TEST BANK for Psychology: Themes and Variations11th Edition by Wayne Weiten ISBN-10 0357374827, ISB by StudyGuide

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Chapter 01_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Marissa wants to study people’s emotional reactions to increases in temperature. Her classmate, Bernard, tells her that she should focus on observable responses, rather than internal states, in her study. Bernard’s views are MOST similar to those found in the _____ perspective a. psychodynamic b. evolutionary c. behavioral d. biological 2. Dr. Lopez is a psychologist who evaluates, diagnoses, and treats people with everyday problems of moderate severity. What type of psychologist is Dr. Lopez? a. An educational psychologist b. A counseling psychologist c. A school psychologist d. An industrial psychologist 3. Your friend is having difficulty studying. She states that she did little to no studying in high school and she is unfamiliar with sound study habits. You suggest that she a. listen to soothing music while she studies. b. have an all-night study session right before an exam so the information is fresh. c. make a weekly study plan with regularly scheduled times devoted solely to her studies. d. highlight as much as she can in her book while reading. 4. In research studies, psychologists rely heavily upon: a. empirical evidence. b. opinions from other researchers. c. individual case descriptions. d. their own personal experiences. 5. Your roommate has been studying for her final exam in history. Knowing that you are taking a psychology class, she asks for your advice. Based on what you have learned in class, you tell her to a. get plenty of sleep the night before the exam. b. stay up late and study as much as she can the night before the exam. c. not worry about studying since she took good notes in class. d. study for her history exam in the common room with her classmates. 6. Which of the following statements about Freud’s psychoanalytic theory is MOST accurate? a. Freud’s views have been largely abandoned and they exert relatively little, if any, influence on current mainstream psychology. b. Freud’s views exert a tremendous influence on other disciplines, but not on psychology. c. Freud’s views exert a tremendous influence on developmental and abnormal psychology, but not on other areas of mainstream psychology. d. Many psychoanalytic concepts have filtered into the mainstream of psychology. Page 1

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Chapter 01_11e 7. Although very popular by the 1950s, why did many psychologists find behaviorism and psychoanalytic theory unappealing? a. They found these disciplines to be dehumanizing. b. They found the disciplines to be overly simplistic. c. They found the disciplines to be too complex. d. They believed both disciplines to be invalid. 8. Which of the following statements is MOST likely to be said by a critical thinker? a. "There is lots of support for this claim, so it must be true." b. "As long as it is on the news, it must be true." c. "That is my opinion and nothing is going to change it!" d. "Can I trust the information from this study found on my social media feed?" 9. Which theoretical perspective examines behavioral processes in terms of their adaptive value for members of a species over the course of many generations? a. Revolutionary psychology b. Evolutionary psychology c. Personality psychology d. Social psychology 10. Graham’s research includes training rats to follow a maze to the end to receive a reward. His friend, Orlando, does not believe that research on rats will be relevant to human behavior, as humans and animals are fundamentally different. Orlando’s beliefs are most in line with which perspective? a. Humanism b. Behaviorism c. Psychoanalysis d. Functionalism 11. Charles is researching the hormonal and behavioral changes in women following menopause. Which of the following best represents Charles’s area of research? a. Physiological psychology b. Evolutionary psychology c. Cognitive psychology d. Behaviorism 12. Freud concluded that psychological disturbances are largely caused by personal conflicts existing a. in the environment. b. at a structural level. c. at a conscious level. d. at an unconscious level.

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Chapter 01_11e 13. How popular is the psychology undergraduate major in the United States? a. Psychology is the 2nd most popular undergraduate major in the United States. b. Psychology is the 10th most popular undergraduate major in the United States. c. Psychology ranks #1 as the most popular undergraduate major in the United States. d. Psychology has fallen to the 20th most popular undergraduate major in the United States. 14. A newspaper article reported a study by a psychologist in which the attitudes of men and women toward traditional sex roles were studied. MOST likely, the researcher was a _____ psychologist. a. cognitive b. counseling c. developmental d. social 15. Dalani believes that most of the time people are unaware that seemingly overt behaviors are actually guided by unconscious motivation. Dalani’s beliefs are most in line with which psychologist? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. B.F. Skinner c. Sigmund Freud d. Carol Rogers 16. Chloe wanted to show Alice her new outfit for a party they were to attend. Alice initially told Chloe that her look was shameless but, seeing Alice’s shocked expression, she immediately covered her mouth and explained that she meant to say that her look was seamless, not shameless. Alice apologized for misspeaking. What would Freud say about Alice’s “slip of the tongue?” a. It was a simple mistake; after all, the words do sound a bit alike. b. This was Alice’s way of making Chloe not want to attend the party. c. Alice may not have consciously wanted to insult her friend, but her slip of the tongue revealed her true feelings. d. Alice consciously meant what she said. The outfit was hideous. 17. Who was the first woman to receive a Ph.D. in psychology? a. Margaret Floy Washburn b. Mary Whiton Calkins c. Leta Stetter Hollingsworth d. Anna Freud 18. Which school of thought emerged through the leadership of William James? a. Functionalism b. Structuralism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis

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Chapter 01_11e 19. Which theoretical orientation emphasizes the unique qualities of humans, especially their potential for personal growth? a. Behaviorism b. Existentialism c. Psychoanalysis d. Humanism 20. The premise that knowledge should be acquired through observation is known as a. cognition. b. structuralism. c. functionalism. d. empiricism. 21. Caden is a psychologist researching the impact of genes in the development of personality traits. Caden is MOST likely interested in the field of a. learning psychology. b. cognitive psychology. c. biological psychology. d. cultural psychology. 22. Which is an effect of cramming for a test? a. Better retention of the material b. Enhancing one’s memorization capabilities c. Preserving one’s energy level d. Increased test anxiety 23. Who is credited for establishing the first laboratory and conducting research in the field of psychology in Leipzig, Germany in 1879? a. Edward Tichener b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Sigmund Freud d. John B. Watson 24. Which psychological school of thought rejected the study of conscious experience and began to focus on its function? a. Functionalism b. Structuralism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis

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Chapter 01_11e 25. Tamar believes that his clients’ primary obstacles usually relate to them being unfulfilled, or not living up to their potential. Tamar’s belief is similar to which psychologist’s beliefs? a. Carl Rogers b. Herber Simon c. Alfred Adler d. B.F. Skinner 26. Your friend Abraham used to want to be doctor. He has an interest in the mind and body, and always saw himself helping people manage their health and recover from illness. He still wants to help people but no longer sees himself in medical school. You suggest that he may want to consider a. an exploration of health psychology. He would still be helping people, and he would be practicing in his area of interest. b. continuing with medical school anyway. He will make a lot of money, and he is definitely helping people. c. a meeting with a career coach. He will likely need to consider different options. d. taking a few elective courses to see if something else peaks his interest. 27. Which branch of psychology maintains that behavioral patterns have evolved to solve adaptive problems, and that natural selection favors behaviors that enhance reproductive success? a. Gestalt b. Evolutionary c. Cognitive d. Behavioral 28. Behaviorism suggests that researchers should only focus on and study that which can be a. examined in a qualitative manner. b. objectively observed. c. gained through association. d. subjectively supported. 29. If we expect to understand behavior, we usually have to consider a. genetics. b. environment. c. a single-cause. d. multiple determinants. 30. Mel is interested in conducting a study of differences in male and female perceptions on the reliability of online dating services. You suggest that Mel consult with a psychologist in which research area? a. Social b. Cognitive c. Developmental d. Personality

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Chapter 01_11e 31. Ricardo, a psychologist, believes that his clients have an innate drive toward personal growth and fulfilling their potentials. It is likely that Ricardo is what type of psychologist? a. A humanist b. A psychoanalyst c. A structuralist d. A behaviorist 32. Which psychologists would be most likely to conduct psychological research using animals, such as rats? a. Structuralists b. Functionalists c. Psychoanalysts d. Behaviorists 33. Drs. Fett and Winters are both addiction specialists. Dr. Fett specializes in neurological and chemical changes that result from addiction, and Dr. Winters provides eclectic therapy to individuals who have addictions. Respectively, what type of psychologists are Fett and Winters? a. Cognitive; clinical b. Physiological; clinical c. Physiological; cognitive d. Cognitive; social 34. Which theoretical orientation is based on the premise that scientific psychology should study only observable behavior? a. Functionalism b. Structuralism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis 35. Janet trained her dog to sit on command by following this behavior with a reward of a dog biscuit and praise. Janet used the principles of a. behaviorism. b. humanism. c. psychoanalysis. d. functionalism. 36. Which of the following psychologists would be most likely to suggest that an individual’s problems are likely caused by unconscious motives and experiences in childhood? a. Abraham Maslow b. Sigmund Freud c. William James d. Alfred Adler

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Chapter 01_11e 37. Any overt (observable) response or activity by an organism is a a. function. b. structure. c. behavior. d. malfunction. 38. Ezra works in a clinic that specializes in serving persons who have HIV. He often meets with clients to discuss their feelings and concerns, and often assists them with therapy and support. We can assume that Ezra works in which specialty? a. Clinical psychology b. Physiological psychology c. Behavioral psychology d. Health psychology 39. Dr. Emerson would like to discover why the numbers of criminal justice majors are declining. He suspects that society’s changing attitudes toward law enforcement has influenced these numbers. If Dr. Emerson wishes to test his theory, which field of psychology would Dr. Emerson work in? a. Experimental Psychology b. Cognitive Psychology c. Social Psychology d. Clinical Psychology 40. What is the branch of psychology that focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of mental health issues through interviews and psychological testing? a. Personality psychology b. Educational psychology c. Social psychology d. Clinical psychology 41. You believe that there is a strong correlation between what children are exposed to in their environment, such as what they watch on television, their gaming, and their levels of aggressive behaviors. Your study partner believes that aggressive behaviors are evolutionary and innate, and that environment has less of an influence than you think. This difference in beliefs between you and your partner may illustrate that a. the causes of behavior are actually due to neurological impairment. b. the explanations for behavior are multifaceted. c. behaviors are too ambiguous to be studied, making it impossible to know who is correct. d. since the unconscious controls behavior, you are both incorrect. 42. Which field of psychology has an interest in the areas of subjective experiences such as happiness, love, gratitude, contentment, and hope?? a. Positive psychology b. Cognitive psychology c. Evolutionary psychology d. Psychoanalytic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01_11e 43. Which school of thought rejected animal research, citing that, because humans are fundamentally different from animals, research on animals has little relevance to the understanding of human behavior? a. Gestalt b. Humanism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis 44. Zadok is working on his degree in psychology. He states that he would like to work diagnosing and treating psychological problems and disorders. In which branch of psychology would Zadok be working? a. Personality psychology b. Educational psychology c. Social psychology d. Clinical psychology 45. Among the following, which has likely contributed to the growth in cultural diversity in psychology? a. A renewed interest in cognitive science b. Better and more advanced psychological testing c. The growing population of North America d. Growing global interdependence 46. The purposeful, reasoned, goal-directed thinking that involves solving problems, formulating inferences, working with probabilities, and making carefully thought-out decisions is known as a. common sense. b. critical thinking. c. inductive reasoning. d. deductive reasoning. 47. Rogers and Maslow maintained that to fully understand people’s behavior, psychologists must consider the human drive toward a. personal growth. b. monetary success. c. instant gratification. d. power. 48. Which psychological perspective would be most closely associated with Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow? a. Evolutionary b. Biological c. Humanism d. Functionalism

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Chapter 01_11e 49. Rewarding yourself for good study habits involves the principles of behavior introduced by whom? a. Edward Tichener b. Sigmund Freud c. Carl Rogers d. B.F. Skinner 50. It is not uncommon for psychology to be confusing to many people, because there is the possibility of multiple valid explanations for the same behavior. One reason for this is that psychology has a. subjective theories. b. empiricism. c. historical context. d. theoretical diversity. 51. Wundt asked participants in his research to systematically and carefully observe, analyze, and describe their own sensations, mental images and emotional reactions. This is called a. introspection. b. meditation. c. mediation. d. impression. 52. Which specialty in psychology is the most widely practiced? a. Cognitive psychology b. Clinical psychology c. Educational psychology d. Social psychology 53. Which theoretical orientation states that because humans are different from other animals, research on animals has little relevance to the understanding of human behavior? a. Behaviorism b. Existentialism c. Psychoanalysis d. Humanism 54. Rashmi has been experiencing periods of irritability, aggressiveness, and has become combative with anyone trying to intervene. Rashmi has diabetes and recently learned that her moods change when she experiences a significant increase in her glucose levels. Which type of psychologist would be the MOST helpful in explaining why this happens to Rashmi? a. A developmental psychologist b. A clinical psychologist c. A physiological psychologist d. A behaviorist

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Chapter 01_11e 55. What psychological theory attempts to explain personality, motivation, and mental disorders by focusing on unconscious determinants of behavior? a. Functionalism b. Structuralism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis 56. If you were having problems with severe depression, the type of psychologist that would be the greatest help to you would be a(n) _____ psychologist. a. developmental b. social c. clinical d. experimental 57. Many of our assumptions, ideals, attitudes, and unspoken rules are a result of our a. culture. b. cognition. c. genetics. d. self-concept. 58. While once found almost exclusively in academia, what percentage of psychologists work in colleges or universities today? a. One-half b. One-third c. One-fourth d. Less than one-tenth 59. A group of psychologists is conducting research to determine whether people eat more when they are in the presence of environmental stimuli that increase anxiety, such as loud noises or flashing lights. These scientists MOST likely follow the _____ perspective. a. behavioral b. psychodynamic c. humanistic d. functionalist 60. Amaya believes that people are not always fully aware of the forces affecting their behavior and supports the argument that behavior is governed by unconscious forces. Amaya’s beliefs are in line with which of psychology’s pioneers? a. Edward Tichener b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Sigmund Freud d. John B. Watson

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Chapter 01_11e 61. Each person's personal experience of the world is unique. By using a scientific approach to their work, psychologists strive to make their observations as a. objective as possible. b. subjective as possible. c. biased as possible. d. simple as possible. 62. Recently, Western psychologists have started to devote more attention to _____ as a determinant of behavior. a. intelligence b. the unconscious c. feelings d. culture 63. In the early 20th century, which female psychologist dispelled many falsely held theories about women? a. Margaret Floy Washburn b. Mary Whiton Calkins c. Leta Stetter Hollingsworth d. Anna Freud 64. Alison believes that individuals learn to be either aggressive or nonaggressive as a result of the experiences they have. Alison’s views are MOST consistent with the _____ view of psychology. a. behaviorist b. structuralist c. functionalist d. psychoanalytic 65. William James, a functionalist, argued that consciousness consists of a conscious flow of thoughts which he called the a. flow of deduction. b. spring of induction. c. flow of reason. d. stream of consciousness. 66. Which branch of psychology maintains that unconscious motives and experiences in early childhood govern personality and mental disorders? a. Humanism b. Behaviorism c. Psychoanalysis d. Cognitive

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Chapter 01_11e 67. Which of the following is true about psychology? a. Psychology is not a science. b. Psychology ignores behavior and the physiological and cognitive processes that underlie behavior. c. Since its inception, psychology has been a constantly evolving field. d. Psychology applies superstitious thinking to practical problems. 68. One of the most controversial intellectual figures of the 20th century was a. Alfred Adler. b. G. Stanley Hall. c. Sigmund Freud. d. John B. Watson. 69. Who was the first woman to serve as President of the American Psychological Association? a. Margaret Floy Washburn b. Mary Whiton Calkins c. Leta Stetter Hollingsworth d. Anna Freud 70. Individuals’ intelligence, temperament, personality and susceptibility to many psychological disorders are largely influenced by a. heredity alone. b. only the environment. c. self-identity. d. heredity and environment. 71. Which involves the use of cognitive skills and strategies that increase the likelihood of the desired outcome? a. Critical thinking b. Concentration c. Listening d. Reading ahead 72. Your boss informs you that the company you work for is in trouble. The executives explain that the company appears to have significant issues that are affecting all employees. One of the bigger issues they are focusing on is employee morale and job satisfaction. You suggest that the company consult with a/an a. psychologist specializing in psychometrics. b. cognitive psychologist. c. educational psychologist. d. industrial and organizational psychologist.

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Chapter 01_11e 73. In a large-scale study, which of the following was found to be as influential in determining student success in college as admission tests? a. Interesting instructors b. Taking only easy courses c. Student study habits d. Number of extracurricular activities a student is involved in 74. Who earned a Nobel Prize (1981) for the research that indicated that the right and left hemispheres of the brain specialize on different mental tasks? a. Herbert Simon b. Roger Sperry c. Joseph Spear d. Albert Bandura 75. If Dr. Maple is a behaviorist, he would MOST likely believe that the cause of a child’s disruptive behavior in school is the result of a. a learning disability. b. his genetic inheritance. c. his prior experiences. d. a combination of his genetic inheritance and his prior experiences. 76. Of the following, which is associated with increased knowledge and better academic performance in college? a. Skimming instead of reading sections b. Sporadic class attendance c. Active listening and note-taking d. Using a recording device and not taking notes 77. Skinner concluded that free will is a. a basic right. b. what motivates humans. c. something to achieve. d. an illusion. 78. Kavi disagrees with her family that children who play violent video games are prone to violent behavior. Her psychology instructor encourages her to search for data that refutes these claims. Which critical thinking skills would she be using? a. Understanding the rules of logic and evaluating the source b. Evaluating the source and quality of the evidence c. Examining alternative explanations and contradictory evidence d. Examining the quality of evidence and alternative explanations

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Chapter 01_11e 79. Elizabeth is interested in the best way to study achievement among middle-school children, and she is also interested in the factors that underlie student motivation. Elizabeth would MOST likely describe her research interests as a. cognitive psychology. b. psychometrics. c. educational psychology. d. developmental psychology. 80. With which of the following statements would a behaviorist agree? a. Conscious experiences can be studied in an objective, precise way. b. In order to understand behavior, one must understand the motives behind the behavior. c. Behavior can only be explained in terms of phenomenology, that is, an individual’s interpretation of experience. d. Psychology should be the science of behavior that can be observed by others. 81. Which psychological perspective believed that people have a basic need and desire to fulfill their potentials? a. Psychoanalytic b. Behavioral c. Humanistic d. Functionalism 82. Which branch of psychology studies the effects of environment on the overt behavior of humans and animals? a. Structuralism b. Behaviorism c. Psychoanalysis d. Functionalism 83. Which psychological school of thought emphasizes breaking down and analyzing one’s conscious experiences? a. Functionalism b. Structuralism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis 84. In the early 1900s, who proposed that psychologists abandon the study of consciousness altogether and focus exclusively on behaviors they could observe directly? a. Alfred Adler b. G. Stanley Hall c. Sigmund Freud d. John B. Watson

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Chapter 01_11e 85. Marcus explains that he would like to earn his Ph.D. in psychology. However, his family questions this as he already has a good job and is not looking to change careers. Marcus states that achieving his Ph.D. has always been both a personal and professional goal for him, and he feels that he will grow more as a practitioner. His family believes that it is a waste of time and money. Taking a humanist approach, you explain to Marcus’s family that a. he may make even more money if he earns a higher degree, so it will pay off in the end. b. you wholeheartedly agree with them. Marcus seems happy with his job, so there is no need to further his education. c. Marcus’s wish to pursue a more advanced degree is not about money or job status, but about his level of personal growth and feeling fulfilled. d. he is obviously driven by some unconscious need, and he really needs to determine what this is before he makes any significant decisions. 86. Which school of thought takes the most optimistic view of human nature? a. Gestalt b. Humanism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis 87. While sitting on the beach watching the ocean, Khamani writes down and considers the feelings, thoughts, and sensations he is experiencing. According to structuralism, Khamani is practicing a. individuation. b. impressionism. c. introspection. d. enrichment. 88. Andi believes that just as we have broken down matter into its most basic elements, we should be doing the same with the mind, and investigate how those elements are related. Which school of thought do they most likely relate to in their beliefs? a. Functionalism b. Structuralism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis 89. The principal at Pineview Elementary School has implemented an educational kinesthetic program that uses a certain series of physical activities twice daily to help children’s brains be better prepared for learning. You want to test the efficacy of this program, and suggest that the school consult with which research specialty in psychology? a. Educational b. Psychometric c. Clinical d. Developmental

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Chapter 01_11e 90. The area of psychological research that is MOST relevant to the causation, prevention, and treatment of illness is a. health psychology. b. physiological psychology. c. social psychology. d. psychiatry. 91. Research suggests that students study most effectively with a. a television playing in the background while they study. b. their favorite music playing in headphones/ear buds while they study. c. few distractions in a quiet place. d. a group of friends, having fun. 92. People who generate many different and reasonable explanations about a topic before selecting the most likely outcome are a. using critical thinking skills. b. over-thinking the situation. c. using introspection techniques. d. rigid in their thinking. 93. Which specialty in psychology works with individuals experiencing everyday problems, such as career or marriage issues? a. Clinical b. Cognitive c. Counseling d. Behavioral 94. Isaiah is training his new puppy to sit on command. He often rewards the puppy when it follows his commands with a treat. Isaiah is using the principles of which school of thought? a. Structuralism b. Functionalism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis 95. Which of the following statements regarding women in psychology is accurate? a. Women have made very few contributions to the development of psychology. b. Women have often been overlooked in histories of psychology. c. Initially, women received more Ph.Ds. in psychology than men. d. Currently, women make up about one-fourth of all psychologists.

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Chapter 01_11e 96. Mildred is struggling with high anxiety and mild depressive symptoms. Which type of psychologist is she most likely to see? a. One who specializes in biometrics b. A developmental psychologist c. A clinical psychologist d. An educational psychologist 97. Which psychologist coined the term “stream of consciousness”? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. William James c. Sigmund Freud d. Edward Tichener 98. Two months ago, Linda had a car accident while taking her grandson to school. While it was a bad accident, they were physically okay. Linda states that when she drives now, she feels a tightening in her chest, a great deal of dread and fear, and a racing heart. She only drives now when she absolutely has to, and she will no longer have her grandson in the car. Given the scenario with Linda, what would you recommend that she do? a. You recommend that Linda use acupuncture and spinal adjustment to reduce her symptoms of anxiety. b. You recommend that Linda would likely benefit from speaking with a clinical psychologist c. Linda likely needs a chest x-ray, because in addition to the anxiety, she experiences a tightness in her chest d. You recommend traditional psychoanalysis to help Linda resolve her issues. 99. Which perspective maintains that an organism’s functioning can be explained in terms of the brain structures and biochemical processes that underlie behavior? a. Evolutionary b. Biological c. Humanism d. Functionalism 100. Single-cause explanations for behavior are sometimes accurate, but they are usually a. incomplete. b. incoherent. c. explicit. d. implicit. 101. Which of the following accurately represents what Watson believed about heredity? a. An individual’s likes and dislikes are largely influenced by heredity. b. Most of an individual’s behaviors are a result of inherited traits. c. Behavior is governed entirely by the environment rather than heredity. d. Heredity and the environment are equally influential in determining an individual’s behavior.

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Chapter 01_11e 102. Although denied a Ph.D. in psychology, which female psychologist studied under William James, and later founded one of the first psychology laboratories in America? a. Margaret Floy Washburn b. Mary Whiton Calkins c. Leta Stetter Hollingsworth d. Anna Freud 103. Ahad is a psychological researcher who has been working to design a new test to assess personality. Ahad is likely involved in which area of research? a. Cognitive psychology b. Developmental psychology c. Psychometrics d. Clinical psychology 104. The widely shared customs, beliefs, values, norms, institutions, and other products of a community that are transmitted across generations are referred to as a. culture. b. cognition. c. genetics. d. inheritance. 105. Which school of thought insisted on verifiability of observation in research? a. Structuralism b. Functionalism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis 106. Oliver is studying motivation in chimpanzees. His roommate doesn’t think that Oliver’s animal research will produce much useful information about human motivation. Oliver’s roommate apparently has a(n) _____ perspective. a. humanistic b. evolutionary c. biological d. cognitive 107. Which of the following is true about psychology’s evolution? a. Societal values haveinfluenced psychology’s evolution. b. World War II caused the growth of psychology as a profession to slow down. c. Most of psychology’s evolution has come from social changes. d. Societal trends and issues have not influenced psychology’s evolution.

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Chapter 01_11e 108. Analyzing, problem-solving, memory, and language are likely to be studied by which type of psychologist? a. A clinical psychologist b. A cognitive psychologist c. A developmental psychologist d. A behaviorist 109. Your roommate suggests that humans lack free will and that their environment guides their behaviors. Which psychologist is MOST likely to agree with your roommate? a. Albert Bandura b. B.F. Skinner c. William James d. Carl Rogers 110. Which area of psychology saw tremendous growth due to World War II? a. Cognitive psychology b. Educational psychology c. Biometrics d. Clinical psychology 111. Michael is having problems relating to other people because he is exhibiting delusions (false beliefs) and hallucinations. Michael would MOST likely seek help from a(n) _____ psychologist. a. clinical b. developmental c. experimental d. physiological 112. As a human resource director, you are concerned about staff productivity and morale. You have noticed that your staff often complains about things that you consider to be relatively small, there is more discord among staff, and productivity numbers have gone down. Which type of psychologist may be able to assess staff issues and suggest resolutions? a. An industrial and organizational psychologist b. A counseling psychologist c. A behaviorist d. A cognitive psychologist 113. This perspective maintains that humans are free, rational beings with potential for personal growth, and that they are fundamentally different from animals. a. Humanism b. Behaviorism c. Psychoanalysis d. Functionalism

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Chapter 01_11e 114. Wendy’s daughter Elliana is a wonderful singer. Wendy believes that Elliana’s talent is inherited as her family includes multiple musicians. Taking a strict behaviorist approach, you argue that Elliana’s talent stems from a. her unconscious motives only. Her love of music and talent are guided by her unconscious. b. her use of introspection when she hears music. c. her subjective experience with music. d. her environment. The family musicians and her mother have taught her to love music. 115. Psychology’s intellectual parents are philosophy and what other discipline? a. Phlebotomy b. Philanthropy c. Physiology d. Phrenology 116. Which of the following professionals receive general training in medicine and receive an M.D. (medical doctor) degree? a. Psychiatrists only b. Clinical psychologists only c. Counseling psychologists only d. Both psychiatrists and clinical psychologists 117. Which theoretical perspective uses theory and research to better understand the positive adaptive, creative, and fulfilling aspects of human existence? a. Existentialism b. Social psychology c. Personality psychology d. Positive psychology 118. Which of the following is MOST likely to be studied by a cognitive psychologist? a. Strategies used by college students to solve a particular problem b. Play behavior in preschool children c. Whether or not a job incentive program is effective d. Factors that determine group cohesiveness 119. Zion is teaching his son to pick up his toys. He lets him watch one of his favorite videos after he has successfully put all of his toys away. You infer that Zion is using a. the principles of structuralism. b. the functionalist perspective. c. a psychoanalytical approach. d. a behaviorist approach.

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Chapter 01_11e 120. According to B.F. Skinner, we are not controlled by ourselves, but by our a. unconscious urges. b. stream of consciousness. c. environment. d. superego. 121. The text’s unifying theme that “heredity and environment jointly influence behavior” is often referred to as describing the _____ issue. a. nature versus nurture b. objective versus subjective c. biological versus psychological d. historical versus social 122. A system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations is a. an explanation. b. a theory. c. a fact. d. common sense. 123. The perspective which maintains that much of human and animal behavior can be explained in terms of brain structures and biochemical processes is known as a. the cognitive perspective. b. the humanist perspective. c. the biological perspective. d. the functionalist perspective. 124. Which school of thought emerged through the leadership of Edward Tichener? a. Functionalism b. Structuralism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis 125. The humanistic movement and Carl Rodgers argued that people’s behavior is governed by their a. unconscious drives. b. lack of free will. c. self-concepts. d. biological makeup. 126. Part of the increased debate surrounding Freud’s theory in the 1950s was, in part, due to Freud’s insistence that a. human behavior is shaped by the environment. b. free will in individuals should be emphasized. c. the unconscious governed behavior. d. behavior is largely influenced by biology. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01_11e 127. Critical thinking involves the ability to a. look for flaws or weaknesses in other people. b. use evidence to make objective judgements. c. detect emotional cues hidden in research agendas. d. use one's own intuition and opinions to assess claims made by research. 128. Keisha is conducting research on the different ways people process information and solve problems. She is MOST likely conducting research on a. biological perspective. b. evolutionary perspective. c. cognition perspective. d. consciousness perspective. 129. Which of the following study habits has been shown to be most effective in determining student success? a. Setting up a schedule for studying b. Never taking study breaks c. Randomly working on different assignments during each study session d. Cramming for exams 130. Your friend Adijan wants to conduct a research study on motivation in humans. He plans to train young rats to run a maze in order to receive a reward at the end. You take a humanist approach and explain to Adijan that a. research using animals is always unethical and he should not conduct the study. b. animal research will not yield data that applies to humans, as humans are very diverse. c. rats have been utilized far too often in research. He should use another animal. d. older rats are easier to train than younger. He should use older rats. 131. Among the following, which would a developmental psychologist likely be interested in? a. An experiment on a new medication to help prevent high cholesterol b. A report on a new type of personality test c. A newly released study on a new approach to repairing damages in the nervous system d. A study on changes in life satisfaction among aging populations 132. Diedre believes that most behaviors are guided by the unconscious, which is well beneath the surface of conscious awareness. Her beliefs strongly resemble those of which famous psychologist? a. Alfred Adler b. G. Stanley Hall c. Sigmund Freud d. John B. Watson

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Chapter 01_11e 133. Your colleague, John, a psychology instructor, has just agreed to travel abroad and spend a year teaching psychology in southeast Asia. He knows that his students will all speak English, and he explains that he will likely be able to teach the same materials that he currently covers in his classroom here. You are excited for John, and make the recommendation that before he goes, he may wish to a. do some research on the norms and cultural beliefs of the people he will be teaching as they may have differing views on psychological content. b. learn the language prior to leaving as he cannot depend on his students’ ability to understand him. c. hire a translator for the classroom. d. reconsider. He has a great position here, and you do not want him to go. 134. Michael is not happy or feeling fulfilled in his current job. He indicates that he has many interests and is uncertain as to what kind of position he should seek in which he would be happier. Concerned, you suggest that Michael consult with a/an a. cognitive psychologist. b. industrial and organizational psychologist. c. counseling psychologist. d. educational psychologist. 135. Katarina and Hope just saw the same movie. Katarina liked the plot-line of the movie but did not enjoy the special effects. She found them loud and overwhelming. Hope enjoyed the special effects and thought that they enhanced the plot-line and made the movie enjoyable. While they experienced the same movie, Katarina and Hope differ on their movie review as their experience with the movie is a. objective. b. subjective. c. unbiased. d. irrelevant. 136. Which of the following is a characteristic of a critical thinker? a. Rigidity in thinking b. The inability to make mistakes and make corrections c. Analyzing new information in an unbiased way d. A lack of persistence 137. Critical thinking includes all of the following EXCEPT a. believing that the stated position on a topic is incorrect. b. generating multiple solutions to problems. c. using principles of likelihood when dealing with probabilistic events. d. working systematically toward a desired goal. 138. A clinical psychologist would probably be MOST interested in a. determining how small groups make decisions. b. studying facial expressions of emotion. c. figuring out the most effective ways of treating anxiety. d. studying the nature of optical illusions. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01_11e 139. The term psychology comes from two Greek words, psyche, and logos, which in translation mean a. brain, and writing. b. brain, and the study of a subject. c. the soul and writing. d. the soul, and the study of a subject. 140. Umar is a psychological researcher who is currently teaching two pigeons to play table tennis. It is likely that Umar is a a. structuralist. b. functionalist. c. psychoanalyst. d. behaviorist. 141. Adrian discloses to you that she has decided to change her major from business to psychology. She states that, although she has enjoyed the business courses, she feels a strong pull toward helping others overcome obstacles. She adds that she feels that she can grow as a person in psychology, and will feel fulfilled knowing that she is a benefit to others. Using a humanist approach, you infer that Adrian’s decision is based on a. unconscious motives of which Adrian is not fully aware. b. some environmental influence. c. Adrian’s desire for personal growth and to fulfill her potential. d. Adrian’s dislike of the business world. 142. Stella discloses to you that she has had a lot of stress with her job, and she has not been sleeping well at night. She adds that when she does sleep, she has disturbing dreams that she is being chased, or that she is falling. Using psychoanalytic thought, you determine that a. Stella’s stressors at work are at an unconscious level, which is being manifested in her dreams. b. Stella needs to implement new behavioral strategies at work to reduce her stress. c. Stella needs to explore whether she needs a sleep-aid. d. Stella would like her job better if she would reward herself for her good performance. 143. Ahmet is a psychologist working with a large corporation to help improve staff morale, attitudes, and job satisfaction. He has offered guidance to the corporation, which he believes may also improve employee performance. In what area is Ahmet likely employed? a. Cognitive psychology b. Counseling psychology c. Industrial and organizational psychology d. Social psychology 144. Lisa taught her son to buckle his seat belt in the car by only allowing him to play the radio after he was buckled up. Lisa taught him by applying the principles of a. cognitive psychology. b. biological psychology. c. humanism. d. behaviorism. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01_11e 145. Which psychologist is credited with the emergence of positive psychology? a. Alfred Adler b. Herbert Simon c. Martin Seligman d. B.F. Skinner 146. Which of the following most accurately represents an empirical resource for study? a. Common sense b. Speculation c. Observation d. Traditional beliefs 147. Research on academic performance has shown that while scores on admission tests (the SAT and ACT) are important, there are also other equally important factors. What is one of the other factors that students should consider? a. Living situations b. Study skills and habits c. Professors’ teaching styles d. Intelligence 148. Which of the following assertions regarding eating patterns would an evolutionary psychologist likely agree with? a. Our cravings for rich and fatty foods are innate and have existed for thousands of years since a time when humans worked hard to find food sources, in a feast-or-famine scenario. b. Certain hormonal imbalances and endocrine disorders are correlated with weight-gain in affected individuals. c. Humans crave fatty foods when there is an increase in stress levels. d. The reward-center of the brain is what causes cravings for rich and fatty foods. 149. Jo’s area of research focuses on how social forces govern people's behavior. She is currently conducting a research study on the conformity of students on college campuses. It is likely that Jo works in what area? a. Social psychology b. Health psychology c. Cognitive psychology d. Developmental psychology 150. Psychoanalysis may attempt to explain personality, motivation, and mental disorders by examining a. one’s overt behavior. b. sensations, feelings, and images. c. one’s dreams. d. the flow of one’s thoughts.

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Chapter 01_11e Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chapter 01_11e 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. b 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. d 46. b 47. a 48. c 49. d 50. d 51. a 52. b 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01_11e 55. d 56. c 57. a 58. c 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. d 63. c 64. a 65. d 66. c 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. d 71. a 72. d 73. c 74. b 75. c 76. c 77. d 78. c 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01_11e 83. b 84. d 85. c 86. b 87. c 88. b 89. a 90. a 91. c 92. a 93. c 94. c 95. b 96. c 97. b 98. b 99. b 100. a 101. c 102. b 103. c 104. a 105. c 106. a 107. c 108. b 109. b 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01_11e 111. a 112. a 113. a 114. d 115. c 116. a 117. d 118. a 119. d 120. c 121. a 122. b 123. c 124. b 125. c 126. c 127. b 128. c 129. a 130. b 131. d 132. c 133. a 134. c 135. b 136. c 137. a

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Chapter 01_11e 138. c 139. d 140. d 141. c 142. a 143. c 144. d 145. c 146. c 147. b 148. a 149. a 150. c

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Chapter 02_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What do extraneous variables and independent variables have in common? a. Both have predictions made about them in the hypothesis. b. Both are manipulated by the experimenter. c. Both might cause an observed effect on the dependent variable. d. Both are controlled for by skilled experimenters. 2. Idris thinks that psychological research should be used to shape public policy in order to increase peoples' recycling behavior. In terms of the goals of the scientific enterprise, this best matches a. measurement. b. prediction. c. description. d. application. 3. Ferris is attempting to test the placebo effect on his older brother. How might he do this? a. Play loud music while his brother is showering in the morning and see how awake he is at breakfast. b. Monitor his brother's sleep for irregular movements and then show his brother when he wakes up in the morning. c. Pretend to be very awake when his brother wakes up in the morning and see if his brother is tired. d. Give his brother a cup of decaffeinated coffee instead of regular coffee without telling him. 4. Lucinda is studying only one participant but is using a wide variety of measurements and assessments. Which of the following research methods is she most likely using? a. Experiments b. Naturalistic observations c. Surveys d. Case studies 5. Dr. Kalmagura plans to introduce a new exam review procedure in his chemistry classes. To check the effectiveness of the new procedure, half his students will try the new technique for one semester, while the remaining students will review in the same way they have always done. Each student will decide whether they like the new technique or the standard technique. This example illustrates a. the use of non-random assignment. b. a correlational research design. c. a double-blind research design. d. what is meant by informed consent in research.

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Chapter 02_11e 6. Suppose an animal study is performed to understand the effects of sleep deprivation. Rats in the study are made to stay awake for either 16 or 24 hours. The dependent measure is how they navigate a new maze – sleepdeprived rats are expected to make more errors and take longer to reach the end. Which common criticism of the ethics of animal research most clearly applies to this example? a. It subjects animals to unnecessary cruelty. b. It is unlikely to produce insights that apply to humans. c. It increases the number of animals in captivity. d. It violates the autonomy and privacy of animals. 7. While on a road trip with two friends, they both begin to complain of headaches. Unfortunately, you only have enough aspirin for one of them. What strategy has the best chance of making them both feel better? a. Give one of them aspirin and the other a vitamin, but tell them both pills are just different colored aspirin. b. Give each of them a representative sample of the aspirin. c. Convince them that having headaches is a socially undesirable trait. d. Tell them this is part of an experiment so you can use experimenter bias to reduce the headaches. 8. Fatima is designing an experiment to see whether video games can serve as “brain training” to improve attentional capacity, critical thinking, and other cognitive abilities. The experimental group will receive the brain training game. Both the experimental and control groups will receive a pre-training cognitive test and a posttraining cognitive test. What could she do to ensure that any post-training effect is due to the training itself rather than expectations about the training? a. Use inferential statistics to remove statistical effects due to participant expectations; this will allow estimation of what the results would have been if expectations were not present. b. Convince participants that video games will have the opposite effect (i.e., hurt their cognitive abilities) so any improvement would be evidence of powerful brain training effects counteracting expectation effects. c. Mislead the experimental group about the goals of the study; for example, say the experiment is about the effect of videogames on posture; this way, they will not have any relevant expectations regarding cognitive ability. d. Have the control group do nothing whatsoever, so they have no expectation of improving their own scores; this will give an idea of how much scores can vary from pre- to post-tests even without an expectation effect. 9. In experimental research, what is the difference between the control group and the experimental group? a. The control group refers to the scientists and the experimental group refers to the participants. b. The experimental group receives the treatment but the control group does not. c. The experimental group is assessed with an experiment but the control group is assessed with a correlational study. d. The control group is chosen by the researchers but the experimental group is randomly assigned.

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Chapter 02_11e 10. An animal study is proposed to develop novel treatments for Alzheimer’s disease, a serious brain disorder which affects millions of people worldwide. The research team are experts on Alzheimer’s. The study would require intentionally damaging the brains of rats and observing the resulting impairments. Given this background, which ethical principle for studying nonhuman animals is most poorly addressed by this proposal? a. The violation of animal privacy b. The extent of anticipated animal suffering c. The importance of the research problem addressed d. The likelihood of beneficial discoveries 11. Sampling bias is said to occur when a. a chosen population is a poor match for a research question, leading to a poorly chosen sample. b. a sample is not representative of the population from which it is drawn. c. a researcher cites background literature that is overly supportive of their theory. d. a participant underreports or omits information that reflects poorly on them. 12. Dr. Kincaid was interested in the topic of autistic savants (individuals with limited abilities in many areas, but with an exceptional talent in one specific area). In the initial part of the investigation, Dr. Kincaid carefully observed and compiled detailed files on three individuals who were autistic savants. Dr. Kincaid is conducting _____ research. a. case study b. survey c. correlational d. experimental 13. A system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations is called a. an experiment. b. a variable. c. a theory. d. a hypothesis. 14. One is MOST likely to encounter problems with the social desirability bias when using a. self-reports. b. case studies. c. naturalistic observations. d. the experimental method. 15. Fin is conducting research on the impact of military deployment on family structure. He feels very strongly about this topic because he grew-up on several different military bases. What is a possible flaw with his research? a. Confounding variables b. Anecdotal evidence c. Placebo effects d. Social desirability bias

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Chapter 02_11e 16. In a scientific study, participants are best defined as a. the persons who design and carry out the study. b. the persons who conduct peer reviews for scientific journals. c. the persons to whom the study results generalize. d. the persons or animals whose behavior is systematically observed. 17. A film director and a scientist want to study which elements make a movie scary. They show participants various film clips and measure "scariness" by changes in participants’ heart rates or in how much they sweat. This study uses which of the following methods? a. Physiological recordings b. Interviews c. Direct observations d. Psychological tests 18. A disadvantage of an experiment measuring annoyance thresholds in drivers using a driving simulation may be a. the inability to generate cause-and-effect conclusions b. the artificial, contrived situations in which the experiment is conducted c. the length of time necessary to complete the study d. ethical considerations 19. Which of the following scenarios would most likely be an acceptable form of deception in a psychological study? a. Which of the following scenarios would most likely be an acceptable form of deception in a psychological study? b. Making participants believe that there was a shooting in the building and asking them to evacuate immediately c. Making participants believe that the experimenter was suffering a sudden heart attack d. Making participants believe that their home was broken into. 20. Which of the following correlations would you most expect to be negative? a. Years of education and salary b. Shoe size and height c. Time spent playing video games and grade-point average (GPA) d. Time spent in the sun and likelihood of skin cancer 21. Christopher is developing a list of psychological and physiological variables that he expects will be positively correlated. Which of the following correlations should he most expect to be positive? a. Time spent exercising and frequency of illness b. Height and weight c. IQ and shoe size d. Age and physical strength (among adults)

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Chapter 02_11e 22. Your colleague, Lazlo, asks for your help choosing between surveys and case study methods for his research. You compare the two methods and advise him that surveys a. Your colleague, Lazlo, asks for your help choosing between surveys and case study methods for his research. You compare the two methods and advise him that surveys b. are more likely to identify large-scale trends across large groups of people. c. are more likely to generate insight about medical topics. d. are more useful for drawing conclusions about cause and effect. 23. What is one reason that a research study might contain two or more independent variables? a. It allows interactions to be detected. b. It reduces the number of participants needed. c. It reduces participant and researcher bias. d. It gives more chances to detect an interesting effect. 24. An attorney wants to learn more about the common myths and misconceptions about jury trials held by average adults in the United States. She designs a questionnaire which asks about how jurors are selected, the role of the judge, the process of eyewitness testimony, etc. She sends the questionnaire to 200 people selected from a local phone book. In this example, what is the population? a. The 200 people who were sent questionnaires b. The group comprised of average adults in the United States c. The collected responses to the questionnaires about jury trials d. The laws, procedures, and people that are involved in jury trials 25. You are sitting on a park bench in a major metropolitan area from 7 a.m. to 7 p.m. and you note the number of people who walk by and whether or not they litter. You are engaging in a. casual observation. b. naturalistic observation. c. case study research. d. experimental research. 26. Suppose a man believes that eating red foods leads to better health (as measured by scores on a fitness test) than eating green foods. However, he has never tracked his own or others' fitness results after eating various foods. Thus, he has never changed his mind on this issue. Which common failing of non-scientific thought best explains his stubbornness in this example? a. Vague hypotheses b. Lack of statistics c. Little effort to verify ideas d. Lack of peer review

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Chapter 02_11e 27. An instructor wishes to find out whether a new teaching method is superior to his usual procedures, so he conducts an experiment. Everyone in his classes is quite excited about the prospect of learning under the new procedure, but he cannot administer the new teaching method to everyone: a random half of the students receive the new method and the remaining half receive the old method. What is the MOST obvious flaw in this experiment? a. Subjects should have been systematically assigned to groups. b. The sample is not representative of the population. c. Placebo effects or experimenter bias are likely to affect results. d. Distortions in self-report will affect results. 28. Kavi is designing an experiment to see how the effects of regular exercise using video game systems impacts the general physical health of older adults (over 65 years old). Kavi asks you for some advice to avoid limitations from anecdotal evidence. What is something that you would most likely tell Kavi? a. Kavi should consider the overall experiences of a large group of participants. b. Kavi should use family members over the age of 65 in the study. c. Kavi should only use participants that are familiar with playing video games. d. Kavi should conduct interviews with people who are already using video games for exercise. 29. A major strength of experimental research is that it allows researchers to a. identify correlations. b. work with people rather than animals. c. use statistics to make inferences. d. infer cause and effect. 30. Lindsay takes weekly lessons on horseback riding. This week, the woman who trains the animals claims that one particular horse is so smart it can do math problems. She turns to that horse and demonstrates – “Hey Franz, what’s 2 + 3?” The horse stomps five times and stops, then is given a treat. What could Lindsay do to test if this is somehow a case of experimenter bias? a. Ask the woman to demonstrate this with several other horses too, to figure out if it really is simply an unusually smart horse. b. Test the horse’s ability with more complex math problems, such as a multiplication math problem. c. Try to convince the woman that it is unlikely or impossible for the horse to know math, then test the effect again. d. Ask the woman to demonstrate again, but have her wear ear plugs and a blindfold, so she doesn’t know what math problem the horse is asked. 31. The main purpose of the double-blind procedure is to prevent a. appearance-based discrimination. b. survey dishonesty. c. experimenter bias. d. Social-desirability bias.

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Chapter 02_11e 32. The purpose of meta-analysis is to a. estimate the size and consistency of a variable’s effects based on many relevant studies. b. determine the common themes among a group of seemingly diverse studies. c. determine how well a group of studies conforms to ethical guidelines and research best practices. d. estimate how well the study sample represents the population of interest. 33. The power of expectations has been seen in lab experiments where people were given nonalcoholic drinks but believed they were drinking alcoholic beverages. These individuals a. were less likely to appear intoxicated. b. showed effects of intoxication as soon as they started drinking. c. reported hang-over symptoms the following day. d. took much longer to appear intoxicated. 34. Your three-year-old nephew observes your pet cat chasing after a bird and says, "Hey look! I'm watching the cat! I'm doing an experiment!" Which of the following best describes your nephew's mistake about sciencerelated terminology? a. Experiments are rarely done with nonhuman animals because of the risk of unsystematic behavior. b. Direct observation can only be used in experiments if one or more peer reviewers help collect data. c. Experiments require you to manipulate variables, not just observe them. d. Direct observation methods cannot be used in experiments. 35. The EAR is an unobtrusive portable audio recorder that researchers have used to study a. the punishment of toddlers. b. gambling. c. children's behavior on playgrounds. d. school bullying. 36. As part of his thesis research, Florian is using survey methods for the first time. When designing his study, he should keep in mind that compared to a few decades ago, survey participants are a. more likely to give detailed, thoughtful responses. b. less satisfied with participating after the fact. c. more likely to give the answers they think the researcher wants. d. less willing to participate in the first place. 37. Tashelle is designing a psychology experiment. If she is concerned about the possibility of confounding, she should a. manipulate as many relevant variables as possible so that none of them are available to be confounds. b. include a large enough number of participants that confounding is unlikely. c. consider switching to a correlational study, which poses a lower risk of confounding. d. measure as many relevant variables as possible to increase the chance of detecting confounds.

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Chapter 02_11e 38. Dina would like to conduct a survey to examine outcomes related to binge drinking among younger and older adults. How should she go about doing this? a. She should develop a series of questions that propose to investigate binge drinking and its effects, and have subjects answer them. b. She should give some subjects alcohol and others water and monitor the effects of each. c. She should collect data from archived research and analyze patterns of findings across studies to ascertain specific outcomes. d. She should invite friends and family members of each subject to report their experiences of drinking with the subject and assess consistencies across reporters. 39. Naveed is about to take her graduate school entrance exam. Based on research on color in achievement settings, if the color red is prominent during the test, as compared to green or white, we would expect a. higher confidence in how well they did on the test. b. higher motivation to finish the test on time. c. lower ability to engage in critical thinking questions on the test. d. lower overall scores on the test. 40. Ella believes that eating an apple a day will make you 30% healthier. This belief persists even after a nutritionist shows her evidence that eating apples has no effect on fitness. Which element of the scientific method is Ella's thought process most failing to follow? a. Theories are always subject to revision. b. Research is subject to peer review. c. Hypotheses must be specific. d. Random sampling is preferred over convenience sampling. 41. Individuals who think critically do NOT rely on anecdotal evidence because this type of evidence a. Individuals who think critically do NOT rely on anecdotal evidence because this type of evidence b. is based on inferential statistical analysis, which is generally unreliable. c. can be distorted by social desirability bias. d. involves only negative instances and cannot be used to make an unbiased decision. 42. Which of the following is a major weakness of naturalistic observation? a. The difficulty of translating naturalistic data into precise numerical questions that can be answered statistically b. The tendency for naturalistic data to be so compelling that it leads to biased interpretation by the researcher c. The potential for participants’ reports of their natural behavior to be unreliable due to memory lapses and other errors d. The strong focus on isolating causal relationships, which can lead to concerns about generalizability

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Chapter 02_11e 43. Given the debates over ethics in psychological science, which of the following best explains what ethics are and what their role is when performing research? a. A list of acceptable and unacceptable topics to study. For example, studying how people learn new skills is acceptable; studying the effect of severe anxiety on learning is not. b. A list of acceptable and unacceptable study designs from which to choose. For example, it is acceptable to manipulate how much time people are given to study new material. It is not acceptable to deceive them about what they will be tested on. c. A set of moral rules that are each followed as rigidly as possible. For example, do not harm participants; do not deceive participants; maximize the scientific value of the proposed study. d. A set of moral principles that are balanced to decide if a study or practice is acceptable. For example, participants should be given enough information to consent, yet some deception may be ethical to ensure validity of the results. 44. You are conducting an experiment that begins with easy, low-pressure tasks such as answering basic questions about hobbies and interests. However, later tasks will be increasingly uncomfortable – for example, engaging in public speaking, which provokes great anxiety for some people. Given how this experiment changes over time, which right(s) should you emphasize to the participant during the informed consent phase? a. Your right to privacy will never be compromised. b. You will not be subjected to any harmful or dangerous treatments. c. You are free to withdraw from the study at any time. d. You will receive a full explanation about the study afterwards. 45. A researcher is studying the effects of room temperature on ability to quickly solve math problems. She first has participants solve ten math problems in a room with the temperature set at 70 degrees Fahrenheit. Then she has the same participants solve ten new math problems with the room temperature set at 90 degrees. In this case, the group of participants is serving as its own _____ group. a. experimental b. control c. extraneous d. operational 46. Which of the following is NOT true of descriptive/correlational research methods? a. They demonstrate a link between two variables. b. They can be used to demonstrate a cause-and-effect relationship. c. They are not conducted by manipulating the variables being studied. d. Some can be conducted in real-world conditions.

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Chapter 02_11e 47. The usability study is a research method for seeing how real users interact with a technology or tool. Stage 1 involves watching users perform a typical task – for example, using a cell phone to take a picture and share it with a friend via text message. Stage 2 involves written follow-up questions about the user’s experience – for example, “What was the most frustrating part of using the camera interface?” If you wanted to explain this method to a psychologist using the language of descriptive studies, the best explanation is that a. stage 1 is a naturalistic observation; stage 2 is a survey. b. stage 1 is a natural experiment; stage 2 is a case study. c. stage 1 is a case study; stage 2 is a survey. d. stages 1 and 2 are both surveys. 48. Elliot and Niesta (2008) studied how the color of a woman's blouse affected participants' reactions to her. When her blouse was red, males rated her as more a. sexually desirable. b. angry. c. friendly. d. physically fit. 49. A tool company is doing a survey to find out if demand exists for a newly designed tool. They want to obtain a representative sample of adult homeowners who enjoy home improvement projects. The best recruitment scheme would be to a. post flyers on bulletin boards at local college campuses, especially near classrooms that teach carpentry, construction, etc. b. make announcements at hardware stores near where cabinets, doors, mailboxes, etc. are sold. c. ask adults at local schools during “parent-teacher” days. d. post announcements at “open houses,” where people tour houses for sale. 50. A study on the impact of the coronavirus pandemic and mental health found that the prevalence of severe distress had a. decreased for people over 55 years old. b. increased among men but not women. c. increased in everyone but was especially high among women and low-income individuals. d. showed no increase or decrease from rates before the pandemic. 51. If you wanted to explain the concept of reactivity to someone with little knowledge of research methods by using everyday language, which of the following choices is most accurate? a. “Not everything that counts can be counted.” b. “If you can’t measure it, you can’t improve it.” c. “Numbers don’t lie.” d. “You can’t measure something without changing it.”

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Chapter 02_11e 52. Dr. Dickinson is investigating the link between social support networks and grades in school. Students in his classes are required to complete survey forms related to this research. If a survey form is not completed by the end of the semester, a student’s grade is reduced by 10 points. In this case, some researchers might argue that Dr. Dickinson’s research violates the ethical principle of a. right to privacy. b. full disclosure. c. voluntary participation. d. protection from harm. 53. Kadaz is interested in student's thoughts and attitudes about Zoom used for their mathematics class during the COVID pandemic and about their previous mathematics classes. How should he go about doing this? a. He should limit his research to watching students in person. b. He should engage students in face-to-face interviews about their attitudes. c. He should attempt to gather data on students' biological responses to math questions. d. He should seek out previous records of students' math scores. 54. In naturalistic observation, the word naturalistic means a. behavior is assessed for how “abnormal” or atypical it is compared to other peoples’ natural behavior. b. behavior is shaped so that artificial habits are reduced and more natural behavior is achieved. c. behavior in the laboratory is assessed for how well it matches natural behavior. d. behavior in the laboratory is assessed for how well it matches natural behavior. 55. The central ethical concern of psychological research with humans is the possibility that a. money allocated to a research program may be wasted. b. research may fail to generalize to the population of interest. c. participants may have harm inflicted on them. d. experimenters may be subjected to unacceptable working conditions. 56. Suppose a study is done to better understand how cats often fall safely from great heights. The studied cats are recorded in their natural environments (i.e., their owners’ homes) with special slow-motion cameras. Whenever a cat happens to jump or fall, the event is captured on video, allowing the cats’ behavior mid-fall to be analyzed later. Which common criticism of the ethics of animal research most clearly applies to this example? a. It subjects animals to unnecessary cruelty. b. It increases the number of animals in captivity or housed in poor conditions. c. It is unlikely to produce insights that apply to humans. d. It violates the autonomy and privacy of animals. 57. Even if you are a relative beginner in your understanding of psychological science, why might it be worthwhile to learn about research via original journal articles (e.g., retrieved from PsycINFO) rather than via search engine results (e.g., Google)? a. Journal articles will more accurately describe the study’s purpose and relevance. b. Search engines may not tell you what regular people think of this research. c. Search engines may overload you with technical details about a study. d. Journal articles will be more likely to explain the study simply. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02_11e 58. Which of the following steps in a scientific investigation must be completed before operationalizing variables? a. Peer review b. Analyzing data c. Publishing the study d. Formulating hypotheses 59. Dr. Limmex is trying to win FDA approval for a new drug to treat anxiety. Dr. Limmex claims that 14% of the people who took this new drug reported reduced anxiety; however, other researchers claim that 14% of patients who receive no treatment also report reductions in their anxiety levels. It appears that the patients who improved after taking Dr. Limmex’s drug a. had a self-report bias. b. may have been experiencing placebo effects. c. were a non-representative sample. d. should have been placed in the control group, rather than the experimental group. 60. Which of the following is most likely to be measured by a survey? a. The performance of airline pilots during their daily routine b. The attitudes about distracted driving held by high-school students c. A compelling illustration of a patient with schizophrenia d. The causal relationship between therapy modality and mental health outcomes 61. Narissa is writing a term paper on the different forms of mental health problems faced by adolescents. She has been conducting her research on the internet. You tell her that a. peer-reviewed research articles are often oversimplified. b. some summaries of research findings are sensationalized to grab the reader's attention. c. all she needs to read are the abstracts of the articles. d. newspaper articles on the topic are a good source of information. 62. Elliot and Niesta (2008) suggested that the color red is psychologically relevant when considering a romantic partner due to a. personal color preferences. b. its association with romance. c. its brightness. d. its association with danger. 63. Farah is studying how the grade level of college students relates to their scores on a written instrument that measures their levels of introversion/extroversion. This study uses which data collection technique? a. interview. b. psychological test. c. physiological recording. d. direct observation.

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Chapter 02_11e 64. The placebo effect and experimenter bias support the importance of understanding the a. empirical nature of research. b. participant's right to privacy. c. subjectivity of personal experience. d. importance of a sample truly representing a population. 65. Participants in a study are tested on how well they can distinguish subtly different musical tones (i.e., different pitch). The study is performed on a typical college campus. Surprisingly, over 40% of the participants show “perfect pitch,” more by far than in any previous research. Which of the following choices, if proven true, would explain this result in terms of sampling bias? a. It was a statistical coincidence that so many participants had this ability; repeating the experiment in exactly the same way would likely yield a lower percentage. b. There were errors made during the data analysis phase; the true percentage with “perfect pitch” was far lower. c. The researchers recruited participants with flyers and leaflets posted only at the college’s music building. d. The researchers unintentionally helped participants by reacting with different facial expressions to sameversus differently-pitched tone pairs. 66. Which of the following animal experiments would be most clearly unethical if done with humans? a. A cat is used to study how stimuli become boring by repeatedly presenting the same toy and recording changes in looking time. b. A rat’s ability to navigate by landmarks is tested by having it try to reach the end of a maze from various starting locations. c. A dog is used to study what kinds of neutral visual or auditory cues can be classically conditioned to predict upcoming food. d. A pigeon is used to study avoidance behavior in response to unpredictable electric shocks delivered through the floor of its environment. 67. In psychological research, a common reason for the use of deception is to a. avoid placebo effects in humans. b. avoid using animals for research. c. reduce harm to human participants. d. reduce suffering in animal experiments. 68. You're advising a new graduate student who is having trouble coming up with a research study design. If you want them to formulate a hypothesis, in which of the following ways could you help? a. Discuss the pros and cons of the research method. b. Suggest potential measurement tools and ways to measure their dependent variable. c. Discuss strategies to address common criticisms faced during peer review. d. Encourage them to figure out the statistical analyses that are appropriate for their data.

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Chapter 02_11e 69. Recording all instances of an event for a particular time period without the subjects’ awareness is an example of a. compiling a case study. b. correlational research. c. conducting an experiment. d. naturalistic observation. 70. Which of the following research studies uses naturalistic observation? a. Participants allow researchers to access and analyze their past medical records involving drug use. b. Participants are given either drugs or placebo and their behavior in the laboratory is recorded. c. Participants allow researchers to watch their drug-related behaviors in their homes. d. Participants go to a website and answer questions about their illicit drug use. 71. Which of the following represents one of the features of the empirical approach? a. Research is highly subjective in nature. b. Scientists are not trained to be skeptical. c. Personal stories have no place in research. d. Skepticism is an important aspect of research. 72. Some researchers have defended the ethics of using deception by pointing out that most research deceptions involve “white lies,” which are not likely to a. cause harm to participants. b. result in invalid or unusable data. c. undermine trust in the scientific process. d. lead to wasted money or resources. 73. Which of the following hypothetical correlations would most allow you to predict the values of one variable based on the values of the other? a. Vehicle weight and fuel efficiency, -0.73 b. College admissions test and college GPA, 0.40 c. Digestive diseases and unintentional injuries, 0.58 d. Population and number of storks, 0.24 74. Anecdotal evidence requires critical thinking because it is often based on personal stories. Research that relies on anecdotal evidence tends to be a. supported but unreliable. b. well supported but not generalizable. c. inaccurate but generalizable. d. inaccurate and unrepresentative.

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Chapter 02_11e 75. Which of the following research methods is most concerned with avoiding direct intervention with subjects? a. Case studies b. Surveys c. Remote testing d. Naturalistic observation 76. Elsa wants to research how people study and motivate themselves to take high-stakes tests, such as the bar exam that grants lawyers their license to practice in the US. However, she’s concerned that people may change their study habits because of her presence. In terms of descriptive research, she is concerned about a. reactivity. b. experimenter bias. c. third-variable problem. d. model-citizen effect. 77. Which of the following is a major drawback of using deception in human research? a. It may reduce the validity and generalizability of the study’s data. b. It is more likely to result in failed studies and thus wasted money and resources. c. It reduces the range of research questions that can be studied. d. It may cause distress in participants. 78. Federico wants to conduct a survey to learn about the kinds of food people eat most often at restaurants in their hometowns versus while on vacation. Which of the following strategies could he use to address one of the major weaknesses of survey methods? a. Avoid spending too much time with participants so he is not biased to their choices. b. Be sure to ask questions that are answered numerically, so precise analysis can be performed. c. Have participants log their food choice while they are still at the restaurant, so there will be fewer memory errors. d. Make sure not to be present during the actual eating behavior, so participants don’t feel self-conscious. 79. Schacter (1959) exposed participants to anxiety-inducing situations and measured the effect on their need for affiliation. In this case, need for affiliation was measured by a. their responses on a questionnaire about whether they enjoyed the company of others. b. whether they chose to wait for the next phase of the study alone or with others. c. their physiological arousal when waiting for the next phase of the study with others. d. whether they called friends or family for support while waiting for the next phase of the study. 80. Which of the following dependent measures is most likely to suffer from experimenter bias? a. A measure of heartrate changes while viewing pleasant and unpleasant pictures b. A rating of anxiety level based on body language c. A written questionnaire about peoples’ career goals d. A computerized test of working memory capacity

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Chapter 02_11e 81. When designing an experiment, the purpose of random assignment is to ensure that a. the participants are unaware of the hypothesis being tested. b. the experimental and control groups are similar in most ways. c. ethical guidelines are being followed (e.g., not harming people). d. participants who are clearly not following instructions are excluded from the data. 82. Many psychological studies involving deception depend on participants being naïve to the possibility of hidden motives behind the task or instructions. Given this fact, what group of people, when recruited as participants, would be expected to “see through” the deception most often? a. Older adults b. Engineers c. Undergraduates d. Psychology majors 83. Ari is planning an experiment that involves deceiving participants. If Ari wants to minimize resulting harm to participants, research suggests that an effective strategy is to a. use small, inconsequential lies, so that even when the truth is revealed, participants will not be upset. b. inform participants before the experiment starts that they will be deceived and explain the rationale for doing so. c. ensure that the truth is never revealed to participants after the experiment so they don’t feel betrayed. d. pay participants at least twice the usual compensation so they consider the experience worthwhile. 84. According to ethical standards developed by the American Psychological Association, when a study involves deception, it is especially important to a. make sure participants are well-compensated. b. wait until after the study to obtain informed consent. c. judge the study by its purpose rather than by its potential consequences. d. inform participants of the study’s true nature as soon as possible afterwards. 85. Terrell and Joni are designing an experiment to test whether people are more social after drinking caffeinated rather than non-caffeinated drinks. However, they can't decide whether to measure sociability by how long a person engages in social activities or by how much they claim to enjoy the activities. In this case, they are discussing the a. dependent variable. b. independent variable. c. extraneous variable. d. random variable. 86. A common argument against the ethics of animal research is that animal subjects have the same rights as human participants. In practice, this usually means that a. animals should not be deceived without warning. b. animals should not be subjected to harm. c. animals should share in the benefits of research. d. animals should be able to choose whether or not to participate. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02_11e 87. Which of the following reasons for doing research on animals is motivated primarily by ethical concerns? a. Making inferences more easily because animals are less complex than humans b. Exposing animals to treatments that would be clearly unacceptable with humans c. Learning more about the behavior of a specific type of animal d. Identifying general laws of behavior that apply to both humans and animals 88. A group of researchers is using careful observation to study parental favoritism in Eastern Bluebirds. It is most likely that they are engaged in which type of research? a. Case study b. Exploratory research c. Naturalistic observation d. Correlational research 89. When participants’ expectations lead them to experience some change even though they receive treatment that is actually fake, this is called the a. subjective reality effect. b. mind-over-matter effect. c. Barnum effect. d. placebo effect. 90. An extraneous variable is best defined as a. a variable which is highly unlikely to influence the dependent variable and thus is best ignored. b. a variable other than the independent variable that is manipulated by the experimenter by accident. c. a variable other than the independent variable that seems likely to influence the dependent variable. d. a variable which has been selected for future experiments but is not yet included for cost or practical reasons. 91. Regarding the ethics of deceiving human research participants, a review of the relevant research by Christensen suggests that deception studies a. are not harmful to participants, who often report that they enjoyed the experience. b. are only harmful if participants realize the deception much later rather than in the immediate debriefing. c. are not effective enough to justify the potential harm to participants. d. are no longer necessary to test many research questions due to recent methodological advances. 92. Sergei analyzes a series of reports that each focus on a single patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). From this work he is able to draw more general conclusions about OCD. In this example, Sergei has performed a. naturalistic observation research. b. experimental research. c. survey research. d. case study research.

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Chapter 02_11e 93. Based on your knowledge of survey and case study methods, a likely difference between them is that a. case studies are much easier to replicate. b. case studies give a more detailed picture of an individual or topic. c. case studies are easy to interpret. d. case studies require less time commitment on the part of the researcher. 94. A researcher is studying the effects of memory training games on subsequent IQ test performance. One group plays the memory games while the other group does nothing. Both groups take an IQ test. The researcher also notes that one group, on average, completed more years of formal schooling than the other. In this case, years of formal schooling is best described as a(n) a. extraneous variable. b. dependent variable. c. independent variable. d. interacting variable. 95. It has been shown that a researcher’s expectations or preferences about the outcome of a study can influence the results obtained. Suppose a university professor wanted to prevent any such effects in terms of how she teaches her Psych 100 class. Which of the following strategies would be most practical in preventing such biases? a. When grading student assignments, making sure she does not see the name on the paper until grading is complete, so her beliefs about student ability don’t cause an effect. b. When answering student questions during lecture, ensuring she does not know who the asker is by turning her back and having them write down the question and pass it to the front of the room. c. When talking to students, being careful to learn very little about them personally so that such knowledge doesn’t impact her judgments of their work. d. When giving study tips to students, try not to reveal which ones she believes are most effective, because doing so will make them more effective in her class than they will be when used in future classes. 96. Of the following correlation coefficients, which shows the strongest relationship? a. -0.90 b. -0.44 c. 0.39 d. 0.81 97. A student in your class, while giving a presentation about his original experiment, claims that “manipulated variables are also called dependent variables because they depend on the researcher.” In terms of the logic of experimental design, which of the following correctly explains his mistake? a. Variables that change in response to the manipulation of other variables are considered dependent. b. Because experiments are controlled by the researcher, all variables are considered dependent. c. In an experiment, neither variable should be manipulated because doing so might bias the results. d. The participant, not the researcher, manipulates experimental variables.

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Chapter 02_11e 98. In everyday conversation, people often use the word "theory" differently than scientists. For example, they might say, "I have a theory that Bill stole the cookie from the cookie jar!" The best explanation would be that nonscientists a. have confused the definitions of "theory" and "hypothesis." b. are actually describing a correlational theory rather than an experimental theory. c. have a lower standard for how much evidence is needed to prove a theory. d. are actually stating a fact that is supported by peer consensus. 99. The idea that species change over time through a process of natural selection, which explains the results of many individual studies, is best described as a(n) a. experiment. b. rule. c. hypothesis. d. theory. 100. Case studies about Parkinson’s disease would focus most on which of the following kinds of data? a. Court cases that have helped inform Parkinson’s treatment b. Archival records of past Parkinson’s patients c. Detailed examinations of individual Parkinson’s patients d. Large-scale multi-site studies of Parkinson’s patients 101. Dr. Kissel is researching whether having close friends in the same class improves student performance. An operational definition for this study should answer which of the following questions? a. Why not having friends in the same class might improve performance. b. What types of school(s) the study will include. c. Why having friends in the same class might improve performance. d. How student performance is measured. 102. Chenoa wants to study how decision-making and memory abilities are affected while a person is engaged in high-stress recreational activities, like skydiving or rock climbing. However, she is concerned that even with informed consent, it might be unethical to expose participants to potential physical danger in a study. Given this concern, which of the following methods would best accomplish her goal of obtaining valid data while minimizing potential harm? a. Survey people who regularly skydive or rock climb; assess their current decision-making and memory abilities; ask them to recall examples where those abilities were affected during the activity. b. Perform the study with people in the laboratory; put them in a high-fidelity virtual reality simulation of skydiving or rock climbing to partially match the real-life stress of such activities; at the same time, observe how their memory and decision-making abilities are affected. c. Survey people who do not skydive or rock climb; assess their current decision-making and memory abilities; ask them to imagine being in a high-stress situation and observe how those abilities are affected. d. Perform the study with chimps or other animals that are relatively similar to humans; have them do highstress activities that are relatively similar to skydiving or rock climbing; assess them with tests that are the animal equivalent of the human memory and decision-making tests.

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Chapter 02_11e 103. The purpose of the peer review process is to a. ensure the study meets ethical guidelines before it is carried out. b. ensure that journals publish reliable findings based on high-quality research. c. obtain informed consent from volunteer participants. d. come up with ideas to improve the study before it is carried out. 104. To answer a research question about people who cannot be physically present in a study, which of the following methods is most appropriate? a. Automatic assignment b. Psychological test c. Direct observation d. Examination of archival records 105. A major disadvantage of experimental research, compared to other types, is that a. inferential statistics are less useful. b. tasks are less like real-world situations. c. extraneous variables are more likely to cause problems. d. convenience sampling is more likely to be used. 106. Easton wants to assess participants' personalities with a measure that other researchers will easily agree on and find uncontroversial. In this case, which of the following methods would you suggest and why? a. A psychological test because it will allow Easton to measure personality using widely accepted methods. b. A questionnaire because direct self-report measures are the most valid instruments available. c. An interview because psychologists generally prefer the rich data that interviews provide. d. A physiological recording because psychologists ignore research that does not include some form of bodily responding in the results. 107. An online streaming service wants to learn more about the kinds of cartoons kids enjoy. They select 500 families who have children between the ages of 5 and 10. The families are all sent questionnaires asking about their children's favorite shows, genres of shows, and characters. The responses are collected and analyzed for trends to help plan which cartoons to add to the streaming service. In this example, what is the sample? a. The 500 families who were sent questionnaires about cartoon preferences b. The different shows, genres, and characters already being aired on TV stations c. The responses from the questionnaires about cartoon preferences d. Children between the ages of 5 and 10 who watch cartoons 108. Placing subjects in experimental groups such that each subject has an equal probability of ending up in any group is referred to as a. random selection. b. random sampling. c. random forecasting. d. random assignment.

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Chapter 02_11e 109. In Schacter's (1959) study on need for affiliation, how was participant anxiety manipulated? a. Having the experimenter act angry and yell at the participants b. Asking the participants to think back to an anxiety-evoking event in their life c. Having the participants watch a short clip from a scary movie d. Telling the participants that the shocks they were about to receive would be very painful 110. Anecdotal evidence is similar to a. self-report data. b. empiricism. c. meta-analysis. d. placebo effect. 111. Suppose we predicted that where students sit in a classroom affects their grades. In this example, "where students sit " is best described as a a. variable. b. hypothesis. c. theory. d. law. 112. A group of psychology majors are conducting a research study on student cheats. Which actions should they take to make sure that they are meeting the ethical standards regarding the use of deception? a. Before the experiment, offer participants a vague description of the study. b. After the experiment, offer participants a vague description of the study. c. Before the experiment, offer participants a full, detailed description of the study, including information about the use of deception. d. After the experiment, offer participants a full, detailed description of the study, including information about the use of deception. 113. Social desirability bias would most likely be demonstrated in response to questions about a. whether or not you prefer to make plans versus respond to them in your social circle. b. how often you engage in strenuous exercise. c. how often you prefer to attend large social events. d. your eye and hair color. 114. The APA recommends that anesthesia be used for surgical procedures on animals to ensure that the animals don’t feel pain. Which common criticism of the ethics of animal research does this guideline most clearly address? a. Increasing the number of animals in captivity or housed in poor conditions b. Subjecting animals to unnecessary cruelty c. Producing insights that are unlikely to apply to humans d. Violating the autonomy and privacy of animals

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Chapter 02_11e 115. Demetrius is a regular coffee drinker, mostly because he enjoys the boost of energy provided by the caffeine. One day in an ill-advised prank, his roommate secretly replaces the regular coffee in their kitchen with decaffeinated coffee. However, the next day Demetrius drinks the coffee and gets the same boost of energy as usual. This example best illustrates the a. placebo effect. b. halo effect. c. expected-reality effect. d. power-of-belief effect. 116. When two variables are related to each other, this is called a. reactivity. b. correlation. c. double variation. d. causation. 117. Which of the following study designs is most likely to suffer from reactivity? a. Reaction time and hand-eye coordination are assessed by recording performance on a tennis video game. The game is played online from the participant’s home. The data is collected automatically by the computer. b. Navigation behavior while driving a car in an unfamiliar city is observed. The data is collected by the researcher, who sits in the passenger seat next to the driver. The researcher does not speak and does not interfere in any way. c. The hibernation behavior of grizzly bears is studied by placing small cameras in trees above their habitat and in the ceilings of their caves. The data is uploaded wirelessly to researchers in a nearby town. d. The relationship between high school students’ socioeconomic status and their chosen electives is studied. The data is collected by researchers in person but is analyzed privately. It consists of academic records from past semesters. 118. Social desirability bias is best defined as a. a tendency for your overall evaluation of someone or something to influence more specific ratings. b. a tendency to give socially approved answers to questions about yourself. c. a desire to associate with people you perceive as popular. d. an inflated estimate of how positively other people regard you. 119. Harry’s entire life, starting from birth, has been secretly recorded as the subject of a television show. His life is an elaborate hoax – his neighbors and friends are all actors, and events and behaviors are orchestrated just to see how Harry will react. While this scenario violates many ethical principles, which of the following is most clearly a problem? a. Studies involving deception – including the one done on Harry – are inherently immoral. b. The hoax posed grave risks of unnecessary physical harm to Harry. c. Harry did not understand that he was part of a television show and could not consent to participate. d. There was no plan in place to explain the whole purpose of the television show to Harry after the fact.

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Chapter 02_11e 120. You are in the planning stages of conducting research and are having trouble deciding which research method would be the best option for your question. You are trying to decide between an experimental design and a correlational study. Which of the following is the best explanation for the difference between experimental and correlational studies? a. Experimental studies use random sampling, but correlational studies use convenience sampling. b. Experimental studies must undergo peer review, but correlational studies are not required to. c. Experimental studies permit naturalistic observation, but correlational studies do not. d. Experimental studies manipulate the independent variable(s), but correlational studies do not. 121. In the double-blind procedure, neither subjects nor experimenters know a. which subjects are in the experimental or control groups. b. what the others look or sound like. c. which responses are more socially desirable. d. whose responses will be checked for dishonesty later. 122. A cognitive psychologist wants to find out whether background noise makes it harder to remember new information. She manipulates whether or not participants hear background noise, and then measures their performance on a memory test. What is the independent variable? a. The type of memory test used. b. Participants' baseline memory ability. c. Performance on the memory test. d. The presence of background noise. 123. A major weakness of survey methods, which sometimes leads to unreliable results, are their reliance on a. non-statistical data. b. objective data. c. unreactive data. d. self-report data. 124. Experimenter bias is said to occur when a. participants prefer to work with some experimenters over others. b. peer reviewers judge some experimenters’ work more favorably than others. c. experimenters believe their work is more valuable or interesting than the work of other researchers. d. researchers’ expectations or preferences influence the results obtained. 125. Sasha is a musician who wants to know what kinds of melodies people tend to enjoy. She has an idea that where a person lives influences their music preferences. In terms of the goals of the scientific enterprise, her idea is the a. understanding. b. description. c. prediction. d. application.

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Chapter 02_11e 126. Suppose your roommate takes part in a study to test a new pain medication. Your roommate is assigned to the condition in which the pain medication is replaced with a sugar substitute. However, the experimenter accidentally leaves a box labeled “sugar pills” within your roommate's view, allowing your roommate to figure out that the replacement medicine is fake. Given how the placebo effect works, the prediction, in this case, would be that a. your roommate will experience little effect as if they were not given the real drug. b. your roommate will experience a strong painkilling effect as if they were given the real drug. c. your roommate will experience a strong opposite effect which enhances their pain. d. your roommate will be more likely to build a tolerance to the real drug. 127. Sheree and Jazz are designing an experiment to test whether people are more social after watching a horror film rather than a comedy film. However, they can't decide whether to describe sociability by how long a person engages in social activities or by the number of people engaging in social activities. In this case, they are discussing a(n) a. hypothesis. b. operational definition. c. theory. d. variables. 128. Which of the following is critical for researchers to be aware of in the testing of a new medication for treating depression symptoms because of the optimism that the new medication may create? a. Confounding variables b. The power-of-belief effect c. The placebo effect d. Sampling bias 129. In scientific research, the term replication refers to a. archival storage of the methods, results, and other information about an experiment for backup purposes. b. use of highly similar participants in an attempt to prevent confounding variables. c. repetition of a study to see whether earlier results are duplicated. d. reuse of the hypothesis from an earlier study because of its previous explanatory power. 130. A psychology professor wants to know if luck plays any role in students’ test scores. Before students arrive for a test, she places pennies on the ground all around her classroom. She then notes which students pick up the pennies, which students do not, and each student’s test score. If the result is that students who picked up pennies had higher scores than those who did not, which of the following conclusions is most reasonable? a. Test scores are not affected by picking up pennies but by an unmeasured variable. b. Picking up pennies causes good luck. c. Picking up pennies causes higher test scores. d. Picking up pennies is associated with higher test scores.

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Chapter 02_11e 131. The sign (positive or negative) of a correlation coefficient is based on whether a. other studies tend to agree or disagree with the result. b. variables go in the same or opposite directions. c. variables are well-chosen or poorly-chosen for the research question. d. the study applies to real life or not. 132. Suppose we applied the idea of sampling bias to our knowledge of pre-historic people (e.g., stereotypically, “cavemen”). If sampling bias was a problem that affected our inferences in this domain, the prediction would be that a. modern researchers interpret cave paintings in line with their current expectations by assuming they depict modern animals or modern social scenarios, for example. b. pre-historic people may have forgotten details between the time that an event happened and the time they later began painting; those details would then be lost. c. cave paintings were more likely to survive to the present because they were sheltered from the weather; however, more pre-historic people lived in plains, deserts, etc., and their paintings have been lost. d. pre-historic people may have intentionally omitted socially undesirable events such as disease, famine, or war from the cave paintings, leading to a deceptively positive depiction of pre-historic life. 133. Suppose you have a research question in which the population of interest is undergraduate students across the United States. Truly random selection of the correct population would best be accomplished by a. randomly emailing people from across the United States. b. randomly emailing students from campus directories from across the United States. c. posting notices around your campus and seeing who responds. d. randomly asking pedestrians near the psychology building on your campus. 134. Ana is about to administer a test to her undergraduate students. She notices that the test booklet covers are red. What should she do to improve students’ scores? a. Make sure the test booklets are not too thick or heavy. b. Provide students with extra writing supplies. c. Change the color of the test booklet covers. d. Increase the number of items on the test. 135. The process by which all subjects have an equal chance of being assigned to any condition in a study is called a. unbiased assignment. b. fair assignment. c. confounded assignment. d. random assignment. 136. If you want to study a group of employees to learn about the management styles of their previous bosses, and how that related to their previous job satisfaction, the most appropriate method would be a. surveys. b. experiments. c. naturalistic observations. d. case studies. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02_11e 137. Simone is researching whether the color of a book affects people's judgments as to whether they would read it. She wants to create a set of photographs of books which differ in color only. According to Elliot and Niesta (2008), the most practical way to manipulate color (without changing any other visual element) is to a. find many books that seem highly similar other than color and poll people to make sure that the only differences they notice are the colors. b. use only one actual book but change its perceived color by shining differently colored lights onto it. c. purchase several copies of the exact same book in the same color, and paint the backgrounds where the picture of the book will be with various colors. d. use only one actual book but alter its appearance with software editing tools to create several variants that differ only in color. 138. One day in his study group, a first-year med student complains, “Why do we need to learn so much about placebo effects? They aren’t such a big deal! I don’t know why everyone keeps talking about them!” How would you explain to him “what the big deal is” about placebo effects? a. While it is true that placebo effects are typically weak, they are incredibly common and are thus important. b. Placebo effects can actually be quite powerful, but usually only work in medical settings. c. Placebo effects can actually be quite powerful, provided multiple people share the same belief at once. d. Placebo effects can actually be quite powerful, and often approach the strength of the treatments they are compared to. 139. The correlation coefficient is best described as a a. numerical count of how many studies support a given theory or hypothesis. b. numerical index of the degree of relationship between two variables. c. numerical index of the degree of relationship between two variables. d. numerical index of the degree to which study conclusions apply to real life. 140. A professor believes that eating bananas before a test improves performance. Before her class’s final exam, she divides the class into two groups. She has everyone in one group eat a banana, and everyone in the other group eat nothing. The group that eats bananas is the a. experimental group. b. correlational group. c. random assignment group. d. control group. 141. A group of people are waiting inside a train station when an intense storm starts outside. After a few minutes, the people move closer and end up sitting together in one part of the room. Of the following explanations for their behavior, the one that best matches the need for affiliation is a. they were anxious because of the intensity of the storm. b. they logically thought through the best place to wait out the storm. c. they were directed to sit there by an employee at the station. d. they had a spontaneous urge unrelated to the storm.

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Chapter 02_11e 142. When doing science, the statement "X will lead to Y" is best described as a a. theory. b. hypothesis. c. variable. d. confound. 143. Allan is studying sexual activity and sexual health in older adults (ages 65 and over). Participants are asked a series of questions, including “In the past month, how many times have you avoided sexual activity because of injury or other physical problems?” Surprisingly, the vast majority of participants answer “zero” to this question. This is most likely an example of a. halo effect. b. experimenter bias. c. social desirability bias. d. sampling bias. 144. In an investigation of the effects of caffeine on concentration, half the participants were given regular colas that contained caffeine and half were given decaffeinated colas. In this study, the decaffeinated colas are being used as a. a confounding variable. b. a random factor. c. the dependent variable. d. a placebo. 145. In psychology, MOST journal articles are a. descriptions of newly developed theories. b. reports that describe original empirical studies. c. criticisms of previously published research. d. reviews that summarize and reconcile the findings from a large number of studies. 146. One argument against animal research is that most animal studies are a waste of time because the results may not even apply to humans. This claim is contradicted by which of the following facts about animal research? a. Only 7–8% of all psychological studies involve animals. b. Relatively few studies require subjecting the animals to painful or harmful manipulations. c. Animal studies have led to advances in the treatment of mental disorders, neuromuscular disorders, as well as many other disorders. d. Strict regulations have been imposed that control nearly every detail of how laboratory animals must be treated.

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Chapter 02_11e 147. Zane is having trouble learning to play the violin. His teacher advises him, "Practice makes perfect!" This advice doesn't help because it's too vague - it doesn't suggest what kind of practice, how long to practice, and so on. Which of the following parts of the scientific method might provide Zane with specific direction? a. Design the study b. Using experiments c. Formulating hypotheses d. Reporting findings 148. Suppose you are interested in whether an unhealthy diet during pregnancy increases the likelihood of birth defects. In this case, it would be unethical to randomly assign some pregnant women to eat healthy diets and some to eat unhealthy diets. This example shows a limitation of which research method? a. Physiological recordings b. Correlational studies c. Experiments d. Direct observation 149. An experiment is done to test if the color of a website link affects the likelihood that people will choose to click on it. The result is that a particular shade of blue has the highest click likelihood of any color tested by far. However, it turns out that a software bug caused each participant's computer to display certain colors faintly. In fact, the winning shade of blue was also the only shade that correctly displayed on all participant computers. In the language of experimental design, the most accurate description is that a. the color of the link and whether the color displayed properly were confounded. b. the color of the link and whether the color displayed properly were both extraneous variables. c. the color of the link was the dependent variable and whether the color displayed properly was the independent variable. d. the color of the link and whether the color displayed properly were both independent variables. 150. You are collecting research to write a term paper for your Psych 100 class. You retrieve a journal article from a search on PsycINFO. If you want to figure out if the article is relevant to your term paper, which of the following is the best next step? a. Check the one- or two-word tags supplied by researchers to describe the study. b. Read the method section to better understand how participants were recruited and assessed. c. Skim over the abstract to get a concise summary of the study’s purpose, methods, and results. d. Read the results and figure out, based on the statistical analyses, if this study addresses similar questions as others you’ve collected.

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Chapter 02_11e Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. c

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Chapter 02_11e 27. c 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. c 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. a 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. d 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. c 51. d 52. c 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02_11e 55. c 56. c 57. a 58. d 59. b 60. b 61. b 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. c 66. d 67. a 68. b 69. d 70. c 71. d 72. a 73. a 74. d 75. d 76. a 77. d 78. c 79. b 80. b 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02_11e 83. a 84. d 85. a 86. b 87. b 88. c 89. d 90. c 91. a 92. d 93. b 94. a 95. a 96. a 97. a 98. a 99. d 100. c 101. d 102. b 103. b 104. d 105. b 106. a 107. a 108. d 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02_11e 111. a 112. d 113. b 114. b 115. a 116. b 117. b 118. b 119. c 120. d 121. a 122. d 123. d 124. d 125. c 126. a 127. b 128. c 129. c 130. d 131. b 132. c 133. b 134. c 135. d 136. a 137. d

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Chapter 02_11e 138. d 139. b 140. a 141. a 142. b 143. c 144. d 145. b 146. c 147. c 148. c 149. a 150. c

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Chapter 03_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Nerves are bundles of which fibers? a. Axons b. Dendrites c. Neurilemmas d. Somas 2. After inhaling a secret substance, John displays more empathy and is more trusting of others. It is likely that the secret substance contained a. arsenic. b. oxytocin. c. endorphins d. melatonin 3. Although neuron bodies are extremely small, which part of the neuron can extend up to several feet in length? a. Axon b. Soma c. Dendrites d. Glia 4. In Parkinsonism, the tremors, muscular rigidity, and reduced control over voluntary movements appears to be a function of a. damage to glia cells. b. degeneration of neurons that use dopamine as a neurotransmitter. c. agonistic chemical action on the receptor sites of the cerebrum. d. enzymatic deficiency that does not allow for the proper cleanup of waste products in the nervous system. 5. Zahra is able to return to her studies following an accident that affected her frontal lobe. Her neurologist has indicated that Zahra’s greatest obstacles will be in executive functioning. When looking at accommodations for Zahra, the student success specialist asks what you would recommend. You suggest that Zahra a. only have classes in buildings with elevators as she likely will not be able to navigate the stairways without difficulty. b. needs to avoid physical education classes as she will not be able to execute some of the exercises that utilize voluntary muscle groups. c. will likely need a hearing aid with a wireless microphone that her instructor wears so she can hear everything. d. will likely need a calendar to write all assignments down, and she will need extra support to stay organized with her schedule.

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Chapter 03_11e 6. The right hemisphere of the brain is more active when you are completing which type of task? a. appreciating a painting b. conducting an experiment c. writing a term paper d. learning a second language 7. The act in which neurotransmitters bind to the receptor sites of the postsynaptic neuron is the a. postsynaptic potential. b. refractory period. c. resting potential. d. presynaptic potential. 8. Brain-imaging research shows that even simple mental operations depend on a. the use of ten percent of our brain. b. the use of one specialized region of the brain. c. activity spread across multiple brain areas. d. the use of only one brain hemisphere at a time. 9. You are driving home late at night and a deer runs into the path of your car. You come very close, but the deer leaps out of the way. You can feel your heart thumping rapidly in your chest, your breathing is fast and shallow, and you break into a sweat. Your physical response suggests that a. you really need to see a doctor to have your heart checked. b. your nervous system failed to prevent you from experiencing this fright. c. your nervous system is obviously lacking GABA. d. your nervous system has responded normally to a perceived threat. 10. Dysregulation of which of the following neurotransmitters can be seen in people with Alzheimer’ disease? a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. GABA 11. Justice is writing a term paper for class on how neurons communicate. Justice's paper will focus on how neurons communicate with other neurons and nerves using a. their own specialized language. b. a binary language. c. an electrical and chemical language. d. an acoustic language.

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Chapter 03_11e 12. Which two types of messages are sent from cell to cell? a. Pre-synaptic and post-synaptic b. Overt and inverted c. Excitatory and inhibitory d. Central and peripheral 13. Sebastian requires a para-educator at school to assist him outside of his basic instruction. Among her tasks, the para helps to ensure that Sebastian follows his schedule, stays on task, writes down and works on assignments, and organizes his break times. You assume that this support is needed because of Sebastian’s level of functioning in the a. occipital lobe. b. hypothalamus. c. corpus callosum. d. prefrontal cortex. 14. The spinal cord connects the brain to the rest of the body through the a. peripheral nervous system. b. central nervous system. c. soft tissue and cartilage. d. involuntary muscle groups. 15. Your cousin is pregnant with her first child and asks you if she should play Mozart for the baby, so that it will be smarter. You tell your cousin a. you think that it is a great idea and should increase the intelligence level of the baby. b. it is really not that easy and that there is very little research to support the idea that playing classical music increases intelligence. c. that playing the baby Mozart before it is born will have the biggest impact on intelligence. d. that it does not matter what type of music is played because all types music increase intelligence. 16. Of the following, which would be the best method to non-invasively rule-out problems with the hippocampus? a. Ask your client to recall important birthdates, anniversaries, and other significant events. b. Ask your client to complete a set of reflex tests that are timed. c. Ask your client to write down a grocery list. d. Ask your client to recall a set of words that you gave him just two minutes earlier. 17. It is thought that there may be how many synapses in the human brain? a. 100 million b. 86 billion c. 100 billion d. 100 trillion

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Chapter 03_11e 18. Svetlana's sister has been diagnosed with a disease where she is progressively losing control of her skeletal muscles. She tells you that the doctor has said that the disease is neurological and involves a decrease in specific neurotransmitter activity. You would offer Svetlana information on which of the following conditions? a. Huntington’s disease b. Alzheimer's disease c. Parkinson's disease d. Fibromyalgia 19. As long as the voltage of the neuron remains constant, the neuron is a. quiet. b. active. c. sleeping. d. firing. 20. When you go underwater while swimming, you consciously hold your breath; but the rest of the time you are swimming, you do not think about your breathing. Why is this? a. You do control your breathing, but is it higher-ordered thinking, so you do not realize that you are doing it. b. You do control your breathing, but you are multitasking, so you do recognize you are controlling your breathing. c. Your nervous system helps to regulate breathing automatically, but holding your breath requires a conscious effort. d. Both holding your breath and breathing are automatically controlled by your nervous system. 21. Which division of the nervous system helps conserve bodily resources? a. The somatic nervous system b. The sympathetic nervous system c. The parasympathetic nervous system d. The central nervous system 22. Jan suffered a stroke that has left her unable to speak. In which part of the brain did the stroke likely occur? a. The left hemisphere b. The right hemisphere c. The cerebellum d. The brain stem 23. You and your friend Clay left the theater after watching a horror movie. The movie was very scary, and at one point you even screamed in fear. It is likely that which part of your brain was active while watching the movie? a. The medula b. The cerebellum c. The amygdala d. The hypothalamus

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Chapter 03_11e 24. Jeff reports that when he recently broke his arm, the pain was excruciating at first, but then began to lessen in intensity. You infer that this was due to a. the fact that his arm was not really broken but fractured. b. the release of endorphins, which help modulate pain. c. his ability to remain cool and calm. This caused the release of GABA, which soothed the pain. d. his break was in the ulna, which tends not to hurt as much. 25. Hormones are released into the blood stream by glands of which system? a. Limbic b. Endocrine c. Exocrine d. Endogenous 26. Dontae, age five, grasps his cup of hot cocoa, and then quickly removes his hand as it is too hot. His grandfather, Ben, grasps his cup of hot cocoa and withdraws his hand quickly as it, too, is too hot. Considering what you have read about action potentials, you infer that a. Dontae’s action potentials travel more quickly as he is younger. b. Dontae’s grandfather’s action potentials travel faster as he is older, and has a more mature nervous system. c. the action potentials are the same for both Dontae and his grandfather. d. Dontae’s action potential is much faster as he is so much smaller, so signals do not have to travel as far. 27. The process of determining the location and chemical sequence of specific genes on specific chromosomes is referred to as genetic a. expression. b. mutation. c. analysis. d. mapping. 28. The down time, after which one action potential is fired and another cannot yet begin, is referred to as the a. resting period. b. recovery period. c. absolute refractory period. d. resting potential. 29. Mateo has recently experienced a stroke. He initially experiences temporary blindness. While he can see now, he is having difficulty distinguishing colors. You can infer that the stroke likely occurred in which area of Mateo’s brain? a. The frontal lobe, right behind the eyes b. Where the occipital nerve crosses c. In the temporal lobe, where a lot of processing occurs d. In the primary visual cortex in the back of the brain

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Chapter 03_11e 30. Dr. Athorp has just discovered a new drug that mimics the effects of GABA. This new drug will likely produce side effects, such as a. general stimulation within the body and an increase in heart rate. b. anxiety reduction and general relaxation. c. a reduction in pain and a sense of euphoria. d. hallucinations and disrupted sleep patterns. 31. Irene fell on the playground and sprained her wrist. She states that she initially felt pain, and then she felt almost numb. What neurochemical(s) likely helped Irene with the pain? a. Dopamine b. Oxytocin c. Endorphins d. Acetylcholine 32. Which endocrine gland accounts for the release of oxytocin when people are looking at babies, puppies, and kittens? a. The thyroid b. The pituitary c. The pancreas d. The adrenal 33. In hemispheric specialization, which side of the brain appears to be the strongest in humans? a. The left side b. The right side c. Neither as it is actually the brain stem d. Both specialize in abilities, and both are equally as strong 34. Marwa suffered a brain injury at age two after falling down stairs. Her brain provided adaptation following the injury, and one can no longer see symptoms of Marwa’s injury. This scenario illustrates the brain’s a. reward circuitry. b. hard-wiring. c. plasticity. d. pruning. 35. The reproductive success of an individual organism relative to the average reproductive success in the population is referred to as a. success. b. reproduction. c. reference. d. fitness.

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Chapter 03_11e 36. Your classmate explains that she is having a difficult time seeing why she needs to learn about the neurological system in a psychology course. She believes that this content should be taught in the biology courses, and psychology should focus on behaviors and understanding why people behave the way that they do. How might you explain the relevance of this material so that your classmate can understand? a. You explain that behaviors are usually a result of what is happening neurologically. Therefore, to understand how people act, it is important to understand the system that caters to behaviors. b. You explain that you agree, but the author of your text has a strict biological approach. c. You explain that neurology will eventually take over psychology as a discipline, and this is preparing students for the shift. d. You explain that she should just see the material as theoretical, and an additional orientation that students should learn. 37. The largest and most complex region of the brain is the a. medial brain. b. midbrain. c. forebrain. d. hindbrain. 38. The area of the brain concerned with integrating sensory processes such as vision and hearing is the a. medial brain. b. midbrain. c. brainstem. d. forebrain. 39. Your ability to walk and talk to your friend across the street is dependent upon the release of which neurotransmitter? a. Acetylcholine b. Glutamate c. Serotonin d. Melatonin 40. Which of the following demonstrates a possible scenario where the hippocampus is damaged? a. Bert, who can complete even the most difficult crossword puzzles with ease but has difficulty forming new memories b. Violet, who paints the most beautiful watercolors but cannot play music c. Annabel, who can smell her food but cannot taste it d. Frank, who can run long distances but cannot move his arms well enough to swim 41. Internally produced chemicals that resemble opiates in structure and effect are a. monoamines. b. hormones. c. endorphins. d. neurilemmas.

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Chapter 03_11e 42. You and your study partner, Murad, are reading about behavioral interventions for people trying to quit smoking. Murad states that he likes behavioral approaches much better than biological, and they are much easier to understand as they have nothing to do with neurology. You disagree. How do you explain to Murad that behavioral approaches actually do involve neurology? a. Behaviors always involve the somatic nervous system. b. Changes in behavior create neural connections, which, when repeated, are strengthened. Continued use of the new behavior eventually makes it much easier to do that behavior well. c. Changes in behavior always allow new connections to override old ones, so the individual never repeats the older, unhealthier behaviors. d. Changing behaviors always requires activation of the medulla. 43. Sensory input travels from your eyes to your visual cortex through a. afferent nerves. b. efferent nerves. c. endogenous nerves. d. adaptive nerves. 44. A neuron can receive roughly how many signals from other neurons? a. Thousands b. Only four c. Only one, as there is only one axon d. The amount is dependent on the number of terminal buttons the neuron has 45. Mary recently had a small stroke that left her unable to move her right side. In which of the following lobes of the cerebrum did the stroke MOST likely cause damage? a. Parietal b. Occipital c. Frontal d. Thalamic 46. According to research conducted by Kimura (1973) on cerebral specialization, there is asymmetry for certain skills, but the research more strongly suggests that, a. the left hemisphere contains the ability to play music and the right hemisphere contains the ability to appreciate music. b. most tasks occur in both hemispheres equally. c. most tasks occur in both hemispheres and differ from person to person. d. there is a difference between men and women. 47. Kesha has just begun taking a new drug for which one of the side effects is sleeplessness. This drug may be acting on her a. serotonin level. b. Gamma amniobutyric acid (GABA). c. endorphin level. d. episodic memory. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03_11e 48. Ahmed was in an accident and his doctor suspects that he suffered damage to his right hemisphere. Which set of symptoms is he most likely to experience? a. Difficulties with reading, making symbolic gestures, and describing the events of the accident b. Difficulties with identifying faces, understanding music, and problems with understanding emotional expressions c. Difficulties with remembering the names of his family members although he knows his own name d. Difficulties with remembering today's date and his name 49. The formation of new neurons is referred to as a. neuropathy. b. neurogenesis. c. neurilemma. d. nuclei. 50. Because the long necks of giraffes and sharp beaks of woodpeckers allow them access to food, these physical characteristics are considered to be examples of a. fitness. b. adaptations. c. behavioral change. d. experience. 51. Wanda fell down some stairs and hit her head. Prior to her accident, she was an excellent flute player, but she now has difficulty coordinating the finger movements required in complex musical pieces. When she hit her head, Wanda likely damaged her a. reticular formation. b. amygdala. c. cerebellum. d. temporal lobe. 52. Abnormalities in activity at dopamine synapses are thought to play an important role in the development of a. schizophrenia. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. personality disorders. d. endocrine disorders. 53. Xander, a 23-year-old client who has schizophrenia, has been hearing voices and is convinced that aliens, who he states are also the source of the voices, are studying him. In a meeting with the psychiatrist, you suggest that Xander should be a. transferred to the hospital for observation. b. placed on a medication to block some of his dopamine receptor sites. c. placed on a medication that will promote serotonin activity in his brain. d. taken off of his medications because he is experiencing side effects.

