TEST BANK FOR Advertising and Promotion An Integrated Marketing Communications Perspective, 6th Cana by StudyGuide

Chapter 1 question. 1) The IMC Planning Model outlines four stages prior to program implementation, in what order? A) Review the marketing plan; Determine IMC plan objectives; Assess the marketing communications situation; Develop IMC programs. B) Develop IMC programs; Assess the marketing communications situation; Review the marketing plan; Determine IMC plan objectives. C) Review the marketing plan; Assess the marketing communications situation; Determine IMC plan objectives; Develop IMC programs. D) Assess the marketing communications situation; Determine IMC plan objectives; Develop IMC programs; Review the marketing plan.

2) Which of these is NOT a reason why marketers use advertising? A) To set an appropriate price across various channels B) To strike a responsive chord with consumers when differentiation across other elements of the marketing mix is difficult C) To take advantage of the fact that advertising is a very cost-effective method of reaching a large audience D) To create symbolic appeals for a company or brand

3) Ads for computers and office furniture in Purchasing Canada, a trade magazine written and published especially for corporate and government buyers, are examples of ________ advertising. A) business-to-business B) primary-demand C) professional D) retail

4) This participant in the promotional process has the products to be marketed and assumes major responsibility for developing the marketing program and making final decisions regarding the marketing communication program: A) Advertising agency B) Public relations firm C) Advertiser D) Media organization

5) An external situation analysis could include all of the following EXCEPT: A) the product's benefits B) a competitive analysis C) environmental analysis D) consumer behaviour analysis

6) The first step in the IMC planning process is: A) the situation analysis B) specification of communications objectives C) a review of the marketing plan D) budget determination

7) In order to identify attractive market segments, Brian's Electronics Sales & Service conducts a consumer analysis which includes a review of all of the following EXCEPT: A) The growth of the electronics industry based on new technologies, particularly mobile. B) Factors influencing consumer purchase decisions for electronics products and services. C) Electronics buying and usage patterns of various consumer groups. D) Demographic and psychographic traits of current and high potential customers.

8) A marketing plan usually includes: A) a detailed situation analysis C) sales and market forecasts

8) B) a corporate mission statement D) a media schedule

9) Advertisements for a Parkell tooth polisher in Canadian Dentist, a publication for dentists, are an example of ________ advertising. A) professional B) progressive C) trade D) primary demand

10) This is the added value or goodwill resulting from a favourable image and/or consumer attachment to a company name, brand name, or trademark: A) brand equity B) brand identity C) product symbolism D) product appeal

10)

11) Which of the following is NOT a good example of a communications objective? A) To develop consumers' intentions to purchase a product B) To increase sales volume C) To create awareness of the attributes of a brand or product D) To create a favourable attitude about a product

11)

12) Which of the following is the BEST example of a marketing exchange? A) John gave Sahil a menu, and he placed his food order. B) Vlad and Ingrid gave their son a trip for his graduation. C) Jessie helped Alison move a heavy piece of furniture. D) For mowing her yard, Mrs. Forrest gave Ben a chocolate cake.

12)

13) ________ refer to what is to be accomplished by the overall marketing programs and is stated in terms of sales, market share, and profitability. A) Marketing objectives B) External analysis factors C) Communication objectives D) Segmentation approaches

13)

14) Public relations involves all of the following EXCEPT: A) product design B) publicity C) financial and personnel involvement in local arts and crafts festival D) sponsorship of a fun run to benefit breast cancer research

14)

15) Product protection, storage, communication, and image are all functional benefits of: A) product attributes B) brand identity C) brand marketing D) packaging

15)

16) When an organization systematically plans and distributes information in an attempt to control its image, it is engaging in a function known as: A) advertising B) public relations C) integrated marketing D) image management

16)

17) ________ is the coordination of all seller-initiated efforts to set up channels of information and persuasion to sell goods and services. A) Publicity B) Promotion C) Organizational communication D) Advertising

17)

18) When the brand team at Dentyne send out samples of their new fiery gum flavours to radio DJs and television hosts with the hope that they will talk about it on air, it is an example of: A) public relations B) publicity C) trade sales promotion D) personal selling

18)

19) ________ should be the guiding force for development of the overall marketing communications strategy and of objectives for each promotional mix area. A) Promotional and marketing objectives B) Communication and behavioural objectives C) Marketing and behavioural objectives D) Sales and marketing objectives

19)

20) Which of the following statements referring to the effects of consumer adoption of technology and media on IMC planning is NOT true? A) TV advertising reaches smaller and more selective audiences. B) Brands use traditional media to direct consumers to their website or social media. C) Broadcasters have been slow to offer their TV shows for viewing over the Internet. D) TV audiences are fragmented, requiring advertisers to place their messages in other media.

20)

21) One of the major tools of direct marketing is ________ advertising, whereby a product is promoted through an ad that encourages the consumer to purchase directly from the manufacturer. A) business-to-business B) product benefit C) direct-response D) third-party

21)

22) Debbie's Donuts wants to prepare a promotion plan for the upcoming fall season. As part of her internal situation analysis, she should review: A) how often consumers eat donuts each week. B) her sales and profit objectives. C) the strength of her brand's image. D) which competitors are operating in her neighbourhood.

22)

23) Individuals and companies that perform specialized functions such as marketing research, video production, package design, and event marketing are known as: A) Collateral services B) Tier-two agencies C) Support agencies D) Marketing specialty firms

23)

24) Sales promotions targeted to the ultimate users of a product such as sampling, coupons, contests, or sweepstakes are known as: A) strategic promotions B) consumer sales promotion C) direct marketing incentives D) trade sales promotion

24)

25) Which of the following is NOT a specialized marketing communication service? A) Interactive agency B) Public relations firm C) Marketing research company D) Direct-response agency

25)

26) Each promotional mix element has its own set of objectives, message and media strategy, tactics, and ________. A) slogan B) budget C) target audience D) brand identity

26)

27) Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of IMC? A) Relationships fostering communication with existing customers B) Differentiated communication to multiple customer groups C) Competitive-oriented communication D) Unified communication for consistent message and image

27)

28) The ________ approves and pays for the creative work and media plan. A) agency-of-record B) advertiser C) media planning group D) promotional agency

28)

29) Outside firms that specialize in the creation, production, placement of promotional messages, and other support services are: A) Media organizations B) Media buying agencies C) Advertisers D) Advertising agencies

29)

30) Media strategy includes each of the following decisions EXCEPT: A) communication channels to be used B) type of media to be used C) overall slogan D) specific titles or shows

30)

31) ________ advertising is targeted at individuals who buy or influence the purchase of industrial goods or services for their companies. A) Retail B) Business-to-business C) Direct-response D) Professional

31)

32) Some locations offering customized service and assistance, some offering different models at different prices, or the availability of online purchasing are examples of: A) a differentiated product approach B) a multi-media universe C) multi-level marketing D) a multi-channel environment

32)

33) ________ is the process of creating, maintaining, and enhancing long-term relationships with individual customers as well as other stakeholders for mutual benefit. A) Exchange B) Integrated marketing communications C) Marketing planning D) Relationship marketing

33)

34) Which is the best example of the use of packaging as a communication vehicle? A) Uncle Ben's Rice offers usage and recipe suggestions on their boxes and bags. B) New cellphone SIM cards are enveloped in large plastic packages. C) Costco offers multi-packs of contact lens solution at affordable prices. D) At Golftown one can purchase used golf balls in bags of 20 or 50.

