TEST BANK for Psychology; Themes and Variations 6th Edition. by McCann, Weiten & Matheson. All Chapt by StudyGuide

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Chap_01_6ce_Case Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Raphael and Paxton are roommates. Because they’re both psychology majors, they choose to dress up as their favourite early psychologists for a Halloween party in their building. They also challenge one another to act like these psychologists all night, and the first one to break character has to take out the trash until the end of semester. Raphael’s friend Samantha says that her best friend just started dating the guy Samantha had a crush on. Raphael asks Samantha, “And how did that make you feel?” Who is Raphael dressed as? a. Rene Descartes b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Max Wertheimer d. William James 2. Lucas is a 4th year student at Carleton studying psychology and is now considering more seriously his future and the career options he has. He is currently completing his undergraduate thesis (a big research project many psychology majors complete before they graduate). Lucas’ research is investigating how subjective feelings of fear activate the autonomic nervous system. If Lucas decides to get a Ph.D. in psychology after he graduates, he is most likely going to be employed in ____________. a. the private sector b. a college or a university c. a hospital or a clinic d. the government 3. Sam, Dean, and Cas get into a philosophical argument about freedom. Which of the three friends is most likely to say that humans do not have free will and that we are all products of our environment? a. Sam, who is dressed up as Carl Rogers. b. Dean, who is dressed up as Sigmund Freud. c. Cas, who is dressed up as B.F. Skinner. d. All three of them are equally likely to say this. 4. Presho recognizes Vasia, her PSYC1001 teaching assistant, at the event. Vasia mentions she is completing a degree in neuroscience, but will also finish with a minor in psychology. She is most interested in studying the action of neurotransmitters in the pleasure centre of the brain. Vasia is fascinated by ________ psychology. a. biological b. evolutionary c. sociocultural d. psychodynamic 5. Presho meets Matt, who is a Ph.D. candidate who is studying the mental processes that students of varying ability (children, high schoolers, and university students) use to learn new math problems. Matt studies are related to which psychological approach? a. Behaviourism b. Cognitive c. Sociocultural d. Evolutionary 6. While conducting his thesis, Lucas made sure that all his research methods were empirical in nature. This means that the conclusions he reached were based on _____________. a. reasoning b. traditional beliefs c. speculation d. observation

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Chap_01_6ce_Case Based 7. When you visit _____________, he explains that your roommate is most likely stealing your food because ________________. a. Abraham Maslow; his physiological needs are greater than his need for self-esteem b. Carl Rogers; his physiological needs are greater than his need to be accepted c. Carl Rogers; his need for achievement is greater than his need to be accepted d. Abraham Maslow; he has met the steps of the needs hierarchy before his need to be accepted 8. Presho recognizes a girl who lives in her residence named Erin. Erin is a Masters candidate who is looking at the psychological effects of skinny- and fat-shaming both when the individual hears it in person and experiences it via social media communication. Erin’s study is focused in the ________ stream of psychology. a. evolutionary b. human-computer interaction c. applied social d. biological 9. The three friends get into an argument about what drives human behaviour. Which of them is most likely to say that in order to fully understand someone’s behaviour, we need to consider that person’s fundamental drive towards personal growth? a. Sam, who is dressed up as Carl Rogers. b. Cas, who is dressed up as B.F. Skinner. c. Dean, who is dressed up as Sigmund Freud. d. All three of them are equally likely to say this. 10. Paxton is listening to his friend Nadav who is telling him about how worried he is that he will fail his physics class. Paxton reassures him by saying, “Our mind expands to accommodate new information. So, keep studying as hard as you can, and you’ll learn the material!” Who is Paxton dressed as? a. Rene Descartes b. E.B. Titchener c. G. Stanley Hall d. William James 11. You (and most other individuals) are under the impression that humans have the power to choose their own beliefs and behaviours. When you mention this to ____________, he disagrees and you get into a heated argument about your beliefs and his controversial theories. a. Abraham Maslow b. B.F. Skinner c. Wilhelm Wundt d. Sigmund Freud 12. Which major area of contemporary psychology does Lucas’ thesis belong to? a. Social psychology b. Psychometrics c. Physiological psychology d. Cognitive psychology 13. Later in the night, Sam gets into an argument with Dean. What are they most likely going to argue about? a. Sam is going to accuse Dean of being too negative and only seeing the worst in people. b. Dean is going to accuse Sam of being too negative and only seeing the worst in people. c. Dean thinks nature has a bigger impact on behaviour than nurture and Sam thinks the opposite. d. Sam thinks nature has a bigger impact on behaviour than nurture and Dean thinks the opposite.

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Chap_01_6ce_Case Based 14. At some point, Dean, Cas, and Sam spend some time talking to their friend Alia who aspires to be a famous singer. What is Dean most likely to say about Alia’s aspiration to become a singer? a. Alia wants to be a singer because she unconsciously craves the attention she didn’t receive from her mother as a child. b. Alia wants to be a singer because she wants to fulfill her full potential and grow as a person. c. The positive feedback Alia receives from other people after she sings has reinforced her habit of singing. d. Alia was born with an innate talent and passion for music and singing. 15. At some point, Dean, Cas, and Sam spend some time talking to their friend Alia who aspires to be a famous singer. What is Sam most likely to say about Alia’s aspiration to become a singer? a. Alia wants to be a singer because she unconsciously craves the attention she didn’t receive from her mother. b. Alia wants to be a singer because she wants to fulfill her full potential and grow as a person. c. The positive feedback Alia receives from other people after she sings has reinforced her habit of singing. d. Alia was born with an innate talent and passion for music and singing. 16. During the party, Sarah gets upset and ends up sobbing uncontrollably in the bathroom. Which of the three friends is most likely to go to her, empathetically listen to her and treat her with unconditional positive regard? a. Sam, who is dressed up as Carl Rogers. b. Cas, who is dressed up as B.F. Skinner. c. Dean, who is dressed up as Sigmund Freud d. None of them is likely to do this. 17. Imagine that Paxton is dressed as Wilhelm Wundt and supports the theory of structuralism all evening. Whereas Raphael is dressed as William James and supports functionalism. They get into a few arguments. When their friend Nadav asks them if they agree on anything, how do they respond? a. “No. We are forever doomed to trying to prove each other wrong.” b. “Yes, introspection.” c. “Yes, systematic observation.” d. “Yes, stream of consciousness.” 18. Dean, Sam, and Cas are all best friends and decided to dress up as famous psychologists for Halloween. Dean dressed up as Sigmund Freud, Sam dressed as Carl Rogers, and Cas dressed as B.F. Skinner. They decided to not only dress up as those famous psychologists but also adapt their beliefs about psychology for the night. At some point, Dean, Cas, and Sam spend some time talking to their friend Alia who aspires to be a famous singer. What is Cas most likely to say about Alia’s aspiration to become a singer? a. Alia wants to be a singer because she unconsciously craves the attention she didn’t receive from her mother as a child. b. Alia wants to be a singer because she wants to reach her full potential and grow as a person. c. The positive feedback Alia receives from other people when she sings has reinforced her habit of singing. d. Alia was born with an innate talent and passion for music and singing.

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Chap_01_6ce_Case Based 19. You travel to the office of B. F. Skinner. You ask him how he thinks you can stop your bad habit of biting your nails. What does he suggest you do? a. Scare yourself with stories about terrible illnesses and infections caused by nail-biting. b. Paint a vomit-inducing polish on your nails so you will learn to associate nail-biting with vomiting. c. Reward yourself every time you make it a week without biting your nails. d. Think about the reason why you bite your nails and work to correct that instead. 20. Keltie is the president of the PGSA. She mentions to Presho that she is almost finished with her Ph.D. and is currently writing up the results of her final project, which explored the effects of child eyewitness testimony on jury decision-making. Keltie is studying __________ psychology. a. sociocultural b. evolutionary c. forensic d. cognitive 21. Presho is a first-year psychology student at Carleton University. She moved to Ottawa from Calgary and has not yet made many friends in her classes. She decides to attend a games night meet-and-greet organized by the Psychology Society of Carleton University (PSCU) to connect with other Carleton psychology undergraduates. It just so happens that members of the Psychology Graduate Student Association (PGSA), are also attending. Presho decides to chat with as many students as possible to figure out what they like and dislike about their programs so far. Presho meets a fourth-year undergraduate named Chelsie. Chelsie is volunteering on a project that is exploring the difference between transformational leadership and ethical leadership on the well-being of employees in the workplace. Chelsie’s study is related to which stream of psychology research? a. Health b. Applied social c. Industrial/Organizational d. Forensic 22. During the party, Jason tries to light up a candle with a match and burns his finger in front of Sam, Dean, and Cas. Which of the three friends is most likely to predict that Jason will not use another match ever again out of fear of burning his finger again? a. Sam, who is dressed up as Carl Rogers. b. Cas, who is dressed up as B.F. Skinner. c. Dean, who is dressed up as Sigmund Freud. d. All three of them are equally likely to predict this. 23. During the party, Adam walks over to where Sam, Dean, and Cas are talking. He notices that Sam has finished his drink and asks, “Can I kill your cup? I mean, fill your cup!” Which of the three friends is most likely to come up to the conclusion that Adam secretly hates Sam? a. Sam, who is dressed up as Carl Rogers. b. Cas, who is dressed up as B.F. Skinner. c. Dean, who is dressed up as Sigmund Freud. d. All three of them are equally likely to reach this conclusion.

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Chap_01_6ce_Case Based 24. Imagine that you have gone to visit your PSYC 1001 professor during his office hours and find out that he has a time machine in his office. He explains that the time machine works, except for a programming glitch that restricts the destination of the machine. This particular time machine can only travel to the laboratories of past psychology researchers. Seeing as you are an avid first-year psychology student, you boldly ask your professor if you can take a ride to a past laboratory. Surprisingly, he agrees, so you hop in, ready to travel back in time. You choose to travel back to Vienna in the early 1900s to talk to Sigmund Freud. You enter his office when he is in a session with a patient. Which of the following would you NOT expect to hear? a. The patient describing the dream she had last night in great detail. b. Freud asking his patient why she believes she dreamed about her cat eating a mouse. c. Freud asking the patient to describe the behaviours of the characters in her dream. d. The patient asking Freud what he thinks of her dream about her cat eating a mouse. 25. Lucas is not sure about what to do after graduation, so he decides to book an appointment for career counselling. Lucas is going to be meeting with a psychologist specializing in ___________. a. clinical psychology b. counselling psychology c. educational and school psychology d. industrial and organizational psychology

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Chap_01_6ce_Case Based Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. d 11. b 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. c 19. c 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. b

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Chap 01_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which psychological approach contends that psychology must study internal mental events in order to fully

understand behaviour? a. cognitive psychology c. developmental psychology

b. clinical psychology d. behaviourism

2. In which type of psychology would a psychologist work on trying to increase job satisfaction and productivity

in a large company? a. counselling psychology c. clinical psychology

b. industrial and organizational psychology d. psychometrics

3. Which school of psychology focused on understanding the purpose of behaviour? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. neodynamism

d. behaviourism

4. What would you focus on if you were using a multifactorial approach to explain your performance in a

course? a. overt, observable behaviours b. the complex, neurological underpinnings of learning and memory c. both personal factors such as motivation and situational factors such as home environment d. the relationship between you and your professor 5. What is primarily an applied area of psychology? a. social psychology b. industrial/organizational psychology c. cognitive psychology

d. physiological psychology

6. When did evolutionary psychology emerge as a modern discipline? a. 1960s b. 1970s c. 1980s

d. 1990s

7. Who would have been most likely to say, “You think that you’re in control of your own behaviour, but you’re

not truly in control”? a. B. F. Skinner b. Abraham Maslow c. Wilhelm Wundt d. Carl Rogers 8. Which area is most likely to be classified as an applied area of specialization in psychology? a. counselling psychology b. personality psychology c. developmental psychology

d. experimental psychology

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Chap 01_6ce 9. Which of the following is NOT likely to conduct experiments? a. a social psychologist b. a psychometrist c. a psychiatrist

d. a developmental psychologist

10. Sigmund Freud developed an innovative procedure for treating people with psychological problems. What

did he call this procedure? a. rational-emotive therapy c. primal therapy

b. behaviour modification d. psychoanalysis

11. What did Freud conclude are the dominant causes of psychological disturbances? a. conflicts between conscious desires and environmental constraints b. personal conflicts existing at an unconscious level c. unrealistic demands from family and friends d. genetic predispositions to behave in a particular way 12. Which statement best reflects the main advantage of conducting psychological research with animals? a. With research on animals, there are no ethical issues to be concerned with. b. In their biological makeup, animals are fundamentally similar to humans. c. A researcher can exert more control over an animal than over a human subject. d. It is much cheaper to conduct research on animals than on humans. 13. Michael is having problems relating to other people because he is very paranoid and experiences

hallucinations. Which type of psychologist should Michael contact for help? a. physiological psychologist b. clinical psychologist c. developmental psychologist d. experimental psychologist 14. If an evolutionary psychologist were studying sleep and dreams, what would be a likely topic? a. What is the symbolic meaning of dreams? b. Do sleep patterns change across the life span? c. Are sleep disorders controlled by environmental influences? d. Does sleep benefit health and survival? 15. Which of the following statements about psychology is TRUE? a. Since the beginning, psychologists have been involved in diagnosing and treating mental illness. b. Modern psychology is the study of the mind. c. Psychology and psychiatry are largely the same. d. Psychology is a scientific discipline. 16. What type of psychologist studies information processing and decision making? a. social b. psychometric c. cognitive

d. educational

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Chap 01_6ce 17. Which school of psychology stressed that psychology should study the purpose of consciousness rather than

the individual components of consciousness? a. psychoanalysis b. structuralism c. Gestalt psychology d. functionalism 18. Which statement best describes the difference between a clinical psychologist and a psychiatrist? a. Both clinical psychologists and psychiatrists receive medical training. b. Clinical psychologists tend to take a non-medical approach to the treatment of psychological disorders. c. Psychiatrists cannot prescribe drugs. d. A clinical psychologist has a medical degree. 19. According to research findings, what has been found to be associated with higher grades? a. writing down everything your instructor says b. attending class regularly c. putting off studying until just before an exam d. not changing answers on tests 20. It is almost midnight, and both Janae and Brooke are still preparing for the final exam in chemistry the

following morning. Janae decides to go to sleep while Brooke decides to continue studying for a few more hours. Assuming all else is equal between the two, what would you predict about their performance on the chemistry exam? a. Janae will likely score higher because of getting a full night’s sleep. b. Brooke will likely score higher due to the extra study time. c. Janae and Brooke will likely score similarly as the sleep and study time cancel out. d. Brooke will likely score higher because of being less groggy (because of less sleep). 21. What is one of the main areas of interest for positive psychologists? a. situations that facilitate health and well-being b. symptoms of common disorders c. acquisition of wealth and social status d. factors involved in making first impressions 22. Why are critical thinking skills sometimes called transcontextual skills? a. If you have critical thinking skills, you can teach them to others. b. Context determines when these skills are necessary. c. The skills allow you to determine the role of context in a given problem. d. These skills are useful in a wide variety of situations.

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Chap 01_6ce 23. Which of the following researchers was among the first to draw attention to the parallels between computer

and human information processing? a. Noam Chomsky b. Herbert Simon c. Jean Piaget d. Donald Hebb 24. What area of psychology includes a specific focus on people who are elderly? a. developmental psychology b. psychometrics c. experimental psychology

d. cognitive psychology

25. Who is most closely associated with the concept that unconscious motivations influence our overt behaviour? a. Carl Rogers b. Wilhelm Wundt c. B.F. Skinner

d. Sigmund Freud

26. Several factors have contributed to the recent increased interest in research dealing with “cultural” variables in

psychology. Which of the following is NOT one of these contributing factors? a. depersonalization of human beings by modern psychology b. recognition by researchers that neglecting cultural variables has diminished the value of their work c. increased ethnic diversity in North America d. increased contact with non-Western cultures due to advances in communication and travel 27. Which career setting is most common for a psychologist? a. elementary schools b. colleges or universities c. hospitals or clinics

d. independent practice

28. Annabel wants to investigate differences in the way language is processed by the brain hemispheres. Whose

research should Annabel read? a. Roger Sperry b. Carl Rogers c. Alfred Adler d. John B. Watson 29. Dr. Webb is a clinical psychologist who treats patients with depression, often focusing on the effects of

negative thought processes and hopeless attitude that many patients hold about the world, the future, and themselves. Which of the following is Dr. Webb’s broader perspective or approach to psychology closest to? a. the behavioural perspective b. the psychoanalytic perspective c. the humanistic perspective d. the cognitive perspective 30. How did Freud’s theories about human behaviour differ from prevailing viewpoints in the early 1900s? a. He proposed the existence of free will. b. He saw people as not fully aware of the forces that control their behaviour. c. He emphasized environmental forces on behaviour. d. He saw abnormal behaviour as resulting from biological causes.

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Chap 01_6ce 31. Marissa wants to study people’s emotional reactions to increases in temperature. Her classmate, Bernard,

tells her that her study should focus on observable behaviours, rather than thoughts or feelings. Which psychological perspective is consistent with Bernard’s advice? a. evolutionary b. psychodynamic c. humanist d. behavioural Rhianna Rhianna has decided to major in psychology. She is very interested in human behaviour and would like to have a career where she could help people. Rhianna takes the approach that people are very much influenced by their experiences. In fact, she’s working with one of her professors on a research project in which they are looking at the effects of self-reward on study habits. Rhianna believes that she can take this knowledge and use it in other settings, like the workplace, in order to help people improve their productivity. 32. Which type of psychologist is Rhianna’s professor most likely to be? a. clinical b. structuralist c. biological d. educational 33. A speaker at a conference has just stated that genetics influence our behaviours, which in turn influence our

survival. As such, behaviours might be genetically transmitted from generation to generation, with more successful behaviours becoming more common within a group. The speaker is most likely a proponent of which of the following approaches to psychology? a. humanistic b. evolutionary c. behavioural neuroscience d. behavioural 34. Who would be most likely to state that people have a drive to grow and fulfil their potential? a. Sigmund Freud b. B. F. Skinner c. G. Stanley Hall

d. Abraham Maslow

35. Which area is considered an experimental area of psychology? a. clinical b. perception c. organizational

d. education

36. What is a relatively recent movement in psychology that has revived the old interest in mental and conscious

events? a. psychoanalysis c. physiological psychology

b. cognitive psychology d. behavioural psychology

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Chap 01_6ce 37. Suppose that there is evidence that ancestral females travelled long distances to acquire food, or that males

required good memory for locations to find their way home. Why would this evidence be important for the critical evaluation of hypotheses about evolved sex differences in spatial ability? a. This evidence runs counter to the hypothesized selective pressures that would have created existing sex differences. b. This evidence supports the notion that these sex differences are learned. c. This evidence is irrelevant because ancestral gender roles have no importance for understanding modern socialization processes. d. This evidence is important for predicting what people in primitive societies will be able to do if they are tested for spatial abilities. 38. Who demonstrated that electrical stimulation of the brain could evoke emotional responses such as pleasure

and rage in animals? a. Roger Sperry b. James Olds c. B.F. Skinner d. Abraham Maslow 39. Researchers in psychology have to “see it to believe it.” Which approach to knowledge is this orientation

most consistent with? a. empiricism b. humanism c. structuralism d. functionalism 40. What degree does a psychiatrist typically have? a. master’s in psychology b. medical degree c. Ph.D. in pharmacology

d. doctorate in physiology

41. The effects of institutions and events such as Canada’s Residential Schools system and the Sixties Scoop in

terms of the (intergenerational) trauma experienced by Indigenous Peoples are most closely associated with which of the following perspectives in psychology? a. psychoanalytical b. humanist c. behavioural d. cultural 42. Which of the following is NOT one of the stated objectives of the Canadian Psychological Association? a. to improve the health and welfare of all Canadians b. to promote excellence and innovation in psychological research c. to improve research into all aspects of mental illness, including causes, prevention, and treatment of

psychiatric disorders d. to promote the advancement, development, dissemination, and application of psychological knowledge

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Chap 01_6ce 43. What is NOT a reason for psychology’s theoretical diversity? a. Data can often be interpreted in several different ways. b. Psychology lacks adequate objective data to support theory. c. We need more than one theory to cover the variety of data available today. d. Different theories focus on different aspects of behaviour. 44. Of the nine specializations in modern psychology outlined in the textbook, which of the following

specializations has the greatest percentage of academic and research psychologists, according to a recent survey of the American Psychological Association? a. social psychology b. developmental psychology c. experimental psychology d. educational psychology 45. Which “newer” area of psychology is most similar to the “older” school of thought known as functionalism? a. applied psychology b. humanistic psychology c. clinical psychology

d. positive psychology

46. What did Watson state that psychologists should study? a. only the things that people, because those are observable behaviours b. only the things that people do as a result of experience, because reflexes are not valid behaviours c. things that people do, think, and feel d. only the things that people think and feel, because those are psychological processes 47. According to the results of a recent survey, which of the following is the most common work setting for

individuals in Canada who have a graduate degree in psychology? a. independent practice b. hospitals/health care c. school/education d. academia 48. Which of the following pioneers of psychology was also a major pioneer of the advertising industry,

developing techniques still used today, such as fear appeals, testimonials, the selling of prestige, and the promotion of style over substance? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. John Watson c. Edward Titchener d. William James 49. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of empiricism? a. observation b. documentation c. speculation

d. skepticism

50. Which school of psychology was most responsible for the rise of animal research in psychology? a. structuralism b. psychoanalysis c. behaviourism

d. Gestaltism

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Chap 01_6ce 51. Oliver is studying motivation in chimpanzees. His roommate believes that Oliver’s research is only useful for

understanding chimpanzees and cannot generalize to humans. Which perspective does Oliver’s roommate apparently take? a. cognitive b. biological c. humanistic d. evolutionary 52. Which of the following is best supported by the fact that your performance in this course will be affected by

both personal and situational factors? a. a multifactorial causation of behaviour approach b. a psychoanalytic approach to explaining behaviour c. an empirical explanation of behaviour d. a sociohistorical explanation of behaviour 53. What would be of greatest interest to a cognitive psychologist? a. information processing b. adolescent identity crisis c. behaviour in small groups

d. interpersonal attraction

54. According to Wilhelm Wundt, what was the focus of psychology? a. to understand functions of behaviour b. to understand unconscious motivation c. the scientific study of observable behaviour d. the scientific study of conscious experience 55. Which statement best reflects the current status of Freud’s psychoanalytic theory? a. Freud’s views exert a tremendous influence on other disciplines, but not on psychology. b. Freud’s views have been largely abandoned and they exert relatively little, if any, influence on current

mainstream psychology. c. Many psychoanalytic concepts have filtered into the mainstream of psychology. d. Freud’s views exert a tremendous influence on developmental and abnormal psychology, but not on other areas of mainstream psychology. 56. If Dr. Scott chooses to conduct experiments with animals to exert more experimental control over the study,

which type of researcher is Dr. Scott? a. psychoanalytic b. behaviourist c. structuralist d. Gestaltist 57. What were the first two major schools of psychology? a. functionalism and behaviourism b. behaviourism and psychoanalytic theory c. behaviourism and Gestalt psychology

d. structuralism and functionalism

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Chap 01_6ce 58. What was one of the first areas of clinical psychology to develop? a. personnel psychology b. counselling psychology c. psychological testing

d. sports psychology

59. What kind of psychologist would focus on how aggressive behaviour changes as a function of age? a. social psychologist b. behavioural psychologist c. developmental psychologist

d. physiological psychologist

60. In which of the following ways was Freud’s psychoanalytic theory a major departure from the prevailing

beliefs of the time? a. because of its use of introspection b. because of its emphasis on unconscious motivation c. because of its focus on the role of heredity d. because of its explanations in terms of stimulus-response associations 61. According to Donald Hebb, what is the key to understanding the organization of behaviour? a. measurement of observable behaviour b. introspection c. analysis of unconscious conflicts

d. activity at the neuronal level

62. According to humanists, why are animal studies of little relevance to understanding humans? a. Animals do not develop mental disorders. b. Animals do not have a self-concept. c. Animals have a much shorter period of development. d. Animals cannot communicate their thoughts to us. 63. Freud’s theory was based, in part, on prevailing values during his lifetime. Based on this idea, which context

influences psychology’s development? a. hypothetical b. empirical c. multifactorial d. sociohistorical 64. Desmond has just had an epiphany that computers and the human mind are both highly similar: they both can

process only so much at one time, they both can store information in memory, and they both are capable of performing complex calculations. This observation was actually first made in the 1950s by which of the following psychologists? a. Noam Chomsky b. Donald Hebb c. Herbert Simon d. Jean Piaget

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Chap 01_6ce 65. What does the concept of culture refer to? a. individuals’ collective unconscious b. demographic characteristics of a population c. widely shared customs, beliefs, and values among members of a group d. genetic predisposition to behave in a particular way 66. Which question should you ask if you wish to critically evaluate evolutionary hypotheses regarding gender

differences in spatial abilities? a. Are there alternative explanations for the results, such as differences in experience between males and females? b. Are there other differences between males and females that are more important, such as differences in intelligence? c. Are there other data that confirm this difference, such as performance among professional athletes? d. Are there ethical reasons that we should not conduct this research, such as the risk of stereotyping females? 67. What is a counterproductive strategy for note taking? a. Trying to record the lecturer’s comments verbatim. b. During the lecture, trying to anticipate what’s coming next and searching for deeper meanings. c. Asking questions during the lecture. d. When the material is especially complex, reading ahead on the topic to be covered in class. 68. Which school of psychology suggests psychologists should study only what can be objectively observed? a. humanism b. behaviourism c. structuralism

d. functionalism

69. According to research, what proportion of crucial ideas from a lecture are found in the average student’s

notes? a. no more than 25% c. approximately 50%

b. less than 40% d. nearly 80%

70. With which individual is B. F. Skinner most in agreement on the issue of internal mental events? a. Abraham Maslow b. Sigmund Freud c. John Watson

d. Wilhelm Wundt

71. Which of the following people established the first experimental laboratory in Canada in 1891? a. G. Stanley Hall b. James Mark Baldwin c. Brenda Milner

d. Wilder Penfield

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Chap 01_6ce 72. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with poor grades, according to research findings? a. being absent from class b. changing answers on a multiple-choice test c. rewarding yourself for studying d. overlearning the material 73. Imagine that the editor of your local newspaper writes a column supporting a reduction in government

intervention with more rights for individual citizens. The editor bases this argument on the assumption that people are rational beings who will fulfill their maximum potential as long as others do not infringe on their basic human needs. Which psychological perspective do this editor’s views reflect? a. evolutionary b. humanistic c. behavioural d. psychodynamic 74. Which school of psychology takes the most optimistic view of human nature? a. structuralism b. behaviourism c. humanism

d. functionalism

75. Which type of psychologist would most likely be interested in developing a test that would allow them to

predict how someone would respond across a variety of situations? a. cognitive psychologist b. developmental psychologist c. physiological psychologist d. personality psychologist Rhianna Rhianna has decided to major in psychology. She is very interested in human behaviour and would like to have a career where she could help people. Rhianna takes the approach that people are very much influenced by their experiences. In fact, she’s working with one of her professors on a research project in which they are looking at the effects of self-reward on study habits. Rhianna believes that she can take this knowledge and use it in other settings, like the workplace, in order to help people improve their productivity. 76. Which unifying theme is reflected by Rhianna’s use of research to investigate her ideas about human behaviour? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Psychology is empirical. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. 77. Which psychological approach examines behavioural processes in terms of their adaptive value for a species? a. physiological b. humanist c. clinical

d. evolutionary

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Chap 01_6ce 78. Which statement best describes clinical psychologists? a. Clinical psychologists have Ph.Ds. b. Clinical psychologists do research. c. Clinical psychologists are behaviourists.

d. Clinical psychologists are licensed.

79. What is most likely to be studied by a behaviourist? a. animal training methods b. emotional reactions to trauma c. reaction time in response to complex words d. how children develop humour 80. Which statement would NOT be made by a humanist? a. Research on animals has no relevance to understanding human behaviour. b. Humans have a basic need to fulfil their potential. c. The behaviour of humans tends to be dictated by environmental circumstances. d. Humans are unique. 81. Which area is most similar to clinical psychology? a. personality psychology b. social psychology c. psychometrics

d. counselling psychology

82. Which early psychologist would be most likely to endorse the tenets of evolutionary psychology? a. Edward Titchener b. John Watson c. William James

d. Wilhelm Wundt

83. Which of the early fields in psychology most emphasized the principle of empiricism? a. psychoanalysis b. behaviourism c. humanism

d. functionalism

84. Which statement would a strict behaviourist most likely agree with? a. The primary causes for human behaviour are unknown. b. Human behaviour is caused primarily by environmental factors. c. Human behaviour is caused primarily by inherited factors. d. Human behaviour is caused primarily by equal contributions of inherited and environmental factors.

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Chap 01_6ce 85. Sunlin prepared a meal for his new girlfriend, and she enjoyed it so much that she ate everything on her plate.

Later she was surprised that he had found her behaviour somewhat rude because he had been taught that clearing your plate meant that the host did not provide enough food; she had been taught that clearing your plate showed appreciation for the food. Which underlying theme does the couple’s miscommunication illustrate in this case? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. 86. Which type of psychologist would be most likely to have a copy of Hebb’s The Organization of Behavior

on her bookshelf? a. a psychoanalyst c. a humanistic psychologist

b. an industrial/organizational psychologist d. a neuroscientist

87. Dr. Escher believes that individuals may have a predisposition for some psychological disorders, but that the

disorders will not develop unless there is some stressful event that acts as a trigger. Which underlying theme do Dr. Escher’s views reflect? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. 88. Which of the following is the largest organization devoted to the advancement of psychology in Canada? a. The Structuralists b. Western Psychological Society c. World Psychology Organization

d. Canadian Psychological Association

89. Which of the following individuals would be most likely to use the technique of introspection in psychological

research? a. Sigmund Freud c. John Watson

b. Abraham Maslow d. Edward Titchener

90. What is a key change that has occurred in psychology over the past few decades? a. Fewer psychologists now work in colleges and universities. b. Psychologists have gone from being specialists to being generalists. c. The number of clinicians is decreasing. d. Psychology has become less applied in its focus.

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Chap 01_6ce 91. Liserel is a graduate student who believes that the best approach to the study of psychology is to focus

exclusively on the unconscious determinants of behaviour. Which perspective matches Liserel’s views toward the study of psychology? a. humanistic b. psychoanalytic c. structuralist d. cognitive 92. Which explanation is most likely to be used by an evolutionary psychologist to explain gender differences in

spatial abilities? a. When they are young, males are more likely than females to be encouraged to engage in spatially oriented activities. b. The principles of natural selection tend to operate differently in males and females. c. Through evolution, males were classically conditioned to develop certain kinds of spatial abilities. d. Division of labour between the sexes in hunting and gathering societies created different adaptations for males and females. 93. Which theme is most consistent with the fact that Princeton students “saw” Dartmouth students engage in

twice as many infractions as the Dartmouth students did in a Princeton-Dartmouth football game? a. reliance on empirical evidence b. unconscious motivation c. multifactorial causation of behaviour d. subjectivity of perception 94. Which statement is most likely to be made by a researcher who studies pain perception from a functionalist

perspective? a. We can understand pain perception only if we understand the unconscious processes that initiate the sensation of pain. b. We can study pain only by observing the outward expression of pain in response to different stimuli. c. We can study pain only if all the component parts that make up the experience of pain are understood. d. We can understand pain perception only if we understand the role of pain in human survival and adaptation. 95. Who took the position that organisms tend to repeat responses that lead to positive outcomes and tend not to

repeat responses that lead to neutral or negative outcomes? a. Abraham Maslow b. Carl Rogers c. B. F. Skinner d. Sigmund Freud 96. Caroline conducts research in which she systematically changes some aspect of the environment and then

measures changes in observable behaviour. Which psychological perspective is most consistent with Caroline’s method? a. cognitive b. humanist c. behaviourist d. psychoanalytic

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Chap 01_6ce 97. Mariska is participating in a study in which she is asked to carefully observe and report her conscious

reactions to several stimuli. Which type of psychologist is most likely to conduct a study like this? a. structuralist b. humanist c. behaviourist d. psychoanalytic 98. The civil rights movement and the women’s movement raised concerns about whether basic psychological

principles could be applied to groups other than white males. Consequently, psychologists began to select samples of subjects that were more diverse for research studies. Which underlying theme does this change in practice illustrate? a. Motives and expectations can colour our experiences. b. Science evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Theoretical diversity is an important component in science. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. 99. Which school of psychology focused on identifying and examining the fundamental components of conscious

experience, such as sensations, feelings, and images? a. humanism b. structuralism c. functionalism d. behaviourism Rhianna Rhianna has decided to major in psychology. She is very interested in human behaviour and would like to have a career where she could help people. Rhianna takes the approach that people are very much influenced by their experiences. In fact, she’s working with one of her professors on a research project in which they are looking at the effects of self-reward on study habits. Rhianna believes that she can take this knowledge and use it in other settings, like the workplace, in order to help people improve their productivity. 100. Which psychological approach is consistent with Rhianna’s perspective that people are influenced by their experiences? a. cognitive b. psychodynamic c. behaviourist d. sociocultural 101. Lynelle teases her brother and then he starts crying. If you describe the teasing as a stimulus, and the crying as

a response to that stimulus, what type of analysis are you conducting? a. structuralist b. behaviourist c. psychoanalytic d. functionalist

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Chap 01_6ce 102. What contributed most to the development of clinical psychology? a. the advent of high-speed computers b. an increase in the number of people earning advanced degrees in psychology c. high demand for the screening of military recruits and treatment of traumatized war veterans d. an increase in public awareness of the symptoms of psychological disorders, and the rise of

behaviourism 103. Micha tends to be very passive and allows people to take advantage of him. What would a humanist most

likely say about Micha? a. Micha simply needs to take an assertiveness training class in which he can learn and practise assertive behaviours. b. Micha should undergo analysis so that he can begin to resolve whatever unconscious conflict is at the root of his passivity. c. Micha will find it difficult to change because he probably has deep-seated feelings of inferiority. d. Micha can become more assertive once he begins to feel better about himself and recognizes that he has the ability to fulfil his potential. 104. A major similarity between the cultural and behavioural perspectives in psychology is that they both highlight

which of the following? a. the importance of consciousness and thought processes b. the importance of personal growth and free will c. the importance of the environment in influencing individuals d. the importance of studying only observable behaviours 105. Which term refers to a medical doctor who specializes in diagnosing and treating mental disorders? a. clinician b. psychiatrist c. clinical psychologist

d. psychometrist

106. Before studying, Erika looks at the textbook chapter for the major headings. After she reads each section in

the chapter, she takes a small break or a short walk. Which of the following does breaking down the chapter into pieces in this manner accomplish? a. It causes a distraction that will ultimately disrupt Erika’s learning. b. It causes interruptions in studying that should be avoided. c. It helps revive flagging concentration. d. It increases fatigue and leads to poorer retention of the material. 107. Dr. Andrus studies the factors that predict good sleep habits and the ability to relax. She believes that both

sleep and relaxation are key to living a balanced life, as well as being happy and productive. Which psychological approach does Dr. Andrus appear to take? a. positive b. psychoanalytic c. behaviourist d. cognitive Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 108. Psychological research is sometimes distorted or grossly simplified in media coverage, leading to

misinformation or misconceptions. Which of the following statements is NOT one of the popular myths or misconceptions related to psychology, according to your textbook? a. Most people use only 10 percent of their brain. b. Hypnosis is useful for retrieving memories of forgotten events. c. The polygraph (“lie detector”) test is an accurate means of detecting dishonesty. d. The titles “psychologist” and “psychiatrist” refer to different professions. 109. Which of the following reflects the main focus of the school of psychology known as functionalism? a. understanding the purpose of consciousness b. understanding the basic elements of consciousness c. deriving general principles of learning d. deriving general principles of the unconscious mind 110. Which school of psychology emphasizes the unique qualities of individual people and suggests that we have a

drive for personal growth? a. humanism b. psychoanalysis c. behaviourism d. functionalism 111. Which statement is good advice for getting more out of lectures? a. Look for hints or common clues from the instructor about what is important. b. Resist the temptation to anticipate what is coming next. c. Wait until after class for questions, rather than interrupting the lecture. d. When you take notes, try to be a “human tape recorder.” 112. What is most likely to be studied by a cognitive psychologist? a. factors that determine group cohesiveness b. whether a job incentive program is effective c. play behaviour in preschool children d. strategies used by students to solve puzzles 113. What was an early approach in psychology that fostered the development of modern-day applied psychology

and behaviourism? a. Gestalt psychology c. pragmatism

b. functionalism d. structuralism

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Chap 01_6ce 114. Phillip is a graduate student whose major area of interest is behavioural neuroscience. What would Phillip be

most interested in? a. the ways in which genetic factors influence and determine behaviour b. the internal factors that lead people to act consistently across a variety of situations c. how people relate to each other and influence each other d. the ways in which behaviour and mental processes change over a lifetime 115. Which type of applied psychology was most stimulated by World War II? a. industrial psychology b. clinical psychology c. educational psychology

d. neurological psychology

116. What would a psychologist who specializes in psychometrics most likely be concerned with? a. counselling b. animal experimentation c. relationship between brain chemistry and behaviour d. developing intelligence tests 117. During World War II, many academic psychologists were needed to serve other roles. Which role was most

likely for a psychologist at that time? a. clinician b. physician c. teacher d. military leader 118. Seligman believed that psychology was too focused on negative aspects of human behaviour, including

pathology, weakness, damage, and suffering. Which new perspective within psychology did this inspire him to initiate? a. Gestalt psychology b. positive psychology c. optimistic psychology d. humanistic psychology 119. Which organization was established in 1939 to advance psychology as a science in Canada, and continues to

play a vital role in the field? a. APA–Canada b. Canadian Psychological Association (CPA) c. Association of Canadian Experimental Psychologists (ACEP) d. Canadian Society of Psychologists (CSP) 120. Which of the following researchers is most closely associated with the study of cognitive development? a. Noam Chomsky b. Donald Hebb c. Herbert Simon

d. Jean Piaget

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Chap 01_6ce 121. Who was the first woman in the United States to receive a Ph.D. in psychology? a. Mary Calkins b. Anna Freud c. Margaret Floy Washburn

d. Leta Hollingworth

122. Dr. Smythe believes that to fully understand complex processes, such as taste, it is necessary to understand

the role that taste plays in survival, not the elementary components that combine to produce taste sensations. With which school of thought are Dr. Smythe’s views most consistent? a. structuralist approach b. behaviourist approach c. functionalist approach d. psychoanalytic approach 123. What is most likely a topic of study for a cultural psychologist? a. how travel affects openness to experience in children b. how cognitive errors lead to racism c. determining the genes associated with skin colour d. whether people in different cultures solve puzzles in the same way, or differently 124. Which psychologist proposed that the study of consciousness should be replaced by the study of behaviour? a. G. Stanley Hall b. John B. Watson c. Sigmund Freud

d. Abraham Maslow

125. Traditionally, women and their history have been underrepresented in psychology. In recent decades, this

trend has begun to shift. In a recent survey of the members of the Canadian Psychological Association, what percentage identified as women? a. 25 percent b. 33 percent c. 45 percent d. more than 50 percent 126. In the 19th century, Wilhelm Wundt attempted to shape the new discipline of psychology along the lines of

physics, because in his era, physics was admired as a “model” science. Which unifying theme from your text does Wundt’s attempt to imitate physics illustrate? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 127. Which type of psychologist would NOT generalize from studies of animal subjects to human behaviour? a. evolutionary psychologist b. humanist c. cognitive psychologist

d. behaviourist

128. Which term refers to the mental processes involved in acquiring knowledge? a. introspection b. application c. empiricism

d. cognition

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Chap 01_6ce 129. Which principle requires data and documentation? a. subjectivity b. multifactorial causation c. empiricism

d. theoretical diversity

130. In an interview with a parenting magazine, an expert suggests that parents with troublesome children need to

change the environmental patterns in which the children are being raised. Suggestions include consistently praising the types of behaviour that parents want to see in their children and avoiding accidentally rewarding children (by giving them attention) for less desirable actions. The expert’s views are most closely aligned with which of the following psychological approaches? a. positive psychology b. humanist c. psychoanalytic d. behaviourist 131. Which of the following people is credited as being the “founder of psychology”? a. Edward Titchener b. William James c. Sigmund Freud

d. Wilhelm Wundt

132. What is likely to be of most interest to a developmental psychologist? a. effects on children of being raised in a single-parent home b. dynamics of small-group decision making c. use of physical exercise as a means of combating depression d. effect of anxiety on problem-solving behaviour 133. What has been humanism’s most important contribution to psychology? a. the concept of free will b. the method of introspection c. innovative treatments for psychological problems d. a focus on the measurable and verifiable aspects of behaviour 134. Professor Vasquez believes that nearly all psychological disorders can ultimately be traced to abnormalities in

brain chemistry. With which perspective are Professor Vasquez’s beliefs most consistent? a. behavioural b. biological c. cognitive d. clinical 135. If you reward yourself for achieving study goals, which concept are you applying? a. empiricism b. positive psychology c. unconscious motivation

d. behaviour modification

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Chap 01_6ce 136. Diane has a cup of chocolate chips on her desk while she is studying, and she eats one each time she finishes

a page of notes. What does this tactic accomplish? a. It provides necessary glucose for Diane’s brain. b. It causes a distraction that will ultimately disrupt Diane’s learning. c. It leads Diane to rush through her studying. d. It provides an immediate reward to make up for the distant reward of a good grade. 137. What do humanists believe governs people’s behaviour? a. unconscious sexual urges b. outcomes of an individual’s responses c. biochemical processes

d. self-concepts

138. Which of the following statements about study habits is FALSE? a. Many students underestimate the distractions caused by music, texting, or social media. b. Sacrificing sleep to fit in additional study time may cause lower grades than simply sleeping. c. It is helpful to tackle other routine, simple tasks first so that you can concentrate on studying. d. Cramming is an ineffective study strategy for most students. 139. Which of the following is NOT included under the umbrella of applied psychology? a. cognitive psychology b. school psychology c. counselling psychology

d. industrial/organizational psychology

140. Which approach do researchers in psychology take to address the fact that our experiences of the world are

highly subjective? a. They also try to remain somewhat subjective. b. They try to simplify their research problems. c. They consistently apply the scientific method. d. They emphasize the study of internal mechanisms. Rhianna Rhianna has decided to major in psychology. She is very interested in human behaviour and would like to have a career where she could help people. Rhianna takes the approach that people are very much influenced by their experiences. In fact, she’s working with one of her professors on a research project in which they are looking at the effects of self-reward on study habits. Rhianna believes that she can take this knowledge and use it in other settings, like the workplace, in order to help people improve their productivity. 141. Which concept is consistent with the research project that Rhianna is working on? a. Skinner’s behaviour modification b. Titchener’s introspection c. Rogers’s humanism d. Pavlov’s stimulus-response learning

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Chap 01_6ce 142. What sort of psychologist will Rhianna be if she uses her ideas to help people improve their productivity in the

workplace? a. experimental c. industrial/organizational

b. clinical d. career

143. What would be expected of a clinical psychologist? a. study the effects of reward on learning b. conduct psychotherapy c. study the factors that motivate behaviour d. examine the relationship between sleep deprivation and task performance 144. Mark is constantly lifting weights and exercising. He believes that thousands of years ago, women who

preferred a muscular mate might have had more children survive because of their father’s protection. Even with less danger today, he assumes that the preference for a muscular mate has been passed down for generations to today’s women. Mark’s reasoning was most likely influenced by which of the following individuals? a. David Buss b. Martin Seligman c. Noam Chomsky d. Donald Hebb 145. Which statement is consistent with the idea that psychology is empirical? a. Conclusions should be guided by theories. b. Conclusions should be based on direct observation. c. Research should focus on underlying internal events. d. Reason and logic are primary to psychology. 146. Which of the following areas of study would NOT be an area of interest for positive psychology? a. the personal, subjective experiences of happiness, gratitude, and love b. the origins of traits such as courage, perseverance, and integrity c. societal supports for civil discourse, healthy work environments, and supportive neighborhood

communities d. techniques for treating patients using positive or progressive methods 147. What do behaviourism and psychoanalytic theory have in common? a. an emphasis on the role of sexuality in behaviour b. the implication that people are not necessarily in complete control of behaviour c. the notion that unconscious motives have a major influence on behaviour d. a resistance to the use of animal subjects in psychological research 148. What is NOT an area of specialization in applied psychology? a. industrial and organizational psychology b. counselling psychology c. educational psychology Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 149. Who is most closely associated with the notion that the subject matter of psychology should be the scientific

study of conscious experience? a. William James b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Sigmund Freud d. John B. Watson 150. The psychoanalytic perspective believes that psychological disturbances are caused by _________, whereas

the humanistic perspective believes that they are caused by ________. a. unconscious conflict; obstacles that interfere with personal growth b. unrealistic demands from others; maladaptive reinforcement contingencies c. unconscious conflict; unrealistic demands from others d. maladaptive reinforcement contingencies; unrealistic demands from others 151. Who stated that people do not have free will, because behaviour is fully controlled by external stimuli? a. B.F. Skinner b. Sigmund Freud c. Wilhelm Wundt

d. Carl Rogers

152. Which of the following types of psychologist was most likely to use the technique of introspection? a. structuralist b. behaviourist c. cognitive

d. humanist

153. Dr. Evoy does research that has examined the behaviour of individuals when they are in groups, as well as

when they are alone. She has found that people tend to conform to the opinion of a dominant person within a group, and that this opinion tends to be much different than the opinion that would form if the individual were alone. Based on this information, which sort of psychologist do you think Dr. Evoy is? a. social psychologist b. developmental psychologist c. cognitive psychologist d. psychometrist 154. What would NOT likely be studied by a cognitive psychologist? a. how we remember things b. how children develop language c. how we perceive colour

d. how people reason to solve problems

155. Which of the following best defines a theory? a. explanation of unobservable phenomena b. related speculations that are based on common sense c. system of interrelated ideas used to explain some observation d. string of unrelated observations

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Chap 01_6ce 156. In using the scientific approach, what do psychologists NOT attempt to do? a. overcome human subjectivity b. make their observations as objective as possible c. seek knowledge via the most reliable route possible d. overcome human empathy 157. In criticizing the structuralists’ reliance on the method of introspection, William James argued that two people

could view the same stimulus quite differently. Which unifying theme from your text does James’s argument illustrate? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Psychology is empirical. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. 158. Dr. Ramos believes that it is not possible to fully understand emotions unless we understand the role that

emotions play in survival and adaptation. With which theorist are Dr. Ramos’s views most consistent with? a. Ivan Pavlov b. Carl Rogers c. Edward Titchener d. William James 159. Rafael and Lydia met for a blind date. Rafael had been told by his best friend that Lydia was charismatic and

vivacious. During their date, Lydia was friendly, but she was quite shy and didn’t initiate much of the conversation. Still, Rafael thinks that Lydia is one of the most exciting people he has met, and he can’t wait to see her again. Which theme does Rafael’s reaction to his date with Lydia illustrate? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Cultural heritage has a large impact on behaviour. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Unconscious motivation has little impact on overt behaviour. 160. Which group would be most likely to suggest that people can have complete control over their own destinies? a. psychoanalysts b. humanists c. behaviourists

d. Gestaltists

161. What would be expected of an industrial/organizational psychologist? a. providing group or individual psychotherapy b. providing assistance to people struggling with everyday problems c. testing and counselling children who are having difficulty in school d. working to improve employee morale and attitudes

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Chap 01_6ce 162. If Dr. Laker is an evolutionary psychologist who studies nutrition and hunger, what is a likely topic of study

for Dr. Laker? a. hunger in response to specific times of day when meals normally occur b. cravings associated with foods that are necessary for survival c. the relationship between eating and depression d. body image associated with exposure to TV and magazine advertisements 163. Which of the following pioneers of psychology is most associated with the school of psychology known as

functionalism? a. Margo Wilson c. Mary Whiton Calkins

b. Elizabeth Loftus d. Doreen Kimura

164. In which of the following visual-spatial task do females tend to perform somewhat better than males, on

average? a. map reading c. maze learning

b. memory for locations d. mental rotation of images

165. Chiwe is a graduate student whose major area of interest is social psychology. In which of the following

would you expect that Chiwe is most interested? a. how people relate to each other and influence each other b. the internal factors that lead people to act consistently across a variety of situations c. the ways in which physical or genetic factors influence and determine behaviour d. the ways in which behaviour and mental processes change over a lifetime 166. World War I and World War II stimulated the growth of psychology as a profession. Which unifying theme

from your text does this influence illustrate? a. Psychology is empirical. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 167. The scientific approach to psychology is important because it helps to overcome the fact that different people

can see the same thing very differently. This example best illustrates that the scientific approach helps to overcome which of the following unifying themes from the textbook? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.

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Chap 01_6ce 168. Which of the following approaches to psychology, introduced in the late 1990s by Martin Seligman, has

quickly matured into a vibrant area of innovative scientific research? a. cultural psychology b. behavioural neuroscience c. positive psychology d. evolutionary psychology 169. In addition to clinical psychologists, which other professionals also assess and treat psychological disorders? a. nurses b. occupational therapists c. teachers

d. psychiatrists

170. Dr. Asgaard believes that to fully understand complex processes, such as auditory processing, it is first

necessary to understand all the separate component parts. Which psychologist would be most likely to share Dr. Asgaard’s views? a. Ivan Pavlov b. Carl Rogers c. William James d. Edward Titchener 171. Damion wants to investigate whether specific dating patterns among young adults are the result of evolved

predispositions. With whom would Damion most likely choose to work with if he could work with a psychologist who has made a significant contribution in this area of research? a. David Buss b. B.F. Skinner c. Herbert Simon d. Carl Jung 172. Lily believes that if all violent media programming were banned, aggressive behaviour would almost

completely disappear. Which statement suggests that many psychologists would disagree with Lily? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Perception is often subjective. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. 173. Edward Titchener, who established one of the first psychological research laboratories in the United States, is

associated with which of the following schools of psychology? a. functionalism b. behaviourism c. humanism d. structuralism 174. What is suggested by the word “critical” in the term “critical thinking”? a. Effective critical thinkers tend to be judgmental of others’ views. b. Thinking is essential to success in our culture. c. Critical thinkers are vigilant about their thinking. d. The skills of effective thinking are learned early in life. 175. Which theoretical orientation insisted that observations be verifiable? a. behaviourism b. functionalism c. psychoanalysis

d. structuralism

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Chap 01_6ce 176. Which of the following statements best reflects the past and current status of behaviourism? a. Behaviourism exerted and continues to exert a tremendous influence on other disciplines, but not on

psychology. b. Behaviourism was highly influential in psychology’s history, but has been largely abandoned; it exerts little, if any, influence on current mainstream psychology. c. Behaviourism profoundly affected the course of psychology, and although its influence has diminished, it continues to impact the field today. d. Behaviourism was never highly influential in any discipline, being a fringe perspective within psychology. 177. Isabel is listening to a piece of classical music and recording all her feelings and impressions as she

experiences them. Which school of psychology was most well-known for using this sort of technique? a. humanism b. structuralism c. functionalism d. behaviourism 178. Programmers who were working on a chess-playing supercomputer asked a psychologist from their

university for some help in working out the problem-solving algorithms they would be using. Which type of psychologist would be most likely to help with this project? a. structural b. educational c. behavioural

d. cognitive

179. Which of the following qualifies as empirically based knowledge? a. logically consistent knowledge b. intuitive knowledge c. knowledge acquired through observation

d. knowledge acquired through insight

180. You are interviewing a new member of the psychology department for the university newspaper. The faculty

member states: “Many times people are unaware of the unconscious motivations that drive their overt actions.” Which theorist is this faculty member’s view most similar to? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. Carl Rogers c. Ivan Pavlov d. Sigmund Freud 181. Which type of psychology is consistent with the systematic use of rewards in developing effective study

habits? a. functionalism c. structuralism

b. humanism d. behaviourism

182. Which statement best characterizes people’s understanding of reality? a. It is culturally determined. b. It is highly objective. c. It is highly subjective.

d. It is genetically determined.

183. Who is most closely associated with the cognitive perspective on language? a. Noam Chomsky b. B. F. Skinner c. Abraham Maslow

d. David Buss

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Chap 01_6ce 184. Which of the following early scientists most heavily influenced the later school of behaviourism? a. Ivan Pavlov b. Charles Darwin c. John Locke

d. Sir Francis Galton

185. In 1954, which of the following movements did Abraham Maslow’s book Motivation and Personality help

fuel? a. functionalism c. individual psychology

b. humanistic psychology d. self-help

186. Which field in psychology is closest to the school of psychology known as structuralism? a. sensation and perception b. evolutionary psychology c. clinical psychology

d. social psychology

187. Which of the following is Leta Hollingworth best known for? a. her research on intelligence and the psychology of women b. founding one of the early psychology laboratories in the United States c. being the first woman to receive a Ph.D. in psychology d. being the first female president of the American Psychological Association 188. What did John B. Watson argue that psychologists should do? a. confine their work to people who are diagnosed as mentally ill b. use the method of introspection to establish the structural aspects of consciousness c. abandon the study of consciousness d. concern themselves with the intentionality of behaviour 189. Dr. Tsang is a psychologist who conducts research on the effects of reward on maze learning in rats. Which

type of psychologist is Dr. Tsang? a. behaviourist b. structuralist c. Gestaltist d. psychoanalytic 190. What is the most important aspect of natural selection? a. aggressive interactions with members of other species b. passing on genes to the next generation c. locating a source of food d. establishing a territory

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Chap 01_6ce 191. Ramon is a graduate student whose major area of interest is cognitive psychology. What would Ramon be

most interested in? a. short-term and long-term memory disruptions b. the internal factors that lead people to act consistently across a variety of situations c. brain regions associated with language d. how people relate to each other and influence each other 192. Which of the following was NOT listed in the textbook as being influential in starting the shift in psychological

research away from focusing purely on observable behaviour back to studying the mind and consciousness? a. Jean Piaget’s studies on children’s thinking and development b. Noam Chomsky’s research on the psychological underpinnings of language c. the development of the computer d. Wilder Penfield’s work on mapping speech, memory, and sensory areas 193. What would an experimental psychologist be most likely to ask? a. What effect does reward have on learning? b. How do hormones affect behaviour? c. What are the stages of problem solving? d. Why do we like some people and not others? 194. Which theoretical viewpoint is most closely associated with Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow? a. cognitive approach b. humanism c. structuralism

d. biological approach

195. The term “psychology” comes from the Greek words psyche and logos. What does logos mean? a. the study of a subject b. the soul c. logic

d. discipline

196. Which area of research in psychology is concerned with assessing individual differences, developing tests,

and developing new statistical techniques? a. psychometrics b. social psychology c. cognitive psychology d. educational psychology 197. What was the dominant school of thought in psychology during the 1950s and 1960s? a. behaviourism b. structuralism c. Gestaltism

d. functionalism

198. Ariadne believes that individuals learn to be either aggressive or non-aggressive as a result of the experiences

they have. With which type of psychology are Ariadne’s views most consistent? a. functionalist b. structuralist c. psychoanalytic d. behaviourist Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 199. According to your text, what is psychology? a. a school of thought and an occupation b. a science and a profession c. a theory and an academic discipline

d. a cognitive process and a philosophy

200. Which of the following statements best reflects the current status of positive psychology? a. It was an interesting idea, but more of a fad with little current impact in psychology. b. It gained momentum for several years in the early 2000s but its impact has begun to fade in the past

decade. c. It is still in its infancy as an approach but is showing tremendous promise for the future. d. It has matured over the past two to three decades into a vibrant area of innovative research. 201. When did the cognitive perspective surpass the behavioural perspective in influence, according to results from

a recent study? a. 1925 b. 1955 c. 1975 d. 1995 202. Which of the following psychological researchers’ experiences living with the Blackfoot First Nations in

Alberta shaped his views on human nature? a. Abraham Maslow b. Sigmund Freud c. James Olds d. David Buss 203. Which of the following universities was the first in Canada to offer a psychology course in 1838? a. McGill b. Dalhousie c. Concordia

d. Simon Fraser

204. Which type of psychologist would be the greatest help to you if you were having problems with depression? a. social psychologist b. motivational psychologist c. developmental psychologist

d. clinical psychologist

205. Which skill is generally involved in the spatial tasks that males tend to do better than females? a. processing verbal directions to a specific location b. identifying objects in a visual field c. remembering locations d. mentally rotating objects 206. What are researchers attempting to describe when they talk about the distinction between nature and nurture? a. personality and preference b. heredity and experience c. behaviour and attitude

d. experience and environment

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Chap 01_6ce 207. Zoe believes that Samantha has trouble forming long-term relationships because her parents were overly strict

and because Samantha inherited a very stubborn personality. Which view is this type of explanation for Samantha’s current behaviour most consistent with? a. Heredity and the environment jointly influence behaviour. b. Perception is often subjective. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. 208. Which of the following is the scientific method designed to do? a. counteract subjectivity b. utilize subjectivity c. enhance subjectivity

d. ignore subjectivity

209. What is the basic goal for the approach of positive psychology? a. to have a positive impact on scientific fields outside psychology b. to create a more positive experience for psychologists’ patients c. to treat all patients with positive or progressive methods d. to study the positive aspects of human behaviour and experience 210. Which of the following people was one of the founders of neuropsychology in Canada and was well known

for her pioneering work with the patient known as H.M.? a. Mary Ainsworth b. Brenda Milner c. Mary Wright d. Doreen Kimura 211. Which of the following branches of psychology is concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of

psychological disorders? a. counselling psychology c. clinical psychology

b. developmental psychology d. humanistic psychology

212. What was demonstrated by Hastorf and Cantril’s classic study (1954) on rule infraction in football games? a. the impact of gender-typed activities on self-esteem b. the onset of antisocial personality disorder c. the impact of concussion on the mental health of athletes d. the subjectivity of perception 213. Researchers are planning a study in which they will present an image that induces fear and then ask

participants to solve problems. They consult with a colleague about which stimulus they should use to induce fear. If the colleague is an evolutionary psychologist, which of the following would they be most likely to recommend as the fear stimulus? a. a scene of a car accident b. a gun c. a syringe d. a spider

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Chap 01_6ce 214. Psychology is based on systematic observation rather than pure reasoning or common sense. What is another

way of saying this? a. Psychology is rational. c. Psychology is behavioural.

b. Psychology is empirical. d. Psychology is speculative.

215. According to historians, when and where did the “birth” of psychology occur? a. 1859 in England b. 1879 in Germany c. 1883 in the United States

d. 1909 in Austria

216. What is the difference between the common-sense approach to human behaviour and the psychological

approach? a. empiricism c. the focus on neurological explanations

b. the use of logic d. the rigour of peer review

217. Darnell is working on a computer system that will have full language-recognition capabilities. Which type of

psychologist could probably give Darnell the most help in developing this computer system? a. clinical b. cognitive c. humanistic d. behavioural 218. Janet trained her dog to sit on command by rewarding the dog’s behaviour of sitting with a dog biscuit and

praise. Which psychological perspective’s methods did Janet use? a. psychoanalysis b. humanism c. functionalism d. behaviourism 219. Which area of research in psychology is concerned with understanding the role of the endocrine system in the

regulation of behaviour? a. cognitive psychology c. developmental psychology

b. behavioural neuroscience d. psychometrics

220. Which of the following perspectives in psychology would be most closely associated with person-centred

therapy? a. psychoanalytic c. humanist

b. behaviourist d. cognitive

221. In the 1920s, there were many fundamental disputes between competing schools of thought in psychology.

Which unifying theme from your text do these disputes illustrate? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Psychology is empirical. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse.

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Chap 01_6ce 222. ______________ is considered the founder of functionalism, while ___________ is considered the founder

of behaviourism. a. William James; B. F. Skinner c. Wilhelm Wundt; John Watson

b. Wilhelm Wundt; B. F. Skinner d. William James; John Watson

223. What is the term used by William James to describe a continuous flow of thoughts? a. phenomenological flow b. stream of consciousness c. transcendental meditation

d. existential awareness

224. Which statement is the best advice for developing sound study habits? a. Make yourself comfortable in your study area by having your favourite music playing. b. Try to avoid interrupting your study time with breaks. c. Tackle simple, routine tasks before taking on larger tasks. d. Plan your study schedule in advance. 225. You are interviewing a new member of the psychology department for the university newspaper. The faculty

member states, “Sure, people have emotions and thoughts and dreams, but you don’t have to study those things in order to predict behaviour.” Which theorist’s views are most similar to the views held by this faculty member? a. Sigmund Freud b. B. F. Skinner c. William James d. Carl Rogers 226. Professor Immel conducts research that examines whether people with particular personality traits have

greater success with dating and reproduction. What type of psychological research is Professor Immel conducting? a. humanistic b. evolutionary c. cognitive d. behavioural 227. Much like Freud, Skinner’s views on human behaviour were controversial and often criticized. Which

controversies were predominant for each of Freud and Skinner? a. Freud’s focus on sexual motivation and Skinner’s suggestion that free will was an illusion b. Freud’s focus on sexual motivation and Skinner’s belief that maladaptive behaviour was biological in origin c. Freud’s insensitive treatment of patients and Skinner’s violation of existing animal ethics rules d. Freud’s focus on conscious processes and Skinner’s focus on unconscious processes

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Chap 01_6ce 228. Dr. Kline takes an eclectic approach to treating psychological disorders. She often prescribes medications

that influence neurotransmitter levels, but she also works with her clients to change their behaviour and help them understand the impact of social factors in their problems. Which underlying theme does Dr. Kline’s approach to therapy illustrate? a. Differing theoretical perspectives can provide a more complete understanding of behaviour. b. Motives and expectations can colour our experiences. c. Unconscious motivation has little impact on overt behaviour. d. Our cultural backgrounds exert a considerable influence over our behaviour. 229. To learn something about his conscious experience, William looked at an abstract painting and wrote down all

of his impressions as they came to him. What is the biggest limitation to this method? a. It relies on sensation and perception. b. It is overly objective and empirical. c. The experiences cannot be verified. d. There is no test-retest reliability. 230. Which suggestion is most likely to help you get more out of lectures? a. reading the text material after hearing the lecture b. avoiding the temptation to anticipate what the lecturer will say next c. trying to write down everything the lecturer says d. asking questions as soon as you think of them 231. A study determines that rats can be trained to press a lever if lever pressing is followed by the presentation of

food. Of the following theorists, who would be most likely to have devised this study? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. Abraham Maslow c. B. F. Skinner d. William James 232. Marie is a graduate student whose major area of interest is personality psychology. What would Marie be

most interested in? a. the internal factors that lead people to act consistently across a variety of situations b. how people relate to each other and influence each other c. the ways in which behaviour and mental processes change over a lifetime d. the ways in which physical or genetic factors influence and determine behaviour 233. Approximately what percentage of Canada’s population was born in another country? a. 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 15 percent

d. 20 percent

234. Which statement best reflects Skinner’s view of behaviourism? a. It focused on the importance of free will. b. It focused on the study of behaviour and its consequences. c. It encouraged speculative statements about consciousness. d. It included hypotheses about motives and goals. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 235. In trying to understand the psychology of addiction, Dr. Jackson focuses on the neurochemical changes that

occur, Dr. Fong focuses on the consequences that people experience for their behaviour, and Dr. Wenkle focuses on the cognitive processes that people use in choosing their actions. Which underlying theme does the different perspectives of these three professionals help to illustrate? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 236. According to John Watson, what primarily governs behaviour? a. personal motives b. heredity c. environment

d. unconscious desires

237. John Watson’s rejection of introspection and insistence upon laboratory methods is consistent with which of

your text’s unifying themes? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 238. Which question would a social psychologist be most likely to ask? a. How stable is personality over the life span? b. Why do we like some people and not others? c. What effect does anxiety have on test performance? d. Do people who are depressed think differently than other people do? 239. According to Sigmund Freud, what determines an individual’s personality? a. strivings for superiority b. forces in the unconscious c. self-actualizing tendencies

d. forces in the environment

240. Which term refers to a system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations? a. empirical set b. theory c. hypothesis

d. sociohistorical context

241. Which type of psychology is the most prominent and widely practiced professional specialty in the field of

applied psychology? a. school b. developmental c. cognitive d. clinical

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Chap 01_6ce 242. Research in neuroscience owes a great deal of its inspiration to Donald Hebb, who wrote the book The

Organization of Behavior: A Neuropsychological Theory. What did Hebb theorize about? a. the importance of behaviourist models of learning for understanding how neurons work b. the concept of cell assemblies, and the importance of neuronal processes for behaviour c. the importance of unconscious experiences, and the role of cell assemblies for the execution of behaviour d. the role of social interaction for the organization of the cortex during childhood 243. What did Wilhelm Wundt believe the focus of psychology should be? a. studying stimulus-response associations b. questioning the nature of existence c. examining people’s awareness of their immediate experience d. determining people’s unconscious motivation for behaviour 244. Makayla has come to therapy because she is experiencing symptoms of depression. She is also upset

because her dream of going to art school is in danger because of her financial situation. Her therapist explains to Makayla that all people have an innate desire to grow and reach their full potential, but that when events conspire to block us from reaching that potential, our mental health suffers. So art school and her symptoms are related. Her therapist is a clinical psychologist whose broader perspective or approach to psychology is closest to which of the following? a. the behavioural perspective b. the psychoanalytic perspective c. the humanistic perspective d. the cognitive perspective 245. In 1939, Canada’s largest organization for psychology was founded. What is it called? a. Association for Applied Psychologists in Canada b. American Psychological Association c. Association of Psychologists of Canada d. Canadian Psychological Association 246. Which conclusion is supported by research comparing “successful” to “unsuccessful” students? a. Successful students and unsuccessful students attended class equally often. b. Successful students attended class more often than unsuccessful students. c. Successful students used an instructor’s office hours more than unsuccessful students. d. Successful students made better use of the textbook than did unsuccessful students. 247. Which term refers to widely shared customs, beliefs, values, and norms? a. ethnicity b. sociohistoric context c. culture

d. psychometrics

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Chap 01_6ce 248. One psychologist explains a phobia in terms of learning principles, whereas another looks to the unconscious

for an explanation. What is most likely happening in this scenario? a. The two psychologists are using different theoretical perspectives. b. The two psychologists are probably using different sociohistorical contexts. c. Insufficient data have been collected to support either explanation. d. One of the two psychologists is mistaken. 249. Which of the following theoretical perspectives are most likely to be associated with studies using animals? a. behavioural and biological b. psychoanalytic and cognitive c. clinical and psychoanalytic

d. biological and clinical

250. Briefly describe (in a few words) the research focus for five of the major research areas within modern

psychology.

251. Briefly contrast the approaches of humanism and behaviourism to psychology and their beliefs with respect to

free will and the study of animals.

252. Briefly contrast the ideas of structuralism and functionalism, and identify the major figures for each of these

approaches.

253. Which influential psychologist launched the positive psychology movement? What is positive psychology?

According to its proponents, how does it differ from historical approaches to psychology? What are some examples of subject areas of interest to positive psychology?

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Chap 01_6ce 254. Briefly compare and contrast the similarities and differences between the psychoanalytic and behavioural

approaches to psychology, and identify the major figures for each of these approaches.

255. Briefly contrast clinical psychology, counselling psychology, and psychiatry.

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Chap 01_6ce Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. c 10. d 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. a

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Chap 01_6ce 27. d 28. a 29. d 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. d 42. c 43. b 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. c 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 55. c 56. b 57. d 58. c 59. c 60. b 61. d 62. b 63. d 64. c 65. c 66. a 67. a 68. b 69. b 70. c 71. b 72. a 73. b 74. c 75. d 76. b 77. d 78. d 79. a 80. c 81. d 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 83. b 84. b 85. d 86. d 87. d 88. d 89. d 90. a 91. b 92. d 93. d 94. d 95. c 96. c 97. a 98. b 99. b 100. c 101. b 102. c 103. d 104. c 105. b 106. c 107. a 108. d 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 111. a 112. d 113. b 114. a 115. b 116. d 117. a 118. b 119. b 120. d 121. c 122. c 123. d 124. b 125. d 126. b 127. b 128. d 129. c 130. d 131. d 132. a 133. c 134. b 135. d 136. d 137. d

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Chap 01_6ce 138. c 139. a 140. c 141. a 142. c 143. b 144. a 145. b 146. d 147. b 148. d 149. b 150. a 151. a 152. a 153. a 154. c 155. c 156. d 157. a 158. d 159. c 160. b 161. d 162. b 163. c 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 166. d 167. c 168. c 169. d 170. d 171. a 172. a 173. d 174. c 175. a 176. c 177. b 178. d 179. c 180. d 181. d 182. c 183. a 184. a 185. b 186. a 187. a 188. c 189. a 190. b 191. a 192. d 193. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 194. b 195. a 196. a 197. a 198. d 199. b 200. d 201. c 202. a 203. b 204. d 205. d 206. b 207. a 208. a 209. d 210. b 211. c 212. d 213. d 214. b 215. b 216. a 217. b 218. d 219. b 220. c 221. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 222. d 223. b 224. d 225. b 226. b 227. a 228. a 229. c 230. d 231. c 232. a 233. d 234. b 235. d 236. c 237. a 238. b 239. b 240. b 241. d 242. b 243. c 244. c 245. d 246. b 247. c 248. a

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Chap 01_6ce 249. a 250. Answers will vary.

Developmental psychology: human development across the lifespan Social psychology: interpersonal behaviour and social influences on behaviour Educational psychology: best practices in both teaching and learning Health psychology: promotion and maintenance of physical health Behavioural neuroscience: role of the nervous system, genetics, endocrine system, neurotransmitters, and the brain Experimental psychology: sensation and perception, basic principles of learning, conditioning, motivation Cognitive psychology: higher mental processes such as memory, reasoning, language, problem-solving Psychometrics: measurement and testing of behaviours/capacities (e.g., IQ) Personality psychology: describe and understand personality, factors shaping personality, and personality assessment 251. Behaviourism was based on the idea that observable behaviour was the only acceptable subject of psychology, as

behaviourists believed that this was the only way for psychology to truly be scientific. Behaviourism also emphasized the role of the environment in determining behaviour (e.g., through reinforcement and punishment) and used animals in many studies to demonstrate fundamental principles of behaviour believed to apply to both humans and animals. Indeed, B. F. Skinner argued that because our behaviour is determined by the environment, free will is an illusion. Humanism, on the other hand, rejected this approach as dehumanizing. Humanists argued that humans are unique, especially in terms of their freedom and free will, as well as their potential for personal growth. Because of this, humanists believed that animal research could not tell a researcher much about the human experience. 252. Structuralism emerged under Edward Titchener, who had trained under Wilhelm Wundt. As an approach, it was

concerned with identifying the basic elements of the mind or consciousness and investigating how these elements related to one another. A major method used in functionalism was introspection, which was the observation of one’s own conscious experience. Functionalism, on the other hand, sought to investigate the function or purpose of consciousness. William James was a major figure of functionalism. 253. Martin Seligman launched the positive psychology movement. Seligman believed that psychology as a field had

devoted much of its time and resources to pathology, weakness, damage, and mental illness without also focusing on the so-called positive aspects of the human experience. Positive psychology therefore also attempts to study positive aspects of humanity such as positive subjective experiences (e.g., positive emotions such as hope or love), positive individual traits (e.g., courage, perseverance), and positive institutions (e.g., strong families, healthy work environments, or civil societies). There has also been something of an emphasis on developing interventions and exercises that promote wellbeing.

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Chap 01_6ce 254. The psychoanalytic approach was founded by Sigmund Freud while behaviourism was founded by John Watson. In

addition, B. F. Skinner was a major proponent of behaviourism. Freud’s psychoanalytic approach attempted to explain personality, motivation, and behaviour as the result of unconscious conflicts. Behaviourism rejected the idea of the unconscious, saying that it was unscientific since it could not be observed. Instead, behaviourism emphasized observable behaviour as the subject matter of psychology. Specifically, behaviourism was interested in the effects of the environment (e.g., in setting up rewards and punishments for specific behaviours). One similarity of these approaches is that both were criticized by humanism for being too deterministic. That is, both the psychoanalytic and the behavioural approaches state that human behaviour is caused by something other than free will (i.e., unconscious conflict and the environment, respectively). 255. Both clinical psychology and counselling are specialties of applied psychology. Clinical psychology is primarily

concerned with the evaluation, diagnosis, and treatment of individuals with psychological disorders. Counselling psychology, on the other hand, primarily deals with everyday problems of moderate severity such as in family, marital, or career counselling. Both of these are aspects of psychology, and practitioners will often have a graduate degree in psychology (typically a Ph.D.) to enjoy full status in their profession. Psychiatry is similar to clinical psychology in that both involve analyzing and treating psychological disorders. However, psychiatry is a specialization within medicine, and so psychiatrists will have an M.D. As a result of their different educational backgrounds, psychiatrists and psychologists also tend to differ in their approach to the treatment of psychological disorders.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which school of psychology made a clear distinction between observable behaviours and unobservable thoughts and feelings? a. functionalism b. behaviourism c. psychoanalysis d. structuralism 2. What is NOT a major area of specialization of professional psychology? a. industrial and organizational psychology b. counselling psychology c. school psychology d. personality psychology 3. Which of the following represents a major focus of psychology in both the 19th century and now? a. the role of unconscious conflicts b. a focus on biological bases for behaviour c. identifying the smallest units of conscious experience d. striving for self-actualization 4. Which area of psychology is concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of psychological problems and disorders? a. applied psychology b. clinical psychology c. medical psychology d. research psychology 5. Approximately what percentage of North American psychologists work in colleges and universities? a. 17 percent b. 27 percent c. 57 percent d. 77 percent 6. Two scientists from another planet, Poz and Zog, visit earth and are attempting to study our computers. Poz focuses on how the computer is used for work and for play, while Zog concentrates on the construction of each component of the computer. If you were to compare their approaches to the original schools of psychology, which of the following analogies is most accurate? a. Poz’s approach is similar to functionalism. b. Zog’s approach is similar to behaviourism. c. Zog’s approach is similar to psychoanalysis. d. Poz’s approach is similar to structuralism. 7. Taken as a whole, your text’s review of the early schools of psychology best reflects which one unifying theme in psychology? a. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. 8. Which type of psychologist would be least interested in Alex’s research? a. a cognitive psychologist b. a humanist c. a functionalist d. a behaviourist Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 9. Dr. Tanaka hypothesizes that men and women have subtle differences in cognition because historically men and women have had different roles and challenges. This led to different traits and abilities being adaptive for men and women. What type of psychologist is Dr. Tanaka? a. a behaviourist b. a cognitive psychologist c. a humanist d. an evolutionary psychologist 10. Which of the following aspects of human psychology is easiest to document empirically? a. cognition b. the unconscious mind c. behaviour d. emotion 11. Which school of psychology had a practical focus and was interested in how people adapted their behaviour to the demands of the world? a. functionalism b. behaviourism c. psychoanalysis d. structuralism 12. Your textbook describes seven unifying themes that provide continuity throughout psychology. What are the two primary divisions of those themes? a. psychology as a way of studying behaviour; the things that influence behaviour b. psychology as a science; psychology uses theories c. psychology as a science; psychology as a profession d. psychology studies behaviour; people are subjective 13. Which statement best describes the enduring influence of structuralism and functionalism on psychology today? a. Neither structuralism nor functionalism exerted a long-lasting influence on psychology. b. Both structuralism and functionalism exerted equivalent influences on psychology. c. Structuralism has exerted the greatest influence on psychology. d. Functionalism has exerted the greatest influence on psychology. 14. Which area of research specialization in psychology studies many of the traditional topics in psychology (such as sensation, learning, and motivation)? a. psychometrics b. experimental psychology c. cognitive psychology d. educational psychology 15. Who believed that organisms tend to repeat responses that lead to positive outcomes? a. Sigmund Freud b. B. F. Skinner c. William James d. Carl Rogers 16. What is NOT good advice for developing sound study habits? a. Find a place to study where you can concentrate. b. Set up a schedule for studying. c. Reward yourself for studying. d. Avoid taking study breaks while studying.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 17. Who was NOT one of the founders of the positive psychology movement? a. Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi b. John B. Watson c. Martin Seligman d. Barbara Fredrickson 18. Which of the following professionals is a medical doctor? a. a physiological psychologist b. a clinical psychologist c. a psychiatrist d. a counselling psychologist 19. In promoting positive psychology, what did Seligman suggest had been the historical focus of the field of psychology? a. pathology, weakness, and damage b. genetic and physiological influences c. animal, child, and disordered behaviour d. behaviourism and psychoanalysis 20. Which school of psychology is associated with B. F. Skinner? a. humanism b. behaviourism c. psychoanalysis d. functionalism 21. Which event marked the “birth” of psychology as a science? a. Wilhelm Wundt established the first laboratory for psychological research. b. Sigmund Freud first described the unconscious. c. Charles Darwin published the theory of natural selection. d. William James published the textbook Principles of Psychology. 22. The unifying theme “people’s experience of the world is highly subjective” most directly impacts which other unifying theme? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. 23. Grace was just accepted into the University of Victoria to complete her Ph.D. in positive psychology. What topics will Grace least likely be studying? a. happiness b. gratitude c. intelligence d. kindness 24. Who created controversy when he asserted that free will is an illusion? a. B. F. Skinner b. Ivan Pavlov c. Edward Thorndike d. John B. Watson 25. Which pioneering female psychologist did important work on children’s intelligence and was influential in debunking some of the theories which explained why women were “inferior” to men? a. Mary Ainsworth b. Leta Hollingworth c. Brenda Milner d. Karen Horney

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 26. Which of the following is most important to consider when evaluating the impact of culture on human behavior? a. Culture is a narrow construct. b. Culture is the only determinant of behaviour. c. There is great diversity within a culture. d. People of one culture are basically all the same. 27. Which of your textbook’s unifying themes is reflected in the fact that people sometimes see what they either “want to see” or “expect to see”? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. People’s experience of the world is empirical. 28. How would you describe cramming for an exam as a study strategy for most students? a. ineffective b. effective c. beneficial d. time efficient 29. Who is associated with the concept of “stream of consciousness”? a. William James b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Sigmund Freud d. John Watson 30. What did John Watson believe should be the focus of psychology? a. unconscious determinants of behaviour b. observable behaviour c. basic elements of conscious experience d. the function or purpose of consciousness 31. Which statement best describes the skills and attitudes involved in critical thinking? a. They naturally develop during early adulthood. b. They develop only in individuals trained in scientific disciplines. c. They need to be specifically taught to individuals. d. They naturally develop during adolescence. 32. Which school of psychology is associated with Abraham Maslow? a. structuralism b. behaviourism c. psychoanalysis d. humanism 33. When John Watson said, “Give me a dozen healthy infants ...,” what was he arguing that behaviour is strongly influenced by? a. environmental factors b. heredity factors c. cultural factors d. subjective factors 34. Which statement reflects psychology’s view of behaviour? a. It has an objective cause. b. It has a single cause. c. It has subjective causes. d. It has multiple causes.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 35. Which type of psychologist would be most interested in Alex’s research? a. a clinical psychologist b. a structuralist c. an evolutionary psychologist d. a humanist 36. Consider your textbook’s unifying theme that “psychology is empirical.” What does this theme imply that psychologists base their conclusions on? a. logical reasoning b. direct observations c. speculation d. common sense 37. What are the two Greek words that make up “psychology”? a. psyche, meaning the brain and logos, referring to the study of a subject b. psyche, meaning the brain and logos, referring to research c. psyche, meaning the soul and logos, referring to the study of a subject d. psyche, meaning the soul and logos, referring to the history of a subject 38. What is NOT a major area of specialization in research psychology? a. counselling psychology b. social psychology c. personality psychology d. psychometrics 39. As the result of a breakdown in communication, morale is low among employees in a local factory. Which type of psychologist would be most likely to be helpful in restoring communication and improving morale? a. a clinical psychologist b. a social psychologist c. an educational psychologist d. an industrial/organizational psychologist 40. If Dr. Meharry is a behaviourist, what would he most likely say is the cause of a child’s disruptive behaviour in school? a. a combination of his genetic inheritance and his prior experiences b. his prior experiences c. his genetic inheritance d. a learning disability 41. Imagine that you are a graduate student in Montreal in the 1940s. You work under the supervision of a very influential researcher who published The Organization of Behavior, which provided an integrative approach to psychology. Which of the following are you likely to be researching? a. history and systems of psychology b. child development c. brain mechanisms of behaviour d. memory and problem solving 42. Martha dreaded summer school but had to retake Grade 11 math, having failed it last semester. She commented to her friend that she had “decided to take a summer school curse.” Her friend knew she meant “course” and not “curse,” but how would Freud have interpreted Martha’s statement? a. He would say she had hysteria. b. He would say the error was meaningless c. He would not be able to interpret the statement as it was not in a dream d. He would say that it was a slip of the tongue and reflected her true feelings.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 43. What is NOT one of the three areas of interest in positive psychology? a. the study of positive subjective experiences b. psychological treatment for depression and anxiety c. the study of positive individual traits d. positive institutions and communities 44. Tracey is conducting research on children’s learning styles, and her research is used to help create new teaching activities in daycare centres. Which category would Tracey’s research fit into best? a. clinical psychology b. applied psychology c. Behaviourism d. functionalism 45. Which phrase reflects your textbook’s unifying theme of “heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour”? a. man versus nature b. nature versus nurture c. parent versus child d. biology versus psychology 46. What did Sigmund Freud believe should be the focus of studies of personality, motivation, and mental disorders? a. observable behaviour b. basic elements of conscious experience c. unconscious determinants of behaviour d. the function or purpose of consciousness 47. Imagine that you are a psychologist, and your major goal is to help people reach their potential. Which school of psychology do you endorse with that statement? a. structuralism b. humanism c. psychoanalysis d. behaviourism 48. Which female psychologist is known as one of the founders of neuropsychology in Canada? a. Mary Wright b. Mary Ainsworth c. Doreen Kiruma d. Brenda Milner 49. Who is considered a humanistic psychologist? a. Carl Rogers b. Wilhelm Wundt c. B. F. Skinner d. Sigmund Freud 50. A newspaper article reported a study by a psychologist in which the attitudes of men and women toward traditional sex roles were studied. Which type of psychologist most likely conducted the study? a. a developmental psychologist b. a cognitive psychologist c. a social psychologist d. a counselling psychologist 51. Terry is interested in doing research on creativity. She really wants to be able to help people develop their creativity, so that they can improve their own lives. Which type of psychology is Terry interested in? a. educational psychology b. positive psychology c. functional psychology d. clinical psychology 52. Where was the first experimental psychology laboratory in Canada established in 1891? a. University of Toronto b. Dalhousie University c. University of Alberta d. McGill University Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 53. According to the biological perspective, what must psychologists focus on to fully understand behaviour? a. the interrelations among the mind, body, and behaviour b. internal mental events c. the adaptive value of a behaviour d. the role of the unconscious 54. If you normally use a knife, fork, and spoon to eat dinner, what does that reflect? a. adaptation b. subjective thoughts concerning proper behaviour c. objective thoughts concerning proper behaviour d. cultural heritage 55. Which term refers to the study of ethics in neuroscience? a. psychoneuroimmunology b. neurotheology c. neuroethics d. social justice 56. Upon reflecting upon your own behaviour, you conclude that you behave in a very predictable fashion. You feel that you don’t really choose your behaviours freely or consciously. Rather, you believe that your behaviour is controlled by what has happened to you in the past. Which theorist would be most likely to agree with you? a. B. F. Skinner b. Edward Titchener c. Carl Rogers d. Sigmund Freud 57. How did Wilhelm Wundt define psychology? a. the scientific study of the unconscious mind b. the scientific study of the conscious experience of the mind c. the scientific study of human behaviour d. the scientific study of the human brain 58. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the Canadian Psychological Association? a. It was formed in 1939. b. It has mostly male members. c. It has over 7000 members and affiliates. d. It is Canada’s largest organization for psychology. 59. Lisa taught her son to buckle his seatbelt quickly after getting into the car by allowing him to play one of his CDs on the car stereo only after he was buckled up. Which school of psychology would most endorse this method? a. cognitive psychology b. humanism c. biological psychology d. behaviourism

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 60. How did John Watson define psychology? a. the scientific study of the brain b. the scientific study of the unconscious c. the scientific study of behaviour d. the scientific study of conscious experience 61. What is the focus of applied psychology? a. pure science research b. unique qualities of people c. practical problems d. mental processes involved in acquiring knowledge 62. Your text’s two unifying themes of “our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage” and “heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour” both describe more specialized statements of which other theme? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. 63. Which of the following perspectives in psychology has dominated the psychological literature since 1975? a. behavioural b. neuroscience c. cognitive d. psychoanalytic 64. Which school of psychology would be least likely to compare humans to other animals? a. behaviourism b. functionalism c. humanism d. evolutionary psychology 65. Which behaviour will NOT enhance your ability to get the most information out of your lectures? a. reading ahead b. recording verbatim what the lecturer says c. asking questions d. actively listening 66. Dr. LeBlanc is a psychologist in Canada. What organization does she most likely belong to? a. North American Psychological Association (NAPA) b. Canadian Psychological Association (CPA) c. International Psychological Association (IPA) d. American Psychological Association (APA) 67. Which psychological perspective emerged in the 1950s and 1960s and reflected a renewed interest in the study of the physiological bases of behaviour? a. the philosophical perspective b. the biological perspective c. the mental perspective d. the cognitive perspective

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 68. What is the best advice when faced with a major assignment such as a term paper? a. Set aside a large block of time (e.g., an entire weekend) to devote to the assignment. b. Break the assignment down into smaller components. c. Start the assignment with a clear idea of your conclusion in mind. d. Postpone beginning the assignment until shortly before the due date to incorporate information from the instructor’s lectures into the project. 69. Even though you know it isn’t good for you, you just ate an entire large bag of chips. What would Sigmund Freud say is the cause of your behaviour? a. your unconscious mind b. your genetic influences c. your history of reinforcement and punishment d. your inability to think quickly 70. Who wrote the book Beyond Freedom and Dignity? a. Ivan Pavlov b. B. F. Skinner c. John Watson d. Sigmund Freud 71. What has become the most recent focus of attention for psychologists? a. unconscious mechanisms b. intelligence c. emotions d. culture 72. Which psychologists work in schools and primarily help individual children having difficulties in school, or aid parents and teachers in solving school-related problems? a. educational psychologists b. counselling psychologists c. school psychologists d. social psychologists 73. When Alex trains raccoons to respond to symbols, with whom are his methods most consistent? a. Brenda Milner b. Donald Hebb c. B. F. Skinner d. William James 74. While Sigmund Freud might explain an individual’s depression by focusing on the person’s unconscious thoughts, a physiological psychologist might focus instead on a chemical imbalance in the brain. Which of your textbook’s unifying themes is illustrated by this example? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 75. What did William James believe should be the focus of psychology? a. the function or purpose of consciousness b. basic elements of conscious experience c. observable behaviour d. unconscious determinants of behaviour

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 76. Which of the following was NOT one of the psychological theorists whose work impacted trends in childrearing practices? a. Sigmund Freud b. John B. Watson c. Wilhelm Wundt d. Carl Rogers 77. Which of the following is an accurate explanation for why many students enter university with poor study skills and habits? a. They tend not to be confident in predicting how they will do in a course. b. They received minimal instruction on good study techniques in school. c. They received adequate instruction on study skills in school but they did not apply what they learned. d. They plan and schedule their study sessions as opposed to going with the flow. 78. Based on empirical studies, which of the following students would you expect to have the poorest attendance during the semester? a. Tom, who earned an A b. Sue, who earned a B c. Ashley, who earned a C+ d. Steve, who earned a D 79. What did many psychologists begin to specialize in after World War II? a. clinical psychology b. experimental psychology c. industrial psychology d. research psychology 80. When the personal computer industry exploded in the 1970s and consumer electronic devices were mass marketed, which perspective of psychology saw a major increase in the research being conducted in its field? a. behaviourism b. social psychology c. biological psychology d. cognitive 81. Which individual is known as the founder of functionalism? a. Sigmund Freud b. John Watson c. Wilhelm Wundt d. William James 82. Which area of medicine is concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of psychological problems and disorders? a. applied psychology b. psychiatry c. medical psychology d. neurology 83. Which term describes the humanistic view of human nature? a. pessimistic b. optimistic c. deterministic d. predictable 84. Which area of specialization in psychology is involved with the development of curricula and the training of teachers? a. school psychology b. experimental psychology c. industrial/organizational psychology d. educational psychology 85. What is the largest specialization in professional psychology? a. counselling psychology b. industrial/organizational psychology c. clinical psychology d. developmental psychology Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 86. Which technique would you be using if you take a sip of a soft drink and concentrate on what you are experiencing (cold, bubbly, sweet, etc.)? a. empiricism b. behaviourism c. introspection d. functionalism 87. In a classic psychological study conducted by Hastorf and Cantril (1954), Princeton and Dartmouth students were asked to watch some footage of a recent football game between the two schools and identify the number of rule infractions committed by the Dartmouth team. What were the results? a. Princeton students reported fewer infractions than Dartmouth students did. b. Both groups of students reported the same number of infractions. c. Dartmouth students reported fewer infractions than Princeton students did. d. The Dartmouth team did not break any rules of the game. 88. Which of the following professionals could provide a prescription for antidepressant medication? a. a physiological psychologist b. a clinical psychologist c. a psychiatrist d. a counselling psychologist 89. Which of the following perspectives in psychology has seen a decline in the psychological literature since 1970? a. behavioural b. neuroscience c. cognitive d. psychoanalytic 90. Which of the following themes related to psychology’s subject matter does the statement that “people see what they want to see” refer to? a. People’s behaviour is shaped by cultural views. b. People’s behaviour is jointly influenced by their genes and the world they live in. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Behavior is determined by multiple causes. 91. Which of the following observation strengthens the evolutionary explanation of gender differences in spatial abilities? a. Ancient hunting and gathering societies frequently had a sex-based division of labour. b. Males are encouraged to engage in activities that provide more practice with spatial tasks. c. Females frequently perform slightly better than males on tasks involving mental rotation of images and navigation in space. d. Males perform slightly better than females on tasks involving memory for locations. 92. Which of the following psychologists was NOT Canadian? a. James Olds b. Brenda Milner c. Martin Seligman d. Donald Hebb 93. Which of the following premises means that knowledge should be acquired through observation? a. philosophy b. empiricism c. subjectivity d. introspection

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 94. Which area of psychology is consistent with the following hypothesis: “We learn quickly about dangerous situations because we have inherited traits that keep us safe and increase the likelihood that we will survive to reproduce.” a. humanism b. cultural psychology c. biological psychology d. evolutionary psychology 95. Matt was just accepted into the University of British Columbia to complete his Ph.D. in evolutionary psychology. What topics will Matt least likely be studying? a. aggression b. jealousy c. intelligence d. mating preferences 96. Which of the following is NOT an example of a positive subjective experience or emotion? a. gratitude b. surprise c. hope d. happiness 97. Which of the following human virtues is least likely to be studied by a researcher in the field of positive psychology? a. positivity b. pathology c. perseverance d. phobias 98. What is a psychologist who focuses attention on cultural diversity least likely to do? a. document differences among varying cultures b. work to increase knowledge of how culture is transmitted through socialization c. document similarities among varying cultures d. identify deficiencies in other cultures 99. Which statement would B. F. Skinner most likely disagree with? a. Organisms tend to repeat responses that lead to positive outcomes. b. Organisms tend not to repeat responses that lead to neutral or negative outcomes. c. All behaviour is governed by external consequences. d. Individuals have free will. 100. Which statement best describes the unifying theme that “psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context”? a. Social trends and values have an impact on personal behaviour. b. Social trends and values have an impact on psychology. c. Psychology and society both influence each other. d. Psychological research and theories have an impact on society. 101. Who was forced to resign from Johns Hopkins University because of a scandal related to his personal life and then went on to become successful in the business world and, ironically, the first “pop” psychologist? a. Carl Rogers b. John Watson c. Sigmund Freud d. B. F. Skinner

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 102. If you wish to teach a child to pick up his toys, whose principles and techniques would be most useful? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. William James c. B. F. Skinner d. Abraham Maslow 103. In Canada, what level of education do psychologists usually have? a. a bachelors in psychology b. at least a Ph.D. in psychology c. a Ph.D. in either psychology or psychiatry d. usually a Ph.D. but sometimes a masters in psychology 104. Which statement is NOT one of your text’s unifying themes related to the subject matter of psychology? a. Psychology is theoretically consistent. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. 105. Which of the following happens when evidence is presented that is contradictory to the explanation or theory you have constructed to explain a particular behaviour? a. It weakens the explanation. b. It proves that the theory is wrong. c. It has no effect on the explanation. d. It means the study will not be published. 106. Which school of psychology stated that the task of psychology is to analyze conscious experience into its basic elements? a. functionalism b. psychoanalysis c. behaviourism d. structuralism 107. What would you find if you were to compare and contrast the six contemporary theoretical perspectives in psychology described in your text? a. Psychoanalytic theory is the only approach that examines the role of thoughts and feelings. b. The earlier approaches (pre-1950s) are very similar to one another, whereas the later approaches are dramatically different from one another. c. The structuralist approach permeates all contemporary theoretical perspectives. d. The psychoanalytic, humanistic, and cognitive perspectives are very different from the others with regard to focus on the human species. 108. Which pair of terms reflects the observation that “psychology returned to its roots” in the latter part of the 20th century? a. cognitive perspective and humanism b. cognitive perspective and biological perspective c. biological perspective and humanism d. cultural perspective and biological perspective

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 109. In addition to being a science, what is the other aspect of the field of psychology, according to your textbook’s definition? a. career b. profession c. philosophy d. art 110. Who is NOT one of the women pioneers in Canadian psychology? a. Mary Salter Ainsworth b. Karen Horney c. Doreen Kimura d. Mary Wright 111. While the term “psychology” has existed since at least the early 1700s, when did psychology come to be considered a science? a. the 1750s b. the early 1800s c. the late 1800s d. the 1940s 112. Which individual is associated with the concept of the unconscious mind? a. Sigmund Freud b. John Watson c. Wilhelm Wundt d. William James 113. What do evolutionary psychologists focus on when they study behavioural processes? a. adaptive value of the behaviour b. influence on intelligence c. hormonal substrate d. cognitive correlates 114. Which of your text’s unifying themes is emphasized by John Watson’s proposal that psychology should study only observable behaviours and not consciousness? a. Behaviour is influenced by multiple causes. b. Psychology should use theories. c. Psychology should be empirical. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. 115. What technique would you be using if, while watching a sunset, you stop and analyze your sensations, thoughts, and feelings? a. behaviourism b. introspection c. psychoanalysis d. functionalism 116. What is good advice for getting more out of class lectures? a. Concentrate on writing down the definitions of terms. b. Read along in the text as the instructor is lecturing. c. Read the relevant pages in the text before the lecture. d. Avoid interrupting the instructor by asking questions. 117. Which psychological perspective emerged in the 1950s and 1960s, and reflected a renewed interest in the study of the mind or consciousness? a. the mental perspective b. the philosophical perspective c. the biological perspective d. the cognitive perspective

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 118. Which of the following includes the widely shared customs, beliefs, values, norms, institutions, and other products of a community that are transmitted socially across generations? a. cultural heritage b. legal heritage c. religious heritage d. sociohistorical heritage 119. What does a scientist use to explain a set of observations? a. introspection b. a theory c. common sense d. empiricism 120. What is NOT one of the text’s unifying themes related to psychology as a field of study? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 121. Which type of psychologist is concerned with changes in behaviour throughout the life span? a. a social psychologist b. a developmental psychologist c. a personality psychologist d. a cognitive psychologist 122. What is NOT an example of a positive individual trait, such as a personal strength or virtue? a. kindness b. spatial skills and abilities c. moral integrity d. Courage 123. Which of your textbook’s themes is illustrated when Alex collects data to evaluate his ideas? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Psychology is empirical. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. 124. Which school of psychology believes people have a basic need to fulfill their potential for personal growth and that we have free will? a. psychoanalysis b. cognitive psychology c. humanism d. behaviourism 125. If you were to ask a cognitive psychologist about her current research, which of the following is most likely to be the topic? a. unconscious emotional conflicts b. problem solving c. the influence of hormones on behaviour d. common attitudes across cultures 126. What is implied by your textbook’s unifying theme that “psychology is theoretically diverse”? a. Psychology has not, as yet, focused on empirical observations. b. Psychology values all opinions and treats different views as equally valid. c. Psychology can only be described as a social science, rather than a pure science. d. There are often several ways to interpret a set of observations.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 127. What are currently the two largest areas of specialization in research-oriented psychology? a. clinical and counselling psychology b. developmental and clinical psychology c. social and counselling psychology d. developmental and social psychology 128. Which statement best illustrates the difference in psychology in Canada when compared to psychology in the United States? a. There are more psychologists per capita in Canada. b. The nature of the impact of Canadian cultural diversity on the area of cultural psychology differs to that in the United States. c. Psychologists in the United States receive better training. d. Canadian psychologists tend to place less emphasis on neuroscience than American psychologists. 129. Which observation weakens the evolutionary explanation of gender differences in spatial abilities? a. There frequently was a sex-based division of labour in ancient hunting and gathering societies. b. Males are encouraged to engage in activities that provide more practice with spatial tasks. c. Males frequently perform slightly better than females on tasks involving mental rotation of images and navigation in space. d. Females perform slightly better than males on tasks involving memory for locations. 130. Which female psychologist who studied under William James went on to become the first female president of the American Psychological Association? a. Anna Freud b. Brenda Milner c. Mary Ainsworth d. Mary Whiton Calkins 131. What is implied by your text’s unifying theme that “psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context”? a. Knowledge should be acquired through observation. b. Dense interconnections exist between what happens in psychology and in society at large. c. Shared customs, beliefs, and values are transmitted socially across generations. d. There are often several ways to interpret a set of observations. 132. Who would be most likely to focus on your thoughts, memories, and desires that are outside of conscious rational processes? a. B. F. Skinner b. Sigmund Freud c. John Watson d. Abraham Maslow 133. What did Sigmund Freud believe prevented us from being totally in control of our own minds? a. the physiological functioning of our bodies b. environmental influences acting on us c. the unconscious d. introspection 134. What is one of your text’s unifying themes related to psychology as a field of study? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 135. Which of the following did NOT have a significant influence on the development of Sigmund Freud’s theory? a. the results of his experimental research b. his observation of the slips of the tongue people tend to make c. knowledge gained from his examination of his own anxieties, conflicts, and desires d. knowledge gained as a result of working with patients 136. Which psychological perspective is most likely to focus on the interrelations among the mind, body, and behaviour? a. the biological perspective b. the cognitive perspective c. the behavioural perspective d. the evolutionary perspective 137. What is a theory? a. the premise that knowledge should be acquired through logical reasoning b. a statement of fact that describes a set of observations c. the premise that knowledge should be acquired through observation d. a system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations 138. What does the evolutionary explanation for gender differences in spatial skills say about how those differences came about in the first place? a. Females were raised in the 1950s to become housewives and mothers. b. Males and females engaged in gender-typed activities in ancient societies, which resulted in those skills being passed on. c. Males are more physically fit than females from an evolutionary standpoint. d. Males tend to think differently than females, which results in differences in their performance. 139. Which school of psychology was most influential in increasing the use of animals in psychological research? a. structuralism b. humanism c. behaviourism d. animalism 140. Which of the following is NOT part of critical thinking? a. working systematically toward a desired goal b. originally believing that the stated position on a topic is incorrect c. generating multiple solutions to problems d. using principles of likelihood when dealing with probabilistic events 141. Which of the following would both Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow agree with? a. People have a basic need to fulfill their potential for personal growth. b. Human behaviour is entirely shaped by environmental events. c. People are controlled by genetic forces and do not tend to change across the life span. d. Human behaviour is largely determined by primitive sexual urges.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 142. What do your text authors recommend that researchers do to interpret data and results in psychological research with a critical eye? a. They recommend considering alternative explanations and contradictory evidence. b. They suggest researchers get someone else to interpret the data for them. c. They recommend meta-analyses of the data. d. They suggest researchers adjust the interpretation if it does not line up with their worldview or philosophy. 143. Which specialization in applied psychology is primarily involved in the treatment of less severe problems of everyday life? a. social psychology b. counselling psychology c. cognitive psychology d. clinical psychology 144. Which of the following is not one of the nine main research areas in modern psychology? a. neuroscience b. physical fitness c. personality psychology d. health psychology 145. Which of the following is NOT included in your textbook’s definition of psychology? a. Psychology is a profession that solves practical problems. b. Psychology is a science. c. Psychology studies behaviour including physiological and cognitive processes. d. Psychology primarily studies the unconscious mind. 146. What is consistent with your textbook’s suggestions for improving academic performance by improving your reading and getting more out of lectures? a. subjective thinking skills b. accepted thinking skills c. critical thinking skills d. objective thinking skills 147. Who established the first experimental psychology lab in the British Empire at the University of Toronto in 1891? a. James Mark Baldwin b. Donald Hebb c. William Wundt d. Brenda Milner 148. Which of the following is the primary difference between a psychologist and a psychiatrist? a. the type of therapy they use b. the diagnostic tools they use c. their education and training d. the efficacy of their treatment 149. According to a 2016 study by Statistics Canada, what percentage of Canadians were born outside of Canada? a. 6 percent b. 10 percent c. 15 percent d. 22 percent 150. Where was the first psychology course offered at a Canadian university in 1838? a. Saint Mary’s University b. Dalhousie University c. Western University d. McGill University

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 151. Which school of psychology stated that consciousness developed in humans because it serves a useful purpose? a. humanism b. functionalism c. behaviourism d. structuralism 152. Which American theorist studied the Indigenous culture of the Blackfoot First Nations in Alberta, Canada, by way of living there for a time? a. Carl Rogers b. Abraham Maslow c. B. F. Skinner d. Marty Seligman 153. Which major historical event influenced the development of applied psychology as a profession? a. World War II b. the Cold War of the 1950s c. World War I d. the Great Depression of the 1930s 154. Which statement is one of your text’s unifying themes related to the subject matter of psychology? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 155. During the last few decades, people have become more aware of the sexual abuse of children by adults, and psychologists have devoted more research attention to the long-term effects of childhood sexual abuse. These observations best reflect which unifying theme in psychology? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 156. Which individual set up the first psychological research lab in Germany and is known as the founder of psychology? a. Sigmund Freud b. John Watson c. Wilhelm Wundt d. William James 157. What data suggest that the evolutionary explanation for modern gender differences in spatial skills may be flawed? a. results from studies that show that women outperform men in a lab setting more often than in a natural setting b. results from studies that prove that males outperform women because of genetic superiority c. results from studies that show that traditional lab measures of spatial skills may not be reflected in a natural setting d. results from studies that prove the evolutionary explanation is wrong

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 158. According to B. F. Skinner, if you study “extra hard” for your first psychology midterm and earn an “A,” what would you do for your next psychology midterm? a. reduce your study time by approximately 50 percent b. continue to study “extra hard” c. devote all of your study time to your other courses d. reduce your study time by approximately 25 percent 159. What would be most interesting to a psychologist who specializes in psychometrics? a. the development of techniques to monitor the functioning of the nervous system b. explaining development across the life span c. the development of psychological tests to measure intelligence or personality traits d. conducting psychotherapy in a clinical setting 160. Which type of psychologist is most likely to study decision making, reasoning, problem solving, and language? a. an evolutionary psychologist b. a cognitive psychologist c. a behavioural psychologist d. a biological psychologist 161. Which school of psychology is associated with Edward Titchener? a. structuralism b. behaviourism c. psychoanalysis d. functionalism 162. What has been humanistic psychology’s greatest contribution to psychology? a. the scientific examination of the unconscious mind b. research on psychological disorders c. innovations in school psychology d. treatment of psychological disorders 163. What did both Wilhelm Wundt and Edward Titchener believe should be the focus of psychology? a. observable behaviour b. the function or purpose of consciousness c. unconscious determinants of behaviour d. basic elements of conscious experience 164. When Alex trains his students, which skill is he emphasizing? a. critical thinking b. structuralism c. positive psychology d. statistical training 165. Which of the following was NOT one of the reasons that psychoanalysis was controversial when it was first developed? a. its focus on the unconscious b. its lack of experimental research c. its emphasis on sexual issues d. its focus on abnormal behaviour 166. The emerging field of positive psychology has three areas of interest. Which of the following is not one of them? a. positive subjective experiences b. positive traits c. positive thoughts d. positive communities

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 167. Who is known as the founder of behaviourism? a. John Watson b. Carl Rogers c. Wilhelm Wundt d. Sigmund Freud 168. Which two disciplines provided foundations for the field of psychology? a. physiology and theology b. physiology and sociology c. philosophy and physiology d. sociology and philosophy

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. c 11. a 12. a 13. d 14. b 15. b 16. d 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. b 26. c

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. d 49. a 50. c 51. b 52. a 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 55. c 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. d 60. c 61. c 62. d 63. c 64. c 65. b 66. b 67. b 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. d 72. c 73. c 74. d 75. a 76. c 77. b 78. d 79. a 80. d 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 83. b 84. d 85. c 86. c 87. c 88. c 89. a 90. c 91. a 92. c 93. b 94. d 95. c 96. b 97. b 98. d 99. d 100. c 101. b 102. c 103. d 104. a 105. a 106. d 107. d 108. b 109. b 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 111. c 112. a 113. a 114. c 115. b 116. c 117. d 118. a 119. b 120. b 121. b 122. b 123. b 124. c 125. b 126. d 127. d 128. b 129. b 130. d 131. b 132. b 133. c 134. b 135. a 136. a 137. d

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 138. b 139. c 140. b 141. a 142. a 143. b 144. b 145. d 146. c 147. a 148. c 149. d 150. b 151. b 152. b 153. a 154. c 155. d 156. c 157. c 158. b 159. c 160. b 161. a 162. d 163. d 164. a 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 2 166. c 167. a 168. c

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The cognitive perspective of psychology focuses on which of the following? a. the important role of mental processes b. how overt behaviour is acquired c. the diversity of human behaviour d. the motivation of people to grow psychologically 2. Which school of psychology is most clearly concerned with the adaptive value of complex mental processes? a. structuralism b. behaviourism c. psychoanalysis d. functionalism 3. Research has shown that people have a tendency to see what they expect to see instead of what really is there. What does this finding demonstrate? a. subjective bias b. critical thinking c. empiricism d. positive psychology 4. In an essay she is writing, Rasheda defines behaviourism as the scientific study of which of the following areas? a. mental life b. observable behaviour c. mental events d. cognition 5. William James believed that structuralism was flawed because it involved taking only brief snapshots of which of the following? a. consciousness b. history c. the unconscious d. pain 6. In his undergraduate research internship, Sina is using positive reinforcement to help his aging rats become more active. Sina’s strategy has been MOST predominantly influenced by the work of which of the following? a. B. F. Skinner b. John Watson c. Carl Rogers d. Ivan Pavlov 7. William James’s view of consciousness is MOST similar to which of the following? a. a flowing stream b. the parts of an atom c. a black hole d. the parts of a clock 8. Which of the following is a feature of both structuralism and functionalism? a. the use of introspection b. an emphasis on unconscious experience c. the study of the purpose of behaviour d. the focus on one’s conscious experience 9. Behaviourism is characterized by which of the following? a. a focus upon observable behaviour b. a narrow focus upon consciousness and conscious experience c. a focus upon the importance of free will and psychological growth d. an emphasis upon the unconscious determinants of personality

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 10. Which of the following is a required component of introspection? a. metaphysical experiences b. self-skepticism about experience c. empiricism d. examining one’s own perception and thoughts 11. Understanding how a fear of heights may have contributed to the survival of our human ancestors is a topic MOST relevant to which perspective? a. behaviourist b. cognitive c. evolutionary d. psychodynamic 12. Which of the following psychologists took an extreme position on the nature versus nurture debate? a. William Wundt b. William James c. John Watson d. Edward Titchener 13. What is the term for the premise that all knowledge should be gained through observation? a. natural selection b. psychometrics c. subjectivity d. empiricism 14. Which perspective stresses the importance of studying observable behaviours and ignores the mental processes involved in different tasks? a. behaviourism b. natural selection c. humanism d. cognitive psychology 15. If you believe that human consciousness could be broken down into parts, just like matter can be broken down into atoms, you would MOST likely be a proponent of which school of psychology? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. behaviourism d. psychoanalysis 16. The early school of psychology called functionalism was largely influenced by the ideas of which of the following psychologists? a. Sigmund Freud b. William James c. B. F. Skinner d. Edward Titchener 17. Which perspective stresses the importance of taking an optimistic view of human nature? a. behaviourism b. natural selection c. humanism d. cognitive psychology 18. Who founded the positive psychology movement? a. Martin Seligman b. Carl Rogers c. Abraham Maslow d. Rollo May 19. Barrett admires Abraham Maslow. As a result, Barrett is MOST likely to identify himself as which of the following? a. a behaviourist b. a humanist c. a psychoanalyst d. a neuroscientist Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 20. Professor Kovacs conducts research on the progressive changes in infants’ perceptual skills during the first year of life. Professor Kovacs is MOST likely to be which type of psychologist? a. developmental psychologist b. clinical psychologist c. personality psychologist d. social psychologist 21. Which of the following psychologists was MOST influenced by the idea of adaptation? a. William James b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Edward Titchener d. Sigmund Freud 22. What were the behaviourists best known for studying? a. that which is observable b. that which is not observable c. processes that cannot be learned d. behaviours that cannot be measured 23. Some researchers ask their subjects to describe elements of their experiences (e.g., sensations, images, feelings) while undergoing fMRI scans. What is this technique similar to? a. free association b. behaviourism c. introspection d. functionalism 24. Dr. Reichart believes that a lot can be learned from dream analysis. Which of the following does Dr. Reichart MOST identify with? a. psychoanalysis b. behaviourism c. humanistic psychology d. cognitive psychology 25. Jasmine is being asked in his psychotherapy sessions to discuss her early childhood experiences and dreams. Jasmine’s therapist has MOST likely been influenced by the ideas of which person? a. Abraham Maslow b. Carl Rogers c. Sigmund Freud d. William James 26. Who is considered the “founder of psychology”? a. Sigmund Freud b. Edward Titchener c. Wilhelm Wundt d. John Watson 27. Which research method did structuralists use to identify the basic elements of the human mind? a. psychoanalysis b. introspection c. behaviourism d. psychotherapy 28. Natalie and Ray are seeing Dr. Becker for marital issues. Neither one of them has any psychopathology, but they are interested in strengthening their relationship. Dr. Becker is most likely to be which type of psychologist? a. counselling psychologist b. social psychologist c. developmental psychologist d. clinical psychologist 29. Which of the following was studied by both the structuralists and the functionalists? a. introspection b. unconscious experience c. the purpose of behaviour d. conscious experience

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 30. The structuralist approach was both applauded and criticized for its emphasis on which of the following? a. the observation of behaviour b. introspection c. unconscious motivations d. multiculturalism 31. A discussion of how behaviour and personality can be influenced by conflicts that occur at an unconscious level would MOST likely include a discussion of which of the following psychologists? a. Carl Rogers b. Abraham Maslow c. Sigmund Freud d. B. F. Skinner 32. Who founded behaviourism? a. B.F. Skinner b. William James c. John Watson d. Edward Titchener 33. Which perspective emphasizes the influence of the current environment on one’s potential for growth? a. Freudian psychology b. behaviourism c. structuralism d. humanistic psychology 34. Mr. and Mrs. McKay are concerned that their daughter may be suffering from depression. To help diagnose and understand her condition better, they would benefit from making an appointment with which type of psychologist? a. biological psychologist b. clinical psychologist c. cognitive psychologist d. educational psychologist 35. Which of the following is currently an especially active research area in psychology? a. clinical psychology b. social psychology c. cognitive psychology d. personality psychology 36. Which field is currently the MOST popular specialty area for psychologists? a. industrial/organizational psychology b. cognitive psychology c. clinical psychology d. school psychology 37. Which of the following researchers was a pioneer in the field of neuroscience? a. Donald Hebb b. Ulric Neisser c. Carl Rogers d. Stanley Milgram 38. According to Freud, what influences a person’s thoughts, feelings, and actions without the person’s awareness? a. the conscious mind b. the unconscious mind c. the overt behaviour of others d. the contents of short-term memory 39. Reading Principles of Psychology by William James will give a student a better understanding of which of the following? a. voluntarism b. structuralism c. functionalism d. behaviourism

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 40. Which psychologist coined the term “stream of consciousness”? a. Sigmund Freud b. William James c. William Wundt d. Edward Titchener 41. What was the purpose of Freud’s psychoanalytic approach to therapy? a. to identify one’s unconscious thoughts and bring them into one’s awareness b. to help patients repress their unconscious thoughts, fears, and anxieties c. to identify mental processes from recording observable behaviours d. to talk about sexual fantasies 42. When discussing consciousness, structuralism is to functionalism as: a. stream is to mountain. b. mountain is to air. c. air is to particle. d. particle is to stream. 43. A relatively new aspect of psychological research examines the effect of which of the following on psychological phenomena? a. biology b. culture c. reinforcement d. the unconscious 44. Jamal is writing a paper on Donald Hebb. Which topic will his paper likely touch upon? a. cell assemblies b. self-actualization c. ethnocentrism d. consciousness 45. In the early years of psychology, the GREATEST debate was between proponents of which two schools? a. functionalism and structuralism b. structuralism and psychoanalysis c. psychoanalysis and voluntarism d. voluntarism and functionalism 46. Dr. Assam provides psychotherapy to people who suffer from excessive anxiety. Dr. Assam is MOST likely to be which type of psychologist? a. social psychologist b. developmental psychologist c. clinical psychologist d. cognitive psychologist 47. In what field did John Watson work after he left Johns Hopkins University? a. medicine b. advertising c. finance d. national defence 48. Who developed a theory of motivation that emphasizes psychological growth? a. Carl Rogers b. Margaret Floy Washburn c. Abraham Maslow d. John B. Watson 49. Carl Rogers argued that human behaviour is primarily governed by which of the following? a. one’s genes b. one’s self-concept c. one’s environment d. one’s id

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 50. Dr. Zhu has been hired by a large company to assess job satisfaction and worker productivity. Dr. Zhu is most likely to be which type of psychologist? a. social psychologist b. industrial/organizational psychologist c. clinical psychologist d. cognitive psychologist 51. Advances in technology have led to the development of new fields of psychology in the 21st century, including which of the following? a. behavioural neuroscience b. behaviourism c. social psychology d. functionalism 52. During a debate in her psychology class, Liling argues that you can learn a lot from studying consciousness at discrete points in time. Liling has been tasked with arguing in support of the theories of which of the following people? a. Edward Titchener b. Sigmund Freud c. William Wundt d. B. F. Skinner 53. Who was the FIRST to argue that psychology should be an independent discipline? a. William Wundt b. William James c. Sigmund Freud d. Edward Titchener 54. Which approach to psychology may test to see if boys and girls learn to read in a similar way? a. cultural b. personality c. developmental d. forensic 55. Professor Lepp conducts basic research to investigate whether a parent’s negative perceptions of their child’s personality can affect the child’s subsequent behaviour in groups of peers. Professor Lepp is most likely to be which type of psychologist? a. clinical psychologist b. social psychologist c. biological psychologist d. personality psychologist 56. Which of the following was developed by a student of William Wundt? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. behaviourism d. psychoanalysis 57. Mia has recently moved back in with her mother and the pair are constantly arguing; neither Mia nor her mother are happy. Mia and her mother may find help by seeing which of the following professionals? a. counselling psychologist b. psychiatrist c. clinical psychologist d. forensic psychologist 58. Maslow is to humanistic psychology as: a. Wundt is to psychoanalysis. b. James is to introspection. c. Watson is to behaviourism. d. Titchener is to contemporary psychology.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 59. A group home for adolescents uses specific rewards and consequences to shape behaviour. Which branch of psychology is this approach based on? a. humanistic psychology b. functionalism c. behaviourism d. psychoanalysis 60. Who wrote the textbook Principles of Psychology? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. John B. Watson c. Edward B. Titchener d. William James 61. Who founded the first psychology lab in 1879? a. Edward Titchener b. Sigmund Freud c. William Wundt d. B. F. Skinner 62. Which of psychology’s “schools” was established first? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. behaviourism d. psychoanalysis 63. What was the focus of the early psychological school called structuralism? a. habits and adaptive behaviour b. neuroscience c. nature versus nurture d. the components of sensations and conscious experience 64. Which perspective of psychology led to the discovery that people from different parts of the world can have different psychological experiences? a. evolutionary b. cultural c. biological d. behavioural 65. Who was the first female president of the American Psychological Association? a. Margaret Floy Washburn b. Mary Whiton Calkins c. Leta Hollingworth d. Karen Horney 66. Most articles published in psychology journals are written by which type of psychologists? a. clinical psychologists b. counselling psychologists c. research psychologists d. forensic psychologists 67. What type of psychologist is involved in work focused on helping people dealing with challenges, alleviate distress, and resolve crises? a. a counselling psychologist b. an industrial/organizational psychologist c. a school psychologist d. a neuropsychologist 68. Skinner is to behaviourism as: a. Watson is to psychoanalysis. c. Freud is to behaviourism.

b. Maslow is to humanistic psychology. d. Titchener is to contemporary psychology.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 69. Dr. Khan’s research focuses on people’s emotional reaction to hearing a baby cry. Which of the following is Dr. Khan MOST likely to be? a. a counsellor b. an evolutionary psychologist c. a behaviourist d. a clinical psychologist 70. Which of the following activities do Ph.D. psychologists report engaging in the MOST at work? a. assessment b. treatment c. teaching d. research 71. What is the term for widely shared customs, beliefs, values, and norms that are produced by a community and passed across generations? a. civilization b. natural selection c. culture d. adaptations 72. Who founded psychoanalysis? a. B. F. Skinner b. Carl Rogers c. Wilhelm Wundt d. Sigmund Freud 73. Carmen wants to help people with memory loss. What field of psychology is she most likely to study? a. learning b. developmental c. social d. cognitive 74. Dr. Appleton only pursues research that he feels will improve people’s happiness. Which type of psychology is Dr. Appleton’s approach aligned with? a. positive psychology b. cognitive psychology c. personality psychology d. clinical psychology 75. Who would have been most likely to say: “You behave the way you do because of unconscious reasons, not reasons in your consciousness”? a. B. F. Skinner b. Carl Rogers c. Wilhelm Wundt d. Sigmund Freud 76. Dr. Bradbury studies how memories are stored in the brain. What type of research does Dr. Bradbury conduct? a. cognitive neuroscience b. social neuroscience c. health psychology d. positive psychology 77. A researcher who focuses on how behaviour and thinking differ in boys and girls in adolescence is MOST likely which of the following? a. behavioural psychologist b. behavioural geneticist c. cognitive psychologist d. developmental psychologist 78. What is the term for a system of interrelated ideas used to explain an observation? a. a hypothesis b. a theory c. a network d. a bias

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 79. Which of the following researchers was influenced by his time living with the Blackfoot First Nation in Alberta? a. Abraham Maslow b. Carl Rogers c. John Watson d. William James 80. Understanding the purpose of mental processes is central to which of the following early schools of psychology? a. psychoanalysis b. functionalism c. structuralism d. behaviourism 81. Who argued that free will is an illusion? a. Sigmund Freud b. John Watson c. Abraham Maslow d. B.F. Skinner 82. Which of the following is an approach that is central to cultural psychology? a. studying other cultures objectively b. studying other cultures from the point of view of those people c. studying the impact of unconscious influences d. studying differences in cognition between cultures 83. Andy is a 20-year-old undergraduate student who also works part-time several nights a week as a delivery driver and sometimes finds himself staying up very late. What is the MINIMUM amount of sleep Andy should aim to get each night if he wants to perform well at school? a. 5 hours b. 6 hours c. 7 hours d. 8 hours 84. Which professional MUST have a medical degree? a. a psychiatrist b. a clinical psychologist c. a counselling psychologist d. a social worker 85. The leader of a self-help group has asked you to recommend an approach to psychology that emphasizes personal growth and people’s need for love and acceptance. Which branch of psychology would you recommend for this group? a. behaviourism b. functionalism c. structuralism d. humanism 86. Which of the following schools of psychology has been criticized for being too subjective? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. physiology d. behaviourism 87. Reggie has been asked to summarize Wundt’s research interests in two words. What two words could he use? a. animal intelligence b. personality development c. social influence d. conscious activities 88. Dr. Amadi is a cognitive psychologist. Which of the following topics is he MOST likely to be interested in? a. reinforcement b. memory c. personality d. mental health

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 89. Dr. Metzler is tracking daytime anxiety levels in children of different ages. Which type of research is Dr. Metzler conducting? a. cross-cultural research b. clinical research c. forensic research d. developmental research 90. What did William James liken consciousness to? a. a jigsaw puzzle b. a stream c. a planet d. an iceberg 91. Lauren’s therapist frequently asks her questions about her dreams and early childhood memories. Her therapist is MOST likely to be which type of psychologist? a. humanistic b. cognitive c. psychoanalytic d. forensic 92. Who established the first psychology journal? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. Edward Titchener c. Sigmund Freud d. John B. Watson 93. Which of the following was established by Edward B. Titchener? a. psychoanalysis b. functionalism c. structuralism d. behaviourism 94. Which of the following describes a cognitive psychologist who teaches at a university? a. research psychologist b. counselling psychologist c. clinical psychologist d. school psychologist 95. Structuralists were interested in the structure of which of the following? a. conscious experience b. the brain c. personality d. the nervous system 96. Hassan is a 24-year-old male presenting with auditory hallucinations, paranoid thoughts of persecution, and claims of “special powers.” Hassan suffers from schizophrenia and sees Dr. Rogers, who is which type of psychologist? a. social psychologist b. clinical psychologist c. applied psychologist d. health psychologist 97. Who won a Nobel Prize for demonstrating that the left and right hemispheres of the brain are specialized to handle different types of tasks? a. Wilder Penfield b. Donald Hebb c. James Olds d. Roger Sperry 98. Which of the following researchers would have been MOST interested in studying how sensations, feelings, and images work together during conscious experience? a. Edward Titchener b. B.F. Skinner c. John Watson d. William James

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 99. Which of the following has the mandate to promote excellence and innovation in psychological research and clinical care in Canada? a. the Canadian Psychiatric Association b. the Canadian Psychonomic Association c. the Canadian Association of Persons in Psychology d. The Canadian Psychological Association 100. Who was the first woman to receive a Ph.D. in psychology in the United States? a. Margaret Floy Washburn b. Mary Whiton Calkins c. Leta Hollingworth d. Anna Freud 101. A participant seated in an otherwise dark room stares at a flickering candle and reports on her objective experiences, such as the visual experience of the candle flickering and the haptic sensation of warmth. Which of the following psychologists is most likely to be conducting this experiment? a. Freud, using psychoanalysis b. Wundt, using introspection c. James, using functionalism d. Titchener, using behaviourism 102. Esme wants to study human memory in graduate school. Esme appears to have an interest in which type of psychology? a. personality psychology b. forensic psychology c. clinical psychology d. cognitive psychology 103. What is the main role of a clinical psychologist? a. to conduct psychotherapy b. to prescribe medications c. to give career guidance d. to provide social services 104. Which researcher steered psychology away from the study of internal events while at Harvard in the 1950s? a. Abraham Maslow b. John Watson c. Carl Rogers d. B. F. Skinner 105. Tess’s psychology professor stated in class that “The goal of psychology is to discover how behaviour is acquired and modified in response to environmental influences.” Which perspective does such a statement coincide with? a. psychoanalysis b. structuralism c. humanistic psychology d. behaviourism 106. Which of the following research methods was developed by Edward B. Titchener? a. neuroscience b. psychoanalysis c. introspection d. reinforcement 107. The field of sport psychology is an example of which of the following? a. applied psychology b. clinical psychology c. counselling psychology d. academic psychology

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 108. Which school of psychology was influenced by the book The Animal Mind written by Margaret Floy Washburn? a. functionalism b. structuralism c. behaviourism d. humanism 109. Professor Singh uses fMRIs to study brain regions associated with memory. Professor Singh is MOST likely to be which type of professional? a. behavioural neuroscientist b. social neuroscientist c. evolutionary psychologist d. environmental psychologist 110. Kariel is participating in an experiment where she has been asked to break down the different components of taste when biting into a piece of chocolate. The researcher is MOST likely a proponent of which of the following? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. behaviourism d. voluntarism 111. Outside academia, what is the MOST common place for people with a Ph.D. in psychology to work? a. in hospitals b. in human service agencies c. in government d. in private practices 112. Alex and Chris are having communication problems in their relationship and would like to get help. What type of psychologist should they seek out? a. an educational psychologist b. a counselling psychologist c. a social psychologist d. a psychiatrist 113. Chloe’s psychology professor stated in class that “human nature is essentially positive, and people are naturally inclined to grow and change for the better; theories that presume the lack of control people have over their lives are wrong.” This statement MOST closely coincides with which of the following perspectives? a. psychoanalysis b. structuralism c. humanistic psychology d. cognitive psychology 114. Mary Whiton Calkins was a student of which of the following psychologists? a. Edward Titchener b. William Wundt c. William James d. John Watson 115. Carl Rogers’s ideas could be viewed as MOST similar to those of which of the following psychologists? a. Sigmund Freud b. B. F. Skinner c. Edward Titchener d. Abraham Maslow 116. The administration of a large university has asked Dr. Gomez to design group interventions to aid in faculty and student communication skills. Dr. Gomez was MOST likely hired for this job because of his training in which area of psychology? a. social psychology b. counselling psychology c. industrial/organizational psychology d. rehabilitation psychology

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 117. If Ping is trying to replicate an experiment conducted by a structuralist, what technique will she have to use? a. conditioning b. introspection c. psychoanalysis d. hypnosis 118. Kai Fai begins seeing a therapist to cope with a number of stressful life events. The therapist does not focus on his childhood or on any learned behaviours, but rather she emphasizes the importance of Kai Fai’s need for love and acceptance. To which school of thought does this therapist belong? a. functionalism b. behaviourism c. psychoanalytic psychology d. humanism 119. Which area of psychology focuses on human strengths, fulfillment, and creativity? a. forensic psychology b. clinical psychology c. positive psychology d. cognitive psychology 120. What is the focus of the cognitive perspective of psychology? a. the important role of mental processes b. how overt behaviour is modified by environmental influences c. the diversity of human behaviour in different cultural settings d. the motivation of people to grow psychologically 121. Marina is planning a trip to visit the first-ever psychology lab. Where is Marina travelling to? a. Leipzig b. Stanford c. Boston d. Vienna 122. Which of the following topics was John Watson LEAST interested in studying? a. smiling b. helping c. fighting d. thinking 123. Professor Mukherjee is an evolutionary psychologist. Which of the following is she MOST likely to be interested in? a. adaptations b. dreams c. learning d. self-actualization 124. Tim has been asked to write a paper on the history of behaviourism. He will MOST likely include work by which of the following psychologists? a. Watson, Pavlov, and Freud b. Wundt, Skinner, and Pavlov c. Pavlov, Titchener, and Freud d. Pavlov, Watson, and Skinner 125. A focus on the adaptive value of personality is of most relevance to which of the following perspectives? a. evolutionary perspective b. cross-cultural perspective c. psychodynamic perspective d. cognitive perspective 126. Dr. Wu has received approval for her research grant to study the effects of divorce on children aged 5 to 12 in terms of maturational milestones. Dr. Wu is most likely to be which type of psychologist? a. a counselling psychologist b. a social psychologist c. a clinical psychologist d. a developmental psychologist Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 127. Which of the following researchers was a proponent of structuralism? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. Edward Titchener c. Sigmund Freud d. John B. Watson 128. Dr. Hamdani’s research involves asking participants to describe their subjective feelings and thoughts in different settings. What does Dr. Hamdani MOST likely study? a. consciousness b. observable behaviour c. unconsciousness d. social behaviour

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. d 11. c 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. c 26. c

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 27. b 28. a 29. d 30. b 31. c 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. d 43. b 44. a 45. a 46. c 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. b 51. a 52. a 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 55. b 56. a 57. a 58. c 59. c 60. d 61. c 62. a 63. d 64. b 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. b 69. b 70. b 71. c 72. d 73. d 74. a 75. d 76. a 77. d 78. b 79. a 80. b 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 83. c 84. a 85. d 86. a 87. d 88. b 89. d 90. b 91. c 92. a 93. c 94. a 95. a 96. b 97. d 98. a 99. d 100. a 101. b 102. d 103. a 104. d 105. d 106. c 107. a 108. c 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_6ce_Vol 4 111. d 112. b 113. c 114. c 115. d 116. c 117. b 118. d 119. c 120. a 121. a 122. d 123. a 124. d 125. a 126. d 127. b 128. a

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Chap 02_6ce_Case Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following is a hypothesis for Fidan’s experiment? a. If rats are given more access to high calorie treat food they will put on more weight. b. More access to cafeteria style food causes rats to put on more weight. c. There is a correlation between how much access a rat is given to high calorie treat food and their weight. d. The hypothalamus of rats is associated with the consumption of high calorie treat food. 2. Janus wanted to see if people are more attracted to individuals with symmetrical faces compared to individuals with asymmetrical faces. Janus recruited heterosexual male and female participants for his experiment. Janus showed the participants pictures of people whose faces were modified to be more symmetrical or less symmetrical than they actually are and asked the participants to press a green button if they found the picture attractive and a red button if they did not. The participants were shown a single picture at a time and each picture was shown to them for five seconds. Which of the following is a dependent variable in Janus’ experiment? a. The sex of the participants. b. The sexual orientation of the participants. c. The button selections the participants make. d. The picture the participant was shown. 3. What is the dependent variable in Arash’s study? a. The participants’ gender. b. The participants’ eating habits. c. The task difficulty. d. How many Timbits the participant eats. 4. What is Janus’ operational definition of attractiveness? a. The symmetry of a face. b. The likelihood of a participant pressing the green button in response to a face. c. The asymmetry of a face. d. The likelihood of a participant pressing the green button in response to an asymmetrical face. 5. Every day, Fidan weighs each rat. What does it mean when she says one of the rats scores at the 70th percentile of weight? a. The rat has 70% more weight than the average. b. The rat weighs more than 70% of the other rats. c. The rat weighs less than 70% of the other rats. d. The rat weighs more than 30% of the other rats. 6. Castiel’s hypothesis in the experiment is: “If participants watch the _____ video their skin conductance will be ______ than those watching the other video and this will be _____ correlated with their subjective feelings of fear” a. kitten; lower; negatively b. violent; higher; positively c. violent; lower; negatively d. kitten; higher; positively

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Chap 02_6ce_Case Based 7. Arash wants to examine the relationship between stress and eating when someone is on a diet. He recruits an equal number of male and female participants to respond to a questionnaire about their eating habits, their typical mood, and their overall anxiety levels. Arash ensures half of his male participants and half of his female participants are on a diet and the other half are not. After the questionnaire, all participants are randomly assigned to complete one of two tasks. Half of the participants solve a difficult math problem in front of a group of math professors within a certain time limit. The other participants solve a simple arithmetic problem in a waiting area alone, with no time limit. After they perform the task, all participants are asked to complete one more questionnaire about their stress level while sitting next to a box of Timbits. Arash tells the participants to help themselves to the Timbits, and secretly counts how many Timbits the participant actually eats. Which of the following is the most likely to be a hypothesis for Arash’s experiment? a. If someone is on a diet they will eat more when they are stressed. b. Food and stress are positively correlated. c. There is no difference between participants who are and those who are not in a diet. d. Stress is the primary reason why people break their diets. 8. Which of the following is an advantage to Jordan’s study? a. She can accumulate deep knowledge about each child, which will allow her to assess cause-and-effect relationships. b. It is relatively easy to collect systematic and consistent observations and translate it to numerical data. c. It can be a good starting point when little is known about a certain phenomenon. d. There is relatively small chance of having an experimenter or sampling bias. 9. While watching the violent video one of the participants becomes very distressed and asks to leave. What should Castiel do? a. Allow the participant to leave. b. Tell the participant they can’t leave because they signed an informed consent. c. Allow the participant five minutes to calm down and resume the experiment. d. Have the participant watch the kitten video instead. 10. When looking at his results, Castiel notices that a large majority of his participants responded that they generally enjoy watching horror movies. The distribution of these participants in terms of their enjoyment of horror movies would be a ______________. a. symmetrical distribution b. positively skewed distribution c. negatively skewed distribution d. a skewed distribution, but we can’t tell whether it’s positively or negatively skewed unless we see the graph 11. Which of the following represents an operational definition of bullying Jordan could use in her study? a. The aggressive personality traits for each student. b. The number of times a student attempted to assault another student. c. A student’s general aggressive attitude towards other students. d. A combination of a student’s general aggressive attitude and how the other students viewed them.

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Chap 02_6ce_Case Based 12. In order to avoid experimenter bias, which of the following phrases should Rhea NOT use when asking the participants who sat down the chair and broke it? a. “Did you break the chair?” b. “Why did you break the chair?” c. “Do you know what happened to the chair?” d. “Did someone else walk in and break the chair?” 13. Castiel measured the participants’ general violent tendencies in an attempt to control for ________. a. participants’ reactivity levels b. extraneous variables c. confounding variables d. response bias 14. Jordan is a developmental psychologist who studies bullying and aggression in elementary school students. Her days often consist of spending time in the schoolyard with the children and making careful notes of their interactions. She pays particular attention to incidents of bullying in the schoolyard and is trying to find personality characteristics that are associated with bullying. In her most recent study, she found that being a bully is negatively correlated with academic performance at the 0.05 level of significance. What type of research is Jordan conducting? a. Experimental b. Naturalistic Observation c. Case Study d. Direct Observation 15. Which of the following was the control group in Jordan’s latest study? a. The students who were not aggressive. b. The students who were aggressive. c. The students who were aggressive, but had good grades. d. There was no control group. 16. Which of the following is a possible confounding variable? a. The participants’ sex b. The participants’ sexual orientation. c. The participants’ own appearance. d. The participants’ culture and ethnicity. 17. What is the independent variable in Arash’s study? a. The participants’ gender. b. The participants’ eating habits. c. The task difficulty. d. How many Timbits the participant eats. 18. Which of the following is NOT likely to be a confounding variable in Arash’s experiment? a. The gender of the participants b. The math skill of the participants c. The dietary restrictions of the participants d. The shyness level of the participants 19. What could Rhea do to avoid experimenter bias? a. Have someone else ask participants what happened to the chair. b. Talk only to the participants in the control group. c. Ensure an equal number of male and female participants. d. Avoid looking in the participants’ eyes when she talks to them.

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Chap 02_6ce_Case Based 20. Which of the following is the independent variable in Janus’ study? a. The sex of the participants. b. The sexual orientation of the participants. c. The button selections the participants make. d. The photos each participant was shown. 21. What is the independent variable in Rhea’s experiment? a. The participants’ scores in the honesty survey. b. Whether or not the participants lied after the chair broke. c. Whether the participant or the confederate broke the chair. d. How sincere the participants looked when they lied, if they lied. 22. Rhea is in graduate school studying social psychology and is doing research on the social desirability bias. In her experiment, participants are first asked to fill out a survey about how honest they are. They are then told to take a seat in the hallway (where there is only one chair) before the next part of their experiment. Unbeknownst to the participants, the chair is modified and will break the moment someone sits on it. Also, the waiting room is being filmed by a hidden camera. Half of the participants sit on the chair and break it. For the other half of the participants, a confederate walks in at the same time as the participant and sits on the chair before the participant has the chance. The confederate breaks the chair and leaves immediately after without saying anything to the participant. In both cases, after 10 minutes, Rhea comes out and asks the participant about the chair and records whether they lied or not. According to the social desirability bias, participants will typically score _______________. a. higher on the honesty measure in the survey compared to the interview b. lower on the honesty measure in the survey compared to the interview c. the same on the honesty measure in the survey compared to the interview d. in a manner that is correlated with their personality and not with other participants’ responses 23. What type of testing is the skin conductance test Castiel performed on the participants? a. Psychometric b. Neuroscientific c. Medical d. Physiological 24. Jordan’s results in her latest study are _____________. a. statistically significant b. theoretically significant c. practically significant d. statistically, theoretically, and practically significant 25. Which is the control group in the study? a. Participants who watched the violent video. b. Participants who watched the kitten video. c. Participants who watched the violent video and had low violent tendency scores. d. Participants who watched the kitty video and had low violent tendency scores.

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Chap 02_6ce_Case Based 26. To reduce the chance of reactivity Jordan should ________________. a. observe the children from a distance and not interact with them b. tell the children that she is studying something unrelated to what she is actually studying c. get to know each child personally before she starts observing them d. talk to the teachers in advance so she knows which students to pay more attention to 27. What was the dependent variable in Fidan’s experiment? a. The amount of time the rats had access to high-calorie treat food. b. The type of food the rats consumed. c. The group each rat belonged to. d. The weight of the rats at the end of the experiment. 28. Castiel is a psychologist who is interested in seeing how autonomic nervous system responses are related to subjective feelings of fear. Half the participants in Castiel’s experiment watch a 10-minute graphic and violent video and the other half watch a 10-minute video of a baby kitten. While the participants are watching the video, Castiel gathers measurements of their skin conductance. After they finish watching the video the participants answer a questionnaire about their level of fear after watching the video as well as how they generally react to horror movies. In Castiel’s experiment what is the independent variable? a. The participants’ skin conductance. b. The video the participants watched. c. The participants’ general attitude towards horror movies. d. The participants’ sex. 29. One of the teachers wants to talk to Jordan about the students. What should Jordan do? a. Listen to the teacher and include the teacher’s opinion in her data. b. Avoid talking to the teacher to eliminate the possibility of experimenter bias. c. Recruit the teacher to make observations about the students with her. d. Avoid talking to the teacher due to ethical concerns. 30. Before dividing his participants into those who watched violent videos versus those who watched kitten videos, Castiel notices that the distribution of his participants’ skin conductance scores appears to be normal. The distribution of these participants in terms of their skin conductance would be a ________. a. symmetrical distribution b. positively skewed distribution c. negatively skewed distribution d. a skewed distribution, but we can’t tell whether it’s positively or negatively skewed unless we see the graph. 31. What is an advantage of the type of study Arash performed? a. It is easy and fast to perform such a study. b. You can get a lot of detailed information about the participants. c. You can establish causal relationships between variables. d. Any change in the dependent variable is entirely due to the independent variable(s).

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Chap 02_6ce_Case Based 32. The control group in Arash’s experiment includes only the _____ who performed the ___ math task. a. dieters; easy b. dieters; difficult c. non-dieters; easy d. non-dieters; difficult 33. When performing a statistical analysis of acts of aggression she observed, Jordan plots her data against aggressive personality traits and notices a positively skewed distribution. This means that Bob (who has the most aggressive traits of any child in the schoolyard) instigated ______________________. a. more acts of aggression than other students at the school b. fewer acts of aggression than other students at the school c. exactly the same amount of acts of aggression as other students at the school d. acts of aggression, but we cannot make any inferences based only on the shape of the distribution 34. How are the participants most likely going to react after they find out about the deception? a. They will experience significant distress. b. They will find it amusing and laugh about it. c. They will be less likely to participate in other psychology experiments. d. They will be very angry and aggressive towards Rhea. 35. Fidan is studying a model of obesity. For her experiment, Fidan uses three groups of 31 rats each that are given either (1) 24-hour access to high calorie treat food in addition to their normal chow, (2) restricted 8-hour access to high calorie treat food and 24-hour access to their normal chow, or (3) 24-hour access to only their normal chow. Every day, Fidan weighs the animals and carefully takes note of the amount and type of food each animal has consumed. At the end of the experiment, Fidan performs surgery on all the animals and notices that the animals that put on the most weight showed noticeable differences in their hypothalamus compared to the rest of the rats. Which is the control group in Fidan’s experiment? a. The rats that had 24-hour access to both high calorie treat food and their normal chow. b. The rats that had restricted access to high calorie treat food and unlimited access to their normal chow. c. The rats that had unlimited access only to their normal chow. d. There was no control group. 36. The correlation between the number of Timbits the participants ate and how stressed they reported feeling is +0.70. What does this mean? a. There is not enough information given to answer the question. b. Participants who were most stressed generally ate more Timbits. c. Participants who were least stressed generally ate more Timbits. d. Participants ate a lot of Timbits regardless of how stressed they felt. 37. Janus found a strong positive correlation between face symmetry and how attractive the face was perceived by participants. This means that __________________________. a. humans are more likely to be attracted to someone with a symmetrical face b. humans will not be attracted to someone unless they have a symmetrical face c. Face symmetry is the most important factor in human attraction d. if you have a symmetrical face it will be easier to get a date

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Chap 02_6ce_Case Based 38. Arash found that regardless of whether the female participants were on a diet or not, there was a correlation of +0.70 between their reported stress level and the number of Timbits they ate. This is an example of a _____ correlation. a. strong b. moderate c. weak d. significant 39. What should Rhea do after the end of the experiment? a. Have the participants sign a confidentiality agreement. b. Debrief the participants about the deception. c. Make sure not to mention the deception to avoid sample bias. d. Offer the participants a monetary reward in exchange for their suffering. 40. Which of the following represents the mode in Fidan’s experiment? a. The weight that the most rats had at the end of the experiment. b. The weight of the heaviest rat at the end of the experiment. c. The weight that exactly half the rats have at the end of the experiment. d. The weight that was equal to the central point of the weight distribution. 41. Which of the following is an accurate representation of Jordan’s findings in her latest study? a. Being a bully causes a child to have bad grades. b. Having bad grades causes a child to be a bully. c. There is an association between being a bully and having low grades. d. There is no significant association between being a bully and having low grades. 42. What type of research did Janus perform? a. Naturalistic observation. b. Experimental. c. Psychometric test. d. Physiological test. 43. In Castiel’s experiment what is the dependent variable? a. The participants’ skin conductance. b. The video the participants watched. c. The participants’ criminal record. d. The participants’ sex. 44. What type of study is Arash conducting? a. Naturalistic observation b. Case study c. Survey d. Experiment 45. Castiel analyzes his results and comes to the conclusion that there is a strong positive correlation between subjective feelings of fear and autonomic nervous system response. What would be his next step? a. Present his data at a conference. b. Publish his data in a scientific journal. c. Obtain ethics approval. d. Publish his data in a textbook.

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Chap 02_6ce_Case Based 46. What is the dependent variable in Rhea’s experiment? a. The participants’ scores in the honesty survey. b. Whether or not the participants lied after the chair broke. c. Whether or not the chair would break. d. How sincere the participants looked when they lied. 47. Which of the following is widely considered the greatest limitation in Jordan’s experiment? a. The halo effect, which leads Jordan to be too lenient when she rates children’s aggressive behaviours. b. Jordan does not know the children well enough to make inferences about their behaviours. c. Jordan cannot reliably explain any patterns of behaviour she might observe. d. The setting where Jordan makes her observations is contrived and relatively artificial. 48. Which of the following represents the median weight of all the rats in Fidan’s experiment? a. The weight that the most rats had at the end of the experiment. b. The weight of the heaviest rat at the end of the experiment. c. The weight of the 47th heaviest rat at the end of the experiment. d. The weight that was equal to the central point of the weight distribution.

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Chap 02_6ce_Case Based Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. b 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. c 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. b 26. a

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Chap 02_6ce_Case Based 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. c 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. a 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. c

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Dr. Amalie Dr. Amalie is a social psychologist who is interested in the effects of group size on efficiency and on the satisfaction of individual group members. In a study conducted by Dr. Amalie’s research team, three different group sizes were used. Large groups had 20 people, medium groups had ten people, and small groups had four people. There were ten sessions run with each type of group, and each group contained different individuals, so the total number of groups was 30 and the total number of participants was 340. All participants were students at the school where Dr. Amalie works. The groups were told that they needed to come to agreement about which movie to select for an upcoming student movie night. The time that it took each group to come to a decision was recorded. Afterward, each subject was asked to rate their satisfaction with the group’s decision (on a scale from 1 to 10, where 10 is totally satisfied). The results were as follows: Mean time required to come to an agreement (all differences are statistically significant): Large groups: 20.7 minutes Medium groups: 16.4 minutes Small groups: 10.3 minutes Mean satisfaction rating for individuals (all differences are statistically significant): In large groups: 4.6 In medium groups: 7.5 In small groups: 8.8 1. What is the independent variable in this study? a. satisfaction of individual group members b. efficiency, as measured by speed of decision making c. group size d. comparing multiple groups 2. What is an extraneous variable? a. the same thing as a dependent variable b. a variable, other than the independent variable, that may influence the dependent variable c. a variable that is completely irrelevant to both the independent and dependent variables d. a variable that affects the control group but not the experimental group

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 3. There is a relationship between the frequency of electrical brain waves and how deeply asleep a person is, with deep sleep being associated with low-frequency waves. Which of the following statements is true? a. This represents a positive correlation. b. This represents a negative correlation. c. There is no correlation between the variables. d. This represents a spurious correlation. 4. Dr. Malm predicts that if teachers ignore students who act up in class, fewer students will act up in class. What is the scientific term for Dr. Malm’s prediction? a. operational definition b. inferential statistics c. hypothesis d. theory 5. To determine whether students would like more courses scheduled in the late-afternoon and evening hours, the Student Services department sends questionnaires to 50 students selected at random from the 5,000 who are registered at the campus. In this instance, what do we call the 5,000 students who are registered at the campus? a. an independent variable b. the biased sample c. the population d. the representative sample 6. What do we call the tendency to respond to questions in a manner unrelated to the content of a question? a. placebo effect b. experimenter bias c. response set d. social desirability bias 7. Suppose a researcher discovered a +0.87 correlation between the length of a person’s toes and the number of shoes the person owns. In general, who would you predict to own the most shoes? a. people with large toes b. people with medium-sized toes c. people with either very large or very small toes d. people with small toes 8. What do researchers do when conducting descriptive or correlational research? a. They simultaneously manipulate two or more independent variables. b. They systematically describe patterns of behaviour and discover relationships among variables. c. They manipulate a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observe whether there are changes in a second variable as a result. d. They expose subjects to two closely related treatment conditions. 9. Keagan believes that he is testing a new dietary supplement (B12-Bomberz) containing large amounts of vitamin B12, which is intended to help boost energy and mood. In reality, all participants were given flavoured water. During the testing session, a confederate of the researcher who is pretending to be a participant exclaims, “Wow! I feel better already.” Which of the following is this study likely examining? a. the effects of confirming social influence on the placebo effect b. the effects of response set on the placebo effect c. the effects of social desirability bias on the placebo effect d. the effects of sampling bias on the placebo effect Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 10. What is the median of the following set of numbers: 1, 2, 2, 3, 4, 4, 4? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 11. Carmella is in a class where the scores on the second midterm exam ranged from 75 to 85 points. Conrad is taking the same course, but in his section the scores ranged from 50 to 98 points. In this example, what can be said about the standard deviations in the two classes? a. The standard deviation will be lower in Carmella’s class. b. The standard deviations will be negatively correlated. c. The standard deviation will be less predictable in Carmella’s class. d. The standard deviation will be higher in Carmella’s class. 12. Dr. Shingwauk designed an experiment in which participants listened to a persuasive speech delivered either by a very tall person or a person of average height. In addition, the speeches were delivered by people wearing either business clothes or casual clothes. Dr. Shingwauk asked listeners to fill out a survey about impressions of the speaker’s credibility. In this study, what is Dr. Shingwauk looking to determine? a. Does a double-blind procedure lead to greater credibility of speakers, independent of the effects of appearance? b. Do height and clothing style interact to influence judgments of credibility? c. Does persuasion interact with any other factors? d. Does persuasion influence our perception of height and clothing? Dr. Elford Dr. Elford is interested in the effects of cellphone use on driving performance. To measure driving performance, he will count traffic violations committed while participants drive in a simulator. Participants in the study will be randomly selected to be in the cellphone condition or the no cellphone condition while driving. Dr. Elford will then compare the results of the groups to assess whether there is a statistically significant difference between the conditions. 13. By having half of his participants drive in the simulator without a cellphone, Dr. Elford has created which of the following? a. the control group b. the experimental group c. the sample d. the comparison group 14. Muhammed received a score of 65 on his midterm exam. The class’s scores were normally distributed, with an average of 35 and standard deviation of 15. Muhammed scored higher than approximately what percentage of the class? a. 68 percent b. 84 percent c. 95 percent d. 97.5 percent 15. Which of the following studies mentioned in the textbook did NOT involve naturalistic observation? a. plate size and food consumption at buffets b. mothers’ use of physical punishment at home c. the social and family life of chimpanzees in the wild d. experiences of crime victimization in Canada Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 16. Dr. Arnold conducted a study where he found significant results. Dr. Bernhardt found those results interesting, and he conducted the same study in his own lab but did not find significant results. After discussing their results at a conference, the two researchers found a few minor differences between their procedures that could explain their different results. This led to the development of new theories. What aspect of scientific evaluation is depicted in this series of events? a. peer-reviewed publication b. experimenter bias c. meta-analysis d. replication 17. What is a disadvantage of the experimental method? a. Experiments often can’t be done for practical or ethical reasons. b. Only one variable can be studied at a time. c. Length of time necessary to complete the study. d. Inability to generate cause-and-effect conclusions. 18. A group of researchers wanted to determine if people will eat more food in a room that is decorated with red than in a room that is decorated with blue. Half the participants in this study ate in a red room and half ate in a blue room. The researchers then measured how much food was consumed in each of the two rooms. What is the independent variable in this study? a. the colour of the decorations in the room b. the amount of food consumed in the red room c. the amount of food consumed in the blue room d. the participants in each group 19. Mice who received caffeine in their diets made fewer errors in a maze-running task than mice who had not received caffeine. What does this suggest about the use of caffeine and maze-running errors among mice? a. They are positively correlated. b. They are weakly correlated. c. They are uncorrelated. d. They are negatively correlated. 20. Suppose a researcher discovered a strong negative correlation between the length of people’s hair and the amount of money they paid for their automobile. In general, what could you predict about people’s hair length if you know that they paid very little for their cars? a. They have very long hair. b. They have either very long or very short hair. c. They have mid-length hair. d. They have very short hair. 21. Your research supervisor has asked you to provide “disconfirming social influence” for a group of test subjects who believe that they are receiving a mood-boosting drug but who are actually receiving a placebo. Which of the following should you do? a. Introduce yourself to the participants as the research assistant, and tell them about the drug. b. Pretend to be a participant and exclaim, “I feel better already!” c. Pretend to be a participant and exclaim, “I don’t feel any different!” d. Do not enter the room, and record participant responses discretely from another room.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 Dr. Elford Dr. Elford is interested in the effects of cellphone use on driving performance. To measure driving performance, he will count traffic violations committed while participants drive in a simulator. Participants in the study will be randomly selected to be in the cellphone condition or the no cellphone condition while driving. Dr. Elford will then compare the results of the groups to assess whether there is a statistically significant difference between the conditions. 22. Which of the following is a potential extraneous variable in Dr. Elford’s study? a. driving performance b. traffic violations c. cellphone (or not) while driving d. previous driving experience 23. As outlined in the textbook, Elliot et al. (2013) predicted that “female participants would be more likely to choose a red shirt over other shirt colours to wear when they anticipated meeting with an attractive male student.” This is an example of which of the following? a. a theory b. an operational definition c. a hypothesis d. an experiment 24. What is an underlying goal typical of theory construction? a. to guide future research by generating new hypotheses b. to obtain concrete findings that are accepted by other scientists c. to initiate a standard step-like process that quickly moves toward the truth d. to complete a circular process that is self-fulfilling 25. To discover whether residents of a city are in favour of building a new sports stadium, the team’s owner randomly selected and interviewed 500 of the city’s 500,000 residents. In this instance, what do we call the 500 people whom the owner interviewed? a. the representative sample b. the biased sample c. the population d. the dependent variable 26. Which of the following issues is common to both anecdotal evidence and self-report data? a. social desirability bias b. response set c. sampling bias

d. reactivity

27. Dr. Kincaid was interested in the topic of musical genius. In the initial part of the investigation, Dr. Kincaid carefully observed and compiled detailed files on three individuals who were musical geniuses. What sort of research is Dr. Kincaid conducting? a. correlational b. survey c. naturalistic observation d. case study

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 28. Dr. Karbani is interested in whether emotional support affects the brain’s response to stressful situations. He asks participants to hold hands with someone during a stressful task and finds that the closer the bond between a participant and their handholding partner, the less activation there was in the amygdala (a brain region linked to stress). Which of the following does this suggests? a. Emotional support and handholding are negatively correlated. b. Emotional support and the brain’s stress response are positively correlated. c. Emotional support and handholding are positively correlated. d. Emotional support and the brain’s stress response are negatively correlated. 29. What does the W stand for in WEIRD societies? a. Western b. White c. Well-educated d. Wealthy 30. In the United States, from 1932 to 1972, a group of Black men who had syphilis were enrolled in a study but were never told they had the disease, nor were they ever treated for it. This was a case of ethical abuse in the history of clinical research. What was the name of the study? a. Georgia STD Experiment b. Tulsa Syphilis Investigation c. Tuskegee Syphilis Study d. New York Longitudinal STD Study 31. If you wanted to predict test scores based on amount of time spent studying, which statistic would you need to use? a. variance b. correlation coefficient c. standard deviation d. central tendency 32. A researcher wants to see if a protein-enriched diet will enhance the maze-running performance of rats. One group of rats is fed the high-protein diet for the duration of the study; the other group continues to receive standard rat food. What types of groups are represented in this study? a. The high-protein group is an experimental group; the standard food group is a control group. b. Both groups are experimental groups. c. Both groups are control groups. d. The high-protein group is a control group; the standard food group is an experimental group. 33. Which goals of science are reflected in the use of reinforcement principles to modify a child’s unruly behaviour? a. understanding and prediction b. application and control c. measurement and description d. testing and reporting 34. What is an independent variable in an experiment? a. a variable that provides an alternative explanation for the results of the experiment b. a variable that is held constant across experimental conditions c. a variable that the experimenter believes will change in value because of systematic correlations that exist in the experiment d. a variable deliberately manipulated by the experimenter

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 35. Imagine that a group of researchers conducted a study designed to test the effectiveness of subliminal-

message weight-loss tapes. Suppose the researchers found that everyone lost weight during the study, even those who were given tapes without any subliminal messages. What could we conclude from the results? a. The independent and dependent variables in the study are negatively correlated. b. There is evidence that the study contained confounding variables. c. There is evidence of a placebo effect. d. Subliminal tapes are effective in promoting weight loss. 36. There is a relationship between the frequency of electrical brain waves and how deeply asleep a person is, with deep sleep being associated with low-frequency waves. Suppose a researcher discovered an underlying subcortical brain structure caused both deeper sleep and the change in brain waves. This would suggest that the correlation is which of the following? a. subject to the third-variable problem b. subject to the bidirectionality problem c. subject to the extraneous variable problem d. subject to the non-representativeness problem 37. What is a scientific journal? a. a personal diary kept by a scientist b. a detailed record of the daily procedures followed in conducting a study c. a periodical that publishes technical and scholarly articles d. a collection of biographies of famous scientists 38. What is a major advantage of case studies? a. Case studies are high in generalizability. b. Case studies allow for precise control of extraneous variables. c. Case studies permit conclusions about cause and effect. d. Case studies are good for studying rare events or phenomena. 39. Psychology researchers publish the results of their studies so that other experts can evaluate and scrutinize those results. Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by this practice? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 40. Any measurable characteristics of a participant, such as IQ, caffeine consumption, age, income level, or colour preferences, could be considered as which of the following in a psychological study? a. a variable b. a sample c. a descriptive statistic d. a response set

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 41. In an investigation of the effects of caffeine on concentration, half the participants were given colas that contained caffeine and half were given decaffeinated colas. In this study, what is decaffeinated cola? a. a random factor b. a confounding variable c. a dependent variable d. a placebo 42. A researcher has prepared a report of their results and submits this report to a leading scientific journal. Because of the demanding peer review process, approximately which of the following percentages of articles will be accepted by this journal? a. 10 percent b. 25 percent c. 33 percent d. 50 percent 43. Cheryl has been feeling anxious and decides to visit a psychologist. The psychologist suggests that Cheryl’s anxiety might be caused by the fact that her self-image (i.e., the person she sees herself as being) is not the same as who she feels she “should” be. This speculation is most related to which of the following goals of psychological research? a. testing and reporting b. measurement and description c. application and control d. understanding and prediction 44. Several researchers are working on different experiments that are designed to test whether a person’s confidence can be changed over time. They want to be able to compare their results when they are done. They agree that they will all use the same test in order to measure confidence. What have the researchers done? a. They agreed to use the same independent variable. b. They agreed to use the same hypothesis. c. They agreed on an operational definition of confidence. d. They agreed to remove a confounding variable. 45. Which of the following is NOT one of the arguments that critics have used against the use of deception in psychological research? a. Lying is inherently immoral. b. Subjects may feel foolish when the true purpose of the study is revealed. c. The results of studies that use deception are inaccurate and untrustworthy. d. The subjects’ ability to trust others may be undermined.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1

Dr. Amalie Dr. Amalie is a social psychologist who is interested in the effects of group size on efficiency and on the satisfaction of individual group members. In a study conducted by Dr. Amalie’s research team, three different group sizes were used. Large groups had 20 people, medium groups had ten people, and small groups had four people. There were ten sessions run with each type of group, and each group contained different individuals, so the total number of groups was 30 and the total number of participants was 340. All participants were students at the school where Dr. Amalie works. The groups were told that they needed to come to agreement about which movie to select for an upcoming student movie night. The time that it took each group to come to a decision was recorded. Afterward, each subject was asked to rate their satisfaction with the group’s decision (on a scale from 1 to 10, where 10 is totally satisfied). The results were as follows: Mean time required to come to an agreement (all differences are statistically significant): Large groups: 20.7 minutes Medium groups: 16.4 minutes Small groups: 10.3 minutes Mean satisfaction rating for individuals (all differences are statistically significant): In large groups: 4.6 In medium groups: 7.5 In small groups: 8.8 46. What conclusion can you draw from the results of this study? a. Smaller groups are more likely to be influenced by the opinion of one individual. b. Group size is confounded with satisfaction ratings. c. Medium-sized groups have only a moderate amount of disagreement. d. Larger groups take longer to come to a decision. Dr. Elford Dr. Elford is interested in the effects of cellphone use on driving performance. To measure driving performance, he will count traffic violations committed while participants drive in a simulator. Participants in the study will be randomly selected to be in the cellphone condition or the no cellphone condition while driving. Dr. Elford will then compare the results of the groups to assess whether there is a statistically significant difference between the conditions. 47. Which of the following is the dependent variable in Dr. Elford’s study? a. driving performance b. traffic violations c. cellphone (or not) while driving d. previous driving experience

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 48. Jolyn believed that there were gender differences in driving habits. To test this hypothesis, she stood near a quiet intersection. Jolyn recorded the gender of each driver who approached a stop sign, and also whether the individual came to a complete stop before proceeding into the intersection. What sort of research is Jolyn conducting? a. psychological testing b. naturalistic observation c. experiment with two dependent variables d. case study research 49. Holden and colleagues (2014) were interested in the use and efficacy of physical punishment in disciplining young children. They asked 33 mothers to wear unobtrusive, portable audio recorders in the evening until their children fell asleep. Which of the following types of research design is this? a. naturalistic observation b. case study c. archival research d. correlational 50. Of the following pairs, which pair contains two data-collection techniques that are most likely to involve direct contact between the researcher and the research participant? a. direct observation and interviews b. questionnaires and interviews c. archival research and questionnaires d. archival research and psychological testing 51. If Dr. Patry has tested a hypothesis and the findings have failed to support the hypothesis, what influence will this have on Dr. Patry’s theory? a. It will support the theory because hypotheses attempt to disprove theories. b. It will have little effect on the theory because hypotheses are merely predictions based on the theory. c. It will require that the theory be reconsidered because hypotheses allow the theory to be tested. d. It will cause the theory to be rejected because the hypothesis, and therefore the theory, is unsupported. Dr. Elford Dr. Elford is interested in the effects of cellphone use on driving performance. To measure driving performance, he will count traffic violations committed while participants drive in a simulator. Participants in the study will be randomly selected to be in the cellphone condition or the no cellphone condition while driving. Dr. Elford will then compare the results of the groups to assess whether there is a statistically significant difference between the conditions. 52. Which of the following is the operational definition of the dependent variable in Dr. Elford’s study? a. driving performance b. traffic violations c. cellphone (or not) while driving d. previous driving experience 53. Wansink and van Ittersum (2013) found that choosing a larger plate at a buffet restaurant was associated with greater food consumption. Which of the following causal statements is an example of the third-variable problem with respect to this correlation? a. Selecting a larger plate caused people to eat more. b. Greater hunger caused some people to eat more. c. Greater hunger caused some people to select a larger plate. d. Greater hunger caused some people to both eat more and select a larger plate. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 54. Melvin and Leigh are interviewing students at their campus to determine if the students agree or disagree with a proposed policy change. Melvin believes the proposed policy change is a good idea, but Leigh believes the change will be bad for students. Nearly all the students who Melvin interviewed supported the policy change, but nearly all the students who Leigh interviewed disapproved of the change. What research problem could account for the different results? a. placebo effects b. response set c. confounded dependent variables d. experimenter bias 55. Terry’s midterm test score falls at the 10th percentile. How many classmates scored the same or lower than Terry? a. 0 percent b. 10 percent c. 90 percent d. 100 percent 56. Which of the following is present in most research studies but absent in meta-analysis? a. statistical analysis b. direct contact with participants c. a sample d. data 57. Which of the following is an operational definition of aggression? a. Aggression is an emotional response rather than a cognitive response. b. Aggression is caused by fear. c. Aggression will lead victims to become more aggressive. d. Aggression is measured by the number of times one person hits another person. 58. What is the score that falls exactly in the centre of a distribution of scores, such that half the scores fall below that score and half the scores fall above it? a. median b. mean c. standard deviation d. mode 59. Which goal of science is most closely associated with determining how to measure fear or identify lying? a. understanding and prediction b. measurement and description c. application and control d. testing and reporting 60. In 1861, Paul Broca visited a patient who was nicknamed “Tan” because he was unable to clearly speak any other word. Broca found that Tan had suffered speech loss but no loss of comprehension or mental function. Ultimately, Broca learned a good deal about the brain through this patient, including discovering the most widely studied language centre of the brain. Which of the following types of research method does this describe? a. naturalistic observation b. experimental design c. correlational research d. case study 61. Dr. Pine is testing a new drug and has a placebo-control group. When he provides the drugs to patients and when he interviews them about side effects, he never knows whether the patient got the drug or the placebo. What is the most likely reason that Dr. Pine chose this type of research design? a. It reduces the impact of experimenter bias. b. It prevents the halo effect. c. It minimizes the possibility of self-report bias. d. It ensures that the sample is not biased. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 62. Dr. Hugo designs an experiment to test the effectiveness of a new antidepressant. Half of the participants will receive the drug and half will receive a sugar pill, but neither the participants nor the researchers who administer the drug will know who is receiving the drug and who is receiving the sugar pill. What has Dr. Hugo designed? a. a double-blind research study b. an unethical research procedure c. a study that will minimize self-report bias d. an experimental study with two confounded variables 63. A large study of racism in Canada, mentioned in the textbook, concluded that compared to other minority ethnic groups, Indigenous Peoples were seen as experiencing the most discrimination. Forty percent of the respondents reported experiencing racism at work. Which of the following data collection techniques would most likely have been used in this study? a. direct observation b. questionnaire c. psychological testing d. physiological recording 64. The Ministry of Health found that people who used diet drugs had more heart valve defects than people who had not taken any diet drug. Which statement best reflects this finding? a. Heart valve defects and diet drug use are independent of one another. b. Heart valve defects are positively correlated with the use of diet drugs. c. Heart valve defects and use of diet drugs are negatively correlated. d. Heart valve defects and diet drug use are interactive variables, with no correlational relationship. 65. Braeden received a poor performance evaluation in his job last year. Since then, Braeden has started working through his lunch hour, taken on four special projects, and enrolled in night classes to upgrade his computer skills. Why will it be hard for Braeden to figure out the cause if he receives a better evaluation at his next performance? a. He failed to use a double-blind procedure to test his hypothesis. b. None of the actions he took are likely to be related to his overall job performance. c. The three actions he took are confounded with each other. d. He didn’t formulate a research hypothesis before implementing the changes. 66. Any scientific article that is to be published in an academic journal must go through a rigorous evaluation by experts in the field. What is this essential feature of error control in science called? a. peer review b. replication c. a single-blind procedure d. empiricism

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Dr. Amalie Dr. Amalie is a social psychologist who is interested in the effects of group size on efficiency and on the satisfaction of individual group members. In a study conducted by Dr. Amalie’s research team, three different group sizes were used. Large groups had 20 people, medium groups had ten people, and small groups had four people. There were ten sessions run with each type of group, and each group contained different individuals, so the total number of groups was 30 and the total number of participants was 340. All participants were students at the school where Dr. Amalie works. The groups were told that they needed to come to agreement about which movie to select for an upcoming student movie night. The time that it took each group to come to a decision was recorded. Afterward, each subject was asked to rate their satisfaction with the group’s decision (on a scale from 1 to 10, where 10 is totally satisfied). The results were as follows: Mean time required to come to an agreement (all differences are statistically significant): Large groups: 20.7 minutes Medium groups: 16.4 minutes Small groups: 10.3 minutes Mean satisfaction rating for individuals (all differences are statistically significant): In large groups: 4.6 In medium groups: 7.5 In small groups: 8.8 67. What is a measure of central tendency from this study? a. The satisfaction rating for large groups is 4.6. b. The difference in decision time between small groups and large groups is 10.4 minutes. c. There was a total of 340 participants in the study. d. The range of potential satisfaction scores is from 1 to 10. 68. How do subjects tend to answer questions about themselves when they are being influenced by the social desirability bias? a. in a socially approved manner b. in a socially rebellious manner c. by agreeing with nearly every statement d. by answering in a selfish manner 69. What method is often used to control for experimenter bias effects in research? a. non-representative sample b. placebo control group c. socially desirable procedure d. double-blind procedure

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 70. In which section of a journal article would you look for the hypotheses for a research study? a. results b. methodology c. references d. introduction 71. What is a hypothesis? a. a conclusion drawn from an experiment b. a system by which an experiment is designed c. a system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations d. a tentative statement about the relationship between two or more variables 72. As the size of a crowd increases, people are less likely to help someone who is in distress. What is the relationship between the number of people in a crowd and the likelihood of helping? a. They are negatively correlated. b. They are indirectly correlated. c. They are uncorrelated. d. They are positively correlated. 73. What is the benefit of reading an abstract? a. It can be quickly scanned to determine whether the rest of the article is relevant for your purposes. b. It shows a detailed description of the research methods that the researchers used. c. It provides you with all of the results and detailed statistics, so you can determine whether the results are significant. d. It summarizes all the research that led the researchers to their current hypothesis. 74. Masali conducted a study in which she measured the response time for males and females to complete a spatial task. She found that the mean response time was 1.48 minutes for males and 1.63 minutes for females. What must Masali do to be confident that an actual difference exists between males and females? a. calculate a correlation coefficient b. calculate an inferential statistic c. obtain a larger sample d. evaluate the descriptive statistics Dr. Elford Dr. Elford is interested in the effects of cellphone use on driving performance. To measure driving performance, he will count traffic violations committed while participants drive in a simulator. Participants in the study will be randomly selected to be in the cellphone condition or the no cellphone condition while driving. Dr. Elford will then compare the results of the groups to assess whether there is a statistically significant difference between the conditions. 75. Statistically speaking, if Dr. Elford concludes that there is a statistically significant difference between the conditions in driving performance, this would involve which of the following? a. accepting the null hypothesis b. accepting the alternative hypothesis c. rejecting the null hypothesis d. rejecting the alternative hypothesis 76. Dr. Virjee is interested in the effects of alcohol intoxication on reaction time in a driving simulator. He chooses to measure intoxication by asking participants to walk in a straight line and counting the number of missteps they make. This is an example of which of the following? a. a hypothesis b. an operational definition c. a confound d. an extraneous variable Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 77. A researcher found that clients who were randomly assigned to same-gender groups participated more in group therapy sessions than clients who were randomly assigned to mixed-gender groups. In this experiment, what is the dependent variable? a. whether or not the group was mixed-gender b. how much the clients’ mental health improved c. the clients’ attitudes toward group therapy d. the amount of participation in the group therapy sessions 78. Meier et al. (2016) examined the link between social media (Facebook) and procrastination among students. Which of the following was NOT one of their findings? a. Students often use social media as a way to delay working on academic assignments. b. Facebook-related procrastination was highest among students with poor self-control. c. For some, social media use should be viewed as a new subtype of addictive disorder. d. Social media-related procrastination was high among students who habitually checked these platforms. 79. Dr. Macator predicts that people will act more aggressively during the heat waves of summer than they will during the cold spells of winter. Which statement best reflects Dr. Macator’s prediction? a. Temperature and aggression are uncorrelated. b. Temperature and aggression are negatively correlated. c. Temperature and aggression are positively correlated. d. Temperature is independently correlated with aggression. 80. A psychologist monitors changes in the subject’s heart rate as the subject watches a violent movie. What is this data-collection technique called? a. archival records b. direct observation c. psychological testing d. physiological recording 81. Of the following, which correlation coefficient indicates the weakest relationship between the two variables being measured? a. +0.95 b. +0.01 c. –0.69 d. –4.50 82. Paul just completed data analysis for his recent study, and the inferential statistics reveal that there is a 0.04 probability that his results occurred by chance. What can Paul state about his study? a. The results are meaningful. b. The results are statistically significant. c. The results are inconclusive. d. The results are unreliable. 83. You’ve been keeping records of your car’s gas consumption for the past three years. In which situation would you use inferential statistics? a. You want to know your car’s average gas consumption. b. You want to know how variable gas consumption is from month to month for your car. c. You want to know the highest and lowest consumption across the three years. d. You want to know whether winter consumption is significantly different from summer consumption.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 84. Which type of research allows psychologists to study the widest range of phenomena? a. descriptive research b. introspective research c. developmental research d. experimental research 85. Elliot and Maier (2012, 2014) used a handful of concepts, such as past associations with previous colours (e.g., red to mark errors or for stop signs) and the adaptive significance of some colours (e.g., red for blood or orange for fire) to create a broader ____________, which purports to explain a diverse array of findings by claiming that colour might have unconscious effects on our behaviour. a. theory b. operational definition c. experiment d. hypothesis 86. A group of students are administered a series of written questions designed to assess their attitudes, opinions, and behaviour related to studying. What is this method called? a. a psychological test b. a questionnaire c. a paper-based interview d. a direct observation 87. Cheryl’s score on her midterm exam was 70 percent. The professor announces that the exam scores were normally distributed, with an average of 60 percent and a standard deviation of 10 percent. Approximately what percentage of the class scored higher than Cheryl on the exam? a. 2.5 percent b. 5 percent c. 16 percent d. 34 percent

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 Dr. Elford Dr. Elford is interested in the effects of cellphone use on driving performance. To measure driving performance, he will count traffic violations committed while participants drive in a simulator. Participants in the study will be randomly selected to be in the cellphone condition or the no cellphone condition while driving. Dr. Elford will then compare the results of the groups to assess whether there is a statistically significant difference between the conditions. 89. In statistical terms, the group of participants who were part of Dr. Elford’s study is called the __________, and the group that Dr. Elford would like to generalize the results to (e.g., all Canadian university students) is called the ________________. a. experimental group; control group. b. participants; population c. sample; population d. population; response set 90. Which of the following types of design is Dr. Elford’s study? a. between-subjects b. within-subjects c. naturalistic observation d. correlational 91. Which statement about correlations is NOT accurate? a. A and B correlate +1.00; therefore, they are causally related. b. A and B correlate +1.00; if you know A, you can predict B without error. c. A and B correlate –1.00; if you know A, you can predict B without error. d. A correlation of +0.90 gives better predictability than a correlation of +0.60. 92. What differs between an experimental group and a control group? a. The characteristics of the participants. b. Only the experimental group is measured for the dependent variable. c. Nothing except the experience of the independent variable. d. Only the control group experiences the independent variable. 93. When we say that persons are using anecdotal evidence to support their claims, what do we mean? a. The evidence is not true. b. The evidence is based on social desirability bias. c. The evidence was collected from a variety of sources. d. The evidence is based on personal experiences. 94. When the scores for a recent chemistry exam were calculated, the mean was 60 and the median was 65. Later, the professor discovered that one score had been recorded incorrectly; it had been entered into the computer as a 5, instead of as a 50. What will happen to the mean and median once the score is entered correctly? a. The mean for the exam will change, but the median will stay the same. b. Neither the mean nor the median for the exam will be affected. c. The median for the exam will change, but the mean will stay the same. d. Both the mean and the median for the exam will change.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 95. Donnie wants to know whether attractive waiters make more tips. He has a group of people rate the attractiveness of five different waiters, and he gets the waiters to tell him how much money they make in tips every night for a month. What type of research design has Donnie used? a. quasi-experimental design b. correlational design c. experimental design d. case study design 96. Carla earned 78 points on her statistics exam. Ten of the students in her class earned higher scores than she did, and ten students earned lower scores than she did. Based on this information, what can you conclude about Carla’s score? a. It is the mean for her class. b. It is the median for her class. c. It is the standardized score for her class. d. It is the mode for her class. Dr. Elford Dr. Elford is interested in the effects of cellphone use on driving performance. To measure driving performance, he will count traffic violations committed while participants drive in a simulator. Participants in the study will be randomly selected to be in the cellphone condition or the no cellphone condition while driving. Dr. Elford will then compare the results of the groups to assess whether there is a statistically significant difference between the conditions. 97. Which of the following is NOT a potential extraneous variable in Dr. Elford’s study? a. cellphone usage in the simulator b. how interesting the conversation on the phone is c. weather conditions in the simulation d. previous driving experience 98. What can we conclude from studies that have investigated the influence of anecdotal information? a. People are not influenced by anecdotal information and tend to view it as non-representative and

biased. b. People tend to be influenced by anecdotal information, even when they are forewarned that the information is not representative. c. People are influenced by anecdotal evidence only when they have not been forewarned that it may be misleading. d. People are influenced by anecdotal evidence only when it is provided by someone they know and trust. 99. To investigate the use and efficacy of physical punishment in disciplining young children, Holden et al. (2014) asked 33 mothers to wear unobtrusive, portable audio recorders in the evening until their children fell asleep. Which of the following was NOT one of the findings from this study? a. Mothers used physical punishment more frequently than previous research suggested. b. Parents were often angry when administering spankings. c. When children were spanked, the majority misbehaved again within minutes. d. Parents mostly spanked children only for major offences.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 100. What does a researcher do when conducting an experiment? a. in-depth investigation of an individual subject through detailed documentation b. observation of behaviour as it occurs in its natural environment c. systematic observation or measurement of two variables to see whether there is an association between them d. manipulation of a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observation of whether there are changes in a second variable as a result 101. In the 1970s, large-scale surveys would often auto-dial telephone landlines and the proportion of people who chose to participate in the survey was approximately 80 percent. Today, fewer people own landlines, there are legal issues with auto-dialing cellphone numbers, and the response rate of individuals is often under 10 percent. What challenges do these issues represent for psychologists? a. Sampling bias increases and the response set increases. b. The response set increases and generalizability decreases. c. Generalizability decreases and sampling bias increases. d. Social desirability bias increases and the response set increases. 102. Dr. Klassen is conducting a study on attitudes about drug use. She wants to administer a survey. Which group

of issues should she pay most attention to when she is designing her study? a. random sampling, use of a control group, inferential statistics b. representative sampling, social desirability bias, response set c. representative sampling, experimenter bias, ethics regarding deception d. random assignment, experimenter bias, placebo effects 103. Imagine that a group of researchers designed a study to test the effectiveness of subliminal-message weight-

loss tapes. Half the participants receive real tapes, and half receive similar tapes with the subliminal messages removed. The research assistant who hands out the tapes is unaware of which tapes are which. What type of study is this? a. anecdotal research b. case study c. double-blind procedure d. single-blind study 104. Which approach is defined by manipulating a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observing the changes in a second variable? a. experimental approach b. survey approach c. testing approach d. correlational approach 105. Dr. Marqueta predicts that people who have received bad news will seek out other people because “misery loves company.” Which term characterizes Dr. Marqueta’s prediction about the behaviour of people? a. theory b. hypothesis c. analysis d. application 106. What is most important for reducing the likelihood of extraneous variables? a. experimental methods b. correlational methods c. random assignment d. random sampling Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 107. If a popular cartoon character were trying to accurately promote a scientific approach, they might remind the viewing children that “______________ is an idea that you can test!” a. a hypothesis b. a theory c. an experiment d. a variable 108. Which statement best explains why there are limitations to anecdotal evidence? a. Anecdotal evidence is similar to case studies and self-report data. b. Anecdotal evidence is useless. c. Anecdotal evidence generalizes well to other individuals of interest. d. Anecdotal evidence research is too systematic. 109. To discover whether residents of a city are in favour of building a new sports stadium, the team’s owner randomly selected and interviewed 500 of the city’s 500,000 residents. In this instance, what do we call the 500 people whom the owner interviewed? a. the representative sample b. the biased sample c. the population d. the dependent variable 110. The Open Science Collaboration (2015) attempted to reproduce 100 selected studies in psychology from three prestigious journals. The results at the time were taken to suggest which of the following? a. Psychology is facing a “replication crisis.” b. Psychology is a highly reproducible science. c. Psychology is highly generalizable. d. Psychology is unable to make conclusive cause-and-effect statements. 111. Forensic profilers use information about known serial killers to make statements about the likely next steps of a new killer and to anticipate a pattern of behaviour. Which goal of the scientific enterprise does this reflect? a. application and control b. measurement and description c. testing and reporting d. understanding and prediction 112. Elizabeth is part of a sample of lactose-intolerant participants asked to taste-test a new lactose-free yogurt product. Just after she has consumed her sample of yogurt, a research assistant breaks into the room claiming to have accidentally given them a product that contains lactose. In reality, it contained no lactose. Shortly after, a different confederate of the researcher who is pretending to be a participant begins moaning and clutching their stomach. Which of the following statements is most likely? a. Elizabeth will report no discomfort since the product contained no lactose. b. Elizabeth will report discomfort, but less than she would have if the confederate had been absent. c. Elizabeth will report discomfort, and more than she would have if the confederate had been absent. d. Elizabeth will report discomfort, but not more or less than she would have if the confederate had been absent.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 113. Which of the following is an example of experimenter bias? a. An experimenter explicitly instructs subjects to complete tasks in a particular order, rather than allowing them to choose the order of completion. b. An experimenter tries to make a favourable impression on the research subjects by being friendly and by providing a great deal of information. c. An experimenter conducts her study in a completely objective manner. d. An experimenter’s belief in his own hypothesis affects either the subjects’ behaviour or his observations of the subjects. 114. Dr. Hessels is examining how different people respond to frightening events. She will have participants walk through a haunted house at a local amusement park, and each participant will be outfitted with a heart monitor. She will use the changes in heart rate as a measure of stress. What are two ways that such changes in heart rate can be described? a. an operational definition and an independent variable b. confounded variable and a physiological recording c. a physiological recording and an independent variable d. an operational definition and a dependent variable 115. A group of researchers conducts a study to determine if a child’s performance is affected by the presence of other children. First, the children are taken to a room with no other children and timed while they complete a puzzle. Later, the same children are taken to a room with four other children and timed while they complete a similar puzzle. In this study, what do you call the length of time it takes to complete the puzzle? a. extraneous variable b. control variable c. dependent variable d. independent variable 116. Based on the following quiz scores (5, 2, 4, 5, 4, 3, 5), which of the following statements is FALSE? a. The mean is equal to 4. b. The mode is greater than the mean. c. The mode is equal to the median. d. The median is equal to the mean. 117. A large study of racism in Canada, mentioned in the textbook, concluded that compared to other minority ethnic groups, Indigenous Peoples were seen as experiencing the most discrimination. Forty percent of the respondents reported experiencing racism at work. Which of the following research methods was most likely to have been used in this study? a. naturalistic observation b. an experiment c. case studies d. surveys 118. Dr. Heinrichs has discovered that the more online surveys people complete, the more prize money they tend to receive. He also finds an even stronger correlation between time spent online and happiness levels, such that the more time people spend online, the less happy they seem to be. Which of the following correlation coefficients best represent these data? a. +0.56; –0.39 b. –0.39; +0.56 c. –0.56; +0.39 d. +0.39; -0.56

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 119. Trevor plans to study the relationship between individuals’ responses to highly stressful situations and their overall health. He decides he must use correlational research, rather than experimental research, to investigate this problem. What is the most likely reason that Trevor chose a correlational method? a. Correlational studies have higher internal validity than experiments. b. Correlational research can be used to investigate factors that would be unethical to manipulate in an experimental study. c. Correlational studies tend to be more accurate than experiments. d. Correlational research can be used to study direct relationships, but not inverse or indirect relationships. 120. Dr. Patel wants to extend research from Elliot and colleagues regarding shirt colour choice. Participants are university undergraduate women, and there are two independent variables: who the women believe that they will be interacting with (attractive or unattractive male) and the age of the male (young or elderly). He finds that women show a strong preference for wearing a red shirt only when anticipating meeting an attractive, younger male. There is no apparent colour preferences when anticipating meeting an elderly male (attractive or otherwise). This pattern of results best describes which of the following? a. a potential confound b. an extraneous variable c. a response set d. an interaction 121. Approximately what percentage of psychological studies involve animals? a. 1–2 percent b. 3–5 percent c. 7–8 percent d. 10–12 percent 122. Dr. Loken is studying the effects of video game play on spatial skills. Different groups of participants are required to play either 2, 4, or 6 hours of video games per day for a week. After one week, Dr. Loken compares the performance of men versus women in the study. The results show that more time playing video games improved women’s spatial skills but not men’s. This pattern of results best describes which of the following? a. a potential confound b. an interaction c. a sampling bias d. an extraneous variable 123. Surveys may be important to gather information on important social issues that may have legal and public policy implications. Which of the following is such a topic? a. how troops of baboons display territoriality b. whether the presence of food-related cues can cause an increase in the amount of food that people eat c. the criminal victimization of Indigenous people in Canada d. whether Canadians prefer Pepsi or Coke 124. What would we likely find if we were to measure the height and weight of 100 adult women and calculate a correlation coefficient on the data? a. Height and weight are negatively correlated. b. Height and weight are increasingly correlated. c. Height and weight are positively correlated. d. Height and weight are uncorrelated.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 125. Why is sampling bias a problem? a. It makes it impossible to use inferential statistics. b. It limits the generalizability of the findings. c. It makes the effect of the independent variable appear to be bigger than it really is. d. It makes it difficult to avoid a confounding of variables. 126. Konrad dislikes completing questionnaires, so each time he fills one out he always circles the same answer, such as “strongly agree” or “strongly disagree.” What tendency does Konrad’s behaviour reflect? a. placebo effect b. sampling bias c. social desirability d. response set 127. Imagine that the personality traits of openness and extraversion are positively correlated. Andrea just took two tests that measure openness and extraversion, respectively. If Andrea’s score in openness is extremely low, what would you predict about her extraversion score? a. She would most likely score at the low end of the extraversion scale. b. It is impossible to predict how she is likely to score on the extraversion scale without more information. c. Her extraversion score would be corrected based on her openness score. d. She would most likely score around the mean of the extraversion scale. 128. A group of researchers investigates the effects of a vitamin supplement on animal memory. During the first part of the study, the animals learn to run a maze while they are not receiving the supplement; in the second part of the study, the animals learn to run a different maze while they are receiving the supplement. In each case, the researchers count how many trials it takes before the animals can run the maze pattern without making any errors. What is the independent variable in this study? a. the number of trials it takes to run the maze without making any errors b. the trials in which the supplement is used c. the presence or absence of the supplement in the animal’s diet d. the two different mazes used 129. In a study designed to test the effects of a new drug developed to treat Alzheimer’s disease, half the patients were given the actual drug while the other half of the patients were given a placebo (sugar pill). In this study, which group is the control group? a. the group that showed no evidence of an improvement in their memory b. the group that received the actual drug c. the group that received the placebo d. no control group in this study 130. Dr. Olson is interested in health-maintaining behaviours, such as the wearing of bicycle helmets. For her research, she goes to a local park and records the number of people with and without helmets riding bicycles. Dr. Olson’s research meets which of the following goals of psychological research? a. testing and reporting b. application and control c. understanding and prediction d. measurement and description

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 131. Dr. Pagador asks participants to read a textbook passage and then tests them on it later. In the time between reading and testing, participants are assigned to one of three groups: listening to relaxation instructions, listening to a Mozart sonata, or silence. Which of the following is the control group in this study? a. listening to relaxation instructions b. listening to Mozart sonata c. silence d. both listening to relaxation instructions AND silence 132. Dr. Hackle has found that no matter how students score on the first midterm, all the students in her class tend to score between 75 percent and 80 percent on her final exam. Which value would best represent the correlation between the grades? a. near –1 b. near 0 c. near 1 d. near 2 133. Tammy expects that she will be more likely to get a job offer if she wears red to her interviews. She wore red to each of her interviews and she was offered a job. What might have influenced Tammy’s likelihood of being offered a job? a. placebo effect b. socially desirable responding c. halo effect d. experimenter bias 134. If you wanted to efficiently learn about research on improving memory, which of the following types of articles would be best to read? a. an original empirical article b. a review article c. a theoretical treatise d. a critique of previously published research 135. Ted uses a personality test as one of the dependent measures in his study. What data-collection technique is Ted using? a. direct observation b. survey c. case study d. psychological test 136. Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by the fact that researchers focus their attention on findings that are unlikely to have occurred by chance? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. Psychology is empirical. 137. Jack believes that patrons in his bar will be more likely to leave a tip if the tip jar already has some money in it. To test this belief, he has the tip jar empty about half the time when a customer approaches the bar; the rest of the time he ensures there is at least $5.00 in the jar when a customer approaches. In Jack’s experiment, which is the control group? a. the patrons who see an empty tip jar b. all the patrons who leave the bar without tipping c. the patrons who see a tip jar that contains at least $5.00 d. all the patrons who leave a tip when they leave the bar Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 138. An industrial designer wants to determine if the new design for a piece of office equipment will result in fewer errors. The designer sets up a machine with the old design in one room, and a machine with the new design in a second room. He counts how many errors are made using each of the two machines. In this study, what do you call the number of errors made? a. extraneous variable b. dependent variable c. independent variable d. control variable 139. What does the mode of a group of scores represent? a. its association with another group of scores b. the midpoint c. its central tendency d. its variability 140. Mandy thinks that people who work hard will always succeed. She grew up in a very wealthy neighbourhood and noticed that all of her friends who worked hard became successful. In this example, which statement best describes wealth and hard work? a. They are correlated. b. They are confounded. c. They are independent. d. They are dependent. 141. Where would you look to find a database of research literature in psychology, and brief summaries of individual research studies? a. Canadian Psychological Association home page b. Psychological Review c. Psychology Today d. PsycINFO 142. Which of the following is NOT one of the three goals of psychologists and other scientists? a. application and control b. measurement and description c. testing and reporting d. understanding and prediction 143. What is a distinct advantage of naturalistic observation? a. It allows behaviour to be studied in realistic settings. b. It allows for random sampling. c. It reduces reactivity among participants. d. There is a wider range of statistical procedures that can be used. 144. Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by the fact that subjects sometimes report beneficial effects from a placebo treatment? a. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Psychology is empirical. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 145. In Margaritte’s sociology discussion group, four of the five students are between the ages of 19 and 23; the fifth student is 54 years old. Which statistic should Margaritte use if she wants to report the statistic that best represents the typical age for her discussion group? a. The mean or the median because these numbers are typically the same. b. The mean or the standard deviation so that additional statistics can be calculated. c. The median or the mode because these numbers will best represent the typical class member. d. The mean or the mode because these numbers are not affected by extreme scores in the distribution. 146. What is the major difference between review articles and articles that report original empirical studies? a. Review articles summarize findings from a large number of studies on a specific topic, whereas most empirical articles are more limited in scope. b. Review articles are published in books while empirical articles are published in journals. c. Review articles are used to evaluate new techniques, whereas empirical articles report new research results. d. Review articles are reviewed by experts before they are published in the journal, unlike most empirical articles. 147. Terry has a theory and has formulated a testable hypothesis. What is the next step that Terry needs to take in the scientific method? a. choosing the statistical procedures b. selecting the research methods c. refining the theory based on the hypothesis d. collecting the data 148. Dr. Friesen wants to investigate whether store clerks behave in a discriminatory manner toward teenagers. He

is trying to decide between using naturalistic observation and using a questionnaire. What would be the best choice? a. Questionnaires, because clerks would become angry and refuse to participate if they knew you were spying on them. b. Naturalistic observation, because you can record behaviour and avoid social desirability bias. c. Questionnaires, because you’ll be able to make cause-and-effect statements. d. Naturalistic observation, because clerks would likely refuse to respond to questionnaires. 149. What is a theory? a. a system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations b. a preliminary proposal that has yet to be tested c. a statement of research results that have been proven correct d. a tentative statement about the relationship between two or more variables

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 150. Dr. Popa was recently consulted for an advertising campaign. The ad was aimed at reducing problematic drinking behaviours, such as binge drinking, among university students. Dr. Popa’s work would meet which of the following goals of psychological research? a. understanding and prediction b. application and control c. testing and reporting d. measurement and description 151. Which type of statistic allows us to determine whether the results of an experiment occur because of chance? a. standard deviation b. measures of central tendency c. descriptive d. inferential 152. Researchers who were studying plant growth raised plants in two separate rooms. One room had taped conversations playing 24 hours a day; the other room was silent. The researchers found that the plants grew better in the room that had the conversations playing. In this study, what would you call the type of room (silent versus conversation)? a. placebo b. independent variable c. dependent variable d. extraneous variable 153. Which technique is most likely to prove useful in determining why one particular child is afraid to go to school? a. descriptive study b. case study c. naturalistic observation d. experiment 154. According to research outlined in the textbook, which of the following could be considered a subtype of gambling disorders? a. habitual spending on charity raffles b. compulsive chasing of an adrenaline rush (e.g., skydiving) c. addictive stock trading d. obsessive real estate speculation 155. NASA wanted to know if extended periods of weightlessness would have an impact on long-term circulatory function. The agency located seven former astronauts who had spent more than one month in space under conditions of weightlessness, and tested all aspects of their cardiovascular function. What sort of research did NASA conduct in this situation? a. experimental research b. survey research c. case study research d. naturalistic observation 156. Canadian Olympic athletes wear red. What do some studies suggest about this colour? a. It provides a performance disadvantage compared to other colours. b. It causes more aggressive behaviour as compared to other colours. c. It inhibits aggressive behaviour as compared to other colours. d. It provides a performance advantage over other colours. 157. Phong and Mikaela both take part in a research study that is investigating the effects of sleep deprivation on reaction time. Phong is kept awake for 24 hours straight, while Mikaela follows her normal sleep routine. Which group is Phong in? a. the independent variable group b. the control group c. the dependent variable group d. the experimental group Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 158. What do we call any measurable conditions, events, characteristics, or behaviours that are controlled or observed in a study? a. confounds b. variables c. correlations d. hypotheses 159. What is important to the scientific method because the scientific method is intolerant of error? a. naturalistic observation b. placebo effects c. replication

d. hypotheses

160. How should a researcher select subjects for a study in order to generate results that are generalizable? a. Subjects should all be chosen from the same geographical area and socio-economic class. b. Subjects should be allowed to choose which group they would like to be in. c. Subjects should be from WEIRD societies. d. Subjects should be carefully chosen so that they are a representative sample of the population. 161. Darla has sent out a survey in which she is asking people to provide information about their attitudes on a number of sensitive subjects. Why might Darla expect responses to the survey to be somewhat distorted? a. because of sampling bias b. because of social desirability bias c. because of experimenter bias d. because of meta-analysis 162. If the distribution of test scores for a midterm is normal, approximately what percentage of the class should have a score that falls within two standard deviations of the mean? a. 34 percent b. 68 percent c. 95 percent d. 99 percent 163. Stephanie is observing a group of adolescents at the mall and documenting their rate of swearing. The group keeps looking over at Stephanie and pointing at her, and they get louder and more obnoxious the longer she observes them. Which term best describes Stephanie’s effect on the group? a. demand characteristics b. disrupting c. reactivity d. confounding 164. Tian tells you that 17 out of the 30 students enrolled in his English class scored exactly 62 points on the last exam. Which statement details the same concept? a. The standard deviation for that exam was 62 points. b. The mode for that exam was 62 points. c. The mean for that exam was 62 points. d. The median for that exam was 62 points. 165. Inspired by the Open Science Collaboration, Madison would like to try to replicate a psychological study that she recently read about. Where in the original journal article would she find the “recipe” for how to re-create the experiment? a. the introduction b. the results c. the method d. the discussion

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 166. Dr. Limmex is trying to get government approval for a new drug to treat anxiety. Dr. Limmex claims that 14 percent of the people who took this new drug reported reduced anxiety; however, other researchers claim that 14 percent of patients who receive no treatment also report reductions in their anxiety levels. What could explain patient improvement in Dr. Limmex’s study? a. improper assignment to groups b. non-representative sampling c. placebo effects d. self-report bias 167. You are sitting on a park bench in a major metropolitan area from 7 a.m. to 7 p.m. and you note the number of people who walk by, whether or not they litter, and their sex. What type of research method are you using? a. naturalistic observation b. case study c. correlation d. casual observation 168. Which of the following issues must psychologists be concerned with when survey response rates are low? a. The likelihood of response set increases. b. The likelihood of sampling bias increases. c. The likelihood of social desirability bias increases. d. The likelihood of interaction effects increases. 169. What is a dependent variable? a. a variable that changes value because of the systematic manipulation in an experiment b. a variable deliberately manipulated by an experimenter c. a variable that the experimenter is depending on to cause something to happen in an experiment d. a variable held constant across experimental conditions 170. Dr. Aiken was interested in whether a particular effect was reliable, so he took a number of published studies and conducted special statistical procedures in order to compare the results across all of those studies. He found that the effect was very reliable across a variety of samples and situations. What type of procedure did Dr. Arnold conduct? a. peer-review b. random sampling c. meta-analysis d. replication 171. What is an advantage associated with the experimental method? a. its precise control b. its ability to be generalized to multiple contexts c. its ability to duplicate real life in the laboratory d. its appeal to participants 172. Subjects’ self-reports often indicate that they are healthier, happier, and less prejudiced than other types of evidence would suggest. What is the most likely explanation for these sorts of results? a. response set b. faulty memory c. social desirability bias d. experimenter bias 173. In which of the following would there be the greatest risk of effects of subjectivity and selective attention? a. conducting a placebo-control trial b. compiling a case study c. running experimental studies d. conducting surveys Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 174. Nula is conducting a study in which one group is exposed to loud music while completing a writing assignment and the other group has quiet conditions. Further, Nula examines the effect of gender within these groups. Therefore, she is examining the effects of both noise and gender on participants’ performance on a writing task. Which of the following reflects the type of variables present in this study? a. one independent variable and two dependent variables b. one control variable and two independent variables c. one independent variable, one control variable, and one dependent variable d. two independent variables and one dependent variable 175. Zigfried Rosenblat, Jr. took part in a study on sexual deviance last year. He was somewhat dismayed when he read an article in a weekly journal discussing sexual deviance in which one patient was referred to as ZRJ. Although the article claimed all names had been disguised to protect personal identities, Zigfried is convinced he is the individual described in the article. In this case, which ethical principle did the researchers likely violate? a. responsible caring b. responsibility to society c. respect for the dignity of persons d. integrity in relationships 176. Reinhold is filling out a psychological test, and as he reads each question he thinks about the way most other people would probably respond. When he answers, he selects the alternative that he thinks will present the most favourable impression. What tendency will Reinhold’s answers reflect? a. placebo effect b. social desirability bias c. non-representative sampling d. negative response set 177. Dr. Zelke surveys 50 university students to discover the relationship between textbook price and ratings of readability. Dr. Zelke finds that for these two variables, the correlation coefficient is –0.70. What does this indicate? a. More expensive books tend to receive lower readability ratings than less expensive books. b. Increasing the price of a book will lead people to think that it is more readable. c. Less expensive books tend to receive lower readability ratings than more expensive books. d. There is no relationship between book price and ratings of readability. 178. What is the purpose of the control group? a. to isolate the effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable b. to correlate the dependent variable with the independent variables c. to make statistical significance more likely d. to make the experiment more complex 179. What is the typical consequence of experimenter bias? a. The effects of the bias confirm the experimenter’s expectations. b. The results of the study are not statistically significant. c. There is evidence of the placebo effect in the results of the experimental group. d. Experimenters often doubt their results when they first see them.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 180. Malinda is filling out a survey for a marketing agency to be eligible for a grand prize drawing. She doesn’t actually read many of the questions, and simply answers “yes” to everything. What do we call this tendency? a. placebo effect b. interaction effect c. social desirability bias d. response set 181. What must a researcher do if she is particularly concerned about making sure that her results will generalize to the population as a whole? a. ensure that all the variables have been operationally defined b. conduct a meta-analysis c. use a double-blind procedure d. draw a representative sample from the population of interest 182. Which situation is an example of using inferential statistics? a. A public poll reports that 75 percent of the population supports picnics. b. The government reports that it must implement a 5 percent cut in spending. c. The national bank reports that consumer debt is significantly higher than last year at this time. d. A teacher indicates that most students scored between 55 and 65 on the test. 183. A researcher has children watch 30 minutes of violent television, and then counts the number of times they hit each other afterward in a one-hour play period as a measure of aggression. What can you conclude from this study? a. TV violence causes violent behaviour in children. b. TV violence is correlated with violent behaviour in children. c. You can’t conclude anything until you know the rates of violence displayed by children. d. You can’t conclude anything because you have nothing to compare to the aggression after the TV viewing. 184. In a study of the effect of fatigue on task performance, participants were asked to complete a series of puzzles. One day, all participants completed puzzles after 24 hours without sleep. On another day, the same participants completed puzzles after sleeping for at least eight hours. What research design is used in this study? a. between-subjects design b. within-subjects design c. single-blind design d. interaction design 185. Annabel wants a new phone. She has narrowed her choice down to two models. Alfred tells Annabel,

“Consumer Reports did extensive testing and rated the X5 as the highest overall. The same article indicated that the uPhone is unreliable.” Francine tells Annabel, “My uncle had the X5 and had problems with it. He switched to the uPhone and loves it.” Which phone is Annabel likely to buy, based on results reported in the Critical Thinking Application? a. The uPhone, because she will be more persuaded by the anecdotal evidence. b. The X5, because she will be more persuaded by objective evidence. c. Neither phone, because she would prefer to do her own research rather than rely on subjective opinions. d. Neither phone, because the two reports her friends provided conflict with each other. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 186. What is represented by a correlation coefficient of zero? a. absence of correlation between two variables b. a negative correlation between two variables c. a perfect linear correlation between two variables d. a positive correlation between two variables 187. Which of the following is the primary advantage associated with the experimental method? a. It allows examination of variables that cannot be manipulated. b. It is the best method for generalizability. c. It permits conclusions about cause and effect. d. It allows for numerous extraneous variables. 188. Which of the following is NOT a case of scientific misconduct reported within the profession of psychology? a. falsifying and/or fabricating data b. fraud in the reporting of research, procedures or methodology c. using unwitting participants in experiments d. striving for a representative sample 189. What is provided in the reference list at the end of a research article? a. abstracts for all the previous research studies by the same authors b. list of related articles on the same topic by a variety of authors c. bibliographic information for any studies referred to in the article d. the author’s phone number, address, and website 190. Suppose that students who work fewer hours at their jobs tend to have higher grade point averages and they also tend to get more sleep. What would the correlation coefficient be if we were to correlate the two variables of grade point average and number of hours of sleep? a. greater than 1, but less than 2 b. equal to 0 c. less than zero, but greater than –1 d. greater than 0, but less than 1 Dr. Elford Dr. Elford is interested in the effects of cellphone use on driving performance. To measure driving performance, he will count traffic violations committed while participants drive in a simulator. Participants in the study will be randomly selected to be in the cellphone condition or the no cellphone condition while driving. Dr. Elford will then compare the results of the groups to assess whether there is a statistically significant difference between the conditions. 191. By having half of his participants drive in the simulator with a cellphone, Dr. Elford has created which of the following? a. the control group b. the experimental group c. the sample d. the comparison group

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 192. A group of researchers wanted to investigate allegations of sexual harassment on a company’s assembly line. To make their observations, the researchers took jobs working on the assembly line and pretended to be new employees. What type of research is being conducted in this example? a. correlational research b. case study c. unethical research d. naturalistic observation 193. What does the correlation coefficient measure? a. the central tendency b. the degree of relationship between two variables c. the difference between the largest and smallest scores in a data set d. the amount of variability in a data set 194. Which set of concepts is NOT a closely related set? a. correlation, sample, journal b. method, results, discussion c. experiment, independent variable, control group d. mean, median, mode 195. Dr. Cheung studies spatial skills in men and women. He believes that the so-called sex difference is actually due to differences in how much young girls versus young boys are encouraged to play with spatial toys, such as blocks or Lego sets. Dr. Cheung’s belief is an example of which of the following? a. an operational definition b. a hypothesis c. a variable d. a theory 196. What is perhaps the greatest disadvantage or limitation associated with descriptive research methods? a. the inability to identify cause-and-effect relationships b. the fact that these methods usually focus attention too narrowly on a single variable c. the restriction to very small samples d. an insensitivity to ethical concerns 197. Which of the following is a testable hypothesis? a. Fear is defined as an emotional reaction to a change in stimuli. b. Fear is an adaptive response that keeps us safe. c. Fearful children are less likely to be injured when playing at school. d. There are likely differences in how people experience fear. 198. A group of researchers wanted to determine whether children would behave more aggressively after watching television programming. One third of the children in the study watched a violent television show and one third of the children watched a non-violent television program. If the remaining children are in a control group, what should happen to them? a. Half should watch a violent show and half should watch a non-violent show. b. They should listen to the radio. c. They should be the group monitored for violent behaviour. d. They should not watch a television show. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1

Dr. Amalie Dr. Amalie is a social psychologist who is interested in the effects of group size on efficiency and on the satisfaction of individual group members. In a study conducted by Dr. Amalie’s research team, three different group sizes were used. Large groups had 20 people, medium groups had ten people, and small groups had four people. There were ten sessions run with each type of group, and each group contained different individuals, so the total number of groups was 30 and the total number of participants was 340. All participants were students at the school where Dr. Amalie works. The groups were told that they needed to come to agreement about which movie to select for an upcoming student movie night. The time that it took each group to come to a decision was recorded. Afterward, each subject was asked to rate their satisfaction with the group’s decision (on a scale from 1 to 10, where 10 is totally satisfied). The results were as follows: Mean time required to come to an agreement (all differences are statistically significant): Large groups: 20.7 minutes Medium groups: 16.4 minutes Small groups: 10.3 minutes Mean satisfaction rating for individuals (all differences are statistically significant): In large groups: 4.6 In medium groups: 7.5 In small groups: 8.8 199. Which type of study did Dr. Amalie’s research team conduct? a. experiment b. double-blind procedure c. case study d. naturalistic observation 200. Which term refers to how a researcher collects empirical data? a. statistical procedures b. hypothesis testing c. research methods d. archival recording 201. Which method do researchers use precisely because our experience of the world is highly subjective? a. psychoanalytic methods b. independent variables c. double-blind procedure

d. case studies

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 202. Dr. Greyeagle calculated descriptive statistics for the age of residents in a nursing home. She reported the mean age as 75 years, with a standard deviation of 10 years. Later she found that she had made an error in her calculations. One resident’s age was entered as 27 when it should have been 72. What will happen to the standard deviation when this correction is made? a. It will decrease. b. It will increase. c. It will not change. d. It will increase, but only if the mean remains the same. 203. Your professor handed out a list of all the grades for all four exams in your class. In which situation would you use descriptive statistics? a. You want to know your average in this course. b. You want to know whether your score on the most recent exams is significantly higher than your previous exams. c. You want to know whether your exam score is significantly higher than your friend’s. d. You want to know whether your grade in this course is higher than your grade in another course. 204. What could we conclude if the correlation coefficient between amount of exposure to television violence and aggressive behaviour was found to be +0.43? a. Watching television violence tends to cause aggressive behaviour. b. People who watch the most television violence tend to be the most aggressive. c. Television violence is uncorrelated with aggressive behaviour. d. People who watch the most television violence tend to be the least aggressive. Dr. Elford Dr. Elford is interested in the effects of cellphone use on driving performance. To measure driving performance, he will count traffic violations committed while participants drive in a simulator. Participants in the study will be randomly selected to be in the cellphone condition or the no cellphone condition while driving. Dr. Elford will then compare the results of the groups to assess whether there is a statistically significant difference between the conditions. 205. If Dr. Elford reports his results as being statistically significant, this would mean which of the following? a. He has proven that there is a difference between talking and not talking on a cellphone. b. He is unlikely to have observed such a large difference, if the null hypothesis were true. c. He has proven that there is NO difference between talking and not talking on a cellphone. d. He is unlikely to have observed such a large difference, if the null hypothesis were false. 206. Which researcher is most likely to encounter social desirability bias? a. Ahmed, who documents case studies of musical geniuses b. Barry, who tests the effectiveness of new drugs c. Celine, who conducts surveys about parenting behaviours d. Diane, who does field research with endangered species

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 207. Dr. Licciardi predicts that if people are observed while they perform a complex task, they will make more errors. Which term is Dr. Licciardi’s prediction an example of? a. theory b. inferential statistics c. hypothesis d. operational definition 208. Of the following correlation coefficients, which one would yield the least accurate predictions of one variable based on the other variable? a. +0.99 b. +0.17 c. 0.00 d. –0.49 209. What do naturalistic observation, case studies, and surveys all have in common? a. They can show causal relationships. b. The results obtained cannot be analyzed statistically. c. They do not directly observe behaviour. d. They do not manipulate the variables under study. 210. Why must Canadian researchers adhere to ethical guidelines that are set by the Tri-Council? a. to be promoted within their university b. to have their research funded by the national granting agencies c. to have their research approved by independent provincial ethical boards d. to avoid criminal prosecution 211. A researcher is studying two groups of children. One group includes children who are 10 years old and the other group includes children who are 5 years old. Which variable would be confounded with age in this study? a. gender b. height c. aggression d. income 212. Estavan received a questionnaire in the mail asking about his general buying habits. He was asked to identify the specific products that he typically buys, and the amount of each product that he typically uses. Which type of research will Estavan have taken part in if he completes the questionnaire and returns it? a. archival research b. naturalistic observation c. survey method d. case study approach 213. Kaley added up the amount of money she made on four paycheques and then divided that number by four. Which measure of central tendency did Kaley use? a. mode b. mean c. median d. midpoint 214. What does it mean when there is an interaction between two variables? a. The measurement of the dependent variable depends on the effect of the independent variable. b. The measurement of one dependent variable is added to the measurement of another. c. The effects of one independent variable are added to the effects of another. d. The effects of one independent variable depend on the effects of another.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 215. What is random assignment? a. Subjects are free to choose which group or condition they would like to be in. b. All variables have an equal chance of being assigned to the experimental condition. c. All people have an equal likelihood of being selected from the study. d. All subjects have an equal chance of being assigned to any of the groups or conditions. 216. In an experiment, which term refers to the variable that is controlled or manipulated by the researcher? a. stimulus variable b. dependent variable c. control variable d. independent variable 217. To investigate the link between social media and procrastination, Meier et al. (2016) recruited a sample of 354 students who use social media, asking them to respond to a number of questions about their behaviour. Which of the following methods was used in this study? a. naturalistic observation b. case study c. survey d. correlational 218. The Open Science Collaboration (2015) attempted to replicate 100 selected studies in psychology from three prestigious journals. Although popular media widely reported the lowest estimate of replication, more recent analysis applying different statistical standards yielded a higher estimate of replication at which of the following percentages? a. 36 percent b. 47 percent c. 68 percent d. 75+ percent 219. What is a major problem with naturalistic observation? a. It works well with animals but is virtually useless for studying human behaviour. b. Researchers have a difficult time determining whether a setting is truly natural. c. It is limited by the constraints of random sampling and random assignment. d. It is difficult to observe behaviour without having an influence on that behaviour. 220. Imagine that the personality traits of conscientiousness and extraversion are negatively correlated. Vladimir’s scores fit the typical pattern. If Vladimir’s score in conscientiousness is extremely low, how would he score on extraversion? a. He would probably score close to the median on the extraversion scale. b. He would most likely score at the low end of the extraversion scale. c. It is impossible to predict how he is likely to score on the extraversion scale without more information. d. He would most likely score at the high end of the extraversion scale. 221. What type of statistics would you use if you wanted to summarize and organize your data? a. computational b. mathematical c. descriptive d. inferential

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 222. Dr. Vishnu has found that students who score higher than 85 percent on the first midterm tend to earn scores of 75 percent or better on the final exam, while students who score less than 60 percent on the first midterm often end up with a failing grade on the final exam. What can be said about the relationship between scores? a. Students who do poorly on the first midterm do not improve. b. Students who do poorly on the first midterm give up and study less for the final. c. Scores on the first midterm and the final exam are positively correlated. d. Scores on the first midterm and the final exam are negatively correlated. 223. In an experiment designed to test memory processes, one group was asked to group the items on a list into categories while trying to memorize them. A second group was told to rhyme each of the words on the list. In this study, which group is the control group? a. the group that was told to categorize b. the group in which the participants remember the most items from the list c. the group that was told to rhyme d. a third group that was not given special instructions 224. Dr. Kazi studies memory and forgetting, as well as the degree of learner effort for different activities. She has now taken these observations to devise a framework of ideas that she believes explains a diverse array of known facts about studying and student success. Which of the following has Dr. Kazi created? a. a hypothesis b. an operational definition c. inferential statistics d. a theory 225. Dr. Stills is interested in people’s reactions to a controversial jury verdict. Dr. Stills calls people at their home between the hours of 1:00 p.m. and 3:30 p.m. on a Tuesday afternoon. In this example, what type of sample has Dr. Stills most likely selected? a. a biased sample b. a redundant sample c. a bimodal sample d. a representative sample 226. What does it mean to say that the results of an experiment are “statistically significant”? a. The results had practical significance. b. Differences in measurements of the dependent variable resulted from chance variations. c. Different results for the experimental and control groups were unlikely to be due to chance. d. The results were important enough to publish. 227. What do we call recording all instances of an event for a particular time period (such as how many times an older brother strikes his younger brother during a given week) without the subjects’ awareness? a. naturalistic observation b. compiling a case study c. creating an archive d. correlational research

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 228. Diaz conducts a decision-making experiment to determine if people reason more logically when they have more time to decide. All the participants who are under 40 are allowed 15 minutes to reach a decision about a problem; all the participants who are over 40 are allowed 20 minutes to reach a decision about the same problem. What is the problem with this experimental design? a. The age of the participants is confounded with the independent variable. b. There are two control groups and no experimental group. c. There is no dependent variable in the experiment. d. The time allowed for the decision is confounded with the independent variable.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 230. What do we call statistics that are used to interpret data and draw conclusions? a. significant b. descriptive c. numerical d. inferential 231. Of the following correlation coefficients, which one would allow the most accurate predictions of one variable based on the other variable? a. +1.23 b. +0.65 c. 0.00 d. –0.79 232. Ben’s friend claims that research shows that listening to Mozart makes you smarter. When Ben looks up the study, he finds that participants were tested on their memory about a textbook passage that they had read, after listening to something in one of three conditions: a Mozart sonata, relaxation instructions, or silence. Even though the Mozart group scored highest on the test, Ben is not convinced about the conclusion. Why? a. Mozart and music were confounded in the study. b. There was no control group in the study. c. There was no dependent variable in the study. d. Only two groups truly listened in the study. 233. Jackson is working with a company to help it develop more effective training programs for its employees. He has spent a great deal of time reviewing all the documentation the company has about previous training opportunities it has provided for its employees. What research technique is Jackson using? a. meta-analysis b. direct observation c. psychological testing d. examination of archival records 234. Researchers who were studying memory had participants learn a list of words after consuming a soft drink with caffeine or a decaffeinated version of the same soft drink. The researchers then counted the number of words that were recalled from the list. In this study, what would you call the type of beverage (caffeinated or decaffeinated)? a. extraneous variable b. dependent variable c. confounding variable d. independent variable 235. A local hospital wanted to assess the way its patients were being treated. The hospital hired several researchers to act as patients and record the way hospital personnel handled the admitting and preliminary evaluation procedures. What sort of research is being conducted in this example? a. naturalistic observation b. correlational research c. reactivity d. case study 236. Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by the fact that research results can be affected by experimenter bias? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 237. Which of the following is NOT a primary ethical consideration for psychologists? a. Psychologists should not participate in torture. b. Researchers should tell the truth about their research findings. c. Researchers should only cause harm if deemed scientifically necessary. d. Researchers should present their findings accurately. 238. Where in a journal article would you look for the data obtained in a research study, along with the statistical analyses? a. discussion b. results c. method d. abstract 239. Which of the following is one advantage of naturalistic observation over the experimental method? a. It allows for precise control of extraneous variables. b. It allows for greater generalizability. c. It permits conclusions about cause and effect. d. It permits the use of random assignment. 240. Scarlett is a graduate student who is coding participants’ use of rude language on an instant messaging platform. In this study, some participants are chatting with chat-bot (an automated computer program) and others are chatting with a real person. The participants don’t know they are chatting with a bot. Scarlett is trying to code whether the use of rude language is higher in one group than in the other. However, her supervisor has insisted that Scarlett not know which group a person was in while she is coding their language. What is this type of procedure called? a. correlational b. blind c. confounded d. double-blind 241. What does the standard deviation tell you about the variability in a data set? a. When variability is high, the standard deviation is small. b. The standard deviation does not reflect the variability in the data set. c. A large standard deviation means that there is a great degree of variability in the data set. d. As variability increases in a data set, the standard deviation becomes more variable as well. 242. A researcher is measuring the heart rate of subjects in a study about anxiety, because heart rate changes in a predictable way when people are anxious. In this study, what is heart rate? a. negatively correlated with anxiety b. independent variable c. confounded variable d. operational definition of anxiety 243. Graeme’s score on a midterm exam is exactly the same as the median score in his class of 300 students. Which of the following is Graeme’s approximate percentile score? a. 34th percentile b. 50th percentile c. 68th percentile d. 95th percentile

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 244. In research terms, what is a sample? a. a subset of the population who participates in a research study b. a group of people to whom the conclusion of the study will apply c. a group that contains fewer than 50 people or animals d. all the volunteers who express an interest in the study 245. Eric just completed a correlational study, and his results reveal that people who take more showers have higher income. Eric wonders whether certain types of jobs might both pay more and cause people to get dirtier. Which term reflects Eric’s interpretation of his results? a. reactivity b. third variable problem c. sampling bias d. interaction effects 246. Dr. Prutherow believes that people who are under stress will develop more colds than people who are not under stress. When he randomly selected ten participants and exposed them to high levels of stress, he found that nine of the participants developed colds. What critical piece is missing from Dr. Prutherow’s study? a. a dependent variable b. a testable hypothesis c. a group without stress d. a group without colds 247. A group of researchers wants to determine if people are more likely to follow directions if the person giving the directions is in a uniform. Half the participants are directed to a parking spot by a uniformed security guard; the other half are directed to a parking spot by an individual wearing blue jeans and a T-shirt. In this study, what is the dependent variable? a. the parking lot b. the number of participants who park in the spot they are directed to c. the type of clothing worn by the person giving the directions d. the directions given 248. A researcher goes to a playground for an hour each day for two weeks and makes notes when children are playing together. He records the number of times that a girl and a boy are playing together, when boys play only with other boys, and when girls play only with other girls. Which research method is the researcher using? a. experiment b. naturalistic observation c. correlation d. case study 249. A researcher who is conducting a survey about the concerns of average Canadians recruits participants through ads in a Toronto newspaper. What type of sample has the researcher created? a. random b. biased c. representative d. binary 250. Researchers tested the physical coordination skills of 25-year-old males who had been sleep deprived for 24, 36, or 48 hours. In this study, what is the dependent variable? a. the length of time the participants had been sleep deprived b. the physical coordination of the control group c. the male-only group of participants d. the physical coordination skills of participants

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1

Dr. Amalie Dr. Amalie is a social psychologist who is interested in the effects of group size on efficiency and on the satisfaction of individual group members. In a study conducted by Dr. Amalie’s research team, three different group sizes were used. Large groups had 20 people, medium groups had ten people, and small groups had four people. There were ten sessions run with each type of group, and each group contained different individuals, so the total number of groups was 30 and the total number of participants was 340. All participants were students at the school where Dr. Amalie works. The groups were told that they needed to come to agreement about which movie to select for an upcoming student movie night. The time that it took each group to come to a decision was recorded. Afterward, each subject was asked to rate their satisfaction with the group’s decision (on a scale from 1 to 10, where 10 is totally satisfied). The results were as follows: Mean time required to come to an agreement (all differences are statistically significant): Large groups: 20.7 minutes Medium groups: 16.4 minutes Small groups: 10.3 minutes Mean satisfaction rating for individuals (all differences are statistically significant): In large groups: 4.6 In medium groups: 7.5 In small groups: 8.8 251. How many dependent variables are used in this study? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 10 252. Which of the following is generally accepted regarding the use of animals in research under Canadian ethical guidelines? a. Animals can be used in research laboratories, but only in observational studies, not experimental studies. b. Animals can be used for any form of research, regardless of the dangers associated with that research. c. Animals are used in research only when there is a strong expectation that the results will benefit both humans and animals. d. Animals can be used in research but can be harmed only when there is clear evidence that the results will lead to treatments or cures for existing human or animal disorders.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 253. What are WEIRD societies? a. Groups that are considered to be minorities in North America b. Groups that tend to have non-conformist results in psychology studies c. Groups that are limited to a single race or ethnic group d. Groups that are typically overrepresented in psychology research 254. Of the following, which correlation coefficient indicates the strongest relationship between the two variables being measured? a. +3.45 b. +0.65 c. 0.00 d. –0.89 255. One of your friends is writing a research paper and wants to obtain information about the depth of personal information people typically reveal during a first date. Directly observing a large number of people during a first date will be difficult, so your friend asks for your advice on the best way to collect this type of data. What would be the best research option for your friend to use? a. case study b. survey c. archival research d. double-blind observational study 256. During which stage of the scientific method would a researcher provide data to the general public? a. analyzing the data b. drawing conclusions c. reporting the findings d. debriefing participants 257. Who is the target audience for articles published in technical and scholarly journals? a. professionals in that field b. the general public c. anyone with an interest in the topic d. students majoring in that field 258. There are multiple goals in science, and researchers move between goals at various points in their research. If a researcher has a lot of data about the measurement of fear reactions and uses those data to generate a theory about fear, how have the researcher’s goals changed? a. from application to control b. from control to description c. from description to understanding d. from understanding to application 259. The Open Science Collaboration (2015) attempted to replicate 100 selected studies in psychology from three prestigious journals. Using their most stringent statistical standards, how many studies were they able to replicate? a. 36 b. 47 c. 68 d. 75+

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 Dr. Elford Dr. Elford is interested in the effects of cellphone use on driving performance. To measure driving performance, he will count traffic violations committed while participants drive in a simulator. Participants in the study will be randomly selected to be in the cellphone condition or the no cellphone condition while driving. Dr. Elford will then compare the results of the groups to assess whether there is a statistically significant difference between the conditions. 260. Which of the following is the independent variable in Dr. Elford’s study? a. driving performance b. traffic violations c. cellphone (or not) while driving d. previous driving experience 261. If we view an experiment as an attempt to establish a cause–effect relationship, which of the following can be viewed as the “cause” in an experiment? a. the independent variable b. the dependent variable c. the hypothesis d. the theory 262. Dr. Mair is considering using random assignment in her study to assign participants to the different conditions. Another valid option would be to change the study in which of the following ways? a. so that each participant has an equal chance of being in any of the conditions b. so that each participant will be randomly sampled c. so that each participant acts as their own control group d. so that each participant is assigned based on their response set 263. Which research method gives researchers the ability to infer a cause-and-effect relationship? a. correlational b. experimental c. case history d. empirical 264. Reactivity is a major problem with which of the following research techniques? a. correlational study b. case study c. naturalistic observation d. experiment 265. Although there are several types of journal articles, which type is most common within psychology? a. manuscripts that propose new theories that are intended to stimulate research b. reports that describe original empirical studies c. articles that describe and evaluate new treatment methods for psychological disorders d. papers that summarize and reconcile the findings from a large number of studies on a specific issue 266. It is an unfortunate fact that expectations sometimes can influence the results of a psychological study. Expectations of the participant can result in ___________, and expectations of the researcher can result in ___________. a. the placebo effect; experimenter bias b. social desirability bias; experimenter bias c. social desirability bias; sampling bias d. the placebo effect; sampling bias

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 267. Dr. Dieringer wants to study attachment patterns in single-parent families. She plans to define the strength of attachment as the time it takes for the parent to respond when the infant starts to cry. Why is this operational definition important? a. It allows others to understand exactly what Dr. Dieringer means by “attachment.” b. It allows Dr. Dieringer to generate a scientific hypothesis. c. It prevents research assistants from violating ethical guidelines for psychological research. d. It requires a double-blind research design. 268. Ling answered a series of written questions that asked about her attitudes and opinions on a number of current issues. What is this method of data collection called? a. a questionnaire b. archival research c. a standardized psychological test d. direct observation 269. Paulo tells you that he just completed an experiment in his botany class, and the results he obtained were statistically significant. What does this mean? a. His results were likely to be caused by a single strong variable. b. His results were unlikely to be a consequence of chance variations in his sample. c. His results are important and will likely have an impact in the field of botany. d. His results will be of interest to people, even if they are not botanists. 270. Design a simple descriptive/correlational study to investigate the relationship between television violence and

children’s aggressive behaviour.

271. What is the difference between a positive correlation and a negative correlation? List some specific variables

that you predict would be positively correlated, and variables that would be negatively correlated, with alcohol consumption by college students.

272. What are the relative weaknesses and strengths of descriptive/correlational research as opposed to

experimental research? Under what conditions would a psychologist choose one method as opposed to the other?

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 273. Describe the problems in research associated with placebo effects and experimenter bias. Explain how you

would attempt to prevent these problems within a research design.

274. Design a simple experiment to investigate the effects of television violence on children’s aggressive behaviour,

being sure to identify the independent and dependent variables, and the experimental and control groups.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. a 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 27. d 28. d 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. c 36. a 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. a 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. c 52. b 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 55. b 56. b 57. d 58. a 59. b 60. d 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. b 65. c 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. d 70. d 71. d 72. a 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. b 77. d 78. c 79. c 80. d 81. b 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 83. d 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. d 89. c 90. a 91. a 92. c 93. d 94. a 95. b 96. b 97. a 98. b 99. d 100. d 101. c 102. b 103. c 104. a 105. b 106. c 107. a 108. a 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 111. d 112. c 113. d 114. d 115. c 116. c 117. d 118. d 119. b 120. d 121. c 122. b 123. c 124. c 125. b 126. d 127. a 128. c 129. c 130. d 131. c 132. b 133. a 134. b 135. d 136. d 137. a

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 138. b 139. c 140. b 141. d 142. c 143. a 144. d 145. c 146. a 147. b 148. b 149. a 150. b 151. d 152. b 153. b 154. c 155. c 156. d 157. d 158. b 159. c 160. d 161. b 162. c 163. c 164. b 165. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 166. c 167. a 168. b 169. a 170. c 171. a 172. c 173. b 174. d 175. c 176. b 177. a 178. a 179. a 180. d 181. d 182. c 183. c 184. b 185. a 186. a 187. c 188. d 189. c 190. d 191. b 192. d 193. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 194. a 195. b 196. a 197. c 198. d 199. a 200. c 201. c 202. a 203. a 204. b 205. b 206. c 207. c 208. c 209. d 210. b 211. b 212. c 213. b 214. d 215. d 216. d 217. c 218. d 219. d 220. d 221. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 222. c 223. d 224. d 225. a 226. c 227. a 228. a 229. d 230. d 231. d 232. a 233. d 234. d 235. a 236. b 237. c 238. b 239. b 240. d 241. c 242. d 243. b 244. a 245. b 246. c 247. b 248. b

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 249. b 250. d 251. b 252. c 253. d 254. d 255. b 256. c 257. a 258. c 259. a 260. c 261. a 262. c 263. b 264. c 265. b 266. a 267. a 268. a 269. b 270. Again, there are numerous possibilities. Make certain that both variables are operationally defined; that a specific

descriptive/correlational method (such as naturalistic observation or survey) is selected; and that causation is neither stated nor implied. The student may also cite a case study. In naturalistic observation designs, the student may make mention of how they control for reactivity. 271. Positive correlation: As scores on variable X increase, scores on variable Y tend to increase, too. Examples are

alcohol consumption and body weight, and alcohol consumption and number of missed classes. Negative correlation: As scores on variable X increase, scores on variable Y tend to decrease. Examples are alcohol consumption and coordination, and alcohol consumption and grade point average. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 1 272. Experimental research is the more powerful of the two methods, in that it allows precise control over the

independent variable and therefore yields cause-and-effect conclusions. On the other hand, experiments may be somewhat artificial and often cannot be done for ethical reasons. Descriptive/correlational studies are conducted in the subjects’ natural environment, they are easier and faster to do than experiments, and they can be done ethically in many circumstances in which experiments cannot. However, the researcher has little control over extraneous variables, and so cause-and-effect conclusions cannot be drawn. The choice between the two methods is a function of practical and ethical considerations. 273. Placebo effects: Participants may expect an effect of an experimental treatment, and so will feel an effect or show a

change in behaviour. This change is due to expectancy, not to manipulation of the independent variable. You would deal with this problem by having a placebo control group (a group that gets an inert version of the independent variable) so that you can compare the change in the experimental group to the change in a group that received a placebo. Experimenter bias: Researchers may unwittingly lead participants to respond in a particular way or may interpret their data in a particular way that confirms their pre-existing hypotheses. In order to avoid this effect, it is recommended that the studies be designed so that the experimenter doesn’t know which condition the participants are in (i.e., the experimenter is “blind” as to their condition). One such option is a double-blind procedure, in which neither the experimenters nor the participants know who is in which group). [NOTE: A double-blind study may also control for some aspects of placebo effects, as long as both active and inert versions of the independent variable are given.] 274. There are numerous possible experimental designs. Make sure there is an explicit, testable hypothesis; that

“television violence” and “aggressive behaviour” are operationally defined; that children are randomly assigned to groups; and that the control group is exposed to nonviolent television rather than to no television at all. Consider how you will rule out extraneous or confounding variables and explain. Also, the answer may involve the steps of research including literature review, method, procedure, and publication in a journal.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. According to the Neuman (2019) study on racism in Canada, which of the following groups faces the most discrimination as compared with other minority ethnic groups? a. Arab Canadians b. Indigenous Peoples c. Black Canadians d. Chinese Canadians 2. If your test score is at the 70th percentile, what proportion of the class got a higher score than you did? a. 3 percent b. 7 percent c. 30 percent d. 70 percent 3. Who is famous for her use of naturalistic observation as used to study the social and family life and behaviour of chimpanzees? a. Jane Goodall b. Brenda Milner c. Mary Ainsworth d. Mahzarin Banaji 4. In which of the following studies would social desirability bias be most likely to affect results? a. a survey about water use and recycling habits b. an experimental analysis of looking-times for a variety of faces c. a naturalistic observation of shoppers in a mall d. a correlational study examining the relationship between age and metabolism 5. In experimental research, which variable is measured during data collection? a. dependent variable b. primary variable c. independent variable d. secondary variable 6. Which of the following science goals is reflected in psychologists’ hopes that their research will help to solve some practical problem? a. understanding and prediction b. measurement and description c. construction and revision d. application and control 7. What procedure would you use to ensure that experimental and control groups will be similar in most ways? a. The control group would be allowed to be larger than the experimental group. b. Extensive interviewing and checklists allow you to document all potential differences. c. Operational definitions of similarity must be created. d. Random assignment allows groups to be fairly similar. 8. What are the two main types of research methods used in psychology? a. experimental and case study research methods b. descriptive/correlational and case study research methods c. descriptive and correlational research methods d. experimental and descriptive/correlational research methods

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 9. Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency? a. mode b. median c. mean d. medium 10. What conditions differ between the experimental and control groups? a. nothing; conditions are perfectly controlled between the two groups b. only the dependent variable c. only the independent variable d. both the dependent and independent variables 11. If a researcher varies the loudness of music in a factory to observe its effect on the rate of productivity of the employees, what is the independent variable? a. loudness of music b. factory setting c. employees d. rate of productivity 12. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the use of deception in psychological research? a. Participants in research involving the use of deception generally report that they enjoyed the experience. b. Critics of deception believe that the deception may result in subjects becoming less trusting of others. c. Critics of deception believe that the conclusions from studies involving deception are not valid. d. Defenders of deception believe that some research questions can be studied only by using deception. 13. Which statement best illustrates a correlation between two variables? a. Scores on one variable are related to scores on the second variable. b. Scores on either variable cause scores on the other variable. c. Scores on one variable are different from the scores on the second variable. d. Scores on one variable are independent from the scores on the second variable. 14. In which research method does a researcher engage in careful recording of behaviour without intervening directly with the subjects? a. the case study method b. the survey method c. the naturalistic observation method d. the correlation method 15. With which major advantage of the scientific approach are operational definitions most closely associated? a. the common sense approach b. intolerance of error c. clarity and precision d. tolerance of error 16. What is the primary ethical dilemma that psychologists encounter regarding the use of deception in research? a. whether the deception affects all participants equally b. whether subjects believe the deception c. whether there is a possibility of inflicting harm on subjects d. whether deception is induced by the researcher or by participants 17. What is the mean of the following distribution of scores: 1, 2, 3, 7, 7? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 18. What defines psychology as a science? a. the use of statistics b. the commitment to answer questions by way of use of empirical methods c. the use of case studies d. the collection of data 19. Most typically, how do researchers report their findings? a. in a journal b. in a book c. by holding a press conference d. in a scientific magazine 20. In terms of the scientific method, what are variables? a. factors that change unpredictably within a study b. measures of variability within a study c. measurable items that are controlled or observed in a study d. factors that are affected by experimental manipulation 21. If a researcher varies the loudness of music in a factory to observe its effect on the rate of productivity of the employees, what is the dependent variable? a. loudness of music b. rate of productivity c. factory setting d. the employees 22. Dr. Engelhart is investigating the effect of high room temperature on aggressive behaviour in preschoolers. Half of the children are in a classroom where the temperature is 31°C (hot) and half are in a classroom where the temperature is 21°C (normal). Dr. Engelhart measures the number of hitting incidents that occur in each classroom. In this study, which group is in the hot classroom? a. the control group b. the experimental group c. the independent group d. the dependent group 23. Dr. Coulombe is conducting an experiment on the effect of alcohol consumption on reaction time. Half of the subjects drink alcoholic drinks and half drink non-alcoholic versions of the same drinks. Which type of research flaw should be minimized by this research design? a. experimenter expectancy b. self-report bias c. the placebo effect d. sampling bias 24. What is the term for the most frequent score in a distribution? a. mean b. medium c. median d. mode 25. Theresa has decided to test whether listening to music while studying improves retention of the studied information. Now that she knows what she wants to test, what is the next step in the scientific method? a. selecting a research method and designing the study b. collecting the data c. formulating a testable hypothesis d. analyzing the data and drawing conclusions

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 26. Which of the following science goals is a researcher pursuing by creating an operational definition of creativity? a. construction and revision b. application and control c. understanding and prediction d. measurement and description 27. Pamela is conducting a study examining test scores before and after memory training, and she will compare the results for men to results for women. What do we call the comparison of men’s and women’s results? a. correlation effects b. between-subjects design c. interaction effects d. within-subjects design 28. If test scores for your midterm are normally distributed, what percentage of people scored higher than the mean? a. 25 percent b. 33 percent c. 50 percent d. 66 percent 29. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the correlation coefficient? a. The strength of the relationship between the two variables is described by the mathematical value. b. A value near zero indicates no relationship between the two variables. c. High values indicate that the two variables have a cause-and-effect relationship. d. The type of relationship between the two variables is described by whether the value is positive or negative. 30. Dr. Rosenfeld plans to study the relationship between people’s smoking behaviour and their tendency to have minor physical illnesses (such as colds or the flu). Why might she be most likely to choose correlational research for this study? a. Correlational studies allow the researcher to draw strong cause-and-effect conclusions. b. The university does not allow smoking in the psychology building. c. It is not practical or ethical to manipulate people’s smoking behaviour. d. Correlational studies are always the “first choice” of researchers. 31. If one variable can be reliably predicted from another variable, what can be said about the correlation between those two variables? a. It is strong. b. It is weak. c. It is negative. d. It is positive. 32. While researching the effects music listening has on study retention, Theresa has documented her own study habits and music listening and has tested herself weekly for retention. As she continues using the scientific method, what is her next step? a. analyzing the data and drawing conclusions b. selecting a research method and designing the study c. reporting the findings d. collecting the data

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 33. As part of a study examining the role of different teaching methods on children’s math abilities, Dr. Garneau tested the children using a standardized math test. In Year 1, the standard teaching method was used. In Year 2, a new teaching method was used. In Year 1, the test was administered in October, near the beginning of the school year. In Year 2, the test was administered in May, near the end of the school year. Although Dr. Garneau’s results suggest that children in Year 2 demonstrated more math skills than children in Year 1, why are Dr. Garneau’s results not very useful? a. There was no control group. b. Results due to teaching method are confounded by the time of year the children were tested. c. Children in Year 2 had the benefit of a different teaching method, so you can’t compare them to children in Year 1. d. Different children were used in each group, and this is a confound. 34. In which research method does a researcher use questionnaires or interviews to gather information about specific aspects of behaviour in a sample of participants? a. naturalistic observation method b. survey method c. case study method d. correlation method 35. Which of the following is NOT a common methodological flaw to consider when evaluating scientific research? a. subject effect b. placebo effect c. social desirability bias d. sampling bias 36. For which method might a researcher employ a number of techniques such as interviews, direct observations, and psychological testing? a. a survey b. naturalistic observation c. a correlation d. a case study 37. Which of the following describes what is happening when two variables are associated in a way that makes it hard to sort out their specific effects? a. reactivity b. random sampling c. confounding d. variance 38. Which of the following describes what occurs when a researcher’s expectations or preferences about the outcome of a study influence the results obtained? a. experimenter bias b. participant bias c. confounding outcomes d. placebo effect 39. Which of the following was one important ethical guideline that was not followed by the administrators of the Tuskegee Syphilis Study? a. They told the participants that they had the disease but did not provide counselling or support. b. They obtained consent verbally from the participants but did not get it in writing. c. They did not obtain informed consent from the participants. d. They treated the participants for a medical condition without their consent.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 40. Dr. Santiago is investigating the effect of warm room temperature on aggressive behaviour in preschoolers. Half of the children are in a classroom where the temperature is 31°C (hot) and half are in a classroom where the temperature is 21°C (normal). Dr. Santiago measures the number of hitting incidents that occur in each classroom. In this study, what is the term for the number of hitting incidents? a. control group b. experimental group c. independent variable d. dependent variable 41. What is the principal advantage of descriptive/correlational research methods? a. They allow the researcher a high level of control over the variables of interest. b. They can examine research questions that because of practical and ethical reasons cannot be studied with other methods. c. They permit conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships. d. They often observe behaviour in artificial situations. 42. What does a large correlation coefficient (either positive or negative) indicate? a. A third factor or variable is responsible for the relationship between the two variables. b. A change in one variable causes a change in the second variable. c. The scores on the two variables are nearly identical. d. One variable can be used to predict the other variable. 43. What do we call a numerical index of the degree of relationship between two variables? a. variable coefficient b. experimental coefficient c. correlation coefficient d. causation coefficient 44. Which statement best describes most journal articles in psychology? a. They are descriptions of newly developed theories. b. They are reviews that summarize and reconcile the findings from a large number of studies. c. They are criticisms of previously published research. d. They are reports that describe original empirical studies. 45. Which measure of central tendency is most sensitive to (or most influenced by) extreme scores in a distribution? a. median b. medium c. mode d. mean 46. In experimental research, what happens to subjects in the experimental group? a. They do not receive the dependent variable. b. They receive some special treatment in regard to the independent variable. c. They do not receive some special treatment in regard to the independent variable. d. They receive the dependent variable. 47. Theresa has conducted research on the effects listening to music has on study retention. In this case, what is “listening to music”? a. extraneous variable b. dependent variable c. independent variable d. controlled variable Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 48. What is the mode of the following distribution of scores: 1, 2, 3, 7, 7? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 49. If two variables have a positive correlation, then you should expect that low scores on one variable would predict which type of score on the other variable? a. a low score b. a high score c. a positive score d. a negative score 50. Why must psychologists submit their research for an ethical review before conducting the research? a. to get paid b. to ensure they don’t conduct unethical research, as has happened in the past c. to protect themselves from liability d. to advise the community of their research and the ethical safeguards, but not to seek approval 51. Dr. Tremblay is a clinical psychologist who notes that an unusually large number of depressed or anxious people tend to gain weight. She offers an explanation that the hormones associated with stress lead to changes in metabolism that cause weight gain. What is the term for her explanation? a. a variable b. an educated opinion c. a verifiable fact d. a theory 52. Which of the following science goals is a researcher pursuing by studying stress reactions in elderly people to determine the risk factors for subsequent heart attacks and depression? a. construction and revision b. measurement and description c. understanding and prediction d. application and control 53. Which of the following is an index of the amount of variability in a set of data? a. correlation coefficient b. central tendency c. statistical significance d. standard deviation 54. As adults age, their physical strength declines. What type of correlation exists between age and physical strength? a. a strong correlation b. a negative correlation c. a weak correlation d. a positive correlation 55. Which of the following research methods would likely be chosen when it is impractical to manipulate the variables of interest? a. an experimental method b. a commonsense method c. the logical method d. a descriptive/correlational method 56. What is the median of the following distribution of scores: 1, 2, 3, 7, 7? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 57. What is reflected by the organization or standard format of journal articles describing psychological research? a. the steps involved in conducting scientific research b. the unifying themes of psychology c. the preferences of the specific researcher d. the goals of science 58. Which section of a journal article describing psychological research contains the author’s interpretation and evaluation of the data? a. conclusion b. references c. results d. discussion 59. What is the term for the group of individuals actually observed in a research study? a. target group b. population c. demographic d. sample 60. Theresa is going to conduct a study as part of her honours thesis for her psychology degree. What will her first step be if she follows the steps associated with the scientific method? a. develop a theory b. formulate a testable hypothesis c. select the research method and design the study d. collect the data 61. Who worked at McGill University and made important contributions to our knowledge about the brain and memory processes through her work with the famous patient Henry Molaison (H.M.)? a. Jane Goodall b. Brenda Milner c. Mary Ainsworth d. Mahzarin Banaji 62. Which research method allows you to draw conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships? a. experimental method b. correlational method c. survey method d. descriptive method 63. What do descriptive and correlational research methods allow researchers to do? a. exert precise control over the variables being studied b. draw conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships c. manipulate several variables at the same time d. examine whether there is an association between variables being studied 64. What is one disadvantage or limitation of the experimental research method? a. It frequently takes place under artificial circumstances. b. The researcher has little control over the situation. c. It does not allow for conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships. d. It does not allow for a description of behaviour.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 65. A researcher sits on a park bench and records the number of joggers who are wearing headphones. Which research method is being employed by the researcher? a. naturalistic observation b. experimental method c. survey method d. case study method 66. In experimental research, which variable is measured because it is thought to be affected by the manipulation of another variable? a. independent variable b. extraneous variable c. controlled variable d. dependent variable 67. If there are many conflicting results on a particular topic, which of the following methods would help the researcher make sense of the data? a. inferential statistics b. meta-analysis c. experiment d. measures of central tendency 68. If there is a relationship between amount of coffee consumed daily and number of hours slept, such that people who drink a lot of coffee tend to sleep very little (and people who drink little coffee tend to sleep a lot), what correlation exists between coffee consumption and sleep? a. a negative correlation b. a positive correlation c. a decreasing correlation d. an increasing correlation 69. What research method is being used if a researcher manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observes whether any changes occur in a second variable? a. correlational method b. descriptive method c. experimental method d. observational method 70. Jarrod explains his opinion against buying a certain model of car by noting that even though the model is popular and highly rated by numerous organizations, his cousin has that model and has had many problems. How is Jarrod making his decision? a. He is basing his opinion on anecdotal evidence. b. He is basing his opinion on first-hand information. c. He is using the evidence-based decision-making procedure. d. He is using critical thinking skills to reach an opinion. 71. Dr. Ishtar is investigating the effect of music on the productivity of employees in a factory. Half of the employees listen to music while working and half do not listen to music. Dr. Ishtar measures the productivity of each employee. In this study, which group listens to music? a. the experimental group b. the independent group c. the dependent group d. the control group 72. Monica is conducting a study to determine whether there are IQ differences between people who go to private school and people who go to public school. Which data collection technique should she use? a. physiological recordings b. questionnaires c. psychological tests d. direct observations

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 73. In experimental research, which subjects do NOT receive some special treatment in regard to the independent variable? a. those in the correlational group b. those in the observational group c. those in the control group d. those in the experimental group 74. Which term refers to variables, other than the independent variable, that seem likely to influence the behaviour of subjects in a study? a. dependent variables b. control variables c. extraneous variables d. random variables 75. Dr. Ostrofsky is investigating the effect of high room temperatures on aggressive behaviour in preschoolers. Half of the children are in a classroom where the temperature is 31°C (hot) and half are in a classroom where the temperature is 21°C degrees (normal). Dr. Ostrofsky measures the number of hitting incidents that occur in each classroom. In this study, what is the term for the temperature of the room? a. control group b. dependent variable c. independent variable d. experimental group 76. What are the two main advantages of the scientific approach? a. the use of common sense, and easy acceptance of the research findings of others b. the use of common sense, and intolerance of error c. clarity, and easy acceptance of the research findings of others d. precision, and intolerance of error 77. When a research project uses a sample that is not representative of the population from which it was drawn, what effect occurs? a. sampling bias b. experimenter bias c. response set d. placebo effect 78. What does the researcher do when using the naturalistic observation method? a. conduct an in-depth investigation of an individual subject b. engage in careful surveillance of behaviour without intervening directly with subjects c. manipulate a variable under carefully controlled conditions d. use questionnaires or interviews to gather information about specific aspects of participants’ behaviour 79. In the experimental method, the investigator manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions. What does the researcher do next? a. correlate the resulting behaviour b. survey participants to learn their assessment of the variable c. observe whether any changes occur in a second variable d. observe behaviour in its natural environment

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 80. Which statement best describes the use of animals in psychological research? a. While ethical principles govern the treatment of humans in research, there are no ethical principles for conducting animal research. b. Animals are to be used in research if there is evidence that the results will benefit both humans and other animals. c. Animals are used as subjects only for procedures that are too harmful for human participants. d. Psychologists, if given a choice, always prefer to conduct animal research instead of human research. 81. Which pair of terms related to the goals of science is most clearly associated with the concept of correlation? a. description and understanding b. understanding and prediction c. description and prediction d. prediction and application 82. Which of the following do naturalistic observations, case studies, and surveys all have in common? a. They involve manipulating the variables of interest in the study. b. They show cause-and-effect relationships. c. They take place in an artificial setting. d. They involve describing behaviour. 83. What is a research strategy that minimizes the potential methodological problems associated with the placebo effect and experimenter bias? a. blind sample procedure b. single blind procedure c. neutral sample procedure d. double blind procedure 84. Which of the following was a U.S. study conducted on Black men that provided strong evidence regarding the need for ethical guidelines in psychological research? a. the Tulsa Housing and Crime Project b. the Georgia Health Project c. the African Council Study d. the Tuskegee Syphilis Study 85. What are descriptive statistics? a. numerical indexes of the degree of relationship between two variables b. indicators of the probability that the observed findings are due to chance c. calculations used to organize and summarize data d. summaries used to interpret data and draw conclusions 86. In experimental research, which subjects receive some special treatment in regard to the independent variable? a. those in the observational group b. those in the control group c. those in the experimental group d. those in the correlational group 87. Todd is filling out a psychological test, and he doesn’t understand many of the questions. He decides to just choose “all of the above” for every answer. What does this example illustrate? a. experimenter bias b. halo effect c. response set d. social desirability bias

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 88. What do researchers use to determine whether the observed difference between the two groups in the study was large enough to support the hypothesis? a. descriptive statistics b. correlational statistics c. mathematical statistics d. inferential statistics 89. What is the principal disadvantage of the descriptive and correlational research methods? a. Because of practical or ethical reasons, they cannot be used to study some research questions. b. They do not allow the researcher to describe behaviour. c. They frequently observe behaviour in artificial situations. d. Because researchers cannot control variables of interest, conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships are not appropriate. 90. If Patrick hypothesizes that minor sleep deprivation will enhance his video-game playing skills, then what are the variables in his hypothesis? a. any factors, other than sleep deprivation, that affect his measurements b. sleep deprivation and video-game skills c. his scores on his favourite video games d. varying amounts of sleep deprivation 91. Eline wants to determine whether scented candles can help people relax. She plans to study two groups of students who have just finished difficult exams. One group will sit in a room with scented candles burning while the other group sits in a room without scented candles burning. Both groups will be monitored for heart rate. Which type of design is Eline planning for her research? a. case study b. correlational method c. naturalistic observation d. experimental method 92. What is the problem with an extraneous variable? a. It cannot be controlled for. b. It can cloud the situation and make it difficult to draw conclusions about how the independent variable affects the dependent variable. c. It cannot be measured. d. It depends on random sampling. 93. According to the ethical guidelines for psychological research with humans, if you agree to be a participant in a research study then which of the following must be promised? a. You will not be exposed to harmful or dangerous treatments without your knowledge. b. You waive the right to privacy. c. You have to commit to participating in the entire research study. d. You will not be exposed to deception.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 94. What is the primary reason that descriptive and correlational research cannot determine conclusively that variables have a cause-and-effect relationship? a. The researcher observes behaviour under artificial situations. b. The data collected frequently comes from direct observations or statements made by subjects. c. Only an experimental group is used. d. The researcher cannot control events or manipulate variables. 95. Which of the following science goals is a researcher pursuing by studying child development to help teachers develop better teaching methods? a. measurement and description b. application and control c. understanding and prediction d. construction and revision 96. Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates the strongest relationship between two variables? a. –1.51 b. –0.80 c. 0 d. +0.50 97. If a researcher uses an unobtrusive portable audio recorder to observe the behaviours of a parent and child, what type of research is this a form of? a. case study b. participant observation c. naturalistic observation d. experiment 98. For which of the following purposes would a psychologist conduct a case study? a. diagnostic and research purposes b. diagnostic purposes but not for research as case studies are not experiments c. research purposes only d. when there are enough subjects on which to compile the research data 99. What is a theory? a. a system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations b. an objective description of behaviour c. the application of research to practical problems d. a statement about the relationship between two or more variables 100. If A and B are highly correlated, which statement most accurately describes the relationship between A and B? a. The score on A causes the score on B. b. The score on B causes the score on A. c. Both A and B are caused by a third variable. d. The score on A can be used to predict the score on B. 101. What is NOT a typical variation of the experimental method? a. using an experimental group only and no control group b. manipulating more than one independent variable c. using one group of subjects who serve as both the experimental group and as their own control d. measuring more than one dependent variable Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 102. In which scientific research method are distortions in self-report most likely to be of concern to the researcher? a. survey method b. correlational method c. experimental method d. naturalistic observation method 103. Which of the following is NOT one of the subtests of the Graduate Record Exam (GRE), a standardized test used in some schools in Canada to screen graduate school applicants? a. verbal b. qualitative c. analytical d. quantitative 104. Pamela is conducting a study examining test scores before and after memory training, and she will compare the results for men to results for women. What do we call the comparison of results before training to results after training? a. within-subjects design b. correlation effects c. between-subjects design d. interaction effects 105. A researcher tries to make sure that subjects in the experimental and control groups are very similar to each other. This is done in order to reduce the effects of which type of variables? a. independent variables b. random variables c. dependent variables d. extraneous variables 106. In a study that examines the effects of a low-fat diet on mood, which group would receive a low-fat diet? a. the experimental group b. the independent group c. the dependent group d. the control group 107. With which unifying theme in psychology are the various methods and procedures used in conducting psychological research and evaluating the research of other psychologists consistent? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Psychology is empirical. c. Our behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. 108. In a study that examines the effects of stress on memory, which group would NOT be put under stress? a. the experimental group b. the control group c. the independent group d. the dependent group 109. In scientific investigations, a researcher must clearly outline the variables under study by precisely describing how they will be measured or controlled. What are these descriptions called? a. independent variables b. objective definitions c. operational definitions d. dependent variables 110. Compared to the other scientific research methods, what is the principal advantage of the experimental method? a. It allows for a description of behaviour. b. It permits conclusions about cause-and-effect relationships. c. It observes behaviour in its natural setting. d. It can easily be used to study all research questions. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 111. Which of the following occurs when a participant’s behaviour is altered by the presence of the observer in a naturalistic observation study? a. reactivity b. replication c. coupling d. variability 112. What do we call a periodical that publishes technical and scholarly material in a specific field? a. magazine b. blog c. publication d. journal 113. With which goal of science are scientific theories most directly associated? a. application and control b. understanding and prediction c. construction and revision d. measurement and description 114. Which of the following is a term for the group of individuals a sample is expected to represent? a. the target group b. the population c. the demographic d. the sample pool 115. Dr. Arrabella surveyed students in his finance class about their attitudes concerning the Canada Pension Plan and concluded that young adults across Canada doubt that they will ever receive Canada Pension benefits. Why might his conclusion be flawed? a. He knew his subjects before he surveyed them. b. His students were not a representative sample of young adults. c. He did not survey the entire population of young adults. d. His students were a random sample. 116. Dr. O’Hara is investigating the effect of music on the productivity of employees in a factory. Half of the employees listen to music while working and half do not listen to music. Dr. O’Hara measures the productivity of each employee. In this study, which group does NOT listen to music? a. the experimental group b. the dependent group c. the control group d. the independent group 117. Dr. McDougall is a researcher who measures blood alcohol level to determine intoxication. In this example, how is “blood alcohol level” being used? a. as a hypothetical variable b. as an independent variable c. as an operational definition d. as a covariant 118. Henri wants to determine whether infant birth weight predicts the age at which children begin to walk and run. Which design would be most appropriate for this research? a. case study b. naturalistic observation c. experimental method d. correlational method 119. What does the researcher do when using the case study method? a. manipulate a variable under carefully controlled conditions b. use questionnaires or interviews to gather information about specific aspects of participants’ behaviour c. conduct an in-depth investigation of an individual subject d. engage in careful observation of behaviour without intervening directly with subjects Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 120. In scientific research, what is the result called when participants’ expectations lead them to experience some change even though they received an empty, fake, or ineffectual treatment? a. experimenter bias b. subject bias c. the placebo effect d. demand characteristics 121. If you were designing a study that would be run online, so that you would collect all your data over the Internet with participants that you never meet, which of the following research flaws would be minimized? a. sampling bias b. response set c. halo effect d. experimenter bias 122. If researchers were interested in studying common attitudes toward “animal rights issues,” which of the following would they be most likely to use? a. a case study b. a correlation c. a survey d. a naturalistic observation 123. Which of the following terms refers to a tentative statement about the relationship between two or more variables? a. hypothesis b. research method c. cause d. theory 124. Psychologists use a variety of data collection techniques. Which of the following is well suited for studying attitudes? a. direct observations b. psychological tests c. physiological recordings d. questionnaires 125. In which research method does a researcher conduct an in-depth investigation of an individual subject? a. case study method b. survey method c. naturalistic observation method d. correlational method 126. Which statement does NOT accurately describe anecdotal evidence? a. It consists of personal stories about specific incidents and experiences. b. Researchers have found that anecdotal evidence accounts for less persuasive impact than sound factual and statistical evidence. c. People are easily tempted or swayed by this type of information. d. This type of evidence tends to be concrete, vivid, and memorable. 127. With which of the following goals of science is scientists’ work most closely associated when they attempt to explain why something happened? a. application and control b. measurement and description c. construction and revision d. understanding and prediction

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 128. Tamara is conducting a study using two independent variables (music and lighting) and one dependent variable (blood pressure). Which effect can she look for when she analyzes her data? a. effects of blood pressure on perception of music and lighting b. effects of lighting on perception of music c. interactive effects of music and lighting on blood pressure d. interactive effects of blood pressure on perception of music and lighting 129. What does a researcher do when using the survey method? a. conduct an in-depth investigation of an individual subject b. manipulate a variable under carefully controlled conditions c. use questionnaires or interviews to gather information about participants’ behaviour d. engage in careful observation of behaviour without intervening directly with subjects 130. If Dr. Conrad is interested in an in-depth study concerning the long-term consequences of serious injury on the psychological adjustment of a patient and his family, then which of the following research methods would Dr. Conrad be most likely to use? a. case study method b. experimental method c. naturalistic observation method d. survey method 131. What is the range of possible values for a correlation coefficient? a. between -10.00 and +10.00 b. between -1.00 and +1.00 c. between 0 and +1.00 d. between 0 percent and 100 percent 132. According to the ethical guidelines for conducting psychological research with animals, what is the current position on exposing animals to harmful or painful procedures? a. It is justified if the research design requires the harmful or painful procedures. b. It is justified for lower animals but not for primates. c. It cannot be justified unless the potential benefits of the research are substantial. d. It is never justified. 133. What is one disadvantage or limitation of the experimental research method? a. The researcher has little control over the situation. b. It does not allow for a description of behaviour. c. It does not allow for conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships. d. For practical or ethical reasons it cannot be used to study some research questions. 134. Which term is used to describe how much the scores in a data set differ from each other and from the mean? a. correlation b. mode c. variability d. central tendency

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 135. Dr. Wawanosh is investigating the effect of high room temperature on aggressive behaviour in preschoolers. Half of the children are in a classroom where the temperature is 31°C (hot) and half are in a classroom where the temperature is 21°C (normal). Dr. Wawanosh measures the number of hitting incidents that occur in each classroom. In this study, which group is in the classroom with the normal temperature? a. the control group b. the independent group c. the dependent group d. the experimental group 136. In a study that examines the effects of stress on memory, which group would be put under stress? a. the experimental group b. the independent group c. the control group d. the dependent group 137. What are inferential statistics? a. data used to organize and summarize data b. numerical indexes of the degree of relationship between two variables c. calculations used to interpret data and draw conclusions d. indicators of the variability of a population under study 138. Which statement does NOT accurately describe field experiments? a. They use settings that are much like real life. b. Findings from field experiments are less generalizable as compared to lab studies. c. They increase our confidence in the applicability of the research findings to ‘real life’. d. They involve sacrificing some level of control in the experiment. 139. The double blind procedure was developed by researchers because of which unifying theme in psychology? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. d. Our experience of the world is highly subjective. 140. What does it mean when research results are said to be statistically significant? a. The observed findings are interesting. b. The observed findings are important. c. The probability that the observed findings are due to chance is very low. d. The probability that the observed findings are scientific is very high. 141. What type of studies involves the repetition of a study to see whether the earlier results can be duplicated? a. duplication studies b. replication studies c. clarification studies d. verification studies 142. Which section of a journal article involving psychological research provides a brief summary to the research project? a. abstract b. introduction c. results d. discussion

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 143. In experimental research, which variable is manipulated by the researcher so that its impact on another variable may be assessed? a. controlled variable b. independent variable c. extraneous variable d. dependent variable 144. Which term describes a situation where a researcher’s expectations or preferences about the outcome of a study influence the results of the study? a. subject bias b. the placebo effect c. experimenter bias d. the sampling effect 145. Which of the following occurs when the probability of being assigned to any group in the study is the same for all participants? a. random assignment b. random sampling c. confounding of groups d. group equality 146. Ms. Sanjay, an elementary school teacher, believes that girls are smarter than boys. She predicts that the girls in her class will learn more than the boys during the school year. At the end of the year, her prediction could be supported or rejected. What would we call her prediction? a. a fact b. a hypothesis c. an opinion d. a theory 147. Which of the following have both survey and naturalistic observation research suggested regarding spanking? a. It is overused and ineffective. b. It is underused and effective. c. It is overused and more effective than was once thought. d. It is underused and ineffective. 148. What is one of the Canadian Psychological Association (CPA) ethical principles? a. prohibition of payments for research participation, in order to avoid exploitation b. prohibition of the use of deception in research c. protection for the dignity, privacy, and personal liberty of research participants d. detailed regulations regarding the appropriate housing and care of animals in research 149. In a study that examines the effects of a low-fat diet on mood, which group would receive a normal diet? a. the experimental group b. the independent group c. the control group d. the dependent group

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. d 8. d 9. d 10. c 11. a 12. c 13. a 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. a 26. d

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. c 40. d 41. b 42. d 43. c 44. d 45. d 46. b 47. c 48. d 49. a 50. b 51. d 52. c 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 55. d 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. d 60. b 61. b 62. a 63. d 64. a 65. a 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. c 70. a 71. a 72. c 73. c 74. c 75. c 76. d 77. a 78. b 79. c 80. b 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 83. d 84. d 85. c 86. c 87. c 88. d 89. d 90. b 91. d 92. b 93. a 94. d 95. b 96. b 97. c 98. a 99. a 100. d 101. a 102. a 103. b 104. a 105. d 106. a 107. b 108. b 109. c 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 111. a 112. d 113. b 114. b 115. b 116. c 117. c 118. d 119. c 120. c 121. d 122. c 123. a 124. d 125. a 126. b 127. d 128. c 129. c 130. a 131. b 132. c 133. d 134. c 135. a 136. a 137. c

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 2 138. b 139. d 140. c 141. b 142. a 143. b 144. c 145. a 146. b 147. a 148. c 149. c

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In an experiment, which variable is the one that is measured? a. dependent variable b. independent variable c. placebo variable d. extraneous variable 2. Variability measures the amount that a score differs from the a. mean b. median c. mode d. standard deviation 3. Drug G is currently under clinical investigation for the treatment of depressive symptoms. The hypothesis is that 10 mg of Drug G will reduce depressive symptoms by 50% as evidenced by the Beck Depression Inventory. What is the independent variable in this research? a. the Beck Depression Inventory b. 50% reduction in depressive symptoms c. 10 mg of Drug G d. depression 4. Ghazal is manipulating the length of words and measuring participants’ recall of the words following a delay. What is the independent variable in this experiment? a. the delay b. word length c. word recall d. the participants 5. Adrienne is comparing the arithmetic average from the control group to the arithmetic average from the experimental group to see if the independent variable had an effect. In other words, she is comparing which of the following? a. the standard deviations b. the medians c. the modes d. the means 6. Which measure of central tendency is the score that falls exactly in the middle of all scores in the distribution? a. mean b. median c. mode d. variance 7. Which of the following occurs when a research participant changes their behaviour because they know that they are being observed? a. reactivity b. sampling bias c. a placebo effect d. a Type II error 8. Having multiple observers and concealing observation can reduce the likelihood that participants will display which of the following? a. a Type II error b. reactivity c. sampling bias d. a placebo effect 9. Before conducting research involving an adult human participant, the research must obtain which of the following from the participant? a. proof of identity b. informed consent c. compensation d. a medical waiver

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 10. Which research method is an observation technique where one person is studied in depth? a. case study b. experiment c. survey d. exploratory study 11. In a research study looking at whether people who wear glasses get better grades in school, the researchers asked 500 university students to allow them to access their university grades and also asked each participant if they wore glasses. The subsequent findings revealed a correlation coefficient indicating that one factor is a poor predictor of the other. Which of the following was most likely the number the researchers found? a. +.85 b. –.65 c. –.95 d. +.15 12. Deanna is a doctoral student studying aggression in teenagers for her dissertation research. What would be the most appropriate and effective method for Deanna to study this topic? a. staging an aggression interaction b. observing teenagers hanging out around the school c. distributing a survey to teens asking about aggressive behaviour d. talking to parents about their children’s aggressive behaviour 13. After recruiting 20 participants for her study, Dr. Ukranitz has assigned each participant a number from 1 to 20 and then scrambled the numbers using her computer. The participants associated with the first 10 numbers on the list will be part of the control group, and the last 10 will be part of the experimental group. What is this procedure called? a. random assignment b. random sampling c. a double-blind procedure d. a single-blind procedure 14. Drug P is currently under clinical investigation for the treatment of depressive symptoms. The hypothesis is that 20 mg of Drug P will reduce depressive symptoms by 50% as evidenced by the Beck Depression Inventory. What is the operational definition of depression in this research study? a. the score on the Beck Depression Inventory b. a 50% reduction in depressive symptoms c. 10 mg of Drug P d. time spent crying 15. Which of the following is crucial when conducting survey research? a. random assignment b. control groups c. a standard deviation d. random sampling 16. Angela participated in an experiment that measured how long it took her to name the colour (red, blue, or green) that colour words were presented in (congruent or incongruent). Since Angela saw each colour word presented in each colour, we can say she participated in which of the following? a. a between-subjects experiment b. a within-subjects experiment c. a double-blind procedure d. a single-blind procedure

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 17. Professor Patel is studying the effect of practice tests on learning. She gives all participants a list of facts to learn. Half the participants read and re-read the facts while the other half read the facts and then are given practice tests. After a certain amount of time, all participants are given the same quiz. In this experiment, what type of variable is the quiz score? a. the dependent variable b. the independent variable c. the placebo variable d. an extraneous variable 18. The statement “older children use longer sentences than younger children” is an example of which of the following? a. a theory b. a hypothesis c. a control group d. an independent variable 19. Dr. Marchesseau is interested in determining if people living in different countries spend the same amount of time smiling. He chooses 50 participants in nine different countries to be included in his study and has research assistants record each time each participant smiles during a 30-minute period. What type of research design is Dr. Marchesseau using? a. naturalistic observation b. case study c. survey research d. correlation 20. Professor Hasan prefers studying children in their natural environment to studying children in experiments. This is likely because Professor Hasan believes which of the following about experiments? a. Experiments are artificial. b. Experiments lack control. c. Experiments can’t be used to determine cause and effect. d. Experiments make random assignment impossible. 21. What is the main purpose of including multiple independent variables in a research study? a. to save time b. to observe interactions c. to encourage replication d. to reduce experimenter bias 22. Professor Takopolous is concerned about the variance in the scores from one of his experiments. What statistic is MOST concerning to Professor Takopolous? a. the standard deviation b. the mean c. the median d. the correlation coefficient 23. Dr. Parron is investigating whether social influence alone can make some individuals feel as though they have ingested an alcoholic beverage. Which of the following is Dr. Parron MOST interested in in this study? a. anecdotal evidence b. replication c. placebo effects d. naturalistic observation 24. Tara is participating in a research study with her toddler. Tara is interacting with her toddler in a more patient and calm way in the lab than she does at home most days. What is Tara demonstrating? a. sampling bias b. reactivity c. the placebo effect d. the third variable problem

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 25. Dr McGill is studying the relationship between spending time patting a dog and happiness. Dr. McGill plans to measure happiness based on how frequently a person smiles or laughs. What is this measure of happiness called? a. operational definition b. hypothetical question c. conclusive statement d. independent variable 26. Dr. Sterling, a leading researcher in Parkinson’s disease, is studying the effects of a new drug on 20 Parkinson’s patients in the hospital where he works. What is the population of his study? a. the 20 patients in Dr. Sterling’s study b. all Parkinson’s patients in Dr. Sterling’s hospital c. everyone with Parkinson’s disease d. the population of Canada 27. Dr. Rossi is reviewing the results from an experiment she conducted recently. She notes that the results seem to be affected by the time of day during which the experiment took place. What kind of variable would time of day be in this experiment? a. placebo b. subjective c. dependent d. extraneous 28. Professor Stetski finds a correlation of .75 between class attendance and scores on a class test. What does this correlation suggest was the impact of having high attendance in Dr. Stetski’s class? a. It increased test scores a great deal. b. It decreased test scores a great deal. c. It increased test scores but only a small amount. d. It decreased test scores but only a small amount. 29. What is the term for a variable other than the independent variable that is likely to affect the dependent variable? a. extraneous variable b. correlation coefficient c. placebo d. median 30. In which type of study does a participant receive only one level of the independent variable? a. a between-subjects design b. a within-subjects design c. a double-blind procedure d. a single-blind procedure 31. Which of the following should Dr. Yoshimura conduct if she wants to determine whether a certain antidepressant causes drowsiness? a. a case study b. a correlational study c. a survey d. an experiment 32. You are fascinated by an eccentric relative, who is well-known for having taken in numerous stray animals. You are also interested in studying how to get more people to adopt pets from the animal shelter. Which of the following would you conduct in order to study this type of altruistic behaviour? a. case study b. experiment c. correlational study d. survey Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 33. Which of the following is manipulated by the experimenter in an experiment? a. the independent variable b. the dependent variable c. the extraneous variable d. the subject variable 34. Xiang is manipulating the length of words and measuring participants’ recall of the words following a delay. What is the dependent variable in this experiment? a. the delay b. word recall c. word length d. the participants 35. Researchers are interested in possible similarities between people with gambling addictions and people who engage in excessive trading on the stock market. To investigate this issue, researchers conducted dozens of assessments on eight problem gamblers and eight individuals who engage in excessive trading and compared the two groups. What research method is being employed in this scenario? a. naturalistic observation b. case study method c. experimental d. survey 36. What is the term for a condition, event, or situation that is studied in an experiment? a. a variable b. a sample c. a hypothesis d. a control 37. What is the next step after a researcher has analyzed the results from an experiment? a. attempt to publish the research b. develop a testable hypothesis c. select a research method d. debrief the participants 38. A researcher collects IQ scores from a group of seven participants. The scores are 95, 100, 105, 110, 115, 120, and 160. What is the median IQ score for this group? a. 129 b. 100 c. 110 d. 120 39. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? a. mean b. reactivity c. correlation d. medium 40. Which of the following is the term for a testable prediction? a. hypothesis b. theory c. variable d. statistic 41. Dr. Griffin has developed a testable hypothesis for her research study. According to the scientific method, what should Dr. Griffin do next? a. identify the research question b. collect the data c. select a research method d. analyze the data

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 42. Dr. Jenner wants to know if a medication called Drug Q helps depression. He uses the Beck Depression Scale to measure depression in 12 patients with major depressive disorder before and after taking Drug Q for one month. What is the operational definition of depression in this experiment? a. a score on the Beck Depression Scale b. the amount of Drug Q taken by the patient c. the length of time that the patient takes Drug Q d. the difference in the two Beck Depression Scale scores 43. What kind of research design is being used when neither the researcher nor the participant knows what group the participant is in? a. a double-blind design b. a correlational design c. a within-subjects design d. a placebo design 44. Tabitha just participated in an experiment during which she was not exposed to the independent variable. Which group must Tabitha have been part of? a. control group b. focus group c. placebo group d. experimental group 45. Which of the following is a common criticism of experimental research? a. it is artificial b. it lacks control c. you cannot determine cause and effect d. random assignment is impossible 46. Pavel is presenting participants with large and small shapes and measuring how long it takes for participants to identify each stimulus’ shape. In this experiment, what is the shape size? a. independent variable b. dependent variable c. sample measure d. control variable 47. Which of the following is the experimenter using when a participant has equal chance of being in the experimental group or the control group? a. random sampling b. random assignment c. a double-blind procedure d. a single-blind procedure 48. Andre believes that because men are more aggressive than women, men will be more likely than women to become angry when frustrated by a researcher in a laboratory setting. Andre’s prediction regarding aggression is an example of which of the following? a. a hypothesis b. the hindsight bias c. illusory correlation d. the false consensus effect 49. Which of the following describes a theory? a. a statement of absolute fact b. a tool for explaining behaviour and mental processes c. a statement that cannot be changed d. a conclusion focused on a narrow set of findings

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 50. Terrence and Sanjay are studying how music affects attitudes. Terrence recruits 45 students to participate in his experiment, while Sanjay tests 12 students. Who has a more reliable study? a. Sanjay, because a small sample is more representative of the population. b. Terrence, because a larger sample better reflects the population of interest. c. Neither, because they are using a sample of students, which does not generalize to anyone else. d. Both Terrence and Sanjay, because they are doing the same experiment. 51. Which research technique gathers self-reported attitudes or behaviours of people by questioning them randomly and representatively? a. case study b. experiment c. survey d. naturalistic observation 52. Roberto is conducting a study on whether sleep deprivation increases stress levels. He will be observing and measuring levels of stress based on whether the subjects were assigned to deprived or non-deprived sleep conditions. In this experiment, what does the stress level represent? a. dependent variable b. independent variable c. confounding variable d. extraneous variable 53. When a researcher collects data by watching participants do an activity but does not interact with the participants, what research method is being used? a. a survey b. naturalistic observation c. a correlational study d. an experiment 54. Which of the following shows the strongest correlation? a. +.65 b. +.75 c. –.80 d. –.70 55. Dr. Panasiuk decided to publish a paper based on a patient who presented with a complicated case of schizophrenia. Her hope, besides getting published, is to share universal principles with the psychology community. This is an example of which of the following? a. survey b. case study c. exploratory study d. experiment 56. A university is conducting research on ways to improve study habits and help students with lower GPAs. The university sends out a questionnaire to undergraduate students asking how they study and what they feel is the most productive way to study. What data collection method is the university using? a. observational b. descriptive c. survey d. test 57. You are reading a psychology article and notice that the researchers find a perfect correlation between two variables. What is the number that you have just seen? a. +.10 b. 0.0 c. +1.0 d. –.10

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 58. Which of the following is indicated by a correlation of +.70 between children’s physical height and popularity among their peers? a. higher levels of popularity among peers are associated with greater physical height in children b. being unusually short or tall has a negative impact on children’s popularity c. there is no statistically significant relationship between children’s height and their popularity d. children’s height causes negative popularity 59. Dr. Frampton is discussing evolution with his class. Evolution is an example of which of the following? a. a theory b. a hypothesis c. a prediction d. a correlation 60. Psychologists create experiments intended to support or refute which of the following? a. a hypothesis b. a theory c. a random sample d. an operational definition 61. Meghan is conducting research for her honours thesis in psychology. What must Meghan do before she can have a participant run in her experiment? a. attain informed consent b. debrief the participant c. deceive the participant d. compensate the participant 62. When a researcher conducts an experiment using exactly the same method as a previous experiment and finds the same results, what is said to have occurred? a. replication b. plagiarism c. imitation d. duplication 63. In a between-subjects experiment, each participant receives only one level of which of the following? a. independent variable b. dependent variable c. placebo d. random sample 64. When conducting any experiment, a researcher must hold some factors constant while they do which of the following? a. manipulate the factors of interest b. test an equal number of males and females c. administer a survey d. sample all age groups 65. Which of the following represents the middle score in a distribution? a. the mean b. the median c. the mode d. the standard deviation 66. Professor Carter observes and records the behaviour of grocery shoppers as they select items to purchase. Which type of research is Professor Carter employing? a. survey research b. a case study c. experimentation d. naturalistic observation

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 67. University students at 20 campuses around the country were polled to determine how many students own cars. The group of students that were polled are which of the following? a. the population b. the sample c. the distribution d. the deviation 68. Which of the following should a researcher do FIRST? a. select a research method b. form a testable hypothesis c. collect the data d. analyze the data 69. Amy is conducting an experiment for her honours thesis. After Amy recruits a participant, what should she use to assign the participant to one of her experimental groups? a. representative sampling b. random assignment c. self-selection d. descriptive statistics 70. Which of the following aspects of an experiment would MOST concern an ethics committee at a university research facility? a. an experiment that uses virtual reality b. an experiment that employs deception c. an experiment that offers compensation to participants d. an experiment that gives feedback to the participant 71. Researchers have found a positive correlation between social activity and happiness; however, they don’t know whether social activity makes people happy or whether being happy leads to more social activity. What are the researchers experiencing? a. social desirability bias b. the third variable problem c. the placebo effect d. cognitive dissonance 72. Research results showed that experimental Drug R had a minimal to modest effect in reducing the symptoms of depression. Which of the following is the variable that is measuring the change in depressive symptoms? a. control condition b. independent variable c. experimental method d. dependent variable 73. When researchers can’t manipulate variables they are interested in studying, for ethical or practical reasons, what research approach should they use? a. experimental b. correlational c. double-blind d. placebo groups 74. Professor Fromm is conducting an experiment examining the effect of room temperature (cold, warm, and hot) on response time on easy and difficult tasks. Because each participant is tested only once, which of the following must this experiment be? a. a within-subjects design b. a between-subjects design c. a double-blind procedure d. a single-blind procedure

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 75. Kai is conducting a study on whether noise level increases feelings of anger. He will be manipulating levels of noise by randomly assigning subjects to different noise level conditions in which some will be exposed to more noise than others while answering questions about how they would respond in different social situations. In this experiment, noise level is which type of variable? a. dependent variable b. independent variable c. extraneous variable d. confounding variable 76. Professor Gillespie wants to establish a cause and effect relationship between two variables. What type of study does Professor Gillespie need to conduct? a. a case study b. a survey c. correlational research d. an experiment 77. Professor Kwok is interested in studying how students collaborate while completing group assignments. She records their activity using a hidden camera. What is the MOST likely reason why Professor Kwok wants to keep the recording a secret? a. She is concerned about Type II errors. b. She is concerned about reactivity. c. She is concerned about social loafing. d. She is concerned about debriefing the students. 78. What is indicated by a correlation coefficient? a. the differences between variables b. the similarities between variables c. the strength or weakness of the relationship between two factors d. the cause-and-effect relationship between two factors. 79. Which of the following is indicated by a negative correlation between people’s physical health and their marital happiness? a. high levels of marital happiness are associated with better health b. marital unhappiness promotes poor health c. higher levels of marital happiness are associated with worse health d. marital happiness has no causal influence on physical health 80. A psychologist wants to conduct a study with findings that are representative of the population of interest. Which research method runs the greatest risk that its findings may be unrepresentative of what is generally true? a. naturalistic observation b. a case study c. experimentation d. a survey 81. What is the mode of the following set of scores: 3 3 4 5 5 5 6 6? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 82. Which measure of central tendency is MOST affected by an extreme score? a. mean b. median c. mode d. significance 83. Which of the following is the variable that is measured by a researcher? a. independent variable b. dependent variable c. extraneous variable d. subject variable 84. Which of the following is a statistic that indicates the variance within a set of scores in an experiment? a. a mean b. a standard deviation c. a mode d. a correlation coefficient 85. Which type of research is vulnerable because participants may deliberately lie about their personal characteristics? a. survey research b. case study research c. naturalistic observation d. experimental research 86. What two elements are present in every experiment? a. random assignment and manipulation of an independent variable b. manipulation of an independent variable and random sampling c. random sampling and placebo groups d. placebo groups and random assignment 87. If Professor Yu’s study data have a standard deviation of 10 and Professor Munk’s replication of Professor Yu’s study reveals a standard deviation of 5, what can be concluded about Professor Munk’s data? a. They are less variable. b. The mean is higher. c. The median is lower. d. They are positively skewed. 88. Sarah plans to measure happiness based on how frequently a person smiles or laughs. What does the frequency of smiles represent in Sarah’s research? a. an operational definition of happiness b. a hypothetical question regarding happiness c. a conclusive statement about happiness d. an independent variable manipulating happiness 89. In an experiment, which group is exposed to the independent variable? a. the control group b. the experimental group c. the placebo group d. the pretest group 90. In an experiment, which group acts as a baseline against which changes in the experimental group can be compared? a. control group b. focus group c. placebo group d. variable group

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 91. What can researchers do to reduce the number of inaccurate findings in the scientific literature? a. They can replicate the work of other researchers. b. They can reduce the emphasis on statistical significance. c. They can use only double-blind procedures. d. They can publish fewer experiments. 92. Dr. Roberts wants to see how children usually interact on the playground. Which of the following should she probably use? a. survey b. experiment c. operational definition d. naturalistic observation 93. Dr. Henderson has just learned of an individual in her city who has an exceptional memory for personal events. What type of research is Dr. Henderson MOST likely to conduct involving this individual? a. a survey b. a case study c. an experiment d. correlational research 94. Professor Roy has conducted multiple experiments and has concluded that Drug X reduces anxiety because it increases the amount of GABA circulating in the brain. What does this belief represent? a. a theory b. a prediction c. a method d. a hypothesis 95. Gemma is conducting a study about how noise levels affect peoples’ feelings of aggression in different social settings. She will be comparing the aggressiveness of social decisions in different noise settings. In this experiment, aggressiveness is which type of variable? a. independent variable b. confounding variable c. dependent variable d. extraneous variable 96. As the age of a male professor increases, the amount of hair on his head decreases. Which of the following does this exemplify? a. a causal relationship b. a correlation c. a case method d. a random sample 97. Patricia just participated in an experiment examining the effect of alcohol on response time in a computer game. After the experiment was over, the experimenter told Patricia that she had been served alcohol. Which group was Patricia part of? a. the control group b. the experimental group c. the placebo group d. the pretest group 98. What is the median of the following set of scores: 2 2 2 4 5 5 6? a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 99. A hypothesis is a prediction that has which of the following characteristics? a. self-evident b. testable c. founded in behaviourism d. able to be replicated

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 100. Professor Sultana is seeing how long it takes 12 rats to complete maze X after consuming small, medium, and large meals. In this experiment, what is the independent variable? a. the size of the meal b. the number of rats c. maze completion time d. maze X 101. Dr. Morris tells a colleague that he found a significant difference between two means while conducting his research. What does Dr. Morris mean? a. The difference between the groups was large. b. The difference between the groups was interesting. c. The difference between the groups was historically significant. d. The difference between the groups was statistically significant. 102. Dr. Agnew is studying how well Drug Q helps memory. She administers 0 mg, 10 mg, or 20 mg of Drug Q to 60 participants using random assignment and then assesses their recall for lists of words following a 10-minute delay. What is the dependent variable in this experiment? a. word recall b. the amount of Drug Q c. the 10-minute delay d. the number of participants 103. A researcher who wants to determine how strongly two variables are associated with each other is MOST likely to conduct which of the following? a. naturalistic observation. b. correlational research. c. a case study. d. random assignment. 104. Which of the following involves choosing a sample of the population in a way that gives each person an equal chance of participating? a. biased sample b. random sample c. optimal sample d. atypical sample 105. Deepak is completing a survey about texting and driving. Although he occasionally texts when he is driving, he lies on the survey and says that he never does. Which of the following is Deepak displaying? a. social desirability bias b. a Type II error c. a placebo effect d. a negative correlation 106. A large pharmaceutical company writes a research protocol based on its belief in a new medication called Drug Z. The company predicts that Drug Z should reduce symptoms of depression. What does this prediction represent? a. a control b. a result c. a method d. a hypothesis 107. Dr. Parma found a correlation coefficient of –0.85 between amount of alcohol consumed and scores on a memory test. What does this correlation mean about increasing alcohol consumption in relation to test scores? a. it increased test scores a great deal b. it decreased test scores a great deal c. it increased test scores but only a small amount d. it decreased test scores but only a small amount Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 108. When conducting an experiment, researchers must make sure to do which of the following in addition to manipulating the factors of interest? a. include males and females in their samples b. hold constant or control other factors c. vary the time of day the participants are tested d. include case study examples in their samples 109. Professor Drewe has reviewed research showing that students benefit from practice tests. Professor Drewe wants to know what causes this effect. What research method should Professor Drewe use? a. survey b. correlational study c. experiment d. case study 110. In which type of study does a participant always receive all levels of the independent variable? a. a between-subjects design b. a within-subjects design c. a double-blind procedure d. a single-blind procedure 111. Professor Bardo is conducting an experiment with an experimental group and a control group. What method should he use to determine who is put in each group? a. representative sampling b. random assignment c. self-selection d. descriptive statistics 112. According to Gilbert et al. (2016), what is the replication rate for psychology experiments? a. 54%–57% b. 62%–66% c. 75%–77% d. 81%–85% 113. In science, the easiest way to isolate cause and effect is to conduct which of the following? a. a case study b. a correlation study c. a survey d. an experiment 114. Dr. Chen is researching the nature of memory loss among people with Alzheimer’s disease. She assesses the memory of 50 individuals from 10 different Alzheimer’s day centres across the country. In Dr. Chen’s research, what do the 50 individuals that she assesses represent? a. sample b. population c. distribution d. control group 115. Explaining as much about the experiment as possible is essential before a research psychologist asks a participant for which of the following? a. their name b. informed consent c. compensation d. their date of birth 116. Which of the following is a descriptive research method? a. random sampling b. naturalistic observation c. correlation d. functionalism

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 117. Dr. Edwards is studying whether a new drug helps people with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). In his experiment neither he nor his participants know who has been given the drug and who has been given the placebo. What kind of experiment is Dr. Edwards conducting? a. a correlational study b. a double-blind procedure c. a single-blind procedure d. a within-subjects design 118. The statement “older children can hold more information in working memory because their frontal lobes are more developed than younger children’s frontal lobes” is an example of which of the following? a. a theory b. a hypothesis c. replication d. sampling bias 119. Which of the following is a term for a variable that is manipulated by the researcher? a. independent variable b. dependent variable c. extraneous variable d. subject variable 120. Dr. Gunnarson is attempting to publish data from an experiment. The reviewers will check to ensure that his methods included which of the following? a. random assignment and the manipulation of an independent variable b. the manipulation of an independent variable and a placebo group c. a placebo group and a within-subjects design d. a within-subjects design and random assignment 121. Which of the following statistics is an average? a. mean b. median c. mode d. standard deviation 122. You have discovered in your recent research study that as self-reported levels of anxiety decrease, binge-eating behaviour significantly decreases. Which of the following have you just revealed? a. a positive correlation b. a negative correlation c. a cause of binge eating d. a cause of anxiety 123. Market researchers contacted every 20th person who purchased a specific brand of lawnmower. Which technique were these researchers employing? a. naturalistic observation b. double-blind procedure c. random sampling d. replication 124. Dr. Agnew is studying how well Drug Q helps memory. She administers 0 mg, 10 mg, or 20 mg of Drug Q to 60 participants using random assignment and then assesses their recall for lists of words following a 10-minute delay. What aspect of this experiment provides experimental control? a. random assignment b. the amount of Drug Q c. the 10-minute delay d. word recall 125. In order to conduct psychological research involving human participants in Canada, an institution MUST have which of the following? a. a research ethics board b. a facility with laboratories c. a medical doctor on site d. a licence purchased from the government Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 126. Dr. Gupta is studying the effect of a treatment program for weight loss. He thinks that personality may have affected his results. In other words, he thinks personality may be which of the following? a. a dependent variable b. an independent variable c. an extraneous variable d. a placebo 127. What kind of research design involves developing an in-depth description of one individual for the purposes of research? a. case study b. survey c. correlation d. experiment 128. Which of the following is the most frequent score observed in a set of data? a. mean b. median c. mode d. standard deviation 129. Your professor decides to conduct a survey with your class about whether the workload is reasonable for your course. For his survey he decides to take all 100 students’ names and assigns them each a number in order to have 50 students randomly chosen by his computer program. Which of the following describes your professor’s survey sample? a. representative and biased b. representative and atypical c. representative and optimal d. representative and random 130. Madison is conducting a study to see whether sleep deprivation increases stress levels. She will be manipulating levels of sleep by randomly assigning subjects to different conditions in which some will sleep fewer hours than others. She will then measure perceived stress in those individuals during the day. In this experiment, sleep represents which of the following? a. dependent variable b. independent variable c. extraneous variable d. confounding variable 131. Dr. Agnew is studying how well Drug Q helps memory. She administers 0 mg, 10 mg, or 20 mg of Drug Q to 60 participants using random assignment and then assesses their recall for lists of words following a 10-minute delay. What is the independent variable in this experiment? a. word recall b. the amount of Drug Q c. the 10-minute delay d. random assignment 132. How do researchers describe an experimental outcome that is not likely to have occurred by chance? a. ethical b. valid c. statistically significant d. reliable 133. The third variable problem is primarily an issue for which type of research? a. survey b. correlational c. experimental d. case study

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. d 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. d 16. b 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. c

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. d 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. a 49. b 50. b 51. c 52. a 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 55. b 56. c 57. c 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. b 71. b 72. d 73. b 74. b 75. b 76. d 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. b 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 83. b 84. b 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. b 90. a 91. a 92. d 93. b 94. a 95. c 96. b 97. b 98. b 99. b 100. a 101. a 102. a 103. b 104. b 105. a 106. d 107. b 108. b 109. c 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_6ce_Vol 4 111. b 112. c 113. d 114. a 115. b 116. b 117. b 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. a 122. a 123. c 124. a 125. a 126. c 127. a 128. c 129. d 130. b 131. b 132. c 133. b

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Chap 03_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In order to assess the brain damage, Malcolm’s doctor needs to view an image from the left side of his brain, so he orders a _______ PET scan. a. transaxial b. coronal c. sagittal d. tomographic 2. Wes and Cam are ____ twins who share ____ of their DNA. a. monozygotic, 100% b. monozygotic, 50% c. dizygotic, 100% d. dizygotic, 50% 3. In response to his disorder, Brian develops depression and his doctor prescribes an SSRI for him. This medication works by ________________. a. increasing the overall production of serotonin b. increasing the release of serotonin from the dendrites c. blocking serotonin from leaving the synaptic cleft d. blocking serotonin from being released by the pre-synaptic neurons 4. To trigger contractions during birth, Diem’s _________________. a. pituitary gland released endorphins b. hypothalamus released endorphins c. pituitary gland released oxytocin d. hypothalamus released oxytocin 5. Which part of Mirna’s nervous system was activated while she was sitting on the couch and telling the story to her roommate? a. Her sympathetic nervous system b. Her parasympathetic nervous system c. Her afferent nervous system d. Her efferent nervous system 6. Which neurotransmitter is most likely to have been released in Mirna’s nervous system when she saw the dog? a. Epinephrine b. Dopamine c. Norepinephrine d. Adrenaline 7. If Mirna was in an fMRI machine while she was telling the story with the dog incident to her roommate, which of the following brain areas would show the biggest activation? a. Her hippocampus b. Her amygdala c. Her hypothalamus d. Her thalamus 8. Malcolm relies on his ______ to help him balance on his skates. a. cerebellum b. corpus callosum c. cerebrum d. spinal cord 9. When John visits Malcolm in the hospital he jokes and says “At least your medulla was not damaged.” This is because if the medulla was damaged, Malcolm ____________________. a. would not be able to experience sexual interest ever again b. would lose his ability for voluntary motor movement and develop Parkinson’s c. would die because he wouldn’t be able to breathe anymore d. would no longer experience fear Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Case-Based 10. Malcolm is diagnosed with Broca’s aphasia. When asked why he is in the hospital, how is he likely to respond? a. “I don’t know I don’t remember anything since I woke up the day of the game.” b. “Head…no good…speech can’t say talk you know?” c. “…” Malcolm will react as if he heard nothing. d. “I’m happy are you pretty? You look tomato!” 11. Brian is a 70-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with Alzheimer’s Disease. Because Alzheimer’s Disease has a genetic component, Brian is worried that his family is also at risk of developing the neurological disorder. As the disorder progresses Brian has a difficult time remembering details about his personal life or even recognizing his own son. Which of the following is most likely implicated with the emergence of Brian’s Alzheimer’s Disease? a. Deterioration of his glial tissue b. Deterioration of his neuronal dendrites c. Deterioration of his neuronal axons d. Deterioration of his neuronal synapses 12. While Diem is pregnant, she worries that her children are also going to suffer from schizophrenia. Trying to calm her down you present her with research that suggests that _______________. a. because they are twins at least one of them will not have the disorder b. if they diagnose the disorder early they can completely cure it c. schizophrenia has a very weak genetic link d. they will not inherit the disorder, but only a vulnerability to it 13. Ever since the accident Malcolm can no longer concentrate and his smoking habit has increased. This is could be because the nicotine in the cigarettes is an agonist for_____ and causes _____. a. acetylcholine,PSPs b. acetylcholine,IPSPs c. serotonin,PSPs d. serotonin,IPSPs 14. What is a possible explanation for why only Wes was diagnosed with schizophrenia? a. Medical error. Since they are identical twins they should both be diagnosed with the disorder or not diagnosed with the disorder. b. Wes experienced some type of traumatic brain injury and Cam did not. c. Wes was closer to his mother and used her as a model in behavioural learning. d. Wes experienced epigenetic changes that altered his phenotype. 15. Mirna is walking home from school and decides to take a shortcut across a small park. As she is walking, a large dog comes running towards her, barking loudly. Mirna is terrified and feels her heart beating hard in her chest and her breathing becomes more erratic. The dog’s owner comes over quickly and takes the dog away. Luckily, Mirna is not injured. She then goes home and tells the story to her roommate. Which part of Mirna’s nervous system was activated when she saw the dog? a. Her sympathetic nervous system b. Her parasympathetic nervous system c. Her afferent nervous system d. Her efferent nervous system

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Chap 03_6ce_Case-Based 16. Brian’s doctor wants to examine Brian’s brain structure and needs a three-dimensional, high-resolution image to determine the physical progression of the disorder. Which of the following tests is the doctor most likely going to request that Brian take? a. CT scan b. MRI scan c. fMRI scan d. EEG 17. What is one possible reason for Wes’ impulsive and indulgent personality at age 19? a. His neurons are not fully myelinated yet. b. His frontal lobe has not fully developed yet. c. His cerebrum has not fully developed yet. d. He is experiencing major synaptic pruning. 18. Which part of Mirna’s endocrine system was activated during the incident? a. Her ovaries b. Her pancreas c. Her adrenal glands d. Her thyroid gland 19. In response to his disorder, Brian develops depression and his doctor prescribes an SSRI for him. Apart from serotonin, low levels of _________ are also implicated in the development of depression. a. GABA b. acetylcholine c. norepinephrine d. dopamine 20. Malcolm is diagnosed with Broca’s aphasia. Which part of his brain is likely to be damaged? a. Left side of the frontal lobe b. Right side of the frontal lobe c. Left side of the temporal lobe d. Right side of the temporal lobe 21. Wes jokes that Cam has overactive pleasure centres. Which brain structure is Wes referring to? a. The medial forebrain bundle b. The reticular formation c. The prefrontal cortex d. The pituitary gland 22. John is trying to make Malcolm feel better. John tells Malcolm that he will soon be back to normal because brains are plastic and neurogenesis will eventually take place. Is John correct? a. No, neurogenesis never happens to adult humans. b. No, plasticity is not unlimited and the brain’s plasticity declines with age. c. Yes, neural wiring in the brain is flexible and constantly evolving. d. Yes, stem cells exist in the adult brain, so neurogenesis is unlimited. 23. Diem is pregnant with identical twins. She also suffers from schizophrenia. When her sons Wes and Cam are 19 years old, Wes is diagnosed with schizophrenia, but Cam is not. The twins are also different in personality: Wes is very impulsive, indulgent, and not very good at planning, while Cam is more reserved. When they have a conversation, Wes usually does all the talking and Cam the listening. Diem researched online and saw that one possible etiology of schizophrenia is excessive ___________. a. acetylcholine and impaired neural-glial communication b. acetylcholine and excessive neural pruning in the frontal lobe c. dopamine and impaired neural-glial communication d. dopamine and excessive neural pruning in the frontal lobe Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Case-Based 24. If Mirna was in an fMRI machine during her encounter with the dog, which of the following brain areas would show the biggest activation? a. Her hippocampus b. Her amygdala c. Her frontal lobe d. Her thalamus 25. Malcolm had been a professional hockey player with a great sense of his position in space. Even after retiring from professional hockey Malcom continued to play in seniors’ hockey leagues. During one of those seniors games, John (a player on the opposite team) knocked Malcolm to the ice and Malcolm hit his head hard enough to acquire brain damage. After the accident, John developed an enormous amount of guilt, which prompted him to enrol in Introduction to Psychology to learn more about brain function and neuroscience. Malcolm relies on his ______ lobe to be aware of his and his teammates’ position in space. a. frontal b. temporal c. occipital d. parietal 26. John is trying to impress Malcolm with his neuroscience knowledge, but fails to remember many of the details he studied. Quite accurately, he blames this on his ______________. a. hippocampus b. frontal lobe c. hypothalamus d. reticular formation 27. Brian’s doctor wants to examine his brain activity while he is performing simple mental operations to determine how widespread the effect of the disorder has progressed. Which of the following tests is the doctor most likely going to request Brian to take? a. CT scan b. MRI scan c. fMRI scan d. EEG 28. Based on their communication patterns, fill in the following analogy. Wes is to Cam as ______ are to _______. a. glial cells, terminal buttons b. synaptic vesicles, synapses c. somas, myelin sheaths d. axons, dendrites

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Chap 03_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. c 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. d 24. b 25. d 26. a

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Chap 03_6ce_Case-Based 27. c 28. d

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which division of the nervous system is most likely to be in control of bodily processes during periods of rest

and recovery for the body? a. parasympathetic b. somatic c. peripheral d. sympathetic 2. If you were making a new drug to treat pain, which type of neurotransmitter would you attempt to mimic? a. dopamine b. monoamines c. acetylcholine

d. endorphins

3. Which comparison group has a significant similarity with adopted children, based on research on adopted

children and intelligence? a. their biological parents c. their adoptive parents

b. both sets of parents d. their maternal grandparents

4. What would happen if you were to lose all your glial cells? a. There would be no change in functioning, because neurons are the cells that are important for

transmission of information within the nervous system. b. One hemisphere could not send information to the other hemisphere. c. There would be problems with efficient neurotransmission and symptoms similar to those of multiple sclerosis. d. You would no longer be able to send neurotransmitters from one cell to another. 5. Which of the following is NOT one way that glial cells protect the brain? a. cerebrospinal fluid b. blood-brain barrier c. the endocrine system

d. the immune system

6. Schizophrenia affects approximately 1 percent of the population. However, 9 percent of siblings of people

with schizophrenia also exhibit schizophrenia themselves. The risk is reduced in more distant relatives (e.g., nieces’ and nephews’ risk is 4 percent). Altogether, which of the following do these data suggest about the development of schizophrenia? a. It is controlled exclusively by genetic factors. b. It is controlled by both genetic and environmental factors. c. It is controlled exclusively by environmental factors. d. It is not affected by either genetic or environmental factors.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 7. Kia and Brooke are twins. One night after classes, Kia decides to stay at home and watch a tense, scary

movie. Brooke, on the other hand, goes for a run. What effect do these activities have on neurogenesis? a. Both Kia and Brooke will experience enhancement of neurogenesis. b. Kia will experience enhancement and Brooke will experience suppression of neurogenesis. c. Kia will experience suppression and Brooke will experience enhancement of neurogenesis. d. Both Kia and Brooke will experience suppression of neurogenesis. 8. Which part of the brain is most likely to play a major role in the work of artists, architects, and engineers,

who must rely heavily on visual-spatial skills? a. corpus callosum b. left hemisphere c. right hemisphere d. cerebellum 9. Which of the following is NOT associated with abnormal monoamine activity? a. schizophrenia b. major depression c. anxiety disorders

d. attention deficit disorder

10. A neuron just sent a neural impulse. It will be one to two milliseconds before another neural impulse can be

generated. What do we call this brief time increment, when another neural impulse cannot occur? a. resting potential b. absolute refractory period c. postsynaptic discharge d. all-or-none period 11. Which brain structure is responsible for the human ability to engage in higher mental activity such as thinking

about philosophy and logic puzzles? a. limbic system b. corpus callosum c. cerebellum d. cerebrum 12. Dr. Bashir has implanted electrodes in the brain of a rabbit. When currents of different frequencies are passed

through the electrodes, the rabbit will fall into a deep sleep or suddenly awaken. Based on this information, where are the electrodes most likely implanted? a. cerebellum b. hippocampus c. medulla d. reticular formation 13. Which of the following is associated with the fastest neural impulses? a. unmyelinated dendrites b. myelinated axons c. shorter axons

d. multiple dendrites

14. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most heavily associated with the group of neurons known as the

medial forebrain bundle? a. norepinephrine b. serotonin c. dopamine d. acetylcholine

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 15. What is the distinction between afferent and efferent nerves? a. Afferent nerves take information to the central nervous system, while efferent nerves take information

out from the central nervous system. b. Afferent nerves are motor neurons, while efferent nerves are sensory neurons. c. Afferent nerves are in the peripheral nervous system, while efferent nerves are in the central nervous system. d. Afferent nerves take information to the muscles, while efferent nerves take information to the central nervous system. 16. What is strongly correlated with the amount of motor cortex devoted to each body area? a. size of the body area b. location of the body area c. size of the muscles in the body area

d. diversity of movements of the body area

17. How are hormones transported throughout the body? a. within the lymph nodes b. by the nervous system c. through cerebrospinal fluid

d. by the bloodstream

18. Synapses primarily involve which of the following two structures? a. dendrites and cell bodies b. cell bodies and axons c. axon terminals and dendrites

d. myelin sheaths and axons

19. Mary and Celine are identical twins who have been raised apart in separate adoptive homes. Mary has

developed a psychological disorder, but Celine does not appear to have the same disorder. What does this evidence suggest? a. Environmental factors have more influence than genetic factors in this disorder. b. Both genetic and environmental factors contribute equally to this disorder. c. Genetic factors do not influence this disorder. d. Genetic factors have more influence than environmental factors in this disorder. 20. Which of the following is the primary function of the cerebellum? a. coordinating body movement b. storing semantic memory c. processing visual information

d. controlling blood pressure

21. Which two individuals would we expect to have the greatest degree of phenotypic similarity? a. mother and daughter b. monozygotic twins c. dizygotic twins

d. father and son

22. A neurotransmitter is currently binding to receptors on the same neuron that released the neurotransmitter in

the first place. Which of the following can we conclude about the receptor? a. It is an autoreceptor. b. It is a homeoreceptor. c. It is an isoreceptor. d. It is a parareceptor. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 23. Much of what we know about left brain/right brain differences would not be known without systematic

research and analysis. The current interest in the right brain/left brain phenomenon highlights the importance of approaching topics such as this from which point of view? a. conjectural b. empirical c. anecdotal d. subjective 24. Which statement does NOT accurately describe Charles Darwin and the theory of evolution? a. He suggested that variations in hereditary traits might affect organisms’ ability to obtain resources. b. He identified natural selection as the mechanism that orchestrates the process of evolution. c. He was the first person to describe the process of evolution. d. He noted that some of the characteristics of organisms are passed down from one generation to the

next. 25. Which term refers to the division of the brain that is least evolved and contains the cerebellum, pons, medulla,

and reticular formation? a. hindbrain b. midbrain c. forebrain d. cerebrum 26. Scientists are beginning to discover that glial cells have many more functions beyond their traditional

“caretaking” functions. In which of the following do glial cells NOT play a role? a. scar tissue formation in the brain b. endocrine function c. memory formation d. myelin sheath formation 27. Walking to the bus stop early one morning, Robyn slips on a patch of ice and fractures her ankle. Although it

hurts initially, very quickly the pain seems to recede and she is able to continue walking to the bus stop— where she then takes a bus to the hospital. Which of the following neurotransmitters was responsible for this pain reduction so that Robyn could get to the hospital? a. GABA b. norepinephrine c. endorphins d. dopamine 28. If you destroy one particular area of its brain, a rat will lose all interest in food and may well starve to death.

