TEST BANK for Seeley's Anatomy & Physiology 13th Edition by Cinnamon VanPutte, Jennifer Regan, Andre by StudyGuide

CHAPTER 1 1)

Which technique creates a three-dimensional dynamic image of blood vessels? A) Digital subtraction angiography B) Magnetic resonance imaging C) Dynamic spatial reconstruction D) Positron emission tomography

Magnetic resonance imaging is based on the movement of A) electrons in a magnetic field. B) carbons in a magnetic field. C) protons in a magnetic field. D) cells in a magnetic field.

3) The delivery of a radioactive compound to the body to study the metabolism of tissues is called_________blank. A) MRI B) PET C) DSA D) DSR

An anatomical image created from sound waves is a/an_________blank.

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A) radiograph B) CT scan C) MRI D) sonogram

A major limitation of radiographs is that they A) can only visualize bone. B) give only a flat, two-dimensional image of the body. C) are old technology that do not give good results. D) have very few applications.

The study of the body's organization by areas is_________blank. A) systemic anatomy B) regional anatomy C) molecular biology D) microbiology E) surface anatomy

7) The study of the external form of the body and its relationship to deeper structures is_________blank. A) systemic anatomy B) regional anatomy C) molecular biology D) microbiology E) surface anatomy

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The study of tissues is_________blank. A) cytology B) histology C) molecular biology D) microbiology E) surface anatomy

Anatomy is A) the study of function. B) a branch of physiology. C) the study of structure. D) the study of living organisms. E) the study of homeostasis.

10)

The study of the structural features and functions of the cell is_________blank. A) cytology B) histology C) molecular biology D) microbiology E) surface anatomy

11) Microscopic examination of a frozen tissue specimen is an application of which of the following disciplines?

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A) Histology B) Physiology C) Gross anatomy D) Radiology E) Regional anatomy

12)

Which subdivision of anatomy involves the study of organs that function together? A) Regional B) Developmental C) Systemic D) Histology E) Surface anatomy

13) An investigator who conducts an experiment to determine how changes in pH affect the function of enzymes on digestion is most likely to be a/an_________blank. A) neurologist B) anatomist C) engineer D) physiologist E) histologist

14)

An organelle is

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A) a small structure within a cell. B) a structure composed of several tissue types. C) the basic structural unit of all living organisms. D) a group of organs with a common set of functions. E) a group of cells with similar structure and function.

15)

An organ is A) a small structure within a cell. B) a structure composed of several tissue types. C) the basic structural unit of all living organisms. D) a group ofmolecules with a common set of functions. E) a group of cells with similar structure and function.

16)

A cell is A) a small structurewithin a molecule. B) a structure composed of several tissue types. C) the basic structural unit of living organisms. D) a group of organs with a common set of functions. E) a group of atomswith similar structure and function.

17)

A tissue is a A) structure contained within a cell. B) lower level of organization than a cell. C) group of organs that performs specific functions. D) group of cells with similar structure and function. E) structure that contains a group of organs.

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18)

An organ system is A) a small structure within a cell. B) a structure composed of several tissue types. C) the basic structural unit of all living organisms. D) a group of organs with a common set of functions. E) a group of cells with similar structure and function.

19) Which of the following systems carries necessary compounds like oxygen and nutrients throughout the body? A) Nervous B) Cardiovascular C) Urinary D) Lymphatic E) Respiratory

20)

Which organ system is the location of blood cell production? A) Cardiovascular B) Skeletal C) Digestive D) Nervous E) Endocrine

21)

Which body system would be affected by degeneration of cartilage in joints?

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A) Muscular B) Nervous C) Cardiovascular D) Skeletal E) Lymphatic

22)

The gallbladder, liver, and stomach are all part of the_________blank system. A) endocrine B) cardiovascular C) skeletal D) respiratory E) digestive

23)

The integumentary system A) regulates body temperature. B) breaks down food into small particles for absorption. C) controls intellectual functions. D) produces body movements. E) coordinates and integrates body function.

24) Which system removes nitrogenous waste products from the blood and regulates blood pH, ion balance, and water balance?

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A) Respiratory B) Lymphatic C) Cardiovascular D) Immune E) Urinary

25)

An organism's ability to use energy in order to swim is an example of_________blank. A) metabolism B) responsiveness C) organization D) maturation E) development

26)

The changes an organism undergoes through time is called_________blank. A) organization B) metabolism C) reproduction D) growth E) development

27) Nerve cells generate electrical signals in response to changes in the environment. This is an example of_________blank.

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A) respiration B) digestion C) movement D) filtration E) responsiveness

28)

An increase in the number of cells is_________blank. A) reproduction B) growth C) differentiation D) metabolism E) organization

29)

Which of the following is most consistent with homeostasis?

A) As blood pressure falls, blood flow to cardiac (heart) muscle decreases. B) As the mean blood pressure gradually increases in aging people, the blood vessel walls become thinner. C) People working in a hot environment drink large quantities of water, and their urine volume increases. D) As body temperature decreases, blood vessels in the periphery dilate. E) Elevated blood glucose levels cause insulin secretion to increase, which in turn, causes cells to take up glucose.

30)

Which of the following is consistent with homeostasis?

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A) As body temperature rises, sweating occurs to cool the body. B) When a person drinks large quantities of water, urine output decreases to raise blood volume. C) Elevated blood glucose levels cause insulin secretion to decline. D) Decreases in blood pressure cause a corresponding decrease in heart rate. E) As blood pressure falls, blood flow to the heart decreases.

31)

In a negative feedback mechanism, the response of the effector A) reverses the original stimulus. B) enhances the original stimulus. C) has no effect on the original stimulus. D) is usually damaging to the body. E) creates a cycle that leads away from homeostasis.

32) A researcher discovered a sensory receptor that detects decreasing oxygen concentrations in the blood. According to the principles of negative feedback, it is likely that stimulation of this sensory receptor will produce which of the following types of responses? A) A decrease in heart rate B) An increase in the respiratory rate C) An increase in physical activity D) Unconsciousness E) Both a decrease in heart rate and an increase in the respiratory rate will occur.

33)

Which of the following is NOT a component of a negative feedback mechanism?

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A) Effector B) Stabilizer C) Control center D) Receptor

34)

The anatomical term that means "away from the midline of the body" is_________blank. A) medial B) proximal C) distal D) lateral E) superficial

35)

The thumb is_________blank to the fifth digit (little finger). A) distal B) lateral C) medial D) proximal E) superficial

36)

Which of the following describes the position of the nose? A) Inferior to the chin B) Superior to the forehead C) Posterior to the ears D) Lateral to the eyes E) Superior to the mouth

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37)

The shoulder is_________blank to the elbow. A) lateral B) dorsal C) distal D) ventral E) proximal

38)

A term that means "toward the attached end of a limb" is_________blank. A) medial B) lateral C) superficial D) distal E) proximal

39)

Which of the following is most inferior in location? A) Pelvic cavity B) Mediastinum C) Diaphragm D) Pleural cavity E) Pericardial cavity

40) While Stacy is in the process of passing over the bar during a pole vault, her hips are considered to be

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A) anterior to her shoulders. B) posterior to her shoulders. C) inferior to her shoulders. D) superior to her shoulders. E) cephalic to her shoulders.

41)

Cephalic means A) toward the middleor midline of the body. B) away from the surface. C) closer to the head. D) closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk. E) toward the back of the body.

42)

Posterior means A) toward the middle or midline of the body. B) away from the surface. C) closer to the head. D) closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk. E) toward the back of the body.

43)

Medial means A) toward the middle or midline of the body. B) away from the surface. C) closer to the head. D) closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk. E) toward the back of the body.

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44)

Proximal means A) toward the middle or midline of the body. B) away from the surface. C) closer to the head. D) closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk. E) toward the back of the body.

45)

Deep means A) toward the middle or midline of the body. B) away from the surface. C) closer to the head. D) closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk. E) toward the back of the body.

46) In the expression "Let your fingers do the walking," which of the following anatomical terms could be substituted for "fingers?" A) Tarsals B) Manuals C) Digits D) Carpals E) Metatarsals

47)

The anatomical arm refers to the part of the upper limb from the

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A) shoulder to the wrist. B) elbow to the wrist. C) shoulder to the elbow. D) elbow to the fingers. E) shoulder to the fingers.

48)

The lumbar region is the A) area in front of the elbow. B) chest area. C) lower back. D) bottom of foot. E) forearm.

49)

The antecubital region is the A) area in front of the elbow. B) chest area. C) lower back. D) bottom of foot. E) forearm.

50)

The antebrachial region is the A) area in front of the elbow. B) chest area. C) lower back. D) bottom of foot. E) forearm.

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51)

The pectoral region is the A) area in front of the elbow. B) chest area. C) lower back. D) bottom of foot. E) forearm.

52)

The plantar surface is the A) area in front of the elbow. B) chest area. C) lower back. D) bottom of foot. E) forearm.

53)

The brachial region is commonly known as the_________blank. A) groin B) buttock C) breastbone D) upper arm E) naval

54)

The inguinal region is commonly known as the_________blank.

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A) groin B) buttock C) breastbone D) upper arm E) naval

55)

The gluteal region is commonly known as the_________blank. A) groin B) buttock C) breastbone D) upper arm E) naval

56)

The sternal region is commonly known as the_________blank. A) groin B) buttock C) breastbone D) upper arm E) naval

57)

The umbilical region is commonly known as the_________blank. A) groin B) buttock C) breastbone D) upper arm E) naval

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58)

The cervical region is the_________blank. A) calf B) armpit C) hollow behind the knee D) neck E) thigh

59)

The popliteal region is the_________blank. A) calf B) armpit C) hollow behind the knee D) neck E) thigh

60)

The sural region is the_________blank. A) calf B) armpit C) hollow behind the knee D) neck E) thigh

61)

The femoral region is the_________blank.

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A) calf B) armpit C) hollow behind the knee D) neck E) thigh

62)

The axillary region is the_________blank. A) calf B) armpit C) hollow behind the knee D) neck E) thigh

63) A vertical plane that separates the body into right and left portions is called a_________blank plane. A) sagittal B) transverse C) frontal D) horizontal E) coronal

64)

"Cutting off your nose" would be a section in the_________blank plane.

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A) coronal B) nasal C) median D) transverse E) sagittal

65) The cavity of the body immediately inferior to the diaphragm is the_________blank cavity. A) pleural B) thoracic C) inguinal D) pelvic E) abdominal

66) The suffix "-itis" means inflammation. Which of the following terms means inflammation of the membrane lining the body cavity that contains the liver? A) Pericarditis B) Peritonitis C) Pleurisy D) Colitis E) Hepatitis

67)

The wall of the abdominopelvic cavity is lined by a serous membrane called the

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A) visceral pleural membrane. B) parietal peritoneum. C) visceral mediastinal membrane. D) visceral peritoneum. E) epicardium.

68)

The visceral pleura is

A) a double-layered serous membrane that anchors some of the abdominal organs to the body wall. B) the serous membrane that covers the lungs. C) the serous membrane that lines the abdominal and pelvic cavities. D) the space located between the visceral and parietal pleura. E) the membrane that lines the pericardial sac.

69)

The parietal peritoneum is

70)

The mesentery is

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71)

The pleural cavity is

72)

The parietal pericardium is

73)

Which branch of physiology would study the effects of sunbathing on the skin?

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A) Cell physiology B) Systemic physiology C) Regional physiology D) Organ physiology

74) Which of the following is not a function of the control center within a feedback mechanism? A) Receives and processes information B) Controls effectors C) Establishes a set point D) Detects a change in the value of a variable

75) the

In reference to the body temperature in living organisms, the set point can be defined as

A) ideal normal value. B) current specific value. C) amount of change that must occur for a condition to return to ideal normal value.

76)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of homeostatic variables? A) Their values can change. B) They must remain within a narrow change. C) They always remain at a fixed value.

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77) Imagine the following scernerio: Blood pressure decreases below normal levels.→ Blood flow to the heart decreases → Heart is unable to pump as much blood.→ Blood pressure decreases even more. This is an example of _________blank feedback.

A) positive B) negative

78) This figure illustrates changes in blood pressure when _________blank feedback mechanisms are in control.

A) positive B) negative

79) Imagine the following scenario: Platelets adhere to a damaged blood vessel → Platelets secrete various substances → Platelets adhere to a damaged blood vessel This is an example of _________blank feedback.

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A) positive B) negative

80) True or False? Positive feedback mechanisms are more commonly seen in _________blank individuals. A) healthy B) unhealthy

81)

A person lying with his/her face down is said to be in what position? A) Supine B) Prone C) Anatomical D) Reverse

82) Which of the following is not a term that describes a cut that separates the body into left and right portions? A) Sagittal B) Median C) Parasagittal D) Coronal

83) The plane that cuts the body lengthwise and separates the body into anterior and posterior portions is called _________blank.

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A) Transverse B) Frontal C) Sagittal

84)

A cut through the long axis of an organ is a/an _________blank section. A) longitudinal B) oblique C) transverse

85)

An example of a structure contained by the mediastinum is the _________blank. A) brain B) stomach C) esophagus D) sternum E) lung

86) There are more microbial cells than human cells in your body, and the health of this microbiota clearly influences human well-being. How many microbes are there? A) For every cell in your body, there are ten microbial cells. B) For every cell in your body, there are one hundred microbial cells. C) For every cell in your body, there are one thousand microbial cells. D) For every cell in your body, there are ten thousand microbial cells.

87) A molecular biologist discovers that if a specific drug effectively treats obesity in mice, what can researchers conclude?

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A) If the drug was effective in a large number of mice, it will therefore be effective in humans. B) If the drug was effective in a small proportion of mice, it will be effective in a small proportion of humans. C) The mice have provided a positive control in this experiment that proves the drug is effective in humans. D) The drug is effective in the mouse model; it must still be tested in humans. E) The effect of the drug on mice has no bearing on the effect of the drug on humans.

88) With regard to the validity of biomedical research in physiological studies, which statement is correct? A) Although the general homeostatic mechanisms may be the same in some animal species, the individual variables are often very different. B) Although the individual variables may be the same in some animal species, the general homeostatic mechanisms are often very different.

89)

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) The coordinated activity of the organ systems is necessary for normal function. B) Because organ systems are so interrelated, dysfunction in one organ system can have profound effects on other systems. C) An organism is any living thing considered as a whole, whether composed of one cell, such as a bacteria, or trillions of cells, such as a human. D) Living things are highly organized, and disruption of this organized state can lead to loss of function and death. E) All of these statements are true.

90) Which of the following lists examples of body structures from the simplest to the most complex?

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A) Mitochondrion,connective tissue, protein, stomach, adipocyte (fat cell) B) Protein,mitochondrion, adipocyte (fat cell), connective tissue, stomach C) Mitochondrion,connective tissue, stomach, protein, adipocyte (fat cell) D) Protein,adipocyte (fat cell), stomach, connective tissue, mitochondrion E) Protein, stomach,connective tissue, adipocyte (fat cell), mitochondrion

91) The fact that most of us have five lumbar vertebrae, but some people have six and some have four, is an example of_________blank variation among organisms. A) cellular B) holistic C) physiological D) anatomical E) reductionist

92) During exercise, one generates excess heat and the body temperature rises. As a response, blood vessels dilate in the skin, warm blood flows closer to the body surface, and heat is lost. This is an example of_________blank. A) negativefeedback B) positivefeedback C) dynamicequilibrium D) integrationcontrol E) set pointadjustment

93) When a woman is giving birth, the head of the baby pushes against her cervix and stimulates the release of the hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin travels in the blood and stimulates the uterus to contract. Labor contractions become more and more intense until the baby is expelled. This is an example of_________blank.

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A) negativefeedback B) positivefeedback C) dynamicequilibrium D) integrationcontrol E) set pointadjustment

94) Blood glucose concentration rises after a meal and stimulates the pancreas to release the hormone insulin. Insulin travels in the blood and stimulates the uptake of glucose by body cells from the bloodstream, thus reducing blood glucose concentration. This is an example of_________blank. A) negativefeedback B) positivefeedback C) dynamicequilibrium D) integrationcontrol E) set pointadjustment

95) The change in size of the bone marrow (where blood cells are produced) as an infant matures is an example of_________blank, whereas the transformation of blood stem cells into white blood cells is an example of_________blank. A) development;differentiation B) growth;development C) growth;differentiation D) differentiation;growth E) differentiation;development

96) Which of the following statements provides an accurate description of cellular physiology involving structures of the digestive system?

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A) Hepatocytes (liver cells) produce bile to aid in the breakdown of ingested lipids. B) Hemocytoblasts (blood stem cells) are located in the red bone marrow. C) Cardiac muscle cells contract to generate pressure that moves the blood through blood vessels. D) The epidermis, the superficial layer of the skin, is composed of multiple layers of cells.

97) If the thoracic cavity was cut along the midsaggital plane, which of the following descriptions of the two halves would be accurate? A) The midsaggital cut would create an anterior half that contained portions of the lungs and heart and a posterior half that contained the spinal cord. B) The midsagittal plane would produce a medial half and a lateral half, each containing a lung. C) The midsagittal plane would produce a right half that contained one lung and a left half that contained a lung and most of the heart. D) The midsagittal plane would produce an inferior half that contained portions of the heart and portions of both lungs and a superior half that contained portions of the lungs and the thymus.

98) Aldosterone is a hormone that increase the level of Na+ in the blood. Considering negative-feedback regulation of blood Na+ levels, which of the following events would most likely be an effect of aldosterone on the body in blood Na+ levels decreased? A) Aldosterone would cause a decrease in the amount of Na+ that was excreted as part of urine. B) Aldosterone would cause an increase in the amount of Na+ that was excreted as part of urine. C) Aldosterone would reduce activity in the brain that stimulated salty food cravings. D) Aldosterone would decrease the amount of Na+ that is absorbed at the small intestine.

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99)

Which structure is located inferior and lateral to the heart? A) Liver B) Brain C) Urinary bladder D) Lung

100) Which of the following structures is located in the right-lower quadrant but NOT in the right iliac region? A) Urinary bladder B) Appendix C) Large intestine D) All of the listed organs are in both the right-lower quadrant and the right iliac region.

101) A construction worker was injured when a metal rod penetrated the abdominal wall inferior to the umbilicus and in the hypogastric region. The rod passed through to the lumbar region. Which of the following structures was most likely damaged? A) Urinary bladder B) Stomach C) Kidney D) Liver

102) Parathyroid hormone functions to increase calcium ion levels in blood. If its secretion is regulated through negative feedback, under which conditions would this hormone normally be released?

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A) Parathyroid hormone secretion occurs when blood calcium levels are too low. B) Parathyroid hormone secretion occurs when blood calcium levels are too high. C) Parathyroid secretion is constant to maintain blood calcium levels. D) Parathyroid hormone secretion increases in the morning and decreases in the afternoon.

103)

Which of the following statements provides an example of responsiveness?

A) Sandra began to shiver while she walked from her lab to her dorm room, through the freezing rain. B) James finally saw the results of working out as the sleeves on his t-shirt were tighter around his biceps. C) Jarrod was happy to see that the wound he received from falling on the sidewalk was almost completely healed. D) None of the choices are correct.

104)

Which of the following would indicate dysfunction of the respiratory system? A) Change in blood pH B) Increase in blood glucose levels C) Increased blood pressure D) All of the choices are correct.

105) Which of the following statements best describes reseach focused on the physiology of the lymphatic system?

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A) Dr. Ali studies the signaling that occurs between defense cells and abnormal cells of the body. B) Dr. Johnson's research focuses on the factors that regulate blood pH. C) Dr. Salak is interested in the chemical signaling that maintains normal blood glucose levels. D) Dr. Woods is interested in the development of cell communication junctions associated with memory.

106) If the esophagus were cut from superior to inferior, as it occurs in the thoracic cavity, this would be considered a_________blank section. A) longitudinal B) transverse C) oblique D) cross

107) A cut along which plane would result in the anterior perspective of the body appearing normal, with no evident cuts? A) Frontal B) Midsaggital C) Parasagittal D) Transverse

108) Which of the following structures is most like the receptor of a homeostatic control mechanism?

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A) The mechanism that detects a decrease in tire pressure on an automobile B) The mechanism that opens the automatic door at the local grocery store C) The heating element of a hot water heater D) All of the choices are correct.

109)

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109.1) Here is a figure showing major body cavities and other structures. What does "A" represent? A) Diaphragm B) Mediastinum C) Pelvic cavity D) Thoracic cavity E) Abdominal cavity

109.2) Here is a figure showing major body cavities and other structures. What does "B" represent? A) Diaphragm B) Mediastinum C) Pelvic cavity D) Thoracic cavity E) Abdominal cavity

109.3) Here is a figure showing major body cavities and other structures. What does "C" represent? A) Diaphragm B) Mediastinum C) Pelvic cavity D) Thoracic cavity E) Abdominal cavity

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109.4) Here is a figure showing major body cavities and other structures. What does "D" represent? A) Diaphragm B) Mediastinum C) Pelvic cavity D) Thoracic cavity E) Abdominal cavity

109.5) Here is a figure showing major body cavities and other structures. What does "E" represent? A) Diaphragm B) Mediastinum C) Pelvic cavity D) Thoracic cavity E) Abdominal cavity

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110)

110.1) Directional terms are important in the study of anatomy. What does "A" represent?

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A) Median B) Right C) Left D) Inferior E) Lateral

110.2) Directional terms are important in the study of anatomy. What does "B" represent? A) Median B) Right C) Left D) Inferior E) Lateral

110.3) Directional terms are important in the study of anatomy. What does "C" represent? A) Median B) Right C) Left D) Inferior E) Lateral

110.4) Directional terms are important in the study of anatomy. What does "D" represent?

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A) Median B) Right C) Left D) Inferior E) Lateral

110.5) Directional terms are important in the study of anatomy. What does "E" represent? A) Median B) Right C) Left D) Inferior E) Lateral

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111)

111.1) This is a sagittal section through the abdominopelvic cavity. What structure does "A" represent? A) Visceral peritoneum (covers organs) B) Mesentery C) Parietal peritoneum (lines cavity) D) Retroperitoneal organs E) Peritoneal cavity

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111.2) This is a sagittal section through the abdominopelvic cavity. What serous membrane does "B" represent? A) Visceral peritoneum (covers organs) B) Mesentery C) Parietal peritoneum (lines cavity) D) Retroperitoneal organs E) Peritoneal cavity

111.3) This is a sagittal section through the abdominopelvic cavity. What serous membrane does "C" represent? A) Visceral peritoneum (covers organs) B) Mesentery C) Parietal peritoneum (lines cavity) D) Retroperitoneal organs E) Peritoneal cavity

111.4) This is a sagittal section through the abdominopelvic cavity. What cavity does "D" represent? A) Visceral peritoneum (covers organs) B) Mesentery C) Parietal peritoneum (lines cavity) D) Retroperitoneal organs E) Peritoneal cavity

111.5) This is a sagittal section through the abdominopelvic cavity. What structures does "E" represent? Version 1

A) Visceral peritoneum (covers organs) B) Mesentery C) Parietal peritoneum (lines cavity) D) Retroperitoneal organs E) Peritoneal cavity

112)

True or False? A CT scan allows for a three-dimensional image to be generated. ⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

True or False? Positive-feedback mechanisms are always damaging to the body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) True or False? The part of the feedback mechanism that processes information, relates it to other information, and makes a decision of action is the receptor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

115) True or False? The control center compares input from a receptor with the ideal normal value for a condition called a set point. ⊚ true ⊚ false

116) True or False? Positive feedback mechanisms are less common in healthy individuals than negative feedback mechanisms.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

117) True or False? Whereas a 'plane' describes an imaginary flat surface, a 'section' describes a way to cut an organ. ⊚ true ⊚ false

118) True or False? The thoracic cavity is divided into right and left parts by a median partition called the sternum. ⊚ true ⊚ false

119) True or False? Both the spleen and the urinary bladder are contained within the pelvic cavity subdivision of the abdominopelvic cavity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

120) True or False? The kidneys are contained within the pelvic cavity subdivision of the abdominopelvic cavity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

121) True or False? Scientists believe that any significant change in the composition of the microbiome of the human integumentary system may increase a person’s susceptibility to autoimmune diseases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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122) True or False? It has been suggested by some scientists that early exposure to antibiotics that significantly change the makeup of the microbes in the human intestines may increase a person’s susceptibility to autoimmune diseases like Crohn's disease and asthma. ⊚ true ⊚ false

123) True or False? Many undergraduate anatomy programs study cats and rats in laboratory settings. Use of these animals is ideal because they are inexpensive, and although they are physically smaller, the internal structures are identical to humans. ⊚ true ⊚ false

124) True or False? With regard to biomedical research, because rats, pigs, apes, and other mammals share over 90% of the same genes as humans, these animals are always good predictors for how humans will respond to a specific drug therapy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

125) True or False? With regard to biomedical research, it has been found that drugs that are toxic to one mammal species will be toxic to another mammal species. ⊚ true ⊚ false

126)

True or False? Rats and humans share over 90% of the same genes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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127)

True or False? A molecule of water is more complex than a mitochondrion (organelle). ⊚ ⊚

true false

128) True or False? Homeostasis and occupying space are both unique characteristics of living things. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chapter 01_13e_ VanPutte 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) B 6) B 7) E 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) E 23) A 24) E 25) A 26) E Version 1

27) E 28) B 29) E 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) D 35) B 36) E 37) E 38) E 39) A 40) C 41) C 42) E 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) C 48) C 49) A 50) E 51) B 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) E 58) D 59) C 60) A 61) E 62) B 63) A 64) A 65) E 66) B 67) B 68) B 69) C 70) A 71) D 72) E 73) D 74) D 75) A 76) C 77) A 78) A 79) A 80) B 81) B 82) D 83) B 84) A 85) C 86) A Version 1

87) D 88) A 89) E 90) B 91) D 92) A 93) B 94) A 95) C 96) A 97) C 98) A 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) A 104) A 105) A 106) A 107) A 108) A 109) Section Break 109.1) B 109.2) A 109.3) D 109.4) E 109.5) C 110) Section Break 110.1) B Version 1

110.2) C 110.3) A 110.4) E 110.5) D 111) Section Break 111.1) B 111.2) C 111.3) A 111.4) E 111.5) D 112) TRUE 113) FALSE 114) FALSE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE 117) TRUE 118) FALSE 119) FALSE 120) FALSE 121) FALSE 122) TRUE 123) FALSE 124) FALSE 125) FALSE 126) TRUE 127) FALSE 128) FALSE

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CHAPTER 2 1)

The amount of matter in an object is its_________blank. A) mass B) weight C) atomic number D) element E) ionic charge

The three forms of matter are A) air, water, andsolids. B) solids, liquids,and gases. C) blood, bone, andair. D) vapor, water, andsolid.

The four most abundant elements in the human body are A) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and iron. B) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. C) calcium, hydrogen, sodium, and potassium. D) carbon, oxygen, magnesium, and zinc. E) carbon, sulfur, calcium, and potassium.

4) The smallest particle of an element that still exhibits the chemical characteristics of that element is a/an_________blank.

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A) electron B) atom C) chemical bond D) orbital E) proton

Subatomic particles located around the nucleus of an atom are_________blank. A) protons B) electrons C) neutrons D) neutrinos E) photons

Electrons A) comprise the majority of the mass of an atom. B) are located in the nucleus of an atom. C) have a positive charge of one. D) are the subatomic particles most involved in bonding behavior of atoms. E) do not participate in the bonding of atoms.

X-rays can be used to view bones because A) x-rays pass through bone. B) x-rays react with bone. C) x-rays cannot pass through bone. D) bones are less dense than soft tissue.

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Which of the following is not a use of x-ray imaging? A) Breast cancer screening in mammography B) Upper digestive tract abnormalities following barium ingestion C) Brain tumor progression D) Vertebrae fractures

9) In an x-ray film of the skeletal system, the dense tissue areas appear _________blank because they _________blank the x-rays; the less dense tissues appear _________blank because they _________blank the x-rays. A) light; absorb; dark; do not absorb B) dark; absorb; light; do not absorb C) light; do not absorb; dark; absorb D) dark; do not absorb; light; absorb

10)

A neutral atom contains A) more protons than electrons. B) more electrons than protons. C) the same number of electrons and protons. D) only neutrons. E) None of the choices are correct.

11)

Which of the following best describes a proton?

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A) One negative charge, no mass, found in orbitals B) No charge, mass of one, found in nucleus C) One positive charge, mass of one, found in nucleus D) Subatomic particle with no electric charge E) None of the choices are correct.

12)

The mass number of an atom is the number of A) protons in the atom. B) neutrons in the atom. C) protons pluselectrons in the atom. D) electrons plusneutrons in the atom. E) neutrons plusprotons in the atom.

13) An atom has an atomic number of 19 and a mass number of 39. This atom will have_________blank neutrons. A) 19 B) 20 C) 39 D) 58 E) 30

14) An atom of chlorine has 17 protons and 18 neutrons. Which of the following statements is true?

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A) Chlorine atoms have 18 electrons. B) Chlorine has a mass number of 35. C) Chlorine has an atomic number of 18. D) Chlorine has 35 electrons. E) Chlorine has an atomic number of 35.

15)

Isotopes of the same element have A) the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons. B) different numbers of protons and electrons. C) the same mass number. D) the same atomic number but differ in their mass numbers. E) no mass number.

16)

The number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12 is called_________blank number. A) Dalton's B) Socrates's C) Avogadro's D) Pasteur's E) Le Chatelier's

17)

A neutral atom will become a cation if it A) gains electrons. B) gains protons. C) loses electrons. D) loses protons. E) gains neutrons.

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18)

In ionic bonding, A) only non-polar molecules are involved. B) a "sea of electrons" forms. C) electrons are transferred from one atom to another. D) two hydrogen atoms share one pair of electrons. E) the charge of the ion does not play a role in the bond.

19)

Covalent bonds form when A) atomic nuclei fuse. B) molecules become ionized. C) neutrons are transferred from one atom to another. D) protons are lost from atoms. E) electrons are shared between two atoms.

20)

When ionic compounds dissolve in water, their ions A) cling tightly together. B) dissociate or separate from one another. C) lose their charge. D) get lost in the solvent. E) settle to the bottom of the container.

21) Molecules that form when electrons are shared unequally between atoms are called_________blank molecules.

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A) salt B) polar C) nonpolar D) lopsided E) None of the choices are correct.

22)

A substance composed of two or more different types of atoms is a/an_________blank. A) compound B) element C) ion D) molecule E) Both compound and molecule are correct.

23)

Sodium chloride is considered a/an_________blank. A) molecule B) compound C) Both molecule and compound are correct. D) element E) ion

24)

A molecule is A) a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds. B) a positively charged ion. C) a negatively charged ion. D) a substance that conducts electricity when placed in solution. E) an alteration inthe three-dimensional structure of a protein.

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25)

Carbon dioxide is considered a/an_________blank. A) molecule B) compound C) Both molecule and compound are correct. D) element E) ion

26) When the hydrogen bonds that maintain a protein's three-dimensional shape are broken, the protein becomes nonfunctional, and is said to be_________blank. A) essential B) denatured C) structural D) unsaturated E) saturated

27) Hydrogen bonds form between molecules containing_________blank bonds; the hydrogen bond is between a hydrogen atom of one molecule and a partially_________blank charged atom of another. A) polar covalent;negatively B) polar covalent;positively C) nonpolar covalent;positively D) nonpolar covalent;negatively E) ionic; positively

28)

An individual hydrogen bond in a sample of water would be described as

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A) strong andintramolecular. B) strong andintermolecular. C) weak andintramolecular. D) weak andintermolecular.

29)

Cations and anions that dissociate in water are sometimes called A) nonelectrolytes, because they do not conduct an electrical current. B) molecules. C) electrolytes, because they can conduct an electrical current. D) nonelectrolytes and solutes. E) molecules andelectrolytes.

30)

Electrolytes are substances that A) form covalent bonds with water. B) conductelectricity when dissolved in water. C) cannot conduct electricity in solution. D) are NOT found in the human body in any appreciable amounts. E) are NOT charged particles.

31) Chemical substances that dissolve in water or react with water to release ions are known as_________blank. A) buffers B) enzymes C) bases D) inorganic compounds E) electrolytes

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32)

Intermolecular forces A) form dissociated ions. B) are electrostatic attractions between different molecules. C) evenly distribute electrical charge among all atoms in a sample. D) separate atoms and ions from one another. E) are found within molecules.

33)

A cation is A) a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds. B) a positively charged ion. C) a negatively charged ion. D) a molecule thatconducts electricity when placed in solution. E) an alteration inthe three-dimensional structure of a protein.

34)

An anion is A) a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds. B) a positively charged ion. C) a negatively charged ion. D) amolecule that conducts electricity when placed in solution. E) an alteration inthe three-dimensional structure of a protein.

35)

An electrolyte is

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A) a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds. B) a positively charged ion. C) a negatively charged ion. D) a substance that conducts electricity when placed in solution. E) the alteration in the three-dimensional structure of a protein.

36)

Solubility refers to the ability of one substance to_________blank in another. A) react B) dissolve C) precipitate D) conduct E) None of the choices are correct.

37)

All of the synthesis reactions in the body are called_________blank. A) catabolism B) hydrolysis C) oxidation-reduction D) anabolism E) dissociation

38)

Which of the following is a synthesis reaction?

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A) Two amino acids are bonded together to form a dipeptide. B) Sucrose is chemically separated to form one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose. C) Sodium chloride is dissolved in water. D) Several dipeptide chains are formed from digestion of a long polypeptide chain. E) ATP is converted to ADP.

39)

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Synthesis reaction - two reactants combine to form a larger product B) Decomposition reaction - large reactant broken into smaller products C) Oxidation - gain of electrons D) Dehydration reaction - water is a product of the reaction E) Hydrolysis - water is used in decomposition reaction

40) In the reversible reaction, CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3- , a decrease in respiration rate will increase the concentration of CO2 in the blood. What will this do to the amount of H+ in the blood? A) H+ willincrease. B) H+ willdecrease. C) H+ willbe unchanged.

41)

Reactions that use water to split molecules apart are called_________blank reactions.

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A) dehydration B) synthesis C) hydrolysis D) reversible E) oxidation

42) In a reversible reaction, when the rate of product formation is equal to the rate of reactant formation, the reaction is A) stopped. B) at equilibrium. C) in danger of exploding. D) a net decomposition reaction. E) a net synthesis reaction.

43) Chemical reactions with the property of being able to proceed from reactants to products and from products to reactants are called_________blank reactions. A) exchange B) synthesis C) decomposition D) reversible E) mirrored

44)

Why are cyanide compounds lethal to humans?

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A) They interfere with protein synthesis. B) They interfere with nerve impulses. C) They interfere with the production of ATP. D) They interfere with muscle contraction. E) All of the choices are correct.

45)

Potential energy stored in bonds of molecules is _________blank energy. A) mechanical B) thermal C) chemical D) molecular E) None of the choices are correct.

46)

Chemical energy A) moves matter. B) results from the position or movement of objects. C) is a form of potential energy within chemical bonds. D) comes from the sun. E) is not important in physiological processes.

47) If the potential energy in the chemical bonds of the reactants is greater than the potential energy in the chemical bonds of the product,

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A) energy must be supplied for the reaction to occur. B) energy is released by the reaction. C) the chemical reaction equalizes the potential energy levels. D) energy has not been gained or lost. E) energy is not a factor in the reaction.

48)

The energy stored in ATP is a form of_________blank energy. A) mechanical B) chemical C) kinetic D) heat E) electrical

49)

Potential energy is A) the form of energy that actually does work. B) movement of ions or electrons. C) energy that flows between objects with different temperatures. D) stored energy that could do work but is not doing so. E) energy that moves in waves.

50)

Kinetic energy is A) the form of energy that actually does work. B) movement of ions or electrons. C) energy that flows between objects with different temperatures. D) stored energy that could do work but is not doing so. E) energy that moves in waves.

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51)

Heat energy is A) the form of energy that actually does work. B) movement of ions or electrons. C) energy that flows between objects with different temperatures. D) stored energy that could do work but is not doing so. E) energy that moves in waves.

52) The minimum amount of energy that reactants must have to start a chemical reaction is called_________blankenergy. A) kinetic B) mechanical C) activation D) electromagnetic E) potential

53) The conversion between different states of energy (e.g. potential energy to kinetic energy) A) is not 100% efficient. B) is 100% efficient. C) typically generates heat. D) is not possible; energy cannot change its state. E) is not 100% efficient and typically generates heat.

54)

If the products of a chemical reaction contain less potential energy than the reactants,

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A) energy has been stored in the molecular bonds of the product. B) energy has been released by the breaking of molecular bonds. C) the reaction will be reversible without additional energy input. D) a synthesis reaction is likely to have occurred. E) All of the choices are correct.

55)

Enzymes are proteins that increase the rate of chemical reactions by A) increasing theactivation energy of the reaction. B) decreasing theactivation energy of the reaction. C) adjusting thetemperature of the reaction. D) increasing theconcentration of the reactants.

56) A substance that will increase the rate of a chemical reaction without being permanently changed is called a/an_________blank. A) solute B) catalyst C) oxidator D) reducing agent

57)

For most chemical reactions, an increase in temperature will cause the reaction rate to A) increase. B) decrease. C) remainunchanged.

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58)

Which of the following factors will influence the rate of chemical reactions? A) Temperature B) Concentration of reactants C) Presence of catalysts D) Presence of enzymes E) All of these factors will influence the rate of chemical reactions.

59)

Which of the following is an organic compound? A) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) B) Salt (NaCl) C) Sucrose (C12H22O11) D) Water (H2O) E) None of the choices are correct.

60) The hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a molecule of water are held together by_________blank bonds. A) ionic B) peptide C) savings D) polar covalent E) nonpolar covalent

61)

A group of water molecules are held together by_________blank bonds.

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A) savings B) hydrogen C) ionic D) nonpolar covalent E) polar covalent

62)

The molecular formula H2O means A) 1 hydrogen atom and 2 oxygen atoms. B) 1 hydrogen atom and 1 oxygen atom. C) 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom. D) 2 hydrogen atoms and 2 oxygen atoms. E) None of the choices are correct.

63)

The presence of water in our bodies allows us to A) cool the body with sweat. B) maintain a fairly constant body temperature. C) provide an environment for chemical reactions. D) keep tissues moist and reduce friction. E) All of the choices are correct.

64)

Which of the following statements is false? A) Water allows the body to resist sudden temperature changes. B) Water transports nutrients in the body. C) Water serves as an effective lubricant in our bodies. D) Water evaporation cools the body. E) Water evaporation heats the body.

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65)

Substances dissolved in the liquid portion of a solution are called_________blank. A) solutes B) solvents C) catalysts D) osmoles E) insoluble

66)

A solution that contains one osmole of solute in one kilogram (kg) of water is called a A) 1% solution. B) 1 molar solution. C) 10% solution. D) 1 osmolal solution. E) None of the choices are correct.

67)

Two solutions, A and B, have the same osmolality. What does that mean? A) Solution A has more solute particles than solution B. B) Solution B has more solute particles than solution A. C) Both solutions have the same number of solute particles. D) Solution A is water and sugar; solution B is water and salt. E) Solution A is pure water, and solution B is water and salt.

68)

Why is water involved in most metabolic reactions in the human body?

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A) It can dissolve many chemical compounds. B) It can absorb and release heat without changing temperature very much. C) It has a high surface tension. D) Its bonds are nonpolar. E) It is a solute.

69) Hyperventilation causes the loss of large amounts of CO2 from the body, decreasing the amount of H+ in solution. As a result, A) the pH of body fluids will rise. B) the pH of body fluids will fall. C) the pH of body fluids will become neutral. D) the pH of body fluids will not be affected. E) None of these choices are correct.

70)

A base is a proton_________blank. A) donor B) converter C) acceptor D) creator E) Both acceptor and creator are correct.

71)

Which of the following is a proton donor?

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A) An acid B) A base C) A salt D) Glucose E) A neutral substance

72)

Sam adjusts solution A to increase its acidity. This means that the A) solution is closer to neutrality. B) pH of the solution has increased. C) solution will now accept more protons. D) number of hydrogen ions in the solution has decreased. E) number of hydrogen ions in the solution has increased.

73)

The pH value A) increases with acidity. B) is measured on a scale from 0 to 10. C) is determined by the concentration of H+ in a solution. D) reflects the Na+ content of body fluids. E) decreases with alkalinity.

74)

What particle is formed when an acid loses a proton (H+)? A) Buffer B) Conjugate acid C) Salt D) Conjugate base

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75) Solution A has a pH of 10, and solution B has a pH of 2. Which of the following statements about these solutions is true? A) Solution A and solution B are both basic. B) Solution B is basic. C) Solution A is acidic. D) Solution B has a higher H+ concentration than solution A. E) Solution A has a higher H+ concentration than solution B.

76)

A buffer will A) enhance changes in the pH of the solutions. B) resist drastic changes in the pH of the solutions. C) have no effect on the pH of the solutions. D) make a solution more acidic. E) make a solution more basic.

77)

Normal blood pH is maintained within a range of A) 7.35 - 8.5. B) 7.35 - 7.45. C) 4.5 - 5.5. D) 1.0 - 14.0. E) 6.5 - 9.5.

78)

Normal pH range for blood is 7.35 to 7.45. If blood pH falls below 7.35,

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A) an imbalance called alkalosis results. B) nothing happens as this is an acceptable deviation. C) an imbalance called acidosis results. D) the blood becomes saltier. E) the number of red blood cells decreases.

79)

Normal pH for blood is 7.35 to 7.45. Maintenance of the pH in this range is A) critical because enzymes work best within narrow ranges of pH. B) not critical because extreme pH values do not affect enzyme function. C) called denaturation. D) not required. E) None of the choices are correct.

80)

Which molecule is produced as a waste product of the metabolism of glucose by cells? A) Water B) Oxygen C) Carbon dioxide D) Carbon monoxide E) Nitrogen

81)

Large carbohydrates are formed from smaller units called_________blank. A) phosphate groups B) monosaccharides C) amino acids D) steroids E) lipids

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82)

Which of the following is a carbohydrate? A) Triglyceride B) Hemoglobin C) Cholesterol D) Animal fat E) Sucrose

83)

Polysaccharides A) are formed when sucrose and glucose combine. B) are the smallest carbohydrates. C) contain carbon, hydrogen, and phosphate atoms. D) contain long chains of monosaccharides. E) are not found in plants.

84)

Consider the following five terms. Which term does not belong with the other four terms? A) Disaccharide B) Sucrose C) Lactose D) Maltose E) Glucose

85) Which of the following lists includes only monosaccharides that are isomers of one another?

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A) Glycogen, glucose, sucrose B) Starch, glycogen, cellulose C) Glucose, fructose, galactose D) Ribose, glycogen, glucose E) Deoxyribose, glycogen, starch

86) The molecule used most frequently by cells as a fuel belongs to which of the following groups? A) Prostaglandins B) Carbohydrates C) Nucleic acids D) Steroids E) Phospholipids

87)

Glucose is the A) storage carbohydrate in animals. B) storage carbohydrate in plants. C) nondigestible plant polysaccharide. D) major nutrient for most body cells. E) sugar found in RNA.

88)

Glycogen is the

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A) storage carbohydrate in animals. B) storage carbohydrate in plants. C) nondigestible plant polysaccharide. D) major nutrient for most body cells. E) sugar found in RNA.

89)

Ribose is the A) storage carbohydrate in animals. B) storage carbohydrate in plants. C) nondigestible plant polysaccharide. D) major nutrient for most body cells. E) sugar found in RNA and ATP.

90)

Starch is the A) storage carbohydrate in animals. B) storagecarbohydrate in plants. C) nondigestible plant polysaccharide. D) major nutrient for most body cells. E) sugar found in RNA.

91)

Cellulose is the A) storage carbohydrate in animals. B) storage carbohydrate in plants. C) nondigestible plant polysaccharide. D) major nutrient for most body cells. E) sugar found in RNA.

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92)

Deoxyribose is a sugar found in_________blank. A) glycogen B) starch C) DNA D) RNA E) ATP

93)

Which of the following is NOT a function of carbohydrates in the body? A) Structural component of DNA B) Protection C) Bulk in feces D) Energy E) Structural component of RNA

94)

Which of the following statements accurately describes lipids? A) Lipids are the building blocks of carbohydrates. B) Lipids serve as buffers. C) Lipids are an important component of plasma membranes. D) Lipids tend to be water soluble. E) Lipids tend to be polarized.

95)

Triglycerides are composed of

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A) monosaccharides. B) amino acids. C) nucleotides. D) glycerol and fatty acids. E) None of the choices are correct.

96) Fatty acid A has 10 double covalent bonds scattered throughout its carbon chain while fatty acid B has only single covalent bonds between the carbons in its chain. A) Fatty acid A is saturated. B) Fatty acid B is unsaturated. C) Both fatty acids are saturated. D) Both fatty acids are unsaturated. E) Fatty acid B is saturated.

97)

Which of the following would be classified as a lipid? A) Cholesterol – a steroid B) Alanine – an amino acid C) Starch – a polysaccharide D) Catalase – an enzyme E) Sucrose – a disaccharide

98)

All of the following terms relate to lipids. Which does not belong with the other four?

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A) Cholesterol B) Estrogen C) Steroid D) Triglyceride E) Bile salts

99)

Phospholipids A) contain subunits called amino acids. B) are water-soluble. C) are a type of steroid. D) are fat-soluble vitamins. E) are found in plasma membranes.

100)

Lipids A) can insulate and help prevent heat loss. B) yield little energy per unit of weight. C) function as enzymes. D) are all water soluble. E) comprise the genetic material of cells.

101)

Eicosanoids A) are structural proteins. B) are fat-soluble vitamins. C) are components of the plasma membrane. D) comprise the genetic material. E) play a role in the response of tissues to injuries.

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102)

An example of a fat-soluble vitamin is A) vitamin C. B) vitamin D. C) vitamin B. D) vitamin F. E) vitamin H.

103)

Which of the following molecules is NOT made from cholesterol? A) Estrogen B) Bile salts C) Testosterone D) Prostaglandins E) Progesterone

104)

Phospholipids have a hydrophilic end which is A) polar and not water soluble. B) polar and water soluble. C) nonpolar and not water soluble. D) nonpolar and water soluble.

105)

Which function of proteins is NOT correctly matched with the example?

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A) Transport – hemoglobin B) Structure – collagen and keratin C) Regulation – enzymes and hormones D) Protection – packing around organs and glands E) Contraction – actin and myosin in muscles

106) An organic molecule consists of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur; the molecule is probably A) carbon dioxide. B) an amino acid. C) a triglyceride (fat). D) a monosaccharide. E) a phospholipid.

107)

The building blocks of proteins are_________blank. A) triglycerides B) phospholipids C) amino acids D) monosaccharides E) eicosanoids

108)

Proteins

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A) are the body's source of immediate energy. B) are the building blocks of nucleotides. C) provide much of the structure of body cells and tissues. D) contain the genetic information of the cell. E) insulate and cushion the body.

109)

Adjacent amino acids in a polypeptide chain are held together by_________blank bonds. A) hydrogen B) ionic C) Van der Waals D) peptide E) high energy

110)

Which of the following is a source of nitrogen for the body? A) Carbohydrates B) Water C) Proteins D) Glucose E) Lipids

111)

The primary structure of a protein is A) the number of polypeptide chains in the molecule. B) the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. C) the folded, helical nature of the molecule. D) represented by multiple polypeptide chains. E) the hydrogen bonds between amino acids.

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112)

Denaturation is A) a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds. B) a positively charged ion. C) a negatively charged ion. D) a substance that conducts electricity when placed in solution. E) a change in thethree-dimensional structure of a protein.

113)

Which of the following is the correct sequence from smallest to largest? A) Amino acid, cell, protein, atom B) Amino acid, atom, cell, protein C) Cell, protein, amino acid, atom D) Atom, amino acid, protein, cell E) Protein, cell, amino acid, atom

114) Which of the following is determined by the sequence of amino acids bound by peptide bonds? A) Amino acid B) Peptide bond C) Primary structure of protein D) Secondary structure of protein E) Denaturation

115)

Which of the following means a change in shape of a protein?

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A) Amino acid B) Peptide bond C) Primary structure of protein D) Secondary structure of protein E) Denaturation

116) What type of covalent bond is formed between amino acid molecules during protein synthesis? A) Amino bond B) Peptide bond C) Primary bond D) Hydrogen bond E) Electrovalent bond

117)

What is the building block molecule of a protein? A) Amino acid B) Nucleic acid C) Monosaccharide D) Glycerol E) Fatty acid

118) Which protein structure results from folding or coiling of a polypeptide chain caused by hydrogen bonds between amino acids?

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A) Quaternary structure B) Tertiary structure C) Secondary structure D) Primary structure E) Peptide structure

119)

Which of the following is mismatched? A) Ribose – RNA B) Enzyme – protein C) Cholesterol – nucleic acid D) Triglyceride – fat E) Eicosanoid – prostaglandin

120)

To which of the following organic groups does an enzyme belong? A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid E) Vitamin

121)

To which of the following organic groups does DNA belong?

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A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid E) Vitamin

122)

To which of the following organic groups does lactose belong? A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid E) Vitamin

123)

To which of the following organic groups does a steroid belong? A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid E) Vitamin

124)

To which of the following organic groups does hemoglobin belong? A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid E) Vitamin

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125) An organic molecule such as a vitamin that makes an enzyme functional is called a/an_________blank. A) buffer B) coactivator C) catalyst D) coenzyme

126)

The minimum energy required to start a chemical reaction A) moves in energy surges. B) results from random molecular movement. C) comes from ionic energy motion. D) is elevated by a catalyst. E) can be lowered by enzymes.

127)

An enzyme A) has a two-dimensional shape. B) is permanently changed in a chemical reaction. C) increases the activation energy needed in a chemical reaction. D) is a protein catalyst. E) cannot be denatured.

128)

Which of the following is NOT true of enzymes?

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A) They arecatalysts that increase the rate of a reaction. B) One enzyme can have many reactions. C) They may need a cofactor to be functional. D) The active site has a specific shape to match the reactant(s). E) A slight change in shape can affect function.

129)

The model that helps explain how an enzyme works is the_________blank model. A) activation B) lock-and-key C) three-dimensional D) denaturation

130)

Nucleotides A) are part of DNA molecules but not RNA molecules. B) hold the nucleus together. C) are the buildingblocks of nucleic acids. D) are proteins that function as enzymes. E) have nothing to do with the genetic information in the nucleus.

131)

Which of the following is a component of a nucleotide? A) Adenine – a nitrogen base B) Glucose – a monosaccharide C) Cholesterol – a steroid D) Calcium ions E) ATP

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132)

DNA A) must travel to ribosomes to function. B) contains the sugar deoxyribose. C) is a single-stranded molecule. D) is one of several amino acids. E) assembles amino acids to make proteins.

133)

Which of the following nitrogen bases is found in RNA but not DNA? A) Adenine B) Guanine C) Thymine D) Uracil E) Cytosine

134) Arrange the following from largest to smallest: (1) Nucleus (2) DNA molecule (3) Skin cell (4) Chicken eggs A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 4, 3, 1, 2 C) 3, 4, 2, 1 D) 2, 3, 1, 4 E) 4, 2, 3, 1

135)

Which of the following statements best describes RNA?

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A) RNA is found outside a cell. B) RNA contains the base thymine. C) RNA is a single-stranded molecule. D) RNA molecules areantiparallel. E) RNA is a double helix.

136)

Which of the following lists the components of a nucleotide? A) Phosphate, lipid, nitrogenous base B) Monosaccharide, nitrogenous base, sucrose C) Phosphate, monosaccharide, nitrogenous base D) Phosphate, sucrose, amino acid E) Monosaccharide, amino acid, phosphate

137)

Which of the following is the correct complementary strand to CATGTC? A) GTACAG B) CATGTC C) GUACAG D) AGCACA E) TCGTAT

138)

ATP A) is a nucleotide found in DNA. B) stores genetic information. C) is a sugar found in transfer RNA. D) serves as the energy currency of the cell. E) can store, but cannot release energy in the cell.

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139)

Which of the following statements correctly describes ATP? A) Can be synthesized from ADP B) Stores and releases energy in the cell C) Is associated with a reversible reaction D) Is associated with anabolism and catabolism E) All of the choices are correct.

140)

Which of the following chemical reactions best represents the decomposition of ATP? A) ATP + ADP → ATP B) ADP + ADP + ADP → ATP C) ATP + energy → ADP + H2O D) ADP + Pi + energy → ATP + H2O E) ATP + H2O → ADP + Pi + energy

141)

Which of the following chemical reactions best represents the synthesis of ATP? A) ATP + H2O → ADP + Pi + energy B) ADP + Pi + energy → ATP + H2O C) ADP + ADP + ADP →ATP + energy D) ATP + energy → ADP + H2O E) ATP + ADP → ATP

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142)

The sodium chloride molecule breaks apart in water. What does "D" represent?

A) Chloride ion B) Dissociation C) Water molecule D) Sodium ion E) Salt crystal

143) The mass of a chemical equal to its molecular weight in grams, containing 6.023 x 1023 molecules is a/an _________blank. A) mole B) molarity C) ion D) atomic mass unit

144)

Intermolecular forces are weak electrostatic attractions that exist between

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A) two molecules. B) two atoms. C) two protons.

145)

Hydrogen bonds are important for all of the following except A) producing surface tension in water. B) helping hold a protein structure together. C) helping hold DNA strands together. D) helping atoms give up or receive electrons.

146)

In an oxidation-reduction reaction, _________blank are transferred between molecules. A) electrons B) charges C) neutrons D) protons

147) Sucrose is formed when the simple sugars fructose and glucose are covalently bonded. This reaction releases water. What type of reaction is this? A) Catabolic B) Hydrolysis C) Dehydration D) Monomeric

148)

If the ratio of products and reactants are stable, the system is in _________blank.

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A) equilibrium B) steady state C) activation

149) Identify the material that would NOT be considered an important inorganic substances in our bodies. A) Glucose B) Oxygen C) Calcium D) Iron

150)

From the following list, select the one organic substance found in the human body. A) Oxygen B) Water C) Glucose D) Calcium

151) Inorganic chemists study substances _________blank carbon, while organic chemists study substances _________blank carbon. A) lacking; containing B) containing; lacking C) containing more than 1 mole of; with less than a mole of

152) In order to get energy (ATP) from food molecules in the final stage of respiration, humans require _________blank.

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A) oxygen B) sodium C) carbon dioxide D) ribose

153)

How does a buffer help a solution maintain pH? A) A buffer can act like a base if pH is acidic, and it can act like an acid if pH is basic. B) A buffer releases a base to neutralize an acid. C) A buffer forms both cations and anions to counteract acids. D) A buffer releases acid to maintain proper pH.

154) Sodium has an atomic number of 11 and an atomic mass of 23. Sodium has_________blank. A) 12 neutrons and 11protons B) 12 protons and 11neutrons C) 12 electrons and11 neutrons D) 12 protons and 11electrons E) 12 electrons and11 protons

155) Na (atomic no. 11) reacts with Cl (atomic no. 17) to become stable. In the reaction, Na will_________blank, while Cl will_________blank. A) accept one electron; give up one electron B) give up one proton; accept one proton C) share one electron with chlorine; share one electron with sodium D) become an anion; become a cation E) give up one electron; accept one electron

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156) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and an atomic mass of 16. How many valence electrons does it have? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 16

157) Oxygen has an atomic number of eight. When two oxygen atoms come together, they form a/an_________blank bond. A) hydrogen B) nonpolar covalent C) polar covalent D) ionic E) Van der Waals

158) When jumping into water, you notice resistance. This resistance is caused by water's_________blank. A) adhesiveness B) cohesiveness C) hydrophobic tension D) hydrophilic tension E) osmotic equilibrium

159)

Which of these is hydrophobic?

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A) Glucose B) K+ C) ClD) Water E) Lipid

160) Blood contains NaCl, protein, and cells. The NaCl is in a/an_________blank, the protein is in a/an_________blank, and the cells are in a_________blank. A) emulsion; solution; suspension B) solvent; emulsion; colloid C) colloid; suspension; solution D) suspension; colloid; solution E) solution; colloid; suspension

161)

Which of these has the highest H+ concentration? A) Lemon juice, pH =2.3 B) Red wine, pH =3.2 C) Tomato juice, pH= 4.7 D) Saliva, pH =6.6 E) Householdammonia, pH = 10.8

162) The breakdown of glucose to yield carbon dioxide, oxygen, and ATP can be described as_________blank.

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A) anabolic andendergonic B) catabolic andexergonic C) anabolic andexergonic D) catabolic andendergonic E) anabolic andexothermic

163)

Which of the following terms encompasses all of the other ones? A) Catabolism B) Anabolism C) Metabolism D) Oxidationreactions E) Reductionreactions

164)

Which of the following is not an organic compound? A) C16H18N3ClS B) Na2HPO3(H2O)5 C) CH4 D) C3H7O2N

165)

_________blank is a monosaccharide, whereas_________blank is a polysaccharide. A) Fructose; sucrose B) Galactose; maltose C) Lactose; glycogen D) Glucose; starch E) Cellulose; glucose

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166)

Which of these molecules is hydrophobic? A) Glucose B) Cholesterol C) Amino acid D) Protein E) Disaccharide

167)

_________blank is the substrate of_________blank. A) Glucose; lactose B) Lactase; glucose C) Lactose; lactase D) Galactose; lactose E) Sucrase; sucrose

168)

Most enzymes are_________blank. A) cofactors B) proteins C) lipids D) carbohydrates E) nucleic acids

169)

An atom with 12 electrons, 13 neutrons, and 11 protons is a/an _________blank.

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A) anion B) cation C) free radical D) isotope E) both an anion and an isotope F) both an anion and a free radical

170)

In the following reaction, what is/are the product(s)? CO2 + H2O ---> H2CO3 A) H2CO3 B) CO2 and H2O C) CO2 and H2CO3 D) H2O and H2CO3

171)

Which of the following will increase the rate of a chemical reaction? A) An increase inreactant concentration B) An increase inproduct concentration C) A decreasedtemperature D) Enzymeinhibition

172) Metabolic water refers to the water molecules produced during normal cellular metabolism. Which types of metabolic reactions are important for the production of metabolic water? A) Dehydration reactions B) Hydrolysis reactions C) Catabolic reactions D) Reversible reactions

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173)

Which of the following scenarios appropriately represents kinetic energy? A) A student marking an answer on a exam paper B) A swinging door propped open C) A large truck parked at the top of a steep hill D) All of the choices are correct.

174) Considering the following analogy, determine which component represents ATP's role in the cells of the body. As the river flows past the old mill, it turns the water wheel, which in turns powers the movement of the millstone that grinds the wheat. A) Water wheel B) River C) Millstone D) Wheat

175) A student's science fair project examined changes in chemical reaction rate by mixing vinegar and baking soda together and observing the formation of carbon dioxide gas. The student noticed that as the volume of vinegar_________blank, there was a noticeable_________blank in bubbling in the beaker. A) increased; increase B) decreased; decrease C) increased; decrease D) decreased; increase

176) Which of the following isnot an example of an important inorganic substance necessary for normal human physiology?

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A) Iodide ions are important components of certain hormones in the body. B) The sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA form from covalent bonds between nucleotides. C) Calcium ions are important components of cellular communication. D) Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in cellular respiration, the process that generates much of the ATP in cells.

177) Substance A is added to a solution, resulting in a decrease in the pH of the solution. Substance A_________blank the H+ concentration; therefore, it is considered a/an_________blank. A) increased; acid B) increased; base C) decreased; acid D) decreased; base

178) Proteins in cells can act as important buffer systems. If intracellular pH rises, certain_________blank of proteins can_________blank H+ to return pH to normal conditions. A) amino acids; donate B) nucleotides; donate C) amino acids; accept D) nucleotides; accept

179) When someone eats a cookie, what happens to the carbon atoms in the sugar molecules after the cookie is ingested?

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A) The carbon atoms combine with hydrogen ions to buffer the stomach acids. B) The carbon atoms are released as part of carbon dioxide, which later is excreted as part of the urine. C) The carbon atoms are released as part of carbon dioxide, which later is excreted as part of exhaled air. D) The carbon atoms are stored in bones until they are needed for some other cellular process.

180) A weak acid was introduced to a solution. Which of the following accurately describes the condition of the solution after adding the weak acid? A) The solution would have an increase in H+ with some of the weak acid molecules still intact. B) The solution would have a decrease in H+ with some of the weak acid molecules still intact. C) The solution would have an increase in H+ with none of the weak acid molecules still intact. D) The solution would have a decrease in H+ with none of the weak acid molecules still intact.

181) Viruses are composed primarily of proteins and nucleic acids. Which of the following elements could be used to track the fate of viral proteins to determine if they entered the cell? A) Phosphate because proteins contain phosphate, but nucleic acids do not B) Sulfur because proteins contain sulfur, but nucleic acids do not C) Nitrogen because proteins contain nitrogen, but nucleic acids do not D) Oxygen because proteins contain oxygen, but nucleic acids do not

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182) An unknown molecule was detected in a tissue sample. The molecule is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen; appears to be a branching polymer; and is hydrophilic. This molecule is most likely a_________blank. A) carbohydrate B) lipid C) protein D) nucleic acid

183) Prions are pathogenic proteins that are linked to different neurodegenerative diseases. Investigations of some have indicated that normal cellular proteins and prions have the same amino acid sequence. How is this possible? A) Though the primary structure is the same between the prion and the normal cellular protein, differences at higher levels (secondary or tertiary) alter protein activity. B) The amino acid sequence is not important to the function of the protein because protein function is completely determined by the pH of the environment. C) The double helix structure of proteins is easily altered by separating the nitrogenous bases holding the strands together, allowing for a protein to act as a prion. D) The amino acids of the prion must have more hydrophilic sections, causing it to interact with the lipids of the plasma membrane and disrupting cell activity.

184) During the first step of gene expression, an RNA copy of a gene is made. Which of the following represents the correct sequence produced from a gene segment with the following sequence: GAACTAAGC? A) CUUGAUUCG B) GAACUAAGC C) CTTGATTCG D) GUUCTUUGC

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185) A research group is monitoring a series of reactions and have determined it is most likely a hydrolysis reaction because the number of_________blank. A) water molecules decreased B) water molecules increased C) oxygen molecules increased D) oxygen molecules decreased

186) Which of the following subatomic particles can be changed in number without affecting the element identity of the atom? A) Electrons B) Protons C) Neutrons D) Both "electrons" and "neutrons" are correct.

187) A polar covalent bond forms between Atom 1 and Atom 2. The Atom 1 side of the bond is slightly negative, and the Atom 2 side of the bond is slightly positive. Which atom has the higher electronegativity? A) Atom 1 B) Atom 2 C) Atom 1 and Atom 2 have equal electronegativity.

188) pH?

Which of the following best describes the effect that holding your breath has on blood

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A) Holding your breath increases blood pH by increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. B) Holding your breath decreases blood pH by increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. C) Holding your breath increases blood pH by decreasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. D) Holding your breath decreases blood pH by decreasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood.

189) If water accumulates between two sheets of glass, it is very difficult to separate them. Which of the following explanations best explains this situation? A) The cohesive property of water holds the two sheets of glass together. B) The adhesive property of water holds the sheets of glass together. C) The nonpolar covalent bonds in the class are attracted to the polar covalent bonds of the water, holding the two sheets of glass together.

190) If you were able to sort nucleotides into DNA nucleotides and RNA nucleotides, which component of the nucleotide would you use to do so? A) Pentose sugar B) Phosphate group C) Nitrogenous bases

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191)

191.1) Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult male. What kind of bond is found at "A"? A) Hydrogen bond B) Water molecule C) Oxygen atom D) Hydrogen atom E) Polar covalent bond

191.2) Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult male. What kind of bond is found at "B"?

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A) Hydrogen bond B) Water molecule C) Oxygen atom D) Hydrogen atom E) Polar covalent bond

191.3) Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult male. What kind of atom is found at "C"? A) Hydrogen bond B) Water molecule C) Oxygen atom D) Hydrogen atom E) Polar covalent bond

191.4) Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult male. What kind of atom is found at "D"? A) Hydrogen bond B) Water molecule C) Oxygen atom D) Hydrogen atom E) Polar covalent bond

191.5) Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult male. What kind of molecule is found at "E"?

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A) Hydrogen bond B) Water molecule C) Oxygen atom D) Hydrogen atom E) Polar covalent bond

192)

192.1)

The sodium chloride molecule breaks apart in water. What does "A" represent?

A) Chloride ion B) Dissociation C) Water molecule D) Sodium ion E) Salt crystal

192.2) Version 1

The sodium chloride molecule breaks apart in water. What does "B" represent? 60

A) Chloride ion B) Dissociation C) Water molecule D) Sodium ion E) Salt crystal

192.3)

The sodium chloride molecule breaks apart in water. What does "C" represent?

A) Chloride ion B) Dissociation C) Water molecule D) Sodium ion E) Salt crystal

192.4) The sodium chloride molecule breaks apart in water. What does "E" represent (the process)? A) Chloride ion B) Dissociation C) Water molecule D) Sodium ion E) Salt crystal

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193)

193.1) Phospholipids are important components of the plasma membrane. What does "A" represent on the diagram? A) Phosphorus B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Polar (hydrophilic) region E) Nonpolar (hydrophobic) region

193.2) Phospholipids are important components of the plasma membrane. What does "B" represent on the diagram? A) Phosphorus B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Polar (hydrophilic) region E) Nonpolar (hydrophobic) region

193.3) Phospholipids are important components of the plasma membrane. What does "C" represent on the diagram?

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A) Phosphorus B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Polar (hydrophilic) region E) Nonpolar (hydrophobic) region

193.4) Phospholipids are important components of the plasma membrane. What does "D" represent on the diagram? A) Phosphorus B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Polar (hydrophilic) region E) Nonpolar (hydrophobic) region

193.5) Phospholipids are important components of the plasma membrane. What does "E" represent on the diagram? A) Phosphorus B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Polar (hydrophilic) region E) Nonpolar (hydrophobic) region

194) True or False? The term mass describes the material that makes up all living and nonliving things. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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195)

True or False? Synthesis reactions are also called catabolic reactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

196) True or False? The importance of O2 in the human body is to extract energy (ATP) from food molecules. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 02_13e_ VanPutte 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) C 12) E 13) B 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) C 19) E 20) B 21) B 22) E 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) D 29) C 30) B 31) E 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) C 53) E 54) B 55) B 56) B Version 1

57) A 58) E 59) C 60) D 61) B 62) C 63) E 64) E 65) A 66) D 67) C 68) A 69) A 70) C 71) A 72) E 73) C 74) D 75) D 76) B 77) B 78) C 79) A 80) C 81) B 82) E 83) D 84) E 85) C 86) B Version 1

87) D 88) A 89) E 90) B 91) C 92) C 93) B 94) C 95) D 96) E 97) A 98) D 99) E 100) A 101) E 102) B 103) D 104) B 105) D 106) B 107) C 108) C 109) D 110) C 111) B 112) E 113) D 114) C 115) E 116) B Version 1

117) A 118) C 119) C 120) B 121) D 122) A 123) C 124) B 125) D 126) E 127) D 128) B 129) B 130) C 131) A 132) B 133) D 134) B 135) C 136) C 137) A 138) D 139) E 140) E 141) B 142) C 143) A 144) A 145) D 146) A Version 1

147) C 148) A 149) A 150) C 151) A 152) A 153) A 154) A 155) E 156) C 157) B 158) B 159) E 160) E 161) A 162) B 163) C 164) B 165) D 166) B 167) C 168) B 169) E 170) A 171) A 172) A 173) A 174) A 175) A 176) B Version 1

177) A 178) A 179) C 180) A 181) B 182) A 183) A 184) A 185) A 186) D 187) A 188) A 189) B 190) A 191) Section Break 191.1) E 191.2) A 191.3) D 191.4) C 191.5) B 192) Section Break 192.1) E 192.2) D 192.3) A 192.4) B 193) Section Break 193.1) D 193.2) E 193.3) C 193.4) A Version 1

193.5) B 194) FALSE 195) FALSE 196) TRUE

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CHAPTER 3 1) In intestinal epithelial cells, Na+ is in higher concentrations outside of the cells. This gradient provides the energy for the symport of glucose into the cells. Which of the following explain how this transport mechanism works. (Check all that apply.) A) Active transport of sodium out of the cell B) Active transport of sodium into the cell C) Carrier mediated transport of glucose into the cells D) Carrier mediated transport of sodium into the cell E) Active transport of potassium out of the cell

Check all of the major hypotheses of aging. A) Damage to mitochondria B) Damage to the DNA from free radicals C) Damage to lysosomes D) Presence of a "cell death clock" E) Presence of "death genes"

Check all that occur at the cellular level as a result of aging. A) Cells experienceincreased metabolic functions. B) Cells experience adecreased ability to maintain homeostasis. C) The process ofcell division becomes faulty, resulting in a greater risk for cancer. D) The risk for unsuccessful completion of sex cell division and maturation decreases.

The structural and functional unit of all living organisms is the_________blank.

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A) ribosome B) cell C) organ D) organelle E) plasma membrane

All of the chemical reactions within a cell are known as cell_________blank. A) reproduction B) metabolism C) communication D) inheritance E) movement

6) Cells produce and respond to chemical and electrical signals as a means of_________blank. A) communicating B) metabolizing C) reproducing D) synthesizing E) using energy

The lower limit of resolution of a light microscope is_________blank.

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A) 100μm B) 0.1μm C) 10μm D) 0.01μm E) 1.0μm

Which of the following could be used to study general features of cells? A) A magnifying glass B) Scanning electron microscope C) Transmission electron microscope D) Binoculars E) Light microscope

Which of the following is NOT true of a transmission electron microscope (TEM)? A) The limit of resolution is about 0.1μm. B) Electrons are passed through the specimen. C) It gives the clearest three-dimensional images. D) The specimen must be fixed in plastic. E) The electron beam is focused with electromagnets.

10)

In order to study in detail the anatomy of internal cell parts, it would be best to use

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A) x-rays. B) flashlights. C) a transmission electron microscope (TEM). D) tissue cultures. E) a scanning electron microscope (SEM).

11)

Which of the following activities is a function of the plasma membrane? A) Digestion of unneeded cell organelles B) Recognition of bacterial cells by the immune system C) Transport of products from the nucleus to the endoplasmic reticulum D) Cell metabolism E) Detoxification

12)

The plasma membrane A) separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell. B) is a rigid protein membrane. C) is not permeable. D) has a single layer of phospholipids. E) regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell.

13) The environment outside the plasma membrane is most appropriately referred to as_________blank.

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A) intracellular B) extracellular C) multicellular D) centrocellular E) None of the choices are correct.

14)

Glycolipids would contain both lipids and_________blank. A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) electrolytes D) cholesterol E) amino acids

15)

The main components of the plasma membrane are A) carbohydrates,ions, and lipids. B) lipids andions. C) proteins and carbohydrates. D) proteins, lipids,and carbohydrates. E) ions,lipids, and proteins.

16) The collection of carbohydrates, glycolipids, and glycoproteins of the plasma membrane is called the_________blank.

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A) fluid mosaic B) extracellular membrane C) intercellular fluid D) phospholipid E) glycocalyx

17) When a sperm cell comes into contact with an egg cell, there is a change in the electrical charge across the plasma membrane and various channel proteins close. These channels would be called_________blank channels. A) open-gated B) voltage-gated C) chemical-gated D) ligand-gated E) nongated ion

18)

Plasma membrane phospholipids A) have polar (charged) tails. B) are arranged in a single layer. C) have tails that face the exterior of the membrane. D) are 95% cholesterol. E) have a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails.

