs, cigarette smoking, regular consumption of alcoholic beverages, and drugs other than alcohol are all harmful to a growing fetus. 2.

How did Margaret and Harry Harlow first demonstrate the importance of contact comfort in the formation of attachment relationships? Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 76 Type: Factual Answer: Raising infant rhesus monkeys with two kinds of artificial mothers: one was a wire frame that provided milk and the other was covered in terrycloth. The infant monkeys became attached to the terrycloth mothers, despite the fact that they did not provide milk. 3. What are the long-term effects of time spent in a day care setting on a child’s attachment? Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 78 Type: Factual Answer: Time spent in day care has no effect on the security of a child’s attachment. 4. What factors promote insecure attachment? Section: From Conception through the First Year Page(s): 78 Type: Factual Answer: Abuse, neglect, child’s own genetically influenced temperament, and stressful circumstances in the child’s family are all contributing factors. 5.

According to Noam Chomsky, the human brain contains an innate “mental module” that serves what special purpose? Section: Language Development Page(s): 81 Type: Factual Answer: Chomsky believed humans have a mental module that allows young children to develop language, given appropriate exposure. 6. Differentiate between the Piagetian concepts of assimilation and accommodation. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Conceptual Answer: Assimilation is when you fit new information into existing categories. Accommodation is when you modify or create mental categories to allow for new information. 7. Define the term “object permanence” and explain why the concept is significant in human development. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84 Type: Conceptual Answer: Object permanence refers to a child’s realization that objects still exist even when they are out of direct sensory contact with the child. For example, children eventually learn that toys are still “there” even when they are returned to the toy box. This development is significant because it signals an awareness of the physical state of the world. 8.

Define the term “conservation” and explain why the concept is significant in human development.

Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84–85 Type: Factual Answer: Conservation is the realization that the amount, mass, or quantity of an object stays the same, even though the form of the object may change. For example, 3 ounces of modeling clay is still 3 ounces of clay, regardless of whether it is rolled into a large ball or flattened into a thin sheet. This concept is significant because it signals an important shift in the way children perceive the world around them. 9.

What generalization can be made about the difference between how adolescent boys and girls respond to feelings of anger, depression, and loneliness? Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97 Type: Factual Answer: Boys are more likely than girls to externalize their emotional problems in acts of aggression and other antisocial behavior. Girls are more likely than boys to internalize their feelings by becoming withdrawn or developing eating disorders. 10. What are Erikson’s eight stages of psychological development? Section: Adulthood Page(s): 98–99 Type: Conceptual Answer: (1) Trust versus mistrust, (2) autonomy versus shame, (3) initiative versus guilt, (4) competence versus inferiority, (5) identity versus role confusion, (6) intimacy versus isolation, (7) generativity versus stagnation, and (8) ego integrity versus despair. 11.

What findings surprised researchers who studied adults who had suffered severe deprivations or parental abuse as children? Section: The Wellsprings of Resilience Page(s): 104 Type: Factual Answer: They were surprised by their resiliency—their ability to overcome their early problems and become normal and happy as adults.

Essay Questions 1.

What is meant by “parentese”? What seems to be its purpose? What have researchers discovered when they have observed parent-infant language throughout the world? Section: Language Development Page(s): 80 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Parentese refers to the baby talk typically spoken by adults to infants.  Pitch is higher and more varied, and intonation and emphasis on vowels are exaggerated.  Parentese helps babies learn the “melody” and rhythm of their native language.  Parentese is found all over the world in highly varied cultures. 2.

Dr. Savory asks a 3-year-old child whether one of these two rows of buttons has more:

  When she says that the two rows have the same number of buttons, Dr. Savory spreads out one row: 



Once again, he asks the child whether one of the rows has more. Then Dr. Savory repeats this task with her older sister, who is 8 years of age. Given your knowledge of Piaget’s theory, compare and contrast the likely responses of each child. Incorporate Piaget’s terms in your essay. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 84–85 Type: Applied Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The 3-year-old will think that the second row contains more buttons.  She has not yet acquired the concept of conservation and does not understand that physical properties of objects do not change when their appearance changes.  She is in the preoperational stage, according to Piaget.  The 8-year-old will know that both rows of buttons have the same number.  She is in the concrete operations stage and understands conservation. 3.

Explain the ways in which children can understand far more than Piaget gave them credit for. Include in your essay the research on babies’ responses to “impossible” and “possible” events. Section: Cognitive Development Page(s): 86 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Researchers have developed techniques to study younger, preverbal, children by taking advantage of the fact that they will look longer at novel or surprising stimuli than at familiar ones.  These studies suggest that infants may be born with “mental modules” for numbers, spatial relations of objects, and other features of the physical world.  For example, at only 4 months, infants will stare longer at a ball that seems to roll through a solid barrier, leap between two platforms, or hang in midair.  Infants as young as 2½ to 3½ months seem to be aware of object permanence. 4.

How typical is the behavior shown by a 15-year-old boy who stole a small private plane and crashed it into a building in January 2002? Are most teenagers angry and unhappy? What are the three kinds of problems that are more common during adolescence than they were in childhood or will be in adulthood? Section: Adolescence Page(s): 97 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Incidents such as a 15-year-old stealing a plane are sensationalized by the media, but are actually quite rare.  Studies show that most teenagers are happy, have a sense of purpose and self-confidence, have good friends, and have good coping skills.  A small minority are seriously troubled, angry, or unhappy.  Three kinds of problems, however, are more common during adolescence than during childhood or adulthood including: o conflict with parents, o mood swings and depression, and o higher rates of reckless, rule-breaking, and risky behavior. 5.

Describe the ways in which gerontologists have made great strides in separating conditions once thought to be an inevitable part of old age from those that are preventable or treatable. Section: Adulthood Page(s): 102 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Apparent senility may be caused by prescription medications, harmful combinations of medications, and even by over-the-counter drugs.  Depression and passivity may result from the loss of meaningful activity, intellectual stimulation, and control over events.

 6.

Weakness and frailty are often caused by being inactive and sedentary.

One of your friends claims that traumatic childhood experiences affect a person forever. What evidence can you produce to dispute this claim? Section: The Wellsprings of Resilience Page(s): 104 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Studies show that most children are remarkably resilient, eventually overcoming even the effects of war, serious childhood illness, abusive or alcoholic parents, early deprivation, or sexual molestation.  Psychologist Ann Masten observed that most people assume that the child who recovers from adversity is rare, but the surprise is that resilience is very common in children.

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 4 – Quick Quiz 1 1.

The myelin sheath a. is a fatty substance protecting the dendrites. b. helps to speed up neural messages within the cell. c. is found in all neurons. d. protects the cell's vesicles.

When a neural impulse reaches the end of an axon, it causes the tiny oval sacs at the end of the axon to release chemicals called a. neurotransmitters. c. stimulants. b. effectors. d. ions.

Which of the following neurotransmitters affects neurons involved in voluntary movement, learning, memory, emotion, and possibly, response to novelty? a. serotonin c. acetylcholine b. dopamine d. GABA

An EEG a. shows exactly what is happening in each brain region. b. reflects the activities of only a few cells at a time. c. shows different activity associated with sleep, relaxation, and mental concentration. d. is recorded by inserting needle electrodes into the brain.

The part of the brain at the top of the spinal cord is called the a. pleasure center. c. master gland. b. brain stem. d. thalamus.

Which structure is sometimes called the “gateway to memory”? a. amygdala c. hippocampus b. thalamus d. cerebrum

Which of the following lobes are involved in the ability to do a series of tasks in proper sequence and then to stop doing these tasks at the proper time? a. temporal lobes c. frontal lobes b. parietal lobes d. occipital lobes

10.

If Hiroshi’s brain is like that of most people, then language will be handled by his a. right hemisphere. c. hippocampus. b. occipital lobe. d. left hemisphere.

Chapter 4 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: The withdrawal reflex described here is an example of a spinal reflex. Spinal reflexes do not require the help of the brain, so they can occur very quickly. (Page 114, Applied)

Rationale: The sympathetic nervous system, like an accelerator, speeds up heart rate and respiration, while the parasympathetic nervous system, like a brake, slows them down. (Page 116, Conceptual)

Rationale: Myelin sheath is a fatty insulation that surrounds many axons. One of its functions is to speed up the conduction of neural impulses. (Page 118, Factual)

Rationale: Synaptic vesicles contain chemicals called neurotransmitters, substances that are released by a transmitting neuron at the synapse and that alter the activity of a receiving neuron. (Page 119, Factual)

Rationale: All of these functions are believed to be related to dopamine signaling in the brain. (Page 121, Factual)

Rationale: The EEG is used to study the brain waves associated with different states of consciousness such as sleep, relaxation, and mental concentration. A standard EEG is useful but not very precise because it reflects the activities of many cells at once. (Page 124, Conceptual)

Rationale: The brain stem is an older part of the brain located directly above the spinal cord. (Page 126, Factual)

Rationale: The hippocampus is involved in the initial stages of memory, especially for spatial information and for memories of facts and experiences. (Page 128, Factual)

Rationale: Soviet psychologist Alexander Luria (1980) studied many cases in which damage to the frontal lobes disrupted these abilities. (Page 131, Factual)

10.

Rationale: For most people, language is primarily a left hemisphere function. (Page 132, Applied)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 4 – Quick Quiz 2 1.

The central nervous system consists of the a. parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions. b. brain and the spinal cord. c. muscles and glands. d. sense organs and sensory neurons.

The autonomic nervous system has two divisions: a. central and peripheral. c. sympathetic and parasympathetic. b. receptors and effectors. d. limbic and endocrine.

The short fibers that extend from a neuron and allow it to receive messages from other neurons are a. axons. c. nerve bundles. b. dendrites. d. synapses.

Research by contemporary neuroscientists has shown that a. no new central nervous system cells are produced after infancy. b. exercise can regrow severed spinal-cord axons in animals. c. it is impossible to regrow spinal cord axons after damage. d. severed spinal-cord axons in an animal regrow if treated with certain nervous-system chemicals.

The primary effect of endorphins is to a. reduce pain but also reduce pleasure. b. heighten pain and reduce pleasure.

c. d.

flatten mood and emotional expression. reduce pain and promote pleasure.

Adrenal hormones are produced by glands a. that are in the testes. b. that are deep within the brain.

c. d.

that are right above the kidneys. that are in the ovaries.

Damage to the occipital lobes may result in difficulty with a. language comprehension. c. feeling pain and pressure. b. speech production. d. sight.

10.

Chapter 4 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: The central nervous system is usually conceptualized as having two components: the brain and the spinal cord. (Page 114, Factual)

Rationale: The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. These two parts work together, but in opposing ways, to adjust the body to changing circumstances. (Page 115, Factual)

Rationale: Dendrites are a neuron’s branches that receive information from other neurons and transmit it toward the cell body. (Page 117, Factual)

Rationale: In research labs, it has been shown that severed spinal-cord axons may regrow in animals when treated with certain nervous-system chemicals. (Page 118, Conceptual)

Rationale: Plasticity refers to the flexibility of the brain resulting from the establishment or loss of synapses throughout life. (Page 120, Conceptual)

Rationale: Like opiate drugs, endorphins are involved in decreasing pain and increasing a sense of pleasure or euphoria. (Page 122, Factual)

Rationale: The adrenal glands, located immediately above the kidneys, release hormones that are involved in the stress response, including the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. (Page 123, Factual)

Rationale: The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination, posture, and balance. (Page 127, Applied)

Rationale: Visual signals are processed in the visual cortex. (Page 129, Conceptual)

10.

Rationale: Gazzaniga believes that our conscious sense of a unified self is an illusion created by this “interpreter.” (Page 135, Factual)

Chapter 4 – Neurons, Hormones, and the Brain Multiple Choice Questions THE NERVOUS SYSTEM: A BASIC BLUEPRINT Learning Objectives 4.1 Why you automatically pull your hand away from something hot, without thinking 4.2 The major parts of the nervous system and their primary functions The function of _______________ is to gather and process information, produce responses to stimuli, and coordinate the workings of different cells. a. a cell body b. a synapse c. a nervous system d. endorphins Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Nervous systems are specialized to receive information from the environment and from the body, analyze that information, and then command the body to make appropriate responses. 1.

The nervous system is divided into two main parts: a. the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. b. the brain and the spinal cord. c. the neuron and the nerve. d. the brain and the nerves. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The two divisions of the nervous system are the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. 3.

The central nervous system consists of the a. parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions. b. brain and the spinal cord. c. muscles and glands. d. sense organs and sensory neurons. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The central nervous system is usually conceptualized as having two components: the brain and the spinal cord. % correct 94 a= 4 b= 94 c= 1 d= 1 r = .25 4.

Molly smells chocolate chip cookies baking in the oven and is immediately reminded of her grandmother’s house. Her perception of smell and its association to her grandmother’s house are processed in the a. peripheral nervous system. b. spinal reflexes. c. skeletal nervous system. d. central nervous system. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The central nervous system receives, processes, interprets, and stores incoming sensory information. 5.

The _______________ receives, processes, interprets, and stores incoming sensory information and also sends out messages destined for muscles, glands, and internal organs.

a. autonomic nervous system b. central nervous system c. endocrine system d. action potential Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The function of the central nervous system as a whole is to receive and analyze information, store information for later use, determine appropriate responses, and send out commands to enact those responses. 6.

An important role of the spinal cord is a. processing and storing incoming sensory information. b. producing responses to complex stimuli. c. monitoring the activity of the internal organs. d. producing automatic spinal reflexes. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: One function of the spinal cord is control of basic reflexes. The other functions listed are the responsibility of the brain. 7.

A collection of neurons and supportive tissue running from the base of the brain down the center of the back, protected by a column of bones is called the a. spinal cord. b. cerebellum. c. somatic nervous system. d. amygdala. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The spinal cord is located within the vertebral column. 8.

Cameron touches a hot iron and immediately pulls his hand away. His quick response occurs because a. spinal reflexes are automatic, requiring no conscious effort. b. the brain has registered that pain is occurring and responds quickly. c. his glands have secreted chemical messengers called hormones. d. pain information is sent to the brain faster than other sensory information. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The withdrawal reflex described here is an example of a spinal reflex. Spinal reflexes do not require the help of the brain, so they can occur very quickly. Reflexes above the neck, such as sneezing and blinking, involve the _______________, and reflexes below the neck, such as pulling a hand away from a hot stove, involve the _______________. a. spinal cord; cranial nerves b. sensory nerves; lower part of the brain c. lower part of the brain; spinal cord d. cranial nerves; precursor cells Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Reflexes in the head are controlled by the brain stem, while the spinal cord controls reflexes in the rest of the body. 9.

10.

Shannon blinks as she steps off the school bus and walks into a gust of wind. This automatic reaction is regulated by the a. spinal cord. b. lower part of her brain. c. surge of her adrenal hormones.

d. localization of function in her frontal lobes. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Reflexes that occur above the neck are controlled by the lower parts of the brain. 11.

All nerve cells and fibers that are NOT in the brain or spinal cord make up the __________ nervous system. a. central b. peripheral c. autonomic d. sympathetic Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The peripheral nervous system (PNS) handles the central nervous system’s input and output. It contains all portions of the nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord, right down to the nerves in the tips of the fingers and toes. % correct 76 a= 9 b= 76 c= 10 d= 6 r = .48 12.

The autonomic and somatic nervous systems are divisions of the _______ system. a. central b. parasympathetic c. peripheral d. sympathetic Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The peripheral nervous system can be divided into two parts: the somatic (bodily) nervous system and the autonomic (self-governing) nervous system. % correct 63 a= 22 b= 5 c= 63 d= 10 r = .28 13.

The input and output for the brain is handled by a. the peripheral nervous system. b. the spinal column. c. the sympathetic nervous system. d. the central nervous system. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The peripheral nervous system consists of the sensory nerves carrying information into the brain, the motor nerves carrying commands to skeletal muscles and glands, and the autonomic nerves carrying information to and from the internal organs.

% correct 97

a= 97 b= 0 c= 0 d= 3

r = .25

14.

A young woman returns from a day at the beach to find she has developed a severe sunburn. Which neurons are sending the messages from her burned skin to her brain informing her of the pain from the burn? a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. synaptic neurons d. association neurons Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Sensory nerves carry messages from special receptors in the skin, muscles, and other internal and external sense organs to the spinal cord, which sends them along to the brain. % correct 88 a= 88 b= 2 c= 7 d= 3 r = .24 15.

In the peripheral nervous system, _______________ carry messages from special receptors in the skin, muscles, and other internal and external sense organs to the spinal cord, which sends them along to the brain.

a. spinal reflexes b. motor nerves c. cranial reflexes d. sensory nerves Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Sensory nerves carry information from sense organs to the spinal cord and brain. In the peripheral nervous system, _______________ carry orders from the central nervous system to muscles and glands. a. spinal reflexes b. motor nerves c. cranial reflexes d. sensory nerves Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Motor nerves carry commands from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles and glands. 16.

17.

The subdivision of the peripheral nervous system that connects to sensory receptors and to skeletal muscles is called the a. sympathetic nervous system. b. parasympathetic nervous system. c. somatic nervous system. d. central nervous system. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The somatic nervous system carries sensory information to the central nervous system and motor commands to skeletal muscles. 18.

Another name for the somatic nervous system is the a. sympathetic nervous system. b. parasympathetic nervous system. c. central nervous system. d. skeletal nervous system. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The somatic nervous system is also called the skeletal nervous system.

Page(s): 115 Answer: d

19.

The somatic nervous system is activated when you a. turn off a light or write your name. b. begin taking an exam and your hands perspire. c. begin to relax after a tense experience. d. cry as a result of peeling an onion. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The somatic nervous system consists of nerves that are connected to sensory receptors and to skeletal muscles that permit voluntary action. 20.

Skeletal muscles and sensory organs are connected to the brain and spinal cord by a. the autonomic nervous system. b. the sympathetic nervous system. c. the parasympathetic nervous system. d. the somatic nervous system. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate

Page(s): 115 Answer: d

Rationale: The somatic nervous system carries sensory information to the brain and motor commands to skeletal muscles. 21.

On a hike through the hills, Tim feels a bug crawling up his leg under his pants. Which system is necessary for Tim to be aware of the bug? a. sympathetic nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. autonomic Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Sensory information from the skin is carried to the spinal cord by sensory nerves, a part of the somatic nervous system. 22.

As she walks out of the living room, Gloriann turns out the light. Which system is necessary for Gloriann to perform this action? a. sympathetic nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. autonomic nervous system d. somatic nervous system Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The motor nerves, controlling skeletal muscles, are part of the somatic nervous system. 23.

The autonomic nervous system has two divisions: a. central and peripheral. b. receptors and effectors. c. sympathetic and parasympathetic. d. limbic and endocrine. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. These two parts work together, but in opposing ways, to adjust the body to changing circumstances. % correct 79 a= 9 b= 5 c= 79 d= 7 r = .36 24.

The branch of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for quick action in an emergency is the __________ division. a. central b. secondary c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115– 116 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system acts like the accelerator of a car, mobilizing the body for action and an output of energy. When you are in a situation that requires you to fight, flee, or cope, the sympathetic nervous system whirls into action. % correct 73 a= 1 b= 7 c=73 d= 19 r = .34 25.

April spots the boy that she has a crush on sitting by his friends. Her heart begins to pound, her hands get sweaty and her cheeks feel hot. April’s _______________ has/have been activated. a. autonomic nervous system b. somatic nervous system c. spinal reflexes

d. skeletal nervous system Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115–116 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The sympathetic nervous system, part of the autonomic nervous system, controls arousal. 26.

The deer waits motionlessly, hidden in the thicket as the band of hunters approach. As they get closer, their dogs bark, picking up the scent of their prey. In a futile effort to escape, the deer bolts. Which of the following most accurately describes the nervous system of the hunted deer at this point? a. Its sympathetic nerve fibers are more active than its parasympathetic nerve fibers. b. Its parasympathetic nerve fibers are more active than its sympathetic nerve fibers. c. Both its sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers are equally active. d. Neither its sympathetic nor its parasympathetic nerve fibers are aroused. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 116 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When you are in a situation that requires you to fight, flee, or cope, the sympathetic nervous system whirls into action. The parasympathetic system slows the body down to conserve energy. % correct 77 a= 77 b= 13 c= 10 d= 0 r = .37 27.

It's midnight, and you are alone in your room studying. You hear a loud crash outside your room, and your whole body reacts instantly and furiously. The system that produces these reactions is the ________ system. a. central nervous b. sympathetic nervous c. parasympathetic nervous d. endocrine Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 116 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When you are in a situation that requires you to fight, flee, or cope, the sympathetic nervous system whirls into action. 28.

As Bridget is walking across campus, a bicyclist swerves toward her. Her heart races and sweat breaks out as she jumps out of harm’s way. Soon, Bridget’s heart rate begins to decrease and return to a regular rhythm. This calming reaction is due to the action of Bridget’s a. somatic nervous system. b. skeletal nervous system. c. parasympathetic nervous system. d. sympathetic nervous system. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 116 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The parasympathetic nervous system slows down heart rate and other functions following sympathetic arousal. 29.

The sympathetic nervous system acts like the _______________ of a car, whereas the parasympathetic nervous system acts more like a(n) _______________. a. spark plug; accelerator b. accelerator; brake c. radiator; spark plug d. brake; radiator Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 116 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The sympathetic nervous system, like an accelerator, speeds up heart rate and respiration, while the parasympathetic nervous system, like a brake, slows them down. 30.

Calm is to aroused as _______ is to _______. a. parasympathetic; sympathetic b. autonomic; motor

c. sympathetic; parasympathetic d. central; peripheral Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 116 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When you are in a situation that requires you to fight, flee, or cope, the sympathetic nervous system whirls into action. The parasympathetic system slows the body down to conserve energy. % correct 77 a= 77 b= 3 c= 21 d= 0 r = .31 31.

When your sympathetic nervous system is activated, you a. tend to calm down. b. begin to digest your food. c. mobilize bodily resources to either fight or flee from danger. d. begin to produce large amounts of saliva. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 116 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The sympathetic nervous system mobilizes bodily resources and increases the output of energy during emotion and stress. 32

When your parasympathetic nervous system is activated, your a. blood pressure increases. b. body conserves energy. c. body prepares for fighting. d. your body prepares to flee. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The parasympathetic nervous system conserves energy.

Page(s): 116 Answer: b

COMMUNICATION IN THE NERVOUS SYSTEM Learning Objectives 4.3 Which cells function as the nervous system’s communication specialists, and how they talk to each other 4.4 The functions of glial cells, the most numerous cells in the brain 4.5 Why researchers are excited about the discovery of stem cells in the brain 4.6 How learning and experience alter the brain’s circuits 4.7 What happens when levels of neurotransmitters are too low or too high 4.8 Which brain chemicals mimic the effects of morphine by dulling pain and promoting pleasure 4.9 Which hormones are of special interest to psychologists, and why 33.

Neurons are a. cells in the brain that are believed to help clean and feed brain cells. b. cells that send and receive information. c. bundles of nerves. d. chemical transmitters found in the hypothalamus. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Neurons are the brain’s communication specialists, transmitting information to, from, and within the central nervous system. % correct 96 a= 0 b= 96 c= 3 d= 1 r = .44 34.

A cell that conducts electrochemical signals and is the basic unit of the nervous system is called a a. glial cell.

b. neuron. c. cell body. d. myelin sheath. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The individual nerve cell or neuron is the basic unit of nervous system function communicating with other cells with electrochemical signals. 35.

Another name for neuron is a. glial cell. b. precursor cell. c. nerve cell. d. neurotransmitter. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Neurons are also known as nerve cells.

Page(s): 117 Answer: c

36.

The name “glial” comes from the Greek word for “glue.” It is an appropriate name because one function of glial cells is to a. hold together dendrites and axons. b. hold neurons in place. c. fuse neurotransmitters to receptor sites. d. fuse sodium ions to potassium ions. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: One of the functions of glial cells is to hold neurons in place. Glial cells make up _______________ of the brain’s cells. a. 10 percent b. 25 percent c. 75 percent d. 90 percent Section: Communication in the Nervous System Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: According to the text, glial cells make up about 90 percent of the brain’s cells. 37.

Page(s): 117 Answer: d

38.

Although neurons are often called the building blocks of the nervous system, in structure they are more like _______________ than blocks. a. snowflakes b. evergreen needles c. pebbles d. branches of a tree Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Neurons are very fragile and each one is unique. 39. There are approximately _________ neurons in the brain of an average human being. a. 100 thousand b. 100 million c. 100 billion d. 100 trillion Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: No one is sure how many neurons the human brain contains, but a typical estimate is 100 billion. % correct 76 a= 0 b= 4 c= 76 d= 19 r = .30

40. Dr. Chapin has just finished a delicate brain operation. He turns to a group of interns and says, "She probably lost about 1,000 ___________, but since she still has over 100 billion left, she should recover nicely." Dr. Chapin was most likely referring to a. parts of the brain. b. neurons. c. pituitary glands. d. speech and language areas. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: No one is sure how many neurons the human brain contains, but a typical estimate is 100 billion. % correct 98 a= 1 b= 98 c= 1 d= 0 r = .21 The _______________ looks like the branches of a tree; in fact, the meaning of this word in Greek is “little tree.” a. axon b. myelin sheath c. dendrite d. glial cell Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The dendrites have many branches like a tree. 41.

42.

The short fibers that extend from the neurons and allow it to receive messages from other neurons are a. axons. b. dendrites. c. nerve bundles. d. synapses. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Dendrites are a neuron’s branches that receive information from other neurons and transmit it toward the cell body. % correct 79 a= 19 b= 79 c= 1 d= 1 r = .38 43.

Which part of the neuron contains the biochemical machinery for keeping the cell alive? a. cell body b. dendrite c. axon d. glia Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The cell body contains the biochemical machinery for keeping the cell alive and decides whether or not the neuron should “fire.” 44.

Which part of the neuron acts like an antenna to receive messages from other neurons? a. cell body b. dendrite c. axon d. glia Section: Communication in the Nervous System Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: The dendrites receive information from other neurons.

% correct 73 45.

a= 6 b= 73 c= 20 d= 0

Page(s): 117 Answer: b

r = .29

Which of the following transmit messages away from the cell body to neurons, muscles, or gland cells?

a. axons b. myelin sheaths c. dendrites d. glial cells Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117–118 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The axons transmit information to other neurons, to skeletal muscle, and to gland cells.

% correct 83

a= 83 b= 0 c= 17 d= 0

r = .25

If neuronal communication were compared to radio, the _______________ would be the transmitter at the radio station and the _______________ would be the antenna on your car. a. cell bodies; axons b. dendrites; myelin sheaths c. myelin sheaths; cell bodies d. axons; dendrites Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117–118 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Axons send messages to other neurons, while dendrites receive or messages. 46.

The _______________ looks like a string of link sausages. a. cell body b. myelin sheath c. dendrite d. glial cell Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Myelin occurs in segments on the axon and looks somewhat like a string of sausages. 47.

48.

The myelin sheath a. is a fatty substance protecting the dendrites. b. helps to speed up neural messages within the cell. c. is found in all neurons. d. protects the cell's vesicles. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Myelin sheath is a fatty insulation that surrounds many axons. One of its functions is to speed up the conduction of neural impulses. % correct 82 a= 15 b= 82 c= 1 d= 3 r = .36 49.

What is the name for the insulation covering many neurons? a. myelin sheath b. glial cell c. nodes d. sclerosis Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The myelin sheath, produced by glial cells, insulates axons and increases the speed of neural conduction.

% correct 70 a= 70 b= 20 c= 3 d= 7 50.

r = .35

One purpose of the _______________ is to prevent signals in adjacent cells from interfering with each other. a. cell body b. myelin sheath c. dendrite

d. action potential Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The myelin sheath insulates axons and prevents signals in adjacent cells from interfering with each other. It also speeds up neuronal communication. 51.

Kalika is told by her physician that her symptoms are caused by a loss of myelin. Her diagnosis would most likely be a. Parkinson’s disease. b. multiple sclerosis. c. early stage Alzheimer’s disease. d. epilepsy. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: In individuals with multiple sclerosis, loss of myelin causes erratic nerve signals, leading to loss of sensation, weakness or paralysis, lack of coordination, or vision problems. 52.

A nerve is typically a bundle of a. cell bodies. b. glial cells. c. axons. d. neurofibrils. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: A nerve is a bundle of axons—or occasionally dendrites—in the peripheral nervous system. The human body has____ pairs of peripheral nerves. Most of these nerves enter or leave the spinal cord, except for _____ pairs that connect directly to the brain. a. 43; 12 b. 500; 10 c. 31; 5 d. 137; 2 Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves, for a total of 43 peripheral nerves. 53.

54.

Research by contemporary neuroscientists has shown that a. no new central nervous system cells are produced after infancy. b. exercise can regrow severed spinal cord axons to in an animals. c. it is impossible to regrow spinal cord axons after damage. d. severed spinal cord axons in an animal regrow if treated with certain nervous system chemicals. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: In research labs, it has been shown that severed spinal cord axons may regrow in animals when treated with certain nervous system chemicals. 55.

The process of neurogenesis occurs when a. glial cells convert themselves to neurons. b. neurons divide to create two new neurons. c. immature stem cells give birth to new neurons. d. stress increases the production of new cells in order to facilitate adaptation to the stressor. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c

Rationale: Neurogenesis refers to the production of new neurons from stem cells. It occurring development, but has also been demonstrated to occur in the adult brain. 56.

Stem cells that are involved in learning and memory seem to divide and mature a. throughout the first 2 years of life. b. until the age of 7 years. c. until the age of 12 years. d. throughout the life span. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Research suggests that stem cells may divide and mature throughout the lifespan. Neuroscientists have found that _______________ can inhibit the process of neurogenesis. a. enriched environments b. stress c. physical exercise d. effortful mental activity Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Stress can block or inhibit neurogenesis. 57.

58.

Which of the following statements is true? a. Injured or damaged neurons in the central nervous system can never regenerate. b. No new neurons are produced in the central nervous system after infancy. c. Neurogenesis occurs in the spinal cord but not in the brain. d. Recent research suggests that stem cells in the brain may be able to generate new neurons throughout life. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Research suggests that stem cells in the brain may divide and mature throughout the lifespan. 59.

A long structure leaving the cell body that action potential travel along is called the a. cell membrane. b. dendrite. c. axon. d. myelin sheath. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117–119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Axons are the part of a neuron that conduct electrical impulses away from the cell body called action potentials. % correct 70 a= 3 b= 16 c= 70 d= 11 r = .38 60.

The site where a nerve impulse is transmitted from one nerve cell to another is called the a. action potential. b. myelinated axon. c. precursor cell. d. synapse. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The synapse is the site where transmission of a nerve impulse from one nerve cell to another occurs; it includes the axon terminal, the synaptic cleft, and receptor sites in the membrane of the receiving cell.

% correct 90 61.

a= 7 b= 0 c= 3 d= 90

r = .28

The small gap between adjacent neurons is the

a. glia. b. myelin sheath. c. synaptic cleft. d. terminal. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Neurons do not directly touch each other, end to end. Instead, they are separated by a minuscule space called the synaptic cleft, where the axon terminal of one neuron nearly touches a dendrite or the cell body of another. % correct 83 a= 2 b= 6 c= 83 d= 9 r = .20 62.

When neurons communicate a. they do so in an electrical and chemical language. b. they do so by touching one another, end to end. c. they do so when an electrical potential “hops” between two cells. d. they do so through a chemical neurotransmitter that travels down the axon. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: When an action potential reaches the end of the axon terminal, it causes the release of neurotransmitter. The action potential, itself, does not cross the synapse.

% correct 83

a= 93 b= 0 c= 0 d= 3

r = .33

63.

A nerve impulse from one neuron affects the activity of a neighboring neuron at a point of interaction called the a. corpuscle. b. synapse. c. transmission cleft. d. neuronal junction. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The synapse is the site where transmission of a signal from one nerve cell to another occurs. % correct 80 a= 5 b= 80 c= 6 d= 8 r = .24 64.

What is a synapse? a. the site where a “message” is transmitted from one nerve cell to another b. a chemical substance that is released by a transmitting neuron c. a fatty coating that speeds up the conduction of neural impulses d. the part of the neuron that keeps it alive Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: A synapse is the site where a signal is transmitted from one nerve cell to another. 65.

A synapse is most important in a. separating the medulla from the hindbrain. b. regulating the parasympathetic nervous system. c. the process of transmitting messages between neurons. d. connecting the basal ganglia. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The synapse is the site where transmission of a signal from one nerve cell to another occurs. % correct 96 a= 2 b= 2 c= 96 d= 0 r = .37 66.

Action potentials result from a. an inflow of both potassium and sodium ions. b. an outflow of both potassium and sodium ions. c. an inflow of potassium followed by an outflow of sodium.

d. an inflow of sodium followed by an outflow of potassium. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Action potentials result from an influx of sodium ions followed by an efflux of potassium ions. 67.

Neural messages travel faster on axons that a. are polarized. b. are not exposed to acetylcholine (ACh). c. are located in the hypothalamus. d. have a myelin sheath. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The myelin sheath allows the impulse to travel faster than it could if the action potential had to be regenerated at every point along the axon. % correct 88 a= 6 b= 2 c= 5 d= 88 r = .35 68.

Nerve impulses travel more slowly in babies than in older children and adults because a. the infant does not have as many synaptic connections. b. dendrites have not yet developed spines in infants. c. axons are much shorter in infants. d. the myelin sheaths on axons are not yet fully developed in infants. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Myelin increases the speed of conduction of the action potential in the axon and infants do not yet have much myelin. 69.

When a neural impulse reaches the end of an axon, it causes the tiny oval sacs at the end of the axon to release chemicals called a. effectors. b. neurotransmitters. c. stimulants. d. ions. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Synaptic vesicles contain chemicals called neurotransmitters, substances that are released by a transmitting neuron at the synapse and that alter the activity of a receiving neuron. % correct 95 a= 3 b= 95 c= 0 d= 2 r = .27 70.

The neural impulse traveling down the axon is _______; it gets across the synapse by _______. a. electrical; remaining electrical but changing from positively charged to negatively charged b. electrical; remaining electrical but changing from negatively charged to positively charged c. electrical; being changed into a chemical message d. chemical; being changed into an electrical message Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Electrical impulses (action potentials) travel down the axon until they reach the synapse. At this point, the signal is carried across the synapse by chemicals called neurotransmitters. % correct 50 a= 13 b= 22 c= 50 d= 13 r = .37 71.

In order to prepare for her psychology test, Jendaya writes key points on index cards in order to quiz herself on neuronal communication. Which of the following would be found on one of her study cards? a. A neuron’s axon has only one axon terminal. b. Once a synapse forms, it will only be lost if one of the neurons dies. c. Nerve impulses travel more quickly in babies than in older children because with age comes neuronal degeneration.

When a nerve cell is stimulated, a change in electrical potential occurs between the inside and the outside of the cell. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: When a nerve cell is stimulated, a change in electrical potential occurs between the inside and the outside of the cell. This can lead to an action potential. 72.

Receptor sites receive a. neurotransmitters. b. synaptic vesicles. c. action potentials. d. ions. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Receptor sites are special places on the membrane of dendrites where neurotransmitters can attach. 73.

A neurotransmitter binds to a receptor site and the ultimate effect is a voltage shift in a negative direction. When this occurs a. the probability that the neurons are densely connected decreases. b. the probability that the receiving neuron will fire decreases. c. the probability of an excitatory response increases. d. the probability that the receiving neuron will fire increases. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: A negative voltage shift in the membrane of the receiving neuron is inhibitory and decreases the probability that an action potential will occur. 74.

When a neurotransmitter molecule binds briefly with a receptor site, changes occur in the receiving neuron’s membrane. If there is a voltage shift in a positive direction then the effect is a. a decreased probability that the receiving neuron will fire. b. an excitatory effect. c. an inhibitory effect. d. to prevent an action potential from occurring. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: A positive voltage shift in the membrane of the receiving neuron is excitatory and increases the probability that an action potential will occur. 75.

The process by which a neuron gets its message across the synaptic cleft to another cell is best likened to a. sailors carrying a message from one island to another. b. fire traveling along the fuse of a firecracker. c. dead tree limbs being pruned from a tree. d. the brief change in electrical voltage when a hair dryer is turned on. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The axon terminal does not touch the receiving neuron at the synapse. Instead it releases a neurotransmitter that carries the message across the synaptic cleft. 76.

The function of neurotransmitters is to a. bind to receptor sites of other neurons so that neurons can communicate. b. demyelinate axons of other neurons, slowing down neural transmission. c. create new dendrites in other neurons through the process of plasticity. d. regenerate damaged axons through the process of the action potential. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate

Page(s): 119 Answer: a

Rationale: Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that bind to receptor sites of other neurons so that neurons can communicate. 77.

Which of the following is true about synapses? a. Each axon has a single axon terminal. b. A single neuron may receive input from many neurons. c. Once a synaptic connection is formed, it will not be lost unless the neuron itself dies. d. The network of synaptic connections can change throughout childhood, but stops changing at adolescence. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119–120 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Because a neuron’s axon may have hundreds or even thousands of terminals, a single neuron may have synaptic connections with a great many others. 78.

Research on neurotransmitters has shown that a. they exist only in the brain. b. harmful effects can occur at too high or too low levels. c. there are five known and ten suspected neurotransmitters. d. acetylcholine functions as a major inhibitory neurotransmitter. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Excesses or deficiencies of a neurotransmitter can cause mental and physical disorders. 79.

Throughout life, axons and dendrites continue to grow, and tiny projections on dendrites, called _______________ increase in size and number. a. spines b. axon terminals c. precursor cells d. stem cells Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 120 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Dendritic spines can develop throughout the lifespan. 80.

_______________ describes the brain’s ability to retain flexibility in adapting to new experiences. a. Programmability b. Plasticity c. Stability d. Vulnerability Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 120 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Plasticity is the brain’s ability to change and adapt in response to experience, by reorganizing or growing new neural connections. 81.

The phrase “the plastic brain” refers to the fact that a. synaptic connections can change throughout life. b. neurons have a myelin sheath, similar to a plastic shell, that surrounds them. c. axons, like soft plastic, are flexible and can bend around obstacles to make synaptic connections. d. people can compensate for brain damage by learning new ways to do things. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 120 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Plasticity refers to the flexibility of the brain resulting from the establishment or loss of synapses throughout life. 82.

“Pruning” refers to a. the addition of new synaptic connections that occurs in childhood.

b. a loss of dendrites and synaptic connections that occurs only in certain degenerative diseases. c. the death of neurons that results when synaptic connections are lost. d. a loss of unused synaptic connections that results in a more efficient neural network. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 120 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Unused dendritic branches and synaptic connections disappear resulting in more efficient neural networks. 83.

Daphne is unable to recall simple words the day after her stroke, but within a matter of months she is speaking normally again. This is likely due in part to a. sodium ions. b. myelination. c. plasticity. d. synaptic vesicles. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 120 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Plasticity means that the brain can form new connections to aid recovery following injury. 84.

Which of the following neurotransmitters affects neurons involved in voluntary movement, learning, memory, emotion, and possibly, response to novelty? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. GABA Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: All of these functions are believed to be related to dopamine signaling in the brain.

% correct 53

a= 17 b= 53 c= 17 d= 13

r = .23

85.

Which of the following neurotransmitters affects neurons involved in sleep, appetite, sensory perception, temperature regulation, pain suppression, and mood? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. norepinephrine Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Serotonin is involved in many systems in the brain and has effects on sleep, appetite, perception, temperature regulation, pain, and mood. 86.

Claire was recently diagnosed with an eating disorder. Her psychiatrist was not surprised when she found that Claire had abnormal levels of a. acetylcholine. b. dopamine. c. acetylcholine. d. GABA. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Abnormal GABA levels have been implicated in sleep and eating disorders. 87.

Which of the following neurotransmitters affects neurons involved in the increased heart rate and the slowing of intestinal activity during stress? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. norepinephrine

Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released by the sympathetic nervous system that causes increased heart rate and slowed digestive processes. 88.

Elizabeth was driving on the freeway when a car passed abruptly in front of her and almost hit her vehicle. As a result of the stress produced by this incident, her heart rate increased and she felt “on edge.” Which of the following neurotransmitters is likely responsible for Elizabeth’s response? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. GABA d. norepinephrine Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Norepinephrine affects neurons involved in increased heart rate and the slowing of intestinal activity during stress. 89.

Which of the following neurotransmitters affects neurons involved in learning, dreaming, and waking from sleep? a. serotonin b. GABA c. acetylcholine d. norepinephrine Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: In the brain, norepinephrine is involved in learning, dreaming, and waking from sleep. 90.

Which of the following neurotransmitters functions as the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain? a. serotonin b. GABA c. acetylcholine d. norepinephrine Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: GABA is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. 91.

Which of the following neurotransmitters affects neurons involved in muscle action and cognitive functioning? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. GABA Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: In the peripheral nervous system acetylcholine causes skeletal muscles to contract, while in the brain it is involved in cognitive functions such as memory. 92.

Dopamine affects a. voluntary movements. b. increased heart rate during stress. c. slowing of intestinal activity during stress. d. awakening from sleep. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: Dopamine in the brain is involved in the regulation of voluntary movement.

Page(s): 121 Answer: a

93.

Glutamate functions as a. the major neurotransmitter involved in voluntary movements. b. the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. c. the neurotransmitter responsible for the slowing of intestinal activity during stress. d. the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: Glutamate is the most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain.

Page(s): 121 Answer: d

94.

The memory loss of people with Alzheimer’s disease results, in part, from a loss of brain cells that produce a. acetylcholine. b. dopamine. c. serotonin. d. GABA. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Acetylcholine in the brain is involved in cognitive functions such as memory, so loss of neurons producing acetylcholine can cause memory problems. In Parkinson’s disease, a loss of cells that produce _______________ is responsible for tremors and muscle rigidity. a. acetylcholine b. dopamine c. serotonin d. GABA Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: In Parkinson’s disease, cells in the midbrain that produce dopamine degenerate, causing problems with motor control. 95.

96.

Actor Michael J. Fox left his hit show Spin City because he had Parkinson’s disease and wanted to spend more time with his family. His disorder is caused by a. a loss of dopamine. b. a loss of acetylcholine. c. overproduction of dopamine. d. overproduction of acetylcholine. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: In Parkinson’s disease, cells in the midbrain that produce dopamine degenerate, causing problems with motor control. 97.

Julia sells St, John’s wort in her health food store. Her customers purchase this item in order to relieve a. convulsive disorders. b. schizophrenia. c. high blood pressure. d. depression. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: St. John’s wort is an herbal remedy thought by some to help in the treatment of depression. 98.

Many recreational drugs produce their effects by a. blocking or enhancing the actions of neurotransmitters. b. causing GABA neurons to die. c. causing glial cells to produce excess myelin. d. blocking glial cells from producing myelin.

Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Most psychoactive drugs, including recreational drugs, act by increasing or decreasing activity at the synapse. 99.

Chemical substances in the nervous system that are similar in structure and in action to opiates are a. hormones. b. endorphins. c. gamma-aminobutyric acids. d. endocrines. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Endorphins are produced in the nervous system and are similar in structure and effect to the opiate drugs. 100.

The primary effect of endorphins is to a. reduce pain but also reduce pleasure. b. heighten pain and reduce pleasure. c. flatten mood and emotional expression. d. reduce pain and promote pleasure. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Like opiate drugs, endorphins are involved in decreasing pain and increasing a sense of pleasure or euphoria. 101.

According to your textbook, endorphins play a role in a. the experience of phantom limb pain. b. the destruction of glial cells that normally make myelin. c. the appetite, sexual activity, and blood pressure of individuals. d. the loss of brain cells responsible for the production of acetylcholine. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Endorphins reduce pain and promote pleasure; they also play a role in appetite, sexual activity, blood pressure, mood, learning, and memory. 102.

Endorphins give a species an evolutionary advantage because a. they increase aggressive behavior. b. they increase the crying of infants, which brings parents closer. c. they make pain bearable so the pain doesn’t interfere with action. d. they regulate a “biological clock” in the brain. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Endorphins give animals an adaptive advantage by making pain bearable when an organism is in danger or threatened. 103.

Jackie is a cross-country runner, who regularly experiences a “runner’s high,” which she describes as “a pleasurable sensation that makes the pain bearable.” What bodily event creates this experience for Jackie? a. Her GABA levels decrease. b. Acetylcholine is released. c. Her hormones stabilize her body’s metabolism. d. Her endorphin levels increase. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Endorphins have effects similar to those of natural opiates; that is, they reduce pain and promote pleasure.

104. The glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream are called a. lymph glands . b. exocrine glands. c. hippocampal glands. d. endocrine glands. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Hormones are produced primarily in endocrine glands. They are released directly into the bloodstream, which carries them to organs and cells that may be far from their point of origin. % correct 77 a= 6 b= 10 c= 7 d= 77 r = .31 105.

Chemical substances released by the endocrine glands to help regulate bodily functions are a. enzymes. b. neurotransmitters. c. antigens. d. hormones. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Hormones are produced primarily in endocrine glands. They are released directly into the bloodstream, which carries them to organs and cells that may be far from their point of origin. % correct 63 a= 14 b= 18 c= 4 d= 63 r = .51 106.

Caryn is making a chart to serve as a study aid for her upcoming psychology quiz. She makes a list of different types of nervous system chemicals and their functions. She writes that the general function of hormones is to a. enable neurons to excite or inhibit each other. b. modulate the effects of neurotransmitters. c. affect the functioning of target organs and tissue. d. reduce pain and promote pleasure. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The effect of hormones is to regulate the internal organs. 107.

Which of the following can act as a hormone in the human body? a. GABA b. epinephrine c. dopamine d. serotonin Section: Communication in the Nervous System Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: Epinephrine (commonly known as adrenaline) is an adrenal hormone. Melatonin plays a role in a. the stress response. b. response to injury and pain. c. regulation of daily biological rhythms. d. regulation of blood sugar. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: Melatonin helps to regulate daily biological rhythms and promotes sleep.

Page(s): 123 Answer: b

108.

109.

Melatonin is secreted by the a. gonads. b. adrenal glands. c. pineal gland. d. corpus callosum.

Page(s): 123 Answer: c

Section: Communication in the Nervous System Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland deep within the brain.

Page(s): 123 Answer: c

110.

Jeff is writing a term paper on the role of melatonin. He decides to emphasize the important role that this hormone plays in regard to a. daily biological rhythms and sleep. b. the response to drugs, such as caffeine and nicotine. c. the response to fight or flight situations. d. physical changes in girls at puberty. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Melatonin is a hormone released by the pineal gland, which plays a role in regulating daily biological rhythms and promotes sleep. 111.

Adrenal hormones are produced by glands a. that are in the testes. b. that are deep within the brain. c. that are right above the kidneys. d. that are in the ovaries. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The adrenal glands, located immediately above the kidneys, release hormones that are involved in the stress response, including the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. 112.

Adrenal hormones are most closely associated with a. sleep. b. emotion and stress. c. parasympathetic nervous system arousal. d. the cooling off period after intense arousal. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The adrenal glands, located immediately above the kidneys, release hormones that are involved in the stress response and sympathetic arousal. 113.

Despite common belief, research suggests that sex hormones do not a. trigger the physical changes at puberty. b. trigger sexual arousal. c. promote formation of synapses important for learning and memory. d. cause increased emotion in women prior to menstruation. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Surprisingly, there is no evidence supporting the popular idea that fluctuations in sex hormones cause increased emotionality just prior to menstruation. Sex hormones are secreted by tissue in the _______________ and also by the adrenal glands. a. kidneys b. gonads c. medulla d. pons Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Sex hormones are secreted primarily by the gonads, the testes and ovaries, but are also secreted in smaller amounts by the adrenal glands. 114.

115.

Estrogen is to _______ as testosterone is to _______. a. gonads; testes b. testes; ovaries c. ovaries; testes d. ovaries; gonads Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Estrogens are feminizing hormones that are produced mainly in the ovaries. Androgens (the most important of which is testosterone) are masculinizing hormones produced mainly in the testes. % correct 89 a= 2 b= 1 c= 89 d= 8 r = .41 116.

Jeff is 13 years old and has recently noticed some remarkable changes in himself. Over the past few months his voice has started to change, growing deeper. He has begun to grow pubic hair, as well as the beginnings of a facial beard. He is also filling out, with his muscles developing rapidly. These changes in Jeff are probably due to the action of the a. gonads. b. thyroid gland. c. pineal gland. d. adrenal gland. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Sex hormones—such as androgens, which set in motion the physical changes males experience at puberty—are secreted by tissue in the gonads (testes in men, ovaries in women). % correct 60 a= 60 b= 24 c= 10 d= 6 r = .32 117.

The most important of the androgens is a. estrogen. b. testosterone. c. progesterone. d. dopamine. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Testosterone is the most important of the androgens, the male sexual hormones.

Page(s): 123 Answer: b

MAPPING THE BRAIN Learning Objectives 4.10 Why patterns of electrical activity in the brain are called “brain waves” 4.11 How scanning activities reveal changes in brain activity while people listen to music, solve math problems, or do other activities 4.12 The limitations of brain scans as a way of understanding the brain 118.

This procedure allows more precise information about electrical activity in single neurons. a. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) b. PET scans c. microelectrodes d. EEGs Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s):124 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Microelectrodes are so fine that they can be inserted into single cells. 119.

d. is recorded by inserting needle electrodes into the brain. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The EEG is used to study the brain waves associated with different states of consciousness such as sleep, relaxation, and mental concentration. A standard EEG is useful but not very precise because it reflects the activities of many cells at once. 120.

Coin-shaped electrodes are pasted onto Miranda’s scalp, and they are connected by wire to a machine that translates the electrical energy from her brain into wavy lines on a moving piece of paper. From this description, it is evident that Miranda’s brain is being studied through the use of a. positron-emission tomography. b. functional magnetic resonance imaging. c. a microelectrode recording. d. an electroencephalogram. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The EEG uses coin-shaped electrodes attached to the scalp to record brainwaves. 121.

When researchers use needle electrodes a. general anesthesia is used because the brain is sensitive to pain. b. they inject a glucose-like substance containing a radioactive element. c. a current is produced that is 40,000 times greater than the earth’s natural magnetic field. d. only the skull and the membranes covering the brain need to be anesthetized. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: When needle electrodes are used to record the activity of cells deep within the brain, it is common for the patient to be awake and conscious. This is possible because the brain itself does not have pain receptors. 122.

_______________ is a procedure that can be used by researchers as a “virtual” or temporary lesion

method. a. Positron-emission tomography b. Functional magnetic resonance imaging c. Microelectrode recording d. Transcranial magnetic stimulation Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Transcranial magnetic stimulation can be used by researchers to temporarily block the firing of neurons to observe the effects on behavior. 123.

_______________ is a method of stimulating brain cells; this method can be used by researchers to

temporarily inactivate neural circuits. a. Transcranial magnetic stimulation b. Functional magnetic resonance imaging c. Microelectrode recording d. Positron-emission tomography Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Transcranial magnetic stimulation can be used to stimulate cells to fire, or to briefly inactivate brain cells. 124.

Dr. Stearns is studying what happens behaviorally when a brain area is temporarily inactivated. Which method is she most likely to be using? a. functional MRIs b. PET scans

c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. lesion studies with animals Section: Mapping the Brain Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Transcranial magnetic stimulation can temporarily inactivate brain regions.

Page(s): 124 Answer: c

125.

Dr. Lirette is conducting a study using transcranial magnetic stimulation. From this we can determine that a. he has lesioned an area of the brain of an animal before beginning his research. b. he will be able to study visually displayed information about brain areas that are active. c. he will obtain precise information about the electrical activity in a single neuron. d. he will be able to investigate what happens behaviorally when a brain area is temporarily inactivated. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Transcranial magnetic stimulation can temporarily inactivate brain regions. 126.

Dr. McClelland is studying the patterns of electrical activity in the brain. Which method is she most likely to be using? a. functional MRIs b. PET scans c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. EEGs Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The EEG is used to study the electrical brain waves associated with different states of consciousness such as sleep, relaxation, and mental concentration. 127.

Dr. Bane is studying the pattern of electrical activity in a single neuron. Which method is he most likely to be using? a. microelectrodes b. PET scans c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. EEGs Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Using microelectrodes inserted into the brain, it is possible to record the activity of a single neuron. 128.

A PET scan a. records brain waves through electrodes taped to the scalp. b. records biochemical changes in the brain as they are happening. c. stimulates the brain by producing a magnetic field through a wire coil. d. uses radio frequencies and a magnetic field to produce images of the brain. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 125 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In a PET scan a radioactively labeled substance such as glucose is injected. The glucose accumulates in the most active areas of the brain. Therefore it is possible to scan the brain to see which brain regions are most active in a particular task. 129.

Magnetic resonance imaging allows a scientist to a. tell us precisely what is happening physiologically inside a person’s head. b. briefly stimulate or inactivate a specific area of the brain. c. explore the inner space of the brain without using chemicals. d. detect electrical activity within a single cell. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 125 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Magnetic resonance imaging or MRI produces a detailed image of the brain using a powerful magnetic field. It does not involve the use of any invasive techniques or drugs.

130.

Libby’s physician refers her to a medical center in order to have the biochemical activity in her brain analyzed. She is given an injection of a glucose-like substance containing a radioactive element and then she lies with her head in a scanner. The technique being used is a. positron-emission tomography. b. functional magnetic resonance imaging. c. microelectrode recording. d. an electroencephalogram. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 125 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In a PET scan (or positron-emission tomography), a radioactively labeled substance such as glucose is injected. The glucose accumulates in the most active areas of the brain. Therefore it is possible to scan the brain to see which brain regions are most active in a particular task.

% correct 77

a= 77 b= 3 c= 13 d= 7

r = .22

131.

Which technique uses radio frequencies and a magnetic field to produce images of the brain? a. EEG b. PET c. MRI d. TMS Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 125 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Magnetic resonance imaging or MRI produces a detailed image of the brain using a powerful magnetic field. Transcranial magnetic stimulation uses magnetic fields, but it cannot be used to produce images of the brain. 132.

A functional magnetic resonance imaging technique can capture brain changes a. by translating electrical energy from the brain into wavy lines on paper. b. through the use of microelectrodes that are so fine they can be inserted into single cells. c. many times a second as a person performs a task such as reading a sentence. d. that demonstrate how certain brain circuits connect to produce behavior. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 125 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Magnetic resonance imaging or MRI produces a detailed image of the brain using a powerful magnetic field. The fMRI is an ultrafast version that can detect activity as a person performs a task such as reading a sentence. 133.

Dr. Schwarz is reviewing visually displayed information about brain areas that are active or quiet during an activity. Which method is she most likely to be using? a. microelectrodes b. PET scans c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. EEGs Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 125 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In a PET scan (or positron-emission tomography), a radioactively labeled substance such as glucose is injected. The most active cells absorb the most glucose. Therefore it is possible to scan the brain to see which regions are active in a particular task. 134.

Which of the following is a reason for caution in using brain imaging technology? a. Color scales can be manipulated to exaggerate or minimize contrasts between brains. b. Brain scans cannot tell us where something is happening in the brain. c. They can only be used to study abnormal brains. d. It is not known how safe repeated uses of brain scans are for an individual. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 125 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a

Rationale: By manipulating the color scales used in PET scans, researchers can either accentuate or minimize contrasts between two brains. Small contrasts can be made to look dramatic, larger ones to look insignificant.

A TOUR THROUGH THE BRAIN Learning Objectives 4.13 The major parts of the brain and some of their major functions 4.14 Why it is a good thing that the outer covering of the human brain is so wrinkled 4.15 How a bizarre nineteenth-century accident illuminated the role of the frontal lobes 135.

The idea that different brain areas perform different tasks or functions is the concept behind a. plasticity. b. localization of function. c. neurogenesis. d. the action potential. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 126 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Localization of function refers to the specialization of particular brain areas for particular functions. 136.

The part of the brain at the top of the spinal cord is called the a. pleasure center. b. brain stem. c. master gland. d. thalamus. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 126 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The brain stem is an older part of the brain located directly above the spinal cord. 137.

The two main structures of the brain stem are the a. hippocampus and amygdala. b. cerebellum and thalamus. c. hypothalamus and pituitary gland. d. medulla and pons. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 126 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The most important structures in the brain stem are the medulla and the pons. The other structures listed are not part of the brain stem. The _______________ is a structure in the brain stem involved in sleeping, waking, and dreaming. a. medulla b. pons c. thalamus d. cerebellum Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 126 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The pons is involved in sleeping, waking, and dreaming among other things. 138.

The _______________ is a structure in the brain stem responsible for certain automatic functions, such as breathing and heart rate. a. reticular activating system b. pons c. medulla d. cerebellum Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 126–127 139.

Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The medulla controls vital reflexes such as breathing and heart rate.

Answer: c

140.

Reggie suffered brain damage in a car accident. As a result he can no longer breathe on his own and needs the help of a respirator. Which structure was most likely damaged? a. pons b. medulla c. cerebellum d. reticular activating system Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 126–127 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The medulla is the structure in the brain stem responsible for breathing and heart rate. 141.

When a person’s neck is broken through hanging, his or her respiration stops because nervous pathways from the __________ are severed. a. reticular activating system b. medulla c. pons d. thalamus Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The medulla is the structure in the brain stem responsible for breathing and heart rate. 142.

A dense network of neurons found in the core of the brain stem that arouses the cortex and screens incoming information is called the a. pons. b. cerebellum. c. reticular activating system. d. medulla. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The reticular activating system in the core of the brain stem is involved in arousal. It also screens incoming sensory information. 143.

Danny suffered brain damage in a car accident. As a result he is clumsy and uncoordinated. Which structure was most likely damaged? a. pons b. medulla c. cerebellum d. reticular activating system Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination, posture, and balance. 144.

Ever since Hazel had a stroke, she has had trouble performing complicated motor activities like threading a needle or tying her shoe laces. It is most likely that Hazel’s stroke damaged the a. hippocampus. b. medulla. c. reticular activating system. d. cerebellum. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination, posture, and balance. 145.

The _______________ is involved in remembering certain simple skills and acquired reflexes.

a. pons b. medulla c. reticular activating system d. cerebellum Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In addition to being involved in motor coordination, posture, and balance, the cerebellum is important for memory of simple motor tasks and some basic cognitive functions. 146.

A ballerina will rely primarily on which brain area that is involved in regulating balance? a. hypothalamus b. pons c. cerebellum d. thalamus Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The cerebellum regulates movement and balance and is involved in some kinds of higher cognitive tasks. The _______________ was once considered just a motor center, but evidence has accumulated that it also plays a part in higher cognitive tasks, such as analyzing sensory information, solving problems, and understanding words. a. pons b. medulla c. auditory cortex d. cerebellum Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In addition to being involved in motor coordination, posture, and balance, the cerebellum is important for memory of simple motor tasks and some basic cognitive functions. 147.

148.

Which structure is involved in routing incoming sensory messages to higher areas? a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. hypothalamus d. limbic system Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The thalamus acts, in part, like a switchboard sending incoming sensory information to appropriate areas of the cortex. 149.

What part of the brain could be compared to a busy traffic officer, controlling the flow of information in the brain? a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. cerebellum d. pituitary gland Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The thalamus acts, in part, like a switchboard or traffic officer sending incoming sensory information to appropriate areas of the cortex. 150.

In order to perceive the colors of the rainbow, sensory signals must pass through the __________ on their way from the eyes to the cerebral cortex. a. hypothalamus

b. pons c. amygdala d. thalamus Section: A Tour through the Brain Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The thalamus relays sensory signals to the cerebral cortex.

Page(s): 127 Answer: d

151.

The only sense that completely bypasses the thalamus is a. vision. b. smell. c. hearing. d. taste. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The only sensory system that sends information directly to cortex without first going to the thalamus is the sense of smell. 152.

One reason why particular odors, such as the smell of gardenias, often rekindle memories of important personal experiences might be that a. the smell areas of the human brain are more highly developed than the other sensory areas. b. odors are processed in the frontal lobes. c. the thalamus gives priority processing to the sense of smell. d. the olfactory bulb is directly connected to areas involved in emotion. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The olfactory bulb has connections to areas involved in emotion. Therefore, particular odors may acquire emotional associations. 153.

Which structure is involved in drives associated with survival of both the individual and the species? a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. hypothalamus d. limbic system Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127–128 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The hypothalamus is an extremely important area in the brain because it is involved in drives and behaviors that are directly related to individual and species survival such as eating, drinking, and sexual behavior. In addition, it controls the hormones of the body through its control of the pituitary gland. 154.

Joaquin has been exercising outside for 20 minutes on a hot day. The reason he is sweating a lot is because his __________ is attempting to regulate his body temperature. a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. hypothalamus d. limbic system Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127–128 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The hypothalamus regulates body temperature by triggering sweating or shivering. 155.

Hanging down from the hypothalamus, connected to it by a short stalk, is a cherry-sized endocrine gland called the a. olfactory bulb. b. endocrine gland.

c. pituitary gland. d. temporal lobe. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 128 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The pituitary gland is attached to the hypothalamus on the underside of the brain. 156.

The pituitary gland is controlled by the a. brainstem. b. hypothalamus. c. reticular formation. d. spinal cord. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 128 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The pituitary is often called the body’s “master gland,” but the true boss is the hypothalamus, which sends chemicals to the pituitary that tell it when to “talk” to the other endocrine glands. % correct 73 a= 10 b= 73 c= 11 d= 5 r = .37 157.

The pituitary gland is often called the “master gland” because a. the hormones it secretes affect many other endocrine glands. b. it sends chemicals to the hypothalamus telling it when to talk to other parts of the brain. c. it directs sensory messages to higher brain centers. d. it is involved in emotional reactions and motivated behavior. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 128 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The pituitary gland is a small endocrine gland located at the base of the brain that releases many hormones and regulates other endocrine glands. 158.

When a person quickly determines the emotional importance of sensory information in order to decide whether to approach a person, the _______________ is responsible for this function. a. amygdala b. pons c. hippocampus d. cerebellum Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 128 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The amygdala is involved in evaluating the emotional importance of sensory information and influencing decisions to approach or avoid a stimulus. 159.

PET scans show that depressed and anxious patients show _______________ neural activity in the

_______________. a. decreased; amygdala b. increased; amygdala c. decreased; cerebellum d. increased; cerebellum Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 128 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: PET scans show increased activity in the amygdala of depressed and anxious patients. The _______________ instantly assesses anger or threat. a. amygdala b. medulla c. corpus callosum d. parietal lobe Section: A Tour through the Brain Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate 160.

Page(s): 128 Answer: a

Rationale: The amygdala is involved in evaluating the emotional importance of sensory information and influencing decisions to approach or avoid a stimulus. 161.

Which structure is sometimes called the “gateway to memory”? a. amygdala b. thalamus c. hippocampus d. cerebrum Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 128 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The hippocampus is involved in the initial stages of memory, especially for spatial information and for memories of facts and experiences.

% correct 90

a= 0 b= 10 c= 90 d= 0

r = .35

162.

Carmella had a stroke that caused damage to her brain. As a result, she can no longer form new memories about people she meets or information she learns. Which part of Carmella’s brain is most likely damaged? a. hippocampus b. pons c. cerebellum d. thalamus Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 128–129 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The hippocampus is the brain structure involved in the storage of new information and memory. 163.

The cerebrum is divided into two separate halves that are connected by a large band of fibers called the a. mammillary body. b. fornix. c. cingulate gyrus. d. corpus callosum. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The corpus callosum connects the two halves of cerebral cortex allowing them to communicate with each other. The cerebrum consists of two hemispheres, each of which is divided into ____ lobes. a. two b. three c. four d. five Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Each hemisphere of cortex contains four lobes: the frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal. 164.

In general, the _______________ hemisphere is in charge of the left side of the body and the _______________ is in charge of the right side of the body. a. left; right b. right; left c. medial; lateral d. lateral; medial Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: In general, each half of the cerebral cortex controls and receives sensory input from the contralateral or opposite side of the body. 165.

166.

If the human brain didn’t have so many deep crevices and wrinkles in the cortex, then

a. b. c. d.

the amygdala would not be able to regulate the person’s initial emotional responses. the person would have difficulty performing bodily functions that are not consciously willed. the newborn’s head would be too large to fit through the mother’s birth canal. the fetus would die prenatally because the hypothalamus couldn’t regulate the autonomic nervous system. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The cerebral cortex is so large that it has had to become highly convoluted or wrinkled in order for the head to remain small enough to fit through the birth canal. 167.

Which of the following regions contains the visual cortex? a. temporal lobes b. parietal lobes c. frontal lobes d. occipital lobes Section: A Tour through the Brain Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The occipital lobes are specialized for processing visual information. Damage to the occipital lobes may result in difficulty with a. language comprehension. b. speech production. c. feeling pain and pressure. d. sight. Section: A Tour through the Brain Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Visual signals are processed in the visual cortex.

Page(s): 129 Answer: d

168.

Page(s): 129 Answer: d

169.

Which of the following regions contains the somatosensory cortex, which receives information about pressure, pain, touch, and temperature from all over the body? a. temporal lobes b. parietal lobes c. frontal lobes d. occipital lobes Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The parietal lobes contain somatosensory cortex, which processes all the sensory information received from the skin. 170.

Which of the following regions contains the auditory cortex? a. temporal lobes b. parietal lobes c. frontal lobes d. occipital lobes Section: A Tour through the Brain Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Processing of auditory information occurs primarily in the temporal lobes. Damage to Wernicke’s area may result in difficulty with a. language comprehension. b. speech production. c. feeling pain and pressure. d. sight. Section: A Tour through the Brain Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult

Page(s): 129 Answer: a

171.

Page(s): 129 Answer: a

Rationale: Wernicke’s area is involved in language comprehension (understanding). In contrast, Broca’s area is involved in language production (speaking). 172.

Which of the following regions contains the motor cortex, which issues orders to the 600 muscles of the body that produce voluntary movement? a. temporal lobes b. parietal lobes c. frontal lobes d. occipital lobes Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Motor cortex is located in the frontal lobes. 173.

Jane recently suffered from a stroke and finds it difficult to produce voluntary movements. It is likely that her __________ is damaged. a. somatosensory cortex b. motor cortex c. parietal lobe d. limbic system Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The motor cortex issues orders to the 600 muscles of the body that produce voluntary movement. 174.

Damage to Broca’s area may result in difficulty with a. language comprehension. b. speech production. c. feeling pain and pressure. d. sight. Section: A Tour through the Brain Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: Broca’s area is responsible for speech production.

Page(s): 129 Answer: b

175.

Jack recently suffered from a stroke and finds it difficult to produce speech, even though he knows what he wants to say. It is likely that __________ is damaged. a. the prefrontal cortex b. a parietal lobe c. Broca’s area d. Wernicke’s area Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: In the left frontal lobe, an area known as Broca’s area handles speech production. During short-term memory tasks, areas in the _______________ are especially active. a. temporal lobes b. parietal lobes c. frontal lobes d. occipital lobes Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129–130 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The frontal lobes are important for planning, creative thinking, speech production, short-term memory, and other higher functions. 176.

177.

Georgie was recently in a serious car accident and experienced trauma to his head. He has since returned to work as a lawyer, but is having difficulty making decisions and setting goals for himself. It is likely that Georgie’s __________ has/have suffered some damage.

a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. parietal lobes d. frontal lobes Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 130 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: The frontal lobes are involved in the ability to make plans, think creatively, and take initiative. 178.

A surgeon is probing your association cortex with a probe. Which of the following would you be most likely to experience? a. a sense of being gently touched b. swirls of color c. a bright flash of light d. nothing at all Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 130 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: While stimulation of sensory or motor areas can produce sensations or movements, stimulation of association areas typically produces no noticeable response. 179.

A surgeon is probing your somatosensory cortex with a probe. Which of the following would you be most likely to experience? a. a tingling in the skin b. swirls of color c. a bright flash of light d. nothing at all Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 130 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Stimulation of somatosensory cortex can produce sensations of tingling or light touch. 180.

A surgeon is probing your visual cortex with a probe. Which of the following would you be most likely to experience? a. a sense of being gently touched b. swirls of color c. the emotion of anger d. nothing at all Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 130 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Stimulation of visual cortex usually produces sensory experiences such as a flash of light or swirl of colors. 181.

Which of the following lobes are involved in the ability to do a series of tasks in proper sequence and then to stop doing these tasks at the proper time? a. temporal lobes b. parietal lobes c. frontal lobes d. occipital lobes Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 131 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Soviet psychologist Alexander Luria (1980) studied many cases in which damage to the frontal lobes disrupted these abilities. 182.

After a serious head injury, Conway is working in the woodworking shop of a rehabilitation hospital. He begins planing a piece of wood and continues till it is nothing but splinters. It is most likely that Conway’s _______________ was injured. a. occipital lobe

b. frontal lobe c. parietal lobe d. temporal lobe Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 131 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The frontal lobes govern the ability to do a series of tasks in the proper sequence and to stop doing them at the proper time. 183.

After a serious head injury, Tom has difficulty doing a series of tasks in the proper sequence. In addition, he cannot stop doing a task at the appropriate time. It is most likely that Tom’s _______________ was injured. a. occipital lobe b. frontal lobe c. parietal lobe d. temporal lobe Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 131 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The frontal lobes are involved in planning and carrying out a series of tasks in proper order and inhibiting actions when they are not appropriate.

THE TWO HEMISPHERES OF THE BRAIN Learning Objectives 4.16 What would happen if the two cerebral hemispheres could not communicate with each other 4.17 Why researchers often refer to the left hemisphere as “dominant” 4.18 Why “left-brainedness” and “right-brainedness” are exaggerations 184.

The corpus callosum a. is an integral area of the hindbrain. b. is responsible for taste and smell sensations. c. connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres. d. supports the reticular activating system Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 131 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: In a normal brain, the two hemispheres communicate with one another across the corpus callosum, the bundle of fibers that connects them. % correct 90 a= 3 b= 3 c= 90 d= 4 r = .39 185.

When Myers and Sperry severed the corpus callosum in cats they found that a. one side of the brain did not know what the other side was doing. b. abnormal eating behaviors occurred because the cats could not regulate hunger. c. the left side of the cat’s body was not affected by this operation. d. disorganized electrical activity spread from one hemisphere to the other. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 131 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Without the corpus callosum, the two hemispheres cannot communicate with each other. 186.

Individuals who have had their corpus callosum cut are said to have a a. split brain. b. disintegrating personality. c. cranial refraction. d. migraine headache. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain

Page(s): 132

Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Individuals who have had their corpus callosum cut are referred to as “split-brain patients.” % correct 96 a= 96 b= 2 c= 2 d= 0 r = .35 187.

An individual with a "split brain" a. will most likely die. b. will probably become schizophrenic. c. will probably develop a split personality. d. none of the above Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 132 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: In their daily lives, split-brain patients do not seem much affected by the fact that the two hemispheres are incommunicado. % correct 84 a= 3 b= 3 c= 10 d= 84 r = .21 188.

The primary reason for performing split-brain surgery on humans was to a. find out what each half of the brain can do, cut off from the other. b. reduce the seizures in patients with debilitating, uncontrollable epilepsy. c. find out whether the two hemispheres would develop an alternate means of communication. d. reduce the tremors, stiffness, and rigidity of severe Parkinson’s disease. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 132 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The split-brain operation is performed on humans to control severe epilepsy that cannot be controlled by medication. % correct 43 a= 27 b= 43 c= 17 d= 13 r = .25 189.

If Hiroshi’s brain is like that of most people, then language will be handled by his a. right hemisphere. b. occipital lobe. c. hippocampus. d. left hemisphere. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: For most people, language is primarily a left hemisphere function.

Page(s): 132 Answer: d

190.

If you look straight ahead, then everything in the left side of the scene before you a. goes to the right half of your brain. b. goes to the left half of your brain. c. goes to the front half of your brain. d. goes to the top half of your brain. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 132 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: If you look straight ahead at the visual field in front of you, everything in the left side of the scene goes to the right half of your brain, and everything in the right side of the scene goes to the left half of your brain. This is true for both eyes. 191.

When asked about the input from each cerebral hemisphere, two well-known split-brain researchers, Michael Gazzaniga and Roger Sperry, would agree that a. the mental skills of the left hemisphere are superior to those of the right hemisphere. b. in normal brains, the left and right hemispheres cooperate naturally in everyday activities. c. the mental skills of the right hemisphere are superior to those of the left hemisphere. d. the left hemisphere and the right hemisphere are exactly the same. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 133–134 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Though they have different specializations, the right and left hemispheres normally work together cooperatively. It is unlikely that Gazzaniga and Sperry would agree on which hemisphere is superior.

192.

The left hemisphere of the brain a. has a cognitive style that is intuitive and holistic. b. contains regions that process fear and sadness. c. excels in logical, sequential, and symbolic tasks, such as solving math problems. d. excels in facial recognition. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 133 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The left side of the brain is more active during logical, symbolic, and sequential tasks. 193.

In most people, the right hemisphere of the brain a. excels in the ability to read facial expressions. b. is exactly the same as the left hemisphere. c. excels in logical, sequential, and symbolic tasks, such as solving math problems. d. is responsible for language processing. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 134 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: For most people, the right hemisphere is more important for processing spatial information, including recognizing faces and perceiving emotional expressions.

TWO STUBBORN ISSUES IN BRAIN RESEARCH Learning Objectives 4.19 Why some brain researchers think a unified “self” is only an illusion 4.20 Findings and fallacies about sex differences in the brain 194.

Modern brain scientists usually assume that what we call “mind,” or “self-awareness” can be explained a. in physical terms as a product of the activity of the cerebral cortex. b. in physical terms as a product of brain stem activity. c. in spiritual terms by positing an immortal self apart from the mortal brain. d. in spiritual terms by noting that the unity of self is a mirage. Section: Two Stubborn Issues in Brain Research Page(s): 135 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Most neuroscientists believe that consciousness and mind will eventually be explained as complex brain processes. 195.

According to Gazzaniga, an “interpreter,” believed to be in the left hemisphere, is constantly explaining the actions, emotions, and thoughts produced by other areas of the brain. The result is a. parallel processing of sensory information. b. equality among males and females in brain functioning. c. a sense of a unified self. d. lateralization of brain function. Section: Two Stubborn Issues in Brain Research Page(s): 135 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Gazzaniga believes that our conscious sense of a unified self is an illusion created by this “interpreter.” 196.

Which of the following statements is true? a. The brains of males and females do not differ. b. There are biochemical, but not anatomical differences between male and female brains. c. Males are more likely to be right-brained and females are more likely to be left-brained. d. While there are some differences between male and female brains, the effect of those differences on behavior and personality traits is not yet understood. Section: Two Stubborn Issues in Brain Research Page(s): 136–137 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Male and female brains do differ, but the effect of those differences is not well understood.

197.

As a critical thinker in psychology, it is important to recognize that a. the overlap between the sexes is less than the difference between them. b. biological differences between the sexes always has implications for behavior. c. brain differences could be the result, not the cause, of behavioral differences between the sexes. d. animal studies show sex differences in the brain do not affect behavior. Section: Two Stubborn Issues in Brain Research Page(s): 137 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Researchers don’t know if the brain differences between the sexes exist because of the way girls and boys are socialized or if they are hard-wired.

True-False Questions 1. One of the functions of a nervous system is to gather and process information. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Conceptual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

2. The spinal cord cannot produce behaviors unless it has been helped by the brain. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The spinal cord can initiate spinal reflexes such as the withdrawal reflex. 3.

Reflexes above the neck, such as sneezing or blinking, involve the lower part of the brain rather than the spinal cord. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 4. The central nervous system is the portion of the nervous system consisting of the brain and spinal cord. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 5. Spinal reflexes are automatic and cannot be influenced by thoughts and emotions. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 114–115 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Spinal reflexes are automatic, but can be initiated or inhibited by thoughts and emotions. 6. Erection in men is a spinal reflex that can be initiated by erotic thoughts. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

The peripheral nervous system is a collection of neurons and supportive tissue running from the base of the brain down the center of the back. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The peripheral nervous system consists of nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. 8.

Motor nerves carry messages from special receptors in the skin, from muscles, and from sense organs to the spinal cord. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Answer: False

Rationale: Motor nerves carry commands from the brain and spinal cord to skeletal muscles. Sensory nerves carry messages about the environment and the body to the brain and spinal cord. 9. Sensory nerves put us in touch with both the outside world and with the activities within our own bodies. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 10. The somatic nervous system is sometimes called the skeletal nervous system. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

11.

The sympathetic nervous system tends to slow things down and keep them running smoothly in order to conserve the body’s energy. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115–116 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The sympathetic nervous system increases arousal and energy utilization. 12.

When an individual’s pupils constrict, heart beat slows, and digestion is activated, then the parasympathetic nervous system has become active. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115–116 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 13. The autonomic nervous system controls skeletal muscles. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115–116 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The autonomic nervous system regulates the functioning of blood vessels, glands, and internal organs. 14.

The parasympathetic nervous system acts like an accelerator on a car, mobilizing the body for action and for an output of energy. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 116 Type: Conceptual Answer: False Rationale: The sympathetic nervous system acts like an accelerator, while the parasympathetic nervous system acts like a brake. 15. Another name for neuron is nerve cell. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 16. Neurons greatly outnumber glial cells. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Rationale: Glial cells greatly outnumber neurons in the brain.

Answer: True

Answer: False

17. In the giraffe, a neuron that runs from the spinal cord down the animal’s hind leg may be 9 feet long. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 18. A typical estimate of how many neurons the human brain contains is about 100,000. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117 Type: Factual Answer: False

Rationale: It is estimated that the human brain contains about 100 billion neurons. 19. Many axons are insulated by a surrounding layer of fatty material, which is made up of glial cells. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 20. Axons commonly divide at the end into branches called axon terminals. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

21. One purpose of the myelin sheath is to prevent signals in adjacent cells from interfering with each other. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 22.

In individuals with multiple sclerosis, dense buildup of myelin on the axon cause erratic nerve signals leading to loss of sensation and lack of coordination. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: In multiple sclerosis there is a loss of myelin in the brain. 23.

In the peripheral nervous system, the axons, and sometimes dendrites, of individual neurons are collected together in bundles called nerves. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 24. Neurons in the central nervous system can neither reproduce nor regenerate in adults. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Recent research suggests that some neurons in the brain are produced throughout life. 25.

Stem cells are immature cells that renew themselves and have the potential to develop into mature cells of various types. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 26.

When a nerve cell is stimulated, there is a sudden, momentary inflow of positively charged sodium ions across the cell’s membrane, followed by an outflow of positively charged potassium ions. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 27. The action potential is a chemical substance that alters the activity of a receiving neuron. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The action potential is an electrical impulse that occurs in the axon. 28. Synaptic vesicles are tiny sacs in the tip of the axon terminals. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

29. When we are born, most of our synapses are not yet formed. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 120 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

30. After critical periods have passed, learning slows and may even become irreversible. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 120 Type: Conceptual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 31. Pruning and increases in synaptic density are confined to childhood. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 120 Type: Conceptual Rationale: These processes continue all through life.

Answer: False

32. Neurotransmitters exist in the brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, and certain glands. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 33. Serotonin affects neurons involved in sleep, appetite, pain suppression, and mood. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 34. Acetylcholine affects neurons involved in muscle action, cognitive functioning, memory, and emotion. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 35. Glutamate functions as the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Glutamate is the most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain. 36. Harmful effects can occur when neurotransmitter levels are too high or too low. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 37. People with Alzheimer's disease lose brain cells responsible for producing acetylcholine. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 38. Endorphins have effects similar to natural opiates. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

39. Hormones are chemical substances secreted by glands that affect the functioning of organs. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 40.

Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland.

Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 41. Melatonin helps to regulate daily biological rhythms and promotes sleep. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

42. Androgens are feminizing hormones that bring about physical change in females at puberty. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Androgens are masculinizing hormones. 43.

Progesterone contributes to the growth and maintenance of the uterine lining in preparation for a fertilized egg. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 44. The fluctuating levels of estrogen and progesterone make many women emotional before menstruation. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 123 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: There is no evidence that gonadal hormones cause increased emotionality prior to menstruation. 45.

The lesion method of studying the brain involves the observation of an animal after sections of its brain have been damaged or removed. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 46.

Transcranial magnetic stimulation uses a powerful magnetic field produced by a wire coil placed on a person's head in order to temporarily stimulate or inactivate neural circuits. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 47.

Magnetic resonance imaging is a method for analyzing biochemical activity in the brain, using injections of a glucose-like substance containing a radioactive element. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 125 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: PET scans analyze biochemical activity of the brain following injections of a radioactively labeled glucose-like substance. 48. A functional MRI can capture brain changes many times a second as a person performs a task. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 125 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 49. Brain scans tell us where things happen in the brain but they do not tell us how or why they happen. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 126 Type: Conceptual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 50. Localization of function refers to the specialization of particular brain areas for particular functions. Section: A Tour through the Brain

Page(s): 126 Rationale: Statement of fact.

Type: Factual

51. The part of the brain at the top of the spinal cord is called the hippocampus. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 126 Type: Factual Rationale: The part of the brain at the top of the spinal cord is the brain stem. 52. The brain stem's two main structures are the medulla and the pons. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 126 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 53. The medulla is responsible for breathing and heart rate. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 126–127 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

Answer: False

Answer: True

54.

The pons is a structure in the core of the brain stem that arouses the cortex and screens incoming information. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The reticular activating system arouses cortex and screens incoming information. 55. Without the reticular activating system we could not be alert. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Conceptual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

56. If your cerebellum were damaged, you would probably become exceedingly clumsy and uncoordinated. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Conceptual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 57. The thalamus is a brain structure that relays sensory messages to the cerebral cortex. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 58. Hanging down from the hypothalamus is a cherry-sized endocrine gland called the pituitary gland. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 128 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 59. If your amygdala were damaged you would probably become exceedingly clumsy and uncoordinated. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 128 Type: Conceptual Answer: False Rationale: If your cerebellum were damaged, you would probably become exceedingly clumsy and uncoordinated. 60. The hippocampus is involved in the storage of new information into memory. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 128 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 61.

The largest part of the brain is the cauliflower-like cerebrum.

Answer: True

Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Rationale: Statement of fact.

Type: Factual

Answer: True

62. In a normal brain, the two hemispheres communicate with one another across the corpus callosum. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 63. The occipital lobes contain the visual cortex, where visual signals are processed. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 64. The temporal lobes are at the top of the brain. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Factual Rationale: The temporal lobes are on the sides of the brain.

Answer: False

65.

The parietal lobes contain the somatosensory cortex, which receives information about pressure, pain, touch, and temperature from all over the body. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 66. The motor cortex is located in the frontal lobes. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

67. Broca's area, which is involved in speech production, is located in the left frontal lobe in most people. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 68.

If a surgeon applied electrical currents to a part of your brain and nothing appeared to happened, that would indicate brain damage. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 123 Type: Applied Answer: False Rationale: Stimulation of the association cortex normally produces no noticeable response. 69. The sad story of Phineas Gage indicated that the frontal lobes have something to do with personality. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 130 Type: Conceptual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 70.

The frontal lobes govern the ability to do a series of tasks in the proper sequence and to stop doing them at the proper time. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 131 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 71. After split-brain surgery, patients are unable to walk or to care for the physical needs of everyday life. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 132 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: After split-brain surgery, patients have no obvious problems.

72. Each brain hemisphere receives information from the eyes about the opposite side of the visual field. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 132 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 73. The last split-brain operation was performed in 1981. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 133 Type: Factual Rationale: The split-brain operation is still being performed.

Answer: False

74.

The right side of the brain is superior to the left in problems requiring spatial visual ability and in facial recognition. Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 134 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 75.

It has been proposed that the sense of a unified self occurs because a verbal module in the brain is constantly coming up with theories to explain the actions, moods, and thoughts of the other modules. Section: Two Stubborn Issues in Brain Research Page(s): 135 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 76. The neural circuits responsible for our sense of self are well known. Section: Two Stubborn Issues in Brain Research Page(s): 135 Type: Factual Rationale: The neural circuits responsible for our sense of self remains hazy.

Answer: False

77. A recent study cited in your text found that women are more talkative than men. Section: Two Stubborn Issues in Brain Research Page(s): 137 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The study found that there was no sex difference in the number of words spoken. 78. The difference between boys and girls in math scores is shrinking and in some studies is approaching zero. Section: Two Stubborn Issues in Brain Research Page(s): 137 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact

Short-Answer Questions 1.

Distinguish between the functions of the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115–116 Type: Factual Answer: The sympathetic nervous system mobilizes bodily resources increasing energy in times of stress. The parasympathetic nervous system operates during relaxed states and serves to allow the body to conserve energy. 2. Name the three main parts of the neuron and describe the function of each. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 117–118 Type: Factual Answer: • Dendrites act like antennas receiving messages from as many as 10,000 other nerve cells and transmit these messages toward the cell body. • The cell body contains the biochemical machinery for keeping the neuron alive.

•

Axons transmit messages from the cell body to other neurons or to muscle or gland cells.

3. Describe the role of neurotransmitters in neural communication. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Factual Answer: Neurotransmitters are released into the synapse and may bind with receptors located on other neurons to allow signals to pass between neurons. 4. Name three neurotransmitters and describe what processes are associated with them. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 121 Type: Factual Answer: Serotonin (sleep, eating, mood); dopamine (voluntary movement, learning, memory, emotion); acetylcholine (muscle action, cognitive processing, memory, emotion); norepinephrine (increased during stress, dreaming, waking from sleep, learning, memory, emotion); GABA (major inhibitory neurotransmitter); glutamate (major excitatory neurotransmitter). 5.

A wounded soldier realizes that his best friend has been seriously injured in battle, yet he somehow manages to hoist his buddy over his shoulder, and carry him to safety. How is the soldier able to do this without being disabled by the pain from his own wound? Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 122 Type: Applied Answer: Chemical messengers called endorphins, which are similar to opiates, were released; they act to suppress pain perception. 6.

Why do the authors of your textbook state that “listening to the brain with an EEG is like standing outside a sports stadium: You know when something is happening but you can’t be sure what it is or who is doing it”? Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124 Type: Conceptual Answer: EEG is not very precise because it measures activity of many neurons at once. 7. Name the three main structures within the brain stem and briefly describe what they do. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 126–127 Type: Factual Answer: • The pons is the area of the brain involved in sleeping, waking, and dreaming. • The medulla is involved in the automatic functions of breathing and heart rate. • The reticular activating system arouses the cortex and screens incoming information. 8. Distinguish between the functions of the thalamus and of the hypothalamus. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 127–128 Type: Conceptual Answer: The thalamus relays sensory messages to the cerebral cortex; the hypothalamus is involved in homeostasis and is involved in emotions and drives vital to survival (it regulates the autonomic nervous system). 9. Describe some of the main functions associated with each of the four lobes of the cerebrum. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 129–130 Type: Factual Answer: • occipital – visual processing • parietal – touch sensation (somatosensory cortex) • temporal – auditory perception, language comprehension (in the left lobe, typically), memory, emotion • frontal – motor cortex, short-term memory, planning, emotion, social judgment, speech production (in the left lobe, typically)

10. Generally speaking, why was the split-brain procedure used in humans? Section: The Two Hemispheres of the Brain Page(s): 132 Type: Conceptual Answer: The split-brain procedure was used in humans to alleviate symptoms of epilepsy (i.e., minimize seizures).

Essay Questions 1.

The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts that work together but in opposing ways. Describe the functions of each part in detail, and create an example that illustrates the activation of one part and then the other. Section: The Nervous System: A Basic Blueprint Page(s): 115–116 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The two divisions are the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions.  The sympathetic division increases arousal and uses energy.  The parasympathetic division slows the body and stores and conserves energy.  Example—A stressful situation, such as giving a speech, causes increased sympathetic activity and arousal. When the speech is over, the parasympathetic division slows body functions to normal.

For years the conventional assumption in neuroscience had been that neurons in the central nervous system could neither reproduce nor regenerate. Then as one researcher put it, there was a result that “challenged everything I had read; everything I had learned when I was a student.” Explain the startling results of studies that have overthrown the conventional wisdom regarding neuronal regeneration. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  In animal studies severed axons in the spinal cord can regrow when treated with certain nervous-system chemicals.  Stem cells in a growth medium in vitro will produce new neurons that continue to divide and multiply.  The human brain contains such stem cells.  Stem cells involved in learning and memory appear to divide and mature throughout adulthood.  Physical exercise and mental activity can promote this process while stress may inhibit it.

Many axons, especially the larger ones, are insulated with a myelin sheath. Write an essay on the importance of the myelin sheath, making sure to incorporate the following information:  What kind of cells makes up the myelin sheath?  What does the myelin sheath look like?  What are two purposes of the myelin sheath?  What happens when a person experiences the loss of myelin? Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 118–119 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Myelin is a fatty sheath formed by glial cells.  It occurs in segments along the axon and looks like a string of link sausages.  Function 1—to prevent signals in adjacent cells from interfering with each other.  Function 2—to speed up conduction of neural impulses.  Loss of myelin causes erratic nerve signals resulting in things like loss of sensation, muscle weakness or paralysis, lack of coordination, or vision problems.

Describe the electrical and chemical communication within and between neurons. Section: Communication in the Nervous System Page(s): 119 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer should include the following key points.  Action potential—an electrical impulse in the axon of a neuron.  It is caused by a brief inflow of positive sodium ions followed by a brief outflow of positive potassium ions.  It is conducted down the axon from the cell body to the axon terminal.  Action potential causes release of chemical neurotransmitter from axon terminal.  The neurotransmitter travels across the synaptic gap and binds to receptor sites on the receiving neuron.  The neurotransmitter can cause either an excitatory effect (positive voltage change) or an inhibitory effect (negative voltage change) in the receiving neuron’s membrane.

How can scientists study the living brain since it is protected by the skull? The textbook notes several methods for this type of study. Describe the different approaches that have been used to explore the workings of the brain. Section: Mapping the Brain Page(s): 124–125 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Electroencephalogram or EEG—recording brain waves through electrodes attached to the scalp.  Transcranial magnetic stimulation or TMS—delivering a large current through a wire coil placed on a person’s head can be used to stimulate or to temporarily inactivate a part of the brain to explore its function.  Positron-emission tomography or PET scan—records biochemical changes in the brain after injection of radioactively labeled glucose allowing researcher to “see” which areas of the brain are most active.  Magnetic resonance imaging or MRI—using powerful magnetic fields and radio frequency to produce vibration in the nuclei of atoms, then recording the vibrations and converting them into a high-contrast image of the brain.  Functional MRI or fMRI—an ultrafast MRI allowing visualization of second-to-second changes in the brain as a person performs a task.

Your best friends from high school invite you over for pizza and a friendly game of cards. Name six parts of the brain and explain the role each plays during your evening of food, fellowship, and playing cards. Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 126–131 Type: Applied Answer: A good answer will include six of the following structures.  Medulla—keeps your heart beating and keeps you breathing.  Reticular activating system—keeps you awake.  Frontal lobe—helps you make decisions during the card game and control emotions.  Hypothalamus—lets you know when you are hungry and when you are full.  Cerebellum—helps you maintain your balance and move about in a coordinated way.  Thalamus—sends sensory information to the appropriate areas of cortex for analysis.  Hippocampus—helps you form new memories of the evening.  Broca’s area in frontal lobe—allows you to speak to your friends.  Wernicke’s area in temporal lobe—allows you to understand when your friends speak to you.  Visual cortex in occipital lobe—allows you to see your cards, your friends, and the rest of your surroundings.

In 1848, an explosion near railroad-worker Phineas Gage sent a 3½-foot iron rod through his skull. The iron rod entered his head under the left eye and emerged from the top of Phineas’ head. According to many

accounts, how did the accident affect Gage? What conclusion do many modern neuroscientists draw from case study? Section: A Tour through the Brain Page(s): 130–131 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Gage became foul-mouthed, ill-tempered, and undependable.  Gage was described by his friends as “no longer Gage.”  The frontal lobes are involved in personality.  Parts of the frontal lobes are involved in social judgment, rational decision making, and the ability to set goals and to make and carry out plans.

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 5 – Quick Quiz 1 1.

_______________, a hormone involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms, is secreted by the pineal gland. a. Norepinephrine c. Estrogen b. Testosterone d. Melatonin

The deepest stage of sleep is __________ sleep. a. Stage 1 c. REM b. Stage 2 d. Stage 4

The reason that REM sleep occurs is a. to allow the mind to solve the day’s problems during sleep. b. to allow memories to form. c. to release tensions from the previous day. d. unknown.

This dream theory states that the purpose of dreaming is to express unconscious wishes, thoughts, and conflicts. a. problem focused c. psychoanalytic b. cognitive d. activation-synthesis

The __________ approach to dreaming emphasizes conscious concerns but makes no claims about problem solving during sleep. a. cognitive c. activation-synthesis b. problem-focused d. psychoanalytic

The dream theory that currently seems to be the leading contender is the a. Freudian theory of dreaming. c. cognitive approach to dreaming. b. problem-solving approach to dreaming. d. activation-synthesis theory of dreaming.

10.

These drugs mimic the action of endorphins. a. barbiturates c.

depressants

opiates

psychedelics

Chapter 5 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Circadian rhythms are internally generated (endogenous) biological rhythms that cycle approximately every 24 hours. (Page 148, Conceptual)

Rationale: Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland. (Page 149, Factual)

Rationale: Stage 4 is the deepest stage of sleep. A sleeper in this stage is the most difficult to wake. (Page 155, Conceptual)

Rationale: There are several theories about why REM sleep occurs, but there is no final answer at present. (Page 156, Conceptual)

Rationale: Sleep apnea is a disorder in which breathing briefly stops during sleep, causing the person to choke and gasp and momentarily awaken. (Page 157, Factual)

Rationale: This describes the psychoanalytic view of dreaming. (Page 160, Factual)

Rationale: The cognitive approach to dreaming emphasizes current concerns but makes no claims about problem solving during sleep. (Page 161, Factual)

Rationale: Cognitive theory, though relatively new, seems to be the leading contender because it incorporates many elements of other theories and fits what we currently know about waking cognition and cognitive development. (Page 163, Factual)

Rationale: Because hypnotized persons are more willing than others to guess or to confuse mental images with reality, information recalled is more subject to error. (Pages 164–165, Conceptual)

10.

Rationale: Opiates mimic the action of endorphins. (Page 169, Factual)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 5 – Quick Quiz 2 1.

The structure that serves as our biological clock that controls circadian rhythms is a. the heart with its pace-maker cells. c. the pineal gland. b. the pituitary gland. d. the suprachiasmatic nucleus.

Research on premenstrual syndrome indicates that _______________ of women have PMS symptoms predictably over their cycles. a. fewer than 5 percent c. about 50 percent b. about 25 percent d. about 75 percent

Freud called the hidden meaning of a dream its _______ content. a. surface c. unconscious b. manifest d. latent

According to the activation-synthesis theory of dreaming, the source of a dream is neuronal firing in the a. reticular activating system. c. pons. b. cortex. d. medulla.

Which of the following is true about marijuana? a. It is the third most commonly used illicit drug in North American and Europe. b. It mimics the action of endorphins. c. It does not fit well into any one category of drugs. d. It has no demonstrated medical benefits.

10.

c. d.

People act drunk if they believe their drink contains alcohol, whether it actually does or not. Beverage marketers take advantage of lower intelligence consumers in the marketplace.

Chapter 5 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: The suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus serves as our biological clock. (Page 148, Factual)

Rationale: Emotional symptoms associated with menstruation—notably, irritability and depression —are pretty rare. Fewer than 5 percent of all women have such symptoms predictably over their cycles. (Page 152, Factual)

Rationale: Stage 1 is characterized by small irregular brain waves and light sleep. (Pages 154–155, Applied)

Rationale: Freud distinguished between a dream’s manifest content, the aspects of it that we consciously experience during sleep and may remember upon wakening, and its latent (hidden) content, the unconscious wishes and thoughts being expressed symbolically. (Page 160, Factual)

Rationale: The problem-focused explanation of dreaming is supported by findings that dreams are more likely to contain material related to a person’s current concerns—such as a breakup or exams —than chance would predict. (Page 160, Conceptual)

Rationale: According to the activation-synthesis theory, dreams are the result of the cortex trying to make sense of the spontaneous signals originating from the pons. (Page 162, Factual)

Rationale: Hilgard stated that while most of the mind is subject to hypnotic suggestion, one part is a hidden observer, watching but not participating. (Page 165, Conceptual)

Rationale: Tranquilizers are considered depressants and may be used to reduce anxiety and tension. (Pages 168–169, Applied)

Rationale: Some researchers classify marijuana as a psychedelic, but others feel that its chemical makeup and its psychological effects place it outside the major classifications. (Page 171, Factual)

10.

Rationale: Researchers found that people act drunk if they believe their drink contains alcohol, whether it actually does or not. (Page 173, Conceptual)

Chapter 5 – Body Rhythms and Mental States Multiple Choice Questions BIOLOGICAL RHYTHMS: THE TIDES OF EXPERIENCE Learning Objectives 5.1 How biological rhythms affect our physiology and performance 5.2 Why you feel out of sync when you fly across time zones or change shifts at work 5.3 Why some people get the winter blues 5.4 How culture and learning affect reports of PMS and estimates of its incidence 1.

Our awareness of various mental processes such as making decisions, daydreaming, reflecting, and concentrating is called a. intelligence. b. consciousness. c. self-awareness. d. creativity. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 147 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Consciousness is defined as a state of awareness of ourselves and our environment. % correct 75 a= 5 b= 75 c= 0 d= 0 r= .48 2.

When researchers have tested the accuracy of biorhythm charts, which are supposed to forecast daily fluctuations in mood, alertness, and physical performance based on a person’s birthdate, they have found the charts a. to be useful only for those working in outdoor occupations. b. to be useful only for women and not for men. c. to be useful only for healthy individuals with no chronic illnesses. d. to be useless. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Biorhythm charts have been found to be worthless. 3.

When a scientist uses the term “biological rhythm,” they are referring to a. a periodic, more or less regular, fluctuation in a biological system. b. an awareness of oneself and the environment. c. a biological fluctuation that occurs less frequently than once a day. d. a biological fluctuation that is about 24 hours from peak to peak. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: A biological rhythm is a fairly regular, periodic change in some biological system that may or may not have psychological implications. 4.

When we say that biological rhythms are endogenous, we mean that a. they are generated by an internal biological clock. b. they are influenced by our environment. c. they are produced by our heart’s rhythm. d. they are determined by an individual’s experience and therefore vary from person to person. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Endogenous means produced from within or generated internally.

A researcher is studying biological rhythms such as the waxing and waning of hormone levels, urine volume, blood pressure, and responsiveness of brain cells to stimulation. In particular, she is interested in the endogenous nature of these rhythms, or to put it another way, the researcher is interested in understanding how these biological rhythms are a. generated by an internal biological clock. b. influenced by our environment. c. produced by our heart’s rhythm. d. determined by an individual’s experience and therefore vary from person to person. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When a biological cycle is endogenous, it originates from a biological clock within. 6.

Which of the following is true of circadian rhythms? a. They are artificial inventions of timekeepers. b. They are internally generated cycles. c. They are sequences of events that occur once a month. d. They occur on the same schedule regardless of the changes from day to night. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Circadian rhythms are internally generated (endogenous) biological rhythms that cycle approximately every 24 hours. % correct 80 a= 5 b= 80 c= 5 d= 10 r = .28 7.

Our sleeping-waking cycle follows a(n) __________ rhythm. a. infradian b. circadian c. diurnal d. ultradian Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Circadian rhythms are biological rhythms that occur approximately every 24 hours. The best known circadian rhythm is the sleep–wake cycle. % correct 85 a= 0 b= 85 c= 15 d= 0 r = .59 8.

The word “circadian” indicates that a circadian rhythm a. is generated from within. b. occurs more frequently than once a day.. c. occurs less frequently than once a day. d. is about 24 hours in length. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Circadian means “about a day,” so a circadian rhythm is a fluctuation in some biological system that takes approximately 24 hours to complete. 9.

Although the most common biological rhythms people experience are circadian a. humans also have some longer cycles that are about a month in length. b. humans also have some shorter cycles that are about 90 minutes in length. c. humans also experience both longer and shorter cycles. d. humans experience some shorter cycles, but don’t experience seasonal rhythms like some animals do. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Humans experience biological rhythms ranging from relatively short rhythms such as every 90 minutes, through circadian rhythms of about a day in length, to longer monthly or seasonal rhythms.

10.

____________ rhythms reflect the adaptation of organisms to the many changes associated with the rotation of the earth on its axis. a. Infradian b. Desynchronized c. Circadian d. External Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Circadian rhythms reflect the adaptation of organisms to the many changes associated with the 24hour daily cycle caused by the rotation of the earth on its axis. 11.

Which of the following is a research method designed to identify endogenous circadian rhythms? a. studies of identical twins raised apart b. experiments in open spaces c. isolation in caves, mines, or specially prepared rooms d. statistical comparisons between groups with and without endogenous body rhythms Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: To identify endogenous circadian rhythms, scientists must isolate volunteers from sunlight, clocks, and all cues of time. 12.

Professor Frohardt is interested in studying endogenous circadian rhythms. Which of the following is a research design that would allow him to conduct his study most effectively? a. Force subjects to follow a strict sleeping-working-eating schedule. b. Conduct an experiment in open spaces with many external cues. c. Have participants live in caves, mines, or specially prepared rooms. d. Use statistical comparisons between groups with and without endogenous body rhythms. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: To identify endogenous circadian rhythms, scientists must isolate volunteers from sunlight, clocks, and all cues of time. 13.

When people live in an environment free of any time cues and are allowed to sleep, eat, and work whenever they want, they typically follow a a. 22.8-hour cycle. b. 24.3-hour cycle. c. 26.0-hour cycle. d. 28.0-hour cycle. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Free-running circadian rhythms are typically a little longer than 24 hours. 14.

The structure that serves as our biological clock that controls circadian rhythms is a. the heart with its pace-maker cells. b. the pituitary gland. c. the pineal gland. d. the suprachiasmatic nucleus. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus serves as our biological clock. 15.

Circadian rhythms are controlled by a biological clock, located in a small cluster of cells in the a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. corpus callosum. d. occipital lobe.

Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus serves as our biological clock. 16.

What is the primary stimulus that informs the biological clock, which controls circadian rhythms? a. light b. taste c. smell d. touch Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148–149 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Neural pathways from special receptors in the eye transmit information to the SCN and allow it to adjust the biological clock to changes in light and dark. 17.

Melatonin is a. a hormone that fluctuates on about a 90-minute cycle. b. a hormone that is secreted largely during hours of darkness. c. a hormone that is secreted largely during hours of daylight. d. a hormone that increases alertness and wakefulness. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Melatonin is a hormone produced during darkness and induces sleep.

Page(s): 149 Answer: b

18.

Melatonin treatments have been useful in the treatment of a. adolescents showing extreme delays in the onset of puberty. b. survivors of trauma that experience persistent flashbacks of the terror. c. depressed individuals who are in need of increased blood-sugar levels. d. disturbed sleep-wake cycles in blind people who lack light perception. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 149 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Melatonin treatment has been useful in blind people to regulate the sleep-wake cycle. 19.

The experience of “jet lag” is the result of a phenomenon called a. internal desynchronization. b. time-zone desynchronization. c. hormonal rhythms. d. external desynchronization. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 149 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Internal desynchronization—a state in which biological rhythms are not in phase with one another —often occurs when people take airplane flights across several time zones. 20.

____________ is a state in which biological rhythms are out of phase with one another. a. Internal desynchronization b. Menstruation c. Nonseasonal depression d. Sleep apnea Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 149 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Internal desynchronization is a state in which biological rhythms are out of phase with one another. 21.

_______________, a hormone involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms, is secreted by the pineal gland. a. Norepinephrine b. Testosterone

c. Estrogen d. Melatonin Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland.

Page(s): 149 Answer: d

22.

Which of the following statements is accurate, according to studies of internal desynchronization? a. When people fly across several time zones, sleep and wake patterns take several days to return to normal. b. When people fly across several time zones, temperature and hormone cycles can take several days to return to normal. c. Melatonin pills have been shown to be effective in treating desynchronization. d. When an occupation requires a rotating work schedule, then workers should be switched as frequently as possible. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 149–150 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Sleep and wake cycles adjust quickly, but hormone and temperature cycles can take several days to adjust. 23.

Omar is a “night owl” who prefers to work at night and to sleep late. This frustrates his early-bird roommate, who prefers to get up early. Research suggests that the difference between their sleep schedules is due to a. the habits they formed in childhood. b. Omar’s internal desynchronization. c. cultural differences. d. different versions of a single gene. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 150 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Genetics can influence whether we are more efficient early in the day or late in the day. 24.

The treatment of ___________ with the hormone melatonin has had mixed results. a. blind people with insomnia b. blind people who cannot see light c. blind people with melatonin cycle abnormalities d. sighted people with insomnia Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 150 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: A comprehensive government-sponsored review of melatonin research found little or no support for melatonin’s effectiveness in treating shift-work desynchronization, ordinary insomnia, or sleep disturbances associated with jet lag. 25.

Dennis just started working at a factory where he will be expected to work varying shifts. What recommendation should you make to him about shift choices? a. He should change shifts as seldom as possible once he makes his choice. b. He should try to get a set routine of morning, afternoon, and night shifts. c. He should alternate between the night and morning shifts but avoid the afternoon. d. He should rotate shifts every few weeks to make sure he never settles into one. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 150 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The best approach to help shift workers is to follow circadian principles by switching workers from one shift to another as infrequently as possible. 26.

_______________ is a controversial disorder in which a person experiences depression during the winter and an improvement of mood in the spring. a. Entrainment b. Internal desynchronization

c. Seasonal affective disorder d. Dissociation Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a description of seasonal affective disorder.

Page(s): 151 Answer: c

27.

Ernestine is currently undergoing treatment because she becomes depressed every winter. However, her mood seems to improve each spring. Ernestine is most likely diagnosed with a. seasonal affective disorder. b. premenstrual syndrome. c. sleep apnea. d. narcolepsy. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 151 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Clinicians report that some people become depressed during particular seasons, typically winter, when periods of daylight are short. This pattern of depression has come to be known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD). 28.

According to a recent survey of the prevalence of seasonal affective disorder, about what percentage of the U.S. population will ever suffer from SAD? a. Less than 1 percent b. 25 to 30 percent c. 40 to 60 percent d. Up to 85 percent Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 151 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: A national survey estimated the lifetime prevalence of major seasonal depression in the United States at only 0.4 percent, and the prevalence of major or minor seasonal depression at only 1 percent. 29.

Gloria’s doctor has prescribed expensive sunlamp treatments for her seasonal affective disorder. If Gloria asks for your advice about whether to try them, what should you tell her? a. SAD is due to cold weather, not lack of light. b. Light therapy is only an effective treatment for nonseasonal therapy. c. Light therapy has been effective in alleviating many cases of SAD. d. Light therapy is not effective in alleviating symptoms of SAD. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 151 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: A meta-analysis of 20 studies indicated that when people with SAD underwent light therapy, their symptoms were reduced. 30.

Controlled studies indicate that a. phototherapy is effective in alleviating cases of SAD. b. low levels of negative ions are effective in most cases of SAD. c. phototherapy is not effective in alleviating symptoms of SAD. d. 20 percent of the population or more suffer from SAD. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: Phototherapy is useful for most people with SAD. What is the role of progesterone in the menstrual cycle? a. It causes the lining of the uterus to prepare for pregnancy. b. It causes an egg to be released from the ovary. c. It facilitates conception. d. It helps prepare the uterine lining to receive the egg. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult

Page(s): 151 Answer: a

31.

Page(s): 151 Answer: d

Rationale: The release of progesterone helps prepare the uterine lining to receive the egg. 32.

The two hormones that appear to be the most influential in the menstrual cycle are a. estrogen and testosterone. b. estrogen and progesterone. c. progesterone and testosterone. d. progesterone and leptin. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 151 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The two hormones that appear to be the most influential in the menstrual cycle are estrogen and progesterone. 33.

Research on premenstrual syndrome indicates that _______________ of women have PMS symptoms predictably over their cycles. a. fewer than 5 percent b. about 25 percent c. about 50 percent d. about 75 percent Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 152 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Emotional symptoms associated with menstruation—notably, irritability and depression—are pretty rare. Fewer than 5 percent of all women have such symptoms predictably over their cycles. 34.

What element of premenstrual syndrome is the most questionable? a. the physical symptoms b. the emotional symptoms c. whether hormones are involved d. both the emotional and physical symptoms Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Emotional symptoms specifically associated with menstruation are rare.

Page(s): 152 Answer: b

35.

Your cousin Brenda says she is suffering from the following symptoms and claims it is due to premenstrual syndrome (PMS). Which of the following symptoms that she cites is the most questionable? a. breast tenderness b. cramps c. irritability and depression d. water retention Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 152 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Many women do have physical symptoms associated with menstruation, including cramps, breast tenderness, and water retention. But emotional symptoms associated with menstruation—notably, irritability and depression—are pretty rare. 36.

In a study of mood changes in men and women discussed in the textbook, researchers found that a. women had twice the number of mood swings as did men over the course of a month. b. no relation exists between stage of the menstrual cycle and emotional symptoms. c. women and men differ in the emotional symptoms that they report. d. women’s work efficiency dropped during the premenstrual period. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 152–153 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In a study of mood changes in men and women, researchers found that no relation exists between stage of the menstrual cycle and emotional symptoms. 37.

Research has found __________ between phase of menstrual cycle and work efficiency, problem solving, college exam scores, and creativity.

a. a significant relationship b. no relationship c. a slight relationship d. a negative correlation Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 153 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Research has found no relationship between phase of menstrual cycle and work efficiency, problem solving, college exam scores, creativity, or any other behavior that matters in real life.

THE RHYTHMS OF SLEEP Learning Objectives 5.5 The stages of sleep 5.6 What happens when we go too long without enough sleep 5.7 How sleep disorders disrupt normal sleep 5.8 The mental benefits of sleep 38.

Brain activity during sleep a. is relatively uniform, and does not change throughout the night. b. is very similar to activity during the waking state. c. is almost nonexistent. d. is correlated with changes in muscle tension, breathing, and other physiological responses. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 154 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Early sleep researchers found that different EEG patterns were correlated with specific physiological changes that occur during sleep. 39.

Periods of REM sleep alternate with periods of non-REM sleep in a cycle that recurs about every _______________ minutes or so. a. 30 b. 90 c. 150 d. 210 Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 154 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The REM-NREM cycle is about 90 minutes in length. 40.

The low-voltage brain waves produced during relaxed wakefulness or the twilight stage between waking and sleeping are called __________ waves. a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. theta Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 154 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: When you first climb into bed, close your eyes, and relax, your brain emits bursts of alpha waves. % correct 10 a= 10 b= 25 c= 65 d= 0 r= .35 41.

Which is the stage of sleep from which you would be most easily awakened? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate

Page(s): 154 Answer: a

Rationale: Stage 1 consists of light sleep. Compared to the deeper stages of 2, 3, or 4, a person would be more likely to be easily awakened during Stage 1 sleep. 42.

Emily is currently in Stage 1 sleep. This means she is a. experiencing irregular brain waves and light sleep. b. experiencing delta waves and walking in her sleep. c. relaxed but awake. d. hard to rouse and her muscles are completely relaxed. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Stage 1 is characterized by small irregular brain waves and light sleep.

Page(s): 154–155 Answer: a

43.

Emilio is currently in Stage 2 sleep. This means his EEG is showing __________ waves. a. only delta b. occasional delta c. occasional bursts of rapid, high-peaking d. only small, irregular Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: During Stage 2 sleep, the brain emits occasional short bursts of rapid, high-peaking waves called sleep spindles. 44.

During which sleep stage do sleep spindles first occur? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: During Stage 2 sleep, high-peaking waves called sleep spindles are emitted by the brain. 45.

Maxine is currently sleeping. Her breathing and pulse have slowed down, her muscles are relaxed, and she is very hard to rouse. Maxine is in __________ sleep. a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 or 4 d. REM Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: During Stages 3 and 4 (slow-wave sleep) breathing and pulse slows down, muscles relax, and people are hard to arouse. 46.

On average, REM sleep periods last about a. 5 minutes. b. 20 minutes. c. 30 minutes. d. 90 minutes. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 154 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: REM periods average about 20 minutes in length, but become longer through the night. 47.

The deepest stage of sleep is __________ sleep. a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. REM d. Stage 4

Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Stage 4 is the deepest stage of sleep. A sleeper in this stage is the most difficult to wake. % correct 80 a= 0 b= 0 c= 20 d= 80 r= .55 48. The stage of sleep marked by the production of very slow delta waves is __________ sleep. a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: During stage 4, EEG activity is mostly delta waves. % correct 55 a= 0 b= 25 c= 20 d= 55 r= .40

Page(s): 155 Answer: d

49.

What brain waves are probably dominant in the brain of someone who is sleepwalking? a. alpha b. beta c. spindles d. delta Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Delta waves occur in Stage 4 when sleepwalking usually occurs. 50.

If Alice's strange adventures in Wonderland were actually the dreams of a young girl, they probably occurred when she was in __________ sleep. a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 4 d. REM Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Vivid dreams are most likely to occur during REM sleep. % correct 95 a= 0 b= 0 c= 0 d= 95 r= .40 51.

On a typical night, REM sleep occurs for the first time a. within 1 minute of falling asleep. b. after about 10 minutes of sleep. c. about 70 to 90 minutes after sleep onset. d. after about 3–4 hours of sleep. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: REM sleep generally occurs for the first time about 70–90 minutes after falling asleep. 52.

REM sleep has been called “paradoxical sleep” because a. the brain is very active, yet the body is entirely inactive. b. the body is very active and restless, but the brain is very inactive. c. the eyes are open, though the person remains asleep. d. colorful dreams occur, in contrast to the black-and-white dreams of NREM sleep. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: It is paradoxical because the brain is very active, yet the body is almost paralyzed. 53.

Marsha is a participant in a sleep study. After about 30 minutes of sleep, she enters stage 4. What are the researchers most likely to observe when studying Marsha during this period? a. slow, rolling eye movements

b. reports of vivid, unrealistic dreams if Marsha is awakened c slow brain waves called delta waves d. muscle paralysis Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Stages 3 and 4 and for are characterized by the presence of delta waves.

Page(s): 155 Answer: c

54.

Judith is startled when her 6-year-old daughter, Laura, sleepwalks into the family room and begins to talk. It is most likely that Laura is experiencing the _______________ stage of the sleep cycle. a. REM b. first c. third d. fourth Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Sleepwalking generally occurs in Stage 4 of NREM sleep. 55.

The sleep stage characterized by long bursts of rapid, irregular brain waves and relaxed skeletal muscles is also associated with a. rapid eye movement. b. slowing of the heart rate. c. a drop in blood pressure. d. sleepwalking. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: REM sleep is characterized by irregular brain wave activity, limp skeletal muscles, and rapid eye movement. 56.

During which part of sleep are you most likely to dream? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. REM sleep Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: While dreams do occur during NREM, they are more likely to occur during REM. 57.

You wake up your friend Ernesto with a phone call late at night, and he describes the dream from which he awoke. He describes in great detail the colorful adventure he experienced. What stage of sleep was Ernesto most likely in when you woke him? a. Stage 3 b. Stage 2 c. REM d. Stage 1 Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: During REM sleep, vivid dreams are most likely to occur. 58.

James has been sleeping for about 90 minutes when his brain shows rapid, irregular waves. His blood pressure rises, his heart rate increases, and his skeletal muscles go limp. Which of the following is the most likely conclusion? a. James is chronically sleep deprived and his sleep, like his daytime activities, is abnormal. b. James is experiencing physiological changes that are normal for the third stage of sleep. c. James is experiencing unusual sleep because earlier he engaged in strenuous physical activities. d. James is experiencing physiological changes that are normal during REM sleep.

Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: These are all characteristics of REM sleep.

Page(s): 155 Answer: d

59.