Which area is it? a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. medulla d. hypothalamus 29. Which neurotransmitter always has inhibitory effects? a. GABA b. glutamate c. acetylcholine

d. norepinephrine

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 30. When you want to print something from a computer, a cable carries this signal from the computer to the

printer. In comparing a computer and printer to two neurons, what is the neuronal equivalent to the cable? a. synapse b. soma c. terminal button d. axon 31. Which of the following scientists successfully united Darwin’s evolutionary theory with modern genetics? a. Gregor Mendel b. Alfred R. Wallace c. Theodore Dobzhansky

d. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

32. What is an action potential? a. an electrical signal that travels along the axon of a neuron b. the small gap that exists between adjacent neurons c. the tiny electrical charge that exists when a neuron is neither receiving nor sending information d. the release of neurotransmitters 33. Many years ago, researchers made the discovery that very young infants can learn through imitation. For

example, someone sticking out their tongue at an infant generally caused the infant to do the same. Which of the following structures would be most likely involved in this type of learning? a. the cerebellum b. mirror neurons c. the medial forebrain bundle d. the limbic system 34. Which neuronal structures are analogous to branches on a tree? a. dendrites b. axons c. nuclei

d. cell bodies

35. To confirm a diagnosis of epilepsy, a neurologist needs to record the overall electrical activity in Hillary’s

brain. What would be the best way for the neurologist to obtain this information? a. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b. an electroencephalograph (EEG) c. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) d. computerized tomography (CT) scan 36. Imagine that a picture of a spoon is briefly flashed in the left visual field of an individual with a severed corpus

callosum. At the same time, a picture of a cup is briefly flashed in the right visual field. What would this individual likely say, based on Roger Sperry’s work with split-brain patients? a. “I saw a spoon resting in a cup.” b. “I saw a cup.” c. “I saw a spoon.” d. “I didn’t see anything.” 37. What do we call an inherited characteristic that solves a survival problem? a. dominant gene b. genetic mutation c. adaptation

d. fitness

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 38. If a right-handed subject whose corpus callosum has been cut were asked to reproduce a drawing, what

could we predict? a. best performance by the left hand c. equal performance by the two hands

b. best performance by the right hand d. an inability to draw with either hand

39. Scott needs a favour, so he asks his co-worker Julia. He makes his request, but Julia says that she needs a

little bit of time to think about it. Instead, he calls her again five minutes later and tries again. He keeps calling every five minutes, over and over, until Julia finally agrees to help him. This example is most analogous to which of the following neural processes? a. degradation b. autoreceptor activation c. reuptake d. temporal summation 40. What is an action potential? a. an electrical signal that travels along the axon of a neuron b. the small gap that exists between adjacent neurons c. the tiny electrical charge that exists when a neuron is neither receiving nor sending information d. the release of neurotransmitters 41. Which hormone is associated with bonding and trust? a. gonadotropin b. oxytocin c. estrogen

d. insulin

42. In which of the following regions of the brain has neurogenesis been shown in humans? a. the amygdala b. the cerebellum c. the hippocampus

d. the reticular formation

43. What can we conclude about the heritability of intelligence, based on adoption studies? a. Genotype determines intelligence. b. Adoption studies do not provide enough evidence to assess the relative contributions of genes and

experience on intelligence. c. Family environment is the strongest influence on intelligence. d. Both genes and environment contribute to intelligence. 44. Which statement best describes the structure AND function of all neurons in your nervous system? a. All neurons contain a cell body and an axon and may have other structures. b. All neurons receive information via one or more dendrites and send information via one or more axons. c. All neurons synapse onto another neuron to transmit an electrical signal. d. All neurons receive and send information.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 45. What are the protective membranes that protect the brain and spinal cord? a. meninges b. myelin sheaths c. ventricles

d. glia

46. Dr. Ferracane has just discovered a new drug named GL8 that produces side effects such as paralysis and

memory loss. Based on this information, how might this drug act on the nervous system? a. as an agonist for GABA b. as an antagonist for GABA c. as an antagonist for acetylcholine d. as an agonist for acetylcholine 47. Which of the following terms is unrelated to the others? a. ovaries/testes b. adrenal gland c. pituitary gland

d. thalamus

48. If a brain has several synapses that are not particularly active, those synapses may be eliminated. What is this

process called? a. synaptic pruning c. natural selection

b. inhibition d. long-term potentiation

49. In which of the following groups of people would we be most likely to observe a reversal of the standard

brain lateralization? a. young children c. artists and poets

b. left-handed individuals d. patients with schizophrenia

50. Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for processing bodily sensations, like tickling? a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal

d. occipital

51. What does the central nervous system consist of? a. the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems b. the somatic and autonomic nervous systems c. the body’s sensory and motor neurons d. the brain and the spinal cord

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 52. Colin is using a hammer and accidentally misses the nail, hitting his thumb instead. He feels an almost instant

sharp pain, which is followed by a dull ache a second or two later. Which of the following is the reason for the timing of these different aspects of pain? a. The pain signal from Colin’s thumb travels to one area of the brain for the sharp pain, which only then sends the signal on to another area for the dull ache. b. The signals arrive at different times because they are carried by myelinated and unmyelinated axons, respectively. c. The signals arrive simultaneously, but we feel the sharp pain at first because of the relative strength of its signal compared to the dull ache. d. The signals arrive simultaneously in the brain, but the somatosensory prioritizes the sharp pain signal. 53. Standing outside a football stadium and judging the excitement of the game by the crowd’s screams is

analogous to “eavesdropping” on the brain using which of the following? a. electrical stimulation b. MRI scanning c. CT scanning d. an electroencephalograph 54. Chase is using a single earphone to listen in on a conversation. Based on the research that investigated

hemispheric specialization in intact brains, what could we suggest for Chase to recognize the words he hears most quickly? a. put the earphone in his right ear b. hum lightly to cancel out the background noise c. close his eyes while he listens to the conversation d. watch the conversation, in addition to listening 55. What is the primary role of glial cells? a. They form the primary components of the spinal cord. b. They provide support for neurons. c. They release neurotransmitters. d. They release neuromodulators. 56. Jeremy is sitting quietly when the quadriceps muscles in his left leg begin to twitch. Which neurotransmitter is

likely being released? a. serotonin b. norepinephrine c. acetylcholine d. GABA

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 57. Marion Diamond and her colleagues (1985) examined the relative ratio of glial cells to neurons in Einstein’s

brain, relative to the average brain. What were the results of their investigation? a. Einstein had a greater proportion of glial cells in some regions, compared to the average. b. Einstein had a lower proportion of glial cells in some regions, compared to the average. c. Einstein had a similar proportion of glial cells, compared to the average. d. Einstein had both greater and lower proportions of glial cells in different regions, compared to the average. 58. Which term refers to the convoluted outer layer of the cerebrum? a. projection area b. corpus callosum c. outer hemisphere

d. cerebral cortex

59. What is the largest and most complex part of the human brain? a. cerebellum b. brainstem c. limbic system

d. cerebrum

60. What makes a behaviour adaptive, according to evolutionary theory? a. It decreases the amount of genetic drift in the population. b. It increases the likelihood of favourable mutations. c. It aids the survival or reproduction of an organism and its offspring. d. It increases the probability of natural selection. 61. Nadine had a stroke that was confined to the right side of her brain. What sort of task will be most difficult

for Nadine, based on hemispheric lateralization studies? a. mathematics and logical reasoning skills b. fine motor coordination, such as for handwriting c. spatial skills, such as fitting together puzzle pieces d. language and communication skills 62. In the primary motor cortex, what has the largest area of representation? a. legs b. eyes c. arms

d. lips

63. If our planet were a place where each individual has the opportunity to acquire all necessary resources, and

each individual produces exactly one offspring, what impact would this have on the process of evolution by natural selection? a. It would not occur, because there would be no opportunity for some traits to be passed on more often than other traits. b. It would not change, because there would still be some individuals who were better than others. c. It would not occur because there would be no differences between individuals. d. It would have no impact on natural selection, but it would lead to an increase in mutations. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 64. How many genes are likely to influence a person’s intelligence? a. 1 b. 18 c. 180

d. thousands

65. During what type of situations is the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system in primary control? a. stress b. sexual c. calm

d. fatigue

66. If someone has a brain tumour that results in a disruption of that person’s eating behaviour, which area is the

most likely location of the tumour? a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. brainstem d. cerebellum 67. After approximately one to two years of age, a major component of normal human brain development

involves which of the following? a. the elimination of old synapses b. the development of new types of neurotransmitters c. the creation of the peripheral nervous system d. the decreasing the absolute refractory period 68. What is the maximum firing rate of a neuron? a. 300 times per minute b. up to 1000 times per minute c. 300 times per second

d. 1000 times per second

69. What system allows you both to notice a buzzing near your ear and to swat the mosquito away? a. autonomic nervous system b. somatic nervous system c. limbic system

d. endocrine system

70. Which part of the nervous system diverts energy and resources in your body so that you can deal with

emergency situations? a. central b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. somatic 71. Electrical stimulation of its lateral hypothalamus causes an animal to overeat and become obese. Therefore,

what could we expect to be produced by lesioning the lateral hypothalamus? a. no effect on eating or body weight b. overeating and obesity c. undereating and weight loss d. alternating periods of overeating and undereating

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 72. Madeleine has learned to fear thunder and lightning storms. Which area of her brain was likely very active

when Madeleine’s fear was first acquired? a. left temporal lobe b. amygdala c. Wernicke’s area d. cerebellum 73. If you have difficulty understanding the meaning of speech because of brain damage, where is the damage

most likely to be located? a. Broca’s area b. corpus callosum c. pituitary gland d. Wernicke’s area 74. When your text states that nicotine functions as an acetylcholine agonist, what does that mean? a. It interacts with acetylcholine to produce a novel effect. b. It occupies acetylcholine receptor sites, thus blocking the action of the neurotransmitter. c. It stimulates some acetylcholine synapses. d. It inhibits some acetylcholine release. 75. What does an agonist do? a. It extends the absolute refractory period of neural transmission. b. It blocks the action of neurotransmitters. c. It mimics the action of a neurotransmitter. d. It prevents reuptake of neurotransmitters. 76. When Taryk slipped on the stairs and hit his head, he saw “stars” for several minutes. The “stars” were most

likely a result of activity in which area of the brain? a. parietal cortex b. occipital lobe c. temporal lobe d. prefrontal cortex 77. If you knew that a surgeon was about to do a surgery to disconnect the cerebral hemispheres, which of the

following patients is she most likely to operate on? a. a patient in a coma b. a patient with epilepsy c. a patient with schizophrenia d. a patient with antisocial personality disorder 78. Aretha had severe epilepsy, and surgeons removed portions of her hippocampus to control the severity of her

seizures. What ability is likely to be affected by Aretha’s surgery? a. controlling her urges to eat and drink b. forming new memories c. expressing emotions appropriately d. interpreting sensory information accurately

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 79. Which of the following neuroscientific techniques is currently being studied as a potential therapeutic treatment

for issues such as eating disorders, depression, anxiety, and schizophrenia? a. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) b. computerized tomography (CT) c. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) d. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB) 80. On average, which task is performed most quickly by the right hemisphere? a. reading and naming items verbally b. hearing and listening c. processing visual information from the right visual field d. locating and recognizing objects or people 81. Which technique is likely to be most useful for identifying the activity of a specific neurotransmitter in the

brain? a. computerized tomography c. electrographic tomography

b. positron emission tomography d. magnetic resonance imaging

82. What is the main function of Wernicke’s area? a. speech comprehension b. speech production c. sensory integration

d. motor integration

83. The commands for muscular movements come from the _______________, and the ____________ helps

to execute these commands with precision and accurate timing. a. motor cortex; mirror neurons b. basal ganglia; cerebellum c. motor cortex; cerebellum d. mirror neurons; motor cortex 84. Which term refers to long-lasting increases in neural excitability in synapses along a specific neural pathway? a. reuptake potential b. long-term potentiation c. graded potential

d. mapping potential

85. Curare blocks the action of acetylcholine by occupying its receptor sites. In this context, what is curare? a. a neurotransmitter b. an agonist c. a neuromodulator

d. an antagonist

86. Which feature do all the studies highlighting the possible importance of early experience in animals have in

common? a. The researchers used very small samples. b. They used species that cannot be logically compared to humans. c. They used relatively crude measures of brain growth. d. They used extreme conditions to make their comparisons. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 87. Skin colour is determined by three to five gene pairs. Based on this information, what type of trait is skin

colour? a. monogenic c. homozygous

b. polygenic d. heterozygous

88. Imagine a neural circuit in which a presynaptic neuron causes an excitatory postsynaptic potential of +5

millivolts. Now, assume that the presynaptic neuron fires very rapidly so that each of the +5 millivolt potentials adds up to such an extent that they cause the postsynaptic neuron to reach its threshold and fire. What is this process most accurately called? a. spatial summation b. temporal summation c. linear additivity d. frequency scaling 89. What is the key factor in evolutionary change, according to Darwin’s theory of evolution? a. interaction of heredity and the environment b. genetic transmission of learned behaviour c. relative success of aggressive predators d. variations in reproductive success 90. Where are neurotransmitters stored? a. in the dendrites b. in the mitochondria c. in the axon

d. in the synaptic vesicles

91. Emma has a disorder that includes degeneration of myelin sheaths in her nervous system. Which of the

following disorders does Emma most likely have? a. Alzheimer’s disease b. multiple sclerosis c. schizophrenia d. Parkinson’s disease 92. If our axons had a smaller diameter, which of the following would be one effect of this change? a. The absolute refractory period would decrease. b. Resting potential would be more negative. c. The speed of the action potential would decrease. d. The peak potential of an action potential would be more positive. 93. Alex is asked to complete 45 minutes of practice on a specific route in a driving simulation game. Which of

the following changes in Alex’s brain would be most expected at the end of the session? a. greater dendritic branching in the cortex b. structural changes in the hippocampus c. a temporary increase in the rate of neurogenesis d. no changes because of the short duration of training

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 94. Dean is conducting a study in which he exposes rats to different amounts of noise to cause different amounts

of stress. He then evaluates whether the offspring of those rats have different reactions to stress. What sort of study is Dean conducting? a. epigenetic study b. behaviour genetic study c. genetic mapping study d. polygenic study 95. Milo’s doctors believe he might have some specific brain damage, but before they make their final diagnosis,

they want to study very high-resolution, three-dimensional images of Milo’s brain structures. Which technique are the doctors most likely to use in this case? a. an electroencephalograph (EEG) recording b. a computerized tomography (CT) scan c. a positron emission tomography (PET) scan d. a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan 96. Navneet is an assistant for a study looking at mice running in a wheel. The wheel-running is actually a difficult

task because the wheel has irregularly spaced rungs. One group of mice has been genetically modified not to develop myelin. Which of the following would you predict about this group’s learning, relative to the unmodified mice? a. The modified mice will learn to run on the wheel more quickly. b. The modified mice will learn to run on the wheel more slowly. c. The modified mice will not be able to learn to run on the wheel at all. d. There will be no difference between the groups in their learning to run on the wheel. 97. What is the term for the specific pattern of genes that an individual inherits at conception? a. phenotype b. zygote c. polygenic inheritance

d. genotype

98. By altering brain structures, an evil scientist has created supervillains who have specialized powers or abilities.

One of these supervillains is absolutely fearless and takes on extremely dangerous missions. What brain structure was most likely altered to produce this particularly fearless supervillain? a. amygdala b. occipital lobes c. cerebellum d. medulla 99. Which statement describes genes but NOT chromosomes? a. They contain gonadotropins. b. They contain DNA. c. They are found in zygotes. d. There are thousands of them in each sperm or egg.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 100. How many possible combinations of chromosomes are possible when you combine one person’s sperm with

another person’s egg? a. 529, or 232

b. 2,116, or 462

c. 8 million, or 223

d. 70 trillion, or 246

101. Dr. Athorp has just discovered a new drug named P3X that is an agonist for GABA. What effects will this

drug likely have? a. hallucinations and disrupted sleep patterns b. general stimulation within the body and an increase in heart rate c. a reduction in pain and a sense of euphoria d. anxiety reduction and general relaxation 102. Which brain area would you stimulate if you wanted to alter alertness or wakefulness? a. pons b. cerebellum c. medulla

d. thalamus

103. What is the most likely consequence of damage to the cerebellum? a. eating irregularities b. impairment of short-term memory c. difficulties in judging distance

d. problems with coordination of movement

104. Where do “pleasure centres” in the brain appear to be most heavily concentrated? a. brainstem b. corpus callosum c. endocrine system

d. limbic system

105. Based on examination by Sandra Witelson at McMaster University, in which of the following ways did

Einstein’s brain differ anatomically from an average brain? a. It was larger in overall volume and weight. b. The frontal and temporal lobes were slightly larger. c. The parietal lobe was slightly wider. d. There were no obvious anatomical differences. 106. Which technique results in effects that are similar to that of lesioning? a. stereotaxic plotting (STP) b. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) c. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB)

d. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

107. Meghan is camping with her friends and realizes that she is too warm. As she backs away from the campfire,

what will her sensory neurons do? a. start releasing endorphins c. increase the size of action potentials

b. increase the absolute refractory period d. decrease their firing rate

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 108. Old synapses are eliminated and new ones created. What best characterizes this process? a. abnormal development b. normal development c. development which proceeds from illness d. this is impossible 109. Shane and Blane are monozygotic twins. However, people seldom get the two brothers mixed up because

Blane is almost two inches shorter than Shane. What can you conclude based on this evidence? a. Because the brothers display different phenotypes, they must also have different underlying genotypes. b. Even though both brothers share the same genotype, they display different phenotypes. c. Even though both brothers display the same phenotype, they have different genotypes. d. Blane is heterozygous for the “tallness” trait, and Shane is homozygous for the “tallness” trait. 110. Which term refers to investigators who conduct research on the brain and nervous system? a. neuroscientists b. physiologists c. ethologists

d. biologists

111. Which of the following structures/regions do recent studies suggest may contain up to 80 percent of the

brain’s neurons? a. the cerebral cortex c. the limbic system

b. the midbrain d. the cerebellum

112. What is the area of the frontal lobe that plays an important role in the production of speech? a. Sperry’s area b. Broca’s area c. Wernicke’s area

d. Hebb’s area

113. Jasmine is warming herself by a campfire. Her hand gets a little too close to the flame, so she pulls it back.

These processes of sensing the heat and moving away are most related to which of the following pairs of terms? a. peripheral and central nervous system b. sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions c. afferent and efferent nerves d. somatic and autonomic nervous system 114. What is the term for the minimum length of time between action potentials? a. relative threshold period b. transduction interval c. absolute refractory period

d. synaptic interval

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 115. Recent studies suggests that glial cells might play a role in sending and receiving chemical signals. One view is

that glia dampen or amplify synaptic activity. What is the term for this? a. neurotransmission b. neurogenesis c. neuromodulation d. saltatory conduction 116. What is a person’s genotype? a. their biological or chromosomal sex b. the maternal contribution to their genetic makeup c. their genetic makeup d. their observable characteristics and traits 117. Sigourney’s doctors think she might have a tumour, and they would like to use a technique that will provide

them with an accurate image of her brain structure. What technique are they most likely to use? a. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB) b. positron emission tomography (PET) scan c. computerized tomography (CT) scan d. electroencephalograph (EEG) recording 118. Brenda was startled when a large shadow unexpectedly passed across her living room window. When she

realized that it was just a cloud passing in front of the full moon, her racing heart began to slow, and her blood pressure started to return to normal. What division of the nervous system controlled the reactions as Brenda began to relax? a. somatic b. peripheral c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic 119. Hormones tend to be released in a pulsatile pattern. What does this mean? a. They are released at an unpredictable rate. b. They are released on demand. c. They are released in a steady, invariant rhythm. d. They are released in brief bursts at various times. 120. Humans’ taste preferences for fatty substances would have conferred a survival advantage for our ancestors,

but in our modern environment, where we have an overabundance of food, that preference can end up causing obesity and illness. What would an evolutionary psychologist say about this trend? a. It tends to occur when recessive genes mutate into dominant traits. b. It is an example of an adaptation that has become a liability. c. It is a consequence of genetic drift across several generations. d. It represents the paradox of inclusive fitness.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 121. If brain damage is suspected, which method is most likely to be used to assess the damage? a. electroencephalograph (EEG) b. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) c. electrocardiograph (ECG)

d. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

122. Which of the following types of drugs would be the most effective for a person with Alzheimer’s disease? a. an acetylcholine agonist b. an acetylcholine antagonist c. a dopamine agonist

d. a dopamine antagonist

123. By altering brain structures, an evil scientist has created supervillains who have specialized powers or abilities.

One of these supervillains has a fantastic memory and can form new memories incredibly well. In this case, which brain structure was likely altered? a. pons b. hippocampus c. hypothalamus d. amygdala 124. What has traditionally been the main reason for the characterization of the left hemisphere as the “dominant”

hemisphere? a. evidence that the left hemisphere usually processes complex information b. evidence that the left hemisphere usually processes language c. the fact that the majority of people are right-handed d. evidence that patients use only their left hemisphere for processing information after split-brain surgery 125. Which division of the nervous system is necessary if you need to intentionally stand up or scratch your nose? a. autonomic b. parasympathetic c. sympathetic

d. somatic

126. Approximately how many synapses are there in the human brain? a. 85 billion b. 800 billion c. 1.8 trillion

d. 100 trillion

127. In computers, the keyboard is the component of the computer that receives information. What would the

keyboard be equivalent to, in comparing a computer to a neuron? a. axon b. soma c. dendrite d. terminal button 128. What would be most likely to be impaired because of damage to the right hemisphere? a. language comprehension b. sensations from the right side of the body c. vision from the left eye

d. control of the left leg

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 129. Zayed was walking down a dark street when he heard a car backfire. His heart started to race, and he began

to perspire in response to this sudden, startling noise. Which division of the nervous system is MOST responsible for his reactions? a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. autonomic d. somatic 130. Cam is in a committed, long-term relationship with Marissa. As part of a research study, Cam inhales a spray

of oxytocin before being introduced to an attractive woman. Which of the following would we predict about Cam’s behaviour (compared to his behaviour if he had not inhaled the spray)? a. He is more likely to make advances toward the attractive woman. b. He is more likely to behave aggressively toward the attractive woman. c. He is more likely to distance himself from the attractive woman. d. He is more likely to behave aggressively toward any other men present. 131. Imagine that a picture of a blue circle is briefly flashed in the left visual field of an individual with a severed

corpus callosum. At the same time, a picture of a red square is briefly flashed in the right visual field. What would this individual likely say, based on Roger Sperry’s work with split-brain patients? a. “I saw a blue circle.” b. “I didn’t see anything.” c. “I saw a red square.” d. “I saw a blue circle around a red square.” 132. In the brain, what are the hollow cavities that are filled with cerebrospinal fluid called? a. vesicles b. glia c. ventricles

d. corpus callosa

133. Mical is devastated to learn that his grandfather has been diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. The doctor,

however, has assured Mical and his family that she will prescribe a new medication that will slow the onset of the disease and possibly produce slight improvements in the grandfather’s current cognitive functioning. How does this drug likely work? a. by increasing activity of acetylcholine b. by increasing the activity of norepinephrine c. by increasing the activity of serotonin d. by increasing the activity of dopamine 134. Sara is holding Scott’s hand during a scary movie. Suddenly she squeezes his hand very hard. When she does

this, what will the nerves in Scott’s hand do? a. release more GABA b. send larger action potentials to his central nervous system c. enter an absolute refractory period d. start to fire at a faster rate Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 135. How many chromosomes does a zygote contain? a. 1 pair b. 2 pairs c. 23 pairs

d. 46 pairs

136. What is a common property of a neurotransmitter? a. They are synthesized in the pituitary gland b. They are stored in the synaptic terminals. c. They are released when the neuron is at rest d. They may be excitatory but not inhibitory 137. Which term refers to the largest and most complex region of the brain which includes the cerebrum, limbic

system, hypothalamus, and thalamus? a. forebrain b. midbrain c. brain stem d. hindbrain 138. Johann took some medication for his flu symptoms. Later, Johann began to feel a little faint because the

medication caused his heart to beat more slowly and his blood pressure to fall. What system was likely activated by the medication? a. parasympathetic b. sympathetic c. somatic d. central 139. At what age do humans tend to have the largest number of synapses in the visual cortex? a. at birth b. at one year c. at puberty d. after physical growth has ended in early adulthood 140. Juan is in a state of high autonomic arousal. His heart is beating quickly, and he is perspiring. Which brain

area is largely responsible for controlling these automatic survival responses? a. reticular formation b. thalamus c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus 141. Taylor has to have brain surgery to remove a tumour from her temporal lobe. During the surgery, the surgeon

plans to map out specific brain function in the areas adjacent to the tumour. What method is the surgeon most likely to use to map the brain? a. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB) b. positron emission tomography (PET) scanning c. stereotaxic lesioning d. computerized tomography (CT) scanning

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 142. It is often noted that some of our strongest memories are from moments in our lives that were highly

emotional. Which of the following two related brain structures/regions are likely to be involved? a. the hypothalamus and amygdala b. the hippocampus and amygdala c. the hypothalamus and thalamus d. the hippocampus and hypothalamus 143. Ricardo just came back from seeing a neurologist. Ricardo tells you that he will be having a test in which

images of his brain will be recorded after he drinks a radioactive glucose solution. What test will his neurologist be using? a. a computerized tomography (CT) scan b. a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan c. a positron emission tomography (PET) scan d. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) 144. What protects the brain as a whole by providing an internal cushion? a. meninges b. ventricles filled with CSF c. myelin sheaths

d. synaptic vesicles

145. Which part of the nervous system controls digestion and the flow of blood? a. somatic b. motor c. autonomic

d. central

146. What do we call the interdisciplinary field that studies the influence of inherited traits on complex behaviour? a. cross-cultural anthropology b. behavioural genetics c. physiological psychology

d. ethology

147. What do we call the tiny electrical charge that exists when a neuron is neither receiving nor sending

information? a. resting potential c. post-synaptic potential

b. action potential d. inhibitory potential

148. What does the endocrine system do? a. It connects the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain. b. It secretes hormones. c. It manufactures myelin. d. It forms the basis of reflexive behaviours.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1

Trevor Trevor is going for a run. He starts thinking about all the things that he needs to do throughout his day, and he decides that after he showers he will study for his midterm for a little while before he goes to work for the evening. As Trevor rounds the corner near home, he sees something move near his feet and then feels a sharp pain in his right leg. At this point, Trevor’s heart rate increases substantially, as he spins away from the dog that just bit him. As the dog’s owner apologizes and puts the dog back on its leash, Trevor’s heart rate slows down and he then makes his way home. 149. As Trevor is running, what area of his brain is sending signals to his muscles so that they will move? a. motor cortex in the parietal lobes b. somatosensory cortex in the parietal lobes c. motor cortex in the frontal lobes d. somatosensory cortex in the frontal lobes 150. Opiate drugs bind onto the same receptor sites as the body’s own endorphins. What effect, then, do opiate

drugs have? a. They increase anxiety and agitation. c. They produce insomnia.

b. They inhibit visual sensations. d. They relieve pain.

151. Rahul and Lisa are both taking a 300-kilometre bus trip. However, Rahul inadvertently chose the commuter

bus, which makes many stops along the way. Lisa, on the other hand, chose the express bus, which makes far fewer stops and therefore arrives much more quickly. This example is most analogous to which of the following? a. the resting potential and an action potential b. afferent and efferent nerve fibres c. myelinated and unmyelinated axons d. the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems 152. If you hit your head during a football game, your brain fortunately provides some protection in the form of a

fluid that creates a cushioning effect upon impact. Which fluid, produced by the glial cells, provides this cushioning effect? a. blood-brain barrier b. endorphins c. cerebrospinal fluid d. neurotransmitters 153. Where are molecules of neurotransmitters made? a. dendrites b. soma c. axon

d. synaptic vesicles

154. Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the activation of motor neurons controlling skeletal muscles? a. GABA b. acetylcholine c. serotonin

d. norepinephrine

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 155. What is least associated with left hemisphere functioning? a. reading b. speaking c. writing words

d. musical recognition

156. The drunk-driving suspect was unable to walk a straight line with her eyes closed because activity in one of

her brain structures was depressed by alcohol. Given this symptom, which brain structure is impaired? a. corpus callosum b. hypothalamus c. medulla d. cerebellum 157. What is the so-called “master gland” of the endocrine system? a. gonad b. pituitary c. adrenal

d. hypothalamus

158. Approximately how many neurons are there in the human brain? a. 86 billion b. 800 billion c. 1.8 trillion

d. 100 trillion

Trevor Trevor is going for a run. He starts thinking about all the things that he needs to do throughout his day, and he decides that after he showers he will study for his midterm for a little while before he goes to work for the evening. As Trevor rounds the corner near home, he sees something move near his feet and then feels a sharp pain in his right leg. At this point, Trevor’s heart rate increases substantially, as he spins away from the dog that just bit him. As the dog’s owner apologizes and puts the dog back on its leash, Trevor’s heart rate slows down and he then makes his way home. 159. As Trevor’s heart rate is coming back down after the dog bite, he is feeling less fear. Which division of the nervous system is responsible for the physiological changes associated with calming back down? a. peripheral b. sympathetic c. somatic d. parasympathetic 160. What is the genetic complement of all cells in the human body, except sex cells? a. 23 chromosomes b. 46 chromosomes c. 23 recessive genes and 23 dominant genes d. 46 pairs of chromosomes 161. Dysfunction or deterioration of the glial cells has been associated with several major disorders. Which of the

following is NOT associated with glial cells? a. schizophrenia b. Alzheimer’s disease c. fetal alcohol spectrum disorder d. autism

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 162. As an analogy to the brain, imagine an interconnected set of office computers that communicate with one

another and are part of the same network. If these represent the neurons of the brain, then the IT technicians who offer technical support, ensure that the network runs smoothly, and even provide some antivirus support would represent which of the following? a. glial cells b. neurotransmitters c. myelin sheath d. synapses 163. What is a hormone? a. an enzyme produced by the hypothalamus b. a chemical stored in the synapse c. a neurotransmitter that acts on organs d. a chemical secreted into the blood by a gland 164. What do we know about the heritability of schizophrenia? a. Schizophrenia is primarily social in origin, rather than biological. b. Schizophrenia is inherited through the male line, which is why we don’t see heritability from mothers to

children. c. Schizophrenia is essentially a personality variant, which is highly heritable. d. Schizophrenia likely results from an inherited vulnerability that interacts with experience. 165. Gaspar was a world-class diver until he hit his head on the diving board during one of his dives. He now has

difficulty coordinating the movements required for various tucks and rotations. Which area of Gaspar’s brain is likely damaged? a. temporal lobes b. medulla c. cerebellum d. pons 166. What happens when a neurotransmitter is released from a presynaptic neuron, but it does not fit into a

suitable receptor channel on the postsynaptic neuron? a. The firing potential of the postsynaptic neuron will not be affected. b. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential will be generated. c. A graded potential will be generated. d. The presynaptic neuron will be inhibited. 167. What do we call the process of absorption of neurotransmitters into the presynaptic neuron? a. reuptake b. neurotransmission c. graded potential

d. inhibition

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 168. If you are working on the Human Genome Project, which type of traits are you most likely to be able to

map? a. behavioural traits, like aggression b. physical traits that are highly polygenic c. dichotomous traits that are either present or absent d. polygenic traits with high worldwide variance 169. Which brain structure is most closely associated with the regulation of emotion? a. cerebellum b. reticular formation c. brainstem

d. limbic system

170. What is the correct sequence of steps through which neurotransmitters progress during synaptic transmission? a. binding, synthesis, release, reuptake b. synthesis, release, binding, reuptake c. synthesis, binding, release, reuptake

d. release, synthesis, binding, reuptake

171. Which of the following is the primary advantage of the relatively new approach called genome-wide

association studies? a. It is much cheaper than traditional methods of genetic mapping. b. It is much faster than traditional methods of genetic mapping. c. It allows for examining correlations between several genes underlying a single trait. d. It allows for isolating the effects of a single gene within a polygenic trait. 172. Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. This means that it involves neurons dying

and that the affected region slowly spreads. Which of the following regions of the brain is most likely the starting point for the degeneration caused by Parkinson’s disease? a. the cerebellum b. the midbrain c. the motor cortex d. the hypothalamus 173. What is known about action potentials? a. They travel more slowly if the incoming stimulation is less intense. b. They are stronger when the incoming stimulation is more intense. c. They are generated in an all-or-none fashion. d. They are seldom strong enough to reach the terminal buttons. 174. What are the cells that provide structural support and insulation for neurons? a. synapses b. sheaths c. glia

d. soma

175. If you present a sound in the right ear, where will that sound be processed first? a. right temporal lobe b. left temporal lobe c. right parietal lobe

d. left parietal lobe

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 176. Which of the following terms is unrelated to the others? a. hemispheric lateralization b. positron emission tomography c. magnetic resonance imaging

d. electroencephalography

177. Which of the following is a valid hypothesis, considering both the Hebbian learning rule and evidence that

there is a decline in the number of synapses in the human brain after about age 1? a. Because we use only 10 percent of our brain at any given time, the decline in synapses after age 1 has no impact on functioning. b. We create new connections in infancy, and unless all the necessary connections are made before we are a year old, we will have difficulty learning for the rest of our lives because we start losing brain cells so early. c. Although the number of synapses decreases throughout the life span, the number of neurons does not decrease, and having a large number of neurons is more important than having a large number of synapses. d. Although creating new connections between neurons is important, it is also important to get rid of unnecessary or outdated connections in order to enhance the efficiency of processing within our brains. 178. What do we call the space between a terminal button and a dendrite? a. the transmission gap b. the midsynaptic potential range c. the synaptic cleft

d. the neuromodulator

179. Anika is a participant in a research study and has just been told that the researchers plan to use magnetic

fields to temporarily “turn off” a specific region in her brain. The technique being described is which of the following? a. MRI b. fMRI c. TMS d. PET 180. What do synaptic vesicles do? a. They fuse with the postsynaptic cell. c. They block receptors.

b. They store neurotransmitters. d. They manufacture myelin.

181. Uma just caught sight of a red hummingbird. The neural impulses from her eye will eventually travel to her

primary visual cortex, but which brain area must they first pass through? a. thalamus b. occipital lobe c. hypothalamus d. hippocampus 182. Because the speech centre is generally located in the left hemisphere of the brain, what would a split-brain

patient be unable to describe or name? a. an object seen in the left visual field b. an object felt with the right hand c. an object seen in the right visual field d. an object presented directly in front of them Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 183. Bradley is deeply relaxed and many of his muscles are not moving at all. What does this suggest about many

of Bradley’s motor neurons? a. They have a voltage of +70 millivolts. b. They have a voltage of –70 millivolts. c. They are in a relative refractory period. d. They are in an absolute refractory period. 184. What will be difficult for you if you experience damage to Broca’s area? a. controlling your arms and legs b. being creative c. hearing

d. speaking

185. Stuart abuses a drug that is a dopamine agonist. What is Stuart most likely to experience when he is

extremely high? a. deep relaxation c. temporary paralysis

b. hallucinations d. depression

186. If you sent the word “banana” to the left hemisphere and the word “cucumber” to the right hemisphere in a

patient with a severed corpus callosum, which of the following would the patient be able to name verbally? a. both items b. neither item c. only the banana d. only the cucumber 187. What is the function of the pituitary gland? a. It controls the hypothalamus. b. It is the master gland of the endocrine system. c. It releases testosterone and estrogen to affect the gonads. d. It integrates information about the status of all organs. 188. Which system is malfunctioning for individuals who have hormonal imbalances? a. reticular b. endocrine c. dopaminergic

d. limbic

189. Which of the following cellular structures is critical for maintaining the resting potential? a. mitochondria b. nucleus c. sodium-potassium pump

d. glia

190. The voltage at a receptor site has just changed from –70 millivolts to –67 millivolts. What will this lead to? a. an absolute refractory period b. increased likelihood of an action potential c. decreased likelihood of an action potential d. a relative refractory period

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 191. On a typical neuron, which structure receives neurochemical information, and which structure sends

neurochemical information to other neurons? a. dendrites receive; axons send b. axons send; synapses receive c. dendrites receive; synapses send d. axons receive; dendrites send 192. Which neurotransmitter is most like the drug heroin? a. acetylcholine b. dopamine c. endorphins

d. serotonin

193. What is the key advantage to using fMRI rather than an MRI? a. the ability to assess brain activity b. reduced discomfort for patients c. better spatial resolution

d. reduced costs

194. What is determined at conception? a. phenotype b. somatotype c. genotype

d. zygote

195. Imagine that you and Charles Darwin are looking at a newborn litter of kittens, and the kittens are all a bit

different from one another. As you observe the kittens, you ask Mr. Darwin which of the kittens will be most “fit” in terms of natural selection. What would Mr. Darwin be most likely to say in response to your question? a. “The one who has the most kittens of its own.” b. “Because they are related and carry the same genes, they all have equal fitness.” c. “The one that is the strongest and the most aggressive.” d. “The one that requires the smallest amount of resources.” 196. What is NOT one of the main functions of neurons? a. integrating information b. generating information c. transmitting information

d. receiving information

197. The resting potential of a neuron is primarily achieved by structures that do which of the following? a. move 3 negative ions into the cell for every 2 positive ions moved out b. move 3 positive ions into the cell for every 2 negative ions moved out c. move 2 negative ions into the cell for every 3 positive ions moved out d. move 2 positive ions into the cell for every 3 positive ions moved out 198. A victim who is shot in the head died instantly because the bullet entered a portion of the hindbrain that

regulates breathing. Which portion would that be? a. cerebellum b. pons c. medulla d. thalamus

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 199. What is NOT primarily controlled by the left hemisphere of the brain? a. visual-spatial abilities b. the right side of the body c. producing language

d. understanding language

200. Wanda fell down some stairs and hit her head. Prior to her accident she was an excellent flute player, but she

now has difficulty coordinating the finger movements required in complex musical pieces. Which brain area was likely damaged in the fall? a. reticular formation b. cerebellum c. amygdala d. temporal lobe 201. Which part of the neuron secretes neurotransmitters? a. neuromodulators b. dendrites c. myelin sheaths

d. terminal buttons

202. Which brain structure controls unconscious but essential functions such as breathing and circulation? a. corpus callosum b. pons c. medulla

d. cerebellum

203. Kim is good at reading maps and enjoys listening to music. Which of the following is a commonplace

misconception that many people hold? a. She is “left-brained.” b. She is “mid-brained.” c. She is “hemispheric.” d. She is “right-brained.” 204. In the Personal Application, Evaluating the Concept of “Two Minds in One,” what was the conclusion

regarding left-brain and right-brain thinking? a. Right-brain people benefit most from learning to do more left-brain activities. b. There is strong evidence to support modification of school curriculum to support both types of thinking. c. Career choice is strongly correlated with which side of the brain is most dominant. d. The link between cerebral specialization and cognitive processes is speculative and unsupported. 205. Drug 8K43 is a stimulant drug that acts by blocking the reuptake of dopamine in the nervous system. This

means that dopamine stays in the synapse longer and continues to stimulate the postsynaptic neuron. Based on this information, what can we infer about the effects of dopamine on the postsynaptic neuron? a. It produces excitatory postsynaptic potentials. b. It blocks the receptor channels in the postsynaptic neuron. c. It cancels out excitatory potentials generated by other neurons. d. It reduces inhibitory postsynaptic potentials. 206. Dr. Smith destroys a small piece of tissue in the forebrain of a rat to determine whether that area is important

for maze-learning. What is this technique called? a. case study method b. tomography c. transcranial stimulation d. lesioning Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 207. If a monkey’s mirror neuron fires when he sees another monkey reaching for a stick, in what other situation

should that same neuron fire? a. when the monkey gets hit with a stick b. when the monkey drops the stick c. when the monkey also reaches for a stick d. when the monkey thinks about a stick 208. What is Brenda Milner best known for? a. being Donald Hebb’s professor b. founding the first doctoral program in psychology at University of British Columbia c. discovering the link between dopamine and schizophrenia d. studying the patient H.M. and contributing to the development of our knowledge of the biological

bases of memory 209. When a neuron is neither receiving nor sending, what is the approximate voltage of the electrical charge that

exists between the inside and the outside of a neuron? a. –700 millivolts b. –70 millivolts c. +70 millivolts d. +700 millivolts 210. Four sisters were all raised in the same household by parents who are very creative and artistic. Anna and

Betty are the biological children of their parents, while Cassie and Deanna were adopted as infants into the family. Like their parents, Anna and Betty are artistically inclined and enjoy working on creative projects. Cassie and Deanna are not particularly interested in artistic endeavours even though they’ve received a lot of exposure to art and a lot of encouragement for creative work. Which conclusion would be reasonable if this pattern occurred in a variety of similar families? a. Environmental factors have more influence than genetic factors in artistic interest. b. Both genetic and environmental factors contribute equally to artistic interest. c. Genetic factors have more influence than environmental factors in artistic interest. d. Neither genetic nor environmental factors contribute to artistic interest. 211. Which division of your nervous system handles conservation of body resources, including blood pressure

reduction and the promotion of digestion? a. central b. somatic c. parasympathetic d. sympathetic 212. Which statement best reflects the roles of heredity and environment in shaping our behaviour? a. Heredity plays an indirect role by influencing the physiology that interacts with the environment. b. Heredity affects most physical behaviour, and environment affects most psychological behaviour. c. Genes exert their influence on behaviour with little impact from environmental factors. d. Genetic factors have surprisingly little influence on behaviour.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 213. The voltage at a receptor site has just changed from –70 millivolts to –75 millivolts. What caused the change? a. excitatory postsynaptic potential b. influx of potassium ions c. influx of sodium ions

d. inhibitory postsynaptic potential

214. Monique is not able to understand spoken language. If Monique’s problem stems from damage to the

cerebral cortex, where is the damage most likely to be? a. left temporal lobe b. right temporal lobe c. left frontal lobe d. right frontal lobe 215. What is a good analogy for the way in which a neurotransmitter binds to receptor sites? a. the lowering of a drawbridge b. a key fitting in a lock c. the pulling of a gun trigger

d. the opening and closing of a window

216. Which structure connects the two cerebral hemispheres? a. pineal gland b. pons c. corpus callosum

d. thalamus

217. What are three basic components of most neurons? a. vesicles, terminal buttons, synapses b. myelin, nodes, axon terminals c. cell body, axon, dendrites

d. hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain

218. If one group of animals is raised in a stimulating environment and another group of animals is raised in a

boring environment, what should be enhanced in the brains of animals raised in the stimulating environment? a. specificity b. dendritic branching c. demyelization d. distance between neurons 219. Some theorists believe that the brain contains a sort of “executive control system,” which is responsible for

directing, and organizing thought processes. In which area of the brain would you find this system? a. prefrontal cortex b. medial forebrain bundle c. limbic system d. thalamus 220. Vivian has been experiencing unexplained flashes of light and colour, even when her eyes are closed. She

recently saw a neurologist who located a small brain tumour. Where is Vivian’s tumour likely to be located? a. right frontal lobe b. temporal lobe c. occipital lobe d. left parietal lobe 221. What is the function of the hypothalamus? a. inhibit emotional reactions like anger and fear b. regulate sensory integration c. integrate sensory information with motor impulses d. regulate basic biological needs

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 222. Dr. Jacoby has just discovered a new drug named Z2W that is an antagonist to acetylcholine. What are some

likely side effects of this new drug? a. hallucinations and disrupted sleep patterns b. general stimulation within the body and an increase in heart rate c. sleepiness and loss of interest in activities d. motor and memory problems 223. Which research technique is least likely to be used to study the human brain? a. electrical stimulation of the brain b. transcranial magnetic stimulation c. lesioning

d. positron emission tomography

224. In which group of people would we be least likely to observe hemispheric lateralization (i.e. more likely to be

bilateral)? a. young children c. experienced musicians

b. artists and poets d. people with schizophrenia

225. What type of electric potential increases the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will fire? a. all-or-none potential b. excitatory postsynaptic potential c. inhibitory postsynaptic potential

d. a resting potential

226. Erin suffered a brain injury, and her neurologist has told her that there is damage to her reticular formation.

Which symptom is Erin most likely to experience? a. difficulty with language perception b. disruption of her sleep and wake cycles c. inability to initiate movement d. inability to accurately locate objects in space 227. What do we call the process by which genes that lead to a survival or reproductive advantage become more

frequent in the next generation? a. natural selection b. polygenic transmission c. epigenetics d. genetic dominance 228. If you connect an electrode to a device that will deliver stimulation directly to the brain, where should you

insert the electrode to cause a sensation of pleasure? a. posterior hippocampus b. cerebral cortex c. medial forebrain bundle d. amygdala

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 229. In your text, we saw that schizophrenia may be a function of abnormalities in neurotransmitter activity,

structural defects in the brain, and genetic vulnerability. Which unifying theme of your text do these findings support? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Psychology is empirical. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. 230. Which of the following techniques involves patients consenting to the use of harmless but radioactive

chemicals, which are typically either consumed by or injected into the patient? a. magnetic resonance imaging b. positron emission tomography c. electroencephalography d. computerized tomography 231. Padraigh woke up one day, unable to reach properly for objects, even though he could both see them and

feel them. His doctor determined that Padraigh had a stroke and that the damage was confined to one portion of his brain. Which part is most likely damaged? a. temporal lobe b. frontal lobe c. parietal lobe d. occipital lobe 232. A sub-threshold change in a postsynaptic neuron’s electrical state is called which of the following? a. spatial summation b. temporal summation c. a graded potential

d. hyperpolarization

233. Which of the following terms is unrelated to the others? a. positron emission tomography b. computerized tomography scan c. electroencephalograph

d. reticular activating system

234. In which part of the nervous system are the nerves in your hands and feet found? a. peripheral b. vascular c. parasympathetic

d. skeletal

235. Caitlin has taken a drug that has reduced the levels of GABA in her nervous system. What side effect is

Caitlin likely to experience? a. temporary paralysis b. increased levels of anxiety c. depression

d. hallucinations

236. Which of the following means of protection provided by glial cells is critical to preventing foreign material,

including some viruses and drugs, from entering the brain? a. blood-brain barrier b. endorphins c. cerebrospinal fluid d. the immune system of the brain

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 237. In a research study, and on separate days, four heterosexual male volunteers inhale oxytocin spray before

being introduced to an attractive female. Which of the following participants is MOST likely to distance himself from the attractive female? a. Gordon, who has recently begun dating a girl that he likes b. Joel, who has a crush on someone but who he is afraid to ask out c. Owen, who is single and unattached d. Scott, who currently is in a five-year relationship 238. Dr. Sandra Witelson found that Einstein’s brain was similar in terms of size and weight to most other brains,

but that it had certain exceptionalities, including a wider parietal region and a distinct Sylvian fissure. Which of the following is a reasonable statement about Einstein’s brain given what we know about the role of environment for brain plasticity? a. Einstein was born with brain anomalies that led to his mathematical genius, and those anomalies were clearly visible in the autopsy. His experience would not change the actual structure of the brain. b. It must be due to the effects of practice that Einstein was so mathematically brilliant, given that he had brain damage in an area that is particularly important for mathematical reasoning. c. Einstein may have been born with a predisposition toward mathematical genius, or his brain may have been changed as a result of so much practice, but his genius is likely to have been the result of some combination of genetics and experience. d. There is no relationship between the structure of the brain and intelligence, because learning changes the function of the brain rather than the structure. 239. What is a characteristic of both sodium and potassium ions? a. They carry a negative charge. b. They are concentrated inside the neuron’s cell body when it is at rest. c. They carry a positive charge. d. They are capable of changing their potentials. 240. Garrett has a chronic disease that is slowly destroying the cells that produce serotonin in his brain. What will

likely happen to Garrett as his disease progresses? a. His memory will gradually worsen. b. He will start to show signs of Parkinson’s disease. c. His sleep and mood will be disrupted. d. He will begin to experience symptoms of schizophrenia. 241. Which lobe of the brain, when electrically stimulated, causes people to report physical sensations as if they

had been touched? a. parietal b. temporal c. occipital d. frontal

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 242. By altering brain structures, an evil scientist has created supervillains who have specialized powers or abilities.

One of these supervillains seldom feels hungry or thirsty and can go for days without feeling the need to eat or drink. Which brain area has likely been altered? a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. cerebellum d. medulla 243. When you are printing something from your computer, your cable must be securely connected to the printer

or else the signal won’t get through. If you compared a computer and printer to two neurons, what is the neuronal equivalent of the connection between the cable and the printer? a. synapse b. soma c. terminal button d. axon 244. What are the two most basic divisions of the nervous system? a. somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system b. brain and spinal cord c. sympathetic division and parasympathetic division d. central nervous system and peripheral nervous system 245. If a trait is described as polygenic, what does that mean? a. It is controlled by a single gene. b. It is controlled by a single chromosome. c. It is controlled by more than one pair of genes. d. It is controlled by genes on all 46 chromosomes. 246. According to the Hebbian learning rule, if an axon of Cell A is near enough to repeatedly stimulate Cell B

(causing it to fire often), then what will happen to Cell B? a. Cell B will eventually stop responding to Cell A. b. Cell B will merge with Cell A. c. Cell B will be pruned because it is redundant with Cell A. d. Cell B will become more likely to fire in response to signals from Cell A. 247. Which hindbrain structure is involved with sleep and arousal? a. pons b. cerebellum c. thalamus

d. hypothalamus

248. What is the left hemisphere’s specialty in both split-brain people and neurologically intact people? a. spatial perception b. motor initiation c. visual recognition

d. verbal processing

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1

Trevor Trevor is going for a run. He starts thinking about all the things that he needs to do throughout his day, and he decides that after he showers he will study for his midterm for a little while before he goes to work for the evening. As Trevor rounds the corner near home, he sees something move near his feet and then feels a sharp pain in his right leg. At this point, Trevor’s heart rate increases substantially, as he spins away from the dog that just bit him. As the dog’s owner apologizes and puts the dog back on its leash, Trevor’s heart rate slows down and he then makes his way home. 249. What would an evolutionary psychologist say about Trevor’s physiological responses to the frightening experience of being bitten? a. Fight-or-flight responses are adaptations that evolved through natural selection. b. The increase in heart rate is caused by an overactive hypothalamus. c. Such responses put Trevor at risk for developing an anxiety disorder. d. Fight or flight responses are a maladaptive consequence of exposure to danger. 250. Which major division of the nervous system is comprised of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic

nervous system? a. skeletal b. central c. afferent d. peripheral 251. A split-brain patient is asked to focus on a fixation point, and a picture of a tennis racquet is flashed in the left

visual field. Which of the following is most likely to happen? a. The patient will be able to name the object but cannot point to a matching object with their right hand. b. The patient will not be able to name the object but can point to a matching object with their right hand. c. The patient will be able to name the object but cannot point to a matching object with their left hand. d. The patient will not be able to name the object but can point to a matching object with their left hand. 252. If a monkey’s mirror neurons fire when the monkey picks up a grape, when will those same neurons also fire? a. when the monkey tastes grapes or even grape juice b. when the monkey smells a grape c. when the monkey sees a grape d. when the monkey sees another monkey pick up a grape 253. Which of the following brain structures is essentially a passive relay station, routing different forms of sensory

information to their respective areas of the cerebral cortex? a. the hypothalamus b. the cerebrum c. the limbic system d. the thalamus

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 254. Zeke has no problem understanding what other people say to him, but he has difficulty producing spoken

language. If Zeke’s problem stems from damage to the cerebral cortex, where do you expect the damage to be? a. right parietal lobe b. left parietal lobe c. right frontal lobe d. left frontal lobe 255. Imagine that you are looking at a printout from an electroencephalograph and you see a change from fairly

short waves that are close together to waves that are tall and farther apart. What could you infer has happened to the person whose waves have been recorded? a. She fell asleep. b. She is having a seizure. c. She is studying. d. She is experiencing anxiety. 256. The drug Prozac is sometimes used to help treat patients with depression. It works by preventing the

reuptake of a specific neurotransmitter. As such, it would be considered which of the following? a. a serotonin agonist b. a serotonin antagonist c. a dopamine agonist d. a dopamine antagonist 257. Which of the following techniques represents an opportunity to alter the genetics of, and thereby treat,

individuals with cystic fibrosis or Huntington’s disease? a. CRISPRs b. genome-wide association studies c. recombinant DNA d. epigenetics 258. Which of the following is an acronym for a novel tool that can be used to edit genes? a. CRISPRs b. CRAKRs c. FRYRs

d. CRUSTEs

259. The drug Ritalin (methylphenidate) is commonly prescribed for individuals with attention deficit disorder. How

does this drug work? a. It is a GABA antagonist and acetylcholine agonist. b. It is a GABA antagonist and acetylcholine antagonist. c. It is a norepinephrine antagonist and dopamine agonist. d. It is a norepinephrine agonist and dopamine agonist. 260. Underproduction of which of the following neurotransmitter has been implicated in people with Alzheimer’s

disease? a. acetylcholine c. serotonin

b. GABA d. dopamine

261. What is the term for the stage of synaptic transmission when excess neurotransmitter molecules are brought

back into the presynaptic neuron for reuse? a. reabsorption b. reuptake c. recycling d. reprocessing Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 262. Which brain region controls the endocrine system? a. cerebellum b. hypothalamus c. thalamus

d. medulla

263. What seems to be a primary cause of Parkinson’s disease? a. degeneration of neurons that use dopamine as a neurotransmitter b. degeneration of myelin sheaths c. antagonistic effects on acetylcholine receptors d. damage to glial cells 264. What is characteristic of stem cells? a. They fire in response to an action or to seeing that same action. b. They are critical for the perception of pain and other bodily sensations. c. They can resist the effects of plasticity. d. They can be induced to become a specialized cell anywhere in the body. 265. Sharif suffered a stroke recently, and now he finds he constantly hears a buzzing sound in his ear. Where is

the damage located? a. right frontal lobe b. occipital lobe c. left parietal lobe d. temporal lobe 266. Fiona puts her hands into a bucket of lukewarm water; Luke puts his hands into a bucket of ice-cold water.

What should we predict about each of their action potentials? a. Only Fiona will experience enough stimulation to trigger an action potential. b. Luke will have inhibitory action potentials. c. Their action potentials will differ in rate, due to differences in the intensity of the stimuli. d. Their action potentials will differ in size, due to differences in the intensity of the stimuli. 267. Phong and Phan are identical twins who have been raised apart in separate adoptive homes. However, both

brothers have developed the same psychological disorder. What does this evidence suggest? a. Genetic factors have more influence than environmental factors in this disorder. b. Environmental factors have more influence than genetic factors in this disorder. c. Neither genetic nor environmental factors contribute to this disorder. d. Both genetic and environmental factors contribute equally to this disorder. 268. In which area of the brain is the dopamine system involved in Parkinson’s disease located? a. forebrain b. midbrain c. brain stem

d. hindbrain

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 269. For years, graduate students Tali and Jessica shared a printer in their office. Now, Tali has been promoted

and has wireless access to the colour printer down the hall while Jessica still uses the old printer. In comparing Tali’s computer and old printer to two neurons, which of the following is the neural equivalent of the day when she gets to unplug from the old printer? a. synaptogenesis b. deactivation c. synaptic transmission d. synaptic pruning 270. With which of the following can you expect to have problems if you have damaged your temporal lobe? a. hearing b. sight c. touch

d. taste

271. Paul is wide awake and studying for an upcoming exam. While he is studying, his brain activity is being

recorded using an electroencephalograph (EEG). Which type of waves is likely to dominate Paul’s EEG readings? a. high-voltage, high-frequency brain waves b. low-voltage, high-frequency brain waves c. high-voltage, low-frequency brain waves d. low-voltage, low-frequency brain waves 272. Which statement best supports the hypothesis that intelligence is partly influenced by environmental factors? a. Twins reared apart have similar intelligence scores. b. Monozygotic twins are more similar than dizygotic twins on intelligence measures. c. Identical twins do not have identical intelligence scores. d. The correlations between dizygotic twins’ intelligence scores are around 0.60. 273. With respect to the inconsistent research findings on oxytocin and prosocial behaviours, some researchers

have concluded which of the following? a. Oxytocin directly promotes empathy and trust but not other prosocial behaviours. b. Oxytocin activates mirror neurons, which make us more likely to recognize the emotional states of others. c. Oxytocin makes us more sensitive to social cues, which fosters prosocial behaviour in some situations

but not others. d. Oxytocin was previously thought to be related to prosocial behaviours, but more recent research has shown this to be false. 274. Which of the following is associated with brains that have more bilateral cerebral organization (i.e., less lateral

specialization)? a. being a non-musician c. being a supertaster

b. being an experienced musician d. being colour blind

275. It was once thought that glial cells outnumbered neurons by as much as ten to one, but recent research

suggests the ratio is closer to which of the following? a. 20:1 b. 5:1 c. 2:1 d. 1:1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 276. A baby is born extremely prematurely and is placed on life support. She is having difficulty breathing and has

an abnormal heart beat. Assuming that there are no physical issues with the lungs or heart, which of the following brain structures might have abnormalities that would cause these symptoms? a. the medulla b. the pons c. the mirror neurons d. the cerebellum 277. What is the correct sequence of structures through which information flows in a neuron? a. dendrites to axon to soma b. axon to glia to dendrites c. glia to dendrites to axon

d. dendrites to soma to axon

278. Gordon recently heard that a new golf clinic claims to help its clients improve their golf game using techniques

derived from neuroscience. He was disappointed to learn that much of the program involved watching videos of professional golfers’ swings over and over again. The discovery of which of the following clusters of neurons likely gave rise to this program? a. mirror neurons b. medial forebrain bundle c. reticular formation d. corpus callosum Trevor Trevor is going for a run. He starts thinking about all the things that he needs to do throughout his day, and he decides that after he showers he will study for his midterm for a little while before he goes to work for the evening. As Trevor rounds the corner near home, he sees something move near his feet and then feels a sharp pain in his right leg. At this point, Trevor’s heart rate increases substantially, as he spins away from the dog that just bit him. As the dog’s owner apologizes and puts the dog back on its leash, Trevor’s heart rate slows down and he then makes his way home. 279. As Trevor plans out his day, which area of his brain is processing these higher-level thoughts? a. limbic system b. prefrontal cortex c. medial temporal lobes d. Wernicke’s area 280. In which stage of synaptic transmission do the synaptic vesicles “melt” into the presynaptic membrane? a. binding b. autoreceptor activation c. release

d. transportation and storage

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1

Trevor Trevor is going for a run. He starts thinking about all the things that he needs to do throughout his day, and he decides that after he showers he will study for his midterm for a little while before he goes to work for the evening. As Trevor rounds the corner near home, he sees something move near his feet and then feels a sharp pain in his right leg. At this point, Trevor’s heart rate increases substantially, as he spins away from the dog that just bit him. As the dog’s owner apologizes and puts the dog back on its leash, Trevor’s heart rate slows down and he then makes his way home. 281. When Trevor feels the pain in his right leg, what area of the brain responds to this sensation? a. left parietal lobe b. right temporal lobe c. left frontal lobe d. right prefrontal cortex 282. Natalia was a professional ballerina until she was in a severe car accident. Although her limbs were

unaffected, the brain damage that she sustained meant that she would now have severe difficulty with balance and coordinated movements. Which of the following brain regions was likely the locus of damage? a. medulla b. pons c. mirror neurons d. cerebellum 283. Which of the following has recently been associated with impairment of the mirror neuron system? a. schizophrenia b. attention deficit disorder c. autism

d. eating disorders

284. Through which type of nerves does the brain send messages to the skeletal muscles in the legs when you are

walking? a. central c. efferent

b. afferent d. sensory

285. Which Canadian neuroscientist formulated the basic ideas behind long-term potentiation? a. Brenda Milner b. Donald Hebb c. Wilder Penfield

d. James Olds.

286. Which cells in the nervous system do most of the work of receiving, integrating, and transmitting information? a. neurons b. glial cells c. axons

d. dendrites

287. Stefan has suffered brain damage, and as a result, he shows deficits in attention, planning, and getting

organized. Which area was likely damaged? a. medial forebrain bundle b. primary sensory cortex c. prefrontal cortex d. limbic system

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 288. Huzaifa has a condition called synesthesia in which stimulation of one sense often produces a secondary

stimulation in another sense as well. For example, when he listens to music, he also sees flashes of colour. Based on what you know about the brain, which of the following regions might be implicated in such a blending of the senses? a. the hypothalamus b. the corpus callosum c. the thalamus d. the cerebellum 289. Robyn has just eaten a full meal and is now relaxing. Which specific division of her nervous system is in

primary control at this time? a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. peripheral 290. Karlette took some new medication for her hay fever. The medication made her heart race, and she became

agitated and jittery. Which division of the nervous system has been activated by the medication? a. peripheral b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. sympathetic 291. Choose a specific neurotransmitter or class of neurotransmitters and discuss its impact on behaviour.

292. Compare and contrast the nervous system and the endocrine system.

293. Assume that trait X is primarily an inherited characteristic. Imagine that trait X is investigated using family

studies, twin studies, and adoption studies. Briefly describe each of these three methods and indicate what information each would be expected to yield regarding trait X.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 294. What is neurogenesis? Relate this concept to plasticity in the brain. In humans, in what region of the brain has

neurogenesis been discovered?

295. Imagine the following scenario: Administrators at the local high school have been impressed by recent media

reports of cerebral hemispheric specialization and are considering curricular reform to achieve a better balance between “left-brained” and “right-brained” activities. You have been hired to advise them on this issue. What would your recommendation be, and why?

296. What are the four lobes of the brain, and which functions are associated with each?

297. Compare and contrast lesioning and electrical stimulation of the brain.

298. What is a split-brain patient and what have studies with these patients revealed about lateralization? How are

these studies conducted?

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. b 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. a 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. a 26. b

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. c 32. a 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. b 42. c 43. d 44. d 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. a 49. b 50. c 51. d 52. b 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 55. b 56. c 57. a 58. d 59. d 60. c 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. d 65. a 66. b 67. a 68. d 69. b 70. b 71. c 72. b 73. d 74. c 75. c 76. b 77. b 78. b 79. c 80. d 81. b 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 83. c 84. b 85. d 86. d 87. b 88. b 89. d 90. d 91. b 92. c 93. b 94. a 95. d 96. c 97. d 98. a 99. d 100. d 101. d 102. a 103. d 104. d 105. c 106. b 107. d 108. b 109. b 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 111. d 112. b 113. c 114. c 115. c 116. c 117. c 118. d 119. d 120. b 121. d 122. a 123. b 124. b 125. d 126. d 127. c 128. d 129. a 130. c 131. c 132. c 133. a 134. d 135. c 136. b 137. a

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 138. a 139. b 140. d 141. a 142. b 143. c 144. b 145. c 146. b 147. a 148. b 149. c 150. d 151. c 152. c 153. b 154. b 155. d 156. d 157. b 158. a 159. d 160. b 161. d 162. a 163. d 164. d 165. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 166. a 167. a 168. c 169. d 170. b 171. c 172. b 173. c 174. c 175. b 176. a 177. d 178. c 179. c 180. b 181. a 182. a 183. b 184. d 185. b 186. c 187. b 188. b 189. c 190. b 191. a 192. c 193. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 194. c 195. a 196. b 197. c 198. c 199. a 200. b 201. d 202. c 203. d 204. d 205. a 206. d 207. c 208. d 209. b 210. c 211. c 212. a 213. d 214. a 215. b 216. c 217. c 218. b 219. a 220. c 221. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 222. d 223. c 224. c 225. b 226. b 227. a 228. c 229. a 230. b 231. c 232. c 233. d 234. a 235. b 236. a 237. d 238. c 239. c 240. c 241. a 242. b 243. a 244. d 245. c 246. d 247. a 248. d

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 249. a 250. d 251. d 252. d 253. d 254. d 255. a 256. a 257. a 258. a 259. d 260. a 261. b 262. b 263. a 264. d 265. d 266. c 267. a 268. b 269. d 270. a 271. b 272. c 273. c 274. b 275. d 276. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 277. d 278. a 279. b 280. c 281. a 282. d 283. c 284. c 285. b 286. a 287. c 288. c 289. b 290. d 291. Acetylcholine: The only neurotransmitter between motor neurons and voluntary muscles, therefore mediates all

voluntary movement. Also contributes to attention, arousal, and memory. Alzheimer’s disease is associated with an insufficient supply of this neurotransmitter. Monoamines (dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine): Dopamine—mediates voluntary movement. A deficiency is associated with Parkinson’s disease; overactivity is associated with schizophrenia. Serotonin—regulates sleeping and waking. Norepinephrine—also regulates arousal. A deficiency is associated with depression. GABA: Has inhibitory effects only. Too little GABA is associated with anxiety. Endorphins: Resemble opiate drugs in structure and effects contribute to pain relief and perhaps to some pleasurable emotions. 292. Both systems provide internal communication within the human body. Both systems use chemical messengers (e.g.,

neurotransmitter and hormones). Neurotransmitters travel short distances at high speeds from neuron to neuron. Hormones are slow-acting and travel long distances through the blood stream. Some chemicals serve both as a neurotransmitter and a hormone (e.g., norepinephrine). 293. Family studies: There should be more phenotypic similarity on trait X among relatives who share a greater

percentage of genes. For example, there should be more similarity on trait X between identical twins than among siblings, who in turn should exhibit more similarity than cousins. Twin studies: Identical twins should exhibit more similarity on trait X than fraternal twins. Adoption studies: Children adopted in early infancy should more closely resemble their biological parents on trait X than they do their adoptive parents. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 1 294. Neurogenesis is the formation of new neurons. It has been discovered in humans in both the olfactory bulb and

particularly the hippocampus. The neurons produced in the hippocampus can migrate to the cortex and form synapses with existing neurons, becoming fully integrated in the brain’s network. This would be an example of the brain changing its structure and therefore of plasticity. 295. Although there is some evidence that the cerebral hemispheres are specialized to a degree, there is no basis for

saying that people have two independent streams of consciousness or that each hemisphere has its own cognitive style. There is little basis for labelling some people as “left-brained” and others as “right-brained,” or for relating these differences to distinctive task preferences, personalities, or vocations. All information reaches both hemispheres, since they communicate via the corpus callosum. Thus, cerebral specialization is not a sound basis for educational reform. 296. Frontal lobe: speech, motor movements, planning, and higher thought

Occipital lobe: vision Temporal lobe: hearing, language comprehension Parietal lobe: sense of touch (somatosensory signals) and reaching 297. Both are methods of studying brain function; both involve the introduction of electric current into a specific brain

structure via an implanted electrode. Lesioning uses a fairly strong electric current to destroy brain tissue, thus eliminating the relevant behaviour or function from the subject’s repertoire. Since lesioning produces permanent brain damage, it is employed with animal subjects only. Electrical stimulation of the brain introduces a weak current to artificially stimulate a brain structure and produce a behavioural response. It does not permanently damage the brain and so, under certain medical circumstances, may be used with humans; however, the technique is more frequently applied to animals. 298. A split-brain patient is someone who has had the corpus callosum severed—often as part of treatment for severe

epileptic seizures. Typical studies will ask patients to focus on a fixation point while a picture of an object is presented in the left or right visual field. The patient is then asked to name the object if they can, point to a matching object (with left or right hand), or pick up a matching object (with left or right hand). Findings suggest that spoken language is generally lateralized in the left hemisphere and that each hemisphere controls contralateral (opposite-side) body movements.

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Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which situation is most likely to lead to the depolarization of a postsynaptic neuron? a. Reuptake has occurred in the synapse. b. Neurotransmitters have been released into the synapse. c. The number of excitatory PSPs is greater than the number of inhibitory PSPs. d. The number of inhibitory PSPs is greater than the number of excitatory PSPs. 2. Which cells in the nervous system provide support and insulation for other cells? a. glial cells b. terminal cells c. neurons d. synapse cells 3. What does electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB) involve? a. monitoring the electrical activity of the brain over time b. destroying a piece of the brain via small electrodes that are carefully implanted c. visualizing the three-dimensional structure of the brain d. sending a weak current into a brain structure to activate that structure 4. In which nervous system would you find cerebrospinal fluid? a. peripheral nervous system b. central nervous system c. primary nervous system d. autonomic nervous system 5. What do we call a chemical that mimics a neurotransmitter and can bind to receptor sites and cause postsynaptic potentials? a. an agonist b. an artificial neurotransmitter c. an endogenous neurotransmitter d. an antagonist 6. If the human cortex did not have so many folds, what would be likely? a. We would not need the cerebellum. b. We would have faster transmission of action potentials. c. We would lose the ability to inhibit most neural impulses. d. We would need larger skulls to hold the same brain volume. 7. What did Darwin suggest evolution was applicable to? a. physical and financial characteristics b. behavioural traits and financial habits c. physical characteristics and behavioural traits d. emotional and behavioural traits 8. What is the name of the type of neurons that are activated by performing an action or seeing another person or animal perform the same action? a. mirror neurons b. afferent neurons c. occipital neurons d. efferent neurons

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9. Terry read a study suggesting that listening to music can lower cortisol levels and reduce the experience of everyday stress. Terry then tells her friend that people with anxiety disorders should just listen to music to get rid of their symptoms. What error has Terry made? a. confirmation bias b. illusory correlation c. inappropriate extrapolation d. fundamental attribution error 10. Which nervous system controls the heart, glands, and smooth muscles? a. visceral nervous system b. efferent nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. autonomic nervous system 11. By what type of process are neural impulses transmitted through the nervous system? a. a chemical process b. an electrical process c. a biological process d. an electrochemical process 12. Comparing a neuron to a gun that holds only a single bullet, which statement is similar to the time it takes to reload the gun? a. It has a relative refractory period. b. It has a relative firing rate. c. It has an absolute refractory period. d. It has an absolute firing rate. 13. What are you describing if you describe Henry as tall, dark, and handsome? a. his homozygous condition b. his heterozygous condition c. his genotype d. his phenotype 14. What was the focus of Donald Hebb’s research on cell assemblies? a. Alzheimer’s disease b. the creation of new synapses to treat amnesia c. the linking of neurons to form networks d. the replication of neurons for increased productivity 15. Through which of the following areas will all visual and auditory signals travel? a. sensory cortex b. thalamus c. cerebellum d. hypothalamus 16. What is the correct order for information to pass through a neuron? a. axon, soma, dendrite b. dendrite, axon, soma c. dendrite, soma, axon d. axon, dendrite, soma 17. What would happen if inhibitory postsynaptic potentials did not exist? a. Antagonism would not occur. b. Neurons would be more likely to depolarize. c. Neurons would be more resistant to depolarization. d. Reuptake would not occur.

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18. If a person’s hippocampus is damaged, what would become difficult for that person? a. controlling her response to pleasurable stimuli b. vision and hearing c. controlling her food intake d. remembering 19. As a result of receiving neurotransmitters, the voltage of a postsynaptic receptor has become less negative. What will be the result of this change? a. The presynaptic neuron is more likely to fire again. b. The postsynaptic neuron is less likely to fire. c. The presynaptic neuron is less likely to fire again. d. The postsynaptic neuron is more likely to fire. 20. A gunshot wound in the back of the head caused the victim to be permanently unable to maintain balance and bodily coordination. Which portion of the brain was damaged? a. medulla b. cerebrum c. thalamus d. cerebellum 21. What happens to a neuron’s electrical charge as it is stimulated by an excitatory neurotransmitter and starts to receive information? a. It immediately becomes positive. b. It becomes more negative. c. It becomes less negative and may become positive. d. It immediately affects the next neuron. 22. What do neurons do? a. receive, integrate, and transmit information b. provide support for the other cells in the nervous system c. insulate the other cells in the nervous system d. connect the other cells in the nervous system 23. Which neurotransmitter is believed to be associated with schizophrenia? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. endorphin d. acetylcholine 24. A species that lives in the arctic have warm, fluffy coats of fur because those individuals in the species with warm fur lived longer and had more offspring. According to Darwin, what is the mechanism that led to the whole species having warm fur? a. evolution b. survival of the fittest c. natural selection

d. adaptation

25. Electrical stimulation of which brain structure will result in an animal eating constantly and gaining weight rapidly? a. thalamus b. frontal lobe c. limbic system d. hypothalamus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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26. If the occipital lobe of the brain is stimulated, what would a person be most likely to report? a. moving a part of his body b. seeing a flash of light c. smelling an odour d. hearing a sound 27. If the parasympathetic nervous system is currently active, which bodily function is likely to be occurring? a. digestion b. cortisol secretion c. crying d. orgasm 28. Why is the pituitary gland known as the “master gland”? a. It regulates brain function. b. It secretes hormones that control other endocrine glands. c. It regulates levels of both hormones and neurotransmitters. d. It secretes testosterone. 29. If you removed the top of the skull, what would you be able to see on top of the brain? a. meninges b. brain stem c. ventricles

d. CSF

30. If you hypothesized that damage to a particular region of the brain led to symptoms of anxiety, which of the following techniques would be both useful and ethical to test this hypothesis in human participants? a. electroencephalography b. electric stimulation of the brain c. transcranial magnetic stimulation

d. magnetic resonance imaging

31. An action potential has just arrived at the terminal buttons of a neuron. Which event will occur immediately? a. Neurotransmitters will be taken up by the postsynaptic neuron. b. Neurotransmitters will be pulled back into the presynaptic neuron. c. Neurotransmitters will be manufactured in the synaptic vesicles. d. Neurotransmitters will be released into the synaptic cleft. 32. The long necks of giraffes and sharp beaks of woodpeckers allow access to food. Which term is used for these physical characteristics? a. adaptations b. fitness c. natural selection d. genotype 33. Which statement best describes a neuron after it fires an action potential? a. It cannot fire another action potential until at least five minutes have elapsed. b. It can continue firing the original action potential for an extended period of time. c. It can immediately fire additional action potentials. d. It cannot immediately fire another action potential. 34. Which brain structure controls much of the endocrine system? a. hypothalamus b. cerebellum c. thalamus d. pituitary

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35. What is the law that states that a neuron fires an action potential at only one level of intensity? a. the refractory law b. the all-or-none law c. the threshold law d. the action law 36. Which lobe of the brain would be most active for an auditory task? a. temporal lobe b. frontal lobe c. occipital lobe d. parietal lobe 37. Which lobe of the brain would be most active for a visual task? a. occipital lobe b. frontal lobe c. temporal lobe d. parietal lobe 38. Jessica is working on a large research project that follows people who have inherited a gene for a particular disorder. She wants to determine whether diet and exercise will alter the likelihood that those people will experience the symptoms of the disorder. What is Jessica’s field of study? a. epigenetics b. genetic mapping c. evolutionary psychology d. behaviour genetics 39. Which area allows information to travel between the left and right hemispheres? a. thalamus b. corpus callosum c. pons d. limbic system 40. What is the main function of the corpus callosum? a. the relay centre for the cortex b. coordination of movement and balance c. relay of information between the two hemispheres d. temperature regulation 41. What is most likely to occur if you were to administer a serotonin agonist? a. stable mood and arousal b. sensitivity to pain c. depression d. schizophrenia 42. What are the main functions of the spinal cord? a. the relay centre for the cortex b. coordination of movement and balance c. sending of information from the brain to the body and handling of simple reflexes d. relay of information between the two cerebral hemispheres 43. Which statement does NOT accurately describe oxytocin? a. It fosters adult pair-bonding in many mammals. b. It fosters feelings of warmth between people. c. It decreases the risk of fidelity in men. d. It triggers contractions when a woman gives birth and stimulates the mammary glands to release milk for breastfeeding.

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44. Where are terminal buttons located? a. at the end of dendrites b. at the end of axons c. on the soma d. in the synaptic cleft 45. Which process is the medulla involved in? a. relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex b. sleep and arousal c. coordinating body movements and balance d. controlling essential functions such as breathing 46. If you needed to send a message from the brain to your big toe, which cell would be used? a. receptor b. neuron c. glial cell d. epithelial cell 47. Where, in most people, is the area of the brain that is primarily responsible for speech production? a. right frontal lobe b. left temporal lobe c. left frontal lobe d. right temporal lobe 48. Which task is NOT predominantly controlled by the left hemisphere, for most people? a. writing b. language c. spatial tasks d. controlling the right side of the body 49. Eric believes that smoking tobacco is beneficial when he is studying because of its relationship to acetylcholine (ACh). Which outcome should nicotine cause? a. Nicotine is an excitor for ACh, so it should keep him awake. b. Nicotine is an agonist for ACh, so it should facilitate memory and attention. c. Nicotine is an inhibitor for ACh, so it should prevent distraction. d. Nicotine is an antagonist for ACh, so it should block nervousness. 50. What is the main function of the pituitary gland? a. the relay centre for the cortex b. coordination of movement and balance c. regulation of the endocrine system d. temperature regulation 51. What does the “all-or-none law” refer to? a. A neuron transmits a consistent impulse each time it fires an action potential. b. The neuron is selective regarding the type of other neuron it responds to. c. A neuron is either working properly, or it has become necrotic. d. All neurons in a chain are active or none are active. 52. If a patient has severe damage to the prefrontal cortex, what would become difficult for that patient? a. identifying objects by touch b. planning, paying attention, and getting organized c. hearing sounds d. identifying visually complex materials Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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53. Which method would you use if you needed to know which areas of the brain experienced the greatest blood flow during a particular task? a. magnetic resonance imaging b. computerized tomography c. positron emission tomography d. electroencephalography 54. If you wanted to monitor the electrical activity of the brain over time, what recording device should you use? a. EEG b. MRI c. CT d. PET 55. Which pair of procedures allows researchers to visualize changes in brain activity over time? a. positron emission tomography and functional magnetic resonance imaging b. computerized tomography and magnetic resonance imaging c. positron emission tomography and computerized tomography d. magnetic resonance imaging and functional magnetic resonance imaging 56. Which variable is more difficult to isolate in a family study compared to an adoption study? a. sex differences b. socioeconomic status c. genetic predisposition

d. shared environment

57. Theodore was born blind. What is likely to happen to the visual cortex of Theodore’s brain as he develops? a. It will receive proportionately less blood and oxygen. b. It will be recruited for processing verbal and other auditory information. c. It will begin to function like a subcortical area rather than a cortical area. d. It will shrink in size and be replaced by a ventricle. 58. What is most likely to occur if you were to administer a dopamine antagonist? a. addiction b. schizophrenia c. difficulty with movement d. pain reduction 59. Which part of a neuron transmits information away from the neuron and toward another neuron? a. synapse b. soma c. axon d. dendrite 60. How do lesioning studies relate to studies of patients with brain injuries? a. Lesioning was originally used for research purposes but is beginning to be accepted as a therapeutic technique. b. Lesioning is an imaging method that is appropriate for use with patients who may have foreign materials lodged in their wounds. c. Lesioning is used in animal research to test hypotheses generated from case studies of patients with brain damage. d. Lesioning is a therapeutic technique designed to reduce symptoms associated with brain damage.

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61. What is the role of the soma or cell body of a neuron? a. It releases neurotransmitters. b. It transmits signals toward other neurons. c. It contains the cell nucleus. d. It receives information from other neurons. 62. What is the main function of the axon? a. to break down neurotransmitters c. to support and insulate the neuron

b. to transmit information d. to receive information

63. Which neurotransmitter is NOT a monoamine? a. dopamine b. norepinephrine c. acetylcholine d. serotonin 64. Which lobe of the brain would be most active for a task that required a great deal of manual dexterity? a. parietal lobe b. temporal lobe c. frontal lobe d. occipital lobe 65. Following split-brain surgery, if an individual has difficulty naming an object that he briefly saw, which visual field would you expect that the object was presented to? a. right b. dominant c. nondominant d. left 66. What is suggested by results from family, twin, and adoption studies? a. Neither genetics nor experience exert a predictable influence on human behaviour. b. Genetics exerts the strongest influence on human behaviour. c. Experience exerts the strongest influence on human behaviour. d. Genetics and experience jointly influence human behaviour. 67. A neuron is currently not receiving any input. What kind of charge does that neuron have? a. It has a stable positive charge. b. It has an unstable negative charge. c. It has an unstable positive charge. d. It has a stable negative charge. 68. If a trait is influenced to some degree by genetic factors, which pair should be most similar to one another? a. monozygotic twins b. parent and child c. dizygotic twins d. brother and sister 69. Which term refers to a loosely connected network of brain structures involved in memory and emotional experiences such as fear and pleasure? a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. limbic system d. reticular formation

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70. As a result of brain maturation, a neuron in a network now receives fewer excitatory postsynaptic potentials. Which process has most likely occurred? a. pruning b. agonism c. degeneration d. antagonism 71. In the “lock and key” analogy of synaptic communication, which of the following is the “key”? a. the axon b. the receptor c. the soma d. the neurotransmitter 72. In the normal development of neural networks or pathways, which of the following statements best describes the pattern observed? a. The nervous system typically forms fewer synapses than needed. b. The creation of new synapses is the primary way in which neural networks develop. c. Old synapses are eliminated through a process of synaptic pruning, which paves the way for the neural pathways. d. Less-active synapses are gradually duplicated. 73. Which term refers to the hippocampus’ conversion of information into durable memories? a. action potential b. tomography c. consolidation d. neural translation 74. You have just read a magazine article that claims that schools should be reformed so that teachers can teach more to the right side of the brain. What is a reasonable response, given evidence about cerebral specialization? a. It would be detrimental to left-brained students. b. It is impractical because it is impossible to teach just one hemisphere at a time. c. It is revolutionary, because it considers individual differences in hemispheric specialization. d. It is an excellent suggestion that reflects current understanding of brain functioning. 75. What do we call the microscopic gap between the terminal buttons of one neuron and the cell membrane of another neuron? a. presynaptic space b. synaptic cleft c. neurotransmitter cleft

d. postsynaptic space

76. Which two brain structures make up the limbic system? a. the reticular formation and pons b. the hippocampus and amygdala c. the orbitofrontal and parietal cortex

d. the medulla and cerebellum

77. Which technique would be most useful for research in sleep laboratories? a. transcranial magnetic stimulation b. electrical stimulation of the brain c. electroencephalography d. lesioning

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78. Schizophrenia may be related to abnormalities in neurotransmitter activity, structural defects in the brain, and genetic vulnerabilities. Which of your textbook’s unifying themes are these observations most directly related to? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. Psychology is empirical. 79. What is the main function of the hypothalamus? a. the relay centre for the cortex b. coordination of movement and balance c. involvement in sleep and arousal

d. regulation of basic biological needs

80. In the “lock and key” analogy of synaptic communication, which of the following is the “lock”? a. the soma b. the receptor c. the axon d. the neurotransmitter 81. Jason and Kyle are friends who are working together on a project. Which hormone is likely to be secreted if they are bonding? a. estrogen b. testosterone c. cortisol d. oxytocin 82. What is the main role of glial cells? a. to receive information from other cells b. to transmit information to other cells c. to provide support for other cells in the nervous system d. to transfer information within the nervous system 83. In a village, some people have very few children and some people have many children. According to Darwin, what varies among people in this village? a. fertility b. heritability c. fitness d. genotype 84. Which of the following is the largest and most complex region of the brain? a. the midbrain b. the cerebrum c. the limbic system

d. the forebrain

85. What are the main functions of the pons? a. the relay centre for the cortex b. coordination of movement and balance c. involvement in sleep and arousal

d. temperature regulation

86. Isabel has a large family. Which pair would have equal degrees of relatedness to Isabel? a. her father, and her brother b. Her son, and her aunt c. Her brother, and her first cousin

d. her grandfather, and her daughter

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87. What has been demonstrated by research involving tasks such as recognizing words or musical melodies? a. Most tasks are controlled by only one hemisphere. b. Right-handed individuals outperform left-handed individuals on verbal tasks. c. On a specific task, the superiority of one hemisphere is usually quite modest. d. The dominant hemisphere is superior to the other hemisphere on most tasks. 88. Ellie has had split-brain surgery. If she briefly views “boatXhouse” while focusing on the X, what would Ellie say that she saw? a. She saw the word “boat.” b. She did not see a word. c. She saw the word “boathouse.” d. She saw the word “house.” 89. Which nervous system carries information from the voluntary skeletal muscles and sensory receptors to the central nervous system and also carries commands from the central nervous system to the muscles? a. peripheral nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. autonomic nervous system d. somatic nervous system 90. How do efferent nerve fibres communicate with the central nervous system (CNS)? a. They take messages toward the CNS. b. They relay messages within the CNS. c. They take messages away from the CNS. d. They carry messages both away from and toward the CNS. 91. Which neurotransmitter is released by motor neurons and results in movement of the voluntary muscles? a. monoamines b. acetylcholine c. endorphins

d. dopamine

92. Which procedure results in a high-quality three-dimensional picture of the brain? a. transcranial magnetic stimulation b. magnetic resonance imaging c. positron emission tomography d. electrical stimulation of the brain 93. Where are the thalamus, hypothalamus, and limbic system all located? a. cerebrum b. forebrain c. hindbrain d. midbrain 94. Which of the following brain structures is NOT part of the forebrain? a. the thalamus b. the cerebrum c. the limbic system d. the reticular formation 95. What is likely to be released if the pituitary gland is activated? a. digestive enzymes b. neurotransmitters c. hormones d. tears 96. Which part of the brain seems to be involved in the experience of fear, as evidenced by the case of S.M.? a. the hypothalamus b. the hippocampus c. the orbitofrontal cortex d. the amygdala Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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97. How could you determine whether a person has had split-brain surgery? a. by their speech patterns b. by their performance on visual identification tasks in a laboratory c. by the characteristic patterns of disturbed motor behaviour d. by the increased likelihood of having small seizures 98. What are the chemicals that are secreted from the terminal buttons into the synapse? a. action potentials b. hormones c. myelin d. neurotransmitters 99. John has recovered very well from a recent stroke, except that he can no longer understand the words people are saying to him even though he can hear perfectly well. Which brain area is likely damaged? a. Wernicke’s area b. the prefrontal cortex c. the parietal cortex d. Broca’s area 100. Which of the following could be considered an endorphin agonist? a. histamine b. cocaine c. morphine

d. curare

101. Which part of the neuron has branched extensions that are specialized to receive information? a. axons b. terminal buttons c. somas

d. dendrites

102. Handyman Holmes just hit his thumb with a hammer. Which nerve fibres will transmit the sensation to his central nervous system? a. sympathetic nerve fibres b. efferent nerve fibres c. autonomic nerve fibres d. afferent nerve fibres 103. Which part of the neuron typically receives information, and which part of the neuron typically sends information? a. Dendrites receive, and the soma sends. b. The axon receives, and the soma sends. c. The axon receives, and dendrites send. d. Dendrites receive, and the axon sends. 104. Which task would NOT be primarily controlled by the right hemisphere? a. spatial tasks b. visual recognition c. reading d. musical tasks 105. When a synapse is created, which of the following becomes possible? a. destruction of dendrites b. blockage of neurotransmission c. increase in myelinization d. communication between two neurons 106. What is the name for the insulation that covers some axons and increases the speed of transmission of the neural impulse? a. neurotransmitter sheath b. terminal cover c. myelin sheath d. glia wrap

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107. As a result of a stroke, Helen has sustained damage to her reticular formation. Which of the following will be difficult for Helen? a. relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex b. coordinating bodily movements and balance c. regulation of sleep, wakefulness, and arousal d. relaying information between the brainstem and cerebellum 108. With the exception of eggs and sperm, how many chromosomes are contained in each cell in the human body? a. 18 b. 21 c. 23 d. 46 109. What are the two major divisions of the nervous system? a. central and peripheral b. autonomic and sympathetic c. central and autonomic

d. peripheral and somatic

110. Neurotransmitters share four common properties. Which of the following is NOT one of those properties? a. They are synthesized in the neuron. b. They are stored in the synaptic terminals. c. They are released when the neuron is at resting potential. d. They are deactivated or removed from the synapse when they have completed their task. 111. An elderly person has a stroke that leaves her unable to talk and part of her body paralyzed. Which part of the body is most likely paralyzed? a. right side b. lower body c. upper body d. left side 112. When an object is placed unseen in the left hand of a person who has had split-brain surgery, what will happen? a. He will be able to describe it. b. He will be able to identify the object with his right hand. c. He will not be able to describe it. d. He will drop it. 113. What is most likely to occur if you were to administer a serotonin antagonist? a. pain reduction b. increased focus and attention c. schizophrenia

d. aggressive behaviour

114. Why would the Human Genome Project NOT be considered part of the field of behaviour genetics? a. The procedures associated with genetic mapping do not consider the role of the environment on behaviour. b. It appears to be impossible to predict behaviours based on genetic substrates. c. It focuses on the genome, not the chromosome. d. It ignores polygenic traits.

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115. When an individual neuron is at rest, which two ions are critical in creating and maintaining the neuron’s resting potential? a. potassium and sodium b. sodium and chloride c. chloride and potassium d. sodium and oxygen 116. What are the main functions of the cerebellum? a. the relay centre for the cortex b. coordination of movement and balance c. involvement in sleep and arousal d. temperature regulation 117. Which of your textbook’s unifying themes in psychology is Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection most directly related to? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 118. Which neurotransmitters produce only inhibitory postsynaptic potentials? a. GABA b. serotonin and endorphins c. serotonin and glycine

d. GABA and endorphins

119. Which statement reflects Hebbian learning? a. The synapse between Neuron A and Neuron B has been pruned. b. Neuron A becomes more efficient at depolarizing Neuron B over time. c. Neuron A produces more neurotransmitters over time. d. Neuron A has just created a new synapse with Neuron B. 120. Which cells in the nervous system receive, integrate, and transmit information? a. glia b. synapses c. terminal buttons d. Neurons 121. What is the smallest piece of genetic information that is the key functional unit in hereditary transmission? a. chromosome b. DNA c. gene d. zygote 122. Which nervous system is responsible for the activation of the “fight or flight” response? a. parasympathetic nervous system b. efferent nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. afferent nervous system 123. What occurs when the electrical charge inside a neuron becomes positive and travels along the axon? a. a resting potential b. an action potential c. a chemical potential d. an electrical potential

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124. Which statement best describes Ellen, if Ellen carries a recessive gene for blue eyes? a. One of her parents had blue eyes. b. Both of her parents had blue eyes. c. One of her parents carried the recessive gene. d. Neither of her parents carried the recessive gene. 125. The next time you have an itch on your foot, where will the perception of the itch be processed? a. occipital lobe b. parietal lobe c. frontal lobe d. temporal lobe 126. What is characteristic of endorphins? a. They have been related to the development of certain psychological disorders. b. They are associated with the movement of voluntary muscles. c. They are associated with sleep and wakefulness. d. They resemble opiates in structure and effect. 127. As a result of receiving neurotransmitters, the voltage of a postsynaptic receptor has become more negative. What will be the result of this change? a. The presynaptic neuron is less likely to fire again. b. The presynaptic neuron is more likely to fire again. c. The postsynaptic neuron is less likely to fire. d. The postsynaptic neuron is more likely to fire. 128. Which lobe of the brain would be most active for a task that required you to identify objects by touch? a. temporal lobe b. occipital lobe c. frontal lobe

d. parietal lobe

129. Which of the following is NOT directly regulated or influenced by the hypothalamus? a. the autonomic nervous system b. feeding c. the endocrine system

d. memory

130. What part of the brain and limbic system plays a central role in the learning of fear responses and the processing of basic emotional responses? a. the thalamus b. the hypothalamus c. the amygdala

d. the hippocampus

131. Handyman Holmes just hit his thumb with a hammer. Which nerve fibres will transmit the command from his central nervous system to jerk his hand away? a. efferent nerve fibres b. sympathetic nerve fibres c. afferent nerve fibres d. autonomic nerve fibres 132. Which research method allows researchers to most easily isolate the effect of both genetics and experience on specific traits? a. twin studies b. family studies c. survey studies d. adoption studies Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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133. What is the main function of the hippocampus? a. the relay centre for cortex b. coordination of movement and balance c. involvement in learning and memory d. temperature regulation 134. Which of the following lists the three major regions of the brain, from the lower to upper end of the brain? a. hindbrain, brainstem, forebrain b. brainstem, midbrain, cerebrum c. hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain d. forebrain, midbrain, brainstem 135. In 1949 at McGill University, whose work focused on how neurons are linked in complex networks and how brain processes are fundamental to understanding human behaviour? a. Solomon Snyder b. Wilder Penfield c. Donald Hebb d. Brenda Milner 136. What is the main function of dendrites? a. to receive information b. to transmit information c. to support and insulate the neuron d. to release neurotransmitters 137. What is another term for the long-lasting increase in neural excitability in synapses along a specific neural pathway? a. reuptake b. synaptic pruning c. long-term potentiation d. critical period 138. What happens to a neuron’s electrical charge when a neuron is firing its action potential? a. It becomes positive and travels along the dendrite. b. It becomes negative and travels along the axon. c. It becomes negative and travels along the dendrite. d. It becomes positive and travels along the axon. 139. If you know that someone has a disorder that results from a loss of myelin in the nervous system, which of the following would be a key problem in that disorder? a. blockage of important receptors b. neurons that depolarize too easily c. lack of neurotransmitters d. poor transmission of signals along the axon 140. What is the process through which neurotransmitters are “recycled” to be used again? a. absorption b. reabsorption c. uptake d. reuptake 141. Which intervention is likely to cause permanent visual damage? a. visual deprivation during infancy b. visual deprivation during childhood c. visual deprivation during adolescence d. visual deprivation during adulthood

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142. Tom is studying twins to determine the relative contribution of heredity and environment to the development of eating disorders. What is Tom’s field of study? a. evolutionary psychology b. ontology c. behaviour genetics d. embryology 143. Which brain structure contains dopamine-releasing neurons and, if it deteriorates, is involved in Parkinson’s disease? a. midbrain b. forebrain c. limbic system d. hindbrain 144. What is the main function of the reticular formation? a. the relay centre for the cortex b. regulation of sleep and arousal c. coordination of movement and balance d. temperature regulation 145. In family studies, how do researchers assess hereditary influence? a. by comparing the resemblance of adopted children to both their biological and adoptive parents on specific traits b. by comparing members of one family to unrelated individuals to see how much they resemble one another on specific traits c. by comparing blood relatives to see how much they resemble one another on specific traits d. by comparing the resemblance of identical and fraternal twins on specific traits 146. Which nervous system is subdivided into the somatic and autonomic nervous systems? a. skeletal nervous system b. central nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system

d. peripheral nervous system

147. In the “lock and key” analogy of synaptic communication, which of the following would function like a piece of gum that is stuck in the lock? a. the neurotransmitter b. the receptor c. a synapse d. an antagonist 148. If a patient has a stroke that leads to respiratory failure, in which brain area did the stroke likely occur? a. cerebellum b. medulla c. pons d. reticular formation 149. What did Adrian Owen of Western University discover about the brain of head injury victim, Scott Routley, who was thought by doctors to be in a chronic vegetative state? a. That he was unable to answer yes-no questions. b. That he was indeed in a chronic vegetative state. c. That he was cognitively intact as evidenced through fMRI imaging procedures. d. The he was incapable of communicating. 150. Which term refers to a limited time span in an organism’s development when it is optimal for certain capacities to emerge? a. overextrapolation b. critical window c. critical period d. sensitive period Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. d 11. d 12. c 13. d 14. c 15. b 16. c 17. b 18. d 19. d 20. d 21. c 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. d 26. b

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27. a 28. b 29. a 30. c 31. d 32. a 33. d 34. a 35. b 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. a 42. c 43. c 44. b 45. d 46. b 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. c 51. a 52. b 53. c 54. a

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55. a 56. d 57. b 58. c 59. c 60. c 61. c 62. b 63. c 64. c 65. d 66. d 67. d 68. a 69. c 70. a 71. d 72. c 73. c 74. b 75. b 76. b 77. c 78. c 79. d 80. b 81. d

82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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83. c 84. c 85. c 86. a 87. c 88. d 89. d 90. c 91. b 92. b 93. b 94. d 95. c 96. d 97. b 98. d 99. a 100. c 101. d 102. d 103. d 104. c 105. d 106. c 107. c 108. d 109. a 110. c

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111. a 112. c 113. d 114. a 115. a 116. b 117. c 118. a 119. b 120. d 121. c 122. c 123. b 124. c 125. b 126. d 127. c 128. d 129. d 130. c 131. a 132. d 133. c 134. c 135. c 136. a 137. c

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138. d 139. d 140. d 141. a 142. c 143. a 144. b 145. c 146. d 147. d 148. b 149. c 150. c

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which statement BEST characterizes dendrites? a. They receive messages from neighbouring neurons. b. They send messages to other neurons through branchlike terminal buttons. c. They support, nourish, and protect neurons. d. They produce myelin that covers axons. 2. What is the term for the tiny gap between a terminal button of one axon and a neighbouring dendrite of the next neuron? a. axon b. dendrite c. soma d. synapse 3. Every time a segment of an axon fires, the positive sodium ions flood in from the outside of the cell, while the prior segment returns to which of the following? a. its receptor sites b. its resting potential c. its reflexive behaviour d. its rest-and-digest process 4. Simon had a stroke and now has trouble with speech production. Simon MOST likely incurred damage in which of the following? a. his Broca’s area b. his reticular formation c. his parietal lobe d. his amygdala 5. The majority of neurotransmitters drift across the synaptic gap and come in contact with receptor sites on which part of the receiving neurons? a. sodium gates b. Schwann cells c. sensory areas d. dendrites 6. Deep inside Kiera’s brain, neurogenesis has been suppressed by an outside force. Which of the following is MOST likely responsible? a. running a marathon b. a high fat diet c. a vitamin C deficiency d. a stressful life event 7. What part of the peripheral nervous system carries messages from the body to the central nervous system? a. the spinal cord b. the reticular formation c. sensory neurons d. association areas 8. Which of the following BEST characterizes brain changes during childhood? a. the creation of new synapses b. the elimination of old synapses c. the creation of new neurons d. the elimination of old neurons 9. If enough neighbouring neurons signal to the receiving neuron to pass along the message, their combined signal becomes excitatory resulting in which of the following for the neuron? a. it will have its energy diverted b. it will fire c. it will be damaged d. it will have early exposure

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 10. Which of the following are chemicals that pass information across the tiny gap between neurons? a. neurotransmitters b. receptors c. axon terminals d. the synapses 11. Which of the following joins the two sides of Alysa’s cerebrum? a. her corpus callosum b. her pons c. her cerebellum d. her thalamus 12. Which of the following is linked to spatial learning and memory? a. synaptic pruning b. endorphins c. neurogenesis d. myelination 13. Information enters the central nervous system from which of the following? a. sensory receptors b. motor nerves c. ventricles d. sodium gates 14. Which disorder has been associated with problems with the functioning of mirror neurons? a. schizophrenia b. depression c. autism d. agoraphobia 15. Elke accidentally touched the stove when it was still hot and quickly pulled her hand away. Which of the following did this reflex involve? a. the spinal cord only b. the spinal cord and brain c. the autonomic nervous system d. the sympathetic nervous system 16. Last night while studying for his psychology final, Ira was drawing pictures on some scratch paper to help him remember the parts of a neuron. His roommate came into the kitchen and asked about the tiny branchlike fibres Ira drew that were extending from the cell body. What did Ira tell his roommate that they were? a. electrodes b. meninges c. dendrites d. melatonin 17. Terry practises the piano every day in the hopes of becoming more proficient. What will be increasing in Terry’s hippocampus as a result of his diligent practice? a. grey matter b. white matter c. glial cells d. norepinephrine receptors 18. In which lobes of the brain have mirror neurons been located? a. frontal and parietal b. parietal and temporal c. temporal and occipital d. occipital and frontal 19. Which division of the nervous system is comprised of afferent and efferent nerve fibres? a. central b. somatic c. autonomic d. endocrine

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 20. Professor Murdock is describing neural communication to her class this afternoon. As she draws a diagram of a neuron on the board, she describes how chemical messages are received by which of the following? a. vesicles b. dendrites c. ventricles d. occipital lobes 21. Francisco’s roommate Andrew decides to scare Francisco as a joke. When Andrew jumps out to scare Francisco, which one of Francisco’s nervous systems will be activated? a. his parasympathetic nervous system b. his sympathetic nervous system c. his central nervous system d. his spinal cord 22. What part of the neuron receives messages from neighbouring neurons? a. the dendrite b. the axon c. the terminal button d. the soma 23. Which of the following stimulates the release of neurotransmitters, allowing neurons to communicate with each other? a. an action potential b. the hypothalamus c. the retina d. a resting potential 24. Which lobe of the brain is MOST directly involved in speaking? a. the occipital lobe b. the frontal lobe c. the temporal lobe d. the parietal lobe 25. Studies in adult humans have shown that new neurons continue to be generated in the hippocampus, even late in life. This is important because the hippocampus is involved in which of the following activities? a. lower rates of emotional reactivity b. the ability to form new memories c. appetite changes d. motivated learning 26. Dr. Tran is interested in the role of the brain in aggressive behaviour. Central to her research are studies of which of the following? a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. hypothalamus d. pons 27. Which of the following brain structures is linked to virtually every other structure in the central nervous system? a. the hippocampus b. the hypothalamus c. the cerebellum d. the amygdala 28. A problem with vision originating in the brain is MOST likely the result of damage to which of the brain’s lobes? a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe 29. Jeff was in a car accident and has hearing loss as a result. Jeff MOST likely sustained damage to which of the following? a. his occipital lobe b. his temporal lobe c. his frontal lobe d. his parietal lobe

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 30. What percentage of the brain’s neurons are located in the cerebellum? a. 20 b. 45 c. 65 d. 80 31. What is the term for the brief electrical impulse by which information is transmitted along the axon of a neuron? a. action potential b. stimulus threshold c. resting potential d. node of Ranvier 32. What are the components of the central nervous system (CNS)? a. the brain and the spinal cord b. the spinal cord and the muscles c. the muscles and the somatic neurons d. the somatic neurons and the brain 33. Which nervous system has two subdivisions, the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions? a. the central nervous system b. the endocrine system c. the autonomic nervous system d. the enteric nervous system 34. Which division of the nervous system will slow heart rate after running a marathon? a. central b. sympathetic c. enteric d. parasympathetic 35. Which of the following is known to suppress neurogenesis? a. stress b. physical exercise c. myelination d. feeling happy 36. In which nervous system does sensation begin? a. autonomic b. enteric c. somatic d. central 37. Which division of the autonomic nervous system orchestrates the rest-and-digest response to bring the body back to noncrisis mode? a. somatic nervous system b. central nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. parasympathetic nervous system 38. Which area of the brain is essential to regulating eating, drinking, sexual activity, fear, and aggression? a. the thalamus b. the amygdala c. the cerebellum d. the hypothalamus 39. The nerves in Milo’s feet are part of which of the following? a. central nervous system b. somatic nervous system c. autonomic nervous system d. enteric nervous system 40. Yesterday in class, Professor Reid was describing the nervous system. In particular, she was discussing the branch of the peripheral nervous system that gathers information from sensory receptors and controls the skeletal muscles responsible for voluntary movement. What is this branch called? a. autonomic nervous system b. central nervous system c. endocrine system d. somatic nervous system Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 41. Clay damaged his motor cortex in a car accident, but over time part of his frontal lobe cortex began to coordinate some muscle movements. This is an example of which of the following? a. brain lateralization b. brain specialization c. brain plasticity d. brain compensation 42. Katja is suddenly frightened by a loud sound she hears. Her first response is to grab her daughter and hold her tightly. Which division of her nervous system will help her calm down? a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. central 43. Damage to the occipital lobe is MOST likely to affect which of the following? a. hearing b. vision c. olfaction d. balance 44. While a neuron may have many dendrites, it typically has only one of which of the following? a. axon b. terminal button c. node of Ranvier d. synapse 45. Which of the following carries information from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system? a. interneurons b. nerves c. soma d. spinal tracks 46. Which of the following is the complete age range argued by many researchers to be the critical period for neural development? a. birth to 6 years b. 3 months to 18 months c. birth to 3 years d. 6 months to 6 years 47. What must the neuron do in order for an action potential to begin? a. terminate b. reuptake c. depolarize d. polarize 48. If neurotransmitters have been released, what event must have occurred? a. an action potential b. reuptake c. a reflex d. sensation 49. If Arthur wants to write an essay on the central nervous system, what will he need to discuss? a. the brain and the spinal cord b. the spinal cord and the muscles c. the somatic neurons and the brain d. the enteric neurons and the brain 50. Which part of the brain is MOST closely associated with hearing? a. the occipital lobe b. the parietal lobe c. the temporal lobe d. the frontal lobe

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 51. Which of the following is the brain area that is MOST crucial to life functions such as breathing, heart rate, and digestion? a. the hindbrain b. the midbrain c. the forebrain d. the corpus callosum 52. The pons and medulla are positioned in which of the following? a. hindbrain b. midbrain c. forebrain d. cerebellum 53. What are the four lobes of the brain? a. temporal, occipital, parietal, and thalamus b. frontal, occipital, temporal, and parietal c. temporal, frontal, hypothalamus, and limbic system d. thalamus, hippocampus, temporal, and parietal 54. Which of the following is the correct order of a neural signal? a. dendrite => axon => terminal buttons b. terminal buttons => axon => dendrite c. axon => dendrite => terminal buttons d. dendrite => terminal buttons => axon 55. Which of the following is MOST closely associated with having verbal processing occur in the right hemisphere? a. being right-handed b. being left-handed c. being male d. being female 56. When Dr. Axelrod electrically stimulated a specific area of a patient’s right cerebral hemisphere, the patient’s left hand twitched. Which part of the cortex was stimulated? a. Broca’s area b. the primary motor cortex c. Wernicke’s area d. the somatosensory cortex 57. For a neuron to fire, what must happen FIRST? a. It must reach its threshold. b. It must take in dopamine. c. It must be inhibitory. d. It must be myelinated. 58. Tomas is talking to a housemate about neural activity. What amazes him the most is that the basis for all that humans think, feel, and do is which one of the following? a. the activation of neurons b. parasympathetic stimulation c. tactile processing d. the rest-and-digest process 59. What part of the brain is considered the centre of complex thought? a. the cerebellum b. the reticular formation c. the cerebrum d. the hippocampus 60. Which of the following allows Isabella to raise her hand and turn the page of her book? a. sympathetic nervous system b. somatic nervous system c. parasympathetic nervous system d. autonomic nervous system

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 61. How does the sympathetic nervous system prepare the body for action? a. by interfering at the level of the synapse b. by increasing heart rate and respiration, and slowing digestion and other bodily functions c. by blocking the receptors for neurotransmitters d. by insulating and protecting the tiny spikes in electricity happening inside the axon 62. Dr. Pearson studies the human nervous system. She has a diagram on her wall that depicts the branch of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary processes within the body, such as contractions in the digestive tract and the activity of glands. What is Dr. Peterson’s diagram showing? a. autonomic nervous system b. somatic nervous system c. central nervous system d. spinal cord 63. Lydia is getting ready for class. Her heart starts to race and her breathing increases when she hears a loud sound outside. She realizes quickly that there is nothing to worry about. Which of the following brings her body back to non-crisis mode? a. parasympathetic nervous system b. central nervous system c. endocrine system d. sympathetic nervous system 64. Information coming in from the eyes and ears will always be processed through which of the following? a. thalamus b. amygdala c. cerebellum d. medulla 65. Bogdon has just finished a tough triathlon, and he feels elated. One cause of his “runner’s high” may be high levels of which of the following? a. acetylcholine b. serotonin c. endorphins d. dopamine 66. In terms of heartbeat, digestion, and glandular functioning, the body is a fairly well-oiled machine that works even when one is asleep. Which of the following makes this possible? a. sympathetic nervous system b. somatic nervous system c. parasympathetic nervous system d. autonomic nervous system 67. What part of the brain coordinates the movement of all parts of the body? a. the somatosensory sensory cortex b. the motor cortex c. the limbic system d. the basal ganglia 68. Professor Shaw is chatting with a student during his online office hours. He is describing the peripheral nervous system, which includes all the neurons that are not in which of the following? a. the association areas b. the bone marrow c. the central nervous system d. the sending terminal button 69. Dr. Shu is suppressing myelin production in a group of rats as part of a research project. What does Dr. Shu expect will be the result of myelin suppression? a. The rats will be unable to learn. b. The rats will be unable to feel pain. c. The rats will experience neurogenesis. d. The rats will experience synaptic pruning.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 70. Which statement BEST describes terminal buttons? a. They receive messages from neighbouring neurons. b. They insulate the axon and speed communication between neurons. c. They transmit messages to other neurons. d. They support, nourish, and protect neurons. 71. Which primary component of grey matter gives it its grey colour? a. soma b. dendrites c. axons d. neurotransmitters 72. Mike has sustained damage to his spinal cord. Mike’s injury falls into the category of damage to which of the following? a. the central nervous system b. the peripheral nervous system c. the autonomic nervous system d. the enteric nervous system 73. What is the term for the deliberate elimination of certain connections between neurons? a. synaptic pruning b. potentiation c. neurogenesis d. myelination 74. Dimitri has been having considerable trouble with his short-term memory, which his doctor thinks may be a sign of Alzheimer’s disease. If his doctor is correct, what will Dimitri’s brain be producing less of than it did before? a. GABA b. acetylcholine c. MSG d. serotonin 75. How does the myelin sheath speed the transmission of neural messages? a. It serves as the “glue” of the nervous system. b. It insulates the axon, facilitating faster transmission of the impulse. c. It has protein-producing mechanisms. d. It maintains the structure of the nervous system. 76. Which of the following aspects of a neuron is actually not a physical structure? a. the axon b. dendrites c. synapse d. the soma 77. What structure connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain? a. the corpus callosum b. the spinal column c. the pons d. the pituitary gland 78. Uma and a classmate are studying the parts of a typical neuron. She is trying to memorize the terminology, but is having trouble with the axon. Her classmate reminds her that the end of the axon looks like branches and has which of the following names? a. ions b. glial cells c. terminal buttons d. dendrites

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 79. What is the body’s “master” gland? a. the pituitary gland b. the thyroid gland c. the adrenal gland d. the pineal gland 80. What parts of the neuron release neurotransmitters? a. the dendrites b. the axons c. the somas d. the terminal buttons 81. Which of the following makes up most of the outside of the brain? a. grey matter b. white matter c. glial cells d. the occipital lobe 82. What brain structure is MOST closely linked to emotions? a. the limbic system b. the pons c. the reticular formation d. the somatosensory cortex 83. Megan has brain damage that is affecting her appetite. She MOST likely has damage to which of the following? a. hypothalamus b. hippocampus c. occipital lobe d. cerebellum 84. Gabriella just got off a scary roller coaster which she found both terrifying and exhilarating. As she walks through the amusement park afterwards, which nervous system will help slow her heart rate back down? a. her sympathetic nervous system b. her parasympathetic nervous system c. her somatic nervous system d. her central nervous system 85. The existence of many different neurotransmitters is thought to reduce which of the following? a. myelination b. neurogenesis c. crosstalk between neurons d. potentiation 86. The axon is the tube-like structure extending from the cell body, ending in which of the following? a. terminal buttons b. dendrites c. cerebrospinal fluid d. nodes of Ranvier 87. Which of the following are covered in a myelin sheath? a. dendrites b. axons c. terminal buttons d. neurotransmitters 88. Which neurotransmitter is affected by cosmetic Botox injections? a. dopamine b. norepinephrine c. serotonin d. acetylcholine 89. Information processing in the body involves neurons communicating with each other at which location? a. synapses b. cell bodies c. neurons d. neural impulses

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 90. What is the scientific study of the nervous system known as? a. neuroscience b. psychology c. genetics d. psychiatry 91. Which part of the neuron can receive messages but cannot send messages? a. dendrite b. axon c. terminal button d. soma 92. Along with the dendrites and axon, which of the following is a basic part of a typical neuron? a. glia b. cell body c. pons d. medulla 93. If researchers electrically stimulate the reticular formation in a sleeping dog, it is most likely that the dog will do which of the following? a. aggressively attack the researchers b. stop breathing c. become paralyzed on both sides of its body d. instantly awaken and be fully alert 94. Which of the following contains the “pleasure centre” of the brain? a. the limbic system b. the reticular formation c. the temporal lobe d. the occipital lobe 95. What are the three basic parts of a neuron? a. cell body, axon, and synapse b. cell body, dendrites, and synapse c. cell body, axon, and dendrites d. synapse, axon, and dendrites 96. What happens when an axon is covered with myelin? a. It transmits signals more quickly. b. It has a lower resting potential. c. it must be inhibitory. d. Its soma will slowly die. 97. Which of the following best describes the connections between neurons? a. Neurons are physically connected at the synapse. b. Neurons are not physically connected to one another. c. Neurons are physically connected at the dendrites. d. Neurons are physically connected at the terminal buttons. 98. Yesterday in class, Professor Allen was describing axons. Which of the following did she define as a fatty substance that provides insulation, which does not entirely enclose the axon but rather covers it in segments? a. melatonin b. glia c. meninges d. myelin 99. Which of the following is MOST closely linked to oxytocin? a. trust b. memory c. arousal d. surprise Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 100. How is information transmitted WITHIN the neuron? a. as an electrical signal b. as a chemical signal c. as an oxygen-based gas d. as a neurotransmitter 101. What part of the neuron will not be sustained if glial cells aren’t functioning properly? a. the dendrites b. the soma c. the myelin sheath d. the axon 102. Dr. Mendez has been studying neurons for many years. He is most interested in the tube-like extensions of the cell body. Which part of the neuron does Dr. Mendez study? a. axons b. dendrites c. terminal buttons d. soma 103. What function do nerves serve? a. their production reduces the experience of pain and elevates mood b. they provide communication between the central nervous system and the muscles, glands, and sensory receptors c. their secretion can lead to a neuron firing, which can affect the regulation of mood, appetite, muscles, organs, and arousal d. they are a protein that facilitates faster transmission of the neural impulse 104. Ryan wants to do his best in school this term. Which of the following does research suggest can help Ryan by aiding in the development of new neurons? a. physical exercise b. a high-fat diet c. vitamin C d. moderate amounts of stress 105. Ever since overcoming a brain disease, Angelo has had trouble walking. Which of Angelo’s brain areas was MOST likely damaged? a. medulla b. corpus callosum c. cerebellum d. reticular formation 106. Michael has been involved in a motorcycle accident. There has been significant damage to his hindbrain. What is it likely that Michael is experiencing? a. a fight for his life b. a reduction in dopamine-producing neurons c. a loss of vision d. a loss of hearing 107. Which of the following is responsible for the production of myelin? a. astrocytes b. endorphins c. neurogenesis d. glial cells 108. What is the name of the fatty substance that insulates neurons? a. dendrite b. myelin c. synapse d. glia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 109. Neurons have only one of which of the following? a. ablation b. axon c. adenosine d. agonist 110. What is the typical sequence of events for an action potential? a. action potential => resting potential => refractory period b. resting potential => action potential => refractory period c. refractory period => action potential => resting potential d. resting potential => refractory period => action potential 111. After Sasha’s serious skiing accident, doctors detected damage to his cerebellum. Sasha is MOST likely to have trouble with which of the following? a. swallowing b. sleeping c. walking with a smooth gait d. staying awake 112. Action potential relies on which of the following two substances? a. sodium and potassium b. potassium and helium c. helium and carbon d. carbon and sodium 113. What is the name for chemical messengers that are usually secreted into the bloodstream by the endocrine glands? a. hormones b. medullas c. gonads d. neurotransmitters 114. Which brain structure helps coordinate movement and enables one type of nonverbal learning? a. the thalamus b. the amygdala c. the cerebellum d. the medulla 115. Which system processes and coordinates sensory input from the body’s senses and outputs to the muscles and bones in the body? a. peripheral nervous system b. sympathetic nervous system c. autonomic nervous system d. central nervous system 116. Which action does the autonomic nervous system MOST directly control? a. listening to speech b. bladder contractions c. movement of the head d. colour perception 117. Philip is studying neurons today, because he knows his professor will be discussing them in class tomorrow. To help him remember the parts of the axon, he creates a diagram. Philip draws a picture of an axon, which looks like a tube-like structure extending from a cell body, and at the end of the axon he draws branches that end with which of the following? a. auditory cortex b. terminal buttons c. axon hillock d. exchange of ion fluids

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 118. Oxytocin is released by which of the following? a. the hypothalamus b. the hippocampus c. the pituitary gland d. the adrenal gland 119. Inside Anna’s brain neurotransmitters have been released. Those that are not reabsorbed can drift out of which of the following? a. synaptic cleft b. dendrite c. cell body d. microglia 120. In order to study the brain’s role in maintaining a heartbeat what would a researcher need to study? a. pons b. medulla c. thalamus d. hypothalamus 121. Briony shows no fear whatsoever to threatening situations, such as in the presence of venomous snakes or in a Halloween haunted house. Briony MOST likely experienced damage to which of the following brain structures?? a. amygdala b. thalamus c. reticular formation d. medulla 122. Skye has had what is known as a “split brain” operation to control her epilepsy. What part of her brain has been removed? a. the corpus callosum b. the limbic system c. the occipital lobe d. the frontal lobe 123. All senses except for smell are processed through which of the following brain structures? a. the thalamus b. the hypothalamus c. the amygdala d. the hippocampus 124. What is another way to describe the role of the endocrine system in the body? a. electrochemical information system b. “slow” chemical communication system c. voluntary muscle-control system d. reproductive system 125. Which gland secretes many different hormones, some of which regulate other glands? a. the pituitary gland b. the thyroid gland c. the adrenal gland d. the pineal gland 126. Leila has had damage to her hippocampus, but not to other parts of her brain. Leila is MOST like to exhibit problems with which of the following? a. learning and forming new memories b. hearing high pitched tones c. comprehending spoken and written language d. controlling emotions such as aggression, fear, anger, and disgust

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 127. Dr. Fritz is studying the human nervous system. He has gotten permission from the Institutional Review Board to put participants in a stressful situation so he can monitor their reactions. He will be looking at how the sympathetic nervous system mobilizes which of the following? a. fight-or-flight response b. cerebellum response c. antagonist response d. rest-and-digest response 128. Many axons are covered by segments of which of the following? a. myelin b. electrostatic pressure c. glia d. dendrites 129. Which of the following brain structures contains the MOST neurons? a. the frontal lobes b. the amygdala c. the cerebellum d. the hippocampus 130. Duyen has tried everything to relieve her neck pain, from changing her sleeping positions to prescription pain relief. She recently started acupuncture and has noticed that it relieves her symptoms. The positive effects of acupuncture are likely due to the release of which of the following? a. GABA b. serotonin c. epinephrine d. endorphins 131. Maya is explaining how a neuron works. She states that the messages sent by the axon go from the cell body to which of the following? a. corpus callosum b. sensory areas c. terminal buttons d. nucleus 132. Young Hailey had the right hemisphere of her brain removed to control severe epilepsy. Two years after the operation, Hailey runs, speaks, and plays like other children. Hailey’s case BEST illustrates the value of which of the following? a. lateralization b. phrenology c. plasticity d. acetylcholine antagonists 133. Which of the following, along with the cell body and axon, comprises the three basic parts of a typical neuron? a. cerebellum b. dendrites c. diffusion d. glia 134. Simone is pushing a stroller across a crosswalk when a car speeds toward her. Realizing that the car is not going to stop, Simone runs across the street with the stroller just in time. What hormone is causing her heart to race because of her close call? a. dopamine b. GABA c. norepinephrine d. oxytocin 135. Which of the following has recently been linked to the cerebellum? a. attentional control b. recall of emotion c. synaptic pruning d. abstract reasoning

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 136. What part of the peripheral nervous system controls the voluntary movements of muscles? a. the sympathetic nervous system b. the somatic nervous system c. the autonomic nervous system d. the association areas 137. Anna has multiple sclerosis. If you were to look at a sample of her neurons under a microscope, what would you expect to find? a. missing myelin b. extra axons c. missing dendrites d. extra synapses 138. Ayah is running a marathon and she is feeling her feet hit the ground, the sun in her eyes, and the sweat on her neck. In which of the following do all of these sensations originate? a. autonomic nervous system b. somatic nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. parasympathetic nervous system 139. Which gland plays a role in skeletal growth, pain reduction, and breastfeeding? a. gonad b. adrenal c. thyroid d. pituitary 140. Which nervous system is working behind the scenes, regulating involuntary activity such as pumping of the heart? a. central nervous system b. peripheral nervous system c. autonomic nervous system d. somatosensory nervous system 141. Which neurotransmitter is associated with pleasure and plays a role in drug addiction? a. serotonin b. norepinephrine c. dopamine d. acetylcholine 142. How does the spinal cord connect the brain to the rest of the body? a. through a sensory neuron b. through an action potential c. through the central nervous system d. through the peripheral nervous system 143. A neuron is surrounded by and contains electrically charged solutions. A voltage will be generated between the inside and outside of the cell if which of the following occurs? a. The total charge in each of these solutions is identical. b. The total charge in each of these solutions is different. c. The charge of the solution outside is negative. d. The charge of the solution inside is negative. 144. Which of the following is the single skinny tube-like extension of the cell body that projects in the opposite direction from the dendrites? a. axon b. electrode c. glia d. medulla 145. If you wanted to see the nucleus within a neuron, which of the following would you dissect? a. dendrites b. axon c. cell body d. terminal buttons Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 146. Which hormone is thought to promote empathy? a. oxytocin b. estrogen c. progesterone d. testosterone

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. d 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. a

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. d 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. c 51. a 52. a 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. b 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. b 68. c 69. a 70. c 71. a 72. a 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. c 77. a 78. c 79. a 80. d 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 83. a 84. b 85. c 86. a 87. b 88. d 89. a 90. a 91. a 92. b 93. d 94. a 95. c 96. a 97. b 98. d 99. a 100. a 101. c 102. a 103. b 104. a 105. c 106. a 107. d 108. b 109. b 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 111. c 112. a 113. a 114. c 115. d 116. b 117. b 118. c 119. a 120. b 121. a 122. a 123. a 124. b 125. a 126. a 127. a 128. a 129. c 130. d 131. c 132. c 133. b 134. c 135. b 136. b 137. a

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Chap 03_6ce_Vol 4 138. b 139. d 140. c 141. c 142. d 143. b 144. a 145. c 146. a

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Chap 04_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Diana’s perceptual reality allows her to see the full spectrum of light frequencies. This means she can see not only the colours average humans can perceive, but also the ________ and the __________ spectrums. a. monochromatic, trichromatic b. electromagnetic, X-ray c. ultraviolet, infrared d. light, dark 2. Sandra responds to Simon’s criticism by saying that she is confident in her singing ability and claims that she has the brain of a musician. If Sandra’s statement is true, then we would expect Sandra to have a larger _____ than non-musicians. a. right hemisphere b. cerebellum c. cerebral cortex d. hypothalamus 3. Sandra has wanted to be famous ever since she was a little girl, and she will do anything to be on TV. Her latest obsession is the X-Factor. Sandra is determined to be on the show despite not being the best singer. Her audition does not go as well as she would have hoped and Simon Cowell, one of the judges on the show, makes some nasty comments towards her. Those comments do not deter Sandra, and she even talks back to Simon Cowell. Simon Cowell tells Sandra to sing in lower decibels. Therefore, he is telling Sandra to alter the ______ of her voice. a. wavelength b. intensity c. loudness d. amplitude 4. While on their date, Viola is nervous and accidentally cuts herself with her knife. The moment she cuts her finger, Viola feels a sharp pain and lets out a yelp. This pain was modulated by the ______ pathway which uses ______ fibres. a. slow-acting, C b. slow-acting, A-delta c. fast-acting, C d. fast-acting, A-delta 5. During one of their gatherings, Peter teaches his friends all about subtractive and additive mixing. In subtracting mixing, you mix ________ some wavelengths of light. a. paint and remove b. paint and superimpose c. light and remove d. light and superimpose 6. Todd and Viola are out on their first date at a nice restaurant. Viola is proud of having a very sensitive palette and is actually a supertaster. Todd, on the other hand, does not know much about cooking, or eating for that matter, and is a medium taster. Halfway through the date, Todd wants to head outside for a quick cigarette and asks Viola if she wants join him for a smoke, too. a. Viola is likely to only smoke occasionally and savour the taste of tobacco. b. Viola is likely not to smoke and to react negatively to nicotine. c. Viola is likely to be a chain smoker and very addicted to nicotine. d. Viola is likely not to smoke because she’s afraid it will ruin her taste buds.

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Chap 04_6ce_Case-Based 7. Mitch tells the children how their eyes are constantly moving and tells them that if their eyes ever stopped moving (even for a second) while watching Mitch, then ___________________. a. Mitch would appear to be much larger than he actually is b. Mitch would “fade from view” and they would not see him anymore c. Mitch would look a lot less clear, like a low definition video d. Mitch would appear to be much further away than he actually is 8. While on their date, Viola is nervous and accidentally cuts herself with her knife. Half an hour later, Viola still feels pain in her finger, but it feels more like an aching or burning. This pain was modulated by the ____ pathway which uses ____ fibres. a. slow-acting, C b. slow-acting, A-delta c. fast-acting, C d. fast-acting, A-delta 9. Mitch is an optometrist and his niece has asked him to come to school to talk about his profession at a job fair. Mitch is trying to impress his niece’s classmates by telling them cool things about ocular health and the way the visual system works. Mitch tells the children that hawks who hunt during the day have more ______ and great ________. a. cones, visual acuity b. cones, peripheral vision c. rods, visual acuity d. rods, peripheral vision 10. On their date, Todd orders a fish dish with a very tangy scent. Once the dish is served in front of him, he proclaims that his nose is now dead and will never be able to smell anything again. Viola laughs and tells him not to be so dramatic because____ are replaced every couple of _____. a. olfactory cilia, months b. olfactory axons, weeks c. olfactory cilia, weeks d. olfactory axons, months 11. One of the students asks Mitch why our brains want to recognize faces. Mitch tells him that it is likely an evolutionary advantage because it helped our ancestors ________________. a. recognize males from females in order to find a mate b. recognize friend from foe c. recognize members of a different clan d. recognize emotional facial expressions 12. Mitch starts explaining how we are able to see and begins by explaining the way light works. He explains that humans are able to see variation in the saturation of colours due to differences in the ______ of light. a. speed b. amplitude c. wavelength d. purity 13. On their date, Todd orders a fish dish with a very tangy scent. Todd complains about the smell of the fish and says “the scent went straight from my nose to my brain!” Which part of the brain will receive the incoming information from receptor cells first? a. Thalamus b. Prefrontal cortex c. Olfactory bulb d. Spinal cord

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Chap 04_6ce_Case-Based 14. After their meal and having had a few glasses of wine, Todd no longer has great balance. This means his ____ sense is compromised. a. somatosensory b. kinesthetic c. vestibular d. analgesic 15. Diana has discovered that the rods of her eyes work much better, too. What does this mean for her ability to see? a. She can easily walk through a dark forest. b. The colours she sees are so much more vibrant. c. She can see through objects and people, like having x-ray vision. d. She can read a book from one kilometre away. 16. Even though she has superhuman skills, Diana is still human. It is a fortunate thing that she still feels pain because _____________________. a. it helps her to cultivate more compassion for her fellow human beings b. it is vital and a cautionary system that notifies us when something is wrong c. without pain, she would become heartless and cruel to humankind d. she is a masochist and loves pain more than the average human should 17. While waiting in line at the bank, Diana hears a quiet ticking sound that no one else seems to hear. Diana follows the sound and finds a bomb in the washroom. Diana’s ____________. a. subliminal perception is above average b. subliminal perception is below average c. conscious perception is above average d. conscious perception is below average 18. Peter also has grapheme-colour synesthesia. This means that _________________. a. when he sees a specific colour, he also can hear a pleasant melody b. when he tastes something sweet and closes his eyes, he sees pretty colour c. when he sees the number 8, he perceives it to be yellow even when it’s not d. when he paints with blue colours, he experiences sad emotions 19. Mitch explains to the children how there are some creatures that can see certain shades of ultraviolet light that humans cannot. This is because those creatures can detect light with a ______ than the light humans can detect. a. higher amplitude b. higher wavelength c. lower amplitude d. lower wavelength

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Chap 04_6ce_Case-Based 20. Diana (aka Wonder Woman) wakes up one morning to discover that her life will never be the same. Diana realizes that she possesses superhuman abilities—her senses and perceptions now surpass those of ordinary people! Though she does not want to show off or become the subject of government or military scientific experiments, Diana cannot help but explore her newfound powers and abilities. At first it overwhelms her, but with practice, she is able to control her superpowers. Walking down the street, Diana hears beautiful music playing clearly. Strangely enough, it seems like no one else around her can hear it. Diana can hear the music because she can detect stimuli that are ____________ of the average human. a. above the absolute threshold b. below the absolute threshold c. below the just noticeable difference threshold d. above the just noticeable difference threshold 21. After Todd and Viola finish their main course, their server brings them dessert menus. Based on their taste preferences, which of the following is more likely to happen? a. Viola’s dessert order will be sweeter than Todd’s. b. Todd’s dessert order will be sweeter than Viola’s. c. Both Todd and Viola will order very sweet desserts. d. Neither Todd nor Viola will order desserts that are very sweet. 22. Peter is a retired neuroscientist who has painted as a hobby his whole life. He likes to think that he has implemented his science in his art and that he scientifically produces the best paintings possible. He also firmly believes that colours can drastically influence one’s mood and behaviour. Now that he has retired, he hosts wine and painting nights at his house and he invites friends over to teach them a bit about painting. Unfortunately, Peter pokes himself in the eye and has to wear an eye patch while his eye recovers. What will be missing from Peter’s paintings while his eye heals? a. pictorial depth cues b. motion parallax c. linear perspective d. retinal disparity 23. Peter’s friend Paula tells him that she knows more about the trichromatic theory of colour vision than he does. She gives him four arguments supporting the trichromatic theory. Peter tells her that one of her arguments is wrong. Which of the following is NOT correct? a. The trichromatic theory explains the afterimage phenomenon very well. b. The trichromatic theory accounts for colour blindness. c. Colour TVs and screen monitors operate on principles of the trichromatic theory. d. Trichromatic theory demonstrates that any colour is a mix of three primary colours. 24. In one of their gatherings, Peter teaches his friends all about subtractive and additive mixing. In additive mixing you mix _______ some wavelengths of light. a. paint and remove b. paint and superimpose c. light and remove d. light and superimpose 25. Diana can still feel pain. However, her powers allow her to close the __________ in the spinal cord to impede any pain she does not want to experience. a. “bridge” b. “door” c. “gate” d. “portal” Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Case-Based 26. Simon Cowell tells Sandra that he wishes the part of his brain that is the first point of entry for sound was dead so he would not have to perceive her singing. Simon is referring to his ________________. a. thalamus b. primary auditory cortex c. temporal lobes d. prefrontal cortex 27. Simon complains that his inner ear hurts after her performance. Simon is referring to his ___________. a. pinna b. auditory canal c. eardrum d. cochlea 28. During their meal, Viola starts reminiscing about her childhood. Which of the following most likely triggered Viola’s memories? a. The smell of her food. b. The taste of her food. c. The appearance of her food. d. A combination of the smell, taste, and appearance of her food. 29. Mitch tries to explain the visual pathway in the brain to the children. Which type of cell would fire in response to a straight line of a specific width and orientation in the right hand corner of the receptive field? a. Simple cells in the primary visual cortex. b. Complex cells in the primary visual cortex. c. Simple cells in the occipital lobe. d. Complex cells in the occipital lobe. 30. Simon Cowell tells Sandra her voice is so high, human ears can no longer detect it. If that was true, then Sandra’s voice would be higher than _____ Hz! a. 10,000 b. 20,000 c. 30,000 d. 40,000 31. Have you ever waved at someone you thought was your friend, but it turned out to be a total stranger? Diana never embarrasses herself like that anymore. According to signal detection theory, she now has a 100% _____ rate when it comes to recognizing faces at a distance, whereas in the past, she had an embarrassing number of _________ without her glasses on. a. hit, false alarms b. hit, misses c. success, false alarms d. success, misses

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Chap 04_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. d 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. d 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. d 25. c 26. a

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Chap 04_6ce_Case-Based 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. a

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which structure of the ear serves a similar function as the retina serves in the eye? a. pinna b. eardrum c. basilar membrane

d. ossicles

2. What is the structure of the ear that translates sound vibrations into nerve impulses? a. oval window b. temporal lobe c. cochlea

d. stirrup

3. What does “subliminal” mean? a. deceptive b. below threshold c. barely perceptible

d. superimposed

4. Jerry, a nuclear operator, must monitor 50 different gauges that keep track of various aspects of the nuclear

reactor. Which theory provides the most specific predictions for Jerry’s likelihood of detecting any changes or problems? a. signal-detection b. Fechner’s law c. Pragnanz d. Weber’s law 5. Where on the tongue would you find the oldest taste cells? a. near the tip of the tongue b. near the middle of the taste bud c. near the throat

d. near the outer edge of the taste bud

6. Which aspect of visual perception is responsive to differences in the amplitude of light waves? a. colour b. purity c. saturation

d. brightness

7. Mike broke his nose in a recent boxing match. The doctors packed his nose and told him he will need to

breathe through his mouth for the next 10 to 14 days. What is Mike likely to experience while his nose is packed? a. Food will have little taste because much of a food’s flavour depends on our sense of smell. b. He will have problems with his equilibrium and balance. c. Food will taste better because his sense of taste will be temporarily enhanced to compensate for his missing sense of smell. d. He will have blurry vision because the packing will put pressure on his optic nerve. 8. Stacia has lost all the vision in her left eye. What will happen to Stacia’s perceptual abilities? a. She will lose her ability to perceive colours accurately. b. She will be more vulnerable to perceptual illusions that incorporate differences in relative line length. c. She will no longer be able to use convergence as a perceptual cue. d. She will be unable to perceive depth. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 9. Natalie looked out her apartment window at the traffic jam below. There was very little space between the

front of one car and the rear of the next, but there were wide spaces between the side of one car and the side of another car. Which Gestalt principle explains why Natalie saw several rows of cars, rather than a cluster of cars? a. proximity b. simplicity c. similarity d. closure 10. In looking at the following lines (\|\|/ //|) we are likely to perceive two clusters with five lines and three lines,

respectively. This example best illustrates the Gestalt principle of which of the following? a. proximity b. simplicity c. similarity d. closure 11. Which stimuli is NOT detected in the tactile sensory system for touch? a. mechanical energy b. thermal energy c. chemical energy

d. climatic energy

12. Assuming that the perceived loudness doubles every 10 dB, how much louder will a 50 dB sound seem to

be, compared to a 20dB sound? a. twice as loud b. four times as loud c. six times as loud d. eight times as loud 13. Which perception is associated with the amplitude of a sound wave? a. loudness b. richness c. timbre

d. tonal quality

14. Which term refers to tiny eye movements essential to vision? a. retinal fixations b. dilations c. constrictions

d. saccades

15. Dalton was sitting in the hallway outside his chemistry class. Some students said they thought they could smell

smoke, but Dalton didn’t smell anything. When they all checked the lab to see if there were any problems, everything was fine and nothing was burning. What would you call Dalton’s response based on signaldetection theory? a. false alarm b. low threshold c. high threshold d. correct rejection 16. Which German scientist was particularly interested in just how much of a sensory stimulus is required in order

for sensation and perception to occur? a. Ernst Gestalt b. Simon Weiner c. Gustav Fechner d. Oliver Sachs

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 17. What aspect of the sound wave influences the perception of timbre? a. panache b. amplitude c. pitch

d. purity

18. You interpret a trapezoid shape projected on your retina as a rectangular book. What have you just

formulated? a. perceptual set c. perceptual hypothesis

b. psychophysical law d. Gestalt principle

19. Which of the following statements about colour vision is FALSE? a. The term colour-blind is misleading, as many colour-blind people are dichromats. b. Males are more likely than females to be colour-blind. c. Red-green colour blindness is the most common form. d. The types of deficiencies of colour blind individuals supports the opponent-process theory of colour

vision. 20. Three-year-old Keeghan was flying in a plane for the first time. As the plane descended for its landing,

Keeghan became very excited because he saw all the buildings and cars get bigger and bigger. He asked his father how big the houses would grow. Which aspect of perception failed in this example? a. accommodation b. perceptual constancy c. linear perspective d. binocular depth cues 21. Sonja put on a new watch this morning and found it uncomfortable because it was so much heavier than her

old watch. However, by noon, Sonja has forgotten that she is even wearing the watch. Which process is illustrated by the change in Sonja’s sensitivity to the pressure of the watch? a. perceptual assimilation b. signal detection c. adjusting just noticeable differences d. sensory adaptation 22. What is the blind spot in the eye? a. where the optic nerve exits the back of the eye b. the point at which ganglion cells synapse with bipolar cells c. the area where only cones are present d. where photoreceptor cells do not “bleach” 23. Which term refers to the study of how physical stimuli are translated into psychological experience? a. sensation b. signal detection research c. physics

d. psychophysics

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 24. Eli has been wearing green welding goggles for the past 30 minutes. Based on the opponent process theory

of colour vision, what colour will white objects appear to be for a brief time after Eli takes off the green goggles? a. blue b. yellow c. orange d. red 25. The “window” of the eye is that transparent part of the eye through which light enters. Which term refers to

this part of the eye? a. cornea b. retina c. lens d. fovea 26. Which statement best describes optical illusions? a. They are influenced by our experiences. b. They are perceived only if your vision is compromised. c. Once you understand the “trick,” then you won’t see the illusion anymore. d. They are more pronounced in children. 27. What is implied by the phenomenon of perceptual constancy? a. Movement of an object can disrupt our ability to perceive it. b. Two objects may be perceived as being the same even though they produce different retinal images. c. We have an easier time remembering items that have remained constant, compared to objects that have

changed. d. Our ability to perceive changes in an object is inhibited if we have been exposed to that object for an extended period of time. 28. Which type of signal-detection error becomes more likely when someone is not expecting the stimulus? a. correct rejection b. miss c. accurate hit

d. false alarm

29. A neural signal from Mary’s taste bud has travelled to her cortex, and she experiences enjoyment of a sweet

flavour. Which term best describes this process? a. sensation b. distal stimulation c. detection d. perception 30. Our sense of smell shows evidence of sensory adaptation. What happens to the perceived strength of an

odour? a. It fades to less than half its original strength within about four minutes. b. It slowly increases over time, reaching a maximum in about 15 minutes. c. It fades to less than half its original strength within a few seconds. d. It increases to more than twice its original strength within about four minutes.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 31. Vanessa describes a new melody that she heard at a concert by telling you each of the individual notes in the

order that they were played. In providing this type of description, which type of processing does Vanessa appear to use? a. opponent process b. bottom-up c. figure-ground d. top-down Darcy Darcy is studying at the kitchen table. Her brothers are watching the hockey game in the living room. When Darcy first sat down to study, the noise of the game was distracting, but now she doesn’t really notice it at all. As she reads her notes, Darcy also doesn’t seem to notice all the little spelling errors she made when she was writing them down in class. Instead, she reads the words and sentences clearly and can focus on the concepts and examples rather than her mistakes. After a while, Darcy reaches out and grabs her water glass and takes a drink. Just then, her brothers started yelling when their team scores. Startled, Darcy dropped the glass onto her baby toe, which sends pain shooting up her leg. Although Darcy is momentarily distracted, she goes back to her books and is focused on her studies again within about 20 minutes. 32. What increases led to Darcy being startled when Darcy’s brothers started yelling? a. frequency of the sound b. amplitude of the sound c. purity of the sound d. timbre of the sound 33. Where does the sensory information from the auditory system process in the brain? a. parietal lobe b. Wernicke’s area c. primary auditory cortex

d. thalamus

34. Patterns of light and dark suggest shadows that can create an impression of three-dimensional forms. Which

term refers to this monocular pictorial depth cue? a. linear perspective b. convergence c. light and shadow d. height in plane 35. Which process compensates for sensory adaptation? a. transduction b. saccades c. dilation

d. lens accommodation

36. Instead of hearing only music, Isaiah sees colours when he listens to Mozart. What is Isaiah probably

experiencing? a. sensation b. distal stimulation c. myopia d. synesthesia

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 37. Which of the following is an example of the phi phenomenon? a. mixing of coloured lights to produce different colours b. flashing lights that produce the illusion of movement c. drawing a two-dimensional image that shows depth d. seeing a reversible figure differently after priming 38. What is being measured if a subject is presented with a series of light bulb pairs of different wattages and is

asked whether the members of each pair differ in brightness? a. subject’s visual acuity b. subject’s absolute threshold for brightness c. subject’s just noticeable difference for brightness d. physical intensity difference between the two lights 39. Giovanni was watching the night sky on a clear evening in November. He noticed that sometimes when he

looked directly overhead he could detect a very faint star. A few minutes later, it seemed that the star had disappeared and then it “appeared” again. How would you describe the light from the star in this case? a. It produces a just noticeable difference. b. It produces a distal stimulus. c. It falls just below Giovanni’s level for perceptual invariance. d. It is just at Giovanni’s absolute threshold for light. 40. What becomes inverted in paintings or drawings that lead to ambiguous interpretations? a. open processing and closed processing b. figure and ground c. sensation and perception

d. top and bottom

41. Which of the following statements best reflects the current understanding of colour vision? a. It is a combination of dorsal and ventral processing. b. It is a combination of additive and subtractive colour processes. c. It is a combination of trichromatic and opponent processes. d. It is a combination of feature analysis and bottom-up processing. 42. Dr. Alford predicts that two-year-olds will have a difficult time localizing sounds. What characteristic of

young children might lead him to this conclusion? a. The distance between a child’s ears is shorter compared to the distance in adults. b. The development of the auditory hair cells has not occurred. c. Children can detect a smaller range of frequencies than adults can. d. Children cannot turn their head in different directions.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 43. Our perception of flavour involves which of the following sensory systems? a. gustatory system b. olfactory system c. both gustatory and olfactory systems

d. gustatory, olfactory, and tactile systems

44. Which statement is the best description of the current view of how colour is coded in the visual system? a. It starts as an opponent process and then switches to a trichromatic process. b. It starts with rods and then switches to cones. c. It begins with cones and then switches to rods. d. It begins with a trichromatic process and then switches to an opponent process. 45. Which of the following occurs when a person is viewing an object that is nearby? a. The cornea becomes thicker. b. The lens becomes rounder. c. The pupil becomes dilated.

d. The optic disk shifts position.

46. Mike and Sandy were walking down the street, and Mike was telling Sandy a story about a party he went to.

As they were walking, a car full of clowns drove past and waved at them. Sandy waved back. Later, Mike reported truthfully that he had never seen the clowns and did not notice that Sandy waved at them. What could explain this apparent lapse in perception? a. inattentional blindness b. bottom-up processing c. hyperfocus d. phi phenomenon 47. Which technique would allow you to maximize visual acuity at night? a. Close one eye. b. Blink your eyes several times to hasten dark adaptation. c. Look slightly above or below the object you wish to see. d. Look directly at the object you wish to see. 48. It is a bright sunny day, and Elizabeth sees a beautiful, red apple on a tree. The distal stimulus in this example

is which of the following? a. the sun b. the red wavelengths of light entering her eyes c. the apple d. the photopigment molecules in her eyes 49. The ability to identify flavours declines when there are no odour cues. In fact, although there is no way to

really quantify this, in culinary circles it is often asserted that which of the following percentages of flavour is determined by smell? a. 25 to 35 percent b. 45 to 55 percent c. 65 to 75 percent d. 75 to 95 percent

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 50. After visual input has been processed in the primary visual cortex, signals are processed further along a

number of pathways. Where is information about object recognition processed? a. temporal lobes b. occipital lobes c. frontal lobes d. parietal lobes 51. About 90 percent of axons from the retina synapse in which of the following? a. the primary visual cortex b. the lateral geniculate nucleus c. the superior colliculus

d. the superior olivary nucleus

52. Children’s menus in restaurants often include an activity where children must connect the three dinner guests

with their bowl of pasta. The image includes three bowls of pasta and three guests, and the noodles from each bowl form a tangled mess with the others. To solve this puzzle, someone would be most likely to use the Gestalt principle of which of the following? a. Pragnanz b. similarity c. continuity d. proximity 53. What is interposition? a. a lens’s ability to change shape and focus light directly on the retina b. the processing of auditory information at the cochlear level c. an environmental depth cue in which closer objects overlap objects farther away d. the relationship between bipolar and ganglion cells 54. Will was painting a picture of a jet on a runway. In his painting, the plane is low in the visual field and the

runway is higher up. The plane seems near, while the runway seems more distant. Which monocular pictorial depth cue has Will used? a. linear perspective b. convergence c. motion parallax d. height in plane 55. Jasper is replacing a lightbulb in his apartment. From the box he sees that his 75 W bulb produces 1200

lumens of light (a “lumen” is the physical measure of brightness). Knowing that the Weber fraction for brightness is approximately 1/60, how bright must his new lightbulb be for Jasper to notice that it is brighter at least 50 percent of the time? a. 40 lumens or more b. 1160 lumens or more c. 1220 lumens or more d. 1240 lumens or more 56. Harris just applied a new body spray deodorant that claims to make him irresistible. He is disappointed,

though, that after a few minutes it seems to have worn off. So he reapplies. This continues numerous times, even though his friends claim that they can definitely smell the body spray! Which of the following processes is best illustrated in the example of Harris? a. habituation b. sensory adaptation c. subliminal perception. d. gate-control theory.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 57. What affects our perception of the brightness of a colour? a. saturation of light waves b. purity of light waves c. amplitude of light waves

d. wavelength of light waves

58. Hering’s opponent process theory suggests that receptors are linked antagonistically in pairs. What are his

opposed pairs? a. red-yellow; blue-green; black-white c. red-green; yellow-blue; black-white

b. yellow-green; red-blue; black-white d. red-black; yellow-white; green-blue

59. You have a severe ear infection. What is a potential side effect? a. enhanced sense of smell b. loss of balance c. blurred vision

d. loss of ability to taste food

60. Who proposed the opponent process theory of colour vision? a. Ewald Hering b. Hubel and Wiesel c. Young and Helmholtz

d. George Wald

61. Imagine that biologists have discovered an animal that has eyes very similar to human eyes, but that the only

receptor cells in the retina are cones; there are no rods. What would you expect about this animal’s vision, based on what is known about human vision? a. It would have poor peripheral vision. b. It would have excellent visual acuity. c. It would have excellent vision in dim light. d. It could not see in colour. 62. Dr. Placsko presents half of his participants with the standard Ponzo illusion. The image contains two equally

long horizontal lines, one above the other, superimposed on an image of railroad tracks receding into the background. The other half of participants see the same horizontal lines only on a simple grey background. How will the illusion differ for the second group? a. They will see the upper line as longer. b. They will see the lower line as longer. c. They will see the lines as the same length. d. They will initially see the upper line as longer and then the lower line as longer. 63. What helps to explain an athlete’s ability to play with a broken foot and not feel the pain until much later? a. overactive thyroid response b. hypnotic induction control theory of pain c. sympathetic nervous system control mechanisms d. gate-control theory of pain

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 64. What is the range of human hearing? a. 5 to 50 Hz b. 10 to 100 Hz c. 20 to 20 000 Hz

d. 10 000 to 100 000 Hz

65. What is the only sensory system that does not project upward to the cerebral cortex through the thalamus? a. audition b. gustation c. vision

d. olfaction

66. Our construction of perceptual hypotheses illustrates which of your text’s unifying themes? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. 67. Which of the following sound frequencies are humans most sensitive to? a. frequencies near 2000 Hz b. frequencies near 4000 Hz c. frequencies near 8000 Hz

d. frequencies near 10000 Hz

68. Shelby created an animated scene using her computer. She drew a frog as he started to jump, and then drew

the frog landing. The computer created 10 pictures between these two points, each of which adjusted the frog’s position very slightly. When the entire sequence of 12 pictures is displayed in rapid succession, the frog appears to hop smoothly. What leads to this perception of animation? a. phi phenomenon b. perceptual set c. bottom-up processing d. feature detection 69. Who proposed the trichromatic theory of colour vision? a. Hubel and Wiesel b. Ewald Hering c. Young and Helmholtz

d. George Wald

70. Roberta and Phil have been arrested for vandalism at their school. Given what we know about contrast

effects, what should their defence attorney emphasize to get a lighter sentence for Roberta and Phil? a. The other students involved in the incident did much more damage than her clients did. b. Her clients are both active in many extracurricular activities at their school. c. This is the first offence. d. Both clients are good students who always score at the top of their class. 71. Which type of artists were more concerned with interpreting a viewer’s fleeting perception of reality than with

re-creating the photographic “reality” of a scene? a. French Impressionists b. Realists c. Medievalists d. Cubists

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 72. Where are the receptors for the vestibular sense? a. muscles b. inner ear c. joints

d. skin

73. Which term refers to the eye structure which focuses the light rays falling on the retina? a. cornea b. camera c. lens

d. iris

74. Catelin has had a slow throbbing pain in her ankle since she twisted it while in-line skating last week. Where

are these pain signals travelling? a. along thin, unmyelinated C fibres b. through periacqueductal gray neurons in the midbrain c. along ungated endorphin pathways in the hypothalamus d. through thick, myelinated A-delta fibres 75. If your lens is very round, which of the following will you see best? a. close objects b. distant objects c. moving objects

d. brightly coloured objects

76. Samantha and Faith are identical twins and have identical ability to detect faint sounds. However, in a study

on audition, Faith is more likely to have hits and also more likely to have false alarms. This is because Samantha is naturally more cautious and likes to be highly certain that she heard something before saying that she heard it. In other words, Samantha and Faith likely differ in terms of which of the following? a. their absolute threshold b. their difference threshold c. their criterion d. their sensory adaptation 77. In the signal-detection method, what do we call it when a subject detects a stimulus when no stimulus is

actually present? a. hit b. correct rejection c. miss d. false alarm 78. What differs in the visual perception of a human dichromat and a human trichromat? a. colour vision b. visual acuity c. dark and light adaptation

d. peripheral vision

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 79. You’ve been sitting on the couch for a while now; there is music playing in the background, and your cat has

fallen asleep with his head on your arm. You are daydreaming about your upcoming vacation, and you don’t notice or attend to the sound of the music or the pressure of your cat’s very heavy head. What processes result in these two types of loss of feeling? a. endorphin-induced suppression of perception b. sensory adaptation c. sensory sensitization d. perceptual dulling 80. Which aspect of visual perception will change if you change the purity of the light waves? a. saturation b. colour constancies c. hue

d. brightness

81. Approximately what proportion of light entering the eye reaches the receptors? a. 1 percent b. 10 percent c. 25 percent

d. 50 percent

82. Tracy has terrible handwriting, and many of her individual characters are tough to tell apart, but her roommate

is able to read her notes just fine. Which type of processing allows Tracy’s roommate to read the notes? a. feature analysis b. opponent processing c. bottom-up processing d. top-down processing 83. Eloise is an individual who is classified as a supertaster. What is she likely to be especially sensitive to? a. salty and sour tastes b. sweet and salty tastes c. sweet and bitter tastes

d. sour and bitter tastes

84. Which term refers to the opening in the centre of the iris through which light passes? a. pupil b. lens c. cornea

d. fovea

85. Denise was momentarily blinded when paparazzi snapped her picture using a blue flash. Following the flash,

she saw spots for several minutes. What colour were the spots, based on the opponent process theory of colour vision? a. yellow b. blue c. red d. green 86. When a clarinet plays a high C followed by a low C, these two notes are perceived differently because they

differ in what aspect? a. complexity b. amplitude c. frequency d. purity

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 87. Feature analysis assumes that we progress from individual elements to the whole in the formation of our

perceptions. Which process best describes feature analysis? a. bottom-up b. perceptual set c. subjective processing d. top-down 88. What would you be unable to recognize if you had a condition known as agnosia? a. lines with a 45-degree orientation b. colours c. movement

d. common objects

89. Which statement best describes subliminal perception? a. Subliminal perception is possible only if sensory adaptation has taken place. b. Although subliminal perception was once dismissed by scientists as preposterous, recent laboratory

evidence suggests it has some effects on behaviour. c. Scientists have conclusively demonstrated that perception simply cannot take place without conscious awareness. d. Recent research suggests that subliminal messages can be quite persuasive in convincing us to buy products we don’t want. 90. What structure in the gustatory system operates in a similar fashion to rods and cones in the visual system? a. the tongue b. a taste bud c. a hair cell

d. the salivary gland

91. As we look at an object, our eyes do not move smoothly across the object. Instead, they briefly rest on a

spot for a fraction of a second before almost instantly “jumping” to another spot. The term for these stops and jumps, respectively, are which of the following? a. fixations; saccades b. regressions; progressions c. regressions; saccades d. fixations; progressions 92. Ariana is participating in a study where she must estimate how far away various objects are from her. The

researchers have designed the study so that the following objects are all equally distant from Ariana: frying pan, money, dog feces. Based on previous research, which object will Ariana judge as being closest to her? a. frying pan b. money c. dog feces d. the objects will be judged as equally distant 93. You see a delicious-looking doughnut sitting on the counter in front of you, and you guide your hand toward

the doughnut and pop it into your mouth. What do we call the second visual process for guiding your hand? a. vision for perception b. conscious vision c. subcortical vision d. vision for action

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 94. You are looking at a book. What type of stimulus is the book, from a perceptual perspective? a. sensory b. Gestalt c. distal

d. proximal

95. Trichromatic theory suggests that three types of receptor are more or less sensitive to different wavelengths of

light. We then combine information from these neurons to create a “unified” percept of the colour. This process of detecting specific elements of colour and combining them into a unified percept might be considered an example of which of the following? a. subliminal processes b. bottom-up processing c. figure-ground processing d. top-down processing 96. The example of an ambiguous image (seal trainer or costume ball) from the textbook is more likely to be

interpreted as a seal trainer when someone first reads that it is a poster for a circus act. Examples of perceptual set such as these are most closely related to which of the following types of processing? a. subliminal processing b. bottom-up processing c. figure-ground processing d. top-down processing 97. In which of the following areas have opponent-process neurons been discovered? a. the retina b. the lateral geniculate nucleus c. the visual cortex d. the retina, lateral geniculate nucleus, and visual cortex 98. Christina was skiing down a hill when the trail broke into two separate trails. One trail turned off at sharp

angle and looked to Christina like a new trail; the second trail appeared to be the same trail that she had been on. Which Gestalt principle is illustrated by this example? a. continuity b. similarity c. proximity d. commonality 99. Related to the sense of smell, which of the following is the term for chemicals that are released as a means of

communication between members of the same species? a. neurotransmitters b. pheromones c. odour objects d. scent molecules 100. What is your absolute threshold? a. the point at which you detect any portion of a stimulus b. the point at which you detect a stimulus that registers on sensory memory c. the point at which you detect any stimulus set point d. the point at which you detect a stimulus about half of the time

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 101. Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to exhibit inattentional blindness for an unexpected stimulus

(such as a gorilla)? a. Shirin, who is high in working memory capacity b. Gerard, who is working on a difficult math problem c. Ashley, who is relaxing d. Mia, who is below average in intelligence 102. Which of the following terms relates to how washed out or faded a colour appears? a. brightness b. wavelength c. saturation

d. hue

103. If you are experiencing gustatory perception, what are you doing? a. tasting b. smelling c. touching

d. balancing

104. Which two structures regulate the amount of light passing into the rear chamber of the eye? a. muscles which adjust the lens; retina b. iris; lens c. iris; pupil

d. pupil; cornea

105. On New Year’s Day, thousands of Canadians celebrate with a polar bear swim. They jump into an ice-cold

body of water at a lake or seaside. Needless to say, most people jump back out again within seconds as the water is shockingly cold at this time of year. Some people elect to stay in the water longer, and notice that while the water remains cold, it feels less cold with the passage of time. What is this a result of? a. adjusting just noticeable differences b. sensory adaptation c. perceptual assimilation d. perceptual invariance 106. It is well established that humans have at least four primary tastes. However, many scientists have suggested

adding a fifth primary taste to the list. Which of the following does this fifth correspond to? a. bland b. savoury c. fatty d. hot/spicy 107. In general, the principle of parsimony suggests that the simplest explanation (or theory) that can explain the

data is to be preferred. In terms of Gestalt principles of perception, this is most similar to the principle of which of the following? a. proximity b. Pragnanz c. similarity d. continuity 108. In a recent case study, a 45-year-old Canadian man reportedly experienced strong feelings of disgust when

words were written in certain colours. Which term refers to his condition? a. emotional colour blindness b. grapheme-colour synesthesia c. distal myopia d. emotional synesthesia

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 109. Deanne can see and recognize objects, but she seems to be unable to reach out and grasp them

appropriately. She often knocks over cups and drops pencils because she doesn’t orient her hand to grip them. If this problem is related to brain damage to the perceptual system, which area is most likely to be damaged? a. ventral stream b. dorsal stream c. primary visual cortex d. superior colliculus 110. Which visual illusion accounts for the fact that the corner of a building thrust toward the viewer looks shorter

than an inside corner thrust away from the viewer? a. Ponzo illusion b. illusion of relative size c. Müller-Lyer illusion d. horizontal-vertical illusion 111. For which of the following objects will people tend to have the most accurate memory for colour? a. a green olive b. a brick c. a lemon

d. a plum

112. As I walk closer to my friend, she perceives that I am the same person even though the image on her retina

changes as I move. Which terms refers to this perceptual ability? a. object permanence b. perceptual constancy c. accommodation d. binocular depth perception 113. As Briana drove down the highway, the pickets of the fences moved past her in a blur, but the mountains in

the distance didn’t appear to move at all. What was Briana experiencing? a. binocular cue for depth called retinal disparity b. monocular cue for depth called motion parallax c. binocular cue for depth called convergence d. pictorial cue for depth called texture gradient 114. What unit of measurement refers to the loudness of sounds? a. timbre b. wavelength c. decibels

d. hertz

115. Which of the following features of a sound contribute to auditory localization? a. the loudness of a sound arriving at each ear b. the timing of a sound arriving at each ear c. the pitch of a sound arriving at each ear d. both the loudness and the timing of a sound arriving at each ear

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 116. Continuity errors in movies occur when something changes but should have stayed the same from one scene

to the next. For example, the identification numbers on an airplane in the hangar might be different from the numbers shown when it is flying a moment later. Many moviegoers miss these errors, though. This example best illustrates the phenomenon of which of the following? a. change blindness b. perceptual set c. inattentional blindness d. bottom-up processing 117. What happens to the pupil of the eye in bright sunlight? a. It constricts. b. It flattens. c. It dilates.

d. It closes.

118. You enter a room and notice a distinctive new odour. After a bit of time, you no longer notice the odour.

What phenomenon does this illustrate? a. sensory adaptation b. Pragnanz c. progressive desensitization d. false alarm 119. Light has entered Jeff’s eye and has stimulated receptors there. Which term best describes this process? a. detection b. perception c. proximal stimulation

d. sensation

120. What are the sensory receptors for smell? a. smell buds b. gustatory bulbs c. olfactory cilia

d. sciatic receptors

121. Sima was listening to a tape recording of a famous speech that was being played backward. She just heard

gibberish until a classmate told her that the phrase “meet me in St. Louis” was clearly spoken. The tape was rewound and as Sima listened she clearly heard the phrase this time. Which model of perception is illustrated by Sima’s ability to detect the phrase the second time through the tape? a. Gestalt b. bottom-up processing c. top-down processing d. opponent process 122. You have a lamp with a three-way light bulb. You can use the light at 50 watts, 100 watts, or 150 watts.

When you change between settings, which change will be perceived as a larger increase in brightness? a. from off to 50 watts b. from 50 to 100 watts c. from 100 to 150 watts d. Each change will be perceived as an equivalent difference. 123. Through which brain area do visual signals travel just before reaching primary visual cortex? a. frontal lobes b. optic disc c. thalamus

d. superior colliculus

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 124. Why does food generally taste bland when you have a severe head cold? a. Your cold will cause the sweet receptors in your mouth to become inactivated. b. Your high temperature will cause your brain to block signals from the taste buds in the mouth. c. Your naturally produced antibodies interfere with chemical molecules stimulated by your taste buds. d. Flavour is influenced by smell as well as taste, and with a reduced sense of smell, your sense of taste

will be diminished. 125. What does your kinesthetic system allow you to perceive? a. your sense of forward acceleration b. your body movement, when something else is moving you c. the relative position of your body parts d. the location of your body in space 126. What have researchers typically found when they have attempted to demonstrate subliminal perception

effects in the real world? a. Such effects are substantial and a potential cause for public concern. b. People are much more likely to be influenced by “positive” subliminal stimuli (e.g., self-help tapes) than “negative” ones (e.g., subliminal advertising). c. People are much more likely to be influenced by “negative” subliminal stimuli than “positive” ones. d. Such effects are so weak as to be of little, if any, practical importance. 127. Which pathway for pain results in the experience of pain being less localized and longer lasting? a. endorphin b. generic c. slow

d. thalamic

128. Imagine that the basilar membrane in the human ear were longer. What might you expect humans to be able

to do, based on place theory? a. localize sounds more accurately b. hear more sounds of lower frequency, but lose some higher frequency sounds c. hear a wider range of sounds d. detect sound waves that had a lower amplitude 129. Which of the following correctly identifies the order of transmitting vibrations through the middle ear? a. eardrum – hammer – anvil – stirrup – oval window b. oval window – hammer – anvil – stirrup – cochlea c. eardrum – anvil – hammer – stirrup – cochlea d. oval window – anvil – hammer – stirrup – basilar membrane

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 130. Which pain pathway transmits information about an injury that has just occurred? a. fast b. geniculate c. slow

d. medial

131. Which of the following statements about visual pathways is TRUE? a. The optic nerve from each eye projects to the same hemisphere of the brain. b. The optic nerve from each eye projects to the opposite hemisphere of the brain. c. The optic nerve from the inside half of each eye projects to the opposite hemisphere of the brain. d. The optic nerve from the outside half of each eye projects to the opposite hemisphere of the brain. 132. Imagine that you are hired as a safety consultant by a company making personal listening devices for teens.

Which of the following would you advise the company to do to provide a safe product for its consumers? a. Limit the volume on the device so that it cannot exceed 50 dB. b. Limit the volume on the device so that it cannot exceed 78 dB. c. Limit the volume on the device so that it cannot exceed 110 dB. d. Limit the volume on the device so that it cannot exceed 140 dB. 133. Dr. Barnett presents participants with carefully controlled stimuli made up of specific wavelengths. Currently,

a participant is viewing two equally bright spots of colour. One light consists of a single wavelength (700 nm), and the other consists of a range of wavelengths, with the dominant one being 700 nm as well. In which of the following ways will the participant perceive these spots of colour? a. The single wavelength spot will be perceived as red, and the other, as orange. b. The single wavelength spot will be perceived as pure red, and the other, as muddy or washed out. c. The two spots of colour will appear identical as both have a dominant wavelength of 700 nm. d. The single wavelength spot will be perceived as pink, and the other, as red. 134. What depth cues must a painter employ to create the illusion of three-dimensional reality? a. pictorial b. convergence c. binocular

d. pointillism

135. Overlapping panes of stained glass is an example of subtractive colour mixing. Which of the following would

be expected when overlaying different coloured panes of glass? a. Red and green glass will appear yellow in the overlapping region. b. Red, green, and blue glass will appear white in the overlapping region. c. Green and blue glass will appear cyan in the overlapping region. d. Blue and red glass will appear purple in the overlapping region. 136. Which Dutch artist readily acknowledged his debt to Gestalt psychologists as a source of inspiration? a. M.C. Escher b. George Seurat c. Karel Dujardin

d. Jan Steen

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 137. A neurology patient has a great deal of difficulty when asked to identify a number of everyday objects. For

example, he believes that a picture of a donkey is a painting of Napoleon, and that a cup is a telephone. However, when he picks up the cup, he immediately recognizes it as a cup. Based on these observations, the patient likely has which of the following conditions? a. prosopagnosia b. anomia c. agnosia d. amnesia 138. Isaiah is having his eyes checked. The doctor has put drops in Isaiah’s eyes that will cause the pupils to open

wide. What will happen to Isaiah’s vision as the drops begin to work? a. His vision will start to become quite blurry. b. He will lose some of his colour vision. c. His vision will become extremely sharp and clear. d. Colours will appear to be “super” saturated. 139. Why is it difficult to see a chameleon that has blended in with its background? a. Perceptually, the chameleon and the background share a common fate. b. The illusion of relative size leads us to think that the chameleon has disappeared. c. We cannot easily distinguish between figure and ground in this case. d. The perceptual principle of shape constancy prevents us from seeing the chameleon. 140. Movie projectors essentially flash still images on the screen at a particular rate (e.g., 24 images per second).

The objects from one image to the next might be in slightly different positions. However, the viewer perceives smooth motion rather than a series of still images. Which of the following terms is most related to this illusion of movement? a. phi phenomenon b. subliminal processing c. top-down processing d. feature analysis 141. What happens to the perception of pressure if a stimulus is applied continuously to a specific spot on the

skin? a. It fades in some receptive fields but increases in others. b. It increases over time. c. It gradually fades. d. It fades only if the pressure is pulsatile. 142. When might an object of a certain colour be perceived as a different colour? a. if the colour is changed using cell phone technology b. if the foreground changes, creating a variation in hue c. if the background changes, creating a variation in contrast d. if the background changes, creating a variation in brightness

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 143. Images that occupy more space on your retina are seen as nearer, relative to images that occupy less space.

What is this depth cue called? a. interposition b. retinal disparity c. relative size d. accommodation 144. What are the four basic tastes generally considered to be? a. sweet, sour, spicy, and smooth b. salty, sweet, sour, and bitter c. bitter, salty, bland, and sour

d. sour, bitter, bland, and hot

145. What is the moon illusion? a. We perceive the moon to be perfectly round, when it is really elliptical. b. We perceive the moon to be dimmer in some seasons than in others. c. We perceive the moon to be larger on the horizon than overhead. d. We think we see the moon when in fact it is not there. 146. You are looking at a book. Which term refers to the image of the book projected on your retina? a. sensory stimulus b. gestalt stimulus c. distal stimulus

d. proximal stimulus

147. The sand at Zane’s feet appeared coarse, and he could see the individual grains of sand. However, the sand

down the beach appeared to blur together. Which depth cue is most prominent in this example? a. relative size b. interposition c. texture gradient d. light and shadow 148. Where would you find receptors for the kinesthetic sense? a. semicircular canals b. basilar membrane c. cochlea

d. joints and muscles

149. The maximum firing rate for individual neurons is 1,000 neural impulses per second. What does this biological

limitation mean for theories of perception? a. Trichromatic theory cannot fully explain colour perception. b. Opponent process theory cannot fully explain colour perception. c. Place theory cannot fully explain pitch perception. d. Frequency theory cannot fully explain pitch perception. 150. Derek dropped a hammer on his foot and shrieked a split second later at the intense pain from a newly

broken toe. How did the almost instantaneous pain signals travel? a. along thick, myelinated A-delta fibres b. through periacqueductal gray neurons in the midbrain c. along thin, unmyelinated C fibres d. through gated endorphin pathways in the hypothalamus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 151. What process allows us to hear pitch, according to place theory? a. There is differential movement of specific ossicles. b. The entire cochlea vibrates at a speed equivalent to the wavelengths that stimulate the ear. c. Vibrations occur at specific locations on the basilar membrane. d. Specific hair cells are simultaneously stimulated all along the length of the semicircular canals. 152. Which statement reflects a distinction between the process of sensation and the process of perception? a. Sensation is not necessary for perception, but perception is necessary for sensation. b. Sensation occurs at the level of the brain, while perception occurs at the level of the mind. c. Sensation reflects the proximal stimulus, while perception reflects the distal stimulus. d. Sensation occurs at the level of the sense organs, while perception occurs at the level of the brain. 153. Zachary is looking at a reversible figure that first appears to be a vase and then appears to be two faces. His

perception of the figure keeps switching between these two interpretations. What causes the switch in perception? a. The Gestalt principle of simplicity doesn’t work for reversible figures. b. The figure-ground distinction in reversible figures is often ambiguous. c. The Gestalt principles of proximity and closure are both at work in reversible figures. d. Reversible figures cause people to experience the phi phenomenon. 154. If a 100 Hz tone had to be increased to 101 Hz for a subject to just notice the difference, what would you

change a 1000 Hz tone to in order for that subject to notice the difference? a. 1010 Hz b. 1050 Hz c. 1100 Hz d. 1200 Hz 155. Because of which Gestalt principle do we often perceive a series of dots on a printed form as a “solid” line? a. constancy b. closure c. symmetry

d. similarity

156. As we focus on relatively close objects, our eyes are turned slightly inward. The muscles that point the eyes

inward send feedback to the brain about how inward-facing they are, which in turn allows the brain to calculate the distance of the object. This describes the binocular depth cue of which of the following? a. linear perspective b. interposition c. convergence d. retinal disparity 157. Which term refers to the act of locating the source of a sound in space? a. auditory localization b. auditory source monitoring c. vestibular rodding

d. balancing

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 158. Emma is going on a blind date because her friend convinced her that the person would be perfect for her.

Emma’s friend says that her date is charming, sweet, funny, and good-looking. Perceptual researchers might argue that Emma’s perception of the date will be ______________ because of the activation of ________________. a. similar to her friend’s description; feature analysis b. very different from her friend’s description; opponent processes. c. similar to her friend’s description; perceptual set d. very different from her friend’s description; top-down processes 159. Deficits in identifying common smells may be experienced by individuals with all of the following conditions

EXCEPT which one? a. Alzheimer’s disease c. synesthesia

b. Parkinson’s disease d. schizophrenia

160. Which depth cue relies on information about the position of your eyes? a. relative size b. binocular disparity c. accommodation

d. convergence

161. What type of glial cells, found in mesh-like networks in the skin, might be involved in initiating and maintaining

the sensation of certain types of pain? a. Schwann cells b. oligodendrocytes c. astrocytes d. satellite cells 162. Jamal was having his hearing tested, and a number of the tones that were presented were so faint he was not

able to detect them. What can you say about the faint sounds? a. They are below Jamal’s absolute threshold for sound. b. They cannot create a just noticeable difference. c. They cause weak action potentials. d. They fall below Jamal’s adaptation level for sound. 163. Which of the following does NOT influence perception? a. people’s motivational states b. whether the object is a desirable or an undesirable stimulus c. cultural background d. academic background 164. Which of the following is NOT indicative of an absolute threshold? a. the tick of a watch under quiet conditions at six metres b. one drop of perfume diffused into the entire volume of a six-room apartment c. the wing of a fly falling on your cheek from a distance of one centimetre d. 15 millilitres (1 tbsp) of sugar in 7.5 litres of water Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 165. After having your picture taken with a yellow flash, you momentarily see blue spots floating before your eyes.

Which process best explains this phenomenon? a. additive colour mixing b. trichromatic theory c. opponent process theory d. subtractive colour mixing Darcy Darcy is studying at the kitchen table. Her brothers are watching the hockey game in the living room. When Darcy first sat down to study, the noise of the game was distracting, but now she doesn’t really notice it at all. As she reads her notes, Darcy also doesn’t seem to notice all the little spelling errors she made when she was writing them down in class. Instead, she reads the words and sentences clearly and can focus on the concepts and examples rather than her mistakes. After a while, Darcy reaches out and grabs her water glass and takes a drink. Just then, her brothers started yelling when their team scores. Startled, Darcy dropped the glass onto her baby toe, which sends pain shooting up her leg. Although Darcy is momentarily distracted, she goes back to her books and is focused on her studies again within about 20 minutes. 166. Which process allows Darcy to not be distracted by the hockey game? a. Gestalt continuation b. neural fatigue c. sensory adaptation d. selective attention 167. Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by the fact that many people are reluctant to try novel foods

from other cultures? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Psychology is empirical. c. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 168. Which part of the ear has a role in maintaining balance? a. semicircular canals b. basilar membrane c. ossicles

d. cochlea

169. Where is the optic disk? a. where the visual fields from both eyes merge b. where the optic nerve exits the retina c. immediately in front of the lens d. where most of the rod and cones are located

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 170. Jose is wearing a blue shirt, and Evan is wearing a red shirt. Assuming that the two shirts have the same level

of overall brightness, what is the difference between the two shirts, in terms of light waves? a. Jose’s reflects higher amplitude light waves than Evan’s. b. Jose’s reflects shorter light waves than Evan’s. c. Jose’s reflects longer light waves than Evan’s. d. Jose’s reflects lower amplitude light waves than Evan’s. 171. Which of the following monocular depth cues is NOT a pictorial cue? a. height in plane b. interposition c. parallax

d. relative size

172. Imagine that biologists have discovered an animal that has eyes very similar to human eyes, but that the only

receptor cells in the retina are rods; there are no cones. What would you expect about this animal’s vision, based on what is known about human vision? a. It would be able to detect extremely fine details. b. It would have poor peripheral vision. c. It would have poor vision in low illumination. d. It would have no colour vision. 173. Dr. MacEachern is conducting a signal detection experiment looking at audition. The previous trial was

classified as a false alarm. What can we say for certain about that trial? a. The participant claimed to hear a sound. b. The participant claimed not to have heard a sound. c. There was a sound. d. There was a sound AND the participant claimed not to have heard it. 174. As people age, the lens of the eye loses its ability to accommodate, and it tends to remain flat instead of

becoming fat and round. What does this suggest about the effects of aging on vision? a. We become less likely to detect differences in light purity. b. We become more likely to detect differences in brightness and hue. c. We lose the ability to focus on objects that are close. d. We lose the ability to focus on objects in the distance. 175. What are M.C. Escher’s paintings, which often include impossible staircases and other structures, viewed as

examples of? a. perceptual ambiguity c. cubism

b. pointillism d. Gestalt continuity

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 176. Olivia is reading her textbook when she leans back to stretch. As she moves back, there will be a

corresponding change in which of the following? a. the distal stimulus b. the proximal stimulus c. the perceptual hypothesis d. both the distal and the proximal stimuli 177. Where does the ventral stream project to after leaving the primary visual cortex? a. basal forebrain b. cerebellum c. temporal lobes

d. parietal lobes

178. The lights around the movie marquee flashed on and off in succession. However, Jerome did not perceive

them as separate lights flashing, but instead saw a continuous band of light moving around the edge of the marquee. What is this type of perception known as? a. phi phenomenon b. perceptual set c. feature detection d. bottom-up processing 179. Recent research suggests that memory may be enhanced when horizontal eye movements are elicited before

memory retrieval. What is this effect referred to as? a. saccade-induced retrieval enhancement b. optic kinesia mnemonic enhancement c. progressive visual-based memory enhancement d. fixations-based encoding enhancement 180. Dr. Dennett is studying the olfactory abilities of wolves. He is specifically interested in the minimum

concentration of a particular scent molecule needed for the wolves to detect it. Which of the following terms is most closely related to the research being conducted by Dr. Dennett? a. absolute threshold b. difference threshold c. Weber’s law d. signal detection theory 181. Loreen has a bad case of vertigo. She feels like the room is spinning, and she has trouble keeping her

balance. What would most likely be the location of excess neural activity in Loreen’s case? a. olfactory bulb b. parvocellular system c. periacqueductal gray d. semicircular canals 182. Which concept helps to explain why three people could look at the same sketch and report seeing three

different things? a. sensory readiness c. cognitive interpretation

b. perceptual set d. stimulus ambiguity

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 183. A computer scientist claims his latest creation “perceives” the world. The computer detects basic lines and

shapes in the environment and their positions relative to one another to identify the object. For example, an upside-down triangle with a semi-circle on top of it might be identified as an “ice cream cone.” Which of the following types of processing does this example best illustrate? a. opponent processes b. bottom-up processes c. figure-ground processes d. top-down processes 184. At the musical he attended over the weekend, Andrew noticed that whenever the red and green spotlights

overlapped, they seemed to change to a yellow spotlight. Which principle explains this perception? a. complex feature detection b. subtractive colour mixing c. additive colour mixing d. opponent processing of colours 185. What is the sense associated with the perception of smell? a. olfaction b. gustation c. audition

d. kinaesthesia

186. Which of the following statements about rods and cones is FALSE? a. Rods outnumber cones about 20 to 1 in the retina. b. Rods are more sensitive to light than cones are. c. Rods provide lower visual acuity than cones do. d. Rods are highest in density in the fovea. 187. Raul is making potato soup. His roommate tastes it and tells Raul it is great, but Raul thinks it needs more

salt. He adds just a little salt but doesn’t think that he has added enough because he doesn’t detect a difference. However, his roommate tastes it again and tells Raul that the soup is now perfect, with just the right amount of salt. Which statement best describes this situation? a. Raul’s roommate has a higher absolute threshold than does Raul. b. Raul has more taste cells on the back of his tongue than does his roommate. c. Raul is a nontaster. d. Raul’s roommate can detect a smaller just noticeable difference than Raul can. 188. Juanita was drinking some warm punch, and she thought she could just detect a faint taste of nutmeg in the

punch. When she took another sip, the taste wasn’t there. On the third sip, she could just make out the taste of nutmeg again. What could you say about the taste of nutmeg in this situation? a. It falls just below her taste constancy level. b. It produces a proximal rather than distal stimulus. c. It is just at her absolute threshold for taste. d. It produces a just noticeable difference.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1

Darcy Darcy is studying at the kitchen table. Her brothers are watching the hockey game in the living room. When Darcy first sat down to study, the noise of the game was distracting, but now she doesn’t really notice it at all. As she reads her notes, Darcy also doesn’t seem to notice all the little spelling errors she made when she was writing them down in class. Instead, she reads the words and sentences clearly and can focus on the concepts and examples rather than her mistakes. After a while, Darcy reaches out and grabs her water glass and takes a drink. Just then, her brothers started yelling when their team scores. Startled, Darcy dropped the glass onto her baby toe, which sends pain shooting up her leg. Although Darcy is momentarily distracted, she goes back to her books and is focused on her studies again within about 20 minutes. 189. Which brain area is critical when Darcy reaches out for her water glass? a. dorsal stream b. primary visual cortex c. periaqueductal gray d. temporal lobe 190. Television sets can re-create the entire visible spectrum by mixing three primary colours of light. Which theory

of human colour vision is similar to this mechanism? a. opponent process b. saturation c. trichromatic d. complementary colour Darcy Darcy is studying at the kitchen table. Her brothers are watching the hockey game in the living room. When Darcy first sat down to study, the noise of the game was distracting, but now she doesn’t really notice it at all. As she reads her notes, Darcy also doesn’t seem to notice all the little spelling errors she made when she was writing them down in class. Instead, she reads the words and sentences clearly and can focus on the concepts and examples rather than her mistakes. After a while, Darcy reaches out and grabs her water glass and takes a drink. Just then, her brothers started yelling when their team scores. Startled, Darcy dropped the glass onto her baby toe, which sends pain shooting up her leg. Although Darcy is momentarily distracted, she goes back to her books and is focused on her studies again within about 20 minutes. 191. Which type of nerve fibres were responsible for the immediate sensation when Darcy felt pain in her baby toe? a. C fibres b. A-delta fibres c. ungated thalamic fibres d. periaqueductal fibres 192. Which sense is important for perception of the positions of the various parts of the body? a. homeostatic b. vestibular c. kinesthetic

d. kinetic

193. According to cross-cultural research, which culture is more susceptible to the Müller-Lyer illusion? a. Inuit culture b. Western culture c. Eastern culture

d. African culture

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 194. In looking at the following lines (////\\\\) we are likely to perceive two clusters with four lines each. This

example best illustrates the Gestalt principle of which of the following? a. proximity b. simplicity c. similarity d. closure 195. In the Ames room, people are seen to get smaller or larger as they move about. What does this demonstrate

about our perception? a. The proximal stimulus is unrelated to the distal stimulus. b. The actual distal stimuli are the primary determinants of perception. c. Perception depends on the assumptions we make about stimuli. d. Bottom-up processing controls most perception. 196. What area of the brain is believed to mediate the suppression of the perception of pain? a. a descending neural pathway which originates in an area of the midbrain b. medulla c. an ascending neural pathway which projects into the frontal lobes d. pons 197. Olivia was reading her textbook when she leaned back to stretch. Even though her backward movement

caused a change in the retinal stimulus, she still perceived the book as having the same shape. This example illustrates which of the following? a. a perceptual set b. object permanence c. a perceptual constancy d. accommodation 198. What happens to the pupil of the eye in dim light? a. It is dilated, producing a sharper image. b. It is dilated, producing an image that is not as sharp. c. It is constricted, producing an image that is not as sharp. d. It is constricted, producing a sharper image. 199. What is the optic chiasm? a. the portion of the lateral geniculate nucleus that is responsible for coordination of sensory input b. the point at which the optic nerves cross over one another before projecting to the occipital lobe c. the portion of the visual cortex responsible for feature detection d. the gap between the right occipital lobe and the left occipital lobe 200. Joan was sitting talking with some friends when she suddenly left the room to check on her baby. She was

sure she heard little Emily cry out, but when she checked, Emily was sleeping peacefully. What would you call Joan’s response based on signal-detection theory? a. hit b. false alarm c. correct rejection d. miss Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 201. If you were to shine lights of different colours onto a surface, so that the lights overlap, what type of colour

mixing are you using? a. subtractive b. opponent processes c. additive d. saturation 202. Which of the following is LEAST associated with top-down processing? a. perceptual set b. Gestalt laws c. perceptual hypotheses

d. feature analysis

203. Which theorist’s influence is reflected in the Surrealists’ exploration of the world of dreams and fantasy? a. Ernst Weber b. David Hubel c. Sigmund Freud

d. Gustav Fechner

204. The Weber fraction for lifting weights is approximately 1/30. Harveen is holding a weight that is 1.2 kg. How

heavy would the comparison weight have to be for Harveen to judge it as weighing less at least 50 percent of the time? a. 1240 g or less b. 1200 g or less c. 1160 g or less d. 1120 g or less 205. After visual input has been processed in the primary visual cortex, signals are processed further along a

number of pathways. Which type of visual information would be processed in the temporal lobe, along the ventral stream? a. movement b. where the stimulus is located c. what the stimulus is based on form and colour d. depth perception 206. The disparity between the images on the left and right retinas is used for depth perception. If there is greater

disparity for the left and right images of your coffee cup, and less disparity for the left and right images of your pen, which statement is most accurate? a. Your cup is closer to your right eye. b. Your cup is closer to your left eye. c. Your cup is closer than your pen. d. Your pen is closer than your cup. 207. Which mechanism does the impressionist technique of pointillism rely on? a. subtractive colour mixing b. feature analysis c. binocular disparity as a cue for depth

d. additive colour mixing

208. In the case study of “D.F.,” a woman experienced brain damage as a result of carbon-monoxide poisoning

and she lost the ability to recognize the forms of objects. What type of deficit did D.F. have? a. amnesia b. failure of vision for action c. dorsal stream damage d. agnosia

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 209. Which cells in the visual cortex respond selectively to specific details of complex stimuli? a. ventral cells b. centre-surround detectors c. feature detectors

d. ganglion cells

210. What will eventually occur if you stare at an unchanging image for a long time? a. You will experience sensory adaptation. b. You will have a higher absolute threshold. c. You will perceive a just noticeable difference. d. You will experience sensory overload. 211. If someone’s behaviour is altered by the scent chemicals released by another member of his species, what is

the term used for that scent chemical? a. scent hormone b. pheromone c. odourant d. chemolfaction 212. According to one theory of colour vision, colours are signalled in pairs by neurons that fire faster to one

colour and slower to another colour. What is this theory called? a. trichromatic theory b. dichromatic theory c. opponent process theory d. complementary colour theory 213. Which type of processing is most important for the ability to rapidly process words that you are reading? a. lateral b. bottom-up c. top-down

d. feature analysis

214. What is the name of the ring of muscle that surrounds the pupil? a. lens b. ciliary muscle c. cornea

d. iris

215. What unit of measurement refers to the pitch of sounds? a. hertz b. nanometers c. decibels

d. wavelengths

216. Truc is looking at her cat. The visual signals will be detected by her rods and cones. They will then be passed

on to the __________ cells, and then onto the ________ cells, whose axons form the optic nerve. a. ganglion; amacrine b. amacrine; horizontal c. bipolar; ganglion d. horizontal; bipolar 217. Charley has visual agnosia and is unable to recognize common, everyday objects by sight. Damage to which

component of the visual system does this condition most likely result from? a. ventral stream b. feature detectors c. superior colliculus d. lateral geniculate nucleus

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 218. In which lobe would you find that brain damage leads to visual agnosia? a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal

d. parietal

219. A police officer asks Stanley to close his eyes and touch the tip of his nose, using first his right index finger

and then his left index finger. What does Stanley rely on to complete this test of coordination? a. sensory accommodation b. reticular sense c. vestibular sense d. kinesthetic sense Darcy Darcy is studying at the kitchen table. Her brothers are watching the hockey game in the living room. When Darcy first sat down to study, the noise of the game was distracting, but now she doesn’t really notice it at all. As she reads her notes, Darcy also doesn’t seem to notice all the little spelling errors she made when she was writing them down in class. Instead, she reads the words and sentences clearly and can focus on the concepts and examples rather than her mistakes. After a while, Darcy reaches out and grabs her water glass and takes a drink. Just then, her brothers started yelling when their team scores. Startled, Darcy dropped the glass onto her baby toe, which sends pain shooting up her leg. Although Darcy is momentarily distracted, she goes back to her books and is focused on her studies again within about 20 minutes. 220. Which perceptual process allows Darcy to read her notes without noticing small errors? a. linguistic adaptation b. bottom-up processing c. top-down processing d. sensory adaptation 221. During the halftime show of the football game, the cheerleaders did a routine where they used red and blue

pompoms. At one point, they held all of their pompoms in a pattern so that the blue ones formed the shape of the team’s logo. Which Gestalt principle is illustrated in this example? a. closure b. proximity c. similarity d. simplicity 222. Compared to nontasters, what is different about people characterized as supertasters? a. They have taste buds that respond to multiple types of flavours. b. They have three or four additional types of taste buds. c. They have about four times as many taste buds per square centimetre. d. They have about ten times as many taste buds per square centimetre. 223. What is the major flaw in the frequency theory of pitch perception? a. It places the transduction process in the semicircular canals and not the cochlea. b. Structurally, it is impossible for the basilar membrane to vibrate. c. The action of the ossicles interacting with the auditory nerve was misidentified. d. Neurons cannot fire fast enough to account for hearing tones higher than 1000 cycles/second.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 224. What is one key gender difference that has been found with respect to tasting? a. Men are more likely than women to be supertasters. b. Women tend to react more to sweet tastes while men react more to bitter tastes. c. Women are more likely than men to be supertasters. d. Men tend to react more to sweet tastes while women react more to bitter tastes. 225. Which theory of colour vision is supported by the action of the lateral geniculate nucleus? a. Helmholtz’ b. trichromatic c. opponent process

d. Weber’s

226. What is the principle that states the size of a just noticeable difference is a constant proportion of the size of

the initial stimulus? a. Thorndike’s law c. Fechner’s law

b. Titchener’s law d. Weber’s law

227. When Celeste was playing her stereo at 40 decibels and she turned it up to 42 decibels, she could notice that

it was louder. If Celeste’s stereo were playing at 80 decibels, what should her just noticeable difference be? a. 1 decibel, half as much as it was at 40 decibels b. 2 decibels, the same as it was at 40 decibels c. 3 decibels, 50 percent more than it was at 40 decibels d. 4 decibels, twice as much as it was at 40 decibels 228. While finger painting, Imran mixed yellow paint and blue paint and ended up with green. Which mixing

method did Imran use? a. subtractive colour mixing c. additive colour mixing

b. trichromatic mixing d. multiplicative colour mixing

229. What does the receptive field of a visual cell refer to? a. the portion of visual cortex that receives information from that cell b. a cell’s degree of sensitivity or receptivity c. a range of wavelengths of light the cell reacts to d. an area of rods and cones that cause the visual cell to fire 230. Which theory of hearing views the basilar membrane as being like a drumhead? a. place b. timpani c. opponent process

d. frequency

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 231. Devin has contracted a very rare eye disease that has caused damage to his rods, but for the most part, his

cones have not been affected. Which aspect of Devin’s vision is likely to be deficient? a. vision in bright illumination b. peripheral vision c. colour vision d. detecting differences in wavelengths of light 232. What route is taken by nerve fibres that carry information about pressure from the surface of the skin on the

left side of the body? a. past the spinal column and into the left temporal cortex b. along the spinal meninges and terminating in the left parietal somatosensory cortex c. through the spinal column and into the right frontal motor cortex d. through the spinal column and into the right parietal somatosensory cortex 233. What are the direct receptors for hearing? a. hair cells b. basilar cells c. ossicles

d. cochleas

234. In signal detection, which type of error is more likely if you are expecting the stimulus to occur? a. false alarm b. miss c. correct rejection

d. noise hit

235. Your criterion for “hearing” mysterious noises at night may change after a rash of burglaries in your

neighbourhood. Which of the following best explains this change? a. Fechner’s law b. signal-detection theory c. Weber’s law d. sensory adaptation 236. A computer scientist claims his latest creation “perceives” the world. The computer detects basic lines and

shapes in the environment and their positions relative to one another to identify the object. For example, a square with a triangle on top of it might be identified as a “house.” Which of the following terms is most closely related to this example? a. perceptual set b. Gestalt processing c. feature analysis d. perceptual constancies 237. What do neural transmission in the slow pain pathway depend on? a. pulsating neural impulses called pain spindles b. opponent process receptors in the area surrounding the injury c. thicker, myelinated neurons called A-delta fibres d. thin, unmyelinated neurons called C fibres

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 238. What does the Gestalt principle of proximity state? a. Figure and ground can be ambiguous. b. Objects nearer to each other are seen as forming a unit. c. Bottom-up processing is more likely with close items. d. Centre-surround cells that are closer fire more often. 239. Which theory can account for the fact that people suffering from pain sometimes report pain relief from a

sugar pill placebo? a. cognitive control c. perceptual constancy

b. sensory adaptation d. gate control

240. Last year Fiona had a yard sale. She marked the prices of items very reasonably, and she refused to reduce

them when people tried to negotiate. This year she had another yard sale, but this time she marked the prices of items quite high, and then reduced them by 50 percent or more when people asked to negotiate. Fiona was surprised to find that she made much more money this year. What may have led people to purchase a lot from Fiona’s sale this year? a. contrast effects b. absolute thresholds c. sensory adaptation d. subliminal comparitors 241. Which term refers to the neurological condition in which words, letters, or digits are associated reliably with

specific colours? a. dyslexia c. dyscoloraphia

b. grapheme-colour synesthesia d. emotional synesthesia

242. Which of the following is NOT explained by sensory adaptation? a. feeling comfortable in a cold swimming pool after being in for a few minutes b. getting used to the smell of the perfume you are wearing c. getting used to the touch of your clothes on your skin d. feeling no sensation in a foot that has lost circulation 243. What aspect of perception is affected by the wavelength of light? a. saturation b. light purity c. brightness

d. colour

244. Which of the following terms is synonymous with optic disk? a. retina b. lens c. pupil

d. blind spot

245. If you project a red, a green, and a blue light into space, what colour will be perceived at the point where the

three lights cross? a. grey b. ultraviolet c. black d. white Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 246. Evelyn turned up the thermostat from 68 degrees to 70 degrees; however, she doesn’t think it feels any

warmer and she wants to turn it up even higher. Her roommate thinks that it is now too hot, and she wants to turn the thermostat back down. How does Evelyn’s just noticeable difference compare to her roommate’s? a. Evelyn’s is smaller. b. Evelyn’s is lower. c. Evelyn’s is larger. d. Evelyn’s is higher. 247. Petra has vision problems because of a syndrome that causes her cones to be faulty. Her rods function

normally. Which aspect of Petra’s vision is likely to be deficient? a. colour vision b. depth perception c. vision in low illumination d. peripheral vision 248. What is the physical stimulus for vision? a. colour b. sight c. light

d. sound

249. Thea strums a string on a guitar and hears a sound. What is the distal stimulus in this example? a. the guitar b. the string c. the sound wave entering her ear

d. the waves in the fluid of her inner ear

250. Which activity would be difficult for you to do if you sustained damage to your dorsal stream? a. say the name of an item that you see b. choose colours that match c. recognize your best friend

d. reach out to pick up a cup

251. In 2015, an image of a dress went viral online because people perceived the image differently. Some saw it as

white and gold; others saw it as black and blue. How does that vast majority of research explain these individual differences in perceiving the colour of the dress? a. Some people rely more on trichromatic processes, and others rely more on opponent processes. b. Some people use additive colour mixtures, and others use subtractive colour mixtures. c. Some people subconsciously subtract blue lighting conditions, and others subtract yellow lighting. d. Some people have unique differences in physiology, such as pupil size or macular pigment density. 252. Glaiza is practising making quick sketches of everyday scenes. These sketches show only edges or outlines of

objects, such as a table, and are made primarily of simple lines of the correct angle and position to depict the object. Glaiza’s quick sketches are most analogous to which of the following aspects of visual processing? a. receptive fields b. feature detectors c. dorsal and ventral streams d. perceptual set 253. Jefferson has had years of exposure to high-amplitude sound through his work as a helicopter mechanic.

Lately he has noticed that he is losing his ability to detect high-frequency sounds. What has Jefferson most likely damaged? a. his eardrum b. the tiny bones of his middle ear c. his cochlea d. his auditory canal Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 254. Dr. Kaasi is studying the olfactory abilities of wolves. He is specifically interested in the minimum

concentration of a particular scent molecule needed for the wolves to detect it. Dr. Kaasi is most likely in which of the following areas of research? a. psychoanalysis b. psychometrics c. neuroendocrinology d. psychophysics 255. What is sensory adaptation? a. a cause of false alarms in signal detection b. increase in sensitivity after prolonged stimulation c. decline in sensitivity after prolonged stimulation d. weakening of a neurotransmitter 256. If you mix red, green, and blue paint, what colour will you get? a. orange b. white c. purple

d. black

257. Gabriella was looking for shelter from the sudden cloudburst, and at first she had difficulty judging whether

the old barn or the farmhouse was closer. When she noticed that the barn partially obscured the corner of the house, she headed for the barn. Which depth cue did Gabriella use? a. linear perspective b. texture gradient c. relative size d. interposition 258. Ashley is trying to create a small model village on the mantle of her fireplace. She bought three-inch-high

figures to put at the front of the mantle and smaller figures to put near the back that will appear to be very far away. What depth cue is Ashley using? a. interposition b. texture gradient c. convergence d. relative size 259. What does the door-in-the-face technique involve? a. Making a long series of very small requests, until the target stops agreeing. b. Concealing some of the costs associated with a request until after the request has been accepted. c. Making a very large request that is likely to be turned down to increase the chances that people will

agree to a smaller request later. d. Adding incentives to a request that has been turned down until people finally agree to go along with the initial request. 260. Tran was painting a picture of a jet on a runway; however, in his painting, the sides of the runway are parallel

to each other. His picture seems to lack depth. Which monocular depth cue has Tran failed to make use of? a. linear perspective b. convergence c. motion parallax d. height in plane

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 261. Which statement best describes the role of culture for pain perception? a. Race has a larger impact on pain perception than does culture. b. Culture has no impact on pain perception or attitudes toward pain. c. Culture affects willingness to tolerate pain, but not the process of pain perception. d. Cultural rules dictate the amount of pain experienced, but only above a certain innate threshold. 262. In almost all examples of the Ponzo illusion, the objects are shown on a railroad track and the upper object

appears larger than the lower object. Which of the following depth cues are important in causing this illusion? a. linear perspective and height in plane b. linear perspective and interposition c. height in plane and interposition d. linear perspective, height in plane, and interposition 263. What do we mean when we say that perception is influenced by a perceptual set? a. The brain is only capable of perceiving so many things. b. People often perceive what they expect to perceive. c. Perception is based on detection of specific features. d. Perception is less about the person and more about the situation. 264. In which lobe would you find the primary visual cortex? a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal

d. parietal

265. Provide an overview of the trichromatic and opponent process theories of colour vision. Resolve the

“debate” between the two.

266. Use appropriate examples from everyday situations to illustrate the basic concepts from signal-detection

theory, and how signal-detection accuracy can vary across situations.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 267. Provide an overview of the place and frequency theories of pitch perception. Resolve the “debate” between

the two.

268. From a distal light source to the brain, sequentially trace a visual stimulus through the eye and nervous system.

269. Compare vision and hearing in terms of the proximal stimulus and information processing for each sense.

270. Using appropriate examples, show how perceptual experiences can be subjective.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. c 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. d 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. b 21. d 22. a 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. a

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. b 32. b 33. c 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. a 43. d 44. d 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. c 49. d 50. a 51. b 52. c 53. c 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 55. c 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. b 60. a 61. a 62. c 63. d 64. c 65. d 66. d 67. a 68. a 69. c 70. a 71. a 72. b 73. c 74. a 75. a 76. a 77. d 78. a 79. b 80. a 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 83. c 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. a 88. d 89. b 90. b 91. a 92. b 93. d 94. c 95. b 96. d 97. d 98. a 99. b 100. d 101. b 102. c 103. a 104. c 105. b 106. b 107. a 108. d 109. b 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 111. c 112. b 113. b 114. c 115. d 116. a 117. a 118. a 119. d 120. c 121. c 122. a 123. c 124. d 125. c 126. d 127. c 128. c 129. a 130. a 131. c 132. b 133. b 134. a 135. d 136. a 137. c

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 138. a 139. c 140. a 141. c 142. c 143. c 144. b 145. c 146. d 147. c 148. d 149. d 150. a 151. c 152. d 153. b 154. a 155. b 156. c 157. a 158. c 159. c 160. d 161. a 162. a 163. d 164. d 165. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 166. c 167. c 168. a 169. b 170. b 171. c 172. d 173. a 174. c 175. a 176. b 177. c 178. a 179. a 180. a 181. d 182. b 183. b 184. c 185. a 186. d 187. d 188. c 189. a 190. c 191. b 192. c 193. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 194. c 195. c 196. a 197. c 198. b 199. b 200. b 201. c 202. d 203. c 204. c 205. c 206. c 207. d 208. d 209. c 210. a 211. b 212. c 213. c 214. d 215. a 216. c 217. a 218. c 219. d 220. c 221. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 222. c 223. d 224. c 225. c 226. d 227. d 228. a 229. d 230. d 231. b 232. d 233. a 234. a 235. b 236. c 237. d 238. b 239. d 240. a 241. b 242. d 243. d 244. d 245. d 246. c 247. a 248. c

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 249. b 250. d 251. c 252. b 253. c 254. d 255. c 256. d 257. d 258. d 259. c 260. a 261. c 262. a 263. b 264. b 265. The trichromatic theory proposes that the eye has three types of receptors, each responsive to one of the three

primary colours of light: red, blue, and green. The eye then additively mixes different proportions of these three colours to produce the colours we see. The opponent process theory proposes that colour is signalled in pairs by receptors that fire faster to one colour and slower to a second, complementary colour. The three pairs of opponent colours are red-green, blue-yellow, and black-white. Both theories are needed to adequately explain colour vision. In the earliest stage of information processing, there are three types of cones, each responsive to a different band of wavelengths, consistent with trichromatic theory. In later stages, cells in the retina, the lateral geniculate nucleus, and the visual cortex respond in opposite ways to complementary colours. Thus, colour coding begins with a trichromatic process and then switches to an opponent process. 266. Good answers to this question should include practical examples of a hit, a miss, a correct rejection, and a false

alarm. The discussion should also include the idea that changing the criterion for detection can alter accuracy. Well-developed answers will also include the idea that concurrent environmental events (such as irrelevant stimuli) can affect sensory thresholds and the accuracy of signal detection.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 1 267. Place theory proposes that specific sound frequencies vibrate specific portions of the basilar membrane, producing

different pitches. Frequency theory, on the other hand, proposes that pitch perception corresponds to the frequency at which the entire basilar membrane vibrates. In the end, both theories of pitch perception proved to have some flaws, but both turned out to be valid in part. Place theory was basically on the mark except for one detail. The hair cells along the basilar membrane are not independent. They vibrate together, as suggested by frequency theory. The pattern of vibration is a travelling wave that moves along the basilar membrane. Place theory is correct, however, in that the wave peaks at a particular place, depending on the frequency of the sound wave. In sum, the current thinking is that pitch perception depends on both place and frequency coding of vibrations along the basilar membrane. 268. Light passes through the cornea, enters the pupil, is focused by the lens, and is projected onto the retina. The retina

converts the light rays into nerve impulses, which then travel via the optic nerve to the optic chiasm. At the optic chiasm, the axons from the inside half of each eye cross over and project along two divergent pathways to the opposite cerebral hemisphere. 269. The proximal stimulus for vision is light waves oscillating over distance. Light waves have three properties: (1)

amplitude, affecting the perception of brightness; (2) wavelength, affecting the perception of colour; and (3) purity, affecting the perception of saturation. Similarly, the proximal stimulus for hearing is sound waves oscillating over time. Sound waves have the same three properties as light waves: (1) amplitude, affecting the perception of loudness; (2) wavelength, affecting the perception of pitch; and (3) purity, affecting the perception of timbre. Both the eye and the ear convert physical energy (light and sound waves, respectively) into the neural energy that travels to the brain, producing sensory experience. In the eye, this conversion is done by the rods and cones at the retina; in the ear, this conversion is done by the hair cells, located on the basilar membrane in the inner ear. Visual information is routed to the visual cortex in the occipital lobes; auditory information is routed to the auditory cortex in the temporal lobes. 270. Good answers to this question should include ideas such as (1) expectations can affect the perception of visual or

auditory stimuli; (2) pain perception can be altered by shifts in attentional focus; and (3) extreme comparitors and contrast effects can affect perception. Well-developed answers will bring in concepts from across the chapter, including the Personal Application and the Critical Thinking Application.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What does the kinesthetic system do? a. It responds to gravity and keeps you informed of your body’s location in space. b. It monitors the internal temperature of the body. c. It monitors the positions of the various parts of the body. d. It responds to painful stimuli. 2. What is the retinal area that, when stimulated, affects the firing of a visual cell? a. fovea b. focal point c. receptive field d. visual field 3. If an animal species is normally active at night, which receptors should be most common in its visual system? a. ganglion cells b. bipolar cells c. rods d. cones 4. While visiting the art museum, Laura stared at a black-and-white photograph in a blue frame for over a minute. When she looked away from the photograph she saw an afterimage of a rectangle. Consistent with the opponent process theory, what colour was the rectangle? a. yellow b. green c. blue d. red 5. Which unifying theme in psychology is most consistent with the existence of ambiguous figures and visual illusions? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 6. Which individual would be most susceptible to the Müller-Lyer illusion, based on evidence about the role of experience on perception? a. a person raised in a collectivist culture b. a person raised in an urban environment c. a person raised in an individualist culture d. a person raised in a rural environment 7. What differs between a red light and a green light? a. purity b. complexity c. wavelength d. amplitude 8. When Jessica’s furnace stopped working, she didn’t notice that the temperature had dropped until it was two degrees colder than the usual programmed temperature. What is the psychophysics term for the two-degree difference between the usual temperature and the temperature at which Jessica noticed that it was colder? a. a just noticeable difference b. a sensation threshold c. an absolute difference d. a Weber fraction

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 9. What is the optic disc? a. It is the layer of muscle that operates the lens and degenerates with age. b. It is the hole in the retina where the optic nerves exit the eye, causing a blind spot. c. It is the area on the retina where cones are most densely represented, causing a focal point. d. It is the low-acuity outer area of the retina that contains a high density of rods. 10. What is the current perspective on the utility of the two theories of pitch perception? a. Frequency theory is more accurate. b. Place theory is more accurate. c. Both frequency and place theory are sufficient. d. Both frequency and place theory are necessary. 11. When you look at a pile of loose change, you’re very likely to see it as comprising nickels, dimes, quarters, loonies, and toonies. Which perceptual tendency is consistent with this example? a. similarity b. continuity c. closure d. proximity 12. When we view cars parked in a distant parking lot, we know that the cars are not actually the size of toy cars. What is illustrated by this example? a. visual disparity b. perceptual constancy c. perceptual illusion d. visual theory 13. If a thirsty person is sitting across the table from a bottle of water, how would his estimate of the distance of the bottle of water differ from a person who is not thirsty? a. It would not likely differ. b. It would likely be more accurate. c. He would likely estimate it to be farther away. d. He would likely estimate it to be closer. 14. Which of the following does NOT provide evidence that the nose and the mouth work together to produce the flavour your experience? a. nasal olfaction b. retronasal olfaction c. chefs and culinary experts who assert that flavours are mostly determined by smell d. the difficulty tasting when you cannot smell 15. Which type of cue is used by artists to create a perception of depth on a two-dimensional surface? a. accommodation cue b. binocular cue c. disparity cue d. monocular cue 16. Which aspect of vision is associated with cones? a. dark adaptation b. night vision c. peripheral vision d. colour vision

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 17. At the absolute threshold, what proportion of the time is a target stimulus detected? a. 1 percent of the time b. 25 percent of the time c. 50 percent of the time d. 100 percent of the time 18. If, in a painting, a figure of a person is drawn larger than a house, the house will seem to be far away. Which depth cue does this illustrate? a. texture gradient b. interposition c. linear perspective d. relative size 19. If lights representing all wavelengths of the visible spectrum are combined, what colour would a person perceive? a. red, blue, or yellow b. red, blue, or green c. white d. black 20. What method is a child using if he mixes yellow and blue finger-paints together to produce green? a. primary colour mixing b. complementary colour mixing c. subtractive colour mixing d. additive colour mixing 21. According to gate-control theory, where may incoming pain sensations be blocked? a. location of the injury b. spinal cord c. thalamus d. cortex 22. According to signal-detection theory, what is the term for waking up to your alarm in the morning? a. hit b. false alarm c. miss d. correct rejection 23. Which of the following is consistent with the trichromatic theory of colour vision? a. complementary colour afterimages b. additive colour mixing c. the visual receptors consist of rods and cones d. subtractive colour mixing 24. Which Gestalt principle best explains our perception of reversible figures such as the two silhouetted faces/vase figure? a. visual illusion b. figure-ground c. phi phenomenon d. perceptual constancies 25. Where would you find the receptors for the sense of taste? a. chemosensory cells b. taste buds c. hair cells d. taste cilia 26. Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary tastes? a. sour b. spicy c. salty d. sweet

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 27. At the level of the retina and brain, which colour vision theory is supported? a. opponent process theory at the retina, but trichromatic theory in the brain b. trichromatic theory c. trichromatic theory at the retina, but opponent process theory in the brain d. opponent process theory 28. Which structure of the eye changes size to help regulate the amount of light entering the inner areas of the eye? a. retina b. pupil c. lens d. cornea 29. A perceptual set involves a person’s readiness to perceive a stimulus in a particular way. Which of the following is NOT a factor that might influence how a person interprets sensory input? a. information given to the person about the stimulus b. previous experiences c. the fact that people’s experience of the world is objective d. the person’s expectations 30. According to signal-detection theory, what is the term for thinking that you heard your phone ring when it did not? a. false alarm b. correct rejection c. hit d. miss 31. If your roommate slowly and carefully turns up the volume on the stereo until you can determine “now it’s louder than it was before,” which of the following represents how much the volume increased? a. a just noticeable difference b. a proportional difference c. a perceivable difference d. a fractional difference 32. “Can we be influenced by things that we are not consciously aware of?” Which topic addresses this question? a. subliminal perception b. sensory adaptation c. psychophysics d. signal-detection theory 33. In order to determine thresholds for detection of a spice, researchers diluted various amounts of the spice in 10 litres of water and determined whether those concentrations could be detected by people with normal taste perception. Participants were always able to detect 5 grams of the spice, and never able to detect 1 gram of the spice. About half of the time, participants could detect 2 grams of the spice, and nearly always detected 3 grams. In this example, what is the absolute threshold for detection of this spice? a. 1 gram b. 2 grams c. 3 grams d. 5 grams 34. According to signal-detection theory, what is the term for sleeping through your alarm in the morning? a. correct rejection b. false alarm c. miss d. hit 35. Where are the olfactory cilia? a. in the nose b. in the stomach c. in the mouth d. in the brain Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 36. Which artist often used reversible figures to enhance the ambiguity of his surreal dreams and visions? a. M. C. Escher b. Pablo Picasso c. Georges Seurat d. Salvador Dali 37. If you walk from a bright room to a dark room, which of the following would occur after five minutes in the dark? a. Your peripheral vision would be enhanced. b. Your absolute thresholds for object detection would be increasing. c. Your dark adaptation would be essentially complete. d. Your cones would have adapted to a greater degree than did your rods. 38. Which pair of terms related to the perceived qualities of light and sound result from similar physical properties of light and sound? a. colour and timbre b. saturation and pitch c. frequency and wavelength d. brightness and loudness 39. If Bill has grapheme-colour synesthesia, what does Bill experience? a. colour blindness b. letters or digits having specific colours c. blurring of colours d. hearing of sounds as colours 40. Which structure contains the basilar membrane? a. pinna b. cochlea c. ossicle d. eardrum 41. The observation that people with different learning histories differ regarding taste preferences and visual illusions best reflects which of the following unifying themes of your textbook? a. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. 42. There is a difference in the visual image of an object projected to each eye. Which depth cue uses this information? a. accommodation b. interposition c. retinal disparity d. linear disparity 43. Which list represents the main pathway that visual signals travel from the eye to the visual cortex? a. optic nerve, thalamus, optic chiasm, occipital lobe b. optic nerve, thalamus, optic chiasm, temporal lobe c. optic nerve, optic chiasm, thalamus, occipital lobe d. optic nerve, optic chiasm, thalamus, temporal lobe 44. If you incorrectly perceive that two identical lines are of different lengths, what are you experiencing? a. Ponzo illusion b. Necker effect c. Müller-Lyer illusion d. McCullough effect Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 45. You go to the local science centre and, after losing track of your twin sons, you eventually find them in a bizarre room. It looks normal except your son standing in the right corner appears much larger than his brother who is standing in the left corner. What kind of room are they likely in? a. Ames Room b. Ponzo Room c. Lyer Room d. Puzzle Room 46. If a person views two red lights, but one is more obviously red than the other, what differs between the two lights? a. purity of the light b. wavelength c. brightness of the light d. wave amplitude 47. What would you be most likely to do if you were using the door-in-the-face technique to persuade your parents to give you a two-week tour of Europe next summer? a. Promise to work hard in your courses next semester. b. Start by hinting about the trip several weeks before asking. c. First ask for an all-expense-paid six-week tour. d. Threaten to drop out of school if they won’t pay for the trip. 48. Nicole is a vision scientist who conducts studies where people are presented with lines of different orientations. She documents how different those orientations need to be for people to perceive a difference. What do we call this type of research? a. sensation b. signal-detection c. psychophysics d. physiological psychology 49. Which of the following have a short life and are constantly being replaced? a. auditory hair cells and cilia b. rods and cones c. olfactory cilia and taste cells d. pheromones and taste buds 50. What is the basic assumption of Gestalt psychology? a. Our perception of form has a preference for stationary objects over moving objects. b. Our perception has a preference for complex forms over simple forms. c. Our perception of a “whole” may have qualities that do not exist in any of the parts. d. There is a one-to-one correspondence between sensory input and perception. 51. One cell in the visual cortex responds only to vertical lines presented in a specific portion of the visual field. Another cell responds only to vertical lines that are moving across the visual field. Which term applies to both cells? a. complex cell b. simple cell c. threshold detector d. feature detector 52. The trichromatic theory of colour vision was first articulated by Thomas Young. It was later modified by which of the following theorists? a. Max Wertheimer b. Hermann von Helmholtz c. Linda Bartoshuk d. Donald Hebb

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 53. If someone has a problem with colour vision due to defective receptors, which receptor could be the problem? a. rods b. hair cells c. cilia d. cones 54. Which species would you expect to have the largest number of cones on the retina? a. a nocturnal species b. an Antarctic species c. a species that hunts small prey in the daytime d. a species that must detect predators from all directions 55. If a radio play-by-play announcer describing each pitch during a baseball game fails to notice a naked fan running across the infield, what would the announcer be demonstrating? a. inattentional blindness b. feature analysis c. perceptual set d. attentional disturbance 56. When your psychology professor is lecturing to your class, your professor can tell which students are sitting in the first, second, third, etc., row, in part because students in the closer rows obstruct his or her view of students in more distant rows. Which depth cue does this illustrate? a. texture gradient b. relative size c. interposition d. linear perspective 57. Which sense uses a variety of physical stimuli including mechanical, thermal, and chemical energy? a. touch b. smell c. hearing d. taste 58. What is one positive aspect of the sensation of pain? a. It is a warning sign. b. It is frustrating. c. It is chronic. d. It can be surgically corrected. 59. Which of the following describes light as the stimulus for vision? a. a form of electromagnetic energy b. a form of mechanical energy c. the result of vibrations of molecules d. a form of chemical energy 60. Which process is consistent with top-down processing? a. reading messy handwriting b. distinguishing between colours c. detecting edges in a visual stimulus d. dark adaptation 61. Which of the following allows us to experience perceptual constancies? a. bottom-up processing b. perceptual hypotheses c. binocular depth cues d. linear perspective 62. Which depth perception cue is based on the observation that parallel lines converge in the distance? a. linear perspective b. height in plane c. interposition d. retinal disparity

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 63. If a piano player softly taps a key and then hits the same key with a lot of force, the second note will sound louder. What will differ between the sound waves of the two sounds? a. timbre b. frequency c. amplitude d. wavelength 64. Given our present knowledge concerning colour vision, what theory provides the most accurate explanation of how we perceive colour? a. Both the trichromatic and opponent process theories are required to explain it. b. The opponent process theory is more accurate. c. The trichromatic theory is more accurate. d. Neither trichromatic nor opponent process theory is sufficient, so a new theory is required. 65. After visual information is processed in the primary visual cortex, it is often routed to other cortical areas for additional processing. Where does information travel if it is used for facial recognition? a. to the occipital lobe b. to the parietal lobe c. to the temporal lobe d. to the frontal lobe 66. Imagine you are sitting at the dinner table and looking at the round plate in front of the person sitting across from you. What shape would the proximal stimulus of the plate be? a. oval b. the same as the distal stimulus c. the proximal stimulus has no form d. round 67. When compared to average individuals, which statement best describes supertasters? a. They tend to eat more vegetables. b. They tend to have a high risk of cardiovascular disease, due to overeating. c. They are less likely to enjoy sweets. d. They are more likely to smoke. 68. Mary is an air traffic controller. She is required to constantly detect stimuli on her screen and decide whether each is an aberration or represents an actual aircraft in the specified air space. What is the name for the process Mary is engaging in? a. sensation b. signal-detection c. psychophysics d. physiological psychology 69. You can detect the difference between a musical note played on a trumpet and the same note played on a trombone. What differs between notes played on the two instruments? a. amplitude b. key c. timbre d. pitch 70. If your entire retina was like the fovea, which aspect of vision would you be best able to accomplish? a. motion detection b. peripheral vision c. visual acuity d. night vision

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 71. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the retina? a. It is located in the middle of the eye. b. It is part of the central nervous system. c. It is neural tissue lining inside the back surface of the eye. d. It is located at the back of the eye. 72. What is the main function of the middle ear? a. to collect sounds b. to minimize sounds c. to convert sounds into neural impulses d. to amplify vibrations 73. Which of the following explains the moon illusion? a. motion parallax b. size constancy c. interposition d. texture gradient 74. What determines our perception of colour? a. amplitude of light waves b. frequency of light waves c. wavelength of light waves d. purity of light waves 75. Which process is consistent with bottom-up processing? a. recognizing subjective contours b. dark adaptation c. detecting edges in a visual stimulus d. reading messy handwriting 76. Which modern artist frequently used impossible figures as the basis of his work? a. Pablo Picasso b. René Magritte c. Salvador Dali d. M. C. Escher 77. According to place theory, which statement best describes receptor cells? a. Cells at different locations on the basilar membrane respond to sounds of different loudness. b. Cells at different locations on the basilar membrane respond to sounds of different frequencies. c. Cells along the entire basilar membrane vary their rate of responding to correspond to the loudness of a sound. d. Cells along the entire basilar membrane vary their rate of responding to correspond to the frequency of a sound. 78. What is being combined when you are using additive colour mixing? a. lights of different colours b. pigments of different colours c. two or more colours d. the three primary colours 79. You are able to see and recognize objects, but unable to react to them appropriately (e.g., you can’t understand how to orient your hand appropriately to grasp a pencil). Which statement best describes your situation? a. You have appropriate vision for action but have damage to your “what” pathway. b. You have appropriate vision for action but have compromised vision for perception. c. You have appropriate vision for perception, but your visual cortex is damaged. d. You have appropriate vision for perception, but compromised vision for action.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 80. Which statement best summarizes researchers’ views concerning subliminal perception? a. Subliminal perception does not influence behaviour, but it appears likely to have practical importance. b. While subliminal perception may influence behaviour, it appears unlikely to have much practical importance. c. Subliminal perception has no demonstrated effect on behaviour. d. Subliminal perception may influence behaviour, and it appears likely to have practical importance. 81. Before the Renaissance, artists were generally unsuccessful in painting realistic scenes. What did they NOT seem to understand? a. how to use depth cues b. subjective colour mixing c. how to use binocular depth perception cues d. geometric forms 82. Evolutionary theory suggests that some differences observed between men and women have significance for survival of the species. For instance, there are differences in taste sensitivity. Which statement best describes this gender gap? a. Women are somewhat more likely to be supertasters than men b. Women are somewhat more likely to prefer the taste of tobacco and alcohol than men c. Men are somewhat more likely to be supertasters than women d. Women are somewhat more likely to fond of sweets than men 83. Which structure of the eye absorbs light, processes images, and sends visual information to the brain? a. retina b. rods c. lens d. fovea 84. What are the physical stimuli for the sense of taste? a. the vibrations of molecules b. organic substances that are insoluble in water c. tactile stimulation of taste buds d. chemical substances that are soluble in water 85. When looking at a drawing, Mary sees either two faces looking at one another or a vase, depending on how she looks at the drawing. Which Gestalt principle does the reversible figure Mary is viewing most likely represent? a. figure and ground b. proximity c. duplicity d. simplicity 86. If you have undergone sensory adaptation for the sounds around you as you study in the library, what will you be most likely to do? a. be unable to concentrate b. block out all sounds and ignore any changes c. become increasingly irritated by the sounds if they do not change d. notice when the quality of those sounds changes

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 87. What is the range of humans’ frequency detection? a. 10–120 dB b. 120–2000 dB c. 1–20 Hz d. 20–20,000 Hz 88. Multiple rods and cones within an area of the retina will send information to a single visual cell. What do we call that area? a. fovea b. optic disc c. light adaptation region d. receptive field 89. Which perceptual preference is strongly influenced by social processes? a. smell b. touch c. taste d. vision 90. Which theory of hearing states that the perception of pitch depends on the rate at which the entire basilar membrane vibrates? a. place theory b. frequency theory c. gate theory d. opponent process theory 91. The house across the street is decorated with many lights for a party. The lights along the roof turn on and off, one at a time, so that it looks as if a light is moving across the edge of the roof. What is the Gestalt term for this illusion? a. continuity b. the phi phenomenon c. Pragnanz d. figure-ground reversal 92. Max sees the colour red when he hears the word “train.” What condition does Max have? a. dysgraphia b. auditory mixing c. automania d. synesthesia 93. Which sensory system relies on the functioning of the semi-circular canals in the inner ear? a. kinesthetic system b. olfactory system c. vestibular system d. auditory system 94. Because of the pathway that visual information travels from the eye to the visual cortex, where are images seen in the left visual field received? a. half of the right visual cortex and half of the left visual cortex b. only the left visual cortex c. both the left and right visual cortex d. only the right visual cortex 95. Where is the point of origin for the descending neural pathway that mediates the suppression of pain? a. midbrain b. hypothalamus c. hindbrain d. thalamus 96. Which of the following depth cues could be used by an artist to depict depth in a painting? a. convergence b. retinal disparity c. motion parallax d. interposition Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 97. What do we call the stimulation of sense organs? a. sensation b. detection c. activation d. perception 98. John and Linda went to a play and failed to notice that the central actor in the scene was replaced midway through the play. What did they probably experience? a. change blindness b. delusions c. inattentional blindness d. amnesia 99. If you did not have saccades, what would you lose the ability to see? a. poorly illuminated scenes b. objects that don’t change c. moving things d. colours 100. Which structure of the eye focuses light rays onto the retina? a. pupil b. optic disk c. cornea d. lens 101. When looking at a drawing, Delores sees either a rabbit or a duck, depending on how she is looking at the drawing. What is Delores most likely viewing? a. a reversible figure b. a perceptual set c. dichotomous input d. a distal stimulus 102. If Mark uses the door-in-the-face technique to try to convince his frugal wife Maria to buy a $25 000 sports car, what will he first propose? a. That they purchase a $44 000 sports car. b. That they purchase a $25 000 sedan. c. That they pay off all their debt first. d. That they take it for a test drive. 103. What is the most general of the Gestalt principles describing how individual elements are grouped into higherorder figures? a. continuity b. simplicity c. similarity d. proximity 104. What is illustrated by our perception of reversible figures? a. The same visual input can result in different perceptions. b. There is a one-to-one correspondence between sensory input and perception. c. Individuals may fail to see fully visible objects. d. Expectations do not influence perceptions. 105. What is perception? a. subjectivity of emotional experience b. selection, organization, and interpretation of sensory input c. the study of how physical stimuli are translated into psychological experience d. stimulation of the sense organs

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 106. Which statement best describes how visual information is transmitted to the brain? a. Signals from the fovea of each eye go to the left hemisphere and signals from the remaining areas of the retina go to the right hemisphere. b. Signals from both eyes go to both hemispheres of the brain. c. Signals from each eye go to only the corresponding (same) hemisphere of the brain. d. Signals from each eye go to only the opposite hemisphere of the brain. 107. Who first demonstrated the principle of an absolute threshold? a. Ernst Weber b. David Hubel c. Gustav Fechner d. Max Wertheimer 108. Which cells in the ear are analogous to the rods and cones of the eye? a. hair cells b. auditory nerves c. ossicles d. hammers 109. Jacqueline has gone to get her eyes checked because she has been having trouble focusing. Her optometrist tells her that it is due to the normal aging of her lens. Which process is likely impaired? a. refraction b. constriction c. accommodation d. dilation 110. What is the correct order that neural signals travel from the eye to the brain? a. receptor, ganglion cell, optic nerve b. optic nerve, ganglion cell, receptor c. receptor, optic nerve, ganglion cell d. ganglion cell, receptor, optic nerve 111. If a pain message is being transmitted to the brain through the fast pathway, what kind of pain will be experienced? a. external pain b. a long-lasting aching pain c. a sharp pain d. internal pain 112. If you saw the stimulus “0” in the context of “B0SS” you are likely to see it as a letter, but in the context of “5038” you are likely to see it as a number. What differs between the two contexts that leads to your different understanding of the same stimulus? a. features of the stimulus b. bottom-up processing c. perceptual hypotheses d. figure and ground 113. If you play two different notes on the same instrument, what will be the primary difference between the two sounds? a. pitch b. timbre c. purity d. amplitude 114. Which list represents the correct order that auditory information travels as sounds enter the ear from the auditory canal? a. cochlea, oval window, ossicles, eardrum b. cochlea, ossicles, oval window, eardrum c. eardrum, oval window, ossicles, cochlea d. eardrum, ossicles, oval window, cochlea

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 115. If a person views three lights that differ only in amplitude, what would the person perceive about the lights? a. They are different shades of the same colour. b. They differ in colour. c. They differ in brightness. d. They differ in saturation. 116. When your psychology professor is lecturing to your class, your professor can tell which students are sitting in the first, second, third, etc., row, in part because students in the closer rows appear to have more distinct or clearer facial features than students in more distant rows. Which depth cue is your professor using? a. linear perspective b. texture gradient c. interposition d. relative size 117. If two sounds vary in frequency, what will be the nature of the perceptual difference? a. loudness b. timbre c. decibels d. pitch 118. Which aspect of vision is associated with rods? a. daytime vision b. peripheral vision c. high visual acuity d. colour vision 119. What is the only sensory system that does NOT send information to the thalamus before it is sent to the cortex? a. hearing b. vision c. taste d. smell 120. If the just noticeable difference (JND) for detecting a change in the weight of your shopping bag is 50 grams, what would the JND be if your shopping bag were twice as heavy? a. 25 grams b. 50 grams c. 75 grams d. 100 grams 121. What has been demonstrated by studies that examine the ability of individuals from various cultures to take advantage of pictorial depth cues present in two-dimensional drawings? a. It is a skill shown only by adults. b. It is a skill that develops in all cultures. c. It is an acquired skill that depends on experience. d. It is a skill that emerges automatically in early infancy. 122. What is the term for the gradual decline in sensitivity to stimuli that follows prolonged stimulation? a. sensory overload b. perceptual adaptation c. perceptual overload d. sensory adaptation 123. You are in class one day and someone turns out the lights. You can see nothing right away, but after a few moments you are able to perceive some shapes and forms due to small amount of light which is entering the room through a crack under the door. What sensory process are you experiencing? a. stimulus detection b. perceptual adjustment c. synesthesia d. sensory adaption Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 124. What is the minimum stimulus intensity that an organism can detect? a. the detection threshold b. the just noticeable threshold c. the signal-detection threshold d. the absolute threshold 125. When you first put on a pair of tight-fitting pants in the morning, you may be aware of pressure on your waist; however, after a few minutes, the pants will not feel as tight. What does this example illustrate? a. sensory adaptation b. synesthesia c. subliminal perception d. just-noticeable difference 126. While visiting the art museum, Laura stared at a black-and-white photograph in a red frame for over a minute. When she looked away from the photograph she saw an afterimage of a rectangle. Consistent with the opponent process theory, what colour was the rectangle? a. blue b. red c. green d. yellow 127. Immediately after you get this exam back from your psychology professor, you want to know what the highest, lowest, and average grades were on the exam so that you can determine whether your grade was “OK.” Which term best describes the information you’re asking for? a. comparitors b. relativity c. contrast effects d. correlations 128. If you stare at a colourful image and then stare at a white surface, you will experience an afterimage. Which theory of colour vision is supported by this phenomenon? a. subtractive colour theory b. additive colour theory c. trichromatic theory d. opponent process theory 129. Which theory maintains that the human eye has three kinds of receptors with differing sensitivities to different light wavelengths? a. the opponent process theory of colour vision b. the trichromatic theory of colour vision c. the place theory of colour vision d. additive colour mixing theory 130. Which sense is associated with the gate-control theory? a. smell b. taste c. vision d. pain 131. Which unifying theme in psychology is best illustrated by a summary of the development of psychologists’ understanding of colour vision and pitch perception? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 132. The detection of stimuli involves decision processes and sensory processes, which are both influenced by a variety of factors besides stimulus intensity. Which of the following reflects this fact? a. subliminal perception b. signal-detection theory c. sensory adaptation d. Weber’s law 133. Which of the visual pathways of the brain are referred to as the “where” and “what” pathways? a. the primary and secondary routes b. the temporal and parietal pathways c. the dorsal and ventral streams d. the occipital and chiasmic pathways 134. Jamie can identify objects, but she doesn’t seem to be able to reach out and grab them appropriately. If Jamie has brain damage associated with vision for action, where would you expect that damage to be located? a. the primary visual cortex b. the temporal lobe c. the dorsal stream d. the ventral stream 135. What do we call the perceptual tendency to group objects together that are near each other? a. similarity b. common fate c. continuity d. proximity 136. Which of the following is an example of a reversible figure? a. the Necker cube b. the Ames room c. the Ponzo illusion d. The moon illusion 137. What is the transparent structure on the surface of the eye where light first enters the eye? a. lens b. cornea c. retina d. pupil 138. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of the sense of touch? a. feeling pressure b. feeling pain c. somatosensory cortex d. motor cortex 139. Tia has sustained brain damage, and as a result she is no longer able to recognize objects. She is, however, still able to see and react to those objects. For example, although she can’t name a coffee cup, when she wants coffee she will pick up the cup and fill it. Based on your knowledge of the brain regions involved in vision for perception, compared to vision for action, what area do you expect to be damaged in Tia’s brain? a. optic chiasm b. ventral stream c. primary visual cortex d. dorsal stream

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 Answer Key 1. c 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. b

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. a 36. d 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. c 49. c 50. c 51. d 52. b 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 55. a 56. c 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. b 62. a 63. c 64. a 65. c 66. a 67. c 68. c 69. c 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. b 74. c 75. c 76. d 77. b 78. a 79. d 80. b 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 83. a 84. d 85. a 86. d 87. d 88. d 89. c 90. b 91. b 92. d 93. c 94. d 95. a 96. d 97. a 98. a 99. b 100. d 101. a 102. a 103. b 104. a 105. b 106. b 107. c 108. a 109. c 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 111. c 112. c 113. a 114. d 115. c 116. b 117. d 118. b 119. d 120. d 121. c 122. d 123. d 124. d 125. a 126. c 127. a 128. d 129. b 130. d 131. c 132. b 133. c 134. c 135. d 136. a 137. a

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 2 138. d 139. b

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Approximately what percentage of Canadian adults ages 20 to 79 have some form of hearing loss? a. 10% b. 30% c. 40% d. 60% 2. Which of the following is MOST closely linked to olfaction? a. hormones b. pheromones c. cones d. place theory 3. Whenever Robyn looks at her boyfriend, her pupils dilate. What is the name of the eye structure involved in this response? a. retina b. fovea c. iris d. optic disk 4. Monica had a tumour removed from her thalamus. Her doctor told her the surgery may result in problems with any of her senses EXCEPT which one? a. touch b. smell c. sight d. hearing 5. Simone distinguishes her friend Tara’s voice from her friend Ashley’s voice using which characteristic of a sound wave? a. frequency b. amplitude c. timbre d. decibel 6. Which of the following regulates the amount of light entering the eye? a. iris b. retina c. optic nerve d. feature detectors 7. Which of the following represents the minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensations at all in a person? a. absolute threshold b. difference threshold c. minimum threshold d. noticeable threshold 8. Where are most of the cones located? a. in the fovea c. in the peripheral areas of the retina

b. in the optic disk d. in the iris

9. Which theory of hearing suggests that all hair cells vibrate together in response to an incoming sound? a. frequency theory b. the place theory c. the opponent-process theory d. Weber’s law

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 10. Which statement BEST characterizes Weber’s law? a. For each sense, the size of a just noticeable difference varies depending on its relation to the strength of the initial stimulus. b. For the sense of smell only, the size of a just noticeable difference varies depending on its relation to the strength of the initial stimulus. c. For each sense, the size of a just noticeable difference varies from person to person. d. For each sense, the size of a just noticeable difference is a constant proportion of the size of each subsequent stimulus. 11. According to recent research, approximately what percentage of Canadians have a pain-related disability? a. 2% b. 8% c. 15% d. 21% 12. What is the term for the minimum stimulation needed to detect a particular sensory stimulus (e.g., light, sound, pressure, taste) 50% of the time? a. the absolute threshold b. synesthesia c. psychophysics d. sensory adaptation 13. A typical person has three types of cones. Each type is sensitive to wavelengths corresponding to red, blue, or which other colour? a. green b. yellow c. purple d. white 14. Which frequency of sound are humans MOST sensitive to? a. 100 Hz b. 500 Hz c. 2000 Hz d. 3000 Hz 15. Priha took a bite of a vegetable and immediately spit it out. What flavour did Priha MOST likely taste? a. salty b. sweet c. umami d. bitter 16. Which of the following is an example of an absolute threshold? a. feeling nauseated b. standing at the top of a building and fearing you may fall off c. riding a bicycle and running over a nail d. walking into a three-room apartment and smelling a single drop of perfume 17. Which of the following is the process of detecting physical energy in the environment and encoding that energy as neural signals? a. sensation b. perception c. the absolute threshold d. sensory adaptation 18. Matthew is drinking a glass of lemonade at a dinner party. Given his sensitivity to artificial sweeteners, he is immediately able to detect one in the drink. This is an example of which type of absolute threshold? a. smell b. taste c. vision d. touch Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 19. What happens to the hair cells when the fluid in the cochlea moves? a. They are at risk for visual impairment. b. They vibrate in response to the motion. c. They are one of the few types of neurons that regenerate. d. They are prone to interferences from outside and within. 20. Which of the following produce a stinging sensation when stimulated? a. hair follicle receptors b. motor neurons c. A-delta fibres d. C fibres 21. Light energy will pass through the eye in which sequence? a. cornea, pupil, iris, retina, lens b. retina, lens, pupil, iris, cornea c. cornea, iris, pupil, lens, retina d. cornea, lens, pupil, iris, retina 22. Which theory states that humans hear different pitches because different sound waves trigger activity at different places along the cochlea’s basilar membrane? a. the frequency theory b. the trichromatic theory c. the opponent-process theory d. the place theory 23. Patient HD cannot identify objects by looking at them but has no impairment in his ability to use vision to guide his movements. Which part of HD’s brain appears to have sustained damage? a. the dorsal stream b. the ventral stream c. the frontal lobe d. the parietal lobe 24. Tim’s bag of marbles is twice as heavy as Andrea’s. If it takes 5 extra marbles to make Andrea’s bag feel heavier, it will take 10 extra marbles to make Tim’s bag feel heavier. Which of the following does this example best illustrate? a. opponent-process theory b. Weber’s law c. accommodation d. sensory adaptation 25. Loudness is to amplitude as pitch is to which of the following? a. brightness b. decibels c. hue d. frequency 26. Sound wave vibrations are transmitted by three tiny bones located in which of the following? a. vestibular sacs b. inner ear c. cochlea d. middle ear 27. Where are the auditory receptors located? a. cochlea b. pinna c. auditory canal d. oval window 28. What determines the loudness of a sound wave? a. its frequency b. its amplitude c. its timbre d. its ganglion cells Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 29. Which of the following frequencies has the lowest absolute threshold? a. 50 Hz b. 2000 Hz c. 10 000 Hz d. 20 000 Hz 30. Which of the following involves the detection and encoding of stimulus energies by the nervous system? a. adaptation b. sensation c. interpretation d. organization 31. Which part of the brain is MOST important to the sense of smell? a. the taste buds b. the glomuleri c. the olfactory bulb d. the pituitary gland 32. Which of the following colours of light has the SHORTEST wavelength? a. infrared b. blue c. yellow d. ultraviolet 33. The opponent-process theory is MOST useful for explaining the characteristics of which of the following? a. phantom limb sensations b. Weber’s law c. accommodation d. afterimages 34. Gina has an insensitivity to phenythiocarbamide (PTC), what does this mean for Gina? a. She is a supertaster. b. She is a nontaster. c. She is colour blind. d. She has hypersensitive colour vision. 35. The semicircular canals provide information central to which of the following senses? a. smell b. vestibular c. kinesthetic d. hearing 36. Which of the following is the complex combination of frequencies comprising the quality of the human voice that makes it unique? a. amplitude b. pitch c. timbre d. hertz 37. Which statement BEST describes the timbre of a sound? a. It may allow the detection of infrared waves. b. It is its unique combination of frequencies. c. It provides a sense of balance and equilibrium. d. It is determined by the uniformity of wavelength. 38. After a small section of his basilar membrane was damaged, James experienced a noticeable loss of hearing for high-pitched sounds only. Which theory best explains James’s hearing loss? a. place theory b. opponent process theory c. trichromatic theory d. frequency theory

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 39. You wake up early in the morning, and your room is fairly dark. You can see a shirt hanging on a hook. You know it is a red shirt because you hung it up there before bed, but in the dark it looks dark grey. Why is that? a. In the dim light, the cones in your eyes are ineffectual. b. In the dim light, the rods in your eyes are ineffectual. c. Your optic disk does not function well in darkness. d. Your pupils do not dilate in the darkness. 40. Sensory adaptation can be defined as which of the following? a. the relationship between the intensity of a physical stimulus, such as noise, and the psychological effect of the stimulus b. the decline in sensitivity to constant stimulus c. the perception of stimuli below conscious awareness d. the unconscious activation of associations that are linked with memories 41. The kinesthetic sense relates to which of the following areas? a. sight b. the body c. pain d. hearing 42. The cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibular sacs make up which of the following? a. inner ear b. outer ear c. middle ear d. pinna 43. Which theory BEST explains patterns of colour blindness? a. the opponent-process theory b. the trichromatic theory c. the place theory d. the volley principle 44. Which of the following defines sensation? a. the distance from one wave peak to another b. the detection of a physical stimulus c. the interpretation of sensation d. the process by which physical energy is neurally coded 45. Professor Cicero is preparing for his psychology class tomorrow, where his instructor will be discussing the two chemical senses. What will Professor Cicero’s class be learning about? a. hearing and olfaction b. hearing and vision c. olfaction and taste d. taste and hearing 46. Olfaction and taste are commonly referred to as which of the following? a. foveas b. nociceptors c. opponent processes d. chemical senses 47. Where is the olfactory bulb located? a. In the brain b. In the ear c. In the ear d. In the nose

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 48. Dr. Isaacs conducts research on thresholds and Weber’s law. What is Dr. Isaac’s area of specialization? a. neuroscience b. mental illness c. psychophysics d. cognition 49. Jill trips and rolls down a hill. When she stands up, the dizziness and disorientation she feels are a function of which parts of her ear? a. basilar membrane and ganglion cells b. Pacinian corpuscles and pinna c. semicircular canals and vestibular sacs d. proprioceptors and cochlea 50. Taste and smell combine in the experience of which of the following? a. flavour b. gustation c. olfaction d. nociception 51. What is the term for the transparent structure behind the pupil that changes shape to help focus images on the retina? a. cornea b. pupil c. lens d. iris 52. Sam is hit by a softball while attending a friend’s game. When she gets to the emergency room, she is told that she has injured her cornea. Given what Sam knows about the visual system, she knows that this is which part of her eye? a. the white portion of her eye b. the black opening in her eye’s centre c. the light-sensitive membrane that contains the sensory receptors d. the clear membrane that covers the front of her eye 53. Jason is trying to explain to his friend the reason why people often don’t notice a blind spot in the visual field. What does he tell his friend? a. Many people do not actually have a blind spot. b. The blind spot still contains visual information, it’s just less vivid. c. Each eye compensates for the blind spot in the other. d. Usually people are too concerned with other things to notice. 54. Which of the following are necessary for vision in low light? a. rods b. cones c. ganglion cells d. hair cells 55. Roger is a dichromat. Which of the following describes Roger? a. He is colour-blind. b. He has hearing loss. c. He has poor balance. d. He cannot distinguish between flavours. 56. Jenna’s whole body is aching. Which of the following is conveying the pain signals to her brain? a. C fibres b. hair cells c. opponent cells d. A-delta fibres

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 57. Which auditory structure is MOST similar in function to a cone or rod in the retina? a. cochlea b. pinna c. hair cells d. ossicles 58. What percentage of Canadians ages 20 to 79 experience some form of hearing loss? a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% 59. Dr. DiLollo studies theories that explain how the brain processes pitch. When he studies place theory he is interested in whether pitch can be perceived based on where on the _______ hair cells vibrate. a. pinna b. oval window c. stirrup d. basilar membrane 60. Gate-control theory relates to which of the following? a. pain b. vision c. hearing d. taste 61. Place theory is most relevant to understanding how we sense which of the following? a. hue b. pitch c. taste d. body movement 62. Which of the following occurs in the process of perception? a. the stimulus of a sense organ is detected b. stimulus energies are transformed into neural activity c. sensory input is selected, organized, and interpreted d. nerve cells respond to specific features of a stimulus 63. Which of the following is the term for the ability to detect tastes? a. auditory sense b. gustatory sense c. vestibular sense d. olfactory sense 64. What is the process whereby retinal cells receive light? a. sensation b. perception c. transduction d. encoding 65. Which of the following would play a role in quickly alerting you to a gas leak in your home? a. bipolar cells b. olfactory receptors c. feature detectors d. basilar membrane 66. What is another term for the rods and cones in the eye? a. accommodating b. bipolar cells c. visual receptors d. trichromatic 67. Which of the following is the smallest change in a stimulus that can be detected 50% of the time? a. absolute threshold b. difference threshold c. response threshold d. encoding threshold Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 68. The size of the difference threshold is greater for heavier objects than for lighter ones. This best illustrates which of the following? a. sensory interaction b. the volley principle c. Weber’s law d. the opponent-process theory 69. Which tastes are adults BEST able to detect in a given food? a. bitter and sour b. sweet and bitter c. sour and sweet d. umami and sweet 70. As Renee shifts her visual focus from a tree in the distance to the screen of her laptop in front of her, what will happen to the lenses in her eyes? a. they will flatten b. they will become rounder c. they will open d. they will close 71. Which model suggests that the spinal cord ultimately determines whether a person senses pain? a. the opponent-process theory b. the volley principle c. the gate-control theory d. the trichromatic theory 72. What is the relationship between how motivated a person is to access an object and how close that object appears? a. There is no correlation b. There is a negative correlation. c. There is a positive correlation. d. there is a spurious correlation. 73. What is the term for the sense of smell? a. gustation b. olfaction c. saturation d. transduction 74. Which of the following animals would be BEST able to detect a sound of 26 Hz? a. a human b. a bat c. a porpoise d. a pigeon 75. What do steak and aged cheese have in common? a. They both contain the flavour umami. b. They are both very sour. c. They are both very salty. d. They are both low in glutamate. 76. Martina is writing an essay about gate-control theory. What is the general topic of her essay? a. smell b. taste c. pain d. sight 77. Amanda finds she cannot hear unless she sets the volume on her phone to a level of 7 or higher. What is a volume level of 7 in this example? a. the just noticeable difference b. the absolute threshold c. the perceptual set d. the receptive field

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 78. Which of the following is responsible for the blind spot in each eye? a. the lens b. the cones c. the optic disk d. the cornea 79. Why do humans have a blind spot? a. because the fovea has a very low concentration of rods b. because the iris can only open so far c. because there are no photoreceptors on the optic nerve d. because the disparity seen in binocular vision artificially creates the blind spot 80. The just noticeable difference is the minimum difference that a person can detect in which of the following circumstances? a. a dark environment b. between any two stimuli 50% of the time c. a quiet environment d. a loud environment 81. Which of the following is located inside of the cochlea? a. the auditory nerve b. the basilar membrane c. the anvil d. the pinna 82. Humans lack visual clarity in our peripheral vision because the area contains very few of which of the following? a. ganglion cells b. rods c. cones d. bipolar cells 83. Where do taste signals go after leaving the thalamus? a. frontal lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. occipital lobe 84. Russell is a supertaster, which means that he is very sensitive to which of the following types of tastes? a. sweet b. umami c. sour d. salty 85. The life span of a taste bud is about how long? a. 10 days b. 3 weeks c. 2 months d. 1 year 86. Rona is looking at a series of dots arranged on a line. Three dots on the left are close together, there is a gap, and then four dots are close together on the right. Rona sees these seven dots as a set of three and a set of four because of which Gestalt principle? a. proximity b. size constancy c. closure d. shape 87. Shaq has been told he has perfect vision. In other words, his doctor found no problems with which of the following? a. his visual acuity b. his retinal disparity c. his fovea d. his optic chiasm Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 88. Which of the following can be amplified by fear and softened by laughter? a. pain b. smell c. vision d. hearing 89. What three colours are the basis for the trichromatic theory? a. yellow, green, and purple b. black, white, and green c. red, blue, and green d. violet, infrared, and green 90. When Lee describes his eyes as blue, he is referring to the colour of which component? a. his retinas b. his pupils c. his irises d. his corneas 91. What do researchers suspect is responsible for some seeing a dress as white and gold while others see the same dress as blue and black? a. a problem with the optic nerve b. differences in photoreceptors c. variations in ganglion cell density d. differences in correcting for illumination 92. Which of the following is the clear outer layer of the eyeball? a. cornea b. iris c. pupil d. retina 93. Where are sound waves changed into neural signals? a. in the pinna of the outer ear b. in the oval chamber of the middle ear c. in the cochlea of the inner ear d. in the temporal lobe in the brain 94. Marcus is looking at a very old newspaper article. When he looks closely he notices that many of the letters have faded considerably, and he is surprised he is able to read the article so easily. Marcus is likely able to read the degraded letters easily because of which Gestalt principle? a. proximity b. closure c. size constancy d. similarity 95. What is the term for the adjustable opening in the centre of the eye through which light enters? a. cornea b. pupil c. lens d. iris 96. Gestalt theorists argue that much of what we see results from dividing perceptions into which two types? a. proximal and distal b. dark and light c. figure and ground d. binocular and monocular 97. Where are rods and cones located? a. in the optic chiasm b. in the optic nerve c. in the retina d. in the cornea

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 98. Which of the following describes the oval window? a. the membrane through which sound enters the cochlea b. a tunnel that leads to a delicate membrane in the ear c. a delicate membrane that separates the outer ear from the middle ear d. a snail-shaped structure filled with liquid 99. According to Gestalt psychologists, perceiving incomplete objects as complete reflects which of the following principles? a. closure b. proximity c. figure-ground d. size constancy 100. The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are the three tiny bones that make up which part of the ear? a. inner ear b. outer ear c. middle ear d. cochlea 101. Brightness is to amplitude as hue is to which of the following? a. purity b. pitch c. colour d. wavelength 102. A red pen is displayed in Roger’s peripheral vision while he stares straight ahead. Why can he not identify the colour of the pen? a. because there are many rods but very few cones in the periphery of the retina b. because there are many cones but very few rods in the periphery of the retina c. because there are no receptor cells for vision in the periphery of the retina d. because the stimulus was below Roger’s difference threshold 103. What are the five basic tastes? a. sweet, salty, savoury, curry, and umami c. sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and umami

b. sweet, salty, chilies, bitter, and umami d. sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and orange

104. In which part of the eye are the cones and rods embedded? a. retina b. optic nerve c. iris d. cornea 105. Where in the brain do visual signals cross over to the opposite side of the brain? a. cochlea b. optic chiasm c. fovea d. basilar membrane 106. Which of the five senses is often impacted in individuals with multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, and schizophrenia? a. smell b. vision c. touch d. hearing

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 107. Which visual receptors allow us to see colour? a. rods b. bipolar cells c. cones d. feature detectors 108. Which of the following is the principle that in order to be perceived as different two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum percentage rather than a constant amount? a. sensory interaction b. Weber’s law c. the frequency theory d. the opponent-process theory 109. Where are the pinnae located? a. on the scalp b. on the cochlea c. in the middle ear d. in the inner ear 110. What aspect of sound is determined by the frequency of a sound wave? a. pitch b. timbre c. amplitude d. audition 111. Harold has significant trouble seeing fine details due to an accident. He MOST likely incurred damage to which of the following? a. rods b. fovea c. blind spot d. lens 112. The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are three tiny bones that transmit vibrations to which of the following? a. vestibular sacs b. cochlea c. eardrum d. semicircular canals 113. What happens when a sound wave bounces against the eardrum? a. It sweeps down the auditory canal. b. It changes shape to adjust to images near and far. c. It sets off a chain reaction through the three tiny bones of the middle ear. d. It stimulates a part of the brain called the auditory bulb. 114. A teacher is told that a student who will be joining her class has difficulty seeing fine details. In other words, the student has a problem with which of the following? a. visual acuity b. their blind spot c. presbyopia d. accommodation 115. When will the lens in Geri’s eye be the flattest? a. when focusing on something in front of her nose b. when focusing on something one metre away c. when focusing on something two metres away d. when focusing on something in the distance

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 116. Which of the following are involved in producing pain sensations via the fast pathway? a. C fibres b. Schwann cells c. A-delta fibres d. glial cells 117. Which of the following is related to the sense of smell as much as it is the sense of taste? a. anosmia b. flavour c. audition d. proprioception 118. Each of the receiving neurons in the visual cortex responds to a particular type of visual stimulation, such as angles, edges, lines, and other forms. What are these neurons known as? a. feature detectors b. ganglion cells c. bipolar cells d. optic nerve cells 119. Both the fast pathway and the slow pathway are routed through the a. motor cortex b. occipital lobe c. hippocampus d. thalamus 120. Nura is studying and asks her roommate to turn down the television. Her roommate had turned the television up from a volume level of 14 to a volume of 15, which was just enough for Nura to detect. Which phenomenon does this scenario describe? a. absolute threshold b. prosopagnosia c. the just noticeable difference threshold d. sensory adaptation 121. In which area does the optic nerve leave the retina? a. blind spot b. optic chiasm c. ganglion bundle d. fovea 122. When Paul arrived at his friend’s barn he noticed the smell of the horses and cows. After spending the day helping around the barn he no longer noticed the smell. This is probably the result of which of the following? a. absolute threshold b. prosopagnosia c. signal detection d. sensory adaptation 123. Accommodation refers to which of the following? a. a diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus b. the visual experience that occurs after the original source of stimulation is no longer present c. the process by which the lens changes shape in order to focus images on the retina d. the process by which stimuli are changed into neural messages 124. What does the eardrum do? a. collects sound waves b. separates the middle ear from the inner ear c. houses the pinna and ear canal d. mimics the vibration of the sound wave

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 125. What aspect of taste likely evolved to promote the ingestion of high calorie foods? a. salty b. sweet c. bitter d. sour 126. According to Weber’s law, between which of the following would one be MORE likely to detect the difference? a. a 2000 g package and a 2100 g package b. a 2000 g package and a 2500 g package c. a 25 g envelope and a 50 g envelope d. 250 g of butter and 275 g of butter 127. In trying to explain how it is possible to discriminate between sounds with midrange pitches, which of the following might one refer to? a. frequency and place theories b. frequency and opponent-process theories c. place and trichromatic theories d. trichromatic and opponent-process theories 128. Which of the following does light contact FIRST? a. the cornea b. the lens c. retina d. the pupil 129. When stepping backwards, Trent feels a slight lump under his shoe and hears a high-pitched yowling noise. By which process did his brain determine that he stepped on a cat’s tail? a. sensory adaptation b. sensation c. perception d. transduction 130. What is the path of sound for a human being? a. Sound is first amplified, then transformed into a neural message, and finally collected. b. Sound is first collected, then amplified, and finally changed into a neural signal c. Sound is first changed into a neural signal, then collected, and then amplified. d. Sound is first collected, then changed into a neural signal, and finally amplified. 131. The ability to hear the tick of a watch at 6 m is an example of which of the following? a. absolute threshold b. sensory adaptation c. perception that is subliminal d. electromagnetic spectrum 132. What is the approximate ratio of colour-blindness in males compared to females? a. 3:1 b. 1:5 c. 8:1 d. 1:7 133. Sandra has been staring at a yellow circle for one minute. What colour of circle will she see if she looks away and at a white piece of paper? a. red b. blue c. green d. purple

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 134. Researchers propose that certain types of pain are regulated by a mesh-like network of which of the following? a. C fibres b. Schwann cells c. A-delta fibres d. glial cells 135. After Jackson has been in the hot tub for a few minutes, he no longer notices how hot the water is. This is due to which of the following? a. sensory adaptation b. the just noticeable difference (JND) c. transduction d. sensory saturation 136. Which part of the ear houses the auditory receptors? a. the oval window b. the pinna c. the basilar membrane d. the ossicle 137. In an experimental situation, Uli is able to detect a very small difference in the loudness of two tones. What are the researchers likely investigating? a. the just noticeable difference b. sensory adaptation c. the absolute threshold d. subliminal perception 138. Three red shapes are seen as a set by the perceiver. Which Gestalt law does this reflect? a. proximity b. closure c. similarity d. size constancy 139. Destiny’s basilar membranes are damaged. Which of the following is most likely affected? a. her vision b. her hearing c. her olfaction d. her balance 140. Professor Parr is preparing for his psychology class tomorrow, where his instructor will be discussing the two chemical senses. What will Professor Parr’s class be learning about? a. hearing and olfaction b. olfaction and taste c. taste and vision d. vision and hearing 141. Min believes that the size of the just noticeable difference (JND) varies depending on its relation to the strength of the original stimulus. Her views are consistent with which of the following? a. the volley principle b. Weber’s law c. the opponent-process theory d. the gate-control theory 142. Which of the following transmits electrical impulses to the brain? a. the auditory nerve b. the basilar membrane c. the eardrum d. the stirrups

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. d 16. d 17. a 18. b 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. b 25. d 26. d

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. b 31. c 32. d 33. d 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. b 45. c 46. d 47. d 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. c 52. d 53. c 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 55. a 56. a 57. c 58. b 59. d 60. a 61. b 62. c 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. c 69. b 70. b 71. c 72. c 73. b 74. d 75. a 76. c 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. b 81. b 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. c 90. c 91. d 92. a 93. c 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. c 98. a 99. a 100. c 101. d 102. a 103. c 104. a 105. b 106. a 107. c 108. b 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 111. b 112. b 113. c 114. a 115. d 116. c 117. b 118. a 119. d 120. c 121. a 122. d 123. c 124. d 125. b 126. c 127. a 128. a 129. c 130. b 131. a 132. c 133. b 134. b 135. a 136. c 137. a

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Chap 04_6ce_Vol 4 138. c 139. b 140. b 141. b 142. a

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Chap 05_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. After the show, Ben is in awe about the things that the magician made people do on stage. A man was even coaxed into taking off his clothes! Lauren is still not impressed and claims the reason why people were so disinhibited was because they ________________. a. were just playing along for the sake of the show b. knew they would experience posthypnotic amnesia, so they would not feel embarrassed c. feel like they cannot be held responsible for their actions d. were paid actors and it was their job to do so 2. To scare the students away from using drugs, Zoe uses the example of ____, a drug that leads to rapid tolerance, so the user needs larger and larger doses to get the same effect even after using the drug only a couple of times. a. alcohol b. morphine c. LSD d. MDMA 3. Ben is excited to go to the show because he is a smoker who is trying to quit, and he hopes hypnosis will be able to help him quit. Since Ben is a tobacco smoker you would assume he has ____ physical dependence and _____ psychological dependence. a. high, high b. moderate, high c. high, moderate d. moderate, moderate 4. Lauren is still not impressed after the show and invites Ben to a class of open monitoring meditation she regularly attends. In this class, Ben is instructed to _________________________. a. completely empty his mind and not think of anything at all b. close his eyes and think of a happy childhood memory c. focus his complete attention on his breathing d. act as a detached observer of his own thoughts 5. Ben is excited to go to the show because he is a smoker who is trying to quit, and he hopes hypnosis will be able to help him quit. Which of the following is true? a. Hypnosis could help Ben quit smoking, but only in the short-term. b. Hypnosis could help Ben quit smoking, but only if it is performed by a medical professional. c. Hypnosis could help Ben quit smoking, but only if he is highly susceptible. d. Hypnosis cannot help Ben quit smoking. 6. According to the sleep state misperception, what is most likely to happen when Pam goes to a sleep clinic? a. Pam will have more trouble falling asleep due to the novelty of the situation. b. Pam will not be able to sleep and will show the same symptoms she claims to have at home. c. Pam will sleep the whole night, but she will claim she did not sleep at all. d. Pam will not be able to sleep initially, but eventually will show sleep patterns.