19)

Plasma membrane phospholipids

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A) have nonpolar fatty acid tails. B) form a bilayer. C) have polar phosphate heads. D) create a selectively permeable barrier. E) All of the choices are correct.

20)

The second most abundant of the lipids in the plasma membrane is/are_________blank. A) glycolipids B) saturated fats C) cholesterol D) phospholipids E) triglycerides

21)

The predominant lipid in the cell membrane is a_________blank. A) phospholipid B) glycolipid C) cholesterol D) prostaglandin E) triglyceride

22)

The fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane suggests that A) cholesterol forms the outermost layer of the membrane. B) proteins form a "liquid" sea in the membrane. C) phospholipids form a single lipid layer in the center of the membrane. D) the membrane isneither rigid nor static in structure. E) proteins are not a part of the membrane.

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23)

According to the most current model of the plasma membrane, A) cholesterol forms the innermost layer of the membrane. B) proteins are freeto move about within a double layer of phospholipids. C) phospholipids and cholesterol form a single lipid bilayer. D) the membrane is a rigid unchanging structure. E) the membrane is impermeable to all other molecules.

24)

Membrane proteins that extend into the lipid bilayer are called_________blank. A) peripheral proteins B) extrinsic proteins C) integral proteins D) glycoproteins E) lipoproteins

25)

Channel proteins A) are binding sites for other molecules. B) utilize the G protein complex to function. C) are found only on endoplasmic reticulum. D) allow cells to recognize one another. E) provide a tunnelthrough which ions or molecules can enter or leave the cell.

26) Molecules that serve as chemical signals to open or close gated ion channels are_________blank.

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A) isotopes B) ligands C) responders D) communicators E) membrane potentials

27)

Cells that respond to ligands A) possess receptor sites for specific ligands. B) generally produce the ligands. C) have lysosomes that destroy the ligands. D) are using electrical signals in cellular communication. E) are not functional.

28) Communication between cells occurs when chemical messengers from one cell bind to_________blank on another cell. A) channel proteins B) receptorproteins C) marker molecules D) second messengers E) integrins

29)

Membrane-bound receptors

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A) are small, lipid soluble molecules. B) have their receptor sites on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. C) can interact with DNA in the nucleus. D) do not exhibit specificity. E) have no effect on the cell.

30) Communication between cells is essential to coordinate the activity of the trillions of cells that make up the human body. Which of the following is/are directly involved in carrying out communication between cells? A) Lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane B) Receptor proteins of the plasma membrane C) Chemical signal molecules released by cells D) Mitochondria E) Both "Receptor proteins of the plasma membrane" and "Chemical signal molecules released by cells" are correct.

31) Which type of membrane proteins have an exposed site on the outer cell surface that can attach to a ligand? A) Marker molecules B) Channel protein C) Receptor proteins D) Enzymes E) Carrier proteins

32) Which type of membrane proteins are integral proteins that move ions or molecules across plasma membrane?

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A) Marker molecules B) Channel protein C) Receptor proteins D) Enzymes E) Carrier proteins

33)

Which type of membrane proteins form a passageway through the plasma membrane? A) Marker molecules B) Channel protein C) Receptor proteins D) Enzymes E) Carrier proteins

34)

Which type of membrane proteins allow cells to identify one another? A) Marker molecules B) Channel protein C) Receptor proteins D) Enzymes E) Carrier proteins

35) Which type of membrane proteins can catalyze chemical reactions on the inner or outer surfaces of the plasma membrane?

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A) Marker molecules B) Channel protein C) Receptor proteins D) Enzymes E) Carrier proteins

36)

Which type of attachment proteins attach cells to extracellular molecules? A) Ligands B) Integrins C) Adherins D) Cadherins

37)

Which of the following is NOT a G-protein complex protein? A) Delta B) Gamma C) Alpha D) Beta E) None of the choices are correct.

38)

Which of the following is NOT true of G-protein complex action? A) Stimulates a cell by means of extracellular chemical signals B) Stimulates a cell by opening ion channels in the plasma membrane C) Stimulates a cell by means of intracellular chemical signals D) Stimulates a cell by activating enzymes associated with the plasma membrane E) Acts as an intermediate between a receptor and other cellular proteins

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39)

Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched with its function? A) Channel proteins – are part of an intercellular communication system B) Marker molecules – are primarily steroids C) Receptor proteins – attach to ligand molecules D) Peripheral proteins – penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the other E) Nongated ion channels – are always closed

40)

Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched with its description?

A) Channel proteins – catalyze chemical reactions inside the cell B) Cell identity molecules – are primarily steroids C) Receptor proteins – move specific ions or molecules using ATP D) Peripheral proteins – penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the other E) Carrier proteins – move bound ions or molecules from one side of the membrane to the other

41) Which type of transport proteins use cell energy to move molecules across the plasma membrane? A) Cadherins B) Ligand-gated ion channels C) ATP-poweredpumps D) Leak-ion channels

42)

A symporter will transport_________blank across the plasma membrane.

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A) two different ions or molecules in opposite directions B) two different ions or molecules in the same direction C) two of the same ions or molecules in the same direction D) one specific ion or molecule E) two of the same ions or molecules in opposite directions

43)

In_________blank, ions or molecules move in opposite directions. A) symport B) uniport C) antiport D) comport E) ionport

44) In general, water-soluble molecules diffuse through the_________blank; and lipidsoluble molecules diffuse through the_________blank. A) membrane channels; membrane channels B) membrane channels; lipid bilayer C) lipid bilayer; membrane channels D) lipid bilayer; lipid bilayer E) None of the choices are correct.

45)

The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. This means

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A) only gases and water can pass through it. B) substances need permission to pass through it. C) only certain substances can pass through it. D) substances need carrier molecules to pass through it. E) ATP is always needed to move molecules across the plasma membrane.

46)

Vitamin A, a fat-soluble vitamin, would move across the plasma membrane into the cell A) in vesicles. B) through vitamin membrane channels. C) by dissolving in the lipid bilayer. D) by transport with carrier molecules. E) by active transport.

47) Which of the following statements concerning membrane transport across the plasma membrane is true? A) Polar molecules are transported more easily than nonpolar molecules. B) Lipid-soluble substances pass through the membrane by dissolving in the lipid bilayer. C) Water cannot move through the membrane. D) Generally, cations pass through the membrane more easily than anions. E) All molecules are moved across by active transport.

48) A group of cells was treated with a proteolytic (protein-digesting) enzyme. Which of the following processes would be least affected by this treatment?

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A) Diffusion of Na+ through membrane channels B) Diffusion of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane C) Use of carrier molecules in facilitated diffusion D) Sodium-potassium exchange pump E) Secondary active transport

49) The aroma of cookies baking in the kitchen reaches you in the living room. The distribution of this odor throughout the house is an example of_________blank. A) active transport B) dialysis C) osmosis D) filtration E) diffusion

50)

In the process of diffusion, net movement of substances is always from a region A) outside the cell to a region inside the cell. B) inside the cell to a region outside the cell. C) of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration. D) of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. E) None of the choices are correct.

51)

Which of the following will increase the rate of diffusion?

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A) An increase in the viscosity of the solvent B) An increase in the temperature C) An increase in the molecular weight of the diffusing particles D) An increase in the distance the molecules have to travel E) All of the choices are correct.

52) The movement of a substance from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called_________blank. A) active transport B) diffusion C) endocytosis D) facilitated diffusion E) osmosis

53) Salt was added to a beaker of distilled water (the water was not stirred). A sample taken from the bottom of the beaker was found to be 20% salt. At the same time, a sample taken from the top of the beaker was found to be 2% salt. After 24 hours A) the difference in the percentage of salt between the top and bottom samples would increase. B) the percentage of salt in the top and bottom samples would be approximately equal. C) the samples would still be 2% and 20% respectively. D) the salt would float to the top. E) None of the choices are correct.

54) The movement of oxygen from the alveoli of the lungs into the bloodstream is an example of_________blank.

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A) diffusion B) osmosis C) active transport D) bulk transport E) facilitated diffusion

55)

Osmosis is the diffusion of_________blank across a selectively permeable membrane. A) urea B) oxygen C) water D) sodium E) sugar

56) Solution A contains 5 grams of sugar per liter while solution B contains 2 grams of sugar per liter. The solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If the solvent in both solutions is water, predict in which direction most of the water molecules will move. A) Most of the water will move by simple diffusion from solution A to solution B. B) Most of the water will move by osmosis from solution B to solution A. C) Most of the water will move by active transport from solution B to solution A. D) Most of the water will move by filtration from solution A to solution B. E) There will be no movement of water.

57)

The greater the concentration of a solution, the greater the

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A) tendency for water to diffuse from the solution. B) osmotic pressure of the solution. C) number of carrier molecules present. D) amount of solvent. E) rate of facilitated diffusion.

58)

A red blood cell that is placed in a hypertonic solution A) loses water. B) gains water. C) floats. D) ruptures. E) neither gains nor loses water.

59)

If 0.9% NaCl (saline) solution is isotonic to a cell, then a 0.5% saline solution A) is hypertonic to the cell. B) will cause crenation of the cell. C) is hypotonic to the cell. D) will shrink the cell. E) will not affect the cell.

60) be

If a 0.9% NaCl (saline) solution is isotonic to a cell, then a solution of 3.5% NaCl would

Version 1

A) hypertonic to the cell. B) isotonic to the cell. C) hypotonic to the cell. D) catatonic to the cell. E) All of the choices are correct.

61) A patient in a burn center is monitored carefully for systemic dehydration. This is because extensive skin damage results in evaporation of fluid from the surface of burned areas. As a result of the evaporation process, cells will tend to_________blank. A) shrink. B) swell. C) rupture. D) first swell and then resume their original shape. E) remain unchanged.

62) A runner produced hypotonic sweat while running a marathon in hot weather then, after the race, drank large volumes of water. As a result of this water intake, body cells will_________blank. A) shrink. B) swell. C) crenate. D) shrivel. E) not change.

63) The movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called_________blank.

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A) active transport B) diffusion C) endocytosis D) facilitated diffusion E) osmosis

64) _________blank pressure is the force required to prevent the movement of water by osmosis across a selectively permeable membrane. A) Hydration B) Hydrolic C) Osmotic D) Fluid E) Filtration

65)

Which of the following would increase the rate of mediated transport? A) Increase the number of available carrier molecules B) Change the shape of the binding site on the carrier molecule C) Increase the number of competitive molecules D) Fill all binding sites on carrier molecules E) Remove the binding site on the carrier molecule

66) A particular membrane transport process exhibits saturation, uses carrier molecules, but does NOT require ATP. The process is probably_________blank.

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A) active transport B) facilitated diffusion C) osmosis D) pinocytosis E) phagocytosis

67) Which of the following are consistent with facilitated diffusion? (1) Movement is against a concentration gradient (2) Movement is with a concentration gradient (3) Involves a carrier molecule (4) Involves cotransport (5) Involves counter transport (6) Exhibits competition and saturation A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 B) 2, 3, 6 C) 2, 3, 5, 6 D) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 E) 2, 3, 4, 6

68)

Which of the following would increase the maximum rate of facilitated diffusion? A) Increase the concentration gradient of the transported molecule to the saturation point B) Decrease the concentration gradient of the transported molecule C) Increase the concentration of the competitive molecules D) Increase ATP synthesis E) None of the choices are correct.

69)

Active transport

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A) follows osmotic pressure gradients. B) can move substances along their concentration gradient. C) does not require metabolic energy (ATP). D) involves vesicle formation. E) requires ATP.

70)

Which of the following is NOT consistent with active transport? A) Movement is against a concentration gradient B) Movement is with a concentration gradient C) Involves a carrier D) Exhibits competition and saturation E) Uses cell energy

71)

Which transport process requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy? A) Active transport B) Diffusion C) Endocytosis D) Facilitated diffusion E) Osmosis

72) The movement of molecules against their concentration gradient is called_________blank.

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A) active transport B) diffusion C) endocytosis D) facilitated diffusion E) osmosis

73) Cyanide stops the production of ATP. Which of the following processes would be affected? A) Simple diffusion B) Osmosis C) Active transport D) Facilitated diffusion E) Filtration

74)

The sodium-potassium pump located in the plasma membrane A) actively transports potassium into cells. B) osmotically moves sodium into cells. C) actively transports water out of cells. D) moves chlorine out of cells. E) actively transports sodium into cells.

75)

Which of the following events occurs in the secondary active transport of glucose?

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A) Na+ ionsand glucose are cotransported by the same carrier molecule. B) The Na+-K+ pump maintains a Na+ concentration gradient across the plasma membrane. C) Energy comes fromdiffusion of Na+ down their concentration gradient. D) Glucose is movedagainst its concentration gradient into the cell. E) All of the choices are correct.

76) Certain cells in the liver ingest bacteria and debris from damaged cells by a process called_________blank. A) pinocytosis B) phagocytosis C) biocytosis D) diffusion E) exocytosis

77)

Pinocytosis A) is a form of exocytosis. B) involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles. C) does not require ATP. D) forms vesicles only when large amounts of material are being transported. E) does not require the formation of vesicles.

78)

Endocytosis

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A) is movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane. B) is a process that requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy. C) is the bulk uptake of material through the plasma membrane by vesicle formation. D) moves material out of the cell. E) ends cell functions.

79)

White blood cells engulf foreign particles by means of_________blank. A) macrocytosis B) pinocytosis C) exocytosis D) phagocytosis E) prestocytosis

80) All of the following processes can move substances out of a cell EXCEPT_________blank. A) exocytosis B) osmosis C) active transport D) phagocytosis E) diffusion

81) Arrange the following events of exocytosis in the correct sequence: (1) Vesicle membrane fuses with plasma membrane (2) Secretory vesicles migrate to plasma membrane (3) Vesicle contents are expelled from cell (4) Secretions accumulate within secretory vesicles

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A) 2, 1, 4, 3 B) 1, 4, 2, 3 C) 3, 1, 4, 2 D) 4, 2, 1, 3 E) 1, 2, 3, 4

82)

Receptor-mediated endocytosis A) does not need ATP; the receptors supply the energy. B) exhibits specificity. C) occurs if oxygen is available. D) is a type of passive transport. E) moves materials out of the cell.

83)

The bulk uptake of material by the formation of a vesicle is called_________blank. A) active transport B) diffusion C) endocytosis D) facilitated diffusion E) osmosis

84)

Cytoplasm is found A) in thenucleus. B) outside the nucleus but inside the plasma membrane. C) in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum. D) on the cristae of the mitochondria. E) between the phospholipids in the plasma membrane.

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85)

The cytoplasm is made up of_________blank. A) cytosol B) cytogel C) organelles D) Both "cytosol" and "organelles" are correct. E) Both "cytogel" and "organelles" are correct.

86)

Which of the following cell structures is CORRECTLY matched with its function? A) Nucleolus – contains the genetic material of the cell B) Microtubules – cell support C) Mitochondria – protein synthesis D) Smooth ER – ATP production E) Ribosome – energy production

87)

The cytoskeleton consists of A) lipochromes, microfilaments, and microtubules. B) actin filaments, mitochondria, and intermediate filaments. C) microfilaments, mitochondria, and lipochromes. D) microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments. E) ribosomes, the nucleus, and the Golgi apparatus.

88)

Absence of a cytoskeleton might affect

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A) cell shape. B) the number of channel proteins in the plasma membrane. C) the ability of the cell to generate energy. D) vesicle formation. E) membrane transport.

89)

Microtubules A) are the smallest components of the cytoskeleton. B) contain the protein myosin. C) provide structure and support to the cytoplasm. D) are solid, supporting rods of protein. E) are a component of mitochondria.

90)

Which of the following is NOT an example of a cytoplasmic inclusion? A) Lipochrome B) Hemoglobin C) Actin filaments D) Melanin E) Lipid droplets

91)

Of the organelles listed, which one does NOT contain microtubules? A) Cilia B) Flagella C) Centrioles D) Microvilli E) All of the choices contain microtubules.

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92)

Organelles A) are extracellular structures. B) are unspecialized portions of a cell. C) generally lack membranes. D) vary in number and type depending on cell function. E) are structural, but not functional parts of the cell.

93)

The "control center" of the cell is the_________blank. A) nucleus B) ribosome C) mitochondrion D) plasma membrane E) endoplasmic reticulum

94)

Which of the following events occurs in the nucleus? A) ATP synthesis B) Ribosomal proteins formed C) Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes D) Production of phospholipids E) None of the choices are correct.

95)

Which of the following structures is found in the nucleus?

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A) Cristae B) Cytosol C) Cisternae D) Chromosome E) Flattened membrane sacs

96)

Which organelle contains chromosomes? A) Nucleus B) Ribosomes C) Lysosomes D) Smooth ER E) Centrioles

97)

Which mature cells do not have a nucleus? A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract B) Sperm cells C) Columnar cells of small intestines D) Red blood cells E) Macrophages (large, mobile white blood cells)

98)

The nucleus of a cell functions to A) digest lipids. B) produce ATP. C) produce secretory vesicles. D) control and coordinate cellular activities. E) synthesize proteins.

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99)

In the nucleus, DNA is wrapped with proteins. This complex is called_________blank. A) chromatin B) cytoplasmic organelles C) DNA particles D) nucleoli E) a DNA wrap

100)

In which structure are subunits of ribosomes manufactured? A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Nucleolus D) Peroxisomes E) Flagellum

101)

Nucleoli A) are located in the cytoplasm. B) produce ribosomal subunits. C) have a distinct membrane. D) are important for the formation of the Golgi apparatus. E) regulate movement of materials into the nucleus.

102)

Which of the following correctly matches a nuclear structure with its function?

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A) Chromosomes – contains RNA and histones B) Nuclear envelope – contains the nucleolar organizer C) Nuclear pores – allow molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm D) Chromatin – fluid portion of the nucleus E) Nucleolus – DNA synthesis

103)

The_________blank contains the genetic information of the cell. A) nucleolus B) ribosome C) nucleoplasm D) nucleus E) nucleosome

104) If a toxic drug inhibited mRNA synthesis, which of the following would be most directly affected? A) Protein synthesis B) Intracellular digestion C) Microtubule production D) Secretion of glycoproteins and lipoproteins E) Active transport

105)

Ribosomes are organelles responsible for

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A) protein synthesis. B) manufacturing lipids. C) cell movement and cell shape. D) packaging "cell products" for export. E) energy production.

106)

Which type of cell has abundant ribosomes? A) White blood cell, a phagocyte B) Red blood cell (transports oxygen) C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

107)

Cells that lack ribosomes cannot A) produce energy. B) eliminate wastes. C) engage in protein synthesis. D) package cellular products. E) ingest and phagocytize bacteria.

108)

Which organelles are the sites of protein synthesis? A) Nucleus B) Ribosomes C) Lysosomes D) Mitochondria E) Centrioles

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109) Skeletal muscle cells need large numbers of_________blank to make the many proteins they contain. A) centrosomes B) peroxisomes C) liposomes D) ribosomes E) lysosomes

110) The organelle that protects cells from the damaging effects of medications and toxins is the_________blank. A) ribosome B) microtubule C) secretory vesicle D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) mitochondria

111)

Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? A) Mitochondria – cristae B) Golgi apparatus – cisternae C) Lysosomes – hydrolytic enzymes D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum – chromatin E) Cilia – basal bodies

112)

Which of the following organelles may or may not have ribosomes attached?

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A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Nucleolus D) Peroxisomes E) Flagellum

113)

Endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes attached to it is called_________blank ER. A) smooth B) dendritic C) nodular D) bumpy E) rough

114)

A cell that produces many proteins for secretion would have large numbers of A) rough ER and Golgi apparatus. B) lysosomes and Golgi apparatus. C) Golgi apparatus and microvilli. D) ribosomes and centrioles. E) mitochondria and cilia.

115) Arrange the following in correct sequence: (1) Protein moves through ER and then carried in vesicles to Golgi apparatus (2) Vesicle pinches off from the Golgi apparatus and carries product to plasma membrane (3) Golgi apparatus modifies protein and then packages them into vesicles (4) Protein made by ribosomes on rough ER

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A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 4, 1, 3, 2 C) 2, 3, 1, 4 D) 3, 2, 4, 1 E) 4, 3, 2, 1

116) If you compare a cell with a manufacturing plant that exports goods, the cell's_________blank could be compared to the manufacturing plant's shipping department. A) nucleus B) lysosome C) Golgi apparatus D) endoplasmic reticulum E) ribosome

117)

Which organelle packages materials for secretion from the cell? A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Nucleolus D) Peroxisomes E) Flagellum

118)

The function of the Golgi apparatus is

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A) packaging and distribution of proteins and lipids. B) production of microtubules. C) excretion of excess salt. D) DNA replication. E) energy production.

119)

A toxic drug destroyed the Golgi apparatus. This would affect A) ribosomal RNA synthesis. B) intracellular digestion. C) energy production. D) microtubule production. E) packaging of glycoproteins and lipoproteins.

120)

Which cell type would have many Golgi apparatuses? A) White blood cell, a phagocyte B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus) C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

121)

Which type of cell would have an abundance of lysosomes? A) White blood cell, a phagocyte B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus) C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

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122)

Which type of cell would have an abundance of peroxisomes? A) White blood cell, a phagocyte B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus) C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

123) Which of the following organelles function in the destruction of nonfunctional organelles? A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Centrioles C) Basal bodies D) Lysosomes E) Mitochondria

124)

The intracellular digestive organelle of a cell is the_________blank. A) lysosome B) microtubule C) lipochrome D) rough endoplasmic reticulum E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

125)

Which organelle is a small vesicle containing oxidative enzymes?

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A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Nucleolus D) Peroxisome E) Flagellum

126)

White blood cells digest other cells and so would be expected to A) have large numbers of lysosomes. B) possess cilia on their surfaces so they can move quickly. C) excrete excess salt as a result of all this eating. D) expel their nuclei to make room for all of the cells they eat. E) have mitochondriato energize them.

127)

Which of the following activities is associated with lysosomes? A) Exocytosis B) Intracellular support C) Destruction of nonfunctional organelles D) Energy production E) Endocytosis

128)

What is a large, active phagocytic cell? A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract B) Sperm cell C) Columnar cells of small intestines D) Red blood cells E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

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129) You are looking at a cell with the electron microscope and you notice the following characteristics: presence of many mitochondria and lysosomes; few, if any, Golgi apparatus; and many ribosomes. Which of the following is the most likely function of that cell? A) Secretion of lipids B) Intracellular digestion C) DNA replication D) Modification of protein E) Absorption of nutrients

130)

The vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes are called_________blank. A) nucleus B) ribosomes C) lysosomes D) mitochondria E) centrioles

131)

A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved in A) secretion. B) storage of glycogen. C) detoxificationactivities. D) cellular communication. E) protein synthesis.

132) A cell that breaks down and recycles proteins would have large numbers of_________blank.

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A) rough ER B) lysosomes C) peroxisomes D) secretory vesicles E) proteosomes

133)

Which type of cell has abundant mitochondria? A) White blood cell, a phagocyte B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus) C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP) E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

134)

True or False? A mitochondrial disease is passed to offspring via the father. A) True B) False

135) A cell's ability to replenish ATP is reduced by a metabolic poison. Which organelle is being affected? A) Nucleus B) Centriole C) Microtubule D) Mitochondrion E) Ribosome

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136)

Experimental manipulation to increase the energy output of the cell might include A) rupturing the lysosomes in the cell. B) increasing the number of mitochondria. C) decreasing nuclear size. D) removing some of the ribosomes. E) increasing protein synthesis.

137)

Which of the following terms does NOT relate to the mitochondrion? A) Cristae B) Self-replicating C) Outer and inner membranes D) ATP E) Vitamin A storage

138) Olympic marathon runners train for several years. This endurance training causes which of the following organelles to increase in number in their muscle cells? A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum B) Enzymes for glycolysis C) Basal bodies D) Lysosomes E) Mitochondria

139)

Mitochondria

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A) contains DNA. B) have inner and outer membranes. C) have inner folds called cristae. D) are the cell's power plants. E) All of the choices are correct.

140)

Which organelle produces most of the cell's energy? A) Nucleus B) Ribosome C) Lysosome D) Mitochondrion E) Centriole

141)

A cell can meet increased energy demands by an increase in A) its overall size so it has more room to generate energy. B) the number of mitochondria. C) lysosomal enzyme and ribosome activity within the cell. D) nuclear DNA activity. E) ribosomal subunits.

142)

A cell uses centrioles in the process of A) cell division. B) energy generation. C) protein synthesis. D) RNA replication. E) nuclear centering.

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143)

The organelles involved with organization of the spindle fibers are the_________blank. A) nuclei B) ribosomes C) lysosomes D) mitochondria E) centrioles

144) The centrioles are found in a zone of cytoplasm close to the nucleus called the_________blank. A) cytogel B) cytosol C) vacuole D) centrosome E) proteasome

145)

Which type of cells are covered with microvilli for increased absorption? A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract B) Sperm cells C) Columnar cells of small intestines D) Red blood cells E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

146)

At the base of each cilium is a structure called the_________blank.

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A) kinetochore B) basal body C) dynein arm D) centrosome E) None of the choices are correct.

147) The shaft of a flagellum contains_________blank microtubule doublets around its periphery. A) 2 B) 2 + 9 C) 9 D) 2+7 E) 7

148)

Cilia and flagella are distinguished from each other on the basis of A) width and numbers. B) length and numbers. C) depth and numbers. D) length and width. E) None of the choices are correct.

149)

Which of the following cell structures do not contain microtubules?

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A) Cilia B) Flagella C) Spindle fibers D) Centrioles E) All of the choices contain microtubules.

150)

Microvilli A) are extensions of the lysosomal membrane. B) function to make the cell mobile. C) are supported by microtubules. D) move the cell. E) increase the surface area of the cell.

151) Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubules have extensions called_________blank, which increase their surface area. A) cilia B) hairs C) rugae D) microvilli E) flagella

152)

Which of the following is an organelle of locomotion?

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A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Nucleolus D) Peroxisomes E) Flagellum

153)

What is the only human cell with a flagellum? A) Columnar cell of upper respiratory tract B) Sperm cell C) Columnar cell of small intestine D) Red blood cell E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

154)

Which of the following are ciliated cells? A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract B) Sperm cells C) Columnar cells of small intestine D) Red blood cells E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

155) The transfer of information from DNA to messenger RNA (mRNA) is known as_________blank.

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A) transduction B) translocation C) translation D) transcription E) transmutation

156)

Which of the following sequences is correct? A) Translation → protein synthesis → transcription B) Transcription → translation → protein synthesis C) Transcription → protein synthesis → translation D) Translation → transcription → protein synthesis E) Protein synthesis → translation → transcription

157)

Which molecule(s) cause(s) a portion of a DNA molecule to unwind for transcription? A) RNA ploymerase B) Transcription factors C) Spliceosomes D) Poly—A tail E) 7—methylguanosine cap

158)

Transcription

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A) requires three types of RNA. B) synthesizes RNA from DNA. C) occurs at the ribosomes. D) copies information from mRNA to tRNA. E) synthesizes DNA from RNA.

159)

Translation A) requires three types of DNA. B) requires the pairing of codons on mRNA with anticodons on tRNA. C) involves synthesis of RNA from DNA molecules. D) takes place in the nucleus. E) requires replication of DNA.

160) A DNA base sequence is A T G C C G. The sequence of bases in a strand of mRNA transcribed from this sequence of bases in DNA would be A) T A C G G C. B) U T C G G U. C) U A C G G C. D) A U G C C G. E) T A G G G G.

161)

Messenger RNA

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A) is synthesized when a portion of a DNA molecule is transcribed. B) directs the synthesis of DNA. C) determines the sequence of nucleotides in the anticodons of tRNA. D) directs the synthesis of centrioles in the cytoplasm. E) is not involved in the synthesis of proteins.

162)

Which of the following molecules contains the anticodon? A) mRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) DNA E) None of the choices are correct.

163)

The anticodon sequence GUA pairs with which of the following codons? A) CAT B) GUA C) CTU D) CAU E) CTT

164)

The structural RNA of ribosomes is a A) pre-mRNA. B) proenzyme. C) gene. D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA). E) codon.

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165)

A mRNA containing introns is a_________blank. A) pre-mRNA B) proenzyme C) gene D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) E) codon

166) If the amino acid coding region of an mRNA molecule is 1800 nucleotides (bases) in length, this molecule will contain_________blank codons. A) 400 B) 600 C) 800 D) 900 E) 1200

167)

Which of the following is NOT true of a gene? A) It is all the triplets needed to make a functional RNA or protein. B) It is a segmentof a DNA molecule. C) Each chromosome contains one gene. D) It is the functional unit of heredity. E) All of the choices are true.

168) The sequence of nucleotides in a messenger RNA molecule is needed to determine the sequence of

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A) nucleotides in a gene. B) amino acids in a protein. C) nucleotides in the anticodons of tRNA. D) codons in DNA. E) amino acids in DNA.

169)

All triplets required to code for synthesis of a protein are a_________blank. A) pre-mRNA B) proenzyme C) gene D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) E) codon

170)

Three adjacent nucleotides in mRNA are called a_________blank. A) pre-mRNA B) proenzyme C) gene D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) E) codon

171)

Posttranscriptional processing is the modification of A) proteins to form pro-proteins. B) mRNA to form tRNA. C) pre-mRNA to formfunctional mRNA. D) exons to form introns. E) DNA.

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172)

Which of the following is NOT posttranslational processing? A) Adding polysaccharide side chains to proteins B) Joining 2 or more amino acid chains C) Conversion of a pro-protein to a functional protein D) Removal of introns from pre-mRNA E) Conversion of a pro-enzyme to a functional enzyme

173) Portions of pre-mRNA that do NOT code for parts of a protein are called_________blank. A) introns B) start codons C) exons D) stop codons E) Introns, start codons, and stop codons code for parts of a protein.

174) A DNA nucleotide sequence that signals the beginning of a gene is called a_________blank. A) transcription factor B) promoter C) triplet D) terminator E) RNA polymerase

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175) Determine the sequence of the following events in a cell after exposure of the cell to a chemical signal. (1) Increased synthesis of a protein (2) The chemical signal combined with a cytoplasmic receptor (3) An increase in the nuclear concentration of the chemical (4) An increase in mRNA synthesis (5) Genes are activated A) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 B) 2, 4, 5, 3, 2 C) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 D) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 E) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

176)

A protein that is converted to an active enzyme is a_________blank. A) pre-mRNA B) proenzyme C) gene D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) E) codon

177)

Which of the following is NOT associated with interphase? A) The centrioles duplicate. B) The cell grows. C) The cell does what it is designed to do. D) The cell does nothing but rest. E) The DNA replicates.

178)

DNA replication occurs during

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A) the G1 phase of interphase. B) telophase. C) the S phase of interphase. D) anaphase. E) metaphase.

179)

DNA replication results in two new DNA molecules. Each of these new molecules

A) has two newly synthesized strands of nucleotides. B) has one strand of nucleotides from the parent DNA and one newly synthesized strand of nucleotides. C) has two strands of nucleotides from the parent. D) has a single strand of nucleotides. E) are incomplete copies of the original.

180)

In DNA replication, A) the leading strand is formed as a continuous strand. B) new nucleotides are added at the 5' end of the growing DNA strand. C) DNA polymerase splices the short segments of the lagging strand together. D) only introns are replicated. E) the two existing strands are not used as templates.

181)

The leading strand of DNA is formed as

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A) short segments called Okazaki fragments. B) a continuous strand, adding to the 3´ end. C) a continuous strand, adding to the 5´ end. D) a template. E) soon as the lagging strand is formed.

182)

As cell division begins, DNA in the nucleus condenses to form_________blank. A) RNA B) cytosol C) genes D) chromosomes E) chromatin

183)

Mitosis forms A) two daughter cells with half the DNA of the parent cell. B) two daughter cells with the same amount of DNA as the parent cell. C) daughter cells called gametes. D) two daughter cells with twice the amount of DNA as the parent cell. E) one daughter cell and another incomplete cell.

184)

In prophase, A) the chromosomes condense, shorten, and thicken. B) the spindle fibers disappear. C) the chromosomes replicate. D) cytokinesis occurs. E) DNA is synthesized.

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185)

Which of the following events occurs during anaphase? A) Chromatin strands condense to form chromosomes. B) Chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the cell. C) Spindle fibers are formed. D) The nuclear envelope degenerates. E) Cytokinesiscompletes.

186)

In which part of the cell cycle do chromosomes align along the equator? A) Interphase B) Prophase C) Metaphase D) Anaphase E) Telophase

187)

Cytokinesis is completed at the end of this phase. A) Interphase B) Prophase C) Metaphase D) Anaphase E) Telophase

188)

The time between cell divisions is called_________blank.

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A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase

189)

Chromatin condenses and nucleoli disappear during_________blank. A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase

190)

Chromosomes begin migrating towards poles of the cell during_________blank. A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase

191) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution "B" relative to the RBC?

A) Hypotonic solution B) Hypertonic solution C) Isotonic solution

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192)

What is membrane potential?

A) The electrical charge difference across the plasma membrane resulting from differences in ion concentrations inside and outside the cell B) The ability of a membrane to actively transport carbohydrates out of the cytoplasm C) The rate of ATP production and transport by mitochondria D) The ability of molecules to pass through the nuclear envelope

193) Ion movement across the plasma membrane creates an electrical charge difference known as _________blank. A) membrane potential B) extracellular glycocalyx C) respiration D) transcription E) osmosis

194)

Which molecule determines the fluidity of the plasma membrane? A) Cholesterol B) Phospholipid C) Protein

195) Large molecules move across the plasma membrane with the help or assistance of protein carriers. This type of transport is generally called _________blank.

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A) Mediated transport B) Active transport C) Passive transport D) Vesicular transport

196)

What is mediated transport? A) The movement of molecules across a plasma membrane by means of a protein carrier B) The movement of vesicles by intermediate filaments C) The process of peptide synthesis on the surface of the ribosome D) The ability of molecules to pass through the nuclear envelope

197) In one form of endocytosis a molecule binds to a specific protein on the cell surface and triggers vesicle formation and endocytosis. What type of transport is this? A) Receptor-mediated endocytosis B) Pinocytosis C) Facilitated diffusion D) Active exocytosis

198) Internal structures of a cell that carry out specialized metabolic tasks are called _________blank. A) organelles B) ribosomes C) enzymes D) cytoskeletal elements

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199) Which term describes a small generic membrane-bound structure that transports substances to the plasma membrane for release by exocytosis? A) Secretory vesicle B) Centrosome C) Chromatid D) Proteosome granule E) Organelle

200)

The process by which there is programmed cellular death is _________blank. A) apoptosis B) differentiation C) mitosis D) cleavage

201) The presence of a cellular clock, presence of "death genes," and damage to DNA or mitochondria are all hypotheses of _________blank. A) aging B) death C) differentiation D) cleavage

202)

Which of these cells would most likely have the largest number of mitochondria? A) Bone cells B) Skeletal muscle cells C) Adipocytes D) Red blood cells E) Skin cells

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203) The RNA molecule that is synthesized in the nucleus from a DNA template is_________blank. A) tRNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) All of the choices are correct.

204) In_________blank, carrier molecules move a substance against (up) its concentration gradient. A) simple diffusion B) exocytosis C) facilitated diffusion D) active transport E) endocytosis

205) Which of these molecules is correctly matched with its method of movement through the plasma membrane? A) Lipid-soluble molecules – pass through membrane channels B) Small, water-soluble molecules (ions) – dissolve in double phospholipid layer C) Large, water-soluble molecules – transported by carrier-mediated processes D) Glucose and amino acid molecules – pass through membrane channels E) All of the choices are correctly paired.

206) If all of the peroxisomes in a cell were suddenly removed, how would this affect the cell's function?

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A) The cell would no longer be able to break down glucose. B) The cell would be unable to produce proteins. C) The cell would be unable to perform transcription. D) The cell would no longer be able to break down fatty acids, hydrogen peroxide, and amino acids. E) The cell would no longer be able to break down proteins and nucleic acids.

207) Some cancer cells have mutations in the p53 gene, often called the guardian of the genome. It normally functions to help repair damaged DNA or cause the elimination of severely altered cells. Which of the following functions is likely regulated by p53? A) Anaerobic respiration B) Translation C) Apoptosis D) Both "anaerobic respiration" and "translation" are correct.

208) An abnormal cell appears to generate too many proteins, many of which are not necessary, except in the early stages of the cell's life cycle. Which structures are most likely not functioning properly in this cell? A) Proteosomes B) Peroxisomes C) Mitochondria D) Centrioles

209) Which organelle's function would be most affected if a cell was not able to carry out exocytosis?

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A) Secretory vesicle B) Lysosome C) Proteosome D) Peroxisome

210) Which of the following membrane proteins must be an integral protein to carry out its function? A) Ion channel B) Receptor protein C) Enzyme D) Marker molecule

211) Protein A is composed of 312 amino acids. Based on this information, which of the following statements is correct? A) The gene coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides. B) The mRNA coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides. C) The gene coding for Protein A is composed of at least 316 RNA nucleotides. D) Both "The gene coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides" and "The mRNA coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides" are correct.

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212)

212.1) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "A"?

A) Directs cellular activities, contains DNA B) Contains digestive enzymes C) Outer boundary of cell, controls entry and exit of substances D) Major site of ATP synthesis when oxygen is available E) Site of protein synthesis

212.2) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "B"?

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212.3) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "C"?

212.4) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "D"?

212.5) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "E"?

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213)

213.1)

What structure does "A" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein B) Phospholipid bilayer C) Internal membrane surface D) Peripheral protein E) Integral protein

213.2) Version 1

What structure does "B" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? 68

A) Membrane channel protein B) Phospholipid bilayer C) Internal membrane surface D) Peripheral protein E) Integral protein

213.3)

What structure does "C" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein B) Phospholipid bilayer C) Internal membrane surface D) Peripheral protein E) Integral protein

213.4)

What structure does "D" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein B) Phospholipid bilayer C) Internal membrane surface D) Peripheral protein E) Integral protein

213.5)

What structure does "E" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein B) Phospholipid bilayer C) Internal membrane surface D) Peripheral protein E) Receptor protein

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214)

214.1) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution "C" relative to the RBC? A) Hypotonic solution B) Hypertonic solution C) Isotonic solution

214.2) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is the condition of the RBC in solution "C"? A) Phagocytized B) Normal C) Coagulated D) Hemolyzed E) Crenated

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214.3) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is the condition of the RBC in solution "B"?

A) Phagocytized B) Normal C) Coagulated D) Hemolyzed E) Crenated

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214.4) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution "A" relative to the RBC?

A) Hypotonic solution B) Hypertonic solution C) Isotonic solution

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215)

215.1)

Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "A" represent?

A) Chromatid B) Proteins C) Chromosome D) Centromere E) Chromatin

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215.2)

Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "B" represent?

A) Chromatid B) Proteins C) Chromosome D) Centromere E) Chromatin

215.3)

Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "C" represent?

A) Chromatid B) Proteins C) Chromosome D) Centromere E) Chromatin

215.4)

Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "D" represent?

A) Chromatid B) Proteins C) Chromosome D) Centromere E) Chromatin

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 03_13e_ VanPutte 1) [A, C, D] 2) [A, B, D, E] 3) [B, C] 4) B 5) B 6) A 7) B 8) E 9) C 10) C 11) B 12) E 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) E 17) B 18) E 19) E 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) E 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) B 30) E 31) C 32) E 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) A 38) A 39) C 40) E 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) B 49) E 50) D 51) B 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) C 56) B Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) C 60) A 61) A 62) B 63) E 64) C 65) A 66) B 67) B 68) A 69) E 70) B 71) D 72) A 73) C 74) A 75) E 76) B 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) D 81) D 82) B 83) C 84) B 85) D 86) B Version 1

87) D 88) A 89) C 90) C 91) D 92) D 93) A 94) C 95) D 96) A 97) D 98) D 99) A 100) C 101) B 102) C 103) D 104) A 105) A 106) E 107) C 108) B 109) D 110) D 111) D 112) A 113) E 114) A 115) B 116) C Version 1

117) B 118) A 119) E 120) B 121) A 122) C 123) D 124) A 125) D 126) A 127) C 128) E 129) B 130) C 131) C 132) E 133) D 134) B 135) D 136) B 137) E 138) E 139) E 140) D 141) B 142) A 143) E 144) D 145) C 146) B Version 1

147) C 148) B 149) E 150) E 151) D 152) E 153) B 154) A 155) D 156) B 157) A 158) B 159) B 160) C 161) A 162) C 163) D 164) D 165) A 166) B 167) C 168) B 169) C 170) E 171) C 172) D 173) E 174) B 175) C 176) B Version 1

177) D 178) C 179) B 180) A 181) B 182) D 183) B 184) A 185) B 186) C 187) E 188) A 189) B 190) D 191) B 192) A 193) A 194) A 195) A 196) A 197) A 198) A 199) A 200) A 201) A 202) B 203) D 204) D 205) C 206) D Version 1

207) C 208) A 209) A 210) A 211) A 212) Section Break 212.1) C 212.2) D 212.3) E 212.4) A 212.5) B 213) Section Break 213.1) B 213.2) A 213.3) E 213.4) D 213.5) C 214) Section Break 214.1) A 214.2) D 214.3) E 214.4) C 215) Section Break 215.1) C 215.2) E 215.3) D 215.4) A

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CHAPTER 4 1)

Identify the embryonic germ layers. (Check all that apply.) A) Ectodem B) Endoderm C) Epiderm D) Exoderm E) Mesoderm

Indicate the functions that apply to epithelial tissue. (Check all that apply.) A) Acting as a barrier B) Connecting tissue to each other C) Contraction in response to stimulation D) Secretion of substances

Which of the following represent functions of connective tissue? (Check all the apply.) A) Communication B) Contraction C) Cushioning D) Secretion of substances E) Enclosing organs F) Insulating G) Movement of body parts

Select all of the characteristics of connective tissue. (Check all that apply.)

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A) Bind other tissues and organs together B) Create new cells from other tissues C) Involved in delivering nutrients to the tissue D) Separate tissues from each other

5) Select all examples that demonstrate how inflammation protects the body. (Check all that apply.) A) Blood vessels become more permeable and allow white blood cells to move into damaged tissue more easily. B) Clotting that occurs helps to isolate injurious agents. C) During inflammation, blood vessels dilate, increasing the delivery of white blood cells to the area. D) Inflammation allows for the formation of antibodies that will help fight infectious agents.

6) Which of the following are considered major manifestations of inflammation? (Check all that apply.) A) Edema B) Heat C) Hemorrhage D) Pain E) Redness

Select the processes that result in the repair of injured tissue. (Check all that apply.)

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A) Atrophy B) Clotting C) Edema D) Necrosis E) Regeneration F) Replacement

8) Granulation tissue is a delicate, granular-appearing connective tissue that consists of which of the following? (Check all that apply.) A) Fibroblasts B) Collagen C) Capillaries D) Epithelial tissue

9) Which of the following occur due to changes in the cells, extracellular materials, and tissues in older adults? (Check all that apply.) A) Loss of elasticity of connective tissue B) Loss of flexibility of connective tissue C) Increase of neurons D) Increase of muscle cells E) Increase in collagen fibers

10)

Which of the following statements isnot true of mucous connective tissue?

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A) It is a type of embryonic connective tissue that gives rise to most adult connective tissue types. B) It is an important component of the umbilical cord. C) It can be an important source for stem cells. D) It is an embryonic connective tissue that supports the vascular connection between the mother and the fetus.

11)

The extracellular material of tissues is called_________blank. A) plasma B) lymph C) matrix D) fibroblast E) cytoplasm

12)

What is a collection of similar cells and surrounding substances? A) Organ B) Tissue C) Organ system D) Extracellular matrix E) Intracellular matrix

13)

What is the microscopic study of tissues?

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A) Anatomy B) Physiology C) Pathology D) Histology E) Embryology

14)

Which type of tissue forms linings or coverings? A) Epithelial tissue B) Connective tissue C) Muscle tissue D) Nervous tissue

15)

Which type of tissue contains cells called neurons? A) Epithelial tissue B) Connective tissue C) Muscle tissue D) Nervous tissue

16)

Which type of tissue is contractile? A) Epithelial tissue B) Connective tissue C) Muscle tissue D) Nervous tissue

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17)

Which type of tissue possesses an abundant extracellular matrix? A) Epithelial tissue B) Connective tissue C) Muscle tissue D) Nervous tissue

18)

The four primary tissue types are A) epithelial, cartilage, muscle, and brain. B) connective,epithelial, skin, and blood. C) epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous. D) glands, bone, lungs, and kidney. E) bone, skin, blood, and muscle.

19) What is the examination of a dead body to determine the cause of death or to study the changes caused by a disease? A) Autopsy B) Biopsy C) Histology D) Embryology E) All of the choices are correct.

20) What is the removal of a tissue sample from patients via surgery or needle to diagnose disease?

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A) Autopsy B) Biopsy C) Histology D) Postmortem exam E) All of the choices are correct.

21)

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Endoderm – bone B) Mesoderm – muscle C) Ectoderm – skin D) Neuroectoderm – nervous system E) Neural crest cells – peripheral nervous system, skin pigment, tissues of the face

22) The embryonic germ layer that is the source of connective tissue and muscle is_________blank. A) mesoderm B) endoderm C) ectoderm D) exoderm E) neuroectoderm

23)

Epithelial tissue is characterized by

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A) tightly packed cells. B) absence of any basement membrane. C) extensive extracellular matrix. D) a rich blood supply. E) Both "tightly packed cells" and "a rich blood supply" are correct.

24)

Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissue? A) Conduction of action potentials B) Secretion and absorption of molecules C) Support of other tissue types D) Contraction E) Shock absorption

25) Which of the following characteristics is NOT consistent with simple squamous epithelial tissue? A) Little extracellular material B) Rest on a basement membrane C) Has good blood supply within it D) The cells are thin and flat (not thick) E) Acts as a permeability barrier

26)

The various types of epithelium are classified by

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A) the size and shape of cells. B) the shape of cells and number of cell layers. C) the number of cell layers and size of the cells. D) the size and location of cells. E) function and size of cells.

27)

Which of the following categories of epithelium is based on cell shape? A) Columnar B) Keratinized C) Stratified D) Transitional E) Simple

28)

Stratified epithelium consists of A) multiple layers of cells. B) a single layer of cells. C) a single layer of cells that changes shape when the tissue is stretched. D) a multiple layer of cells that appears to change shape when the tissue is stretched. E) None of the choices are correct.

29) An epithelial tissue has multiple layers, flat and irregular cell shape, dead outer layers of cells, and keratin present in some cells. This is

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A) pseudostratified keratinized squamous epithelium. B) simple cuboidal epithelium. C) simple transitional epithelium. D) moist stratified squamous epithelium. E) stratified keratinized squamous epithelium.

30) To determine that a type of epithelium is squamous, which of the following is most important? A) The number of cell layers B) The shape of most of the epithelial cells C) The shape of the most superficial epithelial cells D) The shape of the basal epithelial cells E) The shape of the basement membrane

31)

The epidermis of the skin is composed of A) stratified cuboidal epithelium. B) simple squamous epithelium. C) stratified squamous epithelium. D) irregular dense fibrous connective tissue. E) stratified columnar epithelium.

32)

Which of the following epithelial types is mismatched with its function?

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A) Simple epithelium – diffusion B) Stratified epithelium – protection C) Squamous epithelium – stretching D) Cuboidal epithelium – absorption E) Columnar epithelium – secretion

33)

Which of the following statements concerning epithelial tissue is false?

A) Secretory epithelial cells are usually cuboidal or columnar in shape. B) The movement of materials through epithelium is enhanced by simple squamous epithelium. C) Stratified epithelium is adapted for a protective role. D) Columnar epithelial cells promote diffusion. E) Cuboidal epithelium is found in areas where absorption occurs.

34)

Epithelium that is primarily secretory in function would most likely be A) simple squamous. B) stratified squamous. C) keratinized columnar. D) transitional. E) simple cuboidal.

35)

Which type of epithelial tissue is found lining the trachea?

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A) Simple cuboidal epithelium B) Simple columnar epithelium C) Stratified squamous epithelium D) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium E) Transitional epithelium

36)

Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the mouth? A) Simple cuboidal epithelium B) Simple columnar epithelium C) Stratified squamous epithelium D) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium E) Transitional epithelium

37)

Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the stomach? A) Simple cuboidal epithelium B) Simple columnar epithelium C) Stratified squamous epithelium D) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium E) Transitional epithelium

38)

Which type of epithelial tissue are found in the kidney tubules? A) Simple cuboidal epithelium B) Simple columnar epithelium C) Stratified squamous epithelium D) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium E) Transitional epithelium

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39)

Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the urinary bladder? A) Simple cuboidal epithelium B) Simple columnar epithelium C) Stratified squamous epithelium D) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium E) Transitional epithelium

40) Which epithelial tissue can be described as "all cells attached to the basement membrane but not all cells reach free surfaces"? A) Stratified B) Transitional C) Columnar D) Simple E) Pseudostratified

41)

Which tissue type forms glands? A) Connective B) Epithelial C) Muscle D) Nervous E) Neuroectoderm

42)

Which of the following statements concerning epithelial cell surfaces is false?

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A) Smooth surfaces reduce friction. B) Epithelium with folded surfaces tends to be very rigid. C) Cilia propel materials along the surface of an epithelial cell. D) Epithelial cells with microvilli are involved in absorption. E) Epithelium with folded surfaces can change shape.

43) Which of the following cell structures would be most important in secretory epithelial cells? A) Cilia B) Golgi apparatus C) Lysosomes D) Desmosomes E) Microtubules

44) If one of the functions of the capillaries is to supply body cells with oxygen and nutrients, you would expect the capillary walls to consist of A) connective tissue. B) keratinized epithelium. C) stratified squamous epithelium. D) simple columnar epithelium. E) simple squamous epithelium.

45)

Epithelial tissue that can stretch or is subjected to stress would have_________blank.

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A) desmosomes B) gap junctions C) tight junctions D) basement junctions E) intercalated discs

46)

The type of cell connection that serves as a permeability barrier is a_________blank. A) hemidesmosome B) desmosome C) gap junction D) intercalated disc E) tight junction

47)

An intercalated disc is an example location of_________blank. A) hemidesmosome B) an adhesion belt C) a striation D) gap junctions E) goblet cells

48)

Structures that function in intercellular communication include_________blank. A) desmosomes B) tight junctions C) hemidesmosomes D) gap junctions E) centrioles

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49) What is a small protein channel that allows the passage of ions and small molecules between cells? A) Hemidesmosomes B) Adhesion belt C) Tight junction D) Gap junction E) Desmosomes

50) What is a disc-shaped structure with especially adhesive glycoproteins around each cell that bind cells to one another? A) Hemidesmosomes B) Adhesion belt C) Tight junction D) Gap junction E) Desmosomes

51)

What is the girdle of glycoproteins just below the tight junction between epithelial cells? A) Hemidesmosomes B) Adhesion belt C) Intercalated disks D) Gap junction E) Desmosomes

52) What is the permeability barrier that joins the plasma membranes of adjacent cells to form a tight seal?

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A) Hemidesmosomes B) Adhesion belt C) Tight junction D) Gap junction E) Desmosomes

53)

What attaches epithelial cells to the basement membrane? A) Hemidesmosomes B) Adhesion belt C) Tight junction D) Gap junction E) Desmosomes

54) A tissue has the following characteristics: free surface, single layer of cells, cells are narrow and tall, microvilli, many mitochondria, goblet cells. Which of the following is most consistent with those observations? (1) Active transport (2) Epithelium (3) Simple epithelium (4) Columnar epithelium (5) Cuboidal epithelium (6) Squamous epithelium (7) Secretion by exocytosis (8) Movement of mucous across its surface A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 7 B) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 8 D) 2, 3, 4, 8 E) 2, 3, 4, 7

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55)

Unlike an exocrine gland, an endocrine gland A) is a secretory organ. B) sheds cells with its secretions. C) has no ducts. D) contains goblet cells. E) secretes to a surface.

56)

The secretions of endocrine glands are released directly A) onto the skin surface. B) into the bloodstream. C) into a gland duct. D) into the nervous tissue. E) into the lumen of a tube.

57)

Glands whose ducts have no branches are called_________blank. A) simple B) compound C) acinar D) alveolar E) branchless

58)

A gland with branching ducts that end in acini would be classified as

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A) simple acinar. B) compound acinar. C) simple branched tubular. D) multicellular. E) simple coiled tubular.

59)

A thick, sticky secretion produced by goblet cells is called_________blank. A) serous fluid B) synovial fluid C) plasma D) saliva E) mucus

60)

Which type of gland does not have ducts? A) Exocrine B) Endocrine C) Merocrine D) Apocrine E) Holocrine

61)

Which type of gland releases products by secretion into the blood? A) Exocrine B) Endocrine C) Merocrine D) Apocrine E) Holocrine

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62)

Which type of gland possesses ducts? A) Exocrine B) Endocrine C) Ectocrine D) Epicrine E) Hypocrine

63)

Which of the following is classified as a holocrine gland? A) Sweat gland B) Salivary gland C) Sebaceous gland D) Mammary gland E) Exocrine part of pancreas

64)

Which type of exocrine gland uses exocytosis to secrete its product? A) Merocrine B) Apocrine C) Holocrine D) Endocrine E) Solocrine

65) A gland produces a watery secretion that contains solutes. The secretion also contains a substantial amount of phospholipid. The type of secretory process for this gland is probably_________blank.

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A) merocrine B) holocrine C) apocrine D) endocrine E) a combination of merocrine and apocrine.

66) Which type of gland accumulates its secretion in the cytoplasm of the cell, the cell then ruptures and becomes part of the secretion? A) Merocrine B) Apocrine C) Holocrine

67)

Which type of gland discharges fragments of the gland's cells during secretion? A) Exocrine B) Endocrine C) Merocrine D) Apocrine E) Holocrine

68)

Which of the following is NOT a function of connective tissue? A) Transport B) Support C) Storage D) Contraction E) Insulation

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69)

A general characteristic of connective tissue is that it A) consists of cells with much extracellular material (matrix) between them. B) has no blood supply to the tissue. C) covers the outside of organs. D) is commonly found lining body cavities. E) contracts.

70)

A cell that forms fibrous connective tissue would be called a_________blank. A) fibroclast B) fibrocyte C) fibroblast D) fibroid E) fibromast

71)

Macrophages are cells specialized for_________blank. A) support B) absorption C) secretion D) phagocytosis E) transport

72)

Which type of cell has the potential to differentiate to form adult cell types?

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A) Mast cell B) Adipocyte C) Osteoclast D) Stem cell E) Macrophage

73) Which type of cell phagocytizes foreign or injured cells and plays a major role in providing protection against infections? A) Mast cell B) Adipocyte C) Osteoclast D) Stem cell E) Macrophage

74) Which type of cell releases chemicals in response to injury and plays an important role in inflammation? A) Mast cell B) Adipocyte C) Osteoclast D) Stem cell E) Macrophage

75)

Which type of cell contains large amounts of lipids?

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A) Mast cell B) Adipocyte C) Osteoclast D) Stem cell E) Macrophage

76)

Which type of cell breaks down bone tissue? A) Mast cell B) Adipocyte C) Osteoclast D) Stem cell E) Macrophage

77)

Blood cells are produced in hemopoietic tissue found in A) yellow bone marrow. B) brown bone marrow. C) red bone marrow. D) white bone marrow. E) compact bone.

78)

Which type of cell forms cartilage? A) Osteoblast B) Osteoclast C) Osteocyte D) Fibroblast E) Chondroblast

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79)

Cells that maintain bone are called_________blank. A) osteoblasts B) osteoclasts C) osteocytes D) fibroblasts E) chondroblasts

80)

Which type of cell forms protein fibers in connective tissue proper? A) Osteoblast B) Osteoclast C) Osteocyte D) Fibroblast E) Chondroblast

81)

Cells that break down bone are called_________blank. A) osteoblasts B) osteoclasts C) osteocytes D) fibroblasts E) chondroblasts

82)

Which type of cell forms bone?

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A) Osteoblast B) Osteoclast C) Osteocyte D) Fibroblast E) Chondroblast

83)

The three types of protein fibers found in connective tissue are A) hyaluronic acid, collagen, and reticular fibers. B) proteoglycan, elastin, and reticular fibers. C) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers. D) proteoglycan, elastin, and hyaluronic acid. E) chondronectic, osteonectin, and fibronectin.

84) Collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers in connective tissues are all considered_________blank. A) phospholipids B) carbohydrates C) adipose tissue D) proteins E) triglycerides

85)

Which of the following statements concerning collagen is false?

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A) Collagen is a common protein in the body. B) Collagen is composed of collagen α-chains. C) Collagen is strong and flexible. D) Collagen is elastic and stretches. E) There are at least 20 different types of collagen in the body.

86)

A coiled fibrous protein in connective tissue that is stretchy is called_________blank. A) a reticular fiber B) proteoglycan C) elastin D) collagen E) hyaluronic acid

87)

The extracellular matrix of connective tissue contains_________blank. A) adipose B) plasma C) serous fluid D) synoval fluid E) proteoglycans

88) A long, unbranched polysaccharide found in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue is_________blank. A) proteoglycan B) tropocollagen C) hyaluronic acid D) chondronectin

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89) Which of the following is NOT an adhesive molecule found in the ground substance of connective tissue? A) Fibronectin B) Chondronectin C) Chondroitin sulfate D) Osteonectin

90)

Hyaluronic acid gives a very slippery quality to fluids that contain it. Hyaluronic acid A) resists stretching. B) functions as an insulator. C) is a good lubricant for joint cavities. D) promotes oxygen transport in the plasma. E) is a protein.

91)

Which of the following matrix molecules tends to trap large quantities of water? A) Collagen B) Proteoglycan C) Elastin D) Hyaluronic acid E) Reticular fibers

92) Proteoglycans trap large quantities of water, allowing them to assume their original shape after compression. Based on these characteristics, where are they most likely found in the body?

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A) Neurons B) Tendons C) Muscles D) Intervertebral discs E) Bones

93) Which of the following molecules consists of numerous polysaccharides attached to a protein core? A) Collagen B) Proteoglycan C) Elastin D) Reticulin E) Hyaluronic acid

94)

Which of the following type of connective tissue is mismatched with its matrix? A) Areolar – loosely packed matrix of protein fibers B) Bone – mineralized matrix C) Cartilage – highly vascular matrix D) Blood – fluid matrix E) Bone – highly vascular

95) An infant is born with a genetic defect that greatly reduces production of brown fat. Which of the following will most likely apply to this infant?

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A) The infant will have difficulty absorbing nutrients at the small intestine. B) The infant will have difficulty regulating his body temperature. C) The infant will have very stretchy tendons. D) The infant will have reduced bone mass. E) The infant will have difficulty breathing.

96)

Connective tissue is separated into subgroups based on the A) cell number. B) shape of the cells. C) number of cell layers. D) protein types. E) structure of the extracellular matrix.

97)

Connective tissue in tendons is A) dense regular collagenous tissue. B) dense regular elastic tissue. C) dense irregular collagenous tissue. D) dense irregular elastic tissue. E) reticular tissue.

98)

Which of the following statements concerning connective tissue is true? A) Areolar tissue is tightly packed. B) Dense connective tissue has a fluid matrix. C) Mast cells are found in abundance in dense connective tissue. D) Collagen fibers provide strength to dense connective tissue. E) Elastic tissue is flexible, but not stretchy.

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99)

Dense regular collagenous connective tissue would be found in A) a nerve. B) the brain. C) a ligament. D) a skull bone. E) a lymph node.

100) Which of the following structures is likely to consist of dense irregular collagenous connective tissue? A) Tendons B) Cartilage C) Elastic ligaments D) Bone E) Dermis of the skin

101) A tissue has the following characteristics: abundant extracellular matrix, abundant collagen fibers, collagen fibers mainly parallel to each other. Which of the following injuries results in damage to this kind of tissue? A) Broken femur bone B) Bullet penetrating the abdominal wall C) Broken nose D) Tear in the cartilage of the knee E) Tear in the tissue that attaches the gastrocnemius muscle to bone

102)

Reticular tissue is found in

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A) muscles. B) long bones. C) lymphatic organs. D) the intestinal lining. E) nervous tissue.

103)

Adipose tissue A) functions as an insulator and a site of energy storage. B) exists in three forms: yellow, red, and brown. C) contains large amounts of extracellular matrix. D) is composed of relatively small cells. E) does not contain lipids.

104) Intervertebral discs exhibit a great deal of strength because of the presence of thick bundles of_________blank. A) elastin B) proteoglycan C) collagen D) hydroxyapatite E) calcium

105)

Cartilage heals slowly after an injury because

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A) this tissue type is very complex. B) it contains so much proteoglycan. C) it has few, if any, blood vessels. D) it is a dead, rather than a living, tissue. E) it contains no fibroblasts.

106) The type of connective tissue that contains chondrocytes, a rigid matrix of collagen fibers and proteoglycan-hyaluronic acid aggregates and few, if any, blood vessels is_________blank. A) cartilage B) bone tissue C) adipose tissue D) fibrous connective tissue E) muscle tissue

107)

Which type of connective tissue is found in the external ears? A) Hyaline cartilage B) Fibrocartilage C) Elastic cartilage D) Dense irregular elastic tissue E) Dense regular collagenous tissue

108)

Which type of connective tissue is found between the vertebrae?

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A) Hyaline cartilage B) Fibrocartilage C) Elastic cartilage D) Dense irregular elastic tissue E) Dense regular collagenous tissue

109)

Which type of connective tissue forms most of the skeleton before it is replaced by bone? A) Hyaline cartilage B) Fibrocartilage C) Elastic cartilage D) Dense irregular elastic tissue E) Dense regular collagenous tissue

110)

Which type of connective tissue is found in tendons and ligaments? A) Hyaline cartilage B) Fibrocartilage C) Elastic cartilage D) Dense irregular elastic tissue E) Dense regular collagenous tissue

111)

Which type of connective tissue is found in the walls of large arteries? A) Hyaline cartilage B) Fibrocartilage C) Elastic cartilage D) Dense irregular elastic tissue E) Dense regular collagenous tissue

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112)

Bone A) contains dead cells. B) is not rigid. C) does not contain protein fibers. D) has a rich blood supply. E) is avascular.

113)

Lamellae are characteristic of A) compact bone tissue. B) cancellous bone tissue. C) spongy bone tissue. D) hyaline cartilage. E) fibrocartilage.

114)

Which of the following is found in spongy bone but not compact bone? A) Osteocytes in lacunae B) Hydroxyapatite C) Trabeculae D) Collagen E) Matrix

115)

A tissue that has a fluid matrix is_________blank.

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A) blood B) adipose tissue C) areolar tissue D) cartilage E) bone

116)

Muscle tissue is characterized by its A) strength. B) durability. C) contractility. D) rigidity. E) avascularity.

117) A muscle that is not consciously controlled and has a banded appearance would be described as A) striated voluntary. B) striated involuntary. C) nonstriated voluntary. D) nonstriated involuntary. E) smooth voluntary.

118) Movement of food through the digestive tract results from the action of_________blank muscle.

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A) cardiac B) smooth C) skeletal D) striated E) voluntary

119)

Which type of muscle is found in the wall of the digestive tract? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle

120)

Which type of muscle is attached to bones? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle

121)

Which type of muscle is found in the wall of the heart? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle

122)

The type of muscle found in the walls of blood vessels is_________blank muscle.

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A) cardiac B) smooth C) striated D) voluntary E) skeletal

123)

Which of the following is associated with nervous tissue? A) Axon B) Desmosome C) Intercalated disc D) Lacuna E) Osteocyte

124)

A pseudo-unipolar neuron is characterized by the presence of A) one dendrite. B) two dendrites. C) three dendrites. D) four dendrites. E) no dendrites.

125)

Which of the following is correctly matched with its description?

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A) Neurons – supportive cells of the nervous system B) Axons – conduct action potentials away from the cell body C) Glia – the conducting cell of the nervous system D) Dendrite – rapidly dividing cell E) Axon – carry action potentials toward the cell body

126)

The support and protection of neurons are provided by_________blank. A) dendrites B) ligaments C) glia D) neurons E) axons

127)

What type of process conducts nerve impulses toward the cell body? A) Mesodermal process B) Glial process C) Membranous process D) Dendrite E) Axon

128)

Support cells of the brain and spinal cord are called_________blank.

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A) mesoderm B) glia C) neurons D) fibroblasts E) acinar

129)

A thin layer of tissue that covers an organ or lines a cavity is a_________blank. A) tendon B) lamella C) membrane D) dendrite E) mesentery

130)

The type of membrane that lines freely movable joints is a_________blank membrane. A) serous B) synovial C) mucous D) visceral E) pleural

131) The type of membrane that protects internal organs from friction is a_________blank membrane.

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A) serous B) synovial C) mucous D) partial E) plasma

132) Which type of membrane does not open to the exterior, does not contain glands, but does secrete fluid? A) Serous B) Mucous C) Synovial D) Gobletal E) Cutaneous

133) Which type of membrane lines cavities that open to the outside and often contains mucous glands? A) Serous B) Mucous C) Synovial D) Gobletal E) Cutaneous

134)

Which type of membrane lines joint cavities?

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A) Serous B) Mucous C) Synovial D) Gobletal E) Cutaneous

135)

In the inflammatory response, clotting proteins form a clot. This action A) stimulates pain receptors. B) increases the permeability of blood vessels. C) walls off foreign particles and microbes. D) produces edema. E) phagocytizes microbes.

136) Which of the following occurs when the permeability of blood vessels increases during inflammation? A) Removal of foreign material from the blood B) Increased blood flow to the area C) Redness and heat at the injury site D) Migration of white blood cells to the site of injury E) No change in osmotic balance between blood and tissues

137) Which of the following tissue change occurs when the permeability of blood vessels increases during inflammation?

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A) Removal of foreign material from the blood B) Increased blood flow to the area C) Redness and heat at the injury site D) No change in osmotic balance between blood and tissues E) Edema

138) Which of the following occur as a result of inhibiting the release of chemical mediators of inflammation shortly after injury in a tissue? (1) Stimulation of pain receptors (2) Reduced stimulation of pain receptors (3) Increased permeability of blood vessels (4) Reduced permeability of blood vessels (5) Edema (6) Reduced redness A) 1, 3, 5, 6 B) 2, 4, 5, 6 C) 1, 2, 5, 6 D) 2, 4, 6 E) 1, 2, 5

139) When someone steps on a sharp object like a nail, inflammation and infection can be severe but localized. Which of the following functions limited the size of the injured area to the greatest degree? A) Swelling B) Coagulation of plasma proteins C) Vasodilation D) Increased temperature E) Loss of function

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140)

Which of the following are symptoms of inflammation? A) Swelling, bleeding, and numbness B) Heat, swelling, and blistering C) Blistering, pain, and swelling D) Pain, redness, and bleeding E) Redness, heat, and pain

141)

Which of the following statements concerning the process of tissue repair is false?

A) In regeneration, destroyed cells are replaced by the same type of cells. B) In replacement, a new type of tissue develops that eventually results in scar production. C) Labile cells cannot be replaced by the process of regeneration. D) Stable cells do not actively replicate after growth but retain the ability to regenerate. E) Permanent cells have a limited ability to replicate.

142)

In the process of tissue repair, which of the events listed below occurs last? A) The wound fills with blood and a clot forms. B) Granulation tissue develops. C) A scab forms to seal the wound. D) An inflammatory response occurs. E) Fibroblasts migrate to the area.

143)

Suturing a large wound

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A) allows healing by secondary union. B) reduces risk of infection and helps to heal faster. C) increases scar formation. D) leads to wound contracture. E) prevents scarring.

144)

Which type of cell ingests bacteria? A) Fibroblast B) Chondrocyte C) Neutrophil D) Red blood cell E) Mast cell

145)

What is formed from granulation tissue? A) Edema B) Secondary union C) Epithelial tissue D) Scar

146)

An accumulation of fluid in the tissue spaces is called_________blank. A) edema B) secondary union C) a scab D) granulation tissue E) a scar

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147)

What occurs when wound edges are far apart? A) Edema B) Secondary union C) Neutrophil inactivation D) Granulation tissue

148) A delicate connective tissue composed of fibroblasts, collagen, and capillaries is called_________blank. A) simple squamous epithelium B) scab C) injury seal D) granulation tissue E) scar

149)

Which of the following is not characteristic of aging at the tissue level? A) Arterial walls become less elastic. B) Injuries heal rapidly and more completely in older people. C) Connective tissue experience reduced flexibility and elasticity. D) Atherosclerosis develops. E) Rate of red blood cell synthesis declines.

150)

Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder associated with_________blank tissue.

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A) epithelial B) connective C) muscular D) nervous E) All choices are correct.

151)

What is a malignant tumor derived from epithelial tissue? A) Sarcoma B) Lymphoma C) Carcinoma D) Melanoma E) Both "Carcinoma" and "Sarcoma" are correct.

152)

What is a malignant tumor derived from connective tissue? A) Melanoma B) Lymphoma C) Sarcoma D) Carcinoma E) Both "Carcinoma" and "Sarcoma" are correct.

153) An aggregation of cells and extracellular materials which performs a discrete function is known as a/an _________blank. A) organ B) organelle C) tissue D) cell

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154) A collection of specialized cells and extra-cellular substances around them is known as a/an _________blank. A) organ B) organelle C) tissue D) organism

155)

The extracellular material of a tissue is called the _________blank. A) connective tissue B) matrix C) ectoderm D) cytoplasm

156)

Which of the following terms correctly identifies the name of an embryonic germ layer? A) Ectoderm B) Exoderm C) Epiderm

157) Because it forms covering and lining layers for body structures, _________blank tissue has very little extracellular matrix. A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nervous

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158) Which type of tissue has little extracellular matrix because it forms covering and lining layers for body structures? A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous

159) Indicate the class of tissue that is capable of regeneration, is avascular, and consists of cells that are bound to each other via specialized junctions. A) Epithelial tissue B) Connective tissue C) Muscle tissue D) Nervous tissue

160)

What is the function of the basement membrane? A) Adhere epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue B) Attach skin to underlying muscle tissue C) Secrete mucus D) House stem cells for new cell production

161) Support, attachment of tissues, cushioning and protection are examples of functions for _________blank tissue. A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nervous

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162) This type of tissue is composed of closely packed adipocytes and forms a protective cushion around organs, insulate the body, and serves as an energy reserve. A) Adipose tissue B) Areolar tissue C) Loose connective tissue D) Epidermal tissue

163) Which type of tissue attaches to the underlying muscles and supports the framework for body organs? A) Adipose tissue B) Areolar tissue C) Reticular tissue D) Epidermal tissue

164) Of the four primary classes of tissues, the tissue that consists of elongated fibers that are specialized to contract in response to stimulation is _________blank. A) Epithelial tissue B) Connective tissue C) Muscle tissue D) Nervous tissue

165)

Muscular tissue consists of which type of cells or fibers? A) Elongated fibers (cells) that are specialized to contract B) Cells with multiple processes that are specialized to send electrical signals C) Elongated fibers (cells) surrounded by abundant matrix D) Spherical cells designed for storage

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166) A swollen, painful area of the skin that is also hot and red are symptoms that accompany which process? A) Circulatory shock B) Edema C) Fever D) Inflammation

167)

Which two processes function in the repair of injured tissue? A) Edema and clotting B) Necrosis and atrophy C) Regeneration and replacement D) Edema and regeneration E) Necrosis and replacement

168)

In _________blank, the new cells are the same type as those that were destroyed. A) Regeneration B) Replacement C) Necrosis

169)

What is a scar?