When researchers studied whether dreaming occurs in non-REM sleep they found that a. it does, but the dreams are shorter and less vivid than in REM sleep. b. it does, but the dreams are longer and more fantastical than in REM sleep. c. it does not, unless the person has been chronically sleep deprived. d. it does not, unless the person is a patient with a severed corpus callosum. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 155 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Some dreaming does occur in NREM sleep, but it tends to be shorter, less vivid, and more realistic than REM dreams. 60.

The reason that REM sleep occurs is a. to allow the mind to solve the day’s problems during sleep. b. to allow memories to form. c. to release tensions from the previous day. d. unknown. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 156 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: There are several theories about why REM sleep occurs, but there is no final answer at present. 61.

During the night a. REM sleep periods become longer. b. delta waves increase. c. dreaming decreases in frequency. d. NREM sleep periods involve a more and more active EEG. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 156 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: During the night, REM periods gradually increase in length, whereas NREM periods become shorter. 62.

When sleep researchers have studied humans and other species they found that a. only the higher mammals, such as humans, the great apes, and bottlenose dolphins experience REM sleep. b. moles, because they can hardly move their eyes at all, are unable to experience REM sleep. c. only humans experience REM sleep. d. nearly all mammals, with perhaps the exception of bottlenose dolphins and the porpoises, experience REM sleep. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 156 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Almost all mammals experience REM sleep. 63.

What can sleep scientists say about people who do not get enough sleep? a. Their cortisol levels increase. b. Contrary to popular belief, they do not suffer from hallucinations. c. They become prone to narcolepsy. d. Their creativity often increases. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Chronic sleep deprivation increases levels of the stress hormone cortisol, which may damage or impair brain cells that are necessary for learning and memory. 64.

Chronic insomnia affects about _______________ of all adults. a. 5 percent

b. 10 percent c. 25 percent d. 35 percent Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: About 10 percent of adults report experiencing insomnia.

Page(s): 157 Answer: b

65.

Sleep apnea is a disorder in which a. a person suddenly falls asleep without warning during the day. b. a person has difficulty waking from sleep in the morning. c. a person periodically stops breathing during sleep. d. a person experiences bursts of aggressive behavior during sleep. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Sleep apnea is a disorder in which breathing briefly stops during sleep, causing the person to choke and gasp and momentarily awaken. 66.

Naomi’s breathing stops briefly during sleep, causing her to choke and gasp. What problem does Naomi most likely have? a. sleep apnea b. insomnia c. narcolepsy d. REM behavior disorder Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Sleep apnea is a disorder in which breathing briefly stops during sleep, causing the person to choke, gasp, and momentarily awaken. 67.

Narcolepsy involves a. unpredictable daytime attacks of REM sleep. b. inability to breathe while sleeping. c. a need for 12 to 14 hours of sleep each night. d. a need for only 5 to 6 hours of sleep each night. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Narcolepsy is a disorder involving excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of REM sleep. 68.

When Larry was a teenager, he began experiencing periods when he had a lot of trouble staying awake during the day, even though he was getting enough sleep each night. He also would experience sudden sleep “attacks” where he would collapse to the floor in the middle of an activity. Larry suffers from a. sleep apnea. b. insomnia. c. narcolepsy. d. REM behavior disorder. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Narcolepsy is a disorder involving excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of REM sleep. 69.

Ernie muscles are not paralyzed when he is dreaming. As a result, he literally acts out his dreams, sometimes injuring himself in the process. Ernie appears to suffer from a. severe sleepwalking. b. sleep apnea. c. narcolepsy. d. REM behavior disorder. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d

Rationale: In REM behavior disorder, the muscle paralysis that normally occurs during REM sleep is absent or incomplete, and the sleeper is able to act out his or her dreams. 70.

Jennifer has been studying day and night for so many weeks that she is chronically sleep deprived. She is now at risk of developing a. a total loss of the REM period when she does sleep. b. narcolepsy. c. increased levels of the hormone cortisol, which may damage or impair brain cells. d. sleep apnea. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Chronic sleep deprivation increases levels of the stress hormone cortisol, which may damage or impair brain cells that are necessary for learning and memory. It does not cause the other problems listed. 71.

_______________ is a sleep disorder involving sudden and unpredictable daytime attacks of sleepiness or lapses into REM sleep. a. Sleep apnea b. Insomnia c. Narcolepsy d. REM behavior disorder Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: This is a description of narcolepsy. 72.

Many adolescent needs about _____ hours of sleep a night for optimal performance. a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Some people do fine on relatively few hours, but most adults need more than 6 hours and many adolescents need 10 hours for optimal performance. 73.

Why might studying all night for an exam the next day be a bad approach? a. Memories are weaker if they are formed during the night. b. New information requires at least 24 hours to be processed by the brain. c. Staying awake for 24 hours is likely to cause hallucinations during the exam. d. Studies indicate that a good night’s sleep after learning can improve memory performance. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 158 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In a classic study conducted nearly a century ago, students who slept for eight hours after learning lists of nonsense syllables retained them better than students who went about their usual business. Hallucinations are unlikely to be an issue after a single night of sleep deprivation. 74.

Kyle and Yoko spent the same amount of time studying for a big exam. Kyle slept between studying and taking the exam, while Yoko did not. All other things being equal, which of the following is most likely to be true? a. Kyle has an advantage because sleeping after learning is believed to strengthen the memories. b. Yoko has an advantage because sleeping after learning leads to an increased risk of forgetting. c. Neither has an advantage as long as they both got a decent night of sleep at some point. d. Neither has an advantage because sleep is only related to memory for motor and perceptual skills. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 158 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a

Rationale: Many scientists believe that sleep plays a more active role by contributing to consolidation, in which synaptic changes associated with recently stored memories become durable and stable. In a classic study conducted nearly a century ago, students who slept for eight hours after learning lists of nonsense syllables retained them better than students who went about their usual business. 75.

Many researchers believe that sleep is necessary for _______________, a process by which recently stored memories become durable and stable. a. consolidation b. reinforcement c. encoding d. preservation Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 158 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Consolidation refers to the strengthening of recently formed long-term memories. 76.

If the theory that sleep plays a role in the process of consolidation, then sleep deprivation would be expected to cause a. an increased risk of infection. b. forgetting and poor memory performance. c. irritability. d. hallucinations. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 158 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Consolidation refers to the strengthening of recently formed long-term memories. If sleep is involved in the consolidation process, then sleep deprivation would be expected to cause a failure of those long-term memories.

EXPLORING THE DREAM WORLD Learning Objectives 5.9 Freud’s theory that dreams are the “royal road to the unconscious” 5.10 How dreams might be related to your current problems and concerns 5.11 How dreams might be related to ordinary daytime thoughts 5.12 How dreams could be caused by meaningless brain-stem signals 77.

Mitch emphatically states that he never dreams. If Mitch spent the night in a sleep laboratory, it would be most likely that a. Mitch would report a dream if awakened during a period of rapid, irregular brain activity. b. instead of dreaming, Mitch would engage in sleepwalking during REM sleep. c. Mitch’s sleep cycle would include four stages of non-REM sleep but no stage of REM sleep. d. Mitch’s electroencephalogram would show only slow, rolling eye movements. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 159 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Even though some people do not remember dreaming, research shows that, except for very rare cases, dreams do occur during their REM sleep. 78.

During _______________ dreams, people are aware that they are dreaming and feel as though they are conscious. a. REM sleep b. slow-wave sleep c. lucid d. latent Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 159 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is a description of lucid dreaming.

79.

Carl reports to his therapist that he had a dream in which he was aware that he was dreaming and felt as though he was conscious. He says he was able to control the action occurring in his dream much like a scriptwriter decides what will happen in a movie. The therapist nods her head and tells Carl that he experienced a. REM behavior disorder. b. paradoxical sleep. c. lucid dreaming. d. latent dreaming. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 159 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: People have reported having lucid dreams in which they are dreaming and feel as if they are conscious. 80.

Who said that dreams are “the royal road to the unconscious”? a. Allan Hobson b. William Shakespeare c. Sigmund Freud d. Rosalind Cartwright Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Freud made this statement because he viewed dreams as an expression of unconscious drives, conflicts, and wishes. 81

Freud called the hidden meaning of a dream its _______ content. a. surface b. manifest c. unconscious d. latent Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Freud distinguished between a dream’s manifest content, the aspects of it that we consciously experience during sleep and may remember upon wakening, and its latent (hidden) content, the unconscious wishes and thoughts being expressed symbolically. % correct 80 a= 5 b= 5 c= 10 d= 80 r = .21 82.

Dr. Sanchez is a psychoanalyst who is interested in analyzing dreams using Freud’s perspective. As a psychoanalyst, he focuses on interpreting the __________ content of his clients’ dreams in an attempt to understand their unconscious wishes and thoughts that may be expressed symbolically in their dreams. a. latent b. patent c. manifest d. marginal Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Freud called the unconscious wishes and thoughts expressed symbolically in our dreams the latent content. 83.

According to Freud, the visible, or directly observable, content of a dream is its __________ content. a. primary b. secondary c. manifest d. latent Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160

Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Freud called the aspects of a dream that we consciously experience during sleep and may remember upon wakening its manifest content. % correct 59 a= 29 b= 0 c= 59 d= 10 r= .74 84.

Steve is currently undergoing psychoanalysis. His therapist asks him to write down everything he remembers about his dreams upon awakening. According to Freud’s theory of dreaming, Steve is writing about the __________ content of his dreams. a. latent b. patent c. manifest d. marginal Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Freud used the term “manifest content” to refer to the aspects of a dream that we consciously experience during sleep and may remember upon awakening. 85.

Cory is in therapy due to trauma he experienced as a child. His Freudian-trained therapist regularly asks him about his dreams. The therapist is interested in his dreams a. in order to gain insight into his motives, desires, and conflicts of which he is unaware. b. because he wants to understand Cory’s random brainstem signals. c. in order to help him resolve current concerns and problems he is consciously aware of. d. as a way to help him eliminate or strengthen neural connections. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Freud concluded that nighttime fantasies provide insight into desires, motives, and conflicts of which we are unaware. 86.

The psychoanalytic theory of dreaming states that a. the purpose of dreaming is to express unconscious wishes, thoughts, and conflicts. b. there is no purpose to dreaming, dreams occur because of random brainstem signals. c. the purpose of dreaming is to resolve current concerns and problems that we are conscious of. d. dreaming is a by-product of a process of eliminating or strengthening neural connections. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Freud viewed dreaming as a way to express unconscious wishes, thoughts, and conflicts in hidden or symbolic form. 87.

This dream theory states that the purpose of dreaming is to express unconscious wishes, thoughts and conflicts. a. problem focused b. cognitive c. psychoanalytic d. activation-synthesis Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: This describes the psychoanalytic view of dreaming. 88.

Who said that sometimes “a cigar is only a cigar”? a. Allan Hobson b. William Shakespeare c. Sigmund Freud d. Rosalind Cartwright Section: Exploring the Dream World Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Even Freud admitted that not everything in dreams is symbolic.

Page(s): 160 Answer: c

89.

Which dream theory states that the purpose of dreaming is to express ongoing conscious concerns of waking life? a. problem-focused b. cognitive c. psychoanalytic d. activation-synthesis Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This describes the problem-focused theory of dreaming. 90.

Which approach to explaining dreams is best supported by the fact that students who are worried about getting a good grade in a class often have recurring dream of running out of time on exams, oversleeping and missing class, or suddenly realizing that a paper deadline was just missed? a. psychoanalytic b. problem-focused c. memory consolidation d. activation-synthesis Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The problem-focused explanation of dreaming is supported by findings that dreams are more likely to contain material related to a person’s current concerns—such as a breakup or exams—than chance would predict. 91.

A problem-focused explanation of dreaming suggests that a. the symbols and metaphors in a dream disguise a person’s true unresolved problems. b. dreams are usually about our everyday problems and may even help us to solve those problems. c. although dreams often represent our problems, they do not help us solve them. d. we are more likely to dream about good things that happen to us than about our problems. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160–161 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The problem-focused explanation focuses on dreams as a way of trying out solutions to our everyday problems. 92.

Which approach to dreaming suggests that our dreams are simply a modification of the thinking that goes on when we are awake? a. the problem-focused approach b. the psychoanalytic approach c. the cognitive approach d. the activation-synthesis approach Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 161 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The cognitive approach suggests that dreams are simply a continuation in a modified form of the thinking that occurs when we are awake. 93.

The __________ approach to dreaming emphasizes conscious concerns but makes no claims about problem solving during sleep. a. cognitive b. problem-focused c. activation-synthesis d. psychoanalytic Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 161 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The cognitive approach to dreaming emphasizes current concerns but makes no claims about problem solving during sleep.

94.

According to the cognitive approach, our dreaming thoughts are more unfocused and diffuse than our waking thoughts because a. the brain is less active during dreams. b. we have no sensory input or feedback from our bodies during dreams. c. dreams are not focused on a particular problem. d. dreams have symbolic rather than actual meaning. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 161 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: According to the cognitive approach, dreams differ from waking thoughts because there is no sensory input or feedback from our bodies. 95.

The ___________ approach to dreaming predicts that a person who is placed in an isolation tank, which completely deprives them of external sensory stimulation, would experience an awake cognitive state very similar to dreaming. a. problem-focused b. activation-synthesis c. cognitive d. psychoanalytic Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 161 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The cognitive approach predicts that if a person could be totally cut off from all external stimulation while awake, mental activity would be much like that during dreaming, with the same hallucinatory quality. 96.

The __________ approach predicts that as cognitive abilities and brain connections mature during childhood, dreams should change in nature. a. problem-focused b. activation-synthesis c. cognitive d. psychoanalytic Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 161 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The cognitive approach predicts that as brain connections mature during childhood, dreams should change in nature. 97.

According to the activation-synthesis theory of dreaming, the source of a dream is neuronal firing in the a. reticular activating system. b. cortex. c. pons. d. medulla. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 162 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: According to the activation-synthesis theory, dreams are the result of the cortex trying to make sense of the spontaneous signals originating from the pons. 98.

Research suggests that we typically forget our dreams upon waking because a. dreams often arouse anxiety that could intrude into our daily life. b. they are based on random neural activity forming disjointed images with no meaning. c. they often are sexual or violent in nature and our conscious mind represses them. d. cortical neurons that control the initial storage of new memories are turned off during sleep. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 162 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Cortical areas involved in the initial storage of new memories seem to be inactive during sleep. 99.

The activation-synthesis theory of dreaming states that a. the purpose of dreaming is to express unconscious wishes, thoughts, and conflicts.

b. there is no purpose to dreaming, dreams occur because of random brainstem signals. c. the purpose of dreaming is to resolve current concerns and problems. d. dreaming is a by-product of a process of eliminating or strengthening neural connections. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 162 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This theory views dreams as an attempt by cortex to make sense of random firing of neurons in the brainstem. 100.

The explanation of dreaming that places the least importance on the underlying meaning of dreams is the ____________ approach. a. problem-focused b. psychoanalytic c. cognitive d. activation-synthesis Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 162 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Hobson, who proposed the activation-synthesis theory, said that dream may be, “as much informational noise as a signal of something.” 101.

During REM sleep, neurons in the _______________ fire spontaneously. a. medulla b. cerebellum c. reticular activating system d. pons Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 162 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The brain activity of REM sleep begins with spontaneous activity of neurons in the pons. 102.

The activation-synthesis theory proposes that a. the cortex tries to make sense of random neural activity by creating dream narratives. b. the cortex is inactive during dreaming, so dreaming is completely controlled by the brainstem. c. the activity in the pons constructs or synthesizes dream narratives. d. dreams are active attempts to synthesize solutions to problems. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 162 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: This theory views dreams as an attempt by cortex to make sense of random firing of neurons in the brainstem. 103.

In his dream, Andy is an infant crawling through a dark tunnel looking for something he has lost. Which theory would be most receptive to an explanation that while Andy was sleeping, neurons in his pons that stimulate leg-muscle movement were active? a. psychoanalytic b. problem-focused c. mental housekeeping d. activation-synthesis theory Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 162 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: This interpretation would be consistent with the activation-synthesis theory of dreaming. 104.

During his lecture on dream theories, Professor Grant points out that a weakness of the__________ approach to dreaming is that there are no reliable rules that exist for interpreting the supposedly latent content of dreams and no objective way of determining whether an interpretation is correct. a. psychoanalytic b. problem-focused c. cognitive d. activation-synthesis

Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 162 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: A major criticism of Freud’s psychoanalytic theory is that there are no reliable rules that exist for interpreting dreams. 105.

One of the weaknesses of the problem-focused theory of dreaming is that a. there is no reliable way to determine latent meanings. b. some theorists are skeptical about the ability to resolve ongoing concerns during sleep. c. the theory doesn’t explain non-REM dreams. d. the theory says more about REM sleep than about dreaming. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 163 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Some theorists are skeptical about our ability to solve problems during sleep. 106.

A weakness of _______________ theory is that some theorists are skeptical about the ability to resolve concerns during sleep. a. psychoanalytic b. problem-focused c. cognitive d. activation-synthesis Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 163 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: It seems clear that some dreams are related to current worries and concerns, but they merely give expression to our problems. 107.

During his lecture on dream theories, Professor Hoffman points out that a weakness of __________ theory is that it does not account well for dreaming that goes on outside of REM sleep. a. psychoanalytic b. problem-focused c. cognitive d. activation-synthesis Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 163 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Activation-synthesis theory focuses on neurons firing spontaneously in the lower part of the brain, in the pons, during REM sleep; it does not account for dreaming outside of REM sleep. 108.

The dream theory that currently seems to be the leading contender is the a. Freudian theory of dreaming. b. problem-solving approach to dreaming. c. cognitive approach to dreaming. d. activation-synthesis theory of dreaming. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 163 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Cognitive theory, though relatively new, seems to be the leading contender because it incorporates many elements of other theories and fits what we currently know about waking cognition and cognitive development.

THE RIDDLE OF HYPNOSIS Learning Objectives 5.13 Common misconceptions about what hypnosis can do 5.14 The legitimate uses of hypnosis in psychology and medicine 5.15 Two ways of explaining what happens during hypnosis 109.

The trancelike state in which a subject responds readily to suggestions is a. Stage 4 sleep.

b. hypnosis. c. coma. d. meditation. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 164 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: People who have been hypnotized usually report that the focus of attention turns outward, toward the hypnotist’s voice, and that their response to a suggestion feels involuntary, as if it happened without their willing it. % correct 100 a= 0 b= 100 c= 0 d= 0 r = .0 110.

A central idea in the description of hypnosis is the word a. suggestion. b. superhuman. c. sleep. d. force. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 164 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Hypnosis is a procedure in which a practitioner uses the power of suggestion to influence the subject’s mental state. 111.

As a part of the campus entertainment program last week, Mark volunteered to be hypnotized. During the show, he did many things at the suggestion of the hypnotist. Afterward, like most people, he said that he felt his responses to these suggestions were a. impossible to remember. b. upsetting. c. involuntary. d. a violation of his morals. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 164 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: People usually report that their responses to suggestions made while they were hypnotized were involuntary. 112.

As a part of a requirement for her graduate degree in psychology, Julia and her classmates needed to practice techniques in hypnosis. Julia volunteered to be hypnotized. According to the textbook, which of the following is a technique that her classmate would most likely use to hypnotize her? a. suggestions to stay alert and pay attention b. administering a psychoactive drug c. waving hands in a swift abrupt manner d. having Julia concentrate on a color or a small object Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 164 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Sometimes the hypnotist has the person concentrate on a color or a small object, or on a particular bodily sensation. 113.

Regarding the use of hypnosis to assist memory, what is the main problem observed in the recall of information in studies so far? a. There is so much information recalled that it is difficult to handle. b. Most people recall things under hypnosis as if they were someone else, which challenges the chain of evidence. c. Hypnosis increases the amount of errors in memory. d. Hypnosis is never useful in jogging the memories of crime victims Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 164–165 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Because hypnotized persons are more willing than others to guess or to confuse mental images with reality, information recalled is more subject to error.

114.

Hypnosis a. increases the overall accuracy of the subject’s memories because individuals do not confabulate when hypnotized. b. is a procedure in which a practitioner suggests changes in the sensation or behavior of the subject, who cooperates by altering cognitive functioning in accordance with the suggestions. c. can produce age regressions in which adult subjects show the brain waves and mental performance of a young child. d. has been recommended by the American Psychological Association as an effective procedure to refresh eyewitness testimony in a court of law. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 164–165 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Hypnosis does not produce true age regression and does not necessarily improve memory. It is a procedure in which subjects are likely to respond to a hypnotist’s suggestions. 115.

Which of the following is true about hypnosis? a. The likelihood of being hypnotized depends mostly on the skill of the hypnotist. b. Hypnotized people cannot be forced to do something against their will. c. Hypnosis increases the accuracy of memory. d. A hypnotized person can do things that they could not do otherwise. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 164–165 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: A hypnotist cannot force a person to do something dangerous or against his or her moral standards. 116.

On the basis of controlled laboratory and clinical research studies, which of the following statements correctly describes hypnosis? a. Hypnotized people can be forced to do things against their will. b. Feats can be performed under hypnosis that are impossible without hypnosis, even by motivated people. c. Hypnosis increases the accuracy of memory. d. Hypnosis can be useful in the treatment of medical and psychological problems. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 164–165 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Hypnotic suggestions have been used effectively for medical and psychological purposes. 117.

Which of the following statements about hypnosis is correct? a. Hypnosis enables people to relive memories from infancy and early childhood. b. Hypnosis reduces errors in memory because hypnotized people do not confabulate. c. Hypnosis has been used successfully in anesthetizing women during childbirth. d. Hypnosis demonstrates that memories are accurately stored in the brain. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 165 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Hypnosis does not improve memory, but it has been used successfully to reduce the pain of childbirth. 118.

Noted hypnosis researcher Ernest Hilgard argued that hypnosis involves a. dissociation. b. a loss of memory. c. failure to monitor behavior. d. role playing. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Hilgard viewed hypnosis as an example of dissociation. 119.

A “hidden observer” is

Page(s): 165 Answer: a

a person, out of sight of the hypnotist, who monitors the process to make sure the hypnotist does not violate ethical standards. b. a part of the mind of the hypnotized person that watches but does not participate. c. a friend or family member who observes the hypnosis to protect the hypnotized person. d. the part of a person’s mind that participates in hypnosis. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis ` Page(s): 165 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: According to Hilgard, dissociation results in a part of the person that responds to the hypnotist and a separate part, the “hidden observer,” that sits back and observes what is happening. 120.

In Ernest Hilgard’s research on hypnosis, what is the relationship between the hypnotized person and the hidden observer? a. The hypnotized part of the mind is aware of the hidden observer who is not participating in hypnosis. b. Only the hidden observer participates in hypnosis. c. The hypnotized part of the mind is aware of the hidden observer who is also participating. d. The hypnotized part of the mind is typically unaware of the hidden observer who is not participating. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 165 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Hilgard stated that while most of the mind is subject to hypnotic suggestion, one part is a hidden observer, watching but not participating. 121.

With which one of the following statements would both psychologists who believe in the dissociation theory of hypnosis and those who believe in the sociocognitive theory agree? a. Hypnosis creates a state similar to sleep. b. Under hypnosis, memory becomes sharper. c. Hypnosis does not create a unique state in which people can do extraordinary things. d. A hypnotized person can replay early experiences with perfect accuracy. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 165–166 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Dissociation theory supports the belief that the hypnotized person is more easily influenced by suggestion, and the sociocognitive approach supports the idea that the hypnotized person plays a role, but neither believes hypnosis can make a person perform extraordinary tasks. 122.

The sociocognitive approach to hypnosis suggests that a. the hypnotized person is unconsciously playing a role. b. the hypnotized person is consciously faking or playing a role. c. past-life regression may be a real phenomenon. d. hypnosis is an interaction between the executive and the imaginative functions of an individual’s mind. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 166 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The sociocognitive approach views hypnosis as a form of unconscious role-playing. 123.

Which of the following statements best describes the role of the person under hypnosis, according to the sociocognitive approach? a. The person, in an altered state of consciousness, receives suggestions by the hypnotist. b. The person becomes a blank slate, ready to be written on by the hypnotist. c. The person’s consciousness is hijacked by the hypnotist and comes to act, see, hear, feel, or believe as the hypnotist wishes. d. The hypnotized person plays the role of someone submitting to the suggestion of the hypnotist. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 166 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: According to this view, the hypnotized person is basically playing a role.

CONSCIOUSNESS-ALTERING DRUGS Learning Objectives

5.16 The major types of psychoactive drugs 5.17 How recreational drugs affect the brain 5.18 How people’s prior drug experiences, individual characteristics, expectations, and mental sets influence their reactions to drugs 124.

Amphetamines are a. barbiturates. b. stimulants. c. hallucinogens. d. opiates. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 168 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Amphetamines (“uppers”) are synthetic drugs that act as stimulants. They can be taken in pill form, injected, smoked, or inhaled. % correct 81 a= 8 b= 81 c= 4 d= 7 r = .27 125.

Cocaine is a(n) a. opiate. b. stimulant. c. barbiturate. d. hallucinogen. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 168 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Cocaine (“coke”) is a natural stimulant, derived from the leaves of the coca plant. % correct 69 a= 19 b= 69 c= 8 d= 4 r = .24 126.

Chemical substances that change moods and perceptions are called __________ drugs. a. psychosomatic b. analgesic c. psychoactive d. prescription Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 168 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Drugs capable of influencing perception, mood, cognition, or behavior are referred to as psychoactive. % correct 89 a= 12 b= 0 c= 89 d= 0 r= .45 127.

Stimulants are a. drugs that speed up activity in the central nervous system. b. any drug capable of influencing perception, mood, cognition, or behavior. c. drugs that slow down activity in the central nervous system. d. drugs derived from the opium poppy, which relieve pain and produce euphoria. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Stimulant drugs increase activity in the central nervous system. Which of the following is a depressant? a. nicotine b. barbiturates c. heroin d. mescaline Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate

Page(s): 168 Answer: a

128.

Page(s): 168 Answer: b

Rationale: Barbiturate drugs are depressants. Nicotine is a mild stimulant, heroin is an opiate, and mescaline is a psychedelic. 129.

Which of the following drugs is a stimulant? a. mescaline b. alcohol c. amphetamines d. psilocybin Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 168 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Amphetamines are stimulants. Mescaline and psilocybin are psychedelics and alcohol is a depressant. 130. Which of the following drugs is a depressant? a. mescaline b. alcohol c. cocaine d. psilocybin Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 168 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Alcohol is a depressant drug. Mescaline and psilocybin are psychedelics and cocaine is a stimulant. 131.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of depressants? a. reduced anxiety, guilt, and tension b. increased energy c. decreased inhibitions d. decreased heart rate and respiratory rate Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs

Page(s): 168–169

Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Depressants make a person feel calm or drowsy. They do not create the sensation of increased energy. 132.

Which of the following is a depressant? a. alcohol b. nicotine c. cocaine d. amphetamines Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Alcohol is a depressant drug. The rest are stimulants. 133.

Page(s): 168–169 Answer: a

Shateesh takes a moderate dose of a tranquilizer. She is likely to experience a. wakefulness, alertness, and shortened reaction time. b. reduced anxiety and tension, and sedation. c. euphoria and relief of pain. d. exhilaration, visions, and hallucinations. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 168–169 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Tranquilizers are considered depressants and may be used to reduce anxiety and tension. 134.

Which of the following is most likely to be associated with a depressant drug? a. feelings of excitement, confidence, and euphoria b. feelings of increased energy and pep c. a sense of calmness and relaxation d. wakefulness, alertness, and shortened reaction time

Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: A sense of calmness and relaxation results from depressant drugs.

Page(s): 168–169 Answer: c

135.

Moderate use of __________ is associated with various health benefits, such as reduced risk of heart attack and stroke. a. cocaine b. alcohol c. caffeine d. mescaline Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 169 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Moderate drinking—a daily drink or two of wine, beer, or liquor—is associated with a variety of health benefits, including antidiabetic effects and a reduced risk of heart attack and stroke. 136.

Which of the following drugs is an opiate? a. mescaline b. psilocybin c. LSD d. heroin Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Heroin is an opiate drug. Mescaline, psilocybin, and LSD are psychedelics. Which of the following drugs mimic the action of endorphins? a. barbiturates b. opiates c. depressants d. psychedelics Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Opiates mimic the action of endorphins.

Page(s): 169 Answer: d

137.

Page(s): 169 Answer: b

138.

In the nineteenth century, many cities had “opium dens” were visitors could buy and smoke opium. A visitor to an opium den would likely experience a. wakefulness, alertness, and shortened reaction time. b. tension, depression, and reduced ability to store new memories. c. euphoria, “rush,” and relief of pain. d. exhilaration, visions, and hallucinations. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 169 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Opiates exert their influence on the brain by mimicking the action of endorphins, producing a feeling of euphoria. 139.

Elsa has just had major abdominal surgery and is in great pain. She asks her doctor if there is a medication that will eliminate the pain from her injury. Which of the following is her doctor most likely to prescribe? a. tranquilizers b. amphetamines c. opiates d. psychedelics Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 169 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Opiates exert their influence on the brain by mimicking the action of endorphins, producing a feeling of euphoria and analgesia (pain relief). 140.

Which of the following is true of psychedelic drugs?

a. They may be natural substances or may be synthesized in a laboratory. b. They consistently cause pleasant reactions, which is why they are used recreationally. c. They have been studied by researchers more than any other category of drugs. d. They cause hallucinations, but otherwise do not disrupt normal thought processes. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 169 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Some psychedelics, such as LSD, are made in the laboratory. Others, such as mescaline, Salvia divinorum, and psilocybin, are natural substances. 141.

Which of the following drugs is a psychedelic? a. mescaline b. alcohol c. amphetamines d. heroin Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 169 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Mescaline is a psychedelic drug. Alcohol is a depressant, heroin is an opiate, and amphetamines are stimulants. 142.

Stanley takes LSD. As a result he may experience which of the following effects? a. wakefulness, alertness, and shortened reaction time b. reduced anxiety and tension, and sedation c. euphoria and relief of pain d. exhilaration, visions, and hallucinations Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 169–170 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: LSD is in a class of drugs called psychedelics that typically produces visual hallucinations. 143.

When amphetamines are abused, the resulting effects are most likely to include a. nervousness, loss of appetite, high blood pressure, delusions, psychosis, heart damage, convulsions, and death. b. throat and lung irritation. c. impaired circulation, erectile problems in men, damage throughout the body due to lowering of a key enzyme. d. increased dosage needed for effects, impaired motor and sensory functions, impaired permanent storage of new information, withdrawal symptoms. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 170 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Nervousness, loss of appetite, high blood pressure, delusions, psychosis, heart damage, convulsions, and death are possible symptoms of amphetamine abuse. 144.

When LSD and psilocybin are abused, the resulting effects are most likely to include a. blackouts, cirrhosis of the liver, mental and neurological impairment, psychosis, and possibly death. b. heart disease, high blood pressure, impaired circulation, and erectile problems in men. c. loss of appetite, nausea, constipation, withdrawal symptoms, and possibly death. d. psychosis, paranoia, and panic reactions. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 170 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Psychosis, paranoia, and panic reactions are possible symptoms of LSD and psilocybin abuse. 145.

When marijuana is abused, the resulting effects are most likely to include a. throat and lung irritation, and impaired immunity. b. impaired motor and sensory function, as well as impaired permanent storage of new information,withdrawal symptoms, and possibly death. c. loss of appetite, nausea, constipation, withdrawal symptoms, and possibly death. d. psychosis, paranoia, and panic reactions.

Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 170 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Throat and lung irritation, and impaired immunity are possible symptoms of marijuana abuse. 146. Which of the following is true about marijuana? a. It is the third most commonly used illicit drug in North American and Europe. b. It mimics the action of endorphins. c. It does not fit well into any one category of drugs. d. It has no demonstrated medical benefits. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 171 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Some researchers classify marijuana as a psychedelic, but others feel that its chemical makeup and its psychological effects place it outside the major classifications. 147.

The active ingredient in marijuana is a. PCB. b. THC. c. LSD. d. PCP. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 171 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The main active ingredient in marijuana is tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), derived from the hemp plant, Cannabis sativa. % correct 92 a= 0 b= 92 c= 0 d= 7 r = .22 148.

At a biological level, how do psychoactive drugs primarily work? a. They alter the body’s basal metabolism rate. b. They act on brain neurotransmitters. c. They substitute one neurotransmitter for another. d. They interfere with brainstem function, which leads to cortical dysfunctions. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 171 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: At a biological level, psychoactive drugs work by acting on brain neurotransmitters. 149.

Despite its dangers, a young man continues to take cocaine because of the feeling of euphoria it produces for him. This powerful arousal of his nervous system is probably due to cocaine's ability to a. inhibit enzymes that break down neurotransmitters. b. increase the release of neurotransmitters. c. block the receptor sites for neurotransmitters. d. prevent neurotransmitters from being reabsorbed into the synaptic vesicles. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 171 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Cocaine blocks the brain’s reabsorption (“reuptake”) of the neurotransmitters dopamine and norepinephrine, so levels of these substances rise. The result is overstimulation of brain circuits and a brief euphoric high. % correct 40 a= 2 b= 22 c= 35 d= 40 r = .43 150.

Based on the information in your textbook, why might many people get into car accidents after only a couple of alcoholic drinks? a. A couple of drinks impair a person’s ability to gauge his or her own competence to drive. b. Moderate drinking causes long-term cognitive damage over time. c. Consuming small amounts of alcohol impairs even sober mental performance. d. The drivers are distracted by their awareness that they are impaired.

Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 171 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Just a couple of drinks can affect perception, response time, coordination, and balance, despite the drinker’s own impression of unchanged or even improved performance. 151.

Which of the following statements is true? a. Psychoactive drugs produce their effects primarily by acting on the endocrine system. b. Cocaine blocks the brain’s production of glutamate and GABA. c. Drugs can decrease the levels of a neurotransmitter by blocking reabsorption (reuptake). d. Heavy methamphetamine use can cause damage to dopamine cells and lasting impairment. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 171 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: In one study, heavy users of methamphetamine had damage to dopamine cells and performed more poorly than other people on tests of memory, attention, and movement, even though they had not used the drug for at least 11 months. 152.

Which of the following is true of recreational drugs? a. There is little evidence that light or moderate use damages the brain enough to affect cognitive functioning. b. The effects of heavy or frequent drug use typically disappear 6 months after quitting. c. The legal forms are less dangerous than the illegal ones. d. The occasional heavy use is safer than light, but regular use. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 171 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Although many psychoactive drugs cause tolerance and withdrawal, not all do. Most psychedelics, for example, do not cause tolerance and withdrawal. 153.

The phenomenon whereby higher doses of a drug are required to produce its original effects is a. a craving. b. potentiation. c. tolerance. d. withdrawal. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 172 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The use of some psychoactive drugs, such as heroin and tranquilizers, can lead to tolerance: Over time, more and more of the drug is needed to get the same effect. % correct 100 a= 0 b= 0 c= 100 d= 0 r= .0 154.

At a party, Rita tries cocaine for the first time but does not enjoy the experience. Which of the following would most likely be the case if Rita tried cocaine a few more times? a. Her experiences would stay about the same. b. She would dislike the experience more each time. c. She may learn to tolerate the drug, but her physiology will never allow her to enjoy it. d. She would become familiar with the drug’s effects and enjoy it more. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 172 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Trying a drug for the first time is often a neutral or unpleasant experience. But reactions typically change once a person has used the drug for a while and has become familiar with the drug’s effects. 155.

Nicholas and Dave both share a birthday and go to the same bar together when they turn 21. Neither has had a drink before, so they both have only two beers because they are unsure how the alcohol will affect them. Nicholas remains relatively sober, but Dave ends up feeling quite drunk. Which is the most likely explanation for the difference? a. experience b. individual characteristics c. environmental setting

d. mental sets Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 172 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Because Nicholas and Dave have similar experiences and are drinking in the same environment, it is most likely that individual characteristics—such as body weight, metabolism, initial state of emotional arousal, personality characteristics, and physical tolerance for alcohol—are the reason for the different amounts of intoxication. 156.

“Mental set” refers to a. the context in which a person takes a drug. b. the personality traits of the person taking a drug. c. a person’s expectations about a drug’s effects. d. the genetic characteristics of a person taking a drug. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 173 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: “Mental set” refers to a person’s expectations about a drug’s effects and the reasons for taking it. 157.

Which of the following best describes the “think-drink” effect researchers discovered? a. People who drink the most are the ones who planned in advance to drink a lot. b. People who decide to be sober remain sober. c. People act drunk if they believe their drink contains alcohol, whether it actually does or not. d. Beverage marketers take advantage of lower intelligence consumers in the marketplace. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 173 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Researchers found that people act drunk if they believe their drink contains alcohol, whether it actually does or not. 158.

Researchers have found that a. expectations have little to do with the effect of marijuana. b. the “think-drink” effect shows that alcohol is a placebo. c. culture shapes expectations about a drug’s effect. d. chemical properties of a drug override the user’s expectations. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 173 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Expectations can sometimes have a more powerful effect than the chemical properties of the drug itself. 159.

Drugs that have been declared illegal a. have more negative effects on health than legal drugs. b. are more addicting than legal drugs. c. have no known medical uses. d. may actually be safer, in some cases, than some legal drugs. Section: Psychology in the News, Revisited Page(s): 174 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: In reality, the legality or illegality of a drug has less to do with its safety than with its tendency to be abused. 160.

Which of the following statements is true? a. While the number of tobacco related deaths each year is large, it is small when compared to the combined number deaths caused by other forms of drug use. b. One of the problems with recreational drugs is that the only two realistic options are “eradicate all illegal drugs” or “legalize them all.” c. Illegal drugs are, by definition, more dangerous than legal drugs. d. Heavy use of marijuana poses risks. Section: Psychology in the News, Revisited Page(s): 174 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d

Rationale: Heavy marijuana use has some physical risks, just as heavy use of any drug does.

True-False Questions 1. Consciousness is defined as an awareness of oneself and the environment. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 147 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

2. A circadian rhythm is a biological fluctuation that occurs less frequently than once a day. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Circadian rhythms are about 24 hours in length. 3. Circadian rhythms exist in plants. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

Circadian rhythms are controlled by a biological clock, located in a tiny cluster of cells in the hypothalamus. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 148 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 5. Melatonin, a hormone involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms, is secreted by the pineal gland. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 149 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 6.

A comprehensive review of melatonin research mentioned in your textbook found little or no support for melatonin's effectiveness in treating shift-work desynchronization. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 150 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 7.

When an occupation requires a rotating work schedule, then workers should be switched as infrequently as possible. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 150 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 8.

A national study mentioned in your textbook estimated the lifetime prevalence of major seasonal depression in the United States at 25 percent Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 151 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The prevalence was found to be only 0.4 percent. 9.

Internal desynchronization is a controversial disorder in which a person experiences depression during the winter and an improvement of mood in the spring. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 151 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a description of seasonal affective disorder or SAD, not of internal desynchronization.

10.

Research on premenstrual syndrome indicates that fewer than 5 percent of women have PMS symptoms predictably over their cycles. Section: Biological Rhythms: The Tides of Experience Page(s): 152 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 11.

When sleep researchers have studied humans and other species, they found that only the higher mammals, such as humans, great apes, and bottlenose dolphins experience REM sleep. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 156 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Almost all mammals experience REM sleep. 12. The loss of a single night’s sleep does not affect mental flexibility. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The loss of even a single night’s sleep can impair mental flexibility, attention, and creativity. 13. Sleep apnea has been associated with a shortened life expectancy. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

14.

Insomnia is a disorder in which breathing briefly stops during sleep, causing the person to choke and gasp and momentarily awaken. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a description of sleep apnea, not of insomnia. 15. Narcolepsy often develops during infancy. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Factual Rationale: Narcolepsy often develops in the teenage years.

Answer: False

16. Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder involving sudden and unpredictable lapses into REM sleep. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 157 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 17.

Consolidation is a process by which the synaptic changes associated with a recently stored memory become durable and stable. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 158 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 18. Emotional memories are improved with sleep. Section: The Rhythms of Sleep Page(s): 158 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

19. Sigmund Freud would agree that the key to analyzing a dream will be found in the manifest content. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: According to Freud, the key to analyzing a dream is the latent content.

20.

The psychoanalytic theory of dreaming states that the purpose of dreaming is to express unconscious wishes, thoughts, and conflicts. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 21. The problem-focused theory of dreaming states that the purpose of dreaming is to resolve current concerns. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 160 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 22.

The activation-synthesis theory of dreaming states that there is no purpose to dreaming, dreams occur because of random brainstem signals. Section: Exploring the Dream World Page(s): 162 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 23.

Hypnosis is a procedure in which a practitioner suggests changes in the sensations, perceptions, thoughts, feelings, or behaviors of the subject. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 164 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 24. Hypnosis increases the overall accuracy of memory. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 164–165 Type: Factual Rationale: Hypnosis does not result in the improvement of memory.

Answer: False

25.

When hypnotized individuals are regressed to earlier ages, their brain waves reflect the age that they are reexperiencing. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 165 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Actual age regression does not occur and brain waves do not change accordingly in hypnosis. 26.

College students who reported being able to regress into previous lives under hypnosis were unable to describe the money used in their “past life” community. Section: The Riddle of Hypnosis Page(s): 166 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 27. Cocaine is a natural drug, derived from leaves. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 168 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

28. Psychedelics reduce the nausea and vomiting that often accompany chemotherapy. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 171 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Marijuana reduces the nausea and vomiting that often accompany chemotherapy. 29. Psychoactive drugs produce their effects primarily by acting on brain neurotransmitters. Section: Consciousness-Altering Drugs Page(s): 171 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 30.

Illegal drugs are always more dangerous than legal drugs.

Section: Psychology in the News, Revisited Page(s): 174 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The legality of a drug has more to do with its tendency to be abused than with its safety.

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 6 – Quick Quiz 1 1.

The point at which a person can detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time it is presented is called the a. absolute threshold. c. range threshold. b. difference threshold. d. noticeable threshold.

Failure to consciously perceive something you are looking at because you are not attending to it is called a. sensory overload. c. inattentional blindness. b. selective attention. d. sensory deprivation.

While riding on a train, David notices that the trees and telephone poles close to the tracks seem to flash by, while the buildings, trees, and mountains that are farther away seem to move by more slowly. This phenomenon is called a. aerial perspective. c. motion parallax. b. subliminal motion. d. motion differential.

Taste buds are contained in the tongue's a. papillae. b. hair cells.

c. d.

The four basic skin sensations are a. touch, temperature, pain, and burning. c. b. touch, warmth, cold, and pain. d.

underside. saccules. pain, pressure, warmth, and touch. pressure, pain, warmth, and touch.

A leading theory of phantom limb pain holds that this experience is due to a. expectations of pain. b. leftover nerve endings in the missing body part. c. the release of inflammatory substances that cause pain d. an inaccurate “body map” in the brain.

Which two senses keep us informed about the movement of our own body? a. homeostasis and balance c. equilibrium and kinesthesis b. equilibrium and homeostasis d. kinesthesis and homeostasis

10.

The tendency to perceive what you expect is called a. a perceptual set. c. misperception. b. the expectancy effect. d. the Lachman effect.

Chapter 6 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Sensation is the detection of physical energy emitted or reflected by physical objects; it occurs when energy in the external environment or the body stimulates receptors in the sense organs. (Page 181, Conceptual)

Rationale: The absolute threshold is the smallest quantity of physical energy that can be reliably detected by an observer 50 percent of the time. (Page 184, Factual)

Explanation: Failure to consciously perceive something you are looking at because you are not attending to it is called inattentional blindness. (Page 187, Factual)

Rationale: Where the optic nerve leaves the eye, at the optic disk, there are no rods or cones. The absence of receptors produces a blind spot in the field of vision. (Page 190, Applied)

Rationale: When an observer is moving, objects appear to move at different speeds and in different directions. For example, the closer an object, the faster it seems to move. This is known as motion parallax. (Page 194, Applied)

Rationale: The tiny bumps on the tongue are called papillae. Taste buds are located within the papillae. (Page 202, Factual)

Rationale: Four basic skin sensations are touch, warmth, cold, and pain. (Page 206, Factual)

Rationale: A leading explanation of phantom pain is that the brain has reorganized itself, resulting in an inaccurate “body map” in the brain and pain signals that cannot be shut off. (Page 207, Conceptual)

Rationale: The sense of equilibrium (balance) and the kinesthetic (body position) provide information about the movement of our body. (Pages 208–209, Factual)

10.

Rationale: Our expectations, or perceptual sets, have a large influence on what we perceive. (Page 212, Factual)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 6 – Quick Quiz 2 1.

Sense receptors convert the energy of the stimulus to ______________ that travel along nerves to the brain. a. chemical changes c. electrical impulses b. visual signals d. vibrations

In addition to a subject’s sensory capacity, signal-detection theory takes into account a. the tendency for the subject’s performance to worsen over time. b. the subject’s response bias. c. the tendency for the subject’s performance to improve over time. d. the amount of practice a subject has had.

As she studies in the library, Beatrice is not aware of the constant pressure of her watchband on her wrist. This is likely due to a. sensory adaptation. c. saturation. b. feature detection. d. the doctrine of specific energies.

Which type of receptor cell is associated with seeing colors? a. ganglia c. rods b. bipolar d. cones

Which of the following is a binocular cue to depth? a. interposition c. retinal disparity b. relative clarity d. linear perspective

The actual receptors for taste are found a. on the center of the tongue. b. on top of the knoblike elevations on the tongue. c. inside the nasal cavity. d. inside the taste buds.

The gate-control theory helps to explain our perception of a. pain. c. temperature. b. pressure. d. touch.

10.

Chapter 6 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Sensory receptors convert sensory energy into electrical impulses in neurons. (Page 182, Factual)

Rationale: Signal-detection theory takes into account a subject’s response bias, that is, the tendency to consistently respond in a particular way. (Page 185, Factual)

Rationale: This is likely an example of sensory adaptation, where a person becomes less aware of a constant, unchanging stimulus. (Page 186, Applied)

Rationale: Cones are receptors that are differentially sensitive to specific wavelengths of light and allow us to see colors. (Page 189, Conceptual)

Rationale: Retinal disparity and convergence are two binocular cues to depth, that is, two eyes are required to use these cues. (Page 195, Factual)

Rationale: Timbre relates to the purity or complexity of a sound wave. (Page 200, Factual)

Rationale: Taste receptors are specialized cells located within the taste buds. (Page 202, Factual)

Rationale: This theory proposes a “gate” in the spinal cord that can be closed, temporarily preventing pain information from reaching the brain. (Page 206, Factual)

Rationale: The kittens had lost the ability to see lines at the orientation that they had not been exposed to and could see only stimuli matching their experience. (Page 211, Conceptual)

10.

Rationale: Subliminal perception is below a person's absolute threshold. (Page 213, Conceptual)

Chapter 6 – Sensation and Perception Multiple Choice Questions OUR SENSATIONAL SENSES Learning Objectives 6.1 Why we experience separate sensations even though they all rely on similar neural signals 6.2 What kind of code in the nervous system helps explain why a pinprick and a kiss feel different 6.3 How psychologists measure the sensitivity of our senses 6.4 The bias that influences whether or not you think you hear the phone ringing when you are in the shower 6.5 What happens when people are deprived of all external sensory stimulation 6.6 Why we sometimes fail to see an object that we’re looking straight at 1.

Sensation is to _______ as perception is to _______. a. psychological; physical b. gathering; understanding c. understanding; gathering d. interpreting; detecting Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 181 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Sensation is the detection of physical stimuli or the “gathering” of sensory information. To make sense of the world impinging on our senses, we also need perception, a set of mental operations that organizes sensory impulses into meaningful patterns. % correct 77 a= 0 b= 77 c= 0 d= 23 r = .47 2.

“Detecting environmental stimulation” is one way to define a. perception. b. feeling. c. sensation. d. awareness. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 181 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Sensation is the detection of physical energy emitted or reflected by physical objects; it occurs when energy in the external environment or the body stimulates receptors in the sense organs. % correct 94 a= 6 b= 0 c= 94 d= 0 r = .28 3.

Sensation is a. the organization of stimuli to create meaningful patterns. b. the stimulation of the senses. c. the presence of sensory cell activity in the absence of external stimulation. d. the result of activity in the efferent nervous system. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 181 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Sensation is the detection of physical energy emitted or reflected by physical objects; it occurs when energy in the external environment or the body stimulates receptors in the sense organs. % correct 58 a= 24 b= 58 c= 8 d= 8 r = .43 4.

Our ________ enable us to make sense of the sensations that we are continually experiencing. a. sensory organs b. motor abilities

c. perceptual abilities d. sensory abilities Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 181 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Perception, a set of mental operations that organizes sensory impulses into meaningful patterns, allows us to make sense of the world impinging on our senses. % correct 90 a= 5 b= 2 c= 90 d= 3 r = .24 5.

Our sense of vision produces a two-dimensional image on the back of the eye, but we interpret the world in three dimensions due to the process of a. perception. b. sensation. c. specific nerve energy. d. functional encoding. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 181 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Perception allows us to interpret the information received from the eye as representing a threedimensional image. 6.

Our sense of hearing brings us the sound of a C, an E, and a G played simultaneously on the piano, but we interpret the sound as a C-major chord due to the process of a. perception. b. sensation. c. specific nerve energy. d. functional encoding. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 181 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Perception allows us to interpret the information received from the eye as representing a threedimensional image. 7.

Receptors that account for our sense of balance are found in the a. eyes. b. ears. c. nose. d. skin. Section: Our Sensational Senses Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Receptors for balance are found in the inner ear.

Page(s): 182 Answer: b

Sense receptors for smell, pressure, pain, and temperature are a. extensions of sensory neurons. b. specialized cells separated from sensory neurons by synapses. c. modified axons of sensory neurons. d. modified skin cells connected to sensory neurons. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 182 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: These sensory receptors are modified sensory neurons rather than separate cells. 9.

Sense receptors for vision, hearing, and taste are a. extensions of sensory neurons. b. specialized cells separated from sensory neurons by synapses. c. modified axons of sensory neurons. d. modified skin cells connected to sensory neurons. Section: Our Sensational Senses Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: These sensory receptors are specialized cells separate from sensory neurons.

Page(s): 182 Answer: b

10.

Sense receptors convert the energy of the stimulus to ______________ that travel along nerves to the brain. a. chemical changes b. visual signals c. electrical impulses d. vibrations Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 182 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Sensory receptors convert sensory energy into electrical impulses in neurons. 11.

The doctrine of specific nerve energies states that a. each type of sensory receptor releases a different type of energy. b. different sensory nerves release different neurotransmitters. c. each sensory neuron can respond to all sensory modalities. d. what a person experiences depends on what nerve was stimulated. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 182 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: The doctrine of specific nerve energies is the principle that different sensory modalities exist because signals received by the sense organs stimulate different nerve pathways leading to different areas of the brain. 12.

_______________ is sensory crossover where stimulation of one sense also evokes a sensation in another. a. Sensation b. Perception c. Synesthesia d. Signal-detection Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 183 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: A person with synesthesia may say that the color purple smells like a rose, the aroma of cinnamon feels like velvet, or the sound of a note on a clarinet tastes like cherries. 13.

Sarah says that certain colors make her experience different smells. For example, she says that the color purple smells like a rose to her. Sarah is displaying the symptoms of a. parapsychology. b. synesthesia. c. sensation pruning. d. functional sensation. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 183 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: These are the symptoms of synesthesia. 14.

Artist Wassily Kandinsky famously associated certain sounds with specific colors, and this was reflected in his painting. This has led some researchers to speculate that Kandinsky may have a. had a condition called synesthesia. b. experienced sensory adaptation. c. been susceptible to negative afterimages. d. experienced sensory overload. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 183 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Synesthesia is a rare condition in which the stimulation of one sense also evokes a sensation in another. 15.

_______________ codes rely on the fact that sensory receptors and neurons fire, or are inhibited from firing, only in the presence of specific sorts of stimuli. a. Temporal b. Anatomical

c. Functional d. Utilitarian Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 183 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: This is descriptive of functional coding where neurons may fire or not depending on the nature of the stimulus, and what we sense depends on which neurons are firing at what rate and pattern. 16.

Which of the following could be thought of as the neurological equivalent of the Morse code? a. a functional code b. an anatomical code c. a perceptual code d. a chemical code Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 183 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: A functional code is like the Morse code because the pattern of nerve impulses is important. 17.

__________ is likely the mechanism that allows us to distinguish between variations of experiences within a particular sense, such as the sight of pink versus red. a. Functional encoding b. Anatomical encoding c. Difference thresholds d. Absolute thresholds Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 183 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Information about which cells are firing, how many cells are firing, the rate and patterning of each cells firing constitutes a functional code. 18.

_______ studies the relationship between physical energies and psychological experiences. a. Physiology b. Psychophysics c. Psychometrics d. Psychopathology Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 183 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Principles from both physics and psychology provide a basis for understanding how the strength or intensity of a stimulus affects the strength of sensation in an observer. % correct 67 a= 17 b= 67 c= 0 d= 17 r = .69 19.

The point at which a person can detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time it is presented is called the a. absolute threshold. b. difference threshold. c. range threshold. d. noticeable threshold. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 184 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The absolute threshold is the smallest quantity of physical energy that can be reliably detected by an observer 50 percent of the time. % correct 68 a= 68 b= 13 c= 2 d= 17 r = .36 20.

The term "just noticeable difference" is loosely synonymous with a. separation threshold. b. difference threshold. c. response threshold. d. absolute threshold. Section: Our Sensational Senses Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate

Page(s): 184 Answer: b

Rationale: The terms “difference threshold” and “just noticeable difference” (jnd) are often used interchangeably. % correct 77 a= 1 b= 77 c= 3 d= 19 r = .34 21.

When Ann went to her doctor, he gave her a hearing test. During the test, the doctor presented tones to Ann through earphones. The tones varied only along the loud-soft dimensions (from very loud to very soft). The doctor asked Ann to raise her hand whenever she heard a sound. The doctor was testing Ann's a. auditory convergence. b. refractory threshold. c. absolute threshold. d. difference threshold. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 184 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: The absolute threshold is the smallest quantity of physical energy that can be reliably detected by an observer 50 percent of the time. % correct 38 a= 15 b= 0 c= 38 d= 46 r = .54 22.

The _______________ is a measure of the smallest amount of energy a person can reliably detect. a. absolute threshold b. difference threshold c. jnd d. sensory sensitivity Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 184 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The smallest amount of energy that a person can detect reliably (50 percent of the time) is known as the absolute threshold. 23.

Neil is seated in a dark room and asked to look at a screen. He watches as flashes of light, varying in brightness, are flashed one at a time. Whenever he notices a flash he informs the researchers. What are the researchers measuring? a. Neil’s anatomical encoding of brightness b. Neil’s absolute threshold for brightness c. Neil’s functional encoding of brightness d. Neil’s difference threshold for brightness Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 184 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of measuring the absolute threshold for brightness. 24.

Although the human senses are very sensitive a. they do not allow us to easily detect differences in intensity. b. they respond only to a narrow band of physical energy. c. there is no scientific way to measure exactly how sensitive they are. d. their jnd is low. Section: Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 184 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Our senses are very acute, but respond only to a narrow band of physical energies. 25.

Studies have shown that a. humans are sensitive to almost the entire range of electromagnetic energy. b. humans can hear sounds that are two octaves beyond the range of bats. c. humans are one of the few species that can see ultraviolet light. d. humans can see a candle flame on a clear, dark night from 30 miles away. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 184 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Humans can see a candle flame on a clear night from 30 miles away, but the other choices are not true.

26.

The difference threshold is a. the ability of different species to detect varying aspects of electromagnetic waves, from radio waves to cosmic waves. b. the smallest difference in stimulation that can be detected by an observer when two stimuli are compared. c. the difference in absolute thresholds between individuals with normal sensory abilities and those who have limitations in one or more senses. d. the difference between anatomical codes and functional codes when determining how individuals are able to experience so many different kinds of sensations. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 184 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The difference threshold refers to how different two things have to be for us to be able to tell the difference. 27.

Keegan notices that his favorite 55-cent candy bar seems lighter than usual and so he checks the label and finds that it is lighter by ½ ounce. He decides to buy a larger candy bar instead and doesn’t notice that the 99-cent candy bar also is lighter than it used to be by ½ ounce. Keegan’s behavior illustrates the fact that a. the just noticeable difference is not a reliable measure of psychophysiological judgment. b. sensory adaptation may occur in the short time between holding one candy bar and then the other. c. jnds are unpredictable because sometimes he can and sometimes he can’t detect a ½-ounce change. d. the larger a weight is, the greater the change must be before one can detect a difference. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 184 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: A jnd is not constant, but is proportional to the original stimulus. In other words, the larger (heavier, brighter, etc.) the stimulus is, the larger the jnd will be. 28. _______ theory was developed to isolate separate measures of sensory sensitivity and decision criteria used. a. Method of limits b. Method adjustment c. Signal-detection d. Method of constant stimuli Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 185 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Signal-detection theory is a psychophysical theory that divides the detection of a sensory signal into a sensory process and a decision process. % correct 67 a= 6 b= 11 c= 67 d= 17 r = .43 29.

In addition to a subject’s sensory capacity, signal-detection theory takes into account a. the tendency for the subject’s performance to worsen over time. b. the tendency for the subject’s performance to improve over time. c. the subject’s response bias. d. the amount of practice a subject has had. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 185 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Signal-detection theory takes into account a subject’s response bias, that is, the tendency to consistently respond in a particular way. 30.

In a signal-detection task, the participant says that he detects a signal when no signal was present. This is called a a. hit. b. false alarm. c. miss. d. correct rejection. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 185 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b

Rationale: If a subject detects a signal on a trial when it is actually absent, it is called a false alarm. 31.

In a signal-detection task, the participant says that he detects a signal and a signal was present. This is called a a. hit. b. false alarm. c. miss. d. correct rejection. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 185 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: If a subject correctly detects a signal on a trial when it is present, it is called a hit. 32.

In a signal-detection task, the participant says that she doesn’t detect a signal but a signal was present. This is called a a. hit. b. false alarm. c. miss. d. correct rejection. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 185 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: If a subject does not detect a signal on a trial when one is actually present, it is called a miss. 33.

In a signal-detection task, Jenny tends to be a “yea-sayer.” She will have a. more misses than “naysayers.” b. more correct rejections than “naysayers.” c. more false alarms than “naysayers.” d. fewer hits than “naysayers.” Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 185 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: If someone tends to say yes more than no, he or she will have more false alarms; that is, he or she will incorrectly guess that there is a stimulus when none exists. 34.

A decline in sensory responsiveness that occurs when a stimulus is unchanging or repetitive is called a. the difference threshold. b. psychophysics. c. sensory adjustment. d. sensory adaptation. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 186 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: This is a definition of sensory adaptation. 35.

When she goes into her mother’s kitchen, Amelia doesn’t know how long she will be able to stay in the room because of the overpowering smell of onions. But when her sister comes home an hour later and complains about the smell, Amelia realizes that she no longer smells the onions at all. This is an example of a. sensory adaptation. b. just noticeable difference. c. a correct rejection. d. a false alarm. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 186 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of sensory adaptation: the reduction or disappearance of sensory responsiveness when stimulation is unchanging or repetitious. 36.

As you take this test, it is unlikely that you are constantly aware that your legs are making contact with the legs of the chair. This is likely due to a. sensory adaptation.

b. sensory threshold. c. a correct rejection. d. a miss. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 186 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is likely an example of sensory adaptation, where a person becomes less aware of a constant, unchanging stimulus. 37.

As she studies in the library, Beatrice is not aware of the constant pressure of her watchband on her wrist. This is likely due to a. sensory adaptation. b. feature detection. c. saturation. d. the doctrine of specific energies. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 186 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is likely an example of sensory adaptation, where a person becomes less aware of a constant, unchanging stimulus. 38.

The absence of normal levels of sensory stimulation is called a. sensory adaptation. b. sensory deprivation. c. retinal disparity. d. perceptual constancy. Section: Our Sensational Senses Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of sensory deprivation. Too much stimulation can be bad for you because it can lead to a. bizarre visions. b. fatigue and mental confusion. c. auditory hallucinations. d. reckless impulsivity. Section: Our Sensational Senses Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Overstimulation can lead to fatigue and confusion.

Page(s): 186 Answer: b

39.

Page(s): 186 Answer: b

40.

At the orientation for first-year students, April felt overwhelmed by the number of people, the multiple conversations, and the forms that needed to be completed. April is experiencing a. sensory overload. b. her just noticeable difference. c. sensory adaptation. d. sensory deprivation. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 186 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Sensory overload may occur when an individual is exposed to multiple stimuli simultaneously over a long period of time. 41.

The capacity for _______________ protects us in daily life from being overwhelmed by all the sensory signals impinging on our receptors. a. sensory deprivation b. selective attention c. signal detection d. anatomical encoding Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 187 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b

Rationale: One function of selective attention is to protect us from being overwhelmed by the countless sensory signals that are constantly impinging on our sense receptors. 42.

The ability to focus on some parts of the environment and block out others is referred to as a. sensory deprivation. b. selective attention. c. sensory overload. d. inattentional blindness. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 187 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is a definition of selective attention. 43.

During a break from his job as a waiter, Barnardo begins to read Hamlet and is so engrossed in the play that he fails to notice the clattering of dishes all around him. This is an example of a. feature detection. b. absolute threshold. c. sensory deprivation. d. selective attention. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 187 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: This is an example of selective attention. 44.

Failure to consciously perceive something you are looking at because you are not attending to it is called a. sensory overload. b. selective attention. c. inattentional blindness. d. sensory deprivation. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 187 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Failure to consciously perceive something you are looking at because you are not attending to it is called inattentional blindness. 45.

Freddy is looking for his girlfriend in a large crowd of people. Because he is so focused on finding her, he fails to notice when a man in a clown costume walks by, despite looking directly at him. This is an example of a. a feature detection failure. b. sensory overload. c. sensory adaptation. d. inattentional blindness. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 187 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Failure to consciously perceive something you are looking at because you are not attending to it is called inattentional blindness.

VISION Learning Objectives 6.7 How the physical characteristics of light waves correspond to the psychological dimensions of vision 6.8 The basics of how the eye works, and why the eye is not a camera 6.9 How we see colors, and why we can describe a color as bluish green but not as reddish green 6.10 How we know how far away things are 6.11 Why we see objects as stable even though sensory stimulation from the object is constantly changing

6.12 Why perceptual illusions are valuable to psychologists 46.

For humans, the ability to _______ is probably the most important sense. a. hear b. taste c. see d. smell Section: Vision Page(s): 188 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: More information about the external world comes to us through our eyes than through any other sense organ. % correct 92 a= 8 b= 92 c= 0 d= 0 r = .30 47.

The intensity of light is related to our perception of a. hue. b. brightness. c. saturation. d. threshold. Section: Vision Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The intensity of light is related to how bright a light appears to be. The complexity of light is related to our perception of a. hue. b. brightness. c. saturation. d. threshold. Section: Vision Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The complexity of light is related to our perception of saturation.

Page(s): 188 Answer: b

48.

Page(s): 188 Answer: c

49.

Which of the following statements is true about white light? a. It is completely saturated and pure. b. It is a psychological dimension of vision. c. It is completely unsaturated. d. It is produced by shorter light waves. Section: Vision Page(s): 188 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: White light is completely unsaturated; that is, it is a complex mixture of a great many wavelengths. 50.

The wavelength of the light to reach your eyes determines what __________ you see. a. brightness b. hue c. saturation d. fine detail Section: Vision Page(s): 188 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Hue, the dimension of visual experience specified by color names, is related to the wavelength of light—that is, to the distance between the crests of a light wave. % correct 68 a= 14 b= 68 c= 8 d= 9 r = .41 51.

The _______________ protects the eye and bends incoming light rays toward a lens located behind it. a. pupil b. iris c. cornea

d. retina Section: Vision Page(s): 188–189 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: This describes the function of the cornea, the clear transparent front part of the eyeball. 52.

When you enter a dim room, the _______________ widens to let more light in. a. pupil b. lens c. cornea d. retina Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The pupil can dilate to allow more light to enter the eye, or constrict to limit the amount of light entering the eye. It will constrict in bright light and dilate in dim light. 53.

When Brett walks out of the theater into the glare of the sun, his _______________ gets smaller to let less light in. a. pupil b. lens c. cornea d. retina Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The pupil can dilate to allow more light to enter the eye or constrict to limit the amount of light entering the eye. It will constrict in bright light and dilate in dim light. 54.

The pupil is the a. opening in the center of the iris. b. colored part of the eye. c. white of the eye. d. lining in the back of the eyeball. Section: Vision Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: The iris surrounds a round opening, called the pupil, that lets light into the eye. % correct 89 a= 89 b= 11 c= 0 d= 0 r = .29

Page(s): 189 Answer: a

55.

The colored part of the eye which contains muscles to contract or expand the pupil is the a. lens. b. fovea. c. iris. d. cornea. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The amount of light that gets into the eye is controlled by muscles in the iris, the part of the eye that gives it color. % correct 95 a= 1 b= 2 c= 95 d= 3 r = .27 56.

The lens a. is the transparent outer membrane of the eye that covers the pupil and iris. b. allows one to focus on objects at different distances. c. allows light initially to enter the eye. d. controls the amount of light entering the eye. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The lens of the eye is located behind the pupil. It works by subtly changing its shape, becoming more or less curved to focus light from objects that are close by or far away.

% correct 77

a= 15 b= 77 c= 8 d= 0

r = .47

57.

Light is focused on the retina by the a. cornea. b. pupil. c. iris. d. lens. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The lens changes shape in order to focus the incoming light onto the retina at the back of the eye. % correct 92 a= 0 b= 0 c= 8 d= 92 r = .28 58.

Which of the following is the correct order in which light passes through the structures of the eye? a. lens, pupil, cornea b. lens, cornea, pupil c. cornea, lens, pupil d. cornea, pupil, lens Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In entering the eye, light first passes through the cornea, then the pupil, and finally the lens. 59.

Neural tissue lining the back of the eyeball’s interior, which contains the receptors for vision, is called the a. pupil. b. iris. c. cornea. d. retina. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Neural tissue lining the back of the eyeball’s interior, which contains the receptors for vision, is called the retina. 60.

Research on rods and cones has revealed that a. the fovea contains a mixture of about 75 percent rods and 25 percent cones. b. there are about 120 to 125 million rods and about 7 or 8 million cones in the retina. c. the outer edges of the retina, which are responsible for peripheral vision, contain only cones. d. rods are more effective than cones in distinguishing different wavelengths of light. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: There are about 120 to 125 million rods and about 7 or 8 million cones in the retina. The other statements are incorrect. 61.

Peggy cannot see a very dim star as she is looking straight up at it, but she can see it from the corner of her eye. Peggy’s vision is most likely a. typical, based on our understanding of peripheral vision. b. typical, because of the blind spot where the optic nerve leaves the eye. c. unusual, because foveal vision is more light sensitive than peripheral vision. d. unusual, because this is a pattern shown by those who are color blind. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Rods, which are located in the periphery of the retina, are much more sensitive to light than are cones. 62.

Which type of receptor cell is associated with seeing colors? a. ganglia b. bipolar c. rods

d. cones Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Cones are receptors that are differentially sensitive to specific wavelengths of light and allow us to see colors. % correct 92 a= 0 b= 3 c= 5 d= 92 r = .52 63.

The eyes convert light energy into neural responses that we experience as sight. The conversion of light energy into sight is done by receptor cells in the a. iris. b. pupil. c. blind spot. d. retina. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The visual receptors are located in the back of the eye, or retina. % correct 92 a= 0 b= 8 c= 0 d= 92 r = .41 64.

Light receptors that see best at night are the a. foveae. b. cones. c. shafts. d. rods. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Rods are more sensitive to light than cones are. They enable us to see in dim light and at night. % correct 100 a= 0 b= 0 c= 0 d= 100 r = .00 65.

What structure in your eye is most like the film in a camera? a. the retina b. the lens c. the cornea d. the pupil Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: While the visual system is not a camera, some parts perform similar functions. In a camera, the light is “detected” when it comes into contact with the film. In the eye, light is not detected until it reaches the retina. % correct 78 a= 78 b= 6 c= 11 d= 6 r = .66 66.

Rods and cones are found in the a. retina. b. iris. c. optic nerve. d. cornea. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: About 120 to 125 million receptors in the retina are long and narrow, and are called rods. Another 7 or 8 million receptors are cone-shaped, and are called, appropriately, cones. % correct 89 a= 89 b= 6 c= 0 d= 6 r = .30 67. Rods and cones are connected to a. optic neurons. b. bipolar neurons. c. interneurons. d. efferent neurons.

Section: Vision Page(s): 190 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Rods and cones are connected by synapses to bipolar cells, which in turn communicate with neurons called ganglion cells. % correct 75 a= 17 b= 75 c= 8 d= 0 r = .30 68.

The process by which rods and cones become more sensitive to light in response to lowered levels of illumination is called a. afterimage resolution. b. light adaptation. c. dark adaptation. d. afterimage adaptation. Section: Vision Page(s): 190 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Dark adaptation is a process by which visual receptors become maximally sensitive to dim light. % correct 77 a= 0 b= 15 c= 77 d= 8 r = .47 69.

The optic nerve is formed of a. ganglion cell dendrites. b. ganglion cell axons. c. bipolar cell dendrites. d. bipolar cell axons. Section: Vision Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The optic nerve consists of the axons of the ganglion cells.

Page(s): 190 Answer: b

70.

Although she is normally not aware of its existence, Ingrid discovers that she has a blind spot in her vision by closing one eye and focusing on a fixed point. What explains why Ingrid has this blind spot in her vision? a. She suffers from retinal degeneration. b. She is experiencing sensory adaptation. c. No photoreceptors are located where the optic nerve leaves the eye. d. There is insufficient light to activate her rods. Section: Vision Page(s): 190 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Where the optic nerve leaves the eye, at the optic disk, there are no rods or cones. The absence of receptors produces a blind spot in the field of vision. 71.

Ganglion cells and neurons in the _______________ respond to simple features of the environment such as light and dark. a. thalamus b. amygdala c. reticular activating system d medulla Section: Vision Page(s): 190 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Unlike cells in the visual cortex—which respond to more complicated visual features—ganglion cells and thalamic neurons typically respond more generally. 72.

Hubel and Wiesel identified neurons in the visual cortex that responded to lines at a particular orientation. These cells are referred to as a. feature detectors. b. line cells. c. pattern-sensitive neurons. d. Hubel-Wiesel cells. Section: Vision Page(s): 190–

191 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: These cells are referred to as feature detectors because they respond preferentially to a particular feature of the visual stimulus. 73.

In humans, some cells in the _______________ lobe respond maximally to faces. a. right temporal b. frontal c. left parietal d. occipital Section: Vision Page(s): 191 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The right temporal lobe of humans has some cells that respond maximally to faces. 74.

The trichromatic theory states that a. the visual system treats triads of color as antagonistic to each other. b. three types of color feature detectors in the visual cortex are responsible for color perception. c. three types of cones exist, each sensitive to a certain range of wavelengths. d. species that detect ultraviolet light perceive three colors that are outside of the range of humans. Section: Vision Page(s): 192 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The trichromatic theory applies to the first level of processing in the retina, which involves three different types of cones, each sensitive to a different range of wavelengths. 75.

The trichromatic theory explains a. the first level of color processing that occurs in the retina. b. the second level of color processing that occurs in the ganglion cells. c. the third level of color processing that occurs in the thalamus. d. the fourth level of color processing that occurs in the visual cortex. Section: Vision Page(s): 192 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The trichromatic theory applies to the first level of processing in the retina, which involves three different types of cones, each sensitive to a different range of wavelengths. 76.

The most common form of color blindness is a blue-yellow color blindness. b. red-blue color blindness. c. red-green color blindness. d. total color blindness. Section: Vision Page(s): 192 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: The most common kind of color blindness is red-green color blindness in which people have trouble distinguishing red and green. 77.

The opponent-process theory of color vision a. looks at how neurons code color information. b. looks at the way cones respond to different colors. c. looks at the way rods respond to different colors. d compares color processing in the fovea versus the periphery of the retina. Section: Vision Page(s): 192 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The opponent-process theory describes the second stage of color processing, which occurs in ganglion cells in the retina and neurons in the thalamus and visual cortex. 78.

Sandra stares for about 30 seconds at a green square. After 30 seconds, she looks at a white sheet of paper. What will she “see”?

a. a red square b. a blue square c. a yellow square d. a green square Section: Vision Page(s): 193 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The cells that switch on or off to signal the presence of “green” send the opposite signal “red” when the green is removed, and vice versa. This is referred to as a negative afterimage. 79.

Figure-ground is to _______ as dream interpretation is to psychoanalysis. a. structuralism b. functionalism c. Gestalt d. humanism Section: Vision Page(s): 193 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: It was the Gestalt psychologists who noted that people always organize the visual field into figure and ground. % correct 57 a= 28 b= 13 c= 57 d= 3 r = .22 80.

The _______________ belonged to a movement that began in Germany and was influential in the 1920s and 1930s. They were among the first to study how people organize the world visually into meaningful units and patterns. a. Gestalt psychologists b. structuralists c. behaviorists d. functionalists Section: Vision Page(s): 193 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This refers to the Gestalt psychologists, a group of German psychologists who studied perception and were influential in the 1920s and 1930s. 81.

As she watches her granddaughter’s dance recital, Patty perceives two separate groups of dancers. Her granddaughter’s group wore bright turquoise costumes with gold accents and the other group wore bright gold costumes with turquoise accents. Patty perceived the girls as belonging to two different groups due to the Gestalt principle of a. proximity. b. continuity. c. similarity. d. closure. Section: Vision Page(s): 194 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of grouping on the basis of similarity. 82.

When you look at the drawing below, your brain fills in the gaps so that you perceive a complete form—in this case, a square. This occurs due to the principle of

a. b. c. d.

proximity. continuity. similarity. closure.

Section: Vision Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is an example of the Gestalt principle of closure. 83.

Page(s): 194 Answer: d

When Mary looks at the following display she tends to see horizontal rows rather than vertical columns of faces. This happens because ☺

☺

☻

☺

☻

☺

a. lines and patterns tend to be perceived as continuing in time and space. b. the items that are in horizontal rows share the same features. c. items that are near each other tend to be grouped together. d. horizontal displays tend to be perceived as figure and vertical displays as ground. Section: Vision Page(s): 194 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of the Gestalt principle of similarity, which states that similar items will be grouped together. 84.

Elements that share common features such as size, shape, or color are viewed as a set. This defines which Gestalt law of organization? a. figure-ground b. similarity c. proximity d. closure Section: Vision Page(s): 194 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: According to the principle of similarity, things that are alike in some way (as in color, shape, or size) tend to be perceived as belonging together. % correct 90 a= 5 b= 90 c= 3 d= 2 r = .20 85.

Perceiving incomplete objects as complete defines a. figure-ground. b. similarity. c. proximity. d. closure. Section: Vision Page(s): 194 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: According to the principle of closure, the brain tends to fill in gaps and thereby perceive complete forms. % correct 76 a= 10 b= 4 c= 10 d= 76 r = .21 86.

phenomenon is called a. aerial perspective. b. subliminal motion. c. motion parallax. d. motion differential. Section: Vision Page(s): 194 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: When an observer is moving, objects appear to move at different speeds and in different directions. For example, the closer an object, the faster it seems to move. This is known as motion parallax. % correct 48 a= 12 b= 3 c= 48 d= 37 r = .31 87.

Single-eye vision is to _______ as double-eye vision is to _______. a. kinetic; monocular b. monocular; kinetic c. monocular; binocular d. binocular; monocular Section: Vision Page(s): 195 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Monocular depth cues require only one eye to use. Binocular cues require both eyes to use. % correct 97 a= 1 b= 0 c= 97 d= 2 r = .22 88.

The slight difference in lateral separation between two objects as seen by the left eye and the right eye is called a. retinal disparity. b. monocular. c. nonvisual cue. d. linear disparity. Section: Vision Page(s): 195 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This difference is called retinal disparity. 89.

The turning inward of the eyes, which occurs when they focus on a nearby object, is called a. convergence. b. retinal disparity. c. monocular depth. d. binocular depth. Section: Vision Page(s): 195 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is a description of convergence. 90.

Which of the following is a binocular cue to depth? a. interposition b. relative clarity c. retinal disparity d. linear perspective Section: Vision Page(s): 195 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Retinal disparity and convergence are two binocular cues to depth, that is, two eyes are required to use these cues. 91.

Binocular cues help us estimate distances up to about _______________ feet. a. 50 b. 75 c. 100 d. 150 Section: Vision

Page(s): 195

Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Binocular cues are helpful in judging distance up to about 50 feet. For objects farther away, we use monocular cues. 92.

Kevin watches as his wife Denise walks toward the house. Even though the retinal image of Denise grows larger as Denise approaches, she does not appear to be growing larger as she moves closer and closer to Kevin. This illustrates a. relative size. b. size constancy. c. retinal disparity. d. linear perspective. Section: Vision Page(s): 196 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of size constancy, the tendency to perceive objects as remaining the same size even when they are viewed from different distances. 93.

As Shane stands between the railroad tracks, the rails appear to converge in the distance. This cue to inferring depth and distance is called a. linear perspective. b. retinal disparity. c. relative clarity. d. relative size. Section: Vision Page(s): 195–196 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of linear perspective. 94.

The distance cue in which two parallel lines extend into the distance and seem to come together at one point is called a. linear perspective. b. aerial perspective. c. shadowing. d. motion parallax. Section: Vision Page(s): 196 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: One monocular cue is linear perspective: When two lines known to be parallel appear to be coming together or converging (say, railroad tracks or a highway stretching for miles ahead of you), they imply the existence of depth. % correct 94 a= 94 b= 1 c= 1 d= 4 r = .28 95.

Our tendency to see objects as relatively stable and unchanging despite changing sensory information is called perceptual a. closure. b. constancy. c. reversibility. d. coherency. Section: Vision Page(s): 196 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The ability to perceive objects as stable, or unchanging, even though the sensory patterns they produce are constantly shifting, is called perceptual constancy. % correct 91 a= 2 b= 91 c= 1 d= 5 r = .30 96.

Whether you are standing right next to it or a mile away from it, you know a tree is the same size because of a. the figure-ground distinction. b. the phi phenomenon. c. perceptual constancy.

d. retinal disparity. Section: Vision Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: This is an example of size constancy, a type of perceptual consistency. % correct 88 a= 10 b= 1 c= 88 d= 1 r = .42

Page(s): 196 Answer: c

97.

People with normal vision will perceive a pyramid whether they see the object from the side, top, or any other angle as long as the object is, in fact, a pyramid. This is the law of a. shape constancy. b. size constancy. c. figure-ground. d. visual angle. Section: Vision Page(s): 196 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Shape consistency allows us to perceive an object as having a constant shape even though the shape of the retinal image produced by the object changes when our point of view changes. % correct 89 a= 89 b= 1 c= 1 d= 9 r = .20 98.

When we look at a white house, we can recognize it as a white house by day or night and from any angle. This is due to perceptual a. closure. b. constancy. c. reversibility. d. coherency. Section: Vision Page(s): 196–197 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The ability to perceive objects as stable, or unchanging, even though the sensory patterns they produce are constantly shifting, is called perceptual constancy. In this example, we do not perceive the house changing color in the different lights because of color constancy, and we do not perceive the shape of the house as changing as our viewing angle changes because of shape constancy. % correct 86 a= 2 b= 86 c= 1 d= 10 r = .42 99.

Grant perceives snow as remaining white on cloudy days as well as on bright ones. He is not fooled even though the amount of light the snow reflects is different on cloudy days. Grant’s perception is due to a. convergence. b. relative clarity. c. texture gradients. d. brightness constancy. Section: Vision Page(s): 197 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: This is an example of brightness constancy, the tendency to perceive see objects as having a relatively constant brightness even though the amount of light they reflect changes as the overall level of illumination changes. 100.

Stewart is sitting in his office, which is lighted with a bluish neon light, eating a red apple. Even though the apple is bathed in bluish light, he continues to perceive it as red. This illustrates a. the trichromatic theory. b. relative clarity. c. the opponent-process theory. d. color constancy. Section: Vision Page(s): 197 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Thanks to color constancy, we see an object as maintaining its hue despite the fact that the wavelength of light reaching our eyes from the object may change as the illumination changes. 101.

An illusion due to misleading cues in stimuli, which cause us to create perceptions that are inaccurate or

impossible, is called a(n) _______ illusion. a. perceptual b. induced c. physical d. stroboscopic Section: Vision Page(s): 197 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Perceptual constancies allow us to make sense of the world. Occasionally, however, we can be fooled, and the result is a perceptual illusion. % correct 67 a= 67 b= 17 c= 6 d= 10 r = .33 102.

In the Müller-Lyer illusion, most people perceive the line with the outward-facing branches as longer than the line with inward-facing branches, despite the fact that they are really the same length. Which of the following is a likely reason why this occurs? a. The eye is distracted by the branches and cannot make an accurate measurement. b. The brain mistakenly interprets the branches as a depth or distance cue. c. The line with outward-facing branches produces a larger image on the retina. d. The branches interfere with the process of size constancy. Section: Vision Page(s): 197–198 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: One explanation for the Müller-Lyer illusion is that the branches on the lines serve as perspective cues that normally suggest depth. Because there is no actual difference in the distance of the two lines, the rule is inappropriate in this case. 103.

Perceptual research indicates that a. some illusions, such as a bent chopstick in a glass filled with water, are simply a matter of physics. b. binocular cues help us estimate the distance of objects that are very far away. c. cues to depth require the use of both eyes. d. the smaller an object’s image on the retina, the closer the object appears to be. Section: Vision Page(s): 198 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Binocular cues are useful only for objects less than 50 feet away; only some cues to depth require two eyes; and small images on the retina indicate a distant object. 104.

DJ is asked to participate in the replication of a famous experiment. The researchers place virtual-reality goggles on him so he sees the world from a camera placed on top of a mannequin. The researchers then stroke the mannequin’s arm while simultaneously doing the same thing to DJ’s arm. If the results of the experiment are consistent with the original study, DJ is likely to a. develop temporary phantom limb pain. b. become upset and disoriented. c. feel that his arm is paralyzed. d. experience the illusion that the mannequin’s body is his own. Section: Vision Page(s): 198 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In the original body-swapping experiment, most people soon had the weird sensation that the other body was actually their own; they even cringed when the other body was poked or threatened.

HEARING Learning Objectives 6.13 The basics of how we hear 6.14 Why a note played on a flute sounds different from the same note played on an oboe 6.15 How we locate the source of a sound 105.

Hertz is a unit of measurement of a. frequency.

b. amplitude. c. loudness. d. overtones. Section: Hearing Page(s): 199 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Frequency refers to how rapidly the air (or other medium) vibrates—the number of times per second the wave cycles through a peak and a low point. One cycle per second is known as 1 hertz (Hz). % correct 81 a= 81 b= 9 c= 10 d= 0 r = .26 106.

As sounds become louder, their ______ increases. a. frequency b. pitch c. amplitude d. hertz Section: Hearing Page(s): 199 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Loudness is the psychological dimension of auditory experience related to the intensity of a wave’s pressure. Intensity corresponds to the amplitude, or maximum height, of the wave. % correct 85 a= 8 b= 8 c= 85 d= 0 r = .60 107.

The height of a sound wave represents its a. pitch. b. amplitude. c. timbre. d. overtones. Section: Hearing Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Loudness corresponds to the amplitude, or maximum height, of the wave. % correct 92 a= 8 b= 92 c= 0 d= 0 r = .58

Page(s): 199 Answer: b

108.

An increase in the frequency of sound waves will correspond most directly to an increase in a. amplitude. b. pitch. c. loudness. d. decibels. Section: Hearing Page(s): 199–200 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Pitch is the dimension of auditory experience related to the frequency of a sound wave. % correct 72 a= 11 b= 72 c= 11 d= 6 r = .53 109.

The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are the a. three components of the eardrum. b. three tiny bones in the middle ear. c. membranes in the oval window. d. three components of the basilar membrane cochlea. Section: Hearing Page(s): 200 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The hammer, the anvil, and the stirrup are the smallest bones in the human body, and located in the middle ear, % correct 92 a= 8 b= 92 c= 0 d= 0 r = .20 110.

The complexity of a sound wave is related to the perceived _______________ of a sound. a. pitch b. loudness c. spectrum d. timbre

Section: Hearing Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Perceived timbre of a sound is related to the complexity of the sound wave.

Page(s): 200 Answer: d

111.

_______________ is what makes a note played on a flute, which produces relatively pure tones, sound different from the same note played on an oboe, which produces very complex sounds. a. Frequency b. Pitch c. Loudness d. Timbre Section: Hearing Page(s): 200 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Timbre relates to the purity or complexity of a sound wave. 112.

When all the frequencies of the sound spectrum occur, they produce a hissing sound called a. timbre. b. white noise. c. pitch. d. a pure tone. Section: Hearing Page(s): 200 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When all the frequencies of the sound spectrum occur, they produce a hissing sound called white noise. 113.

A snail-shaped, fluid-filled organ in the inner ear is called the a. cochlea. b. stirrup. c. basilar membrane. d. semicircular canal. Section: Hearing Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: The cochlea is a coiled, fluid-filled tube in the inner ear that looks like a snail. The retina is to vision as _______________ is to hearing. a. the cochlea b. the oval window c. the auditory canal d. the semicircular canal Section: Hearing

Page(s): 200–201 Answer: a

114.

Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: Both the retina and the cochlea are structures containing sensory receptors. The hair cells of the cochlea are embedded in the rubbery a. oval window. b. basilar membrane. c. auditory nerve. d. semicircular canals. Section: Hearing Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The hair cells are located on the basilar membrane in the cochlea.

Page(s): 200–201 Answer: a

115.

116.

The flexible membrane inside the cochlea is called the a. round window. b. eardrum.

Page(s): 201 Answer: b

c. oval window. d. basilar membrane. Section: Hearing Page(s): 201 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The hair cells of the cochlea are embedded in the rubbery basilar membrane, which stretches across the interior of the cochlea. % correct 69 a= 0 b= 23 c= 8 d= 69 r = .66 117.

Melissa likes to put her headphones on and listen to her MP3 player at very high volume. This habit will likely lead to her damaging the __________ in her ears, which can result in permanent hearing loss. a. eardrums b. hair cells c. semicircular canals d. small bones Section: Hearing Page(s): 201 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Brief exposure to extremely loud noises, or sustained exposure to more moderate noises, can damage hair cells and cause permanent hearing loss. 118.

Liana is listening to National Public Radio when the satellite feed momentarily goes out for a split second. Despite the short interruption, she was able to understand the conversation. This would be an example of the Gestalt principle of a. continuity. b. similarity. c. closure. d. proximity. Section: Hearing Page(s): 201 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of closure where our brain automatically fills in gaps in the stimulus. 119.

Sheila is at a loud restaurant with her friends. Despite all of the different conversations around her, she is able to follow the story one of her friends is telling. This auditory ability is similar to the visual ability to a. group objects according to their proximity. b. perceive figure as distinct from ground. c. see objects in low light. d. perceive color as constant in different lighting. Section: Hearing Page(s): 201 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The ability to focus on one voice and perceive everything else as background noise is analogous to the ability to perceive part of an image as the figure, and the rest as the ground. 120.

Which of the following is true regarding the Gestalt principles and hearing? a. None of them apply to hearing. b. The figure-ground principle is the only one that applies to both vision and hearing. c. All of the principles except for closure apply to both vision and hearing. d. Many of the visual principles also appear to apply to hearing. Section: Hearing Page(s): 201 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The Gestalt principles used to explain visual perception seem to also apply to auditory perception as well. 121.

Frida is sitting on a park bench when she hears a police car turn on its siren. Although she cannot see the police car, she is certain that it is nearby. What cue did her brain most likely use to come to this conclusion? a. the slight energy difference between each ear b. the slight time difference between when the sound reached each ear c. the overall loudness of the sound

d. the frequency of the sound Section: Hearing Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Rationale: We can estimate the distance of a sound’s source by using loudness as a cue.

Page(s): 201–202 Answer: c

122.

Uri is walking home alone on a dark night. He hears a stick breaking and immediately turns to his right to see what made the noise. What cue did Uri most likely use to tell which direction the sound came from? a. the timbre of the sound b. the slight time difference between when the sound reached each ear c. the overall loudness of the sound d. the frequency of the sound Section: Hearing Page(s): 202 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: To locate the direction a sound is coming from, we depend in part on the fact that we have two ears. A sound arriving from the right reaches the right ear a fraction of a second sooner than it reaches the left ear, and vice versa. 123.

Cats, among other animals, are able to rotate their outer ears. What advantage does this give cats over humans, who cannot move their earlobes? a. It helps cats determine which direction a sound is coming from. b. It allows cats to ignore sounds they are not interested in. c. It gives cats a greater ability to distinguish similar frequencies. d. It helps cats determine how far away the source of a sound is. Section: Hearing Page(s): 202 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Horses, dogs, rabbits, deer, and many other animals can rotate their pinnae (outer ears) in order to better determine the direction of a sound’s source.

OTHER SENSES Learning Objectives 6.16 The basics of how we taste, smell, and feel 6.17 Why saccharin and caffeine taste bitter to some people but not to others 6.18 Why you have trouble tasting your food when you have a cold 6.19 Why pain is complicated to understand and treat 6.20 How two senses inform us of the movement of our own bodies 124.

Taste buds are contained in the tongue's a. papillae. b. hair cells. c. underside. d. saccules. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 202 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The tiny bumps on the tongue are called papillae. Taste buds are located within the papillae. % correct 83 a= 83 b= 8 c= 0 d= 8 r = .56 125.

The four primary taste sensations are sweet, bitter, sour, and a. neutral. b. tart. c. acid. d. salt. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 202 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Salt is one of the basic tastes. “Salty” receptors on the tongue detect sodium, which a necessary for

survival. % correct 89

a= 6 b= 6 c= 0 d= 89

r = .20

126.

Taste receptor cells are located a. on the tongue. b. on the tongue and in the throat. c. on the tongue and on the roof of the mouth. d. on the tongue, in the throat, inside the cheeks, and on the roof of the mouth. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 202 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Taste receptors are located not only on the tongue, but also in other areas of the mouth and throat. 127.

The actual receptors for taste are found a. on the center of the tongue. b. on top of the knoblike elevations on the tongue. c. inside the nasal cavity. d. inside the taste buds. Section: Other Senses Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Taste receptors are specialized cells located within the taste buds.

Page(s): 202 Answer: d

128.

Investigators have found that human tongues a. can have as few as 500 taste buds or as many as 10,000 taste buds. b. show variation in sensitivity to taste but not in the number of taste buds. c. taste subtle flavors, such as vanilla or chocolate, even without the sense of smell. d. stop creating new taste receptors after about age 3. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 202 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: There is tremendous variability in the number of taste buds found on the tongue. 129.

Supertasters appear to have more taste buds and smaller papillae than nonsupertasters, and as a result, supertasters find that a. sweet tastes bitter. b. broccoli tastes sweet. c. sweet tastes really sweet. d. salt tastes sweet. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 203 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Supertasters perceive sweet tastes as sweeter and salty tastes as saltier. 130.

Tory eats a low-salt potato chip and spits it out and says, “That’s so salty!” She also cannot eat Brussels sprouts, pickles, or anything with a lot of saccharin in it because it tastes “too bitter.” It is likely that Tory is a(n) a. supertaster. b. taster. c. nontaster. d. umami. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 203 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Supertasters perceive sweet tastes as sweeter and salty tastes as saltier than other people do. They also often experience foods such as saccharin and broccoli as unpleasantly bitter. 131.

Of the smells that humans detect a. “fruity” and “rotten” seem to be the two basic smells. b. “spicy” and “flowery” seem to be the two basic smells. c. “musky” and “putrid” seem to be the two basic smells.

d. no smell seems to be more basic than any other. Section: Other Senses Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Unlike with taste, there do not appear to be a limited number of basic odors.

Page(s): 204 Answer: d

132.

When deficits in the sense of smell have been studied, it has been found that smokers a. are as likely as nonsmokers to have trouble detecting common odors. b. who have smoked two packs a day for ten years must abstain from cigarettes for ten more years before the sense of smell returns to normal. c. are twice as effective as nonsmokers at detecting danger by smelling a fire’s smoke. d. are likely to detect odors in the same manner as nonsmokers after quitting for one year. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 204–205 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Loss of smell can result from infection, disease, injury, or smoking. A person who has smoked two packs a day for ten years must abstain from cigarettes for ten more years before the sense of smell returns to normal. 133.

Bud has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day since he started smoking in 2001. If he quits smoking in 2011, he can expect that it will take at least until the year _________ before his sense of smell returns to normal. a. 2011 b. 2012 c. 2015 d. 2021 Section: Other Senses Page(s): 204–205 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: It takes about ten years for a heavy smoker’s sense of smell to return to normal. 134.

The four basic skin sensations are a. touch, temperature, pain, and burning. b. touch, warmth, cold, and pain. c. pain, pressure, warmth, and touch. d. pressure, pain, warmth, and touch. Section: Other Senses Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Four basic skin sensations are touch, warmth, cold, and pain.

Page(s): 206 Answer: b

135.

The gate-control theory helps to explain our perception of a. pain. b. pressure. c. temperature. d. touch. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 206 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This theory proposes a “gate” in the spinal cord that can be closed, temporarily preventing pain information from reaching the brain. 136.

When we vigorously rub a banged elbow, we are applying the principle of a. gate-control theory. b. pain management theory. c. phantom pain theory. d. neuron matrix theory. Section: Other Senses Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: This practice explains the gate-control theory.

Page(s): 206 Answer: a

137.

Which statement accurately describes the gate-control theory of pain? a. The “gate” at the spinal cord sends specially encoded signals to the brain. b. The “gate” at the spinal cord is opened by small neural fibers so that pain signals can reach the brain. c. The “gate” in the brain is an anatomical structure that serves to block or allow pain signals through. d. The “gate” in the brain sends pain signals to the spinal cord to be interpreted. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 206 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The experience of pain depends in part on whether pain impulses get past a “gate” in the spinal cord and reach the brain. 138.

A leading theory of phantom limb pain holds that this experience is due to a. expectations of pain. b. leftover nerve endings in the missing body part. c. an inaccurate “body map” in the brain. d. the release of inflammatory substances that cause pain Section: Other Senses Page(s): 207 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: A leading explanation of phantom pain is that the brain has reorganized itself, resulting in an inaccurate “body map” in the brain and pain signals that cannot be shut off. 139.

Isaac lost a leg in Vietnam after a land mine exploded near him. In middle age, he still has times when he feels intense pain that is seemingly coming from his missing leg. It is obvious that Isaac a. is craving the attention of his family and friends. b. has unresolved internal conflicts about the war. c. is experiencing phantom pain. d. has been faking the pain to avoid working. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 207 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of phantom pain, a poorly understood but real phenomenon. 140.

Karen has suffered from phantom limb pain for several years. She visits a neurologist who proposes trying a therapeutic treatment developed by Vilayanur Ramachandran. Karen is surprised that this simple treatment uses a. a bucket of ice and a bucket of warm water. b. a mirror. c. mental visualization and guided meditation. d. acupuncture needles. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 207 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Dr. Ramachandran’s treatment for phantom pain involves strategically placing a mirror to create the illusion that the missing limb is present and functional. 141.

Peggy and Nancy both receive flu shots. Peggy’s nurse warns her that the injection is going to be painful for a few seconds after the injection, while Nancy’s nurse tells her that the shot is relatively painless. Based on the study of expectation and pain discussed in your book, who is likely to experience more pain and why? a. Peggy, because she is expecting it to hurt. b. Nancy, because she was not prepared for the pain. c. Nancy, because the difference between her expectation and experience was the greatest. d. Neither, because expectations have little effect on pain. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 208 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Studies indicate that the expectation of pain can be a self-fulfilling prophecy. If you expect to feel pain, you may focus on it, and if you expect not to feel pain, that expectation, too, can become self-fulfilling. 142.

One reason placebos can reduce pain may be because

a. they are converted into active compounds in the body. b. the expectation that they will work affects the brain mechanisms underlying pain. c. they distract patients from their pain. d. they block the release of endorphins in the brain. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 208 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When placebos affect expectations (“I’m going to get relief”), they appear to also affect the brain mechanism’s underlying pain. 143.

Placebos taken for pain relief have been shown to increase the levels of _____________ in the brain. a. glutamate b. endorphins c. norepinephrine d. serotonin Section: Other Senses Page(s): 208 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Placebos promote the production of endorphins, the body’s natural pain-relieving opiates. 144.

Sanjay visits a pain management specialist who uses many cognitive-behavioral strategies to help patients deal with chronic pain. Which of the following is the specialist most likely to teach Sanjay? a. how to find the unconscious root of his pain b. how to activate pain gates using massage c. how to use painkillers and other drugs to most efficiently treat the pain d. how to substitute adaptive thoughts for negative ones, and to use coping strategies such as distraction and imagery Section: Other Senses Page(s): 208 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Many new therapies for chronic pain are based on cognitive-behavior therapy, which teaches people living with chronic pain how to substitute adaptive thoughts for negative ones, and to use coping strategies such as distraction and imagery. 145.

Which two senses keep us informed about the movement of our own body? a. homeostasis and balance b. equilibrium and homeostasis c. equilibrium and kinesthesis d. kinesthesis and homeostasis Section: Other Senses Page(s): 208–209 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The sense of equilibrium (balance) and the kinesthetic (body position) provide information about the movement of our body. 146.

After many ear infections during childhood, Zach developed damage to the semicircular canals in his inner ear. As a result, he periodically has difficulty standing upright and at times feels he is off balance. Zach is experiencing __________ difficulties. a. kinesthetic b. equilibrium c. olfactory d. auditory Section: Other Senses Page(s): 208–209 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Equilibrium, the sense of balance, relies primarily on three semicircular canals in the inner ear. 147.

After a mysterious inflammation, Christina experienced irreversible damage to her _______________ nerve fibers which at first left her as floppy as a rag doll. Although she eventually learned to use visual cues and willpower to sit and walk, her movements remained unnatural. a. kinesthetic

b. cranial c. olfactory d. optic Section: Other Senses Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: This can occur when kinesthetic nerves are damaged.

Page(s): 209 Answer: a

PERCEPTUAL POWERS: ORIGINS AND INFLUENCES Learning Objectives 6.21 Whether babies see the world in the way adults do 6.22 What happens when people who are born blind or deaf have their sight or hearing restored 6.23 How psychological and cultural factors affect perception 148.

The visual cliff is a device for studying a. depth perception in human infants. b. visual acuity. c. color vision. d. gross-motor coordination. Section: Perceptual Powers: Origins and Influences Page(s): 210 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The visual cliff is a device used to study depth perception in infants by testing whether they will crawl across what appears to be a steep drop. % correct 94 a= 94 b= 5 c= 0 d= 1 r = .27 149.

Research conducted with two-month-old babies and the visual cliff shows that the babies a. do seem to perceive a difference between the shallow side and the deep side. b. show no reaction when placed on either side of the “cliff.” c. seem to be afraid of the “cliff” only if their mothers look scared. d. use only monocular cues, but not binocular cues, to perceive depth. Section: Perceptual Powers: Origins and Influences Page(s): 210 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Babies can perceive depth in the visual cliff at least as early as 2 months, as indicated by the fact that their heart rate decreases when on the deep side, but not on the shallow side. 150.

When kittens were exposed to either vertical or horizontal stripes, and nothing else, for several months it was found that a. the kittens became completely blind. b. the kittens ran to play only when the researcher held up a bar matching their visual experience. c. the perception of vertical stripes is innate and so some kittens functioned in a normal manner. d. the perception of horizontal stripes in innate and so some kittens functioned in a normal manner. Section: Perceptual Powers: Origins and Influences Page(s): 211 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The kittens had lost the ability to see lines at the orientation that they had not been exposed to and could see only stimuli matching their experience. 151.

Tara was born with a deformity to her eyes that made effectively blind. When she was an adult, Tara had an operation that restored the functioning of her eyes to near normal. Despite this, Tara still had difficulty interpreting what she was looking at, judging distances, and recognizing faces. This is because a. she was not exposed to visual stimuli during the critical period for vision. b. she had her operation during the critical period for vision. c. her blindness caused the critical period for vision to become extended. d. her blindness caused her critical period to become shortened. Section: Perceptual Powers: Origins and Influences Page(s): 211

Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Visual experience is necessary during the critical period for normal vision. When adults who have been blind from infancy have their vision restored, most of them do not see well. Areas in the brain normally devoted to vision may have taken on different functions when these individuals were blind. 152.

The tendency to perceive what you expect is called a. a perceptual set. b. the expectancy effect. c. misperception. d. the Lachman effect. Section: Perceptual Powers: Origins and Influences Page(s): 212 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Our expectations, or perceptual sets, have a large influence on what we perceive. 153.

Which of the following is an example of how culture can affect perception? a. The Müller-Lyer illusion is more likely to work on a person from rural Africa who lives in rounded buildings than on someone from the West. b. The Müller-Lyer illusion is less likely to work on a person from rural Africa who lives in rounded buildings than on someone from the West. c. A thirsty person is more likely to see a mirage as an actual oasis in the desert. d. Pain hurts more if a person believes that someone else is causing it on purpose. Section: Perceptual Powers: Origins and Influences Page(s): 212 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: People who live in cultures without many rectangular rooms or buildings are less susceptible to the Müller-Lyer illusion.

PERCEPTION WITHOUT AWARENESS Learning Objectives 6.24 That perception is often unconscious 6.25 Whether “subliminal perception” will help you lose weight or reduce your stress 154.

When a person’s behavior is affected by a stimulus even when that stimulus is below the person’s absolute threshold for detecting it, it is an example of a. subliminal perception. b. thresholdless stimuli. c. exposed stimuli. d. ESP. Section: Perception without Awareness Page(s): 213 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Subliminal perception is below a person's absolute threshold. 155.

Miley is thinking about buying a subliminal message CD that is supposed to make her more assertive at work. Based on the information in your textbook, what should you tell her? a. “Be careful; subliminal messages are very powerful.” b. “Subliminal messages only work when the person does not know they are being used.” c. “Few studies have been done on the effectiveness of subliminal messages.” d. “There is little evidence that subliminal messages can be used to persuade people to do anything.” Section: Perception without Awareness Page(s): 214 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: While there might be some evidence that, when properly motivated, subliminal messages can be a little persuasive, many studies have shown that they have little or no effect. 156.

Researchers have found that after people are shown a face so quickly that it is perceived without conscious awareness, these people then

a. correctly identify the personality trait depicted in the face. b. correctly identify the facial expression depicted in the face. c. show a preference for the face that was presented to them. d. demonstrate no perceptual abilities regarding the face. Section: Perception without Awareness Page(s): 213 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Nonconscious processing appears to occur not only in perception but also in memory, thinking, and decision making. 157.

Much of the evidence for ESP comes from a. surveys. b. observations. c. experiments. d. anecdotal accounts. Section: Taking Psychology with You Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Most of the so-called evidence supporting ESP comes from anecdotal accounts.

Page(s): 216 Answer: d

True-False Questions 1. Perception is defined as the detection of physical energy emitted or reflected by physical objects. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 181 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a definition of sensation, not perception. 2. Scientists agree that there are five senses. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 182 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: There are actually more than five senses, though scientists disagree about the exact number. 3. All of the human senses evolved to help us survive. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 182 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

Sense receptors are specialized cells that convert physical energy in the environment or in the body into electrical energy that can be transmitted as nerve impulses to the brain. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 182 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 5.

The receptors for vision, hearing, and taste are specialized cells separated from sensory neurons by synapses. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 182 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 6.

According to the doctrine of specific nerve energies, if sound waves could stimulate nerves that end in the visual part of the brain, then we would “see” sounds. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 182 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 7.

When measuring absolute threshold, reliable detection is said to occur when a person can detect a signal 99 percent of the time.

Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 184 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Reliable detection is said to occur when a person can detect a signal 50 percent of the time. 8.

When two stimuli are compared, the smallest difference in stimulation that can be reliably detected by an observer is called the sensory threshold. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 184 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: It is called the difference threshold or jnd. 9.

Procedures to determine absolute thresholds have a serious limitation based on the person’s general tendency to respond either “yes” or “no” when uncertain. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 185 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 10. In signal-detection tasks, yea-sayers will have more hits than naysayers. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 185 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 11. In signal-detection tasks, naysayers will have more misses than yea-sayers. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 185 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

12. Sensory adaptation spares us from having to respond to unimportant sensory information. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 186 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 13.

Contemporary studies of sensory deprivation indicate that some perceptual and intellectual abilities improve during periods of deprivation. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 186 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 14. Shorter light waves tend to be seen as orange and red. Section: Vision Page(s): 188 Type: Factual Rationale: Shorter light waves are seen as blue and violet. 15. The intensity of light corresponds to the amplitude of the light wave. Section: Vision Page(s): 188 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 16. When light contains every wavelength, it is said to be “pure.” Section: Vision Page(s): 187 Type: Factual Rationale: It is said to be white light.

Answer: False

Answer: True

Answer: False

17. The lens of the eye functions in the same way as does the lens of a camera. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: A camera lens focuses by moving closer or farther away for a stimulus, but the lens in the eye

focuses by changing its shape or curvature. 18. When you enter a dim room, the pupil in your eye contracts. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Rationale: The pupil dilates in dim light. 19. The fovea contains a mixture of about 75 percent rods and 25 percent cones. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Rationale: The fovea, or center of the retina, contains only cones. 20. Visual receptors that are involved in color vision are called cones. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 21. Rods need much more light than do cones in order to respond. Section: Vision Page(s): 189 Type: Factual Rationale: Cones need much more light than rods; they are less sensitive to light.

Answer: False

Answer: True

Answer: False

22. Dark adaptation is the process by which visual receptors become maximally sensitive to dim light. Section: Vision Page(s): 190 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 23.

Ganglion cells are neurons in the retina of the eye that gather information from receptor cells by way of bipolar cells. Section: Vision Page(s): 190 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 24. Special cells in the frontal lobe respond maximally to faces. Section: Vision Page(s): 191 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Cells that respond to faces are found in the right temporal lobe, not the frontal lobe. 25. The three basic types of cones in the retina each respond maximally to a different wavelength. Section: Vision Page(s): 192 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 26. The most rare type of color deficiency occurs when individuals are unable to distinguish red from green. Section: Vision Page(s): 192 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Red-green color blindness is the most common kind of color deficiency. 27.

The opponent-process theory applies to the second stage of color processing, which occurs in ganglion cells and neurons in the thalamus. Section: Vision Page(s): 192 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 28. The motto of the Gestalt psychologists was “The whole equals the sum of its parts.” Section: Vision

Page(s): 193 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The Gestalt psychologists’ motto was “The whole is more than the sum of its parts.” 29.

In order to infer an object’s location we estimate its distance from us through binocular and monocular cues. Section: Vision Page(s): 195 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 30. Interposition is one of the binocular cues to depth. Section: Vision Page(s): 195–196 Type: Factual Rationale: Interposition is a monocular depth cue.

Answer: False

31.

The stimulus for a sound is a wave of pressure created when an object vibrates or when compressed air is released. Section: Hearing Page(s): 199 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 32. The intensity of a wave’s pressure corresponds to a sound’s pitch. Section: Hearing Page(s): 199 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The intensity or amplitude of the wave corresponds to the loudness of a sound. 33. Pure tones are extremely rare in nature. Section: Hearing Page(s): 200 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

34.

Timbre is what makes a note played on a flute, which produces relatively pure tones, sound different from the same note played on an oboe, which produces very complex sounds. Section: Hearing Page(s): 200 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 35. The smallest bones in the human body are found in the middle ear. Section: Hearing Page(s): 200 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

36. The organ of Corti plays the same role in hearing that the retina plays in vision. Section: Hearing Page(s): 200–201 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 37.

It is most difficult for humans to localize sounds that are coming from directly in back of them or directly above their heads. Section: Hearing Page(s): 202 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 38. The receptor cells for taste are called “taste buds.” Section: Other Senses Page(s): 202 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The taste buds are commonly referred to, mistakenly, as the receptors for taste. The actual

receptor cells are inside the buds. 39. Taste receptors are located primarily on the tongue, but also in the throat, cheeks, and roof of the mouth. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 202 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 40. Some researchers now include a fifth taste, umami, which is the taste found in many protein-rich foods. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 203 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 41. Research on our sense of smell reveals four basic scents: flowery, spicy, rotten, and musky. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 204 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: There do not seem to be any odors that are more basic than any others. 42.

The gate-control theory of pain states that the experience of pain depends, in part, on whether pain impulses get past a neurological “gate.” Section: Other Senses Page(s): 206 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 43.

Even when the spinal cord had been completely severed, amputees often continue to report pain from areas below the break. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 207 Type: Applied Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 44.

Gate-control therapy can teach pain sufferers to use coping strategies such as distraction and imagery to alleviate their suffering. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 208 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a description of cognitive-behavior therapy. 45.

When adults who have been blind from infancy have their vision restored they are able to make sense of what they see within days. Section: Perceptual Powers: Origins and Influences Page(s): 211 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Adults who have sight restored do not see well. They have problems with depth perception, and have trouble identifying objects by sight. 46. Nonconscious processing of information does not occur in humans. Section: Perception without Awareness Page(s): 214 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Nonconscious processing of information occurs not only in perception, but also in memory, thinking, and decision making. 47.

Precognition is defined as the direct communication between one mind and another without the usual sensory signals. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 216 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a definition of telepathy, not precognition.

Short Answer Questions 1.

Zoe is a participant in a psychophysical study and is having her absolute threshold for brightness measured. Describe the procedure for determining this measurement. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 184 Type: Applied Answer: The subject is asked to sit in a dark room and watch a screen. Flashes of light, varying in intensity, would be presented, one at a time. The subject would be asked to say when a flash of light is noticed. The absolute threshold will be the intensity level at which the subject is able to detect the light flashes 50 percent of the time. 2.

According to signal-detection theory, an observer’s response in a detection task involves a sensory process and a decision process. To separate these two components, a researcher may include some trials in which no stimulus is present and others in which a weak stimulus is present. Under these conditions, four kinds of responses are possible. Complete the table with the names of the responses that are possible. Stimulus is present

Stimulus is absent

Person responds by saying the stimulus is present Person responds by saying the stimulus is absent. Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 185 Type: Conceptual Answer: upper left = hit; upper right = false alarm; lower left = miss; lower right = correct rejection 3. Describe the three types of cones proposed by the trichromatic theory of color vision. Section: Vision Page(s): 192 Type: Factual Answer: According to the trichromatic theory, there are three different types of cones--those that respond maximally to red, to green, and to blue. 4.

If you stare at a green heart with a yellow border for 20 seconds and then switch to a piece of white paper, you will see a red heart with a blue border. How does opponent-process theory explain this finding? Section: Vision Page(s): 192–193 Type: Conceptual Answer: Ganglion cells signal color in the opposing pairs of red-green and blue-yellow. For example, a cell that fires in response to red will be inhibited by green. The negative afterimage of the heart is created because of a neural rebound effect: The cells that fire more or less to signal the presence of “green” send the opposite signal (“red”) when the green is removed, and vice versa. 5.

After taking your friend to the airport, you stay to watch the plane take off. As you watch it, the plane’s image on your retina becomes smaller and smaller. Explain why you don’t you perceive the airplane (and thus your friend) as shrinking in size. Section: Vision Page(s): 196 Type: Applied Answer: We see an object as having a constant size even when its retinal image becomes smaller or larger. Size constancy depends on familiarity with objects and on the apparent distance of an object. 6.

How do we typically locate the direction a sound is coming from? Why is it so difficult to tell whether a sound’s source is directly behind you or directly overhead? Section: Hearing Page(s): 202 Type: Factual

Answer: A sound arriving from the right reaches the right ear a fraction of a second sooner than it reaches the left ear, and vice versa. The sound may also provide a bit more energy to the near ear (depending on its frequency). It is hard to localize sounds that are coming from directly in back of you or from directly above your head because such sounds reach both ears at the same time. 7. Briefly describe the presumed evolutionary significance of the following tastes: bitter and sweet. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 203 Type: Conceptual Answer: Bitter helps us to identify foods that are rancid or poisonous; sweet helps us identify foods that are healthy or rich in calories. 8. Describe the role of the semicircular canals in the inner ear. Section: Other Senses Page(s): 208–209 Type: Conceptual Answer: The semicircular canals are sense organs in the inner ear that respond to the rotation of the head. They contribute to our equilibrium, or sense of balance. For example, they tell us whether we are standing upright, on our side, or upside down, even with our eyes closed. 9. Describe what is meant by a “critical period” for sensory and perceptual experiences. Section: Perceptual Powers: Origins and Influences Page(s): 211 Type: Factual Answer: Certain experiences during a critical window of time (typically during infancy) shape one’s perceptual abilities; if experiences do not occur during the critical period, perception will be impaired into adulthood. 10.

James Randi, a famous magician, has offered a million dollars to anyone who can demonstrate ESP or other paranormal powers. What has happened? Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 216 Type: Factual Answer: Many have taken up the challenge, but none have succeeded.

Essay Questions 1.

If the sensory nerves all use exactly the same form of communication (a neural impulse), how do we experience so many different kinds of sensation? Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 182–183 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  There are two ways in which information about the stimulus is coded: anatomical coding and functional coding.  Johannes Müller proposed the doctrine of specific nerve energies, a type of anatomical coding, in 1826.  According to this doctrine, different sensory modalities exist because signals received by the sense organs stimulate different nerve pathways leading to different areas of the brain.  Functional codes rely on the fact that sensory receptors and neurons fire, or are inhibited from firing, only in the presence of specific sorts of stimuli.  Information about which cells are firing, how many cells are firing, the rate at which cells are firing, and the patterning of each cell’s firing forms a functional code.

In sensory deprivation studies, researchers were interested in what would happen if our senses adapted to most incoming stimuli. Explain the findings and the procedural limitations of the early studies in sensory deprivation. What has been revealed by later research? How do think that you would respond if you spent an hour alone in a “flotation tank”? Section: Our Sensational Senses Page(s): 186

Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  In early studies of sensory deprivation, researchers isolated male volunteers from all patterned sight and sound.  Within a few hours, most of the men felt edgy and many were so disoriented that they quit the first day.  Those subjects that continued became confused, restless, and grouchy, and many experienced hallucinations.  A problem with these early studies was that the procedures themselves generated anxiety in the subjects.  More recent studies show that the response to sensory deprivation depends on expectations and interpretations.  Those who voluntarily engage in sensory deprivation may find it to be relaxing. 3.

Light travels in the form of waves, and these waves affect three aspects of our visual world. Describe, in detail, the three physical characteristics of light waves, and how each affects a specific psychological dimension of our visual experience. Section: Vision Page(s): 188 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The physical properties of light are wavelength (or frequency), intensity or amplitude, and complexity.  These physical properties correspond to psychological dimensions of our response.  Wavelength corresponds to hue, the dimension of visual experience specified by color names such as red or green. Shorter waves appear as violet or blue and longer ones as orange and red.  Intensity, or amplitude, corresponds with our perception of brightness.  Complexity corresponds to our perception of saturation with a mixture of wavelengths seen as duller and paler and a narrow band of wavelengths seen as pure, more colorful, or completely saturated.

The eye is frequently compared with a camera, but in many ways the visual system is not like a camera. Explain why. Section: Vision Page(s): 189-191 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The visual system, unlike a camera, is not a passive recorder of the external world.  Visual neurons actively build up a picture of the world by detecting its meaningful features such as colors and lines of a particular orientation.  A camera lens moves closer or farther from an object to focus.  The lens in the eye changes its shape and curvature to focus.