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Chap 05_6ce_Case-Based 7. If Jim’s father Dwight experiences somnambulism, which of the following is true? a. He is likely to have deep underlying emotional issues. b. He is likely to have a brother who also has somnambulism. c. He is likely to remember in great detail his episodes the next morning. d. He is likely to experience excessive daytime sleepiness. 8. One day, Sandy finds her mind wandering while watching make-up tutorials online in her room. Which of the following is most likely? a. Sandy will not listen to her roommate when she calls to her from the kitchen. b. Sandy finds the task of applying make-up very challenging. c. Sandy will be less creative the next time she does her make-up. d. Sandy is likely thinking about doing her roommate’s make-up. 9. Zoe talks a lot about drug dependence and the effects of withdrawal to the students. A person going through cocaine withdrawal would be expected to show symptoms such as _______________. a. diarrhea and convulsions b. irritability and depression c. irritability and diarrhea d. convulsions and depression 10. Lauren is still not impressed after the show and invites Ben to a class of open monitoring meditation she regularly attends. The instructor leading the meditation class has been doing this for several years. During the meditation session you would expect the instructor has ______ oxygen consumption and _____ carbon dioxide elimination. a. increased, increased b. increased, decreased c. decreased, increased d. decreased, decreased 11. Why does Zoe’s presentation target high school and university students specifically (i.e., the 15-24 year old age group)? a. This age group uses significantly more drugs than those older than 25. b. The effects of drugs are significantly more prominent in this age group. c. People in this age group go from occasional users to regular users more quickly. d. Rehabilitation efforts are less successful in this age group. 12. As soon as Sandy finishes her shift and returns at home, she goes straight to bed, falls asleep almost immediately, and does not experience any dreams. If Sandy was in an EEG, we should detect more ___ waves. a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. theta 13. Rachel spends more time in _____ sleep than her friends. a. REM b. Stage 1 c. NREM d. Stage 2 14. Jim and Pam’s daughter Cece has just turned five and often wakes up at night, lets out a piercing scream, and then just sits on her bed staring into space. Cece likely wakes during Stage ____ of ____ sleep. a. 4, REM b. 1, REM c. 1, NREM d. 4, NREM

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Chap 05_6ce_Case-Based 15. Pam has suffered from insomnia for the last few years and it really affects her everyday life. However, Pam’s husband Jim claims that Pam is exaggerating and that she sleeps every night and often even snores! To prove he’s right (and to help his wife), Jim asks Pam to go to a sleep clinic to test her insomnia. Jim, on the other hand, is a sleeper who routinely gets at least nine hours of sleep at night. Which of the following symptoms would you expect Pam to have? a. Pam will stay up all night and wake up really late. b. Pam will wake up at 4:30 in the morning every day without the help of her alarm. c. Pam will only be able to go to sleep at night if she performs a specific routine. d. Pam will not be able to sleep at night and to compensate will often nap in the evening. 16. Rachel is a firm believer in the activation synthesis model of dreaming. How would she explain the meaning behind her friends’ dreams? a. She would connect her friends’ dreams with early childhood experiences. b. She would explain the dreams as a means to prepare for the struggles of daily life. c. She would say that dreams are just the product of random neural signals in the brain. d. She would connect the dreams with her friends’ unconscious needs and desires. 17. Zoe shocks the students by telling them ____ is the most widely used recreational drug in our society. a. marijuana b. nicotine c. alc11ohol d. caffeine 18. Zoe is a psychologist who studies addiction. Zoe is asked to create a presentation for high school and university students that will inform them about the dangers of using drugs and hopefully deter them from doing so. Zoe places particular emphasis on opioids, due to the current opioid epidemic. However, she will also make sure that she covers marijuana and alcohol in sufficient detail. Many students argue that marijuana does not have negative long term effects. Zoe should point out that studies conducted over the last decade have found that heavy, chronic marijuana use can lead to ______________. a. impotence and sterility in men b. impairments in memory, attention, and learning c. increased susceptibility to infectious diseases d. increased susceptibility to certain types of cancer 19. Which of the following is true? a. Jim has a greater mortality risk than Pam. b. Jim has a lower mortality risk than Pam. c. Jim has an equal mortality risk as Pam. d. Pam has a greater mortality risk, but only if she is also depressed. 20. Sandy’s roommate, Stella, is most likely to have read a book about consciousness based on the work of ______________. a. Sigmund Freud b. William James c. B. F. Skinner d. Carl Rogers

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Chap 05_6ce_Case-Based 21. Some of the students are shocked to learn that some abused drugs are prescribed by doctors in medical settings. Zoe gives them the example of cocaine that can also be used as a(n) ___________. a. anticonvulsant b. treatment for glaucoma c. sleeping pill d. local anesthetic 22. Zoe also talks to the students about overdose and the possibility of dying by using drugs. Which of the following has the highest potential for a fatal overdose? a. Cocaine b. Cannabis c. LSD d. Heroin 23. What health issue is Pam likely to face due to her insomnia and the extended sleep loss she experiences? a. Physical pain b. Asthma c. Ulcers d. Hypertension 24. Zoe provides an in-depth explanation about how drugs of abuse affect the brain. She explains that cocaine increases the levels of dopamine in the brain by _____________________. a. stimulating the release of more dopamine in the synapse b. increasing the production of dopamine c. blocking the reuptake of dopamine d. inhibiting enzymes that would normally destroy dopamine 25. Zoe explains the many negative effects of alcohol, including the increased likelihood of some people to engage in aggressive acts when they are intoxicated. This is a(n) __________ effect of alcohol. a. indirect b. direct c. behavioural d. cognitive 26. Which of the following is most likely? a. Pam’s symptoms will spontaneously clear up. b. Pam is suffering from “pseudo-insomnia.” c. Pam has a lower than average body temperature. d. Pam’s symptoms will improve as she ages. 27. Sandy has just finished her undergraduate degree and is not sure what to do next. She could go back to her hometown and work at her mother’s office where a steady job has been promised to her, or she could move with her best friend to Toronto and look for a job on her own. Sandy has a hard time making the decision and often finds her mind wandering and fantasizing about her possible futures. Sandy’s roommate, Stella, has recently read a book about consciousness and is telling Sandy how consciousness changes all the time, sometimes intentionally and other times unintentionally. Stella is trying to give Sandy advice about what to do to help her make the decision. In the meantime, Sandy is working evenings as a waitress, and her shifts often end at 2 a.m. According to the unconscious thought theory, which of the following would help Sandy make the best decision? a. Carefully weigh the pros and cons of each option. b. Make a decision as fast as possible without really thinking about it. c. Let someone else make the decision for her and go along with it. d. Think about her choices for a short time while working.

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Chap 05_6ce_Case-Based 28. Nick is a huge fan of Freud and is trying to impress the girls by using terms such as “manifest” and “latent” content when describing his dream of kneeling in front of an imposing king who looks down at him from his throne. In this case, the latent content of Nick’s dream is ____________________. a. the king symbolizes his father b. the king and his throne c. the subjective feeling of awe Nick got from the dream d. the details of Nick’s real life that were incorporated in the dream 29. Jim and Pam’s daughter Cece has just turned five and often wakes up at night, lets out a piercing scream, and then just sits on her bed staring into space. What is Cece most likely to do once she awakes? a. Run to her parents’ room crying and spend the rest of the night with them. b. Resume sleeping shortly after she awakens without much difficulty. c. Remain in her bed and continue screaming until someone comes in her room to comfort her. d. Consistently wet the bed and have recurrent nightmares she remembers well. 30. Vanessa is a firm believer in the Cartwright view of dreams. How would she explain the meaning behind her friends’ dreams? a. She would connect her friends’ dreams with early childhood experiences. b. She would explain the dreams as a means to prepare for the struggles of daily life. c. She would say that dreams are just the product of random neural signals in the brain. d. She would connect the dreams with her friends’ unconscious needs and desires. 31. Vanessa and her friends meet each other every Sunday for brunch, and they love talking about the dreams they have experienced. Vanessa often dreams about a fire alarm going off, which she finds very distressing, so she asks the group their opinion about why they think she has been having this dream. Rachel is part of the same friend group, but dislikes the conversations about dreams because she rarely dreams and seldom remembers her dreams the following day. Knowing that Vanessa and all her friends are Canadian students, which of the following would you expect to be a dream they report having the most frequently? a. Being chased by someone, but not being captured or injured. b. Having the sense of falling from a great height without ever landing. c. Having a superpower, such as the ability to fly or shapeshift. d. Having a sexual experience with a member of the opposite sex. 32. Lauren is still not impressed after the show and invites Ben to a class of open monitoring meditation she regularly attends. The open monitoring kind of meditation shares similarities with techniques of ______________. a. cognitive behavioural therapy b. psychoanalysis c. person-centered therapy d. biodynamic psychotherapy 33. Jim’s father Dwight occasionally spends the night at Jim and Pam’s house and sometimes sleepwalks while he is there. What should Jim do in cases when he realizes his father is sleepwalking? a. Not wake him because Dwight might have a stroke. b. Not wake him because Dwight is not in any danger. c. Wake Dwight, but keep a safe distance because he might be dangerous. d. Gently wake Dwight and put him back into bed. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Case-Based 34. Ben and Lauren decide to go to a magic show for date night. The magician is supposed to be an expert in hypnosis who has previously taken complete control over the people he hypnotizes. The hypnotist can make people do crazy things like lift a car or even re-live some of their childhood memories. Ben is very excited about the magic show and believes that this type of hypnosis is real, but Lauren is more skeptical. The magician approaches the couple and asks Lauren to join him on the stage. The magician warns Lauren that he can make her reveal some of her deepest, darkest secrets. This statement __________. a. would be true only if Lauren believed in hypnosis b. is true and Lauren should not go on stage c. does not have any scientific research supporting it d. might be true depending on how suggestible Lauren is

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Chap 05_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. d 6. d 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. b 21. d 22. d 23. d 24. c 25. a 26. a

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Chap 05_6ce_Case-Based 27. d 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. a 32. a 33. d 34. c

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. For the past month, Mikail has been getting only five to six hours of sleep, instead of the eight hours he is

used to. What is a likely consequence of Mikail’s reduced sleep? a. impaired attention and coordination b. hallucinations and general disorientation c. development of anxiety symptoms d. night terrors when he actually does fall asleep 2. What is correlated with the experience of nightmares in adults? a. onset of sleep apnea b. sleepwalking c. schizophrenia, as well as other psychotic disorders d. significant stress 3. Which drug would be most likely to cause a fatal overdose? a. CNS depressants b. hallucinogens c. cannabis

d. CNS stimulants

4. Haley has severe glaucoma and she finds that the symptoms of her glaucoma can be relieved by using a non-

prescription drug. In addition to relieving the symptoms of glaucoma, the drug relaxes her and induces a mild feeling of euphoria. What is Haley using to treat her glaucoma? a. barbiturates b. mescaline c. codeine d. marijuana 5. If you could compare EEG recordings from a teenager and her grandmother, what should you expect? a. Both of these individuals will sleep for the same length of time, but the grandmother will spend

substantially less time in REM sleep. b. Both of these individuals will sleep for the same length of time, but the grandmother will spend substantially more time in REM sleep. c. The grandmother will sleep less than the teenager, but both will spend about 20 percent of their sleep time in REM sleep. d. The grandmother will sleep less than the teenager, and also experience proportionately less REM sleep.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 6. Imagine that a previously unknown and very small culture of hunter-gatherers was recently discovered. They

have been highly isolated for hundreds of years, subsisting meagrely on the relatively sparse edible local vegetation and wildlife. What would you predict about the content of their dreams, relative to a control group from North America? a. The members of this group are more likely to dream about strangers. b. The members of this group are more likely to dream about falling. c. The members of this group are more likely to dream about food. d. The members of this group are more likely to dream about travel. 7. What is the term for the internally produced chemicals that have actions similar to THC? a. endorphins b. interleukins c. dopaminoids

d. endocannabinoids

8. What is likely to occur after signals are sent from the suprachiasmatic nucleus to the pineal gland? a. Circadian rhythms will be reset. b. Alpha rhythms will be generated. c. Sleep will end.

d. The individual will begin to dream.

9. Morgan had a dream in which his boss appeared at his front door, and asked Morgan for a kidney. Morgan

is convinced the dream represents an unconscious desire to quit his current job. What is Morgan’s desire to quit his job in Freudian terms? a. the latent content of the dream b. an interpretation of random neural activity in lower brain centres c. the manifest content of the dream d. an attempt to work through problems he is currently experiencing in his life 10. With which stage of sleep is dreaming typically associated? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep

d. stage 4 sleep

11. Although problematic when used recreationally, the occasional use of which of the following drugs—in

conjunction with traditional psychotherapy—is beneficial for those suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder? a. MDMA b. oxycodone c. benzodiazepines d. marijuana 12. In which period of sleep are dreams best remembered? a. the first REM period of the night b. Stage 4 deep sleep c. Stage 1 light sleep

d. the last REM period of the night

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 13. Which statement best describes the amount of sleep a person needs? a. It varies from person to person. b. It differs across cultures, indicating a strong learned component to sleep needs. c. It is greatly reduced if one takes a 15-minute nap at midday. d. It is roughly the same for all people of the same age. 14. Jasmine used to feel quite giddy and light-headed after drinking a single glass of wine. Now she finds she can

drink three glasses of wine before she feels giddy. What has happened to Jasmine? a. She is experiencing the effects of alcohol withdrawal. b. She has developed a tolerance for alcohol. c. She has become alcohol resistant. d. She has developed an alcohol dependency. 15. What is a direct risk of alcohol abuse? a. increased risk of sexually transmitted diseases b. car accidents c. liver disease d. unemployment 16. Sally had been asleep for just over two hours when she suddenly let out a piercing cry and sat straight up in

her bed. When her parents asked what had scared her, she really couldn't remember, and she soon fell back to sleep. From this description, what did Sally experience? a. a nightmare b. a night terror c. REM deprivation d. sleep apnea 17. What type of drug depresses central nervous system activity? a. amphetamine b. opioid c. hallucinogen

d. sedative

18. Which of the following is likely to cause sleep problems? a. Establish a daytime exercise program. b. Vary the time when you go to bed at night. c. Minimize consumption of stimulants such as caffeine and nicotine. d. Avoid daytime naps if you’re having trouble sleeping at night.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1

Erika Erika has been having trouble with sleep lately. In particular, she finds that her mind races with minor worries when she tries to go to sleep. When she does fall asleep, she doesn’t tend to stay asleep for very long. One night, Erika has three glasses of wine before bed. She falls asleep easily that night, but even after eight hours of sleep, she wakes up feeling unrested. Erika talked to her friend Betsy about her sleep problems, and Betsy invited Erika to join her for her weekly yoga class. Betsy claimed that yoga really helped her to sleep well. In the class, Erika learned how to do some basic meditation. That night, Erika tried some of the meditation techniques just before going to bed. She had a great sleep and woke up feeling much more refreshed than she had in weeks. 19. What is the best explanation for why meditation might help Erika sleep more easily? a. Meditation is associated with an increase in REM activity, which will make Erika feel more rested even when she is awake. b. Meditation has been demonstrated to reduce physiological arousal, which may allow Erika to relax enough to fall sleep. c. Meditation has very strong placebo effects, so even though it has no effect on the body Erika’s expectations will allow her to fall asleep more easily. d. Meditation is a state of consciousness that is nearly identical to slow-wave sleep, so it trains Erika’s body to be ready for real sleep. 20. In the sleep cycle, approximately how long does stage 1 sleep typically last? a. 10 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 45 minutes

d. 60 minutes

21. Twyla insists she never dreams; she is convinced of this because she has never recalled a single dream. What

would researchers likely find if Twyla were tested in a sleep lab? a. She would experience REM sleep, and she would report a dream if she was awakened from REM sleep. b. She would wake each time she entered REM sleep and show no evidence of completing a full cycle of REM sleep. c. She would experience REM sleep, but she would not report any dreams if she was awakened from REM sleep. d. She would experience REM sleep, but she would report a dream only if she was awakened from slow-wave sleep. 22. John is an engineer who also enjoys renovating his home. Any time he is faced with a tricky renovation

problem, he waits until the next day so that he can “sleep on it.” He does this because he often finds that, when he awakens, the solution has presented itself to him during the night. Which of the following dream theorist’s ideas are closest to John’s? a. Robert McCarley b. Sigmund Freud c. Rosalind Cartwright d. J. Allan Hobson Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 23. Which theorist advanced the wish-fulfillment hypothesis about dreaming? a. J. Allan Hobson b. Rosalind Cartwright c. Robert McCarley

d. Sigmund Freud

24. Cancer, neurocognitive deficits, and an increased probability of developing a psychotic condition are all

potential long-term negative effects of using which of the following drugs? a. cocaine b. alcohol c. MDMA d. marijuana 25. If you are on a sports team that must travel across several time zones for a big game, which situation would

result in the best odds of your team winning? a. travel west the night before the game b. travel east the day of the game c. travel west two days before the game d. travel east the night before the game 26. Rachel has been using a non-prescription drug on a regular basis for several years. She has now developed

liver disease and ulcers, and she has been in three car accidents. Which drug is Rachel most likely a chronic user of? a. marijuana b. alcohol c. LSD d. sedatives 27. Mark’s mother is worried because he sleeps only six or seven hours per night, and she believes that people

need at least eight hours of sleep. What would you tell her? a. There is probably nothing to be worried about if Mark is healthy and productive since different people need differing amounts of sleep. b. There is no problem, unless he spends most of his sleep time in REM sleep. c. She has reason to be concerned because, in the long run, Mark’s lack of sleep will take its toll physically. d. There is nothing to worry about because young people need less sleep than older people. 28. Melanie had a brain injury, and the ascending fibres in her reticular activating system were damaged. What is

a likely consequence of the injury? a. She will no longer experience stage 2 or stage 3 sleep. b. She will not wake up. c. She will not be able to sleep for more than a few minutes at a time. d. She will no longer experience REM sleep. 29. Among the following, which drug tends to produce tolerance most slowly? a. alcohol b. opioids c. stimulants

d. sedatives

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 30. What is a key difference between cocaine and amphetamines? a. Cocaine is derived from plants whereas amphetamines are synthetic. b. Cocaine produces euphoria whereas amphetamines result in sedation. c. Cocaine has predominantly emotional effects whereas amphetamines primarily affect behaviour. d. Cocaine is snorted whereas amphetamines are typically injected. 31. During which activity are you most likely to have prominent alpha waves? a. being hypnotized b. meditating c. programming a computer

d. dancing

32. Bill has had many dreams in which he has fallen off a cliff, but he has always awakened before hitting the

bottom. He has become an insomniac because of his fear that if he ever hits the bottom, he will die. What would you tell Bill? a. He simply needs to train himself to wake up whenever he has a falling dream. b. He should be afraid because shocking dreams are often fatal. c. His belief has no substance and is merely a myth. d. He should take sleeping pills to repress REM sleep so that he will not dream. 33. Hannah used to experience insomnia once or twice a week. A month ago, she started taking Seconal to help

her sleep, but now she finds she cannot get to sleep unless she takes a Seconal tablet. What has happened to Hannah? a. She developed a dependency on Seconal. b. She habituated to the effects of Seconal. c. She developed a drug tolerance for Seconal. d. She developed pseudoinsomnia. 34. Alicia is taking a prescription drug to help treat her narcolepsy. She finds that when she takes the drug she

feels extremely restless and irritable, and she loses her appetite. What has Alicia’s physician likely prescribed? a. stimulant b. hallucinogen c. sedative d. opioid 35. Sobhan often streams TV shows in bed before falling asleep. He has noticed that the type of content he is

watching (e.g., violent or sexual) tends to show up in his dreams that night. Sobhan’s experiences are most closely related to which of the following of Freud’s concepts? a. wish fulfillment b. manifest content c. day residue d. latent content

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 36. While Nicholas was hypnotized, he was able to endure painful jaw surgery without any anesthesia. Which

theory of hypnosis is consistent with this example? a. role-playing b. social-cognitive c. Freudian d. dissociation 37. Tara has been fighting with her best friend recently, and she has been dreaming about losing pieces of her

body. According to Freud’s concept of dreaming, what is the manifest content of her dreams? a. the fight with her friend b. the sadness she feels when fighting with her friend c. the body parts that she loses in the dream d. the emotions she experiences when she wakes up 38. Luke is an elderly male who has recently begun to kick and flail about during sleep, acting out his REM

dreams. In addition to the existing sleep disorder, which of the following issues is Luke at the greatest risk of developing in the future? a. Alzheimer’s disease b. schizophrenia c. Parkinson’s disease d. multiple sclerosis 39. In response to light, the suprachiasmatic nucleus sends signals to the pineal gland to reduce the secretion of

which of the following, thereby helping to increase wakefulness and alertness? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. melatonin 40. Which of the following is the term for talking in your sleep? a. somnambulism b. insomnia c. somniloquy

d. sleep bruxism

41. Conner had a dream in which he and a pink rabbit were riding a train. The rabbit pulled an ice cream cone

out of a top hat that he was wearing. Conner is convinced the dream represents an unconscious desire to cancel his upcoming wedding. What is the pink rabbit in Freudian terms? a. the manifest content of Conner’s dream b. an interpretation of random neural activity in lower brain centres c. the latent content of Conner’s dream d. an attempt to work through problems he is currently experiencing in his life 42. Scott’s brain is producing alpha and theta waves, and he shows a decrease in his heart rate, oxygen

consumption, and carbon dioxide elimination. What is most likely? a. Scott is in REM sleep. b. Scott is meditating. c. Scott has taken ecstasy. d. Scott is hypnotized.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 43. Thalia’s new dentist plans to use hypnosis, instead of anesthesia, while he works on Thalia’s teeth. Thalia asks

you if she should go along with this, or if she should find another dentist. What should you tell her, based on research into the effects of hypnosis? a. Once she is no longer hypnotized, her sensitivity to pain will show a rebound effect. b. Hypnosis typically has no effect on the experience of pain. c. Hypnosis is effective as an anesthetic only when it is used in conjunction with sedatives. d. Hypnosis has been an effective substitute for some anesthetic drugs for some people. 44. Which theory of hypnosis is most consistent with the idea that hypnosis is associated with divided

consciousness and is an altered state? a. Freud’s psychoanalytic theory b. Hilgard’s dissociation theory c. Schachter’s cognitive theory d. Barber’s role theory 45. Tara has been fighting with her best friend recently, and she has been dreaming about losing pieces of her

body. According to Freud’s concept of dreaming, what is the latent content of her dreams? a. the fight with her friend b. the pain she experiences in her dream c. the body parts that she loses in the dream d. the emotions she experiences when she wakes up 46. Rebecca is hooked up to an electroencephalograph (EEG) in a sleep lab. As the researcher watches the

printout from the EEG, delta waves appear. What can the researcher conclude about Rebecca’s state of consciousness, based on this information? a. She is currently in REM sleep. b. She has just entered stage 1 sleep. c. She has just entered stage 3 sleep. d. She is still awake but is relaxed and drowsy. 47. Ceili is in a recovery program to deal with her alcohol dependence. One of the treatments includes going to

the bars where she used to drink in order to get used to being in such places without becoming intoxicated. As she enters her local pub, Ceili starts craving alcohol and she starts to experience tremors and fever. Why? a. The smell of alcohol in the bar reminds Ceili of all the good times that she had while drinking, which she had forgotten, and this makes her upset. b. Tremors and fever are withdrawal symptoms that occur only when the body is detoxifying from the effects of alcohol. c. Craving and withdrawal are conditioned responses elicited by stimuli that have been paired with the effects of alcohol in the past. d. Ceili is so frightened by being in the bar that she starts to panic.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 48. Three of the following four drugs belong to the same category. Which one does NOT belong? a. psilocybin b. LSD c. cocaine

d. mescaline

49. Which of the following individuals would be LEAST likely to show impairments from partial sleep

deprivation? a. a 70-year-old female c. a 20-year-old male

b. a 40-year-old male d. a 13-year-old female

50. If you were to monitor the brain activity of an individual who is under hypnosis, what would you be most

likely to find? a. The patterns would be similar to those of a young child. b. There is no special pattern associated with a hypnotic state. c. The patterns are similar to those of someone in slow-wave sleep. d. The patterns are similar to those of someone who has been diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder. 51. Which instrument would be most useful for documenting the eye movements associated with REM sleep? a. electromyograph b. electrocardiograph c. electrooculograph

d. electroencephalograph

52. Which of the following is NOT one of the risks associated with marijuana use? a. respiratory diseases b. problems with attention and memory c. increased risk of developing a psychotic condition, especially in those genetically susceptible d. impotence 53. Which EEG brain wave patterns are found in stage 1 sleep? a. theta b. REM c. delta

d. alpha

54. Abdul follows a regular sleep schedule where he wakes at 8:00 a.m. and goes to sleep at midnight.

According to research, which of the following times of day is Abdul LEAST likely to experience mind wandering? a. 11:00 a.m. b. 1:00 p.m. c. 3:00 p.m. d. 6:00 p.m. 55. Javier has just taken a drug. He is experiencing some mild hallucinations and he feels like his sensory

awareness has increased. Which drug has he most likely taken? a. heroin b. mescaline c. barbiturates d. alcohol Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 56. Peter dreams of arguing with a larger-than-life faceless authority figure. If you interpret Peter’s dream as his

attempt to decide how to discuss a problem with his father, what theory are you using? a. activation-synthesis theory b. problem-solving theory c. wish-fulfillment theory d. neural-overflow theory 57. Logan has a dream in which he is searching for a lost key. What do the images in Logan’s dream represent,

according to Rosalind Cartwright’s cognitive theory of dreaming? a. an interpretation of random neuron activity in lower brain centres b. the manifest content of the dream c. the latent content of the dream d. an attempt to work through problems he is currently experiencing in his life 58. For which drug does the tolerance level develop the most rapidly? a. sedatives b. hallucinogens c. alcohol

d. cannabis

59. Which brain area is considered to be part of the “reward pathway” associated with drug effects? a. hippocampus b. periaqueductal gray c. inferotemporal cortex

d. nucleus accumbens

60. Gunther is a news anchor who just flew from Vancouver to Paris, crossing eight time zones. What can you

predict for Gunther, based on what is known about jet lag? a. He will take 48 hours to adjust to the new time zone. b. He will not experience any jet lag because he has flown west to east. c. He will take just over a week to adjust to the new time zone. d. He will take about four days to adjust to the new time zone. 61. Parminder has no trouble falling asleep, but she has difficulty remaining asleep. What is Parminder suffering

from? a. insomnia c. sleep apnea

b. narcolepsy d. pseudoinsomnia

62. Kara slips into REM sleep immediately after falling asleep. What has Kara probably experienced recently? a. working a rotating shift b. alcohol intoxication c. NREM rebound

d. selective sleep deprivation

63. Recent research suggests that sleep disturbances are associated with (and may be a contributing factor to the

development of) which of the following? a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. schizophrenia d. multiple sclerosis

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 64. Ashley dreamed that he was being chased through the galaxy by ferocious interplanetary creatures. What is

the psychoanalytic term for these dream events? a. manifest content b. latent content c. subliminal content d. preconscious content 65. Adam slept peacefully through most of the night and then at 5:00 a.m. he woke up sobbing. When his parents

asked what had scared him, he told them that monsters came through the wall to attack him, and no matter how fast he ran he couldn’t get away. Even though his parents told him it was just a bad dream, Adam was afraid to go back to sleep. From this description, what did Adam experience? a. a nightmare b. a night terror c. sleep seizure d. sleep apnea 66. Which statement most accurately describes the study of consciousness? a. Psychology began as the study of behaviour rather than the study of consciousness. b. Today, psychologists are generally not interested in studying issues related to consciousness. c. John Watson and others viewed psychology as the science of consciousness. d. The 1960s saw an increase in the study of variations of consciousness. 67. Sleepwalking occurs when a person arises and wanders about while remaining asleep. What is another term

for sleepwalking? a. somniloquy c. REM sleep disorder

b. walking apnea d. somnambulism

68. For which of the following reasons is REM sleep is sometimes described as being a paradox? a. The person is asleep but not dreaming. b. The brain activity resembles that of a fully awake person. c. The person is asleep, but there is a good deal of tossing and turning. d. The body is virtually paralyzed, but the eyes move rapidly. 69. Which of the following is a physiological effect of sleep that is related to later health outcomes? a. Cerebrospinal fluid flows more easily during sleep. b. Red blood cells deliver oxygen more efficiently during sleep. c. Dendritic branching is more extensive during sleep. d. The blood-brain barrier is more effective during sleep.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 70. Ming is 12, and her aunt Lin has come for a visit. Aunt Lin is using the spare bed in Ming’s room. Several

times during the night, Aunt Lin awakens briefly because of the creaking of the house, though she then falls back to sleep. Ming doesn’t awaken at all during the night. Which of the following research results best explains this difference in sleep patterns? a. During adulthood, the proportion of REM sleep gradually declines. b. The elderly are more affected by jet lag and shifts in their circadian rhythms. c. During adulthood, the proportion of slow-wave sleep increases significantly. d. During adulthood, the proportion of slow-wave sleep gradually declines. 71. Caylyn is driving home from work while thinking about her plans for the weekend. Although she correctly

responds to traffic signals and other cars, she has no memory of the drive when she arrives at home and “snaps out of it.” This aspect of normal conscious experience is most closely related to which of the following theories of hypnosis? a. social-cognitive theory b. hypno-inductive theory c. role-playing theory d. dissociation theory 72. What does an electroencephalograph measure? a. duration of sleep stages b. glucose metabolism in the brain c. electrical activity of the brain

d. variations in conscious awareness

73. Carlos is taking a prescription drug to reduce the anxiety he has been feeling since he lost his job. He finds

that when he takes the drug he experiences some short-term lethargy and impaired coordination. What type of drug has Carlos’s physician likely prescribed? a. cannabis b. stimulant c. hallucinogen d. sedative 74. According to research, at which time of day would you be most likely to experience mind wandering? a. two hours after waking b. five hours after waking c. eight hours after waking

d. twelve hours after waking

75. Which area of the brain secretes melatonin as part of the sleep cycle? a. suprachiasmatic nucleus b. pineal gland c. thalamus

d. medulla

76. Why does ecstasy not fit neatly into existing drug categories? a. It is a compound drug related to both amphetamines and hallucinogens. b. It is relatively new, and researchers haven’t studied it sufficiently. c. It can be made a number of different ways, so it is hard to classify it. d. It has different effects on different people, so its effects are not easily predicted.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 77. What is the term for a strong mental and emotional craving for a drug? a. withdrawal b. tolerance c. psychological dependence

d. physical dependence

78. Kelli wakes up abruptly early in the night with intense autonomic arousal and feelings of panic. Once she

calms down, she falls back to sleep easily. What has Kelli experienced? a. a nightmare b. a night terror c. a psychotic dream d. somnambulism 79. The psychoanalyst interpreted his patient’s dream of riding a horse as indicative of her repressed sexual

urges. Which term describes those repressed urges? a. manifest content b. latent content c. subliminal content d. overt content 80. Which of the following is an example of a circadian rhythm? a. the secretion of growth hormone b. changes in pupil dilation in response to light changes c. a woman’s menstrual cycle d. the yearly migration patterns of birds 81. Which of the following is an example of Freud’s concept of day residue? a. Mary feels anxious all day after having had a nightmare. b. Danielle has difficulty falling asleep because she is worried that she will not hear her alarm in the

morning. c. Arik dreams about monsters whenever he is having a rough time at work. d. Tanner has many dreams that take place at his job. 82. What does the idea of multifactorial causation in drug effects suggest? a. Each person will have the same physiological response to a drug, but there can be different

psychological responses. b. The effects of a drug depend on the dosage and the user’s personal makeup and experience. c. Taking several different drugs at the same time produces unpredictable effects. d. Taking several different drugs at once increases their effectiveness.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1

Erika Erika has been having trouble with sleep lately. In particular, she finds that her mind races with minor worries when she tries to go to sleep. When she does fall asleep, she doesn’t tend to stay asleep for very long. One night, Erika has three glasses of wine before bed. She falls asleep easily that night, but even after eight hours of sleep, she wakes up feeling unrested. Erika talked to her friend Betsy about her sleep problems, and Betsy invited Erika to join her for her weekly yoga class. Betsy claimed that yoga really helped her to sleep well. In the class, Erika learned how to do some basic meditation. That night, Erika tried some of the meditation techniques just before going to bed. She had a great sleep and woke up feeling much more refreshed than she had in weeks. 83. Which sleep disorder are Erika’s sleep problems consistent with? a. somnambulism b. narcolepsy c. insomnia d. sleep apnea 84. When are we most likely to fall asleep, according to recent research? a. when our brainwaves increase in frequency b. when it gets dark c. as our body temperature begins to climb d. as our body temperature begins to drop 85. Hailey recently began meditating on a regular basis. What should Hailey expect to experience in the short

term? a. an elimination of fatigue b. an alteration in her consciousness similar to taking sedative drugs c. an increase in relaxation and a decrease in autonomic arousal d. a sense of euphoria similar to that experienced when taking opiate drugs 86. Of the following groups, which would NOT have a higher incidence of sleep apnea? a. postmenopausal women b. females c. obese people d. those with a genetic predisposition to sleep apnea 87. Which of the following options correctly ranks sleep disorders from most common to least common in North

America? a. insomnia – narcolepsy – sleep apnea – somnambulism b. insomnia – sleep apnea – somnambulism – narcolepsy c. insomnia – somnambulism – sleep apnea – narcolepsy d. insomnia – sleep apnea – narcolepsy – somnambulism

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 88. In which stage of sleep do the slowest brain waves occur? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. REM

d. stage 3

89. What helps to reduce the effects of rotating shift work? a. avoiding caffeine b. consuming caffeine c. cycling through progressively later start times d. cycling through progressively earlier start times 90. Recent research suggest that between 4 and 6 percent of postsecondary students in Canada report

nonmedical use of drugs, such as Ritalin or Adderall, to enhance their academic performance. Which of the following have been found from this work? a. Students who use drugs in this way tend to receive higher grades than those who do not. b. Students who use drugs in this way tend to receive grades that are no different than those who do not. c. Students who use drugs in this way tend to receive lower grades than those who do not. d. Students who use drugs in this way tend to receive lower grades at first but ultimately surpass those who do not. 91. With which neurotransmitter system do the effects of marijuana appear to be associated? a. dopamine b. norepinephrine c. GABA

d. serotonin

92. Which statement best describes voluntary muscle activity during sleep? a. It does not occur in NREM sleep. b. It does not occur during either REM or NREM sleep. c. It is at its lowest during REM sleep. d. It is at its highest during REM sleep. 93. Duong decided that her dream of flying reflects her desire to escape from an unfulfilling marriage. What would

a dream theorist, such as Calvin Hall, say about Duong’s interpretation? a. Her interpretation may be accurate because symbolism is personal, so she is possibly the person best equipped to decipher her own dream. b. Her interpretation is too superficial and does not get at the latent meaning of the dream. c. Duong needs an analyst to interpret her dream for her because the dream is a reflection of unconscious wishes. d. Before any credibility is given to her interpretation, she needs to have a series of similar dreams.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 94. Dr. Mak has developed a new drug that works as a stimulant. What will this drug likely do? a. It will block the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine. b. It will enhance the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine. c. It will increase activity in the GABA system. d. It will decrease activity in the GABA system. 95. Carlos regularly goes directly from wakefulness to REM sleep for brief periods of time each day. This is very

disruptive to his life, and he feels that he has no control over it. Which term best describes Carlos’s daily pattern? a. hypersomnia b. siesta c. narcolepsy d. sleep apnea 96. Which of the following brain structures is NOT involved in sleep cycles? a. the pons b. the medulla c. the basal forebrain

d. the cerebellum

97. Isaac has had insomnia for six months and when he goes in for his regular check-up, he asks his family doctor

if there is something that can be prescribed to help him fall asleep. If his doctor does prescribe a medication, what is it most likely to be? a. barbiturate b. amphetamine c. oxycodone d. hallucinogen 98. Which statement does NOT accurately describe snoring? a. Snoring is more common among men than women. b. Snoring is more frequent among people who are overweight. c. Snoring is associated with sleep apnea and cardiovascular disease. d. Snoring tends to decrease as people get older. 99. Zach enjoys drinks with his co-workers after work every day at 5:30 p.m. at the bar across the street from

the office. Each day, he then staggers home safely. One morning, on the weekend, Zach goes to a friend’s house where they again drink heavily. Zach ends up tragically overdosing on alcohol, even though he consumed the same amount of alcohol as he normally does after work. Why did Zach overdose in this instance? a. He was suffering from low-grade withdrawal, which affected his tolerance level. b. The cumulative effects of so much drinking over the years overwhelmed his body’s ability to counteract the effects of the alcohol. c. Situational cues did not activate his body’s preparatory responses that typically produce increased tolerance. d. Zach’s psychological dependence on alcohol was overwhelmed by his physical dependence.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 100. Which theory of hypnosis states that hypnotized persons are acting in the manner they believe a hypnotized

person would? a. dissociative theory c. Freudian theory

b. role-playing theory d. divided-consciousness theory

101. Which individual is likely to get the least amount of sleep? a. someone who works overtime b. someone who works a steady night shift c. someone who works a steady day shift

d. someone who works a rotating shift

102. Metabolic toxins, such as beta amyloid, are associated with the development of which of the following

disorders? a. multiple sclerosis c. schizophrenia

b. Alzheimer’s disease d. Parkinson’s disease

103. Which of the following forms of meditation has been integrated with cognitive-behavioural therapy to form a

particularly effective psychotherapy used to treat depression, anxiety, and more? a. loving-kindness meditation b. mindfulness meditation c. transcendental meditation d. Zen meditation 104. Who is statistically most likely to experience insomnia? a. Adam, a 22-year-old man b. Beth, a 22-year-old woman c. Carla, a 52-year-old woman

d. Dean, a 52-year-old man

105. Which statement best describes dreams? a. We are most likely to recall dreams with sexual content. b. Dream recall fades quickly after waking. c. The reason we do not remember our dreams is that the content of the dream is repressed. d. Only about 75 percent of all people dream. 106. Although various drugs have various actions and effects throughout the central nervous system, what effect

appears to be common across virtually all abused drugs? a. They are all deactivated in the synapse by acetylcholinesterase. b. They eventually increase activity in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway, which is important for the experience of reward. c. They all lead to a suppression of activity in the prefrontal cortex, which makes it more likely that an individual will become physiologically dependent. d. They each have an inhibitory effect on GABA.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 107. Adolescents tend to go to sleep later during their high school years, and yet are required to arrive at school

for early start times. If Jodi is organizing a campaign to convince school administrators to start school later in the day, which of the following research topics would be most relevant to making her case? a. schedule-induced jet lag b. shift rotation c. transient shift work d. social jet lag 108. After which flight would a flight attendant experience the most jet lag, based on what is known about

circadian rhythms and jet lag? a. Montreal to Vancouver (east to west) b. Victoria to Toronto (west to east) c. Edmonton to Los Angeles (north to south) d. Orlando to Halifax (south to north) 109. According to research, which physiological state is most similar to that of meditation? a. relaxation b. that produced by hypnosis c. slow wave sleep

d. a drug-induced trance

110. Olivia has trouble sleeping for more than four hours each night. What is Olivia likely to experience? a. more sleep spindles than people who sleep for a full eight hours b. less deep sleep than people who sleep for a full eight hours c. more vivid dreams than people who sleep for a full eight hours d. less REM sleep than people who sleep for a full eight hours 111. What is the effect of selective REM sleep deprivation on daytime functioning? a. It severely impairs cognitive functioning the next day. b. It severely impairs motor functioning the next day. c. It has little impact on daytime functioning or task performance. d. It impairs functioning in the morning, but those deficits are brief. 112. Amir has been taking a mild amphetamine for the past four months to help him cope with being a full-time

student while holding down a full-time job. Now that his classes have ended, he wants to stop taking the amphetamine, but each time he tries to skip the medication, he feels very fatigued and irritable. What has happened to Amir? a. He developed a physical dependence for amphetamines. b. He habituated to the effects of amphetamines. c. He developed a drug tolerance for amphetamines. d. He became amphetamine intolerant.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 113. What symptom is characteristic of sleep apnea? a. reflexive gasping for air during sleep b. extremely low rate of REM c. night terrors d. sudden, irresistible urge to sleep during normal waking hours 114. Caleb wants to become a fighter pilot. Which sleep disorder would most likely make him ineligible to fly

fighter planes? a. somnambulism c. sleep apnea

b. narcolepsy d. pseudoinsomnia

115. Which brain structure appears to be most important to sleep and wakefulness? a. cerebellum b. hippocampus c. corpus callosum

d. reticular formation

116. What is more common in tropical climates? a. narcolepsy b. napping c. sleep paralysis

d. repeated waking during the night

117. Abigail had a dream in which she was riding a bicycle toward some beautiful mountains. Abigail is convinced

the dream represents an unconscious desire to quit her current job. What are the bicycle and mountains in Freudian terms? a. the latent content of Abigail’s dream b. an interpretation of random neural activity in lower brain centres c. the manifest content of Abigail’s dream d. an attempt to work through problems she is currently experiencing in her life 118. Which drug has been implicated as a trigger for psychotic disorders among individuals with a predisposition

toward those disorders? a. heroin b. alcohol c. marijuana d. cocaine 119. Which statement does NOT accurately describe REM sleep? a. REM sleep is not unique to humans but also occurs in most mammals and birds. b. REM sleep does not occur in dolphins c. REM sleep involves paralysis of the major muscles of the body. d. There is one period during the night in which rapid eye movements are observed in the sleeper, and it is

immediately following slow wave sleep.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 120. What are the origins of meditation techniques? a. scientific study of the relaxation response b. Eastern religions c. transcendental psychology

d. treatment of hysteria

121. What electroencephalograph pattern is associated with normal, waking, alert states? a. beta b. delta c. alpha

d. gamma

122. What is the most common known sleep disorder? a. insomnia b. night terrors c. somnambulism

d. sleep apnea

123. What sleep state is associated with the emergence of sleep spindles? a. stage 1 sleep b. stage 2 sleep c. slow wave sleep

d. REM sleep

124. What is generally associated with non-REM sleep? a. nightmares b. rapid eye movements c. night terrors

d. dreams

125. Which stages of sleep appear to be important for consolidation of various types of memory? a. slow-wave and REM sleep b. stage 1 and slow-wave sleep c. stages 1 and 4 sleep

d. stage 2 and REM sleep

126. Why might your doctor prescribe you an opiate drug? a. sleep problems b. depression c. severe pain

d. memory problems

127. Which of the following is a myth about dreaming? a. Some people know that they are dreaming while in the middle of a dream. b. You will actually die if you do not wake up from a dream before you “die” in the dream c. You can incorporate sounds and other stimuli into your dreams, like dreaming of rain if you hear

running water. d. Most dreams are from a first-person perspective. 128. Tracey thinks that Aaron drinks too much because he is an alcoholic. What type of reasoning is this an

example of? a. inductive c. circular

b. deductive d. logical

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 129. During adulthood, there are changes in the proportions of sleep stages. Which of the following shows a

gradual decline as we age? a. stage 1 sleep b. stage 2 sleep c. slow-wave sleep d. all stages of NREM sleep 130. Which term refers to periodic fluctuations in physiological functioning in humans? a. autonomic rhythms b. cultural rhythms c. biological rhythms

d. repeating rhythms

131. Which instrument is NOT usually used to monitor sleep in the laboratory? a. electromyograph b. positron emission tomography c. electroencephalograph

d. electrooculograph

132. Katja is listening to a lecture late on a Friday afternoon. She starts to feel drowsy, and then falls into a light

sleep. Which shift would be observed if her brain wave patterns were being monitored? a. theta waves to beta waves and finally to alpha waves b. beta waves to theta waves and finally to alpha waves c. alpha waves to beta waves and finally to delta waves d. beta waves to alpha waves and finally to theta waves 133. An electroencephalograph (EEG) is recording Juan’s brain activity, and the recording is currently dominated

by delta waves. At the same time, there are a series of beeps from one of the other machines. Which of the following is likely? a. There will be no change in the EEG, and Juan’s sleep will not be interrupted. b. There will be a sleep spindle recorded on the EEG at the time of the beeps. c. The noise of the beeps will be incorporated into the dream Juan is currently experiencing. d. The beeps will wake Juan from his relatively light sleep. 134. Dr. Montgomery has developed a new drug that blocks the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine. What

effects will this drug have? a. It will function as a sedative. c. It will have stimulant effects in the body.

b. It will produce hallucinogenic effects. d. It will act as an effective painkiller.

135. What does NOT happen when a person is in a meditative state? a. breathing rate decreases b. heart rate decreases c. alpha and theta waves become more prominent d. oxygen consumption increases

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 136. Which view of dreaming suggests that dreams are times when people can think creatively about what is going

on in their lives and then use that information later when awake? a. wish fulfillment view of dreams b. James-Verduin view of dreams c. problem-solving view of dreams d. synergistic view of dreams 137. What would you expect to happen if you sprayed water on the hand of an individual who was in REM sleep? a. He would wake up less able to recall his dream. b. She would somnambulate toward the bathroom. c. She would not be at all disturbed or affected by the experience, due to the deep nature of REM sleep. d. He would incorporate the experience into his dream, perhaps as a rainstorm. 138. Rowan was relaxing and not really paying attention to anything when his roommate came home. The

roommate has asked for help working through some difficulties with a computer program. What will happen to Rowan’s brain waves as he helps his roommate? a. They will decrease in both frequency and amplitude. b. They will increase in frequency and decrease in amplitude. c. They will increase in both frequency and amplitude. d. They will decrease in frequency and increase in amplitude. 139. Research on sleep restriction suggests that partial sleep deprivation is associated with increased obesity.

Which of the following is NOT a reason for this association? a. Sleep restriction triggers hormonal changes associated with hunger. b. Sleep-deprived individuals are more likely to consume high-calorie foods. c. Sleep restriction is associated with a decrease in basal metabolic rate. d. Sleep-deprived individuals consume, on average, and extra 385 calories per day. 140. Kayla’s core body temperature has risen 1.5 degrees in the last half-hour. Which of the following is most

likely? a. Kayla has been meditating for the past 30 minutes. b. Kayla has just fallen asleep. c. Kayla will fall asleep in the next 60 minutes. d. Kayla has just woken up. 141. How are drugs that are typically used as “sleeping pills” classified? a. hallucinogens b. sedatives c. opioids

d. soporifics

142. Which area of the brain receives signals directly from the retina to adjust your biological clock? a. suprachiasmatic nucleus b. pineal gland c. thalamus

d. medulla

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 143. What is a type of amphetamine that can be snorted or injected intravenously? a. ecstasy b. ice c. crack

d. crank

144. Nicole has just slipped into a light sleep. If Nicole were being monitored by an electroencephalograph, what

type of brain wave would likely be recorded? a. beta b. delta c. theta d. alpha 145. Elaine thinks that Jerry sees the world in a very negative way because he’s depressed. Which fallacy does this

illustrate? a. circular c. repressive

b. descriptive d. nominal

146. What has research revealed about the content of most dreams? a. They are focused on others rather than oneself. b. They are about fairly normal activities. c. There are random bursts of activity with little coherence. d. They are about supernatural beings. 147. Iris has been asleep for less than an hour. Her parents are surprised when she walks into the living room, and

they tell her to go back to sleep. The next day Iris does not remember getting up after she went to bed. From this description, what did Iris experience? a. a night terror b. somnambulism c. REM sleep behaviour disorder d. a nightmare 148. What happens to people who are selectively deprived of slow-wave sleep for several nights in a row? a. They make up for the lost slow-wave sleep when allowed to sleep without interruption. b. They suffer no ill effects whatsoever. c. They need to be awakened less and less frequently as the deprivation goes on. d. They spend more time in REM sleep to compensate. 149. While serving as a subject at a sleep clinic, Tiana is deprived of dreaming for several nights. What is a likely

result? a. She will experience REM rebound and spend more time in REM sleep on subsequent nights. b. She will become accustomed to going without dreaming and spend less time in REM sleep on subsequent nights. c. She will have difficulty achieving REM on subsequent nights. d. She will immediately return to a normal sleep cycle when she is allowed to sleep through the night.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 150. What would a student be least likely to dream about, according to research evidence on dream content? a. falling from the top of a tall building on campus b. being chased by their most feared instructor c. missing an important exam d. being a tree on campus 151. Which of the following is associated with REM sleep? a. irregular breathing b. sleep spindles c. heightened muscle tension

d. night terrors

152. What usually occurs in REM sleep? a. night terrors b. nightmares c. sleep apnea

d. sleepwalking

153. What is NOT good advice for combating insomnia? a. Develop a bedtime sleep ritual. b. Read a dull textbook before going to bed. c. Try not to get too stimulated during the day. d. Avoid taking naps during the day. 154. Madeline uses a non-prescription drug on a regular basis because she likes the euphoric feeling it gives her.

Some of the side effects she experiences are bloodshot eyes and poor short-term memory. What has Madeline been using? a. hashish b. cocaine c. heroin d. LSD 155. Which stage of sleep is characterized by sleep spindles, which appear against a background of mixed, mostly

lower frequency EEG activity? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. REM 156. Bryan finds that, where he used to need only one, he now needs two or more sleeping pills to fall asleep.

What does this indicate? a. He has become psychologically addicted to sleeping pills. b. He is using sleeping pills as a recreational drug. c. He has become physically addicted to sleeping pills. d. He has developed a tolerance to sleeping pills.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 157. For the past two weeks, Cameron has been taking a mild sedative to help him fall asleep. What is he likely to

experience over time? a. He will need to take a larger dose in order to fall asleep because, over time, sedatives become less effective. b. He can take less of the drug because the effects of sedatives tend to be cumulative. c. He will spend more of the night dreaming than he did without the sedative. d. After two weeks his insomnia should be cured, and he can stop using the sedative. 158. What metaphor did William James use to describe the changing nature of consciousness? a. stream b. flower garden c. incomplete picture puzzle

d. partially submerged iceberg

159. What happens when we set the clock ahead in the spring for Daylight Savings Time? a. There is a reduction in industrial accidents associated with changing day length. b. There is an increase in traffic accidents for a week after the switch. c. There are damaging effects to the pineal gland. d. There is an improvement in quality of sleep for people in the Southern Hemisphere. 160. Renee is experiencing distortions in her sensory and perceptual processes. Additionally, she is exhibiting

paranoia, nausea, and “jumbled” thought processes. Which type of drug is Renee most likely under the influence of? a. stimulant b. hallucinogen c. sedative d. opioid 161. Which statement about dreams is NOT accurate? a. Dreams are not as bizarre as widely assumed. b. Dreams have had a profound impact on art and culture. c. Dreamers can be affected by external stimuli while the person sleeps. d. Dreams occur only during REM sleep. 162. Sebastian lives in a small Toronto apartment above a busy street. What would we predict about the content

of Sebastian’s dreams, compared to someone living on a quiet farm in the countryside? a. Sebastian’s dreams are more likely to feature falling. b. Sebastian’s dreams are more likely to feature strangers. c. Sebastian’s dreams are more likely to feature financial concerns. d. Sebastian’s dreams are more likely to feature traffic.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 163. Brittany had a dream in which she was arrested by a gorilla. Brittany is convinced the dream represents an

unconscious desire to cancel her upcoming wedding. What is Brittany’s unconscious desire to cancel the wedding in Freudian terms? a. an interpretation of random neural activity in lower brain centres b. an attempt to work through problems she is currently experiencing in her life c. the latent content of the dream d. the manifest content of the dream 164. Jackson broke his back when he fell off the roof. He was in tremendous pain while he was in the hospital.

What type of drug did Jackson’s physician most likely prescribe to help him deal with the pain while his back healed? a. amphetamines b. opiates c. hallucinogens d. sedatives 165. Esraa often streams TV shows in bed before falling asleep. She has noticed that the type of content she is

watching (e.g., violent or sexual) tends to show up in her dreams that night. Which of the following theorists would most readily explain this? a. Sigmund Freud b. Rosalind Cartwright c. J. Allan Hobson d. Robert McCarley 166. Tai’s wife cannot sleep through the night. She claims that her husband seems to stop breathing in his sleep and

then suddenly jerks awake, gasping for breath. This not only disturbs his sleep, but also awakens her. What sleep disorder does Tai likely have? a. narcolepsy b. sleep apnea c. somnambulism d. night terrors 167. With what state of consciousness is the delta wave electroencephalograph pattern associated? a. deep sleep b. dreaming c. agitation

d. a waking state

168. Recent surveys suggest that between 4 and 6 percent of postsecondary students in Canada report

nonmedical use of drugs to enhance their academic performance. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be abused in this way? a. OxyContin b. psilocybin c. Adderall d. Quaalude 169. Which state of consciousness is associated with beta waves, dreaming, rapid eye movements, and profound

muscle relaxation? a. stage 1 sleep b. stage 2 sleep c. REM sleep d. relaxed wakefulness

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 170. What is a type of amphetamine that can be smoked? a. ecstasy b. crystal meth c. crack

d. crank

171. Which drug is least likely to cause a fatal overdose? a. heroin b. cocaine c. barbiturates

d. LSD

172. Studies examining the effects of meditation on brain structure have found that experienced meditators have

shown differences in all the following regions EXCEPT which one? a. the brainstem b. the frontal lobe c. the somatosensory cortex d. the visual cortex 173. During what stage of sleep are night terrors most likely to occur? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 c. stage 2

d. stage 3

174. Stephen wanders about while remaining asleep. What is Stephen’s condition called? a. apnea b. somnambulism c. narcolepsy

d. agnosia

175. Aimee is taking a prescription drug to control her back pain. She finds that when she takes the drug, she

experiences some short-term drowsiness and nausea. What type of drug has Aimee’s physician prescribed? a. opioid b. stimulant c. hallucinogen d. sedative 176. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the use of sleeping pills? a. There is some danger of overdose. b. They reduce the proportion of time spent in slow-wave sleep. c. They gradually become less effective with continued use. d. They are a good long-term solution for insomnia. 177. Bailey is hooked up to an electroencephalograph (EEG) in a sleep lab. She has been asleep for just over an

hour now, and her EEG is showing low-amplitude, irregular brain wave patterns. Her breathing and pulse rate are irregular, and her eyes are darting back and forth beneath her closed eyelids. What can the researcher conclude about Bailey’s state of consciousness? a. She is in stage 2 sleep. b. She suffers from a sleep disorder. c. She has just entered REM sleep. d. She has just entered stage 3 sleep. 178. What is the term for a progressive decrease in one’s response to a drug with repeated use? a. habituation b. dependency c. tolerance

d. withdrawal

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 179. What are psychoactive drugs? a. drugs that act primarily on serotonin receptors b. illicit or illegal drugs that alter emotional or psychological states c. drugs that alter emotional state, behavioural functioning, and mental condition d. prescription medications that are used for the treatment of mental disorders, including sleep disorders 180. What does the role-playing theory of hypnosis offered by Barber and Spanos suggest about the hypnotized

subject? a. He enters into a trance state and acts out hypnotic suggestions. b. He knows that he is only pretending. c. He is in a normal state but acts out the role of a hypnotized person. d. He fakes a hypnotic state. 181. When can we expect to do the most dreaming, given the cyclical nature of sleep? a. in the middle of the night’s sleep b. toward the beginning of the night’s sleep c. in NREM sleep

d. toward the end of the night’s sleep

182. Which of the following differences in sleep patterns is FALSE? a. Men tend to get less sleep, on average, than women. b. Those with high incomes tend to sleep less, on average, than those with moderate incomes. c. Unmarried adults sleep less, on average, than married adults. d. Women tend to have more difficulty falling and staying asleep, on average, than men. 183. Shelby took part in a research study in which, for three consecutive nights, she was awakened each time she

entered REM sleep. What will happen when Shelby is back at home? a. She will spend extra time in REM sleep for several nights. b. She will develop insomnia and show general disturbances in her sleep patterns. c. She will spend less time in REM sleep than she did before she took part in the study. d. She will spend extra time in both slow-wave and REM sleep for several nights. 184. What does the sleep cycle tend to contain as it recurs through the night? a. more slow-wave sleep and less REM b. more slow-wave sleep and more REM c. less slow-wave sleep and less REM

d. less slow-wave sleep and more REM

185. Which statements does NOT accurately describe the debate over whether alcoholism is a disease? a. The question of whether alcoholism is a disease is a matter of definition. b. More research is needed to determine whether or not alcoholism is a disease. c. One can inherit a genetic vulnerability to alcoholism. d. Alcoholism disrupts a variety of vital functions.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 186. Maryam is a shift worker, so she has to wake up at 5:00 a.m. and she goes to sleep at 9:00 p.m. According

to research, at which of the following times of day is Maryam most likely to experience mind wandering? a. 6:00 a.m. b. 10:00 a.m. c. 2:00 p.m. d. 5:00 p.m. 187. Dr. Singh is observing Robert in a sleep lab. Dr. Singh intends to wake Robert each time he begins REM

sleep. At what point should Robert be awakened, based on the electroencephalograph (EEG) recordings? a. onset of low-voltage, high-frequency beta waves b. onset of alpha wave activity c. onset of sleep spindles d. onset of theta wave activity 188. Dakota is taking a prescription drug, and one of the side effects of the drug is an increase in the stimulation of

ascending fibres in the reticular activating system. What is Dakota likely to experience? a. He will begin to dream during stage 3 and 4 sleep. b. He will have difficulty falling asleep. c. He will no longer experience REM sleep. d. He will want to sleep all the time. 189. Fariha is in a drowsy and relaxed state before ultimately falling asleep. This transition would most likely be

associated with a change from _______ waves to _______ waves in her brain. a. alpha; beta b. alpha; theta c. beta; alpha d. beta; theta 190. Which statement best describes sleepwalking? a. It is dangerous to awaken a sleepwalker. b. Sleepwalking typically occurs while the person is dreaming. c. There appears to be a genetic predisposition to sleepwalking. d. Sleepwalking is correlated with stressful events. 191. Elderly males are more likely than younger individuals or females to develop which of the following two sleep

disorders? a. insomnia and narcolepsy b. sleep apnea and REM sleep behaviour disorder c. sleep apnea and narcolepsy d. insomnia and REM sleep behaviour disorder

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 192. Julie has been hypnotized so that she can experience age-regression. She is currently sucking her thumb and

babbling. What could you expect to observe about her behaviour? a. It will replicate her experience as an infant. b. It will be typical of all infants. c. It will resemble the behaviour of an adult pretending to be an infant. d. It will become more and more authentic the longer she is under hypnosis. 193. Anna has noticed that for the past three weeks she is unable to sleep for more than five hours at a time, even

though she used to regularly get eight hours of sleep per night. She wakes early in the morning and just can’t fall back to sleep. What has Anna developed? a. sleep apnea b. pseudoinsomnia c. somnambulism d. insomnia 194. Before being hypnotized, half the participants in a study are told that they will know that they are close to

being hypnotized because they will feel their left hand start to tingle. The other half of participants are not told this. At the end of the study, the majority of participants who were hypnotized in the first group reported tingling while none in the second group did. Which of the following theories of hypnosis does this support? a. hypno-inductive theory b. dissociation theory c. social-cognitive theory d. divided-consciousness theory 195. Mindfulness meditation is ______________ approach, transcendental meditation incorporates

____________, and loving-kindness meditation involves ____________. a. a focused-attention; open monitoring; open monitoring b. an open-monitoring; open monitoring; focused attention c. a focused-attention; focused attention; open monitoring d. an open-monitoring; focused attention; both 196. Jacob is attached to an electroencephalograph, and it is recording brain waves at 20 cycles per second.

What state is Jacob most likely in? a. deeply relaxed and meditating b. in very deep sleep c. alert and awake d. lightly sleeping 197. “Manny got out of bed and began doing calisthenics during REM sleep, probably because he was dreaming

about boot camp.” What is inaccurate with this statement? a. Research shows that no dreaming takes place in REM sleep. b. Research shows that we are virtually paralyzed in REM sleep. c. Sleep is a relaxed condition of the body and, as such, precludes physical activity. d. Manny was never in boot camp so he is not likely to be dreaming about it.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 198. Dr. Harrigan is reading an EEG from a patient in his sleep lab, and he notices the brainwaves change from

being very short to being very tall. What aspect of the brainwave is Dr. Harrigan noticing? a. amplitude b. frequency c. channel d. distribution 199. Which of the following individuals is at the greatest risk of developing Parkinson’s disease within the next 10

years? a. Madeline, who has insomnia b. Samia, who has narcolepsy c. Kamran, who has REM sleep behaviour disorder d. Jonatha, who has sleep apnea 200. Which of the following statements about sleep patterns over the lifespan is FALSE? a. The total time spent sleeping follows a general decline throughout life. b. Infants have only two stages of sleep and older children have more. c. The proportion of REM sleep follows a general decline throughout life. d. Individuals ages 35 to 44 report the least amount of total sleep. 201. What is hypnosis? a. a procedure for inducing a state of heightened suggestibility b. a state of altered consciousness that is similar to sedation or hallucination c. a form of meditation that leads to dream-like consciousness d. a form of self-delusion 202. Which theory of dreaming proposes that dreams are the brain’s attempt to make sense out of bursts of neural

activity during sleep? a. activation-synthesis theory c. wish-fulfillment theory

b. reticular-activation theory d. problem-solving theory

203. What types of awareness are included in the concept of consciousness? a. awareness of internal and external stimuli b. awareness of internal stimuli and awareness of thinking c. awareness of self and awareness of internal stimuli d. awareness of external stimuli and perceptions of those external stimuli 204. Which term refers to the experience of task-unrelated thoughts? a. mind wandering b. variations in awareness c. controlled daydreaming

d. consciousness

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 205. Which of the following sleep disturbances was NOT mentioned in the textbook as having a genetic

component? a. sleep apnea c. narcolepsy

b. REM sleep behaviour disorder d. night terrors

206. Alonzo has just consumed a substance that provides him with increased alertness and energy, along with

reduced fatigue. However, it also makes him more talkative, increases his blood pressure, reduces his appetite, and makes him restless. What has Alonzo likely ingested? a. an amphetamine b. THC c. LSD d. a sedative 207. Harpreet is hooked up to an electroencephalograph (EEG) in a sleep lab. As the researcher watches the

printout from the EEG, theta waves appear. What can the researcher conclude, based on this information? a. Harpreet is still awake but is relaxed and drowsy. b. Harpreet is currently in REM sleep. c. Harpreet has just entered stage 1 sleep. d. Harpreet has just entered stage 3 sleep. 208. Of the following statements regarding sleepwalking, which is most accurate? a. Sleepwalking occurs in REM sleep. b. It is not safe to awaken a sleepwalker. c. Sleepwalkers are prone to accidents.

d. Sleepwalkers are acting out a dream.

209. Kelvin has a recurring dream in which he is embarrassed to realize that he has arrived at school completely

naked. After reading a book on Freudian dream interpretation, Kelvin is convinced that the dream represents a desire to return to the “paradise” of childhood. This desire would represent which of the following? a. day residue b. manifest content c. latent content d. activation synthesis 210. According to clinical guidelines published in the Journal of the American Medical Association, which of the

following should be the first line of treatment for insomnia? a. benzodiazepine sedatives b. stimulus control techniques c. cognitive-behavioural therapy d. non-benzodiazepine sedatives 211. Danielle had a dream in which she was playing cards with an elephant. What does the elephant in Danielle’s

dream represent, according to the activation-synthesis model of dreaming? a. an attempt to work through problems she is currently experiencing in her life b. an interpretation of random neuron activity in lower brain centres c. the manifest content of the dream d. the latent content of the dream

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 212. Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to get less sleep than the average person? a. Maria, who is married and earns a high income as CEO of a company b. Jimmy, who is single and earns a moderate income as a salesperson c. Anna, who is single and earns a moderate income as a cook d. Evan, who is married and earns a high income as a lawyer 213. Which of the following was carfentanil originally designed for? a. treating extreme pain in severe cases b. treating hyperactivity c. acting as a powerful sleeping aid

d. sedating large animals such as elephants

214. Patients in a vegetative state are seemingly awake but typically are not able to respond to the world around

them and cannot follow commands such as “raise your hand.” Research conducted by Adrian Owen, though, examined these patients’ brain functioning using fMRI. Patients were asked to imagine playing tennis, or to imagine walking through their own house. Some patients’ brain activation was identical to that of control participants. What does this suggest? a. There is no difference between conscious and unconscious processes. b. Vegetative patients typically lack conscious awareness except under laboratory conditions. c. Vegetative patients typically have conscious awareness except under laboratory conditions. d. Some vegetative patients retain conscious awareness, even though they normally cannot demonstrate it. 215. Dr. Samson, an anthropologist, studied the sleep habits of the Hadza tribe in rural Tanzania. Which of the

following was NOT one of the conclusions of this research as outlined in the textbook? a. At any given time, approximately 40 percent of the tribe members were awake. b. During the 20 days of study, there were only a few minutes when everyone in the group was asleep. c. Individual differences in chronotypes are helpful for a society. d. Variation in chronotypes were unusually high in this group. 216. Participants in a study were asked to complete a creativity task after either a nap or a period of rest. Which

pattern of results was most likely found? a. The nap groups outperformed the rest group. b. The rest group outperformed the nap groups. c. The nap group that experienced REM sleep outperformed the other nap group and the rest group. d. There were no significant differences between resting and napping. 217. What is common among people who suffer from sleep apnea? a. brain lesions b. low body weight c. increased risk of heart failure

d. somnambulism

218. What is the most widely used recreational drug in North America? a. cocaine b. alcohol c. MDMA

d. marijuana

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 219. Which statement about culture and dreams is NOT accurate? a. Some basic dream themes appear to be nearly universal across cultures. b. Dreams do not play a significant role in Inuit culture. c. In many non-Western cultures, dreams are seen as important sources of information (e.g., about the

future or the spiritual world). d. In Western cultures, dreams are largely written off as insignificant. 220. What does an electromyograph record? a. contractions of the heart b. eye movements c. brain wave activity

d. muscular activity and tension

221. Cody is visiting his pen pal in a tropical, non-industrialized village. What is Cody likely to observe about the

inhabitants of the village? a. They are less likely than Canadians are to encourage co-sleeping. b. They experience less REM sleep than is typical for Canadians. c. They experience less slow-wave sleep than is typical for Canadians. d. They are more likely than Canadians to take a nap each day. 222. What is the rare sleep disorder in which a person will, without warning, go directly from being awake into

REM sleep? a. hypersomnia c. sleep apnea

b. narcolepsy d. somnambulism

223. Imagine that a human was born with no pons. What would you predict about sleep for this person? a. no REM sleep b. constant sleep c. no sleep

d. no NREM sleep

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1

Erika Erika has been having trouble with sleep lately. In particular, she finds that her mind races with minor worries when she tries to go to sleep. When she does fall asleep, she doesn’t tend to stay asleep for very long. One night, Erika has three glasses of wine before bed. She falls asleep easily that night, but even after eight hours of sleep, she wakes up feeling unrested. Erika talked to her friend Betsy about her sleep problems, and Betsy invited Erika to join her for her weekly yoga class. Betsy claimed that yoga really helped her to sleep well. In the class, Erika learned how to do some basic meditation. That night, Erika tried some of the meditation techniques just before going to bed. She had a great sleep and woke up feeling much more refreshed than she had in weeks. 224. What would you expect to see if you were to observe Erika’s brain wave patterns for a night or two after she started sleeping better? a. REM rebound b. absence of sleep spindles c. 90 percent of sleep time spent in alpha waves d. no evidence of dreaming 225. What can be said about the optimal amount of sleep? a. It is 10 hours per night. b. It is between 10pm and 5am. c. It is 8 hours per night.

d. It varies from person to person.

226. Which instrument would be used to measure muscle tension? a. polygraph b. electroencephalograph c. electrooculograph

d. electromyograph

227. A hypnotist is putting on a demonstration, and your friend Benjamin is thinking about volunteering. He is

nervous because he is afraid to do things he would normally not do. What should you tell Benjamin, based on research into the effects of hypnosis? a. People lose all personal control when under the effects of hypnosis. b. Most people have a protective cognitive barrier that prevents them from doing things they consider unacceptable. c. Hypnosis doesn’t really work, so he shouldn’t bother volunteering. d. Sometimes people will do things under hypnosis that they would normally consider unacceptable. 228. Which trip would cause the most problems with your sleep cycle? a. flying three hours north b. flying three hours south c. flying three hours west

d. flying three hours east

229. What will a person experience after being selectively deprived of REM sleep?? a. emotionality b. NREM c. hypochondriasis

d. REM rebound

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 230. Riley is happy this morning because Jennifer, his four-month-old infant, finally slept through the night for the

first time. What would comparisons of EEG recordings show if they were available for both Riley and Jennifer? a. Jennifer spent only half as much time in REM sleep. b. Jennifer spent more than twice as much time in REM sleep. c. Both Riley and Jennifer spent the same proportion of time in NREM sleep. d. Riley spent half as much time in NREM sleep. 231. An electroencephalograph (EEG) is recording Alyssa’s brain activity. She has just entered stage 1 sleep when

there is a sudden, loud crash in the sleep lab. What is most likely? a. The EEG will temporarily show a flat line before returning to theta waves. b. There will be a sleep spindle recorded on the EEG at the time of the crash. c. The crash will wake Alyssa from her relatively light sleep. d. The noise of the crash will be incorporated into the dream Alyssa is currently experiencing. 232. Noor has episodes in which she experiences a sudden and irresistible urge to sleep during normal waking

periods. Which disorder does Noor most likely suffer from? a. hypersomnia b. insomnia c. a lack of REM rebound d. narcolepsy 233. What regulates sleep and waking and consists of the afferent fibres running through the reticular formation that

influence physiological arousal? a. cerebellum b. nucleus accumbens c. medulla d. ascending reticular activating system 234. What happens to the average amount of total sleep time with advancing age? a. increases b. declines in men but increases in women c. declines in women but increases in men

d. declines

235. What is dissociation? a. role-playing by hypnotized subjects in response to situational cues b. a splitting of mental processes into two simultaneous streams of awareness c. a hypnotized subject’s willingness to act out the hypnotist’s suggestions d. a loss of inhibition by hypnotized subjects 236. Research on consciousness dwindled in the early part of the 20th century after psychology was redefined as

the science of behaviour. Which psychologist is most strongly associated with this shift in the field? a. Roger Sperry b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Sigmund Freud d. John Watson

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 237. What is a potential problem with benzodiazepines and sleeping pills? a. They do not help people sleep. b. They cause irreversible emotional or psychological states. c. Users’ mortality rate is significantly higher than nonusers. d. They are rarely combined with alcohol. 238. As part of a research study, Kevin and Jordan are allowed to practise a mirror-tracing task. In this task, they

must trace a shape on a piece of paper, but their direct view of their hand and the shape are blocked, and they can only see the reflection of them in a mirror. After practising, both will be tested 12 hours later and their tracing errors counted. During this interval, Kevin is allowed to sleep, while Jordan is not. Which of the following would you predict regarding their performance? a. Kevin’s performance will be the same as at the end of practice; Jordan’s will be worse. b. Jordan’s performance will be the same as at the end of practice; Kevin’s will be better. c. Kevin’s performance will be better than at the end of practice; Jordan’s will be worse. d. Both Kevin’s and Jordan’s performance will be better than at the end of practice, but Kevin’s will show more improvement. 239. Which group should have the highest mortality risk? a. people who typically sleep fewer than seven hours per night b. people who typically sleep more than ten hours per night c. people who typically sleep seven to eight hours per night d. people who experience pseudo-insomnia 240. Brandon’s endocrine system is releasing high levels of growth hormones. Which of the following is most

likely? a. Brandon woke up less than an hour ago. b. Brandon will fall asleep in the next 60 minutes. c. Brandon fell asleep less than an hour ago. d. Brandon will wake up in less than 60 minutes. 241. Megan is working through an extremely difficult calculus problem. What sort of brain wave pattern would be

recorded if the overall electrical activity in her brain was being recorded at this time? a. fewer than 4 cycles per second b. between 4 and 7 cycles per second c. between 8 and 12 cycles per second

d. between 13 and 24 cycles per second

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 242. The effects of many psychoactive drugs depend to a large extent on users’ expectations. Which of your text’s

unifying themes does this finding illustrate? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. d. Our experience of the world is highly subjective. 243. What tends to happen if you abruptly stop the use of a sedative for the treatment of insomnia? a. microsleep b. narcolepsy c. symptoms of withdrawal

d. sleep apnea

244. In terms of minimizing mortality risk, which of the following is the “ideal” amount of sleep? a. 6 hours per night b. 7 hours per night c. 9 hours per night

d. 10+ hours per night

245. Which of the following is REM sleep NOT associated with? a. memory consolidation b. increased creativity c. somnambulism

d. dreaming

246. In 2012, approximately how many of Canadians reported that they had used cannabis at some point in their

lifetime? a. 10 percent c. 40 percent

b. 20 percent d. 80 percent

247. Paige is on the couch when her legs make a violent twitch. This muscular contraction is called

_______________, and it is characteristic of ____________ sleep. a. a hypnic jerk; stage 1 b. somnambulism; stage 3 c. a sleep spindle; stage 2 d. an extinction spike; stage 3 to REM 248. According to Freud, a sexually frustrated person would probably have highly erotic dreams. What does this

reflect about Freud’s view of the principal purpose of a dream? a. The dream’s purpose is repression of unconscious desires. b. The dream’s purpose is conflict resolution. c. The dream’s purpose is wish fulfillment. d. The dream’s purpose is sexual gratification. 249. What is the state of consciousness known as sleep, according to behavioural and physiological research? a. active in terms of mental changes, but inactive in terms of physiological changes b. several distinct stages, each with its own characteristic level of mental and physical activity c. a relatively uniform experience, with the exception of periods of dreaming d. a uniform state in which the brain is “turned off” temporarily Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 250. Shelly has been feeling extremely tired for the past six months, even though she is getting lots of sleep. Shelly

sees her family doctor and asks if there is something that can be prescribed to help her feel more alert and give her more energy. If her doctor does prescribe a medication, what is it most likely to be? a. hallucinogen b. oxycodone c. amphetamine d. barbiturate 251. While Marta was hypnotized, she vividly recalled the events of her first birthday party. However, when the

events she described were compared with an actual video from her birthday party, most of the things she described did not actually happen. Which theory is consistent with this example? a. role-playing theory b. divided-consciousness theory c. dissociative theory d. wish-fulfillment theory 252. Jamal is 40 years old; his sister Jasmine is 30 years old. Recently they both came home for their parents’

anniversary party and stayed overnight. What would you expect to hear if you were to walk through the house while they were sleeping? a. All members of the family will be snoring because nearly all humans snore at some point in the night. b. Jamal is more likely to be snoring than his sister because he is older and male. c. If their parents are snoring, then both siblings are equally likely to be snoring because snoring is hereditary. d. Jamal is more likely to snore during slow-wave sleep, but Jasmine is more likely to snore during REM sleep. 253. There is evidence that people under surgical anesthesia occasionally hear and remember comments that were

made during their surgeries. What does this evidence suggest? a. There is no difference between conscious and unconscious processes. b. Psychic abilities are more pronounced when certain types of drugs are administered. c. We have the ability to resist the effects of anesthesia. d. People continue to maintain some awareness during times of unconsciousness. 254. Seymour used to get quite a “buzz” from his first cup of coffee in the morning. Now he finds that he doesn’t

start to feel alert until his third cup. What has happened to Seymour? a. He is experiencing the effects of caffeine withdrawal. b. He has become caffeine intolerant. c. He has developed a caffeine dependency. d. He has developed a tolerance for caffeine. 255. Monira’s alarm clock wakes her up at 7:30 a.m. each workday, and she falls asleep around midnight. But on

the weekends, she stays up later and sleeps in until 11:30 a.m. or even noon. What is this mismatch between Monira’s sleep times on workdays versus weekends called? a. social jet lag b. shift rotation c. transient shift work d. schedule-induced jet lag Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 256. Pascal took part in a research study in which, for three consecutive nights, he was awakened each time he

entered slow-wave sleep. What will happen when Pascal is back at home? a. He will develop insomnia and show general disturbances in his sleep patterns. b. He will spend extra time in both slow-wave and REM sleep for several nights. c. He will spend less time in slow-wave sleep than he did before he took part in the study. d. He will spend extra time in slow-wave sleep for several nights. 257. According to Freud, which of the following individuals would be most likely to have a dream with a high

degree of sexual content? a. Andrea, a married woman who has an average sex life b. Kevin, a single man who frequently engages in one-night stands c. Hazel, a single woman who is unhappy that she has not had sexual relations in a long time d. Jonathan, a married man who has an above-average sex life 258. What is NOT a long-term benefit of meditation? a. It increases one’s pain tolerance. b. It lowers the levels of some stress. c. It enhances immune system functioning. d. It reduces the incidence of cancer in its practitioners. 259. Which type of treatment does NOT produce more long-lasting benefits in the treatment of insomnia than do

drug therapies? a. cognitive-behavioural therapy c. sleep hygiene education

b. relaxation training d. vigorous activity

260. Valerie wakes on her own each day at about 7:30 a.m., and falls asleep around midnight. Which of the

following does NOT represent one of Valerie’s circadian rhythms? a. waking each day at 7:30 a.m. and falling asleep around midnight b. having releases of human growth hormone in a relatively brief burst around 1:00 a.m. each night c. having peak alertness from approximately 3:00 p.m. to 6:00 p.m. each day d. eating supper in the cafeteria each evening at 6:00 p.m.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 261. A stage hypnotist is sometimes successful in getting people to disrobe in public. What is the best explanation

for this phenomenon? a. When hypnotized, a subject comes under the total control of the hypnotist and will follow any instructions to the letter. b. The subject is a confederate of the hypnotist and disrobes while pretending to be hypnotized. c. The hypnotist is careful to select only those subjects who look as if they would enjoy disrobing in public. d. When hypnotized, subjects can convince themselves that they cannot be held responsible for their

actions. 262. Mark is a middle-aged man who has recently begun to talk and flail about while he is sleeping, which is very

aggravating to his wife. It seems as if he is acting out a dream. Which sleep disorder is most similar to Mark’s problem? a. REM sleep behaviour disorder b. sleep apnea c. somnambulism d. night terrors Erika Erika has been having trouble with sleep lately. In particular, she finds that her mind races with minor worries when she tries to go to sleep. When she does fall asleep, she doesn’t tend to stay asleep for very long. One night, Erika has three glasses of wine before bed. She falls asleep easily that night, but even after eight hours of sleep, she wakes up feeling unrested. Erika talked to her friend Betsy about her sleep problems, and Betsy invited Erika to join her for her weekly yoga class. Betsy claimed that yoga really helped her to sleep well. In the class, Erika learned how to do some basic meditation. That night, Erika tried some of the meditation techniques just before going to bed. She had a great sleep and woke up feeling much more refreshed than she had in weeks. 263. What is most likely to happen if Erika continues to drink that much alcohol before bed every night? a. Erika will develop an aversion to the alcohol, because it has become associated with insomnia. b. Erika will have an increase in slow-wave sleep each night, but no increase in REM sleep. c. Eventually, Erika will start having a solid sleep every night as the alcohol allows her to reduce her rumination. d. Erika will develop a tolerance to the alcohol, so she will require more alcohol to have the same effect. 264. Which of the following drugs has the lowest risk of psychological dependence? a. OxyContin b. Seconal c. cannabis

d. alcohol

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 265. Compare and contrast the “role-playing” and “altered state” views of hypnosis.

266. Describe the effects of complete, partial, and selective sleep deprivation. What, if anything, do these effects

tell us about why we sleep?

267. What do people tend to dream about, and what theories have been proposed to explain why people dream

at all?

268. Compare REM and NREM sleep with respect to EEG activity, muscular activity, and cognitive activity.

269. Given what you know about the effects of marijuana, both short term and long term, do you think that

marijuana should have been legalized in Canada? Support your answer using at least three pieces of evidence.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. c 6. c 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. d 24. d 25. c 26. b

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. c 33. a 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. c 38. c 39. d 40. c 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. c 49. a 50. b 51. c 52. d 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 55. b 56. b 57. d 58. a 59. d 60. c 61. a 62. d 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. d 67. d 68. b 69. a 70. d 71. d 72. c 73. d 74. b 75. b 76. a 77. c 78. b 79. b 80. a 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 83. c 84. d 85. c 86. b 87. b 88. d 89. c 90. c 91. c 92. c 93. a 94. a 95. c 96. d 97. a 98. d 99. c 100. b 101. d 102. b 103. b 104. c 105. b 106. b 107. d 108. b 109. a 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 111. c 112. a 113. a 114. b 115. d 116. b 117. c 118. c 119. d 120. b 121. a 122. a 123. b 124. c 125. a 126. c 127. b 128. c 129. c 130. c 131. b 132. d 133. a 134. c 135. d 136. c 137. d

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 138. b 139. c 140. d 141. b 142. a 143. d 144. c 145. d 146. b 147. b 148. a 149. a 150. d 151. a 152. b 153. c 154. a 155. b 156. d 157. a 158. a 159. b 160. b 161. d 162. d 163. c 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 166. b 167. a 168. c 169. c 170. b 171. d 172. d 173. d 174. b 175. a 176. d 177. c 178. c 179. c 180. c 181. d 182. c 183. a 184. d 185. b 186. b 187. a 188. b 189. b 190. c 191. b 192. c 193. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 194. c 195. d 196. c 197. b 198. a 199. c 200. c 201. a 202. a 203. a 204. a 205. b 206. a 207. c 208. c 209. c 210. c 211. b 212. d 213. d 214. d 215. d 216. c 217. c 218. b 219. b 220. d 221. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 222. b 223. a 224. a 225. d 226. d 227. d 228. d 229. d 230. b 231. c 232. d 233. d 234. d 235. b 236. d 237. c 238. b 239. b 240. c 241. d 242. d 243. c 244. b 245. c 246. c 247. a 248. c

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 249. b 250. c 251. a 252. b 253. d 254. d 255. a 256. d 257. c 258. d 259. d 260. d 261. d 262. a 263. d 264. c 265. Both views are attempts to account for known hypnotic phenomena, which include heightened suggestibility,

relaxation, focused attention, and enhanced fantasy. Proponents of the “role-playing” view regard hypnosis as a normal state of consciousness in which suggestible people act “as if” they are hypnotized by enacting their role expectations about how hypnotized people should behave. In support of this view, there is evidence that many supposed hypnotic phenomena can be duplicated by nonhypnotized subjects. Other theorists continue to insist that hypnosis is a unique, altered state of consciousness. For example, Ernest Hilgard maintains that hypnosis creates a dissociation in consciousness—a splitting off of mental processes into two separate, simultaneous streams of awareness. One of the streams responds to the hypnotist while the other remains a “hidden observer.” This view is made plausible by the fact that divided consciousness is a common, normal experience (as in “driving on autopilot,” for example). At present, there is no resolution to the debate between these two opposing views.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 266. Complete sleep deprivation for one or more nights is associated with feelings of sleepiness, irritability, and difficulty

concentrating. Partial sleep deprivation is associated with impaired attention, reaction time, coordination, and decision making, and possibly with negative effects on endocrine and immune functioning. All these suggest that cognitive and motor deficits occur when a person is sleep deprived. The existence of distinct sleep stages implies that each stage may have its own function. To investigate this possibility, researchers have selectively deprived subjects of either REM sleep or slow-wave sleep. In both kinds of selective deprivation, subjects experience an increased need for that stage of sleep specifically. In addition, both REM deprivation and slow-wave deprivation produce a “rebound effect” in which subjects make up for lost time when allowed to sleep normally again. Recent evidence suggests that these stages of sleep are particularly important in memory consolidation and therefore are important to learning and memory. 267. Above all, dreams tend to be personal. They generally involve people we know, in settings that are familiar to us.

We are particularly likely to dream about current worries, conflicts, and stressors. There is no universally agreedupon explanation for why we dream. Freud proposed that dreams are a form of “wishful thinking” in which we have the opportunity to gratify impulses that have gone unfulfilled in our waking lives. Other theorists take a more cognitive view, proposing that dreams provide an opportunity to engage in creative problem solving. Both of these views mesh nicely with available data regarding the typical content of dreams. A very different view is the activation-synthesis model of dreaming, which proposes that dreams are simply by-products of neural activation during REM sleep. In this view, the content of dreams is almost incidental. Whereas the wish-fulfillment and problem-solving theories both regard the “wide awake” brain as the effect of dreaming, the activation-synthesis model views the “wide awake” brain as the cause of dreaming. 268. NREM sleep refers to stages 1 through 3, collectively, and thus is characterized by varied EEG activity. As sleep

progresses through these stages, sleep becomes progressively deeper; brain waves correspondingly decrease in frequency and increase in amplitude. Muscle tension also decreases as sleep deepens, but even in stage 3, there is sufficient muscle tone to allow the possibility of sleepwalking. Dreams occasionally occur during NREM sleep, but these tend to be brief and fragile. REM sleep is also a deep sleep, in the sense that it is relatively difficult to awaken a person from this stage. Muscle tone is so relaxed as to leave the body virtually paralyzed, precluding the possibility of sleepwalking. The eyes, however, move beneath closed lids. The EEG shows beta activity, as if the person was wide awake. This paradoxical finding can be accounted for by the fact that REM is the stage during which most dreaming occurs.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 1 269. A good answer will provide evidence consistent with the position chosen (either side of the argument can be

supported). Pro-legalization: There are a number of therapeutic benefits to THC use, including treatment of glaucoma and chemotherapy-induced nausea/vomiting. The risk of dependence (both physiological and psychological) is relatively low, and there is little risk of overdose for users. Although there are some respiratory risks associated with smoking marijuana, if THC is administered in other forms (e.g., oils, foods) there is no risk to respiratory systems. Intoxication associated with THC does cause impairment that is contraindicated for driving and other dangerous tasks, but this is quite similar to other legal drugs such as alcohol and prescription sedatives. Anti-legalization: Although there are apparent benefits to THC use for medicinal purposes, this is not the most common use of marijuana. A large proportion of adolescents are already using marijuana, and this rate may increase with legalization. Intoxication with THC is associated with sluggishness, short-term memory deficits, and anxiety or paranoia in some instances. Chronic use of large doses of smoked marijuana has been associated with lung cancer and other respiratory diseases, as well as long-term impairments in attention and memory.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What is the hemp plant from which marijuana, hashish, and THC are derived? a. tobacco b. opium c. cannabis d. poppy 2. Which of the following drugs is NOT an opioid? a. morphine b. heroin c. codeine d. cocaine 3. What is the term for the logical fallacy of mistaking a label or definition for an explanation that is involved in circular reasoning? a. inductive fallacy b. deductive fallacy c. ordinal fallacy d. nominal fallacy 4. Some people have done bizarre or embarrassing things in public while hypnotized. What term is used to describe the increase in willingness to do such behaviours? a. disinhibition b. delusion c. deindividuation d. dissociation 5. Which theory of hypnosis suggests that hypnosis is NOT an altered state of consciousness? a. wish fulfillment b. dissociation c. role-playing d. activation-synthesis 6. Which statement best describes the pattern of sleeping and waking in relation to body temperature? a. We fall asleep as temperature becomes stable and wake as it starts to fluctuate. b. We fall asleep as temperature begins to rise and wake as it drops. c. We fall asleep as temperature begins to drop and wake as it goes up. d. We fall asleep as temperature starts to fluctuate and wake as it becomes stable. 7. At the end of a session of hypnosis, a hypnotherapist may tell the client that he will awaken and not remember any of the hypnotic session. What is this procedure called? a. posthypnotic suggestion b. disinhibition c. anterograde amnesia d. hallucination 8. Your friend has been sleeping six hours each night and is wondering if he is sleep-deprived. Which statement best describes your friend’s sleep patterns? a. Six hours per night is below average, but if your friend feels rested and productive then it might be normal for him. b. Sleep deprivation is defined as fewer than six hours sleep per night, so your friend is close to a risky level. c. Six hours per night is typical and sufficient for most young adults. d. Each person is different and there is no such thing as a typical amount of sleep.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 9. Rachel has bouts of sudden uncontrollable sleepiness during the day. She has fallen asleep while driving, and in the middle of conversations. Which sleep problem does Rachel experience? a. narcolepsy b. insomnia rebound c. somnambulism d. sleep apnea 10. Which term refers to sleep-inducing drugs that tend to decrease central nervous system activation and behavioural activity? a. sedatives b. cannabis c. stimulants d. opiates 11. When is sleepwalking most likely to occur? a. when a person has emotional or psychological problems b. during REM sleep c. during slow-wave sleep d. after a person has been asleep for several hours 12. Which compound drug is related to both amphetamines and hallucinogens? a. LSD b. ecstasy c. speed d. cocaine 13. Peter is in a deep sleep and his brain wave pattern consists of low-frequency delta waves. Which stage of sleep is Peter experiencing? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. REM 14. What does Hilgard’s dissociation theory suggest about hypnosis? a. It is found only in isolated individuals. b. It is a form of role-playing. c. It is identical to meditation. d. It is an altered state of consciousness. 15. What percentage of the population are considered to be exceptionally good hypnotic subjects? a. 1 percent b. 15 percent c. 25 percent d. 50 percent 16. Which of the following methods has been used as a treatment for realigning circadian rhythms? a. meditation b. exercise c. carefully timed administration of oxytocin d. carefully timed exposure to bright light 17. Which category of psychoactive drugs has long been used in the treatment of diarrhea as one of its potential short-term side effects is constipation? a. sedatives b. cannabis c. stimulants d. opiates 18. Which drug is NOT from the same category as the others? a. LSD b. mescaline c. psilocybin d. marijuana

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 19. Which of the following is NOT a common treatment for sleep apnea? a. lifestyle modifications such as losing weight b. drug therapy c. special masks and oral devices to improve airflow d. cognitive-behavioural therapy 20. Psychology began with an interest in the study of consciousness, then consciousness was ignored by behaviourists, then consciousness became an interesting topic again in the 1960s. Which unifying theme in psychology reflects this pattern of study? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. 21. In a 2018 clinical trial that treated patients with MDMA (i.e., ecstasy) alongside psychotherapy, what percentage of the patients no longer met the clinical criteria for diagnosis with post-traumatic stress disorder? a. 16 percent b. 36 percent c. 56 percent d. 76 percent 22. Which category of psychoactive drugs has as one of its principal medical uses the treatment of glaucoma? a. sedatives b. cannabis c. stimulants d. opiates 23. During which stage of sleep does the brain wave pattern resemble that observed when the individual is awake and alert? a. stage 1 b. stage 4 c. REM d. NREM 24. Why might doctors and nurses try to “watch what they say” when performing surgery? a. People under anesthesia occasionally awaken completely during surgery. b. The concentration of other members of the surgical team is disrupted by unnecessary comments. c. The patient’s family members occasionally overhear comments. d. People under anesthesia maintain some awareness. 25. If you normally sleep eight hours each night, and last night you slept for only six hours, which stage of sleep would be most affected by the loss of total sleep time? a. stage 2 b. slow-wave c. NREM d. REM 26. Which category of psychoactive drugs has the greatest risk for developing physical and psychological dependence? a. alcohol b. opioids c. hallucinogens d. cannabis

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 27. Which of the following treatments for narcolepsy has seen modest success rates? a. sertraline b. sedative medications c. transcranial deep-brain stimulation d. stimulant drugs 28. Compared to employees who have set work schedules, which of the following represents the sleep of employees who work rotating shifts? a. less, and poorer quality b. more, but poorer quality c. less, but higher quality d. more, and higher quality 29. If you were awakened while you were experiencing rapid eye movements, what would you probably report? a. that you were afraid b. that you had a headache c. that you had not really been asleep d. that you had been dreaming 30. What is the paradox concerning REM sleep? a. It is a deep sleep, but the person is easy to awaken. b. It is a deep sleep, but the brain waves resemble alert and awake patterns. c. The person is dreaming, but all muscles are very tense. d. The person is dreaming, but the brain wave pattern resembles that of relaxation. 31. Because of benzodiazepine-related overdoses, practitioners frequently look for less risky ways of treating insomnia. Which of the following has NOT been established as an effective alternative to sleep medication? a. cognitive-behavioural therapy b. sleep hygiene education c. relaxation training d. low-grade electroconvulsive shock therapy 32. What is the first line of treatment for insomnia according to the Journal of the American Medical Association? a. exercise b. medication c. meditation d. cognitive-behavioural therapy 33. What is a device that records eye movements? a. electroencephalograph b. electrocardiograph c. electrooculograph d. electromyograph 34. Last night, five-year-old Ross let out a piercing cry and abruptly awakened in a state of panic. What did Ross most likely experience? a. sleep apnea b. a nightmare c. a night terror d. narcolepsy 35. Which of the following are present during both meditation and stage 1 sleep? a. theta waves b. sleep spindles c. beta waves d. delta waves

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 36. If a college student who is struggling to keep from flunking out of school dreams of winning the “student of the year award,” with which theory of dreaming would this dream be most consistent? a. fantasy b. problem solving c. activation-synthesis d. wish fulfillment 37. Which category of psychoactive drugs has the least risk for developing physical and psychological dependence? a. stimulants b. hallucinogens c. alcohol d. sedatives 38. When a person must continue to take a drug to satisfy an intense mental and emotional craving, what is that state called? a. psychological dependence b. physical dependence c. codependence d. tolerance 39. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by the observations that many approaches to meditation are rooted in Eastern religions, and that some societies use hallucinogens in religious practices? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. 40. Amphetamines are increasingly sold as a crystalline powder that can be snorted or injected intravenously. What is the name of this form of amphetamine? a. ice b. crack c. crank d. freebasing 41. Alex is a drug addict who is currently experiencing nausea, cramps, tremors, and pain. Which term best describes this experience? a. tolerance b. intoxication c. withdrawal d. psychological dependence 42. In what phase of the sleep cycle does sleepwalking tend to occur? a. during the first three hours of sleep b. during the last three hours of sleep c. during REM sleep d. during stage 1 NREM sleep 43. If Pauline’s doctor gave her a psychoactive drug that is typically used as a sleeping aid, which type of drug would it be? a. a counterintuitive stimulant b. a benzodiazepine sedative c. a narcotic d. melatonin 44. What tends to occur to REM periods of sleep as the night goes on? a. lengthen b. shorten c. lighten d. deepen

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 45. Which statement best describes an indirect health-related risk associated with recreational drugs? a. Sedatives and alcohol can increase the risk of automobile accidents. b. Alcohol can increase the risk of liver damage. c. Cocaine can increase the risk of heart attacks. d. Marijuana can increase the risk of respiratory disease. 46. What do ADHD and narcolepsy have in common? a. They both involve REM deprivation. b. They are both treated with stimulants. c. They are both more prevalent in females. d. They both present mainly in childhood. 47. What tends to happen in the first four hours of sleep each night? a. There is more slow-wave sleep than REM sleep. b. There is no REM sleep. c. There is more REM sleep than slow-wave sleep d. There is no slow-wave sleep. 48. Drug dealers are beginning to market a smokable form of methamphetamine called “crystal meth.” What is another name for this form of methamphetamine? a. ice b. crack c. crank d. freebasing 49. Which of the altered states discussed in your text has been well established as an effective mild anesthetic treatment for both acute and chronic pain? a. circadian rhythms b. antipsychotics c. sleep d. hypnosis 50. Of the following, which category of psychoactive drugs has the highest risk of lethal overdose? a. hallucinogens b. cannabis c. marijuana d. sedatives 51. Which brain structure results in continuous sleep when severely damaged and produces arousal and alertness when electrically stimulated? a. ascending reticular activating system b. thalamus c. pons d. hypothalamus 52. Which of the following best describes the optimal time for a person to fall asleep? a. 8:00 p.m. b. midnight c. it depends on the person d. 10:00 p.m. 53. Which of the following is a concept proposed by William James to describe the continually changing aspect of consciousness? a. flow of consciousness b. mind wandering c. circadian rhythm d. stream of consciousness

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 54. Which category of psychoactive drugs is used by cancer patients as one of its principal medical uses is the treatment of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting? a. sedatives b. cannabis c. stimulants d. opiates 55. For the day–night cycle to reset the human biological clock, where do receptors in the retina direct light information? a. suprachiasmatic nucleus b. medulla c. pineal gland d. thalamus 56. Which theory of dreaming suggests that the cortex constructs dreams in order to make sense out of neural impulses from subcortical areas of the brain? a. activation-synthesis b. construction c. problem solving d. conservation of energy 57. Which pattern of shift work would allow for the easiest adjustment of sleep-wake cycles? a. shifting from starting at 7 p.m. to starting at 7 a.m. b. shifting from starting at 7 a.m. to starting at 7 p.m. c. shifting from starting at 3 p.m. to starting at 7 a.m. d. shifting from starting at 7 a.m. to starting at 3 p.m. 58. Which risk of marijuana use has been supported by empirical evidence? a. impairments in attention and memory b. long-term sterility or impotence c. increase in the rate of infections d. substantial loss of volume in the frontal lobes 59. Which therapeutic intervention has been demonstrated to be just as effective as medication for treating insomnia? a. cognitive-behavioural therapy b. psychoanalytic therapy c. light therapy d. aromatherapy 60. Malik is a participant in a research study and will be hooked up to physiological devices while sleeping in a sleep lab for several nights. How many nights is it likely to take Malik to adapt to sleeping in the sleep lab? a. one b. two c. three d. five 61. What term is used when a person must continue to take a drug to avoid withdrawal illness? a. tolerance b. codependence c. psychological dependence d. physical dependence 62. Tracy’s brain waves are low frequency and have high amplitude. What stage of sleep is Tracy in? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. REM

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 63. Charlie experiences vivid dreams during REM sleep and he often acts them out in his sleep. For example, he once woke up to find that he had ripped apart his pillow after dreaming about digging for buried treasure with his bare hands. Which of the following disorders fits this example? a. somnambulism b. sleep apnea c. REM sleep behaviour disorder d. night terrors 64. Which of the following statements LEAST reflects the research on the effect of stimulants on academic performance? a. There is no evidence to suggest that these drugs are helpful for this purpose. b. Stimulant use is correlated with higher grades but only during exam periods. c. Students who use nonmedical stimulants tend to have lower grades. d. Students’ hope for better grades does not mean they will have better grades. 65. Cocaine is now available in much more potent and dangerous forms than previously. Which of the following is the name for chips or rocks of pure cocaine produced through the process of freebasing? a. ice b. crack c. crank d. ketamine 66. Which of the following is NOT a potent or dangerous form of stimulant? a. crack b. smack c. crank d. ice 67. Which of the following is most likely about people who rarely remember their dreams? a. They experience narcolepsy. b. They experience lucid dreams. c. They have their last REM sleep period immediately before they awaken. d. They have their last REM sleep period a relatively long time before they awaken. 68. Which of the following has been shown to be effective in the treatment of post-traumatic stress disorder when only used occasionally and when incorporated into traditional psychotherapy practices? a. marijuana b. ecstasy c. alcohol d. amphetamines 69. Which sleep disorder is reported by approximately 35 percent of adults, tends to increase with age, and is more common in women than in men? a. narcolepsy b. sleep apnea c. insomnia d. night terrors 70. What is the most widely used recreational drug in North American society? a. marijuana b. ecstasy c. alcohol d. amphetamines 71. Which drug have researchers recently found specific receptors in the brain for? a. amphetamines b. sedatives c. THC (marijuana) d. MDMA (ecstasy) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 72. Which statement best describes siesta cultures? a. They also practise co-sleeping. b. They are industrialized. c. They are nomadic. d. They are located in tropical regions. 73. Danielle is walking to work along a route that she knows very well. After she arrives at work, she realizes that she didn’t notice anything going on around her during most of her walk because she was thinking about other things. Which theory of hypnosis suggests that hypnosis is like an extreme version of this experience? a. Spanos’s role-playing theory b. Barber’s social cognitive theory c. Hilgard’s dissociation theory d. Kirsh’s imaginative suggestibility theory 74. Which of the following is an accurate definition of hypnosis? a. a systematic procedure that typically produces a heightened state of suggestibility b. a series of techniques for concentration that produce a state similar to meditation c. a state of relaxation that produces a sleep-like trance d. a process of focused attention that allows an individual to recover memories 75. Which statement best describes the relationship between culture and dreaming? a. People across cultures vary in the proportion of sleep time they spend dreaming. b. Cultures are very similar in the significance they place on dreaming. c. People across cultures vary in the total amount of sleep time they spend dreaming. d. Cultures vary in the significance they place on dreaming. 76. Cocaine is now available in much more potent and dangerous forms than previously. Which of the following is a chemical treatment used to extract nearly pure cocaine from ordinary street cocaine? a. icing b. cracking c. cranking d. freebasing 77. Which of the following does NOT characterize REM sleep? a. minimal bodily movement b. beta waves c. regular breathing and pulse rate d. dreaming 78. Martin wakes up hundreds of times each night gasping for air. What does he likely suffer from? a. sleep paralysis b. somnambulism c. narcolepsy d. sleep apnea 79. There are multiple theories about the mechanisms and function of hypnosis, and each of these theories provides important perspectives on the topic. Which of the unifying themes of psychology is reflected in this example? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 80. Regarding controversial or stereotypical statements about the risks of marijuana use, what is the most appropriate conclusion, based on available research evidence? a. Marijuana does not appear to have major cognitive or health consequences, but it does tend to lead to impotence or sterility in men who use it for a prolonged length of time. b. Most of the health effects of marijuana have been exaggerated, but there is some evidence that chronic heavy users may have modest deficits in attention and memory. c. Marijuana has no long-term effects on cognitive functioning but may permanently suppress immune functioning. d. Marijuana is completely safe for use, both in the short term and in the long term. 81. What would be your dominant brain wave pattern if you were to lie down under a tree and relax, but not fall asleep? a. delta waves b. beta waves c. theta waves d. alpha waves 82. What are opioids? a. drugs derived from the hemp plant b. drugs that tend to increase central nervous system activation and behavioural activity c. drugs that cause distortions in sensory and perceptual experience d. drugs derived from opium that are capable of relieving pain 83. Who coined the term “REM sleep”? a. Maurice Bickham b. William Dement c. James Flynn d. Nathaniel Kleitman 84. Which statement best supports the hypothesis that sleep has an adaptive function? a. People who sleep longer also tend to live longer. b. Sleep deprivation reduces fertility. c. Our brains use 30 percent less energy when we sleep. d. Species that sleep more are more competitive. 85. While serving as a subject in a laboratory sleep study for several nights, Steve was awakened whenever he entered slow-wave sleep. When first allowed an uninterrupted night’s sleep, what would Steve do? a. sleep for a longer amount of time than normal b. spend less time in slow-wave sleep than normal c. sleep for a shorter amount of time than normal d. spend more time in slow-wave sleep than normal 86. Compared to young adults, how do infants sleep? a. for a shorter time, but with a greater proportion of REM sleep b. for a shorter time and with minimal REM sleep c. for a longer time, but less time in REM sleep d. for a longer time, and with a greater proportion of REM sleep

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 87. What do we call chemical substances that modify mental, emotional, or behavioural functioning? a. stimulants b. psychoactive drugs c. narcotics or opiates d. hallucinogens 88. Mindfulness meditation has been shown to be effective in the treatment of which of the following groups of disorders? a. depression, anxiety, and psychotic disorders b. stress, anxiety, and personality disorders c. depression, obsessive-compulsive, and conversion disorders d. depression, anxiety, and obsessive-compulsive disorders 89. Which of the following may help you fall asleep without the issues and risk associated with sleeping pills? a. oxytocin b. melatonin c. Vitamin D d. iron 90. Which category of psychoactive drugs results in a rapid or fast development of a tolerance for the drug? a. alcohol b. stimulants c. cannabis d. hallucinogens 91. While serving as a subject in a laboratory sleep study for several nights, Luka was awakened whenever he entered REM sleep. What effect would this have on Luka’s waking performance the next day? a. It would have little effect. b. He would hallucinate. c. He would be exhausted all day. d. He would be emotionally unstable. 92. Which of the following is true of treatment for night terrors? a. Cognitive-behavioural therapy is recommended. b. Sedatives are recommended but only for children over eight years of age. c. Antipsychotic medications are recommended. d. Often, treatment is not necessary because the night terrors are usually temporary. 93. What do the midday napping practices of “siesta cultures” allow individuals to do? a. avoid working during the hottest part of the day b. have time to digest their large midday meal c. sleep at the same time as their young infants d. take a necessary break from their extremely physical labour 94. The dissociation theory of hypnosis states that, while hypnotized, a person’s consciousness is divided between two streams of consciousness. One stream is in communication with the external world. What is the other stream called? a. the overt observer b. the visible monitor c. the hidden observer d. the role-playing partner 95. If a species has a circadian cycle of fluctuations in cortisol, how long is the cycle? a. 90 minutes b. 24 hours c. one month d. one season Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 96. Which of the following best reflects the biggest problem with the use of sedatives to treat insomnia? a. There is a risk of overdose or addiction. b. They cannot be combined with cognitive-behavioural therapy. c. They are too expensive. d. They do not decrease nighttime awakenings. 97. When, during a night’s sleep, does the majority of REM sleep occur? a. in the middle b. early c. evenly distributed throughout the night d. late 98. Which sleep stages seem to be important for consolidation of memory? a. stages 1 and 2 b. all NREM sleep c. REM and slow-wave sleep d. stages with alpha waves 99. What did Sigmund Freud theorize about dreams? a. They reflect reality. b. They provide a practical approach to problem solving. c. They provide a window to the conscious mind. d. They reflect wish fulfillment. 100. Celia just flew home from a trip and she crossed three time zones. How long should it take her to readjust her biological clock? a. one day b. three days c. six days d. one week 101. Which unifying theme in psychology is best reflected by the observations that both the setting in which a psychoactive drug is taken, and an individual’s expectations influence the drug’s effect? a. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. 102. Which category of psychoactive drugs has as one of its principal medical uses the treatment of hyperactivity? a. sedatives b. cannabis c. stimulants d. opiates 103. Which theory of hypnosis is supported by the observation that age-regressed hypnotized individuals recall longago events in a vivid but incorrect manner? a. role-playing b. wish fulfillment c. dissociation d. activation-synthesis

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 104. Imagine that you are a researcher conducting a study on the effectiveness of a new treatment that is hoped will be beneficial in helping alcoholics reduce their drinking. Which of the following is most important for you to do? a. provide a clear definition of alcoholism b. know if alcoholism is a disease or not c. determine whether alcoholism is a moral weakness or not d. know how the medical and psychological community currently define alcoholism 105. What do we know about shift work and its impact on a person? a. Shift work has no impact on the incidence of heart disease. b. Shift work impacts physical health but not mental. c. Shift work affects health but not social relationships. d. Shift work has a negative impact on productivity at work. 106. Brandon is sleeping, and his brain waves are mainly theta waves. He doesn’t stay in this stage for long. What stage is he in? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 4 d. REM 107. Which of the following is associated with lower mortality rates? a. sleeping less than seven hours per night b. sleeping seven hours per night c. sleeping at least eight hours per night d. sleeping more than ten hours per night 108. While serving as a subject in a laboratory sleep study for several nights, Corvel was awakened whenever he entered REM sleep. As the number of nights in the study increased, what would happen to Corvel? a. He would enter REM sleep less frequently. b. He would enter REM sleep more and more frequently. c. He would increase the total number of hours he slept each night. d. He would reduce the total number of hours he slept each night. 109. Which of the following treatments for insomnia is overused? a. walking b. cognitive-behavioural therapy c. relaxation training d. sedative medications 110. Which of the following is NOT one of the well-established benefits of the therapeutic use of hypnosis? a. treating schizophrenia b. helping with smoking cessation c. treating obesity

d. treating skin disorders

111. Though there are effective treatments for insomnia, which of the following is one barrier to such treatment? a. Many people suffering from insomnia do not pursue professional treatment. b. Chronic difficulties in remaining asleep cannot be treated. c. Chronic difficulties in falling asleep go unnoticed by the person with insomnia. d. Many people are allergic to the medication.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 112. Which of the following is NOT particularly influenced by circadian rhythms? a. physical functions such as body temperature and urine production b. emotional experiences such as feelings of happiness and sadness c. sleep d. cognitive performance on tasks requiring alertness and short-term memory 113. Meditation refers to a group of practices. What are those practices designed to do? a. increase relaxation and subjective experiences of well-being b. produce a heightened state of suggestibility c. stimulate two separate yet simultaneous streams of consciousness d. heighten awareness and bring mental processes under voluntary control 114. What are hallucinogens? a. drugs derived from opium that are capable of relieving pain b. drugs that tend to increase central nervous system activation and behavioural activity c. drugs derived from the hemp plant d. drugs that cause distortions in sensory and perceptual experience 115. What are stimulants? a. drugs derived from opium that are capable of relieving pain b. drugs that contain ethyl alcohol c. drugs that tend to increase central nervous system activation and behavioural activity d. drugs that cause distortions in sensory and perceptual experience 116. Common side effects of which drug include mood swings, quarrelsomeness, and impaired mental and motor functioning? a. sedatives b. cannabis c. alcohol d. narcotics 117. Which stage of sleep appears to promote creative insights related to previous learning? a. stage 1 b. slow-wave sleep c. REM sleep d. NREM sleep 118. After being deprived of REM sleep for several days, people tend to spend additional time in REM sleep when allowed to sleep uninterrupted. What is this increase called? a. rebound effect b. dream-rebound effect c. dream effect d. catch-up effect 119. Which factor has the least influence on the effect that a psychoactive drug has on an individual? a. the individual’s expectations b. the intelligence of the individual c. the setting in which the drug is taken d. the mood and personality of the individual

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 120. What is your dominant brain wave pattern at this moment, as you are concentrating on answering this exam question correctly? a. delta waves b. alpha waves c. theta waves d. beta waves 121. A morphine addict experiences a state of euphoria after a dose of morphine, and a postsurgical patient experiences a reduction in pain after the same dosage. What does this difference illustrate? a. the effect of age b. the effect of expectations c. the effect of potency d. the effect of personality 122. What percentage of post-secondary students in Canada report nonmedical use of stimulants to enhance their academic performance? a. 1 to 3 percent b. 4 to 6 percent c. 7 to 9 percent d. 10 to 12 percent 123. What has been determined to be an effective treatment for insomnia? a. electroconvulsive shock therapy b. cognitive-behavioural therapy c. hypnosis d. salt therapy 124. When, during a night’s sleep, does the majority of slow-wave sleep occur? a. in the middle b. early c. it is evenly distributed throughout the night d. late 125. Which of the following is the most common reason people seek help or treatment for somnambulism? a. when they experience injuries b. when it leads to marital problems c. when they experience disturbing leg cramps d. if it is accompanied by panic attacks 126. Which therapeutic intervention has been demonstrated to be an effective treatment for shift workers in industrialized settings? a. benzodiazepines b. psychoanalytic therapy c. light therapy d. aromatherapy 127. During which stage of sleep do nightmares usually occur? a. REM b. stage 1 c. stage 4 d. NREM 128. Which category of psychoactive drugs is NOT associated with a high risk of a lethal overdose? a. hallucinogens b. alcohol c. sedatives d. narcotics

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 129. Your roommate recently took a recreational drug and is very energetic and alert and has an “I can conquer the world” euphoria. What did he most likely take? a. a cannabis-containing drug such as marijuana or hashish b. a stimulant such as caffeine or nicotine c. a stimulant such as cocaine or an amphetamine d. a sedative such as one of the barbiturates 130. Both the discovery of insulin and refinements in the design of the sewing machine were inspired, in part, by dreams. Which theory of dreaming is supported by examples like this? a. cognitive, problem-solving view b. activation-synthesis c. conservation of energy d. wish fulfillment 131. Danielle is walking to work along a route that she knows very well. After she arrives at work, she realizes that she didn’t notice anything going on around her during most of her walk because she was thinking about other things. What is the term for Danielle’s experience during her walk? a. mind wandering b. stream of consciousness c. subliminal perception d. unconscious processing 132. If a person has damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which process would likely be altered? a. muscle strength b. vision c. digestion d. sleep cycles 133. Teresa was reading a book about dream interpretation that suggested that her dreams about eating ladybugs reflected a desire to start her own business. What term would Freud use to describe this “revealed” meaning in Teresa’s dream? a. factual content b. symbolic content c. latent content d. manifest content 134. What has been shown to be effective methods of controlling pain? a. meditation and alcohol b. opioids and hypnosis c. hypnosis and stimulants d. narcotics and stimulants 135. Which category of psychoactive drugs do Adderall and Ritalin belong to? a. narcotics b. stimulants c. sedatives d. alcohol 136. Which statement best describes the typical last dream period of the night? a. It is the longest. b. It is the scariest. c. It is the shortest. d. It is the best. 137. According to research concerning the content of dreams, what are most dreams about? a. frightening events b. relatively normal activities c. strangers d. surreal perceptions or activities

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 138. Which neurotransmitter is affected by most psychoactive drugs, by affecting release and reuptake? a. endorphins b. GABA c. monoamines d. acetylcholine 139. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the adverse effects of sleep deprivation? a. Loss of sleep affects people’s ability to regulate their emotions. b. Many traffic accidents occur because drivers get drowsy and fall asleep at the wheel. c. Sleep deprivation may undermine efficiency at work. d. Sleep deprivation decreases serotonin. 140. Which term refers to the chemicals in the brain through which psychoactive drugs work and have their effect on behaviour, cognition, and emotion? a. neurotransmitters b. hormones c. glial cells d. proteins 141. If you were a researcher doing research on selective deprivation of REM sleep, what pattern would you see after a subject had been in the study for a few nights? a. The subject would hallucinate or become delusional. b. The subject would have to be wakened more frequently to prevent REM sleep. c. The subject would stop having REM sleep, to avoid being wakened. d. The subject would have a corresponding improvement in mood. 142. Which of the following best reflects the two classes of drugs most commonly used in the medical treatment of insomnia? a. benzodiazepine and nonbenzodiazepine sedatives b. sedatives and downers c. benzodiazepine sedatives and antipsychotics d. antidepressants and nonbenzodiazepine sedatives 143. Which category of psychoactive drugs leads to a slow or gradual development of tolerance? a. narcotics b. stimulants c. sedatives d. alcohol 144. Nancy is in a state that includes reduced heart rate, reduced consumption of oxygen, and an EEG pattern that includes alpha and theta waves. Which state is Nancy likely to be in? a. hypnosis b. meditation c. slow-wave sleep d. alcohol intoxication 145. Which neural pathway has been characterized as a “reward pathway,” believed to be responsible for the reinforcing effects of most abused drugs? a. hypothalamus dopamine b. mesolimbic dopamine c. cortical d. medulla-pons

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 146. Which of the following best reflects the term “insomnia”? a. chronic problems in getting adequate sleep b. chronic difficulties in remaining asleep c. chronic difficulties in falling asleep d. occasional problems in getting adequate sleep 147. Theodore Barber and Nicholas Spanos have been leading advocates of a view of hypnosis which called the role-playing view. What does the role-playing view suggest about hypnosis? a. The person being hypnotized will be in a trance. b. It is a normal, everyday process which includes the persons’ expectations and attitudes. c. It is an abnormal state of consciousness whereby the subject is controlled by the hypnotist. d. It is a state of consciousness under which people can perform feats they could never perform otherwise. 148. As adults age, what happens to the proportion of time spent in slow-wave sleep? a. It remains stable. b. It increases. c. It ceases after puberty. d. It decreases. 149. When Hillary first started drinking alcohol she would get drunk on a fairly small amount. Now, after several years of drinking experience it takes a larger dose of alcohol to make her intoxicated. What is the term used to describe this change? a. resistance b. tolerance c. physical dependence d. psychological dependence 150. Which category of psychoactive drugs has as one of its principal medical uses its use as an anticonvulsant? a. sedatives b. cannabis c. stimulants d. opiates 151. What is sleep stage 3 known as? a. slow-wave sleep b. high-amplitude sleep c. fast-wave sleep d. low-amplitude sleep 152. You have a personal awareness of both internal and external stimuli, and your thoughts concerning those stimuli. What is this called? a. unconsciousness b. alertness c. consciousness d. attention 153. What would be most likely to help someone adjust their biological clock, if it were taken as a supplement? a. androgen b. adrenalin c. melatonin d. glutamate 154. Which category of psychoactive drug is best characterized as having a moderate risk for physical dependence associated with a high risk for psychological dependence? a. cannabis b. hallucinogens c. stimulants d. narcotics

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 155. Which of the following is typical of nightmares, but not of night terrors? a. It is relatively easy to fall asleep afterward. b. They are very frightening but not vivid. c. They occur during REM sleep. d. They occur early in the night. 156. Tammy uses a benzodiazepine sedative to help her get to sleep, on a regular basis. What is likely to occur with Tammy’s use of this “downer”? a. She will spend more and more time in REM sleep. b. She will develop an aversion to the drug. c. The placebo effect will begin to interfere with the drug effect. d. She will consume more of the drug than is prescribed for medical purposes.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. d 26. b

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 27. d 28. a 29. d 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. d 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. c 41. c 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. d 51. a 52. c 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 55. a 56. a 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. c 63. c 64. b 65. b 66. b 67. d 68. b 69. c 70. c 71. c 72. d 73. c 74. a 75. d 76. d 77. c 78. d 79. c 80. b 81. d 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 83. b 84. c 85. d 86. d 87. b 88. d 89. b 90. b 91. a 92. d 93. a 94. c 95. b 96. a 97. d 98. c 99. d 100. b 101. b 102. c 103. a 104. a 105. d 106. a 107. b 108. b 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 111. a 112. b 113. d 114. d 115. c 116. c 117. c 118. a 119. b 120. d 121. b 122. b 123. b 124. b 125. a 126. c 127. a 128. a 129. c 130. a 131. a 132. d 133. c 134. b 135. b 136. a 137. b

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 2 138. c 139. d 140. a 141. b 142. a 143. d 144. b 145. b 146. a 147. b 148. d 149. b 150. a 151. a 152. c 153. c 154. c 155. c 156. d

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Tetrahydrocannabinol is a main active mood-altering ingredient in which of the following? a. Xanax b. marijuana c. ketamine d. absinthe 2. What do proponents of the divided consciousness view of hypnosis call the part of consciousness that still operates when a person is hypnotized? a. the preconscious b. the hidden observer c. the alter personality d. the homunculus 3. Margot experiences a lot of anxiety. Her doctor has recommended a method for reducing some of the physical symptoms of anxiety. Which method did Margot’s doctor recommend? a. hypnosis b. meditation c. blindsight d. selective attention 4. Domingo suffers from Alzheimer’s disease, which has caused many difficulties with his memory. Yet, he is aware of himself and events in his environment. Although his memory system is impaired, he does appear to experience his own sense of which of the following? a. homeostasis b. inattentional blindness c. hallucinations d. consciousness 5. When a person has to take more of a substance to achieve the same effect, what has the person developed? a. withdrawal b. tolerance c. an overdose d. immunity 6. Dr. Ramos and Dr. Iverson are arguing about whether the dissociation theory or the social/cognitive theory is more correct. What topic are the two professors debating? a. meditation b. sleep c. hypnosis d. selective attention 7. An anesthesiologist is a medical doctor whose primary responsibility is to monitor a patient’s vital functions and manage the patient’s pain by administering drugs. These drugs can also induce a sleep-like state, thus altering which of the following in the patient? a. consciousness b. jet lag c. inattentional blindness d. opioids 8. Maryam started taking sleeping pills to help her sleep about a year ago. Now she cannot sleep unless she takes a sleeping pill. What is Maryam experiencing? a. psychological dependence b. physiological dependence c. hypnogogic hallucinations d. delirium tremors 9. Dr. Yost is interested in the neural pathways linked to addiction. Which of the following neurotransmitter pathways is Dr. Yost MOST likely to be studying? a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. oxytocin d. epinephrine Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 10. What does research suggest is the effect of students using nonmedical stimulants to study for tests? a. It boosts test performance by 10% on average. b. It boosts test performance by 25% on average. c. It has no effect on test performance. d. It has a negative effect on test performance. 11. On average, people cycle between REM sleep and slow-wave sleep with what frequency? a. every 25 minutes b. every 50 minutes c. every 90 minutes d. every 120 minutes 12. High amplitude low frequency waves are MOST likely to be observed during which stages of sleep? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. stage 4 13. Professor Watson will be discussing a variety of topics in his lecture tomorrow, including thinking, language, sensation, desire, and perception. With such a wide range of cognitive processes, it appears he will be discussing which of the following? a. consciousness b. selective attention c. automatic processing d. circadian rhythms 14. During which stage of sleep is it MOST difficult to wake someone up? a. REM b. stage 2 c. stage 1 d. stage 3 15. Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is the fifth stage of sleep, during which brain activity is similar to someone who is in which of the following circumstances? a. wide awake b. in a coma c. experiencing cataplexy d. sleepwalking 16. Hani works in a laboratory that manufactures a psychoactive drug that affects alertness. Which type of drug is manufactured in Hani’s lab? a. cocaine b. nicotine c. amphetamine d. Valium 17. Which of the following are the relatively slow brain waves of a relaxed, awake state? a. sleep spindles b. delta waves c. alpha waves d. REMs 18. According to Freud, what type of dream content is the plot of the dream at the surface level? a. latent b. manifest c. repressed d. sexual 19. Zach woke up at 7:00 this morning after eight hours of sleep. He is currently in math class, and his mind is beginning to wander for the first time today. What time is it most likely to be? a. 5:00 p.m. b. 10:00 a.m. c. 12:00 p.m. d. 3:00 p.m. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 20. What is the most commonly used stimulant? a. caffeine b. nicotine c. cocaine d. heroin 21. Gerri is participating in a sleep study. The lab tech notes that Gerri has just started to produce high-amplitude, low-frequency delta waves. What stage of sleep is Gerri in? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. REM 22. Which of the following regions of the brain is thought to be part of the neural system that mediates addiction? a. amygdala b. thalamus c. corpus callosum d. parietal lobe 23. Which of the following can produce social jet lag? a. getting up at the same time each day b. working rotating shifts for two weeks c. flying three or more time zones west d. waking early on weekdays and waking later on weekends 24. REM sleep is considered “paradoxical sleep” because the brain is full of electrical activity but the sleeper appears to be quiet and resting. How is this contradiction possible? a. The reticular formation is disabled during REM sleep. b. People are paralyzed during REM sleep. c. Certain neurons in the nonvisual pathway are not active during REM sleep. d. Motor skills are diminished during REM sleep. 25. Caitlin started university last term. Since then, she has begun engaging in risky sexual behaviour. This is MOST likely an indirect effect of which of the following activities? a. binge drinking b. cocaine use c. benzodiazepine use d. nicotine addiction 26. Which class of drug increases alertness? a. sedatives b. stimulants c. hallucinogens d. opioids 27. Which of the following are observed during REM sleep? a. fast, active brain waves b. alpha and theta waves c. delta waves d. sleep spindles 28. Vlad is addicted to a legal stimulant. Which of the following is Vlad MOST likely addicted to? a. methamphetamine b. MDMA c. alcohol d. nicotine

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 29. As Beckett was watching his little brother sleep, he noticed that, even though they were closed, his brother’s eyes were darting around under the lids. Beckett remembered from his psychology class that this likely indicates his brother was dreaming and in which of the following? a. stage 2 sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 3 sleep d. rapid eye movement (REM) sleep 30. Anson has been diagnosed with a neurological disorder characterized by falling asleep suddenly. Which of the following is Anson MOST likely to experience as a direct result of his disorder? a. hypnagogic hallucinations b. sleep paralysis c. narcolepsy d. sleep spindles 31. William James was one of the founders of the field of psychology with his work on the study of which of the following? a. dreams b. consciousness c. rapid eye movement d. altered states 32. Finn was hooked up to an electroencephalogram (EEG) in a psychology lab while he was studying some tough logic problems. The researcher likely saw that his brain was active with which of the following? a. theta waves b. beta waves c. K-complexes d. cataplexy 33. Allison is meditating and paying particular attention to thoughts and feelings without judging those thoughts and feelings. What type of meditation is Allison MOST likely engaging in? a. opening-up meditation b. concentration meditation c. mindfulness meditation d. transcendental meditation 34. Which of the following is a risk associated with taking opioids, sedatives, hallucinogens, marijuana, or alcohol? a. respiratory illness b. accidental injury c. pulmonary disease d. sleep problems 35. What is the sleep disorder in which a person regularly is unable to fall asleep, stay asleep, or feel adequately rested by sleep? a. sleep apnea b. insomnia c. narcolepsy d. somnambulism 36. Dr. Chen is a sleep specialist who is working with a local hospital to help the staff get better sleep. What does he suggest people should do when they are done their night shifts? a. head straight to bed in a quiet, dark room b. go to the gym for some exercise c. relax watching TV or playing a video game d. spend some time in the morning sun 37. Bright light affects feelings of sleepiness by decreasing the production of which of the following? a. melatonin b. dopamine c. MDMA d. THC

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 38. Which of the following is the internal pacemaker governing circadian rhythms? a. thalamus b. pineal gland c. optic nerve d. suprachiasmatic nucleus 39. Andrew brings Dave to the emergency room after finding him clutching his chest at a party. The doctor notes that Dave has an elevated heart rate and is highly restless. What has Dave most likely overdosed on? a. alcohol b. cocaine c. marijuana d. heroin 40. In which category are benzodiazepines, which are used to calm anxiety and induce sleep, classified? a. stimulants b. sedatives c. hallucinogens d. analgesics 41. Conscious awareness is MOST closely associated with which of the following? a. attention b. long-term memory c. implicit memory d. the cerebellum 42. Amanda has an intense mental and emotional craving for marijuana, and for this reason smokes it almost continuously. What is Amanda exhibiting? a. physiological dependence b. psychological dependence c. tolerance d. withdrawal 43. What must happen before you can be conscious of something? a. your photoreceptors must be activated b. you must be unconscious of it c. you must pay attention to it d. you must be able to name it 44. What part of the brain is MOST closely associated with conscious awareness? a. the cerebellum b. the cerebral cortex c. the hypothalamus d. the hippocampus 45. Which neurotransmitter is released in large quantities when a person takes MDMA? a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. norepinephrine d. serotonin 46. Kayton started using cocaine about three months ago. It now takes more cocaine for Kayton to feel the same high he used to feel. What is happening to Kayton? a. he is developing a tolerance b. he is experiencing withdrawal c. he is developing a craving d. he is experiencing a stigma 47. Which of the following is a significant risk associated with sedatives? a. accidents b. sleep problems c. liver disease d. infectious disease

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 48. Dr. Jenkins is conducting a sleep study on Ginny and notices a theta wave pattern on Ginny’s EEG. What stage of sleep does Dr. Jenkins conclude Ginny is in? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. REM 49. How is time in NREM sleep distributed throughout the sleep cycle? a. NREM occurs throughout the night. b. Most NREM occurs early in the sleep cycle. c. Most NREM occurs in the middle of the sleep cycle. d. Most NREM occurs at the end of the sleep cycle. 50. Dr. Hopt has been working with a government agency on a campaign to alert the public about the increased risk of infectious diseases as a result of taking a certain type of drug. What type of drug use does the campaign target? a. opioids b. alcohol c. sedatives d. hallucinogens 51. Professor Davis describes consciousness as similar to a flowing river of ideas and thoughts. She states that this river is what gives one a sense of day-to-day continuity. Professor Davis is paraphrasing the theory of consciousness originally proposed by which theorist? a. William James. b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Edward Titchener d. John B. Watson 52. Sofia is sleeping soundly and attempts to wake her don’t work. Her EEG would MOST likely be characterized by which of the following? a. alpha waves b. beta waves c. delta waves d. theta waves 53. How long does a circadian rhythm last? a. 12 hours b. 18 hours c. 24 hours d. 32 hours 54. What is consciousness, according to William James? a. an inappropriate topic for psychologists b. an objective state of mind c. a stream of thoughts d. a visual processing area 55. Which of the following are observed during stage 2 sleep? a. sleep spindles b. alpha waves c. delta waves d. REM 56. Which of the following is sometimes used as a local anesthetic? a. cocaine b. marijuana c. nicotine d. alcohol

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 57. Pauline has just gotten into bed and is looking forward to a good night’s sleep. Based on the average time it takes most people to fall asleep, how long will it take Pauline to enter stage 1 sleep? a. 10 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 25 minutes 58. How many hours of sleep at night is associated with the LOWEST mortality for adults? a. 6 hours b. 7 hours c. 8 hours d. 9 hours 59. How do sedatives calm people and induce sleep? a. by causing the release of epinephrine b. by increasing the secretion of stress hormones c. by depressing activity in the central nervous system d. by depressing activity in the peripheral nerves 60. Which of the following researchers studied consciousness? a. B. F. Skinner b. John B. Watson c. Paul Broca d. William James 61. Mr. Hawkes repeatedly complains about the quality and duration of his sleep. He claims that he has difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep and usually wakes up before it is time to get up. What does Mr. Hawkes apparently suffer from? a. sleep apnea b. narcolepsy c. nocturnal enuresis d. insomnia 62. Which drug group speeds up activity in the central nervous system? a. sedatives b. stimulants c. hallucinogens d. opioids 63. Matt has been diagnosed with a neurological disorder characterized by uncontrollable naps that happen 20 to 30 times a day. What is Matt’s diagnosis? a. insomnia b. narcolepsy c. circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder d. REM sleep behaviour disorder 64. In which category is a psychoactive drug that distorts normal perceptions classified? a. sedative b. stimulant c. hallucinogen d. opioid 65. Milo, who has narcolepsy, is trying to explain to his younger brother what causes the symptoms like sleep attacks and cataplexy. The simplest explanation he can use is that the brain is doing which of the following? a. coping with an absence of airflow b. failing to properly control sleep patterns c. trying to regulate the release of melatonin d. doing a poor job replenishing neurotransmitters

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 66. Marco falls asleep but cannot stay asleep. What is Marco suffering from? a. cataplexy b. insomnia c. narcolepsy d. somnambulism 67. In what stage of sleep are sleep spindles MOST likely to be observed? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. REM 68. Dr. Guzman works with patients suffering from chronic pain. One of his biggest concerns is that synthetic painkillers like Vicodin and OxyContin can lead to which of the following? a. prescription drug abuse b. narcolepsy c. REM sleep behaviour disorder d. anxiety disorders 69. How long do people typically spend in stage 2 sleep? a. 1 to 12 minutes b. 15 to 30 minutes c. 30 to 60 minutes d. 60 to 90 minutes 70. Regina is attempting to clear her mind and focus on her inner thoughts. What is Regina MOST likely engaging in? a. hypnosis b. mindfulness meditation c. selective attention d. somnambulism 71. Olivia’s parents discovered a psychoactive drug among her possessions. Olivia claims that it is a prescription and it’s okay for her to take it. Her parents reply that she is wrong because this drug has no medical use. Which type of drug did her parents discover? a. amphetamine b. morphine c. Valium d. LSD 72. Cara was surprised to learn that her mother had tried to wake her up the night before. Apparently her mother needed to tell her something and had called Cara’s name, shook her arm lightly, and sat next to her on the bed. She had a very difficult time waking Cara and when Cara did wake up she was very groggy. In all likelihood Cara was in which of the following? a. stage 2 sleep b. stage 3 sleep c. REM sleep d. paradoxical sleep 73. Faruk is a university student experiencing an indirect effect of frequent alcohol use. What might Faruk be doing? a. engaging in risky sexual behaviour b. not getting sufficient sleep c. repeatedly hurting himself on the stairs d. not eating properly 74. Drugs from which group have the MOST significant impact on sensation and perception? a. sedatives b. stimulants c. hallucinogens d. opioids

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 75. Simone is taking a psychoactive drug to help with her glaucoma. What drug is this most likely to be? a. marijuana b. cocaine c. LSD d. MDMA 76. Which drug group is cocaine considered to be a part of? a. sedatives b. stimulants c. hallucinogens d. opioids 77. What should night-shift workers do to minimize circadian disturbances? a. exercise when they get home from work b. avoid taking naps in the middle of the night shift c. maximize light exposure while working the night shift d. maximize light exposure on the way home from work 78. Corinne is seated on a comfortable cushion and is trying to tune out the outer world and focus on her inner awareness. What is Corinne engaging in? a. blindsight b. meditation c. hypnosis d. selective attention 79. Trent is in his final year of a psychology program and is interested in studying consciousness for his honours thesis. His adviser has told him this might be difficult to do because of which characteristic of consciousness? a. it is easy to study objectively, but only with the use of advanced technology b. it can only be studied with advanced technology c. it is subjective, making it difficult to study in other people d. it is static and unchanging, therefore not interesting to study 80. Consciousness is MOST closely linked to which of the following? a. conditioning b. personality c. attention d. attachment 81. In which stage of sleep are you most likely to experience a hypnic jerk? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. stage 4 82. Dr. Patel is working on an awareness campaign about overdose at a local addiction treatment centre. What type of drug is she MOST likely to indicate carries a high risk for overdose? a. methamphetamine b. Ritalin c. heroin d. marijuana 83. Which drug causes the MOST harm worldwide? a. methamphetamine b. alcohol c. fentanyl d. cocaine

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 84. Which direction of travel is MOST disruptive to circadian rhythms? a. travelling east b. travelling west c. travelling north d. travelling south 85. Iain is overdosing on cocaine. Which of the following is he most likely to be experiencing problems with? a. heart b. lungs c. hands d. teeth 86. Isabel is 88 years old and wakes up frequently during the night. Which of the following is MOST likely responsible for Isabel’s frequent awakenings? a. spending more time in stage 2 sleep b. spending more time in REM sleep c. spending less time in stage 1 sleep d. spending more time in slow-wave sleep 87. Which of the following disorders is effectively treated with stimulant drugs? a. insomnia b. schizophrenia c. narcolepsy d. heart disease 88. What are researchers MOST likely to do to find out what happens in people’s brains during a typical night’s sleep? a. ask people to try to remember as much as possible when they awake in the morning b. closely watch the actions of subjects sleeping in the sleep research lab c. wake people up every 15 minutes and ask them to describe what is going on in their minds d. use an electroencephalograph to measure their brain-wave activity throughout the night 89. Which of the following is sometimes referred to as “psychedelic amphetamine”? a. marijuana b. MDMA c. psilocybin d. methamphetamine 90. Drugs used to ease pain can also influence sensations, perceptions, and our awareness of self and the environment. In other words, they are dramatically altering which of the following? a. our dreams b. our consciousness c. narcolepsy d. withdrawal 91. According to clinical guidelines, what is the preferred treatment for insomnia? a. benzodiazepines b. antidepressants c. cognitive-behavioural therapy d. psychoanalysis 92. Which of the following is a biological clock that synchronizes bodies with the 24-hour cycle of day and night? a. circadian rhythm b. sleep-wake cycle c. K complex d. biological rhythm 93. The brain exhibits beta waves when a person is solving a math problem, reading a book, or simply being alert. Which of the following describes beta waves? a. related to restorative sleep b. associated with non-REM sleep c. low-frequency brain waves d. high-frequency brain waves

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 94. Jolene is disoriented and has dilated pupils. Which drug did she most likely take? a. cocaine b. Valium c. LSD d. heroin 95. Sedatives are a group of psychoactive drugs that depress the activity of which of the following? a. central nervous system b. circadian rhythm c. suprachiasmatic nucleus d. pineal gland 96. Why is it difficult to study consciousness? a. participants can only give objective reports b. consciousness is subjective and constantly changing c. it is unethical for researchers to use advanced technology d. behaviourists refuse to study observable behaviour 97. Which of the following is MOST closely associated with Franz Anton Mesmer? a. sleep b. hypnosis c. schizophrenia d. methamphetamine 98. What psychoactive drug is found in coffee, cola, tea, and some medicines? a. caffeine b. acetylcholine c. cannabis sativa d. codeine 99. Which technique turns one’s consciousness inwards? a. hypnosis b. blindsight c. meditation d. selective attention 100. Adrienne has nasal damage from snorting cocaine. What is this an example of? a. a direct effect of cocaine b. an indirect effect of cocaine c. psychological dependence d. physiological dependence 101. Which of the following can measure brain waves through electrodes attached to a person’s scalp? a. an fMRI b. an EEG c. a PET Scan d. an EKG 102. Dr. Hamilton advises recovering heroin addicts to avoid locations where they have done the drug in the past. What is the main health-related reason for this warning? a. visiting the location may make the person sad b. the location may cause withdrawal symptoms through classical conditioning c. recovery addicts should remain in locked facilities for at least a year d. recovering addicts will become tolerant to the drug if they return 103. Which of the following are the large, slow brain waves associated with Stage 3 sleep? a. sleep spindles b. delta waves c. alpha waves d. REMs

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 104. Which of the following is another name for sleepwalking? a. somnambulism b. narcolepsy c. cataplexy d. hypnogogic hallucination 105. Which of the following are observed during stage 3 sleep? a. sleep spindles b. alpha waves c. delta waves d. REM 106. Markus started taking opioids when he had foot surgery last month. Now when he doesn’t take the opioids he feels anxious and sick. What is happening to Markus? a. he is developing a tolerance b. he is experiencing withdrawal c. he is developing immunity d. he is experiencing a stigma 107. Conscious experience includes processes such as which of the following? a. sensation, language, and thought b. breathing, sleeping, and hallucinations c. cognitive deficits, mood swings, fragmented speech d. REM rebound, sleep paralysis, and cataplexy 108. Chronic pain is more common among people who experience which of the following? a. narcolepsy b. somnambulism c. stage 3 sleep d. insomnia 109. Melissa is in Stage 3 of sleep. What type of EEG waves is Melissa producing? a. delta waves b. sleep spindles c. beta waves d. alpha waves 110. Which of the following is MOST closely linked to heroin? a. cannabis sativa b. morphine c. cocaine d. caffeine 111. Which type of psychologist is MOST likely to do research on consciousness? a. a cognitive psychologist b. a behavioural psychologist c. a psychophysicist d. a social psychologist 112. Trish repeatedly stops breathing when she is asleep. What condition does Trish have? a. insomnia b. cataplexy c. narcolepsy d. sleep apnea 113. Which of the following is a common consequence of sleep deprivation? a. disruptions in mood b. the onset of cataplexy c. the onset of narcolepsy d. increased energy throughout the day 114. Which type of drug would MOST likely be used to treat pain? a. a benzodiazepine b. an opioid c. a sedative d. an amphetamine Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 115. Giselle has spent the last week preparing for an important exam that is taking place tomorrow morning at 9:00 am. Despite this studying, Giselle doesn’t feel 100% prepared for the exam and it is 9:00 at night. What should Giselle do to optimize her performance on tomorrow’s exam? a. study all night and sleep after the exam b. study until 2:00 am and then sleep for 6 hours c. study until 10:00 pm and then sleep for 8 hours d. study until 4:00 am and then sleep for 4 hours 116. Carrington continues to take heroin to avoid withdrawal and for no other reason; she despises the drug and what it has done to her life. What is Carrington exhibiting when she reluctantly takes the heroin? a. physiological dependence b. psychological dependence c. stigma d. tolerance 117. Manfred is participating in a demonstration of hypnosis at his school. The hypnotist tells Manfred that he is on a roller coaster and is very scared. Manfred clutches his chair and screams. According to the dissociation view of hypnosis, what part of Manfred is shielded from interacting with the hypnotist? a. the hidden observer b. the superego c. the unconscious mind d. the id 118. Which of the following are observed during stage 2 sleep? a. sleep spindles b. alpha and theta waves c. delta waves d. REM 119. What type of drug is MOST likely to cause insomnia if a person takes too much? a. a sedative b. a stimulant c. a hallucinogen d. an opioid 120. What percentage of adults are easily hypnotizable? a. 15% b. 25% c. 35% d. 45% 121. Consciousness is the subjective state of being aware of which of the following? a. oneself, one’s thoughts, and the environment b. alpha, beta, and delta waves c. oneself, one’s thoughts, and one’s circadian rhythm d. one’s manifest and latent content 122. What is the psychoactive drug found in cigarettes? a. caffeine b. melatonin c. nicotine d. cannabis sativa

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. c 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. c 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. a 26. b

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 55. a 56. a 57. d 58. c 59. c 60. d 61. d 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. b 67. b 68. a 69. c 70. b 71. d 72. c 73. a 74. c 75. a 76. b 77. c 78. b 79. c 80. c 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 83. b 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. c 88. d 89. b 90. b 91. c 92. a 93. d 94. c 95. a 96. b 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. b 102. b 103. b 104. a 105. c 106. b 107. a 108. d 109. a 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce_Vol 4 111. a 112. d 113. a 114. b 115. c 116. a 117. a 118. a 119. b 120. a 121. a 122. c

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Chap 06_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Olivia has realized that if she cries hard enough her dad will give her candy to get her to stop. From Jared’s point of view, this is a case of _______________. a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. punishment d. avoidance learning 2. Monica is a first-year student at Carleton and she is taking a lot of introductory courses. Monica has a 14-yearold brother named Ross who often visits her in her dorm on the weekend and watches R-rated violent movies and TV shows while she studies. Monica becomes worried about the some of the media content that Ross is watching. According to Bandura which of the following is more likely if Ross starts watching porn on the Internet? a. It will act as a catharsis for Ross. b. It will act as a model for Ross to emulate. c. It will act as a negative reinforcer for Ross. d. It will act as a negative role model for Ross. 3. One day, Ross and Monica are in her dorm room hanging out. Ross is playing a first-person shooter video game on the computer and Monica is playing Candy Crush on her phone. Suddenly, they hear a person yelping in pain right outside their door. Which of the following is most likely? a. Ross will respond more quickly and be the first to go and offer help. b. Monica will respond more quickly and be the first to go and offer help. c. Both will respond at the same speed and go and offer help together. d. It depends on the sex of the person yelping in pain. 4. One day, Ross is hanging out in Monica’s dorm room when Rachel, Monica’s best friend, storms in and her punches a pillow in rage. In which of the following scenarios is Ross also likely to punch a pillow? a. If he sees Monica high-five Rachel after she punches the pillow. b. If he has a crush on Rachel. c. If he is told not to ever punch a pillow like Rachel. d. If he has also seen someone punch a pillow in a movie. 5. One day while at the grocery store, Olivia gets upset and throws a major temper tantrum over a chocolate bar. Jared tells her that she is going on a time-out in a couple of hours when they get back home. It is most likely that the punishment Jared gave Olivia will __________________. a. not be effective because it is not severe enough b. not be effective because it is not swift enough c. be effective only if Jared gives a reward to Olivia next time they are at a grocery store and she behaves d. be effective only if it is paired with corporal punishment

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Chap 06_6ce_Case-Based 6. Alicia is actively trying to get her poker playing under control and decided to enrol in a behaviour modification program. Which of the following would you suggest to her to ensure she sticks to the program and her rehabilitation? a. To use punishments only (and no rewards) because they are powerful reinforcers. b. If she uses punishments, to have someone else deliver them. c. If she use punishments, to make them as severe as she can. d. If she uses punishments, to use a random ratio of severe and mild ones. 7. Which of the following stimuli is most likely going to make Magnus salivate? a. Seeing another dog sit down. b. Hearing the word “set”. c. Being told to lay down. d. Alec demonstrating sitting down. 8. Monica is worried that Ross’ choice of TV shows and movies will make him more aggressive when he’s older. She should be the most worried if ______________________. a. Ross watches more than 10 hours of violent TV shows per week b. Ross starts watching extremely realistic and graphic violent TV shows c. Ross identifies with the male antagonist who often murders people on his favourite show d. Ross identifies with the female hero who often tortures people on his favourite show 9. After several months, Alicia’s poker playing habit has been maintained by _______________. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 10. Jared is a stay-at-home dad who takes care of his five-year-old daughter Olivia. Olivia is hyperactive and does not often listen to Jared. Jared is trying to find new ways to get his daughter to brush her teeth, which she always refuses to do. Jared has come up with the solution to give Olivia a sticker every three times she brushes her teeth without him telling her to. 16. Jared is giving Olivia a sticker according to a ____ schedule. a. fixed ratio b. fixed interval c. variable ratio d. variable interval 11. Magnus starts wagging his tail and salivating when he hears Alec say the word “sit” because of __________. a. operant conditioning b. positive reinforcement c. classical conditioning d. stimulus generalization 12. Alicia has a ritual, including saying a short prayer that she performs every time she logs on to her account and she thinks this ritual helps her win. According to Skinner, which of the following enforces this behaviour? a. Operant conditioning b. Primary reinforcers c. Secondary reinforcers d. Noncontingent reinforcement

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Chap 06_6ce_Case-Based 13. Alicia is actively trying to get her poker playing under control and decides to enrol in a behaviour modification program. The program facilitator asks Alicia to count how many times she visits the online poker site, how many games she plays, and the events that happen right before she goes online to play another game. Alicia was asked to gather her ______ and monitor her ______, respectively. a. baseline data; antecedents b. response rate; antecedents c. baseline date; positive reinforcers d. response rate; positive reinforcers 14. Victoria gets annoyed because Joshua keeps talking to her about her fear of spiders and confronts him about his fear of clowns. According to the principles of classical conditioning which situation might most likely have caused Joshua’s fear of clowns? a. His parents hired a clown for his 10th birthday, but none of his friends attended the party. b. His parents hired a clown for his 5th birthday and Joshua got sick from hot dogs and cake. c. He once dressed up as a clown for Halloween and everyone made fun of him. d. He was bullied by Chris in elementary school and Chris now works as a professional clown. 15. For a week after his training, Magnus would sit down and start salivating whenever he saw Alec. This is because Alec was a ______________. a. positive reinforcer b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned stimulus d. negative reinforcer 16. One day, Olivia gets very upset and throws a huge temper tantrum. Despite the fact that she was supposed to get a sticker for brushing her teeth alone that day, Jared does not give her one because of her behaviour. This is an example of ________________. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. disciplinary procedure d. punishment 17. The fact that Magnus begins salivating and wagging his tail indicates that the word “sit” is a ________. a. conditioned response b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. result of negative reinforcement 18. Based on what you know about operant conditioning, what should Joshua do to help Victoria get over her fear of his tarantula? a. Make Victoria her favourite dinner before she spends time with his tarantula. b. Lock Victoria in a room with his tarantula so she can see it does not pose her any danger. c. Play peaceful and relaxing music while Victoria is spending time with his tarantula. d. Give Victoria a small present every time she spends time with his tarantula. 19. Alicia is actively trying to get her poker playing under control and decides to enrol in a behaviour modification program. When asked why she joined the program, Alicia replies “Because I’m too spontaneous.” In order for the program to be effective, Alicia should _______________. a. not make generalized claims about herself and let the professionals assess her b. translate vague claims into precise descriptions of specific target behaviours c. continue making generalized claims because they encompass multiple target behaviours d. accept her personality traits as they are and develop coping skills to live with them

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Chap 06_6ce_Case-Based 20. Alicia is an avid online poker player. She spends hours every day playing poker online. Initially, she played because she really enjoyed the game and it gave her an exciting feeling. However, over the past few months she has noticed that she experiences higher anxiety levels if she has not played in a while and she feels like she needs to play to reduce this anxiety. Initially, Alicia’s poker playing habit was maintained by ________________. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 21. Victoria has a huge phobia of spiders. Victoria is currently dating Joshua who owns a pet tarantula. Victoria refuses to even be in the same room as Joshua’s tarantula. Joshua is trying to help Victoria overcome her fear of his tarantula. According to Martin Seligman, what is a likely explanation of Victoria’s pathological fear of spiders? a. Evolution has programmed humans to readily acquire a fear of spiders. b. When Victoria was young she was bitten by a spider and had a nasty allergic reaction. c. Victoria does not really like Joshua and has paired the unpleasant feeling of being with him with the presence of the tarantula. d. Through higher-order conditioning, Victoria has associated spiders with aversive feelings. 22. Over the following days, Alec noticed that Magnus would salivate and wag his tail whenever he heard Alec say the word “fit”. What is this known as? a. stimulus discrimination b. stimulus generalization c. an unconditioned response d. a fixed action pattern 23. Monica is concerned about Ross’ choice of TV shows and tells him how the shows he watches affect his brain. Ross rolls his eyes and says she’s being a drama queen. Which statement best summarizes this situation? a. Monica is right. Research shows Ross would show desensitization and adaptation to violent material. b. Monica is right. Research shows Ross would show increased skin conductance in response to violent material. c. Ross is right. What Monica said would be true only if Ross was an eyewitness to a violent act. d. Ross is right. What Monica said would be true only if he witnessed his peers committing violent acts. 24. Alicia is actively trying to get her poker playing under control and decided to enrol in a behaviour modification program. As suggested by the program facilitator, Alicia sets up a punishment for herself in case she ends up playing poker online and losing a lot of money. Which of the following would be the most effective method of punishment? a. Giving $30 to her brother and telling him to buy a CD of an artist she hates. b. Delivering a strong electric shock to herself every time she played poker. c. Having her brother take her laptop away from her, even if she needs it for work. d. Donating an equal amount of money she lost to a charity she believes in.

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Chap 06_6ce_Case-Based 25. Alec wants to train his dog Magnus to sit on command. To achieve this goal, Alec starts by giving Magnus a strip of bacon and saying “sit” every time Magnus sits. A day later, Alec gives Magnus a strip of bacon and a pat on the head and says “sit” every time Magnus sits. Magnus seems to learn to sit on command. However, after a few days of training, Alec notices that Magnus now salivates and wags his tail whenever he hears the word “sit.” Alec is using _____ conditioning with ______ reinforcement to train Magnus sit. a. classical; partial b. classical; continuous c. operant; partial d. operant; continuous 26. Joshua works in marketing and knows all about using the principles of classical and operant conditioning to sell an idea to the public. How can Joshua incorporate these same ideas to help Victoria overcome her fear of tarantula? a. Show her pictures and videos of famous models posing with a tarantula. b. Show her statistics about how unlikely it is to be hurt by a pet tarantula. c. Show her pictures of other animals killing and/or eating a tarantula. d. Show her a video of tarantulas in their natural habitat. 27. Jared wants to eventually get Olivia to brush her teeth without him giving her a sticker. What should he do to increase the probability that Olivia does not stop brushing her teeth after he stops giving her stickers? a. Give her a sticker every single time she brushes her teeth. b. Give her a bigger reward than a sticker. c. Give her a sticker after a variable number of times she brushes her teeth. d. Continue doing exactly the same thing he is currently doing. 28. Alicia has not won a game in a while, and yet she continues to play despite her lengthy losing streak. What do you expect happened when Alicia first started playing? a. She won every single game she played for the first few days. b. She won every third or so game she played for the first few days. c. She won every couple of hours or so for the first few days. d. She won sporadically for the first few days that she played. 29. Based on what you know about classical conditioning, what should Joshua do to help Victoria get over her fear of his tarantula? a. Give Victoria a small reward after every time she spends time with his tarantula. b. Lock Victoria in a room with his tarantula so she can see it does not pose her any danger. c. Play peaceful and relaxing music every time Victoria is near his tarantula. d. Buy Victoria her favourite double espresso every time she spends time with his tarantula.

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Chap 06_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. d 17. c 18. d 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. a 25. d 26. a

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Chap 06_6ce_Case-Based 27. c 28. d 29. c

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which statement best represents most people’s response to punishment and negative reinforcement? a. They enjoy being negatively reinforced and dislike being punished. b. They enjoy being punished and dislike being negatively reinforced. c. They dislike being negatively reinforced or punished. d. They enjoy being negatively reinforced or punished. 2. What happens in the brain of an individual who is observing the behaviour of another person, based on

evidence from brain imaging? a. Mirror neurons become active as the observer “experiences” what the model is doing. b. Parietal areas become less active, as the observer becomes focused on visual processing. c. Language areas become active as the observer engages in self-talk. d. Subcortical areas become less active because the observer can have only emotional responses to his own behaviour. 3. Trevor is picked on by bullies whenever he walks near the gym. Bradley is picked on sometimes when he

goes near the gym, but not usually. According to Rescorla’s signal relations model of classical conditioning, who will experience more fear near the gym? a. Trevor will, because he has experienced more physical pain. b. Bradley will, because his experience has been less predictable. c. Bradley will, because his response will have generalized more fully. d. Trevor will, because the gym serves as a better predictor. 4. Which learning theory is best able to explain why receiving physical punishment tends to increase aggressive

behaviour in children? a. Bandura’s theory of observational learning b. Rescorla’s theory of signal relations c. Pavlov’s theory of classical conditioning d. Skinner’s theory of operant conditioning 5. Darcy feels happy whenever she smells pancakes cooking because of the association of these smells with her

grandmother. What is her happiness, when she smells pancakes, in this example? a. unconditioned response b. conditioned response c. unconditioned stimulus d. conditioned stimulus

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 6. What has been found in studies of response-outcome relations and reinforcement? a. Operant behaviour is automatically strengthened when it is followed by desirable consequences. b. On concurrent schedules of reinforcement, organisms emit responses that maximize the total number of

reinforcers they will receive. c. There are species-specific predispositions to form certain types of associations. d. People actively reason out the relations between responses and the outcomes that follow. 7. Henri got a bad sunburn on his face when he was skiing last winter. Now before he starts a day of skiing, he

uses sunscreen on his face to prevent another sunburn. What is the consequence of using sunscreen in this case? a. positive reinforcement b. escape c. avoidance d. negative punishment 8. Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. praise b. money c. hugs

d. grades

9. In Pavlov’s famous study, which of the following is the most accurate term for each time that a tone was

paired with the food powder? a. a conditioning trial b. an acquisition trial c. a pairing trial d. an extinction trial 10. What is the first step in a behaviour modification program? a. specify the target behaviour b. design a program c. gather baseline data

d. specify the antecedents

11. In the cumulative record of responses from a Skinner box, what sort of line indicates a rapid, rather than

slow, response rate? a. shallow slope b. steep slope c. upward slope d. downward slope 12. When is the reinforcer given in a variable-ratio schedule? a. after a fixed number of nonreinforced responses b. for the first response that occurs after a variable amount of time has elapsed c. for the first response that occurs after a fixed amount of time has elapsed d. after a variable number of nonreinforced responses

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 13. Thierry and Renée each want to train their dogs. Thierry wants his dog to feel relaxed when the doorbell

rings. Renée wants her dog to bark only when she gives the command to do so. Which methods would be best for each of them? a. operant conditioning for Thierry and classical conditioning for Renée b. operant conditioning for both c. classical conditioning for both d. classical conditioning for Thierry and operant conditioning for Renée 14. A three-year-old boy observes his father yelling at his mother every time she says something the father

doesn’t like. In the future, whenever the mother says something to the boy that he does not like, which of the following is the boy most likely to do, based on principles of observational learning? a. yell at his mother b. yell at his sister c. go and tell his father what the mother said d. yell at his father 15. In which of the following ways would Thorndike explain how the cats in his study came up with possible

behaviours to try to escape his puzzle boxes? a. trial and error b. insight c. classical conditioning d. observational learning 16. Julia is playing hockey in the basement with her brother when she notices a movement on the wall. She looks

closer and sees that it is a spider. Her brother, not realizing Julia’s distraction, shoots the puck in her direction and accidentally hurts Julia. If Julia develops a fear or phobia from this episode, which of the following is most likely to be the object of her fear? a. spiders b. her brother c. hockey pucks d. basements 17. In Pavlov’s famous study, after the dogs had learned the association between the tone and the food powder,

they were sometimes presented with a tone a number of times without the food powder until the salivation response disappeared. Which of the following is the term for this disappearance? a. conditioning b. acquisition c. spontaneous recovery d. extinction 18. Steve is a professional basketball player. He never knows for sure which of his shots will result in a basket,

but the more shots he takes, the more baskets he makes. How is Steve’s shooting reinforced in this example? a. on a variable-ratio schedule b. on a fixed-interval schedule c. on a variable-interval schedule d. on a fixed-ratio schedule

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 19. What could be accounted for by classical conditioning? a. learning to play baseball b. learning to hate the smell of hot dogs that once made you sick c. learning to talk d. learning to avoid shopping in a store with bad customer service 20. In an operant conditioning procedure, reinforcement leads to an association between the behaviour and the

consequence. Compared to using continuous reinforcement, intermittent reinforcement will lead to an association that is which of the following? a. learned faster than one that is continually reinforced b. weaker than one that is continually reinforced c. more resistant to extinction than one that is continually reinforced d. less susceptible to the renewal effect than one that is continually reinforced Ziggy Lynne has trained her dog, Ziggy, to ring a bell when he needs to go outside to urinate. First, she hung a bell from the doorknob. Every time she took Ziggy outside to urinate, she would ring the bell as she opened the door. If Ziggy bumped into the bell even by accident, she would praise him and take him outside (and he would get a treat each time he eliminated outdoors). If Ziggy urinated indoors, Lynne would ignore him and clean up the mess very quickly. Ziggy learned that going outside to urinate led to treats and praise but urinating indoors led to no attention at all. Ziggy began to intentionally hit the bell with his paw when he needed to go outside. Once this began to happen, Lynne no longer opened the door for Ziggy when he simply bumped into the bell. Also, as the behaviour became more predictable, Lynne no longer provided treats every time Ziggy urinated outdoors. She only provided a treat for urinating outside approximately once per week. There was one major downfall to this training plan. Ziggy came to associate the sound of the bell with urination a little too strongly, so that he ended up wanting to go outside whenever the phone rang! 21. What is the term used to describe Ziggy responding to the phone with the need to go outside? a. generalization b. extinction c. spontaneous recovery d. avoidance learning 22. A woman reports feeling happy whenever she smells hot dogs and campfires because of the association of

these smells with her favourite family vacations. What is the combined smell of hot dogs and campfires in this example? a. conditioned response b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned response d. unconditioned stimulus

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 23. Zane has been shocked on six separate occasions while making toast. However, he doesn’t seem to have

developed a phobia toward toasters. Zane’s only phobia is toward snakes, even though a snake has never harmed him. Which concept does this example illustrate? a. negative avoidance b. preparedness c. signal relations d. superstitious responding 24. What occurs when an event that follows a behaviour results in a lower probability of that behaviour in the

future? a. vicarious conditioner c. negative reinforcement

b. punishment d. positive reinforcement

25. According to Skinner, when is a stimulus considered to be a reinforcer? a. when it reduces a biological need b. when it induces a biological need c. when it increases the probability of the response that produced it d. when it decreases the probability of the response that produced it 26. You are watching a cumulative recorder that is connected to a small disk in a chamber. The pigeon has been

trained to peck the disk when a red light is turned on, and not to peck the disk when a green light is turned on. What should you observe when the green light is turned on, based on this information? a. The pen on the cumulative recorder will start to move downward. b. The cumulative record will be shaped like a staircase, rather than a series of scallops. c. The slope of the line on the cumulative recorder will be shallower than when the red light is turned on. d. The roll of paper in the cumulative recorder will stop moving. 27. Jocelyn watches her older sister wash the breakfast dishes. Later, Jocelyn attempts to wash some dishes.

What was the older sister in this situation? a. unconditional stimulus b. discriminative stimulus c. positive reinforcer d. model 28. Which term refers to the form of classical conditioning that is used by advertising campaigns to alter the

preferences or attitudes of consumers? a. evaluative conditioning b. persuasive conditioning c. manipulative conditioning d. preferential conditioning 29. According to Pavlov, what is necessary for classical conditioning to occur? a. the unconditioned and conditioned stimuli must occur together in time and space b. the use of sign-stimuli to prevent resistance to extinction c. a very strong unconditioned stimulus d. a very intense conditioned stimulus

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 30. Clara and Ashley ate dinner at a new restaurant last night. The entire restaurant was decorated in green, and

the sound of waterfalls played in the background. Both Clara and Ashley ordered “trapper casserole,” which tasted like nothing they had ever eaten before. Four hours after they had eaten, they both started vomiting violently and were taken to the hospital by ambulance, with the sirens wailing. What is most likely to elicit conditioned responses from Clara and Ashley, based on research conducted by Garcia and his colleagues? a. anything that is coloured green b. foods that smell like trapper casserole c. the sound of sirens d. the sound of falling water 31. Which of the following animal tricks would be most likely to require shaping? a. teaching a bunny to hop when it hears a particular song b. teaching a cat to purr when it hears a particular song c. teaching a bird to chirp when it hears a particular song d. teaching a dog to walk on its hind legs when it hears a particular song 32. Why is much of the evidence about the effects of spanking considered to be controversial? a. Most of the studies are correlational, which does not allow for conclusive statements about cause and

effect. b. Although there is a lot of anecdotal data regarding the risks of spanking, there are no studies with large sample sizes. c. Most of the studies have been conducted on children with pre-existing behaviour problems. d. Because most adults have experienced corporal punishment, it is next to impossible to find a sample for the control group. 33. As Randy was waiting for the bus one day, a car pulled up and the driver asked him for directions to the

nearest gas station. Randy provided clear directions to a station a few blocks away, even though he doesn’t drive and has never actually stopped at that gas station for any reason. What term would Tolman have used to describe Randy’s knowledge about the gas station? a. subliminal awareness b. trace conditioning c. preparedness d. latent learning 34. In stimulus generalization, a stimulus that is similar to the initial ________________ also elicits a conditioned

response. a. unconditioned stimulus c. unconditioned response

b. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 35. Veronica had been working at Zenex Industries for eight months when her boss called her to his office. The

boss told Veronica she was being laid off. Veronica could feel her heart pounding as she listened to the news. Veronica got a new job, but every time her new boss asks to talk to her in private, Veronica feels a little faint. What is the unconditioned response in this example? a. her new boss asking for a private meeting b. her pounding heart when she heard she was being laid off c. the faintness she feels when her new boss wants to talk to her in private d. the bad news from her boss at Zenex Industries 36. According to Rescorla’s signal relations model of classical conditioning, which of the following will result in a

stronger conditional response? a. a weaker conditioned stimulus b. a conditioned stimulus that is always paired with the unconditioned stimulus c. a stronger unconditioned response d. an unconditioned stimulus that always elicits an unconditioned response 37. Pavlov found that meat powder placed on a dog’s tongue will make the dog salivate. What is the meat

powder in Pavlov’s terms? a. unconditioned stimulus b. conditioned stimulus c. conditioned response d. unconditioned response 38. As part of a classical conditioning study, a rat hears a tone that is associated with a brief electrical shock a

moment later. Before the study, the rat’s response to the shock was to scramble and leap about. After conditioning, which of the following would we predict about the rat’s response to the tone? a. The rat will not respond to the tone as the UCS will overshadow the CS in this case. b. The rat will develop a CR of leaping about and scrambling. c. The rat will develop a UCR of leaping about and scrambling. d. The rat will develop a CR of “freezing” or standing immobile. 39. A pigeon learns to peck at a disk lighted green to receive reinforcement, but not at a disk lighted red. For this

pigeon, what is the colour of the disk? a. discriminative stimulus b. punisher or nonpunisher c. generalization stimulus d. reinforcer or nonreinforcer 40. After a painful experience, Frederick cringes every time he hears a dentist’s drill, even when he is sitting in the

waiting room of his dentist’s office. What is the pain of dental drilling in this example? a. unconditioned response b. conditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. unconditioned stimulus

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 41. Jerome is training to be a vacuum cleaner salesperson. Initially, he was paid for each customer he called on,

even if the customer did not ask for a demonstration. Currently, he is paid for only demonstrating the product. Eventually, he will be paid only for closing a sale. Which process is illustrated in this example? a. classical conditioning b. modelling c. negative reinforcement d. shaping 42. A neutral stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus.

What is this process called? a. instrumental conditioning c. operant conditioning

b. Skinnerian conditioning d. classical conditioning

43. What does the cumulative recorder do in a Skinner box? a. It delivers the reinforcers. b. It creates a graphic record of operant responding across time. c. It permits the experimenter to control the reinforcement contingencies. d. It provides a complete record of everything the animal does. 44. On Tuesday morning, Chloe prepared her typical breakfast of cereal with milk, fruit, and black coffee.

However, instead of having grapefruit with her breakfast as she normally does, she tried eating mango for the first time. Later she became extremely ill. If her illness causes her to develop a conditioned response to one of her breakfast items, which food will elicit the conditioned response? a. grapefruit, because that was the one thing missing from her typical breakfast b. mango, because it was a novel stimulus c. coffee, because coffee is a stimulant d. milk, because the milk may have been sour 45. You are watching a rat pressing a lever in a Skinner box to obtain food pellets. The rat pauses for a long time

after each food pellet is delivered, but slowly increases its rate of lever pressing as more time elapses. Which reinforcement schedule is likely in place in this example? a. variable-interval b. fixed-interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable-ratio 46. Based on Pavlov’s (1906) classic article, which of the following did he state about the use of a bell? a. It served as an effective conditioned stimulus. b. It served as an effective unconditioned stimulus. c. It was not very effective as a conditioned stimulus. d. It was not very effective as an unconditioned stimulus.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1

Ziggy Lynne has trained her dog, Ziggy, to ring a bell when he needs to go outside to urinate. First, she hung a bell from the doorknob. Every time she took Ziggy outside to urinate, she would ring the bell as she opened the door. If Ziggy bumped into the bell even by accident, she would praise him and take him outside (and he would get a treat each time he eliminated outdoors). If Ziggy urinated indoors, Lynne would ignore him and clean up the mess very quickly. Ziggy learned that going outside to urinate led to treats and praise but urinating indoors led to no attention at all. Ziggy began to intentionally hit the bell with his paw when he needed to go outside. Once this began to happen, Lynne no longer opened the door for Ziggy when he simply bumped into the bell. Also, as the behaviour became more predictable, Lynne no longer provided treats every time Ziggy urinated outdoors. She only provided a treat for urinating outside approximately once per week. There was one major downfall to this training plan. Ziggy came to associate the sound of the bell with urination a little too strongly, so that he ended up wanting to go outside whenever the phone rang! 47. What process was Lynne using by rewarding even accidental ringing of the bell, but gradually working up to reinforcing only intentional ringing? a. shaping b. modelling c. extinction d. classical conditioning 48. Michelle is getting annoyed at a classmate who keeps making fun of her every day. Eventually, Michelle has

had enough and just snaps, punching the other girl. The classmate no longer makes fun of Michelle and picks a new target for her bullying. We do not condone this violence, but from a conditioning perspective, Michelle’s violent outburst received which of the following? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 49. Which of the following is NOT one of the key elements of the evolved module for fear learning proposed

by Ohman and Mineka? a. It is preferentially activated by stimuli related to survival threats in evolutionary history. b. It is automatically activated by relevant stimuli. c. It is relatively resistant to conscious efforts to suppress the resulting fears. d. It is dependent on neural circuitry running through the hippocampus. 50. The basic principles of gradual acquisition, extinction, stimulus generalization, and discrimination apply to

which type of learning? a. cognitive learning b. social learning c. both classical and instrumental conditioning d. learning by animals, but not learning by people

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 51. What would be an effective technique in setting up reinforcement contingencies in a self-modification

program? a. choosing a reinforcer that is readily available and relatively potent b. using delayed reinforcement c. arranging to reinforce yourself only after there has been a drastic change in the frequency of the target response d. using continuous rather than intermittent reinforcement 52. Kaleb developed a fear of snowstorms two winters ago when his car spun off the road and hit a tree during a

blizzard. As the winter progressed, and he had no further accidents, Kaleb thought his fear of snowstorms had disappeared. To his surprise, this winter when the first heavy snow started to fall as he was driving, he found his heart was pounding and he was trembling. What does this illustrate? a. extinction b. stimulus generalization c. higher-order conditioning d. spontaneous recovery 53. Which component of observational learning is heavily influenced by expectations about reinforcement,

according to Albert Bandura? a. initially attending to the behaviour of another person b. initially acquiring or learning a new behaviour c. actually performing a behaviour that has been learned d. accurately retaining information about a behaviour 54. What happens to successful responses, according to Thorndike’s view of learning? a. They are “stamped out” by misuse. b. They become associated with conditional responses. c. They are “stamped in” by their favourable effects or consequences. d. They increase in frequency because they are classically conditioned to be associated with food. 55. Which response by dogs in Pavlov’s laboratory triggered Pavlov’s interest in conditioning? a. failure to salivate when food was placed in their mouths b. salivation right after they had swallowed food c. salivation only when food was placed in their mouths d. salivation right before food was placed in their mouths 56. An organization creates a television ad that alternates between images of ruined landscapes and people filling

up huge trucks at gas stations. If people develop negative feelings about buying large trucks as a result of watching this ad, what would those negative feelings represent? a. negative reinforcement b. conditioned response c. positive reinforcement d. unconditioned response

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 57. One Saturday, Adhar was sitting at home when the telephone rang. A local company was making

promotional calls and told Adhar he had just won a $500 gift certificate. He felt a rush of excitement at the thought of what he could do with $500. Now Adhar finds that whenever he hears a telephone ring, he feels a little surge of excitement. What is the conditioned response in this example? a. the ringing of a telephone b. the news that he had just won a $500 gift certificate c. the surge of excitement he feels whenever the telephone rings d. the rush of excitement he felt when he won the certificate 58. Rover is fed whenever his owner opens the refrigerator. Fluffy gets fed about every third time that her owner

opens the refrigerator. Which pet will get most excited when the refrigerator is opened? a. Rover will, because the open door is a better predictor of food. b. Rover will, because his response will have discriminated more fully. c. Fluffy will, because the feedings have been less predictable and more spontaneous. d. Fluffy will, because the refrigerator door is a more salient cue. 59. Nate is watching the cumulative recorder that is connected to a box where a rat is pressing a lever to receive

food reinforcement. The slope of the line is becoming flatter and flatter over time. What can Nate conclude about the rat’s response rate, based on this output? a. It is decreasing over time. b. It is increasing over time. c. It is caused by inadequate stimulus generalization. d. It will soon show spontaneous recovery. 60. Noel’s skill at hitting a baseball gradually improves as his attempts produce more frequent and longer-

distance hits. Which process does this example illustrate? a. shaping b. stimulus generalization c. extinction d. stimulus discrimination 61. Miguel used to enjoy occasionally drinking a glass of red wine, but when he drank too much red wine at a

friend’s party a few months ago, he woke up with a terrible hangover. Since then, Miguel refuses to drink any red wine. What is the hangover in this case? a. negative reinforcement for drinking red wine b. secondary reinforcer for attending parties c. conditioned response to wine drinking d. punishment for drinking red wine

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 62. Which aspect of observational learning highlights the importance of cognitions? a. motivation to perform the behaviour b. ability to execute the behaviour effectively c. reproduction of behaviour d. retention of knowledge 63. Dr. Miller gives the rats in her lab some artificially sweetened water. At the same time, she also injects the rats

with a drug that suppresses their immune system. A few days later, after the drug is out of their system, she notices that when she gives the rats more of the artificially sweetened water, their immune systems are suppressed. Which of the following is the unconditioned response in this experiment? a. the artificially sweetened water b. the drug c. suppression of the immune system in response to the drug d. suppression of the immune system in response to the artificially sweetened water 64. Marvin creates a television ad that alternates between images of coffins and people buying cigarettes. He is

hoping that people who watch the ad will develop negative feelings toward buying cigarettes after seeing these ads. What is the conditioned stimulus in Marvin’s ad? a. feelings people have toward cigarettes before they see the ad b. images of coffins c. images of people buying cigarettes d. people’s feelings of disgust when viewing coffins 65. The newest winning numbers in the lottery are announced on the local television station every Saturday night

at the end of the news hour. On which reinforcement schedule will people who are watching for the lottery numbers have their “watching” reinforced? a. variable-interval b. fixed-ratio c. variable-ratio d. fixed-interval 66. What is continuous reinforcement? a. Reinforcement is always available, regardless of what type of response occurs. b. Every participant in the group is reinforced. c. Every occurrence of the target response is reinforced. d. Reinforcement is delivered continually, regardless of whether or not a response is made. 67. Katrina is trying to put a coin into a vending machine in her office. Sometimes the machine will take a coin on

the first try, and other times it can take up to five or six tries before the coin is finally accepted. On which type of schedule is inserting a coin into the vending machine reinforced in this example? a. intermittent b. short-delay c. continuous d. noncontingent Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 68. One Saturday, Lacey was sitting at home when the telephone rang. A local company was making promotional

calls and told Lacey she had just won a $1,000 gift certificate. She felt a rush of excitement at the thought of what she could do with $1,000. Now Lacey finds that whenever she hears a telephone ring, she feels a surge of excitement. What is the rush of excitement that Lacey felt when she heard she had won in this example? a. conditioned response b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned response d. unconditioned stimulus 69. What is the term for a species-specific predisposition to be conditioned in certain ways and not others? a. instinct b. phobia c. preparedness

d. adaptation

70. Annie is nervous and cringes every time she hears a dentist’s drill. It all started when she was a teenager and

did not receive enough anesthetic when she was getting a filling. In this example, which of the following is the unconditioned response? a. the dentist giving her the filling b. her cringing when she hears a dentist drill c. the pain she felt when getting the filling d. the dentist giving her a low dosage of anesthetic 71. The fact that Martin Seligman developed conditioned aversion to sauce béarnaise (and not to the other stimuli

in the restaurant such as plates or the waiter) suggests that the food–illness association of taste aversion is a specific example of the broader phenomenon of which of the following? a. higher-order conditioning b. preparedness c. signal relations d. the law of effect 72. What does negative reinforcement involve? a. presentation of a pleasant stimulus b. removal of a pleasant stimulus c. presentation of an unpleasant stimulus

d. removal of an unpleasant stimulus

73. Geraldo begins to chew his fingernails every time his teacher enters the classroom. What is the antecedent in

this case? a. anticipated punishment c. the teacher entering the classroom

b. the fear associated with the teacher d. chewing the fingernails

74. What is a discriminative stimulus? a. the same thing as an unconditioned stimulus b. a cue that indicates whether the unconditioned stimulus will be pleasant or aversive c. the same thing as a reinforcer d. a cue that indicates the probable consequences of an operant response

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 75. Nicolas has autism and he used to be mute. A therapist working with Nicolas initially gave him a piece of

chocolate any time he made a sound with his lips. This slowly changed until Nicolas received a piece of chocolate only for saying complete words, and eventually only for saying complete sentences. Which process is illustrated in this example? a. classical conditioning b. modelling c. shaping d. negative reinforcement 76. What is the initial stage of learning a response called? a. acquisition b. contiguity c. conditioning

d. extinction

77. What is the major distinction between classical conditioning and operant conditioning? a. In classical, you learn to respond to discriminative stimuli; in operant, you learn to respond to

generalized stimuli. b. In classical, you learn to avoid punishment; in operant, you learn to seek out reinforcement. c. In classical, you learn to increase a voluntary behaviour; in operant, you learn to decrease a voluntary behaviour. d. In classical, you learn to change a reflexive behaviour; in operant, you learn to change a voluntary behaviour. 78. An angler accidentally casts his hook into a tree, where it now dangles. He makes various attempts to retrieve

the hook, including climbing the tree, throwing rocks at the branch, and tugging the line. Eventually, he tries tying together a couple of long sticks and thus is able to poke the hook free. In the future, he is more likely to try this method since it was successful. In terms of principles of learning, this is most similar to which of the following? a. Garcia’s rats drinking sweet water that had been paired with a shock b. Little Albert learning to fear a white rat, rabbit, and Santa Claus mask c. Thorndike’s cats escaping a puzzle box d. Pavlov’s dogs learning to salivate to a tone 79. What happens to the rate of response when negative reinforcement is applied and when punishment is

applied? a. Both contingencies increase the rate of response. b. Negative reinforcement increases, but punishment decreases the rate of response. c. Both contingencies decrease the rate of response. d. Negative reinforcement decreases, but punishment increases the rate of response.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 80. Jeremy stops gambling five minutes after his slot machine last paid off; Jessica is still gambling, even though

her slot machine hasn’t paid off in over an hour. Which statement best describes their behaviours? a. Jeremy has been classically conditioned, while Jessica has been operantly conditioned. b. Jeremy shows resistance to extinction, while Jessica shows resistance to discrimination. c. Jeremy shows low resistance to extinction, while Jessica shows high resistance to extinction. d. Jeremy is controlled by conditioned stimuli, while Jessica is controlled by unconditioned stimuli. 81. What is typical about the recovered response when a conditioned response shows spontaneous recovery? a. It is stronger than the previously conditioned response. b. It occurs before the conditioned stimulus. c. It is weaker than the previously conditioned response. d. It changes to an unconditioned stimulus. 82. Summer is teaching herself to type using a computer software package. The first time she used the program,

the sentences she was supposed to type scrolled very slowly across the computer screen, and when she finished, the computer played a clapping sound. However, now she has to type the material faster than her previous “best time” before the computer plays the clapping sound. Which technique is incorporated in this software package? a. modelling b. negative reinforcement c. shaping d. classical conditioning 83. Nolan has learned to drink a cup of coffee whenever he gets a tension headache because drinking coffee

makes the pain of the headache go away. What does this example illustrate? a. avoidance learning b. escape learning c. classical conditioning d. positive reinforcement 84. Megan has always loved winter and the holiday season—drinking hot chocolate by the fire, skating, and

spending time with family. Even just passing houses that are all decorated with lights makes her feel warm and content. Given this association, Megan’s feelings of warmth and happiness when spending time with her family and drinking hot chocolate might be an example of which of the following? a. a conditioned stimulus b. an unconditioned stimulus c. a conditioned response d. an unconditioned response 85. Dr. Moccia studies the development of fears. In his lab, he exposes rats to a light that, as it is turned on, is

followed by a mild electric shock. Each pairing of the light and shock, in this study, would be considered an example of which of the following? a. an antecedent b. an extinction trial c. stimulus discrimination d. an acquisition trial

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 86. Nadja used to really enjoy potato salad, and at a recent family reunion, she ate a large helping. Unfortunately,

the potato salad had gone bad, and Nadja became quite ill after eating it. Now she finds that even the sight of potatoes in the grocery store can make her feel sick to her stomach. What is the sick feeling Nadja experiences when she sees potatoes in the grocery store in this example? a. conditioned response b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned stimulus d. unconditioned response 87. A major automaker has developed a series of television commercials that show its cars in the great outdoors,

in peaceful settings, away from the hustle and bustle of big cities. The company hopes that seeing the cars in these settings will condition good feelings about its cars. Which learning principle is this particular automaker attempting to use? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. observational learning d. noncontingent reinforcement 88. How are new conditioned responses created in higher-order conditioning? a. They are built on the foundation of innate unconditioned responses. b. They are conditioned by repeatedly pairing them with discriminative stimuli. c. They are facilitated by sensory adaptation. d. They are built on the foundation of previously established conditioned responses. 89. Micah really liked his mom’s homemade apple pie, and he would eat a huge slice whenever she made some.

When he went to visit with a friend, he tried some apple pie that the friend had made, and it tasted terrible. Now Micah will eat only his mom’s apple pie; if anyone else offers him apple pie, he politely turns that person down. What does this example illustrate? a. observational learning b. stimulus generalization c. noncontingent reinforcement d. stimulus discrimination 90. After watching his father wash the car, five-year-old Yacov washes his bike. What does this example

illustrate? a. superstitious behaviour c. classical conditioning

b. observational learning d. positive reinforcement

91. Ken used to drool when he smelled cookies baking. However, Ken’s new roommate makes terrible cookies,

and the smell of them baking is no longer associated with a wonderful taste experience. Consequently, Ken finds that the smell of the cookies no longer makes him drool in anticipation. Which classical conditioning process does this illustrate? a. extinction b. higher-order conditioning c. avoidance d. spontaneous recovery

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 92. The continued presentation of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus will result in the

gradual disappearance of the conditioned response. What is this phenomenon called? a. conditioned forgetting b. extinction c. suppression d. inhibition 93. McKenna had an unplanned pregnancy when she was 19 years old. Following her pregnancy, McKenna

started taking a birth control pill each day to prevent another pregnancy. What does this example illustrate? a. Preventing a pregnancy acts as a positive reinforcer for taking birth control pills. b. Preventing a pregnancy acts as a negative reinforcer for taking birth control pills. c. Taking birth control pills acts as a negative reinforcer for preventing a pregnancy. d. Taking birth control pills acts as a positive reinforcer for preventing a pregnancy. 94. Dr. Miller gives the rats in her lab some artificially sweetened water. At the same time, she also injects the rats

with a drug that suppresses their immune system. A few days later, after the drug is out of their system, she notices that when she gives the rats more of the artificially sweetened water, their immune systems are suppressed. Which of the following is the unconditioned stimulus in this experiment? a. the artificially sweetened water b. the drug c. suppression of the immune system in response to the drug d. suppression of the immune system in response to the artificially sweetened water 95. Hamish and Dougal have noticed some examples of conditioning in the border collies that they use on their

farm. For example, the dogs have learned to herd sheep toward the barn if they hear a short blast on a whistle. The dogs also start drooling whenever they are allowed into the kitchen of the farmhouse, where they get really tasty scraps to eat. Which statement best describes their dogs’ conditioning? a. Both behaviours are examples of operant conditioning. b. The herding behaviour is a result of operant conditioning, and the drooling is a result of classical conditioning. c. Both behaviours are examples of classical conditioning. d. The herding behaviour is a result of classical conditioning, and the drooling is a result of operant conditioning. 96. What is the difference between a student who studies in order to earn high grades, and a student who studies

to avoid failure? a. The student who aims for high grades does so as a result of avoidance learning. b. The student who wants to avoid failing is more resistant to extinction. c. The student who wants to avoid failing is working for negative reinforcement. d. The student who aims for high grades is more motivated.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 97. Darrel was dancing with his new girlfriend. When the band played “Love Song,” his girlfriend gave him a long

passionate kiss. Now Darrel finds that every time he hears “Love Song” on the radio, he becomes mildly excited. What is the kiss in this example? a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response 98. What should you present to weaken or eliminate a conditioned response? a. extra pairings of the conditioned stimulus and unconditioned stimulus b. the conditioned stimulus alone several times c. the unconditioned stimulus alone several times d. the unconditioned stimulus before the conditioned stimulus several times 99. You are watching a rat pressing a lever in a Skinner box to obtain food pellets. The rat is pressing the lever at

a very high rate, but it takes a break from lever pressing each time a food pellet is delivered. What type of schedule was likely used to train the rat? a. variable-ratio b. variable-interval c. fixed-ratio d. fixed-interval 100. Evanline is shocked and saddened to read in the news that her old neighbour and childhood friend recently

died of a heroin overdose. According to the textbook, which of the following is most likely? a. Her friend had a larger dosage than usual. b. The cumulative effects of years of taking heroin overwhelmed her friend’s system. c. Her friend took the same amount of heroin as usual but in a different location. d. Her friend took the same amount of heroin, but it interacted with another (new) drug. 101. The Brelands’ trained raccoons would deposit single tokens into a slot but would not deposit two tokens,

which they rubbed together. What explanation did the Brelands use for this behaviour? a. instinctive drift toward food-washing behaviour b. insufficient reinforcement of token placing c. lack of interest in the single tokens d. poor conditioning of token placing 102. When Diana was three years old, she became terrified when the neighbour’s pet parrot kept flying near her

head. Today she is afraid of all birds, including robins, pigeons, and blue jays. What process does this illustrate? a. negative avoidance b. stimulus discrimination c. instinctive drift d. stimulus generalization

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 103. What would increase your likelihood of success when using punishment in a self-modification program? a. making sure you also have the opportunity to earn some reinforcers b. gradually increasing the intensity of the punishment over time c. getting a friend or family member to withhold the punishment d. putting the punisher on an intermittent schedule 104. What Pavlov referred to as the “psychic reflex” is most similar to which of the following terms? a. classical conditioning b. spontaneous recovery c. conditioned response

d. unconditioned response

105. Which behaviour would be most difficult to extinguish? a. one that was reinforced by your parents b. one that was reinforced every time it occurred c. one that was shaped d. one that was reinforced intermittently 106. Which issue is emphasized by research into signal relations, response-outcome relations, and observational

learning? a. the limitations of using basic conditioning procedures in everyday situations b. the distinction between acquisition of behaviour and the performance of behaviour c. the role of cognitive processes in learning d. the importance of evolutionary adaptations in learning 107. What is it called when an animal’s innate response tendencies interfere with the conditioning process? a. resistance to acquisition b. instinctive drift c. learned helplessness

d. counterconditioning

108. Zoe has learned to drink a cup of coffee whenever she gets a tension headache because drinking coffee

makes the headache go away. Which of the following does this example illustrate? a. positive reinforcement b. positive punishment c. negative reinforcement d. negative punishment 109. In today’s business world, management often emphasizes positive reinforcement more than in the past. Which

of your text’s unifying themes does this illustrate? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 110. You have conditioned a fear response to a 1000-Hz tone. Now the tone is paired with a green light. Later,

the green light alone elicits fear. What is this process called? a. discriminated conditioned responding b. higher-order conditioning c. stimulus generalization d. instinctive drift 111. What is the definition of learning, according to your text? a. any change in behaviour or knowledge b. changes in human behaviour as a result of knowledge or direct instruction c. a relatively durable change in behaviour or knowledge that is due to experience d. an intentional change in voluntary behaviour or knowledge 112. Maxwell runs a lawn care service and he charges his clients based on the square footage of their yard, rather

than charging an hourly rate for his services. Under which type of reinforcement schedule is Maxwell working? a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval 113. Ming is afraid of all spiders because her brother once dropped a spider down her shirt when she was

younger. Today, even the sight of a rubber spider is enough to send shivers down her spine. Which learning process can best account for Ming’s fear of spiders? a. operant conditioning b. delayed reinforcement c. classical conditioning d. observational learning 114. Megan has always loved winter and the holiday season—drinking hot chocolate by the fire, skating, and

spending time with family. Even just passing houses that are all decorated with lights makes her feel warm and content. In this example, which of the following is the conditioned stimulus? a. drinking hot chocolate by the fire b. winter c. houses decorated with lights d. feelings of warmth and contentment 115. Larry has an allergic reaction to the pollen in a lot of different types of flowers. One day, he started sneezing

when he saw a bouquet of artificial flowers on the table. Even though the flowers were not real, they elicited an allergic response from Larry. In this example, what are the fake flowers? a. unconditioned stimulus b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned response d. conditioned response 116. Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement? a. pairing food with a flashing light b. earning money for doing chores c. getting out of trouble by lying

d. hiding in your room to avoid a fight

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 117. Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement? a. paying a child $1 for each “A” received on her report card b. stopping nagging a child when he finally cleans his room c. giving a child a sweet dessert as a reward for finishing his dinner d. cutting a child’s TV time by 30 minutes each time she is rude 118. With most behaviour modification programs, what should you do once a terminal goal has been reached? a. Stop the program abruptly. b. Switch from positive to negative reinforcement. c. Phase the program out gradually by reducing the frequency of reinforcers. d. Switch from a ratio to an interval schedule of reinforcement. 119. Annie is nervous and cringes every time she hears a dentist’s drill. It all started when she was a teenager and

did not receive enough anesthetic when she was getting a filling. In this example, which of the following is the conditioned response? a. the dentist giving her the filling b. her cringing when she hears a dentist drill c. the pain she felt when getting the filling d. the dentist giving her a low dosage of anesthetic 120. How is escape conditioning maintained? a. negative punishment b. modelling c. negative reinforcement

d. positive reinforcement

121. Annie is nervous and cringes every time she hears a dentist’s drill. It all started when she was a teenager and

did not receive enough anesthetic when she was getting a filling. In this example, which of the following is the conditioned stimulus? a. the dentist b. the low dosage of anesthetic c. the pain she felt when getting the filling d. the sound of the drill 122. Rats in Dr. Violi’s lab were given artificially sweetened water. While drinking the water, some of the rats were

consistently exposed to a loud sound that startled them. Others were exposed to a bright flashing light that seemed to cause a fear response. The third group was secretly exposed to X-rays while drinking, which made the rats violently nauseated a little later. Which group is most likely to continue drinking the sweetened water? a. the sound group only b. the light group only c. the X-ray group only d. both the sound and the light groups

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 123. Mark is a professor who enjoys teaching—especially his extremely large introductory psychology class.

However, even though he is comfortable public speaking in this domain, Mark is extremely uncomfortable giving speeches when it is not to students but rather to friends and family. This specific fear is most closely related to which of the following concepts? a. preparedness b. escape conditioning c. stimulus discrimination d. shaping 124. In classical conditioning, what is the stimulus that is originally neutral but comes to elicit a response as a result

of learning? a. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned stimulus

b. conditioned response d. unconditioned response

125. Megan has always loved winter and the holiday season—drinking hot chocolate by the fire, skating, and

spending time with family. Even just passing houses that are all decorated with lights makes her feel warm and content. In this example, which of the following is the conditioned response? a. feeling warm when drinking hot chocolate b. skating c. spending time with family d. feeling happy when looking at lights 126. Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by the biological preparedness explanation for conditioned

taste aversions? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. d. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. 127. A rat is placed on one side of a two-compartment shuttle box. For each trial, a light is turned on and is

followed ten seconds later by a painful electric shock for one minute. The rat can escape the shock by jumping a barrier into the other compartment. What behaviour would provide evidence of avoidance learning? a. The rat jumps over the barrier when the shock is turned on. b. The rat jumps over the barrier when the light is turned on. c. The rat freezes when the light is turned on. d. The rat doesn’t show fear when the shock is turned on. 128. John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner paired the presentation of a rate and a loud, startling sound to an 11-

month old boy known as “Little Albert.” In this class psychological experiment, what was the conditioned stimulus? a. fear b. loud gong c. white rat d. lab assistant Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 129. Rafael’s brother always says, “I’m going to get you,” just before he hits Rafael. Alan’s brother sometimes

says, “I’m going to get you” just before he hits Alan; other times he says the words but doesn’t actually hit Alan. What should you predict about Rafael’s response when the boys hear the words “I’m going to get you,” based on the work by Rescorla? a. Rafael’s will be an unconditioned response. b. Rafael’s will be a stronger conditioned response than Alan’s. c. Rafael’s will be a conditioned response, while Alan will show an unconditioned response. d. Rafael’s will be a weaker conditioned response than Alan will show. 130. B. F. Skinner found that, when he introduced a random reinforcer to pigeons (i.e., one that had no reference

to pigeons’ behaviour), the birds tended to repeat whatever behaviour they had been engaged in at the time. This is most similar to which of the following examples? a. Phil Esposito always wearing a black turtleneck under his hockey jersey after scoring a hat trick the first time he wore one b. barn swallows fluttering in front of a motion sensor to get in and out of Home Depot c. macaque monkeys washing their potatoes in water after observing another doing so d. a firefighter who routinely braves dangerous situations but is afraid of clowns 131. Why did the experience that Seligman had with sauce béarnaise change his understanding of conditioning? a. It suggested that operant conditioning dynamics take precedence over classical conditioning principles

when it comes to learning about food. b. It demonstrated that discriminative cues can lose their predictive influence in a fairly short period of time. c. It revealed that a conditioned response could be established even though there was a long delay between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus. d. It suggested that generalization is more pervasive than originally thought. 132. Chelsea is tired of her mother nagging her to clean her room. She decides that it’s worth it to tidy up a little

and is pleased to note that she is no longer being nagged. Chelsea’s behaviour of tidying her room received which of the following? a. positive reinforcement b. positive punishment c. negative reinforcement d. negative punishment 133. When Luis was a child, he really liked the smell of the rose-scented perfume his mother always wore. He

came to associate that scent with snuggles and hugs from his mom. As an adult, Luis feels calm and contented when he smells any floral scent, including lilacs and wildflowers. What process does this illustrate? a. spontaneous recovery b. stimulus generalization c. instinctive drift d. stimulus discrimination

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 134. What are mirror neurons? a. neurons activated by performing an action or observing that action performed b. neurons associated with self-recognition c. neurons in the temporal lobes of chimps that are identical to those found in humans d. neurons in the left hemisphere that are active when the corresponding area of the right hemisphere is

inhibited 135. Which technique is used to teach animals complex tricks, such as teaching dogs to complete obstacle

courses? a. shaping c. continuous reinforcement

b. programming d. respondent conditioning

136. Chelsea’s mother is constantly bothered by the sight of Chelsea’s room. It’s filthy! She keeps nagging

Chelsea to clean it up, but it doesn’t work. Eventually, one day she nags Chelsea enough and Chelsea grudgingly cleans up. Chelsea’s mother’s behaviour of nagging received which of the following? a. partial reinforcement b. punishment c. the renewal effect d. spontaneous recovery 137. Dr. Higgins has classically conditioned a fear response in a rat by exposing the rat to a light that, when it is

turned on, is followed by a mild electric shock in a testing chamber. This association is later unlearned as the rat is taken to another room and exposed to the light without an electric shock. When Dr. Higgins tests the fear in the original testing chamber, though, the rat again shows a fear response to the light. This example best illustrates which of the following? a. stimulus generalization b. spontaneous recovery c. stimulus discrimination d. the renewal effect 138. Many cases of drug overdose involve which of the following? a. the taking of the drug in an unfamiliar environment b. a sudden increase in the dose of drug taken c. the body producing a larger-than-necessary compensatory response d. the overtaxing of the hormones involved in maintaining homeostasis 139. Which statement best represents the interaction of classical and operant conditioning for avoidance learning? a. Operant conditioning of escape is followed by classical avoidance. b. Operant avoidance is positively reinforced by a pleasant unconditional stimulus. c. Classical fear conditioning is followed by operant negative reinforcement. d. Classical conditioning of feelings of safety is reinforced by operant punishment.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1

Ziggy Lynne has trained her dog, Ziggy, to ring a bell when he needs to go outside to urinate. First, she hung a bell from the doorknob. Every time she took Ziggy outside to urinate, she would ring the bell as she opened the door. If Ziggy bumped into the bell even by accident, she would praise him and take him outside (and he would get a treat each time he eliminated outdoors). If Ziggy urinated indoors, Lynne would ignore him and clean up the mess very quickly. Ziggy learned that going outside to urinate led to treats and praise but urinating indoors led to no attention at all. Ziggy began to intentionally hit the bell with his paw when he needed to go outside. Once this began to happen, Lynne no longer opened the door for Ziggy when he simply bumped into the bell. Also, as the behaviour became more predictable, Lynne no longer provided treats every time Ziggy urinated outdoors. She only provided a treat for urinating outside approximately once per week. There was one major downfall to this training plan. Ziggy came to associate the sound of the bell with urination a little too strongly, so that he ended up wanting to go outside whenever the phone rang! 140. What do you call Ziggy’s behaviour of ringing the bell, from a conditioning perspective? a. primary reinforcer b. unconditional response c. conditional response d. operant behaviour 141. When Antonio was sick as a child, his mother would always make him vanilla pudding. To Antonio it seemed

like the vanilla pudding made him feel better. Even now, he still gets a good feeling when he starts to prepare some vanilla pudding, but NOT when he starts to make any other type of pudding. What process does this illustrate? a. stimulus generalization b. instinctive drift c. stimulus discrimination d. negative avoidance 142. Cody developed a severe fear of flying when he was piloting a small plane through some severe turbulence.

He has been seeing a therapist, and it appears that his fear response has been successfully extinguished. The therapist used a flight simulator to help Cody practise his piloting skills in a safe setting. However, the first time Cody stepped back into a real plane, his fear returned. What phenomenon does this illustrate? a. negative reinforcement b. stimulus generalization c. renewal effect d. higher-order conditioning 143. In Pavlov’s famous study, after the dogs had learned the association between the tone and the food powder,

they were sometimes presented with a tone a number of times without the food powder until the salivation response disappeared. Surprisingly, even after this, sometimes the salivation response to the tone would reappear the following day. Which of the following is the term for this reappearance? a. behavioural re-emergence b. reacquisition c. spontaneous recovery d. response repetition

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 144. Barn swallows that nest inside a Home Depot warehouse store have learned to flutter near the motion

sensors of the doors to get in and out to bring food to their chicks. In terms of principles of learning, this is most similar to which of the following? a. Garcia’s rats drinking sweet water that had been paired with a shock b. Little Albert learning to fear a white rat, rabbit, and Santa Claus mask c. Pavlov’s dogs learning to salivate to a tone d. Skinner’s rats pressing a lever 145. Your roommate has not cleaned the bathroom in a month. You begin yelling at her to clean the bathroom. She

begins to clean up, and you stop yelling. How could your roommate’s behaviour be described in this situation? a. escape responding b. classical conditioning c. avoidance responding d. positive reinforcement 146. What is the process called when you selectively reinforce responses that are closer and closer

approximations of some desired response? a. shaping b. stimulus discrimination c. step-wise conditioning d. selection 147. Which statement best describes observational learning? a. Both classical and operant conditioning can take place through observational learning. b. Observational learning is distinct from both classical and operant conditioning. c. Observational learning is a form of classical conditioning. d. Observational learning is a form of operant conditioning. 148. According to the studies by Garcia and his colleagues, which of the following is most easily associated with a

flavour? a. unconditioned stimulus of shock c. visual unconditioned stimulus

b. nausea-inducing unconditioned stimulus d. auditory unconditioned stimulus

149. Carson used to really enjoy lime sherbet, and when he was in Mexico, he tried frozen lime margaritas. After

his fourth margarita, Carson became extremely ill. Now he finds that even the sight of lime sherbet in a bowl can make him feel queasy. What is the unconditioned stimulus in this example? a. the queasiness that Carson feels when he sees lime sherbet b. the sight of lime sherbet c. the alcohol in the margaritas that Carson consumed d. the illness that followed the fourth margarita

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 150. A rat is exposed to a light that, as it is turned on, is followed by a mild electric shock. The rat quickly

associates the two stimuli. Later, the rat is exposed to the light in the same room, but there is no shock until the rat disassociates the two stimuli. What is this disassociation process called? a. operant conditioning b. spontaneous recovery c. stimulus discrimination d. extinction 151. Conditioning is a specific type of learning. What does it involve? a. changing your response to stimuli as you age b. controlled laboratory experiments, rather than real-world applications c. learning associations between events that occur in the environment d. repeated presentations of noxious stimuli 152. When Billy was five years old, he was bitten by the neighbour’s golden retriever. Now, every time that he

sees a golden retriever, his heart starts pounding. In this example, the original dog-bite would be best classified as which of the following? a. the conditioned stimulus b. the unconditioned stimulus c. the negative punishment d. the positive punishment 153. April wants to teach her cat not to claw at the arms of her couch. Which method will be most successful? a. operant conditioning b. higher-order conditioning c. observational learning

d. classical conditioning

154. Through which of the following processes are you most likely to learn how to ride a bicycle? a. shaping b. higher-order conditioning c. spontaneous recovery

d. classical conditioning

155. What is the major difference between a conditioned stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus? a. the order in which they are presented b. during conditioning, the response to one increases while the response to the other decreases c. one reliably elicits the response of interest prior to conditioning while the other does not d. the strength of the response that each stimulus elicits 156. Quyen woke up one night with a spider dangling in front of her face. She screamed, and from that point on,

she could not stand to be near spiders. What caused Quyen’s fear of spiders? a. observational learning b. a response-outcome association c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning 157. What is the term for learning that takes place by watching another person? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. observational learning

d. noncontingent learning

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 158. What is it called when an organism acquires a behaviour that prevents the occurrence of an aversive event? a. escape learning b. punishment learning c. avoidance learning

d. negative reinforcement

159. Through which learning process are you likely to learn to tie your shoes? a. Pavlovian conditioning b. operant conditioning c. reflexive conditioning

d. classical conditioning

160. What could be accounted for by classical conditioning? a. learning fear of the dark b. learning to sing a song c. learning to tie shoelaces

d. learning to print letters

161. As a kind of practical joke on their teacher, students in a class reinforced the teacher for being on the left side

of the room by being engaged and enthusiastic and acting bored and irritated when the teacher was on the right side of the room. Eventually, they shifted the criterion so that the teacher had to be in the leftmost quarter of the classroom. Now, the teacher is teaching from a tiny space right up against the left wall. What process did the students engage in? a. modelling b. stimulus discrimination c. shaping d. classical conditioning 162. What did Breland and Breland’s work with “miserly raccoons” demonstrate? a. Raccoons are less conditionable, and therefore less intelligent, than rats and pigeons. b. There are biologically imposed limits to the generality of conditioning principles. c. There are differences in appropriate rewards for different species. d. Principles of reinforcement (derived from studies of rats and pigeons) easily generalize to raccoons. 163. Reema has a desk right next to her manager’s office. Whenever her manager is in his office, Reema makes

sure that she works hard at her computer. However, if the manager is away from his office, she often works much more slowly and takes more breaks. What is the presence of the manager for Reema? a. negative reinforcer for working hard b. discriminative stimulus for working hard c. unconditioned stimulus for working hard d. positive reinforcer for working hard 164. Through which of the following is avoidance conditioning maintained? a. positive reinforcement b. positive punishment c. negative reinforcement

d. negative punishment

165. Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? a. a hug b. money c. a reinforcer that comes after the operant behaviour d. a reinforcer that is less salient than another reinforcer

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 166. Tia wants to be the mayor of her city. In all her television ads, she plays patriotic music and has the Canadian

flag displayed in the background. If voters develop positive feelings toward Tia because of these ads, what would those positive feelings represent? a. unconditioned response b. conditioned response c. positive reinforcement d. negative reinforcement 167. Ms. Lee is late and is rushing to help her child get into the back seat of her car. Hearing a sound, she turns

around and sees a small snake in the bushes. At that same time, her child accidentally closes the door painfully on Ms. Lee’s hand. According to the principles of preparedness, which of the following is Ms. Lee most likely to develop a fear of? a. snakes b. cars c. children d. being late 168. Hockey legend Phil Esposito always wore a black turtleneck under his jersey. Apparently, this habit began

when he decided to put on a turtleneck before a game because he had a cold. He scored three goals (a hat trick) that game and always wore a turtleneck from then on. This example illustrates which of the following? a. the renewal effect b. stimulus generalization c. preparedness d. operant conditioning 169. Shelley bites her nails whenever she is watching TV. If Shelley wanted to eliminate the antecedent of her nail-

biting behaviour, which of the following would she do? a. Watch TV more often to promote extinction. b. Avoid watching TV. c. Provide herself with a positive reinforcer for inhibiting nail-biting. d. Have someone turn off the TV if she bites her nails. 170. Terrence uses opiate drugs daily. He normally takes his pills in the morning, right after he has a shower. If

Terrance has developed tolerance to these pills, what is likely to happen after his shower if Terrance does NOT take the pills? a. The shower will elicit unconditioned compensatory responses, which will result in an experience of pain. b. The shower will elicit unconditioned stimuli, which will counteract any withdrawal symptoms that he experiences. c. The shower will elicit conditioned responses, which will be experienced as a placebo effect. d. The shower will elicit conditioned compensatory responses, which will generally be experienced as symptoms opposite of those of the drug. 171. According to research, which process can influence drug tolerances? a. instrumental conditioning b. instinctive drift c. classical conditioning

d. sensory adaptation

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 172. Maarit takes a course in which she is tested every two weeks. Her studying stops right after a test, followed

by a gradual increase to a rapid rate of studying as the next test approaches. Which schedule of reinforcement is consistent with this example? a. variable-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-interval d. fixed-ratio 173. Chad learned to fear dogs on his grandparents’ farm because the dogs there would often bite him. Back in

the city, he lost his fear of dogs because he always had good interactions with dogs there. Which phenomena is likely to occur when he returns to his grandparents’ farm? a. extinction b. stimulus generalization c. renewal d. superstitious responding 174. A child asks to be allowed to stay up an extra half-hour only when his mother is in a good mood, because

that is when she is most likely to agree. What does this example illustrate? a. acquisition b. shaping c. stimulus generalization d. stimulus discrimination 175. Bart used to work out after work nearly every day, and his trainer would give him a lot of encouragement and

support. Lately his trainer has been ignoring him, and Bart has been going to the gym a lot less frequently. Which process does this example illustrate? a. extinction b. avoidance c. resistance d. punishment 176. Hanna finds that when her kids become too rowdy and noisy, she can successfully block out their noise if she

closes the door to her study. What is the behaviour of closing the door in this example? a. unconditioned response b. escape response c. positive reinforcement d. avoidance response 177. If a pigeon is fearful in the presence of a blue light and not a yellow light, what has the pigeon learned? a. stimulus discrimination b. spontaneous recovery c. conditioned emotional reactions

d. stimulus generalization

178. What is the single best way to ensure a strong conditioned response, according to Rescorla? a. Ensure that the conditional stimulus remains constantly present throughout training. b. Present the conditioned stimulus sometimes when the unconditioned stimulus is not present. c. Ensure that the conditioned stimulus is the most predictive signal for the unconditioned stimulus. d. Ensure that the conditional stimulus is well above the absolute threshold of the animal being trained.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 179. Eve loves to drink fancy and expensive tea. She feels warm and happy when she wraps her hands around the

cup, inhales, then finally drinks it. In fact, every time she earns babysitting money, the first thing she does is buy some tea. Lately, she has noticed that she starts to get that warm, happy feeling as soon as she gets paid. What is this called, according to behaviourists? a. higher-order conditioning b. stimulus generalization c. preparedness d. instinctive drift 180. What happens to the association between stimulus and response, according to the law of effect? a. Punishers strengthen the association. b. Strong unconditioned stimuli quicken the association. c. Satisfying events strengthen the association. d. Negative reinforcers weaken the association. 181. When Kiara asks her grandmother for a cookie, her grandmother usually gives her one. Last week at the

park, Kiara’s mother was embarrassed when Kiara walked up to five different elderly women and asked them for cookies. What does Kiara’s behaviour illustrate? a. unconditioned reinforcement b. observational learning c. stimulus generalization d. stimulus discrimination 182. A woman reports feeling happy when she smells fresh hay and manure because of the association of these

smells with wonderful visits to her grandparents’ farm. How did the positive emotional response that this woman experiences develop? a. operant conditioning b. observational learning c. classical conditioning d. instrumental conditioning 183. In Pavlov’s famous study, after the dogs had learned the association between the tone and the food powder,

they were tested with a single trial in which only the tone was presented. This test trial can also therefore be considered which of the following? a. a conditioning trial b. an acquisition trial c. a recovery trial d. an extinction trial 184. When Lindsay was 9 years old, the neighbour’s Chihuahua bit her on the ankle. Today Lindsay is still terrified

of Chihuahuas, but she likes almost all other types of dogs. What does Lindsay’s specific fear illustrate? a. stimulus discrimination b. stimulus generalization c. instinctive drift d. negative avoidance 185. When Zachary was five years old, he was bitten by the neighbour’s golden retriever. Now, every time that he

sees not only a golden retriever but any dog, his heart starts pounding. This example best illustrates which of the following? a. escape conditioning b. avoidance learning c. higher-order conditioning d. stimulus generalization

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 186. Tessa really likes to play video games on Saturdays, but her parents will let her play video games only if all

the dishes are washed. Consequently, every Saturday morning Tessa has the table cleared and the dishes washed as soon as everyone has finished breakfast. Which statement best describes this situation? a. Playing video games is a negative reinforcer for doing the dishes. b. Doing the dishes is a negative reinforcer for playing video games. c. Doing the dishes is a positive reinforcer for playing video games. d. Playing video games is a positive reinforcer for doing the dishes. 187. A dog is classically conditioned to salivate in response to a tone. The tone is a tuning fork for the musical note

of C. If the researcher loses this tuning fork, which of the following would produce the greatest salivation response in the dog? a. a tuning fork for the notes A or B b. a tuning fork for the notes D or E c. a tuning fork for the notes A or E d. a tuning fork for the notes B or D 188. Which of the following would result in a decrease in the effectiveness of reinforcement? a. increasing the intensity of the punishment b. lengthening the delay between the response and the reinforcer c. providing the subject with an alternative response that will lead to the desired reinforcer d. providing the punishment each time the “bad” behaviour occurs 189. What is the irrational fear and anxiety that a person experiences in a phobia, from a classical conditioning

perspective? a. conditioned stimulus c. conditioned response

b. unconditioned response d. unconditioned stimulus

190. Mariah developed a fear of the water when she fell off a river raft last summer. This year she took swimming

lessons and thought she had finally overcome her fear of water. She was eagerly anticipating an upcoming rafting trip; however, as soon as she stepped onto the raft she was instantly terrified again. What process does this illustrate? a. higher-order conditioning b. stimulus generalization c. extinction d. spontaneous recovery 191. What conclusion can we draw as a result of decades of research on animal models of learning? a. Research on animals examines animal behaviour and physiology, but not learning. b. Learning in animals is instinctive and includes no cognitive intervention. c. Many principles of learning discovered in animal research apply to humans. d. Animal learning can be applied to humans, but only in terms of reflexive behaviour.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 192. Which term refers to changes in the liking of a stimulus that result from pairing that stimulus with other positive

or negative stimuli? a. evaluative conditioning c. reinforcement conditioning

b. recognition conditioning d. operant conditioning

193. Complete the following analogy: Classical conditioning is to reflexes as operant conditioning is to

______________. a. behaviour modification c. discriminative stimuli

b. negative reinforcement d. voluntary behaviours

194. Suppose that a subject is shifted from a low fixed-ratio schedule (few responses required to earn a

reinforcer) to a higher fixed-ratio schedule (more responses required to earn a reinforcer). What is most likely to be the result? a. faster extinction of the instrumental response b. a decrease in the power of the reinforcer c. more pauses between responses d. an increase in the overall rate of responding 195. According to which type of schedule is a baby’s response of shaking a rattle reinforced, assuming the

reinforcer is the sound of the rattle? a. variable-ratio b. continuous reinforcement c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval 196. Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? a. a warm sweater b. a cool drink c. fine jewellery

d. sex

197. What is the distinction between primary reinforcers and secondary reinforcers? a. Primary reinforcers are internal, while secondary reinforcers come from the environment. b. Primary reinforcers are associated with classical conditioning, while secondary reinforcers are

associated with operant conditioning. c. Primary reinforcers are used first, while secondary reinforcers are used if primary reinforcers are not effective. d. Primary reinforcers satisfy biological needs, while secondary reinforcers depend on learning. 198. Six-year-old Kristen is afraid of balloons because a balloon once popped in her face while she was holding it.

Last week she went to the circus and there was a clown holding a huge assortment of helium balloons. Now she is also afraid of clowns, even though none of the balloons the clown was holding popped. Kristen’s fear of clowns illustrates which classical conditioning process? a. instinctive drift b. higher-order conditioning c. renewal effect d. spontaneous recovery Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 199. Dillon is 4 years old, and his parents want to teach him to say “please” and “thank you.” Which method will

be most useful for modifying Dillon’s behaviour? a. non-contingent reinforcement b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. higher-order conditioning 200. Marie works in a dress factory where she earns $30 for each three dresses she hems. Which type of

reinforcement schedule is this? a. variable-interval schedule b. fixed-interval schedule c. fixed-ratio schedule d. variable-ratio schedule 201. Dr. Baptista is attempting to train both birds and rodents to fear a clicking sound by pairing the click with

presentation of shock. The birds respond with fear to the clicking sound very early in the experiment, but the rodents take a long time to learn. Dr. Baptista notes that the rodents’ mating calls sound very much like the clicking noises used in the experiment. What would explain the rodents’ slow learning in this study? a. the superiority of fear conditioning in birds b. learning deficits during the mating season as a result of divided attention c. a general deficit in learning ability in this species of rodents d. a biological constraint on learning due to evolved traits in this species 202. Eduardo’s mother always wore Chantille perfume, and he always smelled it when she hugged him. Today,

whenever he catches a whiff of Chantille perfume, it makes him feel calm and relaxed. Which learning process best accounts for Eduardo’s response to the scent of Chantille perfume? a. operant conditioning b. observational learning c. classical conditioning d. delayed reinforcement 203. Young Joey has recently learned a “bad word.” When he says this bad word around his friends, some gasp

and some giggle but they all look impressed. Joey also knows that he should not say that word around adults or he will get in trouble. The presence or absence of an adult is therefore which of the following for saying bad words for Joey? a. a discriminative stimulus b. a negative reinforcer c. an unconditioned stimulus d. a conditioned reinforcer 204. Cassie asked her father for a candy bar at the grocery store, and her father bought her the candy bar. If

Cassie asks for more candy bars in the future, then what is the candy bar? a. conditioned response b. discriminative stimulus c. reinforcer d. conditioned stimulus 205. Which term refers to the reappearance of a conditioned response after extinction and a period of rest? a. disinhibition b. reconditioning c. spontaneous recovery

d. stimulus generalization

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 206. Cherise has developed a tolerance for the effects of heroin. She normally uses heroin in her boyfriend’s

apartment, and always uses the same administration routine. What will happen if Cherise uses heroin in a different location, using a different routine? a. She will experience a placebo effect. b. She will be at risk of overdose. c. The drugs will not have the same powerful effect on her, so she won’t feel as “high.” d. She will be at risk for withdrawal symptoms. 207. What is the stimulus that naturally evokes an unlearned response in classical conditioning? a. conditioned stimulus b. conditioned reinforcer c. unconditioned reinforcer

d. unconditioned stimulus

208. You are watching a rat pressing a lever in a Skinner box to obtain food pellets. The rat is pressing the lever at

a very high rate and does not stop, even when a food pellet is delivered. Which type of reinforcement schedule is likely in place in this example? a. variable-ratio b. variable-interval c. fixed-interval d. fixed-ratio 209. One rat has earned 50 food pellets during a session of conditioning on a fixed reinforcement schedule, and a

second rat has earned 50 food pellets during a session of conditioning on a variable schedule of reinforcement. What should you predict about the behaviour of the second rat, on the variable schedule? a. steadier response rates but lower resistance to extinction b. more breaks in responding and lower resistance to extinction c. more breaks in responding but greater resistance to extinction d. steadier response rates and greater resistance to extinction 210. What does it mean when resistance to extinction is high? a. Responding will fail to show spontaneous recovery following a period of extinction. b. Responding will taper off quickly when reinforcement is discontinued. c. Responding will continue for a long time after reinforcement is discontinued. d. Shaping was done incorrectly when the initial response was acquired. 211. Ms. Lee is late and is rushing to help her child get into the back seat of her car. Hearing a sound, she turns

around and sees a small snake in the bushes. At that same time, her child accidentally closes the door painfully on Ms. Lee’s hand. If Ms. Lee develops a fear of snakes, rather than cars or children, this would be an example of which of the following? a. conditioned aversion b. the law of effect c. preparedness d. higher-order conditioning

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 212. A rat is exposed to a light that, as it is turned on, is followed by a mild electric shock. The rat quickly

associates the two stimuli. Later, the rat is exposed to the light in the same room, but there is no shock until the rat disassociates the two stimuli. However, a day later, the rat again displays a fear response when the light turns on. What is this called? a. stimulus generalization b. spontaneous recovery c. stimulus discrimination d. extinction 213. What occurs in escape learning? a. An organism engages in a response that brings aversive stimulation to an end. b. An organism’s responding is influenced by the observation of others’ behaviour. c. An organism engages in a response that prevents aversive stimulation from occurring. d. A neutral stimulus acquires the ability to elicit a response that was originally elicited by another stimulus. 214. Group A rats receive 30 paired buzzer-shock trials. Group B rats get the same, but also 20 more trials with

shock alone (no buzzer). Which of the following should you predict? a. Group B shows a stronger fear response to the buzzer. b. Group A extinguishes fear to the buzzer more rapidly. c. Group A shows a stronger fear response to the buzzer. d. Group A and B later show equal fear response to the buzzer. 215. Scott drinks a cup of coffee every day, at the same time of day, from the same coffee shop. Lately, he has

noticed that the coffee is having less and less of an effect. What is likely to happen if Scott were to drink coffee at a different time of day or go to a different coffee shop? a. The coffee would produce the same, relatively small effect since his tolerance is high. b. The coffee would have a larger effect than usual since his compensatory responses would be larger. c. The coffee would have the same, relatively small effect since his compensatory responses would be larger. d. The coffee would have a larger effect than usual since his compensatory responses would be smaller. 216. Allyson is classically conditioning her dog to salivate in response to a tone. She specifically wants the dog to

salivate only in response to the note of A. While training the dog with an A tone, she also plays other tones that are not paired with food. Which of the following tones will the dog most easily learn is NOT associated with food? a. a B b. a C c. a D d. a B or a C or a D will all be equally easy to learn

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 217. What is a conditioned stimulus? a. an unlearned reaction that occurs without previous conditioning b. a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response and can do so regardless of any additional learning c. a previously neutral stimulus that, through conditioning, acquires the capacity to elicit a conditioned

response d. a learned reaction that occurs because of previous conditioning 218. When would you expect the greatest degree of stimulus generalization in classical conditioning? a. when auditory stimulation is used rather than visual stimulation b. when tactile stimulation is used rather than auditory stimulation c. when stimuli are very similar to the original conditioned stimulus d. when stimuli are very different from the original conditioned stimulus 219. Regarding applications of the principles of learning and conditioning, which of the following is most accurate

outside the laboratory? a. Conditioning techniques for behaviour modification have proven to be of little value when applied to humans as opposed to animals. b. Conditioning has little relevance to real-world concerns. c. Conditioning theories and techniques have been widely applied in education, business, and industry. d. Conditioning theories have attracted little interest outside psychology. 220. What is the term for the rules that determine whether responses lead to the presentation of a reinforcer? a. schedules of reinforcement b. stimulus contiguities c. reinforcement contingencies

d. antecedents

221. A dog is first conditioned to salivate to a tone. Then a light is paired with the tone for a number of trials.

Finally, the light is presented alone, and the dog salivates. What is this procedure called? a. sensory preconditioning b. chaining c. compound conditioning d. higher-order conditioning 222. Anthony classically conditioned his cat to purr whenever the phone rang. One day, the phone rang for nearly

two hours straight when Anthony wasn’t home, and the cat’s conditioned purring response underwent extinction. Today, the response has spontaneously recovered, but what should Anthony expect if the conditioned purring response were to undergo extinction again? a. It would take more time to extinguish than it took for the original extinction. b. It would take less time to extinguish than it took for the original extinction. c. It would take the same amount of time to extinguish as it took for the original extinction. d. It would be impossible to extinguish the response now that spontaneous recovery has occurred.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 223. Which statement is consistent with research on the use of punishment by parents? a. Punishment may not seem pleasant at the time, but generally leads to positive outcomes and better

behaviour in the child. b. Punishment is often used when parents are angry. c. Punishment is typically used only as a last resort when all other attempts at discipline have failed. d. Punishment is rarely used by parents. 224. Raul’s parents make certain they thank Raul every time he clears the dishes from the table without being

asked. Sadie’s parents try to remember to thank Sadie every time she clears the table without being asked, but about half the time they forget. What should you predict based on principles of operant conditioning? a. Sadie’s table clearing will be more context-dependent. b. Sadie’s table clearing will be more resistant to extinction than Raul’s. c. Raul will be more efficient at clearing the table. d. Raul will be more likely than Sadie to teach his own children to clear the table. 225. Airi learns to associate the sight of a bee with the pain of a bee sting. After learning this association, she runs

into the house every time she sees a bee, avoiding the possibility of a sting. What is the sight of the bee according to current ideas about avoidance learning? a. the CS for classical fear conditioning and the UCS for classical avoidance learning b. the CS for classical fear conditioning and the discriminative stimulus for operant avoidance learning c. the UCS for classical fear conditioning and the discriminative stimulus for operant avoidance learning d. the UCS for classical fear conditioning and the antecedent for operant avoidance learning 226. What is the difference between punishment and negative reinforcement? a. Punishment weakens undesirable behaviours, while negative reinforcement weakens desirable

behaviours. b. Punishment strengthens undesirable behaviours, and negative reinforcement weakens undesirable behaviours. c. Punishment weakens behaviour, while negative reinforcement strengthens behaviour. d. There is no difference between punishment and negative reinforcement in their effects on behaviour. 227. What do the renewal effect and spontaneous recovery both suggest about extinction? a. Extinction permanently erases conditioned responses. b. Extinction suppresses, but does not erase, a learned association. c. Extinction has a permanent effect only in animals, not in people. d. Extinction alters the meaning of the unconditioned stimulus.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 228. What was the unconditioned response in Pavlov’s original experiment on classical conditioning? a. the presentation of meat powder following a tone b. the sound of a tone c. salivation elicited by meat powder d. salivation elicited by a tone 229. Dan stops paying attention to his girlfriend if she complains about his cooking, so she has stopped

complaining about his cooking. What is the withdrawal of attention in this situation? a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. negative punishment d. positive reinforcement 230. Viktor is on a first date and hoping to impress. He takes his date to an Italian restaurant that sounded good,

but both of them end up violently ill later in the evening. As a result, Viktor vows that he will never go back to that restaurant. In operant conditioning terms, we can conclude that his behaviour of eating at that particular restaurant received which of the following? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 231. When Clarice watches scary movies, she covers her eyes as soon as she hears ominous music start to play.

With which of the following is Clarice’s response consistent? a. negative reinforcement b. escape responding c. avoidance responding

d. classical conditioning

232. Young Teagan runs into her parents’ room at 6:00 a.m. on Saturday morning because she is bored. Her

parents are unhappy and give her a stern lecture on why she should not wake them up so early on weekends. The next weekend, she lets her parents sleep in. From this, we can say that Teagan’s behaviour of waking her parents received which of the following? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 233. Bette creates a television ad that alternates between images of garbage dumps and people drinking in a bar.

She is hoping that people who watch the ad will develop negative feelings toward drinking. What principle is Bette is relying on? a. observational learning b. positive reinforcement c. classical conditioning d. negative reinforcement 234. What is an antecedent in a behaviour modification program? a. the source of a reinforcement b. an event that precedes a behaviour c. a consequence of performing a behaviour d. an emotional component associated with the receipt of reinforcement or punishment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 235. What change occurs as a result of operant conditioning? a. A neutral stimulus acquires the ability to elicit a response that was originally elicited by another stimulus. b. Involuntary responses are slowly replaced by voluntary responses. c. An organism’s response is influenced by the observation of others’ behaviour. d. Responses come to be controlled by their consequences. 236. Which of the following is an example of stimulus generalization? a. There is a close temporal contiguity between two stimuli. b. An organism responds to new stimuli that are similar to the original conditioned stimulus. c. An organism fails to respond to stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus used in conditioning. d. An unconditioned stimulus fails to elicit the unconditioned response. 237. Floyd had been working at Qualton Enterprises for two years when his boss asked to see him in her office.

The boss told Floyd he was being laid off as a result of company downsizing. Floyd could feel his heart pounding as he listened to the news. Floyd has a new job, but every time his new boss asks to talk to him in private, Floyd feels a little faint. What term is used to describe the event of Floyd’s new boss asking for a private talk in this example? a. unconditioned stimulus b. conditioned stimulus c. conditioned response d. unconditioned response 238. Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. food b. a good grade on an exam c. a reinforcer that precedes the operant behaviour d. a reinforcer that is more salient than another reinforcer 239. Megan has always loved winter and the holiday season—drinking hot chocolate by the fire, skating, and

spending time with family. Even just passing houses that are all decorated with lights makes her feel warm and content. In this example, what is the unconditioned response? a. feeling happy when spending time with family b. skating c. drinking hot chocolate d. feeling warm and content when looking at lights

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 240. Dr. Miller gives the rats in her lab some artificially sweetened water. At the same time, she also injects the rats

with a drug that suppresses their immune system. A few days later, after the drug is out of their system, she notices that when she gives the rats more of the artificially sweetened water, their immune systems are suppressed. Which of the following is the conditioned response in this experiment? a. the artificially sweetened water b. the drug c. suppression of the immune system in response to the drug d. suppression of the immune system in response to the artificially sweetened water 241. You eat a new food at a party and that night become ill with nausea and vomiting. Later you experience

nausea whenever you taste or smell the new food. Why did you not associate your nausea with the cues of the room, the people present, or the music playing? a. You are biologically predisposed to associate taste and nausea. b. There was less contiguity for the other cues. c. The taste cues were more immediate. d. The nontaste cues were too weak. 242. What does the evolutionary perspective on learning suggest? a. Because all species face the same adaptive challenges, species-specific learning tendencies will

disappear as a species evolves. b. Differences in the adaptive challenges faced by various species have led to some species-specific learning tendencies. c. Most species respond to classical conditioning, but only mammals show operant conditioning. d. Most species respond to operant conditioning, but only mammals show classical conditioning. 243. Advertisers pair their products with attractive people or enjoyable surroundings, hoping that the pairings will

cause their products to evoke good feelings. Which learning principles are advertisers using? a. observational learning b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. instrumental conditioning 244. When Billy was five years old, he was bitten by the neighbour’s golden retriever. Now, every time that he

sees a golden retriever, his heart starts pounding. This example best illustrates which of the following types of learning? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. observational learning d. escape learning 245. You are watching a rat in a Skinner box, and every time a red light comes on, the rat presses the lever in the

box. However, when a green light comes on, the rat never presses the lever. What is the red light for this rat? a. negative reinforcer for bar pressing b. unconditioned stimulus for bar pressing c. discriminative stimulus for bar pressing d. positive reinforcer for bar pressing

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 246. After owning a car with a manual transmission, Hank buys a car with an automatic transmission. When first

driving his new car, he keeps reaching for the nonexistent clutch and gearshift. What does this example illustrate? a. stimulus discrimination b. stimulus generalization c. acquisition d. shaping 247. Animals on a particular schedule of reinforcement will often pause after being reinforced, partly because they

know that on this schedule, their next response is never reinforced. This schedule is which of the following? a. a fixed interval schedule b. a fixed ratio schedule c. a variable interval schedule d. a variable ratio schedule 248. What principles are you applying if you devise a self-modification program in which you systematically

reward yourself for studying? a. Pavlovian conditioning b. classical conditioning c. observational learning d. operant conditioning 249. When Skyler was first training his dog, Smooches, to heel, he would give Smooches a treat when she stayed

close during walks. Now Smooches stays right by Skyler’s side, even when she is not on her leash. Which statement best describes this situation? a. Staying close was a negative reinforcer for receiving dog treats. b. The dog treats were negative reinforcers for staying close. c. Staying close was a positive reinforcer for receiving dog treats. d. The dog treats were positive reinforcers for staying close. 250. Kylee used to bring drawings home from her kindergarten class every day, and her parents would put the

pictures on the refrigerator and tell Kylee how nice the pictures were. Lately, her parents haven’t been putting her artwork on the refrigerator, and now Kylee has stopped bringing drawings home with her. Which process does this example illustrate? a. punishment b. extinction c. avoidance d. resistance 251. Relative to extinction following continuous reinforcement, what is typical of extinction following intermittent

reinforcement? a. It proceeds more slowly. b. It proceeds more rapidly. c. It occurs at the same rate. d. It is more resistant to spontaneous recovery.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 252. Randy often finds himself lying to his old college pals, bragging about things that never happened. After

working hard with a therapist to overcome this problem, Randy is dismayed to find that, the next time he gets together with his pals, he reverts to lying and bragging. This best exemplifies which of the following learning principles? a. stimulus generalization b. the renewal effect c. resistance to extinction d. instinctive drift Ziggy Lynne has trained her dog, Ziggy, to ring a bell when he needs to go outside to urinate. First, she hung a bell from the doorknob. Every time she took Ziggy outside to urinate, she would ring the bell as she opened the door. If Ziggy bumped into the bell even by accident, she would praise him and take him outside (and he would get a treat each time he eliminated outdoors). If Ziggy urinated indoors, Lynne would ignore him and clean up the mess very quickly. Ziggy learned that going outside to urinate led to treats and praise but urinating indoors led to no attention at all. Ziggy began to intentionally hit the bell with his paw when he needed to go outside. Once this began to happen, Lynne no longer opened the door for Ziggy when he simply bumped into the bell. Also, as the behaviour became more predictable, Lynne no longer provided treats every time Ziggy urinated outdoors. She only provided a treat for urinating outside approximately once per week. There was one major downfall to this training plan. Ziggy came to associate the sound of the bell with urination a little too strongly, so that he ended up wanting to go outside whenever the phone rang! 253. Lynne provided a treat each time Ziggy went outside. What was the treat called, from a conditioning perspective? a. conditional stimulus b. positive reinforcer c. negative reinforcer d. unconditional stimulus 254. What does the Public Health Agency of Canada oppose because of evidence linking it to long-term negative

outcomes for children? a. spanking b. violent movies and television programming c. time-out procedures d. playing video games 255. Noah is stopped at a traffic light. He knows that he is allowed to go on a green light but that he will get a

ticket (or in an accident) if he tries to go through on a red light. Thus, the light can best be considered an example of which of the following? a. a discriminative stimulus b. a secondary reinforce c. a schedule of reinforcement d. a negative reinforce

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 256. You are watching a rat pressing a lever in a Skinner box to obtain food pellets. The rat is pressing the lever at

a slow, steady rate, but it does not really stop for long, even when a food pellet is delivered. Which reinforcement schedule is likely in place in this example? a. fixed-ratio b. variable-interval c. fixed-interval d. variable-ratio 257. Slot machines require a certain number of attempts before they pay out. However, you never know how

many attempts are needed. This is indicative of which of the following kinds of schedules of reinforcement? a. fixed interval b. variable interval c. fixed ratio d. variable ratio 258. Young Meagan runs into her parents’ room at 6:00 a.m. on Saturday morning because she wants to watch

cartoons. Her parents are unhappy that she has woken them up so early and decide that she is not allowed to watch cartoons for the entire week. The next weekend, Meagan lets her parents sleep in. From this, we can say that Meagan’s behaviour of waking her parents received which of the following? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 259. In his original study, which of the following would Pavlov have referred to as the “psychic reflex”? a. the presentation of meat powder following a tone b. the sound of a tone c. salivation elicited by meat powder d. salivation elicited by a tone 260. Jane was ridiculed at school for wearing a particular style of shirt. Now she no longer wears that style of shirt

to school. What does this example illustrate? a. positive reinforcement b. negative punishment c. positive punishment d. negative reinforcement 261. When Billy was five years old, he was bitten by the neighbour’s golden retriever. Now, every time that he

sees a golden retriever, his heart starts pounding. In this example, which of the following was the conditioned stimulus? a. his heart pounding when he sees a dog b. the pain of the dog bite c. his neighbour’s golden retriever d. other golden retrievers 262. Michelle is getting annoyed at a classmate who keeps making fun of her every day. Eventually, Michelle has

had enough and just snaps, punching the other girl. The classmate no longer makes fun of Michelle and picks a new target for her bullying. We do not condone this violence, but from a conditioning perspective, the bully’s behaviour of picking on Michelle received which of the following? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 263. Which of the following is most consistent with higher-order conditioning? a. A conditioned stimulus functions like an unconditioned stimulus. b. An unconditioned stimulus functions like a conditioned stimulus. c. A conditioned response functions like an unconditioned response. d. An unconditioned response functions like a conditioned response.

Ziggy Lynne has trained her dog, Ziggy, to ring a bell when he needs to go outside to urinate. First, she hung a bell from the doorknob. Every time she took Ziggy outside to urinate, she would ring the bell as she opened the door. If Ziggy bumped into the bell even by accident, she would praise him and take him outside (and he would get a treat each time he eliminated outdoors). If Ziggy urinated indoors, Lynne would ignore him and clean up the mess very quickly. Ziggy learned that going outside to urinate led to treats and praise but urinating indoors led to no attention at all. Ziggy began to intentionally hit the bell with his paw when he needed to go outside. Once this began to happen, Lynne no longer opened the door for Ziggy when he simply bumped into the bell. Also, as the behaviour became more predictable, Lynne no longer provided treats every time Ziggy urinated outdoors. She only provided a treat for urinating outside approximately once per week. There was one major downfall to this training plan. Ziggy came to associate the sound of the bell with urination a little too strongly, so that he ended up wanting to go outside whenever the phone rang! 264. On what schedule of reinforcement did Lynne provide treats after conditioning was well established? a. fixed-interval b. variable-interval c. variable-ratio d. fixed-ratio 265. Hailey has a cup of coffee every day, from the same coffee shop, at the same time of day. Lately, she has

been ordering larger and larger sizes, since the coffee seems to be having less of an effect. She knows that this is due to her body physiologically compensating for the effects of the coffee. In classical conditioning terms, this compensating is which of the following? a. a conditioned stimulus b. a conditioned response c. an unconditioned stimulus d. an unconditioned response 266. When Alexandra tells her cat to “shake a paw” and it puts its paw in her hand, Alexandra gives it a treat.

What is the discriminative stimulus in this example? a. the cat putting a paw in Alexandra’s hand b. saying “shake a paw” c. the treat d. the cat learning the behaviour

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 267. In a cumulative record of responses from a Skinner box, what does a steep slope in the line indicate? a. poorly planned reinforcement contingencies b. fast responding is taking place c. extinction has occurred d. difficult responding is taking place 268. Holly was dancing with her new boyfriend. When the band started playing “Fever,” her boyfriend gave her a

long, passionate kiss. Now, when Holly hears “Fever,” she becomes a little flushed. What is the conditioned stimulus, in this example? a. the flushing she experiences when she hears the song b. the enjoyment she experienced after the kiss from her boyfriend c. the song “Fever” d. the long, passionate kiss 269. Brenda has learned to take an over-the-counter medication 30 minutes before she eats a spicy meal. When

she does this, she is able to prevent the heartburn and indigestion that she would experience otherwise. What does this example illustrate? a. classical conditioning b. positive reinforcement c. escape learning d. avoidance learning 270. In Thorndike’s puzzle box experiments, what pattern of results would provide evidence that cats were

“thinking,” according to Thorndike? a. initial evidence of very quick escapes that remain unchanged b. quick escapes for intelligent cats and slow escapes for unintelligent cats c. initial slow escapes followed by a sharp drop in escape times after cats recognized the solution to the problem d. slow escapes, then quick escapes, then slow escapes again as cats took their time to escape carefully 271. You are watching a pigeon pecking a disk in a small chamber. There is a cumulative recorder connected to

the disk. While you are watching, the pigeon is pecking at a slow, steady rate. What can you predict about the line on the cumulative record based on this information? a. It will have a steep, upward slope. b. It will have a shallow, upward slope. c. It will have a shallow, downward slope. d. It will have a steep, downward slope. 272. What is the result when reinforcement for a behaviour is removed? a. an immediate weakening of the behaviour and then eventual disappearance of the behaviour b. the emergence of classically conditioned aversive reactions c. a brief increase in the frequency of the behaviour, followed by the weakening of the behaviour d. the emergence of superstitious behaviour designed to reinstitute the reinforcement

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 273. You have conditioned a dog to salivate in response to a flashing green light. What would you expect to

happen if you continue to pair the green light with food, but periodically present a white light that is NOT followed by food? a. stimulus discrimination b. extinction c. stimulus generalization d. response attenuation 274. Which statement best describes the situation if a child likes both candy and money? a. Both can be considered reinforcers, but only candy can be used as a reinforcer in a token economy. b. Although both are rewarding, only candy can actually be considered a reinforcer. c. Both can be considered reinforcers, but only candy is a primary reinforcer. d. Both can be considered primary reinforcers. 275. Carly used to get very anxious in the waiting room at her doctor’s office because it was associated with the

pain of having blood drawn. Recently, Carly’s doctor retired, and a new doctor took over his office. Carly’s new doctor uses a technique that is virtually painless, and the sight of the waiting room is no longer associated with pain. Consequently, Carly finds her anxiety in the waiting room has disappeared. Which classical conditioning process does this illustrate? a. avoidance b. spontaneous recovery c. extinction d. higher-order conditioning 276. Which goal is specified in an appropriate format for designing a self-modification program? a. decreasing the amount of time spent watching television b. decreasing your irritability on a daily basis c. increasing your happiness and contentment d. increasing your motivation to accomplish a variety of goals 277. Which term refers to the application of the principles of conditioning to change behaviour? a. insight training b. behaviour modification c. cognitive engineering

d. modelling

278. After training one of his dogs to salivate in response to a tone, Pavlov continued to present the tone

periodically without the food. What did the dog do? a. It kept responding at the same intensity, despite extended exposure to the tone alone. b. It stopped responding immediately. c. It initially responded to the tone at an even greater intensity than before. d. It gradually stopped responding to the tone.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 279. Alex quit smoking and his cravings for cigarettes have reduced significantly. One day he had very strong

cravings again as he was walking home from work. If Alex asked you for advice, which of the following would be an appropriate response? a. If the cravings came back, then he might never be able to truly get rid of his addiction. b. If the cravings came back, then it is evidence of a biological rather than psychological addiction. c. Spontaneous recovery is triggered by the drug, so he must not have quit completely. d. Spontaneous recovery of those cravings is normal, and it will diminish over time. 280. Organisms often continue to make operant responses, even when those responses are no longer reinforced.

What is this persistence called? a. resistance to extinction b. stimulus generalization c. reconditioning d. higher-order conditioning 281. What is another name for operant conditioning? a. classical conditioning b. observational learning c. respondent conditioning

d. instrumental learning

282. Angela used to really enjoy diving for her school team, but at their most recent diving practice, she hit her

head on the diving board. Since then, she hasn’t attended any of the team practices, and she refuses to dive. What is the head injury in this case? a. discriminative stimulus for attending team practices b. punishment for diving c. unconditioned response to diving d. negative reinforcement for diving 283. Megan has always loved winter and the holiday season—drinking hot chocolate by the fire, skating, and

spending time with family. Even just passing houses that are all decorated with lights makes her feel warm and content. This feeling of contentedness when looking at the lights in her neighbourhood is an example of which of the following? a. a conditioned stimulus b. an unconditioned stimulus c. a conditioned response d. an unconditioned response 284. After a painful experience, Sebastien cringes every time he hears a dentist’s drill, even when he is sitting in the

waiting room of his dentist’s office. What term applies to Sebastien’s cringing in the waiting room in this example? a. conditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. unconditioned stimulus d. conditioned response 285. In classical conditioning, a subject can learn to respond to one conditioned stimulus but not to another similar

stimulus. What is this phenomenon called? a. stimulus generalization b. stimulus discrimination c. conditioned forgetting d. extinction Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 286. Josiah checks his text messages quite often throughout the day. Some days there is a text each time he

checks; sometimes several hours go by with no new messages arriving. How is Josiah’s behaviour of checking his messages being reinforced in this example? a. on a fixed-ratio schedule b. on a variable-interval schedule c. on a variable-ratio schedule d. on a fixed-interval schedule 287. Compare the acquisition procedures in classical and operant conditioning. What is the essential difference

between the two types of conditioning?

288. Design a self-modification program to improve your study habits.

289. Briefly describe observational learning and explain how it relates to classical and operant conditioning.

290. Explain how a specific phobia could be acquired through classical conditioning, being sure to identify the

unconditioned stimulus, unconditioned response, conditioned stimulus, and conditioned response in your example. Also, using classical conditioning, indicate how the phobia could be eliminated.