A) A large amount of granulation tissue converted to dense irregular collagenous connective tissue during tissue repair B) The product of the drying out of a blood clot that occurs during primary union C) Necrotic tissue that is avascular and consists of a mixture of dead cells and fluid

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170)

The connective tissue of _________blank adults is less elastic and less flexible. A) younger B) older

171) _________blank epithelium is the most widespread epithelium in the body, whereas_________blank epithelium is rare. A) Simple columnar; stratified columnar B) Stratified squamous; stratified columnar C) Pseudostratified; stratified squamous D) Simple cuboidal; stratified squamous E) Stratified squamous; simple squamous

172) _________blank epithelium is associated with rapid transport of substances through a membrane, whereas_________blank epithelium is associated with resistance to abrasion. A) Simple columnar; transitional B) Simple squamous; stratified squamous C) Simple cuboidal; pseudostratified D) Pseudostratified; simple squamous E) Pseudostratified; simple cuboidal

173) Which of the following is not a feature that almost all connective tissues have in common?

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A) Most cells arenot in direct contact with each other. B) Ground substanceis so scarce that it is not visible with a light microscope. C) Cells usuallyoccupy less space than the extracellular material. D) Protein fibersare usually present in the ground substance. E) Most connectivetissues are highly vascular.

174) An example of a highly vascular tissue is_________blank tissue. An example of a tissue that is not highly vascular is_________blank. A) epithelial;cartilage B) muscular; osseoustissue C) dense regularconnective; dense irregular connective tissue D) areolar;cartilage E) nervous; osseoustissue

175)

Which of the following is not a feature that connective tissues have in common? A) Very conspicuousfibers B) The presence offibroblasts C) The presence ofcollagen D) Ground substancewith a gelatinous to rubbery consistency E) A calcifiedmatrix

176) Marfan syndrome is a hereditary defect of elastin fibers. People with this syndrome have_________blank.

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A) hyperextensiblejoints B) a smallcranium C) elastic bones D) stronger bones E) viscous blood

177) Which of the following does not account for the gelatinous consistency of connective tissue ground substance? A) Glycosaminoglycans B) Proteoglycans C) Chondroitinsulfate D) Hyaluronicacid E) Collagen

178)

Collagenous fibers are very abundant in_________blank. A) blood and hyalinecartilage B) blood, adiposetissue, and osseous tissue C) ligaments, bones,and the most superficial portion of the skin D) tendons,ligaments, and the deeper portion of the skin E) areolar tissue,tongue, and bones

179) Fibroblasts and protein fibers are associated with both_________blank and_________blank.

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A) dense regular;dense irregular connective tissues B) plasma; formedelements C) elasticcartilage; hyaline cartilage D) spongy bone;compact (dense) bone E) adipose tissue;reticular tissue

180) _________blank exhibits a lot of apparently empty space, and is found in many serous membranes. A) Blood B) Areolar tissue C) Osseous tissue D) Dense irregular connective tissue E) Adipose tissue

181)

Astronauts in zero gravity are able to move food through their digestive tracts because

A) smooth muscle produces waves of contractions that propel material through the digestive tract. B) skeletal muscle puts pressure on the digestive tract. C) cardiac muscle maintains a high pressure that moves material through the digestive tract. D) striated muscle creates a pressure gradient that forces material from one end of the digestive tract to the other. E) skeletal muscle sphincters contract and allow materials to move through the digestive tract.

182) A connective tissue fiber refers to a(n)_________blank and a muscle fiber refers to a/an_________blank.

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A) entire cell; tissue B) entire cell; part of a cell C) entire cell; complex of macromolecules D) complex of macromolecules; part of a cell E) complex of macromolecules; entire cell

183) In the intestine,_________blank ensure(s) that most digested nutrients pass through the epithelial cells and not between them. A) the plasmamembrane B) desmosomes C) tight junctions D) gap (communicating) junctions E) ground substance

184) The membrane that lines the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts consists of A) simple squamousepithelium and dense irregular connective tissue B) areolar and denseirregular connective tissue C) epithelium andlamina propria D) areolar tissueand lamina propria E) simple squamousepithelium and areolar tissue

185) The pseudostratified columnar epithelium of the bronchi in smokers may transform into stratified squamous epithelium. This is an example of_________blank.

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A) regeneration B) replacement C) atrophy D) differentiation E) hyperplasia

186) If mesenchymal cells experience mutation during development, which of the following structures is most likely affected by the mutation? A) Bones B) Cartilage C) Tendons D) All of the choices are correct.

187) A tissue sample has the following components: calcified matrix, collagen, and fibroblasts. Sandy has identified it as bone, but her instructor stated that was incorrect. Which statements below should her instructor use to explain the error? A) Bone tissue would have osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes present. B) Bone tissue has elastin fibers, not collagen fibers. C) Fibroblasts are only present in cartilage tissue. D) Calcified matrix is a characteristic of cartilage not bone tissue.

188)

Which of the following statements accurately represents labile cells?

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A) Labile cells are important to the body, providing a source for new cells to replace those that are damaged. B) Labile cells, such as neurons, have a very limited ability to divide. C) Labile cells are only found in the hemopoietic tissue of red bone marrow. D) Labile cells are eliminated from the body after birth of the fetus.

189) The liver is able to regenerate after a portion of it is surgically removed. How is this possible? A) Stabile cells of the liver are able to divide and replace the removed liver tissue. B) Permanent cells of the liver are able to divide and replace the removed liver tissue. C) New cells are not formed; the remaining tissue just spreads out, filling the newly formed space. D) Neurons associated with the liver differentiate into liver cells to replace the missing tissue.

190) Three students were asked to identify the type of muscle tissue that makes up the arrector pili, a structure that moves the hair relative to the skin. Which of the following answers correctly identifies the muscle tissue type? A) Student 1 stated that it is smooth muscle, eliminating cardiac muscle because the tissue is not located in the heart and skeletal muscle because it is not under voluntary control. B) Student 2 stated that it is cardiac muscle, eliminating smooth muscle because it is not associated with blood vessels and skeletal muscle because it is not attached to bones. C) Student 3 stated that it is skeletal muscle, eliminating cardiac muscle because it is not located in the heart and smooth muscle because it is not part of blood vessels.

191) A tissue functions to provide protection for an exposed surface. This tissue is most likely_________blank.

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A) simple squamous epithelial tissue B) stratified squamous epithelial tissue C) fibrous connective tissue D) transitional epithelial tissue

192) A tissue sample has the following characteristics: large cells with many processes, one which is very long; smaller cells scattered amongst the larger cells. Which of the following statements accurately identifies the tissue? A) The tissue is nervous tissue. The large cells are neurons with dendrites and a long axon, and the smaller cells are glia. B) The tissue is dense irregular connective elastic tissue. The large cells are fibroblasts with attached collagen fibers, and the smaller cells are glia. C) The tissue is nervous tissue. The large cells are fibroblasts with dendrites and collagen fibers, and the smaller cells are squamous cells. D) The tissue is dense regular connective tissue. The large cells are neurons with dendrites and a long axon, and the smaller cells are fibroblasts.

193) A patient has been diagnosed with a condition resulting from inflammation of tissue associated with the lungs. Which statement best clarifies the condition? A) There is inflammation of the pleura, the serous membranes associated with the lungs. B) There is inflammation of the mucous membranes associated with the lungs. C) There is inflammation of the peritoneum, the synovial membrane associated with the lungs. D) There is inflammation of the cutaneous membrane associated with the lungs.

194) A glandular secretion has been analyzed and indicates the presence of cytoplasmic components that include DNA and nuclear proteins. This indicates_________blank mode of secretion.

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A) holocrine B) merocrine C) autocrine D) eccrine

195)

Which of the following is an example of labile cells?

A) Hemocytoblasts are cells that divide and give rise to multiple types of blood cells. B) Liver cells have the ability to divide and give rise to other liver cells. C) Skeletal muscle fibers increase in size by adding more cytoplasmic components. D) Both "hemocytoblasts are cells that divide and give rise to multiple types of blood cells" and "liver cells have the ability to divide and give rise to other liver cells" are correct.

196)

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196.1)

This is a diagram of a multipolar neuron. What does "A" represent?

A) Nucleus of neuron B) Dendrite C) Cell body of neuron D) Axon E) Glia cells

196.2)

This is a diagram of a multipolar neuron. What does "B" represent?

A) Nucleus of neuron B) Dendrite C) Cell body of neuron D) Axon E) Glia cells

196.3)

This is a diagram of a multipolar neuron. What does "C" represent?

A) Nucleus of neuron B) Dendrite C) Cell body of neuron D) Axon E) Glia cells

196.4)

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This is a diagram of a multipolar neuron. What does "D" represent?

A) Nucleus of neuron B) Dendrite C) Cell body of neuron D) Axon E) Glia cells

196.5)

This is a diagram of a multipolar neuron. What does "E" represent?

A) Nucleus of neuron B) Dendrite C) Cell body of neuron D) Axon E) Glia cells

197)

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197.1)

This is a figure of a skin wound. What does "A" represent?

A) Dermis B) Subcutaneous adipose tissue C) Epidermis D) Blood vessel E) Blood clot

197.2)

This is a figure of a skin wound. What does "B" represent?

A) Dermis B) Subcutaneous adipose tissue C) Epidermis D) Blood vessel E) Blood clot

197.3)

This is a figure of a skin wound. What does "C" represent?

A) Dermis B) Subcutaneous adipose tissue C) Epidermis D) Blood vessel E) Blood clot

197.4)

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This is a figure of a skin wound. What does "D" represent?

A) Dermis B) Subcutaneous adipose tissue C) Epidermis D) Blood vessel E) Blood clot

197.5)

This is a figure of a skin wound. What does "E" represent?

A) Dermis B) Subcutaneous adipose tissue C) Epidermis D) Blood vessel E) Blood clot

198) True or False? The basal lamina is only one portion of the basement membrane, and it does not anchor the epithelium to the tissue below it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

199)

True or False? Because epithelial tissue is highly vascular, it heals well. ⊚ true ⊚ false

200) True or False? Dense irregular collagenous connective tissue that forms during tissue repair is called granulation tissue. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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201) True or False? Plasma cells produce the ground substance that forms the matrix of connective tissues. ⊚ ⊚

true false

202) True or False? The duct of an endocrine gland leads into the bloodstream rather than onto an epithelial surface. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chapter 04_13e_ VanPutte 1) [A, B, E] 2) [A, D] 3) [C, F] 4) [A, C, D] 5) [A, B, C] 6) [A, B, D, E] 7) [E, F] 8) [A, B, C] 9) [A, B, E] 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) E 30) C 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) E 35) D 36) C 37) B 38) A 39) E 40) E 41) B 42) B 43) B 44) E 45) A 46) E 47) D 48) D 49) D 50) E 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) A 55) C 56) B Version 1

57) A 58) B 59) E 60) B 61) B 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) E 66) C 67) D 68) D 69) A 70) C 71) D 72) D 73) E 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) C 78) E 79) C 80) D 81) B 82) A 83) C 84) D 85) D 86) C Version 1

87) E 88) C 89) C 90) C 91) B 92) D 93) B 94) C 95) B 96) E 97) A 98) D 99) C 100) E 101) E 102) C 103) A 104) C 105) C 106) A 107) C 108) B 109) A 110) E 111) D 112) D 113) A 114) C 115) A 116) C Version 1

117) B 118) B 119) B 120) A 121) C 122) B 123) A 124) E 125) B 126) C 127) D 128) B 129) C 130) B 131) A 132) A 133) B 134) C 135) C 136) D 137) E 138) D 139) B 140) E 141) C 142) B 143) B 144) C 145) D 146) A Version 1

147) B 148) D 149) B 150) B 151) C 152) C 153) C 154) C 155) B 156) A 157) A 158) A 159) A 160) A 161) B 162) A 163) B 164) C 165) A 166) D 167) C 168) A 169) A 170) B 171) B 172) B 173) B 174) D 175) E 176) A Version 1

177) E 178) D 179) A 180) B 181) A 182) E 183) C 184) C 185) B 186) D 187) A 188) A 189) A 190) A 191) B 192) A 193) A 194) A 195) A 196) Section Break 196.1) B 196.2) C 196.3) A 196.4) E 196.5) D 197) Section Break 197.1) E 197.2) C 197.3) D 197.4) A Version 1

197.5) B 198) TRUE 199) FALSE 200) FALSE 201) FALSE 202) FALSE

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CHAPTER 5 1)

Identify the functions of the integumentary system. (Check all that apply.) A) Blood cell production B) Resistance to infection C) Sensation of environmental stimuli D) Thermoregulation E) Vitamin E synthesis

Indicate the statements that describe erythema. (Check all that apply.)

A) It can be caused by emotions such as anger. B) It occurs during pregnancy when estrogen and melanocyte-stimulating hormone levels have increased. C) It may occur in response to exposure to the cold. D) It results from an inflammatory response. E) It can be caused by emotions such as embarrassment.

3) Which of the following factors do NOT directly determine the amount nor rate of melanin production in an individual? A) Exposure to light B) Genetic factors C) Hormones levels D) Ingestion of dark, leafy vegetables E) Physical fitness

Select the regions that are composed of loose connective tissue. (Check all that apply.)

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A) Epidermis of the skin B) Papillary layer of dermis C) Reticular layer of the dermis D) Subcutaneous tissue or hypodermis

Indicate the statements that apply to the arrector pili. (Check all that apply.) A) They consist of smooth muscle tissue. B) They are associated with hair follicles. C) They extend from the dermal root sheath to the papillary layer of the dermis. D) They extend from the root sheath to the basement membrane of the epidermis.

6) The dermis contains receptors that detect which of the following sensations? (Check all that apply.) A) Changes in pressure B) pH differences C) Pain D) Touch E) Variations in temperature

7) Indicate the statements that correctly describe partial thickness burns. (Check all that apply.) A) They are subdivided into first- and second-degree burns. B) They may involve only the epidermis. C) They are also called third degree burns. D) They involve the complete destruction of the epidermis and dermis.

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8) Antibiotics are often used to treat acne by reducing the number of bacteria on the skin. Knowing there are both ‘good’ and ‘bad’ forms of Propionibacterium acnes, which of the following statements about using antibiotics is true? (Check all that apply.) A) Some “good” bacteria are reduced. B) Some “bad” bacteria are reduced. C) Only “bad” bacteria are reduced. D) Some new bacterial infections can begin. E) Some new bacterial infections can be prevented. F) Only old infections can be controlled. G) Some “good” bacteria can become resistant and therefore lead to more infections. H) Some “bad” bacteria can become resistant and therefore lead to more infections.

Which factors are believed to be responsible for acne? (Check all that apply.) A) Overproduction of sweat by eccrine glands B) Bacteria, including Propionibacterium acnes C) Hormone levels D) Viruses, including Herpes virus E) Sugary and fried food F) Overproduction of sebum by sebaceous glands G) Abnormal production of cells

10) Accutane (Isotretinoin) is a prescriptive drug used to treat severe acne by reducing sebum production. What would be the side effects of decreased sebum production for the integumentary system? (Check all that apply.) A) Increased infections B) Brittle hair C) Oily skin D) Increased water loss from skin E) Cracked skin

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11)

Which of the following functions is associated with the skin? A) Lipid production B) Vitamin C production C) Regulation of body pH D) Protection against ultraviolet radiation of the sun E) Vitamin A production

12)

The integumentary system has many functions, one of which is A) destruction of cancer cells. B) production of Vitamin E. C) detection of heatand touch. D) regulation of acid-base balance. E) prevention of albinism.

13)

The superficial layer of epithelium of the skin is called the __________. A) dermis B) epidermis C) hypodermis D) mesodermis E) papillary layer

14) This condition is characterized by a thicker-than-normal stratus corneum producing large silvery scales.

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A) Psoriasis B) Decubitus ulcer C) Bullae D) Vitiligo E) Eczema

15)

Which type of skin cancer is the most common? A) Basal cell carcinoma B) Squamous cell carcinoma C) Melanoma D) Kaposi sarcoma E) Psoriasis

16) Melanoma can be detected early and treated with the application of a special rule. Which of the following is NOT a test used to determine if a mole is cancerous? A) Color B) Border C) Asymmetry D) Freckles E) Diameter

17)

Which type of skin cancer is the most deadly?

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A) Basal cell carcinoma B) Squamous cell carcinoma C) Melanoma D) Kaposi sarcoma E) Psoriasis

18)

Which of the following statements concerning the epidermis is true? A) The dermis issuperficial to the epidermis. B) The epidermis contains numerous blood vessels. C) The most numerous cells in the epidermis are the melanocytes. D) The epidermis is nourished by blood vessels located in the dermis. E) The epidermis is very permeable to water-soluble molecules.

19)

The epidermis A) is thicker than the dermis. B) contains no blood vessels. C) is composed of loose connective tissue. D) is made up mostly of melanocytes. E) is composed of the reticular and papillary layers.

20)

Which cells of the epidermis are part of the immune system? A) Keratinocytes B) Melanocytes C) Langerhanscells D) Merkel cells E) Fibroblasts

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21) Friction ridges of the hands and feet are produced by projections into the epidermis called __________. A) dermal striae B) cleavage lines C) reticular lines D) melanocytes E) dermal papillae

22)

Parallel curving ridges of dermis that shape the overlying epidermis into friction ridges A) are associated with thin skin. B) improve the grip of the hands. C) decrease friction on surfaces where they are located. D) are caused by the pattern of the reticular layer of the dermis. E) tend to make the surface smooth.

23)

Keratinocytes A) produce skin pigments in cell organelles called melanosomes. B) are found in both the dermal and the epidermal layers of the skin. C) are special cells of the immune system. D) are responsible for the reduction of water loss from the skin. E) determine thickness of the skin.

24)

Keratinization

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A) occurs in the dermis. B) results in the formation of new epidermal cells. C) produces a layer of cells that resist abrasion. D) determines skin color. E) does not affect permeability characteristics of the epidermis.

25) As skin cells move toward the surface of the body, they produce a protein that reduces water loss. This process is called __________. A) pollination B) keratinization C) melaninization D) germination E) desquamation

26) A malfunction of the process of keratinization results in the condition known as __________. A) psoriasis B) cyanosis C) jaundice D) impetigo E) acne

27) The layer of epidermis that undergoes mitosis and forms new epidermal cells is the __________.

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A) stratum basale B) stratum granulosum C) stratum lucidum D) stratum corneum E) stratum dermum

28)

The stratum basale A) is easily shed when you rub your hands together. B) has a mixture of living and dead cells—mostly dead. C) contains many blood vessels that nourish the epidermis. D) contains cells that undergo mitosis to form new epidermal cells. E) contains cells that undergo meiosis to form new epidermal cells.

29)

The term "stratum germinativum" is sometimes used to refer to the __________. A) stratum basale B) stratum corneum C) stratum spinosum D) stratum granulosum E) stratum lucidum

30)

In which layer of the epidermis are lamellar bodies formed inside keratinocytes? A) Stratum basale B) Stratum spinosum C) Stratum granulosum D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum corneum

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31)

In which layer of the epidermis are granules of keratohyalin formed? A) Stratum basale B) Stratum spinosum C) Stratum granulosum D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum corneum

32)

Which layer of the epidermis is found in only a few areas of the body? A) Stratum basale B) Stratum spinosum C) Stratum granulosum D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum corneum

33)

This layer of skin is composed of keratinocytes. A) Epidermis B) Reticular layer C) Papillary layer D) Dermis E) Subcutaneous layer

34)

Excessive shedding of this layer of the epidermis of the scalp is responsible for dandruff.

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A) Stratum basale B) Stratum spinosum C) Stratum granulosum D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum corneum

35) Which of the following represents the correct order of the layers of the epidermis from the deepest to the most superficial? A) Stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum spinosum, and stratum corneum B) Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum C) Stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, stratum basale, and stratum spinosum D) Stratum spinosum, stratum basale, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, and stratum granulosum E) Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

36)

This stratum contains many layers of dead squamous cells. A) Stratum basale B) Stratum spinosum C) Stratum granulosum D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum corneum

37) The layer of the epidermis in which there is the greatest amount of mitotic activity is the __________.

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A) stratum basale B) stratum spinosum C) stratum granulosum D) stratum lucidum E) stratum corneum

38) The epidermal stratum that is composed of several layers of living cells held together by desmosomes is the __________. A) stratum basale B) stratum spinosum C) stratum granulosum D) stratum lucidum E) stratum corneum

39)

Which durable protein is found in the nails, hair, and epidermis? A) Melanin B) Keratin C) Carotene D) Elastin E) Collagen

40)

The epidermal layer found only in thick skin is __________.

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A) stratum basale B) stratum spinosum C) stratum granulosum D) stratum lucidum E) stratum corneum

41)

Thick skin A) has three different epidermal strata. B) has fewer layers of cells in the stratum corneum than thin skin. C) is found covering most of the body. D) is found in areas subject to pressure or friction, such as the palms. E) is determined by the thickness of the dermis.

42)

Thin skin has only four epithelial strata. It lacks which of the following? A) Stratum spinosum B) Stratum granulosum C) Stratum lucidum D) Stratum corneum E) Stratum basale

43)

What will develop when the skin is subjected to excess friction or pressure? A) Carcinoma B) Melanoma C) Papillae D) Stretch marks E) Callus

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44)

Skin color is the result of the A) quantity of melanin in the skin. B) number of keratinocytes in the skin. C) amount of adipose in the subcutaneous layer. D) thickness of the stratum basale. E) number of melanocytes in the skin.

45)

Melanin production can be influenced by A) genetics. B) hormones. C) exposure to sunlight. D) pregnancy. E) All of the choices are correct.

46)

Melanin A) is transferred to other cells by osmosis. B) is increased with exposure to infrared light. C) is absent in individuals with albinism. D) is a pigment produced by cells in the stratum corneum. E) makes the skin lighter.

47)

Which of the following statements regarding melanin is true?

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A) During pregnancy, melanin production is increased. B) Both melanocytes and keratinocytes produce melanin. C) In Addison disease, less melanin is produced. D) Men produce more melanin than women. E) Melanin is a white pigment.

48)

Individuals with lighter skin have which of the following? A) More melanocytes than individuals with darker skins B) Fewer melanocytes than individuals with darker skins C) Approximately the same number of melanocytes as individuals with darker skins D) More melanin in their skin E) A different kind of melanin in their skin

49)

The blue color of superficial blood vessels results from which of the following? A) A lack of melanin in the area B) The light-scattering properties of collagen C) The superficial location of skin pigments D) An increase in arterial blood circulating in the area E) A lack of oxygen in the blood

50)

The bluish tinge of skin due to a reduction of oxygen in the blood is called __________. A) hemolysis B) desquamation C) cyanosis D) carotenosis E) albinism

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51) Exposure to ultraviolet light causes the skin to darken by stimulating which of the following? A) Breakdown of carotene B) Breakdown of melanin C) Buildup of bilirubin D) Activity of the enzyme tyrosinase E) Activity of the keratinocytes

52) The condition involving the development of white patches on the skin caused by the loss of melanocytes is __________. A) psoriasis B) decubitus ulcer C) bullae D) vitiligo E) eczema

53) A yellow pigment derived from plants that can impart a yellow color to the skin is __________. A) melanin B) keratin C) collagen D) carotene E) elastin

54)

A genetic disease characterized by the inability to produce melanin is __________.

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A) psoriasis B) albinism C) dermatitis D) melanoma E) cyanosis

55)

The vesicles that contain melanin are __________. A) melanosomes B) lamellar bodies C) keratohyaline D) carotenoids E) lysosomes

56)

Melanin is produced only by __________. A) keratinocytes B) basal cells C) Langerhans cells D) melanocytes E) Merkel cells

57) A victim of an automobile accident goes into shock, which results in decreased blood flow. The victim's skin will

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A) become pale. B) have a reddish hue. C) develop a yellow tint. D) become bright red. E) not change color.

58)

The skin discoloration most likely to result from liver disease is __________. A) pallor B) erythema C) hematoma D) jaundice E) cyanosis

59) A cut bleeds, but does not penetrate to the subcutaneous layer. The deepest layer of skin penetrated was the_________blank. A) stratum spinosum B) stratum granulosum C) stratum basale D) stratum corneum E) papillary layer of the dermis

60)

Inflammation of the skin is called dermatitis or __________.

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A) psoriasis B) decubitus ulcer C) bullae D) vitiligo E) eczema

61) Stretch marks develop on the abdomen of pregnant women because of stretching and rupture of the __________. A) dermis B) epidermis C) melanocytes D) stratum corneum E) subcutaneous tissue

62)

Which of the following is an inflammatory condition of the skin? A) Melanoma B) Albinism C) Dermatitis D) Cyanosis E) All of the choices are correct.

63)

Which statement is true about the dermis?

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A) It contains no blood vessels. B) It functions as padding and insulation. C) It is divided into three distinct layers. D) It is responsible for most of the skin's structural strength. E) It does not contain connective tissue.

64) Vitamin C is essential for normal collagen synthesis. If a child suffered from a vitamin C deficiency, which layer of the skin would be most affected? A) Reticular layer of dermis B) Stratum corneum C) Stratum granulosum D) Epidermis E) Stratum basale

65)

Rupturing the dermis may cause __________ to develop. A) Moles B) Freckles C) Calluses D) Stretch marks E) Cleavage lines

66)

The dermal layer closest to the epidermis is the __________.

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A) stratum basale B) reticular layer C) papillary layer D) stratum lucidum E) subcutaneous tissue

67)

The main fibrous layer of the dermis is the __________. A) epidermis B) reticular layer C) papillary layer D) subcutaneous layer E) hypodermis

68)

Which of the following statements is true about the dermis and the subcutaneous tissue? A) The dermis has more adipocytes than the subcutaneous layer. B) The dermis is a more vascular tissue than the subcutaneous layer. C) The dermis is divided into two layers; the subcutaneous layer is not. D) The dermis contains melanocytes; the subcutaneous layer does not. E) Neither the dermis nor the subcutaneous layer contain collagen.

69)

If you accidentally cut your arm and see adipose tissue, which layer(s) was/were cut? A) Stratum corneum B) Stratum basale C) Dermis D) Subcutaneous layer E) All of the choices are correct.

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70)

A subcutaneous injection delivers medication into the __________. A) epidermis B) dermis C) subcutaneous layer D) muscle E) joint

71)

What is the function of adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer? A) It serves as a storage site for lipids, which can be used for energy. B) It helps to lower body temperature. C) It provides protection against infection. D) It is a sign of maturity since it is absent in infants. E) It creates mechanical connection between the dermis and the epidermis.

72)

Which of the following statements concerning the subcutaneous layer is false?

A) The subcutaneous layer can also be referred to as the hypodermis. B) The subcutaneous layer is composed of dense connective tissue with collagen and elastin fibers. C) The main cell types of the subcutaneous layer are fibroblasts, adipocytes, and macrophages. D) The subcutaneous layer attaches the skin to underlying bone and muscle. E) The subcutaneous layer is a site of lipid storage.

73)

The __________ is a major site of lipid storage in the body.

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A) epidermis B) reticular layer C) papillary layer D) dermis E) subcutaneous layer

74) Delicate unpigmented hairs that cover the fetus in early development are called __________ hairs. A) terminal B) primary C) lanugo D) vellus E) secondary

75) At birth the hairs of the scalp, eyelids, and eyebrows are replaced by coarser pigmented hairs called __________ hairs. A) terminal B) primary C) lanugo D) vellus E) pubic

76)

Which of the following statements concerning hair is true?

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A) In males, the hairs of the beard are vellus hairs. B) Both vellus and terminal hairs are pigmented. C) The majority of hair on the chest is vellus hair. D) At puberty, much of the vellus hair is replaced with terminal hair. E) Hair in the axillary region is vellus hair after puberty.

77)

The portion of a hair that protrudes above the surface of the skin is the __________. A) hair bulb B) hair root C) hair shaft D) hair follicle E) dermal papilla

78)

Which of the following statements concerning hair structure is true? A) Both the hair root and hair shaft contain living cells. B) Undamaged hair follicles can help regenerate damaged epithelium. C) The hair follicle has a hypodermal root sheath. D) The matrix forms the hair surface. E) The hair follicle is not associated with sebaceous glands.

79)

What determines hair length? A) The size of the hair bulb. B) The angle of the hair root. C) The rate of hair growth. D) The length of the resting stage. E) The age of the person.

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80)

Which statement about baldness is true? A) Baldness occurs only in men. B) Baldness is related to estrogen levels. C) Baldness is related to levels of growth hormone. D) Baldness is not genetic. E) Baldness is more common in men than in women.

81) All of the following statements concerning hair are true except one. Identify the exception. A) The growth rate of all types of hair is the same. B) Hair growth occurs in cycles, with growth and resting stages. C) In pattern baldness, those hair follicles present begin to produce vellus hair. D) Some loss of hair is normal and indicates old hairs are being pushed out by new hairs. E) Genetic factors and testosterone cause pattern baldness.

82)

The outer surface of the hair is called the __________. A) shaft B) cuticle C) hair bulb D) medulla E) root

83)

The central axis of the hair is the __________.

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A) shaft B) cuticle C) hair bulb D) medulla E) root

84)

An expanded knob at the base of the hair root is the __________. A) shaft B) cuticle C) hair bulb D) medulla E) root

85)

The portion of the hair below the surface of the skin is the __________. A) shaft B) cuticle C) hair bulb D) medulla E) root

86)

The portion of the hair that extends above the surface of the skin is the __________. A) shaft B) cuticle C) hair bulb D) medulla E) root

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87)

Which of the following hair colors is the result of a decrease in melanin? A) Black B) Brown C) Red D) White E) Auburn

88)

Lead poisoning can be detected by doing an analysis of __________. A) sweat B) skin folds C) nails D) hair E) skin

89) Bob was completely bald on the top of his head by the time he was 35 years of age. Bob noticed he produced abundant sweat on his head when he exercised. He also noticed that his scalp was no longer oily. Which of the following changes account for the observations? (1) He has fewer functional hair follicles now. (2) He has fewer functional sebaceous glands now. (3) He has fewer merocrine sweat glands now. (4) He has fewer apocrine sweat glands now. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 3, 4 E) 1, 2

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90)

What happens when the arrector pili muscles contract?

A) The body is able to lose heat. B) "Goose bumps" form on the skin. C) The hair on your arms and legs begins to curl. D) The sweat glands empty their contents onto the surface of the skin. E) Nothing. These muscles are vestigial, and when they contract, no change is noted on the skin surface.

91)

Which of the following statements concerning sebaceous glands is false?

A) Most sebaceous glands are connected by a duct to the upper portion of the hair follicle. B) Secretions from sebaceous glands provide protection against bacteria. C) Secretions from sebaceous glands oil the hair and skin. D) Sebaceous glands are an example of apocrine glands. E) Sebaceous secretions are lipid soluble.

92)

Which of the following can be a result of apocrine sweat gland activity? A) Production of cerumen B) Body odor C) Thicker skin D) Sweat on the palm of the hand E) Secretion of an oily substance

93)

Eccrine sweat glands do which of the following?

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A) Aid in cooling the body B) Serve as "anchors" for the arrector pili muscles C) Produce a secretion that oils the hair and skin D) Produce a secretion that protects the body from growth of bacteria E) Produce hormones after puberty

94)

Which of the following statements is true about sweat? A) It is a hypertonic fluid. B) It is produced by a merocrine or apocrine gland. C) It consists only of water. D) It reaches the body only through the hair follicles. E) It is not associated with emotions.

95)

Which of the following is not considered a type of skin gland? A) Sebaceous glands B) Salivary glands C) Ceruminous glands D) Mammary glands E) Sweat glands

96)

Body odor results from secretions from the __________ sweat glands. A) apocrine B) merocrine C) ceruminous D) sebaceous E) eccrine

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97)

Which of the following statements about nails is true? A) Their appearance can be valuable in medical diagnosis. B) They alternate between growing and resting stages. C) They grow from their free edges. D) They are part of the dermis. E) They are made of soft keratin.

98)

The nail root and the nail body attach to the __________. A) lunula B) nail bed C) nail groove D) hyponychium E) subcutaneous tissue

99)

The epidermal layer that is present in the nail bed and the nail matrix is the __________. A) stratum corneum B) stratum lucidum C) stratum basale D) stratum spinosum E) stratum granulosum

100)

Nail cells are produced by the __________.

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A) lunula B) cuticle C) nail body D) nail matrix E) nail groove

101)

The nail is composed of cells of the __________. A) stratum corneum B) stratum lucidum C) stratum basale D) stratum spinosum E) All of the choices are correct.

102)

The stratum corneum beneath the free edge of the nail is the __________. A) nail root B) nail body C) nail fold D) eponychium E) hyponychium

103)

The skin that covers the lateral and proximal edges of the nail is the __________. A) nail root B) nail body C) nail fold D) eponychium E) hyponychium

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104)

The proximal portion of the nail is the __________. A) nail root B) nail body C) nail fold D) eponychium E) hyponychium

105)

The distal portion of the nail is the __________. A) nail root B) nail body C) nail fold D) eponychium E) hyponychium

106)

Which term is synonymous with the cuticle of the nail? A) Nail root B) Nail body C) Nail fold D) Eponychium E) Hyponychium

107) One type of experimental contraceptive device is a skin patch that contains a chemical absorbed through the skin. Which of the following substances might be the type of chemical involved?

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A) Proteins B) Water-soluble substances C) Lipid-soluble substances D) Carbohydrates E) Amino acids

108)

Impetigo is caused by the bacterium __________. A) Propionibacterium B) Staphylococcus C) Streptococcus D) Herpes E) Luteus

109)

Ringworm is an infection of the skin, hair, and nails caused by a/an __________. A) bacterium B) virus C) parasite D) fungus E) inflammation

110)

Another name for a bedsore is __________. A) psoriasis B) decubitus ulcer C) bullae D) vitiligo E) eczema

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111)

How does intact skin provide protection? A) It forms a physical barrier against the entry of microbes. B) Its secretions keep the skin slightly alkaline. C) The skin contains components of the excretory system. D) The skin enhances water loss from the body. E) Macrophages roam in the epidermis.

112) By covering the whole body surface, the skin acts as a protective barrier and plays a role in __________. A) excretion B) immunity C) circulation D) respiration E) digestion

113)

An abrasion of the skin results in which of the following? A) Fluid retention by the kidney B) Increased melanin production C) Portal of entry for microorganisms D) Loss of cell regeneration ability E) Irreversible damage to the epidermis

114) Contraction of smooth muscle in the walls of the dermal blood vessels will cause which of the following?

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A) Dilation of blood vessels B) Conservation of body heat C) More blood entering into the heart D) A localized drop in body temperature E) Increased blood flow to the skin

115)

Increased body temperature causes which of the following? A) Sweating B) Constriction of arterioles in the dermis C) Contraction of arrector pili muscles D) Increased keratinization of the skin E) Increased melanin production

116)

Which of the following will help cool the body? A) Absorption of ultraviolet light rays by the skin B) Evaporation of sweat from the skin's surface C) Contraction of the arrector pili muscles D) Decreased blood flow to the skin E) Absorption of excess sweat

117) this?

On coming inside from the cold, students notice that their cheeks are red. What causes

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A) Constriction of the blood vessels in the epidermis of the cheeks B) Dilation of the blood vessels in the dermis of the cheeks C) Damage to the epidermis by the cold D) Constriction of the sweat glands in the cheeks E) Increased permeability of superficial vessels

118) By reducing body temperature during hot weather, skin helps to maintain_________blank. A) homeostasis B) body structure C) blood volume D) brain activity E) blood pH

119) Which vitamin begins its synthesis in the skin when the skin is exposed to ultraviolet light? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D E) Vitamin E

120)

Which of the following statements concerning vitamin D is false?

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A) Vitamin D begins its synthesis in the skin when the skin is exposed to ultraviolet light. B) Vitamin D causes the kidney to excrete calcium. C) Vitamin D is necessary for the uptake of calcium from the intestine. D) Vitamin D is necessary for the formation of bones and teeth. E) Vitamin D is important for calcium homeostasis.

121) People who live in Arctic regions often have limited exposure to ultraviolet light during the winter months, but do not suffer from vitamin D deficiency. What is one possible explanation for this? A) Extreme cold lowers the rate of vitamin D metabolism, so very little is needed in the winter. B) Enough vitamin D can be stored in the skin each summer to last for a year or more. C) They get enough vitamin D from their diet. D) Sunlight is not required for vitamin D formation. E) Excess vitamin C can be converted into vitamin D.

122)

A painful and blistered burn would be classified as which of the following? A) First degree B) Second degree C) Third degree D) Fourth degree E) Fifth degree

123)

Which of the following is NOT a type of burn?

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A) Primary burn B) Partial-thickness burn C) Second-degree burn D) Third-degree burn E) Full-thickness burn

124)

The amount of body area involved with a burn is determined by which of the following? A) The color of the skin surrounding the burned area B) The amount of pain C) The rule of nines D) The cause of the burn E) The ABCDE rule

125)

Which of the following is NOT a complication of a major burn? A) Local edema B) Shock C) Increased immunity D) Decreased heart pumping ability E) Venous thrombosis

126)

All of the following are complication of a major burnexcept_________blank. A) fever. B) electrolyte imbalance. C) hypermetabolic state. D) weight loss. E) decreased protein demand.

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127)

Which type of burn appears white or black with no immediate pain? A) First-degree B) Second-degree C) Third-degree D) Fourth-degree E) Partial-thickness

128)

Which type of burn involves damage to the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue? A) First-degree B) Second-degree C) Partial-thickness D) Full-thickness E) Total-dermal-thickness

129)

A slight sunburn is an example of a __________ burn. A) first-degree B) second-degree C) third-degree D) fourth-degree E) partial-thickness

130)

Which of the following skin changes is usually associated with aging?

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A) Skin becomes thicker. B) There is an increase in the number of elastic fibers in the skin. C) Loss of subcutaneous tissue contributes to sagging of the skin. D) Localized increase in sebaceous glands leads to dry skin. E) The amount of collagen in the dermis increases.

131) With aging, individuals tend to feel colder and usually need the thermostat in their home set higher in the winter to feel warm enough. What might explain this? A) Decreased hot flashes at night B) Decreased melanin production C) Thinning of the subcutaneous layer D) Less blood flow to the skin E) Increased shedding of stratum corneum cells

132)

Acne is caused by_________blank. A) testosterone. B) sebum. C) abnormal keratinization of hair follicles. D) Propionibacterium. E) All of the choices are correct.

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133)

The figure illustrates the layers of the epidermis. Which layer of the epidermis is "C"?

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A) Stratum spinosum B) Stratum corneum C) Stratum basale D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum granulosum

134)

The diagram illustrates accessory structures of the skin. What does "B" represent?

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A) Sebaceous gland B) Eccrine sweat gland C) Duct of eccrine sweat gland D) Sweat pore E) Hair follicle

135)

Melanin is found in which cells? A) Only melanocytes B) Both melanocytes and keratinocytes C) Only keratinocytes D) Both melanocytes and Langerhans cells

136)

Describe the movement of melanin in the skin. A) Melanin is transferred from melanocytes to keratinocytes. B) Melanocytes carry melanin with them as they migrate toward the skin surface. C) Melanin is transferred from keratinocytes to melanocytes. D) Melanin is transferred from melanocytes to Merkel cells.

137)

The vesicles that contain melanin are called __________. A) melanosomes B) melanocytes C) keratinocytes D) Golgi apparatus

138)

Describe the effect of exposure to UV rays on the skin.

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A) Decreased cancer risk B) Increased melanin synthesis C) Improved skin tone D) Increased vitamin B production

139) When the skin develops a reddish color due to a temporary increase in blood flow, the condition is called __________. A) erythema B) cyanosis C) jaundice D) albinism

140) A parent of a baby visits the pediatrician because the baby's skin is turning orange. Fortunately, the baby's lab tests indicate no abnormality. What could be causing the orange coloration? A) The baby was in the sun too long. B) The parent has been feeding the baby orange soda. C) The baby’s diet consists of mostly sweet potatoes and carrots. D) There is no logical explanation for this coloration change.

141)

Subcutaneous tissue contains of all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) collagen and elastin fibers B) macrophages C) loose connective tissue D) fibroblasts and adipocytes E) stratified squamous epithelial tissue

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142)

Contraction of the arrector pili does which of the following? A) It pulls the follicle into a more perpendicular position in relation to the skin surface. B) It pulls the follicle into a more oblique angle in relation to the skin surface. C) It does not affect the position of the hair relative to the epidermis.

143)

Name the layer from which fingernails and toenails are derived. A) Dermis B) Epidermis C) Subcutaneous tissue

144)

Fingernails are comprised of which of the following? A) Epithelial and collagen fibers produced in the dermis B) Thin, dead scaly cells C) Collagen deposited by the lunula and the matrix D) Proteins secreted by the nail groove from the matrix

145)

Which region of the nail contains the stratum basale layer? A) The matrix B) The free edge C) The hyponychium D) The cuticle

146)

Touch receptors are NOT located in which of the following skin areas?

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A) Papillary dermis B) Epidermis C) Reticular dermis D) Around the base of the hair follicle E) Within the hair shaft

147)

A burn classified as partial thickness could be which of the following? A) First or second degree B) Second or third degree C) Epidermal or dermal D) Thin or deep

148)

Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the skin? A) Thinner epidermis B) Reduction in collagen C) Loss of adipose from the subcutaneous tissue D) Increased sebaceous gland activity E) Reduction in elastin

149)

Which of the following is the most common form of skin cancer? A) Melanoma B) Basal cell carcinoma C) Squamous cell carcinoma D) Small cell carcinoma

150)

Which of the following people would have the greatest risk of developing skin cancer?

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A) A 31-year old dark-skinned male B) A 68-year old male with blond hair and blue eyes C) A 23-year old female with blond hair and hazel eyes D) A 55-year old male with brown hair and brown eyes

151) There are three unique strains of Propionibacterium acnes. Two strains are more prevalent in people with acne. However, one of these two strains appears not to be pathogenic to humans and is more prevalent in people with ‘clear’ skin. Additionally, the strain of P. acnes found in healthy skin kills invading bacteria, including the pathogenic P. acnes. Which of the following statements about the targeted removal of ‘bad’ P. acnes and addition of 'good' P. acnes is INCORRECT? A) After “bad” P. acnes is removed, the applications of "good" P. acnes should be able to grow and kill invasive bacteria. B) Once removed, the invading pathogenic P. acnes cannot regrow on the skin.

152) Some acne drugs include peroxides that increase ‘peeling’ or shedding of skin. The main side effects include drying of the skin, redness, rashes, bleaching and possible hair loss at contact areas. Do these drugs have an effect on sebum-production? A) Yes, the effect is on the dermis and the sebaceous glands are located there. B) No, the effect is on the epidermis and the sebaceous glands are located there. C) No, the effect is on the dermis and the sebaceous glands are located there. D) Yes, the effect is on the epidermis and the sebaceous glands are located there.

153) Which of the following statements explains why decubitus ulcers are of concern in elderly patients?

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A) Elderly individuals have higher amounts of collagen in the skin that increases the likelihood of bacterial infection. B) Elderly individuals have more fragile skin due to loss of collagen fibers in the dermis, increasing the likelihood of tissue damage. C) Elderly individuals are more likely to fall and experience abrasions due to loss of balance. D) Elderly individuals have increased sebum secretion that provides more nutrients to the bacteria that cause decubitus ulcers.

154)

Which of the following is an example of sensation function of the integumentary system?

A) Temperature receptors detecting a warm cloth placed on the skin B) The secretion of sweat to increase evaporative cooling when an individual's body temperature begins to rise C) The development of a callus due to continuous abrasion at a particular site on the epidermis D) The release of urea and uric acid in sweat

155) Which factors can be used to differentiate between eccrine sweat glands and apocrine sweat glands? A) Location in the body B) Substance secreted C) Life stage of function D) All of the choices are correct.

156)

Damage to which portion of a hair follicle will most affect hair growth?

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A) Hair shaft B) Dermal root sheath C) Hair bulb D) All of the choices are correct.

157)

Which of the following conditions may cause low active Vitamin D levels?

A) Melanin production has increased due to sun exposure, reducing Vitamin D activation. B) Liver dysfunction has reduced the conversion of cholecalciferol to the intermediate for calcitriol production. C) An increase in Vitamin D absorption at the intestines has overwhelmed the homeostasis of vitamin production at the kidneys.

158) A skin cell in the stratum granulosum has experienced a mutation that altered its ability to produce keratin. Should this be a health concern for the individual? A) No, because cells of the stratum granulosum are dying cells that do not reproduce, so the mutation will be isolated to the one cell. B) Yes, because cells of the stratum granulosum divide by mitosis to produce keratin to protect the skin. C) No, cells of the stratum granulosum only produce the waterproofing material in the skin. D) Yes, without normal cell function in the stratum granulosum, the skin will lose color due to lack of melanin production.

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159)

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159.1)

What does structure "A" represent on the diagram?

A) Hair follicle B) Arrector pili C) Epidermis and dermis D) Subcutaneous tissue E) Sebaceous gland

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159.2)

What does structure "B" represent on the diagram?

A) Hair follicle B) Arrector pili C) Epidermis and dermis D) Subcutaneous tissue E) Sebaceous gland

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159.3)

What does structure "C" represent on the diagram?

A) Hair follicle B) Arrector pili C) Epidermis and dermis D) Subcutaneous tissue E) Sebaceous gland

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159.4)

What does structure "D" represent on the diagram?

A) Hair follicle B) Arrector pili C) Epidermis and dermis D) Subcutaneous tissue E) Sebaceous gland

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159.5)

What does structure "E" represent on the diagram?

A) Hair follicle B) Arrector pili C) Epidermis and dermis D) Subcutaneous tissue E) Sebaceous gland

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160)

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160.1) "A"?

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The figure illustrates the layers of the epidermis. Which layer of the epidermis is

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A) Stratum spinosum B) Stratum corneum C) Stratum basale D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum granulosum

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160.2) "B"?

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The figure illustrates the layers of the epidermis. Which layer of the epidermis is

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A) Stratum spinosum B) Stratum corneum C) Stratum basale D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum granulosum

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160.3) "D"?

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The figure illustrates the layers of the epidermis. Which layer of the epidermis is

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A) Stratum spinosum B) Stratum corneum C) Stratum basale D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum granulosum

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160.4) "E"?

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The figure illustrates the layers of the epidermis. Which layer of the epidermis is

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A) Stratum spinosum B) Stratum corneum C) Stratum basale D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum granulosum

161)

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161.1)

The diagram illustrates accessory structures of the skin. What does "A" represent?

A) Sebaceous gland B) Eccrine sweat gland C) Duct of eccrine sweat gland D) Sweat pore E) Hair follicle

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161.2)

The diagram illustrates accessory structures of the skin. What does "C" represent?

A) Sebaceous gland B) Eccrine sweat gland C) Duct of eccrine sweat gland D) Sweat pore E) Hair follicle

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161.3)

The diagram illustrates accessory structures of the skin. What does "D" represent?

A) Sebaceous gland B) Eccrine sweat gland C) Duct of eccrine sweat gland D) Sweat pore E) Hair follicle

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161.4)

The diagram illustrates accessory structures of the skin. What does "E" represent?

A) Sebaceous gland B) Eccrine sweat gland C) Duct of eccrine sweat gland D) Sweat pore E) Hair follicle

162)

True or False? The subcutaneous tissue is part of the skin and the integumentary system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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163) True or False? The acne-associated bacterium Propionibacterium acnes are found in sebum-rich areas of the skin, such as the arms, palms, and axillary regions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

164) Scientists, studying skin microbes, have identified three unique strains of the bacterium P. acnes., all of which are found on the skin. These bacteria break down lipids, resulting in a low skin pH. This low pH is alkaline in nature and makes the environment unfavorable to invading bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

165) True or False? Papercuts do not bleed because the cuts do not damaged the durable blood vessels of the stratum spinosum. ⊚ ⊚

true false

166) True or False? Sun exposure increases the production of keratin by skin cells, resulting in an orange hue to the skin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

167) True or False? A mutation that alters collagen production could render the dermis less effective at maintaining the strength of the skin. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 05_13e_ VanPutte 1) [B, C, D] 2) [A, C, D, E] 3) [E] 4) [B, D] 5) [A, B, C] 6) [A, C, D, E] 7) [A, B] 8) [A, B, D, E, G, H] 9) [B, C, F, G] 10) [A, B, D, E] 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) E 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) E 35) B 36) E 37) A 38) B 39) B 40) D 41) D 42) C 43) E 44) A 45) E 46) C 47) A 48) C 49) B 50) C 51) D 52) D 53) D 54) B 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) A 58) D 59) E 60) E 61) A 62) C 63) D 64) A 65) D 66) C 67) B 68) C 69) E 70) C 71) A 72) B 73) E 74) C 75) A 76) D 77) C 78) B 79) C 80) E 81) A 82) B 83) D 84) C 85) E 86) A Version 1

87) D 88) D 89) E 90) B 91) D 92) B 93) A 94) B 95) B 96) A 97) A 98) B 99) C 100) D 101) A 102) E 103) C 104) A 105) B 106) D 107) C 108) B 109) D 110) B 111) A 112) B 113) C 114) B 115) A 116) B Version 1

117) B 118) A 119) D 120) B 121) C 122) B 123) A 124) C 125) C 126) E 127) C 128) D 129) A 130) C 131) C 132) E 133) E 134) A 135) B 136) A 137) A 138) B 139) A 140) C 141) E 142) A 143) B 144) B 145) A 146) E Version 1

147) A 148) D 149) B 150) B 151) B 152) A 153) B 154) A 155) D 156) C 157) B 158) A 159) Section Break 159.1) E 159.2) C 159.3) D 159.4) B 159.5) A 160) Section Break 160.1) B 160.2) D 160.3) A 160.4) C 161) Section Break 161.1) D 161.2) B 161.3) C 161.4) E 162) FALSE 163) FALSE Version 1

164) FALSE 165) FALSE 166) FALSE 167) TRUE

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CHAPTER 6 1)

Identify the components of the skeletal system. (Check all that apply.) A) Bones B) Cartilage C) Ligaments D) Muscles E) Tendons

Select the functions of the skeletal system. (Check all that apply.) A) Production of blood cells and platelets B) Protection of internal organs C) Storage of glycogen D) Storage of minerals

Which of the following is true of the condition osteomyelitis? (Check all that apply.)

A) It is caused by the normal skin bacterium, Staphylococcus aureus. B) The condition involves inflammation of the bone, which is stimulated by osteoblasts releasing the chemical RANKL. C) Osteoclasts are inhibited by the bacterium that causes the condition. D) Prognosis for those affected is poor, even with excellent medical care.

A band of connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone is a/an __________.

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A) aponeurosis B) ligament C) bursa D) epimysium E) tendon

Ligaments attach A) muscle to muscle. B) bone to bone. C) muscle to bone. D) nerve to bone. E) nerve to muscle.

Important functions of the skeletal system include A) protection of the brain and soft organs. B) storage of water. C) production of Vitamin E. D) regulation of acid-base balance. E) integration of other systems.

Which of the following is NOT a function of bone? A) Support B) Movement C) Immunity D) Calcium storage E) Blood cell formation

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Chondroblasts produce A) ligaments. B) cartilage matrix. C) bone tissue. D) blood cells. E) synovial fluid.

The connective tissue sheath of cartilage is called the __________. A) matrix B) chondrocyte C) ligamentous cord D) lacuna E) perichondrium

10)

The type of cartilage associated with bone function and development is __________. A) elastic cartilage B) fibrocartilage C) hyaline cartilage D) interstitial cartilage E) osteocartilage

11)

Cartilage

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A) is composed of osteons. B) is surrounded by a membrane called the periosteum. C) contains chondrocytes located in lacunae. D) does not need nutrients and oxygen, so it has no blood vessels. E) is well vascularized.

12)

A connective tissue sheath around cartilage is the __________. A) endosteum B) perichondrium C) periosteum D) epiphyseal line E) ligament

13)

Proteoglycan molecules in the matrix of cartilage A) replace collagen fibers in the matrix. B) give cartilage its resilient nature. C) fill the lacunae. D) make the perichondrium very stretchable. E) make cartilage hard and compact.

14) Which of the following matrix molecules in cartilage tends to trap large quantities of water?

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A) Collagen B) Proteoglycan C) Hyaluronic acid D) Elastin E) Chondrocytes

15)

In appositional growth of cartilage, A) chondroblasts within the tissue proliferate and add more matrix from the inside. B) new chondrocytes and new matrix are added on the outside of the tissue. C) osteoblasts replace the chondroblasts. D) the tissue becomes vascularized in order to grow. E) the cartilage is replaced with another kind of connective tissue.

16)

Collagen and calcium hydroxyapatite are the primary constituents of __________. A) bone matrix B) hyaline cartilage C) fibrocartilage D) ligaments E) blood

17) The compression (weight-bearing) strength of bone matrix is due to the presence of __________.

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A) elastin fibers B) collagenase C) hydroxyapatite crystals D) collagen fibers E) bone marrow

18)

Osteogenesis imperfecta can be caused by abnormally formed __________. A) proteoglycans B) hydroxyapatite C) calcium D) collagen E) osteoblasts

19)

Rickets is A) bone inflammation that often results from bacterial infection. B) a disease in adults, especially women, characterized by a reduced amount of bone

matrix. C) a disease in adults characterized by softening of bones resulting from calcium depletion. D) a disease in children characterized by soft, bowed, and swollen bones. E) a group of genetic disorders producing very brittle bones that are easily fractured; this occurs because of insufficient collagen development.

20)

Brittle bone disorder is another name for __________.

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A) osteoporosis B) osteogenesis imperfecta C) osteomalacia D) scurvy E) osteomyelitis

21)

Which of the following occurs in the formation of mineralized bone matrix? A) Hydrogen ions form an acid environment in bone matrix. B) Osteoblasts form collagen and proteoglycans. C) The protein components of bone matrix are digested. D) Ca2+ isactively transported from bone matrix to the blood. E) Blood calcium is elevated.

22)

The primary mineral in bone is __________. A) sodium B) oxygen C) calcium D) potassium E) iron

23)

The proportion of collagen to hydroxyapatite in bone determines the A) thickness of the bone. B) length of the bone. C) strength of the bone. D) ability of the bone to heal. E) growth rate of bone.

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24) The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone once it has been formed is the __________. A) osteoclast B) osteoblast C) chondrocyte D) osteocyte E) chondroblast

25)

Which of the following cell types is responsible for breaking down bone matrix? A) Chondroclast B) Osteoclast C) Chondroblast D) Fibroblast E) Osteocyte

26)

Which of the following are the maintenance cells in bone tissue? A) Osteocytes B) Osteoblasts C) Osteoclasts D) Chondrocytes E) Osteochondral progenitor cells

27)

The primary function of osteoblasts is to

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A) prevent osteocytes from forming. B) resorb bone along the epiphyseal plate. C) inhibit the growth of bone. D) stimulate bone growth. E) lay down bone matrix.

28)

Which of the following is correctly matched? A) Osteocyte - functions in bone remodeling B) Osteoclast - responsible for reabsorption C) Osteoblast - breaks down bone tissue D) Endosteum - lines central canal of the osteon E) Periosteum - lines the medullary cavity

29)

Which type of bone cell incorporates calcium and phosphate ions into bone tissue? A) Osteochondral progenitor cell B) Osteoblast C) Osteocyte D) Osteoclast

30) Which type of bone cell combines hydroxyapatite and collagen to form extracellular bone matrix? A) Osteochondral progenitor cell B) Osteoblast C) Osteocyte D) Osteoclast

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31)

Which type of bone cell gives rise to osteoblasts? A) Osteochondral progenitor cell B) Osteoblast C) Osteocyte D) Osteoclast

32)

Which type of bone cell has a ruffled border and secretes acids? A) Osteochondral progenitor cell B) Osteoblast C) Osteocyte D) Osteoclast

33)

Which type of bone cell is a large cell that forms from fusion of several precursor cells? A) Osteochondral progenitor cell B) Osteoblast C) Osteocyte D) Osteoclast

34)

Which type of bone cell possesses extensive ER and ribosomes? A) Osteochondral progenitor cell B) Osteoblast C) Osteocyte D) Osteoclast

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35)

Which type of bone cell lies in a lacuna? A) Osteochondral progenitor cell B) Osteoblast C) Osteocyte D) Osteoclast

36)

Which type of bone cell has processes that lie in canaliculi? A) Osteochondral progenitor cell B) Osteoblast C) Osteocyte D) Osteoclast

37)

Which of the following is associated with osteoclast reabsorption of bone? A) Hydrogen ions form an acid environment in bone matrix. B) Osteoblasts form collagen and proteoglycans. C) The proteincomponents of bone matrix are synthesized. D) Calcium ions are actively transported from blood to bone matrix. E) Blood calcium is decreased.

38)

Osteoclasts have projections called __________ that cause bone reabsorption.

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A) canaliculi B) lacunae C) ruffled borders D) lamellae E) crossroads

39)

The stem cells of osteoblasts and chondroblasts are __________. A) osteocytes B) osteoclasts C) chondrocytes D) the same cells that give rise to monocytes E) osteochondral progenitor cells

40)

The stem cells of osteoclasts are __________. A) osteocytes B) osteoclasts C) chondrocytes D) the same cells that give rise to monocytes E) osteochondral progenitor cells

41)

Lamellar bone A) has its collagen fibers randomly oriented. B) has a porous appearance. C) is organized intothin sheets of tissue. D) is very light in weight. E) is not easily restructured.

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42)

Woven bone A) has its collagen fibers randomly oriented. B) has a porous appearance. C) is organized into thin sheets of tissue. D) is very light in weight. E) is not easily restructured.

43)

Spongy bone tissue A) is very dense. B) contains concentric lamellae. C) contains interconnecting plates called trabeculae. D) has many spaces and lacks osteocytes. E) is the primary component of compact bone.

44)

Osteons or haversian systems A) are found in spongy bone tissue. B) lack concentric lamellae. C) are the basic units in compact bone tissue. D) do not contain osteocytes. E) are avascular.

45)

A passageway connecting neighboring osteocytes in an osteon is a __________.

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A) central canal B) lamella C) canaliculus D) lacuna E) osteocanal

46)

The type of lamellae found in osteons (Haversian systems) is_________blank. A) circumferential B) concentric C) interstitial D) appositional E) oppositional

47)

You would look for concentric lamellae A) around the central canal of an osteon. B) in between osteons. C) on the outer surface of compact bone tissues. D) as components of the cartilage. E) in the bone marrow.

48)

The type of lamellae found between osteons (haversian systems) is __________. A) circumferential B) concentric C) interstitial D) appositional E) oppositional

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49)

The type of lamellae that forms the outside surface of compact bone is __________. A) circumferential B) concentric C) interstitial D) appositional E) oppositional

50)

Small channels extending through the bone matrix are __________. A) lamellae B) lacunae C) canaliculi D) periosteum E) trabeculae

51)

Interconnecting rods of bone are ___________. A) lamellae B) lacunae C) canaliculi D) periosteum E) trabeculae

52)

Thin sheets of bone matrix are __________.

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A) lamellae B) lacunae C) canaliculi D) periosteum E) trabeculae

53)

The covering of the outer surface of bone is the __________. A) lamellae B) lacunae C) canaliculi D) periosteum E) trabeculae

54)

Spaces in the bone matrix that are occupied by osteocytes are __________. A) lamellae B) lacunae C) periosteum D) trabeculae

55) __________ run perpendicular to the long axis of the bone and contain blood vessels that carry blood from the medullary cavity and periosteum to the osteon. A) Haversian canals B) Perforating canals C) Lamellar canals D) Osteochondral canals E) Canaliculi

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56)

In which type of bone tissue are osteons present? A) Spongy bone B) Compact bone C) Both "spongy bone" and "compact bone" are correct.

57)

In which type of bone tissue are trabeculae present? A) Spongy bone B) Compact bone C) Both "spongy bone" and "compact bone" are correct.

58)

Which type of bone tissue is considered dense bone? A) Spongy bone B) Compact bone C) Both "spongy bone" and "compact bone" are correct.

59)

In which type of bone tissue are osteoblasts and osteoclasts present? A) Spongy bone B) Compact bone C) Both "spongy bone" and "compact bone" are correct.

60)

Which type of bone tissue has concentric lamellae?

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A) Spongy bone B) Compact bone C) Both "spongy bone" and "compact bone" are correct.

61)

Which type of bone tissue appears porous? A) Spongy bone B) Compact bone C) Both "spongy bone" and "compact bone" are correct.

62)

Canaliculi are found in this type of bone tissue. A) Spongy bone B) Compact bone C) Both "spongy bone" and "compact bone" are correct.

63)

Which of the following correctly matches the bone type with an example? A) Short bone - carpal bone B) Long bone - vertebra C) Irregular bone - femur D) Flat bone - phalanges of the toes E) Short bone - humerus

64)

An example of a long bone would be __________.

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A) the sternum B) a rib C) a carpal bone D) the tibia E) the clavicle

65) An x-ray determines that a patient has fractured the shaft of the humerus. The break is in the_________blank of the bone. A) epiphysis B) epiphyseal line C) diaphysis D) growth plate E) articular surface

66)

Which of the following membranes covers the surface of a mature bone? A) Perimysium B) Perichondrium C) Peritendineum D) Peritoneum E) Periosteum

67) Some marrow of long bones is termed "yellow" marrow under normal conditions. The function of yellow marrow is to

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A) manufacture blood cells. B) manufacture tissue cells for the skin. C) store adipose tissue. D) store bone-forming cells. E) make vitamin D.

68)

Some marrow of long bones is termed "red" marrow. The function of red marrow is to A) manufacture blood cells. B) manufacture tissue cells for the skin. C) store adipose tissue. D) store bone-forming cells. E) make vitamin D.

69)

What is the membrane that lines the medullary cavity? A) Epiphysis B) Fibers C) Growth plate D) Medullary cavity E) Endosteum

70)

What is the area where marrow is located? A) Periosteum B) Sharpeyfibers C) Growth plate D) Medullary cavity E) Endosteum

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71)

What is the site of longitudinal growth in long bones? A) Epiphysis B) Sharpey's fibers C) Epiphyseal plate D) Medullary cavity E) Endosteum

72)

What strengthens the attachment of the tendons or ligaments to bone? A) Epiphysis B) Sharpey fibers C) Growth plate D) Medullary cavity E) Endosteum

73)

What is the end of a long bone? A) Epiphysis B) Sharpey's fibers C) Growth plate D) Medullary cavity E) Endosteum

74)

The medullary cavity is

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A) empty in adult bones. B) the site where osteoblasts are found. C) lined withendosteum. D) filled with fibrocartilage and elastin fibers. E) dead space in the bone.

75) These collagen fibers help to connect ligaments and tendons to the periosteum of the bone. A) Endosteal fibers B) Sharpey fibers C) Golgi fibers D) Haversian fibers E) Purkinje fibers

76)

Which type of tissue covers the ends of long bones? A) Articular cartilage B) Periosteum C) Elastic cartilage D) Spongy bone E) Fibrocartilage

77)

Some flat and irregular bones of the skull have air-filled spaces called __________.

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A) epiphyseal spaces B) medullary cavities C) lacunae D) sinuses E) trabeculae

78)

The flat bones of the skull develop from __________. A) hyaline cartilage B) areolar tissue C) compact bone D) fibrous connective tissue E) fibrocartilage

79)

Intramembranous ossification A) forms the bones of the roof of the skull. B) is the process that produces most of the skeletal system. C) occurs when bones develop from cartilage models. D) occurs when osteoblasts invade the spaces left by dying cartilage cells. E) occurs on the outer surface of the membrane.

80)

Which of the following events occurs last in intramembranous ossification? A) Osteoprogenitor cells become osteoblasts. B) A membrane of delicate collagen fibers develops. C) Spongy bone is formed. D) Periosteum is formed. E) Many tiny trabeculae of woven bone develop.

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81)

The locations where ossification begin in intramembranous ossification are known as A) secondary ossification centers. B) membranous ossification centers. C) centers of ossification. D) medullary cavity ossification centers. E) epiphyseal ossification centers.

82)

The spaces between developing skull bones that have not ossified are called __________. A) epiphyseal plates B) articular cartilages C) fontanels D) bone collars E) medullary cavities

83) The processes of intramembranous and endochondral ossification are similar in several respects. Which of the following statements applies to both intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification? A) Both processesform woven bone. B) Both processes require a precursor of connective tissue membranes. C) In both processes, bone replaces cartilage. D) Both only form flat bones. E) Chondrocytes participate in both processes.

84)

Ossification that involves replacing cartilage with bone is __________.

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A) intramembranous B) endochondral C) interstitial D) appositional E) osteomalacia

85) Arrange the following events of endochondral ossification in the proper sequence: (1) Cartilage matrix is calcified and chondrocytes die. (2) Chondrocytes hypertrophy. (3) Cartilage model is formed. (4) Osteoblasts deposit bone on the surface of the calcified cartilage of the primary ossification center. (5) Blood vessels from the periosteum invade calcified cartilage bringing in osteoblasts and osteoclasts. A) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 B) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1 C) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 D) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2

86)

Which of the following events of endochondral ossification occurs last? A) Blood vessels grow into the primary ossification center. B) Cartilage is calcified in the cartilage model. C) A cartilage model is formed by chondroblasts. D) Osteoblasts produce trabeculae and lamellae on the surface of calcified cartilage. E) Secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses.

87)

Osteoblasts involved in bone growth in length come primarily from

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A) chondrocytes. B) endothelium of blood vessels. C) osteocytes. D) periosteum. E) connective tissue surrounding blood vessels of the endosteum.

88)

Which of the following statements about bone growth is TRUE? A) Most growth in long bones results from interstitial growth. B) Appositional bone growth results in increased bone length. C) Endochondral growth in long bones occurs at the epiphyseal plate. D) In the epiphyseal plate, osteoblasts degenerate to form chondrocytes. E) Bones cannot grow by appositional growth.

89)

The sequence of events that produces growth at the epiphyseal plate is A) hypertrophy, proliferation, calcification, ossification, and remodeling. B) proliferation, hypertrophy, cell death, calcification, ossification, and remodeling. C) hypertrophy, calcification, proliferation, cell death, ossification, and remodeling. D) calcification, hypertrophy, proliferation, ossification, cell death, and remodeling. E) proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification, cell death, ossification, and remodeling.

90)

Appositional growth deposits a new layer of bone tissue A) on the surface of the bone. B) in the epiphyseal plate of long bones. C) in the secondary ossification center of the epiphyses. D) in interstitial areas. E) on spongy bone, but not compact bone.

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91)

If an x-ray shows a black area in the region of the epiphyseal plate, A) the bone is fractured. B) growth of the bone is complete. C) marrow is forming in the spongy bone. D) the epiphyseal plate has not completely ossified. E) the cartilage is absent.

92)

Long bones grow in length at the __________. A) epiphyseal plate B) articular cartilage C) center of the shaft D) endosteum-periosteum junction E) center of the epiphysis

93)

The longitudinal growth of long bones ceases when A) chondroblasts take over mitosis of osteoblasts. B) the epiphyseal plate is completely replaced with bone tissue. C) the epiphysis becomes separated from the diaphysis. D) the bone marrow forms. E) the periosteum is completed.

94)

Increase in epiphysis size is the result of bone growth at the __________.

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A) articular cartilage B) joint cavity C) perichondrium D) epiphyseal plate E) diaphysis

95)

Bone growth at the articular cartilage is responsible for bone growth of __________. A) short bones B) long bones C) flat bones D) irregular bones E) only the cartilage

96) When blood vessels become surrounded by concentric lamella forming osteons, the bone will grow in __________. A) length B) diameter C) the epiphyseal plate D) the articular cartilage E) All of the choices are correct.

97) Normal bone growth requires adequate amounts of certain substance from the diet. Which of the following list three of the dietary needs for normal bone growth?

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A) Sodium, calcium, and vitamin E B) Potassium, calcium, and vitamin D C) Calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D D) Vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride E) Vitamin E, vitamin B, and vitamin A

98)

Which of the following substance is mismatched with its role in the body? A) Vitamin D - aids calcium absorption B) Vitamin C - necessary for collagen synthesis C) Vitamin D - obtained by synthesis or ingestion D) Sex hormones - cause spurt of growth at puberty E) Parathyroid hormone - increases calcium loss in the kidneys

99)

The growth spurt seen in puberty is triggered by __________. A) parathyroid hormone B) sex hormones C) growth hormone D) thyroid hormone E) calcitonin

100) A young boy (10 years old) exhibited the following symptoms: advanced development of secondary sexual characteristics and rapid growth. Which of the following likely caused his condition?

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A) Hypersecretion of growth hormone B) Hypersecretion of testosterone C) Hypersecretion of estrogen D) Hyposecretion of estrogen E) Hypersecretion of vitamin D

101) A twelve-year old girl has not yet experienced a bone growth spurt. Which particular chemicals must her body produce before this can occur? A) Growth hormone B) Sex hormones C) Parathyroid hormone D) Calcitonin E) Vitamin D

102) A boy grew rapidly and reached a height of 6'2" by the time he was 13. He had normal body proportions and sexual development but had below normal mental cognition. Which of the following likely caused his condition? A) An adrenal tumor that secretes androgens B) Hypersecretion of testosterone C) Elevated vitamin D synthesis D) Hypersecretion of growth hormone E) Hyposecretion of growth hormone

103)

Which chemical stimulates interstitial cartilage and appositional bone growth?

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A) Growth hormone B) Sex hormones C) Parathyroid hormone D) Calcitonin E) Vitamin D

104) Which chemical, ingested or synthesized by the body, is necessary for calcium absorption from the intestines? A) Growth hormone B) Sex hormones C) Parathyroid hormone D) Calcitonin E) Vitamin D

105)

Which of the following statements about bone remodeling and repair is correct? A) Bone remodeling involves removal of old bone by osteoblasts. B) As a long bone increases in diameter, the size of the marrow cavity decreases. C) The rate of bone remodeling increases in the elderly. D) Exposure of a bone to increased mechanical stress can lead to bone remodeling. E) Bone remodeling does not involve the activity of the osteoclasts and the osteoblasts.

106)

The remodeling of bone tissue is a function of

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A) osteoblast and osteoclast activity. B) osteoclast and osteocyte activity. C) chondroblast and osteoclast activity. D) chondrocyte and osteocyte activity. E) fibroblast and chondroblast activity.

107)

Bone remodeling may occur A) as bones grow. B) as bones adjust to stress. C) as fractures heal. D) constantly during a person's lifetime. E) All of the choices are correct.

108)

Osteoclasts are most active in the_________blank of a growing bone. A) epiphysis B) epiphyseal plate C) medullary cavity D) articular cartilage E) perichondrium

109)

The proper sequence of events in bone repair is A) callus formation, hematoma formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone. B) remodeling of bone, callus ossification, hematoma formation, callus formation. C) hematoma formation, callus formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone. D) callus ossification, callus formation, remodeling of bone, hematoma formation. E) hematoma formation, callus ossification, callus formation, remodeling of bone.