34)

35) McDonald's restaurants use a Monopoly game to allow customers to win various prizes. Each game piece that you receive as a result of a purchase either awards you a prize or fills in one section on a Monopoly board. Prizes can also be won if you own all the pieces of the railroads or all of one colour of property. This is an example of a: A) consumer sales promotion B) direct-response advertising campaign C) service-oriented sales promotion D) primary demand advertising campaign

35)

36) Each of the following statements about earned media is correct EXCEPT: A) Conversations among consumers over social media is a form of earned media. B) Earned media is the result of a brand manager paying an influential blogger to write positively about the brand. C) Publicity in the form of news articles or editorial opinions constitutes earned media. D) Earned media is a very credible source of influence for current or prospective consumers.

36)

37) Sales promotion programs targeted toward marketing intermediaries such as wholesalers, distributors, and retailers are known as: A) a trade sales promotion B) integrated promotions C) a consumer sales promotion D) a functional inducement

37)

38) Why does Samsung place advertising messages in media such as television, print, and outdoor to encourage consumers to interact with the brand online? A) Samsung only sells their products online, so they must try to drive traffic to their company website. B) Online brand interaction is the least expensive way to connect with consumers. C) Online communication is the best way to convey product attributes and consumer value. D) Studies show that consumers research their purchase online prior to a store visit, so other media should lead the consumer to visit the company's website.

38)

39) Tourism BC wished to generate trial or repeat purchase of visitors from other provinces to British Columbia. This is an example of a(n): A) environmental assessment B) behavioural objective C) database research finding D) internal analysis

39)

40) ________ is the management function that evaluates public attitudes, identifies the policies and procedures of an individual or organization with the public interest, and executes a program of action to earn public understanding and acceptance. A) Publicity B) Sales promotion C) Public relations D) Corporate affairs

40)

41) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of advertising as a form of promotion? A) The ability to reach large audiences with the advertising message B) The ability to create images for brands C) Cost-effective method for communicating with large audiences D) Personal nature of the message

41)

42) Company or branded websites that inform or entertain current or potential customers: A) are falling out of favour as marketers turn to social media vehicles B) are effective only if they include the ability to make online purchases C) are a form of "owned media" much like product catalogues D) have taken over from other forms of mass media

42)

43) Which of the following statements about marketing and IMC plans is NOT necessarily true? A) The IMC plan is developed similarly to the marketing plan and often uses its detailed information B) The marketing objectives in the marketing plan should be reproduced as communication objectives in the IMC plan C) The marketing plan specifies the roles advertising and other promotional mix elements play in the overall marketing program D) The first step in the IMC planning process is to review the marketing plan

43)

44) A brand or corporate name and its identification through its logo, symbols, slogans, or trademarks represent: A) brand equity B) product symbolism C) product appeal D) brand identity

44)

45) Kim Rossister, brand manager at GM, plans for a new communication campaign and intends to consider all the potential ways of reaching her target audience and presenting her brand in a favourable manner. Kim believes this approach can help develop an efficient and effective communication campaign. This approach is best described as: A) persuasive communication perspective B) database-centred perspective C) relationship marketing perspective D) audience contact perspective

45)

46) One of the primary advantages inherent in the use of publicity is its: A) credibility B) almost non-existent variable costs C) ability to be closely controlled and monitored by the organization that is being publicized D) ability to be personalized

46)

47) A firm can have an excellent product at a great price, but it will be of little value unless it's available where the consumer wants it and when the consumer wants it. The statement above refers to: A) distribution decisions. B) product decisions. C) price decisions. D) positioning decisions.

47)

48) Because of the perceived objectivity of the source, which element of the promotional mix is usually regarded as most credible? A) Publicity B) Direct marketing C) Advertising D) Sales promotion

48)

49) A review of a movie in Maclean's magazine or on "Canada AM" is an example of: A) media-selling B) promotion C) publicity D) personal selling

49)

50) Advertising may be defined as any: A) communication that moves a product from one level to another level of the distribution channel B) personal communication from a company representative to prospective buyers C) paid form of nonpersonal communication about a product, service, or company D) communication about a product, service, or company

50)

51) Prime-time network television reached ________ on a daily basis. A) only older adults B) less than 50 percent of Canadians C) 85 percent of Canadians D) all Canadians

51)

52) The relative balance between what a consumer "receives" for what he/she "pays" is known as: A) value B) price C) benefit D) exchange

52)

53) The increased usage of relationship marketing is due to the fact that: A) retaining customers is generally more cost effective than acquiring new ones B) customers want products and services that are mass-produced rather than tailored to their specific needs and wants C) it is very costly to maintain customer databases D) customers have become less demanding

53)

54) Which of the following statements about publicity is true? A) Publicity is an important communication technique used in public relations. B) Publicity has more of a long term, on-going purpose than public relations. C) Publicity and public relations are synonyms for each other. D) Publicity generally has a broader purpose and objective than public relations.

54)

55) When Jennifer Lawrence appears on "The Tonight Show with Jay Leno" as a guest to discuss her role in the "Hunger Games" movies, it is an example of: A) advertising B) publicity C) direct marketing D) personal selling

55)

56) Marketers first consider ________ in order to determine which IMC tools will be most effective in reaching and influencing consumer behaviour. A) their promotional budget B) the recommendations of their advertising agency C) the target audience D) competitive strategies

56)

57) Which of the following statements about direct marketing is true? A) Direct marketing has lost popularity over the past two decades, owing primarily to changing lifestyles and technologies. B) Direct marketing includes a variety of techniques and activities such as direct mail, telemarketing, and direct response advertising. C) Direct marketing and direct mail are synonymous. D) Business-to-business marketers criticize direct marketing as an ineffective way to identify potential sales leads, communicate with customers, and provide them with information about their products or services.

57)

58) An internal situation analysis looks at all of the following EXCEPT: A) results of the firm's previous promotional programs B) competitive analysis C) promotional objectives D) corporate and brand image analyses

58)

59) A market analysis includes a number of factors like market size, growth, and ________. A) profitability B) age C) census D) global ownership

59)

60) Which of the following is NOT an element of the promotional mix? A) Sales promotion B) Personal selling C) Advertising D) Packaging

60)

61) ________ is nonpersonal communication neither directly paid for nor run under identified sponsorship. A) Publicity B) Advertising C) Sales promotion D) Public relations

61)

62) ________ is described as one of the "new-generation" marketing approaches that helps companies to better focus their efforts in acquiring, retaining, and developing relationships with customers and other stakeholders. A) Transaction marketing B) Public relations C) IMC D) Online advertising

62)

63) Which of the following statements about price is true? A) Price is not a key aspect of the product conveyed in a promotional offer. B) Price refers to what the marketer must give up to sell a product. C) Price communicates the economic cost to consumers for all of the product benefits combined. D) Levels of recommended ad expenditures are not relative to price.

63)

64) Which of the following best describes a criticism of IMC? A) Unifies communication for consistent message and image B) Differentiates communication to multiple customer groups C) Focuses primarily on the tactical coordination of various communication tools with the goal of making them look and sound alike D) Uses database-centred communication for tangible results

64)

65) Which of the following is NOT a technique used to generate publicity? A) News releases and feature articles B) Press conferences C) Packaging and product displays D) Photographs, films, and videotapes

65)

66) Navinder Foods offers portable snack items that are low in calories, high in fibre, and taste just like the ones shoppers might consume back home in India. Which of the following is NOT a product benefit delivered by Navinder's snack items? A) emotional benefit B) functional benefit C) affordable benefit D) performance/convenience benefit

66)

67) ________ can be a cost-effective way to build a positive attitude toward the brand in potential consumers prior to, during, or after purchasing a product. A) Advertising B) Personal selling C) Sales promotion D) Price discounting

67)

68) Consumer Reports magazine ran an article comparing various shampoos and rated Pert Plus as the best brand. This article was reported on in various newspapers and television news programs. This is an example of: A) positive publicity B) negative publicity C) sales promotion D) advertising

68)

69) A marketing plan usually includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) the establishment of marketing objectives B) a program for implementing marketing strategy C) a detailed situation analysis D) criteria and procedures for the hiring of all marketing personnel

69)

70) ________ is a promotional mix element that allows for direct contact between a buyer and seller and allows a message to be modified according to the needs or reactions of the customer. A) Sales promotion B) Public relations C) Direct mail D) Personal selling

70)

71) How does advertising differ from publicity? A) Advertising is done by manufacturers, and publicity is done be retailers. B) Advertising typically utilizes mass media, and publicity does not. C) Advertising is never institutional (i.e., promoting the company itself), and publicity usually is institutional in character. D) Advertising is paid for by the sponsoring organization, and publicity is not.