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Chapter 03_11e 54. Your friend Trudy has been seeing a clinical psychologist for a panic disorder. Despite her participation in therapy, her psychologist is referring her to a psychiatrist for possible medication to help alleviate some of her symptoms. You infer that the medication that she receives will likely act on the neurotransmitter a. acetylcholine. b. dopamine. c. serotonin. d. GABA. 55. Grady sustained a blow to the back of his head after falling off his motorcycle. His doctor said that his neck is okay, but he does show injury to the back of his brain. What is a likely outcome of this injury? a. Grady may lose his sense of taste. b. Grady may lose all previous memories. c. Grady may have difficulty understanding speech. d. Grady may experience visual disturbances. 56. Parker has been having difficulty with balance, coordination, and movement. A CT scan has detected a lesion in a key brain area. According to Parker’s symptoms, where would the lesion likely be? a. Cerebellum b. Medulla c. Amygdala d. Reticular formation 57. Which of the following would be a suitable epigenetic study? a. Examining numbers of people who prefer football over basketball after being raised in families that are sports-oriented b. Examining literacy in school-aged children whose families read to them beginning at an early age c. Examining the neurological functioning of children whose mothers were exposed to heavy metals such as mercury while pregnant d. Examining the growth rate of children who have vitamins every day in comparison to those who do not 58. When the neuron receives a signal, its charge gradually becomes a. positive. b. negative. c. faster. d. slower. 59. In addition to other roles, acetylcholine appears to be involved in attention, arousal, learning, and memory, and its degeneration is related to Alzheimer’s disease. In what brain structure would you expect to find a high percentage of acetylcholine receptors? a. Pons b. Hypothalamus c. Hippocampus d. Thalamus

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Chapter 03_11e 60. The purpose of family studies are to a. determine genetic inheritance on relatives’ traits. b. determine environmental influence on relatives’ traits. c. alter unwanted genetic traits. d. determine genetic and environmental influence on relatives’ traits. 61. Paxton’s hypothalamus was damaged and now he requires a caretaker to ensure that he is safe and healthy. What might be some of the responsibilities of the caretaker? a. He will likely have to help Paxton dress himself as he will be unable to button, zip, and use fine motor skills. b. He will likely need to assist Paxton with walking as Paxton will have issues with balance and coordination. c. He will likely have to ensure that Paxton eats and has an adequate sleep schedule. d. He will likely need to help Paxton adjust to losing his sight. 62. Milo’s doctors believe he might have schizophrenia. Before they make their final diagnosis, they want to study detailed, three-dimensional images of Milo’s brain structures. The technique the doctors are MOST likely to use in this case would be a. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB). b. a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. c. a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. d. an electroencephalograph (EEG) recording. 63. Which part of the nervous system supports functions that we do not have to consciously focus on, such as digestion? a. The somatic b. The motor c. The sensory d. The autonomic 64. Eight-year-old Ochanya suffers from severe seizures. Her doctors have decided to treat her with a split-brain procedure. She is currently in an elementary school class and the teacher has consulted with you to help with classroom accommodations. What effects of the procedure should you discuss with the teacher? a. Because the two hemispheres will not be able to communicate with each other, the procedure should have very little impact on Ochanya's daily functioning, and she may only have some issues with reading. b. Because the two hemispheres will not be able to communicate with each other, Ochanya will not be able to see color, and this should be taken into account with art-related activities in the classroom c. Although the two hemispheres will not be able to communicate with each other, Ochanya might require more time on tests and need assistance when taking notes. d. Although the two hemisphere will not be able to communicate with each other, it should have very little impact on Ochanya's daily life.

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Chapter 03_11e 65. You want to demonstrate a case of neuroplasticity to your class. What would a possible scenario for this be? You could present a. compelling current research on right brain/left brain cerebral specialization. b. a CT scan image of a brain that has a tumor c. a case study of a patient who has had a portion of her brain removed due to seizures, and the side-effects of this surgery. d. a case study of a patient who suffered a traumatic brain injury whose brain was able to adapt and maintain function following the injury. 66. Which of the following statements supports that people are not "right brained" or "left brained"? a. The two hemispheres of the brain have different cognitive functions and some people are better at one type than another. b. People who score high on math test have more activity on the right hemisphere than people who score lower on math tests. c. People think differently and different hemispheres have different cognitive functions. d. People who frequently play a musical instrument exhibit more bilateral cerebral organization than other people. 67. The junction where information is transmitted from one neuron to another is called the a. vesicle. b. soma. c. nucleus. d. synapse. 68. Connor would like to conduct a study to determine the impact of heredity on intelligence. He asks for your advice on how to carry this out. What do you suggest? a. You suggest that he study intelligence levels among a group of people who are cousins. b. You suggest that he study identical and fraternal twins to see if there is more similarity between these two types of twins. c. You suggest that he study members of a family who share the same eye color. d. You suggest that he study genetic mapping of geniuses and see if they share the same gene. 69. Hana indicates that her husband seems to have had a significant personality change since having a stroke six months ago. Right after the stroke, doctors could not detect any damage through neuro-imaging and Hana’s husband was cleared for all activity. Hana reports that her husband has grown progressively more fearful about things that never bothered him before. You recommend that he see a a. marriage counselor. He is obviously not the man she married, and he will need to change if he wants to stay married. b. an endocrinologist as her husband’s increase in aggression could be related to too much testosterone in his system. c. neurologist as you suspect that his behavior could be due to damage in the amygdala. d. gerontologist as you are concerned that his issues could be age-related and he will need to find happiness as he ages.

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Chapter 03_11e 70. Surgical separation of the corpus callosum is a possible treatment for which condition? a. Epilepsy b. Multiple sclerosis c. Muscular dystrophy d. Alzheimer’s disease 71. When is the hypothesized critical period of brain development in humans? a. The first year of life b. The first 3 years of life c. During adolescence d. Between the ages of 5-8 years old 72. What do neurotransmitters and hormones have in common? a. They are both released through the endocrine system. b. They are both released in the brain. c. They both influence non-voluntary muscle movement. d. They both can affect behavior. 73. Khaled can speak, but has difficulty understanding what people are saying to him. It is likely that Khaled has injury to which area of the brain? a. Broca’s area b. Wernicke’s area c. The amygdala d. The thalamus 74. A patient’s outbursts of fear are found to be caused by a tumor applying pressure to the brain. The tumor is MOST likely to be found in the a. reticular formation. b. cerebrum. c. amygdala. d. medial forebrain bundle. 75. When Jeffrey slipped on the stairs and hit his head, he saw “stars” for several minutes. The “stars” were MOST likely a result of activity in Jeffrey’s a. temporal lobes. b. prefrontal cortex. c. occipital lobes. d. primary somatosensory cortex.

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Chapter 03_11e 76. Lucia has suffered damage to her cerebellum. Of the following, which is Lucia likely to have difficulty with? a. Reading a book b. Tying her shoes c. Singing d. Lifting her leg while sitting upright in a chair 77. The structure that connects both brain hemispheres is the a. cerebellum. b. corpus callosum. c. meninges. d. medulla. 78. Jen is teaching her sixth graders the basics of the nervous system, but the class is struggling to see how the action of just one neuron could affect so many others. What is a simple way that Jen can demonstrate this concept to her class? a. She could plug in a set of twinkle lights so the students can see the analogy between this and neural communication. b. Jen could set up a winding set of dominoes. When she has a student touch the first domino the students will see the chain reaction in the others, which is similar to neurons. c. Jen could play a game of tag in which each student takes a turn at being “it.” d. Jen could draw a picture of octopuses touching tentacles to demonstrate how dendrites touch. 79. Some theorists believe that the rewarding effects of most abused drugs depend on a. decreased activity in specific dopamine pathways. b. decreased activity in specific glutamate pathways. c. increased activity in specific glutamate pathways. d. increased activity in specific dopamine pathways. 80. Research conducted on the idea of hemisphere specialization and that people are left-brained while others are right-brained a. is well supported. b. is not supported. c. supports the idea of cerebral dominance between different people. d. is a genetic adaptation. 81. The disease multiple sclerosis is due to a degeneration in the a. axon. b. dendrites. c. myelin sheath. d. glia.

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Chapter 03_11e 82. The nervous system that is made up of nerves that connect to voluntary skeletal muscles is the a. autonomic. b. central. c. somatic. d. dendritic. 83. Bonnie has a disease that disrupts the functioning of her hypothalamus. With which of the following areas of functioning is she likely to have serious difficulty? a. Reading, writing, and tasting b. Thinking, problem solving, and hearing c. Eating, drinking, and body temperature control d. Tasting and controlling fine motor movements 84. Your sister calls and is upset because your teenage nephew just arrived home, and she believes that he has been drinking. Applying what you have read about alcohol and the cerebellum, you suggest that your sister ask your nephew to a. recite the alphabet backwards as quickly as possible. If he cannot do this successfully, he has likely been drinking. b. write the alphabet on a sheet of paper. If the letters look distorted, he has likely been drinking. c. walk a straight line for about seven feet. If he cannot walk without wavering, he may have been drinking. d. do a few basic math problems. If he cannot do the problems, he may have been drinking. 85. The voluntary muscle movement you make while dancing is controlled by which nervous system? a. The central nervous system b. The somatic nervous system c. The sympathetic nervous system d. The parasympathetic nervous system 86. The signal that moves through the neuron is referred to as the a. neural transmission. b. neural impulse. c. neural transfer. d. neural relay. 87. People who have hormonal imbalances have problems with their a. endocrine system. b. reticular formation. c. limbic system. d. left brain/right brain communication.

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Chapter 03_11e 88. The all-or-nothing law implies that the action potentials of neurons are a. all very small. b. either very large or non-existent. c. all the same size. d. either very large, or they only fire halfway. 89. A computer-enhanced X-ray of brain structure is known as a. computerized tomography. b. lesioning. c. electrical brain stimulation. d. functional magnetic resonance imaging. 90. The discovery that cells communicate by releasing chemicals was first made in connection with the neurotransmitter a. acetylcholine. b. dopamine. c. serotonin. d. GABA. 91. If a patient has severe damage to the prefrontal cortex, he might have difficulty a. identifying visually complex materials. b. planning, paying attention, and getting organized. c. identifying objects by touch. d. hearing sounds. 92. You are consulted on a case of a 65-year-old female whose chief complaint is forgetfulness and confusion. Her daughter corroborates her report and adds that her mother used to remember everything, and now forgets to even take her medication. Last week she left for the grocery store three blocks away and got “lost.” The family physician ordered an x-ray, which does not show any lesions or gross anatomical abnormalities. You recommend a. making lists and setting timers, but if the x-ray does not show anything, then the patient would not benefit from further neurological testing. b. electrical stimulation in the left hemisphere of the patient’s brain to see if the responses of the stimulation are normal. c. a complete endocrine workup to check for abnormalities in hormonal levels that could lead to behavioral changes. d. further evaluation to detect not just anatomy but function such as what can be seen in a PET or functional MRI scan.

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Chapter 03_11e 93. Amy has recently adopted a beautiful baby girl in a closed adoption. She plans to be open with her daughter about the adoption, but she worries that if her daughter ever meets her biological family, she will identify more with them. She asks you if you think that this is possible. You explain that a. it is possible as genes are the most influential in determining a child’s personality traits, but her daughter will love her anyway. b. it is not likely as she is growing up apart from them and will likely have nothing in common with them. c. her daughter may find some commonalities with her biological family, but she is likely to have just as many common traits with the family that she has been raised with. d. in all likelihood her daughter will not want to meet the biological family so this is not something to be concerned about. 94. You return from a day at the beach to discover that you are severely sunburned on your shoulders. Which division of the nervous system is allowing you to feel the pain from the sunburn? a. The somatic nervous system b. The autonomic nervous system c. The central nervous system d. The sympathetic nervous system 95. In your psychology class, Professor Abara discussed evolutionary theory and adaptations. It is MOST likely that Professor Abara would agree with which statement? a. Evolution can explain simple behavior, but it cannot account for complex social customs. b. Evolution has bred into each of us a tendency to act in ways that maximize our chances of passing on our genes. c. Many aspects of human nature reflect modern demands more than our ancestors. d. The difference between male and female mate preferences is cultural. 96. An elderly person has a stroke that leaves her unable to talk and part of her body paralyzed. Which of the following part of the body is MOST likely to be paralyzed? a. Right side b. Left side c. Upper body d. Lower body 97. The theoretical perspective that examines behavioral processes in terms of their adaptive significance is a. biopsychology. b. evolutionary psychology. c. trait theory. d. neuropsychology.

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Chapter 03_11e 98. Spencer, age 12, has been complaining of not being able to hear well for about the past six months. He indicates that whether it is his teacher speaking, his parents, or friends, he has difficulty hearing all of them and only catches a portion of what they say. His family physician found no issues with his ears, and a referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist also resulted in the conclusion that his ears seem fine. What do you suggest is the best next step for Spencer? a. If his ears appear to be healthy, he should have a neurological assessment to check the integrity of the nerve and auditory processing center. b. A hearing aid should be purchased for Spencer as he needs to hear conversations. c. Spencer should meet with the school psychologist to determine whether or not Spencer is using “selective hearing.” d. Spencer should ask people to speak up when they are addressing him. 99. A healthy frontal lobe means that Erica can a. experience the joy and excitement of seeing her friends on her birthday. b. use her finger dexterity and speed for typing her research paper. c. enjoy the smell and taste of her favorite meal. d. use her balance and coordination while ice skating. 100. Lill has a head injury following a fall on her skateboard. The doctor said that she has injury to the frontal lobe of her brain. What among the following may be an outcome of this injury for Lill? a. She may have difficulty articulating speech. b. She may have difficulty with voluntary movement. c. She may have difficulty with complex reasoning. d. She may have trouble seeing. 101. You and your friend are discussing the relationship between your heredity and the environment you live in. Your friend believes that your genes have a larger role in who we are than the environment. Based on what you have learned, you state that a. you agree that genes influence our choices and behavior. b. how and where you are raised is more important than your genetics. c. while your environment is important, it only influences behavior indirectly. d. both our genes and environment are important in who we are. 102. Among its functions, the cerebrospinal fluid a. provides additional support to the peripheral nervous system. b. nourishes and provides a “cushion” for the brain. c. filters antigens out of the surrounding muscle tissues. d. supports the spleen.

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Chapter 03_11e 103. Which gland of the endocrine system releases hormones that fan out within the body and stimulate other endocrine glands? a. Pancreas b. Thyroid c. Pituitary d. Pineal 104. The branch of the autonomic nervous system that generally conserves body resources is the a. somatic division. b. sympathetic division. c. parasympathetic division. d. efferent division. 105. The branch of the autonomic nervous system that mobilizes the body’s resources for emergencies is the a. somatic division. b. sympathetic division. c. parasympathetic division. d. efferent division. 106. Juana and John would like to gather data on changes in athletes’ brains following repeated head injuries. They are specifically interested in changes to the frontal lobe. In what way could they successfully gather the needed data? a. They could try to perform lesioning on the affected athletes to see what changes occur. b. They may want to try electrical brain stimulation to the affected athletes’ brains. c. They may want to gather data by taking a traditional x-ray on each athlete and comparing them. d. They could carry this out by case studies and reviews of functional MRI data already performed on athletes who have suffered a head trauma. 107. Among the following, which would be a good example of overextrapolation? a. A client who minimizes the amount of discomfort she is experiencing due to her drinking b. A journalist reporting an explosion in violent crime, when data suggests only a two- percent increase in only one type of violent crime c. A drug company down playing reported adverse side effects in one of its newer medications d. A researcher completing a double-blind study on sleep 108. Leonard’s mother became dehydrated during a recent illness, and the levels of sodium in her body were significantly reduced. If enough sodium was lost, you might expect that a. her nervous system would become highly activated and action potentials would be generated continuously. b. fewer action potentials would occur in her nervous system. c. more neurotransmitters would be produced in her terminal buttons. d. glial cells would start to degenerate and die.

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Chapter 03_11e 109. The action potential of a neuron can be seen as an electrical charge, while the reuptake of a neurotransmitter can be seen as which of the following? a. Decay b. Integration c. Metabolization d. Recycling 110. Which nervous system is made up of nerves that connect to the heart, blood vessels, smooth muscles, and glands? a. The autonomic b. The central c. The somatic d. The dendritic 111. Dan would like to study the correlation between environment versus genetics in the development of addictive disorders. The best way for Dan to do this would be to look at the records of a. clients admitted into substance abuse treatment that came from families where both parents were addicts and actively using in the home. b. clients admitted into substance abuse treatment that came from families where there was no history of addiction and no substance use in the home. c. twins that have a family history of addiction, and are raised in an environment where there is only moderate drinking. d. twins that have a family history of addiction but were adopted out at birth and compare those raised in sober environments versus those raised in using environments. 112. Monique is not able to understand spoken language. If Monique’s problem stems from damage to the cerebral cortex, the damage would MOST likely be in a. Broca’s area. b. the cerebellum. c. Wernicke’s area. d. the right parietal lobe. 113. The chemical messengers that allow neurons to communicate with each other are called a. amino acids. b. neurotransmitters. c. hormones. d. leukocytes. 114. After Alejandro suffered a stroke, he could not recall simple words. After a few months, he was speaking almost normally. What attribute of the brain would allow for this recovery? a. Corpus callosum b. Visual-spatial sense c. Plasticity d. Hippocampus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03_11e 115. Individual cells in the nervous system that receive, integrate, and communicate information are known as a. white blood cells. b. neurilemmas. c. neurons. d. glia. 116. A neurotransmitter believed to play a major role in depressive disorder is a. acetylcholine. b. dopamine. c. serotonin. d. GABA. 117. Neurotransmitters are stored in the a. myelin sheath. b. synaptic vesicles. c. synaptic cleft. d. terminal cleft. 118. Elizabeth and Jennifer are twins adopted out at birth. Their biological father, now deceased, was an alcoholic, and their biological mother had depression. Elizabeth drinks only socially, and does not suffer from depression. Jennifer never drinks, but has been treated for major depression for years. How is this scenario supported by current research? a. Current research shows heredity is strong, and those adopted out will still primarily resemble their biological parents. b. Individuals will still resemble their adoptive parents more than their biological parents as environment plays the largest role. c. Both twins are very likely to still develop alcoholism as nature always dictates the outcome. d. The twins are as likely to manifest heritable traits from their biological parents as they are from the parents who raised them. 119. Imagine that you have stumbled across a secret laboratory where an evil scientist is conducting unauthorized brain research. By altering brain structures, he has created superheroes who have specialized powers or abilities. One of these superheroes seldom feels hungry or thirsty and can go for days without feeling the need to eat or drink. In this case, the scientist MOST likely altered the a. thalamus. b. hypothalamus. c. reticular formation. d. hippocampus. 120. Which of the following does NOT belong with the other three? a. Adrenal glands b. Hypothalamus c. Thalamus d. Pituitary Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03_11e 121. The white, fatty substance surrounding and insulating some axons that aids in conduction of a nerve transmission is the a. synapse. b. basal ganglia. c. neural membrane. d. myelin sheath. 122. The hormone that stimulates birth in a pregnant female is a. acetylcholine. b. oxytocin. c. dopamine. d. endorphin. 123. Theodore suffered a stroke recently, and now he constantly hears a buzzing sound in his ears. The stroke likely occurred in Theodore’s _____ lobe(s). a. temporal b. right frontal c. occipital d. left parietal 124. Audi has damage to his prefrontal cortex. What function(s) would likely be affected by this damage? a. Audi may have difficulty with sensory experiences that involve taste and smell. b. Audi may have difficulty completing fine motor activities such as tying his shoes. c. Audi may have difficulty staying on task and planning. d. Audi may lose his ability to detect low-pitched sounds. 125. Thread-like DNA strands that carry genetic information are referred to as a. cortisol. b. glia. c. neurilemmas. d. chromosomes. 126. The cell body of a neuron is referred to as the a. wall. b. membrane. c. soma. d. nucleus.

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Chapter 03_11e 127. A student who is majoring in sports psychology asks you to explain how some marathon runners report a boost, or “runner's high”, following a race or work out. You explain that this is primarily due to a. the illegal use of anabolic steroids. b. the athlete’s level of motivation and state of mind during the run. The more they enjoy what they are doing, the better they will feel. c. muscle memory. Muscles will loosen during a long-distance run, leaving the runner feeling very energized. d. neurology. During physical exertion, the brain may release endorphins, which will make the runner feel a burst of energy. 128. Handyman Bob just hit his thumb with a hammer. The sensation will be transmitted to the central nervous system by _____ nerve fibers. a. afferent b. efferent c. autonomic d. sympathetic 129. Small knobs at the end of an axon that secrete chemical messengers are known as a. vesicles. b. leukocytes. c. terminal buttons. d. neurilemmas. 130. Which division of the nervous system mobilizes the body’s resources for emergencies? a. The somatic nervous system b. The sympathetic nervous system c. The parasympathetic nervous system d. The central nervous system 131. Abnormalities at norepinephrine and serotonin synapses appear to play a role in which of the following? a. Hyperactivity b. Depression c. High anxiety d. Increased appetite 132. Keisha has been in an accident and hit her head. Which of the following symptoms would demonstrate damage to her temporal lobe? a. Keisha has lost the ability to taste and smell food. b. Keisha is having difficulty with detecting the sense of touch. c. Keisha is having problems understanding and remembering the questions that the nurse is asking her. d. Keisha is having difficulty writing her name.

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Chapter 03_11e 133. What is the activity state of the human brain during sleep? a. Inactive b. Active only in the limbic system c. Active in multiple brain areas d. Moderately active but only in the brain stem 134. The semipermeable membrane that stops some chemicals, including drugs, from leaving the bloodstream and entering the brain is the a. tympanic membrane. b. meninges. c. blood-brain barrier. d. amygdala. 135. The number of branched structures on the neuron that are specialized to receive information are called a. limbs. b. dendrites. c. arms. d. fingers. 136. Destroying a piece of the brain to determine its impact on behavior is referred to as a. lesioning. b. electrical brain stimulation. c. computerized tomography. d. magnetic resonance imaging. 137. Perspiration in humans is due to the a. somatic nervous system. b. central nervous system. c. autonomic nervous system. d. reticular formation. 138. Jie is unable to move her left side following a head injury received in a motorcycle accident. It is likely that Jie experienced injury to which part of her brain? a. The left hemisphere b. The right hemisphere c. The cerebellum d. The brain stem 139. When less-active or older synapses are eliminated is in the brain it is referred to as which process? a. synaptic metabolization. b. synaptic decay. c. synaptic reuptake. d. synaptic pruning. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03_11e 140. The brain is divided into three major regions known as the a. frontal brain, medial brain, and cerebellum. b. upper brain, medial brain, and lower brain. c. forebrain, medial brain, and cerebellum. d. forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain. 141. Fatima is concerned that at some time she may develop schizophrenia. Both her great-uncle and a second cousin have been diagnosed with schizophrenia, and she is concerned about any genetic influences on the development of schizophrenia. Which of the following pieces of information would help put Fatima’s mind at ease? a. There is a 75% chance that she could develop schizophrenia. b. Heredity studies with respect to schizophrenia have been largely inconclusive. c. The risk associated with schizophrenia development lessens as the degree of relatedness decreases. d. Schizophrenia often manifests every other generation, meaning she should be concerned for herself and for any children that she may have. 142. Why does the human brain have folds? a. It is much easier for impulses to hop over the folds rather than take a straight route through the axon. b. The brain mass needs to fit into a limited space, hence the folds. c. It makes it more difficult for infections to permeate the brain since it is not smooth. d. Over time, the folding increased as we are now born with many more brain cells than our ancestors. 143. Which of the following illustrates an episode where oxytocin is likely being released? a. A couple arguing over finances b. A doctor operating on a patient c. A violinist playing a beautiful melody d. A mother rocking her child to sleep after breastfeeding 144. If the occipital lobe of the brain is stimulated, a person would MOST likely report a. hearing a sound. b. smelling an odor. c. seeing a flash of light. d. moving a part of their body. 145. Which system is made up of all of the nerves that lie outside of the brain and spinal cord? a. The endocrine system b. The immune system c. The peripheral nervous system d. The cognitive system

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Chapter 03_11e 146. Your friend, Jo, plans to purchase an expensive early-learning program for her three-month-old daughter. She has read that her daughter is in a critical period for brain development and wants to ensure that she does all that she can to nurture brain growth. She asks you which program you would recommend, and you suggest that she a. purchase the program with the best rating. b. purchase the program that will contribute to the child’s visual-spatial and problem-solving abilities. c. forego the program as the reports on these programs are often overrated. She should just continue to be a great mom. d. purchase the program that teaches early reading to babies. 147. Where in the brain would one find a large concentration of the pleasure centers? a. The endocrine system b. The limbic system c. The hypothalamus d. The brainstem 148. The “master gland” of the endocrine system is the a. thyroid b. adrenal. c. pineal. d. pituitary. 149. Which of the following are examples of endocrine glands? a. Stomach, liver, and gallbladder b. Appendix, colon, and ulna c. Esophagus, solar plexus, and tibia d. Thyroid, pancreas, and adrenals 150. The human brain contains roughly how many neurons? a. 36 million b. 86 million c. 36 billion d. 86 billion 151. Matias has been recovering from a serious car accident. While he is much better, he still reports a constant ringing in his ears. You suggest that Matias see a. a clinical psychologist as you are concerned that he is suffering from hallucinations. b. an ear-nose-and throat specialist so that he can see if the injury damaged his ears anatomically. c. a neurologist to determine if the ringing is due to an injury to the temporal lobe. d. a neurologist to determine if his cerebellum was damaged in his accident.

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Chapter 03_11e 152. While walking to get a drink at night, you stub your toe on the bedpost. The sensation of this will travel to your central nervous system by way of which type of nerves? a. Afferent b. Efferent c. Endogenous d. Adaptive 153. Which part of the brain includes the medulla and pons? a. The medial brain b. The hindbrain c. The cerebellum d. The forebrain 154. Which of the following is likely to happen when the neuron’s action potential only half fires? a. The neural impulse stops altogether. b. There is still enough charge to relay an impulse. c. Action potentials do not half fire. They either fire, or they don’t. d. The impulse will still occur, but at a slower rate of speed. 155. Nadine had a stroke that was confined to the right side of her brain. Based on hemispheric lateralization studies, Nadine will likely have the MOST problems with tasks that require a. spatial skills, such as fitting together puzzle pieces. b. language and communication. c. fine motor coordination. d. mathematics and logical reasoning skills. 156. It is widely believed that humans use only about ten percent of their brain. Researchers have concluded that this is a. true. Much of the brain remains at rest. b. false. We use even less than ten percent. c. false. We use about fifteen percent of our brains. d. false. Over the course of a day, the vast majority of the brain is used. 157. A brief shift in the neuron’s electrical charge that travels down the axon is an a. action shift. b. action potential. c. axon shift. d. axon potential.

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Chapter 03_11e 158. The fluid surrounding the brain and spinal cord is the a. cerebrospinal fluid. b. nuclear fluid. c. cerebellum fluid. d. central fluid. 159. Your ability to willfully grasp your mug of coffee and bring it to your lips to drink can be attributed to which neurotransmitter? a. Norepinephrine b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. GABA 160. You want to explain neurotransmitter deficiency and its effects on the brain to a high school class in a way that they can easily understand. In order to demonstrate this, you could compare neurotransmitter deficiency to a a. cell phone battery that needs to be charged. b. device that is receiving inadequate wifi signals, and the internet keeps getting disrupted or is not working as well as it should. c. broken console on a gaming device. d. smiley-faced emoji. 161. Georgia's mother suffered a stroke but was able to get to the hospital quickly. The doctors tell Georgia that her mother is stable, but she is worried that her mother will not recover. What might you tell Georgia to help put her mind at ease? a. While it was once believed that any brain injury was irreversible, we now know that some brain functions may be impaired and others may be recovered. b. Research has shown that any brain functions lost to an injury are irreparable. c. When an injury occurs on one side of the brain, the other hemisphere will inevitably pick up the functions that were lost due to that injury. d. Following a stroke, many brain areas will show further deterioration in functioning. 162. Jing is a neurologist who has been consulted on a case where a CT scan detected a lesion in a young woman’s parietal lobe. Due to the area of the brain affected, Jing would like to order a test to determine if the lesion has interfered with processing in this area. What type of test will Jing likely order? a. Functional magnetic resonance imaging b. Electrical brain stimulation c. Lesioning d. A regular x-ray 163. Which lobe of the brain holds the primary motor cortex? a. The frontal b. The parietal c. The temporal d. The occipital Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03_11e 164. Edmund was walking down a dark street when he heard a car backfire. His heart started to race and he began to perspire in response to this sudden, startling noise. These physical reactions were triggered by Edmund’s a. parasympathetic nervous system. b. somatic nervous system. c. sympathetic nervous system. d. cerebellum. 165. Research has shown that adult pair bonding is fostered by the hormone a. adrenaline. b. cortisol. c. oxytocin. d. melatonin. 166. Ian remains in a coma after a serious diving accident. He is still on medical life support because he is unable to breathe and his heart will not beat without assistance. The accident likely caused damage to Ian’s a. medulla. b. hypothalamus. c. cerebellum. d. midbrain. 167. The wrapping of myelin around the axon of a neuron helps the signal to a. become more complex. b. move faster. c. lengthen. d. inhibit neurotransmitter reuptake. 168. Londra and Sondra are identical twins who have been raised together in the same home. Londra has developed a psychological disorder, but Sondra does not appear to have the same disorder. This information could be used as evidence to suggest that a. genetic factors have more influence than environmental factors in this disorder. b. environmental factors have more influence than genetic factors in this disorder. c. both genetic and environmental factors contribute equally to this disorder. d. neither genetic nor environmental factors contribute to this disorder. 169. The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the a. somatic nerves. b. autonomic nerves. c. spinal cord and somatic nerves. d. brain and spinal cord.

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Chapter 03_11e 170. Which of the following brain structures appears to play an active role in integrating sensory information? a. Hypothalamus b. Limbic system c. Thalamus d. Cerebrum 171. Dr. Seelig has just discovered a new drug that produces schizophrenic-like side effects. Dr. Seelig’s drug may be acting on which of the following neurotransmitters? a. Dopamine b. GABA c. Serotonin d. Endorphins 172. Which of the following refers to the action potential’s firing at only one level of intensity? a. The law of action b. The law of refraction c. The law of potential d. The all-or-none law 173. Which theory asserts that characteristics that ensure survival and reproduction of a species will be passed down genetically over time? a. Fitness b. Survival of the fittest c. Adaptation d. Natural selection 174. Which of the following is NOT an example of a behavioral adaptation? a. Rats eating only a single unfamiliar food at one time b. Male wild turkeys growing larger beak ornaments c. Male moths gathering sodium to transfer to prospective mates d. Grasshoppers digging a trench in which to hide 175. Which nerve fibers are axons that carry information outward from the central nervous system to the periphery of the body? a. The visceral b. The afferent c. The efferent d. The endogenous

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Chapter 03_11e 176. An inadequate supply of acetylcholine in certain areas of the brain is associated with a. poor muscle coordination. b. phantom pain syndrome. c. memory loss. d. anxiety disorders. 177. Altogether, the brain weighs about a. sixteen ounces. b. two pounds. c. three pounds. d. seven pounds. 178. The correct sequence in which an impulse passes through a neuron is a. axon, dendrite, soma. b. dendrite, axon, soma. c. dendrite, soma, axon. d. axon, dendrite, soma. 179. The next time your foot itches, the itch sensation will be sensed in your _____ lobe and the _____ lobe will transmit the message to move your hand and arm to scratch the itch. a. parietal; frontal b. frontal; parietal c. temporal; frontal d. parietal; occipital 180. The limited time span in the development of an organism when it is optimal for certain capacities to emerge is referred to as a. the window of opportunity. b. a critical period. c. a wrinkle in time. d. a refractory period. 181. Synaptic formation and pathways a. never change once they are formed. b. are only formed during childhood and adolescence. c. are changeable throughout our lifespan. d. decrease as we get older.

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Chapter 03_11e 182. The relay station in the forebrain through which most sensory information must pass to get to the cerebral cortex is the a. thalamus. b. hypothalamus. c. amygdala. d. pons. 183. Which of the following is genetic mapping most likely to detect? a. Artistic excellence b. An easy-going personality c. Muscular dystrophy d. Multiple sclerosis 184. Which nerve fibers are axons that carry information inward to the central nervous system from the periphery of the body? a. The visceral b. The afferent c. The efferent d. The endogenous 185. Following a serious car-accident, Ariel has been placed on a ventilator as she is unable to breath on her own. It is likely that damage occurred in Ariel’s a. prefrontal cortex. b. forebrain. c. hindbrain. d. thalamus. 186. The “fight or flight” response results from activation of which of the following? a. The somatic division of the nervous system b. The sympathetic division of the nervous system c. The parasympathetic division of the nervous system d. The visceral division of the nervous system 187. Ava is being seen by a neurologist following a head injury due to having difficulties with the comprehension of language. Which area of the brain was most likely damaged in this injury? a. Hippocampus b. Broca's area c. Wernicke's area d. Occipital lobe

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Chapter 03_11e 188. The degeneration of neurons that cause voluntary movement is associated with which condition? a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. Multiple sclerosis d. Panic disorder 189. The long, thin fiber that extends from the body of one neuron and transmits messages to other neurons, muscles, or glands is known as the a. axon. b. node. c. sheath. d. astrocyte. 190. While walking across the parking lot in the dark after watching a scary movie, you hear a noise behind you. You react by running away from the noise and towards your car. Which part of your nervous system allowed you to run away? a. The central nervous system b. The somatic nervous system c. The sympathetic nervous system d. The parasympathetic nervous system 191. Your psychology class is conducting research on how changes in the environment influence how quickly rats can run through a maze. To increase the speed at which your rat can run through the maze, what changes to its environment might you make? a. Raise your rat in a cage that only contains food, water, and a place to sleep. b. Raise your rat in a cage where it listens to different cat sounds. c. Raise your rat in a cage with lots of different objects for exploration and stimulation. d. Raise your rat in a cage where it listens to music. 192. Following the transmission of information, most neurotransmitters will a. drift away from receptor sites to new sites. b. become inactive and begin to decay. c. go through the reuptake process. d. convert to enzymes. 193. Shahd would like to complete genetic-mapping studies within families in hopes of isolating genes responsible for specific conditions. Of the following, which family is she likely to have the most success with? a. The Wilson family, who display a great deal of artistic ability b. The Ropps family, who have many family members with superior intellect c. The Rose family, who have a history of breast cancer in the family d. The Farr family, who are very musically inclined

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Chapter 03_11e 194. Which tiny cells support the neuron with nourishment, waste elimination, and insulation for many axons? a. Glia b. Monocytes c. Leukocytes d. Nuclei 195. An inherited characteristic that has increased in a population because it solved a problem and ensured survival and reproduction in a population is referred to as a(n) a. chromosome. b. adaptation. c. adherence. d. application. 196. Following the removal of a tumor during invasive brain surgery, Cody demonstrates no fear. He seems to lack a fight-or-flight response and does not show anxiety or fear in any potentially dangerous situation. It is likely that Cody’s tumor damaged his a. cerebellum. b. medulla. c. amygdala. d. reticular formation. 197. Your friend, Jo, fell off a ladder and hit his head. Since his accident, Jo is clumsy and uncoordinated. Which structure was mostly likely damaged? a. medulla b. hippocampus c. cerebellum d. thalamus 198. The brain system most closely associated with emotion is the a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. cerebellum. d. limbic. 199. _____ function in the endocrine system much like _____ in the nervous system. a. Hormones; dendrites b. Hormones; neurotransmitters c. Endorphins; sensory neurons d. Neurotransmitters; hormones

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Chapter 03_11e 200. Of the following scenarios, which would be an ideal example of epigenetic research? a. Researchers study outcomes of children born to mothers with a family history of Huntington’s disease. b. Researchers study outcomes of children born to mothers with a family history of muscular dystrophy. c. Researchers study outcomes of children born to mothers who used alcohol while pregnant. d. Researchers study outcomes of children born to mothers with one alcoholic parent.

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Chapter 03_11e Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. c

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Chapter 03_11e 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. c 32. b 33. d 34. c 35. d 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. c 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. c 52. a 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03_11e 55. d 56. a 57. c 58. a 59. c 60. d 61. c 62. b 63. d 64. c 65. d 66. d 67. d 68. b 69. c 70. a 71. b 72. d 73. b 74. c 75. c 76. b 77. b 78. b 79. d 80. b 81. c 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03_11e 83. c 84. c 85. b 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. a 90. a 91. b 92. d 93. c 94. a 95. b 96. a 97. b 98. a 99. b 100. c 101. d 102. b 103. c 104. c 105. b 106. d 107. b 108. b 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03_11e 111. d 112. c 113. b 114. c 115. c 116. c 117. b 118. d 119. b 120. c 121. d 122. b 123. a 124. c 125. d 126. c 127. d 128. a 129. c 130. b 131. b 132. c 133. c 134. c 135. b 136. a 137. c

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Chapter 03_11e 138. b 139. d 140. d 141. c 142. b 143. d 144. c 145. c 146. c 147. b 148. d 149. d 150. d 151. c 152. a 153. b 154. c 155. a 156. d 157. b 158. a 159. b 160. b 161. a 162. a 163. a 164. c 165. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03_11e 166. a 167. b 168. b 169. d 170. c 171. a 172. d 173. d 174. b 175. c 176. c 177. c 178. c 179. a 180. b 181. c 182. a 183. c 184. b 185. c 186. b 187. c 188. b 189. a 190. c 191. c 192. c 193. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03_11e 194. a 195. b 196. c 197. c 198. d 199. b 200. c

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Chapter 04_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In a well-known study on inattentional blindness, participants viewed a video of two basketball teams passing a ball back and forth. During the video, a person wearing a gorilla suit walked through the basketball scene. How did participants in this study perceive the gorilla in the video? a. They overestimated how long the gorilla was on screen. b. They mostly did not notice the gorilla. c. They underestimated how long the gorilla was on screen. d. They saw the gorilla pass the basketball with the other team members. 2. The point at which the axons from the inside half of each eye project to the brain is called the a. cornea. b. lens. c. optic disk. d. optic chiasm. 3. The wavelength of light waves is responsible for our perception of a. saturation. b. color. c. brightness. d. purity. 4. Which of the following visual functions are accomplished primarily by rods, as opposed to other cells or structures in the eye? a. face detection b. peripheral vision c. regulation of light entering the eye d. detailed, high-acuity vision 5. Which of the following adjectives most accurately describes pain perception in humans? a. uninformative b. inevitable c. subjective d. maladaptive 6. People, objects, and events that are used as a baseline for comparison in making judgements are a. controls. b. comparators. c. dependent variables. d. independent variables.

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Chapter 04_11e 7. Vanessa describes a new melody that she heard at a concert by telling you each of the individual notes in the order that they were played. In providing this type of description, it appears that Vanessa processed the melody using a. top-down processing. b. figure-ground processing. c. opponent processes. d. bottom-up processing. 8. The main idea of frequency theory is that perception of pitch corresponds to a. the rate at which the entire basilar membrane vibrates. b. how often the outer ear hears similar sounds and its resulting level of habituation. c. the vibration of different portions along the basilar membrane. d. the delay between pulses of auditory information sent from auditory receptors to the thalamus. 9. Your roommate Taj is an art major and is working on his final project for his modern art class. He wants to use illusions in his painting to help enhance the story he is trying to tell using the night sky. Taj asks you for your advice. What might you suggest? a. the phi phenomenon b. the muller-lyer illusion c. the necker cube d. texture gradient 10. Gupta wears glasses since he was diagnosed as farsighted. Which of the following situations is likely to cause him problems if he forgets to wear his glasses? a. driving his car b. playing basketball c. watching a baseball game at the stadium d. reading a menu 11. What do monocular-depth cues and the Gestalt principles have in common? a. They are both sometimes fallible assumptions used to disambiguate visual stimuli. b. They are both implemented neurally during early visual processing in the retina. c. They are both more important to bottom-up processing than to top-down processing. d. They are both used intentionally by a person rather than carried out automatically by their visual system. 12. Most people with color blindness are considered a. monochromats. b. trichromats. c. dichromats. d. nonchromats.

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Chapter 04_11e 13. If you enter a brightly lit store coming from dark nighttime conditions, the light may initially overwhelm your visual system. But after a few minutes, you can probably see normally. This adjustment is called a. light-sightedness. b. ultraviolet shift. c. bright vision. d. light adaptation. 14. The newest primary taste largely recognized by scientists is umami, which is best described as a feeling of a. savoriness. b. saltiness. c. pungency. d. starchiness. 15. The Gestalt principle of figure and ground concerns a. which object is being looked at, and which background it stands against. b. which object is important, and which is unimportant. c. which object is living, and which environment it resides in. d. which object is still, and which is moving. 16. Based on your understanding of opponent process theory, what prediction should it make about colorblindness? a. Colorblindness should occur for one color at a time. b. Colorblindness should occur for two colors at a time. c. Colorblindness for one color should be offset by increased visual acuity of another. d. Colorblindness should not be possible, although color distortions should be. 17. The audible spectrum is similar to the visible spectrum in that a. people combine a small number of elementary sounds to produce the much larger array of possible sounds. b. people can hear only the range of sounds that are important in their culture and language. c. there is significant variation between people as to what range of stimuli in the spectrum is perceptible. d. what people can hear is only a portion of the available range of sounds. 18. Artist often use a variety of different depth cues to enhance their artwork. Which of the following is an example of one of the cues often seen in works of art? a. The use of relative size and height of the images in the painting. b. The use of realistic colors in the painting. c. The lack of shadows in the painting. d. The reversible figures in the painting.

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Chapter 04_11e 19. The goal of many artists is to create artwork that is realistic, but one problem with creating realistic artwork is a. how people see color. b. the cultural variations in perception. c. art is subjective in nature. d. recreating a three-dimensional world on a flat surface. 20. How many colors, combined in various ratios, does it take for your color TV screen or computer monitor to create any other color? a. 800 b. 256 c. 16 d. 3 21. An inference about what form could be responsible for a pattern of sensory stimulation is called a(n) a. perceptual set. b. perceptual illusion. c. Gestalt inference. d. perceptual hypothesis 22. The Gestalt principle of proximity suggests that things that are near one another a. seem to be physically similar. b. seem to be causally related. c. seem to belong together. d. seem to be made of similar materials. 23. Suppose that, after thousands more years of evolution, the human eye ends up with thirty-two types of cones. Based on the role cones currently play in our visual system, what is the most likely outcome? a. We would no longer need an adjustment period between high- and low-light conditions. b. We would have equally good peripheral and central vision. c. We would be able to see colors that no one currently is able to see. d. We would be able to see hundreds of feet further into the distance without loss of detail. 24. In the epic poem The Odyssey, Odysseus fights a one-eyed giant. Given how our visual system uses information from two eyes, what would the giant likely have the most trouble perceiving? a. judging whether Odysseus is running toward or away from him b. distinguishing which visual forms are part of Odysseus (e.g., his arms) and which are separate objects he carries (e.g., his sword) c. noticing Odysseus as a distinct object from the cave wall behind him d. judging how far away the arrows being shot by Odysseus are

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Chapter 04_11e 25. Three people look at the same sketch and report seeing three different things. This illustrates the contribution to perception of a. stimulus ambiguity. b. interpretation. c. sensory readiness. d. cognitive dissonance. 26. The reason you don’t see color very well in low illumination is that a. cones are not as responsive to dim light as to typical light. b. rods are not as responsive to dim light as to typical light. c. in dim light, input from gray color receptors outweighs input from primary color receptors. d. in dim light, the eye reallocates resources toward detecting shape and movement over color. 27. When people are asked to verbally describe a color they see, they can do so without difficulty as long as they are given a. three color names. b. four color names. c. eight color names. d. sixteen color names. 28. A recent study using new methods estimated that the number of distinct odors humans can discriminate is in the neighborhood of a. trillions. b. thousands. c. tens of thousands. d. millions. 29. Which famous artist often used reversible figures to enhance his surreal paintings? a. Salvador Dali b. M. C. Escher c. Georges Seurat d. S. Francesco 30. Cues about distance based on differing views of the two eyes are called a. binocular depth cues. b. monocular depth cues. c. retinal disparity cues. d. illusory cues.

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Chapter 04_11e 31. Your adolescent son has just been identified as a nontaster. If you want to make sure he stays healthy, the most effective strategy would be to a. keep an eye out for peers that might pressure him into using tobacco. b. encourage him to take a complete multivitamin. c. have him exercise to counteract fatty foods he eats. d. tell him he can’t have dessert unless he eats enough protein at dinnertime. 32. Inattentional blindness is MOST likely to occur when a person is a. expecting to see a certain thing. b. consuming caffeine. c. studying. d. talking on a cell phone. 33. If you were to mix several colors of paint together, you would most likely end up with a mixture of which color? a. white b. black c. brown d. gray 34. Which Gestalt principle has received the most criticism for being ill-defined or vague? a. similarity b. continuity c. simplicity d. proximity 35. Based on your understanding of why this visual illusion occurs, the Müller-Lyer illusion would be unlikely to occur in a room shaped like a a. trapezoid. b. pentagon. c. sphere. d. triangle. 36. Which part of the ear is analogous, both structurally and functionally, to the retina in the eye? a. ossicles b. eardrum c. cochlea d. basilar membrane 37. Sound waves are usually generated by a. the clash of opposing wavelengths of light. b. forcing air past a chamber. c. suddenly releasing a burst of air. d. vibrating objects. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04_11e 38. Sally woke up in the middle of the night and turned on the light in her bedroom, forcing her to squint to ward off the bright light. Sally is experiencing a. dark adaptation. b. sensory adaptation. c. light adaptation. d. lateral antagonism. 39. Which type of processing, if relied on exclusively, would slow down reading to an extreme degree? a. top-down processing b. binocular processing c. Gestalt processing d. bottom-up processing 40. You’re walking through the woods with some friends on a camping trip when you hear a sudden loud growl. To locate where the sound is coming from, which of the following strategies would be best? a. Crouch to be closer to the sound waves bouncing off the ground. b. Turn your head in various directions to hear how the sound changes in response. c. Tense the muscles around your ear to widen the ear canal. d. Cup your hands to your ears to amplify vibrations to the ear. 41. If top-down information is important in vision, then people will be most rapidly able to identify a cow when it is presented a. alone b. along with several other types of animals. c. with the word “cow” written below it. d. in a barnyard scene. 42. To date, which aspect of auditory perception is best understood by scientists? a. pitch perception b. timbre perception c. loudness perception d. music perception 43. Which of the following statements about the gustatory system is NOT accurate? a. Taste cells are concentrated in taste buds on the tongue. b. The physical stimulus for taste is any chemical substance. c. Taste cells live only about 10 days. d. Taste cells are distributed unevenly across the surface of the tongue.

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Chapter 04_11e 44. If a psychology professor wanted to demonstrate how place theory claims that pitch perception is accomplished, the best strategy would be to a. play music from a small radio while repeatedly waving a large book in front of it, showing how pitch is altered by occluding objects. b. strum a banjo, showing how sound is produced by the vibrations of individual strings. c. have two students sing different notes at the same time, showing how sound waves can be combined into a single perceived pitch. d. ring a large bell, showing how sound is produced by the vibration of the entire bell. 45. Subtractive color mixing occurs when the things being mixed a. absorb most wavelengths of light. b. reflect most wavelengths of light. c. scatter most wavelengths of light. d. combine most wavelengths of light. 46. Which part of the eye is the spot with the greatest visual acuity? a. the retina b. the lens c. the fovea d. the pupil 47. One important discovery about the sense of touch was the identification of endorphins, which play a central role in a. pain relief. b. fine motor control. c. sensory adaptation. d. tactile learning. 48. Suppose a young child is super picky about certain foods. What could you check about their anatomy to infer whether they might be a supertaster? a. the amount of saliva they produce while eating b. the size of their tongue c. the size of their nasal passages d. the density of the receptors on their tongue 49. According to frequency theory, which of the following hypothetical abnormalities in anatomy would be most likely to result in altered pitch perception? a. having an unusually wide auditory canal b. having a basilar membrane whose overall structure is fixed and cannot vibrate c. having an unusually shaped outer ear that collects sound inefficiently d. having an unusually small cochlea

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Chapter 04_11e 50. The ability to identify flavors declines most noticeably with the reduction of a. visual cues. b. odor cues. c. tactile cues. d. auditory cues. 51. When mixed together, complementary colors produce a. clashing tones. b. gray tones. c. neon tones. d. pleasing tones. 52. If a teacher wanted to use a visual metaphor for how colors interact according to opponent process theory, she could describe the colors red and green as a. two children on a see-saw, on which one child goes down causing the other to go up. b. the colors on a spinning Frisbee, which rapidly cycle back and forth. c. two boats on the ocean, which both move the same direction as the waves. d. balls being juggled, where each has its own pattern independent of the others. 53. You bought a new flashlight for a camping trip, but you are disappointed with it because it does not seem very bright when you test it at your house. That weekend, when you use your new flashlight in the woods at night, you are surprised by how bright the flashlight actually is. Why is the flashlight brighter in the woods? a. The amount of light from your flashlight has not increased; your eyes just need less light to see. b. The amount of light from your flashlight has increased, which is good because your eyes need more light in the dark. c. The amount of light from your flashlight has increased due to the contrast effect. d. The amount of light from your flashlight has not changed, but your perception changed due to the contrast effect. 54. Which part of the eye contains rods and cones? a. the retina b. the lens c. the fovea d. the pupil 55. In visual perception, what is the relationship between images projected on the retina and their actual counterparts? a. Images on the retina are distorted, two-dimensional versions of their three-dimensional counterparts. b. Images on the retina are accurate, two-dimensional versions of their three-dimensional counterparts. c. Images on the retina are distorted, three-dimensional versions of their three-dimensional counterparts. d. Images on the retina are accurate, three-dimensional versions of their three-dimensional counterparts.

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Chapter 04_11e 56. If you wanted to explain, in everyday language, the subjective difference between the perception of pain signals received from the fast pathway as opposed to the slow pathway, which of the following choices would be most accurate? a. Fast pain feels mild, but slow pain feels intense. b. Fast pain feels sharp, but slow pain feels dull. c. Fast pain is more like emotional pain, but slow pain is more like physical pain. d. Fast pain is actually felt, but slow pain is the result of your expectations. 57. A variety of physical stimuli including mechanical, thermal, and chemical energy are the stimuli for the sense of a. touch. b. smell. c. taste. d. both taste and smell. 58. You are writing a term paper for your art history class. The topic of the paper includes the use of depth cues in painting. What is one thing that you might include in your paper? a. Early works of art used a full range of depth cues in the paintings. b. Color mixing was a common theme is early works of art to create depth. c. Early works of art rarely used depth cues in the paintings. d. The use of reversible figures was common in early paintings 59. The amplitude of light waves mainly affects the perception of a. brightness. b. color. c. purity. d. saturation. 60. What is inattentional blindness? a. The lack of perceptual experience for objects or events in part of the visual field because of that part’s task-irrelevance for a long period of time. b. The failure to see fully visible objects or events in a visual display because one’s sense receptors are fatigued from sustained effort. c. The short refractory period, after searching for and finding an object, in which further such objects are not noticed. d. The failure to see fully visible objects or events in a visual display because one’s attention is focused elsewhere. 61. Bob has visual agnosia and is unable to recognize common, everyday objects. This condition MOST likely results from damage to the a. lateral geniculate nucleus. b. superior colliculus. c. dorsal stream. d. ventral stream.

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Chapter 04_11e 62. As adults grow older, the main change in their auditory perception is the a. decreased sensitivity to high-frequency tones. b. decreased ability to tell where a sound is coming from. c. decreased sensitivity to low-frequency tones. d. inability to distinguish similar pitches. 63. The first part of the brain that receives visual information from the eye is the a. corpus callosum. b. primary visual cortex. c. thalamus. d. temporal lobe. 64. Which kind of information is particularly helpful to our visual system for identifying objects against a complex background? a. speed b. spatial relationships c. color d. depth 65. When separate, still pictures are projected rapidly one after the other, what do people perceive? a. smooth motion b. blurred motion c. jerky motion d. jumbled motion 66. An animal species normally active at night (or nocturnal) would be expected to have a visual system that consists primarily of a. rods. b. cones. c. bipolar cells. d. ganglion cells. 67. The purpose of the ossicles in the middle ear is to a. hold the auditory receptors. b. convert physical stimulation into neural impulses. c. funnel sound waves toward the eardrum. d. amplify tiny changes in air pressure. 68. Researchers have attributed inattentional blindness to subjects having a. unusually brief sensory memories due to fatigue from a long experiment. b. a perceptual set that leads them to focus most of their attention on a specific feature in a scene. c. little available working memory capacity to recognize additional objects. d. a lack of motivation to notice or remember details they weren’t explicitly asked to attend to. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04_11e 69. Suppose you want to build a computer model of how the visual system perceives written language, such as the words in this sentence. Feature detectors in early stages of the model are most likely to respond to a. horizontal, vertical, and diagonal lines. b. consonant and vowel sounds. c. letters of the alphabet. d. syllables. 70. Contradictory theories are common in psychology. For decades there were two areas where the theories appeared to be incompatible but recent research has proven otherwise. Which of the following are two of those opposing theories that are now seen as complementary? a. color vision and form perception b. form perception and depth perception c. color vision and pitch perception d. pitch perception and depth perception 71. Which of the following examples of visual stimuli in the textbook are most clearly associated with the idea of perceptual hypotheses? a. the Ames room illusion b. the Ames room illusion c. the old woman/ young woman drawing d. the man in the gorilla suit on a basketball court 72. Regarding theories of color vision, what do opponent process theory and trichromatic theory have in common? a. Both derive their basic principles from an understanding of how color vision was shaped by evolution. b. Both explain how we can see complementary afterimages. c. Both address the relationship between color vision and focus. d. Both assume that a specific set of colors, rather than an open-ended continuum, are important to the visual system. 73. People can often easily read sentences comprised of words with scrambled letters, such as “If yuo can read this, yuo hvae an amzanig mnid!” Which of the following is the most likely explanation for how people accomplish this? a. Context from the rest of the sentence allows one to assume the most likely interpretation for ambiguous words. b. Visual illusions occur, which show what the sentence should be rather than what it is. c. Depth cues allow one to see how far each letter is from where it should be. d. The Gestalt principle of continuity allows one to fill in missing information. 74. Which structure is responsible for helping regulate the amount of light passing into the rear chamber of the eye? a. the fovea b. the pupil c. the retina d. the retina

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Chapter 04_11e 75. Which of the following is the principle binocular depth cue used by our visual system? a. linear perspective b. retinal disparity c. interposition d. relative size 76. What effects on your vision, if any, are produced by activities such as sitting too close to the TV, reading in the dark, or spending too much time in front a computer screen? These activities can a. lead to difficulty focusing on nearby objects, although the effect is mild and easily addressed with corrective lenses. b. make your eyes feel tired or strained, but there is no evidence they damage your eyes or cause permanent changes in vision. c. increase the size of your blind spot, although this usually only lasts a few minutes. d. impair your daytime color vision, but the effect goes away after a few days’ break from these activities. 77. Which of the following is the MOST likely outcome if people are asked to read a sentence that repeats a word at the end of the first line and again in the beginning of the second line.? a. They will briefly stumble when the word is repeated. b. They won’t notice and will read the sentence normally. c. They will read the part of the sentence after the repeated word faster. d. They will need to reread the whole sentence to understand its intended meaning. 78. In what way is the term color blindness misleading? a. Color blindness changes the perceived saturation of light rather than the perceived wavelength. b. Color blindness changes the perceived amplitude of light rather than the perceived wavelength. c. Color blindness means a person is still able to perceive many different colors; however, the colors are less differentiated. d. Color blindness is actually a deficiency of light perception, not color perception. 79. Regarding the sense of smell, humans have an especially hard time a. locating the source of a smell. b. distinguishing between large numbers of odors. c. attaching names to various odors. d. integrating smell data with other kinds of sensory input. 80. Depth perception involves the interpretation of visual cues that indicate how a. large or small objects are. b. near or far away objects are. c. simple or complex objects are. d. relevant or irrelevant objects are.

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Chapter 04_11e 81. Based on your understanding of the human olfactory system, how plausible is the idea that some people could develop the smell equivalent of color blindness, making them unable to distinguish a major portion of important smells from one another? a. Very plausible, because the brain region responsible for interpreting smells is especially small, making accidental damage potentially serious. b. Not very plausible, because humans have a far larger library of basic smell receptors than they do basic color receptors. c. Very plausible, because the physical signal inherent in smell stimuli has less potential detail than those of other senses, making confusions more likely. d. Not very plausible, because major olfactory impairment would be more harmful to one’s chance of survival than visual impairment, making it evolutionarily unlikely. 82. Which of the following is a common auditory example of inattentional blindness? a. When it is difficult to concentrate on your current conversation because a more interesting one is happening in the background. b. When you temporarily lose the ability to hear sounds in a certain frequency range from ignoring them for long periods. c. When you mishear a word spoken to you as a word you expected rather than what was actually said. d. When someone clearly says something to you, but you don’t hear a word of what was said because you were “not listening.” 83. Both ambiguous figures and visual illusions demonstrate which of the following facts about human perception? a. Perception is not a simple reflection of objective reality. b. Perception amounts to further processing of input from sensation. c. Perception often involves the creation of a whole that is greater than the sum of its parts. d. Perception operates in stages, beginning with simple operations and ending with complex ones. 84. Which of the following would a person with colorblindness have the greatest difficulty telling apart? a. a red fruit on a green bush b. a yellow crayon next to a red crayon c. a red number on a blue background d. a blue logo on a yellow t-shirt 85. To create more lifelike paintings, the artist uses a. color mixing. b. distorted judgements. c. depth cues. d. size cues.

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Chapter 04_11e 86. Research conducted with monkeys and humans has shown that both species are especially sensitive to pictures of faces. Which part of the brain contains these cells? a. frontal lobe b. temporal lobe c. thalamus d. amygdala 87. For the most part, higher frequencies of sound are perceived as a. louder. b. higher-pitched. c. more discordant. d. more pure. 88. In terms of taste perception, the purpose of cleansing the palate when tasting wine is to a. reduce the aftereffects associated with sensory adaptation. b. ensure that the wine’s odor is released in the glass. c. distribute the wine over the full range of taste cells. d. ensure that one’s nasal passages are clear. 89. If you wanted to make sure your friend makes a particular interpretation of a reversible figure, the best strategy would be to a. orient the figure at the angle consistent with your desired interpretation. b. tell them what you want them to see before they look at the figure. c. alter the colors in the figure to make it appear more consistent with your desired interpretation. d. tell them what you want them to see after they’ve already spent some time looking at the figure. 90. While you are looking at something in the distance and an object comes between you and it, your visual system assumes that the object a. is more important. b. is larger. c. is closer. d. is moving faster. 91. When you enter a dark room on a bright sunny day, it might be initially very hard to see things inside the room. But after a few minutes, you can probably see the objects in the room and are able to walk through the room, even in dim light. This adjustment is called a. dark-sightedness. b. light adaptation. c. night vision. d. dark adaptation.

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Chapter 04_11e 92. The kind of color mixture that works by removing some wavelengths of light, leaving less light than was originally there, is called a. decrement color mixing. b. subtractive color mixing. c. opponent color mixing. d. negation color mixing. 93. Smell is the only human sensory system that a. is not routed through the thalamus before it projects onto the cortex. b. is especially sensitive in humans as compared to other animals. c. does not show an influence on expectations on perception. d. produces no outwardly obvious functional deficits when severely damaged. 94. An artist is told that her paintings look very “flat,” as if all the objects depicted are right next to each other. She could address this criticism by implementing which of the following into her art? a. feature analysis b. perceptual hypotheses c. pictorial depth cues d. visual illusions 95. Wanda is sitting in the park when she hears a sudden, high-pitched bird song. If she wants to figure out where the bird song is coming from so she can take a good photo of the bird, she will most likely rely on the difference in a. pitch of the bird song as she walks around the park. b. the depths of the sound shadows. c. volume of consecutive echoes of the bird song. d. intensity of the bird song between her two ears. 96. Stevie decided to go see the doctor after experiencing difficulties seeing in dim light. The doctor suspects that Stevie might have a problem with which structure in the eye? a. cones b. fovea c. rods d. lens 97. In the basketball study of inattentional blindness, participants viewed a video of two basketball teams, in which one team repeatedly passed the ball back and forth amongst themselves. The participants’ main task in this study was to a. count the number of passes by the team with the ball. b. count the number of players on each team. c. add up the numbers on the back of the players’ jerseys. d. keep an eye out for unusual events or situations.

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Chapter 04_11e 98. Suppose a person has an unusually deep voice. What can you most reasonably infer about the sound waves produced when they speak, as compared to someone with an average voice? a. The sound waves will move more air. b. The sound waves will create stronger vibrations. c. The sound waves will create slower vibrations. d. The sound waves will create more uniform vibrations. 99. Which Gestalt principle allows one to perceive a pile of noodles on a plate as one long noodle, rather than as a set of discrete noodle segments? a. closure b. simplicity c. proximity d. continuity 100. Some theorists have suggested that color vision evolved in humans and monkeys because it improved their survival abilities, such as the ability to find food. When would color most likely be useful in finding food? a. when the food resembles other food that is poisonous b. when the food has an unfamiliar odor c. when the food has a similar texture or shape as its surroundings d. when the food is one you’ve seen before 101. Given your knowledge about the bears that live in North America (e.g., the Grizzly bear) and the theory that visual systems are shaped by evolutionary demands, the bears will likely have visual cells that respond specifically to a. salmon. b. honey. c. cars. d. squirrels. 102. Which of the following statements accurately describes a major similarity between the pupil and the lens of the eye? a. both parts send signals directly to the brain b. both parts include a blind spot c. both parts play a major role in adjusting to newly light or dark conditions d. both parts adjust themselves to aid visual perception 103. In terms of how the brain accomplishes feature analysis, which of the following steps comes first? a. Feature detectors respond to specific aspects of stimuli. b. Feature detectors respond to specific aspects of stimuli. c. A decision is reached. d. A pattern of stimulation enters the retina.

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Chapter 04_11e 104. Which of the following situations is most likely to be explained by the phenomenon of sensory adaptation? a. Smells can be especially powerful reminders of autobiographical events, triggering memories of longforgotten experiences. b. Medical or neurological conditions can cause phantom smells, in which people smell odors for things that are not actually present. c. A person who has not bathed in several days may at first notice their body odor worsening over time, but later stop noticing anything unusual about their odor. d. A key lime pie which is made a particularly vivid shade of green with food coloring may be perceived as having a stronger lime scent than the same pie in a neutral color. 105. In the taste system, sensory adaptation can leave aftereffects. For example, adaptation to a sour solution makes water taste a. a mix of sour and other tastes b. even more sour. c. sweet. d. neutral. 106. The Ames room is a specially contrived room built with a trapezoidal rear wall and a sloping floor and ceiling. What illusion occurs when a person walks from one side to the other in this room? a. They momentarily seem to disappear. b. They appear to shrink or grow bigger. c. They seem to tilt more and more to the side. d. They seem to rotate until finally appearing to be upside down. 107. Which of the following actions, when done as an attempt to hear better, works by augmenting the external ear? a. cupping your hand behind your ear b. moving closer to where the sound came from c. turning your head toward the sound d. stopping what you were doing 108. Ainsley was born with an unusually low number of rods. Which aspect of driving a car will they have the MOST difficulty with? a. reading the speedometer in bright sunlight b. reading the stop sign while driving during dusk c. knowing when to stop and when to go at a traffic light d. judging the space between cars when parking the car 109. A common perceptual task is auditory localization, which is best defined as a. judging whether the source of a sound is typical in the present environment. b. figuring out the identity of the source of a sound. c. locating the source of a sound in space. d. figuring out how far away the source of a sound is.

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Chapter 04_11e 110. When perceiving objects in the environment, the dorsal stream of the visual cortex processes the details of a. what objects there are. b. how the objects relate to each other. c. when (how long ago) the objects were seen. d. where the objects are. 111. Sky is traveling with a group of friends from Chicago to Dallas. Sky asks one of the friends to drive them all from Chicago to Dallas and is told, "No." Sky than askes their friend to drive them to the airport instead. Sky is using the a. door-in-the-face technique. b. foot-in-the-door technique. c. low-balling technique. d. contrasting effect. 112. You look at an image of a small white square inside a larger red square. You stare at it for 30 seconds, and then shift your attention to a blank white screen. According to opponent process theory, what will you see on the blank screen? a. a small white square inside a larger red square b. a small red square inside a larger white square c. a small black square inside a larger green square d. a small green square inside a larger black square 113. Which of the following kinds of stimuli are responsible for gustatory sensory input? a. vibrations of molecules traveling through some physical medium b. chemical substances that are soluble c. volatile chemical substances that can evaporate and be carried in the air d. mechanical, thermal, and chemical energy 114. The key point demonstrated by reversible figures is that a. bottom-up processing cannot provide a complete account of visual perception. b. people routinely overlook obvious visual forms that are unexpected. c. the same visual input can result in radically different perceptions. d. dividing visual displays into figure and ground is a fundamental way that people organize visual perceptions. 115. Which of the following is an example that supports that idea that what people experience is highly subjective? a. The wavelengths our eyes can detect b. The chemical substances that dissolve while we are chewing c. What we see when looking at ambiguous figures and visual illusions d. The least amount of pressure our skin receptors can detect

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Chapter 04_11e 116. The cochlea is best described as a. a mechanical chain made up of the three tiniest bones in your body. b. the neural tissue that holds the ear’s auditory cells. c. a fluid-filled, coiled tunnel that contains the receptors for hearing. d. a sound-collecting cone. 117. If you wanted to explain the gate-control theory of pain relief in everyday language, the best explanation would be that the pain-relieving mechanism a. allows pain signals into the brain but neutralizes them with endorphins. b. refuses to allow pain signals into the brain. c. stops pain from leaving the local area of the injury. d. deadens nerves at the site of the injury, so no pain signals are created in the first place. 118. Suppose an explorer enters a dark cave during a bright, sunny day. In the period of dark adaptation that follows, when would she notice the greatest gains in detailed visual processing? a. starting after about five minutes b. during the first few minutes c. starting after about 30 minutes d. starting after about 20 minutes 119. A sound is considered the most pure when it only has one a. loudness. b. frequency. c. source. d. recipient. 120. Auditory localization is MOST analogous to which of the following visual processes? a. depth perception b. inattentional blindness c. color perception d. feature analysis 121. Which of the following aspects of our visual system does trichromatic color theory most directly and successfully explain? a. the ability to perceive depth b. the appearance of complementary afterimages c. the ability to easily recognize faces d. the nature and types of color blindness

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Chapter 04_11e 122. Suppose Jessica puts on a pair of glasses with red lenses, and then puts on a second pair (in front of the first) with blue lenses. What color tint will her visual system see? a. blue minus red b. either red or blue, but not both c. a combination of red and blue d. red minus blue 123. Based on your understanding of the Müller-Lyer illusion, if a straight line of the same length is used in several different drawings, it will appear the longest when used as a. the middle segment of a line with an arrow pointing up on top and an arrow pointing down on the bottom. b. the last and largest line in a series of lines which progressively increase in size from left to right. c. the torso of a stick figure person whose arms are stretched diagonally up and legs are placed diagonally down. d. the center line in a large capital letter “I.” 124. In terms of the competition and eventual scientific consensus regarding the frequency and place theories, these theories are most similar to which ideas in the study of visual perception? a. heuristic and algorithmic processing b. bottom-up and top-down processing c. trichromatic and opponent-process color perception d. gestalt principles and the resulting visual illusions 125. Suppose a doctor wanted to minimize the amount of pain felt by her patients when they are given necessary injections. Based on your understanding of touch sensation, which of the following strategies is most likely to succeed? a. telling patients that the injections won’t hurt much b. informing patients how important the injections are c. administering the injections in patients’ non-dominant arms d. warning patients right before they receive an injection 126. Miley Cyrus has a nasal voice and Adel has a gravelly voice. There is a different in the complexity of the sound waves produced by both women. What dimension of our hearing describes the differences? a. saturation b. loudness c. pitch d. timbre 127. The phi phenomenon is the illusion of movement that explains a. the comparison between different images on a screen to each other. b. that many kinds of perceptual inferences are made easier by binocular vision. c. how presenting individual stimuli in rapid succession leads to the perception of movement. d. how our attention on interesting objects appears to move.

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Chapter 04_11e 128. A reversible figure is a drawing that a. effectively persuades people to revise their beliefs or mental models about the depicted objects. b. appears identical when flipped along its vertical axis (i.e., when made into a mirror image of itself). c. is compatible with two different interpretations that can shift back and forth. d. is still perceived as realistic even when the colors of the depicted objects are inverted. 129. Which physical characteristic of sound waves determines perceived loudness? a. wavelength b. wavelength c. periodicity d. purity 130. Which physical characteristic is most likely to differ between the sound wave of a note played on a guitar and that of the same-pitch note played on a piano? a. purity b. wavelength c. periodicity d. amplitude 131. Suppose you are designing a movie poster, which will include the printed names of two actors: Dan Rogers and Laura Martinez. How might you use the Gestalt principle of proximity to ensure there is no confusion as to which first and last names go together? a. Print “Dan” and “Rogers” in the same font, but “Laura” and “Martinez” in a different font. b. Print “Dan” and “Rogers” near each other, but far away from, “Laura” and “Martinez.” c. Keep the last names “Rogers” and “Martinez” together, but put the first names “Dan” and “Laura” farther away. d. Print “Dan” and “Rogers” in a row, but “Laura” and “Martinez” in a column. 132. What difference might we expect in auditory perception for a man with a head that is larger than average? a. He will be less susceptible to auditory illusions. b. There will be a greater difference in perceived intensity between his two ears. c. There will be a greater difference in perceived pitch between his two ears. d. There will be a greater difference in perceived pitch between his two ears. 133. In a simulated driving study of inattentional blindness, participants were less likely to notice an unexpected pedestrian or animal in a high demand attention condition. This result is most consistent with which of the following facts about visual perception? a. Perception involves interpreting and the more attention that is required, the more likely irrelevant stimulus will be filtered out. b. The visual system may be hardwired to detect features that are important in our survival and adaptation. c. The visual system gets “stuck” on one interpretation of a visual stimulus, and is only able to reinterpret it. d. The visual system initially detects specific elements and only later assembles them into a more complex whole.

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Chapter 04_11e 134. In recent decades, researchers have proven how the visual system actually accomplishes color perception in each stage of processing. Specifically, what did they find? a. The first stage of processing follows trichromatic theory, and later stages follow opponent process theory. b. The first stage of processing follows opponent process theory, and later stages follow trichromatic theory. c. The first stage of processing follows additive color mixing, and later stages follow subtractive color mixing. d. The first stage of processing follows subtractive color mixing, and later stages follow additive color mixing. 135. A major functional difference between the outer and inner ear is that a. the outer ear collects sound, while the inner ear turns sound into neural impulses. b. the outer ear depends on the motion of waves in a fluid, while the inner ear depends on the vibration of air molecules. c. the outer ear’s functioning is unaffected by your own physical actions, but the inner ear’s functioning can be enhanced with various strategies. d. the outer ear routes signals to the thalamus, while the inner ear routes signals directly to the auditory cortex. 136. Which of the following choices most accurately explains the difference between sensation and perception in everyday language? a. Perception is what you see, but sensation is what you think about what you see. b. Sensation is what you think about when you hear your favorite song, but perception is hearing the song. c. Perception is what your organs do, but sensation is what your mind does. d. Sensation is what your organs do, but perception is what your mind does. 137. Perception can be thought of as the a. retrieval of personal experiences and memory of information about our surroundings. b. stimulation of various sense nerves and the signals that are produced. c. selection, organization, and interpretation of sensory input. d. matching of things in the world to concepts stored in our memory. 138. Ashlynn was listening to a recording of a famous speech that was being played backward. She just heard gibberish until a classmate said the phrase, “Meet me in St. Louis,” was clearly spoken. The tape was rewound and as Ashlynn listened this time, she also clearly heard the same phrase. Ashlynn’s ability to detect the phrase the second time through the tape illustrates the _____ model of perception. a. opponent process b. opponent process c. bottom-up processing d. eclectic

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Chapter 04_11e 139. Nearsightedness and farsightedness are both caused by abnormalities of which aspect of the eye? a. the shape of the lens b. the location of the blind spot c. the receptive fields of the visual cells d. the length of the optic chiasm 140. Suppose a person’s pupils become stuck in an over-dilated state because of a neurological injury. How would their vision most likely be affected? a. All colors would look gray or black to them. b. Their peripheral vision would become almost as acute as their central vision. c. They will be unable to adjust focus, which will be stuck on either near or far objects. d. Things would appear unpleasantly bright and hard to look at. 141. The sense of touch responds to which of the following kinds of stimuli? a. Volatile chemical substances that can evaporate and be carried in the air b. Chemical substances that are soluble c. Vibrations of molecules traveling through some physical medium d. Mechanical, thermal, and chemical energy 142. Your niece, Grace, seems to be enjoying the paint-and-easel kit you bought for her birthday. However, she tells you she’s having trouble creating some colors using only the red, green, and blue paints you chose. If you can only afford to buy her one more paint color, which should you get for her? a. yellow b. gray c. orange d. purple 143. Your teacher wants to demonstrate the depth cue of linear perspective, so the class is shown a picture of a. a long stretch of highway where the road lines go off into the distance. b. the stripes on the back of a zebra. c. a city skyline taken from far away. d. an image from Google maps that shows the grid of city streets 144. Top-down processing happens when a progression occurs from a. unimportant details to important details. b. the lower half of the visual field to the upper half. c. individual elements to the whole. d. the whole to individual elements.

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Chapter 04_11e 145. Illusions in the Ames room depend on which perfectly normal assumption? a. the assumption that closer objects in the room are smaller b. the assumption that people in the room remain a constant size c. the assumption that the room is vertically and horizontally rectangular d. the assumption that the room is an artificial rather than natural environment 146. Which statement correctly describes the relative number of rods and cones in the human eye? a. Cones outnumber rods in childhood, but this balance shifts over one’s lifetime. b. There are approximately equal numbers of rods and cones. c. Rods outnumber cones by a huge margin. d. Cones outnumber rods by a huge margin. 147. As signals move farther along in the visual processing system, what changes occur regarding which information neurons respond to? a. They initially respond to closer objects, then to farther objects. b. They initially respond to shape, then respond to color. c. They initially respond to simple features, then to complex features. d. They initially respond to literal features, then to abstract features. 148. Regarding touch sensation, placebo effects are especially helpful in understanding a. the subjective nature of pain. b. the mapping of touch perception to specific brain regions. c. the subjective difference between touch input applied to different parts of the body. d. the similarities between touch and taste. 149. In terms of demographics, color blindness occurs much more frequently in a. adults than in children. b. children than in adults. c. males than in females. d. females than in males. 150. An example of a car accident caused by inattentional blindness would be which of the following? a. Attempting a difficult steering maneuver but not concentrating enough on the technique and hitting another car b. Driving during a snowstorm, where it is hard to see other cars around you and hitting another car c. Following too closely to the car ahead and being unable to brake quickly enough when it slows down and hitting the other car d. Texting to a friend while driving and thus failing to notice the brake lights on the car ahead and hitting the other car

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Chapter 04_11e 151. Which of the following kinds of stimuli cause auditory sensory input? a. volatile chemical substances that can evaporate and be carried in the air b. mechanical, thermal, and chemical energy c. vibrations of molecules traveling through some physical medium d. chemical substances that are soluble 152. Which part of the retina is responsible for each eye’s blind spot? a. the optic chiasm b. the lens c. the optic disk d. the cataract 153. Sensation is defined as the a. stimulation of sense organs. b. matching of things in the world to concepts stored in memory. c. selection, organization, and interpretation of sensory input. d. storage of information about one’s physical surroundings. 154. The human visual system is actually unable to see certain colors that theoretically could exist – for example, yellowish-blue. Which idea or theory about the visual system best explains this fact? a. opponent process theory b. complementary color effect c. trichromatic theory d. color blindness 155. A person's perception of flavor is often affected by a. textural inconsistencies in foods. b. hue, brightness, and saturation of foods. c. the smell of the food. d. early childhood, where taste preferences become fixed. 156. Perceptual set is defined as a(n) a. readiness to perceive a stimulus in a particular way. b. set of stimulus features that may be interpreted in two different ways. c. set of objects that are perceived together. d. stimulus modality one typically prefers.

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Chapter 04_11e 157. Suppose a person is shown the following written sentence: “The state governors met with their respective legislatures convening in the capital city.” However, the first “s” in legislatures is completely crossed out and illegible. What prediction would we make if reading was based entirely on bottom-up processing? a. They will perceive the “s” as actually being there based on recognizing the ideas in the paragraph containing the word legislature. b. They will perceive the “s” as actually being there based on recognizing the rest of the word legislature. c. They will fail to perceive the missing “s” and will fail to recognize the word legislature. d. They will at first fail to perceive the “s,” but then after reading each of the other letters, will recognize the word legislature and assume the missing letter is “s.” 158. Perceptual constancy allows you to perceive another person as a stable size even as they a. appear against backgrounds of varying textures. b. move toward or away from you. c. move into or out of shadow. d. change apparent color because of different lighting conditions. 159. Modern research has shown that tones with similar frequencies are represented by neighboring cells in the cochlea. Which other human sensory system has the most similar organizational structure for its receptor cells? a. touch b. smell c. vision d. taste 160. Which of the following situations is most plausibly explained by top-down processing? a. using deductive reasoning to figure out that your roommate, who has repeatedly expressed jealousy of your new laptop, is probably the one who borrowed it without asking b. understanding the spoken word “museum” by recognizing each of the individual sounds, combining them, then checking that word against stored patterns in long-term memory c. easily recognizing a friend in the distance, despite foggy conditions that make it hard to see, because you expected to see him d. solving problems in a structured way, so that the most important (“top”) goals are achieved first, and less important goals are achieved later 161. Consider the phenomenon of perceptual learning, in which experience with a set of stimuli allows one to more quickly or easily distinguish them. For example, a radiologist learns to distinguish a malignant growth from an artifact of the x-ray image, based on small differences in size or shape. Which of the following changes could plausibly occur in the eye to support such learning? a. The pupil changes its shape more readily and drastically to the learned stimuli. b. New rods and/or cones are created specifically for recognizing the learned stimuli. c. Visual cells become more likely to respond to relevant features of the stimuli. d. Visual cells that are relevant to the stimuli migrate toward the fovea.

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Chapter 04_11e 162. Input from the right visual field is processed in the a. right half of the brain. b. back half of the brain. c. front half of the brain. d. left half of the brain. 163. Suppose you are visiting the bat house at the local zoo. One previously-still bat suddenly jumps as if startled. Of the following, which is the most likely explanation based on the principles of auditory perception that explains why the bat reacted to a stimulus while you did not? a. The bat heard a sudden sound that was too high-pitched for the human ear to process. b. The bat wasn’t startled, it just needs to turn its head more than you would to locate the source of sounds. c. The bat is so much smaller that the same intensity sound wave knocked it off balance yet didn’t even grab your attention. d. The bat heard a sudden sound that was too quiet for the human ear to process. 164. Odors cannot be classified as neatly as tastes because a. smell receptors are more difficult to safely examine than taste receptors. b. there are so many different types of smell receptors. c. quick sensory adaptation makes experiments on smell slow and tedious. d. smell receptors vary substantially over time as to which stimuli they respond to. 165. The Ames room, in which people seem to change size as they move about, demonstrates that our perception of the world depends strongly on a. the assumptions we make about it. b. the actual, distal stimuli. c. the proximal stimulus elements. d. bottom-up processing. 166. If two lines cast equally long retinal images but one seems to be closer, what perceptual illusion occurs? a. The closer one is assumed to be shorter. b. The closer one is assumed to be wider. c. The closer one is assumed to be deeper. d. The closer one is assumed to be darker. 167. Which of the following perceptions is most consistent with top-down processing? a. recognizing a whole word before recognizing all of its individual letters b. seeing a stimulus as a letter while another person sees it as a number c. judging objects as smaller when they are high in the air rather than low near the ground d. processing individual lines before whole shapes

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Chapter 04_11e 168. Which visual receptors play a key role in our daylight and color vision? a. cones b. wavelength detectors c. color cells d. rods 169. The fact that the corner of a building thrust toward the viewer looks shorter than an inside corner thrust away from the viewer can be accounted for by the a. horizontal-vertical illusion. b. Ponzo illusion. c. Müller-Lyer illusion. d. illusion of relative size. 170. Olfactory cilia are best described as a. catalysts that dissolve chemical stimuli to allow extraction of smell information. b. the first cells that begin the brain’s processing of olfactory input. c. cells that route smell information directly to the brain. d. hair-like structures that serve as smell receptors. 171. Which large region of the ear is the last stop before auditory signals are sent to the brain? a. ossicles b. middle ear c. inner ear d. external ear 172. Research shows that which of the following play an important role for people suffering from chronic pain? a. endorphins b. sensory integration c. glial cells d. vestibular system 173. Of the following examples, which is MOST likely to help reduce the risk for hearing loss? a. Alternating days when you listen to music and days you don’t b. Sitting as far away as possible from the source of the sound and still being able to hear it. c. Having at least a few hours of totally quiet time each day d. Wearing earplugs when attending concerts or loud events 174. Which touch-related phenomenon is most specialized in its survival function as a warning system for danger? a. pressure b. warmth c. numbness d. pain

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Chapter 04_11e 175. Retinal disparity refers to the fact that perceived objects project slightly different images to the left and right retina, which differ in a. size. b. texture. c. color. d. location. 176. In humans, the bulk of the somatosensory cortex is devoted to processing touch signals coming from a. the fingers, palms, and lips. b. the fingers, lips, and tongue. c. the fingers, toes, and lips. d. the fingers, arms, and scalp. 177. Which insight forms the basis of Gestalt psychology? a. People routinely overlook obvious forms that are unexpected or ignored. b. People must interpret visual cues in order to figure out how near or far away objects are. c. The whole in visual perception can be greater than the sum of its parts. d. Perceptions are occasionally inaccurate, resulting in visual illusions. 178. In a research study on attractiveness, male college students were asked to rate the attractiveness of an average-looking female. During the study, a photo was shown to the men either before or after watching a program with extremely beautiful women in the program. The men who were shown the photo after watching the program viewed the photo as less attractive. This is an example of what? a. the influence of extreme comparators b. the effect of desensitization c. perceptual sets d. sensory adaptation 179. Suppose an artist is creating a painting of a field of corn that extends far out into the horizon. How might he use texture gradients to convey the perception of depth? a. make the distant rows of corn look brighter, as if they are reflecting more sunlight b. add items of different visual textures than the rows of corn, especially for the distant rows c. include less texture detail for the distant rows of corn compared to the closer rows d. include less texture detail for the distant rows of corn compared to the closer rows 180. Modern research has shown that place theory is a mostly-accurate account of audition. The only result it failed to predict is the fact that a. the hair cells along the basilar membrane are not independent. b. a soundwave peaks at a particular spot, depending on the frequency of the sound wave. c. different sets of hair cells are vibrated by different sound frequencies. d. the brain detects the frequency of a tone according to which area along the basilar membrane is most active.

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Chapter 04_11e 181. There is great concern among parents about hearing loss in adolescents. Based on your understanding of both auditory processing and the different factors that can contribute to hearing loss, which of the following, if used by adolescents, would likely reduce the rates of hearing loss? a. headphones which are effective at noise canceling and reduce background noise to a low, imperceptible level b. over-the-ear headphones that are as comfortable as earbuds c. affordable headphones with increased sound quality that give the impression of listening to live music d. headphones that do not lose any sound quality and only need to be used in one ear 182. Your friend Eli has a very high-pitched voice compared to yours. Out of curiosity, you record both of you speaking, so you can examine the physical waveform of the recordings on computer software. What would you expect Eli's to look like when compared with yours? a. The peaks and valleys would be very flattened out, with long horizontal sections. b. The peaks and valleys would show large deviations from the center point. c. The peaks and valleys would be close together from left to right. d. The peaks and valleys would not deviate too much from the center point. 183. Modern brain imaging has shown that a large amount of brain matter in the somatosensory cortex is dedicated to processing touch input from the fingers. Which of the following skills or abilities that were useful in our evolutionary past were most likely to benefit as a result? a. tool use b. fighting c. nonverbal communication d. social coordination 184. If, in a painting, a figure of a person is drawn larger than a house, the house will seem to be _____ because of a. closer; interposition. b. farther away; interposition. c. farther away; relative size. d. closer; relative size. 185. Asher enters his dark basement from his sunny back porch. He’s having trouble seeing in the low lighting conditions. Which of the following actions will lead to his vision adjusting to the low light? a. squinting until the process starts to speed up b. keeping both eyes closed except for occasional peeks to check on the process c. waiting until the process occurs on its own d. stretching to improve blood flow to his head and optic nerves 186. Isis eats a low-salt potato chip and spits it out saying, "That is so salty!" She also does not like to eat pickles, broccoli or sour candy because it all tastes "too bitter." It is likely that Isis is a(n) a. supertaster. b. nontaster. c. taster. d. ultrataster. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04_11e 187. The fact that human ears are set apart is most helpful for a. pitch perception. b. music perception. c. auditory localization. d. understanding language. 188. Sensory adaptation can explain all of the following EXCEPT a. getting used to the smell of the perfume you are wearing. b. hearing your name spoken in a noisy room. c. feeling comfortable in a cold swimming pool after being in for a few minutes. d. getting used to the touch of your clothes on your skin. 189. The reason that people respond positively to the door-in-the-face technique is related to which perceptual principle? a. everything is relative b. the world is fair c. extreme comparators d. retinal disparity 190. Based on your understanding of the evolutionary significance of high-level feature detectors, which of the following species of animal is most likely to have cells that respond to human faces? a. coyotes b. dogs c. apes d. giraffes 191. If Sammy wanted to demonstrate the moon illusion to his friends, the best approach would be to show them which two pictures of the moon? a. one picture of the moon low in the sky near tall buildings, and one of the same moon high in the sky b. one picture of the moon during the day and one of the same moon at night c. one picture of the moon taken from a high altitude and one taken from ground level d. one picture of the moon as viewed by the naked eye, and one as viewed through a telescope 192. Jason is about to eat dinner at a fancy new restaurant. He has ordered several new foods he has never tried before. If he wants to make sure he experiences the full range of flavors of each food, the best strategy would be to a. avoid looking at the food before eating it. b. cut the food into small pieces before putting it in his mouth. c. chew the food while keeping his eyes closed. d. move the food around the inside of his mouth while chewing it.

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Chapter 04_11e 193. The Gestalt principle in which people group elements to create a sense of completeness is known as a. proximity. b. closure. c. figure and ground. d. continuity. 194. Of the following, the existence of the fast pathway of pain best explains why a. you immediately jerk your hand back after touching a hot stove. b. your heartbeat and other vital signs speed up, rather than slowing down, when in pain. c. being distracted while receiving a vaccination is likely to reduce the level of pain you feel. d. people vary considerably in how painful they perceive the same physical stimuli to be. 195. When receiving signals about objects in the environment, the ventral stream of the visual cortex processes the details of a. when (how long ago) the objects were seen. b. what objects there are. c. where the objects are. d. how the objects relate to each other. 196. Place theory claims that perception of pitch corresponds to a. the location of the listener relative to the source of the sound. b. the rate at which the entire basilar membrane vibrates. c. the specific part of the primary auditory cortex that processes an audio signal. d. the vibration of different portions along the basilar membrane. 197. The idea that color perception depends on receptors that make antagonistic responses to three pairs of colors is called a. opponent process theory. b. subtractive color mixing. c. trichromatic theory d. binary receptor theory. 198. Bottom-up processing, an important component of feature analysis models, is defined as a progression from a. unimportant details to important details. b. the lower half of the visual field to the upper half. c. individual elements to the whole. d. the whole to individual elements. 199. Why are most people unaware they have a blind spot in each eye? a. It is located in a part of the visual field that’s irrelevant for most tasks. b. They don’t work in jobs or hobbies that require high visual acuity. c. They have learned to ignore it. d. The brain fills in the missing part of the image. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04_11e 200. Which of the following is the MOST general of the Gestalt principles describing how individual elements are grouped into good figures? a. continuity b. proximity c. similarity d. simplicity

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Chapter 04_11e Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. d 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. c 24. d 25. b 26. a

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Chapter 04_11e 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. d 42. a 43. b 44. b 45. a 46. c 47. a 48. d 49. a 50. b 51. b 52. a 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04_11e 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. a 60. d 61. d 62. a 63. c 64. c 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. b 69. a 70. c 71. c 72. d 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. b 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. b 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04_11e 83. a 84. a 85. c 86. b 87. b 88. a 89. b 90. c 91. d 92. b 93. a 94. c 95. d 96. c 97. a 98. c 99. d 100. c 101. a 102. d 103. d 104. c 105. c 106. b 107. a 108. b 109. c 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04_11e 111. a 112. c 113. b 114. c 115. c 116. c 117. b 118. a 119. b 120. a 121. d 122. d 123. c 124. c 125. a 126. d 127. c 128. c 129. b 130. a 131. b 132. b 133. a 134. a 135. a 136. c 137. c

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Chapter 04_11e 138. b 139. a 140. d 141. d 142. a 143. a 144. d 145. c 146. c 147. c 148. a 149. c 150. d 151. c 152. c 153. a 154. a 155. c 156. a 157. c 158. b 159. c 160. c 161. c 162. d 163. a 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04_11e 166. a 167. a 168. a 169. c 170. d 171. c 172. c 173. d 174. d 175. d 176. b 177. c 178. a 179. c 180. a 181. a 182. c 183. a 184. c 185. c 186. a 187. c 188. b 189. a 190. b 191. a 192. d 193. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04_11e 194. a 195. b 196. d 197. a 198. c 199. d 200. d

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Chapter 05_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Regarding the psychological and physiological experience of sleep, one cross-cultural survey of ten divergent countries found only modest differences in which two factors? a. The average number of dreams people remember and their preferred bedtimes b. The average number of dreams people remember and the time it takes them to fall asleep c. The average amount of time that people sleep and the time it takes them to fall asleep d. The average amount of time that people sleep and their preferred bedtimes 2. The midday napping practices of “siesta cultures” are adaptive because the siesta allows individuals a. a necessary break from their extremely physical labor. b. to sleep at the same time as their young infants. c. time to digest their large midday meal. d. to avoid working during the hottest part of the day. 3. Dr. Lajevardi is an oncologist who is treating some of his patients with chemotherapy. If he wants to reduce their symptoms of nausea and vomiting, which of the following is the most effective drug he could prescribe? a. Oxycodone b. Marijuana c. Alcohol d. Mescaline 4. Psychological dependence is possible with all recreational drugs, although it only rarely occurs for a. alcohol. b. hallucinogens. c. marijuana. d. narcotics. 5. For a person with somnambulism, you would predict that their disordered behavior is least likely to occur during which stage of sleep? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. REM d. Stage 3

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Chapter 05_11e 6. Which of the following situations is least consistent with the idea that consciousness is not an all-or-nothing phenomenon? a. A driver, who is distracted by sudden commotion in the back of their car, may fail to see a stop sign even while looking right at it. b. A person engaged in conversation at a party may instantly hear their name even when spoken by someone across the room in another conversation. c. People under surgical anesthesia occasionally hear comments made during their surgery, which they later repeat to their surprised surgeons. d. A parent can sleep through a loud thunderstorm or a buzzing alarm clock, but may immediately hear the muffled sound of the baby crying down the hall. 7. For people who abuse sedatives, the desired effects are most similar to those of a. hallucinogens. b. marijuana. c. alcohol. d. stimulants. 8. Which drugs are most known for causing distortions in sensory and perceptual experience? a. Alcohol b. Hallucinogens c. Sedatives d. Stimulants 9. As they age and experience resulting shifts in sleep patterns, adolescents are much less likely than older adults to report a. more total sleep time. b. more vivid dreams. c. lighter sleep. d. less frequent awakenings. 10. Based on your knowledge of drug dependence, the best strategy for someone to avoid withdrawal effects after deciding to stop using a medication is to a. add medication that has the opposite effects of the previous one in the short-term after quitting. b. do a slow taper down of the dosage of the medication rather than quitting all at once. c. completely stop the medication all at once rather than in stages. d. take extra medication to address withdrawal symptoms from the previous medication. 11. Cycles of which type of external cue are most directly responsible for resetting human biological clocks? a. Smell b. Temperature c. Sound d. Light

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Chapter 05_11e 12. In experiments, hypnotized subjects have been induced to throw what they believed to be harmful acid into the face of a research assistant. This example MOST clearly shows which function of hypnotism? a. Anesthesia b. Sensory distortions c. Disinhibition d. Posthypnotic suggestion 13. Seamus is a man from urban Ireland, whereas Kaaxáoi is a man from an indigenous hunter-gatherer tribe in Brazil. Their dreams are most likely to have which of the following themes in common? a. Having sex b. Failing an exam c. Swimming d. Being late and missing a train 14. The hormone melatonin plays a key role in a. regulating daytime nervous system function. b. adjusting biological clocks. c. promoting wakefulness. d. preventing mind wandering. 15. The stage of sleep most associated with dreaming is a. stage 1. b. stage 2. c. stage 3. d. REM. 16. The 24-hour biological cycles found in humans and many other species are referred to as a. stages of consciousness. b. life cycles. c. biological rhythms. d. circadian rhythms. 17. When used as prescribed, which of the following types of drugs would you predict is least likely to impair one’s ability to safely drive a car? a. Cannabis b. Sedatives c. Stimulants d. Narcotics

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Chapter 05_11e 18. The most obvious effects of selective deprivation of REM sleep on laboratory participants is shown in their a. daytime functioning. b. physiological measurements. c. cognitive task performance. d. patterns of sleeping. 19. In geographic terms, researchers believe chronic sleep deprivation is a serious problem a. primarily in the United States. b. mostly in the western hemisphere. c. mostly in industrialized countries. d. globally. 20. Grace’s college volleyball team will soon be traveling to compete with other schools in this year’s championship tournament. Based on your knowledge of biological rhythms, you would expect them to perform at their best if they travel to play a team a. take melatonin the night before a game. on the east coast. b. travel to play a team on the west coast. c. play in the morning rather than at night.that is located north of them. d. compete after, rather than before, having breakfast.that is located south of them. 21. In terms of how biological rhythms affect mental functioning over the course of the day, when would you expect body temperature to be at its lowest point? a. Early in the morning b. Midday c. Late in the day d. Just before bedtime 22. Stimulants are drugs known for a. their chemical similarities to marijuana. b. being capable of relieving pain. c. having the most powerful effects on mental and emotional functioning. d. increasing central nervous system activation and behavioral activity. 23. In dreams, as compared to in their wakeful state, people are more tolerant of a. perceptual ambiguity. b. boring situations. c. unpleasant situations. d. logical inconsistencies.

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Chapter 05_11e 24. Cocaine and amphetamines have fairly similar psychoactive effects, except that cocaine produces a a. briefer high. b. longer high. c. more intense high. d. less intense high. 25. Which of the following terms, referring to being under the spell of an event or story, is named after the first person to popularize hypnosis? a. Captivated b. Hypnotized c. Mesmerized d. Spellbound 26. Which of the following is the clearest example of an indirect effect of drugs on physical health? a. Having acid reflux the morning after drinking from the alcohol’s relaxing effects on one’s throat muscles b. Falling and spraining one’s ankle from being too drunk to walk c. Experiencing heart palpitations after taking a much-higher-than-prescribed dose of stimulants d. Developing lung cancer as a result of excessive marijuana use 27. Sleep researchers often refer to the “architecture” of sleep, which includes a. the characteristics of the physical environment in which sleep occurs. b. sleep-related anatomy such as the cerebral cortex and upper airway. c. sleeping behavior and the characteristics of the stages of sleep. d. the characteristics of the bed or other sleeping structure. 28. Of the following, the most accurately stated difference between insomnia and sleep apnea is that a. insomnia causes difficulty falling asleep, whereas sleep apnea causes difficulty staying asleep. b. insomnia is primarily an anatomical problem, whereas sleep apnea is primarily a hormonal problem. c. insomnia is often first noticed by one’s bed partner, whereas sleep apnea is often first noticed by oneself. d. the symptoms of insomnia often appear during the day, whereas the symptoms of sleep apnea often appear at night. 29. Large, slow delta waves first appear in which stage of sleep? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. REM 30. Research suggests that one risk factor for somnambulism is a. a family history. b. eating before bedtime. c. other sleep problems. d. the use of benzodiazepines. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05_11e 31. Many theorists believe that virtually all abused drugs eventually increase activity in a particular neural pathway which processes a. rewards. b. punishment. c. self-concept. d. higher-level thought. 32. In terms of how quickly cannabis affects one’s mental state after being smoked, it shows a(n) a. immediate impact that may last several hours. b. delayed impact that may only last a few minutes. c. immediate impact that may last days. d. delayed impact that may last days. 33. When in the sleep cycle does REM sleep usually first occur? a. In the beginning of the cycle, before stage 1 b. When reaching what should be stage 1 after the sleep cycle reverses itself c. Just before waking up for the day d. Just after stage 3 of sleep 34. When measuring brain activity, the purpose of placing electrodes on the scalp is to a. figure out whether a person is dreaming. b. record the content of a person’s dreams. c. objectively record a person's sensations. d. examine the relationship between mental states and brain activity. 35. The brief transitional stage of light sleep that usually lasts only 10–12 minutes is which stage of sleep? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. REM 36. Based on their respective symptoms, which other sleep disorder could most plausibly be mistaken for insomnia by the person experiencing it? a. Somnambulism, because the sleepwalking behavior may feel like normal middle-of-the-night activity b. Narcolepsy, because frequent daytime periods of sleep could prevent one from being tired enough to fall asleep for the night c. Sleep apnea, because lapses in breathing could cause shallow, restless sleep without the person realizing exactly why they are awake d. REM sleep behavior disorder, because both disorders involve the subjective experience of acting out dreams

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Chapter 05_11e 37. Based on your knowledge of various sleep disorders, which of the following strategies would be most helpful for treating sleep apnea? a. A drug which activates brain centers for wakefulness, making one less likely to fall asleep during the day b. A device that delivers positive air pressure to the upper airway, making it less likely to collapse c. A sedative drug which ensures muscle relaxation during all stages of sleep d. A psychosurgical procedure which targets brain regions linked to seizures or uncontrolled muscle contractions 38. Meditation is associated with increased relaxation based on the fact that when people are meditating and are connected to EEGs, they show increased a. delta waves. b. gamma waves. c. beta waves. d. alpha waves. 39. The term for a systematic procedure that typically produces a heightened state of suggestibility is a. dissociation. b. mental capture. c. mesmerism. d. hypnotism. 40. If you wanted to engage in mindfulness meditation while doing the dishes, the best strategy would be to a. allow your mind to focus on whatever important problems or worries you’ve been having recently. b. allow your mind to wander and focus on the sensations of your arms and hands in the water. c. notice the sights and sounds of the dishwashing, including the dishes themselves, the soap, the sponge, etc. d. notice the thoughts and feelings you have, whether positive or negative, about the fact that you’re doing the dishes. 41. Your friend is coming down with the flu and asks you, an expert on the psychology of meditation, whether meditating might be worthwhile for her. The most accurate response would be, a. “Yes, because it can help you build emotional resilience to deal with being stuck indoors.” b. “Yes, because learning to be more aware will make the symptoms less unpleasant.” c. “Yes, because meditation can improve immune function and the quality of your sleep.” d. “Yes, because meditation can improve your ability to deal with physical pain.” 42. The main claim of the activation-synthesis model is that dreams are a. attempts to better understand difficult, recent real-life situations. b. the basis of the neural plasticity that underlies learning. c. side effects of the beta brain waves that occur during REM sleep. d. triggered memories of past events that have been jumbled in the retrieval attempt.