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110)

Which structure forms between the ends of a broken bone as well as the marrow cavity? A) Hematoma B) Internal callus C) External callus D) Compact bone

111)

An incomplete bone fracture generally found in children is a/an __________. A) complicated fracture B) hairline fracture C) spiral fracture D) avulsion fracture E) greenstick fracture

112) Miguel fell out of a tree and broke his fall by putting his arm out, fracturing his radius and ulna. The bones were still aligned at the fracture site. Which specific type of bone fracture is Miguel most likely to have? A) Stress fracture fracture B) Nondisplaced fracture C) Spiral fracture D) Avulsion fracture E) None of the choices are correct.

113)

A fracture that has not penetrated the skin is a/an _________blank fracture.

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A) open B) closed C) displaced D) composite E) irregular

114) A bone fracture in which the two bone sections do not separate is a/an __________ fracture. A) open B) closed C) avulsion D) complete E) nondisplaced

115) The collar that forms around the opposing ends of bone fragments is called a/an __________. A) osteon B) external callus C) hematoma D) epiphysis E) internal callus

116) When a fracture begins to heal, one type of bone cell moves into the fracture site and tears down the damaged bone tissue. Which of the following does this?

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A) Osteoclasts B) Osteoblasts C) Osteons D) Matrix cells E) Osteocytes

117)

Low blood calcium levels cause which of the following? A) Increased osteoclast activity B) Increased calcitonin secretion C) Reduced calcium absorption D) Increased production of bone tissue E) Increased osteoblast activity

118) An older man has been diagnosed with osteoporosis, and his blood calcium levels are above normal. Cancer cells that oversecrete_________blank may be causing his symptoms. A) vitamin D B) parathyroid hormone C) calcitonin D) thyroid hormone E) growth hormone

119)

Osteoclast activity is increased by __________.

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A) parathyroid hormone B) vitamin D C) calcitonin D) growth hormone E) vitamin C

120)

Osteoclast activity decreases when_________blank levels are elevated. A) parathyroid hormone B) vitamin D C) calcitonin D) growth hormone E) vitamin C

121)

Which of the following statements regarding calcium homeostasis is true? A) Parathyroid hormone inhibits osteoclast activity. B) When blood calcium levels are too low, osteoclast activity increases. C) Increased osteoblast activity increases blood calcium levels. D) Parathyroid hormone increases calcium loss from the kidney. E) Calcitonin elevates blood calcium levels.

122)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) causes A) increased RANKL and increased OPG. B) increased RANKL and decreased OPG. C) decreased RANKL and increased OPG. D) decreased RANKL and decreased OPG. E) PTH has no effect on RANKL and OPG.

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123)

Which of the following is NOT a direct effect of parathyroid hormone (PTH)? A) Increased Ca2+ uptake by the small intestine B) Increased vitamin D formation in the kidneys C) Increased Ca2+ reabsorption by the kidneys D) Decreased Ca2+ loss by the kidneys E) All of the choices are direct effects of PTH.

124)

Which of the following statements regarding PTH (parathyroid hormone) is true? A) PTH causesdecreased uptake of Ca2+ from the small intestine. B) PTH causes decreased vitamin D formation in the kidneys. C) PTH causesincreased reabsorption of Ca2+ in the kidneys. D) PTH causesincreased loss of Ca2+ from the kidneys. E) PTH causesincreased Na+ reabsorption in the kidneys.

125)

Calcitonin A) decreases osteoblast activity. B) decreases osteocyte activity. C) decreases osteochondral progenitor cell activity. D) is associated with decreased osteoclast activity. E) has no effect on bone cells.

126) Sally has elevated blood calcium levels. Which substance would you expect to find in high levels in response to this condition?

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A) Growth hormone B) Sex hormones C) Parathyroid hormone D) Calcitonin E) Vitamin D

127)

Which substance causes an increase in the blood calcium level? A) Growth hormone B) Sex hormones C) Parathyroid hormone D) Calcitonin E) Vitamin D

128)

One effect of aging on the skeletal system is A) decreased bone matrix. B) increased bone density. C) decreased collagen fibers. D) increased elastic fibers. E) Both "decreased bone matrix" and "decreased collagen fibers" are correct.

129) The most common bone disease is osteoporosis. The most common consequence of this disease is

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A) fractures. B) bone thickening. C) luxations and subluxations. D) fusion of bones. E) remodeling of bone.

130)

Osteomyelitis is A) bone inflammation that often results from bacterial infection. B) a disease in adults, especially women, characterized by a reduced amount of bone

matrix. C) a disease in adults characterized by softening of bones resulting from calcium depletion. D) a disease in children characterized by soft, bowed, and swollen bones. E) a group of genetic disorders producing very brittle bones that are easily fractured; occurs because of insufficient collagen development.

131)

Osteomalacia is A) bone inflammation that often results from bacterial infection. B) a disease in adults, especially women, characterized by a reduced amount of bone

132)

Osteoporosis is

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A) bone inflammation that often results from bacterial infection. B) a disease in adults, especially women, characterized by a reduced amount of bone matrix. C) a disease in adults characterized by softening of bones resulting from calcium depletion. D) a disease in children characterized by soft, bowed, and swollen bones. E) a group of genetic disorders producing very brittle bones that are easily fractured; this occurs because of insufficient collagen development.

133)

How does the muscular system contribute to osteoporosis? A) It is impacted by inadequate amounts of calcium and vitamin D in the diet. B) Lack of exercise reduces muscle stress on bone. C) Pain following injury helps prevent further injury. D) Blood clotting starts repair process. E) Calcitonin is used to treat osteoporosis.

134)

Which of the following is an example of how the endocrine system affects osteoporosis? A) It is impacted by inadequate amounts of calcium and vitamin D in the diet. B) Lack of exercise reduces muscle stress on bone. C) Pain following injury helps prevent further injury. D) Blood clotting starts repair process. E) Calcitonin is used to treat osteoporosis.

135)

How does the digestive system contribute to osteoporosis?

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A) It is impacted by inadequate amounts of calcium and vitamin D in the diet. B) Lack of exercise reduces muscle stress on bone. C) Pain following injury helps prevent further injury. D) Blood clotting starts repair process. E) Calcitonin is used to treat osteoporosis.

136) Which of the following is an example of how the cardiovascular system works to counteract the effects of osteoporosis? A) Improve the absorption of calcium and vitamin D in the diet. B) Increase exercise to increase muscle stress on bone. C) Reduce pain following injury. D) Blood clotting starts repair process. E) Calcitonin is used to treat osteoporosis.

137) How does the nervous system contribute to homeostasis in individuals suffering from osteoporosis? A) Address inadequate amounts of calcium and vitamin D in the diet. B) Stimulate exercise to reduce muscle stress on bone. C) The sense of pain following injury helps prevent further injury. D) Inhibit blood clotting to halt the repair process. E) Reduce calcitonin secretion.

138) Which of the following involves respiratory system activity that contributes to osteoporosis?

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A) Lack of oxygen reduces vitamin D production and decreases calcium absorption. B) Mucosal cells of the respiratory tract release chemicals that inhibit tissue repair. C) Excessive smoking lowers estrogen levels, which increases bone loss. D) Calcium ions released from the bones are excreted through exhaled air. E) Decreased oxygen levels contribute to the disease.

139)

How does the reproductive system contribute to osteoporosis?

A) Lack of sex hormone production reduces vitamin D production and decreases calcium absorption. B) Immune cells decrease in number after puberty and reduce bone repair. C) Excessive smoking lowers estrogen levels, which increases bone loss. D) Calcium ions released from the bones are necessary for gamete production. E) Decreased estrogen levels following menopause contribute to the disease.

140)

How do the lymphatic and immune systems contribute to osteoporosis? A) Macrophages in the skin destroy the precursor to vitamin D. B) Immune cells resist infections and release chemicals that promote tissue repair. C) Excessive smoking stimulate immune cells to attack bones, which increases bone loss. D) Calcium ions are excreted by immune cells at the lymph nodes. E) Decreased estrogen levels following a viral infection contribute to the disease.

141)

How does the integumentary system contribute to osteoporosis?

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A) Lack of exposure to sunlight reduces vitamin D production and decreases calcium absorption. B) Lack of exposure to sunlight increases calcitonin secretion leading to reduced calcium storage in the bones. C) Estrogen produced in the dermis reduces calcium excretion in the kidneys. D) Calcium ions released from the bones are excreted through sweat. E) Decreased estrogen levels following menopause contribute to the disease.

142)

How does the urinary system contribute to osteoporosis?

A) Lack of exposure to sunlight increases vitamin D production at the kidneys and decreases calcium absorption. B) Immune cells of the kidneys absorb excess calcium under the direction of PTH. C) Excessive smoking lowers calcitriol levels, which decreases bone loss. D) Calcium ions released from the bones are excreted as part of urine. E) Decreased estrogen levels following menopause contribute to the disease.

143)

Osteogenesis imperfecta is A) bone inflammation that often results from bacterial infection. B) a disease in adults, especially women, characterized by a reduced amount of bone

144)

Bones that are thin and have a broad curved shape are classified as ______ bones.

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A) flat B) irregular C) long D) short

145) Bones are classified as one of four types, based on their shapes. The bones of the cranium are examples of ______ bones. A) flat B) irregular C) long D) short

146) Bones that are longer than they are wide and generally have enlarged ends for articulations are classified as ______ bones. A) flat B) irregular C) long D) short

147) Name the air-filled spaces lined by mucous membranes found within flat and irregular bones. A) Foramina B) Medullary cavities C) Sinuses D) Short bone

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148) During development, some bones arise from thick connective tissue membranes in a process known as __________ ossification, and other bones arise from a hyaline cartilage model in a process known as __________ ossification. A) endochondral; intramembranous B) intramembranous; endochondral

149) Bone formation associated with cartilage is called __________ ossification while bone formed in connective tissue membranes is called ___________ ossification. A) endochondral; intramembranous B) intramembranous; endochondral C) woven, spongy D) spongy, woven

150)

What is the type of ossification that forms the flat bones of the skull? A) Endochondral ossification B) Intramembranous ossification

151)

The epiphysis of the clavicle is formed by __________ ossification. A) endochondral B) intramembranous

152)

The inferior portion of the occipital bone is formed by __________ ossification. A) endochondral B) intramembranous

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153)

The parietal bone is formed by __________ ossification. A) endochondral B) intramembranous

154)

The ethmoid and sphenoid bones are formed by __________ ossification. A) endochondral B) intramembranous

155) The process of __________ is important to change shapes of bones, adjust to bone stress, replace old bone matrix and to facilitate repair of broken bones. A) bone remodeling B) endochondral ossification C) intramembranous ossification D) appositional bone growth

156) Name the process that changes the shapes of bones to adjust to bone stress, replaces old bone matrix and facilitates the repair of broken bones. A) Bone remodeling B) Bone reabsorption C) Osteomalacia D) Appositional bone growth

157)

The term basic multicellular unit (BMU) refers to

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A) group of osteoblasts and osteoclasts that work together during bone remodeling. B) the osteoblasts found in the deepest layer of the periosteum, which are involved in appositional growth. C) the clusters of chondrocytes within the metaphysis that will be converted to bone.

158) Osteoclasts and osteoblasts that travel through or across the bone surface removing and replacing old bone matrix are collectively called a(n) __________. A) basic multicellular unit B) osteogenic repair unit C) bone reformation unit D) callus multicellular unit E) osteon

159)

Which effect can be attributed to increased pressure on a bone? A) Increased osteoblast activity B) Increased osteoclast activity

160)

The zygomatic bone is an example of a(n) __________ bone. A) long B) flat C) short D) irregular

161) It is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of the __________.

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A) diaphysis B) medullary cavity C) epiphyseal plate D) articular cartilage

162) A 65 year old man has knee replacement surgery which requires a thin section of his distal femur to be removed. Which of the following statements is true? A) Due to the invasive nature of the surgical procedure, he is at risk for osteomyelitis, a bacterial infection of bone. B) He has no risk of osteomyelitis because he tests negative for Staphylococcus aureus when given a skin swab. C) The health care team informs him that he is at high risk for osteomyelitis due to his age. D) As long as the surgery has minimal bleeding, he will have no risk for developing osteomyelitis.

163)

Osteomyelitis causes destruction of bone tissue primarily by A) promoting inflammation and overstimulation of osteoclast activity. B) inhibiting bone marrow production of osteoclasts. C) suppressing the production of RANKL by osteoblasts. D) stimulating apoptosis in osteoclast cells.

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164)

164.1)

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What does structure "A" represent on the bone diagram?

A) Spongy bone B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal lines D) Articular cartilage E) Epiphysis

164.2)

What does structure "B" represent on the bone diagram?

A) Spongy bone B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal lines D) Articular cartilage E) Epiphysis

164.3)

What does structure "C" represent on the bone diagram?

A) Spongy bone B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal lines D) Articular cartilage E) Epiphysis

164.4)

What does structure "D" represent on the bone diagram?

A) Spongy bone B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal lines D) Articular cartilage E) Epiphysis

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164.5)

What does structure "E" represent on the bone diagram?

A) Spongy bone B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal lines D) Articular cartilage E) Epiphysis

165)

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165.1) This figure illustrates bone growth in length at the epiphyseal plate. Zone "A" represents A) bone tissue of the diaphysis. B) the zone of calcification. C) the zone of hypertrophy. D) the zone of proliferation. E) the zone of resting cartilage.

165.2) This figure illustrates bone growth in length at the epiphyseal plate. Zone "B" represents A) bone tissue of the diaphysis. B) zone of calcification. C) zone of hypertrophy. D) zone of proliferation. E) zone of resting cartilage.

165.3) This figure illustrates bone growth in length at the epiphyseal plate. Zone "C" represents A) bone tissue of the diaphysis. B) zone of calcification. C) zone of hypertrophy. D) zone of proliferation. E) zone of resting cartilage.

165.4) This figure illustrates bone growth in length at the epiphyseal plate. Zone "D" represents

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A) bone tissue of the diaphysis. B) zone of calcification. C) zone of hypertrophy. D) zone of proliferation. E) zone of resting cartilage.

165.5) This figure illustrates bone growth in length at the epiphyseal plate. Zone "E" represents A) bone tissue of the diaphysis. B) zone of calcification. C) zone of hypertrophy. D) zone of proliferation. E) zone of resting cartilage.

166) True or False? The two types of bone development formation include endochondral and endosteal bone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

167)

True or False? Bone remodeling stops during puberty. ⊚ true ⊚ false

168) True or False? The application of small electrical charges to broken bones are sometimes used to enhance healing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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169) True or False? The application of pressure creates a slight electrical charge on osteoblasts. ⊚ true ⊚ false

170) A young woman is in a car accident. When she regains consciousness, she notices a sharp pain in her left arm. Looking down, she sees a bone sticking out. This is a open (compound) fracture. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chapter 06_13e_ VanPutte 1) [A, B, C, E] 2) [A, B, D] 3) [A, B] 4) E 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) E 10) C 11) C 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) E 28) B 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) D 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) E 40) D 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) A 50) C 51) E 52) A 53) D 54) B 55) B 56) B Version 1

57) A 58) B 59) C 60) B 61) A 62) C 63) A 64) D 65) C 66) E 67) C 68) A 69) E 70) D 71) C 72) B 73) A 74) C 75) B 76) A 77) D 78) D 79) A 80) C 81) C 82) C 83) A 84) B 85) A 86) E Version 1

87) E 88) C 89) E 90) A 91) D 92) A 93) B 94) A 95) A 96) B 97) C 98) E 99) B 100) B 101) B 102) D 103) A 104) E 105) D 106) A 107) E 108) C 109) C 110) B 111) E 112) B 113) B 114) E 115) B 116) A Version 1

117) A 118) B 119) A 120) C 121) B 122) B 123) A 124) C 125) D 126) D 127) C 128) E 129) A 130) A 131) C 132) B 133) B 134) E 135) A 136) D 137) C 138) C 139) E 140) B 141) A 142) D 143) E 144) A 145) A 146) C Version 1

147) C 148) B 149) A 150) B 151) A 152) A 153) B 154) A 155) A 156) A 157) A 158) A 159) A 160) D 161) C 162) A 163) A 164) Section Break 164.1) D 164.2) E 164.3) C 164.4) A 164.5) B 165) Section Break 165.1) E 165.2) D 165.3) C 165.4) B 165.5) A 166) FALSE Version 1

167) FALSE 168) TRUE 169) TRUE 170) TRUE

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CHAPTER 7 1) Which of the following statements explain why the number of bones vary with age? (Check all that apply.) A) Bones are lost due to deterioration of calcium salts. B) Sesamoid bones form within tendons in response to stress. C) Some bones fuse together with age.

Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? A) Rib B) Radius C) Clavicle D) Scapula E) Hipbone

The appendicular skeleton consists of the A) skull and appendages. B) rib cage and the pelvis. C) limbs and their girdles. D) rib cage and limb girdles. E) vertebral column.

4) Which of the following anatomical features of bones is correctly matched with its function?

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A) Tubercle - lining of a joint B) Body - attachment point for a tendon or ligament C) Foramen - a hole for a blood vessel D) Sinus - a tunnel in a bone E) Foramen - a depression in a bone

Which anatomical term is correctly matched with its description? A) Condyle - a small, rounded bump B) Spine - a low ridge C) Tuberosity - a flat, tongue-shaped process D) Meatus - a tunnel E) Fossa - a ridge extending along the long axis of the bone

Which of the following bones is part of the cranium? A) Vomer B) Nasal bone C) Palatine bone D) Occipital bone E) Mandible

Which of the following bones is paired? A) Vomer B) Temporal C) Sphenoid D) Mandible E) Occipital

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8) Andrew is in a car accident and fractures his maxilla. To which group of bones does this belong? A) Face B) Chest cavity C) Cervical vertebrae D) Pectoral girdle E) Cranium

Which of the following facial bones is correctly matched with its function? A) Maxilla - possesses sockets for teeth B) Vomer - forms the hard palate C) Inferior nasal conchae - contain nasolacrimal canals D) Zygomatic - provides attachment point for temporalis muscle E) Temporal - is part of the orbit

10) A person who gets hit on the back of the head might suffer injury to which of these bones? A) Temporal B) Occipital C) Sphenoid D) Zygomatic E) Nasal

11)

The sagittal suture is located between the

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A) two parietal bones. B) frontal and parietal bones. C) parietal and temporal bones. D) parietal and occipital bones. E) frontal and temporal bones.

12)

The lambdoidal suture is located between the A) frontal and parietal bones. B) parietal and temporal bones. C) temporal and occipital bones. D) parietal and occipital bones. E) two parietal bones.

13)

The ligamentum nuchae A) protects the brain. B) is a part of the nose. C) moves the eye. D) supports the jaw. E) helps keep the head erect.

14) A person who has cerebrospinal fluid draining from the ear probably has a fracture of the __________ bone.

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A) frontal B) temporal C) zygomatic D) parietal E) occipital

15)

The mastoid process A) is part of the zygomatic arch. B) is located anterior to the external auditory meatus. C) contains mastoid air cells. D) is the point of attachment of the temporalis muscle. E) is a sinus.

16)

Getting a kiss on the cheek means the __________ bone is involved. A) frontal B) zygomatic C) maxilla D) sphenoid E) ethmoid

17) Which of the following is found inferior to the maxilla and has a posterior articulation with the temporal bone? A) Zygomatic B) Sphenoid C) Parietal D) Mandible E) Palatine bone

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18)

The maxilla forms the A) roof of the orbit. B) floor of the orbit. C) lateral wall of the orbit. D) medial wall of the orbit. E) posterior wall of the orbit.

19)

Which of the following bones forms part of the lateral wall of the nasal cavity? A) Vomer B) Sphenoid C) Inferior nasal conchae D) Frontal E) Nasal

20)

Which of the following bones form the nasal septum? A) Inferior nasal conchae and lacrimal bones B) Vomer and ethmoid C) Maxilla and vomer D) Ethmoid and sphenoid E) Nasal and vomer

21)

Which of the following bones contains a sinus?

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A) Maxilla B) Nasal bone C) Occipital bone D) Zygomatic bone E) Temporal

22) A patient is diagnosed with a pituitary tumor. This means that the tumor is in the _________blank. A) crista galli B) cribriform plate C) sella turcica D) pterygoid canal E) foramen magnum

23) A boxer is informed after a fight that she has a broken ethmoid bone. Due to its location she may have difficulty with which of these special senses? A) Equilibrium B) Hearing C) Vision D) Smell

24) A three-year old child is admitted to the hospital with stenosis (narrowing) of the foramen magnum. This condition directly affects which of these structures? A) Optic nerve B) Carotid arteries C) Internal jugular veins D) Facial and vestibulocochlear nerves E) Spinal cord

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25)

Which of the following bony features is mismatched with its description? A) Crista galli - point of attachment of one of the meninges B) Occipital condyles - articulation points between the skull and vertebral column C) Alveolar process - ridge containing the teeth D) Styloid process - point of articulation of mandible with skull E) Mandibular fossa - point of articulation of mandible with skull

26)

A tumor discovered in the posterior orbit would most likely impact __________. A) speech B) vision C) olfaction D) memory

27) Failure of the palatine processes of the maxilla to fuse properly during development results in a __________. A) cleft lip B) cleft chin C) cleft palate D) deviated septum E) clogged sinus

28)

Which of the following statements concerning the maxilla is false?

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A) The maxilla contains a large sinus. B) The maxilla forms part of the orbit. C) The maxilla forms part of the hard palate. D) The maxilla articulates with the mastoid process. E) The maxilla forms the upper jaw.

29)

A person with a fractured mandible has a broken __________. A) back B) neck C) rib D) upper jaw E) lower jaw

30)

Which of the following bony features is not associated with the skull? A) Foramen rotundum B) Pterygoid canal C) Obturator foramen D) Stylomastoid foramen E) Cribriform plate

31)

Which skull canal contains blood vessels that drain blood from the skull? A) Carotid canal B) External auditory meatus C) Jugular foramen D) Nasolacrimal canal E) Foramen ovale

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32)

Which skull canal conveys sound waves to the eardrum? A) Carotid canal B) External auditory canal C) Jugular foramen D) Nasolacrimal canal E) Foramen ovale

33)

Which skull canal contains branches of the trigeminal nerve? A) Carotid canal B) External auditory canal C) Jugular foramen D) Nasolacrimal canal E) Foramen ovale

34)

Which skull canal does the internal carotid artery pass through? A) Carotid canal B) External auditory canal C) Jugular foramen D) Nasolacrimal canal E) Foramen ovale

35)

What canal conveys tears from the eyes to the nasal cavity?

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A) Carotid canal B) External auditory canal C) Jugular foramen D) Nasolacrimal canal E) Foramen ovale

36)

Which cranial bone forms the bony eyebrow ridges and roofs of the orbits? A) Maxilla B) Zygomatic C) Frontal D) Sphenoid E) Temporal

37) The bone that forms the chin is also the only bone connected to the skull by a freely moveable joint. This bone is the __________. A) mental bone B) maxilla C) hyoid D) vomer E) mandible

38) Anatomy students are viewing a specific bone and identifying the sella turcica, pterygoid processes, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, and the foramen rotundum. Which bone are they studying?

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A) Sphenoid bone B) Ethmoid bone C) Occipital bone D) Vomer E) Palatine bone

39) A coroner determines the cause of death to be strangulation because this delicate bone is fractured. Which bone is this? A) Clavicle B) C2 C) Sphenoid D) Vomer E) Hyoid

40)

The __________ region of the vertebral column is located in the neck. A) sacral B) cervical C) lumbar D) thoracic E) coccygeal

41)

Which of the following statements concerning the vertebral column is true?

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A) The cervical curve develops before birth. B) The adult vertebral column has three curvatures. C) Scoliosis is the term applied to normal curvature of the spine. D) An exaggerated thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called kyphosis. E) Lordosis is an exaggeration of the cervical curvature.

42) Traumatic hyperextension of the head can occur when someone is rear-ended in a car accident. This can cause A) whiplash. B) a fracture. C) scoliosis. D) a herniated disc. E) spina bifida.

43)

Which of the following is a function of the vertebral column? A) It supports the weight of the body. B) It allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord. C) It serves as a passageway for the cranial nerves. D) It contains numerous foramina for the passageway of blood vessels. E) It protects the brain.

44)

Which of the following statements concerning the vertebrae is true?

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A) The first cervical vertebra is called the axis. B) The spinal cord protects the vertebral column. C) Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes. D) The sacral vertebrae are superior to the lumbar vertebrae. E) Lumbar vertebrae are generally smaller than thoracic vertebrae.

45)

The coccyx is A) absent in humans. B) also called the hipbone. C) located in the upper lumbar region. D) the most inferior portion of the vertebral column. E) the bottom of the spinal cord.

46)

A fractured dens or odontoid process involves damage to which specific bone? A) C1 B) C2 C) T1 D) C7 E) S2

47)

Transverse foramina are found in __________ vertebrae. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) antebrachial

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48)

Articular facets on the transverse processes are characteristic of __________ vertebrae. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal

49) A patient is told that they have fractured the most anterior part of their vertebra. Which part is most likely affected? A) Body B) Lamina C) Spinous process D) Transverse process E) Vertebral arch

50)

The loss of height that occurs with aging is due to compression of the A) pelvic girdle. B) vertebral arches. C) vertebral bodies. D) vertebral foramen. E) intervertebral discs.

51)

The ribs articulate with the __________ vertebrae.

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A) sacral B) lumbar C) thoracic D) cervical E) coccygeal

52)

The first cervical vertebrae is the __________. A) occipital B) axis C) clavicle D) atlas E) mastoid

53) Classify a vertebra with the following characteristics: (1) Superior articular processes face posteriorly (2) Circular vertebral foramen (3) Long spinous processes A) Cervical B) Thoracic C) Lumbar D) Sacral E) Coccygeal

54)

A herniated disc occurs when

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A) the body of a vertebra is fractured. B) the covering of the spinal cord is torn. C) there is a fracture of the vertebral arch. D) there is protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. E) spinal nerves are cut.

55) An eighty-year old woman has a bent-over stance with a noticeable hump back. Along with osteoporosis, which condition is indicated? A) Lordosis B) Kyphosis C) Scoliosis D) Spina bifida E) Herniated disk

56)

What results from damage to annulus fibrosus and release of nucleus pulposus? A) Lordosis B) Kyphosis C) Scoliosis D) Spina bifida E) Herniated disk

57)

Which condition results from failure of vertebral laminae to fuse?

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A) Lordosis B) Kyphosis C) Scoliosis D) Spina bifida E) Herniated disk

58)

An exaggerated curvature of the lumbar region is __________. A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) scoliosis D) spina bifida E) herniated disk

59)

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is __________. A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) scoliosis D) spina bifida E) herniated disk

60)

The posterior part of the vertebral arch is the __________. A) intervertebral disk B) vertebral foramen C) lamina D) intervertebral foramen E) spinous process

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61)

The fibrocartilage located between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae is the __________. A) intervertebral disk B) vertebral foramen C) lamina D) intervertebral foramen E) spinous process

62)

The site where spinal nerves exit the vertebral column is the __________. A) intervertebral disk B) vertebral foramen C) lamina D) intervertebral foramen E) spinous process

63)

The opening in vertebrae for the spinal cord is the __________. A) intervertebral disk B) vertebral foramen C) lamina D) intervertebral foramen E) spinous process

64)

The posterior, inferior projection from vertebrae is the __________.

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A) intervertebral disk B) vertebral foramen C) lamina D) intervertebral foramen E) spinous process

65)

The anterior boundary of the "rib cage" is/are the __________. A) ribs B) sternum C) costal cartilages D) thoracic vertebrae E) skin

66)

Which of the following parts of a rib articulates with the body of a vertebra? A) Head B) Neck C) Body D) Groove E) Sternal end

67)

Those ribs that attach directly to the sternum are referred to as __________ ribs. A) false B) vertebral C) true D) vertebrochondral E) floating

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68)

Ribs that do not attach directly to the sternum are called __________ ribs. A) false B) vertebral C) vertebrosternal D) vertebrochondral E) floating

69)

Which of the following ribs attaches to the sternum at the sternal angle? A) The first B) The second C) The seventh D) The twelfth E) The third

70)

Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are all parts of the __________. A) pelvis B) scapula C) clavicle D) sternum E) sacrum

71) The upper limb and its girdle are attached rather loosely to the rest of the body. This arrangement

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A) results in a disjointed appearance. B) limits fine coordination of the hands. C) allows a wide range of movements. D) restricts the amount of weight the upper limb can support. E) results in a limited range of motion.

72)

The collar bone is the __________. A) sternum B) clavicle C) scapula D) humerus E) atlas

73)

Another name for the shoulder blade is the __________. A) sternum B) clavicle C) scapula D) acromion E) xiphoid process

74)

The glenoid cavity is where the A) clavicle articulates with the scapula. B) clavicle articulates with the sternum. C) humerus articulates with the clavicle. D) humerus articulates with the scapula. E) radius articulateswith humerus.

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75)

The acromion process A) is part of the clavicle. B) articulates with the coracoid process. C) forms the most inferior part of the glenoid fossa. D) has no function. E) has an articulation with the clavicle.

76)

A dislocated shoulder involves separation of the ____________ from the scapula. A) radius B) clavicle C) humerus D) manubrium E) sternum

77)

Which of the following is most distal in location on the humerus? A) Trochlea B) Greater tubercle C) Deltoid tuberosity D) Medial epicondyle E) Anatomical neck

78)

The humerus articulates with the ulna at the

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A) medial epicondyle. B) lateral epicondyle. C) capitulum. D) radial fossa. E) trochlea.

79)

The humerus articulates with the radius at the A) medial epicondyle. B) lateral epicondyle. C) capitulum. D) radial fossa. E) trochlea.

80)

If you break the lateral bone of your forearm, you have fractured your __________. A) ulna B) radius C) humerus D) olecranon E) carpals

81)

The point of the elbow is the __________. A) trochlea B) capitulum C) olecranon fossa D) styloid process E) olecranon process

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82)

The olecranon process is found on the __________. A) ulna B) radius C) scapula D) humerus E) clavicle

83) A patient's arm was severed midway between the wrist and the elbow. Which of the following bones was severed? A) Radius B) Humerus C) Clavicle D) Ulna E) Both "radius" and "ulna" are correct.

84)

The wrist is composed of eight bones called __________. A) tarsal bones B) carpal bones C) metacarpal bones D) metatarsal bones E) digits

85)

Which of the following is not a carpal?

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A) Scaphoid B) Hamate C) Navicular D) Pisiform E) Trapezium

86)

The knuckles of the hand are formed by the distal ends of the __________. A) carpals B) metacarpals C) phalanges D) tarsals E) metatarsals

87)

A woman pinched her phalanx. She hurt her __________. A) ear B) toe C) cheek D) finger E) Both "toe" and "finger" are correct.

88)

Which of the following statements concerning the upper limb is false? A) The wrist is the region between the forearm and the hand. B) The olecranon process is located on the distal end of the ulna. C) The distal end of the radius articulates with the ulna and the carpals. D) Tendons and nerves pass through the carpal tunnel to enter the hand. E) The radius is the most commonly fractured bone in people over 50.

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89)

The bone that articulates with the acetabulum is the __________. A) femur B) tibia C) fibula D) humerus E) pubis

90)

The obturator foramen is found in the __________. A) skull B) scapula C) sacrum D) hipbone E) vertebrae

91)

The greater sciatic notch is found on the A) inferior edge of the pubis. B) posterior side of the ilium. C) superior edge of the ischium. D) ventral surface of the sacrum. E) inferior edge of the ischium.

92)

A patient with a fractured ischium has a broken _________blank.

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A) arm B) wrist C) knee D) pelvis E) ankle

93)

Which part of the pelvis does a person sit on? A) iliac fossae. B) pelvic brim. C) pubis symphyses. D) ischial tuberosities. E) obturator foramen.

94)

Which of the following situations could interfere with normal child birth? A) Small ischial spines B) A small pelvic outlet C) An enlarged iliac crest D) A wide, circular pelvic inlet E) Widely spaced ischial spines

95)

Which of the following is not a hipbone? A) Ischium B) Femur C) Ilium D) Pubic

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96)

The largest and most superior region of the hipbone is the __________. A) ischium B) femur C) ilium D) pubic E) coccyx

97) A patient is experiencing pain and discomfort in the posterior hip region. Which specific joint may be the problem? A) Proximal radio-ulnar joint B) Sacroiliac joint C) Symphysis pubis D) Knee joint E) Glenohumeral joint

98)

The portion of hipbone a person sits on is the A) anterior superior iliac spine. B) sacroiliac joint. C) symphysis pubis. D) iliac fossa. E) ischial tuberosity.

99)

The large depression on the medial side of the ilium is the

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A) anterior superior iliac spine. B) sacroiliac joint. C) symphysis pubis. D) iliac fossa. E) ischial tuberosity.

100)

The junction of two pubic bones is the A) anterior superior iliac spine. B) sacroiliac joint. C) symphysis pubis. D) iliac fossa. E) ischial tuberosity.

101)

The anterior end of the iliac crest is the A) anterior superior iliac spine. B) sacroiliac joint. C) symphysis pubis. D) iliac fossa. E) ischial tuberosity.

102)

The large bone in the thigh is the __________. A) tibia B) femur C) fibula D) ischium E) hipbone

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103) When comparing the female pelvis with the male pelvis, which of the following statements is false? A) The female pelvis is heavier. B) The ilium is more flared in the female pelvis. C) The ischial spines are further apart in the female pelvis. D) The subpubic angle is 90 degrees or greater in the female pelvis. E) The female pelvis is broader.

104)

Which of the following statements about the femur is TRUE? A) The head of the femur articulates with the tibia. B) The medial condyle articulates with the acetabulum. C) Both the greater and lesser trochanters are attachment sites for muscles. D) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the femur. E) The proximal end of the femur articulates with the tibia.

105) Which of the following structures of the lower limb is correctly matched to its description? A) Greater trochanter - distal shaft of femur B) Lateral malleolus - distal end of tibia C) Patella - bone within tendon of quadriceps D) Tibial tuberosity - superior to the patella E) Medial malleolus - proximal end of the tibia

106)

The medial malleolus

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A) is the proximal portion of the tibia. B) forms the medial side of the ankle joint. C) articulates with the calcaneus. D) is part of the arch of the foot. E) is on the lateral side of the leg.

107)

The tarsal bone that articulates with the tibia and the fibula is the __________. A) talus B) cuboid C) navicular D) calcaneus E) patella

108)

The heel of the foot is formed by the __________. A) talus B) patella C) cuboid bone D) navicular bone E) calcaneus

109) A patient in a skiing accident is told that the lateral side of the ankle joint has been crushed. The bone that has been injured is the __________.

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A) femur B) tibia C) fibula D) calcaneus E) talus

110)

The foot contains A) carpals. B) a patella. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) the lateral malleolus.

111)

The thumb and big toe are similar in that A) both contain carpal bones. B) each have three metatarsals. C) both are composed of sesamoid bones. D) both have two rather than three phalanges. E) both have three rather than two phalanges.

112)

Which bone is in the foot? A) Vomer B) Pisiform C) Lunate D) Cuneiform E) Metacarpal

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113)

The common name for the patella is the __________. A) zygomatic bone B) finger bones C) kneecap D) breastbone E) shinbone

114)

A patient suffers a concussion. Which bone has possibly been traumatized? A) Temporal bone B) Phalanges C) Patella D) Sternum E) Talus

115)

The common name for the sternum is the __________. A) zygomatic bone B) finger bones C) kneecap D) breastbone E) shinbone

116)

The common name of the tibia is the __________.

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A) zygomatic bone B) finger bones C) kneecap D) breastbone E) shinbone

117)

The common name for the phalanges is the __________. A) zygomatic bone B) finger bones C) kneecap D) breastbone E) shinbone

118)

The coracoid process is found on the __________. A) fibula B) scapula C) humerus D) ulna E) femur

119)

The deltoid tuberosity is found on the __________. A) fibula B) scapula C) humerus D) ulna E) femur

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120)

A styloid process is found on the __________. A) fibula B) scapula C) humerus D) ulna E) femur

121)

An avid runner experiences pain on the greater trochanter. Where is this pain located? A) Distal fibula B) Posterior scapula C) Posterior knee D) Heel E) Lateral femur

122)

The lateral malleolus is part of the __________. A) fibula B) scapula C) humerus D) ulna E) femur

123)

The olecranon process of the ulna is commonly known as the __________.

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A) collar bone B) elbow C) tail bone D) hipbone E) forehead

124)

The frontal bone is known as the __________. A) collar bone B) elbow C) tail bone D) hipbone E) forehead

125)

The coccyx is also called the __________. A) collar bone B) elbow C) tail bone D) hipbone E) forehead

126)

The hyoid bone is part of the __________ skeleton. A) axial B) appendicular

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127)

The pelvic girdle and lower limb are part of the __________ skeleton. A) axial B) appendicular

128)

The vertebral column is part of the __________ skeleton. A) axial B) appendicular

129)

The clavicle is part of the __________ skeleton. A) axial B) appendicular

130)

The sternum is part of the __________ skeleton. A) axial B) appendicular

131)

The auditory ossicles are part of the __________ skeleton. A) axial B) appendicular

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132)

A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the __________. A) palatine bones B) maxillae C) mandible D) vomer bone E) frontal bone

133)

Which condition is caused by the failure of vertebral laminae to fuse? A) Lordosis B) Kyphosis C) Scoliosis D) Spina bifida E) Herniated disk

134) In a herniated ("ruptured" or "slipped") disc, the ring of fibrocartilage called the ___________ cracks and the _____________ oozes out. A) nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus B) lamina; nucleus pulposus C) anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus D) anulus fibrosus; body E) nucleus pulposus; lamina

135)

Which condition is also known as "hump back"?

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A) Lordosis B) Kyphosis C) Scoliosis D) Spina bifida E) Herniated disk

136) Which of the following results from damage to the annulus fibrosus and release of the nucleus pulposus? A) Lordosis B) Kyphosis C) Scoliosis D) Spina bifida E) Herniated disk

137) A blow to the shoulder often breaks the clavicle, but very seldom breaks the scapula. Which of the following statements best explains why this is so? A) The scapula is larger than the clavicle. B) The clavicle provides the only bony attachment of the pectoral girdle to the body. C) The scapula is more protected by muscle. D) When the body is moving forward, the clavicle is more likely to be struck than the scapula. E) All of the choices are correct.

138) John was running downfield with the football. As he tried to avoid a tackle, he stepped in a hole and his foot was twisted under him with great force. The X-ray shows a "broken ankle." The structure that is most likely broken is

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A) the calcaneus bone. B) the patella. C) a bone in the second metatarsal. D) the lateral malleolus. E) the medial cuneiform.

139) A patient was in a car accident during which a flat bone in the anterior thorax was fractured. Which bone is most likely the one that was fractured? A) Sternum B) Thoracic vertebra C) Clavicle D) Scapula

140) A patient was brought to the hospital after being hit in the face with a baseball. Which bone was most likely fractured? A) Zygomatic bone B) Temporal bone C) Occipital bone D) Hyoid E) Cancaneus

141) A patient was diagnosed with sinus polyps in the sinus associated with a flat bone that forms from fetal structures that fuse after birth. Which sinus is affected?

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A) Frontal sinus B) Spenoidal sinus C) Ethmoidal sinus D) Maxillary sinus

142) Which of the following paranasal sinuses would most likely result in discomfort around the eyes? A) Ethmoidal B) Sphenoidal C) Frontal D) Maxillary

143) Which of the following paranasal sinuses would most likely result in discomfort of the ears? A) Sphenoidal sinus B) Frontal sinus C) Ethmoidal sinus D) Maxillary sinus

144)

A damaged hyoid bone may disrupt which of the following actions? Select all that apply. A) Swallowing B) Talking C) Turning the head from side to side D) Blinking E) Hearing

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145)

145.1)

Which of the following is represented by "A"?

A) Frontal bone B) Occipital bone C) Parietal bone D) Sphenoid bone E) Temporal bone

145.2)

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Which of the following is represented by "B"?

A) Frontal bone B) Occipital bone C) Parietal bone D) Sphenoid bone E) Temporal bone

145.3)

Which of the following is represented by "C"?

A) Frontal bone B) Occipital bone C) Parietal bone D) Sphenoid bone E) Temporal bone

145.4)

Which of the following is represented by "D"?

A) Frontal bone B) Occipital bone C) Parietal bone D) Sphenoid bone E) Temporal bone

145.5)

Which of the following is represented by "E"?

A) Frontal bone B) Occipital bone C) Parietal bone D) Sphenoid bone E) Temporal bone

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146.1)

What does structure "A" represent?

A) Atlas B) Axis C) Body of vertebra D) Intervertebral disk E) Thoracic region or curve

146.2)

What does structure "B" represent?

A) Atlas B) Axis C) Body of vertebra D) Intervertebral disk E) Thoracic region or curve

146.3)

What does structure "C" represent?

A) Atlas B) Axis C) Body of vertebra D) Intervertebral disk E) Thoracic region or curve

146.4)

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What does structure "D" represent?

A) Atlas B) Axis C) Body of vertebra D) Intervertebral disk E) Thoracic region or curve

146.5)

What does structure "E" represent?

A) Atlas B) Axis C) Body of vertebra D) Intervertebral disk E) Thoracic region or curve

147)

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147.1)

The figure shows the bones of the right orbit. What bone does "A" represent?

A) Frontal B) Maxilla C) Zygomatic D) Lacrimal E) Ethmoid

147.2)

The figure shows the bones of the right orbit. What bone does "B" represent?

A) Frontal B) Maxilla C) Zygomatic D) Lacrimal E) Ethmoid

147.3)

The figure shows the bones of the right orbit. What bone does "C" represent?

A) Frontal B) Maxilla C) Zygomatic D) Lacrimal E) Ethmoid

147.4)

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The figure shows the bones of the right orbit. What bone does "D" represent?

A) Frontal B) Maxilla C) Zygomatic D) Lacrimal E) Ethmoid

147.5)

The figure shows the bones of the right orbit. What bone does "E" represent?

A) Frontal B) Maxilla C) Zygomatic D) Lacrimal E) Ethmoid

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148)

148.1)

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The figure illustrates the sacrum. What structure does "A" represent?

A) Coccyx B) Sacral hiatus C) Superior articular facet D) Median sacral crest E) Posterior sacral foramina

148.2)

The figure illustrates the sacrum. What structure does "B" represent?

A) Coccyx B) Sacral hiatus C) Superior articular facet D) Median sacral crest E) Posterior sacral foramina

148.3)

The figure illustrates the sacrum. What structure does "C" represent?

A) Coccyx B) Sacral hiatus C) Superior articular facet D) Median sacral crest E) Posterior sacral foramina

148.4)

The figure illustrates the sacrum. What structure does "D" represent?

A) Coccyx B) Sacral hiatus C) Superior articular facet D) Median sacral crest E) Posterior sacral foramina

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148.5)

The figure illustrates the sacrum. What structure does "E" represent?

A) Coccyx B) Sacral hiatus C) Superior articular facet D) Median sacral crest E) Posterior sacral foramina

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149)

149.1)

The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does "A" represent?

A) Radius B) Carpals C) Phalanges D) Metacarpals E) Ulna

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149.2)

The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does "B" represent?

A) Radius B) Carpals C) Phalanges D) Metacarpals E) Ulna

149.3)

The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does "C" represent?

A) Radius B) Carpals C) Phalanges D) Metacarpals E) Ulna

149.4)

The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does "D" represent?

A) Radius B) Carpals C) Phalanges D) Metacarpals E) Ulna

149.5)

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The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does "E" represent?

A) Radius B) Carpals C) Phalanges D) Metacarpals E) Ulna

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150.1)

The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does "A" represent?

A) Femur B) Fibula C) Tarsals D) Tibia E) Patella

150.2)

The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does "B" represent?

A) Femur B) Fibula C) Tarsals D) Tibia E) Patella

150.3)

The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does "C" represent?

A) Femur B) Fibula C) Tarsals D) Tibia E) Patella

150.4)

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The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does "D" represent?

A) Femur B) Fibula C) Tarsals D) Tibia E) Patella

150.5)

The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does "E" represent?

A) Femur B) Fibula C) Tarsals D) Tibia E) Patella

151)

151.1) The figure illustrates a medial view of bones of the right foot. What does "A" represent?

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A) Calcaneus B) Fibula C) Metatarsals D) Tibia E) Talus

151.2) The figure illustrates a medial view of bones of the right foot. What does "B" represent? A) Calcaneus B) Fibula C) Metatarsals D) Tibia E) Talus

151.3) The figure illustrates a medial view of bones of the right foot. What does "C" represent? A) Calcaneus B) Fibula C) Metatarsals D) Tibia E) Talus

151.4) The figure illustrates a medial view of bones of the right foot. What does "D" represent?

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A) Calcaneus B) Fibula C) Metatarsals D) Tibia E) Talus

151.5) The figure illustrates a medial view of bones of the right foot. What does "E" represent? A) Calcaneus B) Fibula C) Metatarsals D) Tibia E) Talus

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 07_13e_ VanPutte 1) [B, C] 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) D 13) E 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) E 25) D 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) D 29) E 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) E 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) E 38) A 39) E 40) B 41) D 42) A 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) E 51) C 52) D 53) B 54) D 55) B 56) E Version 1

57) D 58) A 59) C 60) C 61) A 62) D 63) B 64) E 65) B 66) A 67) C 68) A 69) B 70) D 71) C 72) B 73) C 74) D 75) E 76) C 77) A 78) E 79) C 80) B 81) E 82) A 83) E 84) B 85) C 86) B Version 1

87) E 88) B 89) A 90) D 91) B 92) D 93) D 94) B 95) B 96) C 97) B 98) E 99) D 100) C 101) A 102) B 103) A 104) C 105) C 106) B 107) A 108) E 109) C 110) D 111) D 112) D 113) C 114) A 115) D 116) E Version 1

117) B 118) B 119) C 120) D 121) E 122) A 123) B 124) E 125) C 126) A 127) B 128) A 129) B 130) A 131) A 132) B 133) D 134) C 135) B 136) E 137) E 138) D 139) A 140) A 141) A 142) A 143) A 144) B 145) Section Break 145.1) C Version 1

145.2) E 145.3) B 145.4) A 145.5) D 146) Section Break 146.1) A 146.2) B 146.3) E 146.4) D 146.5) C 147) Section Break 147.1) C 147.2) A 147.3) E 147.4) D 147.5) B 148) Section Break 148.1) E 148.2) C 148.3) D 148.4) B 148.5) A 149) Section Break 149.1) E 149.2) A 149.3) B 149.4) D 149.5) C 150) Section Break 150.1) A Version 1

150.2) E 150.3) D 150.4) B 150.5) C 151) Section Break 151.1) B 151.2) D 151.3) E 151.4) A 151.5) C

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CHAPTER 8 1)

Places in the skeleton where bones meet are called __________. (Check all that apply.) A) anastomoses B) aponeurosis C) articulations D) cartilaginous discs E) joints

Select the types of angular movements allowed at synovial joints. (Check all that apply.) A) Abduction B) Extension C) Flexion D) Pronation E) Rotation F) Supination

Select the types of circular movements allowed at synovial joints. (Check all that apply.) A) Circumduction B) Flexion C) Pronation D) Rotation

4) The displacement of a bone from its normal position is called __________. (Check all that apply.)

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A) adduction B) disarticulation C) dislocation D) fracture E) luxation

5) Select all of the movements allowed at the temporomandibular joint. (Check all that apply.) A) Abduction and adduction B) Depression and elevation C) Flexion and extension D) Medial and lateral rotation E) Protraction and retraction

6) Which of the following are effective ways to prevent effects of aging on the joints? (Check all that apply.) A) Strengthen muscles B) Stretching routines C) Take aspirin daily D) Use them regularly E) Use them sparingly

7) Jasmine trips and tries to break her fall by putting her hand to the ground. The doctor informs her she has injured the __________ joints in her wrist.

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A) costocarpal B) intermetacarpal C) metacarpophalangeal D) intercarpal

Which term refers to a place where two or more bones come together? A) Cavity B) Foramen C) Contusion D) Articulation E) Diaphysis

The sagittal suture is between the __________. A) sacrum and hipbone. B) two pubic bones. C) atlas and axis. D) alveolar process and tooth. E) two parietal bones.

10)

Where is the dentoalveolar joint? A) Between the sacrum and hipbone B) At the symphysis pubis C) In the cervical region between the atlas and axis D) Between a tooth socket and a tooth E) At the suture between the two parietal bones

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11)

Which joint can be injured by closing a hand in a car door at the knuckles? A) Radiocarpal joint B) Metacarpophalangeal joint C) Atlantoaxial joint D) Metatarsophalangeal joint

12)

Which of these joints would be most likely to cause problems with the spinal cord? A) Cubital joint B) Glenohumeral joint C) Atlantoaxial joint D) Sternoclavicular joint E) Talocrural joint

13)

A patient is experiencing sacroiliac joint pain. In what region of the body is the pain? A) Posterior pelvic region B) Anterior pelvic region C) Cervical region D) Lumbar region E) Thoracic region

14)

Joints are classified according to the

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A) bones that are united at the joint. B) structure of the joint. C) size of the joint. D) shape of the joint. E) type of fluid in the joint.

15) A joint that has no joint cavity and exhibits little or no movement would be classified as a __________ joint. A) fibrous B) synovial C) complex D) cartilaginous E) partial

16)

Which of the following statements concerning sutures is false? A) They may become completely immovable in adults. B) The opposing bones in the joint interdigitate for stability. C) The tissue between the bones is hyaline cartilage. D) The periosteum of adjacent bones is continuous over the joint. E) Membranes, called fontanels, are present in some sutures at birth.

17) When two bones grow together across a joint to form a single bone, this is called a __________.

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A) suture B) syndesmosis C) gomphosis D) synostosis E) symphysis

18)

In a syndesmosis A) there is an osseous union between the bones of the joint. B) the bones are held together by ligaments called interosseous membranes. C) it is not unusual to find discs of cartilage. D) no movement occurs. E) there is a great range of motion.

19)

The joint between a tooth and the mandibular alveolus is an example of a __________. A) suture B) syndesmosis C) gomphosis D) synostosis E) symphysis

20)

Cartilaginous joints A) are common in the skull. B) unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage. C) allow the most movement between bones. D) are found in the lower leg. E) are not found in the pelvic region.

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21)

A synchondrosis A) is a type of gomphosis. B) is freely movable. C) may be temporary. D) is found in the arm. E) is not found in a growing long bone.

22) The epiphyseal plate of a growing bone is actually a temporary joint called a __________. A) synchondrosis B) synostosis C) syndesmosis D) symphysis E) suture

23)

A synchondrosis contains __________ cartilage. A) synchronous B) fibrous C) elastic D) reticular E) hyaline

24)

An example of a symphysis is the __________.

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A) elbow joint B) temporomandibular joint C) costovertebral joint D) intervertebral joint E) sacroiliac joint

25)

Which of the following is NOT a cartilaginous joint? A) Epiphyseal plates B) Intervertebral disks C) Fontanelles D) Sternocostal joint E) Manubriosternal joint

26)

Most of the joints in the appendicular skeleton are __________ joints. A) fibrous B) immovable C) synovial D) cartilaginous E) inarticulate

27) Synovial joints are different from both fibrous and cartilaginous joints because synovial joints

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A) use fibrous connective tissue to hold the bones in the joint together. B) are enclosed by a joint capsule. C) are only temporary; they are replaced in the adult. D) generally have both bones in the joint fused together. E) are not freely moveable.

28)

Hyaluronic acid A) contributes to the rigidity of a joint. B) is found in the synovial membrane. C) is responsible for the lubricating properties of synovial fluid. D) makes up most of the matrix of hyaline cartilage. E) makes surfaces rough.

29)

Synovial fluid A) lacks cells. B) is found between all bony junctions. C) increases friction between bones. D) is produced by articular cartilage. E) decreases friction between bones.

30)

The inability to produce the fluid that keeps most joints moist indicates a disorder of the A) cruciate ligament. B) synovial membrane. C) articular cartilage. D) bursae. E) mucus membrane.

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31)

Which of the following joints is most movable? A) Suture B) Syndesmosis C) Symphysis D) Synovial E) Synchondrosis

32)

Which of the following is a synovial joint? A) Atlantooccipital B) Epiphyseal plate C) Costosternal joint D) Tibiofibular joint E) Intervertebral disk

33)

Articular cartilage A) attaches tendons to bones. B) produces red blood cells. C) forms bursal fluid. D) covers the ends of bones in synovial joints. E) is formed at the epiphyseal plate.

34)

The function of a bursa is to

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A) provide support for a weak joint. B) provide afluid-filled cushion that reduces friction. C) increase the articulating surface at a joint. D) bind ligaments to bones. E) produce fluid.

35)

Which of the following statements concerning bursae is true? A) They are filled with air. B) They are a cellular cushion. C) They carry blood vessels to joints. D) They are formed by an extension of the synovial membrane. E) They bind tendons to ligaments.

36)

Pain in a synovial joint such as the hip can occur because of irritation of the nerves in the A) fibrous capsule of the joint. B) articular cartilage of the femur. C) synovial fluid. D) joint cavity. E) bone.

37) A sharp object penetrated a synovial joint. From the following list of structures, select the order in which they were penetrated. (1) Tendon or muscle (2) Ligament (3) Fibrous capsule (4) Skin (5) Synovial membrane

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A) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 B) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 C) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 D) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 E) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3

38)

Articular cartilage A) is a double layer of tissue that encloses a joint. B) is a thin lubricating film covering the surface of a joint. C) provides a smooth surface where bones meet. D) is a layer of tissue that is continuous with the periosteum. E) lines the joint everywhere except over the articular cartilage.

39)

The joint capsule A) is a double layer of tissue that encloses a joint. B) is a thin lubricating film covering the surface of a joint. C) provides a smooth surface where bones meet. D) is a layer of tissue that is continuous with the periosteum. E) lines the joint everywhere except over the articular cartilage.

40)

The synovial membrane A) is a double layer of tissue that encloses a joint. B) is a thin lubricating film covering the surface of a joint. C) provides a smooth surface where bones meet. D) is a layer of tissue that is continuous with the periosteum. E) lines the joint everywhere except over the articular cartilage.

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41)

The fibrous capsule A) is a double layer of tissue that encloses a joint. B) is a thin lubricating film covering the surface of a joint. C) provides a smooth surface where bones meet. D) is a layer of tissue that is continuous with the periosteum. E) lines the joint everywhere except over the articular cartilage.

42)

Synovial fluid A) is a double layer of tissue that encloses a joint. B) is a thin lubricating film covering the surface of a joint. C) provides a smooth surface where bones meet. D) is a layer of tissue that is continuous with the periosteum. E) lines the joint everywhere except over the articular cartilage.

43)

Which of the following types of joints is mismatched with its location? A) Saddle – thumb B) Ball and socket – between humerus and scapula C) Ellipsoid – between femur and tibia D) Plane – between carpal bones E) Hinge – cubital

44)

A pivot joint

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A) is a modified ball and socket joint. B) restricts movement to rotation. C) is a biaxial joint. D) allows gliding movement. E) is between the atlas and the occipital bone.

45) A joint that consists of two opposing flat surfaces of approximately equal size is a/an __________ joint. A) plane B) saddle C) hinge D) pivot E) ellipsoid

46)

A __________ is a type of joint that is multiaxial allowing a wide range of movement. A) saddle B) hinge C) pivot D) plane E) ball and socket

47)

A biaxial joint has movement

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A) around one axis. B) around two axes at right angles to one another. C) about several axes. D) as long as there is articular cartilage present. E) that always rotates.

48)

Ellipsoid joints A) are multiaxial joints. B) are found between adjacent vertebra. C) are actually modified ball and socket joints. D) allow free rotation. E) are modified pivot joints.

49)

The joint between the articular processes of adjacent vertebrae is a __________ joint. A) plane B) saddle C) hinge D) pivot E) ball and socket

50)

An example of a saddle joint is the __________ joint. A) shoulder B) elbow C) atlanto-occipital D) carpometacarpal E) atlantoaxial

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51)

The cubital or elbow joint is an example of a __________ joint.

A) saddle B) hinge C) ball and socket D) plane

52) The joint between the head of the radius and the proximal end of the ulna is a __________ joint. A) plane B) saddle C) hinge D) pivot E) ball and socket

53)

Which of the following joints is most movable? A) Plane B) Saddle C) Hinge D) Pivot E) Ball and socket

54)

The type of movement between carpal bones is described as __________.

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A) pivot B) adduction C) extension D) flexion E) gliding

55)

Bowing the head is an example of __________. A) rotation B) pronation C) flexion D) lateral excursion E) hyperextension

56)

Which of the following movements is an example of extension? A) Bending forward at the waist B) Kneeling C) Raising your arm laterally D) Using your finger to point out an area on a map E) Shrugging your shoulders

57) Which type of movement would you use to reach the bowls on a top shelf, which are slightly out of reach?

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A) Dorsiflexion B) Plantar flexion C) Inversion D) Eversion E) Circumduction

58) A yoga instructor tells the class to stretch the muscles of the side of the trunk by instructing them to perform _________blank. A) opposition B) adduction C) lateral flexion D) extension E) elevation

59)

Abnormal forced extension beyond normal range of motion is called __________. A) circumduction B) rotation C) hyperextension D) supination E) pronation

60) A movement through 360 degrees that combines flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction is called __________.

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A) circumduction B) rotation C) hyperextension D) supination E) pronation

61)

Rotating the forearm so that the palm faces posteriorly is called __________. A) circumduction B) rotation C) hyperextension D) supination E) pronation

62)

Rotating the forearm so that the palm faces anteriorly is called __________. A) circumduction B) rotation C) hyperextension D) supination E) pronation

63)

Turning a structure around its longitudinal axis is called __________. A) circumduction B) rotation C) hyperextension D) supination E) pronation

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64)

Which of the following pairs of terms are opposites? A) Plantar flexion – dorsiflexion B) Abduction – extension C) Inversion – retraction D) Pronation – rotation E) Elevation – protraction

65) Which of the following describes someone shrugging their shoulders as if to say "I don't know?" A) Elevation of the clavicles and scapulae B) Hyperextension of the back C) Pronation of the forearm D) Flexion of the forearm E) Lateral flexion of the trunk

66)

The opposite of depression is __________. A) inversion B) protraction C) elevation D) pronation E) flexion

67)

The opposite of supination is __________.

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A) inversion B) protraction C) elevation D) pronation E) flexion

68)

The opposite of extension is __________. A) inversion B) protraction C) elevation D) pronation E) flexion

69)

The opposite of eversion is __________. A) inversion B) protraction C) elevation D) pronation E) flexion

70)

The opposite of retraction is __________. A) inversion B) protraction C) elevation D) pronation E) flexion

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71)

Moving the mandible to the side as when grinding the teeth is __________. A) lateral flexion B) lateral excursion C) elevation D) inversion

72) Returning the thumb to the anatomical position after touching the little finger is __________. A) reposition B) opposition C) medial excursion D) supination

73) If you put your shoulders back to avoid slouching and improve your posture, you are doing which of the following? A) Laterally rotating the humerus B) Medially rotating the humerus C) Depressing the scapulae D) Retracting the scapulae E) Flexing the trunk

74)

Turning the ankle so that the plantar surface faces laterally is __________.

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A) eversion B) inversion C) supination D) retraction

75)

Which of the following influence the range of motion of a joint? A) The shape of the articular surfaces of the bones B) The amount and shape of cartilage at the joint C) The amount of fluid in and around the joint D) The strength and location of tendons and ligaments E) All of these influence range of motion.

76) Which of the following statements regarding the temporomandibular (TMJ) joint is correct? A) The joint is divided into lateral and medial cavities by an articular disc of cartilage. B) The joint has a cartilage capsule. C) The joint is a combination plane and ellipsoidal joint. D) The joint allows rotation. E) The joint is located between the maxilla and the mandible.

77)

In the TMJ joint, the mandible articulates with the __________. A) temporal bone B) maxilla C) zygomatic bone D) tympanic bone E) parietal bone

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78)

A tennis player with a torn rotator cuf has an injured_________blank. A) neck B) shoulder C) hip D) knee E) elbow

79) The muscles that hold the humeral head within the glenoid cavity are collectively called the __________. A) sunacromial bursae B) rotator cuff C) glenoid labrum D) coracohumeral ligament E) deltoid muscle

80)

What is the most commonly dislocated joint in the body? A) Glenohumeral joint B) Temporomandibular joint C) Humeroulnar joint D) Hip joint E) Knee joint

81)

The subscapular and subacromial bursa are associated with the __________ joint.

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A) elbow B) knee C) shoulder D) hip E) wrist

82) The glenoid labrum is part of the __________ joint, while the acetabular labrum is part of the __________ joint. A) elbow; knee B) shoulder; hip C) shoulder; knee D) elbow; hip E) shoulder; elbow

83)

Which of the following movements is possible at the hip joint? A) Rotation B) Flexion C) Adduction D) Circumduction E) All of the choices are correct.

84)

The ligament at the head of the femur is the __________.

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A) ligamentum femoris B) ligamentum teres C) ligamentum acetabulum D) ligamentum ilium E) ligamentum primis

85)

The anterior cruciate ligament prevents __________ displacement of the tibia. A) anterior B) posterior C) lateral D) medial E) radial

86)

Which of the following movements does not occur at the knee joint? A) Flexion B) Rotation C) Abduction D) Extension E) All of the choices are correct.

87)

The medial meniscus is in the __________. A) neck B) shoulder C) hip D) knee E) elbow

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88)

The knee joint is an example of a __________ joint. A) plane B) saddle C) pivot D) ball and socket E) complex ellipsoid

89)

The thick fibrocartilage disks found in the knee joint are called __________. A) bursae B) ligaments C) tendon sheaths D) menisci E) intraknee disks

90)

If you stepped in a hole in the yard and sprained your ankle, you have A) fractured the fibula. B) fractured the tibia. C) torn a ligament of the ankle. D) torn cartilage on the talus bone. E) fractured the calcaneous.

91)

Which of the following statements concerning the ankle joint is true?

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A) The calcaneus articulates with the tibia to form this joint. B) Most common injuries to this joint occur because of a forceful inversion of the foot. C) A capsule of hyaline cartilage surrounds the joint. D) The lateral collateral ligament helps to stabilize this joint. E) It is a pivot joint.

92)

The three arches of the foot A) transfer weight from the tibia to the femur. B) distribute the weight of the body during standing and walking. C) form a hinge joint. D) are highest on the lateral side of the foot. E) form after birth.

93)

Which of the following is mismatched? A) Shoulder joint – coracohumeral ligament B) Elbow joint – radial collateral ligaments C) Hip joint – cruciate ligaments D) Knee joint – patellar ligaments E) Ankle – calcaneofibular ligament

94)

Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the joints?

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A) Decreased range of motion B) Decreased flexibility and elasticity C) Increased production of synovial fluid D) Weakening of muscles E) Decreased tissue repair

95)

Arthritis is A) a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks. B) an inflammation of any joint. C) a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood. D) a condition that may involve an autoimmune disease. E) the most common type of arthritis.

96)

Lyme disease is A) a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks. B) an inflammation of any joint. C) a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood. D) a condition that may involve an autoimmune disease. E) the most common type of arthritis.

97)

Osteoarthritis is A) a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks. B) an inflammation of any joint. C) a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood. D) a condition that may involve an autoimmune disease. E) the most common type of arthritis.

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98)

Rheumatoid arthritis is A) a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks. B) an inflammation of any joint. C) a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood. D) a condition that may involve an autoimmune disease. E) the most common type of arthritis.

99)

Gout is A) a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks. B) an inflammation of any joint. C) a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood. D) a condition that may involve an autoimmune disease. E) the most common type of arthritis.

100)

Osteoarthritis usually is caused by A) wear and tear of the joint. B) increased uric acid in the blood. C) an autoimmune disorder. D) a bacterial infection in the joint. E) bursitis.

101)

The figure illustrates the joints and bones of the rib cage. What does "C" represent?

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A) Costochondral joint B) Sternum C) Manubrium D) Sternal symphyses E) Sternocostal synchrondrosis

102)

Cartilaginous joints unite two bones by means of __________. A) cartilage B) collagen fibers C) capsules D) synovial membranes

103)

The simplest types of movement at a synovial joint are ______ movements. A) angular B) circular C) fibrous D) gliding E) special

104) The type of movements where one linear part of the body bends relative to another part would be ______ movements. A) angular B) circular C) gliding D) linear

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105) Joints joined together by hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage would be classified as __________ joints. A) cartilaginous B) fibrous C) synovial D) diarthrotic

106)

Unlike other joints, a __________ does not join two bones to one another. A) suture B) syndesmosis C) gomphosis D) cartilaginous joint E) bony joint

107)

The least movable joints are __________ joints. A) symphysis B) synchondrosis C) syndesmosis D) gomphosis E) synostosis

108)

The most movable joints are __________ joints.

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A) symphysis B) synovial C) syndesmosis D) gomphosis E) synchondrosis

109)

The __________ joint is an example of a multiaxial joint. A) proximalradioulnar B) metatarsophalangeal C) humeroulnar D) humeroscapular E) atlantoaxial

110) When you walk up the stairs, your hip and knee joints __________ to lift your body weight. A) rotate B) abduct C) adduct D) flex E) extend

111) When you hold out your hands with the palms up, __________ your wrists will tip your palms toward you.

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A) hyperextending B) circumducting C) rotating D) flexing E) abducting

112) Raising an arm to one side of the body to stop a taxi, is an example of __________ of the shoulder. A) abduction B) adduction C) circumduction D) rotation E) protraction

113) Suppose you cup your hands to hold some water. To limit the amount of leaking through your hands, this action would most likely require __________. A) pronation of the forearm B) circumduction of the wrists C) opposition of the thumb D) abduction of the fingers E) adduction of the fingers

114)

While standing, looking up at the stars requires __________.

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A) elevation of the mandible B) extension of the neck C) hyperextension of the neck D) abduction of the neck E) dorsiflexion of the neck

115) If you stand on tiptoes to reach something high, you are performing __________ at the ankle. A) plantar flexion B) abduction C) opposition D) dorsiflexion E) eversion

116) With the elbow and wrist extended, painting a circle on a canvas requires __________ of the shoulder. A) rotation B) circumduction C) extension D) flexion E) elevation

117)

When doing a pushup, your shoulders __________ as your body is pushed upward.

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A) protract B) retract C) supinate D) hyperextend E) elevate

118) Raising your hand and placing it on the shoulder of a person standing in front of you, requires __________ of the shoulder. A) abduction B) adduction C) extension D) flexion E) elevation

119)

Showing your palm to someone who is in front of you, as if to tell them "Stop," requires A) dorsiflexion of the hand. B) hyperextension of the wrist. C) abduction of the wrist. D) flexion of the wrist. E) hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints.

120) Rotating the ankles so that the bottoms of the feet face each other medially is called __________.

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A) dorsiflexion B) inversion C) medial excursion D) opposition E) retraction

121)

Which of the following structures prevents knee hyperextension? A) The anteriorcruciate ligament (ACL) B) The posteriorcruciate ligament (PCL) C) The fibular(lateral) collateral ligament D) The medialmeniscus E) The lateralmeniscus

122) A patient has shoulder pain due to ligament damage. Which of the following symptoms will most likely accompany the pain? A) Reduction of range of motion B) Increased range of motion C) Damage to the anterior cruciate ligament D) Tear in the lateral ligament

123) A patient is experiencing pain on the bottom of his feet due to ligament damage. Which structure is most likely involved? A) Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament B) Transverse acetabular ligament C) Interosseous membrane D) Lateral collateral ligaments

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124)

124.1)

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What does structure "A" represent on the diagram?

A) Tendon B) Articular cartilage C) Bursa D) Fibrous capsule E) Synovial membrane

124.2)

What does structure "B" represent on the diagram?

A) Tendon B) Articular cartilage C) Bursa D) Fibrous capsule E) Synovial membrane

124.3)

What does structure "C" represent on the diagram?

A) Tendon B) Articular cartilage C) Bursa D) Fibrous capsule E) Synovial membrane

124.4)

What does structure "D" represent on the diagram?

A) Tendon B) Articular cartilage C) Bursa D) Fibrous capsule E) Synovial membrane

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124.5)

What does structure "E" represent on the diagram?

A) Tendon B) Articular cartilage C) Bursa D) Fibrous capsule E) Synovial membrane

125)

125.1) The figure illustrates bones, fontanels, and sutures on the fetal skull. What does "A" represent? A) Anterior fontanel B) Posterior fontanel C) Parietal bone D) Sagittal suture E) Occipital bone

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125.2) The figure illustrates bones, fontanels, and sutures on the fetal skull. What does "B" represent? A) Anterior fontanel B) Posterior fontanel C) Parietal bone D) Sagittal suture E) Occipital bone

125.3) The figure illustrates bones, fontanels, and sutures on the fetal skull. What does "C" represent? A) Anterior fontanel B) Posterior fontanel C) Parietal bone D) Sagittal suture E) Occipital bone

125.4) The figure illustrates bones, fontanels, and sutures on the fetal skull. What does "D" represent? A) Anterior fontanel B) Posterior fontanel C) Parietal bone D) Sagittal suture E) Occipital bone

125.5) The figure illustrates bones, fontanels, and sutures on the fetal skull. What does "E" represent?

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A) Anterior fontanel B) Posterior fontanel C) Parietal bone D) Sagittal suture E) Occipital bone

126)

126.1) The figure illustrates the joints and bones of the rib cage. What does "A" represent? A) Costochondral joint B) Sternum C) Manubrium D) Sternal symphyses E) Sternocostal synchrondrosis

126.2) The figure illustrates the joints and bones of the rib cage. What does "B" represent?

Version 1

A) Costochondral joint B) Sternum C) Manubrium D) Sternal symphyses E) Sternocostal synchrondrosis

126.3) The figure illustrates the joints and bones of the rib cage. What does "D" represent? A) Costochondral joint B) Sternum C) Manubrium D) Sternal symphyses E) Sternocostal synchrondrosis

126.4) The figure illustrates the joints and bones of the rib cage. What does "E" represent? A) Costochondral joint B) Sternum C) Manubrium D) Sternal symphyses E) Sternocostal synchrondrosis

Version 1

127)

127.1) The figure illustrates structures in the right temporomandibular joint (lateral view). What does "A" represent? A) Lateral ligament B) Mandible C) Zygomatic arch D) Styloid process E) Stylomandibular ligament

127.2) The figure illustrates structures in the right temporomandibular joint (lateral view). What does "B" represent?

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A) Lateral ligament B) Mandible C) Zygomatic arch D) Styloid process E) Stylomandibular ligament

127.3) The figure illustrates structures in the right temporomandibular joint (lateral view). What does "C" represent? A) Lateral ligament B) Mandible C) Zygomatic arch D) Styloid process E) Stylomandibular ligament

127.4) The figure illustrates structures in the right temporomandibular joint (lateral view). What does "D" represent? A) Lateral ligament B) Mandible C) Zygomatic arch D) Styloid process E) Stylomandibular ligament

127.5) The figure illustrates structures in the right temporomandibular joint (lateral view). What does "E" represent?

Version 1

A) Lateral ligament B) Mandible C) Zygomatic arch D) Styloid process E) Stylomandibular ligament

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128)

128.1) The figure illustrates a posterior view of the right knee joint. What does "A" represent?