291. Provide specific, everyday examples (for instance, from child-rearing) of the following operant-conditioning

phenomena: positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and punishment.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. c 26. c

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. d 34. b 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. d 41. d 42. d 43. b 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. b 49. d 50. c 51. a 52. d 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 55. d 56. b 57. c 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. d 63. c 64. c 65. d 66. c 67. a 68. c 69. c 70. c 71. b 72. d 73. c 74. d 75. c 76. a 77. d 78. c 79. b 80. c 81. c 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 83. b 84. d 85. d 86. a 87. b 88. d 89. d 90. b 91. a 92. b 93. b 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. a 98. b 99. c 100. c 101. a 102. d 103. a 104. c 105. d 106. c 107. b 108. c 109. c 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 111. c 112. a 113. c 114. c 115. b 116. b 117. b 118. c 119. b 120. c 121. d 122. d 123. c 124. a 125. d 126. d 127. b 128. c 129. b 130. a 131. c 132. c 133. b 134. a 135. a 136. a 137. d

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 138. a 139. c 140. d 141. c 142. c 143. c 144. d 145. a 146. a 147. a 148. b 149. c 150. d 151. c 152. b 153. a 154. a 155. c 156. d 157. c 158. c 159. b 160. a 161. c 162. b 163. b 164. c 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 166. b 167. a 168. d 169. b 170. d 171. c 172. b 173. c 174. d 175. a 176. b 177. a 178. c 179. a 180. c 181. c 182. c 183. d 184. a 185. d 186. d 187. d 188. b 189. c 190. d 191. c 192. a 193. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 194. d 195. b 196. c 197. d 198. b 199. b 200. c 201. d 202. c 203. a 204. c 205. c 206. b 207. d 208. a 209. d 210. c 211. c 212. b 213. a 214. c 215. d 216. c 217. c 218. c 219. c 220. c 221. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 222. b 223. b 224. b 225. b 226. c 227. b 228. c 229. c 230. c 231. c 232. c 233. c 234. b 235. d 236. b 237. b 238. a 239. a 240. d 241. a 242. b 243. c 244. a 245. c 246. b 247. b 248. d

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 249. d 250. b 251. a 252. b 253. b 254. a 255. a 256. b 257. d 258. d 259. d 260. c 261. d 262. c 263. a 264. b 265. b 266. b 267. b 268. c 269. d 270. c 271. b 272. c 273. a 274. c 275. c 276. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 277. b 278. d 279. d 280. a 281. d 282. b 283. c 284. d 285. b 286. b 287. In classical conditioning, a neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with an unconditioned stimulus. Eventually, a new

response emerges and occurs each time the conditioned stimulus appears. The target behaviour occurs after the stimulus has occurred. The procedure sets up a contingency between two stimuli and is most effective when one stimulus serves as a reliable signal that the second stimulus will occur. In operant conditioning, a specific response produces a consequence (a reinforcer or a punisher). In positive reinforcement, for example, the subject must make the target response before the reinforcer will be present. Similarly, in punishment, an aversive stimulus is contingent on performance of a specific response. Thus, in operant conditioning, the target behaviour occurs before the consequence (the reinforcer or punisher) and causes the reinforcer or punisher to occur. In classical conditioning, the behaviour of the person or the animal in no way affects the presentation of the stimuli; in this case, the behaviour is a response to the stimuli that are already present. 288. Good responses will (1) specify observable target responses (for example, study at least two hours each night), as

opposed to personality traits; (2) ensure that time is set aside to monitor baseline frequencies of these responses including identification of possible controlling antecedents and consequences; (3) use realistic, obtainable reinforcers (or punishers) that are related appropriately to the target responses; and (4) indicate the conditions under which the program can be terminated (for example, studying has become self-sustaining due to improved grades). 289. Observational learning occurs when an organism’s behaviour is influenced by having watched the behaviour of

another organism (a “model”). In order for observational learning to take place, the organism must (1) pay attention to the behaviour of the model, (2) remember the behaviour of the model, (3) be capable of imitating the model’s behaviour, and (4) be motivated to imitate the model’s behaviour. Good answers should make mention of Albert Bandura and even cite the Bobo doll study as an example. Both classical and operant conditioning can occur vicariously, through observational learning (watching another organism be conditioned). For example, a person may acquire a phobia by observing someone else’s classically conditioned fear response; or a person may acquire a new behavioural response after observing someone else who is rewarded for making that response. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 1 290. Good responses to this question should clearly identify a stimulus that is neutral and that occurs before a significant

biological event that produces strong fear. The response should also indicate that the stimulus becomes conditioned, and there is now a conditioned response (a phobia) to the event that was originally neutral. Very good responses might indicate that the fear would generalize to other stimuli that shared similar characteristics with the original stimulus, and that the fear response may be maintained by negative reinforcement (avoidance or escape). All responses should also indicate that the phobia may be eliminated through extinction (exposure to the CS without the expected UCS). 291. In evaluating students’ examples, make certain they know the difference between negative reinforcement (removal

of an aversive stimulus that is contingent on a desired response being made) and punishment (presentation of an aversive stimulus or removal of a pleasant stimulus that is contingent on an undesired response being made). Also ensure that the answers clearly indicate that both positive and negative reinforcement would produce an increase in the target behaviour, and that only punishment would produce a decrease in the target behaviour.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In Pavlov’s principal experiment, what is the term for a dog salivating after hearing a tone? a. conditioned response b. unconditioned stimulus c. unconditioned response d. conditioned stimulus 2. Which modification goal responds best to behaviour modification? a. a specific overt behaviour; for example, “I will walk the dog every day” b. a specific goal; for example, “I will get a 4.00 GPA this semester” c. a broadly defined behaviour; for example, “I will be friendlier” d. a personality trait; for example, “I will stop being irritable” 3. Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement? a. ending a time-out when the child apologizes for her behaviour b. allowing a student to take a make-up exam c. grounding a teenager for missing curfew d. giving a student extra credit for class participation 4. Tammy tends to eat a lot of junk food when she studies in the kitchen. She has decided to study only in her bedroom and to keep healthy snacks handy. Which term refers to this technique? a. control of antecedents b. negative reinforcement c. latent learning d. stimulus generalization 5. What occurs when a rat learns to press a lever in order to prevent a shock from happening? a. escape learning b. punishment c. secondary learning d. avoidance learning 6. Why do people usually cringe when they hear a dentist drill? a. observational learning b. operant conditioning c. behaviour modification d. classical conditioning 7. Every Sunday morning when Marco was a young child, his family would have a special breakfast complete with freshly baked cinnamon rolls. To this day he finds himself smiling whenever he smells cinnamon rolls baking. In this example, what is the smell of cinnamon rolls? a. cue b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned stimulus d. discriminative stimulus 8. Who is often referred to as the founder of behaviourism? a. B. F. Skinner b. Albert Bandura c. John B. Watson d. Ivan Pavlov

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 9. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by the existence of biological constraints on learning, such as instinctive drift and conditioned taste aversions? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. 10. In classical conditioning, what is the UCS? a. a previously neutral stimulus that has acquired the capacity to elicit a learned response b. a stimulus that elicits a response without previous conditioning c. a learned reaction to a stimulus that occurs as a result of previous conditioning d. an unlearned reaction to a stimulus that occurs without previous conditioning 11. Which of the following is an example of the adaptive or survival value of stimulus discrimination? a. being able to distinguish between friend and foe b. having food preferences c. increasing salivation d. revealing unfair learning practices 12. If you are using “shaping” to increase the likelihood that a child will put away all his toys, what would you need to do each time the child does a better job of putting away his toys than he did previously? a. give the child a closer approximation to the reinforcement b. model the correct behaviour by picking up the remaining toys c. provide reinforcement to the child d. give the child a UCS 13. Ivan Pavlov and B. F. Skinner viewed conditioning as a purely mechanical process, but how do modern learning psychologists view conditioning? a. It is still viewed as a clearly mechanical process. b. It is seen as a predominantly passive process. c. It is seen as also involving cognitive components. d. It is seen as a predominantly active process. 14. Kristine’s dog barks more every time Kristine yells at the dog for barking. In this situation, when Kristine yells at the dog, what is she doing? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. secondary reinforcement d. punishment 15. At preschool, Jaspreet has learned that she must wash her hands before snack-time to get a snack. At home, she has started to wash her hands before asking for snacks. Which process does Jaspreet’s behaviour illustrate? a. stimulus generalization b. shaping c. higher-order conditioning d. stimulus discrimination

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 16. In Pavlov’s principle experiment, what was the unconditioned stimulus? a. salivation b. a light c. meat powder d. a tone 17. Who is most closely associated with operant conditioning? a. B. F. Skinner b. Albert Bandura c. Shepard Siegel d. Ivan Pavlov 18. Which statement best describes the predominant view among learning theorists today? a. There is no such thing as “the” learning process. b. All species are capable of learning all the same responses. c. Associations can be conditioned between any stimulus an organism can sense and any response the organism can make. d. The basic mechanisms of learning are similar across species although they have evolved along somewhat different paths in different species. 19. According to the cognitive explanation of classical conditioning, what is true of a “good” CS? a. It accurately predicts the presentation of the UCS. b. It is presented immediately after the UCS. c. It has been paired with the UCS many times. d. It is novel or intense. 20. Which of the following statements regarding Thorndike and Skinner is true? a. Skinner rejected Thorndike’s theory. b. Thorndike allowed Skinner to put his cats in a Skinner box. c. Thorndike’s law of effect became the cornerstone of Skinner’s theory of operant conditioning. d. Skinner’s operant conditioning became the cornerstone of Thorndike’s instrumental learning. 21. What is true of secondary reinforcers? a. They satisfy biological needs. b. We have to learn to find them reinforcing. c. They are less effective and salient compared to primary reinforcers. d. They are often used as punishment. 22. Why are there only a limited number of primary reinforcers? a. They are tied closely to physiological needs. b. The organism has to learn to desire them. c. They are in short supply. d. They have been associated with secondary reinforcers. 23. Which schedule of reinforcement should you use if you want a rat in a Skinner Box to respond with both a high and steady rate of response? a. fixed ratio schedule b. fixed interval schedule c. variable interval schedule d. variable ratio schedule Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 24. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of learning? a. Learning involves a change in behaviour or knowledge. b. Learning is an automatic process. c. Learning is relatively durable. d. Learning is due to experience. 25. Which type of learning occurs when an organism’s response is influenced by the observation of others who are called models? a. observational learning b. operant conditioning c. shaping d. classical conditioning 26. Six-year-old Sam asks only his father if he can stay up past his bedtime and never asks his mother. Which term could be used to describe Sam’s father? a. generalized stimulus b. reinforcement c. discriminative stimulus d. schedule of reinforcement 27. Which behavioural theorist used the term “stamped in” to refer to the successful responses in an instrumental learning trial? a. John B. Watson b. B. F. Skinner c. Edward Thorndike d. Ivan Pavlov 28. What has been demonstrated by recent research that helps to explain why children who are exposed to more media violence tend to be more aggressive? a. Watching violence on TV or other media does not have an impact on people’s physiological reactions to violence in the real world. b. Watching violence on TV does not increase the level of aggression of relatively aggressive children. c. Exposure to media violence helps prepare children for the harsh realities of the real world. d. Exposure to media violence appears to desensitize people to violence in the real world. 29. What is the most common form of “cheating” in self-induced behaviour modification programs? a. avoiding punishment b. providing frequent reinforcers c. enjoying the reinforcer without earning it d. punishing inappropriately 30. In classical conditioning, what is a conditioned response? a. unlearned reaction to a stimulus that occurs without previous conditioning b. stimulus that evokes a response without previous conditioning c. previously neutral stimulus that has acquired the capacity to evoke a learned response d. learned reaction to a stimulus that occurs as a result of previous conditioning 31. A dog has been conditioned to salivate in the presence of a 1000 hertz tone, but whenever an 800 hertz tone was presented there would be no food presented. Which of the following tones will elicit the LEAST salivation from the dog? a. 700 hertz b. 900 hertz c. 1100 hertz d. 1200 hertz

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 32. The raccoons used by the Brelands learned to deposit single coins into a slot for food, but they could not learn to deposit two coins into the slot. Which statement is supported by this result? a. It is nearly impossible to operantly condition raccoons. b. Some behaviours are easily learned by animals, but only through classical conditioning. c. Instinctive patterns of behaviour can interfere with conditioning. d. It is nearly impossible to classically condition raccoons. 33. Which process is responsible for conditioned taste aversions? a. observational learning b. classical conditioning c. shaping d. operant conditioning 34. Which schedule of reinforcement involves reinforcement that is given after a variable number of nonreinforced responses? a. variable ratio schedule b. fixed interval schedule c. fixed ratio schedule d. variable interval schedule 35. Jason has noticed that he is more likely to play video games, instead of study, whenever his roommate is home. Which of the following is an antecedent in this example? a. the behaviour of studying b. video games c. Jason d. the presence of the roommate 36. In classical conditioning, what is the term for the initial stage of learning a new association? a. acquisition b. habituation c. adaptation d. contingency 37. The cats that escaped from Thorndike’s puzzle boxes got faster at escaping over time, but the change was quite gradual. What did Thorndike interpret about this pattern of behaviour change? a. Learning occurs as a result of gradual strengthening of rewarded behaviours. b. Learning is enhanced when there is time for reflection in between trials. c. Cats require exposure to experienced models to learn appropriately. d. Cats are capable of thinking and understand the problems they solve. 38. What has been demonstrated by research examining the long-term effects of media violence? a. The more violence children watch on TV the less aggressive they tend to act at home and school. b. Watching violence on TV causes relatively nonaggressive children to become more aggressive but does not increase the level of aggression of relatively aggressive children. c. No consistent relationship exists between how much violence children watch on TV and aggressive behaviour. d. The more violence children watch on TV the more aggressive they tend to be at home and school. 39. Who is most closely associated with classical conditioning? a. B. F. Skinner b. Albert Bandura c. Shepard Siegel d. Ivan Pavlov

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 40. If your job pays you on an interval schedule, what is the rule that determines when you are paid? a. how much time has gone by b. how many hours you have worked c. how many products you have completed d. how much effort you have made 41. What do we call the positive emotions that Francine feels when she first smells bread baking? a. conditioned stimulus b. conditioned response c. unconditioned stimulus d. unconditioned response 42. In an FR schedule, when is the reinforcement given? a. for the first response that occurs after a fixed time interval has elapsed b. after a fixed number of nonreinforced responses c. for the first response after a variable time interval has elapsed d. after a variable number of nonreinforced responses 43. Which situation requires a cognitive explanation, rather than the traditional mechanical view of conditioning put forth by Pavlov and Skinner? a. A dog learns to bark whenever the doorbell rings. b. A girl learns to avoid a bully at school. c. A toddler pretends to “cook dinner” with toys after observing his parents cooking. d. A man avoids fish after getting sick at a seafood buffet. 44. Which type of learning occurs when a stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus? a. observational learning b. reinforcement c. classical conditioning d. operant conditioning 45. Which statement is an example of Tolman’s concept of latent learning? a. A rat presses a new lever in the same way that it pressed a familiar lever. b. A man is unaware that his dislike of broccoli is a result of a food allergy. c. A seeing-eye dog learns quickly to turn on the lights in a new place because the switches are in the same location as at home. d. A woman knows where to find the hat store in her favourite mall, even though she’s never shopped at the hat store. 46. In Pavlov’s principal experiment, what term is used to describe the dog’s salivation after receiving meat powder? a. unconditioned response b. unconditioned stimulus c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response 47. Which type of learning is being employed if a rat bar-presses in order to turn off an electrical shock? a. punishment b. positive reinforcement c. avoidance learning d. escape learning

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 48. Last year Stacia went to a psychologist and was cured of her dog phobia. Today, however, while jogging in the park she was overcome with anxiety when she saw a young man jogging toward her with his golden retriever on a leash. What happened to Stacia’s dog phobia? a. It had not been extinguished after all. b. It showed spontaneous recovery. c. It showed stimulus generalization. d. It showed higher-order conditioning. 49. When Henrik’s Uncle Oleg visits, Oleg always gives Henrik an intense tickling and will stop this “tickle-torture” only when Henrik says “Uncle.” Henrik’s response of saying “Uncle” is strengthened through which process? a. avoidance learning b. punishment c. negative reinforcement d. positive reinforcement 50. Which type of conditioning could cause a dog to salivate to a light that was never previously paired with food? a. stimulus discrimination and higher-order conditioning b. stimulus generalization and higher-order conditioning c. higher-order conditioning and spontaneous recovery d. stimulus generalization and stimulus discrimination 51. Who is most likely to be associated with research on classically conditioned fear responses? a. B. F. Skinner b. Albert Bandura c. John B. Watson d. Carl Rogers 52. What occurs in classical conditioning? a. Voluntary responses come to be controlled by their consequences. b. An organism’s response is influenced by the observation of others, who are called models. c. An event following a response increases an organism’s tendency to make that response. d. A stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus. 53. Which pair of processes are involved in the acquisition of phobias and also the tendency of phobias to show a high resistance to extinction? a. classical and operant conditioning b. positive and negative reinforcement c. operant conditioning and observation learning d. reinforcement and punishment 54. What is the conditioned response that advertisers are attempting to create if they try to sell clothing by pairing the clothing with images of attractive models and celebrities? a. increased sales elicited by the celebrities b. decreased fear elicited by the clothes c. positive emotions elicited by the clothing d. positive emotions elicited by the celebrities

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 55. Which of the following pairs will increase the probability that a response will be repeated? a. reinforcement and punishment b. positive reinforcement and punishment c. negative reinforcement and punishment d. positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement 56. Which statement is supported by research on instinctive drift and conditioned taste aversions? a. There are universal laws of learning. b. Given enough learning trials, any association can be learned. c. Some species learn faster than others. d. There are biological constraints on learning. 57. Which childhood behaviours could be easily explained by classical conditioning? a. a toddler becoming potty-trained b. a child learning to fear the dentist c. a child learning to pick up her toys d. a child learning to feed himself 58. While out trick-or-treating for Halloween, at first Billy’s neighbours had to remind him to say “trick or treat” before they dropped their treats into his bag. As he continued to visit houses in the neighbourhood, soon Billy would say “trick or treat” as soon as the neighbours answered the door. In this situation, which operant conditioning term describes the treats he received for the behaviour of saying “trick or treat”? a. reward b. discriminative stimulus c. conditioned stimulus d. reinforcement 59. What is the first step in a behaviour modification program? a. Pick an appropriate reinforcement. b. Design the program. c. Gather baseline data. d. Specify a target behaviour. 60. If you start driving your car without fastening your seatbelt, you will hear a somewhat annoying sound. What type of learning have you demonstrated if you fasten the seatbelt after the sound has begun? a. escape learning b. avoidance learning c. positive reinforcement d. positive punishment 61. B. F. Skinner demonstrated that organisms tend to repeat responses that are followed by favourable consequences. What did Skinner call these favourable consequences? a. bribes b. reinforcement c. rewards d. unconditioned stimuli 62. With which research topic is Edward Thorndike associated? a. training pigeons to have superstitious responses b. training dogs to salivate in response to sounds c. documenting cats’ abilities to escape from puzzle boxes d. documenting children’s responses to role models

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 63. At preschool, Courtney has learned that she must wash her hands before snack-time in order to get a snack. At home, however, her parents do not check to make sure she washes her hands. When she is home, Courtney does not wash her hands before eating. Which process does Courtney’s behaviour illustrate? a. stimulus generalization b. shaping c. stimulus discrimination d. higher-order conditioning 64. Who was first to describe the concept of instinctive drift? a. Breland and Breland, 1966 b. Edward Thorndike, 1921 c. Edward Tolman, 1951 d. Martin Seligman, 1975 65. What is ruled out by evidence of observational learning? a. behaviour is weakened by extinction b. reinforcement is necessary to strengthen behaviour c. punishment can have negative outcomes d. behaviour is influenced by classical conditioning 66. Pavlov conditioned a dog to salivate to the sound of a tone. He then paired a light with the tone until the dog salivated to the light alone. What is this an example of? a. stimulus generalization b. stimulus discrimination c. higher-order conditioning d. spontaneous recovery 67. Many parenting books, dog training manuals, and business management approaches all advocate the use of operant conditioning techniques to encourage desirable behaviour in children, pets, and employees. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by the widespread knowledge of and application of conditioning techniques? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. 68. Zane is allowed to play video games after every time he helps with doing dishes. What is this pattern of reinforcement called? a. continuous reinforcement b. secondary reinforcement c. intermittent reinforcement d. primary reinforcement 69. If you wanted to teach your pet parakeet to give you a kiss on the cheek, which technique would be most effective? a. higher-order conditioning b. modelling c. shaping d. classical conditioning 70. What is the term for a previously neutral stimulus that, through conditioning, acquires the capacity to elicit a response? a. unconditioned stimulus b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned response d. conditioned response

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 71. As a rat in a Skinner Box presses a lever, a machine documents each lever press over time. What is the term for the pattern of data that is produced by that machine? a. acquisition b. reinforcement contingency c. conditional response d. cumulative record 72. Imagine eating your favourite dessert. If just thinking about the dessert causes your mouth to water, then what is the classical conditioning term for your salivation, in this case? a. unconditioned stimulus b. conditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. unconditioned response 73. What leads to a decrease in the tendency to emit a particular response? a. negative reinforcement b. resistance to extinction c. punishment d. positive reinforcement 74. According to conditioning models of drug tolerance, why do drug users start using larger and larger doses over time? a. The drug effect is a UCR that is very rewarding, so more is used over time. b. The CR compensates for the effect of the drug, resulting in a smaller high than usual with the same dose. c. The CS becomes ineffective in eliciting the typical high, so a more salient CS must be used. d. The CS becomes larger and larger over time, so the drug dose must become larger as well. 75. A dog has been conditioned to salivate in the presence of a 1000 hertz tone. Which of the following tones will elicit the MOST salivation from the dog? a. 900 hertz b. 1200 hertz c. 1400 hertz d. 1500 hertz 76. Which type of reinforcement schedule leads to the greatest resistance to extinction? a. continuous reinforcement schedule b. intermittent reinforcement schedule c. secondary reinforcement schedule d. primary reinforcement schedule 77. Tyler still sends a lot of text messages to his ex-girlfriend even though she no longer responds to them. Which term characterizes Tyler’s behaviour of sending texts to his ex? a. higher-order conditioning b. resistance to extinction c. generalization d. reinforcement contingency 78. What does it mean when learning theorists use the term “salient” to describe stimuli? a. It means the stimulus is pertaining to the sense of taste. b. It means they are more susceptible to spontaneous recovery. c. It means they are less likely to be noticed. d. It means they are more likely to stand out among other stimuli.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 79. When Veronica first quit smoking, she experienced cravings for cigarettes whenever she took a coffee break. Gradually, those cravings went away, and she doesn’t typically think of smoking when she has a coffee now. Sometimes, however, she still experiences a craving for cigarettes during a coffee break. What do we call the occasional craving that Veronica experiences now? a. spontaneous recovery b. extinction c. stimulus discrimination d. higher-order conditioning 80. If a dog that has been classically conditioned to salivate when shown a square does NOT salivate when shown a triangle, what does the dog’s behaviour illustrate? a. extinction b. stimulus discrimination c. stimulus generalization d. first-order conditioning 81. If an employee of a company that conducts telephone surveys receives $1.00 for every three completed surveys he conducts, which schedule is he being paid on? a. fixed ratio schedule b. variable ratio schedule c. variable interval schedule d. fixed interval schedule 82. What is the major difference between responses that are relevant to classical conditioning and responses that are relevant to operant conditioning? a. Classical responses are elicited while operant responses are emitted. b. Classical responses are emitted while operant responses are elicited. c. Classical responses are innate while operant responses are learned. d. Classical responses are learned while operant responses are innate. 83. What is another name for operant conditioning? a. observational learning b. instrumental learning c. latent conditioning d. classical conditioning 84. A dog normally gets a treat each time he fetches the TV remote for his owner. Recently, the dog has started to run away with the remote, chew on it, and has even tried to bury it in the backyard. Which of the following could help explain this behaviour? a. instinctive drift b. negative reinforcement c. extinction d. stimulus generalization 85. What must be done to create higher-order conditioning? a. present a UCS that elicits a novel UCR b. pair a new CS with an established CS c. pair the CS with a new UCS d. repeatedly present the CS without presenting the UCS 86. What happens to an operant response, in order to extinguish that response? a. It is followed by intermittent reinforcement. b. It is no longer associated with the CS. c. It is no longer followed by reinforcement. d. It is followed by continuous punishment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 87. What happens in operant conditioning? a. An organism’s response is influenced by the observation of others, who are called models. b. Voluntary responses come to be controlled by their consequences. c. An organism’s tendency to give a response reappears after a period of time. d. A stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus. 88. Which example of behaviours is NOT learned through classical conditioning? a. the physiological functioning of the immune system b. voluntary behaviours such as setting the table for dinner c. both pleasant and unpleasant emotional responses d. simple reflexive behaviours such as blinking 89. Pat studies to get good grades and to receive praise. Kelly studies so that her mother will stop nagging her. What is the difference between Pat’s and Kelly’s behaviour? a. Pat gets negative reinforcement, but Kelly gets positive reinforcement. b. Pat gets positive reinforcement, but Kelly gets negative reinforcement. c. Pat is avoiding negative punishment, but Kelly is avoiding positive punishment. d. Pat experiences punishment, but Kelly experiences reinforcement. 90. When Alek does not complete his homework in time, his mother takes away the power cord for his video game system. What does this example illustrate? a. corporal punishment b. punishment c. aversion therapy d. negative reinforcement 91. While out trick-or-treating for Halloween, at first Billy’s neighbours had to remind him to say “trick or treat” before they dropped their treats into his bag. As he continued to visit houses in the neighbourhood, soon Billy would say “trick or treat” as soon as the neighbours answered the door. Which operant conditioning term is used to describe the cue provided by the neighbours answering the door? a. discriminative stimulus b. conditioned stimulus c. reward d. reinforcer 92. When Veronica first quit smoking she felt cravings for cigarettes whenever she had a cup of coffee, because in the past she always had a cigarette when she took a coffee break. Eventually, several months after quitting, Veronica gradually stopped experiencing the cravings. What is the term for the gradual decline in Veronica’s cravings? a. spontaneous recovery b. higher-order conditioning c. stimulus discrimination d. extinction 93. What is a schedule of reinforcement? a. a description of whether positive or negative reinforcement is in use b. a specific pattern of presentation of reinforcers over time c. a pattern of resistance to extinction d. the reinforcement of closer and closer approximation of a desired response

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 94. In Pavlov’s principal experiment, what was the conditioned stimulus? a. meat powder b. tone c. light d. salivation 95. Bella has an intense fear of dogs. Her fear dates back to when, as a young child, she was attacked and bitten by a stray dog. Which process likely brought about Bella’s dog phobia? a. classical conditioning b. negative reinforcement c. operant conditioning d. observational learning 96. Who was the first major “renegade” to chip away at the conventional view of learning theory by way of exploring cognitive factors? a. B. F. Skinner b. Edward Thorndike c. John B. Watson d. Edward C. Tolman 97. Thorndike said a response is “stamped in” when it is successful in obtaining a favourable response in a learning trial. Skinner used alternative terminology to describe this kind of response. What did he say about it? a. That it was weakened. b. That is was elicited. c. That it was strengthened. d. That it was stamped out. 98. What did Albert Bandura distinguish between in his research? a. reinforcement of a response and punishment of a response b. the acquisition and the performance of the response c. instinctive drift and conditioned taste aversions d. classical conditioning and operant conditioning 99. In a fixed interval schedule, when is the reinforcement given? a. at the first response after a variable time interval has elapsed b. at the first response after a fixed time interval has elapsed c. after a variable number of nonreinforced responses d. after a fixed number of nonreinforced responses 100. Thorndike discovered that if a response in the presence of a stimulus leads to satisfying effects, the association between the stimulus and the response is strengthened. What is this called? a. preparedness b. the law of learning c. the law of effect d. negative reinforcement 101. Both discrimination and generalization are important for which of the following reasons? a. They have adaptive value. b. They are not important. c. They are conditioned reactions. d. They were discovered by B. F. Skinner. 102. If you give your dog a treat every time he jumps through a hoop, what method are you using? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. observational learning d. latent learning

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 103. Emily always talks out in class, often interrupting the teacher and causing disruptions. In order to deal with these interruptions, Emily’s teacher has started to criticize Emily for her lack of control each time she speaks without raising her hand. If Emily’s disruptive behaviour increases, then the teacher’s methods constitute which type of contingency? a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. negative punishment d. positive punishment 104. Imagine parents asking Albert Bandura for advice on how they should teach their young child to say “please” and “thank you.” What would Bandura most likely suggest? a. Use negative reinforcement and withhold the requested item until the child says “please.” b. Consistently say “please” and “thank you,” and reinforce any similar behaviour by the child. c. Give the child positive reinforcement for saying “please” and “thank you” correctly each time. d. Modelling the behaviour of saying “please” and “thank you” will be sufficient. 105. When an organism that has learned a conditioned response also responds with the same response to a new stimulus that is similar to the conditioned stimulus, what is that called? a. spontaneous recovery b. stimulus discrimination c. extinction d. stimulus generalization 106. Which of the following is NOT an example of punishment? a. nagging a child until she picks up her toys b. taking away a child’s TV privileges for one week for a bad report card c. making a child sit in the corner for 10 minutes for rudeness d. laughing at a classmate when he asks a “dumb question” in class 107. Which of the following does classical conditioning contribute the LEAST to? a. sexual arousal b. prejudice c. food preferences

d. gambling

108. In an operant conditioning study, a Skinner Box can be programmed to provide food with a rule that is based on the responses made by the animal in the box. What is the term for this rule? a. cumulative record b. conditional response c. reinforcement contingency d. shaping 109. Who conducted the famous “Little Albert” study? a. B. F. Skinner b. Albert Bandura c. John B. Watson d. Carl Rogers 110. When you were a child and you first realized that you could use money to buy candy and other treats, what did money become? a. a secondary reinforcer b. an operant reinforcer c. a classical reinforcer d. a primary reinforcer

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 111. If a dog that has been classically conditioned to salivate when shown a square also salivates when shown a rectangle, what does the dog’s behaviour illustrate? a. stimulus generalization b. stimulus discrimination c. indiscriminate learning d. generalized learning 112. In a Skinner Box, rats often pause after getting food. Which schedule of reinforcement leads to the longest pauses? a. fixed interval schedule b. fixed ratio schedule c. variable interval schedule d. variable ratio schedule 113. What is most likely to lead to the development of a superstitious behaviour? a. incomplete extinction trials b. partial reinforcement schedules c. non-contingent reinforcement d. classical conditioning 114. Which of the following is NOT affected by classical conditioning? a. the immune system b. the physiological responses of the body c. a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement d. drug overdoses 115. Which of the following is NOT true of stimulus generalization? a. We rarely encounter the exact same stimulus more than once. b. It is adaptive. c. It is commonplace. d. It applies to hearing and vision only. 116. Which of the following is NOT an example of how classical conditioning affects physiological responses? a. a decrease in the production of antibodies required for proper functioning of the immune system b. immune system suppression c. positive emotions elicited by unconditioned stimuli d. an increase in risk of heroin overdose when the dose is within what is usually regarded as a “safe”

range 117. When Jeff compliments Marnie, she sometimes gives him a big kiss. What is this pattern of reinforcement called? a. primary reinforcement b. continuous reinforcement c. secondary reinforcement d. intermittent reinforcement 118. What is a procedure called when a response is strengthened by following it with a rewarding stimulus? a. negative reinforcement b. punishment c. primary reinforcement d. positive reinforcement

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 119. When does extinction of a conditioned response in classical conditioning occur? a. when the CS is occasionally presented without the UCS b. when the CS is repeatedly presented without the UCS c. when the UCS is repeatedly presented without the UCR d. when the UCS is occasionally presented without the UCR 120. While out trick-or-treating for Halloween, at first Billy’s neighbours had to remind him to say “trick or treat” before they dropped their treats into his bag. As he continued to visit houses in the neighbourhood, soon Billy would say “trick or treat” as soon as the neighbours answered the door. In this situation, which operant conditioning term describes the change in Billy’s behaviour because of the reminders and treats? a. contingency b. classical conditioning c. shaping d. observational learning 121. According to Seligman, which of the following helps to explain why we learn things like taste aversions very quickly? a. instinctive drift b. preparedness c. shaping d. resistance to extinction 122. A child covers her ears when she sees fireworks, before actually hearing the sound of the fireworks (that have scared her in the past). In this example, what classical conditioning term is used to label the sight of the fireworks? a. unconditioned response b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned stimulus d. conditioned response 123. You have observed your friend Kyle have great success in his relationship because he is very thoughtful. For example, he brings flowers for no reason and he offers foot-rubs when he knows that his partner is stressed. You know that these behaviours would be beneficial in your own relationship, because you’ve seen how rewarding it is for Kyle, and yet you do not actually employ these strategies. As a result, your relationship is in trouble. What would Albert Bandura suggest about this situation? a. There is a difference between acquisition of learning and performance. b. You have been classically conditioned to ignore your relationship. c. You haven’t learned anything from Kyle. d. Observational learning is weaker than other forms of learning. 124. After responding at a steady rate for several minutes, a rat pauses and does not respond at all for a period of time. How would this pause be reflected in the cumulative record? a. a gradually increasing slope b. a vertical line c. a gradually decreasing slope d. a horizontal line 125. Which of the following is an example of punishment? a. Elsa studies harder after being warned that a test is coming. b. Craig stops crying after his brother apologizes for hitting him. c. Terry flirts each time Ellen wears a skirt, so Ellen stops wearing skirts. d. Students get louder when the teacher yells at them for being loud.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 126. When is reinforcement defined? a. before the fact or when the effect is anticipated b. conditional upon the experimenter c. after the fact or when the effect is observed d. when the involuntary response is elicited 127. Which term would be used to describe reinforcers like tasty food or hugs from your favourite people? a. reinforcement contingencies b. secondary reinforcers c. primary reinforcers d. discriminative stimuli 128. It is very likely that you learned how to turn on the TV and change channels as a young child without your parents ever specifically teaching you to do so. In fact, your parents likely maintained control over the TV. In this case, how did your learning occur? a. through operant conditioning b. through negative modelling c. through observational learning d. through classical conditioning 129. Why are primary reinforcers effective? a. They satisfy biological needs. b. The organism has learned to desire them. c. We want approval for our actions. d. They have been associated with secondary reinforcers. 130. A rat in a Skinner Box learns that a red light comes on just before a shock is presented. The rat learns to press the button at that time in order to prevent the shock. What is illustrated by this example? a. escape learning b. avoidance learning c. positive punishment d. positive reinforcement 131. When Beth goes with her dad to the grocery store, she always asks him to buy chocolate ice cream. Approximately once a month he will purchase the ice cream. On what type of schedule is Beth’s asking for chocolate ice cream being reinforced? a. variable ratio schedule b. variable interval schedule c. fixed interval schedule d. fixed ratio schedule 132. A wolf eats a new food that has a novel taste and smell that it finds at a place where it had never found food before. Hours after eating the food, the wolf develops nausea. In the future, which foods are most likely to be avoided by that wolf? a. those found at the same place b. those of the same taste or smell c. those of the same colour d. those found at the same time of day 133. Many people find it hard to “walk away from” or stop playing a slot machine. What schedule of reinforcement is responsible for this tendency? a. fixed ratio schedule b. variable ratio schedule c. fixed interval schedule d. variable interval schedule

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 134. The advertising industry often attempts to manipulate consumers so that they will have positive associations with a company’s product. Which learning principles are typically applied for this purpose? a. observational learning b. operant conditioning c. behaviour modification d. classical conditioning 135. Garcia and his colleagues conducted a series of studies on conditioned taste aversion. Which finding is NOT relevant to the results of their research? a. Taste-nausea associations were almost impossible to prevent. b. Odour-nausea associations were almost impossible to prevent. c. Both taste-nausea and odour-nausea associations were impossible to prevent. d. Researchers were able to prevent taste-nausea associations but not odour-nausea associations. 136. When Amir was a teenager, his mother nagged him repeatedly to clean his room. He learned that if he cleaned his room on Saturday mornings, she would not start nagging at all. What does this example illustrate? a. positive reinforcement b. avoidance learning c. escape learning d. negative punishment 137. Which term refers to an unlearned reaction to a stimulus that occurs without previous conditioning? a. unconditioned response b. unconditioned stimulus c. conditioned response d. conditioned stimulus 138. Which of the following is associated with children who are regularly spanked? a. better self-control b. slowed cognitive development as evidenced in lower IQ scores c. better performance in school d. lower levels of later aggression 139. What is it called when an organism responds to a specific stimulus or conditioned stimulus and doesn’t respond to another stimulus that is similar to the conditioned stimulus? a. first-order conditioning b. stimulus generalization c. stimulus discrimination d. extinction 140. What becomes more active both when you do an action and when you observe someone else doing that action? a. mirror neurons b. bimodal neurons c. dopaminergic neurons d. serotonergic neurons 141. Which behaviour would be most appropriate to change using operant conditioning? a. allergic responses to the sight of cats b. frequency of studying c. heart rate d. a phobic response to airplanes 142. What does your text say about corporal punishment?? a. It should not be applied swiftly; instead, allow the child time to think about the coming punishment. b. Because it is not necessary, it should be abolished. c. It is usually not severe enough to be effective d. It is not very effective in ensuring children’s obedience. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 143. Pat takes a prescription medication in order to reduce pain, and Kelly takes the same medication in order to experience a “drug high.” What is the difference between Pat’s and Kelly’s behaviour? a. Pat is positively reinforced, but Kelly is negatively reinforced. b. Pat gets negative reinforcement, but Kelly gets positive reinforcement. c. Pat is avoiding negative punishment, but Kelly is avoiding positive punishment. d. Pat experiences punishment, but Kelly experiences reinforcement. 144. Which of the following is NOT evidence shown by research on how media violence leads to desensitization to violence in general? a. People who play violent video games show smaller physiological reactions to real-life aggression. b. People who play violent video games rate aggressive acts as less aggressive than control groups rate the same acts. c. Children exposed to increased levels of media violence at home show more aggression in school. d. The association between media violence and elevated aggression has only been established in North America and lacks cross-cultural validation. 145. What was Nobel Prize–winner Ivan Pavlov’s profession? a. He was a German neurologist. b. He was a German psychologist. c. He was a Russian psychiatrist. d. He was a Russian physiologist. 146. Which term is defined by the statement “If a response in the presence of a stimulus leads to satisfying effects, the association between the stimulus and the response is strengthened”? a. acquisition b. reinforcement c. latent learning d. the law of effect 147. In which reinforcement schedule is a reinforcement given for the first response after an unpredictable amount of time has elapsed? a. fixed interval schedule b. variable ratio schedule c. fixed ratio schedule d. variable interval schedule 148. A rat gets food for pushing a lever when a green light is on but no food for pushing a lever when a red light is on. As a result of stimulus discrimination, what will the rat do? a. push a lever only when the red light is on b. stop responding to both the green and red lights c. push a lever only when the green light is on d. respond equally to the green and red lights 149. What do we call the gradual weakening and disappearance of a tendency to make a conditioned response? a. stimulus discrimination b. extinction c. spontaneous recovery d. higher-order conditioning 150. If you decide to stop feeding your dog any food from the table, in order to reduce the dog’s behaviour of begging at the table, which procedure are you using? a. shaping b. reinforcement c. extinction d. punishment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 151. Which psychological concept refers to a relatively durable change in behaviour or knowledge that is due to experience? a. development b. learning c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning 152. Which statement is an example of spontaneous recovery? a. Justin salivates when he hears the lunch bell ring. b. Erik no longer thinks about his ex-girlfriend even when he smells her perfume. c. Julie thought she was over her drug cravings, but they came back when she watched a documentary about addicts. d. Ella is slowly learning to avoid swearing at work. 153. A political candidate uses a negative campaign commercial in which the candidate’s opponent is shown alongside a negative image of an angry mob. What is the intent of this commercial? a. to create an accurate contrast between the candidate and the opponent b. to indicate to the public that the opponent was the individual who angered the mob in the first place c. to associate the opponent with a negative emotional response d. to associate positive emotional responses with the candidate who sponsored the commercial 154. Operant responses are typically established through a gradual process in which closer and closer approximations of the desired response are reinforced. What is this process called? a. shaping b. modelling c. discrimination d. reinforcement contingency 155. What is the subset of classical conditioning that is closely associated with advertising techniques? a. social learning b. evaluative conditioning c. aversive conditioning d. operant conditioning 156. If the cumulative record for Rat A has a steep slope, while Rat B’s has a shallow slope, what would you conclude? a. Rat A has a higher rate of responding than Rat B. b. Rat B has a higher rate of responding than Rat A. c. Both Rat A and Rat B have high rates of responding. d. Both Rat A and Rat B have low rates of responding.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. d 6. d 7. b 8. c 9. b 10. b 11. a 12. c 13. c 14. a 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. a 26. c

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 27. c 28. d 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. d 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. d 40. a 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. c 50. b 51. c 52. d 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 55. d 56. d 57. b 58. d 59. d 60. a 61. b 62. c 63. c 64. a 65. b 66. c 67. c 68. a 69. c 70. b 71. d 72. b 73. c 74. b 75. a 76. b 77. b 78. d 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 83. b 84. a 85. b 86. c 87. b 88. b 89. b 90. b 91. a 92. d 93. b 94. b 95. a 96. d 97. c 98. b 99. b 100. c 101. a 102. a 103. b 104. b 105. d 106. a 107. d 108. c 109. c 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 111. a 112. a 113. c 114. c 115. d 116. c 117. d 118. d 119. b 120. c 121. b 122. b 123. a 124. d 125. a 126. c 127. c 128. c 129. a 130. b 131. b 132. b 133. b 134. d 135. d 136. b 137. a

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol 2 138. b 139. c 140. a 141. b 142. d 143. b 144. d 145. d 146. d 147. d 148. c 149. b 150. c 151. b 152. c 153. c 154. a 155. b 156. a

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Tim is afraid of spiders and Alyse is not. If researchers compare activity in Tim’s brain to activity in Alice’s brain when each is viewing a spider, what area will be more active in Tim’s brain? a. the hippocampus b. the amygdala c. the pons d. the cerebellum 2. Dejan watches as his brother Marek washes and waxes their father’s car. Marek works for two hours and is paid $5. When their father asks Dejan to wash and wax his car a week later Dejan does it his own way and finishes in 30 minutes. What is the MOST likely reason why Dejan didn’t model Marek’s behaviour? a. he didn’t pay attention b. he didn’t retain the information c. he couldn’t reproduce the actions d. he wasn’t motivated to work that hard 3. Which of the following describes a condition where a reward is given on every trial? a. continuous reinforcement b. a fixed interval schedule c. a variable interval schedule d. negative punishment 4. Which of the following is thought to be crucial for the transmission of culture-based behaviour? a. modelling b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. insight 5. Which of the following led to classical conditioning being discovered? a. dogs salivated at the sound of food being prepared b. dogs salivated while eating food c. dogs learned to do tricks for a food reward d. dogs habituated to the sound of food being prepared 6. Which of the following is required for all classical conditioning? a. a food reward b. a natural reflex c. a scary stimulus d. reinforcement 7. Adam raised a wolf pup like a dog, and through careful training the wolf was normally gentle and calm behaving like a typical dog. One day it saw a cat in its yard and attacked. What caused this change in behaviour? a. learned helplessness b. instinctive drift c. shaping d. negative punishment 8. What is the main difference between negative reinforcement and negative punishment? a. whether something is added or taken away b. whether it causes an increase or a decrease in a behaviour c. whether the individual likes or dislikes it d. whether the individual learns from the punishment 9. Ivan Pavlov is best known for his research related to which of the following? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. observational learning d. latent learning Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 10. What was the unconditioned stimulus in John B. Watson’s infamous Little Albert experiments? a. meat powder b. a tone c. a loud noise d. a white rat 11. While on a flight Andrew watches a flight attendant place a life vest over his head, secure it, and inflate it. On an emergency landing, Andrew needs the life vest but cannot secure the vest; the task is too difficult for him. What aspect of modelling is Andrew struggling with? a. paying attention b. being motivated c. reproducing the behaviour d. retaining the behaviour 12. Dr. Frederic is studying whether immune suppression can be learned through classical conditioning. In her experiment rats are injected with a drug that suppresses the immune system and are simultaneously given an unusual-tasting liquid to drink. One week later the rats are again given the unusual-tasting liquid and their antibodies are measured to see if the immune system was supressed. What is the UCS in this experiment? a. the immune-suppressing drug b. the unusual-tasting liquid c. the lack of change in the immune system d. the suppression of the immune system 13. Dr. Nim reinforced pigeons’ pecks on a fixed interval schedule and has now switched to a variable ratio schedule. What will happen to the pigeons’ pecking pattern? a. The pecking will not change under the new schedule. b. The pigeons will peck more throughout training than they did before. c. The pigeons will peck less throughout training than they did before. d. The pigeons will peck less right after reinforcement than they did before. 14. Which psychological phenomenon is frequently the result of classical conditioning? a. phobia b. schizophrenia c. depersonalization disorder d. depression 15. Jamal has just successfully modelled his mentor’s style for giving a presentation, including speaking rate, body movements, and making eye contact. According to Bandura, Jamal’s success means that Jamal must have paid attention, retained the behaviour, been able to replicate the behaviour, and which other factor? a. he must have never performed the behaviour before b. he must have used his reflexes to assist with the behaviour c. he must have had insight into the behaviour d. he must have been motivated to perform the behaviour 16. Which of the following is the natural, reflexive, response before classical conditioning? a. conditioned stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus c. conditioned response d. unconditioned response 17. Jarod is in an MRI machine, and researchers are monitoring activity in his brain as he watches videos of people completing tasks. The researchers are interested in observational learning, so they are probably measuring activity in which of the following? a. the hypothalamus b. the pons c. sensory neurons d. mirror neurons Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 18. Dr. Frederic is studying whether immune suppression can be learned through classical conditioning. In her experiment rats are injected with a drug that suppresses the immune system and are simultaneously given an unusual-tasting liquid to drink. One week later the rats are again given the unusual-tasting liquid, and their antibodies are measured to see if the immune system was supressed. What is the CR in this experiment? a. the immune-suppressing drug b. the unusual-tasting liquid c. the lack of change in the immune system d. the suppression of the immune system 19. Dr. Volk successfully extinguishes a fear response to a tone in a rat. A few days later the rat shows the fear response when presented with the tone. What does this exemplify? a. stimulus generalization b. higher order conditioning c. stimulus discrimination d. spontaneous recovery 20. If a rat has been conditioned to expect a shock when they hear a 1000 Hz tone but does not display a fear response when they hear an 1100 Hz tone or a 900 Hz tone, what has occurred? a. stimulus generalization b. stimulus discrimination c. higher order conditioning d. spontaneous recovery 21. Which researcher is best known for his studies of observational learning in children? a. John B. Watson b. B. F. Skinner c. Albert Bandura d. Gordon Allport 22. What is the main difference between positive punishment and negative punishment? a. whether something is added or taken away b. whether it causes an increase or a decrease in a behaviour c. whether the individual likes or dislikes it d. whether the individual learns from the punishment 23. When something good is taken away when someone exhibits an undesirable behaviour, what has occurred? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 24. Observational learning that results in imitating the actions of others is an example of which of the following? a. modelling b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. learned helplessness 25. Dr. Frederic is studying whether immune suppression can be learned through classical conditioning. In her experiment rats are injected with a drug that suppresses the immune system and are simultaneously given an unusual-tasting liquid to drink. One week later the rats are again given the unusual-tasting liquid, and their antibodies are measured to see if the immune system was supressed. What is the CS in this experiment? a. the immune-suppressing drug b. the unusual-tasting liquid c. the lack of change in the immune system d. the suppression of the immune system

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 26. Which of the following is an argument against the use of physical punishment to teach children appropriate behaviour? a. Corporal punishment does not produce obedience. b. Punishment has never been shown to shape behaviour. c. It’s too difficult to physically punish children. d. Children don’t mind physical punishment. 27. You can tell if something is a reinforcer because all reinforcers do which of the following? a. They decrease a given behaviour. b. They are something you are given. c. They are something that is taken away. d. They increase a given behaviour. 28. According to a cross-cultural study by Anderson et al. (2017), what factor MOST influences aggressive behaviour in adolescents? a. being exposed to media violence b. living in a violent neighbourhood c. being a victim of bullying d. associating with delinquent peers 29. What is the term for the procedure that rewards actions that are closer and closer to the target action? a. shaping b. learned helplessness c. variable reinforcement d. negative punishment 30. Professor Fukumoto is talking about observational learning. In other words he is discussing which of the following? a. observational learning b. operant learning c. classical conditioning d. insight 31. Oliver wants to get his son to stop biting his nails so he applies a bitter tasting (but nontoxic) nail varnish to the child’s nails at night. Tasting the bitter nail varnish will act as which of the following? a. positive reinforcer b. negative reinforcer c. positive punisher d. negative punisher 32. When a conditioned response (CR) comes to be associated with a new neutral stimulus, what has occurred? a. higher order conditioning b. stimulus generalization c. stimulus discrimination d. extinction 33. Taryn is discussing the components that Bandura argued are central to whether a behaviour is modelled. She has covered the importance of attention, reproduction, and motivation. What factor has she forgotten to discuss? a. retention b. observation c. reflexes d. insight 34. Which of the following should Grace employ if she wants to teach her dog a complex trick? a. shaping b. spontaneous recovery c. classical conditioning d. resistance

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 35. Sofia’s mother is modelling the proper way to wash her hands. Sofia is distracted and the next time she goes to wash her hands she doesn’t do it the proper way. This exemplifies which essential aspect of modelling? a. attention b. retention c. reproduction d. motivation 36. Which of the following is a result of classical conditioning and operant conditioning working together? a. extinction b. spontaneous recovery c. modelling d. avoidance learning 37. Which of the following are neurons in the brain that are active during observation and completion of tasks? a. astrocytes b. mirror neurons c. motor neurons d. glial cells 38. Mark sees a video online showing a terrible accident that resulted from texting and driving. Mark never again texts while driving. What changed Mark’s behaviour? a. modelling b. observational learning c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning 39. Marieke can stop going to her tutor (something she dislikes) if she gets an A on her math test. Which of the following is this an example of? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 40. In which of the following circumstances would you expect to see mirror neurons active in an individual? a. while watching someone complete a task b. while asleep c. while being rewarded d. while being punished 41. Gisele takes away her son’s cell phone when he is caught vandalizing the school. Which of the following has occurred? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 42. What do researchers typically find when they compare the UCR and the CR? a. The CR is typically weaker. b. The UCR is typically less intense. c. The UCR and CR are very similar. d. The CR is more stable over time. 43. Which of the following is an experience that produces an increase in a given behaviour? a. a reinforcer b. a punisher c. a conditioned stimulus d. an unconditioned stimulus 44. Professor Knof is discussing a highly controversial conditioning experiment that is considered to have been unethical. Which researcher is Dr. Knof likely discussing? a. John B. Watson b. Ivan Pavlov c. B. F. Skinner d. Edward Titchener

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 45. Dr. Lam is conducting an experiment in which rats observe other rats receiving a shock whenever they enter quadrant A of a cage, and receiving food when they enter quadrants B, C, or D. Dr. Lam then places the observing rats into same cage and tracks the rats’ movements in the cage. What will Dr. Lam MOST likely observe? a. the rats will explore the whole cage looking for food b. the rats will explore but will avoid quadrant A c. the rats will only explore quadrant A d. the rats will freeze in the cage and not explore at all 46. Jenessa became ill after eating clams while out with her friends and is now afraid of eating clams but is not afraid of her friends. Why is her fear so selective? a. stimulus discrimination b. biological preparedness c. stimulus generalization d. learned helplessness 47. Which researcher’s puzzle boxes led to the discovery of the law of effect? a. Pavlov b. Watson c. Thorndike d. Skinner 48. A person watches someone get a ticket for littering and later chooses not to litter. Which of the following has taken place? a. modelling b. observational learning c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning 49. Positive reinforcement involves which of the following? a. giving something a person desires b. giving something a person does not desire c. taking away something a person desires d. taking away something a person does not desire 50. Modelling is an example of which of the following? a. observational learning b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. learned helplessness 51. Ana’s brother blows up a balloon and then pops it, startling Ana. He repeats this over and over. Soon Ana cries when her brother begins blowing up a balloon. In this scenario, what is the balloon? a. conditioned stimulus b. conditioned response c. unconditioned stimulus d. unconditioned response 52. Which of these schedules of reinforcement produces responses that are MOST resistant to extinction? a. fixed ratio b. fixed interval c. variable ratio d. variable interval 53. Aimee doesn’t know it but her body cannot digest shrimp; it produces illness. How many times will Aimee MOST likely need to eat shrimp before she develops a conditioned taste aversion to it? a. one b. two c. three d. four Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 54. Kyle is a regular heroin user who almost always injects the drug when in his apartment. Kyle has developed a tolerance for heroin when he uses it in his apartment. Kyle’s tolerance to heroin in his apartment is an example of which of the following? a. a conditioned stimulus b. an unconditioned stimulus c. a conditioned response d. an unconditioned response 55. What is learning? a. a lasting change caused by experience b. an altered response following a sensory cue c. the association of events in the environment d. a physical response from a conditioned stimulus 56. Melissa wants to replicate Bandura’s Bobo doll experiments for her thesis. What topic is Melissa interested in studying? a. modelling of prosocial behaviour b. observational learning c. modelling of aggressive behaviour d. latent learning 57. Which of the following is involved in observational learning? a. learning to associate two stimuli b. learning from reinforcement c. learning from punishment d. learning from watching others 58. Who conducted the first Bobo doll experiments? a. Albert Bandura b. Gordon Allport c. Jean Piaget d. B. F. Skinner 59. In Pavlov’s original experiment involving a dog, meat powder, a tone, and salivation, which component was the conditioned stimulus? a. the dog b. the tone c. the meat powder d. the salivation 60. What is conditioning? a. a lasting change caused by experience b. an altered response following a sensory cue c. learning connections between events d. a physical response from a conditioned stimulus 61. Caleb is terrified of school. He finds if he hits himself he doesn’t think about how scared he is about going to school. He dislikes school more than he dislikes feeling himself being hit. In this scenario, Caleb’s hitting himself may act as which of the following? a. positive reinforcer b. negative reinforcer c. positive punisher d. negative punisher 62. When something bad happens to someone after they exhibit a given behaviour, what has occurred? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 63. Trinity wants her employees to produce as many widgets as possible at a predictable rate. What schedule of reinforcement should she use? a. fixed ratio b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. variable interval 64. Which of the following brain areas is linked to the evolved module for fear learning? a. the hippocampus b. the corpus callosum c. the amygdala d. the thalamus 65. Who was interested in studying what he referred to as “psychic reflexes”? a. John B. Watson b. Ivan Pavlov c. B. F. Skinner d. Edward Titchener 66. Which of the following methods of learning is likely MOST relevant when learning how to drive? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. observational learning d. evaluative conditioning 67. Classical conditioning occurs in which of the following circumstances? a. there is an altered response to a sensory cue b. a previously neutral stimulus comes to elicit a response c. reinforcement causes an increase in response rates d. there is a last change in a reflexive response 68. Which of the following involves changing one’s behaviour after seeing positive OR negative consequences of a given behaviour? a. observational learning b. latent learning c. classical conditioning d. operant conditioning 69. In classical conditioning, what is the neutral stimulus that eventually produces a response? a. conditioned stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus c. conditioned response d. unconditioned response 70. In classical conditioning, what is the stimulus that causes a reflexive response? a. conditioned stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus c. conditioned response d. unconditioned response 71. Birds avoid eating colourful butterflies because colourful butterflies cause illness. How is taste aversion in birds different from taste aversion in people? a. The CS for birds is visual; the CS for humans is related to taste and odour. b. Birds are biologically prepared for taste aversion; humans are not. c. The UCS for birds is visual; the UCS for humans is related to taste or odour. d. Humans are biologically prepared for taste aversion; birds are not.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 72. When advertisers use sexual imagery to try to get consumers to choose their product, what are they relying on? a. stimulus generalization b. higher order conditioning c. stimulus discrimination d. spontaneous recovery 73. Monique observes others in order to decide how to dress and how to interact with others. What is Monique demonstrating? a. modelling b. observational learning c. latent learning d. conditioning 74. When something bad is taken away after someone exhibits a desired behaviour, what has occurred? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 75. When an organism is given a reinforcer after they repeat a behaviour three times, and this pattern is repeated, what schedule of reinforcement is being used? a. fixed ratio b. fixed interval c. variable ratio d. variable interval 76. Professor MacGuire knows his macaque loves mango. Professor MacGuire goes into the macaque’s habitat with a jar of mango, opens the jar, and eats some mango. The macaque has never seen a jar before. He then places another closed jar of mango in the enclosure. The macaque immediately opens the jar. How does the macaque know how to open the jar? a. modelling b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. insight 77. Jerome is trying to get pigeons to peck a red circle. He has found that since switching to a new schedule of reinforcement, pigeons only peck every 30 minutes. What schedule of reinforcement is Jerome using? a. fixed ratio b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. variable interval 78. According to Albert Bandura, what is the first thing that must be present for one person to be able to model another? a. attention b. retention c. reproduction d. motivation 79. What have researchers typically found when they have looked at the relationship between watching violence on television and attitudes about aggression? a. a significant positive correlation b. a significant negative correlation c. no correlation between the factors d. a nonsignificant positive correlation 80. Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? a. food b. praise c. a shock d. criticism

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 81. In Pavlov’s original experiment, what role did the meat powder play? a. it was the unconditioned stimulus b. it was the conditioned stimulus c. it was the unconditioned response d. it was the conditioned response 82. Who discovered classical conditioning? a. Skinner b. Watson c. Thorndike d. Pavlov 83. What does evidence of spontaneous recovery suggest must be central to the extinction of a learned response? a. the erasure of a learned response b. the heightening of a learned response c. the stability of a learned response d. the suppression of a learned response 84. Sarah developed a fear of heights after a scary experience on a Ferris wheel on a windy fall day when she was a child. Sarah received treatment and overcame her fear of heights for several years; however, she found herself terrified when she tried to ride a Ferris wheel at the fall fair. What phenomenon is Sarah demonstrating? a. extinction b. the renewal effect c. stimulus generalization d. spontaneous recovery 85. About what percentage of Canadian parents admit to having spanked their child? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 86. What was Ivan Pavlov researching when he uncovered classical conditioning? a. consciousness b. digestion c. perception d. anxiety 87. Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. food b. praise c. a shock d. criticism 88. What is B. F. Skinner best known for? a. his discovery of classical conditioning c. his work with puzzle boxes

b. his work on operant conditioning d. his work with Little Albert

89. What group of rats did Rescorla find responded MOST to a pain-inducing CS? a. those in the control group b. those in the 100% CS UCS group c. those in the placebo group d. those in the 50% CS UCS group 90. What will occur if a conditioned stimulus is presented multiple times without the unconditioned stimulus? a. sensitization b. generalization c. extinction d. habituation 91. Which of the following is an experience that produces a decrease in a given behaviour? a. a reinforcer b. a punisher c. a conditioned stimulus d. an unconditioned stimulus

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 92. Positive punishment involves which of the following? a. giving something a person desires b. giving something a person does not desire c. taking away something a person desires d. taking away something a person does not desire 93. Which of the following involves an individual seeing someone else doing a behaviour and learning the behaviour but only displaying the behaviour much later? a. modelling b. vicarious learning c. conditioning d. latent learning 94. When someone is given something good after exhibiting a behaviour, what has occurred? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 95. You can tell if something is a punishment because all punishments have which of the following in common? a. They increase a given behaviour. b. They decrease a given behaviour. c. They are something you are given. d. They are something that is taken away. 96. When an organism is given a reinforcer at random times throughout the day, what schedule of reinforcement is being used? a. fixed ratio b. fixed interval c. variable ratio d. variable interval 97. Eight months ago Margot’s father showed her how to check the oil in her car. Her oil light goes on and she can’t remember how to check her oil. What aspect of modelling does Margot’s problem exemplify? a. attention b. reproduction c. retention d. motivation 98. Jordan is acting up in school. The teacher starts a program where he gets a reward for staying quiet for 5 minutes. Next Jordan is rewarded for staying quiet for 10 minutes. Next Jordan is rewarded for being quiet for the whole day. Which of the following has taken place? a. behaviour modification b. systematic desensitization c. learned helplessness d. instinctive drift 99. Eli has had a lot of painful dental work recently and now cringes when he hears anything that sounds like a dentist’s drill, such as the blender. Which learning process is responsible for Eli’s experience? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. observational learning d. scaffolding 100. What does the law of effect predict? a. that pairing a CS and a UCS will result in a CR b. that rewarded behaviours are more likely to be repeated c. that given time, all behaviours will extinguish d. that people are biologically prepared to develop certain phobias Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 101. Dr. Epp is a cognitive neuroscientist interested in how monkeys learn from other monkeys. What is a primary area of interest for her? a. mirror neurons b. the sympathetic nervous system c. motor reflexes d. the neurotransmitter acetylcholine 102. Which of the following is learning that occurs without overt training in response to watching the behaviour of others? a. operant conditioning b. observational learning c. classical conditioning d. instrumental conditioning 103. In Pavlov’s original experiment involving a dog, meat powder, a tone, and salivation, which component was the unconditioned response? a. salivating to the meat powder b. salivating to the tone c. the meat powder d. the tone 104. What can you offer if you want to increase a behaviour? a. positive reinforcement or positive punishment b. positive punishment or negative punishment c. negative punishment or negative reinforcement d. negative reinforcement or positive reinforcement 105. Yolanda wants to train her dog to sit. She chooses a secondary reinforcer. What might it be? a. food b. attention c. a slap d. money 106. Preparedness is MOST likely to contribute to the development of a fear of which of the following? a. clowns b. heights c. taking tests d. trees 107. In Pavlov’s original experiment involving a dog, meat powder, a tone, and salivation, which component was the unconditioned stimulus? a. the dog b. the tone c. the meat powder d. the salivation 108. Tina cuts herself on purpose. When she cuts herself her anxiety is reduced a great deal. What phenomenon is causing Tina to cut herself over and over? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 109. Dr. Marco is studying classical conditioning and the effects of drugs. Dr. Marco believes that when a person uses drugs in the same place over and over the body will eventually try to compensate for the drug when it is taken in that location. In other words, Dr. Marco believes that location can serve as which of the following? a. a conditioned stimulus b. an unconditioned stimulus c. a conditioned response d. an unconditioned response

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 110. Astrid is trying to train her pet raccoon to place two plastic dollar signs in a bowl as part of a commercial she is filming. No matter what she tries, she can’t stop the raccoon from rubbing the two dollar signs together. What is the raccoon exhibiting? a. shaping b. behaviour modification c. instinctive drift d. learned helplessness 111. Brian lost his driver’s licence for 30 days for being caught driving under the influence of alcohol. Which of the following is this an example of? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 112. Five-year-old Bradley watches a video in which an adult punches a plastic clown. Five-year-old Bennett watches a video in which an adult hugs a plastic clown. Based on observational learning theory, what will likely happen when the boys are each given access to the same plastic clown? a. Bradley is more likely to punch the clown than Bennett is. b. Bennett is more likely to punch the clown than Bradley is. c. Both boys will be equally likely to punch the clown. d. Neither boy is likely to punch the clown. 113. In classical conditioning, which of the following is the initial reflexive response? a. conditioned stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus c. conditioned response d. unconditioned response 114. In classical conditioning, responding to a previously neutral stimulus is referred to as which of the following? a. conditioned stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus c. conditioned response d. unconditioned response 115. Why did Little Albert develop a fear of rabbits? a. higher order conditioning b. spontaneous recovery c. stimulus generalization d. stimulus discrimination 116. Ping’s dog drools as soon as Ping shows the dog a favourite chew toy. Which of the following best describes the dog’s drooling when he sees the toy? a. conditioned stimulus b. conditioned response c. unconditioned stimulus d. unconditioned response 117. Which of the following has occurred when observation leads to imitation? a. modelling b. shaping c. reinforcement d. conditioning 118. Aster sees Magna receive attention from the other children for hanging upside down on the monkey bars, so Aster tries hanging upside down too. This is BEST described as which of the following? a. modelling b. observational learning c. latent learning d. conditioning

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 119. What is the best way to extinguish a CS–CR association? a. present the CS without the CR b. present the UCS without the CS c. present the CS without the UCS d. elicit the CR without the CS 120. Martin watches as Andre is punished for pushing another child in the school hallway. Martin decides he won’t push children in the hallway. What is Martin demonstrating? a. modelling b. observational learning c. latent learning d. conditioning 121. Negative reinforcement involves which of the following? a. giving something a person desires b. giving something a person does not desire c. taking away something a person desires d. taking away something a person does not desire 122. Which of the following has occurred in classical conditioning when stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus produce the conditioned response? a. generalization b. habituation c. sensitization d. extinction 123. A macaque learns to wash sweet yams by watching another macaque wash sweet yams. What is this an example of? a. modelling b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. learned helplessness 124. Albert Bandura was famous for conducting which of the following experiments? a. the puzzle box experiments b. the Stanford prison experiment c. the Bobo doll experiments d. the bystander experiments 125. What schedule of reinforcement would make a person MOST likely to spend a lot of money at a slot machine? a. fixed ratio b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. variable interval 126. What differentiates a primary reinforcer from a secondary reinforcer? a. primary reinforcers are learned, secondary are innate b. secondary reinforcers are learned, primary are innate c. primary can only be used once, secondary can be repeated d. secondary can only be used once, primary can be repeated 127. What was the conditioned stimulus in John B. Watson’s infamous Little Albert experiments? a. a loud noise b. a white rat c. meat powder d. a tone

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 128. Hannah is a heroin user. She typically injects the drug at her friend’s house, but her friend is not home so she injects in an unfamiliar alley. What is MOST likely to happen? a. Hannah will feel a somewhat greater effect of the drug. b. Hannah will feel a somewhat lessened effect of the drug. c. Hannah will feel no difference in the effect of the drug. d. Hannah will not feel the effect of the heroin at all. 129. Which of the following can you offer if you want to decrease a behaviour? a. positive reinforcement or positive punishment b. positive punishment or negative punishment c. negative punishment or negative reinforcement d. negative reinforcement or positive reinforcement 130. Albert Bandura is best known for his work on which of the following? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. observational learning d. schedules of reinforcement 131. Negative punishment involves which of the following? a. giving something a person desires b. giving something a person does not desire c. taking away something a person desires d. taking away something a person does not desire 132. Which of the following have been linked specifically to observational learning? a. mirror neurons b. astrocytes c. vitamin A d. GABA 133. In which circumstances is a mirror neuron activated? a. only when an individual observes the behaviour of someone else b. both when a person observes someone else and when they exhibit the behaviour themselves c. only when an individual sees their own reflection d. only when an individual sees the reflection of another individual 134. Which of the following industries relies the MOST on evaluative conditioning? a. internal medicine b. mental health c. advertising d. manufacturing 135. In Pavlov’s original experiment involving a dog, meat powder, a tone, and salivation, which component was the conditioned response? a. salivating to the meat powder b. salivating to the tone c. the meat powder d. the tone

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 136. Taylor is developing a graph to display the data from an operant conditioning experiment. What should be represented on the horizontal axis of Taylor’s graph? a. number of responses b. type of reinforcement c. time d. UCS strength

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. c 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. d 16. d 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. b 21. c 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. b 26. a

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 27. d 28. d 29. a 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. a 36. d 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. a 41. d 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 55. a 56. c 57. d 58. a 59. b 60. c 61. b 62. c 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. b 71. a 72. b 73. a 74. b 75. a 76. a 77. c 78. a 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 83. d 84. b 85. b 86. b 87. a 88. b 89. b 90. c 91. b 92. b 93. d 94. a 95. b 96. d 97. c 98. a 99. a 100. b 101. a 102. b 103. a 104. d 105. b 106. b 107. c 108. b 109. b 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_6ce_Vol_4 111. d 112. a 113. d 114. d 115. c 116. b 117. a 118. b 119. c 120. b 121. d 122. a 123. a 124. c 125. b 126. b 127. b 128. a 129. b 130. c 131. c 132. a 133. b 134. c 135. b 136. c

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Chap 07_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Sam recently watched the movie Eternal Sunshine of the Spotless Mind and became fascinated with the concept of memory and how it is stored in the brain. In the movie, the protagonist tries to forget his ex-girlfriend by undergoing a procedure that destroys the neural circuits that stored all his memories of their relationship. Sam decides to read up on the physiological basis for memory to get a better understanding of how it works. Sam reads online about Wilder Penfield’s experiments and was astonished by them. What was so exciting about Wilder Penfield’s experiments? a. He uncovered the memory trace. b. He was able to transfer memories from one tapeworm to another. c. He discovered the chemical code for memory. d. He showed that the cortex houses exact “tape recordings” of the past. 2. One day in her office, one of the other detectives challenges Molly in a memory competition. In order to win, the two have to memorize a list of 20 pairs of words. You are asked to come up with the list of words for the competition. Which of the following pairs would you expect to be the easiest to memorize? a. Loyalty and pride b. Dog and sunrise c. Effort and cat d. Duty and hotel 3. While working on a case, Molly notices a suspect entering a building. She soon has to leave the area because she is afraid someone will notice her, but she constantly repeats the address to herself until she reaches her office and has a chance to write it down. Molly is using ____ rehearsal to maintain the information she needs in ______memory. a. maintenance; working b. maintenance; short-term c. elaborative; working d. elaborative; short-term 4. Sam wonders what would happen if there was a mistake in the procedure and the protagonist could no longer form any new memories. This hypothetical situation is an example of ______ and would be attributed to an impairment of the _______. a. retrograde amnesia; prefrontal cortex b. anterograde amnesia; prefrontal cortex c. retrograde amnesia; hippocampus d. anterograde amnesia; hippocampus 5. During a trial, Patricia cross-examines an expert on repressed memories. Patricia argues with the expert on the credibility of recovered repressed memories. What could be the counter-argument of the expert? a. Many repressed memories are recovered using hypnotism, which is a reliable method. b. It is common for victims of sexual abuse to oscillate between denying and accepting the abuse having taken place. c. Many repressed memories are recovered using dream analysis, which suggests memories of the abuse are intact, but not always accessible. d. It is not uncommon for people to experience abuse when they are young and cannot comprehend what is happening, so they forget about it.

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Chap 07_6ce_Case-Based 6. While working on a case, Molly enters a house that has been broken into. The living room is a mess, furniture has been flipped over, and there are broken objects everywhere. Molly rearranges everything in her mind to get a sense of what the house looked like before the burglary. Molly is using _____, which is part of her _____ memory. a. visual imagery; short-term b. a visuospatial sketchpad; short-term c. visual imagery; working d. a visuospatial sketchpad; working 7. While working on a case, Molly notices that her prime suspect has a raspy voice and links this detail with the statement of one of the victims saying the perpetrator sounded like Darth Vader. Molly used _____ encoding and the process of ______ to link the suspect with the victim’s statement. a. semantic; elaboration b. phonemic; elaboration c. semantic; dual-coding d. phonemic; dual-coding 8. During a trial, Patricia cross-examines an expert on repressed memories. According to your textbook, which fact about repressed memories will surprise Patricia? a. Psychologists largely accept recovered memories of abuse at face value. b. There is not enough evidence suggesting that is common for people to bury unpleasant memories in their unconscious. c. Sexual child abuse is not that common and only 5% of girls and 2% of boys experience it. d. More than 50% of people who have experienced childhood sexual abuse report complete amnesia of the incident. 9. Sam wonders what would happen if there was a mistake in the procedure and the protagonist could no longer remember anything that happened to him during the past five years. This is an example of ____ amnesia. a. retrograde b. anterograde c. organic d. severe 10. Tessa has to memorize the order of the colours in the light spectrum for her midterm. She comes up with the heuristic “Roy G. Biv” to remember red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet. This is an example of an _____ that takes advantage of _____. a. acrostic; clustering b. acronym; clustering c. acrostic; chunking d. acronym; chunking 11. Tessa recently learned about Allan Paivio in her psychology class and decides to implement his ideas in her studying habits. Which of the following methods is Tessa most likely to use to memorize the list of terms she has created? a. Tessa will use acronyms and acrostics extensively. b. Tessa will use the narrative method and create a story with all the terms. c. Tessa will draw diagrams and use various other visual mnemonics. d. Tessa will take advantage of the serial-position effect and organize her list accordingly. 12. Sam is watching a pirated version of the movie, so halfway through it looks like his monitor display has flipped upside down. Sam continues watching the movie, so we might expect higher levels of activity in his _____. a. right hemisphere b. left hemisphere c. prefrontal cortex d. hippocampus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_6ce_Case-Based 13. Tessa has a particularly hard time remembering the terms “intron” and “exon”. To solve her problem she remembers the words “intern” and “exit” instead. Which method did Tessa use to remember the two original terms? a. The link method b. The method of loci c. The keyword method d. The method of acrostics 14. Tessa has compiled a list with definitions of all the terms that are likely to be on her biology midterm. There are a few terms that she has particular difficulty remembering. What should Tessa do to enhance her recall of those terms? a. Place them in the middle of the list. b. Place them at the beginning or the end of the list. c. Place them directly after the terms that are the easiest to remember. d. Place them directly before the terms that are the easiest to remember. 15. After the movie ends, Sam thinks about how neurogenesis would continue taking place in the brain of the protagonist, especially in the _____________. a. dentate gyrus and prefrontal cortex b. cerebellum and prefrontal cortex c. dentate gyrus and hippocampus d. cerebellum and hippocampus 16. Tessa has compiled a list with definitions of all the terms that are likely to be on her biology midterm. She has rehearsed them enough and feels confident that she has mastered them. What would you advise Tessa to do? a. Tessa should not worry about rehearsing them anymore because she will forget them by the time of her midterm anyway. b. Tessa should not worry about rehearsing the terms anymore since she has mastered them and will remember them by the time of her midterm. c. Tessa should continue rehearsing all the terms for a few more hours to enhance recall. d. Tessa should continue rehearsing only the terms she finds most challenging for a few more hours. 17. One day in her office, one of the other detectives challenges Molly in a memory competition. In order to win, the two have to memorize a list of 20 pairs of words. You are asked to come up with the list of words for the competition. Which pair would you expect to be the hardest to memorize? a. Loyalty and pride b. Dog and sunrise c. Effort and cat d. Hotel and duty 18. Patricia often brings up the concept of transience in court to discredit the memory of an eyewitness. This concept refers to _________ and is a memory sin of _________. a. failure to retrieve an item from memory; commission b. the simple decay of memory over time; commission c. failure to retrieve an item from memory; omission d. the simple decay of memory over time; omission

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Chap 07_6ce_Case-Based 19. During a trial, Patricia cross-examines an expert on repressed memories. As a skeptic of recovered memories, which of the following arguments could Patricia use? a. People who claim they have repressed memories willingly lie about them. b. People who claim they have repressed memories often suffer from mental illness. c. Repressed memories are often from events that occur before the age of three, which is too young to remember many details. d. Repressed memories are often recovered spontaneously while the person is sleeping, and could potentially just be a nightmare. 20. Tessa is working through a set of practice multiple-choice questions with her study buddy. She gets several wrong and wants her study buddy to just tell her the correct answers. However, her study buddy tells Tessa that is not the best way to learn the material. What do you think? a. Tessa should look up the answers herself to ensure she remembers them. b. Tessa’s study buddy should tell her the answers in order to save time. c. Tessa should ignore the questions she got wrong in order to take advantage of consolidation mnemonics. d. Tessa’s study buddy should explain each of the correct answers. 21. Molly finds herself writing a report about a case while at the same time talking one the phone with a client from a different case. In this instance, Molly is using ______ which is part of her ____ memory. a. dual-coding; short-term b. dual-coding; working c. her executive control system; short-term d. her executive control system; working 22. Patricia is often accused by the opposing attorney that she is asking leading questions that affect the witness’ memory. According to the opposing attorney, the witness’ memory is affected by ______ which is a memory sin of ________. a. suggestibility; commission b. suggestibility; omission c. misattribution; commission d. misattribution; omission 23. In her psychology class, Tessa recently learned about the concept of memory consolidation. What should Tessa do to increase the probability of consolidation taking place? a. Go to sleep. b. Go for a run. c. Wake up early to review her notes. d. Take a cold shower. 24. Tessa has compiled a list with definitions of all the terms that are likely to be on her biology midterm. Which of the following will help Tessa remember all those terms most successfully? a. Tessa should focus on going over the material as many times as possible. b. Tessa should focus on developing a deep understanding of the material. c. Tessa should spend as much time as possible re-reading her notes. d. Tessa should rewrite all her notes by hand multiple times instead of just re-reading them.

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Chap 07_6ce_Case-Based 25. Patricia is cross-examining an eyewitness who seems overconfident in his story. What could Patricia do to reduce his overconfidence? a. Ask him to list reasons on why his story may not be 100% accurate. b. Be very aggressive towards him when asking him questions. c. Insult the eyewitness and question his memory. d. Ask him to rate his confidence and explain why he feels so confident. 26. Dory has a really hard time remembering someone’s name. Even in cases where she feels like she knows the person’s name, she just cannot remember it in the moment. However, asking the person the first letter of their name usually helps her to remember the name. This is an example of _____________. a. a flashbulb memory using a retrieval cue b. a tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon using a retrieval cue c. a flashbulb memory using a context cue d. a tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon using a context cue 27. Patricia’s client is in a line-up waiting to be possibly identified by an eyewitness. The eyewitness ends up picking Patricia’s client. What would be the worst case scenario for Patricia and her client? a. The police officer conducting the line-up asks the eyewitness how confident she is with her choice. b. The police officer conducting the line-up asks the eyewitness to explain the rationale behind her choice. c. The police officer conducting the line-up asks the eyewitness to have another look to be sure. d. The police officer conducting the line-up says, “Good job, you picked correctly.” to the eyewitness. 28. In one particular trial, Patricia is cross-examining an eyewitness to a car accident caused by her client. Patricia words her question in a way that she hopes will alter the recall of the eyewitness by introducing post-event details. Which of the following phenomena did Patricia take advantage of? a. Misinformation effect b. Source-monitoring error c. Retrieval failure d. Transfer-appropriate processing 29. In the movie, the protagonist undergoes a procedure that destroys the neural circuits that stored memories of his relationship with his ex-girlfriend. This idea is in concordance with the work of _______. a. Eric Kandel b. Richard F. Thompson c. B. F. Skinner d. Sigmund Freud 30. After the movie ends, Sam calls his friend to recommend the movie to him. Because the title is long, Sam is mentally rehearsing and internally repeating it until his friend picks up the phone. Because of this, you would expect higher levels of activity in his _______. a. right hemisphere b. left hemisphere c. prefrontal cortex d. hippocampus

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Chap 07_6ce_Case-Based 31. Patricia is a defense attorney. Her job requires her to confront witnesses about the limits of their memory capabilities. In addition, as a defense attorney Patricia is motivated to make the witnesses “slip-up” or even distort their memories of the events her client is being accused of. 1. In one particular trial, Patricia is cross-examining an eyewitness to a car accident caused by her client. How should Patricia word her question in order to sway the eyewitness’ recall in favour of her client? a. “How fast were the cars going when they smashed into each other?” b. “How fast were the cars going when they hit each other?” c. “Did you see any broken glass in the area after the accident?” d. “Did you see anyone get injured because of the accident?” 32. While walking home from class one day, a dog barks at Dory and almost bites her. Dory goes to file a report about the incident the next day with campus security, but cannot remember the dog’s breed. What can she do to refresh her memory? a. Listen to the same song she was listening when she saw the dog. b. Go under hypnosis to remember the event in greater detail. c. Walk by the same spot where she was when she first saw the dog. d. Go on the internet and look up dog breeds that are likely to attack someone. 33. At the end of the movie, Sam thinks about how neurogenesis would continue taking place in the brain of the protagonist and how the newly formed neurons would ________________. a. be more resilient and durable than more “mature” neurons b. be less resilient and durable than more “mature” neurons c. recruit new memories less readily than more “mature” neurons d. recruit new memories more readily than more “mature” neurons 34. During a trial, the judge is asked to decide whether or not to accept the recovered memories of the victim as evidence. In which of the following scenarios should the judge feel most confident when accepting the victim’s recovered memories as evidence? a. If the repressed memories were recovered spontaneously. b. If the repressed memories were recovered with the help of a therapist. c. If the victim is female and she claims to have experienced sexual abuse. d. If the victim is male and he claims to have experienced physical abuse. 35. Molly is a private investigator and often finds herself relying on her memory to do her job. She is often required to remember tiny details in order to solve a case and to think on her feet. To hone her memory skills, Molly often memorizes lists of words for fun. While working on a case, Molly finds piece of paper with the five seemingly random words written on it that may be important for her case. Molly decides to memorize the words in case this piece of paper goes missing. What should Molly do to ensure she will remember the words? a. Pay particular attention to the length of the words and the way they are written. b. Come up with other words that rhyme with the words on the piece of paper. c. Use the words on the piece of paper in complete sentences. d. Say the words out loud so she can remember what they sound like.

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Chap 07_6ce_Case-Based 36. Dory is a first-year psychology student at Carleton University and is often teased for having a terrible memory. Dory is famous for not paying attention to details and not being able to remember crucial information when she needs it. After taking a first-year psychology course and learning more about memory, Dory is motivated to figure out how to begin remembering more. In one of her classes, Dory learns all about flashbulb memories and is surprised she has one, as well. Which of the following is likely to be Dory’s flashbulb memory? a. Suddenly remembering she was sexually abused as a child. b. The sense that something she is actively trying to remember is just out of reach. c. A vivid memory of eating Fruit Loops cereal when her parents told her they were getting a divorce. d. Remembering a lot of facts about dogs she picked up by raising a puppy. 37. According to the spreading activation theory, which of the following words is Dory most likely to remember if she hears the word “fire engine”? a. red b. bus c. vehicle d. street 38. Tessa is in her first year at Carleton University and is trying to incorporate what she has learned about memory in her psychology class when she studies for her exams. Tessa has a biology midterm next week and is very stressed out about it. To prepare, Tessa has compiled a list with all the terms and definitions she needs to learn for her midterm. Her biology professor posted a mock midterm online with a similar format to the actual midterm. Tessa is torn between solving the mock midterm and taking the same amount of time to study as much material as possible. According to your textbook what should she do? a. Tessa should solve the mock midterm instead of studying. b. Tessa should ignore the mock midterm and focus on studying. c. Tessa should only look at the answers of the mock-midterm instead of solving it herself. d. Tessa should only solve the questions on the midterm that involve math and ignore all the theory-based questions.

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Chap 07_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. d 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. b

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Chap 07_6ce_Case-Based 27. d 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. a

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Researchers who are skeptical of the phenomenon of repressed memories have suggested that the results of

studies in which women fail to report sexual abuse that they have experienced may not reflect repression. What is the basis of their criticism of such studies? a. There is a difference between the type of abuse that is typically experienced and the type of abuse that interviewers ask about. b. People may still remember the events, but not disclose them for personal reasons. c. Interviewers are biased and may not record data correctly. d. Information used to document the incidence of sexual assault is flawed and unreliable. 2. George Sperling briefly presented participants with a three-by-four array of letters. At varying durations after

the letters disappeared, a tone sounded, indicating to participants which row they were to recall. Sperling was seeking to estimate the duration of which of the following? a. the echoic store b. the visuospatial sketchpad c. the iconic store d. the phonological loop 3. Which type of memory are you using when you try to remember something your instructor said in class last

week? a. proactive c. prospective

b. retrograde d. retrospective

4. Dr. Console presents participants with words on a screen. The participants do not know that their memory

for these words will be tested later on. Instead, they are simply told to either generate a rhyming word (group A), to picture the object mentioned in their mind (group B), or to focus on the font that the word was typed in (group C). Which of the following represents the predicted percentage of recalled words for groups A, B, and C, respectively? a. 20 percent, 70 percent, 50 percent b. 40 percent, 20 percent, 30 percent c. 50 percent, 80 percent, 20 percent d. 60 percent, 50 percent, 70 percent 5. Which memory system has an almost unlimited storage capacity? a. sensory b. long-term c. working

d. phonological

6. Which of the seven sins of memory would be associated with post-traumatic stress disorder? a. transience b. persistence c. blocking

d. misattribution

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 7. The day after a party, Juan sees a woman walking down the street. He is sure that he remembers her from the

party, though he is struggling to remember her name. It’s all the more embarrassing when she calls out his name, since he knows that she introduced herself at the party—even if he can’t quite remember her name. Juan’s problem is an error with which of the following processes of memory? a. retrieval b. working memory c. encoding d. storage 8. Hayden is explaining the rules of his new computer game to Shane. From which memory system does

Hayden retrieve information about the rules? a. procedural b. implicit c. prospective d. declarative 9. Research by Chase and Simon demonstrated that expert chess players were able to recall the positions of

chess pieces on a board after a five-second glance better than novices—but only when the pieces were in a meaningful (mid-game) arrangement, rather than randomly positioned. It seems that they could recognize strategies such as the Alekhine’s defence and used this to guide recall. This example could be taken to show the importance of which of the following two factors in memory? a. clustering and conceptual hierarchies b. conceptual hierarchies and chunking c. schemas and chunking d. clustering and chunking 10. Your psychology professor asks you for the name of the individual who started the behavioural approach to

the study of psychology. Which type of memory must you access to answer this question correctly? a. prospective b. procedural c. episodic d. semantic 11. You are having a conversation with a friend in a busy, noisy room. Another person in the room, not a part of

your conversation, is talking to someone else and they say your name. Which of the following would earlyselection models of attention predict will happen? a. You will always notice that someone said your name. b. You have about a 66 percent probability of noticing that someone said your name. c. You have about a 33 percent probability of noticing that someone said your name. d. You will not notice that someone said your name.

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has not met before, and once the introductions are over, he finds he can remember the names of only the first three people and the last two people he was introduced to. What is the memory difficulty that Craig is experiencing consistent with? a. late-selection filtering b. retroactive interference c. serial-position effect d. nondistributed practice 14. Jack forms an image of his dog wearing a formal dress and foaming at the mouth. He is hoping that this

interactive image will help him remember to pick up dog food, his dry cleaning, and shaving cream. Which strategy is Jack using? a. structural encoding b. link method c. passive encoding d. method of loci 15. Faith had brain surgery to remove a small tumour from her temporal lobe. While recovering from the surgery

Faith appeared to be fine, and she was able to talk about events from both her childhood and just before the surgery. However, she has not learned anything that has happened since the surgery. What are Faith’s memory difficulties consistent with? a. proactive interference b. anterograde amnesia c. retrograde amnesia d. pseudoforgetting

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 16. Krista is 28 years old. She was burned quite badly in a kitchen accident when she was 7 years old. Today,

even though her parents still sometimes mention the kitchen accident, Krista has no memory of ever being burned. What would Freud say about Krista’s memory? a. She experienced the misinformation effect. b. She shows signs of proactive interference. c. She has repressed the memory of the fire. d. She is experiencing retrograde amnesia. 17. Leah is surprised to receive a second notice regarding her electric bill. She is sure that she paid it. As a matter

of fact, she can picture herself paying the bill through online banking. However, when she goes through her banking records, she cannot find evidence that she paid her electric bill. What likely happened to Leah in this example? a. She experienced proactive interference. b. She made a source-monitoring error. c. She made a misinformation error. d. She made a reality-monitoring error. 18. Researchers like Bartlett and Loftus have investigated errors in memory in order to understand how memory

works. How would they describe memory? a. like files on a computer disc b. as a reconstruction of events or materials c. like a tape recording d. as a literal record of events with gaps 19. Which memory process would you be using if you were attempting to remember where you left your keys? a. encoding b. storage c. retrieval

d. acquisition

20. Which type of memory would you have to rely on if you try to recall the exact sound that you heard about 15

seconds ago? a. long-term b. short-term c. sensory d. prospective 21. Which component is NOT included in Baddeley’s model of short-term or working memory? a. central executive b. phonological loop c. visuospatial sketchpad

d. sensory memory

22. Ten-year-old Kylee is trying to remember the capital of Alberta. Her dad tells her to think of the letter “E,”

and she quickly comes up with Edmonton. In this case, what did Kylee’s dad use to help her? a. transfer-appropriate processing b. a method of loci c. semantic network activation d. an effective retrieval cue 23. Who is known for identifying the “magical number” for the capacity of short-term memory? a. George Sperling b. Hermann Ebbinghaus c. Richard Atkinson

d. George Miller

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 24. If you needed to hire someone with really strong complex reasoning skills, what should that person have? a. durable sensory memory b. large working memory capacity c. rigid executive control system

d. reliable phonological rehearsal loop

25. What becomes a risk if a therapist believes that virtually all psychological problems are attributable to

childhood sexual abuse? a. They will inadvertently create memories of abuse in their clients through the use of suggestive techniques. b. Symptoms of disorders that are caused by other factors will be ignored. c. They will cause their clients great pain when they recover previously repressed memories of that abuse. d. Those therapists will take on only clients who have confirmed evidence of abuse. 26. Without rehearsal, what is the duration of short-term memory? a. no longer than 1 second b. about 20 seconds c. 5 to 10 minutes

d. no more than 3 hours

27. Which error in thinking fuels overconfidence in recalling information? a. reality-monitoring errors b. source-monitoring errors c. fundamental attribution error

d. failure to seek disconfirming evidence

28. What occurs when new information impairs the retention of previously learned information? a. retroactive interference b. proactive interference c. retrograde amnesia

d. anterograde amnesia

29. What has been demonstrated by researchers who investigated the accuracy of flashbulb memories following

the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001? a. Flashbulb memories are more vivid because they contain hallucinatory (and therefore inaccurate) details. b. Flashbulb memories are more vivid and more accurate than typical memories. c. Flashbulb memories contain more visual information than typical memories, which makes them less accurate for semantic encoding. d. Flashbulb memories may be more vivid, but they are otherwise similar to other types of long-term memory. 30. As Art was walking out the door of his apartment, he was quickly running through a mental list of all the

things he was supposed to take with him. He went through the complete list of items four or five times, just to make sure he hadn’t forgotten anything. Which memory component was Art using, based on Baddeley’s model of working memory? a. visuospatial sketchpad b. prospective memory c. executive control system d. phonological loop

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 31. Which of the following would Ebbinghaus have been most likely to use as stimuli in his studies on forgetting? a. CAP, CAN, CAT b. FOD, RIX, WEP c. CAT, FOX, DOG

d. FLURB, GLUP, CHOLL

32. Adrianna was skiing when she fell and hit her head. When the ski patrol team asks her what she was doing

just before she fell, she really can’t remember. What is consistent with Adrianna’s memory loss? a. pseudoforgetting b. retrograde amnesia c. retroactive interference d. anterograde amnesia 33. What must occur for a memory to be stored? a. encoding b. retrieval c. modelling

d. chunking

34. Rachel asks Chandler to proofread her history essay. He goes through it fairly carefully and finds a number of

spelling and grammar errors but tells Rachel that her ideas are great. The next semester Chandler takes the same course, and he is surprised when the professor suggests that his essay is “not original work.” When Chandler reads Rachel’s essay again, he sees that he has included several of Rachel’s ideas in his paper. What has Chandler likely experienced in this example? a. anterograde interference b. a source-monitoring error c. reality-monitoring error d. proactive interference 35. The misinformation effect occurs when a person’s recall of an event they witnessed is altered by introducing

misleading information at which of the following times? a. before the event b. during the event c. after the event d. either before or after the event 36. Paige is shown a series of words, briefly flashed on a computer screen. Later, she will be given a long list and

asked to indicate which words were presented to her. The words are presented so quickly that Paige decides to focus on the length of the word, and whether the letters have stems going up or down (like a “d” or “p”). Craik and Lockhart would say that Paige is using which of the following types of encoding? a. semantic b. phonemic c. dual-coding d. structural 37. What causes forgetting, according to decay theory? a. interference effects b. retrieval failure c. ineffective encoding

d. impermanent storage

38. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which forgetting can be adaptive? a. Forgetting reduces confusion by decreasing the number of competing memories. b. Forgetting is more likely for our faults and errors, which helps protect mental health. c. Forgetting helps us to be better at generalizing from specific experiences. d. Forgetting our past prosocial actions motivates us to engage in more of these in the future. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 39. What is a characteristic of a sensory memory? a. It usually lasts for about 30 seconds. b. It can be maintained indefinitely by rehearsal. c. It gives you more time to recognize a stimulus. d. It is usually stored acoustically. 40. Mark is listening as his roommate lists 14 things that they need to buy for their apartment before the end of

the week. Based on George Miller’s research into short-term memory capacity, how many items is Mark likely to remember if he doesn’t write the items down as he hears them? a. fewer than 5 items b. between 5 and 9 items c. approximately 10 to 12 items d. all 14 items 41. Which brain areas appear to handle declarative memory? a. cerebellum and the areas of the cortex with which it communicates b. hippocampal region and the areas of the cortex with which it communicates c. medulla and the structures within the midbrain d. limbic system and the connections it makes with the prefrontal cortex 42. Participants in Loftus and Palmer’s (1974) study who, after viewing a video of a car accident, were asked,

“How fast were the cars going as they smashed into one another?” were more likely to recall broken glass at the scene of the accident (where there was none), compared to those asked the same question but with the word hit instead. This is likely due to the activation of a particular _______________ by the wording of the question. a. context b. hindsight bias c. flashbulb memory d. schema 43. What is involved in self-referent encoding? a. forming two kinds of memory codes for each word b. linking a stimulus to other information at the time of encoding c. the creation of visual images to represent the words to be remembered d. making the material to be remembered personally meaningful 44. Jaime was nearly hit by a car when crossing the road. Luckily, she thought to repeat the licence plate number

of the car in her head until she could write them down and report the incident to the police. which of the following processes did Jaime engage in? a. elaborative rehearsal b. the method of loci c. source monitoring d. maintenance rehearsal

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 45. Tyler witnessed an automobile accident and heard one of the bystanders casually mention that the driver was

probably intoxicated. Even though the driver had not been drinking, and had never crossed the centre line, Tyler tells the police officer who is investigating the accident that the car had been “weaving all over the road.” What is illustrated by Tyler’s faulty recall? a. misinformation effect b. proactive interference c. implicit memory d. state-dependent memory 46. According to Schacter, what is the benefit of the memory sin he calls transience? a. having flexible memory systems for different types of information b. having resistance to depression c. being able to discard information that is no longer needed d. being open to new ideas 47. Which type of memory is stored for the shortest period of time? a. working b. sensory c. short-term

d. long-term

48. Your memory for the material on this test may be influenced by the amount of attention you paid to it, the level

at which you processed it, and how you organized it. Which of your text’s unifying themes does this illustrate? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. 49. Which unifying theme of your text best reflects the reconstructive nature of memory? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Psychology evolves in a sociocultural context. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Psychology is empirical. 50. A professional football player is knocked unconscious during a game and is taken off the field on a stretcher.

Although he regains consciousness quickly, when he is interviewed after the game about the play that led to his injury, he replies, “I have no idea what happened. Last thing I remember, before waking up while I was carried off, I was on the bench, and the coach told me to go out on the field!” This player most likely experienced which of the following? a. pseudoforgetting b. retrograde amnesia c. proactive interference d. anterograde amnesia

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 51. What has been demonstrated by Elizabeth Loftus’s work on eyewitness testimony? a. Memory for crime-related events is very detailed. b. Witness memory errors are typically omissions of details of the event. c. Information given after an event can alter a person’s memory of the event. d. Memory errors come mostly from erroneous original encoding. 52. Ruben and Maya are describing their recent trip to Brazil. They describe all the interesting things they did

while they were there, and all the interesting people they met. Which type of memory are Ruben and Maya largely relying on? a. episodic b. prospective c. semantic d. procedural 53. Andre is demonstrating a new computer program to his roommate. Which memory system is Andre largely

relying on as he shows his roommate how to open the application and create a file? a. episodic b. semantic c. procedural d. prospective 54. In a study described in your text, Williams followed up on females who had been brought to a hospital

emergency room for treatment of sexual abuse when they were children. What proportion of the sample did NOT report the original incident when these women were interviewed 17 years after their emergency room visit? a. almost all (95 percent) b. approximately half (55 percent) c. just over one-third (38 percent) d. very few (9 percent) 55. Dr. Miller is convinced that he was abducted by aliens last night. His description of the extraterrestrials bears

a striking resemblance to those that were depicted on a recent TV program. Assuming that this is all a memory error, which of the following is the most likely cause? a. encoding failure b. retroactive interference c. the misinformation effect d. source-monitoring error 56. What does the encoding specificity principle state? a. Forgetting is due only to the passage of time and will happen to all types of memories. b. Forgetting is often due to a mismatch between retrieval cues and the memory code. c. Forgetting is usually due to interference from competing memories. d. Forgetting often involves purposeful suppression of memories. 57. Imagine that researchers find some memories are lost very quickly from memory, while other memories last

much longer. Which theory would be most damaged by such evidence? a. decay theory of forgetting b. repression theory of forgetting c. interference theory of forgetting d. neurochemical theory of forgetting

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words as possible from the list below? door shoe cat window frog belt a. door, shoe, cat, roof, blouse, bunny b. door, shoe, cat, window, frog, belt, roof, blouse, bunny c. door, roof, window, bunny, cat, shoe, belt, blouse d. belt, blouse, bunny, cat, door, frog, roof, shoe, window

roof

blouse

bunny

60. Zachariah was nervous about his midterm exams, but once he started he found that he was able to accurately

recall the necessary information. Which memory process accounts for Zachariah’s access and utilization of the information in his memory? a. encoding b. storage c. retrieval d. rehearsal 61. Which area of the brain is associated with the severe memory impairment that occurs in Alzheimer’s disease? a. hippocampal region b. Broca’s area c. hypothalamus

d. Ebbinghaus’s region

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 62. Dr. Tran presents participants with words on a screen. The participants do not know that their memory for

these words will be tested later on. Instead, they are simply told to either generate a rhyming word (group A), to picture the object mentioned in their mind (group B), or to focus on the font that the word was typed in (group C). Which of the following represents the predicted order (greatest to lowest) in terms of recalled words? a. A, B, C b. B, A, C c. B, C, A d. A, C, B 63. Which list of words should be easiest to remember, based on Paivio’s dual-coding theory? a. a list of nonsense words, such as filt and borm b. a list of rhyming words, such as boy and destroy c. a list of words for concepts or ideas, such as honesty and democracy d. a list of words that you can visualize, such as dog and beer 64. Which of the following is an example of phonemic encoding? a. memorizing lines from a poem b. remembering a grocery list by visualizing the cake you will make with the ingredients c. thinking of definitions for each word you must remember d. thinking of rhyming words for each item on your shopping list 65. Mrs. Wilkie is 82 years old. She recently moved into a nursing home after living in the same house for over

40 years. She started having trouble with her episodic memory not long after she moved. What is the most likely explanation for her recent memory problems? a. loss of retrieval cues b. age-related decay in brain areas associated with memory c. lack of elaboration d. protein deficiency 66. Vibhuti was recently given a tour of a bakery after hours. She vividly describes her experience to her mother,

even mentioning the flour sacks on the counter. However, since it was after closing time, there was no flour present—it was stored in bins that were out of sight. Vibhuti’s error was most likely the result of which of the following? a. the role of conceptual hierarchies in long-term memory b. faulty visuospatial memory processing at the time of the tour c. the need for semantic networks in long-term memory d. the use of a schema causing a memory error

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 67. Andrew, a football coach, and Lucas, a novice, are both participating in a study in which they will try to

remember the positions of x’s and o’s on a chalkboard. Based on research by Chase and Simon, which of the following would you predict? a. Andrew will remember less overall. b. Andrew will remember more than Lucas but only when the x’s and o’s reflect real football plays. c. Lucas will remember more than Andrew but only when the x’s and o’s are randomly positioned. d. Lucas and Andrew will perform equally in both conditions. 68. Which early psychologist’s work is the foundation for the concept of motivated forgetting? a. Sigmund Freud b. John Watson c. Hermann Ebbinghaus

d. Wilhelm Wundt

69. Maria is trying to recall the names of all of the provinces and territories. She begins by naming the Maritime

provinces, followed by the Central provinces, the Western provinces, and finally the territories. Which concept does Maria’s pattern of recall illustrate? a. clustering b. serial-position effect c. primacy effect d. levels-of-processing 70. Cheryl’s purse was snatched quickly by a well-dressed man in a crowd. Immediately after the mugging,

Cheryl’s mother said that the thief was probably a desperate drug addict. When Cheryl provided a statement to police, she described the man as wearing shabby clothes and twitching a lot. What likely influenced Cheryl’s recall of the thief? a. misinformation effect b. state-dependent memory c. retroactive interference d. implicit memory readjustment 71. Meredith is trying to learn the various species of canines. She begins by grouping them by wolves, dogs, and

foxes, then memorizing the species within each group. Which concept does Meredith’s method of organizing the material illustrate? a. source monitoring b. the serial-position effect c. conceptual hierarchies d. levels of processing 72. Noah is presented with a series of Mandarin Chinese characters, briefly shown one at a time on a computer

screen. Later, he will be shown a list and asked to identify which of the characters he saw on the screen. Noah can neither read nor speak Mandarin, so he simply tries to memorize the look of each character (e.g., many vs. few lines; diagonals vs. flat lines). According to levels of processing theory, this is closest to which of the following forms of encoding? a. semantic b. phonemic c. dual coding d. structural

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 73. Tara’s bank assigned her a personal identification number (PIN) of 7321 when she was first issued her credit

card. Recently, Tara was issued a new PIN of 0645. If Tara experiences retroactive interference when she enters her PIN, what digits would you expect her to enter? a. 0321, using the last three digits of her old number in error b. 0645, her new PIN c. 7321, her old PIN d. 7325, using the first three digits of her old number in error 74. Timothy was planning to record the hockey game, but he forgot to turn the PVR on before he went to bed

that night. What does this example illustrate? a. anterograde amnesia b. pseudoforgetting c. failure in prospective memory d. proactive interference 75. Researchers have attempted to create false memories for mundane items (like recalling a word that did not

exist in a studied list) and highly salient events (like childhood hospitalizations) using techniques like imagery and elaboration. What have researchers determined based on these studies? a. False memories can be created in a small subset of the population (about 3 percent). b. False memories can be created only in hypnotized individuals. c. False memories of mundane events can be created, but false memories of highly salient events cannot. d. False memories can be created for all sorts of events. 76. Brock was describing the inside of his doctor’s office to one of his friends. In his description, he mentions that

there were two diplomas on the wall, even though this doctor does not have any diplomas displayed on the wall. What is illustrated by Brock’s error? a. the role of semantic networks in long-term memory b. the need for a good executive control system in short-term memory c. the need for conceptual hierarchies in long-term memory d. the role of schemas in long-term memory 77. Which component of working memory are you relying on when you mentally picture the road between your

house and school? a. visuospatial sketchpad c. conceptual hierarchy

b. phonological loop d. central executive

78. You changed your cellphone provider and have a new phone number. You’ve memorized your new phone

number, and now you can’t remember your old phone number. Which of the following does this example illustrate? a. retroactive interference b. proactive interference c. retrograde amnesia d. motivated forgetting

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 79. Naomi is studying for her physics exam. While she is studying, she thinks about each lab demonstration that

she and her labmates had to perform, which illustrated key ideas. Which statement best summarizes this situation? a. Naomi uses shallow processing that does not focus on the underlying meaning of the material she is reading. b. Naomi is using an effective study strategy, because the examples should help her to recall key ideas. c. Naomi employs the linking method to create a more complete semantic network. d. Naomi’s strategy is an ineffective study strategy because it will probably cause her to confuse many of the key ideas. 80. What do subjects do in a relearning task? a. memorize information a second time b. reproduce information on their own without any cues c. select previously learned information from an array of options d. learn new information that interferes with old information 81. Who was the first person to conduct scientific studies of forgetting? a. George Miller b. Hermann Ebbinghaus c. Elizabeth Loftus

d. John Watson

82. Sally is extremely upset at her boyfriend because he just kissed her and called her “Stella,” which was the

name of his previous girlfriend. Which of the following memory errors was most likely the culprit? a. source monitoring b. retroactive interference c. pseudoforgetting d. proactive interference 83. What types of memory stores are described in the Atkinson-Shiffrin memory model? a. sensory, short-term, and long-term stores b. short-, medium-, and long-term stores c. four different memory stores d. sensory, short-term, medium-term, and long-term stores 84. Decay theory is most relevant to the loss of information from which of the following types of memory? a. sensory and short-term memory b. implicit and explicit memory c. declarative and nondeclarative memory

d. episodic and semantic memory

85. Allen was recently traded to a new team, and he is having a hard time remembering all the new plays because

he keeps using the plays from his former team. What does this example illustrate? a. proactive interference b. retroactive interference c. state-dependent forgetting d. memory reconstruction

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 86. Trevor was in a car accident and hit his head on the dashboard. Later, when the police question him about the

events just prior to the accident, he can’t remember. What is consistent with Trevor’s memory difficulties? a. retrograde amnesia b. anterograde amnesia c. proactive interference d. pseudoforgetting 87. Jack and Sophia are having a debate over a recent news story. Sophia finally brings in the latest issue of the

Weekly Bulletin to show Jack that she is correct. However, Sophia can’t find the information in the Weekly Bulletin, and now she is wondering where she read the news story. What has Sophia done in this example? a. She experienced proactive interference. b. She appears to have made a source-monitoring error. c. She experienced misinformation error. d. She appears to have made a reality-monitoring error. 88. Which term refers to the repository of memories for actions, skills, operations, and conditioned responses? a. procedural memory b. long-term memory c. semantic memory

d. declarative memory

89. Investigators were asking employees at a construction site what they were doing last Tuesday at 10:00 a.m.

Some of the workers were having a difficult time remembering details until the supervisor reminded them that the foundations for the building were poured that morning. If the workers are now able to recall details of their actions, what has the supervisor done? a. He activated transfer-appropriate processing. b. He successfully reinstated the context. c. He primed the workers’ conceptual hierarchies. d. He effectively overcame proactive interference. 90. What is the probable reason that Ebbinghaus’s forgetting curves were so steep? a. He learned too many lists. b. He used autobiographical materials. c. He had a poor memory.

d. He used meaningless materials.

91. What is procedural memory? a. memory for factual information b. general knowledge that is not temporally dated c. chronological memory of personal experiences d. memory for actions, skills, and operations

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 92. In Serena’s philosophy class, they are discussing cases of terrorism, and when they get to the attacks on the

World Trade Center in New York City, Serena suddenly has a vivid memory of watching the footage of the plane crash. She feels like she can recall every detail of that morning, right down to the breakfast that she and her family were eating. What type of memory is illustrated in this example? a. flashbulb memory b. implicit memory c. sensory memory d. procedural memory 93. Jade rearranges the letters HI TRE DBA T into “hit red bat” in order to remember them more easily. Which

technique is this an example of? a. rehearsal b. elaboration c. clustering d. chunking 94. What did researchers learn from the profound amnesia that H.M. experienced after undergoing surgery to

control his epilepsy? a. The hippocampal region plays a key role in the consolidation of long-term memories. b. The prefrontal lobes are the storage area for most long-term episodic memories. c. Long-term memories are consolidated and stored in the cerebellum. d. The cortex houses detailed and persistent recordings of past experiences and events. 95. Which memory system is referred to in your text as “working memory”? a. sensory memory b. prospective memory c. short-term memory

d. long-term memory

96. Which memory process is involved in the memory improvement strategies of elaboration, using visual

imagery, and engaging in deeper processing? a. storage b. retrieval c. encoding d. interference 97. Whitney’s neighbours are surprised that she never forgets their anniversary, but their wedding anniversary falls

on the same day as Whitney’s birthday, so she finds it an easy date to remember. What is illustrated by Whitney’s easy recall of the anniversary date? a. spreading activation in a semantic network b. prospective memory processes c. semantic encoding d. self-referent encoding 98. Eight-year-old Dana is distressed when her Grade 3 teacher gives her class an assignment the very first day.

They are all to write four paragraphs describing what they did over their summer vacations. Which type of memory must the students utilize to complete this assignment effectively? a. prospective b. semantic c. episodic d. procedural Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 99. Which process is important for memory and involves focusing awareness on a narrow range of stimuli or

events? a. elaboration c. attention

b. clustering d. encoding

100. If you are taking a drug that prevents neurogenesis, which memory outcome is likely? a. proactive interference b. poor performance on some learning tasks c. retrograde amnesia d. long-term potentiation 101. Imagine you complete a computer-programming course but never have a chance to use the programming

language once the course is over. What pattern of forgetting should you expect, based on the research results reported by Ebbinghaus? a. Most of what you learned will be forgotten early, but later there will be a slow, steady increase in what you are able to recall. b. Initially you will retain nearly all of the information, but much later there will be a rapid decline in what you are able to recall. c. Most of what you learned will be forgotten early, and there will continue to be a slow decline in what you are able to recall. d. There will be a constant, steady decline in what you are able to recall. 102. Graham has selected four different universities that he might like to attend, and now he is trying to decide

which of the four he should apply to. He has all the material spread out in front of him, and he is carefully considering all the advantages and disadvantages associated with each campus. Which component of memory is Graham utilizing, based on Baddeley’s model of working memory? a. visuospatial sketchpad b. phonological loop c. central executive d. prospective memory 103. Which type of memory code emphasizes the meaning of verbal input? a. phonemic b. semantic c. episodic

d. structural

104. During a party, Michael was talking to a friend about the symbolism involved in a recent movie. Michael

attributed the explanation of the symbolism to a prominent movie critic, when actually he heard it from his roommate. Which phenomena does this example illustrate? a. cryptomnesia b. source-monitoring error c. amnesia d. serial-position effect

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 105. Which statement about memory is proposed by dual-coding theory? a. It is composed of episodic and semantic codes. b. It is composed of declarative and procedural elements. c. It is enhanced by schematic and nonschematic elements. d. It is enhanced by forming semantic and visual codes. 106. Dave is thrown from his motorcycle and suffers a severe blow to the head, resulting in loss of memory for

events that occurred before the accident. What is this loss called? a. retrograde amnesia b. anterograde amnesia c. proactive interference d. retroactive interference 107. Isabella spent one hour studying Canadian history prior to 1800, and then spent one hour studying European

history prior to 1800. Victor spent one hour studying Canadian history prior to 1800, and then spent one hour studying calculus. What is likely to occur? a. Both students will have equivalent recall of events in early Canadian history. b. Isabella will have better recall of events in early Canadian history. c. Both students will have almost no recall of the material studied during the second hour. d. Victor will have better recall of events in early Canadian history. 108. With rehearsal, what is the duration of short-term memory? a. no longer than 1 second b. about 20 seconds c. 5 to 10 minutes

d. indefinite

109. Which type of memory contains general knowledge that is NOT tied to the time when the information was

learned? a. procedural c. implicit

b. episodic d. semantic

110. Which sequence represents progressively deeper levels of processing? a. phonemic, semantic, structural b. structural, phonemic, semantic c. semantic, phonemic, structural

d. structural, semantic, phonemic

111. Kathy moved houses a number of years ago, but a friend recently asked her how she used to get from the

soccer field to the convenience store. Kathy was embarrassed to admit that she couldn’t remember! And yet, later, when Kathy had a game at that very field, she was easily able to navigate to the convenience store. This example best demonstrates which of the following? a. contextual cuing b. motivated forgetting c. encoding failure d. source monitoring

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 112. What was NOT a level of processing associated with verbal information as suggested by Craik and

Lockhart? a. functional c. structural

b. phonemic d. semantic

113. Selena is part of a memory study in which, on each trial, she is given three letters to remember. As soon as

the letters are presented, she must also count backward by threes from a random number. Selena is annoyed at the experimenter for devising such a difficult task. Tell Selena which of the following people first created this task. a. George Sperling b. Craik and Lockhart c. Peterson and Peterson d. George Miller 114. You are absorbed in reading your psychology text when the phone rings. After talking on the phone, you

can’t remember the last thing you read. What happened? a. The information was lost from short-term memory because the phone distracted you from rehearsing the information. b. The information was lost from long-term memory because the phone distracted you from retrieving the information. c. The information was lost from sensory memory because the phone distracted you from perceiving the information. d. The information was lost from long-term memory because the phone distracted you from rehearsing the information. 115. What is the term for the long-lasting increase in neural excitability at synapses of a specific neural pathway? a. spreading cortical activation b. proactive excitation c. transfer-appropriate excitation

d. long-term potentiation

116. Mike is studying for an exam by highlighting his textbook. To be efficient, he simply skims the pages looking

for italicized or bolded words and marking them in colour. When he takes the test, he is horrified to learn that he cannot recall any of the definitions of the terms, since he didn’t really read them per se. This example best illustrates which of the following failures of memory? a. source-monitoring error b. ineffective encoding c. retrieval failure d. proactive interference 117. Dr. Boissoneau is a well-liked professor, and students always say that it is very easy to remember his

lectures. As part of his teaching, he uses many funny pictures to help students (such as a picture of Napoleon being soaked by a bucket of water, when discussing the battle of Waterloo). The given example is most clearly an application of which of the following? a. dual-coding theory b. levels of processing theory c. the link method d. elaboration

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 118. Which of the following is an example of semantic encoding? a. memorizing lines from a poem b. remembering a grocery list by visualizing the cake you will make with the ingredients c. thinking of definitions for each word you must remember d. thinking of rhyming words for each item on your shopping list 119. Martin can’t remember who invented flush toilets because he was flirting with a classmate when his history

professor described this momentous event. What likely caused his memory failure? a. proactive interference b. motivated forgetting c. time decay d. ineffective encoding 120. A 1-800 number for a product Ronald was interested in flashed on the television screen. Unfortunately, the

number disappeared before Ronald was able to write down the last three digits. However, Ronald found he had a momentary mental image of the phone number, and he was able to complete it, even though the number had disappeared. What is illustrated by Ronald’s experience? a. procedural memory b. flashbulb memory c. cued recall d. sensory memory 121. If you’re trying to decide whether you actually bought milk, or whether you just planned to buy milk, which

process are you using? a. reality monitoring b. locus of causality c. source monitoring d. internal or external attribution 122. Which statement best reflects the current view of the repressed memories controversy? a. It seems likely that most cases of recovered memories are authentic, because we have neural evidence

of repression. b. It appears that therapists are deliberately creating false memories in their patients, using techniques consistent with laboratory studies. c. We should be cautious about accepting recovered memories of abuse unless there is corroborating evidence. d. Recovered memories of childhood abuse can be dismissed, because there is no evidence that memories can be repressed in the first place. 123. Katja is taking a fill-in-the-blank quiz, but she is stuck on a question asking about brain regions.

Unfortunately, just as she goes to hand in the quiz, she suddenly remembers the term. Tulving would say that when Katja was having difficulty, that the term was which of the following? a. accessible and available b. available but inaccessible c. accessible but unavailable d. inaccessible and unavailable

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 124. The divisions of the nervous system can be divided into the central and peripheral nervous system. These are

then divided and subdivided into components such as the somatic and autonomic nervous system and then the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. This type of representation of the nervous system is most akin to which of the following? a. clustering b. a conceptual hierarchy c. the link method d. the method of loci 125. Maddy is part of a memory study in which, on each trial, she is given three letters to remember. As soon as

the letters are presented, she must also count backward by threes from a random number. On most trials, this is very difficult. But one trial is easy for Maddy since she immediately recognized the letters (KST) as her sister’s initials. On this trial, Maddy used which of the following? a. the link method b. elaborative rehearsal c. an acrostic d. the echoic store 126. Which of the following is likely faulty in someone that we think is absent-minded and disorganized because he

forgets appointments and other tasks regularly? a. limbic system b. prospective memory c. amygdala d. retrospective memory 127. Which of the following is a component of most theories of attention? a. the assumption that the vast majority of stimuli reach conscious awareness b. recognition that our attention is distributed equally among all sensory inputs c. the concept of attention as a selective filter that screens out most stimuli d. emphasis on the nonselective nature of attention 128. How would you study if you were using distributed practice? a. from several different sources b. through several different senses c. over several sessions

d. with multiple examples

129. What does the process of elaboration involve? a. linking a stimulus to other information at the time of encoding b. decreasing the complexity of the material to be remembered c. forming two kinds of memory code for each word d. the creation of visual images to represent the words to be remembered 130. Some theorists believe that an association exists between implicit memory and which other memory system? a. sensory b. procedural c. semantic

d. episodic

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 131. Knowing that a particular person has been arrested and accused of the crime in question can influence the

recollections of eyewitnesses. Which of the following best explains this finding? a. hindsight bias b. retroactive interference c. serial-position effect d. overconfidence influence 132. Dr. Bailie plans to present participants with words on a screen. Participants do not know that they will be

tested to see how many words they remember later on. Instead, they are simply told to either focus on the font that was used for each word (group A) or to generate a word that rhymes (group B). Dr. Bailie’s work is most relevant to which of the following? a. dual coding theory b. source monitoring c. interference theory d. levels of processing theory 133. The declarative memory system is subdivided, and one subdivision is made up of chronological recollections

of personal experiences. What is this subdivision called? a. network b. nodal c. event-evoked d. episodic 134. Research suggests that by taking tests or practice tests, one’s retention of material and therefore memory is

improved. Which term refers to this finding? a. serial-position effect b. testing effect c. procedural effect d. study bias 135. A few days after a party that he attended, Juan sees someone walking down the street who looks familiar. He

realizes that it was someone he met at the party. The person introduced themselves, but Juan had been distracted and the name never really registered. This example best illustrates a failure of which of the following basic processes of memory? a. retrieval b. working memory c. encoding d. storage 136. Dr. Janzen is a well-liked professor, and students always say that it is very easy to remember her lectures.

She creates all kinds of examples and metaphors when explaining theories or concepts (such as comparing Marie Antoinette to Miley Cyrus). The given example is most clearly an application of which of the following? a. dual-coding theory b. the link method c. levels of processing theory d. elaboration 137. What is the order of the basic memory processes in which information enters our memory system and is used

later? a. encoding, storage, retrieval c. encoding, retrieval, storage

b. acquisition, encoding, retrieval d. storage, retrieval, acquisition

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 138. If you use the word CANOE to remember the Big Five personality traits of conscientiousness,

agreeableness, neuroticism, openness, and extraversion, which method are you using? a. acronym b. narrative c. acrostic d. rhyme 139. ROY G BIV is a fictitious name people use to help them remember the order of colours in the colour

spectrum, from red to violet. What is ROY G BIV an example of? a. method of loci b. Aristotle’s method of memory c. memoranda d. mnemonic 140. Curtis is working on a presentation and doesn’t hear the phone ringing in the background. Later, he is

surprised to find three phone messages have come in for him, because he was unaware that the phone had even rung. Which model is supported by this example? a. late selection b. early selection c. retroactive interference d. proactive interference 141. What makes the aplysia an excellent species for studying neural processes? a. It is genetically similar to humans and other primates. b. It has a large number of complex neurons. c. It is resistant to classical conditioning and sensitization. d. It has a small number of large neurons. 142. What is a schema? a. specific type of availability heuristic c. organized general knowledge structure

b. peculiar form of amnesia d. specific type of representative heuristic

143. Which term is synonymous with “motivated forgetting”? a. regression b. sublimation c. rationalization

d. repression

144. Hermann Ebbinghaus memorized a list of stimuli, and it took him precisely 1000 seconds. After a delay of

one hour, he found that he had forgotten some of the list, so he tried to relearn it. It took him precisely 550 seconds to rememorize the list. Based on this data, what is his savings score after one hour? a. 35 percent b. 45 percent c. 55 percent d. 65 percent 145. Taryn was given a list of words as part of a memory test that included “dog, pail, and hate.” Later, she

recalled these words as “pup, bucket, and dislike.” Based on Taryn’s errors in recall, how did she encode the original word list? a. semantically b. structurally c. proactively d. phonemically

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 146. Research by Chase and Simon demonstrated that expert chess players were able to recall the positions of

chess pieces on a board after a five-second glance better than novices under which of the following conditions? a. when the pieces were in a meaningful (mid-game) arrangement b. when the pieces were randomly placed on the board c. when there were relatively few pieces on the board d. when the pieces were either meaningfully or randomly arranged 147. You have a midterm next week, and your instructor says that the exam will be composed of short-answer and

essay questions. Which method of measuring retention is being used? a. recognition b. rendition c. recall d. relearning 148. When conducting his research on forgetting, Ebbinghaus used a measure he called “savings.” Essentially, he

would learn a list so that he could recall it perfectly. After some time, he would have forgotten some of the list, so he would measure how quickly he could come to memorize that same list a second time. As such, Ebbinghaus’s “savings” was a measure of which of the following? a. recall b. recognition c. relearning d. retroactive interference 149. Your friend recently got married and changed her last name. What will make it difficult for you to remember

her new last name? a. retroactive interference c. reality monitoring

b. source monitoring d. proactive interference

150. According to Cowan, the capacity of short-term memory has been overestimated in previous research. What

is the capacity suggested by Cowan? a. 4 items, plus or minus 1 b. 5 items, plus or minus 2 c. 7 items, plus or minus 2 d. 8 items, plus or minus 1 151. Shayla is able to retain the vocabulary she learned in her first-semester Spanish class after the class has

ended. What memory process accounts for the fact that Shayla can hold information in her memory for extended periods of time? a. encoding b. retrieval c. chunking d. storage 152. What resulted in the brain damage of Endel Tulving’s famous patient K.C.? a. a motorcycle accident b. a war time injury c. a diving accident

d. a seizure disorder

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 153. Why have earlier studies of short-term memory capacity overestimated its capacity, according to Cowan? a. The studies failed to control for prior exposure to familiar test items. b. Researchers used university students with above-average memory abilities. c. Researchers used nonsense syllables, which are unnatural stimuli. d. The studies failed to control for participants’ tendency to chunk information. 154. Adam is standing in front of his bathroom mirror, trying to contemplate a new look for himself. He imagines

himself with a face tattoo, or a handlebar moustache, or a shaved head, or any combination of the above. Which of the following components of working memory is he using? a. visuospatial sketchpad b. phonological loop c. iconic store d. central executive 155. Which of the following components of working memory is most likely to be involved in selective attention,

such as blocking out irrelevant or distracting stimuli? a. visuospatial sketchpad b. phonological loop c. episodic buffer d. central executive 156. What do you have if you suffer from an inability to recall old memories as a result of brain trauma? a. neurogenesis b. retrograde amnesia c. limbic system inversion

d. retroactive interference

157. In one study, Shaw and Porter (2015) tried to convince college students that they had a repressed memory of

a crime (e.g., theft, assault) that they committed between 11 and 14 years of age and that resulted in police contact. Using suggestive tactics sometimes employed by law enforcement, what percentage of students exhibited detailed memories of committing a crime that had never really happened? a. 20 percent b. 30 percent c. 50 percent d. 70 percent 158. Which statement best describes mnemonic devices? a. They can be used only to remember concrete words. b. They are the primary techniques for improving everyday memory. c. They have existed since ancient times. d. They are generally ineffective and are unnecessary in modern times. 159. Endel Tulving’s well known patient K.C. has been important in terms of our understanding of memory. What

has NOT been relevant to our understanding of memory, according to Tulving’s work? a. long-term potentiation b. the distinction between semantic and episodic memory c. the distinction between implicit and explicit memory d. new learning in amnesia

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 160. Which term refers to the gradual conversion of information into durable long-term memory codes? a. postsynaptic conversion b. long-term potentiation c. consolidation

d. elaboration

161. The method of loci is a mnemonic device that is based on visual imagery. It is most relevant to which of the

following theories? a. levels of processing c. encoding specificity

b. dual coding d. memory reconstruction

162. In which of the following regions of the brain has neurogenesis been shown in humans? a. the amygdala b. the cerebellum c. the hippocampus

d. the reticular formation

163. What is the retention interval in studies of forgetting? a. length of time when the stimulus material is available to be studied by the subjects b. length of time in which the subject has 100 percent recall of the material c. length of time between the presentation of stimuli and the complete forgetting of the information d. length of time between the presentation of stimuli and the measurement of forgetting 164. Miles has very vivid memories of a car accident he witnessed five years ago. When he closes his eyes and

thinks about the accident, he feels as if he can recall every detail of it, right down to the brand name printed on the tires of one of the cars. What is this type of memory called? a. procedural memory b. sensory memory c. implicit memory d. flashbulb memory 165. What is the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon? a. saying something before you’ve had a chance to think about it b. a mnemonic device to help you store information in long-term memory c. a failure of networks in Wernicke’s area of the brain d. feeling like you know something but are unable to recall it 166. Adnan has been trying to recall the name of the band who wrote his favourite song when he was 14. Adnan

feels somewhat frustrated because he is certain he knows the band’s name, but he just can’t seem to recall it at this moment. What is Adnan experiencing? a. retrograde amnesia b. tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon c. proactive interference d. source-monitoring error

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 167. Savanna is trying to remember the names of the prime ministers for her history exam. She has read the names

six times, and she is ready to test herself on how well she can recall them. Which names will be remembered best, based on the serial-position effect? a. names at the beginning of the list b. names at the end of the list c. names in the middle of the list d. names at the beginning and the end of the list Dylan Dylan is using his phone to text his friend some information about a party that they’re supposed to go to that evening. The address is 1812 Lakeshore Drive. Dylan remembers this address easily because it reminds him of his favourite piece of classical music: Tchaikovsky’s 1812 Overture. In fact, he hums his favourite part of that piece as he’s texting the address. Dylan is very engrossed in the task and doesn’t notice most of the noise around him in the coffee shop. He hears his name called, however, and looks up to see a girl he knows walking toward him. He can’t remember her name, even though he knows he should know it. She asks him what he has planned for the evening, and he tells her about the party. She cringes and says that she had been invited to the party as well, but had totally forgotten about it. Just then, Dylan remembers that her name is Mitzy. He remembers because when he met her, he thought she was a little ditzy and thought it was funny that her name rhymed with her demeanour! 168. Why is Dylan able to remember Mitzy’s name after a while? a. Phonemic encoding is more durable than other forms of encoding. b. Her behaviour provided an appropriate retrieval cue. c. Pseudoforgetting is temporary. d. Retrieval becomes more likely with the passage of time. 169. Roberto was attacked while he was walking in the park. The police who are investigating the crime ask

Roberto to describe his attacker in as much detail as possible. Which type of task are the police using? a. encoding b. misinformation c. recognition d. recall 170. Alice was listening to the radio as she was driving, and she heard an announcement that her favourite band

was coming to town next month. When she pulled into her driveway, she grabbed her notebook and wrote down the date of the concert. Where was the information stored until Alice wrote it down? a. sensory memory b. short-term memory c. long-term memory d. trace memory

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 171. Which of the following is NOT true of research on multitasking? a. People are generally accurate at estimating their ability to multitask. b. Those who report multitasking more are generally the people who are less able to multitask. c. Chronic multitasking is linked to poor performance in classroom tests. d. Habitual multitasking is associated with lower achievement on standardized tests of English and math. 172. Cherie is trying to do two things at once. She is completing a time-limited online quiz for a very important

course (so she has to pay attention to the questions), and she is trying to monitor a conversation going on behind her, involving some juicy gossip. What would you expect if you asked Cherie to recall as much as possible about the conversation? a. She would not remember as much as she would have if she had focused on the conversation. b. She would have excellent memory for the conversation, because parallel-distributed processing would temporarily allow her to monitor two streams of content. c. She would have poor memory for components of the conversation that were similar in content to the quiz. d. She would remember more than usual about the conversation, because the topic was personally relevant. 173. Movie projectors work by presenting a series of still images one at a time. Many people don’t realize that

there is actually a fraction of a second between film images, though, where there is nothing (just a blank) that is projected onto the screen. For which of the following reasons do we not notice these pauses in the film? a. selective attention b. perceptual constancy c. sensory memory d. the visuospatial sketchpad 174. Which unifying theme of your text best illustrates the fact that what you see in the world around you depends

on where you focus your attention? a. Psychology evolves in a sociocultural context. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Psychology is empirical. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. 175. What is the term for the process of remembering? a. encoding b. information registry c. retrieval

d. storage

176. Kiana was given a list of words as part of a memory test that included “dog, pail, and hate.” Later, she

recalled these words as “dig, paint, and hard.” Based on Kiana’s errors in recall, how did she encode the original word list? a. implicitly b. semantically c. phonemically d. structurally

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 177. Sometimes when you think about a word, it triggers your recall of related words. What is this tendency

called? a. conceptual hierarchy response b. elaborative rehearsal c. spreading activation within a semantic network d. clustering 178. What is the term for a system where nodes representing concepts are joined together by pathways that link

related concepts? a. organizational schema c. lexical ordering

b. semantic network d. clustering hierarchy

179. A key debate in attention research concerns whether the attentional filter is located early in processing or late

in processing. Which of the following views was ultimately supported by the weight of current scientific evidence? a. early-selection models only b. late-selection models only c. both early- and late-selection models d. both early- and late-selection models, as well as intermediate-selection models 180. Even if you are not attending to a particular conversation between two people, you may notice if one of the

people says your name. What is the term for this type of occurrence? a. Posner effect b. Craik effect c. cocktail party phenomenon d. self-referent phenomenon 181. How would you study if you were using massed practice? a. across several large sessions b. with a group of people c. all at once

d. in a quiet place with no distractions

182. Three friends are discussing taxes, but the conversation is soon side-tracked as different statements bring up

related ideas. The conversation drifts from taxes, to politicians, to the election, to fund-raising. Which Collins and Loftus theory is illustrated by this example? a. mood-congruent memory b. prospective memory processes c. spreading activation within a semantic network d. schema-based recall of information

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 183. What is proactive interference? a. when new information impairs the retention of previously learned information b. memory loss for events that occur after a head injury c. memory loss for events that occurred prior to a head injury d. when previously learned information interferes with the retention of new information 184. What is a good strategy for minimizing interference with retention of course material? a. engage in massed practice b. spend less time on rote repetition of the material c. allocate study time for specific courses on separate days d. overlearn the material 185. Mia was trying to figure out how to fit the box that contained her new computer into the trunk of her car. She

mentally manipulated the position of the box, trying to figure out a way to make it fit. Which component of memory was Mia utilizing, based on Baddeley’s model of working memory? a. central executive b. visuospatial sketchpad c. prospective memory d. phonological loop 186. What type of material is most likely to cause interference effects on retention? a. material that is similar to the original material b. material that is very different from the original material c. material that is presented at a similar frequency to the original material d. material that is presented in a different sensory modality from the original material 187. Which type of memory includes all the others? a. episodic memory b. procedural memory c. long-term memory

d. semantic memory

188. What does it mean when information in long-term memory (LTM) is organized according to a clustering

principle? a. Words that look alike are grouped together in LTM. b. Items that occurred close together in time are grouped together in LTM. c. People create a network of nodes in LTM, with links to related concepts. d. Related items tend to be remembered in groups or categories. 189. Dennis is reminiscing about his childhood home. He can still remember the wide front porch with the porch

swing and the big trees in the backyard. Which type of memory is Dennis relying on? a. procedural b. prospective c. retrospective d. semantic

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 190. Corbin studies for eight hours straight on the night before the exam. What technique is Corbin using? a. distributed practice b. massed practice c. prospective memory

d. chunking

191. Jorge listens attentively to the premier’s speech and converts the information from the speech into new

memories. What process allows Jorge to form new memories as information is encountered for the first time? a. encoding b. storage c. retrieval d. priming 192. What type of memory plays an important role in everyday life because it requires people to remember to

perform actions in the future? a. prospective b. retrospective c. anterograde d. daily task 193. Based on what you know from research, which of the following strategies would you predict would result in

the best memory for the following set of words: fiery quiet ENRAGED old HONEST awesome a. thinking about the meaning of each word b. paying attention to whether the words are written in uppercase or lowercase letters c. coming up with a rhyme for each word d. deciding whether each word describes you 194. What type of memory is necessary to remember to perform actions in the future? a. proactive b. retrograde c. prospective

d. retrospective

195. What did Ebbinghaus use as stimuli in his classic studies of forgetting? a. geometric shapes b. uncommon English words c. common English words

d. nonsense syllables

196. Mort hated his history professor last year and can never remember the professor’s name. What would Freud

say was the likely cause of this instance of forgetting? a. inadequate depth of processing b. poor organization in Mort’s semantic memory c. ineffective encoding d. motivated forgetting 197. What is associated with cognitive abilities like reading comprehension or complex reasoning? a. sensory memory capacity b. working memory capacity c. trace memory capacity

d. long-term memory capacity

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 198. Which of the following is an example of structural encoding? a. remembering a series of symbols by noting the angle of each of the lines b. remembering a grocery list by visualizing the cake you will make with the ingredients c. thinking of definitions for each word you must remember d. thinking of rhyming words for each item on your shopping list 199. Which memory-improving approach is most consistent with the empirical finding that outlining material from

textbooks can enhance retention of the material? a. massed practice b. organization c. distributed practice d. deep processing 200. As Kayla was introduced to the seven members of the committee who would be interviewing her for a

scholarship, she silently repeated all the names to herself, in order. What was Kayla using, and why? a. chunking to increase the capacity of her short-term memory b. filtering to temporarily block other information out of short-term memory c. acoustic encoding to process the names semantically d. rehearsal to temporarily store the names in short-term memory 201. Xavier was given a list of words as part of a memory test that included “dog, pail, and hate.” Later, he

recalled these words as “log, whale, and late.” Based on Xavier’s errors in recall, how did he encode the original word list? a. semantically b. phonemically c. retroactively d. structurally 202. Ebbinghaus’s original forgetting curves graphed his retention over time. When did most forgetting occur? a. only after several days have passed b. immediately after experiencing proactive interference c. very gradually over long periods of time d. very rapidly after learning something 203. Two friends are playing a word-association game. Basically, they answer the question “What’s the first thing

you think of when I say ________?” This game is most related to which of the following memory processes? a. concept hierarchies b. the link method c. elaborative rehearsal d. spreading activation 204. Which of the following is proposed by early-selection theories of attention? a. Stimuli are screened out before they reach the sense organs. b. Stimuli are screened out before the brain processes the meaning of sensory input. c. Stimuli are screened out immediately after the brain processes the meaning of sensory input. d. Attention is distributed equally among all stimulus inputs that are above threshold. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 205. Cierra is writing a test in geography, and she is trying to recall the capital of Turkmenistan. Which type of

memory does Cierra need to access to answer this question? a. semantic b. episodic c. procedural d. prospective 206. Two students took a memory test where they had to remember 20 words that were flashed on a screen.

Mallory tried to think of rhymes for each word as it appeared on the monitor. Bailey tried to think of ways each word could be used in a sentence. What would you predict based on Craik and Lockhart’s levels-ofprocessing theory? a. Mallory will have better recall of the words because she used semantic encoding. b. Bailey will have better recall of the words because she used semantic encoding. c. Bailey will have poorer recall of the words because she used structural encoding. d. Both students should have equivalent recall of the words. Dylan Dylan is using his phone to text his friend some information about a party that they’re supposed to go to that evening. The address is 1812 Lakeshore Drive. Dylan remembers this address easily because it reminds him of his favourite piece of classical music: Tchaikovsky’s 1812 Overture. In fact, he hums his favourite part of that piece as he’s texting the address. Dylan is very engrossed in the task and doesn’t notice most of the noise around him in the coffee shop. He hears his name called, however, and looks up to see a girl he knows walking toward him. He can’t remember her name, even though he knows he should know it. She asks him what he has planned for the evening, and he tells her about the party. She cringes and says that she had been invited to the party as well, but had totally forgotten about it. Just then, Dylan remembers that her name is Mitzy. He remembers because when he met her, he thought she was a little ditzy and thought it was funny that her name rhymed with her demeanour! 207. What is the term for the type of memory that failed when Mitzy didn’t remember that she was supposed to go to the party that night? a. declarative b. self-referent c. prospective d. proactive 208. Haiyi is holding a pencil horizontally, gripping it lightly in the middle, between her index finger and thumb. As

she wiggles the pencil back and forth, she feels like she can see the pencil in two places at once, so that it makes a kind of bowtie shape. Which of the following is responsible for this illusion? a. retinal disparity b. perceptual constancy c. selective attention d. sensory memory

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 209. Several friends are arguing over the actual date of Will and Kate’s royal wedding. Some of them think it was

in May, several think it was in early April, and one thinks it may have been in June. Seth confidently tells them it was on April 29, because it was the same day that his daughter was born. What is illustrated by the example of Seth’s accurate recall? a. prospective memory processes b. semantic encoding c. self-referent encoding d. spreading activation in a semantic network 210. Emily often studies with several devices on at the same time: she streams music or has a TV show playing in

the background, she frequently checks her phone for texts, and she has a window open on her social media accounts. Which of the following would research predict about Emily? a. Like most people, Emily will be fairly accurate at estimating the degree of distraction of these devices. b. As an experienced multitasker, Emily will be less susceptible to the negative effects of these potential distractions. c. Emily, an experienced multitasker, will have greater activity in the hippocampus during studying, which will strengthen explicit memory for the material. d. Emily will remember less about the material she was studying than someone who was not multitasking while studying. 211. Which of the following leads to pseudoforgetting? a. insufficient retrieval cues b. interference effects c. lack of attention

d. hippocampal damage

212. Joel is asked to provide a description of his neighbour’s car, after the car and the neighbour both disappear.

He is surprised to find that he really can’t accurately recall the make and model of the car, or any special details that might help in identifying the vehicle. What is Joel most likely experiencing in this case? a. retrograde amnesia b. proactive interference c. source-monitoring error d. pseudoforgetting 213. What is a retrieval cue? a. a brain structure stimulus used to locate a particular memory b. the same thing as an elaboration encoding variable c. the pattern of neural activation when a memory was first encoded d. a stimulus associated with a memory that is used to locate that memory 214. Which memory system contains words, definitions, events, and ideas? a. procedural b. executive c. declarative

d. episodic

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 215. Juan is at a party and meets some new people. He had heard that, if you repeat a person’s name in the

conversation soon after you first hear it, you will remember it better. By repeating the new people’s names in conversation, Juan is trying to optimize which of the following processes of memory? a. retrieval b. working memory c. encoding d. storage 216. As described in your text, MacMillan and her colleagues asked a random sample of almost 10,000 adults

whether they had experienced abuse during childhood. What did the researchers find regarding rates of abuse? a. Males were more likely to have experienced physical abuse, while females were more likely to have experienced sexual abuse. b. Females were more likely to have experienced physical abuse, while males were more likely to have experienced sexual abuse. c. Males and females experienced both physical and sexual abuse with equal frequency. d. Females were more likely to have experienced both physical and sexual abuse. 217. Frances is daydreaming during her botany class and has not been listening to the lecture at all. She is suddenly

aware that her professor has just called her name and is waiting for her to respond to a question that has been asked. Which type of model is supported by this example? a. early-selection model of attention b. late-selection model of attention c. retroactive model of attention d. acoustic-blocking model of attention 218. LeAnn had her purse snatched as she walked out to her car. The police who are investigating the crime ask

LeAnn to try to pick the purse-snatcher out of a line-up of eight suspects. What type of task are the police using? a. recognition b. misinformation c. encoding d. recall 219. Which level of processing should result in the longest lasting memory codes? a. semantic b. phonemic c. structural

d. mnemonic

220. In a schematic diagram of a semantic network, how is the degree of association between two concepts

represented? a. the size of the two nodes b. the length of the pathway between the nodes c. the number of connections between the nodes d. the colour of the nodes

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 221. What need is involved in prospective memory? a. the need to remember to remember b. the need to activate schemas c. the need to remember lists of nonsense syllables d. the need to reconstruct memories 222. Ivan’s bank assigned him a personal identification number (PIN) of 8624 when he was first issued his credit

card. Last week Ivan was issued a new PIN of 9317. If Ivan experiences proactive interference when he enters his PIN, what digits should you expect him to enter? a. 9317, his new PIN b. 9324, using the last two digits of his old number in error c. 8617, using the first two digits of his old number in error d. 8624, his old PIN 223. What type of memories are unusually vivid and detailed recollections of momentous events? a. flashbulb memories b. nondeclarative memories c. episodic memories

d. sensory memories

224. Evidence from which studies most clearly supports the idea that memory traces consist of specific neural

circuits? a. the transfer of RNA from one animal to another b. long-term potentiation c. retrograde amnesia d. electrical stimulation of the brain 225. Danielle is studying language and, to try to remember the difference between phonemes and morphemes, she

remembers that phone-emes are all about sounds, just like head-phones. Which of the following processes of encoding is demonstrated by this example? a. dual coding b. the link method c. elaboration d. self-referent encoding 226. Which component of working memory handles the ability of people to “juggle” information in working

memory in order to reason and make decisions? a. central executive b. phonological loop c. visuospatial sketchpad d. episodic buffer 227. Which type of memory is made up of temporally dated recollections of personal experiences? a. declarative b. semantic c. explicit

d. episodic

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 228. Which type of memory research provides evidence that questions the validity of “recovered” memories? a. retroactive interference b. connectionist models of memory c. flashbulb memories

d. misinformation effect

229. What is the term for the process of making attributions about the origins of memories? a. reality monitoring b. source monitoring c. buffering

d. contraindication

230. What was achieved by Baddeley’s concept of working memory? a. It recognizes the complexity of short-term memory. b. It expands the functions and processes of long-term memory. c. It integrates sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory into a single, complex

system. d. It takes the place of the old concept of sensory memory. 231. Endel Tulving’s well known patient K.C. was able to remember facts and general information. What was

K.C. unable to do? a. experience semantic memories b. remember anything that ever happened to him c. reality-interface d. study new subjects at university 232. Nicole is given two sets of words to remember. The first is “toilet, bus, lightbulb” and the second is “harmony,

beforehand, readiness.” According to research, Nicole will have an easier time remembering the __________ list because dual-coding theory is more easily applied to ____________. a. first; schemas b. second; the link method c. first; concrete objects d. second; acrostics 233. In the Peterson and Peterson’s short-term memory task, which of the following are participants are asked to

do? a. remember three letters while rehearsal is prevented b. report a row of letters from a briefly presented array c. recall as many items as possible, in any order, from a list of 20 words d. learn a list of 16 pairs of words that differ in their imagery potential 234. Elliot is trying to memorize a speech for one of his classes. He stands in different locations in his apartment

and reads each line of the speech aloud. Later, when he is in front of his classmates, he visualizes a walk through his apartment, and he can successfully recall the entire speech. Which memory strategy did Elliot use? a. acrostics b. method of loci c. distributed practice d. link method

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 235. What is the deepest level of processing of information in memory? a. triarchic level of encoding b. attentional encoding c. semantic level of encoding

d. dyadic encoding

236. What is involved in the improvement of everyday memory? a. practicing and rehearsing the material b. distributing practice across time as opposed to massed practice c. the use of various mnemonic devices d. a strict exercise regime 237. Natasha asks Oscar for directions to his house. When he tells her to turn on 4th Street, she asks what colour

the house is on the corner where she turns. Oscar is surprised that he actually knows the house is blue, since he never really thought about it. Which type of memory holds information about the house colour in this instance? a. explicit b. implicit c. procedural d. prospective 238. In which of the following regions of the brain are memories stored? a. the hippocampus b. the cerebellum c. the prefrontal cortex

d. throughout the cortex

239. In which level of processing is emphasis placed on the sounds of words? a. morphemic b. phonemic c. platonic

d. mnemonic

240. What best explains the fact that the recall of eyewitnesses can be distorted by information introduced after the

event by police officers and attorneys? a. serial-position effect b. errors in source monitoring c. misinformation effect d. memory reconstruction 241. How do people typically feel about their accuracy when tested for their memory of general information? a. They overestimate their accuracy. b. They underestimate their accuracy. c. They are generally confident in their accuracy if the information is relevant. d. They feel as if they are less accurate when the researcher doesn’t provide feedback. 242. What causes pseudoforgetting? a. ineffective encoding b. interference by imagination c. failure of retrieval

d. decay of storage

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 243. The “memory wars” is a term that is used to describe the debate surrounding which of the following? a. decay theory versus interference theory b. different concepts of short-term/working memory c. the reliability of eyewitness testimony d. the validity of repressed memories 244. Dave is reminiscing about the first car he owned in high school and how he felt the first time he drove it

through town. What does this example illustrate? a. declarative memory b. procedural memory c. episodic memory d. semantic memory 245. Which term refers to memory for personal events that are associated with particular times in our lives? a. episodic b. declarative c. semantic

d. implicit

246. Cindy is watching her little sister as she skips rope. As long as the rope is turning, all Cindy can see is a blur

of colour. She can make out only the shape of the skipping rope when her sister stops skipping. What accounts for the “blurred” image that Cindy sees while the rope is moving? a. function of sensory memory b. rehearsal of short-term memory c. formation of flashbulb memory d. encoding of episodic memory 247. Noah learned to play Mozart’s Concerto Number 21 when he was 8 years old. He is now 30 years old and

hasn’t played the piano for years, but his sister has asked him to play the concerto at her wedding. When Noah sits down to practise, he finds that he has the piece mastered in just a few hours, even though it took him weeks to learn the first time. What does this example illustrate? a. cancellation of retroactive interference b. relearning as a measure of memory retention c. impact of pseudoforgetting d. ease of recall for auditory stimuli 248. Jaime spends two hours memorizing definitions and charts that summarize various theories for his psychology

exam. Yaniv spends two hours struggling to understand a handful of concepts and attempting to apply those concepts to his own life. Which of the two students will have better retention for the information that they have studied, according to research on levels of processing? a. Yaniv, because he processed the material at a deeper level b. Yaniv, because mnemonic techniques are useless for studying psychology c. Jaime, because he did not struggle with the material d. Jaime, because the use of mnemonics results in long-lasting memories

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 249. Which type of memory is reasonably unaffected by amnesia? a. explicit b. implicit c. episodic

d. generative

250. Curtis has been testing a new software package for the past two months. He decides to go back to using his

old software. He is now having some problems in recalling how to do certain tasks with the old software and finds himself trying to do things the way he did with the new software he was testing. What is illustrated by this example? a. proactive interference b. memory reconstruction c. retroactive interference d. state-dependent forgetting 251. Which of the following is NOT true of research on the use of cellphones while driving? a. Talking on a cellphone while driving decreases driving performance. b. Using a hands-free device is just as detrimental to driving as using a handheld device. c. Talking on a cellphone while driving likely decreases overall work productivity. d. Drivers who talk on a cellphone are generally aware of how poorly they are driving. 252. Which items on a list are most likely to be recalled according to the serial-position effect? a. items at the beginning and end b. items in the middle c. items at the end

d. items at the middle and end

253. In the DRM paradigm, a list of 15 words related to one central concept are presented (e.g., all words that

are related to “chair”), but the central concept word is not presented. If participants are then given a recognition test, approximately how many will falsely remember having seen the word “chair”? a. 20 percent b. 30 percent c. 50 percent d. 80 percent

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1

Dylan Dylan is using his phone to text his friend some information about a party that they’re supposed to go to that evening. The address is 1812 Lakeshore Drive. Dylan remembers this address easily because it reminds him of his favourite piece of classical music: Tchaikovsky’s 1812 Overture. In fact, he hums his favourite part of that piece as he’s texting the address. Dylan is very engrossed in the task and doesn’t notice most of the noise around him in the coffee shop. He hears his name called, however, and looks up to see a girl he knows walking toward him. He can’t remember her name, even though he knows he should know it. She asks him what he has planned for the evening, and he tells her about the party. She cringes and says that she had been invited to the party as well, but had totally forgotten about it. Just then, Dylan remembers that her name is Mitzy. He remembers because when he met her, he thought she was a little ditzy and thought it was funny that her name rhymed with her demeanour! 254. When Dylan hears his name but not other noises around him, what does this suggest about the role of attention in this particular situation? a. Although attention was filtering out the sounds of the environment, the filtering must be a late-selection process. b. Although he was preoccupied with texting, early selection of relevant stimuli can still occur. c. He didn’t need to be paying attention in order for sensory memory to work. d. If he had been attending to his surroundings, he would not have been able to ignore the other noises in the coffee shop. 255. According to Schacter’s description of the seven sins of memory, what would result from the sin of bias? a. difficulty with remembering names b. claiming to have never loved a former spouse c. losing personal items on a regular basis d. repeated failure to pay bills on time 256. You meet a man at a party and carefully store his name along with an image of his face. The next day, he calls

you on the phone, but you can’t remember his name. Why can’t you remember his name, according to the encoding specificity principle? a. You never paid attention to his name in the first place. b. The name is no longer in your long-term memory. c. The sound of his voice is not the ideal retrieval cue. d. The name is in your sensory store only. 257. What are you experiencing if you try to remember something, but cannot, when you know the information is

in memory? a. the cocktail party effect c. tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon

b. pseudoamnesia phenomenon d. retrieval-delay syndrome

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 258. Craik and Lockhart suggested that there is a relationship between depth of processing and memory retention.

Which of the following might describe this relationship? a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. spurious correlation d. bidirectional correlation 259. Why is the use of hypnosis to recover repressed memories considered to be a problem? a. Hypnosis tends to increase memory distortions so that the memories are inaccessible. b. The memories are so vivid that vulnerable clients are highly distressed when they remember violent or

disturbing incidents. c. Hypnosis tends to make clients more confident about inaccurate memories. d. Hypnosis may recover the target memory but will lead to repression of other memories. 260. Kelly is taking antibiotics for an ear infection, but she finds she often forgets to take the medication when she

is supposed to. What does this example illustrate? a. anterograde amnesia b. failure in prospective memory c. proactive interference d. pseudoforgetting 261. What have researchers found regarding failure of long-term memory? a. The mere passage of time is the sole cause of forgetting. b. The passage of time is not as influential for forgetting as what happens during the retention interval. c. Subjects who sleep during the retention interval forget more than those who remain awake. d. The passage of time is critical for forgetting semantic information, but not for episodic information. 262. Scientific theories and ideas are often revised and improved. Which of the following represents an actual

modern shift in the concept of short-term memory (STM)? a. The capacity of STM is more flexible, depending on the familiarity of stimuli. b. STM has a longer duration than we thought, depending on stimulus complexity. c. The capacity of STM is larger than earlier research suggested. d. The duration of STM is not affected by either stimulus complexity or familiarity. 263. What is the memory process known as clustering? a. recall of information based on the use of related schemata or scripts b. recall of similar or related items in groups c. use of a semantic network to encode new information d. association of any stimuli in order to maintain a greater quantity of information in short-term memory

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 264. What is suggested by results from the research study that investigated the accuracy of flashbulb memories

following the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001? a. Flashbulb memories fade gradually over time, just like other memories. b. Flashbulb memories have special characteristics that make them less vulnerable to forgetting. c. Flashbulb memories are created only when the triggering events elicit strong emotions. d. Flashbulb memories remain extremely accurate, even years after the initial event. 265. What is the term that describes a student’s organized set of expectations about how a professor is supposed

to act? a. script c. schema

b. semantic network d. chunk

266. Which pair of words should be linked most closely, according to the notion of semantic networks? a. feel–feed b. tree–bird c. car–elbow

d. boat–goat

267. Damage to which brain area is most likely to cause deficits in long-term memory? a. hippocampal region b. Broca’s area c. occipital lobe

d. Wernicke’s area

268. What is the term for a multilevel classification system based on common properties among items? a. script b. schema c. mnemonic device

d. conceptual hierarchy

269. Thalia studied for her midterm and when her roommate quizzed her, she gave correct answers to all sorts of

questions. The day of the midterm, however, Thalia was unable to provide answers to questions that she had answered the night before. What can you conclude from this memory failure? a. Thalia stored the information appropriately, but her encoding was faulty. b. Thalia encoded and stored the wrong information. c. Thalia did not actually encode the information. d. Thalia encoded the information and stored it, but she was unable to retrieve it. 270. Outline some strategies that can be used to improve everyday memory.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 271. Compare and evaluate decay theory and interference theory as explanations of forgetting.

272. Describe Baddeley’s model of short-term memory as working memory.

273. Using the Atkinson and Shiffrin model of memory, describe the capacity, durability, and typical form of

information storage in each of the three human memory systems, and identify the processes that transfer information from one system to another.

274. Distinguish between implicit and explicit memory, declarative and procedural memory, and semantic and

episodic memory, and explain how these are interrelated.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. d 11. d 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. b 21. d 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. a 26. b

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 27. d 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. b 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. d 39. c 40. b 41. b 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. a 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. b 51. c 52. a 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 55. d 56. b 57. a 58. d 59. c 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. d 64. d 65. a 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. c 72. d 73. b 74. c 75. d 76. d 77. a 78. a 79. b 80. a 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. b 88. a 89. b 90. d 91. d 92. a 93. d 94. a 95. c 96. c 97. d 98. c 99. c 100. b 101. c 102. c 103. b 104. b 105. d 106. a 107. d 108. d 109. d 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 111. a 112. a 113. c 114. a 115. d 116. b 117. a 118. c 119. d 120. d 121. c 122. c 123. b 124. b 125. b 126. b 127. c 128. c 129. a 130. b 131. a 132. d 133. d 134. b 135. c 136. d 137. a

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 138. a 139. d 140. b 141. d 142. c 143. d 144. b 145. a 146. a 147. c 148. c 149. d 150. a 151. d 152. a 153. d 154. a 155. d 156. b 157. d 158. c 159. a 160. c 161. b 162. c 163. d 164. d 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 166. b 167. d 168. b 169. d 170. b 171. a 172. a 173. c 174. d 175. c 176. d 177. c 178. b 179. d 180. c 181. c 182. c 183. d 184. c 185. b 186. a 187. c 188. d 189. c 190. b 191. a 192. a 193. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 194. c 195. d 196. d 197. b 198. a 199. b 200. d 201. b 202. d 203. d 204. b 205. a 206. b 207. c 208. d 209. c 210. d 211. c 212. d 213. d 214. c 215. c 216. a 217. b 218. a 219. a 220. b 221. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 222. d 223. a 224. b 225. c 226. a 227. d 228. d 229. b 230. a 231. b 232. c 233. a 234. b 235. c 236. b 237. b 238. d 239. b 240. c 241. a 242. a 243. d 244. c 245. a 246. a 247. b 248. a

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 249. b 250. c 251. d 252. a 253. d 254. a 255. b 256. c 257. c 258. a 259. c 260. b 261. b 262. a 263. b 264. a 265. c 266. b 267. a 268. d 269. d 270. Good answers to this question will cover a number of the strategies outlined in the Personal Application, including

adequate rehearsal, practice tests, distributed practice, deep processing of information, organization, and the use of verbal or visual mnemonics. Students who have a fuller grasp of the key concepts will be able to relate different mnemonics to the memories of specific types of information (such as method of loci, acrostics, or the link method).

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 271. Decay theory maintains that memory traces gradually fade over time. If decay theory is correct, then the mere

passage of time should be the principal cause of forgetting; furthermore, memories may be permanently lost from long-term memory. Interference theory proposes that people forget due to competition from other information. If this is the case, then forgetting should depend on what happens during the retention interval rather than simply the length of the retention interval. Since interference is presumed to interrupt retrieval rather than storage, this view implies that information loss from long-term memory is only temporary. Despite many attempts, researchers have not been able to demonstrate decay from long-term memory. On the other hand, many studies have shown that forgetting does depend on the amount, type, and complexity of material subjects are exposed to during the retention interval, consistent with interference theory. 272. Baddeley characterizes short-term memory as working memory, consisting of four components: (1) the rehearsal

loop, analogous to the whole of short-term memory in the Atkinson and Shiffrin model; (2) a visuospatial sketchpad that allows one to hold and manipulate visual images; (3) a central executive system, which holds the limited amount of information one can use in reasoning or decision making at any given time; and (4) an episodic buffer, which allows the various components of working memory to integrate information. 273. Sensory memory preserves information in its original sensory form for a brief time, usually just a fraction of a

second. It can hold many for this brief time. If a stimulus is perceived, attended to, and processed by this system, it is transferred to short-term memory for further processing. Short-term memory holds five to nine “chunks” of unrehearsed information for about 20 to 30 seconds, though recent estimates suggest that the capacity is closer to three to five items. Since a stimulus is typically given a verbal label at the time it is perceived, information is often stored acoustically (or phonemically) in short-term memory. Information can be maintained indefinitely in short-term memory by rehearsal; rehearsal also increases the likelihood of the transfer of information to long-term memory. Long-term memory has a virtually unlimited capacity to hold information over an indefinite period of time. To a large extent, the form of information storage depends on the type of processing done when the information is initially in short-term memory. Simple recitation or repetition of the information tends to promote acoustic storage in long-term memory; in contrast, elaboration tends to promote semantic storage.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol 1 274. Declarative and procedural memory are hypothesized divisions of long-term memory. Declarative memory contains

factual information; procedural memory contains memory of actions, skills, and operations. Semantic and episodic memory are hypothesized divisions of declarative memory. Semantic memory contains general facts that are not temporally tagged; episodic memory contains personal facts that are tagged with information about when these personal experiences occurred. Implicit and explicit memory are not distinct memory systems, but rather behavioural phenomena. Implicit memory is unconscious, must be accessed indirectly, and can best be assessed with relearning measures of retention. Explicit memory is conscious, can be accessed directly, and can best be assessed with recall or recognition measures of retention. Some theorists believe that implicit memory is handled by the procedural memory system and that explicit memory is handled by the declarative memory system.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by schemas, the misinformation effect, source monitoring, and the repressed memory controversy? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 2. Which of the following memories is most likely to be contained in an individual’s semantic memory? a. his next-door neighbour’s last name is Jackson b. how to parallel park a car c. his sixth birthday party was at a circus d. when he was 10 years old, he broke his neighbour’s bedroom window with a baseball 3. If you know that someone has a flashbulb memory of an event, which of the following will be true of that memory? a. It will be vivid. b. It will be delusional. c. It will lack detail. d. It will be very accurate. 4. What is remembered using prospective memory? a. previously learned information b. actions that were performed in the past c. to perform actions in the future d. chronological, or temporally dated, recollections of personal experiences 5. According to decay theory, why does forgetting occur? a. because of the passage of time b. because of the deterioration of the nervous system with increasing age c. because of competition from other memories d. because of ineffective encoding of information 6. Which component of working memory are you using when you recite a list of words over and over again? a. phonological loop b. executive control system c. episodic buffer d. visuospatial sketchpad 7. Which theory of forgetting would best explain why Emma was unable to remember her Grade 2 teacher’s name yesterday, but can remember it today? a. interference b. decay c. motivated forgetting d. retrieval failure

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 8. Which statements best represents the ideas of Elizabeth Loftus on memory? a. Repressed memories need to be recovered to aid in psychological healing. b. People rarely reconstruct memories, although it can happen. c. Memory is like a tape-recorder. d. Memory is malleable. 9. Which approach to encoding involves deciding how or whether information is personally relevant? a. semantic encoding b. dual-code encoding c. deep processing encoding d. self-referent encoding 10. What type of memory are you using when you try to remember the events of this past year? a. retrospective b. retrograde c. anterograde d. prospective 11. Intervening material is most likely to cause an increase in forgetting when the intervening material is very similar to the information that is to be remembered. What is this called? a. motivated forgetting b. retrieval failure c. ineffective encoding d. interference 12. What type of amnesia involves the loss of memories for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia? a. functional amnesia b. retrograde amnesia c. proactive amnesia d. anterograde amnesia 13. When studying for her psychology exam, Aimee would read each word from the list of key terms at the end of the chapter, read the definition of the term, and then think of an example that illustrated each term. Which process was Aimee using to try to enhance her memory of the terms? a. retrieval b. generalization c. imagery d. elaboration 14. Which area of the brain is associated with the consolidation of long-term memories? a. cerebral cortex b. medulla c. hypothalamus d. hippocampal region 15. A 45-year-old woman suddenly becomes aware of long-forgotten memories of being abused by her father when she was six years old. Her father denies the allegations. This situation can be described as a typical example associated with which controversy? a. false allegation controversy b. memory retrieval controversy c. memory reconstruction controversy d. recovered memory controversy 16. What are you engaging in if you are trying to remember whether you told your roommate that you would not be home for dinner tomorrow, or you just thought about telling her? a. source monitoring b. imagination inflation c. reconstruction d. memory monitoring

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 17. What do we call the tendency to mould our interpretation of the past to fit how events actually turned out? a. reconstruction bias b. overconfidence bias c. confirmation bias d. hindsight bias 18. Joshua has been trying unsuccessfully for days to remember the name of a song that was popular when he was in Grade 10. The “oldies” radio station just played the song, and after hearing only the first few seconds, the name of the song “popped into his head.” What was provided by the opening seconds of the song? a. retroactive cues b. proactive cues c. context cues d. retrieval cues 19. Which of the following best describes the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon? a. partial retrieval b. partial storage c. complete storage failure d. complete retrieval failure 20. Ray was given a long list of food words to memorize, and when he was asked to recall those words he started listing them in a different order than they had originally been listed. He first listed all the words that were names of fruits, then the names of all the dairy products, and so on. What do we call this tendency to group items into logical patterns? a. clustering b. flashbulb memory c. source monitoring d. spreading activation 21. Which memory system contains your memories of general knowledge and facts not tied to or associated with memories of when you first learned them? a. semantic memory b. procedural memory c. nondeclarative memory d. episodic memory 22. What do we call the unusually vivid and detailed recollections of momentous events? a. flashbulb memories b. tip-of-the-tongue memories c. episodic memories d. long-term memories 23. Paige says the birthday party she just attended was a lot of fun: “We played games, had cake and ice cream, and got goodie bags.” In reality, the ice cream was served with a brownie and not birthday cake. What is likely responsible for Paige’s inaccurate memory? a. her birthday party schema b. repression c. the misinformation effect d. the source-monitoring error 24. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by the observation that an individual’s memory of a specific event is influenced by a variety of factors such as how the event was encoded, how the information was organized in storage, and intervening events between the original event and the retrieval of the memory? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 25. Shelly just looked up a phone number for the local pizza place. How long will the number be available in her short-term memory if she doesn’t rehearse the phone number? a. less than 1 second b. approximately 4 seconds c. approximately 20 seconds d. at least 1 minute 26. What are sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory the three components of? a. elaboration b. storage c. encoding d. retrieval 27. What does research say about driving while talking on a cellphone? a. There is no impact on driving performance. b. Driving performance is undermined and is even more dangerous than texting and driving. c. Driving performance is undermined but has no impact on memory. d. Driving performance is undermined, even when hands-free phones are used. 28. Which two types of memories are both considered to be divisions of declarative memory? a. prospective and procedural b. semantic and procedural c. prospective and episodic d. semantic and episodic 29. When someone asks you about your mother’s middle name, you realize that you know it but you don’t know how or why you know it. Which type of memory is your mother’s middle name? a. implicit memory b. episodic memory c. short-term memory d. semantic memory 30. If you are planning to spend six hours studying for your final exam in psychology, which of the following would be the best strategy? a. Have one uninterrupted six-hour study session the day before the exam. b. Have two three-hour study sessions with one session the day before the exam and the other right before the exam. c. Have three two-hour study sessions with one session per day starting three days before the exam. d. Have three two-hour study sessions all on the day before the exam. 31. Following a serious car accident in which both Hank and Ron suffer head injuries, they both have amnesia. Hank cannot remember events that occurred before the accident, while Ron cannot remember events that occurred after the accident. Which types of amnesia are they experiencing? a. Hank’s amnesia is retroactive while Ron’s is proactive. b. Hank has retrograde amnesia while Ron has anterograde amnesia. c. Hank’s amnesia is proactive while Ron’s is retroactive. d. Hank has anterograde amnesia while Ron has retrograde amnesia. 32. What is long-term memory? a. permanent changes in behaviour as a consequence of experience b. a limited-capacity store that can maintain unrehearsed information for up to about 20 seconds c. an unlimited capacity store that can hold information over lengthy periods of time d. unusually vivid and detailed recollections of momentous events Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 33. What is sensory memory? a. a limited-capacity store that can maintain unrehearsed information for up to about 20 seconds b. the same thing as working memory c. a brief type of storage that preserves information in its original form for a fraction of a second d. an unlimited capacity store that can hold information over lengthy periods of time 34. Your mother shares with you her vivid recollection of where she was when she learned about the 9/11 terrorist attacks on the World Trade Center in NYC. What kind of memory is she experiencing? a. a flashbulb memory b. a childhood memory c. a prospective memory d. an anterograde memory 35. What does the semantic level of processing focus attention on? a. the spelling of words b. the meaning of words c. the sounds of spoken words d. the visual structure of written words 36. If you attempt to improve your memory by focusing on attention, levels of processing, elaboration, and visual imagery, you are focusing on which memory process? a. storage b. retrieval c. encoding d. memorization 37. On your midterm exam, if you are given a list of brain regions and asked to write those regions into the correct places on a diagram of the brain, what sort of measure of retention is being used? a. recognition b. relearning c. rote d. recall 38. We may forget information because of experiences we have either before or after learning the information. Which of the following is consistent with this statement? a. interference theory b. retrieval failure c. ineffective encoding d. decay theory 39. With which method of measuring forgetting are savings scores associated? a. relearning b. retention c. recall d. recognition 40. According to George Miller, the magic number for the capacity of short term memory is seven, plus or minus two bits of information. What does more recent research by Cowan (2010) suggest about the capacity of shortterm memory? a. The capacity of short-term memory is higher – up to eleven bits of information. b. The capacity is unlimited. c. The capacity is seven plus or minus two, but only in Caucasian subjects. d. The capacity of short-term memory is only four plus or minus one.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 41. Joseph can’t recall his old phone number now that he has learned his new phone number. What leads to this type of forgetting? a. proactive interference b. negative interference c. retroactive interference d. positive interference 42. Where in the adult nervous system are new neurons generally formed or created? a. the hypothalamus b. the thalamus c. the amygdala d. the hippocampus 43. Which memory system contains your memory of your favourite birthday party? a. episodic memory b. nondeclarative memory c. procedural memory d. semantic memory 44. Which phenomenon provides evidence in support of late-selection models of selective attention? a. habituation to ambient noise in the environment b. retrograde amnesia c. slower reaction time among people who drive while using cell phones d. the cocktail party effect 45. When Kaatja visited her old elementary school for her niece’s band concert, she was overwhelmed with longforgotten memories of her friends, teachers, and events from her childhood. What type of cues did returning to her former school provide Kaatja? a. delayed cues b. tip-of-the-tongue cues c. context cues d. structural cues 46. On your way to your psychology class, you pass a newsstand where a tabloid headline reads: “Brazen Celebrity Seduces Pop Star.” When you get to class, your professor is doing a demonstration about memory and asks you to complete a series of word stems. Although most of your class completes the stem “br____” with “bread” or “broke,” you complete it as “brazen.” You don’t actually recall reading that word, and you’re not sure why it popped into your mind. What does this example illustrate? a. implicit memory b. declarative memory c. explicit memory d. procedural memory 47. If you remember the names of the Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, Superior) by recalling the word “HOMES” as a cue, what are you using? a. link method b. acronym method c. method of loci d. acrostic method 48. Your text described the case of H.M., who, following brain surgery, developed a severe case of anterograde amnesia. Which memory task could he NOT do after the surgery? a. use short-term memory to carry on a complex conversation b. consolidate new long-term memories c. look up a phone number and rehearse it until he dialled the number d. recite a poem that he had learned in childhood

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 49. According to Ebbinghaus’s research, what is the pattern in which memory for meaningless information is forgotten? a. very gradually over several days b. each item is forgotten immediately c. very gradually for several hours and then at a very rapid rate d. very rapidly in the first few hours after learning 50. At Debbie’s 20th high school reunion, her old friends talked about the time in Grade 11 when Debbie tripped in the cafeteria and spilled her lunch tray full of spaghetti all over the captain of the football team. Debbie enjoyed hearing the story but claims to have no memory of the event. According to Sigmund Freud, what causes her lack of memory for the event? a. interference b. ineffective encoding c. repression d. decay 51. In Wilder Penfield’s brain-mapping studies, stimulation to which area of the brain caused patients to provide vivid descriptions of events? a. amygdala b. occipital lobes c. temporal lobes d. hypothalamus 52. Mary is studying in the library and she is very focused on reading over her class notes. She doesn’t even notice the various conversations going on around her. As a result, she is becoming better prepared for the exam that is scheduled for tomorrow. Which of the following processes is best illustrated by this example? a. attention b. retrieval c. storage d. conditioning 53. Paul often forgets to show up for appointments, and to pay bills on time. His friends call him absentminded, but he has an excellent memory for names, facts, and procedures. Which type of memory does Paul have problems with? a. procedural memory b. implicit memory c. declarative memory d. prospective memory 54. What method measures retention by requiring an individual to memorize information a second time to determine how much time or effort is saved? a. recitation b. relearning c. recall d. recognition 55. According to research by Loftus on eyewitness testimony, which of the following is true of the recall of an accident or crime scene? a. It is so vivid that it is subject to very little memory error. b. It can be influenced by the questions eyewitnesses are asked. c. It can be significantly improved using hypnosis. d. It is distorted by emotion and is completely inaccurate.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 56. Brianne is trying to remember the name of the regular babysitter she had when she was younger. When her dad reminds her that he called the sitter Sarge because she strictly enforced the rules, Brianne correctly remembers her name as Marge. In this example, what did “Sarge” serve as? a. a hint b. a phonemic cue c. a retrieval cue d. a semantic cue 57. At the beginning of January every year, people typically write or say the previous year when they are asked to indicate the current date. What explains this type of error? a. negative interference b. proactive interference c. positive interference d. retroactive interference 58. Which of the following are the two basic types of amnesia discussed in your text? a. functional and structural b. retrograde and anterograde c. proactive and reactive d. fluid and crystallized 59. Which of the following is suggested about a memory trace, based on evidence about long-term potentiation (LTP)? a. It depends on biochemical changes at specific synapses. b. It develops from altering hormonal levels in the brain. c. It consists of specific neural circuits. d. It involves anatomical changes in the structure of the brain. 60. Which of the following is an example of the memory process of storage? a. feeling happy when you think about a party you recently attended b. remembering to feed the dog c. rehearsing lines from a play d. maintaining the knowledge of your best friend’s phone number for years 61. You have just been given a list of vocabulary words to study briefly before being tested on your memory of the words. As you read the list, what should you do to have the deepest processing and the best test score? a. Use each word in a sentence. b. Think of a word that rhymes with each word. c. Count how many letters are in each word. d. Concentrate on the first letter of each word. 62. According to the consolidation view, where are long-term memories stored after they are consolidated in the hippocampal region? a. cerebellum b. thalamus c. hypothalamus d. cerebral cortex 63. Children often have difficulty remembering the letters in the middle of the alphabet. What does this reflect? a. overlearning of the first letters in the alphabet b. the serial-position effect c. distributed practice d. the use of mnemonic devices Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 64. If you focus your attention on the sounds of the words that you are trying to remember, what type of encoding are you using? a. semantic encoding b. structural encoding c. verbal encoding d. phonemic encoding 65. If you don’t write down a list of all the things you need at the store, how many individual items are you likely to be able to remember? a. no more than 2 b. 4 c. 10 d. up to 15 66. Aras took three years of French in high school before switching to studying German in college. He has noticed that he has forgotten a lot of his French vocabulary. What is most likely responsible for his loss of French? a. retroactive interference b. proactive interference c. motivated forgetting d. decay 67. When Allen was trying to remember all of the relatives that he wanted to invite to his wedding, he organized all the names as if they were in a family tree. Which concept is illustrated by this example? a. semantic network b. conceptual hierarchy c. clustering d. schemas 68. If you incorrectly recall your psychology professor saying, “Psychology is a poor choice for a university major,” when in reality it was your philosophy professor who made the statement, what type of error did you make? a. source-monitoring error b. misinformation error c. reality-monitoring error d. retention error 69. According to Daniel Schacter, what is the significance of the “memory sins” that he has described? a. They are common among individuals who have poor memories, and rare among individuals with good memories. b. They provide evidence that memory is predominantly flawed and should not be trusted. c. They are indicators of disease or disorder and should be treated as medical symptoms. d. They are inconvenient by-products of a memory system that normally functions very efficiently. 70. Which theory suggests that memory is enhanced by forming both semantic and visual codes? a. enhanced imagery theory b. encoding-storage theory c. information-processing theory d. dual-coding theory 71. If, on a midterm exam, you were asked to list all the lobes of the brain, what kind of measure of retention is that question? a. relearning b. recall c. recitation d. recognition 72. While at a yard sale, you and your roommate find a great old couch. Which component of working memory are you using as you try to determine whether the couch will fit in your dorm room if you rearrange the beds, dressers, and desks? a. semantic buffer b. executive control system c. phonological rehearsal loop d. visuospatial sketchpad Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 73. Recent research suggests that the process of neurogenesis may contribute to neural pathways that underlie memory. For example, new brain cells have been found to be forming constantly in which part of the hippocampus? a. the dorsal gyrus b. the amygdala c. the ventral sulcus d. the dentate gyrus 74. Which memory system contains memories for factual information such as names, faces, events, definitions, and concepts? a. declarative memory b. procedural memory c. prospective memory d. retrospective memory 75. Which term refers to extensive memory loss caused by a head injury? a. functional amnesia b. anterograde amnesia c. decay d. organic amnesia 76. What does research say about multitasking? a. People who multitask are effective at attending to more than one stimulus simultaneously. b. People under 30 can multitask with no deterioration in performance. c. Faster reaction times are observed among people who drive while using cellphones. d. People who multitask are actually switching their attention back and forth as opposed to attending to all of the tasks simultaneously. 77. While Penny was riding the bus, she was reading her text messages, and also eavesdropping on the conversation behind her. She also paid attention to where she was on the route so that she didn’t miss her stop. Which component of working memory allows Penny to monitor all these events? a. visuospatial sketchpad b. executive control system c. phonological loop d. episodic buffer 78. What is the specific term for the memory process that allows you to recite a poem that you have previously memorized? a. retrieval b. recognition c. storage d. encoding 79. What effect does the existence of flashbulb memories have on our understanding of memory storage systems? a. It is evidence that long-term storage may be permanent. b. The memories have less impact on our understanding than was originally thought. c. It is evidence that long-term storage has a more limited duration than we once thought. d. It is evidence that short-term storage may be temporary but is vivid. 80. What is a semantic network? a. patterns of activation in highly interconnected computational networks b. a group of familiar stimuli stored as a single unit c. an organized cluster of knowledge about a particular object or event d. nodes representing concepts, joined together by pathways that link related concepts

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 81. Which memory system contains your memory of how to do something, such as how to shoot a free throw in basketball? a. declarative memory b. episodic memory c. semantic memory d. procedural memory 82. Regarding estimates of memory accuracy, which statement best describes most people? a. People underestimate the accuracy of their memory. b. People overestimate the accuracy of their memory. c. People estimate the accuracy of their memory very inaccurately by either overestimating or underestimating their accuracy. d. People estimate the accuracy of their memory fairly accurately. 83. Poor memory for information often occurs when the information receives only a shallow level of processing. In this case, what leads to memory failure? a. storage failure b. retrieval failure c. interference d. ineffective encoding 84. If you are in a city that you haven’t visited in years, and you easily find your way to the mall “on a hunch,” what are you most likely relying on? a. implicit memory b. explicit memory c. working memory d. declarative memory 85. When a flashlight is waved quickly through the air in a circular pattern, you perceive a circle of light and not just a “single point” of light. Which type of memory functioning is this observation consistent with? a. short-term memory b. sensory memory c. visual memory d. long-term memory 86. Which of the following neurological processes may contribute to the sculpting of neural circuits that underlie memory? a. long-term potentiation b. synaptic pruning c. cell assembly d. neurogenesis 87. Which pair of terms does NOT belong together? a. retrieval; short-term memory b. encoding; attention c. schema; long-term memory d. rehearsal; short-term memory 88. Which of the following is an example of self-referent encoding? a. rehearsing a list of words out loud, over and over again b. thinking of examples of the items you are trying to remember c. linking new information to things that relate to your own life d. generating a visual image of a concept to provide another cue for recall 89. According to the concept of semantic networks, which political science class topics would facilitate your remembering John A. Macdonald’s name? a. conservatives b. prime ministers c. parliament d. world leaders Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 90. What is it that makes flashbulb memories unique or special? a. the subjective emotional intensity experienced by the person who has them b. the fact that they prove the permanent nature of long-term memories c. the historical significance of the events remembered d. the universality of the memories 91. What do we call the strategies designed to enhance memory through the use of either verbal cues or visual imagery to enrich encoding? a. acronyms b. serial-position identifiers c. mnemonic devices d. methods of loci 92. Psychologists who accept the accuracy of recovered memories of abuse are most likely to attribute the recent upsurge in recovered memories to which factor? a. increased sensitivity to an issue that people used to be reluctant to discuss b. use of more effective techniques that allow for the recovery of childhood memories c. an increase in the level of childhood abuse occurring in society d. inadvertently created memories after a therapist makes suggestions of childhood abuse 93. Melanie gives her students many quizzes and often retests the same material over again to improve her students’ performance. Which of the following does Melanie use? a. massed practice b. enriched encoding c. mnemonics d. testing effect 94. Which memory process generally requires attention? a. retrieval b. decay c. encoding d. storage 95. Your textbook suggests that it is beneficial for students to outline reading assignments. What does this method encourage students to do? a. overlearn the material b. develop a mnemonic device c. organize material hierarchically d. make the material personally meaningful 96. The phrase “My very educated mother just served us noodles” can be used to recall the order of the planets in the solar system (Mercury, Venus, Earth ...). What is the name of this method? a. method of loci b. narrative method c. acrostic method d. acronym method 97. Steven experienced a serious head injury during a hockey game. When he regained consciousness, he found that he couldn’t remember going to the rink that day. Upon further questioning, it was revealed that he could not recall anything in the two years leading up to the injury. What sort of amnesia did Steven experience? a. complete amnesia b. retrograde amnesia c. partial amnesia d. anterograde amnesia

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 98. Which of the following is reflected in Sigmund Freud’s concept of repression? a. interference b. decay c. ineffective encoding d. retrieval failure 99. Nick was a witness to a robbery in a convenience store where the thief jumped over the counter, grabbed a handful of money, and left very quickly. When a police officer interviewed Nick and the cashier, Nick told the police officer that he did not see a weapon of any kind. The cashier said that she saw a gun. Later, when Nick was telling his friends about the robbery, he recalled seeing a gun. According to Loftus, what changed Nick’s memory for the event? a. misinformation effect b. post-context effect c. reconstruction effect d. source-monitoring effect 100. Which of the following is least likely to impair a driver’s performance? a. texting while driving b. receiving a hands-free phone call c. being distracted by children arguing in the car d. listening to some smooth jazz while driving on a sunny day 101. Before going to the grocery store, you think about all the things you need to buy in terms of the meals you will be creating for the next couple of days. For example, instead of trying to remember “milk, bread, eggs, vanilla” you just think of “French toast.” What do we call this method of maintaining information in short-term memory? a. phonological loop b. chunking c. categorization d. grouping 102. According to levels of processing theory, what type of processing leads to longer-lasting memory codes? a. shallower processing b. broader processing c. deeper processing d. narrower processing 103. The value of a retrieval cue depends on how well it corresponds to the memory code. What principle does this statement refer to? a. the principle of forgetting b. retrieval cue process c. the reconstructive memory principle d. the encoding specificity principle 104. There have been numerous case studies of recovered memories for which there is clear evidence that the recovered memory is false. Which perspective is weakened by such evidence? a. psychodynamic repression b. retroactive interference c. encoding specificity principle d. memory as reconstruction 105. What is short-term memory good for? a. maintaining rehearsed information for approximately five minutes b. preserving information in its original sensory form for a brief time, usually only a fraction of a second c. preserving episodic information long enough for cortical encoding d. maintaining unrehearsed information for up to about 20 seconds

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 106. What phrase refers to short-term memory? a. episodic memory b. temporary memory c. sensory memory d. working memory 107. Which memory phenomenon provides evidence to suggest that recovered memories may be false? a. proactive interference b. state-dependent learning c. misinformation effect d. pseudoforgetting 108. What is most likely to enhance recall after studying for exams? a. massed practice b. interference c. group practice d. distributed practice 109. Which of the following is most likely to be encoded as a result of effortful processing? a. the best time to ask your parents for money b. taste-aversion learning c. your impressions of your friends’ moods d. information needed to pass your midterm exam 110. Why do most students find recognition tests easier than recall tests? a. Recall tests provide retrieval cues. b. Recall tests provide relearning cues. c. Recognition tests provide retrieval cues. d. Recognition tests provide relearning cues. 111. As Camilla tries to play a piece of music from memory, she forgets a lot of notes and in some cases lapses into playing another song that she knows better. She finds this frustrating because she has remembered this piece perfectly in the past. In this example, what seems to be the cause of forgetting? a. storage failure b. interference c. ineffective encoding d. decay 112. Mandy did very well on her midterm but there was one question that really frustrated her. She could not remember the correct answer during the exam and she left it blank. Once she got home, the answer popped into her mind as soon as she saw her notebook and textbook sitting on the kitchen table. According to Tulving’s view of memory retrieval, what is the state of Mandy’s memory for the answer to that one question? a. The information was in working memory, but not in long-term memory. b. The information was available but not accessible during the exam. c. The information was accessible but not available during the exam. d. The information was in long-term memory, but not in working memory. 113. Which stage of memory is best characterized as a reconstruction? a. working memory b. short-term memory c. sensory memory d. long-term memory 114. Which memory system requires little effort or attention to recall a memory and, in it, memories do not decline much over long retention intervals? a. procedural memory b. episodic memory c. semantic memory d. declarative memory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 115. What is NOT one of the benefits of developing and using a mnemonic device? a. organizing the information b. increasing the capacity of your sensory memory c. making the information more meaningful d. engaging in a deeper level of processing 116. Which part of the brain plays an especially central role in memory, including the initial consolidation of memories and neurogenesis? a. Broca’s area b. the hypothalamus c. the thalamus d. the hippocampus 117. Endel Tulving had a well-known patient, K.C., who could not remember anything that happened in his life? Which statement does NOT accurately describe K.C.? a. K.C. attended University of Toronto after his 1981 motorcycle accident injury. b. K.C.’s episodic memory was impaired. c. K.C. frequently outperformed “normal” undergraduates while completing a university degree subsequent to his brain injury. d. K.C. had no problem remembering when to eat. 118. Suzi remembers items on a shopping list by imagining the items placed at certain locations along the route she normally drives through her neighbourhood. What method is she using? a. the method of loci b. narrative story method c. the link method d. acronym method 119. Which memory system holds information in storage just long enough to give you time to recognize the stimulus? a. working memory b. long-term memory c. short-term memory d. sensory memory 120. Molly was trying to describe someone that she had just met, who happened to be a librarian. She described this person as quiet and wearing glasses, even though she was chatty and did not wear glasses. What has interfered with Molly’s memory of her new acquaintance? a. a semantic network b. a schema c. a retrieval cue d. an episodic buffer 121. What do we call the hypothetical process during which information is converted into durable long-term memory codes? a. storage b. retention c. consolidation d. expansion 122. Which method of retention assessment is a history teacher using when he asks his students to state from memory the categories defined in the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms? a. recitation b. recall c. recognition d. relearning

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 123. In which memory store is rehearsal most beneficial for maintaining information? a. intermediate-term memory b. short-term memory c. long-term memory d. sensory memory 124. While Penny was riding the bus, she was reading her text messages, and also eavesdropping on the conversation behind her. She also paid attention to where she was on the route so that she didn’t miss her stop. If Penny is really good at this sort of juggling of information compared to other people, which statement best describes Penny? a. Penny has a high working memory capacity. b. Penny’s episodic memory is enhanced. c. Penny is good at chunking. d. Penny can utilize flashbulb memory. 125. People often find that they can remember events more easily when in the same physical place as they were when they first experienced the event. What does this illustrate? a. the influence of imagery on retrieval b. the influence of context on encoding c. the influence of context on retrieval d. the influence of imagery on encoding 126. What is the shallowest level of verbal information processing? a. verbal encoding b. semantic encoding c. structural encoding d. phonemic encoding 127. While driving with her two young children, Veronique’s car broke down. She called her husband on her cell phone and he told her the phone number of a towing company to call. If the children’s behaviour prevents her from repeating the phone number to herself, how long will she have to dial the number before she forgets it? a. 2 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 45 seconds d. 1 minute 128. What type of amnesia involves the loss of memories for events that occurred after the onset of amnesia? a. functional amnesia b. retrograde amnesia c. proactive amnesia d. anterograde amnesia 129. What are the neural circuitry models of memory based on? a. connections between encoding, storage, and retrieval b. connections between sensory, short-term, and long-term memory c. how computer systems process information d. how neural networks process information 130. Which type of memory allows you to briefly retain information about something that ended a quarter of a second ago? a. working memory b. sensory memory c. instantaneous memory d. short-term memory

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 131. Their mom asked Emil and Niklas to help her remember to buy apples. While Emil focused his attention on how apples were his favourite fruit, Niklas thought of seeing a bag of big red apples in the shopping cart. Which methods were the two boys using? a. phonemic encoding and visual imagery b. elaboration and structural encoding c. elaboration and visual imagery d. phonemic encoding and structural encoding 132. Which of the following does NOT describe one of the three main processes involved in memory? a. evaluating information in memory b. putting information into memory c. maintaining information in memory d. pulling information out of memory 133. Multiple-choice exams such as this one primarily measure retention by using which method? a. recall b. recitation c. relearning d. recognition 134. Which component of working memory serves as the interface between working and long-term memory? a. semantic buffer b. visuospatial sketchpad c. executive control system d. episodic buffer 135. Which process explains why, when we think of one word, such as “fruit,” it triggers our thinking of other words, such as “apples and oranges”? a. source monitoring b. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon c. parallel distributed processing d. spreading activation within a semantic network 136. Often, individuals are not able to answer a straightforward question (such as “Who was prime minister after Brian Mulroney?”) but they can remember the answer (Kim Campbell) when given a hint (such as “Her last name is the same as a brand of soup”). What is the hint in this example? a. a tip-of-the-tongue cue b. a semantic cue c. a rehearsal cue d. a retrieval cue 137. Which mnemonic device involves forming a mental image of the items to be remembered in a way that strings them together? a. an acrostic b. an acronym c. the method of loci d. the link method 138. Which model of memory is most consistent with the finding that there is a localized neural circuit in a rabbit’s brain that corresponds with the rabbit’s memory of a conditioned eye blink response? a. neural circuitry b. information processing c. semantic network d. consolidation 139. What is another term for the formation of new neurons? a. long-term potentiation b. synaptic pruning c. cell assembly d. neurogenesis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 140. As you are reading an exam question, you cannot think of the correct term and you say to yourself, “I can’t believe I forgot this.” In reality, you never knew the answer in the first place. What does this example illustrate? a. pseudoforgetting b. decay c. retrieval failure d. interference 141. Which of the following would be contained in an individual’s episodic memory? a. the year that the first psychology laboratory was founded b. how to parallel park a car c. her first day of school was rainy and cold d. her next-door neighbour’s last name is Jackson 142. When do people tend to more correctly estimate the accuracy of their memory of an event? a. when they were eyewitnesses to the event b. when they ignore the hindsight bias c. when they consider reasons that their memory may not be accurate d. when they consider reasons that their memory may be accurate

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. c 26. b

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 27. d 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. d 41. c 42. d 43. a 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. b 49. d 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 55. b 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. c 60. d 61. a 62. d 63. b 64. d 65. b 66. a 67. b 68. a 69. d 70. d 71. b 72. d 73. d 74. a 75. d 76. d 77. b 78. a 79. c 80. d 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 83. d 84. a 85. b 86. d 87. a 88. c 89. b 90. a 91. c 92. a 93. d 94. c 95. c 96. c 97. b 98. d 99. a 100. d 101. b 102. c 103. d 104. a 105. d 106. d 107. c 108. d 109. d 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 111. b 112. b 113. d 114. a 115. b 116. d 117. d 118. a 119. d 120. b 121. c 122. b 123. b 124. a 125. c 126. c 127. b 128. d 129. d 130. b 131. c 132. a 133. d 134. d 135. d 136. d 137. d

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_2 138. a 139. d 140. a 141. c 142. c

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which memory store holds material for the shortest period of time? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. episodic memory d. semantic memory 2. Which of the following would MOST likely lead to the encoding of the word FRIEND? a. Is the word written in capital letters? b. What colour is the word printed in? c. Does the word rhyme with cat? d. Would the word fit in the sentence “She saw a _____ in the grocery store”? 3. Which type of memory typically holds information for only 20 or 30 seconds if the material is not repeated or rehearsed? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. semantic memory d. episodic memory 4. What is it called when a person deliberately tries to forget something? a. motivated forgetting b. repression c. proactive interference d. source misattribution 5. Which of the following is an example of a recognition task? a. a multiple choice question b. a short answer question c. an essay question d. a fill-in-the-blank question 6. Dr. Davita is studying how memories are formed. She knows that initially memories are coded in the a. hippocampus b. thalamus c. prefrontal cortex d. corpus callosum 7. Alistair is an expert skier. His knowledge of how to ski is stored as part of which of the following? a. sensory memory b. explicit memory c. semantic memory d. implicit memory 8. Which of the following is an unusually vivid recollection of a momentous event? a. a flashbulb memory b. an iconic memory c. an implicit memory d. a chunk of memory 9. Jaime was in a minor traffic accident. At first he recalls that the vehicles were both going the speed limit. Another passenger, who is also his roommate, has been talking nonstop about the crash since it happened, emphasizing the smash of the collision, and the explosion of glass everywhere. Now Jaime believes the cars must have been speeding. What does this exemplify? a. the effect of imagination b. the misinformation effect c. proactive interference d. retroactive interference

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 10. What is the average capacity of short-term memory? a. about 3 chunks b. about 7 chunks c. about 10 chunks d. about 13 chunks 11. A researcher measures how long it takes participants to learn a list of 20 words. One month later, the researcher times the same participants learning the same 20 words again. Which of the following topics is the researcher MOST likely interested in? a. savings b. levels of processing c. chunking d. encoding specificity 12. People are better able to recall which of the following types of events? a. emotional b. neutral c. mundane d. predictable 13. Jess is remembering a fun party she went to last week. This exemplifies which of the following? a. explicit memory b. implicit memory c. semantic memory d. procedural memory 14. Which of the following is a topic of interest for a researcher using the Deese-Roediger-McDermott paradigm? a. savings b. chunking c. decay d. memory illusions 15. Micha wants to be sure to remember to buy five important items at the grocery store. What can Micha do to BEST achieve this? a. rehearse with elaboration b. repeat the words over and over c. read the words through twice d. encode the words implicitly 16. How long will a memory last in working memory if it isn’t repeated or rehearsed? a. less than 1 second b. about 5 to 10 seconds c. about 20 to 30 seconds d. about 1 minute 17. Grace has to remember 12 items from the grocery store. What is a method that Grace can use to increase her working memory capacity so she can hold all 12 items while she goes through the store? a. chunking b. bottom-up processing c. sensory encoding d. memory span 18. Which type of memory has an unlimited capacity and can hold information for lengthy periods of time? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. declarative memory d. short-term memory 19. Having trouble learning something new because of existing knowledge is an example of which of the following? a. proactive interference b. retroactive interference c. misinformation effects d. source misattribution

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 20. Long-term potentiation is linked to which of the following? a. the formation of new memories b. forgetting c. working memory d. sensory memory 21. Which of the following types of memory helps people adapt in a rapidly changing visual scene? a. iconic memory b. echoic memory c. flashbulb memory d. implicit memory 22. Which type of practice is associated with better learning over time? a. massed b. distributed c. controlled d. state-dependent 23. If you had to estimate the number of items a person could maintain in short-term memory, you would probably be best to say they could hold AT LEAST how many items? a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 11 24. Which theory of forgetting proposes that forgetting is the result of the relationship between a memory and other stored information? a. decay theory b. interference theory c. state-dependent memory d. encoding-specificity 25. Giselle opens a book to begin reading. What is the first place where the words on the page will be encoded? a. sensory memory b. short-term memory c. episodic memory d. working memory 26. Which of the following occurs when a person’s recall of an event is affected by misleading post-event information? a. the misinformation effect b. repression c. confabulation d. the effect of imagination 27. Which of the following is the tendency to recall items from the beginning and end of a list of items? a. the serial position effect b. memory span c. top-down processing d. the fan effect 28. Taylor is given a set of four word-pairs to remember: pig-desk, justice-market, clever-giraffe, and decideimpose. Which pair will she have the MOST difficulty encoding? a. pig-desk b. justice-market c. clever-giraffe d. decide-impose 29. Which type of memory is sometimes referred to as short-term memory? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. implicit memory d. episodic memory

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 30. Isabel is talking in detail about what it was like the time she had to evacuate her town because of a terrible forest fire. Isabel is referring to which type of memory? a. flashbulb memory b. semantic memory c. implicit memory d. sensory memory 31. A person experiencing the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is MOST likely having trouble retrieving which of the following? a. colours b. personally relevant adjectives c. names d. action words 32. Which type of memory is the hippocampus most closely associated with? a. explicit memory b. implicit memory c. working memory d. sensory memory 33. The hippocampus is MOST important to which aspect of memory? a. forming new explicit memories b. forming new implicit memories c. storing memories in the very long term d. forgetting 34. Which memory system allows Alex to know what appeared at the beginning of a long sentence while he is reading the end of the sentence? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. episodic memory d. semantic memory 35. If a researcher presented the words cat, chair, hammer, egg, dog, table, nail, bread, horse, sofa, saw, lettuce to participants, what pattern of recall would indicate a serial-position effect a. cat, saw, lettuce b. hammer, egg, dog c. egg, horse, sofa d. cat, nail, bread 36. Marie believes she has forgotten events because they were so disturbing that her brain did not want them to enter conscious awareness. In other words, Marie believes she has experienced which of the following? a. repression b. decay c. retroactive interference d. long-term potentiation 37. Which of the following would be the BEST way to think about each item on a list of words that you were trying to encode? a. “Is the item printed in capitals or lowercase?” b. “Is the item printed in red or black ink?” c. “Does the item rhyme with the word make?” d. “Is the item a noun, verb, adjective, or adverb?” 38. If Mary Louise is like most people, how often will she experience the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon? a. once a day b. once a week c. once a month d. once a year

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 39. As Feng plays with a sparkler he is amazed at how moving the sparkler back and forth creates the appearance of a straight line. What type of memory is producing this phenomenon? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. episodic memory d. implicit memory 40. Where in the brain does neurogenesis occur all of the time? a. the corpus callosum b. the dentate gyrus c. the hypothalamus d. the reticular formation 41. Which of the following does the U-shaped free recall curve show? a. the serial position effect b. the encoding-specificity principle c. state-dependent memory d. a priming effect 42. Rehearsal can help maintain information in which type of memory? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. long-term memory d. implicit memory 43. Jeannette needs to buy milk, bread, and coffee at the grocery store. She imagines a dairy cow eating toast and coffee for breakfast over and over. What method is Jeannette using to help her memory? a. repetitive rehearsal b. elaborative rehearsal c. bottom-up processing d. implicit coding 44. According to the levels-of-processing account, which of the following leads to the BEST encoding? a. structural encoding b. phonemic encoding c. shape encoding d. semantic encoding 45. Which of the following summarizes the difference between an episodic memory and a flashbulb memory? a. whether the event was personal b. whether the event was momentous c. whether the event contained facts d. whether the event was visual 46. Which part of the brain appears to serve as an “index” of where specific memories are located? a. the hypothalamus b. the hippocampus c. the amygdala d. the pons 47. Which of the following brain regions is MOST strongly linked to long-term memory? a. medial temporal lobe b. dorsal temporal lobe c. medial parietal lobe d. dorsal parietal lobe 48. Andrew is given four word pairs: truck-house, frog-take, worry-mountain, and grief-borrow. According to dual coding theory, which pair will he encode the BEST? a. truck-house b. frog-hopeful c. worry-mountain d. grief-borrow

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 49. Which of the following is an example of retroactive interference? a. accidentally using your old postal code instead of your new postal code b. calling a friend by their old nickname instead of the new nickname they’ve started using c. going to the classroom from last term instead of the classroom for this term d. being unable to remember your old phone number when you get a new phone number 50. How does Ebbinghaus’s forgetting curve from his work with nonsense syllables compare to the forgetting curve for meaningful material such as poetry? a. It is steeper. b. It is shallower. c. It is more scattered. d. It has more peaks. 51. In order for a stimulus to be encoded intentionally, it must first be part of which of the following? a. conscious awareness b. top-down processing c. episodic memory d. the homunculus 52. What is the term for the quantity of information that a person can hold in working memory? a. episodic memory b. long-term memory c. attention span d. memory capacity 53. Which model of forgetting proposes that memories fade over time? a. decay theory b. interference theory c. state-dependent memory d. encoding specificity 54. Which type of memory can hold seven chunks of information, plus or minus two? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. episodic memory d. semantic memory 55. What is the main difference between recognition and recall? a. how many cues are involved b. whether you are retrieving an image or a word c. how long it takes to complete the task d. whether you are retrieving something old or something new 56. Visual imagery and self-reference can both be forms of which of the following? a. sensory memory b. implicit coding c. elaboration d. bottom-up processing 57. Which of the following occurs when a person remembers information but is wrong about where the information came from? a. source misattribution b. an effect of imagination c. the misinformation effect d. repression 58. Conscious awareness is MOST closely associated with the current contents of which of the following? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. semantic memory d. episodic memory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 59. Marisol knows the names of all the founders of her small town. Her knowledge is an example of which of the following? a. implicit memory b. sensory memory c. semantic memory d. episodic memory 60. The serial position effect, when charted, looks like which of the following? a. letter U b. letter W c. inverted letter W d. inverted letter U 61. Ernie needs to remember a list of items. He wants to review each item in a way that will make sure he encodes it. Which of the following questions could he ask about each word to maximize encoding? a. “What font is the word printed in?” b. “What colour ink is the word is printed in?” c. “Does the word rhyme with rake?” d. “What does the word mean?” 62. Max cannot form new explicit memories; however, he can recall events from five years ago and beyond. In which area has Max MOST likely sustained brain damage? a. prefrontal cortex b. hippocampus c. neocortex d. cerebellum 63. Which of the following has been demonstrated to benefit recall the MOST? a. self-referent encoding b. bottom-up processing c. conceptual hierarchy d. shallow processing 64. Dr. Chaffey asked participants who had never ridden in a hot air balloon to imagine riding in a hot air balloon. Later, when asking about whether they had ever ridden in a hot air balloon, what Dr. Chaffey MOST likely find? a. none will say they have ever ridden in a hot air balloon b. some will say they have ridden in a hot air balloon c. almost all will say they have ridden in a hot air balloon d. all will say they have ridden in a hot air balloon 65. Which of the following is the main reason that people have difficulty performing multiple tasks at the same time? a. Attention is limited. b. Short-term memory is limited. c. Language is limited. d. Long-term memory is limited. 66. Which of the following occurs when a person links a stimulus to other information at the time of encoding? a. rehearsal b. elaboration c. bottom-up processing d. episodic memory 67. Which of the following are stimuli that remind a person of information they need to retrieve? a. cues b. tags c. primes d. factors Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 68. People who are heavy smartphone users are less able to use which of the following types of memory? a. episodic b. semantic c. working d. prospective 69. What part of the brain is critical for the formation of long-term explicit memories? a. the hippocampus b. the amygdala c. the hypothalamus d. the cerebellum 70. What event would MOST likely produce a flashbulb memory? a. witnessing a disaster b. learning a lot about a subject c. writing a midterm d. learning to type 71. What does the levels-of-processing model assert? a. that encoding requires three levels of processing b. that encoding requires six levels of processing c. that shallower processing leads to better encoding d. that deeper processing leads to better encoding 72. Which of the following is forgetting that results from pre-existing memories? a. proactive interference b. retroactive interference c. decay theory d. state-dependent memory 73. Which of the following will occur in an animal that is given a substance that prevents long-term potentiation? a. an inability to form new memories b. an inability to forget old memories c. a disruption in working memory d. a disruption in retrieving implicit memories 74. What is unusual about a flashbulb memory? a. it is longer lasting than other memories b. it is more vivid than other memories c. it relates to an event in one’s own life d. it is harder to access than other memories 75. Which of the following would lead to the WORST encoding of a given word? a. noting what colour the word is written in b. noting whether the word rhymed with tot c. noting whether the word was a noun, adjective, adverb, or verb d. noting whether the word could be used in the sentence “I put on my ____” 76. Which of the following explains why people are better able to recall information when it is presented in the same context at learning and retrieval? a. repression b. encoding-specificity c. the serial position effect d. priming 77. Alysa is talking to Katie. Which of Katie’s memory stores initially holds the sounds uttered by Alysa? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. episodic memory d. semantic memory

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 78. Which of the following is no longer believed to be a common reason for forgetting? a. repression b. proactive interference c. source misattribution d. retroactive interference 79. What is it called when a person consciously tries to forget something? a. motivated forgetting b. repression c. proactive interference d. retroactive interference 80. Bonnie just completed an experiment designed to examine the self-reference effect on memory. Which of the following might Bonnie have been asked to do on each trial? a. identify the colour of a word on the computer screen b. assess whether an adjective describes her c. retain as many items as possible in memory for 30 seconds d. categorize nouns as either pleasant or unpleasant 81. Pavek is trying to decide whether he will be able to remember a list of items without writing them down. He thinks he can rehearse the items without distraction. His friend Nasreen tells him he should be okay as long as his list contains about what number of items? a. 4 b. 9 c. 10 d. 13 82. Which type of memory preserves a memory in its original form for about a fraction of a second? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. implicit memory d. episodic memory 83. Which of the following has been found to increase the probability that someone will experience the tip-of-thetongue phenomenon? a. being older b. being younger c. being male d. being female 84. Ibrahim has just learned his new postal code and now can’t remember his old postal code. What does this exemplify? a. proactive interference b. retroactive interference c. encoding-specificity d. decay 85. Long-term memory is MOST often divided into two broad categories that encompass all types of long-term memories. What are the two categories? a. semantic and episodic b. explicit and implicit c. procedural and conditioned d. flashbulb and declarative 86. Sundeep is consciously aware of what Mike just said. In other words, where is Sundeep storing what Mike just said? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. episodic memory d. semantic memory

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 87. Keisha was talking on a hands-free cell phone while driving and failed to see a pedestrian in a busy intersection, almost running them over. What is MOST likely to be the reason why this happened? a. Her attention was divided. b. Her vision was impaired. c. She couldn’t hear the pedestrian because of the caller. d. She is an unqualified driver. 88. Which of the following does research suggest require the LEAST amount of capacity in short-term memory? a. unfamiliar chunks b. familiar chunks c. implicit icons d. explicit icons 89. When information in sensory memory is attended to, it can be encoded into which of the following? a. echoic memory b. working memory c. episodic memory d. iconic memory 90. Which of the following is an example of an implicit memory? a. knowing how to ride a bicycle b. knowing the capitals of all the provinces and territories of Canada c. remembering what you did on your last birthday d. remembering meeting your best friend for the first time 91. Matilde read a serious article that reported the surface of the moon contained real cheese. She knew this article came from a satirical website; however, over time she forgot this and came to believe that the moon really had cheese on its surface. What caused this memory error? a. source misattribution b. misinformation c. imagination d. repression 92. Which of the following demonstrates a failure of retrieval? a. the tip-of-the-tongue effect b. the cocktail party effect c. the primacy effect d. the recency effect 93. Ashley believes she can remember seeing her brother break his arm on a trampoline. It turns out that Ashley was at camp when this happened and she couldn’t have witnessed it. Ashley believes that her parents telling the story is the reason she feels like she saw it. What does this exemplify? a. source misattribution b. repression c. misinformation d. proactive interference 94. Dual-coding theory asserts that it is possible to encode a stimulus in two forms. What are the two forms? a. visual and semantic b. semantic and episodic c. episodic and implicit d. implicit and visual 95. Which type of memory is central to our imagining the future? a. episodic b. semantic c. working d. prospective

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 96. When researchers tracked the flashbulb memories of people’s experiences of September 11, 2001, approximately what percentage of memories were accurate three years later? a. none b. 25% c. 60% d. 99% 97. What is the main difference between an implicit memory and an explicit memory? a. whether it is consciously accessible b. whether it was personally experienced c. whether it contains facts d. whether it was visual or auditory 98. Which of the following is reflected by better recall for items at the beginning and end of a list? a. the serial-position effect b. massed practice c. the encoding-specificity principle d. state-dependent memory 99. What does the serial position curve demonstrate? a. reduced recall for items in the middle of the list b. best recall for items in the middle of the list c. improved recall steadily from the beginning of the list to the end d. declining recall steadily from the beginning of the list to the end 100. Patricia has a problem with a short-term memory store that is used to manipulate information. In other words, she has a problem with which of the following? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. semantic memory d. episodic memory 101. New neurons are formed through a process called a. long-term potentiation b. synaptic growth c. neurogenesis d. plasticity 102. Along with explicit memories, which of the following is one of the two main types of long-term memories? a. flashbulb memories b. implicit memories c. semantic memories d. sensory memories 103. Where is the FIRST place that a visual stimulus is encoded? a. sensory memory b. short-term memory c. working memory d. long-term memory 104. Emilie wasn’t paying attention when her friend began speaking, but she is able to work out what he said because the information was still present in which of her stores of memory? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. long-term memory d. episodic memory 105. A task that occupies conscious awareness will necessarily involve which of the following? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. episodic memory d. semantic memory

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 106. Klaus is 42 years old and had his hippocampus removed to control his epilepsy. What will the effect be on his memory? a. he will have difficulty forming new explicit memories b. he will have difficulty forming new implicit memories c. he will lose access to all long-term memories d. his working memory will be severely disrupted 107. If you are given the word list camp, vacant, region, frog, hammer, slush, draw, belief, tree, faint, washer, optical, which items would you be MOST like to recall in a free recall test? a. camp, vacant, region b. camp, washer, optical c. tree, region, slush d. faint, washer, optical 108. Maritza is talking on a hands-free cell phone while driving. Why is this dangerous? a. talking and driving are always a problem, even when it’s not on a cell phone b. she may not have attentional resources when she needs them c. her senses can’t pick up information when she is talking d. it is not possible to listen and drive at the same time 109. Which of the following theories explains how mental imagery support long-term memory? a. interference theory b. levels-of-processing theory c. decay theory d. dual-coding theory 110. Decay is a common cause of forgetting for which of the following types of memory? a. episodic memory b. short-term memory c. semantic memory d. implicit memory 111. When a group of neurons fire together this increases the likelihood that they will fire together in the future. What is this phenomenon known as? a. long-term potentiation b. priming c. proactive interference d. spreading activation 112. If Allison wants to remember something and consciously recall it later on, no matter what the nature of the information, it MUST become part of which of the following? a. explicit memory b. implicit memory c. sensory memory d. procedural memory 113. Naomi is 18 years old and had her hippocampus damaged in an accident. What will the effect be on her memory? a. She will have difficulty forming new explicit memories. b. She will have difficulty forming new implicit memories. c. She will lose access to all long-term memories. d. Her working memory will be severely disrupted.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 114. Which of the following involves focusing awareness on a narrow range of stimuli? a. selective attention b. consciousness c. top-down processing d. semantic memory 115. Dorian’s brother has told him over and over that he cried on his first day of school. Dorian remembers crying on the first day of school quite clearly; however, his mother tells him that he didn’t cry, he was actually excited about school. Which of the following could be a reason for this error? a. imagination b. proactive interference c. repression d. decay 116. Renee has no trouble answering the questions on her test because she has stored the facts about the topic in which of the following? a. her episodic memory b. her semantic memory c. her sensory memory d. her implicit memory 117. If Clara is in a good mood, she is MOST likely to recall what kind of memories? a. pleasant b. negative c. neutral d. surprising 118. Which of the following does a person use to hold a telephone number in memory long enough to dial it? a. sensory memory b. working memory c. semantic memory d. episodic memory 119. Changying has not signed on to a social network for a long time. She knows she had the same password for this network as she had used for her email, but she has since changed her email password and can’t remember the old password at all. What is Changying experiencing? a. retroactive interference b. proactive interference c. a misinformation effect d. state-dependent memory 120. A person who recalls that a fake news article they saw on social media was actually a real news article from a legitimate source is engaging in which memory sin? a. bias b. misattribution c. persistence d. transience 121. When memory is selected from sensory memory, it is encoded in which of the following? a. working memory b. episodic memory c. semantic memory d. iconic memory 122. Which of the following involves grouping pieces of information together to enhance the capacity of working memory? a. chunking b. bottom-up processing c. rehearsal d. memory span 123. What must happen before a stimulus can be encoded? a. it must be attended to b. it must be visualized c. it must be present for at least 2 seconds d. it must be elaborated Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. a 9. b 10. b 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. a

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 27. a 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. a 37. d 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. b 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. a 51. a 52. d 53. a 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 55. a 56. c 57. a 58. b 59. c 60. a 61. d 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. b 67. a 68. d 69. a 70. a 71. d 72. a 73. a 74. b 75. a 76. b 77. a 78. a 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 83. a 84. b 85. b 86. b 87. a 88. b 89. b 90. a 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. a 95. a 96. c 97. a 98. a 99. a 100. b 101. c 102. b 103. a 104. a 105. b 106. a 107. b 108. b 109. d 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_6ce_Vol_4 111. a 112. a 113. a 114. a 115. a 116. b 117. a 118. b 119. a 120. b 121. a 122. a 123. a

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Chap 08_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. While making a plan to sneak out of the house without waking her parents, Jamila remembers that her brother used to sneak out his window because of the squeaky stair on the staircase. If Jamila uses this solution and climbs out her window, she is _______________. a. using a mental set b. incorporating irrelevant information c. placing unnecessary restraints on her solution d. too focused on functional fixedness 2. Solene is asked to play rock-paper-scissors with the interviewer. Thankfully, Solene has an old, go-to strategy for playing rock-paper-scissors. She uses rock on the first trial, and then for every subsequent trial, she copies the move of the other player from the previous trial. Solene’s solution does NOT involve the use of _____________. a. cognition b. heuristics c. a mental set d. knowledge organization 3. One of the questions on the exam reads: “ d is to b as p is to ____”. To solve this, Solene mentally rotates the letter p. Solene’s use of mental rotation is a form of ____________. a. unnecessary constraint b. functional fixedness c. cognition d. knowledge organization 4. For the rest of his life, Joaquin thinks that all aliens must be peaceful because the aliens he met were peaceful. This is an example of which type of biased decision-making strategy? a. The Gambler’s Fallacy b. Confirmation Bias c. The Law of Small Numbers d. Belief Perseverance 5. The patient says he is firefighter, so without any more information, Dr. Sevigny prescribes the treatment for the diagnosis he had originally predicted. This decision is largely based on the ________. a. Hindsight Bias b. Belief Perseverance c. Confirmation Bias d. Overconfidence Bias 6. Joaquin is abducted by aliens and beamed up into their spaceship. The aliens hold up two fingers in a peace sign to let Joaquin know they do not intend to hurt him. Joaquin soon learns that the aliens can communicate with him in English, but they also communicate with one another in a different “language” using bird-like chirps. As a psychology student, Joaquin is curious to know how the aliens came to learn English. After their interaction, Joaquin is returned to Earth safely and decides to not tell anyone about his visit. The aliens managed to tell Joaquin that they are peaceful creatures without speaking words to him. To do this, they needed to use _______________. a. symbols, semantics, and pragmatics b. pragmatics and semantics c. symbols and semantics d. a system of symbols and combination rules

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Chap 08_6ce_Case-Based 7. Which of the following shows that Jamila is ignoring base rates when she assumes that most of her classmates will be out partying? a. She knows at least three people who are out partying. b. She knows that she hears about Senior Sunrise party shenanigans in the news every year. c. Three friends she has messaged say they are still out partying. d. She knows that most of her classmates’ parents are just as strict as her own. 8. Imagine that the aliens can speak to Joaquin and write to him as well. However, they express their ideas in a very simple way, using short sentences, and cannot seem to form questions properly. This shows the aliens _________________. a. do not understand pragmatics b. do not understand semantics c. missed the critical period for learning languages d. cannot be considered fully bilingual 9. Avery’s parents also speak to her in Ukrainian. Avery has been speaking to Stefan in English all evening, but after dinner she suddenly asks him for a “pecivo” (the Ukranian word for cookie) for dessert. Avery used the correct _________, but made __________ error. a. phonology; an over-extension b. phonology; a semantics c. semantics; a bilingualism d. expression; an over-extension 10. Dr. Lin is a new doctor who just finished her medical school residency last year. She is working with Dr. Sevigny, who has 20 years of experience. They are working in the Emergency Room together. A patient comes in with a long list of weird symptoms. Because the symptoms are odd, Dr. Lin decides to ask Dr. Sevigny for some help so she can be sure to provide a correct diagnosis. When the patient says he has a stuffy nose, shoulder pain, and a numb left foot, Dr. Sevigny asks him if he is a firefighter. Dr. Sevigny explains to Dr. Lin that he has seen this group of symptoms together in two patients before, and both of those patients were firefighters he had seen over 10 years ago. By thinking that the patient must be a firefighter to have these symptoms, Dr. Sevigny is committing which error? a. Ignoring base rates b. Using the availability bias c. Belief perseverance d. Hindsight bias 11. Jamila’s friends are participating in a tradition known as Senior Sunrise, where the graduating high school class members stay out all night before the last day of school. Jamila’s parents set her a curfew of 12 midnight (which was very generous), and Jamila made sure to be home by then. However, she receives a text message at 3 a.m. from her best friend asking her to come back and join in the celebrations. Jamila now needs to solve a problem: Should she obey her parents and stay home, or should she sneak out and join her friends? Jamila remembers a line from one of her favourite TV shows: “Nothing good happens after 2 a.m.”. Using this to help solve her problem, she decides to stay home. Which method of problem-solving did Jamila use in this case? a. Algorithm b. Heuristic c. Trial-and-error d. Verbal protocols

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Chap 08_6ce_Case-Based 12. When Dr. Lin first asks Dr. Sevigny for help, she tells him what she thinks the diagnosis might be. Within two seconds of seeing the patient, and without asking the patient any questions, Dr. Sevigny says that Dr. Lin’s original diagnosis is wrong. Dr. Sevigny’s statement was made based on ____________. a. a heuristic b. the Law of Small Numbers c. the Confirmation Bias d. an algorithm 13. Dr. Sevigny has actually seen five patients in the past with these symptoms, but only two of them were firefighters. Dr. Sevigny still thinks it is likely that the new patient is also a firefighter. His assumption suggests Dr. Sevigny is guilty of _____________. a. ignoring base rates b. the availability bias c. the Gambler’s Fallacy d. the overconfidence bias 14. Jamila knows that her three best friends are out partying. Based on this, she believes that her entire class must be out celebrating. This thinking shows Jamila is a victim of which bias? a. Gambler’s Fallacy b. Law of Small Numbers c. Confirmation Bias d. Belief Perseverance 15. The aliens learned the English language by listening in on human conversations, but did not have anyone explicitly teaching them. This indicates that the aliens relied more on the ___________ theory of language acquisition than they relied on the ____________theory of language acquisition. a. behaviourist; nativist b. environmental; behaviourist c. behaviourist; environmental d. environmental; cognitive 16. Solene is shown seven different sized bottles. Two bottles contain “poison”, three contain water, and one contains liquid that will give her superpowers. She is given a riddle to determine which bottle is the “superpower” bottle. To help her solve the problem, she names each bottle after a friend the particular bottle resembles. Naming each bottle after a friend is considered ______________. a. chunking b. an analogy c. a means-end analysis d. subjective utility 17. During the interview, Solene is asked to complete a complex verbal math problem. Because she does not have access to a paper and pen, she uses a box of toothpicks to help her keep track of the numbers in the problem. Solene’s use of toothpicks _________________. a. is a form of algorithm b. helps with problem representation c. is a form of analogy d. helps with domain-specific memory 18. After Jamila hears from her best friend, she believes everyone is out partying without her. Now she is certain that her two other friends would be out partying as well. Jamila texts them. If those two friends _______ and Jamila still thinks everyone is out partying, then this is a case of __________. a. say they are at home; Confirmation Bias b. say they are at home; Belief Perseverance c. say they are out; Overconfidence Bias d. say they are out; Hindsight Bias

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Chap 08_6ce_Case-Based 19. Solene is in competition with other candidates for a job in a secret government division that requires above average reasoning and problem-solving ability. As part of the selection process, she is required to complete a written exam and a problem-solving interview. Solene thinks she is well-prepared—she has done online practice exams and completed different problem-solving tasks her friends designed—but she is unsure of what to expect the day of her tests. One of the questions on the exam reads: “ d is to b as p is to ___.” To solve this, Solene mentally rotates the letter p. This is a type of _____________. a. inducing structure problem b. arrangement problem c. transformation problem d. series completion problem 20. Stefan is babysitting his young niece, Avery, for the first time. Stefan has not seen Avery since the beginning of the semester, and is surprised to find that Avery is speaking much more than she did the last time. Stefan has just been through a lecture on language development, so he thinks this visit will be especially interesting. Avery knows the difference between a cat and a dog, can express her own ideas, and is learning grammar, but she cannot read or write. Which of the properties of language has she not mastered yet? a. symbolic b. semantic c. infinite generativity d. structure 21. Avery indicates she is ready for dinner by saying “Dinner Avery want. Hungry me!” Avery is making ________ errors. a. phonological b. morphological c. syntax d. semantic

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Chap 08_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. b 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. c

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What is NOT an item of evidence Chomsky would use to support the idea of an inborn language learning

mechanism? a. Children learn language very quickly and effortlessly. b. The errors in child speech are common and indicate a knowledge of general rules of the language. c. The general rate of language learning is similar for kids from diverse backgrounds. d. Language learning in young children is different across cultures. 2. You have a pair of pliers and a bag of nuts in the shell. You are lamenting the fact that you can’t shell the nuts

because you do not have a nutcracker. Which problem is demonstrated by your inability to perceive the pliers as a makeshift nutcracker? a. mental set b. insight insufficiency c. functional fixedness d. heuristic reasoning 3. Imagine that anthropologists found a culture that had over 80 different words for rice. What would that

discovery suggest if researchers also found that the people in this culture thought about rice in different and more elaborate ways than people who have only one word for rice? a. It would provide evidence that social communication theory is incorrect. b. It would support social communication theory. c. It would provide evidence that the linguistic relativity hypothesis is incorrect. d. It would support the linguistic relativity hypothesis. 4. Young Zoe is requesting that her father stay home from work and join her to play instead. Specifically, she

says, “Daddy no work. Daddy play!” Approximately how old is Zoe likely to be? a. 10 months b. 20 months c. 30 months d. 40 months 5. Zackary’s friend asks how well Zackary gets along with his younger brother. Zackary thinks about how

irritating his younger brother was yesterday, and the big fight they had as a result, and tells his friend that he doesn’t get along with his brother at all. What is Zackary’s response consistent with in this instance? a. conjunction fallacy b. availability heuristic c. hindsight bias d. representativeness heuristic 6. Byron has been watching his new neighbour for a week. She drives a sporty car, carries a phone, and wears

nothing but blue business suits. Byron decides his new neighbour must be a lawyer. What did Byron use to form an opinion about his new neighbour’s occupation? a. hindsight bias b. base-rate fallacy c. representativeness heuristic d. availability heuristic

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 7. Autumn has been figure-skating since she was 5 years old. She has never placed higher than third in any of

the competitions she has been in, but she is still convinced that she will be able to become a professional figure skater in a few years. Her coach and her parents have tried to tell her that not many people make it as professional skaters, but Autumn is convinced that she can beat the odds. What is Autumn doing in this case? a. showing the confirmation bias b. displaying evidence of mental set c. showing belief perseverance d. ignoring base rates 8. The phrase “hang in there” is an English idiom that means “don’t give up.” This non-literal meaning of the

phrase is most relevant to which of the following linguistic terms? a. semantics b. morphology c. generativity d. connotation 9. There are two systems of thought which evolutionary theorists have argued human reasoning largely depends

on. Which one is best used to make fast decisions? a. fast and frugal heuristics b. traditional decision research c. effortful cognition d. unbounded decision making 10. Although people sometimes solve problems with an “aha!” moment, Dr. Derksen believes that this flash of

insight arises from normal, step-by-step, analytical thinking that occurs at a conscious level. Dr. Derksen believes in which of the following views of insight? a. business-as-usual b. activation-synthesis c. special process d. subgoal formation 11. In the debate about language acquisition, B. F. Skinner is associated with behaviourism, while Noam

Chomsky is associated with which of the following? a. humanism b. biological determinism c. cultural relativity d. social construction 12. Reed is an avid basketball fan who is excited by the fact that the local professional team has won the first five

games of the season. Based on this early performance, Reed is looking forward to a record-breaking season. Why does this faulty logic illustrate an error in statistical reasoning? a. Later performance is seldom related to early performance. b. Small samples are the most accurate representation of final outcomes. c. Small samples cannot be expected to provide reliable indications of long-run performance. d. Winning streaks usually last for only a short period of time. 13. Which of the following types of problems is commonly solved by insight? a. anagrams b. series completion c. analogy

d. transformation

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 14. The phrase “the girl kicked the ball to the boy” reflects a different event than does the phrase “the boy kicked

the ball to the girl”—even though the exact same words are used in both sentences. The rules of how to structure the sentence, depending on who is kicking the ball to whom, are part of which of the following aspects of language? a. semantics b. morphology c. generativity d. syntax 15. Which of the following statements about the variety of phonemes differentiated by infants under six months of

age is CORRECT? a. Adults can differentiate more phonemes than infants can. b. Adults and infants both differentiate the same number of phonemes. c. Infants differentiate more phonemes than adults do. d. Infants can only differentiate the phonemes of languages that they have heard. 16. Which term refers to a highly popular method for learning a second language in Canada? a. immersion b. elementary school c. university

d. home-schooling

17. Imagine that a race of extraterrestrials came to earth. These extraterrestrials quickly learned to use Earth

words to convey meaningful messages, but they never created new combinations of words or learned how to use rules to create meaningful sentences. Which statement best describes their communications? a. They would have all the requirements for language. b. They would not be generative but would be symbolic and semantic. c. They would lack all the essential elements of language. d. They would not be symbolic or semantic but would be generative and structured. 18. Which of the following speech sounds would you most likely first hear in an 11-month-old? a. “mama” b. “aaaaaaaah” c. “babababababa”

d. “daddy work”

19. Morphemes are the smallest units of which component of language? a. syntax b. sound c. dialect

d. meaning

20. If you draw an arrow to indicate where someone should go, what function of language does the arrow serve? a. generative b. structural c. symbolic

d. phonemic

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 21. There are sometimes reports in the news about shark attacks, including reports of a number of deaths. Other

animals, such as horses or cows, kill more people every year, but many people state that shark-related fatalities are much more likely. What is one possible reason for this overestimation of the likelihood of fatal shark attacks? a. representativeness heuristic b. availability heuristic c. loss aversion d. confirmation bias 22. When a child starts using overregularizations, what do these errors reflect? a. The child is learning to apply rules to language. b. The child will soon start using telegraphic speech. c. The child is fast mapping. d. The child has slightly delayed development. 23. Which type of theory best accounts for the apparent rapidity and ease of language acquisition in early

childhood? a. behaviourist c. nativist

b. cognitive d. social communication

24. In Canada, Inuit have their own language and culture. For example, they have numerous words for snow

which are absent in English language. According to Whorf, what is a result of these differences in language? a. The Inuit experience a broader perception of snow. b. Those who speak English only, experience a broader perception of snow. c. Bilingual non-Inuit experience a broader perception of snow than those who speak only English or French. d. The perception of snow in Canada is independent of language. 25. For the first time, Alicia states that she “swimmed” today. Approximately how old would we expect Alicia to

be? a. 15 months c. 35 months

b. 25 months d. 45 months

26. What is subjective utility? a. an individual’s willingness to take risks b. a personal estimate of what the probability of an outcome is c. the expected value of an outcome d. what an outcome is personally worth to an individual

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 27. Which statement does NOT accurately describe phonemes? a. A letter of the alphabet is represented by more than one phoneme if it has more than one

pronunciation. b. All words in a language are made up of some combination of that language’s phonemes. c. Some phonemes are represented by letter combinations, such as sh. d. Phonemes are combined into morphemes. 28. For which of the following reasons was the study of cognition discouraged during the first half of the 20th

century? a. Cognition was not considered to be a psychological function. b. Introspection had limitations and the focus was on things that are observable. c. Psychodynamic theories were too dominant in the field. d. Language acquisition was viewed as an innate process that could not be studied empirically. 29. Which component of language allows you to recognize that “give” and “take” have opposite meanings? a. generativity b. semantics c. syntax

d. phonology

30. What are people using when they overestimate the frequency of violent crimes because such crimes are

repeatedly shown in the media? a. holistic decision model c. elimination by aspects strategy

b. representativeness heuristic d. availability heuristic

31. You’ve observed the similarities between a new problem to be solved and one you’ve successfully solved in

the past. What is this called? a. the alternative outcomes effect c. shaping

b. an algorithm d. using analogies

32. When Quentin sprained his ankle in a backyard softball game, his girlfriend grabbed a bag of frozen corn

from the freezer to wrap around his ankle until they got him to the local clinic. What did Quentin’s girlfriend do in this case? a. She effectively utilized the availability heuristic. b. She was able to overcome functional fixedness. c. She demonstrated a mental set in treating Quentin’s sprained ankle. d. She successfully utilized an elimination-by-aspects strategy. 33. Why does a child’s pronunciation improve over time, according to behaviourism? a. The brain matures with age. b. The quality of their problem-solving ability improves. c. Transformational rules are mastered. d. Parents insist on better pronunciation before providing reinforcement. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 34. When people are seeking gains, what is their likelihood of making risky decisions, compared to when they

are attempting to cut their losses? a. equally likely in both situations b. less likely when seeking gains c. more likely when seeking gains d. less likely when seeking gains if female, but more likely if male 35. Corey was serving on a jury in a criminal case, and the jury reached a unanimous “not guilty” verdict. Several

months later, some additional evidence came to light that strongly suggested that the defendant was, in fact, guilty of the crime in question. Corey is still not convinced by the new evidence, and claims he wouldn’t have voted guilty, even if the new information had been presented during the trial. What is Corey demonstrating in this example? a. conjunction fallacy b. mental set c. belief perseverance d. availability heuristic 36. You can’t think of a single instance when Cathy helped you out, and so you decide that Cathy must be an

ungenerous person. What are you using to make this judgment? a. representativeness heuristic b. expected value c. availability heuristic d. subjective utility 37. Last Halloween, four-year-old Jillian called the decorations at her house “pukkins.” This year she can say

“pumpkins” when she describes them. What language component has Jillian improved in this instance? a. morphemes b. syntax c. phonemes d. linguistic heuristics 38. You are listening to 2-year-old Annie as she says, “No eat. No like.” She is trying to let you know that she is

not going to eat her broccoli because she doesn’t like it. What does Annie’s communication illustrate? a. telegraphic speech b. overregularization c. semantic slanting d. underextension 39. Which term refers to the efforts made by people when they are actively trying to figure out what steps must

be taken in order to achieve a goal which is otherwise not easily attained? a. solution seeking b. problem solving c. heuristics d. project management 40. Mischel knows how to say “red,” but when his cousin asks him to name the colours of the cars that drive past

their house, he says red for every car, no matter what colour it actually is. What does this example illustrate? a. telegraphic speech b. overextension c. fast mapping d. babbling

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 41. What cognitive tendency is described by the representativeness heuristic? a. ignoring common stereotypes when estimating probabilities b. estimating the probability of an event based on how similar it is to the typical prototype of that event c. ignoring subjective probabilities when making decisions d. estimating the probability of an event by judging the ease with which relevant instances come to mind 42. According to Kahneman and Tversky, when are people much more likely to take risks? a. when they are seeking to avoid losses b. when the issue is framed in terms of probability of success c. when the probability of success is equal to the probability of failure d. when they are not asked to provide rationales for their choices 43. Two-year-old Owen rushes into the kitchen and tells his mother: “Baby throw. Baby bad.” He wants her to

know that his baby brother is bad because he just threw his toys on the floor. What does Owen’s communication illustrate? a. overregularization b. underextension c. semantic slanting d. telegraphic speech 44. Amy is amazed to think about the fact that new books and works are constantly being written and they don’t

simply repeat what has already been said or written. She is particularly stuck by the fact that the same words in our language are used but are rearranged to express entirely new thoughts or ideas! Amy is really just noticing which of the following basic properties of language? a. semantic b. structural c. generative d. symbolic 45. Many people mistakenly believe their chances of dying in an airplane crash are greater than their chances of

dying in an automobile crash. What is reflected in this belief? a. belief in the law of small numbers b. conjunction fallacy c. availability heuristic d. confirmation bias

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1

Jesse Jesse was playing with marbles when one of the marbles fell into a heating vent in the floor. Jesse could see the marble, but he couldn’t reach it because the slats of the vent were too close together for his hand, and he couldn’t remove the lid. Jesse said, rather sarcastically to himself, “Well, that’s just fabulous.” He looked around the room for something that he could use to retrieve the marble. When he saw his juice glass with the straw in it, he got an idea. He took the straw, carefully lowered it into the vent until it touched the marble. Then he sucked on the straw so that it “grabbed” the marble as he gently raised it back up into his waiting hand. Quite pleased with himself, and a little dizzy, Jesse went back to playing marbles. 46. What was Jesse demonstrating when he used sarcasm? a. metalinguistic awareness b. telegraphic speech c. overregularization d. fast mapping 47. Pinker and Bloom suggest that language is an evolutionary adaptation. What does language allow us to do, in

their theory? a. avoid heuristic fallacies b. acquire information about the world second-hand c. engage in more efficient introspection d. use trial-and-error learning more effectively 48. Charlene was packing for a trip and she started to just pile all of her favourite clothes into her suitcase. She

realized that she didn’t have room for everything that she would like to take so she made a list of how many items she would need for the five days that she would be away and selected just the number of items that she would need. Which strategy did Charlene use? a. an algorithm b. working backward c. changing the representation of the problem d. searching for an analogy 49. At about what age are a child’s first words generally spoken? a. 3 to 5 months b. 6 to 8 months c. 10 to 13 months

d. 18 to 21 months

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 50. You are at a day care centre and you hear three 12-month-old babies babbling, each baby from a different

racial/ethnic background (Asian, Hispanic, and Caucasian). Which statement should best describe the babbling of each of these infants? a. It will sound very similar, because maturation is the major determinant of language acquisition during the first year. b. It will consist mainly of two-word phrases (telegraphic speech). c. It will consist mainly of vowel sounds, because consonant sounds don’t usually emerge until 14 months of age. d. It will sound very different, with each child’s babbles sounding quite similar to the parents’ native language. 51. Language allows a person to express new ideas. Which quality of language does this reflect? a. the symbolic dimension of language b. the constructive function of language c. the generative quality of language

d. the invention dimension of language

52. Young Elizabeth is asking her father to join her and her stuffed animals for a tea party. She specifically asks,

“Daddy go play?” Which of the following is illustrated by this example? a. underextension b. underregularization c. telegraphic speech d. fast mapping 53. There are different sounds across languages, such as “dog” in English and “chien” in French, that all represent

the same thing. Which of the following qualities of language does this reflect? a. semantic b. generative c. cross-cultural d. structural 54. Xinran describes her stomach ache as feeling “like crabs are pinching my inside.” Which of the following does

this use of language best reflect? a. Xinran is learning to apply the rules of language. b. Xinran is developing metalinguistic awareness. c. Xinran is in the midst of a vocabulary spurt. d. Xinran is using telegraphic speech. 55. When Alaina is working on her bicycle, she brings her entire tool kit out on the driveway and starts pulling

wrenches from the tool kit at random, trying them until she finds one that fits. What type of approach is Alaina using? a. alternate outcomes analysis b. working backward c. forming subgoals d. trial and error

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 56. Claude and Marie are excited because they have just bought a restaurant from the previous owners. The two

partners know that the last seven restaurants that have been operated at that location have gone bankrupt within a year of their openings, but Claude and Marie are certain their restaurant will be successful because they plan on working hard to be a success. What are the two new business partners doing in this case? a. supporting the gambler’s fallacy b. demonstrating the confirmation bias c. ignoring base rates d. showing belief perseverance 57. Which term refers to the sudden discovery of the correct solution following incorrect attempts based primarily

on trial and error? a. insight c. functional fixedness

b. rearrangement d. transformation

58. Callie is playing the game Hangman where she must guess the letters to fill in blanks of a word or phrase.

Rather than guessing letters in order, starting at A, B, C, and so on, she starts with E, A, and R, which are the most common letters in English words. Which of the following is Callie using in this example? a. an algorithm b. subgoal analysis c. a heuristic d. insight 59. What do people focus on if they are using an analytic cognitive style? a. following step-by-step procedures, rather than using mental shortcuts b. objects and their properties, rather than overall context c. external frames of reference, and that the environment is taken as a given d. context and relationships among the elements in a field 60. In general, which statement best describes toddlers’ language abilities? a. They understand more words than they can say. b. They can say more words than they understand. c. They understand and say about the same number of words. d. They say many words, but we have no idea what they actually understand. 61. Wilson is watching two different roulette-type games at a local charity bazaar. Each game costs $1 to play. In

one game, there are ten different numbers, and if the number he selects comes up, he will win $12. In the other game, there are 100 different numbers, but if the number he selects comes up, he will win $50. What should Wilson do based on expected value theory? a. Play the first game because it has a higher expected value. b. Play either one of the games because they both have the same expected value. c. Play the second game because it has a higher expected value. d. Not play either game because they both have such low odds of winning.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 62. Marie received a puzzle as a present for her birthday. The puzzle has three pegs, and to solve the puzzle a

person is required to move nine disks from the centre peg to one of the outside pegs. However, only one disk can be moved at a time, and a larger disk can never be placed on top of a smaller disk. What type of problem is this? a. problem of arrangement b. problem of transformation c. problem of inducing structure d. ill-defined problem 63. Scott has been trying to write some computer code, but it isn’t working. He decided to go to bed and try

again in the morning, and when he started again he immediately detected and fixed the problem. What does this example illustrate? a. incubation effect b. field dependence c. searching for analogies d. mental set 64. Dr. Ji presents participants with three images (e.g., a cow, a chicken, and some grass) and asks them to

indicate which one does not belong. She is interested in cultural differences and notices that some of her participants say that the grass doesn’t belong (since cows and chickens are both animals) while others say the chicken doesn’t belong (since cows eat grass). A person who responded “chicken” in this study would most likely have which of the following cognitive styles? a. analogical b. holistic c. analytical d. heuristic 65. The word “dog” does not look like a dog, nor does the word sound anything like the sounds the animal

makes. This example illustrates which property of language? a. generative b. structural c. hierarchical d. symbolic 66. Which of the following was NOT listed in the textbook as influential in igniting the cognitive revolution? a. Simon and Newell created a computer program that simulated human problem solving. b. Noam Chomsky presented revolutionary ideas about the study of language. c. Elizabeth Loftus showed that post-event misinformation affects memory for the event. d. George Miller argued that the capacity of short-term memory was seven plus or minus two. 67. Seven-year-old Travis heard a joke in school and asks you, “How could you find a lost dog in the woods?”

When you are stumped, he tells you, “You stand near a tree and listen for the bark.” What is Travis developing, based on this play on words? a. the ability to use linguistic heuristics b. psycholinguistic skills c. metalinguistic awareness d. linguistic relativity

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 68. How many morphemes are in the word “unchangeable”? a. one morpheme, for the entire word b. four morphemes, one for each syllable c. nine morphemes, one for each letter of the alphabet used d. three morphemes, one for each unit of meaning 69. George de Mestral invented the Velcro-brand fastener. On a hunting trip, he noticed that his pants were

covered in the burrs from a particular plant. Looking at the burrs under a microscope, he saw that they had hook-shaped points that were holding onto the loops of thread in the material his pants. This example represents which of the following types of problem solving? a. use of analogies b. subgoal analysis c. incubation d. heuristic reasoning 70. What is subjective probability? a. a personal estimate of what the likelihood of an outcome is b. what an outcome is personally worth to an individual c. the expected value of an outcome d. an individual’s willingness to take risks 71. English has a set of basic colour words, including red, orange, yellow, green, blue, and purple. Russian has

similar colour words, but actually contains two different words for blue (goloboy and siniy). Based on previous research, which of the following do you predict would happen if English- and Russian-speaking participants were asked to state whether two coloured squares, which correspond to goloboy and siniy, are the exact same shade or if they are different? a. The English- and Russian-speakers would be equally fast at discriminating the colours. b. The English-speakers would be faster at discriminating the colours. c. The Russian-speakers would be faster at discriminating the colours. d. Neither group would be able to discriminate between the colours. 72. Samantha uses the word “bear” but uses it to describe all of her stuffed animals, including penguins, foxes, or

even an octopus. Which of the following kinds of speech errors is Samantha making? a. overgeneralization b. overregularization c. overextension d. underspecificity

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 73. Two parents accompany their children’s class on a field trip to a science museum. Over the loudspeaker,

there is an announcement about an upcoming presentation on liquid nitrogen. One of the parents tells the teacher that it “sounds educational.” On the one hand, “educational” means that the presentation is “intended to educate or enlighten”; on the other, it also carries a suggestion from the parent that the children should be made to attend the presentation. These dual meanings reflect which of the following of the use of the word “educational” in this context? a. its syntax and semantics b. its phonemes and morphemes c. its semantics and symbolism d. its denotation and connotation 74. Greeno’s basic types of problems were described in your text. Which one requires the problem solver to

discover the relations among the parts of the problem? a. inducing structure b. transformation c. recategorization d. arrangement 75. Mr. and Mrs. Jones have five daughters. Hoping for a son, they decide to have a sixth child, reasoning that a

boy is long overdue. Is their reasoning correct, and why? a. Yes. After having so many daughters, a boy is almost a sure thing. b. No. The simple probability of a son is unaffected by the sex of previous children. c. No. It is more likely that Mr. and Mrs. Jones will continue to produce girls. d. Yes. The greater the number of girls a couple has had, the greater the likelihood that the next will be a boy. 76. Which statement best describes bilingualism? a. Bilinguals score higher than monolinguals in metalinguistic awareness. b. Bilinguals score lower than monolinguals in selective attention and cognitive flexibility. c. Bilinguals are faster than monolinguals in language-processing speed. d. Bilingualism has a significant, negative effect on overall language development. 77. What is the function of the component of language called semantics? a. understanding the meaning of words and word combinations b. creating novel messages from a finite number of symbols c. specifying rules for how words can be arranged into sentences d. correctly pronouncing the prefixes, suffixes, and root words of a language 78. Phonemes are the smallest units of which component of language? a. meaning b. sound c. dialect

d. syntax

79. As Sobhan grows up, at which of the following ages would you be most likely to first observe fast mapping? a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 2 years

d. 4 years

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 80. If Annette is learning two languages, what will be the impact of bilingualism on the development of her

vocabulary? a. The size of her vocabulary will be smaller in each language, but the total of the two will be similar to the vocabulary of a monolingual child. b. The size of her vocabulary will be normal in each language. c. The size of her vocabulary will be enhanced in each language. d. The size of her vocabulary, when both languages are added together, will be smaller than that of a monolingual child. 81. What is the denotation of a word? a. a complex interaction between the word’s phonology and syntax b. its dictionary definition c. its emotional overtones and secondary implications d. the separate sounds that make up the word 82. What is the benefit of using “fast and frugal heuristics”? a. We tend to have greater confidence in decisions made that way. b. We make more accurate decisions than when we use careful reasoning. c. There are few benefits to the use of those heuristics, as decision making tends to be very flawed when

done rapidly. d. We can make decisions very quickly. 83. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the textbook as a potential advantage of bilingualism? a. Bilingualism is associated with enhanced social skills. b. Bilingualism is associated with enhanced ability to control and switch attention. c. Bilingualism is associated with later onset of dementia. d. Bilingualism is associated with higher verbal fluency. 84. A declarative sentence must have both a noun phrase and a verb phrase. Which type of rule is this? a. transformational rule b. rule of syntax c. rule of denotation

d. semantic rule

85. Marc loves to solve anagrams and spends a great deal of time working through books of anagrams. Which

problem-solving strategy does it appear that Marc enjoys? a. analogical reasoning b. arrangement c. transformation d. inducing structure

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 86. Which research project would be most likely to be conducted by someone in the field of behavioural

economics? a. a study of emotional influences on investment in the stock market b. a comparison of the personalities of people in different socio-economic groups c. a comprehensive list of the cost of education in 40 different countries d. an efficiency study of a corporation 87. Insight is a common method of solving which of the following types of problems? a. transformation b. arrangement c. series completion

d. inducing structure

88. What is another term for making choices under conditions of uncertainty? a. risky decision making b. expected value process c. deliberation without attention

d. intuitive decision making

89. You are the president of a large company and you are interested in making some changes to the way that the

company runs. You would like to see some creativity in administrative processes, rather than simply continuing the way things have always been done. What should you do? a. Hire new managers from outside the company, because the existing managers are vulnerable to the effects of mental set. b. Encourage retired managers to come back temporarily, because experienced managers would be less vulnerable to the effects of mental set. c. Promote young employees to positions of power, because young adults are more likely to take advantage of functional fixedness. d. Hire more women for management positions, because women are less vulnerable to functional fixedness. 90. Which word has the same number of morphemes as the word “unbeliever”? a. triangle b. silly c. privilege

d. restated

91. A local grocer wanted to cut down on the use of credit cards in his store. He found his business declined

significantly when he imposed a “surcharge” for credit card sales. However, his business boomed when he offered “rebates” for cash sales, even though customers paid the same amount for products in both cases. What does this example illustrate? a. alternative outcomes effect b. semantic slanting c. phonemic overextension d. conjunction fallacy 92. Andi says “sawed” instead of “seen” or “saw.” What type of common error is this? a. overextension b. underextension c. overregularization

d. underregularization

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 93. The representativeness heuristic is assumed to be related to which of the following errors? a. tendency to ignore base rates and the conjunction fallacy b. tendency to ignore base rates and the sunk costs fallacy c. sunk costs fallacy and conjunction fallacy d. tendency to ignore base rates, the conjunction fallacy, and the sunk costs fallacy 94. Claudia wants to send a fragile vase to her parents for their anniversary, but she can’t find any appropriate

packing material in her house. She decides to pop some popcorn and use that to pack around the vase. What has Claudia done in this case? a. overcome functional fixedness in solving her problem b. effectively utilized the availability heuristic in solving her problem c. utilized an elimination-by-aspects strategy to solve her problem d. demonstrated functional fixedness in solving her problem 95. What can be said about babbling if infants who are learning sign language show evidence of manual babbling

(using sign-language-based babbling), but other infants show only vocal babbling? a. It is related to maturation processes that are unrelated to speech. b. It is important for development of more than just language and vocal skills. c. It is related to language acquisition in general, rather than just vocal speech. d. It is related to motor development in general. 96. Two parents accompany their children’s class on an art museum field trip. One of the sculptures they walk

past depicts a nude woman. One parent exclaims that it is “filth” and “pornographic”—words that suggest that the art is not appropriate for the children to view. This would be the words’ ________________. a. denotation b. symbolism c. connotation d. syntax 97. Which theory of language is associated with the hypothesized “language acquisition device”? a. generativity b. learning c. stage

d. nativist

98. In attempting to solve the “nine dot problem” few individuals attempt to draw a line outside the imaginary

boundary surrounding the nine dots. This is not a rule associated with the problem but is imposed by the problem solver. What is this an example of? a. trial-and-error learning b. functional fixedness c. mental set d. unnecessary constraints

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 99. Jacob is thinking of buying a $1 lottery ticket. In Lottery A, his odds of winning are 1 out of 1000, and he

may win $500. In Lottery B, his odds of winning are 1 out of 5,000, but he may win $5000. What will Jacob choose to do based on expected value theory? a. Buy a ticket from Lottery A because it has a higher expected value. b. Not buy either ticket because both lotteries have negative expected values. c. Buy a ticket from Lottery B because it has a higher expected value than Lottery A. d. Buy either ticket because both lotteries have the same expected value. 100. What would change depending on whether you used a word in a literal sentence or a sarcastic sentence? a. denotation b. phonemes c. connotation

d. morphemes

101. What kind of conclusion can we draw from the research on semantic slanting and name-calling? a. There is evidence that our thoughts may be shaped by language. b. The linguistic-relativity hypothesis has been established through empirical findings. c. The power of the situation must be considered in the decision-making process. d. The critical thinker does not appreciate that using your words carefully is important. 102. Recent research using brain-imaging technology shows that the brain reacts differently to syllables that are

either good or bad word candidates, even in infants. What can we conclude from this? a. The brain is hardwired to recognize sound patterns that make up human languages. b. There is no evidence of the effect of the instruction through teaching of language. c. There is no evidence for the effect of reinforcement in language development. d. Nativism is the only theoretical approach to language development which has demonstrated research support. 103. Malcolm has been watching a roulette-type game at a local charity bazaar. The game has only 10 numbers on

the wheel, and every number except 8 has come up as a winner during the last 15 minutes. Malcolm decides to bet $10 on number 8, because it has to come up eventually. What has influenced Malcolm’s choice in this case? a. gambler’s fallacy b. availability heuristic c. base rate fallacy d. conjunction fallacy 104. Which of the following is NOT one of the evolutionary advantages that language may have provided? a. reproductive and mating advantages b. more rapid classical conditioning c. more efficient hunting and gathering d. avoidance of predators and other dangers

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 105. What led to the “cognitive revolution” in the 1950s? a. renewed interest in the method of introspection b. improved technology for addressing the questions associated with cognition c. dissatisfaction with the limitations of behaviourism d. rejection of psychoanalytic methods of analysis 106. Seamus discovered ice cream, dolphins, and trains for the first time yesterday, and has started using those

words correctly right away. What does this example illustrate? a. overextension b. metalinguistic awareness c. semantic slanting d. fast mapping 107. What occurs when the word “oat” is changed to the word “boat”? a. The number of phonemes increase, but the number of morphemes stays the same. b. The number of phonemes and morphemes both increase. c. The number of phonemes stay the same, but the number of morphemes increase. d. The number of phonemes decrease, but the number of morphemes increase. 108. According to Kahneman, which system of thought are we invoking when we scan the environment at a

concert looking for a person wearing a red hoodie, when we complete our tax returns, or when we try to maintain a faster walking speed than is normal for us? a. slow thinking system b. fast thinking system c. system 1 thinking d. deliberation system of thought 109. Which term refers to the deliberate choice of words to create specific emotional responses? a. phonemic overextension b. belief perseverance c. linguistic relativity

d. semantic slanting

110. Which statement best describes syntax? a. Rules of syntax underlie word order in sentences. b. Syntax is the first component of language to be mastered by children. c. If speakers can use a rule of syntax, they will also be able to verbalize it. d. The process by which we learn the rules of syntax is well understood by psycholinguists. 111. Which of the following statements regarding the vocabulary spurt experienced by children is FALSE? a. Two-year-olds may learn up to two to three new words per day. b. On average, between Grade 1 and Grade 5, children’s vocabularies often quadruple. c. Fast mapping is one of the major strategies by which children increase their vocabulary. d. Although vocabularies expand quickly, children must still be exposed to words several times in order to

learn them.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 112. Allison reads a problem that states, “A person has 17 black socks and 14 blue socks jumbled together in

a drawer inside a dark room. What is the minimum number of socks they must remove from the drawer in order to guarantee a matching pair?” She is shocked that the answer is 3 socks! Allison fell victim to which of the following barriers to problem solving? a. functional fixedness b. mental set c. irrelevant information d. unnecessary constraints 113. Maribel is on a jury, and she is already convinced that the defendant in the case is not guilty. She listens very

attentively to everything the defence attorneys have to say, but she tends to pay less attention when the prosecution is presenting evidence. What seems to be influencing Maribel’s behaviour in this instance? a. overconfidence effect b. conjunction fallacy c. base-rate fallacy d. confirmation bias 114. Bob went to a $10 all-you-can-eat buffet. As he starts to eat the food, Bob realizes that it’s not very high

quality. Still, he eats until he feels overly full, almost uncomfortably full, so that he can feel that he got his money’s worth of food. This example best demonstrates which of the following aspects of reasoning? a. the sunk costs fallacy b. the availability heuristic c. semantic slanting d. bounded rationality 115. For which of the following reasons do we use “fast and frugal heuristics,” according to Gigerenzer? a. We typically make decisions under divided attention, so we don’t focus on the actual problem. b. Most humans can quickly and efficiently calculate the statistically optimal solution. c. We learn as children to use our best guess, rather than reason through the process. d. We often don’t have the time required to calculate every possible outcome or factor. 116. Why do diagrams sometimes facilitate problem solving? a. They aid in the search for analogies. b. They change the representation of the problem. c. They make it easier to execute algorithms. d. They relax constraints on problem solutions. 117. At about what age do babies start babbling? a. birth b. 1 month c. 3 months

d. 6 months

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 118. Fred needs major heart surgery, and he has consulted with two doctors about the operation. Dr. Marx tells

Fred he has a 90 percent chance of surviving the surgery; Dr. Scalli tells Fred there is a 10 percent chance that he won’t survive the surgery. What is most likely, based on Kahneman and Tversky’s research? a. Fred won’t care who does the surgery because both doctors have presented the same information. b. Fred will probably avoid deciding until it is too late. c. Fred is most likely to let Dr. Scalli perform the operation. d. Fred is most likely to let Dr. Marx perform the operation. 119. The phrase “girl to ball the the the kicked boy” makes no sense at all. However, rearranging the words to

make the phrase “the girl kicked the ball to the boy” does. This example best illustrates which of the following properties of language? a. generative b. semantic c. symbolic d. structured 120. Based on Masuda and Nisbett’s study on cognitive style, what conclusions can be made regarding cultural

differences in cognitive style? a. Cultural differences in cognitive style are mild. b. Cultural differences in cognitive style are substantial. c. There are no cross-cultural differences observed in cognitive style. d. The results were inconclusive. 121. What is the name of the chimp who learned to sign 160 words after her trainers taught her using American

Sign Language (ASL)? a. Washoe b. Gardner c. Willie d. Beatrice 122. Last year, 5-year-old Alonda would say “Him no coming” when explaining to her younger sister that their

older brother would be staying home. Now Alonda will tell her sister “He’s not coming.” Which aspect of language does this example illustrate development in? a. linguistic relativity b. phonemes c. morphemes d. syntax 123. Language has rules that govern the arrangement of words into phrases and sentences. What quality of

language does this reflect? a. phonemic b. continuity c. structured d. generative 124. Here is an example of a question: “Glove is to hand as sock is to _____.” What type of question is this? a. problem of arrangement b. ill-defined problem c. problem of transformation

d. problem of inducing structure

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 125. Here is an example of a question: “Apple is to fruit as hamburger is to _____.” What type of question is this? a. arrangement problem b. series-completion problem c. analogy problem

d. representativeness heuristic

126. For which of the following objects would you expect functional fixedness to be LOWEST? a. a novel object b. a familiar object c. a frequently used object

d. an object with a specific function

127. What is the term for basing the estimated probability of an event on the ease with which instances come to

mind? a. representativeness heuristic c. conjunction fallacy

b. law of small numbers d. availability heuristic

128. What is the likelihood of misleading results in a small sample, compared to the likelihood of misleading results

in a large sample? a. less in a small sample c. greater in a small sample

b. likelihood is unaffected by sample size d. same in both types of sample

129. In Masuda and Nisbett’s study on cognitive styles, what was the difference between Japanese and American

participants in their reports of what they had seen after viewing fish and underwater objects? a. Japanese participants tended to identify focal objects such as the fish whereas the Americans tended to identify background stimuli. b. Americans tended to identify focal objects such as the fish whereas Japanese participants tended to identify background stimuli. c. Both groups identified equal numbers of focal and background stimuli. d. The results were inconclusive. 130. What is functional fixedness? a. the inability to discover the relations among the parts of a problem b. the sudden discovery of the correct solution following incorrect attempts based primarily on trial and

error c. the inability to carry out a sequence of transformations in order to reach a specific goal d. the tendency to perceive an item only in terms of its most common use 131. For which of the following do we use syntax? a. combining morphemes into words b. combining phonemes to form morphemes c. arranging words into phrases and sentences d. using words symbolically

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 132. Which statement is consistent with Noam Chomsky’s theories of language? a. Reinforcement is the main factor in language learning. b. Biological factors play a relatively minor role in language development. c. There is an inborn biological propensity that guides language learning. d. Language is almost wholly a matter of social learning. 133. Wanda went to the supermarket. She began to feel overwhelmed as she noted 61 varieties of salad dressing.

What is most likely the problem Wanda is having, according to Barry Schwartz? a. She is overwhelmed by the number of choices and stressed as she attempts to make a decision. b. She is having a panic attack. c. She is unsatisfied and complaining that there are not enough options. d. Wanda is delusional. 134. Eva just upgraded her software package. However, even though the updated version contains a number of

more efficient methods for working with files, Eva continues to work with files the way she did before the upgrade. What is Eva showing evidence of in this case? a. belief perseverance b. priming c. the availability heuristic d. mental set 135. Assume that odds of a new computer requiring any type of service in the first two years are less than 1 in

10,000, and the average cost of any computer service call is only $50. However, Karen pays $200 for a two-year service contract on her new computer. She explains that her peace of mind is well worth the cost of the contract. What is Karen using to make her decision to purchase the service agreement in this case? a. noncompensatory factors b. subjective probability c. expected value d. subjective utility 136. A child says “wented” as the past tense of the verb “to go.” What type of common error is this? a. metalinguistic transformation b. semantic slanting c. overextension

d. overregularization

137. Researchers presented two groups of physicians with information regarding a surgical procedure. The first

group of physicians were told that, on average, 15 out of 100 people die as a result of the surgery; the remaining group of physicians were told that on average 85 out of 100 people survive the surgery. What should you expect? a. Both groups of physicians would recommend the surgical procedure to their patients. b. Neither group of physicians would recommend the surgical procedure to their patients. c. The first group of physicians would be more likely to recommend the surgical procedure to their patients. d. The second group of physicians would be more likely to recommend the surgical procedure to their patients.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 138. Avishay uses the word “bear” but only to describe his favourite teddy bear and no others. This is an example

of which of the following kinds of speech errors? a. overextension b. underextension c. underregularization d. overspecificity 139. Three-year-old Isaiah used to say “mick” when he wanted a drink of milk. Now he can say “milk” quite

clearly. What language component has Isaiah improved in this instance? a. morphemes b. phonemes c. syntax d. linguistic heuristics 140. Why do we make so many errors in decision making, according to the theory of bounded rationality? a. Our brains have evolved to solve problems that are different from many of the problems we currently

face in our modern environment. b. We are incapable of actually considering all the factors necessary to make an optimal decision. c. We have poor mathematical abilities, and so we miscalculate risks and benefits. d. We are far too affected by our emotions to make difficult decisions. 141. Which statement best describes babbling? a. Babies initially babble the sounds used in many different languages. b. Babies babble only sounds that are part of the parents’ language. c. Babbling simply involves imitation of the parents’ speech sounds. d. Babbling emerges only in infants who are not exposed to correct speech. 142. What occurs when the word “able” is changed to the word “table”? a. The number of phonemes and morphemes both increase. b. The number of phonemes decrease, but the number of morphemes increase. c. The number of phonemes stay the same, but the number of morphemes increase. d. The number of phonemes increase, but the number of morphemes stay the same. 143. You’ve been rolling a die for the last five minutes, and you haven’t rolled a 6 even once. What are you using if

you predict that the results of the next roll are independent of all other rolls? a. availability heuristic b. laws of probability c. representativeness heuristic d. gambler’s fallacy 144. Which of the following is a case of overextension? a. A word is incorrectly used to describe the opposite of its true meaning. b. A child uses a single word to signify an entire phrase or sentence. c. A word is incorrectly used for a wider set of objects or actions than it applies to. d. A child’s vocabulary has become overly large.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 145. When, approximately, did the cognitive revolution begin? a. 1910s b. 1930s c. 1950s

d. 1980s

146. Which of the following is NOT a cognitive activity? a. solving a problem b. remembering something c. blinking at something

d. making a decision

147. When people use language to refer to ethnic or racial groups, the wording is often slanted in either a positive

or negative direction. What does this reveal? a. the attitude of the speaker b. the behaviour of the speaker c. the subsequent thoughts of the listener d. the subsequent actions of the listener 148. Four-year-old Nina says, “I runned all the way home.” What does this likely indicate? a. Nina hears improper verb forms spoken in her home. b. Nina has forgotten the correct way to form the past tense. c. Nina is still relying on telegraphic speech to convey meaning. d. Nina is overregularizing a grammatical rule. 149. Kanika is arguing with his friends, claiming that because he grew up speaking a different language, he thinks in

a fundamentally different manner. With which of the following language theorists is Kanika’s view most similar? a. B. F. Skinner b. Benjamin Whorf c. Noam Chomsky d. Ellen Bialystok 150. With which of the following is Benjamin Whorf most associated? a. nativism b. behaviourism c. biological determinism

d. linguistic relativity

151. Which heuristic are you applying if you solve a current problem using the solution to a previous, similar

problem? a. formulating subgoals c. searching for analogies

b. working backward from the goal d. the availability heuristic

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Jesse Jesse was playing with marbles when one of the marbles fell into a heating vent in the floor. Jesse could see the marble, but he couldn’t reach it because the slats of the vent were too close together for his hand, and he couldn’t remove the lid. Jesse said, rather sarcastically to himself, “Well, that’s just fabulous.” He looked around the room for something that he could use to retrieve the marble. When he saw his juice glass with the straw in it, he got an idea. He took the straw, carefully lowered it into the vent until it touched the marble. Then he sucked on the straw so that it “grabbed” the marble as he gently raised it back up into his waiting hand. Quite pleased with himself, and a little dizzy, Jesse went back to playing marbles. 152. Which of the following is the youngest age you would expect Jesse to be, based on his use of sarcasm? a. 3 years b. 6 years c. 9 years d. 12 years 153. You’re deciding whether you should take a new medication. One review tells you that the medication has a 5

percent risk of a serious side effect. Another review tells you that 95 percent of patients do not experience that side effect. What differs between these two reviews? a. bounded rationality b. the algorithm c. representativeness d. framing 154. The idea that insight in problem solving arises from a sudden restructuring of the problems at an unconscious

level is known as which of the following views? a. business-as-usual b. activation-synthesis c. special process d. unconscious heuristic 155. What does the term “cognition” refer to? a. focusing awareness of a narrow range of stimuli or events b. mental processes involved in acquiring and using knowledge c. widely shared beliefs that are transmitted socially across generations d. use of language in a social context 156. Stating that “all good Canadians will agree . . .” is an example of which of the following? a. anticipatory name-calling b. the expectancy model c. retrograde name-calling d. Name-calling with the intention of invoking negative group membership

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 157. You believe that getting a degree in business will guarantee you a high-paying career. Every time you hear

about someone with a prestigious career and a business degree, you take this as evidence to support your belief. What will you NOT do if you are vulnerable to confirmation bias? a. Stick to your belief unless you hear a lot of supporting evidence. b. Selectively ignore information that runs contrary to your belief about business degrees. c. Look for more evidence that people with business degrees make a lot of money. d. Look for evidence that some people with business degrees have low-paying careers. 158. Batool believes that people are born with a predisposition toward being good people. Which of the following

types of theories is Batool’s? a. behaviourist b. sociocultural c. nativist d. psychoanalytic 159. Kailee has learned the word “kitty,” but she uses this word when she is referring to cats, bunnies, squirrels,

and other small furry animals. What does this example illustrate? a. babbling b. fast mapping c. telegraphic speech d. overextension 160. How many phonemes are in the word “Cheetos”? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6

d. 7

161. Some great apes, such as chimpanzees, can be taught to communicate using sign language. In this way, they

can convey meaningful messages that are grammatically correct. Critics, though, note that in many cases, the chimpanzee will only use the exact phrases that it was taught, in exactly the same way—never rearranging or modifying them in any way. To these critics, the chimpanzee would be missing which of the following fundamental components of true language? a. structure b. semantics c. generativity d. symbolism 162. Which statement best describes the act of solving problems containing numerical information? a. Insight will typically produce the fastest, most accurate solution to the problem. b. It is a good idea to start by trying to figure out how to use the numerical information. c. It is safe to assume that all of the information will be needed to solve the problem. d. You should start by figuring out which information is relevant to the problem. 163. What is predicted by the linguistic relativity hypothesis? a. People in all cultures think alike, despite their language differences. b. Language development consistently lags behind cognitive development. c. Language and thought develop independently. d. People will have difficulty thinking about things they cannot describe in words. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 164. What is produced in “babbling”? a. different cries to signify different kinds of discomfort b. a wide variety of phonemes and consonant–vowel combinations c. sound, by placing the tongue near the back of the mouth d. random combinations of words 165. Vanessa is a toddler, and she understands more words than she can actually say. The proper linguistic terms

for these aspects of language are which of the following? a. syntax and semantics b. receptive and productive vocabulary c. comprehension and vocalization d. semantics and generativity 166. By what age are children generally able to use linguistic concepts like past tense or plural? a. 1 years b. 3 years c. 5 years

d. 7 years

167. Dr. Peppard is studying cognitive flexibility and selective attention in bilingual and monolingual adults. What

pattern is Dr. Peppard most likely to see in the test scores of bilingual participants, based on the evidence from previous research studies? a. They score higher in cognitive flexibility, but lower in selective attention. b. They score lower in cognitive flexibility, but higher in selective attention. c. They score lower in both cognitive flexibility and selective attention. d. They score higher in both cognitive flexibility and selective attention. 168. The nativist theory suggests that humans are biologically equipped for language. Which term refers to the

innate mechanism which nativists propose people possess which facilitates the learning of language? a. language acquisition device b. field dependent learning c. the rules of language d. the amygdala 169. Mandy seldom corrects her 4-year-old’s grammatical errors, such as “Her drinked my milk.” However, she

is careful to correct factual errors, such as “Tiger ate his milk.” If Mandy’s child develops normal language skills, which theory is weakened by this evidence? a. the nativist view of language development b. the behavioural view of language development c. all major theories of language development d. the transformational theory of language development 170. What do we mean when we say that language is generative? a. The symbols used in the language are arbitrary. b. Language is both written and oral. c. A limited number of symbols can be combined to produce an infinite variety of messages. d. Sentences must be structured in a limited number of ways. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 171. According to the phenomenon of loss aversion, most people expect that the negative impact of losing $1000

will be greater than the positive impact of winning $1000. What would this phenomenon have an impact on? a. the informal development of schemas b. the types of decisions people make c. short-term memory d. collective intelligence 172. In some early studies, researchers attempted to teach chimpanzees to speak. What conclusions led to these

studies being discontinued? a. The reinforcement contingencies used in these studies were highly stressful for chimpanzees. b. Chimpanzees lack the necessary vocal equipment to produce human speech sounds. c. Chimpanzees lack the cognitive capacity to understand and produce language. d. Humans are the only species capable of conscious communication. 173. What is the smallest unit of meaning in a language? a. phrase b. morpheme c. phoneme

d. word

174. Harold knows that smoking increases the risk of a heart attack. For which of the following people will Harold

likely make the LEAST accurate judgment about the effects of smoking on heart attacks? a. himself b. his brother c. his grandmother d. a stranger 175. Dr. Prasad believes that experience with reinforcement determines which specific aspects of language an

individual will eventually master. Who would be most likely to agree with Dr. Prasad? a. Benjamin Whorf b. B. F. Skinner c. Noam Chomsky d. Herbert Simon 176. Megan’s parents both speak English, but she went to a French immersion school and is considered a fluent

English–French bilingual. When she is reading passages in English, or in French, which of the following would we expect in terms of activation of the different languages? a. Reading either English or French will only activate the relevant language. b. Reading English will only activate her first language, while reading French will activate both. c. Reading French will only activate her second language, while reading English will activate both. d. Reading either English or French will activate both languages.

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Jesse Jesse was playing with marbles when one of the marbles fell into a heating vent in the floor. Jesse could see the marble, but he couldn’t reach it because the slats of the vent were too close together for his hand, and he couldn’t remove the lid. Jesse said, rather sarcastically to himself, “Well, that’s just fabulous.” He looked around the room for something that he could use to retrieve the marble. When he saw his juice glass with the straw in it, he got an idea. He took the straw, carefully lowered it into the vent until it touched the marble. Then he sucked on the straw so that it “grabbed” the marble as he gently raised it back up into his waiting hand. Quite pleased with himself, and a little dizzy, Jesse went back to playing marbles. 177. What did it illustrate when Jesse recognized that the straw could be used for something other than drinking juice? a. using an algorithm b. overcoming functional fixedness c. overcoming the problem space d. using a trial-and-error approach 178. What is the connotation of a word? a. the separate sounds that make up the word b. its emotional overtones and secondary implications c. its dictionary definition d. a complex interaction between the word’s phonology and syntax 179. Janet Werker’s pioneering research on infants has led to which important question regarding language

development? a. Is there such a thing as a critical period? b. What processes open and close critical periods? c. Do babies babble? d. Do babies coo? 180. What are the adjectives that describe the four essential characteristics of language? a. symbolic, generative, phonemic, and structured b. syntactic, symbolic, generative, and semantic c. semantic, symbolic, structured, and generative d. generative, rule-governed, phonemic, and syntactic 181. What is a criticism of the behaviourist model of language acquisition? a. Children don’t seem to learn transformational rules as Skinner said they should. b. It is unreasonable to expect children to learn an infinite number of sentences by imitation. c. Children don’t respond to positive reinforcement until they are in preschool, after language is already

established. d. Its concepts are extremely vague.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 182. What cognitive tendency is described by the conjunction fallacy? a. drawing general conclusions based on a few isolated cases b. ignoring information about base rates when estimating the probabilities of certain combinations of

outcomes c. believing that the odds of two uncertain events happening together are greater than the odds of either event happening alone d. overestimating the odds of a chance event if that event hasn’t occurred recently 183. What are you demonstrating if you tend to persist in using the same problem-solving strategy time after time? a. delusion b. mental set c. illusion

d. generic insight

184. “Anyone who agrees with that decision must be an uneducated bigot.” What is the term for this type of

statement? a. linguistic relativity c. semantic overextension

b. framing d. anticipatory name-calling

185. Humans often appear irrational when you look at results of decision-making research. What explanation for

this tendency is given by evolutionary theorists? a. Problems studied by cognitive psychologists are different from the problems we evolved to solve. b. Lab studies use heuristics and algorithms rather than deductive reasoning. c. Most research compares humans to other animals, and other animals are more instinctive in their decision-making processes. d. Most decision-making research involves numerical problems, something that our ancestors did not face. 186. How are children able to learn a language, according to Skinner? a. It is a natural consequence of cognitive maturation, as the quality of thought improves with age. b. They imitate, and then parents provide reinforcement and shaping. c. It is a natural consequence of a complex and mature brain. d. They possess an innate language acquisition device. 187. What have we learned from studies in which researchers have attempted to teach chimpanzees and bonobos

to use nonverbal language (i.e., sign language or communication boards)? a. Some have appeared to learn many words and have combined words in appropriate ways. b. They are capable of learning language to a level equivalent to that seen in 10-year-old children. c. They are not capable of acquiring nonverbal communication. d. They can use nonverbal methods to communicate with other primates, but not with humans.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 188. What does functional fixedness refer to? a. not seeing a new function for a familiar object b. arriving at a particularly insightful solution to a problem c. continued use of problem-solving strategies that have worked in the past d. focusing on information that is irrelevant to the solution of the problem 189. According to Pinker and Bloom, if the acquisition of language was a trait variation that produced just 1

percent more offspring per generation, how long would it take to see an increase in prevalence from 0.1 percent to 99.9 percent? a. 3 generations b. 30 generations c. 4,000 generations d. 40,000 generations 190. Compare the number of phonemes and morphemes in the words “kitchen” and “bedroom.” a. “Kitchen” has more phonemes but the same number of morphemes. b. “Kitchen” has the same number of phonemes and the same number of morphemes. c. “Kitchen” has fewer phonemes but the same number of morphemes. d. “Kitchen” has fewer phonemes and fewer morphemes. 191. Which of the following speech sounds would you most expect to hear from a four-month-old? a. “ooooooh” b. “mama” c. “babababababa”

d. “up”

192. You and your friend just met a woman at the bookstore, and she recommended a very good book to you.

You guess, based on her appearance and demeanour, that she is a teacher. Your friend suggests that she is a teacher and also a writer. Your friend’s suggestion most likely involves which of the following? a. availability b. theory of bounded rationality c. conjunction fallacy d. representativeness heuristic 193. What is a result of having a confirmation bias? a. New information is interpreted as consistent with an existing belief. b. It allows people to make accurate decisions more quickly. c. It interferes with our ability to accurately code and store information. d. It tends to produce mental set and functional fixedness.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 194. When 3-year-old Garret is colouring a picture of a rainbow, he carefully selects different colours for each

stripe. When Garret is asked to name the colours he uses, he confidently answers “blue” each time. Garret can distinguish between the colours, even though he can’t accurately name them yet. What does this suggest? a. Social communication theory does not accurately reflect the link between language and behaviour. b. Social communication theory provides an accurate description of the link between language and behaviour. c. The linguistic relativity hypothesis does not accurately reflect the link between thought and language. d. The linguistic relativity hypothesis provides an accurate description of the link between thought and language. 195. Andrew has applied to law school and been accepted to both Dalhousie and Simon Fraser Universities. Now

he is evaluating his options and weighting these two alternatives. He must make a choice by the end of the month. Which term refers to the process Andrew is currently engaged in as he considers his options for law school? a. choice management b. decision making c. reality monitoring d. selective activation 196. Imagine that a race of extraterrestrials came to earth. These extraterrestrials quickly learned to use Earth

words to convey meaningful messages, and they were able to communicate effectively about unique aspects of their planet in meaningful sentences. Which statement best describes their communications? a. They would not be generative or structured but would be symbolic and semantic. b. They would have all the essential requirements for language. c. They would not be semantic or generative but would be structured and symbolic. d. They would not be symbolic or semantic but would be generative and structured. 197. When a child incorrectly uses a word to describe a narrower set of objects or actions than it is meant to,

which type of error is a child making? a. underextension b. telegraphic speech c. overextension d. undergeneralization 198. What is fast mapping? a. pacing of activity associated with gene expression b. relating words to underlying concepts after only one exposure c. a type of play a child engages in at an early age d. development of a mental representation of one’s environment

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Jesse Jesse was playing with marbles when one of the marbles fell into a heating vent in the floor. Jesse could see the marble, but he couldn’t reach it because the slats of the vent were too close together for his hand, and he couldn’t remove the lid. Jesse said, rather sarcastically to himself, “Well, that’s just fabulous.” He looked around the room for something that he could use to retrieve the marble. When he saw his juice glass with the straw in it, he got an idea. He took the straw, carefully lowered it into the vent until it touched the marble. Then he sucked on the straw so that it “grabbed” the marble as he gently raised it back up into his waiting hand. Quite pleased with himself, and a little dizzy, Jesse went back to playing marbles. 199. Which sort of basic problem does Jesse have to solve when he is confronted with a marble that he can’t reach? a. problem of arrangement b. problem of transformation c. an algorithmic problem d. problem of inducing structure 200. Jordan is driving home from work one day and is annoyed that construction work will force him to take a

detour. The construction lasts several weeks, and every day Jordan takes the same detour. On the day that the construction is finally completed, Jordan still takes the detour to his house, even though it is 10 minutes longer. Jordan’s error is most closely related to which of the following barriers to problem solving? a. unnecessary constraints b. mental set c. irrelevant information d. functional fixedness 201. Dr. McGrath believes that both an innate predisposition and a supportive environment contribute to language

development. Which language theory is Dr. McGrath’s views are most consistent with? a. behavioural b. interactionist c. nativist d. Whorfian 202. During the 1950s and 1960s, creative new ways of measuring mental processes paved the way for the

cognitive revolution. Which of your text’s unifying themes does the development of new research methods helps to illustrate? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. Psychology is empirical. 203. There is a limited time span during which a child is particularly responsive to experiences which impact

language development. Which term refers to this optimal period of development for language? a. acquisition period b. manual mode period c. critical period d. sensitive period

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 204. According to Herbert Simon, people do not always live up to ideal goals of rationality in making decisions.

Rather, they tend to use simple strategies which only focus on a few facets of the available options. What is this behavioural economic theory called? a. theory of bounded rationality b. framing c. theory of reference d. functional fixedness 205. How many phonemes does the English language use? a. approximately 450,000 phonemes, one for each word b. 26 phonemes, one for each letter of the alphabet c. about 40 phonemes, corresponding to the letters of the alphabet plus several variations d. all of the 100 or so phonemes that humans are capable of producing 206. What is metalinguistic awareness? a. knowledge of which verbs are irregular b. awareness of the role of positive reinforcement in language acquisition c. the ability to reflect on the use of language d. the tendency to recognize one’s own grammatical errors 207. Which of the following is an example of semantic slanting? a. changing the name of a restaurant so that it rhymes with the name of the city b. referring to a funeral as a “celebration of life” c. calling your enemy a moron d. seeing the glass as half full, rather than half empty 208. Which of the following speech sounds best represents the babbling phase? a. “mama” b. “aaaaaaaah” c. “babababababa”

d. “daddy work”

209. Judy has been asked to solve the tower of Hanoi problem whereby she has a goal of moving three rings from

one post to another post. There are rules to this problem which further complicate the task. Judy is concerned but has decided to break the problem down into intermediate steps. Which approach to problem solving is Judy using? a. forming subgoals b. using algorithms c. searching for analogies d. using heuristics 210. Which of the following would constitute underextension, if done by a 3-year-old child? a. using the word “dress” for all items of clothing b. only using the word “kitty” to refer to her own cat and not others c. forgetting the word “banana” because it was just learned today d. leaving words out of sentences, while retaining the basic meaning

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 211. What occurs when the word “jar” is changed to the word “jars”? a. The numbers of phonemes and morphemes both increase. b. The number of phonemes decreases, but the number of morphemes increases. c. The number of phonemes increases, but the number of morphemes stays the same. d. The number of phonemes stays the same, but the number of morphemes increases. 212. Dr. Sciorro believes that because the majority of children acquire language without any effort, there must be a

biological mechanism that facilitates language learning. Which theorist most closely mirror Dr. Sciorro’s views of language development? a. Benjamin Whorf b. B. F. Skinner c. Noam Chomsky d. Herbert Simon 213. Kamini is playing with her dolls and she points to one of her dolls and says to you, “Her wented out to a

party yesterday night.” This is a sentence that she has never heard another person say. Such utterances provide evidence against which view of language? a. interactionist b. cognitive c. nativist d. behaviourist 214. Kyle has a pounding headache and feels very sick and miserable. He has tickets to a rock concert tonight,

which he bought months ago, but feels like it would be excruciating to attend given his illness. Ultimately, Kyle decide to go to the concert so that he doesn’t waste the ticket. Kyle has just demonstrated which of the following? a. the conjunction fallacy b. the availability heuristic c. the sunk costs fallacy d. the representativeness heuristic 215. Juliana used to enjoy eating chicken, but since she has seen all the headlines about people becoming ill from

eating chicken, she has decided she will never eat chicken again. What influenced Juliana’s decision to stop eating chicken? a. overconfidence effect b. representativeness heuristic c. conjunction fallacy d. availability heuristic 216. Who has been the most well-known supporter of the linguistic relativity hypothesis? a. Benjamin Whorf b. Jiaying Zhao c. B. F. Skinner

d. Herbert Simon

217. After seeing your new neighbour walking very stiffly and primly by your house wearing horn-rimmed glasses

on a chain, a cardigan sweater, and her hair in a bun, you decide she must be a librarian. What are you using to make this judgment? a. subjective probability b. subjective utility c. availability heuristic d. representativeness heuristic

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 218. Which statement does NOT accurately describe phonemes? a. Some letters of the alphabet may correspond to more than one phoneme. b. Phonemes can be combined into morphemes. c. Some phonemes are represented by letter combinations, such as st. d. All sentences spoken in a given language are made up of some combination of that language’s

phonemes. 219. You applied for a job at a local store. You got an interview but were not offered a position. The next week,

you see a very pretty new girl working behind the counter. You tell your friends that you didn’t get the job because the manager hired the pretty girl rather than someone who was better qualified for the job. A week later, one of your friends tells you that the girl who was hired had four years of retail experience and glowing letters of reference. You still believe that her looks got her the job. What does your opinion demonstrate? a. availability heuristic b. overestimation of the improbable c. belief perseverance d. mental set 220. Miryam has been following the provincial lottery for over a year, and she has a record of the number of times

every number has been selected. She is going to start purchasing tickets for each draw with the same sixnumber combination on each ticket. She is going to choose the six numbers that have occurred the least frequently in the last year because she is sure they will be picked eventually. What has influenced Miryam’s choice of numbers in this case? a. availability heuristic b. conjunction fallacy c. base rate fallacy d. gambler’s fallacy 221. Dale is in Grade 5 and his sister Alina is in Grade 1. What major difference would you expect in comparing

their vocabularies? a. Dale’s will contain several hundred more words than Alina’s. b. Dale’s will contain approximately 30,000 more words than Alina’s. c. Dale’s will be only slightly larger than Alina’s but will contain very few errors. d. Dale’s vocabulary will be similar in size, but his syntax will be far superior. 222. Which term refers to the approach to problem solving which is best used when whether you solve the

problem hinges on how you envision it? a. changing the representation of the problem b. taking a break c. incubation d. changing the analogy of the problem

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 223. Elisa is entering survey data from adult males in a research study. One respondent has listed his height as 6

feet 5 inches, but the occupation is hard to decipher. Elisa thinks it might be basketball player or bank president. She decides to enter basketball player as the occupation, because he is so tall. What did Elisa do in this case? a. demonstrated the conjunction fallacy in making her decision b. demonstrated overextension in making her decision c. probably relied on the representativeness heuristic to make her decision d. probably relied on the availability heuristic to make her decision Jesse Jesse was playing with marbles when one of the marbles fell into a heating vent in the floor. Jesse could see the marble, but he couldn’t reach it because the slats of the vent were too close together for his hand, and he couldn’t remove the lid. Jesse said, rather sarcastically to himself, “Well, that’s just fabulous.” He looked around the room for something that he could use to retrieve the marble. When he saw his juice glass with the straw in it, he got an idea. He took the straw, carefully lowered it into the vent until it touched the marble. Then he sucked on the straw so that it “grabbed” the marble as he gently raised it back up into his waiting hand. Quite pleased with himself, and a little dizzy, Jesse went back to playing marbles. 224. As Jesse was attempting to solve the problem, he got an idea when he saw the straw in the juice glass. What is the term that is used for recognizing a solution to a problem in this way? a. field dependence b. anagram c. mental set d. insight 225. Valerie is 18 months old. What should her productive vocabulary consist of? a. fewer than 3 words b. 3 to 50 words c. 100 to 200 words

d. about 500 words

226. According to Pinker and Bloom, how many generations would it have taken for Neanderthals to become

extinct if the acquisition of language produced a 1 percent difference in mortality rates among overlapping Neanderthal and human populations? a. 10 generations b. 30 generations c. 4,000 generations d. 30,000 generations 227. Which of the following provides an example of functional fixedness? a. using a pair of pliers as a paperweight b. using a tire as a swing seat and as a football throwing target c. using a wine bottle as a rolling pin d. using a juice glass as a container for orange juice

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 228. Overregularizations occur as children master language skills. Which theory of language development does this

provide evidence against? a. behavioural b. linguistic relativity c. interactionist d. nativist 229. Greeno’s basic categories of problems were described in your text. Which category are series-completion

problems examples of? a. transformation b. inducing structure c. arrangement d. recategorization 230. You flip a fair coin 10 times. Each time it comes up heads, you get 10 cents. Each time it comes up tails, you

lose 5 cents. What is your expected value for each flip of the coin? a. –2.5 cents b. +2.5 cents c. –5 cents d. +5 cents 231. What is known about the use of telegraphic speech across cultures? a. Telegraphic speech is more prevalent in Western cultures than in non-Western cultures. b. The emergence of telegraphic speech is unique to the English language. c. The emergence of telegraphic speech is a cross-cultural, universal aspect of language development. d. Although telegraphic speech occurs in many languages, it is not a universal aspect of language

development. 232. Some researchers have reported that in the first few months, babies who are born deaf still coo and babble,

just like babies who can hear. Which theory is most supported by this evidence? a. linguistic relativity b. behavioural c. nativist d. cognitive 233. Which type of rule is violated in the following “sentence”: “The nervous the stared thick at exam student”? a. syntax b. psycholinguistics c. heuristic

d. denotation

234. Which situation would lead you to suspect that the child has a language development problem? a. A 1-year-old child understands a few words and can say a few words. b. A 2-year-old child babbles and uses a few words. c. A 3-year-old child uses grammar correctly around 75 percent to 80 percent of the time. d. A 5-year-old child can use language much better than a chimpanzee.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 235. What is the correct order of the milestones in language development? a. cooing, babbling, first words, two-word sentence b. babbling, cooing, first words, two-word sentence c. babbling, first words, overregularizations, two-word sentence d. cooing, first words, babbling, one-word sentence, syntax 236. Penny saw a man walking toward her with a baseball bat, and she immediately decided that she was in

danger. She then thought carefully about her situation and realized that she was at a park with a baseball diamond, so the man was probably just going there to practise. Which decision-making model accounts for both attributions? a. dual-process theory b. bounded rationality c. field independence d. trial-and-error 237. The objective value of an outcome to a particular problem is usually clear and concise. Subjective utility, on

the other hand, tends to carry with it a great deal of variability. What exactly is meant by subjective utility in the decision-making process? a. what the outcome is personally worth to the individual b. what the outcome is worth in social bargaining units c. the value of the outcome where there is risk involved d. subjective probability 238. Dr. Ji presents participants with three images (e.g., a cow, a chicken, and some grass) and asks them to

indicate which one does not belong. She is interested in cultural differences and notices that some of her participants say that the grass doesn’t belong (since cows and chickens are both animals) while others say the chicken doesn’t belong (since cows eat grass). A person who responded “grass” in this study would most likely have which of the following cognitive styles? a. analogical b. holistic c. analytic d. heuristic 239. Jenna is 14 months old and uses only “bottle,” “no,” “up,” “bye-bye,” “mama,” and “dada” when she talks.

However, when her father tells Jenna to get her blue bunny from the bedroom and bring it to him, Jenna quickly runs to get the bunny. What does this example illustrate? a. Children can overextend their vocabulary, when the situation demands it. b. Jenna likely has a speech impediment. c. Infants have difficulty pronouncing phonemes they have never heard. d. Toddlers’ receptive vocabularies are larger than their productive vocabularies.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 240. Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by the fact that choices which are objectively identical can

seem very different when reframed in different terms? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. 241. Which of your text’s unifying themes is partly illustrated by the fact that variations in cognitive style sometimes

reflect the ecological demands of one’s environment? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. 242. What type of problem are you solving if you reorganize the letters “OSHOT” to form an English word? a. lexical analysis b. inducing structure c. arrangement

d. transformation

243. Which statement best describes effective decision making? a. Effective decision making always requires careful analysis of the alternatives b. Effective decision making always involves thoughtful deliberation c. Effective decision making may be fast and use frugal heuristics d. Intuition is not a reliable or effective strategy for making effective decisions. 244. Rose enjoys doing crossword puzzles on the weekend. Sometimes she completes an Across word that gives

her the first letter for a series of Down words. She finds the Down words much easier to complete in this situation, compared to the times when she gets some other letter position from the Across clue (e.g. the second letter of each of the words). This is most consistent with which of the following? a. conjunction fallacy b. representativeness heuristic c. bounded rationality d. availability heuristic 245. Riley’s algebra teacher is amazed at the creativity Riley shows in solving homework problems. He seldom

uses the same method on two consecutive problems, even when the problems are very similar in content and structure. Although Riley makes lots of mistakes in algebra, what is he unlikely to experience? a. mental set in his problem solving b. functional fixedness in his problem solving c. overregularization in his problem solving d. noncompensatory problem solving

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 246. What type of understanding is illustrated by Kanzi (the famous bonobo) and his ability to distinguish between

“Pour the Coke in the lemonade” and “Pour the lemonade in the Coke”? a. syntax, but not semantics b. both syntax and semantics c. neither syntax nor semantics

d. semantics, but not syntax

247. Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by interactionist theories of language development? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Psychology is empirical. 248. Esmeralda wants to use her roommate’s computer to work on her term paper, but the roommate has

password-protected the computer. Rather than starting at “a” and systematically testing every possible word in the English language, Esmeralda tries using her roommate’s birthdate and pets’ names. What is Esmeralda using in this case? a. representativeness b. reframing c. an algorithm d. a heuristic 249. A sales representative from an investment company is trying to convince a young couple to invest in one of

the company’s mutual funds. What will most increase his likelihood of success, based on the framing effect? a. He leaves a detailed prospectus containing a lot of statistical analyses. b. He stresses that the fund has lost money in only 3 of the past 15 years. c. He stresses that the fund has had solid returns in 12 of the past 15 years. d. He mentions the names of other people who have invested in the fund. 250. Salvador hates to work through the problems on his calculus assignments step by step, and he often tries

shortcuts that might save him some time. What does Salvador prefer to use? a. heuristics b. functional fixedness c. analogies d. algorithms 251. Michiko lives in Japan, and Krystal, Michiko’s pen pal, lives in Canada. Based on the research by Nisbett

and his colleagues into cultural differences in cognitive styles, which styles should you predict that each person will tend to use? a. Michiko will be heuristic, and Krystal will be algorithmic. b. Michiko will be holistic, and Krystal will be analytic. c. Michiko will be field independent, and Krystal will be field dependent. d. Michiko will be heuristic, and Krystal will be holistic.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 252. Which statement does NOT accurately describe babbling? a. The sounds babbled by babies from different cultures are different right from the start. b. Infants’ first words are similar, even in different languages. c. Infants’ first words are likely to consist of sounds that are easy to produce. d. Infants’ first words resemble the syllables they babble spontaneously. 253. As Dr. Trelawny marks the first three midterms for her class, she notes that the grades are very high. She then

thinks that this class must be exceptionally bright. What is Dr. Trelawny using to make this illogical assumption? a. gambler’s fallacy b. overestimating the improbable c. confirmation bias d. belief in the law of small numbers 254. You attempt possible solutions to a problem, then discard the ones that don’t work until you find one that

does. What is this method of problem solving called? a. working backward b. algorithmic c. trial and error d. heuristic 255. When Graham uses the printer in the library, the paper keeps jamming in the machine. He takes the paper out

of the paper tray, fans it, and then flips it over, so the other side of the paper feeds first. This is the way he solves similar problems on the photocopy machine at the office where he works. Which problem-solving heuristic is consistent with Graham’s method of solving the problem? a. working backward b. searching for analogies c. means-end analysis d. trial and error 256. A national coffee store has a promotion in which consumers can win prizes by peeling stickers off the cups of

coffee that they buy. The coffee store has numerous ads that state that “one in five cups is a winner!” rather than the less-catchy “four in five cups lose” slogan. Which of the following differs between these slogans? a. bounded rationality b. linguistic relativity c. representativeness d. framing 257. Jenny must estimate which of two cities has a larger population in its metropolitan area. Although she doesn’t

know the populations very well, she is able to guess that Atlanta has a higher population than Kansas City. She guessed this because she was more familiar with Atlanta since it has an NHL hockey team. This example demonstrates which of the following? a. representativeness heuristic b. availability heuristic c. gambler's fallacy d. recognition heuristic

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 258. Outline the key properties of language and use these properties to evaluate the ape-language controversy.

259. Compare and contrast the behaviourist and nativist theories of language acquisition. What is the interactionist

view, and how has it arisen out of dissatisfaction with the other two approaches?