71)

72) The objective behind the McDonald's “Our Food. Your Questions." campaign was: A) to dispel various "food myths" about the quality of food offered at McDonald's. B) to show the effectiveness of social media in dealing with consumer complaints. C) to eliminate competition between McDonald's and Tim Hortons in the breakfast arena. D) to enhance the presence of McDonald's in the Canadian foodservice market.

72)

73) ________ is defined as any paid form of nonpersonal communication about an organization, product, service or idea by an identified sponsor. A) The promotional mix B) Advertising C) Publicity D) Sales promotion

73)

74) Which of the following statements about Internet advertising is NOT true? A) Internet marketing can incorporate many elements of the promotional mix, such as advertising, sales promotion, public relations, and direct marketing. B) In order for interactive Internet marketing to be effective, the overall brand message must be changed. C) The portability and immediacy of mobile marketing makes this a new forefront for IMC planning. D) The Internet is a medium which generates paid, owned, and earned media.

74)

75) Each of the following is true about brand equity EXCEPT: A) It is a measure of consumer attachment to a brand. B) It is a challenge for marketers to consistently measure brand equity. C) It builds on the favourable image and impressions of differentiation of a brand. D) It is a tangible asset which can provide competitive advantage.

75)

76) The primary objective of these members of the promotional process is to sell their time or space so companies can effectively reach their target audiences with their messages. A) Advertisers B) Media organizations C) Interactive agencies D) Advertising agencies

76)

77) Canadian advertisers spend more than ________ annually. A) $22 billion B) $1 billion C) $14 billion

77) D) $8 billion

78) The development of the basic message to be conveyed to the target audience is called: A) creative imaging B) IMC planning C) creative strategy D) messaging

78)

79) Which the following is NOT an advantage inherent in the use of advertising? A) Low cost per contact B) Ability to control the message C) Ability to create brand images and symbolism D) Immediate feedback

79)

80) ________ is the process of planning and executing the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of ideas, good, and services to create exchanges that satisfy individual and organizational objectives. A) Marketing B) Advertising C) Sales promotion D) Integrated marketing communications

80)

81) ________ allow for the back-and-forth flow of information where users participate in and modify its form and content instantly. A) Sales promotion B) Price flexibility C) Interactive media D) Negotiations

81)

82) Campo Outdoor Products has developed a new backpack. It will expand to three times its initial size, be water resistant, and lightweight. These are what kind of marketing decisions? A) price allowance B) product features C) package design D) service level

82)

83) Many companies are taking a(n) ________ perspective in developing their IMC programs whereby they consider all of the potential ways of reaching their target audience and presenting the company or brand in a favourable manner. A) modern B) aggressive C) audience contact D) traditional

83)

84) In the 1990s, companies saw ________ as a way to coordinate and manage their marketing communication programs to ensure customers received a consistent message about the company and/or its brands. A) integrated marketing communications B) the Internet C) relationship marketing D) product marketing

84)

85) ________ is a system of marketing by which organizations communicate directly with target customers to generate a response and/or a transaction. A) Public relations B) Direct marketing C) Sales promotion D) Advertising

85)

86) The ________ is a written document that describes the overall marketing strategy and programs developed for an organization, product line, or brand. A) marketing plan B) communications plan C) promotional plan D) situation analysis

86)

87) The ________ is the framework for developing, implementing, and controlling an organization's integrated marketing communications program and activities. A) communications process B) situation analysis C) market audit D) IMC plan

87)

88) Suggestions that McCain launch new frozen products based on changing trends and consumer demographics are as a result of: A) an external environmental analysis B) an internal financial analysis C) McCain's revised marketing objectives D) global warming

88)

89) ________ includes those marketing activities that provide extra value or incentives to the sales force, distributors, or the ultimate consumer. A) Brand equity B) Public relations C) Direct marketing D) Sales promotion

89)

90) The Bradford Exchange is a company that sells collectible plates. If you order one plate from the company, you will receive multiple mailings each month announcing new issues and encouraging you to place your order. Given this information, which promotional element do you think The Bradford Exchange depends upon most heavily? A) Advertising B) Public relations C) Sale promotion D) Direct marketing

90)

91) The AMA has renewed its definition of marketing to include the important element of: A) growth B) exchange C) globalization D) value within the exchange

91)

92) The concept of IMC suggests that all elements of the promotional campaign must be carefully linked. Which of the following statements is NOT true in this regard? A) There are many potential audience contacts; a focused approach ensures that the message is clear and the brand is represented well. B) Consumers receive so many promotional exposures that they see everything as advertising. C) IMC messaging must be both unified yet differentiated, to deliver a consistent image to various potential targets. D) Critics argue that IMC ignores the existence of multiple target audiences.

92)

93) IMC planning can best be described as: A) measuring the effectiveness of any communication with the target market B) coordinating the activities of people who come in contact with the prospect or consumer C) skillfully coordinating the promotional mix elements to develop an effective communication program D) placing coupons in each Sunday edition of major newspapers

93)

94) Which of the following statements about direct marketing is true? A) One of the major tools of direct marketing is indirect-response advertising. B) Direct marketing has not traditionally been considered an element of the promotional mix, since it had distinct objectives, strategies and tactics. C) Direct marketing is seldom, if ever, used by companies that have a sales force. D) Direct marketing does not exist beyond direct mail and mail-order catalogues.

94)

95) Before determining the appropriate promotional mix for his new annual campaign, the Triscuit crackers brand manager needs to do a competitive analysis, including: A) The brand equity and consumer preference of PC's Woven Wheat Thins. B) A review of how much profit Kraft expects his brand to contribute to the overall marketing plan. C) The relative media costs of Chatelaine and Canadian Living magazines. D) Whether people prefer eating Triscuit warmed up or straight out of the box.

95)

96) Product, price, place and promotion are also known as: A) marketing jargon. B) the marketing mix. C) marketing communications tools. D) methods of selling goods and services.

96)

97) All of the following explain the importance of IMC EXCEPT: A) consumer adoption of technology and media B) the vast number of messages consumers receive C) the many audiences to communicate with D) advertising and promotion regulation

97)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 1

1) C 2) A 3) A 4) C 5) A 6) C 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) B 27) C 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) C 16

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 1

43) B 44) D 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) C 50) C 51) C 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) B 56) C 57) B 58) B 59) A 60) D 61) A 62) C 63) C 64) C 65) C 66) C 67) A 68) A 69) D 70) D 71) D 72) A 73) B 74) B 75) D 76) B 77) C 78) C 79) D 80) A 81) C 82) B 83) C 84) A 17

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 1

85) B 86) A 87) D 88) A 89) D 90) D 91) D 92) D 93) C 94) B 95) A 96) B 97) D

Chapter 2 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Under which type of compensation system might an agency be more inclined to recommend expensive media such as network television and national magazines to its clients? A) incentive-based compensation system B) commission system C) cost-plus system D) fee arrangement system

2) ________ specialize in the development and management of sweepstakes, refund and rebate offers, and incentive programs. A) Interactive agencies B) Direct response agencies C) Sales promotion agencies D) Creative boutiques

3) An advertising agency that is set up, owned, and operated by the advertiser is called a(n): A) client management firm B) centralized system C) in-house agency D) full-service agency

4) Which of the following functions is NOT performed by the agency's research department? A) disseminating information to agency account planners B) interpreting information to assist in advertising decision-making C) planning the creative and media strategies for the advertising campaign D) designing, executing, and interpreting primary research studies

5) Opponents of the agency commission system would argue that this system is NOT effective because a commission: A) encourages agencies to limit their client's advertising expenditures. B) keeps the emphasis on creative skills not the bottom-line. C) does not tie agency compensation to media costs. D) encourages agencies to recommend high media expenditures to increase their commission level.