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A) Medial (tibial) collateral ligament (MCL) B) Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) C) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) D) Lateral (fibular) collateral ligament (LCL) E) Lateral meniscus

128.2) The figure illustrates a posterior view of the right knee joint. What does "B" represent? A) Medial (tibial) collateral ligament (MCL) B) Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) C) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) D) Lateral (fibular) collateral ligament (LCL) E) Lateral meniscus

128.3) The figure illustrates a posterior view of the right knee joint. What does "C" represent? A) Medial (tibial) collateral ligament (MCL) B) Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) C) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) D) Lateral (fibular) collateral ligament (LCL) E) Lateral meniscus

128.4) The figure illustrates a posterior view of the right knee joint. What does "D" represent?

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A) Medial (tibial) collateral ligament (MCL) B) Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) C) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) D) Lateral (fibular) collateral ligament (LCL) E) Lateral meniscus

128.5) The figure illustrates a posterior view of the right knee joint. What does "E" represent? A) Medial (tibial) collateral ligament (MCL) B) Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) C) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) D) Lateral (fibular) collateral ligament (LCL) E) Lateral meniscus

129) True or False? The tightness of the ligaments at each joint is the only limiting factor of movement at that joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 08_13e_ VanPutte 1) [D, E] 2) [A, B, C] 3) [A, C, D] 4) [B, E] 5) [B, E] 6) [A, B, D] 7) A 8) D 9) E 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) E 24) D 25) C 26) C Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) E 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) E 41) D 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) A 46) E 47) B 48) C 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) D 53) E 54) E 55) C 56) D Version 1

57) B 58) C 59) C 60) A 61) E 62) D 63) B 64) A 65) A 66) C 67) D 68) E 69) A 70) B 71) B 72) A 73) D 74) A 75) E 76) C 77) A 78) B 79) B 80) A 81) C 82) B 83) E 84) B 85) A 86) C Version 1

87) D 88) E 89) D 90) C 91) B 92) B 93) C 94) C 95) B 96) A 97) E 98) D 99) C 100) A 101) E 102) A 103) D 104) A 105) A 106) C 107) E 108) B 109) D 110) E 111) D 112) A 113) E 114) C 115) A 116) B Version 1

117) A 118) D 119) B 120) B 121) A 122) A 123) A 124) Section Break 124.1) C 124.2) B 124.3) A 124.4) E 124.5) D 125) Section Break 125.1) C 125.2) A 125.3) D 125.4) B 125.5) E 126) Section Break 126.1) D 126.2) A 126.3) C 126.4) B 127) Section Break 127.1) C 127.2) A 127.3) D 127.4) E 127.5) B Version 1

128) Section Break 128.1) C 128.2) A 128.3) D 128.4) E 128.5) B 129) FALSE

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CHAPTER 9 1) During a muscle fiber contraction, which of the following decreases in size? Check all that apply.

A) A band B) Entire sarcomere C) H zone D) I band

2) Which of the following are reasons that shivering raises body temperature? (Check all that apply.) A) Shivering decreases warm blood flow to the core while increasing flow to the muscles. B) Shivering depresses metabolism. C) Shivering increases heat production up to 18 times that of resting levels. D) The process of muscle contraction produces heat.

3) Which of the following describes titin's roles in muscle contraction? (Check all that apply.) A) Accounts for muscle’s excitability B) Accounts for muscle's extensibility and elasticity C) Allows the sarcomere to recoil and stretch D) Helps to hold the actin myofilaments in position

4) If all of the Ca2+ within a muscle fiber was removed, which of the following could still occur?

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A) The heads of the myosin myofilaments would bind to G-actin to form cross-bridges. B) An action potential that was produced at the neuromuscular junction would be propagated along the sarcolemma. C) The troponin molecules bound to G actin molecules would be released, causing tropomyosin to move. D) The heads of the myosin molecules would return to their resting position, and the recovery stroke would occur.

Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle? A) Body movement B) Maintenance of posture C) Respiration D) Constriction of organs E) Production of heat

Which of the following actions is caused by contraction of skeletal muscle? A) Contraction of the heart B) Moving your feet in walking C) Movement of food through the digestive tract D) Emptying of the urinary bladder E) Vasoconstriction

Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both

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A) are under involuntary control. B) are striated. C) are widely distributed in the body. D) have multiple nuclei. E) are under voluntary control.

The capacity of a muscle cell to shorten forcefully is known as A) contractility. B) excitability. C) extensibility. D) elasticity. E) flexibility.

Muscles exhibit the property of excitability. This means that the muscle A) shortens its length. B) recoils to its original resting length. C) stretches beyond its normal length. D) responds to stimulation by the nervous system. E) excites itself.

10)

Identify the statement concerning general functional characteristics of muscle that is true. A) Muscle tissue shortens forcefully but lengthens passively. B) Muscle tissue shortens passively but lengthens forcefully. C) Muscle tissue can get shorter, but cannot get longer. D) Muscle tissue can get longer, but cannot get shorter. E) None of thesestatements are true.

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11)

Identify the statement concerning skeletal muscle that is true. A) It comprises about 20% of the body's weight. B) It propels urine through the urinary tract. C) Its function is largely under involuntary control. D) It is a kind of connective tissue. E) It is responsible for locomotion.

12)

Which of the following statements about muscle tissue is true? A) Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction. B) Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs. C) Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei. D) Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical. E) There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart.

13)

Skeletal muscle fibers A) possess striations. B) can contract but are not extensible or excitable. C) do not require nerve innervation to contract. D) increase dramatically in number after birth. E) are found in the walls of the stomach.

14)

Which type of muscle tissue has spindle-shaped cells?

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A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle D) Both skeletal and cardiac muscle are correct. E) Both cardiac and smooth muscle are correct.

15)

Which type of muscle tissue possesses striations? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle D) Both skeletal and cardiac muscle are correct. E) Both cardiac and smooth muscle are correct.

16)

Which type of muscle tissue is autorhythmic? A) Only skeletal muscle B) Only smooth muscle C) Only cardiac muscle D) Both skeletal and cardiac muscle are correct. E) Both cardiac and smooth muscle are correct.

17)

Which type of muscle tissue is multinucleated? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle D) Both skeletal and cardiac muscle are correct. E) Both cardiac and smooth muscle are correct.

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18)

Which type of muscle tissue has cells that branch? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle D) Both skeletal and cardiac muscle are correct. E) Both cardiac and smooth muscle are correct.

19)

Which type of muscle tissue would cause flexion and extension of the arm? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle

20)

Which type of muscle tissue causes contraction of the heart? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle

21)

Which type of muscle tissue causes vasoconstriction? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle

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22)

Which type of muscle tissue causes peristalsis? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle

23)

Which type of muscle tissue is under voluntary neural control? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle

24)

Hypertrophy of skeletal muscles from weight lifting is caused by an increase in the A) number of muscle fibers. B) size of muscle fibers. C) number of striations. D) number of nuclei within the muscle fibers. E) number of muscle cells.

25)

Skeletal muscle develops from cells called A) fascicles. B) myoblasts. C) myofibrils. D) myotomes. E) fasciculi.

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26)

A fascicle A) is a bundle of reticular fibers. B) is surrounded by perimysium. C) is only found in smooth muscle. D) possesses an external lamina. E) is a bundle of collagen fibers.

27)

Epimysium A) surrounds individual muscles. B) separates muscle fibers. C) connects muscles to bone. D) is a type of muscle tissue. E) is a type of nerve tissue.

28)

Endomysium is a delicate network of loose connective tissue that A) surrounds each muscle fiber. B) forms a sheath around a fascicle. C) is composed of elastic fibers. D) separates individual muscles. E) penetrates muscle fibers.

29)

Which of the following connective tissue layers is outside all the others?

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A) Perimysium B) Endomysium C) Epimysium D) Paramysium E) Sarcolemma

30)

Which of the following is true about skeletal muscle? A) Sensory neurons stimulate muscles to contract. B) There are very few blood vessels in skeletal muscle. C) Every muscle fiber receives a branch of an axon from the nerve. D) There are very few nerve fibers in a muscle. E) All of the choices are true.

31) List the following structures in order from smallest to largest. (1) Muscle fiber (2) Myofilament (3) Myofibril (4) Muscle fascicle A) 4, 2, 3, 1 B) 2, 1, 4, 3 C) 3, 1, 4, 2 D) 2, 3, 1, 4 E) 1, 2, 3, 4

32)

Muscle myofibrils

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A) are found in the sarcolemma. B) extend from the sarcolemma to the T-tubule. C) contain myosin and actin myofilaments. D) hold muscle fibers together. E) do not appear striated.

33)

Myosin is also known as the A) thick myofilament. B) thin myofilament. C) intermediate myofilament. D) short myofilament. E) sarcomere.

34)

Actin myofilaments A) resemble bundles of minute golf clubs. B) contain both myosin and tropomyosin. C) are held in place by the M line. D) contain strands of fibrous actin. E) are the thickest proteins in muscle.

35)

Which of the following is part of a thin myofilament? A) ATP-binding site B) Globular (G) actin C) Calcium D) Myosin E) Sarcolemma

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36)

Troponin A) has two subunits. B) is part of the myosin myofilament. C) is a long, flexible protein. D) has a calcium-binding site. E) binds to ATP.

37)

Which of the following is composed of myosin molecules? A) Thick myofilaments B) I bands C) Z disks D) Sarcolemma E) Tropomyosin

38)

The active sites to which cross-bridges attach are found on the A) sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) actin myofilaments. C) Z disks. D) T tubules. E) myosin myofilaments.

39)

ATPase is found in

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A) F-actin strands. B) G-actin globular units. C) myosin heads. D) tropomyosin grooves. E) troponin molecules.

40)

Which of the following is NOT a property of the myosin head? A) They form cross-bridges with the active sites of actin. B) They have a hinge region to bend and straighten. C) They bind to troponin. D) They have ATPase activity. E) They bind to ATP.

41) the

The region of the sarcomere that contains both actin and myosin myofilaments is called

A) I band. B) A band. C) Z disk. D) H zone. E) M line.

42)

A sarcomere extends from

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A) one Z disk to an adjacent Z disk. B) one T tubule to the next T tubule. C) the middle of the I band to the middle of the A band. D) the H zone to the I band. E) the M line to the next M line.

43)

Which of the following is mismatched? A) I band – contains only actin B) M line – middle of the H zone C) Z disk – structure between adjacent sarcomeres D) Myosin myofilaments – thin myofilaments E) Actin myofilaments – thin myofilaments

44)

A sarcomere is the A) plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. B) cytoplasm of a muscle fiber. C) structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle fiber. D) contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber. E) protein strand composed of actin or myosin.

45)

Sarcoplasm is the

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A) plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. B) cytoplasm of a muscle fiber. C) structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle fiber. D) contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber. E) protein strand composed of actin or myosin.

46)

A myofilament is the A) plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. B) cytoplasm of a muscle fiber. C) structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle fiber. D) contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber. E) protein strand composed of actin or myosin.

47)

The sarcolemma is the A) plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. B) cytoplasm of a muscle fiber. C) structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle fiber. D) contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber. E) protein strand composed of actin.

48)

A myofibril is the A) plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. B) cytoplasm of a muscle fiber. C) structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle fiber. D) contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber. E) protein strand composed of actin.

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49)

Which of the following statements regarding the sliding filament model is false? A) Actin and myosin do not shorten during contraction. B) Both actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction. C) The sarcomere shortens. D) The I band and H zones become narrower during contraction. E) The A band remains constant in length.

50)

The length of the resting sarcomere is A) longer than the length of a contracted sarcomere. B) shorter than the length of a contracted sarcomere. C) the same length as a contracted sarcomere. D) the same length as the muscle fiber. E) the same length as the myofibril.

51)

The model that describes the contraction of the muscle is called the A) contraction cycle. B) power stroke. C) sliding filament model. D) slipping fibril mechanism. E) paddle model.

52)

The electrical properties of cells are the result of

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A) ion concentration differences across the plasma membrane. B) receptor sites that are present on the plasma membrane. C) phosphorylation reactions within the cytoplasm. D) phospholipids in the plasma membrane. E) None of these choices are correct.

53) Which of the following causes an unequal ion concentration across the resting plasma membrane? A) The functioning of the sodium-chloride pump B) Negatively charged proteins not readily diffusing across the plasma membrane C) The attraction of chloride ions to other intracellular anions D) The repulsion of potassium ions by the intracellular anions E) The attraction of sodium ions to chloride ions

54)

Which of the following is true during the resting membrane potential? A) Sodium ion concentration is greater inside cells. B) Negatively charged proteins are more concentrated outside the cell. C) A greater concentration of calcium ions is found inside the cell. D) Potassium is concentrated primarily inside the cell. E) None of these choices reflect what occurs during the resting membrane potential.

55)

At rest, the inside of the sarcolemma is_________blank relative to the outside.

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A) positively charged B) negatively charged C) electrically neutral D) recharged E) None of these choices are correct.

56)

The plasma membrane of an excitable cell is more permeable to K+ because A) of its positive electrical charge. B) there are more leak ion channels for K+ than Na+. C) protein molecules cannot exit through the plasma membrane. D) calcium ions block Na+ and Cl- channels. E) there are more gated channels for K+.

57)

In which of the following situations does a resting membrane potential exist? A) A relaxed muscle fiber B) A conducting neuron C) A stimulated sensory receptor in the skin D) A contracting cardiac muscle cell E) The eye seeing an image

58) Channels that open or close in response to changes in the electrical charge or voltage across the plasma membrane are called

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A) ligand-gated ion channels. B) leak ion channels. C) relegated ion channels. D) voltage-gated ion channels. E) obligated ion channels.

59) Which of the following changes would have the most dramatic effect on the membrane potential? A) Increased permeability of the membrane to Na+ B) Increased extracellular concentration of Na+ C) Decreased permeability of the membrane to Ca+2 D) Increased permeability of the membrane to K+ E) Increased extracellular concentration of Ca+2

60)

Which of the following situations occurs in electrically excitable cells? A) When Na+ ion channels open, K+ ion channels close. B) The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium into the cell. C) Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open. D) Sodium ion channels are opened by high extracellular calcium levels. E) The opening and closing of ligand-gated channels cause depolarization.

61)

Depolarization of the plasma membrane occurs when there is a rapid influx (inflow) of

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A) potassium ions. B) chloride ions. C) calcium ions. D) sodium ions. E) amino acids.

62)

An action potential A) occurs when the local potential reaches threshold level. B) is not propagated. C) has no repolarization phase. D) is an example of negative feedback. E) can be of varying strengths depending on strength of the stimulus.

63)

A stimulus either causes an action potential or it doesn't. This is called A) an all-or-none response. B) a graded response. C) a latent period response. D) a relative refractory response. E) an arbitrary response.

64)

When repolarization of the plasma membrane is complete, the A) cell dies. B) cell regenerates. C) cell no longer has a potential difference across its membrane. D) cell is no longer responsive. E) original polarity of the cell is restored.

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65) A muscle fiber will respond to a stimulus when that stimulus reaches the __________ level. A) threshold B) relaxation C) rigor mortis D) recruitment E) resting

66) The sites where a chemical substance is transmitted from the presynaptic terminal of an axon to the postsynaptic membrane of a muscle fiber are called A) neuromuscular junctions. B) sarcomeres. C) myofilaments. D) Z disks. E) cell bodies of neurons.

67)

Synaptic vesicles in the neuromuscular junction contain A) calcium. B) ATP. C) acetylcholine. D) acetylcholinesterase. E) sodium.

68)

Which of the following structures contains the other four items listed?

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A) Postsynaptic membrane B) Presynaptic terminal C) Synaptic cleft D) Neuromuscular junction E) Receptors on postsynaptic membrane

69) Acetylcholine binds to a membrane bound receptor and causes ligand-gated sodium channels to open and results in A) hyperpolarization. B) depolarization. C) hypoplarization. D) no change in membrane potential. E) There is not enough information to predict the outcome.

70)

When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal, A) calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated ion channels. B) acetylcholine moves into the presynaptic terminal. C) a local potential is generated in the presynaptic terminal. D) ligand-gated ion channels in the presynaptic terminal are opened. E) nothing else happens.

71)

Lack of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in

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A) a decrease in acetylcholine production by the motor neuron. B) continuous stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane. C) rapid degradation of acetylcholine. D) relaxation of the muscle. E) continuous stimulation of the presynaptic membrane.

72)

Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic terminal by the process of A) exocytosis. B) diffusion. C) phagocytosis. D) active transport. E) endocytosis.

73)

Too much acetylcholinesterase causes A) continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber. B) rapid degradation of acetycholine. C) voltage-gated Ca2+ channels opening in the presynaptic terminal. D) an increase in Na+ uptake by the muscle fiber. E) exocytosis of synaptic vesicles.

74)

Which of the following events occurs on the postsynaptic membrane? A) Acetylcholine production B) Rapid degradation of acetylcholine C) Release of neurotransmitter D) Neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule E) Release of Ca2+

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75)

If Na+ cannot enter a muscle fiber in response to a stimulus, A) contraction cannot occur. B) relaxation cannot occur. C) Na+ will be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum instead. D) the active sites are left exposed. E) the action potential travels into the muscle anyway.

76)

T tubules are invaginations of the A) sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) sarcomere. C) myofibril. D) sarcoplasm. E) sarcolemma.

77)

T tubules A) provide nutrients to the muscle fiber. B) generate new muscle fibers. C) conduct action potentials deep into the muscle fiber. D) release acetylcholine. E) store calcium ions.

78)

The sarcoplasmic reticulum

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A) stores Ca2+. B) shortens during muscle contraction. C) transmits nerve impulses to the myofibrils. D) connects adjacent sarcomeres. E) covers the muscle fiber.

79)

Arrange these structures as they participate in excitation-contraction. A) T tubules, sarcolemma, Ca2+, sarcoplasmic reticulum B) Ca2+, T tubules, sarcolemma, sarcoplasmic reticulum C) Sarcolemma, T tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, Ca2+ D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum, Ca2+, T tubules, sarcolemma E) Sarcolemma, sarcoplasmic reticulum, Ca2+, T tubules

80) Arrange the following list of biochemical events in the correct sequence. (1) An action potential is conducted deep into the muscle fiber by the T tubule. (2) Calcium ions bind to troponin. (3) The membranes of the sarcoplasmic reticulum become more permeable to calcium ions. (4) Calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm around the myofibril. (5) The troponin-tropomyosin complex moves exposing active sites. A) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 E) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5

81)

In excitation-contraction coupling,

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A) Ca2+ must bind with myosin to expose active sites on actin. B) myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin. C) cross-bridges form between myosin heads and Ca2+. D) movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex causes actin myofilaments to slide. E) ATP binds to actin myofilaments.

82) When the myosin head flexes into a bend, pulling the actin filament along with it, this is called the A) action reaction. B) power stroke. C) recovery stroke. D) muscle tone. E) action potential.

83)

One ATP molecule is required for

A) formation of the cross-bridge. B) movement of the cross-bridge. C) release of the cross-bridge. D) formation of the cross-bridge and for movement of the cross-bridge. E) formation of the cross-bridge, for movement of the cross-bridge, and for release of the cross-bridge.

84)

In order for muscle relaxation to occur,

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A) Ca2+ must be transported to troponin. B) power strokes slow down. C) the active sites on actin must be blocked. D) Na+ must be actively transported to troponin. E) the active sites on myosin must be uncovered.

85) A drug that interferes with the active transport of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasm back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum would result in A) relaxation of the muscle fiber. B) contraction with no relaxation. C) muscle hypertrophy. D) fibrosis of the muscle. E) an imbalance of blood calcium.

86)

After contraction has occurred, the Ca2+ are A) destroyed by cholinesterase. B) chemically bound to the cross bridges. C) secreted by the Golgi apparatus to the outside of the cell. D) released from troponin. E) returned to the sarcolemma.

87)

During the contraction phase of a muscle twitch,

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A) acetylcholine stimulates the pre-synaptic terminal. B) Na+ diffuse into the muscle fiber. C) actin-myosin cross-bridges form. D) Ca2+ are transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) the action potential travels down the T tubule.

88)

Which of the following events occurs during the lag phase of a muscle twitch? A) Muscle fibers shorten. B) Cross-bridges form, move, release, and reform many times. C) The actionpotential is propagated from presynaptic to postsynaptic membrane. D) Ca2+ are pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) All of these events occur in the lag phase.

89) The time between application of the stimulus to a motor neuron and the beginning of contraction is called the __________ phase. A) contraction B) relaxation C) latent or lag D) refractory E) threshold

90)

Which of the following would occur as a result of a single muscle contraction?

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A) Tetanus B) Tone C) Treppe D) Twitch E) Paralysis

91) Which of the following will respond to a threshold stimulus with an all-or-none contraction? A) A single muscle fiber B) A single motor unit C) A whole muscle D) Both a single muscle fiber and a single motor unit are correct. E) A single muscle fiber, a single motor unit, and a whole muscle are all correct.

92)

Which of the following is true? A) Muscle fatigue has no influence on the force of contractions. B) A threshold stimulus will cause contraction of a muscle fiber. C) A subthreshold stimulus causes a muscle contraction. D) Motor units do not obey the "all or none" law. E) A threshold stimulus will not affect motor units.

93)

Whole muscles can respond in a graded fashion to stimuli by varying

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A) the force of contraction of individual muscle fibers. B) the number of motor units recruited. C) the amplitude of the action potential. D) the frequency of stimulus. E) thresholds.

94)

A sustained muscle contraction is known as __________. A) tetanus B) tone C) treppe D) twitch E) paralysis

95)

Tetanus of a muscle is thought to be caused by A) high Ca2+ concentrations in the sarcoplasm. B) the rapid movement of Na+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) an increase in stimulus strength. D) increased temperature in the active muscle. E) decreased amounts of Ca2+ in muscle tissue.

96) Which of the following helps explain the increased tension seen in multiple wave summation?

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A) Increased motor unit recruitment B) Increased concentration of Ca2+ around the myofibrils C) Exposure of more active sites on myosin myofilaments D) The breakdown of elastic elements in the cell E) Decreased stimulus frequency

97) A condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations between contractions is called A) complete tetanus. B) incomplete tetanus. C) involuntary paralysis. D) all or none tetanus. E) treppe.

98)

Treppe A) can contribute to improved muscle efficiency. B) may be due to an increase in the level of Ca2+ around the myofibril. C) is an example of a graded response. D) is achieved during warm-up exercises. E) All of these choices are correct.

99)

The stretch of elastic components of a muscle adds to the increased tension during

Version 1

A) incomplete tetanus. B) twitch. C) multiple wave summation. D) all-or-none response. E) None of the choices are correct.

100)

Incomplete tetanus

A) is the time during which the tissue cannot respond again. B) results in complete and incomplete tetanus. C) is the condition in which the muscle fiber only partially relaxes between contractions. D) is the condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations. E) is the constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time.

101)

Muscle tone

A) is a time during which the tissue cannot respond again. B) results in complete and incomplete tetanus. C) is a condition in which the muscle fiber only partially relaxes between contractions. D) is a condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations. E) is a constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time.

102)

The refractory period

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103)

Multiple wave summation

104)

Complete tetanus

105)

A proper definition of muscle tone is

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A) constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time. B) a feeling of well-being following exercise. C) the ability of a muscle to maintain a contraction against an outside force. D) muscles contracting together. E) warm-up of muscle tissue.

106)

Movements of the body are usually smooth and occur at differing rates because A) they are a mixture of isotonic and isometric contractions. B) motor units contract out of phase at their own particular rates. C) most muscle contractions closely resemble individual muscle twitches. D) muscles of different sizes contract at different rates. E) of the all-or-none principle.

107)

Which of the following statements concerning types of muscle contractions is false?

A) In isometric contractions, the amount of tension produced by the muscle is constant. B) In isotonic contractions, the muscle fibers shorten. C) The contractile processes in isometric and isotonic contractions are the same. D) Most skeletal muscle contractions are a combination of isometric and isotonic contractions. E) In isotonic contractions, the amount of tension produced by the muscle fibers is constant during the contraction.

108)

Concentric contractions occur when

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A) the muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens. B) the tension and length of the muscle remain constant during a contraction. C) tension in a muscle is maintained while the muscle increases in length. D) the muscle produces tension while the length of the muscle increases. E) isometric contractions occur.

109)

An isotonic contraction is described as A) action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs. B) a muscle produces constant tension during contraction. C) a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction. D) a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens. E) a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.

110)

Tetanus of muscles is described as A) action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs. B) a muscle produces constant tension during contraction. C) a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction. D) a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens. E) a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.

111)

An eccentric contraction is described as A) action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs. B) a muscle produces constant tension during contraction. C) a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction. D) a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens. E) a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.

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112)

An isometric contraction is described as A) action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs. B) a muscle produces constant tension during contraction. C) a muscle producesan increasing tension as the length remains constant. D) a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens. E) a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.

113)

A concentric contraction is described as A) action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs. B) a muscle produces constant tension during contraction. C) a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction. D) a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens. E) a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.

114)

Which of the following is true? A) The greater the overlap of actin and myosin, the stronger the contraction. B) Overstretching a muscle will increase its tension. C) Optimal actin and myosin overlap will produce maximal contraction. D) The greatest amount of tension is achieved when actin and myosin do not overlap. E) Tension is great when actin and myosin overlap as much as they can.

115)

Which of the following conditions in muscle fibers would contribute to muscle fatigue?

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A) The emotional state of an individual B) Depletion of ATP reserves C) Inability of the motor neuron to produce sufficient quantities of acetylcholine D) Depletion of neurotransmitter E) Blocked receptors in the postsynaptic membrane

116)

The type of muscle fatigue known as "psychological fatigue" is the result of A) depleted ATP reserves. B) increased Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm. C) decreased levels of acetylcholine. D) the emotional state of an individual. E) None of these choices are correct.

117)

Physiological contracture A) occurs when muscles are resting. B) is a condition in which cross-bridges cannot release. C) is caused by an abundance of ATP in muscle fibers. D) results when muscles are well exercised. E) results when the neurotransmitter remains in the receptor.

118)

Rigor mortis occurs after death because A) cross-bridges form but can't release. B) Ca2+ is actively transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) anaerobic respiration is occurring. D) myosin levels decline at death. E) cross-bridges never form.

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119)

During resting conditions, _________ is synthesized to store energy. A) Ca2+ B) creatine phosphate C) creatinine D) lactate E) pyruvate

120) You are hired to work in a laboratory to measure the rate of human muscle contraction. Which of the following might decrease in quantity in muscle fibers undergoing contractions? A) ATP B) Carbon dioxide C) Water D) Lactate E) Na+

121)

A by-product of anaerobic respiration in muscle fibers is A) uric acid. B) hydrochloric acid. C) lactate. D) oxygen. E) pyruvate.

122) Alex is participating in a 50-meter dash. Predict the most important chemical process his muscles will rely on during this race.

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A) Aerobic respiration B) Anaerobic respiration C) Creatine phosphate breakdown D) Nuclear reactions E) Both anaerobic respiration and creatine phosphate breakdown are correct.

123)

Aerobic respiration A) produces ATP molecules faster than anaerobic respiration. B) yields as many as 36 ATP per glucose molecule metabolized. C) occurs whether oxygen is present or not. D) occurs entirely in the cytoplasm. E) occurs in the ribosomes.

124) A lack of glycolytic enzymes within skeletal muscle fibers would impair which type of ATP-yielding process? A) Anaerobic respiration B) Aerobic respiration C) Both anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration are correct.

125) A lack of mitochondria within skeletal muscle fibers would impair which ATP-yielding chemical process? A) Anaerobic respiration B) Aerobic respiration C) Both anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration are correct.

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126)

Which chemical pathway do your muscles depend on while you are watching a movie? A) Anaerobic respiration B) Aerobic respiration C) Both anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration are correct.

127)

Which metabolic pathway do skeletal muscles rely on when someone is lifting weights? A) Anaerobic respiration B) Aerobic respiration C) Both anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration are correct.

128)

Which type of respiration rapidly produces ATP for short time periods? A) Anaerobic respiration B) Aerobic respiration C) Both anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration are correct.

129) When skeletal muscle is producing CO2 and water while making ATP, which chemical processes could be active at this time? A) Anaerobic respiration B) Aerobic respiration C) Both anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration are correct.

130)

Oxygen deficit represents

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A) the amount anaerobic metabolism must increase after exercise. B) the amount of O2 converted to lactate during exercise. C) the amount of CO2 that cells need to eliminate. D) conversion of pyruvate to lactate. E) the amount of O2 that cells need to replenish ATP supplies after exercise.

131) The elevated oxygen consumption relative to activity level after exercise has ended is called A) oxygen deficit. B) oxygen debt. C) oxygen repayment. D) excess post-exercise oxygen consumption. E) anaerobic recovery.

132)

What is a cross-bridge? A) A protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix B) A T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae C) The combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules D) The movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament E) After exercise, the O2 taken in that exceeds the O2 required for resting metabolism

133)

What is the power stroke?

Version 1

A) A protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix B) A T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae C) The combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules D) The movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament E) After exercise, the O2 taken in that exceeds the O2 required for resting metabolism

134)

What is tropomyosin? A) A protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix B) A T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae C) The combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules D) The movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament E) After exercise, the O2 taken in that exceeds the O2 required for resting metabolism

135)

What is a triad? A) A protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix B) A T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae C) The combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules D) The movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament E) After exercise, the O2 taken in that exceeds the O2 required for resting metabolism

136)

What is an oxygen deficit? A) A protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix B) A T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae C) The combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules D) The movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament E) After exercise, the O2 taken in that exceeds the O2 required for resting metabolism

Version 1

137)

Which of the following correctly describes myoglobin's special function in muscle tissue? A) Breaks down glycogen B) Synthesizes ATP C) Acts as a reservoir for O2 D) Produces action potentials E) Stores glucose

138) Consider the following four phrases and select the one that does not belong with the others. A) Anaerobic metabolism B) Lactate production C) Fast twitch fibers D) Fuels runner in a marathon E) Muscle fibers split ATP rapidly

139)

Which of the following statements concerning fast-twitch muscle fibers is true? A) They split ATP rapidly. B) They have large deposits of myoglobin. C) They are well adapted to aerobic metabolism. D) They have a well-developed blood supply. E) They have many mitochondria.

140)

Intense exercise that results in a great deal of anaerobic activity

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A) converts some slow-twitch fibers into fast-twitch fibers. B) increases muscular strength and mass. C) enlarges slow-twitch fibers. D) decreases the efficiency of fast-twitch fibers. E) decreases muscle strength and mass.

141)

Aerobic exercise A) increases vascularity of muscle. B) develops fatigue-resistant fast-twitch fibers. C) can increase the efficiency of slow-twitch fibers. D) can increase the number of mitochondria in muscle fibers. E) All of these choices are correct.

142)

Muscle hypertrophy results from increased numbers of A) myofibrils and sarcomeres. B) muscle fibers. C) motor units. D) muscles. E) muscle cells.

143)

Increased strength of a trained muscle is due to A) an increased number of muscle fibers. B) the nervous system's ability to recruit a large number of motor units simultaneously. C) elimination of unnecessary enzymes and metabolic pathways. D) elimination of all adipose tissue. E) elimination of unnecessary connective tissue.

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144) A patient has a broken arm and must wear a cast for a prolonged period of time. Which of the following is mostly likely to be true when the cast is removed? A) The patient's arm muscles will look the same as they did before the break. B) The patient's arm muscles will have undergone atrophy. C) The patient's arm muscles will have undergone hypertrophy.

145)

Select the phrase that does not belong with the others. A) Muscle atrophy B) Immobilization C) Decrease in number of myofibrils D) Loss of nerve stimulation E) Increased vascularity

146) Susan slipped on the ice and was unable to be fully mobile for several days. What disruption to homeostasis would you predict she experienced during her immobile period in terms of her muscular system? A) Susan's metabolic rate was raised, and it initiated sweating. B) Susan was more cold than usual because her inactivity prevented her muscles from helping to regulate her body temperature. C) Susan's uninjured muscles overcompensate for the inactive ones by contracting spontaneously.

147)

Maureen is hiking in the cold, and to maintain homeostasis her body begins to

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A) increase heat loss from the skin. B) release chemicals to initiate a high fever. C) shiver. D) reduce her blood pressure. E) vasodilate vessels in her head and neck.

148) true?

When comparing smooth and skeletal muscle cells, which of the following statements is

A) Smooth muscle cells have striations. B) The myofilaments in smooth muscle do not form sarcomeres. C) Smooth muscle cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells. D) Smooth muscle has a lot of actin and myosin. E) Smooth muscle cells are multinucleated.

149)

Which of the following statements concerning smooth muscle is true? A) It contains many sarcomeres. B) Caveolae seem to take the place of the myofibrils. C) A calcium-calmodulin complex initiates cross-bridge formation. D) The cells are large and multinuclear. E) It has a well-developed sarcoplasmic reticulum.

150)

In smooth muscle, most of the Ca2+ needed for muscle contraction

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A) is in the dense bodies. B) enters from extracellular fluid. C) is attached to the intermediate filaments. D) must be activated by myosin kinase. E) is stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

151)

In smooth muscle, cross-bridging occurs due to A) Ca2+ binding to troponin. B) Ca2+ binding to calmodulin. C) myosin kinase adding a phosphate to myosin heads. D) both Ca2+ binding to troponin and calmodulin. E) both Ca2+ binding to calmodulin and myosin kinase adding a phosphate to myosin

heads.

152)

Which of the following is NOT true of the latch state of smooth muscle contraction? A) Myosin phosphatase removes the phosphate group from myosin. B) It explains why smooth muscle can sustain tension for long periods of time. C) It occurs when the phosphate is removed while the cross-bridges are attached to actin. D) It occurs when the phosphate is removed while the cross-bridges are not attached to

actin. E) It allows contraction without a large energy expenditure.

153)

Myosin phosphatase

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A) activates myosin kinase. B) forms the cross-bridge. C) removes phosphate from myosin. D) binds to calcium-calmodulin complex. E) opens Ca2+-channels.

154)

Visceral smooth muscle A) may contain groups of cells that function as an independent unit. B) occurs in sheets and exhibits numerous gap junctions. C) contracts only when stimulated. D) does not function as a unit. E) All of these choices are correct.

155)

Multiunit smooth muscle is located in the A) gastrocnemius. B) wall of the GI tract. C) wall of blood vessels. D) wall of the heart. E) reproductive system.

156)

Smooth muscle A) responds in an all-or-none fashion. B) depolarizes when both Na+ and Ca2+ diffuse into the cell. C) has fast waves of depolarization. D) has fast waves of repolarization. E) has a resting membrane potential that is more negative than skeletal muscle fibers.

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157)

Functionally, smooth muscle A) is well adapted to anaerobic metabolism. B) exhibits autorhythmic contractions. C) contracts in response to slow increases in length. D) is unable to maintain tone. E) rapidly develops an oxygen deficit.

158) In a laboratory experiment, the resting membrane potential of a muscle is measured and is found to be more negative. Which of the following has occurred? A) Hyperpolarization B) Repolarization C) Depolarization D) Isopolarization E) Hypopolarization

159)

Smooth muscle is regulated by all of the following except A) the autonomic nervous system. B) neurotransmitters. C) the somatic nervous system. D) hormones. E) prostaglandins.

160) An antibody test on smooth muscle reveals fewer dense bodies and intermediate filaments in a patient with a colon disorder. What is the purpose of these structures?

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A) They allow for rapidly developing action potentials in smooth muscle cells. B) They are shallow invaginations of plasma membrane. C) They maintain relatively constant tension in smooth muscle for a period of time. D) They are part of the intracellular cytoskeleton. E) They act as enzymes that remove phosphate from myosin.

161)

What are caveolae? A) Ion channels that allow for rapidly developing action potentials B) Shallow invaginations of plasma membrane C) Structures that allow for relatively constant tension maintained for a period of time D) Parts of the intracellular cytoskeleton E) Enzymes that removes phosphate from myosin

162)

What is the role of myosin phosphatase? A) To aid in rapidly developing action potentials B) To form shallow invaginations of the plasma membrane C) To maintain relatively constant tension for a period of time D) To function as the intracellular cytoskeleton E) To serve as an enzyme that removes phosphate from myosin

163)

What is the role of pacemaker cells? A) They rapidly develop action potentials. B) They are shallow invaginations of the plasma membrane. C) They maintain relatively constant tension for a period of time. D) They are part of the intracellular cytoskeleton. E) They are enzymes that remove phosphate from myosin.

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164) A cancer patient is told by their physician that their colon is lacking smooth muscle tone. What does this mean? A) The colon is developing action potentials too rapidly. B) The colon has too many shallow invaginations of plasma membranes. C) The colon is unable to maintain constant tension for sustained periods of time. D) The intracellular cytoskeleton is overactive.

165)

Cardiac muscle cells are like skeletal muscle cells in that they both A) have striations. B) depolarize as a result of Na+ and Ca2+ influxes. C) possess intercalated disks. D) lack sarcomeres. E) are multinucleated.

166)

Which of the following is NOT an age-related change in skeletal muscle? A) Loss of muscle strength B) Loss of synapse surface area C) Loss of fast-twitch fibers D) Decreased recovery time E) Decrease in motor units

167)

Curare blocks acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate. This would result in

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A) increased stimulation of the muscle. B) more acetylcholinesterase production. C) lack of Ca2+ uptake by the muscle fiber. D) inability of the muscle fiber to respond to nervous stimulation. E) sustained contraction of the muscle.

168) A child ingested an organophosphate poison used to kill insects. Soon the child's muscles began spastic contractions. Predict what occurred at the synaptic cleft. A) Decreased release of acetylcholine from presynaptic neurons B) Increased accumulation of acetylcholine in the synapse C) Binding of the poison to acetylcholine receptors leading to inhibition of stimulation D) Increased breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft E) Both increased accumulation of acetylcholine in the synapse and increased breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft are correct.

169)

One cause of spastic paralysis might be A) inhibition of acetylcholine molecules. B) blockage of acetylcholine receptors. C) inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. D) destruction of synaptic vesicles. E) increase in the amount of acetylcholinesterase.

170)

Which of the following occurs during recovery from oxygen deficit?

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A) An elevated level of anaerobic metabolism B) Depletion of reserves of creatine phosphate C) Conversion of excess lactate to glucose D) Glycogen degradation to provide creatine E) Depressed level of aerobic respiration

171)

Anabolic steroids can do all of the following except A) increase muscle size and strength. B) cause testicular atrophy. C) cause cardiovascular disease. D) increase the number of muscle fibers. E) increase total muscle mass.

172)

The condition of painful, spasmodic contractions of muscles is referred to as A) cramps. B) fibrositis. C) fibromyalgia. D) muscular dystrophy. E) paralysis.

173)

Inflammation of the fibrous connective tissue resulting in stiffness and soreness is A) cramps. B) fibrositis. C) fibrosis. D) muscular dystrophy. E) paralysis.

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174)

Muscular dystrophy is characterized by A) chronic muscle pain. B) decreased size of muscle fibers. C) spastic contractions of muscles. D) replacement of muscle tissue by connective tissue. E) hypertrophy of muscle tissue.

175)

Which of the following is NOT true of muscular atrophy? A) It is irreversible. B) It can be caused by disuse. C) It can be caused by denervation. D) Transcutaneous stimulation can help prevent it. E) Muscle fibers are replaced by connective tissue.

176) Which of the following is NOT a known effect of illegal use of anabolic steroids in large dosages? A) Increased muscle size B) Kidney damage C) Diminished testosterone secretion D) Increased cardiovascular fitness E) Sterility

177)

What would result from a lack of extracellular Ca2+ at the neuromuscular junction?

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A) Excessive synaptic vesicles would fuse and release too much ACh, overstimulating the myofiber. B) Synaptic vesicles would fail to fuse and ACh would not be released. C) Nothing would happen because extracellular Ca2+ does not play a role in muscle stimulation. D) The neuron must use its intracellular Ca2+ to make the vesicles fuse. E) Potassium ions are used in place of Ca2+ to ensure the vesicles fuse.

178) Consider a chemical that blocks the action of acetylcholinesterase. What effect does this have on muscles? A) It would cause paralysis. B) It would cause action potentials to be inhibited, thereby rendering the muscle useless. C) The body would increase its production of acetylcholine to compensate. D) The axons of the motor neurons would atrophy, and the muscle would weaken. E) The muscle would have no way to relax, and spastic contractions would result.

179) A toxin released by the anaerobic bacterium Clostridium botulinum causes the foodborne illness known as botulism, which inhibits the release of ACh at the neuromuscular junction. What effect does this have on a person infected with the bacterium? A) It causes flaccid paralysis, and if it affects the respiratory muscles, can result in death. B) It disrupts the balance between ACh and acetylcholinesterase, leading to spastic contractions. C) The brain compensates by producing more ACh, limiting the illness to only a few hours. D) The jaws are most affected, and it results in "lockjaw." E) Problems only result when the individual has low immunity.

180) Atrophy at the neuromuscular junction that naturally occurs with age would have what effect on muscles?

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A) It would stimulate the nervous system to increase the speed in which it sends action potentials to the muscle fiber. B) It would stimulate muscle cramps. C) It would decrease the number of action potentials sent to the muscle fiber. D) It would cause an increase in the amount of ACh released by the neurons to compensate. E) It would have no effect on the muscles.

181)

Why does muscle activity affect the temperature of the body?

A) The rate of chemical reactions increases in muscle fibers during contraction, so the rate of heat production also increases. B) Muscle contraction generates pyrogens which reset the body's internal thermostat to a higher temperature. C) Muscle activity directs more warm blood to the muscles away from the central core causing a cooling effect on your internal organs. D) Increased muscle activity causes a rise in adipose stores which increases the insulation value of the body.

182)

As muscle activity increases, the body temperature __________. A) decreases B) increases

183) Each __________ includes a Z disc and extends from each side of the Z disc to the ends of the myosin myofilaments. A) anisotropic band or A band B) isotropic band or I band C) muscle fiber D) sarcomere

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184)

The H zone A) contains only myosin myofilaments. B) contains only actin myofilaments. C) contains both myosin and actin myofilaments.

185)

Excitation-contraction coupling begins with A) the depolarization at the T tubules. B) the production of an action potential in the sarcolemma. C) the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) the release of the cross-bridge.

186) In order for excitation-contraction coupling to occur, the production of an action potential must occur within the __________ of a muscle fiber. A) contraction B) junction C) sarcolemma

187) If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber does NOT relax at all from the previous twitch, the most likely result will be __________. A) fatigue B) spasm C) incompletetetanus D) completetetanus E) wave summation

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188)

Which muscle(s) can contract without the need for nervous stimulation? A) Skeletal muscleonly B) Smooth muscleonly C) Cardiac muscleonly D) Smooth and cardiacmuscle E) Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle

189)

Which fibers are primarily responsible for producing lactate? A) Slow fibers B) Type IIA fast fibers C) Type IIB fast fibers D) Type I slow-twitch fibers E) Red fibers

190) Michael Jordan was arguably the best player in professional basketball history. Scientifically, one would expect him to have highly developed __________ fibers. A) red B) white C) intermediate D) fast twitch E) slow oxidative

191) Why is the contraction strength of smooth muscle relatively independent of its resting length?

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A) It gets nearly allof its Ca2+ from the extracellular fluid. B) It does not haveintercalated discs. C) It does not havesarcomeres. D) It is regulated bya length-tension relationship. E) It is involuntarymuscle.

192) If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber has only partially relaxed from the previous twitch, the most likely result will be __________. A) fatigue B) spasm C) incompletetetanus D) completetetanus E) flaccidparalysis

193)

Which of the following is true concerning isotonic eccentric contraction? A) The muscle shortens, but tension remains constant. B) The muscle lengthens, but tension remains constant. C) The muscle tenses and shortens. D) The muscle tenses, but length remains unchanged. E) The muscle lengthens, and tension declines.

194)

Which of the following is true concerning isotonic concentric contraction?

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A) The muscle shortens, but tension remains constant. B) The muscle lengthens, but tension remains constant. C) The muscle tenses and shortens. D) The muscle tenses, but length remains unchanged. E) The muscle lengthens, and tension declines.

195) Athletes who train at high altitudes increase their red blood cell count, which increases their oxygen supply during exercise. Increased oxygen supply results in A) increased glycolysis. B) increased use of myokinase. C) longer aerobic respiration. D) longer anaerobic respiration. E) reduced ATP consumption.

196)

Which of the following would be caused by a contraction of smooth muscle? A) Goose bumps B) Blood leaving theleft ventricle of the heart C) Elevating theeyebrows D) Blinking theeyelids E) Deepinspiration

197) As you are lifting a box, someone places extra weight on top of it. For your muscle to continue contracting and lifting the box, the muscle must

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A) recruit more muscle fibers. B) lower its threshold. C) reduce its wave summation. D) shift from isometric to isotonic contraction. E) shift from slow-twitch to fast-twitch mode.

198) Drugs called calcium channel blockers may be used to lower blood pressure by causing arteries to vasodilate. How do you suppose these drugs work? A) They preventcalcium from entering the sarcoplasmic reticulum of smooth muscle. B) They stimulate thecalcium pump in smooth muscle, thus removing calcium from the calmodulin. C) They preventcalcium from exiting the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle. D) They preventcalcium from entering cardiac muscle, thus slowing down the heart rate. E) They preventcalcium from entering smooth muscle, thus allowing the muscle to relax.

199) Which of the following individuals would have more mitochondria in her skeletal muscle? A) A 50-year-oldsedentary computer programmer B) A 22-year-oldsoccer player C) A long-termhospice patient D) A model on areduced-calorie diet E) A newborn

200)

A skeletal muscle generates the greatest tension when it is

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A) greatly stretched before being stimulated. B) partially stretched before being stimulated. C) fully relaxed before being stimulated. D) well-rested and low in creatine phosphate. E) high in lactate concentration.

201) A volleyball player depends on the gastrocnemius muscles for plantar flexion, whereas a marathon runner depends more on the soleus muscles for the same action. What characteristic of the soleus muscles makes this so? A) Theyhave smaller mitochondria. B) They have moreglycogen in them. C) They don't haveas many blood capillaries per gram of tissue. D) They make moreuse of aerobic respiration. E) They break ATPdown to ADP and Pi faster.

202)

The training regimen of a competitive weight lifter is designed partly to

A) convert certain muscles with parallel muscle fascicles into muscles with non-parallel muscle fascicles. B) increase the average number of myofibrils per muscle fiber. C) convert fast muscle fibers to slow muscle fibers. D) increase the size of his motor units. E) lower the threshold for muscle stimulation.

203)

Which of the following statements best distinguishes between tetanus and treppe?

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A) Tetanus is due to repeated stimulation of the muscle; treppe is the result of a single long stimulation of the muscle. B) Tetanus occurs when stimulation of muscle occurs frequently with little to no relaxation between stimuli; treppe occurs when stimulation of muscle occurs frequently, but complete relaxation occurs between stimuli. C) Tetanus only occurs in laboratory settings, but treppe occurs all the time in normal muscle activity. D) Tetanus involves increasing the number of motor units stimulated simultaneously; whereas, treppe involves the repeated stimulation of a single muscle fiber.

204)

Due to the pattern of innervation of skeletal muscle, one would expect that A) there are fewer motor neurons than skeletal muscle fibers. B) there are fewer muscle fibers than motor neurons. C) the number of muscle fibers and motor neurons is equal.

205) Substance A is found to be a competitor with acetylcholine. Which step of muscle contraction physiology would be directly affected by this substance? A) Exposure of the active sites on G actin B) Release of acetylcholine from the presynaptic terminal C) Generation of an action potential at the sarcolemma D) Release of the myosin head following the power stroke

206) Whales are air-breathing aquatic mammals, and some species can remain underwater for long periods of time. Which type of skeletal muscle fibers are most likely dominant in these deep diving whales?

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A) Slow fibers B) Fast (type IIa) fibers C) Fast (IIb) fibers D) White fibers

207) Which of the following descriptions best represents the appearance of the sarcomere during peak contraction? A) The H zone is eliminated, and the I bands are very thin. B) The width of the A band is slightly less than the width of the I band. C) The H zone is equivalent to one-third of the length of the A band. D) The I bands and A bands are of equal widths.

208) Which of the following statements best predicts the effect of a substance that blocks creatine kinase activity? A) ATP production from creatine phosphate would decrease. B) ATP production from creatine phosphate would increase. C) ADP production from creatine phosphate would decrease. D) ADP production from creatine phosphate would increase.

209)

Calcium ion blocking agents would most likely affect A) action potential propogation along the transverse tubules. B) release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) movement of the tropomyosin molecule. D) release of the myosin head from the G actin molecule.

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210) Myastensia gravis results from the destruction of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, but treatment involves medications that reduce acetylcholinesterase activity. Which statement best explains the effectiveness of these medications? A) The antibodies destroy some but not all of the acetylcholine receptors, so reducing acetylcholinesterase activity increases the likelihood that acetylcholine will bind to the remaining receptors. B) Acetylcholinesterase is the substance that destroys the receptors as well, so reducing its activity increases the number of acetylcholine receptors. C) Acetylcholinesterase breaks down the acetylcholine to a substance that can bind to the damaged receptors. D) The antibodies that destroy the acetylcholine receptors are less likely to work if acetylcholinesterase is present.

211) Diseases that affect the ability of skeletal muscle to contract are considered life threatening because A) the movement of blood through the blood vessels of the body depends solely on skeletal muscle contractions. B) respiratory movements depend on skeletal muscle contractions. C) movement of food through the digestive tract depends on skeletal muscle contractions. D) All of the choices are correct.

212) Which of the following is not an important function of calcium ions in skeletal muscle activity? A) Depolarization of the sarcolemma B) Release of acetylcholine from the presynaptic terminal C) Exposure of the active sites on G actin D) All of these are important functions of calcium ions in skeletal muscle contraction.

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213) Which of the following statementsdoes not accurately describe factors that determine the amount of force generated during a muscle contraction? A) The number of cross-bridges that can form is higher in a short muscle fiber compared to longer fibers. B) Muscle fibers that have larger diameters have more myofibrils and therefore can form more cross-bridges. C) Increasing stimulation of a muscle fiber results in increased formation of crossbridges. D) Muscle fibers that are stretched to the optimal length will provide higher numbers of cross-bridges.

214)

214.1)

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What does "A" represent on the diagram?

A) Myosin myofilament B) Actin myofilament C) Sarcomere D) Z disk E) Cross-bridge

214.2)

What does "B" represent on the diagram?

A) Myosin myofilament B) Actin myofilament C) Sarcomere D) Z disk E) Cross-bridge

214.3)

What does "C" represent on the diagram?

A) Myosin myofilament B) Actin myofilament C) Sarcomere D) Z disk E) Cross-bridge

214.4)

What does "D" represent on the diagram?

A) Myosin myofilament B) Actin myofilament C) Sarcomere D) Z disk E) Cross-bridge

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214.5)

What does "E" represent on the diagram?

A) Myosin myofilament B) Actin myofilament C) Sarcomere D) Z disk E) Cross-bridge

215)

215.1)

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What does "A" represent on the diagram?

A) Threshold B) Depolarization C) Depolarization phase of action potential D) Repolarization phase of action potential

215.2)

What does "B" represent on the diagram?

A) Threshold B) Depolarization C) Depolarization phase of action potential D) Repolarization phase of action potential

215.3)

What does "C" represent on the diagram?

A) Threshold B) Depolarization C) Depolarization phase of action potential D) Repolarization phase of action potential

215.4)

What does "D" represent on the diagram?

A) Threshold B) Depolarization C) Depolarization phase of action potential D) Repolarization phase of action potential

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216)

216.1) The figure illustrates a detailed drawing of the neuromuscular junction. What does "B" represent? A) Synaptic vesicles B) Synaptic cleft C) Sarcolemma D) Presynaptic terminal E) Postsynaptic membrane

216.2) The figure illustrates a detailed drawing of the neuromuscular junction. What does "A" represent?

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A) Synaptic vesicles B) Synaptic cleft C) Sarcolemma D) Presynaptic terminal E) Postsynaptic membrane

216.3) The figure illustrates a detailed drawing of the neuromuscular junction. What does "C" represent? A) Synaptic vesicles B) Synaptic cleft C) Sarcolemma D) Presynaptic terminal E) Postsynaptic membrane

216.4) The figure illustrates a detailed drawing of the neuromuscular junction. What does "D" represent? A) Synaptic vesicles B) Synaptic cleft C) Sarcolemma D) Presynaptic terminal E) Postsynaptic membrane

216.5) The figure illustrates a detailed drawing of the neuromuscular junction. What does "E" represent?

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A) Synaptic vesicles B) Synaptic cleft C) Sarcolemma D) Presynaptic terminal E) Postsynaptic membrane

217) The type of neurotransmitter or hormone that binds to receptors on smooth muscle plasma membranes determines the response of the muscle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

218) The diffusion of Ca2+ into a smooth muscle cell does not depolarize the membrane so no action potential occurs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

219) In a contracted muscle, the A bands narrow because the length of the myosin myofilaments changes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 09_13e_ VanPutte 1) [B, C, D] 2) [C, D] 3) [B, C] 4) [D] 5) D 6) B 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) A 11) E 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) E 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) D 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) E 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) C 52) A 53) B 54) D 55) B 56) B Version 1

57) A 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) D 62) A 63) A 64) E 65) A 66) A 67) C 68) D 69) B 70) A 71) B 72) A 73) B 74) D 75) A 76) E 77) C 78) A 79) C 80) B 81) B 82) B 83) E 84) C 85) B 86) D Version 1

87) C 88) C 89) C 90) D 91) D 92) B 93) B 94) A 95) A 96) B 97) A 98) E 99) C 100) C 101) E 102) A 103) B 104) D 105) A 106) B 107) A 108) A 109) B 110) A 111) E 112) C 113) D 114) C 115) B 116) D Version 1

117) B 118) A 119) B 120) A 121) C 122) E 123) B 124) C 125) B 126) B 127) A 128) A 129) B 130) E 131) D 132) C 133) D 134) A 135) B 136) E 137) C 138) D 139) A 140) B 141) E 142) A 143) B 144) B 145) E 146) B Version 1

147) C 148) B 149) C 150) B 151) E 152) D 153) C 154) B 155) C 156) B 157) B 158) A 159) C 160) D 161) B 162) E 163) A 164) C 165) A 166) D 167) D 168) B 169) C 170) C 171) D 172) A 173) B 174) D 175) A 176) D Version 1

177) B 178) E 179) A 180) C 181) A 182) B 183) B 184) A 185) B 186) C 187) D 188) D 189) C 190) B 191) C 192) C 193) B 194) A 195) C 196) A 197) A 198) E 199) B 200) B 201) D 202) B 203) B 204) A 205) A 206) A Version 1

207) A 208) A 209) C 210) A 211) B 212) A 213) A 214) Section Break 214.1) B 214.2) A 214.3) E 214.4) D 214.5) C 215) Section Break 215.1) B 215.2) C 215.3) D 215.4) A 216) Section Break 216.1) D 216.2) C 216.3) A 216.4) B 216.5) E 217) FALSE 218) TRUE 219) FALSE

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CHAPTER 10 1)

Which of the following muscles are named based on their shape? (Check all that apply.) A) Deltoid B) Orbicularis oris C) Pectoralis major D) Superior rectus E) Teres major

Which of the following are components of the pelvic diaphragm? (Check all that apply.) A) Bulbospongiosus B) Coccygeus C) External anal sphincter D) Inferior oblique E) Levator ani

3) The lateral and posterior neck muscles are involved in which types of head movements? (Check all that apply.) A) Abduction B) Adduction C) Extension D) Lateral flexion E) Rotation

The lateral leg muscles have which actions on the foot? (Check all that apply.)

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A) Dorsiflexion B) Eversion C) Inversion D) Plantar flexion

Which thoracic muscles are involved in expiration? (Check all that apply.) A) External intercostals B) Internal intercostals C) Scalene muscles D) Transversus thoracis

6) Which muscles insert upon the scapula and attach the scapula to the thorax? (Check all that apply.) A) Deltoid B) Levator scapulae C) Pectoralis major D) Pectoralis minor E) Rhomboideus muscles F) Serratus anterior G) Trapezius

7) The sternocleidomastoid muscle extends from the mastoid process of the temporal bone to the sternum and medial clavicle. When both sternocleidomastoid muscles contract, the head is flexed. The end of the muscle that connects to the sternum is the __________.

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A) origin B) belly C) body D) insertion E) fixator

8) When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the more movable end of attachment of the muscle is called its __________. A) origin B) insertion C) antagonist D) synergist E) fixator

9) When you "pull your tummy in" and compress your abdomen, you use the rectus abdominis, external abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles. This is an example of muscles working as __________. A) fixators B) synergists C) antagonists D) prime movers E) cooperatives

10)

The insertion is

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A) a muscle working in opposition to another muscle. B) the end of the muscle where the action occurs. C) the muscle that does most of the movement. D) the stationary end of the muscle. E) a group of muscles that work together to cause movement.

11)

The origin is A) a muscle working in opposition to another muscle. B) the end of the muscle where the action occurs. C) the muscle that does most of the movement. D) the stationary end of the muscle. E) a group of muscles that work together to cause movement.

12)

A synergist is A) a muscle working in opposition to another muscle. B) the end of the muscle where the action occurs. C) the muscle that does most of the movement. D) the stationary end of the muscle. E) a group of muscles that work together to cause movement.

13)

The prime mover is A) a muscle working in opposition to another muscle. B) the end of the muscle where the action occurs. C) the muscle that does most of the movement. D) the stationary end of the muscle. E) a group of muscles that work together to cause movement.

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14)

An antagonist is A) a muscle working in opposition to another muscle. B) the end of the muscle where the action occurs. C) the muscle that does most of the movement. D) the stationary end of the muscle. E) a group of muscles that work together to cause movement.

15) Muscles that have their fasciculi arranged like barbs of a feather along a common tendon are called __________. A) pennate B) straight C) orbicular D) rhombohedral E) divergent

16)

The muscle shape that has the capacity to shorten to the greatest degree is __________. A) pennate B) straight C) orbicular D) unipennate E) multipennate

17)

The type of muscle that functions as a sphincter is __________.

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A) pennate B) straight C) orbicular D) rhombohedral E) unipennate

18)

The type of muscle that can contract with the greatest force is the __________. A) straight B) orbicular C) triangular D) rhomboidal E) pennate

19)

The adductor longus is named for its __________. A) function and orientation B) origin and insertion C) location and size D) type and shape E) function and size

20)

The brachioradialis is named for its __________. A) function and orientation B) origin and insertion C) location and size D) function and size E) type and shape

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21)

Which of the following muscles is named for its shape? A) Pectoralis major B) Adductor pollicis C) Vastus lateralis D) Trapezius E) Pectoralis minor

22)

Which of the following muscles is named for its location? A) Rhomboideus major B) Quadriceps femoris C) Trapezius D) Deltoid E) Teres major

23)

In the body's lever systems, the A) joint represents the fulcrum point. B) force or pull is applied by the bone. C) fulcrum is the part being moved. D) weight is the muscle mass. E) lever is a pivot point.

24)

Which of the following represents a class I lever system?

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A) Crossing your legs B) Hyperextension of the head C) Standing on your tiptoes D) Flexion of the elbow to elevate the hand E) Lifting weight with your arm

25)

The flexion of the elbow represents a __________ lever system. A) class I B) class II C) class III D) class IV

26)

Contracting the right sternocleidomastoid muscle would A) raise the head. B) lower the head. C) rotate the head toward the right. D) rotate the head toward the left. E) hyperextend the head.

27)

Contracting the trapezius muscle would A) extend the neck. B) flex the neck. C) laterally flex the neck. D) rotate the head toward the left. E) extend and laterally flex the neck.

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28)

Which of the following muscles does NOT extend the neck? A) Trapezius B) Semispinalis capitis C) Longissimus capitis D) Longus capitis E) Splenius capitis

29)

Of the following muscles of the head, which one wraps around the orbits? A) Nasalis B) Temporalis C) Orbicularis oculi D) Masseter E) Orbicularis oris

30)

Raising the eyebrows is the action of the __________ muscle. A) auricular B) procerus C) occipitofrontalis D) levator palpebrae superioris E) temporalis

31)

Well-developed mentalis muscles result in __________.

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A) a dimple in the chin B) crow's feet wrinkles C) a wonderful smile D) chubby cheeks E) creases in the cheeks

32)

Closing or puckering the lips is the action of the __________ muscle. A) auricularis B) orbicularis oris C) orbicularis oculi D) levator anguli oris E) zygomaticus

33)

Facial muscles are unusual in that they A) represent a combination of first-class and second-class lever systems. B) insert and sometimes originate on skin and connective tissue. C) are smooth muscles rather than skeletal muscles. D) are not involved in movement. E) are not involved in facial expression.

34)

Which of the following muscles is involved in chewing gum? A) Masseter B) Splenius capitus C) Orbicularis oris D) Zygomaticus major E) Orbicularis oculi

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35)

The orbicularis oculi muscle A) puckers the mouth for kissing. B) contributes to pouting. C) contributes to laughing and smiling. D) causes crow's feet wrinkles. E) raises the eyelid.

36)

The orbicularis oris muscle A) puckers the mouth for kissing. B) contributes to pouting. C) contributes to laughing and smiling. D) causes crow's feet wrinkles. E) raises the eyelid.

37)

The zygomaticus major muscle A) puckers the mouth for kissing. B) contributes to pouting. C) contributes to laughing and smiling. D) causes crow's feet wrinkles. E) raises the eyelid.

38)

The levator palpebrae superioris muscle

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A) puckers the mouth for kissing. B) contributes to pouting. C) contributes to laughing and smiling. D) causes crow's feet wrinkles. E) raises the eyelid.

39)

The depressor anguli oris muscle A) puckers the mouth for kissing. B) contributes to pouting. C) contributes to laughing and smiling. D) causes crow's feet wrinkles. E) raises the eyelid.

40)

Muscles that elevate the jaw and close the mouth include the __________. A) stylohyoid and procerus B) temporalis and digastric C) sternothyroid and buccinator D) masseter and medial pterygoid E) zygomaticus and buccinator

41)

The digastric muscle is involved in __________. A) stomach contractions B) opening the mouth C) facial expression D) tummy tucks E) swallowing

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42)

When you say "ah" and stick out your tongue, which muscle do you use? A) Genioglossus B) Hyoglossus C) Styloglossus D) Palatoglossus E) Stylohyoid

43)

Muscles that change the shape of the tongue are called __________ muscles. A) extrinsic B) deglutition C) masseter D) intrinsic E) suprahyoid

44) In order to stabilize the hyoid so that the larynx can be elevated in swallowing, the __________ muscle group is used. A) pterygoid B) infrahyoid C) auricularis D) suprahyoid E) hyoglossus

45)

Which of the following muscles is involved in swallowing?

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A) Sternocleidomastoid B) Palatopharyngeus C) Temporalis D) Vocalis E) Masseter

46)

Contraction of the inferior rectus muscle directs the pupil to look __________. A) up B) obliquely C) to the side D) to the nose E) down

47) In order for both eyes to direct their gaze to the right, which of the following muscles are used? (1) Right lateral rectus (2) Right medial rectus (3) Left lateral rectus (4) Left medial rectus A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 2 and 3 D) 1 and 4 E) 1, 2, 3

48)

In humans

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A) back muscles are strong to maintain erect posture. B) deep back muscles extend from the vertebrae to the ribs. C) most of the muscle mass in the lower back is from the spinalis muscle. D) back muscles are not very strong. E) back muscles are similar in strength to the back muscles of cattle.

49)

Which back muscle originates on the vertebral spinous processes? A) Erector spinae B) Longissimus capitis C) Interspinales D) Multifidus E) Psoas minor

50)

Which back muscle extends the head? A) Erector spinae B) Longissimus capitis C) Interspinales D) Multifidus E) Psoas minor

51)

Which back muscle inserts on the ribs and vertebrae? A) Erector spinae B) Longissimus capitis C) Interspinales D) Multifidus E) Psoas minor

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52)

Which back muscle extends and rotates the vertebral column? A) Erector spinae B) Longissimus capitis C) Interspinales D) Multifidus E) Psoas minor

53)

Which muscle flexes the vertebral column? A) Erector spinae B) Longissimus capitis C) Interspinales D) Multifidus E) Psoas minor

54) The major movement produced during quiet breathing is accomplished by the __________. A) scalenes B) diaphragm C) external intercostals D) internal intercostals E) transverses thoracis

55)

Which of the following muscles contracts during forced expiration?

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A) Scalenes B) Diaphragm C) Linea alba D) Internal intercostals E) External intercostals

56) If abdominal muscles are contracted while the vertebral column is fixed, this will aid in __________. A) vomiting B) childbirth C) urination D) defecation E) All of the choices are correct.

57) The abdominal muscle that has its origin at the pubic crest and symphysis pubis is the __________. A) rectus abdominis B) transversus abdominis C) external abdominal oblique D) internal abdominal oblique E) linea alba

58)

Which abdominal wall muscle inserts on the xiphoid process and the linea alba?

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A) Rectus abdominis B) External abdominal oblique C) Internal abdominal oblique D) Transversus abdominis E) Quadratus lumborum

59) Which abdominal wall muscle originates on the iliac crest and the lower lumbar vertebrae? A) Rectus abdominis B) External abdominal oblique C) Internal abdominal oblique D) Transversus abdominis E) Quadratus lumborum

60)

Which abdominal wall muscle is the most superficial of the oblique muscles? A) Rectus abdominis B) External abdominal oblique C) Internal abdominal oblique D) Transversus abdominis E) Quadratus lumborum

61)

Which abdominal wall muscle inserts on the 10th to 12th ribs and rectus sheath?

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A) Rectus abdominis B) External abdominal oblique C) Internal abdominal oblique D) Transversus abdominis E) Quadratus lumborum

62)

Damage to the muscle called the levator ani would result in A) difficult urination. B) difficult defecation. C) inability of a male to have an erection. D) decreased support for the pelvic viscera. E) Both "difficult defecation" and "decreased support for the pelvic viscera" are correct.

63)

The pelvic diaphragm is formed by the A) levator ani only. B) deep transverse perineum muscle. C) levator ani and coccygeus muscles. D) sphincter urethrae and sphincter ani muscles. E) coccygeus only.

64)

Which of the following muscles moves the scapula? A) Trapezius B) Biceps brachii C) Latissimus dorsi D) Pectoralis major E) Triceps brachii

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65)

Which muscle will elevate the scapula? A) Levator scapulae B) Serratus anterior C) Pectoralis minor D) Subclavius E) Rhomboideus major

66)

Which muscle rotates and protracts the scapula, and elevates the ribs? A) Levator scapulae B) Serratus anterior C) Pectoralis minor D) Subclavius E) Rhomboideus major

67)

Which muscle retracts, rotates, and fixes the scapula? A) Levator scapulae B) Serratus anterior C) Pectoralis minor D) Subclavius E) Rhomboideus major

68)

Which muscle fixes the clavicle or elevates the first rib?

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A) Levator scapulae B) Serratus anterior C) Pectoralis minor D) Subclavius E) Rhomboideus major

69)

Which muscle will depress the scapula or elevate the ribs? A) Levator scapulae B) Serratus anterior C) Pectoralis minor D) Subclavius E) Rhomboideus major

70)

Which of the following muscles of the chest has its insertion on the humerus? A) Pectoralis major B) Pectoralis minor C) Serratus anterior D) Subclavius E) Internal intercostals

71)

The arm is attached to the thorax by the __________. A) pectoralis major and teres major B) supraspinatus and latissimus dorsi C) pectoralis minor and pectoralis major D) latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major E) biceps brachii and triceps brachii

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72)

Which of the following muscles is part of the rotator cuff? A) Deltoid B) Teres major C) Infraspinatus D) Coracobrachialis E) Trapezius

73)

The rotator cuff muscles A) fix the scapula in place. B) attach the arm to the thorax. C) attach the clavicle to the humerus. D) hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula. E) attach at the distal end of the humerus.

74) A tennis player complains of severe pain in the shoulder when serving or returning an overhead volley. Which of the rotator cuff muscles is probably damaged? A) Infraspinatus B) Subscapularis C) Supraspinatus D) Teres major E) Deltoid

75)

The infraspinatus __________.

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A) laterally rotates the arm B) adducts and laterally rotates the arm C) medially rotates the arm D) abducts the arm E) flexes the shoulder

76)

Raising your arm to shoulder level is accomplished almost entirely by the __________. A) pectoralis major B) biceps brachii C) trapezius D) deltoid E) triceps brachii

77)

The teres major and teres minor are not involved in A) extension of the arm. B) adduction of the arm. C) medial rotation of the arm. D) lateral rotation of the arm. E) flexion and abduction of the arm.

78)

All of the following muscles are rotators of the arm. Which is a lateral rotator of the arm? A) Pectoralis major B) Latissimus dorsi C) Teres major D) Deltoid E) Coracobrachialis

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79) If a man exercises by doing push-ups every day, he would strengthen or enlarge which of the following muscles? A) Supraspinatus B) Gastrocnemius C) Thenar muscles D) Triceps brachii E) Biceps brachii

80)

The anconeus works with the triceps brachii to __________. A) supinate the forearm B) extend the forearm C) pronate the forearm D) flex the forearm E) rotate the forearm

81)

Which of the following muscles extends the forearm and has its insertion on the ulna? A) Deltoid B) Biceps brachii C) Triceps brachii D) Brachialis E) Coracobrachialis

82)

Supination of the forearm and hand is accomplished by the __________.

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A) brachioradialis and anconeus B) biceps brachii and supinator C) triceps brachii and supinator D) anconeus and supinator E) supinator and brachialis

83)

Which of the following is found in the posterior group of forearm muscles? A) Palmaris longus B) Flexor carpi radialis C) Abductor pollicis longus D) Flexor digitorum profundus E) Flexor digitorum superficialis

84)

The muscles of the anterior group of forearm muscles are primarily __________. A) flexors B) extensors C) abductors D) adductors E) supinators

85)

Which of the following muscles flexes the wrist? A) Anconeus B) Coracobrachialis C) Flexor pollicis brevis D) Extensor carpi radialis brevis E) Flexor carpi radialis

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86)

A muscle that extends both the wrist and the index finger is the __________. A) extensor indicis B) extensor carpi ulnaris C) extensor pollicis longus D) extensor carpi radialis longus E) extensor digiti minimi

87) Of the following muscles of the forearm, which one rotates the forearm to turn the palm upwards? A) Supinator B) Triceps brachii C) Brachialis D) Pronator quadratus E) Brachioradialis

88)

The radial pulse can be felt just lateral to the tendon of the __________. A) flexor carpi ulnaris B) flexor carpi radialis C) extensor carpi radialis brevis D) extensor carpi radialis longus E) brachioradialis

89)

The extensor pollicis brevis moves the __________.

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A) forearm B) fingers C) thumb D) retinaculum E) palm

90) The thenar muscles are involved in controlling the __________; the hypothenar muscles control the __________. A) index finger; little finger B) thumb; little finger C) ring finger; thumb D) thumb; index finger E) index finger; thumb

91) In order to put on a glove, the fingers are abducted by hand muscles called the __________. A) retinacula B) lumbricals C) opponens pollicis D) dorsal interossei E) abductor pollicis brevis

92) If a person drums their fingers on the table, they would be using which of the following muscles?