260. Name and describe the three types of problems identified by Greeno (1978) and provide at least two

examples of each.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. d 8. d 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. c 26. d

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. d 31. d 32. b 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. a 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. c 52. c 53. a 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 55. d 56. c 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. a 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. d 66. c 67. c 68. d 69. a 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. a 77. a 78. b 79. c 80. a 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 83. d 84. b 85. b 86. a 87. b 88. a 89. a 90. d 91. b 92. c 93. a 94. a 95. c 96. c 97. d 98. d 99. c 100. c 101. a 102. a 103. a 104. b 105. c 106. d 107. a 108. a 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 111. d 112. c 113. d 114. a 115. d 116. b 117. d 118. d 119. d 120. b 121. a 122. d 123. c 124. d 125. c 126. a 127. d 128. c 129. b 130. d 131. c 132. c 133. a 134. d 135. d 136. d 137. d

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 138. b 139. b 140. b 141. a 142. d 143. b 144. c 145. c 146. c 147. a 148. d 149. b 150. d 151. c 152. b 153. d 154. c 155. b 156. a 157. d 158. c 159. d 160. b 161. c 162. d 163. d 164. b 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 166. b 167. d 168. a 169. b 170. c 171. b 172. b 173. b 174. a 175. b 176. d 177. b 178. b 179. b 180. c 181. b 182. c 183. b 184. d 185. a 186. b 187. a 188. a 189. c 190. d 191. a 192. c 193. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 194. c 195. b 196. b 197. a 198. b 199. a 200. b 201. b 202. d 203. c 204. a 205. c 206. c 207. b 208. c 209. a 210. b 211. a 212. c 213. d 214. c 215. d 216. a 217. d 218. c 219. c 220. d 221. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 222. a 223. c 224. d 225. b 226. b 227. d 228. a 229. b 230. b 231. d 232. c 233. a 234. b 235. a 236. a 237. a 238. c 239. d 240. a 241. d 242. c 243. c 244. d 245. a 246. b 247. c 248. d

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 249. c 250. a 251. b 252. a 253. d 254. c 255. b 256. d 257. d 258. Language is symbolic, and thus it allows us to communicate about objects and events that are distant in time and

place. Although the symbols in language are arbitrary, they have shared meanings for those who speak the same language, and so language is semantic. Language is also generative; its limited symbols can be combined to form an infinite variety of messages. Finally, language is structured. Although an infinite number of sentences is possible, these must be constructed in a limited number of ways. The communications of the trained chimps are clearly symbolic and semantic. Evidence regarding generativity is more questionable. Although chimps have generated many new combinations of symbols, doubts have been raised as to whether these sentences are truly spontaneous and creative. For the most part, evidence for chimps’ grasp of language structure has been negative. A notable exception, however, is Sue Savage-Rumbaugh’s training of the chimp Kanzi, who appeared to master rules of syntax. Her study raises the possibility that language may not be a uniquely human capacity. 259. Behaviourists represent the extreme “nurture” position on this issue. First proposed by Skinner, the behaviourist

view is that language is conditioned through imitation and reinforcement. Being understood, getting what you asked for, and being responded to in a conversation are powerful reinforcers that shape children’s increasingly complex vocalizations. Nativists, as exemplified by Noam Chomsky, represent the extreme “nature” position on this issue. Impressed with the apparent ease and rapidity with which young children acquire language, and critical of the inefficiency of imitation and reinforcement as the underlying processes, Chomsky proposed that humans have an innate “language acquisition device.” In this view, the brain is preprogrammed to acquire language effortlessly, with minimal input. According to Chomsky, children learn the rules of language, rather than specific word combinations. Mirroring the history of the nature-nurture debate in general, the interactionist view regards both approaches as too extreme, asserting instead that heredity and environment both contribute significantly to language development. While acknowledging our biological preparedness for learning language, interactionists also regard children’s social exchanges with parents and others as crucial. Thus, language depends on both an innate predisposition and a supportive environment.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol 1 260. Problems of inducing structure: The subject must discover the relations among the parts of the problem.

Examples include series-completion problems and analogy problems. Problems of arrangement: The subject must arrange the parts of a problem in a way that satisfies some criterion (although the specific goal state is not known). These are generally solved in a flash of insight after a period of trial and error. Anagrams and the strong problems are an example of this type of problem. Problems of transformation: The subject must carry out a sequence of transformations in order to reach a specific goal. These problems are generally solved by carrying out a sequence of planned steps. The Hobbits and Orcs problem and the water jar problem are examples of this.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following is an example of the statement that “language is generative”? a. The word “dog” can be used in a variety of novel sentences. b. You can use the word “dog” to refer to an animal that isn’t currently present. c. The phrase “the dog bit the man” means something different from “the man bit the dog.” d. You can use the word “dog” to refer to a variety of different individual animals. 2. Stella ran a small business for years. Her business has gotten much larger now, and she finds that she is having problems using all the business strategies that worked very well for her in the past. Which of the following problems with problem solving is Stella facing? a. functional fixedness b. unnecessary constraints c. irrelevant information d. mental set 3. If you know that a family has four children, and you are using the representativeness heuristic, which of the following configurations would you expect in that family? a. three boys and one girl b. three girls and one boy c. four children of the same sex d. two boys and two girls 4. What was Benjamin Lee Whorf’s classic example of how people with different languages perceive the world differently? a. Spanish versus English views of plants b. French versus English views of bread c. Russian versus German views of water d. English versus Inuit views of snow 5. What does it mean that there are optimal periods for the development of language and even times during which learning is critical? a. If language is not developed during that time frame, it cannot be developed later. b. Language development is very important at that time. c. Language development is necessary but can be established at a later date if necessary. d. Trial and error cannot produce adequate results within this time frame. 6. Which task is involved in analogy problems such as “Dog is to puppy as cat is to ____”? a. inducing structure b. arrangement c. mental set d. transformation 7. A political party has released a new TV ad that is intended to point out the differences in finance policies between its campaign, and the campaign of the competing party. Which tactic is most likely to be used, if the ad contains semantic slanting? a. clear statements that the two parties have very different views b. overly complicated language that is intended to cause confusion c. words that are chosen for their emotional impact d. statements that are deceptive or contain only partial truth

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 8. People often assume that it is necessary to use all the numerical information provided in a problem to solve the problem. In reality, numerical information sometimes makes it more difficult to solve a problem. Why? a. The information results in a mental set. b. The information may be irrelevant. c. The information puts unnecessary constraints on the problem solver. d. The information encourages functional fixedness. 9. Who suggested that children learn language through imitation, reinforcement, and shaping? a. B. F. Skinner b. Ivan Pavlov c. Noam Chomsky d. Benjamin Lee Whorf 10. What is typically included in telegraphic speech? a. nouns and verbs b. nouns, verbs, and articles c. only nouns d. only verbs 11. Ashley has just had her first-ever flat tire. She realizes that she needs to find where the spare tire and the jack and other tools are stored in the car, remove the flat tire, and install the spare tire. Which heuristic is Ashley using to approach the problem? a. forming subgoals b. changing the representation of the problem c. working backward d. searching for analogies 12. Which class of problems is often solved with a burst of insight? a. transformation b. induced structure c. probability d. arrangement 13. Your professor gives two separate grades for essay questions on exams; the first is for content or meaning, and the second is for grammar. What aspects of language are represented by the two grades? a. The first is for semantics, and the second is for syntax. b. The first is for syntax, and the second is for semantics. c. The first is for morphemes, and the second is for phonemes. d. The first is for phonemes, and the second is for morphemes. 14. Why do cognitive psychologists focus on the mistakes that people tend to make in decision making? a. Understanding errors allows us to understand the normal process of decision making. b. It allows for a greater understanding of mental disorders. c. Errors are rare, so they establish the boundaries between what is possible and what is not. d. It provides evidence that we have not evolved to solve problems efficiently. 15. Tina and Steph are both trying to decide whether to try a new diet. Tina reads that 30 percent of people lose significant amounts of weight on the diet, whereas Steph reads that 70 percent of people fail to lose significant amounts of weight. What differs between these two pieces of information? a. framing b. conjunction c. base rates d. algorithms Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 16. What are the smallest units of meaning in a language? a. phonemes b. sounds c. words d. morphemes 17. If you are using the availability heuristic, what are you using to estimate the probability of an event? a. the ease with which relevant instances of the event come to mind b. how long it has been since the event last occurred c. whether the event occurs in combination with another event d. how similar it is to the prototype of that event 18. Cross-cultural variations have been found in problem solving. How do people from North America and Europe tend to solve problems? a. They use a holistic cognitive style. b. They focus on the context in solving problems. c. They focus on the relationship among elements of a problem. d. They use an analytic cognitive style. 19. Children produce various errors like overregularizations that they would not have heard from the adults or other models around them. Which theory of language acquisition is weakened by this evidence? a. emergentist theory b. interactionist theory c. behaviourist theory d. nativist theory 20. Who suggested that language determines the nature of one’s thought? a. Carl Jung b. Ivan Pavlov c. Noam Chomsky d. Benjamin Lee Whorf 21. Which perspective on language acquisition can best explain a young child (whose parents speak grammatical English) saying, “Yesterday I goed to the zoo”? a. learning theory b. nativist theory c. linguistic relativity theory d. behaviourist theory 22. Your father has a problem: what to get your mother for her birthday. He mentally reviews her reaction to presents he has given her in the past (a necklace, concert tickets, an ice cream maker). If he decides to get her tickets to the theatre because she seemed to like a fun night out more than the other items, which approach to problem solving would your father be using? a. trial and error b. forming subgoals c. changing the representation of the problem d. searching for analogies 23. Which area of language is concerned with understanding the meaning of words and word combinations? a. semantics b. grammar c. syntax d. vocabulary

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 24. Toddlers are immersed in a language-learning environment at all times, whereas adults who are learning a second language often do so on a part-time basis. Which theory of language acquisition is weakened by this confounding variable? a. emergentist theory b. interactionist theory c. nativist theory d. behaviourist theory 25. According to evolutionary psychologists, what is the human mind designed to handle? a. base rates and probabilities rather than raw frequencies b. constrained problems rather than problems with a variety of possible outcomes c. specific adaptive problems rather than artificial “laboratory” problems d. representative heuristics rather than availability heuristics 26. Which of the textbook’s unifying themes do interactionist theories of language development best reflect? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 27. Which of the following is the best example of overregularization? a. “Cookie.” b. “I eated a cookie.” c. “I want a cookie.” d. “Give cookie.” 28. Which statements does NOT accurately describe the ability of animals to acquire language? a. The ability to use language—in a very basic, primitive way—may not be entirely unique to humans. b. Animals have never shown behaviour that suggests an understanding of grammatical rules. c. Questions remain concerning whether the language-like behaviour of animals demonstrates all the critical properties of language. d. Some language-like skills have been taught to a number of species. 29. Some languages have a single colour name that includes both blue and green. What impact does this have the speakers? a. It affects their colour perception. b. It has no impact on them. c. It makes them happy. d. It makes them sad. 30. What is the term for the process by which a child learns a new word after only one exposure to the word? a. overextension b. fast mapping c. underextension d. logical reasoning 31. What is one cognitive advantage of bilingualism? a. the use of retention control to handle the demands of two languages b. the use of executive control processes to “juggle” the two languages c. higher processing speed d. increased vocabulary

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 32. Chimpanzees are intelligent primates and can develop some rudimentary language skills, albeit mostly evidenced through sign language and not speech. What is the primary barrier that prevents chimpanzees from learning to speak? a. They do not have the appropriate vocal apparatus. b. Their main form of communication is gestural, rather than vocal. c. They cannot focus their attention on a complex cognitive task like word-learning. d. They cannot grasp the symbolic aspects of human language. 33. Arguing from an evolutionary perspective, what do Leda Cosmides and John Tooby suggest that human reasoning depends on? a. complex heuristics based on lifelong learning b. inferential heuristics c. “dumb and dumber” heuristics d. specialized cognitive mechanisms for natural problems 34. Which aspect of human language suggests that language is an innate human characteristic? a. Among all species, only humans use communication. b. Language is symbolic. c. Language is structured. d. Language is universal in human societies. 35. Why was cognition somewhat ignored as a topic of study in psychology for many years? a. It can’t be studied in animals, so few researchers were interested. b. The equipment that is necessary to image the brain was not developed yet. c. Interest in psychodynamic theory dominated the field. d. It is incredibly difficult to study thoughts in a controlled manner because of the unobservable nature of introspection. 36. Which argument would a proponent of the linguistic relativity hypothesis likely make? a. The languages of people in cold climates have richer vocabularies for describing water than do the languages of people from warmer climates. b. The languages of people in warm climates have richer vocabularies for describing snow than do the languages of people from colder climates. c. The languages of people in warm climates have richer vocabularies for describing water than do the languages of people from colder climates, d. The languages of people in cold climates have richer vocabularies for describing snow than do the languages of people from warmer climates. 37. Which of the following best describes the discrimination ability of three-month-old infants? a. They distinguish all the phonemes in their native language. b. They distinguish all the morphemes in their native language. c. They distinguish all the morphemes in all the world’s languages. d. They distinguish all the phonemes in all the world’s languages.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 38. Cross-cultural variations have been found in problem solving. How do people from Eastern Asian cultures tend to solve problems? a. They use a holistic cognitive style. b. Avoiding the distraction of context in solving problems. c. By downplaying the relationship among elements of a problem. d. They use an analytic cognitive style. 39. What is a benefit of bilingualism? a. It is associated with higher controlled processing in tasks that require control and attention. b. It provides an advantage in language-processing speed. c. It leads to better decision making. d. It provides an advantage in spatial-processing speed. 40. When is the trial-and-error approach to problem solving most effective? a. when there are no time constraints on solving the problem b. when there is a relatively large number of possible solutions c. when a solution to the problem must be found quickly d. when there is a relatively small number of possible solutions 41. Which term refers to the mental processes which are involved in acquiring knowledge? a. cognition b. operant conditioning c. memory d. heuristics 42. Darcy enjoys a day at the racetrack and doesn’t really care if she ends up with a little more or little less money at the end of the day. What most likely influences Darcy’s decision to go to the racetrack? a. expected value b. subjective utility c. unexpected value d. objective utility 43. What is the confirmation bias? a. the tendency to agree with arguments that are presented with a positive emotional valence b. the belief that present evidence supports previous evidence even if they are completely unrelated c. the tendency to seek only information that is likely to support one’s decisions and beliefs d. the belief that the odds of a chance event increase if the event hasn’t occurred recently 44. Seven-year-old Thalia told her mother that the boys playing tag outside were “chasing each other around like puppies.” What is reflected in Thalia’s use of the metaphor? a. metalinguistic awareness b. overextension c. overregularization d. changes in her mean length of utterance 45. What do we call the tendency to think of a hammer as only a tool to hammer nails and not as a weapon, a lever, or a weight to prop open a door? a. functional fixedness b. unnecessary constraints c. irrelevant information d. a mental set

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 46. One of the main goals of Scrabble is to use a series of randomly selected letters to form words. Scrabble can best be described as a game that involves which of the following type of problem? a. functional fixedness b. transformation c. arrangement d. inducing structure 47. When children are raised speaking both French and English, what is the impact on their vocabulary? a. They learn the same amount of words but at a slower rate. b. The number of language milestones they reach in English is limited. c. Their spatial abilities are limited and impair vocabulary. d. The size of their vocabulary is similar or slightly superior to that of children learning a single language. 48. Ella and her team are struggling to come up with a way to promote a new product in an advertising campaign. They seem to have hit a barrier in their discussions and they are not able to make decisions or solve immediate problems. Ella suggests that they all go home and “sleep on it,” and start fresh the next day. What is a likely benefit of Ella’s suggestion? a. functional fixedness b. transformation effect c. incubation effect d. induced structure 49. According to B. F. Skinner, what allows children to learn how to construct grammatical sentences? a. receiving specific instruction from adults on grammatical rules b. nonreinforced trial and error c. imitation and shaping d. the functioning of the language acquisition device (LAD) 50. When Matthew is taking a multiple-choice exam, he uses the rule “When in doubt, pick C.” Which of the following is illustrated by this example? a. trial and error b. forming subgoals c. an analogy d. a heuristic 51. The vocabulary and style of communication used by Washoe, the chimp who was raised by researchers to use sign language, was sufficient for some basic communication with humans. Which of the following children would have a communication level that is similar to that of Washoe? a. a one-year-old child who has spoken a few words b. a two-year old child who produces telegraphic speech c. a four-year-old child who shows evidence of overregularization d. a six-year-old child who is learning to read 52. Which hypothesis is supported if a culture that has no word for the colour pink cannot quickly perceive the difference between pink and another colour? a. metalinguistic awareness hypothesis b. interactionist hypothesis c. nativist hypothesis d. linguistic relativity hypothesis 53. What is the same between the two sentences “Ari hit Boris” and “Boris hit Ari”? a. semantics b. syntax c. morpheme structure d. symbolic structure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 54. When do children make their largest strides in language development? a. in the first year b. in the first four to five years c. in Grades 4 to 6 d. in junior high 55. Which of the following is least likely to be one of the first words a child would learn? a. ball b. red c. eat d. juice 56. Which heuristic is reflected in our tendency to overestimate the probability of improbable events? a. availability heuristic b. representativeness heuristic c. gambler’s heuristic d. conjunction heuristic 57. When did the cognitive revolution in psychology occur? a. the 1880s b. the 1920s c. the 1950s d. the 1980s 58. Which of the following is an example of how cognitive psychology attempts to study thought processes as they relate to real-world challenges? a. the study of decision making processes b. exposure of the solution to the matchstick problem c. the study of mental set d. through interactionist theories of language acquisition 59. People often find it difficult to solve a problem by using a familiar object in a novel way. What is this called? a. a mental set b. unnecessary constraints c. irrelevant information d. functional fixedness 60. What are the smallest speech units in a language that can be distinguished perceptually? a. sounds b. morphemes c. words d. phonemes 61. Which of the following statements provides support for the linguistic relativity hypothesis? a. Some cultures have words for important items that don’t exist in other cultures. b. Cultural words for colours affect perceptual abilities to distinguish among colours. c. Children across cultures develop babbling at roughly the same age. d. Learning multiple languages is associated with cognitive benefits. 62. Rules exist that govern how words may be combined into phrases and sentences. What property of language is reflected by such rules? a. Language is generative. b. Language is semantic. c. Language is structured. d. Language is symbolic.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 63. According to cognitive psychologists, what is problem solving? a. It is the sudden discovery of the correct solution following incorrect solutions. b. It refers to active efforts to discover what must be done to achieve a goal that is not readily attainable. c. It involves making choices under conditions of uncertainty. d. It involves evaluating alternatives and making choices among them. 64. According to interactionist theories of language development, what is necessary for adult language production? a. shaping and reinforcement during childhood b. intentional instruction by caregivers c. innate predisposition for language development d. evolved predisposition for language and social interaction to shape development of language 65. According to Steven Pinker, what is human language ability? a. a species-specific trait that results from specific learning experiences b. a behavioural trait that differs dramatically among cultures c. a species-specific trait that resulted from natural selection d. a behavioural trait that reflects societal values 66. Which class of problems (as described by Greeno) involves discovering the relations among the parts of the problem? a. transformation b. arrangement c. probability d. inducing structure 67. Erica points to the bus and calls it a car. What sort of error is this? a. fast mapping b. overregularization c. underextension d. overextension 68. What is one of the cognitive disadvantages of bilingualism? a. decreased cognitive flexibility b. decreased use of cognitive control processes c. decreased processing speed d. decreased verbal fluency 69. Todd is outgoing, charming, creative, and has a beautiful singing voice. If you were asked to guess what Todd does for a living, and you used the availability heuristic and the conjunction fallacy as you generated your answer, which of the following would you suggest? a. Todd is a musician who also works in public relations. b. Todd is a musician. c. Todd is an accountant. d. Todd is an accountant who also builds model trains.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 70. Johanna was placed in charge of planning her class’s spring formal. If she thought she should hire the same band that played at last year’s formal because of how much everyone enjoyed the band, which barrier to effective problem solving might Johanna be encountering? a. unnecessary constraints b. mental set c. functional fixedness d. irrelevant information 71. Which intelligent species have scientists had the most success teaching some language-like skills to? a. dolphins b. chimpanzees c. parrots d. sea lions 72. When your psychology professor used the word “experiment” to refer to the scientific method described in Chapter 2, which property of language was reflected by the term “experiment”? a. Language is symbolic. b. Language is generative. c. Language is structured. d. Language is orderly. 73. If you estimate the probability of an event based on how similar it is to the prototype of that event, which heuristic are you using? a. gambler’s heuristic b. representativeness heuristic c. availability heuristic d. conjunction heuristic 74. Which type of psychologists focus on the topics of memory, problem solving, decision making, and language? a. social psychologists b. physiological psychologists c. cognitive psychologists d. clinical psychologists 75. When an infant produces repetitive consonant-vowel combinations such as “babababa,” what is the infant doing? a. cooing b. “baby talk” c. speaking d. babbling 76. Who suggested that children are equipped with a language acquisition device (LAD) that allows them to acquire language? a. Benjamin Lee Whorf b. Ivan Pavlov c. Noam Chomsky d. B F Skinner 77. In the statement “First, the oven was preheated to 350 degrees,” how many morphemes are in the word “preheated”? a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 9 78. Which child is exhibiting underextension? a. Britney, who uses the word “car” only when referring to her mother’s car b. Abby, who uses the word “swing” when referring to all the pieces of playground equipment on the playground c. Danielle, who uses the word “puppy” when referring to all dogs, young or old d. Caitlin, who uses the word “doggie” when referring to both her dog Fido and her grandmother’s cat Fluffy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 79. What is decision making? a. making choices under conditions of uncertainty b. evaluation of alternatives and making choices among them c. the sudden discovery of the correct solution following incorrect solutions d. active efforts to discover what must be done to achieve a goal that is not readily attainable 80. Most people estimate the negative impact of losing $1000 will be greater than the positive impact of winning $1000. In reality, people overestimate the negative emotions they expect to experience after such as loss. What is the name for this phenomenon? a. loss aversion b. representative heuristic c. unnecessary constraints d. trial-and-error 81. Which statement provides support for nativist theories of language development? a. Speech pathologists can help a child develop better language skills. b. During certain developmental stages, children learn language at a rate that is exceptionally fast. c. Some cultures don’t have words for snow. d. Actors can learn how to fake an accent from a different country. 82. Tasha is deciding whether to buy Car A or Car B. She knows three people who have the same model as Car A. Two of them don’t like the car and the third friend loves it. Tasha decides to not buy Car A because 2/3 of her friends don’t like the car. According to your text, what is Tasha relying on? a. the gambler’s fallacy b. overestimating the improbable c. her belief in the law of small numbers d. confirmation bias 83. According to Simon’s theory of bounded rationality, why do humans tend to make irrational decisions? a. because we make decisions more difficult than they need to be b. because we use simple strategies and focus on limited information c. because we have logic systems that are only useful in natural environments d. because we are too guided by our emotions 84. How would Chomsky most likely explain a young child saying, “I runned around the house”? a. The child imitated an ungrammatical sentence spoken by another child. b. The child learned the rule for making the past tense of verbs as a result of hearing the speech of others. c. The child had previously been reinforced for saying, “I run around the house.” d. The child imitated the ungrammatical speech of an adult. 85. If you were asked to rearrange the letters EDTIMRM in order to produce an English word (MIDTERM), what sort of problem are you trying to solve? a. induced structure b. arrangement c. transformation d. probability 86. If given a choice between a “sure” thing and a “risky” gamble, what percentage of people did Kahneman and Tversky (1984) find would select the “sure” thing when the problem was framed in terms of lives saved? a. 22 percent b. 42 percent c. 52 percent d. 72 percent Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 87. Which statement best answers the question of how learning two languages in childhood affects language development? a. There is ample empirical support for the belief that bilingualism has serious negative effects. b. There is little empirical support for the belief that bilingualism has serious negative effects. c. Bilingual children achieve language acquisition milestones later than monolingual children. d. Bilingual children have larger vocabularies in each of their languages than monolingual children have in their one language. 88. Imagine you have a problem to solve that has some similarities to problems you have previously solved. If focusing on the similarities leads you relatively quickly to a solution, then which heuristic do you benefit from? a. changing the representation of the problem b. working backward c. searching for analogies d. functional fixedness 89. A limited number of words may be combined into an infinite number of sentences. What does this tell you about language? a. Language is structured. b. Language is generative. c. Language is semantic. d. Language is symbolic. 90. Which unifying theme in psychology is the linguistic relativity hypothesis most consistent with? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. 91. If given a choice between a “sure” thing and a “risky” gamble, what percentage of people did Kahneman and Tversky (1984) find would select the “sure” thing when the problem was framed in terms of lives lost? a. 22 percent b. 42 percent c. 52 percent d. 72 percent 92. In which class of problems is it necessary to carry out a sequence of intermediate actions to solve the problem? a. arrangement b. transformation c. inducing structure d. probability 93. Which statement best describes the work of Janet Werker of the University of British Columbia who studies infant language development? a. She has done pioneering work to show that infants’ language development is based on the tools given to them by their parents. b. She has done pioneering work to show that infants’ language development is related to their emotional development. c. She has done pioneering work to show that infants are like blank slates. d. She has done pioneering work to show that infants come prepared to learn language as evidenced by the notion that babies have perceptual biases that facilitate sound production. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 94. Which statement is most consistent with the effects of framing on decision making? a. People tend to take greater risks when the outcome is described as certain. b. When seeking to obtain gains, people are more likely to take risks. c. People tend to take greater risks when the outcome is described as uncertain. d. When seeking to avoid losses, people are more likely to take risks. 95. Which field of study examines the effect of actual decision-making processes on economic decisions? a. behavioural economics b. behavioural psychology c. psychological economics d. psychological marketing 96. What is reflected in the “gambler’s fallacy”? a. law of small numbers b. conjunction heuristic c. availability heuristic d. representativeness heuristic 97. According to definitions in your textbook, when people decide to place bets on horse races, games of chance, and athletic events, what are they doing? a. playing the odds b. making foolish decisions c. making preference decisions d. making risky decisions 98. Many problems can be represented in a variety of ways, such as verbally, mathematically, or spatially. Keeping this in mind, which problem-solving approach hinges on this fact? a. heuristics b. searching for analogies c. taking a break or incubation d. changing the representation of the problem 99. At dinner, three-year-old Matias overhears his father tell the server that his tasty hamburger was “superb.” Matias has never heard this word before. The next day Matias tells his mother that the grilled-cheese sandwich she made him for lunch was superb. What do we call the process by which Matias likely learned the word “superb”? a. underextension b. overextension c. fast mapping d. telegraphic speech 100. Which of the following is an example of the statement that “language is symbolic”? a. You can use the word “dog” to refer to a variety of different individual animals. b. The word “dog” can be used in a variety of novel sentences. c. You can use the word “dog” to refer to an animal that isn’t currently present. d. The phrase “the dog bit the man” means something different from “the man bit the dog.”

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 101. Alexis has been diagnosed with a learning disability. She doesn’t believe that the psychologist was accurate in this diagnosis, so she decided to seek out additional information about the disability, and its rate of misdiagnosis. She finds several websites and a couple of books that suggest that the diagnosis for the particular disability is wrong 20 percent of the time. Alexis is confident that hers is a case of misdiagnosis, and even after getting three additional evaluations from other diagnosticians (who all agree with the original diagnosis), Alexis refuses to believe otherwise. What does this example illustrate? a. availability heuristics b. gambler’s fallacy c. overestimating the improbable d. confirmation bias leading to belief perseverance 102. Which of the following is a shortcut, or guiding principle, used in solving problems or making decisions? a. a trial b. an analogy c. a heuristic d. an algorithm 103. Around what age do children typically start to understand and use ironic or sarcastic statements? a. 4–5 years b. 6–8 years c. 9–10 years d. 11–13 years 104. Which of the following is an example of the statement that “language is semantic”? a. The word “dog” means the same thing as the word “chien.” b. You can use the word “dog” to refer to an animal that isn’t currently present. c. You can use the word “dog” to refer to a variety of different individual animals. d. The phrase “the dog bit the man” means something different from “the man bit the dog.” 105. Kahneman and Tversky found in their study of decision making that people often deviate from rational thought when making decisions. What is one of the factors which dramatically affects our decisions? a. gender bias b. making foolish decisions c. time of day d. how decision alternatives are framed 106. Which statement does NOT accurately describe bilingualism? a. It is the acquisition of two languages that use different speech sounds, vocabulary, and grammatical rules. b. It is the norm in most of North America. c. It is the norm in Europe. d. Nearly half of the world’s population are bilingual. 107. Anders is betting Mischa on whether a tossed coin will land on heads or tails. Anders has bet heads the last four times and has lost each time. If on the next toss he bets heads again and says, “It’s got to be heads, heads is overdue,” what does his reasoning illustrate? a. the conjunction fallacy b. the gambler’s fallacy c. the base rate fallacy d. the overestimation fallacy

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 108. Barriers to effective problem solving, such as functional fixedness and mental sets, best reflect which unifying theme in psychology? a. Psychology is empirical. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. 109. Even though he knows only a small percentage of high school athletes go on to professional careers, Charlie believes that he will be drafted by a good Junior team, play for Team Canada in the World Juniors Championship, and then have a career in the NHL. What is Charlie doing? a. not applying the conjunction fallacy b. applying base rates to himself c. not applying base rates to himself d. applying the conjunction fallacy 110. In what age range do infants typically say their first word? a. 6 to 9 months b. 10 to 13 months c. 14 to 17 months d. 18 to 21 months 111. How many phonemes are in the English language? a. 26 b. 40 c. 100 d. 155 112. If you are asked to come up with one word that is typically paired with taxi, screw, and cattle (the answer is “driver”), what sort of problem are you solving? a. problems of probability b. problems of inducing structure c. problems of transformation d. problems of arrangement 113. What is the same between the two sentences “The boy hit the ball” and “The ball was hit by the boy”? a. syntax b. morphemes c. semantics d. grammar 114. What is the term for incorrectly estimating that the odds of two uncertain events happening together are greater than the odds of either event happening alone? a. base rate fallacy b. alternative outcome effect c. conjunction fallacy d. gambler’s fallacy 115. Max started saying words fairly reliably a few months ago, but recently there has been a dramatic increase in the number of words that he produces. It seems like every day there are a few new ones in his vocabulary! Everywhere he goes, he points at things and wants to know the names for everything. What age range is Max likely in? a. 6–10 months b. 10–15 months c. 18–24 months d. 24–30 months

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 116. Which statement represents an occurrence of overregularization? a. Alek uses the word “cat” to refer only to his own cat. b. Ben tells his mother that he “wented” to the store with Daddy. c. Callum says, “doggie sad,” when he sees a howling dog on TV. d. Dylan starts using a swear word after hearing his mother say it once. 117. Based on a past experience that involved temper tantrums, Sue decides not to take her two five-year-old grandsons to the movies at the same time. Which decision-making strategy is Sue using? a. representativeness heuristic b. conjunction heuristic c. gambler’s heuristic d. availability heuristic 118. Which of the following is not one of the critical properties of a language system? a. Language is generative. b. Language is semantic. c. Language is structured. d. Language is verbal. 119. Research suggests that bilingual individuals tend to score higher than monolingual individuals on some psychological measures. Which pair tends to be higher for bilingual individuals? a. intelligence and analytical reasoning b. cognitive flexibility and analytical reasoning c. language-processing speed and cognitive flexibility d. language-processing speed and intelligence 120. Which barrier to effective problem solving is illustrated by the series of water-jug problems described in your text? a. irrelevant information b. functional fixedness c. unnecessary constraints d. mental set 121. When your classmate says, “I never thought I’d say this, but I really enjoyed taking that psychology exam,” which property of language does his statement best illustrate? a. Language is structured. b. Language is practical. c. Language is generative. d. Language is symbolic. 122. What is “she eated my cracker” an example of? a. overregularization b. heuristics c. underextension d. overextension 123. When subjects are asked to solve the nine-dot problem, they need to avoid applying which of the following to the problem? a. unnecessary constraints b. mental set c. problem space d. expert strategy 124. Which hypothesis is the most likely explanation for why some ideas or concepts are very easily “lost in translation” between two languages? a. interactionist hypothesis b. nativist hypothesis c. metalinguistic awareness hypothesis d. linguistic relativity hypothesis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 125. The probability of being in a subcategory (e.g., university professors who are politicians) cannot be higher than the probability of being in the broader category (e.g., university professors). What kind of fallacy do people routinely fall victim to as a result? a. conjunction b. representativeness c. heuristic d. Availability 126. Which of the following statements is the best example of telegraphic speech? a. “Give cookie.” b. “I wanted a cookie.” c. “I eated a cookie.” d. “Cookie.” 127. What is the mayor of your town using if he suggests that only irresponsible citizens will be against a proposed tax increase to upgrade city parks? a. anticipatory name calling b. semantic slanting c. name calling d. anticipatory semantic slanting 128. What is the system of rules that specifies how words can be arranged into sentences in a language? a. semantics b. symbolic structure c. morpheme structure d. syntax 129. Which statement provides evidence that receptive and productive vocabularies are different in young children? a. An infant will discriminate among speech sounds from a variety of languages. b. An infant will preferentially attend to the speech of caregivers rather than strangers. c. A toddler will follow an instruction that uses words that she does not say yet. d. A toddler will apply a grammar rule inappropriately. 130. In Montreal, Laura-Ann Petitto has done some important research on babbling with normal and deaf babies. What has she found? a. Deaf babies exhibited “manual babbling” with their hands in a manner similar to the verbal babbling of normal babies. b. Deaf babies do not exhibit babbling with their hands. c. Deaf babies exhibited “manual babbling” with their hands but their first signed words were not continuous with their babbling. d. Deaf babies babble orally the same as normal babies. 131. Which of the following is an example of the statement that “language is structured”? a. The phrase “the dog bit the man” means something different from “the man bit the dog.” b. You can use the word “dog” to refer to a variety of different individual animals. c. You can use the word “dog” to refer to an animal that isn’t currently present. d. The word “dog” can be used in a variety of novel sentences.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. a 15. a 16. d 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. c 25. c 26. c

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. a 40. d 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. a 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. b 52. d 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 55. b 56. a 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. d 61. b 62. c 63. b 64. d 65. c 66. d 67. d 68. c 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. b 74. c 75. d 76. c 77. a 78. a 79. b 80. a 81. b 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 83. b 84. b 85. b 86. d 87. b 88. c 89. b 90. d 91. a 92. b 93. d 94. d 95. a 96. d 97. d 98. d 99. c 100. c 101. d 102. c 103. b 104. c 105. d 106. b 107. b 108. b 109. c 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_2 111. b 112. b 113. c 114. c 115. c 116. b 117. d 118. d 119. b 120. d 121. c 122. a 123. a 124. d 125. a 126. a 127. a 128. d 129. c 130. a 131. a

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Ashley needs to put a nail in the wall. She doesn’t have a hammer in her toolkit so she doesn’t attempt to put the nail in the wall. Which of the following is Ashley exhibiting? a. mental set b. functional fixedness c. confirmation bias d. the representativeness heuristic 2. Who first proposed that humans are born with a language acquisition device? a. Noam Chomsky b. b. F. Skinner c. Ulric Neisser d. John B. Watson 3. Jennie wants to know if taking vitamin C leads to higher grades, so she seeks out articles that show that taking vitamin C leads to higher grades. Which of the following is Jennie exhibiting? a. functional fixedness b. confirmation bias c. mental set d. representativeness heuristic 4. Which of the following describes a mental set? a. all the possible solutions available to the problem solver b. a way of controlling attention c. a problem-solving strategy that has worked in the past d. the tendency to perceive an item only in terms of its most common use 5. Which of the following is one using when one bases their estimate of probability of an event on how similar it is to a prototype of that event? a. a mental set b. the availability heuristic c. the representativeness heuristic d. the conjunction fallacy 6. Which of the following is often reduced in people who are bilingual? a. iconic memory b. verbal fluency c. long-term memory d. controlled processing 7. Dr. Carrey studies the smallest units of language. Which of the following does she study? a. phonemes b. morphemes c. linguistics d. semantics 8. Which of the following is LARGEST in children? a. productive vocabulary b. receptive vocabulary c. verb vocabulary d. noun vocabulary 9. Which view of insight asserts that insight results from normal conscious processing? a. the business-as-usual view b. the foot-in-the-door view c. the special process view d. the integrated view 10. Babies begin cooing at about what age? a. 1 week b. 2 months c. 9 months d. 1 year Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 11. Which of the following is thought to REDUCE the likelihood that choice overload will occur? a. time constraints b. inexperience c. age d. knowledge 12. A young child who says “give more” is demonstrating which of the following? a. an overextension b. an underextension c. overregularization d. telegraphic speech 13. What are /s/, /ed/, and /er/ all examples of? a. phonemes b. morphemes c. overextensions d. underextensions 14. Taylor is told that an individual likes sports and that this individual has been selected from a pool of 100 engineering majors and 5 physical education majors. Taylor guesses that the person is studying physical education. Which of the following is Taylor displaying? a. the availability heuristic b. the conjunction fallacy c. the representativeness heuristic d. confirmation bias 15. What is the conjunction fallacy? a. the ability to direct one’s thoughts in accord with one’s intentions b. the tendency to perceive an item only in terms of its most common use c. the tendency to ONLY look for information that meets one’s expectations d. thinking that the probability of two events co-occurring is greater than the probability of either of those events occurring alone 16. Jess is asked to guess the occupation of a person. She is told that the person is good at math. She is also told that the person was randomly selected from a group of 100 people, 80 of whom were dancers and 10 of whom were accountants. Jess will likely guess that the person is an accountant because of which of the following? a. the representativeness heuristic b. the availability heuristic c. the conjunction fallacy d. metacognitive factors 17. Suppose 800 people are sick with a disease. Which of the following treatment options would MOST people support? a. treatment A, which will save 200 people b. treatment B, which will cause three-quarters of the people to die c. treatment C, which will cause 600 of the people to die d. treatment D, which will cause 75% of the people to die 18. Caleb wants to know if firstborn children have higher IQs than later born children, so he seeks out articles that show that firstborn children have higher IQs than later born children. Which of the following is Caleb exhibiting? a. the conjunction fallacy b. confirmation bias c. mental set d. representativeness heuristic

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 19. What is one cognitive advantage that Maryam may experience as a result of being raised speaking both English and Farsi? a. improved verbal fluency b. improved controlled processing c. improved long-term memory d. faster language processing 20. What is the term for the system of rules that specify how words can be arranged into sentences? a. phonology b. morphology c. semantics d. syntax 21. What is the smallest unit of language that can be distinguished perceptually? a. a phoneme b. a morpheme c. a letter d. a word 22. If you know that a child has a receptive vocabulary of about 14,000 words you would estimate their age to be about how old? a. 2 years old b. 6 years old c. 10 years old d. 14 years old 23. Professor Gunn is a language theorist but doesn’t ascribe to either Skinner’s or Chomsky’s view. Dr. Gunn likely considers herself a proponent of which of the following views of language? a. interactionist b. behaviourist c. nativist d. psychoanalytical 24. What is the term for the idea that one’s language influences one’s cognition? a. fast mapping b. linguistic relativity c. overextension d. metalinguistic awareness 25. According to research, how long can bilingualism delay the onset of Alzheimer’s disease? a. 6 months b. 9 months c. 4 years d. 6 years 26. What is it called when the way a question is presented affects people’s answer to the question? a. a framing effect b. confirmation bias c. the availability heuristic d. a mental set 27. What is the smallest unit of language that conveys meaning? a. a phoneme b. a morpheme c. a syllable d. a word 28. Which of the following is the tendency to perceive an item only in terms of its most common use? a. mental set b. functional fixedness c. confirmation bias d. the representativeness heuristic 29. Approximately how many phonemes are there in the English language? a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 30. Little Ethan says “thinked” instead of “thought.” What is Ethan demonstrating? a. overextension b. overregularization c. pragmatics d. linguistic relativity 31. Which of the following is associated with the sunk costs fallacy? a. heavy alcohol use b. heavy cannabis use c. heavy cocaine use d. heavy amphetamine use 32. Suppose 1000 people are on a sinking boat. Which of the following options would MOST people support? a. option A which will save 400 people b. option B which will cause 6/10 of people to die c. option C which will cause 600 people to die d. option D which will cause 60% of people to die 33. Nadya is learning to speak English. What must she master in order to generate grammatically correct sentences? a. phonology b. morphology c. syntax d. pragmatics 34. Tori has been bilingual her whole life. Which aspect of her cognition is MOST likely to be superior to that of her monolingual peers? a. her vocabulary b. her executive control c. her long-term memory d. her sensory memory 35. Syntax operates at the level of which of the following? a. phonemes b. morphemes c. words d. sentences 36. Which school of thought suggests that language is acquired through reinforcement and punishment? a. the behaviourist view b. the nativist view c. the sociocultural view d. the critical period view 37. Which of the following is a shortcut strategy that is easy to implement and often produces the correct result? a. a heuristic b. an algorithm c. a mental set d. a problem space 38. Which of the following must a person understand in order to create grammatically correct sentences? a. phonology b. morphology c. syntax d. psycholinguistics 39. What is it called when you know the meaning of words? a. phonology b. morphology c. syntax d. semantics

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 40. Amy has been given three jugs of different sizes and has been asked to measure different amounts of liquid using only those three jugs. Across five trials the correct solution could be made by taking a unit from jug A, filling jug C with jug A, and then pouring the remains of jug C into jug B. When given a sixth problem she solves it using the same approach instead of an easier one-step solution that would have given the correct answer. Which of the following is Amy displaying? a. availability heuristic b. mental set c. confirmation bias d. conjunction fallacy 41. Marieke paid $100 for a concert ticket in a city two hours away. On the night of the concert, there is blizzard and it is unsafe to drive. Marieke still wants to go to the concert because the ticket was so expensive. What issue with problem solving is Marieke displaying? a. belief perseverance b. gambler’s fallacy c. overextension d. sunk costs fallacy 42. Which process allows four-year-old Olivia to learn the word orangutan after hearing it said only once? a. fast mapping b. linguistic relativity c. overextension d. metalinguistic awareness 43. Adam has a vocabulary of 40 000 words. How old is Adam likely to be? a. about 6 years old b. about 8 years old c. about 10 years old d. about 12 years old 44. What are the phonemes in the word cats? a. /k/, /a/, /t/, and /s/ b. /cat/ and /s/ c. /kat/ and /s/ d. /ka/ and /ts/ 45. What are /a/, /v/, and /t/ examples of? a. phonemes b. morphemes c. consonants d. vowels 46. Which of the following involves a framing effect? a. when people use probabilities incorrectly b. when the wording of a question affects responses c. when people tend to only look for information that confirms their hypothesis d. when people make judgments based only on prototypes 47. Which of the following describes CAT? a. a morpheme and a word b. a word and a phoneme c. a phoneme and a syntax d. a syntax and a morpheme

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 48. Dr. Friedman conducts a survey and asks two groups of students if they agree or disagree with a given statement. One group is asked whether “I would feel safer using a seatbelt that prevents death 95% of the time than not using a seatbelt.” The other is asked whether “I would feel safer using a seatbelt that fails to prevent death 5% of the time than not using a seatbelt.” Why does she find the first group more likely to agree than the second? a. the availability heuristic b. confirmation bias c. framing effects d. the conjunction fallacy 49. What is considered to be the FIRST language milestone? a. gabbing b. babbling c. first word d. first sentence 50. What is a child who labels all animals with the word dog demonstrating? a. an overextension b. an underextension c. an overregularization d. pragmatics 51. Xiong is asked if more people die each year in the United States from terrorist attacks or from being attacked by a cow. Xiong guesses that more people die from terrorist attacks. Xiong is incorrect and is displaying which of the following? a. the availability heuristic b. the representativeness heuristic c. mental set d. confirmation bias 52. Which of the following describes the availability heuristic? a. the ability to direct one’s thoughts in accord with one’s intentions b. the tendency to think easy-to-remember events occur more frequently than they do c. the tendency to look ONLY for information that meets one’s expectations d. the tendency to think that the probability of two events co-occurring is greater than the probability of either of those events occurring alone 53. Which view of insight asserts that insights arise from the sudden restructuring of a problem during unconscious processing? a. the business-as-usual view b. the foot-in-the-door view c. the special process view d. the integrated view 54. Amin is told that an individual likes reading and that this individual has been selected from a pool of 90 construction workers and 10 professors. Amin guesses that the person is a professor. Which of the following is Amin displaying? a. the availability heuristic b. mental set c. the representativeness heuristic d. confirmation bias 55. Which of the following is the smallest unit of language that can convey meaning? a. a phoneme b. a morpheme c. syntax d. a grapheme

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 56. What are the BIGGEST benefits of bilingualism related to? a. vocabulary b. attention c. long-term memory d. metalinguistic skills 57. What are the morphemes in the word cats? a. /k/, /a/, /t/, and /s/ b. /cat/ and /s/ c. /kat/ and /s/ d. /cats/ 58. Selene believes that women have better language skills than men and as a result she looks specifically for research articles that show women have better language skills than men. Which of the following is Selene exhibiting? a. the conjunction fallacy b. confirmation bias c. mental set d. representativeness heuristic 59. Which of the following rules dictate that there must be a subject and a verb in every sentence? a. phonemes b. morphemes c. semantics d. syntax 60. What school of thought suggests that humans are born with a language acquisition device? a. the behaviourist view b. the nativist view c. the sociocultural view d. the critical period view 61. Dr. Tran believes that humans are born biologically equipped to learn language rules, and that interactions with peers and parents play a critical role in the development of language. Dr. Tran is a proponent of which theory of language? a. behaviourist theory b. nativist theory c. interactionist theory d. psychoanalytical theory 62. Babies begin to babble at about what age? a. 1 week b. 2 months c. 6 months d. 1 year 63. What is the term for the ability to direct one’s thoughts in accord with one’s intentions? a. attention b. cognitive bias c. telekinesis d. mental set 64. Which of the following is a problem-solving method that gives the correct result most of the time, but not always? a. a heuristic b. an algorithm c. a mental set d. a problem space 65. Most children say their first word when they are about what age? a. 6 months old b. 9 months old c. 1 year old d. 2 years old

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 66. Which of the following is the study of how words and sentences convey meaning? a. semantics b. syntax c. morphology d. phonology 67. Alice says to Max “Please bring me the books on the table.” Max knows to bring more than one book because of the ______ “s” on the end of “books”. a. phoneme b. morpheme c. heuristic d. syntax 68. An advertiser knows that consumers don’t like a chemical called FRA so it advertises its product as “99% FRA free” instead of advertising that the product “contains 1% FRA.” Which of the following explains why does the advertiser does this? a. the availability heuristic b. the conjunction fallacy c. framing effects d. algorithms 69. Which of the following may make you less able to recognize when you are being discriminated against? a. choice overload b. a choice mindset c. the gambler’s fallacy d. fast mapping 70. What is being demonstrated by a child who thinks the word dog only applies to their own pet dog? a. an overextension b. an underextension c. an overregularization d. pragmatics 71. Executive processing always involves which of the following? a. the direction of attention b. storing long-term memories c. identifying the right strategy d. confirming a hypothesis 72. If you wanted to study how people understand the meaning of words, you would enjoy studying which of the following? a. semantics b. morphology c. phonology d. syntax 73. What is confirmation bias? a. the ability to direct one’s thoughts in accord with one’s intentions b. the tendency to perceive an item only in terms of its most common use c. the tendency to ONLY look for information that meets one’s expectations d. thinking that the probability of two events co-occurring is greater than the probability of either of those events occurring alone 74. Asher is asked if there are more species of vertebrates or invertebrates. Asher guesses that there are more vertebrates. Asher is incorrect and is displaying which of the following? a. the availability heuristic b. the representativeness heuristic c. mental set d. confirmation bias

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 75. Which of the following involves thinking that the probability of two events co-occurring is greater than the probability of either of those events occurring alone? a. the availability heuristic b. the conjunction fallacy c. the representativeness heuristic d. confirmation bias 76. How does Gerd Gigerenzer characterize human reasoning? a. slow and steady b. fast and frugal c. stop and start d. up and down 77. Which of the following involves judging easily recalled events as being more common? a. the availability heuristic b. the representativeness heuristic c. confirmation bias d. mental set 78. Which of the following is the tendency to ONLY look for information that meets one’s expectations? a. mental set b. functional fixedness c. confirmation bias d. the representativeness heuristic 79. Which of the following is an example of the strong form of the linguistic relativity hypothesis? a. People’s colour perception depends upon the number of colour words in their language. b. People’s problem-solving approach is closely linked to their cognitive style. c. People’s verbal fluency is linked to how many languages they speak. d. People’s ability to learn vocabulary is accelerated in the first ten years of life. 80. Which of the following are the MOST basic sounds that can be put together to form words? a. phonemes b. morphemes c. semantics d. linguistics 81. Which of the following is an example of telegraphic speech? a. “o-o-o-o-u-u-u” b. “ba-da-ba-pa” c. “mama” d. “want cookie” 82. Little Kiera learned the word “kitty” recently. When Kiera sees a rabbit she excitedly says, “Kitty!” What is this an example of? a. underextension b. overextension c. adaptation d. habituation 83. At what age do children develop the ability to use five-word sentences? a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5 years 84. Professor Daud is studying how people distinguish the sound /p/ from the sound /b/. What is Professor Daud studying? a. phonemes b. morphemes c. semantics d. syntax

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 85. What aspect of the word “worked” do /work/ and /ed/ comprise? a. its phonemes b. its morphemes c. its pragmatics d. its syntax 86. Root words, prefixes, and suffixes are all examples of _____. a. phonemes b. morphemes c. semantics d. pragmatics 87. The prefix un in the word unintentional is an example of which of the following? a. a phoneme b. a morpheme c. syntax d. semantics 88. The “ed” that turns the word “work” into “worked” is an example of which of the following? a. a phoneme b. a morpheme c. semantics d. pragmatics 89. Peter is being bothered by a fly but does not attempt to kill it because he doesn’t have a fly swatter. Which of the following is Peter displaying? a. functional fixedness b. the availability heuristic c. the representativeness heuristic d. the conjunction fallacy

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. a

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. b 35. d 36. a 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. d 42. a 43. d 44. a 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. c 49. b 50. a 51. a 52. b 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. b 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. c 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. b 70. b 71. a 72. a 73. c 74. a 75. b 76. b 77. a 78. c 79. a 80. a 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_6ce_Vol_4 83. c 84. a 85. b 86. b 87. b 88. b 89. a

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Chap 09_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Adam’s IQ at this age is relatively ______ and a _____ predictor of his IQ at age 18. a. unstable; bad b. stable; bad c. unstable; good d. stable; good 2. Andrea is proud that she has a clear understanding of her own emotions as well as her strengths and weaknesses. However, she does not always understand or respond appropriately to other people’s moods and temperament. Andrea has _____ interpersonal and _____ intrapersonal intelligence. a. high; high b. high; low c. low; low d. low; high 3. Scott is trying to prove to Jordan that IQ tests are important. He mentions that IQ test scores have a _____ correlation with occupational attainment and a ____ correlation with job performance. a. strong positive; strong positive b. moderate positive; strong positive c. strong positive; moderate positive d. moderate positive; moderate positive 4. Sophie develops a quiz to test a user’s knowledge of Harry Potter trivia. One day, you take the quiz and after you’re done you get the following message: “Congrats! You are a true Potterhead. Your scores are at the 90th percentile!” This means _______________. a. you answered 90% of the questions correctly b. you scored higher than 90% of the others who have taken the quiz c. you know more about Harry Potter than 90% of the general population d. the probability that your score is due to chance is 10% 5. Sophie creates a quiz called “Choose six breakfast carb options and I’ll guess whether or not you’re a good driver”. In order for this quiz to have high criterion-related validity, __________________. a. a user should be able to take it multiple times and still get the same results b. a user who gets a “good driver” result will never have received a speeding ticket c. Sophie should include more questions about driving instead of about breakfast carbs d. Sophie should include a driving simulation game in her quiz 6. Based on Andrea’s profession, we can infer she has high _____ intelligence and Kirsten has high ___ intelligence. a. artistic; naturalistic b. spatial; logical-mathematical c. spatial; naturalistic d. artistic; logical-mathematical 7. Andrea is a sculptor and is constantly trying to perfect her craft. Andrea’s sister Kirsten is a biologist who takes pride in being an avid bird watcher and being able to differentiate between more than 500 species of birds. Andrea has been in a creative rut for the past few months. What could she do to enhance her creativity? a. Go on a cruise to the Mediterranean and visit as many countries as she can. b. Live in a foreign country for a few months and adapt to the local culture. c. Go hiking in local parks every weekend to get inspired by nature. d. Read as many biographies about famous foreign artists as she can.

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Chap 09_6ce_Case-Based 8. What would you expect of Scott if Jordan is wrong and IQ tests indeed have high validity? a. He will exhibit rational thinking and effective decision-making. b. He will get good grades and exhibit academic excellence. c. He will get the same IQ score regardless of how many times he takes the test. d. He will exhibit high practical, social, and verbal intelligence. 9. Sophie is proud of the fact that the results of her quizzes are reliable. This means that if you take her quiz named “Find out how adventurous you are based on your favourite movie quotes”, then _____________. a. your quiz result would be positively correlated with how often you often you watch your favourite movie b. the questions on the quiz are a logical representation of the domain they measure c. you will get the same results, no matter how many times you take the quiz d. the results of the quiz would correctly predict how adventurous you are 10. Vasia has an identical twin who was adopted by a rich and well-educated family shortly after birth and was raised in an enriched environment. Vasia’s IQ is most likely to be __________ than the identical twin’s IQ. The difference between Vasia’s IQ and her twin’s IQ are best explained by _________. a. lower; reaction range b. higher; reaction range c. lower; proactive interference d. higher; proactive interference 11. Scott recently took the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale test and achieved a score of 115. Scott was proud of his score, until his friend Jordan tells him that intelligence tests are unreliable and have very poor validity. Scott’s IQ test score is _____ the mean, so Scott falls into the ____ percentile. a. 1 standard deviation above; 84th b. 1 standard deviation below; 50th c. 1 standard deviation above; 50th d. 1 standard deviation below; 84th 12. Sarah is in fact correct about Adam’s intelligence, and he is identified as a profoundly gifted child. Based on this, it is expected that Adam will _________________. a. be introverted, socially isolated, and face interpersonal and emotional problems b. exhibit better-than-average emotional stability and mental health c. experience great social satisfaction and maturity throughout his adult years d. show signs of social anxiety, but only towards members of the opposite sex 13. Sophie tries her hardest to ensure her quizzes are standardized. This means ____________. a. all users get the same instructions, questions, and time limit b. the results are compared with data from Canada’s national statistical agency c. she incorporates psychological concepts in her quizzes d. she gets ethics approval and debriefs the users after they have completed the quiz 14. What can Scott do to convince Jordan that the WAIS test he took is reliable? a. Point out he has a very high GPA score in university. b. Take a different type of IQ test and end up with similar results. c. Retake the WAIS test and end up with similar results. d. Point out all his great achievements in life in an area other than academics.

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Chap 09_6ce_Case-Based 15. Sophie is developing a quiz she hopes will accurately make inferences about a user’s level of extraversion. She consults research done in the field of extraversion and includes questions about personality traits that are strongly related to extraversion (such as sociability). Sophie wants to ensure that her quiz has strong _______________. a. internal validity b. content validity c. criterion-related validity d. construct validity 16. Considering the fact that she is a visible minority, how is Vasia’s score likely to affect her? a. She will not be particularly affected by the IQ score. b. She will worry about how others will perceive her and the ethnic minority she belongs to. c. She will reject the IQ test results altogether. d. She will engage in self-stigmatizing behaviour. 17. According to the drudge theory, what would it take for Adam to achieve exceptional achievement in adulthood? a. A combination of great effort and innate talent b. Enriched and stimulating environment growing up c. Great innate talent and genetic predisposition d. Strenuous effort and single-minded commitment 18. Scott and Adam get into a fight about whether or not IQ tests are reliable and valid and open up their psychology notes to settle their argument. According to your textbook, ______________. a. IQ tests have high reliability and validity under all circumstances b. IQ tests are reliable, but not valid c. IQ tests are always reliable, but are only valid under certain specifications d. IQ tests are neither reliable nor valid 19. Sophie works for Buzzfeed. Her job requires her to create at least 10 new online quizzes per week. Sophie is tired of people belittling her work and is using her knowledge of psychology to compose quizzes of high quality and standards that could even be compared to the psychological tests she reads about in her textbooks. Sophie creates a quiz that assesses a user’s numerical ability potential and assigns them a Disney character based on their score. This quiz can be compared to a(n) ____________. a. intelligence test b. aptitude test c. achievement test d. personality test 20. Based on Scott’s IQ test score we can assume he has a(n) ________ mental classification. a. average b. high-average c. superior d. gifted 21. Kirsten is taking a test on ornithology (the science and study of birds) that consists of 180 multiple choice questions. Kirsten is using convergent thinking to maximize her efforts. This means that Kirsten is trying to ________________. a. eliminate the incorrect options until she hits the correct one b. come up with the correct answer before she sees the options c. come up with a reasoning on why the option she chose is correct d. come up with a reasoning on why the options she didn’t choose are wrong Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_6ce_Case-Based 22. Adam is identified as a gifted child. Based on this what would you expect of Adam when he reaches adulthood? a. To achieve recognition for genius-level contributions in his field b. To have extremely high levels of motivation, creativity and intelligence c. To achieve eminence and make enduring contributions in his field d. To have above-average, but not quite genius, levels of accomplishment 23. Based on Scott’s IQ test score, we can assume ________________. a. he answered 115 questions correctly on his test b. he answered 15% more questions correct than the average test-taker c. he has 115 “units” of intelligence d. he scored in the top 15% in the normal distribution of intelligence 24. Exactly how different is Vasia’s IQ from the “norm”? a. Significantly lower b. 1 S.D. lower c. 1.5 S.D. lower d. 0 S.D.; it is within the error limits of IQ tests 25. Based on Andrea’s and Kirsten’s professions, we can infer that ____________-. a. Andrea is 40% more likely to develop depression b. Kirsten is 40% more likely to develop depression c. Both sisters are equally likely to develop depression d. The sister with the higher IQ is 40% more likely to develop depression, regardless of her profession 26. Sarah was reading a book about Galton’s theory of intelligence and she became transfixed. What would Galton attribute Adam’s intelligence to? a. Adam was brought up in an enriched environment and had access to superior schooling. b. Adam’s parents also have above average intelligence and it is in his genes. c. A combination of genetics and enriched environment working together. d. Generational changes have increased his performance in IQ test (i.e., the Flynn effect). 27. Sarah is the mother of seven-year-old Adam. She often brags that her son has the mental abilities typical of a 14year-old. Sarah is so certain of Adam’s high intellect that she is trying to read as she can about intelligence because she hopes to help her son reach his full potential. Sarah is trying to calculate Adam’s IQ according to Stern’s formula. She concludes that Adam has an IQ of ______________. a. 2 b. 100 c. 140 d. 200

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Chap 09_6ce_Case-Based 28. Vasia is a visible minority student in her last year in of her undergraduate degree. She maintains a very high GPA, and a lot of her personal identity is bound up in her school performance. Vasia decides to take an IQ test, and her score of 85 is significantly lower than she expected. Vasia is devastated by this result. Because Vasia is in her last year of undergrad, she is considering her future career options and is researching graduate schools to apply to. How are Vasia’s choices most likely going to be affected after she receives her IQ test score? a. Vasia’s choices will not be affected. b. Vasia will apply to more prestigious schools. c. Vasia will apply to less prestigious schools. d. Vasia’s choices will not be affected, but the schools are more likely to reject her application. 29. Sophie develops a quiz to test a user’s knowledge of Harry Potter trivia. This is an example of a(n) ____________. a. intelligence test b. aptitude test c. achievement test d. personality test

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Chap 09_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. d 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. a 26. b

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Chap 09_6ce_Case-Based 27. d 28. c 29. c

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Kaelin is taking a college entrance exam that includes a mathematics component. However, Kaelin notices

that the exam only includes algebra problems and does not have any trigonometry, basic calculus, order of operations, or other types of math problems. Which of the following would be the biggest problem for this test? a. reliability b. content validity c. standardized validity d. criterion-related validity 2. Ishmael and Aliyah were enrolled in different sections of the same course. When Aliyah was taking her

midterm exam, there was a lecture being held in the next room. This distracted her and made it difficult for her to concentrate on her exam. When Ishmael wrote his midterm exam, the room next door was empty, and he had no distractions. Which statement best describes the administration of this midterm exam? a. It would have poor content validity. b. It did not have adequate test norms. c. It was not standardized across sections. d. It did not have high test-retest reliability. 3. Blackwell and colleagues’ concept of “fixed mind-set” with respect to intelligence is most similar to which of

the following? a. entity theory of intelligence c. achievement testing

b. analytical intelligence d. crystallized intelligence

4. Which statement best describes the trend known as the Flynn effect? a. It has been identified only in Western cultures. b. It is evident only when minority groups are tested. c. It is generally believed to be a statistical artefact. d. It has been documented in industrialized countries. 5. Dr. Ravenclaw has two different introductory psychology classes. When she gives the midterm to one class,

she tells them that answering the questions will involve a great deal of linguistic fluency and that females tend to outperform males on tests involving linguistic fluency. When Dr. Ravenclaw gives the midterm to the second class, she does not make this same statement about linguistic fluency to the class. What would you predict, given the concept of stereotype vulnerability? a. Males in the first class will perform better, because of the challenge associated with the statements made by Dr. Ravenclaw. b. Males in the first class will perform more poorly, because they will worry that others will blame their failure on their sex. c. Females in the first class will do more poorly, because of the increased pressure to perform well. d. Males and females will do equally well in both classes, because stereotype vulnerability will apply only to perceived differences between races.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 6. Ting scored at the 95th percentile on the logical reasoning component of the Graduate Record Exam (GRE).

What does this mean? a. She scored lower than 95 percent of the sample used to establish the test norms. b. She obtained a raw score of 95. c. She correctly answered 95 percent of the questions on the exam. d. She scored higher than 95 percent of the sample used to establish the test norms. 7. Glenys dropped out of high school 40 years ago, found a job, and worked her way up in the company. She

has been in her present position for over 20 years, and everyone in the company agrees that she is the one with the most “street smarts” about how to deal effectively with both customers and suppliers. What type of intelligence does Glenys display, according to Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence? a. analytical b. practical c. contextual d. creative 8. Terrence has a very low IQ and has difficulty with simple everyday tasks, but he can recite long passages of

complex poetry and knows every make and model of car ever produced in North America. Which term would fit Terrence best? a. savant b. differentially gifted c. intellectual disability d. autistic 9. What is an accurate interpretation if your score falls at the 75th percentile on a standardized test? a. Seventy-five percent of the people who took the test scored at or below your score. b. Seventy-five percent of the people who took the test scored higher than you. c. Your answers to pairs of similar items on the test were the same 75 percent of the time. d. You correctly answered 75 percent of the items on the test. 10. Whose research and conclusions triggered a heated debate over ethnic differences in intelligence? a. Arthur Jensen and Philippe Rushton b. David Wechsler and Alfred Binet c. Alfred Binet and Louis Terman

d. Francis Galton and Charles Darwin

11. Approximately what is the proportion of the general population classified as intellectually disabled? a. 1 to 3 percent b. 5 to 10 percent c. 15 to 20 percent

d. 25 to 30 percent

12. Tests of fluid intelligence often give novel types of problems to assess “thinking on one’s feet” or future

potential, rather than previous knowledge or skills. These measures of fluid intelligence would be most likely to use which of the following? a. projective tests b. aptitude tests c. personality tests d. achievement tests

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 13. How does the Binet-Simon scale of intelligence express a child’s score? a. percentile score b. mental age c. intelligence quotient

d. potential score

14. In the first half of the 20th century, a strong current of racial and class prejudice supported the idea that IQ

tests measured innate ability and that “undesirable” groups scored poorly because of their genetic inferiority. Which theme of your text does this development best reflect? a. Psychology evolves in a sociocultural context. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Psychology is empirical. 15. According to Sternberg and colleagues (1981), when people are asked to list examples of intelligent

behaviour, their examples tend to fall into which of the following three categories? a. verbal, nonverbal, emotional b. analytical, practical, creative c. social, emotional, academic d. verbal, practical, social 16. What type of test is likely being used if an elementary school child is given a test designed to determine

whether she should be placed in a class of “gifted” children? a. vocabulary b. achievement c. personality d. intelligence 17. Eli works at an advertising agency and he is one of the first people they call in when they are brainstorming

for a new campaign. He has the unique ability to generate hundreds of creative suggestions that no one else seems to think of. What is Eli is skilled in? a. convergent thinking b. transformational logic c. field dependence d. divergent thinking 18. What should you predict about the IQs of children who stay in understaffed orphanages, if environment

affects intelligence? a. The IQs will start out low, but gradually increase as they reach puberty. b. The IQs will be fairly normal until they reach puberty, when there will be a sharp decline. c. The IQs will show normal increases with development. d. The IQs will gradually decline as they grow older.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 19. Davis is a gifted violinist who has been playing the violin since he was 2 years old. He started writing his own

music when he was 4 years old. However, Davis has a difficult time expressing himself with words, and he struggles with all his written assignments for his classes at school. Which theory of intelligence could best be used to account for Davis’s different levels of performance in these areas? a. Sternberg’s triarchic theory b. Thurstone’s theory of primary mental abilities c. Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences d. Spearman’s g-factor theory 20. What would you expect to find if you correlated the IQ scores of fraternal and identical twins, if differences in

IQ scores were entirely a result of genetic factors? a. equal correlations for identical twins reared together and for identical twins reared apart b. higher correlations for fraternal twins reared together than for identical twins reared apart c. lower correlations for identical twins reared together than for identical twins reared apart d. higher correlations for identical twins reared together than for identical twins reared apart 21. When it comes to convergent and divergent thinking, which one is most likely to be measured by intelligence

tests versus creativity tests? a. divergent by intelligence tests, convergent by creativity tests b. divergent by both types of tests c. convergent by both types of tests d. convergent by intelligence tests, divergent by creativity tests 22. What is crystallized intelligence associated with? a. applying acquired knowledge in problem solving b. memory capacity and processing speed c. creativity d. abstract reasoning ability 23. What aspect of hydrocephaly may lead to intellectual disability? a. presence of an extra chromosome b. nutritional deficiencies c. build-up of cerebrospinal fluid

d. inherited enzyme deficiency

24. How did Charles Spearman conceptualize intelligence? a. It is made up of a “core factor” common to all intellectual abilities. b. It is seen only in certain “school-type” problems. c. It can change from time to time. d. It is a series of unrelated factors.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 25. The correlation in IQ scores between identical twins reared apart is lower than that between identical twins

reared together. What does this suggest? a. Environmental factors influence intellectual development. b. Genetic factors have no impact on intellectual development. c. Environmental factors have no impact on intellectual development. d. Identical twins often do not have the same genotype. 26. Brenna took a test designed to measure her creativity. She tells you that her final score on the test was 70.

She knows you are taking a psychology class, so she asks you what this score means. What should you tell Brenna? a. A score of 70 is probably a high score since most tests have a maximum score of 80. b. She will need to take the test again before her score can be accurately interpreted. c. You can’t interpret her score without knowing the norms for the test. d. A score of 70 is probably a low score since most tests are normed to have an average score of 100. 27. Which subtheory is NOT one of the parts of Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence? a. practical b. analytical c. creative

d. general mental ability

28. Zane is able to solve problems quickly. Even when he was in elementary school he seemed to be able to think

through questions and answer them more quickly than his classmates. What type of intelligence facilitates Zane’s quick reasoning and information processing? a. creativity b. fluid intelligence c. experiential intelligence d. crystallized intelligence 29. If you standardized IQ scores so that the same norms are used from year to year, you would find that the

scores are increasing over time. What is this trend called? a. shifts in reaction range b. reciprocal determinism c. Flynn effect d. heritability 30. What has been stressed by most intelligence tests over the years? a. practical intelligence in everyday life b. social intelligence and human relationships c. general mental ability, which includes verbal, practical, and social intelligence d. verbal and reasoning skills related to academics 31. According to Carol Dweck, those people who believe that intelligence is fixed at birth and not affected by

experience are said to hold which of the following views of intelligence? a. an incremental view b. and aptitude view c. a crystallized new d. an entity view

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 32. Dr. Iverson has had 25 students who have repeated her advanced economics class over the past five years.

Each time, the students’ grades for the second attempt in her course were nearly identical to the grades received on the first attempt. What could Dr. Iverson conclude about her testing procedures? a. They provide reliable measures of student ability. b. They provide valid measures of student ability. c. They are well standardized. d. They successfully measure abstract reasoning skills. 33. J. P. Guilford believed that intelligence comprises many abilities that can be characterized in terms of the

operations, contents, and products of intellectual activity. Which of the following is NOT one of the types of contents in Guilford’s theory? a. visual b. symbolic c. episodic d. behavioural 34. Which of the following statistical techniques were used by Spearman and Thurstone, who came to very

different conclusions about the structure of intelligence? a. Spearman used factor analysis and Thurstone used meta-analysis. b. Spearman used meta-analysis and Thurstone used factor analysis. c. Both Spearman and Thurstone used factor analysis but came to different conclusions. d. Neither Spearman nor Thurstone used any form of statistical analysis when devising their theories of intelligence. 35. Madison has just completed a two-year internship with a law firm. She takes a test that is designed to assess

her current knowledge of general legal principles. What type of test is being used in this case? a. projective test b. achievement test c. intelligence test d. aptitude test 36. Roland is an architect who can design dream homes based on vague ideas and images that his clients bring to

him. Which intelligence does Roland display, according to Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences? a. logical-mathematical b. spatial c. intrapersonal d. interpersonal 37. According to Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, what should be true of someone who is high

in practical intelligence? a. They should show deficits in the other two areas of cognitive function. b. They should be able to solve problems that are unique to his existing environment. c. They should perform well on conventional tests that measure reasoning skills. d. They should cope well on new or novel tasks.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 38. What are the means and standard deviations used for most modern intelligence quotient tests? a. mean of 10 points and standard deviation of 5 points b. mean of 50 points and standard deviation of 10 points c. mean of 100 points and standard deviation of 15 points d. mean of 120 points and standard deviation of 20 points 39. What would you choose if you needed an intelligence test that was specifically designed for adults? a. Galton IQ Test b. Otis-Lennon School Ability Test c. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale d. Terman-Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale 40. What is the Flynn effect? a. Performance on IQ tests seems to be declining steadily and consistently over time. b. Fluid intelligence declines with age, while crystallized intelligence increases with age. c. Fluid intelligence increases with age, while crystallized intelligence declines with age. d. Performance on IQ tests seems to be rising steadily and consistently over time. 41. Which statement regarding differences in IQ is NOT supported by research findings? a. The average IQ for many of the larger minority groups in the United States is about 6 to 15 points

lower than it is for white people. b. Children from the lowest social classes score about 15 points lower on IQ tests than do children from the highest social classes. c. The average difference in IQ between minority groups and white people is largely a function of genetic factors. d. Group differences in average IQ can be influenced by environmental factors, even if the heritability of intelligence is high. 42. Professor Ridley is known for giving fair exams that include only test items for which the student should have

been prepared. What can Professor Ridley’s exams be said to be high in? a. predictive validity b. content validity c. standardized validity d. criterion-related validity 43. Why is it important to be able to regulate emotions, according to theories of emotional intelligence? a. to dampen negative emotions and make effective use of positive emotions b. to prevent emotions from influencing your behaviour c. to accurately perceive emotions in others d. to keep your emotions secret so that others cannot manipulate you

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 44. What would Galton have said if you were to ask him why there were so many eminent minds within his family

(including himself and cousin Charles Darwin)? a. Intelligence is correlated with level of education, so education causes intelligence. b. People notice the eminent minds and ignore all the dimmer ones, leading to a confirmation bias. c. Great intelligence is passed from generation to generation, genetically. d. The advantages of the upper class allowed for development of a strong intellect. 45. Chase is completing a mechanical aptitude test because he wants to become a commercial mechanic. People

who are successful mechanics tend to score high on this test. What does this aptitude test have? a. face validity b. criterion-related validity c. reliability d. construct validity 46. Where would an IQ score of 100 put you on the normal curve, when IQ scores are assumed to be normally

distributed? a. to the right of the centre of the normal curve b. at the centre of the normal curve c. your exact location depends on the performance of others taking the test with you d. to the left of the centre of the normal curve 47. In Galton’s book Hereditary Genius, he described his theory of intelligence. What did he feel played the

largest role in the expression of intelligence? a. genetic inheritance of intelligence b. advantages associated with being born to the upper class c. speed of reaction time d. family traditions related to education 48. Which statement does NOT characterize psychological tests? a. Psychological tests allow one to predict behaviour accurately. b. Psychological tests are samples of behaviour. c. Psychological tests measure individual differences. d. Psychological tests are standardized measures of behaviour. 49. Ira has never done well on conventional tests designed to measure reasoning and logical-mathematical

abilities, but when new and complex situations arise at his job, he is always the one who seems to come up with novel and effective solutions for the problems. What intelligence type does Ira show, according to Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence? a. high creative intelligence, but lower practical intelligence b. high creative intelligence, but lower analytical intelligence c. high analytical intelligence, but lower creative intelligence d. high practical intelligence, but lower creative intelligence Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 50. What are we evaluating about a test if we use test-retest procedures? a. criterion validity b. reliability c. content validity

d. accuracy

51. What does the percentile score indicate when a deviation IQ score is converted into a percentile score? a. the percentage of cases scoring at a lower level b. the percentage of questions that were answered correctly c. the difference between the individual’s score and the mean of the distribution d. the likelihood that a person can be expected to score at a similar level if the test is taken again 52. What is NOT one of the subtheories of the triarchic theory of intelligence proposed by Sternberg? a. analytical b. generative c. creative

d. practical

53. Which statement best reflects current recommendations by experts regarding the identification of gifted

children? a. Schools should restrict their selection of gifted children to those with special talents. b. The use of IQ scores in selecting gifted children is a violation of constitutional law. c. Schools should not rely too heavily on IQ tests to select gifted children. d. A child cannot be classified as gifted unless they have an IQ score of at least 130. 54. Molly has an uncanny ability to discern and respond appropriately to the moods, temperaments, motivations,

and desires of other people. Which type of intelligence does Molly display, according to Gardner? a. intrapersonal b. interpersonal c. socioemotional d. parapsychological 55. The correlation in IQ scores between identical twins reared apart is higher than that between fraternal twins

reared together. What does this suggest about intellectual development? a. It is not affected by either genetics or environmental factors. b. It is influenced more by genetics than by environmental factors. c. It is influenced more by environmental factors than by genetics. d. It is affected equally by genetics and environmental factors. 56. Which of the following was one of the criticisms of Binet’s original IQ test? a. It was too dependent on participants’ verbal abilities and did not adequately assess nonverbal abilities. b. It was too heavily based on potential and did not adequately address past learning. c. The concept of mental age did not adequately identify children in need of special schooling. d. It was expensive, difficult to administer, and highly subjective.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 57. According to the system traditionally used to categorize various levels of intellectual disability, Keaton was

classified as moderate. What would you expect of Keaton? a. IQ score between 55 and 75, and academic skills equivalent to a Grade 6 child b. IQ score between 40 and 55, and academic skills equivalent to a Grade 3 child c. IQ score between 25 and 40, and the ability to learn simple tasks in highly structured environments d. IQ score less than 25, and few or no speech skills 58. Which of the following statements about emotional intelligence is FALSE? a. Emotional intelligence has a clear and agreed-upon definition. b. It is positively correlated with academic achievement. c. It is positively correlated with relationship satisfaction. d. Some researchers question whether this is truly a form of intelligence. 59. Maranda tells you that her 12-year-old cousin recently completed an intelligence test that translated raw

scores into deviation IQ scores. Maranda knows that his score was 75, but she is not sure what this means. What can you tell Maranda about her cousin’s performance? a. He answered 75 percent of the questions correctly on the test. b. He is at the 75th percentile for intelligence. c. He scored below the mean for 12-year-olds. d. He scored at the mean for the average 9-year-old. 60. What is a child’s IQ if the chronological age matches the mental age? a. 50 b. 75 c. 100

d. 125

61. Which trait has NOT been linked to creativity? a. nonconformity b. independence c. impulsiveness

d. conscientiousness

62. What is a 10-year-old child’s IQ if he has a mental age score of 8 on the Binet test? a. 75 b. 80 c. 100

d. 125

63. For which of the following would it be the most difficult to demonstrate validity? a. history achievement test b. test of creativity c. mechanical aptitude test

d. test of mathematical ability

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 64. What would you expect to find if you correlated the IQ scores for fraternal and identical twins, if differences

in IQ scores were entirely a result of environmental factors? a. higher correlations for identical twins reared apart than for fraternal twins reared together b. lower correlations for identical twins reared together than for identical twins reared apart c. equal correlations for identical twins reared together and for identical twins reared apart d. higher correlations for fraternal twins reared together than for identical twins reared apart 65. Shelley is about to complete an IQ test, and she believes that people will attribute a poor score to her race

rather than her effort or education. As a consequence of this belief, she performs more poorly on the exam than she is able. Which theory is illustrated in this example? a. reaction range b. stereotype vulnerability c. self-monitoring hypothesis d. ethnic standardization Lucy Lucy is a 10-year-old who has just completed a typical intelligence test. Her overall score places her right at the average for children her age. She did not score equally well on all components of the test, however. One part of the test was problematic for Lucy. When she had to assemble blocks to match a design, she understood how to do the task, but she had real difficulty just manipulating the blocks because her manual dexterity is very poor; she kept fumbling with the pieces. Lucy got very frustrated with that task. When she realized that her frustration was likely going to make her even more likely to make mistakes, she stopped, took a deep breath, and calmed herself down a bit. When she started back up again she made fewer mistakes. The test administrator noticed Lucy’s distress and said, “Don’t worry, lots of little girls have trouble with the blocks.” Lucy started making mistakes again after that. 66. Which of Gardner’s eight intelligences would Lucy likely score low in, based on her difficulty with the block task? a. naturalist b. manual c. bodily-kinesthetic d. logical-mathematical 67. Which statement corresponds most closely to Arthur Jensen’s position on ethnic differences in average IQ

scores? a. IQ differences reflect differences in various cultures’ focus on education and testing. b. IQ differences reflect the inherent bias in IQ tests toward different ethnic groups. c. IQ differences are a function of relative nutritional levels for different ethnic groups, particularly the amount of protein in one’s diet. d. IQ differences are a function of the relative nature of the gene pool for different ethnic groups.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 68. Jamal recently completed an intelligence test and was told that his IQ score was 135. How would Jamal be

categorized based on the standard practices in most school districts? a. He would not meet the criterion for giftedness unless he was also highly creative. b. He would need to show superior potential in at least three other areas to be eligible for gifted programs. c. He would be mainstreamed and would attend regular classes for most of the day. d. He would be considered gifted and would be eligible for gifted programs. 69. Jade is a graduate student who has been studying psychology for the past six years. When she first started in

her psychology classes, she frequently got key concepts mixed up. Now she can easily apply core concepts to novel situations. What type of intelligence is associated with Jade’s current ability to apply her knowledge? a. inductive b. experiential c. crystallized d. fluid 70. On which type of psychological test would the question “How many uses can you think of for a shoe?” most

likely appear? a. personality test c. intelligence test

b. creativity test d. achievement test

71. Larry tells you that his 10-year-old cousin recently completed an intelligence test that translated raw scores

into deviation IQ scores. Larry knows that her score was 120, but he is not sure what this means. What could you tell him about his cousin’s performance? a. She answered 120 questions correctly on the test. b. She scored above the mean for 10-year-olds. c. She scored at the mean for the average 12-year-old. d. She is at the 120th percentile for intelligence. 72. When Charmaine was 10 years old, she completed the original Binet-Simon Intelligence Scale. She correctly

answered all the questions that a typical six-year-old would answer, but none of the questions a typical seven-year-old would answer. What is Charmaine’s mental age based on this information? a. 6 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 6/10 years 73. What is NOT one of the eight types of intelligence proposed by Gardner? a. spatial b. linguistic c. emotional

d. interpersonal

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 74. What would you predict if you know that Marnie has a high IQ score? a. She will likely have a job in science. b. She has an increased likelihood of having a high-status job. c. She will not experience stereotype threat in testing situations. d. She will perform well at her job. 75. Who are Lupart and Pyryt referring to in their description of the “hidden gifted”? a. Those who have genius-level IQs and remove themselves from social interactions. b. Children who may be gifted but have not yet been psychologically tested. c. Children with high levels of intelligence who underperform for a variety of reasons. d. Children whose intelligence is undetected because they refuse to participate in scholastic activities. 76. Shawna’s IQ score was calculated using the formula developed by William Stern, and the result was 92.

What does this indicate? a. Shawna’s mental age is greater than her chronological age. b. The IQ score calculation was done incorrectly. c. Shawna’s mental age and chronological age are the same. d. Shawna’s chronological age is greater than her mental age. 77. According to Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, which type of intelligence is associated with

the ability to cope well with unique or novel tasks? a. creative b. analytic c. practical d. contextual 78. According to Robert Sternberg, intelligence can be divided into three major parts. What are they? a. artistic intelligence, performance intelligence, and rational intelligence b. verbal fluency, numerical ability, and memory c. crystallized intelligence, fluid intelligence, and transient intelligence d. analytical intelligence, creative intelligence, and practical intelligence 79. Simona is arguing with a friend about whether Bigfoot really exists. Simona claims that it must not exist, since

no one has ever offered proof of existence. Her friend argues that Bigfoot must exist, since no one can disprove that it exists. What techniques are being used by Simona and her friend, respectively? a. Both Simona and her friend are using reification. b. Simona is using reification, and her friend is using the appeal to ignorance. c. Simona is using the appeal to ignorance, and her friend is using reification. d. Both Simona and her friend are using the appeal to ignorance.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 80. Conrad’s economic professor tells the class that the next exam will cover Chapters 5 through 7 of their text.

The day of the exam, the professor accidentally photocopies the exam from the previous semester, which includes several questions from Chapters 8 and 9. What will be a problem for the exam? a. low reliability b. improper standardization c. inappropriate construct validity d. poor content validity 81. Miko recently completed the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale and was told that her deviation IQ score fell

at the 50th percentile. What does this mean? a. Miko’s score falls below the average for the test. b. Miko’s IQ score would be 100. c. Miko’s IQ score would also be 50. d. Miko answered half the questions on the exam incorrectly. 82. Who proposed the notion of stereotype vulnerability to explain ethnic differences in IQ scores? a. Sandra Scarr b. Arthur Jensen c. Philippe Rushton

d. Claude Steele

83. What would you predict for individuals whose IQ was in the gifted range, based on evidence from several

studies? a. greater exposure to drugs and other toxins b. a relatively short lifespan c. a relatively long lifespan d. greater exposure to stressors that are associated with heart disease 84. Daphne is analyzing data from a new psychological test. She is looking at all the correlations for all the

various questions to determine whether there are some traits that seem to go together. Which procedure is similar to Daphne’s technique? a. analysis of variance b. covariance c. trend analysis d. factor analysis 85. Two people taking the same test in two different places will receive the same instructions, the same questions,

and the same time limits. What term is used to describe this type of test? a. regulated b. normalized c. standardized d. validated 86. In the 1980s, the developers of IQ tests began to focus on multiple indicators of intelligence, with the goal of

giving clinicians, educators, and school systems more information to help aid them in the diagnosis of learning disabilities and evaluating children’s potential. This view of intelligence is most in line with that of which of the following individuals? a. Sir Francis Galton b. Charles Spearman c. L. L. Thurstone d. Robert Sternberg Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 87. Which statement has the least support? a. The average IQ in the lowest social classes is about 15 points lower than the average IQ in the highest

social classes. b. Genetic factors are strongly implicated in the cause of ethnic group differences in intelligence. c. Intelligence is at least somewhat genetic in origin. d. The average IQ for some minority groups in the United States is several points lower than the average for white Americans. 88. What does it mean to say that the heritability of a trait is 70 percent? a. Thirty percent of a person’s expression of that trait is due to environmental factors. b. Seventy percent of a person’s expression of that trait is due to heredity. c. Seventy percent of the variability of that trait in a group is accounted for by genetic variation. d. The correlation between identical twins should be approximately +0.70 for that trait. 89. Which of the following describes a factor analysis? a. combining the statistical results of several studies on the same topic to gain an “overall picture” of the

research on a particular question b. performing a set of correlations among many items to identify groups of highly-related items c. analyzing whether the effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable differs depending on a third factor d. conducting an in-depth study of a specific individual or small group of individuals in order to gain a full understanding of some rare phenomenon 90. In practice, what is the minimum IQ score for most gifted programs? a. 100 b. 115 c. 130

d. 150

91. What is the largest category of intellectual disability? a. profound b. mild c. moderate

d. severe

92. Erika is a counsellor who seems to easily infer other people’s moods, temperaments, emotions, and

intentions. Which type of intelligence does Erika display, according to Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences? a. bodily-kinesthetic b. interpersonal c. crystallized d. intrapersonal

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 93. Similar to an achievement test that measures facts and knowledge that have been previously learned, one

measure of intelligence that focuses on the ability to apply previously learned information to current problems is called which of the following? a. fluid intelligence b. crystallized intelligence c. practical intelligence d. interpersonal intelligence 94. What is the heritability estimate for intelligence, according to most researchers? a. less than 40 percent b. around 50 percent c. approximately 80 percent

d. close to 100 percent

95. Which statement best describes the relationship between giftedness and achievement in life? a. Gifted children typically make genius-level contributions to society as adults. b. The majority of children in gifted programs do NOT achieve eminence as adults. c. There is a negative correlation between IQ in childhood and significance of achievement as an adult. d. Most gifted children tend to “burn out” by the time they reach their mid-20s. 96. What is an individual’s percentile score? a. percentage of people who score below the mean on a standardized test b. percentage of people who score between the mean and their score c. percentage of people who score above their score d. percentage of people who score at or below their score 97. Which statement best describes the influence of culture on the use of IQ tests? a. IQ tests are widely used in virtually all cultures. b. It is generally accepted across all cultures that it is possible to measure and quantify intellectual ability. c. Western IQ tests generally translate well into the language and cognitive framework of non-Western

cultures. d. Different cultures have different conceptions of what intelligence is. 98. Dr. Carmody has designed a new critical thinking assessment test. He administers the test to a group of

students in October. In April, he tests the same students and finds that the overall correlation between the two sets of scores is +0.91. What could Dr. Carmody conclude about his new test based on this information? a. It has been well standardized. b. It will have high criterion-related validity. c. It appears to have high test-retest reliability. d. It likely has low construct validity.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 99. Ari has an IQ score of 125. Given what we know about reaction ranges, what can you conclude about Ari? a. You cannot draw any conclusions without more information. b. Ari has a relatively wide intellectual reaction range. c. Ari is scoring near the top of her intellectual reaction range. d. Ari has been raised in an intellectually enriched environment. 100. Georgia is a bright seven-year-old who has above-average intelligence. Which of the following is most likely

to be true, based on research? a. Later in life, she is likely to have a higher mortality rate compared to someone else who is of average intelligence. b. Later in life, she is likely to have a lower mortality rate compared to someone else who is of average intelligence. c. Later in life, she is likely to have a higher incidence of coronary disease due to a more sedentary lifestyle. d. Later in life, she will have no difference in health or mortality rates, compared to someone else who is of average intelligence. 101. Megan has an IQ score of 30, and she is able to perform simple tasks in highly structured, supervised

environments. In which category would Megan most likely be classified, according to the system traditionally used to categorize various levels of intellectual disability? a. severe b. profound c. mild d. moderate 102. Modern models of intelligence are often represented as a series of layers, with general intelligence at the top,

and each lower layer subdivided into more specific abilities. These models are known as which of the following models of intelligence? a. componential b. aptitude c. multifactor d. hierarchical 103. If IQ tests require knowledge as well as skill or ability in order to perform well, which of the following

criticisms of IQ tests is most accurate? a. IQ tests are tests of achievement rather than aptitude. b. IQ tests have no criterion validity. c. IQ tests are unreliable. d. IQ tests do not have perfect construct validity. 104. What are you calculating when you use the formula (mental age/chronological age) x 100? a. intelligence quotient b. Binet quotient c. maturity quotient

d. achievement quotient

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 105. Sakina is very critical of some types of intelligence tests. She says that they are too focused on past learning,

which could have been influenced by factors other than intelligence—such as the quality of school that someone went to. Sakina would therefore be MOST critical of which of the following types of intelligence tests? a. fluid intelligence tests b. aptitude tests c. standardized tests d. achievement tests 106. Leticia is a prima ballerina with a New York ballet company. Which intelligence does Leticia display,

according to Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences? a. spatial b. bodily-kinesthetic c. interpersonal d. experiential 107. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the findings from adoption studies and IQ? a. Adopted children show some resemblance to their foster parents in IQ. b. Siblings reared together are more similar in IQ than siblings reared apart. c. Entirely unrelated children who are raised in the same home have no similarities in IQ. d. Research with adopted children provides useful evidence about the impact of experience as well as

heredity. 108. Ashley is 30 years old. She has an IQ score of 60, and she has developed academic skills equivalent to a

Grade 6 education level. She is self-supporting, even though she still lives with her parents. Which category would reflect Ashley’s abilities, according to the system traditionally used to categorize various levels of intellectual disability? a. mild b. profound c. moderate d. severe 109. What appears to be the most responsible for ethnic differences in IQ? a. cultural disadvantages associated with a lower-class upbringing b. poor rapport between a non-minority test giver and a minority test taker c. culturally biased tests d. genetic differences between ethnic groups 110. Complete the following analogy: Predictability is to criterion-related validity as __________ is to test-retest

reliability. a. consistency c. correlation

b. predictability d. standardization

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 111. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the textbook as a possible reason for the correlation between

early IQ (at age seven) and later health and longevity? a. Good genes may foster both higher intelligence and resilient health. b. Individuals with higher intelligence may be more likely to engage in healthy behaviours. c. Individuals with higher intelligence tend to have lower stress jobs and better access to medical care. d. Higher intelligence individuals are more likely to visit medical websites and therefore are more accurate in self-diagnosis. 112. Kira has been raised in an impoverished environment, with no access to books and very few age-appropriate

toys. What does the reaction range model predict for Kira? a. She will score near the bottom of her potential IQ range. b. She will show a steady decrease in IQ score during early childhood and adolescence. c. She will perform worse than the majority of her peers on standardized tests of intelligence. d. She will have a narrower intellectual reaction range than children raised in more stimulating environments. 113. What would your score be if 30 percent of a reference group scored higher than you on a test? a. at the 29th percentile b. at the 30th percentile c. at the 70th percentile

d. at the 74th percentile

114. The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-IV) divides the full-scale IQ score into subscores, such as

verbal IQ and perceptual reasoning. These can, in turn, be divided into specific subtest scores (e.g., vocabulary, similarities, information). As such, the WAIS-IV is MOST likely to agree with which of the following models of intelligence? a. entity b. aptitude c. hierarchical d. fluid 115. When Lance was 8 years old, he completed the original Binet-Simon Intelligence Scale. He correctly

answered all the questions that a typical 10-year-old would answer, but none of the questions a typical 11year-old would answer. What is Lance’s mental age based on this information? a. 8 years b. 9 years c. 10 years d. 18 years

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1

Lucy Lucy is a 10-year-old who has just completed a typical intelligence test. Her overall score places her right at the average for children her age. She did not score equally well on all components of the test, however. One part of the test was problematic for Lucy. When she had to assemble blocks to match a design, she understood how to do the task, but she had real difficulty just manipulating the blocks because her manual dexterity is very poor; she kept fumbling with the pieces. Lucy got very frustrated with that task. When she realized that her frustration was likely going to make her even more likely to make mistakes, she stopped, took a deep breath, and calmed herself down a bit. When she started back up again she made fewer mistakes. The test administrator noticed Lucy’s distress and said, “Don’t worry, lots of little girls have trouble with the blocks.” Lucy started making mistakes again after that. 116. Which hypothesis is illustrated by Lucy’s difficulty after the test administrator’s comments? a. reaction range b. Flynn effect c. cumulative deprivation hypothesis d. stereotype vulnerability 117. What type of correlation exists between social class and intelligence? a. negative b. inverse c. zero

d. positive

118. In trying to decide which career would fit your abilities and interests, you would probably want to take a test

that would measure your potential or talent for specific kinds of activities. Which type of test should you choose? a. test of general mental ability b. achievement test c. aptitude test d. intelligence test 119. Wechsler developed the deviation IQ based on the normal distribution. What would an overall IQ of 130

mean on his test? a. The person’s mental age is 13 and chronological age is 10. b. The person has 130 units of intelligence. c. The test score was calculated incorrectly, because 100 is the highest possible score. d. The person scored 2 standard deviations above the mean. 120. Robert Sternberg and colleagues have shown that measures of all three aspects of intelligence in his triarchic

theory can increase predictions of how well a person will perform in their first year of college. In other words, measuring these aspects can increase the _____________ of intelligence tests. a. reliability b. criterion-related validity c. standardization d. factor analysis

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 121. Dr. Gomes is planning to administer an intelligence test to a child who is 12 years old. Which of the following

tests is most appropriate in this instance? a. WAIS-IV b. WPPSI-IV c. WISC-V d. None of these tests is valid as the child is too young for intelligence testing. 122. At the beginning of the semester, all the students enrolled in a fitness class are required to take a test designed

to assess their current fitness level. The test assesses each student’s fat-to-muscle ratio, asks several questions about lifestyle and personal habits, and measures aerobic function and stress response. Which statement best describes the preliminary fitness test? a. It has been well standardized. b. It is likely to have high reliability. c. It is likely to have high construct validity. d. It is likely to have low criterion-related validity. 123. Adam and Carla had equivalent scores on the verbal component of the Wechsler intelligence test, but Adam

had a higher score on the performance scale. What could you infer about Carla’s score? a. Carla is likely younger than Adam. b. Carla’s performance scale would be normalized. c. Carla’s full-scale IQ score will be lower than Adam’s. d. Carla’s verbal score is invalid. 124. What is the most likely explanation for the health effects associated with IQ score in the various studies

described in your text? a. Low IQ is a consequence of underlying disease. b. Intelligence is correlated with personality factors that predispose us to psychosomatic illnesses. c. Intelligence is merely a by-product of overall health. d. Intelligence is correlated with social status and other lifestyle factors that influence health. 125. What is the approximate IQ of someone classified as severely intellectually disabled? a. 25 to 40 b. 55 to 75 c. 75 to 85

d. 85 to 95

126. The SAT is an exam that is designed to evaluate high-school students’ skills that will be useful in university. It

essentially is meant to predict future success in university. On the other hand, final exams in high school assess the degree to which the course material was learned. These represent ____________ and __________ tests, respectively. a. criterion-related; content b. non-standardized; standardized c. crystallized; fluid d. aptitude; achievement Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 127. Dr. Nehal is planning to administer an intelligence test to a child who is three years old. Which of the following

tests is most appropriate in this instance? a. WAIS-IV b. WPPSI-IV c. WISC-V d. None of these tests is valid as the child is too young for intelligence testing. 128. What is an expression of the nurture side of the nature versus nurture argument? a. Intellectual potential is something with which you are born; it is not acquired. b. Environmental deprivation has little effect on intellectual performance. c. An intellectually stimulating environment can lead to noticeable increases in the IQs of disadvantaged

children. d. An intellectually stimulating environment will be wasted on those who do not have some innate intellectual potential. 129. While they are not fixed and may rise or decline depending on the circumstances, why do our IQ scores

NOT usually increase as we get older? a. We do not accumulate that much more information as we get older. b. The tests are not designed to measure increases in knowledge as we get older. c. An IQ score is indicative of our relative standing in our particular age group. d. The tests for adults are not comparable to the tests for children. 130. Which form of intellectual disability is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome? a. Down syndrome b. psychosocial c. phenylketonuria

d. hydrocephaly

131. Jordan recently took an IQ test and scored 85. Approximately what proportion of the population has an IQ

score that is lower than Jordan? a. 34 percent b. 16 percent c. 5 percent d. 2 percent 132. When tested on the Binet-Simon Intelligence Scale, Ada is found to have a mental age of eight. What does

this mean? a. She is intellectually impaired. b. Her performance was as good as that of an average 8-year-old. c. Her IQ is 80. d. Her score is 8 standard deviation units above the average score.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 133. Who was the first person to calculate IQ based on scores relative to a normal distribution that was itself

based on scores from a standardization group? a. Lewis Terman b. Alfred Binet c. David Wechsler d. Charles Spearman 134. Vlad is very sensitive to the sounds, rhythms, and meaning of words, and the different functions of language.

Which intelligence does Vlad display, according to Gardner? a. linguistic b. crystallized c. musical d. fluid 135. According to Robert Sternberg, which type of intelligence do IQ tests tend to focus narrowly on? a. mechanical b. social c. academic

d. quantitative

136. Extending the tradition of L. L. Thurstone, J. P. Guilford believed that intelligence comprises how many

abilities? a. 3 b. 7 c. 50 d. 150 137. Although some early studies attempted to correlate head size with intelligence, more recent advances in

neuroscience have allowed greater precision in measuring brain size directly. Which of the following is the approximate correlation between brain volume and intelligence, based on these neuroscience studies? a. Approximately –0.80 to –0.90 b. Approximately –0.05 to +0.05 c. Approximately +0.25 to +0.30 d. Approximately +0.50 to +0.60 138. What would constitute the strongest evidence for environmental influence in intelligence, if they were very

similar? a. identical twins reared together b. adopted children and their biological parents c. adopted children and their adoptive parents d. parents and their biological children 139. In which of the following non-Western countries are IQ tests most likely to be used? a. Malaysia b. India c. Japan

d. China

140. Which criteria to determine intellectual “giftedness” tends to be used in most school districts? a. creativity b. IQ test performance c. leadership skills

d. degree of social competence

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 141. Charles Spearman is to _____ type(s) of intelligence as J. P. Guilford is to ____ type(s) of intelligence. a. one; seven b. one; 150 c. seven; one

d. seven; 150

142. How many distinct or primary mental abilities make up intelligence, according to L. L. Thurstone? a. 3 b. 7 c. 50

d. 150

143. What is NOT one of the essential components of emotional intelligence? a. awareness of the impact of emotions on thought processes b. effective regulation of emotions c. accurate perception of emotions d. open expression of all emotions 144. Which of the following correlation coefficients between participants’ scores on a test and their scores on the

same test at a later date would represent the highest test-retest reliability? a. –0.65 b. 0.00 c. +0.10 d. +0.40 145. What would we say about a test if it accurately measures what it was designed to measure? a. It is normative. b. It is consistent. c. It is reliable.

d. It is valid.

146. Jamie is a 23-year-old female who only completed Grade 3. She is employed in a sheltered workshop and

has a difficult time with even mild stress. What is most likely? a. Jamie has a mild intellectual disability. b. Jamie has a profound intellectual disability. c. Jamie is has a learning disability but of normal intelligence. d. Jamie has a moderate intellectual disability. 147. Which phrase was coined by Galton in his analysis of heredity and the role of the environment on intelligence? a. survival of the fittest b. common sense c. nature versus nurture

d. mental age

148. Which type of standardized test would be used to predict how well you will do in college or university? a. intelligence test b. personality test c. aptitude test

d. predictive test

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 149. What could you conclude about a test—designed to measure friendliness—which correlates negatively with

measures of social discomfort, correlates positively with measures of sociability, and has low correlations with measures of intelligence? a. It has high reliability. b. It has low test norms. c. It has low criterion-related validity. d. It has high construct validity. 150. What type of test is a spelling test? a. intelligence test b. analytical test c. achievement test

d. aptitude test

151. According to the Critical Thinking Application in your text, what is the best way to think of “intelligence”? a. a product of heredity b. a useful abstraction c. a score on an IQ test

d. a tangible commodity

152. What would you predict for an individual who excels in a particular academic area, based on Charles

Spearman’s view of intelligence? a. He is likely to “burn out” when he is older. b. He is likely to excel in most academic areas. c. He is also likely to be a gifted athlete or musician. d. He is likely to show deficiencies in other academic areas. 153. Approximately what proportion of the population has an IQ between 70 and 130? a. 50 percent b. 68 percent c. 84 percent

d. 95 percent

154. What would be described by a correlation between a group’s scores on an industrial aptitude test and actual

performance on the industrial job? a. content validity of the test c. criterion-related validity of the job

b. criterion-related validity of the test d. construct validity of the test

155. Lanette is arguing with her professor that questions on her last test were not covered during lectures or in the

textbook. What does Lanette believe is the problem with the test? a. low test-retest reliability b. low content validity c. low criterion-related validity d. low criterion-related reliability 156. Jerome is 8 years old and has been determined to have a mental age of 10. What is Jerome’s IQ? a. 80 b. 100 c. 110

d. 125

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 157. The importance of which factor is best illustrated by the observed ethnic differences in average intelligence

within Western societies? a. cognitive and hereditary c. genetic and biological

b. cultural and environmental d. evolutionary

158. Similar to an aptitude test that measures future potential, one measure of intelligence that focuses on reasoning

and the ability to solve novel problems quickly and accurately is called which of the following? a. fluid intelligence b. crystallized intelligence c. practical intelligence d. interpersonal intelligence 159. What should be true of someone who is high in analytic intelligence, according to Robert Sternberg’s triarchic

theory of intelligence? a. She would be able to solve problems that are unique to her cultural surroundings. b. She would perform well on conventional tests that measure reasoning skills. c. She would cope well with new or novel tasks. d. She would show deficits in the other two areas of cognitive function. 160. Callum recently took an IQ test and scored 115. Approximately what proportion of the population has an IQ

score that is lower than Callum? a. 50 percent b. 68 percent c. 84 percent d. 95 percent 161. Approximately what proportion of the population has an IQ between 85 and 115? a. 34 percent b. 50 percent c. 68 percent

d. 84 percent

162. Which of the following are considered to be organic origins of intellectual disability? a. Fragile X syndrome and stereotypy b. phenylketonuria and Fragile X syndrome c. Down syndrome and socio-economic status d. lower-quality schooling and hydrocephaly 163. Matthew recently took an online quiz entitled “What Kind of Friend Are You?” He was delighted that he

scored “Tried and True,” and so he took the quiz to a party to show off to his friends. To his embarrassment, when he took the quiz again, he scored “Phony Friend.” This alone suggests that the quiz has which of the following? a. low criterion-related validity b. low content validity c. low test-retest reliability d. low standardization and norming 164. Which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest test-retest reliability for a test? a. –0.75 b. 0.00 c. +0.70

d. +0.90

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 165. What does a psychological test measure? a. a sample of a person’s behaviour b. a person’s absolute level of performance c. a person’s typical behaviour

d. the constancies of a person’s behaviour

166. Blackwell and colleagues’ concept of “growth mind-set” with respect to intelligence is most similar to which

of the following? a. creative intelligence c. aptitude testing

b. fluid intelligence d. incremental theory of intelligence

167. Benedicte recently took an IQ test and scored 130. Approximately what proportion of the population has an

IQ score that is higher than Benedicte? a. 34 percent b. 14 percent c. 5 percent d. 2 percent 168. Dr. Singh designs a test he believes will predict an individual’s ability to perform in managerial positions.

When Dr. Singh administers his test to 100 managers at Aldor Corporation, he finds that some of the best managers do well on the test, but others do quite poorly. What should Dr. Singh conclude about his test? a. It lacks criterion-related validity. b. It is unreliable. c. It lacks content validity. d. It is not well standardized. 169. When Francesca took the ACT Assessment this year, she was allowed to use a graphing calculator on the

mathematics portion of the exam. Her older sister is surprised, because when she took the test six years ago, calculators were not allowed for any portion of the exam. What is the most likely result of the test? a. Francesca’s score is probably less reliable than her sister’s score. b. Francesca probably earned a higher score on the exam than her sister did. c. It would be difficult to meaningfully compare Francesca’s score with her sister’s score. d. The current form of the ACT Assessment has poor construct validity. 170. What do we call a test that yields nearly identical scores when it is retaken after a two-month interval? a. standardized b. valid c. reliable

d. significant

171. Which of the following is an example of reification? a. Todd believes in witches, because no one has proven they don’t exist. b. Annette talks about “human nature” as if it were something concrete that can be measured. c. Claude believes there is a monster under the bed, because he dreamed about it. d. Sherry rejects the germ theory of disease, because she’s never seen bacteria under a microscope.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 172. Walter is 10 years old and has a mental age of 8, based on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Alfred is 12

years old and has a mental age of 8, based on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Which statement best describes this situation, if you are using the intelligence quotient to compare the two boys? a. Both boys would be considered equally intelligent. b. Walter would be considered more intelligent than Alfred. c. Alfred would be considered more intelligent than Walter. d. The scores cannot be meaningfully compared because the boys are not the same age. 173. Who is credited with devising the first intelligence quotient scoring scheme based on chronological age and

mental age? a. Alfred Binet c. Lewis Terman

b. David Wechsler d. William Stern

174. What was typical of participants in Terman’s longitudinal study of gifted individuals? a. They tend to conform to society’s traditional view of the gifted. b. They tend to be above average in physical and emotional health. c. They tend to be vulnerable to a range of mental disorders. d. They become adults who are no more successful than average. 175. Where do the vast majority of children with mild intellectual disability come from? a. middle-class, suburban families b. predominantly rural areas c. lower socio-economic classes

d. blended families

Lucy Lucy is a 10-year-old who has just completed a typical intelligence test. Her overall score places her right at the average for children her age. She did not score equally well on all components of the test, however. One part of the test was problematic for Lucy. When she had to assemble blocks to match a design, she understood how to do the task, but she had real difficulty just manipulating the blocks because her manual dexterity is very poor; she kept fumbling with the pieces. Lucy got very frustrated with that task. When she realized that her frustration was likely going to make her even more likely to make mistakes, she stopped, took a deep breath, and calmed herself down a bit. When she started back up again she made fewer mistakes. The test administrator noticed Lucy’s distress and said, “Don’t worry, lots of little girls have trouble with the blocks.” Lucy started making mistakes again after that. 176. When Lucy recognized that she needed to calm down, which type of intelligence does this reflect? a. self-sufficient b. emotional c. fluid d. eminence

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 177. Your son’s school has just informed you that, based on the results of a variety of standardized tests, your son

is eligible to be placed in a gifted program. What is NOT likely? a. Your son scored in the top 2 to 3 percent of standardized scores. b. Your son is healthy and well adjusted. c. If your son enters the gifted program, it will reduce his chances of achieving eminence as an adult. d. Even though your son has been identified as gifted, he may still underperform in school for a variety of reasons. 178. Who contributed to the view that intelligence is a single, general ability? a. Howard Gardner b. L. L. Thurstone c. Robert Sternberg

d. Charles Spearman

179. What would you use to determine where a particular score on a test falls in relationship to a comparison

group? a. test outcome data c. test standardization information

b. test reliability d. test norms

180. In what proportion of cases are diagnosticians able to pin down an organic cause for intellectual disability? a. fewer than 25 percent of all cases b. approximately 40 percent of all cases c. about 50 percent of all cases

d. more than 85 percent of all cases

181. What does someone try to do when engaged in convergent thinking? a. utilize a hypothetico-deductive reasoning strategy to solve a problem b. narrow down a list of alternatives to solve a problem c. involve a relevant schema in order to solve a problem d. work from the very specific to the very general to solve a problem 182. Simran holds an incremental view of intelligence, which means which of the following? a. She attributes many of her failures to inability. b. She credits her successes to genetics. c. She gives up easily when faced with a difficult task. d. She thinks that her ability can be increased through effort. 183. Jade is writing a new intelligence test since she believes that many typical intelligence tests are flawed because

of their focus on past learning. She says that the scores on these other tests might be affected by factors other than intelligence—such as the quality of school that someone went to. Given these beliefs, which of the following types of tests is Jade’s new-and-improved test most likely to be? a. crystallized intelligence test b. aptitude test c. trait test d. achievement test

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 184. Which statements does NOT accurately describe the effect of enriched environments on IQ? a. Educational enrichment programs (e.g., Head Start) generally have not produced substantial, long-term

gains in IQ. b. The inability of enrichment programs to produce enduring increases in IQ indicates that intelligence is largely a product of heredity. c. Some adoption studies have demonstrated that an improved environment can lead to meaningful increases in IQ. d. The failure of enrichment programs to increase IQ scores may be due to the fact that the programs were poorly executed, or underfunded. 185. Dr. Webkamigad has developed a new logical reasoning test. She administers the test to a group of incoming

freshmen. The next year, she tests the same students, who are now sophomores, and finds that the overall correlation between the two sets of scores is –0.25. What should Dr. Webkamigad conclude about her new test, based on this information? a. It has low construct reliability. b. It has high test-retest validity. c. It has high criterion-related validity. d. It has low test-retest reliability. 186. What would Philippe Rushton primarily use to explain physical, social, and intellectual differences among

racial groups? a. emotional intelligence c. diet and rearing

b. genetic differences d. environmental influences

187. Which of the following was NOT coined or invented by Sir Francis Galton? a. the concept of correlation b. the technique of factor analysis c. the phrase “nature versus nurture”

d. the idea of percentile scores

188. According to theories that employ the concept of reaction range, which statement best describes the upper

limit of an individual’s intellectual potential? a. It is subject to modification until puberty. b. It is set by heredity. c. It is determined by environmental experiences. d. It is determined during the first year of life. 189. You are listening to a televised debate about cloning. One of the scientists says that cloning would allow us to

improve the quality of the human race by creating exact duplicates of highly intelligent people. People who were not considered suitable candidates for cloning would be able to adopt these “high quality” children, rather than having their own. Who would have been most likely to support this program? a. Francis Galton b. Lewis Terman c. Robert Sternberg d. Alfred Binet

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 190. Your group has been considering various ideas for a group project for the past three weeks. You currently

have 16 different ideas, but you’re required to hand in your final topic selection in class tomorrow morning. Which approach would make this task easiest to complete? a. divergent thinking b. field dependence c. convergent thinking d. transformational logic 191. What are the typical correlations between IQ scores and school grades? a. nonsignificant b. weakly positive c. moderately negative

d. strongly positive

192. What does the environmental hypothesis suggest about intellectual disability? a. It is a label used to direct slow learners into special education programs. b. It is best defined as the inability to adjust satisfactorily to one’s environment. c. It is caused by various unfavourable environmental factors. d. It is caused by environmental deficiencies in about 50 percent of cases. 193. What must be developed for a psychological test to tell you how you score relative to other people? a. scales b. norms c. levels

d. scores

194. Dustin recently completed the Artistic Reasoning Test (ART) for the third time in four months. The first time

he took the test, his score was near the middle of the scale. The second time, he scored near the top of the scale; but for the most recent test, he scored near the bottom of the scale. What do Dustin’s scores indicate about the test? a. It has not been properly standardized. b. It is measuring something other than artistic reasoning skills. c. It has poor construct validity. d. It has low reliability. 195. According to the reaction range model, which statement is most likely accurate? a. Children with average IQ scores will not have very wide reaction ranges. b. Children raised in high-quality environments should score near the top of their reaction range. c. Children with average IQ scores are being raised in average-quality environments. d. Children raised in high-quality environments will not have low IQ scores. 196. According to your text, creativity tests may have limited value. Why is this the case? a. The tests are not very reliable. b. It is basically impossible to define creativity. c. The tests measure creativity out of context. d. Creativity is a subjective judgment.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 197. Dr. Murphy has created a new test to assess elementary mathematics. However, because all of the problems

are word problems, scores on the test are actually more related to reading ability than mathematics. Dr. Murphy’s “mathematics” test shows which of the following? a. low content validity b. low criterion-related validity c. low construct validity d. low reliability 198. Gerald believes that all intelligent people share a core trait or ability that allows them to learn things quickly

and efficiently. Who would have agreed with Gerald? a. Sternberg b. Wechsler c. Thurstone d. Spearman 199. A test administrator, using the intelligence quotient formula developed by William Stern, determined that 12-

year-old Kavita had an IQ score of 75. What is Kavita’s mental age? a. 9 b. 12 c. 16 d. 18 200. What is the consequence of having the metabolic disorder phenylketonuria? a. It may lead to intellectual disability if accompanied by Fragile X syndrome. b. It leads to intellectual disability because of a lack of inhibitory control. c. It leads to intellectual disability if it occurs in infancy. d. It may lead to intellectual disability if not detected and treated in infancy. 201. What skill have IQ tests generally emphasized, according to Howard Gardner? a. analytical and practical b. verbal and mathematical c. spatial and linguistic

d. academic and interpersonal

202. At the end of her calculus course, Madelena takes a test to determine how well she has mastered the

material. What type of test would that be? a. intelligence test b. unstandardized test c. achievement test d. aptitude test 203. According to the system traditionally used to categorize various levels of intellectual disability, Forest was

placed in the profound category. What would you expect of Forest? a. IQ less than 25, and few or no speech skills b. IQ between 25 and 40, and the ability to learn simple tasks in a structured environment c. IQ between 40 and 55, and academic skills equivalent to a Grade 3 child d. IQ between 55 and 75, and academic skills equivalent to a Grade 6 child 204. Walter has taken a test that attempts to assess his interests and attitudes. What type of test has Walter most

likely taken? a. aptitude test c. achievement test

b. correlational test d. personality test

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 205. Danielle and Vanessa both scored high on a recent exam. Danielle believes that her success is due to the large

amount of studying that she did, as well as the study techniques that she learned to use for this exam. Vanessa, on the other hand, believes that her success is due to her highly intelligent parents, who she believes passed on their “smart genes” to her. Danielle would be said to hold an _________ view of intelligence, while Vanessa holds an _____________ view. a. entity; incremental b. aptitude; achievement c. incremental; entity d. achievement; aptitude 206. Francis has applied for admission to a computer science program, and one of the requirements for admission

is the completion of a test that measures abstract reasoning skills. What type of testing is being used in this case? a. projective test b. normative test c. aptitude test d. achievement test 207. Which statement does NOT accurately describe heredity and intelligence? a. Fraternal twins reared together have higher correlations on IQ than do identical twins reared apart. b. Fraternal twins reared together have higher correlations on IQ than do non-twin siblings reared

together. c. Identical twins show higher correlations on IQ than do fraternal twins. d. Siblings reared together have higher correlations on IQ than do siblings reared apart. 208. Coleman is currently 30 years old. When he was 15 years old, he took an intelligence test and was told that

his IQ score was 110. What would you expect Coleman’s current IQ score to be if he retakes the intelligence test now? a. Similar to his previous score of 110. b. Close to 220, double his previous score. c. Close to 55, one half his previous score. d. It would be unpredictable, because IQ scores tend to lack reliability. 209. Leo wants to become a fighter pilot, and he is asked to complete a test that is designed to determine if he has

the interests and the values typically found in fighter pilots. What type of test would be used in this example? a. aptitude b. non-standardized c. achievement d. personality 210. What aspect of a test are we referring to when we say that a test measures some abstract personal quality,

such as creativity or intelligence? a. construct validity b. content validity c. criterion-related validity d. face validity

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 211. Which statement best reflects current thinking regarding the relationship between creativity and mental illness? a. Creativity and psychological maladjustment are probably causally related. b. Creativity and psychological well-being appear to be completely unrelated. c. There is a weak but significant relationship between creativity and susceptibility to dissociative identity

disorder. d. There may be a correlation between major creative achievement and vulnerability to mood disorders. 212. Scott is efficient at processing information and performs well on conventional tests designed to measure

reasoning and logical-mathematical abilities. According to Sternberg’s triarchic theory, what type of intelligence does Scott display? a. analytic intelligence b. creative intelligence c. practical intelligence d. contextual intelligence 213. What differs between high-scoring groups and low-scoring groups, according to the cultural bias perspective

on ethnic differences in IQ scores? a. motivation b. genetic differences c. exposure to information d. skill 214. Carolina has been raised in an intellectually enriched environment, with lots of books and age-appropriate

toys. What does the reaction range model predict for Carolina? a. She will show a steady increase in IQ score during early childhood and adolescence. b. She will score near the top of her potential IQ range. c. She will perform better than the majority of her peers on standardized tests of intelligence. d. She will have a wider intellectual reaction range than children raised in less stimulating environments. 215. What type of tests are the exams given at the end of a course to determine how much you have learned in the

course? a. abilities tests c. achievement tests

b. intelligence tests d. aptitude tests

216. What does an achievement test measure? a. a person’s mastery and knowledge of a subject b. general mental ability c. basic characteristics of one’s personality d. talent for specific kinds of learning 217. Interested in learning how to fly airplanes, Roger has just taken a test designed to predict how well he is likely

to do in a pilot training program. What type of test has he likely taken? a. aptitude test b. test of general mental ability c. intelligence test d. achievement test

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 218. Sawyer scored at the 40th percentile on the mathematical component of a standardized test. What does this

mean? a. He obtained a raw score of 40. b. He incorrectly answered 40 percent of the questions on the exam. c. He scored lower than 60 percent of the sample used to establish the test norms. d. He scored higher than 60 percent of the sample used to establish the test norms. 219. What sort of ideas does creativity generate? a. original, novel, and useful b. controversial and artistic c. original, artistic, and popular

d. controversial and novel

220. What did Charles Spearman call his general intelligence factor? a. s b. the primary mental ability c. g

d. crystallized intelligence

221. Which of the following is the overall conclusion of research correlating brain size with intelligence? a. Brain size is negatively related to intelligence. b. Brain size is not at all related to intelligence. c. Brain size is modestly related to intelligence. d. Brain size is highly related to intelligence. 222. Which perspective on the investigation of intelligence focuses on the mental processes associated with

intelligence, such as how people use their intelligence, rather than the amount of intelligence people possess? a. psychoanalytic b. testing c. behavioural d. cognitive 223. Who developed the first intelligence tests designed to predict the school performance of children? a. Alfred Binet b. David Wechsler c. Jean Piaget

d. Lewis Terman

224. What is NOT one of the primary mental abilities suggested by Thurstone? a. word fluency b. sensory discrimination c. spatial ability

d. inductive reasoning

225. Diego is 6 years old, but on intelligence tests he scores at the level typical for an 8-year-old. What is Diego’s

IQ using the intelligence quotient formula developed by William Stern? a. 75 b. 80 c. 100 d. 133

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 226. Noel is extremely talented in mathematics and science, and he has received numerous scholarships based on

his abilities in these areas. However, he just can’t seem to catch on in his English classes, no matter how hard he tries. Noel is repeating remedial English, and he is still struggling. Which theory of intelligence would have the most difficulty explaining Noel’s different levels of performance? a. Spearman’s g-factor theory b. Thurstone’s theory of primary mental abilities c. Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences d. Sternberg’s triarchic theory 227. What is suggested by the research by Steele and colleagues on racial stereotypes and test performance? a. The effects of stereotype vulnerability are greatest for white students in all situations. b. Stereotype vulnerability appears to impair minority group members’ test performance. c. Members of minority groups tend to perform lower on tests in all circumstances. d. Both Black and white subjects are susceptible to the effects of stereotype vulnerability. 228. What is the term used to refer to genetically determined limits on IQ? a. reaction range b. percentile range c. reaction time

d. normal curve

229. Which perspective on the investigation of intelligence emphasizes measuring the amount of intelligence people

have and figuring out why some people have more than others? a. testing b. cognitive c. psychoanalytic d. behavioural 230. Which statement best describes IQ tests in comparison to most other types of psychological tests? a. They are reliable for children, but unreliable for adults. b. They are similar in terms of reliability. c. They are exceptionally reliable. d. They are low in reliability. 231. Which subtheory of intelligence, as proposed by Sternberg, is associated with dealing effectively with novelty

and how one performs familiar tasks automatically and effortlessly? a. operational b. generative c. contextual d. creative 232. Dr. Tesinska wants to measure emotional intelligence in her participants. Which of the following tests would

be most appropriate? a. WAIS-IV b. WISC-V c. WPPSI-IV d. MEIS

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 233. What is the approximate heritability of IQ, according to researchers who believe that IQ is largely genetic

(such as Arthur Jensen and J. Philippe Rushton)? a. 50 percent b. 60 percent c. 80 percent d. 100 percent 234. Albert is a computer programmer who has been working for a biotechnology company for five years. When

he first started with them, he had some difficulty seeing ways to apply his knowledge to the company’s specialized needs. Today, he is able to easily apply his expertise to novel situations that arise as the company grows and changes. Which type of intelligence is associated with Albert’s current ability to apply his knowledge? a. inductive b. crystallized c. experiential d. fluid 235. Which disorder provides the most contradictory evidence regarding the nature of intelligence? a. phenylketonuria b. savant syndrome c. hydrocephaly

d. Down syndrome

236. Some researchers have described a type of intelligence that includes reasoning capacity, memory capacity,

and speed of information processing. What is this type of intelligence called? a. generative b. abstract c. fluid d. level-two 237. What do most researchers agree is quite high for intelligence tests? a. validity b. reliability c. generalizability

d. predictability

238. Which of the following subtypes of intelligence, as proposed by Sternberg, is most likely to be associated

with a person’s culture or environment? a. practical b. geographic c. experiential d. componential 239. Which statement best reflects the concept of reaction range for understanding intellectual development? a. Heredity is the major factor in determining an individual’s intelligence, except in the case of brain

damage. b. Heredity may set certain limits on intelligence, and environmental factors determine where we fall within those limits. c. Environment is the major factor for establishing an individual’s range of knowledge. d. The environment puts limits on the effects of heredity.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 240. What type of test would you need to administer if you wanted to gauge a person’s mastery and knowledge in

a specific area, such as mathematics? a. aptitude test, such as the Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) b. achievement test c. intelligence test, such as the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) d. self-report inventory 241. What is the term for the degree to which the items on a test are representative of the domain it is supposed to

cover? a. test reliability c. criterion validity

b. content validity d. test convergence

Lucy Lucy is a 10-year-old who has just completed a typical intelligence test. Her overall score places her right at the average for children her age. She did not score equally well on all components of the test, however. One part of the test was problematic for Lucy. When she had to assemble blocks to match a design, she understood how to do the task, but she had real difficulty just manipulating the blocks because her manual dexterity is very poor; she kept fumbling with the pieces. Lucy got very frustrated with that task. When she realized that her frustration was likely going to make her even more likely to make mistakes, she stopped, took a deep breath, and calmed herself down a bit. When she started back up again she made fewer mistakes. The test administrator noticed Lucy’s distress and said, “Don’t worry, lots of little girls have trouble with the blocks.” Lucy started making mistakes again after that. 242. Which of the following is most likely to be Lucy’s IQ score? a. 10 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 243. The first person to use the phrase “intelligence quotient” was which of the following? a. Alfred Binet b. David Wechsler c. Sir Francis Galton

d. Lewis Terman

244. Dr. Mah needs a creative student to assist with the design of a new research project. She’s asked to see the

IQ scores of several students so that she can use the scores to choose her new research assistant. What does Dr. Mah need to know before making her decision? a. Creativity is related to intelligence, but the relationship is not strong. b. Scores on some IQ tests are more related to creativity than others. c. There is no relationship at all between intelligence and creativity. d. Grade point averages would be just as good a predictor of creativity, and probably easier to obtain.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 245. Dr. Richards has created a new test of psychological knowledge to assess incoming university students. The

test is highly popular among universities, and several have adopted it for use. Sadly, Dr. Richards forgot to include directions for the time limits on the exam, so each university uses a different time limit. The problem for this test is one of which of the following? a. construct validity b. content validity c. reliability d. standardization 246. Which aspect of Western-style intelligence testing would be problematic if administered within a non-Western

culture? a. level of difficulty of the questions b. use of an entire scale devoted to mathematical processing c. emphasis on literacy d. emphasis on rapid processing and decisive responding 247. Where are IQ tests least likely to be used? a. Britain b. France c. China

d. Australia

248. One of your professors has assigned a small-group term paper that needs to be completed by the end of the

semester. The professor has allowed each group to select its own topic. During the early stages, which skill would it be best for group members to have when trying to think of potential topics? a. transformational logic b. convergent thinking c. divergent thinking d. field dependence 249. Correlational research has found differences in the brains of those with high IQs as opposed to low IQs.

What is the most likely reason for these findings? a. The differences observed are clearly due to genetics. b. The differences may be due to environmental factors which impacted the brain during the process of its development. c. Smart people are superior to those with low IQs by way of their biological inheritance. d. There was a malfunction in the brain imaging technology and the results were tossed. 250. If you wanted to be able to predict how successful you would be at being an engineer, you would take a test

that measured your potential for this profession. What would you be most concerned with? a. construct validity b. criterion-related validity c. internal validity d. hypothetical validity

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 251. Which of the following models of intelligence separates g into fluid and crystallized intelligence? a. Thurstone’s primary mental abilities b. Wechsler’s Adult Intelligence Scale c. Carroll’s hierarchical model of intelligence d. Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence 252. Whether a test measures what it is supposed to measure is known as __________, while the consistency of

a test is known as ______________. a. reliability; validity b. validity; reliability c. standardization; normalization d. normalization; standardization 253. Dr. Binti is concerned about whether the final exam in his physics class accurately measures a student’s

accumulated knowledge about core concepts from the course. What is Dr. Binti’s main concern? a. validity b. confounding factors c. standardization d. reliability 254. Silas took the College Aptitude Test (CAT) when he was in Grade 11, and he attained a very high score on

the test. When Silas was in college, he was suspended his first year, and when he was readmitted, he ended up dropping out because he was doing poorly in all his classes. When Silas went for career counselling, he retook the CAT, and again he earned a very high score. Based on Silas’s experience, what might you suggest about the CAT? a. It has high reliability, but low validity. b. It has low reliability, and low validity. c. It has content validity, but low construct validity. d. It has been poorly standardized. 255. Throughout Canadian history, there have been serious consequences for individuals labelled as inferior or

defective in intellect. One such example is from 1959 and involved Leilani Muir from Alberta. What happened to her? a. She was forcibly sterilized and prevented from having children. b. She was put in a special home. c. She was bullied in the classroom. d. She was discriminated against by her banking institution. 256. Linda believes that intelligence is fixed and innate, and her friend Caitlin believes that intelligence can be

shaped by experience, practice, and effort levels. According to Carol Dweck, Linda and Caitlin hold which of the following views of intelligence, respectively? a. entity and incremental b. aptitude and achievement c. crystallized and fluid d. dynamic and static

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 257. Fiona is 8 years old and has a mental age of 12, based on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Denise is 10

years old and has a mental age of 12, based on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. If you are using an intelligence quotient to compare the girls, what is most likely the outcome? a. Fiona would be considered more intelligent than Denise. b. Denise would be considered more intelligent than Fiona. c. The scores could not be meaningfully compared because the girls are not the same age. d. Both girls would be considered equally intelligent. 258. Everyone likes to have Sheri working on their committees because she seems to have the unique ability to

consider a variety of options and quickly narrow the list of options down to the one or two best alternatives. What is Sheri skilled in? a. field dependence b. divergent thinking c. convergent thinking d. transformational logic 259. In which case is the correlation between IQ scores the lowest? a. non-twin siblings reared together b. fraternal twins reared together c. adoptive siblings reared together

d. non-twin siblings reared apart

260. How is criterion-related validity established for a test? a. logic and theory testing b. correlating scores on the test with an independent measure of the trait associated with the test c. examining correlation coefficients for repeated administrations of the test d. having experts in the field assess the items on the test 261. What does the reliability of a psychological test refer to? a. predictability b. accuracy of inference c. representativeness

d. consistency

262. Lucia has always performed well on conventional tests designed to measure reasoning and logical-

mathematical abilities, but she doesn’t seem to be able to use her skills to solve common everyday problems. What kind of intelligence does Lucia show, according to Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence? a. high practical intelligence, but lower analytical intelligence b. high analytical intelligence, but lower creative intelligence c. high analytical intelligence, but lower practical intelligence d. high practical intelligence, but lower creative intelligence 263. Which of the following is the score that is derived from test norms and indicates the proportion of people who

scored at or below your obtained score? a. percentile b. average c. prototypical d. variation

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 264. On which of the following subtests of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-IV) might you be asked

to name the continent on which Spain is located? a. vocabulary b. crystallized intelligence c. information d. achievement 265. Gunnar is 50 years old, and he completed only up to Grade 6 when he was in school. For the past 30 years,

Gunnar has been a successful fisherman with five fishing boats. He is married, and his family functions well. Recently, he took part in an aging study conducted by a university near his home, and he was told that his IQ score was only 65. Which of the following statements would best describe Gunnar, based on the definition for intellectual disability provided by the American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities and not according to the system traditionally used to categorize various levels of intellectual disability? a. He would be classified as having mild intellectual disability. b. He would meet the criterion for moderate to severe intellectual disability. c. He does not meet the definition because he does not show deficits in adaptive, everyday living skills. d. He does not meet the definition because his IQ score is too high. 266. Those people who hold an incremental view of intelligence believe which of the following? a. High or low intelligence is something that people are born with. b. Intelligence comprises many components, some of which are not measured in typical IQ tests. c. High or low intelligence scores are the result of experiences and effort. d. Intelligence is a single factor, but it governs many different behaviours. 267. Which statement best describes IQ tests? a. Results of IQ tests have very low correlation with attainment of high-status jobs. b. People who score high on IQ tests are more likely to have personality deficits that prevent them from

maintaining high-status jobs. c. People who score high on IQ tests are more likely than those who score low to end up in high-status jobs. d. Only those individuals who score very high on IQ tests will end up in high-status jobs. 268. From what you know of their views concerning intelligence, discuss what each of the following might say

about the origin or cause of intellectual disability: Jensen, Wechsler, Gardner, and Scarr.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 269. Discuss the similarities and differences between current views on the nature and assessment of intelligence

and creativity.

270. In what ways do you think sociohistorical context may have influenced the investigation of intelligence, as well

as our views of intelligence theories?

271. In what ways have changing views about the influence of heredity and environment on intelligence affected the

development of intelligence tests?

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. d 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. b 14. a 15. d 16. d 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. a 26. c

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. d 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. d 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. b 51. a 52. b 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. c 60. c 61. d 62. b 63. b 64. d 65. b 66. c 67. d 68. d 69. c 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. c 76. d 77. a 78. d 79. d 80. d 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 83. c 84. d 85. c 86. c 87. b 88. c 89. b 90. c 91. b 92. b 93. b 94. b 95. b 96. d 97. d 98. c 99. a 100. b 101. a 102. d 103. d 104. a 105. d 106. b 107. c 108. a 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 111. d 112. a 113. a 114. c 115. c 116. d 117. d 118. c 119. d 120. b 121. c 122. c 123. c 124. d 125. a 126. d 127. b 128. c 129. c 130. a 131. b 132. b 133. c 134. a 135. c 136. d 137. c

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 138. c 139. c 140. b 141. b 142. b 143. d 144. d 145. d 146. d 147. c 148. c 149. d 150. c 151. b 152. b 153. d 154. b 155. b 156. d 157. b 158. a 159. b 160. c 161. c 162. b 163. c 164. d 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 166. d 167. d 168. a 169. c 170. c 171. b 172. b 173. d 174. b 175. c 176. b 177. c 178. d 179. d 180. c 181. b 182. d 183. b 184. b 185. d 186. b 187. b 188. b 189. a 190. c 191. d 192. c 193. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 194. d 195. b 196. c 197. c 198. d 199. a 200. d 201. b 202. c 203. a 204. d 205. c 206. c 207. a 208. a 209. d 210. a 211. d 212. a 213. c 214. b 215. c 216. a 217. a 218. c 219. a 220. c 221. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 222. d 223. a 224. b 225. d 226. a 227. b 228. a 229. a 230. c 231. d 232. d 233. c 234. b 235. b 236. c 237. b 238. a 239. b 240. b 241. b 242. d 243. d 244. a 245. d 246. d 247. c 248. c

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 249. b 250. b 251. c 252. b 253. a 254. a 255. a 256. a 257. a 258. c 259. d 260. b 261. d 262. c 263. a 264. c 265. c 266. c 267. c

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 268. Answers to this question should acknowledge that an important criterion of intellectual disability is IQ score.

Jensen believes that intelligence is largely inherited accounts for differences between ethnic and racial groups in average IQ scores. It is logical to assume that he would expect levels of intellectual disability to differ between these groups and lead to corresponding differences in the group’s average IQ score standing. One of Wechsler’s contributions that has implications for this issue is that he based IQ scores on the normal distribution rather than on the ratio between mental age and chronological age. His approach, then, is central to the way intellectual disability is currently assessed, that is, in terms of number of standard deviations below the mean. Gardner posits multiple intelligences that are independent of each other. An implication is that an individual may have widely varying levels of the different types of intelligence, so that scoring in the range of intellectual disability for one type of intelligence may have nothing to do with one’s levels in the other forms. Scarr is a good example of a modern heredity-environment interactionist. She has emphasized the notion of “reaction range,” which states that heredity may set certain limits on intelligence, and environmental factors determine where within that range one’s intelligence actually ends up. From this point of view, intellectual disability can result primarily from deficiencies in heredity, environment, or various combinations of the two. 269. Both are influenced to a considerable extent by experience. Both apparently are based largely on normal,

conscious problem-solving processes. Both are currently thought to consist of multiple factors rather than being a single factor. The trend is toward viewing both intelligence and creativity as collections of abilities, specific to particular areas. Intelligence is most often defined in such a way that it seems to depend on convergent thinking; creativity depends on divergent thinking. Regarding measurement, intelligence test items are more likely to require particular correct answers; creativity tests are more open-ended. Creativity tests are mediocre predictors of creative achievement in the real world. Intelligence tests are mediocre predictors of vocational achievement, but fairly good predictors of school achievement. Manifestations of intelligence and creativity in the real world are both subject to considerable influence by many factors other than intelligence and creativity, respectively, including situational factors, training, motivation, and personality. In addition, intelligence and creativity are somewhat related to each other. Studies like Terman’s show that very intelligent people tend to be physically and emotionally healthy. There seems to be a similar connection between these traits and creativity. On the other hand, there is some evidence of a connection between high levels of creativity and some forms of mental illness, especially mood disorders.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol 1 270. There is a lot of room for speculation in answering this question, and not much guidance from the text. Answers

should demonstrate students’ understanding of what sociohistorical influence means—that is, that the zeitgeist, including widespread social, political, and economic assumptions, influences the questions that are asked and the interpretations of findings. Some examples of ideas that students might try to develop include the following: Galton’s ideas about inherited intelligence led him to create tests that could measure it. His belief that social class differences were heritable was influenced by his observation that wealthy families like his had many accomplished/intelligent members. Intelligence tests were initially created in order to identify schoolchildren who needed help. This suggests that educators believed that intelligence could be changed by instruction. These viewpoints are very different from one another. Over the years, we have learned that IQ scores are relatively reliable and stable across the life span after childhood, but that infant and early childhood scores are quite changeable. There is also evidence that environment has a substantial influence on potential IQ (reaction range theory). These pieces of evidence continue to be considered as part of the ongoing nature/nurture debate. Ideas that would have once been socially acceptable (like Galton’s heritability ideas) are now controversial (see what happened to Rushton) and not widely accepted. Along with social changes associated with equal rights for women and minorities, there has been research on concepts such as stereotype vulnerability and cultural bias in IQ tests. Our views on intelligence and the “cause” of intelligence have changed over the years. Our social views have also changed. It is likely that these changes have influenced one another. 271. Several individuals discussed in the chapter theorized explicitly about the nature/nurture issue about intelligence,

whereas the views of others are implicit in their work. The best answers to this question should reveal students’ understanding of (1) the general views of the following individuals regarding intelligence, (2) what their views explicitly or implicitly entail about nature/nurture, and (3) how their views have influenced the development of intelligence tests. Galton: One’s level of intellectual ability is genetically determined. Contents of the mind are built of elementary sensations, and brighter people have greater sensory acuity that, presumably, is biologically based and therefore influenced mainly by heredity. This view led him to try to measure simple sensory processes, such as sensitivities to stimuli and reaction time. He had little success, so his mental tests were a failure, but his work stimulated interest in the measurement of intelligence. Galton’s view that intelligence is inherited was not seriously challenged by others working to develop intelligence tests (e.g., Binet, Terman, Wechsler, Guilford, Thurstone) until very much later. Cattell and Horn: Intelligence consists of fluid intelligence (information processing, memory capacity, ability to think on one’s feet) and crystallized intelligence (ability to acquire and recall previously learned knowledge and skills). The movement away from the notion of intelligence as a single factor and toward the idea that it is a collection of different abilities represents a current trend in theorizing about intelligence and in the development of intelligence tests. For instance, the most prominent modern theories (e.g., Gardner’s, Sternberg’s) view intelligence as multiple. These theories have few, if any, clear implications about the effects of heredity and environment on intelligence.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following is NOT one of the proposed explanations for the Flynn effect as outlined in your text? a. increases in family size and an easier curriculum in school b. increased access to schooling by historically disadvantaged populations c. a reduction in the prevalence of severe child malnutrition d. improved health services and reductions in infectious diseases 2. What are two qualities a psychometrically sound scale should demonstrate? a. normal distribution and percentile ranks b. validity and statistical logic c. academic and practical integrity d. reliability and validity 3. Which unifying theme in psychology does your text’s discussion of ethnic differences in average IQ reflect? a. Behaviour is shaped by cultural factors. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 4. What observation does the Flynn effect refer to? a. The IQ scores of children raised in substandard environments gradually decrease as the children get older. b. Heritability estimates of intelligence vary widely. c. The reaction range of intelligence is identical for the vast majority of the population. d. IQ test performance has been rising steadily in the industrialized world since the 1930s. 5. If Maria is being tested for her memory capacity and speed of processing, what type of intelligence is being tested? a. practical intelligence b. fluid intelligence c. verbal intelligence d. crystallized intelligence 6. Which unifying theme in psychology do the results of twin studies and adoption studies illustrate? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 7. Which statement illustrates evidence that intellectual disability probably has environmental causes? a. Most individuals with mild intellectual disability are from lower socioeconomic classes which exposes them to unfavourable environments. b. Most individuals with profound intellectual disability are from higher socioeconomic classes. c. Most individuals in lower socioeconomic classes have IQs lower than 100. d. Most individuals with Down syndrome are from higher socioeconomic classes.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 8. What was the stated purpose of the first useful intelligence test? a. to identify gifted children b. to identify children who had the potential to be successful in college c. to evaluate the success of educational programs d. to identify children in need of special training 9. Which country is least likely to use IQ tests? a. Britain b. France c. United States d. China 10. Which of the following has research shown lower incidences of in persons scoring high in intelligence? a. financial stability and stroke b. mental illness and aggression c. heart disease and cancer d. creativity and innovation 11. Which piece of evidence, if it existed, would rule out environmental influences on intelligence? a. Fraternal twins have different IQs from one another. b. Adopted children have very different IQs from their adoptive parents. c. Identical twins always have identical IQs. d. Children with different diets also have different IQs. 12. Who promoted a theory of multiple intelligences including a much broader definition of intelligence than logicalmathematical and linguistic abilities tested for in traditional IQ tests? a. Robert Sternberg b. David Wechsler c. Alfred Binet d. Howard Gardner 13. Following the death of their parents ten years ago, identical twins Glenda and Brenda were placed in an understaffed orphanage. Brenda remained in the orphanage while Glenda was adopted by a loving middle-class couple. Which of the following would be least likely to occur? a. Glenda will have a higher IQ than Brenda. b. Brenda will have an IQ near the upper limit of her reaction range. c. Glenda and Brenda will have the same reaction range for intelligence. d. Glenda and Brenda will have IQs that differ by ten or more IQ points. 14. What type of mental illness is observed in various studies on accomplished writers? a. dissociative disorders b. schizophrenia c. generalized anxiety disorder d. mood disorders 15. If you were to develop a psychological test to measure an abstract personal quality such as intelligence or extraversion, which type of validity should you be most concerned with? a. category validity b. construct validity c. criterion-related validity d. content validity

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 16. If Marc is being tested for his ability to apply his knowledge to a new situation, what type of intelligence is being tested? a. practical intelligence b. verbal intelligence c. crystallized intelligence d. fluid intelligence 17. Who developed the first useful intelligence test? a. James Stanford and Alfred Binet b. Francis Galton and Charles Darwin c. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon d. Lewis Terman and Francis Galton 18. Terman studied a large sample of children identified as gifted, beginning in 1921, and followed them for decades. Which stereotype was ruled out by Terman’s results? a. Gifted children exhibit better-than-average emotional stability. b. Gifted children exhibit better-than-average physical health. c. Gifted children are judged successful by conventional standards. d. Gifted children become adults who make genius-level contributions in their fields. 19. If you believe that “genius is the result of nature rather than nurture,” which theorist do you most agree with? a. Binet b. Gardner c. Galton d. Sternberg 20. Which researcher conducted a longitudinal study of gifted children that started in 1921 and is well known as the longest running study in psychology to date? a. Lewis Terman b. David Wechsler c. James Stanford d. Francis Galton 21. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of intellectual disability? a. caused by an organic condition b. deficiencies in adaptive skills c. beginning before the age of 18 d. sub-average general mental ability 22. Which scores are calculated separately in the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale? a. verbal IQ and performance IQ b. analytical IQ and practical IQ c. performance IQ and mathematical IQ d. verbal IQ and mathematical IQ 23. What do we call a symmetrical bell-shaped curve that represents the pattern in which many characteristics, including intelligence, are distributed? a. standard distribution b. typical distribution c. abnormal distribution d. normal distribution 24. What is wrong with using the concept of heritability of IQ to conclude that cultural differences in an average IQ reflect genetic differences between cultural groups? a. Heritability estimates have been demonstrated to be invalid. b. Heritability estimates are based comparisons of groups with equivalent environmental factors, so they cannot be used to compare groups that differ on environmental factors. c. Heritability estimates are valid only within a race, not between races. d. Even if heritability of intelligence is high, group differences could still be caused by environmental factors. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 25. Which type of pairs should have the lowest correlation between their IQ scores? a. adoptive siblings reared together b. identical twins reared apart c. a biological parent and child who lived together d. non-twin siblings reared apart 26. Compared to the average IQ of White people in the United States, what is the average IQ for many of the larger minority groups in the United States (such as Black people, Indigenous Americans, and Hispanic populations)? a. 1 to 3 points higher b. 10 to 15 points lower c. 15 to 25 points higher d. 25 to 30 points lower 27. Tim completed a test that is designed to determine whether he has the potential to be an airline pilot. What type of test did Tim complete? a. achievement test b. aptitude test c. projective test d. personality test 28. Which of the following is more likely for people who score high on IQ tests compared to people who score low on IQ tests? a. low grades in school and low-status jobs b. low grades in school and high-status jobs c. high grades in school and low-status jobs d. high grades in school and high-status jobs 29. A lobby group argues that the government should not provide funding for companies that develop environmentally friendly technology, because there is no conclusive evidence that those technologies will help the environment. Which fallacy does this example illustrate? a. the appeal to knowledge fallacy b. the reification fallacy c. the information fallacy d. the appeal to ignorance fallacy 30. Which individual would you predict would be most likely to have a high-status occupation such as being a doctor or lawyer? a. Nicolas, who has an IQ of 90 b. Maureen, who has an IQ of 105 c. Pierre, who has an IQ of 115 d. Beryl, who has an IQ of 135 31. What did Terman find when he studied a group of gifted kids for several decades into adulthood? a. They tended to be above average in emotional adjustment, mental health, and social maturity. b. They tended to be below average in height, weight, strength, and social maturity. c. They tended to fit the stereotype of an intellectually gifted individual. d. They tended to be above average in height, weight, strength, physical health, emotional adjustment, mental health, and social maturity.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 32. If a large research study measured the IQs of white middle-class American females and middle-class Japanese males, which of the following is most likely to be found regarding measures of heritability between the two groups? a. They would be different because heritability is calculated differently for males and females. b. They would be similar because heritability is similar for individuals of the same species. c. They would be different because heritability may vary from one group to another. d. They would be similar because heritability is similar for all individuals of the same social class. 33. Abed is a person who has big ideas, and other people are often amazed at his novel way of looking at the world. He seems to be able to see a problem from a variety of different perspectives. What type of intelligence would Robert Sternberg say that Abed is using? a. practical intelligence b. creative intelligence c. analytical intelligence d. emotional intelligence 34. According to the concept of g, what is the goal of research on intelligence? a. finding correlates of intelligence in terms of social or environmental influences b. determining the core ability that underlies all intelligence c. generating a model that contains the various causal mechanisms for intellect d. documenting the various styles of intelligence in the population 35. What did Carol Dweck conclude about the entity theory of intelligence? a. It is based on factor analytic studies b. It is a lay theory of intelligence that maintains IQ is fixed at birth and does not change c. It has no impact on behaviour d. It is a lay theory of intelligence that maintains IQ can be changed or enriched with experiences 36. A group of Grade 6 students took a 100-word spelling test in order to qualify for the city-wide spelling bee. If a child needed to score in the top 20 percent of applicants to qualify, which one of the following students definitely qualified for the spelling bee? a. Connor, who placed at the 90th percentile b. Barbara, who spelled 80 percent of the words correctly c. Aaron, who placed at the 15th percentile d. Della, who spelled 85 words correctly 37. Who attributed cultural difference in IQ scores to environmental factors associated with social inequalities, as evidenced by IQ tests scores steadily rising over generations and specifically with the greater increases seen in groups whose social conditions improved significantly over decades? a. Robert Sternberg b. Donald Hebb c. Alfred Binet d. James Flynn

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 38. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5), what does a person have to display to qualify for a classification of intellectual disability? a. an IQ of 75 or below and poor functioning in everyday living skills b. an IQ of 75 or below and adaptive functioning in everyday living skills c. an IQ of 70 or below and adaptive functioning in everyday living skills d. an IQ of 70 or below and poor functioning in everyday living skills 39. What is the mean and standard deviation of modern IQ tests? a. mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10 b. mean of 100 and standard deviation of 10 c. mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15 d. mean of 500 and standard deviation of 100 40. Who successfully sued the Government of Alberta for sterilizing her without her consent in 1959, including lying to her about the nature of the operation? a. Janet Binet b. Francine Marshall c. Leilani Muir d. Linda Mansfield 41. What are test norms? a. information about where a score on a test ranks in relation to other scores b. the measurement consistency of a test c. the percentage of people who score at or below the score one has obtained d. uniform procedures used in the administration and scoring of a test 42. According to research, which of the following health conditions does not appear to be affected by intelligence? a. cancer b. respiratory disease c. infertility d. coronary disease 43. Tim just completed a test designed to determine whether he is outgoing and sociable in a variety of different contexts. What type of test did Tim complete? a. personality tests b. achievement tests c. aptitude tests d. mental ability tests 44. If a child who is 10 years old has a mental age of 12, then what is the child’s IQ according to Terman’s formula? a. 80 b. 100 c. 120 d. 140 45. What is a fallacy? a. cognition that has not been tested through time and place b. an appeal to ignorance c. when someone does something out of character d. a mistake or error in the process of reasoning

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 46. Which of the following does NOT appear to be related to emotional intelligence? a. relationship satisfaction b. vocabulary c. the ability to regulate emotions d. students’ academic performance 47. According to Fagan and Holland’s research, which of the following explanations for the IQ gap between White and Black students is FALSE? a. It is due to cultural differences in exposure to books and learning supplies. b. It is due to cultural disparities in exposure to information. c. It is due to cultural disparities in exposure to technology. d. It is due to cultural differences in intellectual superiority. 48. Research by psychologists examining cultural differences in IQ and the suggested causes of these differences has, at times, been controversial largely because of the political and educational implications of the research. Which unifying theme in psychology does this statement reflect? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 49. If you want to know whether a test is useful for making accurate predictions about a person’s abilities or behaviours, what attribute of the test are you concerned with? a. validity b. accuracy c. reliability d. generalizability 50. When a study shows that children from low-socioeconomic classes continue to experience increasingly larger IQ deficits over time, as compared to their middle- to higher-class peers, what does this suggest in terms of heritability? a. It demonstrates the important role of the environment since the changes are being observed over time in the environment. b. The findings are not relevant to the issue of heritability. c. It demonstrates the superior role of genetics. d. The findings cannot account for heritability in spite of their relevance. 51. According to Gardner’s view of intelligence, which type of intelligence would be pronounced in a highly successful salesperson? a. linguistic intelligence b. interpersonal intelligence c. bodily-kinesthetic intelligence d. intrapersonal intelligence 52. IQ tests produce consistent results when people take a retest. What, then, can be said about IQ tests? a. They are accurate. b. They are standardized. c. They are valid. d. They are reliable.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 53. Marcus and his marketing team are brainstorming new ideas for an advertising campaign. They are writing down every single idea without stopping to think about whether those ideas are any good. Which type of thinking is illustrated by this example? a. convergent thinking b. engineered thinking c. volumetric thinking d. divergent thinking 54. Which child is likely to be admitted to a school gifted program? a. Abby, who has very high scores on aptitude tests for creativity and field-independence b. Louis, who has an IQ score of 135 c. James, who has an IQ score that is one standard deviation above the mean d. Dina, who demonstrates exceptional grades in school 55. What is the term for the syndrome in which individuals with below-average overall intellect have exceptional abilities in one or a few limited domains? a. profound giftedness b. savant syndrome c. fragile X syndrome d. selective intelligence 56. Which of Sternberg’s types of intelligence is most similar to Gardner’s description of logical and linguistic intelligences? a. analytical intelligence b. practical intelligence c. procedural intelligence d. creative intelligence 57. You recently took the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale and just learned that your IQ is 100. What does this score mean? a. Your score is average. b. You are twice as intelligent as someone who has an IQ of 50. c. You answered 100 percent of the test questions correctly. d. You answered 100 of the test questions correctly. 58. Based on evidence about the Flynn effect, which of the following groups of IQ scores would you expect to have the highest average score? a. a sample from 1920 b. a sample from 1950 c. a sample from 1980 d. a sample from 2010 59. Tim completed a test that is designed to determine whether his capacity for general learning and intellect is normal, or different from normal. What type of test did Tim complete? a. intelligence test b. aptitude test c. personality test d. achievement test 60. Aron has always found that school work came very easily to him. He is good at systematic problem-solving and has an excellent memory for facts as well as concepts. What type of intelligence would Robert Sternberg say that Aron is using? a. analytical intelligence b. creative intelligence c. emotional intelligence d. practical intelligence

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 61. What do we call the ability to generate ideas that are original, novel, and useful? a. insight b. intelligence c. reasoning d. creativity 62. What tends to happen to the IQ scores of children raised in substandard environments? a. They change very little as the child gets older. b. They decrease as the child gets older. c. They increase as the child gets older. d. They decrease only after the child reaches adulthood. 63. Which of the following terms refers to the degree to which the content of a test represents the domain it is supposed to cover? a. construct validity b. face validity c. criterion validity d. content validity 64. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale originally calculated a child’s IQ by using which of the following formulas? a. mental age/chronological age × 10 b. mental age/chronological age × 100 c. chronological age/mental age × 100 d. chronological age/mental age × 10 65. What does the reliability of a test refer to? a. the ability of a test to measure what it was designed to measure b. the numerical index that describes the degree of relationship between two variables c. the degree of consistency of a test d. the extent to which there is evidence that a test measures a particular hypothetical construct 66. What are the two lay theories on intelligence that people tend to adopt, as proposed by Carol Dweck? a. mental and concrete b. entity and instrumental c. entity and incremental d. operant and instrumental 67. Colin is able to remain calm under stressful situations, tends to understand how others are feeling, and is also able to communicate his feelings well to others. Which type of intelligence is reflected in Colin’s behaviour? a. analytical intelligence b. practical intelligence c. kinesthetic intelligence d. emotional intelligence 68. Which of the following was suggested by Arthur Jensen? a. Social class differences in IQ are largely due to genetic factors. b. Ethnic differences in IQ are largely due to genetic factors. c. Ethnic differences in IQ are largely due to environmental factors. d. Social class differences in IQ are largely due to environmental factors.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 69. What must a child have in order to be diagnosed as intellectually disabled? a. deficiencies in adaptive skills such as self-care and social interactions b. evidence that there is no organic cause for any mental deficiencies c. an IQ score below 100 d. a verifiable brain injury 70. According to Robert Sternberg, which aspect of intelligence would be highest in someone who does really well in school, but not necessarily high in someone who is a successful entrepreneur? a. experiential aspect b. analytical aspect c. practical aspect d. creative aspect 71. Tara thinks of herself as easy-going and calm, but she often gets very irritable around exam time. She claims that other people become more annoying at those times, rather than recognizing that she might not handle small problems very well when she is under stress. Which type of intelligence does Tara seem to be lacking? a. emotional intelligence b. analytical intelligence c. interpersonal intelligence d. practical intelligence 72. Which type of validity is evaluated with logic more than with statistics? a. criterion-related validity b. construct validity c. categorical validity d. content validity 73. A group of people took a test, and then retook the test a month later. Most people got very similar scores each time. What term should you use to describe that test? a. accurate b. valid c. generalized d. reliable 74. What are the two lay theories on intelligence that people tend to adopt, as proposed by Carol Dweck? a. mental and concrete b. entity and instrumental c. entity and incremental d. operant and instrumental 75. Kim is 10 years old and has a mental age of 8. What is Kim’s IQ according to Terman’s formula? a. 80 b. 90 c. 100 d. 120 76. What does it mean to say that a psychological test has been standardized? a. It refers to the policies of testing according to the Canadian Psychological Association. b. It is based on a sample and can be applied in most provinces. c. It refers to the quality of psychological tests. d. It refers to the uniform procedures used in the administration and scoring of a test.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 77. Based on evidence from longitudinal studies of gifted children, what can be stated about the relationship between intelligence and health? a. High IQ and good health are caused by common genetic mechanisms. b. High IQ and good health are independent factors that predict longevity. c. High IQ predicts greater overall health and longevity. d. High IQ predicts healthy behaviours. 78. How accurate are IQ scores for predicting the job performance of individuals within a particular profession? a. completely accurate b. moderately accurate c. accurate only for specific occupations d. highly inaccurate 79. How do adoption studies provide evidence for the nature and/or nurture origin of intelligence? a. If the adoptive children are more like their biological parents, this lends support for the notion that intelligence is inherited. b. If the adoptive children are more like their adoptive parents, this lends support for the notion that intelligence is inherited. c. If the biological children are more like the adoptive parents, this lends support for the notion that intelligence is inherited. d. Adoption studies have no value in this type of research. 80. Which group should you study to get the best evidence about the role of genetic factors in intelligence? a. adopted children and their biological parents b. children raised in poverty, and middle-class children c. people born in different generations since the 1930s d. identical and fraternal twins 81. Who revised the original French intelligence test and renamed it the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale? a. Lewis Terman b. David Wechsler c. James Stanford d. Francis Galton 82. In what percentage of cases can diagnosticians currently determine an organic cause for intellectual disability? a. fewer than 15 percent b. fewer than 25 percent c. approximately 50 percent d. approximately 75 percent 83. What are you doing if you are solving a problem using divergent thinking? a. making an explicit comparison between two alternatives b. trying to generate many possible answers or solutions c. systematically eliminating incorrect answers or solutions d. trying to narrow down a list of alternatives to a single correct answer or solution 84. According to research by Blackwell, Rodriguez, and Guerra-Carrillo (2015), what is the optimal mindset to foster greater academic success? a. variable b. fixed c. practical d. growth Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 85. What is the largest category of intellectual disability? a. mild b. moderate c. profound d. severe 86. Which of the following is not one of the Wechsler scales? a. Wechsler Adolescent Intelligence Inventory b. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence c. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale d. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children 87. Which of the following statements is true regarding lay theories of intelligence? a. They represent beliefs on intelligence that impact our behaviour and how we view others b. They are based on factor analytic studies c. They have no impact on behaviour d. They have no impact on how we view others 88. Which of the following seems to be associated with profound creativity, based on Ludwig’s studies of the biographies of more than 1000 people who achieved creative success? a. mood disorders b. absent-mindedness c. obsessive-compulsive disorders d. psychotic disorders 89. What determines where a person’s actual IQ score falls within the reaction range? a. environmental factors b. genetic factors c. both environmental and genetic factors d. neither environmental nor genetic factors 90. On what type of test would the question “How many uses can you think of for a paper clip?” most likely be found? a. an intelligence test b. a reasoning test c. a problem-solving test d. a creativity test 91. Based on Galton’s perspective on intelligence, and the stated purpose of the Binet-Simon intelligence test, how would Galton have felt about that test? a. He may have felt the test was valid but would have rejected the rationale for its use. b. He may have felt that the test was invalid but would have admired its stated purpose. c. He would have felt that the test was valid and useful. d. He would have felt that the test was invalid, and therefore useless. 92. Who developed the deviation IQ scoring system for intelligence tests? a. Lewis Terman b. David Wechsler c. James Stanford d. Francis Galton 93. What is it called it when a hypothetical, abstract concept is given a name and then treated as though it were a concrete, tangible object? a. unification b. definition c. deification d. reification Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 94. Convincing evidence for the role of environmental influences on intelligence is provided by studies that compare which groups? a. children and the biological parents who raised them b. adopted children to their biological parents c. adopted children to their adoptive parents d. identical twins reared together, and fraternal twins reared together 95. Which statement best describes one criticism of the validity of IQ tests? a. IQ tests are not particularly valid for testing academic intellect but are valid for testing practical intelligence. b. IQ tests are valid for measuring practical intelligence, but not social intelligence. c. IQ tests are reasonably valid indexes of academic ability, but do not tap into other skills or traits that may be important for other forms of success. d. IQ tests reflect a focus on academic success but do not adequately test for predictors of academic success. 96. Which of the following is a prudent explanation for the fact that people with higher IQs tend to be healthier and live longer than those with lower IQs? a. People who score low on IQ tests are more likely to engage in health self-care and will therefore not reap the benefits of a physician’s care. b. People who score low on IQ tests are more likely to end up with fluid but not crystallized intelligence. c. People who score high on IQ tests are more likely to end up in high-status jobs and have access to better health care. d. People who score high on IQ tests are less likely to engage in health self-care. 97. What does the case of Leilani Muir serve to demonstrate in terms of intelligence? a. IQ is unchangeable. b. IQ can change. c. IQ tests have been misused against some segments of society. d. The doctor, who has a higher IQ than the patient, knows best. 98. According to Gardner’s view of intelligence, which type of intelligence would be pronounced in someone who was a particularly skilled bird-watcher or farmer? a. intrapersonal intelligence b. naturalist intelligence c. bodily-kinesthetic intelligence d. spatial intelligence 99. Which of the following is NOT one of impacts on intelligence brought about by children growing up in poverty as outlined in your text? a. These children are less intelligent by nature. b. Learning may be impaired by way of lack of exposure to books and technology. c. Chronic stress and poverty may impair learning. d. These children are exposed to more environmental risks such as poor prenatal or substandard medical care.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 100. Many human traits, including intelligence, show a normal distribution. What does this mean? a. Most cases are near the edges of the distribution. b. Cases are equally frequent across the entire distribution. c. Most cases are near the middle of the distribution. d. Few cases are near the middle of the distribution. 101. Trevor’s parents and siblings are all very intelligent. Unlike the rest of his family, Trevor was born during a war and his entire childhood he was deprived of safety, education, and often food. Trevor is much less intelligent than the rest of his family. Which of the following helps explain the difference in intelligence in this family? a. reaction range b. Flynn effect c. the concept of g d. drudge theory 102. Many researchers have noted that many of the larger minority groups in the United States (such as Black people, Indigenous people, and Hispanic populations) are overrepresented in the lower class. As a consequence, how do those researchers recommend that we think about ethnic differences in IQ? a. as an interaction of governmental policies and regulations b. as an interaction of social class and genetic differences c. as the result of social class differences in experience d. as the result of genetic differences between ethnic groups 103. Approximately what percentage of IQ scores fall between 85 and 115? a. 33 b. 50 c. 68 d. 95 104. In regard to intelligence, what does reaction range refer to? a. the proportion of variability in IQ in a population that is due to genetic factors b. the genetically determined limits on IQ score for an individual c. the proportion of variability in IQ in a population that is due to environmental factors d. the environmentally determined limits on IQ score for an individual 105. Which statement best describes deviation IQ scores? a. Raw IQ scores are translated into deviation IQ scores by way of percentiles within a normal distribution. b. Raw IQ scores are translated into deviation IQ scores by way of a sliding scale. c. Raw IQ scores are never translated into deviation IQ scores; the deviation IQ is calculated independently. d. Raw IQ scores are translated into deviation IQ scores by way of use of the standard deviation unit within a normal distribution. 106. Which type of twins show the strongest correlations between their IQ scores? a. identical twins reared together b. fraternal twins reared apart c. identical twins reared apart d. fraternal twins reared together

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 107. According to research conducted by Winner and others, which factor predicts the likelihood that a gifted child will develop problems with personal adjustment, including social problems or mental instability? a. level of creativity b. gender c. stress levels d. degree of giftedness 108. What has been demonstrated by adoption studies comparing the intelligence of adopted children to their biological parents? a. There is a greater-than-chance similarity between them. b. Adopted children tend to be most similar to their adoptive parents. c. Adopted children tend to be very similar to their biological mothers. d. There are no consistent similarities between them. 109. If you are told that Philip displays the mental ability typical of an 11-year-old child, then which of the following will definitely be equal to 11? a. his mental age b. his chronological age c. his age d. his estimated age 110. What is the term for an estimate of the proportion of trait variability in a population that is determined by variations in genetic inheritance? a. genetic range b. inheritability c. reaction range d. heritability ratio 111. Which of the following is NOT one of the four components of emotional intelligence? a. ability to accurately perceive emotions in the self and others b. ability to creatively think with the heart c. ability to understand and analyze emotions d. ability to regulate emotions 112. Which term is used to describe individuals who are highly intelligent, but may underperform in school for reasons other than intellect? a. masked eminence b. underachiever c. hidden gifted d. subgenius 113. A majority of experts agree that the heritability of intelligence is approximately 50 percent. What does this mean? a. Fifty percent of the difference in average intelligence between different ethnic groups is due to genetic inheritance. b. Fifty percent of a person’s intelligence is due to genetic inheritance. c. Fifty percent of the variability in intelligence in a population of individuals is due to variations in genetic inheritance. d. Fifty percent of a person’s intelligence is due to environmental factors.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 114. Which of Gardner’s categories of intelligence would be most pronounced in someone who is a very successful taxi driver or delivery person? a. linguistic intelligence b. musical intelligence c. logical-mathematical intelligence d. spatial intelligence 115. Why do most researchers reject genetic explanations for ethnic differences in IQ scores? a. The topic of that research is insulting to individuals from visible minorities. b. The research is unethical and dangerous. c. Genetic explanations are based on flawed or weak logic. d. The participants in those studies were biased and skewed the results intentionally. 116. Which group should you study to get the best evidence about the role of genetic factors in intelligence? a. adopted children and their biological parents b. children raised in poverty, and middle-class children c. people born in different generations since the 1930s d. identical and fraternal twins 117. What do we call a psychological test that is always presented, completed, and scored in the same way, no matter when or where it is being used? a. a standardized test b. a normed test c. a valid test d. a reliable test 118. Tim just completed a test designed to determine whether he has mastered his introductory chemistry class course material. What type of test did Tim complete? a. projective test b. aptitude test c. intelligence test d. achievement test 119. Alister thinks very quickly, remembers things easily, and displays very fast reaction times to changing stimuli. What type of intelligence does this example illustrate? a. fluid intelligence b. crystallized intelligence c. divergent intelligence d. verbal intelligence 120. Alex is one of those people who start a new job and figures out what is expected and how to succeed very quickly. He often doesn’t even have to be told how to get things done. What type of intelligence would Robert Sternberg say that Alex is using? a. analytical intelligence b. emotional intelligence c. creative intelligence d. practical intelligence 121. Which statement best describes a child diagnosed as intellectually disabled as a result of Down syndrome? a. He or she has a metabolic disorder. b. He or she is from the lower socioeconomic classes. c. He or she has an extra chromosome. d. He or she has an excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the skull.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 122. What did Carol Dweck conclude about the incremental theory of intelligence? a. It is based on factor analytic studies b. It is a lay theory of intelligence that maintains IQ is fixed at birth and does not change c. It has no impact on behaviour d. It is a lay theory of intelligence that maintains IQ can be changed or enriched with experiences 123. Based on the concept of stereotype vulnerability, what would you expect of members of a stigmatized group (compared to members of a nonstigmatized group) when taking a standardized intelligence test? a. They would experience more anxiety. b. They would experience less anxiety. c. They would be less motivated. d. They would be more motivated. 124. A test has been developed to measure aptitude for careers in the military. When it is implemented, it is found that the scores of people with long and successful careers in the military do not differ from those who perform poorly in the military. Which type of validity is flawed in this test? a. criterion-related validity b. content validity c. categorical validity d. construct validity 125. Jen has an IQ of 107. How would you describe Jen’s intelligence? a. below average b. average c. high average d. superior 126. According to Joseph Renzulli, what are the three overlapping factors required for achieving “eminence” in one’s field? a. high motivation, high levels of training, high intelligence b. high intelligence, exceptional support from family, high creativity c. high intelligence, high creativity, high motivation d. high creativity, high levels of extraversion, high levels of practice 127. According to cross-cultural psychologist John Berry, why are IQ tests less popular in non-Western countries? a. Existing IQ tests do not translate well into the language and cognitive frameworks of other cultures. b. Although many Western corporations use IQ tests for personnel screening, this practice has not caught on in other countries. c. The tests have not been extensively marketed outside North America and Britain. d. The tests are not available in other languages. 128. Which of the following would be a correlation coefficient that represents a test with high test-retest reliability? a. –0.92 b. –0.05 c. +0.05 d. +0.92 129. If your roommate tries to convince you that the college cafeteria uses leftovers from students’ dinner trays to make stew for the next day’s lunch by arguing that he has never seen the leftovers actually thrown out, what argument is your roommate using? a. reification b. an appeal to ignorance c. logic d. an appeal to knowledge

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 130. What do correlations between students’ IQ scores and their school grades suggest about IQ tests? a. They are a reasonably reliable method to predict school performance. b. They are not a valid method to predict school performance. c. They are a reasonably valid method to predict school performance. d. They are not a reliable method to predict school performance. 131. Which six-year-old child would be most likely to experience an increase in IQ over the next few years? a. Darius, who continues living with his loving middle-class biological parents b. Aron, who continues living in an understaffed orphanage c. Ceili, who was recently adopted from an understaffed orphanage by loving middle-class parents d. Bettina, who recently started living in an understaffed orphanage following the death of her parents 132. What is factor analysis? a. a statistical procedure in which an experiment is conducted to determine the factors which contributed to the effects of the independent variable b. a statistical procedure in which correlations between two variables are analyzed to identify closely related clusters of variables c. a statistical procedure in which factors are analyzed for their potential impact on the independent variable before being selected for the study d. a statistical procedure in which correlations among many variables are analyzed to identify closely related clusters of variables 133. What is the nature of the correlation between intelligence and creativity? a. strong positive correlation b. strong negative correlation c. modest positive correlation d. modest negative correlation 134. Which of the following children would be most likely to have the highest upper limit of his or her reaction range for intelligence? a. an upper-class white child with an IQ of 100 b. a middle-class white child with an IQ of 100 c. a middle-class minority child with an IQ of 100 d. a lower-class minority child with an IQ of 100 135. What is the typical minimum IQ score required to qualify for a gifted program in schools? a. 100 b. 115 c. 130 d. 145 136. If a psychological test claims to test intelligence but is actually testing accumulated knowledge, which of the following is the problem with that test? a. reliability b. validity c. norms d. standardization

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 137. Which of the following best explains why creativity tests have limited value? a. Creativity may be specific to a particular domain, rather than being a general trait. b. Most tests treat creativity as a special trait, but it is a subset of intelligence. c. Most “tests” for creativity miss the point because creativity is intangible. d. Creativity tests measure only convergent thinking and ignore divergent thinking. 138. Which lay theory of intelligence is analogous to a growth mindset? a. entity b. fixed c. practical d. incremental 139. Sternberg and his colleagues asked people to list examples of intelligent behaviour and came up with three basic categories of intelligence. What are the three categories? a. academic, social, and practical b. verbal, social, and interpersonal c. academic, practical, and interpersonal d. verbal, practical, and social 140. What is an exception to the general trend regarding intelligence as a predictor of vocational success? a. Low grades in school lead to higher IQ for those who are upset about it. b. People who score high on IQ are more likely to get high-status jobs. c. The correlation between IQ and occupational attainment is moderate. d. Some people with strong educational aspirations achieve vocational success in spite of low IQ. 141. Klara is mildly intellectually disabled. What would you expect of Klara? a. She will require assistance with speech development. b. She may generally be perceived as normal outside a school environment. c. She may require lifelong supervision in order to care for herself. d. She will do well in school until just before the end of high school, which is when difficulties will emerge.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. d 10. c 11. c 12. d 13. b 14. d 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. b

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 27. b 28. d 29. d 30. d 31. d 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. d 39. c 40. c 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. d 46. b 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. a 51. b 52. d 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 55. b 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. b 63. d 64. b 65. c 66. c 67. d 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. a 72. d 73. d 74. c 75. a 76. d 77. c 78. b 79. a 80. d 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 83. b 84. d 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. a 90. d 91. a 92. b 93. d 94. c 95. c 96. c 97. c 98. b 99. a 100. c 101. a 102. c 103. c 104. b 105. d 106. a 107. a 108. a 109. a 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 111. b 112. c 113. c 114. d 115. c 116. d 117. a 118. d 119. a 120. d 121. c 122. d 123. a 124. a 125. b 126. c 127. a 128. d 129. b 130. c 131. c 132. d 133. c 134. a 135. c 136. b 137. a

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_2 138. d 139. d 140. d 141. b

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Eighty-five percent of people with intellectual disability fall into which category of impairment? a. mild b. moderate c. severe d. profound 2. Antonio’s IQ was calculated using the formula suggested by William Stern, and the result was greater than 100. What does this result indicate? a. Based on Antonio’s IQ, it is likely that he is gifted. b. Antonio’s mental age is greater than his chronological age. c. Antonio’s chronological age is greater than his mental age. d. Based on Antonio’s IQ, it is likely that he has a mild intellectual disability. 3. For the most part, what do IQ tests accurately assess? a. social intelligence b. verbal intelligence c. practical intelligence d. verbal, social, and practical intelligence 4. What is one implication of the belief that intelligence is largely a function of genetics? a. Only about 50% of those enrolled in special education programs will benefit. b. Special education programs for underprivileged groups are of little value. c. Everyone has the potential to do well intellectually if given the chance. d. Educational opportunities should be available for everyone, regardless of the cost. 5. What case is made in most arguments against the validity of IQ scores? a. Scores fail to provide a broad index of intelligence. b. Scores fail to adequately predict school performance. c. Tests have been improperly standardized. d. Scores on the tests are unpredictable and unstable over time. 6. According to Sternberg, what should theories of intelligence emphasize? a. reasoning ability b. abstract concepts c. speed d. how people use their intelligence 7. In a normal distribution of test scores, what percentage of scores falls within ±2 standard deviations of the mean? a. 100% of the scores b. approximately 95% of the scores c. approximately 68% of the scores d. 50% of the scores 8. Which of the following statements describes standardized tests? a. They have testing and scoring procedures that do not vary across different administrations of the test. b. They produce similar scores from one administration to the next. c. They measure what they were designed to measure. d. They have questions that are representative of the domain of interest.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 9. How did Binet and Simon define mental age? a. the age that best fits the child’s current level of intellectual performance b. a child’s current age in years and months c. a child’s ultimate intellectual potential d. the ratio of a child’s current abilities to his or her chronological age 10. Which of the following is MOST likely to represent the correlation between childhood intelligence and physical health in adulthood? a. –0.75 b. +0.67 c. –0.04 d. +0.21 11. How many subtests does the current version of the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test include? a. 2 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 12. Modern tests of intelligence calculate IQ as a deviation score. When this method of reporting is used, what is the approximate percentage of individuals who have an IQ between 85 and 115? a. 96% b. 68% c. 50% d. 32% 13. What is Charles Spearman’s name most clearly linked with? a. factor analytic view of intelligence b. multiple intelligences view of intelligence c. triarchic theory of intelligence d. development of the intelligence quotient 14. What is one of David Wechsler’s key contributions to the evolution of intelligence testing? a. The publication of the first high-quality IQ test designed specifically for adults. b. The creation of the intelligence quotient that made it possible to compare intelligence scores between children of different ages. c. The development of the first intelligence test that could be administered to large groups of people at one time. d. The publication of the first test that measured creativity in addition to general intelligence. 15. Which of the following psychological disorders is MOST strongly associated with creative genius? a. depression b. schizophrenia c. anxiety d. antisocial personality disorder 16. What do test norms refer to? a. the reliability of the test’s scores b. the individual score relative to the population of scores c. the validity of the test’s questions d. the conditions used when the test was administered

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 17. What is one problem with heritability estimates for intelligence? a. They have been based on research with diverse groups, and this makes interpretation difficult. b. They are individual statistics and therefore cannot be meaningfully applied to groups. c. They are only meaningful for individuals reared together and cannot be applied to individuals reared apart. d. They may vary from one group to another depending on a number of factors. 18. What aspect of Sternberg’s triarchic theory is exemplified by Margaret Atwood? a. creative intelligence b. practical intelligence c. social intelligence d. emotional intelligence 19. When researchers compare IQs of people across socioeconomic status, what do they find? a. lower socioeconomic status is associated with a 5 point deficit in IQ b. lower socioeconomic status is associated with a 15 point deficit in IQ c. higher socioeconomic status is associated with a 5 point deficit in IQ d. higher socioeconomic status is associated with a 15 point deficit in IQ 20. What was the reason for developing the original intelligence test devised by Binet and Simon? a. to identify children needing special academic assistance b. to predict worker productivity c. to select men who were suited for military duty d. to determine the age at which children would reach their maximum academic potential 21. Which theory of intelligence is consistent with a fixed mind-set? a. entity b. incremental c. multicomponent d. emotional 22. According to the classification system developed by the American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities, Jose is classified as having mild intellectual disability. What is his IQ range? a. between 0 and 25, and few or no speech skills b. between 25 and 40, and the ability to learn simple tasks in highly structured environments c. between 40 and 55, and academic skills equal to a child in Grade 2 d. between 55 and 70, and academic skills equal to a child in Grade 6 23. What correlation coefficient is most indicative of high test-retest reliability? a. a correlation between –0.70 and –1.00 b. a correlation between –0.10 and +0.10 c. a correlation that is between +0.70 and +1.00 d. a correlation that is greater than 1.00 24. What is suggested by the results of studies that compare IQ scores in identical and fraternal twins? a. Heredity plays virtually no role in IQ. b. When it comes to IQ, environmental factors play a more important role than heredity. c. IQ is inherited to a considerable degree. d. About 50%t of IQ is due to heredity, and 50% is due to environmental factors. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 25. According to Sternberg, what kind of testing is associated with the assessment of analytical intelligence? a. testing for abstract reasoning skills b. testing for the ability to generate novel ideas c. testing for the ability to deal with everyday problems d. testing for the ability to understand and regulate emotions 26. Which of the following is a metabolic disorder that results from an inherited enzyme deficiency and can lead to intellectual disability if it is not caught and treated in infancy? a. hydrocephaly b. Down syndrome c. phenylketonuria d. Parkinson’s disease 27. In which of the following regions are IQ tests considered the LEAST valuable? a. North America b. Japan c. China d. Scandinavia 28. Based on the intelligence quotient formula first used by Lewis Terman, what characterizes an individual with a chronological age greater than his or her mental age? a. having an IQ greater than 100 b. having an IQ equal to 100 c. having an IQ less than 100 d. excelling in most school subjects 29. Which of the following perspectives is supported by strong positive correlations between scores on several very different mental tests? a. Gardner’s multiple intelligences theory b. Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence c. Cattell’s concept of crystallized and fluid intelligence d. Spearman’s factor analytic view of intelligence 30. What did Deary and colleagues (2007) find to be the correlation between g and educational attainment? a. –0.22 b. +0.70 c. 0.00 d. +0.99 31. Which of the following researchers is most closely associated with the concept of reaction range in IQ? a. Sandra Scarr b. Alfred Binet c. Carol Gilligan d. David Wechsler 32. Andrew took a test that assessed his speed and accuracy when detecting a specific stimulus pattern of a set of random dots presented on a computer screen. His score on the test will determine whether or not he will be admitted to a training program for air traffic controllers. What type of test is this? a. an achievement test b. a standardized test c. an aptitude test d. a personality test 33. Which of the following methods did Howard Gardner use to develop his theory of multiple intelligences? a. controlled experiments b. naturalistic observation c. correlational studies d. case study research

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 34. When intelligence tests are used to predict academic performance, the results a correlation of approximately +0.50. What does this indicate about IQ tests? a. They are reliable measures of intellectual achievement. b. They are reasonably valid indicators of general mental ability. c. They cannot be used as a valid index of academic intelligence. d. They are reasonably valid indexes of school performance. 35. Approximately what percentage of variation in intelligence does Arthur Jensen attribute to environmental factors? a. 50% b. 30% c. 20% d. 40% 36. What is the average intelligence, according to most IQ tests that use the deviation IQ? a. 10 b. 50 c. 100 d. 120 37. Which of the following factors is associated with a high IQ? a. increased physical health b. decreased predicted longevity c. increased risk of death from accidents d. increased risk of obesity 38. In Terman’s original study of gifted children, 1500 children with an average IQ of 150 were compared to a group of normal children. Which of the following is one of the differences that Terman found when he compared these two groups? a. They were below average in both physical and mental health. b. They were more introverted and socially isolated. c. They were below average in height, weight, and strength. d. They showed better emotional adjustment and social maturity. 39. A school psychologist plans to individually test students in Grade 4 for admission to the school’s gifted and talented program. The psychologist wants to use a test that provides a verbal score, a performance score, and an overall composite score. With this goal in mind, what procedure should the psychologist use? a. Stanford-Binet test b. Multi-Factor Emotional Intelligence Scale c. Differential Aptitude Test d. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children 40. Whose work began intelligence testing? a. Alfred Binet b. Lewis Terman c. Robert Sternberg d. Francis Galton 41. Which of the following statements best characterizes the “Flynn effect”? a. IQ scores are becoming less accurate predictors of academic performance. b. Verbal intelligence scores are decreasing, but students are getting better grades in school. c. Despite dramatic advancements in technology, IQ performance has remained stable over the last 50 years. d. IQ performance has been rising steadily all over the industrialized world since the 1930s.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 42. What is the name for psychological tests that measure interests, values, and attitudes? a. achievement tests b. aptitude tests c. intelligence tests d. personality tests 43. Which of the following statements is an expression of the nurture side of the nature versus nurture argument? a. Environmental deprivation has little effect on intellectual performance. b. An intellectually stimulating environment can lead to noticeable increases in the IQs of disadvantaged children. c. An intellectually stimulating environment would be wasted on those who did not have some innate intellectual potential. d. Intellectual potential is something with which you are born; it is not acquired. 44. Marco believes that focusing on school and academics will make him more intelligent. Marco’s beliefs support which of the following theories of intelligence? a. entity b. incremental c. multicomponent d. emotional 45. David had a very high score on a test that measured his ability to apply his knowledge to practical problems. What type of intelligence was the test measuring? a. fluid intelligence b. crystallized intelligence c. perceptual speed d. word fluency 46. Charles Spearman found that specific abilities were highly correlated. What did he label overall intelligence? a. intelligence quotient b. analytical ability c. verbal performance d. general mental ability 47. What does content validity refer to? a. how well a test actually measures a particular theoretical construct b. the degree to which the questions on a test are representative of the domain of interest c. the extent to which test scores correlate with independent measures of the same trait or skill d. how consistent test results are from one administration of the test to the next 48. Which of the following did Guilford consider a primary mental ability? a. critical thinking b. mathematical operations c. perceptual speed d. writing fluency 49. What intelligence is demonstrated by a person who has the ability to see all aspects of a problem and make good decisions? a. verbal intelligence b. social intelligence c. practical intelligence d. emotional intelligence 50. To validate a given test’s predictive ability what would you be most interested in assessing? a. the test’s construct validity b. the test’s content validity c. the test’s test-retest reliability d. the test’s criterion-related validity

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 51. Modern tests of intelligence calculate IQ as a deviation score. When this method of reporting is used, what is the IQ of just over 68 percent of all individuals? a. between 70 and 130 b. between 85 and 115 c. greater than 85 d. greater than 115 52. Agnes has an IQ of 41 and she has developed academic skills equivalent to a Grade 2 educational level. According to the classification system developed by the American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities, what level of intellectual disability does Agnes have? a. mild b. moderate c. profound d. severe 53. What type of test is used when the testing and scoring procedures associated with a test are kept the same across different administrations of the test? a. reliable b. valid c. standardized d. comprehensive 54. Tim is an eight-year-old who recently took an IQ test on which he had a raw score of 145 points. What does the psychologist do first to compute Tim’s deviation IQ score? a. compare the location of 145 relative to the average score in the distribution b. find the typical age associated with a score of 145 and compare that age to Tim’s current age c. test Tim a second time and compute the difference between the two scores d. compare this test score with other ratings of his intelligence (from teachers, parents, etc.) 55. Michael is a 20-year-old who just completed an IQ test because his social worker wanted to assess the best option for him. Michael’s test score was 60. Based on this information, what recommendation should the social worker make? a. Michael will require total care and should probably be placed in an institution. b. Michael should be able to live on his own and be self-supporting. c. Michael should be able to live semi-independently in a sheltered environment. d. Michael can probably learn to feed himself and take care of other self-support, but he will require constant supervision. 56. To expand the concept of intelligence, Howard Gardner argued that traditional IQ tests are too narrowly focused on verbal and mathematical skills. In addition to these skills, what does his list of human intelligence include? a. linguistic, knowledge acquisition, and practical skills b. spatial, musical, and interpersonal skills c. bodily-kinesthetic, creative, and analytical skills d. intrapersonal, contextual, and experiential skills 57. Which mind-set regarding intelligence should Ms. Harris emphasize if she wants her Grade 6 students to have the BEST chance at academic success? a. entity b. growth c. emotional d. fixed

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 58. John is eight years old and has an intelligence quotient of 125. What is his mental age? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14 59. According to the classification system developed by the American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities, Abigail is classified as having moderate intellectual disability. What IQ do you expect Abigail would have? a. between 0 and 25 b. between 25 and 40 c. between 40 and 55 d. between 55 and 70 60. What does the shape of a normal distribution approximate? a. a rectangle b. a U c. a bell d. an M 61. In practice, what is the usual minimum IQ score for gifted programs? a. about 100 b. about 115 c. about 130 d. about 150 62. Based on years of research, who concluded that intelligence involves multiple abilities? a. Charles Spearman b. David Wechsler c. L. L. Thurstone d. Alfred Binet 63. A reduction in infectious disease, improvements in nutrition, and a decrease in family size have all been suggested as contributing to which of the following? a. content validity b. intellectual disability c. the heritability ratio d. the Flynn effect 64. Hannah is completing a psychological test and has just been asked to list as many uses for an empty soup can as she can. What kind of test is Hannah MOST likely completing? a. achievement test b. intelligence test c. personality test d. creativity test 65. With respect to testing, what is a synonym for reliability? a. accuracy b. validity c. comprehensiveness d. consistency 66. If a school board increased the cut off for special education from an IQ of 70 to an IQ of 75 what would be the result? a. Twice as many people would qualify for special education. b. Half as many people would qualify for special education. c. Twenty-five percent more people would qualify for special education. d. Five percent more people would qualify for special education. 67. Which of the following is an attribute of tests that produce similar scores from one administration to the next? a. construct validity b. content validity c. standardization d. reliability Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 68. Susan finds it very easy to deal with the problems that she encounters and finds that solutions to problems come to her quickly. According to Sternberg, what aspect of intelligence is Susan high on? a. creative intelligence b. analytical intelligence c. practical intelligence d. spatial intelligence 69. How do researchers describe the correlation between brain volume and IQ? a. nonexistent b. mild c. modest d. strong 70. Which of the following statements suggests that environment is an important determinant of IQ? a. Siblings reared apart are more similar in IQ than nonrelated siblings reared together. b. Adopted children are more similar in IQ to their adoptive parents than to their biological parents. c. Entirely unrelated children who are raised in the same home show a significant resemblance in IQ. d. Children placed in adoptive homes tend to have enriched environments. 71. In most school districts, children are considered gifted if their IQ falls in what part of the IQ distribution? a. the upper 2% to 3% b. the upper 5% c. the upper 10% d. the upper 25% 72. Symptoms of mood disorders are positively correlated with measures of which of the following? a. creativity b. verbal fluency c. intelligence d. agreeableness 73. Dr. Both is interested in examining the relationship between several different measures of intelligence. What statistical technique would she use to assess the overall relationship? a. factor analysis b. correlation coefficient c. measures of criterion-related validity d. measures of test-retest reliability 74. Which of the following statements describes the relationship between intelligence and brain physiology? a. There is a negative relationship between brain size and overall grey matter. b. There is no relationship between enriched environments and neuronal density. c. There is a positive relationship between brain size and intelligence. d. There is a negative relationship between deprivation and brain volume. 75. Which of the following researchers sparked a heated debate by arguing that cultural differences in IQ are largely due to heredity? a. David Wechsler b. Arthur Jensen c. Alfred Binet d. Robert Sternberg 76. According to Thurstone, how many primary abilities are involved in intelligence? a. 1 b. 3 c. 7 d. 150

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 77. In which of the following approaches are correlations among many variables analyzed to identify closely related clusters of variables? a. analysis of variance b. factor analysis c. inferential statistics d. descriptive statistics 78. Which of the following pairs have the greatest IQ similarity? a. fraternal twins raised together b. identical twins raised apart c. biological parent and child, living together d. adoptive parent and child, living together 79. Stephanie scored in the 86th percentile on an achievement test. What percentage of test takers had a score LOWER than Stephanie’s? a. 85% b. 43% c. 14% d. 22%

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. d 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. a 26. c

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 27. c 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. d 34. d 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. d 39. d 40. d 41. d 42. d 43. b 44. b 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. b 52. b 53. c 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_6ce_Vol_4 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. b 59. c 60. c 61. c 62. c 63. d 64. d 65. d 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. c 71. a 72. a 73. a 74. c 75. b 76. c 77. b 78. b 79. c

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Chap 10_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Based on the case study, Adrian’s motivation to train for the triathlon is considered ___________. a. intrinsic, biological motivation b. extrinsic, biological motivation c. extrinsic, social motivation d. intrinsic, social motivation 2. Even though Emil was terrified throughout the incident and his legs are shaky afterwards, he puts on a smile and outwardly pretends to have found it exciting. His behaviour doesn’t match his emotion because of his _________________. a. cultural display rules b. social conscience c. social desirability d. biological motives 3. Siobhan wants to raise her sales totals. According to Brian Little’s “Personal Projects”, what should she do? a. Set the goal to sell more. b. Tell her coworkers about her goal to sell more c. Determine a start date and a timeline for her end goal d. Write down her goal 4. According to the results of the Capilano Bridge Experiment, it is most likely that after this incident, Nicola and Emil will each perceive the other as being _______ to them than before. a. more interesting b. more attractive c. less competent d. less emotional 5. Siobhan’s desire to help others is considered a ____________. a. need for affiliation b. behavioural need c. intrinsic motive d. sympathetic motive 6. Imagine that in June 2016, Adrian and Kevin are the exact same weight. However, Adrian loses weight while training for his triathlon in June 2017, while Kevin’s weight remains the same. Which of the following is mostly likely to be true for the twins in June 2017? a. Kevin will have more adipose cells than Adrian. b. Adrian is more likely to be a restrained eater. c. Kevin will have a set point, but Adrian will have a settling point. d. Adrian’s settling point will be lower than Kevin’s settling point.

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Chap 10_6ce_Case-Based 7. Adrian and Kevin are 24-year-old twins who are both obese. Adrian has been in a committed, long-term relationship for almost two years. Adrian and his girlfriend moved in together a few months ago, and now that they have settled into their new place and new living arrangements, Adrian is looking for a new challenge. So, he decides to start training for a triathlon. Kevin has recently been putting in a lot of overtime at work (and has sacrificed his social life to do so), but this extra time is paying off because he’s in line for a promotion. He typically spends 10-12 hours a day at the office, six days a week, and will sometimes have dinner with his coworkers, who have become his good friends. Even though Kevin doesn’t have much of a life outside of work, he feels like he makes an important contribution and is a valued member of the team. Based on the relationships between genetics and BMI, which of the following scenarios is most likely? a. Adrian and Kevin attended different elementary and secondary schools. b. Adrian and Kevin are fraternal twins reared apart. c. Adrian and Kevin have 1 obese parent. d. Adrian and Kevin have 0 obese parents. 8. If Nicola feels as though the experience was thrilling, but is surprised to find herself crying involuntarily, then her emotional experience was dictated by her _________ and not her _________. a. cognitive label; behaviour b. behaviour; cognitive label c. behaviour; physiological arousal d. physiological arousal; behaviour 9. According to the Schacter & Singer theory of emotion, because this event is happening while listening to others celebrate, once Nicola is back on the ground ______________. a. Nicola is more likely to laugh. b. Nicola is more likely to cry. c. both Nicola and Emil are more likely to laugh. d. Emil is more likely to laugh only if Nicola is laughing. 10. As Adrian begins triathlon training and starts exercising more regularly, even though he is eating the same amount as before, he finds that he is often hungrier than he used to be. This is most likely because ___________. a. the glucose receptors in his brain and liver are signalling that he has low blood sugar b. his stomach is contracting due to the added exercise c. his body is releasing less leptin protein now that he is losing weight d. his body is releasing less ghrelin protein now that his is losing weight 11. The store decides to begin paying employees based on commission (i.e., their salary is based on their sales totals). This will likely ___________ Siobhan’s motivation. a. not affect b. increase c. decrease d. only slightly increase 12. “If Nicola feels like the experience was thrilling, then she will be more likely to accept another date with Emil.” This sentence indicates that Nicola’s ________ will be affected by her ________. a. cognitive reaction to the situation; behaviour b. behaviour; emotional response c. physiological arousal; behaviour d. cognitive reaction to the situation; physiological arousal Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_6ce_Case-Based 13. Considering what you know about Adrian and Kevin, if both were told by their doctors that they should begin a low-calorie diet at the beginning of the next week, it is likely that ______________. a. Adrian would binge eat before next Monday b. Kevin would binge eat before next Monday c. neither would binge eat before next Monday d. both would binge before next Monday 14. Andreas and Siobhan are the newest employees at an electronics retail store. They are both good employees, but for very different reasons. Siobhan interacts very well with the customers and she loves the feeling she gets when she knows her customers are leaving the store happy. She puts a lot of effort into making sure the customer has all their questions answered (even if she has to ask a colleague for the answer to a question she doesn’t know). Her sales totals aren’t always high, and her product knowledge isn’t the most complete, but she has received lots of compliments on her service and many customers have recommended the store and her service to their friends. Andreas knows a lot about electronics, but he tends to be more reserved when interacting with customers. When customers are having trouble with a company product, he is amazing at troubleshooting. His dream is to work in the corporate head office, so he has put a lot of effort into product knowledge. He knows that if he works hard on the front-line, he has a good chance of being promoted relatively quickly. When considering motivation, _____________ motives are primarily social. a. Siobhan’s b. Andreas’ c. both Andreas and Siobhan’s d. neither Andreas nor Siobhan’s 15. After a year of working at the store, a job posting appears for a position in the head office. Andreas is minimally qualified for the position, but each time he sits down to write his cover letter for the application, he ends up finding another task to do instead. This is likely because Andreas is __________. a. worried he isn’t qualified b. afraid he won’t get the job c. unsure of whether or not he should apply d. nervous about the application process 16. Emil and Nicola were recently set up on a blind date by a mutual friend who knows they both love to rock climb. After a successful first date, they decide to go to a climbing gym for their second date. Nicola begins to climb a challenging part of the rock wall, while Emil is on the ground, making sure that the ropes in her harness are tight so even if she does let go of the wall, she will not fall very far. As Nicola is approaching the top of the high wall, a celebration for another climber’s triumph on another wall of the gym startles both Nicola and Emil. Nicola slips off the wall and falls 3 metres before Emil tightens the ropes to catch her. Even though it wasn’t a close call, it was a stressful situation for both of them. So, when Nicola gets to the ground safely, Emil apologizes for being distracted and gives her a big hug. One theory of emotion proposes that a stimulus produces arousal and that arousal produces emotion. If this is the case, then once she is back on the ground, Nicola is least likely to feel _____________. a. scared b. excited c. sad d. worried 17. Previously, you were told Adrian decided to start training for a triathlon on his own. What if, instead, he only began training for a triathlon because his friend bet him $500 he would never finish one. Originally, he had a _________ to train for a triathlon, and if his friend bets him money, he would instead have a _______ to train for a triathlon. a. motive; drive b. drive; incentive c. incentive; drive d. motive; incentive Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. a 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. c 15. b 16. c 17. b

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which motive leads you to feel bad when your friends get together without you? a. dominance b. achievement c. affiliation

d. ostracism

2. For medical reasons, Rachelle required surgery to remove her stomach. Which of the following statements is

most likely? a. Rachelle will continue to experience hunger. b. Rachelle will never experience hunger again. c. Rachelle will experience constant hunger. d. Rachelle will take many years to relearn to feel hungry. 3. Which statement does NOT accurately describe happiness? a. People often adapt to their circumstances. b. Increases in income generally bring increases in happiness. c. When it comes to happiness, everything is relative. d. Objective realities are not as important as subjective feelings. 4. How do ghrelin and CCK influence hunger? a. Ghrelin and CCK both suppress hunger. b. Ghrelin suppresses hunger, and CCK stimulates hunger. c. Ghrelin stimulates hunger, and CCK suppresses hunger. d. Ghrelin and CCK both stimulate hunger. 5. According to research, what is one of the well-known reasons that increases in income don’t necessarily

bring increases in happiness? a. genetics b. grit c. subjective-well being d. hedonic adaptation 6. What do psychologists generally rely on in studying the cognitive components of emotions? a. heart rate b. subjects’ verbal reports c. galvanic skin response

d. scores on projective tests

7. What is the term for cultural norms that regulate the appropriate expression of emotions? a. polygraphs b. display rules c. emotional cues

d. cognitions

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 8. How does food availability influence the experience of hunger? a. People at potluck functions are less likely to consume a lot of food because they have access. b. Humans increase their consumption when a greater variety of food is available. c. When food is not available, people become stressed and this makes them lose their appetite. d. Humans cannot control themselves if they have too many options. 9. An important distinction between drive and incentive theories is that drive theories believe that the source of

motivation lies __________________, and incentive theories believe that the source of motivation lies ________________. a. within the environment; within the organism b. within the organism; outside the organism c. within the organism; within our evolutionary history d. within our reinforcement history; within our cognitions 10. Which statement best compares the various factors associated with happiness? a. Income and status play larger roles than do health and social activity. b. Internal factors are more important than external factors. c. Parenthood and culture play larger roles than do work and personality. d. Physical factors are more important than emotional factors. 11. According to the James-Lange theory, which of the following components is most important in determining

which emotion an individual will experience? a. behavioural b. cognitive c. physiological d. psychological 12. Boris has a high need for achievement, and he is currently enrolled in a philosophy course that is required for

his major. The professor has never been known to give a student a grade higher than a B and has mentioned that fact in class. What will Boris likely do under these conditions, according to Atkinson’s theory of motivation? a. He will drop the course and switch to a different major. b. He will exert the maximum effort he can because he has a high need for achievement. c. He will not exert his maximum effort because the course has a low incentive value for him. d. He will not exert his maximum effort because he has a low expectation of success. 13. Joseph conducted a study on highly anxious children and examined the size of various brain structures,

including the amygdala. Which terms describe this type of research? a. affective neuroscience b. expressive neuroscience c. clinical trials d. evolutionary psychology

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 14. How do evolutionary theorists account for the many different emotions that humans are capable of

experiencing? a. Humans use their advanced cognitive skills to make fine distinctions between emotions. b. Each emotion is associated with its own distinctive pattern of autonomic arousal. c. A small number of primary emotions can occur in various combinations and at various intensities. d. Every specific emotion evolved separately. 15. When does the conscious experience of emotion occur, relative to physiological arousal, according to the

Cannon-Bard theory? a. only when arousal is absent c. at the same time as physiological arousal

b. after physiological arousal d. prior to physiological arousal

16. Which of the following factors can sometimes cause a decrease in eating? a. food availability b. food palatability c. food variety

d. stress

17. When contemporary researchers think about the role of the brain for the regulation of hunger, what tends to

be their focus? a. anatomical centres b. overall size of the brain c. neural circuits d. amount of electrical activity in the hindbrain 18. Which emotional expression is NOT consistently identified cross-culturally, according to research results? a. sadness b. suspicion c. fear

d. happiness

19. What is typically found when people are asked to rate their happiness? a. Only those who are relatively healthy consider themselves happy. b. The vast majority indicate that they are unhappy. c. About half the respondents indicate that they are happy. d. A small minority place themselves below the neutral point on the scale. 20. Irene is listening to an audiobook of a romance novel while she is on her daily walk. Although she is not

walking especially fast, she finds that as she listens to one of the love scenes in the novel, her respiration rate and heart rate increase. She is also experiencing vaginal lubrication. Which of the following phases is Irene experiencing based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson? a. plateau b. excitement c. resolution d. orgasmic

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 21. Which of the following chemical messengers in humans is released by the pancreas? a. CCK b. insulin c. ghrelin

d. leptin

22. Which pair of terms characterizes drive theories and incentive theories of motivation, respectively? a. sociobiological; sociological b. push; pull c. external; internal

d. constrained; unconstrained

23. Which of the following contributes MOST to obesity? a. inadequate exercise b. excessive eating c. sensory-specific satiety d. both inadequate exercise and excessive eating contribute equally to obesity 24. Approximately what percentage of 15- to 17-year-olds report engaging in sexual intercourse, according to

recent surveys and reports by government agencies? a. 10 b. 30 c. 50 d. 70 25. What is a way of quantifying weight that controls for variations in height? a. reaction range b. obesity quotient c. set point

d. body mass index

26. Which of the following researchers suggested that achievement behaviour is influenced by factors such as the

probability of success and the incentive value of success? a. David McClelland b. John Atkinson c. Janet Polivy d. Kimberly Amirault 27. Imagine that an individual has taken medication that has suppressed their overall level of autonomic arousal.

Which theory would be supported if this person reports less intense emotional experiences? a. common-sense view of emotion b. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion c. James-Lange theory of emotion d. facial feedback hypothesis 28. What, approximately, is the heritability coefficient for sexual orientation, according to recent estimates? a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 0.3

d. 0.4

29. What is the evolutionary benefit of the affiliation motive? a. It makes us more fertile. b. It allows us to have the protection and resources of a group. c. It allows us to take control of others and take their resources. d. It makes us more competitive. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 30. Victoria is extremely upset because she has been falsely accused of stealing money from her employer. Her

lawyer has suggested that Victoria take a polygraph test to prove her innocence. Victoria asks for your opinion. What should you tell her based on the research into the accuracy of polygraphs? a. They sometimes wrongly indicate that innocent people are guilty but are highly accurate in detecting guilt. b. They measure only overall arousal levels and are not reliable indicators of whether people are lying. c. They are extremely accurate, and if Victoria is truly innocent, she will pass with no problem. d. They sometimes wrongly indicate that guilty people are innocent but are highly accurate in detecting innocence. 31. Which term describes one’s efforts to predict one’s emotional reactions to future events? a. proactive communication b. anticipatory anxiety c. emotional prediction

d. affective forecasting

32. What is the name for a device that measures autonomic arousal by recording heart rate, respiration rate, and

blood pressure? a. electromyocardiograph c. electroencephalograph

b. galvanic response meter d. polygraph

33. Annette was experiencing a high level of sexual excitement as her partner kissed and caressed her. However,

the phone rang and interrupted them. Her heart rate and respiration rate are slowly returning to normal, but she frustrated. Which of Masters and Johnson’s phases is Annette experiencing? a. post-orgasmic b. plateau c. resolution d. refractory 34. What does the set point for body weight refer to? a. the lowest possible weight at which the person can survive b. a person’s current weight c. the highest weight the person can attain by unrestricted eating d. a person’s natural point of stability in body weight

John John is an 18-year-old who has been a bit stressed thinking of his upcoming presentation, which he is expected to deliver later on this morning as a part of a group project in his Positive Psychology class. John didn’t sleep well last night and this morning he has no interest in eating breakfast. Once John arrives at school, he feels his heart palpitating. During his presentation, someone in the audience made a joke in poor taste which John handled gracefully by laughing along, even though he was angry about the joke. 35. Which area of John’s brain would become active as he gains control over his emotions? a. right hemisphere only b. cortical regions c. amygdala d. mesolimbic dopamine pathway Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 36. How does the presence of others affect eating, according to Herman and Polivy’s inhibitory norm model? a. It always inhibits the rate of eating, unless the others are family members. b. It increases the rate of disordered eating in vulnerable individuals. c. It always enhances the rate of eating. d. It generally inhibits eating, but in some situations may increase eating behaviour. 37. Dylan is on a roller coaster that has just reached the top of the first climb and is starting to drop. How should

Dylan describe his experience based on the James-Lange theory of emotions? a. “My racing heart must mean I’m terrified because everyone else is screaming.” b. “The sight of the drop makes my heart race, and it makes me feel terrified.” c. “I feel terrified because my heart is racing.” d. “My heart is racing because I am terrified.” 38. Which of the following organs of the body secrete ghrelin and CCK? a. Both ghrelin and CCK are secreted by the stomach. b. Ghrelin is secreted by the stomach, and CCK by the upper (small) intestine. c. Ghrelin is secreted by the pancreas, and CCK by the stomach. d. Ghrelin is secreted by the small intestine, and CCK by the pancreas. 39. Imagine that you’ve just won the lottery and are thrilled to have millions of dollars at your disposal. What is

most likely, if you did win the lottery, based on evidence about affective forecasting? a. You would be happier than you can possibly imagine right now. b. You would have very little change in your average emotions from pre-win to post-win. c. You would likely be quite happy about the win, but then become depressed because of compensatory responses. d. You would be disappointed, because you had built it up too much in your mind. John John is an 18-year-old who has been a bit stressed thinking of his upcoming presentation, which he is expected to deliver later on this morning as a part of a group project in his Positive Psychology class. John didn’t sleep well last night and this morning he has no interest in eating breakfast. Once John arrives at school, he feels his heart palpitating. During his presentation, someone in the audience made a joke in poor taste which John handled gracefully by laughing along, even though he was angry about the joke. 40. Which areas of the brain are likely to be active as John experiences fear about his big presentation? a. lateral hypothalamus b. right frontal lobe c. amygdala d. cerebellum

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 41. Which of the following terms for sexual orientation refers to an individual with little or no interest in sexual

behaviour? a. nonsexual c. asexual

b. pansexual d. polysexual

42. What is hedonic adaptation? a. the tendency to discount positive events that you have never experienced b. the tendency to view positive events relative to a standard that is based on your experience c. the tendency for natural selection to act on beneficial emotional traits, but not on maladaptive ones d. the tendency to seek out pleasurable events 43. What is the psychological term for being ignored and excluded by others in ones’ social environment? a. ostracism b. the cold-shoulder effect c. avoidance

d. excommunication

44. Which of the following best characterizes the correlation between income and subjective feelings of

happiness? a. positive, but weak c. negative, but weak

b. positive and strong d. negligible

45. What is a drive? a. internal state of equilibrium that is nonmotivating b. internal state of tension that is nonmotivating c. internal state of equilibrium that is motivating d. internal state of tension that is motivating 46. What plays a particularly central role in conditioned fear? a. ventromedial hypothalamus b. amygdala c. pineal gland

d. thalamus

47. While Walter is out riding, his horse suddenly rears up when a small animal scurries across the path. How

should Walter describe his experience based on the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions? a. “My heart is racing because I am terrified.” b. “The rearing of the horse makes my heart race, and it makes me feel terrified.” c. “My racing heart must mean I’m terrified because this situation is dangerous.” d. “I feel terrified because my heart is racing.”

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 48. Ginger is participating in a study where she is shown photos of people’s faces and is asked to identify their

emotions based on facial expression. For which of the following emotions is Ginger likely to have the LEAST difficulty? a. amusement b. surprise c. contempt d. sympathy John John is an 18-year-old who has been a bit stressed thinking of his upcoming presentation, which he is expected to deliver later on this morning as a part of a group project in his Positive Psychology class. John didn’t sleep well last night and this morning he has no interest in eating breakfast. Once John arrives at school, he feels his heart palpitating. During his presentation, someone in the audience made a joke in poor taste which John handled gracefully by laughing along, even though he was angry about the joke. 49. When John clenches his fists and then forces himself to chuckle at the “joke,” which component of emotions is illustrated? a. behavioural b. cognitive c. physiological d. self-protective 50. Which of the following best describes the refractory period? a. the time between orgasms in multiorgasmic women b. a time following female orgasm during which females are largely unresponsive to further stimulation c. the time between initiation of intercourse and orgasm d. a time following male orgasm during which males are largely unresponsive to further stimulation 51. Which component of an emotion refers to the subjective conscious experience of that emotion? a. cognitive b. behavioural c. physiological

d. affective

52. Sharon is participating in a study in which she is shown photos of people’s faces and is asked to identify their

emotions based on facial expression. For which of the following emotions is Sharon likely to have the MOST difficulty? a. surprise b. fear c. contempt d. sadness 53. Which manipulation would you employ if you wanted to use the phenomenon of sensory-specific satiety to

alter your food intake? a. Change the colour of your dining room. b. Alter the variety of foods served at each meal. c. Change the size of the bowls you eat from. d. Alter the times of day that you eat.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 54. Leptin has just been released into the bloodstream of a rat. Which of the following is most likely? a. It will experience stomach contractions and rumblings. b. It will show no evidence of either hunger or satiety. c. It will show a decrease in food consumption. d. It will appear to have ravenous hunger and will overeat. 55. Ezra is watching a movie, and as the star of the movie tries to deal with various difficulties, Ezra finds himself

laughing uncontrollably, with tears streaming down his face. What does this example illustrate? a. behavioural component in Ezra’s emotional experience b. physiological component in Ezra’s emotional experience c. objective component in Ezra’s emotional experience d. cognitive component in Ezra’s emotional experience 56. Imagine that your house is on fire and you are afraid. Which explanation best represents Schachter’s two-

factor theory? a. “I’m afraid because I’m shaking.” b. “I’m shaking because I’m afraid.” c. “My fear is a built-in, primary reaction to a dangerous situation.” d. “My shaking must be due to fear, because my house is on fire.” 57. During which phase of the human sexual response cycle does a series of muscular contractions pulsate

through the pelvic area? a. phallic b. resolution c. orgasmic d. excitement 58. Which of the following is NOT part of the assumptions of evolutionary theories of emotion? a. Humans have a relatively small number of innate emotions with adaptive value. b. Emotions evolved after thought did. c. Emotions originate in subcortical brain structures. d. Emotions are largely innate. 59. The relationship between subjective well-being and age depends on the global region. In which of the

following countries would you be most likely to find a slight dip in happiness around age 50, before again increasing at older ages? a. Ghana b. Ukraine c. Brazil d. England

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 60. Austin is telling a story about a character on a Thematic Apperception Test card. In his story, Austin focuses

on the character’s desire to succeed, and he describes how unhappy the person will be if she does not succeed in reaching her goal. What does Austin’s answer suggest that he most likely has? a. low need for achievement b. high need for achievement c. low need for affiliation d. high need for affiliation 61. Imagine that your house is on fire and you are afraid. Which explanation best represents evolutionary theories

of emotion? a. “My fear is a built-in, primary reaction to a dangerous situation.” b. “My shaking must be due to fear, since my house is on fire.” c. “I’m shaking because I’m afraid.” d. “I’m afraid because I’m shaking.” 62. Which state are you in if you are currently secreting both insulin and ghrelin? a. hunger b. thirst c. anxiety

d. sexual arousal

63. Which variable would be considered the best predictor of happiness? a. intelligence b. health c. money

d. personality

64. The relationship between subjective well-being and age depends on the global region. In which of the

following countries would you be most likely to find a steady decrease in happiness with increasing age? a. Ireland b. Russia c. Canada d. Nigeria 65. Critics of evolutionary explanations for sex differences in mate preferences often point to the role of culture

and economic forces. Which of the following observations, described in the textbook, supports the typical cultural/economic explanation? a. Larger gender differences in mate preferences are found in nations that show greater gender equality. b. Smaller gender differences in mate preferences are found in nations that are more affluent. c. Smaller gender differences in mate preferences are found in nations that show greater gender equality. d. Larger gender differences in mate preferences are found in nations that are more affluent. 66. Patrick ate a large breakfast. When he arrived for his 8:00 a.m. class, the student next to him offered Patrick

a large raisin muffin. Even though Patrick was still quite full from breakfast, he ate the muffin that he was offered. Which theory of motivation best explains Patrick’s behaviour in this instance? a. instinctive b. drive c. incentive d. self-awareness

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 67. If Mary is very attractive, what can you predict about her level of happiness? a. She is likely exactly average in terms of happiness. b. She is likely happier than average. c. She is likely less happy than average. d. She may have any level of happiness. 68. What is the correlation between health status and subjective well-being? a. negligible b. strongly positive c. moderately positive

d. negative

69. According to research by David Buss and colleagues (1989), which surveyed over 10 000 people from 37

cultures, when a woman describes her ideal mate, which trait will have a lower priority compared to when a man describes his ideal mate? a. intelligence b. ambition c. physical attractiveness d. social status 70. What adaptive value have evolutionary theorists suggested may be associated with the emotion of disgust? a. It helps humans avoid aggressive predators. b. It serves as an escape mechanism which helps people overcome helplessness. c. It serves an important function as a disease-avoidance mechanism. d. It helps humans identify who likes them and who doesn’t like them. 71. What type of motive is associated with the need to master difficult challenges, outperform others, and meet

high standards of excellence? a. competence motive b. intellect motive c. power motive d. achievement motive 72. Which of the following terms refers to having a body mass index greater than 30? a. heavy b. overweight c. obese

d. diabetic

73. Which of the following researchers is NOT associated with the evolutionary theories of emotion? a. S. S. Tomkins b. Robert Plutchik c. Paul Ekman

d. Carroll Izard

74. A laboratory rat has had part of its hypothalamus destroyed by lesioning. The rat doesn’t seem to know when

to stop eating and has ballooned to several times its normal size. In this case, which area of the hypothalamus would you expect to be damaged? a. lateral b. ventromedial c. magnocellular d. parvocellular

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 75. Which term refers to the engorgement of blood vessels which produces erections in males and vaginal

lubrication? a. vasocongestion c. orgasm

b. vasoconstriction d. reproductive process

76. Which piece of evidence led to a rejection of Cannon’s hypothesis that stomach contractions cause hunger? a. People experience hunger even when their stomachs have been surgically removed. b. People experience stomach contractions when they are sleeping. c. People experience hunger in dreams. d. People experience hunger in response to external rather than internal cues. 77. What do we use to distinguish between the experiences of different emotions, according to Schachter’s two-

factor theory of emotion? a. our interpretation of the situation c. type of behaviour involved

b. emotional expression of others d. type of bodily pattern involved

78. Malcolm is reading a mystery novel, and as the action builds, he finds he is breathing more quickly than usual,

and he feels like his stomach is tied in knots. What does this example illustrate? a. cognitive component in Malcolm’s emotional experience b. physiological component in Malcolm’s emotional experience c. objective component in Malcolm’s emotional experience d. behavioural component in Malcolm’s emotional experience 79. What is the foremost motivation for all organisms, according to drive theorists? a. Maintain homeostasis. b. Ensure their own survival and the survival of their species. c. Achieve self-actualization. d. Experience as much pleasant stimulation as possible. 80. At what age do humans start to show a preference for sweet tastes? a. at birth b. by 4 months of age c. by 12 months of age

d. by 2 years of age

81. What motive is associated with the need to associate with others and maintain social bonds? a. sociological b. affiliation c. psychosocial

d. competence

82. Which of the following is associated with most of the measurable physiological arousal associated with

emotion? a. medulla c. forebrain

b. autonomic nervous system d. central nervous system

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 83. Based on cultural differences in display rules, where would you expect negative emotions like sadness to be

suppressed or hidden when the person is in public? a. Canada b. Japan c. France d. United States 84. When does the pursuit of achievement increase, according to Atkinson’s model of achievement motivation? a. as the probability of success increases and the incentive value of success decreases b. as the probability of success and the incentive value of success both increase c. as the probability of success decreases and the incentive value of success increases d. as the probability of success and the incentive value of success both decrease 85. Which of the following chemical messengers in humans is produced by our fat cells and released into the

bloodstream? a. insulin b. ghrelin c. leptin d. CCK 86. Psychologists who take an evolutionary view argue that natural selection favours behaviours that maximize

which of the following? a. acquisition of territory c. reproductive success

b. self-actualization d. material wealth

87. Which test has been used a great deal to measure affiliation and achievement needs? a. Thematic Apperception Test b. Rorschach Ink Blot Test c. Kinsey Scale

d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test

88. Jarrod experienced an orgasm just over 30 minutes ago. He is still largely unresponsive to sexual stimulation.

Which of Masters and Johnson’s phases is Jarrod experiencing? a. post-orgasmic b. excitement c. resolution d. plateau 89. What is suggested by the fact that the correlation in weight between identical twins reared apart is higher than

that between fraternal twins reared together? a. Weight is influenced more by genetics than by environmental factors. b. Weight is influenced more by environmental factors than by genetics. c. Weight is affected equally by genetics and environmental factors. d. Weight is not affected by either genetics or environmental factors.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 90. Warrick was posing for his girlfriend while she painted a picture for her art class. She had asked him to hold

his mouth in a frown because she was trying to depict someone who was sad and dejected. Now that he has finished posing, Warrick finds that he is feeling somewhat unhappy, but he is not really sure why. What is this type of reaction consistent with? a. facial-feedback hypothesis b. common-sense view of emotion c. James-Lange theory of emotion d. two-factor theory of emotion 91. Travis has been doing quite well in his political science course, and he has just started working on his final

paper for that class. His professor announces that the top paper will earn a prize of a $200 gift card for the bookstore. What has changed in this achievement situation? a. Travis’s achievement motivation b. probability of success c. incentive value of success d. relative task difficulty 92. In drive theories of motivation, what is a “drive”? a. a state in which homeostatic balance has been disrupted b. the incentive value of a particular item or action c. a need to master difficult challenges or outperform others d. an individual’s personal perception of their overall happiness and life satisfaction 93. What does the facial-feedback hypothesis suggest? a. The internal state causes the facial expression. b. A facial expression is simply an external sign of the internal feelings. c. You can affect how you feel by making a certain facial expression. d. Other people can identify your emotional state by observing your facial expressions. 94. “We need to ban the use of video games for children under the age of 12, because obesity leads to serious

health consequences.” Which fallacy does this example illustrate? a. non sequitur b. circular argument c. weak analogy d. false dichotomy 95. Which would be considered the best predictor of happiness out of the following variables? a. parenthood b. intelligence c. health

d. money

96. What is assessed by the Thematic Apperception Test? a. crystallized intelligence b. aptitude c. arousal level

d. motives

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 97. Which statement best reflects Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion? a. The experience of emotion depends on autonomic arousal and your cognitive interpretation of that

arousal. b. Emotion occurs when the thalamus sends signals simultaneously to the cortex and to the autonomic nervous system. c. Emotions develop because of their adaptive value. d. Different patterns of autonomic activation lead to the experience of different emotions. 98. As Danica saw the headlights coming directly at her through the fog on the highway, her blood pressure rose

quickly, and she felt her heart start to race. What does this example illustrate? a. behavioural component in Danica’s emotional experience b. physiological component in Danica’s emotional experience c. objective component in Danica’s emotional experience d. cognitive component in Danica’s emotional experience 99. What is a premise for which no proof of evidence is offered? a. statement b. argument c. assumption

d. attribution

100. Peter and his partner are having sex when Peter’s blood pressure increases sharply, and he experiences a

series of muscular contractions throughout his pelvis. What is likely based on research conducted by Masters and Johnson? a. Peter’s muscular contractions are likely to produce an orgasm in his partner. b. Peter will be relatively unresponsive to sexual stimulation for a period of time following his orgasm. c. Peter is likely to experience several more orgasms before he enters a refractory period. d. Peter will now pass into the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle. 101. Which statement best reflects evolutionary theories of emotion? a. The experience of emotion depends on autonomic arousal and your cognitive interpretation of that

arousal. b. Emotions occur when the thalamus sends signals simultaneously to the cortex and to the autonomic nervous system. c. Emotions developed because of their adaptive value. d. Different patterns of autonomic activation lead to the experience of different emotions. 102. What did Cannon and Washburn propose as the cause of hunger? a. lack of food b. stomach contractions c. changes in leptin levels

d. low blood sugar

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 103. Dr. King is studying the effects of gender on motivation to achieve in competitive sports. Her hypothesis is

that males should have a greater motivation to win in sports with physical contact because males are genetically predisposed to seek dominance and status using physical prowess, whereas females should have a lower motivation in contact sports, because females seek dominance in other ways. Which motivational theory is guiding Dr. King’s research? a. drive b. cognitive c. organizational d. evolutionary 104. Noor is an individual who has a high need for achievement. She is trying to decide which one of four possible

courses to take. The first is supposed to be easy, with an “A” practically guaranteed for very little effort. The second is supposed to be moderately difficult, but with effort an “A” is possible. The third is supposed to be a “killer” course with little chance of earning a grade higher than a “B.” The fourth is a seminar-style course with no grades assigned. What should you expect Noor to choose? a. the moderately difficult course that requires effort for a high grade b. the course that has no assigned grades c. the easy course, which practically guarantees a high grade d. the “killer” course to maximize her level of task difficulty 105. Renaud is describing a whitewater rafting trip. As he talks about the raft crashing through rapids, Tiana’s

mouth drops, and she finds she is clutching at the arms of her chair. What does this example illustrate? a. behavioural component in Tiana’s emotional experience b. physiological component in Tiana’s emotional experience c. objective component in Tiana’s emotional experience d. cognitive component in Tiana’s emotional experience 106. Who is most likely to report that sexual orientation changed or emerged in adulthood? a. a homosexual woman b. a heterosexual woman c. a homosexual man

d. a heterosexual man

107. Which of the following is NOT a potential explanation for the affiliation motive, according to evolutionary

psychologists? a. potential for help with offspring b. greater opportunities for sexual interaction c. mutual defence d. greater competition for limited resources

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 108. Imagine that scientists have just discovered a new species in which the females are highly promiscuous and

the males are very picky about their sexual partners. What should you predict about this species, according to parental investment theory? a. The females of the species are not successful at reproduction, because their offspring are not taken care of. b. The males of the species have very high sex drives. c. The males of the species do not help raise the offspring. d. The females of the species provide less care to the offspring than do the males. 109. Justus is reading an erotic story in a men’s magazine when he finds his respiration rate and heart rate

increasing. He is also experiencing penile erection. Which of Masters and Johnson’s phases is Justus experiencing? a. erecting b. excitement c. resolution d. plateau 110. Fernando and Isabelle are both seniors at Central High, and their school’s basketball team just won the

divisional championship. Fernando is used to his team winning a lot, while Isabelle is new to the school and was not expecting the win. What will Isabelle do compared to Fernando, based on the research on hedonic adaptation? a. be less excited by the win, because she wasn’t expecting it b. be more excited by the win, because it is not a typical experience for her c. underestimate Central High’s chances for future victories d. overestimate Central High’s chances for future victories 111. Which of the following researchers is most associated with the drive theories of motivation? a. Leda Cosmides and John Tooby b. Clark Hull c. Abraham Maslow

d. David McClelland

112. Which list represents the correct sequence of the phases of the human sexual response? a. excitement, plateau, resolution, orgasm b. plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm c. plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution

d. excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution

113. Complete the following analogy: Premises are to conclusions as _____. a. a bird is to feathers b. legs are to a tabletop c. a USB memory stick is to a computer

d. a pencil is to a pen

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 114. When they discovered that their paycheques were going to be late this week, Raj was annoyed, Sylvester

was angry, and Levi was enraged. What would Robert Plutchik suggest about the emotions of the three men? a. They were each labelling their emotions differently due to differences in experience. b. They were experiencing different unique primary emotions. c. They were experiencing different intensities of the same primary emotion. d. They were experiencing different unique secondary emotions. 115. What is emphasized in Schachter’s concept of emotion? a. We can have emotions without bodily arousal. b. Thoughts precede felt emotion. c. Different emotions must be based on different patterns of arousal. d. Both bodily arousal and our thoughts about the situation play a role in emotion. 116. Janie is listening to several of her friends describe the miserable conditions they saw when they were in

Bosnia as part of the peacekeeping force. As she listens to the stories of starvation and ruin, Janie feels overwhelmed by sadness. What does this example illustrate? a. physiological component in Janie’s emotional experience b. cognitive component in Janie’s emotional experience c. objective component in Janie’s emotional experience d. behavioural component in Janie’s emotional experience 117. Which characteristic is NOT expected from a person high in achievement motivation? a. tendency to choose tasks of intermediate difficulty b. tendency to seek immediate gratification c. greater persistence on tasks d. tendency to handle negative feedback poorly 118. How should obesity be understood according to evolutionary theorists? a. It is associated with genetic flaws that will be selected against in future generations. b. It is the result of adaptations to store energy, which are not needed in an environment with constant

access to food. c. It is a result of selection for heavier and heavier bodies over time. d. It is a modern disorder that results from a series of mutations in the genes associated with hunger control.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 119. What has been found by Ekman, who has conducted several studies of facial expressions associated with

emotions? a. There is a lot of variability in recognition of anger from culture to culture. b. There are six fundamental emotions that are generally universally recognized. c. There are too many different emotions to identify. d. There are common expressions for happiness and sadness only. 120. What is the galvanic skin response used for? a. general measure of autonomic arousal b. measure of the subjective experience of emotion c. index of honesty d. measure of conscious emotion 121. Alisha is telling a story about a character on a Thematic Apperception Test card. In her story, Alisha focuses

on the individual’s lack of persistence when undertaking projects, and she also describes how the individual prefers situations that have little competition. What does Alisha’s answer suggest that she most likely has? a. low need for affiliation b. high need for affiliation c. low need for achievement d. high need for achievement 122. Dr. Gibson states that people like to be with other people and to tell jokes because “we enjoy the feeling of

being in a group, and their laughter is very motivating for us.” With which of the following theories of motivation is Dr. Gibson most likely to agree? a. achievement need theories b. drive theories c. genetic theories d. incentive theories 123. “We can ban video games, or we can hasten the moral decay of modern society.” Which fallacy does this

example illustrate? a. slippery slope c. false dichotomy

b. weak analogy d. circular reasoning

124. Which generalization was NOT supported by Masters and Johnson’s human sexuality research? a. Men are more likely to be multiorgasmic than women are. b. The subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for men and women. c. Women are more likely than men to have intercourse without orgasm. d. After orgasm, men experience a refractory period, but women generally do not. 125. Which statement best describes display rules? a. These norms are observed only in cultures which value collectivism. b. Display rules are social conventions in how we dress and the impact this has on our personalities. c. These guidelines are universal and consistent cross-culturally. d. These norms tell us when, how, and to whom we can show our emotions to. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 126. It is Emilie’s ninth birthday, and her parents have just brought out the biggest birthday present she has ever

seen. Her eyes widen, and her heart starts to race as she eagerly tears the wrappings off her gift. How would Schachter describe Emilie’s experience based on the two-factor theory of emotion? a. “Her pulse is racing because she is happy.” b. “The huge present makes her pulse race, and it makes her feel happy.” c. “Her racing pulse means she is happy because she interprets this as an enjoyable situation.” d. “She feels happy because her pulse is racing.” 127. What is considered a significant part of the seat of emotions in the brain? a. amygdala b. medulla c. thalamus

d. Broca’s area

128. What is the brain’s reaction to ostracism? a. increased activity in regions associated with pain b. decreased activity in regions associated with sexual thoughts c. increased activity in regions associated with higher cognitive processing d. decreased activity in regions associated with neuroticism 129. When Harvey was a child, the only time he ate turnips was when he was at his grandmother’s house for

Christmas dinner. Now, as an adult, Harvey loves the taste of turnips because he associates them with Christmas at his grandmother’s house. Which of the following best explains Harvey’s preference for the taste of turnips in this example? a. operant conditioning b. observational learning c. classical conditioning d. homeostatic conditioning 130. Which statement is a simple definition of motivation? a. Motivation is a precursor to dominance. b. Motivation involves goal-directed behaviour. c. Motivation includes all voluntary behaviour. d. Motivation requires intentional behaviour. 131. What did Alfred Kinsey suggest about homosexuality and heterosexuality? a. They are orientations that are a function of genetics. b. They are end points on a continuum. c. They are value judgments and should be of little concern to scientists. d. They are orientations based on early learning. 132. The fact that the palatability of foods seems to influence how much a person (or animal) eats is best explained

by which of the following theories of motivation? a. environmental theories b. sociocultural theories c. achievement need theories d. incentive theories Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 133. As Tevin walked into the strange house, the lights went out, and he heard a loud growl off to one side. What

should Tevin report, based on the common-sense view of emotions? a. “This situation makes me tremble and it makes me feel afraid.” b. “I feel afraid because I am trembling.” c. “I am trembling because I am afraid.” d. “My trembling must be fear because this situation is dangerous.” 134. Which of the following is NOT one of the six fundamental emotions that people can readily identify on the

basis of facial expression? a. happiness b. surprise c. anger d. amusement 135. Which characteristic is NOT likely to be found in individuals high in achievement motivation? a. tendency to select the hardest tasks b. tendency to delay gratification c. future orientation

d. persistence

136. Which term refers to an individuals’ personal perceptions of their overall happiness and life satisfaction? a. personal happiness b. empirical well-being c. happiness

d. subjective well-being

137. As Erica watched the televised drawing of lottery numbers, she realized she had the winning combination.

Which theory would be supported if her heart starts to race at the same instant that she feels euphoria over winning the lottery? a. James-Lange theory of emotion b. Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion c. Izard’s evolutionary theory of emotion d. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion 138. Which area of the brain has neurons that are sensitive to hunger signals, as well as neurons that are sensitive

to satiety signals? a. brainstem b. hippocampus c. thalamus d. hypothalamus 139. What type of test is the Thematic Apperception Test? a. aptitude test b. achievement test c. projective test

d. criterion-based test

140. Rory is hungry and decides to go to the kitchen to make some toast. What is the state that precedes the trip

to the kitchen, according to a motivation theorist? a. goal b. drive c. homeostasis d. deprivation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 141. As the three children approached the house that everyone claimed was haunted, Yvette was apprehensive,

Mackenzie was afraid, and Jayme was terrified. What would Robert Plutchik suggest about the experience of the three children? a. They were experiencing different unique primary emotions. b. They were each labelling their emotions differently due to differences in experience. c. They were experiencing different intensities of the same primary emotion. d. They were experiencing different unique secondary emotions. 142. “General bodily arousal contributes to emotion, but one’s interpretation of what is happening gives the

specific emotion.” Who is most likely to have made that statement? a. Ivan Pavlov b. Stanley Schachter c. William James d. Walter Cannon 143. Which question would likely lead to the largest sex difference in responses? a. Do you have an orgasm every time you have sex? b. Have you ever experienced an orgasm? c. Have you ever been sexually aroused without having an orgasm? d. Did you experience an orgasm in your most recent sexual encounter? 144. Which statement regarding sexual orientation has NOT been supported by empirical evidence? a. Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual

arousal. b. There is a greater concordance for sexual orientation between identical twins than between other siblings. c. In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens. d. There may be differences in brain laterality between homosexual and heterosexual men. 145. Which statement best represents current thinking about the role of various areas of the hypothalamus for the

regulation of hunger? a. The lateral and ventromedial portions of the hypothalamus are parts of the neural circuit, but that circuit originates in the cortex. b. The lateral and ventromedial portions of the hypothalamus are parts of the neural circuit, but the arcuate nucleus and the paraventricular nucleus may play a larger role. c. The lateral hypothalamus is the off-switch, and the ventromedial hypothalamus is the on-switch. d. The lateral hypothalamus is the on-switch, and the ventromedial hypothalamus is the off-switch. 146. Which experience during prenatal development has been associated with the development of sexual

orientation? a. hormonal secretions c. neural abnormalities

b. severe physical trauma d. loss of oxygen

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 147. Which of the following statements about ghrelin and CCK is TRUE? a. Both ghrelin and CCK signal hunger. b. Ghrelin is secreted by the small intestine, and CCK by the stomach. c. Ghrelin regulates long-term hunger, while CCK provides information about body fat stores. d. Ghrelin is secreted when the body goes without food, and CCK is released after eating. 148. Which characteristic in a potential mate is likely to be rated more highly by men than by women, according to

the results of Buss’s study of over 10,000 people in 37 cultures? a. youthfulness b. financial prospects c. status d. kindness 149. Research has shown that obesity may foster inflammatory and metabolic changes that contribute to the

development of which disease? a. Multiple Sclerosis b. Huntington’s c. Alzheimer’s d. Parkinson’s 150. Diane has been feeling somewhat down for the past few days. Her sister suggests that if Diane smiled a little

more, she might feel better. What is consistent with that suggestion? a. common-sense view of emotion b. James-Lange theory of emotion c. two-factor theory of emotion d. Facial-feedback hypothesis 151. The textbook states that females’ sexual orientation appears to be characterized by more plasticity than

males. Which of the following offers evidence supporting this statement a. Gay males’ sexual behaviours are more likely to be shaped and modified by culture. b. Gay males are less likely to trace their homosexuality back to their childhood as compared to lesbians. c. Lesbians’ sexual behaviours are more easily shaped and modified by sociocultural factors and may change several times over the course of their adult years. d. Lesbians are less likely to indicate that their attraction to the same sex emerged during adulthood. 152. What does the body monitor, according to set-point theory? a. level of glucose in the bloodstream b. level of fat stores c. activity of the hypothalamus

d. basal metabolic rate

153. There is a positive correlation between the amount of sexual activity that a person engages in and their self-

reported well-being. However, research suggests that this association starts to weaken beyond which of the following frequencies of sexual activity? a. once per month b. twice per month c. once per week d. twice per week 154. Who proposed parental investment theory? a. Robert Trivers b. Walter Cannon c. David Buss

d. Stanley Schachter

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 155. Imagine that your house is on fire and you are afraid. Which explanation best represents the James-Lange

theory? a. “I’m afraid because I’m shaking.” b. “My fear is a built-in, primary reaction to a dangerous situation.” c. “My shaking must be due to fear, since my house is on fire.” d. “I’m shaking because I’m afraid.” 156. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the behavioural expression of emotion? a. The facial expressions that go with the basic emotions seem to be innate. b. Facial expressions reveal a variety of basic emotions. c. People are reasonably skilled at deciphering emotions from others’ facial expressions. d. People who have been blind since birth do not smile and frown as sighted people do. 157. Which of the following potential research subjects would be most helpful in studying the role of leptin in

hunger and satiety? a. genetically obese mice b. animals that have had their stomach removed c. people with bulimia d. rats that have had their pancreas removed 158. Which need is NOT generally considered a component of the achievement motive? a. outperforming others b. being admired by others c. desiring to excel

d. meeting high standards of excellence

159. Karen is about to be attacked by a snarling dog. The sensory information about this event arrives at her

thalamus. What happens next in her brain? a. Information is sent on a fast pathway to the amygdala and a slow pathway to the cortex. b. Information is sent to the visual and auditory cortex for rapid perception of the stimuli. c. Information is sent rapidly to the cortex so that the emotional content of the event can be processed. d. The thalamus immediately inhibits the emotional content of the event so that she can cope with the event. 160. This statement “We need to control Internet porn because it currently is unregulated” is an example of which

of the following? a. irrelevant reasoning c. weak analogy

b. circular reasoning d. false dichotomy

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 161. Evolutionary theorists propose that there are only a few innate primary emotions. What do they use to explain

the great variety of emotions that people describe? a. suppressing natural reactions to stimuli b. forming new associations to original cues c. blends of primary emotions and variations in intensity d. learning new reactions later in life 162. Akbar takes an antihistamine, but he doesn’t realize that the medication will also increase his overall level of

autonomic arousal. Thirty minutes after he has taken the medication, he is introduced to Stella. If Akbar incorrectly attributes his increased arousal as attraction for Stella, which theory would be supported by this example? a. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion b. James-Lange theory of emotion c. Izard’s evolutionary theory of emotion d. Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion 163. According to the principle of sensory-specific satiety, under which condition would someone be most likely to

overeat? a. when soup and crackers are served in individual portions b. when popcorn is served in a very large bowl, and people help themselves c. when a variety of foods are served on a buffet table d. when people are distracted by conversation or other activities 164. Where in the brain does information about the body’s levels of leptin, CCK, insulin, and ghrelin converge? a. olfactory lobe b. prefrontal cortex c. cerebellum

d. hypothalamus

165. Which of the following personality traits is the highest predictor of happiness? a. conscientiousness b. extraversion c. openness

d. agreeableness

166. Do people who admit same-sex attraction always identify as being gay? a. Many who admit same-sex attraction do not self-identify as either gay or bisexual. b. Most people who admit same-sex attraction self-identify as either gay or bisexual. c. Most people who admit same-sex attraction self-identify bisexual but not as gay. d. Self-identification always matches behaviour.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 167. Royce is telling a story about a character on a Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) card. In his story, Royce

focuses on the character’s anxiety as she prepares a speech that will be presented in front of her classmates. He indicates that the character has spent a great deal of time worrying whether the speech may alienate some of her friends. What does Royce’s response to this TAT card suggest that he most likely has? a. low need for achievement b. high need for achievement c. low need for affiliation d. high need for affiliation 168. Breana is telling a story about a character on a Thematic Apperception Test card. In her story, Breana

focuses on the fact that the character is daydreaming about being away from all the pressures of work and family and spending quiet time in an isolated location. What does Breana’s answer suggest that she most likely has? a. low need for achievement b. high need for achievement c. low need for affiliation d. high need for affiliation 169. Clark Hull is most associated with which of the following theories of motivation? a. drive theories b. incentive theories c. evolutionary theories

d. environmental theories

170. Which of the following statements about affective forecasting is most accurate? a. Most people are remarkably accurate in affective forecasting. b. Most people tend to overestimate the emotional impact of future events. c. Most people tend to underestimate the emotional impact of future events. d. Most people underestimate the long-term emotional impact and overestimate the short-term emotional

impact of future events. 171. Which statement best describes polygraphs? a. Polygraphs can detect lying with almost 100 percent accuracy. b. Polygraphs can detect positive emotional states with a high degree of accuracy and negative emotional

states with a low degree of accuracy. c. Polygraphs can detect emotionality that accompanies lying some of the time, but with a high error rate. d. Polygraphs cannot detect emotionality at all. 172. What has research shown is NOT very important in determining one’s happiness? a. work b. personality c. money

d. love and marriage

173. Which statement best reflects the current view regarding the role of leptin in hunger regulation? a. Leptin levels apparently regulate the hunger centres located in the stomach. b. An excessive amount of leptin in the brain has been associated with obesity in rats. c. When leptin levels are high, hunger tends to be reduced. d. The presence of leptin in the bloodstream tends to increase feelings of hunger. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 174. Who is most closely identified with research on the achievement motive? a. David Buss b. Henry Murray c. David McClelland

d. Walter Cannon

175. Which statement best describes the need for achievement? a. Achievement motive is generally determined by situational factors. b. The need for achievement is a fairly stable aspect of one’s personality. c. There is a strong genetic component in the need for achievement. d. The need for achievement is highly variable in a given person throughout their lifetime. 176. Which statements does NOT accurately describe the human sexual response? a. It is normal for sexual arousal to vary during lengthy foreplay. b. Men are more likely than women to engage in intercourse without an orgasm. c. The subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for males and females. d. Women are far more likely than men to be multiorgasmic. 177. Maria is pursuing a highly competitive career, and she works very hard and persistently at her tasks. What

does Maria’s behaviour reflect? a. high power need c. high achievement motivation

b. high affiliation needs d. external locus of control

178. Your text describes several approaches for explaining the experience of emotion. Which statement is

supported by these differences? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 179. Which list represents the three components of emotion? a. cognitive, physiological, and behavioural b. physiological, affective, and behavioural c. cognitive, behavioural, and complex

d. cognitive, physiological, and affective

180. Brock is drinking a sugary sports drink. Which of the following motivations for this behaviour would be best

explained by drive theories of motivation? a. The sweet taste of the drink is very appealing. b. He pushes himself because he wants to be the best version of himself that he can be. c. He has been exercising and sweating a lot, and is now low in sugar and electrolytes. d. Humans are drawn to sweet foods because we are more efficient at extracting calories from them.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 181. Which statement is a criticism held within academia regarding the evolutionary theory of the gender disparity

observed in sexual motivation? a. Darwin lived in a sexist time and therefore his theory cannot be taken seriously. b. Most researchers of sexual behaviour are male and therefore biased when studying issues of gender. c. The subjective well-being of both genders is as important as the quest for an answer to questions of gender disparity in sexual matters d. Some researchers argue that this disparity may be largely attributable to extensive cultural processes that serve to suppress female sexuality 182. Joseph is drinking a sugary sports drink. Which of the following motivations for this behaviour would be best

explained by incentive theories of motivation? a. The sweet taste of the drink is very appealing. b. He pushes himself because he wants to be the best version of himself that he can be. c. He has been exercising and sweating a lot, and is now low in sugar and electrolytes. d. Humans are drawn to sweet foods because we are more efficient at extracting calories from them. 183. Which emotion is most closely associated with the amygdala? a. surprise b. fear c. sadness

d. happiness

184. Talia and her husband are having sex when Talia suddenly experiences a series of muscular contractions

throughout her pelvis. What is most likely, based on research conducted by Masters and Johnson? a. Talia will now pass into the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle. b. It will be at least 20 minutes before Talia can become sexually aroused again. c. Talia’s muscular contractions will prevent her from experiencing the orgasm phase. d. Talia may experience another orgasm without going through a refractory period. 185. What is a non sequitur? a. circular argument b. weak analogy c. false dichotomy

d. irrelevant reason

186. What causes penile erection in males and the swelling of the clitoris in females? a. engorgement of blood vessels b. vasodilation c. muscular tension

d. increased blood pressure

187. Which statement best describes the roles of genetic predispositions and learning for flavour preferences? a. At birth, we have a preference for only high-fat foods; other preferences are learned. b. Flavour preferences are innate and change across the life span only due to maturation. c. Flavour preferences are entirely learned and dependent upon degree of exposure. d. Some flavour preferences are innate, but learning modifies our preferences.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 188. Which evolutionary hypothesis was tested by Buss and his colleagues in a cross-cultural study of mating

preferences? a. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be the same for females but differ for males from culture to culture. b. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will differ from males to females and will differ from culture to culture. c. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will differ from males to females, but the differences will be the same from culture to culture. d. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be basically the same for males but differ for females from culture to culture. 189. Which statement does NOT accurately depict emotion? a. Emotion involves a subjective conscious experience. b. The behavioural component of emotion includes bodily arousal. c. Emotion involves a cognitive component. d. Cognition is important in several aspects of emotions, including control of our emotions. 190. What do the following have in common: achievement, autonomy, order, and dominance? a. They are all social motives. b. They are all biological needs. c. They are all drives. d. They are all social-based biological motives. 191. Which factor is NOT considered in the common-sense view of emotions, the James-Lange theory of

emotions, or the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions? a. interaction between physiological responses and conscious experiences b. expressive reactions c. physiological responses d. cognitive interpretations 192. Atkinson’s model of motivation, which might be called an expectancy-value model of motivation, suggests

that a person’s actions result from a balance between which factors? a. person’s perception of the goal and of reality b. strength of the person’s drive and size of the reward c. size of the reward and effort demanded d. chance of succeeding and value of the incentive

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 193. Which term refers to the preference one holds for emotional and sexual relationships with persons of the

opposite or same sex, or both? a. sexual orientation b. homosexuality c. sexual interest d. sexual attractiveness index 194. Which emotion is NOT easily identified from facial cues in photographs, according to research by Paul

Ekman and Wallace Friesen? a. anger b. happiness c. sympathy d. fear 195. Which theory asserts that a species’ mating patterns depend on what each sex has to invest in the way of

time, energy, and survival risk to maximize the transmission of its genes to the next generation? a. inclusive fitness theory b. drive theory c. parental investment theory d. homeostatic theory 196. Given a high level of achievement motivation, which type of task should maximize one’s sense of

accomplishment? a. any task that is completed c. very easy task

b. intermediate difficulty task d. very difficult task

197. Which brain structure has been associated with the brain’s “on and off switches” for hunger? a. thalamus b. parietal lobe c. hypothalamus

d. prefrontal cortex

198. Which theory states that the muscles of the face send information to the brain and that information affects the

emotion we feel? a. James-Lange theory c. facial-feedback hypothesis

b. Darwin’s facial expression theory d. Schachter’s cognitive theory

199. Which statement best describes the relationship between parenthood and happiness? a. The more children people have, the happier they tend to be. b. People who have children are less happy than people without children. c. People who have children are happier than people without children. d. People who have children are overall neither more, nor less, happy than people without children. 200. Which term refers to an increase in the electrical conductivity of the skin that occurs when sweat glands

increase their activity? a. autonomic skin response c. polyskin response

b. galvanography d. galvanic skin response

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 201. Stefan is an individual who has a high need for achievement. His boss has three jobs that need to be

completed: one job is easy, one job is moderately difficult, and one job is extremely difficult. What should you expect Stefan to do if he is allowed to choose which of the three jobs he will undertake for his boss? a. Ask his boss to make the choice, to avoid a potentially negative evaluation. b. Choose the moderately difficult job. c. Choose the easy job, to maximize his chance for success. d. Maximize the task difficulty by selecting the hardest job. 202. What is the term for the needs, wants, interests, and desires that lead people to behave in particular ways? a. deficiencies b. ideals c. motives

d. incentives

203. Which of the following asserts that two concepts or events are similar in some way? a. dichotomy b. slippery slope c. analogy

d. argument

204. Which approach to explaining the origins of homosexuality has received the most empirical support? a. classical conditioning b. biological c. psychoanalytic

d. operant conditioning

205. “Either the government reduces taxes or it demonstrates that it hates entrepreneurs.” Which fallacy does this

example illustrate? a. false dichotomy c. circular argument

b. weak analogy d. slippery slope

206. Increases in the rate of obesity in modern industrialized societies may have an evolutionary basis. What is the

specific evolutionary hypothesis about body weight? a. We have genes for obesity. b. We evolved to have a metabolism that speeds up dramatically whenever we gain weight. c. Being obese increases your reproductive capacity. d. It was adaptive to overeat and store fat to survive environments where food was scarce. 207. What state is referred to as homeostasis? a. psychological stability b. psychological instability c. physiological instability

d. physiological stability

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 208. Paolo is about to give a speech in front of a roomful of strangers. As he steps up to the podium, he feels

anxious and nervous. What does this example illustrate? a. behavioural component in Paolo’s emotional experience b. cognitive component in Paolo’s emotional experience c. objective component in Paolo’s emotional experience d. physiological component in Paolo’s emotional experience 209. Which characteristic in a potential mate is likely to be rated more highly by women than by men, according to

the results of Buss’s study of over 10,000 people in 37 cultures? a. youthfulness b. status c. kindness d. physical attractiveness 210. Where in Canada are obesity rates either at average or below the average rate? a. Northwest Territories, Quebec, British Columbia, and Nunavut b. Ontario, Quebec, British Columbia, and Alberta c. Prince Edward Island, Newfoundland and Labrador, British Columbia, and Alberta d. Saskatchewan, Manitoba, New Brunswick, and Nova Scotia 211. Dr. Benham argues that motivation is caused by “unpleasant internal states.” With which of the following

theories of motivation is Dr. Benham most likely to agree? a. incentive theories b. drive theories c. achievement need theories d. evolutionary theories 212. Max has the need to master difficult challenges, to outperform others, and to meet high standards for

excellence. According to researchers such as McClelland, Max most likely has which of the following? a. low achievement motivation b. high fear of failure c. high achievement motivation d. high affiliation needs 213. Which theorists agree that autonomic arousal precedes the conscious experience of emotion? a. James, Lange, and Schachter b. Maslow, McClelland, and Murray c. Cannon, Bard, and Atkinson

d. Tomkins, Izard, and Plutchik

214. Which manipulation could help you with a goal to reduce the amount of food that you eat at a meal? a. Serve only one type of food. b. Place foods on the table in larger bowls than usual. c. Serve better tasting food. d. Eat in the presence of a lot of other people.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 215. Food-deprived rats will learn a new response if given artificially sweetened water as a reward. Thus, the

sweet-tasting water is motivating even though no actual hunger reduction takes place. For which theory of motivation is this evidence problematic? a. sociobiological b. instinct c. incentive d. drive 216. In contrast with previous work on hunger, modern researchers have identified which two of the following

aspects of the hypothalamus as being particularly important in modulating hunger? a. lateral and ventromedial regions b. arcuate and paraventricular nuclei c. magnocellular and parvocellular layers d. ascending and descending pathways 217. What does set point depend on, according to theorists? a. bone structure b. number of fat cells c. activity level

d. current body weight

218. Imagine that scientists have just discovered a new species in which the males put their lives at risk to have

offspring, and the females do very little. Which sex should be more likely to be promiscuous, according to parental investment theory, and why? a. males, because of the greater risk associated with reproduction b. females, because of the effects of estrogen c. males, because of the effects of testosterone d. females, because of the lesser risk associated with reproduction 219. What is this statement an example of: “If marijuana is legalized, then the next thing you know, heroin will be

legal.” a. weak analogy c. slippery slope

b. irrelevant reasoning d. circular reasoning

220. Sean and his wife have been kissing and caressing for about 15 minutes. His level of arousal is still increasing,

but more slowly than it was previously. Which of Masters and Johnson’s phases is he experiencing? a. orgasmic b. plateau c. resolution d. excitement 221. Marina and Deven both received a “C” on their last English papers. Marina is accustomed to getting As, and

Deven doesn’t usually get good grades on papers. What should you expect, based on the research on hedonic adaptation? a. Both students will be equally disappointed by the grades they received. b. Marina will be more disappointed by the grade that she received. c. Deven will be more disappointed by the grade that she received. d. Neither student will be disappointed by the grades they received, because a “C” is still a passing grade.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 222. What is the term for an external goal that has the capacity to motivate behaviour? a. drive b. incentive c. expectancy

d. homeostatic mechanism

223. If someone has just provided a series of reasons why his beliefs are true, what has he provided? a. arguments b. attributions c. pretences

d. premises

224. What are the three components of emotion? a. behavioural, physiological, social b. social, situational, cognitive c. cognitive, situational, physiological

d. cognitive, behavioural, physiological

225. Which term describes a person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of either sex? a. bisexual b. homosexual c. heterosexual

d. asexual

226. A novel treatment for depression involves injecting Botox into the forehead to paralyze the muscles

responsible for frowning. That patients reported significant reductions in depressive symptoms within six weeks provides support for which of the following views of emotion? a. commonsense view of emotion b. James-Lange theory of emotion c. two-factor theory of emotion d. facial-feedback hypothesis 227. Stress causes people to choose calorie-rich foods such as sweets and fatty foods. Dr. Tremblay believes this

is because stress in human ancestral history is associated with periods of low food supply, such as famine. He says that people nowadays are still genetically primed to “stock up on food” by eating when stress approaches. Dr. Tremblay’s ideas are most in line with which of the following theories of motivation? a. incentive theories b. evolutionary theories c. drive theories d. achievement need theories 228. Rita has just finished a large meal at her favourite restaurant. Although she is quite full, when the waiter brings

the dessert tray, she orders a piece of cheesecake. Which theory does NOT explain Rita’s behaviour? a. pull theories b. drive theory c. expectancy-value theory d. incentive theories 229. According to the James-Lange theory of emotions, what must you perceive to have a conscious experience

of emotion? a. tension in the facial muscles c. others’ emotions

b. autonomic arousal d. skin conductance

230. Scott just experienced an orgasm. For about an hour, he cannot achieve another orgasm. Which phase of the

sexual response cycle is Scott in? a. orgasmic b. plateau c. resolution d. latency Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 231. Lauren and Tran both spend six hours per week studying for their botany course. Lauren is concerned that if

she doesn’t study, she will fail the course; Tran is concerned that if he doesn’t study, he won’t earn the highest grade in the class. What is most likely? a. Both students are motivated by a need for achievement. b. Tran is motivated by a fear of failure, and Lauren is motivated by a need for achievement. c. Lauren is motivated by a fear of failure, and Tran is motivated by a need for achievement. d. Both students are motivated by a fear of failure. 232. During which of the following two phases of the human sexual response does the intensity of sexual arousal

increase rapidly? a. plateau and orgasm c. excitement and plateau

b. excitement and orgasm d. orgasm and resolution

233. If a person were to receive a small dose of CCK as part of a medical procedure, which of the following

would be most likely? a. He will experience stomach contractions and rumblings. b. He will not be able to experience either hunger or satiety. c. He will report feeling full after eating a smaller-than-normal meal. d. He will experience ravenous hunger or a desire to overeat. 234. What would NOT be considered an environmental factor in the regulation of hunger? a. hormonal fluctuations b. stress c. food availability

d. learned preferences and habits

235. Matsumoto and Willingham carefully photographed the facial expressions of congenitally blind judo athletes in

their influential study on facial expressions. What were the findings of the study? a. the facial expressions of sighted and blind athletes were indistinguishable b. facial expressions that go with emotions are clearly not wired into the brain c. those subjects who had temporal lobectomies did not experience emotion, independent of whether they could see d. the facial expressions of sighted athletes differed from those of blind athletes 236. Some psychologists have suggested that the function of emotions is to motivate the organism. What do you

think this means? Illustrate your points with examples.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 237. As you’ll learn in Chapter 11, research on temperament shows that from the earliest days of life, infants differ

from each other in things like emotional tone, tempo of activity, and sensitivity to environmental stimuli. Discuss these findings from the viewpoint of evolutionary theories of emotion.

238. Suppose you are a university counsellor who wants to develop a program to improve students’ academic

performance. You believe that many students perform poorly because of motivational problems, including simple lack of motivation as well as being motivated by the wrong things. What are some of the considerations that should guide the design of your program?

239. Using an example, describe how the James-Lange theory, the Cannon-Bard theory, and Schachter’s two-

factor theory would explain the experience of an emotion.

240. Compare and contrast sexual motivation with the basic motives of hunger and thirst. How well do the

concepts of drive and homeostasis contribute to understanding sexual motivation?