6) The Red River Valley advertising agency receives compensation from its clients based on how well it meets predetermined performance goals. Indicate the compensation method that best corresponds to this situation. A) cost-plus system B) fixed-fee C) fee-commission D) incentive-based

7) After the creative brief is reviewed and the overall concept has been developed, the ________ is responsible for developing how the ad will look. A) art director or the art department B) product management department C) copywriter D) account director

8) Which of the following statements explains why an organization would want to use an outside advertising agency? A) An outside advertising agency provides the client with the services of highly skilled individuals who are experts in a number of areas including creative, media, and research. B) An outside advertising agency has more knowledge of the brand's identity and its previous promotional activities. C) An outside advertising agency saves money for the client. D) An outside advertising agency helps the client gain more prestige and a better image.

9) The Performance by Results system reflects three groups of performance measures. Which of the following is NOT one of those measures? A) marketing communication effectiveness B) agency process evaluation C) comparison to previous year's communication budget D) overall business performance

10) ________ take(s) the creative work done in mass media and add(s) interactive functionality to be used in Internet and mobile media executions. A) The production manager B) Computerized adaptation programmers C) Small, boutique firms D) A digital creative services department

10)

11) An agency books television media space at a cost of $1,000,000. If cash discounts do not apply, what price does the agency pay to the media company? A) $850,000 B) $985,000 C) $1,150,000 D) $1,000,000 and the client pays the agency commission

11)

12) Many full-service agencies include sales promotion, merchandising, direct marketing, PR and/or other ________. A) specialized services B) organizational structures C) consumer needs D) niche opportunities

12)

13) International multiservice agencies were formed by mergers and acquisitions of mid-sized agencies in order to: A) provide integrated marketing communications services worldwide B) forge stronger alliances between agencies and their clients C) market their services more broadly D) eliminate the need for domestic agencies

13)

14) A ________ audit of an agency focuses on factors such as costs, expenses, and payments to outside suppliers while a ________ audit focuses on factors such as the agency's efforts in planning, development, and implementing the advertising program. A) qualitative/quantitative B) financial/creative C) results/process D) financial/qualitative

14)

15) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of integrated IMC services? A) Agency personnel have expertise in particular aspects of the process and therefore are inclined to consider all variables in the planning decision. B) It is more convenient to coordinate all of its marketing efforts through one agency. C) Clients maintain control of the entire promotional process, and achieve greater synergy among each of the program elements. D) An integrated approach creates one single image and voice to address all audiences.

15)

16) Which of the following is NOT a valid criticism of the commission compensation system for an ad agency? A) There is an incentive to avoid non-commissionable media. B) Media costs do not relate directly to effort or expertise expended by agencies. C) In periods of media cost inflation, the agency is disproportionately rewarded. D) It is difficult to administer.

16)

17) An ad agency that offers its clients a complete range of marketing, communication, and promotion services is known as a(n): A) media buying service B) full-service agency C) in-house agency D) comprehensive marketing organization

17)

18) The four behavioural objectives that are measures of marketing communication effectiveness are intent to purchase, trial, repeat purchase, and ________. A) viral media B) brand understanding C) positioning D) brand loyalty

18)

19) Advertising ideas and concepts are derived from the creative brief, which includes information about consumers, competitors, and the market. This is the responsibility of the: A) account planner B) account executive C) media director D) creative director

19)

20) Which of the following is NOT true about creative boutiques? A) Creative boutiques work directly with clients. B) Members of creative departments of larger firms sometimes leave to create smaller creative boutiques. C) Clients do not directly hire creative boutiques, but work with them through their Agency-of-Record. D) Creative boutiques are subcontracted by full-service agencies.

20)

21) Setting the creative philosophy of the agency and overseeing the work of the writers and artists are the responsibilities of the: A) master artist B) director of account service C) agency president D) creative director

21)

22) The function of gathering, analyzing, and interpreting information that will be useful in developing advertising is the responsibility of the agency's ________ department. A) production B) research C) traffic D) account management

22)

23) Which of the following results were found in a U.S. survey on agency-client relationships? A) Stronger results were more often delivered in dynamic, short-term situations than in long-term relationships. B) Agencies and clients tend not to trust one another, as profits seem to guide promotional planning. C) Results would be improved through better briefings from clients and a more thorough agency understanding of the client's business and situation. D) Clients should not be overly focused on creative strength when making an agency selection.

23)

24) Lack of sufficient internal expertise and personnel growing stale while working on the same product might be reasons why a company might move away from: A) a brand marketing system B) the use of full-service advertising agencies C) the use of creative boutiques D) an in-house agency

24)

25) Independent media buying services evolved for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) the proliferation of specialized media has increased the complexity of purchasing advertising media B) media buying services concentrate on the analysis and purchase of advertising time and space C) media strategy development and planning needs to be separate from the buying function D) advertisers attempt to consolidate their media spending in order to achieve volume efficiencies

25)

26) ________ specialize in offering services, such as database management, direct mail and creative and production capabilities. A) Public relations firms B) Creative boutiques C) Sales promotion agencies D) Direct-response agencies

26)

27) Independent companies that specialize in the purchase of radio and television time are known as: A) full-service agencies B) mid-sized agencies C) media buying services D) media measurement bureaus

27)

28) Negotiated commission rates for advertising agencies: A) are becoming more commonplace B) are designed primarily to benefit agencies C) are rarely used by consumer-products advertisers D) are becoming less common

28)

29) Critics argue that the use of ________ ties agency compensation to media costs. A) the commission system B) the fixed fee arrangement C) the objective-and-task compensation system D) the cost-plus agreement

29)

30) A ________ shows what a print ad will look like, while a ________ depicts the sequence of frames for a commercial or video format. A) storyboard; layout B) sketch; video reel C) layout; storyboard D) concept; trailer

30)

31) Major agencies that offer an ever-broadening range of IMC services would be more appropriately called: A) marketing communication agencies B) advertising agencies C) multinational creative boutiques D) full-service partners

31)

32) A major argument put forth by defenders of the commission system is that a commission: A) ties agency compensation to the inflation in media costs B) encourages agencies to use non-commissionable media such as direct mail C) keeps emphasis when choosing agencies on non-price factors like advertising quality D) keeps the agencies from placing advertising in expensive media

32)

33) Which of the following statements about the development of interactive media is NOT true? A) Traditional advertising agencies tend not to develop interactive media capabilities. B) Many marketers are using specialized interactive agencies to develop their interactive media. C) Full-service interactive agencies provide various services including strategic consulting regarding the use of the Internet and online branding, technical knowledge, systems integration, and the development of e-commerce capabilities. D) Interactive agencies range from smaller companies that specialize in website design and creation to full-service interactive agencies.