Two levels of processing are involved in color vision. The first occurs in the retina, and the second in the ganglion cells and in neurons in the brain. Identify and explain the theory associated with each level. Section: Vision Page(s): 192 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The first level of processing occurs in the retina and is explained by the trichromatic theory.  The retina contains three types of cones, each of which responds to a different range of wavelength (blues, greens, and reds).  The colors we see result from the combined activity of these three types of cones.  The second level of processing occurs in ganglion cells and neurons in the brain and is explained by the opponent-process theory.  Opponent-process cells respond in opposite fashion (excitation or inhibition) to either red



and green or blue and yellow. This color code is passed on to higher visual centers.

The Gestalt psychologists belonged to a movement that began in Germany and became influential in the 1920s. What does the word Gestalt mean in German and why is it well suited to this theory? How did Gestalt psychologists study the organization of the visual world? Name four Gestalt principles and give an example that illustrates each principle. Section: Vision Page(s): 193–194 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The German word Gestalt means “form” or “configuration.”  The Gestalt psychologists’ motto was “The whole is more than a sum of its parts.”  They observed that when we perceive something, properties emerge from the configuration as a whole that are not found in any particular component.  One observation was that a visual stimulus is organized into figure and ground.  They proposed several principles of organization:  Proximity—Objects that are close to each other tend to be grouped together.  Closure—The brain tends to fill in gaps in a stimulus in order to perceive complete forms.  Similarity—Objects that are alike in some way tend to be perceived as belonging together.  Continuity—Lines and patterns tend to be perceived as continuing in time or space.  Illustrations will be similar to those on pages 193–194 of the text.

Ordinarily we need to know not only what something is, but also where it is. Because vision doesn’t give us this information directly, we must infer it. Explain how we use various visual cues to estimate distance or depth, giving examples of two cues that require the use of both eyes. The textbook notes that there are many distance cues that do not depend on having two eyes. Choose and describe five of the seven cues that depend upon one eye. Section: Vision Page(s): 194–196 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Depth or distance perception is inferred from binocular and monocular cues.  Two binocular cues to depth perception:  Convergence—The eyes turn inward when looking at a close object; the degree of convergence corresponds to the closeness of the object.  Retinal disparity—The two eyes see slightly different images of the world; this difference can be used to infer depth.  Seven monocular cues:  Interposition—Closer objects partially block our view of more distant objects.  Linear perspective—When two parallel lines are viewed receding into the distance, they appear to converge.  Light and shadow—Light and shadow give objects the appearance of three dimensions.  Motion parallax—When an observer is moving, objects appear to move at different speeds and in different directions depending on their distance from the observer.  Relative size—The smaller an object’s image on the retina, the farther away the object appears.  Texture gradients—Distant parts of a uniform surface appear denser; that is, its elements seem spaced more closely together.  Relative clarity—Because of particles of dust and water in the air, distant objects tend to look hazier, duller, or less detailed.

Sound waves are collected by the outer ear and channeled down the auditory canal. Describe the major structures of the ear and describe the role each plays in the process of hearing. Section: Hearing Page(s): 200–201 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  A sound wave enters the outer ear and strikes the eardrum causing it to vibrate with the same frequency and amplitude as the wave itself.  This vibration is passed along to three tiny bones in the middle ear, which intensify the force of the vibration.  The innermost bone pushes on a membrane that opens into the inner ear.  This creates a wave in the fluid-filled cochlea of the inner ear.  The cilia, or hair cells, on the basilar membrane in the cochlea bend back and forth as the wave passes.  This causes the hair cells to initiate a signal that is passed along to the auditory nerve, which carries the signal to the brain.

Like human infants, kittens are born with the ability to detect horizontal lines and vertical lines. In one famous study, kittens were exposed to either vertical or horizontal black and white stripes. Special collars kept them from seeing anything else, even their own bodies. In what way did the results of this study contribute to an understanding of critical periods in development? What evidence do we have of critical periods for sensory development in human beings? Section: Perceptual Powers: Origins and Influences Page(s): 211 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Kittens were raised in environments consisting entirely of vertical stripes or of horizontal stripes.  Without normal visual experience, the neurons in the brain that would normally respond to horizontal or to vertical lines deteriorate.  As a result, the kittens appeared to be blind to the stimuli that they had not experienced.  Kittens exposed only to vertical stripes bumped into horizontal obstacles and those exposed only to horizontal stripes bumped into vertical obstacles.  Critical periods in development are also indicated by the experiences of individuals who are deaf from birth and receive a cochlear implant or blind from birth and have vision restored.  These individuals have difficulty making sense of what they hear or see.  Recovery depends on the person’s age when the sensory ability is restored, probably because critical periods typically occur in infancy or early childhood.

10.

The fact that some perceptual processes appear to be innate doesn’t mean that all people perceive the world in the same way. Describe in detail four psychological factors that can influence what we perceive and how we perceive it. Section: Perceptual Powers: Origins and Influences Page(s): 211–212 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Needs and motives—When we need something, have an interest in it, or want it, we are especially likely to perceive it.  Beliefs—What we hold to be true about the world can affect our interpretation of ambiguous sensory signals.  Emotions—Emotions can also influence our interpretation of sensory information.  Expectations—Previous experiences lead to expectations or perceptual sets that can cause us to interpret sensory information in particular ways.

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 7- Quick Quiz 1 1.

Rules of thumb that do not guarantee a solution but may help bring one within reach are called a. functional sets. c. algorithms. b. heuristics. d. problem states.

Gertrude voted ‘yes’ on a ballot question about whether convicted sex offenders should be banned from being within 500 feet of a playground. Afterwards, she realized that she voted yes because she was disgusted by the thought of sex offenders near playgrounds, but did not really consider whether the ban would actually decrease the probability that a child would be harmed. Gertrude used ________________ to make her decision. a. the affect heuristic c. confirmation bias b. objective analysis d. the availability heuristic

An 8-year-old child who scored like an average 10-year-old on an intelligence test would have a mental age of _______________ and an IQ of _______________. a. 8; 100 c. 10; 100 b. 8; 125 d. 10; 125

Emily is reading her textbook for psychology and uses a problem-solving approach to understand the concepts. She recognizes problems, develops strategies for solving problems, attempts to solve the problem, and evaluates her results. Emily is strong in __________ intelligence. a. emotional c. contextual b. componential d. experiential

If a child does well in math, American parents are more likely than Asian parents to believe that the child a. has paid attention in class and studied. c. should focus more on verbal skills. b. should work in a field related to math. d. is innately good at math.

The tendency to think, mistakenly, that human beings have nothing in common with other animals is called a. anthropodenial. c. stereotype threat. b. anthropomorphism. d. tacit knowledge.

10.

Which of the following is associated with creativity? a. convergent thinking c. mental set b. divergent thinking d. higher than average IQ

Chapter 7 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Concepts are mental categories that groups objects, relations, activities, abstractions, or qualities having common properties. They help simplify and summarize information about the world so that it is manageable. (Page 224, Applied)

Rationale: Heuristics are rules of thumb that suggest a course of action or guide problem solving, but do not guarantee optimal solutions. (Page 228, Factual)

Rationale: Prereflective stages involve the assumption that a correct answer always exists and it can be obtained directly through the senses. (Page 230, Conceptual)

Rationale: The affect heuristic is the tendency to consult one’s emotions instead of estimating probabilities objectively when making a decision. (Page 231, Applied)

Rationale: The state of tension that occurs when a person simultaneously holds two cognitions that are psychologically inconsistent is called cognitive dissonance. (Pages 235, Factual)

Rationale: Mental age is a child’s level of intellectual development relative to other children. The formula for calculating IQ is: mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100. (Page 239, Conceptual)

Rationale: Componential intelligence refers to the information-processing strategies used when thinking intelligently about a problem. (Page 242, Applied)

Rationale: Americans are far more likely than Asians to believe that mathematical ability is innate. Americans tend to think that if you have this ability, you don’t have to work hard, and if you don’t have it, there’s little point in even trying to attain it. (Page 249, Factual)

Rationale: This is the definition of anthropodenial, the belief that our own species is totally unique. (Page 254, Factual)

10.

Rationale: Divergent thinking, the ability to come up with new hypotheses, imagine other interpretations, and so forth, is a characteristic of creative thinkers. (Page 256, Conceptual)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 7- Quick Quiz 2 1.

Both propositions and mental images can be used to construct a. cognitive schemas. c. prototypes. b. concepts. d. implicit thoughts.

If your premises are “All dogs have paws” and “Rover is a dog,” then you might reasonably reach the conclusion, “Rover has paws.” This kind of reasoning is called __________ reasoning. a. inductive c. deductive b. dialectical d. implicit

A vacuum-cleaner salesperson discovers that people are more likely to buy his product if he says that it costs “four easy payments of $25” than when he says it costs $100. This is an example of a. the availability heuristic. c. the fairness bias. b. cognitive dissonance. d. the framing effect.

The tendency to overestimate one’s ability to have predicted an event once the outcome is known is called a. a mental set. c. confirmation bias. b. hindsight bias. d. fairness bias.

Noah thinks of himself as an excellent negotiator when purchasing cars. Two months after Noah’s purchase, his brother-in-law gets the same model for $1,000 less! According to cognitive dissonance theory, Noah a. will decide that he was wrong and that he isn’t that good at negotiating a good car price. b. will decide that he is glad he had the car for those 2 months, even though prices soon dropped. c. will ask his brother-in-law to come along with him the next time he purchases a car. d. will begin to dislike his new car, noticing all the little details that bother him.

The Binet intelligence test measured children on what new concept? a. divergent thinking c. mental age b. mental set d. creativity

When Terman compared the 100 most successful men with the 100 least successful men he found that __________ made the difference. a. intelligence c. motivation b. socioeconomic status of parents d. whether they attended public or private schools

10.

b. c. d.

understanding of numbers. Alex was able to make requests and to answer simple questions about objects. Alex’s linguistic abilities were limited to the “parroting” of phrases that he heard Irene speak. Alex showed no evidence of cognitive abilities, because his brain was the size of a walnut.

Chapter 7 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Both propositions and mental images can be combined to form cognitive schemas. (Page 225, Conceptual)

Rationale: This is an example of implicit learning where something is learned without awareness of exactly how it was learned or what it is. (Pages 226-227, Applied)

Rationale: In deductive reasoning, a conclusion necessarily follows from a set of observations or propositions or premises. (Page 228, Conceptual)

Rationale: The framing effect is the tendency for people’s choices to be affected by how a choice is presented or framed. In this example, presenting the cost of the vacuum ($100) in a different way causes more people to make the decision to buy it. (Page 232, Applied)

Rationale: The tendency to overestimate one’s ability to have predicted an event once the outcome is known is called hindsight bias. (Pages 233–234, Factual)

Rationale: People will often rationalize information that conflicts with their existing beliefs in order to reduce cognitive dissonance. (Pages 235–236, Applied)

Rationale: Binet’s insight into intelligence testing was to try to measure a child’s mental age, or level of intellectual development relative to that of other children. (Page 239, Factual)

Rationale: Stereotype threat creates test anxiety by causing fear in minorities that if they don’t do well the negative stereotype of minorities will be confirmed. (Page 241, Conceptual)

Rationale: Success appears to be more correlated with drive and determination than other factors, including IQ score. (Page 248, Conceptual)

10.

Rationale: Alex had the ability to make requests and to answer simple questions about objects. He did more than “parroting” phrases, he showed some understanding of numbers, but could only sum two small sets of objects for amounts up to six. (Page 253, Factual)

Chapter 7 – Thinking and Intelligence Multiple Choice Questions THOUGHT: USING WHAT WE KNOW Learning Objectives 7.1 The basic elements of thought 7.2 Whether the language you speak affects the way you think 7.3 How subconscious thinking, nonconscious thinking, and mindlessness help us—and can also cause trouble 1.

Based on their evaluation of human characteristics, our forebears called our species, homo sapiens, which means a. rational man. b. creative man. c. anthropomorphic man. d. anthropocentric man. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 223 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Homo sapiens, in Latin, means rational man. 2.

Cognition is a synonym for a. perception. b. learning. c. thinking. d. intelligence. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Cognition refers to the mental act of manipulating information, an act that is more generally referred to as “thinking.” % correct 77 a= 23 b= 0 c= 77 d= 0 r = .44 3.

When we think a. we passively record information. b. we physically alter the environment. c. we mentally manipulate internal representations of objects, activities, and situations. d. we focus on present reality. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: One way of defining thinking is the mental manipulation of internal representations of objects, activities, and situations. 4.

A mental category that groups objects, relations, activities, abstractions, or qualities having common properties is called a(n) a. mental set. b. concept. c. algorithm. d. prototype. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: This is the definition of a concept. 5.

__________ simplify and summarize information about the world so that it is manageable. a. Concepts

b. Prototypes c. Mental sets d. Algorithms Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Concepts simplify and summarize information about the world so it is manageable. 6.

Which of the following is a basic concept? a. dog b. animal c. golden retriever d. Chihuahua Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Basic concepts have a moderate number of instances and are easier to acquire than those having few or many instances. Dog is more basic than golden retriever and Chihuahua (which are very specific) and animal (which includes many more instances). 7.

Frida is a young child in the process of developing concepts. Which of the following concepts is she most likely to learn first? a. vehicle b. Honda c. Ford d. car Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Children tend to learn basic-level concepts first. Car is a more basic concept than the other options. 8.

On a trip to Australia, Caleb sees an ibis for the first time. Despite never having seen one before, he uses his ______________ for bird to quickly identify the ibis as a type of bird. a. mental set b. concept c. algorithm d. proposition Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Concepts are mental categories that groups objects, relations, activities, abstractions, or qualities having common properties. They help simplify and summarize information about the world so that it is manageable. 9.

Most people take longer to identify a platypus as a mammal than it takes them to identify a cat as a mammal. This is likely because a cat is closer to most people’s _______________ for the concept of mammal. a. mental set b. prototype c. basic concept d. algorithm Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: When we need to decide whether something belongs to a concept, we are likely to compare it to a prototype, a representative sample of a particular concept. 10.

When we need to decide whether something belongs to a __________, we are likely to compare it to a(n) __________. a. prototype; concept

b. thought; idea c. concept; thought d. concept; prototype Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: When we need to decide whether something belongs to a concept, we are likely to compare it to a prototype. 11.

An especially representative example of a concept is called a(n) a. mental set. b. concept. c. algorithm. d. prototype. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is the definition of prototype.

Page(s): 224 Answer: d

12.

Which of the following is most likely to be a prototype of the concept “fruit” for someone who grew up in the American Midwest? a. pineapple b. apple c. star fruit d. kiwi Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: An apple is more typically representative of the concept of fruit than are the other items, at least for most Americans. 13.

Which example of the concept chair is most likely to be a prototype? a. beanbag chair b. high chair c. dining room chair d. rocking chair Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: A dining room chair is more typically representative of the concept of chair than are the other items. 14.

Some researchers are finding evidence that __________ affect concepts. a. perceptions b. relationships c. vocabulary and grammar d. experiences Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Some researchers are finding evidence that vocabulary and grammar affect concepts. 15.

Benjamin Whorf’s proposition that language molds our cognition and perception a. is generally accepted by psychologists and linguists today. b. has fallen into disfavor among psychologists and linguists. c. has received some support from recent research on language and perception. d. has recently been disproved by research. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Whorf’s idea that language affects the way we think and perceive the world has recently received some support.

16.

A unit of meaning that is made up of concepts and expresses a single idea is called a a. prototype. b. mental image. c. cognitive schema. d. proposition. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is the definition of proposition.

Page(s): 225 Answer: d

17.

_______________ is defined as an integrated mental network of knowledge, beliefs, and expectations concerning a particular topic. a. Prototype b. Mental image c. Cognitive schema d. Proposition Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: This is the definition of cognitive schema. 18.

Sandra enters a restaurant and is seated. Sandra expects that the waiter will come with a menu, she will order, she will eat, and she will pay her bill. Sandra has a mental model of how restaurants operate. This mental model is also known as a a. mental image. b. cognitive schema. c. proposition. d. concept. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Cognitive schemas serve as mental models of aspects of the world. 19.

Which of the following is in the correct order from the basic building blocks of thought to complex networks of knowledge? a. conceptspropositionscognitive schemas b. conceptscognitive schemaspropositions c. propositionsconceptscognitive schemas d. cognitive schemasconceptspropositions Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Concepts are linked together by propositions, and a group of propositions make up a cognitive schema. 20.

Both propositions and mental images can be used to construct a. cognitive schemas. b. concepts. c. prototypes. d. implicit thoughts. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Both propositions and mental images can be combined to form cognitive schemas. 21.

Peter’s mental representation of Thanksgiving includes associations about turkeys, attitudes toward the holiday, and expectations about the weight he’ll gain! These are all part of his _______________ for the holiday. a. cognitive schema b. heuristic

c. hindsight bias d. algorithm Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of a cognitive schema that includes a number of concepts and mental images linked by propositions. 22.

A representation that may occur in many sensory modalities and that resembles what it represents is a a. mental image. b. cognitive schema. c. proposition. d. concept. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: A representation that may occur in many sensory modalities and that resembles what it represents is a mental image. 23.

Psychologists who were interested in studying visual mental images found that a. the images occur in a mental “space” of a fixed size. b. larger images contain less detail than do smaller images. c. the images cannot be manipulated by the participant. d. it is not possible to study them because the images cannot be “seen.” Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Psychologists found that mental images occur in a mental “space” of a fixed size and small ones contain less detail than larger ones. 24.

As she moves quietly around the restaurant where she is a waitress, Alicia finds herself hearing “in her mind’s ear” the song, “Just whistle while you work!” This would be an example of a(n) a. proposition. b. prototype. c. auditory image. d. cognitive schema. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Most people report auditory images, for instance, a song, slogan, or poem they can hear in their “mind’s ear.” 25.

Which of the following occurs outside of conscious awareness but is accessible to consciousness when necessary? a. subconscious processes b. convergent thinking c. nonconscious processes d. divergent thinking Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225–226 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Subconscious processes are easily accessible to consciousness. Nonconscious processing is not accessible to consciousness. 26.

Our ability to multitask is due in large part to our ability to perform ________________ cognitive tasks. a. conscious b. deliberate c. subconscious d. nonconscious Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 226 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c

Rationale: Because some processing is subconscious, consciousness is freed up to do other things. 27.

When Mitch was learning to drive he couldn’t imagine how he could ever remember to steer the wheel, flip on the turn signal, put on the gas, and still manage to turn the car! After driving for three years, Mitch’s reactions have become automatic. Now, when he drives a car a. nonconscious processes are involved. b. convergent thinking is involved. c. subconscious processes are involved. d. divergent thinking is involved. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 226 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Automatic processes are generally subconscious. 28.

Intuition involves two stages of mental processing. The first stage is _______________ and the second stage is _______________. a. subconscious; nonconscious b. explicit; implicit c. nonconscious; conscious d. effortful; automatic Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 226 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Intuition results from nonconscious processing, the results of which becomes conscious. 29.

Dawn and Erin can’t figure out how they can fit a television, a futon, a computer, and a refrigerator into their small dorm room! Just when it seems hopeless, Erin says, “Aha, I’ve got it!” and begins moving the items. Erin’s sudden revelation is most likely due to a. simplifying the process by imagining a prototype of a college dorm room and then making a decision based on the prototype. b. clues that triggered nonconscious processing about the room arrangement followed by conscious awareness of the solution. c. subconscious processing and automatic routines that she has learned so that she can perform them without thinking. d. the ability to multitask in an efficient manner. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 226 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of insight where the results of nonconscious processing become conscious. 30.

To acquire knowledge of a task without awareness or intention is referred to as _____________ learning. a. convergent b. divergent c. explicit d. implicit Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 226–227 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: To acquire knowledge of a task without awareness or intention is referred to as implicit learning. 31.

Fenton has learned a great strategy for winning a card game but he developed the strategy without being able to consciously identify what he was doing. He isn’t even sure what exactly he has learned! This type of learning is called a. implicit learning. b. prototypical learning. c. mindless learning. d. algorithmic learning. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 226-227 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of implicit learning where something is learned without awareness of exactly

how it was learned or what it is. 32.

_______________ occurs when we act, speak, and make decisions out of habit. a. Mindlessness b. Implicit learning c. Insight d. Conscious thinking Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 227 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Speaking, acting, or making decisions out of habit is often referred to as mindlessness because a person has not thought about what he or she is doing. 33.

The mental inflexibility and obliviousness to the current context of one’s environment that prevents individuals from recognizing when a change in a situation requires a change in behavior is called a. mindlessness. b. explicit learning. c. implicit learning. d. subconscious processing. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 227 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In a state of mindlessness we may act, speak, and make decisions out of habit without analyzing what we are doing or why we are doing it. 34.

Which statement is true about the mindless processing of information? a. We would be better off if we eliminated mindlessness completely from our lives. b. It is usually the best way to perform a task, because it allows us to operate on “automatic pilot.” c. It has little effect on behavior because the processing goes on outside of awareness. d. It has benefits, but also can lead to mishaps and serious errors. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 227 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Mindless processing of information is efficient, but may result in errors when some of that information is atypical. 35.

Zelda dials her boyfriend’s phone number instead of her mother’s number, as she intended. Her error can be attributed to a. prereflective reasoning. b. stereotype threat. c. inductive reasoning. d. mindlessness. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 227 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: This is an example of an error resulting from mindless action. 36.

Mike approaches a long line at the grocery store. He decides to go toward the front of the line, where he says to a woman, “Excuse me, may I get in line in front of you, because I am buying some groceries?” According to research on mindlessness presented in your textbook, how is the woman in line likely to behave? a. She will refuse Mike’s request and send him to the back of the line. b. She will allow Mike to get in line in front of her. c. She will negotiate with Mike as to why he needs to be in front of her. d. She will throw a fit in line, and Mike will quickly walk to the back of the line. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 227 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Research indicates people will let someone go before them only if the explanation gives the impression of a legitimate reason.

37.

Florence is just about to use a photocopier when Judith scurries up saying, “Excuse me, may I use the copy machine, because I have to make copies?” According to a classic study, Florence is likely to comply with Judith’s request because a. the reason given by Judith sounds like an authentic explanation even though it is meaningless. b. people are generally polite enough to let others go ahead of them, whatever the reason. c. Florence’s cognitive schema includes the concept of politeness. d. the strategy necessary to comply with reasonable requests is incorporated into Florence’s mental network. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 227 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Research indicates people will let someone go before them only if the person has a legitimate reason for doing so.

REASONING RATIONALLY Learning Objectives 7.4 Why algorithms and logic can’t solve all of our problems 7.5 The difference between deductive and inductive reasoning 7.6 The importance of heuristics and dialectical reasoning in solving real-life problems 7.7 How cognitive development affects the ways in which people reason and justify their views 38.

The drawing of conclusions or inferences from facts, observations, or assumptions is called a. reasoning. b. framing. c. confirmation bias. d. intelligence. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is a definition of reasoning. 39.

Problem-solving methods that guarantee solutions if appropriate and properly executed are called a. prototypes. b. algorithms. c. heuristics. d. noncompensatory models. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: In some formal problems and well-defined tasks, all you have to do is apply an algorithm, a set of procedures guaranteed to produce a solution even if you do not really know how it works. % correct 92 a= 4 b= 92 c= 4 d= 0 r= .76 40.

A formula is an example of a(n) a. logarithm. b. algorithm. c. response set. d. heuristic. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: A formula is an algorithm because, if correctly applied, it will always lead to the correct solution. For example, the formula A = πr2 describes a series of steps that will always allow a person to find the area of a circle if they know the radius. % correct 96 a= 4 b= 96 c= 1 d= 0 r= .62 41.

Kathryn’s grandma says that if Kathryn uses the old family recipe for Irish soda bread exactly, then she is

guaranteed to have delicious results. Kathryn’s grandma is encouraging her granddaughter to a. engage in dialectical thinking. b. make use of her family’s tacit knowledge. c. use an algorithm. d. rely upon a heuristic. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of using an algorithm to guarantee a result. 42.

MariAnne is eager to try her hand at making a pumpkin pie for her family’s Thanksgiving dessert. The most effective way to approach this task is by means of a. heuristics. b. dialectical thinking. c. an algorithm. d. reflective judgment. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: A recipe is an example of an algorithm, a set of procedures guaranteed to produce a pumpkin pie. 43.

Rules of thumb that do not guarantee a solution but may help bring one within reach are called a. functional sets. b. heuristics. c. algorithms. d. problem states. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Heuristics are rules of thumb that suggest a course of action or guide problem solving, but do not guarantee optimal solutions. % correct 88 a= 4 b= 88 c= 4 d= 4 r= .69 44.

Which of the following is a characteristic of formal reasoning? a. The information needed to solve the problem may be unclear or missing. b. There is typically one correct answer. c. The problem typically has personal relevance. d. It can be difficult to know when the problem is solved. Section: Reasoning Rationally Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: in formal reasoning problems there is a single right (or best) answer.

Page(s): 228 Answer: b

45.

Deductive reasoning involves a. comparing and evaluating opposing points of view in order to resolve differences. b. drawing conclusions from a set of observations or premises. c. generalizing from past experience. d. use of an algorithm to solve a problem. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Deductive reasoning involves drawing conclusions from a set of observations or premises. A conclusion necessarily follows from a set of observations in deductive reasoning. 46.

Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: In deductive reasoning, a conclusion necessarily follows from a set of observations or propositions or premises. 47.

In __________ reasoning, a conclusion follows from certain proposition or premises, but it could be false. a. deductive b. implicit c. inductive d. dialectical Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In inductive reasoning, a conclusion probably follows from certain proposition or premises, but it could be false. 48.

If your premises are “I didn’t see any cars on Mackinac Island my first day here” and “I didn’t see any cars the rest of the week either,” then you might reasonably reach the conclusion, “There aren’t any cars on Mackinac Island.” This kind of reasoning is called _______________ reasoning. a. dialectical b. deductive c. algorithmic d. inductive Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: This is an example of inductive reasoning, in which a conclusion probably follows from certain premises but could conceivably be false. 49.

_____________ is usually the best approach to problems that have several possible answers that vary in quality. a. Formal reasoning b. Using an algorithm c. Informal reasoning d. Choosing solutions randomly Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Informal reasoning is used when there is no clearly correct solution and many possible solutions compete. 50.

Whereas formal problems can often be solved with a(n) _______________, informal problems often call for a(n) _______________. a. inductive strategy; deductive strategy b. cognitive schema; algorithm c. heuristic; deductive strategy d. algorithm; heuristic Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: A heuristic is a rule of thumb that may lead to an answer, whereas an algorithm will lead to an answer. 51.

“Rules of thumb” that suggest a course of action without guaranteeing an optimal solution are called a. biases. b. heuristics. c. mental sets. d. algorithms. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: “Rules of thumb” that suggest a course of action without guaranteeing an optimal solution are

called heuristics. 52.

As Bud and his sister Marilou play bridge, he whispers that she should play her high cards first. Bud wants to make sure that Marilou remembers a(n) _______________ concerning bridge. a. heuristic b. prototype c. algorithm d. deduction Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of using a heuristic, or rule of thumb. 53.

Dialectical reasoning involves a. comparing and evaluating opposing points of view in order to resolve the difference. b. drawing conclusions from a set of observations or premises. c. generalizing from past experience. d. use of an algorithm to solve a problem. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 229 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In dialectical reasoning, two opposing points of view are compared and evaluated. 54.

When he begins deliberating with fellow jurors, DeAndre is convinced of the defendant’s guilt. As he listens attentively, he rethinks his own position in order to evaluate the evidence for the perspective of innocence. This point-counterpoint method of deliberation is an example of a. contextual intelligence. b. dialectical reasoning. c. formal reasoning. d. inductive reasoning. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 229 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The process in which opposing facts or ideas are weighed and compared with a view to determine the best solution is called dialectical reasoning. 55.

According to Kitchener and King, there are _______________ stages on the way to achieving reflective judgment. a. three b. five c. six d. seven Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 229 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Seven cognitive stages were identified. 56.

Prereflective stages of judgment involve a. the belief that some things can never be known with certainty. b. the belief that all opinions are created equal. c. the belief that a correct answer always exists. d. the belief that some judgments are more valid than others. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 230 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Prereflective stages involve the assumption that a correct answer always exists and it can be obtained directly through the senses. 57.

People in the quasi-reflective stages would be likely to say that a. because knowledge is uncertain, any judgment about the evidence is purely subjective. b. correct answers always exist and they can be obtained through the senses.

c. some judgments are more valid than others due to their coherence. d. their conclusions are the most compelling based on current evidence. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 230 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Quasi-reflective thinkers believe that all opinions are equally valid because some things cannot be known with absolute certainty. 58.

Which of the following is typical of reflective judgment? a. paying attention only to evidence that fits what is already believed b. the realization that all opinions are created equal c. belief in what “feels right” d. understanding that although some things can never be known with certainty, some judgments are more valid than others Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 230 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Reflective thinkers realize that all opinions are not created equal. Those that are more coherent, fit with the available evidence, and are useful are more valid. 59.

Most individuals do not show evidence of reflective judgment until _______________, if at all. a. their teen years b. their middle to late twenties c. their early to middle thirties d. their late thirties to early forties Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 230 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Most people do not show evidence of reflective judgment until their middle to late twenties.

BARRIERS TO REASONING RATIONALLY Learning Objectives 7.8 How biases in reasoning impair the ability to think rationally and critically 7.9 Why people worry more about vivid but rare disasters than about dangers that are far more likely 7.10 How the way a decision is framed affects the choices people make 7.11 Why people often value fairness even above rational self-interest 7.12 How the need to justify the expenditure of time, money, and effort affects how people think about a group they joined or a product they bought 60.

When John worries about getting bit by a shark when swimming at the beach, but doesn’t worry about getting cancer from the cigarettes he smokes, he is a. avoiding loss. b. exhibiting confirmation bias. c. exaggerating the improbable. d. exhibiting hindsight bias. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 231 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of exaggerating the improbable. 61.

c. confirmation bias d. the availability heuristic Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 231 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The affect heuristic is the tendency to consult one’s emotions instead of estimating probabilities objectively when making a decision. 62.

When making a decision in an emotionally charged situation, people often fail to think objectively about the choices. This is probably because they rely heavily upon the ____________ to make their decision. a. the availability heuristic b. objective analysis c. confirmation bias d. the affect heuristic Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 231 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The affect heuristic is the tendency to consult one’s emotions instead of estimating probabilities objectively when making a decision. 63.

When using the availability heuristic, people tend to judge the probability of an event based on a. the need to be right, which makes it hard to listen to the available information with an open mind. b. statistical consideration of the frequency with which the event occurs in everyday life. c. the burden of doubt people feel about their abilities to determine probability from available information. d. how easy it is to think of examples or instances. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 232 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The availability heuristic is the tendency to judge the probability of a type of event by how easy it is to think of examples or instances. 64.

Because of the availability heuristic, Jayne and her husband are most likely to exaggerate the risk to their children caused by a. depression. b. delinquency. c. being kidnapped. d. asthma. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 232 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: It is easy to think of examples of kidnappings because they get so much media coverage. 65.

Nate thinks that Republicans and Democrats almost never work together in Congress. The reason he believes this is that he finds it much easier to think of examples of politicians from the two parties not working together than to think of examples of them working together. It is likely that the ______________ has caused Nate to underestimate how frequently Democrats and Republicans work together. a. availability heuristic b. confirmation bias c. fairness bias d. framing effect Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 232 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The availability heuristic is the tendency to judge the probability of a type of event by how easy it is to think of examples or instances. 66.

c. the fairness bias. d. the framing effect. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 232 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The framing effect is the tendency for people’s choices to be affected by how a choice is presented or framed. In this example, presenting the cost of the vacuum ($100) in a different way causes more people to make the decision to buy it. 67.

If individuals are asked to rate the effectiveness of condoms in preventing the transmission of HIV (the virus that causes AIDS), they would be most likely to rate a condom as effective if they were told a. that the condom has a 95 percent success rate in protecting against the HIV virus. b. that only 5 condom users out of every 100 are not protected against the HIV virus. c. that the condom has a 5 percent failure rate in protecting against the HIV virus. d. any of the options listed above because each option describes the same probability. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 232 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In general, people try to minimize their risks, so when a choice is framed in terms of risk they will respond more cautiously than if it is framed in terms of success. 68.

When Manmeet’s father passed away, the will stated that the Manmeet and his brother should decide how to split the estate between them. After weeks of fighting over how to divide the inheritance, Manmeet tells his brother, “I would rather both of us get nothing than for you to get more than is right!” This somewhat irrational position is likely the result of a. the fairness bias. b. the hindsight bias. c. cognitive dissonance. d. avoiding loss. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 233 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of the fairness bias. Most people will reject an offer that they perceive as unfair, even if it means that they end up getting nothing. 69.

In what way does the fairness bias make people act irrationally when playing the Ultimatum Game described in your textbook? a. Most people follow the rules, even when it means losing money. b. Most people feel the game is fair, even when it is not. c. People often prefer receiving no money if they feel they are not being given a fair amount. d. People often refuse to take more money than they feel is fair, even when it is offered. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 233 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In the Ultimatum Game, your partner gets $20 and must decide how much to share with you. You can choose to accept your partner’s offer, in which case you both get to keep your respective portions, or you can reject the offer, in which case neither of you gets a penny. Although it makes sense to accept any amount at all, no matter how paltry, that is not how people respond when playing. 70.

In the study described in your textbook, capuchin monkeys would not exchange a token for a slice of cucumber if they thought that: a. the trade was unfair. b. the cucumber was poisoned. c. the cucumber belonged to another monkey. d. they could receive cucumber slices from a different experimenter for free. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 233 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: When the monkeys in the study saw neighboring monkeys receive grapes—which they prefer—for tokens, they refused to exchange their own tokens for cucumbers, indicating that they no longer considered the deal to be fair.

71.

The day after the election, Josephine says that she knew all along who the winner would be. Although it is possible that she had some special insight into the election, it is more likely that Josephine is a. avoiding loss. b. exhibiting confirmation bias. c. exaggerating the improbable. d. exhibiting hindsight bias. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 233–234 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: This is an example of hindsight bias. Looking back, things that were not at all clear at the time often seem obvious. 72.

The tendency to overestimate one’s ability to have predicted an event once the outcome is known is called a. a mental set. b. hindsight bias. c. confirmation bias. d. fairness bias. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 233–234 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The tendency to overestimate one’s ability to have predicted an event once the outcome is known is called hindsight bias. 73.

When trying to make sense of something that happened, we tend to misremember our original expectations about what would happen and convince ourselves that we foresaw what was coming. This is feature of a. confirmation bias. b. fairness bias. c. mental set. d. hindsight bias. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 234 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The tendency to overestimate one’s ability to have predicted an event once the outcome is known is called hindsight bias. 74.

The tendency to look for or pay attention only to information that supports one’s own belief is called a. mental set. b. confirmation bias. c. stereotype threat. d. mindlessness. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 234 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is the definition of confirmation bias. 75.

When reading information that challenges one’s beliefs, one tends to minimize the strengths of such claims. The __________ accounts for this barrier to reasoning rationally. a. confirmation bias b. stereotype threat c. unfairness bias d. hindsight bias Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 234 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Confirmation bias is the tendency to look for or pay attention only to information that confirms one’s beliefs. 76.

The tendency to solve problems using procedures or strategies that worked in the past on similar problems is called a. the availability heuristic.

b. metacognition. c. mental set. d. cognitive dissonance. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 235 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: One barrier to rational thinking is the development of a mental set, a tendency to try to solve new problems by using the same heuristics, strategies, and rules that worked in the past on similar problems. 77.

When Howie’s old girlfriend used to get upset with him, he could smooth things over by buying flowers or chocolates for her. He keeps trying this strategy with his current girlfriend, but she gets angry with him each time. It appears that Howie has developed a _______________ that is interfering with the development of a new relationship strategy. a. mental set b. fairness bias c. hindsight bias d. dissonance Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 235 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: One barrier to rational thinking is the development of a mental set, a tendency to try to solve new problems by using the same heuristics, strategies, and rules that worked in the past on similar problems. 78.

When an individual holds two thoughts that are psychologically inconsistent, or when an individual’s belief is incongruent with his/her behavior, a state of tension or unease occurs. This state of tension is called a. mental set. b. stereotype threat. c. cognitive inconsistency. d. cognitive dissonance. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 235 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The state of tension that occurs when a person simultaneously holds two cognitions that are psychologically inconsistent is called cognitive dissonance. 79.

Representative Jansen, a U.S. congresswoman, believes in the reproductive rights and welfare of women but voted to ban late-term abortions. Jansen feels very uneasy about the conflict between her beliefs and her behavior. This sense of unease is what psychologists call a. cognitive inconsistency. b. a mental set. c. cognitive dissonance. d. factor analysis. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 235 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: A state of tension that occurs when a person simultaneously holds two cognitions that are psychologically inconsistent in called cognitive dissonance. 80.

Which of the following people is most likely to experience cognitive dissonance? a. the draftee who hates the army b. the smoker who knows that smoking causes lung cancer c. the teenager who doesn’t like the car a parent bought for him d. the lawyer who worked hard to complete law school and likes working as a lawyer Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 235 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Cognitive dissonance occurs when there is a discrepancy between an attitude that a person holds and his or her behavior. The person who chooses to smoke, knowing that smoking is dangerous to one’s health, is likely to experience cognitive dissonance. 81.

The most likely individual to experience cognitive dissonance would be

a. Lisa, who gave up smoking because she became pregnant. b. Vickie, who went through a mild initiation to join a sorority she ended up liking. c. Sybil, whose parents chose a car for her that turns out to be a lemon. d. Heidi, who signed up to join the army only to find that she hates basic training. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 235–236 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Cognitive dissonance occurs when there is a discrepancy between an attitude that a person holds and his or her behavior. The person who chooses to join the army and ends up hating it is likely to experience cognitive dissonance. 82.

When a person experiences cognitive dissonance, he/she will likely a. rationalize information that conflicts with his/her existing beliefs. b. accept evidence that is contrary to his/her beliefs. c. behave in a way that would be consistent with his/her beliefs. d. feel at ease with the conflict. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 236 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: When people experience cognitive dissonance, they typically rationalize any information that conflicts with existing beliefs. 84.

The tension that occurs when you believe you have made a bad decision is called a. cognitive consonance. b. stereotype threat. c. postdecision dissonance. d. hindsight bias. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 236 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The tension that occurs when you believe you have made a bad decision is called postdecision dissonance. 85.

According the theory of cognitive dissonance, what should happen after a person has made a poor decision? a. They will be more likely to warn others not to make the same mistake. b. They will be convinced that it was still the correct decision to make. c. They will be more open-minded than they were before making the decision. d. They will take full responsibility for the decision. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 236 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that people tend to justify a choice or decision that was freely made in order to avoid the postdecision dissonance that would be created by admitting that a mistake was made. 86.

The tendency to increase your liking for something that you have worked hard for or suffered to attain is called a. postdecision dissonance.

b. justification of effort. c. confirmation bias. d. factor analysis. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 236–237 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The tendency to increase your liking for something that you have worked hard for or suffered to attain is called justification of effort.

MEASURING INTELLIGENCE: THE PSYCHOMETRIC APPROACH Learning Objectives 7.13 Both sides of the debate about whether a single thing called “intelligence” actually exists 7.14 How the original purpose of intelligence testing changed when IQ tests came to America 7.15 The difficulties of designing intelligence tests that are free of cultural influence 87.

When researchers use the term “intelligence” they are generally referring to a. the number of facts a person has memorized over their entire lifetime. b. an inferred characteristic of an individual usually defined as the ability to profit from experience, acquire knowledge, think abstractly, act purposefully, or adapt to changes in the environment c. the learned ability of an individual to become aware of his or her own mental processes, using these processes to become knowledgeable about the external world and about his or her own specific mental talents d. a specific measure of memory, vocabulary, and perceptual discrimination computed by dividing a person’s mental age by his or her chronological age and multiplying the result by one hundred Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 238 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Intelligence can be generally defined as an inferred characteristic of an individual usually defined as the ability to profit from experience, acquire knowledge, think abstractly, act purposefully, or adapt to changes in the environment. 88.

The traditional approach to intelligence, the _______________ approach, focuses on how well people perform on standardized aptitude tests. a. triarchic b. psychometric c. contextual d. cognitive Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 238 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Psychometrics refers to the measurement of mental abilities, traits, and processes. % correct 63 a= 10 b= 63 c= 20 d= 6 r = .69 89.

Which statistical method identifies clusters of correlated items that seem to be measuring some common factor? a. cause and effect b. correlation c. factor analysis d. g factor Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 238 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Factor analysis identifies clusters of correlated items that seem to be measuring some common factor. 90.

_______________ is defined as a general intellectual ability assumed by many theorists to underlie specific

mental abilities and talents. a. Metacognition b. An intelligence quotient c. Mental age d. The g factor Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of the g factor. % correct 97 a= 3 b= 0 c= 0 d= 97 r = .39

Page(s): 238 Answer: d

91.

The Binet intelligence test measured children on what new concept? a. divergent thinking b. mental set c. mental age d. creativity Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 239 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Binet’s insight into intelligence testing was to try to measure a child’s mental age, or level of intellectual development relative to that of other children. % correct 79 a= 11 b= 4 c= 79 d= 7 r = .20 92.

The Binet scale was originally developed to a. identify children who might have difficulty in school. b. identify gifted children. c. measure scholastic achievement. d. measure the intelligence of normal children. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 239 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The first widely used intelligence test was devised in 1904, when the French Ministry of Education asked psychologist Alfred Binet to find a way to identify children who were slow learners so they could be given remedial work. % correct 66 a= 66 b= 10 c= 7 d= 15 r = .43 93.

An 8-year-old child who scored like an average 10-year-old on an intelligence test would have a mental age of _______________ and an IQ of _______________. a. 8; 100 b. 8; 125 c. 10; 100 d. 10; 125 Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 239 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Mental age is a child’s level of intellectual development relative to other children. The formula for calculating IQ is: mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100. 94.

What is mental age? a. the actual age of a child in years and months b. the level of intellectual development related to other children c. the IQ or intelligence quotient d. the chronological age of a child Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 239 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Mental age is a child’s level of intellectual development relative to other children. 95.

The formula for IQ is a. MA  CA  100.

b. CA  MA  100. c. (MA  CA)  100. d. 100  (MA + CA). Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 239 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The formula for calculating IQ is mental age (MA) divided by chronological age (CA) and multiplied by 100.

% correct 67

a= 67 b= 23 c= 10 d= 0

r = .46

96.

Dallas is a 10-year-old boy who has a mental age of 9 years. His IQ would be about a. 10. b. 90. c. 100. d. 110. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 239 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The formula for calculating IQ is: mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100. 97.

Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between intelligence and IQ? a. There is no real relationship between intelligence and IQ. b. Intelligence and IQ are synonymous terms and mean the same thing. c. IQ is a measure of intelligence. d. Intelligence is a measure of IQ. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 239 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The intelligence quotient (IQ) is a measure of intelligence. 98.

The formula for determining IQ had a serious flaw in that a. the formula did not make sense for use with adults. b. the formula did not separate the “g factor” from specific abilities. c. it overemphasized performance IQ in the computations. d. it overemphasized verbal IQ in the computations. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 239 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The formula for calculating IQ (mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100) does not make sense for adults. 99.

David Wechsler designed the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) in order to produce a. a componential IQ score, an experiential IQ score, and a contextual IQ score. b. a general IQ score, a verbal IQ score, and a performance IQ score. c. a tacit knowledge IQ score and an emotional intelligence IQ score. d. a culture-free IQ score and a general knowledge IQ score. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 240 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Wechsler’s intelligence scales include both verbal and performance items. As a result, it is possible to calculate a verbal score, a performance score, and a full-scale or general score.

% correct 50 100.

a= 33 b= 50 c= 17 d= 0

r = .46

Which of these might be an example of a performance item on the Wechsler tests of intelligence? a. repeating a series of digits b. defining a word such as lunch c. using blocks to make a design like one shown in a picture d. adding a series of orally presented numbers Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 240 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c

Rationale: Performance items test nonverbal skills such as the ability to re-create a block design within a specified time limit and to identify a part missing from a picture. % correct 52 a= 25 b= 17 c= 52 d= 6 r = .21 101.

Between World War I and the 1960s, the intelligence tests developed for use in schools favored a. white children over nonwhite children. b. rural children over city children. c. poor children over middle-class children. d. extroverted children over introverted children. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 240-241 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: For much of the twentieth century, IQ tests were biased in favor of white children as opposed to minorities. 102.

Which of the following represents the biggest difficulty for test makers in designing fair and accurate intelligence tests? a. cultural differences b. cheating c. age differences d. test fatigue Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 241 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Cultural differences not only affect responses to many test items, but they also can affect general attitudes toward exams, motivation, rapport with the test giver, competitiveness, comfort in solving problems independently rather than with others, and familiarity with the conventions for taking test. All of these factors can make an intelligence test culturally biased. 103.

Stereotype threat refers to a. poor performance on IQ tests by minorities. b. the fear that poor performance on an IQ test will confirm minority stereotypes. c. threats against minorities if they perform well on an IQ test. d. the stereotype that minorities are less intelligent than others. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 241 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Stereotype threat creates test anxiety by causing fear in minorities that if they don’t do well, the negative stereotype of minorities will be confirmed. 104.

Carmen is taking an advanced math test and she feels a burden of doubt knowing the negative stereotypes about women’s abilities in mathematics. This feeling has been labeled a. test anxiety. b. gender dissonance. c. gender bias. d. stereotype threat. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 241 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: A burden of doubt a person feels about his or her performance due to negative stereotypes about his or her group’s abilities is called stereotype threat. 105.

As an African American, Sanyu is aware of the negative stereotypes regarding racial differences in intelligence. If he experiences stereotype threat while taking an intelligence test, it is likely that a. Sanyu’s self-conscious awareness of the stereotype may worsen his test performance. b. Sanyu’s test score will be unaffected but he will feel uncomfortable throughout the test. c. Sanyu’s awareness of the stereotype will motivate him to excel on the test. d. Sanyu will return the test to the administrator completely blank. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 241 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a

Rationale: This is an example of stereotype threat causing weak performance on a test. 106.

As a woman, Dawn is aware of the stereotypes that women are not good at math. When she fills out a questionnaire about her gender and then is given a math test it is most likely that a. Dawn’s self-conscious awareness of the stereotypes regarding women will improve her test performance. b. the questionnaire about her gender will lessen the effect of stereotype threat on her performance. c. Dawn will return the test to the administrator completely blank due to the burden of stereotype threat. d. the questionnaire will increase stereotype threat and increase the risk she will underperform. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 241 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Anything that increases the salience of group stereotypes can increase stereotype threat and affect performance, including being asked to state your race, ethnicity, or age before taking the test. 107.

Which of the following is likely to reduce the effect of stereotype threat on performance? a. being the only member of your racial group taking the test b. being the only female taking the test c. being asked to state your race before taking the test d. being informed about stereotype threat before taking the test Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 241 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Simply telling people about stereotype threat often inoculates them against its effects.

DISSECTING INTELLIGENCE: THE COGNITIVE APPROACH Learning Objectives 7.16 Which kinds of intelligence are not measured by standard IQ tests 7.17 The meaning of “emotional intelligence” and why it might be as important as IQ 108.

Professor Vertz emphasizes the strategies that people use when thinking about problems and arriving at solutions. It is evident that she approaches intelligence as a _______________ theorist. a. psychometric b. “g factor” c. cognitive d. convergent Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 242 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: The cognitive approach to intelligence focuses on problem-solving strategies rather than on measurement of intelligence. 109.

According to the triarchic theory of intelligence, there are three aspects of intelligence. The _______________ aspect refers to the information-processing strategies that go on inside your head when you are thinking intelligently about a problem. a psychometric b componential c contextual d experiential Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 242 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: This is a definition of the componential aspect of intelligence which focuses on the mental “components” important for solving problems. % correct 57 a= 0 b= 57 c= 33 d= 10 r = .42 110.

Emily is reading her textbook for psychology and uses a problem-solving approach to understand the concepts. She recognizes problems, develops strategies for solving problems, attempts to solve the

problem, and evaluates her results. Emily is strong in __________ intelligence. a. emotional b. componential c. contextual d. experiential Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 242 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Componential intelligence refers to the information-processing strategies used when thinking intelligently about a problem. 111.

The knowledge and awareness of one’s own cognitive processes is referred to as a. tacit knowledge. b. emotional intelligence. c. metacognition. d. contextual intelligence. Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 242 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The knowledge and awareness of one’s own cognitive processes is referred to as metacognition. 112.

Which of the following is NOT one of the components in Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence? a. componential intelligence b. experiential intelligence c. contextual intelligence d. emotional intelligence Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 242–243 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Emotional intelligence is not one of the three components in Sternberg’s triarchic theory.

% correct 73

a= 1 b= 3 c= 14 d= 73

r = .45

113.

According to the triarchic theory of intelligence there are three aspects of intelligence. The _______________ aspect refers to how well you transfer skills to new situations and cope with novelty. a. emotional b. componential c. contextual d. experiential Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 243 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: This describes the experiential or creative aspect of intelligence proposed by Sternberg.

% correct 46

a= 0 b= 14 c= 40 d= 46

r = .32

114.

Allison is a master of quickly transferring her skills in photography to new artistic endeavors, including painting and sculpture. Allison is strong in __________ intelligence. a. emotional b. componential c. contextual d. experiential Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 243 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Experiential or creative intelligence refers to your creativity in transferring skills to new situations. 115.

According to the triarchic theory of intelligence, there are three aspects of intelligence. The _______________ aspect refers to the practical application of intelligence in knowing when to adapt to the environment, when to change environments, and when to fix situations. a psychometric

b. componential c. contextual d. experiential Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 243 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This describes the contextual or practical aspect of intelligence proposed by Sternberg.

% correct 40

a= 0 b= 43 c= 40 d= 17

r = .29

116.

When Risha was student teaching, she found out that she didn’t like being confined to a classroom with 20 children day after day. She knew that it would be best to change majors and switch to a discipline that allows for more variety in its physical setting. Risha is strong in a. psychometric intelligence. b. componential intelligence. c. contextual intelligence. d. experiential intelligence. Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 243 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of contextual intelligence because Risha is aware of the context in which she would be working.

% correct 17

a= 7 b= 64 c= 17 d= 11

r = .38

117.

Without _______________, it is difficult to acquire tacit knowledge. a. componential intelligence b. contextual intelligence c. experiential intelligence d. metacognitive intelligence Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 243 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Tacit knowledge results from observing others who are a part of our environment. Therefore, it is part of contextual intelligence. 118.

Tacit knowledge refers to a. strategies for success that are not explicitly taught but instead must be inferred. b. the knowledge of one’s own cognitive processes and how they can be used effectively. c. recognition that a problem exists and selection of a strategy based on previously acquired knowledge. d. learning new knowledge quickly so that one can cope effectively with novel situations. Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 243 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Tacit knowledge is knowledge that is not formally taught but must be inferred by observing others. It includes practical, action-oriented strategies for achieving goals. 119.

Logan understands the material in his statistics class, but on tests, he uses the same strategies he does on homework, spending the entire period on the most difficult problems and never even gets to the problems that he can solve easily. Logan’s inability to adapt his strategy to the testing situation indicates that he has low a. reflective judgment. b. componential intelligence. c. cognitive dissonance. d. contextual intelligence. Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 243 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Contextual or practical intelligence refers to the practical application of intelligence, which requires you to take into account the different contexts in which you find yourself. 120.

Tracy does not have an unusually high IQ, but at work she was quickly promoted because she learned by

observing others how to set priorities, communicate with management, and make others feel valued. Tracy has _______________ about how to succeed on the job. a. tacit knowledge b. effective prototypes c. mental images d. developed an algorithm Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 243 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of tacit knowledge, knowledge that is not formally taught but must be inferred by observing others, which includes practical, action-oriented strategies for achieving goals. 121.

A form of intelligence that refers to how effectively people perceive and understand their own feelings and the feelings of others is __________ intelligence. a. fluid b. emotional c. bodily-kinesthetic d. crystallized Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 243 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Emotional intelligence is the ability to identify your own and other people’s emotions accurately, express your emotions clearly, and regulate emotions in yourself and others. % correct 92 a= 0 b= 92 c= 7 d= 2 r = .23 122.

Bobbi, a successful stockbroker, says that she is not upset after her relationship ended, but she began abusing alcohol after the relationship ended, and she becomes very impulsive and violent when she is angry. Bobbi would likely score __________ intelligence. a. low on tests of emotional b. low on tests of componential c. high on tests of emotional d. high on tests of componential Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 243–244 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: People who are lacking in emotional intelligence are often unable to identify their own emotions; they may insist that they are not depressed when a relationship ends, but meanwhile they start drinking too much, become extremely irritable, and stop going out with friends. 123.

The neuroscientist Antonio Damasio found that individuals with damage to the prefrontal cortex often score low on measures of __________ intelligence. a. contextual b. componential c. experiential d. emotional Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 244 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Individuals with damage to the prefrontal cortex cannot assign values to different options based on their own emotional reactions and cannot read emotional cues from others.

THE ORIGINS OF INTELLIGENCE Learning Objectives 7.18 The extent to which intelligence may be heritable 7.19 A common error in the argument that one group is genetically smarter than another 7.20 How the environment nurtures or thwarts mental ability 7.21 Some reasons that Asian children perform much better in school than American

students do 124.

If a researcher’s goal is to calculate the ______________ for a specific trait, they are trying to make a statistical estimate of the proportion of the total variance in the trait that is attributable to genetic differences among individuals within a group. a. bell curve b. heritability c. factor analysis d. g factor Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 245 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Heritability is defined as a statistical estimate of the proportion of the total variance in some trait that is attributable to genetic differences among individuals within a group. 125.

Behavioral-genetic studies have shown that a. for children and adolescents, heritability estimates average around .75. b. for adults, heritability estimates average around .45 to .50. c. as adopted children grow into adulthood, the correlation between their IQ scores and those of their biologically unrelated family members decreases to zero. d. the scores of fraternal twins reared together are more highly correlated than the scores of identical twins reared apart. Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 245 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: As adopted children grow into adolescence, the correlation between their IQ scores and those of their biologically unrelated family members diminishes, and in adulthood, the correlation falls to zero. 126.

In order to explain principles of the differences in intelligence between and within groups, the authors described a hypothetical tomato plant experiment. Based on this experiment it would be accurate to conclude that a. if differences within groups are at least partly genetic in origin, then differences between groups are also genetic. b. the heritability of the differences between groups is 100 percent even though the within-group difference is due entirely to the environment. c. the variation within each group will result from genetic differences, but the between-group difference is explained by the different care received. d. heritability estimates are valid in regard to group differences but not in regard to the variance found within a group. Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 246 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Although intellectual differences within a group are largely genetic, the differences between groups is due to the kind of “soil,” or environment, that they live in. 127.

Which of the following statements about the influence of nutrition on intelligence is true? a. Nutrition affects emotional intelligence but not IQ. b. The IQ gap between severely malnourished children and well-nourished children can be as high as 20 points. c. Prenatal nutrition for pregnant mothers can affect a child’s IQ, but nutrition after birth has little impact on IQ. d. Malnutrition actually improves IQ scores in many cases. Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 247 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The IQ gap between severely malnourished children and well-nourished children can be as high as 20 points. 128.

Which toxin, commonly found in paint, soil, and old pipes, can damage the brain and nervous system, even

at fairly low levels, producing attention problems, lower IQ scores, and poorer school achievement? a. lead b. DDT c. mercury d. tetrodotoxin Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 247 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Many children in the United States are exposed to dangerous levels of lead from dust, contaminated soil, lead paint, and old lead pipes. 129.

Kelly was neglected for the first 3 years of her life. Based on the information in your textbook, which of the following would be most likely to help raise her IQ score? a. adding very small amounts of lead to her diet b. exposing her to mental enrichment activities c. adding vitamin D to her diet d. there is nothing that can raise her IQ score Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 247 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Healthy and stimulating environment can raise IQ scores, as several intervention studies with atrisk children have shown. 130.

When Terman compared the 100 most successful men with the 100 least successful men he found that __________ made the difference. a. intelligence b. socioeconomic status of parents c. motivation d. whether they attended public or private schools Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 248 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Success appears to be more correlated with drive and determination than other factors, including IQ score. 131.

Comparisons of attitudes and performance in regard to math tests in Asia and the U.S. showed that a. although the attitudes toward intellectual success were similar among Asian children and American children, their actual performance on tests differed markedly. b. only 10 percent of the American children had scores as low on computations and word problems as the average Asian child. c. only 4 percent of the Chinese children and 10 percent of the Japanese children had scores as low as the average American child. d. although the performance of Asian children and American children is similar, attitudes toward intellectual success differed markedly. Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 249 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Studies comparing American and Asian academic test performance have demonstrated that American children generally perform poorly compared to Asian children, despite having many economic and schooling advantages. 132.

If a child does well in math, American parents are more likely than Asian parents to believe that the child a. has paid attention in class and studied. b. should work in a field related to math. c. should focus more on verbal skills. d. is innately good at math. Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 249 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Americans are far more likely than Asians to believe that mathematical ability is innate. Americans tend to think that if you have this ability, you don’t have to work hard, and if you don’t have it,

there’s little point in even trying to attain it. 133.

Compared to their Asian counterparts, American a. parents have far higher standards for their children’s academic performance. b. parents have far lower standards for their children’s academic performance. c. children think that you have to work hard to demonstrate mathematical ability. d. children value education much more. Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 249 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Compared to their Asian counterparts, American parents have far lower standards for their children’s academic performance. 134.

Children in Beijing typically outperform children in Chicago on tests of mathematical ability because: a. Chinese children have more innate mathematical ability. b. Chinese children have better schools. c. Chinese children go to better schools. d. Chinese children value education more. Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 249 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Stevenson relates the difference in achievement to a difference in how much education is valued in Asian and American cultures.

% correct 100

a= 0 b= 0 c= 0 d= 100

r = .00

135.

Japanese school teachers and students are more likely than their American counterparts to believe that a. the secret to doing well in mathematics is working hard. b. mathematical ability is innate and either you have it or you don’t. c. lower standards are acceptable because children need time for exercise and play. d. small classes and high-technology resources are imperative for a quality education. Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 249 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Japanese schoolteachers and students are much more likely than their American counterparts to believe that the secret to doing well in math is working hard. Americans tend to think that you either have mathematical intelligence or you don’t.

ANIMAL MINDS Learning Objectives 7.22 Whether animals can think 7.23 Whether some animal species can master aspects of human language 136.

When Köhler put chimpanzees in situations in which tempting bananas were just out of reach, he found that a. almost all of the apes figured out a way to reach the bananas. b. many of the apes showed humanlike emotions and advanced cognitive abilities. c. the apes performed impressive gymnastic maneuvers to get the bananas but did not use objects. d. apes often sat quietly for a while and then seemed to have sudden insight into a solution. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 250 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Most of the apes did nothing, but a few sat quietly for a while and then seemed to have sudden insight resulting in solving the problem. 137.

Dr. Portet is a researcher who studies cognitive processes in nonhuman animals. Dr. Portet works in the field of a. cognitive consonance. b. cognitive dissonance. c. cognitive ethology. d. metacognition.

Section: Animal Minds Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Cognitive ethnology is the study of cognitive processes in nonhuman animals.

Page(s): 250 Answer: c

138.

Investigations of animal behaviors indicate that a. the actions of animals can be explained by instinct and by principles of operant conditioning alone. b. chimpanzees have a rudimentary sense of number and appear to have some sort of summing ability. c. chimpanzees trained to use signs with humans do not use signs to converse with other chimps. d. when language training procedures became objective, apes could not use symbols to refer to objects. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 251 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Dozens of studies have found that nonhuman primates have a rudimentary sense of number. 139.

Research evidence is accumulating that _______________ have at least some abilities that depend on a theory of mind. a. dogs b. chimpanzees c. leopards d. horses Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 251 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The great apes (chimpanzees, gorillas, and orangutans) along with dolphins and elephants have at least some abilities that depend on a theory of mind. 140.

Irene Pepperberg has worked with African gray parrots, including one named Alex. Her research revealed that a. Alex was capable of addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division problems, showing an innate understanding of numbers. b. Alex was able to make requests and to answer simple questions about objects. c. Alex’s linguistic abilities were limited to the “parroting” of phrases that he heard Irene speak. d. Alex showed no evidence of cognitive abilities, because his brain was the size of a walnut. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 253 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Alex had the ability to make requests and to answer simple questions about objects. He did more than “parroting” phrases, he showed some understanding of numbers, but could only sum two small sets of objects for amounts up to six. 141.

The tendency to falsely attribute human qualities to nonhuman animals is called a. metacognition. b. confirmation bias. c. anthropodenial. d. anthropomorphism. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 253 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The tendency to falsely attribute human qualities to nonhuman animals is called anthropomorphism. 142.

Tiffany tells her husband that she thinks their dog is embarrassed to be walked around the neighborhood in the sweater that she knitted for him. This is almost certainly an example of a. divergent thinking. b. stereotype threat. c. anthropodenial. d. anthropomorphism. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 253 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The tendency to falsely attribute human qualities to nonhuman animals is called

anthropomorphism. 143. Laboratory experiments suggest that animals have a. some cognitive capacities. b. cognitive capacities better than most humans. c. almost no cognitive capabilities. d. cognitive capabilities similar to most humans. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 250–254 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: While there is some debate about what cognitive abilities animals do and do not have, it is clear that many animals have at least some of the cognitive capacities seen in humans. % correct 73 a=73 b= 0 c= 4 d= 23 r= .21 144. What lesson should be drawn from the story of the famous horse named Clever Hans? a. Some animals can perform simple calculations. b. Horses are almost as smart as apes. c. Careful experiments are required to accurately determine what cognitive abilities animals have. d. Animals can understand language, but have difficulty communicating without voice boxes. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 253–254 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Careful experiments revealed that Hans did not understand mathematics, but was responding to the body language of the people around him. 145.

The tendency to think, mistakenly, that human beings have nothing in common with other animals is called a. anthropodenial. b. anthropomorphism. c. stereotype threat. d. tacit knowledge. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 254 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is the definition of anthropodenial, the belief that our own species is totally unique. 146.

Yusuf runs a dog-fighting ring out of his house. He justifies the harm that happens to the dogs by telling himself that dog fighting isn’t cruel because dogs cannot think or feel emotions. This is an example of a. anthropodenial. b. anthropomorphism. c. stereotype threat. d. tacit knowledge. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 254 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Anthropodenial is the term used to describe the belief that animals have none of the cognitive abilities humans have. 147.

When creativity has been studied, it has been noted that a. a high IQ usually guarantees creativity. b. creative people rely on convergent thinking. c. creative people are willing to risk ridicule. d. personality characteristics aren’t related to creativity. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 256 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Creative people are willing to take risks, even the risk of ridicule. They are often noncomformists. 148.

Which of the following is a characteristic associated with convergent thinkers? a. They generate several possible solutions to a problem. b. They are able to use familiar concepts in unexpected ways. c. They tend to follow a specific set of steps to solve a problem.

d. They come up with new hypotheses. Section: Taking Psychology with You Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Convergent thinkers follow a particular set of steps to solve a problem.

Page(s): 256 Answer: c

149.

Which of the following is associated with creativity? a. convergent thinking b. divergent thinking c. mental set d. higher than average IQ Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 256 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Divergent thinking, the ability to come up with new hypotheses, imagine other interpretations, and so forth, is a characteristic of creative thinkers.

True-False Questions 1. A prototype is a mental category that groups objects or activities having common properties. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is the definition of a concept, not of a prototype. 2. A proposition is a unit of meaning that is made up of concepts and expresses a single idea. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 3. Research on visual images shows that people are able to manipulate the images in their imaginations. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 4.

People have reported visual and auditory mental images, but mental images do not occur in other sensory modalities. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Many people report mental images in the sensory modalities of smell, touch, taste, pain, and even kinesthesis, as well as in vision and audition. 5. Research on human cognition reveals that not all mental processing is conscious. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 225–226 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 6.

When you are multitasking, your prefrontal cortex, which prioritizes tasks and enables higher-order thinking, becomes overly active. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 226 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Your prefrontal cortex becomes relatively inactive when switching tasks. 7. Mindlessness occurs when we make decisions out of habit without stopping to analyze why. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 227 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact.

In formal reasoning problems, the information needed for reaching a solution is specified clearly and there is a single right answer. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 9. In inductive reasoning, a correct conclusion necessarily follows from a set of premises. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a description of deductive reasoning, not inductive reasoning. 10. An algorithm is a rule of thumb that guides problem solving but does not guarantee an optimal solution. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a description of a heuristic, not an algorithm. 11. When making a cake, the recipe that one relies upon is an example of an algorithm. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 12. Reflective judgment is basically another term for what has been called critical thinking. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 229 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 13. People tend to judge the probability of an event by how easy it is to think of examples of the event. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 232 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: This is called the availability heuristic. 14. The tendency to find patterns in events is a common mental set. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 235 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

15.

A common form of dissonance reduction occurs when individuals increase their liking for something that they have worked hard to attain. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 236 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 16.

According to our textbook, intelligence is defined as an inborn, global characteristic of an individual usually defined as the innate ability to acquire information. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 238 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Intelligence is usually defined as the ability to profit from experience, acquire knowledge, think abstractly, act purposefully, and adapt to changes in the environment. 17.

Scientists agree that a general ability underlies the specific abilities and talents measured by intelligence tests. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 238–239 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: A long-running debate in psychology concerns whether a general ability, or g factor, underlies the specific abilities and talents measured by intelligence tests.

18. Tests of g factor do a good job of predicting academic achievement. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 238–239 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

19.

The average intelligence test score of contemporary IQ tests is usually set arbitrarily at 100, and the tests are constructed so that about two-thirds of all people score between 85 and 115. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 239 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 20.

Because a cultural stereotype in the United States presents women as not as good at math, most women do especially well on math tests in order to prove the stereotype wrong. Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 241 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: People are more likely to perform in a manner consistent with a stereotype, indicating that the stereotype creates a kind of self-fulfilling prophecy. 21. Standardized intelligence tests tell us nothing about how a person goes about solving problems. Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 242 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 22.

Tacit knowledge refers to the knowledge of one’s own cognitive processes and how they can be used effectively. Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 243 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Tacit knowledge refers to strategies for success that are not explicitly taught but instead must be inferred. 23. A person who is low in emotional intelligence is likely to misread the nonverbal signals of others. Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 244 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 24.

Differences between Asian and American children in regard to a broad battery of mathematics tests can be accounted for by educational resources. Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 249 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The difference in scores between Asian and American children results from a difference in attitudes, expectations, and efforts between the two cultures. 25. Cognitive ethology is the study of cognitive processes in nonhuman animals. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 250 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

26.

Explanations of animal behavior that rely solely on instinct would have difficulty interpreting the fact that mother chimpanzees show their young how to use stone tools to open nuts. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 251 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 27. Research conducted with chimpanzees suggests that monkeys have a rudimentary sense of number. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 251 Type: Factual Answer: True

Rationale: Statement of fact. 28 Chimps and monkeys are not capable of metacognition. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 251 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: When they are tested on a new task, they will avoid difficult trials in which they are likely to be wrong. 29.

In early studies, researchers teaching language to primates unwittingly gave nonverbal cues that might have enabled the apes to respond correctly. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 252 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 30.

The tendency to think that human beings have nothing in common with other animals is called anthropomorphism. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 254 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: It is called anthropodenial, not anthropomorphism. 31. People who are creative tend to rely on convergent thinking. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 256 Type: Factual Rationale: Creative individuals rely more on divergent thinking.

Answer: False

Short Answer Questions 1. Distinguish between a concept and a prototype and provide an example of each. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Conceptual Answer: Concept is a mental category that groups objects, relations, etc.; a prototype is a representative example of a concept. For example, fruit is a concept; a red apple is a prototype for the concept of fruit. 2. Compare and contrast deductive and inductive reasoning and provide an example of each. Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Conceptual Answer: In deductive reasoning, conclusions follow logically from given premises, and if those premises are true, the conclusion is true; in inductive reasoning, premises provide support for the conclusion, but the conclusion may be false even if the premises are true. 3.

Cognitive biases occur when people exaggerate the probability of very rare events. How does the availability heuristic enhance this kind of bias? Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 232 Type: Conceptual Answer: The availability heuristic leads us to conclude that a type of event occurs with a high probability if it is easy to think of examples. This can lead to exaggerating the probability of rare events, because it is often easy to think of rare, but emotional events, such as airplane crashes. 4.

What does it mean to avoid loss? Explain why this cognitive bias may affect a person’s decision about accepting or rejecting various aspects of medical treatment. Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 232–233 Type: Conceptual Answer: Avoiding loss refers to the tendency to respond more cautiously when a choice is framed in terms of the risk of losing something compared to when the same choice is framed in terms of the chance to win or gain. When choosing between different medical treatments, our decision may be affected by whether the

doctor frames the choice in terms of chances of surviving or chances of dying. 5.

When discussing the close presidential race in 2000, Javier tells his friends that he knew that Florida would be a key state in the election. What cognitive bias is Javier likely demonstrating and how does it work? Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 233–234 Type: Applied Answer: Javier is demonstrating hindsight bias, because he probably didn’t really know Florida was the key state. It only seems that way in retrospect. 6.

In order to join her sorority, Leena had to endure 3 months of being treated like a slave her sorority sisters. Several times, she almost quit because she hated it so much. According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, how will Leena feel about the sorority once she is admitted and why? Section: Barriers to Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 235–236 Type: Applied Answer: Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that the need to justify the effort of joining the sorority will cause Leena to have very positive feelings about the sorority. To hold the opposite view would cause dissonance because then all of her suffering would have been wasted. 7.

Contrast the behaviors of college students who are weak in metacognition with those for whom metacognition is strength. Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 242–243 Type: Conceptual Answer: Those who are weak in metacognition fail to know when a section in the textbook is difficult, do not know when they do not understand material, and often spend too much time studying material they already understand. Those who are strong in metacognition check their comprehension by restating what the book says, backtrack when necessary, and ask questions when unsure. 8. Name four environmental factors that are associated with reduced mental ability. Section: The Origins of Intelligence Page(s): 247 Type: Factual Answer: Four environmental factors that are associated with reduced mental ability are poor prenatal care, malnutrition, exposure to toxins, and stressful family circumstances. 9. Describe what cognitive ethnologists study. Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 250 Type: Conceptual Answer: They study cognitive processes, such as problem solving and language, in nonhuman animals. 10. Compare and contrast convergent and divergent thinkers. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 256 Type: Conceptual Answer: Convergent thinkers follow a particular set of steps that they think will converge on one correct solution. Then, once they have solved a problem, they tend to develop a mental set and approach future problems the same way. In contrast, divergent thinkers explore side alleys and generate several possible solutions. They come up with new hypotheses, imagine other interpretations, and look for connections that are not immediately obvious. 11. List three personality characteristics that are related to creativity. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 256 Type: Factual Answer: Three personality characteristics related to creativity are nonconformity, curiosity, and persistence.

Essay Questions

One type of mental representation is the concept. How do concepts allow us to relate to the world around us in a manageable way? Create an example to show what a person’s experience in a novel situation might be like if humans didn’t organize the world based on concepts. Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 224 Type: Applied Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Concepts simplify and summarize information about the world so that it is manageable.  Because of concepts, we can make decisions quickly and efficiently.  Without concepts, in a novel environment we would have to carefully examine every object to determine what it was and what purpose it served.  With concepts, we might be in a totally new environment, but we would still have some idea of how to react to the objects around us.  For example, we might recognize some objects as furniture. We might recognize a small moving object as an animal. We might recognize some objects as food.  Thus, we would know how to react because we know something about the general categories of objects around us, even though we might not be familiar with the specific exemplars.

Langer and her associates studied the reactions of people who were about to use a photocopier when a researcher approached and asked to be allowed to use it first. One of three different requests was made:  “Excuse me, may I use the Xerox machine?”  “Excuse me, may I use the Xerox machine, because I have to make copies?”  “Excuse me, may I use the Xerox machine, because I’m in a rush?” How did the individuals in Langer’s study respond to these requests? How were these results interpreted in our textbook? Section: Thought: Using What We Know Page(s): 227 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Only the third request presented a legitimate reason. In Langer’s study however, people also complied with the second request, where the reason only sounded legitimate.  This was interpreted as an example of mindlessness: mental inflexibility, inertia, and obliviousness to the present context.  They heard the form of the request, but they did not hear its content, and they mindlessly stepped aside.

There are two kinds of reasoning, formal and informal. Compare and contrast these two modes of thought in regard to:  information available  number and quality of answers  presence of established procedures  recognition that the problem is solved Section: Reasoning Rationally Page(s): 228 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  In formal reasoning, all of the information needed to solve the problem is clearly specified, whereas in informal reasoning the information may be incomplete or inconclusive.  In formal reasoning, there is one correct answer. In informal reasoning, there is often no clearly correct solution.  There are established procedures (such as algorithms) to find the answer in formal reasoning, and the person recognizes when he or she reaches the correct answer.  There are rules of thumb (heuristics) for solving problems in informal reasoning, but typically a person is less sure of his or her answer because there is always the possibility that other information may surface that would change the answer.

Alfred Binet’s insight regarding a method of measuring mental development had an international impact in

the twentieth century. Explain how he went about calculating a child’s mental abilities. What scoring system did later researchers base on Binet’s method, and how was it originally calculated? Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 239 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Binet’s test included items ranging from those that most young children could do easily to those that only older children could handle.  The test was given to large numbers of children and the typical performance for each age was determined.  This allowed him to determine a child’s mental age, the level of intellectual development relative to other children.  The purpose of Binet’s test was to determine which children were slow learners so that they could be given remedial work and brought up to the average.  Later researchers used Binet’s concept of mental age to calculate an intelligence quotient (IQ) score for individuals.  Originally, IQs were calculated by dividing a child’s mental age by his or her chronological age and then multiplying by 100. 5.

In his research on stereotype threat, Claude Steele has revealed how cultural stereotypes influence test performance. Explain stereotype threat and the effects it has on test performance. Who typically experiences stereotype threat? Section: Measuring Intelligence: The Psychometric Approach Page(s): 241 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Stereotype threat is a burden of doubt a person feels about his or her performance, due to negative stereotypes about his or her group’s abilities.  For example, African Americans, knowing that they are members of a group that is often stereotyped as doing poorly academically, may feel stereotype threat when taking a test.  The increased anxiety may then worsen their performance on the test.  Studies have shown that stereotype threat has an effect on the performance of many African Americans, Latinos, low-income people, women, and elderly.

One well-known theory of intelligence, the triarchic theory proposed by Robert Sternberg, distinguishes three different aspects of intelligence. Explain each of these aspects in detail. Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 242–243 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Componential intelligence refers to the information-processing strategies a person draws on when thinking intelligently about a problem. This also includes metacognition, the knowledge or awareness of your own cognitive processes and the ability to monitor and control those processes.  Experiential or creative intelligence refers to creativity in transferring skills to new situations.  Contextual or practical intelligence refers to the practical application of intelligence, which requires that the context be taken into account.

One of the longest-running psychological studies ever conducted was begun by Lewis Terman in 1921 in order to learn about children who scored in the top 1 percent of the IQ distribution. As they reached adulthood, some of these “Termites,” as they were called, fulfilled their early promise, but others did not. Analyze the differences between those who were successful and those who were not. Section: Dissecting Intelligence: The Cognitive Approach Page(s): 248 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Motivation made the difference between the most successful and the least successful men.

   8.

The successful men were ambitious, were socially active, had many interests, and were encouraged by their parents. The unsuccessful men drifted casually through life. There was no difference in IQ between the two groups.

Animals solve problems in ways that fascinate us. Describe the research that has led some researchers to conclude that animals can think, including in your essay information regarding:  The chimpanzees studied by Wolfgang Kohler

 

Kanzi, the bonobo who uses a keyboard with symbols on it

Alex, the African gray parrot who vocalized English words Section: Animal Minds Page(s): 250–253 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Kohler tested Sultan and other chimpanzees by placing bananas in sight but out of reach.  Sultan and some of the other chimps demonstrated sudden insight and were able to solve the problem.  Kanzi, a bonobo, learned to understand English words, short sentences, and keyboard symbols without formal training, simply by observing others use language.  Kanzi responded correctly to commands even when he had never heard the specific combination of words before.  Kanzi also learned to use a computer keyboard and produce symbols requesting favorite food or activities and announcing his intentions.  Alex, the gray parrot, learned to count, classify, and compare objects by vocalizing English words.  He showed evidence of linguistic and cognitive ability.  Alex also made requests and answered simple questions about objects.

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 8– Quick Quiz 1 1.

Eyewitness testimonies by victims are most likely to contain errors when the suspect a. is of a different ethnic background than the victim. b. is significantly older than the victim. c. is significantly younger than the victim. d. is of a different gender than the victim.

What are the components of the information-processing model in order? a. retrieval, encoding, storage c. capturing, encoding, retrieval b. encoding, capturing, retrieval d. encoding, storage, retrieval

Information in short-term memory is retained for about _______________ if it is not rehearsed. a. 2–3 seconds or less c. 5–20 minutes b. 30 seconds d. 30 minutes

When you rollerblade, you are relying on _______________ memory. a. semantic c. procedural b. episodic d. declarative

According to the serial-position effect, if you are shown a list of items and then asked to immediately recall them a. you will most easily recall items from the beginning and the middle of the list. b. you will most easily recall items from the beginning and the end of the list. c. you will most easily recall items from the middle and the end of the list. d. retention of any particular item is based on emotional valence, not its position in the list.

_______________ is thought to be a biological mechanism of long-term memory. a. Deep processing c. Parallel processing b. Long-term potentiation d. State-dependent memory

Strategies and tricks for improving memory, such as the use of a verse or formula, are called a. mnemonics. c. serial-position effect. b. reconstructive memory. d. pattern recognition.

10.

a special memory module for early childhood experiences.

Chapter 8– Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Flashbulb memories are vivid recollections of emotional events. (Page 265, Applied)

Rationale: Research has shown that when a suspect is of a different ethnic background than a witness, the witness is less likely to accurately remember the appearance of the suspect. (Page 267, Factual)

Rationale: In information-processing models of memory, we encode information (convert it to a form that the brain can process and use), store the information (retain it over time), and retrieve the information (recover it for use). (Page 271, Factual)

Rationale: There have been varied estimates of the length of short-term memory, but it is currently believed to be about 30 seconds. (Page 273, Factual)

Rationale: This is an example of using procedural memory. (Page 276, Factual)

Rationale: Primacy and recency come into play and we remember the first and last items best . (Page 277, Factual)

Rationale: Long-term potentiation may be a biological mechanism involved in forming long-term memory. (Page 278, Factual)

Rationale: Strategies and tricks for improving memory, such as the use of a verse or formula, are called mnemonics. (Page 283, Factual)

Rationale: S. could not forget even when he wanted to. Along with the diamonds of experience, he kept dredging up the pebbles. (Page 283, Conceptual)

10.

Rationale: Due to childhood amnesia, most people have no memory of their first three years of life. If they seem to have memories, they are most likely reconstructions based on family stories, photographs, and their own imaginings. (Page 289, Factual)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 8– Quick Quiz 2 1.

The inability to distinguish what you originally experienced from what you heard or were told about an event later is called a. semantic memory. c. explicit memory. b. priming. d. source misattribution.

The items on this test illustrate which method of testing memory? a. cued recall c. recognition b. savings d. free recall

Our memories of general knowledge items such as the meanings of words or the dates of famous historical events are stored in a. procedural memory. c. episodic memory. b. semantic memory. d. eidetic memory.

The process by which a long-term memory becomes durable and stable is called a. consolidation. c. confabulation. b. chunking. d. priming.

According to the _______________ theory of forgetting, information in memory eventually disappears if it is not accessed. a. replacement c. cue-dependent b. interference d. decay

10.

What kind of forgetting does the following incident illustrate? Ruth studied the names of learning theorists for her psychology class, after which she began studying the

names of political theorists for her political science class. Much to her frustration, she found the names of the learning theorists were keeping her from being able to learn the names of the political theorists. a. decay c. repression b. proactive interference d. retroactive interference

Chapter 8– Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: This is an example of source misattribution (also called source confusion). We recall a memory, but not how it was established or where it came from. (Page 265, Factual)

Rationale: Conscious, intentional recollection of an event or an item of information is called explicit memory. (Page 270, Applied)

Rationale: True–false and multiple-choice tests call for recognition, the ability to identify previously encountered material. (Page 270, Conceptual)

Rationale: The three-box model is a sequential model, but the brain uses parallel processing in addition to sequential processing. (Page 272, Conceptual)

Rationale: In order to fit more information into short-term memory, we group small bits of information into larger units, or chunks. This process is known as “chunking.” (Page 274, Conceptual)

Rationale: Semantic memories are memories of general knowledge, including facts, rules, concepts, and propositions. (Page 276–277, Conceptual)

Rationale: Episodic memories are internal representations of personally experienced events. (Page 277, Applied)

Rationale: This is a definition of consolidation. (Page 278, Factual)

Rationale: This is a description of the decay theory of forgetting. (Page 285, Factual)

10.

Rationale: When previously stored material interferes with the ability to remember recently learned material, it is called proactive interference. (Page 286, Applied)

Chapter 8 – MEMORY Multiple Choice Questions RECONSTRUCTING THE PAST Learning Objectives 8.1 Why memory does not work like a camera—and how it does work 8.2 Why errors can creep into our memories of even surprising or shocking events 8.3 Why having strong feelings about a memory does not mean that the memory is accurate 1.

_______________ refers to the capacity to retain and retrieve information. a. Recall b. Memory c. Priming d. Recognition Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 263 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Memory refers to the capacity to retain and retrieve information, and also to the structures that account for this capacity. % correct 67 a=23 b= 67 c= 3 d=7 r = .36 2.

A system that allows people to retain information over time is called a. memory. b. cognition. c. computer. d. intelligence. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 263 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Memory refers to the capacity to retain and retrieve information, and also to the structures that account for this capacity. % correct 97 a= 97 b= 2 c= 0 d= 1 r = .24 3.

Memory is critical to our lives because a. it confers a sense of personal identity, which enhances our sense of coherence. b. without memory, we could not experience emotions. c. it operates as a video camera would, automatically recording every moment of our lives. d. each thing that happens to us, or impinges on our senses, is tucked away for later use. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 263 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Memory endows us with a sense of identity; each of us is the sum of our recollections. Individuals and cultures alike rely on a remembered history for a sense of coherence and meaning. 4.

Retrieving a memory is like a. replaying a videotape of an event. b. reading a short story that describes the characters in detail, but does not include the dialogue. c. hearing the soundtrack of a story without access to the visual and other sensory images. d. watching unconnected frames of a movie and figuring out what the rest of the scene was like. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 264 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Memory involves reconstruction. We recall the major details and reconstruct the rest. Our memory is not like a videotape replaying a past experience.

According to Sir Frederic Bartlett a. memory is like a video camera recording an entire experience. b. memory is largely a reconstructive process, like putting together a puzzle when you are missing some pieces. c. memory for complex information is generally reproduced by rote. d. emotional memories are especially vivid and detailed. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 264–265 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Memory is a reconstructive process, putting together pieces of the memory and filling in blanks. 6.

The inability to distinguish what you originally experienced from what you heard or were told about an event later is called a. semantic memory. b. priming. c. explicit memory. d. source misattribution. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: This is an example of source misattribution (also called source confusion). We recall a memory, but not how it was established or where it came from. 7.

_______________ is an especially vivid memory of an emotional event. a. Reconstructive memory b. A flashbulb memory c. Semantic memory d. Video memory Section: Reconstructing the Past Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a description of flashbulb memory. % correct 87 a= 6 b= 87 c= 3 d= 3 r = .38

Page(s): 265 Answer: b

Memories that concern events that are highly significant and are vividly remembered are called a. elaborative rehearsals. b. flashbulb memories. c. eidetic images. d. eyewitness images. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Shocking or tragic events—such as earthquakes, accidents, a mass killing, an assassination—and even some exhilaratingly happy events hold a special place in memory. These vivid recollections of emotional events are called “flashbulb memories.” % correct 93 a= 1 b= 93 c= 3 d= 2 r = .28 9.

Roger Brown and James Kulik labeled the vivid recollection of emotional events as a. source amnesia. b. flashbulb memories. c. serial position effects. d. frozen memories. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Roger Brown and James Kulik labeled the vivid recollection of emotional events as flashbulb memories. 10.

Flashbulb memories a. are not subject to periodic revision. b. concern events that are highly significant.

c. are almost always highly accurate. d. include a memory's main subject, but not the background events. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Flashbulb memories are vivid memories of emotional events, but they are not always accurate and are subject to errors. % correct 79 a= 6 b= 79 c= 3 d= 12 r = .31 11.

Christina was visiting a friend in New York City on September 11, 2001, the day of the attack on the World Trade Center. To her, that day seems frozen in time. She remembers exactly where she was, what she was doing, and what she felt as the morning transpired. This vivid recollection is known as a. source misattribution. b. a flashbulb memory. c. a serial-position effect. d. a frozen memory. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Flashbulb memories are vivid recollections of emotional events. 12.

Dawn remembers where she was and what she was doing when Michael Jackson died, seemingly as if it occurred yesterday. This memory is called a a. source memory. b. flashbulb memory. c. serial-position memory. d. flashback memory. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Flashbulb memories are especially vivid memories of emotionally charged events. 13.

Which term is used to describe the confusion of an event that happened to someone else with one that happened to you? a. confabulation b. flashbulb memory c. serial-position effect d. priming Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Because memory is reconstructive, it is subject to confabulation—confusing an event that happened to someone else with one that happened to you or a belief that you remember something when it never actually happened. 14.

When 6-year-old Sven’s parents overhear him describing his third birthday party, they look at each other in surprise. Sven appears to remember the birthday cake his father was baking burned and his aunt had to run out and buy one from a bakery, even though Sven was not present when those events occurred. Sven’s memory illustrates the concept of a. priming. b. implicit memory. c. confabulation. d. decay. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Confabulation often occurs when we put together a memory from pieces of our past experiences and pieces of stories we have heard about ourselves and others, and fill in blanks with our imagination. 15.

Chad remembers the feeling of excitement in his house when his mother stepped through the door with his new baby sister. He can still picture the tiny little baby with a stocking cap on her head! His parents can’t

convince him that he actually stayed with his grandparents for two weeks after his sister was born and that his memory never happened! Chad’s memory is an example of a. childhood amnesia. b. confabulation. c. psychogenic amnesia. d. repression. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Chad has been told about his baby sister’s arrival home and has imagined it so many times that he confabulated a memory for the event. 16.

Long-term memory is sometimes unreliable because of _______ of information. a. reconstruction b. retention c. coding d. chunking Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265–266 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Because memory is reconstructive, it is subject to confabulation and other errors of memory. % correct 80 a= 80 b= 9 c= 6 d= 5 r = .22 17.

Irene swears that she was there the night her best friend got into a fight with her ex-boyfriend. It takes several of her friends to convince her that she was not. Which of the following likely made Irene’s fake memory seem so real to her? a. She had only heard the story of the fight a few times. b. The fight occurred only a year ago. c. Her memory contained only a few key details. d. The fight was easy to imagine. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 266 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: If imagining an event takes little effort, then we tend to think that our memory is real.

MEMORY AND THE POWER OF SUGGESTION Learning Objective 8.4 How memories of an event can be affected by the way someone is questioned about it 8.5 Why children’s memories and testimony about sexual abuse cannot always be trusted 18.

The reconstructive nature of memory helps the mind work efficiently. As a result a. we can store all of the information pertaining to an experience. b. we can use our knowledge of the world to figure out the specifics when we need them. c. our brains are crammed with infinite details. d. we are not vulnerable to suggestion. Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 267 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Instead of storing every detail in memory, we store the essentials of our experience and use our knowledge to figure out specifics when needed. 19.

Eyewitness testimonies by victims are most likely to contain errors when the suspect a. is of a different gender than the victim. b. is significantly older than the victim. c. is significantly younger than the victim. d. is of a different ethnic background than the victim.

Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 267 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Research has shown that when a suspect is of a different ethnic background than a witness, the witness is less likely to accurately remember the appearance of the suspect. 20.

Detective Adams interrogates eyewitnesses of crimes on a regular basis. To ensure that their testimony is accurate, it is important that he a. ask leading questions. b. make suggestive comments. c. avoid misleading information. d. provide misleading information. Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 267–268 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Leading questions, suggestive comments, and misleading information affect people’s memories of events. 21.

In addressing the debate regarding children’s memories of sexual abuse, it has become clear that a. children’s memories cannot ever be trusted because children will always say whatever adults expect. b. assuming that a child has been abused until the evidence suggests otherwise is one way to improve the accuracy of allegations. c. preschoolers are more vulnerable to suggestive questions than are school-aged children. d. children do not lie about or misremember traumatic experiences, such as sexual abuse. Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 269 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Research has demonstrated that preschoolers are much more vulnerable to the effects of suggestion than are older children. 22.

In an experiment at a preschool, a young man read a story to the children and gave them a treat. A week later, an experimenter asked the children in Group 1 leading questions about aggressive acts that never occurred (Did he throw a crayon at a child?). She asked the children in Group 2 leading questions but also used influence techniques. The results showed that a. 3-year-olds in Group 2 said “Yes” to over 80 percent of the allegations suggested to them. b. there was no effect of the child’s age on the likelihood they would say “Yes” to the allegations. c. 3-year-olds in Group 1 said, “No, it didn’t happen” to all the allegations. d. there were no significant differences in the responses of children in Group 1 and Group 2. Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 269 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The use of influence techniques along with the use of leading questions is especially likely to affect the recall of preschool-aged children. 23.

Which of the following examples is a question that would most likely reduce the chance of false reporting by a child? a. “Everyone else saw it happen. You did too, right?” b. “Where were you when the teacher pushed him?” c. “Can you tell me the reason you came to talk to me today?” d. “Let’s ‘pretend’ that he touched you. What would you say happened next?” Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 269 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The question asks for basic information and does not suggest an event has occurred. 24.

Research suggests that the best way to encourage truthful testimony by children is to a. reassure them that their friends have had the same experiences. b. reward them when they tell you that something happened. c. scold them if you believe that they are lying. d. try to avoid asking the child leading questions.

Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: It is best to avoid asking leading or suggestive questions.

Page(s): 269 Answer: d

IN PURSUIT OF MEMORY Learning Objectives 8.6 Why multiple-choice test items are generally easier than short-answer or essay questions 8.7 Whether you can know something without knowing that you know it 8.8 Why the computer is often used as a metaphor for the mind 25.

Conscious, intentional recollection of an event or of an item of information is called a. explicit memory. b. implicit memory. c. autobiographical memory. d. procedural memory. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is a definition of explicit memory. We know the information and we know that we know it.

% correct 67

a= 67 b= 27 c= 7 d= 0

r = .21

26.

Sarah enjoys playing games such as Jeopardy! and Trivial Pursuit, which require her to answer questions based on her ability to recall information pertaining to events that are stored in memory. These types of games test Sarah’s a. explicit memory. b. flashbulb memory. c. reconstructive memory. d. priming abilities. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Conscious, intentional recollection of an event or an item of information is called explicit memory. 27.

Which of the following ways of measuring explicit memory is usually easiest? a. recognition b. recall c. relearning d. referral Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Recall is generally more difficult than recognition, relearning is used to test implicit memory, and referral is not a test of memory. 28.

__________ is the ability to retrieve and reproduce information encountered earlier. a. Recall b. Recognition c. Priming d. Relearning Section: In Pursuit of Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Recall is the ability to retrieve and reproduce information encountered earlier. 29.

Page(s): 270 Answer: a

Maria wrote a shopping list prior to going to the grocery store. Unfortunately, when she arrived at the store she realized she had left the list at home. If she is to purchase the items on her list, Maria must rely on which memory task?

a. recall b. recognition c. interpretation d. relearning Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Recall is the ability to retrieve and reproduce information previously encountered. 30.

__________ is the ability to identify information you have previously observed, read, or heard about. a. Recall b. Recognition c. Interpretation d. Recreation Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Recognition is the ability to identify information you have previously observed, read, or heard about. 31.

A recognition test requires one to a. reproduce material when provided a cue. b. profit from previous learning to relearn faster. c. pick the correct answer from among several possible ones provided. d. reproduce material without cues provided. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In a recognition test the information is given to you, and all you have to do is say whether it is old or new, or perhaps correct or incorrect, or pick it out of a set of alternatives. % correct 72 a= 19 b= 2 c= 72 d= 5 r = .30 32.

The items on this test illustrate which method of testing memory? a. cued recall b. savings c. recognition d. free recall Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: True–false and multiple-choice tests call for recognition, the ability to identify previously encountered material. % correct 68 a= 24 b= 4 c= 68 d= 5 r = .49 33.

Which of the following would require recognition? a. fill-in-the-blank exams b. essay exams c. true–false exams d. playing Trivial Pursuit Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: True–false exams involve recognition of correct or incorrect statements rather than recall. 34.

Under most circumstances, when you are intentionally trying to remember an item of information, _______________ is an easier task than _______________. a. recognition; recall b. recall; recognition c. priming; the savings method d. the savings method; priming

Section: In Pursuit of Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Recognition is generally easier than recall.

Page(s): 270 Answer: a

35.

Unconscious retention in memory, as evidenced by the effect of a previous experience or previously encountered information on current thoughts and actions is called a. explicit memory. b. implicit memory. c. declarative memory. d. procedural memory. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is a definition of implicit memory, memory that we are not aware of. % correct 70 a= 20 b= 70 c= 7 d= 3 r = .42 36.

Jannell solved a crossword puzzle on Thursday, and by Saturday she doesn’t recall the words in the puzzle. But Saturday night, when she is playing Scrabble with her brother, she creates a few of the words that were in the puzzle. Jannell has __________ memory for some of the words. a. a flashbulb b. recognition c. explicit d. implicit Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Implicit memory is a phenomenon in which earlier experiences or previously encountered information affect current thoughts and actions. 37.

Why is implicit memory so difficult to study? a. It does not operate on a conscious level. b. It is a more recently identified type of memory. c. It is concerned with the identification of only certain words and objects. d. It is more susceptible to confabulation. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270–271 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Because people are not consciously aware of their implicit memories, researchers must rely on indirect methods instead of the direct ones used to measure explicit memory. 38.

When psychologists ask someone to read or listen to some information and then test the person later to see if the information affected performance on a completely different task, they are using a memory-testing method known as a. recognition. b. recall. c. priming. d. relearning. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 271 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Priming is a method for measuring implicit memory in which a person reads or listens to information and is later tested to see whether the information affects performance on another type of task. 39.

The relearning method of measuring implicit memory, devised by Ebbinghaus, involves a. recognition of previous information shared. b. recall of a previously performed task. c. studying information or a task learned previously. d. reteaching of information learned at an earlier age. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 271 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c

Rationale: Relearning is a method for measuring implicit memory. 40.

Mackenzie took French lessons when she was very young. As an adult, however, she could not remember any French. Despite this, when she enrolls in a continuing education course on French, she picks up the language much faster than the other students in her class. This is likely an example of: a. recall. b. recognition. c. explicit memory. d. relearning. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 271 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Relearning is involved when you quickly pick up information that you already learned at some previous time. 41.

What are the components of the information-processing model in order? a. retrieval, encoding, storage b. encoding, capturing, retrieval c. capturing, encoding, retrieval d. encoding, storage, retrieval Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 271 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In information-processing models of memory, we encode information (convert it to a form that the brain can process and use), store the information (retain it over time), and retrieve the information (recover it for use). % correct 84 a= 8 b= 2 c= 6 d= 84 r = .49 42.

The step in the memory process that actually makes our memories available to us is a. retrieval. b. encoding. c. rehearsal. d. storage. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Retrieval is the process of finding and recovering information for use. % correct 84 a= 84 b= 6 c= 2 d= 8 r = .34

Page(s): 271 Answer: a

43.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic memory processes? a. retrieval b. encoding c. storage d. conceptualization Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 271 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The three basic memory processes, according to an information-processing model, are encoding, storage, and retrieval.

% correct 60 44.

a= 13 b=27 c= 0 d= 60

r = .21

Which memory system has a limited capacity and stores items for about 30 seconds? a. short-term memory b. long-term memory c. sensory register d. implicit memory Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 272 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is descriptive of short-term memory. Memory can, however, be retained in short-term memory much longer with the use of rehearsal.

% correct 100

a= 100 b= 0 c= 0 d= 0

r = .00

45.

Which memory system has an unlimited capacity and can keep information for hours or decades? a. short-term memory b. long-term memory c. sensory register d. implicit memory Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 272 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is descriptive of long-term memory.

% correct 80

a= 0 b= 80 c= 7 d= 13

r = .21

46.

In the “three-box model of memory,” which memory system holds information for a few seconds of time until it can be processed further? a. short-term memory b. long-term memory c. sensory register d. implicit memory Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 272 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: This is descriptive of the sensory register where information can be held for 2–3 seconds at most. 47.

Critics of the three-box model of memory are likely to agree that a. the human brain processes information sequentially. b. the human brain does not operate like the average computer. c. auditory information is retained in the sensory register for one-half second. d. information flows from one memory system to the next. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 272 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The human brain does not operate sequentially like a computer does. It does use sequential processing, but it also uses parallel processing that is distributed across many areas of the brain. 48.

One objection to the three-box model of memory is that a. short-term memory is not usually involved in the conscious processing of information. b. the brain performs many independent operations simultaneously. c. sensory register is actually able to store information for 30 seconds. d. there is a limit to the capacity of long-term memory. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 272 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The three-box model is a sequential model, but the brain uses parallel processing in addition to sequential processing. 49.

Another name for the parallel distributed processing (PDP) model of memory is the a. interaction model. b. multiple process model. c. connectionist model. d. long-term potentiation model. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 272 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Parallel distributed processing is a more complex view of memory processing in the brain, compared to the three-box model, involving connections among a huge number of interacting processing units. 50.

According to the parallel distributed processing model, the human memory is recognized as a. information directly flowing from one system to another.

b. connections among thousands of interacting processing units. c. a three-box model approach, similar to that of a computer. d. connections that stop in subsystems and may or may not continue to the next. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 272 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: According to the parallel distributed processing model, the human memory is recognized as connections among thousands of interacting processing units. 51.

The __________ model of memory suggests that knowledge is represented as connections among thousands of interacting processing units, distributed in a vast network and all operating in parallel. a. relearning b. parallel distributed processing c. three-box d. priming Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 272 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The parallel distributed processing model of memory suggests that knowledge is represented as connections among thousands of interacting processing units, distributed in a vast network and all operating in parallel.

THE THREE-BOX MODEL OF MEMORY Learning Objectives 8.9 How the three “boxes” in the three-box model of memory operate 8.10 Why short-term memory is like a leaky bucket 8.11 Why a word can feel like it’s “on the tip of your tongue” and what errors you are likely to make when you finally recall it 8.12 The difference between “knowing how” and “knowing that” 52.

The sensory registers a. are measures of retention. b. retain past information. c. control our attention span. d. receive sensory information from the external world. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 273 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: All incoming sensory information must make a brief stop in the sensory register, the entryway of memory. % correct 94 a= 1 b= 1 c= 4 d= 94 r = .32 53.

Which memory system provides us with a very brief image of all the stimuli present at a particular moment? a. long-term memory b. sensory register c. primary memory d. short-term memory Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 273 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The sensory register acts as a brief holding bin, retaining information in a highly accurate form until we can select items for attention from the stream of stimuli bombarding our senses. % correct 87 a= 0 b= 87 c= 2 d= 10 r = .35 54.

Visual images remain in the sensory register for a maximum of a. ½ second. b. 2 seconds.

c. 30 seconds. d. 1 minute. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: The sensory register holds visual information for about a half second. Auditory images remain in the sensory register for about a. ½ second. b. 2 seconds. c. 30 seconds. d. 1 minute. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: The sensory register holds auditory information for about 2 seconds. % correct 37 a= 47 b= 37 c= 7 d= 10 r = .38

Page(s): 273 Answer: a

55.

Page(s): 273 Answer: b

56.

Ambassador McKenzie was about to ask a French diplomat to repeat his last comment but then his auditory subsystem of ________ enabled him to “select” what had been said and ignore all the extraneous sounds in the reception room. a. working memory b. short-term memory c. long-term memory d. sensory register Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 273 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The sensory register acts as a holding bin, retaining information in a highly accurate form until we can select items for attention from the stream of stimuli bombarding our senses. 57.

Information selected from sensory register is transferred to conscious awareness or a. primary memory. b. short-term memory. c. factual memory. d. long-term memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 273 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Information in the sensory register that does not quickly go on to short-term memory vanishes forever. % correct 73 a= 14 b= 73 c= 4 d= 7 r = .58 58.

Information in short-term memory is retained for about _______________ if it is not rehearsed. a. 2–3 seconds or less b. 30 seconds c. 5–20 minutes d. 30 minutes Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 273 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: There have been varied estimates of the length of short-term memory, but it is currently believed to be about 30 seconds. 59.

In regard to STM, researchers agree on which of the following statements? a. Short-term memory holds more than we think it does. b. Short-term memory can grow and be enlarged. c. The number of items that short-term memory can hold is limited. d. The sensory register and short-term memory are one and the same. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy

Page(s): 274 Answer: c

Rationale: Researchers agree that the number of items that short-term memory can hold is small. 60.

After studying the memory difficulties of H. M. and patients like him, it became apparent that a. implicit memories cannot be retained but explicit memories can be recalled normally. b. incoming sensory information bypasses the sensory register causing severe memory deficits. c. the ability to transfer explicit information from STM into LTM is intact. d. the ability to bring information from long-term memory into working memory is intact. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: H. M. had normal ability to retrieve information from long-term storage, but he was unable to place new memories into long-term storage. 61.

Which component of memory has been referred to as a “leaky bucket”? a. the sensory register b. short-term memory c. working memory d. long-term memory Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Short-term memory is referred to as a leaky bucket because it has a limited capacity and information is quickly lost if not rehearsed. 62.

In the 1950s, George Miller estimated the capacity of short-term memory to be the a. magical number 5, plus or minus 4. b. magical number 7, plus or minus 2. c. magical number 9, plus or minus 3. d. magical number 11, plus or minus 1. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Miller’s estimate of the capacity of short-term memory was 7 plus or minus 2 items of information. % correct 77 a= 3 b= 77 c= 13 d= 7 r = . 42 63.

Many years ago, telephone numbers had only four or five digits. Even now, no more than seven digits are used for phone numbers. The most reasonable psychological explanation for this is that a. there is a direct relationship between the number of items in the sensory registers and their retention. b. there is an inverse relationship between the number of items in the sensory registers and their retention. c. there is a direct relationship between the number of items in short-term memory and their retention. d. there is an inverse relationship between the number of items in short-term memory and their retention. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Although the exact size is debated, the number of items that short-term memory can handle at any one time is small. The more digits in a telephone number, the worse the short-term retention would be. % correct 11 a= 10 b= 3 c= 76 d= 11 r = .29 64.

Information is grouped for storage in short-term memory through the process of a. rote rehearsal. b. cueing. c. chunking. d. categorizing. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: In order to fit more information into short-term memory, we group small bits of information into larger units, or chunks. This process is known as “chunking.” % correct 92 a= 4 b= 1 c= 92 d= 4 r = .28

For most Americans, the abbreviation U.S.A. consists of _______________ informational chunk(s). a. one b. three c. six d. seven plus or minus two Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The three separate letters are grouped into one chunk of information. 65.

66.

Chunking is a means of a. immediately forgetting irrelevant details. b. organizing information into meaningful units. c. arranging details into a hierarchy from most important to least important. d. storing long-term memories. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: In order to fit more information into short-term memory, we group small bits of information into larger units, or chunks. This process is known as “chunking.” % correct 96 a= 0 b= 96 c= 4 d= 0 r = .43 67.

Most people cannot store the following list of letters in short-term memory. G O T O Y O U R B E D R O O M However, if the letters are grouped meaningfully into words, they fit short-term memory span: GO TO YOUR BEDROOM. This illustrates a. chunking. b. backward masking. c. verbal coding. d. selective attention. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: A chunk may be a word, a phrase, a sentence, or even a visual image that combines more information into a single mental unit. % correct 89 a= 89 b= 1 c= 9 d= 1 r = .39 68.

Telo convinces a woman he finds attractive to give him her telephone number. Unfortunately, the number is 10 digits long with the area code, and Telo cannot find a place to write it down. As he looks for a pen and paper, what can Telo do to help him remember the number? a. Nothing will help because 10 digits is beyond short-term memory capability. b. Thinking of something else will help Telo. c. “Chunking” the numbers into smaller units will help Telo. d. Telo should try to process the memory in parallel. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Chunking involves taking bits of information and grouping them into larger “chunks” so that more total information can be recalled. 69.

For most Americans, which of the following would be considered a chunk? a. IBF b. FBI c. 921 d. 196 Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: A chunk may be a word, phrase, sentence, or visual image that is meaningful to an individual.

70.

Ryan, an avid football enthusiast, and his mother, who is much less familiar with the game, are watching their favorite college team attempt to score. Which of the following conclusions is most likely? a. The positions of the players form one chunk in Ryan’s STM but 11 chunks in his mother’s STM. b. The positions of the players form 11 chunks in Ryan’s STM but one chunk in his mother’s STM. c. The positions of the players form 11 chunks in both Ryan’s and his mother’s STM. d. The positions of the players form one chunk in both Ryan’s and his mother’s STM. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274–275 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Ryan is used to watching football and may perceive the total pattern of players on the field as one chunk of information, but his mother would have to remember the location of each player as a separate piece of information. % correct 40 a= 40 b= 50 c= 3 d= 7 r = .21 71.

_______________ provide(s) the mental equivalent of a scratch pad. a. Long-term memory b. Semantic categories c. Pattern recognition d. Working memory Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 275 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Working memory, like a scratch pad, can hold information briefly while it is being used. 72.

_______________ is a memory system that includes short-term memory and information retrieved from long-term memory. a. Procedural memory b. Declarative memory c. Working memory d. Semantic memory Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 275 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is a description of the concept of working memory. 73.

Sarah is doing an arithmetic problem, and this component of her memory contains the numbers and the instructions for doing the necessary operations for each step as she goes through the problem. a. serial position memory b. tool-box memory c. working memory d. episodic memory Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 275 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is a description of the concept of working memory. 74.

When researchers investigated organization in long-term memory, they found that a. it must be linked to sound, since users of sign-language don’t have “tip-of-the-tongue” states. b. verbal information is indexed semantically, and not by sound or form. c. semantic categories are effective in organizing words and concepts. d. organization is based on human physiology and so culture has few effects on retrieval. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 275–276 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Words and concepts are usually organized semantically, that is, with other items whose meaning is similar. 75.

You are asked to recall the word that means "a woman who houses and manages prostitutes." You are confident that you know what the term is, and you feel as though you are about to remember it, but it just will not pop out of your memory. You are experiencing a. repression.

b. the partial recall phenomenon. c. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. d. the exhaustive memory search process. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: This is an example of a tip-of-the-tongue (TOT) state. % correct 88 a= 4 b= 4 c= 88 d= 5 r = .45 Memories for the performance of actions or skills are called a. procedural memories. b. semantic memories. c. declarative memories. d. episodic memories. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of procedural memory.

Page(s): 276 Answer: c

76.

When you rollerblade, you are relying on _______________ memory. a. semantic b. episodic c. procedural d. declarative Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is an example of using procedural memory.

Page(s): 276 Answer: a

77.

78.

Page(s): 276 Answer: c

_______________ could be called “knowing how to do something memories.”

a. Procedural memories b. Semantic memories c. Declarative memories d. Episodic memories Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a description of procedural memory.

Page(s): 276 Answer: a

79.

__________ memories could be called “knowing that something is true” memories. a. Procedural b. Implicit c. Declarative d. Flashbulb Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Declarative memories are memories of facts, rules, concepts, and events (“knowing that”); they include semantic and episodic memories. 80.

Which of the following is considered to be an implicit memory? a. procedural memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. declarative memory Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Procedural memories are generally considered to be implicit, because once skills and habits are learned well, they do not require much conscious processing. The other options are all types of explicit memory.

% correct 27

a= 27 b= 43 c= 10 d=20

r = .17

81.

Our memories of general knowledge items such as the meanings of words or the dates of famous historical events are stored in a. procedural memory. b. semantic memory. c. episodic memory. d. eidetic memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Semantic memories are memories of general knowledge, including facts, rules, concepts, and propositions. % correct 56 a= 10 b= 56 c= 20 d= 14 r = .38 82.

On a TV game show, Jeannette is asked to name the state capital of Vermont. This information is most likely stored in a. procedural memory. b. semantic memory. c. episodic memory. d. eidetic memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Semantic memories are memories of general knowledge, including facts, rules, concepts, and propositions. % correct 78 a= 4 b= 78 c= 8 d= 10 r = .31 83.

The state psychology association has invited teams from all the colleges in the state to compete in a Psych Bowl. The teams will answer questions such as "Who founded the first psychology laboratory?" Where is this information stored? a. long-term memory b. short-term memory c. conceptual memory d. primary memory Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276–277 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This would be an example of a semantic long-term memory. % correct 82 a= 82 b= 2 c= 9 d= 8 r = .39 84.

Your street address, telephone number, and social security number are stored in a. numerical memory. b. short-term memory. c. long-term memory. d. sensory memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: These would be examples of semantic long-term memories. % correct 87 a= 2 b= 7 c= 87 d= 4 r = .09 Which of the following is NOT an example of long-term memory? a. identifying a perfume as that worn by your grandmother 20 years ago b. repeating an address after it was told to you c. repeating a poem learned in nursery school d. remembering how to ride a bike Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is an example of the rehearsing information that is in short-term memory.

Page(s): 276–277 Answer: c

85.

Page(s): 276–277 Answer: b

% correct 94

a= 4 b= 94 c= 1 d= 1

r = .20

86.

The type of memory that is most like an encyclopedia or a dictionary is a. emotional memory. b. episodic memory. c. procedural memory. d. semantic memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276–277 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Semantic memories are memories of general knowledge, including facts, rules, concepts, and propositions. % correct 81 a= 1 b= 9 c= 9 d= 81 r = .40 87.

Which of the following would be among Patty’s semantic memories? a. remembering what her wedding gown looked like b. the memory of her four siblings dancing at the reception c. recalling when her husband proposed d. knowing that it is appropriate to stand when the bride walks down the aisle Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276-277 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Semantic memories include facts, rules, concepts—items of general knowledge. 88.

_______________ is an internal representation of the world independent of any particular context. a. Procedural memory b. Semantic memory c. Episodic memory d. Declarative memory Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276–277 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Semantic memory is our general knowledge of the world, including facts, rules, concepts, and propositions. 89.

Which type of memory is concerned with remembering the day your parents bought you a car? a. implicit memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. procedural memory Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 277 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Episodic memories are internal representations of personally experienced events % correct 88 a= 5 b= 6 c= 88 d= 1 r = .35 90.

Steve was recalling his first day in college, including walking into the wrong class, dropping his books as he left, and the long line at the registrar's office he encountered when he had to switch classes. These memories are examples of a. semantic memory. b. implicit memory. c. procedural memory. d. episodic memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 277 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Episodic memories are internal representations of personally experienced events. % correct 90 a= 7 b= 1 c= 2 d= 90 r = .28 91.

Your memories of personal information such as what you wore to work yesterday or what you ate for breakfast this morning are stored in

a. procedural memory. b. semantic memory. c. episodic memory. d. eidetic memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 277 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Episodic memories are internal representations of personally experienced events. % correct 81 a= 2 b= 14 c= 81 d= 2 r = .54 92.

Which of the following is an example of episodic memory? a. words b. concepts c. symbols d. events Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 277 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Episodic memories are internal representations of personally experienced events. % correct 91 a= 3 b= 5 c= 2 d= 91 r = .25 93.

Memories of personally experienced events and the contexts in which they occurred are called a. procedural memories. b. semantic memories. c. short-term memories. d. episodic memories. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 277 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: This is a definition of episodic memory, a subtype of declarative memory. % correct 83 a= 13 b= 3 c= 0 d= 83 r = .29 94.

Your tutor has "one last word" for you before she ends today's session. She tells you to study material in the middle of your study session a little harder. What concept from memory research is the basis of her advice? a. serial position effect b. state-dependent learning c. transfer test d. imagery Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 277 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The serial-position effect is the tendency for recall of the first and last items on a list to surpass recall of items in the middle of the list. % correct 88 a= 88 b= 10 c= 0 d= 2 r = .52 95.

Margeaux is introduced to the following people when she arrives at the party: Derek, Kayla, Calvin, Debbie, Rose, Melanie, Garrett, Tom, Francis, Jane, and Vincent. According to the serial-position effect, it will be most difficult to remember the names of a. Derek, Kayla, Jane, and Vincent. b. Tom, Francis, Jane, and Vincent.

c. Derek, Kayla, Melanie, and Garrett. d. Debbie, Rose, Melanie, and Garrett. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 277 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: This is an example of the serial-position effect—that is, remembering the first and last items best. 97.

According to the serial-position effect, recall for items at the beginning of a list is known as __________ effect and recall of items at the end of a list is known as __________. a. recency; primacy effect b. primacy; recency effect c. primacy; end of item recall d. primacy; primacy reflected Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 277 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: According to the serial-position effect, recall for items at the beginning of a list is known as primacy effect and recall of items at the end of a list is known as recency effect.

THE BIOLOGY OF MEMORY Learning Objectives 8.13 Changes that occur in the brain when you store a short-term versus a long-term memory 8.14 Where in the brain memories for facts and events are stored 8.15 Which hormones can improve memory 98.

A long-lasting increase in the strength of synaptic responsiveness is called a. deep processing. b. long-term potentiation. c. parallel processing. d. state-dependent memory. Section: The Biology of Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of long-term potentiation.

Page(s): 278 Answer: b

99.

_______________ is thought to be a biological mechanism of long-term memory. a. Deep processing b. Long-term potentiation c. Parallel processing d. State-dependent memory Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 278 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Long-term potentiation may be a biological mechanism involved in forming long-term memory. 100.

The process by which a long-term memory becomes durable and stable is called a. chunking. b. consolidation. c. confabulation. d. priming. Section: The Biology of Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of consolidation. 101.

During short-term memory tasks, _______________ is especially active. a. the frontal lobe b. the hippocampus

Page(s): 278 Answer: b

c. the cerebellum d. the amygdala Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 278 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The frontal lobes appear to be particularly involved in the processing of short-term memories. 102.

Which part of the brain is involved with the formation and consolidation of fear and other emotional memories? a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. fornix d. cerebral cortex Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 278 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This part of the brain is the amygdala. 103.

_______________ plays a critical role in the formation of long-term declarative memories. a. The frontal lobe b. The hippocampus c. The cerebellum d. The amygdala Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 278 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: As demonstrated by the case of H. M., the hippocampus is necessary for placing new information into long-term storage. 104.

The _______________ is associated with the encoding and storage of emotional material. a. frontal lobe b. hippocampus c. cerebellum d. amygdala Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 278 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: The amygdala is involved in our response to emotional stimuli and our storage of emotional information. 105.

Formation and retention of procedural memories may involve the a. frontal lobe. b. hippocampus. c. cerebellum. d. amygdala. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 279 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: It has been demonstrated that the cerebellum is involved in the storage of at least some forms of procedural memory. 106.

Moderate amounts of hormones released by the adrenal glands during stress and emotional arousal tend to a. enhance memory. b. produce tip-of-the-tongue states. c. cause retroactive interference. d. lead to motivated forgetting. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 280 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Adrenal hormones may facilitate memory storage at moderate levels. In contrast, extreme levels of arousal seem to impair memory formation.

107.

Celia and Kyle watch an extremely scary movie on Halloween. During the movie, Kyle is clearly more emotionally aroused and scared than Celia. All other things being equal, what is likely to be the result based on the “Horror Labyrinth” study discussed in your textbook? a. Celia will remember more details accurately from the movie than Kyle. b. Kyle will remember more details accurately from the movie than Celia. c. Both will remember about the same number of details accurately from the movie. d. Kyle will repress the entire experience. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 280 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Volunteers wore a wireless heart-rate monitor as they walked through a horror labyrinth so that their stress and anxiety levels could be recorded. The higher their stress and anxiety, the less able they were to accurately describe the “scary person” later, and the fewer correct identifications they made of him in a lineup.