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. d 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. b 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. d 26. b

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 27. c 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. b 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. d 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. a 52. c 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 55. a 56. d 57. c 58. b 59. d 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. b 65. c 66. c 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. c 71. d 72. c 73. c 74. b 75. a 76. a 77. a 78. b 79. a 80. a 81. b 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 83. b 84. b 85. c 86. c 87. a 88. c 89. a 90. a 91. c 92. a 93. c 94. a 95. c 96. d 97. a 98. b 99. c 100. b 101. c 102. b 103. d 104. a 105. a 106. a 107. d 108. d 109. b 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 111. b 112. d 113. b 114. c 115. d 116. b 117. b 118. b 119. b 120. a 121. c 122. d 123. c 124. a 125. d 126. c 127. a 128. a 129. c 130. b 131. b 132. d 133. c 134. d 135. a 136. d 137. d

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 138. d 139. c 140. b 141. c 142. b 143. a 144. a 145. b 146. a 147. d 148. a 149. c 150. d 151. c 152. b 153. c 154. a 155. a 156. d 157. a 158. b 159. a 160. b 161. c 162. d 163. c 164. d 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 166. a 167. d 168. c 169. a 170. b 171. c 172. c 173. c 174. c 175. b 176. b 177. c 178. d 179. a 180. c 181. d 182. a 183. b 184. d 185. d 186. a 187. d 188. c 189. b 190. a 191. d 192. d 193. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 194. c 195. c 196. b 197. c 198. c 199. d 200. d 201. b 202. c 203. c 204. b 205. a 206. d 207. d 208. b 209. b 210. b 211. b 212. c 213. a 214. a 215. d 216. b 217. b 218. d 219. c 220. b 221. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 222. b 223. d 224. d 225. a 226. d 227. b 228. b 229. b 230. c 231. c 232. b 233. c 234. a 235. a 236. It’s hard to think of any explanation for why we have emotions unless it’s to motivate behaviour. Darwin believed

emotions have adaptive value, that is, that they promote individual and species survival by directing behaviour that is beneficial to the individual or species. This included the notion that the apparently innate and universal facial expressions that accompany emotions serve as signals to others and thereby influence their behaviour. When emotions are experienced, autonomic arousal occurs, probably for the purpose of preparing the body to respond to whatever stimuli led to the emotion being activated. This also suggests that the purpose of emotion is to motivate. Schachter’s two-factor theory suggests that environmental cues influence one’s interpretation of the autonomic arousal being experienced so that particular labels are applied to emotional experiences. We then behave in accordance with the label. This also implies that the mechanism of emotion operates for the purpose of guiding behaviour in particular directions. 237. Answers should reveal students’ understanding that when newborns exhibit characteristics such as these, this

strongly suggests that those characteristics are innate, based on heredity rather than experience. The evolutionary perspective would state that such innate characteristics probably have adaptive value. Good answers should explore the possible adaptive benefits that temperamental differences might confer. 238. Much of what theory and research have to say about motivation is relevant in designing such a program. Good

answers to this question should include and flesh out several of the following

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol 1 239. Many possible types of examples, including an example of someone being afraid when seeing a spider:

James-Lange theory would suggest that your heart races and you experience other physiological arousal, and this physiological arousal causes the experience of fear. Cannon-Bard theory would suggest that the experience of fear and the physiological arousal are both caused by seeing the spider. The fear and the heart racing are triggered simultaneously. Schacter’s two-factor theory would suggest that the physiological arousal is triggered by the sight of the spider, and because you cognitively appraise the situation as a dangerous one, you interpret your physiological arousal as fear (whereas you might interpret it as excitement if you saw a puppy instead of a spider). 240. Good answers will include and elaborate upon the following

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Kathy has lost 12 kilograms recently through dieting. Which theory suggests that she will have the greatest difficulty keeping the weight off because her metabolism has decreased to maintain the fat stores in her body? a. set-point theory b. dietary restraint theory c. evolutionary theory d. settling-point theory 2. Pat’s sexual arousal just reached its peak intensity and was discharged in a series of muscular contractions that pulsated through the pelvic area. What phase of the human sexual response did Pat just experience? a. plateau b. pinnacle c. resolution d. orgasm 3. Which theory of emotion suggested that the conscious experience of emotion is inferred from visceral arousal? a. facial-feedback theory b. James-Lange theory c. Cannon-Bard theory d. common sense theory 4. Penny was given a psychological test when she attended her appointment at the health clinic. The administrator asked Penny to look at an ambiguous picture of a man working at a desk and a woman seated in a chair staring off into space. She was then asked to write a story about what was happening in the scene and how the characters were feeling. What kind of test was administered? a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory b. Thematic Apperception Test c. Rorschach Projective Test d. Personal Orientation Inventory 5. Which theory of emotion proposes that physiological arousal and the cognitive experience of emotion occur simultaneously? a. Cannon-Bard theory b. common sense theory c. James-Lange theory d. Schachter two-factor theory 6. Which of the following would NOT be monitored by a polygraph? a. dilation of the pupils b. blood pressure c. galvanic skin response (GSR) d. respiration rate 7. In Buss’s study on cross-cultural sex differences in human mate selection, which sex difference was consistently reported? a. Males place a higher value on partners’ social status. b. Males place a higher value on partners’ ambition. c. Males place a higher value on partners’ physical appearance. d. Males place a higher value on partners’ kindness.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 8. Which of the following represents the correct order of the four stages of the human sexual response cycle, as observed in the laboratory by Masters and Johnson? a. excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution b. excitement, orgasm, plateau, and resolution c. resolution, excitement, plateau, and orgasm d. excitement, plateau, resolution, and orgasm 9. What does modern neuroscience research indicate regarding lie detection? a. Polygraph tests are 90 percent accurate. b. The fMRI may be a better instrument than the polygraph for lie detection. c. False negatives are a problem but false positives rarely occur. d. The polygraph is our best lie detection instrument today. 10. Walking in the forest, you see a bear. Your heart starts pounding, you run, and then you feel fear. Which theory of emotion is illustrated by this example? a. common sense theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. Schachter two-factor theory d. James-Lange theory 11. What is the best predictor of an individual’s future happiness? a. physical health b. marital status c. past happiness d. financial status 12. Which factor shows the strongest relationship with happiness? a. money b. health c. parenthood d. job satisfaction 13. According to research, what does a polygraph measure? a. fluctuations in the autonomic nervous system b. whether a person is lying or not c. whether a person is thinking about lying or not d. psychopathy 14. Walking through the forest you see a bear. All at once, your heart starts pounding, you feel fear, and you run. Which theory of emotion is illustrated by this example? a. Schachter two-factor theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. common-sense theory d. James-Lange theory 15. William’s fat cells throughout his body have produced high levels of leptin which are now in his bloodstream. What is William most likely to report? a. He feels happy. b. He does not feel hungry. c. He feels angry. d. He feels hungry. 16. Denise has a body mass index of 25. Which category describes Denise? a. underweight b. normal weight c. overweight d. obese Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 17. A rapid-response pathway that quickly results in physiological responses associated with emotion begins with the thalamus. Where does it go from there? a. the medulla b. the amygdala c. the cerebellum d. the cerebral cortex 18. What would Plutchik’s theory of emotion suggest about the three emotions of apprehension, fear, and terror? a. They are three of the primary emotions. b. They are variations in intensity of one primary emotion. c. They are all secondary emotions. d. They are blends of primary emotions. 19. According to Statistics Canada, how many Canadians between the ages and 18 to 59 consider themselves to be gay or lesbian? a. 1.7 percent b. 6.7 percent c. 11.7 percent d. 16.7 percent 20. Which emotional theory considers emotions to be largely innate reactions to certain stimuli? a. behavioural theory b. evolutionary theory c. psychoanalytic theory d. cognitive theory 21. According to incentive models of hunger, are people likely to eat less or more when they eat at a buffet with an abundance of diverse foods to select from? a. more, independent of gender b. less, independent of gender c. more but only if they are male d. more but only if they are female 22. What could you call a promise of a bonus of $100 for completing a work assignment before a deadline? a. a reward b. an incentive c. a motive d. drive reduction 23. When anxious, you may experience a “knot in your stomach” or a “lump in your throat.” What are these examples of? a. visceral arousal b. parasympathetic nervous system arousal c. galvanic skin response (GSR) d. cognitive appraisals 24. What was the topic of ground-breaking research conducted by Masters and Johnson? a. the physiology of the human sexual response b. the psychology of the human sexual response c. sexual preferences d. sexual orientation 25. Which motivational theory explains why Rachel’s desire for a caramel apple is stronger than for a glass of water? a. drive theory b. set-point theory c. glucostatic theory d. incentive theory

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 26. What is suggested by the facial-feedback hypothesis? a. Facial muscles send signals to the brain that help the brain recognize the emotion that one is experiencing. b. After experiencing an emotion, the brain transmits signals that result in the facial muscles “matching” the emotion. c. Feedback from another person’s facial expression allows individuals to correctly label emotions. d. All cultures have identical facial expressions that indicate specific emotional states. 27. Which component of emotion includes autonomic arousal? a. cognitive component b. behavioural component c. physiological component d. perceptual component 28. Which statement best describes the relationship between money and happiness? a. People tend to be happier spending money on themselves than on others. b. People tend to be happier spending money on others than on themselves. c. There is a negative correlation between income and subjective feelings of happiness. d. Living in poverty can lead to unhappiness. 29. After food is consumed, what information is transmitted to the brain by the vagus nerve? a. relative water content b. stretching of the stomach wall c. the nutrient content of the food d. glucose levels 30. While walking down the street you are approached by a man with a gun who demands your money. According to the Schachter two-factor theory of emotion, what are you most likely to conclude? a. Because your heart is pounding in this dangerous situation, you must be afraid. b. It is all right to be afraid in this situation. c. Your heart is pounding because you are afraid. d. You are afraid because your heart is pounding. 31. What does the Ekman and Friesen (1975) research on cross-cultural comparisons of people’s ability to recognize emotions from facial expressions say? a. Fear and anger seem to present with the same facial expressions across cultures, but happiness and disgust vary from country to country. b. Each culture has its own facial expressions for the emotions of fear, disgust, happiness, and anger. c. They cannot do it. d. People tend to agree on photos that show fear, disgust, happiness, and anger despite where they live. 32. Greta is concerned that she’ll run out of snacks at her party. Which strategy should Greta use to cause people to eat a bit less of the snacks? a. Put many different varieties of snacks out at once. b. Only put snacks down in front of groups, rather than individuals. c. Combine several types of snacks in a single bowl. d. Put the snacks in small bowls rather than large bowls.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 33. Which of the following was NOT one of the reasons that Walter Cannon found the James-Lange theory of

emotion unconvincing? a. Arousal can occur without the experience of emotion. b. The fight-or-flight response occurs too quickly to precede emotion. c. Visceral changes are too slow to precede emotion. d. A variety of emotions show almost identical patterns of arousal. 34. According to Schachter, what do people rely on to label their emotional states? a. physiological cues b. external cues c. interpersonal cues d. internal cues 35. What is critical in a valid polygraph assessment? a. that the questions are standardized and do not vary in format b. that a baseline is developed and a skilled examiner asks the right questions c. that the person administering the test not know the answers to the questions asked d. that it is administered by a psychologist 36. Dave has a body mass index of 24. Which category describes Dave? a. underweight b. normal weight c. overweight d. obese 37. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by learned preferences for foods and display rules concerning the expression of emotion? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. 38. When selecting courses for the next year of school, Andrea scheduled all of her required courses and was left with one spot open for an elective course. If Andrea scores high in achievement motivation, which course would Andrea be most likely to select? a. a course with very high expectations b. a course with intermediate difficulty c. a course that is rumoured to have very low average grades d. a course that is graded on a pass/fail basis 39. When Patricia was a young student with very little money, whenever she had a chance to go out for a fancy dinner it would improve her mood for days. Now that she has a job where she must take clients out for fancy dinners on a regular basis, the dinners no longer provide her with any real joy. What is this change called? a. hedonic shift b. happiness shift c. hedonic adaptation d. happiness adaptation

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 40. According to evolutionary theories of emotion, what accounts for the diversity of non-primary emotions that people experience? a. physiological differences among individuals b. the absence of specific primary emotions c. individual differences in the perception of events d. blends of and variations in intensity of primary emotions 41. Which of the following differs most across cultures? a. how individuals categorize or label specific emotions b. how individuals experience autonomic arousal c. how individuals use cognitive appraisal of a situation to determine which emotion is being experienced d. how individuals use facial cues to identify basic emotions 42. Which pattern reflects the relationship between task difficulty and satisfaction, for people with high achievement motivation? a. It is a negative correlation. b. They are independent features of the task. c. It is a positive correlation. d. It is a causal relationship. 43. Which component of emotion includes the subjective conscious experience of an emotion? a. cognitive component b. behavioural component c. perceptual component d. physiological component 44. What is the orientation of an individual who prefers and seeks emotional and sexual relationships with members of the opposite sex? a. homosexual b. unisexual c. heterosexual d. bisexual 45. According to Deiner and Deiner (1996), how happy are people globally across the world? a. extremely unhappy b. fairly unhappy c. fairly happy d. extremely happy 46. Which of the following is NOT predicted by higher levels of happiness? a. better social relationships b. higher IQ c. greater career satisfaction d. better physical health 47. Which of the following is NOT true of the person who invented the polygraph? a. He is the person who created the comic book superhero Wonder Woman. b. He did not believe that physiological arousal is a critical aspect of telling lies. c. His name was William Marston. d. He was a psychologist.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 48. Which of the following is NOT one of the three components of emotion? a. behavioural component b. perceptual component c. cognitive component d. physiological component 49. As Rowena is watching the climax of a horror movie, she gets goose bumps, her heart starts pounding, and her breathing becomes more rapid. Which component of emotion is reflected in her response? a. physiological component b. behavioural component c. perceptual component d. cognitive component 50. If a child is consistently and persistently highly anxious, what part of their brain might show enlargement? a. the reticular formation b. the medulla c. the hypothalamus d. the amygdala 51. Which set of emotions is considered primary by all three of the leading evolutionary theorists, Tomkins, Izard, and Plutchik? a. fear, anger, enjoyment, disgust, interest, surprise b. fear, anger, acceptance, disgust, interest, guilt c. fear, anger, enjoyment, shame, interest, distress d. fear, anger, sadness, contempt, interest, surprise 52. Craig has a desire to excel. Which of the following would also be said of Craig? a. He is high in mastery motivation. b. He is more likely to be talented than the average person. c. He is more likely to be depressed than the average person. d. He is high in achievement motivation. 53. A new online dating website is developed that allows psychology majors to find and date other psychology majors. On this website, you have the opportunity to view a variety of different profiles and pictures of people you may wish to date. You may also send and receive messages with other users. Based on parental investment theory, what should you predict about the behaviour of male users of the website? a. They will be choosier than females about who they are willing to respond to. b. They will be more focused on the appearance of potential dates, before other characteristics. c. They will prefer choosing one ideal date rather than trying to find one multiple dates. d. They will be less likely to respond to messages, compared to females. 54. According to Atkinson’s theory of achievement motivation, what are the two primary situational factors that influence achievement behaviour? a. the incentive value of success and the individual’s achievement motivation b. the probability of success and probability of failure c. the probability of success and the individual’s achievement motivation d. the probability of success and incentive value of success

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 55. According to facial feedback hypothesis, what physical process leads to one’s conscious experience of emotions? a. restored homeostasis b. muscular feedback from one’s own facial expressions c. vascular feedback from one’s own facial expressions d. muscular feedback from one’s perception of the facial expressions of the people we are interacting with 56. What is the likely consequence if you go to a party and force yourself to smile even though you are feeling a little depressed? a. You will actually feel a little happier. b. You will continue to feel depressed. c. You will fool everyone at the party except yourself. d. You will feel more depressed later. 57. What kind of impact do positive (e.g., winning the lottery) and negative (e.g., becoming disabled after an accident) experiences in life have on one’s subjective well-being or level of happiness? a. very little, as personality seems to be a stronger factor in predicting levels of adjustment and well-being b. a lot, as these things determine if you will be happy or not c. no impact d. not enough research on this subject to draw conclusions 58. Which group includes emotions that people are generally successful in identifying in photographs? a. sadness, anger, remorse b. happiness, love, surprise c. anger, fear, disgust d. disappointment, sadness, fear 59. Dan has a body mass index of 31. Which category describes Dan? a. underweight b. normal weight c. overweight d. obese 60. According to contemporary theories of hunger, what is the main focus of research on the hypothalamus? a. anatomical centres b. destruction c. neural circuits d. stimulation 61. Which theory of emotion argues that emotion occurs when the thalamus sends signals simultaneously to the cortex and the autonomic nervous system? a. facial-feedback theory b. James-Lange theory c. Cannon-Bard theory d. commonsense theory 62. Regarding culture and the elements of emotion, what does research seem to indicate about the universality of emotions across cultures? a. There is very little research on this topic. b. Emotional experiences are more different than similar across cultures. c. Emotional experiences are more similar than different across cultures. d. There are both remarkable similarities and dramatic differences in the experience of emotion across cultures. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 63. Which areas of the brain are activated when someone has been rejected or ostracized? a. areas associated with planning b. areas associated with language and audition c. areas that are dense with mirror neurons d. areas associated with pain perception 64. Which factor shows the weakest relationship with happiness? a. money b. health c. social activity d. love and marriage 65. While walking down the street, you are approached by a man with a gun who demands your money. According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, what are you most likely to conclude? a. Because your heart is pounding and this is a dangerous situation, you are afraid. b. You are afraid because your heart is pounding. c. It is all right to be afraid in this situation. d. Your heart is pounding because you are afraid. 66. Which of the following is NOT associated with autonomic arousal? a. dilation of pupils b. increased digestion c. increased perspiration d. increased heart rate 67. Which pair of individuals is expected to be most similar in body mass index? a. identical twins reared apart b. an adopted child and the adoptive parent c. a husband and wife d. fraternal twins reared together 68. Which of the following is a device that monitors key indicators of autonomic arousal such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiration rate, and galvanic skin response? a. a sonograph b. a polygraph c. an electrocardiograph (EKG) d. an electroencephalograph (EEG) 69. Which individual is likely to be most motivated to study for an upcoming exam? a. Ashley, who usually gets good grades, for an exam worth 40 percent of her grade b. Ben, who usually gets good grades, for an exam worth 10 percent of his grade c. Cam, who usually gets poor grades, for an exam worth 40 percent of his grade d. Dee, who usually gets poor grades, for an exam worth 10 percent of her grade 70. What would you expect of someone with a strong affiliation motive? a. joining a lot of clubs b. gossiping about others online c. needing “alone time” after a busy day d. high sex drive 71. As Calli is watching the climax of a horror movie, she grasps the arms of her chair, gasps, and closes her eyes. Which component of emotion is reflected in her response? a. physiological component b. perceptual component c. cognitive component d. behavioural component

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 72. Which of the following is defined as an internal state of tension that motivates an organism to engage in activities that should reduce this tension? a. emotion b. motive c. drive d. incentive 73. If you know a man who has a homosexual orientation, what could you reasonably predict about him? a. He has been attracted only to members of the same sex. b. He has had awareness of the orientation since childhood. c. His pathway to becoming a homosexual is very similar to that of a female who is homosexual. d. His circulating hormone levels differ from someone else of the same sex. 74. Which theory of emotion proposes the conscious experience of emotion results from one’s cognitive interpretation of an event that caused autonomic arousal? a. facial-feedback theory b. James-Lange theory c. Cannon-Bard theory d. Schachter two-factor theory 75. How common is having a same-sex attraction? a. Everyone who has a same-sex attraction reports as being gay or lesbian. b. Sexuality is complex and we are not sure what the frequency of same sex attraction really is. c. Ten percent of Canadians ages 18 to 59 report being gay or lesbian. d. Twenty percent of Canadians ages 18 to 59 report same-sex attraction. 76. Which of the following is secreted by an empty stomach to cause stomach contractions and promote hunger? a. insulin b. leptin c. CCK d. ghrelin 77. Which of the following is a hormone produced by fat cells that tends to diminish feelings of hunger when at high levels? a. insulin b. glucose c. leptin d. ghrelin 78. According to parental investment theory, what should women place more emphasis on when choosing a potential mate, compared to men? a. height b. attractiveness c. youthfulness d. social status 79. Walking through the forest, you see a bear. Your heart starts pounding and you start to run away from the dangerous situation that caused you to be afraid. Which theory of emotion is illustrated by this example? a. Cannon-Bard theory b. James-Lange theory c. Schachter two-factor theory d. common sense theory 80. When you are engaging in goal-directed behaviour, what are you experiencing? a. an incentive b. drive reduction c. emotion d. motivation

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 81. Jamie is playing the role of a depressed elderly woman in the school play. She frowns, slumps her shoulders, and sighs and moans, “Woe is me” continually at play practice. According to the facial-feedback hypothesis, what will Jamie feel after practice? a. happier than she typically feels b. satisfied c. sadder than she typically feels d. excited 82. Which of the following parts of the Cannon-Bard model do modern theorists agree most with regarding brain function and emotion? a. People rely on the somatic nervous system to experience emotion. b. Emotions originate in subcortical brain structures. c. People discern their emotions from different patterns of autonomic activation. d. Emotions are controlled by the reticular formation. 83. Which individual would experience a relatively slow or gradual reduction in sexual tension during the resolution phase of the human sexual response? a. a relatively inexperienced individual b. an individual who did not experience an orgasm c. a woman d. a man 84. Which theory has been supported by research concerning the origins of sexual orientation? a. behavioural theory b. cognitive theory c. psychoanalytic theory d. biological theory 85. If Ted is a gay man, then of the following individuals, who is most likely to also be gay? a. Ted’s uncle Alan b. Ted’s adoptive brother Bob c. Ted’s fraternal twin brother Chuck d. Ted’s identical twin brother Don 86. According to research, which of the following statements best reflects the accuracy of the polygraph in detecting lies? a. not at all accurate b. accuracy has been exaggerated c. relatively accurate d. accurate 90 percent of the time 87. Damien went outside without his jacket on, and he is feeling very cold. His body temperature has started to drop as a result of the ambient temperature. As a result of this disruption to homeostasis, what should increase in strength? a. emotion b. incentive c. drive d. motive 88. During which phase of the human sexual response are male and female differences in response most pronounced? a. orgasm phase b. resolution -phase c. excitement phase d. plateau phase

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 89. Damien went outside without his jacket on, and he is feeling very cold. His body temperature has started to drop as a result of the ambient temperature. What has been disrupted by the cold temperature? a. incentives b. motives c. homeostasis d. emotional regulation 90. For which population would a polygraph assessment likely NOT yield reliable results? a. women b. psychopaths or anyone who can lie without showing a visceral response c. people over 45 d. people accused of a serious crime 91. One individual may experience an airplane flight as an anxiety-arousing situation while another individual may experience an airplane flight as a routine event. What does this reflect about emotion? a. Emotion involves bodily arousal or a physiological component. b. Emotion includes an overt response or a behavioural component. c. Emotion includes an objective conscious experience or cognitive component. d. Emotion involves a subjective conscious experience or cognitive component. 92. According to parental investment theory, how can human males maximize their reproductive potential? a. actively contributing to the care of their offspring b. being highly selective in mating c. mating with as many females as possible d. seeking partners who have strength and agility 93. What is the period of time following orgasm during which males are highly unresponsive to further stimulation? a. passive phase b. recovery period c. refractory period d. plateau phase 94. Which term is defined as a person’s preference for emotional and sexual relationships with individuals of the same, the other, or either sex? a. gender orientation b. gender preference c. sexual orientation d. sexuality 95. Tanya states that it is necessary to leave a light on at night because the thieves who are watching your house will only break in to houses that are not lit. Which term is used for Tanya’s statement that thieves are watching the house? a. conclusion b. assumption c. truth d. belief 96. What approximate percentage of the Canadian population is categorized as obese? a. less than 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 15 percent d. over 20 percent

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 97. The thalamus simultaneously transmits information capable of eliciting emotion to two areas of the brain. Which two are they? a. hypothalamus and cerebellum b. amygdala and cerebellum c. amygdala and cerebral cortex d. hypothalamus and cerebral cortex 98. Of the brain structures listed below, which one do scientists currently believe plays a larger role than the other structures in the modulation of hunger? a. arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus b. ventromedial hypothalamus c. paraventricular hypothalamus d. lateral hypothalamus 99. Japanese society encourages masking emotions such as anger and sadness by exhibiting polite smiling or a neutral expression. What are these sorts of cultural norms called? a. rules of engagement b. rules of conduct c. display rules d. rules of polite society 100. According to evolutionary theories of motivation, what is the result of motivated behaviour? a. restored homeostasis b. maximized reproductive success c. reduced biological needs d. reduced incentives 101. Which theory of emotion suggests that conscious experience of emotion occurs after autonomic arousal? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. both Cannon-Bard and Schachter two-factor theories d. both James-Lange and Schachter two-factor theories 102. Which measure do many experts today prefer to use to assess obesity? a. weight b. percent body fat c. body mass index d. waist-to-hip ratio 103. Which emotion would people from different countries be least likely to agree on, when trying to identify emotions in photographs? a. disgust b. sadness c. surprise d. disappointment 104. Which theory of emotion proposes that different patterns of autonomic activation lead to the experience of different emotions? a. Schachter two-factor theory b. common sense theory c. Cannon-Bard theory d. James-Lange theory 105. According to Baumeister and Leary (1995), “human beings have a pervasive need to form and maintain at least a minimum quantity of lasting, positive, and significant interpersonal relationships.” What do they call this hypothesis? a. belongingness hypothesis b. bonding hypothesis c. attachment hypothesis d. affiliation hypothesis

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 106. Researchers in Europe have observed that what people say can reveal accurately whether they are lying. Which of the following is an example of this? a. People who are lying are better at telling the story backward in time. b. People who are lying tend to include 20 to 30 percent more detail in their stories. c. People who are telling the truth prepare their stories, like a script. d. People who are telling the truth tend to include 20-30 percent more detail in their stories. 107. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected in the various approaches used in your text to explain motivation and emotion? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. 108. Dr. Mak suggests that when food is readily available, people tend to overeat rather than show restraint. He also states that humans don’t have a good mechanism for determining how much food is “enough” and instead we tend to eat until we are uncomfortable rather than until we eat enough to sustain our immediate needs. Which approach is Dr. Mak’s view most consistent with? a. evolutionary approach b. drive-reduction approach c. environmental cues approach d. biological approach 109. Because Pietro is high in his need for achievement, which characteristic is Pietro least likely to exhibit? a. a desire to help others reach their goals b. a desire to excel c. a desire to master difficult challenges d. a desire to outperform others 110. What provides the strongest support that facial expressions are innate expressions of emotional experience? a. Facial expressions are similar across cultures. b. Facial expressions are identical between blind and sighted individuals. c. Facial expressions remain fairly constant throughout the lifespan. d. Facial expressions are identical between the sexes. 111. Given what we know about the human body being wired to keep weight within a narrow range, why has obesity increased dramatically in recent decades? a. The processes that defend against weight loss are stronger than those that defend against weight gain. b. Food resources are more limited and less reliable than they were for our ancestors. c. The processes that defend against weight gain are stronger than those that defend against weight loss. d. Our bodies have evolved to defend against weight gain more efficiently than weight loss. 112. Which of the following is a hormone produced by the upper intestines that tends to diminish feelings of hunger? a. CCK b. glucose c. insulin d. leptin

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 113. After viewing a picture of a boy batting in a baseball game, what would an individual high in affiliation motivation be most likely to describe in a projective test? a. The boy hits a home run to win the game. b. The boy is playing on a summer league team with his best friends from his school. c. The boy is hit in the head by a pitch and suffers a concussion. d. The boy is nervous because he struck out at the last game. 114. What is subjective well-being? a. an individuals’ personal perceptions of their overall happiness and life satisfaction, as also supported by objective data b. an individuals’ personal perceptions of their overall happiness and life satisfaction, independent of objective data c. an individuals’ personal perceptions of their health and wellness, as also supported by objective data d. an individuals’ personal perceptions of their health and wellness as determined by an assessment by a health practitioner 115. Which pattern characterizes the distinction between heterosexual and homosexual orientations? a. They are each midpoints on their own scales, and cannot be directly compared. b. They have no clear distinguishing characteristics other than self-report. c. They are endpoints on a continuum, with intermediate orientations in between. d. They are mutually exclusive categories, with clear boundaries. 116. What differs between the perspective of evolutionary theorists and many other motivation theorists regarding the nature of social motives? a. Most motivation theorists lump all motives together and don’t distinguish between biological and social motives. b. Most motivation theorists consider social motives to be innate, rather than learned. c. Evolutionary theorists explain social and biological motives in terms of their adaptive value. d. Evolutionary theorists argue that biological motives are more important than social motives. 117. Which component of emotion is reflected in the cultural norms known as display rules? a. perceptual component b. physiological component c. behavioural component d. cognitive component 118. According to evolutionary theory, what is more valued in a potential mate by men, rather than women? a. ambition b. youthfulness c. intelligence d. social status 119. Which statement does NOT accurately describe female homosexuality? a. Lesbian women are more likely to have a stable orientation across their life span, compared to gay men. b. Lesbian women are less likely than gay men to trace their homosexuality back to their childhood. c. The pathways to homosexuality appear to be somewhat different for females compared to males. d. There is an increased rate of homosexuality among women exposed to high levels of androgen prenatally.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 120. What is directly related to the physiological component of emotional experience? a. the cortex b. autonomic nervous system c. the cerebellum d. somatic nervous system 121. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, when does one’s conscious experience of emotion occur? a. independently of autonomic arousal b. after autonomic arousal c. before autonomic arousal d. simultaneously with autonomic arousal 122. Which statement best reflects the gender disparities observed concerning a willingness to engage in casual sex? a. Females are more likely to agree to casual sex than males. b. Males are more likely to agree to casual sex than females. c. Females are no more or less likely to agree to casual sex than males. d. There is insufficient data on this subject to draw conclusions. 123. Where in the brain would a lesion result in dramatic increases in weight? a. hippocampus b. ventromedial hypothalamus c. central gyrus d. dorsal amygdala 124. Ray tends to be involved in everything! He belongs to a variety of clubs and he spends a lot of time with friends and colleagues. He really wants to get along with people and he seeks out the opinions and approval of those around him. Which motive does Ray’s behaviour represent? a. nurturance motive b. affiliation motive c. order motive d. autonomy motive 125. Approximately what percentage of the Canadian population self-report as homosexual? a. 1–5 percent b. 5–10 percent c. 10–15 percent d. 20–25 percent 126. What are motives? a. biological factors that influence ability b. needs, wants, interests, and desires that propel people toward goal-directed behaviour c. social factors that promote success d. drives and incentives that make certain goals more interesting than others 127. During which phase of the human sexual response cycle would you expect to find both increases and decreases in vaginal lubrication? a. orgasm b. excitement c. resolution d. plateau 128. If you were to test the preferences of a newborn infant, which flavour would be most preferred? a. bland b. high fat c. sweet d. salty

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 129. A new online dating website is developed that allows psychology majors to find and date other psychology majors. On this website, you have the opportunity to view a variety of different profiles and pictures of people you may want to date. You may also send and receive messages with other users. Based on parental investment theory, what should you predict about the behaviour of female users of the website? a. They will be choosier than males about who they are willing to respond to. b. They will send more flirtatious messages than males do. c. They will prefer choosing multiple dates rather than trying to find one ideal date. d. They will be more focused on the appearance of potential dates than on other characteristics. 130. Which motive is defined as the need to master difficult challenges, outperform others, and meet high standards of excellence? a. mastery motive b. affiliation motive c. achievement motive d. autonomy motive 131. “If we don’t ban Internet porn, the next thing you know, grade school children will be watching smut all day long in their school libraries.” Which fallacy is illustrated by this statement? a. slippery slope b. circular reasoning c. weak analogy d. false dichotomy 132. Which of the following is defined as an external goal that has the capacity to motivate behaviour? a. motive b. drive c. need d. incentive 133. If you ask most people what leads to happiness, they will likely tell you money, children, good health, or attractiveness. Does the research support this common-sense approach to happiness? a. Empirical research supports these assertions. b. Empirical research does not support these assertions. c. There is not enough research on this subject matter to make conclusions. d. The only one of these elements which has been supported by research data is that having children will make people happier. 134. In Buss’s study on sex differences in human mate selection, what was consistent across cultures? a. the value women place on a man’s physical attractiveness b. the value placed on female chastity (or lack of previous sexual intercourse) c. the value women place on a man’s social status and financial prospects d. the value placed on kindness, dependability, and emotional stability 135. As Estella is watching the climax of a horror movie, all at once she is frightened, nervous, and excited. Which component of emotion does her response illustrate? a. cognitive component b. physiological component c. behavioural component d. perceptual component

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 136. After viewing a picture of a boy batting in a baseball game, which story would an individual high in achievement motivation be most likely to describe in a projective test? a. The boy hits a home run to win the game. b. They boy strikes out and is yelled at by his coach. c. The boy is hit in the head by a pitch and suffers a concussion. d. The boy argues with the umpire over a called strike. 137. What is a refractory period? a. a time before orgasm during which the individual is unresponsive to stimulation b. a time following orgasm during which the individual is unresponsive to further stimulation c. a time when sexual arousal reaches its peak intensity and is discharged in a series of muscular contractions that pulsate through the pelvic area d. a time following orgasm when blood vessels become engorged 138. Which common fallacy occurs when a premise and conclusion are simply restatements of each other? a. circular reasoning b. slippery slope c. false dichotomy d. non sequitur 139. Which pattern reflects the overall relationship between emotions and levels of motivation? a. It is a bidirectional relationship, in that motivation influences emotions and emotions also affect motivation. b. Motivation leads to changes in emotion, but not the other way around. c. They are independent experiences of the same event having no influence on each other. d. Emotions lead to changes in motivation, but not the other way around. 140. According to the James-Lange theory, when does the conscious experience of emotion occur? a. independently of autonomic arousal b. simultaneously with autonomic arousal c. before autonomic arousal d. after autonomic arousal 141. Which of the following is NOT suggested by parental investment theory? a. Males and females may develop different mating strategies. b. Human females can optimize their reproductive potential by mating with as many males as possible. c. Human males compete with other males for the “commodity” of reproductive opportunities. d. Human males are required to invest little in the production of offspring. 142. According to drive theory of motivation, if you drink water when you are thirsty, then what is the result of drinking? a. need reduction and physiological equilibrium b. drive reduction and physiological equilibrium c. drive production and an incentive d. need production and an incentive

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 143. Which individual is likely to be most motivated to apply for a scholarship? a. Evan, who has good grades, can apply for a scholarship worth $4000. b. Fred, who has good grades, can apply for a scholarship worth $500. c. Gina, who has poor grades, can apply for a scholarship worth $4000. d. Hal, who has poor grades, can apply for a scholarship worth $500. 144. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of people high in achievement motivation? a. a tendency to work hard on tasks b. a tendency to delay gratification in order to pursue long-term goals c. a tendency to respond poorly to negative feedback d. a tendency to be persistent on tasks 145. If you and a person in another country were both looking at the same series of photographs, which emotion would you both be most likely to correctly identify? a. embarrassment b. shame c. disgust d. contempt 146. Which theory of emotion proposes that the conscious experience of emotion results from one’s perception of autonomic arousal? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. facial-feedback theory d. common sense theory 147. What is the approximate heritability estimate for the tendency toward happiness? a. 0.15 b. 0.25 c. 0.45 d. 0.75 148. Ted is experiencing an erection as a result of sexual arousal. Which mechanism causes Ted’s erection? a. vasocongestion b. muscular tension c. decreased blood pressure d. refraction 149. Which component of emotion is associated with body language? a. perceptual component b. physiological component c. cognitive component d. behavioural component

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. c 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. a 25. d 26. a

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. d 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. b 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. d 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. a 52. d 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 55. b 56. a 57. a 58. c 59. d 60. c 61. c 62. d 63. d 64. a 65. b 66. b 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. a 71. d 72. c 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. d 77. c 78. d 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 83. b 84. d 85. d 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. c 90. b 91. d 92. c 93. c 94. c 95. b 96. d 97. c 98. a 99. c 100. b 101. d 102. c 103. d 104. d 105. a 106. d 107. b 108. a 109. a 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 111. a 112. a 113. b 114. b 115. c 116. c 117. c 118. b 119. a 120. b 121. d 122. b 123. b 124. b 125. a 126. b 127. d 128. c 129. a 130. c 131. a 132. d 133. b 134. c 135. a 136. a 137. b

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_2 138. a 139. a 140. d 141. b 142. b 143. a 144. c 145. c 146. a 147. c 148. a 149. d

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Joe and Abe are identical twins but they were raised by different families. What is a researcher likely to find when looking at Joe’s and Abe’s weights? a. Joe’s and Abe’s weights are more similar to their adoptive parents than their biological parents and different from one another b. Joe’s and Abe’s weights are more similar to their biological parents than their adoptive parents and are similar to one another c. Joe’s and Abe’s weights are more similar to their adoptive parents than their biological parents but are similar to one another d. Joe’s and Abe’s weights are not related to their biological family or their adoptive family and are not similar to one another 2. Graciela is writing a critique of the James-Lange theory of emotion. After describing the James-Lange theory she begins to discuss the first major challenge to the theory, which was which of the following? a. the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion b. the two-factor theory of emotion c. the cognitive-mediational theory of emotion d. the Schacter-Singer theory of emotion 3. Which emotion evolved to help us avoid dangerous pathogens? a. guilt b. sadness c. contempt d. disgust 4. In Canada, at what age do many people experience a slight dip in happiness? a. 30 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70 5. Megan tells her best friend that she is feeling very happy at the moment. These words reflect which component of emotion? a. the physiological component b. the cognitive component c. the behavioural component d. the sympathetic component 6. Jubilee’s brother jumped out to scare her but instead of finding it funny or scary Jubilee was angry. What component of emotion reflects Jubilee’s appraisal of her brother’s actions? a. the physiological component b. the cognitive component c. the behavioural component d. the sympathetic component 7. Which of the following is a physiological component of emotion? a. respiration b. subjective appraisal c. smiling d. frowning 8. Dr. D’Amato, a cognitive psychologist, believes that cognition steers emotion. Which theory of emotion is Dr. D’Amato MOST likely to support? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. the two-factor theory d. the dual-centre theory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 9. Which area of the brain modulates insulin levels in the blood? a. the hypothalamus b. the amygdala c. the pituitary gland d. the thyroid gland 10. Which of the following brain regions are currently considered to play the LARGEST role in regulating hunger? a. the lateral hypothalamus and ventromedial hypothalamus b. the arcuate nucleus and paraventricular nucleus c. the nucleus accumbens and lateral hypothalamus d. the prefrontal cortex and arcuate nucleus 11. What role does leptin play in hunger? a. It sends signals that inhibit hunger. b. It sends signals that initiate hunger. c. It determines the amount of insulin in the blood. d. It determines how insulin is used by the body. 12. Lie detectors are unreliable because the body has similar physiological responses to which of the following? a. lying and fear b. fear and anger c. anger and happiness d. happiness and lying 13. Which theory proposes that arousal and emotion occur simultaneously? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. the two-factor theory d. cognitive-mediational theory 14. Which of the following can be used to describe drive theories compared to incentive theories? a. up versus down b. push versus pull c. nature versus nurture d. new versus old 15. A person is considered obese if they have a BMI GREATER than what number? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 16. Dr. Abraham is studying homeostasis. Dr. Abraham is MOST likely a proponent of which of the following theories? a. drive theory b. incentive theory c. evolutionary theory d. psychodynamic theory 17. Which of the following areas is MOST closely associated with the motivation to eat? a. the hippocampus b. the hypothalamus c. the thalamus d. the amygdala 18. Smiling is an example of which component of emotion? a. behavioural b. cognitive c. physiological d. sympathetic

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 19. Which part of the brain plays the MOST direct role in making people feel full? a. the lateral hypothalamus b. the arcuate nucleus c. the nucleus accumbens d. the prefrontal cortex 20. Which of the following is a behavioural component of emotion? a. respiration b. subjective appraisal c. heart rate d. laughing 21. Megan is imagining how she will feel when she graduates from university. Megan is engaging in which of the following? a. affective forecasting b. affiliation c. ostracism d. homeostasis 22. Sensory-specific satiety is MOST closely related to which of the following factors that impact food consumption? a. palatability b. quantity c. variety d. presence of others 23. Which of the following is true according to the two-factor theory of emotion? a. the emotion a person feels results from physiological changes b. subjective experiences trigger the sympathetic nervous system c. both physiological and cognitive factors contribute to emotion d. cognition is the only factor that contributes to emotion 24. What is the second stage of the sexual response cycle? a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution 25. The physiological component of emotion is MOST closely tied to which of the following? a. arousal b. thoughts c. verbal expression of emotion d. body language 26. Which of the following defines body mass index (BMI)? a. the ratio of weight to height b. the ratio of height to weight c. the ratio of weight to height times two d. the ratio of weight to height times two 27. Parental investment theory is closely related to which of the following? a. psychodynamic theory b. evolutionary theory c. drive theory d. incentive theory 28. Who first researched the sexual response cycle? a. Kinsey b. Masters and Johnson c. Freud d. Watson and Skinner

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 29. Which of the following is true according to the James-Lange theory of emotion? a. the emotion a person feels results from physiological changes b. subjective experiences trigger the sympathetic nervous system c. both physiological and cognitive factors contribute to emotion d. cognition is the only factor that contributes to emotion 30. Margot argues that desire is part of the sexual response cycle. She MOST likely argues that desire must precede which of the following? a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution 31. Which of the following theories of emotion was proposed FIRST? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. the two-factor theory d. cognitive-mediational theory 32. Dr. Zhuang is studying the facial expressions of people around the world. Which aspect of emotion interests Dr. Zhuang? a. the physiological component b. the cognitive component c. the behavioural component d. the sympathetic component 33. Kim has just narrowly avoided a car accident. Her arousal is high but she can’t identify whether what she is feeling is fear, anger, or relief. Kim’s experience is consistent with which model of emotion? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. the two-factor theory d. dual-centre theory 34. Which of the following theories of motivation have difficulty explaining the fact that voluntary decisions often play a role in motivated behaviour? a. drive theory and instinct theory b. instinct theory and arousal theory c. arousal theory and incentive theory d. incentive theory and drive theory 35. Jackie has just been startled by her roommate. Her pupils are dilated and her heart is racing because of the activation of which of the following? a. sympathetic nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. hypothalamus d. thalamus 36. Dr. Metzler believes that people overeat because their ancestors had unpredictable sources of food. Which perspective does Dr. Metzler support? a. cognitive b. behavioural c. evolutionary d. humanistic 37. Which of the following is the tendency for the body to maintain itself in balance? a. homeostasis b. instinctive drift c. the Yerkes-Dodson law d. the hierarchy of needs

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 38. If a group of participants is given an injection that induces physiological arousal and are then put in a room with a confederate acting angry, who would be LEAST likely to say they also felt angry? a. a participant who was told to expect to feel arousal b. a participant who was told to expect no side effects from the drug c. a participant who was told to expect a headache instead of arousal d. a participant who was angry before the experiment began 39. What is the first stage in the sexual response cycle, according to Masters and Johnson? a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution 40. Differences in sexual behaviour in men and women are MOST likely to be the result of which of the following? a. societal pressure b. differences in levels of sexual desire c. differences in the opportunity to have sex d. differences in brain structures 41. Two rats are given free access to food. One rat stops eating after a few minutes; the other does not stop. What brain area is MOST likely damaged in the rat that does not stop eating? a. the hypothalamus b. the amygdala c. the pituitary gland d. the thyroid gland 42. Dr. Bromstein is looking for a connection between autonomic arousal and the behavioural component of emotion. What might she use as a measure of the behavioural component? a. facial expression b. heart rate c. cognitive appraisal d. perspiration 43. According to parental investment theory, who will always be the more selective sexual partner? a. the one who makes the greater investment in raising the offspring b. the one who makes the smaller investment in raising the offspring c. the one who is the most physically attractive d. the one who is the most physically fit 44. What is the name for the protein that has been found to be important for regulating how much food we eat? a. leptin b. insulin c. cortisol d. dopamine 45. How do researchers describe the heritability of sexual orientation? a. nonexistent b. low c. moderate d. high 46. Which of the following is an example of a motivation that can’t be explained by drive theory? a. people seeking water when they are thirsty b. people seeking the shade on a hot day c. people seeking roller coasters for fun d. people seeking food when they are hungry

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 47. Harley rarely used to gamble, but ever since she won a jackpot at a slot machine she has been motivated to spend as much time at the local casino as possible. Which theory BEST explains Harley’s behaviour? a. drive theory b. instinct theory c. incentive theory d. the hierarchy of needs 48. What is the main cause of obesity in North America? a. diabetes b. overeating c. sugared drinks d. lack of exercise 49. According to incentive theory, people are extrinsically motivated to seek which of the following? a. external rewards b. external punishments c. internal rewards d. internal punishments 50. Which theory suggests that behaviours are inborn and activated by stimuli in our environments? a. evolutionary theory b. drive theory c. arousal theory d. incentive theory 51. Which of the following overweight women is MOST likely to lose the most weight? a. Sandra who believes that obesity is caused by lack of exercise. b. Steph who believes that obesity is caused by overeating. c. Tricia who believes that obesity is caused by genetics. d. Amy who believes that obesity occurs randomly. 52. Drive theory BEST explains which of the following behaviours? a. a person seeking a cold drink on a hot day b. a person feeling the need to socialize c. a person talking to strangers at a party because they have made friends that way in the past d. a person studying for a test because studying has led to good marks in the past 53. Marla doesn’t like noodles, but there is no other food in her apartment and she is extremely hungry so she eats just enough noodles to tide her over to when she can get food she likes. Which theory of motivation BEST explains Marla’s behaviour? a. drive theory b. incentive theory c. instinct theory d. arousal theory 54. Elliot is engaged in sexual activity. His breathing rate and pulse rate have just begun to increase. What stage of the sexual response cycle is Elliot MOST likely in? a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution 55. In which of the following conditions is a behaviour extrinsically motivated? a. if it is motivated by external incentives b. if the behaviour itself is satisfying c. if the behaviour meets a biological need d. if the behaviour meets a social need

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 56. Which theory suggests that many behaviours are the result of the body trying to maintain homeostasis? a. instinct theory b. drive theory c. arousal theory d. incentive theory 57. Which of the following BEST characterizes the sexual fantasies of men and women? a. Men and women are very similar in the frequency and content of their fantasies. b. Men tend to fantasize more frequently and have more varied fantasies. c. Men tend to fantasize more, but fantasize about the same partner over and over. d. Women tend to fantasize more, but fantasize about the same partner over and over. 58. Addison is embarrassed by how she acted at a party last week. She is now motivated to adhere to social norms and apologize for her behaviour. This BEST illustrates which function of emotion? a. cognitive b. behavioural c. social d. physiological 59. The affiliation motive, or need for belongingness, is BEST explained by which theory of motivation? a. incentive b. drive c. psychodynamic d. evolutionary 60. What part of the brain is activated by the amygdala the instant a frightening situation is encountered? a. the hippocampus b. the hypothalamus c. the thalamus d. the prefrontal cortex 61. Which of the following is a criticism of set point theory? a. a set point would not have been adaptive to our ancestors b. a set point can’t explain why people regain weight after weight loss c. a set point can’t explain why some people have trouble gaining weight d. a set point can’t explain why people stay around the same weight 62. Which of the following researchers first noted that sexual orientation falls onto a continuum? a. Kinsey b. Masters and Johnson c. Freud d. Watson and Raynor 63. If a person is unable to become sexually excited despite their desire for sexual activity, what stage of the sexual response cycle are they MOST likely in? a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution 64. In which of the following conditions is a behaviour intrinsically motivated? a. if it is motivated by external incentives b. if the behaviour itself is satisfying c. if the behaviour meets a biological need d. if the behaviour meets a social need

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 65. When will a researcher sometimes see the third stage of the sexual response cycle repeat itself? a. when monitoring women b. when monitoring men c. when monitoring both women and men d. when monitoring men and women over age 60 66. Which of the following is another name for external motives? a. incentives b. drives c. instincts d. homeostasis 67. During which stage of the sexual response cycle does muscle tension and blood pressure reach its peak? a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution 68. Which part of the brain plays the MOST direct role in making people feel hungry? a. the arcuate nucleus b. the ventral hypothalamus c. the corpus callosum d. the prefrontal cortex 69. If human behaviour were solely motivated by instinct, then people would have no need for which of the following? a. eating b. consuming water c. social interaction d. learning 70. Reinforcement is central to which of the following theories? a. instinct theory b. drive theory c. arousal theory d. incentive theory 71. Holly is a lesbian woman. Which of her siblings is most likely to also be gay? a. her identical twin sister b. her non-identical twin sister c. her non-twin brother d. her non-identical twin brother 72. Homeostasis is central to which theory? a. instinct theory b. drive theory c. arousal theory d. incentive theory 73. Which of the following is a behavioural measure of emotion? a. watching facial expressions b. measuring heart rate c. a person’s self-report of how they are feeling d. measuring respiration 74. Dr. Baetz thinks that students work hard if they find high grades rewarding. Dr. Baetz’s idea is consistent with which theory of motivation? a. drive theory b. instinct theory c. incentive theory d. arousal theory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 75. Which of the following is MOST likely to arouse a man more quickly than a woman? a. a sexual image b. verbal expressions of sexual desire c. physical contact d. thinking about their relationship 76. Sadness leading a person to seek comfort in others is an example of what function of emotion? a. behavioural b. cognitive c. social d. physiological 77. Which nervous system controls the physiological component of emotion? a. the sympathetic nervous system b. the parasympathetic nervous system c. the autonomic nervous system d. the peripheral nervous system 78. Anders is frowning because his brother is refusing to let him have a turn playing a video game. What component of emotion is Anders’s frown? a. the physiological component b. the cognitive component c. the behavioural component d. the sympathetic component 79. Which theory suggests that rewards are central to motivation? a. instinct theory b. drive theory c. arousal theory d. incentive theory 80. What is the third stage of the sexual response cycle? a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution 81. Approximately what percentage of Canadian adults are classified as obese? a. 10% b. 20% c. 15% d. 25% 82. Which of the following is true according to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion? a. the emotion a person feels results from physiological changes b. subjective experiences trigger the sympathetic nervous system c. both physiological and cognitive factors contribute to emotion d. cognition is the only factor that contributes to emotion 83. Which model proposes that emotion occurs when the body is aroused? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. the two-factor theory d. cognitive-mediational theory 84. Dr. Wright is giving a lecture on emotions. He notes that emotions serve behavioural functions such as which of the following? a. when facial expressions communicate emotions to others b. when couples share emotions they have better relationships c. when people use emotions to organize their memories d. when people who influence emotions are perceived as more competent Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. a

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. c 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. b 52. a 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 55. a 56. b 57. b 58. b 59. d 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. c 68. a 69. d 70. d 71. a 72. b 73. a 74. c 75. a 76. a 77. c 78. c 79. d 80. c 81. b 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_6ce_Vol_4 83. a 84. a

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Chap 11_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Lorant is an adolescent who is trying to establish his __________. If his parents pressure him into attending a university he does not want to attend, Lorant will not be able to resolve his ___________. a. role; role confusion b. identity; identity confusion c. role; identity crisis d. identity; identity crisis 2. At the beginning of the session, the researchers pour water into a cup and draw a line on the cup to indicate the level the water has reached. They put the water in the freezer until just before the end of the session. The water has frozen and shows the ice reaches above the marked line. If Presho has reached the ____________, then she will say that compared to before ____________. a. preconventional stage; there is more water in the cup b. concrete operational stage; there is more water in the cup c. conventional stage; the same amount of water is in the cup d. formal operational stage; the same amount of water is in the cup 3. Consider what you know about child-rearing styles. Lorant’s parents are available to chat with him about the decision he needs to make, but are pressuring him to attend Queen’s. In this case, his parents are displaying __________ acceptance and involvement, but might be allowing Lorant _______ autonomy than is appropriate. a. high; more b. high; less c. low; more d. low; less 4. Consider what you have learned about attachment. When their parents left that morning, Penny and Nelson most likely had _________ because _____________. a. different reactions; Penny is a girl and Nelson is a boy b. similar responses; they are cared for equally by their parents c. similar responses; they are in the same stage of childhood development d. different reactions; they have different personalities 5. Amelia recently read a developmental psychology paper about personality with a longitudinal research design, whereas Rami read one that used a cross-sectional research design. Which of the following is most likely? a. Amelia will mention that Penny’s easy-going personality is similar to the majority of other kids her age. b. Rami will mention that Penny’s easy-going personality is likely to last her entire life. c. Rami will mention that Nelson’s slow to warm-up personality is similar to the majority of other kids his age. d. Amelia will mention that Nelson’s slow to warm-up personality is likely to last his entire life. 6. Sunil tells Arjun that he thinks his father’s personality has changed a lot since he was young. His father is a better listener and considers many options before acting, whereas he seemed to get frustrated quickly when Sunil was younger. Arjun is displaying ___________ in his personality characteristics. a. continuous change b. discontinuous change c. generativity d. plasticity

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Chap 11_6ce_Case-Based 7. Dominic has been watching the news and learns about the Zika virus that is threatening mothers and newborns globally. He asks Angelica whether she has read about Zika in her book. She is not sure, but she decides to check the _____________ to see if it is in there. a. section about sensitive periods during development b. chapter on teratogens and their effect on development c. section about maternal nutrition during development d. chapter on genetic susceptibility to certain diseases 8. Amelia and Rami are babysitting Amelia’s four-year-old nephew, Nelson, and her three-year old niece, Penny. It has been nine months since Amelia and Rami last saw the kids, and they are shocked at how much they have developed in less than a year. To pass the time, they decide to do arts and crafts with the kids, and then head out to play outside after a snack. In Intro Psych you have learned that the social environment is largely responsible for sex differences in motor development. An example of this would be a case when ____________. a. Penny is encouraged to play with dolls, but Nelson is not. b. Nelson is encouraged to draw more, but Penny is not. c. Penny is encouraged to jump rope, but Nelson is not. d. Nelson is encouraged to play soccer, but Penny is not. 9. Lorant is an adolescent in his last year of high school. He is trying to decide where to attend university next year. He knows that Carleton University has an amazing basketball team, and he loves playing basketball. He also knows that his parents want him to attend Queen’s University because that is where they went to school. Both Carleton University and Queen’s University have excellent engineering programs, which is what he wants to study, so he is having trouble making a decision. Lorant knows he is a basketball player who is good at math and who makes friends easily. These facts likely contribute to the development of his ________________. a. culture b. self-concept c. self-esteem d. role confusion 10. At age 17, Presho and Anam are asked if Robin Hood (who steals from the rich to give money to the poor) was morally right to do what he did. Presho hesitates and finally responds yes. Anam hesitates and finally responds no. These responses indicate that _____________________. a. only Presho has achieved postconventional moral reasoning. b. only Presho has achieved individual principles and conscience orientation. c. both have achieved individual principles and conscience orientation. d. both have achieved postconventional moral reasoning. 11. Arjun works as an occupational health and safety officer. He loves that his job allows him to ensure others are safe at work. He feels like he is making a contribution to society and is worried this feeling will disappear when he retires. Sunil suggests that his father look for opportunities to do volunteer work to ___________. a. maintain his self-concept b. avoid isolation c. avoid a role crisis d. maintain his identity development

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Chap 11_6ce_Case-Based 12. Penny does not want to change out of her pyjamas to go play outside. Amelia wants to take control of the situation (so Penny will change and go outside to play), but she also wants to give Penny some autonomy. What does Amelia say? a. “Do you want to go out and play in your blue overalls or do you want to go out and play in your red shorts?” b. “If you get dressed now, you can pick whatever you want to have for lunch later.” c. “Unless you pick what to wear now, you will not be allowed to go outside and play.” d. “You can choose to stay in your pyjamas or you can choose to stay inside and play, but you will be missing out on fun.” 13. Lorant’s aunt is visiting and asks him if he has decided where he will attend university in the fall. If Lorant ___________, then this is an example of identity status diffusion. a. shrugs and says he does not know yet because both choices are great b. says his parents are pressuring him more every day to pick Queen’s c. says he thinks it would probably be best to just side with his parents d. says he is pretty sure where he wants to go, he just has to talk to his brother first 14. Sunil’s younger sister often misses curfew and has been coming home at all hours of the night. Arjun is worried about her. He wants to ground her so she cannot go out after school at all, but also wants to allow her the flexibility of making her own choices. Arjun wants his child-rearing style to be ___________ and not too ____________. a. authoritarian; authoritative b. authoritarian; permissive c. authoritative; authoritarian d. permissive; authoritarian 15. Sunil is 23 years old and is in his last semester of university. His father, Arjun, is 58 years old and is beginning to prepare for retirement. Arjun is travelling for business to the city where Sunil attends university and the two meet up for lunch. This is the first time in a very long time that the two have had the chance to talk at length without other family members present. They confide in each other quite a bit about what is going on in their lives and discuss the emotions they have surrounding the life transitions they are considering. Sunil talks to Arjun about the choice he has to make between attending graduate school and taking on student loan or accepting a job offer at the government in a well-paying job that is not his dream job. What is Sunil’s current identity status? a. Achievement b. Moratorium c. Foreclosure d. Diffusion 16. When the children come back year after year, researchers hypothesize that their _________ will change, but their _________ probably will not. a. attachment style; moral reasoning ability b. temperament; cognitive schemas c. moral reasoning ability; attachment style d. attachment style; personality 17. Lorant’s aunt is visiting and asks him if he has decided where he will attend university in the fall. If Lorant says he is thinking of talking to his brother about it before making a decision, this is an example of identity status _________. a. achievement b. moratorium c. foreclosure d. diffusion

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Chap 11_6ce_Case-Based 18. Angelica has just learned that she is pregnant. Because this is her first pregnancy, she is reading a book called The Birds, The Bees, and the Next Nine Months to learn more about the development of her unborn child. Every interesting fact she learns, she shares with her husband, Dominic. Angelica finds out that she is pregnant after implantation but before the baby is old enough to be called a fetus. According to the book, she found out she was pregnant when her unborn child was __________. a. a blastocyst b. a germinal blastocyst c. an embryo d. a germinal zygote 19. One experiment is designed to test how the children differentiate right from wrong. The children are shown a video of a child running across the road to grab a ball without checking both ways before crossing. If Presho says this is wrong because ___________, then she has reached Kohlberg’s _______ stage of moral reasoning. a. only bad children cross the street alone; preconventional b. it is against Mom’s rules to cross the street alone; social contract orientation c. her Mom told her to never cross the street alone; authority orientation d. good girls wait to cross the street with Mom; naïve reward orientation 20. Angelica finds out that she is pregnant after implantation but before the baby is old enough to be called a fetus. Angelica is worried that she has not yet felt her baby move inside her. She should not worry because Angelica and Dominic’s baby _____________. a. does not yet have a skeleton that has hardened b. does not yet have vernix and lanugo c. is awake less than 15% of the time d. is not yet viable 21. When Presho was a newborn, her parents consented to enrol her as a participant in a longitudinal study exploring childhood development. Every year in April, her parents take her to the university in their city so she can participate in some short experiments. When Presho’s younger brother, Anam, is born three years later, their parents decide to enrol him as well, and he participates in the same experiments as his sister, also during their visit in April. During Anam’s second visit to the lab (when he is 2.5 years old), the researchers notice he ___________ and code this as an indication that he has reached _________ second stage of development. a. cries and sucks his thumb every time he gets upset; Erikson’s b. cries if a toy is taken away from him unexpectedly; Freud’s c. becomes upset if someone tries to help him put on his shoes; Erikson’s d. becomes upset if his parents are paying attention to his sister; Freud’s

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Chap 11_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. c 17. b 18. c 19. c 20. a 21. c

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What are gender roles? a. duties based on biological capabilities b. social expression of biological gender differences c. developmental stages associated with identity formation d. responsibilities based on societies’ prescriptions of what is proper for each sex 2. At what stage does the developing human organism become capable of physical movement? a. germinal b. postnatal c. fetal

d. embryonic

3. New situations and experiences often have characteristics in common with situations or events that people

have encountered in the past. Which of Piaget’s processes do people use to respond appropriately in these types of situations? a. accommodation b. centration c. conservation d. assimilation 4. What is the most common deficit associated with old age, in terms of sensory functioning? a. gustatory discrimination b. nearsightedness c. tactile discrimination

d. farsightedness

5. Which phrase is consistent with hindsight bias? a. “Everyone else is crazy.” b. “No pain, no gain.” c. “Opposites attract.” d. “I knew it all along.” 6. Researchers working with the habituation-dishabituation paradigm have discovered that, at three to four

months of age, infants understand that objects are distinct entities with boundaries. What is supported by this evidence? a. Object permanence may emerge earlier than Piaget suggested. b. Children may be born with an ability to solve simple mathematical problems. c. The preoperational period of development starts earlier than Piaget suggested. d. Children master the concept of conservation earlier than Piaget suggested. 7. Gwen is given a task to determine what makes a pendulum swing faster. She is given a frame, several lengths

of string, and various weights. Gwen first tries all the weights on the shortest string, then tries all the weights on the longest string, recording her results, in her attempt to solve the problem. Which of the following Piagetian stages of development is Gwen most likely in? a. formal operational b. sensorimotor c. concrete operational d. preoperational

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 8. Patricia is upset because she is convinced that her brother has a bigger piece of cake than she does. Her dad

quickly slices Patricia’s piece of cake in two and tells her that she now has “more” cake. What would it suggest about Patricia’s cognitive development if she calms down and is convinced that she does have more cake than her brother? a. She does not yet understand conservation. b. She has not yet mastered object permanence. c. She does not understand the process of assimilation. d. She is displaying egocentric reasoning. 9. As a parent, you are particularly worried that your child will engage in behaviours including disordered eating;

use of tobacco, alcohol, and other drugs; and trouble with the law. Which of the following individuals should you worry most about, given research evidence? a. a boy who matures late b. a girl who matures early c. a boy who matures early d. a girl who matures late 10. Randall is 3 years old. He is given a glass that contains some purple juice. He is surprised when he drinks

some and finds that it tastes like lemonade. What is Randall most likely to say if you ask him what someone else would guess the juice would taste like, before they have a chance to taste it? a. grape juice b. purple lemons c. lemonade d. yellow grapes 11. Three-month-old Wade and 15-month-old Macy are left with a babysitter while their mother runs a few

errands. What is most likely, according to the research on separation anxiety? a. Macy will show more distress than Wade when she realizes that her mother has gone. b. Neither child is likely to show separation anxiety if the babysitter is responsive and caring. c. Both Wade and Macy will show about the same degree of separation anxiety. d. Wade will show more distress than Macy when he realizes that his mother has gone. 12. Felicia is pregnant, and her blood pressure has become dangerously high. Her doctor wants to deliver her

baby by Caesarean section, even though Felicia is only 27 weeks pregnant. What is the likelihood of survival if Felicia’s baby is delivered at this point in her pregnancy? a. less than a 10 percent chance of survival b. approximately a 25 percent chance of survival c. at least a 75 percent chance of survival d. virtually a 100 percent chance of survival 13. What temperament category describes an infant who actively resists change, who fails to develop a regular

sleeping and eating schedule, and who is generally irritable and unhappy? a. slow-to-warm-up b. uninhibited c. easy d. difficult

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 14. After an egg has been fertilized by a sperm, what is the approximate average likelihood that it will be

successfully implanted in the uterine wall? a. <50 percent b. 66 percent c. 75 percent d. >90 percent 15. What type of goals is a person committed to in identity foreclosure? a. those he arrived at after a long period of decision making b. those he believes are apt to last only a short time c. those he arrived at independently d. those he simply took over from others 16. Which statement best describes gender expectations? a. Girls typically receive more pressure to behave in gender-appropriate ways than boys do. b. Grade school teachers tend to scold girls more often than boys. c. Parents’ attitudes have very little influence on the gender roles acquired by their children. d. On TV, physical attractiveness is more important for women than for men. 17. Approximately how many babies in Canada are born with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD)? a. 1 in 50 b. 1 in 100 c. 1 in 500

d. 1 in 1000

18. What is the adaptive value of attachment processes, according to evolutionary theorists? a. Children learn the social and emotional skills needed for successful mating. b. Attachment itself is not an adaptive process, but it is a by-product of other adaptive learning

processes. c. Parents ensure that their infants stay close to them at all times, which enhances survival. d. Innate mechanisms ensure that parents and children cooperate. 19. What will be acquired by a child who successfully completes stage 1 of Erikson’s stages of psychosocial

development? a. a sense of competence c. an ability to initiate one’s own activities

b. self-sufficiency d. optimism and trust toward the world

20. Gerard watched as a researcher placed five toy station wagons and three toy convertibles on a table. The

researcher asked him if there were more station wagons or more cars, and Gerard correctly answered that there were more cars. What cognitive skill has Gerard mastered? a. object permanence b. conservation of number c. preaccommodation d. hierarchical classification

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 21. What could you predict about a boy who had an endocrine disorder that caused underproduction of

androgens, based on the research into the effects of hormones on behaviour? a. elevated scores on measures of verbal skills b. reduced scores on measures of leadership skills c. elevated scores on measures of spatial ability d. reduced scores on measures of creativity 22. Even though all her friends tried recreational drugs, Maggie refused to experiment with drugs because she

was afraid she would be caught and end up in jail. Which level of Kohlberg’s moral development does this example illustrate? a. preconventional b. postconventional c. authoritarian d. conventional Patricia Patricia is boisterous and fun, the life of the party. She usually enjoys being in a crowd, and she finds it easy to talk to people and make new friends. Patricia sees herself as a people person, and that’s exactly how her friends and family would describe her. Her career involves a lot of pressure and deadlines, but she tends to handle stress quite well and seeks out new challenges. There is one co-worker who aggravates Patricia a great deal, but instead of getting angry or lashing out at him, she is overly polite and sickeningly sweet to him. Because of her disposition and her ability to deal well with large projects and teams of people, Patricia recently earned a very big promotion. People who knew her when she was very young might be surprised at how far she’s come in life, considering that she had a very rough upbringing in a very poor family. 23. Which concept helps to explain why Patricia is able to handle pressure and deadlines well? a. Rogers’s unconditional positive regard b. Freud’s concept of reaction formation c. Eysenck’s proposal that extraverts have low arousal levels d. Maslow’s concept of self-actualization 24. On average, females perform better than males on tests of which of the following skills/abilities? a. short-term memory b. mathematical ability c. verbal skills

d. visual-spatial ability

25. Carmyn is an elementary school–age child who does well in school and who receives praise and support at

home. What will she develop a sense of, according to Erikson? a. generativity b. trust c. industry d. superiority 26. Which Piagetian process allows people to respond in new ways to changing environments? a. assimilation b. accommodation c. centration

d. conservation

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 27. Mikaela is a quiet infant who doesn’t seem to smile a lot, but who also seldom cries. She seems cautious and

wary of changes in her surroundings, but eventually she adapts to the change. What type of temperament does Mikaela have, based on temperament categories outlined by Thomas and Chess? a. difficult b. slow-to-warm-up c. uninhibited d. easy 28. Sally is worried about how exhausted she has become during her pregnancy. Her husband Brad rushes to

reassure her by telling her that she should be tired, since she has just started to grow a brand-new organ that will act as a filter to allow her to pass oxygen and nutrients to her developing child, but will prevent many infectious agents from reaching the child. What is the name of this organ? a. the umbilical cord b. the uterus c. the placenta d. the amnion 29. What is the longest stage of prenatal development? a. embryonic b. fetal c. zygotic

d. germinal

30. If a baby is born prematurely and survives, then which developmental stage must that baby have been in? a. germinal b. postnatal c. fetal

d. embryonic

31. What is the term used by James Marcia to describe individuals who were delaying commitment and actively

exploring alternative ideologies? a. postponement b. diffusion c. moratorium d. foreclosure 32. If you were to look at a distribution of scores of mathematical ability for men and women in North America,

where in the distribution would you expect to see the largest difference in ability? a. at the bottom of the distribution b. within 1 standard deviation of the mean c. at the median d. at the high end of the distribution 33. Tina is just learning how to skate. She can stand on her own on skates, but she can’t move forward without

help. But if her parents give her a hand to use for balance, she can move forward on her skates. Which of the following is the term that Vygotsky would use to describe the task of moving forward on skates for Tina? a. critical period b. habituation c. zone of proximal development d. scaffolding 34. Timmy believes he can avoid getting any older by not having any more birthday parties. Timmy is probably in

which stage of cognitive development? a. preoperational b. sensorimotor c. formal operational d. concrete operational

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 35. Many pregnancy guidebooks will divide pregnancy into three equal time periods called trimesters (each of

which is three months long). Using this terminology, the fetal stage occurs during which trimester? a. the first trimester b. the second trimester c. the second and third trimesters d. all three trimesters 36. How does a child relate to the world during the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development? a. systematic hypothesis testing b. logical reasoning c. abstract operations

d. physical interaction with the environment

37. What is typical of females, compared to males? a. Females are more assertive. b. Females are more irrational in social interactions. c. Females are more emotional. d. Females are more sensitive to nonverbal cues. 38. Traditionally, psychologists have been interested in development during childhood. What has changed about

the focus of developmental psychology in recent decades? a. The focus has shifted toward the prenatal period. b. The focus has expanded to include adolescence. c. The focus has expanded to include the whole life span. d. The focus has shifted toward infancy. 39. As you think about whether fathers are necessary for children’s well-being, you acknowledge the increased

risk of children’s behaviour problems in father-absent homes, but you also consider the influence of poverty (which is also highly correlated with father absence) on the adjustment of children. In doing so, which critical thinking skill are you using? a. looking for alternative explanations b. creating a novel fallacy c. disproving a slippery-slope argument d. rejecting a false dichotomy 40. Dr. Klein is interested in the development of shyness in children and adolescents. He recruits participants in

three age groups: 3 to 7 years old, 8 to 12 years old, and 13 to 17 years old. Each participant completes a survey, and he will analyze the data to see if any patterns emerge. Which of the following terms best describes this kind of a study? a. longitudinal design b. within-subjects design c. cross-sectional design d. sequential design 41. What is the second stage of prenatal development? a. fetal b. germinal c. zygotic

d. embryonic

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 42. Edwin has just started his third year in university, and he is still exploring the options for his major. He has

taken several courses with the intention of obtaining a law degree, but last semester he also discovered he was very interested in geology. He feels it is important to reach a final decision before the end of the semester, and he has started investigating both career options in detail. What state does this represent, according to James Marcia? a. foreclosure b. moratorium c. postponement d. diffusion 43. Dr. Gevy explains that a secure attachment develops when the child experiences a predictable relationship

with parents that includes plenty of loving behaviour. The child learns that the world is a safe place and learns to trust easily. If a child experiences an unpredictable, dangerous, or unloving environment, then the child learns to be wary and less connected to other people. Dr. Gevy suggests that either style helps a child to survive to reproductive age in its particular environment. What type of theorist is Dr. Gevy? a. humanist b. evolutionary theorist c. cognitive theorist d. developmental theorist 44. The widespread loss of neurons and brain tissue associated with Alzheimer’s disease most commonly begins

in which region? a. brainstem c. left hemisphere of the cortex

b. hippocampal region d. thalamus and hypothalamus

45. Liam is working on a tough homework assignment for geometry. When he hits a particularly difficult question,

he asks his mother for help. She shows him how he can measure some items around the house in order to understand the concepts in his assignment. Because of this hint, Liam is able to finish his homework. What is the term that Vygotsky would have used to describe the difference between what Liam could do with and without help? a. accommodation b. assimilation c. zone of proximal development d. apprenticeship stages 46. Craig is constantly striving for achievement and trying to master various tasks, such as cooking, building a

birdhouse, or getting good grades in school. Craig is most likely in which of Erikson’s stages of development? a. initiative versus guilt b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. industry versus inferiority d. identity versus role confusion 47. Kyle is 9 years old, and he likes to draw and paint. He doesn’t receive very good grades on his art projects,

and several times his friends have made fun of the pictures Kyle has created. What is Kyle likely to develop based on Erikson’s theory? a. a sense of industry b. feelings of guilt c. a sense of despair d. feelings of inferiority

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 48. Penny conceived a baby seven days ago, and she does not yet know she is pregnant. In what stage is her

pregnancy? a. germinal c. placental

b. embryonic d. fetal

49. What is the first stage of prenatal development? a. germinal b. fetal c. embryonic

d. postnatal

50. Cheyenne is a graduate student who is studying the way in which selective attention develops during the

preadolescent years. She selects a group of 10-year-olds, and she assesses their selective attention every six months over a two-year period. What type of research design is Cheyenne using? a. cross-sectional b. between-subjects c. multi-factorial d. longitudinal 51. Leanna is 19 years old, and when people ask her what she wants to do when she finishes school, she tells

them she hasn’t really given it much thought. She is convinced there is lots of time before she even needs to begin thinking about her various career options. What identity status describes Leanna’s state, according to James Marcia? a. moratorium b. postponement c. diffusion d. foreclosure 52. Looking back on her long life, Hilda feels good about herself and her accomplishments and swears that she

would do it again the same way if given the opportunity. What stage is Hilda in, according to Erikson’s theory? a. integrity versus despair b. intimacy versus isolation c. initiative versus guilt d. identity versus role confusion 53. Despite Erikson’s stages being presented as either-or situations, what was the outcome most likely to be

achieved in most individuals as they navigated their way through each stage? a. balance b. purpose c. autonomy d. mistrust 54. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the hindsight bias? a. Hindsight bias is generally restricted to thinking about issues related to personality. b. The notion of hindsight bias has been raised in criticisms of psychoanalytic theory. c. Hindsight bias appears to be pervasive in everyday analyses of personality. d. Hindsight bias occurs in many different settings. 55. When Matthew saw his older brother’s bicycle fall off its kick-stand, Matthew told his brother that the

bicycle must be tired from being ridden too much. What would Piaget call this type of thinking? a. animism b. centration c. preformal operational d. conservation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 56. Dale suggests that German parents are moderately more likely to encourage independence in their children.

He further suggests that this is why German children are more likely than North American children to have which of the following styles of attachment? a. anxious-ambivalent b. secure c. avoidant d. disorganized-disoriented 57. What is the relationship between gestational exposure to air pollution and cognitive development in children? a. There is no relationship, because pollution does not cross the placenta. b. There is no known effect of pollution on cognitive development. c. Exposure to air pollution is associated with an increased risk of attention deficit disorder. d. Exposure to air pollution is associated with impaired cognitive development by age five. 58. Which of the following is the term for any external agent that interferes with the normal pattern of prenatal

development? a. carcinogen c. teratogen

b. toxin d. infection

Patricia Patricia is boisterous and fun, the life of the party. She usually enjoys being in a crowd, and she finds it easy to talk to people and make new friends. Patricia sees herself as a people person, and that’s exactly how her friends and family would describe her. Her career involves a lot of pressure and deadlines, but she tends to handle stress quite well and seeks out new challenges. There is one co-worker who aggravates Patricia a great deal, but instead of getting angry or lashing out at him, she is overly polite and sickeningly sweet to him. Because of her disposition and her ability to deal well with large projects and teams of people, Patricia recently earned a very big promotion. People who knew her when she was very young might be surprised at how far she’s come in life, considering that she had a very rough upbringing in a very poor family. 59. Patricia sees herself in a way that is similar to how others see her. What would Rogers call this similarity? a. self-efficacy b. consistency c. congruence d. self-actualization 60. Which statement is a criticism of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development? a. Piaget may have overestimated the cognitive skills of infants and preschool children. b. The theory focuses too much on individual differences in development. c. Evidence for the theory is too heavily based on cross-sectional research. d. Piaget may have underestimated the influence of culture on cognitive development. 61. What percentage of children in the Thomas and Chess study on temperament were slow-to-warm-up? a. 15% b. 20% c. 25%

d. 40%

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 62. Which statement best describes the experience of menopause? a. Middle-aged males experience hormonal changes that are equivalent to the female menopause. b. Menopause is almost universally accompanied by severe emotional strain. c. Most women experience relatively modest psychological distress during menopause. d. Menopause for most women typically occurs around age 40. 63. What aspect of development is included in the embryonic stage of prenatal development? a. formation of a zygote b. implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterine wall c. second through eighth weeks of prenatal development d. last seven months of the pregnancy

The Smith Family The Smith family is sitting around the table, talking about their upcoming family vacation to the Rocky Mountains. Jack and Diane are the parents, and they are both in their 30s. They have two children. Brian is 15 years old, and Betsy is 8 years old. Diane doesn’t know it yet, but she’s also about three weeks pregnant with a third child. As they are all discussing the trip, Betsy suggests that they go on a helicopter tour of the mountains like the one that she saw on TV. Jack and Diane tell Betsy that they can’t afford that kind of trip this year, but they give Betsy a travel guidebook and tell her that she could pick out an activity for the family that costs less than $100. Brian tells his parents that he went online to one of the travel websites and plotted out several different routes for driving to their destination. He shows them how he compared different ways of getting there (distance, time of travelling, and landmarks), and explains that the route that he planned was a combination of shortest time of travelling but with a few deviations to see some interesting places. Betsy thinks this is a great idea so that the car doesn’t get bored on the way there! 64. What cognitive stage would Piaget suggest that Brian has achieved, based on his ability to systematically evaluate and plan the driving route? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. formal operational d. concrete operational 65. What is NOT suggested by research associated with Kohlberg’s theory of moral development? a. Most people show several levels of moral reasoning at one time. b. There are sizable cultural disparities in progression through the stages. c. Children generally progress through the stages in the order he outlined. d. Compared to girls, boys generally show lower levels of moral reasoning.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 66. Cathy is worried about how exhausted she has become during her pregnancy. Her husband Carl rushes to

reassure her by telling her that she should be tired, since she has just started to grow a brand-new organ that will act as a filter to allow her to pass oxygen and nutrients to developing child, and will prevent many infectious agents from reaching the child. During which of the following phases of prenatal development are Cathy and Carl? a. the embryonic stage b. the fetal stage c. the germinal stage d. the zygotic stage Patricia Patricia is boisterous and fun, the life of the party. She usually enjoys being in a crowd, and she finds it easy to talk to people and make new friends. Patricia sees herself as a people person, and that’s exactly how her friends and family would describe her. Her career involves a lot of pressure and deadlines, but she tends to handle stress quite well and seeks out new challenges. There is one co-worker who aggravates Patricia a great deal, but instead of getting angry or lashing out at him, she is overly polite and sickeningly sweet to him. Because of her disposition and her ability to deal well with large projects and teams of people, Patricia recently earned a very big promotion. People who knew her when she was very young might be surprised at how far she’s come in life, considering that she had a very rough upbringing in a very poor family. 67. When Patricia is overly nice to her co-worker, what defence mechanism would Freud suggest that she is using? a. repression b. projection c. reaction formation d. rationalization 68. Ms. Tabak looks out her kitchen window and is upset to see that her six-year-old son, Ryan, is picking all the

tomatoes from her garden, setting them on his T-ball stand, and smashing them with his bat. Which of Piaget’s processes is illustrated by Ryan’s substitution of tomatoes for his regular red T-ball? a. assimilation b. object permanence c. accommodation d. centration 69. At about what age do children begin to understand how thoughts and desires can motivate a person’s

behaviour, according to researchers who have mapped milestones in children’s understanding of mental states? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years 70. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, what are the five stages of bereavement? a. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance b. anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance, sadness c. bargaining, depression, acceptance, empathy, shame d. depression, acceptance, sadness, rage, bargaining

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 71. What is habituation? a. sudden reduction in responding due to neural fatigue b. gradual reduction in responding when the same stimulus in presented repeatedly c. sudden increase in responding when a new stimulus is presented d. startle reflex that occurs in response to an unexpected stimulus or loud noise 72. Samantha and Craig want to find out the sex of their child at the earliest possible moment. Their doctor has

just informed them that they should now be able to determine sex from an ultrasound image. During what stage of development is this? a. germinal b. postnatal c. fetal d. embryonic 73. Imagine that you have just read the results from a research study that investigated patterns of attachment

during infancy. In 100 parent–infant dyads, nearly 35 percent of infants showed evidence of an avoidant attachment pattern. Based on previous research, in which of the following countries did the study likely take place? a. United States b. Germany c. Japan d. Canada 74. During which stage of prenatal development are most miscarriages likely to occur? a. zygotic stage b. embryonic stage c. fetal stage

d. germinal stage

75. Mary is 6 years old. She is given a glass that contains some purple juice. She is surprised when she drinks

some and finds that it tastes like lemonade. What will Mary most likely say if you ask her what someone else would guess the juice would taste like, before they have a chance to taste it? a. grape juice b. purple lemons c. lemonade d. yellow grapes 76. Tucker is a graduate student who is studying identity formation. He selects a group of 5-year-olds, a group of

10-year-olds, and a group of 15-year-olds, and interviews each group, asking them what they plan to be when they finish school. What type of research design is Tucker using? a. nested condition b. multi-factorial c. cross-sectional d. longitudinal 77. Which statement best describes adolescents and suicide, when adolescents are compared to older age

groups? a. Adolescents commit suicide just as often. b. Adolescents commit suicide more often. c. Adolescents commit suicide less often. d. Adolescents threaten to commit suicide just as often. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 78. For which Piagetian stage might we be correct with the old expression “Out of sight is out of mind”? a. concrete operational b. sensorimotor c. preoperational

d. formal operational

79. Jeremy’s mother has been humming the same tune for five minutes. Four-month-old Jeremy is nearly asleep,

and his heart rate and respiration are slow. His mother switches to a different tune, and Jeremy suddenly appears to be less drowsy and he is paying more attention. What is illustrated by Jeremy’s increase in attention when his mother switched tunes? a. habituation b. sensorimotor responding c. a conditioned response d. dishabituation 80. Craig is 2 years old, and he likes to put on his own coat and shoes. His mother often becomes impatient

waiting for him to get ready, and she usually scolds him and then finishes zipping his coat and tying his shoes for him. What would Craig develop, based on Erikson’s theory? a. a general sense of mistrust b. feelings of autonomy c. feelings of shame and doubt d. a sense of inferiority 81. Among children born in Germany, which of the following styles of attachment is most likely? a. anxious-ambivalent b. secure c. avoidant

d. disorganized-disoriented

82. How do Thomas and Chess refer to a child who tends to be glum, erratic in sleep and eating, and resistant to

change? a. a slow-to-warm-up child c. an uninhibited child

b. an easy child d. a difficult child

83. Which statement is an example of a critical period of development? a. A child born with cataracts does not learn to see normally if the cataracts are removed after the age of

two. b. A child who is malnourished during infancy develops more slowly than a child who is well nourished. c. A young child learns a second language more quickly than an older siblings or the child’s parents. d. A child who lags behind their peers in school will often catch up in later years. 84. Which piece of evidence suggests that Marcia’s identity statuses do NOT reflect developmental stages? a. People tend to reach “achievement” in adolescence rather than in late adulthood. b. People tend to maintain a particular identity status throughout various ages. c. People rarely progress from one stage to another in a predictable fashion. d. Identity statuses are only associated with adolescence.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 85. Children raised in rural environments may develop the ability to find their way around a wooded area using

cues from the sun and using trees as landmarks. Children raised in the city may confidently navigate an urban bus system using maps and transfer points. Who would find this difference most interesting and relevant to their theory of cognitive development? a. Ainsworth b. Piaget c. Erikson d. Vygotsky 86. What did Lawrence Kohlberg believe determines moral development? a. social development b. cognitive development c. emotional development

d. physical development

87. Suzanne is 10 months old, and her older brother has been playing peek-a-boo with her for the past 10

minutes. At first, Suzanne was really excited each time her brother uncovered his face, but now she seems bored and uninterested, and she barely responds when her brother says, “boo.” What is illustrated by this example? a. observational learning b. dishabituation c. an unconditioned response d. habituation 88. If an infant is temperamentally easy, what would be the best prediction to make about the child’s

temperament at age 10? a. The child is likely to overcompensate by becoming “difficult” later on. b. By the age of 10, the child is likely to develop whatever temperament the primary caregiver has. c. No reasonable prediction can be made. d. The child is fairly likely to retain the easy temperament. 89. If you hypothesize that children in different age groups will be influenced by the music that is popular when

they started school, which research method would allow you to look at such cohort effects? a. matched pairs condition b. within-subject design c. longitudinal design d. cross-sectional design 90. Which statement best describes personality changes in adulthood? a. Personality remains extremely stable after adolescence. b. The adult personality is characterized by both stability and change. c. Personality stability depends on one’s sex and socio-economic status. d. The overall personality undergoes systematic changes throughout adulthood.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 91. Imagine a study that is based on the work of Harry Harlow. In this study, researchers present young monkeys

with two artificial surrogate mothers. One was a bare wire cylinder but held a feeding bottle. The other was a wire cylinder, covered in soft terry cloth, but with no feeding bottle. Which of the following would a behaviourist predict about the results? a. The young monkeys will show evidence of attachment to the bare wire mother. b. The young monkeys will show evidence of attachment to the terry cloth mother. c. The young monkeys will show no evidence of attachment to either artificial surrogate. d. The young monkeys will show evidence of attachment to both surrogate mothers. 92. During the germinal stage, the fertilized egg is known as which of the following? a. a fetus b. an embryo c. a germ

d. a zygote

93. Rates of secure and insecure attachment vary across different cultures, perhaps related to differences in

parenting styles that are more or less common in different countries. Which of your text’s unifying themes does this illustrate? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. 94. At about what age do children first begin to understand that emotions are different from behaviours,

according to researchers who have mapped milestones in children’s understanding of mental states? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years 95. What is associated with the decrease in grey matter that is typical of adolescents? a. sensitive periods in language development b. necessary synaptic pruning c. poor impulse control d. regression 96. What type of study is being used when groups of subjects of differing age are compared at a single point in

time? a. cross-cultural c. cross-sectional

b. longitudinal d. sequential

97. Which question reflects a child’s concept of good or bad at the preconventional level of moral development? a. Does it break a rule? b. Is it against the law? c. Do I like it?

d. Will I get in trouble?

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 98. Which terms are used to describe the cluster of developing human cells prior to implantation in the uterine

wall, and then after implantation? a. zygote, then embryo b. fetus, then zygote c. zygote, then fetus d. embryo, then fetus 99. What is the youngest age group in which more than half of people say that they feel they’ve reached

adulthood? a. 12–17 b. 18–25 c. 26–35 d. 36–55 100. Which of the following best explains adolescent tendencies toward risky behaviour? a. excessive punishment for risky behaviour in childhood b. the gradual decrease in grey matter volume c. the relative immaturity of the prefrontal cortex d. secure attachment processes during infancy 101. Microcephaly, heart defects, hyperactivity, impaired cognitive development, and academic difficulties are all

associated with which of the following teratogens? a. alcohol b. nicotine c. marijuana d. opiates 102. Lane is currently attending kindergarten. Which stage is Lane most likely to be in, according to the stages

outlined by Piaget? a. concrete operational c. preoperational

b. sensorimotor d. formal operational

103. What is the developmental stage during which toilet training occurs, according to Erikson? a. initiative versus guilt b. trust versus mistrust c. industry versus inferiority

d. autonomy versus shame and doubt

104. What does the term “conservation” refer to, regarding a child’s cognitive ability? a. ability to understand that simply because something isn’t visible doesn’t mean it no longer exists b. ability to solve moral dilemmas in the most economical manner possible c. assimilating new experiences into an existing memory structure in order to conserve memory space d. awareness that changing the shape of something doesn’t alter its volume or mass

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 105. What differs between the “older” understanding of maturation and the “newer” version? a. We now know that maturation is simply the systematic unfolding of a genetic program. b. We now know that maturation requires the active participation of the infant. c. Recent evidence suggests that maturation is more of a “blank slate” than previously believed. d. Recent evidence suggests that developmental norms need to be revised to accommodate the effects of

preschool and day care. 106. What do psychologists mean when they say that “males and females differ on Trait X”? a. The average male differs from the average female on Trait X. b. All males differ from all females on Trait X. c. Most males differ from most females on Trait X. d. The highest Trait X scores will be males’, and the lowest scores will be females’. 107. According to Piaget, during which stage of cognitive development do children come to realize that an object

continues to exist even when they cannot see it or touch it? a. concrete operational b. sensorimotor c. formal operational d. preoperational 108. Avery is excited by the fact that she has begun to feel her baby kicking and moving in her uterus. In what

stage must Avery’s pregnancy be if she can feel her baby moving? a. fetal b. neonatal c. germinal d. embryonic 109. Greg is given a task to determine what makes a pendulum swing faster. He is given a frame, several lengths of

string, and various weights. Greg places the weights on pieces of string in a haphazard manner and records the results in an attempt to solve the problem. Which of the following Piagetian stages of development is Greg most likely in? a. formal operational b. sensorimotor c. concrete operational d. preoperational

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1

The Smith Family The Smith family is sitting around the table, talking about their upcoming family vacation to the Rocky Mountains. Jack and Diane are the parents, and they are both in their 30s. They have two children. Brian is 15 years old, and Betsy is 8 years old. Diane doesn’t know it yet, but she’s also about three weeks pregnant with a third child. As they are all discussing the trip, Betsy suggests that they go on a helicopter tour of the mountains like the one that she saw on TV. Jack and Diane tell Betsy that they can’t afford that kind of trip this year, but they give Betsy a travel guidebook and tell her that she could pick out an activity for the family that costs less than $100. Brian tells his parents that he went online to one of the travel websites and plotted out several different routes for driving to their destination. He shows them how he compared different ways of getting there (distance, time of travelling, and landmarks), and explains that the route that he planned was a combination of shortest time of travelling but with a few deviations to see some interesting places. Betsy thinks this is a great idea so that the car doesn’t get bored on the way there! 110. When Betsy’s parents give her a task to help plan the trip, which of Erikson’s crises does this help to resolve? a. integrity versus despair b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. industry versus inferiority d. generativity versus self-absorption 111. Ten-year-old Sherry watches as you flatten one of two equal-sized balls of clay into a pancake. Sherry says

they both still have the same amount of clay. What does Sherry understand? a. seriation b. hierarchical classification c. conservation d. inductive reasoning 112. Harry Harlow demonstrated that the process of attachment in monkeys is facilitated by which of the

following? a. the first object that moves after the monkey is born b. the receiving of sustenance from the mother c. observational learning from other monkeys in the group d. contact with a comforting object 113. What is the term for revising a mental structure to incorporate new information? a. accommodation b. prototyping c. elaboration

d. schematizing

114. Even though most of his friends tried recreational drugs, Sebastian refused to experiment with drugs. He did

not think the drugs were likely to be harmful, but using the drugs was illegal, and he believes that each person has an obligation to obey society’s rules. Which type of moral reasoning does this example illustrate? a. conventional b. social c. preconventional d. postconventional

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1

The Smith Family The Smith family is sitting around the table, talking about their upcoming family vacation to the Rocky Mountains. Jack and Diane are the parents, and they are both in their 30s. They have two children. Brian is 15 years old, and Betsy is 8 years old. Diane doesn’t know it yet, but she’s also about three weeks pregnant with a third child. As they are all discussing the trip, Betsy suggests that they go on a helicopter tour of the mountains like the one that she saw on TV. Jack and Diane tell Betsy that they can’t afford that kind of trip this year, but they give Betsy a travel guidebook and tell her that she could pick out an activity for the family that costs less than $100. Brian tells his parents that he went online to one of the travel websites and plotted out several different routes for driving to their destination. He shows them how he compared different ways of getting there (distance, time of travelling, and landmarks), and explains that the route that he planned was a combination of shortest time of travelling but with a few deviations to see some interesting places. Betsy thinks this is a great idea so that the car doesn’t get bored on the way there! 115. What stage of development is Diane’s pregnancy at? a. fetal b. germinal c. embryonic d. conceptive 116. Which of Kohlberg’s moral development stages would a 9-year-old child likely be in if she was in Piaget’s

concrete operational stage? a. premoral b. conventional c. preconventional d. postconventional 117. What type of stimulus is used in Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)? a. ambiguous pictures b. multiple-choice items c. inkblots d. true-false items 118. Typically, at what age does separation anxiety first manifest in an infant? a. one to two weeks b. one to two months c. six to eight months

d. 14 to 18 months

119. The threshold of _______ refers to the age at which a fetus can survive in the event of a premature birth. a. vitality b. vivacity c. viability

d. vigour

120. What do evolutionary theorists do, with respect to cognitive abilities? a. They assert that abilities that are prewired will be less prone to habituation or dishabituation. b. They suggest that infants attend more to novel events because these events require more time for

perceptual processing. c. They strive to understand the adaptive significance of abilities that appear to be prewired. d. They attempt to find out which abilities are prewired, without making any assumptions about why these abilities might be innate. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 121. Which disorder is associated with poor theory of mind or “mind blindness,” according to Baron-Cohen? a. major depressive disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. attention-deficit disorder

d. autistic spectrum disorder

122. What does self-socialization include, according to cognitive theories of gender-role development? a. responding to praise from parents, teachers, and peers b. valuing characteristics associated with the opposite gender c. learning to classify oneself as male or female d. being reinforced for gender-appropriate behaviours 123. What is the key difference between a critical period of development and a sensitive period of development? a. A critical period requires environmental input. b. A sensitive period requires environmental input. c. If a critical period is missed, the ability may still develop later. d. If a sensitive period is missed, the ability may still develop later. 124. Fifteen-year-old Rory has had a relatively smooth adolescent period and, at the urging of her parents, has

already decided on a college and a career. What type of identity status does it represent if Rory is simply playing a passive role in relationship to her parents? a. moratorium b. diffusion c. achievement d. foreclosure 125. Which of the following does NOT belong with the others, in relation to age? a. generativity versus self-absorption b. concrete operational c. menopause

d. decreased speed in cognitive processes

126. What is the third stage of prenatal development? a. fetal b. germinal c. zygotic

d. embryonic

127. At approximately what age are children able to recognize that other people might hold false beliefs? a. 2 years b. 4 years c. 6 years

d. 8 years

128. Jerry is eight months old. What fundamental question is Jerry dealing with at this point in his life, based on

Erikson’s theory of personality development? a. “Is my world predictable and supportive?” b. “Am I competent or am I worthless?” c. “Can I do things myself, or must I always rely on others?” d. “Am I good or am I bad?”

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 129. Chelsey is pregnant. She is concerned about taking an over-the-counter medication for her allergies. In which

stage of prenatal development should she be most concerned? a. fetal b. germinal c. embryonic d. placental 130. Which unifying theme from your text is illustrated by differing views on the course and nature of changes in

personality across the life span? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. Patricia Patricia is boisterous and fun, the life of the party. She usually enjoys being in a crowd, and she finds it easy to talk to people and make new friends. Patricia sees herself as a people person, and that’s exactly how her friends and family would describe her. Her career involves a lot of pressure and deadlines, but she tends to handle stress quite well and seeks out new challenges. There is one co-worker who aggravates Patricia a great deal, but instead of getting angry or lashing out at him, she is overly polite and sickeningly sweet to him. Because of her disposition and her ability to deal well with large projects and teams of people, Patricia recently earned a very big promotion. People who knew her when she was very young might be surprised at how far she’s come in life, considering that she had a very rough upbringing in a very poor family. 131. Which Big Five trait score would you expect from Patricia? a. high neuroticism b. low conscientiousness c. low psychoticism d. high extraversion 132. Gretchen watches as her preschool teacher forms two identical balls of modelling clay. The teacher gives one

of the balls of modelling clay to Gretchen, and then squashes the remaining ball into a flat pancake. She asks Gretchen if they both have the same amount of clay, and Gretchen confidently states that the teacher has more because the pancake is wider than the ball. What thinking flaw does this example illustrate? a. egocentrism b. assimilation c. centration d. conservation 133. What is the term for the tendency to mould our interpretation of the past to fit how events actually turned out? a. hindsight bias b. projection c. reaction formation d. self-enhancement 134. During the third stage of psychosocial development, the crisis that must be resolved is initiative versus guilt.

What did Erikson believe was the ability that children develop during this stage? a. how to deal with peers and adults b. whom to trust or not trust c. how to become self-sufficient d. how to pursue their independence while still respecting the rights of others Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 135. Which of your text’s organizing themes is illustrated by the fact that a child’s temperament elicits different

reactions from each parent, depending on the parents’ personalities and expectations? a. evolution of psychology in a sociohistorical context b. interaction of heredity and environment c. multiple causes of behaviour d. cultural diversity 136. Daryl is taking a personality test in which he is shown a series of simple scenes. He is supposed to tell a story about what is happening in each scene and suggest what the characters are feeling. Which test is Daryl taking? a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) b. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) c. Rorschach test d. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) 137. Which type of maternal exposure is associated with a wide range of birth complications and neurological

deficits? a. alcohol consumption in the third trimester b. exposure to folic acid c. weekly consumption of more than 150 mg of fish d. severe malnutrition 138. What could you infer about the mother if a baby is born with a small head, heart defects, and delayed mental

and motor development? a. She smoked during pregnancy. b. She had smallpox early in her pregnancy. c. She continued to work during pregnancy. d. She drank alcohol during pregnancy. 139. At what stage of pregnancy do muscle and bone begin to form? a. fetal stage b. conception c. zygotic stage

d. embryonic stage

140. What is the term for trying to deal with new situations in terms of existing mental structures? a. rigidity b. adaptation c. accommodation

d. assimilation

141. What does cognitive development involve, according to Piaget? a. increases in the quantity, but not the quality, of knowledge with age b. passive reception of environmental stimuli c. stages that are characterized by fundamentally different thought processes d. age-related changes in attention and memory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 142. How do psychologists define development? a. the sequence of age-related changes that occur as a person progresses from birth to adulthood b. the sequence of age-related changes that occur as a person progresses from conception to death c. changes across the life span that result due to learning and socialization d. maturity associated with adulthood 143. Jordyn just got a new bike, and she’s struggling to learn how to ride it. Jordyn’s older sister Camryn is quite

skilled on her bike, and she provides some hints to Jordyn to help her out. As Jordyn gets better at riding, Camryn provides less feedback. What would Vygotsky call this process? a. accommodation b. shaping c. assimilation d. scaffolding 144. Water is poured from a short, broad beaker into a tall, skinny beaker. Is there more or less water now? A

child answers that it’s the same amount, only it’s taller. In which stage of cognitive development is the child? a. preconventional b. sensorimotor c. concrete operational d. preoperational 145. What is the major shortcoming of Erikson’s psychosocial stages theory of development? a. He placed too little emphasis on social forces in the development of personality. b. It fails to account for continuity in personality development. c. Like many stage theories, it pays little attention to explaining individual differences. d. He failed to look at adult development. 146. What are the expected effects of moderate, rather than heavy, drinking during pregnancy? a. Even normal social drinking by the expectant mother may be harmful to the fetus. b. Most doctors recommend small amounts of alcohol throughout pregnancy. c. Three drinks per day can be considered a safe level of alcohol consumption for most pregnant women. d. Alcohol consumption by the mother poses almost no risk to the developing fetus in the last three

months of the pregnancy. 147. Yesterday, little Louis saw his brother climb a tree. Today, Louis tried it and fell to the ground, hurting himself.

His mother praised him for being a brave boy. Which influence on gender-role socialization are at work here? a. operant conditioning and classical conditioning b. observational learning and reinforcement c. self-socialization and punishment d. self-socialization and extinction

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 148. Which critical thinking skill would NOT be important in evaluating the argument that fathers are essential to

normal development? a. recognizing conclusions that are based on common reasoning fallacies b. recognizing how emotions can be manipulated through conditioning c. searching for alternative explanations d. understanding the limits of correlational evidence 149. Which statement best describes the origin of gender differences? a. Hormonal differences between the sexes account for the largest proportion of the variation. b. The reinforcement children receive for displaying gender-appropriate behaviour determines the

differences. c. As with anything, the explanation of gender differences is complex and must take into account both biological and environmental factors. d. The fact that males tend to exhibit more cerebral specialization than females explains the bulk of the differences. 150. Four-year-old Melanie is exploring one day, and she finds a bottle of vitamins in a cupboard. They look just

like some of the candies she got for Halloween, so she eats them all. Which of Piaget’s processes is illustrated by Melanie’s error? a. accommodation b. assimilation c. centration d. object permanence 151. Around what age does research suggest that a child’s “temperamental individuality” is well established? a. two to three months of age b. six to seven months of age c. one year of age

d. two years of age

152. What is the term for the inability of a child to mentally “undo” something? a. assimilation b. irreversibility c. egocentrism

d. object permanence

153. Dr. Wilmark prescribes extra morphine for her terminally ill patients, and she knows that they may use it to

end their lives. This is in violation of federal law. She believes it is morally wrong to cause unnecessary human suffering, and if necessary, she is willing to serve time in jail rather than watch others suffer needlessly. Which type of moral reasoning does this example illustrate? a. authoritarian b. preconventional c. conventional d. postconventional 154. Which of the following factors seems to be most important in determining the type of attachment that

develops between infants and their mothers? a. infant temperament b. maternal personality c. infant genetics d. maternal sensitivity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 155. What is the cause of roughly 70 percent of all cases of dementia? a. neuronal loss that is part of the normal aging process b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. strokes and cerebral hemorrhages 156. Stef’s neighbour was just arrested for a series of violent crimes across the city. As Stef is being interviewed by a local journalist, he says, “I knew all along that there was something not quite right about that man. He seemed almost too nice.” What is this an example of? a. self-fulfilling prophesy b. ubiquity effect c. hindsight bias d. rationalization 157. Which of Erikson’s stages includes the challenge of learning to function in society and beyond the family? a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. initiative versus guilt c. industry versus inferiority

d. trust versus mistrust

158. Which of the following features of a couple is associated with a smoother transition to becoming parents? a. high expectations for the success of their children b. high degree of relationships satisfaction prior to having children c. high levels of mutual trust, responsiveness, and gratitude d. high division of labour between the parents Patricia Patricia is boisterous and fun, the life of the party. She usually enjoys being in a crowd, and she finds it easy to talk to people and make new friends. Patricia sees herself as a people person, and that’s exactly how her friends and family would describe her. Her career involves a lot of pressure and deadlines, but she tends to handle stress quite well and seeks out new challenges. There is one co-worker who aggravates Patricia a great deal, but instead of getting angry or lashing out at him, she is overly polite and sickeningly sweet to him. Because of her disposition and her ability to deal well with large projects and teams of people, Patricia recently earned a very big promotion. People who knew her when she was very young might be surprised at how far she’s come in life, considering that she had a very rough upbringing in a very poor family. 159. What would Adler suggest about Patricia’s progress from her rough upbringing to her success in adulthood? a. It reflects her personal unconscious. b. It reflects her reinforcement history. c. It is the result of compensation. d. It is a consequence of a superiority complex.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 160. Sergio just turned 53, and he feels as though he is not making any real contributions through the career he has

chosen. As he sits at his desk each day, he fails to find meaning in his life and feels as though he has no purpose or direction. What would Erikson say about Sergio’s personality development? a. He is experiencing feelings of despair and bitterness. b. He is displaying signs of isolation. c. He is showing evidence of inferiority and doubt. d. He is becoming self-indulgent and self-absorbed. 161. Laura takes her one-year-old son, Jake, to visit a day care centre where she plans to enrol him. Jake eagerly

explores the playroom if Laura is present. When his mom leaves the room to fill out some forms, Jake becomes somewhat upset, but when Laura returns, he quickly calms down. What type of attachment relationship likely exists between mother and son in this example? a. avoidant b. secure c. undeveloped d. anxious-ambivalent 162. What would be good advice for someone looking to reduce the risk of Alzheimer’s disease? a. Stay physically and mentally active. b. Avoid meat. c. Don’t tire yourself out too much.

d. Take plenty of vitamin C supplements.

163. In which group does the rate of attempted suicides tend to be highest? a. adolescents b. 20- to 39-year-olds c. 40- to 59-year-olds

d. 60- to 79-year-olds

164. Which type of reasoning suggests that a poor man who stole food to feed his family was right, because human

life takes precedence over rules? a. preconventional moral reasoning c. postconventional moral reasoning

b. concrete operational thought d. formal operational thought

165. Carl is reading a popular book on what to expect during his partner’s pregnancy. The book divides the

pregnancy into three equal time periods, called trimesters (each of which is three months long). Having taken a psychology course, Carl knows that the first trimester will include which of the following phases of prenatal development? a. germinal b. embryonic c. germinal and embryonic d. germinal, embryonic, and fetal 166. What is the age of viability? a. when the fetus can first respond to stimulation; at about 9 weeks b. when the fetus first has a heartbeat; at about 16 weeks c. when the fetus can survive if born prematurely; between 23 and 25 weeks d. when the fetus experiences no further cell division in the brain; between 36 and 38 weeks

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 167. What is the third stage of prenatal development, which lasts from two months through birth? a. postnatal b. postgerminal c. fetal

d. embryonic

168. During which Piagetian stage are children’s thought processes particularly egocentric? a. concrete operational b. preoperational c. sensorimotor

d. formal operational

169. Jasmin takes her 1-year-old son, Randy, to visit a day care centre where she plans to enrol him. Randy

eagerly explores the playroom, and when his mom leaves the room to fill out some forms, he shows no signs of concern. When Jasmin returns, he shows little interest and continues to play with the toys he has collected. What type of attachment relationship does this example illustrate? a. disorganized-disoriented b. anxious-ambivalent c. avoidant d. secure 170. When Camilla’s cousins came to visit, they stayed in a hotel. Camilla was surprised to find out that there were

hotels in her city because she thought hotels existed only in places where she went on vacation. Because she had no need for hotels where she lives, she didn’t think they existed. Which Piagetian thought process is illustrated by this example? a. egocentrism b. centration c. conservation d. irreversibility 171. Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by investigations of complex, real-world issues, such as the

effects of computer training for senior citizens? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 172. Ceili and Fionn are discussing the statement “Fathers are essential for children’s well-being.” Ceili says that it

is clear that fathers are essential because children in fatherless homes have an increased risk of a variety of behaviour problems. What can Fionn argue to demonstrate that the argument is unreasonable? a. The argument is based on a false dichotomy. b. Other evidence suggests that it is the presence of a mother that determines whether children will be well adjusted or not. c. The argument is based on outdated information. d. Evidence of a correlation does not mean that there is a causal relationship.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1

The Smith Family The Smith family is sitting around the table, talking about their upcoming family vacation to the Rocky Mountains. Jack and Diane are the parents, and they are both in their 30s. They have two children. Brian is 15 years old, and Betsy is 8 years old. Diane doesn’t know it yet, but she’s also about three weeks pregnant with a third child. As they are all discussing the trip, Betsy suggests that they go on a helicopter tour of the mountains like the one that she saw on TV. Jack and Diane tell Betsy that they can’t afford that kind of trip this year, but they give Betsy a travel guidebook and tell her that she could pick out an activity for the family that costs less than $100. Brian tells his parents that he went online to one of the travel websites and plotted out several different routes for driving to their destination. He shows them how he compared different ways of getting there (distance, time of travelling, and landmarks), and explains that the route that he planned was a combination of shortest time of travelling but with a few deviations to see some interesting places. Betsy thinks this is a great idea so that the car doesn’t get bored on the way there! 173. What would you expect to find if you were to compare Brian’s and Betsy’s brains for age-related differences? a. Brian has a fully developed prefrontal cortex. b. Betsy has a fully developed prefrontal cortex. c. Betsy has more white matter and less grey matter. d. Brian has more white matter and less grey matter. 174. What is the term for the close, emotional bond of affection between infant and caregiver? a. identification b. imprinting c. dependency

d. attachment

175. When Teresa’s mother hides her favourite doll under a blanket, Teresa acts as if it no longer exists, and she

makes no attempt to look for it. Which of Piaget’s stages can you infer that Teresa is in, based on this information? a. sensorimotor b. formal operational c. preoperational d. concrete operational 176. What is one of the main criticisms of projective tests? a. More effort is needed to respond to them than in the case of self-report inventories. b. They are deceptive attempts to get at the unconscious. c. There is inadequate evidence for the reliability of projective measures. d. Their accuracy depends on the order in which the stimuli are presented. 177. Which identity phase is characterized by having a sense of self and direction after consideration of alternative

possibilities? a. achievement c. moratorium

b. foreclosure d. diffusion

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 178. What is a developmental norm? a. the age at which an average child achieves a skill b. the mean age at which children achieve a skill c. the median age at which children achieve a skill d. the age at which most children achieve a skill 179. A child sees his mother crying and brings her his own favourite teddy bear to comfort her. What is this child

demonstrating about his cognitive development? a. animism b. egocentrism c. centration d. irreversibility 180. Six-year-old Sidney thought all dogs were big, like his dog, until he saw his friend’s new Chihuahua. Which of

Piaget’s processes is illustrated by the change in Sidney’s understanding of dogs? a. assimilation b. reversibility c. object permanence d. accommodation 181. Which basic characteristic is developed in the first stage of development (birth to one year), according to

Erikson? a. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. initiative versus guilt

b. trust versus mistrust d. industry versus inferiority

182. Imagine that you have just read the results from a research study that investigated patterns of attachment

during infancy. In 100 parent–infant dyads, hardly any of the infants showed evidence of an avoidant attachment pattern. Based on previous research, in which of the following countries did this study likely take place? a. Japan b. United States c. Germany d. Canada 183. What are developmental changes? a. behavioural changes that take place as people mature b. biological changes that are predetermined based on genotype c. changes in social behaviour that indicate underlying cognitive abilities d. biological and behavioural changes that occur across the life span 184. Which of the following is the most common strategy for dealing with death in Western society? a. avoidance b. to become depression c. to worry

d. emotional bonding

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 185. Ruby is an active infant who appears to be somewhat high-strung, and who protests loudly every time her

parents try to change her routine in any way. What type of temperament does Ruby have, using the temperament categories outlined by Thomas and Chess? a. easy b. difficult c. uninhibited d. slow-to-warm-up 186. Which area of the brain appears to be the last to fully mature? a. visual cortex b. limbic system c. prefrontal cortex

d. parietal lobes

187. Kara takes her 1-year-old son, Delaney, to visit a day care centre where she plans to enrol him. Delaney

appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore the playroom, even though Kara is close by. When his mom leaves the room to fill out some forms, Delaney becomes extremely upset. When Kara returns, he clings to her leg but does not calm down and continues to sob. What type of attachment relationship does this example illustrate? a. secure b. disorganized-disoriented c. avoidant d. anxious-ambivalent 188. In which of the following ways are Erikson and Piaget’s theories similar? a. Both seek to uncover cognitive aspects of development. b. Both emphasize the role of culture and the social environment. c. Both theories consist of relatively discrete stages. d. Both focus on development throughout the entire life span. 189. Which of the following is most likely to decline in the later years? a. procedural memory b. speed in processing information c. problem-solving ability

d. intellectual accomplishment

190. Complete the following analogy: Maturation is to Piaget as apprenticeship is to _____________? a. Vygotsky b. Freud c. Ainsworth

d. Harlow

191. Jocelyn is 25 years old, and she feels very insecure about some of the personal and career choices she has

made so far. Consequently, at this point in her life, she is unwilling to form a serious, committed relationship with another person. What will happen to Jocelyn based on Erikson’s theory? a. She will develop a sense of isolation. b. She will become self-indulgent and self-absorbed. c. She will develop feelings of inferiority and doubt. d. She will experience feelings of despair and bitterness.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 192. What is the term for the tendency to focus on just one feature of a problem while neglecting other important

aspects? a. reification c. centration

b. assimilation d. object impermanence

193. Dr. Stone is conducting a study in a large Canadian city to determine whether moderate prenatal malnutrition

is a risk factor for developmental delays in children. What difficulty will Dr. Stone face, when evaluating the results of her research? a. Participants will likely be unable to answer questions about their food consumption. b. It will be difficult to find a large enough sample size, because moderate malnutrition is rare. c. Malnutrition will be confounded with other factors associated with poverty or substance abuse. d. Developmental delays are notoriously difficult to define and measure. 194. If a child in the preoperational stage believes that a car is moving because she is in it, what would Piaget call

this type of thinking? a. egocentrism b. centration c. conservation d. reversibility 195. At which level of moral development is a person who objects to war on the basis of higher moral principles

and a personal code of ethics? a. unconventional b. postconventional c. preconventional d. conventional 196. A 5-year-old boy tells you that his kindergarten class has more boys than children. What does this example

illustrate about the child’s cognitive development? a. He cannot handle hierarchical classification problems. b. He cannot yet solve problems involving conservation of number. c. He dislikes girls. d. He fails to understand the concept of reversibility. 197. Paula is meeting her granddaughter Elizabeth for the first time. When the parents hand Elizabeth to her,

Elizabeth smiles and offers no resistance to being held by a stranger. Paula is delighted and says, “She’s such an easy, good little baby!” In this example, Paula is making an observation about which of the following? a. Elizabeth’s personality b. Elizabeth’s temperament c. Elizabeth’s adjustment d. Elizabeth’s attachment 198. What will determine whether a behaviour is right or wrong when someone is using conventional moral

reasoning? a. personal principles c. society’s laws

b. potential rewards d. risk of punishment

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 199. Preschoolers generally do not recognize that if 8 – 5 = 3, then 3 + 5 = 8. Which characteristic of their thought

causes this error? a. centration b. irreversibility c. egocentrism d. animism 200. Gary is an active infant who always seems to be happy. He has a regular schedule, and his parents know that

he will sleep through the night without waking, even when he stays overnight with his grandparents. Which type of temperament does Gary have, based on Thomas and Chess’s categories? a. difficult b. easy c. uninhibited d. slow-to-warm-up 201. Piaget proposed four stages of cognitive development. What is NOT one of his stages? a. sensorimotor b. formal operational c. preoperational

d. postoperational

202. Which Piagetian process is responsible for a baby’s eventual modification of the sucking reflex, depending on

whether the stimulus is a nipple or a pacifier? a. accommodation b. acquisition c. assimilation d. adaptation 203. The local school board in Middletown has decided to introduce standardized assessment tests for all students

in Grade 6. The test has separate sections for math and language. What should you expect, based on the research into gender differences in cognitive abilities? a. Male students will score higher than the female students on both sections. b. Female students will score higher than the male students on the math section. c. Female students will score higher than the male students on both sections. d. Female students will score higher than the male students on the language section. 204. What is NOT a risk associated with smoking cigarettes during pregnancy? a. increased risk for sudden infant death syndrome b. increased risk for miscarriage, stillbirth, or prematurity c. increased risk for microcephaly in the newborn d. increased risk of psychological disorders later in life 205. If the phrase “out of sight is out of mind” could be correctly applied to a child, this would indicate which of

the following? a. failure of conservation c. irreversibility

b. centration d. failure of object permanence

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 206. Which piece of evidence supports a more modern understanding of maturation? a. Even babies who are born deaf will babble. b. Children who are carried everywhere will walk later than average. c. Children who were born premature are at risk for a variety of cognitive difficulties. d. Development follows a cephalocaudal trend. 207. Why is the concrete operational stage said to be “concrete”? a. An object must be present for the child to recognize its existence. b. The child attributes human qualities to concrete objects. c. Facts are taken to be set in stone, not to be given up easily. d. Children can perform operations only on tangible objects and actual events. 208. Which criticism is associated with each of Piaget’s cognitive stages, Erikson’s psychosocial stages, and

Kohlberg’s stage theory of moral development? a. People are often functioning at more than one “stage” at the same time, suggesting that stages are not sequential. b. Progress through stages is universal, which suggests that culture and learning have little effect. c. Stages described by the theorists are not valid categories because they are not associated with particular abilities or skills. d. Stage theories focus on individual differences rather than common developmental patterns. 209. Which of the following does NOT belong with the others, in relation to age? a. postconventional moral reasoning b. autonomy versus shame c. development of secondary sex characteristics d. formal operational 210. In early adulthood, which psychosocial crisis is based on establishing close, personal relationships with

others? a. integrity versus despair c. intimacy versus isolation

b. identity versus confusion d. generativity versus self-absorption

211. Jenna is a first-year university student who signs up to participate in a study over the summer to earn some

extra money. She is told that she will be contacted twice a year over the duration of her undergraduate career to complete a survey on the quality of her “university experience.” Which of the following kinds of study designs is being described? a. sequential design b. within-subjects design c. cross-sectional design d. longitudinal design

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 212. Dr. Stein is a proponent of Erikson’s theory of personality development. He is currently writing a paper that

explains that secure attachment develops when the child experiences a predictable relationship with parents that includes plenty of loving behaviour. The child learns that the world is a safe place and to have faith in others. If a child experiences an unpredictable, dangerous, or unloving environment, then the child learns to be wary and pessimistic. Which of the following years of life is Dr. Stein writing about? a. 0–1 b. 2–3 c. 3–6 d. 6–11 213. During which stage of development do the heart, spine, and brain emerge? a. placental b. postnatal c. embryonic

d. fetal

214. What is a major qualification of the research findings on gender differences? a. Most of the research has been conducted on white middle-class children. b. The data are indicative of group differences and tell us little about individuals. c. The findings are based on only a few studies and are therefore not very representative of the

population. d. There is wide variation from study to study in how the variables have been operationalized. 215. Bob is asked, “Do you have a brother?” He replies, “Yes.” “What’s his name?” “Joe.” “Does Joe have a

brother?” Bob answers, “No.” Which stage of cognitive development is Bob most likely in? a. sensorimotor b. concrete operational c. formal d. preoperational 216. What is considered a major strength of projective tests? a. substantial evidence for their validity b. consistency of the scores provided c. difficulty for a subject to engage in deliberate deception d. high degree of standardization in administration and scoring 217. Which of the following does NOT belong with the others, in relation to age? a. babbling b. separation anxiety c. gradual mastery of object permanence

d. postconventional moral reasoning

218. Medical professionals sometimes divide pregnancies into three equal time periods called trimesters (each of

which is three months long). Using this terminology, the embryonic stage occurs during which trimester? a. the first trimester b. the second trimester c. the second and third trimesters d. all three trimesters

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 219. Why are infants so cute and appealing to adults, according to Bowlby? a. because we are attached to them, we perceive them as appealing b. because we reinforce their actions that we find appealing c. so that we will become attached to them and provide care d. so that we are rewarded for our caring behaviours 220. Which factor seems to be most important for attachment, based on evidence from Harlow’s studies of

attachment between infant monkeys and their substitute mothers? a. providing protection b. providing food c. providing auditory feedback d. providing comfort 221. Imagine a study that is based on the work of Harry Harlow. In this study, researchers present young monkeys

with two artificial surrogate mothers. One was a bare wire cylinder but held a feeding bottle. The other was a wire cylinder, covered in soft terry cloth, but with no feeding bottle. Which of the following would you expect is most likely in terms of the monkey’s attachment? a. The young monkeys will show evidence of attachment to the bare wire mother. b. The young monkeys will show evidence of attachment to the terry cloth mother. c. The young monkeys will show no evidence of attachment to either artificial surrogate. d. The young monkeys will show evidence of attachment to both surrogate mothers. 222. Which level of moral development are you at if you join your friends in a protest against nuclear power

primarily because you want their approval, rather than because of any strong conviction you have about nuclear power? a. conventional b. unconventional c. postconventional d. preconventional 223. Brock was not sure what he wanted to do while he was in college, so he talked to the career counsellors last

year. His profile showed a strong interest in both medicine and animals, so he got a part-time job at the local humane society. He also checked the requirements for veterinary school, and he has now completed six of the courses required for the veterinary program. He is confident that this is the ideal career for him. What identity status does this represent according to James Marcia? a. moratorium b. diffusion c. achievement d. foreclosure 224. Who was the Russian developmental psychologist who highlighted the contribution of the social context,

culture, and social interaction to the cognitive development of children? a. Lev Vygotsky b. Maria Montessori c. Jean Piaget d. Albert Bandura

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 225. Shawn is concerned with how he compares to his peer group. For example, he is always trying to kick the

football farther than his friends, and he constantly wonders if he is doing as well in school as the other boys in his Grade 2 class. In which stage is Shawn, according to Erikson? a. initiative versus guilt b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. industry versus inferiority d. identity versus role confusion 226. Dr. Goldberg explains that a secure attachment develops when the child experiences a predictable

relationship with parents that includes plenty of loving behaviour. The child learns that the world is a safe place and learns to trust easily. If a child experiences an unpredictable, dangerous, or unloving environment, then the child learns to be wary and untrusting of other people. Dr. Goldberg’s theory is closest to that of which of the following theorists? a. Jean Piaget b. Lev Vygotsky c. Erik Erikson d. Harry Harlow 227. Malik’s mother asks if he wants his sandwich in one piece or cut into two pieces. Malik asks her to keep it in

one piece, because he isn’t hungry enough to eat two pieces. What does this answer suggest about Malik’s cognitive development? a. He has not yet mastered object permanence. b. He cannot assimilate changes in the shape of the sandwich. c. He does not yet understand conservation. d. He cannot accommodate changes in the shape of the sandwich. 228. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, can be transmitted prenatally through the placenta, during delivery, or

through breastfeeding. Although it was much higher in the 1990s, improvements in medical care have reduced the rate of transmission from HIV-positive mothers to their babies to approximately how much? a. 25 percent b. 10 percent c. 5 percent d. less than 1 percent 229. During elementary school, children gradually acquire the ability to take the perspective of others. What does

this mean? a. They become less egocentric. b. They become less imitative. c. They come to appreciate the logic of relations. d. They develop the ability to classify objects. 230. Bess is an artist who draws abstract designs. She finds that each person who looks at the drawings sees something different in them. Which personality test is most similar to Bess’s drawings? a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) b. the Big Five scale c. Rorschach test d. NEO Personality Inventory

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 231. John approaches problems systematically, considering various solutions and the consequences of each,

before he decides on the implementation of any one solution. Which of the following levels of cognitive development is John probably at? a. concrete operational b. postoperational c. formal operational d. preoperational 232. A newborn who has been breast-fed may also suck reflexively on a bottle. Which of Piaget’s processes is

illustrated in this example? a. acquisition b. accommodation c. adaptation d. assimilation 233. Ilona was just born and is considered a full-term baby. This means that she was born in which of the following

times? a. at 35 or more weeks of gestation c. at less than 40 weeks of gestation

b. between 37 and 42 weeks of gestation d. at 40 or more weeks of gestation

234. As a ball of clay is squeezed and shaped, an adult is aware that it retains the same volume. What is the term

for this Piagetian principle? a. conservation b. assimilation c. object permanence d. irreversibility 235. What is the essential difference between sex and gender? a. Sex is cognitive; gender is behavioural. b. Sex is biologically determined, while gender is culturally determined. c. Sex is culturally determined, while gender is biologically determined. d. Sex is behavioural; gender is cognitive. 236. Anne is 5 years old, and she likes to help with jobs around the house. Tonight, when she was clearing the

dishes from the table, she dropped a stack of plates and broke them all. Her father scolded her and told her that she could help more by staying out of the way and letting her older brothers clear the table. What would Erikson suggest that Anne is likely to develop if her father’s reaction is typical of their interactions? a. feelings of inferiority b. a sense of initiative c. feelings of guilt d. a general sense of mistrust 237. Eight-year-old Eric watches as you flatten one of two equal-sized balls of clay into a pancake. Eric says they

both still have the same amount of clay. When he is asked how he knows that the ball and the pancake have the same amount of clay, he points out that the pancake could once again be rolled up into a ball. What does Eric understand? a. reversibility b. decentration c. preoperationalism d. egocentrism

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 238. What do nativists do, with respect to cognitive abilities? a. They strive to understand the adaptive significance of abilities that appear to be prewired. b. They attempt to find out which abilities are prewired, without making any assumptions about why these

abilities might be innate. c. They assert that abilities that are prewired will be less prone to habituation or dishabituation. d. They suggest that infants attend more to novel events because these events require more time for perceptual processing. 239. Byron is planning to ask his parents if he can borrow their car on Friday night. He is thinking about all the

possible reasons they might bring up for not letting him use the car, and thinking of a logical reply to each of these possible objections. What do Byron’s thought processes illustrate, based on Piaget’s model of cognitive development? a. the use of concrete operational thought b. postconventional reasoning c. egocentric reasoning d. the use of formal operational thought 240. Which of Erikson’s stages is associated with finding and making commitments to society and future

generations? a. integrity versus despair c. generativity versus self-absorption

b. identity versus role confusion d. intimacy versus isolation

241. You and a friend are discussing the importance of fathers in children’s overall development. Your friend states,

“If we fail to promote increased involvement of fathers in the parenting process, then we must accept the inevitable breakdown of other social values.” What type of reasoning fallacy is this? a. a weak analogy b. circular logic c. alternative explanations d. a false dichotomy 242. Which statement best describes cross-cultural development of motor skills? a. Rates vary somewhat across cultures, suggesting that genetic factors can slow or accelerate early

motor development. b. Rates do not vary across cultures, suggesting that genetic factors alone determine early motor development. c. Rates do not vary within cultures, suggesting that environmental factors alone determine early motor development. d. Rates vary somewhat across cultures, suggesting that environmental factors can slow or accelerate early motor development. 243. Why is it difficult to assess the effects of moderate malnutrition in North America? a. Moderate malnutrition is confounded with other risk factors. b. Moderate malnutrition can’t be operationally defined. c. Moderate malnutrition is so rare that it is hard to study. d. Moderate malnutrition occurs in more isolated geographical areas. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 244. As part of her medical checkups during pregnancy, Connie is given a rare chance to see a photo of her

developing child. It is healthy and thriving, though it is currently only one centimetre in length. Legs, feet, hands, fingers, and toes are all readily visible in the image. What stage of development is this most likely to be? a. zygotic stage b. embryonic stage c. fetal stage d. germinal stage 245. In the middle childhood years, what tends to be associated with the children who have the best social skills

and the richest friendship networks? a. They have no same-sex siblings. b. They had secure attachments during infancy. c. They had several siblings close to their own age. d. They started full-time daycare before the age of two. 246. What patterns do children show according to neo-Piagetian research on progression through Piaget’s

developmental stages? a. They show a linear progression through the stages and will spend a roughly equal amount of time in each stage. b. They may jump from stage to stage, initially showing high levels of functioning and then temporarily regressing back to a lower level of cognitive functioning. c. They often show no evidence of object permanence until after they have mastered conservation. d. They sometimes show evidence of being at higher and lower stages at the same time. 247. What has been documented with respect to maturation and milestones? a. While the order of development milestones varies a lot, rates are fairly universal across children. b. The order of development milestones varies substantially from individual to individual. c. The order of development milestones varies from culture to culture. d. Most children go through roughly the same sequence of development milestones. 248. What is assumed by stage theories of development? a. Progress through the sequence of stages is not related to age. b. There are few, if any, discontinuities in development. c. Environmental circumstances can sometimes cause individuals to skip stages early on and return to

them later. d. Individuals progress through specified stages in a particular order because each stage builds on the previous stage. 249. Erik Erikson’s developmental stages are organized around potential turning points. What are these turning

points called? a. fixation points c. psychosexual crises

b. psychosocial crises d. developmental tasks

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 250. What becomes increasingly critical as children grow older and acquire specialized motor skills? a. experience b. nutrition c. genetic predisposition

d. maturation

251. A child who knows how to tie shoelaces would probably find it relatively easy to learn how to tie a ribbon on

a gift. What would Piaget call this thinking process? a. accommodation b. maturation c. assimilation d. operationalization 252. What do children begin to do during the formal operational period of cognitive development, according to

Piaget? a. think in terms of abstract principles and hypothetical possibilities b. acquire the concepts of conservation and reversibility c. think primarily in terms of concrete objects or situations d. understand the nature of hierarchical classification 253. What are projective tests such as the Rorschach test designed to assess? a. your behaviour patterns b. your mental abilities c. your characteristic concerns, conflicts, and desires d. the way others perceive you 254. What is the term for physical features that are associated with being male or female, but NOT directly

associated with reproduction? a. nonsexual characteristics c. tertiary sexual characteristics

b. secondary sexual characteristics d. primary sexual characteristics

255. Young Marion and her father are being observed in the strange situation procedure. When her father leaves

the room, Marion is somewhat upset, but stops crying when he returns. She walks over to him for a hug, and seems to be easily comforted. Which of the following types of attachment does this demonstrate? a. avoidant b. secure c. disorganized-disoriented d. anxious-ambivalent

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1

The Smith Family The Smith family is sitting around the table, talking about their upcoming family vacation to the Rocky Mountains. Jack and Diane are the parents, and they are both in their 30s. They have two children. Brian is 15 years old, and Betsy is 8 years old. Diane doesn’t know it yet, but she’s also about three weeks pregnant with a third child. As they are all discussing the trip, Betsy suggests that they go on a helicopter tour of the mountains like the one that she saw on TV. Jack and Diane tell Betsy that they can’t afford that kind of trip this year, but they give Betsy a travel guidebook and tell her that she could pick out an activity for the family that costs less than $100. Brian tells his parents that he went online to one of the travel websites and plotted out several different routes for driving to their destination. He shows them how he compared different ways of getting there (distance, time of travelling, and landmarks), and explains that the route that he planned was a combination of shortest time of travelling but with a few deviations to see some interesting places. Betsy thinks this is a great idea so that the car doesn’t get bored on the way there! 256. What is the term for Betsy’s concern about the “feelings” of the car? a. conservation b. animism c. egocentrism d. centration 257. Which group would be most likely to have visuospatial skills or levels of aggression that are higher than

expected for their gender? a. girls exposed to high levels of prenatal estrogen b. boys exposed to high levels of prenatal estrogen c. girls exposed to high levels of prenatal androgens d. boys exposed to high levels of prenatal androgens 258. One-year-old Tommy is extremely distressed whenever his mother leaves him yet resists her attempts to

comfort him when she returns. What type of attachment does Tommy likely have with his mother? a. avoidant b. none c. anxious-ambivalent d. secure 259. What is the sex difference associated with the onset of puberty? a. It begins approximately four years earlier for girls than for boys. b. It begins approximately four years earlier for boys than for girls. c. It begins approximately two years earlier for girls than for boys. d. It begins approximately two years earlier for boys than for girls. 260. Females developing wider hips and males developing facial hair are examples of which of the following? a. secondary sexual characteristics b. tertiary sexual characteristics c. peripheral sexual characteristics

d. primary sexual characteristics

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 261. Andrea is 13 years old and has just experienced her first menstruation. What is this stage of adolescent

development called? a. adrenarche c. secondary puberty

b. pubescence d. menarche

262. What is the structure that allows oxygen and nutrients to pass from the mother to the fetus? a. placenta b. uterus c. zygote

d. amnion

263. You ask a 3-year-old why the sky is blue; she says it is because blue is her favourite colour. What would

Piaget call this type of thinking? a. egocentric b. irreversible c. animistic d. operational 264. What is associated with early maturation in both males and females? a. superiority of peer relations b. higher levels of aggression and risky behaviour c. higher levels of moral reasoning d. greater risk for eating disorders 265. Krystal thought that all she needed to do to earn an “A” was show up for class and pay attention, like she

had in middle school. In her first year of high school, she got Cs in all her classes because she didn’t study enough. Which Piagetian process would allow Krystal to change her understanding of what is needed to succeed in school? a. accommodation b. reversibility c. egocentrism d. assimilation 266. What is the primary factor that determines whether prenatal exposure to maternal illness will cause damage to

a developing organism? a. whether the unborn child is male or female b. at what stage of pregnancy the mother contracts the disease c. the severity of the mother’s symptoms d. the condition of the mother’s overall health 267. How do you think an operant theorist like Skinner would explain defence mechanisms? Give several examples.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 268. Research indicates that there are genuine (although often small) gender differences in verbal ability,

mathematical ability, spatial ability, aggression, and nonverbal communication. There is also some evidence that biological differences between the sexes in hormone levels and brain organization contribute to some or all these behavioural differences. Adopt a functionalist/evolutionary perspective and discuss why these biological differences and their consequent behavioural differences might exist.

269. Psychodynamic theories have been criticized for their lack of empirical evidence and poor testability. Are there some of Freud’s, Jung’s, and Adler’s ideas that would be easier to test than others? How might you go about designing research studies to test some of these ideas?

270. Discuss ways in which each of the major perspectives on personality has influenced some aspect of everyday life in modern society.

271. According to Carol Gilligan (1982), Kohlberg’s theory describes moral development from the “morality of

justice,” which tends to predominate in males, but neglects to consider the “morality of care,” which tends to predominate in females. From the justice perspective, moral decisions are based on considerations of fairness and equal treatment for all. From the care perspective, moral decisions are based on considerations of meeting individuals’ personal needs and preserving relationships. Do research findings on gender differences support Gilligan’s views?

272. On first learning about the different theoretical perspectives on personality, many people like the views of the humanistic theorists best. Why do you think this is? Are these reasons sound, scientific criteria for evaluating a theoretical perspective on personality?

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 273. Describe the four stages of cognitive development proposed by Jean Piaget, and discuss the major

developmental changes associated with each of the stages.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. d 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. d 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. c 26. b

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 27. b 28. c 29. b 30. c 31. c 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. d 38. c 39. a 40. c 41. d 42. b 43. b 44. b 45. c 46. c 47. d 48. a 49. a 50. d 51. c 52. a 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 55. a 56. c 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. d 61. a 62. c 63. c 64. c 65. d 66. c 67. c 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. b 72. c 73. b 74. b 75. a 76. c 77. c 78. b 79. d 80. c 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 83. a 84. b 85. d 86. b 87. d 88. d 89. d 90. b 91. a 92. d 93. d 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. d 98. a 99. c 100. c 101. a 102. c 103. d 104. d 105. b 106. a 107. b 108. a 109. c 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 111. c 112. d 113. a 114. a 115. c 116. b 117. a 118. d 119. c 120. c 121. d 122. c 123. d 124. d 125. b 126. a 127. b 128. a 129. c 130. a 131. d 132. c 133. a 134. d 135. b 136. d 137. d

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 138. d 139. a 140. d 141. c 142. b 143. d 144. c 145. c 146. a 147. b 148. b 149. c 150. b 151. a 152. b 153. d 154. d 155. c 156. c 157. c 158. c 159. c 160. d 161. b 162. a 163. d 164. c 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 166. c 167. c 168. b 169. c 170. a 171. d 172. d 173. d 174. d 175. a 176. c 177. a 178. c 179. b 180. d 181. b 182. a 183. d 184. a 185. b 186. c 187. d 188. c 189. b 190. a 191. a 192. c 193. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 194. a 195. b 196. a 197. b 198. c 199. b 200. b 201. d 202. a 203. d 204. c 205. d 206. b 207. d 208. a 209. b 210. c 211. d 212. a 213. c 214. b 215. d 216. c 217. d 218. a 219. c 220. d 221. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 222. a 223. c 224. a 225. c 226. c 227. c 228. d 229. a 230. c 231. c 232. d 233. b 234. a 235. b 236. c 237. a 238. b 239. d 240. c 241. d 242. d 243. a 244. b 245. b 246. d 247. d 248. d

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 249. b 250. a 251. c 252. a 253. c 254. b 255. b 256. b 257. c 258. c 259. c 260. a 261. d 262. a 263. a 264. b 265. a 266. b 267. Answers should demonstrate students’ understanding both of several defence mechanisms and of the principles of operant conditioning. In general, an operant theorist would probably explain defence mechanisms as behaviours that one has learned to engage in when confronted by anxiety-arousing stimuli because those behaviours have led to anxiety reduction. This is an example of negative reinforcement. Defence mechanisms might also be explained as examples of escape or avoidance behaviours. 268. Possibilities: Aggressiveness and spatial ability might have served the (larger and more muscular) male in his role as

provider and protector, while the female bore and reared the young. Communicative abilities (verbal ability and nonverbal communication) could conceivably have been useful to females in their roles as preservers of family and other important relationships and would be somewhat more useful for smaller or more vulnerable women who may not be able to use size and strength to their advantage in conflicts. Mathematical ability is a tougher one, but because it is strongly correlated with visuospatial skill, it should be thought of as a general adaptation rather than one that is specific to math.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 269. Answers should reveal students’ understanding of various research approaches as well as several psychodynamic concepts or hypotheses. Answers should suggest plausible ways to test these concepts or hypotheses. Some starting points might include the following: Using the interview or projective measures, you might be able to test Freud’s hypothesis that sexual and aggressive drives are more often frustrated than other basic, biological drives. The same means could be used to probe for the operation of defence mechanisms. Modern longitudinal research techniques combined with sophisticated behavioural coding might yield evidence relevant to Freud’s and Adler’s assertions about childhood experiences moulding adult personality. Jung’s basic approach to testing his hypothesis about the existence of a collective unconscious could be improved on. The presence of archetypes in the unconscious of the individual could be probed using projective techniques. If commonalties across individuals were found, then modern anthropological and archaeological techniques could be used to search for corresponding symbols in other cultures and time periods. The concepts of introvert and extravert have been fairly easy to test using psychological tests. 270. Answers should demonstrate sound understanding of the broad principles underlying each theoretical approach, and hypotheses about how these principles have influenced everyday life should be well reasoned. Some possibilities include the following: Psychodynamic: A tremendous number of notions that comprise “common knowledge” in our society derive from this perspective, especially Freud’s work. These include the beliefs that childhood experiences influence later personality and psychological health, that dreams are meaningful, and that the contents of the unconscious can influence behaviour. Behavioural: Behaviour-modification techniques are widely used to change habits in oneself and others. Our criminal justice system seems to be based on a belief in the effectiveness of punishment in controlling behaviour. Advertising counts on the effectiveness of modelling to help sell products. Humanistic: The notion of the self is prominent in our society. Most people agree that high levels of self-esteem are important, especially in children, and people sometimes go to great lengths to engender high self-esteem in themselves and others. We greatly value the notion of free choice. Self-actualization is a highly regarded and much sought-after achievement. Biological: The idea that personality traits are strongly influenced by heredity has become more popular, especially in the wake of the twin research reported in the chapter. It has become more acceptable to hold this intuitively appealing view. 271. Good answers would explore possibilities for how the established behavioural differences between the genders

discussed in the application might lead males to considerations of justice and fairness and females to considerations of individual need and preservation of relationships. A well-rounded answer would also consider how differential socialization practices could contribute to the gender differences that Gilligan posits. 272. Reasons for people’s preference for humanistic views will vary, though a common reason will probably be the humanistic emphasis on free will and choice. More important than the reasons students give for people’s preferring humanistic notions are their views on the soundness of these reasons as scientific criteria for evaluating theories. Since the scientific approach places a premium on objectivity, merely “liking” the idea of free choice, for instance, should be recognized as an inadequate evaluative criterion. In a good answer, the student will separate preferences from sound, scientific criteria, and recognize that an evaluative argument should be based on the latter.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol 1 273. Answers to this question should include the correct names for each of the stages, and the ages that are associated

with each stage in Piaget’s theory: sensorimotor (0–2 years), preoperational (2–7 years), concrete operational (7– 11 years), and formal operational (11+ years). In addition, the key accomplishments and key limitations at each stage should be included. During the sensorimotor stage, object permanence emerges. During the preoperational stage, children show evidence of centration, irreversibility, and egocentrism. During the concrete operational stage, children develop the ability to solve conservation problems and hierarchical classification problems, and the limitations of the preoperational period (egocentrism, centration, and irreversibility) decline or disappear. Finally, during the formal operational stage, children become capable of abstract reasoning.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. According to Erik Erikson’s theory, if an elementary school-age child does poorly in school, and does not get along well with classmates, what is she likely to develop a sense of? a. mistrust b. inferiority c. shame and doubt d. industry 2. How long do people typically struggle with the progression of Alzheimer’s disease? a. 1–2 years b. 3–6 years c. 8–10 years d. 10–15 years 3. Two short, fat glasses with the same amount of water are placed in front of a group of children. The children watch as water is poured from one short, fat glass into a tall, skinny glass. The children are then asked, “Does the tall, skinny glass have the same, more, or less water than the short, fat glass?” Which of the following types of problem does this illustrate? a. sensorimotor problem b. object permanence problem c. animism problem d. conservation problem 4. Which type of study is most sensitive to developmental changes? a. cross-sectional b. naturalistic observation c. case study d. longitudinal 5. What is the duration of the preoperational stage of cognitive development? a. birth–age 2 b. ages 2–7 c. ages 7–11 d. age 11 onward 6. Which of the following principles suggests that physical properties of substances, such as volume, number, and mass, remain constant despite changes in their shape or appearance? a. centration b. conservation c. egocentrism d. object permanence 7. Carrie is pregnant, and her fetus has just reached the threshold of viability. What does this mean? a. If born now, the baby will not survive. b. The baby is very likely to survive if born at this stage of development. c. The baby has a 50 percent chance of survival at this point if born prematurely. d. The baby can now survive if born prematurely, though the probability of survival is still small. 8. Which of the following is NOT a physical change characteristic of adult aging? a. a decrease in hearing sensitivity b. a decrease in brain weight after age 60 c. an increase in visual problems such as farsightedness d. an increase in body weight after age 60

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 9. Jeremy’s father and two uncles are all dentists. Jeremy first decided he wanted to be a dentist when he spent afternoons at his father’s office as a young child. Jeremy has not considered any other potential careers. Which identity status is illustrated by this example? a. identity achievement b. identity moratorium c. identity foreclosure d. identity diffusion 10. Zack is an infant in a research study. The researchers have shown Zack a picture of the same toy over and over again, on a computer screen. What can you expect if Zack’s response to this procedure is typical? a. He will habituate to the presentation of the picture and will become distressed. b. He will dishabituate to the presentation of the picture and will become distressed. c. His heart and respiration rates will increase, and he will stop looking at the picture. d. His heart rate and respiration rates will decrease, and he will stop looking at the picture. 11. In Harlow’s studies of attachment in infant monkeys, which “mother” did the monkeys seek out when frightened or otherwise distressed? a. the foster-mother b. the cloth-covered mother c. the natural mother d. the feeding mother 12. Jean Piaget asserted that the child’s experiences in the world, in combination with maturation, together influence the child’s cognitive development. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by this example? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Our experience of the world is highly subjective. 13. If the developing organism is about 2.5 cm long and has already developed most of the vital organs and bodily structures, which stage of prenatal development is just ending? a. embryonic stage b. germinal stage c. zygote stage d. fetal stage 14. What is one piece of evidence that children’s understanding of the mind seems to change dramatically between the ages of three and four (on average)? a. They understand that others have desires and emotions. b. They develop object permanence. c. They develop conservation. d. They begin to understand that people can hold false beliefs. 15. Which type of attachment are infants more likely to exhibit when their mothers are inconsistent or insensitive in responding to their infants? a. separation attachment b. especially strong attachment c. anxious-ambivalent attachment d. secure attachment

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 16. Which pair of theoretical perspectives asserts that certain basic cognitive abilities are biologically built into, or prewired into, the neural makeup of humans? a. humanistic and evolutionary perspectives b. nativist and evolutionary perspectives c. humanistic and behavioural perspectives d. nativist and behavioural perspectives 17. Which of the following is consistent with a stage theory approach to child development? a. A child who is at one stage will be distinctly different from a child in a different stage. b. Children will reach all stages but may attain particular stages in any order. c. Children change very gradually and there are no clear transition points between stages. d. The age of a child is independent of the developmental stage that child is in. 18. When is the germinal stage of prenatal development? a. the first three months after conception b. the first two weeks after conception c. from two weeks until the end of the second month after conception d. from two months after conception through birth 19. What type of temperament would you say that one-year-old Jasmina has if the only information you have concerning her is that she is wary or hesitant when having a new experience? a. a slow-to-warm-up temperament b. an easy temperament c. a difficult temperament d. an anxious temperament 20. In habituation–dishabituation studies examining infant cognitive abilities, how did researchers present the addition or subtraction “problems” to the infants? a. handing the infant objects one at a time b. by showing the infants groups of objects that are covered and uncovered by a screen c. by showing the infants objects on a table-top d. using mathematical statements of the problem (for example “5 + 5 = 10”) 21. In which area of the brain does the greatest amount of myelinization and synaptic pruning occur during adolescence? a. motor cortex b. amygdala c. cerebellum d. prefrontal cortex 22. When is the embryonic stage of prenatal development? a. the first two weeks after conception b. the first three months after conception c. from two weeks until the end of the second month after conception d. from two months after conception through birth

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 23. Joyce was severely malnourished during her pregnancy. Which risk is most likely for her child? a. complications at birth and neurological deficits b. heart defects and irritability c. malformations of the arms and legs d. attention deficit disorder and death from sudden infant death syndrome 24. Which of the following groups has the highest rate of attempted suicides? a. adolescent males b. adult males c. adolescent females d. adult females 25. Ahlam is 10 years old and has serious emotional and behaviour problems that require counselling. Based on research conducted by Thomas and Chess, what type of temperament would Ahlam have been most likely to display in infancy? a. an easy temperament b. a slow-to-warm-up temperament c. an ambivalent temperament d. a difficult temperament 26. When children reach Piaget’s formal operational period of cognitive development, what kind of reasoning are they capable of? a. moral b. inductive c. preconventional d. hypothetico-deductive 27. You’re conducting a study to determine whether children can learn to use a new type of educational software on a touch-screen tablet computer. You try the software in a group of ten-year-olds and a group of eight-yearolds and are surprised to find that the younger children perform better with the new software. You then find out that the younger group had been exposed to touch-screen tablets in the first grade, but the technology wasn’t available when the older group had been in first grade. Which of the following effects has had an impact on your research results? a. cohort effect b. placebo effect c. inhibition d. bias 28. Typically, during which stage of cognitive development are individuals concerned with the crisis of trust versus mistrust? a. concrete operational stage b. preoperational stage c. sensorimotor stage d. formal operational stage 29. Which term is defined as the characteristic mood, activity level, and emotional reactivity of an infant? a. temperament b. personality c. behavioural qualities d. attachment 30. What is the sequence of phases during the approximately nine months of prenatal development? a. germinal, fetal, embryonic b. germinal, embryonic, fetal c. embryonic, germinal, fetal d. fertilization, germinal, fetal 31. Which of the following tends to be exhibited by children who were securely attached as infants? a. gifted cognitive development b. difficulty learning how to share c. resistance to change d. high self-esteem Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 32. During Erik Erikson’s crisis of industry versus inferiority, a child should learn to function well in the broader social structure of the neighbourhood and school. When does this stage occur? a. birth–1 year of age b. 1–3 years of age c. 3–6 years of age d. 6 years of age through puberty 33. What do we call the stage during which sexual functions reach maturity? a. the growth spurt b. pubescence c. puberty d. maturation 34. What did Bowlby assert that adults are programmed by evolutionary forces to do in response to infants and small children? a. Think about them constantly. b. Protect them even if it means dying for them. c. Keep a distance from them so as to not become too attached. d. Be captivated by their behaviour and respond with warmth, love, and protection. 35. What is separation anxiety? a. emotional distress observed in adults suffering from agoraphobia b. emotional distress observed in infants when they are separated from any adult caregiver c. emotional distress rarely seen in infants when they are separated from an attachment figure d. emotional distress seen in infants when they are separated from an attachment figure 36. According to Thomas and Chess’s research on infant temperament, which type of temperament is most common? a. anxious temperament b. difficult temperament c. easy temperament d. slow-to-warm-up temperament 37. At what age does menopause typically occur? a. 12 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 38. Helen is in her late 70s and has had some changes in her cognitive abilities recently. She has a hard time remembering new things, and she has great difficulty with selective attention. She will often start doing something, get distracted, and then forget what she had been doing. Which of the following is consistent with Helen’s recent difficulties? a. Huntington’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Williams’ disease 39. According to Arnett, at which of the following age ranges do a majority of people first indicate that they feel “grown up”? a. 12–17 b. 18–25 c. 26–36 d. 36–55 40. Which stage of cognitive development lasts from approximately age 11 onward? a. concrete operational stage b. sensorimotor stage c. preoperational stage d. formal operational stage Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 41. Ariana finds a wallet on the floor at the store. She decides to turn in the wallet at the lost-and-found because she believes her parents will be proud of her for being honest. Which level of moral development does Ariana’s reasoning reflect? a. the postconventional level b. the conventional level c. the concrete level d. the preconventional level 42. Which pattern of infant attachment is far more common in Japan than in the United States? a. secure attachment b. insecure attachment c. anxious-ambivalent attachment d. avoidant attachment 43. Which statement does NOT accurately describe one of the differences between females and males? a. Females tend to be more sensitive to nonverbal communication than males. b. Females tend to score higher on measures of visual-spatial abilities than males. c. Males tend to exhibit slightly better mathematical abilities than females. d. Females tend to exhibit slightly better verbal skills than males. 44. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the theory of mind? a. It examines how children conceive of another person’s feeling and beliefs. b. It examines the development of children’s understanding about the mind and mental states. c. It examines how children conceive of another person’s thought processes. d. It is an outdated approach and is not generating research currently. 45. Which stage of prenatal development lasts from two months after conception through birth? a. zygote stage b. fetal stage c. embryonic stage d. germinal stage 46. What is the likelihood that a fetus will survive if born at 26 weeks of gestation? a. 0 percent b. 10–20 percent c. 50 percent d. 75 percent 47. How do evolutionary theorists view attachment styles? a. Only secure attachment is adaptive. b. Attachment style enhances survival and reproductive success. c. Attachment is a genetically determined trait that guides development. d. Avoidant attachment is maladaptive. 48. During which stage of prenatal development would the developing organism be most vulnerable to the effects of a toxin or other environmental influence? a. fetal stage b. embryonic stage c. germinal stage d. last two months 49. According to Erik Erikson’s theory, at what developmental stage are individuals faced with the psychosocial crisis of identity versus confusion? a. early adulthood b. elementary-school age c. middle adulthood d. adolescence Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 50. Both Emma and Molly are pregnant. Currently Emma’s pregnancy is in the shortest stage of prenatal development and Molly’s is in the longest stage. Which stages are their pregnancies in? a. Emma’s is germinal; Molly’s is fetal. b. Emma’s is germinal; Molly’s is embryonic. c. Emma’s is embryonic; Molly’s is fetal. d. Emma’s is fetal; Molly’s is germinal. 51. Which of the following is true of most prenatal dangers to the developing fetus? a. They are related to maternal nutrition. b. They are a problem only in developing countries. c. They are preventable. d. They are related to exposure to toxins. 52. Which of the following is true about maternal nutrition? a. It is important for the fetus and neonate but does not have any long-term effects past puberty. b. It is important during pregnancy but not during the breastfeeding period. c. It is associated with muscle strength but not neurological deficits. d. It is important during the breastfeeding period. 53. Which of the following tends to be exhibited by females who were exposed prenatally to abnormally high levels of androgens? a. both more male- and female-typical behaviours than other females b. more female-typical behaviours than other females c. fewer male-typical behaviours than other females d. more male-typical behaviours than other females 54. Forty-seven-year-old Jennifer has recently started tutoring students at the elementary school her own children attended many years ago. She enjoys being around the children and feels a great deal of satisfaction from her tutoring. Which crisis does Jennifer appear to be successfully resolving? a. intimacy versus isolation b. industry versus inferiority c. generativity versus self-absorption d. integrity versus despair 55. Which term is defined as close, emotional bonds of affection that develop between infants and their caregivers? a. temperament b. disinhibition c. bonding d. attachment 56. Five-year-old Stefan gets along well with his parents and siblings, has self-confidence, and believes that he is a good person. Which crisis has Stefan recently resolved? a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. industry versus inferiority c. initiative versus guilt d. trust versus mistrust

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 57. What did Lawrence Kohlberg place the most emphasis on when he presented moral dilemmas to individuals in order to evaluate their level of moral development? a. the level of confidence the individual had in his or her response b. whether the individual gave a “yes” or “no” response c. overt behaviours the individual shows when presented with similar dilemmas in real life d. the explanation the individual gave concerning the reason for his or her response 58. According to Erik Erikson, which crisis or developmental stage will an infant successfully resolve if the infant’s basic biological needs are met by others and sound attachments are formed during the first year of life? a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. industry versus inferiority d. initiative versus guilt 59. Sophia is very worried about the development of her daughter, especially regarding major changes like rolling over, sitting up, and walking. Sophia has been given a list by her pediatrician indicating the median age at which children typically exhibit such abilities. Sophia’s daughter typically exhibits the various abilities approximately one month after the ages noted on the list. What should Sophia’s pediatrician tell her about her concerns? a. Her daughter is still developing at a rate that is within the range of normal. b. Her daughter may have some developmental disabilities. c. Her daughter may be slightly delayed, but so long as she develops each of the skills, it doesn’t matter if she matures a bit late. d. Her daughter is perfectly normal, because the milestones are estimated for males. 60. According to Lawrence Kohlberg, a person who believes that Heinz should steal the drug so his sick wife can live and cook him dinner is reasoning at which level of moral development? a. the concrete level b. the preconventional level c. the postconventional level d. the conventional level 61. Which statement does NOT accurately describe one of the differences between males and females? a. Males tend to score higher on measures of visual-spatial ability than females. b. Males tend to exhibit slightly better mathematical abilities than females. c. Males tend to exhibit slightly better verbal skills than females. d. Males tend to be more aggressive than females. 62. What is a common source of conflict between adolescents and their parents? a. sexuality b. drug and alcohol use c. chores d. politics 63. During which stage of development do children first demonstrate a decline in egocentrism and a mastery of conservation? a. concrete operational stage b. sensorimotor stage c. preoperational stage d. formal operational stage 64. Which of the following is a primary sex characteristic? a. breast growth in females b. facial hair in males c. growth of the penis d. wider hips in females Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 65. Which of the following, during gestation, has been linked to vulnerability to schizophrenia? a. exposure to folic acid b. maternal stress c. smoking d. malnutrition 66. To determine whether early weaning has an influence on later personality, you design a study where you monitor 100 infants from the time they are born until they complete elementary school. What type of study is this? a. cross-sectional study b. experimental study c. naturalistic observation d. longitudinal study 67. Abby is learning how to print her name. When she tries to do it herself, she can manage the first letter, and then she can’t complete any more. Her older sister comes along and helps her out by writing out the letters for Abby to copy. Abby finishes printing her name and runs off to show her Daddy. What term did Vygotsky use for the difference between what Abby could print on her own and what she could print when her sister helped her? a. scaffolding b. the zone of proximal development c. concrete operations d. formal operations 68. In recent decades, what has happened to the age at which individuals marry for the first time? a. It has decreased for both men and women. b. It has increased for men and remained stable for women. c. It has increased for women and remained stable for men. d. It has increased for both men and women. 69. In what stage did Jean Piaget believe that children first become capable of hypothetical thinking? a. concrete operational stage b. formal operational stage c. preoperational stage d. sensorimotor stage 70. Which statements best describes the effect fathers have on the development of their children? a. The presence of the father is essential to the normal development of a child. b. The absence of the father has no effect on the normal development of a child. c. The absence of the father contributes to the normal development of a child. d. The presence of the father contributes to the normal development of a child. 71. Which of the following early developmental factors has been associated with risk of heart disease in adulthood? a. low birth weight b. gestational diabetes c. maternal stress d. heroin exposure 72. As 79-year-old Amir mentally reviews his life, he cannot help smiling to himself. He believes he married and spent over 40 years with the most wonderful woman in the world, helped to raise three fine children, and was successful in his career as an accountant. According to Erik Erikson, what is Amir experiencing? a. generativity b. integrity c. identity d. intimacy

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 73. Which of Jean Piaget’s stages is associated with the period of cognitive development that lasts from approximately birth to age two? a. sensorimotor stage b. concrete operational stage c. preoperational stage d. formal operational stage 74. Two short, fat glasses with the same amount of water are placed in front of a group of children. The children watch as water is poured from one short, fat glass into a tall, skinny glass. The children are then asked, “Does the tall, skinny glass have the same, more, or less water than the short, fat glass?” At what stage of development would a child first be able to correctly answer that the glasses have equal amounts? a. sensorimotor stage b. preoperational stage c. concrete operational stage d. formal operational stage 75. When Gavin’s mother made him a grilled-cheese sandwich for lunch, Gavin complained that he wanted two sandwiches because he was super-hungry. After his mother cut his sandwich in half, Gavin was satisfied that he would have enough to eat. Which stage of cognitive development is Gavin in? a. concrete operational stage b. preoperational stage c. formal operational stage d. sensorimotor stage 76. What is considered to be one weakness of Piaget’s stage theory? a. Piaget seems to have overestimated young children’s cognitive development. b. Children often simultaneously display patterns of thinking that are characteristic of several of Piaget’s stages. c. It accounts for continuity in personality development. d. It generates an enormous amount of research. 77. After considering a number of possible majors and careers, Christi has decided to major in business management and work in advertising. Which identity status is illustrated by this example? a. identity moratorium b. identity achievement c. identity foreclosure d. identity diffusion 78. One-year-old Beth will explore a room when her mother is present. She becomes upset when her mother leaves the room and is quickly calmed when her mother returns. Which type of attachment does Beth display? a. an anxious-ambivalent attachment b. an avoidant attachment c. a disorganized-disoriented attachment d. a secure attachment 79. What has been demonstrated in more modern research examining Piaget’s cognitive stages? a. Children outside of Western cultures do not show evidence of progress through Piaget’s stages. b. Most children do not pass through the stages in the order that Piaget suggested. c. Children likely develop some cognitive skills much earlier than Piaget estimated. d. There is no evidence that children can be in more than one stage at a time.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 80. Carrie is pregnant, and her fetus has just reached the threshold of viability. What does this mean? a. The fetus is fully developed. b. The baby is unlikely to survive if born at this stage of development. c. Carrie is at least eight months pregnant. d. The baby can now survive if born prematurely. 81. Which structure passes oxygen and nutrients from the mother to a developing embryo? a. pupa b. zygote c. amniotic sac d. placenta 82. Which of the following terms is defined as expectations about what is appropriate behaviour for each sex? a. gender roles b. gender stereotypes c. gender differences d. gender behaviours 83. Which of the following psychologists contributed significantly to our understanding of the cognitive development of children? a. Erik Erikson b. Sigmund Freud c. Jean Piaget d. Lawrence Kohlberg 84. Which of the following is NOT true about maternal nutrition? a. Maternal nutrition is important but not significantly so because the fetus is separated from the mother through the placenta. b. Maternal malnutrition increases the risk of neurological deficits c. Maternal nutrition is most problematic for pregnant women experiencing poverty. d. Maternal malnutrition increases the risk of birth complications 85. What is the typical difference in the age of onset for the adolescent growth spurt between males and females? a. two years earlier in females b. four years earlier in females c. one year later in females d. two years later in females 86. What are the two dimensions James Marcia described that combine to yield four identity statuses? a. completion and crisis b. completion and confusion c. commitment and crisis d. commitment and confusion 87. The Kipsigis people of Kenya make active efforts to train their infants to sit up, stand, and walk soon after birth. What impact does this cultural variation have on maturation of motor development? a. The children walk earlier than children in cultures who do not engage in this practice. b. The children walk at the same average age that children in all cultures begin to walk. c. They children later than children in most cultures. d. They children later than children in cultures with less motor freedom.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 88. Benny has a sister and a brother. When someone asks Benny how many brothers his sister has, Benny says that she has one brother (rather than correctly saying that she has two brothers, including Benny). What does this example illustrate? a. animism b. egocentrism c. abstract thought d. centration 89. What type of attachment is associated with toddlers who exhibit little, if any, distress when their mothers leave the room? a. anxious-ambivalent attachment b. avoidant attachment c. especially strong attachment d. secure attachment 90. What is the term used to categorize alcohol, prescription drugs, environmental toxins, and other substances that can harm a developing embryo or fetus? a. tetrodotoxin b. teratogen c. semiochemical d. maladaptation 91. Carrie is pregnant, and her fetus has just reached the threshold of viability. What does this mean? a. Her fetus is fully developed. b. Her fetus is very likely to survive if born at this stage of development. c. She is at least 8 months pregnant. d. She is at least 22 weeks pregnant. 92. Which adolescents are most likely to feel subjective distress and emotional difficulties with the transition to adolescence? a. boys who mature early and girls who mature late b. boys and girls who mature late c. boys who mature late and girls who mature early d. boys and girls who mature early 93. What kind of reasoning is most beneficial to adopting scientific thought and engaging in the scientific process? a. moral b. inductive c. preconventional d. hypothetico-deductive 94. Which of the following individuals is most likely to increase their level of risk-taking in the presence of their friends? a. a 5-year-old girl b. a 17-year-old boy c. a 24-year-old woman d. a 32-year-old man 95. Which of the following represents a key difference in Vygotsky’s theory of child development compared to Piagetian theory? a. emphasis on cognition b. emphasis on sex differences c. emphasis on social experiences d. emphasis on stages of development

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 96. What is considered to be one weakness of Kohlberg’s stage theory? a. Research has shown that people move through the stages of moral reasoning in the order Kohlberg proposed. b. It is usual for people to display more than one level of moral reasoning at a particular point in development and this mixing of stages is conceptually problematic. c. The theory is not reflective enough of individualistic ideology. d. The theory is applicable across cultures and genders. 97. Which statement best describes the relationship between gender stereotypes and gender differences? a. Actual gender differences are more extreme than common stereotypes suggest. b. Gender stereotypes are based on learning, whereas actual gender differences are based on biological causes. c. Gender stereotypes arise from actual differences, but those differences are smaller than the stereotypes suggest. d. Gender stereotypes are completely unrelated to actual gender differences. 98. Alice is a generally happy baby and until recently she interacted very well with anyone who would come to visit. She didn’t mind being picked up or held by anyone, and she did not get upset if her mother left the room. Recently, however, she has been quite clingy with her mother and doesn’t want to be held by people who are not really familiar to her. Which of the following age ranges fits Alice’s behaviour? a. 2–4 months b. 6–8 months c. 9–11 months d. 12–15 months 99. What is emphasized by cognitive theories of gender role development? a. self-socialization b. operant conditioning c. observational learning d. the development of long-term memory 100. Which of the following would an elderly individual likely have the most difficulty with? a. procedural memory and working memory b. episodic memory and working memory c. episodic memory and sensory memory d. procedural memory and semantic memory 101. Which identity status would be experienced by a university student who is exploring different subjects and potential majors to help decide on a suitable career? a. identity achievement b. identity diffusion c. identity moratorium d. identity foreclosure 102. Which of the following does NOT occur during the final three months of prenatal development? a. maturation of respiratory and digestive systems b. rapid multiplication of brain cells c. formation of a layer of fat under the skin d. beginning of sex organ development

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 103. What is the correct order or sequence of Jean Piaget’s stages? a. sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational b. preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor c. preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational d. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational 104. During which stage of development does the cell mass that develops from the fertilized egg implant itself in the uterine wall? a. embryonic stage b. fetal stage c. germinal stage d. fertilization stage 105. Which of the following is NOT one of the main aspects of temperament outlined in your text? a. mood b. activity level c. emotional reactivity d. intellect 106. Which of the following is a teratogen? a. herbal tea b. white sugar c. endorphins d. stress 107. What are the two most “mature” identity statuses? a. moratorium and foreclosure b. diffusion and foreclosure c. moratorium and achievement d. diffusion and achievement 108. Robert does not have any idea about what he wants to do when he finishes school and “grows up.” Additionally, he does not feel in any hurry to decide since there is plenty of time for that later. Which of the following identity statuses is illustrated by this example? a. identity moratorium b. identity foreclosure c. identity diffusion d. identity achievement 109. According to Jean Piaget, what does assimilation involve? a. interpreting new experiences in terms of existing mental structures without changing them b. the gap between what a learner can accomplish alone and what the learner can achieve with guidance from more skilled partners c. the tendency to focus on just one feature of a problem, neglecting other important aspects d. changing existing mental structures to explain new experiences 110. Which term refers to the gap between what a learner can accomplish alone and what he or she can achieve with guidance from more skilled partners? a. the help zone b. the optimal period c. the zone of accomplishment d. the zone of proximal development

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 111. A pregnant woman experiences domestic violence through verbal and emotional abuse. Which of the following is NOT one of the risks to the developing fetus? a. risk of stillbirth b. impaired immune system response c. heightened vulnerability to infectious disease d. above-average motor development 112. Kylie is three years old, and she just saw her mom put some money into a coffee can. If you were to ask Kylie what other people would think is in the coffee can, what would she say? a. “Money.” b. “Coffee.” c. “Coffee and money.” d. “I don’t know.” 113. What is the estimated rate of depression for adolescents? a. 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 20 percent d. 50 percent 114. Abby is learning how to print her name. When she tries to do it herself, she can manage the first letter, and then she can’t complete any more. Her older sister comes along and helps her out by writing out the letters for Abby to copy. Abby finishes printing her name and runs off to show her Daddy. What term did Vygotsky use for the help provided by Abby’s sister? a. the zone of proximal development b. formal operations c. concrete operations d. scaffolding 115. Mark is trying to decide whether he should go to university or get a job right after he graduates from high school next year. He knows that he’s good at school work, but he doesn’t know what he wants to be or how to figure it out. What stage is Mark at according to Erik Erikson’s theory? a. postconventional reasoning b. formal operations c. identity versus confusion d. integrity versus despair 116. Assume research shows there is a gender difference on Trait X and males tend to exhibit more of the trait than females. Which conclusion would best describe performance on Trait X if the gender difference on Trait X is similar to other traits with gender differences? a. A few females exhibit very low levels of the trait. b. A few males exhibit very high levels of the trait. c. The average male exhibits slightly higher levels of the trait than the average female. d. Most males exhibit higher levels of the trait than most females. 117. What is the name for the one-celled organism formed by the union of a sperm and an egg? a. embryo b. conception c. fetus d. zygote 118. At which level of moral development do individuals tend to use a personal code of ethics to guide their moral reasoning and behaviour? a. the concrete level b. the conventional level c. the postconventional level d. the preconventional level Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 119. In a culture where infants are carried everywhere, what would you predict in terms of the age at which children begin to walk in that culture? a. They will walk earlier than children in cultures where children are kept in the home. b. They will walk at the same average age that children in all cultures begin to walk. c. They will walk earlier than children in most cultures. d. They will walk later than children in cultures with greater motor freedom. 120. According to Jean Piaget’s theory, when do children first show or develop object permanence? a. formal operational stage b. sensorimotor stage c. preoperational stage d. concrete operational stage 121. What is considered to be a weakness of Erikson’s psychosocial theory? a. It does not depend enough on illustrative case studies. b. It provides an “idealized” description of “typical” developmental patterns. c. It accounts for both continuity and transition in personality development. d. It generates a fair amount of research. 122. Jamie is trying to build a dog house, and she is very systematic and careful about planning how each piece will fit together and in what order she should assemble everything. She’s never done this before but she has a logical plan to complete it. What stage of cognitive development has Jamie reached? a. formal operational stage b. preoperational stage c. concrete operational stage d. sensorimotor stage 123. Both Jason and Bradley believe that their dad should not drive over the speed limit. Jason does not want his dad to get a speeding ticket, but Bradley believes that rules are rules and laws are laws and need to be obeyed. Which levels of moral development are the boys at? a. Jason is preconventional and Bradley is conventional. b. Both boys are conventional. c. Jason is preconventional and Bradley is postconventional. d. Jason is conventional and Bradley is postconventional. 124. Typically, during which stage of cognitive development are individuals concerned with the crisis of initiative versus guilt? a. preoperational stage b. concrete operational stage c. sensorimotor stage d. formal operational stage 125. The timing of puberty has changed over the past few generations. What does this trend likely reflect? a. an increase in pollution b. improvements in nutrition and medical care c. increases in sexual activity at an earlier age, triggering earlier pubescence d. changes in genetically predisposed timing of puberty

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 126. During Erik Erikson’s crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt, a child should gain a sense of selfsufficiency. At what age does this stage occur? a. 1–3 years of age b. 3–5 years of age c. 5–6 years of age d. 6–7 years of age 127. What is a primary focus of research concerning personality development in adulthood? a. the search for a sense of identity during adulthood b. gender differences in personality during adulthood c. the stability of personality over the life span d. the midlife crisis 128. If a child is born with a small head, heart defects, irritability, hyperactivity, and retarded mental and motor development, which of the following is most likely true? a. The child’s mother was severely malnourished during pregnancy. b. The child’s mother had a disease such as rubella, syphilis, or mumps during pregnancy. c. The child’s mother smoked excessively during pregnancy. d. The child’s mother consumed excessive amounts of alcohol during pregnancy. 129. If a ball that a five-month-old infant is playing with rolls under a chair (and out of sight), the infant will not look for it. According to Piaget, why does this occur? a. The infant does not understand the concept of roll. b. The infant has not developed conservation. c. The infant has not developed object permanence. d. The infant has a short attention span. 130. Which term refers to the collection of congenital problems associated with excessive alcohol use during pregnancy? a. Early Substance Abuse Effects Disorder (SAED). b. Neonatal Alcohol Syndrome (NAS). c. Fetal Alcohol Effects (FAE). d. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome Disorder (FASD). 131. To determine whether a new teaching method is effective for children who struggle with math, you design a study where you implement the method with a group of six-year olds, a group of eight-year olds, and a group of ten-year olds. What type of study is this? a. naturalistic observation b. longitudinal study c. experimental study d. cross-sectional study 132. During which stage of prenatal development would you call the developing organism a zygote? a. embryonic stage b. conceptive stage c. fetal stage d. germinal stage

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 133. According to the concept of “internal working models,” how does infant attachment influence later social behaviour? a. Secure attachment facilitates social bonds. b. Infants learn how relationships work and apply that pattern to future interactions. c. Attachment is genetically determined and pushes development in a particular direction. d. Early negative treatment of infants makes them shy and withdrawn. 134. How much alcohol is safe to drink during pregnancy? a. one glass of wine per week. b. no hard liquor; only beer or wine and only a small serving per day. c. depends on the size of the woman. d. no known safe amount 135. Xavier is five years old, and he just saw his mom put some money in a coffee can. If you were to ask Xavier what other people would think is in the coffee can, what would he say? a. “Money.” b. “Coffee.” c. “I don’t know.” d. “Coffee and money.” 136. Environmental factors are most likely to cause damage to specific structures of a developing embryo or fetus when those structures are undergoing rapid development. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected in this example? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Psychology is empirical. 137. Erik is retired, but he has maintained a very active schedule. He volunteers for a local nonprofit organization, plays cards with his friends twice each week, and he does a daily crossword puzzle. He also takes his neighbour’s dog for a brisk walk at lunchtime. Which of the following is less likely to develop as Erik ages, because of his lifestyle and activities? a. crystallized intelligence b. Alzheimer’s disease c. empty nest syndrome d. Parkinson’s disease 138. Carrie is pregnant, and her fetus has not yet reached the threshold of viability. What does this mean? a. The fetus is developing outside the womb. b. The baby is unlikely to survive if born at this stage of development. c. Carrie is at most 10 weeks pregnant. d. The baby can now survive if born prematurely. 139. Which developmental stage is Erikson’s crisis of integrity versus despair associated with? a. adolescence b. middle adulthood c. late adulthood d. early adulthood

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 140. What is the approximate duration of the concrete operational stage of cognitive development? a. birth–age 2 b. age 2–7 c. age 7–11 d. age 11 onward 141. If a pregnant women is properly nourished, which of the following is most likely to be observed? a. lower vulnerability to the baby later developing schizophrenia b. increased risk of neurological deficits c. increased likelihood of birth complications d. she is living in poverty 142. Based on the results of Harlow’s studies of attachment in infant monkeys, which of the following aspects of a caregiver seems to be more important for the development of attachment in primates? a. likelihood of punishment b. mere presence c. nutritional reward d. comfort 143. One-year-old Beth will explore a room when her mother is present. She becomes upset when her mother leaves the room and is quickly calmed when her mother returns. What is the term used for this type of methodology if Beth is in a study where this pattern is repeated several times, while a researcher records Beth’s response? a. avoidance procedure b. inhibition evaluation c. temperament test d. strange situation 144. André is 27 years old and he has noticed that all his friends are in serious relationships and many are getting married and having children. He can’t imagine settling down yet, and he would rather date many people than commit to one person. Which of Erikson’s stages is André in? a. intimacy versus isolation b. generativity versus self-absorption c. industry versus inferiority d. identity versus confusion 145. If a child says that the sun shines to keep him warm, what is the child exhibiting? a. conservation b. animism c. centration d. egocentrism 146. When during prenatal development does the placenta begin to form? a. at conception b. germinal stage c. embryonic stage d. fetal stage 147. According to Jean Piaget, what does accommodation involve? a. interpreting new experiences in terms of existing mental structures without changing them b. the tendency to focus on just one feature of a problem, neglecting other important aspects c. the gap between what a learner can accomplish alone and what the learner can achieve with guidance from more skilled partners d. changing existing mental structures to explain new experiences 148. What were Erik Erikson’s stages of development associated with? a. psychosocial crises b. cognitive development c. physical development d. moral development Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 149. What has been consistently demonstrated in research on infant attachment? a. It is ambivalent in most mother-infant pairs. b. It is nearly instantaneous, and infants show a profound preference for their mothers within days of birth. c. It is not prominent during the early months of life, and during this time infants show little preference for their mothers. d. It is truly seen only between infants and mothers, not other caregivers. 150. Among a nomadic group of people living in the rain forests of Paraguay, safety concerns dictate that children under three rarely venture more than a metre from their mothers. What impact will this cultural variation have on maturation of motor development? a. They will walk earlier than children in cultures where children are kept in the home. b. They will walk at the same average age that children in all cultures begin to walk. c. They will walk earlier than children in most cultures. d. They will walk later than children in cultures with greater motor freedom. 151. In habituation–dishabituation studies, what do infants do if they are presented with an addition problem that results in an incorrect outcome? a. They look for a shorter time. b. They exhibit surprise. c. They frown or even cry. d. They smile. 152. How long does Health Canada (2020) recommend that Canadian mothers continue to breastfeed? a. neither recommend or discourage the practice b. at least one year c. at least four months d. at least two years 153. Gianni watches as a researcher placed five toy dogs and three toy cats on a table. When the researcher asks Gianni if there are more dogs or more animals, Gianni correctly answers more animals. Which of the following operations does Gianni seem to understand, based on this answer? a. centration b. conservation c. hierarchical classification d. object permanence

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. d 4. d 5. b 6. b 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. d 11. b 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. c 25. d 26. d

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. c 39. c 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. d 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. b 49. d 50. a 51. c 52. d 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 55. d 56. c 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. c 62. c 63. a 64. c 65. d 66. d 67. b 68. d 69. b 70. d 71. a 72. b 73. a 74. c 75. b 76. b 77. b 78. d 79. c 80. d 81. d 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 83. c 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. a 88. b 89. b 90. b 91. d 92. c 93. d 94. b 95. c 96. b 97. c 98. b 99. a 100. b 101. c 102. d 103. d 104. c 105. d 106. d 107. c 108. c 109. a 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 111. d 112. a 113. c 114. d 115. c 116. c 117. d 118. c 119. d 120. b 121. b 122. a 123. a 124. a 125. b 126. a 127. c 128. d 129. c 130. d 131. d 132. d 133. b 134. d 135. b 136. a 137. b

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_2 138. b 139. c 140. c 141. a 142. d 143. d 144. a 145. d 146. b 147. d 148. a 149. c 150. d 151. b 152. d 153. c

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. A child who has trouble socializing between the ages of 6 and 12 will, according to Erikson, likely have a sense of which of the following? a. mistrust b. shame c. guilt d. inferiority 2. Liam is shorter than most of the girls his age, even though he was the same height as these girls just a few years ago. How old is Liam MOST likely to be? a. 8 b. 11 c. 14 d. 17 3. According to Piaget, what is accommodation? a. the inclusion of new information into pre-existing schemes b. the alteration of pre-existing frameworks to take in new information c. balance within a mental framework d. the ability to hold an idea in mind and manipulate it 4. What is the transition from adolescence to adulthood often called? a. emerging adulthood b. adolescent egocentrism c. middle adulthood d. the second childhood 5. What is the term for the biological unfolding of development in a particular sequence and time frame? a. maturation b. epigenetics c. a stage d. critical periods 6. Dr. Long is studying infant walking. He knows from his research that the average age an infant walks alone is about how many months old? a. 10 months b. 12 months c. 15 months d. 17 months 7. Professor Mandel wants to study the transition from the preoperational to the concrete operational stage of development. She should recruit children who are about what age? a. 6 or 7 years old b. 4 or 5 years old c. 8 or 9 years old d. 10 or 11 years old 8. Dr. Chin wants to get a sense of how people of different ages use the libraries in her town over a given summer. Which research method is probably best for her to use? a. a cross-sectional design b. a longitudinal design c. a cohort-sequential design d. a test-retest design 9. Which of the following are affected by the greatest change in the senses that occurs after age 40? a. vision and hearing b. hearing and taste c. taste and smell d. smell and vision

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 10. Marta has just started a growth spurt making her taller than most boys in her class at school. She is MOST likely around what age? a. 6 years old b. 8 years old c. 10 years old d. 12 years old 11. What is the name for a research approach that administers the same test to the same participants at different ages over a period of time? a. cross-sectional design b. longitudinal design c. cohort-sequential design d. correlational design 12. Baby Clementine’s mother is holding her favourite rattle. Clementine reaches for it excitedly. Next, Clementine’s mother hides the rattle under a pillow. Clementine doesn’t look for the rattle because Clementine has not yet developed which of the following? a. egocentrism b. object permanence c. conservation d. centration 13. What is the FIRST stage of human development after conception? a. germinal stage b. embryonic stage c. fetal stage d. gamete stage 14. Maria is four years old. She has difficulty seeing other people’s point of view. This is typical of a child in which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational 15. Ethan and his mother are participating in a strange situation experiment. When Ethan’s mother returns he has rigid posture when picked up and appears dazed and depressed. What type of attachment style is Ethan exhibiting? a. secure b. anxious/avoidant c. anxious/ambivalent d. disorganized/disoriented 16. Dr. Abboud is studying the development of language. He has a group of 30 two-year-olds, and he plans to assess their vocabularies now and then again each year until they are 12 years old. What kind of design is Dr. Abboud using? a. cross-sectional design b. longitudinal design c. cohort-sequential design d. experimental design 17. A teacher knows that a child can write individual words. She encourages the child to try combining the words into sentences. This exemplifies which of the following approaches? a. scaffolding b. the zone of proximal development c. assimilation d. accommodation 18. Andrew is a male entering puberty. Which of the following is a primary sexual characteristic he will develop? a. body hair b. a deeper voice c. the potential for ejaculation d. greater muscle mass

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 19. Which of the following is a research approach that compares different people of different ages to one another at a single point in time? a. cross-sectional design b. longitudinal design c. cohort-sequential design d. correlational design 20. What is the term for a phase during which biological development will proceed normally only under certain conditions? a. a sensitive period b. a critical period c. a stage d. a benchmark 21. David has a small head, a heart defect, and delayed mental and motor development. What teratogen was he MOST likely exposed to before birth? a. alcohol b. rubella c. heroin d. marijuana 22. According to Chandler and Lalonde, which of the following factors differentiates Indigenous settings where suicide rates are high from those where rates are not elevated? a. cultural continuity b. economic prosperity c. geography d. genetics 23. What is the term for a point in time when an organism is highly sensitive to environmental input? a. maturation b. epigenetics c. a stage d. a critical period 24. According to Kohlberg, which of the following is true regarding preconventional morality? a. it centres on what a person believes they can get away with b. it centres on avoiding the disapproval of others and obeying rules c. it is determined by abstract concepts d. it is the last stage of moral development 25. Vygotsky referred to step-by-step assistance given by an adult to help a child with which of the following terms? a. scaffolding b. the zone of proximal development c. attachment d. assimilation 26. Young Sasha is participating in an experiment where she is shown a candy box and asked to guess what is inside the box. When Sasha guesses “candy,” she is allowed to open the box and sees it contains crayons. When Sasha is asked what a child who has not opened the candy box will think is in the box, Sasha replies, “Candy.” What does this behaviour indicate about Sasha’s age? a. She is around three years old. b. She is around seven years old. c. She is around five years old. d. She is around four years old. 27. What percentage of people over the age of 85 have dementia? a. 15% b. 33% c. 25% d. 40%

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 28. In which decade of life does a person reach their lifetime physical peak? a. teens b. 20s c. 30s d. 40s 29. Scott is beginning to socialize more and more outside of his home and is taking great pride in his accomplishments. According to Erikson, what stage of development is Scott in? a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. industry versus inferiority d. identity versus role confusion 30. Kayla has just developed the ability to think logically and understand cause and effect. She MOST likely just entered which stage of cognitive development? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational 31. Jacinda is pregnant with her first child. At approximately what point in Jacinda’s pregnancy will her fetus reach the age of viability? a. 12 weeks b. 18 weeks c. 24 weeks d. 30 weeks 32. Lachlan is 2-and-a-half years old and his parents are overcontrolling and don’t let him have very much independence. According to Erikson, which of the following is Lachlan likely to feel as a result? a. mistrust b. shame c. guilt d. inferiority 33. Farouk and his mother are participating in a strange situation experiment. Farouk is unresponsive to his mother and indifferent when she leaves or returns. What attachment style is Farouk exhibiting? a. secure b. anxious/avoidant c. anxious/ambivalent d. disorganized/disoriented 34. Young Bryson is participating in an experiment where he is shown a candy box and asked to guess what is inside the box. When Bryson guesses “candy,” he is allowed to open the box and sees it contains crayons. When Bryson is asked what a child who has not opened the candy box will think is in the box, Bryson replies, “Crayons.” What is the researcher MOST likely studying? a. conservation b. false beliefs c. irreversibility d. habituation 35. Baby Gabbi tends to withdraw when her routine is changed, but her reaction is not extreme. What temperament does Gabbi MOST likely have? a. easy b. difficult c. slow-to-warm-up d. unique 36. According to Piaget, what is assimilation? a. the inclusion of new information into pre-existing schemes b. the alteration of pre-existing frameworks to take in new information c. balance within a mental framework d. the ability to hold an idea in mind and manipulate it Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 37. In which procedure are infants exposed to series of eight separation and reunion episodes with their caregiver? a. strange situation b. visual cliff c. conservation of mass d. appearance versus reality 38. Dr. Morin is studying sensitive periods in rat development. What topic is Dr. Morin MOST likely studying? a. feature detection b. depth perception c. visual acuity d. social behaviour 39. What structure triggers the growth spurt in adolescence? a. pituitary gland b. thyroid gland c. adrenal gland d. pancreas 40. When an egg and sperm combine into a single cell, what is that single cell called? a. zygote b. blastocyst c. embryo d. fetus 41. Physical performance begins to decline when a person is in which decade of life? a. teens b. 20s c. 30s d. 40s 42. Which of the following is studied by scientists who are interested only in biological changes that occur over time? a. maturation b. cognitive development c. critical periods d. epigenetics 43. According to Erikson, what is the key conflict that the very old must resolve? a. integrity versus despair b. identity versus role confusion c. initiative versus guilt d. generativity versus self-absorption 44. Zoe and her mother are participating in a strange situation experiment. Zoe reacts strongly when her mother leaves the room and shows mixed emotion when her mother returns. What type of attachment style is Zoe exhibiting? a. secure b. anxious/avoidant c. anxious/ambivalent d. disorganized/disoriented 45. The preoperational stage of cognitive development spans what age range? a. ages 1 to 2 b. ages 2 to 7 c. ages 7 to 11 d. ages 11 onwards 46. Dr. Fisker is interested in cognitive changes that take place during development. Which of the following might she be researching? a. height changes b. changes in vocabulary size c. personality changes d. changes in problem-solving strategies

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 47. Dr. Velasquez is studying the brain development of human fetuses. Because he is particularly interested in brain growth his research focuses on the period of time when the brain grows the most, which is which of the following? a. the last three months of pregnancy b. the first three months of pregnancy c. the middle three months of pregnancy d. between months 2 and 5 of pregnancy 48. According to Vygotsky, which of the following is the gap between what a child knows and what they can accomplish? a. the zone of proximal development b. scaffolding c. assimilation d. reciprocal socialization 49. Dr. Nicastro is conducting a longitudinal studying examining interpersonal relationships in young people. Which of the following could describe her participant pool and study plan? a. 30 12-year-olds, 30 16-year-olds, and 30 20-year-olds who she will test once b. 90 12-year-olds who she will test every year for the next 8 years c. 30 12-year-olds, 30 16-year-olds, and 30 20-year-olds who she will test every 2 years for the next 12 years d. 60 12-year-olds who she will test every year for the next 20 years 50. When do researchers observe the steepest decline in marital satisfaction? a. after one year of marriage b. after the birth of the first child c. after seven years of marriage d. after the last child leaves home 51. In most people, changes in cognition as a result of aging can be described as which of the following? a. minimal b. moderate c. extreme d. profound 52. Anna and her mother are participating in a strange situation experiment. Anna uses her mother as a base from which to explore, is distressed when her mother leaves, and is happy when she returns. What type of attachment style is Anna exhibiting? a. secure b. anxious/avoidant c. anxious/ambivalent d. disorganized/disoriented 53. What phase of development begins when the fertilized egg implants itself in the uterus? a. zygotic b. embryonic c. fetal d. germinal 54. Which type of temperament are MOST babies born with? a. easy b. difficult c. slow-to-warm-up d. unique 55. According to Erik Erikson, four-, five-, and six-year-old children are in which of the following stages of development? a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. initiative versus guilt d. identity versus role confusion

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 56. Which of the following mental illnesses has been linked to prenatal malnutrition? a. depression b. anxiety c. schizophrenia d. borderline personality disorder 57. Chantal is 72 and has recently developed a problem with her memory; she also has difficulty making rational decisions. Chantal will likely be identified as having which of the following? a. normal development b. dementia c. delusions d. delirium 58. Which of the following researchers focused on cognitive development in children? a. Bowlby b. Piaget c. Vygotsky d. Erikson 59. How do researchers characterize the effects of brain-training programs on attention and memory in people with mild cognitive impairment? a. nonexistent b. small to moderate c. moderate to large d. large to extreme 60. Dr. Akpabio is conducting cross-sectional research looking at exercise habits. Which of the following could describe her participant pool and study plans? a. 20 20-year-olds, 20 40-year-olds, and 20 60-year-olds who she will test once b. 60 20-year-olds who she will test every 10 years for the next 40 years c. 20 20-year-olds, 20 40-year-olds, and 20 60-year-olds who she will test every 5 years for the next 40 years d. 60 40-year-olds who she will test every year for the next 20 years 61. Which of the following is a discontinuous phase during which an organism thinks, behaves, or responds differently than it did before? a. stage b. critical period c. sensitive period d. benchmark 62. Which stage of cognitive development are children in between the ages of 2 and 7? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational 63. Which of the following personality traits has been shown to INCREASE marital well-being? a. optimism b. extraversion c. skepticism d. introversion 64. Which of the following developmental research designs provides data the most quickly? a. cross-sectional design b. longitudinal design c. cohort-sequential design d. correlational design

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 65. Hunter is six years old. Which statement is MOST likely to describe him? a. he believes that stuffed animals can feel hunger b. he believes that objects he cannot see don’t exist c. he questions beliefs such as the tooth fairy d. he is beginning to use algebra in everyday life 66. According to Erikson, the key task of adolescence is dealing with which of the following? a. trust versus mistrust b. identity versus confusion c. initiative versus guilt d. generativity versus self-absorption 67. Which of the following do researchers believe helps determine the type of attachment that emerges between a mother and her infant? a. the sex of the infant b. infant intelligence c. maternal age d. maternal mental health 68. Which of the following is a biologically based tendency to respond the same way in situations across the life span? a. temperament b. attachment c. affiliation d. motivation 69. Children’s coordination increases dramatically as they enter which of the following stages? a. early childhood b. middle childhood c. early adolescence d. late adolescence 70. Dr. Kasun is conducting development research. She recruits children who are 4, 6, 8, and 10 years and assesses the size of each child’s vocabulary. Which type of research is Dr. Kasun conducting? a. cross-sectional b. longitudinal c. cohort-sequential d. experimental 71. Gerard has been identified as having an anxious/ambivalent attachment style toward his mother. In a strange situation procedure how will Gerard MOST likely react when his mother returns? a. He will be happy. b. He will not be comforted when she returns. c. He will become rigid and withdrawn. d. He will cry. 72. Which of the following coordinates puberty? a. pituitary gland b. adrenal glands c. thyroid gland d. pancreas 73. The strange situation procedure was developed to study which phenomenon? a. attachment b. fear conditioning c. cognitive development d. reflexes

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 74. Montessori schools attempt to take advantage of which of the following when choosing a curriculum? a. stages of development b. critical periods c. epigenetics d. cohorts 75. Which of the Big Five personality traits is most likely to INCREASE in late adulthood? a. agreeableness b. conscientiousness c. extraversion d. neuroticism 76. What is the term for severe memory problems combined with the loss of at least one other cognitive function? a. dementia b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Parkinson’s disease d. delirium 77. Dr. Khairy has 100 new mothers in her medical practice. Approximately how many of these mothers will exclusively breastfeed their babies? a. 10 b. 25 c. 33 d. 50 78. When a child recognizes an object exists even when it cannot be seen, the child has developed which of the following? a. object permanence b. object relations c. centration d. concentration 79. Which of the following is a primary sexual characteristic? a. ovaries that produce eggs b. breasts c. a deep voice d. muscle mass 80. Which type of developmental research design would you use if you wanted to follow the lives of people born in 2012 for 20 years? a. cross-sectional design b. longitudinal design c. cohort-sequential design d. test-retest design 81. Donna is 57 years old. She has noticed some changes to her vision. These changes are MOST likely to involve which of the following? a. farsightedness and difficulty seeing in the dark b. poor seeing in the dark and nearsightedness c. nearsightedness and difficulty with colour vision d. difficulty with colour vision and farsightedness 82. According to Piaget, which period of development encompasses infancy? a. sensorimotor period b. preoperational period c. concrete operational period d. formal operational period 83. Which developmental research design is particularly vulnerable to losing participants over time? a. cross-sectional design b. longitudinal design c. cohort-sequential design d. correlational design

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 84. Which of the following is considered the hallmark symptom of Alzheimer’s disease? a. short-term memory loss b. long-term memory loss c. loss of motor control d. loss of appetite 85. The sensorimotor period of development is characterized by which of the following? a. coordinating sensory input and motor actions b. centration, irreversibility, and egocentrism c. mastery of conservation d. systematic approaches to problem solving 86. Which of the following is a method of studying development that requires testing be done at only one point in time? a. cross-sectional design b. longitudinal design c. cohort-sequential design d. test-retest design 87. Someone who has recently retired may be in which of the following stages? a. integrity versus despair b. generativity versus self-absorption c. identity versus role confusion d. autonomy versus shame and doubt 88. When a child can give a thoughtful answer to a question that begins with “What would happen if…,” the child meets the criteria for which of Piaget’s stages? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational 89. Petra is 9 weeks pregnant, and she is very concerned about contracting chickenpox because the chickenpox is which of the following? a. a teratogen b. a gamete c. an allele d. a blastocyst

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. d 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. a 26. c

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. d 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. b 51. a 52. a 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 55. c 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. a 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. a 71. b 72. a 73. a 74. b 75. d 76. a 77. c 78. a 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_6ce_Vol_4 83. b 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. b 88. d 89. a

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Chap 12_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of John’s personality structures “won” when he chose to refuse to help Jenny clean their apartment? a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Subconscious 2. After the fight Jenny still feels extremely angry but outwardly seems very calm and even offers to do John’s chores for him. Which defense mechanism is she likely using? a. Repression b. Denial c. Reaction Formation d. Sublimation 3. According to Eysenck’s theory, which of the following is correct about Adam? a. Adam is extraverted and experiences high levels of arousability. b. Adam is extraverted and experiences high levels of neuroticism. c. Adam is introverted and experiences high levels of arousability. d. Adam is introverted and experiences high levels of neuroticism. 4. Vicky is a moderately skilled mountain climber and sky diver. She has always been adventurous and is very keen to try new things and have new experiences. At the same time Vicky deals with a lot of insecurities and can be very hostile, despite the fact that she has a beautiful house, a great job, and is in a loving relationship. In order to deal with her insecurities she has been seeing a therapist weekly who practices empathetic listening and does not judge her. How would Vicky score in a “Big Five” personality test? a. High in openness and low in agreeableness b. High in openness and high in neuroticism c. Low in conscientiousness and low in agreeableness d. Low in conscientiousness and high in neuroticism 5. According to Freud, what is a likely explanation for Jenny’s obsession with cleanliness? a. Punitive toilet training measures b. Improper handling of the transition from breastfeeding to bottle c. Unresolved Oedipal dilemma d. Unresolved Electra dilemma 6. To what is Vicky’s therapist most likely to attribute her anxiety? a. Ancestral memories called archetypes b. A fixation in one of the psychosexual stages c. Incongruence between her real self and her self-concept d. Strictly a neurochemical imbalance in her nervous system 7. Vasilis’ self-concept will likely include __________ whereas, Arimi’s will include______. a. “I’m Maria’s son”; “I’m a team player” b. “I’m a good driver”; “I’m from the island of Okinawa” c. “I’m Canadian”; “I’m hardworking” d. “I’m artistic” ; “I’m a great mother of two children” Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_6ce_Case-Based 8. Vicky’s father climbed Mount Everest and her mother was a skydiving instructor. Growing up Vicky tried very hard to impress and get the acceptance of her parents but she was not good enough to climb Mount Everest nor could she qualify as a skydiving instructor. This led to the development of a ________ self-concept because she experienced ______ affection. a. incongruent; unconditional b. incongruent; conditional c. congruent; unconditional d. congruent; conditional 9. Vasilis meets a new friend named Arimi who was born and raised in Japan. Arimi also draws anime and the two new friends Vasilis and Arimi exchange opinions on each other’s work. Arimi is more likely to _________________. a. pay more attention to the positive feedback b. pay more attention to the negative feedback c. completely ignore both positive and negative feedback she gets from Vasilis d. be offended by any negative feedback and will not talk to Vasilis again 10. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, Vicky has not yet satisfied which needs? a. Physiological needs b. Affiliation needs c. Status/esteem d. Vicky is self-actualized and has met all her needs. 11. Which defense mechanism is John likely using during their fights according to Jenny? a. Regression b. Reaction formation c. Repression d. Projection 12. Which perspective is Vicky’s therapist most likely following? a. Humanistic b. Psychoanalytic c. Cognitive-Behavioural d. Analytical Psychology 13. Imagine two hypothetical scenarios: Scenario 1: Adam has an identical twin reared in a different household by different parents from Adam. Scenario 2: Adam has a fraternal twin reared in the same household by the same parents as Adam. Which of the following cases is most likely? a. The identical twin reared apart would have a personality similar to Adam’s. b. The fraternal twin reared in the same house would have a similar personality to Adam’s. c. An identical twin reared apart and a fraternal twin reared together would have the same chance of having a personality similar to Adam’s. d. We can’t make any inferences because the environment has a stronger effect on personality than genetics. 14. What does Adam’s father attribute his behaviour to? a. Observational learning b. Reciprocal determinism c. Operant conditioning d. Incongruence

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Chap 12_6ce_Case-Based 15. Fifteen-year-old Adam is obsessed with violent R-rated movies and lately has started exhibiting violent behaviours himself. His mother believes Adam’s behaviour is a result of what he sees in the movies. On the other hand, Adam’s father thinks that things are not that simple and Adam’s violent behaviour is not just a product of his environment, but also due to personal factors. Apart from his violent outbursts, Adam appears to be bashful and tentative in social situations. What does Adam’s mother attribute his behaviour to? a. Observational learning b. Reciprocal determinism c. Operant conditioning d. Incongruence 16. How would Adam score on the five-factor model of personality? a. High on agreeableness and low on extraversion b. Low on agreeableness and low on extraversion c. High on neuroticism and low on extraversion d. Low on neuroticism and high on extraversion 17. Which of the following protagonists is Adam more likely to be influenced by? a. Hermione from Harry Potter because she is smart b. Achilles from Troy because he had an epic death c. Thor from The Avengers because he is attractive d. The Joker from Batman because he is funny 18. Vasilis has been working in the same secure and well-paid job for the past few years. One day, on his way to work he loses control of his vehicle and drives into a ditch. Despite the fact that he did not sustain any injuries, he was extremely scared about losing his life. A few days after the accident, he is still thinking about how close he came to death. A month later, Vasilis proclaims to his family that the accident made him realize he needs new challenges in his life. He wants to pursue his passion and talent for drawing anime, so he will be resigning from his work and moving from Canada (where he has lived all his life) to Japan. What need is Vasilis trying to fulfill by moving to Japan? a. Cognitive needs b. Esteem needs c. Aesthetic needs d. Need for self-actualization 19. John and Jenny have been dating for a while but their relationship is suffering. Jenny typically cleans their apartment twice a day and has asked John to help clean but John responded by refusing to say a word. During the ensuing argument, John accused Jenny of being too controlling and too obsessed with cleaning. Jenny on the other hand accused John of acting like a child every time they have a fight. According to Freud’s psychosexual development theory which stage is Jenny fixated on? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital

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Chap 12_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. d 19. b

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Gordon hadn’t thought about the band Spider Wings for several months. However, as soon as Donovon mentioned it, Gordon instantly thought about the great time he had at their last concert. According to Freud, where in Gordon’s mind was the memory of the concert contained before Donovon mentioned the Spider Wings? a. unconscious b. subconscious c. preconscious d. conscious 2. Which criticism can be levelled against both the psychoanalytic approach and the humanistic approach to personality? a. They provide a fragmented view of personality. b. They overemphasize the influence of early childhood experiences. c. They are too deterministic. d. They are difficult to test. 3. Which of the following is NOT a common criticism of psychodynamic theories of personality? a. lack of testability b. inadequate supportive evidence c. focus on childhood experiences d. sex bias against women 4. What are the two major aspects of human behaviour that are studied by personality theorists? a. commonalties and individual differences b. situational shifts and interpersonal similarities c. constancy and change d. consistency and distinctiveness 5. Julio is extremely dependable and productive, and his friends think he is great at organizing events. How would Julio probably score based on the five-factor model of personality? a. high in agreeableness b. low in neuroticism c. high in openness d. high in conscientiousness 6. Which personality trait is associated with having large “reward areas” in the brain? a. neuroticism b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. conscientiousness 7. Which of Maslow’s hierarchy levels would reflect your needs to learn all you can about philosophy and understand the inner workings of our political system? a. cognitive b. aesthetic c. esteem d. self-actualization 8. Which statement would Sigmund Freud NOT have made? a. Most of our behaviour is rational and sensible. b. Behaviour is the outcome of an interaction among several components of personality. c. A great deal of our behaviour and thoughts are symbolic of hidden motives. d. Most behaviour is rooted in the unconscious. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 9. Amy has always done well in her math courses, and even though she has never taken a statistics class before, she is confident she will do well in her statistics course next term. What does Amy show evidence of in this example? a. high self-efficacy in math b. a mathematical neurosis c. low self-efficacy in math d. high incongruence with respect to math 10. Deirdre used to be shy and unwilling to speak out in class. Last semester, she was in a class that involved many discussion groups, and she found that her classmates were willing to listen attentively to her ideas, and often asked her for input when the discussion bogged down. Now Deirdre is more outspoken and confident during class discussions. What led to Deirdre’s change in behaviour? a. spontaneous recovery b. extinction c. reinforcement d. punishment 11. What is least likely to be associated with self-actualization? a. need for privacy b. freshness of appreciation c. lack of spontaneity d. democratic character structure 12. Which of the following is the term, proposed by Tory Higgins, that refers to the kind of person that we want to be? a. actualized self b. ought self c. desire self d. ideal self 13. Which level of Maslow’s hierarchy includes your needs to live in a crime-free neighbourhood, save money, buy insurance, and have a stable job? a. safety and security b. love and belongingness c. physiological d. esteem 14. When Katrina buys a winter coat, she focuses on its appearance, rather than the price or how warm it is. Which of Maslow’s hierarchy levels is associated with this choice? a. cognitive needs b. safety and security needs c. physiological needs d. aesthetic needs 15. Factor analysis was used by which of the following individuals in the creation of their model of personality? a. Abraham Maslow b. Raymond Cattell c. Albert Bandura d. Sigmund Freud 16. Who initiated research on the influence of birth order on personality? a. Carl Jung b. Sigmund Freud c. John Watson d. Alfred Adler 17. Isaiah just completed a personality scale designed to measure the three higher-order traits identified by Hans Eysenck. He scored low in the personality trait of psychoticism. What does this suggest about Isaiah? a. He is sensitive and caring. b. He is cautious and high in self-control. c. He is quiet and non-assertive. d. He is anxious and moody.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 18. Which of the following Freudian structures of personality is interested in maximizing gratification in the long term? a. the id b. the ego c. the psyche d. the superego 19. Freud’s concept of the unconscious is most like which of Jung’s concepts? a. archetypes b. collective unconscious c. preconscious d. personal unconscious 20. Which defence mechanism is associated with an adult who acts childish? a. fixation b. reaction formation c. regression d. repression 21. According to research comparing American and Asian children, how do Asian children tend to define themselves? a. in terms of their relationships with their teachers b. in terms of the accomplishments of their parents c. in terms of their personal accomplishments d. in terms of the groups they belong to 22. Which theorist advanced the concept that the unconscious has two layers, the personal unconscious and the collective unconscious? a. Alfred Adler b. Carl Jung c. Erik Erikson d. Sigmund Freud 23. Lucas is a 25-year-old male who is extremely anxious about any type of sexual activity. How might this anxiety have developed, according to Freud’s view of personality development? a. an unresolved crisis during the latency stage b. excessive punishment during his toilet training as a toddler c. improper weaning from the bottle when he was an infant d. fixation at the genital stage of psychosexual development 24. What is your self-concept said to be if it is reasonably accurate, according to Carl Rogers? a. extraverted b. self-actualized c. valid d. congruent with reality 25. Esteban has a job that pays well, and he recently moved to a neighbourhood where there is little crime. Lately, he finds that he is thinking seriously about finding the right person to settle down with and raising a family. What need motivates Esteban at this point in his life, according to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? a. aesthetic needs b. belongingness and love needs c. esteem needs d. need for self-actualization

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 26. A news program interviews the neighbour of a defendant in a high-profile legal case. The neighbour claims that the person was “always unfriendly, impulsive, and lazy.” Which of the following is the neighbour doing, in this example? a. completing a factor analysis b. describing a single one of the “big five” traits c. identifying a set of personality traits d. performing psychoanalysis 27. What is likely to happen to people who condition easily, according to Hans Eysenck? a. They become neurotic. b. They become introverted. c. They become psychotic. d. They become extraverted. 28. Failure to resolve conflict at a particular stage of psychosexual development may lead to failure to move forward psychologically. What did Freud call this phenomenon? a. reciprocal determinism b. fixation c. displacement d. compensation 29. Which term refers to emotionally charged images and thought forms that have universal meaning, in Jung’s theory? a. mandalas b. central memories c. archetypes d. prototypes 30. Which statement would most likely NOT be made by a humanist? a. People can rise above their animal heritage. b. Each person is unique. c. We are driven by unconscious conflicts. d. People are rational. 31. What is one of Walter Mischel’s major points about personality? a. The idea of traits is fundamental to understanding personality. b. Many personal traits are genetically determined. c. People are less consistent across situations than most theorists have assumed. d. People behave in ways that maximize reinforcement. 32. One of the problems with self-report personality inventories is that respondents may answer questions in ways that make them look good. What is this tendency called? a. social desirability bias b. self-serving bias c. perceptual set d. response set 33. Complete the following analogy: Adler is to individual psychology as Jung is to _____. a. depth psychology b. Gestalt psychology c. analytical psychology d. existential psychology

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 34. A patient was recently referred to Dr. Kim because the patient’s behaviour seems to manipulate and exploit others. The patient shows no empathy for the suffering of his victims. The patient is likely to score highly on measures of which of the following groups of traits? a. the Big Five b. the Dark Triad c. Eysenck’s higher-order traits d. NEO-PI 35. You are describing your friend Abby to someone else. You say that Abby is honest, funny, loyal, and exuberant. What is saying that Abby is “exuberant” an identification of? a. a personality trait b. the core of her personality c. one of Cattell’s fundamental traits d. an adjective that does not reflect real personality 36. Skye is 5 years old, and two weeks ago her mother had a new baby. Since her brother was brought home, Skye has insisted on drinking all her juice from baby bottles, and she has started wetting her bed. What defence mechanism does this reflect, according to Freud? a. repression b. reaction formation c. regression d. projection 37. What must parents do in order for a child to develop a healthy personality, according to Rogers? a. exhibit unconditional love toward the child b. create an atmosphere of intellectual stimulation c. avoid the use of punishment d. address the child’s ego needs 38. After frustrating and difficult days at work, Vladimir often acts more harshly with his daughter. He snaps at her, corrects her manners brusquely, and so on. Which of the following Freudian defence mechanism is Vladimir using? a. sublimation b. projection c. displacement d. identification 39. Fred was the highest-paid news anchor in prime-time television. He had been with the same national network for 20 years. His co-workers couldn’t believe it when Fred cleared out his office one day and announced he was going to become a volunteer with an international relief agency. He explained, “I feel I need to make a fundamental change in my life if I am going to continue to grow as a person.” What are Fred’s actions consistent with? a. Bandura’s concept of reciprocal determinism b. Maslow’s concept of self-actualizing individuals c. Adler’s concept of overcompensation d. Rogers’ concept of incongruence 40. You have just taken a test that involved answering pages of questions about your characteristic behaviour. What type of test is this likely to be? a. intelligence test b. self-report inventory c. achievement test d. projective test Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 41. What is NOT stressed by psychoanalytic theory? a. conscious thought patterns b. internal conflicts c. handling of sexual impulses d. childhood experiences 42. Which of the following is an example of sublimation? a. not remembering a traumatic event b. thinking someone dislikes you when really you dislike that person c. acting like a child when you are frustrated or angry d. channelling your energies into making beautiful art instead of confronting your problems 43. Camilla thinks of herself as a shy person who is often anxious in social settings; however, her friends would describe her as outgoing and relaxed. Which statement best describes Camilla, according to Carl Rogers? a. She experiences congruence. b. She is low in self-monitoring. c. She is high in self-efficacy. d. She experiences incongruence. 44. Which unifying theme of your text is illustrated by the tendency for Asian individuals to engage in less selfenhancement than American individuals? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. 45. What is the term for the statistical procedure used by researchers to identify closely related clusters of variables? a. analysis of variance b. factor analysis c. deviation analysis d. chi-square 46. Which of the following is NOT a component of the constellation of traits that forms the Dark Triad? a. psychopathy b. narcissism c. schizotypy d. Machiavellianism 47. What is NOT one of the main uses of personality scales? a. college admissions b. clinical diagnosis c. psychological research d. personnel selection 48. How is personality defined? a. an individual’s unique set of consistent behavioural traits b. an individual’s way of perceiving the world, influenced by experience c. an individual’s unique set of characteristics d. an individual’s overt behavioural traits 49. Which of Eysenck’s higher-order traits is associated with being sociable, assertive, active, and lively? a. sensation-seeking b. extraversion c. self-actualized d. self-monitoring

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 50. Complete the following analogy: Sex and aggression are to Sigmund Freud’s theory of personality as the tendency for personal growth is to _____. a. B.F. Skinner’s theory b. Abraham Maslow’s theory c. Hans Eysenck’s theory d. Carl Jung’s theory 51. Which type of people is most likely to post very provocative items on Facebook in order to get attention and approval? a. narcissist b. psychopath c. introvert d. extravert 52. According to the five-factor model of personality, which of the following is associated with people who tend to be sympathetic, trusting, cooperative, and modest? a. neuroticism b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. conscientiousness 53. Kevin has been working for the same company for the past 15 years. He earns a good salary, and he feels like his co-workers are “family.” However, lately he has begun to feel that his supervisors are not giving him the recognition or respect that he deserves, so he has been considering looking for another job. Which of Maslow’s needs are motivating Kevin at this point? a. self-actualization needs b. esteem needs c. belongingness and love needs d. cognitive needs 54. Five-year-old Samuel often tells his older sister: “I can’t wait to grow up, so I can marry mommy.” Which Freudian stage is Samuel most likely in? a. oral b. anal c. latency d. phallic 55. What is the Freudian period that begins with puberty? a. phallic stage b. genital stage c. latency stage d. anal stage 56. What is the name that Carl Jung used to identify the level of the unconscious that stores latent memory traces inherited from our ancestral past? a. primeval unconscious b. preconscious c. personal unconscious d. collective unconscious 57. Which personality test was designed to measure the Big Five traits? a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) b. NEO Personality Inventory c. Thematic Apperception Test d. Rorschach test 58. Which term refers to the belief that your behaviour will lead to expected outcomes? a. self-monitoring b. self-control c. self-efficacy d. self-justification

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 59. What would the self-actualizing person NOT do, according to Maslow’s theory? a. be spontaneous and neutral in exchanges b. have somewhat mystical experiences c. be uncomfortable when alone or detached d. have a limited number of strong friendships 60. What did Freud mean when he used the term “sexual” in his psychosexual stages of development? a. genital sexual impulses b. romantic love c. general sexual feelings d. any pleasure-giving urge 61. What is NOT one of the main weaknesses in biological approaches to personality? a. an overly optimistic view of human nature b. conceptual problems with heritability estimates c. the difficulty of separating the effects of nature and nurture d. the lack of a comprehensive theory 62. Mairah has been feeling dejected and even a little depressed lately and so has reached out to a counsellor. If the counsellor were a proponent of Tory Higgins’s research, she might suggest that Mariah’s difficulties stem from which of the following? a. an incongruence between the actual self and the ideal self b. repressed memories of childhood trauma c. reinforcement and punishment contingencies in her environment d. a genetic predisposition that was triggered by recent events in her life 63. Which of the following causes troublesome anxiety, according to Carl Rogers? a. unresolved sexual conflicts b. the use of defence mechanisms c. threats to our self-concept d. unconditional love 64. Abdul is 14 years old and has just begun puberty. Which stage is Abdul entering, according to Freud’s stages of psychosexual development? a. phallic b. superego c. latency d. genital 65. Vanessa bites her nails so badly that they bleed, but she can’t seem to stop herself from doing this. According to Freud, at what stage is Vanessa fixated? a. anal b. phallic c. oral d. latency 66. What is the central aspect of Adler’s theory of personality? a. People must resolve conflicts between the needs of society and the needs of the self. b. People strive to adapt and master life’s challenges. c. People have a drive to resolve the discrepancy between their real selves and their ideal selves. d. People are motivated to maintain the various components of mental experience in a state of balance and harmony. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 67. Which unifying theme of your text illustrates the fact that there are literally dozens of insightful theories of personality? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 68. Which of the following traits is most likely to be associated with higher grades in college settings? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. neuroticism 69. Meagan is strongly attracted to her co-worker, but he is married. To deal with the anxiety that her feelings have generated, she has unconsciously convinced herself that he is attracted to her. What defence mechanism is Meagan using, according to Freud? a. reaction formation b. projection c. regression d. displacement 70. Which of the following is the term, proposed by Tory Higgins, that refers to the kind of person that we believe we have a duty or obligation to be? a. ideal self b. should self c. ought self d. must self 71. Shaziah believes that she is a good writer but has just received a very low grade on her essay in her first-year English class. This discrepancy between Shaziah’s self-concept and her actual experience will likely cause which of the following, according to Carl Rogers? a. anxiety b. depression c. anger d. narcissism 72. What leads a person to overcompensate, according to Alfred Adler? a. fixation at one of the psychosexual stages b. a superiority complex c. failure in the use of defence mechanisms d. an inferiority complex 73. Sol believes it is impossible to do well in calculus class, so he doesn’t study much for that class. His lack of preparation has resulted in poor grades. His low grades have strengthened his belief that he can’t succeed in that class. Which of Bandura’s concepts does this example illustrate? a. reciprocal determinism b. unconditioned reinforcement c. reaction formation d. overcompensation 74. What is the term for the collection of beliefs about one’s own nature, unique qualities, and typical behaviour, according to Rogers? a. level of self-actualization b. phenomenology c. state of incongruence d. self-concept

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 75. Colton is completing a long personality inventory, and he doesn’t really want to take the time to read each of the questions in detail. Instead, he simply disagrees with all the statements. Which of the following describes Colton’s method of completing the personality inventory? a. a social desirability bias b. a negative response set c. a self-monitoring bias d. an unconscious conflict 76. Antony describes himself as an open and relaxed individual, but people who know him well would describe Antony as secretive and tense. Which statement best describes Antony, according to Carl Rogers? a. He is low in self-efficacy. b. He experiences congruence. c. He experiences incongruence. d. He is low in self-monitoring. 77. Todd was physically abused up until the age of 8. He is now 40 years old and he has absolutely no memories of the early abuse that he experienced. What defence mechanism is Todd using, according to Freud? a. regression b. repression c. projection d. displacement 78. Which theory of personality was developed from laboratory experiments, primarily with animals? a. Sigmund Freud’s theory of psychoanalysis b. B.F. Skinner’s behavioural view c. Carl Rogers’s humanistic view d. Hans Eysenck’s biological theory 79. Marcos is very quiet and avoids large groups. Some people consider him unfriendly, and he seldom takes a stand or acts assertively. How would Marcos probably score based on the five-factor model of personality? a. high in neuroticism b. low in agreeableness c. low in openness d. low in extraversion 80. According to the evolutionary approach to personality, humans have evolved to pay attention to variations in the tendency to be reliable and ethical. Which Big Five personality trait is this closely associated with? a. agreeableness b. extraversion c. neuroticism d. conscientiousness 81. Rashad thinks of himself as an outgoing, sociable person. All his friends would agree; most of them think he is one of the most friendly, upbeat people they have ever met. Which statement best describes Rashad, according to Carl Rogers? a. He is high in self-monitoring. b. He is high in self-efficacy. c. He experiences congruence. d. He experiences incongruence. 82. Mr. Gorst is a very patient individual who always has time for any questions his students might ask. If his students become more patient as a result of being in Mr. Gorst’s class, which concept would be supported? a. congruence b. observational learning c. positive reinforcement d. archetypes

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 83. Joan is an unfailingly polite person who always considers the feelings of others. Which quality of personality does this example illustrate? a. distinctiveness b. consistency c. social desirability d. reflexivity 84. A friend tells you that he recently responded to a personality inventory, which indicated that his level of depression was above normal. What did he likely complete? a. the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory b. the Edwards Personal Preference Schedule c. the Power Motivation Scale d. Cattell’s 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire 85. What is emphasized in social cognitive theory, but not in Skinner’s approach to personality? a. secondary reinforcers b. cognitive processes c. genetic factors d. respondent conditioning 86. Dr. Epee believes that people behave differently across situations because each situation has cues that evoke different responses. Who does Dr. Epee most closely mirror in his views? a. Alfred Adler b. Gordon Allport c. Carl Rogers d. Walter Mischel 87. What are parents promoting when they make their affection unconditional and show acceptance of their children’s behaviour, according to Carl Rogers? a. congruence between their children’s self-concept and their actual experiences b. observational learning and identification c. incongruence between their children’s self-concept and their actual experiences d. resolution of the Oedipal conflict 88. Haley has been having problems with her boyfriend recently, and she channels her aggression into trying to beat out her competition for a promotion at work. In fact, she has recently completed a large-scale project that impressed her boss a great deal. Which of Freud’s defence mechanisms is illustrated by this example? a. sublimation b. repression c. reaction formation d. identification 89. Jennifer sees an attractive boy on campus and later finds her mind wandering to thoughts of intensely kissing him. She immediately feels guilty about fantasizing about a stranger and tries to block out these thoughts by pouring herself into her physics homework. In this scenario, Jennifer’s initial fantasy could be attributed to which of the following Freudian structures of personality? a. the ego b. the id c. the psyche d. the superego 90. Molly is currently thinking about all the things she has to do before she goes to her first class. She is mentally making lists of all these things so that she will remember to do them on her way to school. Where are these thoughts contained in Molly’s mind, according to Freud? a. conscious b. subconscious c. preconscious d. unconscious Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 91. Which stage of Freud’s psychosexual development is in place for a 4- to 5-year-old child? a. genital b. phallic c. latency d. oral 92. Samantha has a career that she enjoys, has loving relationships with her partner and her children, and is very active in a charitable organization that means a lot to her. She often pauses to enjoy the little things in her life and finds humour in many of her experiences. Which humanist term best describes Samantha? a. self-actualizing b. unconditional c. incongruent d. overcompensating 93. Tara’s personality causes her to behave in an unfriendly, irritable, and unhelpful manner. These behaviours, in turn, trigger negative reactions from those around her, further convincing Tara that other people “are the worst” and strengthening these behaviours. This example best demonstrates which of the following concepts? a. reciprocal determinism b. self-reinforcement c. self-verification d. inferiority complex 94. Carlie is extremely relaxed and secure, and she seldom seems to be self-conscious when she is around others. How would Carlie probably score based on the five-factor model of personality? a. high in agreeableness b. high in extraversion c. low in neuroticism d. high in openness 95. How do defence mechanisms combat feelings of anxiety and guilt? a. by enhancing self-insight b. through rational problem solving c. through self-deception d. by making unconscious urges conscious 96. Who contends that personality is determined to a large extent by a person’s genes? a. B.F. Skinner b. Sigmund Freud c. Hans Eysenck d. Abraham Maslow 97. Which statement is most likely to be made by a critic of biological perspectives of personality? a. The evidence suggests that environmental factors do not influence personality. b. The evidence suggests that genetic factors do not influence personality. c. It is only a matter of time before the complicated intertwining of nature and nurture will be understood. d. Efforts to divide behaviour into genetic and environmental components are ultimately artificial. 98. Dr. Franken uses the MMPI to determine whether convicted criminals show evidence of antisocial tendencies. This information becomes part of each inmate’s record. For what purpose is Dr. Franken using a personality test? a. clinical diagnosis b. Counselling c. psychological research d. personnel selection

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 99. Daria is typically very perky and upbeat, but today she just got some very bad news about an old friend. She is behaving differently than usual, very distracted and frowning. Everyone around her at work knows that she’s having a rough time, and that she can’t be expected to be her usual bouncy self. Surely she’ll be back to normal once she has a chance to deal with this difficult situation. Which approach is similar to the attitude of Daria’s co-workers? a. psychodynamic b. situational specificity c. Jungian d. social cognitive 100. According to Freud, the id operates at which of the following levels of awareness? a. the unconscious only b. the preconscious and conscious c. the unconscious and preconscious d. the unconscious, preconscious, and conscious 101. What aspect of personality is fairly consistent across cultures, according to research findings? a. Big Five trait structure b. conceptions of the self c. views of national character d. use of defence mechanisms 102. What appears to have a surprisingly small impact on personality, based on research on the heritability of personality? a. unique experiences b. heredity c. shared family environment d. unconscious motivation 103. On her first day in a new school, Yilan sees one of her classmates get detention for passing notes in class. Yilan decides that this school is strict and that she will be extra-careful to follow rules. Which of the following theories does this example best support? a. Adler’s individual psychology b. Skinner’s operant conditioning theory c. Freud’s psychoanalytic theory d. Bandura’s social cognitive theory 104. According to Freud, for which of the following people is the superego most likely currently emerging? a. James, who was just born b. Sherri, who is in her “terrible twos” c. Bradley, who is just starting daycare at age four d. Rochelle, who is just entering her teens 105. Which statement is the LEAST valid criticism of the five-factor model of personality? a. It overemphasizes the role of unconscious motivation in personality. b. More than five traits are necessary to account for the variation seen in human personality. c. It provides no insight into the causes or development of personality. d. It is limited by the number of specific traits that are measured in the first place. 106. At approximately what age does the superego develop, according to Freud? a. 0–2 years of age b. 3–5 years of age c. 7–9 years of age d. 10–12 years of age

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 107. For people with high levels of neuroticism, which type of brain areas would you expect to be larger than average? a. areas associated with reward b. areas associated with planning and control c. areas associated with negative emotions d. areas associated with integration of perceptions 108. What term does Albert Bandura use to refer to the assumption that internal mental events, external environmental events, and overt behaviour all influence each other? a. mutual dependency b. reciprocal determinism c. psychic determinism d. reciprocal relativism 109. What would Skinner focus on in explaining an individual’s aggressiveness? a. instinctive reactions to environmental cues b. history of reinforcement and punishment c. an inadequate sense of self-worth d. feelings of repressed hostility 110. What portion of the personality mediates between instinctual demands and the world of reality, according to Freud? a. ego ideal b. ego c. id d. superego 111. What is the defence mechanism in which you attribute your own thoughts or motives to others? a. displacement b. projection c. regression d. reaction formation 112. Juan used to be a fairly generous individual, but it seemed that whenever he loaned things to people, they were never returned, or they were returned broken. Consequently, Juan is no longer generous. According to behaviourist theory, which of the following explains Juan’s lack of generosity? a. reinforcement b. punishment c. extinction d. spontaneous recovery 113. Which defence mechanism involves bolstering one’s self-esteem by forming an imaginary or real alliance with some person or group? a. identification b. displacement c. sublimation d. compensation 114. Having performed poorly on an exam, Helen attempts to protect her feelings of self-worth by telling herself that it does not matter because the course really is not that important to her. What defence mechanism is Helen using? a. projection b. rationalization c. repression d. displacement

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 115. What term would Freud have used for finding ways to meet instinctual needs while taking into account the conditions of the external, social world? a. id b. reality principle c. ego d. pleasure principle 116. Tessa is trying to decide whether to go to the gym or stay home and eat ice cream. She has the nagging thought that people who indulge in temporary pleasures rather than working toward self-improvement are lazy and morally corrupt. Which Freudian personality structure does this “nagging thought” represent? a. superego b. ego c. preconscious d. id 117. Rosalind is an impulsive child who seldom waits for her turn when playing with other children. Rosalind’s father is also an impulsive individual who often seems to act before he thinks. Which theorist would most likely suggest that Rosalind has learned to be impulsive from watching her father? a. Sigmund Freud b. B. F. Skinner c. Albert Bandura d. Carl Rogers 118. Joey has difficulty in school. He often forgets to study for tests, fails to meet deadlines for assignments, and hands in work that is rushed and careless. These behaviours all are most likely to be reflected in Joey’s score on which of the following “Big Five” dimensions of personality? a. agreeableness b. extraversion c. neuroticism d. conscientiousness 119. Which test is best used for precise evaluation of normal aspects of personality? a. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) b. NEO Personality Inventory c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) d. Rorschach test 120. Which defence mechanism involves giving yourself a plausible excuse that hides the real reasons for your behaviour? a. regression b. reaction formation c. projection d. rationalization 121. Which Freudian concept suggests that a male child desires his mother and fears his father? a. latency complex b. Oedipal complex c. Electra complex d. genital complex 122. Bruce attempts to make himself feel important by driving a European sports car, belonging to an exclusive tennis club, and eating at the best restaurants. Which defence mechanism does this reflect? a. displacement b. identification c. projection d. sublimation

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 123. Raul seems to be obsessed with the image he presents to others. He buys a new sports car every year, he lives in the biggest house in his neighbourhood, and he always buys the most expensive clothes he can find. What explains Raul’s behaviour, according to Alfred Adler? a. incongruence b. fixation c. reaction formation d. overcompensation 124. Fourteen-year-old Jessica knows she has made some bad choices at times, and these choices have gotten her into serious trouble on a number of occasions. However, she is confident that her parents love her, in spite of her mistakes. How does Jessica perceive her parents’ affection, according to the theory developed by Carl Rogers? a. phenomenological b. archetypal c. unconditional d. congruent 125. Which of the following describes a factor analysis? a. combining the statistical results of several studies on the same topic to gain an “overall picture” of the research on a particular question b. performing a set of correlations among many items to identify groups of highly related items c. analyzing whether the effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable differs depending on a third factor d. doing an in-depth study of a specific individual or small group of individuals to gain a full understanding of some rare phenomenon 126. Dr. Hewlett believes that early childhood experiences have a strong influence on adult personality, and that our personality is largely shaped by unconscious forces. Which perspective is consistent with Dr. Hewlett’s views? a. humanistic b. psychodynamic c. biological d. behavioural 127. Psychoanalysts generally believe that the primary defense mechanism is which of the following? a. sublimation b. rationalization c. repression d. identification 128. Lily studies hard before each quiz because she is trying to avoid getting a bad grade. According to Higgins’s self-regulation theory, what type of focus does Lily have? a. prevention b. promotion c. congruence d. incongruence 129. Sherra tends to be a relatively shy, quiet student in class. She behaves similarly when she is at home with her family. Which of the following qualities of personality does this demonstrate? a. reliability b. distinctiveness c. consensus d. consistency 130. Sandra has often been called a spoiled brat even though she’s an adult. She has a strong need for attention, and she is very self-centred. Which personality trait describes Sandra best? a. narcissism b. psychoticism c. neuroticism d. introversion

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 131. What is NOT an expected characteristic of a self-actualizing person? a. enjoying peak experiences b. having a strong need to affiliate with many people c. being open and spontaneous d. being realistic 132. Which theoretical orientation argues that psychology should study only observable behaviour? a. humanism b. rational-emotive c. behaviourism d. invasive 133. What are the heritability estimates for personality traits? a. just under 15 percent b. between 25 and 30 percent c. between 40 and 60 percent d. just over 75 percent 134. Which level of Maslow’s hierarchy would be most threatened by poverty? a. physiological b. esteem c. cognitive d. self-actualization 135. While looking through photos online, Mark suddenly saw a photo of a birthday cake shaped like a bunny. It was exactly like one he had had when he was a child. Although he was not thinking of his childhood birthday cake, the sight of the photo brought back memories of the day. Freud would say that the memory of this birthday cake moved from his _________ to his ________. a. unconscious; conscious b. preconscious; conscious c. unconscious; preconscious d. conscious; unconscious 136. Which personality test would be most useful if you were interested in diagnosing a mental disorder? a. Thematic Apperception Test b. NEO Personality Inventory c. Rorschach test d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory 137. A child has just been caught stealing from one of his classmates at school. In terms of which of the following would a social cognitive theorist most likely explain this child’s behaviour? a. a genetic predisposition resulting in a high need for attention b. personality defects of the child c. unresolved conflicts between the child and the parents d. learning through observation and reinforcement 138. Jose was very upset after a difficult meeting with his boss. When he got back to his office, he slammed the door and threw a bunch of file folders on the floor. What defence mechanism is Jose using, according to Freud? a. displacement b. rationalization c. projection d. reaction formation

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 139. Dr. Campeau’s research involved identifying clusters of specific behaviours that are so highly associated with one another that she may assume that they reflect the same single, underlying trait or dimension of personality. Which of the following is Dr. Campeau’s research method? a. componential recovery b. psychoanalysis c. factor analysis d. circular reasoning 140. When anthropologists compare ancient artefacts from South America, Europe, and Australia, they often find similarities among the images that are depicted. What would Jung suggest leads to these apparent similarities? a. the personal unconscious b. the collective unconscious c. Fixations d. Mandalas 141. Which unifying theme of your textbook illustrates the fact that Sigmund Freud’s theory of personality was influenced to a degree by his reaction to the hostilities of World War I? a. Psychology is the study of subjective experience. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Psychology is empirical. 142. Wanda is very quiet around people in authority, but she can be loud and boisterous among her peers. Who would explain the difference in Wanda’s behaviour in terms of situational factors? a. Carl Rogers b. Alfred Adler c. Walter Mischel d. Sigmund Freud 143. John is very routine-oriented. He always eats the same breakfast every day, and goes on a bike ride along the same route before going to work. Each Saturday, he goes to the same restaurant, and orders the same meal as a treat. These behaviours all are most likely to be reflected in John’s score on which of the following “Big Five” dimensions of personality? a. extraversion b. neuroticism c. conscientiousness d. openness 144. What is the name of the therapeutic approach developed by Carl Rogers? a. free will oriented b. human agency directed c. person-centred d. physician-centred 145. Petra goes for an eight-kilometre run on a treadmill every day and believes that she enjoys it. Unconsciously, though, she hates running on a treadmill. If Petra continues to run, sneering at the “weakness” of others who do not exercise as much, which of the following Freudian defence mechanism would this represent? a. sublimation b. displacement c. regression d. projection 146. How many personality traits did Raymond Cattell suggest that humans have? a. 5 b. 10 c. 16 d. 27

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 147. In an emergency, we would all react differently from one another because we have different personalities and experiences. What is this quality of personality called? a. constancy b. distinctiveness c. differentiation d. consistency 148. Salvatore has a repressive coping style. Which of the following is most likely compared to someone who does not have this coping style? a. Salvatore will have a worse memory for threatening or unpleasant events. b. Salvatore will have an enhanced memory for nonthreatening or pleasant events. c. Salvatore will process information about negative events more quickly. d. Salvatore will process information about positive events more quickly. 149. Cody just completed a personality scale designed to measure the three higher-order traits identified by Hans Eysenck. He scored low in the personality trait of extraversion. What does this suggest about Cody? a. He is quiet and non-assertive. b. He is assertive and moody. c. He is insensitive and cruel. d. He is anxious and moody. 150. Which complex is associated with a boy fearing his father and desiring his mother? a. genital complex b. Oedipal complex c. phallic complex d. Electra complex 151. According to research on Tory Higgins’s model of the self, people tend to feel agitation and even anxiety when there is an incongruence between which of the following? a. the actual self versus the ideal self b. the actual self versus the ought self c. the actual OR ought self versus the ideal self d. the ideal OR ought self versus the actual self 152. Ten-year-old Benjamin is often nervous about bringing report cards home to his parents. Although his parents say they love him, he feels that they really love him only when he obtains excellent grades in school. How does Benjamin perceive his parents’ affection, based on the theory developed by Carl Rogers? a. unconditional b. congruent c. incongruent d. conditional 153. Which trait involves being egocentric, impulsive, cold, and antisocial, according to Hans Eysenck? a. neuroticism b. psychoticism c. introversion d. extraversion 154. Jung and Adler were critical of Freud’s ideas. Which topic led to the largest criticisms? a. defence mechanisms b. sexuality c. the unconscious d. the influence of childhood experiences 155. Although many of Freud’s defence mechanisms operate through self-deception, which of the following is considered to be “relatively healthy”? a. repression b. reaction formation c. regression d. sublimation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 156. Why was the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) originally designed? a. as an aid for clinical diagnosis b. as a self-assessment tool c. to screen military personnel d. to assess basic dimensions of normal personality 157. Which defence mechanism involves pushing distressing thoughts into the unconscious and keeping them there? a. neurogenic amnesia b. repression c. avoidance d. suppression 158. Fixation at what psychosexual stage would explain a compulsive smoker’s behaviour? a. anal stage b. latency stage c. genital stage d. oral stage 159. Recent research suggests that cat lovers are different from dog lovers in terms of their personality. For which of the following traits do cat lovers typically score higher? a. agreeableness b. extraversion c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism 160. Kato sets extremely high standards for both himself and others. He tends to be rigid and inflexible and rarely allows himself to enjoy life. Which structure would Freud say dominates Kato’s personality? a. his ego b. his superego c. his id d. penis envy 161. Malachi is an executive for a major corporation. He constantly needs to find ways to make money for the corporation while taking into consideration factors such as laws and financial resources. Which portion of Freud’s personality model makes “decisions” like these? a. superego b. ego c. id d. preconscious 162. Which list represents the correct order of the stages in psychosexual development? a. anal, oral, phallic, genital, latency b. anal, oral, genital, latency, phallic c. oral, anal, latency, phallic, genital d. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital 163. Which type of study reveals that the Big Five personality traits have a genetic component? a. cross-sectional studies b. twin studies c. longitudinal studies d. behaviour modification studies 164. Which needs in Maslow’s hierarchy are reflected in your needs for social status and for respect and recognition from others? a. love and belongingness b. esteem c. cognitive d. aesthetic

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 165. Assume that personality researchers have isolated a new trait they have called “nescience.” What would it indicate if these researchers report that identical twins reared together and identical twins reared apart show the same moderate correspondence for this particular trait? a. Genetics has a larger influence than environment in the expression of nescience. b. Genetics and environment exert equivalent influences in the expression of nescience. c. Environment has a larger influence than genetics in the expression of nescience. d. Neither genetics nor environment influences the expression of nescience. 166. Jordan has taken a job that is extremely dangerous, but which pays him enough so that he is sure he will have enough to eat, and he will be able to sleep in a warm place each night. What is Jordan’s primary motivation according to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? a. cognitive needs b. need for self-actualization c. safety and security needs d. physiological needs 167. Janelle is suspicious and uncooperative. Her friends think she is a boastful person who is seldom sympathetic. How would Janelle probably score, based on the five-factor model of personality? a. low in agreeableness b. high in neuroticism c. low in openness d. low in extraversion 168. Lacey watches as her grandmother makes cookies. The following week, when Lacey makes cookies, she uses the same bowl and same techniques that her grandmother used. In this example, which term would apply to Lacey’s grandmother? a. a reinforcer b. an archetype c. a person factor d. a model 169. Which theory of personality was developed from data collected from family, twin, and adoption studies? a. Hans Eysenck’s biological theory b. Carl Rogers’ humanistic view c. Sigmund Freud’s theory of psychoanalysis d. B.F. Skinner’s behavioural view 170. What do children go through during Freud’s latency stage? a. They attempt to cope with the desires they have for their same-sex parent. b. They turn their biological urges loose. c. They begin to focus their sexual energy on their opposite-sex peers. d. They begin to expand their social contacts beyond the immediate family. 171. Mason has been feeling agitated and even a little anxious lately and so has reached out to a counsellor. If the counsellor were a proponent of Tory Higgins’s research, she might suggest that Mason’s difficulties stem from which of the following? a. repressed memories of childhood trauma b. reinforcement and punishment contingencies in her environment c. a genetic predisposition that was triggered by recent events in his life d. an incongruence between the actual self and the ideal self Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 172. Which of the following “Big Five” dimensions of personality is negatively correlated with income, particularly among men? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. neuroticism 173. Which criticism can be levelled against both the psychoanalytic approach and the behavioural approach to personality? a. They provide a fragmented view of personality. b. They overemphasize the influence of early childhood experiences. c. They are too deterministic. d. They are difficult to test. 174. Dr. Price believes that personality is largely determined by an individual’s genetic makeup and that personality traits run in families. Who would most agree with Dr. Price’s view of personality? a. B. F. Skinner b. Walter Mischel c. Carl Jung d. Hans Eysenck 175. Cari often has temper tantrums and pouts when she can’t have her own way. She often behaves impulsively and becomes extremely impatient if she can’t have the things that she wants immediately. What dominates Cari’s personality, according to Freud’s view of the personality? a. her superego b. her id c. reaction formation d. her ego 176. Rico worries about his tendency toward abusing animals, so he joins the Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals. Which defence mechanism is he using? a. repression b. reaction formation c. rationalization d. projection 177. What did Karen Horney believe was an important need in infants and young children? a. need for achievement b. need for psychosexual stage development c. need for affiliation d. need for a sense of security 178. Hal is fearful of men who are friendly toward him, convinced that they are all homosexuals attempting to seduce him. Freud might suggest that Hal is himself a latent homosexual, fearful of admitting this even to himself. What defence mechanism is Hal using, in that case? a. reaction formation b. displacement c. projection d. regression 179. Which of the following is a key concept in Freudian theory? a. personal growth b. reinforcement c. self-actualization d. conflict

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 180. Alfred Adler and Carl Jung disagreed with Freud’s psychoanalytic theory in which of the following ways? a. They believed that personality was heavily shaped by childhood experiences. b. They believed that Freud placed too much emphasis on culture and social factors. c. They believed that sexuality was overemphasized in Freud’s psychoanalytic theory. d. They believed that Freud put too much emphasis on biological and genetic factors. 181. From which individual’s work did all modern psychodynamic theories of personality derive from? a. Albert Bandura b. Sigmund Freud c. Karen Horney d. Wilhelm Wundt 182. Why would you probably use if you needed a personality inventory capable of measuring a person’s degree of psychopathology? a. Cattell’s 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire b. Edwards Personal Preference Schedule c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory d. factor analysis 183. Nikolas is a nonconformist who is daring and likes to try new things. He is extremely imaginative and has a wide range of interests. How would Nikolas probably score, based on the five-factor model of personality? a. low in neuroticism b. high in openness c. high in extraversion d. high in agreeableness 184. According to research comparing American and Asian children, what are Asian parents more likely to teach their children to do? a. be modest about their personal accomplishments b. feel good about themselves c. be self-reliant d. view themselves as special individuals 185. What is the term for people who are outgoing, sociable, upbeat, friendly, and assertive, according to the fivefactor model of personality? a. conscientious b. open to experience c. neurotic d. extraverted 186. Cole is sneaky and tends to lie. What would a psychologist who held a strong behavioural view toward personality development look for to explain Cole’s personality? a. previous learning experiences and his history of reinforcement b. self-concept and his interactions with others c. fixation at particular stages of development d. unconsciously repressed feelings of anger and hostility 187. In so-called copycat crimes, someone replicates a famous crime. For which theory do these crimes provide anecdotal evidence? a. Freud’s psychoanalytic theory b. Skinner’s operant conditioning theory c. Bandura’s social cognitive theory d. Adler’s individual psychology Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 188. In looking at many current examples of racist and violent behaviour, Dr. Koo explains that these are the result of our innate and unconscious aggressive impulses. He proposes a solution whereby our society must learn to better manage or redirect these impulses. Which of the following perspectives is most consistent with Dr. Koo’s statements? a. behavioural b. humanistic c. psychodynamic d. biological 189. For which of the following have both the psychoanalytic and behavioural theories of personality been criticized? a. failure to recognize the unique qualities of human behaviour b. preoccupation with animal research c. belief that behaviour is dominated by primitive, animalistic drives d. a fragmented view of personality 190. What is NOT one of the major contributions associated with the humanistic theory of personality? a. the importance of a person’s subjective views b. focusing attention on what constitutes a healthy personality c. acknowledging the role that internal conflict plays in causing stress d. making the self-concept an important construct in psychology 191. Research on gender differences in average scores on the “Big Five” personality traits have reliably shown that women tend to score slightly higher than men in which of the following dimensions? a. openness and neuroticism b. openness and conscientiousness c. neuroticism and agreeableness d. agreeableness and conscientiousness 192. Which theoretical approach is considered to be the most optimistic view of human nature? a. behavioural b. psychoanalytic c. cognitive d. humanistic 193. Which personality approach is a collection of diverse theories which focus on unconscious mental forces as a primary determinant of behaviour? a. logotherapy b. individual psychology c. psychodynamic theory d. the trait perspective 194. In looking at many current examples of racist and violent behaviour, Dr. Varga explains that these are the result of the environments in which our children are raised. She says that our society must get better at reinforcing the prosocial behaviours that we would like children to engage in. Which of the following perspectives is most consistent with Dr. Varga’s statements? a. humanistic b. behavioural c. biological d. psychodynamic 195. Which of the following correctly identifies the “Big Five” personality traits? a. openness, honesty, excitability, nervousness, conscientiousness b. agreeableness, conscientiousness, openness, neuroticism, extraversion c. candidness, apprehensiveness, nervousness, openness, excitability d. openness, conscientiousness, excitability, amicableness, nervousness Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 196. Which of the following “Big Five” dimensions of personality is positively correlated with both health and longevity? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. neuroticism 197. Which trait is likely to differ most across cultures? a. neuroticism b. self-enhancement c. extraversion d. agreeableness 198. In explaining behaviour, what is social learning theorist Walter Mischel most interested in? a. unconscious forces b. personality traits c. Instincts d. the situation 199. Scott has just been reprimanded by his supervisor. Later, Scott begins to pout and throws a tantrum in front of his co-workers. Which defence mechanism is Scott using? a. rationalization b. regression c. projection d. sublimation 200. Which approach to personality stresses the individual’s freedom, uniqueness, and growth potential? a. humanism b. social cognitive c. phenomenological d. behaviourism 201. According to Freud, what do we experience if we feel that a forbidden impulse could get out of control and be expressed in our behaviour? a. depression b. impulse gratification c. secondary gain d. anxiety 202. Crystal and her therapist often discuss how she will be able to optimize her happiness and find meaning in her life. The therapist emphasizes the power of free will and our choices in the pursuit of personal growth. With which of the following perspectives is the therapist most likely to agree? a. biological b. psychodynamic c. behavioural d. humanistic 203. In addition to disagreeing about the root causes of behaviour, B. F. Skinner’s view of personality also differed from Freud’s in which of the following ways? a. Skinner believed that Freud underemphasized childhood sexuality. b. Skinner believed that personality development was a lifelong process. c. Skinner believed that actions are driven by a need for self-actualization. d. Skinner believed that biological factors were primary determinants of personality. 204. Which statement is NOT a criticism of the Freudian perspective on personality? a. The empirical evidence on psychodynamic theories has been characterized as inadequate. b. Unconscious forces have been shown to exert an influence on behaviour. c. Freudian theory is sexist. d. Freud did not use representative samples. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 205. Callie just gave birth to her sixth daughter. Unconsciously, she resents the baby’s birth and wishes the infant would have died during delivery. However, when she cares for her infant, she showers her with exaggerated care and affection. Which defence mechanism is Callie using, according to Freud? a. reaction formation b. rationalization c. displacement d. projection 206. According to Freud, internal conflicts can give rise to anxiety. This anxiety can be attributed to the ego worrying about which of the following getting out of control? a. the id b. defence mechanisms c. the superego d. either the id or the superego 207. Several psychodynamic assumptions have gained considerable acceptance. What is NOT one of the accepted assumptions? a. Unconscious forces can influence behaviour. b. Sexual and aggressive impulses are the driving force of behaviour. c. Early childhood experiences can influence adult personality. d. Internal conflict can play a key role in generating psychological distress. 208. Dr. Linzle believes that it is necessary to understand each individual’s personal, subjective experiences if you are to truly understand that individual’s personality and behaviour. Which perspective best reflects Dr. Linzle’s views? a. psychodynamic b. humanistic c. biological d. behavioural 209. Assume that personality researchers have isolated a new trait. If this new trait is similar to the Big Five traits in terms of heritability, which pattern would you expect to see? a. Fraternal twins reared together will be more similar than identical twins reared together. b. Identical twins reared apart will be more similar than fraternal twins reared together. c. Fraternal and identical twins show equivalent similarity in personality. d. Fraternal twins reared together will be more similar than identical twins reared apart. 210. Whenever Uma is denied anything by her husband, she pouts and gives him the silent treatment. Which defence mechanism reflects this immature way of dealing with reality? a. regression b. displacement c. reaction formation d. projection 211. Which theoretical approach to personality is the least deterministic? a. behavioural b. psychoanalytic c. Jungian d. humanistic 212. Why does a person become fixated at a particular psychosexual stage, according to Freud? a. a genetic predisposition for fixation b. permissiveness on the part of the person’s parents c. abnormalities in brain chemistry that develop prenatally d. either excessive gratification or excessive frustration of needs Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 213. In a children’s story, a little train that has never been over the mountains still believes in her ability to do so, even when others doubt her. When given the chance, she keeps repeating, “I think I can, I think I can,” and ultimately is able to go over the mountain. This example best illustrates which of the following concepts? a. observational learning b. reciprocal determinism c. inferiority complex d. self-efficacy 214. Which of the following researchers is most closely associated with social learning theory? a. Abraham Maslow b. Robert McCrae c. Albert Bandura d. Carl Rogers 215. According to Freud, the ego operates at which of the following levels of awareness? a. the unconscious only b. the preconscious and conscious c. the unconscious and preconscious d. the unconscious, preconscious, and conscious 216. Which of the following did Alfred Adler say was the foremost source of human motivation? a. unconscious conflict b. striving for superiority c. reciprocal determinism d. self-actualization 217. Which statement best summarizes Albert Bandura’s concept of reciprocal determinism? a. “Striving for success is the key human drive.” b. “Environments shape humans and humans shape environments.” c. “Free will is an illusion.” d. “We are born with the template for our future behaviour.” 218. A man who has numerous reasons to be angry with his mother instead lavishes her with unrealistic amounts of attention and gifts. Which Freudian defence mechanism is he using? a. projection b. displacement c. sublimation d. reaction formation 219. When Braden was 9 years old, he saw one of his classmates get hit by a bus. Today, at the age of 34, he has no memory of the accident. The evening news carried a flashback of the accident that happened 25 years ago, and Braden still didn’t remember being at the scene when the accident happened. Where is Braden’s memory of the accident contained, according to Freud? a. conscious b. subconscious c. unconscious d. preconscious 220. Natalie is 8 years old. Her parents have always spoiled her and given her anything that she has asked for. What will this parental pampering cause in Natalie, based on Adler’s theory of individual psychology? a. a tendency to be dominated by her superego as an adult b. feelings of competence and self-sufficiency c. a weak superego d. exaggerated feelings of weakness and inadequacy

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 221. Which of the following should be associated with an individualistic culture, more than with a collectivist culture? a. neuroticism b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. self-enhancement 222. Which of the following “Big Five” dimensions of personality is most closely associated with negative emotionality? a. extraversion b. neuroticism c. conscientiousness d. openness 223. Sophie sees an attractive boy on campus and later finds her mind wandering to thoughts of intensely kissing him. She immediately feels guilty about fantasizing about a stranger and tries to block out these thoughts by pouring herself into her engineering homework. In this scenario, Sophie’s guilt and attempt at blocking out her fantasy could be attributed to which of the following Freudian structures of personality? a. the ego b. the id c. the psyche d. the superego 224. What did Abraham Maslow call the need to fulfil one’s potential? a. need for affiliation b. need for achievement c. need for self-actualization d. need for power 225. Complete the following analogy: Id is to pleasure principle as ____________. a. superego is to repetition principle b. superego is to desire c. ego is to reality principle d. ego is to executive principle 226. According to research by Gosling (2013), which of the following traits is LOWER in dog lovers than in cat lovers? a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. openness d. conscientiousness 227. Which psychoanalytic manoeuvre is considered the “flagship in the psychoanalytic fleet of defence mechanisms”? a. repression b. regression c. sublimation d. identificationy 228. Which trait is most strongly correlated with mental and physical illnesses? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. neuroticism 229. What would Adler call it when a timid, sickly child goes on to become a forceful, physically active adult? a. displacement b. reaction formation c. fixation d. compensation

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 230. Dr. Illustra is using a personality test to determine whether certain conscientiousness is predictive of graduation GPA across 10 years in her university. Students complete the personality inventory in their first year of university, then Dr. Illustra keeps track of their grades and likelihood of graduating. What is the use of the personality test in this example? a. psychological research b. clinical diagnosis c. counselling d. personnel selection 231. Sarah is torn between the need to study for an exam and her desire to go out with her friends. She decides that she will go out later only if she completes her studying. Which Freudian component of Sarah’s personality does this example illustrate? a. id b. unconscious c. ego d. superego 232. Shayna has a job that pays well, and she has three children who are now all in adolescence. For the past few months, she has found herself increasingly restless, so she is thinking about enrolling in university and taking some classes in art, which has always interested her. What needs are motivating Shayna, according to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? a. esteem needs b. belongingness and love needs c. cognitive needs d. aesthetic needs 233. According to research on Tory Higgins’s model of the self, people tend to feel dejection and even depression when there is an incongruence between which of the following? a. the actual self versus the ideal self b. the actual self versus the ought self c. the actual OR ought self versus the ideal self d. the ideal OR ought self versus the actual self 234. Aaron is an extravert who tends to have a high degree of self-efficacy. This week, however, he is not his usual self because his girlfriend ended their relationship. What would someone who takes an interactionist approach to personality suggest about Aaron’s current state? a. It reflects the influence of the current situation, and his current state deviates from his typical state. b. It reflects his latent insecurity, which has previously been masked by his extraversion. c. It is evidence that he requires personal interaction in order to rebuild his self-image. d. It is evidence of depression, because it is a distinct change from his stable pattern of behaviour. 235. Ashley is 9 years old, and it seems that every day she brings home a different friend from school. As she expands her social contacts beyond her immediate family, which of Freud’s stages fits Ashley’s behaviour? a. genital b. phallic c. preconscious d. latency 236. According to the evolutionary approach to personality, humans have evolved special sensitivity to variations in the ability to bond with others. Which Big Five personality trait is this closely associated with? a. neuroticism b. openness c. extraversion d. conscientiousness

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 237. According to the five-factor model of personality, which of the following do people who tend to be diligent, disciplined, well-organized, and punctual also tend to score high in? a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. conscientiousness 238. According to research comparing American and Asian children, what are parents in Asian cultures most likely to teach their children to do? a. view themselves as special individuals b. rely on family and friends c. be self-reliant d. feel good about themselves 239. What is one of the major criticisms of the humanistic approach to personality? a. It de-emphasizes the subjective nature of self-concept. b. It is too optimistic about human nature. c. It presents a fragmented view of personality. d. It is too deterministic. 240. Graham lost a lot of money on some bad investments in the stock market. Consequently, he had to trade his expensive luxury car for a smaller, more economical car. He has been telling all his co-workers that he made the switch to do his part to stop pollution. Which defence mechanism is Graham using, according to Freud? a. projection b. rationalization c. reaction formation d. displacement 241. Freud ascribed great importance to sexual and aggressive impulses. Why did he focus on those impulses? a. They tend to be routinely frustrated. b. They tend to be reinforced by others. c. They dominate our dreams. d. They are essential to the survival of the species. 242. Which of the following statements best captures the current research conclusions on the relationship between birth order and personality? a. There is a strong correlation between birth order and certain aspects of personality. b. There is a strong correlation between birth order and personality but only among men. c. There is a moderate correlation between birth order and personality but only among women. d. The correlations between birth order and personality are so weak as to be meaningless. 243. Marta just completed a personality scale designed to measure the three higher-order traits identified by Hans Eysenck. She scored low in the personality trait of neuroticism. What does this suggest about Marta? a. She is relaxed and high in self-esteem. b. She is warm and sociable. c. She is sensitive and caring. d. She is anxious and moody.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 244. A politician is removed from office for major incompetence. Afterward, he appears on numerous television programs boasting about his supposedly incomparable talents and achievements. He even goes so far as to claim that he was the best person to hold his position in history. This is an example of which of the following Freudian defence mechanisms? a. reaction formation b. projection c. identification d. regression 245. What need was Abraham Maslow expressing when he said that “what a man can be, he must be”? a. need to achieve b. need for unconditional love c. need to self-actualize d. need for superiority 246. According to the evolutionary approach to personality, humans have evolved to evaluate whether someone has the capacity to be an innovative problem solver. Which Big Five personality trait is closely associated with the capacity for innovative problem solving? a. extraversion b. openness to experience c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism 247. What type of personality measure asks you to respond freely to an ambiguous stimulus such as a picture or an inkblot? a. behaviour rating b. projective test c. deceptive test d. self-report personality inventory 248. Humanists emphasize subjective beliefs, such as whether a person believes that they are or aren’t attractive or intelligent, over the reality of the situation. This assumption therefore leads many humanists, in contrast to other perspectives, to adopt which of the following kinds of approaches? a. rational b. phenomenological c. empirical d. emotive 249. Which statement best describes Walter Mischel’s belief about the cause of behaviour? a. Behaviour is situationally specific. b. Behaviour is independent of conscious thought. c. Behaviour is instigated by mood. d. Behaviour is determined by innate factors. 250. According to Freud, which of the following components of personality is the reservoir of “psychic energy” (i.e., our urges for things like food and sex)? a. the ego b. the psyche c. the id d. the superego

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. c 4. d 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. c 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. d 25. b 26. c

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. a 33. c 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. b 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 55. b 56. d 57. b 58. c 59. c 60. d 61. a 62. a 63. c 64. d 65. c 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. a 74. d 75. b 76. c 77. b 78. b 79. d 80. d 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 83. b 84. a 85. b 86. d 87. a 88. a 89. b 90. a 91. b 92. a 93. a 94. c 95. c 96. c 97. d 98. a 99. d 100. a 101. a 102. c 103. d 104. c 105. a 106. b 107. c 108. b 109. b 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 111. b 112. b 113. a 114. b 115. b 116. a 117. c 118. d 119. b 120. d 121. b 122. b 123. d 124. c 125. b 126. b 127. c 128. a 129. d 130. a 131. b 132. c 133. c 134. a 135. b 136. d 137. d

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 138. a 139. c 140. b 141. b 142. c 143. d 144. c 145. d 146. c 147. b 148. a 149. a 150. b 151. b 152. d 153. b 154. b 155. d 156. a 157. b 158. d 159. d 160. b 161. b 162. d 163. b 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 166. c 167. a 168. d 169. a 170. d 171. d 172. b 173. c 174. d 175. b 176. b 177. d 178. c 179. d 180. c 181. b 182. c 183. b 184. a 185. d 186. a 187. c 188. c 189. a 190. c 191. c 192. d 193. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 194. b 195. b 196. a 197. b 198. d 199. b 200. a 201. d 202. d 203. b 204. b 205. a 206. d 207. b 208. b 209. b 210. a 211. d 212. d 213. d 214. c 215. d 216. b 217. b 218. d 219. c 220. d 221. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 222. b 223. d 224. c 225. c 226. c 227. a 228. d 229. d 230. a 231. c 232. c 233. a 234. a 235. d 236. c 237. d 238. b 239. b 240. b 241. a 242. d 243. a 244. d 245. c 246. b 247. b 248. b

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol 1 249. a 250. c

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Allison is really full of herself. She expects other people to pay attention to her most of the time, and she also expects them to do things for her and give in to her whims. If someone criticizes her she gets very angry, and tries to “get even.” Which term describes Allison’s personality? a. extraverted b. narcissistic c. neurotic d. antisocial 2. Who did NOT emphasize the influence of childhood experiences on adult personality? a. Carl Rogers b. Sigmund Freud c. Alfred Adler d. Abraham Maslow 3. While cleaning up after her party last night, Anka forgot to put the leftover crab dip in the refrigerator. When she discovered the spoiled dip in the morning, Anka said she didn’t mind having to throw it out because it wasn’t very tasty anyway. Which defence mechanism does this illustrate? a. reaction formation b. rationalization c. repression d. regression 4. Which of the following is NOT consistent with your textbook’s definition of personality? a. a focus on an individual’s uniqueness b. a focus on an individual’s behavioural traits c. a focus on an individual’s primary motivations d. a focus on an individual’s consistent tendencies 5. Becky is experiencing an unconscious conflict between her desire to impress the people around her and her urge to punch and yell at someone who is causing her frustration. According to Freud, what will result from this conflict? a. archetypes b. id frailty c. anxiety d. fixation 6. Adler’s own feelings of inferiority in childhood had a large impact on the development of his personality theory. Which unifying theme in psychology does this illustrate? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 7. According to Freud’s theory, what results from either excessive gratification or excessive frustration of needs? a. defence mechanisms b. overcompensation c. fixation d. regression 8. Mitchell sees himself as a great writer, with very clever ideas. He receives feedback on a paper he wrote for a course and his professor wrote on it that the paper was sloppy, hard to read, and not very original. According to Rogers, what reaction will Mitchell be likely to experience because of this feedback? a. self-actualization b. depression c. a re-evaluation of his self-concept d. anxiety Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 9. According to Maslow, if someone’s needs are not satisfied at a particular level of the hierarchy, what happens? a. They block that need from their conscious awareness. b. They skip the need and move up to the next attainable need. c. They regress to a lower-level need. d. They become fixated and must employ multiple defence mechanisms. 10. What does cross-cultural research suggest about the Big Five personality traits? a. They are fairly consistent across cultures. b. They exist only in Western cultures. c. They are fairly inconsistent across cultures. d. They are unique to each culture. 11. Which of the following traits is valued in cultures that put personal goals ahead of group goals and define identity in terms of personal attributes rather than group memberships? a. self-efficacy b. collectivism c. self-worth d. individualism 12. Whenever Peter updates his status on Facebook, he is usually seeking attention. Sometimes he brags about how great he is at sports, or the number of phone numbers he solicited at the bar. Other times he will write about how tough it is to be taken seriously because he’s too good looking. Many of his friends started out finding Peter charming and fun, but now most of them are tired of his selfishness. Which personality type matches this description of Peter? a. narcissistic b. extraverted c. neurotic d. introverted 13. Many cultures have a symbol, story, or image that is tied to the concept of a nurturing and protective mother figure. According to Jung, what does this symbol represent in the unconscious? a. dream representations b. conflict c. archetypes d. defence mechanisms 14. Which term refers to Albert Bandura’s idea that internal mental events, external environmental events, and overt behaviours all influence one another? a. self-efficacy b. reciprocal determinism c. introversion-extraversion d. archetypes 15. Which of the following factors are essential in defining personality? a. consistency and distinctiveness b. consistency and testing c. testing and distinctiveness d. testing and disposition

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 16. Although Freud was brilliant, and his theory gained prominence, many contemporaries were uncomfortable with Freud’s ideas. Which statement is NOT one of the alleged reasons for their discomfort? a. Freud held individuals accountable for their sexual and aggressive tendencies and viewed these behaviours as something fully within their control. b. Freud argued for the significance of infantile sexuality on the development of personality. c. Freud placed too much emphasis on theory and not scientific testing. d. Freud’s emphasis on sexuality offended conservative Victorians. 17. Dr. Leitenen is a personality researcher who focuses on the traits of extraversion, openness, and agreeableness. What could you say about Dr. Leitenen’s approach? a. It uses traits that are not empirically validated. b. It uses a portion of the Big Five model. c. It is dramatically different from the Big Five model. d. It is most similar to a psychoanalytic approach. 18. According to the dominant view of personality today, how many basic traits make up personality? a. 5 b. 16 c. approximately 50 d. over 4500 19. Which of the following is NOT a focus of Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytic theory of personality? a. unconscious motives and conflicts b. methods used to cope with sexual and aggressive urges c. the potential for personal growth d. the influence of childhood experiences 20. How would Adler describe an average or typical child? a. The child has feelings of inferiority. b. The child has strong sexual desires. c. The child has feelings of superiority. d. The child has an accurate self-concept. 21. What is a component of both Freud’s psychoanalytic theory and Rogers’s person-centred theory? a. self-efficacy b. defence mechanisms c. the superego d. phenomenology 22. Which of the following terms refers to personality tests that ask individuals to answer a series of questions about their characteristic behaviour? a. objective tests b. behavioural personality profiles c. self-report inventories d. projective tests 23. Who becomes the target of erotic desires for children in Sigmund Freud’s phallic stage of development? a. the parent of the same sex b. playmates c. the parent of the opposite sex d. siblings 24. Who is associated with the concepts of the personal unconscious and collective unconscious? a. Abraham Maslow b. Alfred Adler c. Carl Jung d. Sigmund Freud Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 25. Janice was shown a series of cards with vague, ambiguous scenes and asked to describe what she thought was happening in each scene. Which test was Janice given? a. the Rorschach test b. the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) c. the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) d. the 16 Personality Factor (16PF) Questionnaire 26. According to Maslow’s theory of personality, what is an example of a growth need? a. need for self-actualization b. need for achievement c. need for transcendence d. need for food and shelter 27. Cerise has very poor impulse control and she rarely denies herself any treat or opportunity to have fun. She has a hard time getting her work done and is seen as irresponsible. Which of the following dominates Cerise’s personality, according to psychoanalytic theory? a. id b. superego c. sublimation d. reaction formation 28. Amanda describes herself as intelligent, friendly, and responsible. Amanda’s family, friends, and teachers all agree that she shows those qualities. What would Carl Rogers say about Amanda’s self-concept? a. It is efficacious. b. It is congruent. c. It is positive. d. It is accurate. 29. What do psychodynamic personality theories focus on? a. learning b. genetic factors c. an individual’s freedom and potential for growth d. unconscious mental forces 30. According to Carl Rogers, what childhood experience tends to cause people to develop an incongruent selfconcept as a result of their parents’ behaviours? a. conditional affection b. inconsistent affection c. consistent affection d. unconditional affection 31. Ari is successful in his career, has a rewarding family life, and feels like he has achieved his goals in life. He is very satisfied with his accomplishments and finds his life very fulfilling. According to Maslow, what has Ari attained? a. self-actualization b. self-efficacy c. self-acceptance d. self-sufficiency 32. Four-year-old Sai says that when he grows up he is going to marry his mother. He competes with his father for his mother’s attention. According to Sigmund Freud, what is Sai experiencing? a. identification complex b. phallic complex c. genital complex d. Oedipal complex

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 33. Stella gets average grades in school. She knows that her parents really value high grades, so even though she doesn’t really care about grades herself, she feels quite guilty about not working harder and not getting higher marks. According to Higgins’s self-discrepancy theory, which discrepancy is Stella experiencing? a. between her true self and her ideal self b. between her actual self and her ought self c. between her ought self and her ideal self d. between her true self and her actual self 34. Which of the following does NOT pair the theorist with his personality perspective? a. Albert Bandura—behavioural b. Sigmund Freud—psychodynamic c. Hans Eysenck—biological d. Alfred Adler—humanistic 35. What happens to sexual energy during Sigmund Freud’s genital stage of development? a. It is exhibited through self-stimulation. b. It is focused toward peers of the opposite sex. c. It is largely suppressed. d. It is focused toward the parent of the opposite sex. 36. At what age did Freud believe that personality was formed? a. 5 b. 10 c. 18 d. 25 37. Which of the following represents the correct developmental order of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual stages of development? a. anal, oral, phallic, latency, genital b. anal, oral, phallic, genital, latency c. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital d. oral, anal, genital, latency, phallic 38. Cultural background can influence views on personality. Which culture’s socialization practices foster a more interdependent view of the self that emphasizes the fundamental connectedness of people? a. North American b. Asian c. Eastern European d. East Indian 39. Imagine that you are choosing a roommate using the Big Five model of personality. Which person would you choose if you wanted a roommate who would be fairly easy to get along with, is likely to pay bills on time, and would be willing to try new things? a. Sam, who is high in extraversion, low in agreeableness, and high in neuroticism b. Kerry, who is high in conscientiousness, high in extraversion, and low in openness c. Taylor, who is high in agreeableness, high in conscientiousness, and high in openness d. Kim, who is high in openness, low in extraversion, and low in conscientiousness 40. If you were to administer a Big Five test in a behaviour genetics study of personality, which pair of individuals would you expect to have the most similar scores? a. two unrelated people adopted into the same family b. mother and child c. identical twins d. fraternal twins reared apart

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 41. According to Sigmund Freud, which of the following is entirely unconscious? a. ego b. id c. self d. superego 42. Kris has been having a hard time at work, and his boss has been very critical of everything that he does. When Kris hangs out with his friends after work, he is very abrupt with them and contradicts nearly everything they say. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. sublimation b. reaction formation c. displacement d. repression 43. According to Sigmund Freud, what is the basic defence mechanism that protects a person from anxiety by keeping distressing thoughts and feelings out of the conscious mind? a. repression b. projection c. regression d. displacement 44. What is a common criticism of humanistic theories of personality? a. They are unrealistically optimistic about human nature. b. They overgeneralize from animal behaviour to human behaviour. c. They have a sexist bias. d. They lack a strong theoretical framework. 45. According to Alfred Adler, what is compensation? a. bolstering self-esteem by forming an imaginary or real alliance with some person or group b. our ability to perform behaviours that should lead to expected outcomes c. largely unconscious reactions that protect a person from unpleasant emotions d. efforts to overcome imagined or real inferiorities by developing one’s abilities 46. John was shown a picture of a boy contemplating a violin that was resting on a table in front of him. John was asked to tell a story about what was happening in the scene and what the boy was feeling. What kind of personality test was John most likely being given? a. the Rorschach test b. the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) c. the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) d. a self-report inventory 47. Which of the following types of personality tests ask individuals to respond to vague, ambiguous stimuli in ways that may reveal their needs, feelings, and personality traits? a. objective tests b. behavioural tests c. projective tests d. self-report inventories

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 48. The psychoanalytic, behavioural, humanistic, and biological perspectives on personality each provide a different way of looking at traits and are supported by different types of evidence. Which unifying theme in psychology is illustrated by this fact? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. 49. Jason tends to be selfish and demanding and disregards the rights of other people. According to Sigmund Freud, what would be true of Jason? a. He has a stronger ego than superego. b. He has a stronger superego than id. c. He has a stronger id than superego. d. He has a stronger unconscious than conscious. 50. What is the underlying hypothesis behind a projective test of personality? a. People know themselves best, so their stories describe their personality more accurately than other methods do. b. The therapist will project onto the patient a health image to be modelled c. Ambiguous stimuli serve as a blank canvas onto which people project their worries, conflicts, and desires. d. There is no hidden or underlying meaning. 51. Becky is experiencing an unconscious conflict between her desire to impress the people around her and her urge to punch and yell at someone who is causing her frustration. To deal with the resulting anxiety, what unconscious reactions would Freud suggest will be evoked? a. coping mechanisms b. offence mechanisms c. defence mechanisms d. id mechanisms 52. Which of the following develops in children as a result of exposure to a typical Asian cultural concept of self? a. an interdependent view of the self and a defining of themselves in terms of the groups they belong to b. an interdependent view of the self and a defining of themselves in terms of personal attributes c. an independent view of the self and a defining of themselves in terms of the groups they belong to d. an independent view of the self and a defining of themselves in terms of personal attributes 53. According to Abraham Maslow, after people satisfy their needs for knowledge and achievement, what will they next become concerned with? a. self-actualization needs b. aesthetic needs c. esteem needs d. belongingness and love needs

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 54. If you are interested in measuring and describing the personality traits of a typical or normal individual, which of the following tests would you be most likely to administer? a. Rorschach b. NEO Personality Inventory c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) d. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) 55. Cultural background can influence views on personality. Which cultural background, for example, views the individual as independent and self-contained and values autonomy? a. North American b. Asian c. Russian d. East Indian 56. Which of the following refers to a combination of three specific traits that lead to negative, antisocial behavioural tendencies? a. the Dark Triad b. grandiose narcissism c. the Big Three d. trilogy sadism 57. Which self-report personality inventory was originally designed to aid in the diagnosis of psychological disorders? a. the NEO Personality Inventory b. the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) c. the 16 Personality Factor (16PF) Questionnaire d. the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) 58. Sally is nine years old and spends a lot of time playing with her friends and learning about social rules and expectations. According to Freud, which of the following stages is Sally in? a. genital stage b. latency stage c. anal stage d. phallic stage 59. Matthew has been unsuccessful in using compensation to master life’s challenges. According to Alfred Adler’s theory, what might Matthew exhibit? a. an Oedipal complex b. an archetype c. a superiority complex d. an inferiority complex 60. What do humanistic personality theories focus on? a. learning b. unconscious mental forces c. an individual’s freedom and potential for growth d. genetic factors 61. According to Daniel Nettle, which personality trait would have, in particular, conferred a survival advantage through avoidance of danger and therefore would have been selected for in our ancestral environment? a. openness b. introversion c. neuroticism d. extraversion

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 62. Benjamin is friendly and outgoing and tells many jokes. He feels very comfortable at parties or whenever he meets new people. According to B.F. Skinner, what mechanism is responsible for Benjamin’s personality? a. He is sublimating his unconscious fears of rejection. b. He has experienced reinforcement for friendly behaviour. c. He has a strong superego. d. He is overcompensating for his feelings of inferiority. 63. Which psychologist’s theory of personality uses both conditioning principles and inherited differences in physiological functioning to explain how heredity is linked to personality? a. Walter Mischel b. David Buss c. B F Skinner d. Hans Eysenck 64. Which of the following is associated with a personality that consists of high levels of extraversion, and conscientiousness, but lower levels of agreeableness and neuroticism? a. elevated happiness b. reduced life expectancy c. lower intelligence d. occupational attainment and higher income 65. Which defence mechanism is used when people attempt to bolster their self-esteem by forming an imaginary or real alliance with some person or group? a. identification b. rationalization c. regression d. displacement 66. If she is using the defence mechanism of projection, what would be true of a mother who actually hates her son? a. She acts in an extremely critical way toward her son. b. She believes that her son hates her. c. She acts in an extremely loving way toward her son. d. She hates her daughter. 67. Mary observes another’s performance and says, “Gee, I think I can do that.” What would Albert Bandura call this personal evaluation? a. self-esteem b. self-efficacy c. self-concept d. self-appraisal 68. Elena describes herself as awkward and scatter-brained, but her co-workers and clients see her as competent and skilled. What would Carl Rogers say about Elena’s self-concept? a. It is incongruent. b. It is delusional. c. It is negative. d. It is a defence mechanism. 69. What is NOT a key characteristic of a self-actualizing person? a. daily need to be with others b. peak experiences c. democracy d. clear and efficient perception of reality

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 70. Elliott is very insecure about his appearance and his athletic ability. In order to deal with these feelings of inferiority, he joins a softball team and wears his team jacket everywhere he goes so that people will know that he plays sports. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. displacement b. rationalization c. identification d. regression 71. Who defines personality as a collection of response tendencies that are tied to various stimulus situations? a. Walter Mischel b. b. F. Skinner c. Alfred Adler d. Albert Bandura 72. One source of error associated with self-report inventories involves the tendency of individuals to answer questions in a way that reflects the traits they think are valuable or appropriate. What is another term for this tendency? a. deliberate deception b. the social desirability bias c. response sets d. the hindsight bias 73. According to your text, in which country is a child most likely to be told that “the squeaky wheel gets the grease”? a. Canada b. China c. Cambodia d. Hong Kong 74. If you are avoiding one of your friends but you don’t know why, what level of awareness would Freud say is influencing your behaviour? a. conscious b. unconscious c. superego d. preconscious 75. According to Sigmund Freud, what is the superego? a. the moral component of personality b. the mediating agent between the other two components of personality c. the unconscious aspect of personality d. the biological impulses that drive our behaviour 76. Who would be most likely to suggest that a person’s behaviour will be highly variable from one situation to another? a. Sigmund Freud b. Alfred Adler c. Albert Bandura d. Walter Mischel 77. Which personality theorist suggested that the birth order of a child in a family influenced the child’s personality? a. Carl Rogers b. Walter Mischel c. Alfred Adler d. Carl Jung

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 78. What term did Abraham Maslow use for the need to fulfill one’s potential? a. achievement b. self-determinism c. affiliation d. self-actualization 79. Jamaal just sat down to work on his term paper when his friends called and invited him to a party. If Jamaal decides he will go to the party only after he finishes outlining the term paper, which personality component does his decision reflect? a. his id b. his preconscious c. his superego d. his ego 80. Which self-report personality inventory was originally designed to measure the Big Five personality traits? a. the NEO Personality Inventory b. the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) c. the 16 Personality Factor (16PF) Questionnaire d. the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) 81. What is the crucial developmental task associated with Sigmund Freud’s anal stage? a. weaning from the breast or bottle b. gaining superiority c. the Oedipal complex d. regulating biological urges 82. Under stress, a university student cries and throws things. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. reaction formation b. immaturity c. regression d. displacement 83. According to Freud, in what level of awareness are the words in this exam question? a. conscious b. subconscious c. unconscious d. preconscious 84. Who believed that the primary motivation for humans is striving for superiority? a. Alfred Adler b. Abraham Maslow c. Albert Bandura d. Carl Jung 85. What is one major obstacle to determining which genes influence personality? a. Personality traits may be influenced by hundreds, if not thousands, of genes. b. Personality traits are inherited monogenetically. c. Personality traits may be influenced by anywhere between 10 and 100 genes. d. Twin studies are inconclusive. 86. Jarod has fairly high self-efficacy regarding his academic performance. As a result of his self-efficacy, what is likely to also be true of Jarod? a. He is able to cope with exam stress well. b. He is likely to help others with studying. c. He is very neurotic. d. He is very intelligent.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 87. Behaviourists traditionally were not so interested in the study of personality. Who was responsible for a surge of interest in personality by behaviourists? a. Dollard and Miller b. Maslow and Bandura c. Bandura and May d. Dollard and May 88. Melissa hates her teacher but she won’t admit this to herself, consciously. Instead, she consciously feels that her teacher hates her. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. displacement b. repression c. reaction formation d. projection 89. Michael is well known throughout his middle school for being a bright student who frequently disrupts class by answering a teacher’s question with a joke. He behaves much the same when at baseball practice and Boy Scout meetings. Which aspect of personality is illustrated by his tendency to be a “class clown” in many situations? a. distinctiveness b. appropriateness c. variableness d. consistency 90. According to Sigmund Freud, which two impulses are especially important and often have far-reaching consequences? a. aggression and security b. sex and self-actualization c. self-actualization and security d. sex and aggression 91. What is the major criticism that humanistic personality theorists have concerning both psychodynamic and behavioural theories of personality? a. They are unrealistically optimistic about human behaviour. b. They are not supported by scientific or empirical evidence. c. They focus on the unconscious. d. They are dehumanizing and deterministic. 92. Which component of personality operates according to the “reality principle”? a. id b. ego c. superego d. conscious 93. Eric is a careful driver. He usually obeys the speed limit and abides by all traffic regulations. Today, however, as he is driving to Florida with some friends for spring break, he is driving 40 km/h over the speed limit. Who would be best able to explain this inconsistency in Eric’s behaviour? a. Abraham Maslow b. Walter Mischel c. Carl Jung d. Albert Bandura 94. Chelsey is a student who is very focused on developing her skills and seeking out new experiences. Her favourite classes are the ones that involve a lot of discussion, where she can hear others’ viewpoints and really challenge her own beliefs. According to Maslow, what level of needs is Chelsey addressing? a. aesthetic b. self-actualization c. esteem d. cognitive

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 95. Trina feels that her brother would be less shy if only he would see himself differently. She tries to point out how smart and funny he is, and that people really like him when they get to know him. She really hopes that if she can change the way that he defines himself, that he will be more outgoing and get the chance to meet more people. Which approach is most similar to Trina’s? a. Alfred Adler’s individual psychology b. Albert Bandura’s social cognitive theory c. Carl Roger’s person-centred theory d. Abraham Maslow’s theory of self-actualization 96. Danielle is five years old and is being very confrontational with her mother. She also has become very attached to her father and will do anything to get his attention. Which of the following psychosexual stages is Danielle in? a. oral stage b. latency stage c. anal stage d. phallic stage 97. How would B. F. Skinner explain why one student responds positively to receiving a B on a test while another student responds negatively to a B? a. The students have different inherited temperaments and personality traits. b. The students have different histories of reinforcement and punishment. c. One student has more self-efficacy than the other. d. One student has a stronger superego than the other. 98. According to Sigmund Freud’s theory, what is the term used for the developmental periods that leave their mark on adult personality? a. fixation stages b. psychosexual stages c. defence stages d. temperamental stages 99. According to psychoanalytic theory, what influences a person who is conservative, strict, and moralistic? a. id b. superego c. ego d. preconscious 100. According to psychoanalytic theory, what is the id? a. the primitive, instinctive component of personality b. the decision-making component of personality c. the moral component of personality d. a developmental period that leaves its mark on adult personality 101. Which personality trait is associated with a higher risk of divorce? a. neuroticism b. conscientiousness c. agreeableness d. extraversion 102. Someone who enjoys and is good at manipulating others might also be referred to as exhibiting what kind of character? a. neuroticism b. Machiavellian c. aggressive d. borderline

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 103. Which of the following values are parents NOT likely to teach their children in Asian cultures, such as in Japan and China? a. not to rely on family and friends b. to be modest about personal accomplishments c. not to diminish the achievements of others d. to view the self as part of a larger social matrix 104. Which of the following is NOT a weakness associated with projective tests? a. cultural bias b. inconsistent scoring c. deliberate deception d. low reliability 105. What is a strength of humanistic theories of personality? a. They emphasize a person’s subjective view rather than objective reality. b. They suggest internal conflict often plays a key role in generating psychological distress. c. They are supported by extensive empirical research. d. They emphasize the unique aspects of human genetic inheritance. 106. Who stated, “It’s as if Freud supplied us the sick half of psychology and we must now fill it out with the healthy half”? a. Alfred Adler b. Carl Rogers c. Abraham Maslow d. Albert Bandura 107. Which statement best describes one strength of the behavioural perspective theories of personality? a. They generalize from animal to human behaviour. b. They focus on the importance of childhood experiences. c. They emphasize an individual’s subjective view. d. They are based on extensive empirical research. 108. Which of the following is NOT one of the three traits associated with the Dark Triad? a. neuroticism b. Machiavellianism c. narcissism d. psychopathy 109. Which of the following is a commonly used projective test in which the subject is asked to examine ambiguous shapes and describe what they look like? a. the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) b. the 16 Personality Factor (16PF) Questionnaire c. the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) d. the Rorschach test 110. Which statement is consistent with the phenomenological approach? a. Viewing human behaviour as mechanistic and predictable. b. Trying to see a situation from another person’s perspective. c. Interpreting the symbols that are inherent in dreams. d. Challenging a person’s maladaptive cognitions. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 111. According to Carl Jung, which of the following is a storehouse of latent memory traces inherited from people’s ancestral past? a. universal unconscious b. collective unconscious c. personal unconscious d. unconscious 112. Which personality trait is predictive of better grades in school? a. agreeableness b. extraversion c. neuroticism d. conscientiousness 113. What did Skinner argue is responsible for the behaviours that people engage in that form a significant portion of their personality? a. reinforcement b. insight c. expectation d. outcomes 114. Which of the following traits is NOT one of the Big Five personality traits? a. emotionality b. openness to experience c. neuroticism d. conscientiousness 115. Gurvinder is working on a research project that is trying to determine whether celebrity scandals increase the likelihood that average people will engage in the same scandalous behaviours. Which theoretical approach would Gurvinder base his hypothesis on? a. Albert Bandura’s social cognitive theory b. Carl Jung’s analytical theory c. Carl Rogers’s person-centred theory d. Walter Mischel’s person-situation approach 116. According to evidence from behavioural genetics, what impact does the family environment shared by children growing up together have on personality? a. none b. little c. moderately large d. large 117. Which approach to personality suggests that the Big Five personality traits have significant adaptive implications? a. humanistic approach b. evolutionary approach c. social cognitive approach d. behavioural approach 118. What personality trait was a focus of both Eysenck’s and the Big Five personality theories? a. agreeableness b. narcissism c. conscientiousness d. extraversion 119. Which of the following develops in children as a result of a typical North American cultural concept of self? a. an interdependent view of the self and a defining of themselves in terms of the groups they belong to b. an interdependent view of the self and a defining of themselves in terms of personal attributes c. an independent view of the self and a defining of themselves in terms of personal attributes d. an independent view of the self and a defining of themselves in terms of the groups they belong to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 120. While many of the personality traits a person has may be relatively common, the overall combination of traits exhibited by that person is unique. Which aspect of personality does this illustrate? a. appropriateness b. distinctiveness c. consistency d. variableness 121. Which perspective would be most likely to agree with the statement that “in order to understand another person, you must walk a mile in his shoes”? a. psychodynamic perspective b. biological perspective c. behavioural perspective d. humanistic perspective 122. Which personality theory is most likely to be criticized for viewing human behaviour as overly simple or mechanistic? a. humanism b. psychoanalytic theory c. radical behaviourism d. social cognitive theory 123. Marcy is outgoing and impulsive and has a wide circle of friends and acquaintances. According to recent evidence, which areas of Marcy’s brain are likely to be large compared to the brain of someone who is shyer and inhibited? a. areas associated with planning b. areas associated with fear c. areas associated with language d. areas associated with reward 124. What is a primary criticism of the biological perspective of personality? a. It doesn’t fully integrate the “nurture” perspective. b. It overgeneralizes from animal behaviour to human behaviour. c. It is unrealistically optimistic about human nature. d. It is unrealistically pessimistic about human nature. 125. Which of the following is not one of the self-report personality inventories outlined in your text? a. NEO Personality Inventory (NEO) b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) c. Narcissistic Personality Inventory (NPI) d. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) 126. Which of the following is one finding from the cross-cultural research by Markus and Kitayama? a. Asian participants tended to view themselves as more similar to their peers than did U.S. participants. b. U.S. participants tended to view themselves as more similar to their peers than did Asian participants. c. Asian participants tended to view themselves as more unique than did U.S. participants. d. Asian participants tended to view themselves from an individualistic perspective rather than a collective one. 127. Min has enough food to eat and has a safe place to live. Her life is relatively stable and predictable. Now that she has those needs taken care of, which needs would become a priority for Min, according to Maslow? a. love and friendship b. artistic endeavours c. a fulfilling career d. self-actualization

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 128. Which statement best describes self-efficacy? a. It refers to one’s abilities. b. It refers to one’s beliefs about one’s abilities. c. When self-efficacy is low, individuals feel confident that they can execute the response necessary to earn reinforcers. d. Perceptions of self-efficacy are global and not specific to the task. 129. Assume all of the following adjectives describe Omar. Which term does NOT describe one of Omar’s personality traits? a. athletic b. assertive c. sloppy d. honest 130. According to Sigmund Freud, fixation at which stage results in smoking, overeating, and habitual gum chewing? a. genital stage b. phallic stage c. oral stage d. anal stage 131. When Mike was turned down by the prestigious school that he applied to, he told his family that he didn’t mind because that school doesn’t offer the program that he really wants. Which defence mechanism does this illustrate? a. rationalization b. projection c. displacement d. reaction formation 132. According to Freud, which level of awareness contains material just beneath the surface of awareness that can easily be retrieved? a. subconscious b. unconscious c. preconscious d. conscious 133. Etienne, a university student, is very interested in his courses and is planning to attend graduate school in psychology. Which type of need has Etienne probably NOT yet satisfied? a. esteem b. belongingness c. self-actualization d. safety and security 134. Sylvia is diagnosed with schizophrenia. If she takes the MMPI, which of the following would likely happen? a. She would have high scores on several subscales, including paranoia. b. Her answers would contain stories of unusual content. c. She would be less prone to demand characteristics in the test. d. Her total score would be at least in the 90th percentile. 135. Jennifer has a lot of anger that she doesn’t express. Instead, she focuses her energy on keeping her house very clean and organized. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. reaction formation b. sublimation c. displacement d. repression

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 136. Sandra is an easygoing person who is very mature and responsible in many aspects of her life, but also very lighthearted and silly at times. She thinks very rationally when making some decisions, and makes other decisions based on her “gut feelings.” According to Maslow, which of the following terms applies to Sandra’s personality? a. healthy b. discrepant c. incongruous d. ego-driven 137. What is one criticism of psychodynamic personality theories? a. They are often too vague to permit scientific evaluation. b. They suggest that people are motivated to reduce unpleasant emotions. c. They focus too much on neurological explanations for behaviour. d. They treat all people as if they are identical. 138. It is relatively easy for people to develop plausible explanations for the personality traits of people they have known for years. Which of the following terms describes this ability? a. hindsight bias b. overconfidence effect c. social desirability bias d. foreshadowing bias 139. What do behavioural personality theories focus on? a. genetic factors b. unconscious mental forces c. an individual’s freedom and potential for growth d. learning as a result of experience 140. The humanistic perspective’s emphasis on humans’ potential for personal growth is most similar to which other personality theorist’s belief concerning humans’ primary motivation? a. Hans Eysenck b. Carl Jung c. Alfred Adler d. B F Skinner 141. Which of the following could be considered the motto for the id? a. “If it feels good, do it.” b. “We can work it out.” c. “Mom always liked you best.” d. “Do the right thing.” 142. What was the focus of the major theoretical disagreement that Carl Jung and Alfred Adler had with Freud? a. conflict b. sexuality c. childhood experiences d. the unconscious 143. What are the two aspects of an individual’s behaviour that are central to the concept of personality? a. consistency and distinctiveness b. appropriateness and distinctiveness c. consistency and typicality d. appropriateness and typicality

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 144. What statement best describes a mother who actually hates her son, and is using the defence mechanism of reaction formation? a. She believes that her son hates her. b. She directs her hatred toward her daughter. c. She acts in an extremely critical way toward her son. d. She acts in an extremely loving way toward her son.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. a 11. d 12. a 13. c 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. c 26. a

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. a 45. d 46. c 47. c 48. a 49. c 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. d 60. c 61. c 62. b 63. d 64. d 65. a 66. b 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. c 71. b 72. b 73. a 74. b 75. a 76. d 77. c 78. d 79. d 80. a 81. d 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. d 89. d 90. d 91. d 92. b 93. b 94. d 95. c 96. d 97. b 98. b 99. b 100. a 101. a 102. b 103. a 104. c 105. a 106. c 107. d 108. a 109. d 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 111. b 112. d 113. a 114. a 115. a 116. b 117. b 118. d 119. c 120. b 121. d 122. c 123. d 124. a 125. d 126. a 127. a 128. b 129. a 130. c 131. a 132. c 133. c 134. a 135. b 136. a 137. a

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_2 138. a 139. d 140. c 141. a 142. b 143. a 144. d

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Sara described herself as follows: “I am a psychology student,” “I am part of a large family,” “I am a member of the debate team.” Sara’s view of herself reflects the fact that she is from which type of culture? a. collectivist b. individualist c. imperialist d. Western 2. Camilla is very reserved in social situations, barely saying a word. A personality test would likely show which of the following? a. a high score on conscientiousness b. a low score on extraversion c. a high score on neuroticism d. a low score on agreeableness 3. Ron’s boss yelled at him. Instead of yelling back, Ron yelled at his roommate when he got home. According to Freud, what defence mechanism is Ron using? a. displacement b. sublimation c. rationalization d. regression 4. Jacob is a world traveller and has backpacked across three continents. A personality test would likely show which of the following? a. a high score on agreeableness b. a low score on extraversion c. a high score on openness to new experiences d. a low score on conscientiousness 5. Trudy sees herself as intelligent but she is having a great deal of difficulty in school. According to Rogers, what is Trudy experiencing? a. sublimation b. incongruence c. reaction formation d. repression 6. Charlie is 35 years old and just had a temper tantrum at work because one of his staff made a mistake. What defence mechanism is Charlie exhibiting? a. regression b. displacement c. reaction formation d. projection 7. Professor Haldimand is giving a lecture on Freud’s personality theory. Which of the following does he note is a significant problem affecting the validity of the theory? a. Freud’s work was based on a few small experiments. b. Freud’s work was based on a few case studies. c. Freud’s work was written in the 20th century. d. Freud’s work does not attempt to explain the cause of personality. 8. Which personality trait is associated with the part of the brain that is involved in planning and voluntary control? a. conscientiousness b. openness c. neuroticism d. extraversion

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 9. Physical and mental health disorders are more common among people who score high on which of the Big Five personality traits? a. conscientiousness b. openness c. neuroticism d. extraversion 10. Jenna decides not to eat a piece of cake because she knows she’s had enough sugar today. Her decision is governed by which of the following? a. the pleasure principle b. the reality principle c. her ego d. her defence mechanisms 11. Douglas has a very high opinion of himself and craves attention and admiration, but his self-concept is easily threatened. Which of the following traits does Douglas appear to be high in? a. vulnerable narcissism b. grandiose narcissism c. sadomasochism d. pessimism 12. What areas of the brain will differ most between a person who is neurotic and a person who is not neurotic? a. the areas associated with reward b. the areas associated with threat c. the areas of the brain associated with memory d. the areas of brain associated with balance 13. Sam is feeling guilty because he stole money from his brother’s room. His bad feelings are being controlled by which of the following? a. the pleasure principle b. the reality principle c. his superego d. defence mechanisms 14. According to the five-factor model of personality, how could a person who is high on conscientiousness be described? a. careful b. trusting c. calm d. curious 15. Dr. Cluff has removed a number of items from a self-report personality test, including “I lie in order to get my way” and “I enjoy seeing other people in pain.” The reason for this is to reduce the effect of which of the following? a. social desirability b. deception c. response set d. confabulation 16. Eysenck argued that introverts have which of the following? a. higher levels of arousal than extraverts b. lower levels of arousal than extraverts c. higher levels of intelligence than extraverts d. lower levels of intelligence than extraverts

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 17. The five-factor model suggests that a continuum exists between openness to new experiences and which other trait? a. disagreeableness b. introversion c. stability d. unimaginativeness 18. Lori was raised in an adoptive home. Which personality trait is MOST likely to be similar to her adoptive parents? a. openness to new experience b. conscientiousness c. agreeableness d. neuroticism 19. Which of the following personality traits has been positively associated with better adherence to exercise programs and better study habits, and has more effect on work performance? a. optimism b. extraversion c. resilience d. self-efficacy 20. Amy has high levels of dopamine in her brain. Which of the following is she likely to be? a. extraverted b. introverted c. depressed d. neurotic 21. Janet is very hostile toward her mother. Her personality may reflect issues that developed during which of the following? a. the oral stage b. the anal stage c. the phallic stage d. the latent stage 22. Sundeep is highly critical and suspicious of others. A personality test would likely show which of the following? a. a high score on neuroticism b. a low score on agreeableness c. a high score on conscientiousness d. a low score on openness to new experience 23. Which of the following Big Five personality traits is positively correlated with divorce? a. conscientiousness b. neuroticism c. openness d. extraversion 24. What is the best way to characterize how well a person’s five traits predict their behaviour in the real world? a. their traits are highly predictive of their actual behaviour b. their traits are moderately predictive of their actual behaviour c. their traits are only mildly predictive of their actual behaviour d. their traits don’t predict their actual behaviour 25. Which of the following was added to the Dark Triad to create the Dark Tetrad? a. Machiavellianism b. psychopathy c. narcissism d. sadism

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 26. Which of the following traits is positively correlated with how long a person will live? a. agreeableness b. conscientiousness c. neuroticism d. openness to new experience 27. Professor Washington is studying the validity of Eysenck’s claims concerning a personality factor that varies as the person’s egocentricism varies. What is Professor Washington studying? a. neuroticism b. psychoticism c. introversion d. agreeableness 28. Ling is anxious and insecure. A personality test would likely show which of the following? a. a high score on conscientiousness b. a low score on openness to new experience c. a high score on neuroticism d. a low score on agreeableness 29. Dr. Methot is conducting a twin study. He has found that two traits are similar between identical twins regardless of whether they are reared together or apart. What are these two traits MOST likely to be? a. conscientiousness and agreeableness b. agreeableness and neuroticism c. neuroticism and extraversion d. extraversion and openness 30. Brady is always on time and his work is always neat and organized. A personality test would likely show which of the following? a. a high score on conscientiousness b. a low score on neuroticism c. a high score on openness to new experience d. a low score on extraversion 31. According to psychoanalytic theory, what is the personality element representing basic instinctual drives? a. the id b. the ego c. the superego d. the conscious mind 32. According to the five-factor model of personality, how could a person who is LOW on neuroticism be described? a. uncreative b. careless c. passive d. calm 33. Which of the following is an example of a projective personality test? a. the MMPI b. the TAT c. the WAIS d. the 16PF 34. On which of the following traits are women MOST likely to score THE SAME as men? a. agreeableness b. openness c. neuroticism d. conscientiousness

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 35. According to the five-factor model of personality, how could a person who is high on extraversion be described? a. creative b. affectionate c. emotional d. helpful 36. Which personality traits have been found to be associated with higher rates of fertility in women? a. high conscientiousness and low extraversion b. high openness and low conscientiousness c. high extraversion and low neuroticism d. high agreeability and low openness 37. Which of the following is controlled by the pleasure principle? a. id b. ego c. superego d. defence mechanisms 38. Professor Read is conducting cross-cultural research. Part of her work involves having people work toward a common goal in groups. She found that the groups in China cooperated more than the groups in Australia. This may be because the participants in China scored higher on which of the following? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. openness to new experience 39. Alexsandra believes that the affection she gets from others is conditional. According to Rogers, what must she do to feel worthy of affection? a. distort her shortcomings b. repress her strengths c. make new friends d. submit to reaction formations 40. Mimi isn’t happy unless she is socializing. She is also very helpful. Mimi would score high on which of the following? a. extraversion and agreeableness b. agreeableness and openness to new experience c. openness to new experience and conscientiousness d. conscientiousness and extraversion 41. Which personality trait may have evolved to ensure that people bond with other people, which in turn benefits survival? a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism 42. Dr. Chen supports the “projective hypothesis.” What personality test is she MOST likely to use in her practice? a. the MMPI b. the Rorschach c. the NEO d. the 16PF 43. The five-factor model suggests that a continuum exists between conscientiousness and which other trait? a. disagreeableness b. carelessness c. stability d. unimaginativeness