33)

34) Which type of ad agency is most likely to assist the client in areas such as marketing strategy and research, campaign planning and execution, and media planning and buying? A) a media buying service B) a collateral agency C) a full-service agency D) a creative boutique

34)

35) Why would General Motors switch to an incentive-based compensation system with several of its agencies? A) to save money on advertising and divert it to other business departments B) to encourage its agencies to look beyond traditional mass media advertising and develop other ways of reaching consumers C) to encourage their agencies to use more mass media advertising D) to encourage their agencies to stop using network TV advertising

35)

36) Since most of the client's ad budget is spent on media time and/or space, it is important that the media department: A) coordinates with the creative department to ensure that concepts are not too complex B) develops a plan that communicates to the right audience in a cost-efficient manner C) creates a plan that utilizes the least expensive media vehicles D) focuses on purchasing commercial time on the most popular shows

36)

37) Which of the following statements about changes in the way advertising agencies are being compensated is true? A) Since most clients want their agencies to be in total charge of the integrated marketing communications process, they are willing to compensate them based on media commissions. B) With the move toward integrated marketing services, it is likely that there will be a return to the commission system of compensation. C) From the viewpoints of both the client and the agency, the traditional commission system is much superior to negotiated commissions. D) Many agencies and their clients have developed some type of fee arrangement or cost-plus agreement for agency compensation.

37)

38) The ________ is responsible for creating the visual portion of an ad such as layouts and the commercial storyboards. A) product management department B) art director, graphic designer, or studio artist C) copywriter D) account executive

38)

39) The ________ are the individuals who conceive the ideas for the ads and write the advertising message. A) art directors B) traffic coordinators C) account executives D) copywriters

39)

40) A(n) ________ is the type of firm an organization would hire to develop and implement programs to manage the organization's publicity, image, and affairs with consumers and other relevant publics. A) media mix organization B) advertising agency C) direct-response agency D) public relations firm

40)

41) Which of the following statements about advertising agencies is true? A) Agencies must be used since companies do not have the capabilities of developing their own advertising. B) Most large, national advertisers use in-house agencies. C) Most large agencies offer only creative services to their clients. D) Agencies are often used because of the skill, expertise, and experience they can offer in the advertising area.

41)

42) An advertising agency that wants its employees to develop expertise in servicing a variety of accounts should use a(n) ________ structure. A) in-house agency B) creative boutique C) departmental system D) group system

42)

43) A major reason why some companies choose to use an in-house agency is to: A) win advertising awards that will enhance the image of their brands B) better understand how advertising works C) maintain creative freshness D) reduce advertising and promotions costs

43)

44) Which of the following best describes an Agency-of-Record (AOR)? A) the previous agency who did work for a particular client B) the primary agency whose foremost interest is in building the client's brand C) an agency that performs work on a project-by-project basis D) an agency that is subcontracted by the client directly for a particular assignment

44)

45) Agencies that are reluctant to let clients see their internal cost figures are less likely to accept a(n): A) incentive-based compensation agreement B) fixed-fee arrangement C) cost-plus agreement D) commission-based arrangement

45)

46) Many agencies are moving toward offering more integrated marketing communication (IMC) services: A) because they want to maintain control of the entire promotional process because it leads to more synergy among the various communication elements B) even though it is less convenient for a client to coordinate all of its promotional efforts with one agency C) although effecting economies of scale and synergy is difficult, especially on large budget campaigns D) because an agency with integrated marketing communication capabilities can create a number of different images of the product to appeal to all relevant publics

46)

47) Creative boutiques are agencies that: A) can perform the same functions as full-service agencies for their clients B) have resulted from advertisers wanting to save money in buying media space C) limit their client service to creative planning and execution D) are used only when research is not important to marketing success

47)

48) The Bright Ideas advertising agency handles each of its clients by assigning individuals from various departments to work together as a team on their accounts. The agency is using which organizational structure? A) departmental system B) dedicated system C) group system D) matrix system

48)

49) Jenna sees a commercial for a new brand of toothpaste. She decides to consider it the next time she goes to the drug store. This is an example of which behavioural objective? A) sampling B) brand awareness C) retrial D) intent to purchase

49)

50) The ________ is responsible for understanding the advertiser's marketing and promotional needs and interpreting them to agency personnel. A) account executive B) media specialist C) copywriter D) marketing specialist

50)

51) Which of the following is NOT a measure of marketing communication effectiveness? A) advertising likeability B) brand awareness C) retail sales results D) brand image ratings

51)

52) Personality conflicts, unrealistic demands by clients, and personnel changes are all reasons why: A) it is difficult to measure the effectiveness of advertising campaigns B) clients need to use more than one agency C) ad agencies lose clients D) planning and budgeting communication initiatives is difficult

52)

53) A ________ is a type of compensation arrangement where an agency charges a client a fixed monthly amount of money for all of its services and credits media commissions against this monthly rate. A) fixed fee agreement B) fee-commission combination C) cost-plus agreement D) negotiated commission

53)

54) Agency compensation under the commission system is based on: A) a percentage of a client's marketing budget B) a percentage of advertising production costs C) a specified percentage of any advertising time or space the agency purchases for its client D) the total number of hours worked

54)

55) A full-service agency offers its clients all of the following EXCEPT: A) research and creative development B) public relations expertise C) human resources management D) full range of marketing, communication, and promotion services

55)

56) Under the ________, the client agrees to pay the agency a fee based on the cost of its work plus some agreed-on profit margin. A) media commission system B) fee-combination arrangement C) incentive-based system D) cost-plus arrangement

56)

57) The growth of the Internet as a media vehicle has led to the need for all of the following, EXCEPT: A) a renewed focus on traditional media B) a digital creative services department C) the purchase of interactive firms by full-service agencies D) the coordination of digital and mass media advertising components

57)

58) Why are negotiated commission structures becoming more common? A) to ensure that agencies do not make too much money B) to support the creation of a transactional relationship between agency and client C) to encourage agencies to cut back on buying network TV advertising for their clients D) to consider the needs of clients as well as the amount of time and effort the agency spends on an account

58)

59) Which department within an advertising agency would assume the responsibility for hiring outside persons such as printers, engravers, photographers, or other vendors to turn a layout into a finished product? A) production department B) art department C) traffic department D) media department

59)

60) What form of compensation is used to pay the advertising agency when the client's advertising program does not involve a large amount of media billings? A) a rebate from the media B) a 17.65 percent markup on costs C) a share of the profits D) a negotiated commission

60)

61) The ________ department coordinates all phases of production to see that the ads are completed on time. A) media B) art C) production D) traffic

61)

62) Which of the following is assigned to Target's outside agencies? A) direct-mail pieces B) weekly circulars and in-store displays C) promotions D) branding and image-oriented communication

62)

63) Which of the following compensation methods should an advertiser adopt if its primary goal is to achieve efficiency and accountability? A) fixed-fee arrangement B) incentive-based compensation agreement C) fee-combination arrangement D) commission-based arrangement

63)

64) The communications link between the ad agency and its clients is: A) media B) creative services C) account services D) marketing services

64)

65) The ________ in an agency interacts with personnel from all disciplines and provides insights into consumers and how to communicate with them. A) traffic manager B) media director C) account executive D) account planner

65)

66) Target's internal creative department handles the design of each of these elements EXCEPT: A) direct-mail pieces B) in-store displays C) branding initiatives D) weekly circulars

66)

67) Joe Fresh moved its creativity in-house from an agency in order to: A) employ creatives from Target, who might have expertise in the U.S. market B) provide full service at a lower cost C) encourage its staff to think about the brand D) better understand how advertising works

67)

68) The department in an advertising agency that is responsible for analyzing, selecting, and contracting for ad space or time that will be used to deliver its client's advertising message is the ________ department. A) public relations B) media C) marketing research D) account services

68)

69) An agency books television media space at a cost of $1,000,000. The standard agency commission on this buy is: A) dependent upon the time of day the commercials run B) $15,000 C) dependent upon the actual shows in which the commercials run D) $150,000

69)

70) The agency person who is the focal point of the agency-client relationship is the: A) brand manager B) account executive C) media buyer D) product manager

70)

71) Which of the following statements about agency commissions is true? A) Most agencies are earning more of their income from fixed commissions as clients expand their IMC programs to include other forms of promotion. B) Most agencies are unwilling to negotiate their commission rates. C) Some leading agencies now receive average commissions of 8 to 10 percent. D) Nearly all of the leading agencies still earn a 15 percent commission.