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A) Interossei palmaris B) Flexor carpi ulnaris C) Flexor carpi radialis D) Flexor digitorum profundus E) Extensor carpi radialis longus

93)

Flexion of the hip is a movement produced by the __________. A) gluteus medius and gluteus maximus B) gluteus maximus and vastus lateralis C) psoas major and iliacus D) sartorius and rectus femoris E) piriformis and quadratus femoris

94)

The gluteus maximus A) does most of the work in "sit-ups." B) accounts for a sprinter's stance. C) allows one to sit cross-legged. D) is used in the knee-jerk reflex. E) is a common site for injections.

95)

The largest buttocks muscle is the __________. A) iliopsoas B) psoas major C) gluteus maximus D) tensor fascia latae E) piriformis

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96)

A common site on the lower limb for injections is the __________. A) biceps femoris B) gluteus medius C) vastus lateralis D) gluteus maximus E) psoas major

97) When an intramuscular injection is given in the anterior aspect of the thigh, the injection is in the __________. A) soleus B) gastrocnemius C) rectus femoris D) gluteus minimus E) biceps femoris

98)

Which of the following is a part of the quadriceps femoris muscle group? A) Pectineus B) Sartorius C) Vastus lateralis D) Tensor fasciae latae E) Iliotibial tract

99)

The biceps femoris is part of the __________.

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A) hamstring muscles B) quadriceps group C) anterior thigh compartment D) medial thigh compartment E) thigh and hip adductors

100)

The muscle that is used to cross the legs is __________. A) sartorius B) gastrocnemius C) vastus lateralis D) gluteus maximus E) biceps femoris

101)

Which of the following muscles would be considered an antagonist to the rectus femoris? A) Sartorius B) Biceps femoris C) Vastus intermedius D) Gracilis E) Vastus lateralis

102)

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the posterior side? A) Rectus femoris B) Sartorius C) Adductor magnus D) Biceps femoris E) Gracilis

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103)

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is NOT part of the quadriceps group? A) Biceps femoris B) Rectus femoris C) Vastus lateralis D) Vastus medialis E) Vastus intermedius

104)

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one does NOT pull the leg forward? A) Biceps femoris B) Rectus femoris C) Vastus lateralis D) Vastus medialis E) Vastus intermedius

105)

Of the following muscles of the leg, which one is on the anterior side of the leg? A) Gastrocnemius B) Soleus C) Tibialis anterior D) Tibialis posterior E) Peroneus longus

106)

The term "shin splints" is applied to

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A) injuries resulting from excessive stress on the tibialis posterior. B) stress fractures of the fibula 2 to 5 cm distal to the knee. C) inflammation of the gastrocnemius. D) posterior compartment syndrome. E) blood accumulation around the gastrocnemius.

107)

The bulge of the calf is caused by the __________ and __________ muscles. A) sartorius; piriformis B) gastrocnemius; soleus C) peroneus longus; plantaris D) extensor hallucis longus; flexor hallucis longus E) calcaneal; peroneal

108)

Which of the following muscles is used when walking on your tiptoes? A) Gastrocnemius B) Tibialis anterior C) Peroneus tertius D) Extensor digitorum longus E) Calcaneal tendon

109)

Which of the following muscles is found in the lateral compartment of the leg? A) Plantaris B) Tibialis anterior C) Fibularis longus D) Extensor digitorum longus E) Soleus

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110)

Which of the following is inserted on the calcaneus by the Achilles tendon? A) Tibialis posterior B) Peroneus longus C) Peroneus brevis D) Extensor digitorum longus E) Gastrocnemius

111)

Which of the following is a posterior thigh muscle? A) Quadriceps femoris B) Sartorius C) Biceps femoris D) Tensor fasciae latae E) Gracilis

112)

Which thigh muscle adducts the thigh and flexes the knee? A) Quadriceps femoris B) Sartorius C) Biceps femoris D) Tensor fasciae latae E) Gracilis

113)

Which of the following is a group of four muscles in the anterior thigh?

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A) Quadriceps femoris B) Sartorius C) Biceps femoris D) Tensor fasciae latae E) Gracilis

114)

Which of the following is the longest muscle in the body? A) Quadriceps femoris B) Sartorius C) Biceps femoris D) Tensor fasciae latae E) Gracilis

115)

Which muscle abducts and flexes the thigh? A) Quadriceps femoris B) Sartorius C) Biceps femoris D) Tensor fasciae latae E) Gracilis

116)

Which muscle extends the four lateral toes? A) Tibialis anterior B) Soleus C) Extensor digitorum longus D) Extensor hallicus longus E) Fibularis brevis

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117)

Which muscle everts and plantar flexes the foot? A) Tibialis anterior B) Soleus C) Extensor digitorum longus D) Extensor hallicus longus E) Fibularis brevis

118)

Which muscle extends the big toe? A) Tibialis anterior B) Soleus C) Extensor digitorum longus D) Extensor hallicus longus E) Fibularis brevis

119)

Which muscle dorsiflexes and inverts the foot? A) Tibialis anterior B) Soleus C) Extensor digitorum longus D) Extensor hallicus longus E) Fibularis brevis

120)

Which muscle plantar flexes the foot?

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A) Tibialis anterior B) Soleus C) Extensor digitorum longus D) Extensor hallicus longus E) Fibularis brevis

121) Muscles can be classified based on their shape and fascicle orientation. Which shape has muscle fibers that run the length of the muscle and taper at each end? A) Circular B) Fusiform C) Multipennate D) Pennate

122) Choosing from the lateral neck muscles, which muscle is the prime mover for flexion of the head at the neck? A) Anterior scalene B) Pectoralis major C) Splenius capitis D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Thyrohyoid F) Trapezius

123) Eversion and plantar flexion is accomplished by muscles in the __________ compartment. A) lateral B) anterior C) posterior

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124)

Triangular muscles, like the pectoralis major are also called __________ muscles. A) bipennate B) circular C) convergent D) parallel

125) Which of the following correctly lists the arrangement of components found in a thirdclass lever? A) Weight–fulcrum–pull B) Fulcrum–pull–weight C) Fulcrum–weight–pull

126)

The rectus femoris is an example of which muscle shape? A) Fusiform B) Parallel C) Triangular D) Elongated E) Pennate

127)

Which term below best describes the deltoid?

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A) Fusiform B) Intrinsic C) Involuntary D) Extrinsic E) Parallel

128)

Which of the following muscles of facial expression is not innervated by the facial nerve? A) Orbicularisoculi B) Zygomaticusmajor C) Corrugatorsupercilii D) Levator palpebraesuperioris E) Buccinator

129)

Which of these muscles helps to open the mouth? A) Zygomaticusmajor B) Digastric C) Sternohyoid D) Depressor angulioris E) Hyoglossus

130)

Which of the following muscles is not externally visible on the trunk of the body? A) Transverseabdominal B) Latissimusdorsi C) Trapezius D) Pectoralismajor E) Externalabdominal oblique

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131) In lifting a heavy weight from the floor, one should use the power of the __________ in order to avoid straining the lower back. A) biceps brachii andbrachialis B) gastrocnemius andsoleus C) external andinternal abdominal obliques D) knee and hipextensors E) trapezius andlatissimus dorsi

132) Which of the following correctly states the proximal and distal attachments of the sternocleidomastoid? A) Sternal manubriumand lateral one-third of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral half of superiornuchal line B) Sternal manubriumand medial half of clavicle; mastoid process and medial one-third of superiornuchal line C) Sternal manubriumand medial one-third of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral half of superiornuchal line D) Sternal manubriumand lateral half of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral one-third of superiornuchal line E) Mastoid processand lateral half of superior nuchal line; sternal manubrium, medial one-thirdof clavicle

133) The muscles that laterally rotate and depress the scapula, as in shrugging and lowering the shoulders, are the __________.

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A) trapezius andserratus anterior B) pectoralis minorand serratus anterior C) levator scapulaeand rhomboideus D) trapezius andrhomboideus E) trapezius andlatissimus dorsi

134) After taking their wedding vows, a bride and groom often ceremonially use which of the following muscles before walking away from the altar? A) Depressor angulioris B) Orbicularisoris C) Levator labiisuperioris D) Platysma E) Quadricepsfemoris

135)

Some people suffer involuntary urination due to incompetence of which muscle? A) External urethralsphincter B) Bulbospongiosus C) Compressorurethrae D) Ischiocavernosus E) Levator ani

136) A baseball pitcher who injures one of his SITS muscles most commonly sustains tears to the tendon of which muscle?

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A) Supraspinatus B) Infraspinatus C) Teres minor D) Subscapularis E) Deltoid

137)

Which of the following is true regarding the levator scapula muscle? A) It is innervated by the phrenic nerve. B) It elevates the scapula if the scapula is fixed. C) It rotates the scapula and depresses the apex of the shoulder. D) It laterally flexes the neck if the scapula is fixed. E) It protracts the scapula if the humerus is fixed.

138)

Which muscle acting on the arm assists in deep inspiration? A) Pectoralismajor B) Trapezius C) Teres minor D) Diaphragm E) Deltoid

139)

A butcher who cuts the distal portion of his fingers may cut the __________ tendon. A) flexor pollicislongus B) flexor carpiulnaris C) palmarislongus D) adductorpollicis E) flexor digitorumprofundus

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140) When a nurse draws blood, it is not uncommon for the needle to penetrate which muscle near the cubital region? A) Pronatorquadratus B) Semimembranosus C) Pronator teres D) Buccinator E) Supinator

141)

Which of the following best describes the insertion of the extensor digitorum? A) It indirectly inserts on all digits of the hand. B) It indirectlyinserts on all digits of the hand except the thumb. C) It directly inserts on all digits of the hand. D) It directly inserts on all digits of the hand except the thumb. E) It directly inserts on the index finger only.

142) Carpal tunnel pressure is sometimes relieved by surgically excising part or all of which structure? A) Palmaraponeurosis B) Extensorretinaculum C) Flexorretinaculum D) Extensoraponeurosis E) Median nerve

143)

Which of the following muscles attaches on the head of the fibula?

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A) Extensor digitorum longus B) Tibialis anterior C) Popliteus D) Biceps femoris E) Semitendinosus

144) A male sustains a crushing injury to his foot. After weeks of care, he begins to notice that he cannot bend the little toe on his right foot. Which of the following would be a logical diagnosis? A) Atrophy of theflexor hallucis brevis B) Atrophy of thefibularis brevis C) Atrophy of thesoleus D) Atrophy of the flexor digiti minimi brevis E) Atrophy of theadductor hallucis

145) Jason was attempting a jump shot and fell to the ground in pain, grasping at the calf of his leg. There is an enormous bulge in his leg just below the popliteal fossa, and he can't plantar flex that foot. Most likely he has injured his __________. A) quadriceps tendon B) calcaneal tendon C) patellar ligament D) tibia E) hamstrings muscles

146) Alexandria, a sprinter, experienced thigh pain during the start of her last race. Within 48 hours of the race, she noticed extensive bruising on the back of her thigh extending into the back of the knee and has difficulty rising from a seated position and flexing her knee. Bending at the waist generates more pain. Which muscle is likely injured?

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A) Gluteusmaximus B) Popliteus C) Bicepsfemoris D) Gastrocnemius E) Iliopsoas

147) After childbirth, a woman begins experiencing tremendous pain in her groin, making it difficult for her to walk. An x-ray shows a fracture extending from her symphysis pubis to the inferior ramus of the pubis. As a result of the fracture, which group of muscles might be impaired? A) Hip flexors B) Thighabductors C) Hip extensors D) Lateralrotators E) Thighadductors

148) When someone says to "turn that frown upside down," they mean to relax your __________ and contract your __________. A) depressor anguli oris; levator anguli oris B) depressor labii inferioris; levator labii superioris C) levator anguli oris; depressor labii inferioris D) levator labii superioris; depressor labii inferioris

149) Joseph is exasperated at the request of his teacher to recite the extrinsic muscles of the eye and their function and rolls his eyes in frustration. Which muscles did Joseph use to carry out this movement?

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A) Inferior obliques B) Inferior rectus C) Lateral rectus D) Medial rectus

150) Hannah has damaged her left deltoid muscle. Which of the following actions would least likely be affected by the damage? A) Moving her arm medially B) Moving her laterally C) Rotating her arm at the shoulder D) All of the choices are correct.

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151)

151.1) The figure illustrates a lateral view muscles of the head and neck. Which muscle is indicated by "A"? A) Orbicularis oculi B) Temporalis C) Trapezius D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Masseter

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151.2) The figure illustrates a lateral view muscles of the head and neck. Which muscle is indicated by "B"? A) Orbicularis oculi B) Temporalis C) Trapezius D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Masseter

151.3) The figure illustrates a lateral view muscles of the head and neck. Which muscle is indicated by "C"? A) Orbicularis oculi B) Temporalis C) Trapezius D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Masseter

151.4) The figure illustrates a lateral view muscles of the head and neck. Which muscle is indicated by "D"? A) Orbicularis oculi B) Temporalis C) Trapezius D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Masseter

151.5) The figure illustrates a lateral view muscles of the head and neck. Which muscle is indicated by "E"? Version 1

A) Orbicularis oculi B) Temporalis C) Trapezius D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Masseter

152)

152.1) The figure illustrates muscles of the thorax and abdomen. Which structure is indicated by "A"? A) Linea alba B) Serratus anterior C) Rectus abdominis D) External oblique E) Internal oblique

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152.2) The figure illustrates muscles of the thorax and abdomen. Which structure is indicated by "C"? A) Linea alba B) Serratus anterior C) Rectus abdominis D) External oblique E) Internal oblique

152.3) The figure illustrates muscles of the thorax and abdomen. Which structure is indicated by "D"? A) Linea alba B) Serratus anterior C) Rectus abdominis D) External oblique E) Internal oblique

152.4) The figure illustrates muscles of the thorax and abdomen. Which structure is indicated by "E"? A) Linea alba B) Serratus anterior C) Rectus abdominis D) External oblique E) Internal oblique

152.5) The figure illustrates muscles of the thorax and abdomen. Which structure is indicated by "B"? Version 1

A) Linea alba B) Serratus anterior C) Rectus abdominis D) External oblique E) Internal oblique

153)

153.1)

The figure illustrates a lateral view of the right eyeball. What does "A" represent?

A) Inferior oblique B) Lateral rectus C) Superior oblique D) Superior rectus E) Inferior rectus

153.2)

The figure illustrates a lateral view of the right eyeball. What does "B" represent?

A) Inferior oblique B) Lateral rectus C) Superior oblique D) Superior rectus E) Inferior rectus

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153.3)

The figure illustrates a lateral view of the right eyeball. What does "C" represent?

A) Inferior oblique B) Lateral rectus C) Superior oblique D) Superior rectus E) Inferior rectus

153.4)

The figure illustrates a lateral view of the right eyeball. What does "D" represent?

A) Inferior oblique B) Lateral rectus C) Superior oblique D) Superior rectus E) Inferior rectus

153.5)

The figure illustrates a lateral view of the right eyeball. What does "E" represent?

A) Inferior oblique B) Lateral rectus C) Superior oblique D) Superior rectus E) Inferior rectus

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154)

154.1) The figure illustrates muscles of the anterior surface of the body. What does "A" represent? A) Coracobrachialis B) Deltoid C) Pectoralis major D) Biceps brachii E) Serratus anterior

154.2) The figure illustrates muscles of the anterior surface of the body. What does "B" represent? A) Coracobrachialis B) Deltoid C) Pectoralis major D) Biceps brachii E) Serratus anterior

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154.3) The figure illustrates muscles of the anterior surface of the body. What does "C" represent? A) Coracobrachialis B) Deltoid C) Pectoralis major D) Biceps brachii E) Serratus anterior

154.4) The figure illustrates muscles of the anterior surface of the body. What does "D" represent? A) Coracobrachialis B) Deltoid C) Pectoralis major D) Biceps brachii E) Serratus anterior

154.5) The figure illustrates muscles of the anterior surface of the body. What does "E" represent? A) Coracobrachialis B) Deltoid C) Pectoralis major D) Biceps brachii E) Serratus anterior

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 10_13e_ VanPutte 1) [A, B, E] 2) [B, E] 3) [C, D, E] 4) [B, D] 5) [B, D] 6) [B, D, E, F, G] 7) A 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) D 12) E 13) C 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) E 19) E 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) E 28) D 29) C 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) A 37) C 38) E 39) B 40) D 41) B 42) A 43) D 44) D 45) B 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) A 52) D 53) E 54) B 55) D 56) E Version 1

57) A 58) D 59) E 60) B 61) C 62) E 63) C 64) A 65) A 66) B 67) E 68) D 69) C 70) A 71) D 72) C 73) D 74) C 75) A 76) D 77) E 78) D 79) D 80) B 81) C 82) B 83) C 84) A 85) E 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) B 89) C 90) B 91) D 92) D 93) C 94) B 95) C 96) B 97) C 98) C 99) A 100) A 101) B 102) D 103) A 104) A 105) C 106) B 107) B 108) A 109) C 110) E 111) C 112) E 113) A 114) B 115) D 116) C Version 1

117) E 118) D 119) A 120) B 121) B 122) D 123) A 124) C 125) B 126) E 127) D 128) D 129) B 130) A 131) D 132) C 133) A 134) B 135) A 136) A 137) D 138) A 139) E 140) C 141) B 142) C 143) D 144) D 145) B 146) C Version 1

147) E 148) A 149) A 150) A 151) Section Break 151.1) B 151.2) E 151.3) D 151.4) C 151.5) A 152) Section Break 152.1) B 152.2) D 152.3) C 152.4) E 152.5) A 153) Section Break 153.1) E 153.2) C 153.3) D 153.4) B 153.5) A 154) Section Break 154.1) B 154.2) C 154.3) E 154.4) A 154.5) D

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CHAPTER 11 1)

Identify the two functional subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system. A) Brain B) Motor division C) Parasympathetic division D) Sensory division E) Spinal cord F) sympathetic division

Identify the phases of an action potential. (Check all that apply.) A) Afterpotential B) Depolarization C) Hyperpolarization D) Repolarization

Identify the characteristics of action potentials. (Check all that apply.)

A) Multiple stimuli can create larger action potentials, and fewer stimuli can create smaller action potentials. B) The strength of the stimulus determines the frequency of the action potentials. C) The strength of the stimulus determines the magnitude of the action potential. D) They are all-or-none E) They are propagated in a non-decremental fashion.

4) Identify the mechanisms by which neuromodulators alter synaptic transmission. (Check all that apply.)

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A) Changing neurotransmitter receptor numbers B) Increasing amounts of neurotransmitter released C) Affecting breakdown of neurotransmitters D) Affecting the removal of neurotransmitters

Identify the functions of the nervous system. (Check all that apply.) A) Controlling muscles and glands B) Controlling protein synthesis C) Integrating information D) Receiving sensory input E) Stimulating muscle growth

6) The nervous system has two subdivisions—the central nervous system and the ____________ nervous system.

7) ____________ are collections of neuron cell bodies located outside of the central nervous system.

Nerve fibers are also called ____________.

____________ are processes that conduct electric signals toward the cell body.

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10) A neuron with several dendrites and a single axon would be called a ____________ neuron.

11)

Most pseudo-unipolar neurons are ____________ neurons.

12)

____________ are glial cells that are macrophages.

13)

Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by ____________ cells.

14) Action potentials are conducted rapidly from one node of Ranvier to the next in a process called ____________ conduction.

15)

The nervous system A) monitors internal and external stimuli. B) transmits information in the form of action potentials. C) interprets or assesses information. D) maintains homeostasis. E) All of the choices are correct.

16)

Which of the following is responsible for problem-solving skills?

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A) Central nervous system B) Peripheral nervous system C) Somatic nervous system D) Autonomic nervous system E) None of the choices are correct.

17)

The central nervous system includes the __________. A) ganglia B) spinal cord C) spinal nerves D) cranial nerves E) sensory receptors

18)

The peripheral nervous system includes the __________. A) brain B) spinal cord C) cranial nerves D) blood-brain barrier E) cerebellum

19)

There are __________ pairs of cranial nerves and __________ pairs of spinal nerves. A) 10; 30 B) 31; 12 C) 12; 31 D) 30; 10 E) 12; 32

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20)

Cell bodies of the peripheral nervous system are located in A) ganglia. B) Schwann cells. C) the motor division. D) the sensory division. E) nerves.

21)

The sensory (afferent) division of the peripheral nervous system A) transmits action potentials to sensory organs. B) conveys action potentials to the CNS. C) stimulates glands to release hormones. D) stimulates muscle contractions. E) does not involve sensory receptors.

22)

The motor (efferent) division of the peripheral nervous system A) is a division of the CNS. B) detects presence of food in the stomach. C) transmits impulses from the CNS to effectors, such as skeletal muscle. D) has nerve cell bodies located in ganglia near the spinal cord and brain. E) detects a stimulus.

23)

The autonomic nervous system

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A) stimulates skeletal muscle contractions. B) has two sets of neurons in a series. C) is involved in problem solving. D) is under voluntary control. E) does not include the central nervous system.

24)

Digestion of food is regulated by the A) sensory division. B) sympathetic division of the ANS. C) parasympathetic division of the ANS. D) somatic nervous system. E) None of the choices are correct.

25)

The central nervous system A) is the site for processing information. B) initiates visual and auditory stimuli. C) consists of 43 pairs of nerves. D) is totally involuntary. E) does not interact with the peripheral nervous system.

26)

Which of the following is mismatched?

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A) Central nervous system – brain B) Autonomic nervous system – sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions C) Peripheral nervous system – spinal nerves D) Somatic nervous system – sensory division of PNS E) Peripheral nervous system – sensory and motor divisions

27)

The junction of a neuron with another cell is a/an __________. A) synapse B) ganglion C) receptor D) effector

28)

The enteric nervous system consists of plexuses within the walls of the __________. A) brain B) spinal cord C) digestive tract D) urinary bladder

29)

Protein synthesis in neurons occurs in __________. A) axons B) dendrites C) cell bodies or soma D) presynaptic terminals E) nodes of Ranvier

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30)

Nissl bodies are __________. A) part of a dendrite B) also called gemmules C) lipid droplets D) areas of rough endoplasmic reticulum E) part of the Golgi apparatus

31)

Dendrites A) are the input part of the neuron. B) conduct action potentials away from the cell body. C) are generally long and unbranched. D) form synapses with the microglia. E) contain the trigger zone.

32)

Axons A) contain the nucleus. B) are numerous extensions from each neuron. C) do not have a trigger zone. D) have a distalportion that branches to form the presynaptic terminals. E) do not have a resting membrane potential.

33)

Axons contain __________.

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A) the trigger zone B) foot processes C) Nissl bodies D) the soma E) the rough endoplasmic reticulum

34)

Synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters and are present in the __________. A) dendrites B) cell body C) axolemma D) presynaptic terminals E) trigger zone

35) A neuron within the central nervous system that carries action potentials from one neuron to another is called a/an ____________. A) motor neuron B) sensory neuron C) afferent neuron D) efferent neuron E) interneuron

36) A neuron that conducts pain sensations to the central nervous system would be classified as a/an __________.

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A) motor neuron B) sensory or afferent neuron C) efferent neuron D) association neuron E) interneuron

37)

The motor neurons responsible for making a fist are __________. A) tripolar B) bipolar C) multipolar D) pseudo-unipolar E) None of the choices are correct.

38)

Neurons that have a single axon and a single dendrite are __________. A) tripolar B) bipolar C) multipolar D) pseudo-unipolar

39)

Neurons in the skin that are responsible for detecting pain are __________. A) apolar B) pseudo-unipolar C) bipolar D) multipolar

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40)

Which of the following statements regarding glial cells is false? A) Glial cells serve as the major supporting tissue in the CNS. B) Glial cells form part of the blood-brain barrier. C) Glial cells produce action potentials for skeletal muscles. D) Glial cells form myelin sheaths around some axons. E) Glial cells produce cerebrospinal fluid.

41)

The blood-brain barrier

A) permits passage of foreign substances from the blood to the neurons. B) prohibits the transport of amino acids and glucose to the neurons. C) prohibits the removal of waste materials from the neurons. D) protects neuronsfrom toxic substances in the blood. E) does not prevent fluctuations in the composition of the blood from affecting the functions of the brain.

42) LouAnn is being treated for a neurological condition with a specific drug that target neurons deep within the brain. Which glial cell must be bypassed by this drug in order for it to be effective? A) Astrocyte B) Microglia C) Oligodendrocyte D) Ependymal cell E) Macrophage

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43) Hydrocephaly is a condition whereby cerebrospinal fluid accumulates around the brain. Which supportive cells continue CSF production despite it backing up in the subarachnoid space? A) Astrocytes B) Microglia C) Oligodendrocytes D) Macrophages E) Ependymal cells

44) Frank has a microbial infection attacking his brain. Which cell type would you expect to proliferate and be most active during this time? A) Astrocytes B) Microglia C) Oligodendrocytes D) Ependymal cells E) Schwann cells

45) Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder in which myelin sheaths in the CNS are destroyed. Which of the following neuroglial cells is being damaged in multiple sclerosis? A) Astrocyte B) Microglia C) Oligodendrocyte D) Ependymal cell E) Schwann cells

46)

Schwann cells differ from oligodendrocytes in which of the following ways?

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A) Schwann cells form myelin; oligodendrocytes do not. B) Oligodendrocytes are only found in the PNS; Schwann cells are only found in the CNS. C) Schwann cells form sheaths around several axons, while oligodendrocytes form sheaths around only one axon. D) Schwann cells forma myelin sheath around a portion of only one axon, while oligodendrocytes cansurround portions of several axons. E) None of the choices are correct.

47)

Which of the following descriptions of glial cells is mismatched? A) Microglia – provide support for the neuron cell body B) Astrocytes – blood-brain barrier C) Oligodendrocytes – form myelin sheaths D) Ependymal cells – produce cerebrospinal fluid E) Ependymal cells – choroid plexus

48)

Which of the following statements concerning myelination is true? A) Unmyelinated axons rest in invaginations of Schwann cells or oligodendrocytes. B) Myelination will not influence the speed of conduction of action potentials. C) The myelin sheath inhibits the flow of electrical charges at nodes. D) The myelin sheath is a protein wrapping. E) The myelin sheath does not electrically insulate the axons from one another.

49)

Gaps or interruptions in the myelin sheath are called __________.

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A) internodes B) tight junctions C) neurofilaments D) nodes of Ranvier E) gap junctions

50)

Which of the following is NOT true about astrocytes? A) They can wall offan injury site to prevent spread of inflammation. B) They can preventtoxic substances from entering brain tissue. C) They can releasechemicals that promote formation of synapses. D) They can aid inthe regeneration of injured neurons.

51)

Which of the following is NOT true of reactive astrocytosis? A) Injury site is blocked off B) Scars limit regeneration C) Causes the spread of inflammation D) Reduces injury to surrounding tissue

52)

Which of the following is NOT a glial cell of the CNS? A) Ependymal cells B) Satellite cells C) Oligodendrocytes D) Astrocytes

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53) What type of neuroglial cells provide support and nutrition to sensory ganglia in the PNS? A) Schwann cells B) Microglia C) Ependymal cells D) Satellite cells

54)

Action potentials are conducted more rapidly when transmission is A) from node to node on a myelinated axon. B) on a small diameter axon. C) on an unmyelinated axon. D) from internode to internode. E) from internode to node on a myelinated axon.

55)

White matter is composed of A) ganglial sheaths. B) bundles of myelinated axons. C) collections of nerve cell bodies. D) bundles containing both myelinated axons and nerve cell bodies. E) collections of unmyelinated axons.

56)

If you cut bundles of axons and their myelin sheaths in the PNS, you cut __________.

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A) ganglia B) nuclei C) nerves D) gray matter E) nerve tracts

57)

Clusters of gray matter deep within the brain are called __________. A) cortices B) nerves C) ganglia D) nuclei

58)

Gray matter on the surface of the brain is called __________. A) the cortex B) a nucleus C) a ganglion D) a tract

59)

The plasma membrane of a neuron is more permeable to K+ because A) of its positive electrical charge. B) there are more leak ion channels for K+ than Na+. C) protein molecules cannot exit through the plasma membrane. D) Ca2+ block Na+ and Cl− channels. E) there are more leak ion channels for Na+ than K+.

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60)

Which of the following statements concerning resting membrane potential is true?

A) The resting plasma membrane is more permeable to Na+ than K+. B) The resting membrane potential never reaches an equilibrium point. C) The resting membrane potential is proportional to the tendency for K+ to diffuse out of the cell. D) Negatively charged Cl− ions are attracted by negative charges in the cell. E) The purpose of the sodium-potassium pump is to create an equilibrium of ion concentrations.

61) Mr. Miller has been hospitalized for the flu. The flu virus increases membrane permeability to K+. You would expect his cells to __________. A) depolarize B) repolarize C) isopolarize D) hyperpolarize E) hypopolarize

62) in

For the resting membrane potential, increasing the Na+ concentration in the ECF results

A) hyperpolarization. B) depolarization. C) hypopolarization. D) little change in membrane potential. E) There is not enough information to determine the results.

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63) A change in the resting membrane potential has the following characteristics: nonpropagated, graded, can summate. This type of change can A) be a local potential. B) be an action potential. C) be a consequence of an increase in the permeability to Na+. D) result in repolarization. E) be a local potential and a consequence of an increase in the permeability to Na+.

64) Which of the following statements accurately describe events that occur as a result of a local potential reaching threshold? A) Activation gates of Na+ channels begin to close. B) Inactivation gates of Na+ channels begin to open. C) A positive feedback cycle develops in which depolarization causes activation gates of + Na channels to open. D) K+ channels begin to close. E) Both "Inactivation gates of Na+ channels begin to open" and "A positive feedback cycle develops in which depolarization causes activation gates of Na+ channels to open" are correct.

65)

Which of the following events will lead to depolarization? A) An increase in K+ in the extracellular fluid B) A decrease in K+ in the extracellular fluid C) An increase in the rate of diffusion of K+ from cells D) An increase in Na+ in the extracellular fluid E) None of the choices are correct.

66)

In hyperpolarization

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A) K+ tend to diffuse out of the cell. B) the plasma membrane's permeability to K+ decreases. C) the resting membrane potential moves closer to zero. D) Na+ enter the cell in large numbers. E) the resting membrane potential becomes more positive.

67)

If the charge difference across the plasma membrane is decreased, A) the potential difference across the plasma membrane does not change. B) the membrane potential is more positive. C) the change is called hyperpolarization. D) negative proteins can leave the cell. E) the membrane potential is more negative.

68)

Which of the following situations occurs in electrically excitable cells? A) When Na+ channels open, K+ channels close. B) The sodium-potassium pump moves Na+ into the cell. C) Depolarization causes voltage-gated Na+ channels to open. D) Ligand-gated Na+ channels are opened by high extracellular Ca2+ levels. E) Proteins tend to diffuse out of the cell.

69) Voltage-gated Na+ channels are sensitive to changes in the extracellular concentration of __________.

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A) K+ B) proteins C) Na+ D) Cl− E) Ca2+

70)

A local potential A) does not occur until threshold. B) transmits information from one cell to another. C) might be a depolarization event but cannot be a hyperpolarization event. D) increases or decreases in direct proportion to the stimulus strength. E) does not alter resting membrane potential.

71) A change in resting membrane potential confined to a small area is called a/an __________ potential. A) local B) action C) summated D) after E) resting membrane

72) Low levels of __________ can have dire consequences on the functioning of neurons because of its role in membrane repolarization.

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A) Na+ B) K+ C) Cl− D) H+

73) Depolarization of the nerve plasma membrane occurs when there is a rapid influx (inflow) of __________. A) K+ B) Cl− C) Ca2+ D) Na+ E) proteins

74)

An action potential A) occurs when the local potential reaches threshold level. B) propagates across the plasma membrane in a decremental fashion. C) has no repolarization phase. D) is an example of negative feedback. E) cannot transmit information.

75)

Which of the following events is NOT a characteristic of an action potential? A) The plasma membrane becomes highly permeable to Na+ and depolarization results. B) As Na+ enter, the inside of the plasma membrane becomes more negative. C) At the peak of depolarization, Na+ channels begin to close and K+ channels open. D) In repolarization, K+ flow out of the cell. E) Action potentials occur according to the all-or-none principle.

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76)

A stimulus either causes an action potential or it doesn't. This is called __________. A) an all-or-none response B) a graded response C) a latent period response D) a relative refractory response E) a local response

77)

In some cells, an afterpotential occurs because A) the Na+ continue to enter the cell after depolarization is finished. B) there is prolonged, elevated permeability to K+ during repolarization. C) the sodium-potassium pump is actively exchanging ions across the membrane. D) the extracellular Na+ concentration is reduced. E) the permeability to Na+ continues longer than necessary.

78)

When repolarization of a neuron is complete, the A) neuron dies. B) neuron regenerates. C) cell no longer has a potential difference across its membrane. D) original polarity of the neuron is restored. E) neuron is no longer excitable.

79)

The opening of more and more Na+ channels during depolarization

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A) is the result of the sodium-potassium exchange pump. B) is an example of a positive feedback cycle. C) is possible only if K+ channels remain closed. D) is the cause of the afterpotential. E) is an example of a negative feedback cycle.

80)

Which of the following statements regarding voltage-gated K+ channels is true? A) These channels have only one gate. B) These channels open more slowly than Na+ channels. C) Once open, these channels remain open until repolarization is complete. D) These channels are specific for K+. E) All of the choices are correct.

81)

During depolarization of the plasma membrane, A) Na+ moves rapidly into the cell. B) K+ moves rapidly out of the cell. C) membrane permeability to Na+ decreases. D) the outside of the cell becomes positively charged relative to the inside. E) Na+ moves rapidly out of the cell.

82) Each voltage-gated Na+ channel has two voltage sensitive gates: an activation gate and an inactivation gate. Which of the following would occur during depolarization?

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A) Activation gates are open; inactivation gates are closed. B) Activation gates are closed; inactivation gates are open. C) Both activation and inactivation gates are open. D) Both activation and inactivation gates are closed. E) None of the choices are correct.

83) If the extracellular fluid around a neuron is replaced with an isotonic saline solution that contains K+ and other solutes at concentrations very close to the extracellular fluid concentrations of a normal cell, the result is A) no resting membrane potential. B) hyperpolarized membrane. C) depolarized membrane. D) a resting membrane potential close to its normal value. E) None of the choices are correct.

84)

During the absolute refractory period, the cell A) generates many local potentials. B) is insensitive to further stimulation. C) responds to even weak stimuli. D) reverses the direction of the action potential. E) is very sensitive.

85)

The absolute refractory period assures

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A) prolonged depolarization during the action potential. B) completion of repolarization before another action potential. C) that no after-potential occurs. D) reversal of the direction of propagation of the action potential. E) that the stimulus is strong enough to elicit a response.

86)

The absolute refractory period ends when A) inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+ channels reopen. B) activation gates of voltage-gated Na+ channels reopen. C) the sodium-potassium pump stops. D) voltage-gated K+ channels open. E) None of the choices are correct.

87) A series of local potentials causes the membrane potential to move to -80 mV. Predict the result. A) Threshold is reached. B) Depolarization occurs. C) The neuron is hyperpolarized. D) Information of frequency is needed to predict the result. E) The neuron releases neurotransmitter in response.

88)

A neuron is receiving a stimulus which gets stronger and stronger. The result is A) amplitude of the action potential increases. B) duration of the action potential increases. C) frequency of occurrence of action potentials increases. D) resonance of action potentials increases. E) height of the action potentials increases.

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89)

The strength of a stimulus is communicated through

A) changes in themagnitude of the action potential. B) the frequency of action potentials. C) the length of timeaction potentials are produced. D) Both "the frequency of action potentials" and "the length of time action potentials are produced" are correct.

90)

Continuous conduction of action potentials means that

A) once an action potential is created, it moves in both directions along the axon. B) the whole axondepolarizes at the same time. C) an action potential in one site generates local currents causing depolarization to threshold at the adjacent site. D) an actionpotential is conducted from one node of Ranvier to the next node.

91)

Saltatory conduction of an action potential means that

A) once one actionpotential is created, it moves down the axon. B) the whole axondepolarizes at the same time. C) one actionpotential stimulates the production of a new action potential at the adjacentsite. D) an actionpotential is conducted from one node of Ranvier to the next node.

92)

The speed of an action potential depends on

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A) whether an axon ismyelinated or not myelinated. B) thickness of themyelin sheath. C) the diameter ofthe axon. D) All of the choicesare correct.

93)

Local hyperpolarization in a synapse is called a/an __________. A) excitatory postsynaptic potential B) resting membrane potential C) inhibitory postsynaptic potential D) gap junction potential E) action potential

94)

Chemical synapses are characterized by A) the release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic terminal. B) connexons thatconnect the pre- and postsynaptic cells. C) the presence of receptors for neurotransmitters on the presynaptic terminal. D) the absence of gap junctions. E) receptors located only on the presynaptic terminal.

95)

Gap junctions are functionally __________ synapses. A) chemical B) electrical C) potential D) intracellular E) neuromuscular

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96)

Arrange the events of synaptic transmission in correct sequence.

(1) Na+ diffuses into the cell and cause a local potential (2) Neurotransmitter binds with receptor on postsynaptic cell (3) Neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft (4) Membrane permeability to Na+ on postsynaptic cell increases (5) Action potential causes release of neurotransmitter A) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 B) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 C) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 D) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 E) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1

97)

The junction between two neurons is a __________. A) ganglia B) synapse C) fascicle D) node of Ranvier E) neuromuscular junction

98)

Neurotransmitters are released from the __________. A) epineurium B) synaptic cleft C) presynaptic terminal D) postsynaptic membrane E) Ca2+ channels

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99)

Damage to a postsynaptic membrane would A) increase neurotransmitter release. B) decrease the release of neurotransmitter. C) increase neurotransmitter production. D) interfere with the ability to respond to neurotransmitter. E) destroy vesicles containing neurotransmitter.

100) Why isn't an action potential transmitted from a postsynaptic membrane to a presynaptic terminal? A) Presynaptic terminals have no acetylcholine receptors. B) Presynaptic neurons do not have a resting membrane potential. C) Acetylcholine can only diffuse in one direction across the synaptic cleft. D) Synaptic vesicles in the postsynaptic membrane are inactive. E) Acetylcholine is destroyed too quickly.

101)

Neurotransmitters A) stimulate presynaptic terminals. B) remain in the synaptic cleft for long periods of time. C) bind irreversibly to the receptor molecules of the postsynaptic membrane. D) cause the production of action potentials in the postsynaptic membrane. E) do not affect membrane channels in the postsynaptic membrane.

102)

A neurotransmitter is released at a synapse. Which of the following occurs last?

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A) Calcium ions enter the presynaptic terminal. B) Synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter by exocytosis. C) An action potential is produced in the postsynaptic membrane. D) Neurotransmitter flows rapidly across the synaptic cleft. E) Neurotransmitter binds with the receptor on the postsynaptic membrane.

103)

Rapid removal or destruction of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft A) may affect the ability of the postsynaptic membrane to generate action potentials. B) generates local potentials in the presynaptic terminal. C) is necessary for synaptic transmission. D) may lead to action potentials. E) may stop exocytosis.

104)

Monamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO inhibitors) A) prevent synaptic transmission. B) enhance the breakdown of norepinephrine. C) enhance the binding of norepinephrine to its receptors. D) prevent the release of norepinephrine by the presynaptic terminal. E) have no effect on the action of norepinephrine.

105)

Receptor molecules in synapses A) tend to concentrate on presynaptic terminals. B) bind irreversibly with neurotransmitter. C) have a high degree of specificity. D) serve as channel proteins. E) can bind to any molecule in the synapse.

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106)

Receptor molecules A) are nonspecific. B) are always lipids. C) attach to the synaptic cleft. D) determine whether a neurotransmitter will be excitatory or inhibitory. E) are not attached to ligand-gated channels.

107)

A neuromodulator

A) acts as a neurotransmitter. B) inactivates neurotransmitters. C) is a receptor site for a neurotransmitter. D) has no influence on the amount of neurotransmitter released. E) is a substance released from neurons that influences the sensitivity of neurons to neurotransmitters.

108) When a neurotransmitter binds to its receptor and increases the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane to Na+, A) the membrane will be hyperpolarized. B) more Cl− will also diffuse into the cell. C) an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) will result. D) the membrane will become impermeable to K+. E) Na+ diffuses out of the cell.

109) The same neurotransmitter binds to a postsynaptic cell but produces a variety of different effects. What does this mean?

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A) The postsynaptic cell is expressing different types of receptors for the same neurotransmitter. B) The strength of the neurotransmitter varies. C) The amount of neurotransmitter released produces varying effects. D) The size of the postsynaptic cell makes a difference in neurotransmitter effects. E) The neuron must be dying.

110)

The function of acetylcholinesterase is to A) open voltage-gated Na+ channels. B) break down acetylcholine in the synapse. C) produce an IPSP onthe postsynaptic membrane. D) metabolizenorepinephrine.

111)

Action potentials at a chemical synapse A) travel from presynaptic terminal to presynaptic membrane. B) travel frompostsynaptic membrane to presynaptic terminal. C) travel back andforth from presynaptic terminal to postsynaptic membrane. D) travel from presynaptic terminal to postsynaptic membrane. E) stop at the presynaptic terminal and are blocked on the postsynaptic membrane.

112)

Which ion is necessary for the release of neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles? A) Cl− B) Na+ C) K+ D) Ca2+

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113)

Which neurotransmitter is released at neuromuscular junctions? A) Serotonin B) Acetylcholine C) Dopamine D) Glutamate

114)

Which inhibitory neurotransmitter is blocked in strychnine poisoning? A) Glycine B) Acetylcholine C) Glutamate D) Adenosine

115) Viagra is used to treat erectile dysfunction by prolonging the effects of __________ on blood vessels. A) substance P B) dopamine C) GABA D) nitric oxide(NO)

116) A decrease in the number of voltage-gated Ca2+ ion channels in the presynaptic terminal would

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A) enhance transmission across the synapse. B) reduce or inhibit transmission across the synapse. C) have no effect on transmission across the synapse. D) alter receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. E) increase exocytosis.

117)

A person who has seizures might have a deficit of which of the following? A) GABA B) Dopamine C) Glutamate D) Serotonin E) Histamine

118)

In an EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential), there is a A) net movement of Na+ out of the cells. B) net movement of Cl− into the cells. C) decrease in action potential amplitude. D) local hyperpolarization. E) local depolarization.

119)

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) can result from the __________. A) influx of Ca2+ B) influx of Na+ C) influx of Cl− D) outflow of K+ E) Both "influx of Cl− and "outflow of K+" are correct.

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120) Enkephalins produce presynaptic inhibition in neurons transmitting pain signals. Increased levels of enkephalins will A) increase awareness of pain. B) decrease awareness of pain. C) increase amount of pain. D) decrease amount of pain. E) have no effect on awareness or amount of pain.

121) A local anesthetic such as Novocaine decreases membrane permeability to Na+. The use of this anesthetic will A) block sensory input into the CNS. B) enhance the development of EPSPs. C) cause membrane potential to move closer to threshold. D) cause Cl− to enter cells instead of Na+. E) depolarize the cell.

122)

An IPSP is inhibitory because it A) changes the threshold of the neuron. B) hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane. C) preventsCa2+ entry into the presynaptic terminal. D) reduces the amount of neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic terminal. E) depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane.

123) When two action potentials arrive simultaneously at two different presynaptic terminals that synapse with the same postsynaptic neuron,

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A) the direction of the action potential is reversed. B) temporal summation occurs. C) spatial summation occurs. D) hyperpolarization occurs. E) threshold is never reached.

124) If five action potentials arrive at the same synapse in very close succession, which of the following would occur? A) The direction of the action potential is reversed. B) Temporal summation occurs. C) Spatial summation occurs. D) Hyperpolarization occurs. E) Depolarization always occurs.

125) Suppose both excitatory and inhibitory neurons synapse with a single postsynaptic neuron. What determines if an action potential is initiated in the postsynaptic neuron? A) The kind of neuron involved B) The size of the neuron involved C) Whether the neuron is myelinated or non-myelinated D) The number of EPSPs in relation to the number of IPSPs E) This situation is not possible in humans.

126) When two or more presynaptic neurons synapse with a single postsynaptic neuron in the CNS, a/an __________ pathway is formed.

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A) convergent B) divergent C) reverberating D) somatic E) sensory

127) Sensory neurons carrying action potentials from pain receptors synapse within the spinal cord with interneurons. These interneurons synapse with motor neurons leading back to an effector and ascending neurons that carry action potentials toward the brain. This is an example of a/an __________ pathway. A) convergent B) divergent C) reverberating D) sensory E) bifurcated

128)

Neurons arranged in a circular pathway form __________. A) neuromotor junctions B) temporal circuits C) reverberating circuits D) spatial pathways

129)

Identify the statement that best differentiates gray matter and white matter.

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A) Gray matter consists of cell bodies and dendrites, whereas white matter consists mostly of myelinated axons. B) Gray matter consists of all parts of neurons, and white matter is mostly glial cells. C) Gray matter consists of bundles of axons, and white matter consists of groups of cell bodies and dendrites.

130) The gray matter of the cerebrum is composed of neuron cell bodies and makes up both the __________ and the __________. A) cortex; deep cerebral nuclei B) cortex; white matter C) cerebral tracts; cortex

131) Nervous tissue of the CNS that is composed primarily of myelinated axons is often referred to as __________ matter. A) white B) gray C) dark D) light

132) In order for local potentials to trigger an action potential, the membrane must reach a level called the __________. A) threshold B) resting membrane potential C) spike potential D) maximum potential

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133) Identify the correct sequence of the structures as they are involved in activity at a chemical synapse. A) Postsynaptic membrane; synaptic cleft; presynaptic terminal B) Presynaptic terminal; synaptic cleft; postsynaptic membrane C) Synaptic cleft; presynaptic terminal; postsynaptic membrane D) Presynaptic terminal; postsynaptic membrane; synaptic cleft

134) Synapses in which gap junctions allow ions to diffuse quickly from cell to cell are called __________ synapses. A) electrical B) chemical

135) Compounds classified as __________ alter synaptic transmission by changing neurotransmitter receptor numbers or affecting the breakdown and/or removal of neurotransmitter. A) neuromodulators B) inhibitory neurotrasnmitters C) excitatory neurotransmitters D) neurohormones

136) When a neuron releases a neuromodulator that __________ the release of neurotransmitters from another neuron, this is called presynaptic facilitation. A) increases B) decreases

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137) The respiratory center of the brain (taking into account input from chemoreceptors, pulmonary stretch receptors, and higher centers of the brain to determine respiratory output) is an example of a __________ circuit. A) converging B) diverging C) parallel after-discharge D) reverberating

138) Which type of circuit is associated with complex neuronal processes, such as solving mathematical equations? A) Converging B) Diverging C) Parallel after-discharge D) Reverberating

139) Identify the type of synapse that includes a presynaptic cell, synaptic cleft, and postsynaptic cell. A) Chemical B) Electrical C) Direct D) Indirect E) Neurotransmitter

140) Groups of related nerve cell bodies located outside of the central nervous system are called __________.

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A) ganglia B) plexus C) tracts D) nerves

141)

Most metabolic and regulatory functions in a neuron happen where? A) The axon B) The cell body or soma C) The dendrites D) The axonhillock E) The Schwanncell

142)

A myelin sheath is composed primarily of __________. A) lipids B) carbohydrates C) glycoproteins D) proteins E) polysaccharides

143) Which of the following will cause the plasma membrane to hyperpolarize when at its resting membrane potential? A) An inflow of Na+ B) An inflow of K+ C) An inflow of Ca2+ D) An inflow of Cl− E) An outflow of Cl−

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144)

An inhibitory local potential causes which of the following? A) Depolarizationof the plasma membrane B) Hyperpolarizationof the plasma membrane C) Repolarization ofthe plasma membrane D) Neutralizationof the plasma membrane E) Driftingof the membrane potential towards the resting membrane potential

145)

What occurs during hyperpolarization of a neuron plasma membrane? A) Sodium ions are entering the cells. B) Sodium ions are leaving the cell. C) Potassium ions are entering the cell. D) Potassium ions are leaving the cell. E) Both sodium and potassium ions are leaving the cell.

146) When the voltage of a plasma membrane shifts from +35 mV towards 0 mV, the neuron is __________. A) depolarizing B) repolarizing C) hyperpolarizing D) reaching thethreshold E) exiting thethreshold

147)

All of the following are typical characteristics of neurotransmitters except

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A) they are synthesized by a presynaptic neuron. B) they are released in response to stimulation. C) they are released into the bloodstream before reaching the postsynaptic cell. D) they bind to specific receptors on the postsynaptic cell. E) they alter the physiology of the postsynaptic cell.

148)

Which of these happens first in a cholinergic synaptic transmission? A) Acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft. B) A postsynaptic potential is produced. C) Sodium ions enter the postsynaptic cell. D) The synaptic vesicles release acetylcholine. E) Acetylcholine binds to ligand-gated ion channels.

149) Which of these does not contribute to the cessation of the signal in a synaptic transmission? A) Synaptic vesiclessecrete neurotransmitter by exocytosis. B) Neurotransmitterescapes from the synapse into the nearby extracellular fluid. C) Neurotransmittersare no longer released. D) The axon terminal reabsorbs some neurotransmitters by endocytosis. E) Enzymes in thepostsynaptic cell break down some neurotransmitters.

150)

Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) are associated with which of the following?

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A) Depolarization of the plasma membrane B) Repolarization of the plasma membrane C) Hyperpolarization of the plasma membrane D) No change in the membrane potential E) No change of thethreshold

151)

Which of these is an example of an EPSP in a typical neuron? A) A voltage change from 0 mV to +0.35 mV B) A voltage changefrom -70 mV to -69.5 mV C) A voltage changefrom -69.5 mV to -70 mV D) A voltage changefrom +35 mV to 0 mV E) A voltage changefrom -70 mV to -70.5 mV

152)

Which type of neural circuit is best for producing a prolonged output? A) A convergingcircuit B) A divergingcircuit C) A reverberatingcircuit D) A presynapticpool E) An autonomicpool

153) If a neuron is prevented from sending a neurotransmitter across a synapse to another cell, which neuron property is being inhibited? A) Secretion B) Excitability C) Conductivity D) Permeability

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154)

Which of the following statements is not true of reverberating circuits?

A) The number of action potentials decreases the farther along the circuit due to inhibitor effects of collateral axons. B) The number of action potentials in the circuit are increased due to the positive feedback of neurons synapsing with other neurons that occur earlier in the circuit. C) The effect of reverberating circuits is longer lasting due to the continuous generation of action potentials. D) All of the choices are correct.

155)

Which of the following analogies best represents a parallel after-discharge circuit?

A) An instructor instructs all students to solve the same problem. B) An instructor divides the class into four groups and assigns each group a different problem to solve.

156) A substance is found to have the same effect as acetylcholinesterase, but acts at a much faster rate. What effect would this substance have at a cholinergic synapse? A) It would greatly reduce synaptic communication by depleting ACh levels in the synaptic cleft. B) It would enhance synaptic communication by concentrating ACh in the synaptic cleft. C) It reduce synaptic communication by destroying ACh receptors on the post-synaptic membrane. D) It would enhance synaptic communication by increasing the post-synaptic cells' sensitivity to ACh.

157) Theresa has been diagnosed with a disease that demyelinates the somatic motor neurons. This disease is destroying the __________ associated with neurons that control __________. Version 1

A) Schwann cells; cardiac muscle B) Schwann cells; skeletal muscle C) oligodendrocytes; skeletal muscle D) oligodendrocytes; cardiac muscle

158) Which type of neuronal pathway allows for a stimulus to be transmitted to the most number of cells? A) Divergent B) Convergent C) Reverberating D) Both "Convergent" and "Reverberating" are correct.

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159)

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159.1)

Identify structure "A" on the neuron.

A) Schwann cell B) Node of Ranvier C) Neuron cell body (soma) D) Dendrites E) Axon

159.2)

Identify structure "B" on the neuron.

A) Schwann cell B) Node of Ranvier C) Neuron cell body (soma) D) Dendrites E) Axon

159.3)

Identify structure "C" on the neuron.

A) Schwann cell B) Node of Ranvier C) Neuron cell body (soma) D) Dendrites E) Axon

159.4)

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Identify structure "D" on the neuron.

A) Schwann cell B) Node of Ranvier C) Neuron cell body (soma) D) Dendrites E) Axon

159.5)

Identify structure "E" on the neuron.

A) Schwann cell B) Node of Ranvier C) Neuron cell body (soma) D) Dendrites E) Axon

160) Version 1

160.1) The figure illustrates changes in the membrane potential during an action potential. What does "A" represent? A) Repolarization B) Depolarization C) Local potential D) Threshold E) Afterpotential

160.2) The figure illustrates changes in the membrane potential during an action potential. What does "B" represent? A) Repolarization B) Depolarization C) Local potential D) Threshold E) Afterpotential

160.3) The figure illustrates changes in the membrane potential during an action potential. What does "C" represent? A) Repolarization B) Depolarization C) Local potential D) Threshold E) Afterpotential

160.4) The figure illustrates changes in the membrane potential during an action potential. What does "D" represent?

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A) Repolarization B) Depolarization C) Local potential D) Threshold E) Afterpotential

160.5) The figure illustrates changes in the membrane potential during an action potential. What does "E" represent? A) Repolarization B) Depolarization C) Local potential D) Threshold E) Afterpotential

161) Version 1

161.1)

The figure illustrates events at a chemical synapse. What does "A" represent?

A) Postsynaptic membrane B) Synaptic cleft C) Synaptic vesicle D) Voltage-gated Ca2+ channel E) Presynaptic terminal

161.2)

The figure illustrates events at a chemical synapse. What does "B" represent?

A) Postsynaptic membrane B) Synaptic cleft C) Synaptic vesicle D) Voltage-gated Ca2+ channel E) Presynaptic terminal

161.3)

The figure illustrates events at a chemical synapse. What does "C" represent?

A) Postsynaptic membrane B) Synaptic cleft C) Synaptic vesicle D) Voltage-gated Ca2+ channel E) Presynaptic terminal

161.4)

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The figure is a process figure of the chemical synapse. What does "D" represent?

A) Postsynaptic membrane B) Synaptic cleft C) Synaptic vesicle D) Voltage-gated Ca2+ channel E) Presynaptic terminal

161.5)

The figure is a process figure of the chemical synapse. What does "E" represent?

A) Postsynaptic membrane B) Synaptic cleft C) Synaptic vesicle D) Voltage-gated Ca2+ channel E) Presynaptic terminal

162)

Match the following concerning concentration differences across the plasma membrane.

A. Concentration of K+ B. Concentration of Na+ and Cl− C. Negatively charged proteins D. Sodium-potassium pump E. Plasma membrane is more permeable to this ion because of leak ion channels

162.1)

Large molecules trapped inside cell

162.2)

Requires ATP

162.3)

Higher concentration inside cell

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163)

162.4)

Higher concentration outside cell

162.5)

K+

Match the term with the correct definition.

A. Small change in the resting membrane potential confined to a small area B. Charge difference across the plasma membrane when the cell is in an unstimulated state C. Larger change in resting membrane potential that spreads over entire surface of a cell D. Membrane becomes more positive when Na+ diffuse into cell E. Return to the resting membrane potential

163.1)

Depolarization

163.2)

Resting membrane potential

163.3)

Action potential

163.4)

Repolarization

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163.5)

164)

Local potential

Match the glial cell with its function.

A. Influence function of blood–brain barrier B. Macrophages in CNS C. Produce cerebrospinal fluid D. Form myelin sheath around axons in CNS E. Form myelin sheath around part of the axon in the PNS

165)

164.1)

Microglia

164.2)

Schwann cell

164.3)

Oligodendrocyte

164.4)

Astrocytes

164.5)

Ependymal cells

Gray matter has little myelination, whereas white matter has abundant myelination.

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⊚ ⊚

166)

true false

Gray matter consists of bundles of myelinated axons. ⊚ ⊚

true false

167) True or False? The nervous system and the endocrine system are the major control systems of the body. ⊚ true ⊚ false

168) True or False? In a myelinated fiber, only the initial segment in the trigger zone has voltage-regulated channels. ⊚ ⊚

169)

true false

Any two EPSPs will override one IPSP. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chapter 11_13e_ VanPutte 1) [B, D] 2) [B, C, D] 3) [B, D, E] 4) [A, C, D] 5) [A, C, D] 6) peripheral 7) Ganglia 8) axons 9) Dendrites 10) multipolar 11) sensory 12) Microglia 13) ependymal 14) saltatory 15) E 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) A 28) C 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) D 35) E 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) E 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) D 51) C 52) B 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) D 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) D 63) E 64) C 65) A 66) A 67) B 68) C 69) E 70) D 71) A 72) B 73) D 74) A 75) B 76) A 77) B 78) D 79) B 80) E 81) A 82) C 83) D 84) B 85) B 86) A Version 1

87) C 88) C 89) D 90) C 91) D 92) D 93) C 94) A 95) B 96) E 97) B 98) C 99) D 100) A 101) D 102) C 103) A 104) C 105) C 106) D 107) E 108) C 109) A 110) B 111) D 112) D 113) B 114) A 115) D 116) B Version 1

117) A 118) E 119) E 120) B 121) A 122) B 123) C 124) B 125) D 126) A 127) B 128) C 129) A 130) A 131) A 132) A 133) B 134) A 135) A 136) A 137) A 138) C 139) A 140) A 141) B 142) A 143) D 144) B 145) D 146) B Version 1

147) C 148) D 149) A 150) C 151) B 152) C 153) A 154) A 155) A 156) A 157) B 158) A 159) Section Break 159.1) D 159.2) C 159.3) E 159.4) A 159.5) B 160) Section Break 160.1) C 160.2) B 160.3) A 160.4) D 160.5) E 161) Section Break 161.1) D 161.2) C 161.3) E 161.4) B 161.5) A Version 1

162) Section Break 162.1) C 162.2) D 162.3) A 162.4) B 162.5) E 163) Section Break 163.1) D 163.2) B 163.3) C 163.4) E 163.5) A 164) Section Break 164.1) B 164.2) E 164.3) D 164.4) A 164.5) C 165) TRUE 166) FALSE 167) TRUE 168) FALSE 169) FALSE

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CHAPTER 12 1)

Nerves are held together by __________.

Cutaneous sensory distribution of a spinal nerve can be mapped as a __________.

The largest nerve in the body is the __________ nerve.

4) Branches of the pudendal nerve are anesthetized during childbirth before the doctor performs a/an __________.

5) The __________ is the basicfunctional unit of the nervous system and is capable of receiving a stimulus and producing a response.

6) There are __________ enlargements of the spinal cord where nerves supplying the extremities enter and leave. A) two B) three C) four D) five E) six

The spinal cord

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A) controls the reticular activating system. B) stores reflexive memory. C) forms memory engrams. D) links the peripheral nervous system to the brain. E) is characterized by conscious activity.

The spinal cord begins at the __________. A) cerebellum B) medulla oblongata C) foramen magnum D) conus medullaris E) 1st cervical vertebrae

The conus medullaris A) anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx. B) is a tapered, cone like region immediately inferior to the lumbar enlargement. C) marks the exit of nerves to the upper extremity. D) is located adjacent to the foramen magnum. E) is inferior to the cauda equina.

10)

The spinal cord ends at the __________. A) sacrum B) coccyx C) 5th lumbar vertebrae D) 2nd lumbar vertebrae

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11)

The thickest of the meninges is the __________. A) pia mater B) arachnoid mater C) subdural space D) subarachnoid space E) dura mater

12)

The sac surrounding the spinal cord is the __________. A) dural sac B) meningeal sac C) thecal sac D) epidural sac

13)

The middle, thin, spider-like meninx is the __________. A) dura mater B) pia mater C) ecto mater D) arachnoid mater

14) What space, found between the vertebral wall and the dura mater, is the area for injecting anesthesia for childbirth?

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A) Subarachnoid space B) Subdural space C) Epidural space D) Epipial space

15) During a spinal tap, cerebrospinal fluid is obtained from which of the following locations? A) Dural sinus B) Epidural space C) Subarachnoid space D) Subdural space E) Sagittal sinus

16)

Which structure anchors the thecal sac and conus medullaris to the coccyx? A) Filum terminale B) Denticulate ligaments C) Pia mater D) Cauda equina

17)

Where is cerebrospinal fluid found around the spinal cord? A) Subdural space B) Epidural space C) Thecal sac D) Subarachnoid space

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18)

Which of the following statements concerning structures of the spinal cord is false?

A) The dorsal root of the spinal cord conveys sensory (afferent) nerve impulses to the spinal cord. B) The posterior horn of the cord contains the cell bodies of motor neurons. C) The ventral rootis formed by the axons of neurons in the lateral and anterior horns. D) The dorsal and ventral roots unite to form spinal nerves. E) The ventral root of the spinal cord conveys motor (efferent) nerve impulses away from the spinal cord.

19)

The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains __________. A) only sensory fibers B) only motor fibers C) only afferent fibers D) both sensory and motor fibers E) a ganglion

20)

The sensory root of a spinal nerve is also referred to as __________ root. A) anterior B) dorsal C) efferent D) ventral E) lateral

21)

The motor root of a spinal nerve is also referred to as the __________ root.

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A) afferent B) dorsal C) posterior D) ventral E) sensory

22)

The cross-sectional view of the spinal cord reveals white matter on the A) inside, graymatter on the outside, and a dorsal motor root. B) outside, graymatter on the inside, and a ventral motor root. C) inside, graymatter on the outside, and a dorsal sensory root. D) outside, graymatter on the inside, and a ventral sensory root.

23)

In the spinal cord, white matter is organized into A) horns and the graymatter into columns. B) horns and the graymatter into roots. C) columns and thegray matter into horns. D) columns and thegray matter into tracts.

24)

Which structure makes the dorsal root different from the ventral root? A) The dorsal roothas a ganglion. B) The dorsal roothas a tract. C) The dorsal roothas a nucleus. D) The dorsal rootappears the same as the ventral root.

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25)

What is found in the dorsal root ganglion? A) The cell bodies of multipolar motor neurons B) The cell bodies of pseudo-unipolar sensory neurons C) The cell bodies of multipolar interneurons D) The cell bodies of bipolar sensory neurons

26)

What is found in the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord? A) The cell bodies of somatic motor neurons B) The cell bodies of sensory neurons C) The cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons D) The cell bodies of somatic sensory neurons

27)

Structurally, the simplest reflex is the __________. A) stretch reflex B) Golgi tendon reflex C) reciprocal reflex D) alternating reflex E) withdrawal reflex

28)

Reflex arcs A) are capable of receiving a stimulus and yielding a response. B) are the basic structural units of the nervous system. C) occur primarily in the cerebral cortex of the brain. D) involve inhibitory neurons. E) do not involve the spinal cord.

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29) Which portion of a reflex arc is most likely to be locatedentirely within the central nervous system? A) Sensory neuron B) Motor neuron C) Effector D) Interneuron E) Sensory receptor

30)

Reflexes A) are homeostatic. B) are not homeostatic. C) are voluntaryconscious responses to a stimulus. D) are integrated in the spinal cord, but not the brain. E) are integrated in the brain, but not the spinal cord.

31)

Reflexes function in A) removing the body from painful stimuli. B) keeping the body from falling. C) maintaining blood pressure. D) maintaining blood CO2 levels. E) All of the choices are correct.

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32) Place the following parts of a reflex arc in the correct order beginning with the sensory receptor. (1) Motor neuron (2) Interneuron (3) Effector (4) Sensory neuron (5) Sensory receptor A) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 C) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 D) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 E) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3

33)

The sensory receptor of the stretch reflex is the __________. A) Golgi tendon organ B) muscle spindle C) dorsal root ganglion D) collateral axon E) alpha motor neurons

34)

Stretch reflexes A) are learned voluntary responses. B) aid inmaintaining proper posture. C) prevent muscles from being damaged by excessive tension. D) cause the removal of limbs from painful stimuli. E) prevent falling.

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35)

Which of the following events in a stretch reflex occurs last? A) Alpha motor neurons transmit action potentials to muscle causing contraction. B) Muscle spindle detects stretch of muscle. C) Afferent neurons conduct action potentials to the spinal cord. D) Afferent neurons synapse with alpha motor neurons. E) Muscle is stretched.

36)

Muscle spindles A) are innervated by gamma motor neurons. B) originate in the spinal cord. C) are specialized nerve cells. D) are found encapsulated in nerve endings. E) are innervated by alpha motor neurons.

37) Muscles and glands that are capable of producing a response when stimulated by motor neurons are called __________. A) aponeuroses B) effectors C) neuromodulators D) receptors E) sensory organs

38)

The knee-jerk reflex involves which of the following?

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A) Sensory and motor neurons B) Sensory neuron, interneuron, and motor neuron C) Sensory neuron, motor neuron, and inhibitory interneurons D) Sensory neuron and interneuron E) The brain

39)

Gamma motor neurons A) are located in tendons. B) transmit action potentials to skeletal muscle. C) regulate the sensitivity of the muscle spindle. D) enable the brain to perceive that a muscle has been stretched. E) innervate the whole muscle.

40) The muscles of the back contract to straighten so that you sit at a more erect posture and subsequently the muscles are suddenly stretched as you nod off. Which of the following best represents the sequence of events when you start to nod off? (1) Muscles of the back are stretched. (2) The muscle spindle is stretched. (3) Action potentials in sensory neurons of the muscle spindles increase. (4) Action potentials in alpha motor neurons of skeletal muscle fibers increase. (5) Skeletal muscle of the back contract. A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 D) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 E) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1

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41) Doctor Johansson wants to test a patient's reflexes by briskly striking the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer. Which reflex is Dr. Johansson testing? A) Golgi tendon reflex B) Withdrawal reflex C) Knee-jerk reflex D) Crossed extensor reflex E) Reciprocal innervation

42)

The reflex that prevents excessive tension in a muscle is the __________ reflex. A) stretch B) withdrawal C) Golgi tendon D) reciprocal E) crossed extensor

43) Sam is curling very heavy weights and suddenly drops them. Which reflex forced this action by Sam to prevent tendon damage? A) Muscle spindle reflex B) Golgi tendon reflex C) Gamma motor reflex D) Withdrawal reflex E) Alpha motor neuron reflex

44) Stimulation of the Golgi tendon organs result in which of the following changes in the reflex arc?

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A) Stimulation of a stimulatory interneuron B) Stimulation of an inhibitory neuron C) Decreased action potentials in alpha motor neurons D) Contraction of skeletal muscle fibers E) Both "stimulation of an inhibitory neuron" and "decreased action potentials in alpha motor neurons" are correct.

45) A reflex that protects limbs by removing them from painful stimuli is the __________ reflex. A) stretch B) crossed extensor C) Golgi tendon D) alternating E) withdrawal

46)

Reciprocal innervation A) is associated with the Golgi tendon reflex. B) stimulates antagonistic muscles. C) results in reduced resistance to the reflex. D) reinforces the withdrawal reflex. E) inhibits thestretch reflex.

47)

Initiating the withdrawal reflex in both legs at the same time would cause one to

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A) maintain posture longer. B) fall. C) decrease muscle tension. D) develop resistance in one limb and reduce resistance in the other. E) hop.

48)

Because the stretch reflexes can be traced back along certain spinal nerve routes,

A) they are not used in diagnosis of brain potential brain damage. B) they are only useful for diagnosis if there has been damage to the spinal cord. C) they are helpful when determining at what level of the spinal cord damage may have occurred. D) they are only helpful when diagnosing problems in the extremities. E) they are only helpful if the patient is conscious.

49) to

The adaptive significance of the crossed extensor reflex when a person steps on a tack is

A) remove the foot from the tack. B) increase the rate at which withdrawal of the limb occurs. C) slow the rate of removal of the foot from the tack. D) reduce the pain sensations. E) prevent the person from falling down.

50)

The endoneurium

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A) surrounds nerve cell bodies. B) surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells. C) bundles axons into fascicles. D) bundles fascicles into nerves. E) surrounds nerve tracts in the spinal cord.

51)

The epineurium A) surrounds nerve cell bodies. B) surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells. C) bundles axons into fascicles. D) bundles fascicles into nerves. E) bundles fascicles into axons.

52)

The perineurium A) surrounds nerve cell bodies. B) surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells. C) bundles axons into fascicles. D) bundles fascicles into nerves. E) bundles fascicles into axons.

53)

Which of the following statements concerning the structure of spinal nerves is true? A) The ventral root contains motor or efferent fibers. B) The ventral root has a prominent root ganglion. C) Rootlets from the surface of the spinal cord form the dorsal and ventral rami. D) Each spinal nerve is formed by the union of a cranial nerve and a spinal nerve. E) Spinal nerves do not have specific cutaneous distributions.

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54) Which of the following combinations indicates the correct distribution of spinal nerve pairs? A) 7 cervical - 12 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal B) 7 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 6 sacral - 1 coccygeal C) 8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 4 sacral - 1 coccygeal D) 8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal E) 7 cervical - 13 thoracic - 6 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal

55) A collapsed intervertebral foramen could affect all of the following spinal nerves EXCEPT __________. A) C2-C8 B) T1-T12 C) L1-L5 D) C1

56)

There are ________ cervical spinal nerves. A) eight B) twelve C) six D) five E) fourteen

57) A man was in an accident during which his spinal cord was severed between C6 and C7. Which of the following would NOT be a consequence of this injury?

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A) Loss of sensation in the trunk below the shoulders, the lower limbs, and portions of the arms B) Loss of use of the phrenic nerves and paralysis of the diaphragm C) Loss of movement in the lower limbs D) Loss of the use of the intercostals nerves, and breathing would be affected because the intercostals muscles would be paralyzed E) Loss of touch sensation on the lower lumbar region.

58)

Damage to which of these nerves would be most life-threatening? A) Median nerves B) Phrenic nerves C) Lumbar nerves D) Sciatic nerves E) Radial nerves

59)

The brachial plexus supplies nerves that function to contract which of the following? A) The diaphragm B) Intercostal muscles C) Muscles of the arm and forearm D) Muscles of the lower limb E) Abdominal muscles

60)

Dermatomal maps are important clinically because they

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A) can be used to check for motor function. B) locate the position of cranial nerves. C) can be used to help locate nerve damage. D) indicate what muscles are innervated by each spinal nerve. E) can be used to detect cranial nerve damage.

61)

The cutaneous sensory distribution of a spinal nerve can be mapped as a __________. A) dermatome B) plexitome C) microtome D) myotome E) superdome

62)

Ventral rami of some spinal nerves join with each other to form a __________. A) ganglion B) dermatome C) cord D) plexus E) nerve

63) If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, the regions innervated by that spinal nerve would experience complete loss of __________.

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A) sensation B) movement C) sensation and movement D) pain E) None of the choices are correct.

64) The branch of a spinal nerve that innervates deep muscles on the dorsal thorax is the __________. A) ramus communicans B) lateral ramus C) dorsal ramus D) ventral ramus E) medial ramus

65)

Intercostal nerves are formed from the A) thoracic plexus. B) ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves. C) dorsal rami of thoracic spinal nerves. D) rami communicans of the thoracic spinal nerves. E) cervical plexus.

66) Which of the following nerves is a branch of both the cervical plexus and the brachial plexus?

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A) Axillary B) Femoral C) Phrenic D) Sciatic E) Splanchnic

67)

Damage to the phrenic nerve would result in A) the loss of motor activity in the arms. B) an increased heart rate. C) an inability to swallow. D) difficulty breathing. E) a decreased heart rate.