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 44. According to the five-factor model of personality, how could a person who is low on agreeableness be described? a. suspicious b. reserved c. uncreative d. lazy 45. Which of the following correlation coefficients BEST represents the relationship between national characters and actual trait scores for people from that country? a. 0.00 b. –0.25 c. +0.33 d. +0.80 46. If a person’s personality is dominated by refusing to admit problems exist, what defence mechanism might they be using? a. repression b. rationalization c. displacement d. sublimation 47. Which of the following types of culture values the self over the group? a. collectivist b. individualist c. communist d. imperialist 48. The five-factor model suggests that a continuum exists between agreeableness and which other trait? a. argumentativeness b. introversion c. stability d. unimaginativeness 49. Dr. Hassid is discussing gender differences in personality. Dr. Hassid suggests that the differences may be the result of how boys and girls are raised. What is Dr. Hassid discussing? a. social role theory b. the five-factor model c. behavioural genetics d. phrenology 50. Kyle is not a pilot, but he believes that flying a plane is basically the same as driving a car. Which of the following does Kyle’s belief best illustrate? a. Dunning-Kruger effect b. hindsight bias c. availability heuristic d. representativeness heuristic 51. Which of the following is a helpful anagram for remembering the Big Five personality traits? a. OCEAN b. NAÏVE c. CREAM d. WEIRD 52. Ian believes his parents will only love him if he succeeds in school. When he does poorly in a course he feels a great deal of anxiety and, according to humanistic theory, is likely to do which of the following to protect his inaccurate self-concept? a. blame the instructor b. blame himself c. tell his parents he’s actually a poor student d. reaction formation

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 53. Which element of personality looks to balance drives with the constraints of the environment? a. the id b. the ego c. the superego d. denial 54. Which of Freud’s defence mechanisms is associated with memory deficits for events that may trigger negative emotions? a. rationalization b. projection c. repression d. regression 55. Dr. Bjorkland is a clinical psychologist. Which of the following should he employ if he wants to use a personality test to assess psychopathology in his clients? a. the MMPI b. the Rorschach test c. the TAT d. the 16PF 56. Which three traits does Hans Eysenck argue are adequate for describing a person’s personality? a. conscientiousness, agreeableness, and extraversion b. extraversion, neuroticism, and psychoticism c. neuroticism, openness, and conscientiousness d. openness, conscientiousness, and agreeableness 57. Trevor is highly inhibited. Why is this, according to Eysenck? a. He scores low on introversion. b. He acquires conditioned inhibition more easily. c. He scores high on neuroticism. d. He cannot be conditioned very easily. 58. Which of the following Big Five personality traits is negatively correlated with income among men? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. openness d. extraversion 59. What has been the result when researchers have translated personality inventories into other languages from around the world? a. the same five traits have emerged from factor analyses b. four of five traits have emerged from factor analyses c. three of five traits have emerged from factor analyses d. only extraversion and neuroticism are consistent across cultures 60. According to the five-factor model of personality, how could a person who is high on neuroticism be described? a. insecure b. uncooperative c. disorganized d. practical 61. According to humanistic theory, a person experiences incongruence when there is little overlap between which of the following? a. the self-concept and actual experience b. actual experience and the ego c. the ego and the superego d. the superego and the self-concept Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 62. Paul has been labelled as antisocial and has spent years in and out of jail for various assaults. A personality test he just took will MOST likely show Paul to be which of the following? a. low on agreeableness b. low on openness to new experience c. high on extraversion d. high on conscientiousness 63. Which of the following is a popular personality inventory? a. MMPI b. WAIS c. WAIC d. TAT 64. Although Yul just failed a test he isn’t worried about the consequences and still feels he knows more than the teacher in that course. A personality test would MOST likely reveal Yul to be which of the following? a. low on neuroticism b. high on agreeableness c. high on conscientiousness d. low on extraversion 65. Which three traits combine to form the Dark Triad? a. Machiavellianism, narcissism, and psychopathy b. narcissism, psychopathy, and sadism c. psychopathy, sadism, and Machiavellianism d. sadism, Machiavellianism, and narcissism 66. Which two human impulses did Freud argue were MOST consequential and therefore most important? a. aggression and attachment b. attachment and repression c. repression and sex d. sex and aggression 67. Which trait is LEAST likely to be the same among identical twins? a. extraversion b. openness to new experience c. conscientiousness d. agreeableness 68. For which of the following reasons has Freud’s theory of personality been questioned? a. it can’t be tested using scientific methods b. it doesn’t describe people’s behaviour well c. it focuses too much on traits d. there are no case studies to back up his work 69. Lee is moving from a collectivist culture to an individualist culture. What aspect of his personality will most likely change as he becomes entrenched in his new culture? a. self-enhancement b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism 70. A “lie scale” may be added to a self-report personality test to reduce which of the following problems? a. social desirability b. deception c. response set d. confabulation

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 71. What has been revealed in research comparing the personalities of men and women? a. Women tend to be more agreeable and more neurotic than men. b. Men tend to be more agreeable and more neurotic than women. c. Women tend to be more extraverted and more open than men. d. Men tend to be more extraverted and more open than women. 72. Which of the following types of culture values the group over the self? a. collectivist b. individualist c. communist d. imperialist 73. Which of the following traits is one that people in individualist cultures tend to score higher on than people in collectivist cultures? a. agreeableness b. neuroticism c. self-enhancement d. conscientiousness 74. Where in the world did McCrae et al. (2005) find the HIGHEST scores on neuroticism? a. Brazil b. Malaysia c. the Czech Republic d. Australia 75. A variety of measures have revealed that Amil has low physiological arousal across a wide range of experimental settings. Amil is likely to be which of the following, according to Eysenck? a. extraverted b. introverted c. conscientious d. agreeable 76. The five-factor model of personality was developed using which of the following? a. factor analysis b. experiments that manipulated situations c. case studies d. a factorial experimental design 77. Changing questions on a self-report personality test such that a “yes” on one question would mean the same thing as a “no” on another question can help reduce which of the following problems? a. social desirability b. deception c. response set d. confabulation 78. Overpraising a roommate’s success on an exam when you really resent their success is an example of which defence mechanism? a. rationalization b. denial c. reaction formation d. regression 79. According to the five-factor model of personality, how could a person who is high on openness be described? a. independent b. disciplined c. sociable d. helpful 80. Larissa scores low on openness to new experiences. Which term likely best describes Larissa? a. practical b. lazy c. uncooperative d. insecure

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 81. According to humanistic psychology, what is the term for your own mental picture of yourself? a. superego b. self-concept c. incongruence d. the ego 82. Which of the following correlation coefficients BEST represents the relationship between birth order and personality? a. 0.00 b. +0.20 c. –0.50 d. +0.75 83. Who first proposed the hierarchy of personality traits? a. Eysenck b. Rogers c. Allport d. Freud 84. Miranda has just been shown a series of ink blots and asked what, in her opinion, the ink blots appear to be. Which test has Miranda just completed? a. the Rorschach test b. the TAT c. the 16PF d. the NEO 85. One highly beneficial aspect of Freud’s theory is that it has spurred on research to further explore which of the following? a. the unconscious mind b. the role of reward in shaping behaviour c. personality traits d. self-actualization 86. Which of the following is a personality assessment device intended to tap a person’s unconscious? a. projective test b. personality inventory c. structured test d. vocational inventory 87. Callie does not seem interested in making friends; she is more interested in writing and painting. A personality test would MOST likely reveal Callie to be which of the following? a. low on conscientiousness, high on neuroticism b. low on neuroticism, high on extraversion c. low on extraversion, high on openness to new experiences d. low on openness to new experiences, high on conscientiousness 88. According to psychoanalytic theory, which element of personality is in charge of evaluating which impulses are acceptable and which are not acceptable? a. the id b. the ego c. the superego d. denial 89. Which of the following paradigms is MOST useful for studying the genetics of personality? a. twin studies b. experimental manipulations c. case studies d. blood analysis 90. Which of the following is a questionnaire designed to assess various aspects of personality? a. projective test b. personality inventory c. structured test d. vocational inventory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. a 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. b 13. c 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. a 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. b

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 27. b 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. b 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. a 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 55. a 56. b 57. b 58. b 59. a 60. a 61. a 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. d 67. d 68. a 69. a 70. b 71. a 72. a 73. c 74. a 75. a 76. a 77. c 78. c 79. a 80. a 81. b 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_6ce_Vol_4 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. c 88. c 89. a 90. b

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Chap 13_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Janelle is a Girl Guide who is trying to sell enough cookies to win a trip to Disney World. Her parents don’t have the time to take her out selling cookies door-to-door, so they hire Tamara, Janelle’s cousin who is studying psychology at Carleton University, to help Janelle after school for a few weeks while she’s trying to sell the cookies. The good news for Janelle is that Tamara has recently learned about the psychology of persuasion. Tamara tells Janelle that the first question she should ask potential customers is whether they have had Girl Guide chocolate mint cookies before. Because if they say no, Janelle should say __________. a. “Buying a box will really help to get me to Disney World!” b. “Many people find them delicious but others stick to tradition and favour the vanilla cookies.” c. “You haven’t?! Why not?!” d. “They’re the best of all the cookies I have with me.” 2. Alaina is a judge at a national gymnastics competition. The previous national champion just performed her floor routine. Though the gymnast made multiple errors, the first three judges award her with very high scores. Because of the errors the gymnast made, Alaina believes the gymnast should receive a lower score. She is conflicted about whether she should side with the rest of the judges or whether she should award the gymnast the score Alaina thinks she deserves. If Alaina awards a high score like the rest of the judges, (despite her internal conflict) this is a case of ________. a. informational social influence b. emotional social influence c. cognitive social influence d. normative social influence 3. There is a Pittsburgh player who is typically a calm person and does not enjoy confrontation. If this player gets pulled into a fight, he will likely try to _________ his cognitive dissonance by telling himself _____________. a. increase; “If I don’t fight, they’ll think I’m weak” b. maintain; “I’m being paid to do this” c. decrease; “C’mon man! Just do it” d. decrease; “This is my job, I have to” 4. The Ottawa player who skates into Pittsburgh’s goalie believes this behaviour is part of his role as an “enforcer.” This is similar to the behaviours of participants in which famous early psychology experiment? a. Zimbardo’s Stanford County Prison Experiment b. Milgram’s Obedience Experiments c. Asch’s Conformity Experiments d. Festinger’s Cognitive Dissonance Experiment 5. Because Samira and Tyler met while completing their BA degrees in psychology, they were initially attracted to each other because they ______________. a. fulfill the matching hypothesis b. are similar to one another c. reciprocate each other’s attraction d. meet each other’s romantic ideals

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Chap 13_6ce_Case-Based 6. In an interview about their new album, the lead singer says he wrote the first draft of the first song alone. When he presented it to the group, they made changes and it became even more different than their older music, even though they knew their fans might hate this new style. This is a case of ________. a. group polarization b. groupthink c. risky shift d. conformity 7. Alaina would be least likely to conform and award the gymnast a low score if _____________. a. she has high self-esteem b. she is less qualified than the other judges c. there are four other judges d. she is the last judge to award the score 8. If customers develop an impression that Janelle is cute, polite, and well-spoken, and they infer that she is also a good student, this inference is considered to be based on _____________. a. a primacy effect b. a unified impression c. a self-fulfilling prophecy d. an implicit theory 9. Imagine Alaina gives the gymnast a high score like the other judges did. This will likely cause _________ so she is likely to ______________. a. cognitive dissonance; minimize the gymnast’s mistakes in her mind b. self-monitoring; minimize the gymnast’s mistakes in her mind c. cognitive dissonance; argue for the beliefs she has about the gymnast d. self-monitoring; argue for the beliefs she has about the gymnast 10. After customers agree to buy a box of chocolate mint cookies, Janelle mentions she has two other types of cookies with her as well. She is using the ______________. a. foot-in-the-door technique b. bait-and-switch technique c. door-in-the-face technique d. amplification technique 11. Eventually, only one player from each team is on the ice and not fighting another player. If they look at each other and decide not to fight, which of the following is the most likely cause? a. Unanimity b. Personality c. Group size d. Ambiguity 12. When Samira asks Tyler about what happened during his day, he is most likely to reply by _________. Samira is most likely to follow this with ____________. a. telling her what happened; a question about the details b. telling her about an argument he had with his friend; a question about how it resolved c. saying he wants to hear about her day first; a story about her own day d. shrugging and saying “Nothing exciting”; wondering if he is upset with her 13. Even though they have been dating for three years, why might Samira not be upset if Tyler tells Anabelle he loves her? a. She believes Tyler has companionate love for Anabelle. b. Samira was avoidantly attached to her parents growing up. c. She believes Tyler has fatuous love for Anabelle. d. Samira was securely attached to her parents growing up. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_6ce_Case-Based 14. While growing up, Rod’s parents were usually too busy caring for his younger sister (who had many serious medical complications at birth). When he was younger, Rod resented his sister because his parents never paid much attention to him. According to Hazan & Shaver (1987), Anabelle and Rod are most likely to argue because _______________. a. Anabelle calls him at work to check up on him too often b. he is jealous when Anabelle talks to other men c. Anabelle does not spend enough time with him d. he calls Anabelle at work to check up on her too often 15. There is a Pittsburgh player who really does not want to fight because he promised his wife he would not have a black eye for his daughter’s birthday on Saturday. According to Milgram, who is least likely to convince him to fight? a. His coach b. His captain c. His coach, but only if he is not wearing a suit d. An Ottawa player who taunts him 16. Many of the band’s biggest fans are still in high school. Parents worry their kids will be negatively influenced by the band members’ pranks and start a petition to shut down their YouTube channel. If the number of Skein fans who play pranks increases after the petition is launched, this is a case of _______. a. stereotyping b. a self-fulfilling prophecy c. an illusory correlation d. a social schema 17. Madeleine was a huge fan of The Skeins’ first three albums, but is not quite sure whether she likes their new sound. According to ____________, if she goes to their latest concert, she is more likely to love their new album. a. cognitive dissonance theory b. self-perception theory c. the elaboration likelihood model d. the foot-in-the-door technique 18. Alaina would be most likely to conform and award the gymnast a high score if ___________. a. the voting is anonymous b. she is the first judge to vote c. she wants to seem competent d. she is highly extraverted 19. Janelle knocks on the door of someone who says they hate and have always hated Girl Guide cookies. Tamara told Janelle that in this case it would be best to _______________. a. apologize for bothering them because she probably won’t make a sale b. keep trying to sell because it will work if they find Janelle cute enough c. keep trying to sell because their attitudes aren’t predictive of behaviour d. run away quickly because Janelle is uncomfortable with their anti-cookie beliefs

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Chap 13_6ce_Case-Based 20. Tamara is pulling a wagon with a bunch of Girl Guide cookie boxes. The wagon has a squeaky wheel that makes a lot of noise on the bumpy sidewalk. The number of people who notice Tamara is _______. a. higher than she thinks b. lower than she thinks c. lower than she thinks, but only if she has low self-esteem d. higher than she thinks, but only if she has high self-esteem 21. Samira meets Tyler’s romantic ideals. This means ____________. a. Samira is more attractive than any other woman he has previously dated b. he always pictured himself falling in love with a dark-haired woman with a big smile c. Samira is a fan of Tyler’s favourite band and they have the same favourite restaurant d. his favourite supermodel is Lily Aldridge, and Samira looks a lot like her 22. On her way in to judge the competition, Alaina heard someone say “All judges are snobs and will give high scores to their favourites, whether or not they mess up.” This person’s statement reflects a ____________ of gymnastics judges. a. self-fulfilling prophecy b. stereotype c. spotlight effect d. self-serving bias 23. Overall, Janelle finds the sales process ______________. She does not win the trip to Disney World. However, cognitive dissonance theory suggests that because of her attitude she is more likely to sell cookies again next year than she would be if she did win the trip. a. challenging and rewarding b. challenging and frustrating c. fun and rewarding d. fun and frustrating 24. The band’s manager is nervous about whether their new album will succeed. She is nervous because bands similar to The Skeins have made this same change in the past and have been very unsuccessful. When she brings up her worries to the band, they are most likely to react by saying ____________. a. the other bands failed because they were bad song writers b. that if they fail it’s because of their fans c. they believe in themselves d. they trust their fans are going to love the new sound 25. If a customer asks how many boxes Janelle has to sell to win the trip to Disney World, what would be the best statement to use to persuade them to buy the most boxes? a. “Seven hundred! Would you like to buy them all?” b. “Seven hundred! So if you and your neighbours all help, I’ll be most of the way there!” c. “Seven hundred! Want to buy them all?! Just kidding. Maybe you could buy three?” d. “Seven hundred! I don’t think I’ll ever get there though.” 26. The band members feel like it is important to behave and style themselves in a more mature way now that they are making more mature music. To make sure this change in their image is obvious, they are more likely to _____________. a. model outgroup members b. highly self-monitor c. model ingroup members d. form defensive attributions Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_6ce_Case-Based 27. Samira and Tyler met in their second-year psychology class while working on a group project together with a mutual friend, Anabelle. Samira and Tyler became friends while working on the project and began dating soon after. It has now been three years and they are still together and very happy. Anabelle is dating Rod. Though Anabelle and Rod argue fairly frequently, they both love each other. While growing up, Anabelle’s mother only ever told Anabelle she loved her when Anabelle won her skating competitions or received an A+ on an assignment. According to Hazan & Shaver (1987), Anabelle and Rod are most likely to argue because _____________. a. Rod gets jealous when Anabelle spends a lot of time with her friends b. Anabelle does not appreciate Rod’s romantic gestures c. Anabelle does not think Rod is good enough for her d. Rod never goes out of his way to prove his love to Anabelle 28. During the final, winner-take-all Game 7 of the hockey playoff series between the Ottawa Senators and the Pittsburgh Penguins, a Pittsburgh player violently slashes Ottawa’s team captain. In retaliation, one of the Ottawa players skates full-speed right into the Pittsburgh goalie, knocking him over and leaving him with a concussion. After this, fights break out between most members of both teams. Players who were not involved in the original acts of aggression, but who end up fighting afterwards, are likely fighting due to ___________. a. equity b. intention c. responsibility d. expectations 29. The Skeins are a punk-rock band known for their amazing music, high energy, and their YouTube videos of pranks they play on each other while on tour. Their first album was wildly popular and they gained world-wide fame before the members of the band reached the age of 21. They have just released their fourth album, Rock >>> Pop-Punk Drama, and it lives up to its name, as their sound has changed a lot (taking on more of a rock tone than a punk vibe). They’re going on tour for the new album. Because of the type of music they play and their high energy on and off-stage, many parents disapprove of them because they believe they are “always drunk in public”. This is an example of __________. a. the spotlight effect b. a self-fulfilling prophecy c. an illusory correlation d. the fundamental attribution error

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Chap 13_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. d 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. b

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Chap 13_6ce_Case-Based 27. d 28. d 29. c

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What is generally NOT considered a factor in explaining why individuals’ performance in groups declines? a. social loafing b. loss of coordination between members c. duplication of effort by group members d. obedience and conformity 2. Which of the following types of love, according to Sternberg, is a combination of intimacy and passion? a. companionate love b. fatuous love c. romantic love d. consummate love 3. What does group cohesiveness refer to? a. the tendency of groups to make more cautious decisions than individuals b. the strength of relationships linking group members to each other and to the group c. the degree to which group members agree about an issue d. the extent of polarization that occurs after group discussion 4. The makers of the new Reliant automobile are sick and tired of TV commercials that rely on images of sex and “life in the fast lane” to sell cars. Besides, they believe that if their commercials simply present the true facts about why their car is the best on the market, potential buyers are more likely to develop a long-lasting preference for the Reliant. What is illustrated by a “fact-based” marketing strategy? a. autonomic route to persuasion b. peripheral route to persuasion c. central route to persuasion d. somatic route to persuasion 5. Who would you find most credible if he or she were arguing that the government needs to reduce taxes on large corporations? a. the president of a large corporation b. your favourite uncle c. a famous economist d. a local politician 6. As you’re shopping, you see a woman yelling at a cashier. Given the actor-observer bias, how is your interpretation of the event most likely to differ from the interpretation of the yelling woman? a. The yelling woman is more likely to perceive the situation as being the cause of her aggressive behaviour. b. The yelling woman is more likely to be accurate about the cause of her behaviour. c. You are more likely to be accurate about the cause of the yelling woman’s behaviour. d. You are more likely to make an external attribution about the cause of the yelling woman’s behaviour. 7. Andy shyly pays a compliment to Elana during their statistics class. Not only did this make Elana feel good about herself, but she also found herself liking Andy a little bit more as a result. Which aspect of interpersonal attraction does this example demonstrate? a. attitude alignment b. the matching hypothesis c. mate choice copies d. reciprocity

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 8. Several studies have shown that attitudes are only mediocre predictors of behaviour. What is an explanation for this finding? a. Researchers failed to operationalize the concept of an attitude. b. General beliefs and feelings aren’t likely to predict specific behaviours very well. c. Researchers failed to take variations in attitude strength into account. d. Subjects often intentionally lie about both their attitudes and their behaviour. 9. Dallas watches as Rhoda missteps in the cafeteria and spills coffee on herself and two other students. If Dallas concludes that Rhoda is an uncoordinated “klutz” who wasn’t paying attention to what she was doing, what has he done? a. made an internal attribution b. made an external attribution c. made a self-serving attribution d. been influenced by an illusory correlation 10. As you’re shopping for a car, the car salesperson is attempting many different persuasion tactics. You’ve been expecting these tactics, likely based on your stereotypes of car salespeople. What is likely, due to your expectations? a. You will disconfirm your previous beliefs about cars. b. You will show cognitive dissonance in response to the persuasive tactics. c. You will be forewarned about the tactics, and less likely to be persuaded. d. You will be much easier to persuade, due to forewarning. 11. Joe has been calling Jill each evening and talking with her every day at lunch, but now he is deeply despondent because she is out of town. Which type of love is Joe experiencing? a. companionate b. communal c. passionate d. sexual infatuation 12. Which of the following varies a great deal across cultures? a. predominance of heterosexual orientation b. whether value is placed on female beauty c. societally-recognized sexual relationships between men and women d. viewing love as the basis for marriage 13. Which couple is most likely to report great relationship satisfaction? a. Ike and Tina, who have passionate love for each other b. Mindy and Dan, who have companionate love for each other c. Sam and Diane, who have a preoccupied attachment style d. Nicole and Chris, who have an opposites-attract relationship 14. Which term refers to attributing one’s successes to dispositional factors and one’s failures to situational factors? a. self-serving bias b. actor-observer bias c. fundamental attribution error d. self-enhancing strategy

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 15. Newton believes that all airline pilots are calm, cool individuals who never get excited or show any strong emotional responses. What do Newton’s beliefs reflect? a. a confirmation bias b. a stereotype c. the fundamental attribution error d. the matching hypothesis 16. John notices he’s been eating carrots a lot lately. From this, John infers that he must like carrots. What does this example illustrate? a. lens model of attitude-behaviour relationships b. attribution theory c. actor-observer bias d. self-perception theory 17. What do we use attributions for? a. to understand and predict how we will respond in novel situations b. to avoid making errors about the causes of others’ behaviour c. to make discriminatory judgments about others d. to understand our experiences and make sense of our lives 18. In which type of culture is marriage more likely to be arranged by families and other go-betweens? a. heavily industrialized b. self-monitoring c. collectivist d. individualistic 19. According to the elaboration likelihood model, which type of messages are more likely to produce lasting attitude change? a. messages that choose the generic path b. messages that activate the parasympathetic route c. messages that take the peripheral route d. messages that take the central route 20. Kelsie is on a first date and notices that he seems rather grumpy. She tries to make herself believe that her date’s behaviour must be because he had a bad day at work. Which of the following kinds of attribution is Kelsie making, if she believes this? a. internal-unstable b. internal-stable c. external-unstable d. external-stable 21. Based on conformity research conducted by Asch, what will reduce conformity and lead to people saying what they actually think? a. when at least one other person disagrees with the group b. when group size is small c. when group size is large d. when the group contains both men and women 22. Defensive attributions are MOST associated with which of the following statements? a. “He got what he deserved.” b. “I am the greatest.” c. “They are all alike.” d. “I didn’t see that coming.” Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 23. Virginia has a favourable attitude toward aerobics and working out. Just the thought of her daily workout is enough to make Virginia feel good, and she finds that when she is at the gym, she feels much more relaxed and much less stressed. What component of Virginia’s attitude toward working out is reflected by her feelings? a. physiological b. affective c. behavioural d. cognitive 24. Rodney has an unfavourable attitude toward his astronomy professor. In explaining Rodney’s attitude, what would be an operant conditioning factor? a. how other students in the class feel about this particular professor b. how Rodney feels about his other professors c. the astronomy professor’s personality and general attitude toward Rodney d. Rodney’s history of punishment in dealing with his astronomy professor 25. Harper is 35 years old, and she has just enrolled in her first university course. On the first day of class, she looks over the individuals in the room and sits next to another female student who appears to be in her early 30s. In this case, how did Harper classify the other student? a. as someone who has more university experience than Harper b. using a self-serving bias c. as a member of her ingroup d. as the teaching assistant for the class 26. In Milgram’s research on obedience, what did the experimenter do to the teacher when the teacher questioned whether the experiment should continue? a. The teacher was given verbal prompts to continue. b. The teacher was shocked. c. The teacher was verbally abused. d. The teacher was requested to change places with the learner. 27. There are differences in the likelihood of conformity between individualist and collectivist groups. Which theme from the textbook is highlighted by these robust effects? a. Our experience is highly subjective. b. Our experience is affected by cultural factors. c. There is value in theoretical diversity. d. Psychology is an empirical discipline. 28. What is the tendency called ethnocentrism? a. focusing on one’s own needs as opposed to what is best for the group b. evaluating people in one’s own group as superior to others c. modelling the attitudes of members of one’s immediate family d. identifying with members of a popular outgroup

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 29. Groups seeking donations routinely send address labels and other small gifts with their pleas. Which social influence technique is illustrated by this approach? a. foot-in-the-door technique b. lowball technique c. reciprocity norm d. highball technique 30. According to the notion of defensive attribution, what do we use to explain the setbacks that befall other people? a. stable causes b. external causes c. defensive causes d. internal causes 31. A recent national election resulted in a surprising outcome. Although the pre-election polls indicated that the population favoured the Blue Party, the Red Party was the victor. According to research on the relationship between attitudes and behaviour, how could you explain the election results? a. People are generally dishonest when they report their attitudes, so the behaviour appears surprising. b. Contrary to popular belief, there is essentially no correlation between attitudes and actual behaviour. c. Although there is a modest correlation between attitudes and behaviour, the relationship is not strong enough to be able to use attitude to accurately predict behaviour. d. People with the strongest attitudes will voice those attitudes but tend not to act on them. 32. You and your friend Nick are having lunch at a café. As you start describing your last date, Nick starts making a nasty face. You assume that Nick must have tasted something terrible, so you ask if there is something wrong with the soup. Why did you ask about the soup? a. You’re in denial about the effect of your conversation on Nick’s behaviour. b. You’ve established a schema that relates to Nick’s food preferences and behaviour. c. You’ve made an error in judgement about the cause of Nick’s grimace. d. You’ve made an attribution about the source of Nick’s disgust. 33. Lewis has agreed to proofread a long document for his boss. Lewis knows that he will not receive any additional pay for his extra work, and he thinks that proofreading is boring. After the job is finished, Lewis decides that proofreading isn’t such a bad job after all; he feels that at times he actually enjoyed the exacting work. What best explains Lewis’s attitude change? a. self-serving bias b. cognitive dissonance theory c. matching hypothesis d. fundamental attribution error 34. John observed Gracie, an executive for a large accounting firm, behave in an aggressive and pushy manner with her subordinates. John now believes that most female executives are basically aggressive and pushy with their subordinates. What is John’s overestimation of the relationship between female executives and the social traits of “pushy” and “aggressive” referred to as? a. a heuristic overbias b. a contravened stereotype c. a self-serving attribution d. an illusory correlation

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 Dr. Sterling Dr. Sterling is a psychology professor, and she is also part of a lobbying group that is trying to get the government to devote more money to research in the social sciences. She invites the MP for her area to her lab at the university for a tour and a demonstration of the research that she and her colleagues are developing. She’s hoping that if she can get the politician to agree to the tour, she’ll later be able to convince him to vote to increase funding when the new bill gets to Parliament. When the MP arrives at Dr. Sterling’s lab, the MP is temporarily taken aback. Dr. Sterling is rather young and attractive, wearing a very stylish suit. The politician had expected a psychology professor to be a stodgy old man with a beard and a rumpled lab coat! Along their tour, they stop to watch, through a two-way mirror, the progress of an experiment that is taking place in one of the lab rooms. A group of seven people are being asked to judge the length of a line that is shown on a computer screen. One after another, each of the people makes a judgment that is clearly wrong. The MP chuckles and thinks to himself that the people in that room are all idiots, or perhaps have vision problems. After the tour is over, Dr. Sterling takes the politician for lunch. Over lunch, she explains to him that universities need more money in order to fund cutting-edge research and make greater progress into understanding human behaviour. She also stresses that if the schools do not get an increase in funding, then Canadian students will lag behind the rest of the world in this area and our government will be a laughingstock of the developed world. The only way to prevent that from happening is to make sure that there is more funding for research. The politician leaves, and he feels that he really should vote to increase social science funding. 35. When the MP assumes that the people in the experiment are “idiots,” what does that illustrate? a. self-serving bias b. fundamental attribution error c. external causal attribution d. discrimination 36. Elijah listens carefully to the content of an infomercial for a new exercise system. Bob focuses on the fact that two star athletes are endorsing the exercise system. After the infomercial has ended, both Elijah and Bob have favourable attitudes toward the exercise system that was advertised. What is predicted by the elaboration likelihood model? a. Both men are likely to purchase the exercise system that was advertised. b. Elijah is more likely to actually purchase the exercise system. c. Neither man is likely to actually purchase the exercise system. d. Bob is more likely to actually purchase the exercise system. 37. Ralph watches as a customer with at least 40 items lines up at his express checkout line. He decides the customer must be a real “idiot” to miss the sign that indicates Ralph’s checkout line is an express line with a limit of 10 items. What is illustrated by this example? a. self-serving bias b. illusory correlation c. defensive attribution d. fundamental attribution error 38. Mike and Lydia started their relationship as somewhat similar individuals but with their own unique ideas and attitudes. Over time, each of them seemed to very gradually modify their attitudes and beliefs to become more congruent with the other’s. Now they are very similar to each other. What is the term for this? a. matching hypothesis b. attitude alignment c. reciprocity d. mate choice copies Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 39. Although there is little research on the relationship success of companies like eHarmony, one study did look at 19 000 respondents who married between 2005 and 2012, some who had met online and others who had met offline. Which of the following were the results of this study? a. Those who met online tended to have lower scores of relationship satisfaction. b. Those who met online were less likely to experience marital breakups. c. Those who met online tended to marry more quickly. d. Those who met online tended to report higher incidence of passionate love. 40. When Burger replicated Milgram’s obedience studies with modern ethical procedures in place, what difference did he find in rates of obedience to authority? a. The new procedures resulted in much less obedience. b. Rates of obedience were only slightly lower than in Milgram’s studies. c. Most participants left the study, so obedience could not be determined. d. Participants were more comfortable, and therefore more obedient. 41. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of ethnocentric thinking? a. tendency to think simplistically about outgroups b. tendency to overestimate the similarity of outgroup members c. tendency to evaluate outgroup members less favourably than ingroup members d. tendency to evaluate people in an outgroup from the perspective of a member of that outgroup 42. According to Sternberg, how can companionate love be subdivided? a. into friendship and sexuality b. into intimacy and friendship c. into sexuality and commitment d. into commitment and intimacy 43. Which social psychology topic focuses on how we form impressions of other people? a. person perception b. fundamental attribution c. conformity d. prejudice 44. Travis saw a television advertisement in which a new long-distance telephone service provider showed a vignette of pleasant family scenes while some relaxing music played in the background. Later, when Travis is asked about this particular long-distance service provider, he has a positive attitude toward its service, even though he actually uses a different long-distance service. What influenced Travis’s attitude? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. cognitive dissonance d. observational learning 45. What term is used by evolutionary theorists for a group that one belongs to and identifies with? a. ingroup b. clan c. clique d. family 46. Philip has a favourable attitude toward a politician who is currently running for re-election. Philip knows that the candidate voted in favour of a number of issues that he supports and works hard for local residents. What component of Philip’s attitude does this illustrate? a. behavioural b. cognitive c. physiological d. affective Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 47. You just sat down in class next to a woman that you know is in the drama club. You believe that people who excel in drama are also very likely to drink a lot of wine, so to start a conversation, you ask this girl about her favourite wine. She tells you about a chardonnay that she particularly likes, but she doesn’t mention that she rarely drinks wine (she’s more of a “beer person”). Once the conversation is over, you have no idea what she prefers and you’re even more convinced that actors are big wine drinkers. Based on the research of Zanna and Cooper, what has happened here? a. You’ve acted in a way that is discriminatory. b. Your stereotypes led to a self-fulfilling prophecy. c. You’ve succumbed to the social schema effect. d. You’ve committed the fundamental attribution error. 48. According to research cited in the textbook, in which of the following ways can we best describe the correlation between people’s use of Facebook and their sense of connection or disconnection with others? a. There is no correlation between Facebook use and one’s sense of connection or disconnection to others. b. There is a moderate positive correlation between Facebook use and one’s sense of connection to others. c. There is a moderate negative correlation between Facebook use and one’s sense of connection to others. d. There is a positive correlation between Facebook use and one’s sense of both connection to and disconnection from others. 49. Which type of love, according to Sternberg, is a combination of commitment and passion? a. companionate love b. fatuous love c. romantic love d. consummate love 50. You are working with a group of teenagers living in a residential treatment facility. They share the attitude that it is better to protect yourself than to cooperate with others. This is an attitude that you wish to change, in order to help them become more contributing members of society. Which technique might you use if you were to employ the self-perception theory for the purpose of attitude change? a. Provide clear reinforcers for every instance of cooperative behaviour that you see. b. Give each resident an autobiography of a famous athlete who talks about how teamwork is the key to success. c. Have each resident write a reflection about the dangers of being too independent. d. Have potential employers come in to talk about how important cooperation is in the modern workplace, and how they need to learn how to work as members of a team. 51. Which of the following leads to conformity? a. negative reinforcement b. responding to real or imagined social pressure c. observing a model being reinforced for a particular response d. positive reinforcement 52. Jairus, Greg, Dan, and Rishi all watched as the building across the street burned to the ground. They kept waiting for the fire trucks to show up, even though none of them had called 911. In this case, the fact that none of the four friends phoned to report the fire illustrates which phenomenon? a. social loafing b. self-fulfilling prophecy c. bystander effect d. group polarization Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 53. If Stanley holds the implicit attitude that men are smarter than women, what is likely to happen if he completes the Implicit Association Test? a. He will respond more quickly to the pairing of a female face with the word smart. b. He will respond more slowly to the pairing of a female face with the word smart. c. He will respond more slowly to all pairings that include a female face. d. He will respond more quickly to all pairings that include a female face. 54. Which statement best describes attitudes and interpersonal attraction? a. People are attracted to others with highly similar or highly dissimilar attitudes. b. People are more likely to be attracted to someone with similar attitudes. c. People are more likely to be attracted to someone with dissimilar attitudes. d. People are not attracted to others based on their attitudes because attitudes and attraction are independent. 55. Toshi was born and raised in Japan; Otis was born and raised in the United States. Based on cross-ltural studies comparing individualistic and collectivist cultures, what is expected of Toshi compared to Otis? a. Toshi is less likely to exhibit a self-serving bias in explaining success. b. Toshi is more likely to exhibit a self-serving bias in explaining success. c. Toshi is less likely to experience cognitive dissonance. d. Toshi is more likely to experience cognitive dissonance. 56. Vance is a little lost on his first day on campus and doesn’t know how to get to his chemistry class. Luckily, he has a couple of friends in the same class, so he just walks with them and doesn’t have to admit to being lost. In psychological terms, which of the following is this an example of? a. normative influence b. groupthink c. obedience d. informational social influence 57. Research has shown that attractive women tend to be viewed by others as higher in each of the following “Big Five” personality traits EXCEPT which one? a. agreeableness b. conscientiousness c. neuroticism d. extraversion 58. Based on the results of a study using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), when people are presented with photos of people from other races, what tends to occur? a. The amygdala is activated, especially in those who hold racist views. b. Cortical activity seems to be suppressed in most people. c. The frontal lobes are activated in older individuals. d. The hippocampus and visual cortex are more active than usual. 59. What is the term for the tendency for group discussion to result in a strengthening of the group’s dominant view and shifting it to a greater extreme? a. reinforcement b. group polarization c. group diffusion d. groupthink

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 60. Marsha believes that all news reporters are cynical, doubting individuals who would do anything for an exclusive story. In this case, what do Marsha’s beliefs reflect? a. the fundamental attribution error b. a confirmation bias c. a stereotype d. the matching hypothesis 61. What is the term for putting personal goals ahead of group goals and defining one’s identity in terms of personal attributes? a. individualism b. egocentrism c. hedonism d. dispositional attributional bias 62. Katelyn is a mildly-lonely first-year student in university, and has recently been increasing her use of social networking websites. She uses these sites to try to forge new relationships and deepen her existing ones. According to research cited in the textbook, which of the following is Katelyn likely to experience? a. She will feel an increased sense of belonging as she builds her online network. b. She will feel greater loneliness as she delves further into social networking. c. She will experience no change in her sense of belonging or loneliness. d. She will experience social burnout from high levels of impression management. 63. Eric has joined a new fraternity. Based on the research conducted by Krebs and Denton, if the other fraternity members now consider Eric as part of their ingroup, what are they more likely to do? a. pay less attention to his actions and ideas b. remember things that he does with greater accuracy c. view him in somewhat negative terms d. view him in a generally positive light 64. Maria has strong feelings about a new bylaw because it affects her personally. What aspect of an attitude does this example reflect? a. distinctiveness b. vested interest c. ambivalence d. accessibility 65. A car dealer may offer a customer a terrific deal on a car, but once the customer commits to buying the car, the dealer reveals that there are some hidden costs. Which social influence technique is illustrated by this approach? a. foot-in-the-door technique b. lowball technique c. feigned scarcity d. reciprocity norm 66. Which of the following would definitely be categorized as a group? a. five people in different cities who work collaboratively on a book b. fifteen people who live in the same neighbourhood c. five people sitting in a doctor’s waiting room d. fifteen people who belong to the same international fan club 67. Barbara’s car has been running poorly lately. Whose advice is Barbara most likely to follow to make her car run better, based on the relative value of source factors? a. mechanic b. physician c. physics instructor d. uncle Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 68. Which statement best reflects an evolutionary explanation of why we tend to be influenced by physical attractiveness in our perception of others? a. We tend to identify with those we perceive as attractive. b. Attractiveness is associated with reproduction, so attractiveness has adaptive value. c. Being around attractive people tends to make us view ourselves more favourably. d. Physically attractive individuals are also likely to be intelligent and hard working. 69. Which social influence technique involves getting people to agree to a small request to increase the chances that they will agree to a larger request later? a. highball technique b. reciprocity norm c. lowball technique d. foot-in-the-door technique 70. Hayoung was born and raised in a traditional Asian culture; Geoff was born and raised in an industrialized Western city. Which of the following statements is most likely, given the results of cross-cultural research on attributional patterns? a. Hayoung is more likely to make the fundamental attribution error but less likely to engage in the selfserving bias. b. Hayoung is more likely to engage in the self-serving bias but less likely to make the fundamental attribution error. c. Hayoung is more likely to both make the fundamental attribution error and engage in the self-serving bias. d. Hayoung is less likely to both make the fundamental attribution error and engage in the self-serving bias. 71. During which of the following phases of the menstrual cycle is a woman most likely to favour men with masculine facial and body features, attractiveness, and dominance? a. during the menstrual phase b. when approaching the menstrual phase c. when approaching the ovulatory phase d. during the luteal phase (post-ovulation) 72. Julian is playing a computer trivia game against some friends. When he wins the first game, he attributes his win to his quick reaction time. However, when Julian loses the second game, he attributes his loss to his controller not working correctly. What do Julian’s attributions illustrate? a. matching hypothesis b. fundamental attribution error c. self-serving bias d. actor-observer bias 73. Kristian and Karla’s relationship scores very highly on measures of intimacy and commitment, but not passion. According to Sternberg, which of the following kinds of love do they have? a. companionate love b. fatuous love c. romantic love d. consummate love 74. Mort is trying to convince his parents that he should go to a university in another province, rather than the local university. He has made five strong points that support his position, but his parents are not convinced. Based on the research into factors that influence persuasion, what should Mort do? a. Repeat the arguments that he has already made. b. Play some soft background music while he and his parents discuss the issue some more. c. Add additional points that support his position, even if they are weaker arguments. d. Ask his parents to think about their decision for a few days. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 75. Sarah and Armen’s relationship scores highly on commitment, passion, and intimacy. Which of the following would Sternberg call this? a. companionate love b. romantic love c. fatuous love d. consummate love Dr. Sterling Dr. Sterling is a psychology professor, and she is also part of a lobbying group that is trying to get the government to devote more money to research in the social sciences. She invites the MP for her area to her lab at the university for a tour and a demonstration of the research that she and her colleagues are developing. She’s hoping that if she can get the politician to agree to the tour, she’ll later be able to convince him to vote to increase funding when the new bill gets to Parliament. When the MP arrives at Dr. Sterling’s lab, the MP is temporarily taken aback. Dr. Sterling is rather young and attractive, wearing a very stylish suit. The politician had expected a psychology professor to be a stodgy old man with a beard and a rumpled lab coat! Along their tour, they stop to watch, through a two-way mirror, the progress of an experiment that is taking place in one of the lab rooms. A group of seven people are being asked to judge the length of a line that is shown on a computer screen. One after another, each of the people makes a judgment that is clearly wrong. The MP chuckles and thinks to himself that the people in that room are all idiots, or perhaps have vision problems. After the tour is over, Dr. Sterling takes the politician for lunch. Over lunch, she explains to him that universities need more money in order to fund cutting-edge research and make greater progress into understanding human behaviour. She also stresses that if the schools do not get an increase in funding, then Canadian students will lag behind the rest of the world in this area and our government will be a laughingstock of the developed world. The only way to prevent that from happening is to make sure that there is more funding for research. The politician leaves, and he feels that he really should vote to increase social science funding. 76. When Dr. Sterling tried to demonstrate to the MP how he can avoid bad outcomes by increasing funding to researchers, which factor in the process of persuasion was Dr. Sterling manipulating? a. source b. channel c. receiver d. message 77. When Erika scores a high grade on her chemistry exam, she says that it is because she is smart and she studied hard. But when she receives a low grade in astronomy, she says that it’s because the test was impossible and the teacher is terrible. Which of the following is illustrated in this example? a. actor-observer bias b. self-serving bias c. fundamental attribution error d. defensive attribution 78. A recent anti-smoking campaign on television showed graphic images of the internal effects of smoking. Twelve-year-old Kandice has seen a number of these ads, and they made her feel nauseated. Now she finds that she has developed an unfavourable attitude toward smoking. What does this example illustrate? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. cognitive dissonance d. observational learning

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 79. If a person has both positive and negative feelings about a subject, this is known as which of the following? a. an ambivalent attitude b. an implicit attitude c. an explicit attitude d. a defensive attitude 80. Kristen scrimped and saved for over a year so that she could afford a trip to the Super Bowl if her favourite team won the NFC title. She was excited when her team made it to the Super Bowl; however, the actual game was fairly boring, and in the end, Kristen’s favourite team lost. Still, when Kristen got back home, she told all her friends about the great time she had at the game. What is the best explanation for Kristen’s attitude about the game? a. ingratiation theory b. effort justification c. self-serving bias d. matching hypothesis 81. What is the term for the organized clusters of ideas about categories of social events and people? a. co-variation inferences b. attributions c. illusory correlations d. social schemas 82. Although Maxine has never met anybody who is Russian, she is convinced that all Russians are sneaky individuals who can’t be trusted. She has heard her mother and her three uncles make these types of statements for as long as she can remember. How was Maxine’s prejudice acquired? a. cognitive dissonance b. classical conditioning c. observational learning d. operant conditioning 83. In Milgram’s research on obedience, what was the teacher’s perception of what would happen when the learner made a mistake? a. The experiment would have to be terminated. b. The learner would receive a shock. c. The learner would be negatively reinforced. d. The teacher would be asked to change places with the learner. 84. What happens to the productivity of individuals when they are in larger groups? a. It declines due to the loss of coordination among group members’ efforts. b. It declines due to reinforcement from other group members for reduced productivity. c. It increases due to concern about being evaluated by other group members. d. It increases due to enforced commitment to the group’s goals. 85. If you tend to overemphasize internal characteristics in explaining the behaviour of others, which of the following describes your explanations? a. fundamental attribution error b. false consensus effect c. situational attributional tendency d. self-serving bias 86. In terms of underlying causes, which of the following share the most similarity? a. bystander effect and social loafing b. group polarization and cognitive dissonance c. social loafing and the illusory correlation effect d. discrimination and ingratiation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 87. Lars has a favourable attitude toward the Twisted Lizards rock band. He buys every CD they release, as soon as it is available. He also has five band T-shirts, and he has been to six of the band’s live concerts. What component of Lars’s attitude toward the band is reflected by his actions? a. cognitive b. affective c. physiological d. behavioural 88. Natasha has always felt at ease confiding in other people, and she and Boris have described their relationship as one based on trust. According to Hazan and Shaver, which type of attachment style did Natasha likely have with her parents? a. secure attachment b. avoidant attachment c. anxious-ambivalent attachment d. nonattachment 89. Which adage seems to be supported by research on factors contributing to building relationships? a. “Similarity breeds liking.” b. “Similarity builds uncertainty.” c. “Similarity breeds contempt.” d. “Similarity builds discrimination.” 90. Malcolm’s new co-worker laughs at his jokes and seems to genuinely like him. As a result, Malcolm finds that he likes this co-worker more and more. What is the term for this? a. matching hypothesis b. attitude alignment c. reciprocity d. mate choice copies 91. Which statement best describes the influence of culture on conformity and obedience? a. Studies of conformity and obedience have yielded virtually identical results across a variety of cultures. b. Replications of Milgram’s study in other countries have generally resulted in low levels of obedience. c. Collectivistic cultures tend to encourage more conformity than individualistic cultures. d. Conformity and obedience appear to be unique to North American culture. 92. The term “self-fulfilling prophecy” describes which of the following instances? a. when people act in ways that confirm their beliefs about themselves b. when people selectively pay attention to and remember evidence that supports their pre-existing ideas c. when people attribute their own successes to internal factors and failures to external factors d. when people act toward others in a way that elicits expected behaviours from that person 93. Matthew often hears his parents discussing the importance of making lots of money. Eventually, Matthew himself begins to value a high income. How was Matthew’s attitude about money acquired? a. reinforcement b. classical conditioning c. punishment d. observational learning 94. Which of the following statements about stereotypes is TRUE? a. a stereotype is a form of the self-serving bias b. a stereotype is a type of schema c. a schema is a type of stereotype d. the actor-observer is a type of stereotype

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 95. What attributions do children tend to make when they are shown photos of other children? a. They attribute positive traits based on gender rather than attractiveness. b. They attribute positive traits based on familiarity rather than attractiveness. c. They attribute positive traits based on attractiveness rather than other factors. d. They attribute positive traits based on age rather than other factors. 96. Paige and Jordan’s relationship scores highly on commitment but not on passion or intimacy. Which of the following would Sternberg call this? a. empty love b. infatuation c. fatuous love d. companionate love 97. Which of the following is an example of informational influence? a. Mary dresses like her friends so that they don’t make fun of her. b. Steve follows his friend around the mall so that he doesn’t get lost. c. Ali stays quiet in a meeting because he isn’t prepared. d. Kaur plays guitar because she gets a lot of attention for it. 98. What does self-perception theory suggest? a. Self-handicapping is a strategy used to deal with the negative outcomes we experience. b. We infer attitudes from observing our own behaviours. c. Our self-concept is tied to the feedback we get from others. d. We develop attitudes from discerning what others think the attitudes should be. 99. Which statement best describes the bystander effect? a. It is weaker when there are more people in the group. b. It is unaffected by the size of the group. c. It is stronger when there are more people in the group. d. It is greatest when the observer is the only one present. 100. Cheryl is at a fancy dinner and has no idea which fork to use for which course. So she subtly watches others out of the corner of her eye and copies whatever they are doing. In psychological terms, which of the following is this an example of? a. obedience b. normative influence c. groupthink d. informational social influence 101. Cross-cultural studies examining the prevalence of the fundamental attribution error and the self-serving bias have found which of the following? a. Both are equally common across cultures. b. Both are susceptible to cultural influences. c. The fundamental attribution error is equally common across cultures but not the self-serving bias. d. The self-serving bias is equally common across cultures but not the fundamental attribution error.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 102. When you think about someone that you are passionate about, which areas of your brain are particularly active? a. the ones associated with memory consolidation b. dopamine-rich circuits associated with addiction c. serotonin-rich circuits associated with long-term planning d. occipital regions associated with vision 103. The self-serving bias is MOST associated with which of the following statements? a. “He must be an idiot.” b. “They are all alike.” c. “He got what he deserved.” d. “I am the greatest.” 104. According to Hazan and Shaver’s model of infant attachment and romantic love, adults with which attachment style are most likely to ask their partners for a lot of reassurance? a. secure b. avoidant c. anxious-ambivalent d. rejecting 105. What is NOT one of the criticisms directed toward Milgram’s research on obedience to authority? a. Subjects were exposed to severe stress that could leave emotional scars. b. The independent and dependent variables were not clearly defined. c. Subjects were exposed to extensive deception without prior consent. d. The findings generalize very poorly to the real world. 106. Jack is working on a farm, and his employer has asked him to kill an unwanted litter of puppies that has just been born. Jack doesn’t want to do it, but he knows that it is his job to follow orders. Which of the following will make Jack most likely to disobey orders? a. hearing another employee refusing to do the job b. seeing someone watching him c. realizing that he isn’t being very well paid d. feeling sad for the dogs 107. Pierre is a moderately attractive 16-year-old. He is hoping to be asked to the school dance by either Whitney or Tammy. Whitney is moderately attractive; Tammy is extremely attractive. What is likely, based on the evidence from studies that have investigated physical attractiveness and dating? a. Both girls will ask Pierre to the dance, because women are less likely to consider attractiveness in selecting partners. b. Tammy will ask Pierre to the dance, because people tend to select partners who are slightly less attractive. c. Neither girl will ask Pierre to the dance, because people tend to select partners who are more attractive. d. Whitney will ask Pierre to the dance, because people tend to select partners who match their own level of attractiveness.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 108. In contrast to Milgram’s original studies, what differed in Burger’s recent replication of the shock obedience studies? a. Researchers were not perceived as being authority figures. b. Participants were carefully screened and repeatedly told they could stop at any time. c. Participants were very unlikely to conform to experimenter requests. d. The experimental procedure only allowed for verbal reprimands, rather than the provision of shock to the “learners.” 109. What is a cognitive dissonance explanation for results found by Festinger and Carlsmith? a. Subjects paid $1 to lie felt little cognitive dissonance. b. Subjects paid $20 to lie had sufficient justification for their counterattitudinal behaviour and experienced little dissonance. c. Subjects paid $1 to lie had sufficient justification for their counterattitudinal behaviour. d. Subjects paid $20 to lie felt high cognitive dissonance. 110. Warren tells Corr that he can’t believe it, but he scored 98 percent on his linear algebra midterm. Corr decides that Warren must be very bright if he earns such high grades in math courses. What is illustrated by this example? a. self-serving bias b. defensive attribution c. illusory correlation d. fundamental attribution error 111. The NASA personnel who were in charge of the space shuttle launch had clear evidence that freezing temperatures could pose a problem for the shuttle, but they chose to ignore the evidence and proceeded with the launch anyway. Which process best explains this decision? a. group polarization b. groupthink c. reciprocity d. collectivism 112. What is cognitive dissonance? a. a feeling of guilt produced by engaging in counterattitudinal behaviour b. a state of confusion when cognitions are unrelated to each other c. a state of tension produced when related cognitions are inconsistent d. a feeling of discomfort experienced by receivers of persuasive communications 113. Which tendency is explained by the fundamental attribution error? a. Actors favour internal attributions in explaining the behaviour of others. b. Observers favour external attributions in explaining the behaviour of others. c. Actors favour external attributions in explaining the behaviour of others. d. Observers favour internal attributions in explaining the behaviour of others.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 114. In his studies on conformity, Asch found that if a group of six persons shares an opinion that is contradictory to your opinion, which of the following are you most likely to do? a. Show mild symptoms of learned helplessness. b. Voice your own opinion, even though it’s contradictory. c. Echo the opinion of the nearest group member. d. Voice the group’s opinion. 115. If Stanley holds an implicit racist attitude toward people who are Caucasian, what is likely to happen if he completes the Implicit Association Test? a. He will respond more quickly to all pairings that include a Caucasian face. b. He will respond more slowly to all pairings that include a Caucasian face. c. He will respond more quickly to the pairing of a Caucasian face with the word bad. d. He will respond more slowly to the pairing of a Caucasian face with the word bad. 116. Which characteristic is most likely to enhance the credibility of the source of a persuasive message? a. friendliness b. trustworthiness c. height d. physical attractiveness 117. Veronica is watching a hockey game and her favourite team is quickly down 3–0 against their rivals! Veronica is not too upset, as she notes that this is the third game in four nights for her team, so they are probably quite tired. Which of the following kinds of attributions did Veronica make? a. internal-unstable b. internal-stable c. external-unstable d. external-stable 118. Which facial feature is perceived as attractive by both males and females? a. youthful features b. symmetry c. large eyes in relation to the size of the face d. strong jawline 119. When people make attributions about crime and poverty in urban ethnic neighbourhoods, which of the following gets most of the blame because of the fundamental attribution error? a. job discrimination experienced by the residents b. poor police protection in such areas c. crowded living conditions in these neighbourhoods d. personal qualities of the residents 120. Allison reacts more slowly when photos of people outside her race are paired with “good” words on the Implicit Association Test. What does this predict about her behaviour toward people outside her race? a. Nothing. The test reveals implicit attitudes, but not explicit behaviour. b. She will likely have subtle behaviours that reveal this attitude, like making less eye contact with people outside her race. c. She will likely engage in overt discrimination but deny being racist. d. She will likely have explicit associations that are consistent with her implicit associations. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 121. Frasier was on a bridge, planning to commit suicide. On one side of the bridge, about 40 people stood and pointed at him as he clung to the railing. On the other side of the bridge, a lone onlooker saw him, and immediately called for help. Why was the lone person more likely to help than any individual in the crowd? a. Cognitive dissonance decreases as the size of a group is decreased. b. Group polarization is less likely to occur in small groups. c. Diffusion of responsibility is less likely to occur in a small group. d. Small groups tend to be less cohesive than larger groups. 122. Which statement is supported by evidence from numerous studies of the bystander effect? a. It is a widespread phenomenon. b. It occurs only in urban impoverished areas. c. It is limited to contrived laboratory situations. d. There is truth to the old saying that “there is safety in numbers.” 123. A father suggests that his son’s low marks in school are because the boy has always been lazy. What type of attribution has the father made? a. internal-unstable b. internal-stable c. external-unstable d. external-stable 124. Which of the following statements about the self-serving bias is TRUE? a. The self-serving bias tends to get stronger with time after an event. b. The self-serving bias tends to be relatively uncommon. c. The self-serving bias tends to reduce self-esteem. d. The self-serving bias tends to get weaker with time after an event. 125. Joel and Kirk both work with a stock brokerage firm. Joel is considered to be extremely attractive, and Kirk is considered to be average in appearance. Based on research that has investigated the effects of physical appearance in person perception, what would you predict? a. Joel will tend to receive better performance evaluations, for equivalent work. b. Kirk will tend to receive better performance evaluations, for equivalent work. c. Joel will be perceived as having greater integrity and being more honest. d. Kirk will be perceived as being more submissive and naïve. 126. If Matthew’s mother praises his good sense every time he says that money is important, what is likely strengthening Matthew’s attitude about money? a. classical conditioning b. negative reinforcement c. observational learning d. operant conditioning

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 127. Sean is a basketball player who had been hired by a major cereal manufacturer to promote one of its brands of cereal. Last week, Sean received national coverage when he was arrested for drunk driving. This week, the cereal manufacturer cancelled his contract. Based on the research into factors that influence persuasion, why did the company cancel Sean’s contract? a. People will now perceive Sean as being less of an expert on nutrition. b. Sean’s likeability will probably decrease. c. People will now perceive Sean as being less physically attractive. d. Sean will likely lose his job. 128. Clara listens carefully to the content of an infomercial for a new software package, but Joyce focuses on the fact that there are three different celebrity endorsers who are really excited about the software package. After the infomercial has ended, both Clara and Joyce think the software is worth purchasing. What is predicted by the elaboration likelihood model? a. Joyce will have a more enduring attitude toward the software than Clara. b. Clara will have a more enduring attitude toward the software than Joyce. c. Clara will experience more cognitive dissonance than Joyce. d. Joyce will experience less social facilitation than Clara. 129. Whenever Scott sees Diana, he can feel his heart start to pound with excitement. Even though Scott and Diana have dated only a few times, Scott often becomes jealous when Diana talks to other men. He also finds he can’t get her out of his mind when they are apart. According to Hatfield and Berscheid, what type of love is Scott experiencing? a. passionate b. intimate c. companionate d. attached 130. According to Sternberg, what type of love is prevalent in long-term relationships? a. attachment and companionate b. passion and romance c. commitment and passion d. commitment and intimacy 131. Sharon has met three musicians who had full beards, and she has also met three musicians who were cleanshaven. Still, she believes that most musicians have beards. What does Sharon’s belief reflect? a. an illusory correlation b. the fundamental attribution error c. an egocentric slant d. a confirmation bias 132. What is NOT one of the crucial dimensions of attitudes? a. accessibility b. strength c. ambivalence d. distinctiveness 133. Glenda has a favourable attitude toward the independent candidate in the upcoming election because all her friends say they are planning to vote for him. They have all said he is the best person for the position. What influenced Glenda’s attitude? a. obedience b. classical conditioning c. observational learning d. cognitive dissonance

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 134. Martin is a relatively lonely first-year student in university. He has recently started increasing his use of social networking websites to escape from his offline loneliness. According to research cited in the textbook, which of the following is Martin likely to experience? a. Martin will feel an increased sense of belonging as he builds his online network. b. Martin will feel greater loneliness as he delves further into social networking. c. Martin will experience no change in his sense of belonging or loneliness. d. Martin will experience social burnout from high levels of impression management. 135. Censoring dissent, pressuring to conform, omitting contradictory evidence, and polarizing ingroups and outgroups are basic features of which of the following? a. social loafing b. group polarization c. groupthink d. social diffusion 136. Laura is planning to buy a new car, and she is trying to decide between a Ford and a Honda. Based on the research into factors that influence persuasion, who should Laura find most persuasive? a. her mother, because family members are more persuasive than strangers b. a Honda salesperson who recommends buying a Honda c. her boyfriend, because males are more persuasive than females d. a Ford salesperson who recommends buying a Honda rather than a Ford 137. Maria is driving along her normal route to work when a police officer stops her and directs her to take a different route. She is not sure why she has to take the detour, but she does what the police officer tells her to do. What does this example illustrate? a. conformity b. persuasion c. obedience d. reciprocity 138. According to Festinger’s cognitive dissonance research, what should result in the greatest attitudinal change? a. an offer of extra course credit to lie b. an offer of a piece of cake to lie c. a simple request to lie d. an offer of $50 to lie 139. Kevin is the human resources manager for a large company. He has a favourable attitude toward individuals with disabilities, in general. However, he hasn’t hired anyone who has a visible disability for any position that has come open in the company because his boss told him not to consider applicants who are disabled. Which statement best describes Kevin? a. He is showing neither prejudice nor discrimination. b. He shows evidence of prejudice, but not discrimination. c. He is displaying both prejudice and discrimination. d. He shows evidence of discrimination, but not prejudice. 140. According to research on gender differences in mating preferences among heterosexual couples, women are generally more interested than men in which of the following features? a. youthfulness and physical attractiveness b. mutual attraction and intelligence c. ambition, social status, and financial potential d. mutual attraction and kindness Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 141. The purveyors of miracle tonics and psychic advice tend to rely on which form of evidence? a. results from laboratory experiments b. findings from surveys and questionnaires c. anecdotal evidence d. findings from observational research 142. When did Asch find that group size did NOT affect conformity? a. when the task was easy b. when the experimenter ridiculed the group’s wrong answers c. when just one accomplice failed to go along with the rest of the group d. when the task was difficult 143. Which of the following proverbs (from various cultures) best captures how the average North American seems to judge the personalities and competencies of beautiful people? a. A beautiful person might not have a beautiful life. b. Beautiful roads never go far. c. Beauty is only skin deep. d. Beauty is a good letter of introduction. 144. Milton has always been “in love with the idea of being in love,” yet his romances have been threatened by his feelings of jealousy. His current girlfriend, Emilia, often assures him that she’ll love him forever, but he’s not so sure about that. What term would Hazan and Shaver use to describe Milton’s relationship style? a. avoidant b. secure c. anxious-ambivalent d. perfectly normal 145. When we make internal attributions for our successes and external attributions for our failures, we are engaging in Which of the following? a. the fundamental attribution error b. defensive attributions c. the actor-observer bias d. the self-serving bias 146. In trying to understand why some ethnic neighbourhoods are dominated by poverty, people often infer that the residents are lazy and unmotivated. What does this type of inference illustrate? a. stable global attribution b. inverse discrimination c. stable external attribution d. fundamental attribution error 147. Psychology is committed to the reliance on systematic observation through research to arrive at conclusions. In other words, what is psychology committed to? a. functionalism b. empiricism c. subjectivity d. objectivity 148. Maria was not particularly interested in Cam, a student in her physics class. But every day he sat next to her and simply said good morning, and over time she found herself finding him more and more attractive. Which of the following does this example illustrate? a. fundamental attribution error b. actor-observer bias c. the mere exposure effect d. cognitive dissonance

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 149. In the study by Festinger and Carlsmith, which subjects exhibited the greatest attitude change? a. those who were paid $1 for lying b. those who were paid $20 for lying c. those who were paid $1 for honesty d. those who were paid $20 for honesty 150. What is NOT one of the major components of an attitude? a. emotional feelings stimulated by an object of thought b. predispositions to act in certain ways c. genetic tendencies toward specific biases d. beliefs that one holds about the object of an attitude 151. Based on replications of Asch’s famous study, in which of the following countries would you expect to find the HIGHEST rates of conformity? a. Germany b. Spain c. Japan d. the United States 152. If you are trying to persuade others to your point of view on AIDS research, what would be an effective strategy? a. Give a two-sided argument, arouse fear, and offer a solution. b. Emphasize arguments directed at the tearing down the opposing view. c. Stress only the personal threat of getting AIDS. d. Give a one-sided, fear-invoking argument. 153. Which statement best describes initial attraction to a person? a. It is greatly influenced by that person’s physical attractiveness. b. It is greatly influenced by perceived intellectual similarity. c. It is more influenced by personality similarity than by physical attractiveness. d. It is minimally influenced by that person’s physical attractiveness. 154. Which psychology research area analyzes romantic relationships in terms of the adaptive problems they have presented over the course of human history? a. evolutionary b. psychodynamic c. behavioural d. humanistic 155. A father suggests that his son’s low marks in school are the result of having a bad teacher this year. What type of attribution has the father made? a. external-unstable b. internal-unstable c. external-stable d. internal-stable 156. When Stoner compared the average decision of a group’s individual members against their group decision generated through group discussion, what did he find? a. The longer the discussion continued, the riskier the group’s decisions. b. Groups arrived at riskier decisions than individuals. c. Individuals arrived at riskier decisions than groups. d. Group members ignored the discussion and maintained their original decision. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 157. What is predicted by the group polarization effect? a. When most of the group members initially favour a cautious decision, discussion will cause the group to adopt a risky decision. b. The gap between two opposing factions will be narrowed after group discussion. c. Group decisions will always be better than individual decisions. d. When most of the group members initially favour a cautious decision, discussion will cause the group to adopt an even more cautious decision. 158. Which of the following terms refers to the idea that people in a relationship gradually modify their attitudes in such a way as to become more similar over time? a. mate choice copies b. reciprocity c. attitude alignment d. matching hypothesis 159. What is a key element in judgments of attractiveness across highly diverse cultures? a. female waist-to-hip ratio and facial symmetry b. facial symmetry and male body mass index c. male pheromones and body mass index d. novelty and large female breasts 160. Simply repeating a message causes it to be perceived as more true. What is this finding called? a. the contrast effect b. the mere exposure effect c. the validity effect d. the reiteration effect 161. What type of love involves complete absorption in another that includes tender sexual feelings and the agony and ecstasy of intense emotion? a. sexual b. passionate c. lustful d. platonic 162. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of groupthink? a. censoring information that contradicts the group’s views b. gathering all the relevant information before making a decision c. dividing the world into the ingroup and the outgroup d. censoring dissent from group members 163. Which mate choice criteria tends to be found across cultures? a. Women want to marry for love. b. Financial resources are a critical feature for both men and women. c. Passionate love is an important determinate of marriage for both men and women. d. Men value physical attractiveness more than women do. 164. Groups seeking donations often ask people to simply sign a petition first. Which social influence technique is illustrated by this approach? a. highball technique b. foot-in-the-door technique c. reciprocity norm d. lowball technique Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 165. Nathan is on a first date and notices that every time he starts talking, she pulls out her phone to check it or looks around the room and just generally seems bored. He believes that this rude behaviour must be due to her awful personality and never goes on another date with her again. Which of the following kinds of attributions did Nathan make? a. internal-unstable b. internal-stable c. external-unstable d. external-stable 166. Greer and Neil have been married for 15 years. They have an extremely warm and trusting relationship, and even though Neil frequently travels on business, Greer never worries about him cheating. According to Hatfield and Berscheid, what type of love is this? a. companionate b. intimate c. preoccupied d. passionate 167. Mark is watching a hockey game, and his favourite team’s goalie lets in a goal on the first shot. Mark blames the goalie, saying that he wasn’t putting forth a good effort, and that he wasn’t mentally prepared for the game. Which of the following kinds of attributions did Mark make? a. internal-unstable b. internal-stable c. external-unstable d. external-stable 168. What is the name for the societal “rule” that we should pay back in kind what we receive from others? a. law of cognitive dissonance b. reciprocity norm c. display rule d. principle of collectivism 169. What is the name for the idea that males and females of approximately equal physical attractiveness are likely to select each other as partners? a. matching hypothesis b. attitude-behaviour consistency principle c. attributional outcome principle d. propinquity hypothesis 170. Troy thinks of himself as very egalitarian, and that he sees all people as equal. When he took the Implicit Association Test, he responded more slowly when “bad” words were paired with women’s faces than when they were paired with men’s faces? What can you conclude from the results of this test? a. Troy’s explicit associations are positive, and his implicit associations are negative. b. Troy’s explicit and implicit associations are incongruent. c. Troy tends to think more poorly of women than he does men. d. Troy was not honest about his explicit associations. 171. Which bias is less common among people from a collectivist culture, compared to an individualist culture? a. fundamental bias b. self-effacing bias c. self-serving bias d. halo effect 172. In Milgram’s study, what percentage of the subjects fully obeyed the experimenter? a. 5% b. 35% c. 65% d. 95%

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 173. In Asch’s studies, what were found to be the key determinants of conformity? a. task difficulty and group size b. group size and group unanimity c. group size and the subjects’ intelligence d. the group leader’s personality and group unanimity 174. Phyllis is playing in a basketball game, and when she makes a three-point basket she is ecstatic. She proudly tells her coach that it shows how all her extra practice has paid off. However, later in the game, Phyllis misses an almost identical shot. This time she explains to her coach that she was distracted by one of the opposing players. What do Phyllis’s attributions illustrate? a. actor-observer bias b. self-serving bias c. matching hypothesis d. fundamental attribution error 175. Among the following, who is likely to see the LEAST benefits of social media use? a. Laura, who regularly messages and responds to posts from her “real-world” friends b. Victoria, who scrolls through content posted by influencers she has not met c. Kim, who regularly interacts with new people that she has never met in person d. Jessica, who likes to scroll through content left by her “real-world” friends 176. Which psychologist is known for conducting classic research on conformity? a. Daryl Bem b. Stanley Milgram c. Solomon Asch d. Leon Festinger 177. What type of attribution is blaming a car accident on the weather conditions an example of? a. a dispositional attribution b. a defensive attribution c. an external attribution d. a self-serving attribution 178. What is NOT one of the basic elements of the persuasion process? a. source b. receiver c. intensity d. channel 179. Maureen was trying to decide which one of two national brand computers to buy. She was pretty well set on buying the “Brand A” computer when one of her friends mentioned that her favourite actor did commercials endorsing “Brand B.” Maureen decides to buy the “Brand B” computer, based on the assumption that her favourite actor wouldn’t endorse anything that wasn’t top quality. In this instance, what did Maureen use to reach her decision? a. central route to persuasion b. self-serving route to persuasion c. cognitive dissonance model of persuasion d. peripheral route to persuasion 180. Chelsea’s favourite YouTube channel has begun playing an ad with an annoying jingle before all their videos. At first she finds it incredibly irritating, but over time she starts to like it more and more. Now she even finds herself happily humming it sometimes. Which of the following does this example illustrate? a. cognitive dissonance b. self-serving bias c. normative influence d. the mere exposure effect

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 181. Who is noted for developing the theory of cognitive dissonance? a. Daryl Bem b. Sigmund Freud c. Leon Festinger d. Albert Bandura 182. Bryce and Cassandra’s relationship scores highly on passion but not on intimacy or commitment. Which of the following would Sternberg call this? a. companionate love b. fatuous love c. infatuation d. empty love 183. What is the self-serving bias? a. attributing our successes to external causes and our failures to internal causes b. attributing our successes to consensus and our failures to uniqueness c. attributing our successes to dispositional causes and our failures to situational causes d. attributing our successes to ego strength and our failures to ego weakness 184. An acquaintance of yours is organizing a blood drive and has convinced you to wear a large, hot, and slightly smelly mascot outfit and wander around to boost morale. You would probably rate this activity as most enjoyable if you were paid ______, according to ______________. a. $5; Milgram’s obedience theory b. $60; the elaboration likelihood model c. $5; cognitive dissonance theory d. $60; Asch’s informational influence 185. What did Asch find in his research on conformity in making perceptual judgments? a. Both group size and unanimity affected the degree of conformity. b. Conformity did not change much with group size. c. Increasing group size reduced conformity. d. Group size affected conformity, but unanimity did not. 186. If you minimize the imbalance between inconsistent attitudes, what should happen? a. You will resist persuasion. b. You will reduce the discomfort associated with cognitive dissonance. c. You will maintain psychological control in situations of extreme pressure. d. You will counteract self-handicapping. 187. Which statement best describes the bystander effect? a. The probability that someone will provide help decreases as the number of bystanders increases. b. A group of witnesses to an emergency will all tend to cooperate to provide help. c. Bystanders’ willingness to help depends on the seriousness of the emergency. d. The probability that someone will seek help increases as the number of bystanders increases. 188. What tends to be far more important for mate choice in individualist cultures than in collectivist cultures? a. chastity b. symmetry c. passionate love d. kindness

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 189. What is the primary focus of social psychology? a. the way individuals’ thoughts, feelings, and behaviours are influenced by others b. mental disorders associated with social problems, like pathological shyness c. the impact of self-esteem on social interaction and success d. the way that society is structured and organized, including the study of institutions 190. When the jury entered the jury room most of the jurors thought that the defendant in the case was probably innocent, but some weren’t certain. After discussing the case for four hours, all twelve jurors are now firmly convinced that the defendant did not commit the crime. Which process is the strengthening of the jurors’ opinions following group discussion consistent with? a. groupthink b. bystander effect c. group polarization d. reciprocity 191. Keira had parents who were warm and responsive while she was an infant. According to the theory developed by Hazan and Shaver, what is Keira likely to find as an adult? a. She has a wide circle of superficial friends, but very few close friends. b. Her relationships lack intimacy and trust. c. It is relatively easy for her to form close relationships with others. d. It is difficult to trust other people as much as she trusts her parents. 192. Alphonse failed his geology midterm. According to Weiner’s attributional model, if Alphonse makes an externalunstable attribution for his failure, what is he most likely to say? a. “I just can’t seem to catch on in my geology classes, and I don’t think I'll ever learn all those terms.” b. “That professor has impossible exams; if I retake the class with a different professor, I’ll probably do much better.” c. “It was just bad luck that most of the exam was on the one chapter I didn’t study.” d. “I was really tired during the exam because I had to work the late shift the night before the exam.” 193. Which social influence technique involves getting someone to commit to an attractive proposition before its hidden costs are revealed? a. reciprocity norm b. lowball technique c. highball technique d. foot-in-the-door technique 194. Among the following, who is MOST likely to see the greatest benefits from social media use? a. Jenny, who regularly interacts with new people that she has never met in person b. Rebecca, who likes to scroll through content left by her “real-world” friends c. Annie, who scrolls through content posted by influencers she has not met d. Marie, who regularly messages and responds to posts from her “real-world” friends 195. Paulo was laid off from his job over six months ago, and even though he has applied for more than 40 positions since then, he is still out of work. His landlord believes that Paulo must be lazy because, if he were truly motivated, he would have found a job by now. What is illustrated by the landlord’s explanation? a. defensive attribution b. self-serving bias c. cognitive dissonance d. confirmation bias Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 196. In which situation would it be most persuasive to use an appeal to fear? a. When the feared consequence is entirely unavoidable b. When the feared consequence is fairly mild c. When the feared consequence is highly unlikely d. When the feared consequence is avoidable by taking your advice 197. Which of the following tended to reduce conformity in Asch’s studies and obedience in Milgram’s studies? a. group cohesiveness b. centralized communication c. the presence of a dissenter d. group polarization 198. Attributing one’s success on an exam to one’s intelligence and one’s failure to the unfairness of the exam is an example of which of the following? a. actor-observer bias b. fundamental attributional error c. self-serving bias d. defensive attribution 199. Amber recently decided to take a one-week break from social media. Based on research, which of the following outcomes is most likely? a. She will experience increased life satisfaction and positive emotions. b. She will experience increased loneliness and depressive symptoms. c. She will experience anxiety and negative emotionality. d. She will not experience any difference in emotions or symptoms. 200. What is the term for denying a person equal social treatment based on his or her group membership? a. prejudice b. social scaling c. chauvinism d. discrimination 201. When is groupthink more likely to occur? a. when the group does not have a designated leader b. when the individuals in the group are individualistic c. when the group is under pressure to make a major decision d. when the group must justify its decision to other groups in the same organization 202. Julio had planned to buy a national brand computer when one of his friends suggested that he look into the computers available through a local “no-name” outlet store. Julio carefully reviewed the relevant reports about the various computer components as well as the statistics on service reliability, and decided his friend was correct. Julio bought his computer from the local “no-name” outlet store. In this case, what aspect of persuasion led to Julio’s decision? a. peripheral route to persuasion b. central route to persuasion c. self-serving route to persuasion d. cognitive dissonance model of persuasion 203. What happened to subjects in Asch’s studies of conformity? a. They indicated which of three lines matched a “standard line” in length. b. They became the recipients of painful electric shocks delivered by an experimental accomplice. c. They were ordered to deliver painful electric shocks to a stranger. d. They were ordered to give consistently wrong answers to simple questions. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 204. Vanessa is working on a practice test with her study group, and she is fairly certain that the answer to the fourth question should be option “C.” Based on the research by Asch into the influence of group size on conformity, when would Vanessa be most likely to select an option other than “C”? a. if only one other student agrees that the answer is “C” b. if all four of the other students can’t agree on a single correct answer, but all believe that option “C” is definitely wrong c. if one other student believes the correct option is actually “B” d. if all four of the other students all believe the correct option is actually “B” 205. Gender differences in mating preferences are LESS common in which of the following cultures? a. those with lower gender equality b. those with lower average socioeconomic status c. those with higher gender equality d. those with higher average socioeconomic status 206. When did Milgram find that subjects’ obedience declined dramatically? a. when group size was increased beyond seven members b. when an innocent stranger was harmed by the subjects’ actions c. when another “teacher” defied the experimenter’s order d. when the study was conducted in a run-down, dilapidated building 207. What is the term for widely held beliefs about groups of people based on their group membership? a. stereotypes b. schematizing c. cognitive structuring d. cultural direction 208. Which of the following is an example of social neuroscience? a. conducting twin studies to determine whether sociality has a strong genetic component b. evaluating the effectiveness of a drug treatment for social phobia c. using imaging technology to determine which areas of the brain are active when participants are using stereotypes d. comparing brainwaves of individuals who are high and low in extraversion 209. Under which condition do men and women place similar importance upon the physical attractiveness of a potential mate? a. for casual sex b. for marriage c. for relationships in middle-age d. for same-sex relationships 210. Which statement best describes observers’ attributional tendencies regarding success by males and females? a. Success is typically attributed to external causes for both sexes. b. Success is typically attributed to internal causes for both sexes. c. Male success is attributed to external causes and female success to internal causes. d. Male success is attributed to internal causes and female success to external causes.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 211. Which relationship style is associated with wanting to keep an emotional distance from your partner? a. anxious-ambivalent b. avoidant c. attachment anxiety d. preoccupation 212. Grace was driving on a freeway and accidentally cut dangerously in front of another car when changing lanes. She says it was because her car has a cracked window, so she couldn’t see the other car. A few days later, Grace has another car swerve in front of her and concludes that the person driving is “an idiot who doesn’t know how to drive.” Which of the following does this example illustrate? a. self-serving bias b. actor-observer bias c. fundamental attribution error d. defensive attribution 213. According to evolutionary psychologists, how do we tend to view members of outgroups? a. as role models b. as potential mates c. with deference d. with negative stereotypes 214. When we evaluate the correlations between attractiveness and actual traits, which of the following is found? a. There is no predictive relationship between attractiveness and personality traits. b. Attractive people really do have more favourable traits, on average, than unattractive people. c. The relationship between income and appearance is likely related to the tendency for attractive individuals to be somewhat more intelligent. d. Attractive individuals are more friendly and well-adjusted than unattractive people, but there are no other significant correlations. 215. Obedience is a form of compliance in which people change their behaviour in response to which of the following? a. implied pressure b. direct commands c. requests from others d. persuasive communications 216. You’ve just been awarded a full scholarship for next year, which you perceive as confirmation of your superior intellectual ability. According to Weiner’s model, what type of attribution have you made about your success? a. external-stable b. internal-stable c. external-unstable d. internal-unstable 217. Carisa was born and raised in a traditional Latin American culture; Olga was born and raised in an industrialized Western city. Based on evidence from cross-cultural studies comparing individualistic and collectivist cultures, which statement best describes Carisa in comparison to Olga? a. Carisa is less likely to experience cognitive dissonance. b. Carisa is more prone to the fundamental attribution error. c. Carisa is less prone to the fundamental attribution error. d. Carisa is more likely to experience cognitive dissonance. 218. Which theory proposes that we often infer our attitudes from observations of our own behaviour? a. balance b. learning c. self-perception d. cognitive dissonance

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 219. Daniel started watching a movie that was half over. He thought the male lead in the movie was a private detective; however, the lead character was actually a medical doctor. Later, when Daniel is discussing the movie with his friends, he remembers the character’s beat-up old car and the fact he ate a lot of fast food. His friends focus more on the character’s logical assessment of the facts involved in the case. What might these differences in memory result from? a. an actor-observer bias b. the fundamental attribution error c. the matching hypothesis d. confirmation biases 220. Why do actors and observers tend to give different explanations for the same instance of behaviour by an actor? a. Only outside observers can accurately explain actors’ behaviour. b. Situational pressures may not be readily apparent to an observer. c. Observers tend to possess more knowledge than the actors. d. Only actors themselves can accurately explain their own behaviour. 221. Akashi always seems to become involved in volatile love relationships. He constantly expects to be rejected by other people, and he is extremely jealous when he forms a relationship with someone. What would Hazan and Shaver suggest about Akashi’s infancy? a. He developed an avoidant attachment with his parents. b. He developed a secure attachment with his parents. c. He failed to develop any type of attachment with his parents. d. He developed an anxious-ambivalent attachment with his parents. 222. Maya has always preferred individual assignments to group projects, because she finds that she can accomplish more when she works on her own. Which process would best explain why Maya accomplishes less when she works as part of a group? a. social loafing b. bystander effect c. social dissonance d. social interference 223. Sarah hears from her friend that the new boss “is a real jerk.” When Sarah first meets the new boss, she acts cold and distant, crossing her arms and speaking in short, almost hostile sentences. Even though the new boss is normally quite friendly, Sarah’s behaviour causes her boss to act unsympathetic and almost aggressive herself. Which of the following does this illustrate? a. perceptual set b. self-fulfilling prophecy c. confirmation bias d. social mirroring 224. Which of the following is an example of normative influence? a. Mary dresses like her friends so that they don’t make fun of her. b. Steve follows his friend around the mall so that he doesn’t get lost. c. Ali stays quiet in a meeting because he isn’t prepared. d. Kaur plays guitar because she gets a lot of attention for it.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 225. Greg feels that sexist jokes are offensive and cause indirect harm to women. He has made this point to his family and during discussions in his psychology class, but he doesn’t say anything to his friends when they tell sexist jokes. In fact, he often laughs at the jokes, even though they make him uncomfortable. What would Ajzen say about this sort of divide between attitude and behaviour? a. It is understandable, because attitudes interact with situational norms to shape our intentions and subsequent behaviour. b. It is unusual and may reflect a personality disorder in Greg. c. It is expected, because our behaviour around our friends is often guarded and not generally sincere. d. It is rare, because an individual’s attitude usually predicts his behaviour. 226. Four friends were debating whether the Hoopsters or the Dunkers were the better basketball team. When they started their debate all four friends thought the Hoopsters were slightly better, but after an hour they have now come to the conclusion that the Hoopsters are so much better that they will probably take the division title. What is illustrated by this example? a. group polarization b. bystander effect c. groupthink d. self-serving bias 227. What types of attributions do people tend to make about other people, based on attractiveness? a. We tend to be less trusting of attractive individuals. b. We equate attractiveness with positive traits. c. We tend to perceive attractive people as nicer, but less competent. d. We often impose a behavioural penalty on attractive individuals. 228. When Jerry thought he was the only person who was assigned the job of contacting alumni for a 15-year reunion, he spent several hours on the phone each evening trying to reach members of his graduating class. When he learned that eight other people were also working on contacting the alumni, he spent only 30 minutes each night making phone calls. Which process best explains the reduction in Jerry’s effort? a. bystander effect b. social loafing c. social dissonance d. social interference 229. According to Hazan and Shaver, what type of attachment style is associated with an adult who reports that his or her love relations are volatile, jealous, and full of expected rejection? a. secure b. avoidant c. anxious-ambivalent d. tentative 230. When Jen started her job at the library, she started dressing more conservatively and also started wearing her glasses instead of contact lenses. Her friends say that she has been quieter and more serious lately. What has likely influenced the change in Jen’s behaviour and appearance? a. her perception of the social role of a librarian b. her desire to be obedient c. avoidance of social stigma d. stereotyped perceptions by her friends

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 231. Celine just heard that her neighbour, Rodney, was involved in an automobile accident. If Celine concludes that Rodney’s children must have distracted him for a few seconds, and that was the reason for the accident, what has she done? a. made the fundamental attribution error b. made an external attribution c. been influenced by an illusory correlation d. made an internal attribution 232. In which culture would you be least likely to find support for arranged marriages? a. collectivist b. Asian c. patriarchal d. individualist 233. Tally just heard that her neighbour, Rupert, was involved in an automobile accident. If Tally concludes that Rupert’s reckless driving habits caused the accident, what has she done? a. been influenced by an illusory correlation b. made a self-serving attribution c. made an internal attribution d. made an external attribution 234. Reanna is on a first date and notices that every time she starts talking, her date pulls out his phone to check it or looks around the room and just generally seems bored. She believes that his rude behaviour must be due to his awful personality and never goes on another date with him again. Which of the following is illustrated by this example? a. self-serving bias b. actor-observer bias c. fundamental attribution error d. defensive attribution 235. Deanna wore blue jeans and brought some potato salad to the company picnic. She was surprised to see that all the men were wearing suits and ties, and all the women were wearing summer dresses. The meal was served on china with crystal drinking glasses. Why was Deanna so surprised? a. The event activated the fundamental attribution error. b. The event triggered a confirmation bias. c. The event was outside her latitude of acceptance. d. The event didn’t match her social schema for picnics. 236. Which type of attitude comes to mind easily? a. highly accessible b. strong c. distinctive d. ambivalent 237. Some politicians focus on campaigns that only emphasize superficial features like attractiveness or patriotism. Other politicians try to have careful speeches full of evidence and logical arguments. What explains how both of these strategies can influence voters? a. self-perception theory b. balance model c. elaboration likelihood model d. dissonance theory 238. According to social psychologists, what is a group? a. It exists whenever two or more people are in spatial proximity to each other. b. It consists of three or more people who interact on a regular basis. c. It is a unit that controls the behaviour of its members. d. It consists of two or more people who interact and are interdependent. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 239. It is possible to alter our perception of the length of a line, the validity of an argument, or the value of a consumer product based on social influences. What unifying theme from the textbook does this highlight? a. There is value in theoretical diversity. b. Psychology is an empirical discipline. c. Our experience is highly subjective. d. Our experience is affected by cultural factors. 240. Judd notices that every time he is in a bookstore, he spends more time browsing through the new books in the nonfiction section than looking at the latest novels and best-sellers. Consequently, Judd decides he must really prefer nonfiction books. What does this example illustrate? a. fundamental attribution error b. cognitive dissonance theory c. observational learning theory d. self-perception theory 241. Irving attends a debate concerning term limits for politicians. Two of the speakers argue that all politicians should be limited to two consecutive terms in office; two of the speakers argue that there should be no term limits imposed. Based on the research into factors that influence persuasion, which speaker should Irving find most persuasive? a. the second-term politician who argued in favour of term limits b. the concerned citizen who argued in favour of term limits c. the concerned citizen who argued against term limits d. the second-term politician who argued against term limits 242. What effect does ovulation (a time of peak fertility) have on female preference for various types of males? a. Ovulating women prefer more masculine, dominant men. b. Ovulating women prefer males who like children. c. Ovulating women are more competitive with dominant men. d. Ovulating women prefer males with softer, more trustworthy-looking features. 243. When Darren’s classmate earns a “D” on an essay for her history class, Darren figures the classmate is unmotivated, and she should have spent more time working on the paper and less time socializing. The classmate is disappointed with her grade, but she knows she didn’t have much time to work on the essay because she had to work double shifts the entire week before the paper was due. What does this example illustrate? a. self-serving bias b. cognitive dissonance c. defensive attributions d. actor-observer bias 244. Samantha had not really thought much about who she would vote for in the election, but for the entire month before the election, she constantly heard messages saying: “Vote for Don Green. He’s the best person for the job.” On election day, after voting for Don Green, she told her friends that she believed he truly was the best candidate. What does this example illustrate? a. Exemplars b. source effects c. the exposure effect d. efficacy of one-sided arguments

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 Dr. Sterling Dr. Sterling is a psychology professor, and she is also part of a lobbying group that is trying to get the government to devote more money to research in the social sciences. She invites the MP for her area to her lab at the university for a tour and a demonstration of the research that she and her colleagues are developing. She’s hoping that if she can get the politician to agree to the tour, she’ll later be able to convince him to vote to increase funding when the new bill gets to Parliament. When the MP arrives at Dr. Sterling’s lab, the MP is temporarily taken aback. Dr. Sterling is rather young and attractive, wearing a very stylish suit. The politician had expected a psychology professor to be a stodgy old man with a beard and a rumpled lab coat! Along their tour, they stop to watch, through a two-way mirror, the progress of an experiment that is taking place in one of the lab rooms. A group of seven people are being asked to judge the length of a line that is shown on a computer screen. One after another, each of the people makes a judgment that is clearly wrong. The MP chuckles and thinks to himself that the people in that room are all idiots, or perhaps have vision problems. After the tour is over, Dr. Sterling takes the politician for lunch. Over lunch, she explains to him that universities need more money in order to fund cutting-edge research and make greater progress into understanding human behaviour. She also stresses that if the schools do not get an increase in funding, then Canadian students will lag behind the rest of the world in this area and our government will be a laughingstock of the developed world. The only way to prevent that from happening is to make sure that there is more funding for research. The politician leaves, and he feels that he really should vote to increase social science funding. 245. Which famous study is most similar to the one being conducted in Dr. Sterling’s lab? a. Asch’s conformity study b. Festinger’s cognitive dissonance study c. Zimbardo’s prison study d. Milgram’s obedience study 246. What happened to subjects in Milgram’s study of obedience? a. They were ordered to deliver painful electric shocks to a stranger. b. They were ordered to give consistently wrong answers to simple questions. c. They became the recipients of electric shocks delivered by an experimenter. d. They indicated which of three lines matched a “standard line” in length. 247. According to evolutionary psychologists, what has shaped the cognitive mechanisms that lead to bias in person perception? a. childhood experiences b. natural selection c. parental attitudes d. relationships with others 248. A man who believes that “women just don't make good leaders” may dwell on his female supervisor’s mistakes and quickly forget about her achievements. Which concept is illustrated by this scenario? a. defensive attribution b. bystander effect c. bias in attribution d. fundamental attribution error

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 249. Edith is making a class presentation in which she is trying to convince the other students that a proposed change in the requirements for an education degree will be beneficial in the long run. Based on the research into factors that influence persuasion, what will make Edith’s arguments most persuasive? a. presenting only the advantages associated with the proposed change b. presenting only the disadvantages associated with the proposed change c. presenting both advantages and disadvantages associated with the proposed change d. arousing cognitive dissonance among her classmates 250. Which individual would be most credible in trying to persuade you to buy stock in Company X? a. an attractive actor in an infomercial for Company X b. the CEO of Company X c. your favourite uncle d. a noted economics professor 251. Parvati is a member of a jury, and she has voted “guilty.” All the other jury members have voted “not guilty.” At this point, how would the other jury members classify Parvati? a. using a confirmation bias b. as a member of their outgroup c. as a member of their ingroup d. as outside their latitude of acceptance 252. When advertisers use extremely attractive models to demonstrate their products, what are they using to change consumers’ attitudes? a. classical conditioning b. reinforcement c. observational learning d. punishment 253. In which of the following countries would you expect to find the LOWEST rates of social loafing? a. Germany b. Spain c. Japan d. Canada 254. Tina recently lost half of the money she had put away for her retirement. If Webster concludes that Tina lost the money because the stock market took a significant downturn, what has he done? a. made an external attribution b. made the fundamental attribution error c. been influenced by an illusory correlation d. made an internal attribution 255. Which statement best reflects the illusory correlation effect? a. We see correlations between social traits that really aren’t there, because our expectations distort our memories. b. We fail to see true correlations between social traits, because our expectations distort our memories. c. We are motivated to accurately estimate the frequency with which some pattern of social traits occurs. d. We incorrectly assume that one social trait is the cause of another, simply because we have observed that they are correlated.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 Dr. Sterling Dr. Sterling is a psychology professor, and she is also part of a lobbying group that is trying to get the government to devote more money to research in the social sciences. She invites the MP for her area to her lab at the university for a tour and a demonstration of the research that she and her colleagues are developing. She’s hoping that if she can get the politician to agree to the tour, she’ll later be able to convince him to vote to increase funding when the new bill gets to Parliament. When the MP arrives at Dr. Sterling’s lab, the MP is temporarily taken aback. Dr. Sterling is rather young and attractive, wearing a very stylish suit. The politician had expected a psychology professor to be a stodgy old man with a beard and a rumpled lab coat! Along their tour, they stop to watch, through a two-way mirror, the progress of an experiment that is taking place in one of the lab rooms. A group of seven people are being asked to judge the length of a line that is shown on a computer screen. One after another, each of the people makes a judgment that is clearly wrong. The MP chuckles and thinks to himself that the people in that room are all idiots, or perhaps have vision problems. After the tour is over, Dr. Sterling takes the politician for lunch. Over lunch, she explains to him that universities need more money in order to fund cutting-edge research and make greater progress into understanding human behaviour. She also stresses that if the schools do not get an increase in funding, then Canadian students will lag behind the rest of the world in this area and our government will be a laughingstock of the developed world. The only way to prevent that from happening is to make sure that there is more funding for research. The politician leaves, and he feels that he really should vote to increase social science funding. 256. Advertisements that include phrases like “limited supply available” or “for a limited time only” are making use of which social influence technique? a. foot-in-the-door technique b. feigned scarcity c. lowball technique d. reciprocity norm 257. Which quality will make the source of persuasive communication most likely to be perceived as credible? a. redundancy b. dissimilarity to the receiver c. vested interest d. trustworthiness 258. Complete the following analogy: Prejudice is to discrimination as ________. a. attitude is to action b. behaviour is to motive c. feeling is to thinking d. thought is to perception 259. When a member of an ethnic minority is successful, what are people least likely to attribute that success to? a. ease of the task b. ability or intelligence c. luck or opportunity d. sheer effort 260. After repeatedly hearing her parents say that “all fat people are slobs,” Cindy begins to express the same belief. How was Cindy’s prejudice acquired? a. punishment b. observational learning c. reinforcement d. classical conditioning

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 261. Kara has noticed that every time she eats out on her own, she chooses a pizza place over fast-food places that serve burgers and fries. Consequently, Kara decides she must really prefer pizzas to burgers and fries. What does this example illustrate? a. self-perception theory b. observational learning theory c. cognitive dissonance theory d. fundamental attribution error 262. In Milgram’s research on obedience, what did the teacher routinely do? a. Resist the authority figure during early trials, but then obey consistently. b. Resist the authority figure. c. Refuse to continue after shock was delivered. d. Obey the authority figure. 263. What is diffusion of responsibility? a. basis for performing prosocial behaviour b. loss of identity one experiences in mob violence/aggression c. cause of halo effect in aggression d. tendency to assume that someone else will take charge 264. Based on replications of Milgram’s famous study, in which of the following countries would you expect to find the LOWEST rates of obedience? a. Germany b. Spain c. the Netherlands d. the United States 265. Which of the following is a key element in judgments of attractiveness across highly diverse cultures? a. female waist-to-hip ratio of approximately 0.5 b. novelty and large female breasts c. male body mass index and pheromones d. female lumbar curvature of approximately 45 degrees 266. Which of the following is NOT a negative outcome, backed by research, associated with social networking? a. The highlight reel of other people’s lives can trigger envy and lower self-esteem. b. Social networking sites can be addictive, leading to compulsive and maladaptive behaviour. c. Negative experiences such as bullying, harassment, and unwanted contacts can lead to depressive symptoms. d. Social media increases feelings of loneliness and isolation in most if not all users.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 Dr. Sterling Dr. Sterling is a psychology professor, and she is also part of a lobbying group that is trying to get the government to devote more money to research in the social sciences. She invites the MP for her area to her lab at the university for a tour and a demonstration of the research that she and her colleagues are developing. She’s hoping that if she can get the politician to agree to the tour, she’ll later be able to convince him to vote to increase funding when the new bill gets to Parliament. When the MP arrives at Dr. Sterling’s lab, the MP is temporarily taken aback. Dr. Sterling is rather young and attractive, wearing a very stylish suit. The politician had expected a psychology professor to be a stodgy old man with a beard and a rumpled lab coat! Along their tour, they stop to watch, through a two-way mirror, the progress of an experiment that is taking place in one of the lab rooms. A group of seven people are being asked to judge the length of a line that is shown on a computer screen. One after another, each of the people makes a judgment that is clearly wrong. The MP chuckles and thinks to himself that the people in that room are all idiots, or perhaps have vision problems. After the tour is over, Dr. Sterling takes the politician for lunch. Over lunch, she explains to him that universities need more money in order to fund cutting-edge research and make greater progress into understanding human behaviour. She also stresses that if the schools do not get an increase in funding, then Canadian students will lag behind the rest of the world in this area and our government will be a laughingstock of the developed world. The only way to prevent that from happening is to make sure that there is more funding for research. The politician leaves, and he feels that he really should vote to increase social science funding. 267. Which persuasion technique is Dr. Sterling using when she gets the MP to agree to the tour, in hopes of him agreeing to a larger request later? a. reciprocity norm b. lowball technique c. foot-in-the-door technique d. door-in-the-face technique 268. Imagine that you recently obtained a job that you applied for. According to Weiner’s attributional model, if you state, “I knew I would get the job because I just seemed to do everything right on the day of the interview,” what type of attribution have you made? a. internal-unstable attribution b. external-stable attribution c. internal-stable attribution d. external-unstable attribution 269. What is the term for harbouring negative thoughts and feelings about a person simply because of his or her membership in a particular group? a. prejudice b. discrimination c. chauvinism d. social judgment 270. What does social loafing refer to? a. the reduction of effort by individuals when they work in groups b. increases in socializing among members of larger groups c. a tendency to blame others for the group’s poor performance d. the loss of coordination among group members’ efforts

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 271. You believe that loud men tend to be insecure. According to the concept of illusory correlation, what are you likely to do? a. underestimate the frequency of insecure loud men b. falsely assume that quiet men are naturally secure c. accurately estimate the frequency of insecure loud men d. overestimate the frequency of insecure loud men 272. What is the term for your unique ideas about how a university class should be run, what a typical straight “A” student is like, and how a typical professor will act? a. attitudes b. social schemas c. prejudices d. attributions 273. According to research on gender differences in mating preferences among heterosexual couples, men are generally more interested than women in which of the following features? a. youthfulness and physical attractiveness b. physical attractiveness and intelligence c. ambition, social status, and physical attractiveness d. mutual attraction and kindness 274. Maintaining a belief in a “just world” is central to which of the following biases? a. the self-serving bias b. the actor-observer bias c. the fundamental attribution error d. defensive attributions 275. Which term is defined as yielding to real or imagined social pressure? a. cognitive dissonance b. conformity c. obedience d. groupthink 276. Kirstie’s boss asks for input about ways the company can improve its current advertising campaign. However, every time an employee offers a suggestion that differs from the plan the boss has sketched out, the suggestion is ignored completely. In this case, what will the group likely experience? a. conformity b. groupthink c. ingratiation d. social interference 277. Scott spent a great deal of time and money on becoming a member of a club, yet later discovered that the members of the club were boring. According to dissonance theory, what is Scott most likely to do? a. engage in denial and disengagement as part of his defensive attribution b. now “bad mouth” the club to his friends c. try to modify the behaviour of the current club members d. continue to tell his friends how great the club is 278. According to Hazan and Shaver’s model of infant attachment and romantic love, adults with which attachment style are most likely to report more intense emotional highs and lows in their romantic relationships? a. anxious-ambivalent b. secure c. insecure d. avoidant

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 279. Gabriela likes classical music. But at school all the cool kids listen to a new band called Twin Lizards. So, when someone asks what she listens to, she says, “Twin Lizards,” and she doesn’t mention classical music. In psychological terms, which of the following is this an example of? a. obedience b. normative influence c. groupthink d. informational social influence 280. Skye scored 100 percent on her statistics midterm. According to Weiner’s attributional model, if Skye makes an internal-stable attribution for her success, what is she most likely to say? a. “The professor makes the whole course so easy to understand that it is virtually impossible to do poorly in the class.” b. “I was calm and relaxed the day of the exam because I was able to get a good night’s sleep the night before the exam.” c. “It was just good luck that most of the exam was on the material I had time to study.” d. “I have always been good at statistics; I guess I just have a natural ability in that area.” 281. Which bias are Japanese subjects less likely to engage in than U.S. subjects? a. self-effacing bias b. self-serving bias c. fundamental attribution error d. both B and C 282. When you fail a test, which attribution is more likely to be made by your roommate about your grade? a. The test was unfair. b. Most of the class also failed the test. c. The teacher is ineffective. d. You didn’t study enough. 283. What process is called “person perception”? a. predicting the behaviour of others b. monitoring the impressions you make on other people c. developing an implicit personality theory d. forming impressions of others 284. What is the term for putting group goals ahead of personal goals and defining one’s identity in terms of the groups one belongs to? a. attributionism b. collectivism c. functionalism d. individualism 285. Martha wins three games of backgammon in a row, even though she has never played before. If Martha assumes she has “beginner's luck,” what type of attribution has she made about her success? a. internal-unstable b. external-unstable c. external-stable d. internal-stable

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. c 21. a 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. c 26. a

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. d 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. b 48. d 49. b 50. c 51. b 52. c 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 55. a 56. d 57. c 58. a 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. b 65. b 66. a 67. a 68. b 69. d 70. d 71. c 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. d 76. d 77. b 78. a 79. a 80. b 81. d 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 83. b 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. d 88. a 89. a 90. c 91. c 92. d 93. d 94. b 95. c 96. a 97. b 98. b 99. c 100. d 101. b 102. b 103. a 104. c 105. b 106. a 107. d 108. b 109. b 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 111. b 112. c 113. d 114. b 115. c 116. b 117. a 118. b 119. d 120. b 121. c 122. a 123. b 124. a 125. a 126. d 127. b 128. b 129. a 130. d 131. a 132. d 133. c 134. b 135. c 136. d 137. c

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 138. c 139. d 140. c 141. c 142. c 143. d 144. c 145. d 146. d 147. b 148. c 149. a 150. c 151. c 152. a 153. a 154. a 155. a 156. b 157. d 158. c 159. a 160. b 161. b 162. b 163. d 164. b 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 166. a 167. a 168. b 169. a 170. b 171. c 172. c 173. b 174. b 175. b 176. c 177. c 178. c 179. d 180. d 181. c 182. c 183. c 184. c 185. a 186. b 187. a 188. c 189. a 190. c 191. c 192. c 193. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 194. d 195. a 196. d 197. c 198. c 199. a 200. d 201. c 202. b 203. a 204. d 205. c 206. c 207. a 208. c 209. a 210. d 211. b 212. b 213. d 214. a 215. b 216. b 217. c 218. c 219. d 220. b 221. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 222. a 223. b 224. a 225. a 226. a 227. b 228. b 229. c 230. a 231. b 232. d 233. c 234. c 235. d 236. a 237. c 238. d 239. c 240. d 241. a 242. a 243. d 244. c 245. a 246. a 247. b 248. c

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 249. c 250. d 251. b 252. a 253. c 254. a 255. a 256. b 257. d 258. a 259. b 260. b 261. a 262. d 263. d 264. d 265. d 266. d 267. c 268. a 269. a 270. a 271. d 272. b 273. a 274. d 275. b 276. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol 1 277. d 278. a 279. b 280. d 281. d 282. d 283. d 284. b 285. b

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Larry thinks poorly of a particular political party. According to a social psychologist, what is the term for Larry’s thoughts? a. opinion b. preference c. schema d. attitude 2. When does conformity occur? a. when people change their behaviour as a result of receiving a persuasive argument b. when people change their behaviour as a result of observational learning c. when people follow direct commands, usually from someone in a position of authority d. when people yield to real or imagined social pressure 3. Which statement does NOT accurately describe adults who are high in attachment anxiety? a. Their dating success is often undermined by their awkward behaviours. b. They tend to fear rejection. c. They are no less successful in dating than adults low in attachment anxiety. d. They are more likely to experience rejection. 4. What is occurring when we see what we expect to see in any given situation or with respect to our impressions when we first meet someone? a. fundamental attribution error b. defensive attribution c. self-fulfilling prophecy d. self-serving bias 5. According to social psychologists, what is attribution? a. widely held beliefs that people have certain characteristics because of their membership in a particular group b. inferences that people draw about the causes of their own behaviour and the behaviour of others c. the process of forming impressions of others d. positive feelings toward another person 6. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary features of a group? a. eligibility requirements b. a communication structure c. a power structure d. shared norms 7. Which of the following groups in Canada is the most common target for racially oriented hate crimes? a. Black Canadians b. Jewish Canadians c. Asian Canadians d. Indigenous Peoples 8. Which statement does NOT accurately describe cultural variations regarding marriage relationships? a. People from collectivist societies say that romantic love is very important in marriage. b. Arranged marriages are common in collectivist societies. c. Cultures vary in the emphasis placed on passionate love. d. Cultures are often similar in what traits people look for in a potential mate.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 9. Why might Milgram’s estimates of obedience in American samples actually underestimate the occurrence of obedience? a. Conformity is not an admired trait or behaviour in American culture. b. Resistance to conformity is typically punished in American culture. c. Conformity is found only in individualistic cultures. d. Resistance to conformity is more valued in non-Western cultures. 10. Trevor is working in a social neuroscience lab and is studying stereotypes and prejudice. Which study is he likely to be engaged in? a. using fMRI to determine whether the amygdala is involved in implicit attitudes b. comparing social behaviours in humans to social behaviours in other species c. determining reaction times to neutral stimuli, using EEG and galvanic skin response d. surveying various researchers in psychology to determine their attitudes about neuroscience 11. What is person perception? a. inferences that people draw about the causes of their own behaviour and the behaviour of others b. positive feelings toward another person c. the process of forming impressions of others d. widely held beliefs that people have certain characteristics because of their membership in a particular group 12. You see on the news that a local high school athlete just received a university scholarship to play basketball, while none of his teammates received scholarships. If you believe he received a scholarship due to his outstanding natural ability, what kind of attribution are you making? a. external-unstable b. internal-stable c. internal-unstable d. external-stable 13. Mark Zanna and colleagues studied self-fulfilling prophecy and the impact of immediate and nonimmediate styles on job interviewees. What did they find regarding the style of interaction and performance? a. Black males tended to interview Black applicants with an immediate style. b. Applicants who were interviewed with a nonimmediate style tended to be anxious and perform less well. c. White males tended to interview Black applicants with an immediate style. d. There was no relationship between style of interaction and performance. 14. Group discussion strengthens a group’s dominant point of view and produces a shift toward a more extreme decision in that direction. What is this trend called? a. group cohesiveness b. group conformity c. groupthink d. group polarization

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 15. Imagine your psychology professor described the procedure of Milgram’s study without discussing the term “obedience” or Milgram’s interpretation of his results. What would most students predict that they would have done if they were subjects in the study? a. refuse to participate in the study b. get more correct answers than the typical subject c. be less likely to conform d. administer fewer shocks than the typical subject 16. Which statement does NOT accurately describe prejudice and stereotypes? a. Stereotypes and prejudice are highly resistant to change. b. Stereotypes and prejudice often persist because person perception is objective. c. Behaviour that supports stereotypes and prejudice tends to be better recalled because memory is imperfect. d. Stereotypes and prejudice are often deeply rooted and activated automatically. 17. If you are going to attempt to use fear to persuade someone, which characteristic of the feared consequence should you emphasize? a. It is associated with either physical or mental illness. b. It is essentially unavoidable. c. It is unpredictable. d. It is avoidable if the target audience follows your advice. 18. What is demonstrated by an individual who has a tendency to blame victims for their misfortune, so that the individual feels less likely to be victimized in a similar way? a. a rationalization attribution b. the self-serving bias c. the self-effacing bias d. a defensive attribution 19. In persuasion, what is the term for the person who sends or conveys the communication? a. medium b. transmitter c. source d. spokesperson 20. Which statement does NOT accurately describe stereotypes? a. Stereotypes are frequently broad overgeneralizations. b. All social schemas are stereotypes. c. Stereotyping is a normal cognitive process. d. Common stereotypes are based on gender, ethnicity, and occupation. 21. A car salesperson persuades you to come back into his office to look at a fact sheet that describes a car you expressed interest in. Which technique is he using? a. foot-in-the-door technique b. reciprocity norm c. lowball technique d. door-in-the-face technique

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 22. A group of six university students observe a fellow student stumble and fall down a flight of stairs. No one goes to check if the student needs help. Which statement best illustrates this diffusion of responsibility? a. “I didn’t want to embarrass the student who fell by making a big deal about it.” b. “I was pretty far away when it happened.” c. “I don’t know first aid.” d. “I thought someone else would help.” 23. According to the perspective that views romantic love as attachment, which type of attachment predicts the pattern or form of your intimate relationships in adulthood? a. attachment to caregivers in infancy b. attachment to the first romantic partner in adolescence c. attachment to peers in childhood d. attachment to role models in childhood 24. Because of the fundamental attribution error, if you observe a construction worker relaxing under a tree, what would you be most likely to conclude about that worker? a. He is taking a break because it is hot and humid today. b. He was fired. c. He is lazy. d. He is taking his scheduled work break. 25. One of your friends brings her cousin Eric to a party. Eric is very attractive. Which traits are you likely to attribute to Eric? a. arrogant and competent or smart b. conceited and incompetent or dumb c. sexy and incompetent or dumb d. friendly and competent or smart 26. Which of the following couples is likely to be most happy? a. Tim and Tina, who have very different interests and skills b. Dawn and Dan, who are the same age c. Lesley and Lee, who are both not very attractive d. Sam, who is average looking, and Sally, who is very attractive 27. Mr. West is writing a persuasive speech to convince people that he is the best candidate for an upcoming election. If he were to use the mere exposure effect, which of the following would he include in his speech? a. He would say “West is best” repeatedly. b. He would create a one-sided argument. c. He would create a two-sided argument. d. He would attack his opponent. 28. A friend asks you if you will be his or her date for the wedding of a mutual friend. Only after you agree does your friend mention that you will have to buy new formal wear for the wedding. Which technique did your friend use? a. reciprocity norm b. highball technique c. lowball technique d. foot-in-the-door technique

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 29. Which of the following is NOT a factor associated with an increased tendency of a group to develop groupthink? a. The group has a relatively weak leader who can be easily influenced by others. b. The group is highly cohesive. c. The group is under pressure to make a major decision quickly. d. The group works in isolation. 30. Which of the following could be defined as a “group”? a. twenty-five individuals who are travelling on the same bus b. all members of a university soccer team c. all Canadian females d. registered members of the Liberal party 31. Because of informational influence, Sandy placed her napkin on her lap before she began to eat dinner. Which event likely preceded Sandy’s action? a. She noticed someone spill food. b. She was told to place her napkin on her lap. c. She observed others place napkins on their laps. d. She remembered a previous occasion when she spilled food. 32. Nicole tends to attribute her friends’ behaviour to their personalities, rather than to the situations that they are in. What type of error does Nicole tend to make? a. the fundamental attribution error b. the self-effacing error c. the signal detection error d. the self-serving error 33. In Solomon Asch’s “line study,” what were participants likely to do when confronted with a group opinion that differed from their own? a. conform b. intellectualize c. obey d. resist 34. In Festinger and Carlsmith’s classic study of cognitive dissonance, which group of subjects experienced both a high level of cognitive dissonance and exhibited more attitude change? a. subjects who were offered $20 to “lie” b. subjects who were offered $1 to “lie” c. subjects who were not paid d. subjects who were not monitored 35. A used-car salesperson is trying to persuade a customer to buy a specific car because “It is a fine car at a great price.” Which characteristic related to the effectiveness of persuasion will be most helpful? a. The salesperson has many years of experience. b. The salesperson is very friendly. c. The salesperson knows comparative information concerning other cars. d. The salesperson is perceived as trustworthy.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 36. Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to inconsistencies between attitudes and behaviour? a. Often, attitudes are measured in general ways while the predicted behaviours are usually specific. b. People tend to be deceptive in describing their attitudes and honest in describing their behaviour. c. Situational constraints influence behaviour. d. Many behaviours occur spontaneously and are not products of thoughtful deliberation. 37. If you believe that you will get a good grade on this test because you studied hard this time, what sort of attribution have you made? a. internal-stable b. internal-unstable c. external-stable d. external-unstable 38. What is influenced by the expertise and trustworthiness of the source of a persuasive communication? a. credibility b. likability c. honesty d. message 39. According to the self-serving bias, when do people tend to make external attributions? a. when they are confident b. when they are learning a new task c. when they fail d. when they succeed 40. Solomon Asch studied social behaviour using a series of experiments that asked participants to indicate the length of lines. What topic was being studied in these experiments? a. obedience b. conformity c. group productivity d. the bystander effect 41. Which of the following trends is the risky shift phenomenon most closely associated with? a. group polarization b. groupthink c. group conformity d. group cohesiveness 42. What often results in individuals in large groups being less productive than individuals in small groups? a. cognitive dissonance b. bystander effects c. reduced efficiency and effort d. group polarization 43. René is very involved in his community and has a strong attitude concerning the mayor of his city. Which of the following statements illustrates the affective component of René’s attitude concerning the mayor? a. He believes the mayor has many important issues to deal with in the upcoming year. b. He volunteers to make phone calls on election day for the mayor’s campaign. c. He feels proud when the mayor represents his city at the provincial capital. d. He believes the mayor has initiated some excellent programs. 44. Which of the following best exemplifies interpersonal attraction? a. Birds of a feather flock together. b. Opposites attract. c. He who hesitates is lost. d. To know me is to love me.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 45. Stella and André have been a couple for several years. Their love is characterized by warm feelings and affection. They enjoy spending time together and describe themselves as lovers and friends. Which term best describes Stella and André’s love? a. attached love b. companionate love c. mature love d. passionate love 46. Members of a group that is a target of prejudice are usually perceived as members of which type of group? a. a cohesive group b. a polarized group c. an outgroup d. an ingroup 47. If Mike and Fred both had car accidents, which of the following represents how Mike would explain both accidents based on the fundamental attribution error and actor-observer bias? a. Mike’s accident had an external cause and Fred’s had an internal cause. b. Mike’s accident had an internal cause and Fred’s had an external cause. c. Both accidents had external causes. d. Both accidents had internal causes. 48. What was demonstrated in Richard LaPiere’s study from the 1930s concerning whether restaurants would serve a Chinese couple? a. Attitudes predicted behaviour very well. b. Attitudes did not predict behaviour very well. c. Attitudes predicted behaviour and behaviour predicted attitudes. d. While attitudes did predict behaviour, behaviour did not predict attitudes. 49. Ted has a strong positive attitude about his university. Which statement illustrates the behavioural component of his attitude? a. He volunteers his time to the university as a student ambassador. b. He believes that his university has higher standards than other schools. c. He feels a sense of pride associated with being a student at his university. d. He dislikes the sports teams associated with other universities. 50. Which of the following groups is the most common target in Canada for cybercrime? a. Muslim Canadians b. Jewish Canadians c. the LGBTQ community d. Black Canadians 51. Emily spent several hours completing a long application to join an honour society at her university. If she is accepted for membership, the initiation fee will be $100. Emily wonders how she could manage to pay the $100 out of her already overextended budget. Emily is accepted into the honour society and pays the initiation fee. What will Emily likely to do afterward? a. be relatively neutral about the honour society b. quit the honour society almost immediately c. feel very positive about being a member of the society d. regret that she joined the honour society

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 52. Shane believes that Tammy failed the midterm because she couldn’t grasp the course material. What is most clearly illustrated by Shane’s belief? a. an internal attribution b. an external attribution c. an unstable attribution d. a stable attribution 53. How can the Implicit Attitude Test (IAT) be used to assess implicit prejudice against Black people? a. Participants provide a self-report regarding their implicit attitudes b. Participants look at Black faces and White faces and rate them on a scale of 1 to 10. c. Black faces and White faces are presented with either positive or negative words and response times are measured. d. Black faces and White faces are presented and participants describe each face and rate it as either positive or negative. 54. A person experiences an unpleasant state of tension when related attitudes or beliefs are inconsistent or contradict each other. Which of the following explains this discomfort? a. dissonance theory b. the elaboration likelihood model c. the persuasion model d. observational learning 55. Which of the following is associated with an immediate style of interviewing for a job? a. more anxiety on the part of the applicant b. good eye contact, open body language, and better performance by the applicant c. more anxiety on the part of the interviewer d. poor eye contact, closed body language, and poorer performance by the applicant 56. In the Stanford Prison Experiment, what did Phillip Zimbardo suggest led some people to become abusive guards? a. obedience to authority b. a self-fulfilling prophecy c. a stereotype d. adopting a social role 57. While at the dentist, six-year-old Alex listens as his mom tells the dentist she flosses her teeth daily. Alex notices that the dentist complimented his mom on her behaviour. Because of this brief encounter, which of the following would predict that Alex will develop a favourable attitude toward flossing? a. operant conditioning b. observational learning c. classical conditioning d. appetitive conditioning 58. Which statement reflects a clear internal attribution? a. He went along with the crowd. b. He did what he felt was right. c. He did what he had to do. d. Something got the best of him.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 59. As Serena enters a homeless shelter seeking help, she looks around at the other people who are staying there and thinks, “I don’t want to be here. These people are lazy and dangerous.” Even though Serena requires the assistance of the shelter, she doesn’t see herself as being similar to the other people who are in the same situation. Which of the following is this consistent with? a. internal, stable attributions for behaviour b. actor-observer bias c. ingroup versus outgroup distinctions d. external, unstable attributions for behaviour 60. Which type of argument is perceived as most credible? a. one-sided argument b. emotion-calming argument c. two-sided argument d. fear-arousing argument 61. In evolutionary theory, what is the term for a group that we do not belong to or identify with? a. subculture b. affiliative c. outgroup d. maladapted group 62. Yvonne believes that people from a particular ethnic group are not trustworthy. In her job as manager of a large store, however, Yvonne has hired many people from that ethnic group and does not treat them any differently from any other employees. What does Yvonne demonstrate? a. ingroup bias and discrimination b. prejudice but not discrimination c. ethnocentrism but not prejudice d. discrimination but not prejudice 63. Milgram’s research was criticized as being flawed because subjects in a psychology experiment generally expect to obey the requests of the researcher. Thus, critics said the results could not be generalized to the real world. How did Milgram respond to this criticism? a. He admitted his procedure was flawed and his results were not relevant to the real world. b. He argued that his research could be generalized to the real world because, in the real world, people also generally expect to obey the requests of others in positions of authority. c. He admitted his procedure was flawed, but he still believed his results were relevant to the real world. d. He argued that his research could be generalized to the real world since he employed a dependent variable. 64. Which of the following research findings on the Implicit Attitude Test (IAT) is TRUE? a. Implicit prejudice has not been observed against people who are obese or disabled. b. Eighty percent of respondents under 40 years of age show implicit prejudice against the elderly. c. Seventy-five percent of White respondents show implicit prejudice against Black people. d. Seventy-five percent of Black respondents show implicit prejudice against White people. 65. Mike was in a car accident. According to the actor-observer bias, who is most likely to attribute the accident to external causes? a. Mike b. a police officer who came to the scene c. someone else who was in the car with Mike d. someone who has known Mike a long time Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 66. If Maurice has a prejudice involving a group of people, which statement would be most accurate? a. Maurice discriminates against that group. b. Maurice has not had direct contact with individuals from that group. c. Maurice has had direct contact with individuals from that group. d. Maurice has a stereotype involving that group. 67. According to dissonance theory, how do people usually reduce dissonance? a. by changing their perceptions b. by changing their emotions c. by changing their cognitions d. by changing their behaviours 68. Why is the study of implicit attitudes a central issue in the study of prejudice? a. because today people are aware that they are not supposed to discriminate, so their implicit bias does not impact their behaviour b. because it is something to be ashamed of c. because today people are aware that they are not supposed to discriminate, yet their implicit bias still impacts their behaviour d. because it is the politically correct thing to do 69. Which of the following was experienced by the “typical” subject in Milgram’s shock study? a. considerable psychological distress b. confusion about the nature of the instructions c. intense physical pain d. cognitive dissonance 70. Which of the following psychological processes impacts our perceptions and eventual judgments of others? a. fundamental attribution error b. social desirability bias c. self-fulfilling prophecy d. actor-observer effect 71. In which situation is it most likely that a decision will be made to spend more money than budget guidelines suggest to hire “great entertainment” for an end-of-the-year banquet for an organization? a. when it is a group decision and group members are leaning toward hiring great entertainment b. when it is a group decision and group members are leaning toward staying within the budget c. when it is an individual decision by someone who is leaning toward staying within the budget d. when it is an individual decision by someone who is leaning toward hiring great entertainment 72. Which of the following research findings support the notion that implicit associations with a social group may result in automatic emotional responses when encountering members of that group? a. fMRI studies showing increased activation of the hypothalamus when White people view Black faces b. the deactivation of the parasympathetic nervous system in studies on prejudice c. implicit prejudice against Black people as evidenced by genetic sequencing studies d. fMRI studies showing increased amygdala activation in White people who view Black faces

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 73. According to Sternberg, which component of love peaks early in a relationship and then decreases? a. passion b. commitment c. playfulness d. intimacy 74. Which component of attitudes is most directly associated with the application of classical conditioning principles? a. perceptual component b. affective component c. negative component d. cognitive component 75. Tom believes that college football players are “dumb jocks.” In spite of this stereotype being untrue, when Tom meets any football players, he interacts with them in a way that doesn’t allow the football players to display their intelligence. What does this example illustrate? a. discrimination b. defensive attribution c. self-fulfilling prophecy d. self-serving bias 76. Who is Celissa Michel? a. a Black farmworker who was subject to segregation, racism, and neglect in Quebec in 2005 b. the first Black male to be subject to forced sterilization in Canada c. an immigrant from France who was forced to learn English d. a Catholic farm worker who was subject to hate crimes based on his Catholic religion 77. What was the topic of Stanley Milgram’s famous “shock” studies? a. the bystander effect b. obedience c. conformity d. group polarization 78. The weekend before the local election, you volunteer to visit every house in a three-block area of town and talk to the residents about voting for your candidate. Which of the following individuals would you be least likely to persuade? a. someone who was undecided and did not expect you to visit b. someone who was undecided and expected you to visit c. someone who was planning to vote for another candidate and expected you to visit d. someone who was planning to vote for another candidate and did not expect you to visit 79. What are the four basic elements involved in persuasion? a. credibility, expertise, trustworthiness, likeability b. force, suggestion, coercion, demonstration c. conformity, obedience, suggestibility, reception d. message, channel, source, receiver 80. You are conducting studies on conformity in two countries that have very different levels of collectivism. What pattern do you expect in your results? a. Greater conformity will be demonstrated in the individualistic sample. b. There will be essentially no conformity demonstrated in the individualistic sample. c. There will be essentially no conformity demonstrated in the collectivist sample. d. Greater conformity will be demonstrated in the collectivist sample. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 81. When would a typical subject in Solomon Asch’s conformity study be least likely to exhibit conformity? a. when other group members selected the same correct choice b. when all but one of the other group members selected the incorrect choice c. when other group members selected the same incorrect choice d. when the group size was larger than five 82. Which type of influence operates when people conform to social norms for fear of negative social consequences? a. negative influence b. defensive influence c. normative influence d. informational influence 83. According to research on the elaboration likelihood model of attitude change, which route leads to more enduring attitude change and better predicts future behaviour? a. peripheral route b. central route c. objective route d. subjective route 84. What is most likely to be a factor that contributes to groupthink? a. conformity b. social loafing c. the bystander effect d. obedience 85. Which branch of psychology is concerned with the way individuals’ thoughts, feelings, and behaviours are influenced by others? a. social psychology b. individual psychology c. abnormal psychology d. cultural psychology 86. When soft-drink companies provide money to charity events in exchange for having the company logo displayed all over the event, which persuasive tactic is being used? a. validity effect b. mere exposure effect c. forewarning d. enhancing credibility 87. Which of the following is NOT a factor that directly influences person perception? a. social schemas b. physical appearance c. conformity d. stereotypes 88. Which of the following groups are the most common targets in Canada for hate crimes based on religion? a. Muslim and Jewish Canadians b. Jehovah Witnesses and Mormons c. Catholic and Protestant Christian Canadians d. Buddhist and Hindu Canadians 89. Why do evolutionary psychologists propose to explain the biases associated with person perception? a. Physical attractiveness was associated primarily with friends and not foes. b. There was an ancestral need to make rapid judgments about outgroup members. c. Physical attractiveness was associated with the youthfulness of males. d. There was an ancestral need to carefully evaluate the behaviour of others. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 90. What is the name of a test frequently used to measure implicit attitudes that reflect prejudice? a. Implicit Language Test (ILT) b. Implicit Attitudes Test (IAT) c. Implicit Association Test (IAT) d. Greenwald Association Test (GAT) 91. Denise genuinely believes that she is very egalitarian and that she treats people equally. When she interacts with people who dress shabbily, however, she doesn’t smile very much and she avoids eye contact with them. What is illustrated by Denise’s behaviour around shabbily dressed people? a. an expectancy b. an implicit attitude c. a self-fulfilling prophecy d. a stereotype 92. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be the basis for a hate crime in Canada in terms of the victim? a. religion b. ethnicity c. sexual orientation d. socioeconomic status 93. In persuasion, what is the term for the information that is transmitted? a. medium b. message c. sales pitch d. argument 94. After travelling across Canada for several months and interacting with a wide variety of people, Sven tells his friends back home in Sweden that all Canadians are incredibly polite. He also says that he’s positive that any of the rude people he met were not Canadians. What does this example illustrate? a. a logical assumption b. an illusory correlation c. a defensive attribution d. self-serving bias 95. Simone just joined a political organization and she has noticed that the members don’t seem to question any of the organization’s policies. It seems as if they are more concerned with being in agreement than with thinking carefully about what the best decision is. Which trend does this example illustrate? a. group cohesiveness b. group polarization c. social loafing d. groupthink 96. What did the classic study by Mark Zanna (1974) on self-fulfilling prophecy reveal about how White undergraduate males reacted when interviewing job applicants? a. They sat closer to Black applicants than to White applicants. b. They made more speech errors with White applicants than with Black applicants. c. They maintained better eye contact with Black applicants. d. They ended the interview faster with Black applicants. 97. Which statement does NOT accurately describe cultural variations in attribution? a. The self-serving bias may be more prevalent in Western societies. b. People from collectivist societies appear to be more likely to make the fundamental attribution error. c. People from collectivist societies are more likely to assume behaviour reflects conformity to group norms. d. Japanese individuals tend to exhibit a self-effacing bias.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 98. According to the elaboration likelihood model of attitude change, what is it called when people ponder the content and logic of persuasive messages? a. peripheral route b. objective route c. central route d. subjective route 99. In which studies were subjects instructed to indicate which of three lines matched a “standard line” in length? a. Solomon Asch’s conformity studies b. Daryl Bem’s dissonance studies c. Philip Zimbardo’s prison studies d. Stanley Milgram’s obedience studies 100. What is predicted by research on the bystander effect about the probability of receiving needed help? a. It is not related to group size. b. It increases as group size increases. c. It decreases as group size decreases. d. It decreases as group size increases. 101. The results of research concerning conformity, obedience, and the bystander effect illustrate a unifying theme in psychology. According to this unifying theme, what should psychology do to attempt to understand these kinds of behaviours? a. reflect a sociohistorical context b. be empirical c. be subjective d. be theoretically diverse 102. Which of the following is NOT one of the major components of an attitude? a. cognitive component b. affective component c. behavioural component d. perceptual component 103. Which term is defined as widely held beliefs that people have certain characteristics because of their membership in a particular group? a. person perception b. social schemas c. stereotypes d. prejudice 104. According to the fundamental attribution error, what explanation would you likely use when an acquaintance fails an exam? a. bias of the professor b. lack of intelligence c. difficulty of the exam d. complexity of the subject matter 105. Tammy believes that Shane did well on the midterm because the professor really liked Shane’s ideas. Which of the following is most clearly illustrated by Tammy’s belief? a. an external attribution b. an unstable attribution c. an internal attribution d. a stable attribution 106. What occurs when members of a cohesive group emphasize concurrence or agreement at the expense of critical thinking in arriving at a decision? a. group polarization b. social loafing c. the bystander effect d. groupthink

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 107. What is the term for attitudes which are covert and expressed through subtle automatic responses over which we have little conscious control? a. counter-attentional b. implicit c. explicit d. attentional 108. Which term would you use for the clusters of ideas you associate with categories like “students,” “professors,” “servers,” or “politicians”? a. stereotypes b. prejudice c. person perception d. social schemas 109. If many Americans were to believe that all Canadians play hockey, what would that belief be called? a. person perception b. an attribution c. a stereotype d. a logical assumption 110. Which of the following were two key factors that Solomon Asch found influenced conformity? a. the sex of group members and task difficulty b. group size and task difficulty c. group size and group unanimity d. the sex of group members and group unanimity 111. Kristyn is a graduate student in psychology and proposes to replicate Milgram’s exact procedure to study whether men or women are more likely to exhibit obedience. What will her faculty advisor most likely tell her about her proposal? a. Modern ethical guidelines would not likely permit an exact replication. b. People today are more likely to simply refuse to participate in the study at all. c. It is an excellent choice for a research project. d. People today are too sophisticated to believe the deception Milgram used. 112. Which of the following proposes that males and females of approximately equal physical attractiveness will select each other as partners? a. similarity hypothesis b. matching hypothesis c. reciprocity effect d. least-common-denominator effect 113. When the behaviour of all subjects was combined, in what percentage of trials did subjects in Solomon Asch’s study exhibit conformity? a. 5–10 percent b. 15–20 percent c. 20–30 percent d. 35–40 percent 114. Across cultures, what key element is associated with physical attractiveness? a. facial symmetry b. personality c. height d. body weight

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 115. Under what conditions do women value their partner’s physical attractiveness as much as men do? a. in homosexual relationships b. when they are not ovulating c. when they are in collectivist cultures d. when they are choosing a partner for casual sex 116. Which type of love is characterized by a couple’s complete absorption in one another and includes strong emotions and tender sexual feelings? a. committed love b. intimate love c. companionate love d. passionate love 117. What is believed of people who are physically attractive, compared to less attractive people? a. They are friendlier, well adjusted, and competent. b. They are more conceited, insecure, and less competent. c. They are more sociable, poised, and less competent. d. They are more arrogant, insecure, and competent. 118. Which of the following is even more likely to occur than usual when people observe the behaviour of an individual who is a member of a group that is a target of prejudice? a. external attributions b. fundamental attribution error c. self-serving bias d. cognitive dissonance 119. Which concept best explains the development of prejudicial attitudes in young children? a. ethnocentrism b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. observational learning 120. Which term is defined as a reduction in effort by individuals when they work in groups as compared to when they work by themselves? a. group conformity b. group polarization c. social loafing d. the bystander effect 121. According to Daryl Bem’s self-perception theory, what is the relationship between attitudes and behaviour? a. People develop cognitive dissonance when exhibiting counter-attitudinal behaviour. b. People infer their attitudes from their behaviour. c. People reduce cognitive dissonance when exhibiting counter-attitudinal behaviour. d. People change their behaviour to reflect their attitudes. 122. According to the elaboration likelihood model of attitude change, what is it called when persuasion depends on factors such as the attractiveness and credibility of the source or emotional responses by the receiver? a. objective route b. peripheral route c. central route d. subjective route

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 123. Philippe is a subject in an experiment designed to imitate cheering at an athletic event and is asked to make as much noise as he can by cheering and clapping. In which situation would Philippe likely make the least noise? a. if he actually is the only person making noise b. if he is from a collectivist culture c. if he is in a group of people all making noise at the same time d. if he believes he is the only person making noise 124. Imagine a popular star baseball player with many endorsement contracts for sports drinks, athletic apparel, and personal care products is arrested for drinking and driving. Which of the following consequences might cause companies to cancel his endorsement contracts? a. His likability would decrease. b. His baseball performance would decline. c. His stress levels would increase. d. His expertise would be questioned. 125. Four students are all opposed to the death penalty. Which student will be most likely to change his attitude about the death penalty? a. Dane, who writes a brief pro-death penalty piece for a client for grades b. Bryce, who writes a brief anti-death penalty piece for a client for grades c. Ammon, who writes a brief anti-death penalty piece as an ungraded class exercise d. Collin, who writes a brief pro-death penalty piece as an ungraded class exercise 126. Which of the following is a factor that leads to the increased likelihood of social loafing occurring? a. if the group is cohesive b. if individuals believe that excellent group performance will lead to a valued outcome c. if the group is large d. if individuals believe that individual performance is crucial to group performance 127. Jane’s eight-year-old son brought a note home from school stating that he was involved in a fight at recess. Which statement is an example of an external attribution that Jane might make to explain her son’s behaviour? a. “The other child probably started the fight and my son was protecting himself.” b. “He always gets in fights.” c. “He probably couldn’t help himself since he doesn’t have much self-control.” d. “He’s just like his father.” 128. Which of the following involves getting someone to commit to a seemingly attractive proposition before its hidden costs are revealed? a. highball technique b. door-in-the-face technique c. lowball technique d. foot-in-the-door technique 129. Which type of attachment is exhibited by adults who experience love relationships that are volatile and marked by jealousy, and reflect expectations of rejection? a. immature attachment b. secure attachment c. avoidant attachment d. anxious-ambivalent attachment

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 130. Leslie tends to feel very insecure in her relationships, and as a result is very clingy and demanding. Which type of attachment style does this reflect? a. manipulative attachment b. secure attachment c. avoidant attachment d. anxious-ambivalent attachment 131. What does a person demonstrate when she has a tendency to attribute her success to her skills and her failure to bad luck? a. defensive attribution b. the fundamental attribution bias c. the self-effacing bias d. the self-serving bias 132. Kerry says that anyone who loses money on an Internet scam must be an idiot. He knows that he would never be taken advantage of like that. Which of the following is best illustrated by Kerry’s belief? a. the self-serving bias b. the fundamental attribution error c. defensive attribution d. offensive attribution 133. According to evolutionary psychologists, what is the basis for sex differences in attitudes toward relationships? a. Men and women can’t ever truly understand each other, and make inaccurate assumptions. b. Social status and resource availability will dictate which sex has “power” in relationships. c. Social roles differ for males and females, and this leads to different expectations. d. Males and females differ in terms of how much each sex must invest in offspring. 134. Although physical attractiveness strongly influences interpersonal attraction, many individuals of average and below-average attractiveness are involved in long-term relationships. What hypothesis explains this apparent paradox? a. companionate love hypothesis b. matching hypothesis c. similarity hypothesis d. least-common-denominator hypothesis 135. In which studies were subjects instructed to administer increasingly strong electric shocks to another subject when the other subject made a mistake? a. Philip Zimbardo’s prison studies b. Stanley Milgram’s obedience studies c. Solomon Asch’s conformity studies d. Daryl Bem’s dissonance studies 136. Which variation of Milgram’s experimental procedure resulted in a dramatic decrease in obedience? a. when the participant was teamed with two “accomplice” teachers b. when the study was conducted by “Yale University” c. when the study was conducted by “Research Associates of Bridgeport” d. when one of two “accomplice” teachers defied the experimenter 137. When does obedience occur? a. when people change their behaviour because of receiving a persuasive argument b. when people yield to real or imagined social pressure c. when people follow direct commands, usually from someone in a position of authority d. when people change their behaviour as a result of observational learning

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 138. Imagine you just watched a television infomercial in which a spokesperson described a new product that gets rid of unsightly warts. You think your warts are unsightly and send away for the free informational brochure. When you receive the brochure, what should you do to analyze the credibility of the source of the product? a. Decide whether you can afford the product. b. Read the brochure to determine whether the product seems the same as it did on TV. c. Evaluate the methods that were used to indicate the product is effective. d. Determine whether the company has any physicians who have endorsed the product. 139. Which component of persuasion would be enhanced if an advertiser chose to use doctors and dentists to promote their vitamin supplements? a. likability b. trustworthiness c. attractiveness d. expertise 140. What does the bystander effect refer to? a. the tendency for people to be more likely to provide needed help when they are in groups b. an increase in effort by individuals when they work in groups c. the tendency for people to be less likely to provide needed help when they are in groups d. a reduction in effort by individuals when they work in groups 141. Denise genuinely believes that she is very egalitarian and that she treats people equally. When she interacts with people who dress shabbily, however, she doesn’t smile very much, and she avoids eye contact with them. What is illustrated by Denise’s belief that she is egalitarian? a. a self-serving bias b. a self-fulfilling prophecy c. an explicit attitude d. an implicit attitude 142. Which type of love involves a romantic relationship characterized by high levels of commitment and intimacy? a. mature love b. companionate love c. passionate love d. erotic love 143. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component for defining a group? a. interdependence b. two or more individuals c. interaction d. cohesiveness 144. Which of the following helps explain differences between American society and many other societies with regard to conformity and obedience? a. the degree of current “tension” in the society related to political instability b. the degree of experience that societies have with democracy c. the degree of religiosity found in the society d. the degree of individualism and collectivism seen in various societies 145. Jill assumes her new biology professor is probably studious and somewhat introverted just like her other professors. What is Jill’s assumption based on? a. a logical assumption b. a social schema c. an attribution d. a prejudicial assumption

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 146. Angela has a strong negative attitude about a sports team. Which statement illustrates the cognitive component of her attitude? a. She believes that the team encourages cheating. b. She says horrible things about the team to her friends. c. She changes the channel when she sees the team on TV. d. She gets very angry when she sees the team logo. 147. Which of the following is NOT an example of a microaggression against an out-group? a. A White person provides friendlier service to white customers than to Black customers. b. A White person will not sit on the bus next to a Black individual. c. A man assumes a woman cannot do math. d. A man is courteous to a woman on the bus who is carrying multiple packages and attempting to hold on to her child’s hand.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. b 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. b 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. c 25. d 26. c

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. b 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. c 52. a 53. c 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 55. b 56. d 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. c 61. c 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. a 66. d 67. c 68. c 69. a 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. a 77. b 78. c 79. d 80. d 81. b 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 83. b 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. b 90. c 91. b 92. d 93. b 94. b 95. d 96. d 97. b 98. c 99. a 100. d 101. b 102. d 103. c 104. b 105. a 106. d 107. b 108. d 109. c 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 111. a 112. b 113. d 114. a 115. d 116. d 117. a 118. b 119. d 120. c 121. b 122. b 123. c 124. a 125. d 126. c 127. a 128. c 129. d 130. d 131. d 132. c 133. d 134. b 135. b 136. d 137. c

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_2 138. c 139. d 140. c 141. c 142. b 143. d 144. d 145. b 146. a 147. d

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. At the beginning of the meeting the members of the neighbourhood committee had a variety of opinions about what should be done with the vacant park lot in their area. By the end of the meeting all members indicated they wanted a community garden and that no other option would be acceptable. What is this an example of? a. group polarization b. groupthink c. social facilitation d. social loafing 2. A group of participants are part of a replication of the Milgram experiment. If the participants cannot see the learner and have the experimenter standing close to them, giving instructions, about how many of the participants will give the maximum “electric shock” to the learner? a. 1/3 b. 2/3 c. 3/4 d. 9/10 3. A candidate for government is very attractive but rarely makes any statements about their policies. The candidate may still win support because of which of the following? a. the central route b. the peripheral route c. door-in-the-face technique d. foot-in-the-door technique 4. Corinna is in charge of a plan to build a spacecraft for a mission to Mars. She tells her team repeatedly that if they have any doubts about any decisions they should make their doubts known. What phenomenon is being prevented by this approach? a. group polarization b. social facilitation c. the bystander effect d. groupthink 5. Who would be MOST likely to collect data in social contexts using an fMRI? a. a social neuroscientist b. a sociologist c. a social psychologist d. a sociobiologist 6. Which of the following is a fixed overgeneralization or oversimplified belief about a person or group of people? a. prejudice b. discrimination c. a stereotype d. an implicit attitude 7. A social neuroscientist is MOST likely to see increased activation in which area of the brain during a fearful event? a. the amygdala b. the visual cortex c. the pons d. the cerebellum 8. Isabel is at a restaurant listening to a baby scream. She assumes that the mother of the child is incapable of effective parenting. Which of the following is Isabel exhibiting? a. the fundamental attribution error b. the self-serving bias c. the bystander effect d. groupthink

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 9. When a researcher travelled around the United States in the 1930s with a Chinese couple and then later surveyed the restaurants and hotels they visited, how did the restaurants and hotels react? a. they refused to serve the couple and indicated on a survey that they would always refuse to serve Asians b. they refused to serve the couple and indicated on a survey that they always welcome Asian customers c. they happily served the couple and indicated on a survey that they always refuse to serve Asians d. they happily served the couple and indicated on a survey that they always welcome Asian customers 10. Which of the following may occur in a person who sustains brain damage that affects their amygdala? a. trouble dealing with fear b. trouble with working memory c. difficulty with facial recognition d. difficulty with facial memory 11. Jamal really wants a new bicycle. He is trying to persuade his father by telling him how happy the bicycle would make him and how much fun they could have riding around town together. Which method of persuasion is Jamal using? a. central route b. peripheral route c. source route d. receiver route 12. Hugh believes that he is good at math, but he just did very poorly on a math test. What might Hugh be experiencing? a. cognitive dissonance b. a stereotype c. the mere exposure effect d. the fundamental attribution error 13. If a researcher were to replicate the Milgram experiment, which factor would they expect to INCREASE the likelihood a participant would agree to administer the highest level of shock to the confederate? a. have a confederate suggest they disobey b. have the experimenter wear a white coat c. have a confederate wear jeans and a t-shirt d. have the experimenter give orders from another room 14. In Canada, standing in line to wait for service is an example of which of the following? a. a norm b. a role c. a social facilitator d. an egoistic helping behaviour 15. What is it called when the environment is thought to be the cause of a behaviour? a. an internal attribution b. an external attribution c. a self-serving bias d. a fundamental attribution error 16. Which of the following reflects how a professor is supposed to act in a class they are teaching? a. their norm b. their social role c. their attribution d. their attitude 17. Ahmed encounters a homeless man while walking downtown and assumes that the man must have done something to experience such misfortune. Which of the following is Ahmed demonstrating? a. a self-serving bias b. a defensive attribution c. hindsight bias d. an external attribution Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 18. Dr. Salah is replicating Asch’s basic experiment. She finds that her participants are not conforming, but when she takes a closer look at her paradigm she understands why. What did she notice about her experiment? a. There was unanimity among the confederates. b. There were three confederates and one participant. c. There were four line lengths to choose from. d. There were six line lengths to choose from. 19. Which researcher is famous for his work on conformity? a. Milgram b. Asch c. Zimbardo d. Lazarus 20. “She is late because she doesn’t care about making people wait” is an example of which of the following? a. an internal attribution b. an external attribution c. a stereotype d. discrimination 21. Hayleigh has just started university. When she arrived she wore the same clothes she had worn all summer. Now, three weeks into the term, she wears the school colours every day and sports a hat with the school logo on it. Most other students on campus do the same. What is Hayleigh exhibiting? a. conformity b. obedience c. groupthink d. group polarization 22. In Milgram’s study, participants were asked to do which of the following? a. receive painful shocks from a teacher who was a confederate b. either be a teacher or a learner in a shock experiment c. receive painful shocks from a learner who was a confederate d. administer painful shocks to a learner who was a confederate 23. What is the term for a negative and unjust feeling toward an individual based on their inclusion in a particular group? a. a stereotype b. prejudice c. discrimination d. cognitive dissonance 24. Which type of attributional bias is LESS common in collectivistic countries such as Japan than in North America? a. the self-serving bias b. the self-effacing bias c. the mere exposure effect d. cognitive dissonance 25. When all of Asch’s confederates intentionally lied about which two lines were the same length, what percentage of participants agreed with the confederates’ incorrect opinion? a. 25% b. 37% c. 54% d. 95%

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 26. Which of the following is an example of an external attribution? a. blaming poor test results on the temperature in the classroom b. attributing good test results to intelligence c. blaming a car accident on poor driving ability d. attributing the avoidance of a car accident to fast reflexes 27. A candidate runs a television ad featuring war and destruction in the background while suggesting that her opponent is a risky choice. What method of persuasion is she using? a. central route b. peripheral route c. foot-in-the-door d. door-in-the-face 28. Which type of attributional bias is MOST common in individualistic countries such as Canada? a. the self-serving bias b. the self-effacing bias c. the mere exposure effect d. cognitive dissonance 29. According to the tri-component model of attitudes, what are the three components of every attitude? a. affective, behavioural, and cognitive b. arousal, behavioural, and commitment c. affective, belief, and cognitive d. arousal, belief, and commitment 30. Olivia believes she is less likely than others to contract COVID-19 because she is young. What is exemplified by her belief? a. ethnocentrism b. fundamental attribution error c. mere exposure effect d. optimistic bias 31. Which of the following is the tendency for people to attribute their successes to internal factors and their failures to external factors? a. an internal attribution b. an external attribution c. the self-serving bias d. the fundamental attribution error 32. Throwing garbage in a garbage can at the park is an example of which of the following? a. a norm b. a social role c. an attribution d. an attitude 33. What is the most common attachment style among adults? a. secure b. avoidant c. anxious-ambivalent d. aggressive 34. If you were allowed to replicate Milgram’s study today, about what percentage of participants would you expect to agree to administer a shock that they knew would cause pain if ordered to? a. 1% b. 25% c. 65% d. 99% 35. Which of the following is the tendency to use dispositional attributions to explain the behaviour of other people? a. an internal attribution b. an external attribution c. a self-serving bias d. a fundamental attribution error

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 36. Implicit stereotypes are BEST studied using which of the following? a. the IAT b. cognitive dissonance c. self-report surveys d. an EEG 37. Jamie has an anti-war attitude. His fear and anguish over innocent people dying in wars reflects which component of the tri-component model? a. affective b. behavioural c. cognitive d. belief 38. Aster has an avoidant attachment style and has just started a relationship with Taylor. What will Taylor notice about Aster? a. Aster is indifferent about getting close to Taylor b. Aster is happy and confident about the relationship c. Aster is worried that Taylor will break up with her d. Aster will have difficulty trusting Taylor 39. Which of the following people is making the fundamental attribution error? a. Hannah, who believes Mike did well on his test because of his intelligence b. Caitlin, who believes that Mark did well on his test because of luck c. Taylor, who believes she did well on her test because she is intelligent d. Michelle, who believes she did well on her test because of luck 40. If a person thinks that all other people who get into car accidents do so because they are bad drivers, which cognitive bias is this person demonstrating? a. the fundamental attribution error b. the self-serving bias c. cognitive dissonance d. the direct route 41. Over the past six months, university roommates Ryan and Ali have developed increasingly similar beliefs about politics, music, and sports. What is this change an example of? a. cognitive dissonance b. informational influence c. attitude alignment d. reciprocity norm 42. Adrienne is applying for graduate school and has been asked to write a paragraph describing her experiences as an undergraduate student in psychology. Which of the following will Adrienne rely on MOST to complete this task? a. a social schema b. a self-schema c. person perception d. the reciprocity norm 43. Rafi and Kalika are very close friends and both admit they love each other, although they are not in a romantic relationship. Which two things are MOST fundamental to Rafi and Kalika’s friendship? a. intimacy and commitment b. commitment and passion c. passion and intimacy d. passion and disclosure 44. Which of the following involves the tendency to yield to social pressure? a. conformity b. obedience c. attribution d. disinhibition Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 45. A driver believes that she drove through a stop sign because the sign was difficult to see, when in fact it was more likely that the driver was not paying attention. In which type of culture is this driver MOST likely to live? a. collectivist b. individualist c. imperialist d. communist 46. Monica believes texting and driving is dangerous, yet she texts and drives. According to cognitive dissonance theory, what can Monica do to reduce her cognitive dissonance? a. either change her belief about texting and driving or stop texting and driving b. she must change her belief about texting and driving because her behaviour can’t change c. she must change her texting and driving behaviour because her belief cannot change d. according to the theory, there is nothing she can do 47. What does the IAT measure? a. stereotypes b. cognitive dissonance c. discrimination d. the peripheral route to persuasion 48. According to recent research, which of the following methods of first introduction leads to the LOWEST divorce rates? a. meeting at church b. meeting at a party c. meeting online d. meeting in school 49. What is it called when a trait is thought to be the cause of a behaviour? a. an internal attribution b. an external attribution c. a self-serving bias d. a fundamental attribution error 50. A candidate runs a television ad that lists all the things she will do if elected. Which method of persuasion is she using? a. central route b. peripheral route c. foot-in-the-door d. door-in-the-face 51. Eric and Kyle got the same low grade on the same psychology test. Eric thinks his grade resulted from a flickering light in the classroom making it hard for him to focus, but thinks that Kyle did poorly because Kyle is a poor student. Eric’s rationale is an example of which of the following? a. cognitive dissonance and the self-serving bias b. the self-serving bias and the fundamental attribution error c. the fundamental attribution error and prejudice d. prejudice and cognitive dissonance 52. Which method of persuasion emphasizes the content of the message? a. central route b. peripheral route c. source route d. receiver route 53. Which of the following is a state of emotional discomfort brought on when a belief contradicts behaviours? a. cognitive dissonance b. an implicit attitude c. a stereotype d. the self-serving bias Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 54. Which of the following is a good example of the self-serving bias? a. thinking that you were hired because you did well at the interview b. thinking that you were hired because the interviewer was in a good mood c. thinking that you were hired because the first choice for the job turned it down d. thinking that you were hired because the interviewer was in a hurry 55. Leisl went to a party during frosh week and had a lot of fun. She says she really likes the people she was at the party with although she only spent time with them at that party. This exemplifies which factor that contributes to liking? a. similarity b. situational factors c. physical attractiveness d. proximity 56. Markus has an anxious-ambivalent attachment style and has just started a relationship with Chris. What will Chris soon notice about Markus? a. Markus is indifferent about getting close to Chris b. Markus is happy and confident about the relationship c. Markus is worried that Chris will break up with him d. Markus will refuse to become dependent on Chris 57. A salesperson is giving a speech to an audience. Which of the following would be an effective way for him to persuade the audience to buy his product? a. beginning with his weakest argument b. forewarning the audience that he is trying to persuade them c. appearing dishevelled in the hopes that they will pity him d. offering the product at one price and then later offering it at a lower price 58. Which of the following social phenomena is MOST closely associated with diffusion of responsibility? a. altruism b. the bystander effect c. groupthink d. group polarization 59. Mei-Ling goes to her professor to complain about a test. She is convinced that she did poorly because some of the questions covered material that wasn’t part of the course. The professor points out where the questions appeared in the text. Mei-Ling is surprised because she sees herself as a very good student. What phenomenon did Mei-Ling display? a. the self-serving bias b. the fundamental attribution error c. altruism d. group polarization 60. When Amila enters an elevator, she feels compelled to face forward, not speak, and be very polite. Amila does this because of which of the following? a. a social norm b. a social role c. a gender role d. a gender norm

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 61. Several scientists are in charge of a deep water submarine that is in distress. One group of scientists believes that escape plan A is the best option, and another believes in escape plan B. Both groups spend so much time trying to come up with a unanimous decision that the submarine is lost. What social phenomenon is responsible for this disaster? a. groupthink b. altruism c. the bystander effect d. group polarization 62. Which of the following is a causal explanation for behaviour or events? a. attribution b. attitude c. stereotype d. prejudice 63. Which method of persuasion involves using feelings and impressions to persuade? a. central route b. peripheral route c. source route d. receiver route 64. Which of the following is a set of norms based on a person’s position in society? a. norm b. social role c. attribution d. attitude 65. What did researchers in British Columbia find when they compared first-year students who used Facebook to those who were not on Facebook? a. Those who used Facebook felt more belongingness. b. Those not on Facebook felt more belongingness. c. Those who used Facebook had higher grades. d. Those not on Facebook had higher grades. 66. Anna is participating in a replication of Asch’s study. In this study there are two confederates and one participant on each trial. On every trial the confederates will make an incorrect statement about which lines match. What will the experimenter MOST likely observe? a. Anna will conform on every trial. b. Anna will conform on most trials. c. Anna will conform on about half of trials. d. Anna will dissent on most trials. 67. Ana gives credit to her culture when she is successful. Which type of culture is Ana MOST likely to be from? a. collectivistic b. individualistic c. imperialistic d. modernist 68. Which of the following defines group polarization? a. when the presence of others enhances performance b. when an individual puts in less effort for a group task than they would if doing the same task alone c. the intensification of a group tendency brought on by group discussion d. faulty decision making brought on by a need for unanimity 69. Which of the following describes a dispositional attribution? a. an internal attribution b. an external attribution c. a source attribution d. an inaccurate attribution Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 70. Milgram is to obedience as Asch is to which of the following? a. stereotypes b. conformity c. social roles d. cognitive dissonance 71. Which of the following is a definition of groupthink? a. when the presence of others enhances performance b. when an individual puts in less effort for a group task than they would if doing the same task alone c. the intensification of a group tendency brought on by group discussion d. faulty decision making brought on by a need for unanimity 72. What is the bystander effect? a. the tendency for people to reduce helping behaviour as group size increases b. the tendency for people to increase helping behaviour as group size increases c. the tendency for people to put less effort toward a task when in a group than when alone d. the tendency for people to put more effort toward a task when in a group than when alone 73. An employment agency runs background checks on Aboriginal Canadians who apply for jobs but not on European Canadians who apply for jobs. If an Aboriginal applicant has a criminal record they are denied access to the agency. Which of the following is a behaviour exhibited by people at the agency? a. discrimination b. stereotyping c. prejudice d. cognitive dissonance 74. Yesterday Scott was on the news. He had heard screaming in a local park, and when he followed the screams he located a woman who had been attacked. Which of the following is MOST likely to be true? a. Scott was alone when he heard the screams. b. Scott was in a group of 20 people when he heard the screams. c. Scott was confident that other people could help but decided to act anyway. d. Scott was feeling a diffusion of responsibility. 75. In Milgram’s study, which role was always assigned to the participant? a. teacher b. learner c. guard d. prisoner 76. Professor Mann conducts a survey of students and finds most have a negative attitude about binge drinking. What can Professor Mann predict about student behaviour based on the results of this survey? a. nothing because attitudes don’t predict behaviour b. students probably won’t binge drink c. students probably will binge drink d. nothing because surveys don’t capture attitudes 77. What kind of attachment style is associated with having an easy time becoming close to others and little fear of abandonment? a. secure b. avoidant c. anxious-ambivalent d. aggressive Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 78. Tim is White and works at a cell-phone kiosk at the mall. Tim has been observed providing friendlier service to White customers than to non-White customers. Tim’s behaviour is an example of which of the following? a. microaggression b. normative influence c. stereotyping d. obedience 79. Curtis became a police officer two years ago. Since that time, Curtis has noticed that his friends drive more carefully when he is in the car and don’t joke about breaking the law. Why is this MOST likely happening? a. because of Curtis’s gender role b. because of Curtis’s social role c. because of Curtis’s social norm d. because of Curtis’s self-serving bias 80. Cassandra often finds herself attracted to her friends’ male partners. Which of the following is Cassandra exhibiting? a. mate choice copying b. mate poaching c. matching hypothesis d. cognitive dissonance 81. What is a person demonstrating when they follow direct commands from an authority figure? a. obedience b. conformity c. an attitude d. disinhibition 82. What is a person exhibiting when they follow the behaviour of a group without being told to do so? a. conformity b. obedience c. self-reliance d. groupthink 83. Macey wants to get students in her high school history class to stop making the fundamental attribution error. What is one way she could do this? a. by having students practise looking for dispositional reasons for behaviours b. by having students practise looking for situational reasons for behaviours c. by having students practise reducing cognitive dissonance d. by having students complete the Implicit Association Test (IAT) 84. What is the definition of social loafing? a. when the presence of others enhances performance b. when individuals put in less effort for a group task than they would if doing the same task alone c. the intensification of a group tendency brought on by group discussion d. faulty decision making brought on by a need for unanimity 85. Randy is shown a list of 10 dispositional reasons why a person may be drawn to be a psychology major. He feels that 4 of the 10 items apply to him but thinks that 8 out of 10 of the items apply to other psychology majors. This is a good example of which of the following? a. the actor-observer effect b. cognitive dissonance c. social norms d. conformity 86. Which of the following involves asking someone to fulfill an absurd request and then, once rejected, asking for a reasonable request? a. the foot-in-the-door technique b. the lowball technique c. the central route d. the peripheral route Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 87. Maureen began a relationship with Derek three months ago. Maureen is fearful that Derek will leave her to a point where Derek has become irritated and is threatening to leave. What is Maureen’s attachment style? a. secure b. avoidant c. anxious-ambivalent d. afraid 88. Ethan sees a homeless man asking for change and assumes that the man is homeless because he doesn’t want to work, which make Ethan feel less vulnerable to becoming homeless himself. Ethan’s attribution reflects which of the following? a. defensive attribution b. cognitive dissonance c. the self-serving bias d. mere exposure 89. Whenever Naomi starts a new relationship she is happy. She doesn’t worry much about getting too close or about the relationship ending. As a child, what attachment style did she MOST likely have with her caregiver? a. secure b. avoidant c. anxious-ambivalent d. neutral 90. Dr. Wren is a social neuroscientist. What does she do in every experiment she conducts? a. measures brain activity in a social context b. presents people with a dilemma in a social context c. measures brain activity when people are faced with a dilemma d. presents people with a social context and asks them how they feel 91. Which of the following researchers studied obedience? a. Milgram b. Asch c. Zimbardo d. Lazarus 92. Which of the following salespeople could benefit from using an appeal to fear in their sales pitch? a. a well-dressed woman selling asteroid insurance b. a well-dressed woman selling condoms c. a dishevelled man selling a book on making a good impression d. a dishevelled man selling grooming products 93. The fact that people tend to blame their own mistakes on the situation and the mistakes of others on the disposition of the other person is an example of which of the following? a. an actor-observer effect b. cognitive dissonance c. social facilitation d. a bystander effect 94. Which of the following factors did Asch find DECREASED the likelihood that a participant would conform to lying confederates’ opinions? a. having at least one dissenting confederate b. having more than five confederates c. having more than five lines d. presenting the lines in different colours 95. Matthew wanted $30 from his mother. If he asks her for $5 first, what technique is he using? a. foot-in-the-door b. door-in-the-face c. central d. peripheral Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 96. At present, Farrah wears a mask all the time she is in public largely because she is concerned about being fined for not wearing one. Which of the following explains Farrah’s compliance? a. normative influence b. informational influence c. external attribution d. internal attribution 97. Which of the following involves getting someone to agree to a small request and then presenting a large request? a. the foot-in-the-door technique b. the door-in-the-face technique c. the central route d. the peripheral route 98. Which of the following is an attitude that a person is unaware of? a. unconscious attitude b. unaware attitude c. implicit attitude d. hidden attitude 99. What made prisoners in the Stanford Prison experiment behave the way they did? a. social roles b. gender roles c. social norms d. gender norms 100. If you are trying to explain someone else’s behaviour, what are you MOST likely to do? a. make an internal attribution b. make an external attribution c. use the self-serving bias d. use cognitive dissonance 101. Which of the following is the discrepancy between the self-serving bias and the fundamental attribution error? a. the actor-observer effect b. cognitive dissonance c. conformity d. obedience 102. What is a stereotype? a. a state of emotional discomfort brought on when a belief contradicts behaviours b. an attitude that a person is not aware they have c. a negative and unjust feeling toward someone because they belong to a certain group d. a fixed overgeneralization about a person or group 103. Anna has been listening to Harry talk and accuses him of being prejudiced. What is Anna saying about Harry? a. he is in a state of emotional discomfort brought on when a belief contradicts behaviours b. he has an attitude that he is not aware he has c. he has a negative and unjust feeling toward someone because they belong to a certain group d. he is making overgeneralizations about a person or group 104. What do we call the social rules about how every member of a society is expected to act? a. norms b. social roles c. attributions d. attitudes

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 105. If a person develops an avoidant attachment style with their caregiver, what might they experience as an adult? a. they might be uncomfortable being close to others b. they might have excessive fear abandonment c. they might find it relatively easy to develop close relationships d. they might be anxious to develop close relationship with others 106. Dr. Jamal is conducting a conformity experiment using a similar paradigm to Asch’s experiment. Dr. Jamal is using six confederates. On half the trials, all the confederates give an incorrect response. On the other half of trials, five of the confederates give an incorrect and one gives the correct response. What do you expect Dr. Jamal to find when he looks at the results? a. participants are more likely to conform when a confederate dissents b. participants are less likely to conform when a confederate dissents c. whether or not there is a dissenter has no effect on the results d. participants conform on every trial in every block 107. According to Festinger, a person who knows smoking is unhealthy but continues to smoke will experience which of the following? a. cognitive dissonance b. an implicit attitude c. prejudice d. a self-serving bias 108. Joshi is participating in an experiment. In one block of trials he must press one key on the keyboard if the word that is presented falls into the category of “poor” or “pleasant” and another button if the word that is presented falls into the category of “rich” or “unpleasant.” On another block of trials the category pairs are switched. What will the researcher MOST likely find? a. Joshi responded slower in “poor/pleasant” blocks than in “poor/unpleasant” blocks. b. Joshi responded faster in “poor/pleasant” blocks than in “poor/unpleasant” blocks. c. Joshi’s response times were the same in in “poor/pleasant” blocks and in “poor/unpleasant” blocks. d. Joshi’s response times were the same in in “rich/pleasant” blocks and in “rich/unpleasant” blocks. 109. Mark and Heather support a political candidate because they believe the candidate will make a real effort to reduce climate change. Mark and Heather’s situation exemplifies which of the following? a. identity leadership b. normative influence c. reciprocity d. cognitive dissonance 110. Maggie binge drinks with her friends most Saturday nights. The notion that Maggie infers she has a positive attitude about binge drinking because she does it frequently reflects which theory? a. cognitive dissonance b. self-perception c. the ABC model d. social desirability 111. When a person does something because an authority figure told them to, which of the following are they exhibiting? a. conformity b. obedience c. groupthink d. egoistic helping behaviour

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 112. Kelli is participating in an experiment where she presses one key on the keyboard if the word that is presented falls into the category of “elderly” or “pleasant” and another button if the word that is presented falls into the category of “young” or “unpleasant.” What topic is the researcher MOST likely studying? a. implicit attitudes b. cognitive dissonance c. self-serving bias d. the central route 113. Which of the following describes the central route to persuasion? a. it emphasizes the content of the message b. it uses feelings and impressions c. it involves asking for a large request then a small request d. it involves asking for a small request then a larger request 114. What is cognitive dissonance? a. a state of emotional discomfort brought on when a belief contradicts behaviours b. an attitude that a person is not aware they have c. a negative and unjust feeling toward someone because they belong to a certain group d. a fixed overgeneralization about a person or group 115. Which component of prejudice is expressed by the statement “I won’t vote for a female prime minister”? a. cognitive b. affective c. behavioural d. defensive

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. b 26. a

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. d 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. a 50. a 51. b 52. a 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 55. b 56. c 57. d 58. b 59. a 60. a 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. a 68. c 69. a 70. b 71. d 72. a 73. a 74. a 75. a 76. a 77. a 78. a 79. b 80. a 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 83. b 84. b 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. a 90. a 91. a 92. b 93. a 94. a 95. a 96. a 97. a 98. c 99. a 100. a 101. a 102. d 103. c 104. a 105. a 106. b 107. a 108. a 109. a 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_6ce_Vol_4 111. b 112. a 113. a 114. a 115. c

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Chap 14_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Amelie studies hard for her exams, but still worries she will fail. When is this stress beneficial? a. Stress is never beneficial. b. When the level of stress is low enough to not impact her performance. c. When the level of stress is high enough to maximize her performance. d. When the level of stress is as high as possible. 2. Noah has just finished his undergraduate degree and is applying to become a pilot for the Royal Canadian Air Force. During the last year of his degree, he would often stay in when all his friends went out to party so he could spend extra time studying for either his university exams or the National Defense aptitude tests he will have to write soon after his last exam. Though he is often tired, he feels accomplished and prepared for the chance to make his dream come true. Noah has worked very hard through his four-year degree, and worked especially hard during his last year. He also needed to stress his body with exercise so that he would meet the fitness requirements necessary for a pilot. Due to this, Noah is likely at the _______ stage of the stress response and __________________________. a. alarm; experiencing sympathetic nervous system activation b. resistance; experiencing sympathetic nervous system activation c. resistance; no longer experiencing sympathetic nervous system activation d. exhaustion; prone to becoming sick more often 3. Amelie is experiencing considerable stress. __________ is considered a __________ form of coping. a. Procrastination; adaptive b. Forming a study group; constructive c. Seeking social support; avoidant d. Cognitive restructuring; maladaptive 4. The injured captain of the basketball team still feels a large amount of stress about the outcome of the championship games, even though he is not playing. Why is this? a. He has less control over the outcome than he did before. b. He is avoiding coping with his emotions. c. He shifted from the “resistance” stage to the “alarm” stage after his injury. d. His appraisal of the situation has changed and he’s filled with hopelessness. 5. Kevin is a first-generation Chinese-Canadian. Both of his parents came to Canada for university, and when they married after graduation, they decided to continue living in Canada. Kevin was born shortly after their marriage, and has dual citizenship. His parents have since become Canadian citizens, as well. When Kevin was 10 years old, his grandmother died and his grandfather came from China to live with his family in Canada. Because both of Kevin’s parents work full-time, and Kevin has a flexible schedule while he is in university, Kevin’s mother often asks Kevin to take his grandfather to doctor’s appointments. If these requests cause Kevin stress, what is the worst thing for him to do? a. Pretend it does not bother him. b. Tell himself he is being helpful. c. Tell himself not to be upset. d. Take a deep breath and relax his muscles.

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Chap 14_6ce_Case-Based 6. Kevin hears about a group of Chinese seniors that meets to play Mahjong on his university campus every Tuesday at 2pm. He believes this will be good for his grandfather because ___________. a. it will provide him with emotional support only b. it will provide him with social support c. it will reduce his perceived integration d. it will increase his perceived marginalization 7. Amelie has the goal to achieve an A- average through her first year of university; however, she has received grades on tests and papers that have been lower than an A- so far. If she set this goal herself, the stress she feels when she gets low grades is considered __________; whereas, if her parents set this goal for her, it is considered ________. a. frustration; conflict b. pressure, conflict c. frustration; pressure d. pressure; frustration 8. Going into the last two minutes of the championship game, Darius’ coach makes a motion to the crowd to get them to cheer more loudly for his players. What is he trying to do? a. Give his players an extra little bit of adrenaline. b. Shift his players from the “alarm” stage of the stress response to the “resistance” stage. c. Remind his players that the fans love them. d. Put additional pressure on his players. 9. When Kevin’s mother first came to Canada for university, she knew very little English, but believed her first year would be an exciting adventure, and she did not find it very stressful. Albert Ellis would call her belief a ________, but it could also be called ____________ . a. rationalization; cognitive appraisal b. activating event; cognitive restructuring c. activating event; constructive coping d. consequence; cognitive restructuring 10. Noah finds out that he has been selected to become a pilot and will need to start basic training in two weeks. This causes ________ stress. However, once he arrives at basic training, this will probably switch to __________ stress due to the strictness of the drill sergeants. a. pressure; change b. conflict; pressure c. change; pressure d. change; frustration 11. If Noah’s best friend Sam gives Noah a placebo the morning of his aptitude test, Sam is hoping to help Noah ______________. a. cope with his stress b. reaffirm his positive self-illusion c. use constructive coping d. use avoidance coping 12. Kevin’s grandmother was chronically ill for some time before she died, and Kevin’s grandfather had been taking care of her. Because of this, when Kevin’s grandfather comes to Canada, he is expected to ________ because _________. a. be sick less often; all of his routine hassles disappeared with his wife’s death b. be sick more often; he has reached the exhaustion stage of the stress response c. be sick less often; his body is in the alarm stage of the stress response d. be sick less often; he is ignoring the sadness he feels due to his wife’s death Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_6ce_Case-Based 13. Whenever Darius goes to make a free throw shot, his arousal levels increase quite a bit. To reduce his arousal, he bounces the ball twice and spins it backwards once. This superstitious movement reduces his arousal level because ___________. a. the repetitive action is calming b. he believes it will reduce his arousal level c. he is getting rid of the excess energy in his muscles d. the ball provides him with biofeedback markers 14. Going into final exams, Anita finds out that if she does not maintain a B+ average, she will lose her entrance scholarship. How might this news most likely affect Anita’s health? a. She will not be affected because she has a Type B personality. b. Her health will decline if she feels as though she is in control of her grades. c. Her health will not be greatly affected because this is a minor stressor. d. Her health will only be affected if she believes she will lose her scholarship. 15. Throughout these stressful events, Darius shows that he is able to stay positive and optimistic. According to much of the research on optimism, this means he will likely ___________. a. become more religious later in life b. have a Type B personality c. have a diverse social network d. live longer with a high quality of life 16. Going into final exams, Anita finds out that if she does not maintain a B+ average, she will lose her entrance scholarship. Choosing between the _________ and the ________ represents an approach-avoidance conflict that might arise after she finds out this information. a. boredom of studying; embarrassment of telling her parents she lost her scholarship b. victory of achieving good grades; fun she will miss out on while studying c. victory of achieving good grades; feeling of success she will get from studying d. boredom of studying; fear of failing the course 17. Darius is a first-year university student who has made his school’s basketball team. The team is hoping to defend its national championship title for the fifth year in a row. Unfortunately, in the last game of the regular season, the team captain sprains his ankle. This means that Darius will be in the starting line-up for both the provincial and national championship tournaments. Because of the change in the starting line-up and the high-stakes games that will be coming up soon, the head coach thinks it is a good time for a stress and coping intervention. If Darius tells himself “You were chosen for this position for a reason, you are a good player who will get the job done.” What is this an example of? a. Darius is reaffirming his self-efficacy. b. Darius is using relaxation to reduce arousal. c. Darius is shifting his cognitive appraisal. d. Darius is challenging the consequences of his belief system.

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Chap 14_6ce_Case-Based 18. Amelie is a first-year university student who is living away from home for the first time. She is living in a shared room on campus with her roommate, Anita. Though Amelie is very excited to be attending university, and so far she has managed to do well on her exams (usually earning a B+ or A-), she still gets very anxious at certain times. Anita, on the other hand, is a little more laid back, does not care as much about her grades, and though she does fine on her exams (usually earning a B or B-), she knows she could do better if she put her mind to it. Even though they did not know each other before becoming roommates, Amelie and Anita have become friends since the beginning of the school year. Amelie has an upcoming exam. According to Albert Ellis, if she tells herself ___________, then she will be ______ stressed. a. “I might fail this exam, and that is okay”; more b. “This exam might be tough, but exams are not stressful”; more c. “I refuse to fail this exam. I will do well”; less d. “This exam might be tough, but I studied hard”; less

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Chap 14_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. b 17. a 18. d

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following represents the correct order for the three stages of Selye’s general adaptation

syndrome? a. recognition, reaction, evaluation b. primary, secondary, tertiary c. alarm, resistance, exhaustion d. detection, adaptation, recovery 2. Tim is feeling very frustrated and angry with his roommate, and thinks that he will feel better if he and his

roommate fight it out with boxing gloves. What could you tell him about his plan? a. It will initially increase tension but in the long run it will lead to a better relationship. b. It will cause his roommate to experience learned helplessness. c. It will lead to catharsis and reduce his frustration. d. It will probably just fuel more anger and aggression. 3. What effects do stressors like crowding or restraint have on the immune systems of animals? a. They can lead to increased levels of immune system activity. b. They can activate the release of aggressive hormones. c. They can reduce various aspects of immune system activity. d. They can increase levels of serotonin and dopamine. 4. Bella is majoring in English literature, and she has applied for over 100 scholarships during the last year. She

hasn’t received any of the scholarships because her grades are quite low. When she received the latest letter notifying her that a scholarship had gone to someone else, she imagined how humiliated the committee members would be if she were to get one of her short stories published. What coping mechanism does this illustrate? a. intellectualization b. overcompensation c. use of fantasy d. displacement 5. Tiana was walking down the street late one evening when a stranger suddenly stepped out of the shadows.

Her initial reaction was one of total panic, but then she began to think of all her options. Although her heart was still pounding, she quickly crossed to the other side of the street and began walking in the opposite direction. What was Tiana experiencing, according to Selye’s general adaptation syndrome? a. an alarm reaction b. autonomic rebound c. a resistance reaction d. physiological exhaustion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 6. Virginia has wanted to be a physician for as long as she can remember, but she has been unable to gain entry

to medical school. What is the term for what Virginia is experiencing? a. frustration b. regression c. burnout d. learned helplessness 7. Harry is an excellent basketball player who seldom misses a shot during practice. After yesterday’s practice,

Harry’s coach told him that some scouts from a big university would be at today’s practice. What will happen to Harry as a consequence of the increase in pressure, based on the research by Baumeister? a. He will experience burnout, causing him to make a lot of mistakes. b. He will be more self-conscious and that will facilitate his performance. c. He will be more self-conscious and that will interfere with his performance. d. He will experience catharsis, causing him to play even better. 8. What is involved in catastrophic thinking? a. exaggeration of the magnitude of one’s problems b. personality-disordered type of thinking c. focusing on major stressors and ignoring the impact of minor frustrations d. thinking associated with neuroticism 9. Vanessa experiences her share of stressors but doesn’t seem to be impaired by them. She tends to see them

as challenges to overcome. She feels like she is in charge of her time and her behaviours, and she is dedicated to the work that she takes on. Which of the following terms describes someone like Vanessa? a. optimist b. hardy c. Type A d. overachiever 10. Which of the following does NOT seem to be one of the effects of stress, according to studies that have

examined effects of stress on decision making? a. It increases your tendency to jump to conclusions too quickly. b. It decreases your overall level of self-consciousness. c. It increases your tendency to be disorganized in reviewing available options. d. It decreases your ability to suppress competing thoughts and focus attention.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 11. What is the approximate occurrence of noncompliance with medical advice? a. 5 to 10% b. 30 to 60% c. 65 to 75% d. 80 to 90% 12. Two blockbuster movies are opening on the same weekend, and Andrea is having trouble deciding which

movie to see first. What type of conflict is Andrea experiencing? a. risk-aversion b. avoidance-avoidance c. avoidance-approach d. approach-approach 13. What is the term for the physiological reaction to threat in which the autonomic nervous system mobilizes the

organism for action? a. fight-or-flight response b. primary appraisal c. resistance d. catharsis 14. David is driven, ambitious, and competitive, and his doctor says that he is at risk for having a heart attack.

Which of the following terms describes David? a. external personality b. Type A personality c. Type B personality d. internal personality 15. A friend shows you an article in the newspaper that indicates a researcher found the prevalence of a specific

health disorder increased by 70 percent in individuals who consumed calcium-enhanced milk products. After reading this article, your friend has decided to stop purchasing any products that contain calcium. What should you tell your friend, based on the information provided in the Critical Thinking application at the end of the chapter? a. She has made an excellent choice, because 70 percent is a statistically significant increase in risk. b. The reported increase may not be important if the base rate of the disorder is quite low. c. The reported increase probably excludes a number of factors, so the risk may actually be greater than 70 percent. d. It is necessary only to cut out milk products, but there is no need to cut out other products that might also contain calcium.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 16. Webb’s teacher has told him that there is really no way for him to earn a passing grade in his statistics class,

even if he earns 100 percent on all the work that remains. However, Webb has convinced himself that he will still pass the course if he just works really hard for the rest of the semester. What coping mechanism is Webb using in this instance? a. undoing b. overcompensation c. displacement d. denial of reality 17. Nora is being chased by a big scary dog. Which hormones are being pumped into her bloodstream?? a. catecholamines and endorphins b. endorphins and serotonin c. endorphins and corticosteroids d. catecholamines and corticosteroids 18. Which of the following is NOT among the advantages of regular exercise? a. reduced cancer risk b. lowered physiological reactivity to stress c. reduced risk of bacterial infection d. enhanced cardiovascular fitness 19. Travis was driving on an icy road when he started to skid. He felt a sensation of panic, but quickly took

action to control the car and avoid an accident. What was Travis experiencing as he took action, according to Selye’s general adaptation syndrome? a. physiological exhaustion b. autonomic rebound c. a resistance reaction d. an alarm reaction 20. Researchers found a statistically significant association between high sodium intake and the prevalence of

hypertension among normal-weight subjects. The prevalence of hypertension in the group with the lowest sodium intake was 19.8 percent; the prevalence of hypertension in the group with the highest sodium intake was 20.2 percent. What do these data suggest? a. The finding has both practical and statistical significance, and should be reviewed in more detail. b. Even though the finding was statistically significant, it may not have much practical importance. c. Individuals with hypertension are prone to high sodium intake. d. One of the main causes of hypertension is a high intake of sodium.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 21. Which of the following statements concerning positive emotions and stress is LEAST accurate? a. Positive emotions experienced while under stress have important adaptive significance. b. Experiencing positive emotions while under stress is rare, and it is associated with denial in most

individuals. c. The presence of positive emotions can promote creativity and flexibility in problem solving. d. The presence of positive emotions may reduce vulnerability to heart disease in older adults. 22. Francis finished writing her economics final and was convinced that she had failed the exam and would have

to repeat the course. She was so stressed out by the thought of taking the course a second time that she drank four glasses of wine when she got home. What method did Francis use to cope with her stress? a. self-indulgence b. undoing c. learned helplessness d. overcompensation 23. What are the approximate long-term success rates for those who quit smoking? a. 15% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 24. Which of the following reactions do approach-avoidance conflicts often produce in people trying to make

those sorts of decisions? a. approach b. withdrawal c. avoidance d. vacillation 25. Which of the following statements is supported by stress and health research? a. Stress effects influence only specific illnesses. b. Stress is very specific in its effects on health. c. Stress relates to physical illness only in predisposed individuals. d. Stress may relate to the incidence of physical illness in general.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 26. Tatiana just finished entering her 10-page term paper into one of the computers in the university’s computer

lab. She clicks the “Save” command, and the computer unexpectedly freezes. When she reboots the computer, she discovers that all but the first two pages of her term paper have been lost. What is Tatiana most likely experiencing at this point in time? a. conflict b. burnout c. pressure d. frustration 27. Yacov’s parents have made it very clear to him that he is expected to become a doctor just like all of the

other men in his family. Yacov really wants to be an architect. What is Yacov experiencing? a. pressure to perform b. frustration c. approach-approach conflict d. pressure to conform 28. Which of the following mediates the fight-or-flight reaction? a. peripheral nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. skeletal nervous system d. sympathetic nervous system 29. What is the term for the body’s defensive reaction to invasion by bacteria, viral agents, and other foreign

substances? a. body’s stress reaction b. disease coping response c. immune response d. general adaptation syndrome 30. How does your text define stress? a. illness-inducing behaviour b. circumstances that are perceived as threatening c. any unpleasant event d. responses we make to unpleasant events

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 31. A police officer gives you a speeding ticket, and you take out your frustration and anger on your roommate.

What is the term for this diversion of anger to a substitute target? a. reaction formation b. displacement c. catharsis d. overcompensation 32. Prior to 1996–97, what was the average length of survival for people after the onset of AIDS? a. less than 6 months b. 18 to 24 months c. 36 to 48 months d. just over 60 months 33. The football team made a big comeback in the second half, and are now down by a single point. They can

win the game if they complete the final play successfully. Which of the following are players likely to be experiencing as the team lines up for the final play of the game? a. pressure b. conflict c. burnout d. frustration 34. What is the effect of brief periods of mental stress, based on laboratory experiments with cardiology patients? a. They have little, or no, impact on overall cardiac function. b. They can intensify chronic symptoms of heart disease, such as atherosclerosis. c. They can trigger acute symptoms of heart disease. d. They can trigger emotional responses such as depression and feelings of despair. 35. What is the key to making realistic appraisals of stress, according to Albert Ellis? a. disputing irrational assumptions b. focusing on what you should be doing c. ignoring your feelings d. avoiding examining your self-talk too closely 36. What is the distinction between an acute stressor and a chronic stressor? a. intensity b. subjective risk c. whether it happens to you or to someone else d. duration

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 37. Which of the following cues should you use if you were to attempt to predict life expectancy of a group of

people, and the only information you had available were their photo albums? a. frequency of party photos b. the number of photos that contain family members c. the frequency of Duchenne smiles d. presence of wedding pictures 38. Janet’s husband just lost his high-paying job, and they are about to lose their house and savings. Janet refuses

to acknowledge this obvious reality so she acts as if everything is just fine. Which processes are illustrated by this example? a. Janet deals with conflict by engaging in fantasy. b. Janet deals with burnout by engaging in overcompensation. c. Janet deals with pressure by engaging in reaction formation. d. Janet deals with frustration by engaging in denial. 39. Wayne was a highly motivated teacher who really tried to make a difference in the lives of his students.

However, the constant budget cutbacks and the long hours that he puts in have taken their toll. He has become disillusioned with teaching, and he often calls in sick. What is Wayne experiencing in this case? a. burnout b. general adaptation syndrome c. amotivational syndrome d. post-traumatic stress disorder 40. Bryce is an army field surgeon who has been operating on wounded soldiers for the past 24 hours, with

hardly a break. It seems as if he will never be finished, and more wounded are arriving every hour. At this point, Bryce feels completely worn out. His overall energy reserves are totally depleted, and his body just wants to give up. What is Bryce experiencing according to Selye’s general adaptation syndrome? a. a resistance reaction b. autonomic rebound c. physiological exhaustion d. an alarm reaction

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1

Lacey Lacey just started a new job. She’s adjusting to working in a different place, with new co-workers and an increased amount of responsibility. She really enjoys her new job, but some of the changes are aggravating. For example, in order to get to her new job, she has to transfer from one bus line to another, and there are often delays at the transfer point. Lacey has started dealing with this delay by playing games on her phone. That way she always has something entertaining to do when she has to wait. Before she had games on her phone, Lacey would often find herself sitting on the bench getting angrier and angrier about the delay. By the time she got to work, she would have herself worked up into such a state that she would snap at her coworkers. She sat down with her boyfriend one night to brainstorm about ways that she could prevent herself from getting so angry. Her boyfriend pointed out that it was probably her boredom that made her so upset. That’s when she decided on the games. Now that she has a way to deal with the delay, Lacey also finds that she doesn’t get as many headaches as she used to. 41. When Lacey was stressed by bus delays, which of the following was being released by her adrenal gland? a. corticosteroids b. dopamine c. ACTH d. serotonin 42. In a stress reaction, the pituitary gland releases the hormone ACTH. What does ACTH then stimulate? a. adrenal cortex b. gonads c. medulla d. hypothalamus 43. Which of the following is the most important reason to improve the communication skills of health care

professionals? a. Patients often do not speak English, and this prevents them from seeking health care. b. Physicians with excellent communication skills are particularly proficient in the use of medical jargon. c. Patients who understand their instructions and feel that their doctors interact with them in a positive manner are more likely to comply with health care advice or instructions. d. The better the communication skills of the health care provider, the faster patients can be treated. 44. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does the body go into after an unsuccessful first attempt at

dealing with a stressor? a. sympathetic b. alarm c. third d. resistance

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 45. Which of the following is least likely to be a barrier to effective provider-patient communication? a. the health care provider’s use of technical terminology b. time constraints on the length of the provider-patient interaction c. patient evasiveness about real health concerns d. consulting a health care provider who is not the same sex as the patient 46. What is the term for unconscious reactions for dealing with unpleasant emotions such as anxiety or guilt? a. rationalizations b. neurosis c. constructive coping d. defence mechanisms 47. What is the role of humour in times of stress? a. It is used as a defence mechanism by neurotics when dealing with stress. b. It typically follows catastrophic thinking. c. It is an example of counterproductive coping. d. It can relieve stress in most people. 48. Which of the following has been linked to suppression of anger and other emotions? a. Type A personalities b. successful coping with stress-related events c. hardy personalities d. increase in health problems 49. Shannon has a big deadline coming up and is feeling a lot of pressure. She knows she has barely enough time

to complete the project, so she asks her mother to watch her kids for the weekend in order to give her more peace and quiet in which to work. Which of the following does this example illustrate? a. overcompensation b. intellectualization c. constructive coping d. self-indulgent coping 50. Jack was recently involved in a very serious car accident, in which he narrowly avoided being killed by an

oncoming car. Which of the following disorders would Jack most likely develop symptoms of after recovering from the accident? a. schizophrenia b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. antisocial personality disorder d. depression

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 51. Which of the following healthy interventions promotes neurogenesis? a. low-fat diets b. regular exercise c. reducing alcohol consumption d. quitting smoking 52. Len is worried about his heart and also about the effects of stress. Which of the following would you

recommend for both of those concerns? a. regular exercise b. vitamin A supplements c. hypnosis d. low-carb diet 53. Contracting the AIDS virus involves exchange of infected body fluids. Which of the following has NOT been

suggested as a means for reducing such risk? a. use of condoms b. abstinence c. reducing the number of partners d. anal intercourse 54. When final exam time rolls around, Murray finds himself eating all the time. What is the term for this type of

reaction to stress? a. learned helplessness b. reaction formation c. constructive coping d. self-indulgence 55. Marcy exhibits effective problem-focused coping and seeks the help of others when necessary. Which of the

following terms best describes Marcy? a. optimist b. pessimist c. Type A personality d. Type B personality 56. Myles has a back injury that causes him a lot of pain. He could have surgery, which he dreads, or he could

choose to live with the pain. What sort of conflict is Myles experiencing? a. approach-avoidance b. approach-approach c. double approach-avoidance d. avoidance-avoidance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 57. What do people typically experience if they use behavioural disengagement as a coping strategy? a. catastrophic thinking and self-blame b. release of negative emotional tension c. increased, rather than decreased, distress d. overcompensation or intellectualization 58. What is the major criticism of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale? a. It contains positive events as well as negative ones. b. It focuses exclusively on frustrating events. c. It does not measure change exclusively. d. It is based on a biased sample. 59. Elaine is thinking about an upcoming event that she is worried about, and she is thinking about who she can

call to help her. What type of appraisal is Elaine conducting? a. offensive b. defensive c. secondary d. primary 60. Which of the following is the most stressful event, according to the Social Readjustment Rating Scale? a. trouble with the in-laws b. change in sleeping habits c. retirement d. marriage 61. What is the term used to describe active efforts to master, reduce, or tolerate the demands created by stress? a. coping b. resisting c. defending d. aggressing 62. Fred was just asked to be the master of ceremonies at his brother’s wedding. Public speaking terrifies him,

so he perceives this as a very stressful event. What type of appraisal is Fred conducting? a. secondary b. primary c. offensive d. defensive

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 63. Thelma goes to a nightclub and flirts with dozens of men whenever she feels neglected and ignored by her

husband. What coping mechanism would Freud suggest that Thelma is using, in this example? a. overcompensation b. undoing c. fantasy d. intellectualization 64. Which form of self-indulgence has been recently added to the DSM-5 as a topic for further research? a. catharsis b. binge eating c. gambling d. Internet use 65. Kyle is extremely ambitious. He has been in his current job for 12 months, and he has told everyone that if he

doesn’t get a promotion at his next evaluation he will move on. He is always in a hurry and impatient with coworkers who don’t have their work done on time. He spends long hours at work, coming in early and staying late. Which of the following best describes Kyle? a. antisocial personality disorder b. dependent personality disorder c. Type A personality d. Type B personality 66. The football team made a big comeback in the second half of the game. All that their kicker needed to do

was kick a field goal, and they would win the game by two points. Unfortunately, the kicker missed, and they lost the game. What did the coach most likely experience, as he watched the kick go wide? a. frustration b. burnout c. pressure d. conflict

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1

Lacey Lacey just started a new job. She’s adjusting to working in a different place, with new co-workers and an increased amount of responsibility. She really enjoys her new job, but some of the changes are aggravating. For example, in order to get to her new job, she has to transfer from one bus line to another, and there are often delays at the transfer point. Lacey has started dealing with this delay by playing games on her phone. That way she always has something entertaining to do when she has to wait. Before she had games on her phone, Lacey would often find herself sitting on the bench getting angrier and angrier about the delay. By the time she got to work, she would have herself worked up into such a state that she would snap at her coworkers. She sat down with her boyfriend one night to brainstorm about ways that she could prevent herself from getting so angry. Her boyfriend pointed out that it was probably her boredom that made her so upset. That’s when she decided on the games. Now that she has a way to deal with the delay, Lacey also finds that she doesn’t get as many headaches as she used to. 67. What would happen to Lacey’s score on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale as a result of getting a great new job? a. It would go up. b. It would go up if she perceives the job to be stressful. c. It would go down. d. It would stay the same. 68. Which of the following coping strategies is more likely to be expressed by a pessimist? a. taking action b. denial c. persistence d. fantasy 69. How do Asians and Americans differ in terms of their use of social support during times of stress? a. Americans are individualistic and tend not to benefit from social support b. Asians are collectivistic and tend to solicit social support from others c. Americans prefer implicit support, while Asians prefer explicit support d. Asians prefer implicit support, while Americans prefer explicit support 70. Fiona was recently divorced from her husband after he had an extramarital affair. What should Fiona do in

order to experience lower levels of anxiety and depression, based on research of hostility management? a. Remarry within 12 months of her divorce. b. Forgive her former husband. c. Openly confront her former husband about her feelings of betrayal. d. Avoid all further contact with her former husband.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 71. Pete is the lead prosecution attorney in a murder case. So far the case has not been going well for him, and

the defence attorneys have presented effective rebuttals for most of the points he has raised. The judge adjourned the case for the weekend, and Pete will have to present his closing arguments first thing Monday morning. While he is trying to write his closing statement, he daydreams about a surprise eyewitness to the crime suddenly stepping forward and clinching the case for him. Which processes are illustrated by this example? a. He is experiencing conflict, and he is using undoing to deal with the anxiety the conflict has generated. b. He is experiencing frustration, and he is using fantasy to deal with the anxiety the frustration has generated. c. He is experiencing frustration, and he is using intellectualization to deal with the anxiety the frustration has generated. d. He is experiencing conflict, and he is using overcompensation to deal with the anxiety the conflict has generated. 72. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding HIV and AIDS? a. Sexually active heterosexuals underestimate their risk for HIV infection. b. Due to recent efforts to educate the public, misconceptions about AIDS have nearly disappeared. c. Many people underestimate the risk of contracting the HIV virus through casual contact with infected

individuals. d. Taking high doses of immunosuppressants can successfully treat HIV infections and prevent AIDS from developing. 73. Which of the following is NOT one of the concerns of health psychology? a. refinements to the diagnostic process b. promotion and maintenance of health c. prevention of illness d. causation and treatment of illness 74. In general, what is the least stressful conflict? a. avoidance-avoidance b. double approach-avoidance c. approach-approach d. approach-avoidance

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 75. Which of the following has been demonstrated by studies on the effects of social support on health and

survival? a. Social support may improve stress reactions, but not physiological reactions. b. Social support leads individuals to perceive that they are less stressed than they really are, and they will underestimate the health consequences of their stress. c. Social support has positive effects on quality of life but not on survival. d. Having strong social support increases the odds of survival. 76. Which of the following terms is defined by demands or expectations to behave in a certain way? a. frustration b. stress c. pressure d. conflict 77. Gina has made it to the final round in a game show. She must now choose between a fantastic all-expenses-

paid trip to Greece or a new SUV. Gina wants both of them very badly! What type of conflict is Gina facing as she tries to decide between the two available alternatives? a. approach-approach b. appetitive-frustration c. frustration-pressure d. approach-avoidance 78. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Type A individuals? a. They are easygoing and sociable. b. They feel there’s never enough time to get everything done. c. They are strongly achievement motivated. d. They are competitive. 79. Your text emphasizes that one’s physical health and illness is influenced by a complex array of psychological,

biological, and social factors. Which of your text’s unifying themes does this reality illustrate? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 80. Which of the following would NOT qualify as a frustrating event? a. having trouble deciding between two items on a menu b. getting a “B” on an exam when you wanted an “A” c. finding that your car has not yet been repaired even though you left it hours ago d. being stuck in traffic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 81. What is the term for disturbed behaviour that occurs after a major stressful event? a. burnout b. coping mechanism c. catharsis d. post-traumatic stress disorder 82. What effect does stress appear to have on the human immune system? a. It can lead to decreased levels of immune activity. b. It decreases autonomic nervous system function. c. It can lead to increased levels of immune activity. d. It has very little effect on immune activity. 83. Stein conducted an interview study of 1,000 individuals in Winnipeg regarding their experiences with trauma.

What did he find? a. A majority of men had experienced at least one highly traumatic event, typically a natural disaster. b. A minority of individuals had experienced at least one highly traumatic event. c. A majority of women had experienced at least one highly traumatic event, typically a robbery. d. A majority of individuals had experienced at least one highly traumatic event. 84. What is the name that Hans Selye gave to the body’s response to stress? a. defensive coping b. fight-or-flight response c. catharsis d. general adaptation syndrome 85. Leigh works as an accountant and has to complete complex reports for each of her clients. Adriana works in

a factory where she performs fairly simple repetitive tasks. If both women have high levels of arousal, what will happen to their job performance? a. Both Leigh and Adriana will show significant impairment in the performance of their respective jobs. b. Leigh’s performance will be impaired more than Adriana’s performance. c. Adriana’s performance will be impaired more than Leigh’s performance. d. Neither Leigh nor Adriana will show any impairment in the performance of their respective jobs. 86. According to Freud, what defence mechanism is being used when an individual copes with stressful situations

by trying to atone for unacceptable desires or behaviours? a. intellectualization b. undoing c. overcompensation d. fantasy

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 87. After years of planning, Miranda finally started her own business. The day that her store was to open, a huge

storm knocked out all the power in town. Which of the following is Miranda likely experiencing as she waits for the power to come back? a. frustration b. conflict c. burnout d. pressure 88. According to Hans Selye’s general adaptation syndrome, what is the stage in which the body appears to be

functioning efficiently, although in actuality arousal may continue to be higher than normal? a. exhaustion b. resistance c. alarm d. maintenance 89. What is learned helplessness? a. a release of emotional tension that often accompanies stress b. protecting oneself from unpleasant situations by refusing to acknowledge them c. passive behaviour produced by exposure to unavoidable aversive events d. atoning for unacceptable unconscious drives or impulses in socially acceptable ways 90. A teenager who regularly engages in masturbation, but feels very guilty about it, touches a religious icon

exactly 10 times after each act of masturbation. Which coping mechanism would Freud suggest is being used in this example? a. fantasy b. undoing c. overcompensation d. denial 91. Mason is already late for an appointment when he nearly runs out of gas. At the gas station, he drips gas on

his new shoes and there are no paper towels in the dispenser. Then his machine wouldn’t read his credit card, so he had to pay cash. When Mason finally pulls out of the service station, the traffic is crawling because of an accident. What do we know about effects of inconveniences of this type? a. They usually create avoidance-avoidance conflicts. b. They are stressful only to individuals with a Type A personality. c. They are such routine hassles that they are not perceived as stressful. d. They can often have a significant effect on physical and mental health.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 92. Which of the following represents the relationship between alcohol consumption and health outcomes? a. Those who avoid alcohol have the best health outcomes. b. Those who consume alcohol have the best health outcomes. c. Moderate alcohol consumption provides cardiovascular benefits, but higher consumption leads to

poorer health. d. Alcohol consumption is uncorrelated with health outcomes. 93. Chelsey was just startled by a spider. Which of the following reactions will be elicited by Chelsey’s fight-or-

flight response? a. a reduction in breathing, heart rate, and digestive processes b. an acceleration in breathing and heart rate and a reduction in digestive processes c. a reduction in breathing and heart rate and an acceleration in digestive processes d. an acceleration in breathing, heart rate, and digestive processes 94. What did Hans Selye believe about the body’s reactions to stressful situations? a. They are specific to the type of stressor involved. b. They cannot be generalized across individuals. c. They are the same regardless of the stressor. d. They vary across the life span. 95. Leonard has a job with a small company where he gets along well with everyone, and he has 15 years of

seniority. Recently, a competitor called to offer him a job that would pay more money, but where he would be starting over, with no seniority. What type of conflict is Leonard facing? a. no-win b. frustration-pressure c. approach-avoidance d. approach-approach 96. Kelsey works as an emergency dispatcher. She thought the job would be exciting, but it has turned out to be

more stressful than exciting. She works long hours and seldom receives any recognition. The only time people seem to notice what she does is when the emergency units are slow in responding. She has become disillusioned with her job, and she often calls in sick. What is Kelsey experiencing in this case? a. post-traumatic stress disorder b. amotivational syndrome c. general adaptation syndrome d. burnout

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 97. In Holmes and Rahe’s study of stress and vulnerability to illness, which of the following types of events was a

major stress for most people? a. change in one’s life that require readjustment b. failure c. a life event involving loss d. only a life change the person sees as negative 98. What is the purpose of defence mechanisms, according to Freudian theory? a. to constructively cope with stress b. to work through problems c. to enhance self-insight d. to deceive oneself 99. Which of the following was NOT cited in the text as a factor that promotes relaxation? a. being in a comfortable position b. focusing on a constant stimulus c. fantasizing about future accomplishments d. developing a passive attitude 100. In the Featured Study on the relationship between depression and heart disease, what evidence did the

authors use to support their assertion that depression increases the risk of heart disease, rather than suggesting that it is heart disease that causes depression? a. Depression was a stronger predictor of mortality than was heart disease. b. In many cases, depression preceded development of heart disease. c. Depression was associated with greater mortality only among those without pre-existing heart problems. d. Symptoms of depression were found only in people who did not have heart disease. 101. Which of the following is a reason that the field of health psychology has emerged? a. Being ill affects mood, and we need to understand this unidirectional effect. b. It is now well-known that many diseases have neurological origins. c. Our modern focus on health includes prevention, not just treating existing illness. d. Diseases such as AIDS can have a serious impact on cognitive functioning. 102. Which of the following individuals is most likely to have a tend-and-befriend response? a. a calm, contented female b. a stressed female c. a stressed male d. a calm, contented male

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 103. Steve has a headache and some muscle stiffness, but he shrugs these symptoms off as a minor inconvenience.

Micah has a headache and some muscle stiffness and is so concerned that he rushes himself to the urgent care centre of the local medical clinic. How would Steve likely score, relative to Micah, on tests of anxiety and neuroticism? a. higher in anxiety and neuroticism b. lower in anxiety and neuroticism c. lower in anxiety and higher in neuroticism d. higher in anxiety and lower in neuroticism 104. Which of the following terms represents the idea that emotional tension can be released through behaviour in

an adaptive manner? a. catharsis b. an unconditioned response c. the safety-valve effect d. displacement 105. What does the term “frustration” refer to, in the context of stress research? a. being caught between two incompatible motives b. being expected to live up to high standards of performance c. the most frequent emotional response to aggression d. being blocked in the pursuit of a desired goal 106. Which term best describes Lacey’s stress associated with repeated bus delays? a. frustration b. hazard c. conflict d. pressure 107. Which component of Type A personality is most strongly linked to the risk of coronary heart disease? a. low self-esteem b. anger and hostility c. competitiveness d. impatience and time urgency 108. Which therapeutic technique focuses on altering a client’s patterns of irrational thinking to reduce maladaptive

emotions and behaviour? a. self-monitoring therapy b. constructive coping therapy c. behavioural therapy d. rational-emotive therapy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 109. What level of arousal is optimal for completing simple tasks? a. always depends on the skill of the individual b. low level c. moderate level d. high level 110. Shelagh is feeling really stressed. Nothing out of the ordinary is going on, but she still feels like she’s having a

difficult time coping. It seems like all the little things are making her more stressed than they should—things like remembering to take out the recycling, the barking of the dog next door, and having to choose a dress for her cousin’s wedding next week. Aubrey has all the same things going on in her life, but she is not feeling stressed at all. Why might Shelagh feel stressed, even though there are no major threats to her well-being? a. Minor stressors elicit larger responses than major stressors, on average, so it is Aubrey’s response that is unusual, not Shelagh’s. b. The stressors that Shelagh is experiencing are actually more severe than the ones experienced by Aubrey. c. Response to stress depends on many factors, including the type of stress, biological factors within Shelagh, and Shelagh’s history of stress. d. Shelagh likely has an anxiety disorder. 111. Mika is helping her grandmother choose a new apartment complex. There are two in particular that are at the

top of her list. Whispering Pines has a weekly poker tournament, a low-impact aerobics class, and a dance every Friday night. Riverbend Hollow has a pottery class, a choir, and a book club. Which one would be best for reducing her mortality risk, according to research by Blair and colleagues? a. Whispering Pines, because of all the exercise opportunities. b. Both are equally good, because they have social opportunities. c. Riverbend Hollow, because of all the artistic opportunities. d. Neither. Mika’s grandmother would be better off living with family. 112. Sylvester used to keep track of his calorie consumption and fat grams on a daily basis when he was in his

early twenties. When he was in his thirties, he still counted calories during the week, but he tended to pay less attention to what he ate on weekends. Now that he is in his forties, Sylvester no longer keeps track of the number of calories or fat grams in the foods that he eats. Which trend is illustrated by Sylvester’s pattern of behaviour? a. Risks associated with health-impairing behaviours are often overstated in the media. b. Men are more likely than women to develop health-impairing habits. c. Many health-impairing habits creep up on people. d. The risks associated with health-impairing behaviours tend to lie in the distant future.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 113. Megan is voting in a city referendum. If the referendum passes there will be better services available for all the

city residents, but it will also mean that residents will pay increased property taxes. What type of conflict is Megan facing? a. approach-approach b. frustration-pressure c. no-win d. approach-avoidance 114. Jan’s husband usually gets home after midnight when he often smells of perfume and his clothes are

dishevelled. Several of Jan’s friends have told her she should divorce her husband because he is obviously having an affair. However, Jan is convinced he is working late at the office every night so that they will have enough money to buy their dream house. Which coping mechanism does this illustrate? a. overcompensation b. undoing c. denial of reality d. displacement 115. Sherman’s house was almost completely destroyed by fire last week. As he walked through the charred

remains with the insurance adjuster, Sherman joked and said, “It’s too bad that the only thing that wasn’t destroyed is that ugly lamp.” How would researchers like McCrae characterize Sherman’s use of humour in this situation? a. It is an example of overcompensation and intellectualization. b. It will likely cause him to experience stress-rebound in the future. c. It can help to redefine the situation in a less threatening way. d. It will prevent post-traumatic stress disorder. 116. According to the definition of stress, which of the following would NOT necessarily be considered stress? a. You ask someone out on a date, and feel quite happy about the answer. b. A friend brings over her pet kitten, and you find the little beast irritating. c. You see a man with a knife in front of you, and you freeze in fear. d. You witness a car accident in which you were not involved, and it leaves you too shaken to drive. 117. Imagine that a researcher publishes the results from a study, and the results indicate that there is a statistically

significant association between sleep deprivation and coronary disease. What does it mean to say that the results are statistically significant? a. Sleep deprivation causes coronary disease. b. The findings are not likely to be due to chance fluctuations. c. The effect of sleep deprivation on coronary disease is larger than the effect of any other factor. d. Coronary disease causes sleep deprivation.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 118. Natasha has typically found that when she sees her doctor, she doesn’t think of important questions until after

she leaves, and she feels as if her doctor doesn’t understand her concerns. What should Natasha do in order to improve her communication with her doctor? a. Avoid being overly candid in replying to the doctor’s questions. b. Be more passive in her use of medical services. c. Prepare her questions in advance and not be embarrassed about getting clarification. d. Find another doctor who is the same age as Natasha. 119. What does research have to say about the general effect of everyday problems and the minor nuisances of

life? a. Minor stresses produce minor effects. b. Minor stresses may have significant harmful effects on both physical and mental health. c. Minor stresses often have significant harmful effects on mental health, but don’t affect physical health. d. Minor stresses have negative effects only when coupled with major stresses. 120. Mary and John are teaming up to make an important sales presentation to 15 executives from a Fortune 500

company. Mary finds the challenge exhilarating, but John is a nervous wreck over the presentation. Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by their differing reactions? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. 121. What have Pennebaker and his colleagues demonstrated about the acts of talking or writing about stressful

experiences? a. Talking or writing about stress leads to a sense of well-being in the short term, but leads to rumination in the long term. b. Talking about stress events has beneficial effects, but writing about them has no impact. c. Talking or writing about traumatic events increases overall stress levels. d. Talking or writing about traumatic events can have beneficial effects. 122. Sonja used to work out five days a week when she was in her late teens. In her twenties, she worked out

three days a week. Now she is in her forties, and she seems to work out only when she has the time. Which of the following trends does Sonja’s pattern of behaviour illustrate? a. Many health-impairing habits creep up on us. b. People underestimate the risks associated with their health-impairing behaviours. c. The risks associated with health-impairing habits tend to lie in the distant future. d. Many health-impairing habits involve activities that are quite pleasant at the time.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 123. According to a study by Weiten, which of the following is associated with more symptoms of psychological

distress? a. pressure b. life changes c. constructive coping style d. approach-approach conflict 124. Which of the following controls the fight-or-flight response as a physiological reaction to a threat? a. thalamus b. autonomic nervous system c. pyramidal system d. central nervous system 125. Which of the following themes associated with your text does the fact that stress lies in the eye of the

beholder illustrate? a. multifactorial causation b. empiricism c. psychology in a sociohistorical context d. subjectivity of experience 126. Which of the following symptoms should be most worrying in a patient with pre-existing symptoms of heart

disease, based on the results of the Featured Study that examined risk factors for death related to heart disease? a. hunger b. agitation c. insomnia d. depression 127. Dionne is trapped in an elevator that is stuck between floors of an office building. As maintenance workers

try to restart the elevator, it suddenly drops several centimetres before becoming stuck once more. As the elevator drops, Dionne’s sympathetic nervous system is activated. What happens next? a. The adrenal cortex will begin to release large amounts of catecholamines. b. The adrenal medulla will begin to release corticosteroids. c. The amygdala will slow the release of acetylcholine. d. The adrenal medulla will begin to release large amounts of catecholamines.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 128. Which of the following is supported by evidence on the benefits of exercise for reduction of disease risk? a. Competitive sports are best, because the focus on winning leads to the most adaptive responses. b. High amounts of exercise will make you immune to stress. c. Maintaining an exercise regimen is important for young adults, but the benefits decline as we age. d. Moderate amounts of exercise reduce your overall risk of disease. 129. Jim always comes to the office early, argues his position aggressively during meetings, and frequently feels

frustrated when things don’t go his way. Which of the following describes Jim? a. Type II self-punishment pattern b. Type B personality c. Type I cardiac risk d. Type A personality 130. Dustin’s car skidded on the icy road, and crossed over into the wrong lane. He could see the headlights of

rapidly approaching, oncoming traffic. His entire body became energized. His heart rate and respiration increased, and he began to sweat. What was Dustin experiencing, according to Selye’s general adaptation syndrome? a. an alarm reaction b. physiological exhaustion c. autonomic rebound d. a resistance reaction 131. Which of the following is NOT typically a reason for noncompliance with medical advice? a. having a negative attitude toward physicians b. the degree of difficulty associated with following advice or instructions c. failing to understand advice or instructions d. patients’ personality traits 132. Julie’s father borrowed her car to run some errands. When he returned the car, the taillight was broken. Julie

was angry, but she didn’t say anything to her father. Later, when her son dropped cookie crumbs on the floor, Julie yelled at him and sent him to his room. Which of the following concepts does Julie’s behaviour toward her son illustrate? a. displacement b. self-indulgence c. undoing d. overcompensation

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 133. Ted is very agitated about an upcoming presentation that he must give. His roommate doesn’t understand

why Ted is nervous because presentations are no big deal. Which of the following statements does this example illustrate? a. When it comes to stress, humans tend not to feel empathy. b. Our appraisals of stressful events are highly subjective. c. Strong-minded persons are better able to handle stressful events than weak-minded ones. d. Our appraisals of stressful events are basically objective. 134. Luigi knows that research has determined that smoking increases the risk of various types of cancers;

however, he is sure he won’t develop cancer. What does Luigi’s pattern of behaviour illustrate? a. People often underestimate the risks associated with their own health-impairing behaviours. b. Many health-impairing habits creep up on us. c. People tend to rationalize high-risk behaviours by pointing out healthy habits that offset their unhealthy habits. d. People believe the risks associated with health-impairing habits are overstated by media sources. 135. Why might minor stresses be more strongly related to mental health than major stressful events? a. We feel more out of control with minor stresses than we do with major stresses. b. We are much more intimately involved with minor stresses. c. Minor stresses lead to more intense physiological arousal than major stresses. d. Minor stresses tend to add up and have cumulative effects. 136. Herbert Benson devised a simple procedure, called the relaxation response, which can have beneficial health

effects. When should it be practised to experience the full benefits? a. on a daily basis b. when traditional medical treatments produce no improvement c. whenever a person has to deal with a major stressor d. for a minimum of 50 minutes a day, three days per week 137. Valerie is doing homework for her statistics class. When she checks the answer she has just calculated for the

problem she has been working on, she finds it is incorrect. She is frustrated, and tells her roommate: “I don't know why I even try. I’ll never catch on in this course. I should just give up now.” What would Albert Ellis say that Valerie is engaged in? a. defensive coping b. mental disengagement c. reality-based coping d. catastrophic thinking

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 138. Which of the following represents the original frustration-aggression hypothesis put forth by Dollard and his

colleagues? a. Aggression is always caused by frustration. b. Frustration is always a consequence of aggression. c. Frustration is a factor only in aggressive behaviour for nonhuman species. d. Frustration causes males to be more aggressive than females. 139. What is the final stage of Hans Selye’s general adaptation syndrome, in which the organism’s resources for

fighting stress may be depleted? a. fatigue b. alarm c. resistance d. exhaustion 140. What are the two major pathways by which the brain may signal the endocrine system? a. circulatory and muscular systems b. autonomic and skeletal nervous systems c. pituitary gland and the autonomic nervous system d. parasympathetic and sympathetic systems 141. Which of the following is NOT a consequence associated with the release of catecholamines in the body? a. heart rate increases b. digestive processes speed up c. oxygen consumption increases d. visual sensitivity increases 142. Which of the following is NOT constructive coping? a. reliance on the use of defence mechanisms b. making reasonably realistic appraisals of your coping resources c. confronting a problem directly d. inhibiting emotional reactions to stress 143. Which of the following is likely among people with higher scores on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale? a. They react more negatively to stressful events. b. They cope more effectively with long-term stressors associated with change. c. They are more vulnerable to physical illness and psychological problems. d. They have a more external locus of control.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 144. What was the Social Readjustment Rating Scale designed specifically to measure? a. change b. aggression c. conflict d. control 145. Beryl has dated ten different men in the past two years, and with each of them she often had unprotected sex.

Even though she has read numerous articles about the dangers of unprotected sexual intercourse, Beryl is not concerned because she has convinced herself that she won’t contract any diseases. What does Beryl’s behaviour illustrate? a. Many people underestimate the risks associated with their own health-impairing behaviours. b. Women are more likely than men to engage in health-impairing habits. c. The risks associated with many health-impairing behaviours tend to be overstated by the media. d. Many people compensate for health-impairing behaviours by engaging in offsetting low-risk behaviours. 146. Melissa has an old car that needs repairs. She is trying to decide whether she should use the money she was

saving for a vacation to fix the car. If she fixes the car, she can’t go on vacation. If she goes on vacation, she won’t have reliable transportation. What type of conflict is Melissa facing as she tries to make her decision? a. approach-avoidance b. approach-approach c. pressure-frustration d. frustration-pressure 147. Which of the following is a personality characteristic that is correlated with good physical health? a. extraversion b. conscientiousness c. agreeableness d. openness 148. As Ivan’s car spun out of control, and into the path of oncoming traffic, his pituitary gland began to secrete

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). What happens next? a. The adrenal cortex will begin to release corticosteroids. b. The adrenal cortex will begin to release catecholamines. c. The amygdala will slow the release of acetylcholine. d. The adrenal medulla will begin to release corticosteroids.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 149. Which of the following themes associated with your text is illustrated by the number of variables involved in

the experience of stress? a. psychology in a sociohistorical context b. empiricism c. multifactorial causation d. subjectivity of experience 150. Which of the following relationships did the researchers find in the Featured Study that examined the

relationship between depression and heart disease? a. Heart disease increases the risk of depression. b. Trauma increases the risk of both depression and heart disease. c. Depression increases the risk of cardiac mortality. d. Depression causes heart disease. 151. Which of the following is the most accurate conclusion one can draw about Type A behaviour and the risk of

coronary heart disease? a. The Type A person is six times more likely to suffer from coronary heart disease than the Type B person. b. The Type A person is more resistant to coronary heart disease than the Type B person. c. The relationship between the two seems more modest than originally thought, with Type A behaviour increasing coronary risk only for some. d. As it turns out, there is actually very little connection between stress and coronary heart disease. 152. Which of the following is NOT a component of Lambert and Lambert’s concept of hardiness? a. commitment b. control c. challenge d. continuity 153. Which of the following has been supported by recent research evidence from studies that investigated the link

between depression and heart disease? a. The stress of living with heart disease may cause the onset of depression. b. Depression and heart disease are both caused by the negative effects of smoking. c. Depression and heart disease are not correlated with each other. d. The emotional dysfunction of depression may cause heart disease.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 154. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about burnout? a. It is most apt to result from long-term or chronic stress. b. It usually develops in individuals with untreated post-traumatic stress disorder. c. It is typically the precursor to full-blown post-traumatic stress disorder. d. It results mainly from a few highly traumatic events. 155. Theresa loves to eat cake but at the same time fears becoming overweight. What is she experiencing? a. frustration-pressure response b. fight-or-flight response c. approach-avoidance conflict d. avoidance-avoidance conflict 156. Which of the following is true of finding humour in a stressful situation? a. It is an irrational reaction to a serious situation that requires a rational response. b. It is a counterproductive way of reducing stress. c. It can help to reduce stress by discharging pent-up emotions. d. It ignores the reality of the situation and makes it difficult to combat stress. 157. The cruel jailer walks in and offers you the choice of being whipped or clubbed as your form of punishment

for the day. Which of the following are you experiencing, assuming that neither alternative appeals to you? a. an avoidance-avoidance conflict b. an approach-avoidance conflict c. an approach-approach conflict d. a thrill at being given a choice 158. Which of the following is true of emotional responses to stress? a. They are always negative emotions. b. They typically alternate between positive and negative emotions. c. They are more intense in women than in men. d. They may be either positive or negative emotions. 159. Which of the following statements about risk factors for atherosclerosis is NOT accurate? a. High blood pressure is one of the established risk factors for atherosclerosis. b. Having elevated cholesterol levels increases the risk of developing atherosclerosis. c. Atherosclerosis is more prevalent in women than in men. d. The risk for developing atherosclerosis increases with age.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 160. Mei is studying very hard for exams and feels quite stressed. She is finding it difficult to focus and pay

attention. Which area of her brain is likely underactive as a consequence of stress? a. limbic system b. brain stem c. prefrontal cortex d. hypothalamus 161. What is the term used to describe having someone to rely on, provide you with emotional support, and help

you preserve your health? a. optimism b. locus of control c. social support d. therapy 162. Clarice was in a meeting with several other employees when her boss started to criticize her proposal.

Clarice’s heart rate and respiration increased, and she could feel her face and hands become flushed and red. What was Clarice experiencing, according to Selye’s general adaptation syndrome? a. physiological exhaustion b. an alarm reaction c. autonomic rebound d. a resistance reaction 163. Why is it a problem that some individuals tend to delay medical assessment? a. It reduces the rapport between physicians and patients. b. It leads to backlogs in emergency rooms when people finally do seek consultation. c. It reduces the likelihood of early diagnosis and effective treatment. d. It leads to an increase in the use of homeopathic therapies that are dangerous. 164. What type of conflict are you experiencing when you find yourself “caught between a rock and a hard

place”? a. avoidance-avoidance b. approach-approach c. approach-avoidance d. double approach-avoidance

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 165. Alan is a socially inept man who imagines that he is secretly admired by women who all wish he would

seduce them. What defence mechanism does this illustrate? a. substitution b. denial of reality c. fantasy d. intellectualization 166. Rosemary recently married her high school sweetheart, and they moved into a wonderful new condominium.

A week after the move, Rosemary was offered a job that she had been hoping she would get. At this point, Rosemary can’t imagine being any happier. What is Rosemary experiencing according to her score on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale? a. a high level of stress b. an approach-approach conflict c. overcompensation d. little or no stress 167. What is the average amount of time that Canadian children spend in after-school physical activity? a. 14 minutes b. 45 minutes c. 1.4 hours d. 1 hour and 45 minutes 168. Which type of conflict tends to result in behavioural vacillation? a. avoidance-avoidance b. approach-avoidance c. approach-approach d. no-win 169. Garret is frustrated and angry when his request for a pay raise is turned down. After work, Garret goes to his

gym and hits the punching bag for 10 minutes. Garret finds that he feels less tense and wound up after his workout. What concept does this example illustrate? a. undoing b. overcompensation c. denial d. catharsis

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 170. Whenever Paris feels particularly stressed or frustrated, she tends to engage in what she calls “retail therapy”

where she heads to the mall and spends a great deal of money on a wide variety of clothes, and other treats for herself. What is Paris’s favourite coping method called? a. displacement b. self-indulgence c. behavioural disengagement d. catharsis 171. What is the term used by Benson to describe what you will feel if you settle yourself comfortably in a

distraction-free environment, focus your attention on a constant stimulus, and adopt a passive attitude? a. hypnotic trance b. relaxation response c. psychological disinhibition d. altered state of consciousness 172. Emily is easy-going and relaxed. She doesn’t tend to rush through her work, but she always gets things done.

She’s very even-tempered and doesn’t anger very easily. Which of the following best describes Emily? a. Type B personality b. Type A personality c. constructive personality d. prosocial personality 173. Which of the following statements regarding the fight-or-flight response is LEAST accurate? a. Fight-or-flight is an adaptive response for most members of the animal kingdom. b. This autonomic response is most likely a “leftover” from humankind’s evolutionary past. c. Most modern current human stressors cannot be handled through fighting or fleeing. d. Human stresses generally pass too quickly for the fight-or-flight response to be an effective coping

mechanism. 174. There is one week left in the semester, and Andre has put off working on his five term papers. Although it has

always taken him three to four days to write a single term paper, Andre is convinced that he can write all five papers in the week that remains. What coping strategy does Andre engage in, in this instance? a. intellectualization b. denial of reality c. self-indulgence d. overcompensation

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 175. Which of the following statements regarding the connection between social support and wellness is most

accurate? a. Social support provides more benefits for the elderly. b. Social support typically has negative effects in the absence of stress. c. Social support is a buffer only for people with stress-related illnesses. d. Social support can serve as a buffer in times of high stress. 176. Stress often contributes to the onset of full-fledged psychological disorders. Which of the following disorders

has NOT been linked to stress? a. schizophrenia b. antisocial personality disorder c. eating disorders d. depression 177. What is the principle cause of coronary heart disease? a. atherosclerosis b. burnout c. diabetes d. perinatal damage 178. After Mike was cut off in traffic, he followed the person who cut him off and put a dent in her car. Which of

the following will Mike likely experience after this action? a. rumination and negative emotions b. catharsis and emotional release c. reduction in residual feelings of hostility d. increased life satisfaction 179. Which of the following is supported by current research on change and stress? a. Too much change of any kind automatically makes one more vulnerable to physical and psychological

problems. b. Keeping change to a minimum is an effective way to avoid the harmful effects of stress. c. Change is not inherently or inevitably stressful. d. Both positive and negative changes are equally stressful. 180. What is most likely to happen when people who are confronted by stressful situations engage in self-blame? a. They show evidence of catharsis or displaced aggression. b. They make their stress reactions worse. c. They find that their social support networks are strengthened. d. They experience a decrease in their overall level of autonomic arousal.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 181. Which of the following is true about the optimal level of arousal for task performance? a. It is about the same from one task to another. b. It relates more to personal makeup than to the task. c. It decreases as the tasks become more complex. d. It increases as the tasks become more complex. 182. As a result of changes in the way that health professionals think about physical illness over the last few

decades, which of the following models of illness has become dominant? a. treatment and prevention b. psychosomatic c. biopsychosocial d. immunology 183. Bertram was on death row awaiting execution. He refused to allow any appeals on his behalf, and he insisted

that the law be followed exactly. Which coping mechanism does this illustrate? a. overcompensation b. fantasy c. intellectualization d. undoing 184. You tell yourself that you will never be happy again now that your significant other has ended the relationship.

What would Albert Ellis call this type of thinking? a. catharsis b. catastrophic thinking c. primary appraisal d. calamitous thinking 185. What type of research design did the researchers use in the Featured Study that examined the relationship

between depression and heart disease? a. longitudinal b. case study c. cross-sectional d. experimental 186. A number of students often develop colds and other minor illnesses during final exam week. Why does this

happen, based on the research into the physical responses to stress? a. Stress raises the level of cholesterol in the students’ blood. b. Stress lowers the level of cortisol in the students’ blood. c. Stress reduces the level of immune system activity. d. Stress raises the level of neuropeptides and amino acids. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 187. Most of Conrad’s friends consider him to be highly neurotic. Which of the following is also likely to be true

about Conrad compared to his friends? a. He is more likely to perceive events as stressful. b. He is less likely to use defensive coping strategies. c. He is less likely to perceive events as stressful. d. He is more likely to “choke” under pressure. 188. Which of the following is true of coping responses in dealing with stress? a. They are not “coping” unless they are adaptive. b. They are typically maladaptive. c. They are typically adaptive. d. They may be adaptive or maladaptive. 189. Mickey is an impatient, highly competitive individual who is easily provoked into angry confrontations. He is

suspicious and distrusting of most of the people he works with. What is Mickey at risk for, according to research conducted by Friedman and Rosenman? a. ulcers and stomach disorders b. asthma and other respiratory ailments c. high blood pressure and coronary heart disease d. a number of different types of cancer 190. You have just come face to face with a bear on your walk through the woods. In which stage of the general

adaptation syndrome does your body automatically mobilize itself for action? a. exhaustion b. alarm c. resistance d. coping 191. Martin knows that excessive exposure to the sun can increase a person’s risk of skin cancer and cataracts.

However, he can’t resist getting out and enjoying a sunny day, and putting on sunblock seems to him to be a major inconvenience. Which trend does Martin’s current pattern of behaviour illustrate? a. The risks associated with health-impairing habits tend to lie in the distant future. b. People tend to rationalize high-risk behaviours by pointing out healthy habits that offset their unhealthy habits. c. People often overestimate the risks associated with their own health-impairing behaviours. d. Many health-impairing habits creep up on us.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 192. Which of the following has been shown to increase the risk of such chronic diseases as lung cancer,

emphysema, and stroke? a. obesity b. poor nutrition c. lack of exercise d. smoking 193. What happens when the adrenal medulla is stimulated? a. Corticosteroids are absorbed by the adrenal glands. b. Large amounts of catecholamines are released into the bloodstream. c. The parasympathetic nervous system is activated. d. The hormone AH is secreted. 194. Which of the following is the most common mode of HIV transmission? a. Male-to-female transmission b. Male-to-male transmission c. Mother–to-child transmission d. Female-to-male transmission 195. Scott and Victoria are arguing about whether learned helplessness is a more productive coping style than

behavioural disengagement. If you wanted to settle this argument, what should you tell them? a. Both styles are adaptive, and lead to reduced stress. b. They are merely two terms for the same coping style. c. Both styles are maladaptive, and lead to more stress. d. Neither style has been studied enough to have conclusive evidence. 196. According to Baumeister, the pressure to perform can elevate self-consciousness. How does self-

consciousness lead to impaired performance? a. It causes us to perform too automatically. b. It creates an approach-avoidance conflict. c. It activates our autonomic nervous system. d. It diverts attention from the demands of the task. 197. Which of the following happens when people give up smoking? a. Their risk of pulmonary disease declines, but their risk of cardiovascular disease increases. b. Their health risks never decline to the level of those who never smoked. c. Their overall health risks decline reasonably quickly. d. Their risk of cardiovascular disease declines, but their risk of pulmonary disease increases.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 198. Which of the following is true about the frequency and effects of traumatic events? a. They are somewhat common, but because there is no psychological response to most traumas, it goes

unreported. b. They are very rare, and healthy individuals will recover quickly from them. c. They are somewhat common and are associated with psychological distress. d. They are relatively unusual, but always result in flashbacks. Lacey Lacey just started a new job. She’s adjusting to working in a different place, with new co-workers and an increased amount of responsibility. She really enjoys her new job, but some of the changes are aggravating. For example, in order to get to her new job, she has to transfer from one bus line to another, and there are often delays at the transfer point. Lacey has started dealing with this delay by playing games on her phone. That way she always has something entertaining to do when she has to wait. Before she had games on her phone, Lacey would often find herself sitting on the bench getting angrier and angrier about the delay. By the time she got to work, she would have herself worked up into such a state that she would snap at her coworkers. She sat down with her boyfriend one night to brainstorm about ways that she could prevent herself from getting so angry. Her boyfriend pointed out that it was probably her boredom that made her so upset. That’s when she decided on the games. Now that she has a way to deal with the delay, Lacey also finds that she doesn’t get as many headaches as she used to. 199. What does Lacey snapping at her co-workers illustrate? a. approach-avoidance conflict b. avoidance-avoidance conflict c. the coping mechanism known as aggression d. the coping mechanism known as displacement 200. Brooke had been battling the rising floodwaters around her home for more than 72 hours. It seemed that no

matter how many sandbags she stacked, it wasn’t enough. At this point, she just feels that there is nothing else that she can do. Her overall energy reserves are totally depleted, and her body just wants to give up. What is Brooke experiencing according to Selye’s general adaptation syndrome? a. an alarm reaction b. physiological exhaustion c. a resistance reaction d. autonomic rebound

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 201. Jim is on the brink of flunking out of school. Instead of increasing his studying, he spends his time

daydreaming about how he’ll win the lottery so he won’t need a degree. Which processes are illustrated by this example? a. Jim is experiencing pressure and is engaging in vacillation. b. Jim is experiencing burnout and is engaging in overcompensation. c. Jim is experiencing frustration and is engaging in fantasy. d. Jim is experiencing conflict and is engaging in denial. 202. Winona has a ten-page term paper due first thing in the morning, and she has only completed five pages.

Which of the following is Winona most likely feeling? a. frustration b. burnout c. performance anxiety d. pressure 203. Which of the following is an example of an acute stressor? a. worry about your retirement savings b. the pressures associated with being a full-time student c. ongoing conflicts with your roommates about chores and bills d. nervousness about a presentation you have to give tomorrow 204. Steve was excited when he finally landed the lead role in a play. He has been rehearsing for the past two

months, but on the day that the play is scheduled to open, Steve awakens with a sore throat and is unable to speak. What is Steve most likely experiencing at this point? a. frustration b. conflict c. pressure d. burnout 205. Nora has just noticed a big scary dog running toward her. What is happening in her brain? a. Her pituitary gland activates the hypothalamus. b. Her cerebellum activates the autonomic nervous system. c. Her thalamus activates the pituitary gland. d. Her hypothalamus activates the sympathetic nervous system.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1

Lacey Lacey just started a new job. She’s adjusting to working in a different place, with new co-workers and an increased amount of responsibility. She really enjoys her new job, but some of the changes are aggravating. For example, in order to get to her new job, she has to transfer from one bus line to another, and there are often delays at the transfer point. Lacey has started dealing with this delay by playing games on her phone. That way she always has something entertaining to do when she has to wait. Before she had games on her phone, Lacey would often find herself sitting on the bench getting angrier and angrier about the delay. By the time she got to work, she would have herself worked up into such a state that she would snap at her coworkers. She sat down with her boyfriend one night to brainstorm about ways that she could prevent herself from getting so angry. Her boyfriend pointed out that it was probably her boredom that made her so upset. That’s when she decided on the games. Now that she has a way to deal with the delay, Lacey also finds that she doesn’t get as many headaches as she used to. 206. What is the term used to describe Lacey’s behaviour of recognizing a problem, confronting it, and finding a practical solution? a. constructive coping b. defensive coping c. general adaptation d. intellectualization 207. Christine is relatively relaxed, patient, easygoing, and amicable. Which of the following would Christine be

classified as having? a. internal locus of control b. external locus of control c. Type A personality d. Type B personality 208. Which of the following models states that physical illness is caused by a complex interaction of physical,

mental, and external factors? a. neuroimmunology b. behaviourist c. biopsychosocial d. medical

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 209. Many people believe that suicide represents the ultimate failure to cope with life’s stresses. Others feel that

suicide is, itself, a coping response. What do you think? Is one type of stress more likely to lead to suicide than others?

210. Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome using an example of a situation that might be expected to lead

to such a response. In addition, describe two constructive coping methods that would allow an individual in that situation to deal with the stressor.

211. Describe several recent occasions when you’ve experienced stress. For each case, identify the type(s) of

stress you experienced and whatever emotional, physiological, and/or behavioural responses to stress you made.

212. Do you have any favourite or habitual techniques for coping with stress? Explain how your techniques are

examples of the categories of coping from this chapter’s application (reappraisal, humour, emotional release, relaxation, lessening physiological vulnerability). Do you use any methods that don’t seem to fit into any of these categories?

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. c 8. a 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. d 26. d

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. b 31. b 32. b 33. a 34. c 35. a 36. d 37. c 38. d 39. a 40. c 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. d 45. d 46. d 47. d 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. b 52. a 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 55. a 56. d 57. c 58. c 59. c 60. d 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. d 65. c 66. a 67. a 68. b 69. d 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. a 74. c 75. d 76. c 77. a 78. a 79. c 80. a 81. d 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 83. d 84. d 85. b 86. b 87. a 88. b 89. c 90. b 91. d 92. d 93. b 94. c 95. c 96. d 97. a 98. d 99. c 100. b 101. c 102. b 103. b 104. a 105. d 106. a 107. b 108. d 109. d 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 111. a 112. c 113. d 114. c 115. c 116. a 117. b 118. c 119. b 120. d 121. d 122. a 123. a 124. b 125. d 126. d 127. d 128. d 129. d 130. a 131. d 132. a 133. b 134. a 135. d 136. a 137. d

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 138. a 139. d 140. c 141. b 142. a 143. c 144. a 145. a 146. a 147. b 148. a 149. c 150. c 151. c 152. d 153. d 154. a 155. c 156. c 157. a 158. d 159. c 160. c 161. c 162. b 163. c 164. a 165. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 166. a 167. a 168. b 169. d 170. b 171. b 172. a 173. d 174. b 175. d 176. b 177. a 178. a 179. c 180. b 181. c 182. c 183. c 184. b 185. a 186. c 187. a 188. d 189. c 190. b 191. a 192. d 193. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 194. a 195. b 196. d 197. c 198. c 199. d 200. b 201. c 202. d 203. d 204. a 205. d 206. a 207. d 208. c 209. Students should refer to the application on coping with stress and attempt to establish whether suicide fits the bill as

an example of constructive coping. To most, the answer will be “obviously not.” So the best answers will be those that go further in a creative and insightful way to explore possible arguments for suicide as a coping response, and/or those that thoughtfully explore the notion that suicide is the ultimate failure to cope. Answers should demonstrate understanding of the four types of stress, and provide well-reasoned arguments for one or more types being more likely (or not) to lead to suicide. 210. Examples will vary among students, but important details include (1) the alarm phase, which is essentially a fight-or-

flight response, very physiological; (2) the resistance phase, when physiological changes stabilize as coping sets in and performance, or dealing with the stressor, may appear to be completely under control; and (3) the exhaustion phase, where the body’s resources are depleted and the individual cannot function properly or fight off illness. Constructive coping methods include (1) being action oriented, or confronting problems directly; (2) being relatively realistic about your stress and your options/resources rather than being unrealistically positive OR negative; (3) learning to recognize and sometimes inhibiting disruptive emotional responses to stress; and (4) making efforts to ensure that your body is not vulnerable to the damaging effects of stress (healthy diet, get enough sleep, etc.).

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol 1 211. Students should accurately classify their examples according to the major types (frustration, conflict, change, and

pressure). In better answers, students will recognize that some of their examples contain elements of more than one type. Regarding responses to their examples of stress, patterns of responses described should be somewhat different for each example, and each response pattern should include elements from each of the response domains (emotional, physiological, and behavioural). 212. Ideally, students will provide an example from each, or several, of the coping categories, and their descriptions will

reflect accurate understanding of the categories. Some examples should be identified as containing elements of more than one category. For example, a student might describe talking with a friend as a way of coping with stress. This method could be seen as a vehicle for emotional release, and it could also lead to reappraisal. Quite likely, the mechanism of humour enters into this technique as well. In order to come up with a technique that doesn’t fit any of the categories, a student will probably need to be quite creative. Often when students claim that a particular technique doesn’t fit into one of the categories, it will be because they don’t thoroughly understand the categories.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Of the following individuals, who would be least likely to develop heart disease? a. Dennis, who is depressed b. Charles, who has high blood pressure and smokes c. Bill, who is a Type B personality d. Andrew, who is a Type A personality 2. The headline in The National Busybody reads “97-pound Mom lifts SUV off toddler.” Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome was Mom most likely in at the time? a. alarm reaction b. exhaustion c. recruitment d. resistance 3. What is associated with moderating or reducing the effects of stress? a. pessimism b. relaxation c. stoicism d. suppressing pent-up emotions 4. Which of the following life events is most stressful according to the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? a. committing minor violations of the law b. getting married c. experiencing a change in the health of a family member d. having trouble with your boss 5. Kim has three papers due and two exams to study for. She feels rather panicked about everything that she needs to accomplish. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Kim experiencing? a. exhaustion b. recovery c. alarm reaction d. resistance 6. When a person’s pursuit of a goal is blocked or thwarted, what does the person experience? a. frustration b. pressure c. conflict d. change 7. Which term is defined as the body’s defensive reaction to invasion by bacteria, viral agents, or other foreign substances? a. the recovery response b. the immune response c. offensive coping d. the general adaptation response 8. Which of the following decisions is most likely to lead to vacillation, or frequently changing your mind before the final decision? a. deciding between paying a speeding ticket or completing five hours of community service b. deciding whether to go out on a date with one of two people, both of whom you like c. choosing between doing the laundry or doing the dishes, both tasks being things you must do but would like to avoid d. deciding to go on a date with someone you really like but it will mean losing your best friend

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 9. What is the fight-or-flight response? a. a coping reaction to threat involving the parasympathetic nervous system b. a physiological reaction to threat involving the autonomic nervous system c. an emotional reaction to threat involving the central nervous system d. a behavioural reaction to threat involving the somatic nervous system 10. Imagine you read a brief newspaper article that states research has shown that eating grilled-cheese sandwiches is correlated with asthma. In evaluating whether you should give up the sandwiches, what is the one piece of additional information that would be most useful to you? a. What is the base rate of asthma? b. Is the difference large enough to have practical implications? c. Do scientists think there is a causal relationship between grilled-cheese sandwiches and asthma? d. Was the research conducted by a psychologist or medical doctor? 11. In which type of therapy would the therapist and client need to detect catastrophic thinking and dispute the irrational assumptions that cause it? a. rational emotive therapy b. relaxation therapy c. general adaptation therapy d. psychoanalytic therapy 12. Marie is in an abusive relationship which she has attempted to end on several occasions. Every time she tried to get away, her partner finds a way to stop her, threaten her, or talk her into staying. Nothing seems to be working and she feels she has exhausted all avenues for help. Marie has resigned herself to the situation and now no longer bothers to attempt to avoid his controlling behaviour. She has given up. What syndrome is Marie experiencing? a. battered woman syndrome b. learned helplessness c. histrionic personality disorder d. post-traumatic stress disorder 13. When noticeable alterations in a person’s living circumstances that require readjustment occur, what does the person experience? a. change b. conflict c. pressure d. frustration 14. Roommates Ava and Maryse both woke up yesterday with a headache, upset stomach, and muscle stiffness. While Ava was showering for her 9:00 a.m. class, Maryse rushed off to the health clinic to see a doctor. Which of the following is more likely of Maryse, compared to Ava? a. a lower level of anxiety and lower lever of neuroticism b. a lower level of anxiety and higher level of neuroticism c. a higher level of anxiety and lower level of neuroticism d. a higher level of anxiety and higher level of neuroticism

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 15. How does stress affect the immune system? a. Stress alters the immune system’s activity to defend against specific illnesses. b. Stress reduces the immune system’s activity initially, but then increases its activity after an adjustment period. c. Stress increases the immune system’s activity, thus providing more protection from illness. d. Stress reduces the immune system’s activity, thus causing the body to become more vulnerable to illness. 16. Which of the following can make relaxation efforts more effective? a. automatic response b. mindfulness meditation c. progressive meditation d. learned optimism 17. Next semester, John needs to take one required course to complete his history major. The two sections of the course are offered at 8:00 a.m. (not ideal for John who likes to sleep until 10:00 a.m.) and at noon with a boring professor usually referred to as Dr. Dull. As John decides on his schedule, what type of conflict does he experience? a. approach-approach conflict b. avoidance-avoidance conflict c. attack-avoidance conflict d. approach-avoidance conflict 18. What differs between acute and chronic stressors? a. physical reactions b. duration c. conscious awareness d. intensity 19. Deanna injured her knee and caused permanent damage that prevented her from enjoying her favourite sports. She had to decide whether she would have a painful knee surgery that would require a long recovery before she could have full use of her leg again. First, she decided to have the surgery, then she changed her mind and decided to just live without skiing and running. Next, she again decided to have the surgery. What is the term for Deanna’s reaction? a. incongruence b. vacillation c. approach-approach conflict d. avoidance-avoidance conflict 20. Zaina is shopping for a new car. She was planning to purchase a car she could afford if she takes out a small loan. She just looked at a car that she “fell in love with” but she would need to double the size of her car loan to buy it. As Zaina decides whether to purchase the more expensive car, what will she experience? a. approach-avoidance conflict b. approach-approach conflict c. attractive-unattractive conflict d. avoidance-avoidance conflict 21. Selena looked down at her feet and was startled to see a large poisonous snake. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome would Selena be experiencing at that moment? a. alarm reaction b. appraisal c. resistance d. exhaustion 22. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors which moderate or reduce the impact of stress? a. social support b. optimism, hardiness, and conscientiousness c. smoking d. stress mindset Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 23. Which of the following would be most likely to be studied by a psychologist who applies the biopsychosocial model? a. neural correlates of schizophrenia b. counselling techniques for families c. heritability estimates for personality traits d. how stress affects health and well-being 24. Quinn has experienced several stressors lately, including some worries about money, final exams, and the health of her brother. She has a very positive outlook on the future, however, and feels that things will get better. She keeps on working, and studying, and spending time helping her brother out. Which trait does this example illustrate? a. optimism b. fantasy c. overcompensation d. extraversion 25. Research has demonstrated that brief periods of mental stress can trigger sudden symptoms of heart disease in approximately what percentage of patients with stable heart disease? a. 5–10percent b. 10–30 percent c. 30–70 percent d. 85–95 percent 26. What is the main difference between the definition of “coping” in the textbook, and the usual way that people use the term “coping”? a. The typical use of the term is far more general and refers to a wider variety of responses. b. The textbook definition includes maladaptive methods of responding to stress. c. The typical use of the term does not distinguish between different stressors. d. The textbook definition includes physiological responding. 27. Imagine that you are helping a client deal with stress. The client has told you that if she doesn’t get a promotion soon, then her career will be over. Which response would be consistent with rational emotive therapy? a. “That must be really stressful for you.” b. “All you need is a good night’s sleep.” c. “You need to think positively and things will go your way.” d. “That seems unlikely. What good things might happen if you don’t get the promotion?” 28. What is associated with increased levels of immune activity? a. increases in stress b. pessimism c. Type A personality d. high levels of social support 29. In a study of professional baseball players from the 1950s, which of the following was associated with their longevity? a. batting average b. peak income c. attractiveness d. intensity of smiling 30. Which of the following is the area of psychological research that focuses on well-being, courage, perseverance, tolerance, and other human strengths and virtues? a. learned optimism b. positive psychology c. humanistic psychology d. logotherapy

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 31. Max wants to apply to law school but does not want to take the time to study for the LSAT. What type of conflict is Max experiencing? a. approach-approach b. approach-avoidance c. avoidance-avoidance d. frustration 32. What is NOT one of the stages of the general adaptation syndrome? a. recovery b. resistance c. exhaustion d. alarm reaction 33. When a person has two or more incompatible motivations or behavioural impulses competing for expression, what does that person experience? a. pressure b. change c. conflict d. frustration 34. Which of the following statements is NOT true about research on pressure and stress? a. Younger generations are less self-critical and less demanding of themselves. b. A great deal of pressure is self-imposed. c. People can reduce pressure by making choices that help them avoid high-pressure situations. d. Today’s generation of college students believe that more demands are being placed on them. 35. James has an important job interview tomorrow morning and he obviously wants to do a good job of selling himself to the interviewer. What is James most likely experiencing? a. conflict b. pressure c. change d. frustration 36. What is the correct order of the stages of the general adaptation syndrome? a. alarm, exhaustion, resistance b. resistance, alarm, exhaustion c. resistance, exhaustion, alarm d. alarm, resistance, exhaustion 37. When would university health clinics most likely expect to experience an increase in students seeking treatment for colds and other minor illnesses? a. during the weekend b. during the middle of the week c. during finals week d. during the middle of the semester 38. Tia spends a lot of time with her family and friends, but she never really discusses her problems or worries with them. Still, she finds it very comforting to know that there are people around her who care about her. What does this example illustrate? a. denial b. explicit social support c. implicit social support d. avoidance 39. Arne and Ben each got a small raise last week. Arne feels insulted, because his boss clearly doesn’t value him. Ben feels contented, because the economy is tight, and he feels that any raise is a good thing. According to Albert Ellis, what differs most dramatically between Arne and Ben? a. their activating events b. their belief systems c. their hardiness d. their personality types

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 40. Imagine you read a brief newspaper article that states research has shown that eating grilled-cheese sandwiches increases the risk of being struck by lightning by 25 percent. In evaluating whether you should give up the sandwiches, what is the one piece of additional information that would be most useful to you? a. Was the research conducted by a psychologist or medical doctor? b. Would you survive the lightning strike? c. What do scientists think is the causal factor that relates grilled-cheese sandwiches and lightning strikes? d. What is the base rate of lightning strikes, and is this increase meaningful? 41. Which term is defined as a largely unconscious reaction that protects a person from unpleasant emotions such as anxiety and guilt? a. general adaptation mechanisms b. defence mechanisms c. constructive coping mechanisms d. learned helplessness 42. Research has revealed that men and women respond differently to stress. While there are variations within males and females as a group, which of the following is more typical of females than males experiencing stress? a. calming a stressed infant b. calling a friend c. producing less oxytocin d. helping a friend 43. Blaire has a high-stress job, but she seems to handle it well. She feels that she can handle challenges, to make changes that make a difference in the world, and she is quite committed to her role. What term is used to describe people like Blaire? a. conscientious b. invulnerable c. Type A d. hardy 44. Which statement does NOT reflect Hans Seyle’s description of physiological responses to stress? a. Continuing exposure to a stress may result in the individual exhibiting increased susceptibility to diseases of adaptation. b. Physiological responses to stress differ depending on the specific types of stressors. c. If a stress is prolonged, the individual becomes accustomed to the threat. d. Initially stress causes an activation of the fight-or-flight response. 45. Which type of conflict tends to be least stressful? a. approach-approach conflict b. attractive-attractive conflict c. avoidance-avoidance conflict d. approach-avoidance conflict 46. What has a major influence on the type of emotion someone will feel because of stress? a. the specific pattern of physiological arousal b. whether the stressor is pressure, change or conflict c. the intensity of the stressor d. the subjective appraisal of the event

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 47. Which statement exemplifies a stressful situation that involves frustration? a. Your parents expect you to get at least a 3.00 GPA this semester. b. You want to go to the big game tomorrow, but the game is sold out. c. You can’t decide which movie to rent for tonight. d. You just moved into a different apartment. 48. Which of the following is NOT true of oxytocin? a. It is evidence that we are wired to connection as social creatures. b. Its production is linked to attachment between mother and child. c. It is not a hormone. d. It is called the “cuddle hormone.” 49. Which of the following hormones is called the “cuddle hormone” and is important for the tend-and-befriend response to stress? a. adrenaline b. oxytocin c. endorphins d. OxyContin 50. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome allows people to function at a very high level, despite the experience of stress? a. resistance b. exhaustion c. alarm reaction d. recovery 51. What emotional state appears to be particularly risky for triggering acute symptoms of heart disease? a. surprise b. sexual arousal c. relative calm d. anger 52. Walter Cannon (1932) was one of the first theorists to describe which physiological reaction to threat? a. the fight-flight response b. the tend-befriend response c. the task-performance response d. the optimal-arousal response 53. According to Herbert Benson, what is the key to the beneficial effects of meditation? a. relaxation b. mental alertness c. religious inspiration d. sleep 54. Which type of stress most often elicits the coping strategy of aggression? a. pressure b. change c. conflict d. frustration 55. James cannot decide whether to clean the toilet or take out the trash. What type of conflict is James experiencing? a. approach-approach b. approach-avoidance c. avoidance-avoidance d. frustration

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 56. Under which condition would knowledge of base rates assist your decision-making? a. You need to decide between two forms of treatment for a disorder. b. You need to determine whether there is a causal relationship between a risk factor and a disease. c. You need to determine whether a statistically significant risk is meaningful. d. You need to determine whether your diagnosis is accurate. 57. What would be predictive of whether an individual prefers implicit or explicit support? a. the severity of the stressor b. the sex of the individuals c. the cultural background of the individual d. the number of friends the individual has 58. What risk factor roughly triples a person’s chance of dying of heart disease? a. depression b. being male c. a professional occupation d. anxiety 59. The person who used to sit next to you in psychology class dropped the course because he was failing. Which coping mechanism does this illustrate? a. blaming himself b. abandonment c. giving up d. denial 60. What is neurogenesis? a. the repair of neurons c. the core component of brain health

b. the formation of new neurons d. action potential in the dendrites

61. Which of the following describes the relationship between level of arousal and performance? a. inverted-U hypothesis b. matrix hypothesis c. resistance-exhaustion hypothesis d. normal curve hypothesis 62. Which life change leads to the biggest improvement in life expectancy? a. decreasing exercise levels, for someone who gets moderate amounts of exercise currently b. decreasing exercise levels, for someone who gets a high level of exercise currently c. increasing exercise levels, for someone who gets a moderate amount of exercise currently d. increasing exercise levels, for someone who gets no exercise currently 63. Aline has just found out that her mother’s illness is terminal, and she only has a month to live. Aline doesn’t get too upset about it because she is certain that the doctors will find a cure very quickly and her mother will recover. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. intellectualization b. undoing c. overcompensation d. denial 64. Which theorist(s) led the way in exploring the idea that life changes affect stress by developing the Social Readjustment Rating Scale? a. Holmes and Rahe b. Ekman and Friesen c. Aaron Lazarus d. Albert Ellis

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 65. Which of the following is NOT involved in constructive coping? a. reasonably realistic appraisals of the stress and coping resources b. confronting problems directly c. pursuing substitute sources of satisfaction d. learning to recognize disruptive emotional reactions to stress 66. Some people make jokes when they are under stress. What does research say about the effects of using humour to deal with stress? a. It increases negative emotional responses to stress. b. It allows people to delay coping with stress. c. It boosts immune functioning. d. It moderates the impact of stress. 67. What types of events are included on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? a. positive and negative life changes of varying magnitudes b. a wide range of events generally perceived as aversive c. events related to the disruption of personal relationships d. family-related events 68. Which individual is least likely to use a condom to prevent transmission of disease? a. someone with high anxiety levels b. someone who is sober c. someone who believes in a “just world” d. someone with high self-esteem 69. When compared to Type A people, which statement best describes Type B people? a. They are more achievement oriented, impatient, and hostile. b. They are more hard driving, ambitious, and competitive. c. They are more relaxed, easy-going, and friendly. d. They are more inhibited, compliant, and depressed. 70. Which statement best describes the optimal level of arousal? a. It is the level of arousal at which performance peaks and is independent on the complexity of the task at hand. b. It is the level of arousal at which performance peaks and is dependent on the complexity of the task at hand. c. It is the level of arousal at which the least amount of effort is expended to produce the most acceptable results. d. It is the level of arousal required for complex tasks. 71. Which term is defined as circumstances that threaten, or are perceived to threaten, one’s well-being and tax one’s coping abilities? a. pressure b. conflict c. stress d. frustration

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 72. Jeremiah cannot decide whether to go to Western University or McGill University. What type of conflict is Jeremiah experiencing? a. approach-approach b. approach-avoidance c. avoidance-avoidance d. frustration 73. Which situation illustrates typical effects of daily hassles? a. A soldier develops PTSD after being involved in combat. b. A teenager won’t go to school because of constant bullying. c. A man takes a leave of absence from work to undergo treatment for a chronic illness. d. A woman becomes irritable and unproductive because of constant interruptions at work. 74. Which individual should have the weakest immune system based on the type of stressor experienced? a. someone who must write a report that is due tomorrow b. someone who just narrowly missed a car accident c. someone who has been trying for months to find a job d. someone who just lost a lot of money while gambling 75. During which stage of the general adaptation syndrome are you most likely to be vulnerable to illness or infection? a. exhaustion b. resistance c. recovery d. alarm reaction 76. After a long week balancing her work at the office, visiting her husband who was in the hospital with a broken leg, and making sure she took her turn driving the carpool for her children, Beverly decided she needed some time for herself. She finished work a bit early, stopped by the mall, enjoyed a latte, and purchased the leather jacket she had been admiring. Which coping strategy does this reflect? a. constructive coping b. retail therapy c. regression d. indulging oneself 77. As Jim was walking, someone suddenly punched him. Jim was very startled, and immediately experienced a series of physiological reactions including increased heart rate, dilated pupils, and a clenching in his gut (as his digestive process stopped). What is illustrated by this example? a. fight-or-flight response b. tend-and-befriend response c. general adaptation response d. amygdala rage response 78. Which one of the Big Five personality traits has been associated with greater longevity? a. agreeableness b. openness to experience c. conscientiousness d. extraversion 79. Kim has three papers due and two exams to study for. She was feeling panicked, but now she has gotten to work and is gradually getting through her work. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Kim experiencing? a. resistance b. recovery c. alarm reaction d. exhaustion

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 80. Research has revealed that men and women respond differently to stress. While there are variations within males and females as a group, it seems that females are more likely to call on their friends for help when stressed or help to calm others in stressful situations as a way of coping. What do researchers on stress tend to call this type of response to stress? a. the fight-or-flight response b. the tend-and-befriend response c. the general adaptation response d. the amygdala rage response 81. Jennie is shopping for wedding dresses, and she has found two that she loves. She is having a hard time deciding between them. What sort of conflict is Jennie experiencing? a. attractive-attractive conflict b. avoidance-avoidance conflict c. approach-approach conflict d. approach-avoidance conflict 82. When Xiu was rejected for a summer internship he really wanted, he thought that all his plans were ruined and he would no longer be able to get into a good graduate school. Xiu is angry and upset. According to Albert Ellis, what will Xiu think is the cause of his anger? a. his irrational appraisal of the situation b. his lack of skill c. his rational appraisal of the situation d. the rejection 83. Which component of the Type A personality is most directly related to developing heart disease? a. perfectionism b. anger and hostility c. competitive orientation d. impatience and time urgency 84. According to Albert Ellis, what should people alter to change their response to stress? a. diet b. supportive aspects of their environments c. baseline levels of arousal d. cognitive appraisal of stress 85. Which of the following is NOT a common emotional response to stress? a. sadness, anxiety, and pride b. apprehension, anxiety, and fear c. dejection, sadness, and grief d. annoyance, anger, and rage 86. Which type of conflict tends to be most unpleasant and highly stressful? a. approach-approach conflict b. attack-avoidance conflict c. approach-avoidance conflict d. avoidance-avoidance conflict 87. Which characteristic is NOT part of the Type A personality? a. self-control b. impatience c. competitive orientation d. anger and hostility 88. Which component of the definition of stress best illustrates the unifying theme in psychology that states that our experience of the world is highly subjective? a. Circumstances that are traumatic are stressful. b. Circumstances that are threatening are stressful. c. Circumstances that are perceived as threatening are stressful. d. Circumstances that are stressful tax one’s coping abilities.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 89. Paul is an executive in a large corporation. He puts in long hours at work, usually has a cell phone to his ear while driving, and eats lunch at his desk. He is a tough boss and frequently loses his temper with underperforming employees. When relaxing on the golf course, he has been observed throwing golf clubs into a lake. Paul’s behaviour is typical of which personality type? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type X d. Type Y 90. Which term is defined as physical and emotional exhaustion, cynicism, and a lowered sense of self-efficacy that can be brought on gradually by chronic work-related stress? a. stress overload b. a mental breakdown c. job-induced stress d. burnout 91. One’s risk of developing heart disease is related to a wide variety of lifestyle factors. Which unifying theme in psychology is illustrated by these risk factors? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Psychology is empirical. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Our experience of the world is highly subjective. 92. Anne was turned down for a scholarship that she applied for, and because of that news she decided that she wouldn’t bother finishing her degree. If she wasn’t a good enough student to get a scholarship, then she was likely to do poorly in the rest of her classes and would be wasting her time and money on more years of school. What would Albert Ellis call this type of thinking? a. catastrophic thinking b. optimistic thinking c. pessimistic thinking d. emotional thinking 93. Which of the following is an example of a situation that involves conflict? a. You can’t decide whether to go to Florida or Mexico for spring break. b. You’re stuck behind a slow-moving car on a one-lane road. c. You just took out a large car loan. d. You have a term paper due the day after tomorrow and you haven’t started it yet. 94. Imagine you studied for this psychology exam with two of your classmates. If one classmate, Becky, was very nervous and “stressed out” about the exam, and the other classmate, Craig, thought the exam “wasn’t a big deal,” what explains their differing attitudes? a. Males experience many events as less stressful than females. b. People’s appraisals of stressful events are highly objective. c. People’s appraisals of stressful events are not very objective. d. Some people use constructive coping techniques to reduce stress. 95. What is the personality “type” of a person who is very competitive, impatient, quick to anger, and exhibits hostility? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type X d. Type Y

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 96. Kim had three papers due and two exams to study for. Now that it is all over, she has become quite ill with a severe cold. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Kim experiencing? a. recovery b. exhaustion c. alarm reaction d. resistance 97. In times of stress, stimulation of the pituitary gland results in the adrenal cortex secreting hormones. What do those hormones tend to do? a. increase energy and inhibit tissue inflammation b. conserve energy c. mobilize the body for action d. decrease emotional arousal 98. On the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS), which life event has the highest change score associated with it? a. birth of a child b. divorce c. retirement d. change in responsibilities at work 99. What is described by the general adaptation syndrome? a. physiological responses to stress b. instinctive coping processes c. constructive coping processes d. behavioural responses to stress 100. When Nalla was overwhelmed with studying for exams and writing papers at the end of last semester, she was very critical of herself for procrastinating during the semester, for not being as bright as her classmates, and for spending too much time with her boyfriend. Which coping strategy does Nalla use? a. self-blame b. self-doubt c. self-efficacy d. self-indulgence 101. Which statement best describes coping responses? a. They may consist of physiological or emotional responses. b. They are always conscious. c. They may be maladaptive. d. They are always adaptive. 102. While Barb frequently talks to others about her emotions when in a stressful situation, her husband Mike actively tries to suppress his emotions and does not like to discuss the stress in his life. Compared to Barb, what will Mike most likely exhibit? a. increased immune functioning and decreased autonomic arousal b. increased immune functioning and increased autonomic arousal c. decreased immune functioning and decreased autonomic arousal d. deceased immune functioning and increased autonomic arousal 103. Many emotions are experienced by people who are under stress. According to recent research, which type of emotions appear to play a key role in helping people bounce back from the difficulties associated with stress? a. unexpected emotions b. very intense emotions c. positive emotions d. negative emotions Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 104. Today is the day your younger sister’s first choice for university said she would get her acceptance (or rejection) letter in the mail. It’s 3:00 p.m. and the mail, which usually comes by noon, still hasn’t been delivered. What type of stress is your sister likely experiencing? a. frustration b. change c. conflict d. pressure 105. What appears to increase the incidence of illness due to stress? a. suppression of cortisol release b. chronic inflammation c. severity of the stressor d. whether the stressor is real 106. According to results of current research, what does the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) really assess? a. only stressful events b. the physiological impact of stress c. a wide variety of events which may or may not be stressful d. Change which is undoubtedly stressful 107. Sean is having a hard time at work. Even though he works long hours and gets a lot accomplished, it seems as if his supervisor doesn’t give him any credit for his productivity. He is often asked to stay late without much notice, and he isn’t given any choice about it. Sean is exhausted, angry, and feels like he can’t do anything right. Which term best describes what Sean is experiencing? a. overcompensation b. incongruence c. burnout d. generalized anxiety disorder 108. Hardy people tend to withstand the demands of stress a bit better than others due in part to their attitudes and beliefs. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of hardiness? a. control b. change c. commitment d. challenge 109. Which term refers to relatively healthful efforts that people make to deal with stressful events? a. offensive coping b. adaptive coping c. constructive coping d. defensive coping 110. How much shorter is the estimated life expectancy of the average smoker compared to the average nonsmoker? a. 4–5 years b. 8–9 years c. 10–14 years d. 19–20 years 111. Janice is working on a group project for class, and the other members of her group really need her to finish her section of the work so that they can complete their work. Her deadline is today, and she’s not quite finished yet. Which type of stress is Janice experiencing? a. change b. frustration c. conflict d. pressure

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 112. Which disorder can only be caused by direct exposure to a stressor? a. anxiety disorders b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. depression d. schizophrenia 113. Which of the following does NOT moderate or reduce the effects of stress? a. avoiding stress b. regular exercise c. humour d. high levels of social support 114. What does recent research on the impact on stress of life events or changes indicate? a. Negative and positive life events are equally stressful. b. Some life events are more stressful than others. c. Change is always stressful. d. Positive life experiences are more challenging than negative. 115. Which research topic would be most likely to be studied by a health psychologist? a. depression caused by neurochemical imbalance b. heritability of neurosis c. effects of antipsychotic medication on patients d. factors that affect the likelihood of seeking treatment 116. Among people with Type A personalities, what is associated with their tendency toward anger and hostility? a. burnout b. PTSD c. heart disease d. migraine headaches 117. What is frustration? a. any noticeable alterations in one’s living circumstances that require readjustment b. expectations or demands that one behave in a certain way c. when two or more incompatible motivations or impulses compete for expression d. the experience whenever the pursuit of some goal is thwarted 118. Which statement best describes people with higher scores on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? a. They are less likely to exhibit vacillation when making decisions. b. They are more likely to exhibit vacillation when making decisions. c. They are less vulnerable to developing physical illness. d. They are more vulnerable to developing physical illness. 119. Which list includes principal types of stress? a. frustration, conflict, anxiety b. anxiety, conflict, change c. change, frustration, pressure d. conflict, fear, pressure 120. Chad is an excellent golfer, very good at basketball, competent at tennis, and has just started to play rugby. For which sport would Chad perform best with a low level of arousal? a. tennis b. basketball c. golf d. rugby Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 121. Which of the following is NOT one of the key themes in the psychological literature which represents constructive coping? a. confronting problems directly b. self-deception as a means of coping through reframing the problem c. realistic appraisals d. learning to recognize potentially disruptive emotional reactions to stress 122. Which of the following effects of stress is exemplified by resilience, courage, perseverance, and tolerance in the face of adversity? a. side b. positive c. negative d. constructive 123. Jennifer wants to buy her favourite trendy designer bag but does not want to deplete her bank account. What type of conflict is Jennifer experiencing? a. approach-approach b. approach-avoidance c. avoidance-avoidance d. frustration 124. What is released by the adrenal medulla under times of stress? a. corticosteroids b. catecholamines c. nerve growth factor d. neurogenesis 125. Which of the following is an example of a stressful situation that involves pressure? a. Eli meets his girlfriend’s parents and she really wants him to make a good impression. b. Tiana is stuck in a traffic jam on the way to work. c. Shay can’t decide whether to study for his psychology exam or work on his history paper. d. Kyla just transferred to a different university. 126. Simon smokes and Chester is a “couch potato” who does not exercise. Which of the following do both men have a higher risk of developing, compared to men who exercise and don’t smoke? a. heart disease b. acquired immune deficiency syndrome c. lung cancer d. ulcers 127. In times of stress, activation of the sympathetic nervous system results in the adrenal medulla secreting hormones. What effect do these hormones tend to have? a. They mobilize the body for action. b. They conserve energy. c. They increase energy and inhibit tissue inflammation. d. They decrease emotional arousal.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 128. Terry is stressed. She’s been getting negative feedback from her boss regarding her performance at work. Her boyfriend is constantly asking her for money that she knows she will never get back. She’s feeling like her life is out of control and lately she has taken up the habit of stress-induced shopping, which has gotten out of hand and is costing her more money than she can afford. Terry is engaging in which of the following behavioural responses to stress? a. overcontrolling b. self-indulgence c. overcompensating d. blaming oneself 129. What is conflict? a. the experience whenever the pursuit of some goal is thwarted b. any noticeable alterations in one’s living circumstances that require readjustment c. expectations or demands that one behave in a certain way d. when two or more incompatible motivations or impulses compete for expression 130. Jane hasn’t been feeling well lately and she went to the doctor. Jane just told you the doctor diagnosed her with Illness X and said she needed to have surgery. If Jane wanted to make a risk-benefit decision, what should Jane ask her doctor? a. Will I make a full recovery after the surgery? b. Are there other options besides surgery? c. What is the etiology of this illness? d. How soon can the surgery be scheduled?