71)

72) The ________ department is becoming an increasingly important part of the agency business as many large advertisers consolidate their media buying with one or a few agencies to save money and improve media efficiency. A) media B) traffic C) product management D) production

72)

73) When a client works for many years with a primary agency whose focus is on building the client's brand, it is known as a(n): A) agency-of-record (AOR) B) primary service provider C) principle agency D) full-service relationship

73)

74) Under the cost-plus compensation method, all of the following costs might be included in the calculation, EXCEPT: A) agency self-promotion costs B) out-of-pocket expenses C) media costs D) profit margin

74)

75) Marketers willing to increase message credibility and save media costs are more likely to use the services of a(n): A) sales promotion agency B) advertising agency C) public relations firm D) direct-response agency

75)

76) Cheerios has a sweepstakes on their boxes where consumers can win a family trip to Disney World. They hired a ________ to develop the creative, negotiate the trip costs, and administer the prizes. A) creative boutique B) sales promotion agency C) mid-range agency D) direct-response agency

76)

77) Which of the following should a client's evaluation of its advertising agency's performance NOT take into account? A) performance of account representatives B) market performance measures, such as sales and market share C) qualitative considerations, such as the quality of the agency's efforts in creative, media, etc. D) financial status of the agency

77)

78) The standard agency commission is: A) added on to the agency's media costs and personnel time B) 15% of media time and space costs C) 15% added on to media time and space costs D) a complex formula based on the type of media purchased

78)

79) Which of the following might NOT be a reason why an advertising agency would use a group system organizational structure? It would: A) allow agency personnel to become very knowledgeable about a particular client's market and business B) provide superior service for its accounts C) ensure continuity in servicing a particular account D) provide better pricing to a key client

79)

80) Which of the following is a business measure under the Performance by Results system? A) brand awareness B) intent to purchase C) productivity D) market share

80)

81) Because ________ purchase such large amounts of time and space, they receive large discounts. A) full-service agencies B) creative boutiques C) in-house agencies D) media buying services

81)

82) Which of the following would NOT be a valid reason for switching advertising agencies? A) conflicts over compensation policies B) a stagnation or decline in sales of the product C) dissatisfaction over the quality of the advertising produced by the agency D) a change in research methodology

82)

83) A ________ is an agency organizational structure in which each functional area is set up as a separate department. This structure is called on as needed to perform its specialty and serve all of the agency's clients. A) matrix system B) group system C) creative boutique D) departmental system

83)

84) A typical direct-response agency is divided into three main departments: A) creative, media, and production B) account management, media, and research C) account management, creative, and media D) creative, media, and research

84)

85) The traditional method of compensating ad agencies is with: A) the commission system B) the fee system C) the hourly billings D) the straight salary method

85)

86) The advertising remuneration process which rewards the agency based on the achievement of mutually agreed upon objectives is called: A) the fee-combination method B) the Performance by Results system C) the advertising reward method D) the cost-based system

86)

87) Companies who use a combination of in-house and outside agencies tend to use the external firms mostly for: A) creative and media services B) weekly circulars C) sales presentations D) direct mail pieces

87)

88) A major reason for a client using a(n) ________ is to reduce advertising and promotion costs. A) self-sufficient agency B) in-house agency C) client management system D) full-service system

88)

89) The brand manager for Carnation Evaporated Milk wishes to run a holiday cookie contest to find consumers' best recipes. The creator of the best recipe will win a trip to Paris, France. Most likely, Carnation will hire a(n) ________ to plan and execute the campaign. A) contest house B) public relations firm C) advertising agency D) sales promotion agency

89)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 2

1) B 2) C 3) C 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) D 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) D 42) C 16

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 2

43) D 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) C 56) D 57) A 58) D 59) A 60) D 61) D 62) D 63) B 64) C 65) D 66) C 67) C 68) B 69) D 70) B 71) C 72) A 73) A 74) A 75) C 76) B 77) D 78) B 79) D 80) D 81) D 82) D 83) D 84) C 17

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 2

85) A 86) B 87) A 88) B 89) D

Chapter 3 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Dara Smith looked at articles in Consumer Reports magazine and asked the salesperson at Future Shop many questions before purchasing a stereo receiver. These activities are examples of: A) internal search B) post-purchase evaluation C) external search D) problem clarification

2) Lower level needs such as hunger and thirst are important to marketers because these needs: A) are an ongoing source of motivation for most consumer purchase behaviour B) are the hardest to satisfy C) are the source for most market development strategies D) offer marketers a basis for differentiating their products

3) The first step in the target market process is to: A) segment the market B) determine the marketing positioning strategy C) select a target market D) develop new products

4) An external information search might include each of the following EXCEPT: A) print media B) advertising and/or salespeople C) past outcomes from using the brand D) the opinions of friends and relatives

5) A product manager for a new brand of laundry detergent must: A) create pioneering advertising B) maintain a lower price than competitors C) interrupt consumers' routine choice behaviour and get them to consider a new brand D) increase problem recognition for detergent purchases

6) Promotional planners differentiate between a brand's target market and the target audience. Which of the following statements is the best illustration of this concept? A) Rimmel targets women aged 16-45 for their cosmetic products. They have engaged a popular blogger to review their new line of lipstick in the hopes that young social-media users will be enticed to try it. B) Some people prefer BMW's line of cars for the sleek styling and engineering. Others buy them to satisfy their esteem needs. C) Campbell Soup offers a variety of products. Some are ready-to-eat and others are best used as a recipe ingredient. D) The overall demographic of "women" can be further broken down in terms of lifestyle, values, and interests as well as their geographic location.

7) ________ segmentation divides consumers into groups according to their usage, loyalties, or buying responses to a product. A) Psychographic B) Behaviouristic C) Demographic D) Benefit

8) Need recognition is caused by a difference between the consumer's ________. A) view of the world and their place in it B) past and current consumption patterns C) ideal state and actual state D) attitudes and responses

9) An advertising campaign stating that BMW "outperforms most cars on the road even before you step on the accelerator" is an example of ________ segmentation. A) usage B) benefit C) demographic D) VALS

10) A group whose presumed perspective or values are used by an individual as the basis for his judgments, opinions, and actions is a: A) demographic group B) social class C) reference group D) subculture

10)

11) ________ describe(s) the group of consumers toward whom an overall marketing program is directed. A) Audience B) Millennials C) The target market D) Demographics

11)

12) Yonique was a beverage made from yogurt. It was similar in consistency to a milkshake, but made with yogurt instead of milk. Even though its marketers tried to use marketer-induced need recognition, the product failed in large measure because: A) need recognition does not occur with new products B) consumers did not see a need for the product C) marketers cannot induce need recognition D) consumers do not engage in novelty-seeking behaviour

12)

13) An ad for Nivea skin cream which is used by women states that the cream allows you to "give your skin back its own wrinkle control." This ad is using ________ segmentation. A) psychographic and behaviouristic B) behaviouristic and benefit sought C) benefit sought and demographic D) demographic and psychographic

13)

14) Simplified decision rules such as "Always buy the largest size of the cheapest priced detergent" or "Only buy motor oil if the manufacturer is offering a rebate" are called: A) heuristics B) formalized group norms C) problem-solving consequences D) formal integration strategies

14)

15) ________ is the stage of the consumer decision making process whereby the individual scans information stored in memory to recall past experience and/or knowledge regarding various purchase alternatives. A) External search B) Alternative evaluation C) Internal search D) Post-purchase evaluation

15)