68)

Spinal nerves C5-T1 make up the __________ plexus. A) sacral B) lumbar C) brachial D) cervical E) radial

69)

Which of the following nerves is part of the brachial plexus? A) Peroneal B) Ansa cervicalis C) Sciatic D) Musculocutaneous E) Femoral

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70)

Improper use of crutches could cause compression of the __________ nerve. A) axillary B) radial C) musculocutaneous D) ulnar E) median

71) When a person hits their "funny bone," they cause temporary damage to the __________ nerve. A) axillary B) radial C) musculocutaneous D) ulnar E) median

72) An injury to the wrist that results in edema in the carpal tunnel would compress the __________ nerve. A) axillary B) radial C) musculocutaneous D) ulnar E) median

73) Using the biceps brachii to flex the forearm requires innervation by the __________ nerve.

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A) radial B) musculocutaneous C) ulnar D) median E) axillary

74)

When someone taps you on your shoulder, they stimulate the __________ nerve. A) axillary B) brachial C) radial D) musculocutaneous E) ulnar

75) If you pinch your index finger in a door, pain sensations are carried via the __________ nerve. A) radial B) median C) axillary D) musculocutaneous E) ulnar

76)

Which of the following nerves is associated with the lumbosacral plexus?

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A) Phrenic B) Median C) Musculocutaneous D) Ulnar E) Obturator

77) Spinal nerves exiting the spinal cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the __________ plexus. A) lumbar B) femoral C) sacral D) pelvic E) brachial

78)

The sciatic nerve is composed of the A) femoral nerve and the tibial nerve. B) tibial nerve and the common fibular nerve. C) femoral nerve and the obturator nerve. D) common fibular nerve and the pudendal nerve. E) superior gluteal and inferior gluteal.

79)

Which nerve is involved when a dancer points his/her toes?

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A) Tibial B) Femoral C) Obturator D) Pudendal E) Common fibular (peroneal)

80)

The gastrocnemius muscle is most likely to be innervated by the __________ nerve. A) obturator B) common fibular (peroneal) C) tibial D) femoral E) median

81) When a person sits on a hard surface for a period of time, his foot or leg may "go to sleep." This sensation is the result of compressing the __________ nerve. A) femoral B) sciatic C) obturator D) pudendal E) ulnar

82)

Adduction of the thigh involves the __________ nerve.

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A) peroneal B) femoral C) obturator D) pudendal E) tibial

83) If a person fell down the steps and then developed pain down his anterior thigh into the knee, which of the following spinal nerves was probably damaged? A) Obturator B) Femoral C) Tibial D) Common fibular (peroneal) E) Pudendal

84) Branches of the __________ nerve are anesthetized before a doctor performs an episiotomy for childbirth. A) genitofemoral B) gluteal C) cutaneous femoral D) pudendal E) common fibular (peroneal)

85)

Axillary nerve

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A) Provides motor innervation to the biceps brachii B) Innervates two forearm muscles plus most of the intrinsic hand muscles C) Innervates all but one of the flexor muscles of the forearm and most of the hand muscles near the thumb D) Innervates the deltoid and teres minor muscles E) Innervates the triceps brachii

86)

Which of the following sensory functions involves neurons in the dorsal root ganglion? A) Smell B) Hearing C) Touch D) Taste E) Vision

87)

Which of the following is not a function associated with the spinal cord?

A) Protect neuronsin both the ascending and descending tracts B) Mediate a reflex,such as the withdrawal of a hand from pain C) Conduct sensoryinformation up to the brain D) Conduct motorinformation down the cord E) Coordinate thealternating contraction of several muscle groups associated with locomotion

88) A patient with no sensation in the left thumb would most likley have nerve damage of the __________ spinal nerve.

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A) T1 B) T5 C) C5 D) C6 E) L3

89)

Which of the following is not a property of reflexes? A) Reflex responsesare very predictable. B) Reflexes areresponses to sensory inputs. C) Reflexes are quickresponses of the nervous system. D) Reflexes are notvoluntary. E) Reflexes do notrequire a stimulus.

90) You go to the movies after a long day and you begin to nod off as soon as the movie starts. Your head starts to lower a little, but a reflex causes your head to rise. This is called the __________ reflex. A) tendon B) crossedextension C) withdrawal D) stretch E) flexor (withdrawal)

91) In the patellar tendon reflex arc, the patellar ligament is stretched, which stretches the quadriceps femoris muscle of the thigh. This reflex will cause the quadriceps femoris to __________ and the hamstrings to __________.

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A) contract;relax B) contract; contract C) relax;contract D) relax; relax

92)

Which reflex shows the least synaptic delay? A) A polysynapticreflex B) The crossextension reflex C) The withdrawal reflex D) The flexorreflex E) The Golgi tendon reflex

93) A physician must administer an anesthesia directly to the CNS via the vertebral column. How many layers of the meninges must be punctured to do so? A) Two layers to introduce the anesthesia to the subarachnoid space B) None to introduce the anesthesia to the epidural space C) One layer to introduce the anesthesia to the subarachnoid space D) Three to introduce the anesthesia directly to the spinal cord

94) The cervical region of the spinal cord lacks associated autonomic nuclei. How will a cross section of the spinal cord in this region differ from a cross section of the thoracic region? A) Lateral gray horns are not present in the cervical region. B) Ventral gray horns are smaller in the cervical region due to fewer motor nuclei. C) Posterior gray horns are lacking in the cervical region. D) There should be no difference in the appearance from one region compared to other regions.

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95) Dennis has lost the ability to voluntarily raise his left arm due to damage to his spinal cord and associated nerves. Which of the following is a possible explanation for Dennis's symptom? A) One or more ventral roots in the cervical region of the spinal cord have been damaged. B) One or more dorsal roots in the cervical region of the spinal cord have been damaged. C) One or more ventral roots in the thoracic region of the spinal cord have been damaged. D) One or more dorsal roots in the thoracic region of the spinal cord have been damaged.

96) Which of the following would explain the loss of certain sensations from the skin of the posterior region of the upper limb? A) One or more ventral roots in the cervical region of the spinal cord have been damaged. B) One or more dorsal roots in the cervical region of the spinal cord have been damaged. C) One or more ventral roots in the thoracic region of the spinal cord have been damaged. D) One or more dorsal roots in the thoracic region of the spinal cord have been damaged.

97)

If reciprocal innervation failed during a stretch reflex, the consequence might be that

A) the overall movement would be diminished due to opposing muscles contracting simultaneously. B) the overall movement would be exaggerated due to the lack of regulation from opposing muscle contraction. C) the complete loss of movement due to lack of stimulation of the effector muscle.

98)

Which of the following best differentiates between the endoneurium and myelin?

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A) Endoneurium is more complex because it is composed of connective tissue; whereas myelin is composed of individual cells. B) Myelin is more complex as it is composed of multiple cells surrounding a neuron; whereas the endoneurium is simply connective tissue. C) Myelin and endoneurium are essentially the same thing, a connective tissue covering surrounding axons of neurons. D) Myelin is composed of epithelial tissue, while endoneurium is composed of connective tissue.

99) Glen is complaining of abnormal sensations, such as cold or hot sensations, along his left hip and anterior thigh. His physician suggests that certain nerves may be compressed, causing these sensations. Which of the following are most likely affected? A) L1 - L2 B) L3 - L4 C) T11 - T12 D) L5 - L6

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100)

100.1)

Label component "A" of the reflex arc.

A) Sensory receptor B) Effector organ C) Sensory neuron D) Motor neuron E) Interneuron

100.2)

Label component "B" of the reflex arc.

A) Sensory receptor B) Effector organ C) Sensory neuron D) Motor neuron E) Interneuron

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100.3)

Label component "C" of the reflex arc.

A) Sensory receptor B) Effector organ C) Sensory neuron D) Motor neuron E) Interneuron

100.4)

Label component "D" of the reflex arc.

A) Sensory receptor B) Effector organ C) Sensory neuron D) Motor neuron E) Interneuron

100.5)

Label component "E" of the reflex arc.

A) Sensory receptor B) Effector organ C) Sensory neuron D) Motor neuron E) Interneuron

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Version 1 101)

101.1)

What does "A" represent?

A) Spinal nerves B) Conus medullaris C) Cervical enlargement D) Filium terminale E) Cauda equina

101.2)

What does "B" represent?

A) Spinal nerves B) Conus medullaris C) Cervical enlargement D) Filium terminale E) Cauda equina

101.3)

What does "C" represent?

A) Spinal nerves B) Conus medullaris C) Cervical enlargement D) Filium terminale E) Cauda equina

101.4)

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What does "D" represent?

A) Spinal nerves B) Conus medullaris C) Cervical enlargement D) Filium terminale E) Cauda equina

101.5)

What does "E" represent?

A) Spinal nerves B) Conus medullaris C) Cervical enlargement D) Filium terminale E) Cauda equina

102)

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102.1) The figure illustrates a cross section of the spinal cord. Which structure is indicated by "A"? A) Central canal B) Ventral root C) Dorsal root ganglion D) Spinal nerve E) Dorsal root

102.2) The figure illustrates a cross section of the spinal cord. Which structure is indicated by "B"? A) Central canal B) Ventral root C) Dorsal root ganglion D) Spinal nerve E) Dorsal root

102.3) The figure illustrates a cross section of the spinal cord. Which structure is indicated by "C"? A) Central canal B) Ventral root C) Dorsal root ganglion D) Spinal nerve E) Dorsal root

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102.4) The figure illustrates a cross section of the spinal cord. Which structure is indicated by "D"? A) Central canal B) Ventral root C) Dorsal root ganglion D) Spinal nerve E) Dorsal root

102.5) The figure illustrates a cross section of the spinal cord. Which structure is indicated by "E"? A) Central canal B) Ventral root C) Dorsal root ganglion D) Spinal nerve E) Dorsal root

103)

Match the nerve to the correct function.

103.1)

Radial nerve

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103.2)

Musculocutaneous nerve

103.3)

Ulnar nerve

103.4)

Median nerve

104)

Match the disorder with its description.

104.1) Version 1

Anesthesia 38

A) Pain radiating down the back of the thigh and leg B) Stiffness in the neck and headache C) Inflammation of a nerve D) Pain along a nerve tract E) Loss of sensation

104.2)

Neuritis

A) Pain radiating down the back of the thigh and leg B) Stiffness in the neck and headache C) Inflammation of a nerve D) Pain along a nerve tract E) Loss of sensation

104.3)

Neuralgia

A) Pain radiating down the back of the thigh and leg B) Stiffness in the neck and headache C) Inflammation of a nerve D) Pain along a nerve tract E) Loss of sensation

104.4)

Sciatica

A) Pain radiating down the back of the thigh and leg B) Stiffness in the neck and headache C) Inflammation of a nerve D) Pain along a nerve tract E) Loss of sensation

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104.5)

Meningitis

A) Pain radiating down the back of the thigh and leg B) Stiffness in the neck and headache C) Inflammation of a nerve D) Pain along a nerve tract E) Loss of sensation

105)

Match the nerve or plexus with its appropriate description.

105.1)

Obturator nerve

A) Innervates the iliopsoas, sartorius, and quadriceps femoris B) Innervates muscles of the pelvic floor C) Innervates the muscles that adduct the thigh D) Innervates the anterior and lateral muscles of the leg E) Branches to form the medial and lateral plantar nerves

105.2)

Femoral nerve

105.3)

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Tibial nerve

105.4)

Common fibular nerve

105.5)

Coccygeal plexus

106)

Match the action with the specific reflex.

106.1)

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Removing hand from a hot iron

A) Stretch reflex B) Golgi tendon reflex C) Withdrawal reflex D) Crossed extensor reflex E) Reciprocal innervation

106.2)

A reflex that helps prevent falls

A) Stretch reflex B) Golgi tendon reflex C) Withdrawal reflex D) Crossed extensor reflex E) Reciprocal innervation

106.3) heavy

Partially responsible for a weight lifter suddenly dropping a weight that is too

A) Stretch reflex B) Golgi tendon reflex C) Withdrawal reflex D) Crossed extensor reflex E) Reciprocal innervation

106.4)

Allows for the coordinated contraction and relaxation of opposing muscle groups

A) Stretch reflex B) Golgi tendon reflex C) Withdrawal reflex D) Crossed extensor reflex E) Reciprocal innervation

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106.5)

Knee-jerk reflex

A) Stretch reflex B) Golgi tendon reflex C) Withdrawal reflex D) Crossed extensor reflex E) Reciprocal innervation

107)

Match the term with its correct definition.

107.1)

Pia mater

A) Functional unit of the nervous system B) Most superficial and thickest meninx C) The middle meninx D) The meninx bound tightly to brain and spinal cord E) Separates dura mater from periosteum

107.2)

Dura mater

A) Functional unit of the nervous system B) Most superficial and thickest meninx C) The middle meninx D) The meninx bound tightly to brain and spinal cord E) Separates dura mater from periosteum

107.3)

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Reflex arc

A) Functional unit of the nervous system B) Most superficial and thickest meninx C) The middle meninx D) The meninx bound tightly to brain and spinal cord E) Separates dura mater from periosteum

107.4)

Epidural space

A) Functional unit of the nervous system B) Most superficial and thickest meninx C) The middle meninx D) The meninx bound tightly to brain and spinal cord E) Separates dura mater from periosteum

107.5)

Arachnoid mater

A) Functional unit of the nervous system B) Most superficial and thickest meninx C) The middle meninx D) The meninx bound tightly to brain and spinal cord E) Separates dura mater from periosteum

108) True or False? An abnormal patellar reflex indicates damage of the T10 - T12 spinal segments. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

True or False? Myelin is essentially the endoneurium of myelinated axons.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

110) True or False? Damage to C5 and C6 spinal nerves would result in abnormal sensations along the anterior surface of the upper limb. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chapter 12_13e_ VanPutte 1) epineurium 2) dermatome 3) sciatic 4) episiotomy 5) reflex arc 6) A 7) D 8) C 9) B 10) D 11) E 12) C 13) D 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) C Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) E 32) E 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) B 44) E 45) E 46) D 47) B 48) C 49) E 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) A 54) D 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) C 60) C 61) A 62) D 63) B 64) C 65) B 66) C 67) D 68) C 69) D 70) B 71) D 72) E 73) B 74) A 75) B 76) E 77) C 78) B 79) A 80) C 81) B 82) C 83) B 84) D 85) D 86) C Version 1

87) A 88) D 89) E 90) D 91) A 92) E 93) A 94) A 95) A 96) D 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) Section Break 100.1) D 100.2) C 100.3) E 100.4) A 100.5) B 101) Section Break 101.1) C 101.2) A 101.3) B 101.4) E 101.5) D 102) Section Break 102.1) E 102.2) C 102.3) D 102.4) B Version 1

102.5) A 103) Section Break 103.1) E 103.2) A 103.3) B 103.4) C 104) Section Break 104.1) E 104.2) C 104.3) D 104.4) A 104.5) B 105) Section Break 105.1) C 105.2) A 105.3) E 105.4) D 105.5) B 106) Section Break 106.1) C 106.2) D 106.3) B 106.4) E 106.5) A 107) Section Break 107.1) D 107.2) B 107.3) A 107.4) E 107.5) C Version 1

108) FALSE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE

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CHAPTER 13 1)

What are the three major regions of the cerebellum? (Check all that apply.) A) Flocculonodular lobe B) Infundibulum C) Lateral hemispheres D) Substantia nigra E) Vermis

Where in the brain are basal nuclei located? (Check all that apply.) A) Cerebellum B) Cerebrum C) Diencephalon D) Medulla oblongata E) Midbrain

Identify the structures that are part of the epithalamus. (Check all the apply.) A) Habenula B) Mammillary bodies C) Pineal gland D) Pituitary gland E) Thalamus

Identify the blood vessels that supply blood to the brain. (Check all that apply.)

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A) Internal carotid arteries B) External carotid arteries C) Vertebral arteries

5) From the list, indicate three types of molecules that are permeable to the blood–brain barrier. (Check all that apply.) A) All drugs B) Caffeine C) Glucose D) Large proteins E) Oxygen

6) The central nervous system develops from a flat mass of tissue called the neural __________. A) groove B) tube C) plate D) crest E) fold

The cerebrum develops from the embryonic region called the __________. A) telencephalon B) mesencephalon C) diencephalon D) metencephalon E) rhombencephalon

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From which germ layer does the nervous system form? A) Endoderm B) Mesoderm C) Exoderm D) Ectoderm

Which structures are formed from neural crest cells? A) Sensory, autonomic, and enteric neurons B) Pigmented body cells C) Adrenal medulla D) Facial bones E) All of the choices are correct.

10)

From which embryonic brain region does the cerebellum form? A) Telencephalon B) Diencephalon C) Mesencephalon D) Metencephalon E) Myelencephalon

11)

From which embryonic brain region does the medulla oblongata form?

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A) Telencephalon B) Diencephalon C) Mesencephalon D) Metencephalon E) Myelencephalon

12)

What do the cavities of the neural tube become in the adult brain? A) Subarachnoid space B) Ventricles C) Auricles D) Coelom

13)

Which of the following statements concerning the brainstem is true? A) The brainstem consists of the medulla, pons, and cerebellum. B) The brainstem is responsible for higher level thinking skills. C) Damage to the brainstem is usually fatal. D) All twelve cranial nerves enter or exit from the brainstem. E) The brainstem is a relay for sensory input only.

14)

In the CNS, clusters of gray matter containing cell bodies are called __________. A) nuclei B) pyramids C) tracts D) peduncles E) ganglia

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15) the

The fact that the right side of the brain controls the left side of the body is explained by

A) division of the cerebrum into two hemispheres. B) division of the cerebellum into two hemispheres. C) decussation of the pyramids in the medulla. D) need for contra-lateral control of body function. E) brainstem being below the midbrain.

16)

Which of the following is correctly associated with the medulla oblongata? A) It gives rise to conscious thoughts. B) It contains nuclei for regulation of heart rate and blood vessel diameter. C) It contains enlargements called cerebral peduncles. D) It is the most superior portion of the brainstem. E) It relays sensory information.

17)

The pyramids of the medulla contain __________. A) ascending motor tracts B) descending motor tracts C) ascending sensory tracts D) descending sensory tracts E) None of the choices are correct

18)

Walking a tightrope would activate which portion(s) of the medulla?

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A) The pyramids B) The superior colliculi C) The olives D) The pyramids and the superior colliculi E) The pyramids and the olives

19)

Consider the following five terms and determine which does not belong. A) Medulla oblongata B) Pons C) Cardiac center D) Pyramids E) Olives

20)

Which of the following terms does NOT belong with the others? A) Medulla oblongata B) Midbrain C) Pons D) Thalamus E) Reticular formation

21)

Which portion of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord? A) Medulla oblongata B) Midbrain C) Pons D) Thalamus E) Cerebral peduncles

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22) A patient with a traumatic head injury may exhibit vomiting as a result of irritation of nuclei in the __________. A) pons B) cerebellum C) medulla oblongata D) corpora quadrigemina E) midbrain

23) A small lesion in the brainstem which resulted in a rapid heart rate, intense vasoconstriction, and elevated blood pressure would probably be located in the __________. A) medulla oblongata B) pons C) cerebellum D) hypothalamus E) cerebrum

24)

The part of the brain that connects the medulla to the midbrain is the __________. A) cerebral peduncle B) pons C) cerebellum D) thalamus E) hypothalamus

25)

The nucleus for the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is located in the __________.

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A) pons B) medulla C) mesencephalon D) cerebrum E) cerebellum

26)

Damage to pontine nuclei might affect __________. A) vision B) talking C) blood pressure D) respiration E) heart rate

27)

Which area of the brain contains areas that initiates REM sleep? A) Medulla oblongata B) Pons C) Thalamus D) Midbrain E) Diencephalon

28)

Which two portions of the brain are involved in controlling respiration? A) Pons, hypothalamus B) Cerebrum, hypothalamus C) Pons, medulla oblongata D) Medulla oblongata, cerebral peduncles E) Pons, thalamus

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29)

The nuclei of cranial nerves III, IV, and V are located in the __________. A) pons B) medulla oblongata C) midbrain D) diencephalon E) cerebellum

30) The superior and inferior colliculi are located in which of the following portions of the midbrain? A) Tegmentum (floor) B) Cerebral peduncles C) Substantia nigra D) Red nucleus E) Tectum (roof)

31)

The inferior colliculi A) are an integral part of the cerebrum. B) are involved with auditory pathways in the CNS. C) interconnect directly with the eye. D) are a major CNS motor neurotransmitter group. E) are located in the pons.

32)

The superior colliculi receive input from the

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A) eyes, skin, cerebrum, and inferior colliculi. B) inferior colliculi, pyramids, skin, and red nucleus. C) skin, ears, pyramids, and cerebellum. D) cerebrum, cerebellum, thalamus, and inferior colliculi. E) nose, tongue, and inner ear.

33)

When you walk up behind someone and tap their right shoulder, they will reflexively A) raise their arms. B) hit you. C) turn their head toward the left. D) sneeze. E) turn their head toward the right.

34) A bird hits the windshield of your car, and you reflexively duck and close your eyes. Which of the following is responsible for this action? A) Medulla B) Superior colliculi C) Reticular formation D) Thalamus E) Cerebellum

35)

The substantia nigra interconnects with the __________.

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A) basal nuclei B) tegmentum C) red nuclei D) reticular nuclei E) tectum

36)

A lesion in the cerebral peduncles might affect __________. A) hearing B) movement C) sight D) heart rate E) taste

37)

Which part of the midbrain carries sensory tracts from the spinal cord? A) Tectum B) Cerebral peduncles C) Tegmentum D) Red nucleus

38)

What is the role of the red nuclei? A) Responding to loud noises and bright lights B) Part of the auditory pathways in the CNS C) Carries sensory information to the brain D) Unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities

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39)

The sleep/wake cycle is influenced by the __________. A) basal nuclei B) reticular formation C) vermis D) thalamic nuclei E) cerebellum

40)

The reticular formation A) is composed of nuclei scattered throughout the cerebellum. B) coordinates fine motor movements. C) is composed ofnuclei scattered throughout the brain stem. D) is responsible for pain interpretation. E) is composed of nuclei scattered throughout the cerebrum.

41)

Which of the following activities would stimulate the reticular formation? A) A warm bath B) A clock radio coming on in the morning C) A long lecture in a darkened auditorium D) Eating a big meal E) Getting a back rub

42) During an autopsy the brainstem was separated from the rest of the brain by a cut between the __________ and __________.

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A) medulla oblongata; pons B) pons; midbrain C) midbrain; diencephalon D) thalamus; cerebrum E) medulla; spinal cord

43) The cerebellum communicates with other parts of the CNS by means of nerve tracts called the __________. A) vermis B) flocculonodular pathways C) cerebellar peduncles D) arbor vitae E) folia

44) The white matter of the cerebellum forms a branching network known as the __________. A) folia B) superior peduncle C) arbor vitae D) tentorium cerebelli E) vermis

45) The portion of the cerebellum that is involved in balance and eye movements is the __________.

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A) vermis B) flocculonodular lobe C) cerebellar peduncles D) arbor vitae E) lateral hemisphere

46) Smooth, flowing movements are the result of fine motor coordination in the __________ of the cerebellum. A) anterior vermis B) cerebellar peduncles C) lateral hemispheres D) flocculonodular lobe E) arbor vitae

47)

Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebellum? A) Coordinate control of voluntary movements B) Help in the maintenance of muscle tone C) Control the heart rate D) Control skeletal muscles to maintain balance E) Control of posture, locomotion, and fine motor coordination

48) A person with a lesion in the brain exhibited the following manifestations: normal tension in skeletal muscle, disturbed fine motor control, exhibited tremors when reaching for objects. What part of the brain is most likely damaged?

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A) The prefrontal lobe of the cerebrum B) The frontal lobe of the cerebrum C) The basal ganglia D) The pyramids of the medulla oblongata E) The cerebellum

49)

Ridges of the cerebellar cortex are called __________. A) arbor vitae B) cerebellar peduncles C) the vermis D) folia

50)

The stalk that connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland is the __________. A) corpus callosum B) infundibulum C) insula D) intermediate mass E) Arbor vitae

51)

The interthalamic adhesion connects the two portions of the __________. A) thalamus B) epithalamus C) hypothalamus D) subthalamus E) corpus callosum

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52)

Which of the following thalamic nuclei is mismatched with its function? A) Lateral geniculate nucleus - visual impulses B) Medial geniculate nucleus - auditory impulses C) Ventral posterior nucleus - sensory impulses D) Dorsal tier of nuclei - taste impulses E) Ventral lateral nuclei - motor functions

53)

The habenula and pineal body are both found in the __________. A) thalamus B) epithalamus C) hypothalamus D) subthalamus E) hyperthalamus

54)

Which of the following statements concerning structures of the diencephalon is false? A) The thalamus projects sensory information to the cerebral cortex. B) The subthalamic nuclei are associated with the basal nuclei. C) The thalamus controls many endocrine functions. D) The pineal body may play a role in controlling the onset of puberty. E) The third ventricle separates the two large portions of the thalamus.

55) Most sensory input that ascends through the spinal cord and brainstem projects to the __________.

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A) pineal gland B) hypothalamus C) thalamus D) mammillary bodies E) subthalamus

56)

The mammillary bodies A) influence breast milk production. B) produce reproductive hormones. C) are involved in emotional responses to odors. D) are found in the thalamus. E) influence the onset of puberty.

57)

Injury to the thalamus would A) cause us to stop breathing. B) affect body temperature regulation. C) affect pHregulation. D) preventpuberty. E) affect sensoryprojection to the cerebral cortex.

58)

Afferent fibers terminating in the hypothalamus provide input from the A) visceral organs. B) taste receptors of the tongue. C) limbic system. D) the prefrontal cortex of the cerebrum. E) All of the choices are correct.

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59) Anna has an eating disorder along with intense thirst and wildly varying body temperatures, which means she may have a dysfunction of the __________. A) pons B) medulla C) thalamus D) hypothalamus E) brainstem

60) Which of the following brain areas serves as the major control center of the autonomic nervous system and endocrine system? A) Hypothalamus B) Midbrain C) Pons D) Thalamus E) Brainstem

61) The "thermostat" or nucleus that monitors blood temperature is located in the __________. A) hypothalamus B) midbrain C) pons D) thalamus E) brainstem

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62) Thirteen year-old Austin exhibits retarded growth, reduced metabolism, lack of normal reproductive gland development, inability to regulate water intake or water elimination from the body, and an uncontrolled appetite. Which part of Austin's brain is most likely involved? A) Reticular formation B) Primary sensory cortex C) Medulla oblongata D) Thalamus E) Hypothalamus

63) Arrange the following in order from the diencephalon downward. (1) Spinal cord (2) Midbrain (3) Medulla (4) Pons A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 2, 4, 3, 1 C) 3, 2, 4, 1 D) 4, 2, 3, 1 E) 4, 1, 3, 2

64)

Which of the following feelings is NOT related to hypothalamic function? A) Fear of the unknown B) Sexual pleasure C) Feeling satiated after a meal D) Feeling rested after flying to England E) Road rage

65)

Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus?

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A) Initiates voluntary movements B) Involved in psychosomatic illnesses C) Control of balance D) Unconscious swinging of the arms while walking E) Perception of sensation

66)

The pineal body A) connects the two cerebral hemispheres. B) modifies mood. C) causes hot and cold flashes. D) appears to play a role in controlling the onset of puberty. E) plays a role in the production of cerebrospinal fluid.

67)

The cerebral gyri increase A) memory assimilation time. B) the surface area of the cortex. C) the size of the thalamic nuclei. D) speech ability. E) volume of the brain.

68)

The central sulcus separates the __________. A) two parietal lobes B) frontal and parietal lobes C) occipital and temporal lobes D) temporal and frontal lobes E) parietal and occipital lobes

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69)

The lateral fissure separates the __________ from the rest of the cerebrum. A) frontal lobe B) parietal lobe C) occipital lobe D) temporal lobe E) cerebellum

70)

Which of the following is not a lobe of the cerebrum? A) Parietal B) Frontal C) Occipital D) Sphenoidal E) Temporal

71)

The gray matter on the outer surface of the cerebrum is called the __________. A) cortex B) pia mater C) reticular formation D) arbor vitae E) cerebral medulla

72) During brain surgery, the superior portion of the postcentral gyrus of a patient is stimulated. What do you expect the patient to do?

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A) Flex his fingers B) Talk to the surgeon C) Smile D) Feel pressure on his toes E) Move his hand

73)

If an animal has had its cerebrum removed, it cannot __________. A) see B) live C) breathe D) regulate body temperature E) regulate heart rate

74)

Association fibers connect A) the cerebrum with the spinal cord. B) one cerebral hemisphere to another. C) areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere. D) areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the midbrain. E) areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the spinal cord.

75) Tracts of white matter that connect the right and left hemispheres are composed of __________ fibers.

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A) decussation B) association C) commissural D) projection E) pyramidal

76) What is the large C-shaped mass of white matter that consists of nerve fibers that connect the two cerebral hemispheres? A) Corpus callosum B) Infundibulum C) Intermediate mass D) Vermis E) Gyrus

77)

The cerebral medulla A) has the same function as the medulla oblongata. B) is the gray matter on the cerebrum's surface. C) consists of many nerve tracts of white matter beneath the cerebral cortex. D) is another name for the basal nuclei. E) is the outer layer of the cerebrum.

78)

The primary somatic sensory or general sensory area is located in the __________.

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A) postcentral gyrus B) precentral gyrus C) prefrontal gyrus D) Wernicke gyrus E) prefrontal cortex

79)

Which of the following activities is NOT associated with the cerebrum? A) Interpreting smell and taste B) Controlling the autonomic nervous system C) Initiating voluntary movements D) Making moral judgments E) Writing poetry

80)

The corpus callosum

A) consists of a broad band of gray matter. B) is found at the base of the transverse fissure. C) is a band of commissural fibers that connects the right cerebral hemisphere to the left cerebral hemisphere. D) connects the frontal lobe to the occipital lobe. E) connects the frontal lobe to the parietal lobe.

81)

Which type of white fibers connect areas of the cerebral cortex in the same hemisphere? A) Basal fibers B) Commissural fibers C) Projection fibers D) Association fibers

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82)

Projection fibers will connect A) the cerebrum toother parts of the brain and the spinal cord. B) one cerebralhemisphere to the other hemisphere. C) parts of the samehemisphere. D) motor and sensoryareas of the cerebral cortex.

83)

Which of the following is a basal nucleus located in the cerebrum? A) Subthalamic nucleus B) Red nucleus C) Caudate nucleus D) Substantia nigra E) Habenula

84)

Lesions of the basal nuclei could cause A) loss of memory. B) uncontrolled rage. C) fluent but circular speech. D) a slight shaking of the hands or head. E) loss of the sense of smell.

85)

The corpus striatum is composed of the

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A) subthalamic and red nuclei. B) lentiform and caudate nuclei. C) caudate nucleus and substantia nigra. D) substantia nigra and hippocampus. E) subthalamic nuclei and pineal body.

86)

The basal nuclei function to A) produce stiff, exaggerated movements. B) assist the autonomic nervous system. C) inhibit unwanted muscular activity. D) control alertness. E) store memory.

87)

The limbic system involves various neural connections between __________. A) the medulla and pons B) the pons and cerebellum C) the cerebrum and diencephalon D) the diencephalon and midbrain E) the cerebrum and midbrain

88)

The limbic system A) has recently evolved. B) is associatedwith basic survival instincts of nutrition, memory, and reproduction. C) controls voluntary movements of the arms and legs. D) is a memory area in the midbrain. E) includes the brainstem.

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89)

Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system? A) Lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus B) Cingulate gyrus of the cerebral cortex C) Dentate gyrus of the hippocampus D) Olfactory cortex

90)

The most superficial meningeal layer is the __________. A) pia mater B) arachnoid layer C) dura mater D) epidural sinus E) skull

91)

Cerebrospinal fluid fills the __________. A) subarachnoid space B) subdural space C) dural sinuses D) epidural space E) None of the choices are correct

92)

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

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A) Falx cerebri – longitudinal fissure B) Tentorium cerebelli – base of brain C) Falx cerebelli – between the cerebellar hemispheres D) Pia mater – surface of the brain E) Dural venous sinus – collects blood that returns from the brain

93)

Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by tissue in the walls and roofs of the __________. A) subarachnoid space B) dural sinuses C) fissure of Sylvius D) ventricles of the brain E) subdural space

94) Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the __________ and is reabsorbed by the __________. A) choroid plexus; arachnoid granulation B) arachnoid granulation; choroid plexus C) dural sinus; dura mater D) dura mater; dural sinus E) septa pellucida; cerebral aqueduct

95)

Sixteen-year-old Jake is diagnosed with hydrocephaly. What will this do if left untreated?

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A) The brain will shrink and shrivel. B) The excess fluid will exert pressure on his brain. C) The cerebral cortex will absorb the excess fluid and swell. D) The choroid plexus will enlarge. E) The arachnoid granulations will halt their function.

96)

The cerebral aqueduct connects A) the two lateralventricles. B) the thirdventricle to the fourth ventricle. C) the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle. D) the fourth ventricle to the subarachnoid space.

97)

Which ventricle is located between the two halves of the thalamus? A) First ventricle B) Second ventricle C) Third ventricle D) Fourth ventricle

98)

Which of the following is NOT a function of cerebrospinal fluid? A) Provides oxygen to CNS tissue B) Provides nutrients to CNS tissue C) Provides a protective cushion around the CNS D) Protects the brain from rapid, jarring head movements

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99)

The blockage of CSF inside the brain is a condition called __________. A) internal hydrocephalus B) ventricular hydrocephalus C) external hydrocephalus D) internal hematoma

100) Water-soluble molecules such as glucose and amino acids move across the blood-brain barrier by __________. A) diffusion B) endocytosis C) exocytosis D) mediated transport E) filtration

101)

Which of the following arteries supply blood to the brain? A) External carotid arteries B) Internal carotid arteries C) Vertebral arteries D) Both "Internal carotid arteries" and "Vertebral arteries" is correct.

102) Henry has a thrombus just beyond where the vertebral arteries join on the base of the pons. Which vessel is affected? A) Dural sinuses B) Basilar artery C) Cranial artery D) None of the choices are correct.

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103) What structural feature of the brain regulates the movement of materials from the blood into the brain? A) Myelin sheath B) Circle ofWillis C) Meninges D) Blood-brain barrier

104)

Cranial nerve functions include __________. A) somatic motor control B) sympathetic control C) cognitive skills D) regulation of emotions E) None of the choices are correct

105)

The Roman numeral assigned to each cranial nerve reflect A) the order of their discovery. B) the sequence from anterior to posterior in which they emerge from the brain. C) their importance, with highest numbers being the most important. D) the complexity of each nerve, with complex nerves having higher numbers. E) the sequence from posterior to anterior in which they emerge from the brain.

106)

Which of the following cranial nerves is exclusively sensory?

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A) Vestibulocochlear (VIII) B) Hypoglossal (XII) C) Trochlear (IV) D) Facial (VI) E) Trigeminal (V)

107)

The oculomotor nerve A) innervates all the muscles that move the eyeball. B) adjusts pupil size to the level of lighting. C) transmits action potentials from the retina. D) controls the organ of balance. E) innervates two of the six muscles that move the eyeball.

108)

Which of the following would help to determine if the oculomotor nerve was damaged? A) Have the patient distinguish between green and red colors B) Determine if the patient can see anything C) Have the patient look superiorly and inferiorly D) Have the patient cry E) Determine if the patient still has night vision

109) Ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid) of the left eye would be caused by damage to the __________ nerve.

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A) facial B) abducens C) trochlear D) oculomotor E) optic

110)

The abducens nerves A) transmit pain impulses from the teeth. B) are involved in eye movement. C) dilate blood vessels in the skin. D) slow the heart rate. E) control size of the pupil.

111)

A kiss on the cheek would be perceived by impulses from the __________ nerve. A) trochlear B) abducens C) trigeminal D) vestibulocochlear E) facial

112) Maggie has her wisdom teeth removed, and later has difficulty with chewing and cannot feel sensations to the side of her face. This is likely caused by the numbing of the __________ nerve.

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A) vagus B) trochlear C) hypoglossal D) trigeminal E) vestibulocochlear

113) Dentists anesthetize a portion of the __________ nerve to stop pain impulses from the teeth. A) facial B) trigeminal C) hypoglossal D) glossopharyngeal E) abducens

114)

Which of the following cranial nerves innervates only one muscle of the eyeball? A) Optic nerve B) Facial nerve C) Trochlear nerve D) Trigeminal nerve E) Oculomotor nerve

115)

Facial expression is regulated by the __________ nerve.

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A) facial B) vagus C) abducens D) trigeminal E) accessory

116) Paralysis on the right side of the face could result from damage to the right __________ nerve. A) vagus B) facial C) accessory D) trigeminal E) None of the choices are correct.

117) A baseball player was hit on the left side of his skull in the parotid area. He cannot close his eye and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve was damaged? A) Facial B) Glossopharyngeal C) Accessory D) Optic E) Oculomotor

118) A deer hunter lost the hearing in his right ear after his gun exploded when he tried firing it. His hearing loss is the result of damage to the __________ nerve.

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A) vagus B) hypoglossal C) glossopharyngeal D) trigeminal E) vestibulocochlear

119)

The glossopharyngeal nerve A) innervates the larynx. B) is involved in the sense of taste. C) innervates intrinsic tongue muscles. D) transmits sensory information from the abdominal viscera. E) controls facial expressions.

120)

The facial and glossopharyngeal nerves A) innervate the salivary glands. B) control movements of the tongue. C) are involved in the sense of smell. D) control the production of tears. E) carry pain from the teeth.

121) Motor control of the face is the function of the __________ nerve, while sensation from the face is determined by the __________ nerve.

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A) facial; trigeminal B) trochlear; facial C) facial; glossopharyngeal D) trigeminal; glossopharyngeal E) trigeminal; facial

122)

Damage to branches of the __________ nerve can interfere with normal speech. A) facial B) vagus C) trigeminal D) glossopharyngeal E) abducens

123)

Which nerve has branches that extend to the thoracic and abdominal viscera? A) Facial nerve B) Vagus nerve C) Trigeminal nerve D) Glossopharyngeal nerve E) Accessory nerve

124)

Damage to which of the following cranial nerves might result in death? A) Facial nerve B) Vagus nerve C) Trigeminal nerve D) Glossopharyngeal nerve E) Optic nerve

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125)

Which of the following cranial nerves does not innervate the tongue? A) Glossopharyngeal B) Hypoglossal C) Accessory D) Facial E) All of the choices are correct.

126) Unilateral damage to a cranial nerve is suspected because the tongue deviates to the right when it is protruded. Which cranial nerve is damaged? A) Right hypoglossal B) Left hypoglossal C) Right glossopharyngeal D) Left glossopharyngeal E) Left facial

127)

The accessory nerve A) has fibers that join the vagus nerve. B) has both a cranial and a spinal component. C) provides innervation to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. D) is cranial nerve XI. E) All of the choices are correct.

128) Dysfunction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle could result from damage to the __________ nerve.

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A) vagus B) abducens C) accessory D) hypoglossal E) facial

129)

A fracture of the cribriform plate might injure the __________ cranial nerve. A) glossopharyngeal B) trigeminal C) olfactory D) facial E) optic

130) When you lick frosting off a knife with the tip of your tongue and find the frosting has an orange flavor to it, which cranial nerve is being used to determine the taste of the frosting? A) Facial B) Trigeminal C) Hypoglossal D) Glossopharyngeal E) Abducens

131)

Which of the following cranial nerves has a parasympathetic component?

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A) Facial B) Trochlear C) Trigeminal D) Hypoglossal E) Accessory

132) The embryonic structure that gives rise to the structures of the central nervous system is called the __________. A) brainstem B) neural plate C) notochord D) forebrain

133) Which part of the brainstem contains the cardiac center, vasomotor center, and respiratory center? A) Midbrain B) Pons C) Medulla oblongata D) Cerebellum

134) The portion of the midbrain involved in dealing with auditory pathways is the __________. A) cerebral aqueduct B) inferior colliculus C) superior colliculus D) tegmentum

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135) What is the group of loosely packed nuclei within the length of the brainstem that are involved in cyclic activities such as sleep-wake cycles? A) Reticular formation B) Diencephalon C) Limbic system D) Hypothalamus E) Basal nuclei

136) Which structures connect the cerebellum to the brainstem and allow communication between the cerebellum and other parts of the CNS? A) Peduncles B) Commissures C) Funiculi

137) Fibers connecting areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere are __________ fibers. A) association B) commissural C) projection

138) A group of functionally related nuclei within the cerebrum, diencephalon, and midbrain are called the __________.

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A) basal nuclei B) hypothalamic ganglia C) lateral ganglia D) limbic nuclei

139)

What is the group of structures in the brain that is involved with emotions and memory? A) Basal nuclei B) Limbic system C) Reticular formation

140)

What is the function of the arachnoid granulations? A) Reabsorb CSF into the blood of the dural sinuses B) Drain the CSF from the arachnoid mater C) Transfer CSF to the cerebral aqueducts

141) Which structure ultimately regulates the passage of materials from the blood into the cerebrospinal fluid and the brain? A) Arachnoid mater B) Dura mater C) Pia mater D) Cranium E) Meninges F) Blood–brain–barrier

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142)

Reflexes involved in maintaining homeostasis may involve the __________ nerve. A) facial B) optic C) trigeminal D) vagus

143) A patient is experiencing a high fever, stiff neck, drowsiness, and intense headaches. A spinal tap showed bacteria and white blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This individual most likely has what condition? A) Parkinsondisease B) Alzheimerdisease C) Meningitis D) Hydrocephalus E) A stroke

144) Degeneration of the neurons in which of the following structures leads to the muscle tremors associated with Parkinson disease? A) Cerebral cortex B) Tegmentum C) Pons D) Substantianigra E) Inferiorcolliculi

145) Loss of equilibrium and motor coordination would most likely be related to a lesion in which structure?

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A) Limbic system B) Pons C) Pituitarygland D) Medullaoblongata E) Cerebellum

146)

There are no cranial nerves associated with which part of the brain? A) Thalamus B) Medullaoblongata C) Midbrain D) Cerebellum E) Pons

147)

Which of the following is not associated with the pons? A) Sensoryinformation from the middle region of the face B) Sensoryinformation from the inferior region of the face C) Sensoryinformation from the superior region of the face D) Lateral eyemovements E) Neck movement

148)

Injury to the reticular formation can result in which of the following? A) Irreversible coma B) Hypertension C) Parkinson disease D) Alzheimer disease

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149) The blink reflex is initiated by contact with the cornea. Which cranial nerve could be assessed by initiating the blink reflex? A) Trigeminal B) Oculomotor C) Optic D) Olfactory

150) A patient exhibits an abnormal gag reflex in that the uvua is pulled to the left. This is a possible indication that one of the __________ nerves is damaged. A) glossopharyngeal B) abducens C) facial D) trigeminal

151) If abnormal development occurs in the myelencephalon, which of the following structures may be affected? A) Fourth ventricle B) Medulla oblongata C) Thalamus D) Both "Fourth ventricle" and "Medulla oblongata" are correct.

152) A physician is evaluating the cranial nerve function of a patient. To evaluate oculomotor nerve function, the physician should

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A) stand behind the patient and whisper words to see if the patient can repeat them. B) ask the patient to follow the movement of an object with her gaze. C) ask the patient to open her mouth and stick out her tongue. D) touch the surface of the patient's eyeball to initiate blinking.

153) A physician is evaluating the cranial nerve function of a patient. To evaluate vestibulocochlear nerve function, the physician should A) stand behind the patient and whisper words to see if the patient can repeat them. B) ask the patient to follow the movement of an object with her gaze. C) ask the patient to open her mouth and stick out her tongue. D) touch the surface of the patient's eyeball to initiate blinking.

154) A physician is evaluating the cranial nerve function of a patient. To evaluate trigeminal nerve function, the physician should A) stand behind the patient and whisper words to see if the patient can repeat them. B) ask the patient to follow the movement of an object with her gaze. C) ask the patient to open her mouth and stick out her tongue. D) touch the surface of the patient's eyeball to initiate blinking.

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155)

155.1) This is a midsagittal section of the right half of the brain. What does "A" represent? A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Corpus callosum D) Diencephalon E) Brainstem

155.2) This is a midsagittal section of the right half of the brain. What does "B" represent?

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A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Corpus callosum D) Diencephalon E) Brainstem

155.3) This is a midsagittal section of the right half of the brain. What does "C" represent? A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Corpus callosum D) Diencephalon E) Brainstem

155.4) This is a midsagittal section of the right half of the brain. What does "D" represent? A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Corpus callosum D) Diencephalon E) Brainstem

155.5) This is a midsagittal section of the right half of the brain. What does "E" represent?

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A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Corpus callosum D) Diencephalon E) Brainstem

156) © McGraw-Hill Education/Rebecca Gray, photographer.

156.1)

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This is a lateral view of the brain. What does "A" represent?

A) Temporal lobe B) Cerebellum C) Frontal lobe D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe

156.2)

This is a lateral view of the brain. What does "B" represent?

A) Temporal lobe B) Cerebellum C) Frontal lobe D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe

156.3)

This is a lateral view of the brain. What does "C" represent?

A) Temporal lobe B) Cerebellum C) Frontal lobe D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe

156.4)

This is a lateral view of the brain. What does "D" represent?

A) Temporal lobe B) Cerebellum C) Frontal lobe D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe

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156.5)

This is a lateral view of the brain. What does "E" represent?

A) Temporal lobe B) Cerebellum C) Frontal lobe D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe

157)

157.1)

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What does "A" represent on the diagram of the skull and brain?

A) Subarachnoid space B) Dural venous sinus C) Pia mater D) Arachnoid mater E) Subdural space

157.2)

What does "B" represent on the diagram of the skull and brain?

A) Subarachnoid space B) Dural venous sinus C) Pia mater D) Arachnoid mater E) Subdural space

157.3)

What does "C" represent on the diagram of the skull and brain?

A) Subarachnoid space B) Dural venous sinus C) Pia mater D) Arachnoid mater E) Subdural space

157.4)

What does "D" represent on the diagram of the skull and brain?

A) Subarachnoid space B) Dural venous sinus C) Pia mater D) Arachnoid mater E) Subdural space

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157.5)

What does "E" represent on the diagram of the skull and brain?

A) Subarachnoid space B) Dural venous sinus C) Pia mater D) Arachnoid mater E) Subdural space

158)

Match the description with the correct lobe of the cerebrum.

A. Important in voluntary motor function B. Fifth lobe of the brain C. Plays an important role in memory D. Reception and integration of visual input E. Reception of most sensory input

158.1)

Occipital lobe

158.2)

Frontal lobe

158.3)

Insula

158.4)

Temporal lobe

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158.5)

159)

Parietal lobe

True or False? The pons is largely responsible for the control of skeletal muscle activity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

160) True or False? Damage to the trigeminal nerve would disrupt the normal blink reflex initiated by touch sensations of the eye. ⊚ ⊚

true false

161) True or False? Abnormal development in the telencephalon may also affect the development of the lateral ventricles. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chapter 13_13e_ VanPutte 1) [A, C, E] 2) [B, C, E] 3) [A, C] 4) [A, C] 5) [B, C, E] 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) E 10) D 11) E 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) E 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) C 30) E 31) B 32) A 33) E 34) B 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) C 48) E 49) D 50) B 51) A 52) D 53) B 54) C 55) C 56) C Version 1

57) E 58) E 59) D 60) A 61) A 62) E 63) B 64) D 65) B 66) D 67) B 68) B 69) D 70) D 71) A 72) D 73) A 74) C 75) C 76) A 77) C 78) A 79) B 80) C 81) D 82) A 83) C 84) D 85) B 86) C Version 1

87) C 88) B 89) A 90) C 91) A 92) B 93) D 94) A 95) B 96) B 97) C 98) A 99) A 100) D 101) D 102) B 103) D 104) A 105) B 106) A 107) B 108) C 109) D 110) B 111) C 112) D 113) B 114) C 115) A 116) B Version 1

117) A 118) E 119) B 120) A 121) A 122) B 123) B 124) B 125) C 126) A 127) E 128) C 129) C 130) A 131) A 132) B 133) C 134) B 135) A 136) A 137) A 138) A 139) B 140) A 141) F 142) D 143) C 144) D 145) E 146) D Version 1

147) E 148) A 149) A 150) A 151) D 152) B 153) A 154) D 155) Section Break 155.1) E 155.2) D 155.3) A 155.4) C 155.5) B 156) Section Break 156.1) A 156.2) C 156.3) E 156.4) D 156.5) B 157) Section Break 157.1) B 157.2) E 157.3) D 157.4) A 157.5) C 158) Section Break 158.1) D 158.2) A 158.3) B Version 1

158.4) C 158.5) E 159) FALSE 160) TRUE 161) TRUE

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CHAPTER 14 1)

Identify all of the examples of primary receptors. (Check all that apply.) A) Free nerve endings B) Hair cells in the ear C) Meissner corpuscle D) Pacinian corpuscle E) Taste cell

Select which steps are part of the voluntary movement process. (Check all that apply.) A) Initiation begins in the brainstem. B) Initiation begins in the primary motor area of the cerebral cortex. C) Lower motor neurons receive messages from upper motor neurons. D) Smooth muscle in the skin is stimulated to contract. E) The cerebellum and basal nuclei coordinate the information for these movements. F) Upper motor neurons receive information from lower motor neurons.

Select the statements that describe lower motor neurons. (Check all that apply.) A) Have axons extending into peripheral nerves B) Send signals to skeletal muscles C) Send signals to visceral smooth muscle

Which tracts represent direct motor pathways? (Check all that apply.)

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A) Corticobulbar B) Corticospinal C) Reticulospinal D) Rubrospinal E) Tectospinal

The brainstem receives sensory input from which cranial nerves? (Check all that apply.) A) Hypoglossal B) Oculomotor C) Optic D) Vagus E) Vestibulocochlear

6) Which of the following carry information to the reticular activating system? (Check all that apply.) A) Ascending motor axons from the skin B) Axons carrying tactile information C) Cerebral projections D) Cranial nerve II E) Cranial nerve V F) Cranial nerve X

7) Identify the situations that would stimulate the reticular activating system. (Check all that apply.)

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A) A darkened room B) Wearing a set of silencing headphones C) Smelling breakfast odors D) Exposure to smelling salts E) A ringing fire alarm

Which of the following is a general sense? A) Smell B) Taste C) Touch D) Hearing E) Vision

9) If you feel someone touch you on the shoulder, the person has stimulated a/an __________ sense. A) special B) somatic C) visceral D) undifferentiated E) None of the choices are correct.

10) When people smoke cigarettes, they damage some of their taste buds. Which type of sense has been damaged by the smoking?

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A) Special B) Somatic C) Visceral D) Autonomic E) Nonspecialized

11)

Which of the following is a visceral sensation? A) Pain B) Touch C) Temperature D) Proprioception E) Balance

12)

The perception of position and movement of body parts is __________. A) sensation B) kinesthesia C) proprioception D) All of the choices are correct.

13)

Vision is dependent upon __________. A) chemoreceptors B) photoreceptors C) thermoreceptors D) mechanoreceptors E) nociceptors

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14)

Mechanoreceptors respond to A) compression of receptors. B) irritation of nerve endings. C) light striking the receptors. D) binding of molecules to membrane receptors. E) a change in temperature.

15) A state of conscious awareness of stimuli received by sensory receptors is called __________. A) adaptation B) projection C) translation D) perception E) inclination

16)

Which of the following term and description is mismatched? A) Visceroreceptors – associated with organs B) Adaptation – decreased sensitivity to continued stimulus C) Projection – sensation is perceived at the site of the stimulus D) Proprioceptors – information about body position E) Cutaneous receptors – associated with the viscera

17) The pain a person experiences with acute appendicitis results from stimulating nerve endings called __________.

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A) painreceptors B) internoreceptors C) visceroreceptors D) proprioceptors E) appendoreceptors

18)

Free nerve endings respond to A) temperature change and pain. B) pressure and vibration. C) light touch and two-point discrimination. D) temperature change and pressure. E) chemicals.

19) Changes in the blood concentration of glucose, oxygen, and hydrogen are detected by __________. A) baroreceptors B) chemoreceptors C) nociceptors D) proprioceptors E) thermoreceptors

20)

Which of these combinations of general senses depends on mechanoreceptors?

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A) Touch and temperature B) Pressure and temperature C) Pressure and proprioception D) Proprioception and temperature E) Taste and smell

21) When a person is exposed to temperature extremes, why is it difficult to distinguish hot from cold objects? A) Temperature perception requires more than one type of receptor. B) Temperatures above 37 degrees centigrade actually stimulate the cold receptors. C) At extremes, pain receptors are stimulated by both very hot and very cold objects. D) Most temperature receptors cannot differentiate hot from cold. E) Pain receptors are inhibited by both very hot and very cold objects.

22)

Which of the following receptor type is mismatched with its sensation? A) Merkel disks – light touch B) Pacinian corpuscles – vibration C) Meissner corpuscles – two–point discrimination D) Ruffini end organs – temperature E) Hair follicle receptors – slight bending of the hair

23)

Specialized muscle fibers associated with detection of muscle length are __________.

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A) muscle spindles B) Pacinian corpuscles C) Ruffini end organs D) Golgi tendon organs E) Merkel disks

24) Receptors that detect stretch of a tendon and are important for control of muscle contraction are __________. A) muscle spindles B) Pacinian corpuscles C) Ruffini end organs D) Golgi tendon organs E) Meissner corpuscles

25)

Pacinian corpuscles respond to A) an increase in tendon tension. B) deep cutaneous pressure and vibration. C) stretch and tension. D) temperature and pain. E) light touch.

26)

The ability to localize the position of body parts is called __________.

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A) two-point discrimination B) proprioception C) fine touch D) light touch E) perception

27) The __________ are distributed throughout the dermal papillae and are involved in __________ touch. A) Merkel disks; very deep B) Pacinian corpuscles; very light C) Muscle spindles; fine proprioceptive D) Golgi tendon organs; limited awareness E) Meissner corpuscles; two-point discrimination

28)

All of the following nerve endings are found in the skin EXCEPT __________. A) Pacinian corpuscles B) proprioceptors C) Ruffini end organs D) Merkel disks E) Meissner corpuscles

29)

Decreased sensitivity to a continued stimulus is called __________.

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A) adaptation B) projection C) translation D) conduction E) phantom pain

30)

Superficial pain is highly localized, but visceral pain is diffuse because A) the viscera has fewer pain receptors. B) the skin has more sensitive pain receptors. C) the viscera has fewer mechanoreceptors which give location information. D) visceral pain has less emotional involvement.

31) Slowly adapting proprioceptors that would let you know the position of your thumb without looking at it are known as __________ receptors. A) phasic B) primary C) secondary D) tonic

32) Rapidly adapting proprioceptors that provide information on the location of a moving hand are known as __________ receptors. A) phasic B) primary C) secondary D) tonic

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33) Receptors that in general produce an action potential in response to a receptor potential are __________ receptors. A) phasic B) primary C) secondary D) tonic

34) Receptors that in general do not produce an action potential, but can release neurotransmitters in response to a receptor potential are __________ receptors. A) phasic B) primary C) secondary D) tonic

35)

Which of the following is an ascending pathway in the spinal cord? A) Lateral spinothalamic tract B) Rubrospinal tract C) Lateral corticospinal tract D) Tectospinal tract E) Anterior corticospinal tract

36) Terrance is told by his physician that he has lesions on one side of his spinal cord, which cut the lateral spinothalamic tract. Therefore, Terrance will have an inability to perceive

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A) sensations of touch from both sides of his body below the level of injury. B) his sense of proprioception on the same side of his body below the level of the injury. C) cutaneous sensations on the opposite side of his body below the level of injury. D) sensations of vibration on the opposite side of his body at the level of the injury. E) sensations of tickle on the same side of his body below the level of injury.

37)

In an ascending pathway, axons of the secondary neuron travel from the A) receptor to the spinal cord. B) receptor to the brain. C) spinal cord through the brainstem to the thalamus. D) thalamus to the cerebral cortex. E) spinal cord to cerebellum.

38) The portion of the dorsal column/medial lemniscal tract that carries proprioceptive sensations from nerve endings in the feet and legs is the __________. A) nucleus gracilis B) nucleus cuneatus C) fasciculus gracilis D) fasciculus cuneatus E) fasciculus nucleus

39)

The fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus would help us

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A) perceive pain. B) tell if an object is rough or smooth. C) sense temperature. D) move our arms and legs. E) write a sentence.

40)

Which of the following tract is mismatched with its description? A) Spinotectal tract – visual reflexes B) Fasciculus cuneatus – vibration from upper body half C) Spinoreticular tract – light touch D) Spinocerebellar tract – proprioception E) Spinocerebellar tract – comparator function

41) The gate control theory of pain says that pain impulses traveling through the lateral spinothalamic tract can be suppressed by increased activity of the A) anterior spinothalamic tract. B) tertiary neurons. C) extrapyramidal tracts. D) dorsal column/medial lemniscal system. E) spinocerebellar tracts.

42) Amputees frequently perceive pain in the amputated structure. This type of pain is called __________ pain.

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A) chronic B) phantom C) referred D) gate E) ghost

43) When the CNS responds to tissue damage by decreasing the pain threshold and increasing its sensitivity to pain, this is called __________. A) referred pain B) central sensitization C) peripheral sensitization D) cumulative sensitization E) phantom pain

44)

The primary somatic sensory or general sensory area is located in the A) postcentral gyrus. B) precentral gyrus. C) prefrontal gyrus. D) central sulcus. E) superior temporal gyrus.

45) The size of various regions of the primary somatic sensory cortex is proportional to the __________ sensory receptors in that area of the body.

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A) size of B) location of C) number of D) size of muscles in E) position of the

46) During brain surgery, the superior portion of the primary somatic sensory cortex of a patient is stimulated. The patient is most likely to A) flex his fingers. B) talk to the surgeon. C) smile. D) feel something touching his back. E) wiggle his toes.

47)

The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the __________ lobe. A) frontal B) temporal C) occipital D) parietal

48) Which of the following functions is most likely to be performed by the visual association area?

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A) Recognize the face of a close friend B) See the shape of the visual image C) Sense pain impulses D) Move the eyes E) See color

49) The conscious perception of cutaneous sensations occurs in the cerebral cortex, but these sensations are perceived as if they were on the surface of the body. This is called __________. A) association B) perception C) projection D) integration E) localization

50)

The taste area is located in the __________. A) insula B) parietal lobe C) frontal lobe D) temporal lobe

51)

The auditory cortex is located in the __________. A) insula B) temporal lobe C) parietal lobe D) frontal lobe

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52)

The primary motor area

A) contains sensory neurons for the face in its inferior portion. B) contains a smaller area for control of the hands than for control of the legs. C) contains neurons that control smooth muscle. D) contains more motor neurons for the thighs than the mouth. E) contains a larger area for control of the hand and fingers than for control of the arm and elbow.

53)

Upper motor neurons A) are found in the visual cortex. B) control skeletal muscles. C) are responsible for planning voluntary movements. D) are located in the prefrontal area. E) control smooth muscle.

54) If you decide to "snap your fingers," the first neurons to be stimulated are the __________ neurons. A) association B) premotor C) postmotor D) sensory

55)

Impulses that initiate motivation and forethought originate in the __________.

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A) postcentral gyrus B) precentral gyrus C) prefrontal area D) association area E) central sulcus

56) If a person decided to jump over a chair, which of the following areas organizes the motor functions needed to carry out this action? A) Visual cortex B) Premotor area C) Prefrontal area D) Auditory association area E) Visual association area

57) Which of the following statements concerning the descending pathways of the spinal cord is true? A) Most descending pathways control sensory functions. B) Many of the descending pathways decussate in the midbrain. C) Descending pathways consist of upper and lower motor neurons. D) Descending pathways must synapse in the thalamus. E) These pathways start in the spinal cord and end in the brain.

58)

Which of the following is a descending pathway in the spinal cord?

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A) Fasciculus gracilis B) Corticospinal tract C) Spinothalamic tract D) Spinoreticular tract E) Trigeminothalamic tract

59)

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Corticospinal tract – movements, especially the hands B) Corticobulbar tract – movements in the head and face C) Rubrospinal tract – two–point discrimination D) Vestibulospinal tract – maintains upright posture E) Reticulospinal – posture adjustments and walking

60) A patient has suffered a cerebral hemorrhage that has damaged the primary motor area of his right cerebral cortex. As a result the A) patient cannot voluntarily move his right arm or leg. B) patient feels no sensations on the left side of his body. C) patient cannot voluntarily move his left eye. D) patient's heart stops beating. E) patient cannot voluntarily move his left arm or leg.

61)

Indicate the order of each of the following in a descending pathway.

(1) Cerebral cortex (2) Pyramids (3) Cerebral peduncles (4) Internal capsule

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A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3, 4, 2 C) 1, 3, 2, 4 D) 2, 4, 3, 1 E) 1, 4, 3, 2

62)

Two tracts found within the extrapyramidal system are the __________. A) rubrospinal and corticospinal B) spinothalamic and tectospinal C) vestibulospinal and rubrospinal D) corticobulbar and vestibulospinal E) corticospinal and corticobulbar

63)

The extrapyramidal system A) controls the speed of skilled movements. B) maintains control of unconscious movements. C) interprets cutaneous perception. D) projects sensory information from the medulla to the cerebrum. E) control facial expression, mastication, and tongue movements.

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64) Which of the following result when the spinal cord is hemitransected (cut) on the left side? (1) Loss of pain and thermal sensations below the injury on the left side (2) Loss of pain and thermal sensations below the injury on the right side (3) Loss of fine touch and pressure sensations below the injury on the left side (4) Loss of fine touch and pressure sensations below the injury on right side (5) Loss of fine motor control on the right side below the injury (6) Loss of fine motor control on the left side below the injury A) 1, 3, 5 B) 2, 4, 6 C) 2, 3, 6 D) 1, 3, 4, 6 E) 1, 4, 5, 6

65)

A lesion in the red nucleus results in __________ tremors. A) resting B) intention C) sleeping D) reflex

66)

Lesion of the basal nuclei could cause A) loss of memory. B) uncontrolled rage. C) fluent but circular speech. D) a slight shaking of the hands or head. E) loss of sensation.

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67)

The cerebellum functions as a comparator. This means that the cerebellum compares A) the incoming sensory stimuli with the outgoing sensory stimuli. B) intended movements with actual movements. C) spinal cord activity with the activity of the cerebrum. D) the right cerebellar hemisphere with the left cerebellar hemisphere. E) and coordinates rapid, complex movements like figure skating.

68)

A nurse is caring for a patient who exhibits the following symptoms:

(1) Inability to maintain balance while walking (2) Normal intelligence (3) Can initiate voluntary movements, although they are somewhat uncoordinated (4) Decreased tone in the skeletal muscles The patient is probably suffering from a condition that affected the __________. A) midbrain B) cerebellum C) basal ganglia D) cerebral cortex E) brainstem

69)

Which of the following would you observe in a patient with a tumor of the cerebellum? A) Loss of general sensation B) Balance impairment C) No heartbeat D) Increased sex drive E) No conscious thought

70)

A primary function of the cerebellum is to __________.

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A) interpret sound B) coordinate movement C) control body temperature D) regulate consciousness E) regulate sleep patterns

71)

Damage to the cerebellum is likely to cause A) decreased muscle tone. B) balance impairment. C) the tendency to overshoot when reaching for an object. D) an intention tremor. E) All of the choices are correct.

72)

Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebellum? A) Learning to play the harp B) Keeping time with music C) Sleep-wake cycle D) Coordination of skeletal muscles

73)

Which neurotransmitter has been implicated in Parkinson's disease? A) Norepinephrine B) Dopamine C) Serotonin D) GABA E) Acetylcholine

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74)

The brainstem A) includes nuclei of cranial nerves II – XII. B) contains centers for several vital reflexes like heart rate and blood pressure. C) contains the reticular formation. D) contains nuclei for vomiting and sneezing reflexes. E) All of the choices are correct.

75)

Wernicke area is necessary for A) motivation. B) understanding and formulating coherent speech. C) initiating the muscular movements of speech. D) processing visual images. E) smiling.

76)

Damage to Wernicke area would result in A) facial paralysis. B) facial tics. C) aphasia. D) "seeing stars". E) apraxia.

77)

If the Broca area is damaged, the result is

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A) loss of memory. B) impairment in the movement of the right leg. C) blindness. D) hesitant and distorted speech. E) inability to think of things to say.

78) Various areas of the cortex form functional pathways to conduct action potentials necessary to perform specific functions. Arrange the areas below in proper sequence to accomplish reading a poem aloud. (1) Visual association area (2) Premotor area (3) Broca area (4) Primary motor area (5) Wernicke area (6) Visual cortex A) 1, 6, 5, 3, 4, 2 B) 6, 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 C) 6, 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 D) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 3 E) 5, 4, 3, 6, 1, 2

79) Which of the cortical areas listed below is most likely to be stimulated first when repeating a word you just heard spoken? A) Auditory association area B) Broca area C) Primary motor area D) Primary auditory cortex E) Wernicke area

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80)

The right cerebral hemisphere A) receives sensory input from the left side of the body. B) is the dominant hemisphere for speech in most people. C) tends to be smaller than the left cerebral hemisphere. D) contains no association areas. E) is not connected to the left cerebral hemisphere.

81)

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Left cerebral hemisphere – analytical hemisphere B) Left cerebral hemisphere – speech area for most of the population C) Right cerebral hemisphere – recognition of faces D) Left cerebral hemisphere – spatial perception E) Left cerebral hemisphere – mathematics

82) A person suffering a stroke in the right parietal lobe may lose the ability to recognize faces. This is called __________. A) aphasia B) apraxia C) athetosis D) amorphosynthesis E) incoherency

83) The type of brain waves observed in an individual who is awake but in a quiet resting state with eyes closed are __________ waves.

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A) alpha B) beta C) delta D) theta E) gamma

84) Brain waves associated with information processing or problem solving are __________ waves. A) alpha B) beta C) delta D) theta E) kappa

85)

In short-term memory, A) information is retained for less than a second. B) the frontal lobe plays the most important role. C) current information is lost when new information is presented. D) there is increased synaptic activity by long-term potentiation. E) there is consolidation of information.

86)

In working memory,

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A) information is retained for less than a second. B) the frontal lobe plays the most important role. C) current information is lost when new information is presented. D) there is increased synaptic activity by long-term potentiation. E) there is consolidation of information.

87)

Long-term memory may involve A) an influx of potassium ions into the neuron. B) activating substance P. C) a change in the shape of the neuron's cytoskeleton. D) forming a nerve plexus. E) rearranging neurons in the brain.

88) CREB activates gene transcription in neurons that results in the formation of __________. A) myelin sheath B) dendritic spines C) more receptors D) All of the choices are correct.

89) A series of neurons involved in long-term retention of a thought is called a/an __________.

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A) EEG B) brain wave C) memory engram D) short-term memory E) memory trace

90)

A patient with a lesion in the hippocampus may have decreased __________. A) sensory memory B) Pavlovian reflexes C) procedural memory D) declarative memory E) short term memory

91)

Procedural memory is stored primarily in the A) hippocampus and amygdala. B) central sulcus and Wernicke's area. C) cerebellum and premotor area of cerebral cortex. D) temporal lobe and frontal lobe. E) pons and midbrain.

92) A baseball pitcher was hit on the side of the head by a line drive. When he was revived, he could not remember how many balls and strikes the batter had. This was because

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A) short-term memory had not been converted to working memory. B) he lost both working and short-term memory. C) long-term memory had not been converted to working memory. D) he lost long-term memory. E) None of the choices are correct.

93)

Which of the following is an example of procedural or implicit memory? A) Remembering your name B) Performing a choreographed dance C) Locating Russia on a globe D) Being afraid of snakes E) Reciting a poem

94)

Lesions of the limbic system might result in A) a voracious appetite. B) enhanced fear and anger responses. C) decreased sexual activity. D) loss of coordination. E) loss of sensation.

95)

A major source of sensory input into the limbic system is the sense of __________. A) vision B) taste C) touch D) smell

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96)

As the nervous system ages A) reflexes become faster. B) cutaneous sensation becomes more acute. C) blood pressure decreases. D) reflexes become slower. E) size and weight of the brain increases.

97)

Which of the following is an example of adaptation of sensory receptors? A) Ignoring the presence of clothes B) Being aware of our body parts at all times C) Continual monitoring touch signals

98) Sensory __________ is the ability the brain has to prioritize the sensory input it receives and to ignore unimportant stimuli. A) adaptation B) perception C) sensation

99)

A decreased sensitivity to a continued stimulus defines the term __________. A) adaptation B) perception C) sensation D) conditioning

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100)

Select the structure considered a primary receptor. A) Pacinian corpuscle B) Balance receptor C) Hearing receptor D) Taste receptor

101) The senses of taste and smell both utilize receptor cells that are categorized as __________. A) primary receptors B) secondary receptors C) mechanoreceptors D) chemoreceptors

102)

The __________ tract and the __________ tract make up the pyramidal system. A) corticobulbar; spinocerebellar B) corticospinal; corticobulbar C) reticulospinal; spinothalamic D) rubrospinal; reticulospinal

103) Visual input is sent to the brainstem via the __________ nerve, whereas the __________ nerve sends facial sensation to the brainstem.

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A) facial; trochlear B) optic; facial C) optic; trigeminal D) trigeminal; accessory

104) The region of the limbic system that is involved in the feeling of satisfaction with sex and feeding behaviors is the ______. A) amygdala B) cingulate gyrus C) hippocampus D) thalamus

105)

What sense is a source of major input into the limbic system? A) Equilibrium B) Hearing C) Olfaction D) Soft touch E) Taste F) Vision

106) A patient has presented with an abnormal reflex response. In response to a flash of light, the patient will move his eyes towards the light but not turn his head. Which of the following may explain the condition?

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A) The patient has damage to the accessory nerve (XI), affecting his ability to reflexively turn his head. B) The patient has damage to the oculomotor nerve (III), affecting his ability to coordinate eye movement and head movement. C) The patient has damage to his trochlear nerve (IV), accentuating his ability to move his eyes and rendering the need to move the head unnecessary. D) The patient has damage to the occipital lobe of the cerebrum, causing him to be blind to the flash of light.

107)

Which of the following would indicate a possible lesion of the trigeminal nerve (V)?

A) Lack of chewing reflex when an item is placed in the oral cavity B) Lack of ability to move the head in response to a loud noise C) Delayed visual tracking of a moving object D) Both "lack of ability to move the head in response to a loud noise" and "delayed visual tracking of a moving object" are correct.

108)

Lack of a gag reflex would indicate dysfunction of the __________ nerve. A) glossopharyngeal B) trochlear C) trigeminal D) accessory

109) Trina, a 72-year-old retired nurse, presents with the following: difficulty swallowing, easily fatigued, impaired gag reflex. Which of the symptoms is most likely the result of aging?

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A) Easily fatigued B) Difficulty swallowing C) Impaired gag reflex D) None of the choices are correct.

110) Tyler has noticed lately that he doesn't feel pain in his left arm. Which of the following might explain his issue? A) Damage to the spinothalamic pathway B) Lack of decussation in the fasciculus gracilis tract of the dorsal column medial lemniscal pathway C) Damage to the anterior spinocerebellar pathway D) Damage to the tectospinal pathway

111) Abby is trying to focus on her A&P exam, but she feels something crawling along the back of her arm. Alarmed, she jumps up and brushes away a small spider. Which of the following does Abby have to thank for alerting her to this issue? A) Spinothalamic tract B) Fasciculus gracilis tract C) Spinocerebellar pathway D) Tectospinal tract

112) Gladys had a stroke that has left her unable to detect certain sensations of her face. Based on this information, which region of the brain is most likely affected?