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Chapter 05_11e 43. Summing across the entire sleep cycle, young adults typically spend the least of their sleep time in which stage? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. REM 44. One study examined the use of mindfulness meditation for the symptoms of fibromyalgia. The meditators were able to a. handle considerably more pain. b. eliminate pain. c. have more energy. d. report less stress and pain. 45. How would the problem-solving/mood-regulation view explain recurrent dreams with the same themes and content? a. They represent random activation that coincidentally hits on the same themes across multiple nights. b. They represent goals and aspirations that a person continues to hold. c. They result from continuing life difficulties that are important but not yet resolved. d. They result from skills and random activation that share a common theme. 46. When a person must continue to take a drug to satisfy intense mental and emotional craving, they are most directly displaying a. addiction. b. physical dependence. c. psychological dependence. d. tolerance. 47. Meditation refers to a family of practices that a. improve one’s ability to use mental imagery effectively. b. engage in exercises of mental problem-solving and creativity. c. train attention to heighten awareness and bring mental processes under greater voluntary control. d. attempt to increase the processing speed and capacity of short-term memory. 48. Of the following, the MOST accurately stated difference between somnambulism and REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) is that a. somnambulism is more likely to occur in adults, whereas RBD is more likely to occur in children. b. somnambulism happens during stage 3 of sleep, whereas RBD happens during REM sleep. c. somnambulism is treated with stimulants, whereas RBD is treated with sedatives. d. somnambulism is usually first noticed by the person with the disorder, whereas RBD is noticed by their bed partner.

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Chapter 05_11e 49. Which of the following theories of dreaming is least supported by empirical evidence? a. The problem-solving/mood-regulation view b. The wish fulfillment view c. The activation-synthesis model d. The reverse-learning theory 50. The physiological recording device used to record contractions of the heart is called an a. electroencephalograph (EEG). b. electromyogram (EMG). c. electrooculogram (EOG). d. electrocardiograph (EKG). 51. Olivia has trouble staying asleep for more than 4 hours at a time. Olivia is likely to experience a. more vivid dreams than people who sleep for a full 8 hours. b. less REM sleep than people who sleep for a full 8 hours. c. less deep sleep than people who sleep for a full 8 hours. d. more sleep spindles than people who sleep for a full 8 hours. 52. During which ages would you expect a person’s sleep patterns to undergo the most change? a. Ages 0 to 3 b. Ages 5 to 10 c. Ages 18 to 30 d. Ages 65 and later 53. The physiological recording device used to record muscular activity and tension is called an a. electrooculogram (EOG). b. electroencephalograph (EEG). c. electromyogram (EMG). d. electrocardiograph (EKG). 54. One explanation for why dreams are seen as exotic is because a. people have difficulty coming up with explanations about why we dream. b. people are more likely to remember their more bizarre dreams. c. only a small portion of the population dreams regularly. d. dreaming is only common in certain parts of the world. 55. REM sleep is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT a. minimal bodily movement. b. regular breathing and pulse rate. c. beta waves. d. dreaming.

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Chapter 05_11e 56. Overall, research on circadian rhythms most strongly supports the conclusion that a. with enough time, one’s circadian rhythm can be unlearned or changed to suit the demands of their lifestyle. b. with enough practice, one can become better at dealing with the side effects of going against their circadian rhythm. c. one has the best outcomes from adhering to, rather than trying to alter, their circadian rhythm. d. the ideal timing and pattern of sleep is remarkably similar from one person to another. 57. The theory that attributes the LEAST amount of meaning to dreams is a. activation-synthesis. b. problem-solving. c. wish fulfillment. d. day residue. 58. In one study, hypnotized subjects were regressed back to their sixth birthday and asked to describe the event. Their recalled memories were a. detailed but usually inaccurate and invented. b. fragmented and incomplete but seemingly accurate. c. more accurate than those recalled with the same prompts but without hypnosis. d. more likely to be dreamlike than memories recalled while not hypnotized. 59. Benzodiazepine sedatives are an improvement over earlier formulations because they a. are less likely to cause unwanted side effects. b. are less attractive for drug abuse. c. result in a slower rate of tolerance buildup. d. do not cause psychological dependence. 60. Of the following, the most accurate statement about the similarities between alcohol and hallucinogens is that both drugs a. make aggressive behavior more likely. b. have been linked to liver disease. c. can cause intense feelings of anxiety and paranoia. d. may increase the risk of physical injury. 61. If a person misuses drugs to help them relax, which of the following drugs are they least likely to be using? a. Barbiturates b. Alcohol c. Stimulants d. Marijuana

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Chapter 05_11e 62. Which theory of dreaming has the LEAST amount of credible research but is still popular among many people? a. activation-synthesis model. b. wish fulfillment view. c. problem-solving/mood-regulation view. d. reverse-learning theory. 63. Suppose a woman wakes up in the morning with cookie crumbs on her shirt but no memory of eating cookies during the night. Which of the following sleep disorders is most likely to explain this situation? a. Sleep apnea b. Narcolepsy c. Somnambulism d. REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) 64. Research shows that the content of dreams is not restrained by logic or realism. How do the moodregulation/problem-solving and activation-synthesis theories of dreams differ in their interpretation of this fact? a. The mood-regulation view sees this as a necessary condition for dreams to fulfill their purpose, but the activation-synthesis vie b. The activation-synthesis view sees this as a necessary condition for dreams to fulfill their purpose, but the mood-regulation view sees it as an unimportant side effect of neural activity. c. The mood-regulation view predicts this effect shouldn’t happen at all, but the activation-synthesis view correctly predicts its occurrence. d. The activation-synthesis view predicts this effect shouldn’t happen at all, but the mood-regulation view correctly predicts its occurrence. 65. Suppose a sleep researcher wanted to observe alpha waves on a participant connected to an EEG. The best strategy would be to have the participant a. watch a boring movie. b. sit quietly in a comfortable chair. c. give an impromptu presentation to the other participants. d. watch a frightening movie. 66. If the role playing explanation of hypnotism-induced behavior is correct, you would predict that the most likely factor that would make hypnotic suggestion more powerful is a. the participant believing in the effects of hypnotism. b. the participant being partly asleep or otherwise not fully conscious. c. the hypnotizer being a scientist or other authority figure. d. the participant feeling the effects of psychoactive drugs. 67. The most widely used recreational drug in our society is a. LSD. b. heroin. c. marijuana. d. alcohol.

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Chapter 05_11e 68. Which of the following drugs can trigger psychotic illness in the small minority of its users who have genetic vulnerabilities to such disorders? a. Alcohol b. Cocaine c. Oxycodone d. Marijuana 69. The most common posthypnotic suggestion observed by researchers is the creation of a. additional personalities. b. new behavioral habits. c. posthypnotic amnesia. d. new conditioned fears. 70. Madeline uses a nonprescription drug on a regular basis. Some of the short-term side effects she experiences are dry mouth, anxiety, and impaired memory. Madeline is MOST likely using a. marijuana. b. LSD. c. heroin. d. cocaine. 71. The disorder marked by sudden and irresistible onsets of sleep during normal waking periods is called a. delayed phase sleep syndrome. b. somnambulism. c. narcolepsy. d. sleep apnea. 72. Chronic, heavy use of marijuana is associated with all of the following EXCEPT a. increased risk for respiratory and pulmonary disease. b. reduced levels of testosterone. c. increased risk of developing a severe psychotic disorder. d. impaired attention and learning. 73. In one study, 2250 adults were contacted randomly during waking hours. About half of the time, they reported that a. their mind was wandering. b. they were partially asleep. c. they were concentrating intently. d. they were worrying about the future.

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Chapter 05_11e 74. In contrast to Western cultures, many non-Western cultures view dreams as a. meaningful scenarios about oneself, the future, or the spiritual world. b. essentially insignificant or meaningless scenarios. c. important sources of creative thought. d. collective, rather than individual, experiences. 75. Many smartphones now include a feature that alters the color balance of light emitted from the device, such that it gives off bluer light during the day but more orange light at night. Based on your knowledge of circadian rhythms, what is the most likely purpose of this feature? a. To make the device more pleasant to use by matching it to environmental conditions b. To help travelers overcome jet lag after arriving in a new place c. To regulate heart rate and blood pressure in cases where environmental cues are insufficient d. To prevent late-night use of the device from interfering with proper sleep 76. Dan is displaying slurred speech and acting aggressively towards his friends. Dan is most clearly demonstrating the effects of which kind of drug? a. Hallucinogens b. Stimulants c. Sedatives d. Alcohol 77. Because of her sleep disorder, Jessica always sleeps on the first floor of any house or apartment she stays in. Which of the following sleep disorders does she MOST likely have? a. Insomnia b. Somnambulism c. Sleep apnea d. Narcolepsy 78. Non-REM sleep includes which of the following stages? a. Stage 1 only b. Stages 1 and 2 c. Stages 2 and 3 d. Stages 1, 2, and 3 79. For physical dependence, the two most important symptoms are a. tolerance and failing to attend classes due to substance use. b. tolerance and withdrawal symptoms. c. intolerance for most anything and withdrawal symptoms. d. substance abuse and withdrawal symptoms.

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Chapter 05_11e 80. Suppose a dreaming person hears the sound of their roommate hammering while doing home improvements. Of the following, their dream is MOST likely to include a. their roommate as a prominent character. b. an exaggerated or transformed version of the hammering sound. c. someone using power tools. d. someone building furniture. 81. In laboratory studies, subjects are considered to have fallen asleep when a. their heart rate and blood pressure reach a steady higher level. b. their predominant EEG activity shifts from theta waves to delta waves. c. their heart rate and blood pressure reach a steady lower level. d. their predominant EEG activity shifts from alpha waves to theta waves. 82. Typically, as adults get older, their sleep cycles shift towards a. more total sleep time. b. a greater proportion of time dreaming. c. lighter sleep. d. more REM-dominant sleep. 83. Suppose a man remembers waking up several times during the night and experiences a sore throat the morning after. Which of the following sleep disorders is most likely to explain his symptoms? a. Sleep apnea b. Narcolepsy c. Somnambulism d. REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) 84. A man wakes up with several bruises on his arms and torso. He suggests to his wife that she get tested for a sleep disorder. Assuming this was actually caused by his wife’s sleep-disordered behavior, of the following, she is most likely to have a. somnambulism. b. REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD). c. sleep apnea. d. narcolepsy. 85. As you descend through stages 2 and 3 of the sleep cycle, your respiration rate and heart rate a. become more variable. b. slow down. c. speed up. d. become less variable.

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Chapter 05_11e 86. Your friend Hasani has recently been diagnosed with REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD). Which of the following best describes the dreams he has? a. Calm, peaceful dreams. b. He most likely doesn’t have any dreams. c. Violent dreams of being chased and attacked. d. Abstract dreams that are nonsensical. 87. Given the typical changes in sleep patterns from infancy to adolescence, which of the following additional changes are MOST likely to occur during this period? a. Talking more often in one’s sleep b. Being better rested c. Having less frequent and less vivid dreams d. Waking up more frequently during the night 88. Sigmund Freud, who analyzed clients’ dreams in therapy, believed that the principal purpose of dreams is a. memory consolidation. b. wish fulfillment. c. anxiety reduction. d. creative insight. 89. Over the course of the night, REM periods get progressively a. longer. b. shorter. c. less dream-centric. d. more dream-centric. 90. In which of the following situations would a dentist be MOST likely to use hypnotism? a. During an initial consultation b. While fitting dentures c. While showing a patient how to floss properly d. While cleaning a cavity 91. If you take melatonin supplements and want to ensure they are optimally effective, the best strategy would be to a. use a timer or alarm to remind yourself to take it at the recommended time. b. be sure to take a dose that is no more than 50 mcg different than the recommended dose. c. use an extended release rather than instant release formulation. d. take it in the same environment in which you will later go to sleep.

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Chapter 05_11e 92. Your brother has been particularly deprived of REM sleep lately because of his newborn daughter. He tells you, “At this point, it’ll take me weeks to catch up on REM sleep, since it’s only a small portion of my sleep each night!” If you wanted to explain his mistake, the most accurate reply would be, a. “Don’t worry, REM sleep doesn’t make that big a difference to daily functioning.” b. “Don’t worry, you can just sleep more hours per night to catch up more quickly.” c. “You’re right about that, but you can ask your doctor about medications to deal with the side effects.” d. “Don’t worry, your body will spend more time in REM than usual until you’re caught up.” 93. If you wanted to demonstrate how stimulants affect the activity of dopamine in the brain using a water faucet as a visual aid, you could a. turn the faucet handle so the flow of water speeds up. b. turn the faucet handle so the flow of water slows down. c. make the running water more concentrated by putting a funnel under it. d. redirect the running water off to the other side of the sink. 94. The importance of adequate sleep is shown by research suggesting that drowsy driving is a factor for around a. 5% of accidents. b. 20% of accidents. c. 50% of accidents. d. 70% of accidents. 95. A common problem with biological rhythms is jet lag, which is caused by a. a mismatch between one’s internal clock and the local time in a new location. b. sleep deprivation because of uncomfortable conditions when traveling. c. differences in the amount of ambient sunlight in a new location compared to where one lives. d. a mismatch between one’s internal clock and the schedule one must keep for their job. 96. Psychologists refer to the phenomenon of mental processes splitting into two separate, simultaneous streams of awareness as a. role-playing. b. mesmerism. c. dissociation. d. hypnotism. 97. Suppose a woman has had a difficult week because her car is in dire need of repairs and she recently finalized her divorce from her ex-wife. Which of the following dreams she might have would be most consistent with the activation-synthesis model of dreaming? a. A dream in which she and her ex-wife have a serious talk, bringing emotional closure to both of them b. A dream in which her ex-wife turns into a car and flies to the moon c. A dream in which a close friend surprises her with a new car on her birthday d. A dream in which she visualizes the activity of the neurons and synapses of her brain as it occurs

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Chapter 05_11e 98. As you descend into deeper stages of sleep, your brain waves become a. higher in amplitude and slower in frequency. b. lower in amplitude and slower in frequency. c. higher in amplitude and faster in frequency. d. higher in amplitude and slower in frequency. 99. The length of time it takes people to fall asleep varies considerably, with the average being approximately a. 5 minutes. b. 15 minutes. c. 25 minutes. d. 40 minutes. 100. The device that monitors the electrical activity of the brain over time using recording electrodes attached to the scalp is called the a. electroencephalograph (EEG). b. electromyogram (EMG). c. electrooculogram (EOG). d. electrocardiograph (EKG). 101. If a doctor wanted to reduce the chance that her patients will become addicted to their medications, she should be especially careful when prescribing medicine for a. chronic pain. b. ADHD. c. glaucoma. d. glaucoma. 102. The greatest risk of overdose comes from drugs that are a. CNS depressants. b. cannabis. c. stimulants. d. hallucinogens. 103. The one nearly universal element of dreams is a a. lifelike emotional experience. b. feeling of physical motion. c. presence of people known to the dreamer. d. stable, coherent sense of self. 104. Insomnia is a sleep disorder most characterized by a. sudden and irresistible onsets of sleep during normal waking periods. b. chronic problems in getting adequate sleep. c. frequent, reflexive gasping for air. d. potentially troublesome dream enactments. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05_11e 105. The effects of alcohol are MOST opposite to the effects of which of the following? a. Stimulants b. Narcotics c. Sedatives d. Cannabis 106. Fluctuations in body temperature seem to regulate sleep cycles by causing people to fall asleep as their body temperature begins to a. rise and awaken as it begins to descend. b. drop and awaken as it begins to ascend. c. stabilize and awaken as it begins to vary. d. vary and awaken as it begins to stabilize. 107. A major cultural difference in sleep in tropical regions of the world, as compared to elsewhere, is the practice of a. sleeping in two shorter chunks rather than one long chunk overnight. b. sleeping outside. c. snacking before bedtime. d. taking mid-day naps. 108. Of the following, the most detrimental effect on biological rhythms is caused by a. rotating work shifts. b. jet lag. c. going to bed at a nonpreferred time. d. eating just before bedtime. 109. When a person must continue to take a drug to avoid withdrawal illness, they are most directly displaying a. addiction. b. tolerance. c. psychological dependence. d. physical dependence. 110. Which of the following theories claims that a major function of dreaming is to allow people to reflect on recent emotional experiences? a. The problem-solving/mood-regulation view b. The reverse-learning theory c. The activation-synthesis model d. The wish fulfillment view

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Chapter 05_11e 111. Considerable evidence suggests that REM and slow-wave sleep are especially helpful for which of the following processes? a. Supporting unconscious learning of information experienced during sleep b. Firming up learning that takes place during the day c. Creating new neurons in the brain d. Ensuring efficient communication between the left and right hemispheres of the brain 112. Most sleep research is performed by a. observing people sleep in a sleep laboratory. b. observing people sleep in naturalistic settings (e.g., their homes). c. giving people surveys about their sleep activity. d. taking brain scans of people who are awake, which is used to infer their sleep activity. 113. Approaches to meditation can be classified into two main styles that reflect how attention is directed. These two styles are a. focused attention and open monitoring. b. insight and mindfulness. c. single-process and dual-process. d. self-focused and other-focused. 114. Infants spend much more of their sleep time than adults do in which stage of sleep? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. REM 115. Profound or ‘mystical’ feelings are a common effect of which class of drugs? a. Stimulants b. Alcohol c. Hallucinogens d. Marijuana 116. Suppose a sleep researcher wanted to observe delta waves on a participant connected to an EEG. The best strategy would be to have the participant a. lift heavy weights and concentrate intently on their technique. b. take a nap and observe the brain waves just before they wake up. c. take a nap and observe the brain waves in the middle of sleeping. d. think about a recent worry, such as a promotion they’re competing for at work.

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Chapter 05_11e 117. About what percent of people are exceptionally good hypnotic subjects? a. 3% b. 15% c. 40% d. 65% 118. One concern about the accuracy of results linking typical sleep duration to mortality is their a. failure to measure a wide range of habitual sleep times that represent the range found in people more generally. b. inability to describe a plausible casual mechanism for how particular sleep times could lead to poorer health. c. reliance on measuring sleep in the laboratory, which may not represent normal sleep. d. reliance on participants’ self-report estimates of how long they normally sleep. 119. Based on your knowledge of various sleep disorders, if a person is an older adult and suffers from obesity, which of the following would they MOST likely be at risk for? a. Insomnia b. Somnambulism c. Sleep apnea d. REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) 120. If someone wanted to know how dreams could be explained in terms of brain activity, the most relevant theory to point them to is the a. wish fulfillment view. b. reverse-learning theory. c. problem-solving/mood-regulation view. d. activation-synthesis model. 121. The most accurate index of consciousness we have is the measured rhythm of one’s a. heartbeat. b. cortical activity. c. eye movements. d. blood flow. 122. An individual’s sleep pattern a. varies considerably from night to night. b. depends on what they ate that day c. is relatively stable across the lifespan. d. varies across the lifespan.

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Chapter 05_11e 123. If you wanted to explain how consciousness works with a simile, you could say that it is most like a(n) a. still pond. b. steady ray of sunlight. c. unpredictably flowing ocean. d. unchanging statue. 124. Which of the following is the clearest example of a direct effect of drugs on physical health? a. Tissue damage in the nose caused by cocaine use b. Injuries from automobile accidents caused by marijuana use c. Weight gain from sedentary behavior caused by alcohol use d. Injuries from impulsive behavior caused by stimulant use 125. Daily biological cycles produce rhythmic variations in many physical functions, including a. attention span. b. creativity. c. hormonal secretions. d. self-awareness. 126. A commonality between narcolepsy and sleep apnea is that both disorders a. can cause one to fall asleep during the day. b. are commonly treated with stimulants. c. primarily affect REM sleep. d. are marked by difficulty staying asleep. 127. Tessa believes it’s safe to drive while tired because, according to her, she can always pull off the road for a nap when she starts to feel drowsy. To best explain her mistake, you could inform her that a. it would only be safe if she drinks a lot of coffee beforehand to make sure she stays awake. b. napping in the car will be far less restful than napping in a typical bed. c. pulling off to the side of the road will be especially dangerous because sleepiness will impair her driving technique. d. people who are sleep-deprived are bad at predicting if and when they will fall asleep. 128. The class of sleep-inducing drugs that tend to decrease central nervous system activation and behavioral activity are called a. alcohol. b. stimulants. c. narcotics. d. sedatives.

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Chapter 05_11e 129. Correlational research shows that people who consistently sleep less than 7 hours exhibit a(n) _____ mortality risk, and people who consistently sleep more than 8 hours exhibit a(n) _____ mortality risk. a. increased; decreased b. decreased; increased c. increased; increased d. decreased; decreased 130. In general, as the cycle of sleep recurs through the night, it tends to contain a. more stage 4 and less REM. b. more stage 4 and more REM. c. less stage 4 and less REM. d. less stage 4 and more REM. 131. Which theory of dreaming most directly predicts that dreaming contributes to mood improvements after awakening? a. The activation-synthesis model b. The wish fulfillment view c. The problem-solving/mood-regulation view d. The reverse‐learning theory 132. Dr. Ogunleye has just become board certified in sleep medicine, making her qualified to begin treating patients with sleep disorders. In order to help the largest portion of her patients, the most important sleep disorder she may want to learn about is a. sleep apnea. b. insomnia. c. narcolepsy. d. somnambulism. 133. During the course of a night, people usually a. have one complete sleep cycle. b. repeat the sleep cycle about four times. c. complete up to one-half of the sleep cycle. d. complete up to two-thirds of the sleep cycle. 134. Juanita is practicing meditation by counting each full breath she takes. Every time she feels her mind wandering, she begins back at zero. The goal is to eventually reach twenty without mind wandering. She is best demonstrating which approach to meditation? a. Insight b. Focused attention c. Single-process d. Self-focused

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Chapter 05_11e 135. Compared to adults, the sleep habits of newborns over a given 24-hour period include a. more frequent episodes of sleep and longer total sleep time. b. more frequent episodes of sleep but shorter total sleep time. c. less frequent episodes of sleep but longer total sleep time. d. less frequent episodes of sleep and shorter total sleep time. 136. Research on the correlation between habitual sleep time and overall mortality has found an elevated mortality risk a. both for people who sleep more than 8 hours and those that sleep less than 7 hours. b. only for people who sleep more than 8 hours. c. only for people who sleep less than 7 hours. d. only for people whose total sleep time varies by more than 2 hours from night to night. 137. Carmen’s friends notice that she is unusually energetic and jittery. Carmen is most clearly demonstrating the effects of which kind of drug? a. Hallucinogens b. Stimulants c. Sedatives d. Alcohol 138. Your acquaintance, a doctor, tells you she’s considering using hypnosis as her preferred form of anesthesia. To best explain why this is likely a bad idea, you could tell her that a. of all its potential functions, hypnosis is least effective for anesthetic purposes. b. there is a risk of making the pain worse if hypnosis is induced incorrectly. c. many patients will be resistant to the idea of being hypnotized, even for pain relief. d. only a small proportion of people are susceptible enough to hypnosis for this to be effective. 139. Tolerance builds slowest for which of the following drugs? a. Narcotics b. Stimulants c. Sedatives d. Cannabis 140. Some critics of meditation research point out the possibility of placebo effects. Of the following, the most likely reason that placebo effects in these studies might be especially worrisome is that a. researchers have had trouble defining objective dependent measures of improvement. b. the studies require researchers to lead meditation, so they are not blinded to the condition. c. many participants believe so strongly in meditation over other forms of treatment. d. it is not possible to have a control group that meditates but is unaware of doing so.

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Chapter 05_11e 141. In terms of emotion, the most common dreams center around events that are a. bizarre and surprising. b. positive and hopeful. c. negative and potentially traumatic. d. fun or exciting. 142. Summing across the entire cycle, young adults typically spend most of their sleep time in which stage? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. REM 143. For which of the following drugs does the tolerance level develop the most RAPIDLY? a. Cannabis b. Oxycodone c. Alcohol d. LSD 144. What are psychologists referring to when discussing our personal awareness of feelings, sensations, and thoughts? a. Thinking b. Consciousness c. Cognition d. Conscience 145. Which of the following facts most contradicts the altered consciousness explanation of hypnosis? a. Drugs can provide pain relief even without altering one’s state of consciousness. b. Actors can become extraordinarily immersed in a role without being hypnotized. c. People who are told they will forget what happened while they were hypnotized often do forget the whole event. d. Many of the amazing effects of hypnosis have been duplicated by non-hypnotized subjects. 146. Researchers believe that the likely reason that sleep deprivation is linked to an increased risk of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary disease is because of its negative effects on a. appetite. b. immune system functioning. c. cognitive abilities. d. the drive to socialize.

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Chapter 05_11e 147. Of the following topics, dreams are most often about a. oneself. b. public affairs. c. current events. d. people one knows. 148. The characters in dreams tend to consist mostly of people who a. the dreamer knows but not personally, including celebrities and other famous figures. b. are combinations of people the dreamer knows in real life. c. are invented for the purpose of the dream. d. are combinations of imaginary and real people. 149. Danai has just taken an 18-hour flight from the United States to visit Portugal. She is extremely tired because it is several hours past her usual bedtime back home. However, in Portugal, it is only the middle of the day. The best strategy to get over jet lag in this situation would be to a. go to sleep as soon as she feels able, even if it’s still daytime, and hope to sleep long enough to end up on local time. b. take melatonin immediately to fall asleep despite the daylight, then wake up early the next day. c. stay awake, despite being tired, until local time matches the time she would normally go to bed back home. d. go to sleep when she is tired, even if it’s still light outside, but go to sleep a little later each day until she’s adjusted to local time. 150. Over the course of a typical night, most slow-wave sleep occurs a. early in the sleep cycle. b. late in the sleep cycle. c. just after falling asleep. d. just before waking up. 151. The fact that hypnosis can be a surprisingly effective replacement for surgical anesthesia most contradicts which theory of hypnosis? a. The role playing theory b. The altered consciousness theory c. The dissociation theory d. The dual-process theory 152. Real-life events are more likely to be incorporated into dreams when they a. are surprising. b. are interesting. c. center around engaging in conversation. d. have emotional significance.

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Chapter 05_11e 153. Research has indicated that a large percentage of young adults overindulge in alcohol because it is legal. This can have negative side effects for their health later on in their life including a. sleep problems. b. cognitive deficits. c. strokes. d. respiratory disease. 154. When people characterize themselves as a “night person” or a “morning person,” they are demonstrating individual preferences in a. stages of consciousness. b. brain waves. c. circadian rhythms. d. sleep duration. 155. Studies of dream content find that the most common theme is a. being chased or pursued. b. sex. c. falling. d. flying through the air. 156. Based on your knowledge of circadian rhythms, if you wanted to get better quality sleep, the best strategy would be to a. spend time relaxing before going to sleep. b. sleep longer than usual. c. go to bed at your ideal time. d. make sure your bedroom is dark and quiet. 157. William James coined the term stream of consciousness to emphasize the fact that consciousness a. consists of a mixed variety of mental processes. b. is easily diverted by more powerful forces. c. is constantly changing and moving. d. tends to follow repetitive patterns. 158. One of the main psychoactive effects of alcohol is a. reduced inhibitions. b. pain relief. c. intense feelings of euphoria. d. increased alertness.

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Chapter 05_11e 159. Your friend Gloria asks you if changing her sleep habits can help her more quickly or effectively learn to play the violin. You advise her that, based on research on the effects of sleep on learning, the best strategy would be to a. get plenty of deep sleep on the nights of practice sessions. b. take short naps in between practice sessions. c. practice just before going to sleep rather than earlier in the day. d. supplement with melatonin on the nights of practice sessions. 160. For the past month, Mitchell has had difficulty falling asleep at night. Even though he goes to bed at his usual time, he lays awake for several hours before he finally drifts off to sleep. As a result, Mitchell has only been getting 5 to 6 hours of sleep, instead of the 8 hours he is used to. Mitchell is likely to find that his lack of sleep leads to a. enhanced ability to solve complex problems. b. impaired attention. c. hallucinations and general disorientation. d. night terrors when he actually does fall asleep. 161. Mackayla has been especially worried about financial problems lately. One night she dreams about winning millions of dollars in the lottery. This example best demonstrates which fact about dreaming? a. Modern Western society distinguishes between the “real” waking world and the “imaginary” dreaming world. b. The contents of waking life tend to spill into dreams. c. The chance of remembering a dream depends on when in the sleep cycle one wakes up. d. Dreams are often experienced from a first-person perspective. 162. Bailey is hooked up to an electroencephalograph (EEG) in a sleep lab. She has been asleep for just over an hour now, and her EEG is showing low-amplitude brain-wave patterns. Her breathing and pulse rate are irregular, and her eyes are darting back and forth beneath her closed eyelids. The researcher who is monitoring Bailey’s sleep can conclude that Bailey a. has just entered REM sleep. b. has just entered stage 4 sleep. c. is experiencing sleep anoxia and needs immediate medical attention. d. suffers from a sleep disorder. 163. Given the research on the effects of sleep on learning, which of the following conclusions is most reasonable for students hoping to study more effectively? a. Sleep is beneficial for skill learning, but for other kinds of learning, its benefits are unclear. b. Naps are unlikely to help, so they should be skipped in favor of longer, deeper sleep. c. It may be more helpful to spend extra time sleeping before an exam rather than trying to stay up late studying. d. In some cases, the momentum of “massed” study is more helpful than sleep in learning new material.

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Chapter 05_11e 164. The class of drugs that typically causes feelings of being “on top of the world” is a. sedatives. b. cannabis. c. alcohol. d. stimulants. 165. The negative effect of recreational drugs that results from the drug’s impact on the individual’s behavior is referred to as a(n) a. indirect effect. b. direct effect. c. lifestyle effect. d. codependency effect. 166. The class of drugs derived from opium that are capable of relieving pain are known as a. narcotics. b. sedatives. c. hallucinogens. d. cannabinoids. 167. Cocaine is a natural substance that comes from the coca shrub. Its artificial counterparts, which are synthesized in pharmaceutical laboratories, are a. barbiturates. b. amphetamines. c. cannabinoids. d. opiates. 168. Pablo believes that dreams have no meaning and that they’re just the brain “acting randomly.“ Which theory of dreaming is Pablo MOST likely to agree with? a. The problem-solving/mood-regulation view b. The reverse-learning theory c. The activation-synthesis model d. The wish fulfillment view 169. The disorder which involves frequent, reflexive gasping for air that awakens a person and disrupts sleep is known as a. respiratory disturbance disorder. b. somnambulism. c. narcolepsy. d. sleep apnea.

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Chapter 05_11e 170. Hannah used to experience insomnia once or twice a week. A month ago, she started taking Seconal to help her sleep, and now she finds she cannot get to sleep unless she takes a Seconal tablet. Hannah has likely a. developed a drug tolerance for Seconal. b. developed a dependency on Seconal. c. habituated to the effects of Seconal. d. developed pseudoinsomnia. 171. Based on your knowledge of their respective symptoms, if a case of narcolepsy is successfully treated with medication, it may cause side effects resembling which of the following other sleep disorders? a. Insomnia b. Somnambulism c. Sleep apnea d. REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) 172. Which of the following people would be most likely to address their problem successfully with hypnosis? a. A person who wants to forget the upsetting memory of a car crash he was involved in b. A person who wants to reduce the intensity of her chronic migraines c. A person who wants to remember the details of a long‐forgotten family vacation from childhood d. A shy person who wants to know what it would actually be like to be outgoing 173. Consciousness is best defined as a. the sense of self that persists across time and space. b. the ability to intelligently solve problems. c. the knowledge of one’s motivations and feelings. d. the awareness of internal and external stimuli. 174. Which of the following research findings from the textbook is most responsible for leading some researchers to conclude that hypnosis is merely role-playing? a. Hypnotized subjects do not seem to show reliable alterations in brain activity that is unique to hypnosis. b. Hypnotized subjects may feel as though they are in an altered state of consciousness. c. About 10-20% of people don’t respond well at all to hypnotic suggestion. d. A wide variety of techniques can be used to induce a hypnotic state. 175. Loretta, who has had several servings of alcohol, is out camping with her friends. She foolishly tries to run across some slippery rocks, causing her to fall and sprain her ankle. Given your knowledge of how alcohol affects consciousness, the most likely explanation for her behavior is that she a. felt a surge of energy, increasing her desire for physical activity. b. hallucinated that the rocks were larger, more dry, or otherwise easier to walk on. c. was less inhibited than she otherwise would be in her desire to run over the rocks. d. briefly lost control of her motor functions in an instinctive fight-or-flight response.

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Chapter 05_11e 176. A progressive decrease in a person’s responsiveness to a drug as a result of continued use is referred to as a. addiction. b. dependence. c. tolerance. d. abuse. 177. Traveling can often make people feel fatigued, sluggish, and irritable, mostly because of its effects on a. sleep quality. b. body temperature. c. stress levels. d. blood pressure. 178. Terry has a dream where he falls from the top of a tall building. If his dream continues to include the part where he reaches the ground, you would predict that a. he will be injured or even die in reality. b. he will be unaffected in reality. c. the perspective of his dream will switch to third person. d. the perspective of his dream will switch to first person. 179. Investigators have concluded that circadian rhythms can leave individuals physiologically primed to fall asleep most easily a. in a particular physical position. b. at a particular time of day. c. in a particular location. d. at a particular ambient temperature. 180. The curious dual existence of hypnotism described in the textbook is the fact that it is a. used as a legitimate clinical tool and also for parlor tricks and chicanery. b. effective both while awake and also while asleep. c. being based on the operation of both the mind and the brain. d. portrayed in one sense in fictional portrayals despite being very different in real practice. 181. The abuse of narcotic drugs is similar to that of sedative drugs because both a. pose low risks of physical dependence. b. involve changing physical composition of the drug before taking it. c. cause increased aggression as a common side effect. d. can be motivated by attempts to escape from reality. 182. In terms of dreaming, a major difference between REM sleep and non-REM sleep is that a. dreams that occur during REM sleep are more likely to be remembered forgotten. b. most dreams occur in non-REM sleep. c. dreams that occur during REM sleep are more vivid. d. dreams that occur during non-REM sleep are more likely to be remembered. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05_11e 183. Which of the following drugs is considered a hallucinogen? a. Morphine b. Cocaine c. Mescaline d. Alcohol 184. The REM stage of sleep is characterized by breathing and pulse rates that are best described as a. rapid. b. irregular. c. slow. d. steady. 185. What appears to be responsible for regulating the circadian rhythm? a. Amount of time spent sleeping b. Amount of time spent awake c. Cultural practices d. Exposure to light 186. Given Freud’s explanation of the purpose of dreams, if a patient complained to him that they dream too often, he would MOST likely assume they are a. not satisfied with the state of their life. b. a generally satisfied with the state of their life. c. in the middle of learning something new and difficult. d. experiencing unusually high levels of random brain activity. 187. Jaden has been taking higher and higher doses of his prescribed Adderall over the past several months. The most likely reason is that a. the problem he is treating with this medication is worsening. b. he is mistakenly taking extra doses and doesn’t realize it. c. he needs higher doses to get the same effect as time goes on. d. he is testing his reaction to higher doses. 188. Your friend thinks it’s safe to drive while high on marijuana. To best explain your friend’s mistake, you could tell him that a. using marijuana within 12 hours of driving roughly doubles the risk of accidents. b. using marijuana within 3 hours of driving roughly doubles the risk of accidents. c. any amount of marijuana, even in small doses, equally impairs driving ability. d. it may be less dangerous immediately after smoking cannabis, but it is still risky.

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Chapter 05_11e 189. In sufficient dosages, narcotic drugs can produce an overwhelming sense of a. confidence. b. euphoria. c. energy. d. mental acuity. 190. After completing the slow-wave sleep portion of the sleep cycle, what happens next? a. You wake up. b. You begin dreaming. c. The sleep cycle reverses itself. d. You begin REM sleep. 191. Overall, the psychoactive effect that seems to be most rewarding for people, and thus most likely to lead to drug misuse, is a. a feeling of euphoria. b. pain relief. c. a lowering of inhibitions. d. a strong urge to sleep. 192. A hypnotist is putting on a demonstration and your friend Benjamin is thinking about volunteering. However, he is a little nervous because he is afraid he might do things while he is hypnotized that he would normally not do. Based on research into the effects of hypnosis, you should tell Benjamin a. people will never do things under hypnosis that they would normally consider unacceptable. b. hypnotic subjects are only faking a change in awareness. c. sometimes people will do things under hypnosis that they would normally consider unacceptable. d. hypnosis doesn’t really work, so he shouldn’t bother volunteering. 193. Although REM is a relatively deep sleep stage, EEG activity is dominated by brain waves that resemble those observed when people are a. awake and alert. b. awake and relaxed. c. in stage 1 of the sleep cycle. d. in stage 2 of the sleep cycle. 194. Taneisha is stumped on a creative problem. According to the problem-solving/mood-regulation view, the best strategy would be to a. think about the problem just before bed. b. use medication to reduce how often she dreams. c. be sure to get plenty of deep sleep, including REM sleep. d. put problem-relevant stimuli near her bed so they are incorporated into her dreams.

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Chapter 05_11e 195. Research has found that there are cultural differences in which of the following aspect of sleep? a. The sleep stages that are most dominant b. Preferences for when to begin sleep c. Physical sleeping position d. Napping practices 196. Based on your knowledge of various sleep disorders, if a person locks up or hides their car keys as a precaution before going to sleep, they are MOST likely to have which sleep disorder? a. Sleep apnea b. Narcolepsy c. Insomnia d. Somnambulism 197. When doctors first became interested in hypnotism in the mid-1800s, they hoped to use it as a form of a. pain relief. b. anesthesia. c. cancer treatment. d. biofeedback. 198. Of the following, the most accurate statement about the similarities between hallucinogens and cannabis is that both drugs a. cause motor vehicle accidents at similar rates as alcohol. b. pose little to no risk of physical dependence. c. pose little to no risk of psychological dependence. d. increase subjective estimates of one’s own mental acuity. 199. Tyrone is treating his insomnia with sedatives prescribed by his doctor. However, the drug’s effects often carry over into the next day. As a result of these carryover effects, Tyrone is most likely to a. need increasingly higher doses to get the same benefit. b. need to consume fewer calories throughout the day. c. have an increased risk of other health problems, such as heart disease. d. have a lesser need for the drugs each night. 200. Suppose you’re taking a long road trip with a few friends. You ask one friend a question, but the other friend, who you thought was asleep, responds to you. Based on your understanding of consciousness, the most reasonable explanation is that the other friend a. was actually meditating. b. has the unusual ability to fully understand information while unconscious. c. happened to say something that appeared to be on-topic. d. was barely in the first stage of sleep.

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Chapter 05_11e Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. d 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. d 19. d 20. b 21. d 22. d 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. b

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Chapter 05_11e 27. c 28. a 29. c 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. d 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. c 46. c 47. c 48. b 49. b 50. d 51. b 52. c 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05_11e 55. b 56. c 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. d 61. c 62. b 63. c 64. a 65. b 66. c 67. d 68. d 69. c 70. a 71. c 72. b 73. a 74. a 75. d 76. d 77. b 78. d 79. b 80. b 81. d 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05_11e 83. a 84. b 85. b 86. c 87. c 88. b 89. a 90. d 91. a 92. d 93. a 94. b 95. a 96. c 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. a 102. a 103. d 104. b 105. a 106. b 107. d 108. a 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05_11e 111. b 112. a 113. a 114. d 115. c 116. c 117. b 118. d 119. c 120. d 121. b 122. d 123. c 124. a 125. c 126. a 127. d 128. d 129. c 130. d 131. c 132. b 133. b 134. b 135. a 136. a 137. b

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Chapter 05_11e 138. d 139. d 140. c 141. c 142. b 143. b 144. b 145. b 146. b 147. a 148. b 149. c 150. a 151. a 152. d 153. c 154. c 155. a 156. c 157. c 158. a 159. a 160. b 161. b 162. a 163. c 164. d 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05_11e 166. a 167. b 168. c 169. d 170. b 171. a 172. b 173. d 174. a 175. c 176. c 177. a 178. b 179. b 180. a 181. d 182. c 183. c 184. b 185. d 186. a 187. c 188. b 189. b 190. c 191. a 192. c 193. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05_11e 194. c 195. d 196. d 197. b 198. b 199. a 200. d

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Chapter 06_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. A worker gets paid every Friday for completing his 40-hour work week. He is being paid on a a. fixed-ratio schedule. b. variable-ratio schedule. c. fixed-interval schedule. d. variable-interval schedule. 2. Negative reinforcement occurs when a response a. leads to a desirable consequence. b. leads to the removal of an unpleasant event. c. leads to an undesirable consequence. d. is ignored. 3. In which one of the following scenarios has the person most clearly developed a cognitive map? a. Ciara can’t drive, but she can draw from memory the path from her house to her school. b. Daragh hasn’t taken driving lessons, but the first time he gets behind the wheel, he finds he knows exactly what to do. c. Fionn doesn’t want to drive a car, but he knows which buses to take to get him all around town. d. Reece has been driving four years, but she still has trouble navigating the side streets in new neighborhoods. 4. Hudson is a graduate student studying classically conditioned immune suppression in rats. Which of the following experimental procedures is he most likely to apply? a. Adding a sweet flavoring and a drug that is known to cause immune suppression to the rats’ water. b. Adding a sweet flavoring and a drug that is known to cause nausea to the rats’ water. c. Adding an unusual-tasting liquid and a drug that is known to cause nausea to the rats’ water. d. Adding only a drug known to cause immune suppression to the rats’ water. 5. On Tuesday morning, Chloe prepared her typical breakfast of corn flakes with milk and a cup of coffee. However, instead of having grapefruit with her breakfast, she tried eating guava for the first time. Later, she became extremely ill. If her illness causes her to develop a conditioned response to one of her breakfast items, the conditioned response will MOST likely be to a. guava, because it was a novel stimulus. b. milk, because the milk may have been sour. c. grapefruit, because that was the one thing missing from her typical breakfast. d. coffee, because coffee is a stimulant.

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Chapter 06_11e 6. You are watching a rat pressing a lever in a Skinner box to obtain food pellets. The rat is pressing the lever at a very high rate and does not stop, even when a food pellet is delivered. In this example, the reinforcement schedule that is in place is MOST likely a a. fixed-interval schedule. b. variable-ratio schedule. c. fixed-ratio schedule. d. variable-interval schedule. 7. In order to weaken or eliminate a conditioned response, you would present a. the US before the CS several times. b. the CS alone several times. c. the US alone several times. d. extra pairings of the CS and US. 8. In higher-order conditioning, the a. US is used as if it were a CS. b. US is used as if it were a CR. c. CS is used as if it were a UR. d. CS is used as if it were a US. 9. If a CS is repeatedly presented without the US, the CR will weaken and eventually disappear. This learning process is known as a. extinction. b. inhibition. c. suppression. d. conditioned forgetting. 10. In higher-order conditioning a(n) _____ functions as if it were a(n) _____. a. conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus c. conditioned response; unconditioned response d. unconditioned response; conditioned response 11. Marsha asks her son Marc to clear the table. Marc doesn’t respond, and so Marsha asks again in a louder voice, and this time Marc gets up and clears the table, complaining the whole time. In this scenario, Marsha asking Marc to clear the table is best described as a. a consequence of Marc’s behavior. b. a reinforcer of Marc’s behavior. c. both an antecedent and a consequence of Marc’s behavior. d. a punishment for Marc’s behavior.

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Chapter 06_11e 12. Conditioned taste aversion represents an unusual or atypical example of a. observational learning. b. punishment. c. operant conditioning. d. classical conditioning. 13. Andy wants to be a better swimmer, and he purchases a new app that allows him to watch a short video of an Olympic swimmer, over and over. The creator of the app insists that simply by watching the model every day, right before he swims himself, Andy will become a better swimmer. Which key process of observational learning is the app creator failing to take into consideration? a. attention b. retention c. reproduction d. motivation 14. Evaluative conditioning is a form of learning that is a subtype of a. operant conditioning. b. latent learning. c. classical conditioning. d. observational learning. 15. Amy is an ultra-distance runner. She goes out on a new run route, which passes a garbage dump. It smells bad, so Amy runs faster than usual to get out of the area in a hurry. In terms of operant conditioning, if this experience provided negative reinforcement for Amy, we can infer that she will a. associate the bad smell of garbage with running faster. b. avoid running on this route in the future. c. become ill the next time she smells garbage. d. run faster than usual the next time she goes past the garbage dump. 16. It is very likely that you learned how to turn on the TV and change channels as a young child without your parents ever specifically teaching you to do so. In this case, your learning would MOST likely be an example of a. observational learning. b. unconditioned response. c. operant conditioning. d. classical conditioning. 17. Conditioned taste aversion is a unique form of classical conditioning because a. the delay between CS and US is often very long. b. getting sick is a punishment, so it has a component of operant conditioning. c. conditioning is likely to occur to only one stimulus present, the food. d. taste seems to be a relatively weak stimulus.

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Chapter 06_11e 18. Pavlov became interested in conditioning when he observed laboratory dogs a. salivating right before food was placed in their mouths. b. failing to salivate when food was placed in their mouths. c. salivating only when food was placed in their mouths. d. salivating right after they had swallowed food. 19. A monkey learns to give a round disk to a zookeeper to receive an apple and a square disk to receive a banana. This means that, for the monkey, the shape of the disk is a a. reinforcer. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. generalization stimulus. d. discriminative stimulus. 20. A team of researchers wanted to know whether sexual arousal can be classically conditioned in humans. In their study, they asked couples to add a new, neutral odor to the air when they engaged in sexual activity over the course of two weeks. If the experiment shows that conditioning was effective, at the end of the test period they should find that a. participants say they don’t like the odor because it affects their sexual arousal. b. participants report sexual arousal shortly after they smell the odor. c. participants report sexual arousal only after they smell the odor. d. participants say they like the odor but don’t notice any difference in sexual arousal. 21. Cho wants to train her bird to talk, using the principles of operant conditioning. Which of the following statements about reinforcement should she think about when choosing what she will use to train her bird? a. A primary reinforcer may be ineffective if the bird is not in a deprived state. b. A secondary reinforcer is less effective than a primary reinforcer for teaching the bird to talk. c. Punishment for not talking will be as effective as reinforcement for talking. d. Reinforcement only pertains to intangible objects, such as praise for the bird talking. 22. A child covers her ears when seeing fireworks, before hearing the sound of them. For this child, seeing the fireworks is a(n) a. unconditioned response. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. conditioned stimulus. 23. While out shopping, Sasha decided to grab a hot dog from the gas station before heading home. Shortly after getting home, she became extremely ill. If her illness causes her to develop a conditioned response, the conditioned response will most likely be towards a. the hot dog, as it was the last thing she ate before getting ill. b. the cream in her coffee from breakfast because the milk may have been sour. c. the gas station, as it was last place she was before she arrived home. d. the car that she drove to get the hot dog.

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Chapter 06_11e 24. Systematic desensitization is a behavior therapy often used when a person wants to extinguish a phobia. Key to this approach is that the person learns to remain relaxed when imagining the fear-evoking stimulus. If you wanted to explain this therapeutic approach in the language of classical conditioning, the best explanation would be that the process involves a. acquisition. b. extinction. c. generalization. d. spontaneous recovery. 25. Imagine eating a large bowl of ice cream. If just thinking about the ice cream causes your mouth to water, your salivation would be a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response. 26. Which one of the following classroom scenarios best illustrates observational learning? a. Your physics professor writes all the steps needed to solve a problem on the board, and then asks the class to solve it. b. Your history professor hands out a blank timeline, and then asks the class to fill it in. c. Your English professor reads aloud from a novel, and then asks the class to answer questions about it. d. Your chemistry professor demonstrates a procedure, and then expects the class to reproduce it. 27. Jimmy helps his father put away the dishes after dinner. If Jimmy’s father wants to increase the probability of this behavior, he will be most successful by praising Jimmy a. after all the dishes are put away. b. at bedtime. c. the next morning at breakfast. d. the next time that some dishes need to be put away. 28. Estella’s 5-year-old daughter, Rosanna, just joined a kids’ baseball league. Because most children of this age aren’t yet coordinated enough to swing at a pitch, the children hit a baseball set on top of a cone instead of having someone pitch it. If she masters the swing, the coach will pitch her a ball from a distance of about 10 feet, and when she can regularly hit that, he’ll move to 20 feet, until finally he is pitching from the mound. This process, which might take several years, is best described as a. a reinforcement contingency. b. a secondary reinforcer. c. shaping. d. stimulus discrimination.

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Chapter 06_11e 29. Bakeries often put “fake cakes” – round pieces of Styrofoam or cardboard covered in fancy icing - in their window displays. Even if you know that they are fake and you are pretty sure they are not at all tasty, you may find that your mouth waters as you gaze at them in the window. In the language of classical conditioning, your best explanation for this behavior is that a. you’ve often been rewarded by the taste of real cakes. b. you can’t suppress a conditioned reflex. c. you’ve been given real cakes on a variable-interval schedule. d. you’ve experienced evaluative conditioning. 30. The first step in a behavior modification program is to a. gather baseline data. b. specify the antecedents. c. specify the target behavior. d. design a program. 31. Your younger daughter watches your older daughter wash the breakfast dishes. Later, your younger daughter attempts to wash some dishes. The older daughter has acted as a a. noncontingent learner. b. negative reinforcer. c. positive reinforcer. d. model. 32. To encourage people to like and buy their products, advertisers are most likely to take advantage of which one of the following learning processes? a. evaluative conditioning b. operant conditioning c. positive reinforcement d. behavior self-modification 33. Researchers say that a response controlled through classical conditioning is “elicited.” They use this word because it indicates that a. the response is not reinforced or punished by any other stimulus. b. the stimulus leads to the response without anything else controlling it. c. the response is just an unlearned reflex. d. the conditioned stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus. 34. Businesses often provide good meals and pleasant surroundings when initially meeting with new clients. In these situations, clients may develop positive feelings toward their business host and the company he or she represents. If this occurs, then the pleasant surroundings have functioned as a. a conditioned stimulus. b. a discriminative stimulus. c. secondary reinforcers. d. an unconditioned stimulus.

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Chapter 06_11e 35. Nolan has learned to drink a cup of coffee whenever he gets a tension headache because drinking coffee makes the pain of the headache go away. This is an example of a. avoidance learning. b. escape learning. c. positive reinforcement. d. classical conditioning. 36. Rafael and Alan are brothers. When playing, Alan always says, “I’m going to get you,” just before he hits Rafael. Rafael also says, “I’m going to get you,” but doesn’t always hit Alan afterwards. According to Rescorla’s signal relations theory, which one of the following statements most accurately explains which brother will be more frightened when hearing “I’m going to get you”? a. Rafael will be more frightened because he has developed a phobia. b. Rafael will be more frightened because he can better predict when he’s about to be hit. c. Alan will be more frightened because he was conditioned using a variable-ratio schedule. d. Alan will be more frightened because he is never sure when Rafael is going to hit him. 37. If you find that you have more positive feelings toward a product after an attractive spokesperson gives you a free sample, your change in attitudes would be said to have resulted from a. evaluative conditioning. b. escape learning. c. reflexive conditioning. d. observational learning. 38. Simon cringes every time he hears a dentist’s drill, even when he is sitting in the waiting room of his dentist’s office. In this example, cringing in the waiting room is a(n) a. unconditioned response. b. conditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. unconditioned stimulus. 39. Avoidance learning is most clearly related to a. negative reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. punishment. d. modeling.

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Chapter 06_11e 40. Linda is constantly checking her phone for new messages and starts to worry when she is someplace where she cannot check her phone. She realizes that this is becoming a problem and that she needs to do something about it. Linda develops a behavior modification program to change this behavior. First, she needs to gather baseline data to identify the antecedents and consequences of her behavior. Which of the following behavior patterns MOST clearly reflects one of the antecedents? a. Linda checks her phone every time she stops at a traffic light. b. Linda checks her phone at least three times every day. c. Linda checks her phone before going to bed. d. Linda checks her phone because she wonders if the ringer is turned off. 41. Which one of the following statements best explains, from the perspective of classical conditioning, why employers who are trying to recruit new employees often take candidates out to dinner at a nice restaurant following an interview? a. The candidate will feel an obligation to reciprocate or pay back the employer with some similar kindness. b. The dinner will be a primary reinforcer, reinforcing the candidate’s feelings about the company. c. The dinner will elicit positive feelings for the job candidate, which then will be associated with the company. d. The situation is doubly reinforcing -- food is a primary reinforcer and the atmosphere of the restaurant is a secondary reinforcer. 42. Conditioned taste aversions most clearly illustrate a. the social-cognitive view of learning. b. Thorndike’s law of effect. c. an evolutionary perspective on learning. d. Mowrer’s two-process theory. 43. In classical conditioning, the stimulus that naturally evokes an unlearned response is the a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. unconditioned reinforcer. d. conditioned reinforcer. 44. Bart used to go to his health club every day after work because he almost always saw Abigail there. For 2 full weeks, Abigail wasn’t at the club when Bart arrived for his workout, and now Bart has stopped going to his health club. This example illustrates the process of a. extinction. b. punishment. c. avoidance. d. resistance.

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Chapter 06_11e 45. Carson used to enjoy lime sherbet so when he was in Mexico, he tried frozen lime margaritas. After his fourth margarita, Carson became extremely ill. Now he finds that even the sight of lime sherbet in a bowl can make him feel queasy. In this example, the unconditioned stimulus is the a. lime margaritas that Carson consumed. b. illness that followed the fourth margarita. c. sight of lime sherbet. d. queasiness that Carson feels when he sees lime sherbet. 46. In general, reinforcers work better than punishers for a behavior self-modification program because a. people find it very difficult to punish themselves. b. people have a hard time identifying consequences that would be punishments. c. reinforcement is a more direct way to change behavior than punishment. d. punishment focuses on consequences, whereas reinforcement focuses on antecedents. 47. At preschool, Jessi has learned that she must wash her hands before snack time in order to get a snack. At home, however, her parents do not check to make sure she washes her hands. When she is home, Jessi does not wash her hands before eating. Jessi’s behavior illustrates the process of a. response generalization. b. response discrimination. c. stimulus generalization. d. stimulus discrimination. 48. When Duy gets home from work, he turns on the television, and his dog sits down next to him. Within 10 minutes of sitting down, his dog starts barking and licking Duy's hand. Duy pets his dog and tosses a ball for his dog, so his dog stops barking and licking his hand. This pattern happens every day. When Duy learns about operant conditioning in class, he realizes that his situation shows both positive and negative reinforcement. Why is this an example of positive reinforcement? a. Duy has learned to play with his dog to stop the barking. b. The dog has learned that if he barks and licks his hand, Duy will play with him. c. Duy has learned that he finds the barking and licking to be annoying. d. The dog has learned that Duy finds the barking and licking to be annoying. 49. Nancy studies operant conditioning. For six days in a row, she puts a pigeon into a Skinner box. The box has two levers, red and blue, and Nancy sets up a schedule of reinforcement so that the pigeon learns to peck at the blue lever to get food. On the seventh day, she conducts a test to see what the pigeon has learned. She waits until she is sure the pigeon is very hungry and then puts it into the Skinner box. It immediately pecks at the lever, but because this is the test phase, it gets no food. Next, it wanders around the box for a while, then goes back to the blue lever and pecks. Again, it wanders around some more, and then goes back to the blue lever and pecks. This pattern of pecking, then waiting, continues through the test. Based on the pigeon’s pattern of responses, which schedule of reinforcement did Nancy most likely use during the six days of training? a. fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06_11e 50. Observational learning theory suggests that when children see adults behaving aggressively toward a toy and being punished for it, they will a. behave aggressively toward the toy only when they think they are not being watched. b. behave aggressively toward the toy as soon as they are allowed to play with it. c. show less aggression toward the toy than children who saw aggressive behavior rewarded. d. show as much aggression toward the toy as a child who hadn’t seen any adults at all. 51. Bethanie asked her father for bubble gum in the grocery store checkout line, and her father bought her bubble gum. If Bethanie asks for more candy in the future, the bubble gum has acted as a(n) a. higher order stimulus. b. reinforcer. c. conditioned response. d. unconditioned stimulus. 52. Vanessa wants to stop procrastinating on her homework, so she decides to set up a behavior modification program. She loves chocolate chip cookies, so she decides she will reward herself with two cookies when she finishes her homework. Chocolate chip cookies are likely to be good reinforcers for Vanessa if a. she also uses other kinds of cookies as reinforcers. b. she does her homework before dinner. c. she eats them only after finishing homework. d. she isn’t hungry when she does her homework. 53. Which one of the following scenarios most clearly demonstrates observational learning? a. You and your friend skip school together and are both punished for it. You don’t skip school again. b. You and your friend skip school together, but only you are punished for it. You don’t skip school again. c. You and your friend skip school together, but only your friend is punished for it. You don’t skip school again. d. You and your friend skip school together, and neither of you is punished for it. You both skip school again next week. 54. Four of your friends tell you that they want to modify their behavior. Which of your friends still needs to describe the target behavior they want to change? a. Jules wants to start exercising and stretching regularly. b. Moe wants to control his temper when his neighbor's dog barks late at night. c. Niyati wants to be more supportive of the people at work. d. Pearl wants to stop leaving her clothes on the chair in the living room.

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Chapter 06_11e 55. Nicolas' parents have been worried because their son is 2 years old and is not speaking. Nicolas' doctor recommends seeing a speech therapist. The speech therapist initially gave Nicolas a piece of chocolate any time he would make a sound with his lips. Slowly the therapist changed this so that he only received a piece of chocolate for saying complete words, and eventually only for saying complete sentences. In this example, Nicolas developed speech skills through the use of a. intermittent conditioning. b. modeling. c. shaping. d. stimulus discrimination 56. Soraya has test anxiety, especially when she takes tests that are a large percentage of her grade. She has a big chemistry test tomorrow, and she tells her mother that she has a sore throat and a fever and will have to stay home. Her mother responds in a way that leads to negative reinforcement. Which one of the following responses did her mother most likely make? a. Her mother tells her she has to go to school, and Soraya does well on the test. b. Her mother tells her she can stay home from school, but Soraya has to take a make-up test the next day. c. Her mother tells her if she doesn’t go to school, she will have to stay in bed all day without tv or her phone. d. Her mother tells her she can stay home, and the next time she has a big test Soraya says she feels sick. 57. When Skyler was first training his dog, Smooches, to heel, he would give Smooches a treat when she stayed close during walks. Now Smooches stays right by Skyler’s side, even when she is not on her leash. In terms of operant conditioning, a. the dog treats were negative reinforcers for staying close. b. staying close was a positive reinforcer for receiving dog treats. c. staying close was a negative reinforcer for receiving dog treats. d. the dog treats were positive reinforcers for staying close. 58. Classical conditioning could account for how a child learns to a. sing a song. b. tie shoe laces. c. print letters. d. fear the dark. 59. A circus trainer wants to train a cat to pull a rope as part of an animal act. The probability that the cat will just pull a rope is very low. Which one of the following techniques would be the BEST choice to help the cat learn to emit the desired response? a. shaping b. stimulus generalization c. extinction d. stimulus discrimination

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Chapter 06_11e 60. Sonia first trains her new dog by saying, “Good dog!” before giving him a food treat. She then trains her dog to sit and stay, saying, “Good dog!” when he performs the correct behavior, while continuing to periodically provide a food treat. Sonia is training the dog using a. operant conditioning only b. operant conditioning and observational learning c. classical conditioning and operant conditioning d. classical conditioning only 61. One Saturday, Clayton was sitting at home when the telephone rang. A local company was making promotional calls and told Clayton he had just won a $500 gift certificate. He felt a rush of excitement at the thought of what he could do with $500. Now Clayton finds that whenever he hears a telephone ring, he feels a little surge of excitement. In this example, the conditioned response is the a. surge of excitement that Clayton feels whenever he hears a telephone ring. b. ringing of a telephone. c. news that he had just won a $500 gift certificate. d. rush of excitement he felt when he won the certificate. 62. Research shows that exposure to violent television shows increases the likelihood of aggressive behavior in children and adults. Of the following, the explanation that best reflects observational-learning theory is that a. observing violent actions on television is rewarding for individuals with tendencies toward aggression. b. televised violence makes people less sensitive in general. c. television characters model violence and are rewarded for it. d. violent characters on television are almost never punished for their behavior. 63. Which one of the following people is most likely to develop a conditioned liking response? a. Logan is given a dollar every time he cleans his room. b. Liam goes to the dentist for a very painful procedure and is given medicine for the pain. c. Evelyn sees an advertisement for energy drinks with people who are overweight. d. Mia watches her favorite cartoon character enjoying eating peas for dinner. 64. Camila just moved to the United States from Guatemala, where Spanish was her primary language. In her fourth-grade class, she is very shy and uncertain about her English skills, so she never participates in any class discussion, even when she clearly knows the answer. If her teacher decides to shape Camila’s behavior, her first step should be to a. identify a behavior Camila already does and reward her for it. b. move Camila’s desk closer to her own so that she feels more comfortable. c. praise Camila immediately every time she participates in discussion. d. promise Camila a reward of her choice if she begins to participate in discussion.

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Chapter 06_11e 65. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the reciprocity norm? a. Your mother gives you your late grandmother’s antique china, and you love having a reminder of your grandmother. b. A casual friend asks you to be in her wedding party, and you feel obligated to ask her to be in yours. c. A classmate offers to make a statement supporting your candidacy for class president, but you decline because he’s not very well liked. d. You’re watching a new popular television show, and you realize that most of the characters are attractive people about your age. 66. Personal likes and dislikes can be affected by classical conditioning. Researchers refer to this process as a. evaluative conditioning. b. higher-order conditioning. c. positive reinforcement. d. vicarious learning. 67. The primary reason that behavior self-modification programs are based on reinforcement of desired behaviors more often than on punishment of undesired behaviors is that a. people are likely to pick punishments that are too mild to have any effect. b. people generally find it difficult to punish themselves. c. people typically want to develop new behaviors, not get rid of unwanted ones. d. people usually identify behavioral goals that are challenging and realistic. 68. Every time Brianna does the dishes, her parents give her a dollar. This scenario shows an example of a. primary reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. variable reinforcement. d. negative reinforcement. 69. In the Little Albert experiment on conditioned emotional responses, stimulus generalization was shown when Albert showed the fear response to a. the rabbit. b. the rat. c. the loud noise. d. his mother. 70. Duy has a new puppy. When he gets home from psychology class, Duy turns on the television, and the puppy sits down beside him. However, within 10 minutes the dog is barking and whimpering for attention. Duy gives him a toy, and the barking and whimpering stop. This pattern goes on for a week, until Duy learns about operant conditioning in class and realizes that his situation shows both positive and negative reinforcement. Why is this an example of negative reinforcement? a. Duy has learned that he finds the barking and whimpering to be annoying. b. Duy has learned to give the puppy a toy to stop the barking and whimpering. c. The puppy has learned that Duy finds the barking and whimpering to be annoying. d. The puppy has learned that if he whimpers and barks, Duy will give him a toy. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06_11e 71. Chandler and Agnes argue every day, but they want to get along better. They decide that each of them will keep a journal for a week, writing down exactly what they were doing before the argument, how they felt during the argument, how long the argument lasted, and how it ended. They discovered that they most often argued when one or the other pointed out chores that were incomplete, they both felt frustrated and angry, and the arguments usually ended with one of them walking away to calm down. In this scenario, the controlling antecedent is a. keeping the journal. b. pointing out incomplete chores. c. walking away to calm down. d. feeling frustrated and angry. 72. Kylee used to bring drawings home from her kindergarten class every day. Her parents would put the pictures on the refrigerator and tell Kylee how nice the pictures were. Lately, her parents haven’t been putting her artwork on the refrigerator, and now Kylee has stopped bringing drawings home with her. This example illustrates the process of a. punishment. b. avoidance. c. resistance. d. extinction. 73. Kenji hates to clean up after dinner. One night, he volunteers to bathe the dog before cleaning up after dinner. When he finishes with the dog and returns to the kitchen, his partner has cleaned everything up for him. Which of the following occurred? a. Kenji will start cleaning up after dinner before he bathes the dog. b. Kenji's partner has reinforced him for bathing the dog. c. Kenji's partner has punished him for bathing the dog. d. Kenji will never bathe the dog again. 74. In terms of operant conditioning, a discriminative stimulus is a cue that indicates a. whether reinforcement is available for a particular response. b. that an unconditioned stimulus is about to be presented. c. that a conditioned stimulus is about to be presented. d. whether the person or animal should repeat the target behavior. 75. Which of the following statements describes an appropriate target behavior for a self-modification program? a. I spend too much time following web links to stories about celebrities. b. I enjoy reading magazines and Internet articles about celebrities too much. c. I’m too interested in following the lives of celebrities and sports figures. d. I want to change my attitudes about celebrities and other famous people.

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Chapter 06_11e 76. You just got your driver’s license, and your father asks you to drive him to the post office. You are able to do so with ease, and you even follow a route that you have never taken before. This is an example of a. insight learning. b. latent learning. c. classical conditioning. d. operant conditioning. 77. For a class project in Introductory Psychology, Oliver, Noah, and Ava design a test of classical conditioning. Oliver sounds an air horn every time his roommate says the word “the” and notices that his roommate starts to flinch even before he sounds the air horn. Noah sounds the air horn intermittently, about half the time his roommate says “the,” and Ava sounds the air horn consistently every other time her roommate says “the.” The students then stop sounding the air horn entirely and observe which of their roommates flinches when they say “the.” Which statement most accurately states the expected findings and conclusion? a. Noah’s roommate will be most likely to flinch because the air horn was a punisher on a variable-interval schedule. b. Ava’s roommate will be most likely to flinch because she was conditioned using a fixed-ratio schedule. c. Oliver’s roommate will be most likely to flinch because saying “the” was a conditioned stimulus with high predictive value. d. None of the roommates will flinch because the air horn is no longer associated with the word “the.” 78. Aki hates having to participate in group projects. As a result, he always talks to his classmates to find out the requirements for all of his classes before registering and never takes classes that require term group projects. Aki’s behavior is an example of a. escape learning. b. avoidance learning c. an unconditioned stimulus. d. punishment. 79. If you want a rat in a Skinner box to press the lever quickly and without stopping, you should offer food in response to a lever press according to which of the following types of reinforcement schedules? a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval 80. Danai has a new roommate, Elba, who never washes the dishes; she just leaves them dirty in the sink. If she relies on principles of operant conditioning, which one of the following techniques should Danai use so that Elba learns to wash and put away the dishes regularly? a. Danai should leave her own dishes in the sink so that Elba learns how it feels. b. Danai should wash the dishes when her roommate is watching so that Elba learns vicariously. c. Danai should institute a system where they both have to pay a fine if they leave the dishes in the sink. d. Danai should talk to Elba about the issue..

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Chapter 06_11e 81. Which of the following is the best definition of reinforcer? a. a stimulus that a person or animal finds to be pleasing or rewarding b. a stimulus that increases the probability that the response it follows will be repeated c. a stimulus that reliably leads to a predictable positive response d. a stimulus that satisfies an important biological need 82. The reappearance of a conditioned response that has been extinguished is called a. disinhibition. b. reconditioning. c. stimulus generalization. d. spontaneous recovery. 83. Diego wants to learn Spanish, so he decides to set up a self-modification program that relies on basic principles of learning. He’s busy and wants to stay on track with his goal, so he decides to reward himself with a candy bar each time he finishes a chapter in his self-study textbook. For this to be an effective reinforcer, it is important that Diego a. buy the candy only when he’s met his goal of finishing a chapter in his text. b. buy only his very favorite candy bar so that he is highly motivated to get it. c. also identify an effective punishment, like depriving himself of other sweets if he skips a chapter. d. eat less in general so that he’s hungry and the candy will serve as a primary reinforcement. 84. Devon swims on the swim team. When the workout becomes too hard for her, she finds herself out of breath, and she doesn’t like that feeling, so she complains that her goggles are leaking and gets out of the water. In terms of operant conditioning, Devon’s behavior shows a. avoidance learning. b. escape learning. c. fixed-interval reinforcement. d. positive reinforcement. 85. Sue Savage-Rumbaugh is known for teaching bonobos (apes) to use symbols for communication. Although unsuccessful in teaching one ape, Matata, Savage-Rumbaugh was surprised to discover that Matata’s son, Kanzi, had learned to use the symbols, even though he had never had any direct instruction or reward. Kanzi’s behavior most clearly shows that a. nonhuman primates can learn vicariously through observing others. b. observational learning is more powerful than classical conditioning. c. nonhuman primates learn best when reinforced on an intermittent schedule. d. negative reinforcement is more powerful than observational learning.

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Chapter 06_11e 86. Which of the following statements accurately contrasts operant and classical conditioning? a. Operant conditioning makes associations between two stimuli; classical conditioning associates a behavior with its consequence. b. Classical conditioning makes associations between two stimuli; operant conditioning associates a behavior with its consequence. c. Classical conditioning leads to temporary behavior change; operant conditioning leads to relatively permanent behavior change. d. Classical conditioning leads to relatively permanent behavior change; operant conditioning leads to temporary behavior change. 87. Aroon studies operant conditioning. For three days in a row, he puts a rat into a Skinner box and sets up a schedule of reinforcement so that the rat learns to press a bar to get food. On the fourth day, he conducts a 2minute test to see what the rat has learned. He puts the rat into the Skinner box, and it goes straight to the bar and presses it over and over very fast, without stopping, even though it is getting no food. For the next two test days, the same thing happens: the rat presses the bar very fast and without stopping, even though it is not getting any food. Based on the rat’s pattern of responding, which schedule of reinforcement did Aroon most likely use during the three days of training? a. variable interval b. fixed interval c. fixed ratio d. variable ratio 88. You eat a new food and that night become ill with nausea and vomiting. Later, you experience nausea whenever you taste or smell the new food. Why did you not associate your nausea with the cues of the room, the people present, the bathroom, and so on? a. You were biologically predisposed to associate taste and nausea. b. The nontaste cues were too weak. c. The taste cues were more immediate. d. There was less contiguity for the other cues. 89. A 3-year-old boy observes his father yelling at his mother every time she says something the father doesn’t like. Based on principles of observational learning, whenever the mother says something to the boy that he does not like in the future, the boy is MOST likely to do which of the following? a. yell at his mother b. yell at his sister c. go and tell his father what the mother said d. yell at his father 90. Responses learned through classical conditioning would include all of the following EXCEPT a. both pleasant and unpleasant emotional responses. b. simple reflexive behaviors such as blinking. c. the physiological functioning of the immune system. d. voluntary behaviors such as setting the table for dinner.

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Chapter 06_11e 91. Researchers argue that observational learning has a cognitive component, in part because it requires that a. the observer has an opportunity to practice the model’s behavior. b. the observer is motivated to perform the model’s behavior. c. the observer is physically able to reproduce the model’s behavior. d. the observer remembers the model’s behavior and the consequences. 92. In Pavlov’s principal experiment, if a dog salivated after hearing a tone, the salivation was a. a conditioned response. b. a conditioned stimulus. c. an unconditioned stimulus. d. a neutral stimulus. 93. A team of researchers wanted to know whether physiological processes can be classically conditioned. In their study, they first injected rats with heroin, which causes a change in their brain chemistry, and then put the rats in a new environment for an hour. They repeated this process several times in a week. If the experiment shows that conditioning was effective, they should find that a. the rats show the same change in brain chemistry when placed in the environment without the heroin injection. b. the rats show long-term changes in brain chemistry that generalize to all new environments, even without a heroin injection. c. the rats show changes in brain chemistry only when injected with heroin, regardless of the environment. d. the rats show changes in brain chemistry when rewarded with a drug that mimics the effects of heroin. 94. Which of the following statements accurately contrasts operant and classical conditioning? a. Classical conditioning generally works best with reflexive involuntary behaviors; operant conditioning involves voluntary behaviors. b. Operant conditioning generally works best with reflexive involuntary behaviors; classical conditioning involves more complex voluntary behaviors. c. Classical conditioning the consequence of a response is important; operant conditioning the consequence of the response is not important. d. Classical conditioning contains stimulus discrimination; operant conditioning contains stimulus generalization. 95. Which of the following is a possible primary reinforcer? a. approval b. food c. a toy for a child d. money 96. Which one of the following learning scenarios includes reinforcement with a primary reinforcer? a. Adahy’s father takes away his allowance when he misbehaves in school. b. Caitlin’s father buys Caitlin her favorite candy after she scored a goal in the soccer game. c. Manuela’s father does Manuela's chores at home after he got an A on his science test. d. Sokoro’s father praises him when he is polite and well-behaved when out grocery shopping. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06_11e 97. If a dog is immediately reinforced following a desired behavior, which of the following schedules of reinforcement would allow for the longest pause before the dog's next response? a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval 98. The dog that lives next door to Kathryn barks all day, and because Kathryn works at home, she finds the barking to be disruptive. On Tuesday she puts on headphones that block out the noise, and on Wednesday she talks to the neighbor about the ongoing problem. Her neighbor says she will find a solution, but the dog continues to bark. The principle of negative reinforcement suggests that on Friday, Kathryn will be most likely to a. offer to walk the dog during her lunch break. b. put her headphones on again. c. remind her neighbor of the noise code. d. shop where it’s quiet. 99. Ratio schedules of reinforcement are based on a. elapsed time between reinforcements. b. number of responses given. c. number of reinforcements given. d. length of the training period. 100. Research into the debate on the role of media violence on children suggests a. that media violence contributes to increased aggression among children but not adults. b. that media violence contributes to increased aggression among adults but not children. c. that media violence contributes to increased aggression among children and adults. d. no conclusion because the majority of the studies on the cause-and-effect relationship between media violence and aggression have been correlational. 101. The classic study in which children saw adults behaving aggressively toward a toy most clearly showed that a. children will imitate aggressive behaviors that they see being rewarded on film. b. children who are already predisposed to aggression will imitate aggressive behaviors they see on television. c. violent television shows and video games cause aggression in children and adults. d. children will imitate an adult who behaves aggressively in almost any circumstance. 102. Katrina is working with her dog to catch a Frisbee in the air. Sometimes she gives the dog a treat every time he catches the Frisbee, sometimes it is every other time he catches the Frisbee, and other times it can take up to 5 or 6 catches before she gives him a treat. In this example, treats given to the dog are reinforced on a(n) ________ schedule. a. continuous b. noncontingent c. intermittent d. backward Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06_11e 103. When Luis was a child, he really liked the smell of the rose-scented perfume his mother used to wear. He came to associate that scent with snuggles and hugs from his mom. As an adult, Luis likes any floral scent, including the smell of lilacs and wildflowers. This example illustrates the classical conditioning process of a. stimulus generalization. b. stimulus discrimination. c. preparedness. d. spontaneous recovery. 104. A baseball player has been in a batting slump for several weeks. One day, his mother comes to the game, and he alters his batting stance as an experiment. He gets three hits. At the next game, the baseball player will most likely a. experiment with another different batting stance. b. use the batting stance that led to the three hits. c. ask that his father come watch his next game. d. return to his original batting stance to see if that’s what made the difference. 105. In Pavlov’s principal experiment, the conditioned stimulus was the a. salivation. b. meat powder. c. light. d. tone. 106. Every summer, Mateo goes to the beach for vacation. When he goes to the beach on the first day of his vacation, he feels anxious as he stands at the edge of the surf, but by the end of the day his anxiety is gone and he is having fun in the water. In terms of classical conditioning, what might explain the return of George’s feelings of anxiety every year is that a. he “relearns” his anxiety every year at the start of the vacation. b. his anxiety is a conditioned response to the ocean that reappears every time he goes to the beach. c. the ocean waves are the original unconditioned stimulus that evokes the anxiety. d. the fun of swimming in the ocean is stronger than the conditioned response of anxiety. 107. In an episode of one of your favorite television shows, one of the main characters dislikes another person's girlfriend, so he decides to use operant conditioning to stop the girlfriend from coming over to their house. Every time the girlfriend comes over, the main character offers the girlfriend chocolate when they leave. Why is this probably not going to stop the girlfriend from coming over to their house? a. The girlfriend is subconsciously aware that she is being manipulated. b. The girlfriend's current behavior is likely to spontaneously recover. c. Reinforcement only works if it’s offered every time she does what he wants. d. The chocolate isn’t reinforcing the correct target behavior.

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Chapter 06_11e 108. Rafael’s brother always says, “I’m going to get you,” just before he hits Rafael. Alan’s brother often says, “I’m going to get you,” but doesn’t always hit Alan afterwards. Based on the work by Rescorla, you should predict that when these boys hear the words, “I’m going to get you,” Rafael will show a(n) a. unconditioned response, while Alan will show a conditioned response. b. stronger conditioned response than Alan will show. c. weaker conditioned response than Alan will show. d. conditioned response, while Alan will show an unconditioned response. 109. Advertisers often manipulate consumers’ emotions using sexual imagery in the ads. In terms of classical conditioning, this is effective because a. sex is a primary reinforcer. b. sexual images are secondary reinforcers. c. sexual images typically elicit positive feelings. d. people are biologically prepared to respond to sexual images. 110. There are different ways that you can try to stop the habit of biting your nails. One way is to use a bitter-tasting nail polish. The principles of classical conditioning suggest that if a person experiences this side effect, he or she will a. stop using the nail polish because the side effect serves as punishment. b. stop biting their nails as a result of conditioned taste aversion. c. continue to bite their nails because the habit outweighs the punishment. d. continue to bite their nails because the negative side effects aren’t contingent on the behavior. 111. Brenda has learned to take an over-the-counter medication 30 minutes before she eats a spicy meal. When she does this, she is able to prevent the heartburn and indigestion that she would otherwise experience. This is an example of a. escape learning. b. positive reinforcement. c. classical conditioning. d. avoidance learning. 112. Roy and Meredith are surprised when their 3-year-old daughter unexpectedly says a “bad” word. Roy and Meredith are very careful about not using "bad" words around her. As a researcher who studies observational learning, how would you MOST likely explain the use of the "bad" word to her parents? a. Their daughter has probably heard the word used from other sources like the radio, television, or another adult and formed a mental representation of the word when she heard it. b. Their daughter has probably heard the word used from other sources like the radio, television, or another adult and created a cognitive map of the word’s meaning. c. Their daughter did not know she would be punished for using the word, since she does not yet understand that it is a "bad" word. d. Their daughter remembered her parents being rewarded for using the word.

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Chapter 06_11e 113. Dawn is a second-grade teacher. To indicate her approval, she puts star stickers on her students’ papers when they turn them in on time, and she puts smiling-face stickers on complete assignments with legible handwriting. In terms of operant conditioning, the stickers are best described as a. intermittent reinforcers. b. noncontingent reinforcers. c. primary reinforcers. d. secondary reinforcers. 114. Jonah is playing on his tablet one evening, when his father asks him to finish up and get ready to take a bath. Jonah nods but completely ignores the request. After a few minutes his father repeats the request with a slightly sterner voice. Jonah says, “Okay, let me just finish this game.” Ten minutes later, when Jonah has clearly played several more games, his father repeats the request but with a very firm voice. Jonah, knowing that this voice means he’s about to get in big trouble, puts down the tablet and goes to take a bath. Jonah’s behavior illustrates that he a. is being shaped by the different voices. b. is being reinforced by the different voices. c. is discriminating among the different voices. d. is generalizing from the most angry voice to the others. 115. In one episode of the TV show “The Big Bang Theory,” the guys are tired of having their conversations get sidetracked. They decide that every time one of them starts talking about something that is off-topic, they will “get their arm hair yanked off.” Eventually, Leonard gives up and complains that “negative reinforcement isn’t working.” Sheldon replies, “I think you mean punishment…negative reinforcement is the removal of a positive stimulus.” How good is their understanding of operant conditioning? a. Both of the guys are wrong; they are using positive reinforcement to keep the conversation on topic. b. Leonard is right; they are using negative reinforcement to keep the conversation on topic. c. Sheldon is right that they are using punishment, but his definition of negative reinforcement is wrong. d. Sheldon is wrong that they are using punishment, but his definition of reinforcement is right. 116. When an individual has a phobia, the irrational fear and anxiety that the person experiences is a(n) a. conditioned response. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned stimulus. 117. If you devise a self-modification program in which you systematically reward yourself for studying, you are applying the principles of a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. observational learning. d. Pavlovian conditioning.

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Chapter 06_11e 118. Josiah checks his email several times throughout the day. Some days he has email each time he checks; sometimes several days go by with no new messages arriving. Josiah keeps checking several times every day. Josiah’s behavior is being reinforced a. on a variable-interval schedule. b. on a variable-ratio schedule. c. on a continuous schedule. d. on a delayed schedule. 119. In the Little Albert experiment on conditioned emotional responses, the unconditioned stimulus was the a. rabbit. b. rat. c. loud noise. d. fear reaction. 120. If a dog salivates to a blue light and not to a yellow light, the dog is showing evidence of a. spontaneous recovery. b. conditioned emotional reactions. c. stimulus generalization. d. stimulus discrimination. 121. With most behavior modification programs, once a terminal goal has been reached, it is a good idea to a. stop the program abruptly. b. phase the program out gradually by reducing the frequency or potency of the reinforcers. c. switch from positive to negative reinforcement. d. switch from a ratio to an interval schedule of reinforcement. 122. Amy is competing in the Ironman triathlon. Monday, she decided to take a new route, which passed a garbage dump. It smelled very bad, so Amy ran faster than her usual pace to get out of the area faster. In terms of operant conditioning, if this experience provided punishment for her, we can infer that she will a. run faster than usual the next time she goes past the garbage dump. b. avoid running past the garbage dump again. c. associate the bad smell with running faster. d. develop an aversion to running. 123. In which of the following scenarios is the person reinforced on a variable interval schedule? a. In hopes of winning a big jackpot, Patricia plays the slot machines at a nearby casino. b. Shmuel earns extra money by shoveling his neighbor’s driveways and sidewalks in the winter. He charges $20 per job but only shovels for snowfalls of 1 inch or more. c. Marcus takes his daughter Rebekah fishing and explains that you never know how long you have to leave your line in the water before a fish will bite. d. Jaime has a paper due once a month in his sociology course. His productivity is low at the beginning of the month and high as the deadline approaches.

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Chapter 06_11e 124. Which of the following results in the steadiest response rate? a. Receiving a free pizza after buying five pizzas b. Playing a slot machine c. A rat being reinforced when it presses a lever every two minutes d. Dialing a busy phone number 125. Alysia has a new baby, and she would like for the baby to learn to fall asleep at about the same time every night. Right now, the baby regularly falls asleep after eating and when she is in a moving car, but she has no other regular patterns. Of the following, the most effective strategy that reflects principles of classical conditioning would be for Alysia to a. put the baby seat on top of the dryer so that the baby feels the same vibration as in the car. b. go for a short drive every evening until the baby falls asleep, then bring her to her bed inside. c. play a lullaby while feeding the baby until the lullaby itself is associated with falling asleep. d. take the baby to her crib every time she falls asleep until she associates the crib with sleeping. 126. A dog is first conditioned to salivate to a tone. Then, a light is paired with the tone for a number of trials. Finally, the light is presented alone, and the dog salivates. This procedure is known as a. chaining. b. higher-order conditioning. c. compound conditioning. d. sensory preconditioning. 127. Derek is frustrated that his 1½-year-old dog does not let him know when he needs to go outside to urinate. Sometimes he comes home to find a mess near the door. Based on the principles of conditioning, which training method is most likely to be successful? a. Derek takes his dog outside on a fixed schedule and gives him a treat when they return to the house, whether he urinated or not. b. Derek takes his dog over to the mess, puts the dog’s nose near it so he smells it, and tells him, “Bad dog, don’t do this again!” c. If Derek comes home and finds a mess by the door, he ignores his dog for an hour. d. Derek takes his dog outside on a fixed schedule and promptly gives him a treat for urinating outside. 128. Researchers have found that animals show evidence of classical conditioning if they are injected with a drug that chemically causes immunosuppression while they are simultaneously drinking an unusual-tasting liquid. In these studies, the conditioned response would be a. the immunosuppression. b. the taste of the liquid that is used. c. the injection of the drug. d. fear of the injection process.

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Chapter 06_11e 129. Which one of the following scenarios most clearly demonstrates that operant conditioning can take place vicariously through observational learning? a. Marc sees that the other children smile and laugh at Esther when she tells jokes in class, so he starts interrupting lessons to tell jokes, too. b. Best friends Stephen and Kayla study together for all their classes, and they are both rewarded with the class prize for the highest grade point average. c. Hana watches as her older brother, Rudi, practices the piano and asks her parents if she can take lessons when she is old enough. d. Kotya sits on the beach while her sister Gudiya learns to surf. Afraid of the water, Kotya tells herself, “I could do that if I wanted, but I am just not interested.” 130. In Nazi Germany, leaders used many propaganda techniques to create prejudice. The technique that most clearly reflects evaluative conditioning was a. arresting people who were seen as unpatriotic or a threat to the unity of the country. b. censoring books, newspapers, and other media material that contradicted the beliefs of the ruling party. c. pairing negative images of animals with stereotypical images of members of targeted groups. d. teaching children and teenagers to march and to sing songs and chant political slogans in unison. 131. Otto’s daughter Mila never does her homework after school without him asking at least twice, and sometimes as many as 5 times. Instead, she chats online with her friends for a few hours. He really wants her to learn to take responsibility and do her homework without his asking. The best way to get her to do her homework without his asking using positive reinforcement would be to a. fine her a dollar for every hour she spends not doing her homework. b. praise her when she does her homework after being asked only twice. c. tell her she won’t be aloud to hang out with her friends on the weekend if she doesn’t do her homework. d. take away her online time until her homework is complete. 132. Raul’s parents thank Raul every time he clears the dishes from the table without being asked. Sadie’s parents try to remember to thank Sadie every time she clears the table without being asked, but about half the time, they forget. Based on principles of operant conditioning, you should predict that a. both children’s table clearing will be equally resistant to extinction. b. Sadie’s table clearing will be more resistant to extinction than Raul’s. c. Raul’s table clearing will be more resistant to extinction than Sadie’s. d. Raul will develop stimulus generalization, and Sadie will develop stimulus discrimination. 133. Research on conditioned taste aversion shows that rats very easily learn to associate a taste with a. a shock. b. a visual cue. c. a sound. d. nausea.

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Chapter 06_11e 134. Lebron is a professional basketball player. He never knows for sure which of his shots will result in a basket, but the more shots he takes, the more baskets he makes. In this example, Lebron’s shooting is being reinforced on a a. fixed-ratio schedule. b. fixed-interval schedule. c. variable-ratio schedule. d. variable-interval schedule. 135. Yuki wants to stop procrastinating. She decides to set up a self-modification program and begins to collect baseline data. Which one of the following scenarios best illustrates that process? a. Yuki defines “procrastination” in behavioral terms as “minutes wasted when I should be working.” b. Yuki identifies a reasonable reward that she can give herself when she doesn’t procrastinate. c. Yuki keeps a diary for a week and makes a list of all the behaviors she engages in when she isn’t working. d. Yuki spends a week recording how much time passes between saying, “I need to get to work,” and actually starting the work. 136. Lila watches with excitement as her parents cook dinner every night. She even hands them random items from the kitchen as they cook. One day her parents buy her a play kitchen set. That afternoon, while Lila is playing in her kitchen set, she puts a pot on the stove and stirs it with a spoon. From the perspective of observational learning, the best explanation for Lila’s behavior is that a. she innately knows how to cook on the stovetop. b. she has learned where to put the pot and how to stir by watching her parents repeatedly perform similar actions. c. she believes that by playing with her kitchen set, she will receive a reward. d. she was paying attention only to what her parents did at the stove. 137. After the Olympics, it is common for the President of a country to meet with the athletes who won medals. From the perspective of classical conditioning, the President issues the invitation because a. people’s positive feelings about the athletes will be associated with the President. b. the invitation from the President is a reward for the athletes’ success in sport. c. the President is following the social rule known as the reciprocity norm. d. the athletes are good role models for other citizens. 138. Which of the following examples best illustrates Skinner’s belief that “superstitious behavior is established through non-contingent reinforcement?” a. You are afraid of spiders because your sibling once put a spider in your hair when you were younger. b. You immediately open your text messages when you hear the tone that means you have a new message. c. You give your dog treats every morning, and she develops an odd behavior of barking twice and walking in a circle while she waits. d. You are studying in a common room and someone turns on the radio and it is too loud, so you put on noise-canceling headphones that block out the music

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Chapter 06_11e 139. While shopping with your niece, she begs for a toy and then has a temper tantrum in the store. Based on what you know about operant conditioning, if you buy your niece a toy, she will most likely a. ask to go to the store with you instead of her parents. b. behave the next time you go to the store with her. c. beg and throw tantrums in the store in the future. d. want to spend more time with you in the future. 140. Bernice is “potty training” 18-month-old Kenny. First, she allows him to become familiar with the potty chair, next she reinforces Kenny for just sitting on the potty, and finally she reinforces Kenny for actually “using” the potty. Bernice is using a procedure called a. latent learning. b. vicarious classical conditioning. c. shaping. d. intermittent conditioning. 141. John's new puppy is still having accidents on the floor, and he doesn't want the puppy to continue to have accidents in the house. Which one of the following strategies is the best way to use operant conditioning so that the puppy stops this behavior and learns to only go outside? a. Give the puppy a treat each time he goes outside. b. Put the puppy’s food bowl outside to shape him to go outside more frequently. c. Only give the puppy a treat when he takes the puppy outside and it goes to the bathroom. d. Sternly scold and spray water at the puppy each time he has an accident. 142. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates how classical conditioning is used to manipulate a person’s emotions? a. Jason takes his best friend out to dinner at a nice restaurant because he wants to celebrate his birthday. b. Jason takes his best friend out to dinner at a nice restaurant because his friend took him out last month. c. Jason takes his best friend out to dinner at a nice restaurant because he wants to ask a favor. d. Jason takes his best friend out to dinner at a nice restaurant because his friend doesn’t like that restaurant. 143. In Pavlov’s principal experiment, the unconditioned stimulus was the a. salivation. b. light. c. tone. d. meat powder. 144. Studies of signal relations suggest that some signals are better than others. What is one way to determine if the signal is a "good" signal? a. The signal remains constantly present during training. b. The signal is one that is above the animal's absolute threshold. c. The signal occurs sometimes but not all the time. d. The signal is highly predictive.

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Chapter 06_11e 145. Research into signal relations, response-outcome relations, and observational learning all emphasize the a. importance of evolutionary adaptations in learning. b. limitations of using basic conditioning procedures in everyday situations. c. distinction between acquisition of behavior and the performance of behavior. d. role of cognitive processes in learning. 146. Tolman’s research on rats learning mazes was surprising to researchers studying operant conditioning principles because a. the rats made very few wrong turns while running the maze when they were rewarded regularly. b. the rats didn’t learn to find the reward until the 11th trial or later. c. the rats learned about the maze even though their search behavior wasn’t rewarded. d. the rats never learned to navigate the maze even though they were rewarded. 147. Abbey and Meredith are surprised when their 2-year-old daughter unexpectedly says a “bad” word. Abbey and Meredith occasionally use the word, but they are sure that they haven’t done so around the child recently. In this scenario, the child is most clearly demonstrating a. insight learning. b. latent learning. c. classical conditioning. d. operant conditioning. 148. When Diana was 3 years old, she was often frightened by her neighbor’s budgie bird, which kept flying near her head. Today, she is afraid of all birds, including robins, pigeons, and blue jays. Diana’s fear illustrates the classical conditioning process of a. preparedness. b. stimulus generalization. c. stimulus discrimination. d. negative avoidance. 149. Researchers say that operant responses are “emitted.” They use this word because it indicates that a. the response is reinforced or punished by another stimulus. b. the response follows directly from the stimulus. c. the response is just an unlearned reflex. d. d. the response is voluntary rather than reflexive. 150. Yanfeng adopted a German shepherd from a local rescue group. To his surprise, the dog ran to the front door and barked happily the first time Yanfeng sat down to put on his running shoes. You think the dog is displaying higher-order conditioning, so you explain to Yanfeng that a. the dog really likes to run. b. the dog’s former owner must have gone running with the dog. c. the dog can discriminate between running shoes and other shoes. d. the dog’s former owner probably didn’t use a leash with the dog.

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Chapter 06_11e 151. For a class project in Introductory Psychology Oliver, Noah, and Ava design a test of classical conditioning. Oliver sounds an airhorn every time his roommate says the word “the” and notices that his roommate eventually flinches when he says “the” even before the airhorn sounds. Noah sounds the airhorn about half the time his roommate says “the,” and Ava sounds the airhorn only about 20% of the time. The students then stop sounding the airhorn entirely and observe which of their roommates flinches when they say “the.” Which psychological concept are the students testing? a. Signal relations b. Operant conditioning c. Punishment d. Response-outcome reinforcement 152. According to Skinner, a stimulus is a reinforcer if it a. reduces a biological need in a person or nonhuman animal. b. results in a pleasurable feeling for the person or nonhuman animal. c. increases the tendency to make a particular response. d. decreases the tendency to make a particular response. 153. When you approach a traffic light and see a red light, you stop. On the other hand, when you approach that same light and see a green light, you continue driving. This example illustrates a. stimulus generalization. b. extinction. c. stimulus discrimination. d. spontaneous recovery. 154. Tessa really likes to mow the lawn during the summer months, but her parents will only let her mow the lawn if all the dishes are washed. Consequently, every Saturday, Tessa has the table cleared and all of the dishes washed as soon as everyone has finished breakfast. In this case, a. mowing the lawn is a negative reinforcer for doing the dishes. b. doing the dishes is a positive reinforcer for mowing the lawn. c. mowing the lawn is a positive reinforcer for doing the dishes. d. doing the dishes is a negative reinforcer for mowing the lawn. 155. Which of the following goals is specified in an appropriate format for designing a self-modification program? a. Increasing your motivation b. Decreasing your irritability c. Increasing your happiness d. Decreasing the amount of time spent watching television

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Chapter 06_11e 156. You have familiarized yourself with the streets of your town without any reinforcement; then one day you are asked to go to the post office. You are able to do so with ease by following a route that you have never taken. This is an example of a. insight learning. b. latent learning. c. classical conditioning. d. operant conditioning. 157. Extinction of an operantly conditioned response is most likely to occur when the response is a. followed by continuous reinforcement. b. followed by intermittent reinforcement. c. no longer associated with the CS. d. no longer followed by reinforcement. 158. Which one of the following statements best explains, from the perspective of classical conditioning, why advertisers like to advertise during widely-televised events, such as the Super Bowl or the Olympics? a. The excitement from the event will become associated with the product. b. The excitement from the event is reinforced when people purchase the product. c. The purchase of the product is reinforced by the excitement from the event. d. People’s emotions are more likely to be influenced when they are distracted by an exciting event. 159. Your spouse withdraws attention from you each time you begin criticizing her cooking. Eventually, you stop criticizing your spouse’s cooking. The withdrawal of attention can be categorized as a. punishment. b. observational learning. c. negative reinforcement. d. modeling. 160. Slapjack is a child’s card game. One at a time, each participant turns over one card in a pile in the center of the table. If the card shows a Jack, the players compete to be the first to slap the pile, and the winner takes the pile. In terms of operant conditioning, a Jack is considered a. a discriminative stimulus. b. a conditioned stimulus. c. a reward. d. a consequence. 161. Research suggests that the primary reason that humans engage in superstitious behavior is that a. Non-contingent reinforcers have a stronger effect on behavior than contingent ones. b. people try to explain their behaviors but don’t always have rational explanations. c. people repeat behaviors only when they experience a favorable consequence from the behavior. d. people like routines and rituals.

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Chapter 06_11e 162. For years, Mariah had a fear of the water. This year, she took swimming lessons and no longer was afraid when she was in the water. She was eagerly looking forward to an upcoming rafting trip, but as soon as she stepped onto the raft, she was instantly terrified again. This illustrates the classical conditioning process known as a. extinction. b. second-order conditioning. c. stimulus generalization. d. spontaneous recovery. 163. Lucia, who experiences extreme anxiety when taking an exam, practices meditation breathing to reduce her anxiety prior to taking a test. In terms of operant conditioning, her meditation breathing is a(n) a. punishment. b. operant response. c. neutral stimulus. d. positive reinforcer. 164. Carmela is opening an ice-cream shop and is designing the logo for the storefront and all her advertising. Her hope is that when people see the logo, they will both feel good about her shop and experience a desire for ice cream. She has narrowed it down to four choices. Based on the principles of classical conditioning, the best logo for her to choose is a. a colorful cartoon of a cute animal eating ice cream. b. just her shop name in elegant, black-and-white font. c. her store name surrounding an image of an ice cream cone. d. a cartoon animal somewhat hidden behind the letters of the store name. 165. Harold begins to chew his fingernails every time his teacher enters the classroom. In this case, the antecedent is a. the teacher entering the classroom. b. the fear associated with the teacher. c. the anticipated punishment. d. chewing the fingernails. 166. Darrel was dancing with his new girlfriend at an Elvis tribute. When the band started playing, “Can’t Help Falling in Love with You,” his girlfriend gave him a long, passionate kiss, which Darrel found very enjoyable. Now Darrel finds that every time he hears “Can’t Help Falling in Love with You” on the radio, he becomes mildly excited. In this example, the long, passionate kiss is a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned response. d. unconditioned stimulus.