16) Most of the purchase decisions made by consumers for low-priced frequently purchased products are characterized by: A) limited problem solving B) cognitive learning C) routine response behaviour D) extended problem solving

16)

17) The ad for the Disney Institute at Walt Disney World describes vacations during which an individual can immerse himself or herself in the joys of gardening for a week and take classes with horticulturists. This is an example of ________ segmentation. A) demographic B) behaviouristic C) psychographic D) usage

17)

18) Daria is listening to music on her car radio. When a commercial comes on, she changes the station. Daria is engaging in: A) selective retention B) selective attention C) subliminal perception D) selective exposure

18)

19) Ads for consumer finance companies are often aimed at people making $25,000 or less annual salaries. Consumer finance companies are using ________ segmentation. A) lifestyle B) geographic C) demographic D) behaviouristic

19)

20) The headline for the Allstate Flood Insurance program ad reads, "There's a chance of flooding in your area. Are you willing to bet the house on it?" The ad shows a picture of a flooded home and shows how flood insurance helps to satisfy the ________ needs as defined by Maslow's hierarchy. A) esteem B) safety C) physiological D) social

20)

21) A reference group to which one does not wish to belong is a ________ group. A) disconnected B) disassociative C) segregated D) confrontational

21)

22) Consumer behaviour is defined as: A) the act of physically purchasing a product B) the act of making a final decision as to which product to purchase C) conspicuous consumption D) the process people engage in when searching, selecting, and using products and services that they need

22)

23) The Energizer bunny, the golden arches of McDonald's, and the Mr. Peanut character used by Planters' Peanuts are all examples of: A) trigger points B) cues C) mnemonics D) persuaders

23)

24) ________ segmentation is the grouping of customers on the basis of attributes sought in a product. A) Benefit B) Lifestyle C) VALS D) Usage

24)

25) Campbell Soup wishes to maintain consistent consumer purchase and consumption behaviour without having to advertise too often or too heavily. They should focus their communications on: A) new category users B) brand loyalists C) favourable brand switchers D) other brand switchers

25)

26) Advertising for Hilton Hotels tells consumers they can make a reservation by calling 1-800-HILTONS. The telephone number is based on: A) a mnemonic B) reinforcement theory C) classical conditioning D) a subliminal technique

26)

27) If you look around campus you will see many students wearing similar outfits, using similar electronic devices, even eating and drinking the same things. Maslow's theory would attribute these trends to ________ needs. A) self-actualization B) safety C) physiological D) social

27)

28) ________ is the complexity of learned values, norms, and meanings shared by members of a society. A) Motivation B) Culture C) Instinct D) Learning

28)

29) ________ segmentation has been increasingly accepted with the advent of the values and lifestyles (VALS) program. A) Psychographic B) Benefit C) Behaviouristic D) Demographic

29)

30) The brands identified by the consumer as purchase options to be considered is called a(n): A) choice subset. B) decision criteria. C) brand attribution list. D) evoked set.

30)

31) All of the following are demographic factors EXCEPT: A) product usage B) family size C) income D) age

31)

32) Bryan Nixon owns several apartments. Having tried some other appliance brands in his rental apartments and been dissatisfied with their short life span, Nixon will now only purchase Maytag brand appliances to go into his apartments. Nixon's repeat purchases of Maytag appliances indicate: A) strong brand loyalty B) the existence of cognitive dissonance C) the absence of any affect referral decision rule D) extensive decision making and strong psychosocial consequences

32)

33) Developing a(n) ________ allows the message to be more precisely delivered in a medium that has a higher proportion of the target audience. A) detailed profile of the target market B) evaluation of past promotional activity C) study of consumer attitudes D) substantial promotional budget

33)

34) For which of the following products is the consumer most likely to experience cognitive dissonance? A) diamond engagement ring B) chewing gum C) light bulbs D) garden fertilizer

34)

35) Which of the following is the LEAST effective potential basis for segmenting the consumer market for bran muffin mixes? A) home ownership B) lifestyle C) rate of use of muffin mixes D) age

35)

36) ________ is a preference for a particular brand that results in its repeated purchase. A) A purchase intention B) Brand loyalty C) Satisfaction D) Cognitive dissonance

36)

37) After determining the need for a product, the next stage in the consumer decisionmaking process is: A) motivation to purchase B) alternative evaluation C) information search D) attitude formation

37)

38) Perception is an important consideration for ad creation. Dior perfume used scent strips in its print ads and a caterer mailed free taste samples to potential clients to influence ________ and to increase the probability that the ad will be noticed. A) the level of sensory input B) perception retrieval C) subliminal perception D) consumer personality

38)

39) ________ is the process by which an individual receives, selects, organizes, and interprets information to create a meaningful picture of the world. A) Information search B) Integration C) Perception D) Problem solving

39)

40) Reference groups to which one would like to belong are called ________ groups. A) acquisitive B) integrated C) aspirational D) associative

40)

41) Which of the following bases for segmentation is employed when consumers are grouped according to their use of a product or service (heavy versus light)? A) Lifestyle B) Behaviouristic C) Benefit D) Needs

41)

42) Volvo's strategy of emphasizing the safety of its cars in its advertising reflects a positioning strategy based on: A) positioning by product class B) benefit segmentation C) psychographic segmentation D) positioning by price/quality

42)

43) ________ is the process and activities that people engage in when searching for, selecting, purchasing, using, evaluating and disposing of products and services so as to satisfy their needs and desires. A) Consumer behaviour B) Conspicuous consumption C) Exchange D) Learning

43)

44) According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, the highest level of needs are ________ needs. A) esteem B) social C) self-actualization D) physiological

44)

45) Psychographic segmentation considers each of the following variables EXCEPT: A) social class B) spending ability C) personality D) culture

45)

46) Marketers strive to develop and maintain brand loyalty by doing all of these things EXCEPT: A) using loyalty programs such as Air Miles B) running periodic promotions to deter customers from switching brands C) reducing reminder advertising expenditures D) maintaining prominent shelf positions and displays in stores

46)

47) ________ occurs when Betty elects to read only the book section of the National Post Saturday newspaper and not look at the other sections of the paper. A) Selective exposure B) Subliminal perception C) Selective attention D) Selective retention

47)

48) Oftentimes, changes in one's life lead a consumer to purchase products they have not used before. These consumers are considered to be: A) brand explorers B) new category users C) favourable brand switchers D) window shoppers

48)

49) An example of functional benefit is: A) the number of people you know who own the brand B) the taste of a soft drink C) the product photo in a magazine ad D) the model number of a plasma TV

49)

50) A judgement that consumers make with respect to the pleasurable level of consumption-related fulfillment is more simply known as: A) positive reinforcement B) subliminal choice C) brand loyalty D) satisfaction

50)

51) Oral B markets an indicator toothbrush that reminds consumers when they need to replace their old worn brushes. This strategy is focused to reach consumers at which stage of the consumer decision making process? A) Need recognition B) Internal search C) Purchase D) Alternative evaluation

51)

52) If an ad uses language or references to a lifestyle that is unfamiliar to the ________, there is less likelihood of it influencing in the direction intended. A) consumer B) target audience C) family size D) end user

52)

53) A ________ is a felt need that is shaped by a person's knowledge, culture, and personality. A) desire B) habit C) want D) purchase

53)

54) Lester's Smoked Meat is very popular in Montreal, but not as popular in the rest of Canada. Given this information, Lester's should use ________ segmentation. A) behaviouristic B) personality C) demographic D) geographic

54)

55) Marketers of new brands or brands with low market share need to ________ in order to break into their target's evoked set. A) advertise more B) use advertising more effectively C) gain awareness among consumers D) lower their prices

55)

56) When television stations sell advertising time based on age categories of viewers, they are using ________ segmentation. A) demographic B) behaviouristic C) psychographic D) geographic

56)

57) ________ are factors that compel or drive a consumer to take a particular action. A) Temptations B) Impulses C) Wants D) Motives

57)

58) ________ are customers that buy the main brand, but also buy another brand in the product category within a given relevant time period. A) Brand loyalists B) Other brand switchers C) Favourable brand switchers D) New category users

58)

59) Four Seasons Hotels offer their guests a choice of pillow, depending on their personal preferences and sleep habits. Which of the following statements does this policy represent? A) By offering the service attribute of a particular pillow, Four Seasons hopes prospective guests will recognize the performance benefit of a better night's sleep. B) Special pillows are a benefit of staying at the Four Seasons Hotel. C) Many people making the decision on which hotel to book consider pillows to be a key criteria. D) Four Seasons spends more on guest satisfaction in the hopes of building brand loyalty.