HOW WE REMEMBER Learning Objectives 8.16 How memory can be improved, and why rote methods are not the best strategy 8.17 Why memory tricks, although fun, are not always useful Most people seem to favor _______________ for encoding and rehearsing the contents of short-term memory. a. kinesthetic senses (writing) b. vision c. speech d. subliminal perception Section: How We Remember Page(s): 281 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Speech, either aloud or silently, seems to be preferred for encoding and rehearsing information in short-term memory. 108.

109.

Using maintenance rehearsal involves a. processing the physical features of the stimulus to be remembered. b. analyzing new material in order to make it memorable. c. associating new material to be learned with information maintained in long-term memory. d. the rote repetition of material in order to maintain its availability in memory. Section: How We Remember Page(s): 281 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Maintenance rehearsal is pure repetition. 110.

Duncan called the telephone information line to get the phone number of the local pizza store. To aid in his recall of the phone number long enough to dial it, he repeats it to himself over and over. This is an example of a. recognition. b. maintenance rehearsal. c. elaborative rehearsal. d. deep processing. Section: How We Remember Page(s): 281 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Maintenance rehearsal is rote repetition of material in order to keep it available in memory. 111.

_______________ involves associating new items of information with material that has already been stored.

a. Maintenance rehearsal b. Elaborative rehearsal c. Long-term potentiation d. Deep processing Section: How We Remember Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: This is a description of what happens in elaborative rehearsal. % correct 55 a= 19 b= 55 c= 6 d= 19 r = .36

Page(s): 281 Answer: b

112.

Robert is making a conscious effort for prolonged retention of his homework by processing its meaning fully. This strategy is called a. shallow processing. b. deep processing. c. involved processing. d. engaged processing. Section: How We Remember Page(s): 282 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Deep processing involves making a conscious effort for prolonged retention. 113.

_______________ occurs when instead of encoding just the physical or sensory features of the information, the meaning of information is analyzed. a. Deep processing b. Procedural memory c. Maintenance rehearsal d. Priming Section: How We Remember Page(s): 282 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of deep processing of information. 114.

Strategies and tricks for improving memory, such as the use of a verse or formula, are called a. reconstructive memory. b. mnemonics. c. serial-position effect. d. pattern recognition. Section: How We Remember Page(s): 283 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Strategies and tricks for improving memory, such as the use of a verse or formula, are called mnemonics. 115.

As she studies her psychology textbook, Marilyn wants to make sure that she remembers that sound intensity is measured in units called decibels and that each decibel is one-tenth of a bel, which is a unit named after Alexander Graham Bell. Marilyn creates a visual image of 10 little elf-like Alexander Graham Bells trying to turn up the volume of a huge stereo. Her strategy is called a. confabulation. b. priming. c. maintenance rehearsal. d. a mnemonic. Section: How We Remember Page(s): 283 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: This is an example of a mnemonic, a formal strategy for encoding and storing information. 116.

In order to help her music students learn the lines of the treble clef in musical notation, the teacher has them learn the sentence “Every Good Boy Does Fine.” This is an example of a. reconstructive memory. b. mnemonics. c. serial-position effect.

d. pattern recognition. Section: How We Remember Page(s): 283 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of a mnemonic, a formal strategy for encoding and storing information. % correct 97 a= 0 b= 97 c= 0 d= 3 r = .32

WHY WE FORGET Learning Objectives 8.18 The problem with remembering everything 8.19 The major reasons we forget even when we’d rather not 8.20 Why most researchers are skeptical about claims of repressed and recovered memories 117.

Alexander Luria told of the journalist, S., who could remember the exact circumstances under which he learned memory after memory. From the story of S., we can conclude that a near-perfect memory a. still doesn’t prevent psychogenic amnesia concerning sensitive topics. b. leads others to perceive one as a genius. c. is a curse as well as a blessing. d. contributes to human survival in an evolutionary sense. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 283 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: S. could not forget even when he wanted to. Along with the diamonds of experience, he kept dredging up the pebbles. 118.

Researcher Marigold Linton decided to find out how people forget real-life events. Like Ebbinghaus who studied the forgetting of nonsense syllables, she used herself as a subject. As a result of her research, what did Linton conclude? a. Long-term forgetting of real-life events is slower and proceeds at a gradual but steady rate. b. Forgetting of real life-events is rapid at first and then tapers off. c. Forgetting of real-life events is rapid at first and proceeds at a gradual but steady rate. d. Long-term forgetting of real-life events does not occur. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 285 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Marigold Linton concluded that long-term forgetting of real life events is slower and proceeds at a gradual but steady rate. 119.

Psychologists have proposed five mechanisms to account for forgetting: a. decay, replacement, interference, transference, and repression. b. decay, replacement, interference, cue-dependent forgetting, and repression . c. decay, transference, interference, cue-dependent forgetting, and repression. d. decay, replacement, sector failure, cue-dependent forgetting, and repression Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 285 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In general, psychologists have proposed five mechanisms to account for forgetting: decay, replacement of old memories by new ones, interference, cue-dependent forgetting, and repression. 120.

The passing of time causes forgetting according to a. interference theory. b. optimization theory. c. reduction theory. d. decay theory. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 285 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The decay theory states that information in memory eventually disappears if it is not accessed now and then. % correct 96 a= 2 b= 0 c= 1 d= 96 r = .45

121.

"Use it or lose it" would most likely be associated with a. decay theory. b. replacement theory. c. cue-dependent forgetting. d. interference theory. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 285 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The decay theory states that information in memory eventually disappears if it is not accessed now and then. 122.

According to the _______________ theory of forgetting, information in memory eventually disappears if it is not accessed. a. replacement b. interference c. cue-dependent d. decay Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 285 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: This is a description of the decay theory of forgetting. 123.

According to the _______________ theory of forgetting, one’s original perception can be erased by new and misleading information. a. replacement b. interference c. cue-dependent d. decay Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 285 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is a description of what might happen according to the replacement theory of forgetting. 124.

The theory of forgetting that is most closely compared to rerecording on an audiotape or videotape and wiping out the original material is a. replacement. b. interference. c. cue-dependent. d. decay. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 285 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The theory of forgetting that is most closely compared to rerecording on an audiotape or videotape and wiping out the original material is replacement. 125.

The theory that states that we forget information because other information gets in the way is the ______________ theory. a. signal detection b. trace decay c. interference d. inhibition Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 285–286 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Interference theory holds that forgetting occurs because similar items of information interfere with one another in either storage or retrieval. % correct 94 a= 0 b= 4 c= 94 d= 1 r = .41 126.

Tim is studying for a test. After seven consecutive hours of studying, he finds he can remember what he just finished studying, but he can no longer remember what he studied five or six hours ago. Tim's memory

problems are BEST explained by a. proactive interference. b. retrograde amnesia. c. memory diffusion. d. retroactive interference. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 286 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: When recently learned material interferes with the ability to remember similar material stored previously, it is called retroactive interference. % correct 60 a= 20 b= 5 c= 14 d= 60 r = .23 127.

What kind of forgetting does the following incident illustrate? Ruth studied the names of learning theorists for her psychology class, after which she began studying the names of political theorists for her political science class. Much to her frustration, she found the names of the learning theorists were keeping her from being able to learn the names of the political theorists. a. decay b. proactive interference c. repression d. retroactive interference Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 286 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When previously stored material interferes with the ability to remember recently learned material, it is called proactive interference. % correct 62 a= 0 b= 62 c= 2 d= 36 r = .32 128.

According to the _______________ theory of forgetting, information may get into memory, but it becomes confused with other information. a. replacement b. interference c. cue-dependent d. decay Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 286 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: This is a description of why we might be unable to retrieve information according to the interference theory of forgetting. 129.

_______________ is defined as forgetting that occurs when previously stored material interferes with the ability to remember similar, more recently stored, material. a. Cue-dependent forgetting b. Proactive interference c. Decay d. Retroactive interference Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 286 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is a definition of proactive interference. % correct 43 a= 6 b= 43 c= 3 d= 46 r = .57 130.

Harry and Sally dated for five years and broke up three weeks ago. Sally went on a date last evening with Ian. While on her date with Ian, she kept forgetting his name and accidentally called him Harry several times. This is an example of a. retroactive interference. b. proactive interference. c. decay. d. cue-dependent forgetting. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 286 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b

Rationale: Proactive interference is forgetting that occurs when previously stored material interferes with the ability to remember similar, more recently learned material. 131.

__________ is defined as forgetting that occurs when recently learned material interferes with the ability to remember old information. a. Replacement b. Retroactive interference c. Cue-dependent d. Proactive interference Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 286 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Retroactive interference is defined as forgetting that occurs when recently learned material interferes with the ability to remember old information. 132.

Retrieval cues a. are important in helping us remember items stored in long-term memory. b. are aids in rote rehearsal in short-term memory. c. can be helpful in both long- and short-term memory. d. have been recently shown to be inefficient in accessing available information in memory. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 286–287 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When we lack retrieval cues, we may feel as if we are lost in the mind’s library. This type of memory failure, called cue-dependent forgetting, may be the most common type of all. % correct 80 a= 80 b= 11 c= 8 d= 1 r = .37 133.

__________ forgetting occurs due to the inability to retrieve information stored in memory because of insufficient items of information that can help us find the specific information in memory that we are looking for. a. Replacement b. Retroactive interference c. Cue-dependent d. Proactive interference Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 286–287 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: C Rationale: Cue-dependent forgetting occurs due to the inability to retrieve information stored in memory because of insufficient cues for recall. 134.

Zeke finds that he performs better on the exams that are given in his regular psychology classroom than he does in the large lecture room that is used to give midterms and finals to several sections at once. Zeke’s experience illustrates the a. importance of state-dependent memory. b. role of proactive interference. c. role of retroactive interference. d. importance of retrieval cues in memory. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Remembering is often easier when you are in the same physical environment as you were when an event occurred. 135.

Mood-congruent and state-dependent memories are examples of a. encoding strategies. b. use of cues in retrieval. c. interference effects. d. elaborative encoding. Section: Why We Forget Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate

Page(s): 287 Answer: b

Rationale: Both are examples of the use of cues in the retrieval process. Without adequate cues, information may be difficult to retrieve. 136.

Our authors suggest that in long-term memory, _______________ may be the most common type of memory failure. a. proactive interference b. cue-dependent forgetting c. retroactive interference d. state-dependent retrieval Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Cue-dependent forgetting may be the most common type of memory failure. 137.

Déjà vu may occur when a. cues in the present context overlap with those from the past so there is an eerie experience of having been there before. b. a lack of retrieval cues prevents our ability to recall the time and the details of the last time we have been in that location. c. a memory is encoded during a peak of high emotion and then forgotten until the emotional arousal is once again high. d. repressed information threatens to enter consciousness when cues in the present activate unconscious memories. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Déjà vu, the experience of having been in exactly the same situation as at some prior time, may result from the presence of familiar cues in the current situation. 138.

According to __________ theory, you have a tendency to remember something when you are in the same physical or mental state as you were during the original learning or experience. a. replacement b. interference c. decay d. state-dependent memory Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: According to state-dependent memory theory, you have a tendency to remember something when you are in the same physical or mental state as you were during the original learning or experience. 139.

If you are afraid or angry at the time of an event, you may remember that event best when you are once again in the same emotional state. This phenomenon is called a. state-dependent memory. b. recovered memory. c. mood-congruent memory. d. déjà vu. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of state-dependent memory. 140.

If you are trying to retrieve a memory, you will be better able to do so if a. you find a practitioner with experience in the hypnotic recovery of memory. b. you wait until your emotional arousal is neither high nor low. c. your current mood matches the mood you were in during the original experience. d. you were relaxed when you encoded the information. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The tendency to remember something is greater when you are in the same physical or mental state

you were in during the original learning experience. 141.

__________ is the loss of memory for important personal information. a. Aphasia b. Blackout syndrome c. Amnesia d. Blockade syndrome Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Amnesia is the partial or complete loss of memory for important personal information. 142.

Amnesia can be organic, for example resulting from _______________, or psychogenic ( i.e., resulting from _______________). a. a head injury; a brain disease b. a head injury; emotional shock c. emotional shock; a brain disease d. emotional shock; a head injury Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Organic amnesia commonly results from brain injury or disease, whereas psychogenic amnesia is caused by an emotional shock. 143.

Traumatic amnesia involves a. forgetting of specific traumatic events. b. specifying between hurtful or nonhurtful memories. c. a loss of so many personal memories that the person becomes psychologically traumatized. d. forgetting caused by traumatic brain injury or disease. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The controversial condition of traumatic amnesia involves forgetting of specific traumatic events. 144.

The idea of repression, the involuntary pushing of threatening or upsetting information into the unconscious, was introduced by a. Wundt. b. Rogers. c. Freud. d. McNally. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The idea of repression, the involuntary pushing of threatening or upsetting information into unconscious, was introduced by Freud. 145.

__________ is the involuntary pushing of threatening or upsetting information into the unconscious. a. Cue-dependent forgetting b. Interference c. Repression d. Decay Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Repression is the involuntary pushing of threatening or upsetting information into the unconscious. Its existence is controversial. 146.

Olivia was injured in a serious car accident when she was 8 years old. Today, Olivia does not have a recollection of this event. Some psychologists would attribute this to a. cue-dependent forgetting. b. interference.

c. repression. d. decay. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: According to a controversial theory, Olivia may have pushed the unpleasant and upsetting memory of the accident into her unconscious. This is called repression. 147.

Critics of repression as a mechanism of defense argue that a. an individual can be forced into forgetting. b. physical symptoms may be linked to forgetting. c. people pick and choose what they want to remember. d. in real life, the problem is usually that people cannot forget traumatic experiences. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 288 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Critics of repression as a mechanism of defense argue that in real life the problem usually is not that people cannot remember traumatic events, but rather that they cannot forget. 148.

The debate over traumatic amnesia and repression exploded in the 1990s when a. inner-city violence increased across the United States. b. claims of physical abuse in day care centers began to occur. c. claims of recovered memories of sexual abuse began to occur. d. studies were conducted on pregnant teenage mothers. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 288 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The debate over traumatic amnesia and repression exploded in the 1990s when claims of recovered memories of sexual abuse began to occur.

AUTOBIOGRAPHICAL MEMORIES Learning Objectives 8.21 Why the first few years of life are a mental blank 8.22 Why human beings have been called the storytelling animal 149.

Research on autobiographical memory indicates that most adults cannot recall any events until about a. 3 to 6 months of age. b. 6 to 18 months of age. c. 18 to 24 months of age. d. 3 to 4 years of age. Section: Autobiographical Memories Page(s): 289 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Except when something is particularly momentous, most adults cannot remember anything that happened before they were 3 to 4 years old. 150.

___________ is the inability to remember events and experiences that occurred during the first two or three years of life. a. Cue-dependent forgetting b. Childhood amnesia c. Repression d. Traumatic amnesia Section: Autobiographical Memories Page(s): 289 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Childhood amnesia is the inability to remember events and experiences that occurred during the first two or three years of life. 151.

Mariska cannot remember events that occurred in her life prior to 3 years of age. She is experiencing a. cue-dependent forgetting.

b. childhood amnesia. c. repression. d. traumatic amnesia. Section: Autobiographical Memories Page(s): 289 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Childhood amnesia is the inability to remember events and experiences that occurred during the first two or three years of life. 152.

Most researchers agree that the memories people say they have of their first three years of life are based on a. unconscious memories that float to the surface. b. family stories, photographs, and imagination. c. actual recall of the events. d. a special memory module for early childhood experiences. Section: Autobiographical Memories Page(s): 289 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Due to childhood amnesia, most people have no memory of their first three years of life. If they seem to have memories, they are most likely reconstructions based on family stories, photographs, and their own imaginings. 153.

Contemporary memory researchers would be most likely to agree that childhood amnesia a. occurs because the prefrontal cortex and other key brain structures aren’t developed yet. b. occurs when the ego represses id experiences until the superego forms at ages 3–6. c. is due to the processing of so much new information that retroactive interference occurs. d. is due to the babies’ inability to access memories frequently enough before decay occurs. Section: Autobiographical Memories Page(s): 289–290 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The most likely rationale of childhood amnesia is immaturity of brain structures involved in encoding and storing of episodic memories. 154.

Lucio is 2 years old and has poor memory for past events. This is likely because he a. has little ability to encode episodic memories. b. has not yet developed arithmetic skills. c. has an overblown, childish self-concept. d. pushes all memories into the unconscious. Section: Autobiographical Memories Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Preschoolers encode experiences far less elaborately than adults.

Page(s): 290 Answer: a

155.

As a result of __________ and starting school, children learn to think like adults and can reliably remember events. a. impoverished encoding b. the acquisition of language skills c. the establishment of routines d. reconstruction of events based on photos and family stories Section: Autobiographical Memories Page(s): 290 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: As a result of the acquisition of language skills and starting school, children form schemas that contain the information and cues necessary for recalling earlier experiences. 156.

Modern memory research indicates that autobiographical memory likely cannot begin until a. a child turns 1. b. a child is able to think in the abstract. c. a self-concept is established. d. routines have been established. Section: Autobiographical Memories Page(s): 290 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c

Rationale: We cannot have an autobiographical memory of ourselves until we have a self to remember. 157.

When psychological scientists examined 40 cases where wrongful conviction had been established beyond doubt, they found that _______________ of these cases had involved a false identification by one or more eyewitnesses. a. 5 percent b. 20 percent c. 50 percent d. 90 percent Section: Psychology in the News REVISITED Page(s): 291 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: They found that in 90 percent of the cases (36 cases) examined, a false identification by one or more eyewitnesses had been involved.

True-False Questions 1.

An effective way to conceptualize memory is to think of it as a movie camera that records each moment of a person’s life. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 264 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Human memory does not exactly record our experiences. Rather it records a few salient facts, then reconstructs the memory later. 2.

When Sir Frederic Bartlett asked people to read unfamiliar stories and then to recite the stories to him, he found that details or morals were added to make the story coherent. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 264 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 3.

The inability to distinguish what you originally experienced from what you heard or were told about an event later is called source misattribution. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 4. Vivid recollections of emotional events are called “flashbulb memories.” Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

5. Flashbulb memories, unlike other memories, are accurate records of the past. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Flashbulb memories are not any more accurate than other memories and they become less vivid over time. 6. Confabulation is especially likely to occur if you have thought about the imagined event many times. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 266 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 7. When a witness expresses complete certainty about his or her report, the memory is almost always reliable. Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 266 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Even when a witness is sure about his or her recall, the memory may not be totally accurate.

8. Researchers have been able to induce memories of events that never happened. Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 269 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 9. Preschoolers’ memories are more vulnerable to suggestive questions than are the memories of school-aged children. Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 269 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 10. Children cannot be induced to report real-life traumatic experiences that never actually happened to them. Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 269 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Children’s memories are very susceptible to suggestion. 11. Conscious, intentional recollection of an event is called explicit memory. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 12. Explicit memory is usually measured through parallel distributed processing. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Factual Rationale: Explicit memory is usually measured using recall or recognition tests. 13. Recognition is the ability to identify previously encountered information. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 14. Under most circumstances, recognition is easier than recall. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

Answer: False

Answer: True

15. A fill-in-the-blank quiz of psychology terms would test for recognition of the terms. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Fill-in-the-blank questions test for recall, not recognition. 16. Priming is a method for measuring explicit memory. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 271 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Priming is a method for measuring implicit memory, not explicit memory. 17.

The relearning method, devised by Hermann Ebbinghaus over a century ago, assesses whether you learn material more quickly the second time you learn it. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 271 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 18. In the three-box model of memory, short-term memory holds a limited amount of information. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 272 Type: Factual Answer: True

Rationale: Statement of fact. 19.

The parallel distributed processing (PDP) model of memory represents the contents of memory as connections among a huge number of interacting processing units, distributed in a vast network and all operating in parallel. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 272 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 20.

In the three-box model, all incoming information must make a brief stop in the sensory register, the gateway to memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 273 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 21. The sensory register is made up of many separate subsystems, one for each sense. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 273 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 22. Auditory images are held in the sensory register for one-quarter to one-half second. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 273 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Auditory information remains in the sensory register memory for about 2 seconds. 23.

Sensory register holds sensory images just long enough for us to see a “double exposure” and know that the scene we are viewing is accurate. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 273 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The sensory register holds sensory images just briefly, which prevents “double exposure.” 24. George Miller’s estimate of the capacity of short-term memory is the “magical 2 to 20 range.” Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Miller’s estimate of the capacity of short-term memory is 7 plus or minus 2. 25. Information is organized and indexed in long-term memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 275 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

26. Organizing memories by semantic groups is a human characteristic that is uninfluenced by schooling. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 275–276 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Education increases a person’s tendency to organize memory by semantic grouping. 27. Users of sign language report experiencing TOT states, called tip-of-the-finger states. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 28.

Memories that involve knowing how to do something, like how to comb your hair, are called declarative memories. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is an example of a procedural memory, not a declarative memory.

29. Knowing how to ride a bicycle would be a procedural memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

30.

The tendency for recall of the items in the middle of the list to surpass recall of the first and last items on a list is called the serial-position effect. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 277 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: We tend to recall the first and the last items best. This is referred to as the serial-position effect. 31.

In contrast to temporary changes associated with the sensory register, short-term memory involves lasting structural changes in the brain. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 278 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Long-term memories, not short-term memories, involve structural changes. 32. A long-lasting increase in the strength of synaptic responsiveness is called long-term potentiation. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 278 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 33. Long-term potentiation is thought to be the biological mechanism of long-term memory. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 278 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 34. Memories undergo a gradual period of consolidation before they “solidify” and become stable. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 278 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 35. The hippocampus is involved in the formation of declarative long-term memories. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 278 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 36.

Human patients who have damage to the cerebellum cannot be classically conditioned to blink their eyes in response to a tone. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 279 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 37.

When patients, such as H. M., are unable to form new declarative memories, they also cannot acquire new procedural memories. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 279 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: H. M. and others like him are able to acquire new procedural memories. 38.

The role of the hippocampus may be to bind together diverse aspects of a memory so that the memory is retrieved as one coherent entity. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 279 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact.

39.

Your text discusses a study in which volunteers wore a wireless heart rate monitor while they walked through a haunted house. The higher their anxiety level, the better they were able to accurately describe a scary person later. Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 280 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The higher the anxiety level, the less able they were to accurately describe the event. 40.

Elaborative rehearsal is defined as the rote repetition of material in order to maintain its availability in memory. Section: How We Remember Page(s): 281 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a definition of maintenance rehearsal, not elaborative rehearsal. 41.

Proactive interference occurs when recently learned material interferes with the ability to remember similar material that was stored previously. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 286 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is the definition of retroactive interference. 42.

A recent review of the latest research mentioned in your text found no evidence that early trauma in a person's life causes dissociation. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 288 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 43.

In general, psychologists agree that the inability to remember experiences during the first years of life is due to the defense mechanism of repression. Section: Autobiographical Memories Page(s): 289 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Childhood amnesia is probably due to immaturity of certain brain regions involved in memory. 44. The parts of the brain involved in the storage of events are not well developed until a few years after birth. Section: Autobiographical Memories Page(s): 290 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 45.

It has been suggested that autobiographical memories cannot be formed until a child’s self-concept has emerged. Section: Autobiographical Memories Page(s): 290 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact.

Short Answer Questions 1. What is wrong in comparing the human memory to a tape recorder or movie camera? Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 264–265 Type: Conceptual Answer: Not everything that happens to us can be recalled later; memory is selective. Memory is also a reconstruction, and is not always accurate. 2. Describe the phenomenon known as source misattribution. Section: Reconstructing the Past Type: Factual

Page(s): 265

Answer: Source misattribution is the inability to distinguish what you originally experienced from what you heard or were told about an event later. 3. Give an example of confabulation. Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 265–266 Type: Applied Answer: Confabulation occurs when you have heard about an event so many times that you think you were there or come to believe that you remember something that never really happened. Actual examples will vary. 4. Confabulations are likely to occur under what three circumstances? Section: Reconstructing the Past Page(s): 266 Type: Factual Answer: 1) You have thought about the imagined event many times. 2) The image of the event contains a lot of details. 3) The event is easy to imagine. 5. Describe conditions under which errors in eyewitness testimony are most likely to occur. Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 267–268 Type: Factual Answer: Errors in eyewitness testimony are most likely to occur when the suspect’s ethnicity differs from that of the eyewitness and when there are suggestive questions and misleading information from other sources. 6. Differentiate between explicit and implicit memory. Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 270–271 Type: Factual Answer: Explicit memory refers to conscious, intentional recollections whereas implicit memory is unconscious or unintentional. 7. Provide an example of a chunk of information. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Applied Answer: A chunk can be a word, phrase, or even a visual image. Example: NASA rather than N-A-S-A. 8. Although there is some debate, what has generally been reported as the capacity of STM? Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 274 Type: Factual Answer: The capacity of STM is 7 plus or minus 2 chunks of information. 9. Define and give an example of procedural memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276 Type: Applied Answer: Procedural memory is the memory of how to do something, such as ride a bike. 10. Define and give an example of declarative memory. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 276–277 Type: Applied Answer: Declarative memories can be semantic (facts, rules, concepts) or episodic (events). Examples: Knowing that the Battle of Hastings took place in 1066 and remembering your trip to the zoo are both types of declarative memories. 11. Explain the phenomenon called the serial-position effect. Section: The Three-Box Model of Memory Page(s): 277 Type: Applied Answer: Your retention of presented information depends on its position in the list or order in which it was presented. You will best be able to recall items at the beginning and the end of a list. 12.

What is long-term potentiation? What role is it believed to play in memory?

Section: The Biology of Memory Page(s): 278 Type: Conceptual Answer: Long-term potentiation is a long-lasting increase in the strength of the connection between two neurons at the synapse. Many researchers believe this change may underlie the formation of long-term memories in the brain. 13. Give an example of a mnemonic. Section: How We Remember Page(s): 282–283 Type: Factual Answer: One example of a mnemonic is “Every good boy does fine” to remember the notes EGBDF on a musical staff. 14. What is the decay theory? Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 285 Type: Factual Answer: According to the decay theory, memories fade over time if not accessed now and then. 15. Differentiate between retroactive and proactive interference. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 286 Type: Factual Answer: Retroactive interference is when new information interferes with the ability to remember old information. Proactive interference is just the opposite, when old information interferes with the ability to remember new information. 16. What is the repression controversy? Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287 Type: Factual Answer: Many memory researchers do not believe that repression of traumatic events occurs, and are skeptical about claims of recovered memories. 17.

Daniel says he has a memory about something that happened to him when he was 18 months old. What would most memory researchers say about the source of Daniel’s memory? Section: Autobiographical Memories Page(s): 289 Type: Applied Answer: Some people adamantly claim to remember events from the second or even the first year of life. But like other false memories, these are merely reconstructions based on photographs, family stories, and imagination.

Essay Questions 1.

In the mid-1980s, the nation’s media focused on the McMartin preschool in Los Angeles where children claimed to have been hung in trees, raped, and forced to eat feces. What has research revealed about the accuracy of children’s testimony? Under what conditions are children apt to be suggestible? Section: Memory and the Power of Suggestion Page(s): 268–269 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Research has revealed that the extreme positions exemplified by the statements, “children always lie” and “children never lie,” are wrong.  Children can also be influenced by leading questions and suggestions from the interviewer.  Influence techniques like telling the children what “other kids” had supposedly said, expressing disappointment if answers are negative, and praising children for making allegations are likely to increase suggestibility in children.  Younger children are more susceptible to influence techniques than older children.

Contrast the three-box model of memory with the parallel distributed processing model of memory. If you were offered a well-paid position as a research assistant for a prominent memory researcher, would you prefer to work on research based on the three-box model or the PDP model? Why? Section: In Pursuit of Memory Page(s): 272 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The three-box model is a simple three-step sequential model, whereas the PDP model involves a huge number of interacting processing units that are interconnected and distributed in a vast network and all operating in parallel.  The three-box model is based on ways that a computer processes information whereas the PDP model is not.  The three-box model is much simpler to understand, but the PDP model more accurately fits the way that the brain processes information.

Bruce is furious when his midterm is returned with a C grade. He tells his sociology professor that he had read each of the assigned chapters three times and if someone can do that and just be average then there is something wrong with the test! Based on your understanding of critical thinking and memory, what is wrong with Bruce’s reasoning? What are some other possible rationales for Bruce’s average performance? How should Bruce study for the next test in order to get a better grade? Section: How We Remember Page(s): 281–283 Type: Applied Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Simply re-reading a text multiple times, like maintenance rehearsal, is not a very efficient way to consolidate information in long-term storage.  Elaborative rehearsal or deep processing is much more effective and efficient.  Bruce should use his study time to make sure he understands the material, to relate it to what he already knows, and to test himself on the material (practice retrieving the information).  Bruce might try the read-write-review strategy, where you read the passage, close the book, hide your notes, write down (or say out loud) everything you can recall, and then review what you’ve read to see if you understood and remember the information. This strategy has been shown to be more effective than the way Bruce is currently studying.

Compare the efforts of Hermann Ebbinghaus, who wanted to measure pure memory loss, independent of personal experience, with those of Marigold Linton, who studied how people forget real events. Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 284–285 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Ebbinghaus memorized long lists of nonsense syllables, then tested his retention over a period of weeks.  Most forgetting, for Ebbinghaus, occurred soon after the initial learning and then leveled off.  Linton recorded daily events for a period of 12 years and tested herself monthly.  In her case, long-term forgetting was slower and proceeded at a more constant pace.

Beginning in the 1990s, controversy arose regarding the accuracy of long-buried memories of sexual abuse. Freud would explain this as an example of a repressed memory that later is brought to conscious awareness. What does the evidence say about repression? Section: Why We Forget Page(s): 287–288 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The problem for most people who have suffered disturbing experiences is not that they cannot remember, but that they cannot forget.  Repression is hard to distinguish from normal forms of forgetting.



  

Although real abuse certainly occurs, many false memories of abuse have been encouraged by therapists through use of leading questions, instructions to reconstruct and focus on the images of abuse, to focus on the emotional aspects of the images, etc. The techniques unwittingly used by therapists are exactly the same as the conditions that encourage confabulation. These techniques are also similar to methods used in research to create false memories. Given current research, one should be skeptical if a person suddenly seems to recover a traumatic memory as a result of therapy unless there is clearly corroborating evidence from medical records or from other family members.

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 9 – Quick Quiz 1 1.

Learning is a process by which experience results in a. acquisition of motivation. c. amplification of sensory stimuli. b. relatively permanent behavior change. d. delayed genetic behavioral contributions.

Which of the following illustrates an unconditioned stimulus (US)? a. blinking when air is blown into your eye b. blinking, when you hear your favorite song c. your favorite song d. a puff of air to your eye

Which two learning processes seem to be opposites? a. acquisition and generalization c. discrimination and generalization b. discrimination and extinction d. acquisition and discrimination

In operant conditioning, _______________ occurs when a reinforcer is removed. a. acquisition c. generalization b. extinction d. discrimination

10.

Chapter 9 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Learning can be defined as a relatively permanent change in behavior (or behavioral potential) due to experience. (Pages 299–300, Conceptual)

Rationale: Unconditioned stimulus is the classical conditioning term for a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response in the absence of learning. (Pages 300–301, Conceptual)

Rationale: Classical conditioning is most likely to occur quickly and efficiently when the conditioned stimulus precedes the unconditioned stimulus. (Page 302, Factual)

Rationale: “Little Albert” was the pseudonym used for the subject of a classical conditioning experiment conducted by John Watson and Rosalie Rayner. (Page 304, Factual)

Rationale: Operant conditioning is based on the fact that behaviors are controlled by their consequences. That is, if something we do results in positive consequences, we are more likely to do it again. (Page 308, Conceptual)

Rationale: Mary removed something unpleasant, likely because she wanted to increase the likelihood he would get straight A’s again. This is an example of negative reinforcement. (Page 310, Applied)

Rationale: Stimulus generalization in operant conditioning is the tendency for a response that has been reinforced in the presence of one stimulus to occur in the presence of other similar stimuli. Discrimination is exactly the opposite (i.e., the response does not occur in the presence of other stimuli). (Page 312, Conceptual)

Rationale: This describes extinction, the elimination of a response when reinforcement is removed. (Page 312, Factual)

Rationale: This is an example of shaping an animal using successive approximations of a final behavior. (Page 313, Applied)

10.

Rationale: Tolman, in noting that his rats seemed to pause to decide which way to go, was invoking mental activity to explain a behavior. This violated the behaviorist belief that behavior is determined solely by genetics and environment. (Page 321, Factual)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 9 – Quick Quiz 2 1.

Ivan Pavlov is most closely associated with a. vicarious learning. c. b. the Law of Effect. d.

operant conditioning. classical conditioning.

Taste aversions seem to be specific examples of what type of learning? a. classical conditioning c. vicarious learning b. insight learning d. operant conditioning

In classical conditioning, the responses involved tend to be _______________, but in operant conditioning they are _______________. a. complex and not reflexive; reflexive c. reflexive; complex and not reflexive b. emitted; automatic d. secondary reinforcers; primary reinforcers

A negative reinforcer is a stimulus that is ________ and thus ________ the probability of a response. a. removed; increases c. removed; decreases b. presented; decreases d. presented; increases

Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. money c. a buzzer b. a bar of candy d. poker chips

Instinctive drift explains why a. shaping can be used to train complex behaviors in animals. b. pigeons can learn to bowl or play ping pong. c. pigs cannot learn to drop a “coin” in a box. d. people prefer primary to secondary reinforcement.

The use of _______________ reinforcers sometimes causes a behavior to decrease in frequency. a. positive c. extrinsic b. primary d. intrinsic

10.

In both latent learning and social-cognitive learning, what is acquired is _______________ rather than a specific response. a. response tendencies c. behavioral attitudes b. knowledge d. general behaviors

Chapter 9 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Classical conditioning is based on the research of Ivan Pavlov and is sometimes called “Pavlovian conditioning.” (Pages 300–301, Factual)

Rationale: The unconditioned stimulus that already causes a fear response is the loud noise of the thunder. The lightning is an initially neutral stimulus associated with thunder that begins to trigger a fear response as well. Lightning is a conditioned stimulus. (Page 301, Applied)

Rationale: Classical conditioning can explain learned taste aversions to many foods and odors. (Page 306, Conceptual)

Rationale: In classical conditioning, the responses are likely to be reflexive, but in operant conditioning the responses tend to be more complex. (Pages 308–309, Conceptual)

Rationale: When using negative reinforcement, following a response with the removal of an unpleasant stimulus makes the response more likely to occur. (Page 310, Factual)

Rationale: A primary reinforcer is a stimulus that is inherently reinforcing, typically satisfying a physiological need. (Page 310, Conceptual)

Rationale: The boy is responding to other stimuli (men) in the same way he was reinforced to respond to the initial stimulus (his father). This is an example of stimulus generalization. (Page 312, Applied)

Rationale: Keller and Marian Breland found that pigs could not learn to drop a “coin” into a box because of instinctive drift. That is, the pig treated the coin instinctively by rooting and throwing the coin in the air. (Page 314, Conceptual)

Rationale: Extrinsic reinforcers may cause a decrease in a behavior that a person already does for intrinsic reinforcement. (Pages 318–319, Conceptual)

10.

Rationale: In contrast to the behaviorist view that animals acquire response tendencies, latent learning and social-cognitive learning both imply that animals acquire knowledge. (Pages 321– 323, Conceptual)

Chapter 9 – LEARNING AND CONDITIONING Multiple Choice Questions CLASSICAL CONDITIONING Learning Objectives 9.1 How classical conditioning explains why a dog might salivate when it sees a lightbulb or hears a buzzer 9.2 Four important features of classical conditioning 9.3 What is actually learned in classical conditioning 1.

Which school of thought heavily influenced the study of learning in the twentieth century? a. behaviorism b. cognitive c. social-learning d. social-cognitive Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 299 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Behaviorism had a tremendous influence on the study of learning, and on much of psychology, in the twentieth century. 2.

Behaviorists focus on a basic kind of learning called a. instinctive drift. b. conditioning. c. absolute threshold. d. metacognition. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 299 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Behaviorists focus on learning by association, including both classical conditioning and operant conditioning. 3.

According to the behaviorists a. psychological research needs to emphasize the unconscious underpinnings of behavior. b. the predominant area of research should be free will and the mind. c. researchers should focus on the interaction between nature and nurture. d. observable events and acts are the focus of psychological research. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 299 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Behaviorism accounts for behavior in terms of observable acts and events, without reference to mental entities such as “mind” or “will.”

% correct 35 % correct 46 4.

a= 35 b= 3 c= 26 d= 35 a= 27 b= 0 c= 27 d= 46

r = .24 r = .21

Learning is a process by which experience results in a. acquisition of motivation. b. relatively permanent behavior change. c. amplification of sensory stimuli. d. delayed genetic behavioral contributions. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 299–300 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Learning can be defined as a relatively permanent change in behavior (or behavioral potential) due to experience. % correct 80 a= 10 b= 80 c= 10 d= 0 r = .25

Before studying conditioning, Ivan Pavlov studied a. cardiac physiology. b. canine anatomy. c. digestive processes. d. the endocrine system. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 300 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Pavlov was a Russian physiologist studying digestive processes when he got interested in how salivary responses were conditioned. 6.

When Pavlov realized that his dogs were salivating to things other than food, he called the phenomenon a. a conditioned response. b. a conditional response. c. a conditioned reflex. d. a conditional reflex. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 300 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: As he began to outline the processes involved in the conditioning of salivation, he referred to the salivation (without food) as a conditional reflex. 7.

In the initial salivary reflex studied by Pavlov, what was the unconditioned stimulus? a. food b. thoughts of anticipation c. salivation d. the sight of the food dish Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 300– 301 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The unconditioned, or unlearned, stimulus was the food, which automatically caused salivation, an innate reflex. 8.

Ivan Pavlov is most closely associated with a. vicarious learning. b. the Law of Effect. c. operant conditioning. d. classical conditioning. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 300–301 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Classical conditioning is based on the research of Ivan Pavlov and is sometimes called “Pavlovian conditioning.” % correct 95 a= 0 b= 0 c= 5 d= 95 r = .27 9.

An experiment finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he hears a certain piece of music. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then plays the piece of music. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the UNCONDITIONED response is the a. increased heartbeat. b. piece of music. c. sound of the buzzer. d. listening to the music. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 300– 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In classical-conditioning, the UR is the reflexive response elicited by a stimulus in the absence of learning. In this case, the song elicited the increased heartbeat prior to conditioning. % correct 81 a= 86 b= 6 c= 4 d= 9 r = .23

10.

Every week, Jade spends her allowance on ½ pound of sour lemon gummy candies even though they always make her mouth water. One day, as she is walking down the street, Jade sees a girl carrying a little white bag that looks like a candy shop bag! Jade notices that her mouth is puckering and overflowing with saliva. In this example, the unconditioned stimulus is the a. little white bag. b. allowance money. c. puckering and saliva. d. sour lemon gummy candy. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 300– 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The unconditioned stimulus that already causes salivation is the sour candy. The white bag is an initially neutral stimulus associated with sour candy that begins to trigger salivation as well. The white bag is a conditioned stimulus. 11.

Which of the following illustrates an unconditioned stimulus (US)? a. blinking when air is blown into your eye b. blinking when you hear your favorite song c. your favorite song d. a puff of air to your eye Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 300–301 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Unconditioned stimulus is the classical conditioning term for a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response in the absence of learning. % correct 67 a= 24 b= 1 c= 7 d= 67 r = .23 12.

In classical conditioning the stimulus that normally evokes an automatic response even without new learning is called the a. conditioned stimulus. b. reflexive stimulus. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. orienting stimulus. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 300– 301 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Unconditioned stimulus is the classical conditioning term for a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response in the absence of learning. % correct 84 a= 10 b= 5 c= 84 d= 0 r = .37 13.

When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increased. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart raced. Luke's kiss was the a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 300– 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Unconditioned stimulus is the classical conditioning term for a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response in the absence of learning. % correct 71 a= 71 b= 3 c= 22 d= 4 r = .28 14.

The classical-conditioning term for a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response in the absence of learning is a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response.

c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Section: Classical Conditioning Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of an unconditioned stimulus.

% correct 74 % correct 60

a= 74 b= 3 c= 16 d= 6 a= 60 b= 7 c= 20 d= 13

Page(s): 300–301 Answer: a

r = .32 r = .21

15.

Five-year-old Samantha is watching a storm from her window. A huge bolt of lightning is followed by a tremendous thunderclap. Startled, Samantha jumps at the noise. This happens several times. As the storm moves farther away, Samantha jumps at the sight of a lightning bolt but hears the thunder after her jump! In this example, the unconditioned stimulus is the _______________ and the conditioned stimulus is the _______________. a. thunder; lightning b. jumping; lightning c. lightning; thunder d. thunder; jumping Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The unconditioned stimulus that already causes a fear response is the loud noise of the thunder. The lightning is an initially neutral stimulus associated with thunder that begins to trigger a fear response as well. Lightning is a conditioned stimulus. 16.

Many individuals decide that they feel hungry and eat lunch when they see both hands of the clock on the 12, indicating that it is noontime. This may occur regardless of how recently they ate breakfast. In this example, the conditioned response is a. the act of eating breakfast. b. feeling hungry. c. the counting of the number of hours since breakfast. d. the hands of the clock. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The conditioned response—feeling hungry—is elicited by a conditioned stimulus, which is the clock in this example. 17.

What must be paired together for classical conditioning to occur? a. unconditioned stimulus and unconditioned response b. conditioned response and unconditioned response c. neutral stimulus and unconditioned stimulus d. neutral stimulus and conditioned stimulus Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: According to Pavlov, learning occurs when a neutral stimulus (one that does not yet produce a particular response, such as salivation) is regularly paired with an unconditioned stimulus. % correct 38 a= 38 b= 8 c= 38 d= 16 r = .43 18.

A research participant hears a tone followed by a puff of air directed toward his eye. Later, he blinks when he hears the tone. Before ending the experiment, what could the researcher do in order to extinguish the blinking to that tone? a. present the tone alone repeatedly b. present the puff of air alone repeatedly c. increase the loudness of the tone d. increase the amount of air that is directed toward the eye Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a

Rationale: Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus, and is presented by itself. % correct 81 a= 81 b= 17 c= 1 d= 1 r = .37 19.

When Casey opens the closet door to get some dog food, her dog salivates. What is the conditioned stimulus in this example? a. dog food b. the cat running c. the sound of the closet door opening d. the dog Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Conditioned stimulus is the classical conditioning term for an initially neutral stimulus that comes to elicit a conditioned response after being associated with an unconditioned stimulus. In this example, the dog has learned to salivate to the sound of the closet door because it has been paired with food. % correct 94 a= 3 b= 0 c= 94 d= 3 r = .21 20.

In classical conditioning, when a neutral stimulus is paired with a stimulus that naturally elicits a response, the neutral stimulus eventually elicits a similar response or becomes a(n) _______ stimulus. a. conditioned b. discriminative c. higher-order d. unconditioned Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: In classical conditioning, the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus. % correct 77 a= 77 b= 2 c= 7 d= 15 r = .40 21.

How does one know he/she has classically conditioned a person or an animal? a. The unconditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the unconditioned response. b. The unconditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the conditioned response. c. The conditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the conditioned response. d. The unconditioned response all by itself elicits the conditioned response. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: If classical conditioning has occurred, then the CS will elicit a response when presented alone. % correct 64 a= 11 b= 21 c= 64 d= 3 r = .35 22.

Of the four basic elements of classical conditioning, the one the organism learns to respond to is the a. US. b. UR. c. CS. d. CR. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Conditioned stimulus is the classical conditioning term for an initially neutral stimulus that comes to elicit a conditioned response after being associated with an unconditioned stimulus. % correct 69 a= 10 b= 3 c= 69 d= 18 r = .44 23.

d. CR. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In classical conditioning, a conditioned response is elicited by a conditioned stimulus after conditioning has occurred. % correct 92 a= 0 b= 6 c= 2 d= 92 r = .21 24.

As she walked through her neighborhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any color or size. The sight of dogs is the a. US. b. CS. c. UR. d. CR. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Because a dog was paired with the bite, Jodie now responds with fear to the sight of a dog. Therefore, the sight of the dog is a conditioned stimulus. % correct 54 a= 18 b= 54 c= 8 d= 21 r = .53 25.

When Luke kisses Laura, her heart rate increases. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart raced. Laura's increased heart rate when Luke kissed her was the a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Unconditioned response is the classical-conditioning term for a reflexive response elicited by a stimulus in the absence of learning. % correct 61 a= 5 b= 61 c= 4 d= 30 r = .41 26.

When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increases. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice thereafter, her heart raced. Old Spice After Shave was the a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Conditioned stimulus is the classical conditioning term for an initially neutral stimulus that comes to elicit a conditioned response after being associated with an unconditioned stimulus. % correct 80 a= 2 b= 11 c= 80 d= 6 r = .32 27.

When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increases. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart would race. Laura's increased heart rate when she smelled Old Spice was the a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The conditioned response is the response elicited by the conditioned stimulus as a result of classical conditioning.

% correct 77

a= 11 b= 1 c= 11 d= 77

r = .39

28.

An experimenter finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he sees a picture of a nude female. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then presents such a picture. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the UNCONDITIONED response is the a. increased heartbeat. b. female's picture. c. sounds of the buzzer. d. viewing of the picture. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Unconditioned response is the classical-conditioning term for a reflexive response elicited by a stimulus in the absence of learning. % correct 79 a= 79 b= 10 c= 4 d= 7 r = .41 29.

An experimenter finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he sees a picture of a nude female. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then presents such a picture. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the CONDITIONED response is the a. increased heartbeat. b. nude female's picture. c. sounds of the buzzer. d. viewing of the picture. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The conditioned response is the response elicited by the conditioned stimulus as a result of classical conditioning. % correct 91 a= 91 b= 1 c= 6 d= 2 r = .21 30.

When salivation occurs in response to a previously neutral stimulus, it is called a(n) a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Section: Classical Conditioning Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Salivation in response to an initially neutral stimulus is a conditioned response.

Page(s): 301 Answer: d

31.

When Pavlov placed meat powder or other food in the mouths of canine subjects, they began to salivate. The salivation was a(n): a. unconditioned response. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. conditioned stimulus. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When salivation occurred in response to food, it was called an unconditioned response. 32.

According to Pavlov, learning occurs when a. a neutral stimulus is regularly paired with an unconditioned stimulus. b. a response is followed by reinforcement. c. something negative is removed after a particular response. d. reinforcers are given for successive approximations of the desired response. Section: Classical Conditioning Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy

Page(s): 301 Answer: a

Rationale: A new association occurs when a neutral stimulus is regularly paired with an unconditioned stimulus that already elicits the response of interest. 33.

_______________ is the classical-conditioning term for an initially neutral stimulus that comes to elicit a conditioned response. a. Unconditioned stimulus b. Unconditioned response c. Conditioned stimulus d. Conditioned response Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: This is the definition of a conditioned stimulus.

% correct 63

a= 13 b= 0 c= 63 d= 3

r = .46

34.

The classical-conditioning term for a response that is elicited by a conditioned stimulus is a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: This is the definition of a conditioned response.

% correct 87

a= 3 b= 3 c= 7 d= 87

r = .26

35.

The weakening and eventual disappearance of a learned response is called a. extinction. b. counterconditioning. c. discrimination. d. instinctive drift. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is the definition of extinction, the weakening or elimination of a conditioned response.

% correct 100 a= 100 b= 0 c= 0 d= 0 r = .00 % correct 90 a= 90 b= 10 c= 0 d= r = .24 36.

Repeatedly presenting a CS by itself will result in a. extinction. b. spontaneous recovery. c. stimulus discrimination. d. stimulus generalization. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In classical conditioning, extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus. % correct 82 a= 82 b= 2 c= 11 d= 5 r = .43 37.

You train your dog Milo to salivate to the sound of a bell. Then you ring the bell every five minutes and don’t follow the ringing with food for Milo. He salivates less and less and finally stops salivating at all when the bell rings. But the next morning, when you ring the bell, Milo salivates! What term is used to explain the reappearance of this response? a. counterconditioning b. instinctive drift c. spontaneous recovery d. stimulus discrimination Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301

Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of spontaneous recovery, the reoccurrence of an extinguished conditioned response after a rest period. 38.

The reappearance of a learned response after its apparent extinction is called a. counterconditioning. b. instinctive drift. c. spontaneous recovery. d. stimulus discrimination. Section: Classical Conditioning Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of spontaneous recovery.

Page(s): 301 Answer: c

39.

Spontaneous recovery a. occurs before the pairing of the CS and US. b. occurs after a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement. c. is an unlearned response. d. can occur once a response has been extinguished. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Spontaneous recovery is the reappearance of a learned response after its apparent extinction. % correct 81 a= 4 b= 6 c= 9 d= 81 r = .38 40.

_______________ is defined as a procedure in which a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus through association with an already established conditioned stimulus. a. Higher-order conditioning b. Intermittent reinforcement c. Stimulus discrimination d. Spontaneous recovery Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301– 302 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is a definition of higher-order conditioning. 41.

When a stimulus similar to the CS also elicits the CR, the phenomenon is called a. stimulus discrimination. b. stimulus generalization. c. spontaneous recovery. d. 2nd order conditioning. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Stimulus generalization is the tendency to respond to a stimulus that resembles one involved in the original conditioning. % correct 81 a= 11 b= 81 c= 6 d= 2 r = .31 42.

Higher-order conditioning may contribute to the formation of a. prejudice. b. social values. c. conditioned stimuli. d. generalizations. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: A real-world example of higher-order conditioning is the formation of prejudice through an association between a negative word and an ethnic or national label. 43.

When words are paired with objects or other words that already elicit some emotional response, they may

come to elicit that response. This would be an example of a. higher-order conditioning. b. spontaneous recovery. c. an intrinsic reinforcer. d. counterconditioning. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: This is a procedure using higher-order conditioning to establish an emotional response to a word. 44.

When an organism also responds to a stimulus that is similar to the conditioned stimulus, _______________ is said to have occurred. a. discrimination b. generalization c. acquisition d. extinction Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Often organisms respond not only to the conditioned stimulus, but also to other, similar stimuli in a process called generalization.

% correct 93 % correct 93

a= 6 b= 93 c= 0 d= 0 a= 0 b= 93 c= 0 d= 7

r = .50 r = .43

45.

The proverb “He who hath been bitten by a snake fears a rope” illustrates a. an intrinsic reinforce. b. higher-order conditioning. c. spontaneous recovery. d. stimulus generalization . Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: moderate Answer: d Rationale: This is an example of generalization. A person afraid of a snake responds to a rope, similar in appearance to a snake, in the same way he or she responds to the snake. 46.

You classically condition your dog Milo to salivate when middle C is played on the piano, but you find that he also salivates when middle C is played on the guitar. You make a point of playing C on the guitar and not giving Milo any food afterward, whereas you do sometimes give him food after you play C on the piano. After a few days, Milo stops salivating when C is played on the guitar but continues to salivate when it is played on the piano. This phenomenon is known as a. extinction. b. stimulus discrimination. c. higher-order conditioning. d. instinctive drift. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Milo has now learned to distinguish the difference between C on the piano and C on the guitar. In

other words, he has learned to discriminate. 48.

For classical conditioning to be most effective, the stimulus to be conditioned should a. precede the unconditioned stimulus. b. occur simultaneously with the unconditioned stimulus. c. follow the unconditioned stimulus. d. be of greater intensity than the unconditioned stimulus. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Classical conditioning is most likely to occur quickly and efficiently when the conditioned stimulus precedes the unconditioned stimulus.

% correct 37

a= 37 b= 23 c= 37 d= 3

r = .41

49.

Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning? a. A child learns to blink her eyes to a bell because the ringing of the bell has been followed by a puff of air to the eye. b. A pigeon learns to peck at a disk in a Skinner box to get food. c. Rich saw that when Donna banged her fist against a particular vending machine, she got a free soft drink, so now he bangs his fist against that machine when he wants a free soft drink. d. A monkey learns to escape from a cage. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301, 303 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In classical conditioning, a previously neutral stimulus acquires the capacity to elicit a response through association with a stimulus that already elicits a similar or related response. % correct 89 a= 89 b= 6 c= 3 d= 2 r = .47 50.

An analysis of the principles of classical conditioning reveals that a. classical conditioning occurs in mammals, but not in lower species. b. classically conditioned responses last for about two years. c. completely eliminating a conditioned response usually requires more than one session. d. the mere pairing of an unconditioned stimulus and a neutral stimulus is enough to produce learning. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301–303 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Extinction, the process of eliminating a response to some stimulus, usually takes several sessions to completely occur. 51.

Contemporary psychologists have suggested that what an animal or person actually learns in classical conditioning is a. an association between a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus. b. a temporal association between one stimulus and another. c. successive approximations of the desired conditioned response. d. information conveyed by one stimulus about another. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 303 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Essentially, contemporary psychologists argue that the conditioned stimulus serves as a signal or cue to tell us that the unconditioned stimulus is about to occur. Thus, one stimulus is telling us something about another stimulus.

% correct 13 52.

a= 29 b= 13 c= 42 d= 13

r = .21

Robert Rescorla said that a stimulus must reliably _______________ an unconditioned stimulus for the stimulus to begin eliciting conditioned responding. a. block b. follow c. predict d. cause

Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 303 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Rescorla viewed the conditioned stimulus as a predictor of the unconditioned stimulus.

CLASSICAL CONDITIONING IN REAL LIFE Learning Objectives 9.4 Why advertisers often include pleasant music and gorgeous scenery in ads for their products 9.5 How classical conditioning might explain your irrational fear of heights or mice 9.6 How you might be conditioned to like certain tastes and odors and be turned off by others 9.7 How sitting in a doctor’s office can make you feel sick and placebos can make you feel better 9.8 How technology is helping researchers study the biological basis of classical conditioning 53.

One of the best known examples of classical conditioning in humans was the Little Albert study, conducted by a. Pavlov. b. Freud. c. Watson. d. Skinner. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: John Watson, along with Rosalie Rayner, conducted the infamous Little Albert study. % correct 82 a= 5 b= 4 c= 82 d= 9 r = .25 54.

Who was Little Albert? a. developer of the concept of classical conditioning b. an animal trained by using operant conditioning procedures c. creator of methods for teaching children d. a child who developed a fear as part of a demonstration of classical conditioning Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: “Little Albert” was the pseudonym used for the subject of a classical conditioning experiment conducted by John Watson and Rosalie Rayner. % correct 98 a= 0 b= 2 c= 0 d= 98 r = .25 55.

According to John B. Watson, the founder of American behaviorism, you learn to love someone else a. when you feel close to the other person and needed by him or her. b. through the instant chemistry and attraction that flows back and forth. c. by pairing stroking and cuddling with the person doing the stroking and cuddling. d. by associating the person with concepts of trust, loyalty, and companionship. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: In this example, being stroked and cuddled is an unconditioned stimulus causing a positive response. The person who does the stroking and cuddling is initially neutral, but comes to be associated with positive feelings as well. 56

John B. Watson believed that classical conditioning could affect a. our emotional responses. b. our environment. c. animal, but not human, behavior.

d. only physiological responses like salivation. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Watson was interested in the way in which emotional responses could be classically conditioned. 57.

The founder of American behaviorism was a. John B. Watson. b. Jean Piaget. c. Ivan Pavlov. d. B. F. Skinner. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: John B. Watson founded American behaviorism.

Page(s): 304 Answer: a

58.

Initially, when John Watson and his colleague, Rosalie Rayner, showed Little Albert a live white rat. Albert a. began to whimper and tremble. b. liked the rat and seemed delighted. c. tried to crawl away and escape. d. didn’t react to the rat, one way or another. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304– 305 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Little Albert initially liked the rat and was interested in it. 59.

After Little Albert acquired a conditioned fear of a rat, Watson and Rayner wanted to see how he would react to a white rabbit, cotton wool, and a Santa Claus mask. They were studying whether or not _______________ had occurred. a. behavior modification b. stimulus discrimination c. extinction d. stimulus generalization Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304– 305 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: When Albert responded to the rabbit, cotton wool, and Santa Claus mask with fear, it was because of generalization. % correct 71 a= 3 b= 23 c= 3 d= 71 r = .24 60.

In the experiment with Little Albert, the unconditioned stimulus was a. the experimenter. b. the laboratory. c. the loud noise. d. the rat. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304– 305 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In the Little Albert experiment, the loud noise made behind his head whenever he reached for the rat was the unconditioned stimulus. % correct 57 a= 2 b= 4 c= 57 d= 37 r = .31 61.

In the experiment with Little Albert, the conditioned stimulus was a. the experimenter. b. the laboratory. c. the loud noise. d. the rat. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life

Page(s): 304–

305 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In the Little Albert experiment, the conditioned stimulus was the white rat he was conditioned to fear. % correct 49 a= 2 b= 0 c= 49 d= 49 r = .19 62.

In the experiment with Little Albert, the unconditioned response was a. fear of the loud noise. b. fear of the rat. c. fear of the experimenter. d. fear of the laboratory. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304– 305 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: An unconditioned response occurs naturally, without conditioning. Therefore, Albert’s initial fear of the loud noise was the unconditioned response. % correct 66 a= 66 b= 31 c= 0 d= 2 r = .51 63.

When a 3-year-old named Peter was deathly afraid of rabbits, his fear was eliminated through a. stimulus discrimination. b. counterconditioning. c. stimulus generalization. d. operant conditioning. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 305 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In this case, the response of fear was eliminated by conditioning a new response that was incompatible with fear. This is called counterconditioning. 64.

A variation of the counterconditioning procedure used in the treatment of Peter’s fear of rabbits has been used to treat adult phobias. This variation is called a. secondary punishers. b. intermittent reinforcement. c. systematic desensitization. d. latent learning. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 306 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Systematic desensitization is a behavioral technique similar to counterconditioning that is used in the treatment of phobias. 65.

The acquisition of a conditioned fear appears to involve a receptor in the a. frontal lobe. b. hypothalamus. c. amygdala. d. olfactory gland. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 306 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Researchers have found that fear conditioning involves a receptor in the amygdala for the neurotransmitter glutamate. 66.

Paul is coming down with the flu, but he eats spaghetti anyway and subsequently becomes violently ill. A month later he sees that spaghetti is being served in the dining hall and is overcome by nausea. What type of learning is illustrated by this episode? a. operant conditioning b. cognitive learning c. latent learning d. classical conditioning

Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 306 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Classical conditioning can explain learned reactions to many foods and odors. If a taste or smell is followed by illness, the taste or smell will often become disliked and elicit nausea by itself. % correct 55 a= 19 b= 5 c= 21 d= 55 r = .44 67.

Taste aversions seem to be specific examples of what type of learning? a. classical conditioning b. insight learning c. vicarious learning d. operant conditioning Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 306 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Classical conditioning can explain learned taste aversions to many foods and odors. % correct 91 a= 91 b= 0 c=0 d= 9 r = .28 68.

When researchers attempted to teach slugs to dislike foods by pairing the food with an unpleasant taste, they found that a. slugs learned to avoid the smell of carrots and then, through higher-order conditioning pairing carrot smells and potato smells, slugs began to avoid the smell of potatoes. b. slugs learned to avoid the smell of carrots, which they normally like, but attempts at higher-order conditioning failed. c. after the smell of carrots was paired with the bitter-tasting drug, the slugs began to avoid the place where the association had been formed and would not eat any food in that context. d. despite numerous procedures and many attempts, it was not possible to classically condition any responses in slugs. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 306 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Slugs could not only be classically conditioned, but higher-order conditioning was also possible. % correct52 a= 52 b= 19 c= 19 d= 10 r = .18 69.

Shortly after Martin and his wife ate filet mignon with béarnaise sauce, Martin fell ill with the flu. Classical conditioning occurred, and _______________ became a conditioned stimulus for nausea. a. the type of china used by the restaurant b. the presence of Martin’s wife c. the soft light from candles d. béarnaise sauce Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 306 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Béarnaise sauce became a conditioned stimulus for nausea. 70.

Patients may generalize the nausea caused by chemotherapy to the place where the therapy takes place. When this occurs, the unconditioned stimulus is a. chemotherapy. b. nausea. c. the place where therapy takes place. d. the sound of the nurse’s voice. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 307 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The unconditioned stimulus is the stimulus that originally triggers nausea, the chemotherapy. 71.

What has research on managing patient’s pain and anxiety over medical treatments shown regarding placebos? a. Placebos are not useful in reducing pain and anxiety. b. Placebos can be powerful when they take the form of a large pill or have a brand name. c. Placebos in the form of injections are ineffective.

d. Placebos in the form of large pills with a brand name increase pain and anxiety. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 307 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Placebos can be powerful when they take the form of a large pill with a brand name.

OPERANT CONDITIONING Learning Objectives 9.9 How the consequences of your actions affect your future behavior 9.10 What praising a child and quitting your nagging have in common 72.

In the late 1800s, G. Stanley Hall conducted a study of anger. One case involved a 3-year-old girl who asked a calm question right in the middle of a tantrum. What did her tantrum illustrate in regard to learning? a. That she had been reinforced for having tantrums in the past. b. That she had been classically conditioned to associate crying with anger. c. That she had been punished for having tantrums in the past. d. That she had experienced higher-order conditioning of her anger responses. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 308 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In the past, her tantrums had been reinforced; she had gotten what she wanted. 73.

A basic principle governing operant conditioning is that a. behaviors are controlled by their consequences. b. animals can only be conditioned to perform behaviors that appear spontaneously. c. for operant conditioning to occur, a conditioned stimulus must precede an unconditioned stimulus. d. behaviors are controlled by internal causes. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 308 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Operant conditioning is based on the fact that behaviors are controlled by their consequences. That is, if something we do results in positive consequences, we are more likely to do it again. 74.

In classical conditioning, the responses involved tend to be _______________, but in operant conditioning they are _______________. a. complex and not reflexive; reflexive b. emitted; automatic c. reflexive; complex and not reflexive d. secondary reinforcers; primary reinforcers Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 308– 309 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: In classical conditioning, the responses are likely to be reflexive, but in operant conditioning the responses tend to be more complex. % correct 68 a= 19 b= 6 c= 68 d= 6 r = .19 75.

Thorndike was known for his work with a. a puzzle box. b. modeling. c. monkeys. d. a Skinner box. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 309 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Edward Thorndike placed cats in a “puzzle box” and studied them as they learned to escape. % correct 77 a= 77 b= 16 c= 4 d= 1 r = .29 76.

Thorndike conducted research on

a. operant conditioning. b. classical conditioning. c. shaping. d. higher-order conditioning. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 309 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Although it was not called operant conditioning until later, Thorndike set the stage for it by observing cats. % correct 38 a= 38 b= 35 c= 23 d= 3 r = .40 77.

In his observation of cats, Thorndike concluded that a. behavior modification does not work. b. classical conditioning creates behavior. c. behavior is controlled by its consequences. d. behavior is a game of chance. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 309 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: In his observation of cats, Thorndike concluded that behavior is controlled by its consequences. 78.

Operant conditioning is most closely associated with a. John Watson. b. Ivan Pavlov. c. B. F. Skinner. d. John Garcia. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 309 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: B. F. Skinner spent his entire career elucidating the principles of operant conditioning. 79.

The process by which a stimulus strengthens or increases the probability of the response that it follows is called a. higher-order conditioning. b. latent learning. c. classical conditioning. d. reinforcement. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 309 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: This is a definition of reinforcement.

% correct 68 % correct 87

a= 3 b= 13 c= 16 d= 68 r = .34 a= 0 b= 6 c= 7 d= 87 r = .23

80.

The process by which a stimulus weakens the probability of the response that it follows is called a. reinforcement. b. punishment. c. higher-order conditioning. d. determinism. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 309 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is a definition of punishment.

% correct 71 % correct 83 81.

a= 13 b= 71 c= 13 d= 3 a= 0 b= 83 c= 3 d= 13

r = .50 r = .56

When someone uses punishment to change a behavior, the behavior is likely to a. decrease. b. increase. c. remain the same.

d. generalize. Section: Operant Conditioning Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Punishment weakens the response or makes it less likely to recur. % correct 93 a= 93 b= 4 c= 1 d= 2 r = .27

Page(s): 309 Answer: a

82.

Billy throws rocks. Each time he throws a rock, he is immediately spanked. Spanking is a a. positive reinforcer. b. negative reinforcer. c. secondary reinforcer. d. punishment. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 309 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Following a response with a spanking is a form of punishment. % correct 78 a= 5 b= 16 c= 0 d= 78 r = .42 83.

The difference between a reinforcer and a punisher is that a. reinforcers are primary and punishers are secondary. b. punishers are primary and reinforcers are secondary. c. reinforcers strengthen behavior and punishers weaken behavior. d. reinforcers are positive and punishers are negative. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 309–310 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Reinforcement increases the likelihood that a behavior will reoccur, punishment decreases it. 84.

A grandmother gives her grandchild a cookie because the child cleaned up her room. What is the cookie in this example? a. conditioned response b. punisher c. positive reinforcer d. negative reinforcer Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: A positive reinforcer is a stimulus that, when presenter after a response, makes the response more likely to occur. % correct 99 a= 0 b= 0 c= 99 d= 1 r = .02 85.

A negative reinforcer is a stimulus that is ________ and thus ________ the probability of a response. a. removed; increases b. presented; decreases c. removed; decreases d. presented; increases Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When using negative reinforcement, following a response with the removal of an unpleasant stimulus makes the response more likely to occur. % correct 59 a= 59 b= 18 c= 15 d= 9 r = .45 86.

A positive reinforcer is a stimulus that is ________ and thus ________ the probability of a response. a. removed; decreases b. presented; increases c. presented; decreases d. removed; increases Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: When using positive reinforcement, following a response with the presentation of a reinforcing

stimulus makes the response more likely to occur. % correct 96 a= 2 b= 96 c= 1 d= 1 r = .26 87.

When someone uses negative reinforcement to change a behavior the behavior is likely to a. occur less frequently. b. occur more frequently. c. occur at the same rate. d. completely stop. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Both positive and negative reinforcement make the behavior that precedes the reinforcer more likely to occur. % correct 89 a= 10 b= 89 c= 0 d= 1 r = .23 88.

Mary arrives home to find her son washing the dirty dishes left from his party the night before. When she discovers his first-semester grade report on the table and sees that he got straight A's, Mary rewards him by relieving him of the unpleasant task of finishing the dishes. Which operant process does the example illustrate? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. extinction d. punishment Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Mary removed something unpleasant, likely because she wanted to increase the likelihood he would get straight A’s again. This is an example of negative reinforcement. % correct 62 a= 34 b= 62 c= 4 d= 0 r = .41 89.

Which of the following is an example of a primary reinforcer? a. water b. a thank-you letter c. a smile from a loved one d. money Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: A primary reinforcer is a stimulus that is inherently reinforcing, typically satisfying a physiological need. % correct 89 a= 89 b= 0 c= 5 d= 6 r = .53 90.

Negative reinforcement is best thought of as a. reinforcement for an undesirable activity. b. punishment. c. something that was predicted to serve as reinforcement but did not do so. d. stimuli whose termination or removal increases behavior. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: When using negative reinforcement, following a response with the removal of an unpleasant stimulus makes the response more likely to occur. % correct 79 a= 10 b= 11 c= 0 d= 79 r = .52 91.

Putting on sunglasses to relieve glare is an example of which of the types of punishment and reinforcement? a. aversive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. response cost

Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Putting on sunglasses removes the unpleasant glare, making it more likely that the person will put his or her glasses on the next time it is sunny. Therefore, it this is an example of negative reinforcement. % correct 34 a= 8 b= 34 c= 51 d= 5 r = .37 92.

Training a rat to push a lever to escape from an electric shock is an example of a. aversive punishment. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive reinforcement. d. response cost. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Pressing the lever removes the unpleasant stimulus; therefore this is an example of negative reinforcement. % correct 78 a= 12 b= 78 c= 9 d= 0 r = .31 93.

Which of the following statements about positive reinforcers is accurate? a. They are used in negative reinforcement. b. They weaken behaviors that they follow. c. They strengthen behaviors that they follow. d. They strengthen behaviors that lead to their removal. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: When using positive reinforcement, following a response with the presentation of a reinforcing stimulus makes the response more likely to occur. % correct 91 a= 1 b= 2 c= 91 d= 5 r = .33 94.

Which of the following is NOT a negative reinforcer? a. turning off an electric shock b. giving a spanking c. removing a noxious odor d. silencing a banging door Section: Operant Conditioning Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Spanking is positive punishment, not negative reinforcement. % correct 87 a= 3 b= 87 c= 3 d= 7 r = .42 95.

Page(s): 310 Answer: b

When someone uses negative reinforcement to change a behavior, the behavior is likely to a. decrease. b. increase. c. remain the same. d. completely stop. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When using negative reinforcement, following a response with the removal of an unpleasant stimulus makes the response more likely to occur. % correct 42 a= 44 b= 42 c= 6 d= 8 r = .29 96.

Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. money b. a bar of candy c. a buzzer d. poker chips

Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: A primary reinforcer is a stimulus that is inherently reinforcing, typically satisfying a physiological need. % correct 74 a= 21 b= 74 c= 3 d= 0 r = .55 97.

Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? a. money b. a bar of candy c. attention d. a drink of water Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: A secondary reinforcer is a stimulus that has acquired reinforcing properties through association with other reinforcers. Money has no intrinsic value, but it can still act as a reinforcer because it is associated with the reinforcers that can be purchased with it. % correct 83 a= 83 b= 9 c= 7 d= 1 r = .45 98.

The Internal Revenue Service threatens Sue with a penalty if she fails to pay her back taxes. She pays, and the threat is withdrawn. In the future, she is more prompt in meeting her obligation. This is an example of the use of _______ to control behavior. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of negative reinforcement: the response (paying her back taxes) is followed by the removal of something unpleasant (the threats) and the likelihood of the response increases. % correct 61 a= 6 b= 61 c= 13 d= 20 r = .36 99.

Negative reinforcement is negative in the sense that a. a consequence stimulus is delivered in a negative manner. b. it results in the removal of the behavior. c. the behavior results in the taking away of something. d. the behavior is decreased/weakened. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: In this context, the term “negative” refers to reinforcing a response by the removal or subtraction of something, as opposed to the addition or presentation of something. 100.

_____________ reinforcement occurs when you escape from something unpleasant. a. Positive b. Negative c. Neutral d. Compound Section: Operant Conditioning Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Negative reinforcement would occur in this example. 101.

Page(s): 310 Answer: b

Research on reinforcers shows that a. a primary reinforcer may be ineffective if the person is not in a deprived state. b. secondary reinforcers are less effective than primary reinforcers in controlling behavior. c. money is a powerful primary reinforcer. d. a comfortable air temperature would be an example of a secondary reinforcer. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310

Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Primary reinforcement is something that satisfies an innate need. If the person is not in a deprived state, that object may not be reinforcing. For example, if a person is not thirsty, water will probably not be reinforcing. 102.

Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. money b. praise c. gold stars d. food Section: Operant Conditioning Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: Food satisfies an innate need and is therefore a primary reinforcer. % correct 56 a= 0 b= 10 c= 56 d= 35 r = .33

Page(s): 310 Answer: d

103.

You clean your room so your mother will stop nagging you. Your mother used _______________ to get you to clean your room. a. primary reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. negative reinforcement d. punishment Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of negative reinforcement. The desired behavior, cleaning your room, resulted in the termination of an aversive stimulus, nagging. % correct 74 a= 3 b= 16 c= 74 d= 6 r = .17 104.

Brett’s mom keeps a chart on his bedroom wall and adds a gold star for each day that his room is clean. His mom is using _______________ to strengthen the response. a. latent learning b. classical conditioning c. secondary reinforcers d. an unconditioned stimulus Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: A star is a secondary, or learned, reinforcer. 105.

Kyla wants to make sure that her dog Axel does not beg for food from the table. Every time that Axel begs, Kyla says, “No,” in a sharp, scolding voice and she never gives in. Kyla is using a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. stimulus generalization. d. a secondary punisher. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Kyla is using a secondary, or learned, punisher to train Axel. 106.

You take an aspirin and your headache goes away. This makes it more likely that you will take an aspirin next time you have a headache. This is an example of a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: This is a example of negative reinforcement where an aversive event, the headache, is removed by

the desired behavior, taking aspirin. % correct 37 a= 60 b= 37 c= 3 d= 0

r = .37

107.

_______________ would occur if studying makes you lose time with your friends. a. Positive punishment b. Negative punishment c. Positive reinforcement d. Negative reinforcement Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Negative punishment is the removal of a pleasant event, time with friends, consequent to a behavior.

% correct 45 % correct 57

a= 42 b= 45 c= 3 d= 9 a= 26 b= 57 c= 0 d= 16

r = .31 r = .36

108. For over a month, Ruth studies every night for four hours in order to do well in her college courses. However, she is beginning to feel left out of things because she is losing so much fun time with her friends. Ruth then reduces her night studying time, thus illustrating the influence of a. positive punishment. b. negative punishment. c. positive reinforcement. d. negative reinforcement. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of negative punishment, the removal of a positive event, time with friends, contingent upon the occurrence of a particular behavior, studying. 109.

Joan begs her father for a frosted cookie at the bakery but he refuses to buy her one. Joan continues to whine and complain until finally he breaks down and gets her the cookie. For her dad, the cessation of Joan’s whiny behavior is a _______________, and, for Joan, the cookie is a _______________. a. positive reinforcer; positive reinforcer b. negative reinforcer; positive reinforcer c. negative reinforcer; negative reinforcer d. positive reinforcer; negative reinforcer Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: For dad, termination of whining is negative reinforcement and for Joan the cookie is positive reinforcement. 110.

The week after she earns her driver’s license, 16-year-old Hannah arrives home an hour after curfew. As a consequence, Hannah must wash the car on Saturday and is not allowed to drive it for a week. Washing the car is a _______________ and losing driving privileges is a _______________. a. positive punisher; positive punisher b. negative punisher; positive punisher c. negative punisher; negative punisher d. positive punisher; negative punisher Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Washing the car is a positive punisher, the occurrence of an aversive event, and loss of driving privileges is a negative punisher, the removal of a positive event.

PRINCIPLES OF OPERANT CONDITIONING Learning Objectives 9.11 Four important features of operant conditioning 9,12 Why it’s not always a good idea to reinforce a response every time it occurs

9.13 How operant principles help explain superstitious behavior 9.14 What it means to "shape" behavior 9.15 Some biological limits on operant conditioning 111.

Skinner used a cage equipped with a device that delivers food or water when an animal makes a desired response. This device is called a(n) a. reinforcement unit. b. puzzle box. c. Skinner box. d. air crib. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 311 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The Skinner box was the name given to a cage used as an experimental tool. 112.

If a rat has learned to press a lever to obtain pellets of food and, all of a sudden, the response permanently ceases to produce any food, then _______ will occur. a. shaping b. discrimination c. generalization d. extinction Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: In operant conditioning, extinction occurs when a response is no longer followed by a reinforcer. % correct 94 a= 1 b= 3 c= 2 d= 94 r = .24 113.

Which two learning processes seem to be opposites? a. acquisition and generalization b. discrimination and extinction c. discrimination and generalization d. acquisition and discrimination Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Stimulus generalization in operant conditioning is the tendency for a response that has been reinforced in the presence of one stimulus to occur in the presence of other similar stimuli. Discrimination is exactly the opposite (i.e., the response does not occur in the presence of other stimuli). 65% correct a= 9 b= 5 c= 65 d= 21 r = .52 114.

A pigeon learns to peck only at a red disk. It will not peck at an identical disk of any other color. This illustrates the concept of a. extinction. b. discrimination. c. avoidance training. d. desensitization. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In operant conditioning, the tendency of a response to occur in the presence of one stimulus but not in the presence of other, similar stimuli that differ from it on some dimension is called stimulus discrimination. % correct 82 a= 1 b= 82 c= 11 d= 6 r = .43 115.

The spread of conditioning to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus is called a. associative linkage. b. generalization. c. higher-order conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery.

Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: This describes stimulus generalization. % correct 70 a= 8 b= 70 c= 17 d= 4 r = .42

Page(s): 312 Answer: b

116.

A small boy has just recently delighted his parents because he learned to call his father "daddy." However, it has now become an embarrassment to his mother when she takes him out with her because he keeps calling other men "daddy." This is an example of a. associative linkage. b. generalization. c. higher-order conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The boy is responding to other stimuli (men) in the same way he was reinforced to respond to the initial stimulus (his father). This is an example of stimulus generalization. % correct 83 a= 12 b= 83 c= 4 d= 0 r = .34 117.

The process of learning to respond only to a single specific object or event is called a. extinction. b. inhibition. c. stimulus generalization. d. discrimination. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: This describes stimulus discrimination. % correct 77 a= 2 b= 12 c= 9 d= 77 r = .45 The _________ stimulus signals whether a response will pay off. a. extinguished b. discriminative c. standard d. neutral Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The discriminative stimulus signals that a response paid off.

Page(s): 312 Answer: d

118.

Page(s): 312 Answer: b

119.

If you give your child a quarter every time he makes his bed, you are using a. continuous reinforcement. b. negative punishment. c. intermittent reinforcement. d. scheduled reinforcement. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Continuous reinforcement occurs when every instance of a particular behavior is reinforced. % correct 84 a= 84 b= 6 c= 3 d= 6 r = .21 120.

The tendency of a response to occur in the presence of one stimulus but not in the presence of another similar stimulus is called a. stimulus generalization. b. stimulus discrimination. c. intermittent reinforcement. d. partial reinforcement. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b

Rationale: This is a definition of stimulus discrimination.

% correct 90

a= 3 b= 90 c= 3 d= 3

r = .24

121.

When 4-year-old Aileen goes to the store with her dad and whines for candy at the checkout, she gets the candy. But when she goes with her mom, whining never ends up getting her a candy. Before long, Aileen only whines when she is at the store with her dad. This is called a. successive approximation. b. stimulus discrimination. c. continuous reinforcement. d. stimulus generalization. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of stimulus discrimination. Aileen has learned when whining is reinforced with candy and when it isn’t. 122.

When a response is first acquired, learning is usually most rapid if the response is reinforced a. on a fixed schedule for a certain number of responses. b. on a continuous reinforcement schedule. c. on a fixed schedule after a certain amount of time. d. on a schedule that varies around an average number of responses. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Continuous reinforcement results in the most rapid acquisition of a response. % correct 73 a= 10 b= 73 c= 17 d= 0 r = .40 % correct 67 a= 13 b= 67 c= 20 d= 0 r = .35 123. During half time at his high school’s homecoming game, Rory has to go to the bathroom. The words Women and Men act as _______________ for entering one door or the other. a. discriminative stimuli b. unconditioned stimuli c. extrinsic reinforcers d. intrinsic reinforcers Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: These words are discriminative stimuli giving information about when a response, entering a door, is appropriate and when it is not. 124.

In operant conditioning, _______________ occurs when a reinforcer is removed. a. acquisition b. extinction c. generalization d. discrimination Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This describes extinction, the elimination of a response when reinforcement is removed. 125.

At the National Zoological Park in Washington, D.C., a polar bear suffered a broken tooth, and keepers needed a safe way of treating the problem. The bear was rewarded first for sticking its nose through a slot in the cage door, then for allowing a keeper to lift its lip and touch its teeth. Finally, a veterinarian was able to treat the damaged tooth while the bear waited placidly for its familiar reward. This is an example of a. modeling. b. shaping. c. negative reinforcement. d. secondary learning. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b

Rationale: Shaping is an operant conditioning procedure in which successive approximations of a desired response are reinforced. % correct 96 a= 1 b= 96 c= 0 d= 3 r = .20 126.

Shaping is achieved through a. discrimination training. b. generalization. c. higher-order conditioning. d. successive approximations. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Shaping is an operant conditioning procedure in which successive approximations of a desired response are reinforced. % correct 45 a= 24 b= 7 c= 23 d= 45 r = .55 127.

To teach a tiger to jump through a flaming hoop, the tiger is first reinforced for jumping up on a certain pedestal, then for leaping from that pedestal to another. Next the tiger has to jump through a hoop between the pedestals to get the reward. Finally, the hoop is set afire and the tiger must jump through it to get the reward. This is an example of a. modeling. b. shaping. c. negative reinforcement. d. secondary learning. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of shaping an animal using successive approximations of a final behavior. % correct 91 a= 4 b= 91 c= 1 d= 4 r = .33 128.

A young girl is just learning to dress herself. At first, the parents call her a "big girl" just for putting on her clothes "frontwards," even if they are not buttoned. Then, they call her a "big girl" if she tries to button them—even if the buttons are not in the right holes. Then, they call her a "big girl" only if she buttons them correctly. They have been using a. discrimination. b. generalization. c. higher-order conditioning. d. successive approximation. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: This is an example of shaping using successive approximations of a final behavior. % correct 45 a= 1 b= 3 c= 51 d= 45 r = .27 129.

Peggy wanted to teach her dog how to roll over. She tried giving him instructions, but it didn't work. She tried waiting for him to roll over so she could reinforce the behavior, but she had to go to bed before the dog rolled. Finally, she began reinforcing the dog when it made behaviors that more closely resembled rolling over. At last, using _______, she was able to teach the dog to do the trick. a. shaping b. positive reinforcement c. positive reinforcers d. secondary reinforcers Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of shaping an animal using successive approximations of a final behavior. % correct 88 a= 88 b= 4 c= 4 d= 5 r = .48 130.

Intermittent reinforcement results in a. faster extinction.

b. faster learning. c. slower extinction. d. superstitious behavior. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: An advantage of intermittent or partial reinforcement is that the behavior will continue to occur longer when reinforcement is removed. % correct 48 a= 29 b= 16 c= 48 d= 6 r = .37 % correct 33 a= 40 b= 23 c= 33 d= 10 r = .21 131.

B. F. Skinner rigged the cages of eight pigeons so that food was delivered every 15 seconds. Within a short time most of the pigeons were practicing some sort of consistent ritual, even though the ritual did not have the least effect on the delivery of the reinforcer. The birds were a. demonstrating spontaneous recovery. b. developing phobias. c. trained by vicarious learning. d. behaving superstitiously. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Reinforcement can result in superstitious behavior such as in this example. 132.

After a response has become reliable, it will be more resistant to extinction a. on an intermittent reinforcement schedule. b. if you always reinforce each particular response. c. on a continuous reinforcement schedule. d. if no obvious reinforcer is present. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Intermittent reinforcement results in behaviors that are more resistant to extinction. 133.

Reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior is a procedure called a. chaining. b. shaping. c. higher-order conditioning. d. training. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of shaping.

% correct 81 % correct 80

a= 9 b= 81 c= 6 d= 3 a= 13 b= 80 c= 6 d= 0

Page(s): 313 Answer: b

r = .48 r = .62

134.

If you want to train a hamster to pick up a marble a. wait till the hamster picks up the marble and then give it a food treat. b. use negative punishment until the hamster picks up the marble. c. begin reinforcement when the hamster goes near the marble. d. use positive punishment until the hamster picks up the marble. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of shaping where successive approximations to a desired behavior are reinforced. 135.

Instinctive drift explains why a. shaping can be used to train complex behaviors in animals. b. pigeons can learn to bowl or play ping pong. c. pigs cannot learn to drop a “coin” in a box.

d. people prefer primary to secondary reinforcement. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 314 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Keller and Marian Breland found that pigs could not learn to drop a “coin” into a box because of instinctive drift. That is, the pig treated the coin instinctively by rooting and throwing the coin in the air. 136.

When Keller and Marian Breland, two psychologists who became animal trainers, decided that it would be cute to have a pig drop a big wooden coin into a box, they found that a. food was not an effective reinforcer for the pig and so learning didn’t occur. b. when given edible roots as reinforcers, the pig learned the task in less than ten trials. c. the pig was difficult to train because it kept dropping the coin, rooting, and throwing the coin in the air. d. the pig showed intrinsic interest in the task and so reinforcement was unnecessary. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 314 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Instinctive drift occurs when an organism reverts to instinctive behavior rather than the desired behavior. In this case, instinctive drift explains the pig’s strange behaviors. 137.

During operant learning, the tendency for an organism to revert to innate, species-specific behaviors is called a. free will. b. successive approximations. c. shaping. d. instinctive drift. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 314 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: This is a definition of instinctive drift. 138.

B. F. Skinner theorized that a. children would develop better if they were not held or cuddled. b. free will is an illusion because we are shaped by our environment and genetics. c. behaviors are due to mental events, such as emotions or thoughts. d. it would be unethical to try to improve human behavior by applying behavioral principles. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 315 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Skinner believed that free will is an illusion because our behavior is shaped by our genetics and environment.

OPERANT CONDITIONING IN REAL LIFE Learning Objectives 9.16 How the use of operant principles through behavior modification is being applied to many real-world problems 9.17 When punishment works in real life and why it often does not 9.18 Some effective alternatives to punishment 9.19 How reinforcement can be misused 9.20 Why paying children for good grades sometimes backfires 139.

The application of conditioning techniques to teach new responses or to reduce maladaptive behavior is called a. primary reinforcement. b. higher-order conditioning. c. continuous reinforcement. d. behavior modification. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 316 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d

Rationale: This is a definition of behavior modification. 140.

In a study of nearly 29,000 male criminals in Denmark, what factor did researchers find had the greatest impact on whether lawbreakers were rearrested for a subsequent crime? a. consistency of punishment b. severity of punishment c. age when punished d. length of punishment Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 316 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When lawbreakers sometimes get away with their crimes, their behavior is intermittently reinforced and therefore becomes resistant to extinction. 141.

In the United States, youth offenders are punished _____________ youth in Denmark. a. more consistently than b. approximately the same as c. more leniently than d. less consistently than Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 316 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In the United States, youth offenders are punished less consistently than youth in Denmark. 142.

Being severely physically punished in childhood is a risk factor for which of the following? a. depression and autism b. depression, aggression, and low self-esteem c. ADHD and aggression d. ADHD and depression Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 317 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Being physically punished in childhood is a risk factor for depression, aggression, and low selfesteem. 143.

Tim yells at his daughter Allison for soiling her pants. He also threatens to spank her if she ever does it again. Next week, she soils her pants again. According to studies on punishment, why did this fail? a. The punishment did not tell her how to change her behavior. b. The threat was a reinforcer. c. She wasn’t punished immediately. d. Yelling is not a form of punishment. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 317 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Punishment often conveys little information about what the person should do. 144.

The most effective reward must be a. dispensed indiscriminately. b. highly praised. c. tied to high self-esteem. d. tied to the behavior you are trying to increase. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 318 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Rewards serve as effective reinforcers only when they are tied to the behavior one is trying to increase, not when they are dispensed indiscriminately. 145.

Extrinsic reinforcers are defined as reinforcers that a. are not inherently related to the activity being reinforced. b. are inherently related to the activity being reinforced. c. are related to the satisfaction of accomplishing a task.

d. are related to the inherent enjoyment of a particular task. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 318 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Extrinsic reinforcers, unlike intrinsic reinforcers, are not inherently related to the activity being reinforced. 146.

Intrinsic reinforcers a. bribe a person to engage in a particular task. b. are inherently related to the activity being reinforced. c. lead people to interpret the activity as work. d. provide a person with prizes or praise. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 318 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Intrinsic reinforcers are reinforcers that are inherently related to the activity being reinforced, such as the satisfaction one feels after completing a difficult task. 147.

The use of _______________ reinforcers sometimes causes a behavior to decrease in frequency. a. positive b. primary c. extrinsic d. intrinsic Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 318-319 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Extrinsic reinforcers may cause a decrease in a behavior that a person already does for intrinsic reinforcement. 148.

Which of the following is true about the use of extrinsic versus intrinsic rewards? a. Extrinsic rewards should never be used. b. Extrinsic rewards should be used carefully and not overdone. c. Intrinsic rewards should never be used. d. Intrinsic rewards should be used carefully and not overdone. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 320 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Extrinsic rewards are often useful or necessary, but should be used carefully and should not be overdone, so that intrinsic pleasure in an activity can blossom.

LEARNING AND THE MIND Learning Objectives 9.21 How you can learn something without any obvious reinforcement 9.22 Why two people can learn different lessons from exactly the same experience 9.23 How we often learn not by doing but by watching 149.

What do we call learning that has taken place but is not demonstrated? a. insight learning b. serial enumeration c. latent learning d. shaping Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 321 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Latent learning is a form of learning that is not immediately expressed in an overt response. % correct 73 a= 16 b= 0 c= 73 d= 7 r = .32 150.

The concept of latent learning was developed by a. Watson. b. Skinner.

c. Thorndike. d. Tolman. Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 321 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Edward Tolman was the first to show that rats were capable of learning how to navigate a maze, even when they were not given any obvious reinforcement for doing so. This “latent learning” can be observed only when these rats are later reinforced. % correct 61 a= 6 b= 13 c= 20 d= 61 r = .47 151.

In the 1930s, behaviorist Edward Tolman committed virtual heresy among his colleagues by noting that a. operant conditioning principles cannot account for superstitious rituals. b. when his rats ran a maze, they seemed to pause to decide which way to go. c. irrational fear of heights cannot be explained through principles of classical conditioning. d. when his rats were on continuous reinforcement schedules, they were very resistant to extinction. Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 321 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Tolman, in noting that his rats seemed to pause to decide which way to go, was invoking mental activity to explain a behavior. This violated the behaviorist belief that behavior is determined solely by genetics and environment. 152.

Edward Tolman and his colleague, C. H. Honzik, noted that _______________ is not immediately expressed in an overt response. a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. extinction d. latent learning Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 321 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Latent learning is learning that is only demonstrated at a later time, not when it is initially learned. 153.

In their study of three groups of rats in a maze, Tolman and Honzik noted that _______________ occurs without obvious reinforcement. a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. latent learning d. successive approximation Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 321 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Latent learning seems to occur without obvious reinforcement, but is demonstrated later when reinforcement is available. 154.

Social-cognitive learning theorists and behaviorists would agree that a. observational learning can be explained in stimulus-response terms. b. human attitudes influence how learning is acquired. c. expectations play a role in the development of personality traits. d. humans are subject to the laws of classical and operant conditioning. Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 322 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Social-cognitive learning theorists would not disagree that humans are subject to the laws of classical and operant conditioning, but their theories also include more cognitive forms of learning. 155. Theories that emphasize how behavior is learned and maintained through observation and imitation of others, positive consequences, and thought processes, such as plans, expectations, and beliefs are called __________ theories. a. latent learning

b. social-cognitive c. psychodynamic d. behaviorist Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 322 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Theories that emphasize how behavior is learned and maintained through observation and imitation of others, positive consequences, and thought processes, such as plans, expectations, and beliefs are called social-cognitive theories. 156. In both latent learning and social-cognitive learning, what is acquired is _______________ rather than a specific response. a. response tendencies b. knowledge c. behavioral attitudes d. general behaviors Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 321– 323 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: In contrast to the behaviorist view that animals acquire response tendencies, latent learning and social-cognitive learning both imply that animals acquire knowledge. 157.

After watching her teenage sister put on lipstick, a little girl applies some to her own lips. The little sister acquired this behavior through a. classical conditioning. b. observational learning. c. operant conditioning. d. stimulus generalization. Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 322 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of observational learning. % correct 97 a=3 b= 97 c= 0 d= 0 r = .21 % correct 93 a= 6 b= 93 c= 0 d= 0 r = .24 158.

Which type of learning occurs when we observe other people act? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. insight learning d. observational learning Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 322 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Observational learning occurs when an individual learns new responses by observing the behavior of another (a model) rather than through direct experience. % correct 93 a= 1 b=2 c= 4 d= 93 r = .18 159.

Nursery school children were shown a film of two men, Johnny and Rocky, playing with toys. When Johnny wouldn’t share, Rocky clobbered him, marching off with all the toys in a sack. What did one-way mirror observations afterwards show about the behavior of children who had viewed this film compared to those who had not? a. The children who had seen the film behaved more aggressively with toys and sometimes showed almost exact imitations of Rocky. b. The children who had seen the film went out of their way to share toys with others. c. The children who had seen the film were afraid to touch any of the toys for fear Rocky would come in and clobber them. d. The children did not differ from one another in their play with the toys or in other behaviors. Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 323 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a

Rationale: In this study, observational learning was demonstrated when children imitated Rocky’s behavior. 160.

After the success of the television show The Simpsons, the text indicates that the following behavior increased: a. graffiti b. dysfunctional parenting c. girls began playing the saxophone d. beehive hair styles. Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 323 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: More girls began to play the saxophone. 161.

In a recent study cited in your text, people who had just attended a violent movie were likely to take ___________to respond to a young women struggling to pick up her crutches than those who watched a nonviolent movie. a. a longer amount of time b. a shorter amount of time c. the same amount of time d. no consistent amount of time Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 325 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Those who attended the violent movie took longer to respond. 162.

In a recent $5 billion lawsuit mentioned in your text, families of victims of a high school shooting blamed______________ for the carnage. a. video games b. gun manufactures c. sports stars d. bullying Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 325 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The families blamed video games. 163.

When grade-school children cut back on the time they watch TV or play video games, a. boys’ aggression increases whereas girls’ aggressiveness stays the same. b. the aggression of the grade-school children declines. c. the aggressiveness of the children increases. d. there is no change in their levels of aggression. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 325 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Levels of aggression tend to decrease in grade-school children when there is a decrease in time spent watching TV and playing video games.

True-False Questions 1

Social-cognitive theorists would argue that learning is not only a change in behavior, but also a change in knowledge that has the potential for affecting behavior. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 300 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 2

Since the salivation of the dogs was interfering with his work on digestion, Pavlov’s first response was annoyance at the secretions that occurred before the meat powder was placed on the dog’s tongue.

Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 300 Rationale: Statement of fact.

Type: Factual

Answer: True

3 An unconditioned stimulus is an event or a thing that elicits a response automatically or reflexively. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 300–301 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 4. A reflexive response elicited by a stimulus in the absence of learning is called a conditioned response. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a definition of an unconditioned response, not a conditioned response. 5. If a dog begins to salivate at the sight of its dog food dish, then the dish is called a conditioned stimulus. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 6.

The automatic, involuntary responses involved in blood pressure and muscle contractions cannot be classically conditioned. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: These involuntary responses can be classically conditioned. 7. Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 8. Spontaneous recovery occurs when a learned response reoccurs after its apparent extinction. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 9.

Higher-order conditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus through association with an already established conditioned stimulus. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 10.

Operant conditioning occurs when a stimulus that resembles the conditioned stimulus elicits the conditioned response. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a definition of stimulus generalization, not operant conditioning. 11.

When a stimulus, similar to the conditioned stimulus, fails to evoke the conditioned response, then stimulus discrimination has occurred. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 12. The conditioned stimulus allows an organism to prepare for an event that is about to happen. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302–303 Type: Factual Answer: True

Rationale: Statement of fact. 13.

Negative emotions and dislikes can be classically conditioned, but it is difficult to use this technique to condition positive emotions. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Both positive and negative emotions can be conditioned. 14. Humans are biologically primed to be especially susceptible to certain kinds of acquired fears. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 15.

John Watson and Rosalie Rayner deliberately established a phobia in a boy using classical conditioning techniques. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 16. Stimulus generalization has occurred if a child learns to fear spiders and then responds to beetles with fear. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 304 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 17. In the “Little Albert” study, the conditioned stimulus was a rat. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 305 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

18. Three-year-old Peter’s fear of rabbits was eliminated through a process called counterconditioning. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 305 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 19.

Counterconditioning is a process in which a conditioned stimulus is paired with a stimulus that elicits a response that is incompatible with an unwanted conditioned response. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 305 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 20. All forms of classical conditioning require multiple parings of stimuli. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 306 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Taste aversions can form after only a single paring of food taste and illness. 21. Humans are biologically primed to associate sickness with sights more readily than with tastes. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 306 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The opposite is true. 22. Research has demonstrated that slugs can be classically conditioned. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 306 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 23.

Answer: True

In the late 1800s, Edward Thorndike set the stage for operant conditioning procedures when he observed

cats as they tried to escape from a puzzle box to get a scrap of fish. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 309 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 24. Strict behaviorists avoid the word reward, in favor of the word reinforcement. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 309 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 25. A stimulus that is inherently reinforcing is called a secondary reinforcer. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Factual Rationale: This is a definition of a primary reinforcer, not a secondary reinforcer. 26. Having one’s hair lightly stroked would be a primary reinforcer. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

Answer: False

Answer: True

27. Having a gold star placed on one’s spelling quiz would be a secondary reinforcer. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 28. Working in a room with a comfortable air temperature would be an example of a secondary reinforcer. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is an example of a primary reinforcer, one that is inherently reinforcing. 29. An electric shock would be an example of a primary punisher. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 30. A negative reinforcer makes a response more likely to reoccur. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

31.

A discriminative stimulus signals when a particular response is likely to be followed by a certain type of consequence. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 32.

When one is first acquiring a response, learning is usually most rapid under an intermittent reinforcement schedule. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Continuous reinforcement is most effective in initial learning. 33.

If you want a response to persist after it has been learned, you should reinforce it continuously, not intermittently. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Factual Answer: False

Rationale: Intermittent reinforcement results in increased resistance to extinction compared to continuous reinforcement. 34.

Shaping would be the appropriate operant conditioning procedure if the response that you want to reinforce has almost no probability of appearing spontaneously. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 35. All principles of conditioning are limited by an animal’s genetic dispositions and physical characteristics. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 314 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 36.

B. F. Skinner was a cold-blooded individual who raised his daughter, Deborah, in an Air-Crib without benefit of cuddling and holding. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 315 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Skinner did invent an Air-Crib to use with his daughter, but he did not leave her in the crib at all times without the benefit of cuddling and holding. He was actually a kind and mild-mannered individual. 37.

The application of conditioning techniques to teach new responses or to reduce maladaptive behaviors is called behavior modification. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 316 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 38.

Behavior modification has been effective in training brain-damaged patients to control inappropriate behaviors. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 316 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 39. Research cited in your text found that jail time was more effective than fines and probation. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 316 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Contrary to the researchers’ expectations, the severity of punishment made no difference: Fines and probation were about as effective as jail time. 40.

Punishing a child’s misbehavior is most effective if there is a delay between the behavior and the punishment so that the child has time to mull over the consequence to come. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 317 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Immediate punishment is much more effective than delayed punishment. 41. Your text cited the finding that high self-esteem improves academic performance. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 318 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: High-self esteem does not improve academic performance. 42. Intrinsic rewards can undermine the pleasure of doing something for its own sake. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 318 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a problem with extrinsic rewards, not intrinsic ones. 43.

Extrinsic rewards are not inherently related to the activity that is being reinforced.

Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 318 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 44. Extrinsic rewards can sometimes reduce the intrinsic pleasure of an activity. Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 318 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

45.

Tolman’s research suggested that learning involves cognitive changes that can occur in the absence of reinforcement and that these cognitive changes may not be acted upon until a reinforcer becomes available. Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 321 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 46. In order for latent learning to occur, there must be obvious reinforcement. Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 321 Type: Factual Rationale: Latent learning occurs in the absence of obvious reinforcement.

Answer: False

47.

The process of observational learning would explain how 3-year-old Ryan knows how to lather up his own face after watching his dad shave earlier that day. Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 322 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 48. There is a strong correlation between video game violence and aggression. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 325 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The correlation between video game violence and aggression is relatively low, especially when compared to other variables, such as genetics, poverty, and perceptions of criminal opportunity.

Short Answer Questions 1. Name the two types of conditioning discussed in this chapter and differentiate between the two. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 301, 309 Type: Factual Answer: Classical conditioning is the process by which a previously neutral stimulus acquires the capacity to elicit a response through association with a stimulus that already elicits a similar or related response. Operant conditioning is the process by which a response becomes more likely to occur or less so, depending on its consequences. 2. What was Pavlov’s contribution to the study of conditioning? Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 300–301 Type: Conceptual Answer: Pavlov’s study showed that many automatic involuntary responses can be classically conditioned. He is best known for conditioning a salivation response in dogs. 3.

Give an example of classical conditioning. Be sure to label the unconditioned stimulus (US), unconditioned response (UR), the conditioned stimulus (CS), and the conditioned response (CR). Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Applied Answer: Answers will vary. In Pavlov’s basic experiment, food was the US, salivation to the food was the UR, a sound was typically the CS, and the learned response of salivation became the CR. At first, the dog did not salivate to the sound, but by repeatedly pairing the sound with the food, the sound came to elicit salivation by

itself. 4. Explain the occurrence of extinction in classical conditioning. Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 301 Type: Conceptual Answer: After conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, the conditioned response eventually disappears. Extinction is not the same as unlearning or forgetting however; the conditioned response can still return in the form of spontaneous recovery. 5. What is the difference between stimulus generalization and stimulus discrimination? Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302 Type: Conceptual Answer: In stimulus generalization, a response evoked by one stimulus is also evoked by a similar stimulus. In stimulus discrimination, the response is evoked only by a very particular stimulus and not by similar ones. 6.

In what sequence should the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus occur in order for classical conditioning to be most effective? Why do researchers believe this sequence leads to the best conditioned responding? Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302–303 Type: Conceptual Answer: Classical conditioning is most effective when the stimulus to be conditioned precedes the unconditioned stimulus. When presented in this order, the CS becomes a signal for the US, which the organism can use to prepare. 7.

Describe the way that John Watson used classical conditioning procedures to explain how an individual learns to love another person. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 304 Type: Conceptual Answer: Watson thought you learned to love another person when that person was paired with stroking and cuddling. The person who does the stroking and cuddling becomes the conditioned stimulus triggering a conditioned response of love (pleasant feeling). 8.

How have classical conditioning procedures been used to develop humane ways of discouraging predators from preying on livestock? Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 307 Type: Applied Answer: Conditioned taste aversion is used. For example, sheep meat (CS) is injected with a nausea-inducing chemical (US) and fed to coyotes and wolves causing them to become nauseated (UR). As a result, the coyotes and wolves develop a taste aversion to sheep. 9. What is the difference in response between classical and operant conditioning? Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 308–309 Type: Conceptual Answer: In classical conditioning, the response is typically reflexive, or automatic. In operant conditioning, the response is typically more complex and not reflexive. 10. Distinguish between and give an example of primary and secondary reinforcers. Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310 Type: Conceptual Answer: Primary reinforcers are stimuli that meet biological needs (food, water, touch, etc.). Secondary reinforcers, such as money, praise, good grades, are stimuli that have acquired reinforcing properties through association with other reinforcers. 11.

Many people confuse negative reinforcement with positive punishment. What is the best way to keep these terms straight? Section: Operant Conditioning Page(s): 310–311

Type: Conceptual Answer: Reinforcement, whether positive or negative, always strengthens a behavior, making a behavior more likely to recur. Punishment, whether positive or negative, always weakens a behavior, making the behavior less likely to recur. The word negative refers to the taking away of something, while the word positive refers to the addition of something. For example, negative reinforcement involves the removal of something unpleasant, which will make the behavior that precedes the removal more likely to recur. 12.

A favorite experimental tool of researchers is the Skinner box. Describe how Skinner demonstrated operant conditioning of a rat using the Skinner box. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 311 Type: Factual Answer: A Skinner box for a rat is a small cage with a bar (lever). The bar is connected to a food-delivery device. When a rat presses the bar, it gets a food pellet. At first, the rat presses the bar only occasionally by accident. Because this behavior is reinforced, the rat begins to press the lever consistently. 13.

Albert Bandura and his colleagues had nursery school children watch a short film of two men, Rocky and Johnny, playing with toys. What did the researchers learn about observational learning through this study? Section: Learning and the Mind Page(s): 323 Type: Factual Answer: When allowed to play with toys after viewing the film, children imitated the behavior of Rocky, who hit Johnny when he refused to share his toys in the film, and were generally more aggressive than children who did not watch the same film. One conclusion from this study is that children can learn social behaviors through observational learning.

Essay Questions 1.

What is actually learned in classical conditioning? The answer varies depending on the theorist’s approach.  What is actually learned in classical conditioning according to the traditional Pavlovian approach?  What is actually learned in classical conditioning according to many contemporary psychologists?  How has the imaginative research of Robert Rescorla supported the contemporary view? Section: Classical Conditioning Page(s): 302–303 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.    

According to Pavlov, what is learned is an association between two stimuli, the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus. Contemporary psychologists think that what is actually learned is information conveyed by one stimulus about another. For example, if A occurs then B is likely to follow. Rescorla demonstrated that pairing of an unconditioned stimulus and a neutral stimulus is not enough to produce learning. To become a conditioned stimulus, the neutral stimulus must reliably signal, or predict, the unconditioned stimulus.

In classical conditioning procedures, it is sometimes possible for higher-order conditioning to occur. Explain this process. Describe the research on higher-order conditioning in which slugs were the research subjects. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 301–306 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  In higher-order conditioning, a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus through association with an already established conditioned stimulus.  The procedure for higher-order conditioning is the same as basic classical conditioning except that a conditioned stimulus and conditioned response that have previously been learned are used instead of an innate unconditioned stimulus and unconditioned response.  For example, slugs were conditioned to dislike the smell of carrots by pairing it with a bittertasting chemical that they detest. The smell of carrots is now a conditioned stimulus

 

triggering a conditioned response of avoidance. The smell of carrots was then paired with the smell of potato. Slugs learned to dislike and avoid the smell of potato.

Mary Cover Jones reported the successful treatment of a 3-year-old boy with a “home-grown” phobia of rabbits.  Name the method that was used by Mary Cover Jones.  Describe the principles of her technique.  What steps needed to be taken to ensure that the fear of rabbits wouldn’t be transferred to pleasant stimuli?  What is the variation of her procedure that has been used to treat phobias in adults? Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 305–306 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Mary Cover Jones used counterconditioning to help the child get over his fear of rabbits.  Counterconditioning involves pairing the conditioned stimulus with a stimulus that elicits a response incompatible with the unwanted response.  In this case, a snack of crackers and milk was paired with presentation of the rabbit (CS).  The snack produced pleasant feelings incompatible with fear (CR).  To prevent fear of the rabbit from transferring to the snack, the rabbit was initially kept at a distance and only gradually moved closer to Peter.  Systematic desensitization is a variation of this procedure sometimes used for treating phobias in adults.

Many people have learned to dislike a food after eating it and falling ill. Psychologist Martin Seligman reported how he was conditioned to hate béarnaise sauce.  Explain how this conditioning took place.  In what way does his experience illustrate the role that biological priming plays in this type of conditioning.  What food do you dislike? Analyze whether your reaction to this food could have been formed through conditioning. Section: Classical Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 306–307 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  One night, shortly after eating a filet mignon with béarnaise sauce, Seligman came down with the flu.  The next time he had béarnaise sauce, he didn’t like it.  Biological priming is illustrated because it was the béarnaise sauce, not the waiter or the restaurant, that he learned to dislike.  There is a greater biological readiness to associate sickness with taste than with sights or sounds.  I dislike tuna salad because I got sick once shortly after eating a tuna salad sandwich.

Sometimes a person learns to respond to a stimulus only when a discriminative stimulus is present. What does the discriminative stimulus signal?  Illustrate the ways in which human behavior is controlled by verbal discriminative stimuli.  Illustrate the ways in which human behavior is controlled by nonverbal discriminative stimuli.  What role does this type of learning play in socialization? Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312 Type: Applied Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  A discriminative stimulus signals the availability of reinforcement.  An example of a verbal discriminative stimulus would be the announcement “Dinner is

 

ready,” made by your mother. An example of a nonverbal discriminative stimulus would be the ringing of the doorbell, announcing that someone is there. This type of learning helps us to get through the day efficiently and get along with others.

Deciding whether to provide continuous reinforcement, or one of the intermittent schedules of reinforcement, is an important issue in effective operant conditioning. If you want a response to persist after it has been learned, what schedule would best suit your needs? Paige wants to make sure that her roommate, Kelly, continues to keep clutter off Paige’s desk now that Kelly has learned to keep it clutterfree. Describe a schedule of reinforcement that would be effective given Paige’s goal. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 312–313 Type: Applied Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  A schedule of intermittent reinforcement is most effective in persistence of a behavior after it has been learned.  Initially, Paige should thank or praise Kelly frequently for keeping clutter off her desk.  After the behavior is established, Paige should reinforce Kelly only intermittently.

Principles of operant conditioning have been used to help explain why people get attached to “lucky” hats, charms, and rituals. Using these principles, explain how an athlete might show this type of behavior. How did Skinner demonstrate the phenomenon of superstitious behavior with eight pigeons in his laboratory? Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Superstitious behavior can be learned through operant conditioning.  For example, you might be wearing a new pair of socks during the first game that your basketball team wins.  Even though the socks had nothing to do with the win, wearing the socks is followed by reinforcement.  Skinner taught pigeons to behave superstitiously by rigging their cages to deliver food every 15 seconds regardless of what they were doing.  Whatever the animal happened to be doing when the food was delivered was reinforced.  Within a short time, six of eight pigeons were practicing some sort of consistent ritual, such as head bobbing or turning counterclockwise, even though these behaviors had nothing to do with getting reinforcement.

Dr. Konstanza wants to train a rat to play basketball. She could wait until she was old and gray, however, before she could reinforce the rat for playing basketball! What conditioning procedure does Dr. Konstanza need to use? Outline, step by step, what she can do to meet her goal. Section: Principles of Operant Conditioning Page(s): 313 Type: Applied Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Dr. Konstanza needs to use shaping, a process of reinforcing successive approximations.  First she would reinforce the rat with a small bit of food for sniffing at the ball, then for putting its paws on the ball, then for picking it up, and so forth.  Eventually, she would be able to train the rat to approach the ball, pick it up, and drop it in the basket.

Punishment occurs every day in families, schools, and workplaces. But often the intended results fail to occur. Explain, in detail, six reasons why punishment fails. When punishment must be used, what guidelines should be followed? Section: Operant Conditioning in Real Life Page(s): 317–318 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Punishment may fail for the following reasons:

People often administer punishment inappropriately or mindlessly. The recipient of punishment often responds with anxiety, fear, or rage. The effectiveness of punishment is often temporary, depending heavily on the presence of the punishing person or circumstances. o Most misbehavior is hard to punish immediately. o Punishment conveys little information. o An action intended to punish may instead be reinforcing because it brings attention. As well as avoiding the above reasons that punishment fails, the following guidelines are important when punishment must be used: o It should not involve physical abuse. o It should be consistent. o It should be accompanied by information about what kind of behavior would be appropriate. o It should be followed, whenever possible, by the reinforcement of desirable behavior. o o o

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Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 10 – Quick Quiz 1 1.

_______________ generally have the greatest conversational distance compared to other cultures; that is, they stand further apart when they converse. a. Southern Europeans c. English and Swedes b. Arabs d. Latin Americans

In the famous Milgram experiment on obedience, who received a shock? a. the "learner" c. the confederate b. no one d. the subject

In the Stanford prison study, male college students agreed to participate in a two-week experiment to discover what would happen when they took on the roles of prisoners and guards. The researchers found that a. within a short time the prisoners became distressed and panicky, developing emotional symptoms and physical ailments. b. about 5 percent of the guards became tyrannical, giving the prisoners electric shocks when they were slow in obeying. c. 90 percent of the guards tried to be “tough but fair” and demanded that the tyrannical guards lighten up on the prisoners because it was only an experiment. d. the study was conducted in an unused wing of a real prison; therefore, the realistic atmosphere enhanced the role behavior of prisoners and guards.

The tendency to give too much emphasis to personal factors when accounting for other people's actions is called a. the primacy effect. c. fundamental attribution error. b. defensive attribution. d. the just-world hypothesis.

Angela is a participant in a replication of a famous psychology experiment. Along with seven other students seated in a room, she is shown a 10-inch test line, and then everyone takes turns identifying the line that matches it in length from a choice of three lines. The experimenter is interested in studying a. visual perception. c. absolute threshold. b. depth perception. d. conformity.

10.

Deindividuation would be most likely to occur a. in a small group. c. b. when a group is first forming. d.

when one is bored or depressed. in a large group.

The Robbers Cave experiment showed that a. playing athletic games, such as football and baseball, reduces us–them hostility. b. watching movies together, and similar quiet interactions, reduces us–them hostility. c. engaging in mutually exciting activities, such as tug or war, reduces us–them hostility. d. interdependence in reaching mutual goals reduces us–them hostility.

Chapter 10 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: The English and Swedes tend to have the greatest conversational distance, whereas Arabs and Latin Americans stand the closest together. (Page 333, Factual)

Rationale: In reality, the learners were confederates of Milgram and did not receive any shocks, but none of the teachers ever realized this during the study. (Page 333, Factual)

Rationale: In the Stanford prison study, students-prisoners quickly became distressed and the study had to be ended more quickly than planned. (Page 335, Factual)

Rationale: The fundamental attribution error is the tendency, in explaining other people’s behavior, to overestimate personality factors and underestimate the influence of the situation. (Page 338, Conceptual)

Rationale: A person who believes the just-world hypothesis would be likely to blame a victim for his or her fate because it would not be just for negative events to happen to innocent people. (Page 339, Factual)

Rationale: The sense of tension that occurs when a person simultaneously holds two cognitions that are psychologically inconsistent is called cognitive dissonance. (Page 340, Applied)

Rationale: The validity effect is the tendency of people to believe that a statement is true simply because it has been repeated a number of times. (Page 341, Factual)

Rationale: This describes Solomon Asch’s original study on conformity. (Page 345, Applied)

Rationale: Deindividuation, the loss of awareness of one’s own individuality, is most likely to occur in large, anonymous mobs or crowds. (Page 347, Factual)

10.

Rationale: Hostility between groups, such as results from ethnocentrism and stereotypes, can be reduced when two groups must work together to reach mutual goals. (Page 352, Conceptual)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 10 – Quick Quiz 2 1.

While at work, Nora is a pilot who flies commercial airlines. At home she is a mother, wife, daughter, and sister. These are several of Nora’s a. cultural norms. c. social roles. b. routines. d. occupations.

About _______________ of all participants in Milgram’s study administered the highest level of shock to the learner. a. a fourth c. half b. a third d. two-thirds

The tendency, in explaining one’s own behavior, to take credit for one’s good actions and rationalize one’s mistakes is called as example of a. a fundamental attribution error. c. an attitude. b. a self-serving bias. d. the validity effect.

Attitudes that we are aware of are said to be __________, whereas attitudes we are unaware of yet still influence our behavior are said to be __________. a. explicit; implicit c. dispositional; situational b. implicit; explicit d. situational; dispositional

Even though she thought it was silly, Emily wore pink and green ribbons in her hair as her friends did. This is an example of a. a group role. c. conformity. b. a group norm. d. obedience.

Which of the following describes "diffusion of responsibility"? a. the tendency of people to avoid taking a needed action, assuming that others will do so b. the tendency for members of a close-knit group to think alike for the sake of harmony and to suppress dissent c. the tendency of individuals to increase their liking for something that they have worked hard to attain d. in a group or a crowd, the tendency for each group members to lose awareness of his or her own individuality

10.

One way in which stereotypes can distort reality is that

a. b. c. d.

they exaggerate differences between groups. they overestimate differences within other groups. they produce many different perceptions. they show that members of a group can be different.

Chapter 10 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: People may have more than one social role, each having norms about expected behavior. (Page 332, Applied)

Rationale: About two-thirds of the participants gave the highest level of shock, 450 volts. (Page 334, Factual)

Rationale: Attribution theory looks at how a person makes decisions about the causes of another’s behavior. (Page 338, Factual)

Rationale: The tendency, in explaining one’s own behavior, to take credit for one’s good actions and rationalize one’s mistakes is a type of self-serving bias. (Page 339, Factual)

Rationale: Explicit attitudes are those we are aware of. Implicit attitudes are those we are unaware of. (Page 340, Factual)

Rationale: Coercive persuasion often involves creating a new identity to allow the person to feel they are among the elite. (Page 344, Conceptual)

Rationale: Taking action or adopting attitudes as a result of real or imagined group pressure is called conformity. (Page 345, Applied)

Rationale: Groupthink, a tendency for all members of a group to think alike and for disagreement to be suppressed, is more likely in close, friendly groups. (Page 346, Applied)

Rationale: Diffusion of responsibility in an anonymous group is the tendency of members to avoid taking a needed action, assuming that others will do so. (Page 347, Factual)

10.