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A) Parietal lobe, in middle region of the postcentral gyrus B) Parietal lobe, in the most inferior region of the postcentral gyrus C) Frontal lobe, in middle region of the precentral gyrus D) Frontal lobe, in most inferior region of the precentral gyrus

113) Alan has experienced several stokes over the past few months. He is unable to move his right arm and leg. In addition, he is having difficulty speaking. Which of the following areas is most likely affected? A) Left frontal lobe of the cerebrum B) Right frontal lobe of the cerebrum C) Left parietal lobe of the cerebrum D) Right parietal lobe of the cerebrum

114)

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114.1)

Label area "A" on the cerebral cortex.

A) Visual cortex B) Primary motor cortex C) Primary somatosensory cortex D) Motor speech area (Broca area) E) Sensory speech area (Wernicke area)

114.2)

Label area "B" on the cerebral cortex.

A) Visual cortex B) Primary motor cortex C) Primary somatosensory cortex D) Motor speech area (Broca area) E) Sensory speech area (Wernicke area)

114.3)

Label area "C" on the cerebral cortex.

A) Visual cortex B) Primary motor cortex C) Primary somatosensory cortex D) Motor speech area (Broca area) E) Sensory speech area (Wernicke area)

114.4)

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Label area "D" on the cerebral cortex.

A) Visual cortex B) Primary motor cortex C) Primary somatosensory cortex D) Motor speech area (Broca area) E) Sensory speech area (Wernicke area)

114.5)

Label area "E" on the cerebral cortex.

A) Visual cortex B) Primary motor cortex C) Primary somatosensory cortex D) Motor speech area (Broca'sarea) E) Sensory speech area (Wernicke area)

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115)

115.1) The diagram illustrates sensory receptors in the skin. What structure does "A" represent? A) Meissner corpuscles B) Free nerve endings C) Ruffini end organ D) Pacinian corpuscle E) Merkel disks

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115.2) The diagram illustrates sensory receptors in the skin. What structure does "B" represent? A) Meissner corpuscles B) Free nerve endings C) Ruffini end organ D) Pacinian corpuscle E) Merkel disks

115.3) The diagram illustrates sensory receptors in the skin. What structure does "C" represent? A) Meissner corpuscles B) Free nerve endings C) Ruffini end organ D) Pacinian corpuscle E) Merkel disks

115.4) The diagram illustrates sensory receptors in the skin. What structure does "D" represent? A) Meissner corpuscles B) Free nerve endings C) Ruffini end organ D) Pacinian corpuscle E) Merkel disks

115.5) The diagram illustrates sensory receptors in the skin. What structure does "E" represent? Version 1

A) Meissner corpuscles B) Free nerve endings C) Ruffini end organ D) Pacinian corpuscle E) Merkel disks

116)

116.1)

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What is the function of the sensory receptor of the skin labeled "A"?

A) Detects deep pressure, vibration, and proprioception B) Responds to painful stimuli and temperature C) Responds to light touch and superficial pressure D) Detects touch, involved in 2-point discrimination E) Detects continuous touch or pressure

116.2)

What is the function of the sensory receptor of the skin labeled "B"?

A) Detects deep pressure, vibration, and proprioception B) Responds to painful stimuli C) Responds to light touch and superficial pressure D) Detects touch, involved in 2-point discrimination E) Detects continuous touch or pressure

116.3)

What is the function of the sensory receptor of the skin labeled "C"?

116.4)

What is the function of the sensory receptor of the skin labeled "D"?

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116.5)

What is the function of the sensory receptor of the skin labeled "E"?

117)

Match the type of brain wave with its appropriate description.

A. Usually occur in children or in adults experiencing frustration B. Observed in a person who is awake, quiet, and resting, with eyes closed C. Occur in deep sleep, infancy, and patients with brain disorders D. Occur during intense mental activity

117.1)

Alpha waves

117.2)

Beta waves

117.3)

Theta waves

117.4)

Delta waves

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118)

Match the term with its definition.

A. The part of the brain involved in actual declarative memory B. The largest of the cerebral commissures C. A factor than activates gene transcription for formation of dendritic spines D. A series of neurons involved in long-term memory E. A part of the temporal lobe involved in adding emotional overtones to a memory

119)

118.1)

CREB

118.2)

Memory engram

118.3)

Hippocampus

118.4)

Amygdala

118.5)

Corpus callosum

Match the sensation with the appropriate receptor type.

A. Mechanoreceptors B. Thermoreceptors C. Nociceptors D. Chemoreceptors E. Photoreceptors

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120)

119.1)

Merkel disks

119.2)

Hair follicle receptors

119.3)

Pacinian corpuscles

119.4)

Meissner corpuscles

119.5)

Ruffini end organs

True or False? All aspects of a memory are stored together in the brain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) True or False? The conscious awareness of stimuli received by sensory receptors is called perception. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

122)

True or False? The sense of taste is an example of a general sense. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) True or False? Visceroreceptors are receptors associated with joints, tendons, and other connective tissue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

124) True or False? The simplest and most common type of sensory nerve endings are free nerve endings. ⊚ ⊚

125)

true false

True or False? The sensory speech area is Broca area. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) True or False? The ability to detect simultaneous stimulation at two points on the skin is called two-point discrimination. ⊚ ⊚

127)

true false

True or False? The EEG of a normal person exhibits mostly irregular patterns. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 14_13e_ VanPutte 1) [A, C] 2) [B, C, E] 3) [A, B] 4) [A, B] 5) [C, D, E] 6) [B, C, D, E] 7) [C, D, E] 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) E 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) B 26) B Version 1

27) E 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) C 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) B 43) B 44) A 45) C 46) D 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) B 52) E 53) B 54) B 55) C 56) B Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) C 60) E 61) E 62) C 63) B 64) C 65) B 66) D 67) B 68) B 69) B 70) B 71) E 72) C 73) B 74) E 75) B 76) C 77) D 78) B 79) D 80) A 81) D 82) D 83) A 84) B 85) D 86) C Version 1

87) C 88) B 89) C 90) D 91) C 92) B 93) B 94) A 95) D 96) D 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) A 101) D 102) B 103) C 104) B 105) C 106) A 107) A 108) A 109) A 110) A 111) A 112) A 113) A 114) Section Break 114.1) B 114.2) C Version 1

114.3) D 114.4) E 114.5) A 115) Section Break 115.1) B 115.2) E 115.3) A 115.4) C 115.5) D 116) Section Break 116.1) B 116.2) C 116.3) D 116.4) E 116.5) A 117) Section Break 117.1) B 117.2) D 117.3) A 117.4) C 118) Section Break 118.1) C 118.2) D 118.3) A 118.4) E 118.5) B 119) Section Break 119.1) E 119.2) D 119.3) C Version 1

119.4) B 119.5) A 120) FALSE 121) TRUE 122) FALSE 123) FALSE 124) TRUE 125) FALSE 126) TRUE 127) TRUE

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CHAPTER 15 1) Which of the following correctly differentiates endolymph and perilymph? (Check all that apply.) A) Endolymph has a high concentration of K+ and a low concentration of Na+ compared to perilymph. B) Endolymph has a low concentration of K+ and a high concentration of Na+ compared to perilymph. C) Endolymph is between the membranous labyrinth and the bony labyrinth, and perilymph is within the membranous labyrinth. D) Endolymph is within the membranous labyrinth, and perilymph is between the membranous labyrinth and the bony labyrinth.

2) Identify the structures that receive axons from the vestibular nucleus of medulla. (Check all that apply.) A) Cerebellum B) Extrinsic eye muscles C) Semicircular canals D) Thalamus

Select components of the neuronal pathway for balance. (Check all that apply.) A) Facial nerve ganglion B) Thalamus C) Vestibular nucleus D) Vestibulocochlear nerve

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4) Arrange the following to reflect the correct sequence an action potential would follow to reach the olfactory cortex of the brain: (1) Olfactory bulb (2) Olfactory cortex (3) Olfactory epithelium (4) Olfactory tract A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 3, 4, 1, 2 C) 1, 4, 2, 3 D) 3, 1, 4, 2 E) 4, 3, 2, 1

Why does inhaling deeply and slowly through the nose help to identify an odor? A) More air containing the odor is brought into contact with the olfactory epithelium. B) Impulses originate slowly in the olfactory epithelium. C) The tissue needs more time in contact with the odor. D) Threshold for odor detection is high. E) Receptors in the olfactory epithelium are highly specific.

In order for a molecule to be detected by the olfactory neurons, it must A) be present in high concentrations. B) be one of the seven primary classes of odors. C) be dissolved in fluid covering the olfactory epithelium. D) interact with the mechanoreceptors of the olfactory hair membrane. E) enter the nose slowly.

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7) You are an airborne molecule that dissolves in the fluid covering the olfactory epithelium. Which of the following must you do in order to depolarize neurons in the olfactory epithelium? A) Stimulate mitral cells B) Release acetylcholine C) Cause proliferation of basal cells D) Bind to receptor molecules on the olfactory hair membrane E) Lower the threshold of the cell

Secondary olfactory areas A) are involved in emotional reactions to odors. B) is the site of conscious perception of odors. C) generates action potentials in olfactory neurons. D) modulates the sense of olfaction within the olfactory bulb. E) is the area where chemicals bind to receptors.

Which of the following statements concerning olfaction is true? A) Damaged olfactory neurons are replaced. B) Olfactory epithelial receptors are highly specific. C) Olfaction first goes to the thalamus and is then relayed to the cerebral cortex. D) Continued stimulation of olfactory neurons produces the same level of response. E) Replacement of neurons is a common phenomenon in the body.

10) Which of the following special senses is relayed directly to the cerebral cortex without going to the thalamus?

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A) Olfaction B) Taste C) Vision D) Hearing E) Touch

11)

For which of the following special senses are the receptor cells bipolar neurons? A) Equilibrium B) Hearing C) Olfaction D) Taste

12) Which of the special senses contains receptor neurons that are the only nerve cells in direct contact with the outside environment? A) Equilibrium B) Hearing C) Olfaction D) Taste E) Vision

13) Which molecule is activated from the binding of an odorant to transmembranous receptor molecules on olfactory hairs? A) cAMP B) Calmodulin C) Troponin D) G protein

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14)

Which ion causes depolarization in olfactory neurons? A) Na+ B) Ca2+ C) K+ D) Both Na+ and K+ are correct. E) Both Na+ and Ca2+ are correct.

15)

Which of the following is NOT a primary odor class? A) Umami B) Floral C) Putrid D) Pepperminty E) Ethereal

16)

The central olfactory cortex areas are located in the_________blank. A) frontal and temporal lobes B) frontal and parietal lobes C) parietal and temporal lobes D) temporal and occipital lobes

17)

Sensory structures that detect taste are_________blank.

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A) palates B) papillae C) taste buds D) ciliary membranes E) thermoreceptors

18)

Taste buds are not associated with_________blank papillae. A) foliate B) filiform C) fungiform D) vallate E) papilliform

19)

The most sensitive taste buds are found in_________blank papillae. A) formate B) filiform C) fungiform D) vallate E) foliate

20)

Taste buds A) can perceive seven basic tastes. B) are replaced approximately every 30 days. C) can only perceive taste if the molecules are in solution. D) can be found covering both the superior and inferior surfaces of the tongue. E) have axons and generate their own action potentials.

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21)

Which of the following statements concerning the sense of taste is false? A) Each taste bud is most sensitive to one of the five basic tastes. B) Sensitivity of taste buds for sweet taste is very high. C) Adaptation for taste is rapid. D) Olfaction influences taste. E) Sensitivities for sweet and salty tastes are the lowest.

22)

To which of the following substances would the taste buds be most sensitive? A) Syrup B) Vinegar C) Salt water D) Quinine (tonic) water E) Jelly

23) Following a stroke, Harriet has impaired sense of taste on one side of the tip of her tongue, indicating the part of her brain that was affected must communicate with the _________blank nerve. A) facial B) abducens C) trigeminal D) glossopharyngeal E) vagus

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24)

Arrange the following in correct sequence:

(1) Taste cell depolarizes. (2) Action potential stimulated in sensory neuron associated with taste cell. (3) Food substance dissolves in saliva. (4) Neurotransmitter released by taste cell. (5) Food substance enters taste pore and attaches to receptor on taste hair. A) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3 B) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 C) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2 D) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 E) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

25) You taste a sauce with the "tip of your tongue." These taste sensations would be carried via the_________blank cranial nerve. A) facial (VII) B) vagus (X) C) trigeminal (V) D) glossopharyngeal (IX) E) hypoglossal (XII)

26)

The newest taste to be described is_________blank. A) bitter B) salty C) sweet D) umami E) sour

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27)

Which type of taste has the lowest threshold? A) Sweet B) Bitter C) Salty D) Sour E) Umami

28)

The sense of taste is called_________blank. A) olfaction B) perception C) gustation D) tastant E) mastication

29)

Which of the following is NOT a cell type found in taste buds? A) Mitral cells B) Supporting cells C) Basal cells D) Taste cells

30)

Which tastant is NOT correctly matched with its process of depolarization?

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A) Salty – Na+ B) Umami – G protein C) Bitter – K+ D) Sour – H+ E) Sweet – G protein

31)

The taste cortex is located in the_________blank. A) frontal lobe B) insula C) temporal lobe D) parietal lobe

32)

Which of the following structures is considered to be an accessory structure of the eye? A) Lens B) Retina C) Sclera D) Palpebrae E) Cornea

33)

Palpebrae is another name for the_________blank. A) eyes B) eyelids C) eyebrows D) eyelashes E) conjunctiva

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34) Some thyroid disorders are characterized by an increase in the width of the palpebral fissure. This would be an increase in the distance between the_________blank. A) eyebrows B) eyelashes C) eyelids D) eyes E) lacrimal glands

35)

The blink reflex functions to_________blank. A) maintain balance B) regulate pupil size C) provide clearer vision D) keep the eyes moist E) orient the eyes

36)

An inflammation of one of the ciliary glands of the eyelashes is called a_________blank. A) sty B) boil C) chalazion D) meibomian cyst E) pinkeye

37) The transparent mucous membrane that covers the anterior white surface of the eye is the_________blank.

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A) conjunctival fornix B) surface conjunctiva C) bulbar conjunctiva D) palpebral conjunctiva E) sclera

38)

Pinkeye is an acute inflammation of the_________blank. A) retina B) choroid C) sclera D) conjunctiva E) lacrimal gland

39)

The lacrimal glands A) cause a sty when inflamed. B) constantly produce a fluid called tears. C) are located in the superomedial corner of the orbit. D) are innervated by parasympathetic fibers from the oculomotor nerve. E) produce sebum.

40)

Tears A) are produced only when a person cries. B) wash foreign objects away from the eye. C) contain lysozyme to trap dust. D) are very acidic and kill microbes. E) contain little water.

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41)

Why does a person's nose run when he cries? A) Tears drain into the nasal cavity via the nasolacrimal duct. B) Parasympathetic nerve stimulation causes the nose to secrete mucus. C) Intense stimulation of the facial nerve as a result of crying increases nasal secretions. D) The lacrimal glands secrete tears directly into the nose. E) This stimulates fluid production in the nose.

42)

Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT innervate extrinsic eye muscles? A) Oculomotor B) Abducens C) Trochlear D) Optic

43)

The outermost tunic of the eyeball is the_________blank. A) iris B) sclera C) retina D) choroid E) conjunctiva

44)

The transparent anterior portion of the fibrous tunic is the_________blank.

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A) iris B) retina C) cornea D) choroid E) pupil

45)

Increased fluid accumulation in the cornea would result in A) a scattering of light rays. B) loss of pigment in the eye. C) a decrease in the strength of the tissue. D) an increase in the ability to transmit light to the retina. E) blockage of light rays.

46)

The cornea A) is highly vascular. B) maintains the shape of the eye. C) is white like the rest of the sclera. D) is part of the focusing system of the eye. E) does not contain connective tissue.

47)

The cornea is relatively easy to transplant because A) its proteoglycan content is high. B) it is easy to access and is avascular. C) it has anextensive blood supply. D) its highimmunological activity prevents infection. E) it is not attached to the eye.

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48)

Which of the following structures is part of the vascular tunic? A) Iris B) Retina C) Optic disc D) Fovea centralis E) Cornea

49)

The ciliary body A) contains rods and cones. B) is continuous with the sclera. C) consists of a ciliary ring and ciliary processes. D) produces vitreous humor. E) is photosensitive.

50)

The contractile structure that surrounds the pupil is the_________blank. A) iris B) ciliary ring C) sclera D) ciliary muscle E) retina

51) In bright sunlight, the diameter of the pupil_________blank due to contraction of the_________blank.

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A) decreases; ciliary muscles B) increases; dilator pupillae C) decreases; sphincter pupillae D) decreases; suspensory ligaments E) increases; ciliary ring

52)

Which of the following is NOT an intrinsic eye muscle? A) Ciliary muscles B) Inferior oblique muscle C) Sphincter pupillae muscle D) Dilator pupillae muscle

53)

Which of the following are associated with the retina? A) Lens and cones B) Ciliary muscles and iris C) Pupil and cornea D) Suspensory ligaments E) Rods and cones

54)

The area of greatest visual acuity is the_________blank. A) lens B) fovea centralis C) optic disc D) posterior chamber E) blind spot

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55)

Blood vessels enter the eye and nerve processes exit the eye at the_________blank. A) optic disc B) macula lutea C) sensory retina D) fovea centralis E) pupil

56)

The optic disc A) is located in the vascular tunic. B) is the site of greatest visual acuity. C) is also called the macula lutea. D) is on the anterior surface of the eye. E) contains no photoreceptor cells.

57) The only place in the body where blood vessels can be viewed directly is the_________blank. A) retina B) optic chiasm C) sclera D) cornea E) conjunctiva

58)

The anterior and posterior chambers of the eye are separated by the_________blank.

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A) lens B) retina C) cornea D) iris E) optic disc

59)

The_________blank separates the posterior chamber from the vitreous chamber. A) iris B) choroid C) lens D) sclera

60)

Which of the following functions is carried out by both aqueous and vitreous humor? A) Cleanses the eye B) Nourishment of the eye C) Refraction of light rays D) Generation of a visual image E) Controls the amount of light entering the eye

61)

Vitreous humor A) is produced on a daily basis. B) is less viscous than aqueous humor. C) does not contribute to intraocular pressure. D) helps to hold the lens and retina in place. E) is located in theanterior chamber.

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62)

Glaucoma can result from A) inhibition of the circulation of aqueous humor. B) damage to the suspensory ligament. C) a decrease in the number of cones. D) opacity of the lens. E) increased amounts of vitreous humor.

63)

The lens A) is biconcave. B) focuses light on the retina. C) floats in the vitreous humor. D) is attached to the retina by suspensory ligaments. E) is normally opaque.

64)

Which of the following is correctly matched? A) Sclera – ciliary body B) Iris – sphincter pupillae C) Retina – canal of Schlemm D) Vitreous humor – anterior chamber E) Aqueous humor – vitreous chamber

65)

Light refracts as it passes through the

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A) vitreous humor, sclera, and iris. B) lens, aqueous humor, and sclera. C) cornea, retina, and vitreous humor. D) lens, cornea, and humors of the eye. E) sclera, iris, and retina.

66)

For distant vision, A) the lens is more spherical. B) the suspensory ligaments relax. C) the ciliary muscles are relaxed. D) light is refracted more by the lens than by the humors. E) the lens is thickened.

67)

To focus on objects closer than 20 feet, A) the lens must become flatter. B) the cornea must move inward. C) the ciliary muscles must contract. D) the suspensory ligaments increase tension on the lens. E) the retina must bend.

68) Amanda has no visual impairments, but has noticed that in order to see clearly she must hold books farther from her face in order to read. What is happening to Amanda's vision?

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A) Her lens is becoming more rigid with age. B) Her lens is becoming more opaque with age. C) Her lens is becoming more convex with age. D) Her vitreous humor is becoming thicker with age. E) Her lens is becoming more flexible with age.

69)

When you try to focus on the tip of your nose, A) the pupils dilate. B) the ciliary muscles relax. C) the lens becomes more spherical. D) the tension on the suspensory ligament increases. E) the lens becomes flatter.

70)

As an object moves closer to the eye, A) the lens flattens. B) the eyes rotate medially. C) the ciliary muscles relax. D) the diameter of the pupil increases. E) the eye blinks.

71)

The main factor affecting depth of focus is_________blank. A) convergence B) accommodation C) the shape of the lens D) the size of the lens E) the size of the pupil

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72)

Albinism in which there is an absence of melanin pigment would affect the individual's A) color perception. B) visual acuity and prevent scattering of light inside the eye. C) protection of the optic nerves from damage. D) ability to remove wastes from the eye. E) total vision, as it always results in blindness.

73)

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the retina? A) Ganglion cells B) Photoreceptors C) Optic chiasm D) Optic disc E) Fovea centralis

74)

Rhodopsin is found in the_________blank. A) rods B) cones C) choroid D) pigmented retina E) amacrine cells

75)

Night blindness could be caused by

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A) a lack of cones. B) a lack of iodopsin. C) a lack of rhodopsin. D) too much vitamin A in the diet. E) a lack of vitamin C in the diet.

76)

Rods, a type of photoreceptor cell, respond to light (stimulus) by A) depolarizing. B) repolarizing. C) hypopolarizing. D) hyperpolarizing. E) opening Na+ channels in the plasma membrane.

77)

When rhodopsin is exposed to light, A) more rhodopsin is formed. B) retinal separates from opsin. C) the cones generate action potentials. D) free retinal is converted to vitamin A. E) retinal becomes more attached to opsin.

78)

What is activated when light causes 11- cis-retinal to convert to all- trans-retinal? A) Opsin B) Transducin C) ATP D) Glutamate

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79)

Light and dark adaptation involve A) pupillary reflexes. B) variations in rod and cone function. C) changes in the amount of available rhodopsin. D) All of the choices are correct.

80)

Color vision A) is a function of cone cells. B) is most acute in dim light. C) is interpreted in the cerebellum. D) depends on the amount of available rhodopsin. E) is the interaction between rods and cones.

81)

To which colors are the three different kinds of cones sensitive? A) Blue, red, and yellow B) Red, blue, and green C) Red, violet, and yellow D) Violet, green, and blue E) Orange, indigo, and violet

82)

Humans are able to distinguish several million shades of color because

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A) humans have large retinas. B) humans have binocular vision. C) they have many different types of cone cells. D) different proportions of cone cells respond to each wavelength of light. E) humans have more cones than rods.

83)

Which of the following statements concerning vision is false?

A) Rods cannot detect color. B) The visual pigment of cones is iodopsin. C) Most of the optic tract axons terminate in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. D) Association neurons in the inner retinal layers modify signals of rods and cones. E) Most of the optic tract axons terminate in the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.

84)

The photoreceptor cells are located A) on the surface of the retina. B) in the ganglionic layer of the retina. C) in the photoreceptive layer of the retina. D) in the choroid layer of the retina. E) in the pigment cell layer of the retina.

85)

The correct pathway for impulses leaving the retina is

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A) photoreceptors, ganglion cells, bipolar cells, and optic nerve. B) photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, and optic nerve. C) photoreceptors, bipolar cells, optic nerve, and ganglion cells. D) photoreceptors, ganglion cells, optic nerve, and bipolar cells. E) ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptors, and optic nerve.

86)

Arrange the following events detailing the visual pathway in correct sequence:

(1) Retinal cells generate action potential (2) Person becomes aware of the information obtained by CNS (3) Visual cortex translates action potential (4) Bright light is shone into the eye (5) Optic nerve conducts action potential to CNS A) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2 B) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 C) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2 D) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 E) 4, 3, 5, 2, 1

87) Damage to the left side of the brain near the visual cortex could result in which of the following visual changes? A) Loss of temporal visual fields from both eyes B) Loss of nasal visual fields from both eyes C) Loss of right visual fields from both eyes D) Loss of left visual fields from both eyes E) None of the choices are correct.

88)

A person loses all vision in their left eye. One possible cause could be damage to the

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A) optic chiasma. B) left optic tract. C) optic nerve in the left eye. D) right lateral geniculate nucleus. E) right visual cortex in the occipital lobe.

89)

Which of the following situations would have the greatest effect on depth perception? A) Having a deficiency of vitamin D B) Having conjunctivitis C) The amount of pupillary dilation D) Losing one eye in an accident E) The local climate where one lives

90) The age-associated changes that result in loss of accommodation of the eyes is called_________blank. A) myopia B) hyperopia C) presbyopia D) retinopia E) astigmatism

91) Which part of the eye is referred to in the statement "Don't fire until you see the whites of their eyes"?

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A) Conjunctiva B) Choroid C) Retina D) Sclera E) Pupil

92)

Which of the following statements is NOT true of hyperopia? A) Corrected by "minus" lenses B) Close objects are fuzzy C) Eyeball is too short D) Corrected by convex lenses E) Image focused behind the retina

93)

Which auditory ossicle is attached to the tympanic membrane? A) Labyrinth B) Incus C) Malleus D) Stapes E) Oval window

94)

Damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve would result in some loss of_________blank. A) hearing and balance B) hearing and taste C) smell D) taste E) hearing and sight

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95) The sensation of hearing occurs when sensory impulses from the ears are transmitted to the auditory cortex in the_________blank lobe from the_________blank nerve. A) occipital; trochlear B) occipital; vestibulocochlear C) temporal; trochlear D) temporal; vestibulocochlear E) parietal; abducens

96)

Which portion of the ear contains the sensory receptors for hearing and balance? A) External ear B) Middle ear C) Inner ear D) Auditory tube E) Tympanic membrane

97)

The external ear terminates at the_________blank. A) pinna B) oval window C) tympanic membrane D) internal auditory meatus E) ossicles

98)

The auditory tube

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A) amplifies sound waves. B) helps maintain balance. C) carries sound to the eardrum. D) carries sound to the inner ear. E) equalizes air pressure between the middle ear and outside air.

99) Rapid changes in altitude can rupture the tympanic membrane. Symptoms that may occur include A) dizziness. B) lightheadedness. C) feeling of a "full" ear. D) ringing in the ears. E) hearingimpairment.

100)

The malleus, incus, and stapes A) are parts of the cochlea. B) are located in the inner ear. C) are surrounded by endolymph. D) transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window. E) are surrounded by fluid.

101)

Sensory receptors for balance are found in the_________blank.

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A) pinna B) cochlea C) auditory ossicles D) semicircular canals E) auditory tube

102)

Which of the following sequences is correct? A) Oval window, vestibule, scala vestibuli B) Round window, helicotrema, scala tympani C) Bony labyrinth, round window, basilar membrane D) Tympanic membrane, vestibular membrane, basilar membrane E) Vestibular membrane, basilar membrane, auditory membrane

103)

Which of the following statements concerning the inner ear is true? A) The cochlear duct is filled with perilymph. B) The bony core of the cochlea is called the modiolus. C) The footplate of the incus fits into the round window. D) The vestibule is one of the regions of the organ of corti. E) The spiral organ is found in the semicircular canals.

104)

Which of the following is part of the spiral organ (organ of Corti)? A) Modiolus B) Vestibule C) Tectorial membrane D) Scala tympani E) Chorda tympani

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105)

Which of the following is a part of the bony labyrinth? A) Malleus B) Vestibule C) Cochlear duct D) Tympanic membrane E) Ossicles

106)

The sensory cells for hearing are located in the_________blank. A) spiral organ (organ of Corti) B) oval window C) middle ear D) vestibule E) semicircular canals

107)

What connects the stereocilia in a hair bundle? A) Calcium channels B) Tip links C) Spiral ligaments D) Outer hair cells

108)

As a stereocilium bends, the tip link pulls_________blank gates open.

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A) Na+ B) Ca2+ C) Cl− D) K+

109)

Which of the following definitions best describes the timbre of sounds? A) Loudness B) Amplitude C) Wave frequency D) Resonance quality E) Pitch

110)

The direction from which a sound is coming can be determined by the A) volume of the sound. B) frequency of sound waves. C) amplitude of the sound waves. D) differences in the time that sound waves take to reach each ear. E) timbre of sounds.

111) Arrange the following structures in the order in which they vibrate when a sound wave enters the ear. (1) Auditory ossicles (2) Endolymph (3) Oval window (4) Perilymph (5) Tympanic membrane

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A) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2 B) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2 C) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 D) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 E) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2

112)

The attenuation reflex A) amplifies loud noises. B) enhances low frequency sounds. C) prevents damage to delicate ear structures. D) involves the scala vestibuli and the scala tympani. E) vibrates the tympanic membrane.

113)

The round window A) reflects sound waves. B) vibrates the basilar membrane. C) allows for compression of the organ of Corti. D) acts as a mechanical release for waves within the cochlea. E) increases the pressure of the perilymph.

114) Arrange the following list of membranes in correct sequence in which they function during the process of hearing. (1) Tectorial membrane (2) Vestibular membrane (3) Tympanic membrane (4) Basilar membrane

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A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 3, 4, 1, 2 C) 3, 2, 4, 1 D) 2, 4, 3, 1 E) 4, 3, 2, 1

115) Arrange the following structures in the order in which they would vibrate as a result of the tympanic membrane vibrating. (1) Oval window (2) Vestibular membrane and endolymph (3) Auditory ossicles (4) Basilar membrane (5) Perilymph A) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 B) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 E) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

116)

Cochlear neurons are stimulated by A) vibrating the oval window. B) vibrations of the tectorial membrane. C) bending microvilli or stereocilia on the hair cells. D) movement of the otoliths in the endolymph. E) turning the spiral organ.

117) Auditory impulses are transmitted by the_________blank portion of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Version 1

A) spiral B) cochlear C) vestibular D) ossicular E) tympanic

118)

More sound volume is perceived when A) sound wave amplitude increases. B) action potentials from hair cells are blocked. C) sound wave amplitude decreases. D) sound wave frequency decreases. E) sound wave frequency increases.

119)

The superior olivary nucleus A) generates the endocochlear potential. B) receives impulses from the vestibular nerve. C) helps localize high-pitched tones near the apex of the basilar membrane. D) sends efferent impulses that inhibit all hair cells not vibrating maximally. E) stimulates additional hair cells.

120)

Arrange the following parts of the neuronal pathway for hearing in the correct sequence.

(1) Inferior colliculus (2) Medial geniculate nucleus (3) Superior olivary nucleus (4) Auditory cortex (5) Cochlear nucleus

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A) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2 B) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 C) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 D) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4 E) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2

121)

The utricle and saccule are involved in A) static balance. B) kinetic balance. C) hearing low intensity sounds. D) hearing high intensity sounds. E) evaluating movements of the head.

122)

The position of the head with respect to gravity is determined by the A) shift in fluid in the semicircular canals. B) movements of otoliths in response to gravity. C) movements of perilymph in the vestibular chamber. D) impulses transmitted from the macula of the semicircular canals. E) stimulation of the cochlear portion of the nerve.

123) Otoliths can break off and float inside the inner ear. What might happen if the otoliths settle on top of the hair cells?

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A) Sounds may be amplified. B) Deafness could occur. C) Understanding of language may be impaired. D) Dizziness and inability to maintain balance may occur. E) None of the choices are correct.

124)

The semicircular canals A) are parallel to each other. B) can detect movement in only one direction. C) have a base called a papilla. D) contain cupulaethat respond to gravity. E) allow a person to detect movement in all directions.

125) Neurons synapsing on the hair cells of the maculae and the crista ampullaris have cell bodies in the_________blank. A) superior colliculus B) vestibular ganglion C) superior olivary nucleus D) medial geniculate nucleus E) cochlear ganglion

126) Damage to the vestibular branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve would result in loss of_________blank.

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A) taste B) sight C) hearing D) balance E) smell

127)

A ringing in the ears is called_________blank. A) tinnitus B) trachoma C) nystagmus D) mydriasis E) otitis media

128) Mechanical deficiency in transmission of sound waves to the spiral organ is_________blank. A) Meniere disease B) otosclerosis C) conduction hearing loss D) sensorineural hearing loss E) motion sickness

129) Oscillation of the eyes during the tracking of something in motion is called_________blank.

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A) nystagmus B) vertigo C) scotoma D) ptosis E) otitis media

130)

Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on sense organs? A) A large loss in the ability to detect odors B) Decrease in sense of taste C) Loss of lens flexibility in the eye D) Decline in visual acuity and color perception E) Decreased ability to localize sound

131)

Olfaction is the sense of_________blank. A) balance B) hearing C) vision D) smell E) taste

132)

Olfactory adaptation occurs when odorant receptors become_________blank. A) saturated B) destroyed

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133)

What is a tastant?

A) A substance dissolved in saliva that causes taste cells to depolarize. B) A cell found within a taste bud that depolarizes when stimulated. C) A structure found within the inner ear that translates vibration into sound. D) A supporting cell in the olfactory epithelium that connects the sensations of taste and olfaction.

134) The taste of salts results when_________blank diffuses through channels leading to depolarization of the taste cell. Similarly, sour is tasted when_________blank lead(s) to the depolarization of taste cells. A) H+, G protein mechanism B) Na+, H+ C) Na+, amino acids D) umami, H+

135)

How does the avascular cornea acquire oxygen? A) Oxygen diffuses from the atmosphere to the cornea. B) Oxygen diffuses from the capillaries in the iris to the cornea. C) The ciliary body provides oxygen to the cornea. D) Lysozyme in tears releases oxygen to nourish the cornea.

136) The point where light rays cross after passing through a concave lens is referred to as the_________blank.

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A) focal point B) depth of focus C) far point of vision D) near point of vision

137) In normal near vision, light is refracted_________blank than in distant vision; thus the lens is_________blank. A) more; rounded B) more; flattened C) less; rounded D) less; flattened

138)

What is the near point of vision? A) The closest point at which an object can be held and seen without appearing blurred B) The point at which a viewed image is not inverted on the retina C) The region of the macula in which the rods and cones are most concentrated D) The region of the electromagnetic spectrum which can be detected by the rods and

cones

139)

Identify the type of hair cells of the spiral organ that are responsible for hearing. A) Inner hair cells B) Outer hair cells C) Both "inner hair cells and "outer hair cells" are correct.

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140)

What is the function of the inner hair cells? A) The inner hair cells are responsible for hearing. B) The inner hair cells regulate the tension of the basilar membrane. C) The inner hair cells protect the external auditory canal. D) The inner hair cells detect chemicals in saliva; they are responsible for our ability to

taste.

141) You can smell the fragrance of your deodorant when you just put it on, but after a little while the smell fades. What explains this phenomenon? A) The sensory projection of olfaction B) The projection pathway of olfaction C) The tonic nature of olfaction D) The phasic nature of olfaction E) The fast adaptation of the olfactory cortex to the smell of your deodorant

142)

In a taste bud, which cell produces a receptor potential? A) Taste hairs B) Sensory nervefibers C) Supportingcells D) Basal cells E) Taste cells

143)

What do pheromones stimulate?

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A) Hair cells B) Supportingcells C) Taste cells D) Olfactorycells E) Olfactoryglands

144) Which structure allows upper respiratory infections to spread from the throat to the middle ear? A) Oval window B) Cochlear duct C) External auditory canal D) Auditory tube

145) Each upward movement of the basilar membrane causes the stereocilia of the inner hair cells to bend, opening _________blank gates. A) K+ B) Na+ C) Ca2+ D) Cl− E) Mg2+

146) A 100 dB sound (loud) of 150 Hz (low pitch) would cause which of the following to occur?

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A) The tectorial membrane to vibrate slightly near the apex. B) The tectorial membrane to vibrate vigorously near the base. C) The basilar membrane to vibrate slightly near the base. D) The basilar membrane to vibrate vigorously near the apex.

147) When you spin while sitting in a swivel chair with your eyes closed, you can sense this movement by means of your_________blank. A) cochlea B) saccule C) semicircularducts D) utricle E) spiral organ

148)

When you travel in an elevator, what senses when the elevator is moving? A) The inner haircells of the basilar membrane B) The outer haircells of the basilar membrane C) The hair cells ofthe tectorial membrane D) The hair cells of the crista ampullaris of the semicircular ducts E) The hair cells of the otolithic membrane of the vestibule

149)

What is the crista ampullaris associated with? A) Static equilibriumwhen standing still B) Staticacceleration in linear acceleration C) Dynamicequilibrium in angular acceleration D) Hearing high-pitchsounds E) Vision related tocolor

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150) Glaucoma is a state of elevated pressure within the eye that occurs when the_________blank is obstructed so the aqueous humor is not reabsorbed as fast as it is secreted. A) scleral venoussinus B) posteriorchamber C) anteriorchamber D) lacrimalpunctum E) tarsal glandopening

151)

Adjustment to close-range vision involves all of the following except A) activity of the extrinsic eye muscles. B) change in the curvature of the lens. C) constriction of the pupil. D) ciliary muscle activity. E) light adaptation.

152)

Which of the following correctly describes the vestibular projection pathway to the brain? A) Vestibular nerve - vestibulocochlear nerve - vestibular nuclei - thalamus - cerebral

cortex B) Vestibulocochlear nerve - vestibular nerve - vestibular nuclei - thalamus - cerebral cortex C) Vestibular nerve - vestibulocochlear nerve - thalamus - vestibular nuclei - cerebral cortex D) Vestibulocochlear nerve - vestibular nerve - thalamus - vestibular nuclei - cerebral cortex

153)

Which of the following does not contribute to the sense of equilibrium?

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A) Otolithicmembrane B) Semicircularcanals C) Saccule D) Utricle E) Vallatepapillae

154)

Which of the following statements is true concerning substances that have a sour taste?

A) Substances that taste sour have a low pH. B) Substance that taste sour are almost always proteins. C) Substance that taste sour have high concentrations of H+. D) Both "Substances that taste sour have a low pH" and "Substance that taste sour have high concentrations of H+" are correct.

155) Mary was involved in an accident that resulted in severe damage to several of her facial bones. As a result, her olfactory organ was damaged as well. Which of the following may be a side effect of her injury? A) Mary will most likely notice a dramatic decrease in her ability to taste. B) Mary will most likely have an increase in her ability to taste to compensate for her lack of olfaction. C) Mary will most likely develop tinnitus as a result to damage of the olfactory pathway. D) None of the choices are correct.

156) Damage to which of the following bones would most likely affect a person's olfactory perception?

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A) Ethmoid B) Lacrimal C) Maxilla D) Mandible

157) Megan thinks she has a great new way to help her remember her anatomy notes. She wears a certain perfume only when she studies for the exam and the day of the exam. What is Megan attempting to stimulate in this exercise? A) The secondary olfactory areas of the brain B) The insula C) The Broca area D) The primary sensory area

158)

Lynn has an obstruction in her left lacrimal canaliculi. A result of this is that A) Lynn appears to be constantly crying but only from her left eye. B) Lynn's lacrimal glands decrease secretion. C) Lynn's pupils appear dilated continuously. D) Lynn has developed glaucoma.

159) Which of the following is not a condition that would be considered sensorineural hearing loss? A) Loss of flexibility of the joint between the incus and the stapes B) Degeneration of the hair cells near the base of the spiral organ C) Lesion of the vestibulocochlear nerve D) All of the choices are conditions considered to be sensorineural hearing loss.

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160) Matthew has taken a "mental health day" from work. At this moment, the level or neurotransmitter released by the photoreceptors in his eyes is at maximum. What is Matthew likely doing right now? A) Matthew is sound asleep in a very dark room. B) Matthew is at the beach enjoying a bright sunny day. C) Matthew is in a quiet bookstore reading the newest issue of his favorite magazine.

161) Jessica is sitting in a cafe and excess lacrimal fluid is spilling over her lower palpebrae. This means that Jessica A) is crying. B) has a runny nose. C) is drooling. D) has an middle ear infection.

162) If a physician applies eye drops that inhibit muscle fibers controlled by the parasympathetic division, you would expect A) the patient's pupil to constrict. B) the patient's pupil to dilate. C) no change in the size of the pupil.

163)

Ricky's lenses are very round and his pupils are constricted. Ricky is most likely

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A) reading a book. B) watching a movie at the theater. C) watching an eagle fly. D) reading slides in a lecture hall from the back of the audience.

164) Nicholas is prone to sinus infections. Lately his mother has noticed he doesn't seem to hear her when she is standing behind him. Which of the following best explains Nicholas's condition? A) Fluid associated with Nicholas's infection is inhibiting movement of the auditory ossicles, resulting in conductive hearing loss. B) Bacteria from the sinus infection have disrupted normal action potential propagation, causing damage to the spiral organ. C) Nicholas's sinus infection is compressing nerves that transmit action potentials from the ear to the brain. D) Nicholas's sinus infection would not affect his hearing, and he is just ignoring his mother.

165) Sara is color blind. Her classmates don't believe her and say that color blindness can only occur in males. Which of the following would explain Sara's inheritance of color blindness best to her classmates? A) Sara is homozygous recessive for color blindness, inheriting the mutant alleles from her father and her mother. B) Sara is heterozygous for color blindness, inheriting one mutant copy of the gene from her father. C) Sara is color blind because she inherited a recessive allele from her mother and a normal allele from her father.

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166) Absence of which of the following papillae would have the greatest effect on a person's sense of taste? A) Foliate B) Filiform C) Fungiform D) Vallate

167) Suppose there was a drug that could dramatically decrease mucus secretion. Which of the following may be a side effect of this drug? A) Decreased mucus secretion would also decrease a person's ability to smell due to less fluid associated with the olfactory organ. B) Decreased mucus secretion would enhance a person's ability to smell due to less of a barrier between the odors and the olfactory organ. C) Decreased mucus secretion would enhance a person's sense of taste due to the lack of mucus blocking access to the taste receptors. D) Decreased mucus secretion would not affect a person's special senses.

168) Dr. Clark has been lecturing for 3 hours and her ears are beginning to "pop." Which of the following best explains her condition? A) Inflammation of her pharynx is blocking airflow through her auditory tubes, resulting in uneven pressure across her tympanic membranes. B) Inflammation of her larynx is blocking airflow through her external auditory canal, resulting in lack of pressure equilibrium across her oval window. C) Inflammation in her middle ear is causing fluid to build up in the external auditory canal, leading to sudden movement of her tympanic membrane. D) Inflammation of the inner ear is causing fluid to compress the oval window, leading to the popping noise.

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169) Rachel has a lesion on cranial nerve IX. Which of the following would you expect Rachel to experience? A) Partial loss of the sense of taste B) Complete loss of the sense of smell C) Complete loss of the sense of taste D) Partial loss of the sense of smell

170) A person who has damage to the basilar membrane nearest the oval window would likely not be able to hear A) the tweeting of small birds. B) the tuba in a marching band. C) the warning siren of a freight train. D) the baritone of a quartet.

171)

Match the structure associated with the eye with the appropriate description.

A. The angle where the eyelids join B. The space between the two eyelids C. Another name for the eyelids D. The membrane that covers the inner surface of the eyelids E. The membrane that covers the anterior sclera of the eye

171.1)

Palpebrae

171.2)

Palpebral fissure

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172)

171.3)

Canthi

171.4)

Palpebral conjunctiva

171.5)

Bulbar conjunctiva

Match the structure of the eye with the appropriate description.

A. Photoreceptor cells that function in black and white vision B. Photoreceptor cells that function in color vision C. The opening in the iris D. The innermost tunic of the eye E. A pigmented contractile structure

172.1)

Iris

172.2)

Pupil

172.3)

Retina

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173)

172.4)

Rods

172.5)

Cones

Match the eye structure with the appropriate description.

A. Blood vessels enter and the optic nerve exits here B. A small yellow spot near the center of the posterior retina C. The portion of the retina with the greatest visual acuity D. A jelly-like substance in the posterior cavity of the eye E. The fluid that fills the anterior cavity of the eye

173.1)

Macula

173.2)

Fovea centralis

173.3)

Optic disc

173.4)

Aqueous humor

173.5)

Vitreous humor

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174)

Match the term associated with vision with the appropriate description.

A. The area that can be seen with the eyes open B. Opening in the orbit through which the optic nerve passes C. The cerebral area that integrates messages from retina D. Area where medial ganglion cell axons cross over E. The route of the ganglionic axons beyond the chiasma

174.1)

Optic foramen

174.2)

Optic chiasma

174.3)

Visual field

174.4)

Optic tract

174.5)

Visual cortex

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175)

Match the description of the disease or disorder of the eye with its correct name.

A. Difficulty seeing distant objects B. A type of refractory error C. Clouding of the lens of the eye D. Increased intraocular pressure that can lead to loss of vision E. Loss of acute central vision

176)

175.1)

Cataract

175.2)

Macular degeneration

175.3)

Myopia

175.4)

Astigmatism

175.5)

Glaucoma

Match the structure of the ear with the appropriate description.

A. Eardrum B. Part of the ear that contains the organ of hearing C. Includes the pinna and external auditory canal D. Fleshy portion of the external ear E. Air-filled space within the temporal bone

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177)

176.1)

External ear

176.2)

Middle ear

176.3)

Inner ear

176.4)

Auricle

176.5)

Tympanic membrane

Match the structure associated with hearing with the appropriate description.

A. Organ of hearing B. Passageway from the outside to the eardrum C. Interconnecting tunnels in the temporal bone D. Tiny bones in the middle ear E. Connecting chambers of inner ear filled with endolymph

177.1)

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External auditory canal

178)

177.2)

Auditory ossicles

177.3)

Bony labyrinth

177.4)

Membranous labyrinth

177.5)

Organ of Corti

Match the description with the most appropriate ear structure.

A. Structures that produce earwax B. Fluid in the membranous labyrinth C. Fluid between the membranous and bony labyrinth D. Ossicles connect this structure to eardrum E. Connects the middle ear to the pharynx

178.1)

Endolymph

178.2)

Perilymph

178.3)

Ceruminous glands

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178.4)

Auditory tube

178.5)

Oval window

179) True or False? The photoreceptors in the photoreceptor layer of the retina face the vitreous chamber. ⊚ ⊚

true false

180) Damage to the chorda tympani in the right ear could result in loss of taste on the right anterior two-thirds of the tongue. ⊚ ⊚

181)

true false

True or False? Olfactory adaptation occurs when odorant receptors become saturated. ⊚ true ⊚ false

182) True or False? Binocular vision gives one depth perception, which is the ability to distinguish between near and far objects. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

183) True or False? The membranous labyrinth is located within the bony labyrinth of the inner ear. ⊚ ⊚

184)

true false

True or False? A solution that has a high pH is likely to also have a very sour taste. ⊚ ⊚

true false

185) True or False? Disarticulation of the malleus and incus would result in sensorineural hearing loss. ⊚ ⊚

true false

186) True or False? Damage to filiform papillae would disrupt a person's sense of taste for sweet substances. ⊚ ⊚

true false

187) True or False? Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve will result is complete loss of the sense of taste. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

188) True or False? If the basilar membrane were damaged near its apex, the person would have difficulty hearing the high pitch piccolo solo in a marching band performance. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chapter 15_13e_ VanPutte 1) [A, D] 2) [A, B, D] 3) [B, C, D] 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) C 12) C 13) D 14) E 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) E 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) A 37) C 38) D 39) B 40) B 41) A 42) D 43) B 44) C 45) A 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) C 52) B 53) E 54) B 55) A 56) E Version 1

57) A 58) D 59) C 60) C 61) D 62) A 63) B 64) B 65) D 66) C 67) C 68) A 69) C 70) B 71) E 72) B 73) C 74) A 75) C 76) D 77) B 78) B 79) D 80) A 81) B 82) D 83) E 84) C 85) B 86) C Version 1

87) C 88) C 89) D 90) C 91) D 92) A 93) C 94) A 95) D 96) C 97) C 98) E 99) E 100) D 101) D 102) A 103) B 104) C 105) B 106) A 107) B 108) D 109) D 110) D 111) A 112) C 113) D 114) C 115) D 116) C Version 1

117) B 118) A 119) D 120) B 121) A 122) B 123) D 124) E 125) B 126) D 127) A 128) C 129) A 130) A 131) D 132) A 133) A 134) B 135) A 136) A 137) A 138) A 139) A 140) A 141) D 142) E 143) D 144) D 145) A 146) D Version 1

147) C 148) E 149) C 150) A 151) E 152) A 153) E 154) D 155) A 156) A 157) A 158) A 159) A 160) A 161) A 162) A 163) A 164) A 165) A 166) A 167) A 168) A 169) A 170) A 171) Section Break 171.1) C 171.2) B 171.3) A 171.4) D 171.5) E Version 1

172) Section Break 172.1) E 172.2) C 172.3) D 172.4) A 172.5) B 173) Section Break 173.1) B 173.2) C 173.3) A 173.4) E 173.5) D 174) Section Break 174.1) B 174.2) D 174.3) A 174.4) E 174.5) C 175) Section Break 175.1) C 175.2) E 175.3) A 175.4) B 175.5) D 176) Section Break 176.1) C 176.2) E 176.3) B 176.4) D 176.5) A Version 1

177) Section Break 177.1) B 177.2) D 177.3) C 177.4) E 177.5) A 178) Section Break 178.1) B 178.2) C 178.3) A 178.4) E 178.5) D 179) FALSE 180) TRUE 181) TRUE 182) TRUE 183) TRUE 184) FALSE 185) FALSE 186) FALSE 187) FALSE 188) FALSE

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CHAPTER 16 1)

The thoracolumbar division is another name for the_________blank division of the ANS.

The parasympathetic division of the ANS is also called the_________blank division.

Cholinergic neurons secrete_________blank.

A neuron that secretes norepinephrine would be a/an_________blank neuron.

The celiac ganglion is one of the three main_________blank ganglia.

6) Axons from preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic division synapse with_________blank ganglia.

Which of the following is NOT an effector controlled by the autonomic nervous system? A) Cardiac muscle B) Glands C) Skeletal muscle D) Smooth muscle in blood vessels E) Smooth muscle in the digestive system

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Compared to a somatic reflex, an autonomic reflex utilizes A) one motor neuron plus cardiac and smooth muscle and glands as effectors. B) one motor neuron plus skeletal muscles as effectors. C) two motor neurons plus cardiac and smooth muscle and glands as effectors. D) two motor neurons plus skeletal muscles as effectors. E) three motor neurons plus skeletal muscles as effectors.

Which of the following statements applies to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? A) The ANS innervates skeletal muscle. B) ANS functions are consciously controlled. C) The ANS controls unconscious movement of skeletal muscles. D) The receptor molecules of the ANS may be muscarinic, nicotinic, or adrenergic. E) A single neuron from the spinal cord carries action potentials to effector organs in the

ANS.

10)

Which type of nerve would cause a blood vessel to constrict? A) Sensory B) Afferent C) Autonomic D) Somatic motor E) Cranial

11) Which of the organs listed below is not directly innervated by the autonomic nervous system?

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A) Heart B) Sweat gland C) Arrector pili of hair follicle D) Pectoralis major E) Salivary gland

12)

Efferent neurons of the A) somatic motor nerves innervate smooth muscle. B) ANS innervate skeletal muscle. C) somatic motor nerves connect skeletal muscles to the chain ganglia of the spinal cord. D) ANS utilize one neuron to connect the CNS to the effector organ. E) ANS utilize two neurons in series to connect the CNS to the effector.

13)

Arrange the following in correct sequence:

(1) Autonomic ganglia and ganglionic synapse (2) Synapse with target tissues (3) Preganglionic neuron (4) Postganglionic neuron A) 2, 3, 4, 1 B) 1, 3, 2, 4 C) 3, 1, 4, 2 D) 4, 1, 3, 2 E) 4, 3, 1, 2

14)

In the sympathetic division of the ANS,

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A) an important characteristic is convergence of neurons. B) preganglionic fibers are generally longer than postganglionic fibers. C) the preganglionic cell body is located in the lateral horn of the spinal cord. D) a single preganglionic fiber usually synapses with a single postganglionic fiber. E) preganglionic fibers emerge from the cervical portion of the spinal cord.

15) Preganglionic fibers from the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord are part of the_________blank division of the ANS. A) central B) sympathetic C) somatic motor D) parasympathetic E) ganglionic

16)

The parasympathetic nervous system is characterized by A) the absence of preganglionic fibers. B) the absence of postganglionic axons. C) short postganglionic axons near the organs they innervate. D) short preganglionic axons near the spinal cord. E) long postganglionic axons.

17)

Where is the enteric nervous system located? A) Brain B) Heart C) Digestive tract D) Skin

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18)

Which of the following is NOT a type of enteric neuron? A) Enteric interneuron B) Enteric sensory neuron C) Enteric bipolar neuron D) Enteric motor neuron

19)

The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS differ in the A) length of the preganglionic and postganglionic axons. B) location of the preganglionic cell bodies. C) position of the ganglia where preganglionic and postganglionic neurons synapse. D) All of the choices are correct.

20)

Sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord in the_________blank. A) cranial and sacral regions B) lumbar and sacral regions C) cranial and thoracic regions D) thoracic and lumbar regions E) cervical and sacral regions

21)

Chain ganglia are part of the_________blank.

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A) central nervous system B) sympathetic branch of the ANS C) somatic motor branch of the ANS D) parasympathetic branch of the ANS E) spinal cord

22) The short connection between a spinal nerve and a sympathetic chain ganglion through which preganglionic neurons pass is called the_________blank. A) white ramus communicans B) gray ramus communicans C) splanchnic nerve D) terminal ganglia E) pink ramus communicans

23)

Axons exit the sympathetic chain ganglia by all of the following except A) spinal nerves. B) cranial nerves. C) splanchnic nerves. D) sympathetic nerves. E) nerves that innervate the adrenal medulla.

24)

Sympathetic preganglionic axons

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A) can synapse in terminal ganglia. B) must synapse in parasympathetic ganglia. C) can synapse with cells in the adrenal cortex. D) can synapse in the dorsal root ganglion. E) can synapse in either chain or collateral ganglia.

25) Consider the following situation: Sympathetic preganglionic axons enter a sympathetic chain ganglia. In order for these axons to reach collateral ganglia, they must now travel through A) a splanchnic nerve. B) a sympathetic nerve. C) a gray ramus communicans. D) a white ramus communicans. E) a dorsal root ganglion.

26) Sympathetic stimulation of the postganglionic cells of the adrenal medulla causes the release of_________blank. A) acetylcholine and epinephrine B) norepinephrine and acetylcholine C) epinephrine and norepinephrine D) cortisol E) aldosterone

27)

Parasympathetic ganglia are called_________blank ganglia.

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A) pelvic B) chain C) collateral D) terminal E) dorsal

28)

The vagus nerve carries parasympathetic impulses to the_________blank. A) salivary glands B) lacrimal glands C) smooth muscle of the eyes D) thoracic and abdominal viscera E) thyroid gland

29) Parasympathetic preganglionic axons from the sacral region of the spinal cord course through_________blank nerves that innervate the_________blank. A) splanchnic; urinary bladder and adrenal glands B) pelvic; lower colon and reproductive glands C) sacral; lower colon and urinary bladder D) lumbar; stomach and intestines E) coccygeal; anus and vagina

30)

Which of the following nerves has parasympathetic axons?

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A) Facial B) Trigeminal C) Hypoglossal D) Spinal accessory E) Abducens

31)

Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT carry parasympathetic fibers? A) Glossopharyngeal B) Vagus C) Facial D) Hypoglossal E) Oculomotor

32)

Which of the following is NOT a means of parasympathetic innervation of effectors? A) Spinal nerves B) Abdominal nerve plexuses C) Pelvic splanchnic nerves and pelvic nerve plexuses D) Cranial nerves to the head and neck E) Vagus nerve and thoracic nerve plexuses

33) How does distribution of sympathetic nerves differ from the distribution of parasympathetic nerves?

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A) Only the sympathetic division serves the head and neck. B) Onlyparasympathetic nerves innervate the thoracic region. C) Sympathetic fibersinnervate the abdominal cavity, while parasympathetic fibers innervate thepelvic region. D) Spinal nervescontain sympathetic fibers, while cranial nerves contain parasympatheticfibers.

34)

Which of the following neurons is most likely to be adrenergic? A) Preganglionic sympathetic B) Preganglionic parasympathetic C) Postganglionic sympathetic D) Postganglionic parasympathetic E) Postganglionic somatic motor

35) The membranes of all postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia have_________blank. A) somatotrophic receptors B) muscarinic receptors C) adrenergic receptors D) nicotinic receptors E) macrotinic receptors

36)

Effector cells that respond to acetylcholine released from postganglionic neurons have

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A) somatotrophic receptors. B) muscarinic receptors. C) adrenergic receptors. D) nicotinic receptors. E) macrotinic receptors.

37)

When acetylcholine binds with nicotinic receptors, the response is_________blank. A) inhibitory B) excitatory C) either excitatory or inhibitory D) both excitatory and inhibitory E) neither excitatory nor inhibitory

38)

If acetylcholine binds to muscarinic receptors, A) Na+channels open. B) Ca2+channels open. C) adrenaline is released. D) G proteins mediate the cell's response. E) the response is neither excitatory nor inhibitory.

39)

The two classes of adrenergic receptors are A) alpha and beta. B) splanchnic and terminal. C) muscarinic and nicotinic. D) nicotinic and cholinergic. E) muscarinic and terminal.

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40)

Adrenergic receptors A) can be activated by the release of epinephrine. B) have two structural forms—muscarinic and nicotinic. C) when activated stimulate skeletal muscles to contract. D) can be found in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. E) are activated by the release of acetylcholine.

41)

When norepinephrine binds to adrenergic receptors, A) Na+channels open. B) Ca2+channels open. C) adrenaline is released. D) G proteins mediate the cell's response. E) Na+channels are closed.

42)

When acetylcholine binds to autonomic muscarinic receptors,_________blank. A) heart rate increases B) voluntary movements occur C) intestinal motility increases D) intestinal motility decreases E) intestinal motility stops

43)

Sympathomimetic agents activate

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A) nicotinic receptors. B) muscarinic receptors. C) adrenergic receptors. D) somatotrophic receptors. E) cholinergic receptors.

44) Atropine causes the pupil of the eye to dilate by blocking the effect of muscarinic receptors. This means atropine is a/an A) ganglionic blocking agent. B) beta-adrenergic blocking agent. C) alpha-adrenergic blocking agent. D) parasympathetic blocking agent. E) parasympathomimetic agents.

45) Which of the following drugs would be the best choice to use in chronic asthma to dilate the bronchioles? A) A nicotinic agent B) A muscarinic agent C) Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents D) Beta-adrenergic stimulating agents E) Ganglionic blocking agents

46)

Beta-blockers (beta-adrenergic blocking agents) are frequently used to

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A) cause vasoconstriction. B) block muscarinic receptors. C) dilate the pupils of the eye. D) prevent increases in heart rate. E) prevent decreases in heart rate.

47)

Which of the following is NOT a sympathetic effect on the body? A) Increased coagulation B) Relaxation of ciliary muscle for far vision C) Constriction of the pupil D) Decreased insulin secretion

48)

Which effector has no innervation by parasympathetic nerves? A) Eye B) Pancreas C) Heart D) Blood vessels

49)

Which of the following is NOT an effect of parasympathetic action? A) Increased tear production B) Increased motility of the intestines C) Increased metabolism D) Increased gastric secretion

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50)

Autonomic reflexes A) are impossible. B) are integrated somewhere in the CNS. C) have efferent input and afferent output. D) are an example of positive feedback. E) are harmful.

51)

Autonomic reflexes might be integrated in the A) medulla oblongata. B) spinal cord. C) hypothalamus. D) All of the choices are correct.

52)

Which part of the CNS integrates thoughts and emotions to produce ANS responses? A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Midbrain D) Hypothalamus

53)

Which part of the brain is in overall control of the ANS? A) Medulla oblongata B) Hypothalamus C) Thalamus D) Cerebrum

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54)

Which type of reflex operates independently of the CNS? A) Distal reflex B) Voluntary reflex C) Local reflex D) Conscious reflex

55)

Which of the following occurs when the parasympathetic system is stimulated? A) Increased blood pressure B) Increased motility of the digestive tract C) Increased metabolism D) Increased heart rate E) Decreased motility of the digestive tract

56)

Which of the following statements is false?

A) Both divisions of the ANS can produce stimulatory effects. B) Both divisions cooperate to achieve normal reproductive function. C) Structures receiving dual innervation by the ANS are regulated equally by both divisions. D) The sympathetic division has more influence under conditions of physical activity than does the parasympathetic division. E) Dual innervation of organs by both divisions of the ANS is not universal.

57)

Which of the following statements is true?

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A) The sympatheticdivision diverges more than the parasympathetic division. B) Increased parasympathetic activity is consistent with increased physical activity. C) One division of the ANS is always stimulatory, and the other is always inhibitory. D) Structures receiving both dual autonomic innervation are regulated equally by both divisions. E) There is dual innervation of all organs.

58) John sees Martha; the pupils of his eyes dilate. It is "love at first sight." What division(s) of the ANS is/are involved? A) Sympathetic division B) Parasympathetic division C) Somatic motor division D) Both "Sympathetic division" and "Parasympathetic division" are correct.

59) Stimulation by the autonomic nervous system results in increased insulin secretion from the pancreas during and after a meal. Which of the following are most likely to be true? A) Increased insulin secretion is due to parasympathetic stimulation. B) Acetylcholine agonists will stimulate insulin secretion. C) Increased insulin secretion is due to sympathetic stimulation. D) Increased insulin secretion is due to adrenergic agonists. E) Both "Increased insulin secretion is due to parasympathetic stimulation" and "Acetylcholine agonists will stimulate insulin secretion" are correct.

60)

When a person consumes a substantial amount of nicotine, the response_________blank.

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A) increases parasympathetic responses B) increases sympathetic responses C) decreases parasympathetic responses D) decreases sympathetic responses E) Both "increases parasympathetic responses" and "increases sympathetic responses" are correct

61) Acetylcholine will cause the pupil of the eye to constrict. A drug acts on receptors for acetylcholine to cause the pupils of the eye to dilate. Nicotine does not bind to receptors in smooth muscle cells of the iris. Therefore, the drug which causes the pupils to dilate is a_________blank. A) nicotinic blocking agent B) muscarinic blocking agent C) a nicotinic agent D) a muscarinic agent E) an adrenergic agent

62) The_________blank division of the ANS functions mainly to prepare the body for energy-expending, stressful situations. A) craniosacral B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) sympathetic E) sensory

63) The_________blank division of the ANS functions mainly under ordinary, restful conditions.

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A) parasympathetic B) somatic C) sympathetic D) thoracolumbar E) sensory

64) The two divisions of the ANS have antagonistic effects on each of the following EXCEPT A) the diameter of the blood vessels in skeletal muscles B) the diameter of bronchioles in the lungs C) gastrointestinal peristalsis D) heart rate E) the eye

65)

Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic effect? A) Constriction of the pupils of the eye B) Contraction of the urinary bladder C) Decreased heart rate D) Dilation of the bronchioles in the lungs E) Increased gastric secretions

66)

Which of the following is a sympathetic effect?

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A) Constriction of the pupils of the eyes B) Constriction of the bronchioles in the lungs C) Contraction of the urinary bladder D) Increased heart rate E) Increased gastric secretions

67) The component of the autonomic reflex arc that detects a change in stimulus is the_________blank. A) receptor B) sensory neuron C) Integration center D) motor neuron E) ganglion

68) Which of the following is not an example of how the autonomic nervous system (ANS) maintains homeostasis? A) Adjustment of muscle tone to maintain balance B) Alteration of heart rate to regulate blood pressure C) Stimulation of glucose release from the liver D) All of the choices are correct.

69) Sally has just heard a strange noise in her basement. Which of the following is an example of normal autonomic nervous system function during this type of situation?

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A) Sally's heart rate increases preparing for possible activity. B) Sally's heart rate decreases to allow her to hear the noise better. C) Sally's breathing becomes slower to allow for better gas exchange. D) Sally's muscle tone increases as she becomes paralyzed with fear.

70) Damage to the pulmonary plexus that result in breathing rates that are normal or increased, but never decreased below normal indicates A) the damage is most likely of the parasympathetic fibers. B) the damage is most likely to the sympathetic fibers. C) the damage is most likely to the sensory fibers.

71)

Due to dual innervation of the heart,

A) heart rate can increase under sympathetic regulation or decrease under parasympathetic regulation, meeting the demands of the body. B) heart rate can increase due to sympathetic regulation and voluntarily through cerebral activity. C) heart rate can decrease due to parasympathetic regulation and voluntarily through cerebral activity. D) the autonomic nervous system and somatic motor system control heart function.

72)

Which of the following represents an accurate analogy of dual innervation?

A) An HVAC system that warms a cool room or cools a hot room B) A remote control that can increase and decrease the volume of a television C) The water tank refilling when a toilet has been flushed D) Both "An HVAC system that warms a cool room or cools a hot room" and "A remote control that can increase and decrease the volume of a television" are correct.

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73)

Which of the following represents a local reflex? A) Motility of the digestive tract in response to stretch of the wall of the digestive tract B) Secretion of digestive enzymes under the control of the vagus nerve C) Parasympathetic stimulation causes the gallbladder to release bile D) All of the choices are correct.

74) Consider the following condition: pupils dilated, digestive motility decreased, salivary gland activity decreased. Which of the following scenarios matches this condition of the person involved? A) A motorist just avoided running over a small child playing in the road B) A mother is walking along the lake with her two children, who are behaving wonderfully today C) A student is relaxing in the cafeteria after a fairly easy day D) Both "A mother is walking along the lake with her two children, who are behaving wonderfully today" and "A student is relaxing in the cafeteria after a fairly easy day" are correct.

75)

Damage to a_________blank would result in lack of sympathetic control of the heart. A) sympathetic nerve B) spinal nerve C) cranial nerve D) splanchnic nerve

76) Which type of nerve would be damaged if sympathetic innervation of the adrenal medulla was disrupted?

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A) Splanchnic B) Sympathetic C) Spinal D) Cranial

77)

77.1) This figure compares the organization of the somatic motor system and the autonomic nervous system. Identify structure "A" on the above diagram. A) Autonomic ganglion B) Somatic motor neuron C) Effector organ (smooth muscle of GI tract) D) Postganglionic neuron E) Preganglionic neuron

77.2) This figure compares the organization of the somatic motor system and the autonomic nervous system. Identify structure "B" on the above diagram.

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A) Autonomic ganglion B) Somatic motor neuron C) Effector organ (smooth muscle of GI tract) D) Postganglionic neuron E) Preganglionic neuron

77.3) This figure compares the organization of the somatic motor system and the autonomic nervous system. Identify structure "C" on the above diagram. A) Autonomic ganglion B) Somatic motor neuron C) Effector organ (smooth muscle of GI tract) D) Postganglionic neuron E) Preganglionic neuron

77.4) This figure compares the organization of the somatic motor system and the autonomic nervous system. Identify structure "D" on the above diagram. A) Autonomic ganglion B) Somatic motor neuron C) Effector organ (smooth muscle of GI tract) D) Postganglionic neuron E) Preganglionic neuron

77.5) This figure compares the organization of the somatic motor system and the autonomic nervous system. Identify structure "E" on the above diagram.

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A) Autonomic ganglion B) Somatic motor neuron C) Effector organ (smooth muscle of GI tract) D) Postganglionic neuron E) Preganglionic neuron

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78)

78.1)

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The figure illustrates the parasympathetic division. What does "A" represent?

A) Preganglionic neurons B) Pelvic splanchnic nerves C) Cranial nerves D) Postganglionic neurons E) Terminal ganglia

78.2)

The figure illustrates the parasympathetic division. What does "B" represent?

A) Preganglionic neurons B) Pelvic splanchnic nerves C) Cranial nerves D) Postganglionic neurons E) Terminal ganglia

78.3)

The figure illustrates the parasympathetic division. What does "C" represent?

A) Preganglionic neurons B) Pelvic splanchnic nerves C) Cranial nerves D) Postganglionic neurons E) Terminal ganglia

78.4)

The figure illustrates the parasympathetic division. What does "D" represent?

A) Preganglionic neurons B) Pelvic splanchnic nerves C) Cranial nerves D) Postganglionic neurons E) Terminal ganglia

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78.5)

The figure illustrates the parasympathetic division. What does "E" represent?

A) Preganglionic neurons B) Pelvic nerves C) Cranial nerves D) Postganglionic neurons E) Terminal ganglia

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79)

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79.1) The figure illustrates the autonomic reflexes and the heart. What does "A" represent? A) Sympathetic nerve B) Increase in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors C) Glossopharyngeal nerve D) Decrease in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors E) Vagus nerve

79.2) The figure illustrates the autonomic reflexes and the heart. What does "B" represent? A) Sympathetic nerve B) Increase in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors C) Glossopharyngeal nerve D) Decrease in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors E) Vagus nerve

79.3) The figure illustrates the autonomic reflexes and the heart. What does "C" represent? A) Sympathetic nerve B) Increase in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors C) Glossopharyngeal nerve D) Decrease in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors E) Vagus nerve

79.4) The figure illustrates the autonomic reflexes and the heart. What does "D" represent?

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A) Sympathetic nerve B) Increase in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors C) Glossopharyngeal nerve D) Decrease in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors E) Vagus nerve

79.5) The figure illustrates the autonomic reflexes and the heart. What does "E" represent? A) Sympathetic nerve B) Increase in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors C) Glossopharyngeal nerve D) Decrease in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors E) Vagus nerve

80)

Consider the two statements and use the following key to choose your answer.

80.1) (1) Rate of muscle contraction when beta adrenergic receptors of the heart are stimulated (2) Rate of muscle contraction when beta adrenergic receptors of intestinal muscle are stimulated A) First item is greater than the second item. B) First item is less than the second item. C) Both items are equal or nearly equal.

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80.2) (1) The frequency of sympathetic impulses to the heart when blood pressure increases (2) The frequency of sympathetic impulses to the heart when blood pressure decrease A) First item is greater than the second item. B) First item is less than the second item. C) Both items are equal or nearly equal.

80.3) (1) The number of sympathetic impulses produced when a person is angry (2) The number of sympathetic impulses produced when a person is relaxed A) First item is greater than the second item. B) First item is less than the second item. C) Both items are equal or nearly equal.

80.4) (1) The number of sympathetic neurons that innervate sweat glands (2) The number of parasympathetic neurons that innervate sweat glands A) First item is greater than the second item. B) First item is less than the second item. C) Both items are equal or nearly equal.

81)

Match the characteristic with the correct division of the nervous system.

81.1)

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Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter substance

A) Somatic motor nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Both somatic and autonomic nervous systems D) Neither somatic nor autonomic nervous system

81.2)

Target tissues may be stimulated or inhibited

A) Somatic motor nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Both somatic and autonomic nervous systems D) Neither somatic nor autonomic nervous system

81.3)

Receptor molecules may be muscarinic or adrenergic

A) Somatic motor nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Both somatic and autonomic nervous systems D) Neither somatic nor autonomic nervous system

81.4)

All axons are myelinated

A) Somatic motor nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Both somatic and autonomic nervous systems D) Neither somatic nor autonomic nervous system

81.5) Version 1

Controls conscious movement

A) Somatic motor nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Both somatic and autonomic nervous systems D) Neither somatic nor autonomic nervous system

81.6)

Neuron cell bodies are in the cerebral cortex

A) Somatic motor nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Both somatic and autonomic nervous systems D) Neither somatic nor autonomic nervous system

82) Match the phrase to either the sympathetic or parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

82.1)

Effects more localized