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Chapter 06_11e 167. To study classical conditioning of sexual arousal, two researchers presented a stuffed toy every time an animal had an opportunity to engage in sexual behavior with a mate. If the animal was classically conditioned as a result of the toy presentation, the researchers should expect that a. the animal would show sexual arousal only when the toy was presented. b. the animal would show sexual arousal as soon as the toy was presented. c. the animal would show sexual arousal only when both the toy and the animal’s mate were nearby. d. the animal would show sexual arousal as soon as the mate was nearby. 168. In general, research on violence on television and in video games suggests that a. watching televised violence is less likely to cause aggression than playing violent video games. b. people who see a lot of media violence seem to be less sensitive to real violence. c. as long as the violent behavior is exhibited by cartoons, there won’t be any negative effects of behavior. d. if you are never exposed to media violence, then you are incapable of aggressive behavior. 169. Your cat wakes you up at 4 am every day, meowing for breakfast. You decide you want to eliminate her meowing and so for one week you get up and give her breakfast at 4 am, then for the next week you give her breakfast at 4:10. You plan to continue moving the time you feed her each week until she stops meowing. In terms of operant conditioning, the problem with this strategy as a way to get her to stop meowing is that a. animals need food to live, so you can’t use it effectively as a reinforcer or as a punishment. b. food is a positive reinforcement, and you need to use negative reinforcement to stop the meowing. c. getting the food is a reinforcer for meowing, so she will keep meowing as long as you feed her afterward. d. shaping is a slow process, and it will take several months for the meowing to disappear completely. 170. A baby cries when it hears a stranger’s voice but not when it hears its mother’s voice. This example illustrates a. stimulus discrimination. b. stimulus generalization. c. spontaneous recovery. d. esponse chaining. 171. Henry got a bad sunburn on his face when he was skiing last winter. Now, before he starts a day of skiing, he uses sunscreen on his face to prevent another sunburn. This is an example of a. escape learning. b. avoidance learning. c. an unconditioned stimulus. d. shaping. 172. A political candidate wants to create a negative image of his opponent without the voters thinking that he is being negative or mean, so he decides to use classical conditioning to manipulate their emotions. The best way for him to use classical conditioning to achieve his goal is to create an advertisement that a. shows images of his opponent with loud and disharmonious music in the background. b. flashes quotations describing his own successes next to quotations describing his opponent’s failures. c. lists catastrophes that he claims are likely to occur if citizens vote for his opponent. d. shows images of himself with famous people next to images of his opponent by himself. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06_11e 173. Nancy has a headache. She takes some aspirin, and the headache goes away. Nancy is more likely to take aspirin again. This is an example of a. negative reinforcement. b. classical conditioning. c. positive reinforcement. d. punishment. 174. Six-year-old Kristen has learned to be afraid of fireworks and cries when she hears the loud bangs. Last week, she went to a baseball game with her parents and there were fireworks for any homerun and at the end of the game. Now she is also afraid of the baseball stadium. Kristen’s fear of the baseball stadium illustrates the classical conditioning process of a. higher-order conditioning. b. preparedness. c. stimulus discrimination. d. avoidance. 175. Which one of the following scenarios shows reinforcement with a secondary reinforcer? a. Bishara’s teacher gives him a star sticker every time he turns in his homework. b. Arjun’s mother takes away his television time when he misbehaves. c. Pavi’s mother gives her a weekly allowance of $10 for making her bed, setting the table, and feeding the cat every day. d. Adaira’s mother reminds her to walk the dog every afternoon when she gets home from school. 176. Charity used to really enjoy potato salad so at a family reunion, she ate a large helping. Unfortunately, the potato salad had not been kept cold, and Charity became quite ill after eating it. Now she finds that even the sight of potatoes in the grocery store can make her feel sick to her stomach. In this example, the sick feeling Charity experiences when she sees potatoes in the grocery store is a(n) a. unconditioned response. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. conditioned stimulus. 177. Your best friend has severe test anxiety when she takes multiple-choice tests where she has to fill in bubbles for the correct answers but not when she takes essay tests. If you wanted to explain her behavior in terms of classical conditioning, the best explanation would be that a. her anxiety has generalized to include only multiple-choice tests. b. her anxiety is a result of higher-order conditioning. c. her anxiety is associated with the bubble-style multiple-choice answer sheets. d. her anxiety suggests that she was punished for performing badly on multiple-choice tests in the past.

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Chapter 06_11e 178. A cue light comes on in a dog’s shuttle box prompting the dog to jump the hurdle to the other side before a shock is administered. Which of the following procedures is being used? a. punishment b. escape learning c. discrimination training d. avoidance learning 179. The nature versus nurture debate is an ongoing debate in the area of learning. Research supports that our environment has a large influence on shaping our behavior. However, research also supports that our genetics also influence our behavior. Which of the following supports the impact of nature on behavior? a. The research conducted with Skinner's box and rats. b. The research conducted with the Bobo doll and observational learning. c. The research conducted on taste aversion and rats. d. The research conducted on spanking and aggression. 180. If you devise a self-modification program in which you systematically reward yourself for studying, you are applying the principles of a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. observational learning. d. Pavlovian conditioning. 181. Dawn teaches fourth grade. One student, Esteban, consistently misbehaves, getting up out of his chair regularly and distracting the other children. Every time he starts to wander, Dawn tells him to go sit back down, but by the third week of school Esteban is wandering more, not less. Dawn realizes she is accidentally reinforcing his behavior. If Dawn wants to use punishment effectively to get Esteban to stop misbehaving, she should a. identify a consequence that Esteban doesn’t want, and present it when he misbehaves. b. identify the antecedents of his behavior and eliminate them. c. shape a new, more appropriate behavior by reinforcing him as he gets closer to that behavior. d. simply stop responding when he misbehaves until the wandering behavior is extinct. 182. Of the following, the best way to weaken or eliminate a conditioned response is to present a. the US before the CS several times. b. the CS alone several times. c. the US alone several times. d. extra pairings of the CS and US.

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Chapter 06_11e 183. Holly was dancing with her girlfriend at a friend's wedding. When the DJ played, “All of Me,” by John Legend, her girlfriend gave her a long, passionate kiss, which she found very enjoyable. Now Holly finds that every time she hears the song, “All of Me” on the radio, she becomes a little flushed. In this example, the conditioned stimulus is the a. passionate kiss. b. song, “All of Me.” c. enjoyment she experienced after the kiss from her girlfriend. d. happy emotions experienced at the wedding. 184. Based on Bandura's theory of observational learning, a couple decided to seek his advice on teaching their children to say, "please" and "thank you". Which of the following statements do you think Bandura might tell them? a. They should punish their children when they fail to say “please” and “thank you”. b. They should give their children positive reinforcement for saying “please” and “thank you”. c. They should use negative reinforcement and withhold the requested item until their children say “please”. d. They should consistently say “please” and “thank you” in their interactions with others. 185. Jane was ridiculed at school for wearing a particular style of shirt. Now, she no longer wears that style of shirt to school. For Jane, being ridiculed is a. a negative reinforcer. b. a positive reinforcer. c. a punishment. d. a primary reinforcer. 186. In general people fear lots of different things, but for phobias, some are more common than others. People are more likely to develop similar phobias to things that a. had some survival value for our species. b. were dangerous at some point in our evolutionary history. c. have caused us to become ill, nauseous, or vomit. d. evoke memories of extremely painful experiences. 187. Classical and operant conditioning were long considered to be automatic processes that did not depend on biological or cognitive factors. Research in which of the following areas cast doubt on this point of view? a. Signal relations and preparedness b. Extinction and generalization c. Ratio and interval schedules d. Discrimination and spontaneous recovery 188. The fact that you prefer to date people with red hair because your last love interest had red hair is behavior BEST illustrated by the process of a. stimulus generalization. b. stimulus discrimination. c. superstitious behavior. d. response generalization Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06_11e 189. When Lindsay was nine years old, the neighbor’s Chihuahua bit her on the ankle. Today, Lindsay is still terrified of Chihuahuas, but she likes almost all other types of dogs. Lindsay’s fear illustrates the classical conditioning process of a. preparedness. b. stimulus discrimination. c. stimulus generalization. d. negative avoidance. 190. Advertisers often use celebrities to endorse their products. In terms of classical conditioning, this is effective because a. the celebrities are positively reinforcing the consumer’s beliefs about the product. b. the celebrities elicit positive feelings, which are then associated with the product. c. the celebrities serve as models, and consumers will observe and try to be like them. d. the celebrities, especially actors, are usually better able to manipulate people’s feelings. 191. Lyn is afraid of all spiders because her brother once dropped a spider down her shirt when she was younger. Today, even the sight of a rubber spider is enough to send shivers down her spine. The learning process that could BEST account for Lyn’s fear of spiders is a. operant conditioning. b. observational learning. c. delayed reinforcement. d. classical conditioning. 192. In Bandura’s famous study on the power of modeling, the children who were MOST likely to play aggressively with the Bobo doll were the children who saw a film of a model behaving a. in a nonaggressive manner and receiving positive consequences. b. in a nonaggressive manner and receiving negative consequences. c. in an aggressive manner and receiving positive consequences. d. in an aggressive manner and receiving negative consequences. 193. Your teenage daughter has not cleaned her room in a month. You go in and begin yelling at her to clean her room. She begins to clean up, and you stop yelling. Psychologists who study learning would say that your daughter’s behavior is being a. classically conditioned. b. positively reinforced. c. punished. d. negatively reinforced. 194. Cigarette advertisers are most clearly using classical conditioning when they develop advertisements that a. emphasize the features of smoking that people find rewarding. b. include words and music but have no pictures of cigarettes or smokers. c. offer big discounts or rebates on cigarette purchases. d. pair images of cigarettes with images of “masculine” men and “feminine” women.

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Chapter 06_11e 195. Mattis wants to become stronger, so he decides to set up a self-modification program that relies on basic principles of learning. Based on his psychology knowledge, he knows that the first thing he has to do is a. rephrase his goal of getting stronger as a target behavior he can change. b. monitor and write down how he feels every time he skips a trip to the gym. c. monitor and write down how he feels every time he lifts weights. d. keep a record of how often he goes to the gym for at least two weeks. 196. Pavlov found that meat powder placed on a dog’s tongue will make the dog salivate. In Pavlov’s terms, the meat powder is a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. 197. Nyala has a new infant. She knows that children often complain that they do not want to eat their vegetables, so Nyala is already thinking about how to teach her son not only to eat vegetables but also to like them. If she wants to use principles of classical conditioning, the best strategy for Nyala to use when her son begins eating solid food is to a. avoid giving him any sweet treats so he doesn’t develop a taste for sugary snacks. b. make sure his meals do not include meat or other animal products. c. reward him when he eats vegetables but not when he eats other foods. d. mix vegetables in with food he prefers so that he develops a taste for them. 198. In the Little Albert experiment on conditioned emotional responses, the conditioned stimulus was the a. rabbit. b. rat. c. loud noise. d. fear reaction. 199. Your indoor cat eats canned cat food which needs to be opened with a can opener. He escapes when you accidentally leave the back door open. If you want to use principles of classical conditioning to encourage the cat to return, your best strategy is to a. leave two cans of tasty food outside the door as a special treat. b. remove anything from the doorstep that might scare him, then call his name. c. walk through the areas of the yard that are probably part of his cognitive map. d. go outside and open a can of his usual food using your regular can opener.

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Chapter 06_11e 200. Zane has been shocked on 6 separate occasions while making toast. However, he doesn’t have a phobia toward toasters. Zane’s only phobia is toward spiders. Even though he knows that most spiders are not a threat to him and has tried to overcome the fear, he can’t help feeling frightened when he sees a spider. Zane’s pattern of phobias illustrates the concept of a. signal relations. b. negative avoidance. c. superstitious responding. d. preparedness.

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Chapter 06_11e Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. d 13. c 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. d

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Chapter 06_11e 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. c 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. a 50. c 51. b 52. c 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06_11e 55. c 56. d 57. d 58. d 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. c 63. d 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. b 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. d 73. c 74. a 75. a 76. b 77. c 78. b 79. b 80. c 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06_11e 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. b 87. d 88. a 89. a 90. d 91. d 92. a 93. a 94. a 95. b 96. b 97. c 98. b 99. b 100. c 101. a 102. c 103. a 104. b 105. d 106. b 107. d 108. b 109. c 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06_11e 111. d 112. a 113. d 114. c 115. c 116. a 117. b 118. a 119. c 120. d 121. b 122. b 123. c 124. b 125. c 126. b 127. d 128. a 129. a 130. c 131. b 132. b 133. d 134. c 135. d 136. b 137. a

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Chapter 06_11e 138. c 139. c 140. c 141. c 142. c 143. d 144. d 145. d 146. c 147. b 148. b 149. d 150. b 151. a 152. c 153. c 154. c 155. d 156. b 157. d 158. a 159. a 160. a 161. b 162. d 163. b 164. a 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06_11e 166. d 167. b 168. b 169. c 170. a 171. b 172. a 173. a 174. a 175. c 176. b 177. c 178. d 179. c 180. b 181. a 182. b 183. b 184. d 185. c 186. b 187. a 188. a 189. b 190. b 191. d 192. c 193. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06_11e 194. d 195. a 196. c 197. d 198. b 199. a 200. d

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Chapter 07_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following is a process for which the phonological loop and its subsystems are responsible? a. Coordinating between and controlling the different parts of working memory b. Maintaining words or language that are put into working memory c. Interfacing between working memory and long-term memory d. Working with and manipulating visual imagery 2. When a series of still images are cycled quickly enough (e.g., at 24 frames per second), people perceive continuous motion despite the fact that information is missing between each image. Based on your understanding of memory maintenance, this effect is most likely explained by a. flashbulb memories. b. working memory. c. schemas. d. sensory memory. 3. Which of the following metaphors most accurately depicts the difference between localized neural circuits and alterations in synaptic transmission ? a. Networks of roads versus the flow of traffic on those roads b. Computers networked locally within one’s home versus computers networked globally over the internet c. The creation of new currency versus the distribution of existing currency d. How people behave individually versus how they behave in groups 4. One way to avoid shallow encoding while studying is to a. get a good night’s sleep before both study sessions and the test itself. b. make sure you study in a quiet room with no distractions . c. make sure to space your study sessions far enough apart in time. d. study similar material, such as vocabulary from two psychology classes, on different days. 5. Human memory is “reconstructive.” This means that a. people reconstruct memories faithfully, like a video recording. b. memories are composed of two components: their content, and their source. c. we can tell similar memories apart only when we recall them explicitly. d. we extrapolate details and fill in gaps based on our expectations. 6. Suppose scientists develop a drug that helps people with PTSD forget traumatic memories by targeting the reconsolidation process. Assume the drug is short acting (its effects only last for a short time). Which of the following is a likely downside of such a drug? a. It will cause widespread memory loss for past events. b. It will lead to difficulty forming new autobiographical memories. c. It will require remembering the trauma before it can be forgotten. d. It will cause a strong feeling of sleepiness.

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Chapter 07_11e 7. Recall measures require participants to a. intentionally forget previously learned information. b. select previously learned information from an array of options. c. memorize information a second time to determine the time or effort saved by doing so. d. reproduce information on their own without any cues. 8. Karl suffered head trauma as a young man and developed serious memory problems. At the time of his accident, he had long blonde hair, but as he aged, he became completely bald. When asked what kind of hair he has now, Karl always responds, “Long blonde hair, of course!” Karl is most clearly demonstrating which memory disorder? a. Anterograde amnesia b. Hebbian forgetting c. Retrograde amnesia d. Reconsolidation disorder 9. Which one of the following research findings best supports the claim that chunked information is stored as a single unit? a. When chess masters are asked to recreate the position of chess pieces on a board based on memory from past games, they rapidly place several pieces in a row, pause for a few seconds, then rapidly place another several pieces, and so on. b. Many people experience a phenomenon called “infantile amnesia,” in which they lack any memory for events that happened during very early childhood, especially from birth to four years of age. c. A typical college undergraduate can increase her digit span (the number of randomly generated digits that can be accurately recalled after a short delay) from seven to more than 40 with a few months of practice. d. Some musicians who play stringed instruments, such as the violin, report that their memory for compositions is stored not just in auditory form but also as visual patterns of finger movements on the instrument. 10. According to Paivio, which of the following words would be the most difficult to remember using visual imagery? a. Computer Monitor b. Tree c. Dollhouse d. Trust 11. If you accidentally use your old boss’s name to describe your current boss, you are most clearly demonstrating a. proactive interference. b. retroactive interference. c. decay interference. d. relearning interference.

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Chapter 07_11e 12. The recognition measure of retention requires an individual a. to reproduce information on his or her own without any cues. b. to select previously learned information from an array of options. c. to predict how well he or she will perform on a later memory test. d. to memorize information a second time to determine how much time or effort is saved. 13. If researchers want to recruit individuals who are good at complex reasoning and are likely to be intelligent, they should look for people who a. are more susceptible to forgetting by decay than by interference. b. store their knowledge in semantic networks. c. have high long-term memory capacity. d. have high working memory capacity. 14. The results of Brewer and Treyen’s famous office study demonstrated that a. schemas about man-made things are more detailed than schemas about the natural world. b. schemas are built up from many individual past experiences. c. people remember things that are consistent with their schemas better than things that are not. d. some schemas include knowledge of how events are ordered in time. 15. Avner, who just performed his first successful slam-dunk on the basketball court, wants to make his friends remember this feat as more impressive than it really was at the time. Research suggests he could accomplish this later on by a. telling his friends about the slam-dunk feat again but intentionally choosing words that exaggerate what happened. b. describing in great detail the sights, smells, etc. of the basketball court where the slam-dunk took place. c. hypnotizing his friends and asking them to re-imagine the event from his perspective in mid-air. d. taking his friends back to the basketball court where the slam-dunk happened, then asking them to recall the event. 16. In retrograde amnesia, a person a. loses memories for events that occur after the injury. b. has impaired retention of previously learned information due to newly learned information. c. loses memories for events that occurred prior to the injury. d. has impaired retention of new information due to previously learned information. 17. Aki is driving to campus and his phone rings. Based on research on divided attention, which of the following best explains if Aki should answer the phone? a. No, he would experience a negative impact on his driving because he would focus more on the phone than on the traffic signals. b. He should only answer the phone if he is an experienced driver who is driving in a familiar location. c. Yes, his attention system will allow him to process both traffic information and his phone conversation equally. d. He should only answer the phone if he has a hands-free device, so that he is not distracted by having to hold the phone. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07_11e 18. Which of the following items would probably be best recalled on a memory test? a. “Chair,” and the participant was asked, “Is there an H in this word?” b. “IGLOO,” and the participant was asked, “Is the word in capital letters?” c. “Moat,” and the participant was asked, “Does this word rhyme with gloat?” d. “Pony,” and the participant was asked to rate the word on its pleasantness. 19. Sven is reminiscing about the trip he took with his parents to visit the house where his father grew up. He can still remember the wide front porch with the swing and the big trees in the backyard. As Sven recalls this trip, he is relying on his a. retrospective memory. b. semantic memory. c. procedural memory. d. prospective memory. 20. Elaboration is best defined as a. encoding in terms of physical appearance rather than meaning. b. increasing motivation to remember (MTR) at the time of encoding. c. extended or repeated study sessions to ensure good encoding. d. linking a stimulus to other information at the time of encoding. 21. If you wanted to explain the difference between prospective and retrospective memory to a friend, you could tell her it’s the difference between a. knowledge that would be in an encyclopedia and knowledge that would be in an autobiography. b. knowing something is true in general and remembering the context of when and where you learned it. c. remembering to do something and remembering having done something. d. memories that can be expressed in language and memories that can be expressed with actions. 22. If you remembered all the movies your favorite actor has been in, you might have problems remembering the most recent movie you saw this person in. This example BEST illustrates that forgetting a. is most likely caused when the information is personally meaningful. b. is different depending on how you first learned the material. c. can be caused by the interference of similar information. d. is most likely due toyour memory disregarding irrelevant information. 23. Noting that a word is written in beautiful cursive font would most likely be classified as which level of processing? a. Shallow b. Deep c. Intermediate d. Ideal

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Chapter 07_11e 24. What memory systems are described in the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, listed from largest capacity to smallest capacity? a. Long-term memory, sensory memory, and short-term memory b. Sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory c. Sensory memory, long-term memory, and short-term memory d. Long-term memory, short-term memory, and sensory memory 25. Suppose a police officer is asking a bystander some questions about a fight they just witnessed. Which of the following is the best strategy to avoid eliciting false memories? a. Use highly salient verbs like “stab” and “shoot” when asking questions. b. Put the person into a state of hypnosis before asking questions. c. When asking questions, use neutral language like “tell me what happened.” d. Before asking questions, give the person examples of what happens in typical fights. 26. Suppose you try to remember the word “pool” by picturing it visually, printed in giant, glowing capital letters. What predictions would levels of processing theory vs. visual imagery research make regarding your later memory? a. Both approaches would predict good memory for the word. b. Both approaches would predict poor memory for the word. c. Levels of processing would predict good memory; visual imagery would predict poor memory. d. Levels of processing would predict poor memory; visual imagery would predict good memory. 27. Suppose your first language was English, but you recently began learning Spanish. If you were temporarily unable to retrieve the English word “olive,” but could only bring to mind the Spanish equivalent “aceituna”, this would be an example of a. proactive interference. b. decay. c. retroactive interference. d. repression. 28. Which element of Baddeley’s working memory model most clearly represents the short-term memory of previous models? a. Central executive b. Phonological loop c. Visuospatial sketchpad d. Episodic buffer 29. Veronica, feeling nostalgic, decides to play an old video game she used to enjoy as a child. However, she is surprised to find that the game’s graphics are quite primitive. This clashes with her memories, in which the game looks relatively modern, like the games she usually plays these days. This example best illustrates a. how schemas can influence memory. b. the transience of sensory memory. c. the importance of rehearsal in maintaining information. d. that flashbulb memories are not special. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07_11e 30. According to Sigmund Freud, we fail to retrieve memories because a. they are too unpleasant or painful. b. they happened too long ago. c. we don’t understand their personal significance. d. our brains were not yet developed enough when they happened. 31. Suppose you are interviewing potential employees for your company. If you want to hire candidates who are relatively good at avoiding distractions while working, you should hire people who have a. low long-term memory capacity. b. low working memory capacity. c. high working memory capacity. d. high long-term memory capacity. 32. If you want to tell false and true memories apart, especially for memories recovered under hypnosis, research suggests that you should pay attention most to a. whether the memory is emotionally detailed with expressions of fear, sadness, and happiness. b. the level of detail in the recollection generally, including descriptions of sights and smells. c. the person’s confidence in the truth of the memory, as rated with standardized Likert measures. d. independent evidence that might confirm or deny details from the recalled memory. 33. The idea that memories may create unique, reusable pathways in the brain along which signals flow is a description of a. neurogenesis. b. alterations in synaptic transmission. c. localized neural circuits. d. reconsolidation. 34. Baddeley's concept of working memory a. integrates sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory into a single, complex system. b. expands the functions and processes of short-term memory. c. takes the place of the old concept of sensory memory. d. expands the functions and processes of long-term memory.

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Chapter 07_11e 35. Which one of the following research findings provides the best evidence to support the claim that recovered memories of childhood abuse are the result of suggestible people being convinced by misguided, persuasive therapists? a. Working with college students, Hyman & Kleinknecht managed to implant recollections of fairly substantial events—such as spilling a punch bowl at a wedding or being hospitalized for an earache—in about 25% of their subjects. b. One large-scale survey by MacMillan found that 12.8% of the females and 4.3% of the males reported that they had been victims of sexual abuse during childhood. c. In a study by Chu et al. of psychiatric patients hospitalized for PTSD or dissociative disorders, one-third of those who reported childhood sexual abuse also reported complete amnesia for the abuse at some point. d. Some people gradually recover memories of abuse with the assistance of suggestive therapeutic techniques, whereas others suddenly recover memories of abuse when they encounter a relevant retrieval cue. 36. Corbin, a college freshman, likes to study, watch TV, and check his email at the same time. He often tells people, “I’m a great multitasker. I do it all the time!” However, later in the year, he earns very low scores on his mid-term exams. Corbin’s mistake, in terms of the role of attention in learning, was most likely that a. he should have used tasks that were more similar to each other – for example, watching TV while also watching a pre-recorded video lecture from class. b. he should have used both imagery and sound while multitasking – for example, studying diagrams in his textbook and listening to music. c. people who are actually great at multitasking tend to single-task more because effective multitasking is very effortful. d. people who multitask a lot, regardless of their beliefs, seem to be least able to do so effectively. 37. If you wanted to find out how closely linked the concepts “bird” and “penguin” are in someone’s semantic network, you could ask them a. how closely related the concepts of “bird” and “penguin” are. b. whether a penguin is a type of bird and see whether they answer correctly. c. to draw both a penguin and a typical bird and see how closely the two drawings match. d. to list all the birds they can think of and see where on the list “penguin” appears. 38. Some amnesiacs forget most personal facts, while their recall of general facts is largely unaffected. This finding most supports which of the following ideas? a. It is easy to forget to remember, especially when one is confronted by interruptions and distractions. b. People vary considerably in their ability to successfully carry out prospective memory tasks. c. Episodic and semantic memory are encoded differently. d. Episodic and semantic memory are separate systems.

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Chapter 07_11e 39. A schema is best defined as a. an organized cluster of knowledge abstracted from previous experience. b. a multilevel classification system based on common properties among items. c. an unusually vivid and detailed recollection of past momentous events. d. a plan for repetitive rehearsal of information. 40. Which of the following terms includes all of the others? a. Semantic memory b. Episodic memory c. Long-term memory d. Procedural memory 41. If a researcher wanted to ensure that they obtained accurate reports of flashbulb memories, this could be accomplished by interviewing a. participants shortly after the event happened. b. participants in the same context as the event. c. only participants with mood-congruent memory. d. only participants whose reports have high levels of sensory detail. 42. Variations in working memory capacity correlate strongly with measures of high-level cognitive abilities such as a. reaction time. b. sense of balance. c. physical mimicry. d. reading comprehension. 43. In which of the following levels of processing is an emphasis placed on the sounds of words? a. Morphemic b. Phonemic c. Mnemonic d. Semantic 44. Nickerson and Adams tested United States residents for their memory of the penny (one-cent coin). They found that most people could not recognize the real penny among a collection of drawings of similar versions. Based on your understanding of the many factors that influence effective encoding, which of the following most likely explains poor memory for the penny? a. The penny is an overly complex stimulus, made up of several pieces of information – for example, which president is on it, which words are printed and in which locations, etc. b. The penny is such a concrete object that it is difficult to apply multiple codes. For example, it may be easy to visually imagine the penny, but hard to describe in words. c. The penny is not encountered often enough to encode anything but the most general physical features, such as its color and shape. d. The penny is typically processed shallowly rather than deeply. For example, people encode color but not the meaning of the words and why they were chosen.

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Chapter 07_11e 45. Miller believed that the capacity of short-term memory is a. two seconds’ worth of spoken information. b. seven, plus or minus two, items. c. four, plus or minus one, items. d. 100 megabytes of visual information. 46. The saying, “Hear, and you forget. See, and you remember,” most clearly supports the benefits of a. visual imagery. b. encoding specificity. c. elaboration. d. phonemic encoding. 47. How do hypnotists usually attempt to reinstate the context of an event when interviewing an eyewitness to a crime? a. By asking the witness to recall any similar crimes they’ve experienced before b. By telling the witness to imagine being at the scene of the crime once again c. By having the witness listen to a set of words that are thematically related to crime d. By reading back to the witness their initial statements made to the police just after the crime 48. H.M., the famous amnesia patient discussed in the textbook, was most impaired in learning new a. motor skills. b. general facts. c. personal facts. d. cognitive skills. 49. Regarding the controversy over the accuracy of recovered memories of traumatic events, one study by Geraerts that sought to corroborate reports of abuse found a much higher corroboration rate among those who recovered their memories a. in therapy as opposed to spontaneously. b. spontaneously as opposed to in therapy. c. many years later as opposed to soon after the events. d. soon after the events as opposed to many years later. 50. Your friend asks you why he often forgets whether he locked his front door when leaving for work. To explain this phenomenon with what you know about memory, what could you tell him ? a. People execute perceptual-motor tasks, like playing the piano or riding a bike, with little conscious awareness of what they’re doing. b. Cognitive deficits studies indicate that different brain structures may be involved in declarative versus non declarative memory. c. People vary considerably in their ability to successfully carry out prospective memory tasks and your friend is just absentminded. d. One often needs to remember to remember.

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Chapter 07_11e 51. If a parent tells their child, "You didn't listen to a word I just said!" the child is most likely demonstrating a. Pseudo forgetting. b. decay. c. interference. d. repression. 52. Which of the following kinds of people tend to be especially flexible and effective in their allocation of working memory? a. People with lower working memory capacity b. People who consider themselves auditory learners c. People with greater working memory capacity d. People who consider themselves visual learners 53. Gloria is about to make a big cross-country trip and needs to remember which train to board at the station. According to levels-of-processing theory, how should she encode “the train to Carbondale” if she wants the best chance of remembering it? a. Carbon like the element, Dale like the author Dale Carnegie. b. Carbon with an N, Dale with an E at the end. c. Carbon sounds like Marvin, Dale rhymes with male. d. Carbondale, while picturing a bright green diagram of the atomic structure of carbon. 54. The famous memory patient known as H.M. developed anterograde amnesia in response to a. a surgical procedure to treat epileptic seizures. b. extreme trauma from childhood abuse. c. a fall from his second-story window. d. being hit on the head during a fight. 55. Alexander hasn’t thought about his old job in years. However, when he runs into a former co-worker, the memories are brought to mind. Later on, he remembers using a word processor at the old job, even though word processors hadn’t been invented yet. This example demonstrates how a memory can change during the process of a. conceptual retrieval. b. Hebbian learning. c. reconsolidation. d. encoding. 56. Jessie is most likely to have flashbulb memories for a. when her favorite musician, Michael Jackson, passed away, causing her to stay up all night with friends. b. her favorite film, The Wizard of Oz, and the experience of seeing it for the first time. c. her fourth-grade teacher, who instilled in her a love of math, leading her to eventually become a mathematician. d. bright or visually interesting artwork, images, and so on, that feel vividly “seared” into her memory.

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Chapter 07_11e 57. If Amro is given a set of 30 letters and asked to rearrange them into chunks for a psychology demonstration, he should a. order them alphabetically, starting with A and ending with Z. b. order them based on how long it takes to say the letters out loud. c. place them in groups based on concepts or words he recognizes. d. place them in a spatial configuration that physically resembles an object. 58. A cognitive psychologist is at a party and wants to demonstrate the visuospatial sketchpad in working memory to the other partygoers. She could accomplish this by a. showing people a new dance and seeing how well they can mimic it, based only on seeing it done once. b. having people imagine what she would look like if rotated sideways. c. asking people to draw portraits of one another. d. asking people to judge the height difference of two other partygoers. 59. The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is best described as a. the inadvertent revelation of subconscious thoughts and desires by the words you chose and the tone you used while speaking. b. the temporary inability to remember something you know, accompanied by a feeling that it’s just out of reach. c. a state of heightened suggestibility in which previously inaccessible memories are more easily brought to mind and described. d. a speech disorder in which memories are accurately known and experienced but cannot be described with language. 60. According to Baddeley’s model of working memory, which of the following mental tasks is most likely to engage the phonological loop? a. Trying to imagine how many cabinets are in your kitchen b. Trying to remember the definition of a word you just learned c. Trying to remember a map of an area you are navigating d. Trying to imagine a portrait from a recent museum exhibit 61. What is involved in prospective memory? a. Remembering skills well enough that they will be useful later b. Remembering events from the past or previously learned information c. Remembering personal details about people with whom you hope to have relationships d. Remembering to perform actions in the future 62. If you are someone that enjoys telling stories, research suggests that a good way to make sure your own memory for them is accurate is to a. rehearse the stories often to yourself rather than only telling them to other people. b. think of other versions of the events that didn’t happen and elaborate on how unlikely and incorrect those versions are. c. strengthen the correct version of a story soon after the events occur using hypnosis and guided imagery. d. tell the stories as they originally happened rather than altering or embellishing the events. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07_11e 63. If you try to remember something but cannot, yet you know the information is in your memory, you are experiencing the a. tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. b. pseudoamnesia phenomenon. c. Krensky syndrome. d. retrieval-delay phenomenon. 64. The measure of memory that requires subjects to reproduce information on their own, without any cues, is a. recall. b. recognition. c. reiteration. d. relearning. 65. While at a yard sale, you and your roommate find a great old sofa. Which component of your working memory would allow you to rearrange the beds, dressers, and desks to decide if it will fit into your dorm room? a. Visuospatial sketchpad b. Semantic buffer c. Executive control system d. Phonological rehearsal loop 66. What does carefully controlled research on cell phone conversations suggest about hands-free devices? a. Hands-free devices do not affect driving performance as long as they are completely voice controlled. b. Hands-free devices undermine driving performance regardless of how the user interacts with the device or where the driving takes place. c. Hands-free devices do not affect driving performance as long as they don’t require user-inputted commands (i.e., they figure out what you want to do next). d. Hands-free devices do not affect highway driving performance, but they undermine performance in city driving, which is less predictable. 67. A participant in a memory study is asked to memorize the following words: guitar, zebra, couch, porcupine, and xylophone. The best example of structural encoding in this case would be to a. study porcupine and xylophone for longer than the other words because they seem harder to remember. b. note that a xylophone is a large and unusually shaped instrument. c. note that xylophone is spelled with an X, an unusual starting letter in English. d. group xylophone and guitar together because they are both musical instruments. 68. Before your final exam, you decided to take a practice exam. During the final exam, you notice that you are answering the questions much faster the second time. This example illustrates a. recall as a measure of memory retention. b. recognition as a measure of memory retention. c. forced choice as a measure of memory retention. d. relearning as a measure of memory retention.

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Chapter 07_11e 69. If researchers want to maximize what they can learn about a dysfunctional brain, their best option is to a. perform functional neuroimaging on the person’s brain while they use their memory . b. take tissue samples of the person’s brain during diagnostic neurosurgery. c. dissect the person’s brain and take samples after the person has passed away. d. administer behavioral tests that reveal which memory systems are not working properly. 70. If you wanted to learn about a person’s schemas for college classrooms, you could a. have them take a memory test while sitting in a college classroom. b. measure their physiological responses to being in a college classroom. c. have them sit in a college classroom and then later test their memory for items in the classroom. d. Interview them about experiences they have had in college classrooms. 71. If you know the notes in a D-minor scale, this information is stored in which memory system ? a. Declarative memory b. Non declarative memory c. Semantic memory d. Episodic memory 72. Your roommate is recovering from brain surgery to remove a small tumor in her frontal lobe. Your roommate appears fine but cannot remember anything that has happened since the surgery. Your roommate's memory problems are consistent with those seen in a. retrograde amnesia. b. traumatic amnesia. c. anterograde amnesia. d. Pseudoforgetting. 73. Loftus and Palmer showed participants a videotape of an automobile accident, and then asked them to rate the speed of the crash. Participants rated the speed as higher when a. they were told scary statistics beforehand about how dangerous car crashes are. b. they were falsely told, by both the experimenter and their parents, that they had been in a car crash as a child. c. the words “smashed into,” rather than the word “hit,” were used to describe the car crash. d. they saw other people rate the crash as high speed. 74. While driving home from work, you heard a song on the radio that you really enjoyed. However, even though you repeated the lyrics to yourself several times in the car, you can no longer remember them now that you’re home. How could you use the encoding specificity principle to improve your memory in this situation? a. When first hearing the song, try to associate it with that specific place and time (e.g., in your car, 5:30 PM on Tuesday) b. Use less specific retrieval cues such as the genre of the song or the name of the radio station c. Try to remember by singing the lyrics, just as you did in the car, rather than just saying them d. Make sure not to listen to any intervening songs between first hearing the lyrics and later trying to remember them

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Chapter 07_11e 75. Which brain region, along with its adjacent areas, is thought to play an especially central role in memory? a. Amygdala b. Ventral tegmental area c. Orbitofrontal cortex d. Hippocampus 76. What is the typical outcome in studies where participants are forced to divide their attention between memory encoding and some other task? a. New insights about each task are gained. b. Memory performance increases. c. There is a large decrease in memory performance. d. There is an increased ability to divide attention for later tasks. 77. Which of the following theories or effects contradicts the potential accuracy of memories of childhood trauma recovered under hypnosis? a. Misinformation effect b. Interference theory c. Repression d. Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon 78. Suppose your roommate asks you to “throw out those old hamburger buns before we leave for the airport.” You might remember this by imagining a gigantic hamburger bun in mid-air, wrapped around a mid-flight airplane. In this case, your memory will benefit from a. tip of the tongue effect. b. levels of processing. c. visual imagery. d. dual coding. 79. Three friends are having a discussion about taxes, but the conversation is soon side tracked as different statements bring up related ideas. The conversation drifts from taxes, to politicians, to the election, to fundraising. This shift in the focus of the conversation is consistent with Collins and Loftus' theory of a. prospective memory processes. b. spreading activation within a semantic network. c. schema-based recall of information. d. mood-congruent memory. 80. According to Nelson Cowan, previous research over-estimated the capacity of short-term memory by a. failing to follow double-blind protocols, allowing researchers to unintentionally give clues to participants. b. using to-be-learned stimuli that were simpler than real-life stimuli, resulting in unrealistically low levels of interference. c. In advertently testing sensory memory rather than short-term memory. d. failing to take steps to prevent covert rehearsal by participants.

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Chapter 07_11e 81. If you remember what happened during your first swimming lesson, this memory is stored in a. declarative memory. b. Non declarative memory. c. semantic memory. d. episodic memory. 82. Source monitoring is best defined as the process of a. making inferences about the origins of memories. b. unknowingly altering your memory of a story by the way you retell it. c. checking the accuracy of a claim before accepting it. d. making note of the physical environments in which you learn best. 83. If you wanted to use a relearning measure of retention, you could have participants in your experiment a. learn the same material twice, then compare final accuracy of the first and second study session. b. learn the same material twice, then compare time taken to learn for the first versus second study session. c. first learn on their own then teach the material to each other, then compare performance for learning on one’s own versus being taught. d. learn half the material in one study session and half in the next, then compare performance between the two sessions. 84. The function of sensory memory is to a. put information into long-term memory. b. hold the immediate perception of what was perceived. c. provide additional time to recognize stimuli. d. hold information for a lifetime. 85. Which physiological change in the brain has been linked to reflex learning? a. Reconsolidation b. dendritic death c. Neurogenesis d. Alterations in synaptic transmission 86. Taha decides to retake his chemistry course, hoping to get a better grade the second time. If he wants to assess his retention from the first time taking the course, the most effective strategy is to compare his a. accuracy on the online quizzes, which are multiple-choice, between the first and second times. b. accuracy on the in-class tests, which are essays, between the first and second times. c. time taken to learn the material for online quizzes, which are multiple-choice, between the first and second times. d. time taken to complete the in-class tests, which are essays, between the first and second times.

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Chapter 07_11e 87. What shape did the forgetting curve take in Ebbinghaus’s original experiments? a. Forgetting is fast at first, but quickly slows down. b. Forgetting is relatively linear (constant) over time, and the speed depends on the materials. c. Forgetting is slow at first, but gradually gets faster. d. Forgetting is fast at first, but gradually slows down. 88. The famous office study by Brewer and Treyens tested participants’ memory for a. factual knowledge of offices as opposed to parks and other natural environments. b. conversations with experimenters in the office where they waited. c. items placed around the office in which they waited. d. events that occurred outside the office while they waited. 89. Suppose a psychologist is performing an experiment to test memory for letter sequences. If she wanted to prevent participants from chunking, she could a. come up with letter sequences that are meaningful only to her. b. pick obscure organization acronyms to use as the letter sequences. c. randomly generate letter sequences via computer. d. make sure letter sequences have four or fewer letters. 90. If a neurosurgeon wants to investigate whether a patient’s brain is properly creating new neurons as needed, which part of the brain should she assess? a. Lateral orbital gyrus of the frontal lobe b. Dorsal striatum of the basal ganglia c. Anterior lobe of the cerebellum d. Dentate gyrus of the hippocampus 91. Consolidation is defined as the process a. of clearing working memory of information that is no longer needed. b. of converting new, unstable memories into stable, durable codes stored in long-term memory. c. of re-coding information in working memory into a smaller set of larger units. d. by which neurons that are simultaneously active form stable neural circuits. 92. Semantic priming is a phenomenon in which reading a word, such as “dog,” enables you to more easily process a related word you encounter soon afterward, such as “wolf.” How might this phenomenon be explained by the theories of memory storage presented in the textbook? a. Words that are held in working memory simultaneously are likely to boost one another due to a chunking effect. b. Related ideas are more likely to be stored together due to a higher chance of being part of the same flashbulb memory. c. Reading of any kind tends to improve subsequent retrieval because it puts you into a focused state that improves access to long-term memory. d. Related ideas are closely connected in a semantic network, so that processing one idea may trigger another due to spreading activation.

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Chapter 07_11e 93. Liam has recently developed anterograde amnesia and worries that he’ll no longer be able to play the piano. To help him understand his condition, you could tell him that anterograde a. amnesia only affects newer procedural memories, so if you already know how to play the piano, you won’t have any problems. b. amnesia affects episodic memory, so you can still learn skills like playing the piano, you just won’t remember the learning event itself. c. amnesia affects general facts, so your memory for skills like playing the piano will remain entirely normal. d. amnesia only affects older procedural memories, so you might forget your already-learned skills, but you can still relearn them. 94. Suppose you can’t recall the name of a friend you made while visiting Paris for a study abroad program. You start thinking in French, as you often did while in Paris, and suddenly his name pops into your mind. You have likely just demonstrated a. decay. b. encoding specificity. c. interference. d. motivated forgetting. 95. In a memory study, participants are asked to memorize the following words: aardvark, cauliflower, bull, Aaron, dentist, eagle, attorney, Jacob, potato, and firefighter. When their memories are tested, they are free to recall the words in any order they want. Which of the following responses clearly indicates the use of clustering? a. Attorney, bull, cauliflower, dentist. b. Aaron, aardvark; Jacob, firefighter. c. “An aardvark eats cauliflower and potato,” says Aaron the dentist. d. Aardvark, bull, eagle; attorney, dentist, firefighter. 96. The work of researchers like Loftus on errors in memory suggests that memory is BEST viewed as a. a tape recording. b. storage in a computer file. c. a video recording of an event. d. a reconstruction of events or materials. 97. Miguel is making a flyer for the new zoo in town, whose main attractions are a black panther and a koala. Miguel really wants viewers to form strong memories of these two animals. To most effectively achieve his goal, what should he include on the flyer, and why? a. Pictures and descriptions of the panther and koala, since two different codings (semantic and visual) are better than a single coding. b. A picture of the black panther and the word “koala”, because dual coding theory suggests a mix of pictures and words for better memory c. The words “black panther” and “koala” because people tend to make images of concrete nouns, so they will likely store both the word and the picture d. The words “black panther” and “koala,” each in a different unusual font, because dual coding theory predicts that the font can be stored separately from the word.

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Chapter 07_11e 98. In anterograde amnesia, a person a. has impaired retention of previously learned information due to newly learned information. b. loses memories for events that occur after the injury. c. has impaired retention of new information due to previously learned information. d. loses memories for events that occurred prior to the injury. 99. Suppose you and your sister are visiting your grandparents. Your sister excitedly tells them that she got on to her school’s swim team. A few weeks later, your grandparents call you and ask whether you like being on the swim team so far. In this scenario, your grandparents are most clearly demonstrating a. a source monitoring error. b. the misinformation effect. c. a hypnotic suggestion. d. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. 100. Bellamy is 28 years old. She was burned quite badly in a kitchen accident when she was 7 years old. Today, even though her parents still sometimes mention the kitchen accident, Bellamy has no memory of ever being burned. According to Freud, Bellamy may be a. showing signs of proactive interference. b. experiencing retrograde amnesia. c. experiencing the misinformation effect. d. repressing to keep the distressing memories in the unconscious. 101. Stimuli that help gain access to memories are called a. prototypes. b. rehearsal strategies. c. retrieval cues. d. mnemonic devices. 102. If a researcher wanted to maximize interference in a memory study, she could have participants learn a list of a. fruits followed by a list of vitamins and minerals. b. vegetables followed by a list of gardening tools. c. professions followed by a list of fruits. d. fruits followed by a list of vegetables. 103. According to memory researcher Endel Tulving, the function of episodic memory is to allow one to a. understand how time passes. b. reason about the present. c. reexperience the past. d. plan for the future.

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Chapter 07_11e 104. Interestingly, research suggests that much of the memory consolidation process may unfold while people do what? a. Sleep b. Daydream c. Digest food d. Exercise 105. When someone is unable to remember information because it was never paid attention to and put into memory in the first place, psychologists would say that a. the stored memory was lost. b. the memory was retrieved. c. the memory was blocked. d. the memory was not encoded. 106. Which of the following ideas or theories is most often associated with the fact that people can have memories of events that they never actually saw or experienced? a. Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon b. Freud’s theory of repression c. Source monitoring d. Encoding specificity 107. Indra is having brain surgery to remove a small tumor. If she wants to avoid potential memory loss, she should ask the surgeon to be careful about which large brain region? a. Frontal lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Occipital lobe 108. Yao, a professional musician, has an important performance this week. If he wants to make sure his skills are performed well, research on memory suggests he should a. let his mind wander to other situations whenever he feels overly pressured. b. pay close attention to the parts he had trouble with during his practice sessions. c. try to remain just as relaxed during the performance as he typically is during the course of a normal day. d. allow his learned actions to occur on their own, without putting much effort into planning or directing them. 109. Remembering to pay your rent next week is best classified as a. retrospective memory. b. prospective memory. c. procedural memory. d. episodic memory.

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Chapter 07_11e 110. Given your knowledge of how interference works, which of the following is the most likely conclusion about which memory systems are responsible? a. Interference is caused when working memory fails to differentiate between items it holds. b. Interference occurs when information is put into or retrieved from long-term memory. c. Interference is caused by information loss during the transfer from sensory memory to working memory. d. Interference occurs when information in long-term memory is reorganized during sleep. 111. Bernice is driving to work when a speeding car zooms past her. She repeats the unsafe driver’s license plate number to herself until she is able to park and write it down. Bernice has most clearly demonstrated a. flashbulb memory. b. long-term memory. c. rehearsal. d. chunking. 112. Some researchers theorize that fact memories are just autobiographical memories whose contextual details have been lost. If this is true, what would it imply for people with amnesia, such as H.M .? a. Their brains will attempt to cope with their deficits by encoding events directly in fact form. b. They will be unable to learn new facts. c. They will be unable to remember new autobiographical events. d. Facts they learn will retain their associated autobiographical context. 113. If Bertha wanted to show her friends the difference between working memory and long-term memory, she could say, a. “It’s the difference between understanding what I’m saying right now and remembering something I said last week.” b. “It’s the difference between remembering what you plan to do and remembering what you’ve already done.” c. “It’s the difference between remembering your career accomplishments and remembering your childhood.” d. “It’s the difference between memories that easily come to mind and memories that take serious effort to retrieve.” 114. Your friend recently got married and changed their last name to that of their spouse. You have difficulty remembering their new last name because of a. proactive interference. b. retroactive interference. c. memory decay. d. lack of attention.

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Chapter 07_11e 115. Louie is trying to remember a long string of letters in order to impress his psychology teacher. The letters are UNL-VF-SUUC-LAU-F. How should he chunk the information for best later recall, and why? a. UNL-VFS-UUC-LAU-F, because each chunk needs to be pronounceable within 2 seconds before it decays from auditory short-term memory b. UNLVFS-UUCLAUF, because the chunks should be as big as possible (whole chunks tend to be recalled together) c. UNLV-FSU-UCLA-UF, because Louie recognizes these four chunks as the names of universities d. It doesn’t matter, because short-term memory capacity has an absolute limit, and is not affected by how the information is chunked 116. The role of the episodic buffer in Baddeley’s model of working memory is to a. use attention to decide what information to encode into long-term memory. b. separate visual and auditory information and selectively analyze it. c. group information in short-term memory into larger, meaningful units. d. integrate visual and auditory information. 117. Laura feels embarrassed about the musical performance she just gave at an open mic night. Someone asks her name, but she wants to increase the odds they forget it later. How could she accomplish this using levels-ofprocessing theory? a. Say, “Laura, like Laura Dern, the famous actress from the movie Jurassic Park.” b. Say, “Laura, with an A and a U.” c. Say, “Laura, it sounds like Aurora.” d. Say, “Laura, it rhymes with menorah,” while also distracting them with photos on her phone. 118. Ammon has very vivid memories of a car accident he witnessed five years ago. When he closes his eyes and thinks about the accident, he feels as if he can recall every detail of it, right down to the brand name printed on the tires of one of the cars. Which type of memory is this? a. Sensory b. Procedural c. Flashbulb d. Implicit 119. Divided attention is especially likely to hurt task performance when the tasks being performed are highly a. important. b. engaging. c. complex. d. dissimilar.

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Chapter 07_11e 120. One of your students asks how he can effectively retrieve studied information while taking the next mid-term exam. He mentions that he drinks coffee during most of his study sessions for the exam. You inform him that research on retrieval cues suggests he would benefit from a. taking the exam without drinking anything before or during. b. drinking coffee during the exam. c. drinking a different hot beverage during the exam. d. drinking coffee before the exam. 121. The process of making attributions about the origins of memories is referred to as a. reality monitoring. b. source monitoring. c. buffering. d. a contraindication. 122. If a teacher wanted to demonstrate a simple and easy example of how researchers have reliably created false memories, he could a. have students imagine playing baseball in great detail, including what the crowd would sound like during a game. b. repeatedly claim later on that they did play baseball that day as a class activity. c. write the following words on the blackboard for students to read – bat, ball, mitt, pitcher mound, diamond, and home plate. d. have students hypnotized while describing what playing baseball is like, including the sound of the crowd during a game. 123. According to Meyer, the few cases where hypnosis does indeed stimulate eyewitness recall are probably explained by the value of a. extended rehearsal of an experienced event. b. processing one’s feelings about an event. c. heightened emotion during an event. d. reinstating the context of an event. 124. Neda is a neuroscientist who is looking for physical traces of memory in preserved brain tissue. Suppose she wants to find the memory traces that are most accurate (or least likely to have experienced extensive reconstruction). Which area of the brain is she most likely going to focus on? a. Neocortex b. Hippocampus c. Amygdala d. Basal ganglia 125. Which of the following most clearly demonstrates a decision about the source of a memory? a. Figuring out if you learned how to balance your checkbook in high school or in college b. Figuring out which of your two televisions were purchased first c. Trying to recall what you ordered last time you visited a particular restaurant d. Trying to assess how accurate your memories are for what you were doing when 9/11 happened Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07_11e 126. Which of the following actions could improve someone’s prospective memory for doing the dishes? a. Cross “doing the dishes” off their to-do list b. Set a reminder to wash the dishes in their calendar c. Take a picture of the dishes after they’re clean d. Pay attention, rather than letting their mind wander, while washing the dishes 127. Your knowledge of how to read is part of which memory system ? a. Non declarative memory b. Declarative memory c. Episodic memory d. Semantic memory 128. The claim that memories are stored away permanently and that forgetting is all a matter of retrieval failure is most associated with which of the following phenomena? a. Flashbulb memories b. Schemas c. Sensory persistence d. Chunking 129. At a party, a man introduces himself by saying, “Hi, I’m Tim. It rhymes with gym.” In this example, Tim is leading people to use a. semantic encoding. b. phonemic encoding. c. structural encoding. d. deep encoding. 130. Imagine that researchers find some memories are lost very quickly, while other memories last much longer. This evidence would create the MOST problems for the which theory of forgetting? a. Decay b. Interference c. Repression d. Pseudoforgetting 131. A multilevel classification system based on common properties among items is called a a. conceptual hierarchy. b. schema. c. semantic network. d. cluster.

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Chapter 07_11e 132. Tyler witnessed an automobile accident and heard one of the bystanders casually mention that the driver was probably intoxicated. Even though the driver had not been drinking and never crossed the center line, Tyler tells the police officer who is investigating the accident that the car had been “weaving all over the road.” Tyler’s faulty recall illustrates a. proactive interference. b. implicit memory readjustment. c. the misinformation effect. d. mood-dependent memory. 133. Consider the effects of schemas on memory such as the Brewer & Treyens study discussed in the textbook. With that in mind, if you see all of the following items on a beach, which are you most likely to forget if your memory is tested later? (Assume that none of the items are particularly distinct or attention grabbing.) a. Things you don’t know the names of – for example, a bird that looks like a stork but larger b. Things you expect to see on a beach – for example, beach towels and umbrellas c. Things for which you have no beliefs about whether they belong on a beach – for example, raccoons or lasagna d. Things that are thematically related to beaches – for example, canoes or scuba gear 134. Research suggests that the beneficial effects of context cues also apply to emotional or mental states. With this in mind, if you wanted to recall a fact you first learned while feeling happy, a good strategy would be trying to feel a. the same emotion again – in this case, happiness. b. an opposing emotion – in this case, sadness. c. a similar but not identical emotion – in this case, contentment. d. a neutral emotion – in this case, interest. 135. Rehearsal is best defined as the process a. of practicing information in preparation for a future performance. b. of repetitively verbalizing or thinking about information. c. by which information is made harder to retrieve due to similar information already in memory. d. by which information is organized into conceptually coherent categories. 136. Typically, people score highest on which kind of memory test? a. Recognition b. Recall c. Retention d. Relearning 137. Freud’s idea of repression means that, of the following, you are likely to forget a. third-grade math class because it was so long ago. b. the time your car’s air conditioning stopped working because it was uncomfortable. c. being attacked by a bear because it was traumatic . d. your kindergarten graduation because it was uncharacteristically happy.

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Chapter 07_11e 138. According to research, how do flashbulb memories change over time? a. They become both less detailed and less accurate. b. They become both more detailed and more accurate. c. They become more detailed but less accurate. d. They become more accurate but less detailed. 139. A friend asks for your help writing a poem. He asks you to come up with a list of words that rhyme with “albatross.” In terms of your memory for the words on your list, levels of processing theory would predict that you have a/an a. excellent memory of the words on the list because you generated the words yourself. b. poor memory of the words on the list because you thought only about what they sounded like. c. excellent memory of the words on the list because you used visual imagery of the words. d. poor memory of the words on the list because thinking of words in the context of a rhyme is a form of elaboration. 140. Some memory theorists argue that forgetting is actually adaptive because it a. provides difficulty that forces you to practice and improve at memory-based skills. b. prevents your memory from being overly cluttered with information. c. allows you to avoid re-experiencing painful memories. d. can let your personality and habits change more readily. 141. How is forgetting different for factual knowledge as opposed to skills? a. Factual knowledge is vulnerable to interference, but skills are only vulnerable to decay. b. Factual knowledge is vulnerable to decay, but skills are only vulnerable to interference. c. Factual knowledge is forgotten more quickly compared to skills. d. Factual knowledge is forgotten more slowly compared to skills. 142. If a teacher wanted to demonstrate chunking, he could a. show how a very long noodle is perceived as a single object because of its shape, even when piled up hiding much of its surface. b. point out that we read text one word at a time, as opposed to our visual perception in general, which receives input from a wide field of view all at once. c. write two versions of the same set of numbers – one arranged randomly and one arranged into famous dates. d. draw a diagram showing how your attention cycles between drivers, traffic lights, and other stimuli while driving. 143. In an influential study, McGeoch and McDonald studied whether forgetting of learned material was influenced by the similarity of material that intervened between learning and test. Which kind of intervening material resulted in the least forgetting? a. Synonyms of the learned words b. Antonyms of the learned words c. Unrelated adjectives d. Numbers Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07_11e 144. Omer wants to improve his film knowledge by creating detailed maps that show how various actors are connected to one another through other actors or common films. In terms of encoding research, Omer’s maps are likely to increase his film knowledge because a. actors are easy to imagine because you’re so familiar with their faces. b. thinking in terms of both actors and films is likely a beneficial form of multitasking. c. linking actors and films to one another is a form of elaboration. d. thinking in terms of both actors and films is an example of dual-coding. 145. Dual-coding theory suggests that memory is often enhanced when information is coded a. by more than one person. b. with both imagery and meaning. c. at multiple time points or study sessions. d. in two or more brain regions. 146. A historian is planning a lecture about the rise and fall of Tang Taizong, who ruled China in the 7th century and is considered a major historical figure. He wants to ensure that the audience has accurate, up-to-date knowledge of these events, rather than believing the often-repeated mix of myths and misconceptions. Based on your knowledge of the misinformation effect, he could accomplish this goal by a. explaining just how wrong the misconceptions are and using historical data and counterexamples to support his point. b. not mentioning the myths and misconceptions, but only talking about the correct, factually supported knowledge. c. comparing and contrasting the evidence (or lack thereof) supporting the well-proven views versus the myths. d. warning of the potential for misconceptions to distort their knowledge, and giving demonstrations of the effect in action. 147. Two students took a memory test that involved 20 nouns shown sequentially on a TV monitor. Blake tried to think of rhymes for each word as it appeared on the monitor. Finley tried to think of ways each word could be used in a sentence. Based on Craik and Lockhart’s levels-of-processing theory, you should predict that a. Blake will have better recall of the words because she used semantic encoding. b. both students should have equivalent recall of the words. c. Finley will have better recall of the words because she used semantic encoding. d. Finley will have poorer recall of the words because she used structural encoding. 148. What kind of information is most likely to block Armand’s retrieval of his childhood phone number? a. The street address of his childhood home b. Phone numbers for other places he has lived since then c. Unpleasant memories of events that happened in his childhood home d. Beliefs about whether his childhood home had a phone or not

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Chapter 07_11e 149. Research has shown that a great way to remember information is to relate it to yourself and your own life. For example, to remember the word “globe”, you could think back to a globe of the Earth that your second-grade teacher kept on her desk. In terms of levels of processing, this best demonstrates a. semantic encoding. b. phonemic encoding. c. structural encoding. d. intermediate encoding. 150. Retention is best described as the a. state of having too many similar memories, causing retrieval difficulty. b. amount of time or effort saved when learning material a second time. c. proportion of material forgotten. d. proportion of material remembered. 151. In terms of demographics, research suggests that a. men are somewhat more vulnerable to problems with prospective memory than women. b. younger people are somewhat more vulnerable to problems with prospective memory than older adults. c. older adults are somewhat more vulnerable to problems with prospective memory than younger people. d. women are somewhat more vulnerable to problems with prospective memory than men. 152. The idea that people forget information because of competition from other material is called a. motivated forgetting. b. decay theory. c. the differentiation hypothesis. d. interference theory. 153. Which of the following kinds of materials, according to researchers, show much slower forgetting than those used in the original experiments by Hermann Ebbinghaus? a. Visual b. Complex c. Verbal d. Meaningful 154. Which kinds of memories, at the time of retrieval, are associated with a sense of “remembering” rather than “knowing”? a. Non declarative b. Declarative c. Semantic d. Episodic

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Chapter 07_11e 155. In the Deese-Roediger-McDermott (DRM) paradigm, memory illusions are created by a. hypnotizing participants and having them imagine hypothetical events in vivid detail. b. presenting a set of related words that are strongly associated with another target word that is not on the list. c. Introducing misleading information after a to-be-remembered event. d. telling participants a fabricated story about an event that happened in their childhood and having their parents agree to its truthfulness. 156. Suppose a woman still remembers a poem she learned in a high school English class taken over twenty years ago. If she has rarely thought about or practiced the poem since then, the most likely explanation is that a. she has learned few, if any, other poems since then. b. not enough time has passed for the poem to fully decay. c. the poem itself is unusually interesting or meaningful. d. she is very knowledgeable about poetry, which let her encode it with unusual strength. 157. Suppose a person suffered damage due to a brain injury to their attentional processing, causing them difficulty with filtering information. We might predict they would a. have problems carrying on a conversation with a group of friends at a restaurant. b. become very skilled at multitasking, making up for their filtering deficit. c. become hyper-focused and overly engaged on one task causing difficulty with switching tasks. d. be more likely to store information in both visual and verbal forms. 158. When researchers forewarn participants that misleading post-event information may alter their memory for events, the result is that participants a. often become overconfident in their ability to avoid such pitfalls, making their memories even more responsive to misleading information. b. are able to treat new information skeptically and partially reduce the influence of misinformation. c. may still be influenced by post-event misinformation to the same degree they would have been otherwise. d. may show the same rate of false memories but overall lower accuracy due to concern about being judged for having a poor memory. 159. James is about to meet several new people at a work event. To ensure they remember his name, which of the following introductions will work best, according to the levels-of-processing theory? a. “James, like King James from history.” b. “James, it rhymes with flames.” c. “James, with one A and one S.” d. “James, spelled J-A-M-E-S. That’s J-A-M-E-S.” 160. Experimental evidence shows that flashbulb memories a. are particularly resistant to forgetting of where and when the event took place. b. are less trustworthy because they are often uncovered under hypnosis. c. do not show a strong connection between vividness and accuracy. d. are often much more accurate than believed by those who hold them.

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Chapter 07_11e 161. By definition, the episodic memory system contains a. factual knowledge that can be easily expressed with language. b. chronological, or temporally dated, recollections of personal experiences. c. general knowledge that is not tied to the time when the information was learned. d. memory for actions, skills, and conditioned responses. 162. What did Hermann Ebbinghaus invent to give himself lots of material to memorize in his experiments? a. Randomly generated digits b. Images made of pixels c. Nonsense syllables d. Random strings of musical notes 163. Given what we know about remembering and forgetting, what is the most likely effect on a celebrity’s memories after watching a film about their life ? a. Their memories will become more accurate because the movie will depict events in greater detail than those they had stored. b. Their memories will become more accurate because the movie provides more retrieval cues than daily life and allows more time to rehearse the events. c. Their memories will become less accurate because thinking about all these similar events will create interference among them. d. Their memories will become less accurate because the vividness of the fictionalized elements will create false memories for them. 164. Aaron tries to engage with his three-year-old daughter by asking, “What did you eat for breakfast?” His daughter looks confused, so he rephrases: “Did you eat scrambled eggs, or did you eat toast?” In this example, Aaron has switched from a a. recognition measure to a retention measure. b. retention measure to a recognition measure. c. recall measure to a recognition measure. d. recognition measure to a recall measure. 165. In Ebbinghaus’s memory experiments, the majority of learned material was forgotten within a. the first 10 minutes. b. less than 12 hours. c. 24 hours. d. 48 hours. 166. In semantic network models, the length of a pathway between concepts represents a. categorical relationships between them. b. whether they are stored in the same memory systems. c. strength of association between them. d. whether they are similarly complex or difficult to understand.

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Chapter 07_11e 167. Processes which involve focusing awareness on a narrowed range of stimuli or events are said to use a. elaboration. b. attention. c. dual-coding. d. memory. 168. Which of the following examples most clearly demonstrates the potentially powerful effects of context cues on memory? a. Trey practices the formulas from his statistics class on many different kinds of problems, improving his ability to apply them in new situations. b. Boris smells cinnamon and is reminded of the smell and taste of the cinnamon-sugar cookies his mother used to make when he was very young. c. Raul tells a story about going skydiving. He exaggerates how high the plane was when he jumped, but later comes to believe in the exaggerated height. d. Darwin reads an interesting article in Wired magazine about robots that are designed to serve as caretakers and health aides. He later remembers the article as a televised segment on CNN instead. 169. A learner engaged in structural encoding focuses on a. the physical details of a to-be-learned stimulus. b. the relationship between to-be-learned stimuli. c. the physical details of their study environment. d. how they arrange their study time. 170. Which memory system preserves information in its original form for a brief time, usually only a fraction of a second? a. Long-term memory b. Short-term memory c. Sensory memory d. Instantaneous memory 171. Kids often have difficulty remembering the letters in the middle of the alphabet because of a. Over learning the first letters in the alphabet. b. distributed practice. c. the serial-position effect. d. the use of mnemonic devices 172. Loftus's work on eyewitness testimony has clearly demonstrated that a. memory errors come mostly from erroneous original encoding. b. most memory errors are constructive. c. information given after an event can alter a person's memory of the event. d. most memory errors are simply omissions of details of the event.

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Chapter 07_11e 173. Dismukes discusses what can happen when prospective memory goes awry in the workplace. For example, several airline disasters have been attributable to failures of prospective memory on the part of pilots. Based on your understanding of memory, which of the following safety tips for pilots has the best chance of preventing such problems? a. Go through your pre-flight checklist carefully and avoid the temptation to skip a step to save time. b. Make sure you’re skilled enough to fly even without navigational aids like GPS. c. Practice emergency procedures and performance maneuvers in advance. d. Avoid distractions in the cockpit, especially from conversation or electronic devices . 174. Hala is attempting to use chunking to help her remember a new friend’s phone number. To chunk effectively, she should apply knowledge from a a. domain she learned recently, such as woodworking, which she became interested in a few days ago. b. domain she knows well, such as fashion, which she has been interested in for years. c. simple domain, such as how to choose the right sized sheets for your bed. d. domain related to memory, such as cognitive psychology. 175. When people engage in multiple tasks at once, research shows that what they are actually doing is a. processing them simultaneously but each at a slower rate than usual. b. processing them simultaneously but each slightly more effectively than usual. c. switching their attention back and forth between tasks slowly (i.e., every few minutes at most). d. switching their attention back and forth between tasks quickly (i.e., multiple times per minute). 176. If you want to avoid the memory problems associated with motivated forgetting, which of the following things should you take extra steps to remember? a. A promise to help a friend do their taxes b. A strategy to get yourself to study more often c. A date with someone you like d. A good friend’s birth date 177. If Sigmund Freud’s explanation of motivated forgetting was correct, how might failure to encode be partially responsible for this phenomenon? a. A person’s brain might lay the memory code down with less strength based on high levels of stress hormones as a protective measure. b. A person might take great care to distract themselves from thinking about the traumatic event, reducing rehearsal of it. c. A person might actively avoid places or things that remind them of the traumatic event. d. A person might divert their attention elsewhere in an attempt to cope while a traumatic event is happening. 178. Working memory is different from short-term memory in that working memory a. is primarily visual. b. includes the manipulation of information. c. is part of long-term memory. d. requires extra effort. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07_11e 179. Corbin is convinced that he remembers the material from his text much better when he studies for 3 hours straight through on the night before the exam, rather than when he studies for 30 minutes each night on 6 consecutive nights. Corbin’s experience is NOT consistent with memory research that has documented the effectiveness of a. chunking. b. distributed practice. c. massed practice. d. prospective memory. 180. The idea that the formation of new neurons may partially underlie memory is a description of the benefits of a. neurogenesis. b. alterations in synaptic transmission. c. localized neural circuits. d. reconsolidation. 181. The textbook asks you to imagine what would happen if all your many memories of parking your car at a nearby shopping mall were equally vivid. You would likely have a great deal of trouble finding your car. This example was used to demonstrate that forgetting a. provides difficulty that forces you to practice and improve at memory-based skills. b. allows you to avoid re-experiencing painful memories. c. prevents your memory from being overly cluttered with information. d. can let your personality and habits change more readily. 182. The memory system that handles factual knowledge is called a. Episodic memory. b. Semantic memory. c. Declarative memory. d. Non declarative memory. 183. In terms of the possible causes of forgetting, the current consensus on the role of decay versus that of interference in long-term memory is that a. neither theory provides a plausible account of why people forget. b. both theories are well-supported and likely to be important. c. only interference theory is well-supported by the evidence. d. only decay theory is well-supported by the evidence. 184. Based on the idea of semantic encoding, which of the following stimuli should be most difficult to remember? a. Real words that are familiar but very short, like “cat” b. Real words that are unfamiliar, like “lugubrious” c. Three-letter nonsense words, like “bep” d. Strings of digits, like “187”

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Chapter 07_11e 185. Ochanya’s psychology professor say her biggest hurdle to getting good grades is that she often fails to encode the material in the first place. Her professor suggests that the BEST way to address this is probably to a. stop looking at her phone during class. b. study for longer periods of time. c. join a study group. d. record class lectures to watch later. 186. Working with college students, Ira Hyman and his colleagues were able to implant recollections of relatively substantial events, such as spilling a punch bowl at a wedding, merely by a. creating doctored photos of them participating in the events. b. hypnotizing them and having them imagine hypothetical events in vivid detail. c. asking them to elaborate on events supposedly reported by their parents. d. justifying such events as plausible and typical given a participant’s personality and habits. 187. The memory system that is able to maintain unrehearsed information for up to 20 seconds is called a. sensory memory. b. long-term memory. c. instantaneous memory. d. short-term memory. 188. A memory code that emphasizes the meaning of verbal input is called a. structural encoding. b. phonemic encoding. c. semantic encoding. d. episodic encoding. 189. According to Collins and Loftus, when people think about a word, their thoughts naturally go to related words. In semantic network models, this process is called a. sensory integration. b. spreading activation. c. memory travel. d. clustering. 190. If a teacher wanted to demonstrate retrograde amnesia to her Introduction to Psychology class, which of the following movies could she show? a. A movie in which a man cannot remember his own name, profession, or what he was doing before his accident. b. A film in which a man tells outrageous stories that change his own memories of what happened. c. A movie in which a man forgets new events only a few seconds after they happen. d. A film in which a woman’s experiences of the past day are completely erased each night.

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Chapter 07_11e 191. Gregory is telling Molly a joke when she suddenly stops him and tells him that she told him that same joke last week. In this example, Gregory a. has apparently made a source-monitoring error. b. appears to have made a reality-monitoring error. c. is showing the misinformation error. d. is experiencing proactive interference. 192. In a study on short term memory, Peterson and Peterson showed participants a string of three letters and a three-digit number, then asked the participants to count backwards from the number for varying lengths of time. Participants' memory for the letters was a. better when more time was spent counting. b. not affected by the length of time spent counting. c. worse when more time was spent counting. d. better when the three-digit number was smaller. 193. Lately, Tomas has experienced memory difficulties that his doctors say they haven’t seen before. He remembers past events with normal accuracy and detail, but has no idea when the events happened. Given these symptoms, if Tomas wants to better understand his problem, research suggests he should investigate which brain process? a. Creation of neural circuits b. Alterations in synaptic transmission c. Neurogenesis d. Reconsolidation 194. Given what you have learned about memory and the consolidation of memories, which memories would you predict are MOST vulnerable for someone who developed retrograde amnesia? a. Recent memories b. Older memories c. Emotional memories d. Detailed memories 195. The encoding specificity principle states that a. the value of a retrieval cue depends on how well it corresponds to the memory code. b. the principal cause of forgetting is the gradual fading of the memory code over time. c. most forgetting is explained by an initial failure to pay attention and properly encode information. d. memories stored abstractly are less durable than those stored with specific sensory or autobiographical context. 196. If Barry has a savings score of 35% on a memory test, it suggests that he has a. completed the test 35% faster than before. b. reached his goal performance with 35% more study time than before . c. set aside 35% of the material to look over again during later study sessions. d. retained 35% and forgotten the remaining 65% of the information.

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Chapter 07_11e 197. In one study, a person increased his memory span to 70 digits following a year of practice by using his knowledge of running times to remember different parts of the list (e.g., 35622 – an excellent time for running a mile). This shows how memory span can be greatly increased by a. maintenance rehearsal. b. phonological retrieval. c. avoiding hierarchical organization. d. chunking. 198. Which of the following behaviors is most likely to be characterized as “absentminded”? a. Failing to recall information during a test even though it had come to mind easily while studying b. Being asked one’s name and temporarily forgetting what it is c. Walking into a room and forgetting why you did so d. Blending together memories of two different events 199. Which memory system houses memory for actions, skills, conditioned responses, and emotional memories? a. Declarative memory b. Non declarative memory c. Semantic memory d. Episodic memory 200. When you rapidly switch your attention between cooking food on the grill and answering questions from your hungry friends, which component of working memory is being most heavily taxed? a. Central executive b. Episodic buffer c. Visuospatial scratchpad d. Phonological loop

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Chapter 07_11e Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. c 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. d 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. d 21. c 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. c 26. d

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Chapter 07_11e 27. c 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. c 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. d 38. d 39. a 40. c 41. a 42. d 43. b 44. d 45. b 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07_11e 55. c 56. a 57. c 58. b 59. b 60. b 61. d 62. d 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. b 67. c 68. d 69. c 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. c 74. c 75. d 76. c 77. a 78. c 79. b 80. d 81. d 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07_11e 83. b 84. c 85. d 86. c 87. a 88. c 89. c 90. d 91. b 92. d 93. b 94. b 95. d 96. d 97. a 98. b 99. a 100. d 101. c 102. d 103. c 104. a 105. d 106. c 107. c 108. d 109. b 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07_11e 111. c 112. b 113. a 114. a 115. c 116. d 117. b 118. c 119. c 120. b 121. b 122. c 123. d 124. b 125. a 126. b 127. a 128. a 129. b 130. a 131. a 132. c 133. c 134. a 135. b 136. a 137. c

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Chapter 07_11e 138. a 139. b 140. b 141. c 142. c 143. d 144. c 145. b 146. b 147. c 148. b 149. a 150. d 151. c 152. d 153. d 154. d 155. b 156. c 157. a 158. c 159. a 160. c 161. b 162. c 163. d 164. c 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07_11e 166. c 167. b 168. b 169. a 170. c 171. c 172. c 173. a 174. b 175. d 176. a 177. d 178. b 179. b 180. a 181. c 182. c 183. c 184. c 185. a 186. c 187. d 188. c 189. b 190. a 191. a 192. c 193. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07_11e 194. b 195. a 196. d 197. d 198. c 199. b 200. a

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Chapter 08_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The cumulative deprivation hypothesis suggests that if environment affects intelligence, then children who are raised in substandard circumstances should a. have a fixed IQ even as they grow older. b. experience a gradual decrease in IQ as they grow older. c. have a negative impact on the IQs of their classmates. d. experience a gradual improvement in IQ as they grow older. 2. Regarding the debate over the causes of between-group differences in IQ, the most accurate statistical conclusion we can draw is that a. heritability estimates are the best indicators of the importance of genetics on intelligence. b. group averages are the best indicators of the importance of genetics on intelligence. c. there is more variation in intelligence within-groups than between-groups. d. there is more variation in intelligence between-groups than within-groups. 3. Which of the following statements BEST characterizes the current view regarding the use of tests to predict vocational success? a. It is illegal to use mental ability tests to evaluate prospective employees. b. Employers can use any test of mental ability with prospective employees as long as the test has been shown to be reliable. c. Only tests designed to measure social or practical intelligence are permissible. d. There is controversy over the use of IQ tests in hiring employees. 4. How could language researchers design a study that fairly tests whether young children are truly faster language learners than adults? a. Make sure both children and adults in the study are similarly immersed in the new language b. Make sure the adults in the study are compared to children with similar IQs c. Make sure adults in the study are also learning their first language d. Make sure adults in the study are also being taught primarily by close family members 5. According to behaviorist theories on language development, how do parents encourage their children to learn the correct meaning and pronunciation of words? a. By shaping and providing reinforcement for the correct usage and pronunciation of the words b. By having them attend preschool classes with other children to learn from each other c. By providing appropriate punishment when the words are used incorrectly d. By allowing innate language learning to happen over time 6. The symmetrical, bell-shaped curve that represents the pattern in which many characteristics are dispersed in the population is called the a. uniform distribution. b. typical distribution. c. normal distribution. d. binomial distribution. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08_11e 7. The process that involves evaluating alternatives and making choices among them is known as a. insight b. problem solving. c. decision making. d. bounded rationality. 8. Leticia is a prima ballerina with a New York ballet company. According to Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences, Leticia is likely to score high in which of the following? a. Interpersonal intelligence b. Spatial intelligence c. Experiential intelligence d. Body-kinesthetic intelligence 9. Varshini is looking forward to buying a cellphone from her local carrier's store. Varshini is MOST likely to be happy with her purchase if the store has a. added more cellphones options that come in her favorite color. b. expanded the options of cellphones that can be handled in the store. c. added more information about the different accessories for each cellphone. d. reduced the number of cellphone models and have fewer on sale. 10. The data relating IQ to occupational attainment show that people who score a. below average on IQ tests are more likely than those who score in the average range to end up in highstatus jobs. b. high on IQ tests are more likely than those who score low to end up in high-status jobs. c. high on IQ tests are equally likely as those who score low to end up in high-status jobs. d. in the average range on IQ tests are more likely than either high- or low-scorers to end up in high-status jobs. 11. Based on the high reliability of IQ tests, of the following, the most reasonable conclusion is that intelligence is a. important. b. stable. c. genetic. d. changeable. 12. Which of the following decisions best demonstrate risky decision- making? a. Choosing between an apartment with a pool and one with a large balcony b. Deciding whether to buy leather or fabric seats for your new car c. Choosing between eating at a buffet, which is cheap and tastes pretty good, versus at a nice restaurant, which is expensive but delicious d. Deciding whether or not to buy a raffle ticket, which gives a 1% chance of winning $800 and a 10% chance of winning $40

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Chapter 08_11e 13. Cole is 30 years old. When he was 15 years old, he took an intelligence test and was told that his IQ score was 110. If Cole retakes the intelligence test now, he would likely discover that his current IQ score a. is close to 220, double his previous score. b. is close to 55, one half his previous score. c. is similar to his previous score of 110. d. has little relation to his early score because IQ scores tend to lack reliability. 14. An intelligence quotient (IQ) is a child’s a. mental age divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100. b. chronological age divided by mental age, multiplied by 100. c. mental age, multiplied by 100. d. mental age minus chronological age, multiplied by 100. 15. Martín is trying to decide which movie to watch from among the hundreds of choices available on an online streaming website. Based on your overall understanding of human decision-making, which of the following strategies would give him the best chance of being satisfied with his decision? a. Choosing the movie that is closest to ideal on the dimensions he finds most important, such as genre and the quality of the cast b. Choosing the movie that seems to be the overall best bet after considering the pros and cons on various important dimensions, such as runtime and critic scores c. Choosing the first movie that strongly appeals to him based on first impressions d. Choosing the first movie whose title and actors are very familiar to him 16. The clearest way in which Sternberg’s triarchic theory is more complete than Gardner’s multiple intelligences theory is that it a. can localize the regions of the brain responsible for various forms of intelligence. b. can describe how genetics and environment interact to produce intelligence. c. can plausibly explain how each of its facets of intelligence are responsible for real-world tasks. d. can reliably measure the multiple facets of intelligence it describes. 17. Evolutionary psychologists argue that most heuristics in decision-making are BEST characterized as a. slow and effortful. b. fast and frugal. c. effortful and complicated. d. optimal. 18. Changing the representation of a problem can making solving it easier. For example, the Buddhist monk problem is much more easily solved when represented a. mathematically. b. verbally. c. graphically. d. spatially.

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Chapter 08_11e 19. Statistically, a person’s score on a modern IQ test tells them a. how likely they are to attain occupational success as a result of their intelligence. b. where they fall on the distribution of scores. c. how well they function in daily life as a result of their intelligence. d. how many kinds of intelligence they score highly on. 20. Because one of the main goals of playing Words With Friends is to use your letters to form the longest words possible with the letters you have, Words With Friends can BEST be described as a game that involves a problem of a. arrangement. b. transformation. c. functional fixedness. d. inducting structure. 21. The evidence on identical twins reared apart is most contradictory to the claim that a. parents are a more important environmental factor than education. b. the average intelligence of the population has been rising over the past few generations. c. genetic factors explain most of the variability of IQ. d. environmental factors explain most of the variability of IQ. 22. In a twin study, you would predict the environment to be the largest cause of a difference in intelligence between a. fraternal twins raised in the same environment. b. identical twins raised in the same environment. c. fraternal twins raised in different environments. d. identical twins raised in different environments. 23. Many human traits, including intelligence, show a normal distribution. This means that a. most cases are near the middle of the distribution. b. most cases are near the edges of the distribution. c. cases are equally frequent across the entire distribution. d. few cases are near the middle of the distribution. 24. A group of sixth-graders all took a 100-word spelling test in order to qualify for the city-wide spelling bee contest. If a child needed to score in the top 20% of applicants to qualify, which of the following students definitely qualified for the spelling bee? a. Aaron, who placed in the 15th percentile b. River, who spelled 80% of the words correctly c. Finley, who placed at the 90th percentile d. Della, who spelled 85 words correctly

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Chapter 08_11e 25. How could Santiago use the strategy of changing his representation to increase his chances of winning at TicTac-Toe? a. By often playing against less skilled opponents to build his confidence b. By presenting himself as a skilled player to intimidate his opponents c. By taking frequent breaks between games to keep his energy level high d. By assigning numbers to each position on the board to show how valuable they are 26. Rashmi is a bilingual 2nd grader. Compared to her peers, Rashmi is likely to excel on tasks requiring a. cognitive flexibility. b. processing speed. c. social intelligence. d. larger vocabulary skills. 27. Suppose Victor finishes the last pickle in a jar and throws the jar away. He then goes out to buy a nearly identical jar to hold sugar. Which of the following choices best explains his suboptimal problem solving? a. He is using analogies, because the last time he needed a container to hold something, he went out to buy a new container. b. He is focusing on irrelevant information, such as the width of the jars. c. He is using trial and error, and trying out different solutions to hold sugar. d. He has functional fixedness, and doesn’t realize the pickle jar could also be used to hold sugar. 28. Suppose you are told that a test you’re about to take has low reliability. Of the following choices, the best strategy to address this issue is to a. ask to be tested by a someone with lots of test administration experience. b. ask for extra time while answering the questions. c. ask to take the test multiple times and average the scores. d. ask to take the test in a typical environment. 29. Some theorists have suggested that incubation effects may be caused by a. suddenly retrieving an analogically similar problem. b. being inspired by objects encountered in one’s environment during a break. c. returning to a problem with renewed mental and physical energy. d. continuing to work on a problem unconsciously after conscious effort has been suspended. 30. Which of the following types of theories on language development BEST accounts for the apparent rapidity and ease of language acquisition in early childhood? a. Cognitive Theory b. Behaviorist Theory c. Nativist Theory d. Interactionist Theory

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Chapter 08_11e 31. The linguistic relativity hypothesis has a. yet to be tested experimentally. b. been tested experimentally. c. received support in recent research. d. been supported only through case study data. 32. People generally prefer a choice that provides an 80% chance of success over one that provides a 19% chance of failure. This illustrates the effect of a. the availability heuristic. b. the representativeness heuristic. c. framing. d. mental set. 33. When participants are given a description of a person, and asked whether he is a college teacher or a politician, on what information do they usually base their answer? a. The stereotypical characteristics of college teachers and politicians b. The relative proportions of college teachers and politicians in the population c. The relative proportions of college teachers and politicians among people they know d. Which profession, college teacher or politician, plays a more important role in their own life 34. Based on Sternberg and colleagues (1981), the three types of intelligence recognized by the average person are a. verbal, auditory, and social. b. verbal, practical, and social. c. verbal, practical, and emotional. d. verbal, mechanical, and emotional. 35. Traditional measures of IQ have been replaced by modern equivalents, the most widely used of which is the a. Raven’s Progressive Matrices. b. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale. c. Binet Intelligence Scale. d. Wechsler-Binet Intelligence Scale. 36. People tend to estimate that there are more words starting with the letter K than words having a K in the third position because of the a. representativeness heuristic. b. conjunction heuristic. c. anchoring and adjustment heuristic. d. availability heuristic.

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Chapter 08_11e 37. A major similarity between the Stanford-Binet scale and the WAIS is that both a. have distributions of scores that center around 150. b. are scored using the normal distribution. c. predict social intelligence. d. are designed to be used on people of any age. 38. Theorists use the term reaction range to refer to a. the genetically determined upper and lower limits on IQ or other traits. b. an estimate of the proportion of trait variability in a population that is determined by variations in genetic inheritance. c. the set of genetic markers which together explain the heritable portion of an individual’s IQ or other traits. d. the unpredictible nature of a person’s scores on intelligence tests when the tests are repeated. 39. A review of twin studies of intellectual similarity found that fraternal twins tend to be a. negatively correlated (dissimilar) to one another in intelligence. b. uncorrelated to one another in intelligence. c. almost as similar to one another in intelligence as identical twins. d. similar to one another in intelligence but substantially less so than identical twins. 40. According to evolutionary psychologists, all organisms “from toads to stockbrokers” must a. rely on the choices of others to guide them between an otherwise overwhelming set of options. b. ensure they make optimal decisions, or risk serious harm. c. make fast decisions under demanding circumstances, with limited information. d. keep track of past decisions and their outcomes, so that better decisions can be calculated in the future. 41. Imagine that anthropologists found a culture that had over 80 different words for rice. If researchers also found that the people in this culture thought about rice in different and more elaborate ways than people who have only one word for rice, it would a. provide evidence that the linguistic relativity hypothesis is incorrect. b. support social communication theory. c. support the linguistic relativity hypothesis. d. provide evidence that the social communication theory is incorrect. 42. In the string problem, two strings hang from the ceiling but are too far apart to allow a person to hold one and walk to the other. In what way do most participants overlook the screwdriver in the problem, thus preventing a successful solution? a. They don’t notice that the screwdriver is part of the problem description. b. They incorrectly believe the screwdriver is irrelevant to the solution. c. They fail to consider that the screwdriver can be used as a weight. d. They try to use the screwdriver to implement the solution that worked for the last problem.

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Chapter 08_11e 43. The Flynn effect most clearly contradicts the claim that intelligence is a. determined by genetics only. b. determined by environment only. c. determined by an interaction between intelligence and environment. d. a valid predictor of daily functioning. 44. How reliable are IQ tests, in comparison with most other types of psychological tests? a. IQ test are very reliable. b. IQ test are slightly less reliable than other psychological tests. c. They have about the same level of reliability. d. IQ test are much less reliable than other psychological tests. 45. One study recorded design engineers during their product development meetings. Which problem-solving strategy was found to be especially common in these meetings? a. Searching for analogies b. Forming subgoals c. Trial and error d. Incubation 46. Which of the following facts is most consistent with the idea that differences in average IQ between ethnic groups is most likely the result of environmental factors? a. The typical disparity in average IQ between white people and people of minority groups is around 10 to 15 points. b. The disparity in average IQ between white people and people of other groups depends on both the group tested and the IQ scale used. c. Some estimates peg the heritability of intelligence at around 80%. d. Average IQ scores among children from lower social classes are about 15 points below those of children from middle- and upper-class homes. 47. You have a pair of pliers and a bag of nuts in the shell. You believe you can’t shell the nuts because you do not have a nutcracker. Your inability to perceive the pliers as a makeshift nutcracker demonstrates a. functional fixedness. b. mental set. c. insight insufficiency. d. heuristic reasoning. 48. Risky decision making is best defined as making choices a. under conditions of uncertainty. b. in dangerous conditions. c. in conditions where any outcome is undesirable. d. under conditions of ignorance.

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Chapter 08_11e 49. A major difference between the representativeness and availability heuristics is that a. representativeness is used to estimate likelihood, whereas availability is used to estimate the quality of the outcome. b. using representativeness is a quick, intuitive process, whereas using availability involves a systematic search through memory. c. representativeness is based on general beliefs, whereas availability is based on the recall of specific instances. d. relying on representativeness typically results in poor decisions, whereas relying on availability typically results in good decisions. 50. Which problem-solving strategy seems best suited to tackle apparently overwhelming, multi-step problems? a. Trial and error b. Incubation c. Searching for analogies d. Forming subgoals 51. Greeno referred to problems where individuals need to carry out a sequence of changes in order to reach a specific goal as an example of a problem of a. arrangement. b. transformation. c. inducing structure. d. cognition. 52. A friend asks you whether IQ tests produce consistent results when people are retested. Your friend’s question is most clearly about a. normativity. b. validity. c. deviation. d. reliability. 53. Which of the following statements corresponds MOST closely to Arthur Jensen’s position on ethnic differences in average IQ scores? a. IQ differences are a function of relative nutritional levels for different ethnic groups, particularly the amount of protein in one’s diet.. b. IQ differences reflect the inherent bias in IQ tests toward different ethnic groups. c. IQ differences are largely due to heredity. d. There are no true differences in IQ between ethnic groups.

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Chapter 08_11e 54. In the first half of the 20th century, a strong current of racial and class prejudice supported the idea that IQ tests measured innate ability and that “undesirable” groups scored poorly because of their genetic inferiority. This development BEST reflects which of the following themes of your textbook? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Psychology evolves in a sociocultural context. d. Behavior is determined by multiple causes. 55. The famous water jug problems by Luchins demonstrated which obstacle to problem solving? a. Unnecessary constraints b. Irrelevant information c. Mental set d. Functional fixedness 56. Researchers have pointed out that some cultures have different conceptions of what intelligence is and value different mental skills. This may partly explain why some cultures a. have not as a whole adopted modern IQ tests. b. rely on IQ to determine social standing rather than job placement. c. prefer to use their own customized versions of modern IQ test. d. show different patterns of scores on IQ test subscales. 57. Correlations between a student's IQ score and their school grades suggest that IQ tests a. are not a reliable method to predict school performance. b. are a reasonably reliable method to predict school performance. c. are not a valid method to predict school performance. d. are a reasonably valid method to predict school performance. 58. Which of Gardner’s eight intelligences includes access to one’s own feelings and the ability to reason about them to guide behavior? a. Linguistic b. Interpersonal c. Bodily-kinesthetic d. Intrapersonal 59. How could a job candidate use their knowledge of the representativeness heuristic during an interview to improve their chances of being hired? a. Give a demonstration of how they would handle a typical problem in that profession b. Show objective performance metrics of their ability in that profession c. Highlight their interest in a hobby that is often popular for people in that profession d. Tell an interesting story during the interview to make themselves memorable.

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Chapter 08_11e 60. When a deviation IQ score is converted into a percentile score, it indicates a. the percentage of cases scoring at a lower level. b. the percentage of cases scoring at a higher level. c. the percentage of the times one can be expected to score at a similar level if the test is taken again. d. that the original score deviated too much from the average to be reliable. 61. Participants are told that Linda (a fictitious character) is single, outspoken, and very bright. They are asked which is more likely: that she is a bank teller and a political activist, or that she is just a bank teller. If they answer “bank teller and political activist,” they are using which heuristic? a. Illusory correlation b. Availability c. Representativeness d. Anchoring and adjustment 62. According to dual-process theories of decision making, when complicated or important decisions need to be made, people use a. simplistic strategies. b. fast and frugal strategies. c. intuitive strategies. d. rule-governed strategies. 63. The statistical reason that decisions based on the representativeness heuristic are often incorrect is because they a. over-rely on sample size. b. ignore sample size. c. ignore base rates. d. over-rely on base rates. 64. . A child’s mental age indicates that, relative to the typical traits of someone of his or her chronological age, he or she a. shows average physiological characteristics, especially in measures of brain function. b. displays average mental ability. c. displays typical personally traits. d. would likely be mistaken, in conversation or academic activities, for a child of that chronological (actual) age. 65. Suppose you upgraded your computer's word processing program. Even though the new software contains a number of CTRL-keyboard shortcuts for working with files, you continue to work with the files the same way you did before the upgrade. You are showing evidence of a. mental set. b. belief perseverance. c. priming. d. the availability heuristic.

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Chapter 08_11e 66. The conjunction fallacy occurs when people estimate that a. combining two past decision-making strategies will yield better outcomes than committing to just one strategy. b. extra information, such as a detailed breakdown of the pros and cons of each choice, will be helpful to their decision-making process. c. the odds of two uncertain events happening together are greater than the odds of either event happening alone. d. a person having stereotypical traits for a given profession is more likely to be a member of that profession. 67. Based on your understanding of decision-making heuristics, which of the following is the most likely reason that people fear sharks so much? a. The base rate of sharks in the ocean is high b. It is easy to remember examples of shark attacks because they generate widely-circulated headlines c. Sharks closely match the prototype for predatory animals d. Sharks have large, sharp teeth 68. The representativeness heuristic refers to our tendency to a. ignore subjective probabilities when making decisions. b. estimate the probability of an event by judging the ease with which relevant instances come to mind. c. estimate the probability of an event based on how similar it is to the typical prototype of that event. d. ignore common stereotypes when estimating probabilities. 69. Based on your understanding of the availability heuristic, this decision-making strategy is most likely to be biased towards which kind of events? a. Recent events b. Expected events c. Stereotypical events d. Complicated events 70. According to Noam Chomsky, which fact about language makes it unreasonable to claim that children learn language by imitation? a. As children grow older, parents become stricter and stricter about only responding to correctly-worded phrases. b. There are an infinite number of sentences that could be generated in a language. c. Many children can learn to understand a second language, even if they don’t speak it, by listening to others. d. Infants are able to distinguish between any pair of elementary sounds, even for those distinctions that are not relevant to their parents’ languages.

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Chapter 08_11e 71. Nico’s high IQ helps her succeed in a prestigious, high-salary job. The most obvious way in which this outcome could lead to greater longevity is by providing access to a. a wider range of physically active hobbies. b. more free time. c. better mentors. d. more frequent and higher-quality medical care. 72. Becky is a child who scored four standard deviations above the mean on an IQ test. Where on the normal curve is her score located? a. On the high end b. In the middle c. On the low end d. Outside the curve’s high end 73. Phineas is an elderly man whose intelligence was last assessed in elementary school in the 1950s. He is most likely to have taken the a. Normal Intelligence Inventory. b. Binet-Simon scale. c. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS). d. Stanford-Binet Intelligence scale. 74. Modern IQ tests have a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of a. 100 b. 25 c. 15 d. 50 75. Which of the following choices correctly matches the type of problem (in normal font) with the example problem (in italics)? a. Arrangement; Unscramble the following letters to form a word: YCPSLOOGHY b. Transformation; Cub is to Bear as _____ is to Man c. Analogy; You have a box of matches, some thumbtacks, and a candle. How can you stick the candle to the wall? d. Analogy; Pick the number that comes next: 1 5 10 16 23 ___ 76. Suppose a student in your PSYCH 100 class asks you, “If a culture didn’t have words to describe music, would members of that culture still perceive it the same way?” This is most clearly a question about a. nativism. b. behaviorism. c. linguistic relativity. d. bilingualism.

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Chapter 08_11e 77. A person's percentile score is the percentage of people who score a. above their score. b. at or below their score. c. between the mean and their score. d. below the mean on a standardized test. 78. The shape of the distribution of IQ scores suggests that a. scores on the higher end are most common, while scores on the lower end are least common. b. scores on the lower end are most common, while scores on the higher end are least common. c. there are a roughly equal number of scores across the possible range. d. most scores are somewhere in the middle, with fewer towards each extreme. 79. You are having a conversation with your psychology professor and she proposes that children acquire language the same way they learn everything else, through reinforcement and other established principles of conditioning. Which of the following theorists would MOST likely agree with her assertions? a. Benjamin Whorf b. B. F. Skinner c. Steven Pinker d. Noam Chomsky 80. Which of the following individuals would you predict would be MOST likely to have a high-status occupation, such as being a doctor or lawyer? a. Taylor, who has an IQ of 90 b. Kavi, who has an IQ of 105 c. Jordan, who has an IQ of 115 d. Aki, who has an IQ of 135 81. Based on your understanding of Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences, a person should be best at accurately rating themselves on each of the other individual intelligences when they are high in a. intrapersonal intelligence. b. bodily-kinesthetic intelligence. c. linguistic intelligence. d. spatial intelligence. 82. Cultural differences in intelligence are due to the influence of a. heredity only. b. environment only. c. both heredity and environment. d. neither heredity nor environment.

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Chapter 08_11e 83. Keesha seldom corrects her 3-year-old's grammatical errors, such as "He eated my cookie." However, she is careful to correct factual errors, such as "Tiger ate his milk." Assuming Keesha's child develops normal language skills, her pattern of feedback would be inconsistent with a. the behavioral view of language development. b. the nativist view of language development. c. all major theories of language development. d. the transformational theory of language development 84. A person with high practical intelligence would probably be most exceptional at a. starting and running their own small business. b. solving complex math problems. c. convincing friends to vote for their preferred political candidate. d. making friends after moving to a new city. 85. Researchers presented two groups of physicians with information regarding a surgical procedure. Half the physicians were told that, on average, 15 out of 100 people die as a result of the surgery; the remaining physicians were told that, on average, 85 out of 100 people survive the surgery. Based on the framing effect, you should expect a. the second group of physicians would be more likely to recommend the surgical procedure to their patients. b. the first group of physicians would be more likely to recommend the surgical procedure to their patients. c. both groups of physicians would recommend the surgical procedure to their patients. d. neither group of physicians would recommend the surgical procedure to their patients. 86. Studies of identical twins reared apart as a result of family breakups or adoption show that these identical twins a. still display just as much similarity in IQ as identical twins reared together. b. display less similarity in IQ than non-twin siblings reared together. c. still display greater similarity in IQ than fraternal twins reared together. d. display less similarity in IQ than fraternal twins reared together. 87. Which of the following statements about the influence of culture on the use of IQ tests is MOST accurate? a. IQ tests are widely used in virtually all cultures. b. Different cultures have different conceptions of what intelligence is. c. It is generally accepted across all cultures that it is possible to measure and quantify intellectual ability. d. Western IQ tests generally translate well into the language and cognitive framework of non-Western cultures. 88. Suppose you take an IQ test in school and are told your score. If you wanted to understand how well you did compared to the population, what would be the best question to ask your teacher? a. “What’s the highest score someone has gotten?” b. “How many standard deviations above or below the mean am I?” c. “What’s the standard deviation of the scores?” d. “What’s the variance of the scores?”

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Chapter 08_11e 89. If a teacher wanted to demonstrate the conjunction fallacy, the best strategy is to ask his students to estimate a. which city has a larger population: New York City or Detroit. b. which event is more likely: that “10,000 people are killed by a blizzard in Canada” or that “10,000 people are killed by a blizzard.” c. which cause of death is more common: being attacked by a wild animal, or heart disease. d. which mathematical product is greater: 1x2x3x4x5x6 or 6x5x4x3x2x1. 90. People who get stuck while trying to solve a problem are often advised to “sleep on it,” meaning they should go to bed and reassess the problem when they wake up. This useful advice most clearly demonstrates the benefits of a. representational change. b. consolidation. c. heuristics. d. incubation. 91. Consider the following pattern of coin tosses, with H for heads and T for tails: H H H H T T T T. According to the representativeness heuristic, how random would people rate this sequence to be, and why? a. High probability of being random, because this sequence resembles random sequences they have seen before (like streaks in sports, gambling, etc.) b. Low probability of being random, because the heuristic allows you to calculate that an orderly sequence like this is unlikely due to random chance c. No particular probability of being random, because the representativeness heuristic makes no predictions about this kind of situation d. Low probability of being random, because this sequence does not resemble what they think a random sequence looks like 92. If a child’s mental age was two times higher than their chronological age, what would their IQ be? a. 100 b. 400 c. 200 d. 50 93. What are the two processes referred to by modern dual-process theories of decision-making? a. Intuitive versus deliberative thinking b. Solitary versus social thinking c. Informed versus ignorant thinking d. Verbal versus nonverbal thinking

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Chapter 08_11e 94. Aki is upset because his daughter just scored significantly below average on an IQ test, despite his belief that she is unusually intelligent. Assuming he is correct about his child’s exceptional intelligence, the most likely reason for the low score is that a. his daughter took the test along with an especially bright group of other children at her school. b. the population of same-age children that took the test that year were especially bright. c. the test did not have a large enough sample of questions to accurately represent his daughter’s abilities. d. his daughter was anxious or distracted during the test. 95. Which problem from the textbook spawned the phrase “Think outside the box!” a. The hobbits and orcs problem b. The nine-dot problem c. The candle problem d. The crashed plane problem 96. Many theorists have recently concluded that traditional IQ tests are too narrow in focus, because their emphasis is almost exclusively on a. creative and mechanical skills. b. verbal and mathematical skills. c. emotional skills. d. practical skills. 97. Which of Gardner’s eight intelligences describes the ability to control one’s physical movements and to handle objects skillfully? a. Spatial b. Naturalist c. Bodily-kinesthetic d. Intrapersonal 98. According to Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, the ability to deal with everyday problems is high in a. practical intelligence. b. successful intelligence. c. creative intelligence. d. analytical intelligence. 99. In twin studies, the most potential for differences in intelligence exists for a. fraternal twins raised in the same environment. b. identical twins raised in the same environment. c. fraternal twins raised in different environments. d. identical twins raised in different environments.