Rationale: Although stereotypes reflect real differences among people, they often exaggerate differences making the stereotyped group appear odd or even dangerous. (Pages 352–353, Conceptual)

Chapter 10 – BEHAVIOR IN SOCIAL AND CULTURAL CONTEXT Multiple Choice Questions ROLES AND RULES Learning Objectives 10.1 How social roles and cultural norms regulate behavior without our being aware of it 10.2 The power of roles and situations to make people behave in ways they never would have predicted for themselves 10.3 How people can be entrapped into violating their moral principles 1. Dr. Quizzmon is a social psychologist. Given his interest in social psychology, which of the following questions is he most apt to research? a. How are attitudes toward war formed? b. What is the biological basis of depression? c. How can one become self-actualized? d. What are the major milestones in infant motor development? Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 331 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The fields of social psychology and cultural psychology examining the powerful influence of the social and cultural environment on the actions of individuals and groups. 2. According to your textbook, more than half of hotel guests agree to reuse their towels when hotels put notices in guest bathrooms that say a. “please recycle your towels.” b. “the majority of guests in this room reuse their towels.” c. “recycling towels is good for the environment.” d. “it is wasteful to only use a towel once.” Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: People’s behavior will become more constructive if they think that it is the norm. 3.

Social conventions, explicit laws, and implicit cultural standards are examples of a. norms. b. roles. c. routines. d. stereotypes. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Norms are rules about how we are supposed to act. These are all examples of those rules. % correct 97 a= 97 b= 3 c= 0 d= 0 r = .36 4.

Rules that regulate human life, including explicit laws and implicit cultural conventions, are called a. norms. b. roles. c. routines. d. stereotypes. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Rules that regulate human life, including explicit laws and implicit cultural conventions, are called norms. 5.

Doni enters an elevator and stands in it facing the back instead of turning around to face the elevator door. Doni is violating

a. her gender role. b. a social role. c. a norm. d. a stereotype. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of violating an unspoken rule or norm about facing forward on elevators. 6.

A __________ is a given social position that is governed by a set of norms for proper behavior. a. norm b. role c. routine d. stereotype Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Roles are defined as a given social position that is governed by a set of “rules” for proper behavior. 7.

Research on social roles suggests that a. people usually follow social roles with conscious deliberation. b. social roles are fairly independent of culture. c. they are based almost entirely on gender. d. certain aspects of every role must be carried out or there will be penalties. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The penalties for violating social roles may be emotional, financial, or professional. 8. While at work, Nora is a pilot who flies commercial airlines. At home she is a mother, wife, daughter, and sister. These are several of Nora’s a. cultural norms. b. routines. c. social roles. d. occupations. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: People may have more than one social role, each having norms about expected behavior. 9.

Each person has _______________ social role(s). a. one b. two c. three d. many Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Each person has many social roles such as a gender role, an occupational role, a family role, etc. 10.

Tahir, an Arab, and Jan, a Swede, meet at a dinner for international students. Because the cultures of the two men differ in regard to _______________, both may feel uncomfortable during their conversation. a. knowledge of U.S. etiquette b. attitudes toward higher education c. explicit laws d. conversational distance Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 333 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Swedes tend to maintain much greater social distance during conversations, whereas Arabs in general stand the closest together.

11.

_______________ generally have the greatest conversational distance compared to other cultures; that is, they stand further apart when they converse. a. Southern Europeans b. Arabs c. English and Swedes d. Latin Americans Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 333 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: The English and Swedes tend to have the greatest conversational distance, whereas Arabs and Latin Americans stand the closest together. 12. Requirements of a __________ may be so strong that they may cause you to behave in ways that shatter your fundamental sense of the kind of person you are. a. norm b. rule c. culture d. social role Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 333 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: In every society, social roles are regulated by norms about how people in certain positions should behave. 13.

Which statement best describes an aspect of Stanley Milgram’s study of obedience? a. an ominous-looking shock machine had voltage markings from zero to 450 volts b. participants in the study were randomly assigned to be teachers or learners c. participants were shocked when they made errors in reciting word pairs d. a learner and the teacher sat side by side across from the shock machine Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 333 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: In Milgram’s study, the learner was always an actor and the subject was always the teacher, participants were never shocked, and the learner and teacher were in separate rooms. The shock machine was marked in increments up to 450 volts. 14.

In the famous Milgram experiment on obedience, who received a shock? a. the "learner" b. no one c. the confederate d. the subject Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 333 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: In reality, the learners were confederates of Milgram and did not receive any shocks, but none of the teachers ever realized this during the study. % correct 66 a= 21 b= 66 c= 5 d= 8 r = .37 15.

What did Milgram study? a. the authoritarian personality b. bystander apathy c. the effects of watching violence on television d. obedience to authority Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 333 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: In the early 1960s, Stanley Milgram designed a famous study to test how many people would obey an authority figure when directly ordered to violate their ethical standards. % correct 95 a= 4 b= 1 c= 0 d= 95 r = .26

16.

In the Milgram experiment on obedience, the _______ was a confederate of the experimenter. a. subject b. female subject c. learner d. normal person Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 333 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In Milgram’s famous study, the learners were confederates of Milgram and did not receive any shocks, but none of the teachers ever realized this during the study. % correct 62 a= 34 b= 1 c= 62 d= 3 r = .39 17.

_______ found that normal people in normal times will often follow orders to hurt innocent people. a. Solomon Asch b. Kurt Lewin c. Carolyn Sherif d. Stanley Milgram Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 333–334 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In Milgram’s famous study, every single person administered some shock to the learner when told to by the experimenter, and about two-thirds of the participants, of all ages and from all walks of life, obeyed to the fullest extent. % correct 73 a= 17 b= 2 c= 8 d= 73 r = .43 18.

Before Stanley Milgram conducted his study on obedience, he asked a number of psychiatrists, students, and middle-class adults how many people would go all the way to the highest voltage under the instructions of the authority. Milgram found that a. psychiatrists accurately predicted that about 45 percent of the participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. b. students and middle-class adults accurately predicted that about 25 percent of the participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. c. psychiatrists predicted that one person in a thousand would administer the highest voltage and the nonprofessionals agreed with this statement. d. psychiatrists, students, and middle-class adults accurately predicted that about 15 percent of the participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Almost everyone, both professionals and laypeople, predicted that most people would refuse to go beyond 150 volts and that only one person in a thousand would administer the highest voltage. 19.

In the Milgram study, _______________ predicted that most people would refuse to go beyond 150 volts when administering shock to other people. a. professionals b. nonprofessionals c. both professionals and nonprofessionals d. no one Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Almost everyone, both professionals and laypeople, predicted that most people would refuse to go beyond 150 volts and that only one person in a thousand would administer the highest voltage. 20.

About _______________ of all participants in Milgram’s study administered the highest level of shock to the learner. a. a fourth b. a third c. half d. two-thirds

Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: About two-thirds of the participants gave the highest level of shock, 450 volts. % correct 90 a= 0 b= 0 c= 10 d= 90 r = .22 21.

Milgram concluded that obedience in his study was a function of a. the religious beliefs of the participant. b. the personality of the participant. c. the responses made by the learner. d. the situation of the experiment. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The only thing that changed the outcome of the experiment was if the basic situation was changed such as having the experimenter leave the room or having the teacher in the same room as the learner. 22.

Milgram's study on obedience has been criticized on the basis of a. methodological weaknesses. b. inability to replicate it. c. lack of real-life application. d. ethics. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Some consider the Milgram study unethical because people were kept in the dark about what was really happening until the session was over and because many suffered emotional pain. % correct 87 a= 3 b= 1 c= 9 d= 87 r = .36 23.

Results of Stanley Milgram’s study on obedience showed that a. about two-thirds of the subjects stopped delivering shocks when the learner first demanded to be free. b. about two-thirds of the subjects, from all ages and from all walks of life, obeyed to the fullest extent. c. almost 90 percent of the women and about 60 percent of the men stopped administering shocks even though the experimenter said, “The experiment requires that you continue.” d. about 90 percent of the older adults and about 60 percent of the students stopped administering shocks even though the experimenter said, “The experiment requires that you continue.” Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Rationale: About two-thirds of the participants gave the highest level of shock, 450 volts. 24.

Which of the following actions by the “learner” reduced the likelihood of being shocked by the “teacher” in Milgram’s obedience study? a. protesting noisily b. screaming in pain c. complaining of having a heart ailment d. nothing the learner did made a difference Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Nothing the learner did made a difference. 25.

When Milgram and his team set up several variations of his original study, they found that people were more likely to disobey when a. the learner was in an adjoining room so the “teacher” heard every sound the victim made. b. two experimenters had conflicting demands about the continuation of the experiment. c. the person ordering them to continue was a Ph.D. and wore a lab coat. d. the subject worked with peers who agreed to continue the procedure. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b

Rationale: When two experimenters issued conflicting demands, with one telling participants to continue and another saying to stop at once, no one kept inflicting shock. 26.

William is a police officer who is instructed by a superior officer to beat a subject in order to obtain a confession. According to research done on obedience, William is more likely to disobey this order if a. the superior officer is in the room with William and the suspect. b. another senior officer agrees that William should beat the subject. c. the suspect asks William to stop. d. William sees another police officer refuse to continue beating the subject. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: In Milgram’s famous obedience studies, when the participant worked with peers who refused to go further, he or she often gained the courage to disobey. 27.

Replications of Milgram’s study of obedience showed a. occupational differences, because 90 percent of lower-SES individuals and 55 percent of upper-SES individuals inflicted what they thought were dangerous levels of shocks to the “learner.” b. gender differences in a willingness to obey, because 75 percent of men but only 30 percent of women inflicted what they thought were dangerous levels of shocks to the “learner.” c. that more than 90 percent of the subjects in Spain and in the Netherlands inflicted what they thought were dangerous levels of shocks to the “learner.” d. that when the victim said that he had a heart ailment or screamed in agony, 10 percent of the “teachers” inflicted what they thought were dangerous levels of shocks to the “learner.” Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: When Milgram’s study was conducted in Spain and the Netherlands, obedience was much higher than in the United States. Occupation, gender, and complaints by the learner made no difference. 28.

What does the Stanford prison study tell us about the relationship between social roles and behavior? a. People who are naturally aggressive and authoritarian seek out social roles that allow them to behave in this way. b. “Good” people will refuse to behave according to the norms of a social role if they are required to be harsh or abusive to other people. c. When people are placed in social roles with a lot of power, their behavior often changes to fit their new role. d. Inmates naturally take on different social roles in a prison, with some becoming aggressive and authoritarian, while others become passive and submissive. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 335 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c

Rationale: The Stanford prison study demonstrated that randomly assigning the role of guard to some students caused many to become harsh and even abusive to the student-prisoners. 30.

The Stanford prison study demonstrates how a person’s _______________ affects behavior. a. beliefs b. values c. role d. past experience Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 335 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The role we play affects our behavior by causing us to conform to expectations for that role. 31.

Critics of the Stanford prison study argue that a. the methodology was flawed because participants were not randomly assigned to either the prisoner condition or the guard condition. b. by stopping the study after six days instead of letting it continue for the two-week experimental period, the researchers had not allowed enough time for dramatic change to occur. c. a makeshift prison in the basement of a university building is not an effective setting to investigate the factors involved. d. briefing the guards at the beginning of the study influenced their behavior, and the study merely showed how willingly people obey orders. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 335–336 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Critics noted that the briefing gave powerful suggestions to the guards about how they would be permitted to behave. 32.

Which of the following is true about obedience? a. Obedience is not always harmful or bad, and is necessary in many cases. b. Most people follow orders because they secretly enjoy being told what to do. c. Most people follow orders, despite a strong desire to “rock the boat.” d. Entrapment is a process that helps people disobey. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 336 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Obedience to authority or to the norms of a situation is not always harmful or bad. A certain amount of routine compliance with rules is necessary in any group, and obedience to authority has many benefits for individuals and society. 33.

C. P. Snow said that “more hideous crimes have been committed in the name of _______________ than in the name of rebellion.” a. obedience b. conformity c. religion d. the law Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 336 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Snow implied that people are more likely to do negative things because they are obeying orders (behaving as expected in a particular situation), than because they are acting on beliefs and rebelling. 34.

_______________ is defined as a gradual process in which individuals escalate their commitment to a course of action to justify their investment of time, money, or effort. a. Obedience b. Entrapment c. Conformity d. Commitment Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 336 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b

Rationale: Entrapment occurs when each successive act of obedience serves to further commit a person to a course of action. % correct 93 a=3 b= 93 c=3 d= 0 r=.63 35.

Which of the following is an example of entrapment as it relates to obedience? a. A friend who is moving asks you to bring over a few empty boxes; when you arrive he asks you to fill the boxes with dishes, and before you know it, you’ve packed his kitchen. b. A friend convinces you that it would be fun to stand backwards in the checkout line of the grocery store and before you know it, other customers are gawking at you. c. A friend states that just because you are the bride there is no reason that you, rather than the groom, should write the thank you cards and before you know it, you are getting the blame. d. A friend suggests that in auditioning for the part of James Bond in a local production, you should emphasize his fears as well as his strengths, and before you know it, you are laughed off stage. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 336 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In this scenario, you are asked to commit to helping your friend a little more at each stage until you find it hard to refuse. Thus, this is an example of entrapment. 36.

Several of Jason’s friends deal drugs, but Jason has never wanted to get involved. One day, he agrees to hide some drug money in his apartment for one of his friends. Sometime later he agrees to hide actual drugs. Next Jason agrees to stand watch while one of his friends makes a deal. Finally, Jason agrees when one of his friends asks him to actually sell drugs. Jason’s story is an example of a. false attribution. b. entrapment. c. social cognition. d. social role playing. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 336 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Entrapment occurs when each successive act of obedience serves to further commit a person to a course of action. 37.

An authority figure is most likely to use entrapment in order to a. get an individual to do something that violates his or her principles. b. punish an individual for disobeying an order. c. reward an individual for following orders. d. give “bad guys” an excuse to violate social norms. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 336–337 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Because entrapment is a gradual process, authority figures can use it to slowly push individuals towards violating their own principles. For example, entrapment is often used to train interrogators to use torture in authoritarian regimes. 38.

In Milgram’s obedience study, many participants who administered the highest shock adopted the attitude “It’s his problem, I’m just following orders.” This is an example of a. wanting to be polite. b. having a moral obligation to continue. c. routinizing the task. d. handing over responsibility to authority. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 336-337 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: By handing over responsibility to authority they absolve themselves of accountability for their own actions. 39.

Your textbook describes 25 men who served as Greek military police. At first the men were only ordered to stand guard outside while people were being tortured. Over time, they were ordered to play a larger and

larger role, until they found it fairly easy to torture another human being. What concept does their story demonstrate? a. social roles b. entrapment c. the Milgram effect d. handing over responsibility to authority Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 337 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of entrapment.

SOCIAL INFLUENCES ON BELIEFS AND BEHAVIOR Learning Objectives 10.4 Two general ways that people explain their own or other people’s behavior—and why it matters 10.5 Three self-serving biases in how people think about themselves and the world 10.6 Why most people will believe outright lies and nonsensical statements if they are repeated often enough 10.7 Whether certain fundamental political and religious attitudes have a genetic component 40.

The theory that addresses the question of how people make judgments about the causes of behavior is __________ theory. a. exchange b. social learning c. attribution d. social influence Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: According to attribution theory, people are motivated to explain their own and other people’s behavior by attributing causes of that behavior to a situation or a disposition. % correct 44 a= 1 b= 31 c= 44 d= 23 r = .22 41.

What is the process of explaining why certain events occurred or why a particular person acted in a certain manner? a. attribution b. causality analysis c. ascribing d. stereotyping Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This describes the process of attribution. % correct 70 a= 70 b= 15 c= 10 d= 3 r = .44 42.

Researchers in the area of ___________________ examine how people's perception of themselves and others affect their relationships. a. psychoanalysis b. sociobiology c. social cognition d. behaviorism Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s):338 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Those who work in social cognition examine how people's perception of themselves and others affect their relationships.

43.

Social _______________ refers to the effect of social influence on thought, memory, perception, and beliefs. a. attribution b. entrapment c. attitudes d. cognition Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Social cognition involves the effects of our social environment on our thoughts, beliefs, and other cognitive processes. % correct 77 a= 0 b= 0 c= 23 d= 77 r = .70 44.

Attribution theory examines a. the explanations a person makes about the causes of behavior. b. the psychological traits or “attributes” that a person possesses. c. judgments about the personal attributes of others. d. predictions about behavior of people in particular situations. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Attribution theory looks at how a person makes decisions about the causes of another’s behavior. % correct 37 a= 37 b= 27 c= 17 d= 20 r = .32 45.

When we make situational attributions, we are identifying the cause of an action as something a. in the environment. b. in the person’s disposition. c. that is a biological trait. d. with an unconscious motivation. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Situational attributions look at behavior as being caused by the environment or situation. % correct 70 a= 70 b= 10 c= 13 d= 7 r = .21 46.

When we make dispositional attributions we are identifying the cause of an action as something a. in the environment. b. in the person. c. at work. d. learned. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: When we make dispositional attributions, we are identifying the cause of an action as something in the person. 47.

“Mary earns high grades because she is a genius” is an example of a a. situation attribution. b. dispositional attribution. c. self-serving bias. d. cognitive dissonance. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When we make a dispositional attribution, we are identifying the cause of an action as something in a person, such as a trait or motive. 48.

While stuck in a traffic jam, Yani notices a frustrated driver frequently honking his horn. Yani thinks to himself, “That driver must be late for work.” This is an example of a _______________ attribution. a. situational

b. dispositional c. self-serving d. dissonant Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When we make a situational attribution, we are identifying the cause of an action as something in the situation or environment. 49.

While stuck in a traffic jam, Yani notices a frustrated driver frequently honking his horn. Yani thinks to himself, “That driver is a real jerk!” This is an example of a _______________ attribution. a. situational b. dispositional c. self-serving d. dissonant Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When we make a dispositional attribution, we are identifying the cause of an action as something in a person, such as a trait or motive. 50.

The tendency to give too much emphasis to personal factors when accounting for other people's actions is called a. the primacy effect. b. defensive attribution. c. fundamental attribution error. d. the just-world hypothesis. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The fundamental attribution error is the tendency, in explaining other people’s behavior, to overestimate personality factors and underestimate the influence of the situation. % correct 85 a= 4 b= 11 c= 85 d= 0 r = .36 51.

When people in the United States are trying to find reasons for someone else’s behavior, they tend to a. ignore dispositional attributions in favor of situational attributions. b. leap to the attribution that people’s behaviors correspond to the context. c. explore the personality traits and the environmental constraints to derive an explanation. d. overestimate personality traits and underestimate the influence of the situation. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: It is common—especially in Western nations—to underestimate the role of the situation and overestimate the role of traits or personality factors in judging other people’s behavior. This is called the fundamental attribution error. 52.

Janis, an administrative assistant at a London firm, is trying to find reasons for her boss’s hostile behavior. She is likely to a. ignore her boss’s dispositional attributions in favor of situational attributions. b. leap to the attribution that her boss’s behavior corresponds to work demands. c. explore her boss’s personality traits and the environmental constraints to derive an explanation. d. overestimate her boss’s personality traits and underestimate the influence of the situation. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: It is common—especially in Western nations—to underestimate the role of the situation and overestimate the role of traits or personality factors in judging other people’s behavior. This is called the fundamental attribution error. 53.

The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency of people to a. overestimate the role of situational factors in the behavior of others.

b. overestimate the role of dispositional factors in the behavior of others. c. overestimate the role of situational factors in their own behavior. d. overestimate the role of dispositional factors in their own behavior. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: It is common to underestimate the role of the situation and overestimate the role of traits or personality factors in judging other people’s behavior. This is called the fundamental attribution error. % correct 43 a= 17 b= 43 c= 17 d= 23 r = .21 54.

The fundamental attribution error would be predicted to be especially prevalent in a. India. b. Britain. c. Kenya. d. Japan. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The fundamental attribution error is especially common in Western nations such as Britain. 55.

The basic asymmetry in social perception is further widened by which of the following psychological processes that make you feel good about yourself even when you shouldn't? a. confidence meter b. fundamental attribution error c. self-serving biases d. brain asymmetry Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Self-serving biases involves feeling good about yourself even when you shouldn't. 56.

Which of the following is a type of self-serving bias? a. the bias to believe that the world is fundamentally unfair b. the bias to choose dispositional attributions to explain our bad actions c. the bias to choose the most least flattering attributions of our own lapses d. the bias that we are better, smarter, and kinder than others Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The three types of self-serving biases are choosing the most flattering and forgiving explanations of our own behavior; believing that we are better, smarter, and kinder than others; and needing to view the world as fair and just. 57.

In order to choose the most flattering and forgiving attributions of our own lapses, people generally use _______________ when explaining their bad behavior. a. dispositional attributions b. unbiased assessment c. situation attributions d. the just-world hypothesis Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: People tend to choose attributions that are favorable to them, taking credit for their good actions (a dispositional attribution) but letting the situation account for their failures, embarrassing mistakes, or harmful actions (situational attribution). 58.

I believe I got an “A” in psychology because I’m a hard worker, but I got a “D” in sociology because the teacher doesn’t like me. This demonstrates a. the just-world hypothesis. b. the fundamental attribution error. c. blaming the victim.

d. a self-serving bias. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The tendency, in explaining one’s own behavior, to take credit for one’s successes and find reasons outside of oneself for one’s mistakes is one example of a self-serving bias. 59.

The tendency, in explaining one’s own behavior, to take credit for one’s good actions and rationalize one’s mistakes is an example of a. a self-serving bias. b. a fundamental attribution error. c. an attitude. d. the validity effect. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The tendency, in explaining one’s own behavior, to take credit for one’s good actions and rationalize one’s mistakes is a type of self-serving bias. 60.

The “holier-than-thou” effect refers to the tendency for individuals to a. become angry when other people think they are better than them. b. believe in a higher power. c. believe that bad people are punished and good people rewarded. d. be overly optimistic about their own abilities, competence, and good qualities such as generosity and compassion. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: One self-serving bias is to believe that we are better, smarter, and kinder than others. This bias has been called the “holier-than-thou” effect. 61.

For her dissertation, Heather asks a random sample of people whether their tendency to “do the right thing” is average, below average, or above average. To her surprise, she found that 93% said that they were above average! This illustrates a. a situational attribution. b. the “holier-than-thou” effect. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. the just-world hypothesis. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: One self-serving bias is to believe that we are better, smarter, and kinder than others. This bias has been called the “holier-than-thou” effect. 62.

According to the just-world hypothesis a. people’s actions are just if they truly believe in them. b. if people work hard for something, then they deserve their reward. c. bad people are punished and good people are rewarded. d. international cooperation leads to justice. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: A person who believes the just-world hypothesis would be likely to blame a victim for his or her fate because it would not be just for negative events to happen to innocent people. 63. The notion that many people need to believe that the world is fair and that justice is served is called a. the fundamental attribution error. b. the validity effect. c. just-world hypothesis. d. self-serving bias. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339

Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: According to the just-world hypothesis, bad people are punished and good people are rewarded. 64.

Blaming the victim often results when a person strongly believes in the a. diffusion of responsibility. b. attribution of responsibility. c. social identity theory. d. just-world hypothesis. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: A person who believes the just-world hypothesis would be likely to blame a victim for his or her fate because it would not be just for negative events to happen to innocent people. % correct 23 a= 30 b= 47 c= 0 d= 23 r = .21 65.

A belief about people, groups, ideas, or activities is called a(n) a. social norm. b. attitude. c. attribution. d. disposition. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: A belief about people, groups, ideas, or activities is called an attitude.

Page(s): 340 Answer: b

66.

Attitudes that we are aware of are said to be __________, whereas attitudes we are unaware of yet still influence our behavior are said to be __________. a. explicit; implicit b. implicit; explicit c. dispositional; situational d. situational; dispositional Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 340 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Explicit attitudes are those we are aware of. Implicit attitudes are those we are unaware of. 67.

Even though Jane thought it was wrong to take from others, she didn't want to be rejected by her peers, so she began shoplifting along with them. Jane probably experienced _______ when she stole. a. the fundamental attribution error b. reactance c. central route change d. cognitive dissonance Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 340 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Cognitive dissonance can occur when a person’s belief is incongruent with his or her behavior. % correct 60 a= 10 b= 30 c= 0 d= 60 r = .46 68.

Representative Jansen, a U.S. congresswoman, believes in the reproductive rights and welfare of women but voted to ban late-term abortions. Jansen feels very uneasy about the conflict between her beliefs and her behavior. She is most likely experiencing a. the just-world hypothesis. b. cognitive resolution. c. cognitive dissonance. d. the fundamental attribution error. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 340 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The sense of tension that occurs when a person simultaneously holds two cognitions that are psychologically inconsistent is called cognitive dissonance.

69.

Whenever a person has two contradictory cognitions at the same time, a state of _______ exists. a. cognitive congruence b. nonreciprocity c. cognitive dissonance d. identity diffusion Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 340 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Cognitive dissonance is the uncomfortable feeling that occurs when two attitudes, or an attitude and behavior, are in conflict. % correct 77 a= 10 b= 2 c= 77 d= 10 r = .24 70.

Cognitive dissonance is a. a state of tension that occurs when a person simultaneously holds two cognitions that are psychologically inconsistent. b. the tendency of members of a group to avoid taking responsibility for their actions because they assume that others will do so. c. the tendency for members of a close-knit group to think alike for the sake of harmony and to suppress disagreement. d. a belief that a statement is true just because the person has heard it repeated over and over again. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 340 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: When two attitudes held by a person conflict, or when a person’s attitudes and behavior conflict, the person experiences the uncomfortable tension of cognitive dissonance.

% correct 90

a= 90 b= 3 c= 3 d= 3

r = .21

71.

A state of tension that occurs when a person simultaneously holds two cognitions that are psychologically inconsistent is called a. cognitive dissonance. b. the validity effect. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. routinization. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 340 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: When two attitudes held by a person conflict, or when a person’s attitudes and behavior conflict, the person experiences the uncomfortable tension of cognitive dissonance. 72.

The familiarity effect is the tendency of people to a. be unable to distinguish between actual experiences and what they have been told. b. believe that a statement is true simply because it has been repeated a number of times. c. feel more positive toward a person, item, product, or other stimulus that they have seen often. d. overestimate their abilities to have predicted an event once the outcome is known. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 341 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The familiarity effect is the tendency of people to feel more positive toward a person, item, product, or other stimulus that they have seen often. 73.

When Lidia first moved to Texas, she really didn’t like country music. However, after being exposed to it for a while, her attitude began to change. This is an example of a. the validity effect. b. brainwashing. c. cognitive dissonance. d. the familiarity effect. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 341 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The familiarity effect is the tendency of people to feel more positive toward a person, item, product, or other stimulus that they have been exposed to often.

74.

When someone likes a person better after spending time together, they often say that the person “grew on them.” What concept does this illustrate? a. the familiarity effect b. brainwashing c. cognitive dissonance d. the validity effect Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 341 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The familiarity effect is the tendency of people to feel more positive toward a person, item, product, or other stimulus that they have been exposed to often. 75.

The validity effect is the tendency of people to a. be unable to distinguish between actual experiences and what they have been told. b. believe that a statement is true simply because it has been repeated a number of times. c. solve problems using the same procedures that lead to valid results on similar problems. d. overestimate their abilities to have predicted an event once the outcome is known. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 341 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The validity effect is the tendency of people to believe that a statement is true simply because it has been repeated a number of times. 76.

Joseph Goebbels, Hitler’s propaganda minister, used a technique called “The Big Lie.” He knew that people begin to believe that a statement is true simply because it has been repeated a number of times. The formal name for this technique is a. the validity effect. b. groupthink. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. symbolic racism. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 341 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When a person hears an opinion or attitude repeatedly, he or she tends to believe it is true. This is referred to as the validity effect. 77.

At Nicholas’s high school, a rumor was spread that the principal was having an affair with one of the teachers. While Nicholas didn’t believe the rumor at first, the more he heard the rumor repeated, the more he accepted it as a fact. This is an example of a. the familiarity effect. b. brainwashing. c. cognitive dissonance. d. the validity effect. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 341 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The validity effect is the tendency of people to believe that a statement is true or valid simply because it has been repeated many times. 78.

Which of the following statements about attitudes is true? a. We are consciously aware of all of our attitudes. b. Attitudes cannot be changed after they have been formed. c. Attitudes are generally a result of learning and experience, but may also be a result of innate personality traits. d. All attitudes are equally strong. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 341 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Most attitudes are learned from our parents, associates, and experiences, although there is evidence that some attitudes may result from core personality traits that are highly heritable.

79.

Which of the following is partly heritable? a. religious affiliation b. political affiliation c. social class d. political conservatism Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 342 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: While political affiliation is generally not heritable, political conservatism has a high heritability: . 65 in men and .45 in women. 80.

Which of the following is partly heritable? a. religious affiliation b. political affiliation c. social class d. religiosity Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 342 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Religiosity—a person’s depth of religious feeling and adherence to a religion’s rules—does have a genetic component. 81.

How are twin studies used to estimate the heritability of attitudes? a. The rate of agreement for identical twins on an issue gives an estimate of how heritable it is. b. The rate of agreement for fraternal twins on an issue gives an estimate of how heritable it is. c. The rate of agreement for identical twins on an issue, minus the rate for fraternal twins, gives an estimate of how heritable it is. d. The rate of agreement for fraternal twins on an issue, minus the rate for identical twins, gives an estimate of how heritable it is. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 342 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Because fraternal twins share, on average, 50 percent of their genes and identical twins share 100 percent of their genes, how often identical twins agree on each issue, minus the rate at which fraternal twins agree, gives a rough measure of heritability. 82.

Some psychological scientists maintain that ideological belief systems may have evolved in human societies to be organized along a left-right dimension, consisting of what two core sets of attitudes? a. whether a person advocates social change or supports the system as it is, and whether a person thinks inequality is a result of human policies and can be overcome, or is inevitable and should be accepted as part of the natural order b. whether a person is deeply religious or empirically minded, and whether they believe people are generally introverted or extroverted c. whether they believe people are naturally good or naturally bad, and whether they believe in charity or revenge d. whether a person advocates rewarding good or punishing bad, and whether a person thinks knowledge is innate or acquired Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 342 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Some researchers believe that the two core sets of attitudes revolve around these two basic liberal/conservative distinctions. 83.

Which factor accounts for the greatest amount of variation in political attitude? a. the environmental factors shared with a person’s family b. individual life experiences (nonshared environment) c. ethnicity d. genes Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior

Page(s): 343

Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The factor that accounts for even more of the variation in political attitudes than heritability is individual life experiences, or what behavioral geneticists call the nonshared environment. 84.

Many psychologists do not like the term “brainwashing” to describe the creation of suicide bombers because brainwashing a. sounds like a physical rather than a mental process. b. detracts from the mysterious coercion that occurs. c. implies that the individuals are being “cleansed.” d. implies a sudden change of mind and a lack of awareness of what is happening. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 343 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: “Brainwashing” implies that a person has had a sudden change of mind without being aware of what is happening, which is usually not the case. 85.

When a person is a committed follower in a cult that relies upon coercive persuasion, the group is likely to a. have created a new identity for the person now that he or she is among the elite. b. give “love baths” and affection whenever the person feels personal distress. c. encourage the person to initiate interactions with family members. d. allow the person to make more choices in how he or she wants to pursue group goals. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 344 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Coercive persuasion often involves creating a new identity to allow the person to feel they are among the elite. % correct 76 a= 76 b= 3 c= 0 d= 20 r = .22 86.

Research on contemporary suicide bombers indicates that they are often a. suffering from mental illness. b. quite educated. c. poor. d. isolated loners. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 343 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Suicide bombers in the Middle East—including Mohamed Atta, who led the 9/11 attack on the World Trade Center—usually have no psychopathology and are often quite educated and affluent. 87.

Methods of indoctrination include all of these elements EXCEPT a. the person is subjected to entrapment. b. all of the person's problems are reduced to one simple attribution. c. the person's past identity is strengthened. d. the person's access to information is severely controlled. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior 344 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Indoctrination involves creating a new identity. Methods of indoctrination include which of the elements? a. The person is subjected to violence. b. All of the person's problems are spread among a large number of attributions. c. The person's past identity is strengthened. d. The person's access to information is severely controlled. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior 344 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Indoctrination involves controlling a person’s access to dissonant information.

Page(s): 343– Answer: c

88.

Page(s): 343– Answer: d

89.

As part of the indoctrination process used by terrorist groups and cults, as soon as a person is a committed believer, the leader is most likely to a. allow them more choices than before. b. encourage private doubts. c. encourage contact with family members. d. denigrate critical thinking. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 344 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: As soon as a person is a committed believer, the leader limits the person’s choices, denigrates critical thinking, and suppresses private doubts. Recruits may be physically isolated from the outside world and thus from antidotes to the leader’s ideas.

INDIVIDUALS IN GROUPS Learning Objectives 10.8 Why people in groups often go along with the majority even when the majority is dead wrong 10.9 How “groupthink” can lead to bad decisions 10.10 How crowds can create “bystander apathy” and unpredictable violence 10.11 The conditions that increase the likelihood that some people will dissent, take risks to help others, or blow the whistle on wrongdoers 90.

The need to ____________ may be the most powerful human motivation. a. be creative b. belong c. participate d. achieve Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 345 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The need to belong is the strongest need listed. Human beings are so powerfully connected to one another that most people feel and remember the social pain of being rejected, humiliated, or excluded more intensely than actual physical pain they have endured. 91.

Behavior that occurs when we change our actions or attitudes because of real or imagined group pressures is called a. cooperation. b. coercion. c. obedience. d. conformity. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 345 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Taking action or adopting attitudes as a result of real or imagined group pressure is called conformity. % correct 98 a= 1 b= 1 c= 1 d= 98 r = .33 92.

Changing one's behavior in response to real or perceived social pressures is referred to as _______ by social psychologists. a. compliance b. conformity c. influence d. obedience Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 345 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Taking action or adopting attitudes as a result of real or imagined group pressure is called conformity.

% correct 71

a= 15 b= 71 c= 7 d= 7

r = .32

93.

Even though she thought it was silly, Emily wore pink and green ribbons in her hair as her friends did. This is an example of a. a group role. b. a group norm. c. conformity. d. obedience. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 345 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Taking action or adopting attitudes as a result of real or imagined group pressure is called conformity. % correct 94 a= 1 b= 4 c= 94 d= 1 r = .22 94.

Experiments showing the effects of group pressure on conformity were conducted by a. Asch. b. Luchens. c. Milgram. d. Singer. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 345 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: A series of famous studies on conformity were conducted by Solomon Asch in the 1950s. % correct 71 a= 71 b= 7 c= 9 d= 13 r = .32 95.

Solomon Asch set up an experiment in which eight people were shown a 10-inch line and then had to choose the line that matched it in length from a choice of three other lines. Through this experiment, Asch was studying a. bystander apathy. b. social loafing. c. groupthink. d. conformity. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 345 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Solomon Asch studied conformity in this experiment and others like it. % correct 90 a= 0 b= 0 c= 10 d= 90 r = .44 96.

Angela is a participant in a replication of a famous psychology experiment. Along with seven other students seated in a room, she is shown a 10-inch test line, and then everyone takes turns identifying the line that matches it in length from a choice of three lines. The experimenter is interested in studying a. visual perception. b. depth perception. c. absolute threshold. d. conformity. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 345 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: This describes Solomon Asch’s original study on conformity. 97.

When the seven confederates chose the line that was obviously wrong in Solomon Asch’s famous experiment, he found that a. students who did not conform were confident and pleased that they had done well. b. only 20 percent of the students remained completely independent on every trial. c. 70 percent of the students conformed to the group’s incorrect answer more than half the time. d. students who conformed expressed certainty that they had made correct decisions. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 345 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Asch found that when people made comparisons on their own they were almost always accurate,

but in a group only 20 percent remained independent in their decisions. 98.

_______________ is a tendency for all people on a team or a mission together to agree with each other and suppress any dissension among their ranks. a. Groupthink b. Conformity c. Consensus d. Deindividuation Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 346 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The definition of groupthink is a tendency for all members of a group to think alike and for disagreement to be suppressed. % correct 90 a= 90 b= 10 c= 0 d= 0 r = .60 99.

Failure to critically evaluate ideas when concern is for reaching agreement is called a. group polarization. b. social comparison. c. groupthink. d. deindividuation. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 346 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Groupthink is the tendency for all members of a group to think alike for the sake of harmony and to suppress disagreement. % correct 77 a= 12 b= 8 c= 77 d= 4 r = .51 100.

Carlos and his work associates form a close, friendly group and they usually work well together. However, they may face a problem involving an extreme form of conformity called a. fundamental attribution error. b. generational identity. c. groupthink. d. self-serving bias. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 346 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Groupthink, a tendency for all members of a group to think alike and for disagreement to be suppressed, is more likely in close, friendly groups. 101.

When close-knit group members experience groupthink, it means that a. they tend to overestimate the personality factors of others and underestimate the situation. b. they tend to use problem-solving procedures that have been effective in the group’s past. c. they tend to take individual credit for good decisions and blame the group for others. d. they tend to think alike and to suppress disagreement for the sake of harmony. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 346 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Groupthink, a tendency for all members of a group to think alike and for disagreement to be suppressed, is more likely in close, friendly groups. 102.

When the leader of a close-knit group humiliates dissenters, it is most likely a symptom of a. the self-serving bias. b. a fundamental attribution error. c. groupthink. d. diffusion of responsibility. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 346 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: One of the symptoms of groupthink is pressure on dissenters to conform. 103.

The members of Ike’s fraternity think blindfolding the initiates and covering them with molasses is a great

idea for pledging. Ike does not think this is a good idea but he decides to keep quiet rather than offend his fraternity brothers and risk being ridiculed. This illustrates a symptom of a. groupthink. b. deindividuation. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. self-serving bias. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 346 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Groupthink is a tendency for all members of a group to think alike and for disagreement to be suppressed. 104.

According to the text, the Bay of Pigs invasion of Cuba was a result of a. a weak leader. b. groupthink. c. risky shift. d. group polarization. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 346–347 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Throughout history, groupthink has led to disastrous decisions in military and civilian life, including President Kennedy and his advisers’ decision to support the invasion of Cuba. % correct 80 a= 2 b= 80 c= 1 d= 16 r = .41 105.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of groupthink? a. an illusion of invulnerability b. a leader who rewards the expression of doubt and dissent c. self-censorship d. an illusion of unanimity Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Groupthink is actually minimized if the leader rewards the expression of doubt and dissent. 106.

Groupthink can be counteracted by creating conditions that a. foster strong, directive leadership. b. punish disloyalty. c. explicitly encourage doubt and dissent. d. help members focus on being team players. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Groupthink can be minimized if the leader rewards the expression of doubt and dissent, and protects and encourages minority views. 107.

When President George W. Bush launched an invasion of Iraq, claiming that the country had weapons of mass destruction and was allied with Al-Qaeda, he and his team ignored evidence from intelligence agencies that neither claim was actually true. Some in the intelligence agencies attribute this error to a process called a. groupthink. b. unanimity. c. self-censorship. d. conservativism. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of groupthink. 108.

Resistance to groupthink can be fostered by all of the following EXCEPT: a. encouraging members to think of themselves as open-minded problem solvers. b. becoming invulnerable know-it-alls.

c. allowing members to feel strongly identified with the group’s goals. d. fostering concern that a decision might be harmful for the collective enterprise. Section: Individuals in Groups Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Becoming an invulnerable know-it-alls often leads to groupthink.

Page(s): 347 Answer: b

109. The tendency for individuals in a group to avoid taking a needed action because they assume that others will is called a. deindividuation. b. persuasion. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. obedience. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The tendency for individuals in a group to avoid taking a needed action because they assume that others will is called diffusion of responsibility. 110.

A major reason why people won't help when there are many bystanders is because a. of diffusion of responsibility. b. people are egoistic. c. people like to see others hurt. d. people are not altruistic. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: People often avoid taking action because they assume that others will. This process is called diffusion of responsibility. % correct 91 a= 91 b= 2 c= 1 d= 6 r = .40 111.

According to research, the larger the group, the a. safer you are. b. more likely you are to receive help. c. more likely you are to give assistance. d. less likely you are to give or receive help. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The more people there are around you, the less likely it is that one of them will come to your aid. % correct 93 a= 2 b= 2 c= 4 d= 93 r = .41 112.

Deindividuation would be most likely to occur a. in a small group. b. when a group is first forming. c. when one is bored or depressed. d. in a large group. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Deindividuation, the loss of awareness of one’s own individuality, is most likely to occur in large, anonymous mobs or crowds. % correct 81 a= 9 b= 5 c= 5 d= 81 r = .29 113.

Deindividualation is a. being more concerned with group consensus than making the best decision. b. excluding a person based on a superficial characteristic. c. viewing people negatively because of their membership in a group. d. when people assume the identity of a group. Section: Individuals in Groups Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate

Page(s): 347 Answer: d

Rationale: People often lose awareness of their individuality and seem to hand themselves over to the mood and actions of the crowd, a state called deindividuation. % correct 83 a= 13 b= 3 c= 1 d= 83 r = .33 114.

In which of the following situations would a person most likely feel deindividuated? a. at a football game b. at a bridge game c. at a church social d. in a math class Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Deindividuation, the loss of awareness of one’s own individuality, is most likely to occur in large, anonymous mobs or crowds. % correct 56 a= 56 b= 3 c= 14 d= 26 r = .22 115.

In which of the following situations would a person be LEAST likely to feel deindividuated? a. riding a subway b. attending a football game c. during a math class d. while watching a movie in a movie theatre Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Deindividuation, the loss of awareness of one’s own individuality, is most likely to occur in large, anonymous mobs or crowds. % correct 73 a= 9 b= 7 c= 73 d= 11 r = .21 116.

If a person had a sudden appendicitis attack in a public place, she would be more likely to be helped if a. one other person was in the area. b. four to five people were in the area. c. one dozen people were in the area. d. several dozen people were in the area. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Research has demonstrated that the more people who witness a person in trouble, the less likely it is that anyone will help. 117.

Bystander apathy results from a. social loafing. b. deindividuation. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. the familiarity effect. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Bystander apathy seems to result from dividing the responsibility to help over the many people who are present, so each individual has little personal responsibility. This is referred to as diffusion of responsibility.

% correct 60 118.

a= 7 b= 23 c= 60 d= 7

r = .72

Which of the following describes "diffusion of responsibility"? a. the tendency of people to avoid taking a needed action, assuming that others will do so b. the tendency for members of a close-knit group to think alike for the sake of harmony and to suppress dissent c. the tendency of individuals to increase their liking for something that they have worked hard to attain d. in a group or a crowd, the tendency for each group member to lose awareness of his or her own individuality Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347

Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Diffusion of responsibility in an anonymous group is the tendency of members to avoid taking a needed action, assuming that others will do so. 119.

Lucas is making his way across a busy campus between classes. He notices smoke coming from the side of the cafeteria but figures that someone already called the fire department. What phenomenon does this illustrate? a. just-world hypothesis b. diffusion of responsibility c. deindividuation d. groupthink Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In groups, the tendency of members to avoid taking action because they assume that others will. This is called diffusion of responsibility. 120.

As members of an anonymous crowd, a. individuals become uninhibited and likely to engage in combative behavior. b. individuals strive to maintain individuality rather than follow the crowd. c. individuals often fail to take action because they believe that someone else will do so. d. individuals are apathetic bystanders when someone is in trouble. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347– 348 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In groups, the tendency of members to avoid taking action because they assume that others will. This is called diffusion of responsibility. % correct 67 a= 0 b= 13 c= 67 d= 20 r = .26 121.

Research suggests that you are more likely to a. feel deindividuated in a small town. b. feel deindividuated when wearing a uniform. c. feel combative rather than kind when feeling deindividuated. d. demonstrate mindlessness when feeling deindividuated. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347– 348 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Deindividuation is more likely in large cities and when people wear uniforms because they feel more anonymous.

% correct 70

a= 17 b= 70 c= 3 d= 10

r = .44

122.

Eduardo wearing a silly gorilla suit at costume party. Although he is normally responsible and respectful, Eduardo joins in when the party starts getting wild. After the police breakup the party, he apologetically tells them that he “forgot himself.” What phenomenon does this illustrate? a. the just-world hypothesis b. diffusion of responsibility c. deindividuation d. groupthink Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 348 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of deindividuation, which is increased when uniforms or disguises that make a person more anonymous are worn. 123.

What really seems to be happening when people are in large crowds and anonymous situations is that a. they conform to the situation’s specific norms. b. they become mindless and no longer conform to any social norms.

c. they become uninhibited and their sexual urges are released. d. they become combative and their aggressiveness is released. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 348 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Studies of deindividuation show that a person is more likely to conform his or her behavior to the norms of the specific situation. 124.

Adora and Yvette, and twelve of their closest friends from college, are planning to go to Key West during spring break. As members of the anonymous crowd of college students, Adora and Yvette will most likely a. conform to the situation’s specific norms and say, “Let’s party!” b. conform to the local norms of the city of Key West. c. become uninhibited because mindlessness is increased in a large group. d. become combative because aggressiveness is released in the large group. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 348 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Studies of deindividuation show that a person is more likely to conform his or her behavior to the norms of the specific situation. 125.

Altruistic behavior is behavior that a. is intended to be helpful to others. b. unintentionally harms others. c. intentionally harms others. d. has no known motivation behind it. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 349 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Altruism is the willingness to take selfless or dangerous action on behalf of others. There are several factors that are known to influence altruistic behavior. % correct 56 a= 56 b= 6 c= 1 d= 36 r = .23 126.

Which of the following is a situation that increases the likelihood someone will act altruistically? a. The person is female. b. The person is male. c. He or she is acting alone. d. He or she becomes entrapped by previous actions. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 350 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Once having taken the initial step of getting involved, most people will increase their commitment.

US VERSUS THEM: GROUP IDENTITY Learning Objectives 10.12 How people in a multicultural society balance ethnic identity and acculturation 10.13 What causes ethnocentric, us–them thinking and how to decrease it 10.14 How stereotypes benefit us and how they distort reality 127.

Part of one’s self-concept that is based on one’s identification with a nation, ethnic group, gender, religion, or other social affiliation is called a. ethnic identity. b. social identity. c. acculturation. d. ethnocentrism. Section: Us versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 350 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Part of one’s self-concept that is based on one’s identification with a nation, ethnic group, gender, religion, or other social affiliation is called social identity.

128.

The part of a person’s self-concept that is based on his or her identification with a racial or ethnic group is called a. the fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. ethnocentrism. d. ethnic identity. Section: Us Versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 350 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: This describes ethnic identity. 129.

__________ occurs when members of minority groups come to identify with and feel a part of the mainstream culture. a. Socialization b. Ethnocentrism c. Acculturation d. Routinization Section: Us versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 350 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Acculturation occurs when members of minority groups come to identify with and feel a part of the mainstream culture. 130.

The belief that one’s own ethnic group, nation, or religion is superior to all others is called a. the fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. ethnocentrism. d. entrapment. Section: Us Versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 351 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Ethnocentrism is the belief that one’s own culture or nation is superior to all others. % correct 87 a= 7 b= 3 c= 87 d= 3 r = .65 131.

Research on us–them social identities shows that a. the “us” category is based on dominant characteristics, such as gender or ethnicity. b. it almost doesn’t matter what the “us” category is based on. c. it occurs in individualist countries but not in collectivist countries, such as China. d. it hinders human survival because it fosters competition. Section: Us Versus Them: Group Identity 352 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The social category “us” can be manufactured around almost anything.

Page(s): 351– Answer: b

132.

Us–them social identities can be reduced by a. interdependence in reaching mutual goals. b. competition. c. education and awareness. d. acculturation and accommodation. Section: Us Versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 352 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Us–them social identities are reduced when two groups must work together to reach mutual goals. 133.

The Robbers’ Cave experiment showed that a. playing athletic games, such as football and baseball, reduces us–them hostility. b. watching movies together, and similar quiet interactions, reduces us–them hostility. c. engaging in mutually exciting activities, such as tug or war, reduces us–them hostility. d. interdependence in reaching mutual goals reduces us–them hostility. Section: Us Versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 352

Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Hostility between groups, such as results from ethnocentrism and stereotypes, can be reduced when two groups must work together to reach mutual goals. 134.

__________ is a summary impression of a group, in which one believes all members of that group share common traits, either positive, negative, or both. a. A stereotype b. Symbolic racism c. Prejudice d. A conflict Section: Us versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 352 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: A stereotype is a summary impression of a group, in which one believes all members of that group share common traits (positive, negative, or neutral). 135.

“We” have all sorts of personalities and lots of little quirks, whereas “they” all act alike and react the same way. This assumption is likely the result of a. mindlessness. b. a stereotype. c. a fundamental attribution error. d. a mental set. Section: Us versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 352 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: A stereotype is a summary impression of a group, in which one believes all members of that group share common traits, (positive, negative, or neutral). 136.

Jill believes that Honda owners are thrifty and practical, whereas June believes that Honda owners are stingy and dull. Both views illustrate a. prejudice. b. ethnocentrism. c. stereotyping. d. the self-serving bias. Section: Us versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 352 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: A stereotype is a summary impression of a group, in which one believes all members of that group share common traits, (positive, negative, or neutral). 137.

One way in which stereotypes can distort reality is that: a. they exaggerate differences between groups. b. they overestimate differences within other groups. c. they produce many different perceptions. d. they show that members of a group can be different. Section: Us versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 352–353 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Although stereotypes reflect real differences among people, they often exaggerate differences making the stereotyped group appear odd or even dangerous.

GROUP CONFLICT AND PREJUDICE Learning Objectives 10.15 The four major causes and functions of prejudice 10.16 Four indirect ways of measuring prejudice 10.17 Four conditions necessary for reducing prejudice and conflict 138.

___________ consists of a negative stereotype and a strong, unreasonable dislike or hatred of a group. a. Benevolence

b. Acculturation c. Prejudice d. A conflict Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 353 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Prejudice consists of a negative stereotype and a strong, unreasonable dislike or hatred of a group. 139.

Juan believes that all Anglos are uptight and cold, and he won’t listen to any evidence that contradicts his belief. This example illustrates a. prejudice. b. ethnocentrism. c. stereotyping. d. self-serving bias. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 353– 354 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Prejudice is a strong, unreasonable dislike or hatred of a group, based on a negative stereotype that is typically immune to evidence.

% correct 83

a= 83 b= 0 c= 13 d= 3

r = .20

140.

A psychological cause of prejudice is to a. help people bond to their own ethnic group. b. increase self-esteem. c. increase conformity to social norms. d. make official forms of discrimination seem legitimate. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 354 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: One result of prejudice is that it increases self-esteem in the prejudiced person because he sees himself as better than others. This is a psychological factor that helps to explain prejudice. 141.

A social cause of prejudice is pressure to a. bond to one’s own ethnic group. b. increase self-esteem. c. conform to social norms. d. make official forms of discrimination seem legitimate. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 354 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Prejudice can be caused by pressure to conform to social norms, a social function of prejudice. 142.

An economic cause of prejudice is to a. help people bond to their own ethnic group. b. increase self-esteem. c. increase conformity to social norms. d. make official forms of discrimination seem legitimate. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 354 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: An economic cause of prejudice is that it makes official forms of discrimination seem legitimate, by justifying the majority group’s dominance, status, or greater wealth. 143.

__________ refers to active dislike of women, whereas __________ refers to superficially positive attitudes that place women on a pedestal, while reinforcing women’s subordination. a. Hostile sexism; benevolent sexism b. Benevolent sexism; hostile sexism c. Explicit sexism; implicit sexism d. Implicit sexism; explicit sexism Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 355

Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Hostile sexism refers to active dislike of women, whereas benevolent sexism refers to superficially positive attitudes that place women on a pedestal, while reinforcing women’s subordination. 144.

Jimmy and Janie believe all women are nurturing, moral, and beautiful, and therefore should not enter into a “rough-and-tumble” professional lifestyle that involves power. Jimmy and Janie demonstrate a. hostile sexism. b. benevolent sexism. c. symbolic sexism. d. unconscious associations. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 355 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Benevolent sexism occurs when superficial positive attitudes appear to put women on a pedestal but nevertheless reinforce women’s subordination. 145.

A cultural cause of prejudice is to a. help people bond to their own ethnic group. b. increase self-esteem. c. increase conformity to social norms. d. make official forms of discrimination seem legitimate. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 355 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: A cultural cause in prejudice is that it helps people to bond to their own ethnic group. 146.______________ reflects a behavioral expression of prejudice, a reluctance to get to close to another group. a. Personal space b. Social distance c. Cultural space d. Discrimination distance Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 357 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Social distance reflects a behavioral expression of prejudice, a reluctance to get to close to another group. 147.

Although Juan does not express any overtly prejudice feelings about African Americans, he is clearly uncomfortable with the idea of African American families moving into his neighborhood and joining his church. Juan appears to have implicit prejudice toward African Americans, as measured by a. social distance. b. the Implicit Association Test. c. subconscious isolationism. d. stereotype bias. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 357-358 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Juan’s desire to maintain a social distance between himself and African Americans is a sign of prejudice. 148.

__________ are assumed to be automatic and unintentional, and therefore may be a better measure of one’s true attitudes, stereotypes, and prejudices. a. Attributional errors b. Authoritative demands c. Psychological scapegoats d. Implicit attitudes Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 357 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Implicit attitudes are assumed to be automatic and unintentional, and therefore may be a better measure of one’s true attitudes, stereotypes, and prejudices.

149.

When Jenny’s parents told her that they were moving to Alabama, she was horrified because she secretly thought that southerners were mostly poorly educated and racist. After experiencing the foods, traditions, and people in her new home, she was surprised to realize that southerners weren’t all alike, and that many of her new friends were just like her. This is an example of a. the social distance effect. b. the contact hypothesis. c. subconscious isolationism. d. stereotype bias. Section: Us Versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 359 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: According to the contact hypothesis, prejudice declines when people have the chance to get used to another group’s rules, food, customs, and attitudes, thereby discovering their shared interests and shared humanity and learning that “those people” aren’t, in fact, “all alike.” 150.

Congressman Glass is trying to decide how he should vote on a bill to legalize same-sex marriages. Based on the information in your textbook on prejudice, what is the most likely outcome of extending marriage rights to same-sex couples in the long run? a. It will cause a backlash and lead to more anti-gay prejudice. b. It will decrease explicit prejudice, but increase implicit prejudice. c. It will decrease anti-gay prejudice. d. Nothing, because prejudice is not affected by legal status. Section: Us Versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 359–360 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Prejudice is generally decreased when both sides have equal legal status, and when the authorities and community institutions provide moral and legal support to both sides. 151.

According to research, prejudice is reduced when people must a. come into contact with one another. b. change their attitudes and behaviors. c. cooperate with one another to achieve a goal. d. live together. Section: Us Versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 360 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In one study, students from different ethnic groups worked together on a task that is broken up like a jigsaw puzzle. Students in such classes, from elementary school through college, tend to do better, like their classmates better, and become less stereotyped and prejudiced in their thinking than students in traditional classrooms. % correct 88 a= 7 b= 4 c= 88 d= 2 r = .33

True-False Questions 1.

Rules that regulate human life (including social conventions, explicit laws, and implicit cultural standards) are called situational attributions. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Rules that regulate human life are called norms. 2. A norm is a given social position that is governed by a set of rules for proper behavior. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: A role is a given social position governed by a set of rules.

3 Individuals are generally conscious of the social rules that they follow in their own society. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Individuals are often unaware of the norms that govern their behavior; the norms are often invisible. 4.

The purpose of Milgram’s study on obedience was to find out how many people would obey an authority figure when directly ordered to violate their own ethical standards. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 333 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 5. In Stanley Milgram’s study on obedience, the “learners” actually received only very mild shocks. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 333 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The learners did not receive any shock. 6.

Before Milgram’s study on obedience began, psychiatrists predicted that only one person in a thousand would administer the highest voltage. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 7.

Individuals who made predictions about Milgram’s study on obedience before it began all said they would disobey the authority figure early in the procedure. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 8. In Milgram’s obedience study, 15 percent of the subjects refused to administer any shocks to the “learner.” Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Every single person administered some shock to the “learner.” 9.

In variations of Stanley Milgram’s study on obedience, people were more likely to disobey when the experimenter left the room. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 10.

Milgram concluded that personality traits were virtually irrelevant to how people behave in his obedience experiment. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 11.

The social psychologists who conducted the prison study found dramatic results within a short period of time. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 335 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 12.

Entrapment occurs when someone in authority asks you to do something, and you want to disobey, but instead you agree to do it. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 336 Type: Factual Answer: False

Rationale: Entrapment is a process in which an individual’s escalating participation in a course of action leads to an investment in it and therefore becomes its justification. 13.

Social cognition is an area in social psychology concerned with social influences on thought, memory, perception, and other cognitive processes. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 14. The fundamental attribution error is especially prevalent in collectivist cultures, such as India or Japan. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The fundamental attribution is more prevalent in Western nations where people tend to believe that individuals are responsible for their own actions. 15.

According to the just-world hypothesis, attributions are affected by the need to believe that the world is fair, that justice prevails, and that good people are rewarded and bad guys punished. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 16. Most people are overly pessimistic about their own abilities, competence, and other good qualities. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Most people are overly optimistic about their own abilities and other good qualities. 17. The just-world hypothesis leads to a dispositional attribution called “blaming the victim.” Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 18. An attitude is a belief about people, groups, ideas, or activities. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 340 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

19.

Cognitive dissonance is a state of tension that occurs when a person’s belief is incongruent with his or her behavior. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 340 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 20. Simply exposing people repeatedly to a product can make them like that product more. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 341 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 21. Mere repetition of a statement or opinion increases the perception that it is true. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 341 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 22.

The most powerful weapon that groups have to ensure their members' cooperation and to weed out disruptive members is ostracism. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior

Page(s): 345 Rationale: Statement of fact.

Type: Factual

Answer: True

23.

Solomon Asch designed his famous conformity studies in order to see what people would do when a group unanimously contradicted an obvious fact. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 345 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 24.

In close-knit groups, the tendency for all members to think alike and to suppress disagreement for the sake of harmony is called the fundamental attribution error. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 346 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Groupthink refers to the tendency for all members of close-knit groups to think alike and to suppress disagreement. 25.

If you were being mugged in a public place, you would be more likely to get help if there were five people in the area rather than only one person. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: When there is more than one person present, the phenomenon known as diffusion of responsibility sets in, resulting in people assuming that others will do what is needed. 26. Deindividuation occurs when members of a group lose awareness of their own individuality. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 347 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 27.

One way in which organizations actively promote the deindividuation of their members, in order to enhance allegiance to the group, is through the use of uniforms. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 348 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 28. Women are more likely to donate a kidney to save another person's life than men are. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 349 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 29. Men are more likely to volunteer to serve in dangerous postings around the world in the Peace Corps. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 349 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Women are more likely to volunteer in these situations. 30. Altruism is the willingness to take selfless or dangerous action on behalf of others. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 349 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 31. The belief that one’s own ethnic group, nation, or religion is superior to all others is called self-serving bias. Section: Us Versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 351 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The belief that one’s own ethnic group, nation, or religion is superior to all others is called ethnocentrism, not self-serving bias. 32.

Stereotypes can be useful tools in the mental toolbox, energy-saving devices that allow us to make efficient

decisions. Section: Us Versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 352 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

33. A prejudice consists of a negative stereotype and a strong, unreasonable dislike of a group. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 353 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 34. Benevolent sexism is affectionate, but patronizing. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 355 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

35. Recent surveys mentioned in your text have found that prejudice of all kinds has been increasing sharply. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 356 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Explicit prejudice has been dropping sharply.

Short Answer Questions 1. Distinguish between a social norm and a social role. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 332 Type: Factual Answer: A social norm is a rule about how we are supposed to behave; a social role is a given social position that is governed by a set of social norms. 2.

Before conducting his study on obedience, Stanley Milgram asked a number of psychiatrists, students, and middle-class adults to predict how many people they thought would deliver shocks at the highest levels. What predictions did they make? Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Answer: They predicted only 1/1000 would administer highest voltage, and most would not go beyond 150 volts. 3.

List three conditions under which participants in Milgram’s study would be more likely to disobey the experimenter. Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 334 Type: Factual Answer: Participants in Milgram’s study were more likely to disobey the experimenter when the experimenter left the room; when the victim was in the room with the participant; when two experimenters issued contradictory commands; when the person giving orders was an ordinary citizen; when the participant worked with peers who refused to go further. 4.

In the Stanford prison study, why did the researchers end the study at Day 6, instead of Day 14 as initially planned? Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 335 Type: Factual Answer: The researchers had not expected such a speedy and alarming transformation of ordinary students. For example, many “prisoners” developed emotional symptoms and physical ailments. 5. Describe what is meant by the fundamental attribution error. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior

Page(s): 338

Type: Conceptual Answer: The fundamental attribution error is the tendency, when explaining another person’s behavior, to overestimate personality/dispositional factors and underestimate situational factors. 6. How is the just-world hypothesis related to the phenomenon of “blaming the victim”? Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 339 Type: Conceptual Answer: The just-world hypothesis is the notion that many people need to believe that the world is fair and justice is served—bad people are punished and good people are rewarded. This can lead to “blaming the victim” because a bad thing happening to a “good” or innocent person would be inconsistent with this belief. Instead, people tend to assume that if a bad thing happens to someone, she or he “must have deserved it.” 7. Distinguish between implicit and explicit attitudes. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 340 Type: Conceptual Answer: Explicit attitudes are those of which we are consciously aware, whereas implicit attitudes influence our behavior and thoughts, but we are unaware of them. 8. Define groupthink and provide an example of it. Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 346 Type: Conceptual Answer: Groupthink is the tendency for members of close-knit groups to think alike for the sake of harmony and to suppress disagreement. Examples are the Bay of Pigs; NASA’s decision to launch the Challenger; and the war in Iraq (2003). 9. Distinguish between ethnic identity and ethnocentrism. Section: Us versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 350–351 Type: Conceptual Answer: Ethnic identity is a person’s identification with a racial, religious, or ethnic group, whereas ethnocentrism is the belief that one’s ethnic group is superior to all others. 10. List two ways that stereotypes can distort reality. Section: Us versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 352–353 Type: Factual Answer: Stereotypes can distort reality by exaggerating the differences between groups, producing selective perception, and underestimating the differences within groups. 11. Distinguish between stereotypes and prejudice. Section: Us versus Them: Group Identity Page(s): 352–354 Type: Conceptual Answer: A stereotype is a summary impression of a group, in which a person believes all members of that group share a common set of traits, positive, negative, or neutral; prejudice consists of a negative stereotype about a group coupled with a strong dislike for members of that group. 12. Distinguish between hostile sexism and benevolent sexism, as it relates to prejudice. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 355 Type: Conceptual Answer: Hostile sexism reflects an active dislike of women, whereas benevolent sexism reflects an affectionate but patronizing attitude toward women. 13.

The philosopher Hannah Arendt, when covering the trial of Adolf Eichmann, used the phrase the banality of evil to explain how this Nazi officer supervised the deportation and death of millions of Jews. What did she mean by this phrase? Section: Psychology in the News Page(s): 362 Type: Factual Answer: She was referring to the fact that the evil deeds that were being committed had become ordinary and

were committed by ordinary people going about their daily lives.

Essay Questions 1.

The obedience study conducted by Stanley Milgram has become world famous. Explain, in detail, the procedures that Milgram used in his study and then analyze his results. What conclusions did Milgram reach? How have critics reacted to his research? Section: Roles and Rules Page(s): 333–335 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Each subject was assigned the role of “teacher” and was to use punishment in the form of electric shock when the “learner” (actually a confederate of the researcher) made an error.  Shock level was increased by 15 volts after each error up to a maximum of 450 volts.  Every subject administered some shock and about two-thirds went all the way to 450 volts.  There was no difference between males and females, between different age groups, or people from different walks of life.  Many protested, but continued after the researcher encouraged them to continue.  Milgram concluded that obedience was a function of the situation rather than of the personalities of the subjects.  Critics consider the study unethical because subjects were deceived, many subjects suffered emotional pain, and the situation was not realistic.  Critics also objected to the parallel Milgram drew between his subjects and the Nazis. 2.

According to attribution theory, the explanations we create of our behavior and the behavior of others generally fall into two categories. Describe these two categories. In your essay, discuss key concepts in attribution theory, such as the fundamental attribution error, self-serving biases, and the just-world hypothesis. Section: Social Influences on Beliefs and Behavior Page(s): 338–339 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Attributions are either situational or dispositional.  An example of a situational attribution is “Joe stole the money because his family is starving.”  An example of a dispositional attribution is “Joe stole the money because he is a born thief.”  Two common errors in attribution are the fundamental attribution error and self-serving biases.  The fundamental attribution error involves overestimating dispositional attributions for the behavior of others.  One self-serving bias involves making favorable attributions for our own actions. If we have done something good, we use a dispositional attribution; if we have done something wrong, we use a situational attribution.  Another self-serving bias involves believing we are generally better than others.  Attributions are also affected by the need to believe that the world is fair and justice prevails (just-world hypothesis); the good are rewarded and the bad are punished.  The just-world hypothesis leads to blaming the victim by using a dispositional attribution. 3.

Solomon Asch, in his experiments testing conformity, wanted to know what people would do when a group unanimously contradicted an obvious fact. What was found in Asch’s studies and in the many replications of his work? Section: Individuals in Groups Page(s): 345 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Asch found that only 20 percent of the students remained independent.  On all trials, one-third conformed to the group’s incorrect answer more than half the time, and the rest conformed at least some of the time.



Whether they conformed or not, the students felt uncertain and uncomfortable.

Discuss the following main sources and functions of prejudice and provide examples to illustrate your points: psychological functions; social functions; cultural functions; economic functions. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 354-355 Type: Conceptual Answer:  Psychological: Prejudice serves to ward off emotions of fear and doubt; prejudice allows people to use the target group as a scapegoat; prejudice toward a scapegoat may be a way for people to displace feelings of anger and cope with feelings of powerlessness.  Social: Some prejudices are acquired through a pressure to conform to the views of friends, relatives, or associates.  Economic: Prejudice makes official forms of discrimination seem legitimate by justifying the majority group’s dominance, status, or greater wealth.  Cultural and national causes: Prejudice allows bonding of individuals within their own ethnic group. 5.

Discuss why it is difficult to measure prejudice today by directly asking individuals if they are prejudiced, and distinguish between explicit and implicit prejudice. Then, discuss four clever ways psychologists have for measuring implicit forms of prejudice. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 356–359 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Most people will not openly admit that they hold any prejudices, which would illustrate a conscious, explicit prejudice.  Implicit prejudice is defined as an unconscious, negative emotional feeling toward a particular group that is manifested in one’s thoughts and actions in subtle ways.  Possible ways to measure implicit prejudice: o Social distance: How reluctant is a person to get close to another group? o What people do when they are stressed or angry. o Brain activity in regions associated with disgust, anger, and anxiety. o Measures of implicit attitudes, such as the Implicit Association Test (IAT). 6.

Efforts to reduce prejudices—for example, between whites and blacks in the United States—by appealing to moral or intellectual arguments are insufficient. Describe the four external conditions that psychologists have found are necessary before conflict and prejudice between groups can be diminished. Section: Group Conflict and Prejudice Page(s): 359–360 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Both sides must have many opportunities to work and socialize together, formally and informally.  Both groups must have equal legal status, economic opportunities, and power.  Authorities and community institutions must provide moral, legal, and economic support for both sides.  Both sides must cooperate, working together for a common goal.

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 11 – Quick Quiz 1 1.

The most widely used objective personality test is the a. MMPI. c. 16PF. b. EPQ. d. TAT.

Which one of the following characteristics appears to put someone at greater risk for PTSD? a. a passive personality c. being female b. having a relatively large hippocampus d. a relaxed personality

Martha vacuums the carpet in her living room 15 times a day. It is very likely that she is suffering from which of the following disorders? a. obsessive-compulsive c. PTSD b. conversion d. somatoform

A key characteristic of psychopathy is an inability to a. control behavior. b. feel remorse, empathy, anxiety, and other social emotions. c. correct maladaptive behavior. d. stop mutilating themselves.

According to the sociocognitive explanation of multiple personality disorder, therapists have a. focused too much attention on treatment, and not enough on allowing personalities to reveal themselves. b. been manipulated by scheming patients. c. let too many severe cases go unrecognized, undiagnosed, and untreated. d. rewarded patients with attention and praise for revealing more and more personalities.

False sensory perceptions that often take the form of hearing voices are called a. hallucinations. c. delusions. b. obsessions. d. compulsions.

10.

a. b.

delusions. obsessions.

c. d.

hallucinations. compulsions.

Chapter 11 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) is used to provide clear categories for the diagnosis of mental disorders. (Page 371, Factual)

Rationale: The most widely used diagnostic assessment for personality and emotional disorders is an objective test called the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI). (Page 375, Factual)

Rationale: 20 percent of women who had experienced a traumatic event, compared to 8 percent of men, later developed PTSD. (Page 377, Conceptual)

Rationale: People with OCD often have compulsions to repeatedly perform certain behaviors such as hand washing or checking the stove. (Page 379, Applied)

Rationale: The vulnerability-stress model emphasizes the interaction of individual vulnerabilities (genetic predispositions, personality traits, cognitive habits) with external stresses or circumstances (such as sexual victimization, violence, or loss of a close relationship) to produce major depression in an individual. (Page 380, Conceptual)

Rationale: A key characteristic of psychopathy is an inability to feel normal emotions. (Page 383, Conceptual)

Rationale: The learning model examines the role of the environment, learning, and culture in encouraging or discouraging drug abuse and addiction. (Page 388, Applied)

Rationale: Simple principles of reinforcement can explain, in part, the symptoms a patient presents to a therapist. (Page 392, Conceptual)

Rationale: People with schizophrenia suffer from false sensory experiences called hallucinations. (Page 393, Conceptual)

10.

Rationale: Some people with schizophrenia have delusions (a false belief) of identity. (Page 393, Applied)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 11 – Quick Quiz 2 1.

Candice experiences a continuous state of anxiety marked by feelings of worry and dread, apprehension, difficulties in concentration, and signs of motor tension. According to the DSM this disorder is called a. panic attack. c. generalized anxiety disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. agoraphobia.

Which of the following is a mood disorder? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. b. multiple personality disorder d.

narcissistic personality disorder bipolar disorder

Cognitive theorists would be most likely to agree that the real problem for depressed people is that a. they feel hopeless. c. they have unsatisfying jobs. b. they feel manic. d. they have unsatisfying family lives.

Alcoholism is ___________ in societies that forbid children to drink but condone drunkenness in adults. a. more likely to occur c. considered harmless b. less likely to occur d. considered a disease

Psychosis is characterized by a. repeated thoughts used to ward off anxious feelings. b. continuous, uncontrollable anxiety or worry. c. distorted perceptions and irrational behavior. d. feelings of hopelessness and fatigue.

10. A patient in a mental hospital exhibits disordered thinking, perceptual abnormalities, unusual emotions, and suspiciousness. This person is probably suffering from a. schizophrenia. c. passive-aggressive personality. b. bipolar disorder. d. a dissociative disorder.

Chapter 11 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Projective tests like the Rorschach Inkblot Test use ambiguous stimuli to try to determine a person’s feelings and motives. (Page 374, Factual)

Rationale: Generalized anxiety disorder involves continuous, uncontrollable anxiety that occurs on a majority of days over at least six months without any physical cause. The anxiety is usually unrelated to any specific event. (Page 376, Applied)

Rationale: In general, major depression occurs twice as often in women as among men, although this may be due in part to the fact that it is likely underdiagnosed in men. (Page 380, Factual)

Rationale: Bipolar disorder is classified as a mood disorder in the DSM. (Page 380, Conceptual)

Rationale: Feelings of hopelessness and pessimism are typical of depressed individuals. (Page 382, Conceptual)

Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder (APD) is characterized by a lifelong pattern of irresponsible, antisocial behavior such as lawbreaking, violence, and other impulsive, reckless acts. (Page 384, Conceptual)

Rationale: Most theories of addiction and substance abuse are either biological or learning models. (Page 387, Factual)

Rationale: Alcoholism is more likely to occur in societies that forbid children to drink but condone drunkenness in adults. (Page 388, Factual)

Rationale: A psychosis is an extreme mental disturbance involving distorted perceptions and irrational behavior that make it difficult for the afflicted person to function in most aspects of life. (Page 393, Factual)

10.

Rationale: Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder marked by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized and incoherent speech, inappropriate behavior, and cognitive impairments. (Page 393, Applied)

Chapter 11 – PSYCHOLOGICAL DISORDERS Multiple Choice Questions DEFINING AND DIAGNOSING MENTAL DISORDERS Learning Objectives 11.1 Why insanity is not the same thing as having a mental disorder 11.2 How mental disorders differ from normal problems 11.3 Why the standard professional guide to the diagnosis of mental disorders is controversial 11.4 Why popular “projective” tests like the Rorschach inkblot test are not reliable 1.

Your roommate has a lot of problems with her family and sometimes with her friends, and she is often sad or worried about these issues. One day she asks you if she is normal. What should you say in response? a. It is normal to fear being abnormal, and it is normal to have problems. b. If you are wondering if you are normal, it may be the first sign of disorder. c. Most psychological problems involve delusions or bizarre behavior, so you needn’t worry. d. Mental illness is a myth because actually it is society that has the disorder. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 369 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: It is normal to fear being abnormal but it is also normal to have problems. 2.

When people are said to be insane, this means that a. psychologists have compared their behaviors to characteristics of individuals with disorders and found a strong correlation. b. a psychiatrist has determined that they are suffering from one of the psychological disorders, as described in the DSM. c. a legal determination has been made that they are incompetent to stand trial and unaware of the consequences of their actions. d. a diagnosis of schizophrenia has been made either by a psychologist or by a psychiatrist specializing in the treatment of the insane. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 370 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Insanity is a legal term that addresses the fitness to stand trial. It involves awareness of the consequences of our actions and ability to control those actions. A person may be mentally ill, but not insane. 3.

When a person has a mental illness, he or she a. is diagnosed as insane. b. is legally unfit to stand trial in a court of law. c. is engaging in a statistically rare behavior. d. may have symptoms that are extremely common. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 370 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Some mental disorders involve symptoms that are very common, like depression and anxiety. 4.

Any behavior or emotional state that causes great suffering, is self-destructive, seriously impairs the person’s ability to work or get along with others, or endangers others or the community can be considered a. a mental disorder. b. emotional distress. c. a violation of cultural standards. d. self-destructive behavior. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 371 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Mental disorder can be very difficult to define, but this definition covers most problems considered

mental disorders, while also excluding behaviors or states that are not generally considered disorders. 5. Liz is suffering greatly from symptoms of depression. She cannot keep a job and sometimes thinks about killing herself. We can conclude that Liz has a. a mental disorder. b. a diagnostic dilemma. c. been denying her issues. d. been declared insane. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 371 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Any behavior or emotional state that causes great suffering, is self-destructive, seriously impairs the person’s ability to work or get along with others, or endangers others or the community is called a mental disorder. 6. Wally has been suffering greatly from an emotional state that he fears is self-destructive and that keeps him from going to work. Wally might be diagnosed with a. a mental disorder. b. insanity. c. antisocial personality. d. stress. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 371 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Any behavior or emotional state that causes great suffering, is self-destructive, seriously impairs the person’s ability to work or get along with others, or endangers others or the community is called a mental disorder. 7.

The primary purpose of the DSM is to a. help psychologists assess normal, as well as abnormal, behavior. b. keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum. c. provide descriptive criteria for diagnosing mental disorders. d. describe the causes of common psychological disorders. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 371 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) is used to provide clear categories for the diagnosis of mental disorders. % correct 55 a= 11 b= 11 c= 55 d= 21 r = .52 8. One diagnostic category in the DSM is __________ disorders, which includes behaviors such as pathological gambling, setting fires, or having violent rages. a. somatoform b. dissociative c. anxiety d. impulse-control Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 371 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Impulse-control disorders involve the inability to resist an impulse to perform some act that is harmful to the individual or to others. 9.

Which one of the following disorders is most likely to be found described in the DSM? a. pain related to a torn cartilage in the knee b. a seizure disorder related to tumors in the brain c. erectile dysfunction caused by nerve damage following prostate surgery d. an eating disorder associated with a distorted self-image Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 371 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: An eating disorder associated with a distorted self-image is a mental condition, whereas the other

examples have to do solely with physical injury. 10.

Your textbook states that this is the fastest-growing diagnosis given to young children a. hyperactivity. b. bipolar disorder. c. depression. d. schizophrenia. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 371–372 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Bipolar disorder is the fastest-growing diagnosis given to young children. 11.

Which of the following is a limitation or inherent problem with the DSM? a. the danger of underdiagnosis b. it produces unreliable diagnoses c. the labeling of normal problems as serious mental disorders d. too few diagnostic categories Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 372 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Critics of the DSM fear that lumping together ordinary difficulties with true mental illness implies that everyday problems are comparable to disorders. 12.

Critics point out that one of the problems of the DSM is that a. it does not include culture-bound syndromes. b. it is too resistant to change and too reluctant to add new diagnostic categories, even though the concerns of 2011 are far different from those from 1952. c. it relies too much on empirical evidence and research findings rather than focusing on the person who is at the heart of the diagnostic process. d. it is not called the “Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders and a Whole Bunch of Everyday Problems,” yet the compilers keep adding everyday problems! Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 372 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: In trying to include normal behaviors that may cause a person difficulties, the DSM implies that everyday problems are comparable to disorders and equally likely to require treatment. 13.

Dr. Samuel Cartwright’s diagnosis of drapetomania, which purported to explain why slaves sought freedom, exemplifies a. the recognition of the intolerable conditions of slavery and the need to escape those conditions. b. how notions of mental disorder are often based on prevailing attitudes and prejudices rather than objective evidence. c. how great suffering elicits the “fight-or-flight” response, which is a normal human reaction. d. recognition of panic disorder as far back as the early years of the nineteenth century. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 372 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The process of diagnosing a disorder and giving it a name implies an objective, scientific basis to the decision. However, attitudes and prejudices have caused people to be misdiagnosed with disorders such as drapetomania and continue to affect such processes today. 14. Some critics of the DSM maintain that many diagnoses still depend on __________ about what constitutes normal behavior, as well as what constitutes a mental disorder. a. a physician’s opinion b. the insurance company’s opinion c. the individual’s own feelings d. cultural biases Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 373 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Critics of the DSM maintain that many diagnoses still depend on a cultural consensus about what

constitutes normal behavior, as well as what constitutes a mental disorder 15.

A major advantage of the DSM is that a. the boundaries between “normality” and “mental disorder” are fuzzy. b. many psychological symptoms fall along a continuum from mild to severe. c. the reliability of diagnosis is greatly improved when the manual is used correctly. d. use of the DSM gives the illusion of objectivity. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 373 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: When the DSM is used correctly, it improves the reliability of diagnosis, which, in turn, leads to the choice of the most appropriate treatments. 16.

Beginning with the DSM’s fourth edition, a list of disorders specific to particular cultures was included. The disorders on this list are known as a. culture-bound syndromes. b. ethnic artifacts. c. ultra nationalisms. d. multicultural disorders. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 373 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The DSM-IV included, for the first time, a list of culture-bound syndromes disorders that are specific to particular cultural contexts. 17.

________________ is a culture-bound syndrome, found in North Africa and the Middle East, that is characterized by a belief in possession by a spirit, causing shouting, laughing, head banging, weeping, and withdrawal. a. taijin kyofusho b. ghost sickness c. amok d. zar Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 373 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: This is a description of the symptoms of zar, a culture-bound syndrome that is specific to North Africa and the Middle East. 18.

One of the culture-bound syndromes is described as extreme excitement with verbal and physical violence for up to 30 minutes and then convulsions and a short coma. Which of the following is the name of this problem? a. brain fag b. ataque de nervios c. pibloktoq d. qi-gong psychotic reaction Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 373 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: This is a description of the symptoms of pibloktoq, a culture-bound syndrome that is specific to arctic and subarctic Eskimo communities. 19.

One of the culture-bound syndromes is described as a short episode of mental symptoms after engaging in the folk practice of “exercise of vital energy.” Which of the following is the name of this problem? a. taijin kyofusho b. ghost sickness c. pibloktoq d. qi-gong psychotic reaction Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 373 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: This is a description of the symptoms of qi-gong psychotic reaction, a culture-bound syndrome

that is specific to China. 20.

One of the culture-bound syndromes is described as brooding, followed by a violent outburst that is often precipitated by an insult. Which of the following is the name of this problem? a. taijin kyofusho b. ghost sickness c. amok d. zar Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 373–374 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: This is a description of the symptoms of amok, a culture-bound syndrome that is specific to Malaysia. 21.

One of the culture-bound syndromes is described as preoccupation with death accompanied by bad dreams, fainting, appetite loss, fear, and hallucinations. Which of the following is the name of this problem? a. taijin kyofusho b. ghost sickness c. amok d. zar Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 373–374 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: This is a description of the symptoms of ghost sickness, a culture-bound syndrome that is specific to Native American tribes. 22.

Psychological tests used to infer motives, conflicts, and unconscious dynamics on the basis of a person’s interpretations of ambiguous stimuli are called a. clinical judgment tests. b. inventories. c. objective tests. d. projective tests. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 374 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Projective tests like the Rorschach Inkblot Test use ambiguous stimuli to try to determine a person’s feelings and motives. 23.

Projective tests are based on a. behavioral assumptions. b. psychodynamic assumptions. c. humanist assumptions. d. social-cognitive learning assumptions. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 374 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The psychodynamic assumption behind all projective tests is that the person’s unconscious thoughts and feelings will be “projected” onto the test and revealed in the person’s responses. 24.

Which personality tests rely on the interpretation of inkblots to understand personality? a. MMPI b. TAT c. 16PF d. Rorschach Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 374 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: One of the most popular projective tests is the Rorschach inkblot test, which consists of ten cards with symmetrical abstract patterns, originally formed by spilling ink on paper and folding the paper in half. % correct 86 a= 0 b= 9 c= 5 d= 86 r = .53

25.

One of the most popular projective tests used in clinical practice is the a. Harmon sensibility index. b. Rorschach inkblot test. c. Myers Briggs type indicator. d. Keenan hypnosis susceptibility scale. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 374 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: One of the most popular projective tests used in clinical practice is the Rorschach inkblot test. 26.

Sheldon is asked to report what he sees in an ambiguous picture. It is evident that Sheldon is being given a. the Taylor Manifest Anxiety Scale. b. the Beck Depression Inventory. c. the Rorschach inkblot test. d. the MMPI. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 374 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Projective tests like the Rorschach inkblot test use ambiguous stimuli to try to determine a person’s feelings and motives.

% correct 97

a= 0 b= 0 c= 97 d= 3

r = .21

27.

When a psychological instrument fails to measure what it is supposed to measure, psychologists would say that there is a problem with a. reliability. b. validity. c. standardization. d. regulation. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 374 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: When a psychological instrument fails to measure what it is supposed to measure, psychologists would say that there is a problem with validity. 28.

In the 1980s, psychotherapists began using anatomically correct dolls and projective tests to determine whether children had been sexually abused. What fundamental principle of science did they fail to follow? a. They did not compare these children with a control group. b. They did not require the children to provide different alternatives. c. They considered the child to have been abused if there was uncertainty about sexual terms. d. Children were considered to have been abused if they asked any questions or wondered about their sexuality. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 375 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Researchers and users did not test their beliefs by using the fundamental scientific procedure of comparing the experimental group with a control group. 29.

Standardized questionnaires requiring written responses that ask about the test taker’s behavior and feelings and typically include scales on which people are asked to rate themselves are referred to as __________ tests. a. clinical judgment b. inkblot c. objective d. projective Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 375 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Standardized questionnaires requiring written responses that ask about the test taker’s behavior and feelings and typically include scales on which people are asked to rate themselves are referred to as objective tests.

30.

Which of the following is an objective test that describes personality and can be used to help diagnose emotional problems? a. MMPI b. CPI c. Rorschach d. TAT Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 375 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The most widely used diagnostic assessment for personality and emotional disorders is an objective test called the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI). % correct 86 a= 86 b= 3 c= 7 d= 3 r = .31 31.

The most widely used objective personality test is the a. MMPI. b. EPQ. c. 16PF. d. TAT. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 375 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The most widely used diagnostic assessment for personality and emotional disorders is an objective test called the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI). % correct 82 a= 82 b= 5 c= 5 d= 9 r = .42 32.

A widely used objective personality test that is organized into ten categories, or scales, covering such problems as depressions, paranoia, schizophrenia, and introversion is called the a. MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory). b. Rorschach inkblot test. c. CPDT (Comprehensive Personality Disorder Test). d. DSM-IV. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 375 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The most widely used objective test for assessing disorders is the MMPI. 33.

What purpose do the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory’s (MMPI) validity scales serve? a. to indicate whether a test taker is likely to be lying, defensive, or evasive while answering the items b. to make sure clinicians are scoring the test correctly c. to prevent the test from being used to classify people as insane or not insane d. to control for the effects of culture on the test taker Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 375 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The MMPI’s validity scales are used to determine whether the test taker is answering the questions on the other scales honestly, or whether they are likely to be answering questions defensively, evasively, or falsely. 34.

The assessment method that would have the most validity and reliability would be a. the MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory). b. the Rorschach inkblot test. c. the use of “anatomically detailed” dolls to identify child abuse. d. clinical observations and interviews. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 375 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Inventories, like the MMPI, are generally more reliable and valid than either projective methods or subjective clinical judgments. 35.

Which of the following is the leading objective test of major depression? a. Rorschach Inkblot test

b. Thematic Apperception Test c. Beck Depression Inventory d. MMPI Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The Beck Depression Inventory is the leading test in the area.

Page(s): 375 Answer: c

ANXIETY DISORDERS Learning Objectives 11.5 The difference between ordinary anxiety and an anxiety disorder 11.6 Why the most disabling of all phobias is known as the “fear of fear” 11.7 Why some people recover quickly after a trauma whereas others develop posttraumatic stress disorder 36.

Jarrod fears leaving his apartment during daylight hours even for a short walk to get his mail. His diagnosis would most likely belong in the category of __________ disorders. a. mood b. personality c. anxiety d. impulse-control Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 376 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Anxiety disorders include generalized anxiety, phobias, panic attacks, and PTSD. Jarrod’s fear appears to be a kind of phobia. 37.

According to the textbook’s discussion on anxiety a. panic attacks are called the fear of fears because people feel that they are dying. b. in many situations it is sensible to feel anxiety, and in fact, these emotions are adaptive. c. posttraumatic stress disorder occurs within the first two days after a trauma. d. it is unusual for a mentally healthy person to experience a panic attack. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 376 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: In the short run, these emotions can be adaptive because they help us to cope with danger. 38.

The chief characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder is a. continuous, uncontrollable anxiety or worry. b. short-lived, but intense, feelings of spontaneous anxiety. c. excessive fear of a particular situation. d. repeated thoughts used to ward off anxious feelings. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 376 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Generalized anxiety disorder involves continuous, uncontrollable anxiety that occurs on a majority of days over at least six months without any physical cause. The anxiety is usually unrelated to any specific event. % correct 77 a=77 b= 20 c= 3 d= 0 r = .26 39.

Candice experiences a continuous state of anxiety marked by feelings of worry and dread, apprehension, difficulties in concentration, and signs of motor tension. According to the DSM this disorder is called a. panic attack. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. agoraphobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 376 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d

Joey experiences a continuous state of uncontrollable worry and irritability. Most of the time he feels jittery and keyed up, even though he doesn’t drink coffee. According to the DSM this disorder is called a. panic attack. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. agoraphobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 376 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Generalized anxiety disorder involves continuous, uncontrollable anxiety that occurs on a majority of days over at least six months without any physical cause. The anxiety is usually unrelated to any specific event. 41.

A person who is constantly "on edge" and always apprehensive most likely suffers from a. phobic disorder. b. panic disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 376 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The chief characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder is excessive, uncontrollable anxiety or worry—a feeling of foreboding and dread—that occurs on a majority of days during a six-month period and that is not brought on by physical causes such as disease, drugs, or drinking too much coffee. % correct 75 a= 1 b= 15 c= 9 d= 75 r = .35 42.

Allen is in a constant state of dread. He has trouble sleeping, feels tense, and cannot concentrate. Allen will likely be diagnosed as which anxiety disorder? a. phobia b. generalized anxiety c. panic d. obsessive-compulsive Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 376 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by a continuous state of anxiety marked by feelings of worry and dread, apprehension, difficulties in concentration, and signs of motor tension. % correct 89 a= 2 b= 89 c= 8 d= 1 r = .33 43.

Phobias, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and posttraumatic stress disorder are all types of __________ disorders. a. psychosomatic b. somatoform c. anxiety d. dissociative Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 376–377 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Phobias, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and posttraumatic stress disorder are all listed as anxiety disorders in the DSM. % correct 86 a= 9 b= 2 c= 86 d= 3 r = .37 44.

Research on anxiety disorders has indicated that a. in order to experience a generalized anxiety disorder, a person must have lived though a specific anxiety-producing event.

b. c.

stress symptoms are normal in the immediate aftermath of any crisis or trauma. the majority of people who live through a traumatic experience continue to have posttraumatic stress disorder symptoms for many years. d. if psychic numbing and a sense of detachment from others persist for 1 week after a trauma, then posttraumatic stress disorder is diagnosed. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 376–377 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Although stress symptoms immediately following a trauma are normal, when they continue for a month or longer and begin to impair a person’s functioning, the sufferer may have posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). 45.

A disorder in which a person who has experienced a traumatic or life-threatening event experiences symptoms such as psychic numbing, reliving the trauma, sense of detachment from others, loss of interest in familiar activities and increased psychological arousal is called a. panic disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. agoraphobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Symptoms of PTSD include reliving the trauma in recurrent, intrusive thoughts; a sense of detachment from others and a loss of interest in familiar activities; and increased physiological arousal, reflected in insomnia, irritability, and impaired concentration. 46.

Reexperiencing a traumatic event long after the event is associated with _______ disorder. a. generalized anxiety b. panic c. phobic d. PTSD Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: A common symptom of PTSD is reliving the trauma in recurrent, intrusive thoughts. % correct 88 a= 3 b= 4 c= 6 d= 88 r = .30 47.

In a study that explored the causes of posttraumatic stress disorder in Vietnam war veterans, researchers found that two things were necessary for a vet to develop chronic PTSD. What were they? a. having a twin or close sibling and having prior experience with traumatic events b. having a relatively small hippocampus and experiencing a traumatic event c. being predisposed to sweaty palms and a shortness of breath d. having a tendency to be nervous and suffering damage to the hippocampus Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In the study, twins who had smaller hippocampi but no military service did not develop PTSD, and neither did the twins who did experience combat but who had normal-sized hippocampi. Both conditions appeared necessary to develop the disorder. 48.

Which one of the following characteristics appears to put someone at greater risk for PTSD? a. a passive personality b. having a relatively large hippocampus c. being female d. a relaxed personality Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: 20 percent of women who had experienced a traumatic event, compared to 8 percent of men, later developed PTSD.

49.

In many of the people who suffer from posttraumatic stress disorder, the _______________ is significantly smaller than in those people who do not develop the disorder following trauma. a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. amygdala d. hippocampus Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Research has demonstrated a link between a smaller than normal hippocampus and PTSD. 50.

Johnny has recurring periods of intense fear during which he thinks that he is having a heart attack. He trembles and shakes and his heart palpitates. This kind of problem is called a. panic disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. agoraphobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Panic disorder involves recurring attacks of intense fear or panic accompanied by the physiological signs of severe stress. 51.

A disorder in which a person experiences recurring attacks of intense fear, often with feelings of impending doom or death, accompanied by physiological symptoms such as rapid heart rate and dizziness, is called a. panic disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. agoraphobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Panic disorder is an anxiety disorder in which a person has recurring attacks of intense fear or panic, often with feelings of impending doom or death. 52.

June often experiences episodes during which her heart rate accelerates by more than 50 beats per minute despite encountering no emergency. June suffers from a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. acrophobia. d. panic disorder. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Panic disorder is an anxiety disorder in which a person experiences recurring panic attacks, periods of intense fear, and feelings of impending doom or death, accompanied by physiological symptoms such as rapid heart rate and dizziness. % correct 88 a= 0 b= 11 c= 1 d= 88 r = .23 53.

Marvella has recurring periods when she trembles and shakes, and has hot and cold flashes. She is dizzy and her heart palpitates so much that Marvella is sure that she is going crazy. This kind of problem is called a. panic attack. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. agoraphobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Panic disorder involves recurring attacks of intense fear or panic accompanied by the physiological signs of severe stress. % correct 86 a= 86 b= 0 c= 3 d=10 r = .21

54.

Sudden, paralyzing episodes of fear describe which type of anxiety disorder? a. phobia b. generalized anxiety c. panic d. obsessive-compulsive Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Panic disorder is an anxiety disorder in which a person experiences recurring panic attacks, periods of intense fear, and feelings of impending doom or death, accompanied by physiological symptoms such as rapid heart rate and dizziness. % correct 79 a= 16 b= 4 c= 79 d= 1 r = .41 55.

What key factor makes the difference between people who develop panic disorder and those who suffer traumatic events and have a few panic attacks but do not develop the disorder? a. how the person interprets his or her bodily reaction to the trauma b. whether the traumatic event involves personal injury to oneself or a close friend c. if the traumatic event occurs within three months of the individual’s birthday or another major holiday d. if the traumatic event does not involve a bomb or other explosive device. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377–378 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Healthy people who have occasional panic attacks see them as the result of a passing crisis, whereas people who develop panic disorder regard the attack as a sign of illness or impending death. 56.

Four friends experienced significant traumatic events in the same year. Who is most likely to be suffering from panic disorder now? a. Alden took some time away from work to spend with his family and to pursue interests he always put off before. b. Nathan took time to grieve and feel sad before he was ready to return to work. c. Conner viewed the panic attack he had a week after the event as a result of a passing crisis or period of stress. d. Dimitri was alarmed when he had a panic attack following the event, and restructured his life to try avoid future attacks. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377–378 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Healthy people who have occasional panic attacks see them as the result of a passing crisis, whereas people who develop panic disorder regard the attack as a sign of illness or impending death, and they begin to live their lives in restrictive ways, trying to avoid future attacks. 57.

The chief characteristic of a phobia is a. continuous, uncontrollable anxiety or worry. b. short-lived, but intense, feelings of spontaneous anxiety. c. exaggerated fear of a particular situation, activity, or object. d. repeated thoughts used to ward off anxious feelings. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The chief characteristic of a phobia is exaggerated fear of a particular situation, activity, or object. 58.

Someone who experiences an exaggerated fear of a specific situation, activity, or thing may be suffering from a a. phobia. b. panic disorder. c. generalized anxiety. d. personality disorder. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a

Rationale: A phobia is an exaggerated, unrealistic fear of a specific situation, activity or object. 59.

One reasonable explanation for the existence of some of the most common phobias is that a. fears make people more aggressive and therefore better able to compete. b. people who have phobias get a lot of attention. c. they evolved in human beings because these fears are adaptive for the species. d. psychologists promote common phobias in order to make a living. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: As explanation for common phobias, it has been suggested that they may have evolved in human beings because these fears are adaptive for the species. 60.

Evolutionary theorists would be most likely to agree that the fear of _______________ was likely to have evolved in humans as an adaptive behavior. a. the color purple b. snakes and insects c. the number 13 d. dirt Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Some phobias, like a fear of snakes or a fear of heights may have developed as adaptive behaviors. 61.

Harry has an intense, irrational fear of being in public places. He is probably suffering from a. conversion reaction. b. learned helplessness. c. paranoia. d. agoraphobia. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The fundamental fear in agoraphobia is of being trapped in a crowded public place, where escape might be difficult or where help might be unavailable if the person has a panic attack. % correct 82 a= 8 b= 7 c= 2 d= 82 r = .33 62.

Arlene has an intense, irrational fear of flying in airplanes. She is probably suffering from a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. a phobia. d. a compulsion. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: A phobia is an exaggerated fear of a specific situation, activity, or thing. 63.

Kellie is fearful in situations where she must eat in public or write in the presence of others. It is most likely that Kellie has a. a generalized anxiety disorder. b. an idiosyncratic phobia. c. an obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. a social phobia. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: A social phobia involves the occurrence of extreme anxiety in situations in which a person will be observed by others. % correct 100 a= 0 b= 0 c= 0 d= 100 r = .00 64.

Your aunt prefers to stay in her home and avoid public places and social situations. If a clinical psychologist believes she has an anxiety disorder, she is most likely to be diagnosed with

a. agoraphobia. b. claustrophobia. c. mysophobia. d. triskaidekaphobia. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The fundamental fear in agoraphobia is of being trapped in a crowded public place, where escape might be difficult or where help might be unavailable if the person has a panic attack. 65.

A disorder that is often set off by a panic attack and in which the basic fear is of being away from a safe place or person is called a. panic disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. agoraphobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The fundamental fear in agoraphobia is of being trapped in a crowded place where escape may be difficult. 66.

What usually precedes the onset of agoraphobia? a. One has a panic attack for no apparent reason. b. There is a death in the family. c. Someone in the immediate family experiences a major life-changing event. d. One experiences a terrifying episode involving historically fear-inducing stimuli. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Agoraphobia usually begins with a panic attack that seems to have no cause. 67.

Psychologists regard _______________ as the “fear of fear.” a. a panic attack b. posttraumatic stress disorder c. agoraphobia d. generalized anxiety disorder Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: In agoraphobia, a person is so afraid of having a panic attack in public that they remain housebound, avoiding any public places. 68.

What would be the most descriptive way to refer to agoraphobia? a. the fear of places b. the fear of dangerous things c. the fear of fear d. the fear of normal events Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Psychologists regard agoraphobia as a “fear of fear” rather than simply a fear of places. 69.

An overwhelming desire to set fires is called a(n) a. obsession. b. phobia. c. compulsion. d. somatoform. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The persistent, overwhelming thought to light a fire would be an obsession. In contrast, the

ritualized act of actually lighting fires might be considered a compulsion. % correct 35 a= 35 b= 1 c= 63 d= 1 r = .28 70.

A chief characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder is a. anxiety in situations in which the person will be observed by others. b. symptoms such as psychic numbing, reliving of the trauma, and increased physiological arousal. c. exaggerated fear of a particular situation, activity, or object. d. recurrent, persistent, unwished-for thoughts or images. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Obsessive-compulsive disorder is an anxiety disorder in which a person feels trapped in repetitive or ritualized behaviors or persistent thoughts. 71.

Ritualistic behavior is associated with which of the following disorders? a. anxiety b. obsessive-compulsive c. somatoform d. conversion Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Repetitive, ritualized behaviors that a person feels must be carried out to avoid disaster (i.e., compulsions) are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). % correct 73 a= 6 b= 73 c= 14 d= 7 r = .45 72.

Which of the following is an INCORRECT match? a. Agoraphobia—fear of fear, fear of being trapped in public b. Social phobia—fear of situations in which they will be observed by others c. Compulsion—recurrent, persistent, unwished-for images and thoughts d. Generalized anxiety disorder—continuing sense of doom and worry Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: An obsession is a recurrent, persistent, unwanted thought or mental image, whereas a compulsion is a ritualized, repetitive behavior that a person feels must be carried out to avoid disaster. % correct 69 a= 10 b= 10 c= 69 d= 10 r = .41 73.

Acts that "must be done" are called a. compulsions. b. obsessions. c. motor impulses. d. preservative impulses. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378–379 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Compulsions are repetitive, ritualized behaviors that the person feels must be carried out to avoid disaster. People who suffer from compulsions feel they have no control over them. % correct 83 a= 83 b= 11 c= 5 d= 1 r = .24 74.

A recurring irrational thought that cannot be controlled or banished from one's mind is called a(n) a. phobia. b. obsession. c. hypnagogic image. d. compulsion. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378–379 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Recurrent, persistent, unwished-for thoughts or images are called obsessions. Obsessive thoughts take many forms, but they are alike in reflecting impaired ways of reasoning and processing information. % correct 92 a= 1 b= 92 c= 6 d= 2 r = .32

75.

Martha vacuums the carpet in her living room 15 times a day. It is very likely that she is suffering from which of the following disorders? a. obsessive-compulsive b. conversion c. PTSD d. somatoform Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 379 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: People with OCD often have compulsions to repeatedly perform certain behaviors such as hand washing or checking the stove. % correct 95 a= 95 b= 2 c= 1 d= 1 r = .32 76.

Emily is overly concerned with being contaminated by germs. She washes her hands fifty times per day, wears gloves, and eats with plastic utensils that are covered in plastic wrap to ensure they are not contaminated. Emily has a. a social phobia. b. panic disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 379 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Obsessive compulsive disorder is an anxiety disorder in which a person feels trapped in repetitive or ritualized behaviors or persistent thoughts. 77.

Individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorders a. may have brain abnormalities such that their “alarm signal” doesn’t turn off. b. enjoy rituals, such as checking the oven and the locks three times, before sleeping. c. have recurrent and persistent thoughts or images that are often dreamlike and appealing. d. feel a deep sense of relief if they can talk themselves into forgoing a ritual. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 379 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Individuals with OCD are aware that their obsessions and compulsions are not rational and are very distressed by them. In people with OCD, “false alarms” may keep the sufferer in a constant state of danger, which they try repeatedly to reduce.

MOOD DISORDERS Learning Objectives 11.8 The difference between major depression and the blues 11.9 Four contributing factors in depression 11.10 How some people can think themselves into depression 78.

_______________ is a disorder involving disturbances in emotion, loss of interest in one’s usual activities, thoughts of hopelessness, fatigue, and loss of appetite. a. Generalized anxiety disorder b. Major depression c. Bipolar disorder d. Borderline personality disorder Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Major depression is much more severe that the ordinary depression that everyone experiences from time to time and lasts much longer. % correct 96 a= 0 b= 96 c= 4 d= 0 r = .21 79.

Major depression, as defined by the DSM,

a. b. c. d.

is always accompanied by a manic state. is more likely to affect women than men. is a type of psychosis. excludes people whose depression is caused by bereavement, and whose feelings of grief eventually subside within a few months. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: People who experience acute but understandable feelings of grief and depression following a loss are excluded from the DSM definition for major depression, as long as their depression subsides within a reasonable time. 80.

Ramona has lost her interest in gardening, which brought her joy in the past. She’s lost her appetite and life seems hopeless. Which disorder would Ramona be most likely to have? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. narcissistic disorder c. major depression d. borderline personality disorder Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Major depression involves not only depressed mood, but a loss of interest in one’s usual activities, lack of appetite, feelings of hopelessness, sleep disturbances, and possibly physical reactions such as headache or pain. 81.

Ahmad is experiencing excessive sadness, is tired all the time, has no interest in working and visiting with friends, feels hopeless, and has lost weight. Ahmad is most likely suffering from a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. major depression. c. bipolar disorder. d. borderline personality disorder. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Major depression is a disorder involving disturbances in emotion, loss of interest in one’s usual activities, thoughts of hopelessness, fatigue, and loss of appetite. 82.

The prevalence of mood disorders for each gender indicates that major depression occurs a. 5 to 10 times as often among women as among men. b. 5 to 10 times as often among men as among women. c. at least twice as often among men as among women. d. at least twice as often among women as among men. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In general, major depression occurs twice as often in women as among men, although this may be due in part to the fact that it is likely underdiagnosed in men. 83.

Across the world, the ratio of men to women with a major depression diagnosis is about: a. 1:2 b. 1:4 c. 2:1 d. 3:1 Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Major depression occurs at least twice as often among women as among men. 84.

Last month Pam was giddy, impulsive, and talkative; this month she is sad, silent, and almost motionless. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? a. severe depression

b. anxiety disorder c. somatoform disorder d. bipolar disorder Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: When people experience at least one episode of mania alternating with episodes of depression, they are said to have bipolar disorder. % correct 85 a= 11 b= 2 c= 1 d= 85 r = .34 85.

A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between a. depression and mania. b. depression and schizophrenia. c. mania and schizophrenia. d. anxiety and mania. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Bipolar disorder is a mood disorder in which episodes of both depression and mania (excessive euphoria) occur. % correct 94 a= 94 b= 3 c= 2 d= 1 r = .42 86.

__________ is a disorder in which a person experiences episodes of mania and depression. a. Generalized anxiety disorder b. Major depression c. Bipolar disorder d. Borderline personality disorder Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Bipolar disorder was previously called manic-depressive disorder. 87.

Which of the following is a mood disorder? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. multiple personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. bipolar disorder Section: Mood Disorders Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Bipolar disorder is classified as a mood disorder in the DSM. % correct 76 a= 7 b= 8 c= 10 d= 76 r = .44

Page(s): 380 Answer: d

88.

According to the vulnerability-stress explanation of depression a. upsetting events, such as the loss of a job, lead to depression. b. interactions between upsetting events and individual vulnerability lead to depression. c. biological predispositions and learned helplessness lead to depression. d. brooding and ruminating lead to depression. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The vulnerability-stress model emphasizes the interaction of individual vulnerabilities (genetic predispositions, personality traits, cognitive habits) with external stresses or circumstances (such as sexual victimization, violence, or loss of a close relationship) in producing major depression in an individual. 89.

Biological research concerning the development of mood disorders suggests that a. acetylcholine and dopamine may be key neurotransmitters in depression. b. a long form of the gene 5-HTT may predispose a person to depression. c. depressed people have high levels of cortisol, which can affect the hippocampus and amygdala. d. part of the problem of depression is the underproduction of cortisol. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 381

Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: A possible biological factor in depression is a high level of cortisol which can affect the hippocampus and amygdala, causing mood and memory abnormalities. 90.

Early biological theories of depression suggested that low levels of serotonin caused depression. These theories were supported by the fact that a. some antidepressants raise serotonin levels. b. the 5-HTT gene is not linked to depression. c. depleting animals of serotonin does not induce depression. d. increasing brain serotonin does not necessarily alleviate depression. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 381 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The fact that some antidepressants raise serotonin levels is the only option that supports the theory that low serotonin levels cause depression. The other options all support the opposite conclusion. 91. A person’s life experiences can be factors in developing depression. One particular kind of experience that has a strong correlation with later depression is a. violence. b. loss of a pet. c. sibling rivalry. d. overwork. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 381 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: One of the most powerful environmental factors associated with clinical depression is repeated experience with violence. 92.

Depressed people tend to believe that a. the reason for their misery is external. b. this bleak despair is terrible, but it will pass. c. their misery is permanent and uncontrollable. d. if they just had the energy, they could control the situation. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 382 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Cognitive beliefs that may lead to depression include the belief that a situation is permanent and that it is uncontrollable. % correct 89 a= 7 b= 3 c= 89 d= 0 r = .30 93.

Cognitive theorists would be most likely to agree that the real problem for depressed people is that a. they feel hopeless. b. they feel manic. c. they have unsatisfying jobs. d. they have unsatisfying family lives. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 382 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Feelings of hopelessness and pessimism are typical of depressed individuals. 94.

Beginning in adolescence, _______________ are more likely than _______________ to develop a ruminating, introspective style, rehearsing the reasons for their unhappiness. a. individualists; collectivists b. collectivists; individualists c. men; women d. women; men Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 382 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Women are more likely than men to develop a ruminating, introspective style of thinking; this contributes to longer-lasting depression in women compared to men.

95.

When something bad happens to Helen, she tends to dwell on it and has trouble keeping negative thoughts about the event from entering her mind. This behavior is typical of a person who a. is likely to develop schizophrenia. b. ruminates. c. has psychopathic tendencies. d. has a short form of the 5-HTT gene. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 382 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Rumination involves brooding about everything that is wrong in your life, persuading yourself that no one cares about you, and dwelling on reasons to feel hopeless. People who ruminate have trouble preventing these gloomy thoughts from entering and remaining in their working memory, which keeps them stewing in negative thoughts and unhappy past events. 96.

Both Leslie and Gerry lose their mothers in a horrible car accident. Gerry develops major depression as a result his loss while Leslie does not. Based on current research, which of the following is a valid explanation for why Gerry developed depression while Leslie did not? a. Gerry ruminated on the loss while Leslie was able to distract herself. b. Men are more likely to develop major depression than women are. c. Leslie was able to realize that life is uncontrollable, which is reassuring. d. Gerry has the short form of the 5-HTT gene, while Leslie does not. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 382 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: According to the vulnerability-stress model, individual vulnerabilities interact with stressful events to produce depression. For example, the tendency for brooding rumination can make people vulnerable to developing depression following stressful events, while healthier cognitive habits may protect others. 97.

One of the strongest bad cognitive habits associated with depression is a. looking outward (extrospection). b. assuming situations are temporary. c. oversimplifying problems. d. rumination. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 382 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: People with depression are more likely than nondepressed people to ruminate, or rehearse the reasons for their unhappiness.

ANTISOCIAL/PSYCHOPATHIC PERSONALITY DISORDER Learning Objective 11.11 What a charming but heartless tycoon and a remorseless killer have in common 11.12 Why some people are incapable of feeling guilt or pangs of conscience 98.

_______________ involve maladaptive traits that cause great distress or an inability to get along with others. a. Personality disorders b. Mood disorders c. Anxiety disorders d. Dissociative identity disorders Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 383 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: A personality disorder is an enduring pattern of behavior that deviates from cultural expectations and is maladaptive. 99.

A key characteristic of psychopathy is an inability to a. control behavior.

b. feel remorse, empathy, anxiety, and other social emotions. c. correct maladaptive behavior. d. stop mutilating themselves. Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 383 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: A key characteristic of psychopathy is an inability to feel normal emotions. 100.

What individual is most likely to come into conflict with the law because of his/her disregard for social rules and unwillingness to restrain his/her impulses? a. paranoid schizophrenic b. multiple personality c. antisocial personality d. bipolar disorder Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 384 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: People with antisocial personality disorder repeatedly break the law; they are impulsive and seek quick thrills; they show reckless disregard for their own safety or that of others; they often get into physical fights or assault others. % correct 80 a= 11 b= 6 c= 80 d= 3 r = .40 101.

A psychiatric patient repeatedly breaks the law, behaves impulsively, and generally demonstrates a disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others. It is most likely that this patient will be diagnosed with a. borderline personality disorder. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. bipolar disorder. d. schizophrenia. Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 384 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder (APD) is characterized by a lifelong pattern of irresponsible, antisocial behavior such as lawbreaking, violence, and other impulsive, reckless acts. 102.

Which two disorders are likely to be combined into a single diagnosis in the DSM-V? a. major depression and bipolar disorder b. borderline personality disorder and antisocial personality disorder c. schizophrenia and bipolar disorder d. antisocial personality disorder and psychopathy Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 384 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The DSM-V is likely to have a combined diagnosis called “antisocial/ psychopathic personality disorder.” 103.

Marky would bite and hit the other children in his preschool class, and by the time he turned ten he was shoplifting and skipping school. His teenage years showed a pattern of cheating at school, stealing from a part-time job, selling drugs, and stealing cars. This developmental history indicates that Marky may have a. schizophrenia. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. dissociative identity disorder. Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 384 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a lifelong pattern of irresponsible, antisocial behavior such as lawbreaking, violence, and other impulsive, reckless acts. The developmental history cited in this question is common. 104.

Giovanni Vigliotto married 105 women over 33 years, seized their assets, and then abandoned them. He relied on charm and elaborate con tricks to deceive the women. Lacking conscience and remorse, he was

able to lie and manipulate the women and then drop them without a qualm. Vigliotto’s likely diagnosis is a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. narcissistic personality disorder. Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 384 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a lifelong pattern of irresponsible, antisocial behavior such as lawbreaking, violence, and other impulsive, reckless acts. 105.

Psychopaths do not respond physiologically in the same manner that other people do. When compared to normal people, psychopathic individuals a. have experienced damage to the occipital cortex. b. experience excessive changes in electrical skin conductance when endangered. c. show abnormalities in right-hemisphere activation. d. are slow to develop classically conditioned responses to anticipated danger and pain. Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 384 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Psychopaths often have unusually low levels of physiological arousal and are slow to develop classically conditioned responses to anticipated danger, pain, or shock. 106.

In a longitudinal study of boys who had been physically abused in childhood, it was found that those that had _____________________were more likely to be arrested for violent crime. a. lower-than-normal glucose metabolism in the brain b. deficiencies in the production of serotonin c. a variation in a crucial gene d. parents with substance-abuse problems Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 385 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In a longitudinal study of boys who had been physically abused in childhood and were later convicted for violent crimes, it was found that nearly half had a deficiency in a crucial gene.

DRUG ABUSE AND ADDICTION Learning Objectives 11.13 How genes might contribute to alcoholism 11.14 Why alcoholism is more common in some cultures than others 11.15 Why policies of abstinence from alcohol do not reduce problem drinking 11.16 Why narcotics are not usually addictive when people take them for pain 107.

The two dominant approaches to understanding addiction and drug abuse are a. the biological model and the learning model. b. the cultural model and the psychodynamic model. c. the humanist model and the biological model. d. the learning model and the psychodynamic model. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 387 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Most theories of addiction and substance abuse are either biological or learning models. 108.

The __________ model holds that addiction to alcohol or any drug is due primarily to a person’s neurology and genetic predisposition. a. biological b. social learning c. cognitive d. addiction

Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 387 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The biological model holds that addiction to alcohol or any drug is due primarily to a person’s biochemistry, metabolism, and genetic predisposition. 109.

Dr. Hsu treats clients with addiction. She believes that genetic factors have predisposed her clients to becoming addicted to alcohol as well as that heavy drinking and drug use alters brain function, which contributes to creating the addiction. Dr. Hsu uses which perspective when treating her clients? a. the biological model b. the cultural model c. the humanist model d. the learning model Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 387 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The biological model holds that addiction to alcohol or any other drug is due primarily to a person’s neurology and genetic predisposition. 110.

Genetic factors seem to be involved a. when alcoholism begins in adolescence and is linked to antisocial behaviors. b. when alcoholism begins in adulthood with frequent episodes of heavy drinking. c. for the male children of alcoholics but not for the female children. d. for the female children of alcoholics but not for the male children. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 387 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Genetic factors are most likely to be involved when drinking begins in adolescence and is linked to impulsivity, antisocial behavior, and criminality. 111.

Which statement best describes the current understanding of the evidence related to genes and alcoholism? a. It is still uncertain if alcohol leads to genetic damage or genetic damage leads to alcoholism. b. Three genes have been found that almost always predict alcoholism when they occur together. c. Genes that cause the production of epinephrine and acetylcholine have a mild role in alcoholism. d. Certain genes appear to provide protection against alcoholism. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 387 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The strongest evidence to date is not that genes cause alcoholism but rather that they can protect against alcoholism. 112.

In an ongoing longitudinal study of 450 young men, those who were at increased risk of becoming alcoholic within the decade were those a. who had a family history of alcoholism. b. whose current drinking habits were problematic. c. who had to drink more than others to feel any reaction. d. whose families modeled the rules of social drinking. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 387 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Genes may affect sensitivity to alcohol, that is, how much a person has to drink to feel a reaction. 113.

There is growing evidence that a. total abstinence decreases alcoholism. b. heavy drinking alters brain functions. c. severe withdrawal symptoms are inevitable. d. there is one specific gene involved in alcoholism. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 387–388 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Heavy drinking alters brain function, reduces the level of painkilling endorphins, produces nerve damage, and shrinks the cerebral cortex.

114.