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. d 15. d 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. b

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 27. d 28. d 29. d 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. a 51. d 52. a 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 55. c 56. c 57. c 58. a 59. c 60. b 61. a 62. d 63. d 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. a 68. c 69. c 70. b 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. c 75. a 76. d 77. a 78. c 79. a 80. b 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 83. b 84. d 85. a 86. d 87. a 88. c 89. a 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. c 95. a 96. b 97. a 98. b 99. a 100. a 101. c 102. d 103. c 104. a 105. b 106. c 107. c 108. b 109. c 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_2 111. d 112. b 113. a 114. b 115. d 116. c 117. d 118. d 119. c 120. d 121. b 122. b 123. b 124. b 125. a 126. a 127. a 128. b 129. d 130. a

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Anthony is a professional hockey player. What is MOST likely a constant source of stress in his life? a. frustration b. pressure c. conflict d. endangerment 2. Geoff is known to be both hostile and cynical. Which of the following diseases is Geoff at increased risk of developing because of these specific traits? a. coronary heart disease b. somatoform disorder c. schizophrenia d. seasonal allergies 3. What is the term for a state brought on by any situation that threatens or appears to threaten a person’s sense of well-being? a. stress b. a stressor c. an acute stressor d. a chronic stressor 4. Marieke can take a high-status job with a low salary, or a low-status job with a high salary. This might cause stress for Marieke because it is which of the following? a. approach-approach conflict b. approach-avoidance conflict c. avoidance-avoidance conflict d. daily hassle 5. What has happened to Gabrielle, who just experienced the MOST stressful event on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale? a. her spouse died b. she lost her job c. she got divorced d. she was convicted of a felony 6. Which of the following individuals is likely to experience the MOST stress because of a life adjustment? a. Alicia, who was fired from work b. Blaire, who is pregnant c. Chloe, who just graduated from university d. Darcy, who is having problems with her boss 7. What does the Social Readjustment Rating Scale help to establish? a. the number of daily hassles a person has experienced in the past two weeks b. the number of traumatic events a person has experienced throughout their life span c. the amount of frustration a person feels on a daily basis d. the amount of stress a person is currently under 8. Which of the following is an expectation that demands a person behave a certain way? a. frustration b. pressure c. conflict d. endangerment 9. Obhi is a relaxed individual. He never worries about being late, and generally feels very little stress. What personality type does Obhi MOST likely have? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. hardy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 10. In which stage of the generalized adaptation syndrome (GAS) does resistance BEGIN? a. first b. second c. third d. fourth 11. Which of the following describes how researchers believe females respond to stressful situations? a. fight-or-flight b. nature-or-nurture c. tend-and-befriend d. serve-and-protect 12. Which nervous system is involved in creating energy to respond to a stressor? a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. central d. enteric 13. Camille has recently experienced an alteration in her brain that has led her to have exaggerated responses to threats. Which part of Camille’s brain has MOST likely been damaged? a. the hippocampus b. the hypothalamus c. the amygdala d. the cerebellum 14. When a threat is present for a prolonged period, resistance to stress increases, then decreases, then increases again during which stage of the generalized anxiety syndrome (GAS)? a. alarm b. resistance c. exhaustion d. excitement 15. Coronary heart disease involves several problems, including blocked arteries and which of the following? a. heart attacks b. cancer c. low blood pressure d. ulcers 16. Which of the following is an example of a life change that may produce stress? a. breaking your leg b. a job interview c. doing poorly on a test d. trying to decide on a major 17. Why does exhaustion occur in prolonged stressful situations? a. because the alarm phase cannot be sustained for long b. because it’s not possible for the body to adapt to stressors c. because continued resistance cannot be maintain indefinitely d. because people become bored with thinking about the stressor 18. When a person thinks about the extent to which they are able to deal with a stressor, what are they doing? a. primary appraisal b. alarm c. secondary appraisal d. resistance 19. Which of the following is likely the MOST stressful? a. an approach-approach conflict b. an approach-avoidance conflict c. an avoidance-avoidance conflict d. eustress

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 20. What is it called when a person deals with stress by trying to change something about the stressor? a. problem-focused coping b. emotion-focused coping c. primary appraisal d. secondary appraisal 21. Which of the following is associated with the MOST points on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale? a. getting married b. death of a close friend c. change in work responsibilities d. graduating from school 22. Which of the following personality styles is MOST prone to stress? a. hardy b. Type A c. Type B d. pessimistic 23. Hun has to choose between missing his best friend’s party and not handing in an assignment on time. What is causing Hun stress? a. an approach-approach conflict b. an approach-avoidance conflict c. an avoidance-avoidance conflict d. endangerment 24. Ursula is procrastinating because she has to choose between working on an essay she doesn’t want to write and studying for a test on a topic that doesn’t interest her. She is experiencing stress because of which of the following? a. approach-approach conflict b. approach-avoidance conflict c. avoidance-avoidance conflict d. life change 25. Which of the following does a person experience when faced with two or more equally undesirable options? a. approach-approach conflict b. approach-avoidance conflict c. avoidance-avoidance conflict d. eustress 26. What happens when a person’s score on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale goes down from 300 to 50? a. they are at decreased risk for health problems b. they are at increased risk for health problems c. nothing, the score isn’t linked to health d. nothing, those scores present identical health risks 27. When war broke out in Mira’s home country she saw it as an opportunity for her community to come together to help each other. She has started an organization that helps people get medical treatment and food, and helps them prepare if they decide to try to leave the country. What is Mira’s personality style? a. hardy b. Type A c. Type B d. Type C 28. People from which of the following cultures are MOST likely to prefer implicit social support over explicit social support? a. Japan b. Canada c. Mexico d. Sweden

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 29. Mehr is experiencing a stress response. According to Selye, in which stage will her stress resistance be HIGHEST? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. stage 4 30. A person with a Type A personality might reduce their risk of developing coronary heart disease if they receive therapy that helps them do which of the following? a. feel fewer negative emotions b. feel more positive emotions c. be more conscientious d. be less conscientious 31. A person who has trouble acknowledging negative emotions has which personality type? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. hardy 32. Dr. Qalipu is studying the various physiological changes that occur in response to stressors. The marker of stress that Dr. Qalipu will observe SOONEST after the onset of the stressor is the activation of which of the following? a. the adrenal medulla b. the hypothalamus c. the pituitary gland d. the adrenal cortex 33. Marco has had a stressful job for many years. Recently his mother has become ill and he has to care for her after work. Marco is beginning to have health problems including high blood pressure, a disease of adaptation. According to Selye, which stage of the GAS is Marco in? a. alarm b. resistance c. exhaustion d. refraction 34. Which of the following is a stressful situation that takes places over a short period of time and has a definite endpoint? a. acute stressor b. chronic stressor c. daily hassle d. approach-approach conflict 35. Which of the following is observed more often in infants whose mothers were exposed to traumatic events? a. a thin cortex b. a large head c. small limbs d. enlarged ventricles 36. If a person can’t make a decision because all options present positive and negative outcomes, what is the person facing? a. approach-approach conflict b. approach-avoidance conflict c. avoidance-avoidance conflict d. eustress 37. According to Walter Cannon, stressors cause physiological responses that increase arousal in the body to prepare it to do which of the following? a. fight or flee b. flee or sleep c. sleep or befriend d. befriend or fight

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 38. Arlene is an angry person who experiences many negative emotions. What disease is Arlene at increased risk of developing? a. coronary heart disease b. cancer c. seasonal allergies d. diabetes 39. Which of the following is likely the LEAST stressful? a. an approach-approach conflict b. an approach-avoidance conflict c. an avoidance-avoidance conflict d. eustress 40. Both pathways that respond to stress result in which of the following? a. decreased energy b. increased energy c. increased norepinephrine d. decreased ACTH 41. Which of the following involves the effort to manage, reduce, or tolerate stress? a. coping b. primary appraisal c. secondary appraisal d. denial 42. What does a person feel when they are thwarted in pursuit of a goal? a. frustration b. pressure c. conflict d. endangered 43. Which of the following is an unexpected event that causes extreme disruption in a person’s life? a. stress b. traumatic event c. eustress d. avoidance-avoidance conflict 44. What is the term for a personality that is particularly resistant to stress? a. hardy b. optimistic c. pessimistic d. conscientious 45. The FEWEST stress-related health complaints are observed in people with which type of personality? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. manic 46. Tess has to choose between working on her income taxes and pulling weeds in her yard, and she dislikes both. Which of the following is a source of stress for Tess? a. approach-approach conflict b. approach-avoidance conflict c. avoidance-avoidance conflict d. endangerment 47. When a person looks at a stressor and tries to determine how severe it is, what are they doing? a. primary appraisal b. alarm c. secondary appraisal d. resistance 48. Paul has written four stressful exams and has one left. He feels the start of a cold coming on. Paul is in which stage of the generalized adaptation syndrome (GAS)? a. alarm b. resistance c. exhaustion d. refraction Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 49. Commitment, control, and challenge are the core components of which of the following? a. resilience b. hardiness c. optimism d. efficacy 50. What could Tim do if he wants to use problem-focused coping to deal with stress he feels during his daily commute? a. change how he feels about the commute b. change the way he commutes c. assess whether the commute causes stress d. determine whether he has the resources to deal with the stress 51. Marwan is feeling stressed because he has to choose between flying on an airplane, which is scary but quick, or taking a train, which is less scary but is time consuming. Which of the following is the source of Marwan’s stress? a. frustration b. conflict c. endangerment d. pressure 52. Getting married is an example of which of the following? a. a stressor b. eustress c. a daily hassle d. stress 53. Which level of adversity is associated with the MOST resiliency? a. low b. intermediate c. high d. extreme 54. Who first proposed the generalized adaptation syndrome (GAS)? a. Aaron Beck b. Abraham Maslow c. Hans Selye d. Walter Cannon 55. Marie is very stressed about an upcoming exam. She decides to spend all her free time studying in order to be best prepared for the exam. This is an example of which of the following? a. primary appraisal b. secondary appraisal c. problem-focused coping d. emotion-focused coping 56. Which of the following is an everyday annoyance that contributes to a person’s sense of well-being? a. stressor b. everyday hassle c. life change d. eustress 57. Which personality type is MOST prone to developing coronary heart disease? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D 58. Which of the following is an example of an everyday hassle? a. moving to a new city b. getting divorced c. living near a noisy airport d. buying a new car

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 59. Which of the following is a constructive way to cope with a stressful situation? a. lashing out b. problem-focused coping c. self-indulgence d. self-defence 60. Graham just lost $5000 in a bad investment. Which of the following could be his primary appraisal of the situation that leads to the LEAST amount of stress for Graham? a. “That was a lot of money to lose.” b. “I can regain that loss in about two years if I’m careful.” c. “I didn’t really need that money.” d. “I can’t regain that money, it’s impossible.” 61. What does a person experience when they have two equally desirable goals? a. approach-approach conflict b. eustress c. avoidance-avoidance conflict d. approach-avoidance conflict 62. Terry is walking home one night when he hears footsteps approaching from behind. His heart starts to race and he considers his options of hiding in the bushes or running home. What is Terry experiencing? a. the fight-or-flight response b. the tend-and-befriend response c. the HPA axis response d. the sympathetic nervous system response 63. Reggie has a Type A personality and Micha has a Type B personality. If both Reggie and Micha are faced with an unexpected test in a class they take together, how will they react? a. Reggie will feel more stress than Micha b. Micha will feel more stress than Reggie c. Micha and Reggie will both feel the same high level of stress d. Micha and Reggie will both feel the same low level of stress 64. Meg has flashbacks of the night she almost lost her life. Which of the following will Meg MOST likely be diagnosed with? a. post-traumatic stress disorder b. social anxiety disorder c. psychosis d. depression 65. Favio has a disorder that was once thought to be psychological in origin but has since been found to also be linked to biological factors. Which of the following disorders might Favio have? a. coronary heart disease b. ulcers c. somatoform disorder d. schizophrenia 66. Four people are discussing a wildfire that devastated their houses. Which of the people is making a secondary appraisal? a. Milo, who thinks that the loss presents a challenge b. Adam, who thinks that the loss is unimaginable and cannot be fixed c. Doris, who thinks that there are sufficient resources to rebuild d. Elena, who thinks that the loss can be fixed easily

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 67. There is no doubt that Deepak has a Type A personality. Whether or not he will develop coronary heart disease will depend on the extent to which Deepak exhibits which of the following? a. competitiveness b. anger and hostility c. perfectionism d. conscientiousness 68. Harlan is having a stress response. This means that he has had to deal with which of the following? a. an acute stressor b. a chronic stressor c. some sort of stressor d. frustration 69. Which of the following is a shift in circumstances that requires an adjustment of some kind? a. life change b. daily hassle c. traumatic event d. stress 70. John isn’t worried about being unemployed but Jack, who is also out of work, is very stressed by the situation. John and Jack are both single with no dependents and the same amount of money in the bank. They also have exactly the same expenses each month. The differences in their stress responses likely reflect differences in which of the following? a. their appraisals b. their genetics c. their heart rates d. their immune systems 71. Which of the following is an example of a hassle? a. a noisy workplace b. the death of a close relative c. being fired from your job d. having major surgery 72. Habib has a serious illness but his doctor believes that Habib’s outlook may help him recover. What is Habib’s outlook most likely to be? a. optimistic b. pessimistic c. self-indulgent d. defensive 73. Which of the following is the GREATEST source of stress for individuals who earn $100 000 or more each year? a. their finances b. their health c. their family d. their job 74. Sandra and Sam were both in car accidents recently. Sandra doesn’t think it was a big deal; she wasn’t hurt and her car can be repaired. Sam does think it was a big deal; he thinks his car will never be the same. What will each person’s stress level be like? a. Sandra will feel less stress than Sam b. Sam will feel less stress than Sandra c. Sandra and Sam will feel the same high level of stress d. Sandra and Sam will feel the same low level of stress 75. Which of the following faces a person who has two choices that both will result in a good outcome? a. approach-approach conflict b. approach-avoidance conflict c. avoidance-avoidance conflict d. eustress

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 76. Greyson has a high-pressure job but doesn’t find this stressful. Which of the following is a possible reason why? a. he sees his job as a challenge b. he sees his job as threatening c. his job is just a daily hassle d. his job is just a daily stressor 77. Which of the following individuals is experiencing the LEAST amount of readjustment due to their stressor? a. Nate, who is having trouble with his in-laws b. Brad, who is having trouble with his boss c. Pete, who just inherited some money d. Kyle, who just purchased a house 78. Which of the following is known as the “cuddle hormone”? a. estrogen b. oxytocin c. testosterone d. progesterone 79. Which of the following individuals will likely receive the LEAST social support? a. Mabel who has high self-efficacy b. Leo who has low self-esteem c. Ernest who is conscientious d. Brenda who is married 80. Which of the following faces a person who must decide among choices that all have both desirable and undesirable qualities? a. approach-approach conflict b. approach-avoidance conflict c. avoidance-avoidance conflict d. eustress 81. Erin’s life feels very stressful right now. Which of the following is MOST likely to help Erin reduce the negative impact of this stress? a. social support b. antianxiety medication c. a low-sugar diet d. self-help books 82. Ibrahim is stuck in traffic. He is probably feeling stress because being stuck in traffic produces which of the following? a. frustration b. pressure c. endangerment d. conflict 83. Aimee is feeling stressed. She just changed jobs, which is stressful enough, but some daily hassles are making her feel even worse. Which of the following is an everyday hassle she might be dealing with? a. having to be on time at work b. being pregnant c. dealing with grief d. having chronic insomnia 84. During which stage of the generalized adaptation syndrome (GAS) does exhaustion set in? a. stage 2 b. stage 3 c. stage 4 d. stage 5 85. Which of the following is an example of an everyday hassle? a. changing schools b. gaining a new family member c. a long commute to work d. applying for a mortgage

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 86. What is the FIRST stage in the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? a. alarm b. resistance c. exhaustion d. refraction 87. Kinzie is engaging in her daily relaxation routine, which involves observing her surroundings and her thoughts in a nonjudgmental, nonreactive, and accepting way. What is the name for this relaxation technique? a. autogenic training b. mindfulness-based stress reduction c. biofeedback d. progressive relaxation 88. Marek has been accepted to two universities. He wants to attend both but obviously must choose only one. What kind of conflict is Marek facing? a. approach-approach b. approach-avoidance c. avoidance-avoidance d. traumatic 89. Which of the following is the BEST example of an acute stressor? a. being in a car accident b. a final exam c. quitting smoking d. moving to a new city 90. What is the term for any situation that triggers a stress response? a. stressor b. chronic stressor c. acute stressor d. stress 91. Bailey lives under constant stress. She lives in a crowded apartment and never has enough money. She gets very little sleep and doesn’t enjoy work or school. What emotions will Bailey most likely use to describe how stress makes her feel? a. anxious and depressed b. depressed and excited c. excited and surprised d. surprised and anxious 92. Which of the following emotions MOST often accompanies stress? a. happiness b. giddiness c. grief d. surprise 93. Which of the following describes the wildfire that struck Fort McMurray, Alberta, in 2016? a. traumatic event b. approach-avoidance conflict c. acute stressor d. chronic negative situation

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. c 26. a

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. a 35. a 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. b 51. b 52. a 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 55. c 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. c 67. b 68. c 69. a 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. d 74. a 75. a 76. a 77. b 78. b 79. b 80. b 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_6ce_Vol_4 83. a 84. b 85. c 86. a 87. b 88. a 89. a 90. a 91. a 92. c 93. a

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Chap 15_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. When Marino receives a diagnosis, his doctor provides him with a prescription. By doing this, his doctor is trying to address the ___________. a. medical etiology b. biopsychosocial etiology c. increased risk of comorbidity d. increased risk of diathesis 2. If Anton has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is sitting, appearing to be awake, but is not responding to questions, then he is likely experiencing ________. a. symptoms of hallucinations b. symptoms of amnesia c. fugue state symptoms d. catatonic symptoms 3. Romy suffered a severe trauma in her early childhood, and even though she is now in high school, she has never shared the secret of this trauma with her parents. She has suffered psychological symptoms as a result of the trauma, and recently required hospitalization because her symptoms have become increasingly more severe now that she is in her last year of high school and experiencing more stress. The psychiatric team believes it is time for her to share her secret with her parents so they can help her overcome her trauma. If the psychological symptoms Romy is experiencing include gaps in her memory for quite large periods of time, Romy is most likely suffering from which psychological disorder? a. Dissociative amnesia b. Dissociative identity disorder c. Dissociative fugue. d. Pathological conscious dissociation 4. If Romy is experiencing symptoms of PTSD caused by having been sexually assaulted by a stranger when she was younger, she is more likely to experience ________ than ________. a. mistrust; fear of physical harm b. betrayal; guilt c. guilt; betrayal d. fear of physical harm; guilt 5. Given that we are not clinical psychologists or psychiatrists and should not diagnose Marino (or anyone!) based on a short case study, imagine that Marino’s doctor does diagnose Marino with a psychological abnormality. According to your lectures, Marino’s symptoms best match which psychological abnormality? a. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder b. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder c. Obsessive-Compulsive Anxiety Disorder d. Obsessive-Compulsive Spectrum Disorder 6. Imagine that Marino is in fact, diagnosed as having a psychological disorder and 3% of the adult population also suffers from this disorder. This 3% is known as the ___________. a. etiology b. concordance c. prevalence d. comorbidity

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Chap 15_6ce_Case-Based 7. Anton and Jude are identical twins. If both of them undergo an MRI of their brain, it is expected that ____________. a. Anton will likely have a larger amount of brain tissue than Jude. b. Anton will likely have a smaller amount of brain tissue than Jude. c. They will have the same amount of brain tissue, but Jude’s prefrontal cortex will be smaller and his ventricles will be larger. d. They will have the same amount of brain tissue, but Anton’s prefrontal cortex will be smaller and his ventricles will be larger. 8. Anton and Jude are identical twins. Why does Anton suffer from schizophrenia while Jude does not? a. Emotional differences b. Social differences c. Biological differences d. Individual differences 9. Emily and Jude want to know how they can help prevent Anton’s relapses. What might Anton’s doctor suggest? a. Let Anton know how scared they get when he does not take his medication. b. Help Anton to avoid stressful or frightening situations. c. Help Anton to make friends his own age who have similar interests. d. Let Anton describe to them what will best help him in the moment. 10. Is Marino’s behaviour considered to be medically abnormal? a. Yes, it is personally distressful. b. No, it is not deviant nor maladaptive. c. No, it is not maladaptive. d. Yes, it is deviant, maladaptive, and personally distressful. 11. Lukas is a first-year university student who often feels very worried and anxious. Whenever he talks to his Mom about his anxiety, she mentions that even as a young child, he would get anxious about “even the smallest and most ridiculous things.” Lately, however, Lukas’ anxiety has been growing stronger. Lukas and his therapist have come to believe that the origin of Lukas’ anxiety is probably related to an incident in kindergarten when his classmates laughed at him for forgetting that he was presenting his rock collection at Show & Tell. If Lukas is diagnosed with an anxiety disorder, which of the following is most likely? a. Lukas’ identical twin will also be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. b. Lukas will also be diagnosed with another anxiety disorder or depression. c. One of Lukas’ two best friends will also be diagnosed with anxiety disorder. d. Lukas will also develop a phobia or obsessive-compulsive disorder. 12. Imagine Lukas is diagnosed with a phobia of loud laughter. Imagine that the prevalence of this phobia is 109 per 1,000 population and that the gender ratio (female:male) is 188:90. This means approximately _______________ of the population are phobic of loud laughter. a. 11% & fewer males than females b. 1% & more males than females c. 0.1% & fewer females than males d. 1% & more females than males

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Chap 15_6ce_Case-Based 13. Recently, Anton was diagnosed with schizophrenia and prescribed medication to control his symptoms. At times, when he is feeling well, he decides that he does not need his medication and will stop taking it. In these cases, his symptoms return. His mother Emily and his twin brother Jude have been coached by his medical team to watch out for certain symptoms. If they see any indication of these symptoms, they are to bring Anton to the ER immediately. If, when not taking his medication, Anton becomes worried he will be assassinated, this is considered a symptom of _____________. a. paranoia b. grandeur c. becoming catatonic d. becoming disorganized 14. If Romy is suffering from dissociative identity disorder, it is least likely that Romy experienced which type of trauma in early childhood? a. Intense verbal bullying from her classmates b. Intense physical bullying from her classmates c. Sexual abuse committed by a stranger d. Sexual abuse committed by an acquaintance 15. Marino is curious about whether his behaviours are considered to be normal or not. He knows he should probably see a psychologist. According to your lectures, what would be a benefit of visiting the psychologist? a. A diagnosis might become a self-fulfilling prophecy. b. A diagnosis might increase his self-esteem. c. A diagnosis might make it easier for him to find a support group. d. A diagnosis might reduce his self-esteem. 16. The cognitive factors surrounding anxiety disorders predict that Lukas will be most anxious when he believes ______________. a. there is no way he can succeed and the consequences of failure are great b. there is no incentive for him to succeed c. he can only succeed if he has an innate talent and hard work does not pay off d. his father will be very disappointed in him if he does not succeed 17. Marino is a first-year university student who has a single room in residence on campus. He is very organized and follows his self-made schedule very rigidly. Though he usually keeps his door closed, his hall mates who have seen his room claim it is the cleanest room they have ever seen, and often say they wish they could be as neat and organized. Marino, however, sticks to his schedule and keeps his room this clean for a reason. It does not make sense to him for something to be out of place or to do something that is not in his schedule. Marino has offended many people in the past, so he and his parents decided it would be best if he lived alone at university. So far, this has proven to be both expensive and lonely. Marino often feels sad and wishes he could be more relaxed, like his peers. Is Marino’s behaviour considered to be legally abnormal? a. Yes, it is deviant and personally distressful. b. No, he is able to distinguish right from wrong. c. Yes, he is not able to distinguish right from wrong. d. No, it is not maladaptive.

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Chap 15_6ce_Case-Based 18. According to the learning theory etiology of anxiety disorders, ____________ that now leads to Lukas’ conditioned response of anxiety. a. the laughter of others is the unconditioned stimulus b. having to present his own work is the conditioned stimulus c. presenting to his class is the unconditioned stimulus d. his rock collection is the conditioned stimulus

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Chap 15_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. b

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which statement best describes mood disorders and schizophrenic disorders, according to the stressvulnerability model? a. Vulnerability to these disorders is determined by heredity alone. b. Vulnerability to these disorders is determined by the environment alone. c. Traumatic stress is the major cause of these disorders. d. These disorders emerge when high biological vulnerability combines with high stress. 2. Erick is impulsive and unpredictable. His moods seem to be constantly changing and all his interpersonal relationships seem to be very unstable. Which cluster of disorders is most consistent with Erick’s symptoms if he has a personality disorder? a. anxious/fearful b. dramatic/impulsive c. odd/eccentric d. neurotic/dissociative 3. Kate constantly thinks about jumping in front of an oncoming car when she is walking. The only way she seems to be able to stop these self-destructive thoughts is to recite a cheerful poem over and over to herself. Which disorder is most consistent with Kate’s symptoms? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. panic disorder d. specific phobia 4. What is a prognosis? a. plan for treating an illness b. distinction between two similar illnesses c. forecast about the probable course of an illness d. apparent causation and developmental history of an illness 5. In the past nine months, Andrew has been fired by three different employers. He was unreliable and often missed work, and each employer finally let him go when they found he had been stealing money and materials. Andrew feels no remorse over his actions, but he has managed to convince each of his former employers that he is sorry for his actions, and none of the employers plans to press any charges. Which diagnosis is consistent with Andrew’s behaviour? a. bipolar disorder b. dissociative identity disorder c. antisocial personality disorder d. avoidant personality disorder 6. Chris always expects special treatment, and he seems to be preoccupied with his own success. His interpersonal relationships are generally superficial because he seems to lack the ability to understand how others feel. Which personality disorder is most consistent with Chris’s personality? a. avoidant b. narcissistic c. obsessive-compulsive d. schizotypal 7. Which type of disorder is associated with the symptom of anhedonia? a. depression b. anxiety c. dissociative d. antisocial

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 8. Janae is an 18-year-old college student. She has missed almost all her classes for the past month, and she spends most of her time in her bedroom. Frequently, she is still in her pajamas when her parents come home from work, and she often hasn’t eaten anything all day. She thinks her whole life is a failure, and she blames herself for being an outcast. Which disorder is most consistent with Janae’s symptoms? a. hypomania b. antisocial personality disorder c. major depressive disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 9. What does Seligman’s concept of “preparedness” refer to? a. a biological predisposition to be easily conditioned to fear certain things b. the physical state or condition associated with a panic attack c. psychological processes that accompany obsessive-compulsive behaviour patterns d. a particular type of learning situation in which negatively reinforced behaviours reduce the level of anxiety 10. When Erskine found out that his daughter’s teacher had once been treated for a psychological disorder, even though it was successful and several years ago, he insisted that his daughter be transferred to a different class. He claimed that it will be disruptive for his daughter to have to switch to a new teacher at some point during the school year “if and when the original teacher suffers a setback,” Which of the following stereotypes is illustrated in this example? a. Psychological disorders often go unrecognized. b. Psychological disorders are incurable. c. People with psychological disorders are often dangerous. d. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways. 11. If you presented the sentence “Quinton was thinking about the upcoming fall,” which of the following interpretations would most likely come from someone with an anxiety disorder? a. Quinton must be delusional. b. Quinton will hurt himself when he falls. c. Quinton is anticipating autumn. d. Quinton is sad that summer is over. 12. Thomas Szasz criticized the medical model. What was his major complaint? a. The model is not well understood by its practitioners. b. Behaviour patterns cannot be predicted from the medical model viewpoint. c. No evidence exists to support the effectiveness of medical treatments. d. Diagnosis reflects a moral judgment about what is socially unacceptable. 13. What fear is most prominent in agoraphobia? a. closed spaces b. spiders c. heights d. going out to public places 14. Which statement best explains why some people believe there is a link between vaccinations and the development of autism? a. The symptoms of autism emerge around the same age as vaccinations occur. b. The symptoms of autism are like side effects of vaccines. c. People without vaccinations are at an increased risk of autism. d. Families that don’t vaccinate have a resistance to autism. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 15. Ankha is so terrified of fire that she cannot light a match or even enjoy dinner by candlelight. If Ankha has a phobia, what is she likely to experience in the presence of fire? a. compulsive behaviours like counting b. free-floating anxiety about a variety of things at the same time c. physical signs of anxiety like trembling d. loss of consciousness 16. What is the diagnosis for individuals who alternate between periods of depression and periods of being manic? a. dissociative disorders b. multiple personality disorder c. bipolar disorder d. conversion disorder 17. What does the neurodevelopmental hypothesis suggest is a partial cause of schizophrenia? a. disruptions in the normal maturational process of the brain before or at birth b. low levels of expressed emotion in the family of the schizophrenic patient c. abnormal levels of dopamine and serotonin in the cerebral cortex d. genetic factors that interact with environmental stressors during infancy 18. Dr. Provo is asking her newest client questions about his life history. She is particularly interested in any recent stressful events that the client may have experienced. What is Dr. Provo doing? a. developing a prognosis for her client b. trying to determine an appropriate diagnosis c. engaging in naturalistic observation d. trying to understand the etiology of her client’s current illness 19. Which neurotransmitter is most clearly implicated in mood disorders? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. GABA d. endorphins 20. If one has a genetic vulnerability to schizophrenia, which of the following factors would increase that vulnerability? a. low IQ b. high levels of acetylcholine c. low neuroticism d. high biophilia 21. Sarah is a 23-year-old woman, and Jacob is a 79-year-old man. What would you predict based on evidence about suicide? a. If both individuals attempt suicide, Sarah is more likely to die. b. Jacob is more likely to contemplate suicide. c. Sarah is more likely to contemplate suicide. d. If both individuals attempt suicide, Jacob is more likely to die.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 22. What are the two categories of mood disorders in the DSM-5? a. acute and chronic mood disorders b. bipolar and depressive disorders c. anxiety and personality-related mood disorders d. cyclic and stable mood disorders 23. Which of the following is a relatively more common precursor to agoraphobia? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. a different specific phobia c. panic disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 24. Grayson seems to be preoccupied with the possibility that he might miss an important message from someone in his family. He checks for new messages on his phone every 15 minutes. Which term best describes this checking behaviour? a. compulsion b. obsession c. hallucination d. delusion 25. In which of the following individuals is the risk of developing schizophrenia the highest (assuming that they all have equivalent genetic vulnerabilities)? a. Jordan, an 18-year-old who smokes marijuana b. Josh, an 18-year-old who smokes cigarettes c. James, a 40-year-old who smokes marijuana d. John, a 40-year-old who smokes cigarettes 26. What is the role of stress for the development of mood disorders? a. Stress increases the likelihood of a mood disorder in those with vulnerability. b. Stress is a primary cause of mood disorders. c. Stress influences anxiety disorders but not mood disorders. d. Stress is an outcome of mood disorders, but not a causal factor. 27. What is the major difference between a phobic disorder and a generalized anxiety disorder? a. Only the generalized anxiety disorder depends on past conditioning. b. A phobic disorder is more severe and more difficult to treat. c. Anxiety is specific to one object or situation in a phobic disorder but is “free floating” in generalized anxiety disorder. d. Generalized anxiety disorder occurs primarily in men, and phobic disorders occur primarily in women. 28. Kashi enjoys gambling so much that he does it every day, totally neglecting his family and job. Which criterion of abnormality does Kashi’s behaviour satisfy most clearly? a. persistence b. maladaptive behaviour c. personal distress d. deviance

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 29. David Rosenhan arranged for a number of “pseudopatients” (those without mental illness) to arrive at hospitals complaining of a single false symptom. He was interested to see how many would be admitted and for how long. Which of the following was the average duration of hospitalization for the pseudopatients? a. one hour b. one day c. one week d. over two weeks Angela Angela experiences a lot of anxiety associated with housekeeping. The house is never clean enough for her perfectionistic standards. If she sees anything that she considers to be out of place, she has to put it away immediately. Recently, she has been spending approximately 10 hours each day cleaning, organizing, and checking things around the house. In fact, her cleaning has prevented her from having a full-time job, and it has really damaged her relationship with her husband and children. She doesn’t spend time with them and she is often scolding them for being messy.” All of this cleaning seems to be tied to the intrusive thoughts that Angela experiences. She is always worried about germs and contamination, and when she sees a dirty dish, she can’t help but imagine that her whole family will die of food poisoning. 30. Which disorder is most consistent with Angela’s symptoms? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. bipolar disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. delusional disorder 31. Norton hears disembodied voices all the time that give him strange commands. The voices have told him that a spacecraft will land over the weekend and take him to a more advanced civilization. What is the term for the voices that Norton hears? a. obsessions b. delusions c. hallucinations d. archetypes 32. Trish has been diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. What is the lifetime risk that her identical twin will also develop an anxiety disorder? a. 5% b. 35% c. 65% d. 95% 33. Maria’s doctor recommended that she increase her exposure to natural light in order to improve her symptoms. Which type of disorder has Maria’s doctor likely diagnosed? a. depression b. personality c. anxiety d. schizophrenia 34. The DSM-5 has two separate classes of mood disorders. Which of the following are these classes? a. bipolar and related disorders and depressive disorders b. cyclothymic disorder and dysthymia c. depressive disorders and dysthymia d. disruptive mood disorders and bipolar disorder

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 35. Renata recently had a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan done. The results showed that her brain has enlarged ventricles and a thalamus that is smaller than normal. If Renata has a psychological disorder, which disorder is most likely given the results of her MRI scan? a. dissociative identity disorder b. bipolar disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. schizophrenia 36. Ivy excitedly tells you that she has been invited to sing at the coronation of the new King of Cyprus. You find this difficult to believe, considering that Ivy sings terribly, and Cyprus doesn’t have a king. Ivy’s statements are clearly out of touch with reality. What is Ivy experiencing? a. hallucinations b. obsessions c. delusions d. compulsions 37. Increasing biogenetic explanations for mental illnesses are also associated with an increase in which of the following stereotypes regarding psychological disorders? a. Those with psychological disorders are often personally to blame for their own problems and difficulties in life b. People with psychological disorders behave in very different and bizarre ways. c. The mental health system is biased toward seeing pathology in everyone. d. Psychological disorders are incurable. 38. Lee spends an excessive amount of time online and is highly preoccupied with sexual content. Lately, this preoccupation has been interfering with his work (e.g., he sneaks off to use his phone or personal devices during work hours) and his marriage. A clinician would describe these latter aspects of Lee’s behaviour as being which of the following? a. distressing b. etiological c. deviant d. maladaptive 39. Which statement best describes the onset of bipolar disorder? a. The peak age of onset is during middle or late adulthood (age 40 and on). b. The onset of bipolar disorder is spread evenly across almost all age groups. c. The peak age of onset is usually in the late teens to early 20s. d. The symptoms tend to be most severe when the disorder has a late onset. 40. Which statement best describes the onset of schizophrenia? a. The onset of schizophrenia is spread evenly across almost all age groups. b. The peak age of onset is during middle or late adulthood. c. The symptoms tend to be most severe when the disorder has a late onset. d. The symptoms usually emerge during adolescence or early adulthood. 41. Depression and addiction are frequently comorbid. What does this mean? a. Addiction causes depression. b. If an individual is diagnosed with one, then they cannot also receive a diagnosis for the other. c. They are frequently diagnosed in the same individual. d. Depression causes addiction. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 42. Which disorder is rarely seen outside affluent Western cultures? a. bipolar illness b. anorexia nervosa c. depression d. schizophrenia 43. What has been demonstrated in epidemiological studies of psychological disorders? a. There has been a significant decrease in prevalence rates of mental illness in Canada in recent years. b. Psychological disorders are more common than many people realize. c. Epidemics involving psychological disorders are common. d. Lifetime prevalence rates are lower than standard prevalence rates. 44. Jazmine has just returned home after receiving treatment for schizophrenia. The therapist who is supervising her case is aware that Jazmine’s family is high in expressed emotion. What should Jazmine’s therapist expect under these conditions? a. Jazmine will need little or no medication because she will have high levels of social support. b. Jazmine is likely to develop positive symptoms. c. Jazmine has a high risk of relapse. d. Jazmine is likely to develop symptoms of bipolar disorder. 45. Which of the following anxiety disorders tends to have the latest onset? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. specific phobias c. panic disorder d. agoraphobia 46. Mimi has been diagnosed with autistic spectrum disorder. What will likely cause social problems for Mimi? a. manipulative behaviour b. hostile attribution errors c. paranoia d. limited theory of mind 47. The most recent prevalence estimates for autism spectrum disorder are approximately which of the following? a. 1–2 percent b. 4–5 percent c. 9–10 percent d. 10–12 percent 48. Carlos recently lost his family in a tragic fire. He is unable to remember any of the events that occurred in the hours just before the fire. He is also unable to remember anything about the actual fire, even though he went into the house three times, attempting to rescue his family members. What is most consistent with Carlos’s experience? a. dissociative fugue b. dissociative amnesia c. panic disorder d. anterograde amnesia 49. Which of the following is NOT one of the top three most common types of psychological disorders in North America? a. anxiety b. depression c. substance use disorders d. dissociative disorders

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 50. Which statement best represents the incidence rate of bipolar disorders in males and females? a. It occurs nearly twice as frequently in women as in men. b. It occurs with equal frequency in women and in men. c. It occurs nearly twice as frequently in men as in women. d. It occurs nearly four times as frequently in women as in men. 51. Which symptom is NOT associated with generalized anxiety disorder? a. trembling b. dizziness c. delusions d. diarrhea 52. Michenne was giving a presentation to her class when suddenly the roof collapsed. Michenne was not injured herself, but she watched helplessly as her classmates were pinned under mounds of rubble. She saw horrific injuries, and several of her classmates were killed in the accident. If Michenne develops symptoms of a mental disorder, what disorder is it most likely to be? a. post-traumatic stress disorder b. panic disorder c. nonspecific phobia disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 53. Abnormalities in certain neural circuits have recently been implicated in panic and obsessive-compulsive disorders. Which neurotransmitter is used in those defective circuits? a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. endorphin d. serotonin 54. Which disorder is associated with the highest risk of suicide? a. major depressive disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. alcoholism d. schizophrenia 55. The DSM-5 has been criticized for some of its changes. Which criticism is associated with the addition of diagnoses like disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? a. It is too categorical. b. It is too dimensional. c. It pathologizes everyday life. d. It ignores the issue of comorbidity. 56. Complete the following analogy: Diagnosis is to prognosis as _______. a. etiology is to symptoms b. identification is to prediction c. why is to what d. ontogeny is to phylogeny 57. If a child in a school in the Canada answered “crickets” to a question about their favourite food, this might be an usual answer. But it might be less unusual in other parts of the world. This example represents the importance of which of the following in defining what is considered deviant behaviour? a. social roles b. cultural norms c. biophilia d. informational social influence 58. Often, cases of dissociative identity disorder receive wide press coverage, leading people to believe this disorder is a relatively common psychological problem when, in fact, it is quite rare. Which concept is illustrated by this example? a. availability heuristic b. hindsight bias c. representativeness heuristic d. conjunction fallacy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 59. Which statement does NOT accurately describe dissociative identity disorder? a. Most people with dissociative identity disorder have a history of other disorders. b. The separate personalities are usually aware of one another. c. Transitions between the separate identities often occur suddenly. d. The separate identities can differ in age, race, gender, or sexual orientation. 60. Which of the following phobic fears shows the highest lifetime prevalence? a. heights b. blood c. flying d. animals 61. Which of the following psychoactive substances may contribute to onset of schizophrenia in otherwise genetically vulnerable individuals? a. cocaine b. alcohol c. marijuana d. heroin 62. Which of the following disorders has a higher prevalence among men than women? a. borderline personality disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. depressive disorder d. antisocial personality disorder 63. Carrie has been sad a lot lately. She is down on herself, has very little appetite, can’t sleep, and doesn’t want to be around her friends or family. What is most consistent with Carrie’s symptoms? a. depressive episode b. cyclothymia c. dissociative fugue d. hypomanic episode 64. Which of the following is the current status of research that has shown a link between vaccinations and autism? a. The research has been replicated and verified. b. The research is suggestive, but there is more work to be done. c. The research is only sometimes replicated, depending on certain extraneous variables. d. The research has been discredited as fraudulent. 65. Canadian comedian and TV personality Howie Mandel suffers from which manifestation of obsessivecompulsive disorder? a. mysophobia also known as obsessive checking b. chronophobia or fear of losing track while counting c. mysophobia also known as fear of germs and contamination d. mysophobia also known as fear of hugging 66. What is the modern term used for the “insanity” designation in Canada? a. not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder b. unfit to stand trial c. compromised by automatism d. not guilty by reason of insanity

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 67. Ralph washes and polishes his car every morning before he leaves for work. He spends at least 15 minutes, going over it three times, before he considers it clean enough. Lately, he has been arriving late to work as he has been cleaning his car more and more. He is preoccupied with thoughts that the car is dirty and will be a source of contamination. A psychologist would say that Ralph’s ______________ are compulsive. a. thoughts about contamination b. thoughts about getting to work on time c. cleaning behaviours d. increasingly late arrivals to work 68. What is the term for the apparent cause and development of an illness? a. Etiology b. epidemiology c. prognosis d. diagnosis 69. Which statement accurately describes depression? a. The onset of depression is most commonly after age 40. b. Depression increases mortality by approximately 50 percent. c. Depression rates are declining. d. The prevalence of depression is twice as high in men as in women. 70. Which disorder would be most likely to cause a person to be declared unfit to stand trial? a. antisocial personality disorder b. substance-abuse disorder c. schizophrenic disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 71. Pius has just entered treatment for a major depressive episode. He is told that most patients respond to treatment within a month, and many never experience a second depressive episode. What does this information represent? a. histology b. prognosis c. etiology d. diagnosis 72. Which of the following are predictors of vulnerability to PTSD, according to recent research? a. intensity of reaction and dissociative experiences at the time of the event b. intensity of the event and dissociative experiences at the time of the event c. intensity of reaction and a previous history of at least one anxiety disorder d. intensity of the event and a previous history of at least one anxiety disorder 73. Hamilton has embezzled over $3 million from the bank where he is employed as an executive loan officer. He feels no remorse for his actions, and he is looking forward to an early retirement in some South American country with no extradition agreement. Which term best describes Hamilton’s criminal behaviour in this example? a. maladaptive b. legal insanity c. deviant d. personally distressing 74. What is the prevalence of schizophrenia in the population? a. 1 percent b. 5 percent c. 10 percent d. 15 percent

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 75. Some recent research has suggested that children with autism have approximately _________ neurons in the prefrontal cortex than other children do. a. 30% fewer b. 15% fewer c. 30% more d. 65% more 76. Damian has brief attacks of overwhelming anxiety in which his heart pounds and he can’t control his breathing. He never knows when the next attack will occur. Which disorder is most consistent with Damian’s symptoms? a. post-traumatic stress disorder b. phobic disorder c. schizophrenia d. panic disorder 77. Dr. Underhill is reviewing the records from a patient who has just been referred for treatment. He is carefully considering the symptoms that have been documented and is attempting to identify the type of psychological disorder the individual is most likely to have. What is Dr. Underhill trying to create? a. diagnosis b. etiology c. histology d. prognosis 78. Approximately what percentage of the individuals who develop either anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa are females? a. 20 to 25% b. 50 to 55% c. 70 to 75% d. 90 to 95% 79. What was demonstrated in Rosenhan’s study using “pseudopatients”? a. Our mental health system is biased toward seeing mental illness in all potential patients. b. Most mental patients are extensively observed before an initial diagnosis is made. c. It is extremely difficult to successfully fake the symptoms of serious mental illness. d. Mental hospital staff spend a great deal of time interacting with patients. 80. For the past few years, Clive has gone through long stretches of time where he felt sad and unmotivated and lost interest in things that he normally enjoys. He has noticed that it typically starts around October or November and continues until March, when his symptoms begin to improve. Clive is most likely suffering from which of the following? a. bipolar I disorder b. postpartum depression c. cyclothymia d. seasonal affective disorder 81. Which of the following controversial disorder do critics say may actually be caused by media portrayals and unwitting reinforcement from therapists for patients showing symptoms of a seemingly exotic or exciting disorder? a. schizophrenia b. anterograde amnesia c. borderline personality disorder d. dissociative identity disorder 82. Courtney has been diagnosed with depression. What would you expect to find if you were to look at an MRI image of her brain? a. increased activation in the frontal lobes b. enlarged ventricles c. reduced hippocampal volume d. decreased activation in the limbic system

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 83. Jeff has been diagnosed with both an anxiety disorder and a personality disorder. Which of the following terms refers to this joint diagnosis? a. dual diagnosis b. bipathology c. comorbidity d. additive diagnosis 84. The disorder formerly known as multiple personality disorder is now officially known as which of the following? a. schizophrenia b. dissociative identity disorder c. dissociative fugue d. schizotypal personality disorder 85. A well-known example of schizophrenia in literature and film can be found in A Beautiful Mind. Whose life is described in this film? a. Albert Einstein, Nobel Prize–winning physicist whose lab assistant suffered from schizophrenia b. Russell Crowe, Oscar-winning actor who suffered from paranoid schizophrenia c. John Nash, Nobel Prize—winning mathematician, who suffered from paranoid schizophrenia d. Francis Galton, Charles Darwin’s cousin who also suffered from schizophrenia 86. Which brain feature is suggested to have an association with chronic schizophrenic disturbance, based on research with CT scans and MRI scans? a. shrunken hippocampal regions b. enlarged temporal lobes c. atrophied cells in the corpus callosum d. enlarged brain ventricles 87. When does a patient with schizophrenia tend to have the most favourable prognosis? a. when the onset occurs at an early age b. when the onset of the disorder is gradual c. when the patient’s family is high in expressed emotion d. when the proportion of negative symptoms is relatively low 88. Which term describes behaviour that does not coincide with cultural norms? a. insane b. personally distressing c. maladaptive d. deviant 89. If Seligman’s notion of “preparedness” were correct, which of the following would be predicted to be the most common phobia? a. dogs b. guns c. sidewalks d. plants 90. What percentage of the population will experience a psychological disorder at some time in their lives? a. less than 10 percent b. 15 to 25 percent c. approximately 50 percent d. greater than 60 percent 91. If you want to know how long an illness is expected to last or what to expect over the course of the illness, what do you need to know? a. etiology b. prognosis c. phenomenology d. diagnosis

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 92. A psychotherapist notes that a patient of hers seems to engage in a form of “splitting” wherein the patient treats the therapist almost as though the therapist is two different people. On some occasions, the patient seems to idealize the therapist and on other occasions treats her with an irrational contempt or even hatred. This behaviour is most consistent with which of the following disorders? a. bipolar disorder b. dissociative identity disorder c. antisocial personality disorder d. borderline personality disorder 93. Which risk factor is implicated by the finding that many schizophrenics have difficulty in basic information processing? a. traumatic childhood experiences b. exposure to deviant communication patterns c. neurological defects d. a specific recessive gene 94. Which disorder is characterized by worry and fear, muscle tension, trembling, faintness, and difficulty in concentrating? a. conversion disorder b. dissociative disorder c. paranoid disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 95. Jose has a psychological disorder, and his doctor has prescribed a drug that affects both the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in Jose’s nervous system. What is Jose most likely being treated for, based on this information? a. depression b. personality disorder c. schizophrenia d. dissociative disorder 96. Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by the development of schizophrenia involving a complex interplay among a variety of psychological, biological, and social factors? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. 97. What often precedes the development of a panic disorder? a. onset of puberty b. a period of significant stress c. a traumatic or life-threatening experience d. a weakened immune system 98. Alexa started a new job on Monday morning. For the first three days, she showed up in bright colours and was outgoing and extroverted. However, on Thursday she showed up in a dark suit and appeared shy and introverted. She insisted that her name was Clara, and she couldn't understand why her co-workers kept calling her Alexa. Which disorder is consistent with Alexa’s behaviour? a. schizophrenia b. antisocial personality disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. dissociative fugue

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 99. The prevalence estimates of both schizophrenia and bipolar disorders are roughly comparable across diverse cultures. Which view of psychological disorders does this finding support? a. stress-vulnerability model b. relativistic c. pancultural d. idiosyncratic 100. Which of the following disorders is commonly and incorrectly referred to as schizophrenia in popular media? a. obsessive compulsive disorder b. dissociative identity disorder c. major depressive disorder d. panic disorder 101. David Rosenhan conducted a classic study in 1973 to investigate the question whether it was plausible to believe that there were sane individuals being held in psychiatric institutions. What was his method? a. The method used by Rosenhan was called the ‘psychiatric dilemma’. b. Rosenhan interviewed over 300 psychiatric patients to evaluate their sanity. c. He arranged for normal people to go to the hospital and complain of hearing voices. d. He arranged for abnormal or mentally ill people to get admitted to hospital and then see how long it took them to get better and be released. 102. Summer has anorexia nervosa and is slowly starving herself to death. When friends or family tell her to seek professional help, she tells them that she feels fine. She can’t understand why people won’t just leave her alone. Which term best describes Summer’s eating disorder? a. personally distressing b. delusional c. culturally deviant d. maladaptive 103. Mayra has a psychological disorder, and her doctor has prescribed a drug that affects the levels of dopamine in her nervous system. Which disorder is Mayra most likely being treated for? a. anxiety disorder b. schizophrenic disorder c. dissociative disorder d. mood disorder 104. When do individuals with schizophrenic disorders tend to show a greater responsiveness to treatment? a. when positive and negative symptoms alternate b. when negative symptoms are predominant c. when positive and negative symptoms are both evident at the same time d. when positive symptoms are predominant 105. Selena constantly thinks about climbing up the stairs to the roof of her building and jumping into the street below. These thoughts bother her, and she wishes they would stop. What is illustrated by this example? a. obsession b. delusion c. compulsion d. hallucination 106. Nabeel hears voices singing even though none are present. What is Nabeel experiencing? a. delusions b. loosening of associations c. obsessions d. hallucinations

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 107. What is the likely cause of reduced hippocampal volume associated with depression? a. cell death caused by excess serotonin b. synaptic loss causes by stress and rumination c. failure of neurogenesis d. deficits in mylenization 108. People with chronic but relatively mild symptoms of bipolar disturbance are often diagnosed with which of the following? a. bipolar I disorder b. dysthymic disorder c. bipolar II disorder d. cyclothymic disorder 109. What symptom involves the perception of stimuli that aren’t there? a. anhedonia b. hallucinations c. delusions d. illusions 110. The key symptoms of depression in Western cultures are often cognitive symptoms, such as guilt and selfblame. The key symptoms of depression in non-Western cultures are often somatic symptoms, such as headaches and fatigue. Which view of psychological disorders is supported by the fact that the same disorder can manifest itself in different ways in Western and non-Western cultures? a. relativistic b. stress-vulnerability model c. pancultural d. idiosyncratic 111. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that seems to occur only in Western cultures. Which view of psychological disorders does the discovery of culture-bound disorders, such as anorexia nervosa, lend support to? a. relativistic b. stress-vulnerability model c. idiosyncratic d. pancultural 112. Which of the following neurotransmitters is MOST closely associated with anxiety disorders? a. GABA b. glutamate c. dopamine d. endorphins 113. Jillian lets her husband keep all the financial records for the family, and she expects him to make all the decisions that affect the family. She refuses to make any decisions on her own, and if anything unexpected occurs, she calls her husband at work to ask for his advice. Which cluster of disorders is most consistent with Jillian’s symptoms if she has a personality disorder? a. odd/eccentric b. anxious/fearful c. neurotic/dissociative d. dramatic/impulsive 114. Paxton comes from a home where discipline was erratic, and he was physically abused by his parents. His parents were also self-centred and exploitive. Which disorder is associated with this pattern of childhood experience? a. paranoid schizophrenia b. one of the somatoform disorders c. antisocial personality disorder d. bipolar disorder

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 115. How do typical drugs for the treatment of schizophrenia function? a. They are dopamine agonists. b. They are serotonin reuptake inhibitors. c. They are norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors. d. They reduce the activity of dopamine in the brain. 116. Which of the following disorders is NOT more common among women than among men? a. panic disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. major depressive disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 117. An individual with OCD is most likely to have deficits in which of the following? a. executive functions b. covert attention c. memory d. metacognition 118. Elise is so terrified of enclosed places that she had to quit her new job because her office had no windows. She knows that her fear is irrational, but she can’t seem to control her anxiety. Which disorder is most consistent with Elise’s symptoms? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. phobic disorder c. conversion disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 119. While recent research has begun to demonstrate that many psychological disorders are at least partially attributable to genetic and biological factors, making them seem more similar to physical illnesses, stigma associated with mental illness has done which of the following? a. increased b. slightly decreased c. strongly decreased d. not changed 120. Psychopathy is a term that refers to which of the following personality disorders? a. antisocial b. borderline c. narcissistic d. schizotypal 121. Enos and Amir are both currently 30 years old. Enos’s biological mother has schizophrenia, but neither of his adoptive parents have the disorder. In contrast, neither of Amir’s biological parents have schizophrenia; however, his adoptive mother has schizophrenia. What should you predict based on research that has investigated the role of genetic vulnerability in schizophrenic disorders? a. Enos and Amir are both at high risk for developing schizophrenia. b. Neither Enos nor Amir is likely to develop schizophrenia. c. Amir is unlikely to develop schizophrenia, but Enos has an increased risk of developing schizophrenia. d. Enos is unlikely to develop schizophrenia, but Amir has an increased risk of developing schizophrenia. 122. Fiona has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. What should you expect to find in Fiona’s medical record, based on the physical symptoms listed in your text? a. amenorrhea and low blood pressure b. cardiac arrhythmias and osteoporosis c. dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias d. dental problems and elevated blood pressure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 123. Individuals with depression show structural and/or functional differences in which of the following two brain regions? a. the nucleus accumbens and hypothalamus b. the nucleus accumbens and hippocampus c. the amygdala and hippocampus d. the amygdala and hypothalamus 124. Which of the following is NOT an anxiety disorder in the DSM-5? a. agoraphobia b. selective mutism c. panic disorder d. post-traumatic stress disorder 125. Doris feels terrified every time she leaves her house and avoids doing so whenever possible. What is most consistent with Doris’s experience? a. agoraphobia b. social phobia c. generalized anxiety disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 126. What is the most likely cause of dissociative amnesia? a. neurotic personality b. unconscious recollections of childhood trauma c. neurotransmitter imbalance d. extreme stress 127. What is the term for an unwanted thought that repeatedly intrudes upon an individual’s consciousness? a. hallucination b. delusion c. compulsion d. obsession 128. Body dysmorphic disorder is classified as being related to which of the following disorders? a. anxiety disorders b. obsessive-compulsive disorders c. dissociative disorders d. depressive disorders 129. Charlie cannot tolerate heights. When walking up several flights of stairs, he breaks out in a cold sweat, shakes, and believes he is going to fall and seriously injure himself. Consequently, Charlie avoids any type of height at all costs. Which disorder is most consistent with Charlie’s symptoms? a. somatoform disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. phobic disorder d. panic disorder 130. In the conditioning and learning explanation for anxiety, why is the fear not gradually extinguished? a. because fear-inducing stimuli cannot be extinguished b. because we are biologically prepared to fear certain things c. because the avoidance response ensures that the person does not experience the object of their fear without negative consequences d. because operant conditioning cannot be extinguished 131. Based on statistics, for which of the following individuals would the onset of panic disorder be most likely? a. a 60-year-old male b. a 20-year-old female c. a 15-year-old male d. a 40-year-old female

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 132. What percentages of young women develop anorexia nervosa and bulimia, respectively? a. 1 percent anorexia; 2 percent bulimia b. 3 percent anorexia; 1 percent bulimia c. 10 percent anorexia; 20 percent bulimia d. 20 percent anorexia; 5 percent bulimia 133. For which of the major disorders are symptom patterns most culturally variable? a. dissociative disorders b. bipolar illness c. schizophrenia d. depression 134. What does the “vulnerability” model of schizophrenia suggest is the trigger for schizophrenia? a. psychological weakness or vulnerability b. predisposing factors that interact with stressful life events c. genetic-based deficiency of certain neurotransmitters d. inherent physical weakness of the brain to deal with stress 135. Complete the following analogy: Prognosis is to etiology as __________. a. why is to what b. outcome is to cause c. what is to why d. cure is to treatment 136. Cherie’s children were killed in an automobile accident, which Cherie survived. When police question her about the events surrounding the accident, Cherie is unable to remember anything. She remembers getting into her car to drive her children to school, and she remembers her trip by ambulance to the local hospital, but everything in between is a complete “blank.” Which disorder is most consistent with Cherie’s experience? a. anterograde amnesia b. dissociative fugue c. dissociative amnesia d. panic disorder Angela Angela experiences a lot of anxiety associated with housekeeping. The house is never clean enough for her perfectionistic standards. If she sees anything that she considers to be out of place, she has to put it away immediately. Recently, she has been spending approximately 10 hours each day cleaning, organizing, and checking things around the house. In fact, her cleaning has prevented her from having a full-time job, and it has really damaged her relationship with her husband and children. She doesn’t spend time with them and she is often scolding them for being messy.” All of this cleaning seems to be tied to the intrusive thoughts that Angela experiences. She is always worried about germs and contamination, and when she sees a dirty dish, she can’t help but imagine that her whole family will die of food poisoning. 137. Which criteria of abnormality does Angela’s behaviour meet? a. maladaptiveness and personal distress b. deviance and maladaptiveness c. insanity and deviance d. personal distress and insanity 138. Which condition has been recognized as causes of automatism, and could be used as a defence in court? a. sleepwalking and carbon monoxide poisoning b. antisocial personality disorder c. schizophrenia and bipolar disorder d. mental retardation

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 139. Treit’s best friend was seriously injured in a car accident last month. Since that time, Treit has been attending all his classes, but he feels like he is unable to pay attention because he is constantly thinking about his friend. Treit finds he can’t seem to think about anything else, and he is frequently overwhelmed by feelings of helplessness. Which term best describes Treit’s feelings? a. culturally deviant b. personally distressing c. Delusional d. Compulsive 140. Which athlete is most likely to suffer from depression? a. one with a concussion that damaged the occipital lobes b. one with compression of the cervical spine c. one with a concussion that damaged the frontal lobes d. one with compression of the thoracic spine 141. Traumatic childhood experiences, such as physical or sexual abuse, may be central to the development of which of the following disorders? a. schizophrenia b. dissociative identity disorder c. schizotypal personality disorder d. depression 142. Dr. Cueto believes that a psychological disorder like depression can be diagnosed and treated in a way that is like how you would treat a disease like diabetes. Which model of abnormal behaviour is reflected by Dr. Cueto’s beliefs? a. medical b. psychodynamic c. behavioural d. deviance 143. Charlotte is in a heightened emotional state and hasn’t been sleeping much lately. Additionally, she is making plans to solve the world’s hunger problem while simultaneously composing music (even though she’s never had musical training). Which disorder is most consistent with Charlotte’s symptoms? a. antisocial personality disorder b. seasonal affective disorder c. bipolar disorder d. dissociative identity disorder 144. What is characteristic of negative symptoms in schizophrenia? a. behavioural deficits such as flattened emotion, apathy, and poverty of speech b. behavioural excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behaviour c. antisocial behaviours such as violence and rage reactions d. dissociative behaviours and the emergence of multiple personalities 145. Recent evidence suggests that which of the following may be responsible for the reduced hippocampal volume seen in patients with depression? a. amyloid plaques surround neurons in this region, ultimately killing them b. stress causes a suppression of neurogenesis in the region c. depression-related substance abuse causes neuron death particularly in this region d. many antidepressants selectively inhibit hippocampal neurons

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 146. Which of the following statements about suicide rates in Canada is FALSE? a. Females attempt suicide at three times the rate of males. b. Canadian immigrants have higher suicide rates than native-born Canadians. c. Males complete four times as many suicides as females. d. Suicide rates are higher than average among most Indigenous populations in Canada. 147. The American Psychological Association has published a manual which categorizes and classifies psychological disorders to facilitate research and enhance communication amongst mental health professionals. What is this manual called? a. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders b. Diagnostic and Therapeutic Manual of Mental Disorders c. Mental Disorders Classification Manual d. APA Manual of Mental Disorders and Therapies 148. Which of the following is NOT considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia? a. delusions b. hallucinations c. blunted affect d. bizarre behaviour 149. Sharon is pregnant and last week she had influenza. Evidence suggests that this might increase the vulnerability of her child for which disorder (once the child reaches their teens or early adulthood)? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. dysthymia c. dissociative identity disorder d. schizophrenia 150. What role do value judgments play in the diagnosis of psychological disorders? a. Diagnoses of mental illness are impacted by value judgments which emerge from prevailing cultural values and social trends but are not limited by the scientific knowledge of the times b. There is no room for value judgments in science c. diagnosis involves value judgments about what represents normal or abnormal d. diagnosis of mental illness involves the same level of value judgments as the diagnosis of medical conditions 151. Claire has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. What should you expect to find in Claire’s medical record, based on the physical symptoms listed in your text? a. cardiac arrhythmias and elevated blood pressure b. metabolic disturbances and dental problems c. amenorrhea and low blood pressure d. dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias 152. Which personality disorder includes fear of abandonment as a key symptom? a. antisocial b. paranoid c. borderline d. schizoid

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 153. Darlene can’t stop thinking about her own flaws and failures. She replays negative events over and over in her mind and worries constantly about her lack of motivation. What is illustrated in this example? a. anhedonia b. rumination c. compulsion d. cyclothymia 154. Which types of families are associated with the poorest prognosis when patients return to their families after treatment for schizophrenia? a. those with high interpersonal support b. those with low experienced emotion c. those with low communication deviance d. those with high expressed emotion 155. Ramsay is being treated for a psychological disorder. As part of her treatment program, she is taking medication that alters the activity of serotonin synapses. Which type of disorder is she likely being treated for? a. obsessive-compulsive b. somatoform c. personality d. agoraphobic 156. Johanna was somewhat surprised when her study partner postponed a study session because he had an appointment with his psychotherapist. She said to a friend, “I have been working with Bill for several months now, and he has never shown any signs of a disorder.” Johanna’s comment suggests that she holds which inaccurate stereotype? a. People with psychological disorders are often dangerous. b. The mental health system has a bias toward seeing pathology in everyone. c. Psychological disorders are incurable. d. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways. 157. Carina is 50 years old, and her moods are rather unpredictable. Some days she is excited and happy, other days she is sad and withdrawn. Her symptoms seem fairly mild, but she has had mood swings of this type since she was in her early 20s. Which disorder is most consistent with Carina’s symptoms? a. dysthymic disorder b. cyclothymic disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. undifferentiated schizophrenia 158. What is the etiology of a disorder? a. the description of the symptoms b. the relationship among the symptoms c. the projected course or outcome of the disorder d. the apparent cause of the disorder 159. How are phobic responses acquired and then maintained, according to Mowrer? a. They are acquired by classical conditioning and maintained by operant conditioning. b. They are acquired and maintained by operant conditioning. c. They are acquired and maintained by classical conditioning. d. They are acquired by operant conditioning and maintained by classical conditioning.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 160. Marnie has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is the approximate likelihood that her identical twin will also be diagnosed with schizophrenia at some point in her life? a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 75 percent d. 100 percent 161. Which condition is characterized by recurrent, intense, and sudden and unexpected onset of anxiety? a. panic disorder b. paranoid disorder c. post-traumatic stress disorder d. phobic disorder 162. Jack hears voices and believes that he has supernatural powers. Which type of schizophrenic symptoms are most prevalent in Jack’s case? a. disorganized b. positive c. undifferentiated d. negative 163. Carmilla is nervous about taking her 1-year-old son to be vaccinated, as she has read articles online and seen some celebrities claiming that vaccines can cause autism in young children. If Carmilla asks you about the current status of research linking vaccines and autism, which statement is most accurate? a. The research has been replicated and verified. b. The research is suggestive, but there is more work to be done. c. The research is only sometimes replicated, depending on certain extraneous variables. d. The research has been discredited as fraudulent. 164. Which disorder can be considered a milder version of bipolar disorder? a. rapid-cycling disorder b. cyclothymic disorder c. manic disorder d. dysthymic disorder 165. In approximately what proportion of women who have given birth do symptoms of postpartum depression occur? a. 1–2 percent b. 3–5 percent c. 5–10 percent d. 10–20 percent 166. Which symptom is NOT associated with bipolar disorder? a. hallucinations b. decreased need for sleep c. inflated self-esteem d. sexually reckless behaviour 167. One of the central characteristics of major depressive disorder is a diminished ability to experience pleasure. This is known as which of the following? a. biophilia b. antisocial behaviour c. anhedonia d. catatonia 168. Which statement best reflects the heritability of schizophrenia? a. Concordance rates for schizophrenia are the same for fraternal and identical twins. b. Concordance rates for schizophrenia are near 100 percent for identical twins. c. Schizophrenia is caused by a recessive gene contributed by each parent. d. Some people inherit a genetic vulnerability to schizophrenia. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 Angela Angela experiences a lot of anxiety associated with housekeeping. The house is never clean enough for her perfectionistic standards. If she sees anything that she considers to be out of place, she has to put it away immediately. Recently, she has been spending approximately 10 hours each day cleaning, organizing, and checking things around the house. In fact, her cleaning has prevented her from having a full-time job, and it has really damaged her relationship with her husband and children. She doesn’t spend time with them and she is often scolding them for being messy.” All of this cleaning seems to be tied to the intrusive thoughts that Angela experiences. She is always worried about germs and contamination, and when she sees a dirty dish, she can’t help but imagine that her whole family will die of food poisoning. 169. Abnormalities in which neurotransmitter circuit has been demonstrated to be involved in Angela’s disorder? a. epinephrine b. melatonin c. serotonin d. dopamine 170. “People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways and are very different from normal people.” Which statement best relates to the previous statement? a. People with psychological disorders are bizarre but not very different than most people. b. This is a stereotype of people with mental illness which is never true. c. This is only correct in a small minority of cases. d. This statement is correct in most cases. 171. What is most disrupted in people with schizophrenic disorders? a. thought b. motor function c. emotion d. language 172. A person with schizophrenia reports that he frequently hears a voice from an alien spacecraft telling him that he has been specifically chosen by the alien leader to be their spokesperson in all communications with world leaders. The fact that he believes that he is an agent of the aliens who was specially chosen is best considered an example of which of the following? a. a visual hallucination b. an auditory hallucination c. a delusion of persecution d. a delusion of grandeur 173. Cooper never takes the same route to work two days in a row, to prevent the enemy agents from following him and learning where he works. What is Cooper experiencing? a. delusions b. hallucinations c. obsessions d. anhedonia 174. What is the likely relationship between social skills and risk for depression? a. Increased need for social interaction among extraverts puts them at risk for depression after a relationship ends. b. Both have common genetic foundations. c. Those who are depressed lose their ability to interact appropriately with others, so depression is the cause of poor social skills. d. People with poor social skills have a harder time getting the social support and reinforcers that we need.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 175. Which of the following may be a risk factor for dissociative identity disorder, especially considering that it is reported by a majority of patients with this disorder? a. extreme stress in the month prior to developing the disorder b. childhood rejection and abuse c. neurotransmitter imbalances d. a personality profile that is high in neuroticism 176. What would you expect to find in the new DSM-5 that was not a feature of previous DSMs? a. a multiaxial system of diagnosis b. a hybrid of categorical and dimensional approaches c. greater consistency with the ICD-11 d. a global assessment of functioning 177. Which model includes the concept that abnormal behaviour is the result of a disease? a. psychological b. humanistic c. medical d. behavioural 178. What does the former legal term of insanity indicate? a. a person has a chronic mental illness that is not responsive to treatment b. an individual is dangerous to him- or herself, or to others c. a defendant is unable to understand the nature and purpose of legal proceedings d. a person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of mental illness 179. Rosa is the personnel director at Acme Enterprises. If she finds that an individual who has applied for employment has ever been treated for a psychological disorder, she doesn’t consider that person for a job. She is concerned that the person will have another breakdown under the stressful conditions that exist at Acme Enterprises. Which stereotype is illustrated in this example? a. Psychological disorders are often over-diagnosed. b. All psychological disorders are incurable. c. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways. d. People with psychological disorders are often dangerous. 180. With which model of abnormal behaviour are the terms “mental illness” and “psychopathology” most closely associated? a. humanistic b. learning c. psychodynamic d. medical 181. Which statement best reflects the medical model? a. All physical illnesses have a psychological component. b. Abnormal behaviour can be thought of as a disease. c. All mental illnesses are caused by biological factors. d. All mental illnesses can be treated using drugs.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 182. Which disorder is associated with echolalia? a. delusional disorder b. bipolar disorder c. antisocial personality disorder d. autistic spectrum disorder 183. What is characteristic of positive symptoms in schizophrenia? a. compliant behaviour such as medication monitoring b. behavioural deficits such as flattened emotion, apathy, and poverty of speech c. dissociative behaviours and the emergence of multiple personalities d. behavioural excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behaviour 184. Howard has recently been diagnosed with OCD. His doctor would like to prescribe a medication that will alter the activity of a specific neurotransmitter. Given his diagnosis, which of the following neurotransmitters is the most likely candidate in this situation? a. glutamate b. GABA c. serotonin d. dopamine 185. Imagine that researchers discovered that increased aggression was a common symptom of schizophrenia (it is not). If this were discovered, using the distinctions of the DSM-5, in which of the following ways would this symptom most likely be classified? a. as a positive symptom b. as a negative symptom c. as a neutral symptom d. as an undifferentiated symptom 186. Frank witnessed a horrible car accident but cannot remember anything about it. Which disorder is associated with Frank’s experience? a. conversion disorder b. dissociative amnesia c. psychosis-induced repression d. dissociative fugue 187. Antero is often very irritable, but his behaviour is unpredictable. Some months he is very busy and agitated, and other months he feels very lazy and fatigued. Which disorder is most consistent with Antero’s symptoms? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. dysthymic disorder c. cyclothymic disorder d. antisocial personality disorder 188. Which of the following statements about postpartum depression is FALSE? a. Women residing in rural environments have higher rates than those in urban environments. b. Postpartum depression affects 10 to 20 percent of women who have given birth. c. The symptoms of postpartum depression can be both depression and mania. d. In Canada, immigrant women are more likely to suffer from postpartum depression. 189. Zachary is 16 years old and has a lot of difficulty with social interactions. He has a hard time understanding the perspective of other people and he often engages in repetitive behaviours that others find very odd. Which disorder best fits Zachary’s behaviour? a. obsessive compulsive disorder b. autistic spectrum disorder c. borderline personality disorder d. dissociative identity disorder

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 190. Dr. Mah has a patient who thinks that she is incredibly beautiful, charming, and smart. She claims that her coworkers don’t appreciate her and that she rarely gets the recognition that she deserves. However, he has also noticed that her self-esteem seems to be quite fragile and that she appears to frequently be fishing for compliments. The patient seems to be showing symptoms of which of the following? a. bipolar disorder b. antisocial personality disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. narcissistic personality disorder 191. Dr. Chan is classically conditioning a fear response in rats. Group A will see an image of a car shortly before receiving a shock. Group B will see an image of a cat before receiving a shock. The number of shocks, the duration, and the intensity are all equal between the groups. Which of the following would you predict will happen? a. Group A will learn the association and show a fear response more quickly. b. Group B will learn the association and show a fear response more quickly. c. Both groups will learn the association and show a fear response equally quickly. d. Neither group will learn the association and will not show a fear response. 192. Penny has been diagnosed with a mood disorder. What is the likelihood that her identical twin will also be diagnosed with a mood disorder at some point in her lifetime? a. 10% b. 35% c. 65% d. 100% 193. What would you study if you were an epidemiologist? a. treatments for psychological disorders b. distribution of mental or physical disorders in a population c. how cultural values affect judgments of abnormality d. sudden “epidemics” involving specific mental or physical disorders 194. Ben is not a very conscientious individual. He often sleeps late in the morning, and on mornings when he oversleeps, he usually just skips work. He has been fired from four jobs in the past year, but he is not concerned because he feels that there are many other jobs available. Which term best describes Ben’s lack of dedication? a. personally distressing b. legally incompetent c. culturally deviant d. maladaptive 195. Dr. Rahal is classically conditioning a fear response in rats. Group A sees an image of a car shortly before receiving a shock. Group B sees an image of a cat before receiving a shock. Even though the number of shocks, duration, and intensity are all equal between the groups, Dr. Rahal finds that Group B learns their fear response more quickly. This experiment therefore supports which of the following concepts? a. avoidance learning b. biological preparedness c. operant conditioning d. latent learning

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 196. Which statement best describes eating disorders? a. Bulimia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than anorexia nervosa. b. Both bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa lead to death in 2 to 10 percent of patients. c. While bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa are both serious conditions, neither is a life-threatening condition. d. Anorexia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than bulimia nervosa. 197. What is a primary symptom associated with hoarding disorder? a. hallucinations about acquiring new items b. anxiety associated with getting rid of items c. depression associated with clutter d. delusions of persecution or grandeur 198. After several weeks of feeling gloomy and being socially withdrawn, Marco has suddenly become extremely sociable and talkative. He doesn’t seem to need any sleep, and he becomes irritated when his friends tell him to slow down. Which disorder is consistent with Marco’s behaviour? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. bipolar disorder c. histrionic personality disorder d. schizophrenia 199. Tina has been extremely hyperactive for the past week, and she has been getting by with only three hours of sleep each night. Her thoughts seem to be racing out of control, and she is convinced that the novel she started last week will become a bestseller and win a Giller Prize, even though she has never had any of her writing published in the past. What is most consistent with Tina’s symptoms? a. manic episode b. generalized anxiety disorder c. dissociative fugue d. dysthymic disorder 200. What is the mean duration of depressive episodes? a. 7 to 14 days b. 4 to 6 weeks c. 6 months d. 1 year 201. Because they are afraid of having a panic attack in public, people with panic disorder will often develop which of the following additional disorders? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. agoraphobia c. post-traumatic stress disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 202. With regard to psychological disorders, what does prevalence refer to? a. the percentage of a population that has ever been treated for a psychological disorder b. the reliability of the diagnosis of psychological disorders c. the absolute number of people who are experiencing any psychological disorder at a given point in time d. the percentage of a population that exhibits a disorder during a specified time period 203. Melanie has a blunted affect, rarely bathes, and shows little evidence of interest in any stimuli. If Melanie is diagnosed with schizophrenia, which type of symptoms is she expressing? a. positive b. disorganized c. undifferentiated d. negative Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 204. Samha finds that she is no longer interested in things she used to do, is sad most of the time, and thinks she is a terrible person. Additionally, she has recently lost a lot of weight and doesn’t sleep very much. Which disorder category is most consistent with Samha’s behaviour? a. dissociative b. personality c. anxiety d. depressive 205. For the past month, Miko seems to have lost interest in most of his normal activities. He feels irritable, and he has had difficulty sleeping. He also finds that he has difficulty making decisions. Which disorder is most consistent with Miko’s symptoms? a. cyclothymia b. major depressive disorder c. bipolar disorder d. anhedonia 206. What is the category of disorders that includes the former Asperger’s disorder? a. psychotic disorders b. autistic spectrum disorder c. personality disorders d. dissociative disorders 207. Johnny believes he is the prime minister of Canada. If Johnny isn’t the prime minister, what does his false belief represent? a. hallucination b. delusion c. compulsion d. obsession Angela Angela experiences a lot of anxiety associated with housekeeping. The house is never clean enough for her perfectionistic standards. If she sees anything that she considers to be out of place, she has to put it away immediately. Recently, she has been spending approximately 10 hours each day cleaning, organizing, and checking things around the house. In fact, her cleaning has prevented her from having a full-time job, and it has really damaged her relationship with her husband and children. She doesn’t spend time with them and she is often scolding them for being messy.” All of this cleaning seems to be tied to the intrusive thoughts that Angela experiences. She is always worried about germs and contamination, and when she sees a dirty dish, she can’t help but imagine that her whole family will die of food poisoning. 208. Which term best describes Angela’s intrusive thoughts? a. hallucination b. delusion c. obsession d. phobia 209. Which symptom is associated with bipolar disorder but NOT with major depressive disorder? a. altered appetite b. insomnia c. impulsive behaviour d. feelings of worthlessness 210. Wendy works at Dyne Corporation. At the last business executive meeting, she showed up in pyjamas and slippers. When her co-workers commented on the inappropriateness of her outfit, Wendy did not seem the least bit disturbed or embarrassed by their comments. What is the best description for Wendy’s style of dressing in this example? a. delusional b. personally distressing c. maladaptive d. deviant

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 211. A recent meta-analysis of over 2000 patients with schizophrenia found smaller volume than average in each of the following brain structures EXCEPT which one? a. the thalamus b. the amygdala c. the hippocampus d. the reticular formation 212. Which statement best describes the onset of depression? a. The peak age of onset is after age 40. b. The onset of depression can occur at any point in the life span. c. Symptoms tend to be most severe when the disorder has a late onset. d. Early onset cases are typically acute and do not recur later in life. 213. Which statement best represents the meaning of the terms normal and abnormal as applied to psychological disorders? a. Mentally healthy people always experience normal behaviours. b. There is no such thing as normal or abnormal. c. Abnormality and normality exist on a continuum. d. People are either normal or abnormal and it is up to a clinical psychologist to make that judgment. 214. David Rosenhan arranged for a number of “pseudopatients” (those without mental illness) to arrive at hospitals complaining of a single false symptom. He was interested to see how many would be admitted and for how long. Approximately what percentage of pseudopatients were admitted? a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 67 percent d. 100 percent 215. Which statement best describes antisocial personalities? a. Antisocial personalities are, by definition, violent criminals. b. Antisocial personalities tend to have an excessively high tolerance for frustration. c. Although they may be superficially charming, antisocial personalities rarely experience genuine affection for anyone. d. Antisocial personalities act as they do out of terror of punishment or humiliation. 216. Complete the following analogy: Diagnosis is to etiology as ____________. a. what is to why b. when is to where c. why is to what d. what is to when 217. Dean seems to have lost the ability to enjoy things that he used to enjoy. It’s as if nothing is pleasurable anymore. What is the term for Dean’s current experience? a. cyclothymia b. unipolar c. anhedonia d. rumination 218. Many people believe that those with mental illness are violence-prone. Why is this belief common? a. There is a strong correlation between mental illness and violent tendencies. b. Violence involving people with mental illness receives a lot of media attention. c. Many people have personally been the victims of such violence. d. Violence becomes more common when people are institutionalized. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 219. According to Mowrer’s explanation of anxiety, after an object begins to elicit anxiety for a person, the person may begin to avoid that particular stimulus. This avoidance response is then strengthened through a process of which of the following? a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. negative punishment d. positive punishment 220. Corrina constantly experiences feelings of dread and despair. Lately, she finds that she is thinking more and more about committing suicide so that she can end her feelings of desperation and hopelessness. Which term best describes Corrina’s feelings of dread and despair? a. signs of incompetence b. delusions c. personally distressing d. culturally deviant 221. What do the avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders have in common? a. maladaptive efforts to control anxiety and fear b. mistrustfulness and the inability to connect emotionally with others c. a flair for overdramatizing events d. highly impulsive behaviour 222. What is a delusion? a. false belief that is maintained even though it is not supported by reality b. consequence of loosening of associations c. perceptual experience without a sensation d. major symptom associated with dissociative disorders 223. Jim believes that the government is spying on him through his phone. Assuming that this is not correct, what term would be used for Jim’s belief? a. hallucination b. obsession c. delusion d. compulsion 224. Ruth was convicted of five separate counts of fraud. She had used her charm to persuade elderly pensioners to sign their life savings over to her. She confessed to the crimes, but she showed no remorse for her actions. She even told her lawyer that she would do it all again when she had the chance. Which disorder is consistent with Ruth’s behaviour? a. narcissistic personality disorder b. avoidant personality disorder c. antisocial personality disorder d. bipolar disorder 225. According to Seligman’s concept of “preparedness,” which stimuli should one develop a phobia toward most easily? a. heights b. rabbits c. feet d. chairs 226. Rosenhan arranged for a number of “pseudopatients” (those without mental illness) to arrive at hospitals complaining of a single false symptom. He was interested to see how many would be admitted and for how long. Which of the following was the symptom that patients reported? a. depression b. anxiety c. hearing voices d. obsessive thoughts Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 227. Sophia has always been preoccupied with schedules, lists, and trivial details. She plans everything down to the last detail and becomes very upset if things don’t work out the way she has planned. Last week, Sophia went in for a psychological assessment, and based on that assessment, she was told that she might have a personality disorder. Which personality disorder is consistent with Sophia’s behaviour? a. borderline b. schizotypal c. histrionic d. obsessive-compulsive 228. What is suggested by the pancultural view of psychological disorders? a. Basic standards of normality and abnormality are universal across cultures. b. Culture-bound disorders demonstrate the subjectivity of psychological diagnosis. c. Western diagnoses have limited validity or utility in other cultural contexts. d. There are no universal standards of normality and abnormality. 229. Approximately what percentage of Canadians will experience a depressive disorder at some time in their lives? a. approximately 15 percent b. between 25 and 30 percent c. between 42 and 48 percent d. at least 72 percent 230. Individuals who suffer from panic disorder often become apprehensive and hypervigilant after having experienced several anxiety attacks. What is one of the things that persons with this disorder at this stage usually fear the most? a. They will always be alone. b. The doctors will not be able to help them. c. They will have another panic attack. d. They will not be able to pay their bills. 231. Which of the following organizations developed an early diagnostic system for classifying mental illness that ended up having a major impact on the development of the later DSM? a. World Health Organization (WHO) b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) c. National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) d. Canadian Mental Health Association (CMHA) 232. Lukas does not trust anyone. He is convinced that no one around him is truthful, and everything they say to him is a lie. He is extremely suspicious of other people’s motives, and he often flies into a jealous rage when his wife speaks to other men. Which cluster of disorders is most consistent with Lukas’s symptoms if he has a personality disorder? a. neurotic/dissociative b. anxious/fearful c. odd/eccentric d. dramatic/impulsive 233. What is a key predictor of vulnerability or risk to develop PTSD? a. being male b. socioeconomic status of the affected individual c. intensity of one’s reaction at the time of the traumatic event d. everyone has an equal chance of developing this disorder

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 234. What diagnosis is used for a person who does not conform to the accepted norms of morality and behaviour and is impulsive, callous, and manipulative? a. borderline personality disorder b. histrionic personality disorder c. antisocial personality disorder d. paranoid personality disorder 235. What does a concordance rate indicate? a. agreement rates between physicians in diagnosing psychological disorders b. the degree to which biological factors affect psychological adjustment c. the percentage of pairs of relatives who exhibit the same disorder d. the degree to which psychological factors affect physical health 236. In what proportion of the population do bipolar disorders occur? a. a little over 1 percent b. approximately 7 percent c. approximately 12 percent d. just over 15 percent 237. What is the major neurotransmitter that has been linked to schizophrenia? a. dopamine b. GABA c. norepinephrine d. acetylcholine 238. Tak feels like he has been worrying constantly for the past four months. He is worried about making his car payments, losing his job, and how his children are doing in school. He has also started to experience dizziness and occasional heart palpitations. Which disorder is most consistent with these symptoms? a. panic disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. hypochondriasis 239. What is the term used to describe the behaviour of checking your alarm clock 20 times before going to sleep? a. compulsive b. obsessive c. amnesiac d. phobic 240. Ali has a psychological disorder, and her doctor has prescribed a drug that affects the levels of GABA in her nervous system. What type of disorder is Ali most likely being treated for, based on this information? a. dissociative b. anxiety c. somatoform d. schizophrenic 241. In his investigations of the cognitive factors that might contribute to depression, Seligman found that people with a pessimistic explanatory style are especially vulnerable to depression. To what do these individuals tend to attribute their setbacks? a. external flaws b. global factors c. situational factors d. personal flaws 242. Autism is associated with abnormalities in terms of the number of neurons in which of the following areas of the brain? a. the hippocampus b. the amygdala c. the prefrontal cortex d. the cerebellum

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 243. Adena has just recovered from her first episode of major depression. What is the likelihood that Adena will experience another episode in her lifetime? a. less than 10 percent b. just over 25 percent c. between 40 and 60 percent d. over 75 percent 244. What is the discipline that studies the incidence and distribution of disorders within a population? a. demography b. psychobiology c. epidemiology d. etiology 245. Ellen is self-centred, immature, and excitable. She craves attention, especially from men, with whom she is flirtatious and seductive. Which personality disorder is most consistent with Ellen’s personality? a. avoidant b. histrionic c. dependent d. schizoid 246. Where would you expect to find the highest incidence of seasonal affective disorder? a. in a city close to the equator where the heat and humidity are oppressive b. in a city where there is a lack of rainfall or other forms of precipitation c. in a city far from the equator where there is little daylight in the winter d. in a city where there is very little variability in temperature across the seasons 247. Based on statistics, for which of the following individuals would the onset of generalized anxiety disorder be most likely? a. a 65-year-old male b. a 25-year-old female c. a 15-year-old male d. a 45-year-old female 248. What is NOT a common characteristic of the antisocial personality? a. aggressiveness b. manipulative behaviour c. social charm d. excessive guilt 249. In the 1600s a person most likely would have thought of abnormal behaviour as being which of the following? a. the result of stressful situations b. caused by supernatural forces c. somewhat like a disease d. a product of unconscious conflict 250. Scarlett has anorexia nervosa, and Bridget has bulimia nervosa. What should you predict based on the research into these two disorders? a. Both individuals are likely to deny that their eating behaviour is pathological. b. Scarlett will be more likely to recognize that her eating behaviour is pathological. c. Both individuals will recognize their eating behaviour is pathological, but neither will be willing to seek treatment. d. Bridget will be more likely to recognize that her eating behaviour is pathological. 251. Which disorder is characterized by free-floating anxiety? a. phobic disorder b. panic disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 252. Which term refers to a type of depression that sometimes occurs after childbirth? a. prenatal affective disorder (PAD) b. hormonal depression c. postpartum depression d. neonatal depressive disorder Angela Angela experiences a lot of anxiety associated with housekeeping. The house is never clean enough for her perfectionistic standards. If she sees anything that she considers to be out of place, she has to put it away immediately. Recently, she has been spending approximately 10 hours each day cleaning, organizing, and checking things around the house. In fact, her cleaning has prevented her from having a full-time job, and it has really damaged her relationship with her husband and children. She doesn’t spend time with them and she is often scolding them for being messy.” All of this cleaning seems to be tied to the intrusive thoughts that Angela experiences. She is always worried about germs and contamination, and when she sees a dirty dish, she can’t help but imagine that her whole family will die of food poisoning. 253. Would Angela’s disorder mean that she would be found not criminally responsible if she was convicted of a crime? a. Yes, because her disorder is a diagnosable mental disorder. b. Yes, because her disorder causes her to act like an automaton. c. No, because she is capable of understanding criminal proceedings. d. No, because she is not delusional and knows right from wrong. 254. Jim came home from the office trembling, irritable, unable to concentrate, experiencing shortness of breath, and worrying about money and his business. Which disorder is most consistent with these symptoms? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. phobic disorder c. minor psychotic break d. major depression 255. Before the DSM-5, which of the following were the four major types of schizophrenia? a. paranoid, disorganized, undifferentiated, catatonic b. disorganized, paranoid, positive, negative c. differentiated, catatonic, dissociative, paranoid d. delusional, dissociative, differentiated, catatonic 256. Stanley thinks that mental disorders are very rare. He was shocked to find out that a co-worker had been diagnosed with a disorder, because she seemed “so normal.” What likely caused Stanley to underestimate the prevalence rate of mental disorders? a. conjunction fallacy b. availability heuristic c. representativeness heuristic d. cumulative probabilities 257. Jack thinks constantly about dirt and germs. He washes his hands hundreds of times a day. Which disorder is most consistent with Jack’s behaviour? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. phobic disorder c. somatization disorder d. illness anxiety disorder

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 258. Chantal has an extensive collection of comic books. In fact, her collection is so large that she uses two rooms in her house to store all of her comics. She keeps them in a series of perfectly labelled boxes. She stops at the comic book store every week to get new issues, and she decided to spend her savings on some antique comics rather than taking a vacation. Chantal’s family doesn’t like her collection and thinks that she wastes a lot of time and money on it. Does Chantal meet the diagnostic criteria for hoarding disorder? a. Yes, because her behaviour meets the deviance criterion. b. Yes, because her family is distressed by her behaviour. c. No, because hoarding disorder is not an official disorder in the DSM. d. No, because her collection does not cause clutter or safety concerns. 259. What is NOT one of the factors that have been linked to the development of anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa in young women? a. mothers who model unhealthy dieting behaviours for their daughters b. parents who are negligent or uninvolved in their children’s lives c. a genetic vulnerability to eating disorders d. the presence of rigid, all-or-none thinking and maladaptive beliefs 260. Which statement best represents the sex difference in incidence rates for depression? a. It is nearly twice as frequent in women as in men. b. It occurs nearly twice as frequently in men as in women. c. It is nearly four times as frequent in women as in men. d. It occurs with equal frequency in women and in men. 261. Which statement highlights one of the concerns in modern day regarding the medical model as a framework for understanding mental illness? a. Patients are viewed with less sympathy and more hatred and fear than previous models. b. It has not brought about any improvements in the treatment of the mentally ill. c. It tends to apply labels to people which often carry a social stigma and result in discrimination. d. The medical model has contributed nothing towards the human treatment of the mentally ill. 262. Dr. Reid is using a diagnostic system for classifying mental illness. Compared to the DSM-5, the system that he is using is a much broader classification system and includes physical disorders as well as mental, behavioural, or neurodevelopmental disorders. Which of the following classification systems is Dr. Reid most likely using? a. DSM-IV b. DSM-6 c. ICD-11 d. RDoC 263. Jeffrey was judged to be legally sane, and he is on trial for a series of horrible murders. What did the judgment of legal sanity mean? a. He was able to appreciate the fact that his actions were legally or morally wrong at the time of the crime. b. His actions failed to meet the criteria of cultural deviance. c. He had recovered from his psychological disorder by the time the trial took place. d. His actions failed to meet the criteria of personal distress.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 264. What characterizes personality disorders? a. inability to function outside a hospital setting b. extremely inconsistent behaviour across a variety of situations c. extreme, inflexible personality traits d. hallucinations and delusions 265. Darla was fired from her most recent job. What attribution would make Darla most prone to depression, based on Seligman’s investigations into the cognitive factors that might contribute to depression? a. She was fired due to her lack of ability to do her job successfully. b. She was fired due to the financial failure of the company. c. She was fired because of the bad mood that her boss was in. d. She was fired because her co-worker started a number of false rumours about her. 266. Which anxiety disorder is associated with chronic dread, pessimism, worrying, and brooding? a. panic disorder b. phobic disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 267. Which of the following is NOT an example of a culture-bound disorder? a. anorexia nervosa b. bipolar disorder c. windigo d. koro 268. It has been said that not all deviant behaviour is maladaptive, but all maladaptive behaviour is deviant. Discuss this idea, based on what you’ve learned about the definition and criteria of abnormal behaviour.

269. There appear to be some similarities between post-traumatic stress disorder and the dissociative disorders in that most cases of each type of disorder are thought to result from extreme stress. How would you justify creating separate classifications for these disorders?

270. How are concussions and depression related?

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 271. Some of the most prominent modern theories of mood disorders focus primarily on cognitive factors. You learned in Chapter 10 that some theorists believe the experience of emotion is heavily influenced by cognitive factors. In what ways do some of these cognitive theories of emotion agree with theories about cognitive factors in the etiology of the mood disorders?

272. Freud believed that most, if not all, psychological disorders are mainly the result of anxiety. However, Freudian explanations of the anxiety disorders receive much less attention today than they once did. From what you’ve learned of Freudian theory, how would a Freudian explanation of the etiology of the anxiety disorders differ from the types of explanations presented in your text?

273. One criticism of the category of personality disorders is that there is a lot of overlap among the descriptions and diagnostic criteria associated with the various disorders. How does this pattern of diagnosis fit with the argument that diagnosis should be more dimensional rather than categorical?

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. c 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. c 40. d 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. a 48. b 49. d 50. b 51. c 52. a 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 55. c 56. b 57. b 58. a 59. b 60. d 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. d 65. c 66. a 67. c 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. a 75. d 76. d 77. a 78. d 79. a 80. c 81. d 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 83. c 84. b 85. c 86. d 87. d 88. d 89. a 90. c 91. b 92. d 93. c 94. d 95. a 96. a 97. b 98. c 99. c 100. b 101. c 102. d 103. b 104. d 105. a 106. d 107. c 108. d 109. b 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 111. a 112. a 113. b 114. c 115. d 116. d 117. a 118. b 119. a 120. a 121. c 122. c 123. c 124. d 125. a 126. d 127. d 128. b 129. c 130. c 131. b 132. a 133. d 134. b 135. b 136. c 137. a

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 138. a 139. b 140. c 141. b 142. a 143. c 144. a 145. b 146. b 147. a 148. c 149. d 150. c 151. c 152. c 153. b 154. d 155. a 156. d 157. b 158. d 159. a 160. b 161. a 162. b 163. d 164. b 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 166. a 167. c 168. d 169. c 170. c 171. a 172. d 173. a 174. d 175. b 176. b 177. c 178. d 179. b 180. d 181. b 182. d 183. d 184. c 185. a 186. b 187. c 188. a 189. b 190. d 191. b 192. c 193. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 194. d 195. b 196. d 197. b 198. b 199. a 200. c 201. b 202. d 203. d 204. d 205. b 206. b 207. b 208. c 209. c 210. d 211. d 212. b 213. c 214. d 215. c 216. a 217. c 218. b 219. a 220. c 221. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 222. a 223. c 224. c 225. a 226. c 227. d 228. a 229. a 230. c 231. a 232. c 233. c 234. c 235. c 236. a 237. a 238. c 239. a 240. b 241. d 242. c 243. c 244. c 245. b 246. c 247. d 248. d

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 249. b 250. d 251. d 252. c 253. d 254. a 255. a 256. c 257. a 258. d 259. b 260. a 261. c 262. c 263. a 264. c 265. a 266. d 267. b 268. Good answers should reflect an understanding of the various ways of defining and characterizing abnormal behaviour. A deviant behaviour is one that deviates from the norm and is considered inappropriate in one’s society. Most students can come up with several examples of such deviant behaviour that may, nevertheless, be adaptive in certain circumstances. Such deviant behaviour is not maladaptive. On the other hand, behaviour is maladaptive when it interferes with one’s functioning in one or more of the various arenas of life (social, occupational, etc.). Most societies have evolved in such a way that these kinds of behaviours are both uncommon and considered inappropriate, thus deviant. There may be exceptions here, too, however.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 269. Students should demonstrate an understanding of the characteristics of each type of disorder and should focus on the differences between them that justify classifying them separately. Stress plays a role in the etiology of both, but reactions to the stress experienced are quite different for the two types of disorder. Characteristic of post-traumatic stress disorder is the inability to get the traumatic experience out of mind, and other evidence of being “overinvolved” with the stressful situation. Symptoms may persist for quite some time. In cases of dissociative disorders, rather than being overinvolved with the stressful situation, patients use various means to escape involvement and its attendant anxieties and conflicts. These means involve somehow altering consciousness to blot out the stressful experience. Often dissociative disorders begin and end suddenly. These cases are often traced to traumatic events in childhood, though the disorder may not appear until adulthood. 270. Answers should point to the obvious which is the point of injury with a concussion is the brain. The brain is the control centre for human functioning. There can be adverse psychological consequences of concussion in a variety of areas of human functioning depending on the part of the brain affected. One can also link concussions to cognitive deficits and then speak to the role of cognition in depressive disorders. The research on this topic is new so we are still learning about the impacts of concussion on mental health. Another relevant factor may be whether the athlete continued to play with a concussion or if they stopped play until they were clear of symptoms before they went ‘back out on the field’ so to speak. Some relevant facts are that depression rates in head trauma patients are a lot higher than in the normal population. Results from brain scan studies may be discussed. 271. Essentially, cognitive theories of the mood disorders say that depression, in particular, results from a particular kind of thinking, especially a negative attributional style. Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion states that we experience particular emotions through interpreting physiological arousal in accordance with the current environment. If situational cues appear to be in accord with an explanation of negative events that places the blame on the individual, then one may experience unpleasant emotions and depression may result. If this pattern of interpreting physiological arousal hardens into one’s habitual attributional style, then clinical depression may result. 272. Freud would say that the anxiety disorders result from internal events, drives, and motivations that the patient is not conscious of. We normally feel anxiety when we are threatened, but in the case of anxiety disorders, anxiety is experienced even when we’re not aware of any dangerous threat. Often there’s just the feeling of danger or a threat being present. Everyone uses defence mechanisms to alleviate feelings of anxiety, but in clinical cases, these mechanisms are not effective enough to provide relief. Anxiety that’s severe enough to be considered abnormal may be caused by unacceptable impulses that are on the verge of breaking into consciousness, threatened disapproval, withdrawal of love, and fear of abandonment. These are examples of events that might be threatening to a small child and which might be thrust into the unconscious, only to emerge later in the form of the symptoms of an anxiety disorder. Getting more specific, a phobic object or situation would symbolically stand for something that the patient is frightened of, either consciously or unconsciously. Obsessions and compulsions function by directing attention away from fearful, unconscious thoughts.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol 1 273. Answers should reveal an understanding of the category of personality disorders as well as something about the diagnostic process. An example ANS: There is evidence that diagnosis of personality disorders is not clear. For example, if someone is diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder, there is a good chance that person would also meet the criteria for the other disorders in the same cluster (histrionic, antisocial, borderline). If the diagnosis is so flexible, perhaps the “cluster” is a better category than the individual disorders. This categorical approach, where each disorder has a checklist of symptoms, could be replaced by a more dimensional approach. With a dimensional approach, each person would be rated for the degree to which they have different symptoms. So, someone would be described as having high levels of emotionality, aggression, and arrogance, but low levels of psychosis, depression, and anxiety. Those descriptors, or dimensions, are perceived by some clinicians has having more validity than the categorical approach because the intensity or severity of traits is a focus. The DSM-5 did not adopt this dimensional approach for personality disorders, so it remains to be seen if the approach catches on.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which psychological disorder is characterized by separate episodes of depression and mania? a. bipolar disorder b. major depressive disorder c. post-traumatic stress disorder d. schizophrenic disorder 2. Nick can’t sleep very well because he is often awakened by nightmares. These nightmares contain images and situations that he experienced when he was in prison, where he was repeatedly beaten and humiliated by his cellmate. Even now, several years after he was released, Nick is haunted by his experiences. Which disorder is consistent with Nick’s symptoms? a. night terror disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. panic disorder d. post-traumatic stress disorder 3. Which of the following symptoms do NOT describe antisocial personality disorder? a. sensitive to potential rejection or shame b. chronically violating the rights of others c. failing to accept social norms d. failing to sustain consistent work behavior 4. What do disorders like koro or anorexia nervosa reveal about the universality of mental disorders? a. Disorders will have different names for the same features in different cultures. b. Culture plays a role in the existence and features of some disorders. c. Mental disorders are pancultural. d. Biological influences determine the features of mental disorders. 5. Which of the following publications developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) is one of the major alternatives to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders for the assessment and diagnosis of mental disorders? a. World Health Assessment Test (WHAT) b. International Classification of Disease and Health Related Problems (ICD) c. American Psychological Diagnostic System (APDS) d. International Wellness Instrument (IWI) 6. If a woman and a man each have depressive symptoms, and have each contemplated suicide, which prediction is most accurate? a. The woman is more likely to attempt suicide. b. The woman is more likely to have bipolar disorder. c. The man is more likely to have bipolar disorder. d. The man is more likely to attempt suicide. 7. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of schizophrenic disorders? a. hallucinations b. manipulative behaviour without remorse c. disturbed emotions d. deterioration of adaptive behaviour

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 8. Shawna has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and lives at home with her parents. Her mother is always hovering around her and corrects her a lot. Her father is often very critical of her appearance and yells at her to go to her room whenever someone comes to the door. Which outcome is likely for Shawna? a. high probability of relapse b. decreased rate of delusions c. comorbid panic disorder d. shift from positive to negative symptoms 9. Which view of psychological disorders suggests that basic standards of normality and abnormality are much the same around the world? a. absolutist view b. pancultural view c. culture-bound view d. relativistic view 10. Sumandeep has withdrawn from social contact with others. She spends most of her time alone in her bedroom. She has stopped going to her job and no longer talks to her family on the phone. Additionally, Sumandeep neglects her personal hygiene and rarely bathes, brushes her teeth, or changes clothes. Which symptom of schizophrenia does Sumandeep’s behaviour illustrate? a. deterioration of adaptive behaviour b. irrational thought c. disturbed emotions d. hallucinations 11. The cognitive approach to explaining the etiology of depressive disorders maintains that there are certain cognitive tendencies among people who are more likely to develop depressive disorders. Which of the following is NOT one of those tendencies? a. attributing setbacks to personal flaws instead of to situational factors b. misinterpreting harmless situations as threatening c. having a pessimistic explanatory style d. ruminating about, or dwelling on, their depression 12. Elaine has recently become far more talkative and excitable. She isn’t sleeping very much but doesn’t seem to be fatigued. She’s actually become much more productive lately, and people are wondering how long this phase is going to last. Which of the following is consistent with Elaine’s behaviour? a. dysthymia b. fugue c. mania d. anhedonia 13. Kimberly constantly thinks her immaculate house is dirty and spends most of her day cleaning, scrubbing, and straightening up. Which disorder is most consistent with these symptoms? a. somatization disorder b. phobic disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 14. What would you be studying if you were an epidemiologist interested in the rates of alcohol abuse among individuals who are also diagnosed with depression? a. recidivism b. comorbidity c. covariance d. conjunction heuristics 15. Which psychological disorder is characterized by impulsive, callous, manipulative, aggressive, and irresponsible behaviour that reflects a failure to accept social norms? a. schizophrenia b. narcissistic personality disorder c. bipolar disorder d. antisocial personality disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 16. Carly has had intense feelings of sadness for the past several weeks. She has very little energy and has stopped going out with her friends. She has lost her appetite and rarely cooks. Carly feels her situation is hopeless and that she has only herself to blame. Which disorder is most consistent with Carly’s symptoms? a. bipolar disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. minor depressive disorder d. major depressive disorder 17. Which statement best describes people who show Antisocial Personality Disorder? a. They are usually male. b. They are usually female. c. They are not very intelligence. d. They tend to avoid incarceration due to their intellect and are rarely seen in jails. 18. What is NOT typical of individuals with antisocial personality disorder? a. They chronically violate the rights of others and rarely feel guilty. b. They rarely experience genuine affection for others. c. They are irresponsible and impulsive and can tolerate little frustration. d. They typically avoid social interactions. 19. Which psychological disorder is characterized by a fragmentation of thought processes or a “split mind”? a. schizophrenic disorder b. multiple personality disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. bipolar disorder 20. Consistent with the concept of preparedness, what is the most common type of phobic stimuli? a. cars and other vehicles b. guns and other weapons c. symbols, such as the number 13 d. animals, such as snakes 21. Which individual would be likely to worry most about driving home from work while it is snowing because he recalls, “The last time I drove home in the snow I skidded and almost had an accident”? a. Alan, who has an anxiety disorder b. David, who has a dissociative disorder c. Sean, who has a schizophrenic disorder d. Scott, who has a mood disorder 22. Which anxiety disorder is characterized by a chronic high level of anxiety that is exhibited by constant worrying and is often associated with physical symptoms such as heart palpitations and muscle tension? a. panic disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. major depressive disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 23. Studies suggest that the prevalence of depression is about twice as high in women as it is in men. Which explanation for the gender gap in the diagnosis of depression is NOT supported by research? a. contention that women are more likely to endure poverty b. notion that women are far more likely to be victims of sexual abuse and harassment c. assertion that it is due to genetics d. suggestion that some of the disparity may be the result of women’s elevated vulnerability to depression at certain points in their reproductive life cycle

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 24. Which of the following personality disorders is described as a personality in which the person is unstable, impulsive, and unpredictable in self-image, mood, and interpersonal relationships? a. borderline b. antisocial c. histrionic d. dependent 25. What is typically considered a primary factor in the etiology of dissociative amnesia and dissociative fugue? a. the activity of specific neurotransmitters b. biological factors associated with genetic predispositions c. responses to excessive stress or trauma d. personality traits such as being self-conscious, insecure, or guilt-prone 26. Which brain areas tend to be damaged in patients who have experienced both a concussion and depression? a. limbic system and hypothalamus b. portions of the frontal and temporal lobes c. brain stem and cerebellum d. somatosensory and sensory cortex 27. Which statement best describes the emergence of schizophrenia and the use of psychoactive substances? a. They are completed unrelated. b. Research suggests a causal link between marijuana use and the onset of schizophrenia, although the reasons why are not fully understood. c. There is no evidence that methamphetamines contribute to the emergence of schizophrenia. d. Neither marijuana nor methamphetamines have been associated with an increased risk of onset of schizophrenia. 28. Estelle doesn’t like to leave her house very often because she is very worried that she will “freak out.” On several occasions, usually when she is out shopping, Estelle has experienced debilitating fear that seems to come out of nowhere. The only thing that she can do in those situations is try to hide and wait until it passes, but the experience is terrifying and humiliating. Which disorder is consistent with Estelle’s experience? a. agoraphobia b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. schizophrenic disorder d. phobic disorder 29. While the previous DSM had different labels for different forms of autism, the DSM-5 has autistic spectrum disorder, which includes all the various forms. Which approach does this change represent? a. the deviance approach b. the developmental approach c. the categorical approach d. the dimensional approach 30. Which of the following symptoms do NOT describe obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? a. communication patterns that resemble schizophrenia b. preoccupation with organization, schedules, and lists c. extremely conventional and formal d. unable to express warm emotions 31. Which brain area is about 8–10 percent smaller in depressed individuals compared to nondepressed individuals? a. hippocampus b. corpus callosum c. prefrontal cortex d. hypothalamus

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 32. It is sometimes hard to get the attention of a person who is autistic. It seems as though there is a mental barrier between their inner consciousness and the outside world. Which term does Leo Kanner use to refer to this characteristic? a. spinning b. Asperger’s disorder c. autistic aloneness d. schizophrenia 33. Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a factor associated with the development of depressive disorders? a. a pessimistic explanatory style b. the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine c. the personality trait of neuroticism d. inadequate social skills 34. With regard to the legal defence “not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder,” which statement best describes the use and success of this defence, according to Lumburner and Roesch? a. It is rarely used, but often successful when it is employed. b. It is rarely successful and used only in cases of severely disordered defendants. c. It is often used but rarely successful. d. It is typically misused in most cases and is unsuccessful. 35. Which factor is emphasized in Martin Seligman’s learned helplessness theory concerning the etiology of depression? a. cognitive factors involving unreasonably optimistic expectations b. cognitive factors involving a pessimistic explanatory style c. interpersonal factors involving inadequate social skills d. biological factors associated with genetic predispositions 36. John has been diagnosed with both major depressive disorder and alcohol dependence. Which term describes John’s overall diagnosis? a. codependence b. dual diagnosis c. comorbidity d. additive diagnosis 37. Which of the following is a condition in which the person experiences a fear of going out to public places? a. agoraphobia b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. schizophrenic disorder d. phobic disorder 38. According to Nolen-Hoeksema, which factors lead to the greater likelihood of depression among women compared to men? a. genetic predisposition b. hormone fluctuations c. higher stress and tendency to ruminate d. systematic differences in cognitive errors

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 39. Cliff has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Currently, he is very optimistic about his life. Even though he is sleeping only three hours a night, he is very energetic. He has turned his basement into a workshop where he plans to mass produce his new “banana computer,” which will revolutionize the computer market. What is Cliff experiencing? a. a unipolar episode b. a manic episode c. a bipolar episode d. a depressive episode 40. Which biological factor appears to contribute to anxiety and obsessive-compulsive disorders? a. the neurotransmitters GABA and serotonin b. exposure to stressful events c. classical and operant conditioning d. structural abnormalities of the brain 41. Thomas Szasz would be most critical of which commonly used criterion to diagnose psychological disorders? a. maladaptive behaviour b. cognitive confusion c. deviance d. personal distress 42. Which emotional symptom is fairly typical for an individual with a schizophrenic disorder to exhibit? a. a “flattening” of emotions b. mild anxiety c. a general sense of calm or well-being d. profound anger 43. In Rosenhan’s study using pseudopatients who attempted to be admitted to a mental hospital, which cognitive error was most likely responsible for their incorrect diagnoses? a. availability heuristic b. confirmation bias c. gambler’s fallacy d. my-side bias 44. Which unifying theme in psychology is emphasized by the stress-vulnerability model of schizophrenic and mood disorders? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 45. Which individual is most likely to experience chronic depression? a. Bella, who started to experience symptoms at age 35, and has a drinking problem b. Alice, who started to experience symptoms at age 35 c. Carla, who started to experience symptoms at age 18 d. Diane, who started to experience symptoms at age 18, and also experiences anxiety 46. According to data from a 2013 Statistics Canada study, approximately what percentage of Canadians reported having had symptoms consistent with a psychological disorder within the past year? a. 10 percent b. 30 percent c. 60 percent d. 90 percent

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 47. Which disorder is characterized by anxiety only in certain specific situations? a. specific phobic disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. specified anxiety disorder d. panic disorder 48. Frequently people call a psychologist for assistance after “deciding for themselves” that they need help. Which two of the commonly used criteria for psychological disorders would people most likely use when deciding to seek treatment? a. deviance and cognitive confusion b. maladaptive behaviour and personal distress c. personal distress and deviance d. cognitive confusion and maladaptive behaviour 49. Because of the representativeness heuristic, many people underestimate the prevalence of psychological disorders. What statement best describes prototypical disorders that anchor the representativeness heuristic? a. They are serious and relatively common. b. They are serious and rare. c. They are relatively minor and relatively common. d. They are relatively minor and rare. 50. Timothy has very strange reactions to everyday situations. He often laughs when most people would be sad or frightened, and he gets very angry or agitated for no apparent reason. He often seems as if he is having a conversation or argument with someone who is not present. If Timothy is diagnosed with schizophrenia, which category fits his symptoms best? a. behavioural symptoms b. perceptual symptoms c. positive symptoms d. negative symptoms 51. Which disorder could be best explained by Martin Seligman’s concept of preparedness? a. a spider phobia b. an elevator phobia c. panic disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 52. Which personality disorder is most likely to be diagnosed in women? a. antisocial personality disorder b. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder c. borderline personality disorder d. narcissistic personality disorder 53. Tom displays very odd behaviour. He wears a heavy parka and mittens during the summer and lectures from the steps of City Hall about upcoming invasions by men from outer space. Which criterion of abnormality does Tom’s behaviour meet? a. personal distress b. deviance c. cognitive confusion d. the medical model 54. Ellen has a hard time keeping down a job because of her behaviour. She is very perfectionistic and doesn’t trust anyone else to do a good job. As a result, she tries to do everything herself, and never feels like anything is good enough. This means that she never finishes projects on time. Which category of mental disorder fits this description best? a. schizophrenic disorders b. personality disorders c. mood disorders d. dissociative disorders Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 55. Who argued that abnormal behaviour usually involves a deviation from social norms rather than from illness? a. John Nash b. Thomas Szasz c. Marty Seligman d. Aaron Beck 56. Dr. Turner is interested in determining whether early childhood viral infections increase the likelihood of experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia in adulthood. Which term refers to Dr. Turner’s interest? a. diagnosis b. prognosis c. covariance d. etiology 57. Maria is afraid to leave her home to go shopping or even to go to work. She avoids all public places. What is the term for Maria’s symptoms? a. bipolar disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. agoraphobia d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 58. According to the medical model of psychological disorders, what is prognosis? a. a statement concerning the probable course of the disorder b. deciding which disorder an individual is experiencing c. describing the apparent cause of the disorder d. taking a medical history of an individual 59. Which of the following is a widely used heuristic, called the M’Naghten rule, for determining whether an individual accused of a crime qualifies as insane? a. Is he dangerous to himself or others? b. Has he been diagnosed with a psychological disorder? c. Has he been hospitalized for a psychological disorder? d. Is he unable to distinguish right from wrong? 60. Which of the following disorders has the lowest prevalence rate? a. personality disorder b. anxiety disorder c. mood disorder d. schizophrenic disorder 61. Which of the following symptoms do NOT describe paranoid personality disorder? a. lacking interpersonal empathy b. prone to jealousy c. overly sensitive d. pervasive and unwarranted suspiciousness 62. When Sonya is stressed out, she just can’t stop eating. One night, she spent hours preparing all her favourite foods, including lasagna, pecan pie, and Caesar salad, and she ate everything while watching old movies. Which eating disorder is illustrated by this example? a. binge eating disorder b. dieting disorder c. anorexia nervosa d. bulimia nervosa

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 63. Before the 18th century, which of the following was NOT one of the popular explanations for abnormal behaviour? a. demon possession b. physical illness c. witchcraft d. divine punishment through affliction 64. Normand has experienced a manic episode but has never had a depressive episode. Which diagnosis is most appropriate for Normand? a. bipolar I b. bipolar II c. cyclothymia d. mood disorder with atypical features 65. What is the approximate concordance rate for anxiety disorders among identical twins? a. 10 percent b. 35 percent c. 75 percent d. 90 percent 66. What disorder seems to be more common among individuals who come from homes where discipline is erratic or ineffective and where they experienced physical abuse and neglect? a. bipolar disorder b. schizophrenia c. borderline personality disorder d. antisocial personality disorder 67. Why have some parents believed, incorrectly, that vaccinations led to the development of their child’s autism? a. The timing of vaccinations was close to the time that they noticed autistic symptoms. b. Vaccines have been associated with other disorders, and they incorrectly extrapolated. c. The temporary side effects of vaccines are similar to the chronic symptoms of autism. d. A link has been demonstrated in animal models. 68. Sean has difficulty making decisions, and when he finally makes a decision he worries about whether it was the right decision. He constantly worries about his courses, future, girlfriend, and getting a summer job. Recently, Sean has had heart palpitations and muscular tension. Which of the following disorders are Sean’s symptoms most consistent with? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. panic disorder d. hypochondriasis 69. What are the two classes of mood disorders? a. depression and dissociation b. depressive and bipolar c. manic and dysphoric d. anxious and agitated 70. If your carelessness caused your family’s home to burn down, which dissociative disorder are you most likely to develop? a. dissociative fugue b. dissociative amnesia c. dissociative identity disorder d. dissociative depressive disorder 71. What disorder does Canadian comedian and TV personality Howie Mandel have? a. panic disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. conversion disorder d. schizophrenia

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 72. Violent behaviour by an individual with a psychological disorder generally receives more attention than nonviolent behaviour. What does this lead to? a. the availability heuristic, which leads people to overestimate the likelihood of violence by those with psychological disorders b. the conjunction fallacy, which leads people to overestimate rates of comorbidity c. hindsight bias, which leads people to predict future episodes of violent behaviour d. the representativeness heuristic, which leads people to underestimate the number of individuals with mental disorders. 73. Which of the following does NOT belong to the cluster of personality disorders referred to as odd or eccentric? a. paranoid b. schizotypal c. schizoid d. dependent 74. When a psychologist compares the symptoms an individual is experiencing to the symptoms of various disorders to determine the specific disorder the individual has, what is the psychologist concerned with? a. diagnosis b. prognosis c. treatment d. etiology 75. Pierre has experienced symptoms of depression for years. Sometimes the depression is rather mild, but other times it is debilitating, and he has required hospitalization. Which term is most appropriate for categorizing Pierre’s disorder? a. major depressive disorder b. subclinical mood disorder c. disorganized mood disorder d. bipolar mood disorder 76. When Gaelen was tested using a personality inventory, his scores for narcissism were in the 95th percentile. Which criteria for diagnosis of psychological disorders would Gaelen meet? a. cognitive confusion b. deviance c. personal distress d. maladaptive behaviour 77. Which unifying theme in psychology is best reflected by the observation that the development of psychological disorders involves an interplay among a variety of psychological, biological, and social factors? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 78. When a forensic pathologist examined NFL defensive back Andre Water’s brain post-mortem, what did he say about the condition of the brain tissues? a. The brain tissue was not consistent with cognitive deficits. b. The brain tissue was not consistent with a concussion. c. The brain tissue was similar to that of an 85-year-old man. d. The brain tissue was not consistent with depression.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 79. According to recent research, what can be said about the lifetime prevalence of psychological disorders? a. They are lower in modern times than in the 19th or early 20th centuries. b. They are more common than most people realize. c. They are dramatically higher for men than for women. d. They are less common than most people realize. 80. Which personality disorder is most likely to be diagnosed in males? a. narcissistic personality disorder b. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder c. histrionic personality disorder d. dependent personality disorder 81. For her height, Zara should weigh approximately 40 kg, but she only weighs about 32 kg. She eats when her family is around, but she carefully documents her calorie intake and makes sure to spend enough time on the treadmill to burn all of it off. Which eating disorder is illustrated by this example? a. anorexia nervosa b. binge eating disorder c. dieting disorder d. bulimia nervosa 82. Which of the following does NOT belong to the cluster of personality disorders referred to as dramatic or impulsive? a. borderline b. antisocial c. histrionic d. dependent 83. Dr. Kelley feels that mental disorders each have their own distinct features, and that those features are important for determining which label to apply to a disorder. Which approach does Dr. Kelley endorse? a. a dimensional approach b. a categorical approach c. a maladaptiveness approach d. a deviance approach 84. Veronica seems very withdrawn from the world. She rarely speaks, and when she does it is somewhat empty of meaning and quiet. She doesn’t seem to react with emotion to things going on around her, and she just seems generally dazed. If Veronica is diagnosed with schizophrenia, which category fits her symptoms best? a. negative symptoms b. behavioural symptoms c. positive symptoms d. perceptual symptoms 85. What has been suggested about mothers of children who develop eating disorders? a. They have extremely rigid sex roles. b. They are emotionally distant from their children. c. They usually are divorced. d. They endorse society’s message that “you can never be too thin” and model unhealthy dieting behaviours. 86. Rick believes that his dog is really his sister who was given up for adoption by his mother 30 years ago. What is the term for Rick’s belief? a. hallucination b. faulty perception c. delusion d. illusion

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 87. What is insanity? a. a legal status indicating that a person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of mental illness b. a diagnosis indicating that a person is dangerous to him- or herself or others c. a legal status indicating that a person is dangerous to him- or herself or others d. a diagnosis indicating that a person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of mental illness 88. Which class of psychological disorders is characterized by people losing contact with portions of their consciousness or memory, which results in disruption in their sense of identity? a. mood disorders b. schizophrenic disorders c. dissociative disorders d. anxiety disorders 89. What symptoms characterize schizophrenic disorders? a. physical ailments that cannot be fully explained by organic conditions b. emotional disturbances that may disrupt physical, perceptual, social, and thought processes c. delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and deterioration of adaptive behaviour d. feelings of excessive apprehension and worry 90. Which disorder would be most likely to be used in an “insanity defence”? a. phobic disorder b. schizophrenia c. major depressive disorder d. antisocial personality disorder 91. Which of the following publications would include a diagnostic classification system for physical disorders, such as diseases of the skin? a. World Health Assessment Test (WHAT) b. International Classification of Disease and Health Related Problems (ICD) c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) d. International Wellness Instrument (IWI) 92. Which statement best describes psychological disorders? a. People with psychological disorders usually do not exhibit personal distress or maladaptive behaviour. b. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways and are very different from normal people. c. People with even the most severe psychological disorders can be treated successfully. d. People with psychological disorders are often violent and dangerous. 93. Alexis and Alexander are fraternal twins. Boris and Bjorn are identical twins. Alexis and Boris have been diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is the likelihood that Alexander or Bjorn will be diagnosed with schizophrenia as well? a. Alexander and Bjorn are both likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia, and their risks are roughly equivalent. b. Alexander is more likely than Bjorn to be diagnosed with schizophrenia. c. Bjorn is more likely than Alexander to be diagnosed with schizophrenia. d. Neither Alexander nor Bjorn is likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 94. Edgar used to enjoy playing sports and hanging out to play cards with his friends. For the last few months, however, Edgar doesn’t seem interested in those activities anymore and doesn’t really seem to get much joy out of anything in his life. Which symptom is illustrated by this example? a. mania b. fugue c. alogia d. anhedonia 95. Which of the following is NOT classified as an anxiety disorder? a. histrionic personality disorder b. specific phobia c. panic disorder d. agoraphobia 96. Your friend’s mother is afraid of squirrels. While she knows squirrels are basically harmless, she cannot control her anxiety when she sees either a real squirrel or a picture of a squirrel. Which of the following is most consistent with these symptoms? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. delusional disorder c. specific phobia d. panic disorder 97. Which of the following symptoms do NOT describe avoidant personality disorder? a. preoccupation with organization and trivial details b. excessively sensitive to potential humiliation or shame c. socially withdrawn in spite of desire for acceptance from others d. excessively sensitive to potential rejection 98. Which anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent, uncontrollable intrusions of unwanted thoughts and urges to engage in senseless rituals or behaviours? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. panic disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 99. Which of the following disorders would be least likely to meet the criteria for “insanity”? a. schizophrenia b. bipolar disorder I c. severe deterioration of adaptive behaviour d. antisocial personality disorder 100. What is proposed by the medical model of abnormal behaviour? a. Abnormal behaviours are very similar to physical diseases. b. It is useful to think of abnormal behaviour as a disease. c. Abnormal behaviours are best treated by medical doctors. d. It is useful to think of abnormal behaviours as being caused by infectious agents. 101. Based on the limited amount of information provided, of the following individuals, who is most likely to develop an eating disorder? a. Doug, a Canadian male who is 19 b. Aimée, a Canadian female who is 16 c. Cadli, an African female who is 15 d. Brittany, an American female who is 23 102. Jason has been diagnosed with depression, as well as a specific phobia. What term is used for this double diagnosis? a. comorbidity b. etiology c. overdiagnosis d. categorical approach Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 103. Which psychological disorder involves the coexistence in one person of two or more largely complete, and usually very different, personalities? a. schizophrenic disorder b. dissociative fugue c. dissociative identity disorder d. bipolar disorder 104. John killed his neighbour in view of several witnesses, during a fight. He admitted that he killed the neighbour, because the neighbour had slept with John’s wife. Just before the trial, John was in an accident and suffered a serious head injury. He developed anterograde amnesia and could not remember anything new. Which decision is a judge likely to hand down in John’s case? a. John is not criminally responsible. b. John is guilty by reason of insanity. c. John is acquitted of the crime. d. John is not fit to stand trial. 105. How many Canadians were admitted to hospital for suicide and self-injury attempts in 2011? a. 1700 b. 17 000 c. 170 000 d. 1 700 000 106. What disorder has the famous mystery writer Agatha Christie been reported to have suffered from? a. panic disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. dissociative amnesia disorder d. schizophrenia 107. Consistent with the medical model, what is the primary use of the DSM-5? a. treatment b. diagnosis c. etiology d. prognosis 108. Heather is constantly cleaning her house and is often worried about dirt and germs. Karen can’t throw things away, and as a result her house is dangerously full of junk. Which category of disorders includes both types of symptoms? a. psychotic disorders b. mood disorders c. anxiety disorders d. obsessive-compulsive and related disorders 109. Cameron’s therapist has not diagnosed him with a particular disorder. Rather, his therapist has created a document that describes all of Cameron’s symptoms and indicates that he has elevated levels of depression and anxiety, but no evidence of psychosis or somatic symptoms of mental illness. Which diagnostic approach is illustrated by this example? a. categorical approach b. dimensional approach c. holistic approach d. psychiatric approach 110. Which trait is NOT associated with the development of anorexia nervosa? a. perfectionism b. rigidity c. obsessiveness d. high self-esteem

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 111. Kristine frequently hears her food talking to her. In particular, she hears pickles whispering about her whenever she opens the door of the fridge. What is the term for this symptom? a. delusion b. disturbed emotion c. hallucination d. irrational thought 112. For several weeks Alia has been experiencing feelings of overwhelming sadness and despair. Alia is very upset by her depression and frequently tells her family and friends how unhappy she is. Which criterion of abnormality does Alia’s behaviour meet? a. maladaptive behaviour b. emotional imbalance c. deviance d. personal distress 113. What was the focus of a recent approach to describing variations in schizophrenic disorders? a. the presence of positive or negative symptoms b. the presence or absence of disturbed emotions c. the presence or absence of maladaptive behaviour d. the presence or absence of irrational thought 114. Megan never quite knows how to talk to people, and she often misses social cues that signal irritation or boredom. Because of her poor social skills, Megan has only a few friends and they aren’t particularly close. Based on this evidence, which category of disorders is Megan more likely to develop? a. dissociative disorders b. schizophrenic disorders c. depressive disorders d. anxiety disorders 115. In which eating disorder do individuals typically maintain a reasonably normal weight? a. body dysmorphic disorder b. anorexia nervosa c. bulimia nervosa d. binge eating disorder 116. Which statement best describes being not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder? a. It is a diagnosis. b. Persons not criminally responsible intended to commit a crime but will not be held responsible for the crime because of mental disorder. c. It is not a legal concept. d. It is a type of defense used in criminal trials by dependants who admit that they committed the crime but claim they have lacked intent. 117. Abnormal levels of which neurotransmitters have been associated with mood disorders? a. serotonin and norepinephrine b. GABA and serotonin c. dopamine and GABA d. norepinephrine and dopamine 118. Cory is eight years old and spends a lot of his time alone. He is easily upset by noise or crowds, and to calm himself he rocks back and forth while tapping his forehead. He tends to become fixated on one item or topic (like dinosaurs, or vacuum cleaners) and focuses on that thing to the point of obsession. Which disorder is illustrated by this example? a. schizotypal personality disorder b. catatonic schizophrenia c. autistic spectrum disorder d. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 119. One symptom of schizophrenic disorder involves an individual having false beliefs that are maintained even though the beliefs clearly are out of touch with reality. What do we call these beliefs? a. illusions b. delusions c. faulty perceptions d. hallucinations 120. Which of the following classification systems was developed primary for research, rather than clinical, purposes? a. International Classification of Disease and Health Related Problems (ICD) b. NIMH’s Research Domain Criteria Project (RDoc) c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) d. International Wellness Instrument (IWI) 121. What is the name of the classification system used by psychologists to identify psychological disorders? a. APA Clinical Handbook b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) c. Physician’s Desk Reference (PDR) d. Encyclopedia of Psychological Disorders 122. At what point is depression distinguished from ordinary sadness? a. when the individual starts to have trouble sleeping or concentrating b. when the individual considers suicide c. when there is no observable cause for the depressed mood d. when the individual’s life has been impaired for at least a few weeks 123. What has NOT been proposed as a biological factor associated with the development of schizophrenic disorders? a. cocaine use during adolescence b. structural abnormalities in the brain c. neurological damage during prenatal development d. excessive levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine 124. Erica is a researcher who examines trends in diagnosis. In particular, her research team focuses on whether there are increases in the rate of diagnosis of anxiety disorders during particular seasons. Which term reflects Erica’s research interests? a. diagnosis b. epidemiology c. etiology d. prognosis 125. What condition do people with panic disorder frequently develop along with panic disorder? a. agoraphobia b. conversion disorder c. schizophrenic disorder d. bipolar depression 126. Which dissociative disorder is characterized by sudden loss of memory concerning a limited period of time, usually after a particularly stressful or traumatic event? a. dissociative amnesia b. dissociative identity disorder c. dissociative fugue d. dissociative depressive disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 127. Jack is very depressed, and as a result he is not eating properly, bathing, or going to work. Which criterion for abnormality has been met? a. incompetence b. maladaptiveness c. personal distress d. deviance 128. Which statement does NOT accurately describe separate personalities that coexist in an individual with dissociative identity disorder? a. They may have their own names, personality traits, and physical mannerisms. b. They may switch from one personality to another suddenly. c. They may differ in age, sex, or race. d. They are usually all aware of the existence of the other personalities. 129. The neurodevelopmental hypothesis of schizophrenia asserts that certain factors in early life are associated with an increased vulnerability to schizophrenia. Which of the following is one of those factors? a. prenatal alcohol exposure b. exposure to pets in early childhood c. prenatal viral infection d. repeated concussions in childhood 130. Which of the following does NOT belong to the cluster of personality disorders referred to as anxious or fearful? a. avoidant b. antisocial c. obsessive-compulsive d. dependent 131. Which of the following is a mood disorder? a. bipolar disorder b. Fugue c. conversion disorder d. panic disorder 132. Shawna has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and lives at home with her parents. Her mother is always hovering around her and corrects her a lot. Her father is often very critical of her appearance and yells at her to go to her room whenever someone comes to the door. Which term is used to describe the behaviour of Shawna’s parents? a. They have high expressed emotion. b. They are codependent. c. They are comorbid. d. They are smothering. 133. Which neurotransmitter system has been implicated in the etiology of schizophrenic disorders? a. GABA b. dopamine c. epinephrine d. norepinephrine 134. Many psychologists use the concepts of diagnosis, etiology, and prognosis when describing psychological disorders. Which model of abnormal behaviour does this reflect? a. statistical model b. illness model c. medical model d. scientific model

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 135. Every time Valerie eats a large meal, she tries to induce vomiting as soon as possible after eating. She also uses laxatives on a regular basis to remove as much food as possible from her system. She wishes she had better willpower, because she just can’t help herself from really indulging in large quantities of her favourite foods. Which eating disorder is illustrated by this example? a. binge eating disorder b. anorexia nervosa c. bulimia nervosa d. dieting disorder 136. Which disorder is associated with flashbacks, anger, and guilt? a. post-traumatic stress disorder b. hoarding disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. bipolar disorder 137. What is the term for psychological disorders that are recognized abnormal syndromes but are found in only a few cultural groups? a. pancultural disorders b. unique disorders c. culture-bound disorders d. universal disorders 138. Which of the following disorders would you see in the International Classification of Disease and Health Related Problems (ICD) 11th edition that you would not have seen in the ICD before 1990? a. conversion disorder b. gaming disorder c. acute stress disorder d. gender incongruence 139. The development and maintenance of which disorder is best accounted for by the conditioning and learning explanation for the etiology of anxiety disorders? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. panic disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. phobic disorder 140. Which dissociative disorder is most controversial in terms of its proposed etiology? a. dissociative amnesia b. dissociative fugue c. dissociative depressive disorder d. dissociative identity disorder 141. Dr. Reid is examining the MRI of a patient who has enlarged ventricles, and an apparent loss of both white matter and grey matter in various areas of the brain. Which disorder is most consistent with this pattern of neural damage? a. major depressive disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. schizophrenia 142. Tony is very rigid and inflexible and has serious difficulties in his interactions with his family and co-workers. If Tony has a psychological disorder, which type is he most likely to be diagnosed with? a. a personality disorder b. an anxiety disorder c. a dissociative disorder d. a mood disorder 143. What is the typical age of onset for generalized anxiety disorder? a. earlier than for phobias b. midlife c. adolescence d. earlier than most anxiety related disorders

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 144. What symptoms characterize panic disorder? a. recurrent, sudden, and unexpected attacks of overwhelming anxiety b. enduring psychological disturbances due to a traumatic event c. persistent and irrational fear of an object or situation d. a chronic high level of anxiety 145. Which pair of disorders are ones for which there is considerable cross-cultural agreement that they are clearly abnormal? a. somatization disorder and phobic disorder b. dissociative identity disorder and conversion disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder and hypochondriasis d. schizophrenia and bipolar disorder

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. a 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. d 16. d 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. d 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. a 25. c 26. b

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 27. b 28. a 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. b 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. c 51. a 52. c 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 55. b 56. d 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. d 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. d 67. a 68. b 69. b 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. d 74. a 75. a 76. b 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. a 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 83. b 84. a 85. d 86. c 87. a 88. c 89. c 90. b 91. b 92. c 93. c 94. d 95. a 96. c 97. a 98. a 99. d 100. b 101. b 102. a 103. c 104. d 105. b 106. c 107. b 108. d 109. b 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 111. c 112. d 113. a 114. c 115. c 116. d 117. a 118. c 119. b 120. b 121. b 122. d 123. a 124. b 125. a 126. a 127. b 128. d 129. c 130. b 131. a 132. a 133. b 134. c 135. c 136. a 137. c

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_2 138. b 139. d 140. d 141. d 142. a 143. b 144. a 145. d

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Ulric wants to write an essay on an aspect of anxiety that affects most people. Which of the following topics should he choose? a. phobias b. panic c. agoraphobia d. stress reactions 2. Dr. Shuh studies a personality disorder that is typically observed in males. Which of the following disorders does Dr. Shuh MOST likely study? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. dependent personality disorder d. histrionic personality disorder 3. Mandeep has schizophrenia characterized by negative symptoms. Which of the following symptoms does Mandeep MOST likely have? a. catatonia b. delusions c. hallucinations d. disorganized speech 4. What prenatal event has been found to significantly increase the probability that a person will develop schizophrenia? a. an infection in the mother b. exposure to alcohol c. exposure to tobacco d. low levels of vitamin D 5. Which of the following is known to clinicians as a persistent state of euphoria or frenzied energy? a. mania b. depression c. giddiness d. recklessness 6. Which brain area is overactive in people with depression when they view negative emotional stimuli? a. the hypothalamus b. the hippocampus c. the cerebellum d. the amygdala 7. Dr. Fries studies the reactions of people who have experienced trauma, including combat veterans, abuse survivors, and survivors of natural disasters. He classifies these individuals as having complex post-traumatic stress disorder instead of post-traumatic stress disorder ONLY if which of the following is true regarding the stress reaction? a. there is negative self-concept b. it disrupts sleep c. it affects family life d. it lasts longer than one year 8. Which of the following is MOST closely associated with agoraphobia? a. panic attacks b. generalized anxiety disorder c. trauma d. delusions 9. Which of the following is the most extreme physical symptom of schizophrenia? a. catatonia b. psychosis c. derailment d. attentional loss

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 10. Hyuk has schizophrenia and often hears a voice whispering negative things to him, such as swear words and statements saying that he is worthless. This is an example of which of the following? a. negative symptoms b. hallucinations c. delusions d. compulsions 11. Mackenzie has had bulimia for four years. What medical problems is Mackenzie MOST likely to have as a result of the bulimia? a. tooth decay and constipation b. constipation and hair loss c. hair loss and acne d. acne and tooth decay 12. Todd is 12 years old and knows that the odds are about 50/50 that he will develop schizophrenia. How might Todd know this? a. Both of his parents have schizophrenia. b. One of his parents has schizophrenia. c. His older brother has schizophrenia. d. His grandmother has schizophrenia. 13. Which personality disorder is characterized by extreme and callous disregard for the feelings and rights of others? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 14. Kristin eats fewer than 500 calories a day and has a very low BMI but still views herself as overweight. What disorder will Kristin MOST likely be diagnosed with? a. bulimia b. anorexia nervosa c. borderline personality disorder d. binge eating disorder 15. What is the term for a periodic, short bout of panic? a. a panic attack b. panic disorder c. phobic disorder d. agoraphobia 16. Marnie has had ten roommates in the past two years. Every roommate has left for the same reason: they simply could not handle Marnie. They describe Marnie as overly attached to them, as well as being impulsive and unpredictable. What disorder does Marnie MOST likely have? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 17. What disorder is marked by a persistent and irrational fear of an object or situation that presents no realistic danger? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. phobic disorder c. social anxiety disorder d. panic disorder 18. What is the name for the eating disorder in which individuals under-eat and have a distorted body image of being overweight? a. anorexia nervosa b. binge eating disorder c. bulimia d. borderline personality disorder

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 19. Which of the following is a persistent thought that seems to invade a person’s consciousness? a. obsession b. compulsion c. delusion d. hallucination 20. Which of the following is a cognitive symptom of depression? a. pessimism b. weight loss c. insomnia d. extreme vigilance 21. Which personality disorder is MOST closely associated with criminal behaviour? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 22. What disorder is characterized by a fear of public places where escape may not be possible should a panic attack occur? a. social anxiety disorder b. agoraphobia c. panic disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 23. Which of the following was recently removed from the World Health Organization’s mental health classification system? a. bulimia nervosa b. complex post-traumatic stress disorder c. schizophrenia d. gender incongruence disorder 24. When a person imagines sights or sounds that aren’t true sensory events even though they feel real, what has the person experienced? a. hallucination b. delusion c. obsession d. compulsion 25. Which of the following describes a person with anorexia nervosa? a. restricts their diet and has a distorted body image b. binges and then purses c. binges but does not purge d. always also has a personality disorder 26. Marieke was held at gunpoint during a bank robbery but was not harmed. She has no memory of the robbery. What disorder is MOST consistent with Marieke’s symptom? a. dissociative amnesia b. dissociative fugue c. derealization/depersonalization disorder d. dissociative identity disorder 27. Which of the following is an irrational repetitive behaviour that a person performs to reduce anxiety? a. obsession b. compulsion c. delusion d. hallucination 28. Which disorder is characterized by persistent fear of public places? a. agoraphobia b. panic disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. phobic disorder

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 29. What is the term for symptoms of schizophrenia that are pathological excesses in behaviour including delusions, disorganized speech, and hallucinations? a. positive symptoms b. negative symptoms c. obsessions d. compulsions 30. Jordan’s parents are career criminals and Jordan has seen both of his parents be physically violent toward others on many occasions. Jordan is at high risk for developing which of the following? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. schizophrenia d. bipolar disorder 31. Marlene has panic attacks fairly regularly; they cause her great distress and have begun to interfere with her daily life. What disorder will Marlene MOST likely be diagnosed with? a. panic disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. acute stress disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 32. Chantal believes that her grandmother was the illegitimate child of a British monarch. Despite being given DNA evidence that this is not true, Chantal continues to believe she is the rightful heir to the British throne. Chantal’s belief is an example of which of the following? a. delusion b. hallucination c. obsession d. compulsion 33. What do borderline personality disorder and antisocial personality disorder have in common? a. They are both part of the anxious/fearful cluster. b. They are both part of the odd/eccentric cluster. c. They are both part of the dramatic/impulsive cluster. d. They are both also classified as mood disorders. 34. What disorder is characterized by recurrent attacks of overwhelming anxiety that usually occur suddenly and unexpectedly? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. phobic disorder c. social anxiety disorder d. panic disorder 35. Ellie is an inpatient on a psychiatric ward because she recently attempted suicide. Which of the following disorder is Ellie MOST likely to be diagnosed with? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 36. Dr. Lailey is a family doctor who is examining her 21-year-old patient Grace. Grace has a healthy BMI but shows signs of tooth decay and complains of constipation. What eating disorder will Dr. Lailey suspect that Grace is suffering from? a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia c. binge eating disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 37. Dr. Lu studies a personality disorder that is typically observed in females. Which of the following disorders does Dr. Lu MOST likely study? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizoid personality disorder 38. Approximately what percentage of Canadians will experience a mental health disorder by the time they are 40 years old? a. 25% b. 33% c. 50% d. 67% 39. Which of the following is a false belief that is maintained over time? a. delusion b. depression c. hallucination d. possession 40. Which of the following is the MOST common symptom of depression? a. lack of initiative b. weight loss c. hypersomnia d. memory loss 41. Low serotonin levels are linked to impulsivity and aggression and are thus often found in people with which of the following? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 42. Hugh is very reclusive; he goes to school but keeps to himself. He doesn’t dislike people, he just considers himself clumsy and inept so he avoids them. He also avoids all seminar courses. What disorder does Hugh MOST likely have? a. avoidant personality disorder b. agoraphobia c. panic disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 43. Which of the following is known to clinicians as a persistent sad state in which life seems dark and its challenges overwhelming? a. depression b. mania c. cyclothymia d. morbidity 44. Which personality disorder is MOST often associated with conflict-ridden interpersonal relationships? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 45. Which personality disorder often results in a person cutting or mutilating themselves? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 46. Dr. Gupta is discussing depression with her psychology class. Which of the following can she use as an example of ways that depression can affect cognition? a. self-blame b. anhedonia c. sadness d. hypersomnia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 47. Karen sometimes presents herself as Karen, a mature woman with conservative values, and sometimes as Catrina, a younger woman who likes to take risks. What disorder is MOST consistent with Karen/Catrina’s symptoms? a. dissociative identity disorder b. dissociative fugue c. dissociative amnesia d. derealization/depersonalization disorder 48. Daphne has anorexia nervosa. Which other two psychological disorders are Daphne MOST likely to be diagnosed with? a. an anxiety disorder and/or obsessive-compulsive disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder and/or a mood disorder c. a mood disorder and/or schizophrenia d. schizophrenia and/or an anxiety disorder 49. Which of the following is a mood disorder in which periods of mania are intermixed with periods of severe depression? a. bipolar disorder b. cyclothymia c. persistent depressive disorder d. derealization/depersonalization disorder 50. Which of the following is MOST closely associated with agoraphobia? a. panic attacks b. phobic disorder c. generalized anxiety d. trauma 51. Extreme stress is MOST likely to be present in a person who was recently diagnosed with which of the following? a. malingering b. factitious illness disorder c. dissociative amnesia d. somatic symptom disorder 52. Which personality disorder is most closely associated with breaking social norms with little regard for others? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 53. What eating disorder involves an individual binge eating and then engaging in purging-type behaviour? a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia c. binge eating disorder d. pica 54. What is the term for a disorder of low energy and negative affect? a. depression b. mania c. delusion d. obsession 55. Dr. Jackson is a psychiatrist meeting a new patient for the first time. He knows that the patient is highly impulsive and that the patient has been diagnosed with a personality disorder. Which personality disorder does Dr. Jackson suspect the patient may have? a. antisocial or borderline b. borderline or schizotypal c. schizotypal or obsessive-compulsive d. obsessive-compulsive or antisocial

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 56. Dr. Clark is discussing depression with her psychology class. Which of the following can she use as an example of how depression can affect motivation? a. hypersomnia b. lack of motivation c. weight gain d. sad mood 57. What disorder is marked by a chronic high level of anxiety that is not tied to a specific threat? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. phobic disorder c. social anxiety disorder d. panic disorder 58. Which of the following disorders has the HIGHEST lifetime prevalence in Canada? a. depression b. generalized anxiety disorder c. schizophrenia d. alcohol abuse/dependence 59. A person is only diagnosed with bipolar disorder when they have had which of the following? a. a manic episode and a psychotic episode b. a manic episode and a depressive episode c. a depressive episode and a dissociative episode d. a dissociative episode and a manic episode 60. Which personality disorder leads to the exploitation of others? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 61. Which of the following is defined as an inflexible pattern of inner experience and outward behaviour that causes problems with daily functioning? a. a personality disorder b. a dissociative disorder c. schizophrenia d. bipolar disorder 62. Which neurotransmitter is MOST closely associated with schizophrenia? a. dopamine b. norepinephrine c. acetylcholine d. GABA 63. Arthur is genetically predisposed to bipolar disorder. Which of the following experiences is MOST likely to trigger his bipolar disorder? a. being evicted from his apartment b. losing his wallet c. missing his bus and being late for work d. eating a lot of monosodium glutamate (MSG) 64. Which mood disorder is often associated with feelings of grandiosity? a. bipolar disorder b. narcissistic personality disorder c. derealization/depersonalization disorder d. cyclothymia

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 65. Ben has just been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He experiences delusions, hallucinations, and irregular thought patterns. What type of medication will Ben MOST likely be prescribed? a. lithium b. an antipsychotic c. a benzodiazepine d. an SSRI 66. Alissa has been in and out of juvenile detention centres since she turned 12. She has extremely violent tendencies and enjoys committing crimes, especially assault. Which of the following would Alissa MOST likely be diagnosed with? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. schizophrenia d. bipolar disorder 67. As a child, Magda had difficulty controlling her emotions and her parents were so frustrated by this that they punished her for expressing herself and attempted to ignore Magda’s outbursts altogether. Magda’s upbringing may lead her to develop which of the following? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. schizotypal personality disorder d. narcissistic personality disorder 68. Approximately what percentage of people with schizophrenia develop delusions of persecution? a. 25% b. 50% c. 80% d. 99% 69. Sigrid has recurrent depression. Approximately how many episodes of major depression will she likely experience during her lifetime? a. 2 or 3 b. 5 or 6 c. 7 or 8 d. 12 or 13 70. Which of the following is a mental disorder characterized by disorganized thoughts and lack of contact with reality? a. schizophrenia b. derealization/depersonalization disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. bipolar disorder 71. Which of the following is the BEST predictor that an episode of depression will occur? a. experiencing a stressful event during the past month b. being a 30-year-old male c. having a recent diagnosis with schizotypal personality disorder d. having a manic episode 72. Dr. Pesca is a psychiatrist working in a prison. He was hired by the warden because he specializes in which of the following? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. schizotypal personality disorder d. narcissistic personality disorder 73. What class of disorders are characterized by the loss of touch with some portion of consciousness or memory? a. dissociative disorders b. schizophrenias c. anxiety disorders d. personality disorders

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 74. If two people with schizophrenia have a child together, what is the probability that that child will develop schizophrenia? a. 5% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100% 75. Dr. Massimo has been a psychiatrist for 30 years. One diagnosis that was popular when he started his practice is no longer very popular. What is that diagnosis currently called? a. dissociative identity disorder b. derealization/depersonalization disorder c. conversion disorder d. dissociative fugue 76. Dr. Rousseau is a counsellor working with the Canadian Armed Forces. He used to work in private practice. Now that he works with combat veterans, he treats many more cases of which of the following? a. post-traumatic stress disorder b. agoraphobia c. specific phobias d. social anxiety disorder 77. Aliyah is so afraid of dogs that she will not go to the park near her house, even though her son would really enjoy playing there. Aliyah also won’t visit her brother because he has a dog. Aliyah’s behaviour can BEST be described as reflecting which of the following? a. panic disorder b. phobic disorder c. agoraphobia d. a specific phobia 78. Which of the following factors is thought to make a person with a vulnerability toward schizophrenia MORE likely to develop the disorder? a. low IQ b. high IQ c. low creativity d. high creativity 79. Pip-Pip shows many positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following might be one of those symptoms? a. disorganized speech b. flat affect c. catatonic rigidity d. social withdrawal 80. Aaron is self-obsessed, he expects special treatment wherever he goes, and has a complete lack of empathy toward others. Which personality disorder does Aaron MOST likely have? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 81. Hayden has bipolar disorder. If he is experiencing hyposomnia, low appetite, and delusions of grandeur, what phase of his disorder is he MOST likely in? a. manic b. depressive c. refractory d. stagnant 82. Dr. Stanton has a patient with bulimia. What treatments is she MOST likely to recommend? a. behavioural therapy combined with antipsychotic medications b. cognitive therapy combined with antidepressant medications c. behavioural therapy combined with antianxiety medications d. cognitive therapy combined with anti-inflammatory medications Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 83. Which of the following is an example of a positive symptom of schizophrenia? a. a hallucination b. flat affect c. social withdrawal d. catatonia 84. Which of the following is a sudden loss of memory for important personal information that is too extensive to be due to normal forgetting? a. dissociative amnesia b. vascular dementia c. Alzheimer’s disease d. delirium 85. Which of the following is known to clinicians as a disorder characterized by a depressed mood that is significantly debilitating for a period of at least two weeks and is not caused by drugs or other medical conditions? a. major depressive disorder b. bipolar disorder c. depression d. cyclothymia 86. Which aspect of classical conditioning is thought to contribute to the development of panic disorder? a. discrimination b. generalization c. extinction d. spontaneous recovery 87. Hunter is highly suspicious of other people and is convinced that spy agencies are trying to poison his food. Which of the following personality disorders would Hunter MOST likely be diagnosed with? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. paranoid personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 88. How much more likely are women to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder? a. 2 times b. 3 times c. 4 times d. 5 times 89. Dr. Aymand is discussing various explanations of the cause of schizophrenia, and notes that one theory is both well known and controversial. Which theory is he referring to? a. the dopamine hypothesis b. the diathesis-stress model c. brain structure theory d. prenatal exposure to infection 90. Safi witnessed her husband being killed in Congo. Safi immediately began having nightmares and recurrent negative thoughts about her traumatic experience. What term best describes Safi’s reaction? a. agoraphobia b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. panic disorder d. phobic disorder 91. Deshona was just in a car accident; her leg was broken but she will recover. She seems sad, but she can’t be considered as having major depressive disorder until she has had sad feelings for at least how long? a. one year b. one week c. a few weeks d. one month

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 92. Malinda and Savannah are good friends who both ended long-term relationships recently. They were both sad at first, but Savannah has recovered and Malinda is severely depressed. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for this difference? a. Malinda generated stress through rumination, Savannah did not b. Savannah reduced her stress through rumination, Malinda did not c. Malinda engaged in exercise, Savannah did not d. Savannah is a student, Malinda is not 93. Which personality disorder has the HIGHEST male-to-female ratio? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 94. Jake has schizophrenia and has been motionless in a chair for more than an hour. Which symptom is he displaying? a. catatonic stupor b. catatonic posturing c. derailment d. delusion 95. Axmed is experiencing delusions and hallucinations. According to researchers, what is likely happening in Axmed’s brain? a. increased dopamine activity b. increased acetylcholine activity c. reduced dopamine activity d. reduced acetylcholine activity 96. Dr. Klein argues for describing mental illness in terms of the extent to which an individual exhibits various symptoms, such as anxiety, agitation, and paranoia. In other words, Dr. Klein advocates for which approach to diagnosis? a. dimensional b. categorical c. severity d. temporal 97. At present, which of the following is the GREATEST contributor to mental illness among Indigenous people in Canada? a. social isolation b. intergenerational trauma c. life in remote communities d. genetic predisposition 98. A town was hit by a devastating wildfire and most residents lost their homes. Dr. Freeman is part of a Red Cross team helping the victims of the disaster. What disorder will Dr. Freeman MOST likely see in the days immediately following the disaster? a. panic disorder b. depression c. post-traumatic stress disorder d. agoraphobia 99. What is free-floating anxiety more formally known as? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. phobic disorder c. social anxiety disorder d. panic disorder

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 100. A tendency toward which of the following factors is thought to contribute to the high rates of depression observed in women compared to men? a. to ruminate b. to block emotions c. to be optimistic d. to have phobias 101. Which disorder is characterized by several distinct personalities within the same individual? a. dissociative fugue b. dissociative identity disorder c. dissociative amnesia d. derealization/depersonalization disorder 102. Portia has schizophrenia and is currently an inpatient on a psychiatric ward because she is not motivated enough to care for herself. This apathy is often referred to as which of the following? a. apathy b. catatonia c. derailment d. delusion 103. When a person with schizophrenia has a pathological deficit, such as flat emotion or social withdrawal, this deficit is referred to as which of the following? a. a positive symptom b. a negative symptom c. a delusion d. a hallucination 104. Trevor is scared that his family is in danger so he repeatedly checks to make sure the stove has been turned off and that the door is locked. Sometimes he spends an hour completing each of these checks. The checks help reduce his anxiety. What disorder does Trevor MOST likely have? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. panic disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. agoraphobia 105. What is the MOST common reason that people develop complex post-traumatic stress disorder (CPTSD)? a. trauma from an accident b. prolonged exposure to trauma c. brief exposure to trauma d. trauma from a natural disaster 106. Margot had a panic attack while at the grocery store last month. She also had an attack at a gas station last week. The attacks terrified her and she doesn’t want an attack to happen again. What disorder is Margot MOST at risk of developing? a. agoraphobia b. specific phobia c. generalized anxiety disorder d. post-traumatic stress disorder 107. Which of the following explanations of depression asserts the disorder is caused by the person feeling they have no control over their lives and it’s their own fault? a. learned helplessness b. negative thinking c. the sociocultural theory of depression d. the epigenetic theory of depression 108. In order for a person to be diagnosed with panic disorder, they must have panic attacks and which other criterion? a. the attacks must interfere with daily life b. the attacks must cause dangerous medical symptoms c. they must also have agoraphobia d. they must also have generalized anxiety disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 109. Ashley has schizophrenia. What will her doctors MOST likely observe on an MRI of Ashley’s brain? a. abnormally large ventricles b. abnormally small ventricles c. an abnormally large cerebellum d. an abnormally small cerebellum 110. Percy has insomnia and fatigue and feels worthless. He has felt this way for about two months. He has never had any other mental health symptoms. Percy will MOST likely receive a diagnosis of which of the following? a. major depressive disorder b. bipolar disorder c. malingering d. somatic symptom disorder 111. Razin is a highly impulsive child who has no regard for rules or social norms, has failed to attach to his family, and has difficulty with friendships. When Razin grows up, which of the following is he at increased risk for developing? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 112. Michael-John is a 21-year-old student who is on a spending spree. He used a credit card to purchase a new wardrobe and to buy trips to Las Vegas, Montreal, and Orlando. His friends tried to stop him but he wouldn’t listen. What disorder might underlie Michael-John’s behaviour? a. bipolar disorder b. derealization/depersonalization disorder c. major depressive disorder d. panic disorder 113. Dr. Hassan specializes in treating people with borderline personality disorder. She takes her job very seriously because her patients are at a high risk for which of the following? a. suicide b. obesity c. criminal behaviour d. truancy 114. Salome is terrified of contracting HIV even though she has been told that the probability she will ever get the disorder, based on her lifestyle, is very low. Salome also worries about hurricanes, even though there hasn’t been a hurricane in her province in more than 50 years. What disorder does Salome MOST like have? a. social anxiety disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. phobic disorder d. panic disorder 115. Which personality disorder is characterized by severe instability in emotions and self-concept and high levels of volatility? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. schizotypal personality disorder 116. Matty washes his hands hundreds of a times a day because he is terrified of getting sick. Which term describes Matty’s hand washing behaviour? a. an obsession b. a compulsion c. a delusion d. a hallucination

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 117. Which of the following is a negative consequence of the biogenetic explanation of mental illness? a. a decreased tendency to blame people for their mental illness b. an increased tendency to blame people for their mental illness c. an increased tendency to view mental illness as treatable d. an increased tendency to view mental illness as untreatable 118. Which of the following is a common physical symptom of depression? a. low energy b. feelings of worthlessness c. pessimism d. open sores 119. Which of the following are obvious false beliefs that a person holds onto despite evidence that they are not valid? a. delusions b. hallucinations c. obsessions d. compulsions 120. Which of the following describes a person with generalized anxiety disorder? a. worries excessively b. is terrified of a specific thing or event c. will not leave their house d. is particularly afraid of public speaking 121. Arturo has schizophrenia. He shows very little emotion, and responds the same to positive and negative situations. Arturo is displaying which negative symptom of schizophrenia? a. derailment b. flat affect c. loss of volition d. catatonia

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. d 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. a 44. b 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. c 52. a 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. a 61. a 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. a 74. c 75. a 76. a 77. b 78. a 79. a 80. c 81. a 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. a 90. b 91. c 92. a 93. a 94. a 95. a 96. a 97. b 98. c 99. a 100. a 101. b 102. a 103. b 104. a 105. b 106. a 107. a 108. a 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_6ce_Vol_4 111. a 112. a 113. a 114. b 115. b 116. b 117. d 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. b

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Chap 16_6ce_Case-Based Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Latoya’s psychologist is likely to view her client’s social anxiety as ___________. a. a symptom of a deeper underlying problem rooted in unconscious conflicts b. a result of learning and conditioning from past negative social experiences c. being caused by an “error” in thinking and selective focus on the negatives d. a neurochemical imbalance 2. Laura’s sister has been learning from the self-help books she has been reading, and encourages Laura to try to increase her self-efficacy. If Laura agrees, then which of the following phrases should she repeat to herself? a. “I am able to get through this.” b. “This is not as bad as it looks.” c. “What’s the worst it can happen?” d. “I choose not to overreact” 3. Which of the following is NOT one of the skills Laura might acquire in mindfulness-based cognitive behavioural therapy? a. To focus more on the current moment instead of focusing on past worries b. To show more compassion to herself c. To accept things as they are and not as she wants them to be d. To completely understand the reasons behind her anxiety 4. Which form of treatment is least likely to help Reuben overcome his psychological illness? a. Psychotherapy b. Aversion therapy c. Biomedical therapy d. Cognitive-behaviour therapy 5. Given that Kathryn experiences transference during her sessions, how is she likely to act around her psychologist? a. She is going to shut down and be emotionally unresponsive towards him. b. She is going to open up to him about her feelings with little resistance. c. She is going to spontaneously recover lost or forgotten memories. d. She is going to shout at her therapist like she shouts at her father. 6. Laura has an extreme fear of being interviewed for a job. Despite the fact that she is well-qualified and has no problem talking to new people, the idea of being in an interview setting turns her into a nervous wreck. Because of this, Laura also experiences major depression. She has tried several different types of therapy with varying levels of success. Her current psychologist is using systematic desensitization to help her with this anxiety. Her sister is also trying to help Laura and is currently reading a self-help book on cognitive behavioural therapy. After a few months listening to the advice of both her psychologist and her sister, Laura was able to successfully interview for her dream job and she also no longer meets the criteria for a depression diagnosis. Which of the following is likely to be the lowest item in Laura’s anxiety hierarchy? a. Answering a tough question in front of three interviewers. b. Giving a complex presentation in front of a single interviewer. c. Waiting in the hallway before her interview. d. Saying hello to the person who is interviewing her.

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Chap 16_6ce_Case-Based 7. According to her psychologist, what is the source of Laura’s interview anxiety? a. Laura had a mother who constantly critiqued and berated her. b. There is an incongruence between Laura’s ideal self and Laura’s current self. c. Laura has developed a negative automatic style of thinking. d. Classical conditioning paired a harmless event with a fear-arousing event. 8. A few weeks into therapy, Kathryn’s psychologist notices that Kathryn exhibits signs of resistance. This means that Kathryn is likely to ____________. a. talk about her dreams in extreme detail, but not her daily life b. talk about her daily life, but not about her childhood experiences c. curse at her psychologist and angrily proclaim she is done with therapy d. treat her psychologist as though he is her father 9. A few times each week, Kathryn has the same recurring dream where she violently kills a small rabbit. She always wakes up feeling distressed and anxious because of it. The dream interpretation Kathryn’s psychologist gives her is that ______________. a. she harbours aggressive feelings towards her little sister b. she has repressed sexual feelings about her father c. she has repressed envious feelings about her mother d. the dream is a manifestation of a repressed memory of abuse 10. Reuben’s friend Anoush tells him that his therapist has him describe his dreams. After he describes his dreams, his therapist asks him what he thinks this dream means. What type of therapy is Anoush’s therapist using? a. Dream therapy b. Client-centred therapy c. Psychoanalysis d. Free association 11. A few months after she starts her new job Laura enrols herself in mindfulness-based cognitive behavioural therapy. This is because Laura _______________. a. wants to gain a greater understanding of herself and her anxiety b. needs help accepting her genuine self in order to grow as a person c. needs help recovering from her maladaptive unconscious conflict d. wants to avoid relapsing and to eliminate her maladaptive cognitions 12. Kathryn has had trouble controlling her anger ever since she was young. However, to outsiders she appears as to be an extremely calm, cool, and collected person. To deal with her issues, she visits a psychologist Dr. Phil once a week. In their sessions, Dr. Phil allows Kathryn to talk freely and without interruptions about anything that may come to mind, no matter how silly, trivial, or embarrassing it may be. Kathryn’s therapist also asks her to describe her dreams in great detail. 1. Kathryn’s psychologist is following a ______ approach. a. humanistic b. psychoanalytic c. cognitive d. behavioural

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Chap 16_6ce_Case-Based 13. Reuben has recently been diagnosed with major depressive disorder and his doctor has recommended that Reuben read up on different types of treatments so he can form his own opinions before their next appointment. The doctor recommends that Reuben research different forms of both therapy and medication. Reuben appreciates the fact that his doctor has allowed him to look into types of treatment on his own (so he is not biased by his doctor’s opinion); however, Reuben finds that the amount of information available about treatment is overwhelming. Reuben decides to talk to a few of his friends about treatment instead. Which of the following therapists is least likely to agree to treat Reuben? a. School psychologist b. Clinical psychologist c. Psychiatrist d. Social worker 14. Which of the following best represents the technique Latoya’s psychologist is using to help her overcome her social anxiety? a. She encourages Latoya to watch and mimic socially adept friends. b. She helps Latoya practice social techniques using structured role-play exercises. c. She encourages Latoya to gradually handle increasingly more difficult social tasks. d. She invites Latoya to a new social setting so she can show her it’s not as scary as Latoya thinks. 15. Reuben’s friend Anoush says that his therapist asks him to think about how he would feel and respond if his coworker did not invite him to a surprise party for a mutual friend. This is an example of Beck’s ___________. a. reattribution technique b. examining alternatives technique c. decatastrophizing technique d. fantasizing consequences technique 16. Latoya is very shy and feels extremely anxious when she is around new people. She feels a lot of personal distress due to her anxiety. Latoya finds it very difficult to be around other people she has not met before, so she does not make new friends easily. Her condition has also started affecting her professional career. Every time Latoya meets someone for the first time, she experiences tension, apprehension, and nervousness. She is trying to get help to deal with her issues and decides that a combination of therapy and medication is the best treatment for her. Latoya’s psychologist is using shaping to help Latoya overcome her social anxiety. To get a prescription for her anti-anxiety medication, who would be best for Latoya to visit? a. A psychiatrist b. The clinical psychologist she visits once a week for a therapy session c. A different clinical psychologist she has never had therapy with d. Her family doctor

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Chap 16_6ce_Case-Based Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. d 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. d 16. a

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What is the key task for the therapist in client-centred therapy? a. clarification b. cognitive evaluation c. behaviour modification d. interpretation 2. Madeleine’s doctor has prescribed a drug from the benzodiazepine family to reduce the severity of Madeleine’s symptoms. In this case, what is Madeleine most likely being treated for? a. schizophrenia b. depression c. anxiety d. bipolar disorder 3. Felicity scored 98 percent on her first statistics exam, while Baxter scored only 35 percent. Felicity studied really hard in an attempt to score 100 percent on the next exam. Baxter decided he wasn’t going to be successful in the course, so he didn’t study at all. On the second exam Felicity scored 89 percent, while Baxter scored 42 percent. What does this reflect? a. Both Felicity’s and Baxter’s scores reflect the impact of a self-fulfilling prophecy. b. Felicity is experiencing a “sophomore slump,” while Baxter is experiencing a “junior jump.” c. Both Felicity and Baxter experienced a placebo effect. d. Both Felicity’s and Baxter’s scores reflect regression toward the mean. 4. For which disorder has transcranial magnetic stimulation been successfully used as treatment? a. bipolar disorder b. depression c. schizophrenia d. panic disorder 5. What is the main practical difference between a clinical psychologist and a counselling psychologist? a. Only the clinical psychologist can prescribe drugs. b. The severity of the problems that they tend to deal with. c. Clinical psychologists provide behaviour therapy; counselling psychologists provide insight therapy. d. The clinical psychologist has a doctorate; the counselling psychologist has a master’s degree. 6. Which of the following statements BEST describes the antidepressant drugs known as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)? a. The drugs have negative effects on sexual functioning, cause emotional numbness, and increase suicidal thinking. b. They are broad-spectrum drugs that can successfully treat depression, bipolar disorder, and schizophrenia. c. The drugs reduce the symptoms of depression, but they often increase levels of anxiety. d. There are few, if any, negative side effects, and patients do not experience withdrawal upon terminating their use. 7. If you feel that your therapy isn’t progressing, what should you do? a. Question your therapist’s competence. b. Consider the possibility of your own resistance to therapy. c. Assume you are not a good candidate for therapy and drop the idea. d. Get a new therapist immediately. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 8. What was NOT a problem with mental hospitals during the 1950s? a. The hospitals were underfunded. b. The hospitals were overcrowded. c. The patients were overmedicated. d. The staff was undertrained. 9. Which of the following is an example of modelling? a. practising a new skill until it becomes easy b. observing someone who has a skill you want to have c. gradually developing higher and higher standards for a behaviour d. providing feedback to another client in group therapy 10. Which term refers to the therapist’s attempts to explain the inner significance of the client’s thoughts, feelings, memories, and behaviours? a. reading b. clarification c. interpretation d. professional explanation 11. What happens in free association? a. Clients spontaneously express their thoughts and feelings exactly as they occur. b. Clients relate the events of their dreams as they remember them. c. Clients are restricted to talking about their sexual conflicts only. d. Therapists openly express their interpretations of clients’ thoughts and feelings. 12. Some disorders are expressed differently, with distinct differences in symptoms, across different cultures. What does this finding illustrate? a. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. 13. What is the difference between group therapy and family therapy? a. the types of techniques that work best b. the importance of unconditional positive regard c. In group therapy, the clients don’t typically interact outside of therapy. d. In family therapy, the clients are not expected to provide feedback to each other during sessions. 14. What has NOT been an outcome of deinstitutionalization? a. more outpatient care of psychological disorders b. an increase in the average length of stay in mental hospitals c. a decrease in the average inpatient population in mental hospitals d. an increase in the number of patients who are mentally ill in local general hospitals

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 15. According to behaviour therapists, how should pathological behaviours be viewed? a. They should be viewed as the expression of an unconscious sexual or aggressive conflict. b. They are signs of an underlying emotional or cognitive problem. c. They can be modified directly, through the application of established principles of conditioning. d. They are the product of irrational thinking. 16. You make an appointment to see a therapist and, as you are waiting, you notice that a large number of the books on the therapist’s shelves deal with the work of Joseph Wolpe. What should you expect from this therapist? a. He will emphasize the bringing unconscious conflicts and defences into conscious awareness. b. He will help you recognize and change negative thoughts and maladaptive beliefs. c. He will use counterconditioning to reduce anxiety responses. d. He will provide a supportive environment while allowing you to determine the pace and direction of your therapy. 17. In looking for therapeutic services, what should you keep in mind? a. The therapist’s professional background should be your number-one concern. b. Most therapists are in private practice. c. Community mental health centres and human service agencies are good sources of information. d. The therapeutic services available are essentially the same in most North American communities. 18. In therapy, Sarah is learning to appreciate the little things in her life and to focus on personal growth. Which theoretical approach is consistent with this type of therapy? a. psychodynamic theory b. systematic desensitization c. behaviourism d. positive psychology 19. Nancy has just begun taking antidepressant medication to treat her symptoms of depression. She took her first dose about 12 hours ago, but so far her family sees no change in her condition. What advice should they be given? a. She may have been misdiagnosed. b. Patients usually don’t respond to antidepressant drugs for at least a week or two. c. If she doesn’t show improvement in another 12 hours, a different kind of medication should be tried. d. Early changes due to antidepressant medication are usually not apparent to nonprofessionals, who are unfamiliar with the signs of improvement. 20. Which statement best describes antipsychotic drugs? a. They are effective in about 95 percent of psychotic patients. b. They are often prescribed even for individuals who have no clinical psychotic disorder. c. They tend to produce an immediate, but short-lasting, effect. d. They gradually reduce psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. 21. What is NOT an effect associated with antipsychotic drugs? a. better motor coordination b. decreased activity at dopamine synapses c. reduced hyperactivity d. reduced delusions

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 22. Which of the following statements best represents the difference between modern psychodynamic approaches and Freud’s traditional approach? a. There is less emphasis on unconscious forces and more on environmental factors that influence our current actions. b. There is less emphasis on dreams and fantasy, and more on the objective current reality. c. There is less emphasis on unconscious forces and more on free will and self-actualization. d. There is less emphasis on childhood sexuality/aggression and more on family/caregiver relationships. 23. What is NOT a criticism of drug therapy? a. Many drugs are overprescribed, and many patients are overmedicated. b. The side effects may be worse than the illnesses they are supposed to cure. c. They temporarily relieve symptoms without addressing the real problem. d. Drug therapy is more difficult to provide than “talk therapy.” 24. Ariana’s doctor has recently prescribed a drug that slows the reuptake process at serotonin synapses. What is Ariana most likely being treated for? a. depression b. schizophrenia c. somatoform disorder d. bipolar disorder 25. Dr. Yosef is a psychotherapist who is extremely supportive of all his clients. He often acts as a sounding board, restating and clarifying the themes that come to the surface as his clients speak freely about their concerns and problems. Which type of therapist does Dr. Yosef appear to be? a. a psychoanalyst b. a rational-emotive therapist c. a client-centred therapist d. a cognitive behaviourist 26. Which academic degree is associated with being a psychiatrist? a. Ph.D. b. Ed.D. c. M.D. d. Psy.D. 27. Which of the following people is widely credited with launching modern psychotherapy and with calling into question the view that we are logical, rational beings? a. Albert Ellis b. John Watson c. Sigmund Freud d. Aaron Beck 28. Which therapy is mainly intended to eliminate symptoms rather than alter personality? a. psychoanalysis and client-centred therapy b. client-centred therapies and behaviour therapies c. behaviour and drug therapies d. psychoanalysis and drug therapies 29. Which statement best represents the approach of a cognitive therapist in treating a chronically anxious client? a. “Let’s see if we can identify the irrational thoughts that are producing your anxiety.” b. “Do you feel that your mother adequately met your need for emotional support when you were a child?” c. “Let’s look for ways in which you might actually be benefiting from your anxiety.” d. “So, you feel that your world is a very scary place to be.” Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 30. Which treatment method is based on the idea that you can’t be profoundly relaxed and fearful at the same time? a. systematic desensitization b. behaviour modification c. electroconvulsive therapy d. psychoanalysis 31. When Brett was 6 years old, his older sister hid in his closet, then unexpectedly jumped out and scared him when he came into his dark bedroom. Brett is still terrified of the dark even as an adult. Based on principles of classical conditioning, what is Brett’s fear of the dark? a. a result of counterconditioning b. an unconditioned response c. a conditioned response d. a result of observational learning 32. Vicki is seeing a therapist in an attempt to improve her relationship with her father. During her meetings with her therapist, the two of them often engage in lengthy discussion, and her therapist tries to help Vicki work through a variety of potential solutions for the problems she is facing. Which type of therapy is most consistent with this example? a. behaviour b. systematic desensitization c. insight d. biomedical 33. Darlene is somewhat vulnerable to depression. A website advises her to write a letter to herself in which she visualizes “a future where current issues are resolved and offers advice on how to get there.” Based on research by Myriam Mongrain, as a result of this exercise, Darlene’s depression scores are likely to do which of the following? a. remain constant over the next several weeks b. decrease with effects lasting several days c. decrease with effects lasting several weeks d. decrease with effects lasting several months 34. Which statement best describes the risks of electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT)? a. Risks are so severe that the use of ECT has been banned by law. b. Risks may include both short- and long-term memory loss. c. Risks have been eliminated by modern improvements in the procedure. d. Risks are negligible, as long as appropriate precautions are taken. 35. When electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) was introduced as a treatment for schizophrenia in the 1903s, what was the rationale for using shock therapy for these patients? a. The psychiatrist who introduced the treatment has a family member who suffered an electric shock and was ‘cured’ of his ailments b. ECT was believed to be much more humane that the other treatments being offered at the time c. The psychiatric community was fed up with patients not cooperating with the treatments being offered d. The psychiatrist who introduced the treatment speculated that epilepsy and schizophrenia could not coexist in the same body

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 36. According to Beck, which types of thought processes tend to produce depression? a. focusing selectively on positive experiences b. blaming oneself for things that have situational causes c. failing to accept responsibility for one’s own actions d. blaming setbacks on circumstantial factors 37. What is the most commonly cited side effect associated with antianxiety drugs? a. blurred vision b. tardive dyskinesia c. tachycardia d. drowsiness 38. Dr. Gurk believes that most psychological disorders are a result of negative thoughts and maladaptive beliefs. Knowing this, you might expect to find many books by which author on Dr. Gurk’s bookshelves? a. Sigmund Freud b. Aaron Beck c. Carl Rogers d. Hans Eysenck 39. Which statement best describes deinstitutionalization? a. Deinstitutionalization hasn’t had much of an impact on mental health care at all. b. Deinstitutionalization has been a failure, resulting in poorer treatment for both inpatients and outpatients. c. Although many people have benefited from deinstitutionalization by avoiding unnecessary hospital stays, there have been some unanticipated problems. d. Deinstitutionalization has been an outstanding success, resulting in better care for all clients. 40. What techniques do researchers use to help control for regression toward the mean and placebo effects? a. control groups, random assignment, and statistical adjustment b. double-blind testing, correlational research, and random sampling c. longitudinal testing, random assignment, and naturalistic observation d. cross-sectional studies, statistical adjustment, and case-study research 41. Many specific therapies have turned out to be irrelevant or counterproductive when used with various cultural groups. What is illustrated by this finding? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 42. Belle has her master’s degree, and she helps people integrate back into the community after treatment in a mental health facility. Which type of mental health professional is Belle? a. a psychiatrist b. a clinical social worker c. a psychiatric nurse d. a counselling psychologist 43. Which therapeutic technique encourages clients to play a major role in determining the pace and direction of therapy? a. psychoanalytic therapy b. client-centred therapy c. rational-emotive therapy d. social skills training Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 44. Which of the following is incompatible with anxiety, and is used in systematic desensitization in an attempt to recondition phobic cues? a. vigorous exercise b. deep muscle relaxation c. imagined fear d. imagined pleasant experience 45. What shows the most appropriate matching of therapy to psychological problem? a. Xanax for depression b. systematic desensitization for bipolar mood disorder c. cognitive therapy for panic disorder d. lithium treatment for phobic disorder 46. Carolyn had been feeling extremely depressed over the loss of her job, and she had considered seeing a therapist for help with her depression. However, for the past week she has been feeling much better and has decided that she doesn’t need professional treatment after all. In this case, what appears to have happened to Carolyn? a. personal insight b. placebo effect c. transference d. spontaneous remission 47. Client: “I’ve had a bad week. I’m really down.” Therapist: “You’ve had some unpleasant experiences lately and are feeling quite depressed as a result.” What is the therapist’s statement in this interaction intended to communicate to the client? a. unconditional positive regard b. empathy c. interpretation d. genuineness 48. Which type of treatment uses modelling, behavioural rehearsal, and shaping as its major tools? a. rational-emotive therapy b. group therapy c. systematic desensitization d. social skills training 49. A therapist attempts to treat a man for his sexual attraction to animals by pairing pictures of animals with painful electric shocks. What procedure is being used? a. aversion therapy b. electroconvulsive therapy c. extinction d. systematic desensitization 50. What is a primary goal of client-centred therapy? a. to help clients understand how repressed childhood conflicts can affect their behaviour b. to help clients realize they don’t have to have approval from others c. to change the ways clients think d. to modify clients’ maladaptive behaviour patterns 51. Which type of therapy is based on interactions designed to help a client develop self-knowledge, and thus progress to healthy changes in personality and behaviour? a. emotive therapy b. insight therapy c. psychopharmacological therapy d. behavioural therapy

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 52. Anika is a participant in a research study on a relatively new treatment method for depression. She has just been told that the researchers plan to use magnetic fields to temporarily “turn off” a specific region in her brain. The technique being described is which of the following? a. ECT b. DBS c. TMS d. fMRI 53. Tasha has been in psychotherapy for just over a year. Lately, she has started to express a strong sexual desire for her therapist. Unconsciously, she is acting toward him the way she wishes she could act toward her own husband. According to Freud, what does Tasha’s behaviour represent? a. transference b. resistance c. free association d. defensive neurosis 54. With regard to psychological disorders, what does spontaneous remission refer to? a. failure to recover despite extensive treatment b. recovery from a disorder that occurs because of formal treatment c. sudden recurrence of a disorder in a client who had apparently been cured d. recovery from a disorder that occurs without formal treatment 55. What proportion of the homeless population is estimated to suffer from severe mental illness? a. one-quarter b. one-third c. one-half d. two-thirds 56. Lance tells his therapist, “My whole world is a mess and nobody cares for me or is concerned about what happens to me.” Lance’s therapist knows that he has many friends who are concerned about him, but she tells him, “I understand why you might feel that way right now, and it must be difficult for you to deal with your feelings of abandonment.” In this interaction, what quality does Lance’s therapist display? a. clarification b. unconditional positive regard c. empathy d. genuineness 57. Gerry has been diagnosed with depression and is seeing a therapist. His therapist encourages Gerry to think about his strengths and has asked him to keep a journal in which he notes all the good things that happen to him. Which approach is Gerry’s therapist using? a. positive psychotherapy b. behavioural therapy c. systematic desensitization d. psychoanalysis 58. Which disorder would be a good candidate for treatment with exposure therapy? a. anorexia nervosa b. schizophrenia c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. major depression 59. Which statement best describes treatment approaches for mental disorders experienced by First Nations peoples of Canada? a. They can be effective when they are culturally sensitive. b. They are primarily focused on biomedical treatments rather than behavioural treatments. c. They tend to be most effective if they are made available in urban areas. d. They tend to focus on atypical rather than typical symptoms of disorders. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 60. What are the tricyclics and the MAO inhibitors? a. antipsychotic drugs b. mood stabilizers c. antianxiety drugs d. antidepressants 61. Dr. Liu has created a new drug that has psychopharmacotherapeutic value. The drug blocks dopamine receptors without activating them. For which of the following disorders would this drug most likely be helpful? a. panic disorder b. depression c. borderline personality disorder d. schizophrenia 62. Charlene is talking with her father, and she confesses that she lied about where she had been on the weekend. Her father tells Charlene that he loves her, but that he doesn’t approve of her lying. According to Carl Rogers, which quality does Charlene’s father display? a. validity b. unconditional positive regard c. genuineness d. empathy 63. In which therapy would you use an “anxiety hierarchy”? a. rational emotive therapy b. psychoanalysis c. systematic desensitization d. client-centred therapy 64. Which statement best describes psychiatrists? a. They have essentially the same education as clinical psychologists. b. They are physicians who specialize in the treatment of mental disorders. c. They are less likely to use psychoanalytic methods than psychologists. d. They focus exclusively on biomedical therapies in treating psychological disorders. 65. What is the term for treating the therapist as though he were a very important person from one’s past, such as a parent? a. frustration b. resistance c. reaction formation d. transference 66. Which of the following are the two major antianxiety benzodiazepine drugs? a. Prozac and Zoloft b. Valium and Xanax c. Thorazine and Haldol d. Elavil and Nardil 67. Mario recently started seeing a therapist. During each session, Mario is expected to talk about whatever pops into his mind. He often rambles, and he sometimes thinks that the things he describes seem trivial or silly, but his therapist encourages him to say it all. With which approach is this technique associated? a. psychoanalytic b. behavioural c. cognitive d. client-centred 68. Eartha has been experiencing mental confusion, hallucinations, and delusions. Her parents schedule an appointment with a therapist to find out if there is something she can take to reduce her symptoms. What is the doctor most likely to prescribe in this case? a. Prozac b. Xanax c. Nardil d. Thorazine

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 69. What was the basis for Carl Rogers’s client-centred therapy? a. behaviourist tradition b. psychoanalytic tradition c. humanistic tradition d. cognitive tradition 70. Ulrich alternates between periods of elation and depression. Which medication is he most likely to receive to control his condition? a. Xanax b. thorazine c. Prozac d. lithium 71. What is Valium? a. an antidepressant drug c. an MAO inhibitor

b. an antianxiety drug d. a mood stabilizer

72. Alexi, Brian, and Carl have all sought treatment for depression from different therapists. Alexi’s therapist uses a traditional method of therapy (whichever was deemed appropriate for the case), Brian’s uses a traditional method with medication, and Carl’s uses a positive psychology approach. Based on research, which of the following represents the likely scores of depression for the three individuals at the end of 12 weeks of therapy? a. Alexi’s scores are lowest, followed by Brian, then Carl. b. Brian’s scores are lowest, followed by Carl, then Alexi. c. Carl’s scores are lowest, followed by Brian, then Alexi. d. Brian’s and Carl’s scores are tied for lowest, then Alexi. 73. Jorge has been in psychotherapy for several months. When he first started therapy, Jorge had a very positive relationship with his therapist. However, over the past two weeks he has shown increasing hostility, and he often yells and becomes threatening when his therapist offers her interpretations of the things that Jorge says during therapy. According to Freud, what does Jorge’s behaviour represent? a. evidence of psychosis b. evidence that his psychological problems are worsening c. a sign of transference d. a sign of repressed free association 74. What is an institutional barrier to mental health treatment? a. Most therapists are white and middle-class. b. Some clients wish to avoid the use of drug treatments. c. Some religious beliefs are inconsistent with therapeutic techniques. d. There are serious side effects associated with many treatments. 75. What modern practitioners are most likely to use psychoanalysis? a. psychiatrists b. clinical psychologists c. social workers d. counselling psychologists 76. Most experts believe that for certain types of psychological problems, some treatment approaches are more effective than others. According to Martin Seligman, which type of therapy is best for panic disorders? a. systematic desensitization b. cognitive therapy c. medication d. group therapy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 77. Kayla’s doctor has prescribed an MAO inhibitor to reduce the severity of Kayla’s symptoms. What is Kayla being treated for? a. schizophrenia b. anxiety disorder c. bipolar disorder d. depression 78. William is trying to simply examine how he feels at this very moment. He is identifying his emotions and thinking about what is going on around him, without trying to change or judge the overall experience. What is this technique called? a. desensitization b. mindfulness c. transference therapy d. rational-emotive therapy 79. Orsillo and Roemer suggest not only that mindfulness practices are important as a therapeutic tool but also that the skills that people acquire will help them to live the lives they want to live. Which of the following is NOT one of these skills? a. increased awareness b. self-enhancement c. accepting things as they are d. being in the present moment 80. Which statement best describes the process of therapy? a. The therapist’s role is to run clients’ lives for them. b. Therapy typically produces immediate, major improvements in clients’ psychological functioning. c. The best outcomes in therapy are seen when the therapist and the client are the same sex and are similar in age. d. Therapists are only facilitators, not producers, of change. 81. Which of the following is NOT a closely related set of concepts? a. aversion therapy, ECT, tardive dyskinesia b. genuineness, empathy, unconditional positive regard c. free association, dream analysis, transference d. antipsychotic, antianxiety, antidepressant 82. Josh has a severe fear of spiders. His therapist suggests that the fear is a learned association and proposes a series of exercises in which Josh will be gradually exposed to more and more spider-like stimuli, under controlled conditions where nothing bad can happen. The therapist assures Josh that this will help to extinguish the fear response. Which of the following types of therapy is being proposed? a. biomedical b. insight c. psychoanalytic d. behavioural 83. Rogers named his technique “client-centred therapy.” What belief was he trying to emphasize with this term? a. The client is in a position of natural status and authority over the therapist. b. Clients should play a major role in determining the pace and direction of therapy. c. Therapists should share all of their thoughts, feelings, and experiences with clients. d. Clients should always be the centre of attention.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 84. What is the main difference between a clinical psychologist and a psychiatrist, in terms of their professional degrees? a. The former has a Ph.D. or Psy.D. in Psychology and the latter has an M.D. and a Ph.D. in Psychology b. The former has a Ph.D. or Psy.D. in Psychology and the latter has an M.D. c. The former has a Ph.D. in Psychology and the latter has a Psy.D. d. The former has an M.A. and is registered and the later has a Ph.D. 85. Colton has been taking a drug to control a psychological disorder. Some of the side effects that he has been experiencing include drowsiness, constipation, and tardive dyskinesia. In this case, what is Colton most likely being treated for? a. anxiety disorder b. schizophrenia c. bipolar disorder d. depression 86. Leslie thinks she may need to see a therapist to help her overcome her depression, but she doesn’t want to see anyone who is going to dwell on her childhood and try to work through any problems she experienced years ago. She wants to see someone who will focus on directly dealing with her current symptoms. Which of the following types of therapy does Leslie want? a. behavioural b. cognitive-behavioural c. psychodynamic d. positive psychology 87. Complete the following analogy: Cognitive therapy is to negative thinking as drug therapy is to ______. a. neurotransmitter activity b. side effects c. incongruence d. ECT 88. What should you look for in a prospective therapist? a. certification though the APA b. a therapist who works in an established clinic or hospital c. personal warmth, empathy, and self-confidence d. a Ph.D. or M.D. degree and a private practice 89. What does cognitive therapy emphasize? a. modifying maladaptive behaviours b. reliving traumatic childhood experiences c. increasing the client’s self-awareness and self-acceptance d. recognizing and changing negative thought patterns 90. Which of the following is one risk associated with the use of second-generation antipsychotic drugs? a. hallucinations b. diabetes and cardiovascular problems c. depression d. insomnia and hyperactivity 91. Which of the following drugs is NOT an antidepressant? a. Prozac b. Elavil c. Valium d. Nardil

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 92. How does the psychoanalytic therapist deal with transference? a. by allowing the patient to work through the associated feelings b. by moving to a new topic for discussion c. by ignoring the diversion and focusing on the real problem d. by modelling new behaviour for the client 93. Antipsychotic medications primarily achieve their effects by which of the following? a. increasing the activity of serotonin b. decreasing the activity of dopamine c. increasing the activity of GABA d. decreasing the activity of acetylcholine 94. Which disorder is most likely to be treated using deep brain stimulation, where an electrode is implanted in the brain? a. mood disorders like depression or dysthymia b. psychotic disorders like schizophrenia c. anxiety disorders like obsessive compulsive disorder d. motor disorders like Parkinson’s or tardive dyskinesia 95. Which statement best describes electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT)? a. It is used primarily for the treatment of schizophrenia. b. It is a useful method of inducing compliance. c. It is one of the key components in aversion therapy. d. It produces a cortical seizure. 96. Lancaster has been feeling worthless and unmotivated since he lost his job six months ago. If his doctor gives him a prescription to treat these symptoms, which drug would most likely be prescribed? a. Zoloft b. Thorazine c. Xanax d. Valium 97. If you think about a snake phobia in classical conditioning terms, what term is used to describe the sight of the snake? a. unconditioned response b. conditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. unconditioned stimulus 98. Which disorder would be least likely to be treated by psychiatrists? a. schizophrenia b. mood disorder c. anxiety disorder d. marital problems 99. In terms of the relationship between therapists’ professional background and therapeutic efficacy, what have researchers found? a. Most individuals show the best progress when they are treated by a therapist trained in multiple approaches. b. Most individuals show the best progress when they are treated by a certified psychiatrist. c. Most individuals show the best progress when they are treated by a clinical psychologist. d. There is no reliable connection between therapists’ professional background and therapeutic efficacy. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 100. Which statement best describes the importance of a therapist’s sex? a. The sex of the therapist only matters if the client thinks it matters. b. Female therapists tend to be more effective, perhaps because they are more nurturing toward their clients. c. Clients should choose a therapist who is of the same sex as themselves. d. Male therapists are more effective for very difficult-to-treat clients. 101. What percentage of psychotic patients respond favourably to traditional antipsychotic medication? a. 5 percent b. 15 percent c. 40 percent d. 70 percent 102. Bintu is so terrified of snakes that even the sight of earthworms makes her anxious. Her behavioural therapist has been helping Bintu overcome her fear by having her work through an anxiety hierarchy while she maintains a state of deep relaxation. What technique is her therapist using? a. aversion therapy b. psychopharmacotherapy c. biofeedback d. systematic desensitization 103. Dr. Ng is a surgeon who specializes in the use of ECT and localized cortical lesions for the treatment of drugresistant depression. Which term best describes Dr. Ng? a. biomedical therapist b. psychodynamic therapist c. behavioural therapist d. clinical psychologist 104. Dr. Varsho is a psychotherapist who often argues openly with her clients. She is assertive and tries to persuade her clients to alter their patterns of thinking. Which statement best describes Dr. Varsho? a. She is probably not very successful as a therapist. b. She is using a client-centred approach to therapy. c. She is a therapist who uses Beck’s cognitive approach. d. She is using a modern psychodynamic approach to therapy. 105. Which type of psychotherapist participates in complex verbal interactions with clients in order to enhance clients’ understanding of themselves and their problems? a. biomedical therapist b. insight therapist c. homeopathic therapist d. behaviour therapist 106. What do clients do in self-instructional training, the therapeutic approach developed by Meichenbaum? a. They teach themselves new skills, rather than relying on the therapeutic relationship. b. They learn to develop and use verbal statements that help them cope with difficult situations. c. They direct the progress of therapy within sessions with a therapist. d. They learn the skills of psychoanalysis so that they may use the procedures at home, outside the therapeutic context.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 107. What did Freud theorize about events that occur in dreams? a. They have no connection to the client’s real life and thus are irrelevant in therapy. b. They are symbolic representations of recent events in the client’s life. c. They are logical interpretations of random neural activation. d. They need to be analyzed by the therapist and interpreted for the client. 108. What is resistance, in the context of therapy? a. unconscious defensive manoeuvres intended to hinder the progress of therapy b. conscious efforts to hinder the progress of therapy c. the client’s reaction to sexual advances from the therapist d. unconscious ways in which young children rebel against their parents’ demands 109. Which of the following is aversion therapy designed to do? a. add negative associations using classical conditioning techniques b. add negative associations using operant learning techniques c. add pleasant associations using observational learning techniques d. add pleasant associations using classical conditioning techniques 110. Which of the following is NOT a closely related pair of terms? a. client-centred therapy and clarification b. biomedical therapy and aversion therapy c. psychoanalysis and free association d. behaviour therapy and systematic desensitization 111. Dr. Benz always tries to be honest with her clients, and she never becomes defensive, even if the clients ridicule her feedback or her methods of therapy. According to Carl Rogers, which quality does Dr. Benz display in dealing with her clients? a. empathy b. unconditional positive regard c. genuineness d. validity 112. What is tardive dyskinesia? a. a disorder that emerges after long-term use of lithium b. a neurological disorder marked by involuntary writhing and tic-like movements c. a symptom associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder d. a disorder that can be cured with the same medication used to treat schizophrenia 113. Which type of therapists would be most expensive for a client? a. one in a university setting b. one in private practice c. one in a human resources department in a large corporation d. one in a community mental health centre

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 114. Earl often hits other children when he can’t get his own way. Earl is now seeing a behavioural therapist who has discussed appropriate ways of interacting with peers. The therapist has shown Earl videos of children resolving conflicts in nonaggressive ways. Earl has also engaged in role play so that he can practise new ways of dealing with conflict. What type of treatment is this? a. systematic desensitization b. social skills training c. rational-emotive therapy d. aversion therapy Lloyd Lloyd is experiencing symptoms consistent with major depressive disorder. In particular, he has a very negative way of looking at the world. He sees himself as a failure who will never be happy or successful because he has no skills. This extreme pessimism has caused him to lose friends and his work has suffered. Lloyd’s family has convinced him that he needs to seek treatment, and Lloyd has agreed. He hates how he feels but doesn’t know what to do to change things on his own. 115. If Lloyd’s symptoms of depression go away prior to any treatment, what is this recovery called? a. refractory period b. placebo effect c. spontaneous remission d. independent recovery 116. What is a major drug that has been used to control mood swings in bipolar disorder? a. Prozac b. lithium c. thorazine d. Xanax 117. Ann’s therapist has asked that she spend the next week carefully monitoring how she spends her time and rate the pleasure or sense of accomplishment that she derives from these activities. The goal is to help Ann achieve greater happiness by increasing the time spent on activities that lead to feeling pleasure or accomplishment. Anne is most likely in which of the following types of therapy? a. psychoanalytic b. client-centered c. cognitive-behavioural d. humanistic 118. What may cause the public to underestimate the risk of drug side effects? a. Patients tend not to report side effects because the positive effects are so powerful. b. Side effects are inconsistent from patient to patient. c. Drug companies control the messages about the drugs and don’t publish evidence about side effects. d. The benefits of psychoactive drugs far outweigh any possible side effects associated with their use. 119. Emotion-focused couples’ therapy is a treatment approach developed by Greenberg and Johnson in which couples are encouraged to identify their needs and express their needs. Which approach is this therapy based on? a. rational-emotive therapy b. psychoanalysis c. client-centred therapy d. cognitive-behavioural therapy 120. Which of the following is the most widely prescribed class of antidepressants today? a. tricyclics b. MAO inhibitors c. benzodiazepines d. SSRIs

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 121. What technique is being used if you give an alcoholic an emetic drug so that each time she takes a drink she becomes violently ill? a. negative reinforcement therapy b. psychopharmacotherapy c. systematic desensitization d. aversive conditioning 122. Most experts believe that for certain types of psychological problems, some treatment approaches are more effective than others. According to Martin Seligman, which approach is most effective for obsessivecompulsive disorder? a. behaviour therapy or medication b. group therapy or minimally supportive therapy c. cognitive therapy or insight therapy d. systematic desensitization or aversive therapy 123. Which statement best represents the approach of a client-centred therapist in treating a chronically anxious client? a. “Let’s see if we can identify the irrational beliefs that are producing your anxiety.” b. “So, you feel that your world is a very scary place to be.” c. “Let’s look for ways in which you might actually be benefiting from your anxiety.” d. “Do you feel that your mother adequately met your need for emotional support when you were a child?” 124. Which statement best describes the different approaches to psychotherapy? a. They overlap so much that there is little basis for differentiating one from another. b. They can be used interchangeably for the majority of psychological disorders. c. They are all equally appropriate for all kinds of psychological problems. d. They have developed due to tension between competing theories. 125. Professor Newton gave a midterm exam where the scores ranged from 28 percent to 89 percent; the average score for the exam was 69 percent. Based on the phenomenon known as regression toward the mean, what should you expect on the final exam? a. Almost all students will score higher on the final than they did on the midterm. b. Almost all students will score lower on the final than they did on the midterm. c. The students who scored near the mean on the midterm will score lower on the final. d. The students who scored highest on the midterm will score lower on the final. 126. Samantha’s therapist has asked that she spend the next week carefully monitoring how she spends her time and rate how much pleasure or sense of accomplishment she derives from these activities. The goal is to help Samantha achieve greater happiness by increasing the time spent on activities that lead to feeling pleasure or accomplishment. Which of the following is the name of this technique? a. mindfulness b. behavioural activation c. insight d. exposure

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 127. According to Freud, why do people use defense mechanisms? a. to avoid confronting their inner conflicts b. to keep people from guessing their secrets c. to increase the congruency between real and ideal selves d. to promote adaptive behaviours 128. What is the most widely prescribed class of psychiatric drugs? a. antidepressant drugs b. antipsychotic drugs c. antianxiety drugs d. neuroleptics 129. Which statement best represents a valid criticism of the use of drugs to treat mental disorders? a. Drugs are simply sedating patients rather than treating them, and drug treatments are very expensive. b. Psychoactive drugs may produce superficial treatment but do not provide a cure, as evidenced by high relapse rates when the drug is discontinued. c. Drugs appear to be effective only because they are prescribed to individuals who are likely to experience spontaneous remission. d. Psychoactive drugs are all very addictive and there is a large withdrawal effect when the drugs are discontinued. 130. In therapy, George is shown pictures of children, and every time he begins to evidence sexual arousal, he is given a shock. What technique is being used? a. aversion therapy b. biofeedback therapy c. electroconvulsive therapy d. systematic desensitization 131. Natalia is a recent immigrant to Canada who is experiencing symptoms consistent with depression. Various members of her family, who are still living in Natalia’s country of birth, have experienced such symptoms, and in each case they were treated by the local clergy who explained that their feelings were the result of straying from their religion, forgave them for their sins, and counselled them about the need to maintain strong family ties so that they may not lose sight of their reasons for living. What will Natalia likely do in response to having her symptoms? a. She will likely seek help from her local church, rather than from her physician. b. She will likely return to her home country for treatment, because it is more sensitive to her cultural needs. c. She will likely seek out a psychologist who is from the same cultural background as herself. d. She will be forced to ask her family doctor for antidepressant medication. 132. What would be an example of transference in psychoanalytic therapy? a. The patient takes charge of the therapeutic process. b. The patient changes her behaviour toward her loved ones. c. The patient falls in love with the therapist. d. The patient moves to a deeper understanding of himself.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 133. In comparison to lithium, which statement best describes the effectiveness of valproate? a. It is roughly as effective in treating bipolar disorder and has fewer adverse effects. b. It is less effective in treating bipolar disorder but has fewer adverse effects. c. It is more effective in treating bipolar disorder but has more adverse effects. d. It is less effective in treating bipolar disorder and has more adverse effects. 134. What does behaviour therapy require? a. The client must passively accept suggestions for change. b. The client’s vague complaints must be translated into concrete behavioural goals. c. The client must develop insight into his or her irrational thought processes. d. The client’s willingness to take the lead on the therapeutic process. 135. What is a therapist looking to discover by using free association and dream analysis? a. the unconscious b. irrational thoughts c. maladaptive behaviours d. the conscious Lloyd Lloyd is experiencing symptoms consistent with major depressive disorder. In particular, he has a very negative way of looking at the world. He sees himself as a failure who will never be happy or successful because he has no skills. This extreme pessimism has caused him to lose friends and his work has suffered. Lloyd’s family has convinced him that he needs to seek treatment, and Lloyd has agreed. He hates how he feels but doesn’t know what to do to change things on his own. 136. If Lloyd’s depression does not respond to therapy or drug treatment, what might be considered as a treatment option? a. electroconvulsive therapy b. antipsychotic medication c. cingulotomy d. prefrontal lobotomy 137. What disorder is lithium used to treat? a. schizophrenia b. major depression c. multiple-personality disorder d. bipolar mood disorder 138. Which of the following represents a normal prognosis after treatment using electroconvulsive therapy? a. significant improvement, but possible relapse within six months b. complete recovery, with some memory deficits c. change in diagnosis from depression to dysthymia d. significant improvement for approximately 20 percent of patients

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 139. Which statement best reflects an example of regression toward the mean? a. People who originally score near the average on some trait are measured a second time, and their new score falls at the extreme high or low end of the scale. b. People who originally score extremely high or low on some trait are measured a second time, and their new score falls closer to the average. c. People recover from a mental or physical illness without any form of intervention. d. People’s expectations lead them to experience some change, even though they receive a fake or ineffective treatment. 140. Price has previously had several episodes of severe depression, but for the past week he has been euphoric and hyperactive, and he hasn’t slept for the past four nights. If his doctor prescribes medication to reduce Price’s current symptoms, which medication is most likely to be prescribed? a. a drug from the benzodiazepine family b. a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor c. a tricyclic drug d. lithium 141. What proportion of the homeless population struggles with alcohol and drug problems? a. one-quarter b. one-third c. one-half d. two-thirds 142. After several months of psychoanalysis, Andy begins to feel intensely angry with his therapist, although the therapist has been consistently warm and supportive. How would a psychoanalyst interpret Andy’s feelings? a. They are a result of sudden insight about some childhood experience. b. They are due to a misinterpretation of the therapist’s behaviour. c. They are signs of an impending psychosis. d. They are a result of transference. 143. Which statement best describes behaviour therapy? a. Behaviour therapists have historically placed little emphasis on measuring therapeutic outcomes. b. Insight therapists generally can measure progress more precisely than behaviour therapists because of the nature of their therapeutic goals. c. Behaviour therapies can make important contributions in treating obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia, eating disorders, and hyperactivity. d. The evidence for the effectiveness of insight therapy is stronger than the evidence for the effectiveness of behaviour therapy. 144. Which of the following is the term for treatments that are based on sound scientific processes, outcomes, and basic research findings related to the treatment? a. therapeutic b. evidence-based c. prophylactic d. interventions 145. Complete the following analogy: Freud is to unconscious conflicts as Rogers is to ______. a. catharsis b. incongruence c. clarification d. cognitive errors

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 146. Geoff is a participant in a research study on a relatively new treatment method for his disorder. He has just been told that the researchers plan to use magnetic fields to temporarily “turn off” a specific region in his brain. Geoff most likely suffers from which of the following? a. borderline personality disorder b. depression c. ADHD d. bipolar disorder Lloyd Lloyd is experiencing symptoms consistent with major depressive disorder. In particular, he has a very negative way of looking at the world. He sees himself as a failure who will never be happy or successful because he has no skills. This extreme pessimism has caused him to lose friends and his work has suffered. Lloyd’s family has convinced him that he needs to seek treatment, and Lloyd has agreed. He hates how he feels but doesn’t know what to do to change things on his own. 147. If Lloyd is prescribed a medication to help treat his depression, what would most likely be prescribed? a. MAO inhibitors b. lithium c. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors d. benzodiazepines 148. Which statement best describes psychotherapy? a. Since Freud’s time, all forms of treatment for psychological disorders have involved verbal interaction. b. The first systematic psychotherapy procedure was Freud’s psychoanalysis. c. All psychotherapies employ essentially the same method of treatment. d. Insight therapy is the most effective method for treating psychological disorders. 149. Nelson has just begun taking antipsychotic medication to treat his symptoms of schizophrenia. He took his first dose about 12 hours ago, but so far his family sees no change in his condition. What advice should they be given? a. Early changes due to antipsychotic medication are usually not apparent to nonprofessionals, who are unfamiliar with the signs of improvement. b. Patients usually don’t begin responding to antipsychotic drugs for at least a few days. c. If he doesn’t show improvement in another 12 hours, a different kind of medication should be tried. d. He may have been misdiagnosed as schizophrenic. 150. Which type of therapy is most likely associated with a person who has a serious mental disorder? a. group therapy b. couples therapy c. psychopharmacotherapy d. rational emotive therapy 151. What would Freud consider to be the most direct means of access to the unconscious mind? a. the content of dreams b. the client’s attempts to hinder the progress of therapy c. the client’s feelings toward the therapist d. transference

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 152. Which statement is the best example of transference? a. A therapist encourages a client to see the symbolism in her dreams. b. A client starts skipping appointments in order to take control of his life. c. A client starts dreaming about the therapist and the therapeutic process. d. A client reacts toward the therapist in the way that used to react to his father. 153. You are watching a television documentary that shows a patient who is undergoing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). If this documentary is depicting modern treatment (within the past decade or so), then what is most likely? a. The patient is being treated for severe schizophrenia that has not responded to medication. b. The documentary is inaccurate because electroconvulsive shock therapy hasn’t been used since the 1970s. c. The documentary is an “undercover exposé,” and the doctor administrating the treatment is in violation of current ethical guidelines. d. The patient is being treated for severe depression that has not responded to medication. 154. For which of the following disorders is electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) most likely to be used? a. anxiety b. depression c. schizophrenia d. personality disorders 155. Gil’s doctor has prescribed an antipsychotic drug to reduce the severity of Gil’s symptoms. What is Gil most likely being treated for in this case? a. mild depression b. generalized anxiety disorder c. schizophrenia d. panic disorder 156. Social skills training is associated with which of the following types of therapy? a. client-centred therapies b. behavioural therapies c. psychoanalytic therapies d. biomedical therapies 157. What is NOT among the reasons that North American minority groups typically underutilize therapeutic services? a. a reluctance to turn to formal, professional sources of assistance b. language and communication barriers c. the inability of many therapists to provide culturally responsive forms of treatment d. lower incidence rates for most mental disorders among immigrant groups 158. Joseph Wolpe launched behaviour therapy in 1958. Which technique did he develop? a. aversion therapy b. systematic desensitization c. rational emotive therapy d. social skills training

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 159. You make an appointment to see a therapist, and as you are waiting, you notice that a large number of the books on the therapist’s shelves deal with the work of Sigmund Freud. What would you expect this therapist to do? a. Emphasize the need to bring unconscious conflicts and defences into conscious awareness. b. Help you recognize and change negative thoughts and maladaptive beliefs. c. Provide a supportive emotional environment while allowing you to determine the pace and direction of your therapy. d. Use counterconditioning to reverse maladaptive behaviours. 160. Stefano loves rich desserts, but he knows that eating a lot of desserts is bad for his heart. He was unable to control his desire for them until he read an article in a magazine. The article suggested that every time a person looked at a tempting but forbidden food, he or she should form a mental image of something disgusting. Stefano has been doing this for the past month, and he no longer finds desserts to be as tempting as they used to be. What technique has Stefano used? a. negative reinforcement b. systematic desensitization c. aversion therapy d. observational learning 161. Jennifer’s doctor has recently prescribed a drug that decreases the activity of dopamine. What is Jennifer most likely being treated for? a. schizophrenia b. depression c. anxiety disorder d. bipolar disorder 162. Morgan is suffering from depression. His therapist asked him to write a letter to himself in which he visualizes “a future where current issues are resolved and gives advice on how to get there.” With which of the following approaches is Morgan’s therapist most likely linked? a. psychoanalysis b. behavioural therapy c. client-centred therapy d. positive psychology 163. James lost his job a few months ago and has been feeling down ever since. He feels unmotivated to get up in the mornings and no longer enjoys activities that he used to enjoy. His therapist has just prescribed James some medication. Based on his symptoms and the most common class of medications used to treat these symptoms, which of the following medications is most likely to have been prescribed? a. MAO inhibitors b. benzodiazepines c. tricyclics d. SSRIs 164. Michael feels that there is no point in applying for a new job, because he would never be called for an interview. According to Beck’s views on depression, what is this belief? a. a conflict b. a cognitive error c. a defence mechanism d. incongruence 165. What would be a behaviour therapist’s focus in treating an abnormal behaviour? a. the inappropriate thought patterns that underlie the behaviour b. the childhood unconscious conflict that led to the behaviour c. the environmental cues and consequences associated with the troublesome behaviour d. the ways in which the behaviour keeps the client from becoming self-actualized

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 166. What type of conditioning is the basis for systematic desensitization? a. instrumental b. classical c. operant d. aversive 167. From which other type of therapy does cognitive therapy borrow many techniques? a. group b. psychodynamic c. client-centred d. behaviour 168. One technique that can be used in cognitive therapies is to have clients carefully monitor how they spend their time and how much pleasure or sense of accomplishment they derive from various activities. The goal is to increase time spend on activities that lead to feeling pleasure or accomplishment. Which of the following is the name of this technique? a. mindfulness b. exposure c. insight d. behavioural activation 169. Dr. Sung has created a new drug that has psychopharmacotherapeutic value. The drug blocks dopamine receptors without activating them. Which of the following classes of drugs is this most likely to be? a. antianxiety drugs b. antipsychotic drugs c. antidepressant drugs d. mood-stabilizing drugs 170. What is NOT a consequence of the pervasive influence of pharmaceutical companies on the use of psychiatric medications? a. Studies of the effectiveness of various drugs, and the potential side effects, are compromised by conflict of interest, given that many researchers have financial ties to the drug companies. b. Research designs for efficacy studies are slanted in a way that enhances the positive effects of the drugs. c. Psychiatrists risk losing their licences if they do not prescribe medications for serious mental disorders. d. Industry-financed drug trials are too brief to detect long-term problems associated with various drugs. 171. What is NOT one of the main categories of treatment? a. insight therapies b. biomedical therapies c. behaviour therapies d. revelation therapies 172. Alyssa’s therapist recently said to her, “You seem to be responding to me as though you’re your mother, and you believe that I am angry with you.” If this is correct, what process would it indicate in Alyssa’s behaviour? a. resistance b. sublimation c. insight d. transference 173. What is the term for the transferring of treatment of mental illness from inpatient institutions to communitybased facilities? a. deinstitutionalization b. mainstreaming c. decentralization d. exit-transfer therapy 174. Which of the following is sometimes used as a drug treatment for bipolar disorder? a. fluoxetine b. sertraline c. haloperidol d. valproate Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 175. Leslie has been feeling depressed for a number of weeks. She thinks she may need to see a therapist to help her overcome her depression, but she doesn’t want to see anyone who is going to dwell on her childhood and try to work through any problems she experienced years ago. In this example, Which of the following types of therapy does Leslie want to avoid? a. behavioural b. cognitive-behavioural c. psychodynamic d. positive psychology 176. Claude has been seeing a therapist in an attempt to finally stop smoking. The therapist has described a number of specific techniques using reward and punishment that Claude might try to eliminate his behaviour of smoking. Which type of therapy is most consistent with this example? a. biomedical b. insight c. psychoanalysis d. behaviour 177. For which of the following are behaviour therapies particularly effective? a. antisocial personality disorder b. major depression c. phobias d. vague feelings of unhappiness 178. Brian has been feeling anxious and tense as his final exams approach. He schedules an appointment with his doctor to find out if there is something he can take to help him feel more relaxed and less anxious. If Brian’s doctor prescribes a medication for the symptoms that Brian is experiencing, what would it most likely be? a. Nardil b. Prozac c. Thorazine d. Xanax 179. You are watching a documentary that shows a patient who is undergoing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). If this documentary is depicting psychotherapy in the late 1930s or early 1940s, which disorder is the patient most likely being treated for? a. epilepsy b. schizophrenia c. severe depression that has not responded to medication d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 180. Clive is a clinical psychologist, and his sister Grace is a psychiatrist. What would Clive be more likely to do? a. treat young children, while Grace would treat more adults b. deal with patients who have more severe problems than the patients Grace sees c. take a psychoanalytic approach to therapy, while Grace takes a behavioural approach d. have a degree in psychology, while Grace would have a medical degree 181. Dr. Paat believes that most psychological disorders can be successfully treated by bringing unconscious conflicts and defences into conscious awareness. Whose theories is Dr. Paat’s belief consistent with? a. Joseph Wolpe b. Hans Eysenck c. Carl Rogers d. Sigmund Freud 182. Gilbert just graduated from medical school and has entered a four-year residency at a local hospital. He plans to specialize in the treatment of mental disorders. What is Gilbert training to be? a. counselling psychologist b. clinical psychologist c. psychiatrist d. psychiatric nurse Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 183. What is the side effect associated with traditional antipsychotic drugs that is characterized by chronic tremors and involuntary spastic movements? a. tardive dyskinesia b. tachycardia c. MAO inhibition d. epilepsy 184. In comparison to traditional antipsychotic drugs, which statement best describes second-generation antipsychotic drugs? a. They are less effective and have more unpleasant side effects. b. They are less effective but have fewer unpleasant side effects. c. They are equally as effective and have fewer unpleasant side effects. d. They are more effective but have more unpleasant side effects. 185. Shawna often shows anxious and frustrated behaviour at work. Her therapist believes that this is due to conflicts between her unconscious and unmet sexual impulses and her defence mechanisms. With which of the following approaches is Shawna’s therapist most likely associated? a. behavioural b. positive psychology c. psychoanalytic d. client-centred 186. If you are evaluating clients’ subjective ratings of changes in their feelings, measures of clients’ behavioural changes, and therapists’ subjective ratings of changes in clients’ adaptive functioning, what are you trying to measure? a. personality differences among clients b. effectiveness of therapy c. placebo effects d. therapists’ professional competence 187. Given the results of studies that have examined the effectiveness of insight therapy, which portion of therapy tends to result in the greatest improvement? a. the first 10 to 20 sessions of therapy b. any portion of therapy that shows evidence of transference c. the latter portions of therapy, after approximately 20 weeks of treatment d. the therapy portion that follows the onset of drug treatment 188. What type of treatment is used if you are using psychopharmacotherapy? a. aversion therapy b. electroconvulsive shock c. medication d. surgery 189. Heather is a smoker who is unable to quit, even though she knows that smoking is ruining her health. After several failed attempts, Heather sees a therapist who recommends which of the following as a “last resort” option? a. systematic desensitization b. aversion therapy c. negative reinforcement d. exposure therapy 190. What proportion of psychiatric inpatient releases are re-admitted within 30 days? a. one-seventh b. one-fifth c. one-fourth d. one-third

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 191. From where does behaviour therapy derive its principles? a. psychodynamic theories that posit a protective purpose for behaviour b. research by B. F. Skinner and Joseph Wolpe c. the holistic perspective of Gestalt psychology d. cognitive research into fundamental errors in thought 192. Electroconvulsive therapy was a popular treatment for schizophrenia among some clinicians, but other clinicians preferred alternative methods including psychoanalytic therapy or treatment with antipsychotic medications. We have learned a great deal about schizophrenia from the processes and results of each of these forms of treatment. Which theme does this highlight? a. the danger of theoretical diversity b. the value of theoretical diversity c. the importance of sociohistorical context d. the subjectivity of experience among individuals 193. Which of the following was established by Dorothea Dix, a mental-health reform activist? a. the first mental hospital in Nova Scotia in 1857 b. the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of the American Psychiatric Association c. ethical guidelines against the use of prefrontal lobotomy d. the Canadian Psychological Association 194. In treating an abnormal behaviour, what is a psychoanalyst trying to discover? a. the unconscious conflict that led to the behaviour b. inappropriate thought patterns that underlie the behaviour c. ways in which the behaviour keeps the client from becoming self-actualized d. the environmental conditions that are maintaining the behaviour 195. What was emphasized by the community mental health movement? a. centralized care, increasing the efficiency of mental institutions, and enhanced use of culturally sensitive treatments within the institutions b. centralized care, reduced reliance on hospitalization, and increased use of outpatient surgical procedures c. local care, increased use of hospital facilities, and swift implementation of biomedical therapies d. local care, reduced reliance on hospitalization, and prevention of mental illness 196. According to Rogers, when does personal distress occur? a. when a person engages in negative thinking b. when there is incongruence between a person’s self-concept and reality c. when unconscious conflicts threaten to rise to the surface of conscious awareness d. when a person is lacking in self-control

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 197. When evaluating the effectiveness of behaviour therapies, what is supported by research? a. Behaviour therapies are only marginally effective, even though they are very popular. b. Behaviour therapies are very effective for treating vague symptoms, but not concrete symptoms. c. Behaviour therapies are always more effective than insight therapies. d. Behaviour therapies have good evidence of effectiveness, but not for all disorders. 198. What type of drug is Thorazine? a. antianxiety b. antidepressant c. mood-stabilizing d. antipsychotic 199. When Ling was eight years old, she was startled and began to cry when a car backfired just as she was walking under a ladder. As an adult, Ling is still terrified of ladders. Based on principles of classical conditioning, what term is used to label the sound of the car backfiring? a. unconditioned stimulus b. conditioned stimulus c. counterconditioning d. transference 200. Clifton has been in psychotherapy for several months, but during the last few sessions he has been distracted and inattentive. When his therapist asks him to describe any dreams he has had recently, Clifton insists that he doesn’t remember any of his dreams. According to Freud, what does Clifton’s behaviour represent? a. defensive neurosis b. resistance c. insight d. transference 201. When Kayla was six years old, her older brother hid in her closet, then unexpectedly jumped out and grabbed her when she came into her dark bedroom. Kayla is still frightened in dark places, even as an adult. Based on principles of classical conditioning, what term describes the dark room? a. conditioned stimulus b. counterconditioning c. negative reinforcement d. unconditioned stimulus 202. When evaluating the effectiveness of insight therapies, what is typically found? a. Most clients experience spontaneous remission. b. Insight therapy is only effective in combination with some other therapy. c. Drug therapy is more effective than insight therapy. d. Insight therapy is roughly equally-effective as drug therapies. 203. Psychoanalysis assumes that, although a client may consciously want help, there is often an unconscious pressure to maintain the present conditions. Which of the following is the term for the defensive actions that disrupt therapy and seek to maintain the present? a. repression b. insight c. transference d. resistance 204. What do psychoanalytic, client-centred, and positive psychology therapies have in common? a. They all require a Ph.D. degree to practise. b. They are only effective in conjunction with drug therapy. c. They are each used in the treatment of psychosis. d. They all promote insight into the self. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 205. Which statement best describes an early advancement in psychology? a. Anna O was treated by Josef Breuer in what she called “the talking cure.” b. The first systematic psychotherapy procedure in the early days of psychological science was Beck’s cognitive therapy for depression. c. Breuer was so interested in the progress made by Anna O in therapy that he followed through on his discovery and subsequently developed more interventions. d. Biomedical approaches to psychological treatment include drug therapy, however no longer include electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) as it is no longer practiced. 206. Bryson was surprised by his first psychotherapy session. When the session was over, the therapist gave Bryson a homework assignment. She asked Bryson to record any thoughts that came to his mind when he experienced a setback at home or in his job. In this case, which approach does Bryson’s therapist likely use? a. psychoanalytic approach to therapy b. Beck’s cognitive therapy c. client-centred therapy d. social skills training 207. Which type of psychologist is most likely to deal with the most severe mental health problems? a. applied b. school c. clinical d. counselling 208. Cyrus has just been to a therapist who prescribed an antipsychotic medication. When should Cyrus expect to experience a noticeable reduction in his symptoms of schizophrenia? a. within 2 to 3 hours of taking the drug b. within 24 hours of taking the drug c. after 1 to 3 weeks of taking the drug d. after 6 to 8 weeks of taking the drug 209. What is the most important role for group members in group therapy? a. reduce both transference and resistance b. challenge one another’s false belief structures c. increase conformity and compliance d. provide acceptance and emotional support 210. You make an appointment to see a therapist and, as you are waiting, you notice that many books on the therapist’s shelves deal with the work of Aaron Beck. What would you expect from this therapist? a. She will use counterconditioning to reverse maladaptive behaviours. b. She will help you recognize and change negative thoughts and maladaptive beliefs. c. She will expect you to determine the pace and direction of your therapy. d. She will bring your unconscious conflicts and defences into conscious awareness.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 Lloyd Lloyd is experiencing symptoms consistent with major depressive disorder. In particular, he has a very negative way of looking at the world. He sees himself as a failure who will never be happy or successful because he has no skills. This extreme pessimism has caused him to lose friends and his work has suffered. Lloyd’s family has convinced him that he needs to seek treatment, and Lloyd has agreed. He hates how he feels but doesn’t know what to do to change things on his own. 211. If Lloyd goes to see a psychiatrist for treatment of his depression, which treatment will he most likely receive? a. drug treatment b. cognitive behavioural therapy c. positive psychotherapy d. humanist insight therapy 212. According to researchers who believe that all insight therapies work via the same mechanisms, which of the following factors appears to have the greatest contribution towards improvement for the client? a. providing emotional support and empathy b. cultivating hope and positive expectations c. providing a rationale for the client’s problem, and a plausible method for reducing it d. developing a sense of working together in an alliance 213. When Donovan was 4 years old, he was startled and began to cry when a car backfired just as he was walking past a fire hydrant. As an adult, Donovan is still fearful of fire hydrants and avoids walking near them. Based on principles of classical conditioning, what is Donovan’s current fear of fire hydrants? a. conditioned response b. unconditioned stimulus c. unconditioned response d. conditioned stimulus 214. The goal of a therapist in the psychoanalytic tradition is ___________, while the goal of a therapist in the humanist tradition is _________________. a. self-awareness; interpretation b. self-awareness; self-instruction c. interpretation; clarification d. clarification; self-instruction 215. What does the trend of deinstitutionalization mean? a. People with mental illness should be treated at community-based facilities that emphasize outpatient care. b. Hospitalization for mental illness has become a thing of the past. c. The environment inside mental hospitals is designed to be less structured and rigid. d. Mental hospitals should take increased responsibility for the treatment of all clients, even those who are not seriously ill.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 Lloyd Lloyd is experiencing symptoms consistent with major depressive disorder. In particular, he has a very negative way of looking at the world. He sees himself as a failure who will never be happy or successful because he has no skills. This extreme pessimism has caused him to lose friends and his work has suffered. Lloyd’s family has convinced him that he needs to seek treatment, and Lloyd has agreed. He hates how he feels but doesn’t know what to do to change things on his own. 216. Which therapy would be most likely to directly correct Lloyd’s negative thought patterns and give homework assignments to change thinking? a. cognitive b. insight c. psychoanalytic d. aversion 217. What is NOT a Freudian technique that is used to bring unconscious material to consciousness? a. analysis of transference b. free association c. dream analysis d. systematic desensitization 218. What are the two most common problems faced by those who seek psychotherapy? a. excessive anxiety and depression b. loneliness and boredom c. low self-esteem and irrational thinking d. marital conflicts and a sense of emptiness 219. What is NOT one of the characteristics that Carl Rogers believed is necessary in client-centred therapy? a. genuineness b. empathy c. unconditional positive regard d. authority 220. In systematic desensitization, what type of response is supposed to replace the fear response? a. cognitive response b. unconditioned response c. relaxation d. defensive response 221. What are common antipsychotic medications? a. Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, and Sertraline b. Chlorpromazine, Thioridazine, and Haloperidol c. Elavil and Haldol d. Nardil, Elavil, and Prozac 222. Dr. Stroetz believes that most psychological disorders can be successfully treated if clients’ vague complaints are translated into concrete behavioural goals. Knowing this, you might expect that Dr. Stroetz’s bookshelves contain a large number of books written by which authors? a. Sigmund Freud and Carl Jung b. Aaron Beck and Albert Ellis c. B. F. Skinner and Joseph Wolpe d. Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow 223. What is a critical component associated with social skills training? a. behavioural rehearsal b. biofeedback c. transference d. classical conditioning

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 224. What is the basic learning principle used in Wolpe’s systematic desensitization? a. operant conditioning b. counterconditioning c. negative reinforcement d. positive reinforcement 225. What is the therapist’s role in group therapy? a. to function as just another client b. to be authoritative and provide clear structure and boundaries for each client c. to observe the interactions of the group by keeping therapeutic distance d. to subtly manage and guide the group while participating 226. Michelle has been having a recurring dream for the past four months. Her therapist proposed one possible explanation that might give meaning to the images in Michelle’s dream. In providing an explanation for the meaning of the dream, what is the therapist doing? a. clarification b. free association c. interpretation d. transference 227. What is the term for recovery from a disorder without formal treatment? a. reified recovery b. placebo effect c. countertransference d. spontaneous remission 228. Josie has been in therapy for five years. Her therapist analyzes the symbolism in her dreams and other comments, and helps Josie understand the unconscious conflicts that underlie the dreams. In this case, which approach does Josie’s therapist use? a. psychoanalysis b. client-centred approach c. biofeedback therapy d. rational-emotive therapy 229. Which statement best describes the newest antidepressant drugs such as Prozac, Paxil, and Zoloft? a. They also reduce the manic symptoms associated with bipolar disorder. b. They increase levels of dopamine in the brain. c. They slow the reuptake process at serotonin synapses. d. They act as MAO inhibitors. 230. Why might someone prefer to take second-generation antipsychotic drugs rather than traditional ones? a. They are more effective in treating the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. b. They can be used to treat depression and anxiety, in addition to schizophrenia. c. They seem to produce fewer unpleasant side effects. d. They seem to produce more severe side effects, but they work much more quickly. 231. Andreas has just been to a therapist who prescribed an antidepressant medication. Which drug is Andreas most likely to be prescribed? a. the tricyclic called Elavil b. the benzodiazepine called Xanax c. the SSRI called Paxil d. the MAO inhibitor called Nardil

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 232. Frank has just been to a therapist who prescribed an antianxiety medication. When should Frank expect to experience some relief from his symptoms of anxiety? a. almost immediately after taking the drug for the first time b. within 24 hours of taking the drug for the first time c. only after 1 to 2 weeks of taking the prescribed amount of the drug d. after 6 to 8 weeks of taking the drug 233. A major difference between insight therapies and behaviour therapies is in their position about whether it’s necessary or useful to seek out the origin of psychological difficulties. A compromise position might be that this kind of information is important for patients with some disorders, but not for patients with other disorders. Explain why this kind of information might be more helpful for some kinds of patients than for others.

234. Compare and contrast the psychoanalytic and humanistic brands of insight therapy.

235. In light of the differences between the various psychological disorders and their hypothesized etiologies, it would seem that for each disorder, a particular type of therapy might work best. Discuss this notion, and give examples using specific disorders and specific approaches to therapy to support your arguments.

236. Some people believe that all psychological disorders can be traced to some sort of biological malfunction, especially malfunctions in the nervous system. In other words, in a perfectly formed and perfectly functioning biological organism, there could be no psychological disorder. If this were true, then the “ultimate cure” for any psychological disorder would be a biomedical cure. Explain why this position does or does not make sense to you.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 237. Persons suffering from different psychological disorders differ from each other in the extent to which they admit they need help and the extent to which they are resistant to therapy. For which disorders are patients most likely and least likely to cooperate with therapeutic interventions?

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. a 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. c 17. c 18. d 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. c

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 27. c 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. c 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. d 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. a 41. b 42. b 43. b 44. b 45. c 46. d 47. b 48. d 49. a 50. b 51. b 52. c 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 55. b 56. c 57. a 58. c 59. a 60. d 61. d 62. b 63. c 64. b 65. d 66. b 67. a 68. d 69. c 70. d 71. b 72. c 73. c 74. a 75. a 76. b 77. d 78. b 79. b 80. d 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 83. b 84. b 85. b 86. a 87. a 88. c 89. d 90. b 91. c 92. a 93. b 94. d 95. d 96. a 97. c 98. d 99. d 100. a 101. d 102. d 103. a 104. c 105. b 106. b 107. d 108. a 109. a 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 111. c 112. b 113. b 114. b 115. c 116. b 117. c 118. c 119. c 120. d 121. d 122. a 123. b 124. d 125. d 126. b 127. a 128. a 129. b 130. a 131. a 132. c 133. a 134. b 135. a 136. a 137. d

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 138. a 139. b 140. d 141. b 142. d 143. c 144. b 145. b 146. b 147. c 148. b 149. b 150. c 151. a 152. d 153. d 154. b 155. c 156. b 157. d 158. b 159. a 160. c 161. a 162. d 163. d 164. b 165. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 166. b 167. d 168. d 169. b 170. c 171. d 172. d 173. a 174. d 175. c 176. d 177. c 178. d 179. b 180. d 181. d 182. c 183. a 184. c 185. c 186. b 187. a 188. c 189. b 190. a 191. b 192. b 193. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 194. a 195. d 196. b 197. d 198. d 199. a 200. b 201. a 202. d 203. d 204. d 205. a 206. b 207. c 208. c 209. d 210. b 211. a 212. d 213. a 214. c 215. a 216. a 217. d 218. a 219. d 220. c 221. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 222. c 223. a 224. b 225. d 226. c 227. d 228. a 229. c 230. c 231. c 232. a 233. (This question may only be appropriate if both chapters 15 and 16 are being tested.) Answers to this question also should reveal students’ understanding of the characteristics of the various types of disorders. Insight therapists have argued that if symptoms are removed, as through behaviour modification, but underlying causes are not treated, then the disorder is likely to manifest again in the same or a different guise. Behaviour therapists have argued that there are no “underlying” causes, but that maladaptive behaviour has simply been learned and ought to be unlearned. For some patients, it’s difficult to pinpoint a particular behaviour that needs to be unlearned or modified because the maladaptive pattern has become so pervasive. This may be true in some cases of anxiety, mood, and personality disorders. For these patients, it may be more beneficial to seek out the “roots” of the pervasive maladaptive style and, perhaps, to destroy the many offshoots stemming from these roots. When particularly troublesome behaviours can be identified, however, and when those behaviours are such that a behaviour modification program can be designed, then this may be the best approach. If successful in changing the problem behaviour, the patient and therapist might then want to remain on the lookout for future signs that an underlying problem is manifesting via new symptoms. If so, then insight therapy may be called for. 234. The main similarity is that both seek to enlighten the individual about internal structures and mechanisms that may be contributing to one’s distress. Differences centre on assumptions about the causes of the distress. Psychoanalysis focuses on uncovering unconscious conflicts, motives, and defences that are not merely adaptive, but which cause distress or dysfunction. Client-centred therapy, a representative humanistic therapy, centres on the notion that distress results from incongruence between one’s self-concept and reality, which causes one to behave in maladaptive ways. The aim is for the individual to “get in touch” with one’s own individual nature and to value it appropriately. Another difference is in techniques. Psychoanalysis employs free association, dream analysis, and other techniques aimed at allowing and encouraging the emergence of material from the unconscious, which is then interpreted by the analyst. The general approach in client-centred therapy is for the therapist to establish a climate that feels safe enough so that the client is free to examine his or her true nature without feeling it necessary to employ defensive manoeuvres.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol 1 235. (This question may only be appropriate if both chapters 15 and 16 are being tested.) This proposition makes sense, and there is some evidence to support it. A related point is that the particular symptoms of particular disorders probably mean particular therapies are better suited to treat them. Here are some points that might be included in good answers. To the extent that biological factors have been shown to be involved in the etiology of a disorder, it would seem that biomedical treatments ought to be most effective. And, in fact, biomedical treatments have been more effective than insight and behaviour therapies in treating especially the more severe disorders, such as schizophrenia, and some mood disorders, for which there is significant evidence for biological causes. Insight therapies work best for clients who are highly motivated and who have positive attitudes about therapy. This would seem to eliminate depressed individuals as good candidates for insight therapies. Sufferers from the anxiety disorders seem to best fit the description of ideal candidates for insight therapy. Behaviour therapies have been successful with a wide variety of disorders. This is probably because most disorders manifest in maladaptive behaviours, and if these behaviours can be targeted specifically enough to design a behaviour modification program, then the prognosis may be good. Behaviour therapy would likely be least successful when the undesirable behaviour is pervasive, vague, and hard to pinpoint. This may be the case with some of the anxiety disorders and some of the mood disorders. 236. If your set of philosophical assumptions includes the belief that all psychological phenomena are products of biological activity, then this position will make sense to you. It says, in essence, that the nervous system is the “organ” of thought, emotion, and personality. So disturbances in these domains should be traceable to malfunctions in the nervous system. Psychological disorders may follow from biological problems that are inborn, or environmental events may lead to biological damage, which then leads to psychological disorder. Most modern psychologists are in this camp. This explains, at least in part, why the search for biomedical (especially drug) cures is progressing at a rapid pace and, apparently, quite successfully. Other psychologists, and students, aren’t comfortable with this position. One argument is that psychological disorders may indeed be caused by biological malfunction but, just as environmental events or subjects’ behaviours may lead to biological damage, in some cases environmental events or behaviour changes (including changes in cognitive patterns) may actually lead to repairs of the biological malfunction. Those who don’t agree that the mind is a dependent product of the body may believe that some psychological disorders can exist in a perfectly healthy (biological) organism. In these cases, therapies that focus on changing behaviour or thought may be considered the most appropriate. 237. (This question may only be appropriate if both chapters 15 and 16 are being tested.) Answers should reveal and elaborate upon an understanding of characteristics of the various types of disorders that would influence compliance. For example, patients having disorders in which subjective distress is the main problem should be least resistant, since their pain will motivate them to seek relief. Anxiety disorders are good examples. Patients with problematic thinking processes might be resistant, depending on the nature of their thought patterns. So certain psychotic delusions would lead to resistance, and a depressed patient whose negative attributional style was well entrenched might be resistant. Certain personality-disordered individuals would certainly be resistant.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What is emphasized in psychoanalytic therapy? a. providing a supportive climate for clients b. improving interpersonal skills c. recovery of unconscious conflicts, motives, and defences d. correcting habitual thinking errors 2. Your friend is a North American therapist who is moving to a nonindustrialized country to set up a psychotherapy clinic. What would you NOT advise her to do? a. prepare herself for changes she will need to make to her practice and to her approach b. use the methods she is accustomed to and not make changes since Western society is more advanced c. adjust her approach as her Western methods will not likely be effective d. talk to the local shaman or priest who is the typical healer in these societies 3. Alice has a dog phobia. She is being taught to completely relax and then mentally imagine a dog nearby. Which type of therapy is Alice receiving? a. avoidance therapy b. systematic desensitization c. aversion therapy d. psychotherapy 4. Michael has Parkinson’s disease and he is about to be treated using deep brain stimulation. What is about to happen to Michael? a. A drug will be injected directly into his brain stem. b. He will have an electrode implanted in his brain. c. A magnetic coil will be applied to specific regions of his skull. d. He will experience bilateral electric shock. 5. In what primary way was technology used to expand the delivery of psychological services in 2020 during the global COVID-19 pandemic? a. It provided online shopping for antidepressants. b. It increased ECT treatment for depression. c. It incorporated videoconferencing. d. It incorporated teleconferencing. 6. To increase the likelihood that Indigenous Peoples will benefit from mental health services, which recommendation has been made? a. Therapists should employ treatments that reflect Indigenous experience, such as with pan-Amerindian healing approaches. b. Create therapies that are designed to be appropriate for a wide range of cultures. c. Therapists must recognize that Indigenous Peoples are not susceptible to the same disorders as other Canadians. d. More urban treatment facilities must be developed.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 7. What is one major reason North American minority groups tend to underutilize mental health services? a. belief that psychological disorders are caused by supernatural forces b. lack of awareness of maladaptiveness of mental disorders c. lack of services in rural areas d. distrust of large institutions like hospitals and community mental health centres 8. For what type of problem was cognitive therapy originally developed as a treatment? a. low self-esteem b. poor interpersonal skills c. depression d. anxiety 9. You’ve just read about a treatment that has been demonstrated in multiple controlled studies to have absolutely no effect on the disorder in question. Your neighbour swears, however, that the treatment worked for him. If your neighbour is being honest, what best explains his improvement? a. His expectancies are masking the symptoms. b. He never had a disorder in the first place. c. His improvement happened to coincide with his use of the treatment. d. He is delusional 10. What class of psychiatric drugs includes Valium and Xanax? a. mood stabilizers b. antianxiety drugs c. antipsychotic drugs d. antidepressant drugs 11. Which statement does NOT accurately describe SSRIs? a. There is evidence from a number of studies in recent years that SSRIs may increase the risk for suicide, especially in adolescents and young children. b. There is evidence from a number of studies in recent years that SSRIs may increase the risk for suicide, but only in adults and not in children. c. SSRIs affect the neural transmission mechanism of serotonin. d. SSRIs produce fewer unpleasant or dangerous side effects than previous generations of antidepressants. 12. What accounts for the tendency for people who score extremely high or low on some trait to score closer to average when they are measured a second time? a. the law of averages b. reaction formation c. regression toward the mean d. the placebo effect 13. What is emphasized in client-centred therapy? a. the recovery of unconscious conflicts, motives, and defences b. providing a supportive climate for clients c. correcting habitual thinking errors d. improving interpersonal skills 14. Troy is seeing a therapist who often asks him about his dreams and encourages him to talk about anything that happens to pop into his mind. Which type of therapy is Troy experiencing? a. humanistic therapy b. psychoanalysis c. rational emotive therapy d. systematic desensitization Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 15. Dr. Boissoneau has just been appointed chief-of-staff at a large hospital located near an area of town where many minorities live. Dr. Boissoneau is very interested in increasing the level of mental health services provided to the minority community. If you could give him one piece of advice, which recommendation would be most beneficial? a. Advertise in the local minority-language newspaper. b. Open several community mental health centres in the neighbourhood. c. Hire trained therapists who are from the same minority groups. d. Have evening and weekend hours for mental health services. 16. What did Sigmund Freud consider to be the most direct way to access the patient’s unconscious, or the “royal road to the unconscious”? a. dreams b. truth serum c. free association d. hypnosis 17. Which type of therapy has the central assumption that “What has been learned can be unlearned”? a. group therapy b. behaviour therapy c. insight therapy d. biomedical therapy 18. For which problems would behaviour therapies be least effective? a. obsessive-compulsive disorders b. drug-related problems c. vague feelings of discontent d. phobias 19. Which practice can be drawn upon in psychological interventions with Canada’s Aboriginal peoples? a. inner wheels b. medicine circles c. sweat lodges d. healing wheels 20. Which therapeutic drugs used to treat psychological disorders are commonly referred to as “tranquilizers”? a. antianxiety drugs b. mood stabilizers c. antidepressant drugs d. antipsychotic drugs 21. Mohamed suffers from chronic anxiety and he decides to seek therapy. Mohamed’s primary goal is to simply reduce the level of anxiety and tension he is experiencing, and to do so with minimal effort. Which type of therapy is Mohamed most likely to select? a. emotion therapy b. behaviour therapy c. biomedical therapy d. insight therapy 22. Which pair of treatments contain treatments that are most similar to one another? a. psychoanalysis and systematic desensitization b. cingulotomy and psychoanalysis c. systematic desensitization and exposure therapy d. cingulotomy and exposure therapy 23. Dr. Tenzing used treatments based on principles of operant conditioning. Which type of therapist is Dr. Tenzing? a. biomedical therapist b. behavioural therapist c. insight therapist d. emotion therapist Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 24. Quinn was treated for depression in the past, but she is not currently experiencing any symptoms. What therapy might be recommended for Quinn to prevent a relapse? a. exposure therapy b. psychoanalytic therapy c. mindfulness-based therapy d. systematic desensitization 25. Who is well known for their role in the development of cognitive-behavioural therapy techniques? a. Aaron Beck b. Laurence Kirmayer c. Donald Meichenbaum d. Keith Dobson 26. Which therapeutic drug is frequently used to treat bipolar disorder? a. lithium b. fluoxetine c. Valium d. Thorazine 27. Which of the following is NOT a goal of clients in client-centred therapy? a. developing an accurate self-concept b. gaining self-acceptance c. realizing they do not have to worry about winning acceptance from others d. resolving unconscious conflicts 28. Mandy is taking part in group therapy for treatment of her eating disorder. Which benefit can Mandy expect to experience? a. constant monitoring of her progress b. faster treatment of her symptoms c. recognition that her struggles are shared by others d. greater access to biomedical interventions 29. Which statement best characterizes psychotherapy? a. It is a fast or rapid process that requires minimal work or effort. b. It is a slow or gradual process that requires hard work or effort. c. It is a slow or gradual process that requires minimal work or effort. d. It is a fast or rapid process that requires hard work or effort. 30. Which statement does NOT accurately describe electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? a. ECT is used to treat major depression. b. Evidence has shown that ECT causes structural damage to the brain. c. Memory loss is a common short-term side effect of ECT. d. Use of ECT peaked in the 1940s and 1950s. 31. Why is it important that psychological treatment programs be scientifically evaluated? a. It is the law in Canada. b. It is more important than clinical expertise. c. It is not important; the only thing that matters is that the clients are happy. d. It ensures interventions are based on extensive theory and empirical research.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 32. Sandra has been diagnosed with depression. If Sandra is given a drug treatment, which of the following is her doctor most likely to prescribe? a. Thorazine or chlorpromazine b. Prozac, Paxil, or Zoloft c. Valium or Xanax d. lithium 33. Which pair of therapies both employ the techniques of modelling and behavioural rehearsal? a. aversion therapy and cognitive therapy b. social skills training and systematic desensitization c. aversion therapy and systematic desensitization d. social skills training and cognitive therapy 34. What did Sigmund Freud believe caused psychological disorders? a. current stressful situations in one’s life b. maladaptive patterns of thinking established in childhood c. inconsistency between one’s self-concept and reality d. unconscious conflicts left over from early childhood 35. Which of the following is NOT an insight therapy? a. client-centred therapy b. group therapy c. psychoanalytic therapy d. social skills therapy 36. What were two major and unanticipated problems that occurred as a result of deinstitutionalization? a. homelessness among people with mental illness and an increase in domestic violence b. a revolving-door population of patients and an increased crime rate c. an increased crime rate and an increase in domestic violence d. a revolving-door population of patients and homelessness among people with mental illness 37. What does the research say regarding the effectiveness of videoconferencing as a therapeutic tool? a. Clients tend to report low satisfaction with videoconferencing. b. It is as effective as face-to-face therapy. c. It is not as effective as face-to-face therapy. d. It is as effective as face-to-face therapy but clients are unsatisfied with it. 38. What is the class of therapeutic drugs that reduce tension, apprehension, and nervousness? a. antianxiety drugs b. antipsychotic drugs c. mood stabilizers d. antidepressant drugs 39. Reggie’s therapist encourages him to set the pace of their meetings, and to decide what issues need to be addressed. What type of therapy is Reggie experiencing? a. rational-emotive therapy b. client-centred therapy c. psychoanalysis d. systematic desensitization

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 40. Carl has an important presentation to make at work next week. He is experiencing a high level of anxiety and is very tense. Carl asks his doctor if there is any medication he could take that would decrease his anxiety and tension. If Carl’s doctor prescribed a drug, what would it most likely be? a. Prozac b. lithium c. chlorpromazine d. Xanax 41. In which therapy do patients themselves play a major role in determining the pace and direction of their therapy and work together with their therapist as equals? a. cognitive therapy b. systematic desensitization therapy c. psychoanalysis therapy d. client-centred therapy 42. Which techniques are primarily employed in social skills training? a. cognitive therapy and modelling b. modelling, behavioural rehearsal, and shaping c. relaxation training and shaping d. classical and operant conditioning 43. Different approaches to psychotherapy are designed to accomplish different outcomes. Which of the following types of therapy are designed to change the behaviour, change the thinking, and change the self-concept of a client, respectively? a. systematic desensitization, client-centred therapy, cognitive therapy b. electroconvulsive therapy, cognitive therapy, psychoanalysis c. aversion therapy, cognitive therapy, client-centred therapy d. drug therapy, psychoanalysis, group therapy 44. Which type of psychotherapist tends to be the most expensive? a. those employed by private hospitals b. those employed by social service agencies c. those employed by community mental health centres d. those in private practice 45. What is the prevalence of psychological disorders among incoming inmates in federal prisons in Canada? a. 10 percent b. 30 percent c. 50 percent d. 70 percent 46. What two principle types of professionals provide psychotherapy? a. psychologists and psychoanalysts b. psychiatrists and counsellors c. psychologists and psychiatrists d. psychoanalysts and counsellors 47. Which statement does NOT accurately describe psychiatrists? a. Psychiatrists specialize in the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders. b. Psychiatrists are physicians and have a medical degree. c. Psychiatrists typically devote very little of their time to relatively serious disorders. d. Psychiatrists frequently emphasize biomedical therapy. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 48. What resulted from public dissatisfaction with the system of public mental hospitals? a. “rebirth” of mental institutions in the 1960s b. community mental health movement of the 1960s c. managed care movement of the 1990s d. development of psychotherapy techniques in the 1900s 49. In which type of therapy are clients taught to detect and evaluate their negative, self-defeating thoughts and statements? a. psychoanalysis b. aversion therapy c. social skills training d. cognitive therapy 50. Which statement best describes homelessness? a. Approximately one-third of people who are homeless suffer from a severe mental illness. b. Approximately three-quarters of people who are homeless have a severe drug or alcohol problem. c. Approximately half of people who are homeless are minorities. d. Approximately one-third of people who are homeless have a violent criminal past. 51. What therapeutic drugs are used to control bipolar disorder? a. mood stabilizers b. antianxiety drugs c. antipsychotics d. antidepressants 52. Rick is terrified of spiders and he is currently working with a therapist who uses systematic desensitization. What basic pattern of treatment will Rick experience? a. uncovering repressed feelings about spiders b. changing his attitude about spiders through a series of thought exercises c. training to relax when confronted with spiders d. gradually reducing the amount of medication that he uses to cope with his spider anxiety 53. In therapy, Amanda’s therapist often rephrases and clarifies her comments. If Amanda says, “Last night I was so angry at my daughter I wanted to slap her across the face,” her therapist might respond, “Your daughter really got to you.” What type of therapy uses this technique? a. client-centred therapy b. psychoanalysis c. social skills training d. cognitive therapy 54. Which of the following is a criticism of drug therapy for psychological disorders? a. They are underprescribed. b. The side effects may be worse than the illnesses the drugs are treating. c. The side effects are masked by the reduction of psychological symptoms. d. There is an insufficient variety of drugs to choose from.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 55. What is systematic desensitization designed to do? a. correct habitual thinking errors and maladaptive beliefs b. reduce phobic responses c. improve interpersonal skills d. create a negative response to a stimulus that has elicited problematic behaviour 56. Your friend has decided to seek out counselling for some personal problems and he asks you whether he should look for a male therapist or a female therapist. What recommendation would you give? a. He should choose a female therapist because female therapists tend to have more empathy. b. He should choose a therapist based on sex only if he thinks it will make a difference to him personally. c. He should choose a male therapist because it is important to have a same-sex therapist. d. There are pros and cons associated with having either sex, so it really depends on his treatment goals. 57. Tarek suffers from chronic anxiety and he decides to seek therapy. Tarek believes that if he can learn to calm himself when he finds himself in anxiety-producing situations, then he will be better able to cope. Based on Tarek’s beliefs, which type of therapy is he most likely to select? a. behaviour therapy b. emotion therapy c. biomedical therapy d. insight therapy 58. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the therapeutic use of LSD? a. LSD was used as a treatment for psychological disorders in the late 1950s and early 1960s in CIAfunded research at the Allan Memorial Institute in Montreal. b. LSD was used in a series of Canadian government supported studies in Saskatchewan in the 1950s and 1960s. c. Aldous Huxley coined the term psychedelic. d. Dr. Humphrey Osmond, who worked as a psychiatrist in Montreal in the 1960s, is responsible for giving the famous writer Aldous Huxley his first experiences with hallucinogens. 59. Which type of therapist employs the principles of classical and operant conditioning and observational learning? a. biomedical therapists b. behaviour therapists c. client-centred therapists d. psychoanalytic therapists 60. Which of the following is NOT a behaviour therapy? a. systematic desensitization b. social skills training c. rational emotive therapy d. aversion therapy 61. Nora is very timid and is often exploited by others. Nora decides to seek treatment to learn to be more assertive and asks you for advice. Which type of therapy could you recommend that would be appropriate to help with her problem and is likely to result in positive changes relatively quickly? a. psychoanalysis b. rational-emotive therapy c. social skills training d. systematic desensitization

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 62. What is cognitive therapy designed to do? a. create a negative response to a stimulus that has elicited problematic behaviour b. correct habitual thinking errors and maladaptive beliefs c. improve interpersonal skills d. reduce phobic responses 63. The various approaches to psychotherapy differ in their treatment approach, in part because they have different opinions concerning the factors that contribute to the development of psychological disorders. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by this example? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. 64. Doris thinks she is in love with her therapist and has begun to respond to him in that way. What do psychoanalysts call these feelings and behaviours? a. transference b. modelling c. interpretation d. free association 65. Which factor tends to have the largest effect on the effectiveness of therapy? a. The therapist is in private practice. b. The client is in individual therapy. c. The therapist practises client-centred therapy or psychoanalysis. d. The client likes the therapist. 66. Which class of therapeutic drugs includes tricyclics, MAO inhibitors, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)? a. antipsychotic drugs b. antianxiety drugs c. antidepressant drugs d. mood stabilizers 67. Consistent with the phenomenon of regression toward the mean, what would you expect of the person who receives the highest grade in the class on the first psychology exam? a. He or she will get a high grade, but probably not the highest, on the second psychology exam. b. He or she will get a below-average grade on the second psychology exam. c. He or she will get the highest grade in the class on the second psychology exam. d. He or she will get the highest grade in the class on the first economics exam. 68. Jarett is 15 years old and he has been diagnosed with depression. His parents and siblings are all going to family therapy with Jarett. What will be the role of Jarett’s family members in therapy? a. to act as a “control group” so that Jarett’s therapist can determine how severe his symptoms are b. to learn how the whole family interacts and to be aware of their influence on each other c. to learn how to provide Jarett with his medication and enforce his treatment program d. to provide positive role models so that Jarett can pattern his behaviour after them

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 69. Laura is encouraged by her therapist to talk about absolutely anything that comes to her mind. Over the course of each session as her train of thought wanders, she usually talks about a variety of topics. From time to time, her therapist comments on her statements. Which technique does this reflect? a. free association b. resistance c. dream analysis d. unconditional positive regard 70. Aversion therapy would be most appropriate for a client wanting to do which of the following? a. quit smoking b. decrease negative thoughts c. overcome social anxiety d. overcome an elevator phobia 71. How does the average inpatient population in public mental hospitals today compare to the 1950s? a. Today it is much higher. b. Today it is slightly higher. c. Today it is slightly lower. d. Today it is much lower. 72. Which technique do psychoanalysts use to help clients gain insight regarding the unconscious meaning of their free associations and dreams? a. interpretation b. transference c. modelling d. empathy 73. What is the name of the psychological treatment innovation developed by Albert and Murdena Marshall of Eskasoni First Nation in Cape Breton, Nova Scotia? a. he West River Project b. the Two-Eyed Seeing Approach c. the Eskasoni Healing Path d. the Marshall Approach 74. What is the term for Sigmund Freud’s approach to the treatment of psychological disorders? a. unconscious therapy b. client-centred therapy c. psychoanalysis d. psychotherapy 75. What is the biomedical treatment in which electric shock is used to produce a cortical seizure? a. electrocution therapy b. electroconvulsive therapy c. shock treatment d. aversion therapy 76. What is the general term for physiological interventions intended to reduce symptoms associated with psychological disorders? a. physical therapy b. biomedical therapy c. drug therapy d. electroconvulsive therapy 77. What is one of the three conditions Carl Rogers believed was important to help create a supportive emotional climate for therapy? a. transference b. unconditional positive regard c. sympathy d. friendship

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 78. When a client can remain relaxed while imagining one item on his anxiety hierarchy, what does the client do next? a. imagine an item at the top of the hierarchy b. imagine the next item lower on the hierarchy c. imagine the next item higher on the hierarchy d. imagine an item at the bottom of the hierarchy 79. During which decade did the treatment of individuals with psychological disorders make a major shift from the public mental hospital system to community mental health centres? a. 1950s b. 1960s c. 1970s d. 1980s 80. Which of the following are techniques used in psychoanalysis to uncover unconscious conflicts? a. free association and resistance b. dream analysis and transference c. free association and dream analysis d. resistance and transference 81. What are the pharmacological effects of lithium? a. gradual reduction of psychotic symptoms b. elevation of mood in patients with bipolar disorder c. reduction of tension, apprehension, and nervousness d. control of mood swings in patients with bipolar disorder 82. Erik is taking a drug that reduces his feelings of anxiety, but also makes him feel rather drowsy and nauseated. Which drug is he likely taking? a. Valium b. Zoloft c. Lithium d. Thorazine 83. Karen is being treated for her phobia of snakes, and her therapist has asked her to construct a list (from lowest to highest) of all the snake-related ideas, images, and experiences that elicit fear. What treatment is Karen experiencing? a. cognitive therapy b. aversion therapy c. psychoanalysis d. systematic desensitization 84. Which disorder is most likely to be treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) by modern doctors? a. schizophrenia b. major depression that has not responded to antidepressant drugs c. major depression d. schizophrenia that has not responded to antipsychotic drugs 85. Opal told her therapist that she thinks she’s too stupid to finish university. Opal’s therapist pointed out that Opal got very high grades in many of her courses so far and asked her to explain how that could happen if she were stupid. What type of therapy is Opal experiencing? a. psychoanalytic therapy b. client-centred therapy c. systematic desensitization d. cognitive therapy

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 86. Which group of therapeutic drugs tends to exert their effect almost immediately, but also tends to have an effect that lasts only a short time? a. mood stabilizers b. antianxiety drugs c. antipsychotic drugs d. antidepressant drugs 87. What is the term for the policy of transferring the treatment of mental illness from inpatient institutions to community-based facilities? a. cost-benefit policy b. minimalization c. deinstitutionalization d. dehospitalization 88. Ashton has decided to seek treatment from a psychologist. Which statement most likely describes Ashton accurately? a. Ashton experiences symptoms of anxiety or depression. b. Ashton does not require any actual treatment. c. Ashton has already thought about the type of treatment that is required. d. Ashton will likely be treated with medication. 89. Which therapy uses learning principles associated with operant conditioning and observational learning? a. aversion therapy b. systematic desensitization c. client-centred therapy d. social skills training 90. According to your textbook, what is the most important behaviour of group members in group therapy? a. They discuss their problems with each other. b. They discuss coping strategies with each other. c. They provide emotional support for each other. d. They share experiences with each other. 91. Which psychotherapy is being employed by therapists who emphasize “talk therapy” in treatment? a. insight therapy b. biomedical therapy c. emotion therapy d. behaviour therapy 92. What has been demonstrated by research comparing the effectiveness of psychotherapists who received training in several different areas (psychology, psychiatry, counselling, and social work)? a. Clinical psychologists tend to be more effective than psychiatrists. b. No reliable association exists concerning therapists’ professional training and effectiveness. c. Psychiatrists tend to be more effective than clinical and counselling psychologists. d. Psychologists and psychiatrists tend to be more effective than counsellors and social workers. 93. What class of therapeutic drugs gradually elevate mood? a. antidepressant drugs b. mood stabilizers c. antipsychotic drugs d. antianxiety drugs

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 94. Zachary has been very depressed for several weeks. He just started therapy and went to his therapist for the first time yesterday. Today he says that while he is still “a little down,” he feels much less depressed than he was. Which pair of factors are most likely to have contributed to his improved mood? a. placebo effect and regression toward the mean b. regression toward the mean and therapy c. regression toward the mean and spontaneous recovery d. placebo effect and therapy 95. What did Arnold Lazarus suggest when he devised multimodal therapy? a. It is effective for anxiety disorders only. b. The treatment program should be scientifically and empirically sound and make no variations as changes would compromise the integrity of the program. c. It should be both scientific and empirically sound but also creative because each client is unique and the therapist must design a program to meet the needs of each one. d. The treatment providers help the clients and also help themselves. 96. Tim’s therapist is a humanist and has a view of mental illness that is very similar to that of Carl Rogers. What would Tim’s therapist suggest is the cause of Tim’s problems? a. maladaptive patterns of thinking established in his childhood b. unconscious conflicts left over from his early childhood c. current stressful situations in Tim’s life d. inconsistency between Tim’s self-concept and reality 97. Which statement is one conclusion of Martin Seligman’s research comparing the effectiveness of different approaches to psychotherapy? a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder responds best to insight therapy b. Specific phobias respond best to antianxiety medications. c. Panic disorder responds best to cognitive therapy. d. Depression responds best to psychoanalysis. 98. Which of the following is a behaviour therapy? a. rational emotive therapy b. drug therapy c. electroconvulsive therapy d. social skills training 99. Many times, an individual with a psychological disorder will recover from the disorder without receiving any treatment. What is this phenomenon called? a. spontaneous recovery b. spontaneous remission c. placebo remission d. placebo recovery 100. Which type of therapist is most likely to have a master’s degree, rather than a Ph.D.? a. psychiatrists b. school psychologists c. clinical social workers and counsellors d. clinical psychologists

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 101. Ellen is undergoing treatment for symptoms of depression. During each session, Ellen’s therapist asks her to list all the good things that have happened to her, and to write letters of forgiveness to people who have wronged her. Which type of therapy is Ellen likely experiencing? a. social-skills training b. rational emotive therapy c. psychoanalysis d. positive psychotherapy 102. What side effect is commonly associated with antianxiety drugs? a. agitation b. drowsiness c. dehydration d. muscle tremors 103. What was Dr. Humphrey Osmond NOT known for in connection with his work at the Weyburn Mental Hospital in Saskatchewan in the 1950s and 1960s? a. He coined the term psychedelic. b. He was responsible for giving Aldous Huxley his first experience with hallucinogens. c. His program was a model for the CIA-funded research in Montreal where participants were drugged and shocked without their consent. d. He explored the potential for the use of LSD in psychiatric treatment. 104. What term is used to describe largely unconscious defensive manoeuvres by a client intended to hinder the progress of therapy? a. transference b. therapeutic obstacles c. resistance d. maladaptive behaviours 105. Renata is acting very clingy and needy toward her therapist. This is similar to the way that she behaved with her father, who was very distant and never seemed to have time for her. What would Freud call Renata’s current behaviour toward her therapist? a. interpretation b. resistance c. regression d. transference 106. What type of treatment may involve giving a problem drinker a drug that induces nausea when combined with alcohol? a. aversion therapy b. drug therapy c. systematic desensitization d. chemotherapy 107. Sherry’s therapist focuses on verbal interactions to help Sherry gain a deeper understanding of herself. Her therapist’s ultimate goal is to alter Sherry’s personality. Which type of therapist does she have? a. insight therapist b. cognitive-behavioural therapist c. biomedical therapist d. behaviour therapist 108. If you were to design a study examining the effectiveness of a new psychotherapy, what would you employ to avoid confounding your results with placebo effects? a. a drug-only condition b. a cross-sectional sample c. a control group d. a no-treatment group

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 109. Which of the following is one problem with having the pharmacological industry funding research on the impact of antidepressants? a. They are financial loans which will have to be paid back at a cost to the people. b. They increase objectivity in a field where subjective evaluation by a clinician is preferred. c. The studies funded by drug companies are much less likely to report unfavourable results than are nonprofit-funded studies d. There is an insufficient variety of drugs to choose from. 110. Steve is becoming very aggravated with his therapist, and he has been missing appointments and reacting with sarcasm and hostility to his therapist’s comments. What would Freud call this reaction? a. repression b. incongruence c. resistance d. transference 111. Regan is a teenager who has recently begun taking a drug for the treatment of a mental disorder. Regan’s doctor is monitoring her behaviour closely to watch for signs that she is at risk for suicide, because the drug she is taking has been demonstrated to increase the risk of suicide among adolescents who have just started taking it. Which type of drug is Regan likely taking? a. antipsychotic b. MAO inhibitor c. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) d. tricyclic 112. Darryl suffers from chronic anxiety and he decides to seek therapy. Darryl believes that if he learns why he is so anxious he will be better able to cope. Based on Darryl’s beliefs, which type of therapy is he likely to choose? a. insight therapy b. emotion therapy c. behaviour therapy d. biomedical therapy 113. According to Greenberg, what can emotion-focused couples therapy provide that cognitive-behavioural therapy cannot? a. long-lasting results b. dealing with people’s underlying emotions c. reduction in distressing symptoms d. increase in coping ability 114. According to behaviour therapists, what is the cause of psychological disorders? a. unconscious conflicts left over from childhood b. current stressful situations in one’s life c. past conditioning d. inconsistency between one’s self-concept and reality

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 115. Critics suggest that the public is not fully aware of the negative effects of psychiatric drugs because of influence by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the following areas is most problematic in terms of the industry’s influence on our awareness of negative drug effects? a. training of physicians who prescribe psychiatric drugs b. marketing of psychiatric drugs c. publicity concerning psychiatric drugs d. publication of research concerning psychiatric drugs 116. Which of the following statements regarding LSD and psychotherapy is NOT true? a. It was used to treat psychopaths in a maximum-security institution in Canada. b. It was used by Dr. Osmond at a mental hospital in Saskatchewan. c. It was used in Montreal to treat patients as part of a CIA-funded research project. d. It has no psychotherapeutic benefit. 117. What is aversion therapy designed to do? a. correct habitual thinking errors and maladaptive beliefs b. create a negative response to a stimulus that has elicited problematic behaviour c. improve interpersonal skills d. reduce phobic responses 118. Jeffery has been diagnosed with schizophrenia, and it has been recommended that he see a psychiatrist regularly to monitor his medication and to provide psychotherapy. His family is very worried about the cost of this treatment. Which piece of information would you provide? a. Ask for a referral to a psychologist, because their fees are lower. b. Clinical social workers can provide all the necessary services and are paid through government funding. c. Walk-in clinics provide psychiatric services for discounted rates. d. Treatment by a psychiatrist is often covered by provincial health care. 119. How does a Psy.D. program differ from a Ph.D. program? a. There is a greater emphasis on the scientist–practitioner model in the Psy.D. program. b. Producing research as part of a career path is essential to Psy.D. professional development. c. Ph.D. programs have a relatively heavier emphasis on research whereas the Psy.D. program encourages research but does not require it past the dissertation. d. Psy.D. programs are old and arguably outdated compared with Ph.D. programs. 120. Which statement best describes therapeutic alliance? a. Carl Rogers suggested therapeutic alliance is not a critical component of therapy. b. It is associated with a better therapeutic outcome. c. It is less important in ethnic minority groups. d. It cannot be established unless both the therapist and client are of the same ethnic, religion, and gender. 121. Which therapy is NOT one of the three major categories of psychotherapy? a. behaviour therapies b. emotion therapies c. biomedical therapies d. insight therapies Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 122. Which of the following does NOT provide an example of the controversial history of treatment for psychological disorders? a. the use of LSD to treat psychological disorders in Montreal in the late 1950s b. the use of LSD to treat psychological disorders in a maximum security prison in Ontario c. CIA-funded research in Montreal where participants were exposed to extended drug-induced periods of sleep and electroconvulsive shock therapy d. the use of antipsychotic medications in psychiatric institutions 123. Tom has just started therapy to treat his anxiety and his therapist is very focused on reducing his symptoms. Tom’s therapist is training him in relaxation methods that he can use whenever his anxiety is triggered. Which type of therapy is Tom experiencing? a. psychoanalysis b. insight therapy c. positive psychotherapy d. behaviour therapy 124. No matter what Sam tells his therapist concerning his failures or successes, weaknesses or strengths, and positive or negative emotions and behaviours, his therapist is very accepting of him as a person. What is Sam’s therapist showing him? a. transference b. genuineness c. empathy d. unconditional positive regard 125. Which term refers to a biomedical treatment in which electric shock is used to produce a cortical seizure accompanied by convulsions? a. TMS, or transcranial magnetic stimulation b. EIT, or epileptic induction technique c. ECT, or electroconvulsive shock therapy d. fMRI, or magnetic resonance imaging 126. Which of the following could include a classical conditioning-based behaviour therapy designed to treat alcohol abuse? a. negative punishment b. exposure therapy c. aversion therapy d. systematic desensitization 127. Sometimes, individuals decide to terminate therapy at a time the therapist feels is premature and at a point when therapy is about to make significant progress. What would Sigmund Freud call this behaviour? a. repression b. interpretation c. transference d. resistance 128. Which type of psychological treatment involves making recommendations for and providing treatment based on sound scientific processes and outcomes and basic research findings? a. humanistic b. professional c. psychoanalytic d. evidence-based

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. c 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. c 25. c 26. a

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. d 32. b 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. a 39. b 40. d 41. d 42. b 43. c 44. d 45. d 46. c 47. c 48. b 49. d 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. c 61. c 62. b 63. b 64. a 65. d 66. c 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. a 71. d 72. a 73. b 74. c 75. b 76. b 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. c 81. d 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 83. d 84. b 85. d 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. d 90. c 91. a 92. b 93. a 94. a 95. c 96. d 97. c 98. d 99. b 100. c 101. d 102. b 103. c 104. c 105. d 106. a 107. a 108. c 109. c 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_2 111. c 112. a 113. b 114. c 115. d 116. d 117. b 118. d 119. c 120. b 121. b 122. d 123. d 124. d 125. c 126. c 127. d 128. d

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Changing thoughts and thinking is central to which of the following? a. cognitive therapy b. systematic desensitization c. client-centred therapy d. social skills training 2. Maggie is taking an antidepressant to treat her generalized anxiety disorder. What type of antidepressant is she MOST likely taking? a. an MAOI b. an SSRI c. a tricyclic d. an SNRI 3. Valium is an example of which of the following types of drugs? a. antipsychotic b. antidepressant c. antianxiety d. mood stabilizing 4. Which of the following employs operant conditioning? a. systematic desensitization b. aversion therapy c. social skills training d. modelling 5. Which type of drug is used to lift the mood of extremely sad people? a. an antipsychotic drug b. an antidepressant drug c. an antianxiety drug d. a mood stabilizing drug 6. Which of the following has been shown to be the GREATEST predictor of therapeutic success? a. empathy b. genuineness c. role-playing d. positive regard 7. Free association is MOST closely associated with which of the following? a. psychoanalysis b. aversion therapy c. cognitive therapy d. reactive-emotive behaviour therapy 8. Which type of drug can be used to treat schizophrenia? a. an antipsychotic drug b. an antidepressant drug c. an antianxiety drug d. a mood stabilizing drug 9. When an individual in psychodynamic therapy encounters a block in their therapy, what is said to be occurring? a. transference b. social skills training c. resistance d. derailment 10. Which of the following is a computer-based therapy that has been used to help change the thinking patterns of individuals with anxiety? a. aversion therapy b. psychodynamic therapy c. cognitive bias modification d. social skills training

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 11. Marie-Claire was in a drug trial for a new antidepressant. She was in the control group. Marie-Claire will have received which of the following? a. an antipsychotic drug b. an antidepressant drug c. a placebo d. a mood stabilizing drug 12. A benzodiazepine is an example of which of the following? a. an antipsychotic drug b. an antidepressant drug c. an antianxiety drug d. a mood stabilizing drug 13. Aversion therapy is based on the principles of which of the following? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. social learning theory d. psychodynamics 14. Andrew is exhibiting tardive dyskinesia. Andrew is MOST likely taking which of the following? a. an antipsychotic drug b. an antidepressant drug c. an antianxiety drug d. a mood stabilizing drug 15. Daiyu is in therapy for depression. Her therapist is helping her identify negative thoughts. What kind of therapy is Daiyu MOST likely receiving? a. cognitive therapy b. behavioural therapy c. psychodynamic therapy d. humanistic therapy 16. Which type of cognitive therapy is MOST effective at treating depression? a. Beck’s cognitive therapy b. rational-emotive behaviour therapy c. social skills training d. modelling 17. What is the name for the process through which clients come to act and feel toward the therapist the way they did toward important figures from their childhood? a. transference b. social skills training c. resistance d. free association 18. Amber wants to try an approach to therapy that is MORE effective at treating depression than a placebo. What approach should she try? a. insight therapy b. systematic desensitization c. aversion therapy d. social skills training 19. Qiuyun is undergoing psychodynamic therapy and during free association she suddenly stopped talking. According to her therapist, what is Qiuyun experiencing? a. transference b. resistance c. catharsis d. working through 20. In which of the following therapies may a therapist speak to people one-on-one? a. individual therapy or family therapy b. family therapy or group therapy c. group therapy or self-help d. self-help or individual therapy

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 21. Pablo has major depressive disorder and no treatments have worked to alleviate his symptoms. Which of the following treatment options is the least invasive option that may actually help Pablo? a. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) b. electro-convulsive therapy (ECT) c. vagus nerve stimulation d. lobotomy 22. A client who is asked to challenge their dysfunctional thoughts is MOST likely undergoing which of the following? a. cognitive therapy b. systematic desensitization c. client-centred therapy d. social skills training 23. The concept of genuineness is MOST central to which type of therapy? a. client-centred therapy b. cognitive therapy c. behavioural therapy d. psychodynamic therapy 24. Anna does not want to have surgery to treat her depression. Which of the following options does her doctor suggest instead? a. deep brain stimulation b. vagus nerve stimulation c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. a lobotomy 25. What is the name for the therapeutic technique where clients are encouraged to talk about whatever they like? a. free association b. relational psychodynamic therapy c. social skills training d. resistance 26. Chloe is a therapist who insists her clients call her by her first name. She is real and sincere in the way she communicates. What is Chloe demonstrating with these choices? a. genuineness b. accurate empathy c. unconditional positive regard d. transference 27. Jarrod has not benefited from any of the cognitive therapies that he has tried. What disorder does Jarrod MOST likely have? a. schizophrenia b. depression c. generalized anxiety disorder d. panic disorder 28. Denise’s therapist has asked her to record how she spends her time and how much pleasure she gets from each activity. What technique is Denise’s therapist employing? a. mindfulness b. behavioural activation c. free association d. a token economy 29. Electro-convulsive therapy (ECT) is an example of which therapeutic approach? a. biomedical b. psychodynamic c. behavioural d. humanistic 30. Pavda has bipolar disorder. What type of medication is Pavda MOST likely taking to treat his disorder? a. an antidepressant b. an antihistamine c. an anxiolytic d. a mood stabilizer

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 31. What type of therapy was the FIRST to systematically apply theory and techniques to treatment? a. psychodynamic therapy b. behavioural therapy c. cognitive-behavioural therapy d. drug therapy 32. New types of cognitive therapy focus on which of the following concepts? a. acceptance b. rejection c. resistance d. transference 33. Approximately what percentage of Canadians with a psychological disorder seek professional treatment? a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 80% 34. Dr. Farrow listens closely to Gabe admit that he physically assaulted his ex-girlfriend. Dr. Farrow does not admonish Gabe and treats him with respect. Gabe feels that Dr. Farrow is an excellent listener. Gabe is MOST likely involved in which type of therapy? a. client-centred therapy b. cognitive therapy c. behavioural therapy d. psychodynamic therapy 35. Which treatment attempts to trigger a brain seizure in the hopes of relieving abnormal functioning? a. electro-convulsive therapy (ECT) b. vagus nerve stimulation c. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) d. trephining 36. Which type of psychotropic drugs correct grossly confused and distorted thinking? a. an antipsychotic drug b. an antidepressant drug c. an antianxiety drug d. a mood stabilizing drug 37. Systematic desensitization is primarily used to treat which of the following? a. phobias b. depression c. schizophrenia d. amnesia 38. Which of the following is a limitation of using benzodiazepines to treat anxiety? a. they take a long time to exert an effect b. they can produce drowsiness and depression c. they often trigger panic attacks d. they work for panic but not generalized anxiety 39. Jasmine is learning not to let her constant worrying bother her. She is being taught to accept the worries as thoughts and not to judge them. What type of therapy is Jasmine MOST likely undergoing? a. mindfulness-based cognitive therapy b. rational-emotive behavioural therapy c. Beck’s cognitive therapy d. social skills training 40. Which of the following is an example of an insight therapy? a. aversion therapy b. client-centred therapy c. a token economy d. systematic desensitization

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 41. Which of the following is an example of genuineness in client-centred therapy? a. “I accept you completely and don’t judge you.” b. “I will listen carefully and restate your comments.” c. “I believe in real and sincere communication.” d. “I will help lead you to catharsis.” 42. Lithium and valproate are both which of the following? a. antidepressant drugs b. antipsychotic drugs c. mood stabilizing drugs d. antianxiety drugs 43. What is the term for the full and warm acceptance of a client? a. unconditional positive regard b. accurate empathy c. genuineness d. transference 44. Who first proposed client-centred therapy? a. Beck b. Rogers c. Freud d. Bandura 45. Which of the following demonstrates unconditional positive regard? a. “I accept you completely and don’t judge you.” b. “I will listen carefully and restate your comments.” c. “I believe in real and sincere communication.” d. “I will help lead you to catharsis.” 46. The notion that irrational beliefs give rise to abnormal functioning is the basis for which type of therapy? a. systematic desensitization b. cognitive therapy c. short-term psychodynamic therapy d. aversion therapy 47. What does mindfulness-based cognitive therapy teach individuals? a. to accept their dysfunctional thoughts b. to avoid triggering emotional events c. social skills d. to find a point of resistance 48. What is the term for therapy where the therapist sees only one client at a time? a. individual therapy b. group therapy c. self-help groups d. family therapy 49. What is the KEY TASK of a therapist in client-centred therapy? a. transference b. clarification c. free association d. diagnosis 50. Which of the following is an example of a biomedical therapy? a. electro-convulsive therapy (ECT) b. desensitization c. rational-emotive therapy d. existential therapy

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 51. A magnetic coil has been placed on Frida’s head. What kind of therapy is Frida receiving? a. electro-convulsive therapy (ECT) b. vagus nerve stimulation c. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) d. trephining 52. Which of the following is MOST essential to client-centred therapy? a. unconditional positive regard b. transference c. catharsis d. mindfulness 53. Cedric is trying to decide whether to undergo ECT for his severe depression. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk that Cedric must consider? a. tardive dyskinesia b. memory loss c. sexual dysfunction d. limb pain 54. Which types of treatment is someone MOST likely to receive from a psychiatrist? a. biomedical or insight therapy b. insight or behaviour therapy c. behaviour or cognitive therapy d. cognitive or biomedical therapy 55. Mila used to ruminate about her interpersonal relationships and this led to feelings of depression. She has undergone therapy and has been taught to see her rumination as simply a flawed thinking style, not as evidence that there are negative things in her life. What type of therapy did Mila MOST likely receive? a. mindfulness-based cognitive therapy b. aversion therapy c. social skills training d. Beck’s cognitive therapy 56. What is the term for the aspect of client-centred therapy that involves skillful listening and restatement of the client’s own comments? a. unconditional positive regard b. accurate empathy c. genuineness d. transference 57. Which of the following is a step-by-step process aiming at teaching people with phobias to remain calm instead of fearing an object or situation? a. systematic desensitization b. aversion therapy c. a token economy d. modelling 58. Dhakir has been in psychodynamic therapy for several months. He has grown extremely fond of his therapist and has begun to see him as a father figure. What is occurring in this scenario? a. resistance b. transference c. working through d. catharsis 59. Margot uses social learning theory as the basis for her therapy. Which of the following techniques is she MOST likely to employ? a. modelling b. transference c. resistance d. catharsis 60. Which of the following drugs runs the risk of being abused? a. an antipsychotic drug b. an antidepressant drug c. an antianxiety drug d. a mood stabilizing drug Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 61. What type of therapy is designed to help clients experience unconditional positive regard and look at themselves with honesty and acceptance? a. cognitive therapy b. behavioural therapy c. psychodynamic therapy d. client-centred therapy 62. Dr. Greenberg is a therapist providing mental health services to people from a different culture. Dr. Greenberg makes an effort to be other-oriented with her clients and never has an air of superiority. What is Dr. Greenberg demonstrating? a. cognitive dissonance b. cultural competence c. cultural humility d. transference 63. Esteban has been asked by his therapist to talk about whatever he chooses. What therapeutic technique is Esteban engaging in? a. free association b. transference c. resistance d. catharsis 64. Which therapeutic approach was developed by Aaron Beck? a. cognitive therapy b. systematic desensitization c. client-centred therapy d. social skills training 65. Elizabeth is in a therapy session. Each time she makes a statement her therapist responds by restating her comments. Elizabeth’s therapist is demonstrating which of the following? a. unconditional positive regard b. accurate empathy c. genuineness d. transference 66. Reid is undergoing deep brain stimulation as an experimental treatment for a disorder. Which of the following disorders does Reid MOST likely have? a. severe depression b. schizophrenia c. generalized anxiety disorder d. dissociative amnesia 67. Samuel’s therapist helped him realize that just because his last girlfriend broke up with him, it doesn’t mean he will never have a successful relationship. What kind of therapy did Samuel MOST likely undergo? a. cognitive therapy b. systematic desensitization c. client-centred therapy d. social skills training 68. Dr. Reynolds is treating a patient with severe anxiety. Which of the following will he prescribe in addition to cognitive-behavioural therapy? a. an antianxiety drug and/or an antidepressant b. an antidepressant and/or an antipsychotic c. an antipsychotic and/or an anticonvulsant d. an anticonvulsant and/or an antianxiety drug

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 69. Which of the following characterizes the results of research on computerized/online therapy? a. The chance for gains is low; risks are high. b. The chance for gains is high; risks are low. c. The chance for gains is low; risks are low. d. The chance for gains is high; risks are high. 70. Which of the following is a therapeutic technique designed to help clients recognize and change dysfunctional thoughts and ways of thinking? a. psychodynamic therapy b. behavioural therapy c. cognitive therapy d. humanistic therapy 71. Hailey is 12 years old and clinically depressed. Which type of antidepressant could increase the probability that Hailey will attempt suicide? a. an SSRI b. a tricyclic c. an SNRI d. an MAOI 72. What term encapsulates the extent to which a therapist is genuine, provides unconditional positive regard, and offers accurate empathy? a. therapeutic alliance b. therapeutic climate c. deinstitutionalization d. evidence-based practice 73. In client-centred therapy, what is the term for real and sincere communication by the therapist? a. genuineness b. accurate empathy c. unconditional positive regard d. transference 74. Allie feels anxious and awkward interacting with others. Which of the following therapies is MOST likely to help her with her problem? a. social skills training b. a token economy c. cognitive therapy d. psychodynamic therapy 75. In any given year, what percentage of Canadians report the need for mental health services? a. 1 in 2 b. 1 in 3 c. 1 in 5 d. 1 in 7 76. Dr. Anderson feels she has identified the primary conflict that is causing Megan’s problems. What is MOST likely to have just occurred? a. resistance b. transference c. catharsis d. working through 77. Who tends to benefit the MOST from taking antidepressants? a. People with bipolar disorder . b. People with severe depression. c. People with mild or moderate depression. d. People with panic disorder.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 78. Which of the following does research suggest is MOST important to the success of therapy? a. developing an alliance b. planning the future c. cultivating hope d. providing a rationale for the client’s problems 79. Which approach to therapy often involves prescribing medication? a. biomedical b. psychodynamic c. behavioural d. humanistic 80. What is the key task of the therapist in client-centred therapy? a. enabling transference b. providing resistance c. providing clarification d. enabling free association 81. Cognitive-behavioural therapy has been used MOST to treat people who have which of the following? a. phobias b. substance abuse problems c. depression d. schizophrenia 82. During psychoanalysis, what does resistance indicate? a. a repressed conflict b. that a close relationship has developed between therapist and client c. that the patient has let go of pent-up feelings d. that a patient is receiving unconditional positive regard 83. Denise entered therapy for depression. She was very concerned about her score on a recent biology exam, because she felt like if she didn’t get into medical school she could never be happy. Her therapist taught her to realize that her thinking was flawed. What type of therapy did Denise MOST likely receive? a. systematic desensitization b. rational-emotive behavioural therapy c. Beck’s cognitive therapy d. social skills training 84. Which of the following is MOST likely to be said by a therapist conducting mindfulness-based cognitive therapy? a. “Tell me about your childhood.” b. “You need to learn to accept and not judge negative thoughts.” c. “We need to eliminate negative thoughts altogether.” d. “I will give you a reward for each day you go without a negative thought.” 85. Which of the following problems can BEST be treated with Beck’s cognitive therapy? a. “I hear voices.” b. “I am depressed.” c. “I can’t remember who I am.” d. “I have been convicted for assault eight times.”

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 86. Which of the following is a therapy designed to help people acquire anxiety responses to things they have been finding too attractive? a. systematic desensitization b. aversion therapy c. a token economy d. modelling 87. Dr. Gupta is treating a patient with a spider phobia. Each time the therapist brings out a terrarium containing a spider he behaves calmly, hoping that his client will learn to respond calmly to the spider as well. What is the therapist doing? a. systematic desensitization b. aversion therapy c. employing a token economy d. modelling 88. Andrea has generalized anxiety disorder. She used to think her feelings of worry meant something bad was going to happen, but now she accepts these worries as thoughts that have little bearing on what will really happen. What type of therapy MOST likely helped her come to this conclusion? a. mindfulness-based cognitive therapy b. rational-emotive behavioural therapy c. Beck’s cognitive therapy d. social skills training 89. Which type of drug can be used to treat bipolar disorder? a. an antipsychotic drug b. an antidepressant drug c. an antianxiety drug d. a mood stabilizing drug 90. Ian’s therapist has helped him to change his thought pattern from thinking that every negative event foretells a looming disaster to thinking that negative events provide opportunity. The negative thought pattern is gone. What type of therapy did Ian MOST likely receive? a. Beck’s cognitive therapy b. social skills training c. reactive-emotional behavioural therapy d. psychodynamic therapy 91. Dr. White is working with a group of people. He has them role-play real life situations and praises what they do well and models what they could do differently. What type of therapy is this? a. social skills training b. aversion therapy c. systematic desensitization d. a token economy 92. A person who is asked to identify negative thought patterns is MOST likely involved in which of the following? a. cognitive therapy b. systematic desensitization c. client-centred therapy d. social skills training 93. Which of the following demonstrates accurate empathy? a. “I accept you completely and don’t judge you.” b. “I will listen carefully and restate your comments.” c. “I believe in real and sincere communication.” d. “I will help lead you to catharsis.” 94. Which type of drug helps people suffering from tension and worry? a. an antipsychotic drug b. an antidepressant drug c. an antianxiety drug d. a mood stabilizing drug

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. c 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. a 26. a

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. a 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. c 52. a 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. b 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. c 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. b 73. a 74. a 75. c 76. a 77. b 78. a 79. a 80. c 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_6ce_Vol_4 83. c 84. b 85. b 86. b 87. d 88. a 89. d 90. a 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. c

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