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Chapter 08_11e 100. Your friend is unsatisfied with his score on the WAIS and says he should take the test again. Given his concerns, the most accurate reply is that he should only take it again if a. his physical or mental state that day was unusual. b. his score was very different than his scores on other standardized tests. c. he tends to be better at math than he is at verbal reasoning. d. his score strongly clashes with his self-assessment of his intellectual strengths and weaknesses. 101. Which of the following research findings is most consistent with behaviorist theories of language acquisition? a. Damage to the left hemisphere of the brain can lead to aphasia, a disorder that causes problems with language but leaves other cognitive functions untouched. b. The majority of world languages have verbs and nouns, even among societies that are isolated or have no contact with one another. c. Bilingual children are more likely to fluidly switch between languages when speaking to a parent who is also bilingual than a parent who is monolingual. d. When children learn a pidgin – a simplified, hybrid language used to communicate by two or more groups that don’t have a common natural language – the children automatically enrich it with typical grammatical categories. 102. A major similarity between Sternberg’s triarchic theory and Gardner’s multiple intelligences theory is the belief that a. processing speed and processing capacity are separate aspects of intelligence. b. the interaction between genes and the environment is an important determinant of IQ. c. traditional IQ testing is insufficient to describe mental ability. d. genetics are an important determinant of IQ. 103. Alexandra decides not to start a new business after reading that 20% of new businesses fail in the first year. Her reasoning is most clearly based on a. base rates. b. conjunction statistics. c. availability. d. prototypes. 104. The most convincing evidence regarding the role of genetic factors in intelligence comes from studies that compare a. members of the same biological family. b. identical and fraternal twins. c. children that attend the same school. d. members of the same adopted family.

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Chapter 08_11e 105. Suppose a child is raised in less than ideal circumstances – for example, with little access to nutritious food and no educational materials in the home. The most likely outcome is that their IQ score would end up a. below their reaction range. b. on the low end of their reaction range. c. in the middle of their reaction range. d. on the high end of their reaction range. 106. A mental set exists when a. a set of problems are grouped together in memory based on perceived similarity. b. a group of people have difficulty coming up with new strategies because of groupthink. c. people persist in using problem-solving strategies that have worked in the past. d. the elements of the problem are maintained in working memory for analysis and reasoning. 107. Which of the following statements BEST characterizes the current view regarding the use of tests to predict vocational success? a. It is illegal to use mental ability tests to evaluate prospective employees. b. Employers can use any test of mental ability with prospective employees as long as the test has been show to be reliable. c. Only tests designed to measure social or practical intelligence are permissible. d. There is controversy over the use of IQ tests in hiring employees. 108. Noam Chomsky contended that a. language is almost wholly a matter of social learning. b. biological factors play a relatively minor role in language development. c. there is an inborn biological propensity that guides language learning. d. reinforcement is the main factor in language learning. 109. Whorf’s original studies on the words used to describe “snow” have been criticized because they were based on a. comparison of participants of different ages between cultures. b. comparison of participants of different verbal fluency between cultures. c. casual observation rather than systematic cross-cultural comparisons. d. observational rather than randomized, experimental data. 110. Bill thinks trial and error is the best way to solve problems because of how thorough it is. What could you tell him to explain his mistake? a. While this strategy is exceptionally thorough, it is also one of the slowest ways to solve problems. b. Actually, this strategy is likely to overlook some options if your problem representation is incomplete. c. While this strategy is exceptionally thorough, it tends to work best in domains you are already quite knowledgeable about. d. This strategy is actually guaranteed not to work in certain cases, such as the hobbits and orcs problem.

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Chapter 08_11e 111. Early intelligence tests were created to identify children who were a. in need of special training. b. socially maladjusted. c. experiencing poor nutrition. d. mechanically skilled. 112. According to Sternberg, your roommate's ability to harness their intelligence to achieve goals by utilizing their strengths and compensating for their weaknesses emphasizes a. successful intelligence. b. practical intelligence. c. creative intelligence. d. analytical intelligence. 113. Many people mistakenly believe their chances of dying in an airplane crash are greater than their chances of dying in an automobile crash. This belief reflects the operation of a. confirmation bias. b. the belief in the law of small numbers. c. the availability heuristic. d. the conjunction fallacy. 114. According to researchers, a major obstacle to decision-making in modern life is a. a lack of truthful information about choices. b. an overabundance of choices. c. worry about how your choices will be perceived by others. d. a lack of free time to thoroughly evaluate choices. 115. Which of the following kinds of studies provides the strongest evidence regarding the possibility of genetic influences on intelligence? a. School studies b. Environmental studies c. Family studies d. Twin studies 116. River is a student in 1915 who is taking an assessment at a school that uses the Binet-Simon scale. River is found to have a mental age of 8. This means a. River is intellectually impaired. b. River's performance is comparable to the average 8-year-old child. c. River's score is 8 standard deviations about the average score. d. River's IQ is 80.

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Chapter 08_11e 117. Of the following, the most likely mechanism by which severe malnutrition could cause long-term reductions in intelligence is by a. diverting energy from thinking to bodily functions. b. preventing brain development during critical periods. c. causing distraction from hunger or physical distress during tests. d. reducing the willingness to engage in effortful mental tasks. 118. When people must choose between two alternatives, and they recognize one alternative but not the other, they often infer that the alternative they recognize has the higher value. This decision-making heuristic is called the a. representativeness heuristic. b. recognition heuristic. c. framing heuristic. d. conjunction heuristic. 119. The most common problems causing test score inconsistency of IQ scores for a single person is a. ambiguity about what is the correct answer for nonverbal assessments. b. the level of experience of those administering the test. c. pre-existing beliefs, either positive or negative, by those taking the test. d. low motivation or anxiety by those taking the test. 120. One might estimate how often people get engaged at sporting events by bringing to mind examples from the past season’s baseball games. This would best demonstrate the a. representativeness heuristic. b. conjunction heuristic. c. anchoring and adjustment heuristic. d. availability heuristic. 121. Which of the following ideas best explains why having expertise in an area sometimes backfires and hampers problem-solving efforts? a. Heuristics b. Unnecessary constraints c. Irrelevant information d. Mental set 122. Of the following, one explanation that researchers consider to be plausible for generational changes in IQ is a. increased numbers of people who know how to game the test. b. improved nutrition and reduced exposure to environmental toxins. c. adaptive genetic changes towards the increasingly important role of intelligence in career outcomes. d. selection bias, in which relatively intelligent people are more likely to take the test than in years prior.

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Chapter 08_11e 123. Which numerical value represents the center of the IQ scale? a. 0 b. 50 c. 200 d. 100 124. Which of the following is the most likely drawback to setting subgoals when solving a problem? a. Subgoals do not meaningfully narrow down the potential choices at each step. b. Using subgoals requires a high amount of cognitive effort. c. Subgoals tend to increase the number of moves required to solve a problem. d. Some problems do not have obvious subgoals. 125. Cheryl has always performed well on conventional tests designed to measure reasoning and logicalmathematical abilities, but she doesn’t seem to be able to use her skills to solve common, everyday problems. According to Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, Cheryl shows a. high analytical intelligence but lower creative intelligence. b. high analytical intelligence but lower practical intelligence. c. high practical intelligence but lower creative intelligence. d. high practical intelligence but lower analytical intelligence. 126. Carolina has been raised in an intellectually enriched environment with lots of books and age-appropriate toys. The reaction range model suggests that Carolina will a. score near the top of her potential IQ range. b. show a steady increase in IQ score during early childhood and adolescence. c. perform better than the majority of her peers on standardized tests. d. have a wider intellectual reaction range than children raised in less stimulating environments. 127. Based on your understanding of problem solving heuristics, which of the following problems might BEST be answers by using the strategy of searching for analogies? a. There are many solutions for the problem but you want the best solution to the problem. b. The problem requires some creative thinking and restructuring of the problem. c. The problem you are trying to solve has some similarities to problems you have previously solved. d. You have solved part of the problem but not the entire problem. 128. The concept that best explains how two people with similar genetic potential can turn out to be quite different in intelligence is a. reaction range. b. heritability estimation. c. the Flynn effect. d. molecular genetics.

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Chapter 08_11e 129. Based on your understanding of common roadblocks to problem solving, which of the following choices is most plausible regarding the relationship between functional fixedness and mental set? a. Functional fixedness could lead to mental set, because it necessarily narrows down which actions are possible. b. Mental set and functional fixedness are unlikely to be related because participants who exhibit high levels of one tend to exhibit low levels of the other. c. Functional fixedness reduces the likelihood of mental set, because it is an already-made choice that frees up cognitive resources for other parts of the problem. d. Mental set is usually avoided as a positive side effect to addressing functional fixedness. 130. According to Howard Gardner, IQ tests have generally emphasized which of the following? a. Spatial and linguistic skills b. Verbal and mathematical skills c. Analytical and practical skills d. Academic and interpersonal skills 131. In terms of intelligence testing, test validity is especially important because it allows researchers to a. show that IQ scores are truly a measure of intelligence rather than of some other trait. b. show the practical significance of one’s IQ score. c. make statistical inferences about one’s place in the distribution of IQ scores. d. predict the consistency of one’s test scores over time. 132. Studies of subjects who speak African languages that do not have a boundary between blue and green have found that a. they are better at noticing the small differences between blue and green colors that they’ve encountered than English-speaking subjects. b. they have worse memories for blue and green colors they’ve encountered than English-speaking subjects. c. they are faster to discriminate between blue and green colors than English-speaking subjects. d. they take longer to discriminate between blue and green colors than English-speaking subjects. 133. What does a percentile score indicate? a. The percentage of people who score at or below the score one has obtained b. The percentage of people whose score is equal to the score one has obtained c. The percentage of people who score within one standard deviation of the score one has obtained d. The percentage of people who score at or above the score one has obtained 134. Many studies of the linguistic relativity hypothesis have focused on cross-cultural comparisons of how people perceive a. colors. b. emotions. c. nature. d. relationships.

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Chapter 08_11e 135. Which of the following phenomena seems best explained by the representativeness heuristic? a. The curse of knowledge, in which experts find it difficult to take the point of view of, and therefore understand the difficulties of, novices b. Negativity bias, in which people can more easily recall memories of unpleasant events than those of pleasant events c. The planning fallacy, in which people tend to underestimate the amount of time needed to complete a task d. The hot-hand fallacy, in which people believe that someone who has experienced a streak of successes in a random event is more likely to have subsequent successes 136. The linguistic relativity hypothesis predicts that a. people’s language influences the way they think about things. b. language and thought should develop independently. c. people in all cultures should think alike, despite their language differences. d. language development should consistently lag behind cognitive development. 137. In terms of methods for assessing a hereditary influence on intelligence, family studies can determine whether genetic influence on a trait is a. causal. b. plausible. c. certain. d. impossible. 138. Of the following possibilities, the most likely explanation for how intelligence can directly contribute to longevity is that people with high IQs a. may be physically healthy because of the same genetic factors that make them mentally effective. b. may be surrounded by healthier peers (role models) in the workplace. c. may be more able to resolve conflicting health advice from different sources. d. may be able to afford better medical insurance. 139. The first step to effective problem solving is to a. figure out what information is relevant and what is irrelevant. b. retrieve information about potentially relevant problems you’ve seen before. c. figure out novel ways to use the objects in the problem. d. retrieve problem-solving strategies that have worked in the past. 140. People often find it difficult to solve a problem by using a familiar object in a novel way because of a. a mental set. b. unnecessary constraints. c. irrelevant information. d. functional fixedness

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Chapter 08_11e 141. In psychological testing, the ability of a test to measure what it was designed to measure is called its a. validity. b. deviation. c. reliability. d. correlation coefficient. 142. Critics of Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences argue that it makes the term intelligence meaningless by a. using such a broad, all-encompassing definition. b. failing to specify how a more general intelligence might relate to the separate subtypes. c. failing to implement standardized tests to measure the eight intelligences. d. measuring the multiple types in separate rather than integrated tasks. 143. The recognition heuristic assumes that, compared to an unrecognized alternative, a recognized alternative has a higher a. importance. b. value. c. danger. d. effectiveness. 144. Suppose a city drastically increases funding towards afterschool enrichment activities, free or reduced-price lunches, and hiring better quality teachers. If subsequent years show significant increases in IQ for the students in the city, it would most support the claim that intelligence is a. predetermined. b. genetic. c. environmental. d. random. 145. The gambler's fallacy reflects the influence of the a. availability heuristic. b. representativeness heuristic. c. law of small numbers. d. conjunction heuristic. 146. Which of the following beliefs would be best explained by the conjunction fallacy? a. Believing that “John is a biker” is more likely than “John is a biker with a big, bushy beard” b. Believing that “John is a biker with a big, bushy beard” is more likely than “John is a biker” c. Believing that you are more likely to die from a plane crash than from drowning d. Being more convinced by evidence that supports rather than conflicts with preconceived notions

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Chapter 08_11e 147. Suppose you want to visit the city of Chicago. How could you use the strategy of forming subgoals to accomplish this? a. The last time you wanted to visit Chicago, you bought train tickets. So you should buy train tickets again. b. Your goal is to be in Chicago. You should start from that goal state and work backward, figuring out what step is needed just beforehand, and repeat this process until you have each step planned. c. You want to be in Chicago, but the 2nd best option is to visit Ann Arbor instead. So you should include traveling to Ann Arbor as a backup plan. d. Your first step in getting to Chicago is to get to your car. Then, you should drive to the airport. Then, you should catch your flight. 148. Overall, the results of twin studies suggest that intelligence a. is environmentally influenced to a considerable degree. b. varies unpredictably with regard to genetics. c. is inherited to a considerable degree. d. varies unpredictably with regard to environment. 149. Based on a review of over 100 studies of intellectual similarity for various kinds of family relationships, the average correlation between identical twins was reported as a. .04, which is considered insignificant. b. .86, which is considered very high. c. .60, which is considered moderately high. d. .20, which is considered low. 150. Consider the fact that professional scientists likely use a very different and more expansive vocabulary to describe the natural world than either non-scientists or amateur scientists. Given our modern understanding of linguistic relativity, what effects might we predict as a result? a. They will hold more positive attitudes towards science. b. They will believe science to be more powerful. c. They will notice or remember science-related information differently. d. There will be no significant effect. The language will only reflect what they already think. 151. During the 1950s and 1960s, creative new ways of measuring mental processes paved the way for the cognitive revolution. The development of new research methods helps to illustrate which of the following unifying themes of the text? a. Our experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Behavior is determined by multiple causes.

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Chapter 08_11e 152. In a study about choice preferences, when participants were given many options to choose from, the participants were a. more confident and quicker in deciding what to purchase. b. quicker in deciding whether or not to make a purchase. c. less likely to make a purchase. d. less likely to experience buyers regret. 153. Although IQ tests do an excellent job of predicting educational achievement, many factors besides intelligence are likely to affect one’s grades and school progress. Which of the following other factors has been found by researchers to be surprisingly important? a. Self-control and self-regulation b. Openness to new experience c. Extroversion d. Social skills 154. An important consideration when reasoning with heritability estimates is that they cannot be meaningfully applied to a. individuals. b. groups. c. IQ scores. d. physical traits. 155. Keenan is not really a sports fan, but he signs up for a fantasy baseball tournament that is being sponsored by his company. In selecting his team, he picks the 10 players that he recognizes from 200 that are listed. He is pleasantly surprised when his fantasy team finishes near the top. In this instance, Keenan made his selections using a. belief perseverance. b. the representative heuristic. c. mental set. d. the recognition heuristic. 156. Herbert Simon’s theory of bounded rationality asserts that people a. make choices using simple strategies that ignore many facets of the available options. b. often fail to make rational decisions because of peer pressure or social norms to the contrary. c. rarely realize they are acting irrationally in the moment. d. avoid rigorous thinking unless forced to because of the required effort. 157. Suppose Dikembe speaks both English and French. If he is capable of thinking in both languages, which of the following relatively minor effects is likely to occur? a. He will show more creativity in language arts such as poetry or fiction. b. He will be more likely to unintentionally switch languages during a sentence. c. He will display greater verbal fluency while speaking. d. He will be slower to process each language.

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Chapter 08_11e 158. Which of the following problems from the textbook require carrying out a sequence of transformations in order to reach a specific goal? a. Anagrams b. The hobbits and orcs problem c. Analogies d. The crashed plane problem 159. To build his list of separate intelligences, Gardner reviewed the evidence of cognitive capacities in which groups of people? a. Children, young adults, and elderly adults b. People in Western cultures and people in Eastern cultures c. Normal individuals, people with brain damage, and special populations d. Low- and high-performing workers in several industries 160. Which heuristic is most likely to cause a teacher to believe that a student who asked especially interesting questions during class had higher attendance than one who rarely spoke in class? a. Base rate b. Representativeness c. Availability d. Recognition 161. A major assertion of Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences is that these intelligences a. change over the course of one’s lifespan. b. are largely independent. c. are partly influenced by a more general intelligence. d. reinforce one another, so gains in one leads to gains in others. 162. Critics of the notion that intelligence is largely genetic argue that identical twins are more alike in IQ because a. parents and others treat them more similarly than they treat fraternal twins. b. test administrators are more likely to score their results with this pre-existing belief in mind. c. they are influenced by nearly identical cultural experiences growing up. d. they tend to have the same schooling experience, often with the same classmates and teachers. 163. Which decision-making heuristic is most likely to rely on episodic memory (i.e. memory for specific events from one’s past)? a. Availability b. Base rate c. Representativeness d. Conjunction

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Chapter 08_11e 164. Which of the following ideas is LEAST associated with risky decision- making? a. Conjunction fallacy b. Availability c. Representativeness d. Choice overload 165. In the jargon of psychological testing, which term refers to the measurement consistency of a test? a. Deviation b. Validity c. Reliability d. Correlation coefficient 166. Howard is an educator who believes that every student has a unique set of skills and abilities that are valuable. Based on this information, Howard is most likely to agree with the idea that a. intelligence is based on neural differences. b. intelligence arises from a combination of genes and environment. c. there is a common mental factor that underlies various abilities. d. there are multiple intelligences. 167. What is the typical outcome when people are given a problem with many extraneous details that don’t relate to the correct solution? a. They fail to solve it. b. They solve it only with significant amounts of time and effort. c. They answer confidently but incorrectly. d. They fail to understand the correct answer even after being told it. 168. What is the main difference between problems that require insight and other kinds of problems? a. Whether they are solved all-at-once or incrementally b. Whether they are cognitively difficult or simple c. Whether they can be solved via analogy to other problems or each require a unique solution d. Whether they are vulnerable to functional fixedness effects or not 169. When tested on the Binet-Simon scale, Ada is found to have a mental age of 8. This means a. she is intellectually impaired. b. her performance was comparable to the average 8-year-old child. c. her score is 8 standard deviation units above the average score. d. her IQ is 80. 170. Whorf's observations that different languages have different words for “snow” provides evidence that a. people in different cultures perceive snow in different ways. b. all people have similar uses for snow. c. people within the same culture place more or less importance on snow. d. people have similar boundaries for what counts as snow. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08_11e 171. A major concern with using IQ tests for job selection is the possibility of a. low test-retest reliability leading to poor hiring and firing decisions. b. increased unemployment for people with useful skills that are not as easily measured. c. adverse impact on employment opportunities for those in minority groups. d. a lack of connection between IQ scores and objective measures of actual job skills. 172. If you wanted Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences to become more popular among scientists, the best strategy would be to a. come up with standardized tests that measure each intelligence. b. explain why the idea of multiple intelligences is more ecologically valid than traditional IQ. c. ensure that the named intelligences are each neutrally plausible. d. specify examples of which real-world tasks depend on which intelligence. 173. Carolina has been raised in an intellectually enriched environment with lots of books and age-appropriate toys. The reaction range model suggests that Carolina will a. score near the top of her potential IQ range. b. show a steady increase in IQ score during early childhood and adolescence. c. perform better than the majority of her peers on standardized tests of intelligence. d. have a wider intellectual reaction range than children raised in less stimulating environments. 174. Which important innovation to intelligence tests was introduced by the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)? a. Developing a standardized, easy-to-administer format b. Comparing mental and chronological ages c. Applying the results to predict academic performance d. Measuring not just verbal performance but also nonverbal performance 175. Kofi is raised in a very enriched environment, with excellent teachers and highly ranked schools. For people raised in such environments, you would expect heritability estimates of intelligence to be somewhere between a. 1% to 20%. b. 20% to 40%. c. 40% to 60%. d. 80% to 100%. 176. Analogy problems are best classified as problems of a. inducing structure. b. arrangement. c. series completion. d. transformation.

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Chapter 08_11e 177. Nativist theorists such as Noam Chomsky believe that an important part of language learning is a language acquisition device (LAD), which is a. a tool or situation that supports the natural language learning process. b. an innate mechanism or process that facilitates the learning of language. c. a specialized brain region that evolved to assist in language learning. d. a memory system that specializes in holding large amounts of language information for later analysis. 178. A common riddle begins, “A plane crashes on the border between the United States and Canada. Where do you bury the survivors?” People often fixate on “the border” and answer in terms of international law, funeral customs, etc. Why do they overlook the obvious answer, which is, “you don’t bury survivors”? a. Functional fixedness b. Irrelevant information c. Mental set d. Trial and error heuristics 179. The Binet-Simon scale of intelligence expressed a child's score in terms of a. mental age. b. a potential score. c. a percentile score. d. an intelligence quotient. 180. In problem solving contexts, insight occurs when people a. figure out which problem information is relevant and which is irrelevant without logically thinking it through. b. suddenly discover the correct solution to the problem after struggling with it for awhile. c. reach a deep understanding of the problem after studying it for awhile. d. bring to mind an appropriate past problem whose solution can be applied to the current one. 181. Current research on the cognitive advantages and disadvantages of bilingualism is often focused on the fact that a. one can become a skilled speaker of a second language without also being a skilled listener, and viceversa. b. bilinguals sometimes display unusual grammar in their second language because of interference from their first language. c. bilinguals may think in both their first and second languages simultaneously. d. the ability to successfully mimic the native accent of a second language has a large innate component. 182. When new solutions surface for a previously unsolved problem after a period of not consciously thinking about the problem, this is called a. mental set. b. an incubation effect. c. a brainstorm effect. d. representational shift.

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Chapter 08_11e 183. Consider the problem that asks people to draw four straight lines that connect a 3x3 grid of dots. The key factor that makes this problem difficult is that most people a. don’t consider that the pencil also has an eraser. b. don’t realize they can fold the paper before drawing. c. aren’t patient enough to draw the correctly shaped lines. d. don’t think to draw lines outside the imaginary boundary around the dots. 184. The Flynn effect refers to the increase in IQ scores over generations. One factor that may have contributed to this effect is a. an increase in children being born to intelligent parents. b. changes in people's socioeconomic status. c. increases in average head size. d. decreases in average family size. 185. Richard Nisbett and his colleagues argue that people from Eastern Asian cultures (such as China, Japan, and Korea) display a different problem-solving style than people from Western cultures (America and Europe). Specifically, their claim is that a. Westerners focus on objects and their properties, whereas Easterners focus on context and relationships among elements. b. Easterners focus on objects and their properties, whereas Westerners focus on context and relationships among elements. c. Westerners solve problems circuitously, by considering the merits of each strategy, whereas Easterners solve problems by quickly trying out the most likely strategy. d. Easterners solve problems circuitously, by considering the merits of each strategy, whereas Westerners solve problems by quickly trying out the most likely strategy. 186. Which of the following psychologists concluded that humans exhibit eight largely independent types of intelligence? a. Alfred Binet b. Howard Gardener c. Arthur Jenson d. Robert Sternberg 187. Regina wants to ensure that she gets chosen to play baseball by the high school team captain. How could she best use the availability heuristic to accomplish her goal? a. Make sure she is nearby and visible when the decision is being made b. Describe her past athletic accomplishments in vivid detail to the team captain c. Give the team captain statistics on her past athletic accomplishments d. Have a trusted friend of the team captain vouch for her athletic ability

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Chapter 08_11e 188. Your classmate Phil argues that using analogies is clearly the best way to solve problems. Based on your understanding of this heuristic, what should you tell him is a potential disadvantage to this approach? a. You need a large working memory capacity to make valid analogical matches. b. You need to have past experience with problems that are both similar and relevant. c. When encountering a problem, it takes a while to sort through potential analogs to select one. d. Past problems that you encountered relatively recently are more likely to be relevant. 189. The ability to generate ideas that are original, novel, and useful defines a. insight. b. creativity. c. reasoning. d. intelligence. 190. Linguistic relativity is the hypothesis that one’s language a. shapes one’s social relationships. b. reflects one’s values and beliefs. c. determines the nature of one’s thought. d. reveals one’s mental models of the world. 191. The finding in adoption studies that siblings reared together are more similar in IQ than siblings reared apart is true for a. non-twin siblings only. b. same-gender siblings only. c. non-twin and fraternal twin siblings only. d. all siblings, including identical twins. 192. Many human traits, including intelligence, show a normal distribution. This means that a. most cases are near the middle of the distribution. b. most cases are near the edge of the distribution. c. cases are equally frequent across the entire distribution. d. few cases are near the middle of the distribution. 193. When Zenobia is working on her bicycle, she brings her entire tool kit out on the driveway and starts pulling wrenches from it at random, trying them until she finds one that fits. Zenobia’s approach to working on her bicycle could be BEST described as a. alternate outcomes analysis. b. working backwards. c. trial and error. d. forming subgoals.

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Chapter 08_11e 194. Based on molecular genetics research, how much variation in cognitive ability have candidate genes discovered by researchers been able to account for? a. Large portions (between 30% and 40% each) b. Moderate portions (between 15% and 20% each) c. Small portions (between 5% and 10% each) d. Tiny portions (well under 1% each) 195. Laura has an easy time learning to be a surgeon because she is so skillful at figuring out how to use new physical tools. In terms of Gardner’s multiple intelligences, Laura most clearly demonstrates a. intrapersonal intelligence. b. bodily-kinesthetic intelligence. c. linguistic intelligence. d. spatial intelligence. 196. A computer-savvy child is asked by his grandparents to get their old computer working again. At first, he is unsure what to do; then he says, “Oh, I know this, it’s like UNIX!” and is able to input the correct commands. The child is most clearly demonstrating which problem solving strategy? a. Trial and error b. Mental set c. Searching for analogies d. Forming subgoals 197. Which approach to problem solving relies on guiding principle or “rules of thumb”? a. Algorithms b. Incubation c. Heuristics d. Cognitive restructuring 198. Studies of consumer behavior show that when there are many choices available, people are more likely to a. rely on snap decisions, leading to often suboptimal decision-making. b. ask friends and acquaintances for input, resulting in trend following. c. struggle deciding which is the best option, causing them to defer their decision. d. choose one of the best options for them, since that option is more likely included among those considered. 199. The tendency to perceive an item only in terms of its most common use is called a. mental set. b. commonality bias. c. functional fixedness. d. analogy rigidness.

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Chapter 08_11e 200. How could you best use the recognition heuristic to estimate a movie star’s annual salary? a. Assume that the more familiar their name is, the higher their salary must be b. Assume that the more movies they have starred in that you’ve heard of, the higher their salary must be c. Assume that the more often you hear friends talk about them, the higher their salary must be d. Assume that the more closely they match your prototype of a movie star, the higher their salary must be

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Chapter 08_11e Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. c 8. d 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. d 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. c 25. d 26. a

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Chapter 08_11e 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. a 44. a 45. a 46. d 47. a 48. a 49. c 50. d 51. b 52. d 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08_11e 55. c 56. a 57. d 58. d 59. c 60. a 61. c 62. d 63. c 64. b 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. c 69. a 70. b 71. d 72. a 73. d 74. c 75. a 76. c 77. b 78. d 79. b 80. d 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08_11e 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. b 88. b 89. b 90. d 91. d 92. c 93. a 94. d 95. b 96. b 97. c 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. c 102. c 103. a 104. b 105. b 106. c 107. d 108. c 109. c 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08_11e 111. a 112. a 113. c 114. b 115. d 116. b 117. b 118. b 119. d 120. d 121. d 122. b 123. d 124. d 125. b 126. a 127. c 128. a 129. a 130. b 131. a 132. d 133. a 134. a 135. d 136. a 137. b

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Chapter 08_11e 138. c 139. a 140. d 141. a 142. a 143. b 144. c 145. b 146. b 147. d 148. c 149. b 150. c 151. c 152. c 153. a 154. a 155. d 156. a 157. d 158. b 159. c 160. c 161. b 162. a 163. a 164. d 165. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08_11e 166. d 167. a 168. a 169. b 170. a 171. c 172. a 173. a 174. d 175. c 176. a 177. b 178. b 179. a 180. b 181. c 182. b 183. d 184. d 185. a 186. b 187. b 188. b 189. b 190. c 191. d 192. a 193. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08_11e 194. d 195. b 196. c 197. c 198. c 199. c 200. a

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Chapter 09_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Based on your general understanding of research on cross-cultural variations in emotion, of the following, the aspect that is most different across cultures is a. whether or not they share a similar set of basic emotions. b. how particular emotions are experienced. c. how particular emotions are displayed. d. how well they can explain the circumstances that lead to certain emotions. 2. The main claim of the Cannon-Bard theory is that emotions are caused by a. one’s previous predictions of the emotions they would feel. b. signals that are sent and received by the peripheral nervous system. c. signals that are sent to both the cortex and the autonomic nervous system. d. one’s perception of autonomic arousal. 3. Dione is in line for a promotion but there is no pay increase. If Dione tests high on TAT for achievement motivation, how will she respond? a. She will work hard because the incentive is high. b. She will not work as hard because the probability of success is high. c. She will work hard because the probability of success is low. d. She will not work as hard because the incentive is low. 4. The need to master challenges is what type of motivation? a. Achievement b. Acknowledgement c. Power d. Fulfillment 5. Which of the following is considered one of the six fundamental emotions? a. Surprise b. Disappointment c. Jealousy d. Frustration 6. The determinant of achievement that increases when a student is enrolled in a university course that is required for graduation is the a. incentive value of success. b. probability of success. c. need to avoid failure. d. need for achievement.

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Chapter 09_11e 7. Which theory of emotion believes that the perception of your own autonomic arousal is irrelevant to the emotions you experience? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. Schachter’s Two-Factor theory d. Skinner-Maslow theory 8. Shania believes that if you collected every possible physiological measure, you could accurately predict what emotion a person is feeling in the moment. To best explain her mistake, you could tell her that a. physiological changes often return to baseline before the emotional experience is over. b. only a few physiological measures have been proven to relate to emotion. c. a particular set of physiological changes may actually be felt as several different emotions, depending on cognitive factors. d. different cultures may not recognize the existence of certain emotions that your own culture does. 9. According to Masters and Johnson, the refractory period is a. the period between orgasms in women experiencing multiple orgasms. b. the stage when the blood leaves the penis. c. the period when a woman’s muscles begin to spasm prior to orgasm. d. the period between the time a man has an orgasm and when he can be sexually stimulated again. 10. Citali has decided to exercise more to reach his weight loss goal. The major rule of food intake and exercise he should follow is to a. never eat while working out. b. always snack while working out. c. eat less, exercise more. d. eat more, exercise less. 11. Which determinant of achievement behavior is considered a stable aspect of personality? a. The incentive value of success b. The difficulty of a task c. The estimate of the probability of success for a task d. The motivation to achieve success 12. Which of the following psychologists is MOST closely identified with the research on the achievement motive? a. David Buss b. Henry Murray c. Walter Cannon d. David McClelland

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Chapter 09_11e 13. Suppose a person is given a polygraph test because they are suspected of a crime. Which of the following questions is most likely to occur very early in the session? a. “Did you steal the car?” b. “Are you 35 years old?” c. “What is your favorite color?” d. “Do you know who stole the car?” 14. “General bodily arousal contributes to emotion, but one’s interpretation of what is happening gives the specific emotion” is a proposition that would be made by a. Ivan Pavlov b. William James c. Walter Cannon d. Stanley Schachter 15. A person’s need for achievement is usually assessed using the a. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS). b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI). c. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). d. Edwards Manifest Needs Scale (EMNS). 16. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the current view regarding the role of ghrelin in hunger regulation? a. It is associated with increased hunger. b. Ghrelin levels regulate feelings of satiety in the stomach. c. Decreased ghrelin levels are involved in a lower propensity to feel hungry. d. Decreased ghrelin levels can lead to an increase in Polypeptide Y levels. 17. Unused calories are stored in the body as a. increased energy. b. carbs. c. protein. d. fat. 18. People with the high need for achievement seek a. instant gratification. b. delayed gratification. c. approval of others. d. acceptance.

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Chapter 09_11e 19. A famous study by Ekman and Friesen used facial-cue photographs to test whether nonverbal expressions of emotion transcend cultural boundaries. However, its conclusions have been criticized because a. the photos used in the study are said to be caricature-like and do not represent typical facial expressions of emotion. b. the study did not explore cultural variance in the physiological arousal that accompanies emotional experience. c. the researchers could see the photos being shown and might have unintentionally given hints. d. the study did not test all of the emotions that other researchers agree are fundamental. 20. One reason that people often inaccurately predict how they will feel about negative life events is that people underestimate their ability to a. deny reality. b. repress their true feelings. c. rationalize mistakes. d. seek revenge. 21. After a body has eaten, which hormone is secreted to tell the body it’s full? a. KLM b. KMN c. CKK d. CCK 22. How could a firefighter best use the idea that emotions have an evaluative component to reduce the fear she feels before responding to a dangerous situation? a. By lowering her resting heart rate with regular cardiovascular exercise and meditation b. By acting out excited behaviors – such as high-fiving others – to convince her body that she is excited c. By lowering her resting heart rate with medication d. By telling herself that she is sweating not because she is afraid, but because she is excited 23. If a person hunches over while feeling sad, they are most clearly demonstrating which component of emotion? a. Behavioral b. Environmental c. Physiological d. Cognitive 24. James’s autonomic nervous system is rapidly increasing its activity, causing him to sweat and his heart to beat faster. If this reaction is due to sexual activity, James is most likely in which stage of the sexual response cycle? a. Excitement b. Orgasm c. Plateau d. Resolution

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Chapter 09_11e 25. The facial-feedback hypothesis claims that a. other people’s facial expressions can influence our own emotions. b. our own facial expressions can influence our own emotions. c. the way of displaying emotion that is most clear to others is facial expressions. d. the most socially powerful form of emotional feedback comes from facial expressions. 26. Which of the following descriptions of the same emotional experience best matches the Cannon-Bard theory? a. “My hands shake because I feel nervous.” b. “I label my hands shaking as nervousness because I appraise the situation as important.” c. “I feel nervous because my hands shake.” d. “My upcoming exam makes me feel nervous and makes my hands shake.” 27. The greatest variations in achievement motivation seem to occur a. between individuals. b. within individuals over time. c. between groups. d. within groups over time. 28. Cannon and Washburn (1912) proposed that hunger is caused by a. a lack of food. b. stomach contractions. c. low blood sugar. d. changes in leptin levels. 29. If you wanted to more accurately predict your emotional reaction to a future event, of the following, the best strategy would be to focus on aspects of your life that a. will undergo significant change after the event. b. will likely change for the better as a result of the event. c. will mostly stay the same after the event. d. will likely change for the worse as a result of the event. 30. Studies show that if subjects are instructed to contract their facial muscles to mimic facial expressions associated with certain emotions, they tend to a. become more likely to experience those emotions in the future. b. experience those emotions in the present. c. become better at identifying those emotions in others. d. remember past situations in which they felt those emotions.

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Chapter 09_11e 31. Which theory of emotion is most consistent with the following example: “If you’re being rude and I’m aroused, I must be annoyed”? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. Schachter’s Two-Factor theory d. Evolutionary theory 32. To get people to consume and waste less food, the BEST strategy would be to a. have them use smaller plates. b. give them more choices of what to eat. c. encourage them to eat with other people. d. expose them to food smells. 33. The idea that if an individual is constantly frowning it can contribute to an increase in depression symptoms is supported by a. the affective forecasting hypothesis. b. the evaluative emotion hypothesis. c. the facial-feedback hypothesis. d. the role of the amygdala in emotions. 34. Theorists are becoming convinced that not being able to stop overeating is the cause of junk food being a. highly addictive. b. unregulated. c. poisonous. d. low in fat. 35. When a goal is motivated by an external factor it falls in the theoretical category of a. evolutionary. b. social. c. incentive. d. drive. 36. Marina and Deven both received a C on their last English paper. When she handed her paper in, Marina didn’t think she had done very well. However, Deven was convinced that she had written an A paper. Based on the research on relative happiness, you should expect that a. Deven will be more disappointed by the grade that she received. b. Marina will be more disappointed by the grade that she received. c. both students will be equally disappointed by the grades they received. d. neither student will be disappointed by the grades they received, because a C is still a passing grade.

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Chapter 09_11e 37. In laboratory studies where participants are asked to choose the difficulty level of a task to work on, those high in the need for achievement tend to select tasks of a. low difficulty. b. intermediate difficulty. c. high difficulty. d. very high difficulty. 38. Parental investment theory suggests that males and females a. make significant personal investments to produce and nurture offspring. b. do not make significant personal investments to produce and nurture offspring. c. may develop different mating strategies. d. develop similar mating strategies. 39. Which organ of the body can be missing and someone will still feel hunger? a. Stomach b. Intestines c. Gall Bladder d. Pancreas 40. A friend tells you that he feels overwhelmed with anxiety about his upcoming nursing certification exam, and that he can’t stop worrying about it. He is most clearly describing which aspect of emotion? a. Social b. Cognitive c. Physiological d. Behavioral 41. The evolutionary school of thought believes that the six basic emotions likely provided adaptive benefits to our ancestors. Which of the following is the most likely adaptive benefit of anger? a. To punish people who break social rules b. To be wary of dangerous situations c. To enhance social relationships d. To learn from information that conflicts with previous beliefs 42. What was the result of the test conducted by David Buss when thirty-seven cultures were studied concerning what men and women look for in a mate? a. Men were less interested in youth in other countries. b. Men, no matter their demographics, were still more interested in youth and attractiveness than women were. c. Men were less interested in attractiveness in other countries. d. Men were not as interested in women in other countries.

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Chapter 09_11e 43. Based on their large-scale survey of sexual behavior, Alfred Kinsey and his colleagues made a major breakthrough by discovering that a. the sexual response cycle consists of four stages: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. b. women place a higher value than men on potential partners’ status, ambition, and financial prospects. c. men express a desire for more partners than do women by a large margin. d. heterosexuality and homosexuality are not an all-or-none distinction but are best viewed on a continuum. 44. If the brain detects a threat based on initial sensory input, the next step of fear processing is nearly instant activity triggered in the a. hypothalamus. b. cortex. c. amygdala. d. thalamus. 45. When encountering stimuli that may elicit emotion, the first part of the brain that receives sensory signals is the a. cortex. b. hypothalamus. c. thalamus. d. amygdala. 46. How reliable are polygraph results considered when used as evidence in courtroom settings? a. Very reliable, on par with relatively certain forensic evidence like DNA testing b. Relatively reliable, on about the same level as the testimony of a credible eyewitness c. Only slightly more reliable than no evidence, on about the same level as the testimony of a questionable eyewitness d. Not reliable enough to be submitted as evidence in most types of courtrooms 47. Which of the following treatments, inspired by the facial-feedback hypothesis, has been proven to effectively improve depressive symptoms? a. Having the depressed person smile repeatedly over the course of the day b. Injecting Botox into the forehead of the depressed person to make it more difficult to frown c. Having friends and colleagues of the depressed person smile more often when interacting with them d. Using photos to remind the depressed person of pleasant memories with loved ones repeatedly during the day 48. The concept of a body boomeranging back to a certain weight either by weight loss or weight gain is called a. predisposition. b. set point. c. self-fulfilling. d. weight stability.

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Chapter 09_11e 49. Sexual orientation data is a. conclusive. b. skewed. c. clear. d. complicated. 50. Tanisha is nervous because she is about to participate in her first tournament as part of the college debate team. Her coach suggests that a good way to deal with these feelings is to stand up straight and maintain good posture. The most likely reason this advice would benefit Tanisha is by a. changing which systems in her body produce the inevitable physiological arousal elicited by the tournament. b. reducing the levels of autonomic arousal elicited by the tournament. c. causing a reinterpretation of the autonomic arousal elicited by the tournament. d. boosting the levels of autonomic arousal elicited by the tournament. 51. The vagus nerve carries information to the brain to let it know that a. the stomach is empty. b. the body is tired. c. the stomach is full. d. the stomach is in pain. 52. According to the James-Lange theory, one’s conscious experience of emotion occurs a. independently of autonomic arousal. b. before autonomic arousal. c. after autonomic arousal. d. at the same time as autonomic arousal. 53. A person is considered obese if there BMI is over the cutoff of a. 30 b. 20 c. 40 d. 10 54. Lee is about to take his drivers exam. As he enters the testing room, he notices that he is feeling anxious. The physiological experience of his emotional reaction is MOST likely the result of the action of Lee’s a. medulla. b. forebrain. c. central nervous system. d. autonomic nervous system.

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Chapter 09_11e 55. The need to master difficult challenges, outperform others, and meet high standards of excellence is called the a. success instinct. b. competitive drive. c. striving instinct. d. achievement motive. 56. David McClelland’s studies in motivation focus on a. emotion. b. affiliation. c. sexual drive. d. achievement. 57. The evolutionary school of thought believes that the six basic emotions likely provided adaptive benefits to our ancestors. Which of the following is the most likely adaptive benefit of surprise? a. To punish people who break social rules b. To be wary of dangerous situations c. To enhance social relationships d. To learn from information that conflicts with previous beliefs 58. Bethany is given a challenge of trying to persuade an important client to invest in a stock that is known to fluctuate greatly. Bethany has heard that this client is very frugal with their money and won’t invest in anything unless they’re sure they will make a profit. Considering Bethany’s high need for achievement, how will she work with this client? a. She will not work hard because the incentive is low. b. She will work hard because the incentive to do well is high. c. She will work hard because the opportunity for success is high. d. She will not work hard because the opportunity for success is low. 59. Which of the following theories found no empirical support for the idea that a person’s childhood is the catalyst for being homosexual? a. Psychoanalytical and behavioral b. Biological and behavioral c. Psychoanalytical and evolutionary d. Cognitive and behavioral 60. What is the common principle of quantity available when it comes to the amount of food consumed? a. The more food that is available, the less people will eat. b. The less food that is available, the less people will eat. c. The more food that is available, the more people feel shy about eating. d. The more food that is available, the more people will eat.

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Chapter 09_11e 61. When people were studied to see if there was a biological connection to homosexuality, it was found that a. identical twins were more likely to both be homosexual. b. adopted siblings were more likely to be homosexual. c. children with homosexual fathers were more likely to be homosexual. d. children with homosexual mothers were more likely to be homosexual. 62. James is studying for an important exam but his son is playing soccer. James rushes to get finished, which reflects which motive? a. Aggressive b. Achievement c. Affiliation d. Fright 63. The motivation to achieve is a. stable throughout one’s life. b. sporadic throughout the lifespan. c. only seen in adults. d. only seen in children. 64. Why is the study of the role of the brain, digestive factors, and hormones important? a. This aids in the study of hunger. b. The study will be the first of its kind. c. The digestive factors have never been studied before. d. The hormones associated with hunger have never been studied before. 65. George is not a competitive person. He probably has a a. low need for acceptance. b. high need for acceptance. c. low need for achievement. d. high need for achievement. 66. If a teacher wanted to demonstrate how the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is used to assess achievement motivation, which of the following would be the best strategy? a. Tell stories of several people’s efforts to attain success in their chosen fields, then ask her students what theme(s) tie each of the stories together b. Allow her students to choose between multiple in-class activities of varying difficulties, then show how their previous class performance relates to their choice of activity c. Describe what daily life is like for people in several different careers, then ask her students which one(s) they would choose and why d. Show her students a picture of a woman working on a laptop, then ask them to come up with a story about the picture

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Chapter 09_11e 67. Personal and professional achievement in his career is very important to Raymond because a. it will increase his freedom at work. b. he wants others to accept him. c. he has an affiliation motivation. d. he has high achievement motivation. 68. Behavioral theorists agree that the development of homosexuality is a. learned. b. evolutionary. c. biological. d. culturally influenced. 69. Lisa spends the afternoon sprinting back and forth in her backyard to train for an upcoming race. Despite sweating profusely and having a rapid heartbeat, she feels no particular emotional state during her workout. This result is most consistent with which theory of emotion? a. Evolutionary theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. Schachter’s Two-Factor theory d. James-Lange theory 70. In one study, researchers showed photos of facial expressions of various emotions to a group of natives in a remote part of New Guinea who had had virtually no contact with Western culture. The results of this study supported the conclusion that a. preliterate cultures confirm the idea that facial expressions associated with basic emotions are universally recognized across cultures. b. preliterate cultures are able to detect a wider range of emotions from facial expressions alone than modern cultures. c. preliterate cultures are able to more easily detect survival-related emotions than modern cultures. d. preliterate cultures are an exception to the general rule of cross-cultural similarity in the facial expressions of basic emotions. 71. Based on your understanding of people with high achievement motivation, what would you predict would be MOST likely to be an individual's decision about retirement? a. They are more likely to retire early as soon as they can financially afford to. b. They will refuse to retire and continue working. c. They are unlikely to have much money saved for retirement and will have to continue to work. d. They are more likely to stay involved in their field of expertise even after retirement. 72. Which region of the brain is associated with a variety of biological needs related to survival? a. Hypothalamus b. Hippocampus c. Amygdala d. Thalamus

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Chapter 09_11e 73. Parent investment theory involves the interest in a. what parents bring to the table in terms of caring for a child in time and energy. b. how much money the parents have. c. what the parents own. d. how the parents increase their investment through the child. 74. The relationship between autonomic arousal and emotions was the basis of the 1915 invention of a. the heart monitor. b. the blood pressure band. c. the lie detector. d. the electroencephalogram (EEG). 75. In a classic test of the two-factor theory, young men crossing a footbridge in a park encountered a young woman who asked them to stop briefly to fill out a questionnaire. The men were more likely to later call the woman to pursue a date when a. the park was noisy and full of activity. b. it was the middle of the night rather than during the day. c. the bridge was far above a river and swaying precariously. d. they had just consumed coffee rather than water. 76. Given your understanding of cross-cultural variations in emotion, if you were to visit a very different culture than your own, which of the following would you likely find the most difficult? a. Expressing your emotions in socially appropriate ways b. Getting people from the other culture to understand the emotions you are feeling c. Relating to the set of basic emotions used by the other culture d. Communicating your emotions with only facial expressions when your language ability is not up to the task 77. At present, which of the following approaches appears to provide the MOST complete account for gender disparities in sexual motivation and mating preferences? a. Operant conditioning b. Evolutionary theory c. Social learning theory d. Sociopolitical theory 78. Which group is used to defend the findings of the study on weight being hereditary? a. Husbands and wives b. Roommates c. Fraternal friends d. Identical twins

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Chapter 09_11e 79. Denise, who is 25 years old, says that because she has only had romantic relationships with men, this must mean she is completely heterosexual. You could best explain her error by telling her that a. only a tiny percentage of people are completely heterosexual. b. parental investment theory suggests attraction preferences become malleable when raising children. c. women are more likely than men to feel same-sex attraction. d. same-sex attraction can often emerge in adulthood. 80. Which of the following brain structures plays a particularly central role in the acquisition of conditioned fears? a. The basal ganglia b. The cerebellum c. The primary auditory cortex d. The amygdala 81. Rico plays football for one of the best high school teams in the county and is playing against one of the worst teams in the area. But Rico isn’t worried about winning the game. Which determinant factor of achievement behavior BEST fits this situation? a. Need for achievement b. Probability of success c. Motivation value of success d. Incentive value of success 82. If a professor gives hard tests, people with high achievement motivation a. will work harder to make sure they succeed. b. will seek help from others. c. will forego the exam. d. won’t work as hard on the test if the test is extremely difficult. 83. The observation that one individual may experience an airplane flight as an anxiety-arousing situation while another individual may experience it as a routine event reflects that emotion involves a. an evaluative component. b. an objective conscious experience. c. bodily arousal. d. an overt response. 84. Your psychology professor decides to spend six months living with a remote hunter-gatherer tribe in order to learn more about their society and culture. When interviewing them about their emotional experiences, which of the following emotions are they MOST likely to talk about? a. Love b. Suspicion c. Contentment d. Anger

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Chapter 09_11e 85. Affective forecasting is best defined as a. thinking deeply about emotions that have occurred in the past. b. reading others’ emotions based on facial expressions. c. reading others’ emotions based on body language. d. predicting emotions that will occur in future events. 86. Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion suggests that we distinguish between the experience of different emotions on the basis of a. the type of behavior involved. b. the type of bodily pattern involved. c. our interpretation of the situation. d. the emotional expression of others. 87. The James-Lange theory’s central claim is that the conscious experience of emotion results from a. one’s perception of autonomic arousal. b. one’s previous predictions of the emotions they would feel. c. signals that are sent to both the cortex and the autonomic nervous system. d. signals that are sent and received by the peripheral nervous system. 88. Where does one half of Americans’ food money go? a. Grocery stores b. Farmer’s markets c. Online d. Restaurants 89. What is one of the differences between biological and environmental factors of hunger? a. Biological is external while environmental is internal b. Biological is provable while environmental is only speculative c. Biological is internal while environmental is external d. Environmental is provable while biological is only speculative 90. Which theory is most likely to support the claim that animals such as dogs and cats share some of the same basic emotions as humans? a. Evolutionary theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. Schachter’s Two-Factor theory d. James-Lange theory 91. Homeostasis is sought to maintain a. energy. b. incentive. c. equilibrium. d. motivation. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09_11e 92. According to evolutionary psychologists, men are more attracted to youthful and attractive women due to a. their desire to be attractive to all women. b. their need to show they are dominant and virile men. c. their search for someone to take care of them. d. their search for women who are healthy enough to reproduce. 93. The hormone produced by fat cells that tends to diminish feelings of hunger when at high levels is a. insulin. b. leptin. c. adrenalin. d. glucose. 94. According to the Schacter two-factor theory of emotion, people look at situational cues to a. understand the emotions of others. b. differentiate between alternative emotions. c. learn how emotions change over time. d. predict when fear responses are most appropriate. 95. Over the course of history, people have overeaten when times are hard and food is limited. How do people eat when food is plentiful? a. They only eat healthy food. b. They overeat because of their evolutionary programming and the great variety of readily available food. c. They know food is available when needed, so they eat less. d. They tend to be drawn to junk food. 96. What part of the brain controls hunger? a. Frontal Lobe b. Hypothalamus c. Hippocampus d. Amygdala 97. Which sexual stage increases heart rate and blood pressure more slowly? a. Excitement b. Plateau c. Orgasm d. Resolution 98. Which motivational theory has the capacity to motivate behavior? a. Affiliation b. Incentive c. Achievement d. Sexual

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Chapter 09_11e 99. As Danica saw the headlights coming directly at her through the fog on the highway, her blood pressure rose quickly and she felt her heart start to race. These reactions are part of which component in Danica's emotional experience? a. Behavioral b. Objective c. Cognitive d. Physiological 100. According to McClelland, Jordan is high in achievement motivation. Jordan MOST likely will a. join a team. b. help others to achieve their goals. c. hide in the background during class. d. focus on mastering a second language. 101. Compared to low scorers, people who score high in the need for achievement a. devote more time to interpersonal activities. b. worry more about acceptance from others. c. tend to work harder and more persistently. d. show all of these characteristics. 102. Researchers argue that the achievement motive is most vital to which of the following? a. Making sense of life experiences b. Forming social relationships c. Scientific progress d. Social cohesion 103. A friend tells you that she feels “butterflies” in her stomach when she thinks about an upcoming date. She is most clearly describing which aspect of emotion? a. Social b. Cognitive c. Physiological d. Behavioral 104. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, which kind of change is too slow to cause the conscious experience of emotion? a. Cognitive b. Behavioral c. Physiological d. Evaluative

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Chapter 09_11e 105. If a food has a good taste and is agreeable to one’s mind, it is said to have a. palatability. b. digestability. c. tasteability. d. zesteability. 106. Mr. Knez is trying to get his seven-year-old daughter to eat some vegetable-fried rice for the first time. Mr. Knez should be MOST successful in getting his daughter to sample the new dish if he a. tells his daughter she won’t get any desert until she tries some of the fried rice. b. eats some of the fried rice first and shows a favorable reaction while he eats it. c. carefully describes all the ingredients that are in the fried rice. d. mixes it in with some other food that she enjoys eating. 107. Ethnic variations in preferences for foods and display rules concerning the expression of emotion BEST reflect the unifying theme in psychology that a. psychology is theoretically diverse. b. psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. behavior is determined by multiple causes. d. behavior is shaped by cultural heritage. 108. The fact that people characterize their emotions as pleasant or unpleasant is most associated with which component of emotion? a. Cognitive b. Logical c. Introspective d. Physiological 109. Thora was born completely deaf because of a congenital condition. Based on research regarding how emotions are expressed in people with sensory deficits, what would you most likely predict about how she expresses emotions with the tone of her voice when speaking out loud? a. Her tone will express emotion in a similar way to people with normal hearing only if she has had training. b. Her tone will naturally express emotion in a similar way to people with normal hearing. c. Her tone is unlikely to express emotion in a similar way to people with normal hearing. d. It will be extremely difficult for others to read her emotional state based on tone. 110. When people are asked to rate their happiness, a. the vast majority indicate that they are unhappy. b. about half the respondents indicate that they are happy. c. a small minority place themselves below the neutral point on the scale. d. only those who are relatively healthy consider themselves to be happy.

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Chapter 09_11e 111. A person’s preference for emotional and sexual relationships with other individuals is referred to as a. parental investment. b. phenotype. c. sexual orientation. d. gender. 112. Jack and Diane are watching a movie with explicit sexual scenes. Although they are not touching, Diane begins to feel flushed and her heart rate increases. She is in which stage of sexual response? a. Excitement b. Plateau c. Orgasm d. Resolution 113. What do varying levels of leptin mean to hunger? a. High levels equal less hunger while lower levels mean more hunger b. Mid-range levels mean the body is full while high levels mean hunger c. Lower levels equal less hunger while higher levels mean less hunger d. Mid-range levels mean the body is hungry while the high levels mean the body is full 114. Consider the laboratory studies in which participants were asked to choose the difficulty level of a task to work on. Which of the following most plausibly explains the choices made by participants who had high achievement motivation? a. They want to be challenged even if it means certain failure. b. They believe simple tasks are worth doing to gain momentum and motivation. c. They choose tasks that are challenging, but not so challenging that success is unlikely. d. They often take on hard tasks because it impresses others. 115. The reduction in sexual tension during the resolution phase of the human sexual response is generally relatively slow or more gradual a. for males. b. for females. c. for relatively inexperienced individuals. d. if the individual did not experience an orgasm. 116. Which area of psychology is most interested in the study of sexual behavior? a. Cognitive b. Evolutionary c. Behavioral d. Clinical

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Chapter 09_11e 117. The physiological changes that accompany emotion are caused by the a. autonomic nervous system. b. prefrontal cortex. c. medulla. d. central nervous system. 118. A person feels their palms sweating while driving to work, and then feels worry about arriving to work late. Later on, they feel their palms sweating in the same way while watching a movie. In this case, they are most likely to feel which of the following emotions? a. An opposite emotion, such as confidence b. A similar but more context-appropriate emotion, such as suspense c. The same emotion, worry d. A more neutral emotion, such as interest 119. Which sexual stage has a series of muscle contractions? a. Excitement b. Plateau c. Orgasm d. Resolution 120. A biological motive would be a. autonomy. b. achievement. c. sex. d. order. 121. Exposure to food cues causes a person to a. know what’s right or wrong to eat. b. become hungry and increase food consumption. c. be turned against the food and decrease food consumption. d. feel full without eating. 122. The period during which a man is unable to achieve arousal after a sexual act is called a. resolution period. b. refractory period. c. dormant period. d. isolation period. 123. One point of agreement between Schacter’s two-factor theory and the Cannon-Bard view is that a. emotion is inferred from arousal. b. people look to external rather than internal cues to label their specific emotions. c. different emotions yield indistinguishable patterns of arousal. d. people have a small set of innate, basic emotions. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09_11e 124. Suppose the local police department acquires a polygraph machine. If they wanted to use the device only for purposes that are strongly backed by psychological research, they could use it to a. establish a suspect’s guilt or innocence. b. come up with new ideas worthy of further investigation by other means. c. determine a person’s baseline (general) level of honesty. d. determine the accuracy of an eyewitness account. 125. Which physiological signals are measured by lie detectors? a. Heart rate and galvanic skin response only b. Heart rate and respiratory rate only c. Heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and galvanic skin response d. Galvanic skin response and blood pressure only 126. What two main situational factors influence achievement motivation? a. Probability of success and incentive value of success b. Probability of failure and incentive value of success c. Probability of success and probability of failure d. Probability of success and probability of acceptance 127. One study asked college students to predict what their overall level of happiness would be if a campus housing lottery assigned them to a desirable or an undesirable dormitory. Students’ responses showed that a. they were consciously uncertain of the effect it would have on their happiness. b. they believed it would have a dramatic effect on their happiness. c. they believed it would produce a real but short-lasting effect on their happiness. d. they believed it would not affect their happiness. 128. How doesis the presence of other people related to hunger? a. People prefer to eat alone and do not want to eat around others. b. People tend to eat less food in the presence of others. c. Two people eating together will unconsciously eat the same amount. d. One person will eat more food while the other person eats less food. 129. The statement, “We can ban cyberporn, or we can hasten the moral decay of modern society,” is an example of which of the following? a. A weak analogy b. A false dichotomy c. Circular reasoning d. Slippery slope

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Chapter 09_11e 130. After a body has gone without food for a while, it secretes what hormone? a. Ghrelin b. Estrogen c. Testosterone d. Serotonin 131. Vasocongestion, or engorgement of the blood vessels, produces what? a. Orgasm b. Ejaculation c. Resolution d. Erection 132. Leona is described as having little ambition and does not work hard enough. She is considered to have a. low achievement motivation. b. high achievement motivation. c. low self-esteem. d. high self-actualization. 133. Which psychological theory places the reason for homosexuality as a learned behavior? a. Cognitive b. Behavioral c. Motivational d. Social 134. Living in an environment where overeating, little exercise, too much TV, and desk jobs are the norm is referred to as a/an a. obesogenic environment. b. dystopian environment. c. open environment. d. closed environment. 135. Which of the following is related to display rules? a. Stefon, who feels sad but suppresses his tears because he is in public b. Mason, who is worried about not passing a final exam c. Jordan, whose palms are sweating during an interview for a new job d. Aya, who has an innate ability to recognize when other people feel happy by looking at their faces 136. The idea that all humans are equipped with a few basic emotions is consistent with the idea that emotions are a. cultural. b. hard to control. c. learned. d. innate.

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Chapter 09_11e 137. Sexual orientation is more fluid a. in men. b. in older adults. c. in women. d. in those in committed relationships. 138. A strong need to belong also produces a strong aversion to a. acceptance. b. sex. c. rejection. d. hunger. 139. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is often effective in reducing the unpleasant feelings caused by anxiety or depression by having patients cognitively reassess situations in their lives. Which theory of emotion would most likely incorrectly predict that such treatment would be ineffective ? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. Schachter’s Two-Factor theory d. Evolutionary theory 140. The incentive value of a task asks the question, a. “What’s in it for me?” b. “How will this help others?” c. “Will this make me more accepted?” d. “How hard is it?” 141. The fact that both biological and environmental factors have been shown to jointly govern eating behavior, sexual desire, and the experience of emotion is illustrative of which of the following unifying themes of your textbook? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behavior. d. Our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage. 142. The incentive value rises when a. a student takes an elective course. b. an office manager asks an employee for a favor. c. a student takes a required course. d. a student is given an extra credit assignment.

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Chapter 09_11e 143. The central claim of Schacter’s two-factor theory is that the experience of emotion depends on a. both autonomic arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal. b. the unique combination of autonomic nervous system activity elicited by a particular event. c. signals that are sent to both the cortex and the autonomic nervous system. d. signals that are sent and received by the peripheral nervous system. 144. When psychologists study certain motives, which ones have received the most research attention? a. Fear, anger, and anxiety b. Greed, sex, and hunger c. Achievement, anger, and anxiety d. Hunger, sex, and achievement 145. Goal-directed behavior is involved in a. motivation. b. memory. c. self-esteem. d. personality. 146. Which physiological measurement depends on changes in electrical conductivity caused by the activity of sweat glands? a. Peak flow meter b. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) c. Galvanic skin response (GSR) d. Electroencephalogram (EEG) 147. Mr. Knez is trying to get his seven-year-old daughter to eat some vegetable-fried rice for the first time. Mr. Knez should be MOST successful in getting his daughter to sample the new dish if he a. tells his daughter she won’t get any dessert until she tries some of the fried rice. b. eats some of the fried rice first and shows a favorable reaction while he eats it. c. carefully describes all the ingredients that are in the fried rice. d. mixes it in with some other food that she enjoys eating. 148. The fact that physiological arousal can occur without the experience of emotion is a major basis of which theory of emotion? a. Schachter’s Two-Factor theory b. Evolutionary theory c. James-Lange theory d. Cannon-Bard theory

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Chapter 09_11e 149. Obesity can contribute to many health issues such as diabetes, stroke, heart problems, and cancers. Another possible problem is the increased likelihood of a. Alzheimer’s disease. b. chronic fatigue syndrome. c. acne. d. ALS. 150. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion focuses on the a. psychological determinants of emotions. b. behavioral determinants of emotions. c. cognitive determinants of emotions. d. neural determinants of emotions. 151. Who is MOST likely to become obese due to the factor involved? a. Rico, because of his genetics b. Oakley, whose parents didn’t control the food he ate as a child c. Drew, whose school did not teach proper diet d. Kameo, who was comforted with food as a child 152. One major point of agreement between Schacter’s two-factor theory and the James-Lange view is that a. emotion is inferred from arousal. b. people have a small set of innate, basic emotions. c. different emotions yield indistinguishable patterns of arousal. d. people look to external rather than internal cues to label their specific emotions. 153. How is body temperature related to homeostasis? a. Both homeostasis and body temperature require external motivation. b. Both homeostasis and body temperature require social motivation. c. Homeostasis is an incentive motivator to control body temperature. d. Body temperature regulating itself through sweat and chills is homeostasis. 154. If twins were separated early but still have a similar BMI, it can be inferred that they have a. similar eating habits. b. a genetic predisposition. c. the same dietician. d. the same motivational reasoning. 155. Taste preferences partially come from a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. hormonal balances. d. nerve endings.

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Chapter 09_11e 156. Daiju is chatting with his father, who lives overseas, over an internet video call. Suppose the sound becomes muted because of technical problems. In terms of emotion, Daiju will most likely a. be unable to read his father’s emotions because he can’t hear the tone of his voice. b. be unable to read his father’s emotions because he doesn’t know what words are being spoken. c. be able to read his father’s emotions some of the time based mostly on facial expressions. d. be able to read his father’s emotions some of the time based mostly on body language. 157. Breana is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In her story, Breana focuses on the fact that the character is daydreaming about being promoted to a position of high status at work. Breana’s answer suggests that she MOST likely has a a. low need for achievement. b. high need for achievement. c. low need for competence. d. high need for affiliation. 158. Stomach rumbling was once thought to a. satiate hunger. b. encourage healthy eating. c. create hunger. d. wake the body. 159. Suzanne is ice skating when she loses her balance and begins to fall. Her heart rate goes up and the hair on her arms stands on end. What type of reaction is she experiencing? a. Environmental b. Behavioral c. Physiological d. Cognitive 160. Who were the groundbreaking researchers in the study of sexual arousal? a. Masters and Johnson b. Simon and Schuster c. Lane and Landon d. Bloom and Gardner 161. The main lesson to be taken from research on affective forecasting is that emotion can be surprisingly hard to a. regulate. b. predict. c. express. d. describe.

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Chapter 09_11e 162. Avery lost a lot of weight but she soon began to gain the weight back. What is happening to Avery? a. She’s eating more than before. b. She stopped exercising. c. Her energy expenditure slowed after the weight loss, making gaining it back easier. d. She began medications that caused the weight gain. 163. Of the following, which is the most accurately stated similarity between the James-Lange and evolutionary theories of emotion? a. Both emphasize the role of subcortical brain structures in emotion b. Both agree that emotions serve adaptive functions for survival c. Both believe that an emotion can be fully predicted by the pattern of physiological arousal associated with it d. Both believe that cognition is the most important element that determines the experience of emotion 164. Which of the following correctly explains why a polygraph test may incorrectly detect lying when a person is actually telling the truth? a. The person may experience emotional arousal when asked to respond to incriminating questions, even though they are being truthful. b. The person may become anxious due to the environment they are being questioned in. c. The person may have difficulty keeping their story straight due to hearing about the crime on the news. d. The person may display physiological activity that is so erratic it resembles that of a guilty person. 165. How is a buffet related to eating? a. People become overwhelmed at buffets and tend to eat less. b. People eat more at buffets because there is a greater variety of food available. c. Buffets are known to be less clean than other restaurants, so less food is consumed. d. Only people that are obese overeat at buffets. 166. Researchers theorize that the most likely adaptive value of fear is to help an organism a. avoid danger. b. learn from mistakes. c. find sources of food. d. make friends. 167. Compared to low scorers, people who score high in the need for achievement a. devote more time to interpersonal activities. b. worry more about acceptance from others. c. tend to work harder and more persistently. d. tend to seek immediate gratification.

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Chapter 09_11e 168. How are hormones significant to hunger regulation? a. They keep the brain from regulating food intake. b. The hormones send messages to the brain to tell the brain that the body is either hungry or full. c. Hormones only tell the brain the stomach is full. d. Hormones only tell the brain the stomach is empty. 169. Suppose a person goes skydiving for the first time and feels anxiety as a result. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, the reason they feel anxiety in this situation is because a. they believe that skydiving is an anxiety-provoking situation. b. they have been conditioned to feel anxiety by previous descriptions of the idea of skydiving. c. skydiving causes both a particular pattern of physiological arousal and the feeling of anxiety. d. the particular pattern of arousal caused by skydiving causes anxiety. 170. Charles’ BMI was 34. He lost weight and lowered his BMI to 27. Under regular health standards, Charles is now considered a. underweight. b. obese. c. normal. d. overweight. 171. The three components of emotion recognized by researchers are a. affective, logical, and emotive. b. cognitive, physiological, and behavioral. c. social, solitary, and introspective. d. mental, physical, and situational. 172. Miranda was born blind yet she displays the same facial expressions as sighted people. The most likely reason that Miranda does this is because a. she was born with an innate set of facial expressions. b. she had therapy to strengthen her facial muscles. c. she used the sense of touch to learn how other people reacted to emotion. d. her parents taught her common facial expressions by manually guiding muscles in her face. 173. The device that records autonomic fluctuations while a subject is questioned is known as the a. electroencephalogram (EEG). b. peak flow meter. c. galvanic skin response (GSR). d. polygraph.

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Chapter 09_11e 174. Which of the following pairs of individuals would likely be MOST similar in body mass index? a. A husband and wife. b. An adopted child and the adopted parent. c. Two siblings. d. Two identical twins reared apart. 175. Which of the following statements regarding the need for achievement is the MOST accurate? a. The need for achievement is highly variable in a given person throughout his or her lifetime. b. Achievement motive is primarily determined by situational factors. c. The need for achievement is a fairly stable aspect of one’s personality. d. There is a strong genetic component in the need for achievement. 176. Suppose you take a drug that suppresses nervous system activity. Then you encounter a snake, which would usually be fear-inducing for you. According to the James-Lange theory, what emotion would you most likely feel in this situation? a. The same fear (and of the same intensity) as you usually would b. Fear at a lower intensity than you usually would c. A more powerful negative emotion, such as terror d. A more neutral emotion, such as surprise 177. Of the following, people tend to be reasonably accurate in anticipating whether events will generate emotions that are a. long- or short-lasting. b. mild or intense. c. positive or negative. d. ambiguous or clear. 178. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) has often been used to test the level of a person’s a. need to be accepted. b. need for solitude. c. need for achievement. d. need for danger. 179. What is the equation for calculating body mass index? a. Weight (pounds) divided by height (inches) squared b. Weight (kilograms) divided by height (meters) squared c. Weight (pounds) divided by height (inches) d. Weight (kilograms) divided by height (meters)

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Chapter 09_11e 180. Which of the following predictions is most strongly implied by parental investment theory? a. Women will prefer to have many romantic or sexual partners rather than a few. b. Women, more so than men, will seek partners willing to invest material resources in their offspring. c. Rarely will either men or women consider themselves either fully heterosexual or fully homosexual. d. Men will prefer their sexual activity to be in the context of committed relationships. 181. Which of the following is a measure of weight that controls for variations in height and is widely used in research on obesity? a. Set point b. Reaction range c. Body mass index d. Obesity quotient 182. According to Schacter’s two-factor theory of emotion, which of the following strategies would work best to make a date feel as excited about you as possible? a. Take them on a rollercoaster or another exciting activity that arouses the autonomic nervous system. b. Behave in a way that fits your idea of being a good date, so any arousal they feel will be perceived consistently with that interpretation. c. Take them to an outdoor activity, such as birdwatching, that was likely an emotionally positive experience for our evolutionary ancestors. d. Take them to see a movie that involves as many of the basic emotions, such as joy and anger, as possible. 183. Suppose a researcher wants to create a survey to assess achievement motivation. If the survey will consist of statements that require “true or false” responses, which of the following statements would be best to include? a. “I tend to get along with people and make new friends easily.” b. “Most evenings, I kick back and relax rather than prepare for the next day's tasks.” c. “I try to avoid conflict as much as possible.” d. “I enjoy spending much of my time alone.” 184. TAT is what type of test? a. Open book b. Multiple choice c. Projective d. Aptitude 185. An important characteristic of projective tests used to measure achievement motivation is that they require responses to a. upsetting stimuli. b. vague, ambiguous stimuli. c. visual stimuli. d. realistic stimuli.

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Chapter 09_11e 186. People who are motivated to succeed a. seek low risk activities. b. seek high risk activities that they are not assured of winning. c. seek moderate activities where they’re assured they can succeed. d. seek high risk, but low incentive, activities. 187. Which of the following areas of the hypothalamus have recently been singled out as especially important in the regulation of hunger? a. Ventromedial area b. Lateral area c. Arcuate nucleus d. Insular nucleus 188. When one analyzes those who have high achievement motivation, they are likely to find a. people with high achievement motivation usually seek moderate risk. b. people with high achievement motivation usually seek high risk. c. people with high achievement motivation usually seek low risk. d. people with high achievement motivation usually lean toward extreme sports. 189. Everyday logic suggests that when you stumble onto a rattlesnake in the woods, the conscious experience of fear leads to autonomic arousal. Which major theory of emotion suggests the opposite- that your arousal leads to fear? a. Evolutionary theory b. Schachter’s Two-Factor theory c. Cannon-Bard theory d. James-Lange theory 190. Valencia believes “you can’t control your emotions, they’re just something your body does.” Which theory is she most likely to agree with ? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. Schachter’s Two-Factor theory d. Evolutionary theory 191. Zoe has been struggling in her chemistry course and is concerned that she might fail. Her predictions about how distressed she will be if she fails are likely to a. exaggerate how badly she will feel. b. accurately reflect her later feelings. c. vary greatly from day to day. d. underestimate how distressed she will actually be.

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Chapter 09_11e 192. Situational determinants that most promote achievement strivings are a. a high probability of success and a low incentive value. b. a high probability of both success and incentive value. c. a low probability of both success and incentive value. d. a low probability of success and a high incentive value. 193. A person with a high need for achievement will be MOST satisfied with a task that has a a. a high probability of success in a moderately difficult task. b. an easy level of difficulty no matter the probability of success. c. a high probability of success in an easy task. d. a low probability of success in a hard task. 194. Which explanation of the causes of sexual orientation has the most empirical evidence? a. Biological b. Behavioral c. Psychoanalytic d. Cognitive 195. Of the following, you would predict the largest errors in affective forecasting for people who are asked about a. moving to a foreign country for work. b. getting married. c. suffering a broken bone. d. winning the lottery. 196. When someone feels hungry what theory does it invoke? a. Drive b. Affiliation c. Achievement d. Sexual 197. Which of the following statements BEST describes the view of psychoanalytic theorists when it comes to explaining the origin of homosexuality? a. In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens. b. There are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men. c. Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal. d. Homosexuality results when a boy is raised by a weak, detached, ineffectual father and an overprotective, overly attached mother.

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Chapter 09_11e 198. What are display rules? a. Innate tendencies towards particular facial expressions when feeling certain emotions b. Rules of thumb for how changes in body language signal various emotions c. Anatomical constraints that limit the range of emotions people can outwardly display d. Norms that regulate the socially appropriate expression of emotions 199. As BMI rises, the risk of health problems a. stays the same. b. goes down. c. rises. d. disappears. 200. Which set of structures has long been considered the seat of emotion in the brain? a. The limbic system b. The ventricular system c. The hippocampal region d. The sensory cortices

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Chapter 09_11e Answer Key 1. c 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. c 9. d 10. c 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. d 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. b 26. d

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Chapter 09_11e 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. c 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. d 45. c 46. d 47. b 48. b 49. d 50. c 51. c 52. c 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09_11e 55. d 56. d 57. d 58. d 59. a 60. d 61. a 62. c 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. a 71. d 72. a 73. a 74. c 75. c 76. a 77. b 78. d 79. d 80. d 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09_11e 83. a 84. d 85. d 86. c 87. a 88. d 89. c 90. a 91. c 92. d 93. b 94. b 95. b 96. b 97. b 98. b 99. d 100. d 101. d 102. c 103. c 104. c 105. a 106. b 107. d 108. a 109. b 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09_11e 111. c 112. a 113. a 114. c 115. d 116. b 117. a 118. b 119. c 120. c 121. b 122. b 123. c 124. b 125. c 126. a 127. b 128. c 129. b 130. a 131. d 132. a 133. b 134. a 135. a 136. d 137. c

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Chapter 09_11e 138. c 139. a 140. a 141. c 142. c 143. a 144. d 145. a 146. c 147. b 148. d 149. a 150. d 151. a 152. a 153. d 154. b 155. a 156. c 157. b 158. c 159. c 160. a 161. b 162. c 163. c 164. a 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09_11e 166. a 167. c 168. b 169. c 170. d 171. b 172. a 173. d 174. d 175. c 176. b 177. c 178. c 179. b 180. b 181. c 182. a 183. b 184. c 185. b 186. c 187. c 188. a 189. d 190. a 191. a 192. b 193. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09_11e 194. a 195. d 196. a 197. d 198. d 199. c 200. a

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Chapter 10_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. At roughly what age are children in Erikson’s psychosocial stage of initiative versus guilt? a. Birth to 6 months b. Birth to 1 year c. 1 to 3 years d. 3 to 6 years 2. The most common conflicts between adolescents and their parents tend to be focused around a. sexual activity. b. drugs use. c. routine chores and/or school work. d. religion and/or politics. 3. What does theorist Jonathan Haidt call the immediate, automatic emotional reactions that people have when making moral judgments? a. Moral intuitions b. Moral coherence c. Moral fiber d. Moral decay 4. What pattern of cellular brain development takes place during adolescence? a. The volume of white matter increases, while the volume of gray matter declines. b. Both gray matter and white matter double in volume, compared to their typical volumes at age 8. c. The volume of gray matter increases, while the volume of white matter declines. d. Neurons in the prefrontal cortex proliferate at a rapid rate. 5. Emerging adulthood has been identified as a transitional period between adolescence and adulthood. What features characterize this developmental period? a. A desire to leave the family home, spurred by early commitment to a long-term relationship. b. A sense of pessimism, fueled by a distrust of one’s peers. c. A sense of possibilities, coupled with identity struggles. d. A clear sense of direction in life, paired with a motivation to work hard. 6. Maurice, an infant monkey in Harry Harlow’s attachment laboratory, has been frightened by the unexpected appearance of a chattering wind-up toy. Where will Maurice scamper to in response? a. A wire “substitute mother” that provides food b. A wire “substitute mother” that does not provide food c. A neutral cage with no “substitute mother” d. A cloth “substitute mother”

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Chapter 10_11e 7. What did Harry Harlow’s experiments with infant monkeys demonstrate regarding the behaviorist interpretation of attachment? a. Harlow demonstrated that monkeys fail to show evidence of attachment to their mothers. b. Harlow’s results confirmed that a mother’s ability to provide food was the primary reinforcing basis for attachment. c. Harlow’s results showed that basic principles of reinforcement could not offer a satisfactory explanation of attachment. d. Harlow showed that monkeys follow a reinforcement pattern of attachment, but human infants do not. 8. Eero wants to take a cookie from the cookie jar, but reasons that if he does, his mother is likely to disapprove of his actions and be disappointed. His fear of disapproval guides his moral decision making. Which stage of moral development characterizes Eero’s reasoning? a. Stage 6 b. Stage 5 c. Stage 4 d. Stage 3 9. Why did Piaget call his first stage of cognitive development “sensorimotor?” a. Children’s senses are most sensitive immediately after birth. b. Children need to be carried by a caregiver throughout this developmental period. c. Children acquire a sense of identity during this period, leading to feelings of greater autonomy. d. Children are developing the ability to coordinate their sensory input with motor actions. 10. Which of the following is associated with increased risk of heart defects, hyperactivity, delayed motor development, and impaired cognitive development? a. Prenatal exposure to air pollution b. Prenatal smoking c. A lack of environmental stimulation d. Fetal alcohol syndrome 11. Sixteen-year-old Kim Sung is generally apathetic and lacking in any kind of coherent ideology about life, values, or the future. Which of James Marcia’s identity statuses would you apply to Kim Sung? a. Identity achievement b. Identity foreclosure c. Identity diffusion d. Identity moratorium 12. Which symptom is likely to accompany the experience of menopause? a. Anxiety about the future b. Sore feet c. Night sweats d. Increased sex drive

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Chapter 10_11e 13. A developmental anthropologist observed the parenting practices of the Kipsigis people of Kenya. “To encourage an infant’s motor development to sit, stand, and walk,” she wrote in her field notes, “the Kipsigis tend to a. shame the infant through comparisons with more developmentally advanced children.” b. actively train the infant in these motor tasks.” c. model the desired behaviors through exposure to adults.” d. wait silently and patiently for these developmental milestones to naturally be reached.” 14. An increase in rates of father absence over the years has coincided with an increase in teenage pregnancy and drug use. However, conclusions are limited due to a. correlational data. b. false dichotomies. c. slippery slopes. d. experimentation. 15. Jean Piaget advanced a stage theory of cognitive development. How did he conceive of a child’s progression through these stages? a. Normative ages for each stage are invariable; children must reach a certain age before being capable of entering a particular stage. b. Some children may never progress through any of the stages during childhood and instead, progress through all of them in adolescence. c. Children differ; the timing of their progression through stages can be approximated, but transitions and ages can vary from one child to another. d. Stages are approximations for cognitive events; some children might jump quickly from an earlier stage to a later one. 16. In modern Western society, what strategy is commonly used for dealing with the inevitability of death? a. Positivity b. Discussion c. Avoidance d. Acceptance 17. How does the process of motor development take place during the first few years? a. Infants must be taught basic motor skills, such as reaching, grasping, or crawling. b. Infants passively accumulate motor skills as brain maturation increases. c. Infants need an adult model to display proper motor responses in order to acquire such responses themselves. d. Infants are active agents engaged in ongoing investigation of their worlds.

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Chapter 10_11e 18. Alex experienced spermarche a few nights ago. If he is typical of most American boys, how old would you guess Alex is? a. 10 to 12 years old b. 13 to 14 years old c. 15 to 16 years old d. 16 to 18 years old 19. In the context of human development, maturation refers to a. development that reflects the gradual unfolding of a person’s genetic blueprint. b. the ability to delay gratification and accept setbacks in one’s life. c. the influence of environmental experiences in shaping a person’s abilities. d. the degree to which learning affects the development of motor skills. 20. Sara showed clear symptoms of forgetting newly learned information shortly after she acquired it. Her physician made a preliminary diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease. Which area of Sara’s brain would you predict might show structural deterioration? a. Pons b. Medulla c. Hippocampus d. Occipital lobe 21. Most children begin to utter sounds that correspond to words (such as mama or papa) around the age of a. 10-13 months. b. 8-10 months. c. 6-8 months. d. 4-6 months. 22. How many stages of moral development did Lawrence Kohlberg propose in his theory of moral reasoning? a. Three b. Five c. Six d. Ten 23. Due to drug use in the United States, about how many babies will be born each year addicted to narcotics? a. More than 21,000 b. More than 50,000 c. More than 100,000 d. More than 250,000

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Chapter 10_11e 24. What is the major force driving attachment, according to John Bowlby’s theory? a. Trial and error b. Social pressures for conformity c. Evolution and adaptive responses d. Learning and reinforcement 25. How do children who have reached the conventional level of moral reasoning view laws and rules? a. Laws and rules are enforced by external agents who have the capacity to mete out reward or punishment. b. Laws are constructed for the benefit of all, and violating those contracts contributes to the decay of society. c. Rules are internalized in these children in an effort to win approval from others for correct moral actions. d. Rules and laws are flexible and should not be accepted blindly; sometimes breaking the law is the most moral action. 26. Two-year-old Reiko has learned the word “dog” to describe her favorite toy. Based on the principle of overextension, what word will Reiko use to describe a cow? a. “Cow” b. ”Dog” c. ”Cat” d. ”Animal” 27. What has recent research evidence revealed about the time course for attaining identity achievement? a. It is virtually never attained by anyone b. It takes place at later ages than originally proposed c. It is usually complete by age 15 d. It isn’t fully achieved until age 35 28. Which bereavement pattern is characterized by low pre-loss depression followed by sustained depression after the death of a loved one? a. Common grief b. Chronic depression c. Chronic grief d. Absent grief 29. Which of the following BEST summarizes development during the first few years of life? a. Development takes place along a continuously cumulative path. b. Development proceeds through a series of gains and losses. c. Development occurs in sustained periods of no growth accentuated by bursts of growth. d. Development is based on consistent training to master basic motor skills such as grasping or walking.

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Chapter 10_11e 30. Bruno wants to take a cookie from the cookie jar, but reasons that if everyone always did what they wanted whenever they wanted, injustice would result and society would collapse. His acknowledgement of the central role of equity and justice in the human condition guides his moral decision making. What stage of moral development characterizes Bruno’s reasoning? a. Stage 2 b. Stage 4 c. Stage 6 d. Stage 1 31. The principle of object permanence refers to a. the awareness that objects continue to exist even when they are no longer visible. b. the reality of the world around us, despite wishing circumstances were different. c. the awareness that physical quantities remain constant despite changes in their appearance. d. the belief that currently living beings will continue living forever. 32. Investigations of complex, real-world issues, such as the effects of day care, illustrate which of the following unifying themes from your text? a. Our experiences of the world are highly subjective. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 33. You are having a discussion on attachment behavior, and your friend says that she believes that mothers are biologically programmed to respond to babies' coos, smiling, and clinging with warmth and love. Which of the following theorists is MOST likely to agree with your friend’s views? a. Harry Harlow b. B. F. Skinner c. John Bowlby d. Jay Belsky 34. Which line of evidence indicates that the prefrontal cortex is immature during adolescence? a. Enhanced decision-making skills appear early during adolescence b. Adolescents engage in risky behaviors like reckless driving and unprotected sex. c. Adolescents engage in post conventional moral thinking. d. The prefrontal cortex’s composition of 100 percent gray matter 35. Which “protective” factor is associated with diminished vulnerability to Alzheimer’s disease? a. Optimism b. Recommended daily water intake c. Regular exercise d. Meditation

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Chapter 10_11e 36. About how long is the developing human by the conclusion of the embryonic stage? a. Less than an inch b. 1 inch c. 3 inches d. 6 inches 37. The occurrence of puberty in current times differs from the occurrence of puberty in earlier generations. What is the nature of this difference? a. Currently, adolescents begin puberty at an older age, but complete it more rapidly. b. Currently, adolescents begin puberty at a younger age, and complete it more slowly. c. Currently, adolescents begin puberty at a younger age, and complete it more rapidly. d. Currently, adolescents begin puberty at an older age, and complete it more slowly. 38. Bernardo is given five pencils, five crayons, and eight buttons. If he understands hierarchical classification, what will Bernardo say he has the most of? a. Pencils b. Buttons c. Writing instruments d. Crayons 39. How is the inevitability of death treated in Mexican culture? a. By seeking advice from priests and therapists b. Through frequent discussion and celebration c. By solitary reflection and social isolation d. Through avoidance and euphemisms 40. Why does egocentrism take place? a. A child has mastered the concept of conservation. b. A child has a limited ability to share another person’s viewpoint. c. A child is unable to perform irreversibility tasks. d. A child has not grasped the concept of object permanence. 41. Laurel has continued taking recreational drugs throughout her pregnancy, reasoning that “not all drugs are alike.” What advice would you give her regarding which recreational drug is likely to have a particularly dangerous impact on her developing fetus? a. ”Stay away from penicillin.” b. “LSD is okay to use.” c. ”Acetaminophen is recommended by physicians.” d. ”Methamphetamine use will produce serious consequences.”

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Chapter 10_11e 42. What is the difference between primary sex characteristics and secondary sex characteristics? a. Secondary sex characteristics are necessary for reproduction. b. Primary sex characteristics are seen only in biological females. c. Secondary sex characteristics are seen only in biological males. d. Primary sex characteristics are necessary for reproduction. 43. Gerta is interested in ensuring her developing child doesn’t later develop severe mental illnesses. What should she do? a. Make sure she eats a balanced diet and avoids alcohol. b. Reduce her calorie intake to lower than the daily average requirement throughout her pregnancy. c. Consider using homeopathic medicine that is rumored to improve the mental functioning of her developing child. d. Push herself to adhere to an intense exercise regimen and severe caloric reduction. 44. What did Erik Erikson consider to be a successful outcome during the psychosocial stage of intimacy versus isolation? a. Finding meaning and satisfaction in one’s life b. Developing feelings of competence and self-worth c. Sharing intimacy with others and developing a sense of empathy d. Being able to accomplish tasks by oneself 45. Emily has AIDS, but she isn’t concerned about transmitting it to her child. “I was worried while I was pregnant, but now that D’Andre is born, he’s safe.” Her physician correctly tells her, a. “You are correct; AIDS can only be transmitted from mother to child through the placenta.” b. “Not so fast; AIDS can be transmitted through casual skin-to-skin contact.” c. “You are correct; AIDS transmission occurs during delivery of a child, but that didn’t happen in your case.” d. “You still need to be very careful; AIDS can be transmitted through breastfeeding.” 46. What was John Bowlby’s starting point for his theory of attachment? a. There must be a biological basis for attachment. b. Attachment is a social construction with no empirical basis. c. Attachment disappears after the first year of life. d. Attachment is a learned response governed by reinforcement. 47. What does dementia refer to? a. Anterograde amnesia b. Abnormal personality patterns c. Multiple cognitive deficits d. Identity confusion

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Chapter 10_11e 48. When does separation anxiety typically peak, before then declining? a. 14-18 months b. 12-14 months c. 10-12 months d. 8-10 months 49. Norma is an optimistic person who generally experiences positive emotions. A lifelong nonsmoker, Norma visits her physician three times a year, watches what she eats, and exercises regularly. What developmental classification would you apply to Norma, based on her patterns of behavior and her dispositions? a. Norma is a chronic ager. b. Norma is a successful ager. c. Norma is a typical ager. d. Norma is a serene ager. 50. Preschoolers generally do not recognize that if 8 – 5 = 3, then 3 + 5 = 8. This is because their thinking is characterized by a. irreversibility. b. animism. c. egocentrism. d. centration. 51. Since the 1960s, married men’s housework contributions have a. declined marginally. b. increased noticeably. c. remained fairly constant. d. declined substantially. 52. Across a variety of cultures language development tends to unfold at roughly the same pace for most children, with some variations due to learning and training. What conclusion can be reached from this observation? a. Cultural experiences play a major role in shaping the timing and formation of language development. b. Language development is the result of a biological process and will occur without environmental influences. c. Language development is determined by biological maturation, with environmental experiences playing an important role. d. Parental attention and training determine the pace at which language development takes place. 53. When does separation anxiety first appear in infants? a. 2-3 months b. 3-4 months c. 6-8 months d. 12-14 months

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Chapter 10_11e 54. What condition accounts for more than half of all cases of dementia? a. Huntington’s disease b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Parkinson’s disease d. AIDS 55. Recent research has demonstrated that identity confusion is associated with an increased risk for a. unrealistically high self-esteem. b. suicide. c. dropping out of high school. d. unprotected sexual activity. 56. Centration refers to a. the tendency to focus on just one feature of a problem, neglecting other important aspects. b. the inability to share another person’s viewpoint. c. the realization that objects removed from sight still exist. d. failing to grasp that matter is conserved despite changes to its appearance. 57. Why can maternal illness be harmful to a developing fetus? a. The placenta screens out many infectious agents, but not all. b. Most mothers self-medicate with recreational drugs to treat their physical illnesses. c. Maternal illness always leads to poor prenatal care habits. d. The presence of maternal illness is strongly associated with poor nutrition. 58. Three-year-old Nunzio is demonstrating overregularization in his vocabulary. Which sentence is he likely to use when describing his time at day care? a. “Ran fast.” b. “I ran quickly.” c. “I ran very fast and well.” d. “I runned fast.” 59. What demonstrable evidence can account for the discrepancy of opinions as to whether age-related declines in memory are substantial and pervasive, versus moderate and selective? a. Bias toward the elderly b. The type of memory that is assessed c. The age of the researchers d. The reputation of the theorists

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Chapter 10_11e 60. With his emphasis on the importance of children’s interactions with parents, teachers, and older children, Lev Vygotsky constructed a a. cognitive-gains theory of development. b. sociocultural theory of development. c. genetic theory of development. d. psychosocial crisis theory of development. 61. What effect does mild hearing loss have on an aging individual? a. Self-esteem drops dramatically b. Cognitive processing becomes more efficient c. Speech perception can become more difficult d. Reliance on children increases substantially 62. According to developmental psychologist Jeffrey Arnett, the period between the ages of roughly 18 and 25 should be classified as a. adulthood. b. adolescence. c. extended hiatus. d. emerging adulthood. 63. “That train whistle is angry!” shouted 4-year-old Barabbas. Before correcting him, what should his mother understand? a. Barabbas is thinking abstractly. b. Barabbas is not yet capable of overcoming animism. c. Barabbas is showing symbolic reasoning. d. Barabbas has not yet mastered object permanence. 64. Which identity status involves a premature commitment to a set of values, fueled by conformity and a reluctance to experience new events? a. Identity foreclosure b. Identity achievement c. Identity moratorium d. Identity diffusion 65. The first stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development is a. autonomy versus shame and doubt. b. industry versus inferiority. c. trust versus mistrust. d. intimacy versus isolation.

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Chapter 10_11e 66. Ingrid’s physician has told her that her health was beyond medical treatment, and her chances of dying within the next 12 months were 90 percent. “I’m sorry,” Ingrid replied, “that’s not right. Please run the tests again while I get a third opinion. I’m not sure why you’re lying to me.” What stage of dealing with dying is Ingrid in? a. Bargaining b. Depression c. Acceptance d. Denial 67. Marcy is 85 years old, and still volunteers twice a week at the information desk of the local hospital. By all accounts, she is physically spry and mentally alert. When asked the secret of her success, Marcy cheerfully replied, “That’s simple a. live and let live!” b. live for tomorrow!” c. do your own thing!” d. use it or lose it!” 68. Gilberto, is shown the conservation-of-water problem in science class. Gilberto shows evidence of decentration, so how will he likely approach solving this problem? a. By first considering the width of the beakers and then the height of the beakers b. By comparing the height and width simultaneously c. By focusing on a single dimension, such as the width of the beakers d. By considering the abstract principles underlying the concept of conservation 69. A consensus is building that Kohlberg's theory led to a constricted focus on a. the development of prosocial behavior. b. the significance of moral emotions. c. the emergence of conscience. d. interpersonal conflicts. 70. What tends to happen to the amount of brain tissue as people age, especially after the age of 60? a. “Dead” neurons become reactivated b. The amount of brain tissue increases c. The amount of brain tissue declines d. Neural connections begin to proliferate 71. As a person ages, the personality characteristic of conscientiousness tends to a. change from high to low or low to high. b. decline. c. remain the same. d. increase.

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Chapter 10_11e 72. Which stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial model of development takes place during adolescence? a. Initiative versus guilt b. Identity versus confusion c. Autonomy versus shame and doubt d. Generativity versus self-absorption 73. Children often associate a word with a concept after only one exposure. This process is called a. link analysis. b. over regularization. c. fast mapping. d. under extension. 74. Eighty-year-old Florian was given a problem-solving task, and his responses were compared to those of 40year-old Ralf. Both people arrived at the correct answer, but what likely distinguished their responses? a. Ralf took more time to reach the solution. b. Ralf made more errors during the task. c. Florian took more time to reach the solution. d. Florian made more errors during the task. 75. The major development during Piaget’s sensorimotor stage is a. attaining egocentrism. b. the ability to think abstractly. c. the gradual appearance of symbolic thought. d. an understanding of conservation. 76. Piaget’s sensorimotor period occurs between a. ages 2 to 7. b. ages 1 to 10. c. ages 7 to 11. d. birth and age 2. 77. What visual effect becomes more common as people age? a. Nearsightedness b. Blindness c. Greater acuity d. Farsightedness 78. Why is proper maternal nutrition important for a developing fetus? a. The fetus needs a variety of essential nutrients. b. The fetus’s waste products are not removed during the last month of pregnancy. c. The parental bond between mother and child forms during the fetal period. d. The placenta becomes less efficient at delivering nutrients over time.

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Chapter 10_11e 79. What is the central feature of Piaget’s concrete operational stage of cognitive development? a. Children can perform operations only on tangible objects. b. Children show evidence of abstract thinking. c. Children fail to grasp the concepts of centration and reversibility. d. Children show increasing egocentrism. 80. Once children discover that their gender is permanent, they are likely to want to engage in behavior that is “sex appropriate” as defined by their culture. This process is referred to as a. operant conditioning. b. observational learning. c. self-socialization. d. classical conditioning. 81. Currently, what percentage of couples live together before marriage? a. 10 percent b. 37 percent c. 52 percent d. 66 percent 82. What life events usually co-occur with Erikson’s psychosocial stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt? a. Greater social functioning within the family unit b. Toilet-training and regulation of behavior c. Helplessness and complete dependence on parents d. Entering puberty and expanding social roles 83. What is the central feature of Piaget’s formal operational stage of cognitive development? a. Mastery of conservation b. Egocentrism c. Decentration d. Abstract reasoning 84. Which attachment style is characterized by high degrees of distress and agitation under a variety of circumstances? a. Secure b. Avoidant c. Remote d. Anxious-ambivalent 85. What is Piaget’s final stage of cognitive development? a. Sensorimotor stage b. Formal operational stage c. Concrete operational stage d. Preoperational stage Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10_11e 86. Around 18 months, toddlers realize that everything has a name. How does this affect language development? a. Vocabulary slows, as children carefully associate the meaning of each word with each object. b. A vocabulary spurt takes place, leading to rapid expansion of the child’s vocabulary. c. Vocabulary continues at a steady pace, although word-name associations will appear months later. d. Productive vocabulary drops, as the child enters a period of reflection and consolidation. 87. Cross-cultural data on attachment patterns illustrates that secure attachment is the most common form of attachment in most cultures. However, this is not always the case. Which of the following MOST likely explains when secure attachment is NOT the most common form of attachment? a. The country is underdeveloped. b. The country is engaged in a prolonged war. c. The country has economic circumstances that are extremely favorable for parents. d. The country has economic circumstances that are are extremely poor for parents. 88. What do studies of couples with children indicate about the distribution of housework/child care across wives and husbands? a. Wives do about twice as much of this work as their husbands. b. Wives and husbands share these chores equally. c. Husbands do about 80% as much of this work as their wives. d. Wives do about four times as much of this work as their husbands. 89. One-year-old Waldo is in Erikson’s trust versus mistrust stage of psychosocial development, and he’s having a difficult time resolving the central crisis of that stage. What outcome is likely to result for Waldo? a. A sense of personal shame and doubt b. Feelings of guilt c. A sense of incompetence d. Development of an insecure personality 90. Which cognitive shortcoming is a feature of egocentrism? a. Object permanence b. Centration c. Conservation d. Animism 91. After achieving formal operations, how do children’s thought processes change? a. Children think more abstractly and hypothetically in nature. b. Thinking is more concrete in terms of problems and situations to solve them. c. Children understand the nature of hierarchical classifications. d. Cognitive development basically stops.

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Chapter 10_11e 92. Lupita is worried that her developing baby will be delivered early and not survive the birth. Although concerned, her physician has assured Lupita that the fetus has passed the threshold of viability. How far along must Lupita be in her pregnancy to warrant this estimation? a. 26 weeks b. 20 weeks c. 15 weeks d. 10 weeks 93. What is the central crisis of Erikson’s psychosocial stage of initiative versus guilt? a. Acquiring a sense of self-sufficiency b. Functioning socially within a family unit c. Examining the meaning and value of one’s life d. Developing attachment to a primary caregiver 94. Connie experienced menarche recently. If she is typical of most American girls, how old would you guess Connie is? a. 8 to 9 years old b. 10 to 11 years old c. 12 to 13 years old d. 14 to 15 years old 95. Sixty-year-old Milton was asked how old he felt, rather than how old he is. If Milton thinks like most older people, how would you predict he is likely to respond? a. “I feel like a 10-year-old.” b. “I feel like a 40-year-old.” c. “I feel like a 60-year-old.” d. “I feel like an 80-year-old.” 96. What is the function of the placenta? a. It is the initial mass of cells that eventually develops into a fetus. b. It ensures that fetal and maternal blood intermingle, thereby providing antibodies to the developing fetus. c. It allows oxygen and nutrients to pass from the mother to the fetus, and bodily wastes to pass from the fetus to the mother. d. It causes cell division to take place in the developing embryo. 97. On average, how old would a child need to be to have progressed through Piaget’s preoperational stage of cognitive development? a. 9 years old b. 6 years old c. 4 years old d. 2 years old

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Chapter 10_11e 98. Menopause refers to the a. loss of fertility in women. b. absence of sexual desire in men. c. loss of fertility in men. d. absence of sexual desire in women. 99. What was the primary goal of Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development? a. To explain the outcomes of moral behavior rather than the process of moral reasoning b. To conceptualize moral abstractions rather than catalog concrete examples c. To understand the process of moral reasoning rather than documenting moral behavior d. To focus on moral understanding rather than promoting moral engagement 100. What is the second stage of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development? a. Formal operational period b. Concrete operational period c. Sensorimotor period d. Preoperational period 101. Which of the following observations is a problem for Kohlberg’s theory of moral development? a. Both moral reasoning and emotional reactions to moral transgressions are included in the theory. b. People at a particular point of development can show signs of several adjacent levels of moral reasoning. c. People advance through the stages of moral reasoning in a stepwise, progressive fashion. d. The theory applies to a broad range of cultural contexts. 102. Piaget’s concrete operational stage of cognitive development typically occurs between the ages of a. 3 to 5 years. b. 5 to 7 years. c. 7 to 11 years. d. 15 to 18 years. 103. How many levels of moral development did Lawrence Kohlberg propose in his theory of moral reasoning? a. Eight b. Seven c. Five d. Three 104. Five-month-old Fiona is shown one apple that is then placed behind a screen. She is shown another apple, which also disappears behind the screen. Based on contemporary research findings, what will Fiona anticipate seeing when the screen is removed? a. No apples b. The first apple c. The second apple d. Two apples Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10_11e 105. Irreversibility refers to a. the belief that all things are living. b. the ability to think abstractly. c. the disappearance of object permanence. d. the inability to envision reversing an action. 106. What behaviors characterize a secure attachment pattern? a. Infants are upset when a caregiver leaves and comforted by the caregiver’s return. b. Infants are anxious when a caregiver is near and protest excessively when the caregiver leaves. c. Infants are not comforted when a caregiver returns after an absence. d. Infants seek little contact with a caregiver and are not distressed when the caregiver leaves. 107. Developmental norms should always be interpreted as averages a. that identify a specific child’s developmental course. b. with no developmental variation. c. within a range of normal variation. d. that are strictly adhered to by developmental professionals. 108. Abdul has progressed to Stage 6 of Kohlberg’s levels of moral reasoning. Based on the progression through stages proposed by Kohlberg, what would you guess is Abdul’s age? a. 4 to 5 years old b. 7 to 8 years old c. 9 to 10 years old d. An adolescent 109. Tehani’s baby suffered from prenatal malnutrition. Despite a successful birth, Tehani is nonetheless worried that physical or mental illness might be a problem for her child in the future. What advice would you share with her regarding possible late adolescent outcomes? a. Anxiety disorders are highly correlated with prenatal malnutrition. b. Heart disease results from prenatal malnutrition. c. Prenatal malnutrition causes life-long low blood pressure. d. Prenatal malnutrition has been linked to vulnerability to schizophrenia. 110. A review of decades of research on parenthood and marital satisfaction revealed that a. mothers of infants reported the steepest decline in martial satisfaction. b. fathers of teenagers reported the steepest decline in marital satisfaction. c. parents were happiest in the first year after the birth of a child. d. mothers reported the least marital satisfaction after grown children had left the family home.