Dr. Lipton treats clients with addiction. She believes that environmental, social, psychological, and cultural factors play a role in drug abuse and addiction. Dr. Lipton uses which perspective when treating her clients? a. the biological model b. the cultural model c. the humanist model d. the learning model Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 388 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The learning model examines the role of the environment, learning, and culture in encouraging or discouraging drug abuse and addiction. 115.

Alcoholism is ___________ in societies that forbid children to drink but condone drunkenness in adults. a. more likely to occur b. less likely to occur c. considered harmless d. considered a disease Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 388 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Alcoholism is more likely to occur in societies that forbid children to drink but condone drunkenness in adults. 116.

Alcoholism is more likely to occur in a. Italy. b. Greece. c. France. d. Ireland. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 388 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Alcoholism is more common in cultures like Ireland that forbid children to drink but condone drunkenness in adults. 117.

Alcoholism would be less likely to occur a. if it was used as a rite of passage into adulthood. b. if the adults drank moderately at family gatherings. c. if drinking occurred outside of homes, not in them. d. if national abstinence was enforced by law once again. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 388 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Alcoholism is less likely when adults model responsible consumption of alcohol for their children. 118.

During the Prohibition years (1920–1933) in the United States a. rates of alcoholism decreased significantly, although there were increased rates of per capita consumption. b. rates of alcoholism remained the same for men, but decreased for women. c. rates of alcoholism remained the same for women, but decreased for men. d. rates of alcoholism actually increased, although there were reduced rates of per capita consumption. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 389 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Prohibition reduced rates of drinking overall, but it increased rates of alcoholism among those who did drink. 119.

During the Vietnam War, Norris was taking heroin in strong doses. When he came home, it was most likely that he a. simply gave up the drug with no significant withdrawal pain. b. suffered from nausea and abdominal cramps for the first nine months of withdrawal.

c. suffered from depression and other severe withdrawal symptoms for 12 months. d. required outside help to cope with the severity of his withdrawal. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 389 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Withdrawal symptoms are not experienced by all addicts. In the case of Vietnam veterans, the change of environment from Vietnam to home may have been a reason for the lack of withdrawal symptoms in most cases. 120.

When Mandy was young, she would often see her parents drink one or two glasses of beer and wine in the evenings. As Mandy got older, her parents gradually introduced her to alcohol in family settings, for example, having a glass of wine with dinner. According to the learning model of drug addiction a. her parents have put her at an increased risk of becoming an alcoholic. b. she is more likely to condone drunkenness in her friends. c. she is less likely to become a problem drinker than someone who was forbidden to drink until they were an adult. d. she will develop a dislike of alcohol. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 388–390 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Alcoholism is more common in cultures like Ireland that forbid children to drink but condone drunkenness in adults. The learning model suggests that individuals are less likely to become problem drinkers if they are taught correct drinking habits in family settings. 121.

The reason for taking a drug may influence whether addiction occurs. In studies of pain sufferers who use morphine and other opiates to be able to function in the world a. the vast majority did not become addicts. b. 35 percent became addicts. c. 65 percent became addicts. d. all became addicts. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 390 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The reason for taking a drug influences whether addiction occurs. People searching for escape and euphoria are more likely to become addicted than those who use drugs to treat pain. 122.

Those who drink in order to _______________ have significantly more drinking problems than those who drink for other reasons. a. be sociable b. disguise anxiety c. conform to a group d. relax under stress Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 390 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Drinking problems are most likely to develop when a person drinks in order to disguise or suppress anxiety or depression, to drown sorrows, or to forget his or her worries. 123.

Who is more likely to become addicted to alcohol? a. a person who drinks to be social b. a person who drinks to conform to the group they are with c. a person who drinks to suppress depression d. a person who drinks to relax Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 390 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: A person who drinks to suppress anxiety or depression is more likely to become addicted to alcohol. 124.

The biological and learning models of addiction differ in their explanations of drug abuse and in their proposed solutions. According to the learning model

a. addiction to alcohol is genetic and alcoholics must learn to abstain. b. people are either addicted to alcohol or they are not. c. addiction is a way of coping and alcoholics need to find better coping methods. d. young people should not be permitted to drink, even at home with their parents, until they are 21. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 390 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The learning model argues that many problem drinkers can learn to drink moderately if they learn safe-drinking skills, acquire other ways of coping with stress, avoid situations that evoke conditioned responses to using drugs, and avoid friends who would pressure them to drink excessively. 125.

The biological and learning models of addiction differ in their explanations of drug abuse and in their proposed solutions. According to the biological model a. people can grow beyond the need for alcohol. b. the degree of addiction will vary, depending on the situation. c. problem drinkers must abstain completely. d. most problem drinkers can learn to drink in moderation. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 390 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The biological model argues that former alcoholics cannot learn to drink moderately without becoming intoxicated and dependent again on alcohol. 126.

Which of the following statements about alcohol addiction is consistent with learning model? a. Some problem drinkers can learn to drink moderately. b. There is no such thing as “a problem drinker.” c. Addiction to alcohol is genetic, and alcoholics must learn to abstain. d. Adolescents whose parents allow them to drink wine with dinner are more likely to become addicted to alcohol than those prevented from drinking at home until they are 21. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 390 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Those who champion the learning model argue that some problem drinkers can learn to drink moderately if they learn safe-drinking skills and other ways to cope with stress.

DISSOCIATIVE IDENTITY DISORDER Learning Objectives 11.17 Why most clinicians and researchers are skeptical about multiple personality disorder 11.18 Why the number of “multiple personality” cases jumped from a handful to many thousands 127.

A disorder marked by the apparent appearance within one person of two or more personalities, each with its own name and distinctive traits, is called _____________ disorder. a. dissociative identity b. personality c. bipolar d. schizophrenia Section: Dissociative Identity Disorder Page(s): 391 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: A disorder marked by the apparent appearance within one person of two or more distinct personalities each with its own name and traits is called dissociative identity disorder. 128.

Abby was tortured as a child. As a means for coping with this intense trauma, she experienced a “mental splitting” that caused several personalities to emerge. Some of these personalities handle everyday experiences, while others cope with bad experiences. Abby would appear to have a condition known as _____________ disorder.

a. dissociative identity b. personality c. bipolar d. schizophrenic Section: Dissociative Identity Disorder Page(s): 391 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Dissociative identity disorder is a controversial disorder marked by the apparent appearance within one person of two or more distinct identities. 129.

According to the textbook’s discussion of dissociative disorders a. the splitting of consciousness in this way is more common among individuals from collectivist cultures than individuals from individualist cultures. b. between 1789 (a young German woman was the earliest reported case) and 1957 (the film The Three Faces of Eve was released), there were more than 40,000 cases reported worldwide. c. patients’ physiological responses show unique patterns for each personality, which provides empirical support for “mental splitting.” d. each identity appears to have its own memories, preferences, personality traits, and medical problems. Section: Dissociative Identity Disorder Page(s): 391 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Dissociative identity disorder is a controversial disorder marked by the apparent appearance within one person of two or more distinct personalities, each with its own name and traits. 130.

The famous story of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde is an example of which disorder? a. depression b. dissociative c. phobic d. sexual dysfunction Section: Dissociative Identity Disorder Page(s): 392 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In the 1886 story Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde, the kindly Dr. Jekyll turned into the murderous Mr. Hyde. The presence of two personalities, existing in one person, is similar to what some people believe happens in dissociative identify disorder. % correct 91 a= 2 b= 91 c= 5 d= 2 r = .23 131.

How do sociocognitive theorists explain multiple personality disorder? a. Troubled people begin to have intense attacks of profound fear and impending doom and are unable to interpret these attacks as a normal response to great stress. b. This diagnosis provides a culturally acceptable way for some troubled people to make sense of their problems. c. Individuals who have had insecure attachments during the first three years of life tend to experience MPD symptoms when adult relationships end. d. This disorder is associated with abnormalities in the central nervous system, problems with impulse control, and damage to the prefrontal cortex. Section: Dissociative Identity Disorder Page(s): 392 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: In the sociocognitive view, MPD results from pressure and suggestion by clinicians, interacting with acceptance by vulnerable patients who find MPD a plausible explanation for their problems. 132.

Rationale: Simple principles of reinforcement can explain, in part, the symptoms a patient presents to a therapist.

SCHIZOPHRENIA Learning Objectives 11.19 The difference between schizophrenia and a “split personality” 11.20 The five key signs of schizophrenia 11.21 Whether schizophrenia is partly heritable 11.22 Why schizophrenia might begin in the womb yet not emerge until adolescence 133.

In 1911, Swiss psychiatrist Eugen Bleuler coined the term schizophrenia to describe cases in which a. the personality splits into multiple personalities. b. the personality loses its unity. c. people escape trauma by putting it out of their minds. d. unspeakable torture produces a mental splitting. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Bleuler saw schizophrenia as a disorder where the personality loses its unity. 134.

Which of the following is a psychotic disorder marked by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized and incoherent speech, inappropriate behavior, and cognitive impairments? a. schizophrenia b. psychopathic personality disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. bipolar disorder Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder marked by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized and incoherent speech, inappropriate behavior, and cognitive impairments. 135.

Psychosis is characterized by a. distorted perceptions and irrational behavior. b. continuous, uncontrollable anxiety or worry. c. repeated thoughts used to ward off anxious feelings. d. feelings of hopelessness and fatigue. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: A psychosis is an extreme mental disturbance involving distorted perceptions and irrational behavior that make it difficult for the afflicted person to function in most aspects of life. 136.

A patient in a mental hospital exhibits disordered thinking, perceptual abnormalities, unusual emotions, and suspiciousness. This person is probably suffering from a. schizophrenia. b. bipolar disorder. c. passive-aggressive personality. d. a dissociative disorder. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder marked by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized and incoherent speech, inappropriate behavior, and cognitive impairments. % correct 86 a= 86 b= 2 c= 3 d= 9 r = .35 137.

The belief that you are a special agent for the Intergalactic Supernova is an example of a a. loose association.

b. neologism. c. delusion. d. negative symptom. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Some people with schizophrenia have delusions (a false belief) of identity. % correct 94 a= 3 b= 1 c= 94 d= 2 r = .19 138.

Delusions and hallucinations are associated with a. somatoform disorders. b. mania. c. conversion hysteria. d. schizophrenia. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder marked by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized and incoherent speech, inappropriate behavior, and cognitive impairments. % correct 94 a= 5 b= 1 c= 0 d= 94 r = .26 139.

False sensory perceptions that most often take the form of hearing voices are called a. delusions. b. obsessions. c. hallucinations. d. compulsions. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: People with schizophrenia suffer from false sensory experiences called hallucinations. By far the most common hallucination is hearing voices. % correct 84 a= 15 b= 1 c= 84 d= 0 r = .32 140.

Nick was admitted to a mental institution because he heard voices talking to him that no one else could hear, and he saw demons attacking him, though no one else could see anything near him. Nick's symptoms are known as a. delusions. b. obsessions. c. hallucinations. d. compulsions. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: People with schizophrenia suffer from false sensory experiences called hallucinations. % correct 89 a= 9 b= 1 c= 89 d= 1 r = .27 141.

Reggie was admitted to a mental institution because he claimed he was the king of an alien race that would soon return to earth to dominate mankind. He claimed to be in constant communication with these aliens and helping to plan for their return. His symptoms are known as a. delusions. b. obsessions. c. hallucinations. d. compulsions. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Some people with schizophrenia have delusions (a false belief) of identity. % correct 88 a= 88 b= 0 c= 12 d= 0 r = .36 142.

“Olive oil is an Arabian liquor-sauce which the Afghans, Moors, and Moslems use in ostrich farming. The Indian plantain tree is the whiskey of the Parsees and Arabs.” This sentence would be considered

a. a hallucination. b. an example of a word salad. c. evidence of a catatonic stupor. d. a symptom of childlike silliness. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The speech of schizophrenics may be disorganized and incoherent, consisting of an illogical jumble of ideas and symbols. This type of speech is referred to as a word salad. 143.

Which of the following is a psychotic disorder marked by delusions, hallucinations, incoherent speech, emotional flatness, and a loss of motivation? a. schizophrenia b. psychopathy c. dissociative identity disorder d. antisocial personality disorder Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393–394 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This describes schizophrenia. % correct 93 a= 93 b= 7 c= 0 d= 0 r = .26 144.

Some people with schizophrenia completely withdraw into a private world, sitting for hours without moving. This would be considered a. disorganized behavior. b. a catatonic stupor. c. a delusion. d. a hallucination. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 394 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is a description of a catatonic stupor. 145.

Jillian suffers from schizophrenia. Unlike many schizophrenics she seldom speaks, and seems completely withdrawn from the world. For example, she will often sit in the corner of her room doing nothing for hours! Jillian’s condition is called a. a catatonic stupor. b. a personality disorder. c. a delusion. d. a hallucination. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 394 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is a description of a catatonic stupor. 146.

The ventricles, spaces in the brain that are filled with cerebrospinal fluid, are typically larger than normal in the brains of individuals suffering from a. schizophrenia. b. dissociative personality disorder. c. major depression. d. PTSD. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 395 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Most individuals with schizophrenia show enlargement of the ventricles. 147.

Research on the genetic predisposition toward schizophrenia has indicated that a. the risk of schizophrenia for the unaffected twin, when an identical twins has schizophrenia, is greatly reduced if the twins have been reared apart. b. among identical twins, when one twin develops schizophrenia the other twin has an 100 percent chance of developing schizophrenia.

children with two schizophrenic parents have a lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia of 27 to 46 percent compared to a risk in the general population of about 1 percent. d. Schizophrenia is not a very heritable disease. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 395 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The closer the genetic relationship to a person with schizophrenia, the higher the risk of developing the disorder, with children of two schizophrenics having about a 40 percent lifetime risk. 148.

Tito has an identical twin who is schizophrenic. Juan has one schizophrenic parent. Which of the following is true about their chances of developing schizophrenia? a. Tito is at greater risk than Juan. b. Juan is at greater risk than Tito. c. Tito and Juan have about the same risk. d. It depends on whether Juan’s schizophrenic parent is his mother or father. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 395 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The lifetime risk for schizophrenia with only one schizophrenic parent is 7 to 12 percent. The risk for an identical twin is much greater. 149.

Which of the following does research indicate increases the risk of a child developing schizophrenia later in life? a. exposure to a flu virus during the first week after birth. b. malnutrition for the mother during pregnancy c. being an only child d. having a young mother Section: Psychology in the News Page(s): 396 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: An increased risk of schizophrenia is linked to fetal brain damage caused by malnutrition during pregnancy; schizophrenia rates rise during times of famine, as happened in China and elsewhere. 150.

A possible biological reason why most schizophrenics first have a full-blown schizophrenic episode in adolescence or early adulthood is that a. schizophrenic brains prune away too many synapses during adolescence. b. schizophrenic brains wait too long to begin pruning away excess synapses that should have been removed during infancy. c. schizophrenic brains prune away too few synapses during adolescence. d. normal brains prune away synapses during adolescence, but schizophrenic brains create even more synapses instead. Section: Psychology in the News Page(s): 396 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: It appears that schizophrenic brains aggressively prune away too many synapses during adolescence.

True-False Questions 1. Insanity is a legal term that is used neither by psychologists nor by psychiatrists in research or diagnosis. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 370 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 2.

Insurance companies require clinicians to assign their clients an appropriate DSM code number for the disorder in order to receive compensation for treatment. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 371 Type: Factual Answer: True

Rationale: Statement of fact. 3.

Critics of the DSM argue that normal boy behaviors, such as being rambunctious, refusing to nap, and not listening to teachers, are being turned into a psychological problem. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 371 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 4.

Critics of the DSM argue that when a person has been given a diagnosis, other people begin to see that person primarily in terms of the label. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 372 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 5.

An example of a culture-bound syndrome would be taijin kyofusho, a disorder in which a person feels intensely frightened and irrationally embarrassed that his or her body parts or functions are disgusting to others. Section: Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 373–374 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: This disorder occurs in Japan 6.

Bulimia nervosa is a culture-bound syndrome that occurs primarily in the United States and is unknown in most other parts of the world. Section: Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 374 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact 7.

When different clinicians are given sample responses from the Rorschach inkblot test, they usually agree with one another regarding what the various responses mean. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 374 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: In such a situation, there is very little agreement. The reliability and validity of projective tests is low to nonexistent. 8.

Inventories are standardized objective questionnaires requiring written responses; they typically include scales on which people are asked to rate themselves. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 375 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 9.

One of the advantages of the MMPI over other assessment instruments is that it reflects differences among cultural, ethnic, and socioeconomic groups when organizing disorders. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 375 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The fact that the MMPI does not reflect cultural, ethnic, and socioeconomic differences is a limitation of the test. 10.

Researchers have identified genes implicated in dysfunction in the amygdala, the core structure for the acquisition of fear. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 376 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 11.

Generalized anxiety disorder is a state in which a person experiences recurring panic attacks, feelings of impending doom, and physiological symptoms, such as rapid breathing and dizziness.

Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 376 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by continuous anxiety and apprehension, difficulties in concentration, and signs of motor tension. 12.

The typical anxiety symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder include reliving the trauma in recurrent and intrusive thoughts. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 13. By definition, panic attacks occur within one week of the actual frightening experience. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: A panic attack usually occurs in the aftermath of stress or a frightening event, but may occur weeks or months later. 14. A phobia is an exaggerated, unrealistic fear of a specific situation, object, or activity. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 15. Social phobia is the fear of situations in which the person will be observed by others. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 16. The most disabling fear disorder is claustrophobia: the fear of being trapped in small places. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The most disabling fear disorder is agoraphobia. 17.

In ancient Greece, the agora was the area outside of town where the population was sparse and the main occupation was agriculture. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The agora was the social, political, business, and religious center of town. 18.

Most sufferers of obsessive-compulsive disorder enjoy their rituals and can’t understand why people want them to change. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 379 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Most individuals with OCD are very distressed by their rituals. 19.

Individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorders have recurrent and persistent thoughts or images that are often dreamlike and appealing. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 379 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The recurrent and persistent thoughts or images are frightening or repugnant. 20. Compulsion involves recurrent, persistent, unwished-for images and thoughts designed to reduce anxiety. Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 379 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is the definition of an obsession, not a compulsion. 21.

Major depression occurs at least twice as often among women as among men.

Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Rationale: Statement of fact.

Type: Factual

Answer: True

22. Men who are depressed often try to mask their feelings through violent behavior or drug abuse. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 23.

Studies of adopted children and twins have shown that depression is not heritable; refuting the notion that depression has a genetic component. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Major depression is a moderately heritable disorder. 24. Adolescents who are subjected to constant violence have higher levels of depression. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 381 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 25.

Biological research concerning the development of mood disorders suggests that part of the problem of depression is the underproduction of cortisol. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 381 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: There may be an overproduction of cortisol in depressed individuals. 26. Depressed people tend to believe that their situation is permanent. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 382 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

27.

A recent study mentioned in your textbook found that when depressed people are put into a sad mood and given a choice between looking at sad faces or happy faces, depressed people choose the happy faces. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 382 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: They preferred sad faces. 28.

Beginning in adolescence, men are more likely than women to develop a ruminating, introspective style of cognition, rehearsing the reasons for their unhappiness. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 382 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is true of women, not men. 29.

New evidence shows that rumination predicts not only depression but also impaired thinking and problem solving, anxiety and worry, eating disorders, and drug abuse. Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 382 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 30.

Personality disorders involve maladaptive traits that cause great distress or an inability to get along with others. Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 383 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 31.

Psychopaths are slow to develop classically conditioned responses to anticipated danger, pain, or shock.

Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 384 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

32.

PET scan studies have found no differences between the brain activity of predatory murderers and the brain activity of “heat of passion” murderers. Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 385 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: One study showed that predatory murderers had less brain activity in the frontal lobe than did men who murdered in the heat of passion. 33. People who have a high sensitivity to alcohol are less likely to drink to excess. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 387 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

34.

Native Americans have the same genetic protection that Asians do, yet they have much higher rates of alcoholism. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 387 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 35. Genes may affect how much a person needs to drink before feeling high. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 387 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

36.

The biological model of drug/alcohol addiction emphasizes that addiction is due primarily to a person’s biochemistry, metabolism, and genetic predisposition. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 387 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 37. Policies of total abstinence from alcohol tend to decrease rates of addiction. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 389 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Policies of total abstinence increase rates of addiction among those who do drink. 38.

Public health professionals from the biological model and from the learning model of addiction agree that former alcoholics cannot learn to drink moderately without becoming dependent on alcohol again. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 390 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a major area of disagreement between the biological and the learning models. 39.

Dissociative identity disorder is marked by the apparent appearance within one person of two or more distinct personalities, each with its own name and traits. Section: Dissociative Identity Disorder Page(s): 391 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 40. Psychologists all agree that dissociative identity disorder is not a true disorder. Section: Dissociative Identity Disorder Page(s): 391-392 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: There is considerable disagreement about whether dissociative identity disorder is an actual disorder or is unwittingly generated by clinicians themselves.

41. Before the 1980s, only a few cases of multiple personality disorder had been reported worldwide. Section: Dissociative Identity Disorder Page(s): 392 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 42. Psychoses are extreme mental disturbances involving distorted perceptions and irrational behaviors. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 43.

Children with two schizophrenic parents have a lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia of about 80 percent compared to a risk in the general population of about 10 percent. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 395 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Children with two schizophrenic parents have a lifetime risk of 27 to 46 percent, compared to a risk in the general population of only about 1 percent. 44. Schizophrenics are more likely than healthy individuals to have abnormalities in the thalamus. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 395 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 45.

During adolescence, when the brain undergoes a natural pruning of synapses, schizophrenic brains aggressively prune away too many synapses. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 396 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 46.

Babies conceived during times of famine are more likely to develop schizophrenia than babies whose mothers were not malnourished during pregnancy. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 396 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 47.

Most suicides occur during an acute crisis, on impulse; after the person gets through the crisis, the desire to live returns. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 398 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact.

Short Answer Questions 1. List four factors the DSM encourages clinicians to take into account when evaluating each client. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 371 Type: Factual Answer: The factors include the client’s personality traits, medical conditions, stresses at work and at home, and the duration and severity of the problem. 2. What is the assumption behind how projective tests work? Section: Defining and Diagnosing Disorder Page(s): 374 Type: Factual Answer: The person’s unconscious thoughts and feelings will be projected onto the test and revealed in the person’s responses. 3.

What problems have been noted in regard to the MMPI?

Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 375 Type: Conceptual Answer: Some test items fail to take into account differences among cultural, regional, and socioeconomic groups. Also, the MMPI sometimes labels a person’s responses as evidence of mental disorder when they are a result of understandable stresses. 4. What are typical symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder? Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Factual Answer: Symptoms of PTSD include reliving the trauma in recurrent, intrusive thoughts; a sense of detachment from others; a loss of interest in familiar activities; and increased physiological arousal reflected in insomnia, irritability, and impaired concentration. 5. How might the hippocampal volume be related to posttraumatic stress disorder? Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377 Type: Conceptual Answer: The hippocampus is typically smaller than average in those suffering from PTSD. The occurrence of PTSD appears to depend on both a smaller hippocampus and extreme trauma or stress. 6. What is the essential difference between people who develop panic disorder and those that do not? Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 377–378 Type: Conceptual Answer: The essential difference is in how the people interpret their bodily reactions. Healthy people who have an occasional panic attack see it as a reaction to a temporary crisis. People who develop panic disorder see it as a sign of illness or impending death. 7. What is the fundamental fear in agoraphobia? Section: Anxiety Disorders Page(s): 378 Type: Factual Answer: The fear is of being trapped in a crowded public place, from which escape would be difficult or help would be unavailable if the person were to have a panic attack. Because so many of the actions associated with agoraphobia arise as a mistaken effort to avoid a panic attack, psychologists regard agoraphobia as a “fear of fear” rather than simply a fear of places. 8. What physical changes accompany major depression? Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380 Type: Factual Answer: Those suffering from depression may overeat or stop eating, have difficulty falling asleep or sleeping through the night, have trouble concentrating, and feel tired all the time. 9.

Describe the ways that antisocial personality disorder typically develops over time, from the age of 4 years until the age of 30 years. Section: Antisocial/Psychopathic Personality Disorder Page(s): 384 Type: Factual Answer: They start showing trouble, with remorselessness and rule breaking early in life; biting and hitting as toddlers and preschoolers; shoplifting and truant by age 10; selling drugs and stealing cars by 16; robbery and rape by 22; fraud and child abuse at 30. 10.

There is an ongoing debate about how to best treat alcoholics and problem drinkers. How do the views of those psychologists who advocate the biological model of drug abuse and those who advocate the learning model differ on this issue? Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 390 Type: Factual Answer: Those who advocate the biological model say that alcoholics and problem drinkers must abstain completely. Those who champion the learning model argue that most problem drinkers can learn to drink

moderately if they learn to drink safely and sensibly, acquire better ways of coping with stress, avoid situations that evoke conditioned responses to using drugs, and avoid friends who pressure them to drink excessively. 11. List four of the five main symptoms of schizophrenia. Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 393-394 Type: Factual Answer: Delusions; hallucinations; disorganized, incoherent speech; grossly disorganized and inappropriate behavior; impaired cognition.

Essay Questions 1.

Explain why an individual’s culture must be taken into account when trying to determine whether he or she is suffering from a mental disorder. Should all behaviors that depart from cultural notions of what is healthy or normal be considered mental disorders? Provide an example of a disorder included in the DSM that is specific to a particular culture. Section: Defining and Diagnosing Mental Disorders Page(s): 370–374 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  What is normal or abnormal depends on cultural expectations and standards.  While some behaviors may violate cultural norms, they are generally not considered mental disorders unless they are also harmful to oneself or others, and dysfunctional.  A few disorders that are specific to a particular culture (culture-bound syndromes) listed in the DSM are amok (Malaysia), ataque de nervios (Latin American and Mediterranean), brain fag (West Africa), and ghost sickness (Native American tribes).

Analyze the vulnerability-stress explanation of depression. Provide examples of both individual vulnerabilities and stressful events that could trigger a depression. According to this model, why do some people develop depression following an upsetting event, while others do not? Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 380-382 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The vulnerability-stress model of depression suggests that there is an interaction between a person’s vulnerabilities and stressful events in a person’s life that may produce depression.  A person’s vulnerabilities may include things such as genetic predisposition, personality traits, or habits of thinking.  Stressful events may be such things as sexual victimization, violence, or loss of a close relationship.  The model predicts that the same stressful event can affect two people entirely differently, depending on their individual vulnerabilities, for example, how they interpret and cope with the event.

What cognitive habits are associated with depression, and how do they affect the way depressed people behave? How are these habits related to the tendency of depressed people to ruminate? Section: Mood Disorders Page(s): 382 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Depressed people typically believe that their situation is permanent and uncontrollable.  Because they don’t expect to get better, they do nothing to improve their lives and therefore remain unhappy.  Rumination or brooding about everything that is wrong can keep depressed people in an anxious, angry, or gloomy frame of mind.

Learning theorists suggest that alcoholism depends on learning and culture. What four arguments explain

this view? Analyze each argument. Section: Drug Abuse and Addiction Page(s): 388–390 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Addiction patterns vary according to cultural practices and the social environment. o Alcoholism is much more likely to occur in societies that forbid children to drink but condone drunkenness in adults than in societies that teach children how to drink responsibly and moderately but condemn adult drunkenness.  Policies of total abstinence tend to increase rates of addiction rather than reduce them. o During prohibition, overall rates of drinking decreased, but rates of alcoholism among those who did drink increased.  Not all addicts have withdrawal symptoms when they stop taking a drug. o Soldiers who were addicted to heroin in Vietnam often quit with no withdrawal symptoms when they returned home.  Addiction does not depend on properties of the drug alone but also on the reasons for taking it. o Those who take drugs for pain control to be able to function normally are less likely to become addicted than people who use drugs to escape from their problems. 5.

Why are many psychologists skeptical about the number of individuals who are given the diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder/multiple personality disorder? How does the sociocognitive explanation explain the phenomenon? Section: Dissociative Identity Disorder Page(s): 391–392 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Only a handful of MPD cases had ever been diagnosed anywhere in the world before 1980; yet by the mid-1990s, tens of thousands of cases had been reported, mostly in the United States and Canada.  In the 1990s, as a result of numerous malpractice cases across the country, psychiatrists became more wary of MPD, and the number of cases dropped sharply almost overnight.  The sociocognitive explanation of MPD holds that this phenomenon is simply an extreme form of the ability we all have to present different aspects of our personalities to others.  In the sociocognitive view, MPD results from pressure and suggestion by clinicians, interacting with acceptance by vulnerable patients who find MPD a plausible explanation for their problems.

Why do most researchers consider schizophrenia a brain disorder? What evidence suggests that schizophrenia could begin in the womb? Section: Schizophrenia Page(s): 395–396 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Evidence from twin studies suggests that schizophrenia is highly heritable, with several genes apparently involved.  The disease is associated with many abnormalities in the brain, including: o reduced volumes of gray matter in the prefrontal cortex and temporal lobes o abnormalities in the hippocampus, thalamus, auditory cortex, and Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas o abnormalities in neurotransmitters, neural activity, and disrupted communication between neurons o enlargement of the ventricles.  Prenatal problems or birth complications increase the likelihood of schizophrenia.  Adolescent abnormalities in brain development when excess pruning of synapses occur may explain why the first full-blown schizophrenic episode typically occurs in adolescence or early adulthood.

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 12 – Quick Quiz 1 1.

Antipsychotic drugs offer little relief from which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia? a. jumbled thoughts c. delusions b. agitation d. hallucinations

An antidepressant drug would most likely be prescribed for a. anxiety. c. psychotic disorders. b. schizophrenia. d. bipolar disorder.

When a patient comes in complaining of a headache, the therapist views the headache as the tip of a mental iceberg, with the real problem hidden in the deep unconscious. Which type of therapy would this represent? a. psychodynamic c. cognitive b. behavioral d. existential

Systematic desensitization would be considered a __________ therapy. a. behavior c. family b. cognitive d. humanist

Client-centered therapy was founded by a. Rogers. b. Wolpe.

c. d.

Adler. Jung.

Which of the following therapies focuses on a person’s free will to change and to self-actualize, rather than focusing on past conflicts? a. behavior c. humanist b. cognitive d. family

According to the latest research related to Critical Incident Stress Debriefing techniques, which of the following statements is correct? a. A traumatic experience almost always causes long-term PTSD. b. Venting negative emotions is cathartic. c. Early intervention helps prevent PTSD. d. Stress debriefing often increases a person’s anxiety following a trauma.

10.

Chapter 12 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Antipsychotic drugs do not generally reduce the jumbled thoughts, concentration difficulties, emotional flatness, or social withdrawal often seen in schizophrenics. (Page 406, Factual)

Rationale: Antidepressants are used primarily in the treatment of depression, anxiety, and phobias. (Page 406, Factual)

Rationale: The FDA currently warns against prescribing SSRIs to anyone under 18. (Page 409, Factual)

Rationale: The purpose of psychodynamic therapy is to delve into the deep, unconscious processes believed to be the source of the patient’s problems, rather than to concentrate on “superficial” symptoms and conscious beliefs. (Page 412, Applied)

Rationale: Systematic desensitization would be considered a type of behavior therapy. (Page 413, Factual)

Rationale: Some behavior therapists use operant conditioning techniques, modeling, and roleplaying to teach skills a client may lack. (Page 414, Applied)

Rationale: Client-centered (nondirective) therapy is a humanist approach devised by Carl Rogers. (Page 416, Factual)

Rationale: The humanist approach is positive and forward looking, emphasizing free will and growth toward self-actualization. (Page 416, Conceptual)

Rationale: Current research indicates that CISD techniques may increase anxiety symptoms. (Pages 421–422, Factual)

10.

Rationale: Cognitive and behavior therapies are highly successful in helping people cope with many health problems, including pain, chronic fatigue syndrome, headaches, and irritable bowel syndrome; quit smoking or overcome other addictions; recover from eating disorders such as bulimia and binge eating; overcome insomnia and improve their sleeping patterns. (Page 423, Factual)

Name _________________________________________________________________ Chapter 12 – Quick Quiz 2 1.

In an analysis of patients mentioned in your textbook, investigators found that the placebo effect accounted for more than ____ percent of the alleviation of symptoms of depression. a. 20 c. 80 b. 40 d. 100

Electroconvulsive therapy is used to alleviate a. anxiety. c. b. schizophrenia. d.

somatoform disorders. severe depression.

A technique that assumes it is impossible to be relaxed and anxious at the same time is a. systematic desensitization. c. conditioning. b. overgeneralization. d. free association.

Many humanist therapists would agree that _______________ is useful in treating psychological disorders. a. transference c. flooding b. dream analysis d. unconditional positive regard

All successful therapies, regardless of approach, share what key element? a. They all use some form of transference to identify underlying problems. b. They are able to replace a client’s self-defeating, pessimistic life narrative with one that is more hopeful or attainable. c. The therapists are scientific psychologists who rely on empirical research to determine the most effective technique for each client. d. The therapists remain neutral and detached so that the clients can project their own issues into the therapy session.

10.

_______________ is often more effective than medication in the treatment of panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. a. cognitive-behavior therapy c. family intervention therapy b. psychodynamic therapy d. humanist therapy

Chapter 12 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Lithium is often prescribed for people diagnosed with bipolar disorder. (Page 407, Factual)

Rationale: The placebo effect accounted for 80 percent of the alleviation of symptoms. (Pages 408–409, Factual)

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), or “shock therapy,” is used for the treatment of severe depression, although no one knows how or why it works. (Page 410, Factual)

Rationale: A major element of most psychodynamic therapies is “transference”, the client’s transfer (displacement) of emotional elements of his or her inner life—usually feelings about the client’s parents—outward onto the analyst. (Page 412, Applied)

Rationale: Systematic desensitization is based on counterconditioning, in which a stimulus that elicits fear or anxiety is paired with some other stimulus or situation that elicits a response incompatible with the undesirable one, such as relaxation. (Page 413, Factual)

Rationale: Carl Rogers and other humanist therapists believe in the importance of unconditional positive regard so that the client can increase his or her feelings of self-worth. (Page 416, Conceptual)

Rationale: Regardless of the specific methods used, all therapists want to motivate the client into wanting change. (Page 418, Factual)

Rationale: The therapeutic alliance, the bond between therapist and client, is a good predictor of successful therapy. (Page 419, Conceptual)

Rationale: EMDR, as it is called, is one of many new therapies trying to gain a foothold in a crowded market, many with no scientific support at all. (Page 421, Factual)

10.

Rationale: The results of studies that review the overall effectiveness of different therapeutic approaches for different disorders have shown that for many problems and most emotional disorders, cognitive and behavior therapies are the method of choice. Cognitive-behavior therapy is often more effective than medication in treating panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. (Pages 423, Factual)

Chapter 12 – APPROACHES TO TREATMENT AND THERAPY Multiple Choice Questions BIOLOGICAL TREATMENTS FOR MENTAL DISORDERS Learning Objectives 12.1 The types of medications used to treat psychological disorders 12.2 Six important cautions about medications for emotional problems 12.3 Ways of electrically stimulating the brain—and whether they work 1.

Which of the following best characterizes psychotherapy? a. a treatment approach that includes use of drugs b. a treatment approach that includes invasive brain interventions and family therapy c. a treatment approach that includes psychodynamic, cognitive and behavioral, and family therapies d. a treatment approach that includes an array of psychological and biological treatments Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 405 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Psychotherapy covers an array of psychological approaches, including psychodynamic, cognitive, behavioral, and family therapies. 2.

At this time, _________________ explanations and treatments for mental disorders are dominant. a. humanist b. biological c. behavioral d. psychodynamic Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: A combination of forces and interests have made biological explanations and treatments for mental disorders the most frequently used approach. 3.

Which treatment is MOST likely to be used today? a. drug therapy b. prefrontal lobotomy c. ECT d. in vitro therapy Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The most commonly used biological treatment is medication that alters the production of or response to neurotransmitters in the brain. % correct 91 a= 91 b= 1 c= 4 d= 5 r = .28 4.

Which of the following would be useful in reducing a patient’s agitation and delusions? a. an antipsychotic drug b. a tranquilizer c. lithium carbonate d. an antidepressant Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Antipsychotic drugs reduce agitation, delusions, and hallucinations and shorten schizophrenic episodes. % correct 90 a= 90 b= 3 c= 6 d= 0 r = .34 5.

Antipsychotic drugs are also known as a. tricyclics.

b. monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). c. neuroleptics. d. serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Antipsychotic drugs are also called neuroleptics. Antipsychotics have been shown to be ineffective for the treatment of: a. hallucinations. b. agitation. c. aggressive outbursts. d. delusions. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: Antipsychotics are not effective in the treatment of aggressive outbursts.

Page(s): 406 Answer: c

7. How do most antipsychotic drugs seem to work? a. reduce the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine b. cause more excitatory neurons to fire c. prevent serotonin and norepinephrine from being broken down d. block the activity of dopamine Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Because many psychoses are thought to be caused by an excess of the neurotransmitter dopamine, most antipsychotic drugs are designed to block or reduce the sensitivity of brain receptors that respond to dopamine. % correct 50 a= 33 b= 2 c= 15 d= 50 r = .34 8.

In his freshman year of college, Ronald began to behave irrationally and hear voices that were not really there. A psychiatrist diagnosed him as schizophrenic and prescribed a drug to reduce the psychosis Ronald was experiencing. The intended effect of the drug is likely to a. elevate the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain. b. block or reduce the sensitivity of dopamine receptors. c. increase dopamine activity in the brain. d. block the reuptake of norepinephrine by neurons. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Because many psychoses are thought to be caused by an excess of the neurotransmitter dopamine, most antipsychotic drugs are designed to block or reduce the sensitivity of brain receptors that respond to dopamine. 9.

Thorazine, Haldol, Clozaril, and Zyprexia are all drugs used to treat a. delusions of schizophrenia. b. generalized anxiety. c. the manic phase of bipolar disorder. d. the symptoms of hypochondriasis. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: All four drugs are antipsychotics: drugs that can reduce agitation, delusions, and hallucinations, and shorten schizophrenic episodes. 10.

An immediate side effect of some antipsychotic drugs is a. dementia. b. ADHD. c. extreme weight gain. d. aggressiveness.

Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Extreme weight gain is the immediate side effect of antipsychotic drugs.

Page(s): 406 Answer: c

11.

Which of the following people would likely benefit most from taking antipsychotic drugs? a. Zara, who is near death from starving herself b. Jonathan, who swings from mania to thoughts of suicide c. Josué, who has hallucinations and delusions d. Barbara, who has excessive worry and anxiety Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Antipsychotic drugs can reduce agitation, delusions, and hallucinations in schizophrenics. 12.

If Fergus takes _______________, it reduces his agitation and delusions, and shortens his schizophrenic episodes. a. one of the MAOIs (monoamine oxidase inhibitors), such as Nardil b. one of the neuroleptics, such as Zyprexa c. one of the SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors), such as Prozac d. one of the tranquilizers, such as Valium Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Neuroleptics is another name for antipsychotic drugs. 13.

Antipsychotic drugs offer little relief from which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia? a. jumbled thoughts b. agitation c. delusions d. hallucinations Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Antipsychotic drugs do not generally reduce the jumbled thoughts, concentration difficulties, emotional flatness, or social withdrawal often seen in schizophrenics. 14.

Which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia would not be relieved by antipsychotic drugs? a. emotional flatness b. agitation c. delusions d. the duration of schizophrenic episodes Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Antipsychotic drugs do not generally reduce the jumbled thoughts, concentration difficulties, emotional flatness, or social withdrawal often seen in schizophrenics. % correct 47 a= 47 b= 13 c= 26 d= 13 r = .19 15.

In a study mentioned in your text regarding people with aggressive outbursts, the group that received ___________ improved the most. a. Risperdal b. a placebo c. Haldol d. MAOIs Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The study followed 86 people, ages 18 to 65, who were given Risperdal, Haldol, or a placebo to treat their aggressive outbursts (Tyrer et al., 2008). The placebo group improved the most. 16.

An antidepressant drug would most likely be prescribed for

a. anxiety. b. schizophrenia. c. psychotic disorders. d. bipolar disorder. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Antidepressants are used primarily in the treatment of depression, anxiety, and phobias. 17.

Who would likely benefit most from taking antidepressant drugs? a. Zara, who is near death from starving herself b. Jonathon, who swings from mania to thoughts of suicide c. Josué, who has hallucinations and delusions d. Barbara, who experiences deep emotional despair Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Antidepressants are used primarily in the treatment of depression, anxiety, and phobias. 18.

A drug that elevates the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain by blocking an enzyme that deactivates these neurotransmitters would most likely be used to treat a. psychosis. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. bipolar disorder. d. depression. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: This is how monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), which are used in the treatment of depression, work. 19.

An antidepressant would NOT be prescribed for a. anxiety. b. phobias. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. bipolar disorder. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Antidepressant drugs are prescribed for anxiety, phobias, and obsessive-compulsive disorders, but they are not generally effective in treating bipolar disorder. 20.

_______________ are nonaddictive, but they can produce some unpleasant physical reactions, including dry mouth, headaches, constipation, nausea, gastrointestinal problems, weight gain, decreased sexual desire, and delayed orgasm. a. Antipsychotic drugs b. Tranquilizers c. Lithium carbonates d. Antidepressants Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: This is true of antidepressant drugs. 21.

_______________, such as Valium and Xanax, increase the activity of the neurotransmitter gammaaminobutyric acid (GABA). a. Antipsychotic drugs b. Tranquilizers c. Lithium carbonate d. Antidepressants Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407

Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Valium and Xanax are tranquilizers used to treat mild anxiety. % correct 60 a= 7 b= 60 c= 3 d= 30 r = .50

Answer: b

22.

Ever since she was mugged a month ago, Mona experiences acute anxiety when she leaves her apartment. Her doctor prescribes ______________ to temporarily reduce her anxiety, but he tells Mona that she may need to see a therapist because taking this type of drug over a long period is not the treatment of choice. a. an antipsychotic b. lithium carbonate c. a tranquilizer d. an antidepressant Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Tranquilizers may temporarily help individuals who are having an acute anxiety attack, but they are not considered the treatment of choice over a long period of time. 23.

A new drug that increases the activity of the neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is likely to a. be calming and reduce anxiety. b. reduce psychotic episodes. c. reduce feelings of sadness and improve mood d. reduce manic behaviors Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: This is how most tranquilizers have their calming effect.

Page(s): 407 Answer: a

24.

This class of drugs is primarily used to manage heart irregularities and hypertension and is sometimes prescribed to relieve acute anxiety. a. carbonates b. beta blockers c. MAOIs d. neuroleptics Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Beta blockers are used primarily used for heart irregularities and hypertension. 25.

When Kyle’s psychiatrist prescribes him a drug for his severe stage fright, he tells Kyle, “This drug is used primarily for heart and circulatory irregularities, and is not technically approved for treating anxiety, but I think it will help you.” The drug prescribed for Kyle is likely a a. beta blocker. b. MAOI. c. neuroleptic. d. SSRI. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Beta blockers are used primarily used for heart irregularities and hypertension, but are sometimes prescribed “off-label” for anxiety. 26.

People suffering from bipolar disorder often are helped by taking _______________, which may produce its effects by protecting brain cells from being overstimulated by another neurotransmitter, glutamate. a. an antipsychotic drug b. a tranquilizer c. lithium carbonate d. an antidepressant Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c

Rationale: Lithium carbonate is helpful in the treatment of bipolar disorder. % correct 48 a= 14 b=24 c= 48 d= 14 r = .22 27.

Which of the following has been fairly effective in treating bipolar disorders? a. cingulotomy b. valium c. lithium d. ECT Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Lithium carbonate is a drug frequently given to people suffering from bipolar disorder. % correct 69 a= 3 b= 10 c= 69 d= 18 r = .37 28.

_______________ must be given in exactly the right dose because too little will not help people who suffer from bipolar disorder and too much is toxic. a. Antipsychotic drugs b. Tranquilizers c. Lithium carbonate d. Antidepressants Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Because too much lithium can have toxic effects, the dosage must be carefully determined. 29.

Cecile fluctuates between deep depression, during which she will withdraw from family and friends, not eat, and feel hopeless, followed by mania, during which she shops continuously and engages in risky sexual behavior. Which of the following drugs would be most beneficial to Cecile? a. an antipsychotic b. a tranquilizer c. lithium carbonate d. an antidepressant Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Lithium is often prescribed for people diagnosed with bipolar disorder. 30.

Who would benefit most from taking lithium carbonate? a. Zara, who is near death from starving herself b. Jonathan, who swings from mania to thoughts of suicide c. Josué, who has hallucinations and delusions d. Barbara, who experiences excessive worry and anxiety Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Lithium is often prescribed for people diagnosed with bipolar disorder.

Page(s): 407 Answer: b

31.

The tendency for journals to publish studies that have positive findings rather than negative or ambiguous results is called a. confirmation bias. b. overreaching bias. c. publication bias. d. enterprise bias. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 408 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Publication bias is the tendency to publish studies that have positive findings rather than negative or ambiguous results. 32.

Sally is excited because she finds a study that found that a drug used to treat infections also reduces the symptoms of a disease that her mother suffers from. Why might Sally want to remain at least somewhat

skeptical of the study? a. Studies on the off-label use of drugs are not reliable. b. The majority of researchers who are studying the effectiveness of medication have financial ties to the pharmaceutical industry. c. The effectiveness of almost all drugs is due to the placebo effect. d. The results of most drug studies are intentionally falsified. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 408 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: A possible source of bias in many drug studies is the fact that the majority of researchers who are studying the effectiveness of medication have financial ties to the pharmaceutical industry. Studies that are independently funded often do not get the positive results that industry-funded drug trials do. 33.

Many people respond positively to a new drug just because of the enthusiasm surrounding it and their own expectations that the drug will make them feel better. This phenomenon is called the a. placebo effect. b. novelty bias. c. therapeutic window. d. publication bias. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 408 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The placebo affect is the apparent success of a medication or treatment that is due to the patients’ expectations. 34.

In an analysis of patients mentioned in your textbook, investigators found that the placebo effect accounted for more than ________ percent of the alleviation of symptoms of depression. a. 20 b. 40 c. 80 d. 100 Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 408–409 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: The placebo effect accounted for 80 percent of the alleviation of symptoms. 35.

A person may have short-term success with antipsychotic or antidepressant drugs, but at least half of patients stop taking them, largely because of the ________ of the medication. a. foul taste b. unpleasant side effects c. unproven effectiveness d. societal stigma Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 409 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: One-half to two-thirds of people stop taking antipsychotic and antidepressant medications because of their unpleasant side effects. % correct 80 a= 0 b= 80 c= 17 d= 3 r = .20 36.

Which of the following is true regarding medical and nonmedical treatments emotional and behavioral problems? a. Nonmedical treatments may often work just as well or better than drugs and other medical treatments. b. Medical treatments are almost always more effective than nonmedical. c. Nonmedical treatments are almost always better than drugs and other medical treatments. d. Insurance companies prefer to pay for nonmedical treatments, even though medical treatments may be equally effective. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 409 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The popularity of drugs and pressure from insurance companies cause many to disregard nonmedical treatments, even though the can work just as well or even better than medical treatments.

37.

Because it may increase the risk of suicidal thoughts and suicide attempts in adolescents, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration has cautioned against prescribing ___________ to anyone under the age of 18. a. antipsychotics b. Ritalin c. lithium carbonate d. SSRIs Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 409 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The FDA currently warns against prescribing SSRIs to anyone under 18. 38.

After a long period of controlled trials, the FDA approves a drug for the treatment of school-age boys with ADHD. Once it is approved, doctors are permitted to prescribe it a. only for school aged boys with a diagnosis of ADHD. b. for anyone diagnosed with ADHD. c. for other conditions, but only to school-aged boys. d. for other conditions and to populations other than school-aged boys. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 410 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Most consumers do not realize that once a drug is approved by the FDA doctors are permitted to prescribe it for different conditions and to populations other than those that were originally intended. 39.

In PET-scan studies, discussed in your textbook, of people with obsessive-compulsive disorder, among those who were taking the SSRI Prozac, the metabolism of glucose in a critical part of the brain decreased, suggesting that the drug was having a beneficial effect by calming that area. What can be concluded from this result? a. Only biological treatments can successfully treat OCD. b. SSRIs are not an effective treatment for OCD. c. The placebo effect must account for most of SSRIs’ success. d. SSRIs might be an effective treatment for OCD, but this does not mean that nonbiological treatments cannot have a similar effect on brain function. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 410 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Changing your behavior and thoughts through psychotherapy or other new experiences can also change the way your brain functions. The same brain changes were in fact seen in patients receiving CBT, and no medication. 40.

Electroconvulsive therapy is used to alleviate a. anxiety. b. schizophrenia. c. somatoform disorders. d. severe depression. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 410 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), or “shock therapy,” is used for the treatment of severe depression, although no one knows how or why it works. % correct 66 a= 9 b= 13 c= 11 d= 66 r = .54 41.

Which treatment is LEAST likely to be used today? a. drug therapy b. prefrontal lobotomy c. ECT d. behavior therapy Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 410 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Lobotomies—which, incredibly, were never assessed or validated scientifically—were performed

on more than 40,000 people in the United States. Tragically, lobotomies left many patients apathetic, withdrawn, and unable to care for themselves. % correct 92 a= 2 b= 92 c= 6 d= 0 r = .20 42.

In the 1950s, Terence had a procedure done to him where the doctor used an instrument to cut the nerve fibers connecting his prefrontal cortex to the rest of the brain. This procedure, called _____________, left him withdrawn and unable to care for himself. a. ECT b. deep brain surgery c. a lobotomy d. transcranial stimulation Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 410 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: This operation, called a prefrontal lobotomy, was supposed to reduce the patient’s emotional symptoms, but tragically, lobotomies left many patients apathetic, withdrawn, and unable to care for themselves. 43.

Balthazar’s depression is being treated through a procedure in which electrodes are placed on both sides of his head and a brief current is turned on. The current triggers a seizure that lasts about a minute, causing his body to convulse. His treatment is known as a. SSRI. b. MAO. c. ECT. d. PET. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 410 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: ECT, which stands for electroconvulsive therapy, is typically used to treat severe depression that does not respond to other forms of treatment. 44.

Electroconvulsive therapy has been used successfully to treat _______________ that has not responded to other treatments, but the effects are short lived. a. bipolar disorder b. severe depression c. schizophrenia d. obsessive-compulsive disorder Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 410-411 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: ECT, which stands for electroconvulsive therapy, is typically used to treat severe depression that does not respond to other forms of treatment. 45.

Researchers are now looking for new ways to stimulate the brains of severely depressed individuals. One method, called __________, involves the use of a pulsing coil held to a person’s skull at the left prefrontal cortex. a. psychosurgery b. neuroleptic shock treatment c. electroconvulsive therapy d. transcranial magnetic stimulation Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 411 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Transcranial magnetic stimulation involves the use of a pulsing magnetic coil held to a person’s skull at the left prefrontal cortex. 46.

This procedure requires surgery to implant electrodes into the brain and an embedded box under the collarbone. a. deep brain stimulation b. electroconvulsive therapy

c. prefrontal lobotomy d. transcranial magnetic stimulation Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: This procedure is called deep brain stimulation.

Page(s): 411 Answer: a

MAJOR SCHOOLS OF PSYCHOTHERAPY Learning Objectives 12.4 The major approaches to psychotherapy 12.5 How behavior therapists can help you change bad habits, and how cognitive therapists can help you get rid of self-defeating thoughts 12.6 Why humanist and existential therapists focus on the “here and now” instead of the “why and how” 12.7 The benefits of treating a whole family instead of only one of its members 47.

A therapist is interested in interpreting dreams and in having clients relate stories about her childhood. This therapist is most likely to be a a. client-centered therapist. b. psychodynamic therapist. c. cognitive therapist. d. behavior therapist. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This describes the traditional psychodynamic approach to therapy. 48.

Psychoanalysis was a therapy technique designed by a. Fritz Perls. b. Sigmund Freud. c. Carl Rogers. d. Alfred Adler. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Psychoanalysis is a theory of personality and a method of psychotherapy developed by Sigmund Freud. % correct 91 a= 2 b= 91 c= 2 d= 3 r = .32 49.

The originator of the famous “talking cure” in psychology was a. Sigmund Freud. b. Carl Rogers. c. John Watson. d. Albert Ellis. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Sigmund Freud was the father of the “talking cure,” as one of his patients called it. 50.

Maureen is in therapy because she is very frightened of her father and feels tongue-tied around him. After a few months she begins to feel frightened of her therapist also. According to Freud, this is an example of a. latency. b. interpretation. c. transference. d. sublimation. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: A major element of most psychodynamic therapies is “transference”, the client’s transfer

(displacement) of emotional elements of his or her inner life—usually feelings about the client’s parents— outward onto the analyst. % correct 90 a= 6 b= 1 c= 90 d= 3 r = .52 51.

What is the process by which a patient projects feelings about other individuals onto the psychoanalyst? a. resistance b. reactance c. countertransference d. transference Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: A major element of most psychodynamic therapies is “transference,” the client’s transfer (displacement) of emotional elements of his or her inner life—usually feelings about the client’s parents— outward onto the analyst. % correct 85 a= 2 b= 7 c= 7 d= 85 r = .36 52.

_______________ occurs when a client responds to her therapist with unconscious emotions or reactions, such as conflicts about her parents. a. Flooding b. Exposure treatment c. Transference d. Free association Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Transference occurs when a client displaces his emotions toward a parent or other significant person onto his or her therapist. 53.

A major element of all psychodynamic therapies, from Freudian to present forms, is a. flooding. b. systematic desensitization. c. skills training. d. transference. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Transference, which occurs when a client displaces his emotions toward a parent or other significant person onto his or her therapist, is a major element of most psychodynamic therapies. 54.

Murray is a bright student but he procrastinates. He puts off writing term papers and gets incompletes which eventually become Fs. After exploring his early childhood memories for almost a year, Murray comes to the insight that he procrastinates as a way of expressing unconscious anger toward his parents. The treatment method used to help Murray deal with his problem is a. psychodynamic therapy. b. behavior therapy. c. cognitive therapy. d. humanist therapy. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Psychodynamic therapy, tries to give patients insight into the unconscious reasons for their symptoms and unhappiness. 55.

Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The purpose of psychodynamic therapy is to delve into the deep, unconscious processes believed to be the source of the patient’s problems, rather than to concentrate on “superficial” symptoms and conscious beliefs. 56.

The focus of traditional psychoanalysis is on a. freeing patients from self-imposed limits. b. reducing unhealthy behaviors. c. exploring unconscious processes. d. coping with the inescapable realities of life. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Rationale: The focus of traditional psychoanalysis is understanding, not cure.

Page(s): 412 Answer: c

57.

Dr. Littleman is a therapist who calls her method “depth therapy” because her goal is to delve into the deep unconscious processes of her patients. Which type of therapist would she represent? a. psychodynamic b. behavioral c. cognitive d. existential Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Psychodynamic therapy, sometimes called depth therapy, tries to give patients insight into the unconscious reasons for their symptoms and unhappiness. 58.

A therapist’s goal is to delve into the unconscious processes of his patients. He is most likely to consider himself a practitioner of a. client-centered therapy. b. rational emotive therapy. c. depth therapy. d. existential therapy. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Psychodynamic therapy, sometimes called depth therapy, tries to give patients insight into the unconscious reasons for their symptoms and unhappiness. 59.

Sigmund Freud would agree that _______________ may be useful in treating a psychological disorder. a. systematic desensitization b. dream analysis c. flooding d. exposure treatment Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Freud believed that intensive analysis of dreams and childhood memories would give patients insight into the unconscious reasons for their symptoms. 60.

The proponents of _______________ therapies also refer to their methods as “depth” therapies. a. humanist b. psychodynamic c. behavior d. cognitive Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Psychodynamic therapy, sometimes called depth therapy, tries to give patients insight into the unconscious reasons for their symptoms and unhappiness.

61.

Laura has had many different jobs, but she always does something to get herself fired. After about fifteen therapy sessions, during which she explores her earliest memories, she has an insight. She comes to believe sabotaging her jobs is her way of expressing anger toward her father, who had always put his job before his family. What method of therapy is Laura most likely engaged in? a. psychodynamic therapy b. behavior therapy c. cognitive therapy d. humanist therapy Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Psychodynamic therapy traditionally involves a long process of analyzing dreams and early childhood memories to uncover the unconscious dynamics of personality, such as defenses and conflicts. 62.

Psychologists who practice behavioral therapy focus on a. uncovering the client’s unconscious anxieties. b. understanding the client’s relationships with his or her parents. c. the client’s methods of coping with inescapable realities of life. d. changing the client’s self-defeating or problematic behaviors. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Psychologists who practice behavior therapy use conditioning techniques to help people change self-defeating or problematic behaviors. 63.

A form of therapy that applies principles of classical conditioning to help people change self-defeating or problematic behaviors is called __________ therapy. a. psychodynamic b. humanist c. existential d. behavior Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Behavior therapy is based on the principles of classical conditioning and operant conditioning. 64.

Which method of treating a client with a phobia of spiders would be the most intense, if not terrifying, for the client? a. flooding b. graduated exposure c. systematic desensitization d. counterconditioning Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: With flooding, the client is taken directly into a feared situation until his or her panic subsides. Other exposure techniques use a slower process, where the situation is gradually made more intense. 65.

Which method of treating phobias involves progressive relaxation and exposure to the feared object (either actual or imagined)? a. extinction b. systematic desensitization c. punishment d. token economy Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Systematic desensitization is a step-by-step process of desensitizing in which the client learns to relax deeply while imagining or looking at a sequence of feared stimuli. % correct 98 a= 2 b= 98 c= 0 d= 0 r = .26

66.

Arranging anxiety-provoking situations in a hierarchy would be characteristic of a. behavioral contracting. b. operant conditioning. c. aversive conditioning. d. systematic desensitization. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In systematic desensitization, the client learns to relax deeply while imagining or looking at a sequence of feared stimuli, arranged in a hierarchy from the least frightening to the most frightening. % correct 74 a= 7 b= 12 c= 6 d= 74 r = .39 67.

Making someone who is afraid of snakes handle dozens of snakes in an effort to get him to overcome his fear is called a. systematic desensitization. b. aversive conditioning. c. flooding. d. paradoxical intent. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Flooding is a form of exposure treatment in which the client is taken directly into a feared situation until his or her panic subsides. % correct 86 a= 9 b= 4 c= 86 d= 0 r = .37 68.

A technique that assumes it is impossible to be relaxed and anxious at the same time is a. systematic desensitization. b. overgeneralization. c. conditioning. d. free association. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Systematic desensitization is based on counterconditioning, in which a stimulus that elicits fear or anxiety is paired with some other stimulus or situation that elicits a response incompatible with the undesirable one, such as relaxation. % correct 82 a= 82 b= 4 c= 3 d= 11 r = .35 69. Bill has always had a terrible fear of dogs that causes problems in his life. He tells you that his therapist is having him look at pictures of dogs while trying to remain relaxed. His next step will be to begin interacting with actual dogs and learning to remain relaxed. You might want to reassure him that __________ is often quite successful. a. skills training b. flooding therapy c. cognitive therapy d. systematic desensitization Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Systematic desensitization is a step-by-step process of slowly getting used to a feared object or experience. 70.

In behavior therapy, a method in which a person suffering from an anxiety disorder, such as a phobia or panic disorder, is gradually taken into the feared situation until the anxiety subsides is called a. transference. b. fear-reduction therapy. c. graduated exposure. d. cognitive therapy. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413

Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This describes graduated exposure.

Answer: c

71.

What is the goal of the technique known as graduated exposure? a. to uncover unconscious conflicts pertaining to a feared object b. to understand the family dynamic that contributed to the development of a fear c. to reverse the tendency to avoid fearful situations, objects, or upsetting memories d. to identify irrational ways of thinking that contribute to perpetuating the fear Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Exposure treatments are aimed at reversing the person’s fears, by exposure to the source of the fear. 72.

Systematic desensitization would be considered a __________ therapy. a. behavior b. cognitive c. family d. humanist Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Systematic desensitization would be considered a type of behavior therapy.

Page(s): 413 Answer: a

73.

Systematic desensitization is based on a. counterconditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. stimulus generalization. d. spontaneous recovery. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Systematic desensitization is based on the classical conditioning procedure of counterconditioning. It uses relaxation as a response incompatible with fear or anxiety to eliminate unwanted responses. % correct 93 a= 93 b= 3 c= 0 d= 3 r = .21 74.

Thanks to new computer technology, virtual reality devices permit behavior therapists to conduct _______________ in their offices. a. rational emotive behavior therapy b. transference c. systematic desensitization d. unconditional positive regard Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Exposure therapy and systematic desensitization can be conducted using virtual reality systems to generate realistic stimuli. 75.

Rhona’s therapist is attempting to treat her agoraphobia by riding the subway with her. The therapist is most likely doing this as part of a treatment known as a. skill training. b. rational emotive behavioral therapy. c. flooding. d. transference. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In flooding, the client is taken directly into a feared situation until his or her panic subsides. 76.

Cherise finds out that she is being transferred to an office located on the tenth floor of a building. The

problem is that she fears heights so much that she never goes above the third floor in any building. Her therapist teaches her how to relax deeply while imagining herself looking out over a balcony. As her therapy progresses, Cherise imagines herself on higher and higher floors. This technique is called a. systematic desensitization. b. rational emotive behavioral therapy. c. flooding. d. transference. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of the procedure used in systematic desensitization. 77.

One type of exposure treatment is called a. successive approximations. b. behavioral self-monitoring. c. aversive conditioning. d. flooding. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Flooding is a somewhat more dramatic form of exposure than graduated exposure. In flooding, the client is taken directly into a feared situation until his or her panic subsides. 78.

Which of the behavioral therapy techniques requires clients to keep careful data on the frequency and the consequences of the behavior to be changed? a. behavioral self-monitoring b. counter conditioning c. skills training d. graduated exposure Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413–414 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Behavioral self-monitoring requires clients to keep a diary on the frequency and the consequences of the behavior to be changed, so that unwanted behavior can be identified along with the reinforcers that maintain it; then, a treatment program is designed. 79.

Don’s therapist has directed him to document on a daily basis the times, places, and conditions under which he goes to smoke a cigarette. Don discovers that he often ends up smoking outside his office building with his boss and enjoys the chance to chat with her. The therapist explains to Don that these conversations are considered to be a. a kind of counterconditioning. b. therapeutic. c. unhealthy. d. reinforcers. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413–414 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: One goal of behavioral self-monitoring is to identify reinforcers that help to maintain unwanted behaviors. 80.

Lucinda frequently finds herself frequently getting upset and yelling at her husband, coworkers, and friends. What therapeutic technique would start with having Lucinda keep a record of when, where, and with whom she loses her temper? a. behavioral self-monitoring b. counterconditioning c. skills training d. flooding Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413–414 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Behavioral self-monitoring involves the client keeping careful data on the behavior to be changed.

81.

With which of the behavioral therapy techniques are the concepts of modeling and role-playing most likely to be found? a. behavioral self-monitoring b. counterconditioning c. skills training d. flooding Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 414 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Some behavior therapists use operant conditioning techniques, modeling, and role-playing to teach the skills a client may lack. 82.

Most of Dakota’s therapy sessions involve his therapist demonstrating desired behaviors and having him play out various roles found in situations related to his disorder. This type of therapy is called __________ therapy. a. rational emotive behavior b. exposure c. skills training d. client-centered Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 414 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Some behavior therapists use operant conditioning techniques, modeling, and role-playing to teach skills a client may lack. 83.

A form of therapy designed to identify and change irrational, unproductive ways of thinking and hence reduce negative emotions and their behavioral consequences is called __________ therapy. a. psychodynamic b. behavior c. cognitive d. humanist Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: A form of therapy designed to identify and change irrational, unproductive ways of thinking and hence reduce negative emotions and their behavioral consequences is called cognitive therapy. 84.

Murray is a bright student, but he procrastinates. He puts off writing term papers and gets incompletes which eventually become Fs. Murray’s therapist has Murray write down his thoughts about work, read the thoughts as if someone else had said them, and then write a rational response to each one. The treatment method used to help Murray deal with his problem is a. psychodynamic therapy. b. behavior therapy. c. cognitive therapy. d. humanist therapy. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Cognitive therapy is designed to identify and change irrational and unproductive ways of thinking. 85.

Cognitive models of therapy tend to focus on a. corrective emotional experiences. b. changing thinking processes. c. removing symptoms. d. fulfilling one's potential. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Cognitive therapies are designed to identify and change irrational, unproductive ways of thinking. % correct 90 a= 2 b= 90 c= 6 d= 2 r = .22

86.

_______________ would be most likely to encourage a client to test her beliefs against the evidence, because depression is often caused by misinformation and unproductive beliefs. a. Aaron Beck b. B. F. Skinner c. Carl Rogers d. Sigmund Freud Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Aaron Beck’s form of cognitive therapy involves having a client test his or her own beliefs against the evidence. 87.

Albert Ellis is best known as a _______ therapist. a. Gestalt b. rational emotive c. family d. group Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT) is a form of cognitive therapy devised by Albert Ellis, designed to challenge the client’s unrealistic or irrational thoughts. % correct 55 a= 24 b= 55 c= 3 d= 18 r = .33 88.

The originator of rational emotive therapy is a. Bandura. b. Perls. c. Rogers. d. Ellis. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT) is a form of cognitive therapy devised by Albert Ellis, designed to challenge the client’s unrealistic or irrational thoughts. % correct 51 a= 10 b= 24 c= 15 d= 51 r = .39 89.

The technique invented by Albert Ellis, known as ______________, is a form of cognitive therapy. a. transference b. rational emotive therapy c. psychoanalysis d. unconditional positive regard Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Rational emotive therapy is a form of cognitive therapy devised by Albert Ellis. 90.

Dr. Skelly is a rational emotive behavior therapist. When his client says that she is totally incompetent and worthless, Dr. Skelly would most likely respond a. “That is misguided logic. Even if you did earn a D in chemistry, what is the worst thing that will happen because of one bad grade?” b. “Please say whatever comes into your mind as you think about your grade, going back and beginning from the comments your parents made about the D.” c. “All the attention that you’ve been getting from others when you say you are incompetent has been rewarding. Wear a rubber band on your wrist and snap it whenever you feel incompetent.” d. “The underlying issue is your need to explore the meaning of your existence and face with courage the great issues of loneliness and meaninglessness.” Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Rational emotive behavior therapy is designed to challenge the client’s unrealistic or irrational

thoughts. 91.

Which of the approaches to therapy concerns itself with a client’s tendency to overgeneralize? a. behavioral self-monitoring b. systematic desensitization c. rational emotive behavior therapy d. flooding Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Rational emotive behavior therapy was devised by Albert Ellis, who pointed out that people who are emotionally upset often overgeneralize. 92.

_______________ would be most likely to challenge the client’s thoughts directly, showing him why certain thoughts are irrational and misguided. a. B. F. Skinner b. Albert Ellis c. Carl Rogers d. Sigmund Freud Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Albert Ellis is well known for designing rational emotive therapy in which a client's thoughts are directly challenged. 93.

Most behavior and cognitive therapists are interested in a. the unconscious past. b. painful anxieties and concerns. c. the future direction of one’s life path. d. current behaviors, beliefs, and perceptions. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415–416 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Most behavioral and cognitive therapists believe that thoughts and behavior influence each other, which is why cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT) is more common than either cognitive or behavior therapy alone. 94.

Some cognitive-behavioral therapists have begun to question the goal of changing a client’s self-defeating thoughts. They argue that it is difficult if not impossible to get rid of unwanted thoughts and feelings, especially when people have been rehearsing them for years. This idea was inspired, at least in part, by a. the writings of Sigmund Freud. b. the modernist philosophers. c. the postmodernist philosophers. d. Eastern philosophies. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: A form of CBT based on “mindfulness” and “acceptance,” as opposed to changing clients, was inspired by Eastern philosophies, such as Buddhism. 95.

Dr. Feldman is a cognitive-behavioral therapist whose approach to helping clients has been greatly influenced by Buddhism. It is likely that his therapeutic approach is based on the concepts of a. metamorphosis and rebirth. b. mindfulness and acceptance. c. immortality and reincarnation. d. hope and change. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: A form of CBT based on “mindfulness” and “acceptance,” as opposed to changing clients, was inspired by Eastern philosophies, such as Buddhism.

96.

A therapist whose approach is based on the concept of mindfulness and acceptance is likely to tell a client, a. “Let’s not try to get rid of your negative thoughts. Instead, let’s figure out how you can cope with them.” b. “Let’s try to change your irrational ways of thinking by teaching you to better accept disappointment.” c. “You’ll never be able to speak in front of a group, so you might as well accept it.” d. “You should be more accepting and less judgmental of the other people in your life.” Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: With this approach, clients learn to explicitly identify and accept whatever negative thoughts and feelings arise, without trying to eradicate them or letting them derail healthy behavior. They can then focus on coping techniques to mitigate the effects of the thoughts and feelings on their lives. 97.

Becky’s therapist is trying to help her feel better about herself and free herself from self-imposed limits. What sort of therapy is Becky most likely undergoing? a. behavior therapy b. cognitive therapy c. humanist therapy d. family therapy Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Humanistic therapists believe the goal is to help clients free themselves of self-imposed limits. 98.

Client-centered therapy was founded by a. Rogers. b. Wolpe. c. Adler. d. Jung. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Client-centered (nondirective) therapy is a humanist approach devised by Carl Rogers. % correct 62 a= 62 b= 19 c= 17 d= 2 r = .46 99.

The term "unconditional positive regard" is associated with a. Fritz Perls. b. Sigmund Freud. c. Carl Rogers. d. B. F. Skinner. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: In client-centered (nondirective) therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, the therapist’s role is to listen to the client’s needs in an accepting, nonjudgmental way and to offer what Rogers called unconditional positive regard. % correct 83 a= 12 b= 3 c= 83 d= 2 r = .54 100.

Murray is a bright student but he procrastinates. He puts off writing term papers and gets incompletes which eventually become Fs. Murray’s _______________ therapist assumes that Murray’s procrastination masks his low self-regard, and that he is out of touch with his real feelings. a. psychodynamic b. behavior c. cognitive d. humanist Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Humanist therapy emphasizes the client’s free will to change rather than past conflicts. Whatever the client’s specific complaint is, the goal of many humanistic therapists is to build the client’s self-esteem and

self-acceptance and help the client find a more productive way of seeing his or her problems. 101.

Many humanist therapists would agree that _______________ is useful in treating psychological disorders. a. transference b. dream analysis c. flooding d. unconditional positive regard Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Carl Rogers and other humanist therapists believe in the importance of unconditional positive regard so that the client can increase his or her feelings of self-worth. 102.

__________ therapy emphasizes people’s free will to change and aims to help them develop the confidence and positive self-regard to do so. a. Behavior b. Humanist c. Cognitive d. Family Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Humanist therapy emphasizes people’s free will to change. 103.

Julie’s therapist tells her in their first session, “My aim is to help you build your self-esteem and sense of self-acceptance and help you to find a more productive way of seeing your problems.” Julie’s therapist sounds like she operates from which of the following therapeutic perspectives? a. psychodynamic therapy b. rational emotive behavior therapy c. cognitive therapy d. client-centered therapy Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In client-centered therapy, the therapist’s role is to listen to the client’s needs in an accepting, nonjudgmental way and offer unconditional positive regard. 104.

Which of the following therapies focuses on a person’s free will to change and to self-actualize, rather than focusing on past conflicts? a. behavior b. cognitive c. humanist d. family Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The humanist approach is positive and forward looking, emphasizing free will and growth toward self-actualization. 105.

_______________ emphasized the importance of the therapist’s warmth and empathy, an idea now endorsed by many therapists. a. Sigmund Freud b. Carl Rogers c. Albert Ellis d. Aaron Beck Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Unconditional positive regard and empathy are key elements in Carl Rogers’s client-centered therapy.

106.

Murray is a bright student, but he procrastinates. He puts off writing term papers and gets incompletes which eventually become Fs. Murray’s _______________ therapist helps him realize that he has the power to choose his own destiny and must assume responsibility for his life predicaments. The therapist helps him think about his procrastination and his life goals. a. psychodynamic b. behavior c. cognitive d. existential Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Existential therapists help clients explore the meaning of existence and face the great questions of life. Like humanist therapists, they believe that our lives are not inevitably determined by our pasts or our circumstances; we have the power and free will to choose our own destinies. % correct 80 a= 3 b= 0 c= 16 d= 80 r = .56 107.

The type of therapist who is most likely to help clients explore the meaning of their lives and to bravely examine death, freedom, free will, and other such topics is a(n) __________ therapist. a. client-centered b. humanist c. cognitive d. existential Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Existential therapists help clients explore the meaning of existence and face the great questions of life, such as death, freedom, alienation, and loneliness. 108.

Dr. Rodriguez believes that his clients have the free will determine their own destinies, and that his job as a therapist is to help them learn to cope with the inescapable realities of life and death. Dr. Rodriguez would be best described as a(n) _____________ therapist. a. psychodynamic b. humanist c. existential d. cognitive Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Existential therapists help clients explore the meaning of existence and face the great questions of life, such as death, freedom, alienation, and loneliness. 109.

Sam has been feeling depressed because he feels like his life is meaningless. He wants to find a therapist who will help him explore the meaning of life and help him cope with the inescapable realities of life. Sam should do a search for someone who practices _______________ therapy. a. existential b. humanist c. psychodynamic d. cognitive Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Existential therapists help clients explore the meaning of existence and face the great questions of life, such as death, freedom, alienation, and loneliness. 110.

_______________ maintains that a client’s problems develop in the context of family, are sustained by family interactions, and that any change made by the client will affect all the family members. a. Salvador Minuchin b. Carl Rogers c. Albert Ellis

d. Sigmund Freud Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 417 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Minuchin compared the family to a kaleidoscope, a changing pattern of mosaics in which the pattern is larger than any one piece. 111.

A family therapist would be most likely to agree that a. family members need to be taught to provide one another with unconditional positive regard. b. efforts to isolate and treat one member of a family, without the other family members, are doomed. c. behavioral contracts and skills training are necessary tools to heal the wounded member of a family. d. Problems in a family can usually be traced to a single, troubled individual. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 417 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Family therapists view efforts to treat one family member alone, without the rest of the family, as likely to be unproductive. 112.

Sally's therapist wants her to bring her parents and siblings to counseling sessions with her. Sally is going through a. social skills training. b. family therapy. c. assertiveness training. d. client-centered therapy. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 417 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: A view shared by many family therapists is that efforts to isolate and treat one member of the family without the others are doomed. Only if all family members reveal their differing perceptions of each other can mistakes and misperceptions be identified. % correct 93 a= 0 b= 93 c= 0 d= 7 r = .26 113.

Which view is consistent with the family-systems perspective? a. A person’s behavior in a family is tied to the behavior of all the other family members. b. Therapy cannot be attempted unless it is possible to treat everyone in the family. c. Dysfunctional families are usually caused by a single family member. d. Families will always support a family member who makes a change to improve themselves. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 417 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The family-systems perspective recognizes that people’s behavior in a family is as interconnected as that of two dancers. Even when it is not possible to treat everyone in a family, this approached can be used to identify how each member forms part of a larger system. 114.

The _______________ school of therapy has, as one of its primary goals, insight into unconscious motives and feelings. a. humanist

b. behavioral c. psychodynamic d. cognitive Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 418 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The primary goal of psychodynamic therapy is insight into the unconscious motives and feelings of a client. 116.

The _______________ school of therapy has, as one of its primary goals, modification of irrational or unvalidated beliefs. a. humanist b. behavioral c. cognitive d. psychodynamic Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 418 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The primary goal of cognitive therapy is the modification of irrational and unvalidated beliefs. 117.

The _______________ school of therapy has, as one of its primary goals, modification of self-defeating behaviors. a. humanist b. behavioral c. cognitive d. psychodynamic Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 418 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The primary goal of behavior therapy is modification of self-defeating behaviors. 118.

The _______________ school of therapy has, as one of its primary goals, self-acceptance and selffulfillment. a. humanist b. behavioral c. cognitive d. psychodynamic Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 418 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The primary goals of humanist therapy are insight, self-acceptance, and self-fulfillment and the development of new, optimistic perceptions of the self and the world. 119.

The _______________ school of therapy has, as one of its primary goals, finding meaning in life. a. psychodynamic b. existential c. cognitive d. psychodynamic Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 418 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The primary goals of existential therapy are finding meaning in life and accepting inevitable losses. 120.

A recent survey in your text found that the majority of the psychotherapists surveyed listed this therapist as the most influential their practice. a. Sigmund Freud b. Abraham Maslow c. B. F. Skinner d. Carl Rogers Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 418 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d

Rationale: At least two thirds mentioned Carl Rogers as the most influential.

EVALUATING PSYCHOTHERAPY Learning Objectives 12.8 The meaning of the “scientist–practitioner gap” and why it has been widening 12.9 Which form of psychotherapy is most likely to help if you are anxious or depressed 12.10 Why psychotherapy can sometimes be harmful 121.

The bond of confidence and mutual understanding established between therapist and client, which allows them to work together to solve the client’s problems, is called a. unconditional positive regard. b. the therapeutic alliance. c. the scientist–practitioner gap. d. the client-therapist relationship. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 419 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The bond of confidence and mutual understanding established between therapist and client, which allows them to work together to solve the client’s problems, is called therapeutic alliance. 122.

After seeing her therapist for a month, Kenya feels that they share a bond based on mutual understanding that is helping her work through her problems. This bond is referred to as a. unconditional positive regard. b. the therapeutic alliance. c. the scientist–practitioner gap. d. the client-therapist relationship. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 419 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The bond of confidence and mutual understanding established between therapist and client, which allows them to work together to solve the client’s problems, is called therapeutic alliance. 123.

Which of the following is generally more important than the specific technique a therapist uses in determining the success of psychotherapy? a. how long the therapy lasts b. the insight that the therapy provides the client c. the bond between the therapist and the client d. whether the therapist and client are matched by gender Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 419 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The therapeutic alliance, the bond between therapist and client, is a good predictor of successful therapy. 124.

A cultural mismatch between client and therapist can sometimes be a problem because a. transference cannot take place if the client and therapist are from different cultures. b. the use of a language translator violates client-patient confidentiality. c. it may lead to misunderstandings based on cultural differences. d. studies show that most psychological problems are culture-bound syndromes. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 419 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Sometimes cultural differences can cause misunderstandings resulting from ignorance or prejudice. 125.

Regan is Irish-American and her therapist is familiar with Irish cultural patterns. When Regan expresses an intense feeling of inner guilt, her therapist responds a. by suggesting that she keeps a behavior log to determine the cause of this inner guilt. b. by asking her to free associate to other situations that led to this feeling.

c. by helping her tolerate this inner guilt rather than trying to get rid of it. d. by challenging her statement and explaining why it is irrational to feel guilty. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 419–420 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Irish-Americans typically hold deeply ingrained beliefs arising from Irish history and religious beliefs that are unlikely to be changed in therapy. The therapist needs to understand this and help the client to understand and live with these beliefs. 126.

In many ways, the scientist–practitioner gap centers around which of the following questions? a. Can the effectiveness of psychotherapy be studied scientifically? b. Should therapists be allowed to use their patients in scientific experiments? c. Should psychology researchers all be required to be trained as therapists? d. Should therapists be required to use a control group when treating patients? Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 420 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Many psychotherapists believe that trying to evaluate psychotherapy using standard empirical methods is an exercise in futility, while psychological scientists argue that therapy can be scientifically investigated, just like any other complex psychological process such as the development of language or personality. 127.

Over the years, the breach between scientists and therapists has widened, creating what is commonly called the scientist–practitioner gap. One reason for the growing split has been the a. competition between psychiatrists and psychologists for clients. b. proliferation of new therapies that have no scientific basis at all. c. decrease in professional schools that train students solely to do therapy. d. competition between scientists and therapists for funding. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 421 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The problem is that many of the new therapies do not have scientific support. 128.

Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing, originated by Francine Shapiro, a. has been supported by extensive case study research. b. has been supported by correlational research. c. has been supported by experimental research. d. has no empirical evidence that it does anything beyond standard exposure treatments. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 421 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: EMDR, as it is called, is one of many new therapies trying to gain a foothold in a crowded market, many with no scientific support at all. 129.

Yani has spent the last five years receiving traditional psychoanalysis. How is the concept of “justification of effort” likely to affect his response when his friend asks Yani whether he would recommend this type of therapy? a. It will make Yani less likely to recommend it. b. It will make Yani more likely to recommend it. c. It will have no effect on Yani because he has been seeing the therapist for so long. d. It will make Yani recommend psychoanalysis, but with a different therapist. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 421 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: People who have put time, money, and effort into something will tell you it was worth it, in order to justify their investment. 130.

c. Early intervention helps prevent PTSD. d. Stress debriefing often increases a person’s anxiety following a trauma. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 421–422 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Current research indicates that CISD techniques may increase anxiety symptoms. 131.

Cognitive therapy’s greatest success has been in the treatment of a. schizophrenia. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. mood disorders. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 422 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Cognitive therapy is helpful for many problems, but its greatest success has been in the treatment of mood disorders, especially depression. 132.

_______________ is/are more effective than any other treatment for agoraphobia. a. Exposure techniques b. Cognitive therapy c. Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing d. Family intervention therapy Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 422 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Exposure techniques are more effective than any other treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder, agoraphobia, and specific phobias such as fear of dogs or flying. 133.

_______________ is/are usually all that is necessary in effectively treating phobias such as fear of dogs or flying. a. Exposure techniques b. Cognitive therapy c. Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing d. Family intervention therapy Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 422 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Exposure therapy is especially useful for treating specific phobias. 134.

_______________ is/are more effective than any other treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder. a. Exposure techniques b. Cognitive therapy c. Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing d. Family intervention therapy Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 422 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Exposure therapy is more effective than any other treatment for PTSD. 135.

_______________ is often more effective than medication in the treatment of panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. a. Cognitive-behavior therapy b. Psychodynamic therapy c. Family intervention therapy d. Humanist therapy Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 422–423 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The results of studies that review the overall effectiveness of different therapeutic approaches for different disorders have shown that for many problems and most emotional disorders, cognitive and behavior therapies are the method of choice. Cognitive-behavior therapy is often more effective than medication in

treating panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. 136.

_______________ is successful in reducing chronic anger, abusiveness, and hostility. a. Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing b. Cognitive therapy c. Systematic desensitization d. Exposure therapy Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 423 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: For many problems and most emotional disorders, cognitive therapy are the method of choice. Cognitive therapy is particularly helpful for treating anger and impulsive violence. 137.

_______________ are highly successful in helping people to cope with pain, chronic fatigue syndrome, headaches, or irritable bowel syndrome. a. Systematic desensitization and exposure techniques b. Cognitive therapy and behavior therapy c. Psychodynamic therapy and humanist therapy d. Family intervention therapy and behavioral skills training Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 423 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Cognitive and behavior therapies are highly successful in helping people cope with many health problems, including pain, chronic fatigue syndrome, headaches, and irritable bowel syndrome; quitting smoking or overcoming other addictions; recovering from eating disorders such as bulimia and binge eating; overcoming insomnia and improving their sleeping patterns. 138.

_______________ are highly successful in helping people quit smoking or overcome other addictions. a. Systematic desensitization and exposure techniques b. Cognitive therapy and behavior therapy c. Psychodynamic therapy and humanist therapy d. Family intervention therapy and behavioral skills training Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 423 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Cognitive and behavior therapies are highly successful in helping people cope with many health problems, including pain, chronic fatigue syndrome, headaches, and irritable bowel syndrome; quitting smoking or overcoming other addictions; recovering from eating disorders such as bulimia and binge eating; overcoming insomnia and improving their sleeping patterns. 139.

Georgina’s treatment for bulimia and binge eating has been highly successful. It is most likely that her treatment involved a combination of a. cognitive therapy and behavior therapy. b. psychodynamic therapy and humanist therapy. c. family intervention therapy and behavioral skills training. d. systematic desensitization and exposure techniques. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 423 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Cognitive and behavior therapies are highly successful in treating people with eating disorders. 140.

Melcia’s parents were surprised to learn that _______________ therapy is the most likely to be effective in the treatment of their daughter, even though her disorder, autism, has biological origins. a. psychodynamic b. humanist c. cognitive d. behavior Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 423 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Behavior therapy is the most effective treatment for behavior problems that range from bed-

wetting to impulsive anger, and even for problems that have biological origins, such as autism. 141.

Webster’s parents are pleased that the therapy for his bed-wetting has been so successful. Webster was treated by a __________ therapist, which has been demonstrated to be the most effective approach for this problem. a. family intervention b. cognitive c. behavior d. psychodynamic Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 423 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: A behavior therapist would be the most likely to help a child that has difficulty with bed-wetting. 142.

A therapeutic intervention called multisystemic therapy has been successful in reducing teen violence, criminal activity, and drug abuse. The intervention combines which two therapies? a. cognitive and behavioral b. cognitive and humanistic c. family systems and behavioral d. family systems and cognitive Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 423 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: MST combines family systems techniques with behavioral methods and applies them by forming “neighborhood partnerships” with local leaders, residents, parents, and teachers to help prevent or reduce teenagers’ problems. 143.

What does the case of 10-year-old Candace Newmaker, who underwent “rebirthing therapy,” illustrate? a. the surprising success of rebirthing and other attachment therapies b. how silly some therapeutic techniques seem today c. the potential for coercive therapists to create new symptoms d. that the use of empirically unsupported, potentially dangerous techniques can be deadly Section: Psychology in the News: Revisited Page(s): 424 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Candace Newmaker was killed during the rebirthing process, a technique with no scientific support. 144.

Therapist influence, and sometimes coercion, is believed to be responsible for the huge number of people diagnosed in the 1980s and 1990s with a. depression. b. schizophrenia. c. multiple personality disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 425 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Undue therapist influence is the likely reason for the huge numbers of people diagnosed with multiple personality disorder in the 1980s and 1990s and for the epidemic of recovered memories of sexual abuse. 145.

Which of the following is true about “reparative” therapies, whose goals are to turn homosexuals into heterosexuals? a. They have been shown effective. b. There is no reliable evidence that supports their effectiveness. c. They have been shown effective for homosexual men, but not homosexual women. d. They have been shown effective for homosexual women, but not homosexual men. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 425 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: There is no reliable empirical evidence supporting these claims, and both the American

Psychological Association and the American Psychiatric Association oppose reparative therapies on ethical and scientific grounds. 146.

The authors recommend that consumers who are thinking about psychotherapy should remember that a. the credentials and training of the therapist should be checked to make sure you are dealing with a reputable individual. b. half of all people in therapy improve within two to three sessions, and so if you have made a real effort over three weeks but show no improvement, you may decide it is time to leave therapy. c. if you want to discuss your life with a wise and empathic person, then you should look for a psychoanalyst. d. if you are coping with chronic health problems, it is best to seek a biological therapist so that drugs can be prescribed. Section: Psychology in the News Page(s): 426 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The word psychotherapist is unregulated; anyone can set up any kind of program and call it “therapy.” In the United States and Canada, people can get credentialed as “experts” in various techniques and therapies simply by attending a weekend seminar or a training program lasting a week or two. 147.

When choosing a self-help book, consumers should a. look for authors who are confident enough to assure change. b. make sure the program it promotes has been empirically tested. c. make sure that subliminal tapes are included for night-time learning. d. look for an author who includes many anecdotes showing the success of the program. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 427 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: One of the characteristics to look for in choosing a self-help book is a program which has been empirically tested.

True-False Questions 1. Antipsychotic drugs also are called neuroleptics. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

If a person is suffering from schizophrenia, then a neuroleptic, such as Zyprexa, would be an appropriate drug used in treatment. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 3. Antipsychotic drugs are no longer being prescribed "off label" for people with nonpsychotic disorders. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Antipsychotic drugs are increasingly being prescribed “off label” for people with nonpsychotic disorders, such as major depression, bipolar disorder, autism, attention deficit disorder, and dementia. 4. Neuroleptics block or reduce the sensitivity of brain receptors that respond to dopamine. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 5.

Antipsychotic drugs targeted for children and the elderly often carry unacceptable risks for these very groups.

Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

Antipsychotic drugs offer schizophrenics relief by eliminating jumbled thoughts, difficulty concentrating, and the inability to interact with others. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Antipsychotic drugs generally do not eliminate jumbled thoughts, difficulty concentrating, or the inability to interact with others. 7. Antidepressants are sometimes prescribed for those suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 8. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are used primarily in the treatment of schizophrenia. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: MAOIs are used to treat depression. 9. Antidepressants are addictive. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Rationale: Antidepressant drugs are nonaddictive.

Answer: False

10.

If a person is experiencing mild anxiety, then a tranquilizer, such as Valium, would be an appropriate drug used in treatment. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 11.

A significant number of people who take tranquilizers, such as Valium or Xanax, overuse the drugs and develop problems with withdrawal and tolerance. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 12. Beta blockers are approved for anxiety disorders and athletic performance. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Beta blockers are not approved for anxiety disorders or athletic performance. 13. A salt, called lithium carbonate, often helps people who suffer from bipolar disorder. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 14. Lithium carbonate produces its effects by preventing the normal reuptake of serotonin. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Lithium may produce its effects by moderating levels of norepinephrine or by protecting brain cells from being overstimulated by glutamate. 15.

If a person is suffering from bipolar disorder, then an antidepressant, such as Prozac, would be an appropriate drug used in treatment.

Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Factual Rationale: Bipolar disorder is usually treated with lithium carbonate.

Answer: False

16.

The placebo effect occurs when the success of a treatment is due to the patient’s expectations rather than to the chemical properties of the drug. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 408 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 17. Research indicates that much of the effectiveness of antidepressants is due to the placebo effect. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 408–409 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 18.

About half to two-thirds of the patients taking antipsychotic or antidepressant drugs stop taking them, often due to the unpleasant side effects. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 409 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 19. Portuguese neurologist Egas Moniz won a Nobel Prize for inventing the prefrontal lobotomy operation. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 410 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 20.

Prefrontal lobotomy procedures were performed extensively in Europe but were not frequent procedures in the United States. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 410 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Psychosurgery was widespread in the United States. 21.

Electroconvulsive therapy involves the use of a pulsing magnetic coil held to the depressed person’s skull at the left prefrontal cortex. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 410–411 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a description of transcranial magnetic stimulation. 22. Freud believed that with insight and emotional release, his patient’s symptoms would disappear. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 23. A psychodynamic therapist would terminate therapy if a client reported that she had fallen in love with him. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is an example of transference, a major element in psychodynamic therapy. 24.

Behavioral therapists argue that unconscious expectations and habits, established in early relations with important family members, reproduce themselves in adult relationships. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is descriptive of psychodynamic, not behavioral, therapy. 25. Systematic desensitization is based on the principles of operant conditioning. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy

Page(s): 413 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Systematic desensitization is based on counterconditioning, a classical conditioning procedure. 26.

Exposure treatments require clients who are suffering from specific anxieties to confront the feared situation or memory directly. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 27. Behavioral self-monitoring and skills training are techniques used in behavior therapy. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413–414 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 28.

Cognitive therapy is designed to identify and change irrational, unproductive ways of thinking and hence to reduce negative emotions. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 29.

Rational emotive therapists challenge unrealistic beliefs and the tendency to overgeneralize when emotionally upset. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 30. Rational emotive behavior therapy emphasizes the client’s free will to change. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Factual Rationale: Humanist therapy, not REBT, emphasizes free will.

Answer: False

31. In client-centered therapy, the therapist provides empathy and unconditional positive regard to the client. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 32. The most successful therapists are able to stay detached from their clients, in the manner of Freud. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 419 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The most successful therapists are those who make their clients feel respected, accepted, and understood. 33.

In establishing a bond with clients, therapists must distinguish normal cultural patterns from individual psychological problems. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 419 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 34.

Randomized studies with people who have been through terrible experiences found that posttraumatic interventions can delay recovery in some people. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 422 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 35.

Many therapists are unaware of their prejudices, yet they express them in nonverbal ways that make the client feel ignored or disrespected.

Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 425 Rationale: Statement of fact.

Type: Factual

Answer: True

36. A therapist may inadvertently create new disorders in the client through undue influence or suggestion. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 424–425 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact 37.

Self-help groups can be reassuring and supportive in ways that family, friends, and psychotherapists sometimes may not be able. Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 427 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact.

Short Answer Questions 1.

What symptoms of schizophrenia are reduced by antipsychotic medications? Which symptoms are not relieved by these medications? Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406 Type: Factual Answer: Antipsychotics reduce agitation, delusions, and hallucinations and shorten schizophrenic episodes. They offer little relief from such symptoms as jumbled thoughts, difficulty concentrating, apathy, emotional flatness, or inability to interact with others. 2.

Tranquilizers are the drugs most often prescribed by physicians for patients who complain of depressed mood, panic, and anxiety. What is the problem with the use of tranquilizers by such patients? Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 407 Type: Conceptual Answer: Tranquilizers may temporarily treat the symptoms, but the symptoms almost always return when the medication is stopped. When overused, tranquilizers often lead to problems with tolerance and withdrawal. 3. What is the placebo effect and what role does it play in the effectiveness of antidepressants? Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 408–409 Type: Factual Answer: The placebo effect is the apparent success of a medication or treatment based only on the patient’s expectation that it will work, rather than on the physical effect of the drug. Research indicates that only 40 percent of those patients who respond positively to antidepressants are actually responding to the specific biological effects of the drug. Furthermore, a large meta-analysis of clinical trials found that the placebo effect accounted for more than 80 percent of the alleviation of symptoms. 4.

PET-scan studies of people with obsessive-compulsive disorder have shown that, among those who were taking Prozac, the metabolism of glucose in a critical part of the brain decreased, suggesting that the drug was having a beneficial effect by calming that area. Did this prove that medication is a better form of treatment for OCD than psychotherapy? If not, why not? Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 410 Type: Applied Answer: No, it did not prove that. Exactly the same brain changes occurred in people who were getting cognitive-behavior therapy and no medication. 5.

How does systematic desensitization make use of principles of classical conditioning to help people with phobias? Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413 Type: Factual

Answer: Systematic desensitization is based on the classical-conditioning procedure of counterconditioning, in which a stimulus (such as a dog) for an unwanted response (such as fear) is paired with some other stimulus or situation that elicits a response incompatible with the undesirable one, usually relaxation. The client learns to relax deeply while imagining or looking at a sequence of feared stimuli, arranged in a hierarchy from the least frightening to the most frightening. 6. What is the goal of a cognitive therapist? Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 414–415 Type: Factual Answer: A cognitive therapist aims to help clients identify the beliefs and expectations that might be unnecessarily prolonging their problems. The therapist tries to get the client to think about things in new ways and challenges the client’s assumptions. 7.

In what ways do the cognitive therapies of Albert Ellis and of Aaron Beck differ? In what ways are they similar? Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 415 Type: Conceptual Answer: Both Beck and Ellis approaches are focused on the client’s beliefs. Beck says that many beliefs are counterproductive; however, he doesn’t directly challenge the client. Instead, he asks questions that will cause the client to test his or her own beliefs against the evidence. Ellis says that many beliefs are irrational and should be directly challenged. 8. Describe the role of the therapeutic alliance in successful therapy. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 419 Type: Conceptual Answer: Therapeutic alliance is the bond of confidence and mutual understanding established between therapist and client, which allows them to work together to solve the client’s problems. When both parties respect and understand one another and agree on the goals of treatment, the client is more likely to improve, regardless of the specific techniques the therapist uses. 9.

Give one example that illustrates the need for an understanding of cultural background when making a diagnosis or suggesting treatment. Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 419–420 Type: Applied Answer: The textbook mentions understanding living with racism, cultural misunderstandings, and prejudice. Therapists need to distinguish between cultural patterns and pathology. 10.

Explain what is meant by the “justification of effort” effect in regard to psychotherapy. How can it affect the validity of testimonials from clients? Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 421 Type: Conceptual Answer: Therapy cannot be objectively evaluated simply by examining testimonials from clients. Clients who have spent time, money, and effort in therapy are likely to say that it was effective because they are “justifying their effort” in that way. 11.

What two types of psychotherapy appear to be most effective for many problems, especially emotional disorders? Under what circumstances are these types of therapies likely to fail? Section: Evaluating Psychotherapy Page(s): 422–423 Type: Factual Answer: For many problems and most emotional disorders, cognitive and behavior therapies have emerged as the method of choice. However, these therapies are likely to fail with people who are unmotivated to carry out a behavioral or cognitive program. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is also ill suited for clients with poorly defined problems or reasons for seeking therapy. 12.

What criteria does the textbook recommend critical thinkers can use to distinguish good self-help books from useless ones?

Section: Taking Psychology with You Page(s): 427 Type: Factual Answer: The book should propose a specific, step-by-step program based on evidence and controlled studies. It is also important that the book should not promise the impossible.

Essay Questions 1.

Describe the four main classes of drugs used in the treatment of mental and emotional disorders, including the benefits and drawbacks of each. For which disorders would each class be prescribed? Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 406-409 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Antipsychotic medications (neuroleptics) are prescribed for the treatment of schizophrenia and other psychoses. o Benefits—reduction of agitation, delusions, and hallucinations; shorten schizophrenic episodes. o Drawbacks—little relief from other symptoms; may cause motor side effects like tremors and rigidity; other effects might include weight gain, strokes, and even death from heart failure. Unpleasant side effects may result in failure to continue taking medication.  Antidepressant medications are prescribed for the treatment of depression, anxiety, phobias, and obsessive-compulsive disorders. o Benefits—relatively effective in relieving depression and anxiety; nonaddictive. o Drawbacks—unpleasant physical reactions including dry mouth, headaches, constipation, nausea, restlessness, gastrointestinal problems, weight gain, and decreased sexual desire and blocked or delayed orgasm; MAOIs may interact with certain foods and produce dangerously high blood pressure; SSRIs may increase suicide risk in adolescents.  Tranquilizers are prescribed to treat mild anxiety. o Benefits—reduce anxiety; also help people with panic disorder and acute anxiety attacks in the short term. o Drawbacks—Symptoms often return when medication is stopped; problems with tolerance, addiction, and withdrawal.  Lithium carbonate is prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder. o Benefits—successful in many cases. o Drawback—can be highly toxic if dosage is too high; produces short-term side effects and long-term problems such as kidney failure.

The benefits of drug therapy are proclaimed in magazines and on television commercials, but there are also limitations. Discuss, in detail, four of the limitations of drug therapy. Section: Biological Treatments for Mental Disorders Page(s): 412 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include four of the following key points.  The placebo effect—The effectiveness of some drugs may be due to the placebo effect (expectations for improvement) rather than due to the drug itself.  High relapse and dropout rates—Many people quit taking medications because of unpleasant side effects.  Disregard for effective, possibly better nonmedical treatments—The popularity of drug therapies may overshadow safer or better nonpharmaceutical treatments.  Dosage problems—Appropriate dosage may vary with sex, age, ethnicity, and other factors.  Unknown risks over time and in combination—Many drugs have only been tested on relatively small numbers of people for a relatively short time. Long-term effects and possible interactions are often unknown.



Untested off-label uses—Doctors often prescribe drugs for conditions and to populations other than those on which it was originally tested.

One of Sigmund Freud’s patients labeled his therapy “the talking cure.” Why? What was Freud’s goal and what techniques did he use to achieve it? Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 412 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Psychoanalysis as Freud used it was called the “talking cure” because clients were encouraged to come for treatment several days a week, often for years, and talk about their dreams and their memories of childhood.  Freud believed that intensive analysis of these dreams and memories would give patients insight into the unconscious reasons for their symptoms.  With insight and emotional release, he believed, the person’s symptoms would disappear.  In addition to analyzing dreams and memories for clues to the unconscious, Freud also used techniques such as identifying transference—the client’s transfer of emotional elements of his or her inner life onto the therapist—to help patients to identify and work through issues.

Analyze in detail three behavioral techniques psychotherapists use to help clients change unwanted behaviors or attitudes. Include key terms and definitions. Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 413–414 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include three of the following key points.  Exposure is used for treating fears and panic. It can involve gradual exposure or flooding.  Systematic desensitization is based on the classical conditioning procedure of counterconditioning and is used to treat fear or anxiety about an object or situation, by teaching clients to relax deeply and then gradually exposing them to a sequence of increasingly feared stimuli.  Behavioral self-monitoring is used to identify the reinforcers that are supporting unwanted habits and to have a baseline against which improvement can be measured.  Skills training uses a variety of techniques to teach a person new skills that they might be lacking.

What basic assumptions underlie the humanist therapies? What are the goals of humanist therapy, and how does the client-centered (nondirective) approach suggest therapists can help clients reach these goals? Section: Major Schools of Psychotherapy Page(s): 416 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Humanist therapy starts from the assumption that human nature is basically good and that people behave badly or develop problems when they have been warped by self-imposed limits.  The primary goal of humanist therapies is to help the client gain insight, self-acceptance, self-fulfillment, and new, optimistic perceptions of self and world.  In client-centered (nondirective) therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, the main method used by therapists is to listen to the client’s needs in an accepting, nonjudgmental way and to offer what Rogers called unconditional positive regard.

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 13 – Quick Quiz 1 1.

Research on the physiological aspect of emotion suggests that people everywhere are born with certain basic or __________ emotions. a. initial c. secondary b. primary d. intense

Which of the following scenarios illustrates the role of facial feedback in emotions? a. Someone smiles and says “hello” to another person passing by. b. A woman who is told to look disgusted experiences negative feelings. c. A man laughs at a coworker’s off-color joke. d. You go to a movie and cry at the sad ending.

Alex is 18 months old and is beginning to use words to describe his emotions. His parents are most likely to hear Alex say that he feels a. anxious. c. ecstatic. b. scared. d. depressed.

Which occupation would be more likely to require emotion work as a job requirement? a. customer service representative b. accountant c. architect d. computer analyst

Markesia’s body is mobilized to deal with a heat wave and she is annoyed by minor frustrations that she can usually shake off. According to Hans Selye, she is in the a. chronic stress phase. b. alarm phase. c. exhaustion phase. d. resistance phase.

Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for heart disease? a. hostility c. having high standards b. ambitiousness d. working hard

10.

Finding out what your legal resources are when you have been victimized by a crime is an example of a. problem-focused coping. c. distraction. b. emotion-focused coping. d. reappraisal.

Chapter 13 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Emotions considered to be universal and biologically based are called primary. (Page 434, Factual)

Rationale: Facial expressions not only can reflect internal feelings, they may also influence our internal feelings. (Pages 435–436, Conceptual)

Rationale: The amygdala is important for the initial assessment of danger and fear response. (Page 437, Applied)

Rationale: To date, efforts to find physiological markers of lying have produced unreliable results because they rest on a faulty assumption that there are inevitable, universally identifiable biological signs that reveal with high accuracy when a person is lying. (Pages 439–440, Conceptual)

Rationale: Happy, sad, mad, and scared are emotion words young children learn first. (Page 443, Applied)

Rationale: A customer service representative is required to show positive emotions to customers regardless of how he or she actually feels. (Page 444, Conceptual)

Rationale: In the resistance phase, the physiological responses of the alarm phase continue, but these very responses make the body more vulnerable to other stressors. (Pages 446–447, Applied)

Rationale: People with an external locus of control tend to believe that their lives are controlled by luck, fate, or other people, whereas those with an internal locus of control tend to believe that they are responsible for what happens to them. (Page 450, Applied)

Rationale: Hostility is more hazardous to health than other traits associated with Type A personalities. (Pages 452–453, Factual)

10.

Rationale: Problem-focused coping involves solving the problem itself. (Page 457, Conceptual)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 13 – Quick Quiz 2 1.

Paul Ekman and his colleagues gathered abundant evidence supporting the universality of _______ basic facial expressions of emotion. a. three c. seven b. five d. nine

Emily has coffee with a classmate. Her friend expresses nervousness about an upcoming exam they will both be taking. Prior to visiting with her classmate, Emily had felt at ease regarding this exam. Upon leaving her classmate, she feels nervous and edgy. Emily is experiencing a. facial feedback. c. secondary emotions. b. prototypes of emotions. d. mood contagion.

The _______________ directly controls the secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine by the adrenal glands. a. prefrontal cortex c. right hemisphere b. amygdala d. sympathetic nervous system.

Shame and loss of face would be considered _______________ emotions in many Asian cultures. a. primary c. tertiary b. secondary d. attributional

__________ is a series of physiological responses to stressors that occur in three phases. a. General adaptation syndrome c. Primary appraisal b. Locus of control d. Secondary control

Maria has worked as a file clerk for 17 years. Which aspect of the job is likely the greatest threat to her health and well-being? a. the speed of the work c. feeling trapped b. the attention to many details d. the daily demands from her boss

10.

After their home in California is damaged during an earthquake, a couple looks into the federal loan programs to help them rebuild. Their behavior is an example of a. reappraisal. c. emotion-focused coping. b. distraction. d. problem-focused coping.

Chapter 13 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Ekman found that seven different facial expressions were almost universally recognized. (Page 434, Factual)

Rationale: Mood contagion is the term for the phenomenon that occurs when people take on the mood expressed by others. (Page 438, Applied)

Rationale: Activation of the sympathetic nervous system causes increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal glands. (Page 439, Factual)

Rationale: Culture can affect which emotions are defined as basic or primary. Anger is regarded as a primary emotion by Western psychologists, but in Asian cultures shame and loss of face are more central emotions. (Page 443, Conceptual)

Rationale: General adaptation syndrome is a series of physiological responses to stress that occur in three phases. (Page 446, Factual)

Rationale: The chemical messengers epinephrine and norepinephrine produce a state of arousal and alertness and slow digestion. (Page 446, Conceptual)

Rationale: In one study, heroic volunteers were given either ordinary nose drops or nose drops containing a cold virus, and then were quarantined for five days. The people most likely to get a cold’s miserable symptoms were those who had been underemployed or unemployed for at least a month. (Page 448, Factual)

Rationale: The greatest threat to health and well-being occurs when people feel caught in a situation they cannot escape, one that goes on without a foreseeable end. (Page 451, Applied)

Rationale: One effective way to get rid of negative emotions comes from research on the benefits of confession, that is, divulging private thoughts and feelings that make you ashamed or depressed. (Pages 454–455, Factual)

10.

Rationale: Problem-focused coping means solving the problem itself. (Page 457, Applied)

Chapter 13 – EMOTION, STRESS, AND HEALTH Multiple Choice Questions THE NATURE OF EMOTION Learning Objectives 13.1 Which facial expressions of emotion most people recognize the world over 13.2 Which parts of the brain are involved with different aspects of emotion 13.3 How mirror neurons generate empathy, mood contagion, and synchrony 13.4 Which two hormones provide the energy and excitement of emotion 13.5 How thoughts create emotions—and why an infant can’t feel shame or guilt 1.

_______________ is a state of arousal involving facial and bodily changes, brain activation, cognitive appraisals, subjective feelings, and tendencies toward action, all shaped by cultural rules. a. An attribution b. Emotion c. Galvanic skin response d. Body language Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is a description of emotion. % correct 97 a= 0 b= 97 c= 0 d= 3 r = .55 2.

Emotion is defined as a. the process by which the facial muscles send messages to the brain about bodily changes. b. a state of arousal involving facial and bodily changes, brain activation, cognitive appraisals, subjective feelings, and tendencies toward action, all shaped by cultural rules. c. an irrational aspect of our mammalian heritage that is distinctive from our rational abilities of cognition. d. a set of social and cultural rules that regulate when, how, and where a person may express (or must suppress) emotions. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Researchers focus on the three components of emotion: physiological changes, cognitive processes, and cultural influences. % correct 100 a= 0 b= 100 c= 0 d= 0 r = .00 3.

The three major components that psychologists focus on when defining “emotion” are a. facial muscles, bodily changes, and stress. b. physiological changes, cognitive processes, and cultural influences. c. mammalian heritage, rational abilities, and cognition. d. social rules, cultural rules, and relationship rules. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The three major components of emotion are physiological changes, cognitive processes, and cultural influences. 4.

Research on the physiological aspect of emotion suggests that people everywhere are born with certain basic or __________ emotions. a. initial b. primary c. secondary d. intense Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Emotions considered to be universal and biologically based are called primary.

Emotions considered to be universal and biologically based are called a. primary. b. secondary. c. tertiary. d. individualistic . Section: The Nature of Emotion Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of primary emotions. % correct 87 a= 87 b= 10 c= 0 d= 3 r = .21

Page(s): 434 Answer: a

Which of the following is typically NOT considered to be a primary emotion? a. anger b. sadness c. jealousy d. fear Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Although psychologists differ somewhat in the emotions they consider to be primary, the list typically includes fear, anger, sadness, joy, surprise, disgust, and contempt. % correct 80 a= 10 b= 7 c= 80 d= 3 r = .49 7.

Fear and anger, sadness and joy are generally considered to be _______________ emotions. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. conditioned Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Although psychologists differ somewhat in the emotions they consider to be primary, the list typically includes fear, anger, sadness, joy, surprise, disgust, and contempt. % correct 97 a= 97 b= 3 c= 0 d= 0 r = .52 8.

Disgust and contempt would typically be considered __________ emotions. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. conditioned Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Although psychologists differ somewhat in the emotions they consider to be primary, the list typically includes fear, anger, sadness, joy, surprise, disgust, and contempt. 9. __________ emotions include blends of emotion that vary from one culture to another and develop gradually with increasing cognitive maturity. a. Initial b. Primary c. Secondary d. Intense Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Secondary emotions include blends of emotion that vary from one culture to another and develop gradually with increasing cognitive maturity. 10.

Emotions that are specific to certain cultures are considered __________ emotions. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary

d. conditioned Section: The Nature of Emotion Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Secondary emotions can vary from one culture to another.

Page(s): 434 Answer: b

11.

Paul Ekman and his colleagues gathered abundant evidence supporting the universality of _______ basic facial expressions of emotion. a. three b. five c. seven d. nine Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Ekman found that seven different facial expressions were almost universally recognized. 12.

According to Ekman, which of the following is one of the universal facial expressions? a. agitated b. fear c. embarrassed d. shame Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: The seven facial expressions that Ekman found to be universally recognized are anger, happiness, fear, surprise, disgust, sadness, and contempt. 13.

Ekman and his associates developed a special coding system to analyze and identify each of the nearly __________ muscles of the face, as well as the combinations of muscles associated with various emotions. a. 20 b. 80 c. 100 d. 1,000 Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: There are nearly 80 muscles in the face. 14.

In order to get around the human ability to mask emotions and more clearly define facial expressions for particular emotions, Ekman and his associates a. developed a special coding system that analyzed and identified the numerous facial muscles. b. developed an interobserver system to make sure that observers defined expressions reliably. c. interviewed all participants in order to assess unexpressed feelings and motivations. d. monitored the brain waves of participants to determine which hemisphere had higher activation. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Ekman and his associates developed a coding system for the nearly 80 facial muscles so they could more clearly define various facial expressions. 15.

Analysis of facial muscles during emotional displays has revealed that a. most individuals are able to mimic grief accurately, getting the facial muscles just right. b. false smiles tend to last ten seconds or more, but authentic smiles last only about two seconds. c. false expressions use the same groups of muscles as are used in authentic expressions. d. physiological responses ensure that facial expressions convey the emotion being felt. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Real and “put on” facial expressions do not always use the same muscles. 16.

Chastity is pretending that she is feeling sad. According to research, she is probably a. using the same facial muscles that she would use if she were really feeling sad. b. using different facial muscles than she would use if she were really feeling sad.

c. not making eye contact. d. speaking extremely softly while frowning. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When people try to feel sad, only about 15 percent are able to mimic the facial expressions of true grief. 17.

According to Ekman’s research on facial expressions a. when people try to hide their feelings with an inauthentic expression, they use different groups of muscles than they do for authentic emotions. b. authentic smiles last ten seconds or more whereas false smiles last only about two seconds. c. when trying to feign sadness, only about 60 percent of people manage to get the eyebrows, eyelids, and forehead wrinkle exactly right. d. there is little support for Darwin’s evolutionary rationale that certain human facial expressions are innate. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Authentic and inauthentic facial expressions do not always use the same muscles. 18.

Facial feedback is defined as a. the process by which the facial muscles send messages to the brain about the basic emotion being expressed. b. a state of arousal involving facial and bodily changes, brain activation, cognitive appraisals, subjective feelings, and tendencies toward action, all shaped by cultural rules. c. an irrational aspect of our mammalian heritage that no longer has an adaptive function in human behavior. d. a set of social and cultural rules that regulate when, how, and where a person may express (or must suppress) emotions. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The brain receives information from the facial muscles about what the facial expression is. This is called facial feedback. % correct 100 a= 100 b= 0 c= 0 d= 0 r = .00 19. In the process of __________, the facial muscles send messages to the brain about the basic emotion being expressed. a. emotion exchange b. facial feedback c. primary emotions d. secondary emotions Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: In the process of facial feedback, the facial muscles send messages to the brain about the basic emotion being expressed. 20.

Which of the following scenarios illustrates the role of facial feedback in emotions? a. someone smiles and says “hello” to another person passing by b. a woman who is told to look disgusted experiences negative feelings c. a man laughs at a coworker’s off-color joke d. when you go to a movie and cry at the sad ending Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435–436 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Facial expressions not only can reflect internal feelings, they may also influence our internal feelings. 21.

When Noah complies with instructions to smile and look happy, it is most likely that a. he will begin to feel annoyed. b. he will begin to feel angry.

c. his positive feelings will increase. d. his reaction will depend on his age. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435–436 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Facial feedback affects our emotional states causing us to tend to feel the emotion that is being expressed. % correct 73 a= 3 b= 20 c= 73 d= 0 r = .40 22.

When Jose complies with instructions to look angry, it is most likely that a. he will be amused to be simulating anger. b. he will be pleased that he does it so well. c. his positive feelings will decrease. d. his reaction will depend on his age. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435–436 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Facial feedback affects our emotional states causing us to tend to feel the emotion that is being expressed. 23.

If you put on an angry face then a. your heart rate will rise faster than if you put on a happy face. b. your heart rate will decelerate more than if you put on a happy face. c. your parasympathetic nervous system will become active. d. physiological change will not occur because it is a false emotion. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435–436 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Facial feedback affects our emotional states causing us to tend to feel the emotion that is being expressed. Simply putting on an angry face can cause your heart rate to rise faster than if you put on a happy face. 24.

According to Darwin, facial expressions probably evolved to a. differentiate cultures. b. help distinguish us from animals. c. help us communicate. d. create conflict. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 436 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: According to Darwin, facial expressions probably evolved to help us communicate. 25.

Your textbook mentions that tiny newborns will suck longer on a pacifier if a. it produces a happy face from an adult. b. they like the smell and taste. c. it also plays music to put them to sleep. d. it produces a look of concern from an adult. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 436 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Tiny newborns will suck longer on a pacifier if it produces a happy face from an adult. 26.

When babies in an experiment were placed on an ambiguous visual cliff and saw an expression of fear on their mothers’ faces, what portion of them crossed the cliff? a. all of them b. about three-quarters of them c. about one-third of them d. none of them Section: Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 436 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: 74 percent crossed the cliff when their mothers put on a happy, reassuring expression, but not a single infant crossed when the mother showed an expression of fear.

27.

When 1-year-old Olivia is placed on an ambiguous visual cliff, she looks at her mom’s reassuring face. Olivia is most likely to a. smile back at mom, but refuse to cross. b. cross the cliff. c. begin crying. d. lift her arms to be held. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 436 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Olivia is most likely to cross the cliff because her mother’s facial expression signals that there is no danger. 28.

Which of the following is true about people’s ability to identify emotions in others? a. People are best at identifying emotions expressed by others in their own ethnic group. b. Babies cannot identify emotions based on facial expressions. c. Facial expressions have universal meanings, even across different situations and contexts. d. Using facial expressions to recognize emotions in others is useful, but has no survival value. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 436 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: People are better at identifying emotions expressed by others in their own ethnic, national, or regional group than they are at recognizing the emotions of foreigners. 29.

In most people, the __________ is specialized for withdrawal or escape. a. somatic nervous system b. right prefrontal cortex c. left prefrontal cortex d. reticular activating system Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 436 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Regions of the right prefrontal cortex is specialized for withdrawal or escape. 30.

Julian is watching an old comedy film, which makes him laugh and want to watch more of them. What brain structure is probably involved in his reaction? a. olfactory bulb b. amygdala c. the left prefrontal cortex d. the right prefrontal cortex Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 436–437 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: The left prefrontal cortex is generally associated with positive emotions. 31.

In most people, the __________ appears to be specialized for the motivation to approach others. a. somatic nervous system b. right prefrontal cortex c. left prefrontal cortex d. reticular activating system Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 436–437 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The left prefrontal cortex appears to be specialized for the motivation to approach others. 32.

The _______________ quickly assesses danger or threat. a. prefrontal cortex b. amygdala c. right hemisphere d. sympathetic nervous system Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The amygdala determines the emotional importance of incoming sensory information and quickly assesses danger or threat.

33.

Simon has damage to his amygdala. It is most likely that he a. has difficulty recognizing fear in others. b. has lost the capacity to set aside his fear even when the danger is gone. c. feels excessively manic and euphoric. d. feels excessively depressed. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: People with damage in the amygdala often have difficulty recognizing fear in others. 34.

Three-year-old Javier sees his dad dressed up as a gorilla and Javier screams in fear. What brain structure is probably involved in his reaction? a. olfactory bulb b. amygdala c. occipital lobe d. Wernicke’s area Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The amygdala assessed incoming sensory information and determined that there was danger. 35.

Samantha jumps with fear as she feels a hand on her shoulder while walking on a deserted path across campus. What brain structure played a key role in Samantha’s swift reaction? a. basal ganglia b. hippocampus c. cerebral cortex d. amygdala Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: The amygdala is important for the initial assessment of danger and fear response. 36.

Lauren jumps with fear as she feels a hand on her shoulder while walking on a deserted path across campus. Her fear evaporates when she hears her boyfriend’s voice saying, “What are you doing out so late, Lauren?” What brain structure played a key role when Lauren’s fear evaporated? a. medulla b. hippocampus c. cerebral cortex d. amygdala Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The amygdala is important for the initial assessment of danger; the cerebral cortex evaluates the situation and determines whether fear is an appropriate response. 37.

Parts of the _______________ are involved in the regulation of emotion, that is, the ability to control our emotions. a. prefrontal cortex b. amygdala c. basal ganglia d. sympathetic nervous system Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The prefrontal cortex is important in the regulation of emotion, that is, the ability to control and modify emotion. 38.

Dr. Cabbot is recording from a mirror neuron in a monkey’s brain. When will the neuron fire? a. only when the monkey is performing a specific action, but not when it sees someone else perform the same action b. only when the monkey is watching someone else perform a specific action, but not when it performs the same action

c. d.

only when the monkey is watching itself perform an action in front of a mirror when the monkey is performing a specific action, and also when it watches someone else perform the same action Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437–438 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Mirror neurons fire when a person or animal performs an action, and when they observe others carrying out the same action. 39.

What property of some brain cells led scientists to call them mirror neurons? a. They only fire when a person of animal looks in a mirror. b. Their cell membranes contain a protein that makes them reflect light. c. Their structure perfectly mirrors the structure of a neighboring neuron. d. They fire when a person or animal observes others carrying out an action. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437–438 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: In human beings, mirror neurons are believed to help us identify with what others are feeling, understand other people’s intentions, and imitate their actions and gestures. 40.

Many researchers believe that mirror neurons allow humans to a. experience empathy. b. coordinate complicated motor tasks. c. develop facial expressions for basic emotions. d. reverse left-right movements when performing a task in front of a mirror. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 438 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Mirror neurons are believed to be involved in empathy, imitation, and reading emotions. 41. Petra’s brother was hiking in the woods and accidently came into contact with poison ivy. Now his arms are covered in a rash. As Petra watches her brother scratch his arms, her arms begin to itch and she feels compelled to scratch them too. Psychologists believe that _____________ are responsible for Petra’s response to watching her brother’s discomfort. a. activity in the hippocampus b. facial feedback c. the firing of mirror neurons d. activity in the amygdala Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 438 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In human beings, mirror neurons are believed to help us identify with what others are feeling, understand other people’s intentions, and imitate their actions and gestures. 42.

When emotions spread from one person to another it is called a. facial feedback. b. mood contagion. c. secondary emotions. d. prototypes of emotions. Section: The Nature of Emotion Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of mood contagion. 43.

Page(s): 438 Answer: b

Emily has coffee with a classmate. Her friend expresses nervousness about an upcoming exam they will both be taking. Prior to visiting with her classmate, Emily had felt at ease regarding this exam. Upon leaving her classmate, she feels nervous and edgy. Emily is experiencing a. facial feedback. b. prototypes of emotions. c. secondary emotions. d. mood contagion. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 438 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d

Rationale: Mood contagion is the term for the phenomenon that occurs when people take on the mood expressed by others. 44. The _______________ directly controls the secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine by the adrenal glands. a. prefrontal cortex b. amygdala c. right hemisphere d. sympathetic nervous system Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 439 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Activation of the sympathetic nervous system causes increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal glands. The _______________ produce(s) epinephrine and norepinephrine. a. left prefrontal cortex b. right prefrontal cortex c. amygdala d. adrenal glands Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 439 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by the adrenal glands in response to sympathetic activation. 45.

46.

_______________ provides the energy of an emotion, that familiar tingle, excitement, and sense of animation. a. Melatonin b. Epinephrine c. Norepinephrine d. Dopamine Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 439 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Epinephrine (also known as adrenalin) provides increased energy and an emotional high. 47. Carrie has her friends over for a slumber party. They watch three very frightening, suspense-filled movies that cause their hearts to race each time the focus is on an unsuspecting victim. Which two hormones cause this type of reaction? a. serotonin and dopamine b. epinephrine and norepinephrine c. gamma-aminobutyric-acid (GABA) and acetylcholine d. estrogen and melatonin Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 439 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Epinephrine and norepinephrine surge when people are under stress or experience an intense emotion. 48. Certain emotions are associated with certain patterns of __________, which may explain why people all over the world use similar terms to describe basic emotions, saying they feel “hot and bothered” when they are angry or “cold and clammy” when they are afraid. a. autonomic nervous system activity b. visual and auditory stimulation c. activity in the occipital lobes d. hippocampal activity Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 439 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: There appear to be distinctive patterns of brain activity and autonomic nervous system activity that are universal.

49.

The polygraph is based on the assumption that a person who is guilty and fearful will have a. decreased flow of epinephrine. b. decreased flow of norepinephrine. c. increased activity in the autonomic nervous system. d. increased activity in the hippocampus. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 439 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Guilt, like other emotions, is typically accompanied by increased activity in the sympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system. 50.

With the polygraph a. the voice stress analyzer is more valid than the polygraph. b. the polygraph is more valid than the voice stress analyzer. c. the voice stress analyzer and the polygraph used together result in valid lie detection. d. at present there is no perfect way to detect lying. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 439-440 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: To date, efforts to find physiological markers of lying have produced unreliable results because they rest on a faulty assumption that there are inevitable, universally identifiable biological signs that reveal with high accuracy when a person is lying. % correct 85 a= 3 b= 0 c= 12 d= 85 r = .31 51.

During an interrogation, an FBI agent tries to scare a suspect into making a confession by saying “You know, they have this new type of lie detector that can measure activity in different regions of the brain to determine whether a person is lying or telling the truth.” What technology is the agent referring to? a. fMRI b. Computer Voice Stress Analyzer c. polygraph d. Two-photon imaging Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 440 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Some researchers are trying to find “brain fingerprints” by using fMRIs of brain activity to see whether they can infer whether a person possesses guilty knowledge of a crime and is lying about it. 52.

Most people assume that success brings happiness and failure brings unhappiness. According to the Stoic philosophers of the first century A.D.—and modern psychologists—how you feel about your success or failure will often depend on a. how your friends react. b. how your parents react. c. how you explain it to yourself. d. what you expect to happen in the future. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 440–441 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Most people assume that success brings happiness and failure brings unhappiness. In reality, how you feel will depend on how you explain the event. 53.

In a series of experiments that studied the role of cognitions in all kinds of emotions, students who believed they did well because of their own efforts tended to feel a. overconfident. b. proud. c. surprise. d. guilt. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 441 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: In a series of experiments that studied the role of cognitions in all kinds of emotions, students who believed they did well because of their own efforts tended to feel proud, competent, and satisfied. 54.

In a series of experiments that studied the role of cognitions in all kinds of emotions, students who

believed they did well because of a lucky fluke or chance tended to feel a. gratitude or guilt. b. proud and satisfied. c. regretful or resigned. d. deeply dissatisfied. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 441 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: In a series of experiments that studied the role of cognitions in all kinds of emotions, students who believed they did well because of a lucky fluke or chance tended to feel gratitude, surprise, or guilt (“I don’t deserve this”). 55.

The influence of thought on emotion was studied by assessing athletes’ reactions to being among the medal winners in the 1992 Olympics. The results showed that a. third-place winners were happier than second-place winners. b. second-place winners were happier than third-place winners. c. there were no significant differences in happiness between third-place and second-place winners. d. second-place winners showed an increase in positive emotions, but third-place winners showed a decrease. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 441 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Third-place winners were found to be happier than second-place winners because of their interpretation of the event. 56.

A conditioned sentimental response to a patriotic symbol requires a. a complex thought process. b. simple, nonconscious reactions. c. the movement of certain facial muscles. d. the stimulation of the amygdala. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 441 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Some emotions require only minimal, simple cognitions or are primitive feelings that occur beneath awareness. A conditioned sentimental response to a patriotic symbol requires simple, nonconscious reactions. 57.

As a child’s cerebral cortex matures and cognitions become more complex, emotions a. become more nonconscious and automatic. b. maintain consistent levels. c. become less complex. d. become more complex. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 441 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: As a child’s cerebral cortex matures, cognitions and emotions become more cognitively complex.

EMOTION AND CULTURE Learning Objectives 13.6 Why people from different cultures disagree on what makes them angry, jealous, or disgusted 13.7 Why psychologists debate whether there are primary and secondary emotions 13.8 How cultural rules affect how people display or suppress their emotions 13.9 Why people often do “emotion work” to convey emotions they do not feel 13.10 Whether women are really more “emotional” than men 58.

People in different cultures often __________ what words or actions they consider to be an insult. a. agree as to b. remain neutral as to c. disagree as to

d. cannot explain Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 443 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Different cultures have different ideas about what is considered an insult. 59.

The difference between primary emotions and more complex cultural variations is reflected in a. facial expression. b. language. c. dress. d. music. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 443 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The difference between primary emotions and more complex cultural variations is reflected in language. 60.

Alex is 18 months old and is beginning to use words to describe his emotions. His parents are most likely to hear Alex say that he feels a. “anxious.” b. “scared.” c. “ecstatic.” d. “depressed.” Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 443 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Happy, sad, mad, and scared are emotion words young children learn first. 61.

Queenie is walking home in the rain one day when she sees a girl she doesn’t particularly like get splashed by a passing car. Secretly Queenie finds great joy in the other girl’s misfortune. She is experiencing a. schadenfreude. b. hagaii. c. mehameba. d. fago. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 443 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: The Germans use the word schadenfreude to describe a feeling of joy at another’s misfortune. 62.

Which of the following would be considered a secondary emotion in Western theories of emotion? a. surprise b. joy c. shame d. disgust Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 434, 443 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Although psychologists differ somewhat in the emotions they consider to be primary, the list typically includes fear, anger, sadness, joy, surprise, disgust, and contempt. Shame is more likely to be considered a primary emotion in Asian cultures. Shame and loss of face would be considered _______________ emotions in many Asian cultures. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. attributional Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 443 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Culture can affect which emotions are defined as basic or primary. Anger is regarded as a primary emotion by Western psychologists, but in Asian cultures shame and loss of face are more central emotions. 63.

64.

_______________ would be considered a primary emotion in most Western theories of emotion. a. Compassion b. Anger c. Shame d. Jealousy Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 443 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Anger is regarded as a primary emotion by Western psychologists. 65.

To be _______________ would be considered a prototypical emotion by most people. a. irritable b. scared c. hostile d. nostalgic Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 443 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: People everywhere consider the primary emotions to be prototypical examples of the concept emotion: Most people will say that anger and sadness are more representative of an emotion than irritability and nostalgia are. 66.

Display rules involve a. displaying an emotion that is not actually felt, often because of a role requirement. b. social/cultural guidelines that regulate when, how, and where a person may express emotion. c. emotions that are displayed, as a rule, only by certain cultures. d. universal, biologically based emotional displays evoked by particular emotional situations. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 444 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Display rules are cultural guidelines for the expression of emotion. % correct 70 a= 13 b= 70 c= 7 d= 0 r = .22 67.

Which of the following outcomes would be most likely after a German-American business session? a. The Germans will complain that the Americans are too cold and aloof. b. The Germans will complain that the Americans hide their real feelings behind a smile. c. The Americans will complain that the Germans smile too much when hiding embarrassment. d. The Americans will complain that the Germans are excessively cheerful. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 444 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Germans tend to smile less than Americans and so may be viewed as cold and aloof by Americans, whereas the Germans complain that the Americans hide their real feelings under the mask of a smile. 68.

Which of the following outcomes would be most likely after a Japanese-American business session? a. The Japanese will complain that the Americans are too cheerful. b. The Japanese will complain that the Americans hide their real feelings behind a smile. c. The Americans will complain that the Japanese smile too much to disguise embarrassment. d. The Americans will complain that the Japanese are too aloof and cold. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 444 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Japanese tend to smile even more than Americans to hide feelings of embarrassment, anger, and other negative emotions because they view public display of those emotions to be rude. 69.

Expression of an emotion that the person does not really feel is called a. facial feedback. b. secondary emotion. c. emotion work. d. body language. Section: Emotion and Culture Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate

Page(s): 444 Answer: c

Rationale: This is a definition of emotion work. % correct 74 a= 3 b= 10 c= 74 d= 13 r = .48 70.

Which occupation would be more likely to require emotion work as a job requirement? a. customer service representative b. accountant c. architect d. computer analyst Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 444 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: A customer service representative is required to show positive emotions to customers regardless of how he or she actually feels. % correct 100 a= 100 b= 0 c= 0 d= 0 r = .00 71.

What has research shown about the stereotype that women are “more emotional” than men? a. Women feel everyday emotions more often than men. b. The opposite is true because men feel everyday emotions more often than women. c. The gender difference is more about how emotions are expressed than how they are felt. d. Men are more likely to show sadness and guilt, whereas women are more likely to show fear and shame. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 444 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Gender difference has more to do with how our emotions are expressed than how they are felt. 72.

When researchers showed students a series of computer-generated, fairly sex-neutral faces with a range of expressions morphing from angry to happy, the students consistently rated the angry faces as a. male. b. female. c. the opposite of the student’s own gender. d. the same as the student’s own gender. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 444–445 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In Western cultures, both sexes unconsciously associate “angry” with male and “happy” with female. 73.

Sandra is a vice president at a large company. As a woman, what dilemma is she likely to face? a. If she smiles at employees the way her male colleagues do, they are likely to begin disliking her. b. She is more likely to make “emotional” and illogical decisions than her male colleagues. c. When women express anger like their male colleagues, they are more likely to be seen as “out of control.” d. Crying in front of male employees will make them like her more, but will prevent her from being promoted. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 445 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The stereotyped link between gender and emotion may explain why a man who expresses anger in a professional context is considered “high status,” but a professional woman who does exactly the same thing loses status. She is considered to be an angry person, someone “out of control.” 74.

What is the one emotion that North American men express more freely than women? a. fear b. sadness c. humor d. anger Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 445 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: North American men express only one emotion more freely than women: anger toward strangers, especially other men.

75.

A North American man would be LESS LIKELY than a North American woman to say a. “I’m on edge.” b. “I’m worried.” c. “I’m frustrated.” d. “I’m moody.” Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 445 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Men are more likely than women to use vague terms, saying they are moody or frustrated. 76.

A North American man would be more likely than a North American woman to a. control and mask negative feelings. b. smile to smooth over conflicts. c. use highly expressive hand gestures. d. mask anger toward strangers. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 445 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: North American men express feelings less freely than women, with the exception of one feeling: anger at strangers.

THE NATURE OF STRESS Learning Objectives 13.11 How your body responds to physical, emotional, and environmental stressors 13.12 Why being “stressed out” increases the risk of illness in some people but not others 13.13 How psychological factors affect the immune system 13.14 When having a sense of control over events is beneficial and when it is not 77.

The modern era of stress research began a. when Julian Rotter published a monograph reporting the ways in which an internal or external locus of control influences a person’s health. b. when Susan Staples provided research evidence documenting the human response to environmental noise. c. when J. G. Courtney found that chronic work-related stresses were linked to colon and rectal cancers. d. when Hans Selye published a book detailing the ways in which heat, cold, pain, toxins, and danger disrupt the body’s equilibrium. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: The modern era of stress research began in 1956 when Hans Selye published The Stress of Life. 78.

__________ is a series of physiological responses to stressors that occur in three phases. a. General adaptation syndrome b. Locus of control c. Primary appraisal d. Secondary control Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: General adaptation syndrome is a series of physiological responses to stress that occur in three phases. 79.

A person is in the _______________ when the muscles tense, blood pressure rises, and digestion shuts down. a. chronic stress phase b. alarm phase c. exhaustion phase d. resistance phase Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In the alarm phase, the sympathetic nervous system mobilizes the body to meet the immediate

threat. The release of adrenalin causes a burst of energy, tense muscles, reduced sensitivity to pain, and the shutdown of digestion. % correct 77 a= 10 b= 77 c= 7 d= 7 r = .50 80.

Which of the following occurs during the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome? a. The body mobilizes the sympathetic nervous system to meet the threat. b. The body becomes vulnerable to other stressors. c. The body becomes depleted of energy. d. The body develops physical problems that may lead to illness. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: During the alarm stage, the body mobilizes the sympathetic nervous system to meet the threat. 81.

What two hormones make you literally “too excited to eat”? a. serotonin and dopamine b. epinephrine and norepinephrine c. gamma-aminobutyric-acid (GABA) and acetylcholine d. estrogen and melatonin Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The chemical messengers epinephrine and norepinephrine produce a state of arousal and alertness and slow digestion. 82.

Casey hears a rattling sound as she hikes through the desert. Her muscles tense, blood pressure rises, and digestion shuts down. According to Hans Selye, she is in the a. chronic stress phase. b. alarm phase. c. exhaustion phase. d. resistance phase. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In the alarm phase, the sympathetic nervous system mobilizes the body to meet the immediate threat. The release of adrenalin causes a burst of energy, tense muscles, reduced sensitivity to pain, and the shutdown of digestion. 83.

Steve is unexpectedly called on in class. He hasn’t the faintest idea of the answer, and he feels his heart start to pound and his palms begin to sweat. According to Selye, he is in the _______________ phase of his stress response. a. general b. resistance c. alarm d. exhaustion Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The first phase of the general adaptation syndrome is the alarm phase. 84.

Which of the following occurs during the resistance stage of the general adaptation syndrome? a. The body mobilizes the sympathetic nervous system to meet the threat. b. The body becomes vulnerable to other stressors. c. The body becomes depleted of energy. d. Epinephrine and norepinephrine levels return to normal. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446–447 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: During the resistance phase, the body becomes more vulnerable to other stressors. 85.

Markesia’s body is mobilized to deal with a heat wave and she is annoyed by minor frustrations that she can usually shake off. According to Hans Selye, she is in the a. chronic stress phase.

b. alarm phase. c. exhaustion phase. d. resistance phase. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446–447 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In the resistance phase, the physiological responses of the alarm phase continue, but these very responses make the body more vulnerable to other stressors. A person is in the _______________ when the body becomes more vulnerable to other stressors. For example, when the body is mobilized to deal with a heat wave, it is easier to be annoyed by minor frustrations. a. chronic stress phase b. alarm phase c. exhaustion phase d. resistance phase Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446–447 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In the resistance phase, the physiological responses of the alarm phase continue, but these very responses make the body more vulnerable to other stressors. 86.

87.

What is the correct order for the stages of the general adaptation syndrome? a. resistance phase, exhaustion phase, alarm phase b. alarm phase, resistance phase, exhaustion phase c. alarm phase, exhaustion phase, resistance phase d. resistance phase, alarm phase, exhaustion phase Section: The Nature of Stress Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: This is the correct order.

Page(s): 446–447 Answer: b

88.

A person is in the _______________ when vulnerability to physical problems increases, and illness, such as chronic hypertension, develops. a. chronic stress phase b. alarm phase c. exhaustion phase d. resistance phase Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In the exhaustion phase, the vulnerability of the body to physical problems and eventual illness increases. % correct 87 a= 6 b= 3 c= 87 d= 3 r = .49 89.

Which of the following occurs during the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? a. The body mobilizes the sympathetic nervous system to meet the threat. b. The body begins to release extra epinephrine and norepinephrine. c. The body becomes depleted of energy. d. The body adapts to the stressor and returns to normal. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: During the exhaustion phase persistent stress can deplete the body of energy and increase vulnerability to physical problems and illness. 90.

Dahlia has been having chronic headaches and she is behind in all her classes. For the past six months her job has been extremely stressful, but she doesn’t feel that she can quit because she needs the money for tuition. Her vulnerability to illness, such as chronic hypertension, has increased. According to Hans Selye, Dahlia is in the a. chronic stress phase. b. alarm phase. c. exhaustion phase.

d. resistance phase. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In the exhaustion phase, the vulnerability of the body to physical problems and eventual illness increases. 91.

Which saying best sums up Hans Selye’s view on stress? a. All stress is bad. b. Stressors that trigger the alarm phase are worse than stressors that do not. c. All stressors are good for the body in some way. d. Some stress—but not all—can be positive and productive. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Selye did not believe that people should aim for a stress-free life. Some stress, he said, is positive and productive, even if it also requires the body to produce short-term energy. 92.

Current approaches to the physiology of stress have found that a. most of Selye’s ideas about the general adaptation syndrome were incorrect because the biological changes are not adaptive in the short run. b. when you are under stress, your brain’s hypothalamus sends messages to the endocrine glands along two major pathways. c. when you are under stress, the parasympathetic division of the nervous system becomes activated for a “fight or flight” response. d. one result of HPA activation is decreased energy, leading a person to become lethargic and apathetic. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: During stress, the hypothalamus sends messages to the endocrine glands along two major pathways, via the sympathetic nervous system and via the HPA axis. % correct 47 a= 30 b= 47 c= 20 d= 3 r = .33 93.

When you are under stress, the brain’s _______________ sends messages to the endocrine glands along two major pathways. a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. hypothalamus d. corpus callosum Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: During stress, the hypothalamus sends messages to the endocrine glands along two major pathways, via the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system for and via the HPA axis. 94.

Which of the following is a key stress hormone released by the adrenal glands? a. cortisol b. melatonin c. insulin d. substance P Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: The adrenal cortex secretes cortisol and other hormones that elevate blood sugar and protect the body’s tissues from inflammation in case of injury. 95.

When a person is under stress, the brain’s hypothalamus activates the __________ system, producing the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine into the body. a. somatic nervous b. reticular activating c. parasympathetic nervous d. sympathetic nervous Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447

Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: When a person is under stress, the brain’s hypothalamus sends messages to the endocrine glands along two major pathways, one of which activates the sympathetic nervous system. 96.

The HPA axis is a system activated to a. carry messages from special receptors in the skin to the brain. b. control the sensory and motor nerves. c. energize the body to respond to stressors. d. relax the body and help it conserve energy. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Activation of the HPA axis increases secretion of the stress hormone cortisol, which results in an increase in blood sugar and a reduction of inflammation. 97.

The “HPA” axis is an abbreviation for a. hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal cortex. b. hormonal-pubertal-adrenal circuit. c. hippocampus-pituitary-amygdala circuit. d. heritable-peripheral-adrenal cortex. Section: The Nature of Stress Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: HPA stands for hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and adrenal cortex.

Page(s): 447 Answer: a

98.

People at the lower end of the socioeconomic ladder have worse health for almost every disease and medical condition than do those at the top. One reason for this is a. malingering (pretending to be ill). b. cultural reinforcers. c. continuous environmental stressors. d. heredity. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 448 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In addition to their lack of access to good medical care and frequent reliance on diets that lead to obesity and diabetes, low-income people often live with continuous environmental stressors. 99.

Dr. Benno leaves his practice in a wealthy suburb and begins seeing patients in a clinic in a poor urban area. What can he expect will be the difference between his new patients and his former ones? a. The new patients will be generally in worse health. b. The new patients will have less stress because many are unemployed. c. The new patients will have more stress but lower mortality rates. d. The new patients will be less likely to suffer from diseases associated with high-pressure lives, like hypertension and strokes. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 450 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: People at the lower range of the socioeconomic ladder have worse health and higher mortality rates than those at the top. 100.

Chronic stress has been linked to the common cold. The risk is increased among many groups of people, but it is highest among people who are a. undergoing relationship problems with family. b. undergoing relationship problems with friends. c. unemployed. d. overwhelmed at work. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 448 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: In one study, heroic volunteers were given either ordinary nose drops or nose drops containing a cold virus, and then were quarantined for five days. The people most likely to get a cold’s miserable symptoms were those who had been underemployed or unemployed for at least a month. % correct 42 a= 10 b= 6 c= 42 d= 41 r = .32

101.

_______________ is the study of the relationships among psychology, the nervous and endocrine systems, and the immune system. a. Neurology b. Psychoneuroimmunology c. Sociocultural psychology d. Psychodynamic psychology Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 448–449 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Psychoneuroimmunology, or PNI, is an interdisciplinary specialty that looks at the interactions among psychological, neurological, and immune system factors. % correct 93 a=3 b= 93 c= 0 d= 6 r = .37 102.

Which of the following is a type of white blood cell? a. natural killer cells b. antibodies c. antigens d. HPA cells Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 449 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Natural killer cells are important in tumor detection and rejection and act against viruses. 103.

How might a psychoneuroimmunologist explain the increased risk of catching the common cold during periods of prolonged stress? a. Stress increases the number of natural killer cells, which attack the immune system. b. Stress increases the number of white blood cells, making the body more susceptible to infection. c. Telomeres are lengthened by stress, leaving cells more vulnerable to infection. d. Stress disrupts normal chemical communication between the brain and the immune system. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 449 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Chemicals produced by the immune cells are sent to the brain, and the brain in turn sends chemical signals to stimulate or restrain the immune system. Anything that disrupts this communication loop, whether drugs, surgery, or chronic stress, can weaken or suppress the immune system. 104.

One study found that the cells of the highly stressed women looked like those of women at least ten years older. One reason for this increased cell damage may be linked to a. the shortening of telomeres. b. the lengthening of telomeres. c. an increase in the number of natural killer cells. d. a decrease in the number of natural killer cells. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 449 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When a telomere becomes too short, the cells stops dividing and dies. Because chronic stress has been shown to shorten telomere length, this is a possible reason why chronic stress causes cell damage. 105.

Natalie’s car breaks down on the interstate on her way home from work. All she can think about is all the problems this will cause for her and wonder what will go wrong for her next. Natalie is displaying a. secondary control. b. pessimism. c. emotion work. d. optimism. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 449–450 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Pessimists do not expect that anything will go right. 106.

Gina’s car breaks down on the interstate on her way home from work. Even though she is a little bit upset, mostly what she thinks about is how lucky she is that she left work early and is not stuck in rush-hour traffic. Gina is displaying

a. primary control. b. pessimism. c. emotion work. d. optimism. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 449–450 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Optimists believe that, overall, things will go well in spite of the occasional setback. 107.

When compared to optimists, pessimists are more likely to a. drink and smoke too much. b. keep their sense of humor. c. plan for the future. d. have higher levels of white blood cells. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 450 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Compared to optimists, pessimists often do self-destructive things like drinking too much, smoking, driving too fast, and failing to take medication for illness. 108.

Which of the following statements is true about optimists? a. They are unrealistic and tend to deny their problems. b. They are more likely than pessimists to be active problem solvers. c. They try to avoid facing bad news as long as possible. d. They tend to escape into wishful thinking when confronted with a problem. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 450 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Optimists are more likely than pessimists to be active problem solvers. 109.

_______________ is a general expectation about whether the results of your actions are under your own control or beyond your control. a. Primary control b. Secondary control c. Locus of control d. Explanatory style Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 450 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is the definition of locus of control. 110.

As the four winners of the grade-school spelling bee posed for a picture, each was mulling over the day’s success. Which child shows an external locus of control? a. Chris, who thinks, “Wow! I’m really smart when it comes to spelling.” b. Lee, who thinks, “I really worked hard learning all those words and it paid off.” c. Terry, who thinks, “This is my lucky day! I was really lucky to get such easy words!” d. Nat, who thinks, “I’ll succeed by setting my sights on what I want and I’ll keep trying!” Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 450 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: People with an external locus of control tend to believe that their lives are controlled by luck, fate, or other people, whereas those with an internal locus of control tend to believe that they are responsible for what happens to them. % correct 90 a= 0 b= 6 c= 90 d= 3 r = .27 111.

As Molly looks at the grade on her final exam, she thinks, “I did well on this exam, but only because my roommate helped me study.” Molly’s thoughts indicate that she has a. learning problems. b. a tendency to exert primary control. c. an internal locus of control. d. an external locus of control. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 450 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d

Rationale: People with an external locus of control believe their lives are controlled by luck, fate, or other people. 112.

Patients with an external locus of control recovering from heart attacks, when compared to patients with an internal locus of control, a. were more likely to resume unhealthy habits. b. were more likely to generate plans for recovery. c. were more likely to recover quickly. d. were more likely to begin exercise programs. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: People with an internal locus of control are more likely to change their bad habits and recover more quickly. 113.

Maria has worked as a file clerk for 17 years. Which aspect of the job is likely the greatest threat to her health and well-being? a. the speed of the work b. the attention to many details c. feeling trapped d. the daily demands from her boss Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The greatest threat to health and well-being occurs when people feel caught in a situation they cannot escape, one that goes on without a foreseeable end. 114.

In general, a person whose culture emphasizes primary control would agree that a. true tolerance is to tolerate the intolerable. b. to lose is to win. c. if you have a problem, live with it. d. if you don’t like it, change it. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: Primary control involves an effort to modify reality by changing other people, the situation, or events. 115.

_______________ is an effort to modify reality by changing other people, the situation, or events. a. Primary control b. Secondary control c. Locus of control d. Explanatory style Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is the definition of primary control. 116.

_______________ is an effort to accept reality by changing your own attitudes, goals, or emotions. a. Primary control b. Secondary control c. Locus of control d. Explanatory style Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is the definition of secondary control. 117.

Rachel is stuck in a low-paying job with a boss who offers no support. She can’t quit because of her family’s financial problems, but there is no hope of promotion in this job. When her work-related problems are compared to those of her boss, an executive supervising 10 employees, a. Rachel’s boss will be at a greater risk of stress-related illness than will Rachel. b. Rachel will be at a greater risk of stress-related illness than will her boss.

c. as colleagues in the same work environment, their risks of stress-related illnesses will be similar. d. Rachel will be at risk for catching the common cold, and her boss will be at risk for rectal cancer. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Rachel has little control, whereas her boss has much more control. People who have more control, like executives and managers, have fewer illnesses and stress symptoms. 118.

Which strategy would reap the benefits of both primary and secondary control? a. learning not to try to change things, unless they can be changed b. learning to express positive emotions, while suppressing negative ones c. accepting responsibility for everything that happens d. taking responsibility for future actions while not blaming themselves unduly for past ones Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: People who are ill or under stress can reap the benefits of both Western and Eastern forms of control by avoiding either–or thinking: taking responsibility for future actions while not blaming themselves unduly for past ones.

STRESS AND EMOTION Learning Objectives 13.15 Which emotion may be most hazardous to your heart 13.16 Whether chronic depression leads to physical illness 13.17 Why confession is often as healthy for the body as it is for the soul 119.

Research on the relationship between personality traits and cancer risk indicates that a. a Type A personality is a significant risk factor in the development of cancer. b. having a pessimistic approach to life increases a person’s chances of developing cancer. c. personality traits are only a risk factor for certain types of cancer. d. there is no link between personality and how prone a person is to develop cancer. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 452 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Research has thoroughly discredited this connection; studies of thousands of people around the world, from Japan to Finland, have found no link between personality traits and risk of cancer. 120.

Type A behavior is characterized by a. learned helplessness. b. relaxed attitude. c. anger and impatience. d. lack of competitiveness. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 452 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Type A personalities have qualities thought to be associated with heart disease: ambitiousness, impatience, anger, working hard, and having high standards for oneself. % correct 71 a= 18 b= 6 c= 71 d= 6 r = .49 121.

Abner has a Type A personality. Which of the following is most likely? a. Abner is determined to achieve. b. Abner is calm but intense. c. Abner is ambitious, but lazy. d. Abner is patient and optimistic. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 452 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: People with Type A personality are characterized by ambitiousness, impatience, anger, working hard, and having high standards for themselves. 122.

Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. When a person has a medical condition, negative emotions can affect the course of the illness and

recovery. Research indicates that there are “cancer-prone” personalities The Type A personality’s cynical hostility is the key risk factor in heart disease. Feeling anxious, depressed, and helpless can delay the healing of wounds after surgery, whereas feeling hopeful can speed surgery. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 452–453 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Research has thoroughly discredited this belief; studies of thousands of people around the world, from Japan to Finland, have found no link between personality traits and risk of cancer. b. c. d.

123.

Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for heart disease? a. hostility b. ambitiousness c. having high standards d. working hard Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 452–453 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Hostility is more hazardous to health than other traits associated with Type A personalities. 124.

The Type A behavior that is dangerous to health is a. frequent irritability. b. cynical hostility. c. a sense of time urgency. d. a highly reactive response to challenge. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 452–453 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The only factor associated with Type A personality that is related to heart disease is cynical or antagonistic hostility. 125.

Research on the link between depression and heart disease suggests that a. depression is not correlated with heart disease. b. depression itself most likely causes heart disease. c. heart disease causes depression, but depression does not cause heart disease. d. the lethargy and overeating that depression can produce likely explains the link. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 453 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: The reason depression might lead to heart disease over time is not depression itself, but more likely the lethargy and overeating that depression can produce in some of its sufferers. 126.

Which of the following best describes our current understanding of the link between depression and cancer? a. Tumors and the immune system response produce high levels of a chemical that can cause the emotional and behavioral symptoms of depression. b. Cancer can only cause depression if the person knows they have it. c. Depression can increase the risk of cancer. d. There is no link between cancer and depression. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 453 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: A study of rats, which after all are not aware of having cancer, found that the animals would float passively in water instead of swimming for safety, and show other signs of anxiety and apathy. 127.

A study of the autobiographies of 180 Catholic nuns, written when they were about 22 years old, demonstrated that a. their age when entering the convent was related to whether they developed Alzheimer’s disease. b. their degree of religious commitment was related to their general health over a lifetime. c. the frequency of positive emotions was related to their longevity. d. their standard of living was related to their general health over a lifetime.

Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 453–454 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The nuns whose life stories contained the most words describing positive emotions lived, on average, nine years longer than nuns who reported the fewest positive feelings. % correct 97 a= 0 b= 0 c= 97 d= 3 r = .63 128.

Taylor can’t believe that her boyfriend wants to see other women after two years of exclusive dating. She tries to banish all thoughts of him from her mind, but it doesn’t seem to be working. Her strategy is not effective because a. repression is unconscious, not volitional, and so Taylor cannot will it to happen. b. women have introspective styles of rumination and so Taylor needs more time to brood. c. depressed people have no control over the situations that cause negative emotions. d. by trying to avoid those thoughts, she is processing the thoughts more frequently. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 454 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: When you are trying to avoid a thought, you are in fact processing the thought more frequently. 129.

Suzi and her boyfriend Clint both see marriage in their future, unfortunately they are not in agreement regarding the timing of the event. Whether they are getting married in one year or three years is of great emotional importance to both of them. Suzi tends to express these matters to others whereas Clint tends to suppress his feelings. It is likely that a. Suzi’s way of dealing with her feelings is likely to require physical effort that is stressful to the body. b. Clint’s way of dealing with his feelings is likely to require physical effort that is stressful to the body. c. Suzi and Clint will both have elevated levels of circulating white blood cells while they make this decision. d. Clint will develop a peptic ulcer if the decision is not made within six months. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 454 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The continued inhibition of thoughts and emotions requires physical effort that can be stressful to the body. 130.

An effective way to deal with negative emotions is to a. suppress them. b. continue to think about them until they decrease. c. confess them to someone else. d. write them on a piece of paper and then burn up the paper. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 454-455 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: One effective way to get rid of negative emotions comes from research on the benefits of confession, that is, divulging private thoughts and feelings that make you ashamed or depressed. % correct 93 a= 0 b= 6 c= 93 d= 0 r = .21 131.

Which of the following is often a result of holding a grudge? a. dangerously low blood pressure b. a rise in blood pressure c. a decrease in heart rate d. a steady heart rate Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 455 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When people rehearse their grievances and hold on to their grudges, their blood pressure, heart rate, and skin conductance rise. 132.

In addition to confession, another important way of letting go of negative emotions is a. forgiveness. b. denying the emotions. c. revenge. d. ignoring the emotions. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 455

Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Forgiveness, like confession, can help a person to see events in a new light. It promotes empathy and it strengthens and repairs relationships.

COPING WITH STRESS Learning Objectives 13.18 Ways of calming the body when you are feeling stressed 13.19 The difference between emotion-focused and problem-focused coping 13.20 How to reduce stress by rethinking and reappraising your problems 13.21 The importance and limitations of social support 133.

Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. A good way to deal with the physiological tension of stress and negative emotions is to take time out and reduce the body’s physical arousal. b. Many people respond beneficially to the touch of massage. c. The ancient Buddhist practice of mindfulness meditation fosters emotional tranquility. d. Physical exercise is not an effective buffer between stressors and illness. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 456 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Reducing the body’s physical arousal, massage, and mindfulness meditation are all effective ways of handling the physiological tension of stress. 134.

As a general rule, people who exercise __________ than those who do not exercise. a. avoid more life stressors b. seek out more life stressors c. are more likely to develop health problems d. show lower physiological arousal to stressors Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 456 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: People who are physically fit show lower physiological arousal to stressors. 135.

Baking bread, getting a massage, exercising, and mindfulness meditation techniques are all ways to a. replace the urgency of Type A behaviors with less intense Type B characteristics. b. move from emotion-focused coping styles into more effective problem-focused coping. c. cope with stress by taking time out and reducing the body’s physiological arousal. d. begin to develop the skills to create a stress-free life. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 456 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The most immediate way to deal with the physiological tension of stress and negative emotions is to take time out and reduce the body’s physical arousal. These activities, along with others, calm your body and focus your mind. 136.

After their home in Kansas is damaged by a tornado, a couple talks about the event over and over in order to make sense of it and decide what to do. Their behavior is an example of a. reappraisal. b. distraction. c. emotion-focused coping. d. problem-focused coping. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 456–457 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Emotion-focused coping concentrates on the emotions the problem has caused. In this stage, people often need to talk constantly about the event, which helps them come to terms with it, make sense of it, and decide what to do about it. 137.

After their home in California is damaged during an earthquake, a couple looks into the federal loan programs to help them rebuild. Their behavior is an example of a. reappraisal.

b. distraction. c. emotion-focused coping. d. problem-focused coping. Section: Coping with Stress Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Problem-focused coping means solving the problem itself. % correct 93 a=6 b= 7 c= 0 d= 93 r = .21

Page(s): 457 Answer: d

138.

There are some problems that cannot be solved, but we can change the way we think about the problem. What coping method is being used when a person says, “I’m devastated that our home was flooded but at least it is still standing. Some of the houses closer to the river are completely gone”? a. drawing on social support b. learning from the experience c. making social comparisons d. cultivating a sense of humor Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 457 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: In a difficult situation, successful copers often compare themselves to others who are less fortunate. 139.

There are some problems that cannot be solved, but we can change the way we think about the problem. What coping method is being used when a person says, “Well, I may have lost my accounting job, but I always did want a chance to work with people, and now I can find a job that allows me to do that”? a. reappraising the situation b. learning from the experience c. making social comparisons d. cultivating a sense of humor Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 457 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is an example of reappraising the situation, or choosing to think about it differently. 140.

For years Lola Falana was one of the hottest entertainers in Las Vegas. After she was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, she noted that she had gained a new appreciation of life that went beyond fame and fortune. In recent interviews, she talks about her fresh start and her new life. What coping method does this illustrate? a. reappraising the situation b. learning from the experience c. making social comparisons d. cultivating a sense of humor Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 457 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: This is an example of learning from a situation, and becoming stronger as a result. 141.

Finding out what your legal resources are when you have been victimized by a crime is an example of a. problem-focused coping. b. emotion-focused coping. c. distraction. d. reappraisal. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 457 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Problem-focused coping involves solving the problem itself. 142.

Thornton drops his glasses on the sidewalk and they shatter. Which of the following would be a response that shows reappraisal? a. “I’ll put it out of my mind by going for a swim.” b. “I am a stupid, clumsy idiot, that’s for sure.” c. “That’s a shame, but I’ve been wanting new glasses anyway.” d. “I can’t ever do anything right, it seems.”

Section: Coping with Stress Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Reappraisal involves choosing to think about a situation differently.

Page(s): 457 Answer: c

143.

“This class drives me crazy, but I’m better off than my friends who aren’t in college.” This is an example of what coping strategy? a. empathy b. denial c. avoidance d. social comparison Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 457 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: This is an example of making social comparisons. 144.

Karen is has a close circle of friends and family members. Research indicates that, compared to a similar individual who has only a few casual friends, Karen is more likely to a. have a longer life. b. have a shorter life. c. develop breast cancer. d. avoid getting breast cancer. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 457 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: People who live in a network of close connections actually live longer than those who do not. 145.

In one study of 16 couples, the wives had to lie in an MRI machine, periodically receiving a mild but stressful electric shock on their ankles. During the procedure, some women received a touch on the hand from a stranger; others held hands with their husbands. What general principle can be drawn from the results of this study? a. Touch can be comforting, but it does not actually reduce pain. b. Any human touch reduces pain and negative emotions equally. c. The touch of a loved one is more effective than that of a stranger in stressful situations. d. Being touched by a stranger makes things worse in a stressful situation. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 458 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: The moment the women felt a husband’s reassuring hand, their brain activation subsided in all the regions that had been revved up to cope with threat and fear. Holding hands with a stranger, while comforting, did not produce as great a decrease in brain activation as did a husband’s touch. 146.

Which stimulus is most likely to increase oxytocin levels in a human’s brain? a. pain b. an affectionate touch c. stress d. candy Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 458 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When a touch is affectionate and welcome, it can actually elevate some “therapeutic” hormones, especially oxytocin. 147.

Ingrid has a rough day at work and is feeling stressed. When she gets home, her husband gives her a long hug and then they curl up on the couch and watch a movie. What hormone will likely released in Ingrid’s brain that will help diminish the effects of her work stress? a. epinephrine b. HPA c. cortisol d. oxytocin Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 458 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: When a touch is affectionate and welcome, it can actually elevate some “therapeutic” hormones,

especially oxytocin. 148.

The hormone oxytocin could be described as being involved in the ______________ response to stress. a. “tend and befriend” b. “fight or flight” c. “cry and ask ‘why?’” d. “avoid and evade” Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 458 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Oxytocin is a hormone that induces relaxation and is associated with mothering and attachment. 149.

Married couples who argue in a hostile fashion a. show significant elevations of cortisol and poorer immune function afterward. b. almost always end up getting divorced. c. succeed in getting their anger out of their system. d. have wounds and blisters that heal quickly. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 459 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Your health depends not only on what is going on in your body and mind but also what is going on in your relationships. 150.

Julius Segal, a psychologist who worked with Holocaust survivors, wrote that a key element in their recovery was a. compassion, that is, healing by helping others. b. trying to put the horror-filled images out of their minds. c. venting their emotions, over and over again. d. pursuing revenge against those who supported Hitler. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 459 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: People gain strength by focusing less on their own woes and more on helping other people overcome theirs.

True-False Questions

___

There is little support for Darwin’s evolutionary explanation that certain human facial expressions are “wired in.” Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: There is considerable support of Darwin’s suggestion that basic human facial expressions are instinctive. 2.

When people try to hide their feelings with an inauthentic expression, they use different groups of muscles than they do for authentic emotions. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 3. False smiles last ten seconds or more, whereas authentic smiles last only about two seconds. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 4.

When a person is asked to contort his or her facial muscles into patterns associated with anger, then he or she is likely to feel negative feelings. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact.

5. Our facial expressions help us communicate with others, but they also help us identify our own emotions. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435–436 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 6.

The signaling function of their baby’s facial expressions becomes apparent to most parents when the baby is about 12 months old. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 436 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The signaling function of their baby’s facial expressions becomes apparent to most parents during early infancy. 7. A person with damage to the left prefrontal cortex may lose the capacity for joy. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 8. The amygdala plays a key role in emotion, especially fear. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

The amygdala is responsible for evaluating incoming sensory information and quickly determining the emotional importance of the information. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 10.

The amygdala generates a more complete picture of a person or situation and can override signals sent by lower parts of the brain. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is the role of the cerebral cortex, especially the prefrontal cortex, not the amygdala. 11.

Emotions differ from one another physiologically, with different patterns of brain activity and autonomic nervous system activity. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 439 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 12. Most psychological scientists view the polygraph as invalid. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 439 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

13. The polygraph detects the physiological patterns of responses that are specific to lying. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 439 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: There are no physiological patterns specific to lying. 14.

In a study of athletes’ reactions to placing second and third, third-place winners tended to be happier about their performance than those who came in second. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 441 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 15.

People in most cultures feel angry in response to an insult, but they often disagree on how an insult is

defined. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 443 Rationale: Statement of fact.

Type: Factual

Answer: True

16. Prototypical emotions are reflected in the emotion words that young children learn first. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 443 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 17.

The emotions of hostility, ecstasy, irritability, and nostalgia would be included among the prototypical emotions that young children learn first. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 443 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: These are secondary emotions. Emotions like sadness, fear, happiness, and anger are more likely to be considered prototypical emotions. 18.

Display rules involve universal, biologically based emotional displays evoked by particular emotional situations. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 444 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Display rules are social/cultural guidelines for the expression of emotion. 19.

The smile is one of the few methods of communicating emotion that is a straightforward sign, easy to read and interpret in every culture. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 444 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Even the smile is often misinterpreted, because it is often used to disguise or hide other emotions. 20.

After a Japanese-American business session, the most likely complaint by the Americans would be that the Japanese are too aloof and cold. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 444 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The most likely complaint by the Americans would be that the Japanese smile too much in order to disguise their embarrassment. 21. Expression of an emotion that the person does not really feel is called emotion work. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 444 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 22.

During the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome, the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system kicks into gear. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: During the alarm phase, the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system becomes active. 23.

During the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome, the body attempts to cope with a stressor that persists over time. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446–447 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 24.

During the exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome, the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system kicks into gear. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The sympathetic nervous system becomes active during the alarm phase.

25.

When a person is under stress, the brain’s hypothalamus sends messages to the endocrine glands along two major pathways. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 26. Work problems and unemployment pose a greater health risk than conflicts in relationships. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 448 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 27.

The white blood cells of the immune system are designed to recognize antigens, such as flu viruses, and then destroy them. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 449 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 28. Optimists tend to avoid facing bad news. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 450 Type: Factual Rationale: Pessimists will avoid facing bad news.

Answer: False

29.

Locus of control refers to your general expectation about whether you can control the things that happen to you. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 450 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 30.

People who have an external locus of control tend to believe that they are responsible for what happens to them, that they control their own destiny. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 450 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is descriptive of an internal, not external, locus of control. 31.

At work, the people who suffer most from job stress and who are at greatest risk of illness are corporate managers. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Managers have more control and therefore suffer less from job stress. 32. Primary control is an effort to modify reality by changing other people, the situation, or events. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 33. Secondary control is a “fighting back” philosophy. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Factual Rationale: This is true of primary, not secondary, control. 34. The Japanese proverb “To lose is to win” illustrates secondary control. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: False

Answer: True

35. Research strongly supports the concept that there is a “cancer-prone” personality. Section: Stress and Emotion

Page(s): 452 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Research has thoroughly discredited this belief; studies of thousands of people around the world, from Japan to Finland, have found no link between personality traits and risk of cancer. 36. People with a Type A personality are patient and optimistic. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 452 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: People with a Type A personality are ambitious, impatient, angry, hard working, and have high standards for themselves. 37.

The risk factor of the Type A personality, in regard to heart disease, is high reactiveness to stress and to challenge. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 452–453 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The risk factor of the Type A personality is cynical or antagonistic hostility, which characterizes people who are mistrustful of others and always ready to provoke mean, furious arguments. 38. Proneness to anger is a significant risk factor for coronary heart disease. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 453 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

39. Suppressing thoughts of a person who has harmed you, rather than divulging them to others, tends to be beneficial in reducing emotional responsiveness toward the perpetrator. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 454 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Confession, that is, divulging private thoughts and feelings that make you ashamed or depressed, is helpful in ridding a person of negative emotions. 40.

Confession works when it produces insight and understanding, thereby ending the stressful repetition of obsessive thoughts and unresolved feelings. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 455 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 41.

Among people under the same amount of stress, fit individuals have fewer health problems than those who are less fit. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 456 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 42.

Emotion-focused coping strategies concentrate on the emotions that a problem has caused, whether anger, anxiety, or grief. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 456 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 43.

An effective way of dealing with a stressful situation is to reappraise your problems so that they turn into positive opportunities. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 457 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 44.

Making social comparisons, especially comparisons to one who is worse off, is therapeutic in difficult situations. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 457 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact.

45.

An effective way to cope with stress is to give support to others rather than always being on the receiving end. Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 459 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact.

Short Answer Questions 1. Define and give three examples of primary emotions. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 434 Type: Factual, Applied Answer: Primary emotions are emotions that people are born with and are universal. Most people would consider the list of primary emotions to include fear, anger, sadness, joy, surprise, disgust, and contempt. 2. Explain the concept of facial feedback, and provide an example of its role in emotions. Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 435– 436 Type: Factual Answer: The facial muscles send messages to the brain about the basic emotion being expressed. Someone who forces a smile, even if he or she does not feel happy, will tend to experience an increase in positive feelings. 3.

In an experiment, 1-year-old babies were put on an ambiguous visual cliff that did not drop off sharply. In this case, the babies’ behavior depended on the mother’s expression. What was the result? Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 436 Type: Factual Answer: Nearly three-quarters crossed the cliff when mothers put on a happy expression. Not one crossed when the mother showed an expression of fear. 4. What role does the amygdala play in regard to emotion? Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 437 Type: Factual Answer: The amygdala is responsible for quickly evaluating sensory information to determine its importance, and it decides whether to approach or withdraw. It plays a key role in anger and fear. 5. What were the results in a study of athletes’ reactions to placing second and third in the 1992 Olympics? Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 441 Type: Factual Answer: Bronze medalists were happier than silver medalists. Silver winners compared themselves to those who won the gold; bronze winners compared themselves to everyone who didn’t get a medal. 6. Why don’t feelings of shame and guilt occur until 2–3 years of age? Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 441 Type: Factual Answer: Shame and guilt are emotions that require a sense of self, which is not established until the age of 2 or 3. The child must be able to perceive his or her own behavior in order to feel shame or guilt about it. 7. Define and give an example of emotion work. Section: Emotion and Culture Page(s): 444 Type: Factual, Applied Answer: Emotion work occurs when we act out an emotion we do not really feel because it is socially appropriate. An example is a customer service representative who smiles and acts cheerful even though he or she does not really feel cheerful. 8.

In his research on stress, Hans Selye described the body’s response to external stressors. What did he call

this process? Briefly describe the three phases of this process. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446– 447 Type: Factual Answer: The body’s three-phase response to stress is called the general adaptation syndrome. In the alarm phase, the body mobilizes the sympathetic nervous system to meet the immediate threat. In the resistance phase, the body attempts to cope with a stressor that is continuing. In the exhaustion phase, the body is depleted of energy. 9. Differentiate between optimistic and pessimistic styles of thinking and how each relates to health. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 449– 450 Type: Factual Answer: Optimists generally expect that things will go well in spite of setbacks. Optimism is more likely than pessimism to produce good health. Optimists are more likely than pessimists to be problem solvers and get support from friends. Pessimists often do self-destructive things such as drinking too much, smoking, failing to wear seat belts, and driving too fast. 10. Give an example of someone having an internal locus of control and someone having an external locus of control. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 450 Type: Applied Answer: People who have an internal locus of control tend to believe that they are responsible for what happens to them. Example: You receive an “A” on an exam because you studied hard for it. External locus of control is the belief that others or something else has control in what happens to you. Example: You receive an “A” on an exam. Your thoughts are it must have been luck, the teacher graded easy, or the test itself was just easy. 11. Please differentiate between primary and secondary control. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 451 Type: Conceptual Answer: Primary control means trying to influence or control an event or modify reality. Secondary control means choosing to accept reality by changing your own attitude, goals, or emotions. 12. Can depression lead to illness, either directly or indirectly? Explain. Section: Stress and Emotion Page(s): 454 Type: Factual Answer: Clinical depression is linked to at least a doubled risk of heart attack and cardiovascular disease, according to several large-scale longitudinal studies. However, it appears that the reason depression might lead to heart disease over time is not depression itself, but more likely the lethargy and overeating that depression can produce in some of its sufferers. 13. What are the three effective cognitive coping methods that involve the way a person thinks about a problem? Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 457 Type: Factual Answer: The three effective cognitive coping methods are reappraising the situation, learning from experience, and making social comparisons.

Essay Questions 1.

Many components of emotional experience involve specific regions in the brain. Describe what researchers have learned about emotion and the brain, especially in regard to the following.  the different roles played by left and right prefrontal cortices

 the key role the amygdala plays in emotion  the interaction between the amygdala and the cerebral cortex in appraising emotional situations Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 436–437 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The right prefrontal cortex is important for the impulse to withdraw or escape (as in disgust and fear).  Regions of the left prefrontal cortex are specialized for the motivation to approach others (as in happiness, a positive emotion, and anger, a negative one).  People who have greater-than-average activation of the left areas, compared with the right, have more positive feelings, a quicker ability to recover from negative emotions, and a greater ability to suppress negative emotions.  The amygdala is important for the initial assessment of danger or threat in the incoming sensory information.  It determines the emotional importance of sensory information and makes the initial decision to approach or withdraw.  The cortex generates a more complete emotional picture than the amygdala and can override signals sent by the amygdala. 2.

What are some problems with law enforcement agencies using polygraph machines to detect lies and deception? What other technologies are researchers trying to use to measure the physiological signs of lying? Section: The Nature of Emotion Page(s): 339–440 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Most psychological scientists regard polygraph tests as invalid because no physiological patterns of autonomic arousal are specific to lying.  The polygraph produces frequent false positives; that is, innocent people are thought to be lying.  Some guilty people, on the other hand, can pass the test.  Researchers are trying to identify other means of lie detection such as computer voice stress analyzers and fMRIs. 3.

In his book The Stress of Life, Hans Selye wrote that many different environmental stressors, such as heat or cold, pain or danger, disrupt the body’s equilibrium and lead to a three-phase physiological reaction. Create your own example of an environmental stressor and then provide details of each of the three phases. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 446–447 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Example: A person living in a country that is at war is faced with constant danger and threat of death.  The alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome might occur when a bomb goes off nearby or they hear nearby gunfire. The person would experience the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine and sympathetic nervous system arousal. This triggers the “fight or flight” response and includes things like increased blood pressure, tense muscles, and increased heart rate.  A person who continues to be exposed to such stressors on a daily basis would enter the resistance phase. The body becomes more vulnerable to other stressors, and the person becomes more irritable and annoyed by minor things.



Eventually the person reaches the exhaustion phase when the persistent stress has depleted the body of energy, resulting in illness, chronic hypertension, headaches, digestive disorders, etc.

During stress, the hypothalamus can control the release of hormones from the adrenal glands via two major pathways. Describe the two pathways and the effects of the hormones they control. Section: The Nature of Stress Page(s): 447 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  One pathway stimulates the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system for “fight or flight,” producing the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine from the inner part (medulla) of the adrenal glands.  These hormones produce a state of arousal and alertness.  The second pathway is called the HPA axis (HPA stands for hypothalamus–pituitary– adrenal cortex).  The hypothalamus will send signals to the pituitary gland.  The pituitary gland will, in turn, signal the adrenal cortex to release cortisol and other stress hormones.  Cortisol elevates blood sugar and protects the body from inflammation.  Although useful in the short term, continued elevation of cortisol can contribute to hypertension, immune disorders, and other physical or emotional problems. 5.

Galen is feeling overwhelmed by assignments and tests. He decides to take a break from schoolwork for a couple of hours. What are three activities that Galen could do during this period that will help him cope with his stress and decrease his risk of illness? Section: Coping with Stress Page(s): 456 Type: Applied Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The most immediate way to handle the physiological tension of stress is to reduce the body’s physical arousal.  Galen might benefit from the soothing touch of a massage.  Meditation, especially “mindfulness meditation,” is another way to reduce arousal.  A third effective buffer between stressors and illness is exercise.  Other acceptable answers include any activity that would calm Galen’s body and focus his mind (e.g., prayer, music, dancing, or baking bread).

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 14 – Quick Quiz 1 1.

When asked how they met, Jackie responds, “It was love at first sight!” This response is reflective of which type of love? a. intimate love c. companionate love b. commitment love d. passionate love

Charlie and Charlotte are learning to ski. Every time she falls, Charlotte says, “This is the most humiliating experience I’ve ever had! Everyone is watching me behave like a clumsy dolt!” When Charlie falls he says, “Well, that sure isn’t the way to turn on these things, I better try another way.” Why is Charlotte more likely than Charlie to give up? a. She has set an unrealistic goal. c. She has little need for achievement. b. She is focusing on mastery. d. She is focusing on performance.

A person’s belief that he or she is capable of producing desired results, such as mastering new skills and

reaching goals, is referred to as a. a self-fulfilling prophecy. b. self-control. 10.

c. d.

a mastery belief. self-efficacy.

There is an old saying, “Damned if I do and damned if I don’t.” This saying illustrates a(n) a. approach–approach conflict. c. avoidance–avoidance conflict. b. approach–avoidance conflict. d. multiple approach–avoidance conflict.

Chapter 14 – Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Intrinsic motivation is doing something for its own sake, such as eating a sandwich because it tastes good. (Pages 467–468, Applied)

Rationale: Pairs of adult identical twins who grew up in different families are just as similar in body weight and shape as twins raised together. (Page 469, Factual)

Rationale: Set point theory would not predict worldwide increases in weight. (Pages 468–470, Conceptual)

Rationale: Passionate love is the stuff of crushes, infatuation, and “love at first sight.” (Page 474, Applied)

Rationale: According to the attachment theory of love, a person’s attachment style is reflected in how he or she was parented. (Page 476, Conceptual)

Rationale: According to this view, females must choose partners more carefully than males do. So females try to attach themselves to dominant males who have resources and status and are likely to have superior genes. (Page 482, Conceptual)

Rationale: Risky sexual behaviors, such as sex with many partners and a failure to use birth control, are strongly associated with extrinsic motives for sex. (Page 484, Factual)

Rationale: Charlotte is focusing on performance, whereas Charlie is focusing on learning. (Pages 491–492, Applied)

Rationale: A person’s belief that he or she is capable of producing desired results, such as mastering new skills and reaching goals is referred to as self-efficacy. (Page 493, Factual)

10.

Rationale: This is an example of an avoidance–avoidance conflict where one has to choose between two alternatives, neither of which is good. (Pages 496–497, Conceptual)

Name __________________________________________________________ Chapter 14 – Quick Quiz 2 1.

During a critical period in infancy, __________ influences the formation of neural circuits in the hypothalamus, responsible for determining the body’s set point. a. leptin c. fructose b. sucrose d. pectin

Which underlying motive emphasizes having sex to be reassured that one is attractive and desired? a. peer approval c. intimacy b. partner approval d. insecurity

David McClelland used a variation on the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) to measure a. intelligence. c. sexual desire. b. motivation to achieve. d. body self-image.

10 .

Nari wants to be a stay-at-home mom but worries that she won’t be able to return to her career. This illustrates a(n) a. approach–approach conflict. c. avoidance–avoidance conflict. b. approach–avoidance conflict. d. multiple approach–avoidance conflict.

Chapter 14 – Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1.

Rationale: Leptin plays its most crucial role early in life, by altering the brain chemistry that influences how much an animal or a person later eats. During a critical period in infancy, leptin influences the formation of neural connections in the hypothalamus, and determines the body’s set point for weight. (Page 469, Factual)

Rationale: Bulimia is an eating disorder characterized by episodes of excessive eating followed by forced vomiting or the use of laxatives. (Page 472, Applied)

Rationale: Companionate love is characterized by affection and trust. (Page 474, Applied)

Rationale: According to the attachment theory of love, anxious lovers worry that their partner will leave them. (Page 476, Factual)

Rationale: Masters and Johnson’s research was limited by the selection of a sample consisting only of men and women who were easily orgasmic, and they did not investigate how people’s physiological responses might vary according to their age, experience, and culture. (Page 480, Factual)

Rationale: Insecurity is an underlying motive that emphasizes having sex to be reassured that one is attractive and desired. (Page 484, Factual)

Rationale: Most gay men recall that they rejected the typical boy role and boys’ toys and games from an early age, in spite of enormous pressures from their parents and peers to conform to the traditional male role. (Page 487, Conceptual)

Rationale: David McClelland and his associates (1953) speculated that some people have an inner drive to achieve that motivates them as much as hunger motivates people to eat. To measure the strength of this motive, McClelland used a variation of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). (Page 489, Factual)

Rationale: This describes a person who has a strong sense of self-efficacy or competence. (Page 493, Conceptual)

10 .

Rationale: Nari has to choose whether to stay at home, an option that has both positive and negative aspects to it. (Page 497, Applied)

Chapter 14 – THE MAJOR MOTIVES OF LIFE: FOOD, LOVE, SEX, AND WORK Multiple Choice Questions THE HUNGRY ANIMAL: MOTIVES TO EAT Learning Objectives 14.1 The biological mechanisms that make it difficult for obese people to lose weight and keep it off 14.2 How notions of the ideal male and female body change over time and across cultures 14.3 Why people all over the world are getting fatter 14.4 The major forms of eating disorders, and why they are increasing among both sexes 1.

The psychology of motivation can be best summarized as the study of a. how decisions are made. b. why we do what we do. c. biological drives. d. performance goals. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The word motivation, like the word emotion, comes from the Latin root meaning “to move,” and the psychology of motivation is indeed the study of what moves us, why we do what we do. 2.

The English words motivation and emotion both come from the same Latin root meaning a. “to guide.” b. “to move.” c. “biological drive.” d. “to dominate.” Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The word motivation, like the word emotion, comes from the Latin root meaning “to move.” 3.

For many decades, the study of motivation was dominated by a focus on a. mastery goals. b. the need for affiliation. c. biological drives. d. performance goals. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: For many years, psychologists focused on biological drives when studying motivation. 4.

According to your textbook a. modern psychological theories recognize only two basic forms of motivation: “life” drives and “death” drives. b. today’s motivation researchers emphasize the biological drives that guide behavior. c. human motivation is based entirely on psychological goals, not biological needs. d. drive theories do not account for the full complexity of human motivation. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: For many decades, the study of motivation was dominated by a focus on biological drives, such as those to acquire food and water, to have sex, to seek novelty, and to avoid cold and pain. But drive theories do not account for the full complexity of human motivation, because people are conscious creatures who think and plan ahead, set goals for themselves, and plot strategies to reach those goals.

To psychologists, motivation refers to a. a state of tension resulting from the deprivation of physical needs, such as those for food and water. b. a process in which an individual sets goals in order to increase his or her competence and skills. c. an inferred process within a person or animal, which causes that organism to move toward a goal or away from an unpleasant situation. d. movement through a hierarchy of need, beginning with survival needs for sleep, food, and water and reaching needs for self-actualization. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467–468 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: This is the definition of motivation given in the text. % correct 97 a= 3 b= 0 c= 97 d= 0 r = .21 6.

The pursuit of an activity for its own sake is called a. the need for affiliation. b. intrinsic motivation. c. biological drives. d. performance goals. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467–468 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Intrinsic motivation is the desire to do something for its own sake and the pleasure it brings. % correct 93 a= 0 b= 93 c= 3 d= 3 r = .21 7. An example of intrinsic motivation is reading a textbook because a. you want to earn an A on a test. b. you want to avoid a D or F. c. you enjoy reading it. d. you are being paid to read it. Section: Chapter Introduction Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Intrinsic motivation is the pursuit of an activity for its own sake. % correct 45 a= 25 b= 25 c= 45 d= 5 r = .70

Page(s): 467–468 Answer: c

Which of the following is an example of an intrinsically motivated behavior? a. eating a sandwich because it tastes good b. working to earn a paycheck c. bringing your mother flowers on her birthday because it is expected d. having sex with a boyfriend so he does not end the relationship Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467–468 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Intrinsic motivation is doing something for its own sake, such as eating a sandwich because it tastes good. 9.

Intrinsic motivation is defined as a. the pursuit of an activity for external rewards. b. the pursuit of an activity for its own sake. c. the pursuit of an activity to relieve the state of tension caused by deprivation. d. the pursuit of an activity in order to be judged favorably by others. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467–468 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Intrinsic motivation is doing something for its own sake, such as reading a book you enjoy, rather than doing something for some external reward. 10.

The pursuit of an activity for external rewards is called a. the need for affiliation. b. intrinsic motivation. c. extrinsic motivation.

d. a mastery goal. Section: Chapter Introduction Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of extrinsic motivation. % correct 97 a= 0 b= 3 c= 97 d= 0 r = .21

Page(s): 467–468 Answer: c

11.

Which of the following is an example of an extrinsically motivated behavior? a. reading a mystery book by your favorite author b. working to earn a paycheck c. bringing your mother flowers because it makes you feel good d. marrying someone because you love being with him or her Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467–468 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: An extrinsic motivation is the desire to do something for the sake of external rewards, such as money or fame. 12.

Leona engages in activities only if she will receive a reward. She a. has a need for affiliation. b. is intrinsically motivated. c. is extrinsically motivated. d. is mastering a goal. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467–468 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: An extrinsic motivation is the desire to do something for the sake of external rewards, such as money or fame. 13.

_______________ is the genetically influenced weight range of an individual, maintained by biological mechanisms that regulate food intake, fat reserves, and metabolism. a. Extrinsic weight b. Set point c. Intrinsic weight d. Goal weight Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 468 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: This is the definition of set point. % correct 97 a= 0 b= 97 c= 0 d= 3 r = .42 14.

The set point theory says that a. biological mechanisms try to keep fat stores as large as possible. b. when thin people overeat, their metabolisms slow down. c. setting a realistic goal is crucial for weight loss. d. body weight varies within a genetically influenced weight range. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 468 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Set point is defined as the genetically influenced weight range for an individual, maintained by biological mechanisms that regulate food intake, fat reserves, and metabolism 15.

The evidence for psychological theories of overweight a. empirically supports the view that overweight individuals are emotionally disturbed. b. was based on flawed studies, often without control groups or objective measures. c. indicates that overweight people, on the average, overeat to fill “emotional holes.” d. shows that heaviness is almost always based on overeating. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 468 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Early studies suggesting that being overweight was a result of psychological factors such as mental illness were generally flawed.

16.

In her health class, Sonja uses an equation in her textbook to estimate that her body burns about 1,300 calories per day, without exercising. This is her a. basal metabolism rate. b. leptin conversion rate. c. metabolic conversion point. d. set point. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 468 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Everyone has a genetically programmed basal metabolism rate, the rate at which the body burns calories for energy. 17.

_______________ is the genetically influenced weight range for an individual, maintained by biological mechanisms that regulate food intake, fat reserves, and metabolism. a. Basal metabolism rate b. Leptin c. Anorexia nervosa d. Set point Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 468 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The set point is generally the weight you stay at—plus or minus 10 percent—when you are not trying to gain or lose. It is maintained by biological mechanisms that regulate food intake, fat reserves, and metabolism. 18.

Ever since Geoff was 18, he has weighed close to 165 lbs. During periods of heavy exercise or inactivity, he tends to gain or lose weight for short periods of time, but it usually returns to normal fairly quickly. What is the best explanation for this? a. Geoff’s set point is near 165 lbs. b. Geoff’s body produces too much leptin. c. A mutation of the ob gene helps Geoff control his weight. d. Geoff’s has larger than average fat cells, but fewer of them. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 468 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: The set point is generally the weight you stay at—plus or minus 10 percent—when you are not trying to gain or lose. It is maintained by biological mechanisms that regulate food intake, fat reserves, and metabolism. 19.

Set point theory has difficulty explaining a. why most people who diet eventually gain the weight back. b. how the same daily caloric intake causes some to gain weight, but not others. c. the dramatic worldwide increases in the rates of overweight and obesity. d. the role of basal metabolism rates and fat cells in maintaining weight. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 468–470 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Set point theory would not predict worldwide increases in weight. 20.

Obese people have approximately __________ fat cells as people with normal weight. a. the same number of b. two-thirds as many c. twice as many d. three times as many Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Obese people have about twice the number of fat cells. 21.

_______ fat is an energy-burning type of fat that appears to be important in regulating body weight.

a. White b. Brown c. Transparent d. Translucent Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Brown fat is an energy-burning type of fat that seems important in regulating body weight and blood sugar. 22.

During a critical period in infancy, __________ influences the formation of neural circuits in the hypothalamus, responsible for determining the body’s set point. a. leptin b. sucrose c. fructose d. pectin Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Leptin plays its most crucial role early in life, by altering the brain chemistry that influences how much an animal or a person later eats. During a critical period in infancy, leptin influences the formation of neural connections in the hypothalamus, and determines the body’s set point for weight. 23.

Research investigations of identical twins reared together and apart show that a. genes play a large role in determining body weight and shape. b. when the twins are reared apart, weight gain occurs in different body areas. c. twins reared together are more similar in body shape than those reared apart. d. the percentage of fat in the body is due to childhood nutritional intake. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Pairs of adult identical twins who grew up in different families are just as similar in body weight and shape as twins raised together. 24.

_______________ is a protein secreted by fat cells that helps in the regulation of appetite. a. Usnic acid b. Ephedra c. Leptin d. Ob Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Leptin is carried to the hypothalamus in the blood where it causes decreased appetite. 25.

While training for a marathon, Lori begins to lose weight. To stop or slow her loss of body fat, her hypothalamus increases her appetite, causing Lori to ingest more calories than she normally would. What likely triggered this response to Lori’s weight loss? a. The hypothalamus detected an increase in leptin. b. The hypothalamus detected a decrease in leptin. c. Lori’s set point became too low. d. Lori’s set point became too high. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Applied Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Fat cells secrete leptin, which travels through the blood to the brain’s hypothalamus, which is involved in the regulation of appetite. When leptin levels are too low, the hypothalamus thinks the body lacks fat reserves and signals the individual to ingest more calories. 26.

Injecting leptin into a leptin-deficient mouse would cause it to a. become sedentary. b. experience pleasure.

c. gain weight. d. lose weight. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Injecting leptin into leptin-deficient mice reduces the animals’ appetites, speeds up their metabolisms, and makes them more active; as a result, the animals shed weight. 27.

Wilma has a genetic disorder that causes her body to produce too little of the hormone leptin. Which of the following is likely a symptom of her disorder? a. Wilma is too skinny. b. Wilma overeats. c. Wilma’s metabolism is “like a hummingbird’s.” d. Wilma gets no pleasure from eating. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: When a mutation of the ob gene causes leptin levels to be too low, the hypothalamus thinks the body lacks fat reserves and signals the individual to overeat. 28.

If a friend of yours told you she was thinking of investing in a pharmaceutical company that is developing a leptin pill to help obese people lose weight, what should you tell her? a. Go for it! Leptin deficiency is the main cause of obesity. b. That’s not a good idea; a leptin pill would actually cause weight gain! c. That’s not a good idea; leptin pills don’t produce much weight loss for the majority of obese people. d. That’s not a good idea; leptin has nothing to do with body weight. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: For most obese people, and for people who are merely overweight, taking leptin does not produce much weight loss. 29.

Human evolution seems to have predisposed the body to a. speed up metabolism when tasty food is easily available in order to prevent excessive weight gain. b. store calories when food is abundant in order to aid survival when food is scarce. c. crave foods high in starch, fat, and carbohydrates, only during times of food scarcity. d. quickly adapt to periods of food overabundance by reducing caloric intake. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 470 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: It would have been adaptive for our prehistoric ancestors to store calories when food was abundant and for metabolism to slow down when food was scarce. 30.

Which of the following is one of the five leading environmental culprits causing the worldwide weight gain epidemic? a. the increased popularity of gourmet restaurants b. the increased preference for sedentary activities such as watching videos and television, sitting at a computer c. the increased popularity of eating meals at home with family d. the lack of variety in modern diets Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 470 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: One cause of increasing global obesity is the sharp decline in exercise and other expenditures of energy because of remote controls, a preference for sedentary activities such as watching videos and television, sitting at a computer or working on a laptop all day, and the speed and convenience of driving rather than walking or biking. 31.

Compared to one generation ago, food and drink portions in America have a. remained constant. b. no more than doubled.

c. doubled or tripled. d. increased by a factor of ten. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 470 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Food and drink portions are double or triple what they were only one generation ago. 32.

The cultural ideal for women in the United States, Canada, and Europe has been getting a. thinner. b. curvier. c. heavier. d. more maternal. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 471 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The cultural ideal for both men and women in the United States, Canada, and Europe has been getting thinner. 33.

When crop failures are common in a country, then the cultural ideal is likely to be a. slender. b. muscular. c. fat. d. soft but thin. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 471 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: When most people don’t have enough to eat, the person who is overweight is viewed as being healthy and beautiful. 34.

Gwin has a voluptuous figure, curvy with big breasts and big hips. She is pleased that her peers think she looks fashionable and attractive. It is most likely that Gwin is a. a woman living in Canada today. b. a woman living in Northern Europe in the 1960s. c. a woman living in Nigeria at the end of the twentieth century. d. a woman living in a Midwest Farm Belt state in the twenty-first century. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 471 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Food is scarce in Nigeria; therefore, the cultural ideal is someone with more body fat. 35.

An eating disorder characterized by episodes of excessive eating followed by forced vomiting or the use of laxatives is called a. anorexia nervosa. b. Adonis complex. c. bulimia. d. self-starvation. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 472 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: This is a description of bulimia. % correct 100 a= 0 b= 0 c= 100 d= 0 r = .00 36.

Evolution has programmed women to carry a reserve of fat for several reasons. Which of the following is one of the reasons listed in your textbook? a. to help cope with depression b. to delay the onset of menstruation c. to protect the ovaries from damage d. to produce estrogen Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 471 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d

Rationale: Some fat cells can produce estrogen, which may be particularly important for women after menopause. 37.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to eating disorders? a. high self-esteem b. depression and anxiety c. perfectionism d. pressure from parents and friends Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Low, not high, self-esteem contributes to eating disorders. % correct 96 a= 96 b= 4 c= 0 d= 0 r = .42

Page(s): 472 Answer: a

38.

Zulma is currently in therapy for treatment of an eating disorder. Every day she eats a box of donuts and an entire bag of chips and then makes herself vomit. Zulma most likely has which of the following disorders? a. binge-eating disorder b. Adonis complex c. bulimia nervosa d. anorexia nervosa Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 472 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Bulimia is an eating disorder characterized by episodes of excessive eating followed by forced vomiting or the use of laxatives. 39.

Samantha is currently in therapy for treatment of an eating disorder. She is dangerously thin but perceives herself as overweight. To control her weight she starves herself. Samantha is diagnosed with which of the following disorders? a. anorexia nervosa b. Adonis complex c. bulimia nervosa d. binge-eating disorder Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 472 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: A person suffering from anorexia may fear being fat and have a distorted body image. 40.

_______________ is an eating disorder characterized by a fear of being fat, a distorted body image, radically reduced consumption of food, and emaciation. a. Anorexia nervosa b. Body-image distortion c. Bulimia d. Leptin Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 472 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: This is a description of anorexia nervosa. % correct 100 a= 100 b= 0 c= 0 d= 0 r = .00 41.

Eating disorders and body-image distortions among boys and men often take a different form than is typically seen with women. For example, they are more likely to a. abuse steroids and exercise compulsively to be more muscular. b. binge on foods high in fat and starches. c. use inactivity to try to reduce the size of their bodies. d. eat normally, but purge anyway. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 472 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Some men have the delusion that their muscular bodies are too puny, so they abuse steroids and exercise or pump iron compulsively.

THE SOCIAL ANIMAL: MOTIVES TO LOVE Learning Objectives 14.5 How biology affects attachment and love 14.6 Some key psychological influences on whom and how you love 14.7 The three basic styles of attachment and how they affect your relationships 14.8 How economic concerns influence love and marriage 42.

When asked how they met, Jackie responds, “It was love at first sight!” This response is reflective of which type of love? a. intimate love b. commitment love c. companionate love d. passionate love Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 474 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Passionate love is the stuff of crushes, infatuation, and “love at first sight.” 43.

Marc and Johanna are engaged to be married. When asked to describe their relationship they respond by saying it is based on affection and trust. This response is reflects which kind of love? a. emotional love b. attractive love c. companionate love d. passionate love Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 474 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Companionate love is characterized by affection and trust. 44.

Which type of love is characterized by affection and trust? a. emotional love b. attractive love c. companionate love d. passionate love Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Companionate love is characterized by affection and trust.

Page(s): 474 Answer: c

45.

Which type of love is characterized by the turmoil of intense emotions and sexual passion? a. intimate love b. commitment love c. companionate love d. passionate love Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 474 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Passionate love is characterized by a whirlwind of intense emotions and sexual passion. 46.

Which best describes psychologists’ current understanding of the physiology behind love? a. The physiology underlying passionate love is relatively simple compared to appetite. b. Passionate love involves a confusing mix of different brain regions and systems. c. Although not fully understood, passionate love clearly involves its own brain regions, and is physiological distinct all other types of love and motivations. d. Passionate love is almost entirely due to gonadal hormones, and does not involve many brain regions. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 474 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b

Rationale: Attempts to tease apart the biological links between romantic passion, sexual yearning, and longterm love make the problem of obesity seem like a piece of cake. Many different systems are involved in this complicated emotion, including sensory, reward, and endocrine. 47

Which hormone/neurotransmitter could be most accurately called the “love, trust, and bonding” hormone? a. leptin b. GABA c. endorphins d. oxytocin Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 475 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Oxytocin plays an important role in feelings and expressions of love, caring, and trust between mothers and babies, between friends, and between lovers. 48.

Women and men have tried for centuries to find a magical “love potion” that could increase feelings of love, closeness, and trust in another person. While there probably will never be a drug that can make a person fall in love with someone they aren’t attracted to, what substance has some of the properties of the mythical love potion? a. leptin b. GABA c. endorphins d. oxytocin Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 475 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Oxytocin plays an important role in feelings and expressions of love, caring, and trust between mothers and babies, between friends, and between lovers. 49.

The phrase “addicted to love” may have some truth to it, because the touch of a parent or lover can cause the release of neurotransmitters in the brain that are natural __________, a class of drugs known to cause addiction. a. opiates b. tranquilizers c. stimulants d. depressants Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 475 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Contact from a loved one can stimulate the release of endorphins, the brain’s natural opiates. 50.

When her baby begins to cry, Brenda can quickly sooth him by picking him up, holding him, and stroking his head. Based on research with animals, it is likely that Brenda’s touch has a soothing effect, in part, because it leads to the release of ___________ in the baby’s brain. a. morphine b. endorphins c. leptin d. vasopressin Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 475 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When baby mice and other animals are separated from their mothers, they cry out in distress, and the mother’s touch (or lick) releases endorphins that soothe the infant. 51.

Two major predictors of whom we love are a. differences and proximity. b. proximity and similarity. c. physical attraction and similarity. d. proximity and physical attraction. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love

Page(s): 475

Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Two major predictors of whom we love are proximity and similarity.

Answer: b

52.

All other things being equal, who is Larry most likely to fall in love with? a. Jenny, who lives in a different city than Larry. b. Linda, who has different tastes and interests than Larry. c. Quinn, who is very similar to Larry. d. Michelle, who was born on the same day as Larry. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 475 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: A major predictor in whom we love is similarity—in looks, attitudes, beliefs, values, personality, and interests. 53.

According to the attachment theory of love, anxious lovers worry that a. they cannot control their own desires to cheat. b. their partner will leave them. c. their partner will never give them space. d. their partner is not good enough. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 476 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: According to the attachment theory of love, anxious lovers worry that their partner will leave them. 54.

According to the attachment theory of love, avoidant lovers a. distrust intimate attachments. b. avoid sex. c. are very clingy. d. distrust themselves. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 476 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: According to the attachment theory of love, avoidant lovers distrust and avoid intimate attachments. 55.

According to the attachment theory of love, a person’s attachment style derives from a. his or her age at the time of a first sexual relationship. b. how many relationships he or she has had. c. how he or she parents. d. how he or she was parented. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 476 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: According to the attachment theory of love, a person’s attachment style is reflected in how he or she was parented. 56.

Patricia describes her relationship with her parents as close. According to the attachment theory of love, she is likely to develop what type of attachment? a. ambivalent b. avoidant c. anxious d. secure Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 476 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Securely attached adults report having had warm, close relationships with their parents, as predicted by the attachment theory of love. 57.

When people are asked to define the key ingredients of love most identify which three? a. romance, euphoria, and affection

b. passion, intimacy, and commitment c. fidelity, liking, and sexual excitement d. yearning, compatibility, and attachment Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Most people agree that love is a mix of passion, intimacy.

Page(s): 477 Answer: b

58.

How do the three primary ingredients of love (passion, intimacy, and commitment) change over time in a relationship? a. Passion increases and intimacy decreases. b. Intimacy, passion, and commitment all increase. c. Intimacy increases and passion decreases. d. Passion and intimacy increase. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 477 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: c Rationale: Passion is usually highest early in a relationship and declines over time, whereas feelings of intimacy increase over time. 59.

All other things being equal, who is most likely to be happy in their long-term relationship? a. Kyle, who feels like he gets more out of the relationship than his partner b. Andy, who feels like he doesn’t really deserve his partner c. Yusuf, who is in his relationship primarily to avoid feeling lonely d. Roger, who feels that his relationship is fair and balanced for both him and his partner Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 477 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: One of the most important psychological predictors of satisfaction in long-term relationships is the perception, by both partners, that the relationship is fair, rewarding, and balanced. 60.

In general, women and men differ in a. how likely they are to suffer heartbreak. b. how they express their motives for love. c. how much they feel love. d. how often they suffer unrequited love. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 478 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Women and men differ, on average, in how they express the fundamental motives for love and intimacy. 61.

Lucy lived in England during the eighteenth century. It is most likely that her choice for a husband was based mostly on a. passionate love. b. companionate love. c. extrinsic reasons. d. intrinsic reasons. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 478 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In eighteenth century England, Lucy’s standard of living would be based primarily on her husband’s job and status. Therefore, Lucy would be unlikely to be motivated by the marriage relationship itself, but for the extrinsic benefits that would be associated with it, such as money and status. 62.

Mandy was born in 1990 and lives in a developed nation. When choosing someone to marry, she is most likely to be motivated by a. standard of living. b. money. c. extrinsic reasons. d. intrinsic reasons.

Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 478 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Today, in every developed nation, people marry for intrinsic motives, for the pleasure of being with the partner they chose. Only tiny numbers of women and men would consider marrying someone they did not love, even if the person had all the right qualities.

THE EROTIC ANIMAL: MOTIVES FOR SEX Learning Objectives 14.9 Which part of the anatomy is the “sexiest sex organ” 14.10 Why pleasure is only one of many motives for having sex 14.11 How culture affects sexual practices 14.12 The puzzling origins of sexual orientation 63.

Sex researcher and therapist Leonore Tiefer observed that “sex is not a natural act” for human beings. What did she mean by this? a. Physical sex, at its heart, is a repulsive act. b. Sex creates a euphoric high that is “otherworldly.” c. Sex, for any other purpose than procreation, goes against the nature and evolution. d. For humans, sex is learned, not automatic. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 479 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Sex, Tiefer says, is more like dancing than digestion, something you learn and can be motivated to improve rather than a simple physiological process. 64.

Kinsey and his associates observed that males and females a. are incapable of understanding each other due to the differences in their anatomy. b. have different kinds of orgasms. c. are very similar in their basic anatomy and physiology. d. cannot have satisfying sex without love. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 479 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Kinsey and his associates observed that males and females would understand the opposite sex if they realized the similarity in their basic anatomy and physiology. 65.

Research has dispelled the notion that a. normal women do not experience orgasm. b. men have higher rates of almost every kind of sexual behavior, including masturbation and erotic fantasies. c. the penis and the clitoris develop from the same embryonic tissue. d. orgasms experienced by men and by women are similar. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 479 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Normal women do experience orgasm, contrary to earlier thought. 66.

Masters and Johnson concluded that, when it came to orgasms, a. the capacity for sexual response of men surpasses that of women. b. the similarity between men and women depends on the source of stimulation (vaginal versus clitoral). c. men and women experience them quite differently. d. men and women are remarkably similar. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 480 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: In studies of physiological changes during sexual arousal and orgasm, they confirmed that male and female orgasms are indeed remarkably similar and that all orgasms are physiologically the same, regardless of the source of stimulation.

67.

One of the most serious limitations of the work of Masters and Johnson is that a. they did not include enough subjects who were readily orgasmic. b. they did not do research to see how experience and culture influence sexual response. c. they did not follow up their survey research findings with laboratory work. d. they did not study whether the source of stimulation influenced orgasm. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 480 Type: Factual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: Masters and Johnson’s research was limited by the selection of a sample consisting only of men and women who were easily orgasmic, and they did not investigate how people’s physiological responses might vary according to their age, experience, and culture. 68.

A female friend of yours confides in you that her sex drive has been low lately, and she is thinking of taking testosterone to increase it. Which of the following should you tell her? a. Testosterone only promotes sexual desire in men, not women. b. Testosterone does not promote sexual desire in men or women. c. Do it! Testosterone supplements are a safe way to boost libido. d. Testosterone supplements often do work to improve sexual desire. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 480 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: While testosterone is known to be involved in promoting sex drive in males and females, efforts to use testosterone to boost libido often fail to produce the expected results. Artificially administered testosterone does not do much more than a placebo to increase sexual satisfaction in healthy people. 69.

Which of the following is true regarding sexual behaviors such as masturbation, sexual fantasies, and having casual sex? a. Men and women engage in them at statistically similar rates. b. Women engage in them more frequently than men. c. Men engage in them more frequently than women. d. Cultural and religious rules are effective in eliminating them in women, but not men. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 481 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Although women on average are certainly as capable as men of sexual pleasure, men do have higher rates of almost every kind of sexual behavior, including masturbation, erotic fantasies and pornography use, and casual sex. 70.

A biological psychologist is most likely to argue that the differences in male and female sexual behavior are due to a. differences in the way men’s and women’s brains are wired. b. women’s and men’s different roles and experiences in life. c. the complete absence of testosterone in women. d. anatomical differences between the major sex organs. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 481 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Biological psychologists argue that these differences occur universally because the hormones and brain circuits involved in sexual behavior differ for men and women. 71.

Vince is a heterosexual male who dates on a regular basis. According to the evolutionary view, when looking for a partner, Vince probably will a. shop for the best “genetic deal” he can get in a woman. b. seek someone who will provide him with stability and security. c. seek someone who is young and beautiful. d. attach himself to someone who has status. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 481–482 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: According to evolutionary theory, men compete with other males for access to young and beautiful

females who are more likely to be fertile. 72.

Which of the following would be predicted by the traditional evolutionary view of sexual strategies? a. Females will try to attach themselves to one, dominant male. b. It is adaptive for young females to try to mate with many males. c. Males need to shop for the best “genetic deal” they can get in a woman. d. It is adaptive for young males to want stability and security. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 481–482 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: According to this view, females must choose partners more carefully than males do. So females try to attach themselves to dominant males who have resources and status and are likely to have superior genes. 73.

The traditional evolutionary view of love suggests that males a. will try to attach themselves to one, dominant female. b. are relatively indiscriminating in their choice of partners. c. need to shop for the best “genetic deal” they can get in a woman. d. want stability and security. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 481–482 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Proponents of evolutionary theory believe that men have evolved to be less discriminating than females when choosing partners. 74.

Proponents of evolutionary psychology believe a. males want stability and security. b. females are often fickle and promiscuous. c. males are drawn to sexual novelty. d. females are drawn to sexual novelty. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 482 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Proponents of evolutionary psychology believe males are drawn to sexual novelty. 75.

Results from a global survey involving thousands show that some differences between the sexes appear to be universal, including the fact that a. men are more interested in the youth and beauty of their partners. b. women are more interested in the youth of their partners. c. men are more interested in the status of their partners. d. women are more sexually jealous and possessive of their partners. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 482 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Results from a global survey involving thousands show that some sex differences appear to be universal, including the fact that men are more interested in the youth and beauty of their partners. 76.

Which of the following behaviors has been emphasized by critics of the traditional evolutionary view? a. Males are inclined to promiscuity because it distributes their sperm as widely as possible. b. In choosing partners, females assess the males’ status and willingness to commit. c. Females have sex when they are not ovulating and even when they are already pregnant. d. In choosing partners, males emphasize youth due to its association with fertility. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 482 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: The female’s sexual behavior does not seem to depend on only the goal of childbearing. 77.

A survey of nearly 2,000 people yielded _____ motives for having sex. a. 10 b. 28 c. 94 d. 237

Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 483 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: One survey of nearly 2,000 people yielded 237 motives for having sex, and nearly every one of them was rated as the most important motive for someone. 78.

Josue and Azadah have sex with each other as a means to feel emotionally closer. Josue and Azadah’s underlying motive for having sex is a. intimacy. b. partner approval. c. pleasure. d. peer approval. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Intimacy is emotional closeness with a partner. 79.

Which underlying motive emphasizes having sex to feel emotionally close to the partner? a. peer approval b. intimacy c. insecurity d. partner approval Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Intimacy is emotional closeness with a partner. 80.

Which underlying motive emphasizes having sex to avoid the lover’s anger or rejection? a. intimacy b. partner approval c. insecurity d. peer approval Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Partner approval is an underlying motive that emphasizes the desire to please or appease the partner; the desire to avoid the partner’s anger or rejection. 81.

Which underlying motive emphasizes having sex to be reassured that one is attractive and desired? a. peer approval b. partner approval c. intimacy d. insecurity Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Insecurity is an underlying motive that emphasizes having sex to be reassured that one is attractive and desired. 82.

Which underlying motive emphasizes having sex to conform to what everyone else seems to be doing? a. attaining a goal b. partner approval c. peer approval d. insecurity Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Peer approval is an underlying motive that emphasizes having sex to conform to what everyone else seems to be doing. 83.

Spiro has a strong need to be part of a group. The group he is currently a part of is very sexually active. Although, he does not desire to be as sexually active as his peers, he has sex to conform to what everyone

else is doing. Spiro’s motive for having sex is best described as a. insecurity. b. partner approval. c. peer approval. d. attaining a goal. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Peer approval is an underlying motive that emphasizes having sex to conform to what everyone else seems to be doing. 84.

Risky sexual behaviors, such as sex with many partners and a failure to use birth control, are strongly associated with which of the following motives for sex? a. extrinsic motives, such as having sex to gain approval from others b. the satisfaction and physical pleasure of sex c. emotional closeness with the partner d. spiritual transcendence Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Risky sexual behaviors, such as sex with many partners and a failure to use birth control, are strongly associated with extrinsic motives for sex. 85.

Which of the following is NOT one of the six factors listed in the text as underlying reasons for having sex? a. necessity or obligation b. partner approval c. peer approval d. intimacy Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Necessity or obligation was not listed as a major factor. In addition to the factors listed here, pleasure, insecurity, and attaining a goal were listed. % correct 93 a= 93 b= 0 c= 6 d= 0 r = .22 86.

Women with which attachment type are most likely to consent to unwanted sex? a. anxious b. disorganized c. secure d. avoidant Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Anxiously attached women were the most willing to consent to unwanted sex, especially if they feared their partners were less committed than they were. They reported that they often had sex out of feelings of obligation and to prevent the partner from leaving. 87.

After studying anxiously attached and securely attached women, what did researchers conclude about the reasons why the two types typically have unwanted sex? a. Anxiously attached women are more likely to have unwanted sex to gain experience. b. Securely attached women are more likely to have unwanted sex to further intimacy. c. Anxiously attached women are more concerned with peer approval. d. Securely attached women are more concerned with preventing their partner from leaving. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: : Securely attached women are more likely than anxiously attached women to have sex to further intimacy; whereas anxiously attached women tend to have unwanted sex out of obligation or to prevent their partner from leaving. 88.

Tameeka is a college student living in a dormitory on campus. She was raised by two parents who were

consistent, reliable, dependable, and trusting. As a result, she is trusting of others and has formed secure attachments with friends. One evening she decides to have unwanted sex with someone she met at a local college coffee shop. Given her pattern of attachment, the most likely reason for having unwanted sex is that she a. was curious. b. felt obligated. c. felt pressured by her peers. d. wanted to feel in control. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: When securely attached women occasionally have unwanted sex, they are more likely to do so to satisfy their curiosity or for experience or to further the intimacy in a relationship. 89.

A nationally representative survey of Americans between the ages of 18 and 59 was conducted to study gender and perceptions of sexual coercion. The results showed that about _______________ of the women said that a man had forced them to do something sexually that they did not want to do. a. 3 percent b. 10 percent c. 25 percent d. 50 percent Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 485 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Nearly one-fourth of women felt that they had been coerced, but only 3 percent of men felt that they had engaged in coercion. 90.

In a nationally representative sample assessing differences in sexual experiences of men and women, it was revealed that only about 3 percent of men a. said they forced a woman into a sexual act. b. said they were forced into a sexual act by a woman. c. said they had never forced a woman into a sexual act. d. said they were forced into a sexual act by a family member. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 485 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In a nationally representative sample assessing differences in sexual experiences of men and women, it was revealed that only 3 percent of men said they forced a woman into a sexual act, even though one-fourth of the women said they had been forced into a sexual act. 91.

Which of the following statements is supported by research? a. Most rapists act out of sexual frustration. b. Forced or coerced sex acts on women are usually committed by a husband or boyfriend. c. Rape is usually committed for intrinsic reasons. d. Sexually aggressive males usually have low self-esteem. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 485 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: In a nationally representative survey of more than 3,000 Americans ages 18 to 59, nearly onefourth of the women said that a man, usually a husband or boyfriend, had forced them to do something sexually that they did not want to do. 92

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for rape given in your textbook? a. narcissism and hostility toward women b. unrequited love c. peer approval d. anger, revenge, or a desire to dominate or humiliate Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 485 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Peer approval, anger, revenge, or a desire to dominate or humiliate the victim; narcissism and

hostility toward women; contempt for the victim; and a sadistic pleasure in inflicting pain are listed in the text as the reasons for rape. 93.

One extrinsic motive for having sex is a. pleasure. b. intimidation. c. love. d. intimacy. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 485 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Extrinsic motives for sex include intimidation, dominance, insecurity, appeasing the partner, approval from peers, and the wish to prove oneself a real man or a desirable woman. 94.

One intrinsic motive for having sex is a. insecurity. b. to appease a partner. c. intimidation. d. pleasure Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: Pleasure is an intrinsic motive for having sex.

Page(s): 485 Answer: d

95.

__________ are collections of rules that determine the proper attitudes and behaviors for men and women, sexual and otherwise. a. Gender roles b. Values c. Styles of love d. Sexual scripts Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 486 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Gender roles are collections of rules that determine the proper attitudes and behaviors for men and women, sexual and otherwise. 96.

Kerri is a freshman in college. She and her female friends wear clothing that shows off their bodies when they go out dancing, and Kerri makes a point of acting flirtatious around the men they meet. It appears that Kerri is a. an immoral person. b. following a sexual script for a young woman in her group. c. behaving in an evolutionarily determined way. d. acting out of unresolved psychological conflicts. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 486 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Like any actor in a play, a person following a gender role relies on a sexual script that provides instructions on how to behave in sexual situations. 97.

One reason for the high rate of HIV infections among African-Americans are the sexual scripts used by men and women in that community. For example, research has shown that African-American women’s behavior is often governed by scripts fostering the beliefs that a. men control sexual activity. b. only homosexuals contract HIV. c. it is the women’s job to provide protection. d. having sex with an infected person once is unlikely to lead to infection. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 486 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: While all of these beliefs might contribute to HIV infections, the one tied specifically to a sexual script, and is seen in African-American communities, is the belief that men control sexual activity. In

interviews with 14 black women ages 22 to 39, researchers found that the women’s behavior was governed by scripts fostering these beliefs: Men control relationships; women sustain relationships; male infidelity is normal; men control sexual activity; women want to use condoms, but men control condom use. 98.

In many parts of the world, traditional sexual scripts for girls teach them to a. fight with each other over males. b. be dominant in relationships. c. value physical sex over intimacy. d. make their own sexual pleasures secondary to their partner’s. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 486 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: In many parts of the world, traditional scripts teach girls to value relationships and make themselves attractive, putting their own sexual pleasures and preferences secondary to their partner’s. 99.

Historically, when women have needed a relationship for financial security, sex was regarded as a. an asset to be rationed to achieve a goal. b. a pleasurable activity to be enjoyed. c. an act to be “gotten through” quickly. d. an art to cultivate, like the art of cooking. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 487 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: a Rationale: Whenever women have needed marriage to ensure their social and financial security, they have regarded sex as a bargaining chip, an asset to be rationed rather than an activity to be enjoyed for its own sake. 100.

Research concerning the riddle of sexual orientation suggests that a. most gay men report being seduced by an older adult during late childhood or early adolescence. b. the majority of children of gay parents become gay themselves when they reach adolescence. c. the parents of gay men were unconcerned about their son’s nonconformity with the traditional male role. d. from an early age, most gay men recall that they rejected the typical boy role and toys. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 487 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Most gay men recall that they rejected the typical boy role and boys’ toys and games from an early age, despite of enormous pressures from their parents and peers to conform to the traditional male role. 101.

Dennis recently “came out” to his friends and family as a gay man. It is most likely that Dennis recalls that, at an early age a. he was seduced by an older adult. b. he was exposed to toxic chemicals. c. his parents encouraged him to explore his feminine side. d. he rejected the typical boy role and toys. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 487 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Most gay men recall that they rejected the typical boy role and boys’ toys and games from an early age, despite of enormous pressures from their parents and peers to conform to the traditional male role. 102.

Which prenatal event has been shown to increase the chances that a female child will be bisexual or lesbian? a. very low levels of feminizing hormones b. exposure to masculinizing hormones c. exposure to high levels of nicotine d. exposure to high levels of alcohol Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 487 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Female babies accidentally exposed in the womb to masculinizing hormones are more likely than

other girls to become bisexual or lesbian and to prefer typical boys’ toys and activities. 103.

More than a dozen studies have found that the probability of a man’s becoming gay rises significantly according to the number of older brothers he has. The reason for this “brother effect” appears to be a. that parents with many male children secretly wish for a daughter and encourage feminine behavior. b. that a child with older brothers behaves differently to get attention. c. that the developing brain responds to having so many males in one house. d. changes in the conditions within the womb caused by previous male pregnancies. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 487 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: A study of 944 homosexual and heterosexual men suggests that this “brother effect” has nothing to do with family environment, but rather with conditions within the womb before births. 104.

Research supports the theory that homosexuality a. is the result of a “smothering mother.” b. is the result of an “absent father.” c. is caused by seduction by an older adult. d. has unknown and puzzling causes. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 487–488 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: There is no clear answer to what causes homosexuality. Causes may differ for different individuals and multiple factors are likely involved. 105.

Lance is participating in a replication of a study described in your textbook. In it, Lance is exposed to the odor of an estrogen-like compound found in women’s urine. If Lance is a homosexual male, what changes in brain activity should be expected? a. The olfactory system registers the odor, but the hypothalamus does not. b. The olfactory system does not register the odor, but the hypothalamus does. c. Both the olfactory system and the hypothalamus register the odor. d. Neither the olfactory system nor the hypothalamus registers the odor. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 488 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: The original study found that when a hormone is from the sex you are not turned on by, the olfactory system registers it, but the hypothalamus, which regulates sexual arousal and response, does not. 106.

Who is most likely to become aroused? a. a male homosexual watching heterosexual sex. b. a male heterosexual watching gay male sex. c. a female heterosexual watching gay male sex in an erotic context. d. a lesbian watching heterosexual sex in a non-erotic context. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 488 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: most straight men are turned off by watching gay male couples coupling, most gay men are turned off by watching heterosexual couples, and most straight and lesbian women are turned on by watching anyone of either sex, as long as the context is erotic.

THE COMPETENT ANIMAL: MOTIVES TO ACHIEVE Learning Objectives 14.13 The three kinds of goals most likely to improve the motivation to succeed 14.14 The important difference between mastery goals and performance goals 14.15 How the desire to achieve is affected by the opportunity to achieve 14.16 Which aspects of a job are more important than money in increasing satisfaction with work

107.

David McClelland used a variation on the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) to measure a. intelligence. b. motivation to achieve c. sexual desire. d. body self-image. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 489 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: David McClelland and his associates (1953) speculated that some people have an inner drive to achieve that motivates them as much as hunger motivates people to eat. To measure the strength of this motive, McClelland used a variation of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). 108.

Dr. Grossman administers a TAT in order to assess the achievement motivation of a client. Which of the following describes this procedure? a. He will ask the client to interpret abstract, symmetrical inkblots. b. He will ask the client to interpret a series of drawings that show scenes of people. c. He will ask the client to engage in a picture arrangement task. d. He will ask the client to supply the missing feature in a picture completion task. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 489 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: The TAT involves telling stories about ambiguous pictures. 109.

Dr. Boatwright asks a client to interpret a series of drawings that show scenes of people. Which of the following tests is she administering? a. MMPI b. TAT c. Rorschach d. WISC Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 489 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: The TAT involves telling stories about ambiguous pictures. 110.

_______________ are positive experiences that you seek directly. a. Approach goals b. Performance goals c. Mastery goals d. Learning goals Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a description of approach goals. _______________ involve the effort to avoid unpleasant experiences. a. Avoidance goals b. Performance goals c. Mastery goals d. Learning goals Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a description of avoidance goals.

Page(s): 490 Answer: a

111.

Which of the following is an example of an avoidance goal? a. trying not to make a fool of yourself b. seeking a favorable work evaluation c. learning to scuba dive d. mastering a new language Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate

Page(s): 490 Answer: a

112.

Page(s): 490 Answer: a

Rationale: Avoidance goals involve the effort to avoid unpleasant experiences. 113.

For a goal to improve motivation and performance, it should meet all of the following conditions EXCEPT a. the goal is specific. b. the goal is performance-oriented. c. the goal is challenging. d. the goal is an approach goal. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives for Achieve Page(s): 490 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: People who are motivated by mastery goals, not performance goals, will generally regard failure and criticism as sources of useful information that will help them improve. % correct 40 a= 10 b= 40 c= 13 d= 37 r = .25 114.

Which of the following is NOT one of the conditions likely to improve motivation and performance? a. defining your goal in a way that is specific about what you will do and when b. framing your goal in terms of what you want to avoid that is unpleasant c. defining your goal in terms of the positive experiences you are directly seeking d. setting a challenging but realistic goal, so that by working hard you can achieve it Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 490 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: It is more motivating to work for something (approach goal) than to work to avoid something (avoidance goal). 115.

Evan wants to earn a black belt in karate. Which way of thinking is most likely to help Evan reach his goal? a. “I should make sure I don’t lose any matches.” b. “I will set specific goals that I know I can reach easily.” c. “I will set specific goals that are tough but attainable.” d. “I will try not to fool around when I should be practicing.” Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 490 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Setting challenging but attainable goals tends to increase motivation. 116.

__________ goals are goals framed in terms of avoiding criticism and being judged favorably. a. Approach b. Performance c. Mastery d. Learning Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 491 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Performance goals are goals framed in terms of avoiding criticism and being judged favorably. 117.

__________ goals are goals framed in terms of increasing one’s competence and skills. a. Approach b. Performance c. Mastery d. Avoidance Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 491 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Mastery goals are goals framed in terms of increasing one’s competence and skills. 118.

c. She has little need for achievement. d. She is focusing on performance. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 491–492 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: Charlotte is focusing on performance, whereas Charlie is focusing on learning. 119.

Tate is motivated by performance goals. Tate is likely to a. feel intrinsic pleasure in the task he is mastering. b. determine how a particular mistake can be “his friend.” c. try, try again when the first effort doesn’t succeed. d. make an effort to avoid criticism. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 491-492 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: Performance goals are goals framed in terms of avoiding criticism and being judged favorably. 120.

Professor Batsell notices that one of his students seems to frame her participation in the course in terms of being judged favorably by fellow students and avoiding his criticism. It is likely that the student a. feels intrinsic pleasure in the course material she is mastering. b. is motivated by performance goals. c. follows the motto “Try, try again” when her first effort doesn’t succeed. d. regards failure as a source of useful information to help her improve. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 491–492 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Performance goals are goals framed in terms of avoiding criticism and being judged favorably. 121.

Tamesha is motivated by mastery goals to learn to play the piano. Tamesha is likely to a. feel intrinsic pleasure in her piano playing skills. b. get discouraged by the mistakes she makes. c. focus on demonstrating her piano playing for others. d. make an effort to avoid criticism. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 491–492 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Mastery goals are goals framed in terms of increasing one’s competence and skills. 122.

Research suggests which approach to parenting and teaching is most likely to develop children who choose performance goals? a. praising them for working hard when they do well b. praising them for being smart when they do well c. encouraging them to do things they enjoy d. telling them that “mistakes are their friends” Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 492 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In one study, children praised for being smart rather than for working hard tended to lose the pleasure of learning and focused instead on how well they were doing (performance goal). After these children failed the second set of problems, they tended to give up on subsequent ones, enjoyed them less, and actually performed less well than children who had been praised for their efforts. 123.

What feedback should you give a child who solves a puzzle correctly, if you do not want the child to give up when encountering a more difficult puzzle later on? a. “That must have been an easy problem!” b. “You must be very smart!” c. “You must have gotten lucky!” d. “You must have worked really hard to solve that!” Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 492 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In one study, children praised for being smart rather than for working hard tended to lose the

pleasure of learning and focused instead on how well they were doing (performance goal). After these children failed the second set of problems, they tended to give up on subsequent ones, enjoyed them less, and actually performed less well than children who had been praised for their efforts. 124.

Harriet is a fifth grader working on difficult math problems. When she solves one correctly, her teacher tells her that she’s correct, and then adds, “You must be very smart to get that answer!” This comment is likely to encourage Harriet to a. focus on performance goals. b. focus on mastery goals. c. keep working on problems, even if she gets the occasional wrong answer. d. enjoy doing math for its own sake. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 492 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: In one study, children praised for being smart rather than for working hard tended to lose the pleasure of learning and focused instead on how well they were doing (performance goal). After these children failed the second set of problems, they tended to give up on subsequent ones, enjoyed them less, and actually performed less well than children who had been praised for their efforts. 125.

According to a study of fifth-grade students, complimenting children on solving a puzzle by telling them how smart they are focuses them on ____________ goals. a. approach b. avoidance c. performance d. mastery Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 492 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: In one study, children praised for being smart rather than for working hard tended to lose the pleasure of learning and focused instead on how well they were doing (performance goal). After these children failed the second set of problems, they tended to give up on subsequent ones, enjoyed them less, and actually performed less well than children who had been praised for their efforts. 126.

Katarina has the conviction that she can do what she set out to do, whether it is mastering a new skill or reaching her goal to become a U.S. citizen. Psychologists call this feeling of competence a. a performance goal. b. drive. c. self-efficacy. d. the need for achievement. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 493 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is a description of self-efficacy, a feeling of competence. 127.

People who _______________ are quick to cope with problems rather than stewing and brooding about them. a. have reached the top of the hierarchy of needs b. place a high value on financial success c. have a strong need to achieve d. have a strong sense of self-efficacy Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 493 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: This describes a person who has a strong sense of self-efficacy or competence. 128.

An expectation that comes true because of the tendency of the person holding it to act in ways that bring it about is called a. a self-fulfilling prophecy. b. an approach goal.

c. a mastery goal. d. self-efficacy. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Rationale: This is a definition of a self-fulfilling prophecy.

Page(s): 493 Answer: a

129.

Megan believed that she would fail her biology class because science has always been hard for her. During the course of the semester, Megan did not attend all her biology classes, did not take very many notes when she was in class, and barely studied for exams. At the end of the semester, Megan received a failing grade in biology. Megan’s performance is an example of a. a self-fulfilling prophecy. b. having performance goals. c. having mastery goals. d. self-efficacy. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 493 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: A self-fulfilling prophecy is an expectation that is fulfilled because of the tendency of the person holding it to act in ways that bring it about. 130.

A person’s belief that he or she is capable of producing desired results, such as mastering new skills and reaching goals, is referred to as a. a self-fulfilling prophecy. b. self-control. c. a mastery belief. d. self-efficacy. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 493 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: d Rationale: A person’s belief that he or she is capable of producing desired results, such as mastering new skills and reaching goals is referred to as self-efficacy. 131.

Gender stereotypes about different occupations a. are always based on negative qualities associated with a gender. b. affect which jobs women decide to take, but not men. c. can create a self-fulfilling prejudice in employers. d. are as common now as they were 30 years ago. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 493 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Gender stereotypes can stifle many people’s aspirations to enter a nontraditional career and also create self-fulfilling prejudices in employers. 132.

Which of the following is a way that companies can encourage worker motivation and satisfaction? a. limiting feedback on work to avoid the perception of criticism b. limiting the number of different tasks employees are asked to do c. allowing employees have control over many aspects of their work d. paying employees weekly Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 494 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Aspects of work that improve employee motivation include work that feels meaningful and important to employees; employee control over many aspects of their work, such as setting their own hours and making decisions; tasks that are varied rather than repetitive; supportive relationships with superiors and coworkers; useful feedback about their work, so employees know what they have accomplished and what they need to do to improve; and opportunities for employees to learn and advance. 133.

Which of the following is true about women in science and engineering jobs? a. Although more women are going into these fields, many are not staying for a variety of reasons. b. The same percent of science jobs are held by women as in 1970.

c. d.

Women now outnumber men at the highest positions in science and engineering. Most women do not have the mathematical and technical abilities to compete with men for science and engineering jobs. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 494 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Although the rising number of women entering the sciences is heartening news, many are not staying.

MOTIVES, VALUES, AND THE PURSUIT OF HAPPINESS Learning Objectives 14.17 Why people are poor at predicting what will make them happy or miserable 14.18 Why money can’t buy happiness 14.19 Three basic kinds of motivational conflicts 134.

Which of the following is true? a. People are really bad at predicting what will make them miserable, but are good at predicating what will make them happy. b. People are really bad at predicting what will make them happy, but are good at predicating what will make them miserable. c. People are really good at both predicting what will make them happy and what will make them miserable. d. People are really bad at both predicting what will make them happy and what will make them miserable. Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 495 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: People are bad at predicting what will make them happy and what will make them miserable, and at estimating how long either of those feelings will last. The good is rarely as good as we imagine it will be, and the bad is rarely as terrible. 135.

In general, what is most likely to make people happy in the long run? a. money b. making a decision based on how they anticipate they will feel in the future c. doing something for extrinsic rewards d. doing something for intrinsic satisfaction Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 496 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: d Rationale: In all the domains of human motivation that we have examined, a key conclusion emerges: People who are motivated by the intrinsic satisfaction of an activity are happier and more satisfied than those motivated solely by extrinsic rewards. 136.

Which of the following is an example of an approach–approach conflict? a. You can’t decide which of two movies you want to see to go to. b. You can’t decide whether to vote for Smith or Jones in the upcoming election, neither of whom you like. c. You can’t decide whether to get married to the woman you love and give up the single life. d. You can’t decide whether to go to work or play hooky and go to the beach. Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 496 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: In an approach–approach conflict the choice is between two positive alternatives. 137.

Which of the following conflicts occurs when you are equally attracted to two or more possible activities or goals? a. avoidance–avoidance b. approach–approach c. approach–avoidance

d. double approach–avoidance Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 496 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: Approach–approach conflict occurs when you are equally attracted to two or more possible activities or goals. 138.

Ayla has been offered a job working as an assistant editor for a publishing company, as well as an assistant publicist for a communications firm. This conflict is called a(n) a. approach–approach conflict. b. approach–avoidance conflict. c. avoidance–avoidance conflict. d. multiple approach–avoidance conflict. Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 496 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: Ayla has to choose between two interesting career options, both positive goals. 139.

There is an old saying, “Damned if I do and damned if I don’t.” This saying illustrates a(n) a. approach–approach conflict. b. approach–avoidance conflict. c. avoidance–avoidance conflict. d. multiple approach–avoidance conflict. Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 496–497 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: This is an example of an avoidance–avoidance conflict where one has to choose between two alternatives, neither of which is good. 140.

Which of the following is an example of an avoidance–avoidance conflict? a. You can’t decide which of two movies you want to see to go to. b. You can’t decide whether to vote for Smith or Jones in the upcoming election, neither of whom you like. c. You can’t decide whether to get married to the woman you love and give up the single life. d. You can’t decide whether to go to work or play hooky and go to the beach. Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 496–497 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: b Rationale: In an avoidance–avoidance conflict, the choice is between two negative alternatives. 141.

Which of the following conflicts requires you to choose between the lesser of two evils because you dislike both alternatives? a. avoidance–avoidance b. approach–approach c. approach–avoidance d. double approach–avoidance Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 496–497 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: Avoidance–avoidance conflicts require you to choose between the lesser of two evils. 142.

Which of the following conflicts occurs when a single activity has both a positive and negative aspect? a. avoidance–avoidance b. approach–approach c. approach–avoidance d. double approach–avoidance Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 496–497 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Answer: c Rationale: Approach–avoidance occurs when a single activity has both a positive and negative aspect. 143 .

Nari wants to be a stay-at-home mom but worries that she won’t be able to return to her career. This

illustrates a(n) a. approach–approach conflict. b. approach–avoidance conflict. c. avoidance–avoidance conflict. d. multiple approach–avoidance conflict. Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 497 Type: Applied Difficulty: Moderate Answer: b Rationale: Nari has to choose whether to stay at home, an option that has both positive and negative aspects to it. 144.

What is at the bottom level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs? a. basic survival needs b. safety c. achievement d. self-actualization Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 497 Type: Factual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: a Rationale: At the bottom of Maslow’s hierarchy are basic survival needs for food, sleep, and water. 145.

Maslow is associated with which of the following notions? a. that when the body temperature falls, we are motivated to eat b. that the motive to explore and manipulate is important for individual survival c. that our motives are organized into a hierarchy d. that some people are driven by the achievement motive Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 497 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Answer: c Rationale: Years ago, humanist psychologist Abraham Maslow (1970) envisioned people’s motives as forming a pyramid or “hierarchy of needs.” % correct 88 a= 0 b= 4 c= 88 d= 6 r = .48 146.

For Maslow, the most highly evolved motive is a. esteem. b. physiological need. c. intellectual need. d. self-actualization. Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 497 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: d Rationale: At the top of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, when all other needs had been met, were those for selfactualization and self-transcendence. % correct 81 a= 5 b= 14 c= 0 d= 81 r = .36 147.

Maslow’s theory of a hierarchy of needs a. explained personal goals but wasn’t useful in regard to work goals. b. was widely discredited because it was too pessimistic. c. states that higher needs take precedence over lower needs. d. has not been well supported by empirical research. Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: Maslow’s theory is very popular, but has little empirical support. 148.