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Chapter 10_11e 111. Ivan and his twin sister, Tasha, turned 11 a few months ago. Both Ivan and Tasha have begun to go through the early signs of puberty. In this case, it is MOST likely that a. compared to Tasha, Ivan is at greater risk for using drugs or alcohol because he is maturing early. b. compared to Ivan, Tasha is at greater risk for using drugs or alcohol because she is maturing early. c. both Ivan and Tasha are at greater risk for using drugs or alcohol because they are both maturing early. d. both Tasha and Ivan are at lower risk for using drugs or alcohol due to maturing early. 112. Sam and Ella were contemplating having a child together. “Children are a source of great bliss!” their pastor proclaimed. “A wonderful idea; sure to bring you even closer together as a couple!” Based on research evidence, would you support the pastor’s conclusion? a. No; marital satisfaction uniformly declines across couples with the birth of a child. b. Yes; research shows that having a child together is the best decision for reducing an already stressful marital relationship. c. Possibly; the transition to parenthood tends to have a greater impact on fathers than on mothers. d. Possibly; marital satisfaction tends to decline after the birth of a child, but not for all parents nor to the same extent. 113. Which brain circuits mediate the experience of pleasure? a. GABA b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Histamine 114. Currently, the prevalence of deaths associated with Alzheimer’s disease a. Is unclear. b. Has remained stable over the last 10 years. c. Has been decreasing steadily. d. Has been increasing. 115. Ruthie wants to take a cookie from the cookie jar, but reasons that if she gets caught by her mother, she is likely to be punished. Her fear of punishment guides her moral decision making. Which stage of moral development characterizes Ruthie’s reasoning? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 3 c. Stage 4 d. Stage 5 116. Why is a mother’s consumption of drugs harmful to a developing fetus? a. Drug use is typically accompanied by an unstable home environment. b. Most drugs can pass through the membranes of the placenta. c. Most drugs decrease the efficiency of nutrient transfer to the fetus. d. Illegal drug use is strongly associated with maternal illness.

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Chapter 10_11e 117. The McKavicks have three school-age children. Their next-door neighbors, the Clancys, have three grandchildren who are about the same age as the McKavick’s children. At the present time, based on research into marital satisfaction, it is MOST likely that a. the McKavicks are experiencing higher levels of marital satisfaction than the Clancys are. b. both couples are experiencing high levels of satisfaction in their respective marriages. c. both couples are experiencing low levels of satisfaction in their respective marriages. d. the Clancys are experiencing higher levels of marital satisfaction than the McKavicks are. 118. What attachment pattern do most infants develop? a. Avoidant b. Respectful c. Anxious-ambivalent d. Secure 119. Why is prenatal stress so harmful to the developing fetus? a. Stress is usually an indicator of an unstable family pattern or disruptive home life that the baby will be born into. b. Stress affects nutrition, which in turn affects blood flow, which in turn leads to less oxygen reaching the developing fetus. c. Mothers’ emotional reactions can disrupt hormonal balances that foster healthy development. d. Despite conventional wisdom, there is no documented link between maternal stress reactions and harm to a fetus. 120. Rollo has been struggling with the crisis presented by Erikson’s psychosocial stage of generativity versus selfabsorption. What would be an unsuccessful resolution to this crisis? a. Rollo allows others to meet his basic needs and handle his daily affairs. b. Rollo self-indulgently cares only about his own needs and desires. c. Rollo becomes manipulative and calculating in his dealings with others. d. Rollo wallows in bitterness and resentment over past failures. 121. How has the prefrontal cortex generally been characterized? a. As the “site of sight” for visual processing b. As an “executive control center” c. As a “relay station” for memory d. As the “home of the blues” in emotion processing 122. Clara asks you for advice on how much alcohol she should consume during her pregnancy, based on the available research evidence. To give her the best advice possible, how should you reply? a. “Evidence shows that drinking during the first 4 months of pregnancy is okay, but intake should decrease as delivery draws near.” b. “The only safe course of action is to completely abstain from alcohol consumption during pregnancy.” c. “Moderate social drinking, however, you define it, is acceptable; only heavy drinking is dangerous.” d. “Most researchers agree that 2 to 3 drinks during a week is an acceptable amount of alcohol intake.”

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Chapter 10_11e 123. Over the past several decades, what general trend has characterized marriage in the United States? a. A decrease in the percentage of couples that cohabitate prior to marriage. b. The percentage of adults who get married has steadily declined. c. The average age at which women marry has remained relatively stable. d. The average age of first marriages has steadily increased. 124. Kemery is almost 14 months old and her parents are concerned that she is not walking. Kemery's doctor informs them that by about 21 months old, 90% of children are able to walk. The doctor is referring to the a. cultural variation within walking. b. developmental norm for walking. c. genetic blueprint for walking. d. maturation of walking. 125. As children grow, parental influence over them tends to a. remain constant. b. decline. c. vanish. d. increase. 126. What is the basis of telegraphic speech? a. Words are combined with hand gestures to indicate a child’s desires. b. Babbling takes the place of actual word production. c. Content words are used, and less critical words are omitted. d. Fast mapping conveys the essential meaning of the communication. 127. Erik Erikson proposed a stage theory of development based on the notion of a. sensorimotor operations. b. sociocultural learning. c. psychosocial crises. d. continuous development. 128. Sara's doctor has warned her about making unhealthy food choices, like consistently eating high-fat, highcalorie, non-nutritious fast food throughout her pregnancy. If Sara does not listen to her doctor's warning, what is the possible outcome for the baby? a. Impaired immune response b. Low birthweight c. Neurological deficits d. Sensitivity to touch

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Chapter 10_11e 129. Orlando has attained identity achievement. Which attribute would you apply to Orlando’s identity status, based on patterns of research findings? a. Depression b. Confusion c. Higher self-esteem d. Apathy 130. Which level of moral reasoning is guided by deep considerations about the nature of rules, morality, and effects on humanity? a. Unconventional level b. Conventional level c. Postconventional level d. Preconventional level 131. Reggie seems indifferent to the presence or absence of his mother as he plays in the pediatrician’s office. When his mother leaves the room to consult with the physician, Reggie barely notices and doesn’t seem particularly distressed. How will the pediatrician describe Reggie’s attachment style to his mother? a. Ambivalent b. Secure c. Avoidant d. Anxious 132. The second stage of prenatal development is called a. the embryonic stage. b. the fetal stage. c. the germinal stage. d. conception. 133. Successful aging has been linked to a. early life hardships. b. lower intelligence. c. greater physical height. d. high self-esteem. 134. What does the presence of increased white matter in the adolescent brain signify? a. Synaptic pruning is taking place. b. Executive functions have fully matured. c. Memory storage has been optimized. d. Neurons are becoming more myelinated.

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Chapter 10_11e 135. Two-month-old Arlo is shown his favorite toy. The toy is then removed from Arlo’s sight and placed under a blanket. According to Piaget’s stage theory of cognitive development, how will Arlo respond? a. He will actively search for the toy under the blanket. b. He will not attempt to search for the toy. c. He will ask his mother, “Where toy?” d. He will actively search for the toy, but not under the blanket. 136. What outcome has been associated with prolonged levels of elevated stress during pregnancy? a. A child’s improved attention span during the elementary school years b. A child’s heightened risk for infectious diseases. c. A child’s missing limbs at birth. d. A child’s increased risk of hyperactivity during childhood. 137. Lola wants to avoid anything that may cause her developing child to develop severe abnormalities. What might her doctor tell her that she should do? a. She should abstain entirely from unhealthy foods until the last few weeks of her pregnancy. b. She should limit drinking alcohol to 2 drinks per day during the first three months of her pregnancy. c. She should abstain from exercising throughout her pregnancy. d. She should be especially careful not to consume any alcohol or tobacco products during her pregnancy. 138. Marcus was delivered at 23 weeks after conception. Based on evidence from viability studies, what is your estimate of Marcus’ likelihood of survival? a. Excellent, perhaps a 90% likelihood b. Very good, perhaps a 70% likelihood c. Moderate, perhaps a 50% likelihood d. Very low, perhaps a 20% likelihood 139. What was Erik Erikson’s fundamental proposal regarding psychosocial development? a. An individual needs to resolve specific crises at each stage of life. b. The gradual unfolding of genetic tendencies, determined by inheritance, causes development to occur. c. Interactions with siblings, who reinforce desired personality traits, shape personality development. d. Careful correction of undesired behaviors by parents and peers produces a “healthy” personality for an individual. 140. Bitsy argues that moderate drinking during pregnancy can’t harm a developing fetus. “It’s only heavy drinking that causes problems; everybody knows that!” Is Bitsy correct in her thinking? a. Yes, the evidence is clear that heavy drinking is dangerous to a fetus, but there is no documented evidence that moderate drinking produces negative effects. b. No, heavy binge drinking (many drinks consumed in a short period) is harmful, but consistent heavy drinking does not lead to developmental impairments. c. No, although heavy drinking is clearly hazardous to a fetus, moderate social drinking also increases the risk of developmental deficits. d. Yes, most physicians advise a pregnant woman to have a nightly glass of wine or beer to ease the stress associated with pregnancy. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10_11e 141. Why does infant attachment provide an important platform for subsequent development? a. Children progress through all three attachment styles; the first style adopted determines the sequence of the other two. b. Children develop mental models of future close relationships based on their early attachment experiences. c. Infants are passive recipients of attention; early attachment therefore determines future interaction environments. d. Once established, attachment style cannot change, and its effects on subsequent development are predictable. 142. Seventeen-year-old Casey has a clear sense of herself and a set of goals for her life, after having considered several alternatives. Which of James Marcia’s identity statuses would you say applies to Casey? a. Identity moratorium b. Identity diffusion c. Identity foreclosure d. Identity achievement 143. How is aging related to the likelihood of chronic disease? a. The proportion of people with chronic diseases tends to decrease with age. b. Rates of chronic disease tend to increase to the age of 40, then remain steady until death. c. The proportion of people with chronic diseases climbs steadily with increased age. d. The proportion of people with chronic diseases is highest in the 50- to 60-year-old range. 144. Which of the following is a primary sex characteristic? a. Presence of a vagina b. Pubic hair c. Facial hair d. Breast development in females 145. Melanie reads a description of a military commander who disobeyed an order to firebomb a village populated mainly by women, children, and elderly people. “She made the correct moral choice,” Melanie concluded. “Sometimes disobeying an unjust rule is more ethical than blindly following that rule.” What stage of moral reasoning has Melanie attained? a. Stage 2 b. Stage 5 c. Stage 1 d. Stage 3 146. Which of the following is a likely reason for the downward generational trend in the onset of puberty? a. Widespread improvements in nutrition and medical care b. Rampant drug use among adolescents c. Greater parental attention directed toward children d. Enhanced sex education in the school system

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Chapter 10_11e 147. Genie has successfully resolved the crisis of Erikson’s psychosocial stage of integrity versus despair. What would you predict about Genie’s situation? a. She has developed the capacity for intimacy with others. b. She has acquired a genuine concern for future generations. c. She has developed a sense of competence. d. She has found meaning and satisfaction in her life. 148. What developmental activities characterize the first two months of the fetal stage of prenatal development? a. Rapid body growth, spurred by the development of muscles and bones, occurs. b. The fetus is viable and can be birthed without incident. c. Proliferation of brain cells takes place. d. Internal organs, such as the heart and lungs, are created. 149. How can prenatal events lead to illness later in life? a. Disruptive prenatal events create a pattern of lifelong illness from which a person cannot escape. b. Genetic predispositions are responsible for most illnesses, and these predispositions are passed from mother to child. c. Most prenatal deficits prime a person to seek alcohol or drug use, which in turn affects their ability to combat illness. d. The fetal brain becomes programmed in ways that influence the person’s vulnerability to illness. 150. Which level of moral reasoning is guided by possible outcomes that are rewarded or punished? a. Conventional level b. Preconventional level c. Unconventional level d. Postconventional level 151. How is personality in adulthood best characterized? a. Personality continues to change across the lifespan. b. Personality is stable after age 20 or so. c. Personality changes with major life events. d. There is evidence of both stability and change in adult personality. 152. Which identity status involves delaying commitment to an ideology while experimenting with alternatives? a. Identity moratorium b. Identity diffusion c. Identity foreclosure d. Identity achievement

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Chapter 10_11e 153. Which child shows evidence of declining egocentrism? a. Four-year-old Kerry, who thinks his plastic ukulele is alive. b. Six-year-old Jeff, who doesn’t know he’s his cousin’s cousin. c. Ten-year-old Tom, who understands why his friend is feeling sad. d. Nine-year-old Dave, who understands how to mentally undo an action. 154. Nine-year-old Mei Ling has mastered the principle of conservation. When identical amounts of water are presented in two vastly different beakers, which one will Mei Ling point to when asked “Which beaker has more water in it?” a. A taller beaker b. A shorter beaker c. Both beakers, recognizing that there’s the same amount of water in each d. Neither beaker, under the assumption that the water has disappeared when altered 155. Which of the following is a secondary sex characteristic? a. Larger feet in females b. Presence of a vagina c. Breast development in females d. Presence of testes 156. Which of the following is MOST likely to decline in later adulthood? a. Intellectual accomplishment b. Procedural memory c. Problem-solving abilities d. Speed in processing information 157. The assertion that fathers are essential for the healthy adjustment of children is contradicted by evidence from a. twin studies. b. adoption studies. c. studies of lesbian parents. d. studies of stepchildren. 158. What percentage of people ages 65-69 show signs of dementia? a. 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 25 percent d. 50 percent 159. The major qualification of the research findings on gender differences is that a. the data are indicative of group differences and tell us little about individuals. b. the findings are based on only a few studies and are therefore not very representative of the population. c. most of the research has been conducted on white middle-class children. d. there is wide variation from study to study in how the variables have been operationalized. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10_11e 160. As 89-year-old Pardeep mentally reviews his life, he cannot help smiling to himself. He believes he married and spent over 50 years with the most wonderful woman in the world, helped to raise three fine children, and was successful in his career as an accountant. According to Erickson, at this point in his life, Pradeep is experiencing a. integrity. b. identity. c. generativity. d. Intimacy. 161. During which stage of moral development are people’s decisions about morality determined by rigid adherence to society’s rules and laws? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 5 c. Stage 2 d. Stage 4 162. Six months ago, Marcello’s physician told him that he’d have about 18 months to live. “I’ve been working out a deal,” Marcello told his physician. “Through daily prayer I’ve negotiated with God another year on top of your prognosis. It’s in the bag.” What stage of dealing with dying in Marcello in? a. Bargaining b. Acceptance c. Depression d. Anger 163. Marcello has successfully met the demands of Erikson’s stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt. What outcome is likely to result for Marcello? a. An ability to predict the behaviors of others b. A sense of personal identity c. An increased sense of self-sufficiency d. Feelings of incompetence 164. Ingo’s physician has told him that his terminal diagnosis had progressed rapidly, and that he only has 6 months to live. “That’s so unfair!” Ingo shouted. “What kind of nonsense is that?” What stage of dealing with dying is Ingo in? a. Acceptance b. Bargaining c. Anger d. Denial 165. What form of memory appears to be especially vulnerable to age-related decline? a. Episodic memory b. Procedural memory c. Semantic memory d. Non declarative memory

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Chapter 10_11e 166. Rowena was concerned when her son, Jud, didn’t master walking at exactly 12 months. What advice should Rowena’s pediatrician give her? a. “Jud seems to be developmentally delayed; most babies master walking by the age of 6 months.” b. “Developmental norms represent group averages rather than exact developmental occurrences; don’t worry about Jud.” c. “Give it another week; if Jud doesn’t start walking by then, we’ll look into some medical interventions.” d. “Jud is likely to have a serious neurological impairment; all children walk at 12 months without exception.” 167. In the United States, gender differences in math ability a. remain large and stable. b. remain large but are shrinking. c. are small but are growing. d. have disappeared. 168. As a person ages, the personality characteristic of neuroticism tends to a. decline. b. remain the same. c. changes from high to low or low to high. d. increase. 169. Which bereavement pattern is exhibited by roughly one-half of bereaved spouses? a. Absent grief b. Common grief c. Depressed-improved grief d. Chronic grief 170. On average, when do children enter Piaget’s formal operational stage of cognitive development? a. Around 7 years of age b. Around 9 years of age c. Around 11 years of age d. Around 15 years of age 171. “I’ve been reading this book on personality development,” Mitzie announced to her friend, Bernie. “I think my 3year-old Otto is entering Erikson’s psychosocial stage of industry versus inferiority.” How should Bernie reply? a. “Probably not, Mitzie. Children typically reach that stage much later, between age 6 and puberty.” b. “That’s very likely; industry versus inferiority is Erikson’s first stage of psychosocial development.” c. “It could be; like most stage theorists, Erikson believed that stages could be achieved at any time.” d. “Definitely; at 3 years old Otto is certainly ready to function competently in a broad social realm.”

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Chapter 10_11e 172. What skill is necessary for successful hierarchical classification? a. Sequential reasoning about levels of classification b. Sequential thinking about animism and centration c. Simultaneous processing of reversibility and irreversibility d. Simultaneous focus on two levels of classification 173. Differing views on the course and nature of changes in personality across the life span illustrate which of the following unifying themes from your text? a. Psychology evolves in a socio historical context. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behavior. d. Our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage. 174. There are a number of different criticism of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development. Which statement BEST summarizes those criticism? a. There should be more than four stages to account for the variations seen between children to provide a more accurate description of cognitive development. b. Cognitive development appears to take place in stages with distinct boundaries. c. Piaget underestimated children’s cognitive development and the differences between children due to a number of different variables. d. The sequence of Piaget’s stages does not take into account differences within cultures. 175. For the first several months of Aria's life, she was unconcerned when her parents left her with a babysitter, but at around 7 months, she began to cry every time this happened. Aria is experiencing a. ambivalent attachment. b. insecure attachment. c. separation anxiety. d. delayed development. 176. What do the damaging effects of maternal illness on a fetus partly depend on? a. At what stage during her pregnancy the mother contracts the illness b. Whether or not the mother plans to have more children in the future c. How many previous children are living in the maternal home d. Whether the mother is carrying a single fetus or twins 177. Four-year-old Ashanti watched as a helium balloon slowly filled. “How could we make it the way it started?” her father asked. “I don’t know,” Ashanti replied. What will Ashanti’s father tell her mother later that night? a. “Ashanti doesn’t understand the principle of animism.” b. ”Ashanti hasn’t yet mastered the concept of egocentrism.” c. ”Ashanti doesn’t understand irreversibility.” d. ”Ashanti doesn’t understand conservation of matter.”

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Chapter 10_11e 178. Werner is a boy who matured late, compared to his peers. Based on research evidence, what predictions might you make about his adolescent experience ? a. Werner should experience spermarche earlier than his typical agemates. b. Werner is likely to experience more subjective distress during the transition to adolescence, compared to typical agemates. c. Werner will experience the same levels of subjective distress during the transition to adolescence, compared to typical agemates. d. Werner will almost certainly experience less subjective distress during the transition to adolescence, compared to typical agemates. 179. During the germinal stage of prenatal development, the zygote implants itself in the a. fallopian tube. b. uterine wall. c. vagina. d. placenta. 180. On average, at what age can most children walk while holding on to furniture? a. 9 months b. 6 months c. 4 months d. 2 months 181. Ashton ate ice cream for the first time yesterday. All day today, he has been asking for ice cream. This would be an example of a. metalinguistic awareness. b. fast mapping. c. overextension. d. semantic slanting. 182. What is the experience of menopause like for most women? a. Discomfort varies, but psychological distress is relatively modest for most women. b. Universally, menopause is accompanied by severe anxiety. c. The “myth of menopause” is that any psychological disturbance occurs. d. Most women experience severe emotional strain during menopause. 183. Esmeralda is a nurse at the local health clinic. If she wanted her clientele to understand the dangers of smoking while pregnant, what kind of photo should she show them, illustrating the effects of smoking on an infant? a. A photo of a baby with malformed bones b. A photo of a child who grew to be overweight c. A photo of a baby born prematurely d. An X-ray of an infant’s underdeveloped lungs

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Chapter 10_11e 184. Toddlers can understand around fifty words months before they can say fifty words. This supports which of the following statements? a. Productive vocabulary develops before receptive vocabulary. b. Comprehension and production develop at about the same rate. c. Language development is a learned cultural phenomenon. d. Language comprehension precedes language production. 185. At what age does the adolescent growth spurt typically begin for girls? a. 7 to 9 years b. 9 to 10 years c. 10 to 12 years d. 13 to 15 years 186. What is the association between marital satisfaction and number of children? a. The more children a couple has, the higher their marital satisfaction tends to be. b. Marital satisfaction shows no consistent relationship with the number of children a couple has. c. The more children a couple has, the lower their marital satisfaction tends to be. d. Couples with three children report greater marital satisfaction than couples with either fewer or more children. 187. Willy was presented with the Heinz Dilemma, involving a scenario about a man’s conflict in response to a moral dilemma. Willy was asked what Heinz should do in that situation, and more importantly, Willy was then asked a. “Where should Heinz seek moral guidance?” b. “Why should Heinz take that action?” c. “When should Heinz take that action?” d. “What should Heinz do instead of what you suggested?” 188. A baby would be considered to be full term at birth when it has been carried for at least a. 22 weeks. b. 26 weeks. c. 32 weeks. d. 38 weeks. 189. Modest cross-cultural differences in the prevalence of various attachment styles occur because of a. societal pressures that make avoidant attachment most common. b. cultural variations in childrearing practices. c. genetic differences across members of different cultures. d. inconsistency in clearly defining different attachment styles.

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Chapter 10_11e 190. Oscar, who is 5 years old, shows evidence of centration. How will Oscar likely approach solving the conservation-of-water problem? a. By first considering the width of the beakers and then the height of the water in the beakers b. By comparing the two dimensions of height and width at the same time c. By focusing on a single dimension, such as the height of the water in the beaker d. By considering the abstract principles underlying the concept of conservation 191. Premature babies who survive are typically born during the a. germinal stage. b. embryonic stage. c. fetal stage. d. postural stage. 192. At what age does the adolescent growth spurt typically begin for boys? a. 8 to 10 years b. 9 to 11 years c. 10 to 12 years d. 12 to 15 years 193. Compared to typical age mates, early-maturing females are more likely to a. show less aggression toward others. b. resemble their parents physically. c. have better mental health. d. have a greater risk for eating problems. 194. The germinal stage of prenatal development encompasses the period from a. one to two months after conception. b. two months after conception until birth. c. two to three weeks after conception. d. conception to the first two weeks. 195. For most babies, walking is typically mastered around the age of a. 7 months. b. 12 months. c. 20 months. d. 24 months. 196. When Shamus’s mother was pregnant with him, she lived in an area with very high levels of air pollution. Based on research, Shamus will be at increased risk for which of the following at age five? a. Lung Cancer b. Heart disease c. Impaired cognitive development d. Asthma Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10_11e 197. Savannah has entered the period of adolescence. According to Erik Erikson’s psychosocial model of development, what is the central question Savannah is likely to ask herself? a. “Who am I?” b. “Where did I come from?” c. “What does it all mean?” d. “Where are we?” 198. Prenatal exposure to air pollution has been linked to a. decreased vocabulary at age 25. b. increased lung capacity at age 12. c. increased obesity at age 7. d. decreased mathematical ability at age 2. 199. During the first six months of life, a baby’s vocalizations are dominated by a. two-word sentences. b. shrieks and grunts. c. single syllable sounds. d. crying, cooing, and laughter. 200. What accounts for the gradual decline in brain tissue and brain weight during the aging process? a. Expansion of remaining neurons to fill the available neural space b. “Cell death” primarily in the occipital lobe c. The inevitable progression toward dementia that humans experience d. Changes in the number and size of neurons

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Chapter 10_11e Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. d 10. d 11. c 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. a 22. c 23. a 24. c 25. c 26. b

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Chapter 10_11e 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. a 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. d 43. a 44. c 45. d 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. b 52. c 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10_11e 55. d 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. b 60. b 61. c 62. d 63. b 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. d 68. b 69. d 70. c 71. d 72. b 73. c 74. c 75. c 76. d 77. d 78. a 79. a 80. c 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10_11e 83. d 84. d 85. b 86. b 87. d 88. a 89. d 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. c 95. b 96. c 97. a 98. a 99. c 100. d 101. b 102. c 103. d 104. d 105. d 106. a 107. c 108. d 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10_11e 111. c 112. d 113. c 114. d 115. a 116. b 117. d 118. d 119. c 120. b 121. b 122. b 123. d 124. b 125. b 126. c 127. c 128. c 129. c 130. c 131. c 132. a 133. d 134. d 135. b 136. b 137. d

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Chapter 10_11e 138. d 139. a 140. c 141. b 142. d 143. c 144. a 145. b 146. a 147. d 148. a 149. d 150. b 151. d 152. a 153. c 154. c 155. c 156. d 157. c 158. b 159. a 160. a 161. d 162. a 163. c 164. c 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10_11e 166. b 167. d 168. a 169. a 170. c 171. a 172. d 173. b 174. c 175. c 176. a 177. c 178. b 179. b 180. a 181. b 182. a 183. c 184. d 185. b 186. c 187. b 188. d 189. b 190. c 191. c 192. c 193. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10_11e 194. d 195. b 196. c 197. a 198. c 199. d 200. d

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Chapter 11_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Maurice has an inferiority complex, according to Adler’s individual psychology perspective on personality. Which statement would apply to Maurice’s condition? a. “Tomorrow is another day.” b. “I’m horrible at everything.” c. “At least I’m good looking.” d. “I wish I were taller.” 2. Abraham Maslow called the need to fulfill one's potential the need for a. affiliation. b. achievement. c. self-actualization. d. power. 3. “Do what thou wilt,” “If it feels good, do it,” and “You only live once” best describe which psychoanalytic component of personality? a. Conscious b. Id c. Unconscious d. Superego 4. According to psychoanalytic theory, which component of personality represents moral strivings and social standards of right and wrong? a. Ego b. Superego c. Preconscious d. Id 5. When Freud referred to the sexual urges of babies and young children, to what was he actually referring? a. The recognition that children experience sexual pleasure in the same ways that adults do. b. The fact that children have many urges for physical pleasure. c. The fact that children need to be taught about sexual morality from a very early age. d. The fact that sexual orientation is established at birth. 6. Based on Freud's ideas regarding personality, where does behavior come from? a. Behavior originates within the superego. b. Behavior represents the direct satisfaction of the ego’s desires. c. Behavior springs spontaneously from the unconscious. d. Behavior is the result of interactions between the id, the superego, and the ego.

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Chapter 11_11e 7. What do humanistic and psychoanalytic theories have in common? a. They are both stage models of development. b. Both are difficult to test empirically. c. Both base their ideas on stressful childhood events. d. Their major ideas have been substantially confirmed through research. 8. Tumak is an early ancestor who’s noticed that Chongo cooperates and collaborates with other group members. Recognizing these trait-based behaviors, what is Tumak likely to do? a. Steal Chongo’s mate for his own reproductive purposes b. Murder Chongo while he sleeps c. Banish Chongo from the group d. Enlist Chongo’s help to build a communal camp 9. Charles is taking part in an experiment investigating terror management. What might the experimenters do to increase mortality salience for Charles? a. Ask him to read passages from the Bible that emphasize peace and community b. Ask him to recite his favorite holiday gifts from the past five years c. Show photographs of a cemetery, with his name appearing subtly on a headstone d. Have him wait in a room for 20 minutes with only a variety of magazines scattered on a table 10. Dr. Obosu believes that the Big Five personality traits stand out as important dimensions of personality because those traits have a significant adaptive implication that is largely determined by a person's genetics. Dr. Obosu’s views are similar to the view of personality put forward by a. B. F. Skinner. b. Walter Mischel. c. Carl Jung. d. David Buss. 11. According to Eysenck’s model of personality, which of the following would be a lower-order trait ? a. Introversion b. Personality c. Extraversion d. Sensation-seeking 12. Taking all of the available evidence into account, which conclusion regarding personality and culture is warranted? a. Personality is a culturally constructed concept. b. There is one core trait that applies to humanity: self-esteem. c. Personality is the result of genetic forces. d. The trait structure of personality is universal.

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Chapter 11_11e 13. Jung proposed a layer of unconscious that was similar to Freud’s view of unconscious. Jung called this layer the a. collective unconscious. b. mandala. c. inferior unconscious. d. personal unconscious. 14. Which Big Five personality dimension shows the least consistency in being identified across cultures? a. Agreeableness b. Neuroticism c. Openness to experience d. Conscientiousness 15. How are perceptions of self-efficacy best characterized? a. They are global and broadly applicable b. They are illusory and nonexistent c. They are subjective and specific d. They are held by others about ourselves 16. Sahil sets extremely high standards for both himself and others. He tends to be rigid and inflexible and rarely allows himself to enjoy life. Freud would probably conclude that Sahil is dominated by his a. superego. b. id. c. ego. d. unconscious. 17. Jordon has taken a job that is extremely dangerous, but it pays him enough so that he is sure he will have enough to eat, and he will be able to sleep in a warm place each night. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, Jordon is probably primarily motivated by a. safety and security needs. b. cognitive needs. c. the need for self-actualization. d. physiological needs. 18. Which aspect of personality did Freud propose operated at all three levels of awareness? a. Superego b. Id c. Conscious d. Preconscious

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Chapter 11_11e 19. To whom does the collective unconscious apply, according to Jung’s analytical psychology? a. The person specifically accessing the unconscious material b. A person’s “tribe” or “squad” c. The entire human race d. Adherents of Eastern religious traditions 20. According to Sigmund Freud, what is the most basic and widely used defense mechanism? a. Rationalization b. Reaction formation c. Regression d. Repression 21. What produces the “terror” in terror management theory? a. The threat posed by others intent on self-preservation b. Unconscious psychic conflicts c. Feelings of guilt for past transgressions d. Having highly evolved cognitive capabilities 22. Why is relying on adult recollections of childhood memories a poor basis for theory development? a. Hypnosis is a better method for understanding childhood experiences. b. It doesn’t take into account childhood fantasies and dream content. c. Memories can be inaccurate, distorted, or incomplete. d. Most people don’t form memories until after the age of seven. 23. What did Maslow think was necessary in order for a person to have an exceptionally healthy personality? a. Conformity to society’s norms b. Acceptance from others c. The “blood of the wolf” d. Self-actualization 24. What is one of the principal goals of terror management theory? a. To empirically verify elements of humanistic theory b. To catalog the ways in which traits influence behavior c. To explain why people need self-esteem d. To describe the relationship between brain activity and personality traits 25. According to the humanist perspective, what is the relationship between parental love, the self-concept, and life experiences? a. Unconditional love shapes the self-concept, whereas conditional love shapes life experiences. b. Conditional love promotes congruence, whereas unconditional love promotes incongruence. c. Unconditional love promotes congruence, whereas conditional love promotes incongruence. d. Conditional love shapes the self-concept, whereas unconditional love shapes life experiences.

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Chapter 11_11e 26. Christy defines herself in terms of her relationships with others and her role in society as a whole. Where does Christy likely reside? a. Tokyo, Japan b. San Francisco, California c. Austin, Texas d. Omaha, Nebraska 27. According to Alfred Adler, what does the process of compensation involve? a. Overcoming real or imagined inferiorities through developing one’s abilities b. “Paying one’s dues” in childhood, thereby securing a mentally healthy adulthood c. Tapping into the collective unconscious to interpret one’s individual personality d. Making amends to those who have been wronged, thereby clearing the “psychic slate” 28. Why did humanists object to psychoanalytic theories of personality? a. They emphasized personal freedom at the expense of social interdependence. b. They didn’t give enough weight to unconscious drives and motives guiding behavior. c. Too much attention was given to the role of the collective unconscious. d. They dehumanized behavior by focusing on primitive drives. 29. What does the collective pattern of research evidence indicate about the heritability of the Big Five personality dimensions? a. Heritability is about 40 percent for neuroticism, and approximately 60 percent for the other traits. b. Heritability is about 50 percent of the variability in each of the Big Five traits. c. Heritability is 75 percent for extraversion, and about 25 percent for the other dimensions. d. Heritability is about 25 percent in each case. 30. What need was Abraham Maslow expressing when he said, “What a man can be, he must be”? a. The need for superiority b. The need for unconditional love c. The need to self-actualize d. The need to achieve 31. According to Albert Bandura, a person’s belief about her or his skills and ability to perform certain behaviors is known as a. locus of control. b. self-determination. c. phenomenology. d. self-efficacy.

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Chapter 11_11e 32. Carlos is quiet and introverted. Based on a behaviorist interpretation of personality, what behavior is Carlos most likely to enact? a. Carlos will find an isolated cubicle in the library. b. Carlos will avoid deserted streets and back alleys. c. Carlos will organize a rally for civil rights. d. Carlos will attend a party with his friends. 33. Why would Sigmund Freud’s Victorian contemporaries object to his psychoanalytic theory, given the times in which it was advanced and the subject matter with which it dealt? a. Freud’s ideas promoted the conclusion that people are not in control of their own destinies. b. Freud argued that people were masters of their own minds, and that “thinking makes it so.” c. Freud’s ideas did not sufficiently account for the importance of early childhood experiences in shaping later behavior. d. Freud’s ideas conflicted with the then-dominant notion that sexual urges unconsciously drive behavior. 34. When cultural differences in traits are observed, how are they usually characterized? a. The differences are large and pronounced. b. The differences are negligible. c. The differences are modest at best. d. No cultural trait differences have been documented. 35. How would a behaviorist, such as B. F. Skinner, view personality? a. Personality is the unfolding of genetic patterns of behavior. b. Internal conflicts and their resolution determine an individual’s personality. c. Clusters of traits, such as extraversion, neuroticism, or agreeableness, constitute personality. d. Personality is a collection of typical patterns of responding to environmental stimuli. 36. What general trend has been documented in cross-cultural studies of personality? a. Neuroticism is the only personality trait, to date, that shows any cross-cultural consistency. b. The Big Five traits emerge consistently across a variety of cultures. c. Agreeableness is the only personality trait, to date, that shows any cross-cultural consistency. d. There is a great deal of variability in personality structure across cultures. 37. Dominic is a narcissist. He is friendly with Franco. Franco thinks Dominic is fantastic. How long have they known each other? a. They’ve chatted for a few minutes. b. They’ve known each other forever. c. They’ve known each other for several months. d. They’ve known each other for several years.

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Chapter 11_11e 38. How does an individual progress through Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? a. Satisfaction of lower-level needs activates motivation to achieve the next level of needs. b. Individuals progress downward from upper-level needs to lower-level needs of the motivational structure. c. Once a lower-level need has been met, those needs will not need to be met again d. Needs can be satisfied in any order, based on an individual’s personal needs. 39. Jordan has hidden feelings of inferiority, introversion, neuroticism, and need for recognition. Jordan is MOST accurately described as having a. grandiose narcissism. b. vulnerable narcissism. c. grandiose neuroticism. d. vulnerable neuroticism. 40. From an evolutionary perspective, what does the trait of extraversion signal to others? a. An ability to bond well with others b. The capacity to handle stress effectively c. A willingness to work hard toward group goals d. An increased likelihood of low reproductive fitness 41. A person born, raised, and living in an Asian culture might use which term to describe themselves? a. “Self-contained” b. “Unique” c. “Connected” d. “Special” 42. Parker and Charlie agreed to meet later in the afternoon for coffee. Parker arrived at the agreed-upon time, but Charlie arrived 30 minutes after Parker and was not concerned about being late or how much time Parker had been waiting. They are at opposite ends of which Big Five personality dimension? a. Neuroticism b. Agreeableness c. Conscientiousness d. Extraversion 43. Which environmental outcome tends to reduce the likelihood of a behavior being repeated in the future? a. Reinforcement b. Generalization c. Punishment d. Extraversion

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Chapter 11_11e 44. Valentina shows a great deal of introversion. According to Hans Eysenck’s model of personality, what should be true of Valentina? a. She should acquire a conditioned fear response quickly during a laboratory experiment. b. She should be likely to volunteer at the Clean Up Our Rivers event. c. She should be at least 5’5” tall, based on genetic tendencies. d. She should head straight for the roller coaster when the theme park opens. 45. Personality refers to a. the extent to which someone is outgoing and sociable. b. the spiritual side of an individual’s existence. c. a set of social actions guided by social pressures. d. an individual’s unique set of consistent behavioral traits. 46. Freud believed that the largest aspect of awareness was a. unconscious. b. conscious. c. preconscious. d. repression. 47. How would you reduce the incongruence surrounding someone’s negative academic self-concept? a. Perform a dream analysis with that person, focusing on past traumas b. Encourage the person to study harder in the future c. Model desired behaviors, such as attending class on a regular basis d. Show that person her transcript listing numerous A’s and B’s across a variety of courses 48. Humanistic theorists place great emphasis on a. the role of the environment in determining behavior. b. a person’s subjective view of the world. c. unconscious motives driving behavior. d. verifiable objective reality. 49. What did Alfred Adler call his approach to personality theory? a. Causal epistemics b. Analytical psychology c. Psychoanalytic theory d. Individual psychology 50. Jenny shows all the common attributes of a narcissist. Which attribute would apply to her? a. She keeps her Instagram, Twitter, and Facebook accounts private. b. She is active in community outreach programs that benefit local charities. c. She has a strong sense of herself as a person. d. Her designer purse features a large “J” encrusted with pearls.

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Chapter 11_11e 51. How does the statistical technique of factor analysis work? a. Large-scale polling combines many thousands of people’s opinions to identify core traits. b. Personality traits that are considered synonyms are classified as the same basic trait. c. A researcher proposes a set of core traits, then uses statistics to support this conjecture. d. Correlations among variables are used to discover related clusters of variables. 52. How did Carl Rogers conceive of the self-concept? a. As a collection of self-perceptions related to traits, qualities, and behaviors b. As the seat of consciousness, or “soul” of an individual c. As an unconscious force guiding behavior d. As synonymous with self-esteem 53. According to terror management theory, what is one mechanism for dealing with the anxiety and alarm produced by the awareness of one’s own mortality? a. Denying that these feelings exist b. Visiting a graveyard c. Embracing cultural traditions d. Devaluing one’s importance in the world 54. Dr. Hewlett believes that early childhood experiences have a strong influence on adult personality and that our personality is largely shaped by unconscious forces. Dr. Hewlett’s views MOST closely mirror those of the a. behavioral perspective. b. humanistic perspective. c. psychodynamic perspective. d. biological perspective. 55. Jenna’s parents show her unconditional affection. She knows this because they often tell her, a. “We love and support you, no matter what.” b. “When you score a goal in soccer, you’ve shown your worth.” c. “You should be the best or nothing.” d. “Second place is the first loser.” 56. Your psychology professor argues that personality is a collection of response tendencies that are tied to various stimulus situations. Which of the following theories of personality is she presenting? a. Rational-emotive b. Behaviorism c. Humanism d. Invasive

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Chapter 11_11e 57. Francois is outgoing and extraverted. Based on Mischel’s view of the person-situation controversy in personality, what behavior is Francois most likely to enact? a. Francois will be outgoing in a variety of contexts. b. Francois will attend a friend’s party but not organize one himself. c. François’ behavior will depend on the situation he finds himself in. d. Francois will decline to participate in karaoke night. 58. What is a primary strength of self-report measures of personality? a. They rely on an interpreter’s scoring technique. b. They encourage social desirability. c. They provide more objective and precise estimates of personality traits than casual observation. d. They have low validity, which is a good thing in this context. 59. Barry is trying to rank the personality similarities among pairs of people, but he’s having a difficult time completing this task. Among the following, which is the pair that should show the greatest similarity across traits? a. Fraternal twins Willard and Ben b. Siblings Ida and Red c. Identical twins Denny and Lenny d. Sandra and her mom 60. Your friend spends money like water. When you learn that he is from a poverty-stricken background, you attribute his spending patterns to his earlier deprivation. You are likely to do this because of a. the hindsight bias. b. a self-serving attribution. c. the consistency and distinctiveness of personality. d. circular reasoning. 61. Which theorist is primarily associated with humanistic psychology? a. Carl Jung b. Sigmund Freud c. Walter Mischel d. Carl Rogers 62. Biological perspectives on personality emphasize the roles of genes, heredity, and biology. Why is this an incomplete analysis? a. The data regarding genetic influences is highly speculative and currently full of gaps. b. Both genetic and environmental influences interact with one another in complex ways. c. Evolutionary forces have shaped personality in the human species; those forces are no longer at work. d. There is strong, compelling evidence that personality traits are shaped by an individual’s shared family environment.

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Chapter 11_11e 63. “How was your trip overseas?” Lucinda asked Liza. “Terrific,” Liza gushed. “Everyone I met was outgoing and friendly. It was like there was a cultural norm to be high in that trait.” Based on cross-cultural investigations of average trait scores, where was Liza likely to have visited? a. Australia b. Botswana c. Cambodia d. Dubai 64. What would you recommend for someone trying to tap into the primary source of human motivation, according to Alfred Adler’s views? a. Adapt to change, work on yourself, and meet challenges head on b. Exercise your body daily, exercise your mind weekly, and exercise your spirit monthly c. Avoid conflict, treat others well, and look inside yourself on a regular basis d. Put the needs of others before your own needs 65. What kind of self-view does American culture tend to foster in its members? a. Interdependence b. Independence c. Dependence d. Co-dependence 66. A personality trait refers to a. a durable disposition to behave in a particular way in a variety of situations. b. a core belief held by a person but that may differ across persons. c. the expression of genetic tendencies toward interacting with others. d. a learned pattern of behavior when faced with a specific interaction partner. 67. The global pandemic has created a powerful example of mortality salience world-wide. What is a likely outcome of failed terror management? a. Increased compassion for others suffering from the pandemic. b. Feelings of hopefulness about the future. c. Decreased self-awareness. d. More negative evaluations of people from different religious or ethnic backgrounds. 68. Five-year-old Janet watches as her eight-year-old brother, Bernie, howl in pain after placing his hand on a hot cooktop burner. Based on principles of observational learning, what will Janet do when she next encounters a hotplate? a. Place her hand on it b. Turn it on, then touch it c. Avoid touching it d. Ask Bernie to touch it

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Chapter 11_11e 69. Arlo is a cheerful person, and he displays cheerfulness reliably across a variety of situations in which he finds himself. Which aspect of personality would best apply to Arlo? a. Distinctiveness b. Consensus c. Consistency d. Conformity 70. Which of the Big Five personality factors is a positive predictor of occupational attainment? a. Agreeableness b. Neuroticism c. Openness to experience d. Conscientiousness 71. Terror management theory suggests that self-esteem serves a terror management function by reducing a. awareness of the inevitability of death. b. mortality salience. c. anxiety. d. cultural worldviews. 72. Carl Rogers argued that people with highly incongruent self-concepts are particularly likely to experience a. joy. b. guilt. c. anxiety. d. depression. 73. Which of the following statements is MOST likely to be uttered by someone who doesn't understand the evidence regarding national character? a. “Some traits are pretty consistent across cultures.” b. “The Russians are known for their hostility." c. “You can’t judge a book by its cover.” d. “Cultures can be very different, so people must also be different.” 74. Which theorist is primarily associated with the person-situation controversy in the study of personality? a. Albert Bandura b. Walter Mischel c. E. F. Hutton d. Carl Rogers

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Chapter 11_11e 75. How does observational learning take place? a. Behaviors are directly reinforced by consequences in the environment. b. A person imagines an optimal outcome for behavior, and then mentally simulates the steps necessary to achieve that outcome. c. An individual’s responses are influenced by observation of another person’s behavioral outcomes. d. Observing one’s own behavior reinforces the enactment of dissimilar behaviors. 76. What personality trait would be consistent with behaviors that signal the capacity to effectively solve problems? a. Agreeableness b. Neuroticism c. Conscientiousness d. Openness to experience 77. Ginger has been having an affair, and feels both conflicted and guilty about it. One afternoon her husband came home later than usual. If Ginger applied the defense mechanism of projection to this situation in order to assuage her guilt, she would a. accuse her husband of infidelity. b. convince her husband that she is a sinless, moral person. c. cry and stamp her feet, while complaining that she never gets her way. d. swat the dog with a rolled-up newspaper in full view of her husband. 78. From an evolutionary perspective, which trait would be predictive of cooperation and sharing? a. Openness to experience b. Neuroticism c. Extraversion d. Agreeableness 79. Which theorist is primarily associated with social cognitive theory? a. B. F. Skinner b. Albert Bandura c. Walter Mischel d. O. H. Mowrer 80. Terror management theory asserts that much of our behavior is motivated by our need a. to defend our worldview and preserve our self-esteem. b. to defend our worldview and reduce mortality salience. c. for self-preservation and to preserve our self-esteem. d. for self-preservation and to reduce mortality salience.

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Chapter 11_11e 81. Sigmund Freud’s theory of personality was influenced by the Victorian climate of sexual repression, a fact that illustrates which of the following unifying themes of your textbook? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Psychology is the study of subjective experience. 82. You are in a debate with a friend who argues that people’s behavior is much less consistent across situations than most theorists assumed. Your friend’s argument is MOST similar to the theory of personality of a. Carl Rogers. b. Walter Mischel. c. B. F. Skinner. d. Albert Bandura. 83. Quentin plays the trumpet, is president of the debate team, bites his fingernails, and chews gum habitually. Freud might say that Quentin was fixated at the a. oral stage of psychosexual development. b. anal stage of psychosexual development. c. latency stage of psychosexual development. d. phallic stage of psychosexual development. 84. A baseball player’s daughter is quite talented. When she gets up to bat, she expects to get a hit, and when she is in the field, she expects to make every catch. According to Bandura, what characteristic does this young woman display? a. Self-efficacy b. Self-sufficiency c. Self-control d. Self-determination 85. Is individualism or collectivism a better strategy for human interaction? a. Neither; cultural dependence, in the form of limited social choice and obedience to authority, is the universal norm. b. It depends on the cultural values that are rewarded and transmitted within a given cultural context. c. Individualism; cultures value independence in their members. d. Interdependence is valued most highly in the majority of cultures. 86. How do genes influence personality traits? a. Individual genes are associated with specific traits, such as the Big Five dimensions. b. Genes influence the environment, which in turn, influences personality. c. Hundreds or thousands of genes exert small effects that eventually result in an identification of a trait. d. A genetic contribution to personality has not been empirically demonstrated.

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Chapter 11_11e 87. What is a major limitation of projective measures of personality? a. They were normed on a culturally diverse group. b. No scoring systems have been developed for these tests. c. They show poor reliability and validity. d. They were developed relatively recently in the history of psychology. 88. What did Walter Mischel emphasize as an important contributor to behavior? a. Unconscious desires b. Inner conflicts c. Personality traits d. Situational forces 89. Ronni’s parents show her conditional affection. She senses this because they often tell her, a. “We’ll support the choices you make.” b. “We love you when you get A’s in school.” c. “You’re terrific just the way you are.” d. “We’ll always love you no matter what.” 90. Which statement would a humanistic psychologist most likely make? a. “Change and growth are stimulating and welcome; people should strive to become all that they can become.” b. “An army without culture is a dull-witted army, and a dull-witted army cannot defeat the enemy.” c. “The environment shapes behavior; the goal of the psychologist is to control the environment to the greatest extent possible.” d. “Humankind being what it is, there will always be hate, war, and injustice in this world.” 91. What is the highest need in Maslow’s motivational hierarchy? a. Cognitive needs b. Aesthetic needs c. Belongingness needs d. Self-actualization 92. The tendency to mold our interpretation of the past to fit how events actually turned out is called a. projection. b. reaction formation. c. the hindsight bias. d. self-enhancement. 93. When people give a false but plausible excuse to justify their unacceptable behavior, they are using a. reaction formation. b. displacement. c. rationalization. d. projection. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11_11e 94. Behaviorists tend to view personality development as a. a result of early childhood experiences. b. the outcome of dynamic inner forces. c. a series of self-dialogues. d. a continuous, lifelong process. 95. Which outcome is likely to result from increased mortality salience? a. Denouncing recent governmental policies b. Showing greater compassion to law-breakers c. Responding negatively to cultural critics d. Devaluing cultural icons 96. Rudy is told he will be given a projective personality test. What task will he likely be asked to perform? a. Tell a story about characters presented in an ambiguous drawing b. Answer questions about his childhood c. List his hobbies and interests d. Provide responses to an interviewer’s standardized questions 97. According to Maslow’s hierarchy, which needs form the lowest level of motivation? a. Physiological needs b. Belongingness needs c. Esteem needs d. Cognitive needs 98. What are defense mechanisms? a. Conscious strategies for deceiving the superego. b. Outcomes that produce sexual gratification at the unconscious level of awareness. c. Unconscious reactions that protect a person from unpleasant emotions. d. Preconscious strategies for reconciling feelings of joy and despair. 99. Which “Big Five” personality dimension is associated with anxiety, hostility, self-consciousness, and feelings of insecurity? a. Neuroticism b. Extraversion c. Conscientiousness d. Openness to experience 100. What is the correct sequence of Freud’s psychosexual stages of development? a. Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital b. Oral, phallic, latency, anal, genital c. Oral, anal, genital, phallic, latency d. Anal, genital, phallic, oral, latency

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Chapter 11_11e 101. Humanistic personality theories focus on a. a person's freedom and potential for growth. b. genetic factors. c. unconscious mental forces. d. learning. 102. The link between specific genes and manifestations of behavior has been pursued using the technique of a. genetic mapping. b. factor analysis. c. canonical correlation. d. structured interviews. 103. How are personality traits usually defined? a. As pronouns b. As adjectives c. As verbs d. As nouns 104. Yulya has entered the latency stage of psychosexual development. What behavior would you predict Yulya will display? a. Joining a youth group b. Dating older boys c. Masturbating in public d. Cleaning her room 105. Demetrius is curious about psychology, and is looking for an approach that will nurture his personal growth and affirm his potential as a human. Which book would you recommend he read? a. Albert Bandura’s Social Foundations of Thought and Action b. Carl Rogers’ On Becoming a Person c. B. F. Skinner’s About Behaviorism d. Sigmund Freud’s The Interpretation of Dreams 106. “How was your trip abroad?” Merle asked Timmy. “Rotten,” Timmy replied. “Everyone was so neurotic. It seemed like a cultural given that that trait should be rampant.” Based on cross-cultural investigations of average trait scores, where was Timmy likely to have visited? a. Indonesia b. Germany c. Brazil d. Croatia

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Chapter 11_11e 107. Peter is aware of what is currently going on around him. He is in a doughnut shop, the coffee he just sipped was very hot, and his plastic seat is quite uncomfortable. According to psychoanalytic theory, what level of awareness do these observations represent? a. Nonconscious b. Preconscious c. Conscious d. Unconscious 108. According to psychoanalytic theory, what level of awareness consists of easily retrieved information lurking below the surface of awareness? a. Preconscious b. Unconscious c. Conscious d. Conscience 109. Why did humanists object to behaviorist theories of personality? a. Behaviorism wasn’t based on empirical research findings. b. Behaviorists emphasized unconscious processes. c. Behaviorism was too focused on explanations based on animal research. d. Behaviorists gave too much weight to genetic influences on personality. 110. Which psychologist proposed that human motives can be ordered in a hierarchical fashion? a. Jan-Carl Raspe b. Abraham Maslow c. Alfred Adler d. Carl Rogers 111. Imagine that your personality structure was like an iceberg bobbing in the Arctic sea. According to psychoanalytic theory, what would you have to do to locate your id? a. Take a deep breath, and duck under the water’s surface. b. Swim to the deepest reaches of the waters. c. Wait for the iceberg to melt. d. Climb to the top of the iceberg. 112. Aldo is frustrated by his inability to advance in his occupation, command the respect of his children, and attain marital satisfaction. How would Aldo apply the defense mechanism of regression to deal with his anxious feelings? a. He would direct his feelings of frustration onto the poor driving skills of his rush hour companions. b. He would throw a temper tantrum to show his frustration. c. He would pay a prostitute to say nice things about him and make him feel good about himself. d. He would push his frustrated feelings deep into unconsciousness.

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Chapter 11_11e 113. How does psychoanalytic theory attempt to explain personality? a. By focusing on genetic predispositions toward behaving in stereotypical ways toward others b. By focusing on the qualities that allow people to grow, prosper, and become the best selves they can be c. By focusing on sexual urges, early childhood experiences, and unconscious conflicts d. By focusing on learned patterns of behavior that either facilitate or hinder social interactions 114. What do psychosexual stages of development refer to? a. Sexual experimentation that takes place during adolescence b. The gradual unfolding of sexual orientation over time c. A lifelong pattern of repressing sexual urges deemed unacceptable by society d. Developmental periods characterized by a distinct sexual focus 115. Angela has low self-efficacy in regard to her academic abilities. Although she is smart and capable of mastering the material on her upcoming examination, what behavior is Angela likely to display? a. She will study an hour each day for the seven days prior to the exam. b. She will study her typical amount of time, and then add another hour to it. c. She will skip the exam, then petition for a make-up test. d. She will study poorly, haphazardly, and briefly. 116. According to Adler, overcompensation a. refers to one’s belief about one’s ability to perform behaviors that should lead to expected outcomes. b. involves bolstering self-esteem by forming an imaginary or real alliance with some person or group. c. involves efforts to overcome imagined or real inferiorities by developing one’s abilities. d. refers to largely unconscious reactions that protect a person from unpleasant emotions. 117. What are the two mechanisms Alfred Adler proposed for causing an inferiority complex? a. Adult romantic attachments and childhood parental attachments b. Childhood trauma and abuse c. Parental pampering and parental neglect d. Early sibling relationships and early peer relationships 118. Five-year-old Noah often tells his older sister, “I can’t wait to grow up, so I can marry mommy.” Noah is MOST likely in the stage of personality development that Freud referred to as the a. anal stage. b. oral stage. c. phallic stage. d. latency stage. 119. Why is factor analysis used in the study of personality? a. To identify basic, higher-order traits b. To eliminate core traits that aren’t descriptive of many people c. To increase the number of trait terms that can be applied to people d. To catalog specific personality traits Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11_11e 120. What type of narcissism do most researchers focus on? a. Unstable narcissism b. Genetic narcissism c. Transitory narcissism d. Grandiose narcissism 121. According to psychoanalytic theory, at what level of awareness does the id operate? a. Both conscious and unconscious b. Conscious c. Both conscious and preconscious d. Unconscious 122. What kind of narcissism is characterized by aggressiveness and arrogance? a. Grandiose narcissism b. Interpersonal narcissism c. Intrapersonal narcissism d. Vulnerable narcissism 123. If the id were to be unregulated, what would be its primary motto? a. “The needs of others before the needs of myself.” b. “In all things, moderation.” c. “Time flies like the wind.” d. “Crush, kill, destroy!” 124. According to psychoanalytic theory, what does the defense mechanism of reaction formation involve? a. Behaving in a way that is the exact opposite of one’s genuine feelings b. Forming an imaginary alliance with a group in order to boost self-esteem c. Keeping distressing thoughts buried in unconsciousness d. Diverting emotional feelings to a substitute target 125. How does self-esteem serve a terror management function? a. By distracting an individual from world events b. By placing the needs of the culture over the needs of the self c. By placing the needs of the self over the needs of the culture d. By acting as a buffer against anxiety 126. Lenny is really angry with his boss, but feels afraid to express that anger for fear of losing his job. If Lenny uses the defense mechanism of displacement, what behavior will likely result? a. Lenny drinks heavily to try to forget his troubles. b. Lenny yells at his wife after a stressful day at work. c. Lenny sits in his cubicle and pouts all day. d. Lenny concludes that his boss is actually angry at him.

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Chapter 11_11e 127. What did Freud claim resulted from the intrapsychic conflicts between the id, ego, and superego? a. Feelings of hostility that fuel the id’s desires. b. Feelings of anxiety that reach conscious awareness. c. A feeling of calm that guides the superego to correct moral action. d. Feelings of guilt that remain unconscious. 128. What would be the most convincing evidence that heritability plays a larger role than environmental factors in the development of personality? a. Siblings raised in the same household show strong personality similarities. b. Adopted children’s personalities are more similar to their adoptive parents’ personalities than to their biological parents’ personalities. c. Identical twins raised in different households show strong personality similarities. d. Randomly paired individuals show more personality similarities than do siblings. 129. How many levels of awareness did Sigmund Freud propose existed in humans? a. Five b. Three c. Two d. One 130. Clarissa knows that she should do her chores before her parents return home, but she really would rather not. How would Clarissa apply the defense mechanism of rationalization to deal with the conflict between doing what’s expected of her and doing what she’d rather be doing? a. By concluding that her mother is actually the one causing Clarissa to feel lazy b. By burying her feelings of guilt into the unconsciousn and out of conscious awareness c. By telling herself, “The house is just going to get dirty again, so it’s more efficient to clean later rather than now” d. By blaming her little brother for his inability to keep his own room clean 131. What is an archetype? a. The discrepancy between an individual’s feelings of inferiority and superiority b. An emotionally charged image conveying universal meaning and symbolism c. The basis of all dream content d. A “best case example” used to judge specific examples of a concept 132. Sometimes, the need to defend one’s cultural worldview can lead to a. prejudice and discrimination. b. greater likelihood of an early death. c. an abandonment of those cultural principles. d. increased mortality salience.

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Chapter 11_11e 133. According to psychoanalytic theory, during which stage of psychosexual development does the Oedipal crisis take place? a. Genital b. Latency c. Phallic d. Anal 134. Which dimension was given prominence in Eysenck’s personality theory? a. Agreeableness-shyness b. Dominance-submission c. Contentment-displeasure d. Introversion-extraversion 135. According to psychoanalytic theory, what does the defense mechanism of projection involve? a. Creating plausible excuses to justify unacceptable behavior b. Behaving in a way that is the exact opposite of one’s genuine feelings c. Attributing one’s own feelings, thoughts, or motives to another person d. Reverting to an earlier, immature pattern of behavior 136. What does a “model” refer to in the context of social cognitive theory? a. A “best case scenario” for personality development b. A person whose behavior is observed c. The process of trial-and-error learning d. A mental representation of a desired outcome 137. Dr. Gonzalez assumes that humans share an evolutionary heritage with other animals that includes instinctive drive for self-preservation, but unlike animals, humans have also evolved complex cognitive abilities that permit self-awareness. Dr. Gonzalez’s views are similar to the view of personality put forward by the a. evolutionary perspective. b. behavioral perspective. c. terror management theory. d. humanistic theory. 138. In humanistic psychology, incongruence refers to a. a mismatch between a person’s ambitions and that person’s limitations. b. a shortcoming in a person’s self-esteem that hinders personal growth. c. a discrepancy between a person’s self-concept and that person’s actual experiences. d. an inability to experience objective reality.

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Chapter 11_11e 139. Isaak seeks to fulfill his physiological needs in Maslow’s hierarchy. What option would best satisfy that need? a. Locate a reliable food supply b. Fully realize his basic human potential c. Attain the job promotion he’s been working toward d. Visit the local museum each Friday 140. Although Clarence shows evidence of narcissism, he is actually rather introverted and neurotic. What kind of narcissism characterizes Clarence? a. False narcissism b. Graduated narcissism c. Vulnerable narcissism d. Grandiose narcissism 141. What is the primary theoretical difference between behaviorism and social cognitive theory? a. The role assigned to unobservable processes in shaping personality and behavior b. The degree of emphasis placed on moral development during personality formation c. The extent to which the id is seen as the central instigator of behavior d. Whether reinforcement or punishment is more effective in shaping personality 142. The occurrence of so-called copycat crimes where someone hijacks an airliner after seeing a movie about a hijacking provides anecdotal evidence for a. Bandura’s social cognitive theory. b. Skinner’s operant conditioning theory. c. Freud’s psychoanalytic theory. d. Adler’s individual psychology. 143. Which of the Big Five personality dimensions has been reliably associated with an elevated prevalence of physical and mental disorders? a. Extraversion b. Neuroticism c. Conscientiousness d. Agreeableness 144. How can terror be managed, according to terror management theory? a. By boosting one’s self-esteem b. Through isolation and self-reflection c. Through denial of the terror d. By abandoning cultural values

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Chapter 11_11e 145. Gino has been described as “nothing but id.” Gino is hungry, but he’s got no cash. What will Gino do? a. Run home as quickly as possible to get something to eat b. Use the defense mechanism of denial to squelch his hunger pangs c. Steal a package of cupcakes from the local convenience store d. Distract himself with thoughts of starving children 146. National character refers to a. a “prototypical” personality of an identifiable cultural group. b. the most internationally recognizable individual from a given culture. c. the degree to which individuals in a given culture support the political ideology of that culture. d. the greatest amount of disparity between one culture and another on a given personality dimension. 147. What is a characteristic of a person that has reached self-actualization? a. Personality extremes b. Clouded perceptions of reality c. Being spontaneous d. Numerous friendships 148. Raphe is often nervous about bringing his report cards home. Although his parents say they love him, he feels that they only really love him when he obtains excellent grades. Based on Carl Rogers's theory, Raphe perceives his parents’ affection as a. conditional, and he is likely to develop congruence in his self-concept. b. unconditional, and he is likely to develop incongruence in his self-concept. c. unconditional, and he is likely to develop congruence in his self-concept. d. conditional, and he is likely to develop incongruence in his self-concept. 149. A person’s shared family environment tends to a. exert very little impact on that individual’s personality. b. account for approximately 70 percent of the variability in an individual’s personality traits. c. have a greater impact on the personality development of sibling bonds rather than on those of a single individual. d. be a substantial influence in shaping that individual’s personality development. 150. Kwaku has just lost a close friend to death and has begun thinking about his own death. As a result, Kwaku is likely to a. work less at defending his world view. b. suggest lighter penalties for moral transgressions. c. respond more positively to people who criticize his country. d. show more respect for cultural icons.

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Chapter 11_11e 151. Martin tells his roommate, “I really like to try new things and I'm interested in a variety of different occupations”. Which "Big Five" personality dimension would apply to Martin? a. Agreeableness b. Neuroticism c. Conscientiousness d. Openness to experience 152. Sara has an inflated sense of her own self-worth. She exploits others for her own benefit, expects credit for doing nothing, and constantly craves being the center of attention. What personality trait summarizes Sara’s thoughts and behaviors? a. Extraversion b. Openness to experience c. Narcissism d. Neuroticism 153. What is the relationship between perceptions of national character and actual trait measures of people in that same culture? a. The correlation between these variables is quite high. b. Correlations between these variables are large and negative, as predicted. c. There is essentially no correlation between these two factors. d. These two factors show a modest but consistent correlation. 154. Which of the following is a characteristic of a self-actualizing person? a. Having a strong need to affiliate with many people b. Enjoying unexpected spontaneous experiences c. Earning employee of the month d. Having a strong need to be accepted by others 155. Why were Carl Jung and Alfred Adler critical of Freud's theoretical perspective? a. Jung and Adler disagreed with Freud’s emphasis of childhood experiences. b. Jung and Adler argued that there was no role for the unconscious in explaining behavior. c. Jung and Adler thought Freud placed too much emphasis on sexuality. d. Jung and Adler wanted to develop a trait-based model of personality. 156. How did Maslow describe the top layers of his hierarchy of needs? a. Maslow called these “unreachable needs.” b. Maslow thought everyone needed to achieve these needs only once in their lifetime. c. Maslow called these “growth needs.” d. Maslow’s research empirically supported that around 50 percent of the population would achieve these needs.

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Chapter 11_11e 157. Yesterday Felipe was introduced to his boyfriends’ parents for the first time. If Felipe fell prey to an unconscious “slip of the tongue,” what might he have said? a. “Hello, I’m Felipe.” b. “Would you like some coffee?” c. “So sad to meet you.” d. “My name is Raphael.” 158. Chris defines himself in terms of his unique attributes and personal goals. Where does Chris likely reside? a. Seoul, South Korea b. Xiqi, China c. Dayton, Ohio d. Osaka, Japan 159. Hans Eysenck argued that an individual’s personality was largely determined by a. daily experience. b. genetics. c. academic learning. d. parental control. 160. Taffi proclaimed, “I’m so outgoing! My extraversion gene must be fully developed!” Which statement would you apply to Taffi’s announcement to solve the problem of her mistaken conclusion? a. “You’re close, but actually it’s the outgoingness gene that’s at work here.” b. “There is no evidence that genetics has any influence on personality.” c. “There is no evidence that genetics has any influence on behavior.” d. “The influence of any one gene on a complex set of behaviors is likely to be exceedingly small.” 161. Mortality salience refers to a. an individual’s life expectancy. b. the degree to which mortality is present in a person’s mind. c. the manner in which a person will die. d. the likelihood that physical death is imminent. 162. According to psychoanalytic theory, when does the genital stage of psychosexual development occur? a. Between the ages of three to six b. With the onset of puberty c. Between ages 6 and 12 d. Between birth and one year

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Chapter 11_11e 163. Based on her current narcissistic attitudes, which behavior would you expect 19-year-old Melanie to demonstrate? a. Driving her gas-guzzling car to her cosmetic surgery appointment b. Playing pinochle with her friends on a Friday night c. Working in a soup kitchen to feed the hungry d. Tutoring her roommate in chemistry, so they can both get a good grade 164. Increasing mortality salience leads people to a. work less at defending their worldview. b. hand out lighter penalties to lawbreakers. c. show more interest in their cultural views. d. respond more positively to people who criticize their country. 165. A person operating on the reality principle seeks a. immediate gratification of desires. b. to achieve perfect accomplishments. c. access to unconscious motivations. d. rational means for obtaining gratification. 166. Kayla seeks to fulfill her security needs in Maslow’s hierarchy. What option would best satisfy that need? a. Take up oil painting b. Visit the public library on a regular basis c. Find a safe place to live and a steady source of income d. Locate a reliable food supply 167. Ariana seeks to fulfill her esteem needs in Maslow’s hierarchy. What option would best satisfy that need? a. Find a safe place to live and a steady source of income b. Join a social club c. Visit the local museum each Friday d. Attain the job promotion she’s been working toward 168. When people are reminded of their own mortality, what can often result? a. Greater feelings of oneness with the universe b. More frequent displays of helping behavior directed toward dissimilar others c. More positive evaluations of diverse cultural groups d. Increased aggression toward people holding opposing cultural views 169. Arnie wants to take an evolutionary approach to finding a dating partner. Which strategy should he adopt? a. Wait in a crowded area of campus and pick a person at random to strike up a conversation b. Ask his parents to recommend someone that each of them would be attracted to c. Look for the most friendly, outgoing, and innovative person at next Friday’s party d. Wait for his roommate to break up with his dating partner, then ask that person out

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Chapter 11_11e 170. According to psychoanalytic theory, what do both the id and the ego ultimately want? a. To act in a morally acceptable way b. To delay gratification c. To maximize gratification d. To accept the constraints imposed by daily living 171. From an evolutionary perspective, why is the ability to recognize trait-based behavior in others an adaptive advantage? a. It isolates an individual from diseased or needy others. b. It sharpens perceptual processes necessary for food-gathering. c. It contributes to reproductive fitness. d. It provides the basis for government and laws. 172. Massimo tends to be the “lone” member of his peer group. When others laugh, he scoffs. When others cry, he wisecracks. Which aspect of personality would best apply to Massimo’s behavior? a. Co-acceptance b. Distinctiveness c. Indifference d. Consistency 173. Chad and Jeremy have a friendly rivalry brewing. They’ve been trying to see who can be more outgoing, upbeat, sociable, and assertive in their dealings with others. What prize would you award to whomever wins this contest? a. The Conscientiousness Crown b. The Agreeableness Award c. The Openness Honor d. The Extraversion Endowment 174. What type of material would be stored in the collective unconscious? a. The ancestral notion of “community” b. Repressed violent urges c. The superego d. Repressed sexual fantasies 175. How has national character been investigated in regard to the five-factor trait model of personality? a. Whichever one trait is reported most often in large-scale opinion polls will be taken as defining that culture’s national character. b. Members of a given culture are asked to identify characteristic traits of other cultures, with the process repeated worldwide. c. Anthropologists and sociologists working in a given culture provide ratings of what they think a “normative” person in that culture is like. d. People’s average ratings of a typical member of their culture are correlated with actual ratings of people in that culture.

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Chapter 11_11e 176. What psychodynamic proposal has been generally accepted by modern psychologists? a. Childhood experiences are irrelevant to adult development. b. Archetypes guide behavior in uncertain situations. c. Unconscious forces can influence behavior. d. People can readily tap into the collective unconscious. 177. “Holy moley!” Francis cried. “It just hit me; I’m going to DIE someday!!” According to terror management theory, what behavior is Francis likely to perform, given his sudden realization? a. Try a new activity that he’s not very good at b. Attend religious services that reaffirm his beliefs c. Recall times when he embarrassed himself in public d. Change his worldview to become more pessimistic 178. According to psychoanalytic theory, what does the defense mechanism of regression involve? a. Attributing one’s own feelings, thoughts, or motives to another person b. Creating plausible excuses to justify unacceptable behavior c. Diverting emotional feelings to a substitute target d. Reverting to an earlier, immature pattern of behavior 179. Which of the following would MOST likely be an example of a Jungian archetype? a. A child's art project from school b. A Dodge Charger c. Your high school graduation picture d. The villain in a popular mystery movie 180. Jerrica is eight years old. Her parents have always spoiled her and given her anything that she has asked for. Based on Adler’s theory of individual psychology, this parental pampering may cause Jerrica a. to develop exaggerated feelings of weakness and inadequacy. b. to develop a weak superego. c. to be dominated by her superego as an adult. d. to develop feelings of competence and self-sufficiency. 181. What word would an American child be likely to apply to herself? a. “Unique” b. “Communal” c. “Related” d. “Attached”

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Chapter 11_11e 182. Nadya finds that when she looks downward, bats her eyes, and whispers, people pay her more attention. This attention is very reinforcing to Nadya. How might a behaviorist use the personality dimension of introspectiveness to modify Nadya’s behavior? a. Reduce the number of people who respond to these behaviors to reduce their reinforcing nature. b. Guide Nadya through a dream analysis that focuses on her inner desires and hidden needs. c. Provide Nadya with information summarizing the benefits of being outspoken. d. Have Nadya outline her goals that could be met by engaging with others more socially. 183. One of the major points Mischel makes about personality is that a. people behave more consistently across situations than we have thought. b. many personal traits are genetically determined. c. the idea of traits is fundamental to understanding personality. d. people will often behave differently in different situations. 184. Which of the following is a personality trait marked by an inflated sense of self-worth and a tendency to exploit other people? a. Extraversion b. Sadism c. Narcissism d. Mortality salience 185. If she is using the defense mechanism of projection, a mother who actually hates her son would MOST likely be both unaware of her hatred and a. direct her hated toward her daughter. b. act in an extremely loving way toward her son. c. act in an extremely critical way toward her son. d. believe that her son hated her. 186. Why did Skinner reject notions of an internal structure of personality? a. There was conflicting evidence regarding the precise nature of such a structure. b. Personality structures vary from person to person. c. An Internal structure can’t be directly observed. d. Skinner thought that more weight should be given to unconscious processes. 187. Based on social trends, levels of narcissism in college students have a. remained stable. b. increased. c. decreased slightly. d. decreased considerably.

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Chapter 11_11e 188. What is a major criticism of psychodynamic ideas? a. They are too vague to permit scientific testability. b. Freud didn’t emphasize the importance of dreams enough. c. They have not had much impact on personality theory. d. They assigned too small a role to the collective unconscious in motivating behavior. 189. According to psychoanalytic theory, which principle does the ego follow? a. Pleasure principle b. Pareto principle c. Reality principle d. Striving principle 190. What is one of the most commonly used self-report measures of personality? a. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) b. Mood Awareness Scale (MAS) c. Scale of Nonverbal Expressiveness (SNEX) d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) 191. How might the traits of being compassionate, unpretentious, collaborative, trusting, and candid be conceptualized as a fundamental trait? a. These traits represent basic-level, fundamental traits on their own. b. These traits would be manifestations of the more fundamental trait of impulsivity. c. These traits would be manifestations of the more fundamental trait of agreeableness. d. These traits would be manifestations of the more fundamental trait of neuroticism. 192. How did Hans Eysenck conceive of the structure of personality? a. As a collection of unrelated traits b. As a product of environmental shaping c. As a hierarchy of traits d. As an illusory concept 193. What is the erotic focus of children during the phallic stage of psychosexual development? a. Sucking b. Being sexually intimate c. Expelling feces d. Masturbating 194. According to Rogers, for a child to develop a healthy personality, the parents must a. avoid the use of punishment. b. address the child's ego needs. c. exhibit unconditional love towards the child. d. create an atmosphere of intellectual stimulation.

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Chapter 11_11e 195. Loana is an early ancestor who has shown a consistent inability to effectively handle stressful situations. What actions would her tribemates apply to Loana’s situation? a. Work with Loana to reduce her anxiety b. Make Loana the leader of the group c. Banish Loana from the group d. Mate Loana with the fittest male 196. Why do evolutionary theorists assume personality has a biological basis? a. Behavior is nothing more than the unfolding of genetic tendencies. b. Natural selection has favored some traits over others across evolutionary history. c. Unconscious processes have led some traits to dominate others. d. Learning and reinforcement cannot account for the wide variety of traits currently seen in humans. 197. What did Carl Jung call his approach to psychology? a. Individual psychology b. Analytical psychology c. Psychoanalytic theory d. Personology 198. When considering internal conflict resolution, Freud assigned a prominent role to the impulses of a. hunger and thirst. b. peace and love. c. sex and aggression. d. hate and war. 199. What kind of self-view do Asian cultures tend to foster in their members? a. Dependence b. Co-dependence c. Independence d. Interdependence 200. According to psychoanalytic theory, which component of personality is primitive and instinctive? a. Id b. Ego c. Preconscious d. Superego

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Chapter 11_11e Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. c 10. d 11. d 12. d 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. c 26. a

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Chapter 11_11e 27. a 28. d 29. b 30. c 31. d 32. a 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. a 41. c 42. c 43. c 44. a 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. d 50. d 51. d 52. a 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11_11e 55. a 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. c 60. a 61. d 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. d 71. c 72. c 73. b 74. b 75. c 76. d 77. a 78. d 79. b 80. a 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11_11e 83. a 84. a 85. b 86. c 87. c 88. d 89. b 90. a 91. d 92. c 93. c 94. d 95. c 96. a 97. a 98. c 99. a 100. a 101. a 102. a 103. b 104. a 105. b 106. c 107. c 108. a 109. c 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11_11e 111. b 112. b 113. c 114. d 115. d 116. c 117. c 118. c 119. a 120. d 121. d 122. a 123. d 124. a 125. d 126. b 127. b 128. c 129. b 130. c 131. b 132. a 133. c 134. d 135. c 136. b 137. c

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Chapter 11_11e 138. c 139. a 140. c 141. a 142. a 143. b 144. a 145. c 146. a 147. c 148. d 149. a 150. d 151. d 152. c 153. c 154. b 155. c 156. c 157. c 158. c 159. b 160. d 161. b 162. b 163. a 164. c 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11_11e 166. c 167. d 168. d 169. c 170. c 171. c 172. b 173. d 174. a 175. d 176. c 177. b 178. d 179. d 180. a 181. a 182. a 183. d 184. c 185. d 186. c 187. b 188. a 189. c 190. d 191. c 192. c 193. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11_11e 194. c 195. c 196. b 197. b 198. c 199. d 200. a

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Chapter 12_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. If Franco is asked why he dates Carla, according to the actor-observer effect, what reason would he give? a. She is good looking. b. He is desperate. c. He likes her sense of humor. d. He needs her. 2. Guido wants to make sure his campus group works hard to complete their service project. What should he do to maximize this likelihood? a. Encourage everyone to “work really hard” b. Assign each group member a specific task to complete c. Complete most of the tasks himself, to provide a good example d. Let the group decide for themselves who should do what 3. Why does the bystander effect take place? a. People are basically callous toward others when faced with a situation that might endanger their own well-being. b. Group polarization leads to an increase in social loafing. c. Diffusion of responsibility leads each group member to feel less personal responsibility for acting. d. Most people don’t know how to administer basic assistance, such as comforting a person or calling for help. 4. Group cohesiveness refers to a. how much group members like the task they are faced with. b. the pressure felt by group members to reach a unanimous decision on an issue. c. how much group members understand the task they are faced with. d. the strength of relationships linking group members to one another. 5. Which situation illustrates the cognitive component of an attitude? a. “I can’t stand poodles!” b. “I would never have a poodle as a pet.” c. “Poodles are messy and difficult to train.” d. “I think poodles are great.” 6. According to the self-serving bias, people tend to a. seek out situations that will verify their self-conceptions. b. attribute their successes internally and their failures externally. c. attribute their own behavior to the situation, but others' behavior to dispositions. d. exaggerate their causal role or contribution to events.

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Chapter 12_11e 7. Which factor has a significant impact on the likelihood of conformity? a. Group size b. Age c. Gender d. Personality 8. What is the main reason we tend to make internal attributions? a. It is easy. b. It is the fairest method. c. People are naturally suspicious of their own behavior. d. People are naturally suspicious of other people's behavior. 9. We generally like people who like us in return. This is known as a. the similarity effect. b. the self-serving bias. c. the matching hypothesis. d. the reciprocity effect. 10. The bystander effect refers to a. the tendency of people to offer less assistance in a time of need when they are with others, compared to when they are alone. b. the phenomenon in which bystanders are more likely to demonstrate eye contact when group size is smaller. c. the tendency for larger groups of people to be more likely to render aid compared to smaller groups of people. d. the phenomenon in which bystanders are more likely to demonstrate eye contact when group size is larger. 11. What does the research regarding online matching versus traditional dating indicate? a. There is considerable evidence supporting the conclusion that online matching is far superior to traditional dating. b. Online matching is only superior in initially forming relationships, but traditional dating is superior in maintaining long-term relationships. c. There is extremely limited evidence to support that online matching is superior to traditional dating. d. There is considerable evidence supporting the conclusion that traditional dating is far superior to online matching. 12. In Milgram’s research on obedience, what did the experimenter do when the teacher questioned whether the experiment should continue? a. The teacher was verbally abused. b. The teacher was shocked. c. The teacher was given verbal prompts to continue. d. The teacher was requested to change places with the learner.

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Chapter 12_11e 13. Myron' sister asks him to summarize what he learned about interpersonal attraction in his psychology class. What would be the easiest way to summarize what he learned? a. “Beauty is only skin deep.” b. “Birds of a feather flock together.” c. “What you seek is seeking you." d. “Opposites attract.” 14. Keisha is a member of a jury and just voted “guilty.” All the other jury members have voted “not guilty.” At this point in time, the other jury members should classify Keisha a. as a member of their group. b. as using a confirmation bias. c. as a member of their outgroup. d. as outside their latitude of acceptance. 15. How do implicit and explicit attitudes differ? a. Explicit attitudes are held toward objective elements in the world, whereas implicit attitudes refer to a person’s ideas or concepts. b. Explicit attitudes are difficult to define, while implicit attitudes can usually be summarized in a word or two. c. Explicit attitudes represent the behavioral component of attitudes, whereas implicit attitudes represent the cognitive component of attitudes. d. Explicit attitudes can be easily described by the person holding them. Implicit attitudes are under little conscious control. 16. Which of the following social influence techniques involves getting someone to commit to an attractive proposition before its hidden costs are revealed? a. Lowball techniques b. Highball techniques c. Reciprocity norm d. Foot-in-the-door techniques 17. What is an example on an internal, stable cause of behavior? a. Luck b. Mood c. Task difficulty d. Ability 18. What is the fundamental attribution error? a. The tendency to overestimate the internal causes of another person’s behavior b. The tendency to assign negative motivations for another person’s behaviors c. The tendency to make external attributions for our own behaviors d. The tendency to paint ourselves in a favorable attributional light

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Chapter 12_11e 19. Social psychologists define an attitude as a. the opinions that people have about substantive issues. b. the feelings that people have about specific individuals. c. the positive or negative evaluations of an object of thought. d. the beliefs that people have about a group of people. 20. When Shanell’s friends decide to go to a movie instead of a restaurant, Shanell goes along with them because she is afraid her friends will reject her if she doesn’t. Shanell’s behavior is being influenced by a. obedience. b. normative influence. c. informational influence. d. the foot-in-the-door technique. 21. Why does the fundamental attribution error occur? a. We perceive others to be more similar to ourselves than they really are. b. People overestimate the situational constraints on an actor’s behavior. c. Making an internal attribution is an effortful process. d. People underestimate the situational constraints on an actor’s behavior. 22. According to evolutionary theorists, which of the following factors is likely to be the MOST important for a female seeking a prospective mate? a. Ambition b. Youthfulness c. Physical strength d. Physical attractiveness 23. Which phrase would be more likely to be uttered during Burger’s obedience experiment than Milgram’s obedience experiment? a. “The experiment requires that you continue.” b. “You have no other choice but to continue.” c. “Remember, you can quit at any time if you’d like to.” d. “It is absolutely essential that you continue.” 24. How do social psychologists define a group? a. Two or more individuals who interact and are interdependent b. A crowd of people occupying the same space at the same time c. Team members assembled for a common purpose d. Any collection of three or more people

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Chapter 12_11e 25. Quinn is participating in an experiment where participants are shown 4 lines of varying lengths. Quinn hears three people give what he think is an incorrect answer (“Line 3”) and one person gives what he think is a correct answer (“Line 1”). What reply is Quinn MOST likely to give? a. “Line 1” b. “Line 2” c. “Line 3” d. “Line 4” 26. Rodney experienced anxious-ambivalent attachment to his caregivers as a child. Now as an adult, he wants to form a romantic bond with a partner. What behavior is Rodney most likely to display? a. Showing indifference to the romantic overtures of various potential partners b. Calling his romantic partner daily to make sure he is where he says he is c. Establishing trust early in his relationship d. Accepting his partner for who he is, as he is 27. Based on what you know regarding the empirical evidence on obedience, why would people obey the commands of an authority figure? a. People are easily manipulated to follow orders. b. People are naturally compliant. c. Anyone subjected to the correct situational forces could obey. d. People fear punishment for disobedience. 28. As a result of the fundamental attribution error, if you observe a construction worker relaxing under a tree, you would be MOST likely to conclude that the worker is a. taking his scheduled work break. b. lazy. c. taking a well-deserved break after strenuous work. d. taking a break because it is hot and humid today. 29. What tendency are people most likely to exhibit when encountering another person’s ambiguous behavior? a. Gather more information about the person as a unique individual b. Give the actor the benefit of the doubt c. Apply a different stereotype to that person d. Interpret the behavior in a way that confirms expectations 30. How do researchers conceptualize passionate love? a. Absorption in another person, accompanied by sexual feelings and intense emotion b. Liking another person coupled with feelings of respect for that person c. A variety of infatuation, usually directed toward another person but sometimes directed toward the self d. A desire for sexual relations with another person who may or may not share that desire

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Chapter 12_11e 31. Ada has an individualistic cultural outlook. How will she respond when asked about her personal attributes? a. “I am Korean.” b. “I’m one of several brothers and sisters.” c. “I’m a no-nonsense go-getter.” d. “I am my mother’s daughter.” 32. What do social psychologists recognize about stereotyping? a. Stereotyping is always pejorative and negative in its connotations. b. Stereotypes about women are much more common than stereotypes about men. c. Stereotyping is a normal cognitive process designed to speed the processing of social information. d. Stereotypes about some ethnic groups are accurate. 33. Which situation illustrates the affective component of an attitude? a. “I would never have a poodle as a pet.” b. “I don’t know anything about poodles.” c. “I can’t stand poodles!” d. “Poodles are messy and difficult to train.” 34. Under what circumstances would the fundamental attribution error and the actor-observer effect produce the same attribution? a. Any time actors are explaining their own behavior b. When actors are explaining the reasons for their success c. When observers are explaining someone else’s behavior d. When actors are explaining the reasons for their failure 35. Eloise experienced avoidant attachment to her caregivers as a child. As an adult, she would like to pursue a romantic relationship. What behavior is Eloise most likely to engage in? a. Establishing trust early in her relationship b. Arranging activities that her partner would enjoy but she wouldn’t c. Arranging activities that both she and her partner would enjoy d. Maintaining an emotional distance from her partner 36. Julian listens to the music of The Residents. He does so because several attractive dormmates also listen to The Residents, and he wants to be part of the crowd. What is Julian’s music choice an example of? a. Attitude change b. Conformity c. Obedience d. Personal taste

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Chapter 12_11e 37. The illusory correlation effect occurs when we a. incorrectly assume that one social trait is the cause of another, simply because we have observed that they are correlated. b. are motivated to accurately estimate the frequency with which some pattern of social traits occurs. c. see correlations between social traits that really aren’t there, because our expectations distort our memories. d. fail to see true correlations between social traits, because our expectations distort our memories. 38. In which city would you be likely to find residents who value interdependence over independence? a. Paris, France b. Chicago, Illinois c. London, England d. Pyongyang, North Korea 39. To produce maximum conformity in a task such as line judging, how large does the group need to be? a. Two members b. Four members c. Seven members d. Fifteen members 40. What did early research on group decision-making indicate? a. Group discussion leads to riskier decision-making b. Group discussion leads to decisions that are irrelevant to the task at hand c. Group discussion is less effective than leader preferences when reaching a decision d. Group discussion leads to more conservative decision-making 41. Which cultural group is more susceptible to committing the fundamental attribution error? a. Members of individualistic cultures b. Members of collectivist cultures c. Members of both individualistic and collectivist cultures are equally susceptible d. Members of specific subcultures 42. How do social psychologists define a stereotype? a. A belief that certain characteristics apply to an individual because of that individual’s membership in a given group b. A negative attitude about a particular person c. Unfavorable assumptions made about a specific racial group d. Discriminatory behavior directed toward a person who differs in some substantial way from the person showing the discrimination

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Chapter 12_11e 43. Matty told Harriet that, later that same day, he was going to try to convince her to change her attitude toward the nutritional merits of doughnuts. Based on research findings regarding persuasion, how effective is Matty’s strategy? a. Fairly effective; the effects of forewarning on attitude change are not clearly understood. b. Very effective; forewarning serves to reduce the amount of counter arguing engaged in by a target. c. Fairly effective; forewarning usually "primes" a target to be more responsive to an attitude-change message. d. Not very effective; forewarning tends to reduce the effectiveness of an attitude-change message. 44. Why do central route attitude-change messages tend to have a lasting impact? a. They utilize visual channels of communication, which are more effective than other channels. b. They are based on flashy, nonsubstantive message factors. c. They inspire high elaboration of the message on the part of the receiver. d. They lead to minimal processing of the information. 45. If Carlos wants to feel better about himself and boost his self-esteem, which attributional process should he engage in? a. The self-serving bias b. The actor-observer bias c. The fundamental attribution error d. The stability bias 46. How generalizable are the results of Milgram’s original obedience studies? a. Milgram’s results were unsubstantiated at best; other researchers have not been able to duplicate his findings. b. The results have been replicated, but only using samples of men, as Milgram originally did. c. No one has tried to replicate Milgram’s experiment, so we don’t know how generalizable the results are. d. The results are quite robust; they have been replicated consistently under a variety of conditions. 47. Widely held beliefs about groups of people based on their group membership defines a. cognitive structuring. b. cultural direction. c. stereotypes. d. schematizing 48. Which of the following statements is MOST likely true about the relationship between attitudes and a person's behavior? a. A person's attitudes can predict their behavior extremely well. b. A person's attitudes do not predict their behavior. c. A person's attitudes are mediocre at predicting their behavior. d. A person's attitudes are very poor at predicting their behavior.

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Chapter 12_11e 49. Based on research investigating infant attachment styles, which attachment pattern characterizes most adult romantic relationships? a. Secure attachment b. Avoidant attachment c. Dependent attachment d. Anxious-ambivalent attachment 50. How do social psychologists define interpersonal attraction? a. Feelings of attachment b. A commitment of love c. Entering a monogamous relationship d. Positive feelings toward another person 51. When people estimate that they have encountered more confirmations of an association between social traits than they have actually seen, they have a. created a stereotype. b. made an illusory correlation. c. made a covariation inference. d. created a social schema. 52. Willie wants to successfully change someone’s attitudes. Based on receiver factors, which strategy should he adopt? a. Focus on persuading Mei Ling, who has strong attitudes about abortion. b. Focus on persuading Juan, who is susceptible to fear appeals. c. Focus on persuading Leroy, who has poorly formed attitudes about organized religion. d. Focus on persuading Frankie, who knows that counterarguments exist for most persuasive messages. 53. Which adult attachment style is characterized by a lack of intimacy and trust? a. Secure b. Avoidant c. Interdependent d. Anxious-ambivalent 54. What does attitude accessibility refer to? a. How readily an attitude comes to mind b. How strongly held an attitude is c. How easily others can judge a person’s true attitudes on a subject d. How common an attitude is among a well-defined social group

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Chapter 12_11e 55. Which statement best illustrates the role of subjectivity in person perception? a. “They all look alike to me.” b. “We’re all in this together.” c. “It takes one to know one.” d. “To know me is to love me.” 56. Social loafing refers to a. the decreased likelihood of rendering aid in an emergency situation when others are present. b. the tendency to see group tasks as less important than individual tasks when prioritizing activities. c. an inability to define group goals when an ineffective leader is in place. d. the reduced effort by individuals working in a group compared to those same individuals working alone. 57. How are the research findings on physical attractiveness and impression formation and stereotypes related? a. Stereotypical thinking has negative associations, so physically attractive people are rarely associated with stereotypes. b. Impression formation is a speedy process, but applying stereotypes to an individual takes time and mental deliberation. c. Physically attractive people are more likely to engage in stereotypical thinking. d. Assuming that physically attractive people have a range of other favorable attributes is a stereotype. 58. What are attributions? a. Stereotypes about a particular individual b. Inferences about causality c. The basis of attitude formation d. Unique characteristics of an individual 59. How does memory affect biases in person perception? a. Memory for people’s behavior is usually worse than memory for people’s physical characteristics. b. People have difficulty retrieving memories that reinforce stereotypical thinking. c. People often selectively remember information that confirms their stereotypes. d. Memory for a group’s behavior is usually more accurate than memory for a single person’s actions. 60. Madge wants to persuade her children to be more diligent in completing their household chores, so she prepares a short video presentation filled with colorful graphics and peppy music. In this situation, what is the receiver of the attitude-change message? a. Madge b. The peppy music c. The colorful graphics d. Madge’s children

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Chapter 12_11e 61. Which dimension of causality is temporary? a. Stable causes b. Internal causes c. Unstable causes d. External causes 62. Cyndi bets a tidy sum that her university polo team will defeat Brandex University in the upcoming championships. If Cyndi is like most people, after making the bet, cognitive dissonance will lead her to a. decide that Brandex actually has a better team than she thought. b. become even more likely to believe that her university will win. c. become less certain that her university will win. d. not change her opinion about who will win. 63. If you wanted to use operant conditioning to get your roommate to stop expressing an attitude with which you disagree, what strategy would be most effective? a. Reinforce the attitude until your roommate gets tired of expressing it. b. Model a different kind of attitude with your own behavior and expressions. c. Pinch your roommate’s arm each time the attitude is expressed. d. Utter a bizarre chirping sound every third time the attitude is expressed. 64. How do continuously changing modern groups formed on the Internet differ from traditional groups? a. Modern groups interact in a face-to-face fashion. b. Modern groups designate a clearly defined leader. c. Modern groups are composed of a minimum of five members. d. Modern groups tend to be self-managing. 65. Rita believes that racial prejudice is wrong, but she also possesses subtle negative views about other races. Rita’s negative views make up her a. implicit attitudes. b. explicit attitudes. c. defined attitudes. d. peripheral attitudes. 66. In what way are romantic relationships similar across cultures? a. People tend to marry for love rather than convenience or necessity. b. Security, both economic and interpersonal, is valued above all else. c. People seek desirable personal characteristics in a mate, such as intelligence or kindness. d. All romantic relationships begin with mutual feelings of passionate love.

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Chapter 12_11e 67. Chavo explains Chuck’s behavior by making an external attribution. What will he say? a. “He had no choice, given the situation.” b. “He’s lazy.” c. “He’s courageous.” d. “He’s an outgoing person.” 68. How are similarity and attraction related? a. Similarity leads to attraction, but only with regards to physical attractiveness b. Similarity leads to attraction. c. Attraction leads to similarity. d. There is no documented relationship between similarity and attraction. 69. In his studies on conformity, Asch found that if a group of people espouse an opinion contradictory to one’s own opinion, one is MOST likely to a. voice the group's opinion. b. echo the opinion of the nearest group member. c. voice one's own opinion, even though it's contradictory. d. show mild symptoms of learned helplessness. 70. Across a diverse variety of cultures, what feature emerges as a primary element of attractiveness? a. Facial symmetry b. Presence of facial hair c. High waist-to-hip ratio d. Eye color 71. Why does the actor-observer bias take place? a. The actor has access to her or his internal feelings, causing the actor to make an internal attribution for behavior. b. The situation an actor finds herself in is salient to the actor, drawing her attention to the external causes of behavior. c. Behavior is inherently ambiguous; therefore, observers are essentially guessing at causality. d. Observers fall prey to the self-serving bias, leading them to make attributions that are usually incorrect. 72. Individual productivity in groups tends to decrease because of a. worker specialization, due to advanced training. b. lack of leadership, due to power struggles. c. reduced efficiency, due to lack of coordination. d. task difficulty, due to inadequate incentives.

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Chapter 12_11e 73. Chiti believes that all airline pilots are calm, cool individuals who never get excited or show any strong emotional responses. In this case, Chiti’s beliefs about the traits and behaviors of airline pilots are one example of a. the fundamental attribution error. b. a confirmation bias. c. stereotypes. d. the matching hypothesis. 74. Which situation would theoretically maximize the likelihood of receiving assistance during a time of need? a. Heinz is mugged on a busy downtown city street. b. Bruna is sexually harassed on a crowded subway car. c. Lenore twists her ankle in a crowded supermarket. d. Carlos faints in a restroom populated by only one other person. 75. “All foxes are red and white,” River proclaimed. “I know this because I’ve only ever seen red and white foxes." To combat this illusory correlation, what information should River seek? a. Finding more red and white foxes b. Finding a single red and white fox c. Finding several grey coyote d. Finding a single grey fox 76. If you wanted a group to adopt an extreme position on a topic, what should you do? a. Encourage each group member to think through the issue on her or his own timetable. b. Find a group with polarized opinions, and then isolate each of the different factions. c. Find a group already leaning toward that position, and encourage the group members to discuss the issue amongst themselves. d. First create a leaderless group, and then let the group members decide which issue is most important to them. 77. Oni spent a great deal of time and money on becoming a member of a certain club but later discovered that the members of the club were boring. According to dissonance theory, Oni would MOST likely a. continue to extol the virtues of the club to his friends. b. “bad mouth” the club to his friends now. c. engage in denial and disengagement as part of his defensive attribution. d. try to modify the behavior of the current club members. 78. The fact that physical appearance can color people’s perception of a person’s ability and that people often see what they expect to see in social interactions illustrate which of the following unifying themes of your textbook? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Our experience of the world is highly subjective.

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Chapter 12_11e 79. Which cultural outlook emphasizes putting personal goals ahead of group goals? a. Communalism b. Individualism c. Interdependency d. Collectivism 80. The statement, “what-is-beautiful-is-good ” refers to which phenomenon? a. The belief that people have an innate understanding of what is right and wrong. b. The bias that people tend to see the best in people’s intentions. c. The tendency to ascribe desirable personality characteristics to people who are physically attractive. d. The tendency to prescribe more lenient sentences to physically attractive people. 81. What is an example of an internal, unstable cause of behavior? a. Task difficulty b. Effort c. Ability d. Intelligence 82. Fumiko belongs to a collectivist culture. How will she likely respond to having a group project assigned in her physics class? a. “I would rather work on my own than have group project." b. “I would rather do a group project than work on the project alone." c. “I would rather let other people in the group do majority of the work on the project." d. “It is important that I complete more of the project than others in the group." 83. Why did 37 percent of the participants in Solomon Asch’s line-judging experiment provide an incorrect answer to the experimenter? a. They were trying to be “helpful” participants by supplying what they thought the experimenter wanted to hear. b. They were specifically chosen for their weak-willed personality traits. c. Asch insisted that they respond in that manner. d. They heard other participants before them supply that answer, and felt compelled to conform. 84. What does everyone who is not a member of a person’s ingroup automatically become? a. A member of that person’s subgroup b. A member of that person’s outgroup c. A former member of that person’s ingroup d. An ally of that person’s ingroup

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Chapter 12_11e 85. Expertise and trustworthiness are two factors that affect the a. credibility of a source of a persuasive communication. b. message of a source of a persuasive communication. c. likablity of a source of a persuasive communication. d. honesty of a source of a persuasive communication. 86. How could you use effort justification to increase members’ liking for a group? a. Treat the group members with kindness and civility. b. Remind the group members how lucky they are to be in the group. c. Institute an open-membership policy for all who want to join. d. Have the members undergo unpleasant hazing rituals as a requirement of membership. 87. Attitude-change messages when persuasion relies on factors such as the attractiveness of the source or the emotional reaction of the receiver are known as a. central route strategies. b. peripheral route strategies. c. subjective strategies d. objective route strategies. 88. Rocko is explaining why he failed the recent chemistry exam. If he makes an external, stable attribution, what will he say? a. “The test was too hard.” b. “I didn’t study enough.” c. “I’m not smart enough.” d. “I was too sleepy.” 89. What was an early criticism of Milgram’s obedience research? a. Milgram paid participants too much for taking part in the experiment, so they felt obligated to comply. b. The shock levels used weren’t strong enough to inflict real damage to a person. c. Milgram’s results wouldn’t generalize to situations in the world at large. d. The shouts and protests of the “learner” weren’t realistic and convincing. 90. In the two-step model of attribution, what do people do when explaining a behavior? a. Make either an internal or external attribution for the behavior b. Make an external attribution, then revise it if necessary c. Make an internal attribution, then revise it if necessary d. Make an external attribution 91. The benefits of using Facebook can be seen for people who a. expand the number of “Facebook friends” beyond the number of “actual friends.” b. passively view posts and comments from other users. c. engage in active interaction with others. d. delete relationships that prove to be unrewarding. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12_11e 92. Edith is making a class presentation in which she is trying to convince the other students that a proposed change in the requirements for a degree in education will be beneficial in the long run. Based on the research into factors that influence persuasion, Edith will be MOST persuasive if she a. presents only the advantages associated with the proposed change. b. presents only the disadvantages associated with the proposed change. c. is able to arouse cognitive dissonance among her classmates. d. presents both the advantages and disadvantages associated with the proposed change. 93. What type of social influence is based on avoiding negative social consequences? a. Informational influence b. Attitudinal influence c. Normative influence d. Rational influence 94. Which situation illustrates an explicit attitude? a. Shlomo describes how much and why he likes fried pickles. b. Rufus harbors an unintentional dislike for Albanians. c. Henry says he likes Estonians, but his behavior proves otherwise. d. Richie doesn’t realize just how much he prefers schnauzers to labradoodles. 95. Both polarization and groupthink represent shortcomings in group decision-making. How does groupthink differ from group polarization? a. Group polarization is the precursor to groupthink; one can’t occur without the other being present. b. Groupthink is like a “disease” that infects groups, whereas group polarization is an outgrowth of normal group processes. c. Group polarization occurs in large work groups, whereas groupthink can affect any type of group, large or small. d. Groupthink is an inevitable result of group decision- making, whereas group polarization can be arrested before it begins. 96. Hidalgo wants to replicate Asch’s experimental methodology and demonstrate a high rate of conformity. What should he do to accomplish this? a. Select participants who are already easily swayed b. Alternate correct and incorrect responses across his actors c. Use a group of 25 actual research participants d. Instruct his actors to be unanimous in their incorrect choices 97. Giorgio has a collectivist cultural outlook. How will he respond when asked to describe himself? a. “I am rugged and handsome.” b. “I am the son of Maria and Marcello.” c. “I am an outgoing, enthusiastic person.” d. “I am 22 years old.”

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Chapter 12_11e 98. In which cultural setting would passionate love more readily be seen as a basis for marriage? a. Collectivist cultures b. Eastern cultures c. Interdependent cultures d. Western cultures 99. Harboring negative thoughts and feelings about a person because of his or her membership in a particular group defines a. discrimination. b. social judgement. c. prejudice. d. chauvinism. 100. The makers of Johnny’s Freeze-Dried Beef are intent on persuading you to buy their product. You see a commercial featuring energetic young people laughing and smiling as they chew on beef products. What tactic is Johnny most likely using to shape attitudes in this situation? a. Evaluative conditioning b. Expertise c. Operant conditioning d. Fear appeal 101. Which cultural tradition emphasizes defining one’s identity as part of a larger unit? a. Interdependency b. Communalism c. Individualism d. Collectivism 102. Lorenzo is completing an IAT pairing ratings of positivity with images of children and adults. If Lorenzo harbors an implicit prejudice against children, which IAT pairing will produce the quickest reaction time? a. Images of children paired with images of adults b. Images of children paired with positive words c. Images of children paired with negative words d. Images of adults paired with negative words 103. What is the primary basis for evolutionary explanations of love, relationships, and mating? a. Aggression is the best predictor of mate selection. b. Forces that promote desirable personality characteristics will be selected for over time. c. The ability to gather resources predicts heterosexual mate selection. d. Forces that promote reproductive fitness will be selected for over time.

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Chapter 12_11e 104. In the traditional model of attributional processes, what do people do when explaining a behavior? a. Make an external attribution for the behavior b. Make an internal attribution for the behavior c. Suspend judgment until more evidence related to the behavior is gathered d. Make either an internal or external attribution for the behavior 105. The rule that we should pay back in kind what we receive from others is known as the a. display rule. b. reciprocity norm. c. principle of collectivism. d. law of cognitive dissonance. 106. Ingo is explaining why he got a date with Greta. If he wanted to make an external, unstable attribution, what should he say? a. “I persisted.” b. “I’m good looking.” c. “Greta goes out with everybody.” d. “I got lucky.” 107. Which of the following is MOST likely to be viewed as more competent? a. Older people b. People who wear conservative clothing c. People who are physically attractive d. People who mimic our own mannerisms 108. Razi, who grew up in a collectivist culture, was interviewed regarding the role of love in marriage. What is MOST likely the response to the interviewer’s question? a. “Love is the most important piece for any successful marriage.” b. “Love is the only thing that keeps couples together over the long term.” c. “Love is important, but my parents' blessing is more important in choosing who to marry.” d. “Love is more important than my parents' blessing in choosing who to marry.” 109. What is the main determinant of romantic attraction for both women and men? a. Personal warmth b. Physical attractiveness c. Proximity d. Similarity 110. When we acquire attitudes by imitating the actions of a model, what kind of learning has taken place? a. Classical conditioning b. Latent learning c. Operant conditioning d. Observational learning Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12_11e 111. Which adult attachment style is characterized by volatile relationships and feelings of jealousy? a. Indifferent b. Avoidant c. Anxious-ambivalent d. Secure 112. Edgar was assigned an internship volunteering at a nursing home for elderly residents. If he is free from stereotypical thinking, what will Edgar likely think to himself as he reports to his first day of work? a. “I’ll have to be sure to speak slowly and loudly to be understood by this bunch.” b. “It’s going to take forever to get these people into the day room.” c. “I’d like to get to know these people as individuals.” d. “Babysitting demented people can’t be all bad; they won’t even know I’m here.” 113. Which of the following is a source factor in the attitude change process? a. Credibility b. Fear appeals c. Weak arguments d. Forewarning 114. According to the elaboration likelihood model of attitude change, central route processing involves a. persuasion caused by thinking about the arguments contained in a message. b. a casual scrutiny of the central arguments in an attitude-change message. c. the primary attention we devote to all aspects of an attitude-change message. d. a balance between credibility and trustworthiness. 115. Luigi wants to persuade a group of senior citizens about the importance of voting in an upcoming election. He arranges a town hall meeting where he can deliver an attitude change speech about the role voting plays in a democratic society. In this situation, what channel factors are involved? a. Luigi b. The senior citizens c. Delivering a verbal speech d. The message about the importance of voting 116. Social psychological research has repeatedly shown that people’s common sense explanations for human behavior are often wrong. This illustrates the unifying theme from the textbook concerning the importance of a. appreciating the influence of culture. b. multifactorial causation. c. logic. d. empiricsm.

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Chapter 12_11e 117. Carissa was born and raised in a collectivistic culture; Olga was born and raised in an individualistic culture. Carissa is likely to be a. less prone to the fundamental attribution error. b. more likely to experience cognitive dissonance. c. less likely to experience cognitive dissonance. d. more prone to the fundamental attribution error. 118. What does research evidence indicate about passionate love’s superiority over arranged marriages in predicting the successfulness of a relationship? a. Passionate love is associated with healthier long-term relationships. b. Arranged marriages are associated with healthier long-term relationships. c. Arrangements that develop into passionate love over several years are most successful. d. The evidence is mixed, but there is limited support for concluding that love is a more potent force. 119. What is the primary goal of using matching algorithms on Internet dating sites? a. Establishing a large enough pool of potential dating partners b. Capitalizing on similarity as a potent predictor of interpersonal attraction c. Eliminating patrons who aren’t interested in serious long-term commitments d. Lending an air of scientific respectability to an unscientific process 120. To lessen the impact of diffusion of responsibility, what should an emergency worker say to bystanders in order to increase helping behavior? a. “Somebody do something, quick!” b. “I need some assistance here!” c. “Will one of you please help me here?” d. “You right there! I need you to call 9-1-1 right now!” 121. The fundamental attribution error leads observers to attribute the crime and poverty of urban ethnic neighborhoods to the a. personal qualities of the residents. b. job discrimination experienced by the residents. c. poor police protection in such areas. d. crowded living conditions in these neighborhoods. 122. What is the main measuring instrument for assessing implicit attitudes? a. Hidden Attitudes Task (HAT) b. Implicit Attitude Measure (IAM) c. Implicit Measure of Prejudice (IMP) d. Implicit Association Test (IAT)

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Chapter 12_11e 123. Although stereotypes maximize efficiency in processing social information, what often gets sacrificed in that process? a. Accuracy b. Applicability c. Intimacy d. Speed 124. Group polarization refers to a. entrenchment of a group to maintain an initially held position. b. widening the gap between different factions within a group. c. producing “islands of dissent” within a set of group members. d. strengthening of a group’s dominant point of view following group discussion. 125. What percentage of participants in Milgram’s obedience experiment administered maximum levels of shock to the “learner”? a. 18 percent b. 32 percent c. 65 percent d. 93 percent 126. Maya has always preferred individual assignments to group projects because she finds that she can accomplish more when she works on her own. The process that would BEST explain why Maya accomplishes less when she works as part of a group is a. social loafing. b. the bystander effect. c. social interference. d. social dissonance. 127. Desiree is in need of assistance after being assaulted. Based on social psychological principles, who should she seek out to increase her likelihood of receiving help? a. A group of five people b. A group of ten people c. A single individual d. A group of twenty people 128. Which researcher conducted groundbreaking and controversial research on obedience to authority? a. Leon Festinger b. Solomon Asch c. Kurt Lewin d. Stanley Milgram

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Chapter 12_11e 129. Why does the mere exposure effect lead to increased liking for a stimulus? a. Unconscious forces are more powerful determinants of behavior than are conscious forces. b. Mere exposure requires careful attention to a stimulus, and greater attention leads to greater scrutiny of the stimulus. c. Repeated exposure increases familiarity with the stimulus, and greater familiarity leads to greater liking. d. Exposure to a stimulus brings with it an expectation that the stimulus object will be encountered in real life. 130. The uncomfortable state that results when two cognitions are at odds with one another is called a. imbalance. b. dissonance. c. consonance. d. imperfection. 131. What do social psychologists call a group that a person belongs to and identifies with? a. Clique b. Outgroup c. Ingroup d. Tribe 132. What criticism was leveled against the Milgram obedience experiments? a. Milgram conducted a second experiment that didn’t get the same findings, and he hid that from the public. b. The results were never published in any scientific journal. c. Participants were exposed to severe levels of stress that could leave them emotionally scarred for life. d. Milgram promised to pay the participants, and he never did. 133. Most research on implicit attitudes usually focuses on the topic of a. education. b. social issues. c. prejudice. d. politics. 134. Barney is explaining why he scored the winning touchdown in the football game. If he wanted to make an internal, stable attribution, what should he say? a. “The defense was weak.” b. “I’m just that good!” c. “I tried really hard.” d. “I made a lucky play.”

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Chapter 12_11e 135. If you wanted to reduce the dissonance caused by wanting to lose weight but seeing the huge plate of food you took from the buffet line, what would be the most effective strategy? a. Discuss the pros and cons of eating larger meals with someone else at dinner. b. Stare at the plate of food before eating it. c. Tell yourself that this is a one-time, special occasion. d. Strengthen your weight-loss attitudes. 136. If you wanted to increase the chance that a group will make poor decisions, what could you do to inspire greater heights of groupthink? a. Provide weekly meetings that allow for renewed discussion of the topic. b. Have the group members meet in a location where only they are located. c. Instruct the leader to give her opinions only after the group discussions have concluded on the topic. d. Provide a short time to allow a decision to be reached. 137. Why does liking breed liking? a. Liking leads to matching, and matching leads to love. b. People feel socially obligated to be pleasant. c. Mutual liking produces self-enhancement. d. Liking is a proxy for attachment. 138. On what critical dimension did Jerry Burger’s 2009 replication of Stanley Milgram’s 1960’s obedience experiment differ? a. Burger stopped at 150 volts, whereas Milgram went to 450. b. Burger used much stronger encouragements for the “teacher” to deliver shocks than Milgram did. c. Burger asked people to simply visualize what it might be like to be in that obedience situation, whereas Milgram actually put people in that situation. d. Burger used only women in his study, whereas Milgram used only men. 139. How do researchers conceptualize companionate love? a. Feelings of friendship that develop between two people who have shared interests b. An acquaintanceship formed between people who are good companions but not good romantic partners c. A slightly more intense state than liking another person d. Tolerant affection for another person with whom a lasting bond has been formed, based on warmth and trust 140. What are the three components that make up an attitude? a. Strength, accessibility, and ambivalence b. Affective, behavioral, and cognitive c. Salience, immediacy, and latency d. Consistency, consensus, and distinctiveness

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Chapter 12_11e 141. Groups seeking donations often ask people to simply sign a petition first. This approach illustrates which of the following social influence techniques? a. Lowball technique b. Highball technique c. Foot-in-the-door technique d. Reciprocity norm 142. Which situation illustrates the behavioral component of an attitude? a. “Poodles are messy and difficult to train.” b. “I can’t stand poodles!” c. “I don’t know how to take care of a poodle.” d. “I would never have a poodle as a pet.” 143. Merv is stopped by a police officer, and told that his assistance is needed in guarding a suspect. While the officer waits across the street for backup, Merv is instructed to beat the suspect with the officer’s truncheon if he makes any motion toward fleeing. If Merv is like the majority of participants in Milgram’s obedience experiment, what will he do? a. Beat the suspect if necessary b. Report the police officer to his superiors c. Walk away from the situation d. Tell the officer that he refuses to cooperate 144. When Parker's classmate earns a D on an essay for their history class, Parker figures the classmate is unmotivated and should have spent more time working on the paper and less time socializing. The classmate is disappointed with her grade, but she knows she didn’t have much time to work on the essay because she had to work double shifts the entire week before the paper was due. The different attributions for the low grade on the essay illustrate a. the actor-observer bias. b. defensive attributions. c. the self-serving bias. d. cognitive dissonance. 145. What term is used to describe people’s tendency to overestimate the degree of association between two things? a. Correspondence bias b. Personification c. Illusory correlation d. Regression toward the mean 146. Which of the following is a message factor in the attitude change process? a. Expertise b. Attractiveness c. Repetition d. Medium of delivery

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Chapter 12_11e 147. Alejandro is always worried about being rejected in relationships, so he often behaves awkwardly and expresses exaggerated hurt and vulnerability in romantic relationships. Alejandro is likely high in a. attachment anxiety. b. reactive agreeableness. c. passionate love. d. emotional reciprocity. 148. Connie is a very physically attractive person by virtually everyone’s standards. After seeing a photograph of Connie, how will Reggie most likely describe Connie to his friends? a. “It looks like she’s shy.” b. “I’ll bet she’s the nervous type.” c. “I don’t think she’d commit to a relationship.” d. “She seems really outgoing.” 149. Which situation illustrates the documented relationship between physical attractiveness and competence? a. Laurie, who is quite attractive, receives the same starting salary as all other incoming employees. b. Felipe, who is rather unattractive, gets a special commendation from his boss. c. Cindy, who is rather attractive, gets blamed for breaking the coffee machine in the break room. d. Rolf, who is quite unattractive, is denied a promotion at his job. 150. Persuasion is MOST likely to be successful when the source of the persuasive communication a. is perceived as trustworthy. b. will personally benefit from changing the receiver’s attitudes. c. is perceived as highly ingratiating. d. is highly dissimilar to the receiver. 151. Which of the following is a receiver factor in the attitude change process? a. Likability b. Expectations c. One-sided argumentation d. Trustworthiness 152. What evidence shows that conformity behavior can be culturally variable? a. People in individualist cultures tend to show higher rates of conformity compared to people in collectivist cultures. b. Asch’s conformity experiment has been repeated many times with similar results in a variety of U. S. samples. c. People in collectivist cultures tend to show higher rates of conformity compared to people in individualistic cultures. d. Asch’s conformity experiment has never been replicated; therefore, we can assume that variability must exist.

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Chapter 12_11e 153. What is the minimum number of dissenters needed within a group to reduce conformity? a. One b. Three c. Four d. Seven 154. From what we know about social loafing, it can probably be overcome by a. increasing group size. b. increasing "free-rider" effects. c. making an individual's output identifiable. d. dividing rewards on the basis of equality. 155. Georgie wants to deliver a persuasive message on safe sex practices to a group of high school students. She develops a pamphlet to distribute to a gathering of students during a lunchtime convocation. In this situation, what is the source of the attitude-change message? a. The safe sex information b. Georgie c. The pamphlets d. The high school students 156. What does current research on group decision-making indicate? a. Group discussion leads to more conservative decision-making b. Group discussion is less effective than leader preferences when reaching a decision c. Group discussion leads to a polarization of opinions d. Group discussion leads to riskier decision-making 157. What evidence shows that obedience is a fairly universal human behavior? a. Replications of Milgram’s experiment have generally been conducted across highly dissimilar cultures. b. Replications of Milgram’s experiment in other cultures tend to show comparable rates of obedience. c. Genetic evidence points to the brCh2112i gene as being implicated in obedient behavior. d. Replications of Milgram’s experiment in other cultures generally show lower rates of obedience. 158. How did the predictions of psychiatrists regarding the extent of shock administered match the actual results obtained in Milgram’s obedience experiment? a. The psychiatrists predicted that vastly fewer participants would administer lethal shocks to a stranger than actually did in the course of the experiment. b. The psychiatrists predicted that a small percentage of participants would administer lethal shocks, and a small percentage actually did. c. The psychiatrists predicted that a large percentage of participants would administer lethal shocks, and a large percentage actually did. d. The psychiatrists estimated that 50 percent of participants would administer lethal shock, whereas only 23 percent actually did.

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Chapter 12_11e 159. Dino and his friends are leaving the movie theater. “I thought the movie was great!” Dino enthused. “Eh, it was all right,” replied Cindy. “Yeah, no big deal,” added Louie. “A little below average, I thought,” said Vic. When Dino arrives home, what will he tell his roommate about the film? a. “It was okay.” b. “It was really good.” c. “It was great!” d. “Best movie ever.” 160. Based on source factors that influence attitude change, who is most likely to persuade a group of college students that a tuition hike is necessary and desirable? a. A fellow college student b. The university’s board of regents c. The president of the university d. The university’s bank officer 161. Why do people make attributions? a. To denigrate members of an outgroup b. To form their self-concepts c. To explain their experiences in the world d. To persuade others on important issues 162. Social psychologists define conformity as a. yielding to real or imagined social pressure. b. being persuaded to act in a way a person normally would not. c. the process of attitude change. d. obeying the commands of a person who has legitimate authority. 163. Sharon has met six people that play in different bands. Three of the musicians had full beards and three of the musicians were clean-shaven. Still, she believes that most musicians have beards. Sharon’s belief reflects a. an egocentric slant. b. an illusory correlation. c. a confirmation bias. d. the fundamental attribution error. 164. Which of the following psychologists is associated with the study of conformity? a. Rollo May b. Leon Festinger c. Solomon Asch d. Philip Zimbardo

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Chapter 12_11e 165. What would be an example of an occupational stereotype? a. Laborers write poetry b. Plumbers have little formal education c. Surgeons work cheaply d. Lawyers drive inexpensive cars 166. Groupthink refers to a. the tendency for group discussion to lead to more extreme decision- making. b. the generation of fewer ideas in a group setting, due to censorship and ingroup favoritism. c. an emphasis on concurrence at the expense of critical thinking during the process of group decisionmaking. d. the inaccurate perceptions of outgroup members held by ingroup members. 167. How do measures of explicit attitudes toward minority groups compare to implicit measures of attitudes toward those same groups? a. Explicit attitudes show that prejudice is increasing, whereas implicit attitudes illustrate that it is decreasing. b. Explicit attitudes suggest prejudice is decreasing, but implicit measures indicate prejudicial attitudes remain. c. Explicit measures of attitudes are generally more sensitive than implicit measures of attitudes. d. Explicit and implicit measures of attitudes are generally consistent with one another. 168. According to the bystander effect, as the size of a crowd increases, the likelihood of any one person rendering aid tends to a. be 50 percent. b. decrease. c. increase. d. be unpredictable. 169. Research investigating the benefits of relationships fostered by Facebook reveals that the digital platform fulfills two important human motives: the need to belong, and a. the need to maintain the self-concept. b. the need for impression management. c. the need to achieve. d. the need for heightened self-esteem. 170. Kira explains Greg’s behavior by making an internal attribution for it. What will she say? a. “He found himself in a difficult situation.” b. “That’s just the way Greg is.” c. “The circumstances made him do it.” d. “He’s responding to societal pressures.”

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Chapter 12_11e 171. Based on evidence from the evolutionary perspective, when women of childbearing age are approaching ovulation, they prefer men who are a. easy going and laid back. b. good with children. c. masculine and dominant. d. suspicious and aggressive. 172. Which of the following types of attitude-change messages is generally most effective, compared to the others? a. A one-sided message b. A low-level fear appeal c. A computer-based delivery d. A two-sided message 173. If you are trying to persuade others to your point of view on the COVID-19 virus, you would be wise to a. give a one-sided, fear-invoking argument. b. stress only the personal threat of getting COVID-19. c. give a two-sided argument, arouse fear, and offer a solution. d. emphasize arguments directed at the opposing view. 174. The process of forming an impression of another person is generally known as a. person perception. b. attitude formation. c. stereotyping. d. social psychology. 175. The matching hypothesis specifically suggests that a. we are attracted to those who are physically attractive. b. we like best those who match (or return) our affection. c. we tend to end up with those who are about as attractive as we are . d. we prefer to be seen with those who are about as attractive as we are. 176. What conclusion can be reached from a broad consideration of research on the bystander effect, social loafing, group polarization, and groupthink? a. When people band together in groups, the results are not always positive; however, recognizing the pitfalls points toward solutions. b. “Society” is a fiction; we are really just collections of individuals pursuing self-interest. c. Groups of people are virtually guaranteed to produce better outcomes than individuals acting on their own. d. Human nature is basically good; societal constraints are what produce indifference and malice.

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Chapter 12_11e 177. According to Janis, the danger of groupthink is greater when the group a. lacks a strong leader. b. is especially large. c. works in isolation. d. spends a very long time in discussion. 178. What is an example of an external, unstable cause of behavior? a. Mood b. Effort c. Luck d. Ability 179. Why might Asch’s line-judging experiment be considered a study of nonconformity? a. The line-judging task was inherently ambiguous. b. Conformity was observed on only about one-third of the experimental trials. c. Participants made it clear that they were simply “playing along.” d. Asch’s intention was to demonstrate resistance to authority. 180. People who value collectivism would MOST likely be found living in which city? a. Portland, Oregon b. Bangor, Maine c. Seoul, South Korea d. Sedona, Arizona 181. From an evolutionary perspective, why would person perception show evidence of biases? a. Humans have not evolved enough to overcome biases. b. Evolution is a flawed process. c. Biases limit social interaction. d. Many biases are adaptive. 182. How is group cohesion related to the threat of groupthink? a. Less cohesive groups are more likely to be susceptible to groupthink. b. Cohesiveness creates factions within groups, which then leads to groupthink. c. Highly cohesive groups are more likely to be susceptible to groupthink. d. Surprisingly, cohesiveness has been shown to be unrelated to groupthink tendencies. 183. In the two-step model of attribution, which step requires greater effort to accomplish? a. Both steps are equally effortful in this model b. Making a situational correction c. Identifying the behavior d. Making an internal attribution

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Chapter 12_11e 184. Verbal reinforcement of attitudes suggests that responding "good" each time a person expresses a particular attitude will a. cause an initial decrease in the likelihood of the attitude being expressed again, but have no long-term effect on the expression of the attitude. b. increase the likelihood of that attitude being expressed again. c. decrease the likelihood of that attitude being expressed again. d. cause the person to spend more time talking to you but have no effect on the expression of that particular attitude. 185. What does the actor-observer bias refer to? a. The tendency for actors to attribute positive motives for their own behavior, whereas observers attribute negative motives to that same behavior. b. The tendency for actors to make external attributions for their behavior, while observers make internal attributions for that same behavior. c. The tendency for actors to make internal attributions for their behavior, while observers make external attributions for that same behavior. d. The tendency for actors to attribute negative motives for their own behavior, whereas observers attribute positive motives to that same behavior. 186. The bystander effect is the finding that a. the probability that a witness to an emergency will help increases as the number of bystanders increases. b. a group of witnesses to an emergency will all tend to cooperate to provide help. c. people are less likely to provide help when they are in groups than when they are alone. d. bystanders’ willingness to help depends on the seriousness of the emergency. 187. Albert feels passionate love for Maddie. When he thinks about her, his brain feels like it’s going a mile a minute. Which areas of Albert’s brain would you predict are especially activated during this process? a. Acetylcholine circuits b. Serotonin circuits c. Dopamine circuits d. Histamine receptors 188. Frank just got a job promotion from Mailroom Clerk I to Mailroom Clerk II. Based on the self-serving bias, what will Frank say about this promotion? a. “The timing was right.” b. “The boss likes me.” c. “My natural charm and ability made it happen.” d. “I sure got lucky!” 189. How does obedience differ from conformity? a. With conformity, a direct request is made by a peer. b. With obedience, a direct request is made by a peer. c. With obedience, a direct request is made by an authority figure. d. With conformity, a direct request is made by an authority figure. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12_11e 190. A young couple is contemplating marriage. Their primary thoughts on the subject are, “Will our parents approve?” and “Does this union make economic sense?” In which cultural setting are these people likely to live? a. Mumbai, India b. Billings, Montana c. Copenhagen, Denmark d. Angers, France 191. The mere exposure effect would predict that a. people can identify a stimulus that has been seen even if they can't tell how much they like the stimulus. b. people will prefer and purchase the products whose logos they see more frequently. c. people will prefer a photo of their own face over a mirror image of their face. d. people generally seek exposure to attractive people. 192. Why does social loafing take place? a. Diffusion of responsibility leads each group member to feel less personal responsibility for contributing to group goals. b. Poorly defined tasks make it difficult for individual group members to capitalize on their talents. c. Individuals don’t recognize that cooperation is the key to successful group performance. d. Poor leadership leads to a lack of respect felt by the group members toward the leader. 193. Conformity occurs when people a. change their behavior as a result of receiving a persuasive argument. b. change their behavior as a result of observational learning. c. follow direct commands, usually from someone in a position of authority. d. yield to real or imagined social pressure. 194. Tabias has a strong desire to be liked by those around him. What question will Tabias MOST likely ask when faced with an ambiguous situation? a. “Who’s the most knowledgeable about these kinds of situations?” b. “What’s everybody else doing?” c. “What do I feel like doing?” d. “What should I not do?” 195. Person perception refers to the process of a. forming impressions of others. b. developing an implicit personality theory. c. predicting the behavior of others. d. monitoring the impressions you make on other people.

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Chapter 12_11e 196. Mario knows that smoking is bad for him, but he smokes a pack of cigarettes a day. How can Mario best reduce the dissonance between his attitude and his behavior? a. Quit smoking cigarettes b. Start smoking a pipe c. Strengthen his attitude d. Continue smoking cigarettes 197. Groups seeking donations routinely send address labels and other small gifts with their pleas. This approach illustrates which of the following social influence techniques? a. Lowball technique b. Highball technique c. Foot-in-the-door technique d. Reciprocity norm 198. An internal attribution ascribes the cause of behavior to a. personal dispositions, traits, or feelings. b. the demands of the situation. c. environmental constraints on a person’s behavior. d. a unique set of circumstances the person is in. 199. What type of social influence is based on reducing ambiguity about the appropriateness of a response? a. Emotional influence b. Normative influence c. Attitudinal influence d. Informational influence 200. In general, messages that present two-sided arguments are effective in persuasion because that style of argument tends to a. increases the focus of the message. b. decrease the credibility of the source. c. increase the credibility of the source. d. decreases the focus of the message.

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Chapter 12_11e Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. c 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. b 21. d 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. a 26. b

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Chapter 12_11e 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. c 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. c 48. c 49. a 50. d 51. b 52. c 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12_11e 55. a 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. d 61. c 62. b 63. c 64. d 65. a 66. c 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. a 71. b 72. c 73. c 74. d 75. d 76. c 77. a 78. d 79. b 80. c 81. b 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12_11e 83. d 84. b 85. a 86. d 87. b 88. a 89. c 90. c 91. c 92. d 93. c 94. a 95. b 96. d 97. b 98. d 99. c 100. a 101. d 102. c 103. d 104. d 105. b 106. d 107. c 108. c 109. b 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12_11e 111. c 112. c 113. a 114. a 115. c 116. d 117. a 118. d 119. b 120. d 121. a 122. d 123. a 124. d 125. c 126. a 127. c 128. d 129. c 130. b 131. c 132. c 133. c 134. b 135. c 136. b 137. c

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Chapter 12_11e 138. a 139. d 140. b 141. c 142. d 143. a 144. a 145. c 146. c 147. a 148. d 149. d 150. a 151. b 152. c 153. a 154. c 155. b 156. c 157. b 158. a 159. a 160. a 161. c 162. a 163. b 164. c 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12_11e 166. c 167. b 168. b 169. b 170. b 171. c 172. d 173. c 174. a 175. c 176. a 177. c 178. c 179. b 180. c 181. d 182. c 183. b 184. b 185. b 186. c 187. c 188. c 189. c 190. a 191. b 192. a 193. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12_11e 194. b 195. a 196. a 197. d 198. a 199. d 200. c

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Chapter 13_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What effect has pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) had on the rate of HIV cases? a. PrEP is currently administered to 98 percent of HIV patients, cutting AIDS-related deaths to nearly zero. b. HIV-negative patients prescribed PrEP have similar infection rates of those not taking PrEP. c. HIV-negative patients prescribed PrEP have substantially lower infection rates. d. PrEP is effective in only about 2 percent of HIV cases. 2. How are emotional reactions related to heart disease? a. Some evidence indicates that strong emotional reactions can trigger heart attacks in some coronary-prone people. b. Moderate emotional reactions, sustained over time, directly produce coronary ischemia. c. Recent evidence clearly shows that strong emotional reactions can cause immediate heart failure in most people. d. There is no documented evidence that emotional states contribute to any form of heart disease. 3. Archie needs to complete the difficult task of transporting 20 large window panes in the back of his rickety truck without breaking any. What should he do to make sure his optimal level of arousal gets this task done? a. He should focus on his shallow breathing and rapid heart rate to distract himself from his nervousness. b. Archie should take several deep breaths to calm himself before getting in the driver’s seat. c. Archie should silently remind himself how important his task is. d. He should drink a large caffeinated beverage to increase his alertness. 4. Internet addiction often takes the form of a. random searching from site to site. b. excessive shopping. c. obsessive reading of nonfiction. d. preoccupation with sexual content. 5. When the adrenal medulla is stimulated, a. large amounts of catecholamines are released into the bloodstream. b. the hormone ACTH is secreted. c. corticosteroids are absorbed by the adrenal glands. d. the parasympathetic nervous system is activated. 6. An initial evaluation of a potential stressor is called a. secondary appraisal. b. apprehension. c. confirmation. d. primary appraisal.

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Chapter 13_11e 7. The most commonly reported reason for poor adherence to medical advice is a. preferences for holistic and alternative therapies. b. stubbornness. c. physician ambiguity. d. forgetting. 8. What is the pathway from stress to physical illness? a. Stress suppresses the immune system; this contributes to both weakened resistance to disease and a greater likelihood of chronic inflammation, which is then implicated in disease onset. b. High levels of stress make a person more prone to accidents and poor judgments, which in turn increase the likelihood of developing medical problems. c. Stress leads to compromised psychological functioning, which in turn impacts decision making, which makes it less likely for a person to seek medical treatment when needed. d. High levels of stress directly contribute to the onset of disease by weakening bones and muscle tissue. 9. When compared to Type A people, Type B people tend to be more a. hard-driving, ambitious, and competitive. b. relaxed, easygoing, and friendly. c. inhibited, compliant, and depressed. d. achievement-oriented, impatient, and hostile. 10. Which type of internal conflict tends to produce indecision between alternative choices? a. avoidance-avoidance b. double approach-avoidance c. approach-approach d. approach-avoidance 11. Ming Yu and Pho each woke up late for work with upset stomachs and earaches. Ming Yu had breakfast and showered before she left for work. Pho rushed off to work without completing her normal routine. Compared to Ming Yu’s day, Pho had a a. higher level of anxiety and lower level of neuroticism. b. higher level of anxiety and higher level of neuroticism. c. lower level of anxiety and lower lever of neuroticism. d. lower level of anxiety and higher level of neuroticism. 12. Alline has a chronic medical condition. She was advised to take a drug from a manufacturer that claims it reduces the risk of mortality from her condition by 25%. Before taking the drug, it is MOST important that Alline investigate a. her doctor's credentials. b. the base rate for mortality from her condition. c. the cost of the drug. d. the dosage of the drug.

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Chapter 13_11e 13. What did the frustration-aggression hypothesis initially propose? a. Aggression can sometimes be caused by frustration. b. Acts of aggression lead to feelings of frustration. c. Reducing aggression limits frustration. d. Aggression is always caused by frustration. 14. “Self-indulgence” sounds like a rewarding and beneficial pursuit, especially during times of stress. Why might self-indulgence be maladaptive? a. Self-indulgence is motivated by catharsis, and catharsis is an ineffective coping strategy. b. Compulsive over-consumption can lead to health, emotional, or financial difficulties. c. Self-indulgence is an unconscious defense mechanism, and therefore, uncontrollable. d. Studies show that self-denial builds coping resources faster than self-indulgence. 15. Dr. Zimmerman has reviewed the research linking stress and physical health, and has concluded that causality moves from stress to illness. What advice would Dr. Zimmerman give to his patients based on his analysis of this situation? a. “Work on your feelings of anxiety and neuroticism; that’ll work wonders for your mind and body.” b. “Get regular check-ups; that should reduce your feelings of stress.” c. “If you control your stress, you’ll physically feel a lot better.” d. “Try to stay healthy; your stress levels will go down.” 16. Diego is concerned about the link between stress and health, so he asks his friend Angus, a pre-med major, for some advice. What is the best advice Angus could give Diego? a. “You should see a doctor; all the evidence points to a causal role of stress in producing physical illness.” b. “You should be worried; there’s a strong correlation between how much stress you feel and how likely you are to get sick.” c. “That’s a myth; stress has no documented role in health, wellness, and illness.” d. “Stress and illness are related, but a lot of other factors are likely to play a greater role in health and wellness.” 17. Health psychologists define stress as a. any circumstances that threaten, or are perceived to threaten, one’s well-being. b. any deviation from expected outcomes that in itself produces undesirable outcomes for a person. c. major catastrophes that cause widespread disruption to many people. d. objectively negative events that tax a person’s coping mechanisms. 18. Appraisals of stressful events tend to be a. objectively verified. b. highly subjective. c. illusory. d. formed by consensus with others.

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Chapter 13_11e 19. Why might there be an “optimal margin of illusion” when coping with stressful events? a. It’s a way of gaining conscious control over unconscious defenses. b. Self-deception shields us from harsh realities we don’t want to face. c. It recreates the relationship between levels of emotional arousal and optimal task performance. d. Small illusions can sometimes be beneficial. 20. During which stage of the general adaptation syndrome are coping mechanisms employed for a prolonged period? a. exhaustion b. alarm c. confrontation d. resistance 21. According to Hans Selye, how do diseases of adaptation come about? a. They occur when too many “false alarms” take place during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome. b. They result from sudden and massive organ failure in the body. c. They are the result of harmful physiological effects produced by exhaustion of coping resources in the body. d. They are the product of adapting to a less-stressful environment after a prolonged period in a more stressful environment. 22. Research on routine daily stress has indicated that it can have a negative impact on health. How can it impact health and wellness? a. These stresses usually don’t impact health and wellness long-term unlike major events that are much more devastating. b. So-called benign events usually aren’t benign and instead are steeped in hidden misery. c. Lots of little daily stresses can add up to a large collective strain and impact health negatively. d. Stress is a random process; any one benign event has the potential to impact health negatively. 23. Dionne is trapped in an elevator that is stuck between floors of her apartment building. As maintenance workers try to restart the elevator, it suddenly drops ten feet before becoming stuck again. As the elevator drops, Dionne’s sympathetic nervous system is activated. This nervous system activation will cause her a. adrenal cortex to begin releasing large amounts of catecholamines. b. adrenal medulla to begin releasing corticosteroids. c. amygdala to slow the release of acetylcholine. d. adrenal medulla to begin releasing large amounts of catecholamines.

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Chapter 13_11e 24. Buck needs to complete the modest task of filing his federal taxes before the deadline expires and before he receives substantial fines from the government. What should he do to make sure his optimal level of arousal gets this task done? a. He should drink two or three cans of caffeinated soda, so that his alertness is at a maximum. b. Buck should wait until the last minute to approach this task; the time pressure will help him focus more clearly. c. Buck should recognize that this task is important, but not debilitating; he should be focused but not overly focused. d. He should focus on his shallow breathing and rapid heart rate as a distraction from his important task. 25. Rudolf has a classic Type B personality. When he has to wait in line at the grocery store, how will he most likely behave? a. He will look at his watch, check his schedule on his smartphone, and try to send a few email messages. b. He will drum his fingers impatiently, pivot from foot to foot, sigh loudly, and constantly look for a shorter line. c. He will initiate conversation with the person behind him as those in front conclude their transactions. d. He will nudge his shopping cart closer and closer to the person in front of him, in an effort to make the line move faster. 26. Statistically, which person is MOST likely to have poorer health and threatened longevity? a. Kuaku, who is a professor at NYU. b. River, whose degree in political science leaves open several employment options. c. Ochyania, a physician who has just opened her own private practice. d. Jaiah, a high-school dropout who is a janitor at the local grocery store. 27. Bjorn has a classic Type A personality. When he has to wait in line at the grocery store, how will he most likely behave? a. He will look at the magazines on the check-out rack, count the items in his basket, and double-check his shopping list. b. He will initiate conversation with the person behind him as those in front conclude their transactions. c. He will close his eyes and imagine his upcoming trip to the beach, where he’ll lie in the sun and enjoy the sound of the waves. d. He will drum his fingers impatiently, pivot from foot to foot, sigh loudly, and constantly look for a shorter line. 28. What pattern currently characterizes overall physical fitness in the United States? a. Physical fitness is declining in the U.S. b. Physical fitness is improving in the U.S across all age ranges. c. Physical fitness has stayed constant since the 1960s. d. Physical fitness levels change from generation to generation.

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Chapter 13_11e 29. Bertrille has been experiencing high levels of stress for the past month. Why should she avoid riding in a crowded subway car? a. Stress depresses the immune system, so she is more likely to catch a cold from someone in a crowded, confined space. b. Stress makes a person more likely to engage in extreme physical violence against others, so she should avoid people. c. Stress impedes social interactions, so she might respond inappropriately if someone strikes up a conversation. d. Stress leads people to engage in silent self-reflection, so a crowded subway would work against those goals. 30. Rochelle always comes to work early, takes control of the task, sets impossible deadlines for projects, and frequently feels frustrated when things do not go her way. It is likely Rochelle has a a. Type B personality. b. personality disorder. c. Type A personality. d. high self-indulgence. 31. What is the overall result of having catecholamines released in the body? a. Protein and fat resources are increased. b. The body returns to a pre-stress resting state. c. Energy is increased and tissue inflammation is inhibited. d. The body is mobilized for action. 32. Why should medical treatment be sought when medical treatment is needed? a. Insurance carriers won’t reimburse medical expenses incurred 90 days after an initial consultation. b. Wound infection is the leading cause of death worldwide; treating wounds early is a must. c. Many physicians won’t treat patients who are too advanced in their illnesses. d. Prompt intervention can very often result in more effective treatment plans. 33. Which researcher’s data supports the criticisms of the traditional interpretation for the scores on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? a. Dr. Sardonicus has data that indicates that change, in and of itself, is not inherently stressful. b. Dr. Caligari has demonstrated that the rate of change in a person’s life is predictive of later physical illness. c. Dr. Foster has data showing a strong positive correlation between the timing of a spouse’s death and the onset of cancer in the survivor. d. Dr. Mabuse has demonstrated that the severity of change in a person’s life is predictive of physical and mental illness.

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Chapter 13_11e 34. Renaldo wants to enjoy better health and increased longevity. Which factor would be under his control to do so and would contribute to these beneficial outcomes? a. Renaldo should cut his circle of friends and acquaintances in half and just focus on “the good people” he knows. b. Renaldo should stay in school and further his education as much as possible. c. Renaldo should consider smoking a daily cigarette to raise his nicotine dose to an optimal level. d. Renaldo should somehow change his core personality from being pessimistic to optimistic. 35. Receiving instrumental aid from others during a time of need is an example of a. explicit social support. b. resilience. c. hardiness. d. implicit social support. 36. Donnie was the only member of his family to never take up smoking, yet he developed lung cancer at age 45, even when his close relatives did not. What is the most likely explanation for this unfortunate outcome? a. Donnie’s years of exposure to second-hand smoke increased his health risks. b. Donnie’s genetic makeup made it more likely that he would develop cancer, compared to his brothers or sisters. c. Donnie was a secret smoker for many years, and quitting did nothing to improve his health status. d. Donnie was misdiagnosed, and actually suffered from childhood leukemia. 37. How strong is the link between the hostility components of the Type A personality and the risk of heart disease? a. modest b. low c. very strong d. nonexistent 38. Activation of the adrenal medulla leads to the secretion of a. catecholamines. b. prolactin. c. corticosteroids. d. somatotrophic hormone. 39. In order to help health professionals predict the symptoms of AIDS, what question should they ask their patients? a. “How many alcoholic drinks do you consume per day?” b. “Is there a family history of the disease among your immediate relatives?” c. “What specific immune-related diseases have you contracted?” d. “How frequently do you drink alcohol?”

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Chapter 13_11e 40. The “B” in Albert Ellis’s reappraisal model of emotional reactions stands for a. belittling the self. b. betterment of opportunities. c. belief system. d. biphasic possibilities. 41. Long-term success rates for formal smoking cessation programs tend to be no higher than a. 25 percent. b. 42 percent. c. 60 percent. d. 8 percent. 42. What do impatience, anger, a sense of time urgency, competitiveness, and hostility have in common? a. They are all elements of the Type A personality. b. They are all elements of the Type B personality. c. They are all elements of the Type C personality. d. They are all elements of the resilient personality. 43. Imagine you studied for this psychology exam with two of your classmates. If one classmate, Becky, was very nervous and “stressed out” about the exam, and the other classmate, Craig, thought the exam “wasn’t a big deal,” their differing attitudes are MOST consistent with the finding that a. some people use constructive coping techniques to reduce stress. b. people’s appraisals of stressful events are highly objective. c. people’s appraisals of stressful events are highly subjective. d. males experience many events as less stressful than females. 44. What factor tends to boost adherence to medical regimens? a. Increased use of medical terminology b. Treatments that appear more “medical” and disruptive to the patient c. The availability of a patient’s social support network d. Placing medications in difficult to access places, so the patient has to remember to get them 45. What general finding has resulted from thousands of studies using the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? a. Higher point totals represent greater resilience against the negative effects of stressors. b. There is no relationship between life events and stress reactions. c. Higher point totals are related to increased vulnerability to physical and psychological illnesses. d. Only five (or in some studies, six) life events produce significant enough stress to affect one’s mental well-being.

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Chapter 13_11e 46. Geena has made it to the final round in a game show. She must now choose between accepting the cash that she has earned to date or risking the cash on the chance to win a new car. As Geena tries to decide between the two available alternatives, she is facing a(n) a. approach-avoidance conflict. b. avoidance-approach conflict. c. frustration-pressure conflict. d. approach-approach conflict. 47. Based on the research about stress and physical health, which of the following health problems has been linked to stress? a. Celiac disease b. Knee replacement c. Diabetes d. Anemia 48. What does the optimal level of emotional arousal depend on when faced with completing a task? a. task importance b. task immediacy c. task complexity d. task redundancy 49. One positive effect of dealing with stress is the personal development of a. defiance. b. resignation. c. physical immunity. d. resilience. 50. Although giving up is usually considered an ineffective coping strategy, sometimes it is exactly the right thing to do. Why is that? a. The world is a random and uncaring place, which means that the best response is to admit defeat and recognize that happiness is unattainable. b. “Learned” helplessness means that learning has taken place, and learning always precedes a new assessment of a situation. c. Persisting in trying to change unchangeable circumstances is less adaptive than reevaluating goals and admitting defeat. d. Learned helplessness is a type of defense mechanism, and defense mechanisms have shown their utility since the time of Freud. 51. Which emotional reaction to mental stress is especially linked to the risk of heart attack and stroke? a. fear b. anxiety c. anger d. shock Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13_11e 52. Which situation best illustrates the resistance phase of the general adaption syndrome? a. Claude answers question after question from irate parents whose children missed a wayward school bus this morning. b. Loren slams on the brakes and tenses his body for impact when the driver ahead suddenly stops. c. Randy’s heart beats faster and his hands grip the railing as the roller coaster reaches its highest peak. d. Mark collapses after a 36-hour surgical shift in his hospital’s emergency ward. 53. One of the largest problems confronted by the medical profession is a. rushing to the doctor’s office for minor symptoms. b. the increase in the use of homeopathic intervention. c. delays in receiving needed medical treatment. d. the practice of self-medication with recreational drugs. 54. Why doesn’t it matter when nonadherence to medical advice takes place? a. Whether a patient never starts treatment, stops early, modifies the treatment, or is inconsistent, the result is all the same; poor health prevails. b. Nonadhering patients tend not to revisit a physician, so their rates of nonadherence can’t be accounted for. c. Physicians and insurance providers assume a 50-percent nonadherence rate across patients; if the actual figure is a little higher or lower it doesn’t matter. d. Most modern medical treatments capitalize on the placebo effect; not adhering to treatments is unlikely to cause major disruptions to a patient. 55. Effective, healthful efforts to deal with stressful events are generally called a. defense mechanisms. b. cognitive reappraisals. c. constructive coping. d. social support seeking. 56. How does the life expectancy of a typical smoker compare to that of a typical nonsmoker? a. Smokers paradoxically live about 3 years longer, on average, than nonsmokers. b. A smoker’s life expectancy is about 10 years less than that of a nonsmoker. c. A smoker’s life expectancy is about 2 years less than that of a nonsmoker. d. A smoker can expect to live about 14 years less than a nonsmoker. 57. Up until the 1980s, how did people in the health professions conceive of physical illness? a. Illness was seen as the result of poor interpersonal choices. b. Most medical professionals viewed illness as the consequence of a person’s lifestyle. c. Health professionals considered illness from a multidisciplinary standpoint. d. Most medical professionals thought of illness as a purely biological phenomenon.

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Chapter 13_11e 58. One of the consequences of experiencing stress over an extended period of time is a reduction in blood flow to the heart, a condition which results in a. stroke. b. diabetes. c. emphysema. d. coronary heart disease. 59. When people provide aid and emotional sustenance to others in need, they are engaging in the process of a. tending. b. sponsorship. c. social support. d. encouragement. 60. Sigmund Freud referred to unconscious protective reactions to unpleasant emotions as a. catharsis. b. psychosexual development. c. defense mechanisms. d. catastrophic thinking. 61. How should Internet addiction best be characterized? a. It is a global phenomenon that affects millions. b. It is a problem affecting primarily young people. c. It is an individual problem that should be addressed on a case-by-case basis. d. It is a problem for residents of the United States. 62. Which life event requires the least amount of readjustment, according to the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? a. change in sleeping habits b. minor violations of the law c. death of a close friend d. change in school 63. Arlo was complaining to Jeannie. “I need to address everything, all at once, right now! I want better cardiovascular health, less stress, lowered weight, and reduced risk of cognitive deficits. What should I do?” How should Jeannie succinctly and correctly advise Arlo? a. “Eat one additional serving of red meat each day.” b. “Become a vegetarian.” c. “Take a daily multivitamin.” d. “Start a regular exercise program.”

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Chapter 13_11e 64. How does behaving in an aggressive manner affect coping with stress? a. Aggressive behavior has a calming effect on an individual. b. Aggressive behavior releases psychic tension. c. Aggressive behavior has no effect on coping with stress. d. Aggressive behavior tends to fuel more anger and aggression. 65. What happens in an avoidance-avoidance conflict? a. A choice must be made between two attractive goals. b. A choice must be made about pursuing a goal that is simultaneously attractive and unattractive. c. A choice must be made between an attractive and an unattractive goal. d. A choice must be made between two unattractive goals. 66. Sigmund Freud thought that coping could take place through the release of emotional tension, a process known as a. defensive coping. b. catharsis. c. learned helplessness. d. aggression. 67. Kaeleigh sees a roller coaster in a theme park and starts sweating with nervousness. Her friend Julia sees the same roller coaster and starts giggling with joy. What produces these different reactions to the same stimulus? a. uncertainty b. conformity c. appraisal d. awareness 68. The current male life expectancy in the United States is about 78 years of age. Ero has been a smoker for his entire life. With this information in mind, for how long should Ero expect to live? a. to about age 55 b. to about age 80 c. to about age 68 d. to about age 75 69. What is the most likely pathway linking the experience of positive emotion to longevity? a. Positive emotions directly lead to living a longer life. b. Positive emotions prompt openness to experience, which in turn creates opportunities for novel experiences, which then produce greater longevity. c. Positive emotions contribute to better physical health, which in turn contributes to greater longevity. d. Positive emotions create an optimistic outlook on life; life isn’t then any longer, but the quality of life seems better.

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Chapter 13_11e 70. Whitney wants to use constructive coping to deal with the stressors in her life. What might be best for her to do? a. Rely on her parents to take care of financial, legal, or emotional problems that come her way. b. Recognize that her exams are not all-or-nothing affairs, but rather steps toward gaining a greater education. c. Recognize that she is the source of her failures, and accept that there’s little she can do to change that. d. Ignore her roommate’s annoying habits and hope they’ll resolve themselves. 71. Marcella is experiencing considerable stress in her daily dealings with her roommate. Which adaptive coping strategy might she use to best resolve their difficulties? a. avoid her roommate by leaving early in the morning and coming home late each night b. complain to her friends about all the annoying things her roommate does c. talk to her roommate about issues that are stressful to both of them, and make a plan to reduce those issues d. smile and grit her teeth whenever she’s in the presence of her roommate 72. How are minor hassles related to significant negative health outcomes? a. Minor hassles are directly related to poor health outcomes. b. Minor hassles lead to major stressors, which in turn predict poor health. c. Minor hassles and health outcomes show a curvilinear relationship. d. Minor hassles are generally unrelated to health outcomes. 73. What factor has research demonstrated contributes to a range of diseases, such as arthritis, diabetes, respiratory illnesses, and some types of cancer? a. Learned helplessness b. Defensive coping c. Chronic inflammation d. Social isolation 74. Why does drug use differ from other unhealthy behaviors, such as smoking or lack of exercise? a. Drug use is more prevalent than alcohol consumption or smoking tobacco. b. Drug use can produce death directly and immediately. c. Drug use takes a longer time to deteriorate the body, so health effects are difficult to notice. d. Drugs are more harmful to the body than alcohol or nicotine. 75. To realize the stress-reducing benefits of exercise, a person should select a. activities that are strenuous. b. physical activities that are unfamiliar. c. activities that are difficult. d. physical activities that they enjoy.

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Chapter 13_11e 76. Which of the types of internal conflict tend to cause individuals the most stress? a. Aversion-avoidance b. Approach-approach c. Approach-avoidance d. Avoidance-avoidance 77. An evaluation of one’s coping resources takes place during a. secondary appraisal. b. tertiary appraisal. c. primary appraisal. d. initial detection. 78. What has happened to the rate of physical fitness in the United States over time? a. It has stayed constant over time. b. It has been steadily declining. c. It has increased marginally. d. It has increased substantially. 79. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is generally the longest? a. commitment b. resistance c. alarm d. exhaustion 80. Which of the following responses to stress may result in internet addiction? a. Defensive coping b. Self-indulgence c. Positive illusions d. Learned helplessness 81. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is similar to the fight-or-flight response? a. resistance b. combat c. alarm d. exhaustion 82. Willie has to decide whether to accept a job at the sewage treatment plant or continue living in his parents' basement. Willie is experiencing a(n) a. risk-aversion conflict. b. approach-approach conflict. c. avoidance-aversion conflict. d. avoidance-avoidance conflict.

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Chapter 13_11e 83. One personality characteristic correlated with good physical health is a. agreeableness. b. openness. c. extraversion. d. conscientiousness. 84. How would a person who engages in catastrophic thinking be likely to respond when asked about the stresses in her life? a. “I bring them on myself; everything I do is wrong.” b. “I have really bad luck.” c. “The world seems to be against me.” d. “Sometimes bad things happen to good people.” 85. Which of the following is an emotional response to stress? a. driving fast and recklessly to get around all the “idiot drivers” blocking your progress b. feeling anxious about an important upcoming final exam c. getting red in the face as your heartbeat increases while trying to jumpstart your car d. sweating and shaking as you anticipate having to break up with your dating partner 86. What effect does quitting smoking have on health outcomes? a. Very little effect; smoking for only 2 to 3 years places an individual at lifelong risk for serious illnesses. b. Health risks decline slowly after quitting; if a person quits soon enough, she or he may outlive the pace of gradual benefits. c. Health risks actually double in the year after quitting smoking, then decline haphazardly after that. d. Health risks decline rather quickly after a person gives up smoking. 87. What do meditation, yoga, prayer, and pampering all have in common? a. They all produce a state of relaxation. b. They are ways of ignoring stress. c. They represent alternative medical therapies. d. They have been discredited as effective stress-reducers. 88. Pressure to perform is often self-imposed. What does this realization suggest about reactions to stress? a. Stress is an inevitable part of human existence. b. External stressors must be beyond the control of most people in most circumstances. c. People may have control over more sources of stress in their lives than they realize. d. The appraisal process is a myth.

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Chapter 13_11e 89. Researchers have discovered links between specific appraisals of stressful events and specific emotions that a person then experiences. For example, helplessness tends to lead to the experience of a. sadness. b. guilt. c. envy. d. agitation. 90. Why is chronic stress harmful to an organism, according to Selye’s general adaptation syndrome? a. It sends false alarms to the brain, triggering stress reactions that aren’t warranted. b. It depletes coping resources, leading to an exhausted state in which resistance becomes ineffective. c. Chronic stress tends to be unidentifiable; therefore, most people don’t know how to combat it. d. Chronic stress affects social resources more than physiological resources. 91. A positive emotional style has been repeatedly linked to a. less successful coping mechanisms. b. slower recovery from stressful events. c. early onset Alzheimer’s disease. d. enhanced physical health in general. 92. When does secondary appraisal take place? a. After available coping resources have been exhausted b. During the act of combatting a stressor c. When evaluating the effectiveness of coping tactics that have just been applied to a stressor d. After primary appraisal determines an event is relevant and stressful 93. Activation of the adrenal cortex leads to the secretion of a. somatotrophic hormone. b. catecholamines. c. prolactin. d. corticosteroids. 94. Which coping strategy represents a passive response to stress? a. indulging oneself b. learned helplessness c. lashing out d. defensive coping 95. How is social support related to mortality? a. Social support has not been found to be associated with mortality. b. The availability of social support can increase a person’s odds of survival by 10 percent. c. The availability of social support can increase a person’s odds of survival by 50 percent. d. The availability of social support can increase a person’s odds of survival by 72 percent.

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Chapter 13_11e 96. What do patience, relaxation, amicability, and cooperation have in common? a. They are all elements of the Type A personality. b. They are all elements of the Type B personality. c. They are all elements of the Type C personality. d. They are all elements of the Type D personality. 97. Billy Jack is a generally optimistic person. When faced with the stress of an upcoming tax audit, which coping strategy is he most likely to use? a. Getting all of his papers in order, reviewing the relevant laws and statutes, and noting ways to avoid this situation in the future b. Convincing himself that this problem will go away, that he was never to blame, and that things will be just fine c. Distracting himself by spending long hours in the gym working on his jujitsu skills d. Seeking confirmation from his friends and family that he is fundamentally a good person and that this was a one-time mistake 98. Solomon wants to join a formal smoking cessation program to quit his addiction to cigarettes. He asks his friend Atticus, a nurse, for some advice. What is the best advice that Atticus could give his friend? a. “Great idea; most people can’t quit on their own, and the success rate in formal programs is about 90 percent.” b. “Terrible idea, Sol; most formal programs are less successful at producing sustained quitting than just trying on your own.” c. “That’s not a bad idea, but don’t expect much; formal program quitting rates are just a little better than quitting on your own.” d. “Hmm…not sure. There hasn’t been any systematic research comparing formal and informal smoking cessation approaches.” 99. How should a physician describe the causes of dizziness to a patient in order to boost compliance with medical treatment? a. “The semi-circular canals in your inner ear have been compromised, either endogenously or exogenously.” b. “Your cerebellar cortex is miscommunicating with your cerebral cortex, producing false perceptions of your position in space relative to a fixed point.” c. “The sensations from your eyes and ears are out of sync with one another, and your brain is trying to piece it all together.” d. “Your kinesthetic and vestibular senses are de statera, ergo a transcommunication across modalities is needed.” 100. What does the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) purport to measure? a. unusual events that are catastrophic b. daily hassles c. the physiological severity of stress d. life change as a form of stress

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Chapter 13_11e 101. The view of health and illness that highlights the complex interaction among sociocultural, biological, and psychological factors is called a. the wellness model of disease. b. the biopsychosocial model. c. the medical model. d. health psychology. 102. When a stressor is encountered, the hypothalamus activates the a. skeletal division of the central nervous system. b. parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. c. the neurogenetic division of the central nervous system. d. sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. 103. What effect has antiretroviral therapy (ART) had on the treatment of AIDS? a. ART is currently administered to 98 percent of AIDS patients, cutting AIDS-related deaths to nearly zero. b. AIDS patients prescribed and taking ART have substantially lower rates of survival, compared to other therapies. c. AIDS patients prescribed and taking ART have substantially higher rates of survival. d. ART is effective in only about 2 percent of AIDS cases. 104. According to recent research evidence, what is the significant causal direction linking depression and heart disease? a. There is no association between depression and heart disease. b. Depression and heart disease are linked, but no causal direction between the two has been identified. c. Having depression may play a causal role in developing heart disease. d. Depression is not a significant risk factor for the onset of heart disease. 105. When under stress, what activates the adrenal cortex? a. the secretion of testosterone b. the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system c. the secretion of corticosteroids d. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) 106. During which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is resistance to stress at its lowest point? a. resistance b. denial c. alarm d. exhaustion

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Chapter 13_11e 107. Given the relationship between optimism and social support, which behavior is Gretel, an optimist, likely to engage in? a. calling her friends on a regular basis to let them know she’s thinking of them b. quietly contemplating the meaning of “friendship” and “closeness” c. respecting her friends’ privacy by leaving them alone until they contact her d. ignoring her friends and focusing on the needs of her immediate family 108. Luigi knows that the surgeon general has determined that smoking increases the risk of various types of cancers, but he is sure that he won’t develop cancer. Luigi’s pattern of behavior illustrates the idea that a. many health-impairing habits creep up on us. b. people tend to rationalize high-risk behaviors by pointing out healthy habits that offset their unhealthy habits. c. people often underestimate the risks associated with their own health-impairing behavior. d. people believe the risks associated with health-impairing habits are overstated by media sources. 109. Which of the following is a physiological response to stress? a. shouting obscenities at the driver who took the parking space you were waiting for b. feeling anger over the frustration of trying to find a parking spot during the holiday season c. getting red in the face as your heartbeat increases while trying to jumpstart your car d. feeling annoyed at the obnoxious attitude of the counter-worker at Chubby’s Beef-N-Burger 110. “Ah,” Farley told Scott. “I can see your catecholamines must be working overtime!” What did Farley notice to reach this accurate conclusion? a. Scott’s muscles were weak and flabby. b. Scott was breathing normally. c. Scott was sweating profusely. d. Scott’s pulse was depressed. 111. When a stressor is encountered, the hypothalamus communicates with the endocrine system by way of the a. pancreas. b. thyroid gland. c. pituitary gland. d. sebaceous gland. 112. The formation of new neurons in the brain is known as a. kurtosis. b. neuroremission. c. neurogenesis. d. vitalization.

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Chapter 13_11e 113. What characterizes most frustrating events? a. They are lasting and uncontrollable. b. They disrupt long-term plans. c. They are brief and insignificant. d. They are not really frustrations at all. 114. Casey generally expects good outcomes in her life. Dispositionally, Casey is high in a. conscientiousness. b. extraversion. c. optimism. d. need for achievement. 115. Which of the following situation is MOST likely to produce frustration? a. Clay wanted to buy a 72-ounce jar of peanut butter, but found a better deal on two 36-ounce containers. b. Xander wants to go ziplining with his friends but he’s an inch too short to meet the height requirement. c. Mikayla can’t decide if she should date Ainsley or Sky. d. Cornelius is troubled by the homelessness that seems to plague every state. 116. The first stage of Hans Selye’s general adaptation syndrome is a. alarm. b. resistance. c. exhaustion. d. acceptance. 117. Research has shown that overall people with a Type A behavior pattern a. have a modest risk for coronary disease. b. have a low risk for coronary disease. c. have a decreased risk for developing cancer. d. have an increased risk for developing cancer. 118. Minor stresses may be more strongly related to mental health than major stressful events, largely because a. of the cumulative nature of stress. b. minor stresses lead to more intense physiological arousal than major stresses. c. we are much more intimately involved with minor stresses. d. we feel more out of control with minor stresses than we do with major stresses. 119. Cynthia just finished a doctor’s appointment. As she gets in the car to go home, her friend Monica asks, “What did the doctor tell you to do?” If Cynthia is like the vast majority of patients, how will she respond? a. “I’m not sure.” b. “Take 5 of these pills each morning.” c. “Schedule a follow-up visit in 8 months.” d. “Ignore the pain until it goes away.”

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Chapter 13_11e 120. The unifying theme in psychology that our experience of the world is highly subjective is BEST illustrated by the part of the definition of stress that states a. circumstances that are perceived as threatening are stressful. b. circumstances that are threatening are stressful. c. circumstances that are stressful tax one’s coping abilities. d. circumstances that are traumatic are stressful. 121. Gomez wants to unburden himself of stressful thoughts of personal difficulties. What strategy would be best for him to follow to accomplish this? a. Set aside 60 minutes each day to concentrate on his problems. b. Distract himself by shopping. c. Write about his difficulties on a regular basis in a journal. d. Distract himself by going to either a movie, the theater, or a concert. 122. The human body’s defensive reaction against foreign invaders is collectively known as a. infusion. b. the suppressive reaction. c. repression. d. the immune response. 123. How can the growth of the AIDS epidemic in recent years be best characterized? a. The epidemic has declined substantially in recent years. b. The growth of the epidemic has leveled off. c. The epidemic continues to grow at a slow but moderate rate. d. The epidemic has shown dramatic growth in recent years. 124. Which person is statistically MOST likely to seek and report symptoms to medical professionals sooner? a. Garth, who is high on the Big Five trait of openness to experience b. Angela, who is high on the Big Five trait of extraversion c. Sabrina, who is high on the Big Five trait of agreeableness d. Rory, who is high on the Big Five trait of neuroticism 125. Doug is feeling stressed today. Which event is the most likely cause of Doug’s stress? a. He unexpectedly learned that a distant relative who he had never met has passed away. b. His roommate’s car was recently broken into and the repair bills are large. c. He’s going to meet his girlfriend’s parents for the first time at dinner tomorrow night. d. He read about an earthquake that rattled a large portion of Antarctica.

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Chapter 13_11e 126. Researchers have discovered links between specific appraisals of stressful events and specific emotions then experienced. For example, self-blame tends to lead to the experience of a. frustration. b. anxiety. c. fear. d. guilt. 127. The percentage of adults in the United States who smoke a. has remained stable. b. has been steadily increasing. c. has been decreasing. d. has increased only during the 2000s. 128. Before practitioners adopted the biopsychosocial model of health and wellness, how was the link between stress and physical illness conceptualized? a. Stress was thought to have an indirect effect on a small number of psychosomatic illnesses. b. Stress was known to play a major role in the onset of physical disorders, but it was thought to play an insignificant role in the onset of psychological disorders. c. Stress was known to directly produce psychological disorders, but it was assumed to have no effect on physical health. d. Illness was seen as exclusively biological in origin; no role of stress was acknowledged. 129. Ludwig is new to the world of sexual behavior, and he’s concerned about contracting HIV from a partner. He asks his roommate, Winston, a psychology major, for some advice. What is the best advice Winston can give Ludwig? a. “Screen all of your sex partners carefully; the probability of someone having contracted HIV is greater than you’d think.” b. “Only use animal skin-based contraceptives to avoid transmitting HIV.” c. “Avoid having sex with anyone who appears to have a communicable disease, such as a cold.” d. “Women, more than men, are statistically more likely to know that they have contracted HIV and will tell you more readily, so be sure to ask them.” 130. Which situation depicts an approach-avoidance conflict? a. Willie has to choose between having fun with Jud and the boys and seeing a blockbuster movie with his new girlfriend. b. Stella realizes that she either has to get a painful dental procedure or risk contracting gum disease. c. To accept a much better job, Margo would have to relocate from her hometown and move across the country. d. Josie wants to have fun on a date Friday night, but also wants to have fun at a party across town.

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Chapter 13_11e 131. Madelaine is a college student who explores sexual relationships with both women and men. Her friend Julia supports this decision, but wants to be sure Madelaine is safe from HIV. What is the best advice Julia could give Madelaine? a. “Ask potential partners if they have had sex with someone new within the past month.” b. “Make sure anyone that you have sex with appears to be healthy and maintains good diet and exercise practices.” c. “Ask potential partners for their contact information so that you can get in touch with them if you learn you have contracted HIV.” d. “Be especially careful with the men you have sex with; male-to-female transmission of HIV is particularly likely.” 132. Which event would be considered a daily hassle? a. surviving a flood b. breaking an arm c. arriving late for a job interview d. misplacing one’s wallet 133. Which brain structure plays a crucial and primary role in initiating responses to a stressor? a. cerebellum b. amygdala c. basal ganglia d. hypothalamus 134. Research has found that when a person is engaging in a task while their emotional arousal is very high, it is likely to result in performance that is a. also high for the task. b. optimal for the task. c. unchanging for the task. d. low for the task. 135. While all internal conflicts tend to be stressful, which is the MOST stressful? a. Approach-avoidance b. Approach-approach c. Avoidance-avoidance d. Double approach-avoidance 136. Kathy, who lives in California, has a large social support network. After Kathy's house is damaged in an earthquake, what kind of support would be best for her friends to give her? a. They should give Kathy space to work through her problems with her insurance company on her own. b. They should remind Kathy through social media postings that they are there when she needs them. c. They should offer to bring meals to her and help take and pick up her children from school. d. They should send Kathy email messages with smiley faces.

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Chapter 13_11e 137. Chronic inflammation has been linked to the onset of a variety of diseases. What causes chronic inflammation? a. sexually transmitted infections b. poor hygiene c. increased blood cell size d. immune system dysregulation 138. Research evidence indicates what kind of relationship between exercise and health? a. There is a static relationship between the two; sustained and haphazard exercise produce about the same health benefits. b. Less exercise is strongly related to a lowered risk of cardiovascular disease. c. There is a clear and strong relationship between lack of exercise and poor health. d. There is an inverted-U relationship between the two; health benefits are greatest at low and high levels of exercise. 139. During a checkup, Mick’s doctor asks whether Mick has any support from his family and how he handles stress. Which of the following is likely true about Mick’s doctor? a. Mick’s doctor sees illness as a purely biological phenomenon. b. Mick’s doctor was actually practicing chiropractic medicine. c. Mick’s doctor adopts a biopsychosocial model of health and illness. d. Mick’s doctor adopts the social stamina model of well-being. 140. People with Type B personalities are more likely to play sports a. to compete and win. b. for the physical challenge. c. to satisfy an inner drive to succeed. d. for fun and relaxation. 141. Suki routinely responds to stress with a learned helplessness response. Suki's response will involve a. a release of emotional tension that often accompanies stress. b. passive behavior produced by exposure to unavoidable aversive events. c. protecting herself from unpleasant situations by refusing to acknowledge them. d. atoning for unacceptable unconscious drives or impulses in socially acceptable ways. 142. Physical or verbal behavior intended to hurt someone is classified as a. defensive coping. b. catharsis. c. aggression. d. pessimism.

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Chapter 13_11e 143. How is exercise related to the likelihood of developing Alzheimer’s disease? a. Exercise is unrelated to an increased or decreased likelihood of developing Alzheimer’s disease. b. Exercise can reverse the progression of Alzheimer’s disease in a person already diagnosed with the disorder. c. Exercise enhances feelings of optimism, which in turn reduce the likelihood of developing Alzheimer’s disease. d. Exercise can reduce a person’s vulnerability to Alzheimer’s disease. 144. How are HIV and AIDS related to one another? a. Developing AIDS is the final stage of the HIV infection process. b. They are synonymous. c. They are not related to each other; each is a separate sexually transmitted infection. d. AIDS causes HIV to develop. 145. Imagine that a researcher publishes the results from a study that indicate a statistically significant association between sleep deprivation and coronary disease. This result would mean that a. sleep deprivation causes coronary disease. b. coronary disease causes sleep deprivation. c. the effect of sleep deprivation on coronary disease is larger than the effect of any other factor. d. the findings are not likely to be due to chance fluctuations. 146. A common emotional reaction to stress is a. contempt. b. surprise. c. joy. d. anger. 147. What is the most appropriate conclusion regarding the relationship between stress and illness? a. Stress causes illness. b. Illness causes stress. c. A third variable causes both stress and illness. d. Stress might cause illness, illness might cause stress, or a third variable might cause both. 148. Why would approach-avoidance conflicts be fairly common in life? a. People almost never have to choose between two desirable alternatives because most options in life aren’t that desirable to begin with. b. The appraisal process guarantees that we will fabricate both good and bad elements for any situation we’re faced with. c. Rarely are options all good or all bad; risks and benefits often accompany any important decision. d. People tend to forget times when they’ve avoided situations and selectively remember times when they’ve approached situations.

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Chapter 13_11e 149. Which outcome is a direct effect of exercise? a. reduced risk for chronic inflammation b. avoidance of Alzheimer’s disease c. increased cardiovascular fitness d. reduced risk for diabetes 150. Verified by numerous studies, how strong is the relationship between measures of stress and measures of health? a. modest b. strong c. low d. very strong 151. How is emotional arousal related to task performance? a. The relationship, when graphed, produces a straight line rising from lower left to upper right. b. The relationship, when graphed, produces an inverted-U shape. c. The relationship, when graphed, produces an S-shaped (ogive) curve. d. The relationship, when graphed, produces a straight line descending from upper left to lower right. 152. Which life event requires the greatest amount of readjustment, according to the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? a. vacation b. marital reconciliation c. death of a spouse d. sex difficulties 153. Who should be especially worried about compromising their cardiovascular health? a. Jud, who has a calm demeanor and a low stress job. b. Lurleen, a cardiac patient who has infrequent and unexpected outbursts of sadness. c. Rhonda Sue, who exercises regularly but who has a job with high stress. d. Abner, a cardiac patient who has brief outbursts of anger, but who experiences these outbursts frequently. 154. Studies of the immune system in humans have found that stress a. can lead to increased levels of immune activity. b. has very little effect on immune activity. c. can lead to decreased levels of immune activity. d. decreases autonomic nervous system function.

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Chapter 13_11e 155. As a task becomes more complex, the optimal level of arousal needed to produce peak performance tends to a. decrease. b. cease. c. remain constant. d. increase. 156. Where do hormones come from? a. They are the by-products of neurotransmitters. b. They are secreted by the hypothalamus. c. They are secreted by glands in the endocrine system. d. They are the products of metabolism. 157. How are social networks linked with a person's health? a. Social isolation is associated with better physical and mental health. b. Social isolation is associated with poor health and increased mortality. c. Social isolation improves health rates among older people but decreases health rates among adolescents. d. Social isolation has not been found to be associated with health outcomes. 158. Research has shown that there is an increased risk in heart attacks for up to two hours after a. receiving bad news b. having a bad scare, such as a car accident. c. an angry outburst. d. a stressful day at work. 159. What happens in an approach-approach conflict? a. A choice must be made between two unattractive goals. b. A choice must be made between satisfying personal wants and meeting the needs of others. c. A choice must be made between two attractive goals. d. A choice must be made between an attractive and an unattractive goal. 160. About how often does nonadherence to medical advice take place for short-term treatments of acute conditions? a. 80 percent of the time b. 50 percent of the time c. 30 percent of the time d. 10 percent of the time 161. Expectations or demands to perform in a certain way can produce stress for an individual in the form of a. pressure. b. internal conflicts. c. frustration. d. life changes.

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Chapter 13_11e 162. Which circumstances would be most likely to produce a cumulative effect of stress on a person’s health? a. receiving a poor evaluation for one fiscal quarter’s sales b. planning a New Year’s Eve party c. experiencing driving rain in the aftermath of a hurricane d. caring for a sick relative on a daily basis 163. What arises from the incompatibility of two or more motivations within a person? a. internal conflict b. frustration c. pressure d. neediness 164. Oni has to drive into the city tomorrow, which she always finds stressful. Before she leaves, she envisions her route and considers how she might handle the challenges she meets on the trip. These preparations are part of Oni's a. primary appraisal. b. secondary appraisal. c. reaction formation. d. defensive coping. 165. When under stress, what activates the adrenal medulla? a. the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system b. the pituitary gland c. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) d. the neurogenetic division of the central nervous system 166. Why are only some aspects of the Type A behavior pattern linked to heart disease? a. The Type A behavior pattern was never well-defined to begin with, so any links to physical health are haphazard at best. b. Type A behavior can be easily modified; when most behaviors are changed, those that remain contribute to heart disease. c. The goal for people with Type A personalities is to become Type B; behavior during this transition period is what’s linked to heart disease. d. Some elements of Type A, such as competitiveness or ambitiousness, can be beneficial; other elements, such as hostility, exact much greater wear on physical functioning. 167. Among coronary patients, mental stress can elicit cardiac symptoms in approximately a. 1 to 2 percent of patients. b. 30 to 70 percent of patients. c. 85 percent of patients. d. 10 to 20 percent of patients.

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Chapter 13_11e 168. What is the best way to conceptualize the process of quitting smoking? a. It is an all-or-none process; some people can quit easily whereas others cannot. b. It is a medical process, with little role for willpower or goal-setting. c. It is a matter of genetics; people with an addictive personality will have a great deal of trouble ever quitting. d. It is a process of successes and failures, but renewed commitment and persistence for the task are what’s key. 169. The correct order for the three stages of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome is a. primary, secondary, tertiary. b. recognition, reaction, evaluation. c. alarm, adaptation, recovery. d. alarm, resistance, exhaustion. 170. Which psychological disorder has been linked to elevated risk of heart disease? a. schizophrenia b. depression c. anxiety d. borderline personality disorder 171. How is smoking tobacco related to the likelihood of developing a disease? a. Smoking tobacco is related to an increased likelihood of developing a very wide range of diseases. b. Smoking tobacco raises the risk of developing heart disease by 2 percent, compared to nonsmokers. c. Smoking tobacco leads only to the development of lung cancer. d. No definitive studies have linked smoking tobacco with an increased likelihood of disease. 172. Why can emotional arousal have both beneficial and disruptive effects on coping? a. Emotions are, by definition, a disruptive force that needs to be balanced by rationality; stressful situations often don’t allow us to be rational. b. Stressful situations are best met with calm emotional responses, but evolution has produced a tendency toward emotional extremity in the face of danger. c. Optimal arousal depends on the complexity of the response required, but complexity itself depends on individual differences in appraisal. d. Neither emotion nor stress can be adequately defined, so “beneficial” or “disruptive” outcomes similarly lack clear definition. 173. Which of the Big Five personality traits has consistently been associated with good health and increased longevity? a. neuroticism b. openness to experience c. conscientiousness d. competitiveness

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Chapter 13_11e 174. Which of the following statements BEST describes the features and nature of a stressful event? a. The event can be seen as objectively either good or bad. b. Consensus that a bad outcome resulted from a particular event makes that event stressful for everyone. c. The magnitude of the event based on how unexpected and its negative impact is what defines it as stressful. d. A person’s perception of the event as stressful makes it, by definition, stressful. 175. “Environmental tobacco smoke” is also known as a. filtered smoke. b. mentholated smoke. c. second-hand smoke. d. unfiltered smoke. 176. When a person tries to master, reduce, or tolerate the demands produced by stress, it is generally known as a. reaction formation. b. resilience. c. hardiness. d. coping. 177. When a person chronically uses learned helplessness as a coping strategy, it can lead to an increased risk for a. increased self-esteem. b. anxiety. c. angry outbursts. d. depression. 178. One’s risk of developing heart disease is related to the amount of stress in one’s life, whether one has Type A personality, is depressed, obese, or a smoker. This partial list of risk factors BEST reflects the unifying theme in psychology that a. psychology is empirical. b. behavior is determined by multiple causes. c. heredity and environment jointly influence behavior. d. our experience of the world is highly subjective 179. Which of the following is a behavioral response to stress? a. feeling anger over the frustration of trying to find a parking spot during the holiday season b. sweating and shaking as you anticipate having to break up with your dating partner c. feeling relieved after an especially difficult exam is finished d. shouting obscenities at the driver who took the parking space you were waiting for

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Chapter 13_11e 180. The optimal level of arousal for task performance a. is about the same from one task to another. b. increases as the tasks become more complex. c. decreases as the tasks become more complex. d. is related more to personal makeup than to the task. 181. Which situation best illustrates the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome? a. Marcie sleeps for 14 hours following a week of demanding work and personal setbacks. b. Randi loves the thrill of pre-holiday shopping; the crowds and bustle energize her. c. When Laura hears a bottle break in the dark alley ahead of her, her muscles tense and her blood pressure rises. d. Claudia takes a deep breath before starting her shift in the Complaints Department at a local department store. 182. Jonathan shows all the signs of having an Internet addiction. What response will he have when his Wi-Fi connection is disabled during a power outage? a. He would be distracted and inattentive. b. He would wait patiently for the power to be restored. c. He would be irritable, angry, and depressed. d. He would contact friends to start a poker game. 183. A crucial determinant of stress reactions is a. the frequency with which an event has happened in the past. b. a person’s appraisal of a given event. c. the likelihood that an event will happen in the future. d. the objective severity of an event. 184. When the pursuit of a goal is thwarted, a person is likely to feel a. a desire to change. b. internal conflict. c. pressure. d. frustration. 185. Sharon wants to use catharsis to cope with the stress she’s experiencing. Which activity might she want to pursue? a. See the latest comedy film showing at the local cinema. b. Find a priest, rabbi, or minister to listen to her confessions. c. Visit the gym and work out strenuously on the punching bag. d. Buy a bottle of rye whiskey and spend the weekend in isolation.

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Chapter 13_11e 186. Walter's psychology professor discussed the research linking emotion to longevity. After class, Walters's friend asks him, "What should I do if I want to live a long time?" Walter tells them, "If you want to live longer you should a. seek experiences that will result in extreme emotional highs and lows." b. smile often and sincerely." c. express your anger fully." d. keep all of your emotions in check." 187. Having a general feeling that things will be okay and problems will eventually work out is known as a. internal control. b. optimism. c. learned helplessness. d. hardiness. 188. LuAnn exhibits effective problem-focused coping and seeks the help of others when necessary. Her behavior is consistent with someone who is a(n) a. optimist. b. Type A personality. c. Type B personality. d. pessimist. 189. Norma makes friends wherever she goes. At the bank, grocery store, library, and doctor’s office, everyone knows her name and she knows everyone, even though their paths cross infrequently. Her own family is small, but her acquaintances are many. How much social support does Norma enjoy? a. very little b. a great deal c. a moderate amount d. none 190. Research MOST strongly suggests that people who have been betrayed by someone will experience improved mood if they a. make new trustworthy friends. b. openly confront the person who betrayed them about their feelings of betrayal. c. forgive the betrayer. d. avoid all further contact with the person who betrayed them. 191. Which situation represents primary appraisal? a. Ingo hears about civil unrest happening in a far-away country, and looks up where the country is in an atlas. b. Rudy is told that good things come to those who wait, and he meditates on that statement. c. Dolph sees an accident occur on the opposite side of the freeway, and concludes, “That’s unfortunate, but it doesn’t affect me.” d. Corrado is asked to make a donation to a charity that helps rehabilitate greyhounds, and he gives them five dollars. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13_11e 192. Why are optimists more likely than pessimists to experience good physical health? a. Optimists tend to visit the doctor on a more regular basis than pessimists do. b. Optimists have a much greater focus on their health, sometimes to the point of obsession. c. Optimists have a smaller, more dedicated social support network than pessimists do. d. Optimists cope with stress in more adaptive ways than pessimists do. 193. Rachael turned Arnold down for a date, and Arnold is feeling upset about it. If Arnold applied a rational appraisal to the situation, what would he think to himself? a. “Rachael confirmed that I’m too smart and attractive for regular people like her.” b. “I’m not as desirable as I thought I was.” c. “I deserve better than Rachael.” d. “Someone else will very likely find me attractive.” 194. College health clinics are probably MOST likely to experience an increase in students seeking treatment for colds and other minor illnesses during a. the weekend. b. after spring break. c. finals week. d. the middle of the week. 195. What happens in an approach-avoidance conflict? a. A choice must be made about pursuing a goal that is simultaneously attractive and unattractive. b. A choice must be made between two attractive goals. c. A choice must be made between two unattractive goals. d. A choice must be made between satisfying personal wants and meeting the needs of others. 196. Why do major disasters constitute only a small portion of stressful events? a. Disasters themselves are not stressful, but the aftermath of a disaster causes stress. b. Major disasters are usually rare and infrequent occurrences. c. Major disasters tend to happen to other people in other parts of the world. d. Most disasters actually produce benefits for the people who experience them. 197. Smoking is to lung cancer as Type A behavior is to a. heart disease. b. AIDS. c. defensive coping. d. schizophrenia.

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Chapter 13_11e 198. Lois is looking for an easy way to reduce the impact of stress in her life. What would be the best advice you could give her? a. take responsibility for planning parties on major holidays, such as Christmas, New Year’s Eve, or Flag Day b. force a smile whenever a stressful event occurs; by pretending it’s not stressful, it won’t be c. find a route to work that doesn’t involve a lot of sitting in traffic d. never travel to earthquake-ridden zones, such as anywhere near a fault line 199. What effect does depression have on a person’s likelihood of developing heart disease? a. Depression doubles the chances of developing heart disease. b. Depression reduces the chances of developing heart disease. c. Depression triples the chances of developing heart disease. d. Having depression leads to a 50/50 chance of developing heart disease. 200. Knowing that friends will help you in a time of crisis is an example of a. implicit social support. b. the Type B personality. c. explicit social support. d. resilience.

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Chapter 13_11e Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. d 7. d 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. b 13. d 14. b 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. b 19. d 20. d 21. c 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. c 26. d

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Chapter 13_11e 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. c 31. d 32. d 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. a 39. c 40. c 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. c 46. d 47. c 48. c 49. d 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. c 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13_11e 55. c 56. b 57. d 58. d 59. c 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. d 64. d 65. d 66. b 67. c 68. c 69. c 70. b 71. c 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. d 76. d 77. a 78. b 79. b 80. b 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13_11e 83. d 84. a 85. b 86. d 87. a 88. c 89. a 90. b 91. d 92. d 93. d 94. b 95. c 96. b 97. a 98. c 99. c 100. d 101. b 102. d 103. c 104. c 105. d 106. d 107. a 108. c 109. c 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13_11e 111. c 112. c 113. c 114. c 115. b 116. a 117. a 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. c 122. d 123. b 124. d 125. c 126. d 127. c 128. a 129. a 130. c 131. d 132. d 133. d 134. d 135. c 136. c 137. d

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Chapter 13_11e 138. c 139. c 140. d 141. b 142. c 143. d 144. a 145. d 146. d 147. d 148. c 149. c 150. a 151. b 152. c 153. d 154. c 155. a 156. c 157. b 158. c 159. c 160. c 161. a 162. d 163. a 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13_11e 166. d 167. b 168. d 169. d 170. b 171. a 172. c 173. c 174. d 175. c 176. d 177. d 178. b 179. d 180. c 181. c 182. c 183. b 184. d 185. c 186. b 187. b 188. a 189. b 190. c 191. c 192. d 193. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13_11e 194. c 195. a 196. b 197. a 198. c 199. a 200. a

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Chapter 14_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Behavioral factors that facilitate depression, including impaired social skills and excessive need for approval, are categorized as what type of factors in diagnosis? a. hormonal factors b. interpersonal factors c. cognitive factors d. stress factors 2. Research on mood disorders and structural brain abnormalities suggests that which of the following areas may contribute to the emergence of depression? a. amygdala b. hypothalamus c. hippocampus d. thalamus 3. Which statement best explains how the term insanity is used today? a. It is a legal concept/definition but not a diagnosis of mental illness. b. It is not a legal concept/definition but a diagnosis of mental illness. c. It is the only way to diagnose mental disorders. d. It is used to admit people into insane asylums. 4. Sandy’s mother is worried that she may have developed bulimia nervosa. What symptoms would you suggest her mother watch for? a. Sandy may experience rigid rules with her eating and significantly restrict her caloric and nutritional intake to amounts well below recommendations for adequate nutrition. b. Sandy may experience overeating followed by self-induced vomiting. She may abuse laxatives and diuretics and excessively exercise. c. Sandy may experience intense fear of gaining weight, a disturbed body image, refusal to maintain normal weight, and use of dangerous measures to lose weight. d. Sandy may experience distress-inducing eating binges that are not accompanied by purging, fasting, and excessive exercise. 5. The onset of bipolar disorder is age related. The typical age of onset is a. late twenties to early thirties. b. early to mid-thirties. c. early twenties. d. late teens to early twenties.

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Chapter 14_11e 6. Which of the following BEST describes the general differences between anorexia nervosa and binge-eating disorder? a. People diagnosed with anorexia nervosa have a distorted perception of what they look like while people diagnosed with binge-eating disorder will eat in excess due to feelings of distress. b. People diagnosed with anorexia nervosa reward themselves with food when they reach a goal. People diagnosed with binge-eating disorder starve themselves to reach a goal. c. People diagnosed with anorexia nervosa are aware that they have a misperception of themselves physically, but they don’t care. People diagnosed with binge-eating disorder believe punishing themselves will achieve desired results. d. People diagnosed with anorexia nervosa engage in efforts to promote their condition as healthy. People diagnosed with binge-eating disorder engage in efforts to hide it because they know it is unhealthy. 7. Which statement best explains what negative symptoms of schizophrenia are? a. Behavioral excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, incoherent thoughts, agitation, and bizarre behavior. b. Rapid heart rate resulting from intense dread of getting out of bed, claustrophobia, insomnia, and panic attacks. c. Amnesia, chronic dread, and refusal to leave the house because of a fear of busy places. d. Flattened emotions, social withdrawal, apathy, impaired attention, poor grooming, and lack of persistence at work or school. 8. Which of the following statements regarding eating disorders is the MOST accurate? a. Bulimia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than anorexia nervosa. b. Both bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa lead to death in 2–10% of patients. c. Anorexia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than bulimia nervosa. d. While bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa are both serious conditions, neither is a life-threatening condition. 9. Which class of disorders includes narcissistic, antisocial, and unstable relationships, and unstable emotional functioning? a. conversion b. somatoform c. personality d. schizophrenic 10. Conrad is only able to achieve sexual arousal by dressing in women’s clothing. In the American culture, his behavior would MOST likely be considered a. maladaptive. b. personally distressing. c. delusional. d. deviant.

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Chapter 14_11e 11. A grandiose sense of self-importance, a sense of entitlement, and an excessive need for attention and admiration best illustrates which disorder? a. borderline personality disorder b. narcissistic personality disorder c. antisocial personality disorder d. schizophrenia 12. Marilyn has trouble keeping friendships and romantic relationships. She easily panics if a friend or romantic partner starts to distance themselves from her and clings fiercely to them in hopes they will stay with her. This best describes a symptom of a. schizophrenia. b. narcissistic personality disorder. c. borderline personality disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. 13. People with dissociate amnesia are most likely to forget a. their address. b. how to tie their shoes. c. how to read. d. the purpose of a car. 14. In the medical model, prognosis refers to a. apparent causation and developmental history of an illness. b. a forecast about the probable course of an illness. c. differentiation of one illness from another. d. a method used to diagnose illness. 15. Newer research conducted on the etiology of mood disorders suggests a(n) a. moderately strong positive correlation between stress and mood disorders. b. negligible correlation between stress and mood disorders. c. extremely strong positive correlation between stress and mood disorders. d. negative correlation between stress and mood disorders. 16. Shawn has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Before his psychiatrist came to this diagnosis, what diagnostic criteria needed to be considered? a. Whether he was experiencing social interaction debilitation, forcing him to withdraw from encounters with others as well as from performing work duties b. Whether he was experiencing irrational fears of certain objects or situations, disturbance of day- to-day functioning due to panic attacks, and stressful reactions to ordinary things c. Whether he was experiencing irrational thoughts or delusions, deterioration of routine functioning, auditory hallucinations, and disturbed emotions d. Whether he was experiencing marital problems that could have had an effect on the manifestation of the disorder, along with the family’s reinforcement of negative patterns of behavior he grew up experiencing

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Chapter 14_11e 17. Critics of the medical model worry about a. pinning potentially derogatory labels on people that create a social stigma. b. health professionals not doing their job in an appropriate manner. c. creating unnecessary worry for over labeling. d. helping people understand what the differences are between schizophrenia and major depression. 18. Steve sees Dr. Manning for a diagnosis of major depressive disorder and recently shared that he had an abusive and traumatic childhood. Dr. Manning treats Steve for his depression, but also has to consider post-traumatic stress factors. This approach to treatment considers the existence of a. codependence. b. comorbidity. c. coexistence. d. cosupportiveness. 19. Tasha went on a diet to lose weight. She is 5'3" tall and went from 120 pounds to 80 pounds. Although she is medically underweight, she believes that she is fat. Her worried mother made her crackers and peanut butter to eat, but Tasha only pretended to eat them and threw them in the garbage. Tasha is displaying behaviors associated with a. bulimia nervosa. b. hypermetabolism. c. anorexia nervosa. d. hypothyroidism. 20. Which statement best illustrates how to think of the medical model? a. It is not useful to think of abnormal behavior as a disease. b. It is unnecessary to look at other models to explain abnormal behaviors. c. It is useful to think of abnormal behavior as a disease. d. It is extremely harmful not to explain mental illness in any other terms. 21. Tanika views alcohol dependence as a disease. Like a heart attack, it can be treated. Which of the following would explain this? a. a learning perspective b. the medical model c. psychoanalysis d. cognitive theory 22. Schizophrenia disorder usually emerges a. during childhood. b. during adolescence or early adulthood. c. between the ages of 40-50. d. after age 60.

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Chapter 14_11e 23. A college student faced with upcoming exams and term papers responds to his resulting feelings of anxiety by reorganizing his notes, rearranging his bookshelves, cleaning out his desk drawer, and straightening up his closet. He is showing symptoms of a. post-traumatic stress disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. claustrophobia. d. schizophrenia. 24. Symptoms of schizophrenia can be characterized as a. intense feelings of guilt and paranoia. b. feelings of hopelessness and despair. c. disorganized and fragmented thinking. d. severe mood changes from uncontrollable anger to extreme sadness. 25. Disorders in which people lose contact with portions of their consciousness or memory, resulting in disruptions in their sense of identity is most characteristic of a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. manic depression. d. dissociative disorder. 26. An early symptom of autism spectrum disorder can be illustrated by a. extreme interest in other people. b. hearing voices when no one is present. c. a lack of social smiling with others. d. lack of control over emotional displays. 27. Personal distress most accurately means a. describing subjective pain and suffering to friends, relatives, and mental health professionals. b. refusing to share one’s feelings with close friends, family members, and associates. c. taking a principled stand on mental health issues. d. refusing to get out of bed. 28. The term schizophrenia was coined in 1911 and means split a. personality. b. mind. c. brain. d. attention span.

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Chapter 14_11e 29. Compared to men, women are twice as likely to be diagnosed with a. depression. b. alcoholism. c. post-traumatic stress disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. 30. How are agoraphobia and generalized anxiety disorder related? a. They are both categorized as depressive disorders. b. They are both categorized as anxiety disorders. c. They are both categorized as dissociative disorders. d. They are both categorized as schizophrenic disorders. 31. Doug uses cocaine to socialize and often finds that he cannot function without it. Which of the following would best classify his behavior? a. deviant b. exceptional c. maladaptive d. personally distressed 32. Patients with eating disorders who have families contribute by endorsing society’s message of “you can never be too thin” illustrates which etiology factor in the development of their eating disorder? a. personality factors b. genetic vulnerability c. cognitive factors d. the role of family 33. A person who is experiencing persistent, uncontrollable intrusions of unwanted thoughts and urges to engage in irrational rituals could be diagnosed as having a. schizophrenia. b. post-traumatic stress disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. manic depression. 34. Most psychological disorders a. have only one cause. b. have two causes. c. have multiple causes. d. have no causality.

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Chapter 14_11e 35. Dr. Plessy is treating Amanda for schizophrenia. Amanda has continued to decline in attention, perception, and thought processing. To better understand the underlying biological factors of her condition, he orders a brain scan. What conclusions will he be able to draw from the scan? a. Whether there is degeneration of brain tissue along with enlarged ventricles which is causing the decline in cognitive functioning. b. Whether her brain fluid is increasing, putting extreme pressure on the brain which is impairing her cognitive abilities and perception. c. Whether her brain tissue is healthy enough to sustain normal cognitive functioning and problem-solving tasks. d. Whether the important parts of the brain are healthy enough to operate in a normal way with the support of proper medication. 36. Patients with eating disorders who tend to exhibit obsessive, rigid or overly sensitive behaviors, and low selfesteem can be categorized under which etiological factor in the development of their eating disorder? a. personality factors b. genetic vulnerability c. the role of family d. cognitive factors 37. For the past month, Manuel seems to have lost interest in most of his normal activities. He feels irritable and has had difficulty sleeping. He also finds that he has difficulty making decisions. Manuel’s symptoms are MOST consistent with those seen in a. antisocial personality disorder. b. bipolar disorder. c. depression. d. generalized anxiety disorder. 38. In the medical model, diagnosis refers to a. apparent causation and developmental history of an illness. b. a forecast about the probable course of an illness. c. differentiation of one illness from another. d. adaptation to the criteria of an illness. 39. A person experiencing delusions, irrational thought, hallucinations, and disorganized thinking and speech most accurately illustrates a. panic disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. agoraphobia.

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Chapter 14_11e 40. Hue was diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is experiencing an episode of mania. Which of the following is a good example of Hue behavior during an episode of mania? a. high levels of guilt b. indifference toward his family members c. hyperactivity d. pessimism 41. When researching psychological disorders that are anxiety dominated, what interactions must be considered for studying them? a. Biological concordance factors, cognitive factors, exposure to stress, and conditioning and learning factors b. Personality, character development, personal values, and ethics development c. Lifelong relationship success, personal self-esteem, and identity development d. Development of emotional intelligence including empathy, impulse control, and goal setting 42. A person marked by impulsive, callous, manipulative, aggressive, and irresponsible behavior best illustrates a. borderline personality disorder. b. narcissistic personality disorder. c. depressive personality disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. 43. Which of the following disorders is diagnosed exclusively in childhood? a. post-traumatic stress disorder b. schizophrenia c. anxiety disorder d. autism spectrum disorder 44. After suffering injuries from an intense car crash, Abdul cannot remember his name, where he lives, or what type of work he does. What is the best explanation for these symptoms? a. dissociative identity disorder b. dissociative schizophrenic disorder c. pick’s disease d. dissociative amnesia 45. Sandy lost her husband two years ago and has been very sad and despondent. She is now showing signs of significant weight loss, exhaustion, and poor hygiene. Which among the following is the best option you can recommend to help Sandy? a. Sandy is likely just experiencing prolonged grief. With time, she should begin to feel better. b. Sandy needs to see a psychologist as you suspect that she has developed a mood disorder such as depression. c. Sandy should see her family physician and request a sleep-aid since she is exhausted. d. Sandy should go on vacation. Perhaps if she escapes her current environment for a while, she will begin to feel better.

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Chapter 14_11e 46. An eating disorder characterized by out-of-control overeating followed by unhealthy compensatory efforts such as self-induced vomiting is a. bulimia nervosa. b. anorexia nervosa. c. bipolar disorder. d. binge-eating disorder. 47. Which is the best statement explaining why the four subtypes of schizophrenia were removed from the DSM-5? a. The absence of meaningful differences cast doubt on the value of subtypes. b. There are more than just four subtypes, so a new analysis must be conducted to name all variations to include in the next edition. c. Therapists were not convinced labeling schizophrenics in various ways helps in their treatment plan. d. Treatment hospitals found that submitting insurance claims by subtypes did not yield a large enough reimbursement for services rendered. 48. The most common psychological disorders in the United States are a. mood disorders. b. personality disorders. c. eating disorders. d. substance abuse disorders. 49. Learned helplessness is most closely associated with a. dissociative disorders. b. depression. c. post-traumatic stress disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. 50. The medical model uses deviance, maladaptive behavior, and personal distress to diagnose disorders. One problem with these criteria is that a. most people exhibit these types of behaviors at some point in their lives. b. it is the only effective way to diagnose abnormality. c. maladaptive behavior should be considered more in diagnosis. d. deviance is the most important consideration in diagnosis for this model. 51. Correlations have been found between mood disorders and abnormal levels of two neurotransmitters in the brain. These neurotransmitters are a. epinephrine and dopamine. b. norepinephrine and serotonin. c. norepinephrine and dopamine. d. dopamine and serotonin.

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Chapter 14_11e 52. Alicia has mood fluctuations ranging from extreme optimism to a sense of hopelessness. Sometimes she stays in bed for days and others she stays awake with tireless energy. Given these symptoms, a therapist might likely conclude that Alicia is probably experiencing a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. bipolar disorder. c. major depressive disorder. d. post-traumatic stress disorder. 53. Severe disturbances in eating behavior characterized by preoccupation with weight concerns and unhealthy efforts to control weight illustrates a(n) a. conversion disorder. b. eating disorder. c. somatoform disorder. d. personality disorder. 54. Tabitha has a personality disorder marked by chaotic interpersonal relationships, poor emotional control, and reckless behavior. She has been brought to the hospital due to superficial cuts on her arm, which Tabitha explains she caused using a razor blade. Would you suggest that Tabitha be admitted to the hospital? a. No. Her cuts are merely superficial and are not life threatening. She should have her wounds cleaned and be sent home. b. No. This was obviously attention-seeking behavior which should not be reinforced. She should be cleaned up and make an outpatient appointment with a therapist. c. Yes. There is an increased risk of suicide in cases of self-injurious behavior among individuals with Tabitha’s disorder. d. Yes, but she should be given significantly more autonomy and freedom to leave the hospital at will compared to someone who actually attempted suicide. 55. Mr. Knudson, a CEO of a large business, falsely believed his secretary was a government spy photocopying sensitive documents. When he confronted her, he claimed that he was the president of the United States and would have her court-martialed. Given these symptoms, what type of disorder should this be classified as? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. agoraphobia c. dissociative identity disorder d. schizophrenia 56. Earlier age of onset of depression is associated with a. less severe symptoms. b. less chronic symptoms. c. more severe symptoms. d. less impairment in occupational functioning.