Page(s): 497 Answer: d

Which of the following examples contradicts the central idea behind Maslow’s theory? a. a person willing to do degrading jobs to buy food b. a person willing to put himself in danger in order to fight for social justice c. a person whose basic needs are met, so she can work on bettering herself spiritually d. a person unwilling to share his home with a stranger Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 497

Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Difficult Answer: b Rationale: In Maslow’s hierarchy, lower needs and motives, such as safety, supersede higher motives, such as obtaining social justice. 149.

Pablo grew up poor and was living on his own at 14. It wasn’t until he had earned enough money to rent an apartment and pay his bills that he felt that he was able to work on making friends and trying to get an education. This example closely fits with the theory of a. Maslow. b. Skinner. c. Kinsey. d. Masters and Johnson. Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 497 Type: Applied Difficulty: Easy Answer: a Rationale: In Maslow’s hierarchy, lower needs and motives, such as safety, supersede higher motives, such as esteem needs and obtaining social justice.

True-False Questions 1. The English words motivation and emotion both come from the Latin root meaning “to move.” Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 2. For many decades, the study of motivation was dominated by a focus on biological drives. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 3.

To psychologists, motivation refers to an inferred process within a person or animal which causes that organism to move toward a goal or away from an unpleasant situation. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467–468 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 4. The pursuit of an activity for its own sake is called extrinsic motivation. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467–468 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a definition of intrinsic motivation, not extrinsic motivation. 5.

The evidence for psychological theories of overweight empirically supports the view that overweight individuals are emotionally disturbed. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 468 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: There is little evidence to support the idea of mental illness as a factor causing overweight. 6. Obesity is almost always based on overeating. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 468 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Obesity is not necessarily a result of overeating. Many obese people eat normal amounts of food. 7.

Set point is defined as the genetically influenced weight range for an individual, maintained by biological mechanisms that regulate food intake, fat reserves, and metabolism. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat

Page(s): 468 Rationale: Statement of fact.

Type: Factual

8. Obese people’s fat cells are bigger than normal adults. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact

Answer: True

9. Set point theory has difficulty explaining why most people who diet eventually gain the weight back. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is easily explained as an attempt by the body to return to the set point. 10.

Research investigations of identical twins reared together and apart show that the early family environment has almost no effect at all on weight gain. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 11. For the majority of obese people, taking leptin helps them lose weight. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 469 Type: Factual Rationale: This is only true in a small minority of obese people.

Answer: False

12. Almost 25 percent of American adults are overweight. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 470 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: More than half of adults and 25 percent of children and teenagers are now overweight. 13. Increases in obesity rates have occurred in both sexes, all social classes, and all age groups. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 470 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 14.

Evolution seems to have predisposed the human body to store calories when food is abundant in order to aid survival when food is scarce. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 470 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 15.

In a study mentioned in your book of two different universities about 25 percent of the freshman gained significant amounts of weight in their first year. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 470 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The actual amount was more than 70 percent. 16. Throughout most of human history, the proportion of calories in beverages was very high. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 470 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Throughout most of history the proportion of calories in beverages was very low. 17.

In America, servings of food and drink have become supersized, double or triple what they were only one generation ago. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 470 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact.

18. When diets are routine and predictable, then people habituate to what they are eating. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 470 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 19. When crop failures and famines are common in a country, then the cultural ideal is to be slender. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 471 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The cultural ideal then is usually to be fat. 20. Bulimia has the highest mortality rate of all the mental disorders. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 472 Type: Factual Rationale: Anorexia has the highest mortality rate.

Answer: False

21. More than 90 percent of all eating disorders occur among young white women. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 472 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: More than 40 percent of eating disorders occur among men, the elderly, ethnic minority groups, young children, and athletes. 22.

An eating disorder characterized by episodes of excessive eating followed by forced vomiting or the use of laxatives is called bulimia. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 472 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 23.

The attachment theory of love emphasizes that people acquire their attachment styles of love, in large part, from how their parents cared for them. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 476 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 24. Securely attached adults rarely recognize their parents’ flaws. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 476 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Although they recognize their parents’ flaws, securely attached adults describe their parents as having been more loving and kind than insecurely attached people do. 25.

The only “real love” is romantic love, and if a relationship begins to lose its passion, then it never was true love. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 477 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Passion normally is highest early in a relationship and then declines. 26.

Women experience “love at first sight” twice as often as men do and feel more love in relationships over the long haul. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 478 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: Men and women are equally likely to experience “love at first sight” and feel similar amounts of love in relationships. 27.

Women and men differ in the ways that they express love in many cultures, with women using words and men expressing feelings through actions. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love

Page(s): 478 Rationale: Statement of fact.

Type: Factual

Answer: True

28. For many years, Western men were more romantic than Western women in choosing spouses. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 478 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 29.

For humans, like most other species, sex is a biological drive, and is just a matter of doing what comes naturally. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 479 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: For humans, sexual behavior doesn’t come naturally; it has to be learned. 30. Most men rape because of thwarted sexual desires. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 485 Type: Factual Rationale: Men rape for many reasons. 31. The overwhelming number of children of gay parents do not become gay. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 487 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact. 32. There is evidence that sexual orientation is moderately heritable in men. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 487 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: False

Answer: True

33. The TAT involves interpreting abstract, symmetrical inkblots. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 489 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: The TAT involves interpreting a series of drawings that show scenes of people. 34. Approach goals are positive experiences that you seek directly. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 490 Type: Factual Rationale: Statement of fact.

Answer: True

35.

People who frame their goals in specific, achievable avoidance terms (I’m going to lose weight by staying away from rich foods), feel more optimistic than those who frame the goals in approach terms. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 491 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: People feel more optimistic when goals are framed using approach terms. 36.

People who have a strong sense of self-efficacy are quick to cope with problems that befall them and keep striving for their goals even in the face of failure. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 493 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact. 37. In an approach–avoidance conflict, a person must choose the lesser of two evils. Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 497 Type: Factual Answer: False Rationale: This is a description of an avoidance–avoidance conflict, not an approach–avoidance conflict.

38.

Maslow hypothesized movement through a hierarchy of needs, beginning with survival needs for sleep, food, and water and reaching needs for self-actualization. Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Page(s): 497 Type: Factual Answer: True Rationale: Statement of fact.

Short Answer Questions 1. Differentiate between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. Section: Chapter Introduction Page(s): 467 Type: Conceptual Answer: Intrinsic motivation refers to enjoyment of an activity for its own sake. Extrinsic motivation refers to pursuit of a goal for external rewards. 2. What is the difference between anorexia and bulimia? Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 472 Type: Conceptual Answer: An anorexic individual hardly eats anything and has a severely distorted body image. A person with bulimia binges and then purges by inducing vomiting or using laxatives. 3. What is the difference between passionate love and companionate love? Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 474 Type: Factual Answer: Passionate (“romantic”) love is characterized by a whirlwind of intense emotions and sexual passion, whereas companionate love is characterized by affection and trust. Passionate love is the stuff of crushes, infatuations, “love at first sight,” and the early stage of love affairs. 4. How do people acquire their attachment styles of love? Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 476 Type: Conceptual Answer: According to the attachment theory of love, people’s attachment styles as adults derive in large part from how their parents cared for them. 5. How would someone with an avoidant attachment style most likely describe his or her parents? Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 476 Type: Applied Answer: People with an avoidant attachment style describe their parents in almost entirely negative terms. These individuals are most likely to report having had cold, rejecting parents, extended periods of separation from their mothers, or childhood environments that prevented them from forging close ties with others. 6.

For many years in Western society, men were more romantic than women in choosing a marriage partner. What is one reason why women used to be more pragmatic about marriage than men? Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 478 Type: Factual Answer: One reason was that a woman did not just marry a man; she married a standard of living. Therefore, she could not afford to marry someone unsuitable or waste her time in a relationship that was not going anywhere, even if she loved the guy. 7.

Alfred Kinsey and his associates concluded that males and females would better understand each other sexually if they understood one of the key findings of their research. What was this key finding? Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 479 Type: Factual Answer: Kinsey found that men and women are alike in their basic anatomy and physiology. For example, the penis and the clitoris develop from the same embryonic tissues; they differ in size, of course, but not in sensitivity. Kinsey argued that if people realized this, they then “males would be better prepared to

understand females, and females to understand males.” 8.

Why do testosterone treatments for men and women who complain of low sexual desire not always have the desired results? Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 480 Type: Factual Answer: Sexual motivation requires more than hormones; it is also affected by social experience and context. Indeed, artificially administered testosterone does not do much more than a placebo to increase sexual satisfaction in healthy people, nor does a drop in testosterone invariably cause a loss of sexual motivation or enjoyment. There are also possible medical problems associated with the use of testosterone. 9.

Across the many studies of motives for sex, there appear to be several major categories. List the six discussed in your textbook. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Factual Answer: The six motives that people give for having sex are pleasure, intimacy, insecurity, partner approval, peer approval, and attaining a goal. 10. In college studies, what reasons do men most often cite for having unwanted sex? Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 484 Type: Factual Answer: Men most often cite peer pressure, inexperience, desire for popularity, or a fear of seeming homosexual or “not masculine” as reasons for having unwanted sex. 11. Give an example of a self-fulfilling prophecy. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Pages(s): 493 Type: Applied Answer: One example is expecting not to do well on a test, then failing to take measures to prepare for the test because you think they won’t do any good; in this way, your expectations make you behave in ways that cause the expectation to come true. 12. Describe Abraham Maslow’s theory about people’s motives Section: Motives, Values, and the Pursuit of Happiness Pages(s): 497 Type: Conceptual Answer: Maslow envisioned people’s motives as forming a pyramid. At the bottom level were basic survival needs for food, sleep, and water; at the next level were security needs, for shelter and safety; at the third level were social needs, for belonging and affection; at the fourth level were esteem needs, for self-respect and the respect of others; and at the top, when all other needs had been met, were those for self-actualization and selftranscendence.

Essay Questions 1.

What is the set point theory? Explain the implications of set point theory on dieting. Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat

Page(s): 468–

469 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The set point theory proposes that biological mechanisms work to keep one’s body weight at a genetically influenced set point.  When a heavy person diets, they are working against their biological set point.  Their body metabolism will slow down to conserve energy and fat reserves.  When a thin person overeats, metabolism speeds up, burning energy. 2.

Although large numbers of people report that they are dieting, there have been dramatic increases in the

number of overweight individuals. What are some of the environmental reasons for this epidemic of overweight and obesity? Section: The Hungry Animal: Motives to Eat Page(s): 470– 471 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The increased abundance of fast food and processed foods.  The widespread consumption of high-sugar, high-calorie soft drinks.  The sharp decline in exercise and other expenditures of energy.  The increased portion sizes of food and drink.  The abundance of highly varied foods. 3.

In a mother-toddler play group, Geoff has a secure attachment to his mother, Hank has an avoidant attachment, and Henri has an anxious attachment. Based on the attachment theory of love, predict what their attitudes and behaviors will be like as lovers when they reach adulthood. Section: The Social Animal: Motives to Love Page(s): 476 Type: Applied Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Securely attached children like Geoff are rarely jealous or worried about being abandoned in relationships when they become adults.  They are more compassionate and helpful than insecurely attached people and are quicker to understand and forgive their partners if the partner does something thoughtless or annoying.  Hank is likely to become an anxious lover.  Anxious lovers are always agitated about their relationships; they want to be close but worry that their partners will leave them.  Other people often describe them as clingy, which may be why they are more likely than secure lovers to suffer from unrequited love.  Henri is likely to be avoidant: distrusting and avoiding intimate attachments.

Physiological arousal and orgasm were studied in a laboratory setting by Masters and Johnson. What conclusions did they reach as a result of their research? What limitations have been noted regarding their work? Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 480 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Men and women are physiologically very similar.  All orgasms are physiologically the same, regardless of the source of stimulation.  They concluded that the sexes differ in just one major way: Women’s capacity for sexual response “infinitely surpasses that of men.”  They described the four stages of the sexual response cycle: desire, arousal (excitement), orgasm, resolution.  Their research was limited by the selection of a sample consisting only of men and women who were easily orgasmic.  They did not investigate how people’s physiological responses might vary according to their age, experience, and culture.

Why are some people homosexual and others are heterosexual? Although researchers are still searching for explanations, some causes have been ruled out and others have only weak support. What theories of sexuality have been ruled out? Describe possible biological theories of homosexuality. Section: The Erotic Animal: Motives for Sex Page(s): 487–

488 Type: Conceptual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.



 

Homosexuality is not caused by: o emotional problems o seduction by an older adult o parental practices or role models The evidence for biological mechanisms of homosexuality is inconclusive. Support for biological theories includes: o observations of homosexual behavior in some 450 species o sexual orientation seems to be moderately heritable, particularly in men o prenatal exposure to androgens in females linked to bisexual or lesbian orientation o other prenatal events might predispose a child toward a same-sex orientation, such as prenatal changes caused by previous male pregnancies (i.e., having older biological brothers)

Goals are most likely to improve motivation and performance when three conditions are met. Describe these three conditions. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 490 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  The goal is specific about what you are going to do and when you are going to do it.  The goal is challenging, but achievable. You will work hardest for tough but realistic goals.  The goal is framed in terms of getting what you want rather than avoiding what you do not want. Approach goals are much more motivating than avoidance goals.

Six aspects of the work environment have been found to increase job involvement, work motivation, and job satisfaction. Describe these conditions. Section: The Competent Animal: Motives to Achieve Page(s): 494 Type: Factual Answer: A good answer will include the following key points.  Job involvement, work motivation, and job satisfaction are increased if: o the work feels meaningful and important to employees o employees have control over many aspects of their work o tasks are varied rather than repetitive o employees have supportive relationships with their superiors and coworkers o employees receive useful feedback about their work, so they know what they have accomplished and what they need to do to improve o the company offers opportunities for its employees to learn and advance

Name Chapter 15 – Quick Quiz 1 1. Psychol ogists and psyc hiatrists use the criteria laid out in the most recent edition of the _______ to diagnose psychol ogical disorders. (A) Dimensional and Categorical Atlas of Mental Health (B) International Diagnostic Guidelines (C) Disorders, Syndromes, and Mental Health Manual (D) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Mental Disorders QuestionID: 15-1-01 Page-Reference: 617 Objective: Module 15.1 Answer: (D) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Mental Disorders 2. Carefully prescribe d doses of _________ have shown promise in treating PTSD. (A) MDMA (B) LSD (C) Cannabis (D) Heroin QuestionID: 15-1-02 Page-Reference: 621 Objective: Module 15.1 Answer: (A) MDMA 3. Megan's few friends complain that she is often mel odra matic and e moti onally immature. Megan loves attention (especially from men) and is consta ntly flirting, often inappropriately. If Megan was diagnosed with a psyc hol ogical disorder, which of the following would be the most likely ca ndi date ? (A) narcissistic personality disorder (B) borderline personality disorder (C) histrionic personality disorder (D) antisocial personality disorder QuestionID: 15-1-03 Page-Reference: 626 Objective: Module 15.2 Answer: (C) histrionic personality disorder 4. Which of the following disorders do many psyc hol ogists believe is not a valid dia gnosis ? (A) dissociative identity disorder (B) schizophrenia (C) histrionic personality disorder (D) post-traumatic stress disorder QuestionID: 15-1-04 Page-Reference: 630 Objective: Module 15.2 Answer: (A) dissociative identity disorder

5. In addition to suffering from panic attacks, people with panic disorder often develop an intense fear of (A) having a panic attack when they are alone. (B) public places. (C) germs. (D) leaving the stove on. QuestionID: 15-1-05 Page-Reference: 635 Objective: Module 15.3 Answer: (B) public places. 6. Andrew washes his hands 100 or more times each day. The constant washing causes the skin on his hands to dry and crack, yet he continues to engage in this be havi our. Andrew's behaviour is an example of (A) an obsession. (B) agoraphobia. (C) a compulsion. (D) a phobia. QuestionID: 15-1-06 Page-Reference: 637-638 Objective: Module 15.3 Answer: (C) a compulsion. 7. All other things equal, a person living in a _____ nei ghbourhood, who also inherited the _____ copy of the 5-HTT gene, would have the greatest risk of developing depression. (A) middle-class; long (B) poor; short (C) middle-class; short (D) poor; long QuestionID: 15-1-07 Page-Reference: 641 Objective: Module 15.3 Answer: (B) poor; short 8. _____ are false beliefs about reality, whereas _____ are false perce pti ons of reality, such as hearing internal voices. (A) Positive symptoms; negative symptoms (B) Negative symptoms; positive symptoms (C) Hallucinations; delusions (D) Delusions; hallucinations QuestionID: 15-1-08 Page-Reference: 645 Objective: Module 15.4 Answer: (D) Delusions; hallucinations 9. Which of the following statem ents about i ndi vi dual s with schizophr eni a is true ? (A) Individuals with schizophrenia tend to score higher on IQ tests than an average person. (B) Individuals with schizophrenia are prone to violent outbursts. (C) Individuals with schizophrenia are 10 times more likely to be the victims of crime. (D) Individuals with schizophrenia have split personalities. QuestionID: 15-1-09

Page-Reference: 647 Objective: Module 15.4 Answer: (C) Individuals with schizophrenia are 10 times more likely to be the victims of crime. 10. Which of the following stateme nts is true about the average brain of i ndivi duals with schizophrenia compared to the brains of persons who do not have the disorder? (A) They have decreased firing of dompaminergic cells. (B) Glutamate is overactive in the hippocampus. (C) They have increased activity in their frontal lobes. (D) Their ventricles are 20–30% larger. QuestionID: 15-1-10 Page-Reference: 649 Objective: Module 15.4 Answer: (D) Their ventricles are 20–30% larger.

Chapter 15 Essay Questions 1. Explain how anxiety disorders tend to be self- perpet uati ng and what type of treatment is necessary to break the cycle. Difficulty: QuestionID: 15-2-01 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Objective: Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. Anxiety disorders tend to be self-perpetuating with anxiety leading to circumstances that provoke further anxiety. For example, people who are anxious about interacting with others may avoid many social situations because they feel awkward and insecure and don't want to embarrass themselves. As a result, they become even less confident about their ability to interact with people, making them even more likely to avoid social contact in the future. If a social event is unavoidable, they may be so anxious and incapable of functioning effectively that the social opportunity turns into a negative experience, further reinforcing the anxiety. Avoiding or interrupting this vicious cycle is central to the treatment of anxiety disorders. Instead of trying to minimize contact with feared situations, which only serves to reinforce the fear, the person must begin to practise confronting the fear. Only through exposing themselves to fear can people learn how to manage their responses or learn how to effectively manage the feared situation. The most important part of psychological therapy for anxiety disorders is exposure, in which the person is repeatedly (in stages) exposed to the object of his fear so that he can work past his emotional reactions. 2. Explain the diathesis–s tress model with regard to the serotonin tra ns porte r gene (5-HTT). Difficulty: QuestionID: 15-2-02 Page-Reference: 640–641 Skill: Objective: Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Research has shown that individuals who inherit two short copies of the serotonin transporter gene (5-HTT) are more likely to develop depression than those who inherit two long copies. - The relationship between inheriting two short copies of the gene and developing depression is dependent on the environment (i.e., the amount of stress experienced by the individual). - Inheritance of short or long copies of 5-HTT does not impact the development of depression if only 1–2 stressful life events occur, but research does show that after chronic or multiple successive stressful events, those with two copies of the short gene are much more likely to develop depression than those with two long copies of the gene. 3. Why do many researc he rs consider schiz ophre nia a brain disorder?

Difficulty: QuestionID: 15-2-03 Page-Reference: 648–649 Skill: Objective: Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - The disease is associated with many abnormalities in the brain, including: * Enlarged ventricles (20–30%) and reduced overall brain volume (–2%) * Lower level of activity in frontal lobes * Abnormalities in the neurotransmitters dopamine and glutamate * Smaller amygdala and hippocampal regions Chapter 15 Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. was the widesprea d movement of psychiat ric patients from care facilities to regular society. QuestionID: 15-3-01 Page-Reference: 616 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: a. Deinstitutionalization 2. A central idea behind the __________ is that a defendant is not legally responsi ble for a crime if they could not differentiate between right and wrong when the crime was commi tte d. QuestionID: 15-3-02 Page-Reference: 622 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the differences between the concepts of psychological disorders and insanity. Answer: a. mental disorder defence 3. People with __________ often act as if they are deserving of praise and a dmirati on, but in reality they often suffer from intense self-doubt and feelings of inadequac y. QuestionID: 15-3-03 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: a. narcissistic personality disorder 4. Research indicates that people with __________ do not respond as strongly to startling stimuli, such as loud noises or disturbi ng images. QuestionID: 15-3-04 Page-Reference: 627 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: a. antisocial personality disorder 5. experie nces are charac terized by a sense of s eparati on between you and your s urroundi ngs, for example while day dre aming. QuestionID: 15-3-05 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders.

Answer: a. Dissociative 6. involves freque ntly elevated anxiety in response to everyday life and experie nces. QuestionID: 15-3-06 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders Answer: a. Generalized anxiety disorder 7. are sudden, intense episodes of anxiety that rarely last for more than 10 minutes. QuestionID: 15-3-07 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: a. Panic attacks 8. The disorder that was formally known as manic de pressi on is more accurately referred to today as __________ . QuestionID: 15-3-08 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive-compulsive disorders. Answer: a. bipolar disorder 9. Miley is taking a pottery class. She tries to make a vase on the potte r's wheel, but it keeps colla psi ng on her. "You see!" she says, "I can't do a nything right! I'm a f ailure at everythi ng! " This type of thinking is an example of the __________ explana tory style that is often seen with depressi on. QuestionID: 15-3-09 Page-Reference: 640 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive-compulsive disorders. Answer: a. globalizing 10. An individual claims that the FBI and the CIA are following him because he is the only person who knows the true loc ation of the Holy Grail. This person is most likely suffering from _____ _____ schizophrenia . QuestionID: 15-3-10 Page-Reference: 646 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. Answer: a. paranoid

Psychological Therapies

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. As the understa ndi ng of mental illness shifted from supe rstiti ous beliefs to physical ailments, _________ were built to house and treat patients. (A) hospitals (B) asylums (C) prisons (D) outpatient clinics QuestionID: 15-4-01 Page-Reference: 616 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (B) asylums 2. The i ntroducti on, and s uccess, of chlorpromaz ine was one of the major factors that led to (A) the development of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM). (B) the creation of asylums. (C) deinstitutionalization. (D) the labelling of disorders. QuestionID: 15-4-02 Page-Reference: 616 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (C) deinstitutionalization. 3. If a therapist thinks about psychological disorders in the same general way a physician thinks about diseases, the therapist is primarily applying the ______________ model to unde rsta nd mental illness. (A) diagnostic (B) biopsychosocial (C) maladaptive (D) medical QuestionID: 15-4-03 Page-Reference: 616 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (D) medical 4. Jonah's therapist tells him that his de pression is likely the result of several factors, including having a genetic pre dis positi on to de pressi on, a pessimis tic pers onal ity, and a chaotic family life. This view of depression is an example of the ________________ model. (A) many-factor (B) biopsychosocial (C) maladaptive (D) medical QuestionID: 15-4-04 Page-Reference: 616

Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (B) biopsychosocial 5. The major dete rmi ni ng factor that differe ntiates normal behaviour from 'dis ordere d' behaviour is whether or not it is (A) different. (B) unusual. (C) maladaptive. (D) excessive. QuestionID: 15-4-05 Page-Reference: 617 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders.

Answer: (C) maladaptive. 6. Behaviour that causes people si gnifica nt distress, increases the risk of injury or death, and/or impairs their ability to function in daily life is considere d to be (A) maladaptive. (B) excessive. (C) unusual. (D) adaptive. QuestionID: 15-4-06 Page-Reference: 617 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (A) maladaptive. 7. DSM stands for the (A) Diagnostic and Screening Model. (B) Disorders and Syndromes Manual. (C) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. (D) Disordered Syndrome Model. Difficulty: QuestionID: 15-4-07 Page-Reference: 617 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [DSM-5]. Answer: (C) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. 8. The primary purpose of the DSM-5 is to: (A) outline medical treatments for psychological disorders. (B) keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum. (C) help mental health professionals diagnose psychological disorders. (D) describe the causes of common physiological disorders. Difficulty: QuestionID: 15-4-08 Page-Reference: 618 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [DSM-5]. Answer: (C) help mental health professionals diagnose psychological disorders. 9. Which of the following is NOT one of the three important pieces of inf ormati on outlined by the DSM-5 for each disorder? (A) guide for treating symptoms (B) set of symptoms (C) cause of symptoms (D) prediction as to how the symptoms will change over time Difficulty: QuestionID: 15-4-09 Page-Reference: 618 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [DSM-5].

Answer: (A) guide for treating symptoms 10. The etiology of a psychol ogical disorder refers to its (A) formal classification. (B) symptoms. (C) origins or causes. (D) treatment. QuestionID: 15-4-10 Page-Reference: 618 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (C) origins or causes. 11. Stigmatizati on can be an uni nte nde d result of (A) outpatient treatment for psychological disorders. (B) using the medical model instead of the biopsychosocial model to understand mental illness. (C) using the mental disorder defence in a criminal trial. (D) labeling individuals as suffering from a psychological disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-11 Page-Reference: 619–620 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: (D) labeling individuals as suffering from a psychological disorder. 12. Melissa was recently diagnosed as suffering from bi polar disorder. When her coworkers find out, they stop inviting her to get drinks after work, and her boss promotes several less qualified employees ahead of her. The most likely cause of the behaviour of Melissa's colleagues is (A) the M'Naghten effect. (B) the stigma associated with mental illness. (C) her coworkers confusing "unusual" behaviour for "abnormal" behaviour. (D) her coworkers confusing bipolar disorder and schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-12 Page-Reference: 619–620 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: (B) the stigma associated with mental illness. 13. In a famous study discussed in your textbook, eight normal i ndivi duals were committed to a psyc hiatric hospital after claiming that they were experienci ng hall uc inati ons. Which of the following happened next? (A) The hospital staff continued to view them as abnormal, despite the fact that they had no symptoms. (B) The hospital staff realized that they had been faking their original symptoms and the patients were discharged immediately. (C) Being in the psychiatric hospital caused them to develop real psychological symptoms after several days. (D) They quickly quit the study because the conditions in the psychiatric hospital were so poor. QuestionID: 15-4-13 Page-Reference: 620 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: (A) The hospital staff continued to view them as abnormal, despite the fact that they had no symptoms. 14. Which of the following best describes the argument for the use of labels applied to psyc hol ogical disorders?

(A) There are no recognized negative side effects associated with the use of labels for psychological disorders. (B) Labels provide an alternative to the DSM system for diagnosing mental illness. (C) Using labels reduces the stigma associated with mental illness. (D) Labels are often necessary for identifying and treating specific psychological disorders. QuestionID: 15-4-14 Page-Reference: 620 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: (D) Labels are often necessary for identifying and treating specific psychological disorders. 15. Research indicates that one way to reduce the stigma associate d with mental illness is to (A) remove individuals with mental illness from the general population. (B) educate individuals on first-person experiences of mental illness. (C) reduce unnecessary concern by limiting the public's exposure to topics related to mental illness. (D) require people diagnosed with mental illness to notify their employers. QuestionID: 15-4-15 Page-Reference: 620 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: (B) educate individuals on first-person experiences of mental illness. 16. When comparing i ndivi duals from a variety of cultures who have been diagnosed with PTSD, researchers have found that (A) individuals from Western and Eastern cultures experience the same physiological, cognitive, and emotional symptoms. (B) individuals from Western cultures experience different physiological, cognitive, and emotional symptoms, compared to those from Eastern cultures. (C) individuals from Western cultures experience the same physiological symptoms as those from Eastern cultures, but experience different cognitive and emotional symptoms. (D) individuals from Western cultures experience the same cognitive and emotional symptoms as those from Eastern cultures, but experience different physiological symptoms. QuestionID: 15-4-16 Page-Reference: 621 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: (C) individuals from Western cultures experience the same physiological symptoms as those from Eastern cultures, but experience different cognitive and emotional symptoms. 17. The ________ rule is a test of legal insanity that came from a British legal trial in 1843. (A) British Insanity (B) Campione (C) M'Naghten (D) Psychiatric Disorder QuestionID: 15-4-17 Page-Reference: 622 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of the mental disorder defence to decide if defendants are criminally responsible for their actions. Answer: (C) M'Naghten 18. In Canada, the legal defence that implies that an individual was in such an abnormal state of mind that they didn't know if their actions were legally or morally wrong, is officially referred to as the

(A) insanity defence. (B) M'Naghten rule. (C) British insanity plea. (D) mental disorder defence. QuestionID: 15-4-18 Page-Reference: 622 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of the mental disorder defence to decide if defendants are criminally responsible for their actions. Answer: (D) mental disorder defence. 19. Which of the f ollowing stateme nts is most accurate? (A) The mental disorder defence is raised in less than 1% of all criminal trials, and is only successful less than 25% of the time. (B) Most criminal lawyers attempt to use the mental disorder defence to clear their clients. (C) Although the mental disorder defence is rare, when it is used it is almost always successful (>80% success rate). (D) The mental disorder defence states that an individual who has been diagnosed with a psychological disorder cannot be found criminally responsible for their actions. QuestionID: 15-4-19 Page-Reference: 622 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of the mental disorder defence to decide if defendants are criminally responsible for their actions. Answer: (A) The mental disorder defence is raised in less than 1% of all criminal trials, and is only successful less than 25% of the time. 20. People with _________ disorders have an excessively rigid, mala da pti ve pattern of behaviour and ways of relating to others. (A) personality (B) mood (C) affective (D) schizophrenic QuestionID: 15-4-20 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (A) personality 21. Antisocial, paranoid, and schizoid are all types of __________ disorders. (A) mood (B) dissociative (C) personality (D) anxiety QuestionID: 15-4-21 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (C) personality 22. Which cluster of pers onality disorders contains paranoid, schizoid, and schizoty pal pers onalit y disorders? (A) anxious, fearful, and inhibited

(B) odd and eccentric (C) dramatic, emotional, and erratic (D) erratic and dissociative QuestionID: 15-4-22 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) odd and eccentric 23. A person who has been diagnosed with borde rli ne pers onality disorder is most likely to exhibit (A) a charming, self-centred, and manipulative interpersonal style. (B) an unstable sense of self and volatility in his or her relationships. (C) intense discomfort in most social situations and odd thinking and behaviour patterns. (D) a strong need to be the centre of attention in all social situations. QuestionID: 15-4-23 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) an unstable sense of self and volatility in his or her relationships. 24. Gabriel is moody, often switching from one extreme emotion to its opposite. He wants to have close relations hi ps but is unable to do so because he is untrusti ng of others. Gabriel is most likely suffering from ______ personality disorder. (A) antisocial (B) avoidant (C) dependent (D) borderline QuestionID: 15-4-24 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (D) borderline 25. When Julia meets a potential mate, she often falls 'madly in love' and is completely obsessed with the other person; however, the moment something goes wrong, she imme diately turns on them, often comme nti ng on how much she hates them and is disgusted by them. Based on this description, Julia may be diagnosed with (A) antisocial personality disorder. (B) borderline personality disorder. (C) paranoid schizophrenia. (D) a dissociative fugue. QuestionID: 15-4-25 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) borderline personality disorder. 26. Self-inj ury, such as the inte nti onal c utting of one's self, is most closely associated with which personality disorder? (A) antisocial (B) avoidant (C) dependent (D) borderline

QuestionID: 15-4-26 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (D) borderline 27. Cindy craves the attention of everyone around her. The few friends that she has would describe Cindy as being "full of herself," and acts like she is better than everyone else. When Cindy had sex with her best friend's boyfrie nd, she felt no remorse. Which pers onali ty disorder would Cindy be most likely to be diagnosed with? (A) borderline (B) avoidant (C) narcissistic (D) dependent QuestionID: 15-4-27 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (C) narcissistic 28. Which pers onality disorder is characterized by excessive attention seeking and dramatic behavi our, including being overly flirta tious ? (A) histrionic (B) borderline (C) narcissistic (D) dependent QuestionID: 15-4-28 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (A) histrionic 29. Christian has made a career of stealing elderly people's retireme nt money by taking advantage of their trust and selling them phony retire me nt investme nts. Christian has no remorse about his actions and feels as though he deserves the money more than his 'clients.' Christia n's behaviour and attitude are typical of someone with ________ personali ty disorder. (A) borderline (B) schizotypal (C) histrionic (D) antisocial QuestionID: 15-4-29 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (D) antisocial 30. People with which pers onality disorder are most likely to be arrested for violent or destructiv e crimes? (A) antisocial (B) borderline (C) histrionic (D) schizoid

QuestionID: 15-4-30 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (A) antisocial 31. A psyc hiatric patient repeate dly breaks the law, behaves impulsi ve ly, and generally de monstrates a disregard for, and violation of, the rights of ot hers. It is most likely that this patient will be diagnosed with (A) borderline personality disorder. (B) antisocial personality disorder. (C) bipolar disorder. (D) schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-31 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) antisocial personality disorder. 32. When people diagnosed with antis ocial pers onality disorder (APD) are exposed to stressful stimuli, such as loud noises or the sudden a ppeara nce of an angry face, they show __________ responses than people without APD. (A) stronger (B) weaker (C) similar (D) more hostile QuestionID: 15-4-32 Page-Reference: 627 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of antisocial personality disorder to explain how it could help people succeed in certain professions. Answer: (B) weaker 33. The emotional reactivity in indivi duals with antisocial pers onality disorder (APD) has been linked to (A) hyperactivity in the amygdala and increased grey matter in the frontal lobes. (B) hyperactivity in the amygdala and reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. (C) low amygdala activity and increased grey matter in the frontal lobes. (D) low amygdala activity and reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. QuestionID: 15-4-33 Page-Reference: 627 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of antisocial personality disorder to explain how it could help people succeed in certain professions. Answer: (D) low amygdala activity and reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. 34. Which of the following stateme nts about i ndivi duals with antis ocial pe rsonality disorder (APD) is TRUE? (A) All individuals with APD are known to be violent towards others and animals. (B) Emotional detachment may allow individuals with APD to become quite successful in society. (C) Individuals with APD have overactive connections between the amygdala and the frontal lobes. (D) Thankfully, individuals with APD tend to respond well to psychological treatment and therapies. QuestionID: 15-4-34

Page-Reference: 627–628 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of antisocial personality disorder to explain how it could help people succeed in certain professions. Answer: (B) Emotional detachment may allow individuals with APD to become quite successful in society. 35. Some psyc hol ogists believe that histrionic personality disorder occurs when an indivi dual engages in attention seeking to avoid the negative feelings they associate with being unnotic ed. This is an example of a _________ __ ex planation for personali ty dis orders. (A) biological (B) psychological (C) sociocultural (D) comorbid QuestionID: 15-4-35 Page-Reference: 629 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) psychological 36. Which of the following would be consi dere d a soci oc ult ural ex pla nati on for the devel opme nt of antis ocial pers onali ty disorder (APD)? (A) Individuals with APD tend to be resistant to psychological therapies. (B) Individuals with APD have reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. (C) Adults with APD often have difficulty with decision-making tasks. (D) Individuals with APD have often experienced trauma or abuse. QuestionID: 15-4-36 Page-Reference: 629 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (D) Individuals with APD have often experienced trauma or abuse. 37. What general category of psyc hol ogical disorders is characterized by a split between a person's conscious awareness and their feelings, memory, and identity? (A) anxiety disorders (B) dissociative disorders (C) personality disorders (D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-37 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) dissociative disorders 38. Ned seeks therapy after having recurrent episodes of feeling "detached from himself" for several months, but he has not lost his self-awarenes s or memory. He notes that he feels like a robot, disconnec ted from his movements and actions. He also says that sometimes he feels like he "is no longer real." He is most likely suffering from (A) dissociative fugue. (B) dissociative amnesia. (C) dissociative identity disorder. (D) depersonalization disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-38 Page-Reference: 630

Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the phenomenon of dissociation and how a dissociative disorder might occur. Answer: (D) depersonalization disorder. 39. After being passed over for a promotion and then getting into a heated argument with his son, a man disappears. He shows up two weeks later in another town with no memory of who he is or how he got there. He appears to be suffering from (A) depersonalization disorder. (B) dissociative identity disorder. (C) a dissociative fugue. (D) histrionic personality disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-39 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the phenomenon of dissociation and how a dissociative disorder might occur. Answer: (C) a dissociative fugue. 40. A dissoc iative disorder characterize d by a partial or complete loss of memory for personal inf orma ti on that is usually associated with a stressful or emoti onally traumatic experience is known as (A) dissociative identity disorder. (B) depersonalization disorder. (C) dissociative amnesia. (D) dissociative fugue. QuestionID: 15-4-40 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the phenomenon of dissociation and how a dissociative disorder might occur. Answer: (C) dissociative amnesia. 41. The presence of at least two distinct personaliti es is characteristic of (A) schizoid personality disorder. (B) dissociative amnesia. (C) dissociative identity disorder. (D) schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-41 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the phenomenon of dissociation and how a dissociative disorder might occur. Answer: (C) dissociative identity disorder. 42. Which of the f ollowing disorders is the most cont roversial dia gnosis? (A) dissociative identity disorder (B) histrionic personality disorder (C) narcissistic personality disorder (D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-42 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. Answer: (A) dissociative identity disorder

43. Which of the following is most likely to be cited by psychol ogis ts as a reason to be skeptical about di ssocia tive identity disorder (DID)? (A) PET scan studies of people diagnosed with DID (B) a steep increase in DID rates from the 1970s to 1990s (C) evidence for memory dissociation in those diagnosed with DID (D) the association between DID and stressful events QuestionID: 15-4-43 Page-Reference: 630–631 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. Answer: (B) a steep increase in DID rates from the 1970s to 1990s 44. Skeptics of dissociative identity disorder (DID) argue that (A) DID is just a subtype of schizophrenia. (B) evidence clearly contradicts the existence of DID. (C) DID is likely caused by traumatic experiences. (D) DID may be the product of techniques used by therapists. QuestionID: 15-4-44 Page-Reference: 631 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. Answer: (D) DID may be the product of techniques used by therapists. 45. Anthony fears leaving his apartment during daylight hours even for a short walk to get his mail. His diagnosis would most likely belong in the category of ____________ disorders. (A) mood (B) personality (C) anxiety (D) impulse-control QuestionID: 15-4-45 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (C) anxiety 46. ______________ disorders are characterized by fear or nerv ous ness that is excessive, irrational, and mala daptive. (A) Anxiety (B) Personality (C) Mood (D) Dissociative QuestionID: 15-4-46 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (A) Anxiety 47. Dikeshia is giving a pr esenta tion in her Abnormal Psychology class on the prevale nce of psychological disor der s. If you were a student in this class, what general category of disorder would you expect her to mention as one of the most f re que ntly diagnosed psychol ogical dis orde rs ? (A) anxiety disorders (B) dissociative disorders

(C) personality disorders (D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-47 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (A) anxiety disorders 48. Anxiety is associated with physi ol ogical responses such as a racing heart and increased respirati on. Which of the following is true about these physi ologica l changes? (A) They are always a sign of mental illness. (B) They are always maladaptive. (C) They are part of the fight-or-flight response. (D) They are always adaptive. QuestionID: 15-4-48 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (C) They are part of the fight-or-flight response. 49. What separates an anxiety disorder from normal anxiety? (A) Anxiety disorders engage the HPA axis while normal anxiety engages the fight-or-flight response. (B) Anxiety disorders are characterized by higher intensity and longer duration of anxiety. (C) Anxiety disorders engage the fight-or-flight response whereas normal anxiety does not. (D) Anxiety disorders are characterized by short bursts of anxiety, while normal anxiety tends to last longer. QuestionID: 15-4-49 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (B) Anxiety disorders are characterized by higher intensity and longer duration of anxiety. 50. Shelby is concerned that she is spending too much of her day worrying about things that are out of her control. She often feels tense, even in s itua tions where there is nothing that is directly threateni ng her safety. Based on her be haviour, Shelby may be ex periencing (A) agoraphobia. (B) generalized anxiety disorder. (C) major depression. (D) a social phobia. QuestionID: 15-4-50 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (B) generalized anxiety disorder. 51. Rob worries all of the time. He worries about his money, his children, and his dog. He cannot identify the specific source of his worry, but rather feels an overall sense of constant concern. Rob's symptoms sound most like (A) panic disorder. (B) obsessive–compulsive disorder. (C) generalized anxiety disorder. (D) agoraphobia. QuestionID: 15-4-51

Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (C) generalized anxiety disorder. 52. Haley is sitting at her desk in her office one day when, without warning, her heart begins racing rapidly, she starts sweating prof usely, and she is gripped with a terrifying fear that she is about to die. Nothing she is doing seems to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms most resemble (A) a phobic disorder. (B) a panic attack. (C) post-traumatic stress. (D) generalized anxiety disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-52 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (B) a panic attack. 53. While each panic attack is differe nt, symptoms of a panic attack rarely continue for more than (A) 3 minutes. (B) 10 minutes. (C) 30 minutes. (D) 45 minutes. QuestionID: 15-4-53 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (B) 10 minutes. 54. People who suffer from panic attacks can often develop (A) obsessions. (B) paranoia. (C) agoraphobia. (D) compulsions. QuestionID: 15-4-54 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (C) agoraphobia. 55. Agora phobia is an intense fear of (A) crowds. (B) having a panic attack in a public place. (C) leaving the house. (D) speaking to other people. QuestionID: 15-4-55 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (B) having a panic attack in a public place.

56. Benjamin has such an intense fear of flying insects that he hardly ever goes outside his house during the summer months. He is probably suffering from (A) panic disorder. (B) generalized anxiety disorder. (C) agoraphobia. (D) a specific phobia. QuestionID: 15-4-56 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (D) a specific phobia. 57. Davis has such an intense, irrational fear of clowns that he cannot take his daughters to see the circus when it is in town. Davis would be most correctly diagnosed as living with (A) generalized anxiety disorder. (B) panic disorder. (C) a specific phobia. (D) post-traumatic stress disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-57 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive–compulsive, and depressive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (C) a specific phobia. 58. What is the main difference between generaliz ed anxiety disorder (GAD) and phobias? (A) Phobias are linked to specific triggers while GAD is not linked to a specific trigger. (B) GAD is linked to a specific trigger while phobias are not linked to a specific trigger. (C) GAD is an anxiety disorder, while phobias are not classified as a 'disorder.' (D) GAD is an anxiety disorder, while phobias are considered personality disorders. QuestionID: 15-4-58 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (A) Phobias are linked to specific triggers while GAD is not linked to a specific trigger. 59. From an ev ol uti ona ry pe rspective, humans would be most likely to develop a phobia to which of the foll owing? (A) atomic weapons (B) guns (C) snakes (D) cars QuestionID: 15-4-59 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether maladaptive aspects of specific phobias might arise from perfectly normal, healthy behaviours. Answer: (C) snakes 60. People who have a ___ _______ are afraid of being evaluated in some negative way by others, so they tend to avoid situations that can be embarrassing. (A) generalized anxiety disorder (B) social phobia

(C) specific phobia (D) panic disorder QuestionID: 15-4-60 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (B) social phobia 61. An intense fear of being in public or perf ormi ng be haviours in public is a characteristic of (A) generalized anxiety disorder. (B) obsessive–compulsive disorder. (C) panic disorder. (D) social anxiety disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-61 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (D) social anxiety disorder. 62. Sydney's therapist is trying to help her overcome her phobia of spiders. She starts by showing her pictures of spiders, then has Sydney sit in the same room as a spider in a box, and eventually touch a spider. This form of treatment is known as __________ therapy. (A) torture (B) exposure (C) gene (D) panic QuestionID: 15-4-62 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand how anxiety or mood disorders can be self-perpetuating. Answer: (B) exposure 63. ___________ therapy involves the patient facing their fear by i nteracti ng with it. (A) Exposure (B) Mood (C) Gene (D) Panic QuestionID: 15-4-63 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how anxiety or mood disorders can be self-perpetuating. Answer: (B) Mood 64. During the day, Maria s uffers from frequent, unwanted thoughts that she has left her front door unlocked and recurrent images that all her bel ongi ngs have been taken. These thoughts and images are what psychol ogis ts refer to as (A) compulsions. (B) delusions. (C) hallucinations. (D) obsessions. QuestionID: 15-4-64

Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive–compulsive, and depressive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (D) obsessions. 65. Sierra is consta ntly worried that everyone with whom she comes in contact is full of germs, so she is consta ntly rushing off to wash her hands. Sierra may suffer from which ps ychological disorder? (A) panic disorder (B) obsessive–compulsive disorder (C) social anxiety disorder (D) paranoid schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-65 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive–compulsive, and depressive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (B) obsessive–compulsive disorder 66. Mr. Carpenter is constantly afraid that he is going to oversleep and be late for work. As a result, he spends nearly an hour each night making certain that his alarm clock is correctly set and saying "It's set, it's set, it's set" each of the times he checks it. This repetiti ve action is what clinical psychologists refer to as a(n) (A) compulsion. (B) delusion. (C) hallucination. (D) obsession. QuestionID: 15-4-66 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive–compulsive, and depressive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (A) compulsion. 67. Sid c onti nually thinks about germs—at work, at home, before be d— during almost all his waking hours. Due to these thoughts, Sid washes his hands close to 100 times a day. Sid probably suffers from (A) obsessive–compulsive disorder. (B) panic disorder. (C) social anxiety disorder. (D) generalized anxiety disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-67 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive–compulsive, and depressive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (A) obsessive–compulsive disorder. 68. People with OCD often develop ____________ in response to _______________ _. (A) agoraphobia; social anxiety (B) anxiety; agoraphobia (C) an obsession; a specific compulsion (D) a compulsion; a specific obsession

QuestionID: 15-4-68 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (D) a compulsion; a specific obsession 69. Prolonged periods of sadness, feelings of wort hless ness and hopeles sness, social wit hdraw al, and cognitive and physical sluggis hne ss best describe which disorder? (A) major depression (B) obsessive–compulsive disorder (C) bipolar disorder (D) agoraphobia QuestionID: 15-4-69 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders Answer: (A) major depression 70. Research into de mogra phic dif fere nces in the rates of major de pression suggests that (A) men and woman have similar rates of diagnosis. (B) men are three times more likely than women to be diagnosed with the disorder. (C) women are twice as likely as men to be diagnosed with the disorder. (D) there are no age, gender, or racial differences in the prevalence of the disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-70 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (C) women are twice as likely as men to be diagnosed with the disorder. 71. Which of the following stateme nts accurately describes the connecti on between poverty and depressi on? (A) Rates of depression are three times more likely among individuals living in poverty. (B) Rates of depression are three times lower among individuals living in poverty. (C) Surprisingly, there is no difference in rates of depression based on socioeconomic status. (D) Rates of depression are ten times more likely among individuals living in poverty. QuestionID: 15-4-71 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (A) Rates of depression are three times more likely among individuals living in poverty. 72. Emma has started to withdraw from her close friends, spends most of her time sleeping, and feels sad all the time. It's possible that Emma is suffering from (A) generalized anxiety disorder. (B) social anxiety disorder. (C) bipolar disorder. (D) major depression. QuestionID: 15-4-72 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Applied

Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (D) major depression. 73. What mood disorder is characterize d by alterat ions between periods of extremely high levels and extremely low levels of activity? (A) bipolar disorder (B) major depression (C) obsessive–compulsive disorder (D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-73 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (A) bipolar disorder 74. Kayla has experie nced a decrease in the need for sleep for the past three nights, is extremely talkative and sexually charged, and has been very irresponsi ble with money lately. Kayla is likely in the midst of a(n) (A) compulsive episode. (B) major depressive episode. (C) manic episode. (D) obsessive episode. QuestionID: 15-4-74 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (C) manic episode. 75. A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between (A) depression and mania. (B) major depression and unipolar depression. (C) mania and social anxiety disorder. (D) generalized anxiety disorder and mania. QuestionID: 15-4-75 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (A) depression and mania. 76. __________ is a disorder in which a person ex periences episodes of mania and de pressi on. (A) Generalized anxiety disorder (B) Major depression (C) Bipolar disorder (D) Borderline personality disorder QuestionID: 15-4-76 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (C) Bipolar disorder

77. Which of the f ollowing is a mood disorder? (A) obsessive–compulsive disorder (B) generalized anxiety disorder (C) narcissistic personality disorder (D) bipolar disorder QuestionID: 15-4-77 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (D) bipolar disorder 78. The pessimistic ex pla natory style is characteri zed by which three elements? (A) externalizing, destabilizing, globalizing (B) internalizing, stabilizing, globalizing (C) externalizing, stabilizing, localizing (D) internalizing, destabilizing, localizing QuestionID: 15-4-78 Page-Reference: 639–640 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (B) internalizing, stabilizing, globalizing 79. Jordan is suffering from major de pression. She is convinced that she will always be unhappy and her life will never change. Which of the three elements of the pessimistic ex plana tory style does this illus trate ? (A) globalizing (B) internalizing (C) stabilizing (D) externalizing QuestionID: 15-4-79 Page-Reference: 640 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (C) stabilizing 80. One bi ol ogical ex pla nat ion for de pression is that an overactive _______________ responds strongly to emotions and sends signals that lead to a decrease in ________________ activity. (A) temporal lobe; amygdala (B) amygdala; temporal lobe (C) limbic system; frontal lobe (D) frontal lobe; limbic system QuestionID: 15-4-80 Page-Reference: 640 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how anxiety or depressive disorders can be self-perpetuating. Answer: (C) limbic system; frontal lobe 81. Which ne urot ra nsmi tters appear to be most important in the devel opment of de pressi on? (A) GABA, endorphins, and serotonin (B) acetylcholine, serotonin, and GABA (C) dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine

(D) norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and serotonin QuestionID: 15-4-81 Page-Reference: 640 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (C) dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine 82. Research into the ge netic influence on the developme nt of depressi on has found that: (A) individuals who inherit one copy of the short (serotonin transporter) gene and one copy of the long gene are protected from developing depression. (B) individuals who inherit two copies of the long (serotonin transporter) gene are at a greater risk to develop depression. (C) individuals who inherit two copies of the short (serotonin transporter) gene are protected from developing depression. (D) individuals who inherit two copies of the short (serotonin transporter) gene are at a greater risk to develop depression. QuestionID: 15-4-82 Page-Reference: 640–641 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (D) individuals who inherit two copies of the short (serotonin transporter) gene are at a greater risk to develop depression. 83. The i nteracti on between genetic predis positi on and e nvironme ntal effects is known as the (A) diathesis–stress model. (B) biopsychological model. (C) medical model. (D) sociocultural model. QuestionID: 15-4-83 Page-Reference: 641 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (A) diathesis–stress model. 84. The _________ model explains how inherita nce of short or long copies of the serotonin trans porter gene and s ocioec onomic status might interact to influence the risk of devel opi ng depressi on. (A) medical model (B) diathesis–stress model (C) biopsychological model (D) sociocultural model QuestionID: 15-4-84 Page-Reference: 641 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (B) diathesis–stress model 85. Which of the following stateme nts is TRUE regarding suicide? (A) Suicide is four times more likely among men than it is among women. (B) Suicide is four times more likely among adolescents than it is among adults. (C) Suicide is twice as likely among women as it is among men. (D) Suicide among aboriginal populations is lower than the national average. QuestionID: 15-4-85 Page-Reference: 641 Skill: Factual

Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (A) Suicide is four times more likely among men than it is among women. 86. For young i ndivi duals, the risk for suicide increases when they are (A) the victim of bullying. (B) female. (C) from a middle-income family. (D) transitioning from elementary to middle school. QuestionID: 15-4-86 Page-Reference: 642 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (A) the victim of bullying. 87. The rate of sc hizophre nia in the general popula tion is (A) <1%. (B) 5%. (C) 10%. (D) 20%. QuestionID: 15-4-87 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: 88. A patient in a psychiat ri c hospital exhibits dis orde re d thinking, bizarre be havi our, and halluci nati ons . This person is probably suffering from (A) schizophrenia. (B) bipolar disorder. (C) a dissociative disorder. (D) major depression. QuestionID: 15-4-88 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) schizophrenia. 89. Most indivi duals with s chiz ophre nia ex perie nc e three distinct phases of the disorder: (A) schizoid, schizotypal, and schizophrenia. (B) hallucinations, delusions, and catatonia (C) prodromal, active, and residual. (D) paranoia, disorganization, and undifferentiated. QuestionID: 15-4-89 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (C) prodromal, active, and residual. 90. Zach has started withdrawing from his family and friends, has lost interest in others, and is having trouble orga nizi ng his thoughts. He has not ex perie nce d any halluci nati ons or del usi ons.

Zach is most likely in the ________ phase of schiz ophre nia.

(A) prodromal (B) active (C) negative (D) residual QuestionID: 15-4-90 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) prodromal 91. Isaiah has recently started experie nci ng hall uc inati ons and delusions and doesn't seem to be able to organize his thoughts or behaviour s. It seems as though Isaiah may be entering the _________ phase of schizophre nia. (A) prodromal (B) active (C) negative (D) residual QuestionID: 15-4-91 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) active 92. False beliefs held by a person who has no evidence to support such beliefs are known as (A) delusions. (B) hallucinations. (C) obsessions. (D) compulsions. QuestionID: 15-4-92 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) delusions. 93. Gigi, who has been diagnosed with schizophr enia, believes that she was sent by God to one day rule the world. Her belief is an example of a(n) (A) negative symptom. (B) delusion. (C) disorganized behaviour. (D) hallucination. QuestionID: 15-4-93 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) delusion. 94. False sensory perce pti ons that often take the form of hearing voices are called (A) delusions. (B) hallucinations. (C) obsessions. (D) compulsions.

QuestionID: 15-4-94 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) hallucinations. 95. Shreen is diagnosed with schiz ophre nia. She believes that she is a powerful person who can save the world. Shreen is experienci ng (A) delusions of persecution. (B) delusions of grandeur. (C) delusions of reference. (D) delusions of paranoia. QuestionID: 15-4-95 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) delusions of grandeur. 96. The belief that one is the Prime Minister of Canada is an example of which schizophre nic symptom? (A) a delusion (B) a hallucination (C) an obsession (D) disorganized thinking QuestionID: 15-4-96 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) a delusion 97. Feeling insects crawling on your skin (when there are none) or hearing voices (when no one is talking) would be examples of what symptom of schizophre nia ? (A) compulsions (B) delusions (C) hallucinations (D) obsessions QuestionID: 15-4-97 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (C) hallucinations 98. Experie nci ng extended periods of immobility is associated with (A) catatonic schizophrenia. (B) disorganized schizophrenia. (C) paranoid schizophrenia. (D) undifferentiated schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-98 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia.

Answer: (A) catatonic schizophrenia. 99. While doing volunteer work at a mental hospital, Mary is put on a ward for adults with severe mental dis orders. One patient remains in the same position for hours at a time and never talks. The doctors tell Mary this patient suffers from (A) residual schizophrenia. (B) catatonic schizophrenia. (C) disorganized schizophrenia. (D) paranoid schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-99 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. Answer: (B) catatonic schizophrenia. 100. Laurie, a 30-year-ol d home maker, has delusions and halluc ina tions, often makes odd or ina ppropriate gestures, and does not bathe or change her clothes regularly. Her sympt oms indicate she is suffering from _______ schizophrenia . (A) disorganized (B) catatonic (C) residual (D) paranoid QuestionID: 15-4-100 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. Answer: (A) disorganized 101. ______ schiz ophre nia is characterize d by delusions that the person is being watched, followed, or persecuted in some way. (A) Disorganized (B) Paranoid (C) Residual (D) Catatonic QuestionID: 15-4-101 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. Answer: (B) Paranoid 102. Dr. Knight is trying to diagnosis a patient suffering from what appears to be a form of schiz ophre nia. The patient appears to have symptoms from several different types of sc hiz ophre nia. Dr. Knight is most likely to conclude that the patient should be c las sified as suffering from _________________ schi zophrenia. (A) disorganized (B) undifferentiated (C) residual (D) catatonic QuestionID: 15-4-102 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. Answer: (B) undifferentiated

103. A hospital patient was diagnosed as suffering from sc hiz ophre nia because she was having both delusions and halluc inations. What type of s ymptoms are these? (A) atypical (B) positive (C) negative (D) a mix of positive and negative QuestionID: 15-4-103 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) positive 104. What is the best way to describe the positive symptoms of schizophre nia ? (A) behaviours that are maladaptive (B) behaviours that are correlated with genius (C) behaviours that should not normally occur (D) the absence of adaptive behaviours QuestionID: 15-4-104 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (C) behaviours that should not normally occur 105. Which pair consists of negative symptoms of s chiz ophre nia ? (A) flat emotions and low motivation (B) flat emotions and delusions (C) low motivation and hallucinations (D) delusions and hallucinations QuestionID: 15-4-105 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) flat emotions and low motivation 106. According to the authors of your textbook, schi zophre nia is often conf used with which other psychological disorder? (A) schizoid personality disorder (B) dissociative identity disorder (C) bipolar disorder (D) agoraphobia QuestionID: 15-4-106 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) dissociative identity disorder 107. A neighbour of yours is upset that a community treatment centre for mental illness is opening nearby. She is worried that crime rates will increase with the increase in individuals with schizophrenia . What should you tell her? (A) People with schizophrenia are 10 times more likely to be the victim of crime compared to the general population. (B) People with schizophrenia are incapable of committing violent crimes due to catatonia.

(C) She is correct; the majority of people with schizophrenia are dangerous. (D) Undifferentiated schizophrenia is the only dangerous form of the disorder and it is quite rare. QuestionID: 15-4-107 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze claims that schizophrenia is related to genius or violent behaviour. Answer: (A) People with schizophrenia are 10 times more likely to be the victim of crime compared to the general population. 108. Sam's brother has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He knows his brother has always been good at math and wonders if his brother will now become a math genius. What should you tell Sam? (A) People with schizophrenia are known to significantly improve their math and problem-solving skills. (B) Unfortunately, people with schizophrenia tend to become violent rather than geniuses. (C) Schizophrenia is not associated with genius. In fact, most individuals with schizophrenia have average or below average IQs. (D) Most individuals with schizophrenia would be geniuses, but of the side-effects of the treatment for the disorder is a decrease in intelligence. QuestionID: 15-4-108 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze claims that schizophrenia is related to genius or violent behaviour. Answer: (C) Schizophrenia is not associated with genius. In fact, most individuals with schizophrenia have average or below average IQs. 109. Janelle is a 23-year-old woman who is living happily in Canada. She has a relative who recently developed the symptoms of schiz ophre nia. Janelle has the hi ghest chance of devel opi ng the illness if that relative is (A) her fraternal twin. (B) her biological mother. (C) her identical twin. (D) her grandmother. QuestionID: 15-4-109 Page-Reference: 648 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (C) her identical twin. 110. According to family, twin, and adoption studies, a person is at greatest risk for devel opi ng schizophrenia if he or she has a(n) (A) identical twin diagnosed with the disorder. (B) fraternal twin diagnosed with the disorder. (C) biological parent diagnosed with the disorder. (D) non-twin sibling diagnosed with the disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-110 Page-Reference: 648 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (A) identical twin diagnosed with the disorder. 111. One bi ol ogical expla nat ion for the symptoms of schizophrenia is that the __________ are 20– 30% larger in indivi dua ls with schizophrenia compared to the rest of the popula tion. (A) frontal lobes

(B) synapses (C) vesicles (D) ventricles QuestionID: 15-4-111 Page-Reference: 649 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (D) ventricles 112. The ventricles, spaces in the brain that are filled with cere bros pi nal fluid, are typically larger than normal in the brains of i ndi viduals suffe ring from (A) schizophrenia. (B) antisocial personality disorder. (C) major depression. (D) bipolar disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-112 Page-Reference: 649 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (A) schizophrenia. 113. Researche rs have discovered that in i ndivi dual s with schizophre nia, the _________ is/are larger, while the _________ is smaller. (A) total brain volume; size of the ventricles (B) ventricles; total brain volume (C) size of the amygdala; hippocampus (D) size of the hippocampus; amygdala QuestionID: 15-4-113 Page-Reference: 649 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) ventricles; total brain volume 114. Research indicates that some people's schizophre nia may result from abnormalities in the brain's receptor sites for what neurotransmi tter? (A) acetylcholine (B) dopamine (C) serotonin (D) epinephrine QuestionID: 15-4-114 Page-Reference: 649 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) dopamine 115. Some of the symptoms of schiz ophre nia appear to be caused by excess _______________ activity, and too little ______________ activity. (A) dopamine; glutamate (B) glutamate; dopamine (C) serotonin; acetylcholine (D) acetylcholine; serotonin QuestionID: 15-4-115

Page-Reference: 649 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) dopamine; glutamate 116. Excess dopamine activity in the brains of i ndiv iduals with schiz ophre nia is believed to produce ______________, but not _________________ _. (A) positive symptoms; negative symptoms (B) negative symptoms; positive symptoms (C) delusions; hallucinations (D) hallucinations; delusions QuestionID: 15-4-116 Page-Reference: 649 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) positive symptoms; negative symptoms 117. People diagnosed with schiz ophre nia are more likely to have been born during the winter months. One expla na ti on for this phenome non is that (A) children born during these months are more likely to be exposed to the flu during the second trimester. (B) cold temperatures slow down neuronal development, leading to a reduction in brain volume. (C) summer heat negatively affects the genetic material in sperm at the time of conception (9 months earlier). (D) eggs released during the summer—9 months earlier—are more likely to contain genetic errors. QuestionID: 15-4-117 Page-Reference: 650 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (A) children born during these months are more likely to be exposed to the flu during the second trimester. 118. Which of the following best describes the neurodevel opme ntal hy pot hesis of sc hizophre ni a?

(A) The environmental conditions of childhood cause the brain to deteriorate and produce schizophrenic symptoms. (B) Schizophrenia is the result of biological and environmental factors that interact during brain development during gestation. (C) Schizophrenia is a reaction to psychologically traumatic events. (D) Symptoms of schizophrenia will not occur until after the brain is fully developed (late adolescence into adulthood). QuestionID: 15-4-118 Page-Reference: 650 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (B) Schizophrenia is the result of biological and environmental factors that interact during brain development during gestation. 119. When psychol ogists viewed home movies of infants and children who subse que ntly developed schizophrenia , what did they find? (A) nothing unusual (B) all of the symptoms associated with schizophrenia (C) evidence for a "splitting" of personality (D) unusual motor patterns QuestionID: 15-4-119 Page-Reference: 650 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia.

Answer: (D) unusual motor patterns 120. The sc hizophre nia prodrome refers to (A) a traumatic events that can trigger a schizophrenic episode. (B) a collection of mild symptoms that precede the development of schizophrenia. (C) a controversial treatment for the disorder. (D) the disruption in cognitive ability associated with the disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-120 Page-Reference: 650 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (B) a collection of mild symptoms that precede the development of schizophrenia. 121. According to your textbook, research has linked all of the f ollowing to an increase in the risk of developing schizophre nia, EXCEPT (A) heavy marijuana use in adolescence. (B) receiving a head injury prior to age 10. (C) growing up in poverty or experiencing social isolation at a young age. (D) being raised in an extremely strict religious environment. QuestionID: 15-4-121 Page-Reference: 650 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (D) being raised in an extremely strict religious environment. Chapter 15 Supplementary Questions 1. The me dical model views abnormal behaviour as resulting from (A) drug interactions. (B) exposure to teratogens. (C) poor nutritional habits. (D) underlying organic causes. QuestionID: 15-5-01 Page-Reference: 616 Answer: (D) underlying organic causes. 2. The latest version of the classification system used by psyc hol ogists is the (A) DSM-3. (B) DSM-4. (C) DSM-4-TR. (D) DSM-5. QuestionID: 15-5-02 Page-Reference: 617 Answer: (D) DSM-5. 3. The DSM-5 i ncludes a descripti on of the _ __ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ _ of each mental disorder. (A) symptoms, duration, and severity (B) symptoms, cause, and severity (C) symptoms, cause, and progress (D) symptom, cause, and treatment options

QuestionID: 15-5-03 Page-Reference: 618 Answer: (C) symptoms, cause, and progress 4. Destructi on of one's home or community is MOST likely to result in which of the foll owi ng? (A) PTSD (B) a phobia (C) a panic disorder (D) an obsession QuestionID: 15-5-04 Page-Reference: 621 Answer: (A) PTSD 5. Re-expe rienci ng a traumatic event long after the event occurred is associate d with (A) generalized anxiety. (B) panic disorder. (C) phobic disorder. (D) PTSD. QuestionID: 15-5-05 Page-Reference: 621 Answer: (D) PTSD. 6. People who act impulsi vely, don't t olerate frus trati on, want their desires satisfied imme diatel y, fail to develop emotional attachme nts, and show no remorse would be diagnosed with what personality disorder? (A) narcissistic (B) antisocial (C) histrionic (D) schizotypal QuestionID: 15-5-06 Page-Reference: 626 Answer: (B) antisocial 7. Which of the f ollowing best describes the antis ocial pers onality ? (A) low intelligence (B) lack of remorse or guilt (C) depression (D) paranoid schizophrenic tendencies QuestionID: 15-5-07 Page-Reference: 626 Answer: (B) lack of remorse or guilt 8. Which of the following stateme nts about a ntis ocial pe rs onality is TRUE? (A) It is a relatively rare disorder. (B) People with antisocial personalities seek professional help because their distress level is high. (C) It is more common in women than in men. (D) It is a relatively common disorder. QuestionID: 15-5-08 Page-Reference: 626

Answer: (D) It is a relatively common disorder. 9. Randy has a grandi ose sense of himself, fantasizes about being s ucc essful, lacks empathy for others, and has a need for constant admirati on from ot hers. What type of pers onality disorder is Randy most likely e xhi biti ng? (A) narcissistic (B) borderline (C) antisocial (D) obsessive–compulsive QuestionID: 15-5-09 Page-Reference: 626 Answer: (A) narcissistic 10. Following a stressful event, a man cannot remember his past. He adopts a new identity, relocates, and starts a new family and career. Which diagnosis would be most a ppropriate ? (A) conversion disorder (B) dissociative amnesia (C) dissociative identity disorder (D) dissociative fugue QuestionID: 15-5-10 Page-Reference: 630 Answer: (D) dissociative fugue 11. A person who is consta ntly "on edge" and always appre he nsive most likely suffers from (A) phobic disorder. (B) panic disorder. (C) obsessive–compulsive disorder. (D) generalized anxiety disorder. QuestionID: 15-5-11 Page-Reference: 634 Answer: (D) generalized anxiety disorder. 12. Allen is in a constant state of dread. He has trouble sleeping, feels tense, and cannot conce ntra te. Allen will likely be diagnosed as having which anxiety disorder? (A) phobia (B) generalized anxiety (C) panic (D) obsessive–compulsive QuestionID: 15-5-12 Page-Reference: 634 Answer: (B) generalized anxiety 13. Feeling fearful but not knowing why is cha ract eristic of (A) phobias. (B) anxiety disorders. (C) dissociative neurosis. (D) amnesia. QuestionID: 15-5-13 Page-Reference: 634

Answer: (B) anxiety disorders. 14. June often ex perie nces episodes during which her heart rate accelerates by more than 50 beats per minute despite encountering no emergency. June suffers from (A) obsessive–compulsive disorder. (B) generalized anxiety disorder. (C) acrophobia. (D) panic disorder. QuestionID: 15-5-14 Page-Reference: 635 Answer: (D) panic disorder. 15. An irrational fear of an object or event is called a(n) (A) phobia. (B) compulsion. (C) panic. (D) obsession. QuestionID: 15-5-15 Page-Reference: 635 Answer: (A) phobia. 16. Sudden, paralyzi ng episodes of fear describe which type of anxiety disorder? (A) phobia (B) generalized anxiety (C) panic (D) obsessive–compulsive QuestionID: 15-5-16 Page-Reference: 635 Answer: (C) panic 17. Thoughts that repeate dl y intrude into c onsci ousness against one's will are called (A) compulsions. (B) loose associations. (C) neologisms. (D) obsessions. QuestionID: 15-5-17 Page-Reference: 637 Answer: (D) obsessions. 18. Martha vacuums the carpet in her living room 15 times a day. It is very likely that she is suffering from which of the following disorde rs? (A) obsessive–compulsive (B) conversion (C) PTSD (D) somatoform QuestionID: 15-5-18 Page-Reference: 637 Answer: (A) obsessive–compulsive 19. In an obs e s siv e –c ompu l siv e reaction, the _______ is the thought and the _______ is the action

caused by the thought.

(A) compulsion; obsession (B) obsession; compulsion (C) compulsion; panic (D) obsession; anxiety QuestionID: 15-5-19 Page-Reference: 637 Answer: (B) obsession; compulsion 20. Rit ualistic behaviour is associate d with which of the following dis orde rs? (A) anxiety (B) obsessive–compulsive (C) somatoform (D) conversion QuestionID: 15-5-20 Page-Reference: 637 Answer: (B) obsessive–compulsive 21. A rec urri ng, irrati onal thought that cannot be c ont rolled or banished from one's mind is called a(n) (A) phobia. (B) obsession. (C) hypnagogic image. (D) compulsion. QuestionID: 15-5-21 Page-Reference: 637 Answer: (B) obsession. 22. Acts that "must be done" are called (A) compulsions. (B) obsessions. (C) motor impulses. (D) preservative impulses. QuestionID: 15-5-22 Page-Reference: 637 Answer: (A) compulsions. 23. Obsessions and c ompul sions (A) appear to be based on very different psychodynamics. (B) always occur together. (C) often occur together. (D) rarely occur together. QuestionID: 15-5-23 Page-Reference: 637 Answer: (C) often occur together. 24. Arlene has an intense, irrati onal fear of flying in airpla nes. She is probably suffering from a (A) somatoform disorder. (B) neurotic depression.

(C) phobic disorder. (D) conversion reaction. QuestionID: 15-5-24 Page-Reference: 637 Answer: (C) phobic disorder. 25. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of de pressi on? (A) hallucinations (B) loss of appetite (C) inability to sleep properly (D) self-blame QuestionID: 15-5-25 Page-Reference: 639 Answer: (A) hallucinations 26. Last month Pam was giddy, i mpulsive, and talkative; this month she is sad, silent, and almost moti onl ess. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? (A) severe depression (B) anxiety disorder (C) somatoform disorder (D) bipolar disorder QuestionID: 15-5-26 Page-Reference: 639 Answer: (D) bipolar disorder 27. An episode of intense sadness that may last for several months is called (A) bipolar disorder. (B) hypomania. (C) major depressive disorder. (D) dysthymia. QuestionID: 15-5-27 Page-Reference: 639 Answer: (C) major depressive disorder. 28. A patient in a mental hospital exhibits disorde red t hinking, pe rcept ual abnormalities, unusual emotions, and suspic i ousness. This person is probably suffering from (A) schizophrenia. (B) bipolar disorder. (C) passive-aggressive personality. (D) a dissociative disorder. QuestionID: 15-5-28 Page-Reference: 645 Answer: (A) schizophrenia. 29. The belief that you are a special agent for the I nterga lactic Supernova is an example of a (A) loose association. (B) neologism. (C) delusion. (D) negative symptom.

QuestionID: 15-5-29 Page-Reference: 645 Answer: (C) delusion. 30. False sensory perce pti ons that often take the form of hearing voices are called (A) hallucinations. (B) obsessions. (C) delusions. (D) compulsions. QuestionID: 15-5-30 Page-Reference: 645 Answer: (A) hallucinations. 31. Nancy smells smoke when there is no fire. This is an example of (A) a delusion. (B) a hallucination. (C) paranoia. (D) olfactory inhibition. QuestionID: 15-5-31 Page-Reference: 645 Answer: (B) a hallucination. 32. Calvin tells everyone that he is Superman when he meets them. Which type of delusion is Calvin most likely experie nci ng? (A) grandeur (B) reference (C) persecution (D) control QuestionID: 15-5-32 Page-Reference: 645 Answer: (A) grandeur 33. A schiz ophrenic c harac terized by alternati ng periods of mute i mmobili ty and excited motor activity is referred to as a(n) (A) disorganized schizophrenic. (B) undifferentiated schizophrenic. (C) paranoid schizophrenic. (D) catatonic schizophrenic. QuestionID: 15-5-33 Page-Reference: 647 Answer: (D) catatonic schizophrenic. 34. Of the f oll owing, which would provide the strongest evidence for a genetic component to schizophrenia ? (A) a higher concordance rate for fraternal twins than for other siblings (B) a higher concordance rate for fraternal twins than for identical twins (C) a high concordance rate among identical twins raised apart (D) a high concordance rate among the general population QuestionID: 15-5-34

Page-Reference: 648 Answer: (C) a high concordance rate among identical twins raised apart

Chapter 15 True-False Questions 1. Any unusual behaviour should be conside re d mala da ptive. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-01 Page-Reference: 617 Answer: b. False 2. Flas hbacks are a culturally universal symptom associate d with post -traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-02 Page-Reference: 621 Answer: b. False 3. Dissociative identity disorder is a well-establishe d disorder supported by scientific research. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-03 Page-Reference: 630–631 Answer: b. False 4. Gene ralized anxiety disorder is an anxiety disorder marked by repeated episodes of sudden, very intense fear. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-04 Page-Reference: 634 Answer: b. False 5. Obsessions are persist ent, unwanted thoughts experie nce d by indivi duals with obsessive– compulsive disorder. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-05 Page-Reference: 637 Answer: a. True 6. Major de pressi on occurs twice as often among women as among men. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-06 Page-Reference: 639

Answer: a. True 7. Suicide rates are nearly 60% higher among the elderly than they are for adol escents. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-07 Page-Reference: 641 Answer: a. True 8. Any mala da ptive or unw anted symptom of schiz ophre nia is, by defi niti on, a negative symptom. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-08 Page-Reference: 645 Answer: b. False 9. Residual schizophre nia refers to i ndividuals who show a combi nati on of symptoms from more than one type of s chizophr enia. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-09 Page-Reference: 647 Answer: b. False 10. Children with one parent with schiz ophre nia have a lifetime risk of developi ng sc hiz ophre nia of about 80%. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-10 Page-Reference: 648 Answer: b. False Module 15.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1. As the understa ndi ng of mental illness shifted from supe rstiti ous beliefs to physical ailments, _________ were built to house and treat patients. (A) hospitals (B) asylums (C) prisons (D) outpatient clinics QuestionID: 15-4-01 Page-Reference: 616 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (B) asylums 2. The i ntroducti on, and s uccess, of chlorpromaz ine was one of the major factors that led to (A) the development of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM). (B) the creation of asylums. (C) deinstitutionalization.

(D) the labelling of disorders. QuestionID: 15-4-02 Page-Reference: 616 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (C) deinstitutionalization. 3. If a therapist thinks about psychological disorders in the same general way a physician thinks about diseases, the therapist is primarily applying the ______________ model to unde rsta nd mental illness. (A) diagnostic (B) biopsychosocial (C) maladaptive (D) medical QuestionID: 15-4-03 Page-Reference: 616 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (D) medical 4. Jonah's therapist tells him that his de pression is likely the result of several factors, including having a genetic pre dis positi on to de pressi on, a pessimis tic pers onal ity, and a chaotic family life. This view of depression is an example of the ________________ model. (A) many-factor (B) biopsychosocial (C) maladaptive (D) medical QuestionID: 15-4-04 Page-Reference: 616 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (B) biopsychosocial 5. The major dete rmi ni ng factor that differe ntiates normal behaviour from 'dis ordere d' behaviour is whether or not it is (A) different. (B) unusual. (C) maladaptive. (D) excessive. QuestionID: 15-4-05 Page-Reference: 617 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (C) maladaptive. 6. Behaviour that causes people si gnifica nt distress, increases the risk of injury or death, and/or impairs their ability to function in daily life is considere d to be (A) maladaptive. (B) excessive. (C) unusual. (D) adaptive. QuestionID: 15-4-06

Page-Reference: 617 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (A) maladaptive. 7. The etiology of a psychol ogical disorder refers to its (A) formal classification. (B) symptoms. (C) origins or causes. (D) treatment. QuestionID: 15-4-10 Page-Reference: 618 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: (C) origins or causes. 8. DSM stands for the (A) Diagnostic and Screening Model. (B) Disorders and Syndromes Manual. (C) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. (D) Disordered Syndrome Model. Difficulty: QuestionID: 15-4-07 Page-Reference: 617 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [DSM-5]. Answer: (C) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. 9. The primary purpose of the DSM-5 is to: (A) outline medical treatments for psychological disorders. (B) keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum. (C) help mental health professionals diagnose psychological disorders. (D) describe the causes of common physiological disorders. Difficulty: QuestionID: 15-4-08 Page-Reference: 618 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [DSM-5]. Answer: (C) help mental health professionals diagnose psychological disorders. 10. Which of the following is NOT one of the three important pieces of inf ormati on outlined by the DSM-5 for each disorder? (A) guide for treating symptoms (B) set of symptoms (C) cause of symptoms (D) prediction as to how the symptoms will change over time Difficulty: QuestionID: 15-4-09 Page-Reference: 618 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental

Disorders [DSM-5]. Answer: (A) guide for treating symptoms 11. The ________ rule is a test of legal insanity that came from a British legal trial in 1843. (A) British Insanity (B) Campione (C) M'Naghten (D) Psychiatric Disorder QuestionID: 15-4-17 Page-Reference: 622 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of the mental disorder defence to decide if defendants are criminally responsible for their actions. Answer: (C) M'Naghten 12. In Canada, the legal defence that implies that an individual was in such an abnormal state of mind that they didn't know if their actions were legally or morally wrong, is officially referred to as the (A) insanity defence. (B) M'Naghten rule. (C) British insanity plea. (D) mental disorder defence. QuestionID: 15-4-18 Page-Reference: 622 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of the mental disorder defence to decide if defendants are criminally responsible for their actions. Answer: (D) mental disorder defence. 13. Which of the f ollowing stateme nts is most accurate? (A) The mental disorder defence is raised in less than 1% of all criminal trials, and is only successful less than 25% of the time. (B) Most criminal lawyers attempt to use the mental disorder defence to clear their clients. (C) Although the mental disorder defence is rare, when it is used it is almost always successful (>80% success rate). (D) The mental disorder defence states that an individual who has been diagnosed with a psychological disorder cannot be found criminally responsible for their actions. QuestionID: 15-4-19 Page-Reference: 622 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of the mental disorder defence to decide if defendants are criminally responsible for their actions. Answer: (A) The mental disorder defence is raised in less than 1% of all criminal trials, and is only successful less than 25% of the time. 14. Stigmatizati on can be an uni nte nde d result of (A) outpatient treatment for psychological disorders. (B) using the medical model instead of the biopsychosocial model to understand mental illness. (C) using the mental disorder defence in a criminal trial. (D) labeling individuals as suffering from a psychological disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-11 Page-Reference: 619–620 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages.

Answer: (D) labeling individuals as suffering from a psychological disorder. 15. Melissa was recently diagnosed as suffering from bi polar disorder. When her coworkers find out, they stop inviting her to get drinks after work, and her boss promotes several less qualified employees ahead of her. The most likely cause of the behaviour of Melissa's colleagues is (A) the M'Naghten effect. (B) the stigma associated with mental illness. (C) her coworkers confusing "unusual" behaviour for "abnormal" behaviour. (D) her coworkers confusing bipolar disorder and schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-12 Page-Reference: 619–620 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: (B) the stigma associated with mental illness. 16. In a famous study discussed in your textbook, eight normal i ndivi duals were committed to a psyc hiatric hospital after claiming that they were experienci ng hall uc inati ons. Which of the following happened next? (A) The hospital staff continued to view them as abnormal, despite the fact that they had no symptoms. (B) The hospital staff realized that they had been faking their original symptoms and the patients were discharged immediately. (C) Being in the psychiatric hospital caused them to develop real psychological symptoms after several days. (D) They quickly quit the study because the conditions in the psychiatric hospital were so poor. QuestionID: 15-4-13 Page-Reference: 620 Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: (A) The hospital staff continued to view them as abnormal, despite the fact that they had no symptoms. 17. Which of the following best describes the argument for the use of labels applied to psyc hol ogical disorders? (A) There are no recognized negative side effects associated with the use of labels for psychological disorders. (B) Labels provide an alternative to the DSM system for diagnosing mental illness. (C) Using labels reduces the stigma associated with mental illness. (D) Labels are often necessary for identifying and treating specific psychological disorders. QuestionID: 15-4-14 Page-Reference: 620 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: (D) Labels are often necessary for identifying and treating specific psychological disorders. 18. Research indicates that one way to reduce the stigma associate d with mental illness is to (A) remove individuals with mental illness from the general population. (B) educate individuals on first-person experiences of mental illness. (C) reduce unnecessary concern by limiting the public's exposure to topics related to mental illness. (D) require people diagnosed with mental illness to notify their employers. QuestionID: 15-4-15 Page-Reference: 620 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: (B) educate individuals on first-person experiences of mental illness.

19. When comparing i ndivi duals from a variety of cultures who have been diagnosed with PTSD, researchers have found that (A) individuals from Western and Eastern cultures experience the same physiological, cognitive, and emotional symptoms. (B) individuals from Western cultures experience different physiological, cognitive, and emotional symptoms, compared to those from Eastern cultures. (C) individuals from Western cultures experience the same physiological symptoms as those from Eastern cultures, but experience different cognitive and emotional symptoms. (D) individuals from Western cultures experience the same cognitive and emotional symptoms as those from Eastern cultures, but experience different physiological symptoms. QuestionID: 15-4-16 Page-Reference: 621 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: (C) individuals from Western cultures experience the same physiological symptoms as those from Eastern cultures, but experience different cognitive and emotional symptoms. Module 15.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1. People with _________ disorders have an excessively rigid, mala da pti ve pattern of behaviour and ways of relating to others. (A) personality (B) mood (C) affective (D) schizophrenic QuestionID: 15-4-20 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (A) personality 2. Antisocial, paranoid, and schizoid are all types of __________ disorders. (A) mood (B) dissociative (C) personality (D) anxiety QuestionID: 15-4-21 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (C) personality 3. Which cluster of pers onality disorders contains paranoid, schizoid, and schizoty pal pers onalit y disorders? (A) anxious, fearful, and inhibited (B) odd and eccentric (C) dramatic, emotional, and erratic (D) erratic and dissociative QuestionID: 15-4-22 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) odd and eccentric

4. A person who has been diagnosed with borde rli ne pers onality disorder is most likely to exhibit (A) a charming, self-centred, and manipulative interpersonal style. (B) an unstable sense of self and volatility in his or her relationships. (C) intense discomfort in most social situations and odd thinking and behaviour patterns. (D) a strong need to be the centre of attention in all social situations. QuestionID: 15-4-23 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) an unstable sense of self and volatility in his or her relationships. 5. Gabriel is moody, often switching from one extreme emotion to its opposite. He wants to have close relations hi ps but is unable to do so because he is untrusti ng of others. Gabriel is most likely suffering from ______ personality disorder. (A) antisocial (B) avoidant (C) dependent (D) borderline QuestionID: 15-4-24 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (D) borderline 6. When Julia meets a potential mate, she often falls 'madly in love' and is completely obsessed with the other person; however, the moment something goes wrong, she imme diately turns on them, often comme nti ng on how much she hates them and is disgusted by them. Based on this description, Julia may be diagnosed with (A) antisocial personality disorder. (B) borderline personality disorder. (C) paranoid schizophrenia. (D) a dissociative fugue. QuestionID: 15-4-25 Page-Reference: 625 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) borderline personality disorder. 7. Self-inj ury, such as the inte nti onal c utting of one's self, is most closely associated with which personality disorder? (A) antisocial (B) avoidant (C) dependent (D) borderline QuestionID: 15-4-26 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (D) borderline 8. Cindy craves the attention of everyone around her. The few friends that she has would describe

Cindy as being "full of herself," and acts like she is better than everyone else. When Cindy had sex with her best friend's boyfrie nd, she felt no remorse. Which pers onali ty disorder would Cindy be most likely to be diagnosed with? (A) borderline (B) avoidant (C) narcissistic (D) dependent QuestionID: 15-4-27 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (C) narcissistic 9. Which pers onality disorder is characterized by excessive attention seeking and dramatic behavi our, including being overly flirta tious ? (A) histrionic (B) borderline (C) narcissistic (D) dependent QuestionID: 15-4-28 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (A) histrionic 10. Christian has made a career of stealing elderly people's retireme nt money by taking advantage of their trust and selling them phony retire me nt investme nts. Christian has no remorse about his actions and feels as though he deserves the money more than his 'clients.' Christia n's behaviour and attitude are typical of someone with ________ personali ty disorder. (A) borderline (B) schizotypal (C) histrionic (D) antisocial QuestionID: 15-4-29 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (D) antisocial 11. People with which pers onality disorder are most likely to be arrested for violent or destructiv e crimes? (A) antisocial (B) borderline (C) histrionic (D) schizoid QuestionID: 15-4-30 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (A) antisocial 12. A psyc hiatric patient repeate dly breaks the law, behaves impulsi ve ly, and generally de monstrates a disregard for, and violation of, the rights of ot hers. It is most likely that this patient

will be diagnosed with

(A) borderline personality disorder. (B) antisocial personality disorder. (C) bipolar disorder. (D) schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-31 Page-Reference: 626 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) antisocial personality disorder. 13. What general category of psyc hol ogical disorders is characterized by a split between a person's conscious awareness and their feelings, memory, and identity? (A) anxiety disorders (B) dissociative disorders (C) personality disorders (D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-37 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) dissociative disorders 14. Which of the following would be consi dere d a soci oc ult ural ex pla nati on for the devel opme nt of antis ocial pers onali ty disorder (APD)? (A) Individuals with APD tend to be resistant to psychological therapies. (B) Individuals with APD have reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. (C) Adults with APD often have difficulty with decision-making tasks. (D) Individuals with APD have often experienced trauma or abuse. QuestionID: 15-4-36 Page-Reference: 629 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (D) Individuals with APD have often experienced trauma or abuse. 15. Some psyc hol ogists believe that histrionic personality disorder occurs when an indivi dual engages in attention seeking to avoid the negative feelings they associate with being unnotic ed. This is an example of a _________ __ ex planation for personali ty dis orders. (A) biological (B) psychological (C) sociocultural (D) comorbid QuestionID: 15-4-35 Page-Reference: 629 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: (B) psychological 16. Ned seeks therapy after having recurrent episodes of feeling "detached from himself" for several months, but he has not lost his self-awarenes s or memory. He notes that he feels like a robot, disconnec ted from his movements and actions. He also says that sometimes he feels like he "is no longer real." He is most likely suffering from (A) dissociative fugue.

(B) dissociative amnesia. (C) dissociative identity disorder. (D) depersonalization disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-38 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the phenomenon of dissociation and how a dissociative disorder might occur. Answer: (D) depersonalization disorder. 17. After being passed over for a promotion and then getting into a heated argument with his son, a man disappears. He shows up two weeks later in another town with no memory of who he is or how he got there. He appears to be suffering from (A) depersonalization disorder. (B) dissociative identity disorder. (C) a dissociative fugue. (D) histrionic personality disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-39 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the phenomenon of dissociation and how a dissociative disorder might occur. Answer: (C) a dissociative fugue. 18. A dissoc iative disorder characterize d by a partial or complete loss of memory for personal inf orma ti on that is usually associated with a stressful or emoti onally traumatic experience is known as (A) dissociative identity disorder. (B) depersonalization disorder. (C) dissociative amnesia. (D) dissociative fugue. QuestionID: 15-4-40 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the phenomenon of dissociation and how a dissociative disorder might occur. Answer: (C) dissociative amnesia. 19. The presence of at least two distinct personaliti es is characteristic of (A) schizoid personality disorder. (B) dissociative amnesia. (C) dissociative identity disorder. (D) schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-41 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the phenomenon of dissociation and how a dissociative disorder might occur. Answer: (C) dissociative identity disorder. 20. When people diagnosed with antis ocial pers onality disorder (APD) are exposed to stressful stimuli, such as loud noises or the sudden a ppeara nce of an angry face, they show __________ responses than people without APD. (A) stronger (B) weaker (C) similar (D) more hostile

QuestionID: 15-4-32 Page-Reference: 627 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of antisocial personality disorder to explain how it could help people succeed in certain professions. Answer: (B) weaker 21. The emotional reactivity in indivi duals with antisocial pers onality disorder (APD) has been linked to (A) hyperactivity in the amygdala and increased grey matter in the frontal lobes. (B) hyperactivity in the amygdala and reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. (C) low amygdala activity and increased grey matter in the frontal lobes. (D) low amygdala activity and reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. QuestionID: 15-4-33 Page-Reference: 627 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of antisocial personality disorder to explain how it could help people succeed in certain professions. Answer: (D) low amygdala activity and reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. 22. Which of the following stateme nts about i ndivi duals with antis ocial pe rsonality disorder (APD) is TRUE? (A) All individuals with APD are known to be violent towards others and animals. (B) Emotional detachment may allow individuals with APD to become quite successful in society. (C) Individuals with APD have overactive connections between the amygdala and the frontal lobes. (D) Thankfully, individuals with APD tend to respond well to psychological treatment and therapies. QuestionID: 15-4-34 Page-Reference: 627–628 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Apply your knowledge of antisocial personality disorder to explain how it could help people succeed in certain professions. Answer: (B) Emotional detachment may allow individuals with APD to become quite successful in society. 23. Which of the f ollowing disorders is the most cont roversial dia gnosis? (A) dissociative identity disorder (B) histrionic personality disorder (C) narcissistic personality disorder (D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-42 Page-Reference: 630 Skill: Applied Objective: Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. Answer: (A) dissociative identity disorder 24. Which of the following is most likely to be cited by psychol ogis ts as a reason to be skeptical about di ssocia tive identity disorder (DID)? (A) PET scan studies of people diagnosed with DID (B) a steep increase in DID rates from the 1970s to 1990s (C) evidence for memory dissociation in those diagnosed with DID (D) the association between DID and stressful events QuestionID: 15-4-43

Page-Reference: 630–631 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. Answer: (B) a steep increase in DID rates from the 1970s to 1990s 25. Skeptics of dissociative identity disorder (DID) argue that (A) DID is just a subtype of schizophrenia. (B) evidence clearly contradicts the existence of DID. (C) DID is likely caused by traumatic experiences. (D) DID may be the product of techniques used by therapists. QuestionID: 15-4-44 Page-Reference: 631 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. Answer: (D) DID may be the product of techniques used by therapists. Module 15.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1. The _________ model explains how inhe rita nce of short or long copies of the serotoni n tra ns porte r gene and soci oec onomic status might interact to influence the risk of developi ng de pression. (A) medical model (B) diathesis–stress model (C) biopsychological model (D) sociocultural model QuestionID: 15-4-84 Page-Reference: 641 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (B) diathesis–stress model 2. The i nteracti on between genetic predis positi on and e nvironme ntal effects is known as the (A) diathesis–stress model. (B) biopsychological model. (C) medical model. (D) sociocultural model. QuestionID: 15-4-83 Page-Reference: 641 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (A) diathesis–stress model. 3. Research into the ge netic influence on the developme nt of depressi on has found that: (A) individuals who inherit one copy of the short (serotonin transporter) gene and one copy of the long gene are protected from developing depression. (B) individuals who inherit two copies of the long (serotonin transporter) gene are at a greater risk to develop depression. (C) individuals who inherit two copies of the short (serotonin transporter) gene are protected from developing depression. (D) individuals who inherit two copies of the short (serotonin transporter) gene are at a greater risk to develop depression. QuestionID: 15-4-82 Page-Reference: 640–641 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (D) individuals who inherit two copies of the short (serotonin transporter) gene are at a greater risk to develop

depression. 4. Which ne urot ra nsmi tters appear to be most important in the devel opment of de pressi on? (A) GABA, endorphins, and serotonin (B) acetylcholine, serotonin, and GABA (C) dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine (D) norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and serotonin QuestionID: 15-4-81 Page-Reference: 640 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (C) dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine 5. The pessimistic ex pla natory style is characteri zed by which three elements? (A) externalizing, destabilizing, globalizing (B) internalizing, stabilizing, globalizing (C) externalizing, stabilizing, localizing (D) internalizing, destabilizing, localizing QuestionID: 15-4-78 Page-Reference: 639–640 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (B) internalizing, stabilizing, globalizing 6. Which of the f ollowing is a mood disorder? (A) obsessive–compulsive disorder (B) generalized anxiety disorder (C) narcissistic personality disorder (D) bipolar disorder QuestionID: 15-4-77 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (D) bipolar disorder 7. __________ is a disorder in which a person ex periences episodes of mania and de pressi on. (A) Generalized anxiety disorder (B) Major depression (C) Bipolar disorder (D) Borderline personality disorder QuestionID: 15-4-76 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (C) Bipolar disorder 8. A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between (A) depression and mania. (B) major depression and unipolar depression. (C) mania and social anxiety disorder. (D) generalized anxiety disorder and mania.

QuestionID: 15-4-75 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (A) depression and mania. 9. What mood disorder is characterize d by alterat ions between periods of extremely high levels and extremely low levels of activity? (A) bipolar disorder (B) major depression (C) obsessive–compulsive disorder (D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-73 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (A) bipolar disorder 10. Prolonged periods of sadness, feelings of wort hless ness and hopeles sness, social wit hdraw al, and cognitive and physical sluggis hne ss best describe which disorder? (A) major depression (B) obsessive–compulsive disorder (C) bipolar disorder (D) agoraphobia QuestionID: 15-4-69 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders Answer: (A) major depression 11. People with OCD often develop ____________ in response to _______________ _. (A) agoraphobia; social anxiety (B) anxiety; agoraphobia (C) an obsession; a specific compulsion (D) a compulsion; a specific obsession QuestionID: 15-4-68 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (D) a compulsion; a specific obsession 12. What separates an anxiety disorder from normal anxiety? (A) Anxiety disorders engage the HPA axis while normal anxiety engages the fight-or-flight response. (B) Anxiety disorders are characterized by higher intensity and longer duration of anxiety. (C) Anxiety disorders engage the fight-or-flight response whereas normal anxiety does not. (D) Anxiety disorders are characterized by short bursts of anxiety, while normal anxiety tends to last longer. QuestionID: 15-4-49 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (B) Anxiety disorders are characterized by higher intensity and longer duration of anxiety.

13. Anxiety is associated with physi ol ogical responses such as a racing heart and increased respirati on. Which of the following is true about these physi ologica l changes? (A) They are always a sign of mental illness. (B) They are always maladaptive. (C) They are part of the fight-or-flight response. (D) They are always adaptive. QuestionID: 15-4-48 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (C) They are part of the fight-or-flight response. 14. Dikeshia is giving a pr esenta tion in her Abnormal Psychology class on the prevale nce of psychological disor der s. If you were a student in this class, what general category of disorder would you expect her to mention as one of the most f re que ntly diagnosed psychol ogical dis orde rs ? (A) anxiety disorders (B) dissociative disorders (C) personality disorders (D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-47 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (A) anxiety disorders 15. ______________ disorders are characterized by fear or nerv ous ness that is excessive, irrational, and mala daptive. (A) Anxiety (B) Personality (C) Mood (D) Dissociative QuestionID: 15-4-46 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (A) Anxiety 16. Anthony fears leaving his apartment during daylight hours even for a short walk to get his mail. His diagnosis would most likely belong in the category of ____________ disorders. (A) mood (B) personality (C) anxiety (D) impulse-control QuestionID: 15-4-45 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology related to anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders. Answer: (C) anxiety 17. Shelby is concerned that she is spending too much of her day worrying about things that are out of her control. She often feels tense, even in s itua tions where there is nothing that is directly threateni ng her safety. Based on her be haviour, Shelby may be ex periencing

(A) agoraphobia. (B) generalized anxiety disorder. (C) major depression. (D) a social phobia. QuestionID: 15-4-50 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (B) generalized anxiety disorder. 18. Rob worries all of the time. He worries about his money, his children, and his dog. He cannot identify the specific source of his worry, but rather feels an overall sense of constant concern. Rob's symptoms sound most like (A) panic disorder. (B) obsessive–compulsive disorder. (C) generalized anxiety disorder. (D) agoraphobia. QuestionID: 15-4-51 Page-Reference: 634 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (C) generalized anxiety disorder. 19. Haley is sitting at her desk in her office one day when, without warning, her heart begins racing rapidly, she starts sweating prof usely, and she is gripped with a terrifying fear that she is about to die. Nothing she is doing seems to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms most resemble (A) a phobic disorder. (B) a panic attack. (C) post-traumatic stress. (D) generalized anxiety disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-52 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (B) a panic attack. 20. While each panic attack is differe nt, symptoms of a panic attack rarely continue for more than (A) 3 minutes. (B) 10 minutes. (C) 30 minutes. (D) 45 minutes. QuestionID: 15-4-53 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (B) 10 minutes. 21. People who suffer from panic attacks can often develop (A) obsessions. (B) paranoia. (C) agoraphobia. (D) compulsions.

QuestionID: 15-4-54 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (C) agoraphobia. 22. Agora phobia is an intense fear of (A) crowds. (B) having a panic attack in a public place. (C) leaving the house. (D) speaking to other people. QuestionID: 15-4-55 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (B) having a panic attack in a public place. 23. Benjamin has such an intense fear of flying insects that he hardly ever goes outside his house during the summer months. He is probably suffering from (A) panic disorder. (B) generalized anxiety disorder. (C) agoraphobia. (D) a specific phobia. QuestionID: 15-4-56 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (D) a specific phobia. 24. What is the main difference between generaliz ed anxiety disorder (GAD) and phobias? (A) Phobias are linked to specific triggers while GAD is not linked to a specific trigger. (B) GAD is linked to a specific trigger while phobias are not linked to a specific trigger. (C) GAD is an anxiety disorder, while phobias are not classified as a 'disorder.' (D) GAD is an anxiety disorder, while phobias are considered personality disorders. QuestionID: 15-4-58 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (A) Phobias are linked to specific triggers while GAD is not linked to a specific trigger. 25. People who have a ___ _______ are afraid of being evaluated in some negative way by others, so they tend to avoid situations that can be embarrassing. (A) generalized anxiety disorder (B) social phobia (C) specific phobia (D) panic disorder QuestionID: 15-4-60 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (B) social phobia

26. An intense fear of being in public or perf ormi ng be haviours in public is a characteristic of (A) generalized anxiety disorder. (B) obsessive–compulsive disorder. (C) panic disorder. (D) social anxiety disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-61 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: (D) social anxiety disorder. 27. One bi ol ogical ex pla nat ion for de pression is that an overactive _______________ responds strongly to emotions and sends signals that lead to a decrease in ________________ activity. (A) temporal lobe; amygdala (B) amygdala; temporal lobe (C) limbic system; frontal lobe (D) frontal lobe; limbic system QuestionID: 15-4-80 Page-Reference: 640 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how anxiety or depressive disorders can be self-perpetuating. Answer: (C) limbic system; frontal lobe 28. Davis has such an intense, irrational fear of clowns that he cannot take his daughters to see the circus when it is in town. Davis would be most correctly diagnosed as living with (A) generalized anxiety disorder. (B) panic disorder. (C) a specific phobia. (D) post-traumatic stress disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-57 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive–compulsive, and depressive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (C) a specific phobia. 29. During the day, Maria s uffers from frequent, unwanted thoughts that she has left her front door unlocked and recurrent images that all her bel ongi ngs have been taken. These thoughts and images are what psychol ogis ts refer to as (A) compulsions. (B) delusions. (C) hallucinations. (D) obsessions. QuestionID: 15-4-64 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive–compulsive, and depressive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (D) obsessions. 30. Sierra is consta ntly worried that everyone with whom she comes in contact is full of germs, so she is consta ntly rushing off to wash her hands. Sierra may suffer from which psyc hol ogic al

disorder?

(A) panic disorder (B) obsessive–compulsive disorder (C) social anxiety disorder (D) paranoid schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-65 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive–compulsive, and depressive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (B) obsessive–compulsive disorder 31. Mr. Carpenter is constantly afraid that he is going to oversleep and be late for work. As a result, he spends nearly an hour each night making certain that his alarm clock is correctly set and saying "It's set, it's set, it's set" each of the times he checks it. This repetiti ve action is what clinical psychologists refer to as a(n) (A) compulsion. (B) delusion. (C) hallucination. (D) obsession. QuestionID: 15-4-66 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive–compulsive, and depressive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (A) compulsion. 32. Sid c onti nually thinks about germs—at work, at home, before be d— during almost all his waking hours. Due to these thoughts, Sid washes his hands close to 100 times a day. Sid probably suffers from (A) obsessive–compulsive disorder. (B) panic disorder. (C) social anxiety disorder. (D) generalized anxiety disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-67 Page-Reference: 637 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive–compulsive, and depressive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (A) obsessive–compulsive disorder. 33. Research into de mogra phic dif fere nces in the rates of major de pression suggests that (A) men and woman have similar rates of diagnosis. (B) men are three times more likely than women to be diagnosed with the disorder. (C) women are twice as likely as men to be diagnosed with the disorder. (D) there are no age, gender, or racial differences in the prevalence of the disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-70 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (C) women are twice as likely as men to be diagnosed with the disorder.

34. Which of the following stateme nts accurately describes the connecti on between poverty and depressi on? (A) Rates of depression are three times more likely among individuals living in poverty. (B) Rates of depression are three times lower among individuals living in poverty. (C) Surprisingly, there is no difference in rates of depression based on socioeconomic status. (D) Rates of depression are ten times more likely among individuals living in poverty. QuestionID: 15-4-71 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (A) Rates of depression are three times more likely among individuals living in poverty. 35. Emma has started to withdraw from her close friends, spends most of her time sleeping, and feels sad all the time. It's possible that Emma is suffering from (A) generalized anxiety disorder. (B) social anxiety disorder. (C) bipolar disorder. (D) major depression. QuestionID: 15-4-72 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (D) major depression. 36. Kayla has experie nced a decrease in the need for sleep for the past three nights, is extremely talkative and sexually charged, and has been very irresponsi ble with money lately. Kayla is likely in the midst of a(n) (A) compulsive episode. (B) major depressive episode. (C) manic episode. (D) obsessive episode. QuestionID: 15-4-74 Page-Reference: 639 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (C) manic episode. 37. Jordan is suffering from major de pression. She is convinced that she will always be unhappy and her life will never change. Which of the three elements of the pessimistic ex plana tory style does this illus trate ? (A) globalizing (B) internalizing (C) stabilizing (D) externalizing QuestionID: 15-4-79 Page-Reference: 640 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (C) stabilizing

38. Which of the following stateme nts is TRUE regarding suicide? (A) Suicide is four times more likely among men than it is among women. (B) Suicide is four times more likely among adolescents than it is among adults. (C) Suicide is twice as likely among women as it is among men. (D) Suicide among aboriginal populations is lower than the national average. QuestionID: 15-4-85 Page-Reference: 641 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (A) Suicide is four times more likely among men than it is among women. 39. For young i ndivi duals, the risk for suicide increases when they are (A) the victim of bullying. (B) female. (C) from a middle-income family. (D) transitioning from elementary to middle school. QuestionID: 15-4-86 Page-Reference: 642 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge of anxiety, depressive, and obsessive–compulsive disorders, so as to be alert to people who may benefit from some help. Answer: (A) the victim of bullying. 40. From an ev ol uti ona ry pe rspective, humans would be most likely to develop a phobia to which of the foll owing? (A) atomic weapons (B) guns (C) snakes (D) cars QuestionID: 15-4-59 Page-Reference: 635 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze whether maladaptive aspects of specific phobias might arise from perfectly normal, healthy behaviours. Answer: (C) snakes Module 15.4 Multiple Choice Questions 1. Feeling insects crawling on your skin (when there are none) or hearing voices (when no one is talking) would be examples of what symptom of schizophre nia? (A) compulsions (B) delusions (C) hallucinations (D) obsessions QuestionID: 15-4-97 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (C) hallucinations 2. The belief that one is the Prime Minister of Canada is an example of which sc hizophrenic

symptom? (A) a delusion (B) a hallucination (C) an obsession (D) disorganized thinking QuestionID: 15-4-96 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) a delusion 3. Shreen is diagnosed with schizophre nia. She believes that she is a powerful person who can save the world. Shreen is e xperienci ng (A) delusions of persecution. (B) delusions of grandeur. (C) delusions of reference. (D) delusions of paranoia. QuestionID: 15-4-95 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) delusions of grandeur. 4. False sensory perce pti ons that often take the form of hearing voices are called (A) delusions. (B) hallucinations. (C) obsessions. (D) compulsions. QuestionID: 15-4-94 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) hallucinations. 5. Gigi, who has been diagnosed with schizophr enia, believes that she was sent by God to one day rule the world. Her belief is an example of a(n) (A) negative symptom. (B) delusion. (C) disorganized behaviour. (D) hallucination. QuestionID: 15-4-93 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) delusion. 6. False beliefs held by a person who has no evidence to support such beliefs are known as (A) delusions. (B) hallucinations. (C) obsessions. (D) compulsions.

QuestionID: 15-4-92 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) delusions. 7. Isaiah has recently started experie nci ng hall uc inati ons and delusions and doesn't seem to be able to organize his thoughts or behavi ours. It seems as though Isaiah may be entering the _________ phase of schizophre nia. (A) prodromal (B) active (C) negative (D) residual QuestionID: 15-4-91 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) active 8. Zach has started withdrawing from his family and friends, has lost interest in others, and is having trouble orga nizi ng his thoughts. He has not ex perie nce d any halluci nati ons or del usi ons. Zach is most likely in the ________ phase of schizophrenia . (A) prodromal (B) active (C) negative (D) residual QuestionID: 15-4-90 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) prodromal 9. Most indivi duals with s chiz ophre nia ex perie nc e three distinct phases of the disorder: (A) schizoid, schizotypal, and schizophrenia. (B) hallucinations, delusions, and catatonia (C) prodromal, active, and residual. (D) paranoia, disorganization, and undifferentiated. QuestionID: 15-4-89 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (C) prodromal, active, and residual. 10. A patient in a psychiat ri c hospital exhibits dis orde re d thinking, bizarre be havi our, and halluci nati ons . This person is probably suffering from (A) schizophrenia. (B) bipolar disorder. (C) a dissociative disorder. (D) major depression. QuestionID: 15-4-88 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Applied Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia.

Answer: (A) schizophrenia. 11. The rate of sc hizophre nia in the general popula tion is (A) <1%. (B) 5%. (C) 10%. (D) 20%. QuestionID: 15-4-87 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: 12. A hospital patient was diagnosed as suffering from sc hiz ophre nia because she was having both delusions and halluc inations. What type of s ymptoms are these? (A) atypical (B) positive (C) negative (D) a mix of positive and negative QuestionID: 15-4-103 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) positive 13. What is the best way to describe the positive symptoms of schizophre nia ? (A) behaviours that are maladaptive (B) behaviours that are correlated with genius (C) behaviours that should not normally occur (D) the absence of adaptive behaviours QuestionID: 15-4-104 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (C) behaviours that should not normally occur 14. Which pair consists of negative symptoms of s chiz ophre nia ? (A) flat emotions and low motivation (B) flat emotions and delusions (C) low motivation and hallucinations (D) delusions and hallucinations QuestionID: 15-4-105 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) flat emotions and low motivation 15. According to the authors of your textbook, schi zophre nia is often conf used with which other psychological disorder? (A) schizoid personality disorder (B) dissociative identity disorder

(C) bipolar disorder (D) agoraphobia QuestionID: 15-4-106 Page-Reference: 645 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) dissociative identity disorder 16. Researche rs have discovered that in i ndivi dual s with schizophre nia, the _________ is/are larger, while the _________ is smaller. (A) total brain volume; size of the ventricles (B) ventricles; total brain volume (C) size of the amygdala; hippocampus (D) size of the hippocampus; amygdala QuestionID: 15-4-113 Page-Reference: 649 Skill: Factual Objective: Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) ventricles; total brain volume 17. Research indicates that some people's schizophre nia may result from abnormalities in the brain's receptor sites for what neurotrans mitter? (A) acetylcholine (B) dopamine (C) serotonin (D) epinephrine QuestionID: 15-4-114 Page-Reference: 649 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia. Answer: (B) dopamine 18. Some of the symptoms of schiz ophre nia appear to be caused by excess _______________ activity, and too little ______________ activity. (A) dopamine; glutamate (B) glutamate; dopamine (C) serotonin; acetylcholine (D) acetylcholine; serotonin QuestionID: 15-4-115 Page-Reference: 649 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) dopamine; glutamate 19. Excess dopamine activity in the brains of i ndiv iduals with schiz ophre nia is believed to produce ______________, but not _________________ _. (A) positive symptoms; negative symptoms (B) negative symptoms; positive symptoms (C) delusions; hallucinations (D) hallucinations; delusions QuestionID: 15-4-116 Page-Reference: 649

Skill: Factual Objective: Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia. Answer: (A) positive symptoms; negative symptoms 20. Janelle is a 23-year-old woman who is living happily in Canada. She has a relative who recently developed the symptoms of schizophre nia. Janelle has the highest chance of devel opi ng the illness if that relative is (A) her fraternal twin. (B) her biological mother. (C) her identical twin. (D) her grandmother. QuestionID: 15-4-109 Page-Reference: 648 Skill: Applied Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (C) her identical twin. 21. According to family, twin, and adoption studies, a person is at greatest risk for devel opi ng schizophrenia if he or she has a(n) (A) identical twin diagnosed with the disorder. (B) fraternal twin diagnosed with the disorder. (C) biological parent diagnosed with the disorder. (D) non-twin sibling diagnosed with the disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-110 Page-Reference: 648 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (A) identical twin diagnosed with the disorder. 22. One bi ol ogical expla nat ion for the sympt oms of schizophre nia is that the __________ are 20–30% larger in indivi duals with schizophrenia compared to the rest of the population. (A) frontal lobes (B) synapses (C) vesicles (D) ventricles QuestionID: 15-4-111 Page-Reference: 649 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (D) ventricles 23. The ventricles, spaces in the brain that are filled with cere bros pi nal fluid, are typically larger than normal in the brains of indivi duals suffering from (A) schizophrenia. (B) antisocial personality disorder. (C) major depression. (D) bipolar disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-112 Page-Reference: 649 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (A) schizophrenia.

24. People diagnosed with schiz ophre nia are more likely to have been born during the winter months. One expla na ti on for this phe nomenon is that (A) children born during these months are more likely to be exposed to the flu during the second trimester. (B) cold temperatures slow down neuronal development, leading to a reduction in brain volume. (C) summer heat negatively affects the genetic material in sperm at the time of conception (9 months earlier). (D) eggs released during the summer—9 months earlier—are more likely to contain genetic errors. QuestionID: 15-4-117 Page-Reference: 650 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (A) children born during these months are more likely to be exposed to the flu during the second trimester. 25. Which of the following best describes the ne urodevel opme ntal hy pot hesis of schizophre nia? (A) The environmental conditions of childhood cause the brain to deteriorate and produce schizophrenic symptoms. (B) Schizophrenia is the result of biological and environmental factors that interact during brain development during gestation. (C) Schizophrenia is a reaction to psychologically traumatic events. (D) Symptoms of schizophrenia will not occur until after the brain is fully developed (late adolescence into adulthood). QuestionID: 15-4-118 Page-Reference: 650 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (B) Schizophrenia is the result of biological and environmental factors that interact during brain development during gestation. 26. When psychol ogists viewed home movies of infants and children who subse que ntly developed schizophrenia , what did they find? (A) nothing unusual (B) all of the symptoms associated with schizophrenia (C) evidence for a "splitting" of personality (D) unusual motor patterns QuestionID: 15-4-119 Page-Reference: 650 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (D) unusual motor patterns 27. The sc hizophre nia prodrome refers to (A) a traumatic events that can trigger a schizophrenic episode. (B) a collection of mild symptoms that precede the development of schizophrenia. (C) a controversial treatment for the disorder. (D) the disruption in cognitive ability associated with the disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-120 Page-Reference: 650 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (B) a collection of mild symptoms that precede the development of schizophrenia. 28. According to your textbook, research has linked all of the f ollowing to an increase in the risk of developing schizophre nia, EXCEPT (A) heavy marijuana use in adolescence.

(B) receiving a head injury prior to age 10. (C) growing up in poverty or experiencing social isolation at a young age. (D) being raised in an extremely strict religious environment. QuestionID: 15-4-121 Page-Reference: 650 Skill: Factual Objective: Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: (D) being raised in an extremely strict religious environment. 29. Experie nci ng extended periods of immobility is associated with (A) catatonic schizophrenia. (B) disorganized schizophrenia. (C) paranoid schizophrenia. (D) undifferentiated schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-98 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. Answer: (A) catatonic schizophrenia. 30. While doing volunteer work at a mental hospital, Mary is put on a ward for adults with severe mental dis orders. One patient remains in the same position for hours at a time and never talks. The doctors tell Mary this patient suffers from (A) residual schizophrenia. (B) catatonic schizophrenia. (C) disorganized schizophrenia. (D) paranoid schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-99 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. Answer: (B) catatonic schizophrenia. 31. Laurie, a 30-year-ol d home maker, has delusions and halluc ina tions, often makes odd or ina ppropriate gestures, and does not bathe or change her clothes regularly. Her sympt oms indicate she is suffering from _______ schizophrenia . (A) disorganized (B) catatonic (C) residual (D) paranoid QuestionID: 15-4-100 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. Answer: (A) disorganized 32. ______ schiz ophre nia is characterize d by delusions that the person is being watched, followed, or persecuted in some way. (A) Disorganized (B) Paranoid (C) Residual (D) Catatonic

QuestionID: 15-4-101 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Factual Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. Answer: (B) Paranoid 33. Dr. Knight is trying to diagnosis a patient suffering from what appears to be a form of schiz ophre nia. The patient appears to have symptoms from several different types of sc hiz ophre nia. Dr. Knight is most likely to conclude that the patient should be c las sified as suffering from _________________ schi zophrenia. (A) disorganized (B) undifferentiated (C) residual (D) catatonic QuestionID: 15-4-102 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Applied Objective: Apply your knowledge to identify different forms of schizophrenia. Answer: (B) undifferentiated 34. A neighbour of yours is upset that a community treatment centre for mental illness is opening nearby. She is worried that crime rates will increase with the increase in individuals with schizophrenia . What should you tell her? (A) People with schizophrenia are 10 times more likely to be the victim of crime compared to the general population. (B) People with schizophrenia are incapable of committing violent crimes due to catatonia. (C) She is correct; the majority of people with schizophrenia are dangerous. (D) Undifferentiated schizophrenia is the only dangerous form of the disorder and it is quite rare. QuestionID: 15-4-107 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze claims that schizophrenia is related to genius or violent behaviour. Answer: (A) People with schizophrenia are 10 times more likely to be the victim of crime compared to the general population. 35. Sam's brother has recently been diagnosed with schiz ophre nia. He knows his brother has always been good at math and wonders if his brother will now become a math genius. What should you tell Sam? (A) People with schizophrenia are known to significantly improve their math and problem-solving skills. (B) Unfortunately, people with schizophrenia tend to become violent rather than geniuses. (C) Schizophrenia is not associated with genius. In fact, most individuals with schizophrenia have average or below average IQs. (D) Most individuals with schizophrenia would be geniuses, but of the side-effects of the treatment for the disorder is a decrease in intelligence. QuestionID: 15-4-108 Page-Reference: 647 Skill: Conceptual Objective: Analyze claims that schizophrenia is related to genius or violent behaviour. Answer: (C) Schizophrenia is not associated with genius. In fact, most individuals with schizophrenia have average or below average IQs.