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Chapter 14_11e 57. Which one of the following examples best illustrates a positive symptom of schizophrenia? a. Dissociation of what their name is, where they live or work, fear of talking, and fear of touching dirty door knobs. b. Behavioral excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, incoherent thoughts, agitation, and bizarre behavior. c. Refusal to get out of bed, feelings of despair with suicidal thoughts, and failure to recognize or interact with family members. d. Extreme feelings of euphoria and taking on anything with a confidence to succeed along with frequent bouts of depression and despair. 58. In a courtroom, a finding of insanity indicates that a(n) a. defendant is unable to understand the nature and purpose of legal proceedings. b. individual is dangerous to themselves or to others. c. person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of mental illness. d. person has a chronic mental illness that is not responsive to treatment. 59. For the last month or so, Jillian has felt unhappy and has not been able to get out of bed in the morning. She has withdrawn from her friends and family members because of her feelings of hopelessness and despair. How would this disorder be classified? a. major depressive disorder b. agoraphobia c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. dissociative identify disorder 60. Which approach to understanding depression emphasizes the relationship between depression and poor social skills? a. the medical approach b. the behavioral approach c. the psychodynamic approach d. the cognitive approach 61. Kari is of average height but only weighs 75 pounds. She has lost over 20 pounds over the past 7 months by eating very little, using laxatives, and exercising excessively. Kari could be suffering from a. bulimia nervosa. b. narcissistic personality disorder. c. anorexia nervosa. d. conversion disorder.

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Chapter 14_11e 62. William was assigned to a psychologist after being arrested for disturbing the peace. At the time of arrest, he was talking to himself while urinating in the street, and flailing his arms wildly while being taken into custody. What would a psychologist need to consider when determining if William is showing signs of abnormal behavior? a. He must determine if William shows compliance to social norms, atypical behavior, and self-diagnosed personal distress. b. He must determine if William shows signs of stressful encounters with others, frequent outbursts, and physical pain. c. He must determine if William shows physical abnormalities, cognitive distress, and low IQ scores. d. He must determine if William demonstrates deviance from social norms, maladaptive behavior, and signs of personal distress. 63. Which of the following is the best explanation of the difference between cumulative and conjunctive probabilities? a. Cumulative probabilities are explained by the probability of having one disorder or another in succession, while conjunctive probabilities are explained by concurrent disabilities existing simultaneously. b. Cumulative probabilities are explained as the total number of possible mental disorders a person can manifest in their lifetime, while conjunctive probabilities are explained by the number of probable disorders a person will experience by early adulthood. c. Cumulative probabilities estimate the number of possible mental disorders one will experience by early adulthood, while conjunctive probabilities have definitive statistics outlining the manifestations of disorders. d. Conjunctive probabilities are an estimate of the number of possible mental disorders one will experience by middle age, while cumulative probabilities are the number of possible mental disorders a person can manifest by age 20. 64. The evidence about major depressive and bipolar disorders suggests there is a. no common concurrence about genetic vulnerability predisposing people to these disorders. b. no genetic vulnerability risk to contracting these disorders. c. a genetic vulnerability that predisposes people to the manifestation of these disorders. d. only a slight factor of genetic vulnerability present because other factors override genetics in these disorders. 65. Which of the following individuals displays signs of anorexia nervosa? a. Yolanda, who has an intense fear of choking, so she restricts her food intake to only baby food. b. Terri, who is 25 pounds underweight yet still restricts her food intake to 300 calories daily and exercises excessively. c. Piper, who when feeling sad after a breakup, eats an entire package of cookies and a carton of ice cream by herself. d. Denver, who often enjoys large meals with his family, but purges afterward as he is concerned that he will gain weight.

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Chapter 14_11e 66. When the DSM-5 was being developed, one of the major discussion points was whether to reduce the commitment to a a. hierarchy approach. b. flow chart approach. c. categorical approach. d. outline approach. 67. Of the following examples, who is MOST likely exhibiting symptoms of a dissociative disorder? a. Miriam, who believes she is communicating with aliens visiting from another planet. b. Trent, who is able to complete complex math problems mentally. c. Samantha, who was in an accident and does not remember her name or where she lives. d. Kayla, who experiences severe mood swings. 68. False beliefs of persecution that could accompany symptoms of schizophrenia are called a. obsessions. b. phobias. c. hallucinations. d. delusions. 69. Twin studies on bipolar disorder have suggested that a. there is no genetic predisposition between fraternal and identical twins. b. the genetic predisposition of identical twins is higher than fraternal twins. c. the genetic predisposition of fraternal twins is higher than identical twins. d. the genetic predisposition between identical and fraternal twins are equal. 70. Autism spectrum disorder is a. more prevalent in females than males. b. is equally prevalent in males and females. c. more prevalent in males than females. d. is only seen in males. 71. Suicide rates are highest for people who a. have financial problems. b. have lost a family member. c. suffer with depressive and bipolar disorders. d. are diagnosed with an illness. 72. The most recent classification system published by the American Psychiatric Association to diagnose mental disorders is called the a. DSM IV. b. DSM 2.0. c. ICD. d. DSM-5. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14_11e 73. Which overactive neurotransmitter in the brain appears to be related to schizophrenia? a. norepinephrine b. acetylcholine c. insulin d. dopamine 74. Which of the following cases is the BEST example of conjunctive fallacy? a. Sally has schizophrenia disorder and generalized anxiety disorder. b. Sam has schizophrenia, but not bipolar disorder. c. Stan has obsessive-compulsive disorder with more obsessions than compulsions. d. Stuart has delusional disorder without hallucinations. 75. Which of the following best illustrates bulimia nervosa? a. Ethan who fears gaining even a pound because of his modeling career. He counts every calorie and is rigid with his eating behaviors. He doesn’t acknowledge his unhealthy relationship with food. b. Veronica finds that when she is stressed, overindulging in her favorite sweets is helpful. She is disgusted by her body and feels bad for overeating because she is already overweight but is unable to stop. c. Stella engages in overeating. She compensates by making herself vomit, fasting the next day, and using laxatives and water pills. d. Isaiah needs to maintain his weight to wrestle in a certain weight class. He is careful with what he eats and can be restrictive and may even skip eating altogether when he is close to a meet. 76. Patients with eating disorders who are displaying rigid, all-or-nothing thinking and many maladaptive beliefs can be categorized under which of the following factors in the development of eating disorders? a. genetic vulnerability b. personality factors c. cognitive factors d. the role of family 77. Devon’s moods fluctuate between feeling very down and sad to very elated and full of energy. Devin recently disappeared for three days and was found at the casino and had been there for over 48 hours. Devin had not eaten nor slept, and was disoriented when found, wants to be left alone, and refuses to get help. How should Devon’s family get the help that Devin needs? a. If Devon will not comply with receiving intervention, then there is nothing that his family can do. b. Devon has the right to live his life the way that he wants. His family cannot force him into getting help. c. Devon’s family may choose to file an involuntary commitment to ensure that Devon gets the help that he needs. This commitment can be supported with the fact that Devon’s behavior is potentially harmful to him. d. Devon obviously needs some help, may be able to get him to take some sleep aids nightly so he can prevent another incident.

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Chapter 14_11e 78. In the medical model, etiology refers to a. apparent causation and developmental history of an illness. b. a forecast about the probable course of an illness c. differentiation of one illness from another. d. an evaluation of the study of man. 79. Anorexia nervosa can also lead patients to also suffer from a. schizophrenia. b. amenorrhea or osteoporosis. c. obesity. d. delusions and hallucinations. 80. When thinking about probabilities and mental illness, physicians should take into consideration that they can be influenced by the conjunction fallacy due to the a. availability heuristic. b. short cut heuristic. c. cognitive heuristic. d. representativeness heuristic. 81. While walking through a shopping center, you suddenly have an intense feeling of dread, notice your heart beating strongly, feel like you are suffocating, and find yourself running for the nearest exit. You would be exhibiting symptoms of a. mania. b. acrophobia. c. schizophrenia. d. panic disorder. 82. Bipolar disorder is seen a. more in men than women. b. more in women than men. c. primarily as a female disorder. d. equally often in men and women. 83. Which one of the following examples best exhibits schizophrenia? a. Celeste feels the need to wash her hands exactly 15 times per day. b. Lenny hears voices that tell him to watch out for anyone who works for the government and shoot anyone who says the word ‘government.’ c. Andy feels extreme emotions, from believing he can do anything successfully to feeling hopeless and not feeling like life is worth living. d. Amelia is suffering from not remembering her name, what she does for a living, or who her family members are after being in a severe car crash.

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Chapter 14_11e 84. An elevated risk for self-injurious behavior, such as cutting or burning oneself, and an increased risk of suicide, is indicative of which of the following disorders? a. borderline personality disorder b. antisocial personality disorder c. schizophrenia d. narcissistic personality disorder 85. Jake is a young man who has manifested schizophrenia. His mother had a difficult pregnancy and is wondering if her prenatal struggles had an effect on Jake developing schizophrenia. What would be the best question to ask her to determine if a neurodevelopmental factor could be involved? a. Did you have any type of viral infection during pregnancy? If so, there could have been a disruption in maturational processes of the brain. b. Did you drink a lot of diet soda during pregnancy? There could be a link between sugar and the brain developing properly. c. Were you under a lot of stress during pregnancy? There could be a link between cortisol and brain circuitry. d. Were you happy in your marriage? Being unhappy can have an ill effect on the growing fetus, increasing the chances of mental illness. 86. It is believed that psychological disorders can be diagnosed, treated, and possibly cured similar to physical illnesses. This illustrates which of the following models? a. the medical model of abnormal behavior b. the behavioral model of abnormal behavior c. the deviance model of abnormal behavior d. the psychodynamic model of abnormal behavior 87. Bruno believes he is the king of Mesopotamia and demands complete obedience. How would clinicians categorize this type of abnormal behavior? a. deviant b. dangerous c. personal distress d. depression 88. Claire has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. It is likely that Claire also suffers from which disorder? a. major depressive b. antisocial personality c. narcissistic personality d. dissociative identity

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Chapter 14_11e 89. Often, cases of dissociative identity disorder (multiple personality disorder) receive wide press coverage, leading people to believe this disorder is a relatively common psychological problem when, in fact, it is quite rare. People’s estimates of the prevalence of dissociative identity disorder may be influenced to a large extent by the a. representativeness heuristic. b. conjunction fallacy. c. availability heuristic. d. hindsight bias. 90. Prior to the 18th century, people who exhibited abnormal behavior were thought to be a. possessed by evil spirits and were treated through exorcism. b. mentally ill and were treated through exorcism. c. mentally ill and were treated through verbal psychotherapy. d. possessed by evil spirits and were treated through drug therapy. 91. Before the 18th century, most conceptions of abnormal behavior were based on a. word of mouth. b. superstition. c. tradition. d. scientific revelations. 92. Delusions, hallucinations and flat affect are symptoms that describe a. panic disorder. b. schizophrenia. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. post-traumatic stress disorder. 93. Agoraphobia is best described as a fear of a. spiders. b. snakes. c. heights. d. going out to public places. 94. Narcissistic personality disorder can best be described as a. an impulsive, callous, manipulative, aggressive, and irresponsible behavior. b. being excessively sensitive in potential rejection, humiliation, or shame, and socially withdrawn in spite of a desire for acceptance from others. c. an instability in social relationships, self-image, and emotional functioning. d. a grandiose sense of self-importance, a sense of entitlement, and an excessive need for attention and admiration.

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Chapter 14_11e 95. Recent research on major psychological disorders is revealing that there may be a. genetic overlap among disorders. b. genetic covariation techniques created. c. a link between OCD and DID. d. sociocultural factors leading to DID. 96. In which disorder do people alternate between extreme hopelessness and euphoria? a. bipolar disorder b. antisocial personality disorder c. panic disorder d. somatoform disorder 97. The overall prevalence of an individual having at least one psychological disorder at some point in their lifetime is about 44%. What is the best way to explain this probability? a. cumulative probabilities of mental illness b. conjunctive probabilities of mental illness c. multiple disorders existing concurrently compound probability d. The use of “best examples” to identify the correct psychological disorder, increasing total probability 98. Bipolar disorder can be best described as a. experiencing hallucinations and hearing voices. b. a lack of feeling guilty. c. persistent offensive thoughts that demand a certain behavior. d. alternating between extreme hopelessness and wild euphoria. 99. A persistent and irrational fear of an object or situation that presents no realistic danger is called a(n) a. specific phobia. b. schizophrenia. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. narcissism. 100. Tom was very attentive and charming to Roberta at first. As the relationship progressed, he became increasingly manipulative, intolerant, secretive, and he lost patience with Roberta. Tom could be exhibiting symptoms of a. antisocial personality disorder. b. narcissistic personality disorder. c. borderline personality disorder. d. schizophrenia.

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Chapter 14_11e 101. Which person can be classified as experiencing obsessive-compulsive disorder? a. Jenny, who has a constant feeling of dread, irregular heartbeat, perspiration, and trepidation at the thought of having to drive in heavy traffic due to other aggressive drivers. b. Neal, who cannot leave his home because he thinks he might encounter a squirrel outside. He believes if he sees one, it will come over to attack him and that fear is paralyzing to him. c. Todd, who is convinced he can hear voices telling him to intervene in strangers’ conversations so they can understand the coming of the apocalypse. d. Shanika, who washes her hands 20 times a day for 10 minutes each time. She then scrubs the tops and bottoms of her hands for exactly 5 minutes making sure to time herself. 102. Research suggests that prenatal viral infections or malnutrition can contribute to a. generalized anxiety disorders. b. dissociative disorders. c. schizophrenia. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. 103. The medical model describes abnormal behavior as a(n) a. ailment. b. disease. c. disorder. d. illness. 104. Insanity is a a. psychological diagnosis that determines if an individual is unable to understand the nature and purpose of legal proceedings. b. psychological diagnosis that confirms that an individual is dangerous to themselves or to others. c. legal status indicating that a person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of mental illness. d. recognition that a person has a chronic mental illness that is not responsive to treatment. 105. Borderline personality disorder tends to occur a. more often among men. b. more often among transgender individuals. c. more often among women. d. equally often across genders. 106. A fear of going out to public places is called a. panic disorder. b. agoraphobia. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. post-traumatic stress disorder.

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Chapter 14_11e 107. William was apprehended by police while standing on a rock at the beach naked, throwing stones at people, and yelling at them to repent for their sins. Police called in mental health professionals to examine him. The best course of action in this instance would be to a. have him arrested and put in jail until a lawyer can evaluate his options. b. ask him to surrender voluntarily and check into a psychiatric facility. c. commit him involuntarily due to his erratic behaviors and possible danger to others. d. ask him to recuse himself from the incident, fill out the proper paperwork, and go home. 108. Which of the following would be classified as specific phobias? a. panic disorder, agoraphobia, and OCD b. acrophobia, claustrophobia, and hydrophobia c. post-traumatic stress, agoraphobia, and claustrophobia d. hydrophobia, panic disorder, and post-traumatic stress 109. People who exhibit signs of depression a. lack energy and motivation and may experience reduced appetite and insomnia. b. engage in carefree activities that promote happiness. c. can never be cured. d. lack the skills to understand what is wrong with them. 110. Bipolar disorder affects about a. 1% of the population. b. 5% of the population. c. 10% of the population. d. 15% of the population. 111. Nayeli has developed an aversion to the grocery store after experiencing a panic attack while there. She now associates the grocery store with having a panic attack. Her therapist evaluates this experience and comes to which conclusion? a. She developed this association through the reinforcement of the behavior and it is being reinforced by the repetitive behaviors of her daily routine. b. She developed this association through an inherited genetic predisposition, and it is being maintained through reinforcing comments from her family. c. She developed this association by social cognitive rehearsal, and it is being maintained through reinforcing thoughts she continues to have. d. She developed this association by classical conditioning, and it is being reinforced through her behavior. 112. While scientists are not sure why, low levels of this neurotransmitter contribute to most forms of depression. What is this neurotransmitter? a. Oxytocin b. GABA c. Serotonin d. Epinephrine

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Chapter 14_11e 113. People with this eating disorder can typically maintain a healthy weight while still demonstrating symptomology. a. bulimia nervosa b. binge-eating disorder c. avoidant or restrictive food intake disorder d. anorexia nervosa 114. When making a diagnosis of abnormal behavior, what is one of the criteria that mental health professionals use? a. delusion b. hysteria c. personal distress d. maladaptive behavior 115. A sudden inability to remember important personal information that is too extensive to be due to normal forgetting could be characterized as a. dissociative identity disorder. b. bipolar depression. c. dissociative amnesia. d. manic depression. 116. Maladaptive behavior is best explained as a a. behavior that interferes with social or occupational functioning. b. behavior that creates personal distress. c. behavior that fails to explain how normal it is. d. way of deliberately not adapting to the norm. 117. A person experiencing mania would most likely be associated with a. antisocial personality disorder. b. bipolar disorder. c. somatoform disorder. d. panic disorder. 118. Utilizing criteria for abnormal behavior, which of the following cases could illustrate an individual with a psychological disorder? a. Robert has been collecting antique shooting marbles for many years. He has hundreds of them and has likely spent thousands of dollars on his collection. b. Jonas has a full-sleeve tattooed arm, his back is covered, and he is now working on another full-sleeve. He spends a great amount of money on his tattoos, and states that he does not plan to stop any time soon. c. Jo is well organized in all areas and always keeps a very tidy house. d. Nathanial is very attached to his belongings. He has not thrown anything away in years, including food that expires. His family stopped visiting him as they could not walk through the house due to the junk.

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Chapter 14_11e 119. Misty has been feeling down lately. She goes to a therapist for guidance. What key factors should be considered before diagnosing a major depressive disorder? a. Whether or not she participates in obsessive thoughts and ritualistic behaviors that interfere with normal functioning b. Whether or not she shows anhedonia, a diminished ability to experience pleasure, along with lack of energy and motivation c. Whether or not she misinterprets events in a consistently negative way and puts herself down for having them d. Whether or not she learned this behavior from her mother by observing and modeling her mother’s actions 120. The degree to which a relative of a schizophrenic patient displays highly critical or emotionally overinvolved attitudes toward the patient can best be described as a. expressed emotion. b. inhibited emotion. c. hidden emotion. d. excessive emotion. 121. Many people underestimate nonfatal suicide attempts because they are not as memorable as successful suicide attempts. What should the public take into account when this happens? a. The availability heuristic influences memory retention of successful attempts while diminishing memory impact on reports of nonfatal attempts. b. The short cut heuristic helps in processing fatal and nonfatal suicide rates in different ways for better memory retention. c. The prototype that people have of suicide is understood in a certain way so that they can differentiate between fatal and nonfatal suicide. d. The representativeness heuristic helps us understand that different demographics are at play with attempting suicide versus succeeding. 122. River hears voices singing even though there is no one present. River is experiencing a. hallucinations. b. delusions. c. obsessions. d. an illusion.

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Chapter 14_11e 123. Insanity and competency have different applications in the legal system. If someone wants to use an insanity approach in a legal case, what would distinguish insanity from competency? a. Insanity refers to a defendant’s mental state at the time of the alleged crime, and competency is the mental state at the time of the trial. b. Insanity refers to a defendant’s ability to explain his crime at the time of trial, and competency is the mental state directly after the crime. c. nsanity refers to a defendant’s mental state while talking to lawyers immediately following the alleged crime, and competency refers to his mental state during interrogation. d. Insanity is proof of the mental state during interrogation, and competency is how cooperative the defendant is during the trial. 124. Stacy is under stress during finals. She has begun to overeat and then feels sick to her stomach and guilty. If this pattern of eating were to continue, Stacy could be at risk for the development of a. binge eating disorder. b. anorexia nervosa. c. bulimia. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. 125. Emilio has been divorced twice, fired three times, and is sexually promiscuous but lacks any true feelings for his partners. Emilio’s maladaptive behaviors best illustrate a. antisocial personality disorder. b. borderline personality disorder. c. paranoid personality disorder. d. schizophrenia. 126. release from a hospital, schizophrenic patients who return to a family high in expressed emotion show relapse rates a. twice those of patients who return to a family low in expressed emotion. b. three times those of patients who return to a family low in expressed emotion. c. five times those of patients who return to a family low in expressed emotion. d. seven times those of patients who return to a family low in expressed emotion. 127. Dr. Gilson needs to explain to his patient, Cynthia, what factors go into understanding why mental disorders occur. What key information needs to be included in this explanation? a. Mental disorders involve biological genetic vulnerabilities as well as psychological factors that are affected by the environment. b. Mental disorders can only be explained by structural brain abnormalities that happen by chance. c. There are only psychological factors involved with mental disorders because people can learn to change their behavior with focused effort. d. Mental disorders are primarily caused by the result of unrecognized childhood mistreatment.

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Chapter 14_11e 128. Which one of the following best describes deviance in abnormal behavior? a. Behavior that is considered normal for a specific person. b. Behavior that is considered normal for a family. c. Behavior that deviates from cultural standards or norms. d. Behavior that deviates from interpersonally prescribed norms. 129. Tracy was sent to boarding school and feels disconnected, has no friends, and feels left out. Her grades have not suffered, but she feels hopeless despair. Given the criteria for abnormal behavior, which of the following is the best explanation for Tracy’s behavior? a. Delusional because her feeling of disconnection is her own misperception of reality. b. Maladaptive because she chooses to feel disconnected by withdrawing. c. Personal distress because her feelings and emotions are real to her. d. Deviance because she is not acting appropriately by thinking only of herself. 130. Autism spectrum disorder can be BEST described as a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a. profound impairment of social interaction and communication, and severely restricted interests and activities. b. a sudden loss of memory for personal information that is too extensive to be due to normal forgetting. c. irrational thought, delusions, deterioration of adaptive behavior, distorted perception, hallucinations, and disturbed emotion. d. extreme personality traits that cause subjective distress or impaired social and occupational functioning. 131. Which of the following best demonstrates why we erroneously distort our understanding of mental illness when using the representativeness heuristic? a. Caine loves Terry but cannot get over the fact that she had an affair while they were dating exclusively. Caine is not sure he can ever trust her again because she is a pathological liar. b. Jill’s new therapist is a friend of the city mayor. She concludes that seeing this therapist will not work because she does not trust politicians so by association she can’t trust the therapist. c. Jake suffered from an opioid addiction and needed to detox so he was sent to a drug rehabilitation facility to be weaned off using a different drug to help with his withdrawal. d. Janine suffered symptoms so similar to those associated with schizophrenia that she erroneously concluded she needed to be on antipsychotic medicines to feel better. 132. According to Susan Nolen-Hoeksema, depressed people who tend to ruminate about their depression a. remain depressed longer. b. recover from their depression quicker. c. attribute their setbacks to their personal flaws instead of situational factors. d. attribute their setbacks to situational factors and not to their personal flaws.

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Chapter 14_11e 133. Which of the following do the histrionic, narcissistic, borderline, and antisocial personality disorders have in common? a. mistrustfulness and the inability to connect emotionally with others b. maladaptive efforts to control anxiety and fear c. high levels of communication deviance d. impulsivity and overdramatization 134. A preoccupation with weight along with an unhealthy relationship with food BEST illustrates a. a mood disorder. b. an anxiety disorder. c. a phobia. d. an eating disorder. 135. Dissociative disorders can best be described as disorders a. that result in offensive and persistent thoughts that people cannot ignore. b. in which people lose contact with portions of their consciousness or memory, resulting in disruptions in their sense of identity. c. where a person fluctuates between extreme hopelessness and extreme optimism. d. that result in panic attacks from new, stressful situations. 136. Tom is obsessive about his looks and how other people see him. He is very guarded and emotionally restrained. He barely eats, but believes that he is fat when he looks in the mirror. Tom could be diagnosed with a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. anorexia nervosa. c. binge eating disorder. d. bulimia nervosa. 137. Dominic’s mother is convinced he has generalized anxiety disorder. After seeking treatment, his doctor has concluded that he instead has frequent panic attacks. What is the distinction between the two? a. Panic attacks occur when a person does not want to leave their home because they don’t want to meet other people, while generalized anxiety disorder is marked by persistent unwanted intrusive thoughts. b. Generalized anxiety disorder is chronic high anxiety, not tied to a specific threat, while panic attacks occur suddenly and unexpectedly usually due to some kind of trigger. c. Generalized anxiety disorder occurs only when a person feels overwhelmed in a public place such as school, while panic attacks occur chronically no matter what the circumstances are or where the person is. d. Panic attacks occur when a person needs to spend time alone to gather their thoughts, while generalized anxiety disorder is a chronic condition happening continuously. 138. Schizophrenia is a disorder best marked by a. delusions, irrational thought, hallucinations, and disorganized thinking and speech. b. hopelessness, despair, and suicidal tendencies. c. persistent intrusive thoughts, grandiose actions, and panic attacks. d. agoraphobia, panic attacks, and depression. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14_11e 139. After a 1998 study claimed to find a link between autism and vaccines, people have been quick to associate childhood vaccinations with autism (ASD). In the studies that followed, researching this link, it has since been found that the link between vaccines and autism a. has been discredited as fraudulent, and further studies corroborate that they have no impact on ASD development. b. has some merit because children get vaccinated at about the same time as a typical diagnosis of ASD. c. is true because vaccines can modify genes that create the onset of the disorder. d. cannot be determined because more testing is needed. 140. Borderline personality disorder is best described as a. an exhibition of impulsive, callous, manipulative, aggressive, and irresponsible behavior. b. an instability in social relationships, self-image, and emotional functioning. c. a grandiose sense of self-importance, a sense of entitlement, and an excessive need for attention and admiration. d. being excessively sensitive about potential rejection, humiliation, or shame, and socially withdrawn in spite of a desire for acceptance from others. 141. The role of early-life stress in adult psychological disorders explains that adversity during childhood a. has no bearing on brain structures so psychological disorders cannot be diagnosed by brain abnormalities or hormonal responses. b. could affect the reactivity of the HPA axis that regulates hormonal responses to stressors. c. may alter noncritical features including brain ventricles, vague nerve size, and thickness of the meninges. d. has no effect on whether or not they will develop a psychological disorder. 142. Anorexics suffer from a(n) a. enhanced body image. b. proud body image. c. distorted body image. d. narcissistic body image. 143. The overall likelihood of developing a mental illness over the course of one’s lifetime is about 44%. When thinking about cumulative probabilities of mental illness, which term defines the correct relationship of having a mental disorder? a. “And relationships” b. “Either relationships” c. “Or relationships” d. “Neither relationships” 144. A type of dissociative disorder characterized by sudden loss of memory for important personal information that sometimes occurs after a person has endured a traumatic event is a. dissociative amnesia. b. dissociative stress disorder. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. dissociative depressive disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14_11e 145. The most reliable brain abnormality finding with respect to autism today is a. localized brain enlargement by age one. b. generalized brain atrophy by age four. c. localized brain atrophy by age three. d. generalized brain enlargement by age two. 146. Which person properly demonstrates the criteria of a panic attack? a. Eddy, who constantly wonders if he locked his car and returns to repetitively hit the lock button on his key ring. b. Ted, who suddenly feels an overwhelming sense of dread while studying. His heart starts racing and he has trouble breathing. c. Kerry, who refuses to swim in the lake because she is convinced snakes are nesting in the water and she can’t escape them. d. Sally, who lost her husband and can’t bounce back from her grief to rejoin societal interactions and activities normally. 147. Feelings of mania include a. optimism, euphoria, and high self-esteem. b. contrariness, obstinacy, and pessimism. c. low self-esteem, pessimism, and feelings of guilt. d. implacability, hopelessness, and despair. 148. Since the mid 1990’s, there has been a dramatic increase in the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder. This increase is largely due to a. the necessity of labeling patients with disorders in order to receive treatment. b. parents and schools demanding a diagnosis in order to receive benefits. c. the increase of the diagnosing disorders in children. d. greater awareness of the syndrome and the use of broader diagnostic criteria. 149. Which category would panic attacks be classified under? a. anxiety disorders b. dissociative disorders c. personality disorders d. depressive disorders 150. Estefan was diagnosed with autism. Which one of the following BEST illustrates his symptomology? a. little eye contact with caregivers when his name is called b. hearing voices and having delusions of grandeur c. excessive clinginess with caregivers d. overly aggressive and deviant for his age

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Chapter 14_11e 151. Which of the following factors may precipitate schizophrenia? a. high stress b. periodic panic attacks c. violent behavior d. sudden weight loss 152. What is the main difference between structural abnormalities in the brain and the neurodevelopmental hypothesis to explain schizophrenia? a. Structural abnormalities are due to permanent genetic defects that affect the brain as a person grows and develops resulting in schizophrenia, while the neurodevelopmental hypothesis contends that neurogenesis occurs which can offset schizophrenic symptoms to promote self-healing. b. Structural abnormalities are thought to be a consequence of, or a contributing cause to, schizophrenia, while the neurodevelopmental hypothesis argues that schizophrenia is due to neurological damage before or at birth. c. Irreversible structural abnormalities are by-products of a mother’s substance abuse during pregnancy leading to schizophrenia, while the neurodevelopmental hypothesis contends that neurons are adaptable to the environment and can be shaped. d. Irreversible structural abnormalities are manifestations of severe childhood trauma and abuse that must be treated by behavioral therapy, while the neurodevelopmental hypothesis holds that the brain can be prompted to grow cells to reverse that structural difference. 153. Friends of Katie have noticed that sometimes she acts like the person they know, who is very friendly and outgoing. Other times she is very shy and she says that her name is Clara and does not understand why they keep calling her Katie. Given this information, a therapist might classify this as a. dissociative amnesia. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. bipolar disorder. 154. Males account for about what percentage of autism diagnosis? a. 75% b. 80% c. 65% d. 50% 155. Diana is diagnosed with schizophrenia and suffers from hallucinations and delusions. She refuses to take her medications, and recently tried to hurt herself following voices she was hearing that commanded her to do so. What action would be most appropriate for legal and mental health authorities to take? a. jail time b. voluntary commitment c. involuntary commitment d. involuntary surrender

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Chapter 14_11e 156. Kelly loves cakes, pies, and other rich foods. She has started to pay attention to her weight gain, so when she overindulges, she immediately goes into the bathroom to vomit so she won’t continue to gain weight. What type of eating disorder best describes Kelly’s behavior? a. binge-eating disorder b. avoidant or restrictive food intake disorder c. bulimia nervosa d. anorexia nervosa 157. After experiencing weeks of feeling hopeless and dissatisfied with life, Kerry has suddenly become extremely excited, energetic, and talkative. She seems to need less than normal sleep and gets irritated if someone interrupts her. Kerry’s behavior is indicative of a. somatoform disorder. b. bipolar disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. agoraphobia. 158. Amaya has been under high levels of stress, seems very emotional, and has been regularly overeating. Her friends have noticed her "out-of-control" overeating and emotional sensitivity. Due to her symptoms, Amaya’s friends are suggesting that she see a therapist for a(n) a. depressive disorder because her emotions are out of control and she refuses to talk about it. b. anxiety disorder because she is very stressed and has panic attacks. c. dissociative disorder because her behavior is erratic and stubborn. d. eating disorder because she has emotional fluctuations and overindulgent food intake. 159. Which one of the following statements best describes bipolar disorder? a. offensive unwanted thoughts that demand a behavior b. dissociation from self and feelings c. alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism d. marked by the experience of both depressed and manic periods 160. A constant, high level of arousal not tied to a specific threat most strongly indicates a. antisocial personality disorder. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. bipolar disorder. 161. The conditioning and learning explanation for the etiology of anxiety disorders BEST accounts for the development and maintenance of a. phobic disorder. b. panic disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder.

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Chapter 14_11e 162. Which one of the following models for abnormal behavior includes the criteria of diagnosis, etiology, and prognosis? a. psychodynamic b. medical c. cognitive d. behavioral 163. Sarah has been diagnosed with severe depression after her boyfriend broke up with her, and her mother passed away. How would clinicians categorize this type of abnormal behavior? a. maladaptive b. dangerous c. deviant d. personal distress 164. Anorexia nervosa can be described as a. an obsessive fear of gaining weight. b. hormonal imbalances resulting in obesity. c. an obsessive fear of being underweight. d. a loss of bone density. 165. Which of the following best exhibits dissociative amnesia? a. Kira, who had a severe car accident and cannot remember her name or anything about her life when asked. b. Doug, whose chronic alcohol abuse has affected his mental capabilities resulting in confusion and memory loss. c. Alice, who has an inability to store, retain or recall memories due to Alzheimer’s dementia. d. Sylvia, had a stroke and can remember everything before, but cannot form new memories or recall anything in the present. 166. Panic disorder can be best described as a. hallucinations and hearing voices. b. persistent, uncontrollable thoughts. c. recurrent attacks of anxiety which occur suddenly and unexpectedly. d. fear of going out in public. 167. Episodes of intense dread that last for several minutes with physical symptoms such as shortness of breath and rapid heartbeat is most characteristic of a. manic depression. b. agoraphobia. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. panic disorder.

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Chapter 14_11e 168. Recent genetic mapping research has called into question the assumption that psychological disorders are a. influenced by genetics. b. influenced by environment. c. common. d. independent of one another. 169. Generalized anxiety disorder is described as a. chronic unwanted thoughts about another person. b. chronic worry, muscle tension, trembling that is not tied to any specific threat. c. excessive levels of energy and hyperactivity. d. engaging in senseless rituals. 170. Your friend Jay has an intense fear of being overweight. He has a distorted body image and subsequently obsesses in front of the mirror scrutinizing himself. Any loose skin he notices he thinks of as fat and therefore restricts himself to eat four saltine crackers a day, hoping he won’t gain any more weight. You suggest that Jay be seen by a psychologist as you suspect he is suffering from a(n) a. dissociative disorder. b. agoraphobia. c. personality disorder. d. eating disorder. 171. There is a misconception about people with psychological disorders being often violent and dangerous. What is the best response to this misconception? a. The media often focuses on violent incidents, which influences the public’s view of mental illness, perpetuating an incorrect stereotype. b. Misconceptions about mental illness are often perpetuated by novelists in best-selling books. c. The media often puts a stigma on people who suffer from mental illness as a public service to their listeners. d. Most people are violent and dangerous, and they should be contained and removed from society for the public’s safety. 172. Episodes of enduring psychological disturbance attributed to the experience of a major traumatic event most closely describes a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. bipolar depression. c. panic attacks. d. post-traumatic stress disorder. 173. Ainsley is eight years old and often has temper tantrums, is preoccupied with just a few toys, and frequently repeats other people’s words. Ainsley will MOST likely be diagnosed with a. depressive disorder. b. obsessive compulsive disorder. c. a learning disorder. d. autism spectrum disorder. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14_11e 174. Concerns about overpathologizing human behavior have arisen in part because the DSM now includes approximately a. 100 diagnoses. b. 250 diagnoses. c. 400 diagnoses. d. 500 diagnoses. 175. What are the key distinctions between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia? a. Negative symptoms are difficult to identify easily while positive symptoms are easily identifiable. b. Positive symptoms involve behavioral deficits while negative symptoms involve behavioral excesses. c. Negative symptoms involve behavior deficits while positive symptoms involve behavioral excesses. d. Positive symptoms include good behaviors that schizophrenics need reinforcement for while negative symptoms need to be diminished by punishment. 176. Bobbi has recently moved into a new apartment. She has heard that there is a nearby tenant with mental illness who has lived there for years, and she is worried about her safety. What could you tell Bobbi to alleviate her fears? a. She will be fine. She should just peak out her door before she goes anywhere so that she does not encounter him. b. There are many apartments out there, so she can move. You would even help her move if she needed help. c. It’s a misconception that mentally ill people are generally dangerous. Most mentally ill individuals are indistinguishable from those without. d. She could simply talk to the landlord about her concerns. If the landlord will not ask the mentally ill individual to relocate, then Bobbi should. 177. Learned helplessness is associated with what contributing factor to depression? a. hormonal factors b. genetic vulnerability factors c. neurochemical and neuroanatomical factors d. cognitive factors 178. Extensive media and social media coverage on adolescent suicide rates may lead parents to exaggerate their fears of not monitoring their children enough. If parents saw a spike in adolescent suicide rates, what should they take into account to allay their fears? a. Extensive media coverage demonstrates the representativeness heuristic of adolescent behavior. b. Extensive media coverage may diminish their fears due to their prototype of how adolescents behave. c. Extensive media coverage may exacerbate their fears due to the availability heuristic. d. Extensive media coverage makes parents jump to conclusions about adolescent suicide due to the short cut heuristic.

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Chapter 14_11e 179. Which approach to abnormality emphasizes the connections between behavior and nervous system functioning? a. social-cognitive model b. learning model c. medical model d. psychoanalytic model 180. Molly is extremely agitated because she hears voices telling her to fly out of the window and go to the nearest bar to seduce someone. Molly is probably experiencing a(n) a. hallucination. b. conversion disorder. c. dissociative disorder. d. personality disorder. 181. Dr. Thomas is conducting research on psychological disorders. Given the new direction of research in this field, he is MOST likely interested in researching a. severe stress during childhood and its relationship to mental health. b. experiences and feelings about life stressors. c. childhood behaviors and their consequences. d. thoughts about mental health and the manifesting of disorders. 182. Dr. Cummings believes that psychological disorders can be diagnosed, treated, and possibly cured, just like physical illnesses. Dr. Cummings’s views reflect the point of view suggested by the a. medical model of abnormal behavior. b. behavioral model of abnormal behavior. c. deviance model of abnormal behavior. d. psychodynamic model of abnormal behavior. 183. Jamie has suddenly decided to make a movie. He hasn’t slept in days and is convinced it will win him an Oscar. Jamie’s family tries to talk to him about quitting his job to pursue making a movie but Jamie will not be deterred and is overly optimistic about his abilities to make a great movie. Jamie seems to be exhibiting symptoms of a. mania. b. somatoform disorder. c. depression. d. schizophrenia. 184. Depression can be manifested a. only in people who have genetic predispositions to it. b. only during the later stages of life. c. only during adolescence. d. at any stage of life.

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Chapter 14_11e 185. In the early days of understanding autism, scientists blamed the disorder on a. overly permissive parenting. b. overly loving parenting. c. cold, aloof parenting. d. neglectful parenting. 186. Which of the following individuals is statistically most likely to develop an eating disorder? a. a 5-year-old female b. a 21-year-old male c. a 16-year-old female d. a 50-year-old female 187. Jason doesn’t participate on his recreational baseball team anymore because he discovered staying at home and using recreational drugs was more fun. His refusal to participate in anything social anymore is indicative of which type of behavior in the medical model? a. deviance b. maladaptive behavior c. obstinacy d. personal distress 188. Andrea has started to develop medical problems such as irregular heartbeat, tooth decay, metabolic deficiencies, and acid reflux due to behaviors associated with her psychological diagnosis. Given these symptoms, which classification of abnormal behavior could be associated with them? a. binge eating disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. bulimia nervosa d. anorexia nervosa 189. Which of the following set of symptoms best represents binge eating disorder? a. Disturbed eating either due to a lack of interest in eating or a distaste for certain smells, tastes, colors, texture, or temperatures. b. Distress-inducing eating binges that are not accompanied by purging, fasting, or excessive exercise. c. Overeating, self-induced vomiting, fasting, abuse of laxatives and diuretics, and excessive exercising. d. Disturbed body image, refusal to maintain normal weight, and use of dangerous measures to lose weight. 190. Eating disorders can best be described as a. severe disturbances in eating behavior characterized by preoccupation with weight concerns and unhealthy efforts to control weight. b. extreme personality traits that cause subjective distress or impaired social and occupational functioning. c. uncontrollable intrusions of unwanted thoughts and urges to engage in senseless ritual behavior. d. enduring psychological disturbance attributable to the experience of a major traumatic event.

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Chapter 14_11e 191. People who show persistent feelings of sadness and despair and a loss of interest in previous sources of pleasure are likely suffering from a. post-traumatic stress disorder. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. major depressive disorder. d. agoraphobia. 192. Jermaine is a toddler who has reached his early developmental milestones. However, his parents are concerned as he rarely answers to his name, is somewhat withdrawn, and spends a great deal of time alone in a confined space, rocking. What steps would you recommend Jermaine's parents take to address their concerns? a. Allow Jermaine to spend time alone rocking, as he obviously enjoys this activity. b. Have Jermaine evaluated by a developmental psychologist, to address possible developmental disorder issues. c. Have Jermaine evaluated by a doctor specializing in hearing difficulties, as he may only have a hearing problem. d. Discourage Jermaine from rocking by distracting him with engaging toys. 193. Schizophrenic patients’ exhibit enlarged ventricles in the brain that reflects the degeneration of nearby brain tissue. Which category best explains this symptomology? a. neurodevelopmental hypothesis b. expressed emotion c. stress d. structural abnormalities in the brain 194. Which disorder best illustrates when a person suffers from persistent, uncontrollable intrusions of thoughts and a need to engage in ritual behaviors? a. panic disorder b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. depression d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 195. Instability in social relationships, self-image, and emotional functioning best illustrates a. schizophrenia. b. borderline personality disorder. c. narcissistic personality disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder.

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Chapter 14_11e 196. Taylor has been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder (ASD). According to the DSM-5, which symptoms were important to consider when reaching this diagnosing? a. Indifference to parents, forming relationships only with other children, and inattentiveness to conversations b. Hyperactivity, incessant talking, clinginess, and demanding attention c. Preoccupation with an object for long periods of time, inattentive to people around him, not making eye contact or developing relationships, and little or no verbal speech d. Demanding constant attention from caregivers, constant yelling and screaming to get what he/she wants, and only eating certain foods 197. According to the medical model, a. all mental illnesses are caused by unconscious factors. b. all mental illnesses can be treated using drugs. c. abnormal behavior can be thought of as a disease. d. all physical illnesses have a psychological component. 198. Mr. Hamilton believes that he is the King of England and will shortly become the dictator of the world. Mr. Hamilton is most likely experiencing a(n) a. obsession. b. hallucination. c. delusion. d. dissociation. 199. Personality disorders are a class of disorders that can best be described as a. persistent feelings of sadness and despair, loss of interest in previous sources of pleasure, slowed thought processes, and self-blame. b. extreme, inflexible personality traits that cause subjective distress, or impaired social and occupational functioning. c. uncontrollable intrusions of unwanted thoughts and urges to engage in senseless ritual behavior. d. enduring psychological disturbance attributable to the experience of a major traumatic event. 200. Extreme, inflexible personality traits that cause subjective distress or impaired social and occupational functioning is a description of a. personality disorder. b. depressive disorder. c. panic disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

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Chapter 14_11e Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. d 11. b 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. d 26. c

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Chapter 14_11e 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. b 31. c 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. c 39. c 40. c 41. a 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. d 49. b 50. a 51. b 52. b 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14_11e 55. d 56. c 57. b 58. c 59. a 60. b 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. c 68. d 69. b 70. c 71. c 72. d 73. d 74. a 75. c 76. c 77. c 78. a 79. b 80. d 81. d 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14_11e 83. b 84. a 85. c 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. c 90. a 91. b 92. b 93. d 94. d 95. a 96. a 97. a 98. d 99. a 100. a 101. d 102. c 103. b 104. c 105. c 106. b 107. c 108. b 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14_11e 111. d 112. c 113. a 114. c 115. c 116. a 117. b 118. d 119. b 120. a 121. a 122. a 123. a 124. a 125. a 126. b 127. a 128. c 129. c 130. a 131. d 132. a 133. d 134. d 135. b 136. b 137. b

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Chapter 14_11e 138. a 139. a 140. b 141. b 142. c 143. c 144. a 145. d 146. b 147. a 148. d 149. a 150. a 151. a 152. b 153. b 154. b 155. c 156. c 157. b 158. d 159. d 160. c 161. a 162. b 163. d 164. a 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14_11e 166. c 167. d 168. d 169. b 170. d 171. a 172. d 173. d 174. d 175. c 176. c 177. d 178. c 179. c 180. a 181. a 182. a 183. a 184. d 185. b 186. c 187. b 188. c 189. b 190. a 191. c 192. b 193. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14_11e 194. d 195. b 196. c 197. c 198. c 199. b 200. a

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Chapter 15_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In client-centered therapy, a. the climate is more important than the process. b. the interpretation is more important than the climate. c. the process is more important than the climate. d. the evaluation is more important to the process. 2. Which therapy is most likely to be used only with severely depressed patients? a. psychoanalysis b. exposure therapy c. systematic desensitization d. electroconvulsive therapy 3. Juan goes to a therapist to help overcome his fear of snakes. His therapist asks him to watch other people interacting with snakes. He is then asked to imitate the behaviors he saw. The therapist praises Juan for attempting to imitate those behaviors. What type of treatment approach is being used? a. modeling b. systematic desensitization c. gradual exposure d. controlled conditioning 4. With regard to a therapist’s sex, a. it is generally better to choose a therapist the same sex as yourself. b. it is generally better to choose a therapist the opposite sex as yourself. c. you should feel free to look for a therapist of one sex or the other if it is personally important to you. d. both men and women report better outcomes when seeing female therapists. 5. The majority of people who are homeless with mental illnesses have a. bipolar depression and phobias. b. schizophrenia and OCD. c. major depression and anxiety disorders. d. schizophrenia and mood disorders. 6. Which of the following definitions best describes psychoanalysis? a. A behavioral therapy that makes direct efforts to alter problematic responses, such as phobias or maladaptive habits. b. A biomedical therapy that involves interventions into a person’s biological functioning, such as drug therapy and electroconvulsive shock therapy. c. An insight therapy that emphasizes the recovery of unconscious conflicts, motives, and defenses through techniques such as free association and transference. d. A therapeutic approach that incorporates a variety of principles to create the ideal treatment program for the specific needs of the patient.

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Chapter 15_11e 7. The difference between insight therapy and biomedical therapy is that a. insight therapy involves talking in order to better understand problems while biomedical prescribes medication to take care of problems. b. insight therapy teaches good behaviors to counteract bad ones while biomedical focuses on talking out problems. c. insight therapy involves pulling from various approaches in order to best treat a patient while biomedical focuses on classical conditioning. d. insight therapy involves finding the correct form of medication to treat a psychiatric condition while biomedical enforces hospitalization. 8. When evaluating why deinstitutionalization happened, which of the following would help you explain it to someone? a. It was due to the reduction of money for funding public hospitals. b. It was due to the lowered rates of admission. c. It was due to the decrease in demand of services. d. It was due to the decrease in the interest of community care. 9. What elements are important to consider when explaining how cultural factors influence the process and outcome of psychotherapy in American culture? a. Minority groups are distrustful of treatment centers that are exclusively targeted to white American culture, 24-hour care is available by mental health professionals, economic assistance programs seem to ensure that only certain ethnic groups get the help they need. b. Minority groups have frustrating interactions with hospitals and treatment centers and are therefore distrustful of them, treatment professionals are not multilingual in order to help non-English speakers, and therapists are usually trained in treating white, middle-class Americans instead of other ethnic groups. c. Minority groups can ask for assistance with their personal mental health needs including requesting a bilingual mentor to coach them on a daily or weekly basis, therapists understand each ethnic groups’ needs and customize therapy to those needs, and economic assistance is available. d. Minority groups are concerned about fair treatment at their chosen clinic, and fear reaching out for assistance because they do not want to be shamed or discriminated against. 10. Repeated associations of pleasant, relaxing states with stimuli that arouse fear is a characteristic of a. cognitive therapy. b. systematic desensitization. c. stress training. d. humanistic therapy. 11. What type of therapist focuses on modifying a patient’s negative thoughts, beliefs, and attitudes? a. humanistic b. behavioral c. cognitive d. psychoanalytic

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Chapter 15_11e 12. Brian has been feeling anxious and tense as his final exams approach. He schedules an appointment with his doctor to find out if there is something he can take to help him feel more relaxed and less anxious. If Brian’s doctor prescribes a medication for the symptoms that Brian is experiencing, it would MOST likely be a. Thorazine. b. Nardil. c. Xanax. d. Prozac. 13. What is the main difference between insight therapies and behavior therapies? a. Insight therapy involves verbal interactions, and behavior therapy involves applying principles of learning and conditioning to change actions. b. Insight therapy involves applying principles of learning and conditioning to change actions, and behavior therapy involves verbal interactions. c. Insight therapy involves physiological interventions to reduce negative biological symptoms, and behavior therapy involves verbal interactions. d. Insight therapy involves systematic desensitization tactics to reduce phobias, and behavior therapies involve physiological interventions to reduce negative biological symptoms. 14. What category of drugs reduces tension, apprehension, and nervousness in biomedical therapy? a. antipsychotic drugs b. antidepressant drugs c. mood stabilizers d. antianxiety drugs 15. Freud believed that these were the “royal road to the unconscious.” a. secret wishes b. optimistic thoughts c. deep breaths d. dreams 16. Which type of therapy would most likely be implemented to help someone overcome a phobia or drug use? a. insight therapy b. behavioral therapy c. eclectic therapy d. cognitive therapy 17. Which form of therapy is MOST likely to emphasize the important and improvement of communication skills? a. cognitive therapy b. psychoanalysis c. aversion therapy d. family therapy

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Chapter 15_11e 18. In order to avoid confronting conflicts that remain hidden in the unconscious, Freud believed people use a. defense mechanisms. b. stress-relieving techniques. c. transference. d. aversive tactics. 19. One specific technique used in psychoanalysis is a. free association. b. systematic desensitization. c. aversive conditioning. d. group sharing. 20. The assumption made for using biomedical therapies is that psychological disorders are caused a. in part by family dysfunction. b. in part by biological malfunctions. c. in part by contracting diseases. d. by self-perception issues. 21. Two principal mood stabilizing drugs are called a. Lithium and Valproate. b. Zoloft and Valium. c. Xanax and Thorazine. d. Ativan and Paxil. 22. Freud’s thoughts on the roots of mental disorders came from his treatment of phobias, panic attacks, obsessivecompulsive, and conversion disorders. During his era of practice, these were called a. insanity. b. incompetence. c. temporary insanity. d. neuroses. 23. In behavior therapy, social skills training is designed to improve a. maladaptive patterns of thinking, verbal responses, and behavior patterns in order to change undesirable actions. b. inaccurate perceptions of personal thinking that disrupt interactions with other people. c. interpersonal skills that emphasize modeling, behavioral rehearsal, and shaping. d. relationships by emphasizing an understanding of negative patterns of thinking, and changing negative reactions to undesirable events.

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Chapter 15_11e 24. What distinctive burden has been created by deinstitutionalization? a. Private hospitals have consented to help with the overflow of patients who cannot find anywhere else to go. b. Day hospitals take all released patients but cannot handle the overflow and therefore have to find other venues willing to take patients. c. Prison systems absorb many mentally ill and homeless people and homeless shelters house the greatest number of mentally ill. d. Private therapists have started opening their practices to provide support to large groups for part of the day. 25. What common treatment approach do therapists providing client-centered and family therapy share? a. Fearful situations are used to show that they are harmless. b. Verbal interventions and behavior modification techniques are combined. c. Healthy changes are encouraged through verbal interaction. d. Behavior patterns that are beneficial to others are shaped. 26. Behavior therapies can be used to help people overcome a. phobias. b. personality disorders. c. neuroses. d. narcissism. 27. In terms of the relationship between a therapist's professional background and therapeutic efficacy, researchers have found that a. most individuals show the best progress when they are treated by a clinical psychologist b. most individuals show the best progress when they are treated by a certified psychiatrist. c. most individuals show the best progress when they are treated by a therapist trained in multiple approaches. d. there is no reliable connection between a therapist's professional background and therapeutic efficacy. 28. The two most prevalent conditions adults are seeking help for today are a. schizophrenia and depression disorders. b. phobia and schizoid disorders. c. cognitive and anxiety disorders. d. depression and anxiety disorders. 29. To Freud, dreams were vitally important to understanding neuroses. He described them as the a. royal road to the unconscious. b. golden path to enlightenment. c. only road to mental awareness. d. featured path to conscious awareness.

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Chapter 15_11e 30. Mental health therapies that involve prescribing drugs or other procedures that aid in treating biological dysfunctions would be a. eclectic therapy. b. cognitive therapy. c. behavioral therapy. d. biomedical therapy. 31. Caine discontinued heavy use of an anti-anxiety drug, and now he is experiencing increased anxiety and has trouble sleeping. What is Caine experiencing? a. Tardive Dyskinesia b. withdrawal c. resistance d. tolerance 32. What relief do antipsychotic drugs provide? a. They reduce the tension, apprehension and nervousness of patients. b. They reduce psychotic symptoms, including hyperactivity and hallucinations. c. They elevate mood in an effort to bring people out of a depressive state. d. They stabilize and control mood swings in patients with bipolar mood disorders. 33. Which unwanted behavior is a possible sign of tardive dyskinesia? a. forgetfulness b. grimacing c. cursing d. silliness 34. Which of the following therapists introduced the use of free association? a. Albert Ellis b. Sigmund Freud c. Carl Rogers d. Carl Jung 35. There is concern about putting which specific age group on SSRI’s? a. young children b. middle-age adults c. adolescents d. older adults

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Chapter 15_11e 36. The “behavior” that is incompatible with anxiety, and that systematic desensitization tries to recondition to phobic cues, is a. an imagined fear. b. an imagined pleasant experience. c. deep muscle relaxation. d. vigorous exercise. 37. What is the difference between biomedical therapy and insight therapy? a. Biomedical therapy involves applying principles of learning and conditioning to change maladaptive behaviors while insight therapy focuses on social skills training and systematic desensitization along with exposure to distressing situations. b. Biomedical therapy involves the application of the principles of learning and conditioning to direct change while insight therapy focuses on social skills training and systematic desensitization along with exposure to distressing situations to diminish maladaptive reactions. c. Biomedical therapy involves physiological interventions using medications intended to reduce symptoms associated with psychological disorders while insight therapy focuses on verbal interactions to help promote self-discovery and promote healthy change. d. Biomedical therapy focuses on verbal exchanges intended to enhance self-knowledge and promote healthy change while insight therapy uses medications intended to reduce symptoms associated with psychological disorders. 38. Which type of therapeutic approach subscribes to the premise that people are often disturbed because of their negative interpretations of events? a. biomedical b. person-centered c. cognitive d. eclectic 39. What ethnic group is most likely to seek therapeutic treatment today? a. Caucasians b. Blacks c. Hispanics d. Asians 40. In comparison to traditional antipsychotic drugs, second-generation antipsychotic drugs are a. more effective in treating schizophrenia but have more unpleasant side effects. b. less effective in treating schizophrenia but have fewer unpleasant side effects. c. equally effective in treating schizophrenia and have fewer unpleasant side effects. d. less effective in treating schizophrenia and have more unpleasant side effects.

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Chapter 15_11e 41. Counseling psychologists specialize in a. the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders focusing on career and adjustment problems. b. the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders focusing on drug therapy. c. the diagnosis and treatment of particular problems in vocation and rehabilitation. d. the diagnosis and treatment of particular problems in marriages and families. 42. Vicki is seeing a therapist in an attempt to work through the troubles in her relationship with her father. She and her therapist often talk at length, and her therapist tries to help Vicki work through a variety of potential solutions for the problems she is facing. In this case, her therapist’s approach to treatment would MOST likely be a. insight therapy. b. behavior therapy. c. biomedical therapy. d. homeopathic therapy. 43. If Dr. Adelaide subscribes to the biomedical perspective, how might she explain the basis of her approach? a. The majority of psychological disorders consist of behavioral actions and maladaptive cognitive belief systems. b. The majority of psychological disorders occur due to maladaptive cognitive belief systems. c. The majority of psychological disorders result from chemical abnormalities in the body. d. The majority of psychological disorders begin with early childhood trauma. 44. What term best illustrates a largely unconscious defensive maneuver intended to hinder the progress of therapy? a. denial b. free association c. resistance d. transference 45. Which category of drug would be most helpful to schizophrenic patients experiencing auditory hallucinations and paranoia? a. antianxiety b. antipsychotic c. mood stabilizer d. antidepressants 46. Freud introduced a form of psychotherapy called a. cognitive therapy. b. psychoanalysis. c. metacognitive therapy. d. rational emotive behavior therapy.

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Chapter 15_11e 47. The best definition of insight therapy is that it is based on a. interventions in biological functioning such as drug therapy. b. principles of learning in order to make direct efforts to alter problematic responses and maladaptive habits. c. a mixture of various approaches in order to customize therapy. d. talk therapy where the goal is to pursue increased awareness into difficulties. 48. Electroconvulsive therapy is mostly used today for a. schizophrenia. b. depression. c. OCD. d. anxiety. 49. Dr. Dieringer is a behavior therapist. Her major concern in treating an abnormal behavior would be to discover a. the childhood unconscious conflict that led to the behavior. b. how learning factors are evoking the troublesome behavior. c. the ways in which the behavior keeps the client from becoming self-actualized. d. the inappropriate thought patterns that underlie the behavior. 50. Biomedical therapy can best be described as being based on a. talk therapy where the goal is to pursue increased awareness into difficulties. b. a mixture of various approaches in order to customize therapy. c. interventions in biological functioning such as drug therapy. d. principles of learning in order to make direct efforts to alter problematic responses and maladaptive habits. 51. Today, there are many alternative approaches to treatment, including client-centered therapy, cognitive therapy, behavior therapy, and biomedical therapies. This wide range of alternatives illustrates that a. behavior is determined by multiple causes. b. psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. psychology is theoretically diverse. d. heredity and environment jointly influence behavior. 52. Your friend Myrna is dealing with depression and is having difficulty choosing a therapist. When she asks for your advice, your best option would be to tell her that therapists a. want to understand your needs, wants, and goals of treatment. They can help create a plan of action to empower you and make you feel safe. b. will tell you what you want to hear in your treatment so you feel secure in how your treatment is progressing. Thus, both private practitioners and community professionals can be effective. c. understand the needs of their clients and can always tailor treatment to the client’s mental health needs. The type of therapy can vary, so clients must be open to various modes of treatment. d. vary in effectiveness so it’s important to feel comfortable with the therapist and their approach. Understand that therapy takes time, effort, and courage.

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Chapter 15_11e 53. Which factors do researchers say must be taken into consideration for multicultural sensitivity when treating mental health issues? a. There are language barrier concerns with therapists, and concerns of not being able to connect with a therapist. b. Dialects in language cannot be interpreted correctly. There are concerns with values and judgments conflicting with the therapist’s ideals, and safety issues in sharing sensitive information. c. Stereotypes and prejudice are fears held by minority patients, as well as discrimination on the part of the therapist, and fear of not being able to afford treatment. d. Minority groups are afraid of being able to convey their fears to a therapist along with their own cultures’ preconceived notions about therapy in general. 54. Nelson, a schizophrenic patient, has just begun taking antipsychotic medication. He took his first dose about 12 hours ago, but so far his family sees no change in his condition. What advice should they be given? a. If he doesn’t show improvement in another 12 hours, a different kind of medication should be tried. b. Patients usually don’t begin responding to antipsychotic drugs for at least a few days. c. He may have been misdiagnosed as schizophrenic. d. Early changes due to antipsychotic medication are usually not apparent to nonprofessionals, who are unfamiliar with the signs of improvement. 55. A patient who is prescribed medication for symptoms of depression is being treated by which type of therapy? a. biomedical therapy b. insight therapy c. behavioral therapy d. eclectic therapy 56. If a person is expecting that a treatment will be therapeutic, it could lead to a(n) a. systematic desensitization. b. transference. c. placebo effect. d. outcome effect. 57. Humanistic and psychoanalytic therapies are referred to as a. biomedical therapies. b. behavioral therapies. c. eclectic therapies. d. insight therapies. 58. The shortage of therapists in many areas has led to an increased focus on a. delivering therapy over the phone and Internet. b. broadening access to medication. c. minimizing the importance of therapy. d. seeking alternatives to therapy

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Chapter 15_11e 59. Aiden's therapist has been working toward persuading him to stop blaming himself for the failures and negative circumstances that are out of his control. Aiden's therapist is using a a. cognitive approach. b. client-centered approach. c. behavioral approach. d. biomedical approach. 60. Clive is a clinical psychologist and his sister Grace is a psychiatrist. The main difference between these two professionals would be the fact that Clive would a. typically deal with patients who have more severe problems than the patients Grace usually sees. b. normally treat young children, while Grace would treat more adults. c. have a degree in psychology, while Grace would have a medical degree. d. take a psychoanalytic approach in treating patients, while Grace would take a behavioral approach. 61. Natalie claims that her failure to receive all A’s in college means she is incompetent. Her therapist calmly challenges her belief by explaining that more than 90% of all students are incompetent by her standards. What type of therapist does this represent? a. behavioral b. person-centered c. eclectic d. cognitive 62. Client-centered therapy is also known as a. family-centered therapy. b. person-centered therapy. c. couple-centered therapy. d. psychoanalyst-centered therapy. 63. Several years after her husband’s sudden death from a heart attack, Mrs. Toller remains debilitated by feelings of guilt and sadness. If a cognitive therapist were to help Mrs. Toller, what suggestion might she be given? a. Stop blaming yourself for not being able to prevent your husband’s death. b. Participate in a group therapy session where you can vent your feelings with others. c. Take anti-anxiety medication to relieve your depressive symptoms. d. Be a mentor to a bereavement group member in order to get your mind off your troubles. 64. Sandy seeks out a mental health professional for assistance with her depression. The professional she chooses has a Ph.D. in psychology and is trained in assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of psychological problems. You infer that Sandy’s therapist is a a. psychiatric social worker. b. clinical psychologist. c. psychiatrist. d. psychotherapist.

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Chapter 15_11e 65. During Zeke's last therapy session, he shared a disturbing experience he had involving two bullies in elementary school. Today his therapist asked him to relax and focus on his elementary school experiences and to share anything that comes to mind no matter how trivial it might seem to him. What technique is Zeke’s therapist using? a. transference b. free association c. interpretation d. active listening 66. Deinstitutionalization has mixed reviews. Which argument best addresses the limitations of deinstitutionalization? a. Patients end up going to the wrong therapists for their needs resulting in economic troubles. b. Patients do not receive additional treatment after leaving care and receive no further guidance. c. Patients go to other homes but end up paying high fees for shelter with no additional support. d. Patients have nowhere to go after being released and often end up homeless. 67. Which statement best explains Freud’s fundamental belief about psychological disorders? a. The probability of neuroses is increased by heritability factors. b. Neurotic problems are caused by unconscious conflicts left over from early childhood. c. Using a 12-step program increases the probability of full recovery. d. Using an eclectic approach increases the success of neurotic tendencies. 68. The use of varied combinations of verbal interventions and behavioral modification techniques to help clients change maladaptive patterns of thinking BEST describes a. group therapy treatments. b. cognitive-behavioral treatments. c. biomedical treatments. d. insight treatments. 69. Dr. Chen is a therapist. He creates an environment that is comfortable, open, and welcoming. He is compassionate and offers support through active listening, empathy, and genuine caring. What type of therapist is Dr. Chen most likely to be? a. therapist-centered b. client-centered c. behavior-modification centered d. cognitive-centered 70. When prescribing this mood-stabilizing drug, a patient’s blood must be monitored due to high concentrations becoming fatal or toxic. a. Zoloft b. Valium c. Lithium d. Ativan

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Chapter 15_11e 71. A biomedical treatment where electric shock is used to produce seizures and convulsions is using what method? a. rTMS b. f-MRI c. TMS d. ECT 72. The reliance on drug therapy for treating mental health has a. remained the same over the past couple of decades. b. decreased over the past couple of decades. c. increased over the past couple of decades. d. increased then rapidly decreased over the past couple of decades. 73. Freud is to unconscious conflicts as Rogers is to a. catharsis. b. maladaptive habits. c. incongruence. d. clarification. 74. Rachael sees a therapist to overcome a fear of high places. The therapist has Rachael practice progressive relaxation. If the therapist wants to use systematic desensitization technique, what other technique does she need to implement? a. asking her to talk about her fears and address why she has them while in a relaxed state b. asking her to imagine herself taking a vacation to her favorite place while in a relaxed state c. asking her to imagine many happy scenes in her mind’s eye while in her relaxed state d. asking her to imagine anxiety provoking scenes in her mind while in her relaxed state 75. Dissatisfaction with the system of public mental hospitals led to the a. development of psychotherapy techniques in the 1900s b. “rebirth” of mental institutions in the 1960s. c. community mental health movement of the 1960s. d. managed care movement of the 1990s. 76. The goal of prescribing antidepressant drugs is to a. reduce psychotic symptoms, such as hyperactivity and hallucinations. b. reduce the tension, apprehension, and nervousness of patients. c. stabilize and control mood swings in patients with bipolar mood disorders. d. elevate moods in an effort to bring people of a depressive state. 77. Drugs that are used to control mood swings in bipolar mood disorders are called a. antianxiety drugs. b. mood stabilizers. c. antipsychotic drugs. d. antidepressants. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15_11e 78. Prozac, Paxil, and Zoloft are antidepressant drugs that partially block the reabsorption and removal from the synapses of which neurotransmitter? a. Dopamine b. GABA c. Acetylcholine d. Serotonin 79. Which of the following statements MOST likely supports the increase in cultural diversity in treatment? a. American minority and majority groups generally rely on therapeutic services equally. b. A strong therapeutic alliance between therapists and client is associated with better outcomes, regardless of ethnicity. c. Ethnic minorities are more likely to go to mental health facilities highly staffed by people of the same ethnic background. d. Ethnic minorities are more likely to believe that psychological disorders are caused by supernatural forces. 80. Who would be most likely to use the technique of free association? a. psychoanalyst b. marriage counselor c. psychologist d. behavior modification therapist 81. When clients spontaneously express their thoughts and feelings exactly as they occur, with as little censorship as possible, they are engaging in a. spontaneous sharing. b. Stress-reduction sharing. c. free association. d. dream sharing. 82. The trend toward deinstitutionalization mainly came about because large mental institutions were a. becoming too expensive. b. actually worsening the condition of many patients. c. over staffed. d. becoming too political. 83. Roberto is a college student who feels incompetent in school and thinks life is hopeless for him right now. What type of therapy would Dylan most likely benefit from right now His therapist works with him to adjust his thinking about small hurdles, like a lower grade on a quiz or missing a homework assignment. Helping Roberto use more rational ways of thinking about these situations is very helpful. What kind of therapy is this? a. behavior therapy b. cognitive therapy c. psychoanalytic therapy d. biomedical therapy

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Chapter 15_11e 84. The goal of psychoanalytic techniques is to a. focus on today’s problems and conflicts in conscious awareness. b. bring awareness to repressed conflicts left over from early childhood. c. learn techniques to overcome negative conditioned behaviors. d. develop a greater sense of self to boost self-esteem. 85. Therapists who emphasize the application of learning principles in treatment use the a. behavioral approach. b. biomedical approach. c. insight approach. d. emotion approach. 86. One of the featured techniques used in psychoanalysis is a. unconditional positive regard. b. acceptance and empathy. c. dream analysis. d. active listening. 87. Helping people gain deeper understanding through in-depth conversations in order to arrive at possible solutions best illustrates a. behavioral therapy. b. insight therapy. c. cognitive therapy. d. eclectic therapy. 88. Karl has tried almost all antidepressants available for his major depression without desired results. His doctor does not want him to give up hope, so he offers an alternative that he has not yet tried. Which therapy is the doctor likely thinking about trying? a. electroconvulsive therapy b. lobotomy c. light treatment d. holistic medicines 89. Ed is attempting to explain the difference between clinical and counseling psychologists to a class of eager psychology students. Which of the two criteria presented best illustrates this difference? a. Clinical psychologists devote more time to people with severe problems like schizophrenia, while counseling psychologists work with a team to diagnose mental health issues. b. Clinical psychologists deal only in marriage and family therapy, while counseling psychologists specialize in biomedical disorders. c. Clinical psychologists treat only depressive disorders, while counseling psychologists are only licensed to treat alcohol addiction. d. Clinical psychologists emphasize the treatment of full-fledged disorders, while counseling psychologists focus more on the treatment of everyday adjustment problems.

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Chapter 15_11e 90. A neurological disorder marked by tremors, twitching, writhing, and other tic-like movements of various body parts including hands, feet, and mouth is called a. tardive dyskinesia. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. Tourette’s syndrome. d. schizophrenia. 91. Pat is depressed because she thinks her teacher’s feedback on her assignments means that she is not performing at the level she wishes to. Pat would most likely benefit from what type of therapy? a. biomedical b. eclectic c. person-centered d. cognitive 92. The main difference between psychiatrists and psychologists is that a. psychologists have a medical degree and psychiatrists do not. b. psychiatrists have a medical degree and psychologists do not. c. psychiatrists do not need resident training while psychologists do. d. psychologists are required to complete 4-year residency and psychiatrists are not. 93. Dr. Rosenthal plans to help his client overcome fears of leaving his home by using behavior therapy in combination with drug therapy. What category of drugs will Dr. Rosenthal need to use? a. mood stabilizers b. anti-depressant drugs c. anti-anxiety drugs d. anti-psychotic drugs 94. Transferring the treatment of mental illness from inpatient organizations to community-based facilities for outpatient care is called a. deinstitutionalization. b. day hospitals. c. halfway houses. d. private psychiatric hospitals 95. People often enter psychotherapy due to a crisis they are experiencing. This helps with understanding why people a. tend to overestimate the effectiveness of their treatment. b. seldom miss therapy since they want to feel better. c. brag about receiving the best treatment from the best therapist. d. prefer behavioral therapy over other types of therapy.

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Chapter 15_11e 96. Cole has trouble relaxing and is consumed by feelings of nervousness and apprehension. What type of therapy should his therapist recommend? a. antidepressant biomedical therapy b. antipsychotic biomedical therapy c. mood stabilizer biomedical therapy d. antianxiety biomedical therapy 97. Which person would benefit most from being prescribed an anti-anxiety drug? a. Tristan, who is overcome by feelings of nervousness and fear. b. Sandy, who discontinued her sleeping pill due to overuse and possible abuse. c. Gerald, who needs to give up his irrational belief that he is being followed. d. Brenda, who struggles with suicidal thoughts. 98. A form of behavior therapy that emphasizes modeling, behavioral rehearsal, and shaping and is designed to improve interpersonal skills is a. systematic desensitization. b. aversive conditioning. c. behavioral redirection. d. social skills training. 99. Two of the more well-known cognitive behavior therapists are a. Rogers and Maslow. b. Freud and Jung. c. Horney and Bandura. d. Beck and Ellis. 100. Cognitive therapy was originally devised to be a treatment for a. schizophrenia. b. depression. c. anxiety. d. maladaptive tendencies. 101. Which category of drugs helps treat schizophrenic patients who are experiencing hallucinations, delusions, and hyperactivity? a. antipsychotic drugs b. antidepressant drugs c. antianxiety drugs d. mood stabilizers

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Chapter 15_11e 102. Which famous psychiatrist is noted for launching modern psychotherapy around 1880? a. Sigmund Freud b. Karen Horney c. Carl Jung d. Carl Rogers 103. Dr. Ellis is a therapist who frequently reflects on her efficacy as a professional. What should she take into consideration when ruminating over her effectiveness in treating her patients? a. Therapists might erroneously minimize the seriousness of their clients’ symptoms when therapy starts. b. Clients typically emphasize their problems at the start of therapy and their well-being or vast improvement at the end of therapy. c. Therapists typically blame their own ineffectiveness on their client’s resistance to the chosen treatment option. d. Clients tend to focus on their observable behavioral problems rather than on their emotional problems. 104. Patty’s therapist starts their session by asking her to relax, close her eyes and share anything that comes to mind no matter how embarrassing or trivial it may seem to her. Patty’s therapist is using which technique? a. aversive conditioning b. active listening c. free association d. transference 105. How would you differentiate psychoanalysis and cognitive treatments? a. Psychoanalysis deals with the recovery of unconscious conflicts while cognitive therapy helps in detection and reduction of negative thinking. b. Psychoanalysis deals with detection and reduction of negative thinking while cognitive therapy helps with the recovery of unconscious conflicts. c. Psychoanalysis helps a person empower themselves by understanding their psyche while cognitive therapy focuses on acceptance of self. d. Psychoanalysis helps to eliminate maladaptive behaviors while cognitive therapy helps with the recovery of unconscious conflicts needing elimination. 106. The different approaches to psychotherapy a. overlap so much that there is little basis for differentiating one from another. b. have developed due to tension between competing theories. c. are all equally appropriate for all kinds of psychological problems. d. can be used interchangeably for the majority of psychological disorders.

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Chapter 15_11e 107. Doug is in therapy for depression. His therapist fosters a supportive emotional climate for him to share his feelings and he helps him realize that his depression is stemming from his overdependence on others’ approval and acceptance. Doug’s therapist is most like a. Sigmund Freud. b. Alfred Adler. c. Carl Rogers. d. Karen Horney. 108. Consistent with the phenomenon of regression toward the mean, you would expect that the person who receives the highest grade in the class on the first psychology exam a. will get the highest grade in the class on their first economics exam. b. will get the highest grade in the class on the second psychology exam. c. will get a high grade, but probably not the highest, on the second psychology exam. d. will get a below average grade on the second psychology exam. 109. What type of therapy is illustrated when therapists hand pick participants in order to ensure a supportive, nondisruptive environment? a. group therapy b. cognitive therapy c. family therapy d. stress reduction therapy 110. Regression toward the mean is a statistical phenomenon that can best be explained as happening when a. people experience a placebo effect. b. people who score extremely high or low on a trait are later measured a second time and score closer to the overall average. c. therapists try and convince their client into thinking that they do not need therapy. d. there are statistical results which demonstrate that the client was effectively wrong in their choice of therapist. 111. Approaches to treatment can be classified in which three major categories of therapy? a. classical conditioning, desensitization, cognitive b. insight, behavior, and biomedical c. client-centered, meta-analysis, and eclectic d. interpersonal, behavior, and biomedical 112. The most widely prescribed antidepressants are called a. ECT’s. b. rTMS’s. c. SSRI’s. d. GABA.

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Chapter 15_11e 113. Simultaneous treatment of several clients in a group best illustrates a. family therapy. b. psychoanalysis. c. cognitive therapy. d. group therapy. 114. The purpose of using antianxiety drugs is to a. reduce tension, apprehension, and nervousness. b. gradually reduce psychotic symptoms such as delusions. c. gradually elevate mood and break out of depression. d. control mood swings in bipolar mood disorders. 115. Focused on reducing phobic responses, Joseph Wolpe designed a type of psychotherapy called a. systematic desensitization. b. transference. c. hypnosis. d. meditation. 116. Xanax is a(n) a. MAO inhibitor. b. tranquilizer. c. antidepressant drug. d. antipsychotic drug. 117. Since the mid-1990s, prescriptions of psychiatric drugs have a. increased. b. decreased. c. fluctuated. d. remained stable. 118. The biggest hesitation for seeking psychotherapy is a misconception about a. showing forethought. b. showing weakness. c. showing strength. d. showing uncertainty. 119. Tru seeks out a helping professional who is a licensed M.D. for assistance with symptoms of depression. This person practices psychotherapy and can prescribe drugs or use other biological treatments such as electroconvulsive therapy. Tru’s helping professional is a a. clinical social worker. b. cognitive-behavioral therapist. c. clinical psychologist. d. psychiatrist. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15_11e 120. Which phenomenon results in a client feeling better after receiving an inactive substance? a. regression toward the mean b. spontaneous recovery c. placebo effect d. transference 121. Biomedical therapies are best described as a. the use of prescription drugs and ECT to reduce symptoms associated with psychological disorders. b. the use of combinations of talk and behavior modification techniques to help change unhealthy thinking. c. teaching skills to improve interpersonal interactions that are modeled and rehearsed. d. applying principles of learning and conditioning to direct a change in behavior. 122. During the course of Katerina’s therapy, she starts noticing many similarities between her therapist and her mother. She finds that the more she sees her therapist, the more like her mother the therapist appears. Katerina is demonstrating a. resistance. b. catharsis. c. transference. d. countertransference. 123. In client-centered therapy, the therapist’s key task is a. deliberation. b. clarification. c. rumination. d. understanding. 124. In order to help Mr. Avery with his alcohol dependence, his therapist first attempted to discover whether the substance dependency was somehow a reaction to his wife’s behaviors. Given this concern, Mr. Avery’s therapist is most likely a a. psychoanalyst. b. family therapist. c. cognitive therapist. d. client-centered therapist. 125. What is the major goal of cognitive therapy? a. to prescribe medications to treat biological symptoms b. to change a person’s negative thoughts and maladaptive beliefs c. to encourage sharing within a group setting so people won’t feel alone d. to use hypnosis as a tool to understand the unconscious mind better

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Chapter 15_11e 126. The construction of an anxiety hierarchy and training in relaxation are important features of a. cognitive therapy. b. systematic desensitization. c. classical conditioning. d. humanistic therapy. 127. This type of therapy is a good approach to take for phobias, OCD, sexual dysfunction, schizophrenia, drugrelated problems eating disorders, psychosomatic disorders, hyperactivity, and autism. a. cognitive therapy b. systematic desensitization c. client-centered therapy d. behavioral therapy 128. According to behavior therapists, pathological behaviors a. are signs of an underlying emotional or cognitive problem. b. should be viewed as the expression of an unconscious sexual or aggressive conflict. c. can be modified directly, through the application of established principles of conditioning. d. are the product of irrational thinking. 129. When a therapist teaches a client to pair a relaxation response to a fearful response, what technique is being used? a. free association b. visual imagery c. systematic desensitization d. aversive conditioning 130. What other mental health professionals work as a team with psychologists and psychiatrists? a. psychiatric social workers and psychiatric nurses b. psychosocial therapists and psychological treatment specialists c. interpersonal counselors and psychiatric aides d. psychiatric nurses and health practitioners 131. According to the critics, which criteria must be taken into consideration when evaluating drug therapies? a. The effectiveness of drug therapies, in conjunction with relapse rates, the problems of overprescribing and overmedicating patients, and the problems with side effects being worse than what they are trying to treat. b. Whether drugs are treating symptoms or diseases, the amount of time the therapist spends with the patient, and if they feel better about themselves after therapy and hospitalization if warranted. c. How the therapist is connecting with the patient during and after treatment, whether the patient feels worthy of the amount of time treatment can take, and if the drugs are actually treating the correct symptoms. d. The effectiveness of the treatment plan as well as the choice of treatment options available, whether the proper medication is being prescribed, and if the patient is in agreement.

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Chapter 15_11e 132. Dr. Van Dyke is a biomedical therapist. Which example best explains his approach? a. Asks a patient to keep a journal on recurrent, unpleasant feelings for use during therapy. b. Requires a patient to practice visualization and deep breathing when stressed. c. Uses hypnosis and free association techniques to unlock the unconscious mind. d. Prescribes medications to alleviate physiological symptoms. 133. The drug Xanax would most likely be prescribed to help a. Kelly give up her irrational belief that her husband is a traitor. b. Trevor get rid of his suicidal thoughts and feelings of hopelessness. c. Penny overcome feelings of nervousness and inability to relax. d. Martin channel his fearlessness in a more productive way. 134. Jonathan has an intense fear of public speaking. However, his job demands that he conduct presentations to corporate groups. Jonathan’s therapist has worked with him to practice deep breathing while imagining himself in front of the group, speaking at ease. This technique best illustrates a. free association. b. aversive conditioning. c. controlled conditioning. d. systematic desensitization. 135. After discontinuing her antianxiety medication, Gary experienced an increase in anxiety and had a hard time sleeping. Gary is experiencing symptoms of a. transference. b. resistance. c. withdrawal. d. dependence. 136. The major emphasis in client-centered therapy is to provide the client with a. interpretation of unconscious thinking b. cognitive restructuring c. feedback and clarification. d. good advice. 137. Keisha is in therapy. She has been arriving late for sessions, acting hostile toward her therapist, is making up dreams and seems distracted and inattentive during her sessions. According to Freud, Keisha's behavior may be a sign of a. repression. b. insight. c. transference. d. resistance.

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Chapter 15_11e 138. Jenna is extremely fearful of taking tests. Learning of the test causes her mild anxiety but she experiences extreme anxiety when actually taking the test. During a process of systematically desensitizing her test anxiety, a therapist is likely to ask Jenna to first imagine a. receiving a perfect score on the test. b. answering the questions on the test. c. waiting for the teacher to administer the test. d. sitting in class at her desk. 139. Psychodynamic and client-centered therapy are similar in that they both assume the past affects present behaviors and current feelings, and they strive to expand insights into the problems. What is the best statement that differentiates these two approaches? a. Psychodynamic therapists focus on the past as root causes to psychological problems, while clientcentered therapists focus on teaching the client that approval from others should not be a primary goal. b. Psychodynamic therapists focus on feelings of acceptance while client-centered therapists focus on defense mechanisms and their causes. c. Psychodynamic therapists focus on the reasons for feelings while client-centered therapists focus on the history behind the reasons for feelings. d. Psychodynamic therapists focus on the client’s feelings of inferiority, while client-centered therapists focus on dream analysis. 140. Tardive Dyskinesia is often associated with long-term use of a. antidepressant drugs. b. mood stabilizers. c. antianxiety drugs. d. antipsychotic drugs. 141. Which of the following is representative of systematic desensitization? a. a couple talking over their marital problems b. a woman afraid of spiders who, step by step, learns not to be afraid of them anymore c. a boy who talks to his counselor about his friends who are bullying him d. a family who is suffering from the loss of their father and needs to talk about their grief 142. What type of therapist would work on bringing awareness of repressed conflicts left over from early childhood? a. psychiatric nurs b. social worker c. psychosocial therapist d. psychoanalyst 143. Carl Rogers is credited with developing a. client-centered therapy. b. biomedical therapy. c. behavior therapy. d. eclectic therapy.

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Chapter 15_11e 144. What criteria needs to be taken into account to evaluate the costs and benefits of using ECT? a. Memory recall tests to determine the amount of information patients can remember in a given time period, recovery time, and cost. b. Length of schedules of treatment, effectiveness of memory retention related to life and family, and whether or not patient is suffering needlessly. c. Memory loss, impaired attention and other cognitive deficits, length of memory loss, and whether memory impairment is short-term or permanent. d. Availability and distance of treatment center, costs to healthcare insurance and patient, and if the doctor has licensure. 145. What category of drugs gradually elevates mood and helps to bring people out of depression? a. antipsychotic drugs b. antianxiety drugs c. mood stabilizers d. antidepressants 146. Which mental health therapy best illustrates the treatment that uses in-depth discussions to help recognize the roots of difficulties, so that possible solutions can be discovered and implemented? a. behavioral therapy b. biomedical therapy c. insight therapy d. eclectic therapy 147. Three main elements of a supportive experience in client-centered therapy are a. empathy, authenticity, and self-awareness. b. accuracy, self-awareness, and non-judgmental comments. c. authenticity, compassion, and understanding. d. genuineness, unconditional positive regard, and accurate empathy. 148. The term used to categorize all variations of psychoanalysis is a. psychocognitive approaches to therapy. b. psychoneurological approaches to therapy. c. psychodynamic approaches to therapy. d. psycholinguistic approaches to therapy. 149. With the increased use of biomedical therapies, which of the following mental health practitioners have been asking for prescription-writing privileges? a. psychiatrists b. psychologists c. social workers d. eclectic therapists

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Chapter 15_11e 150. Dr. Varsho is a psychotherapist who often argues openly with her clients and tries to persuade her clients to alter their patterns of thinking. Dr. Varsho is a. using a client-centered approach to therapy b. probably not very successful as a therapist. c. using a modern psychodynamic approach to therapy. d. a therapist who uses a cognitive approach 151. Four main categories of drugs used in biomedical therapies include a. antianxiety, antipsychotic, antidepressants, and mood stabilizers. b. antipsychotic, stimulant, hallucinogen, and opioids. c. antianxiety, cannabis, opioids, and mood stabilizers. d. antidepressants, cannabis, antipsychotics, and opioids. 152. Which type of therapeutic approach emphasizes the importance of unconditional positive regard? a. client-centered b. cognitive c. behavioral d. psychoanalysis 153. Researchers need to take the placebo effect seriously because placebo effects a. can yield good information on the efficacy of treatment approaches. b. effectively do not matter to the outcomes of a patient’s treatment program. c. have yielded information to demonstrate that traditional treatments are not effective. d. are only revealed in staged settings and therefore have limited effect on research as a whole. 154. The use of therapy is most likely among those who a. are male. b. are married. c. do not have health insurance. d. have a graduate degree. 155. Gil has a psychological disorder, and his doctor has prescribed an antipsychotic drug to reduce the severity of Gil’s symptoms. In this case, Gil’s therapist is MOST likely treating him for a. panic disorder. b. mild depression. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. schizophrenia.

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Chapter 15_11e 156. Tasha has been in psychotherapy for just over a year. Lately, she has started to express a strong sexual desire for her therapist. Unconsciously, she is acting toward him the way she wishes she could act toward her own husband. According to Freud, Tasha’s behavior may be a sign of a. transference. b. resistance. c. free association. d. defensive neurosis. 157. Aaron Beck’s therapy uses targeted strategies to correct errors in thinking that underlie various types of disorders. What type of therapy is Beck responsible for? a. behavioral b. biomedical c. psychoanalysis d. cognitive 158. Mood stabilizers are prescribed to a. reduce psychotic symptoms, including hyperactivity and hallucinations. b. gradually elevate mood to help people rebound and emerge from a depressive state. c. stabilize and control mood swings in patients with bipolar mood disorders. d. reduce the tension, apprehension, and nervousness of patients. 159. Many specific therapies have turned out to be irrelevant or counterproductive when used with different cultural groups. This finding illustrates that a. psychology is theoretically diverse.. b. our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage c. psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. our experience of the world is highly subjective. 160. Disorders such as phobias would most likely be treated using what main type of therapy? a. insightful therapy b. behavioral therapy c. eclectic therapy d. cognitive therapy 161. Sky is afraid of getting sick from shaking someone’s hand. Which type of therapy would Sky benefit most from? a. client-centered therapy b. psychodynamic therapy c. cognitive-behavioral therapy d. drug therapy

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Chapter 15_11e 162. Which type of therapy draws ideas from two or more systems of therapy instead of committing to just one system of therapy? a. cognitive-behavioral therapy b. psychoanalysis c. eclectic therapy d. humanistic therapy 163. When Amy began sharing a painful early childhood experience, she abruptly started complaining that she had a headache and could not continue. Amy is displaying a. reaction formation. b. suppression. c. resistance. d. projection. 164. When a therapist interprets the symbolic meaning of the client’s dreams, they are practicing the technique of a. dream analysis. b. dream sharing. c. dream manifestation. d. dream inoculation. 165. The practice of therapy that involves drawing ideas from two or more systems of therapy instead of committing to just one is known as a(n) a. psychoanalytic approach to therapy. b. eclectic approach to therapy. c. client-centered approach to therapy. d. behavioral approach to therapy. 166. Kira suffered from depression due to her mother dying. She went to treatment for several months and then stopped. Shortly after she stopped therapy, Kira found that her depression subsided. Some treatment professionals might explain this as a. spontaneous recovery. b. spontaneous reclamation. c. spontaneous recuperation. d. spontaneous remission. 167. Research has shown that mental health care services do not have enough mental health professionals available for therapy. What trend is emerging to address this problem? a. the use of technology as a treatment option b. the use of volunteers to administer treatment c. the use of family members to provide talk therapy d. the use of religious clergy to take the place of therapists

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Chapter 15_11e 168. Exposure therapies are versatile and can be used in a wide variety of a. depressive disorders. b. schizophrenic disorders. c. anxiety disorders. d. biomedical disorders. 169. To help Theo overcome his fear of being alone in his room at night, his behavior therapist would most likely use a. systematic desensitization. b. aversive conditioning. c. talk therapy. d. electroconvulsive therapy. 170. Today, psychoanalysis is MOST likely to be practiced by a. clinical psychologists. b. counseling psychologists. c. social workers. d. psychiatrists. 171. According to Rogers, a person's overdependence on others for approval and acceptance is caused by a. transference. b. incongruence. c. resistance. d. maladaptive behavior. 172. Deinstitutionalization refers to a. replacing psychiatric hospitals with halfway houses that provide weekly treatment options. b. shifting the responsibility for mental health care from state hospitals to local communities for treatment. c. requiring patients to live on their own three days a week in order to reacclimatize to society. d. eliminating long-term hospital care for the mentally ill because it’s proven to be ineffective. 173. Which type of therapy is based on learning, where the goal is to alter problematic responses such as with phobias and maladaptive habits? a. biomedical therapy b. insight therapy c. client-centered therapy d. behavioral therapy

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Chapter 15_11e 174. Taylor sees a therapist for a social phobia. His therapist points out to Taylor that he is making an error in how he assesses situations as well as other people’s responses to him. He also helps Taylor realize that he dwells on his weaknesses and flaws. Taylor’s therapist is most likely a a. psychodynamic therapist. b. cognitive-behavioral therapist. c. psychoanalytic therapist. d. humanistic therapist. 175. Allen is a schizophrenic and has noticed lately that his hands twitch and his face grimaces uncontrollably most of the time. What might Allen’s therapist attribute this to? a. He is most likely experiencing Tourette’s syndrome because of the tics he is having for a long period of time. b. He is most likely experiencing tardive dyskinesia due to his intake of antipsychotic medications for many years. c. He is most likely experiencing a panic attack since he feels out of control most of the time. d. He is most likely experiencing withdrawal from his medication. 176. Which term best describes when clients start relating to their therapists in ways that mimic critical relationships in their lives? a. transference b. resistance c. suppression d. repression 177. What are three types of behavior therapies? a. cognitive-behavioral, systematic desensitization, and couples and family b. psychoanalysis, couples and family, and client-centered c. systematic desensitization, group, and client-centered d. systematic desensitization, social skills training, and cognitive-behavioral 178. Which one of the following people would benefit from an antidepressant medication? a. Sylvia, who has lost her sense of identity and has wandered from her hometown not remembering who she is anymore. b. Trey, whose increasing feelings of helplessness and hopeless is leading him to feel that life is not worth living anymore. c. Jack, who has polarized episodes of mania where he feels that he can do anything, and hallucinations where he hears his dead mother. d. Samantha, who is so addicted to smoking cigarettes that she’s convinced she cannot ever quit.

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Chapter 15_11e 179. Geraldo is a father with an anger management problem. His wife and son are afraid to interact with him because he might explode and become physically aggressive. What type of therapy would they all benefit from? a. psychoanalysis b. humanistic therapy c. client-centered therapy d. family therapy 180. Zachary has been very depressed for several weeks. He just started therapy and went to his therapist for the first time yesterday. Today, he says that while he is still a “little down,” he feels much less depressed than he was. Which of the following pairs of factors are MOST likely to have contributed to his improved mood? a. placebo effect and regression toward the mean b. regression toward the mean and spontaneous recovery c. placebo effect and therapy d. regression toward the mean and therapy 181. Behavioral therapy can be most accurately explained as being based on a. the principles of learning focused on making direct efforts to alter problematic responses and maladaptive habits. b. talk therapy where the goal is to pursue increased awareness into difficulties. c. interventions in biological functioning using prescription drugs. d. a mixture of various approaches in order to customize treatment. 182. What has research shown to be true of the effectiveness of insight therapies? a. Studies have consistently shown that some therapy has a greater impact than no therapy at all. b. Studies have consistently shown that some therapy has the same impact as having no therapy at all. c. Studies have shown that some therapy has less of an impact than was once thought. d. Studies have shown that therapy needs to change so it has a greater impact than it has now. 183. Helping to educate people to stop blaming themselves for failures and negative life conditions beyond their control describes a/an a. eclectic therapist. b. cognitive therapist. c. behavioral therapist. d. person-centered therapist. 184. The mental health field is concerned about the effects of deinstitutionalization. What information needs to be taken into account? a. Prison and homeless shelter facilities need to be expanded in order to help with overcrowding. b. A partial rollback of deinstitutionalization needs to happen. c. An improved plan for mental health care needs to be implemented in order to accommodate the needs of all mental health patients. d. Recruitment of more mental health workers needs to be pursued in order to care for the overflow from other treatment facilities.

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Chapter 15_11e 185. When is group therapy more effective than individual therapy? a. When a client needs to understand that others have similar problems and they are not alone. b. When a client needs to quickly regain normal functioning in their relationships and in daily interactions. c. When a client needs to reduce anxiety when trying to talk in front of a group. d. When trying to teach a client the art of resilience while overcoming their mental shortcomings. 186. Interpreting the symbolic meaning of dreams is most closely associated with a. behavior modification therapy. b. psychoanalysis. c. psycho-social integration therapy. d. psychotic determination therapy. 187. In order to improve treatment services for American minority groups, researchers need to a. have patients go through a screening process in order to make sure they are choosing the correct therapist for the problem needing to be addressed. b. require patients to learn English if they cannot speak it before seeking therapy so that they understand the treatment process better. c. demand that all therapists learn different languages in order to communicate more effectively with their clients so that they feel heard and understood. d. recruit more minority therapists so clients will feel connected, understood, and perceive their therapist as more credible. 188. Sigmund Freud introduced a form of psychotherapy called a. behavioral therapy. b. cognitive therapy. c. psychological therapy. d. psychoanalysis. 189. Ashley has an intense fear of snakes. She sees a therapist who uses systematic desensitization and gradual exposure to help her reduce and control her fears. Ashley’s therapist is MOST likely using a. drug therapy b. client-centered therapy. c. behavior therapy. d. psychoanalysis 190. Systematic desensitization involves a. learning to associate a pleasant, relaxed state with anxiety-arousing stimuli. b. associating unwanted behaviors with a negative stimulus. c. using drug treatments to alleviate fear. d. challenging a patient’s viewpoints about their fears as irrational.

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Chapter 15_11e 191. What would be the best way to describe the use of biomedical therapy? a. Alice is taking steps to control her panic attacks by using relaxation breathing taught to her by her therapist. b. Shanika is learning to associate the smell of lavender with bedtime, helping her to relax and fall asleep more easily. c. Penelope is trying a prescription drug from her doctor to help alleviate her ADHD symptoms. d. Olivia is talking to her therapist and gaining insights into her personality and behaviors. 192. Contemporary psychiatrists increasingly depend on a. talk therapy as their principal mode of treatment. b. behavioral modification as their principal mode of treatment. c. medication as their principal mode of treatment. d. rational emotive behavioral therapy as their principal mode of treatment. 193. Dr. Smith has just been appointed chief of staff at a large hospital located near an area of town where many minorities live. Dr. Smith is very interested in increasing the level of mental health services provided to the minority community. If you could give him one piece of advice, it would be MOST beneficial if you told him he should a. hire trained therapists who are from the same minority group. b. advertise in the local minority-language newspaper. c. have evening and weekend hours for mental health services. d. open several community mental health centers in the neighborhood. 194. Which statement best illustrates the insight therapy approach? a. Insight therapy is designed to improve interpersonal skills by emphasizing modeling, behavioral rehearsal, and shaping. b. Insight therapy uses a combination of verbal interventions and behavior modification techniques to help clients change maladaptive patterns of thinking. c. Insight therapy uses specific strategies to correct habitual thinking errors that underlie various types of disorders. d. Insight therapy uses verbal interactions intended to enhance clients’ self-knowledge, thus promoting healthy changes in personality and behavior. 195. Stella constantly feels apprehensive and nervous. Her friend, Becky, believes a biomedical therapist might be most helpful since this approach would be able to a. prescribe a medication to help reduce the tension, apprehension, and nervousness she feels. b. help identify the source of nervousness and teach new coping behaviors. c. use talk therapy to unlock early childhood sources of trauma that might be affecting her apprehension today. d. listen to her concerns and fears so that a plan of action for confronting the source of her nervousness can be devised.

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Chapter 15_11e 196. A newer approach to therapy that allows mental health professionals to customize therapeutic treatment for their clients by drawing ideas from two or more systems of therapy is called a. eclectic therapy. b. client-centered therapy. c. psychodynamic therapy. d. cognitive-behavioral therapy. 197. Compared to psychologists, within their specialization of therapy, psychiatrists tend to a. emphasize biomedical treatments more. b. use group therapies more often. c. use behavior therapies more often. d. spend less time working with severely disturbed patients. 198. You are presenting a report on the mental health system’s revolving door for people suffering from chronic, severe disorders. What are two major unanticipated problems that you need to address? a. Most patients caught in the revolving door are patients with chronic severe disorders and lack the needed care and support outside of the hospital causing them to need to be readmitted to the hospital. b. Most patients caught in the revolving door are suffering from dysthymia depression and end up coming back because they feel better in the hospital. c. Most patients caught in the revolving door know that because they pay a lot for care, they can return to the hospital as much as they need to in order to manage their mental illness. d. Most patients caught in the revolving door ask their therapist for their walk-in hours so that they may return as many times as they need to facilitate their recovery. 199. Electroconvulsive therapy and drug therapy for psychological disorders are two types of a. behavior therapy. b. biomedical therapy. c. cognitive therapy. d. emotion therapy. 200. Systematic desensitization is a form of a. psychoanalysis. b. cognitive therapy. c. behavior therapy. d. eclectic therapy.

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Chapter 15_11e Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. d 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. c 26. a

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Chapter 15_11e 27. d 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. c 39. a 40. c 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. c 51. c 52. d 53. a 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15_11e 55. a 56. c 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. c 71. d 72. c 73. c 74. d 75. c 76. d 77. b 78. d 79. c 80. a 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15_11e 83. b 84. b 85. a 86. c 87. b 88. a 89. d 90. a 91. d 92. b 93. c 94. a 95. a 96. d 97. a 98. d 99. d 100. b 101. a 102. a 103. b 104. c 105. a 106. b 107. c 108. c 109. a 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15_11e 111. b 112. c 113. d 114. a 115. a 116. b 117. a 118. b 119. d 120. c 121. a 122. c 123. b 124. b 125. b 126. b 127. d 128. c 129. c 130. a 131. a 132. d 133. c 134. d 135. c 136. c 137. d

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Chapter 15_11e 138. d 139. a 140. d 141. b 142. d 143. a 144. c 145. d 146. c 147. d 148. c 149. b 150. d 151. a 152. a 153. a 154. d 155. d 156. a 157. d 158. c 159. b 160. b 161. c 162. c 163. c 164. a 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15_11e 166. d 167. a 168. c 169. a 170. d 171. b 172. b 173. d 174. b 175. b 176. a 177. d 178. b 179. d 180. a 181. a 182. a 183. c 184. b 185. a 186. b 187. d 188. d 189. c 190. a 191. c 192. c 193. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15_11e 194. d 195. a 196. a 197. a 198. a 199. b 200. c

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