59)

60) New needs might arise from each of the following EXCEPT: A) Improved financial position B) Increased hours spent on social media C) Change in lifestyle or stage of life D) Dissatisfaction with a currently used product

60)

61) The brand image that Coca-Cola's recent slogans "Open Happiness" and "Taste the Feeling" amplify the ________ of the product. A) long-standing heritage B) refreshing cola taste C) experiential benefits D) value proposition

61)

62) Consumers are considered to be in "active shopping mode" during which stage of the consumer decision making process? A) Information search B) Purchase decision C) Need recognition D) Alternative evaluation

62)

63) Research shows that about two-thirds of the new insurance policies Prudential sells will be to current policyholders. This information indicates that ________ segmentation would be appropriate for Prudential to use along with demographic and psychographic segmentation. A) benefit B) usage C) personality D) geographic

63)

64) ________ refer to specific events or outcomes that consumers experience when a product or service is purchased and/or consumed. A) Attribute assignments B) Evaluative criteria C) Dissonance motives D) Consequences

64)

65) The consumer decision- making process is not always linear like the arrows suggest. Each of the following statements adds to this argument that EXCEPT: A) Mobile technology allows consumers to experience all stages anywhere at any time. B) The process is actually a meandering journey, with consumers going from store-to-store to get the best deals. C) Consumers may backtrack to a previous stage as information is acquired. D) The process is more continuous, as postpurchase evaluation may lead to prepurchase anticipation at some point in the future.

65)

66) On a trip to Halifax, Myra experienced car trouble. She knew she needed to find a good mechanic, so she asked the advice of the people running the motel where she was staying. She also called the local Better Business Bureau for help and looked in the local yellow pages. Finally, she called a friend who used to live in Halifax for his recommendation. Myra was obviously engaged in which stage of the consumer decision making process? A) Need recognition B) Purchase decision C) Information search D) Alternative evaluation

66)

67) Information such as product knowledge, meanings, and beliefs is combined to evaluate alternatives through: A) subliminal perception B) integration processes C) affective reasoning D) motive stimulation

67)

68) ________ is the first stage in the consumer decision making process. A) Alternative evaluation B) Internal search C) Need recognition D) External search

68)

69) ________ is a construct or notion that represents an individual's overall feelings or evaluation of an object. A) A perception B) An attitude C) A need D) A motive

69)

70) Marketers try to positively influence consumers' evaluation of their products because research shows a strong link between attitudes and ________. A) value consideration B) purchase behaviour C) needs D) motives

70)

71) The fact that some consumers want a toothpaste that fights cavities while others want a toothpaste that freshens their breath and whitens their teeth provides an opportunity for ________ segmentation in the toothpaste market. A) psychographic B) benefit C) demographic D) behaviouristic

71)

72) Jeff runs several times a week and believes that Nike running shoes are the best for his running style and the shape and size of his foot. Puma may consider it inefficient to advertise to Jeff because they consider him to be: A) a favourable brand switcher B) an other brand loyal C) unable to impress with their unique product features D) a picky consumer

72)

73) Psychographic segmentation considers values and lifestyle attributes based on an analysis of consumers' AIOs. This stands for: A) Activities, interests and opinions B) Attitudes, initiatives and options C) Aspirations, inhibitions and other psychological barriers D) Actual involvement and openness to new brands

73)

74) The perception process whereby consumers interpret information based on their own attitudes, beliefs, motives, and experiences is known as: A) selective exposure B) selective retention C) selective comprehension D) subliminal perception

74)

75) Steven rides his bicycle everywhere. It is his sole method of transportation, so he does everything necessary to keep it in top running condition. When the chain started to slip a little, he knew that the bike needed to be taken in for servicing at his local bike shop. At this point, Steven was in the ________ stage of the consumer decision-making process. A) external search B) need recognition C) internal search D) postpurchase evaluation

75)

76) Symbols, rhymes, association, and images that assist in the learning and memory processes are known as: A) mnemonics B) trigger points C) cues D) persuaders

76)

77) Concrete outcomes of product usage that are tangible and directly related to product performance are: A) experiential benefits B) psychological benefits C) evaluative proofs D) functional benefits

77)

78) Maxwell House Coffee ads emphasize consumers' overall emotional impressions of the brand with its "Good to the last drop" slogan. Maxwell House wants consumers to purchase on the basis of this impression and not by comparing specific attributes of other brands of coffee. This is an example of a marketer using: A) the affect referral decision rule B) psychosocial consequences C) cognitive input/output D) non-qualitative evaluative criteria

78)

79) Division of the market based on age, sex, family size, income, and other measurable characteristics is known as: A) quantified aggregation B) psychographic segmentation C) demographic segmentation D) lifestyle aggregation

79)

80) For which of the following situations is a consumer's purchase behaviour likely to be characterized by extended problem solving? A) The first time purchase of a personal computer by a student with no prior knowledge of PCs. B) The purchase of a new pair of running shoes by a consumer who runs regularly. C) The purchase of a laundry detergent. D) The selection of a restaurant for lunch with friends.

80)

81) ________ is a predisposition to buy a certain brand. A) A purchase intention B) Affective behaviour C) Satisfaction D) A purchase decision

81)

82) A feeling of postpurchase doubt or psychological tension that a consumer experiences after making a difficult purchase choice is called: A) dissatisfaction B) cognitive dissonance C) subliminal anxiety D) negative reinforcement

82)

83) An ad for a travel agency offers trips especially designed for grandparents and their grandchildren to enjoy together. This example illustrates the use of ________ segmentation. A) demographic B) lifestyle C) behaviouristic D) geographic

83)

84) Each of the following statements about the postpurchase evaluation process is correct EXCEPT: A) Unfavourable outcomes may lead to the formation of negative attitudes about the brand. B) Consumer decisions are rarely influenced by the cognitive dissonance of others; they prefer to form their own opinions. C) Feedback acquired from actual use of a product will influence the likelihood of future purchases. D) Positive performance leads to retention of the product in a consumer's evoked set.

84)

85) ________ occurs when the consumer chooses to focus attention on certain stimuli while excluding others. A) Selective exposure B) Selective comprehension C) Subliminal perception D) Selective attention

85)

86) Every afternoon at about 3 o'clock, Neil buys a cold drink. He either buys a Coca-Cola, a Mountain Dew, or a Minute Maid lemonade. He will not buy any other brand or type of soft drink because the three drinks make up his: A) brand attribution list B) subliminal choices C) decision criteria D) evoked set

86)

87) The level of need which a particular product satisfies may vary by consumer. A good example of this is: A) Tammy buys a new Columbia jacket because it's the latest trend, whereas Jessica buys it for its superior protection when winter camping. B) Celine has finally retired and can now devote time to the local theatre group. C) Mark wears the same name-brand boots as other members of the chess club. D) Juan and Maria both bring their lunch to school, but Maria's lunch contains a Mott's fruit cup for a snack whereas Juan prefers Pringles chips.

87)

88) ________ divides a market on the basis of lifestyles. A) Psychographic segmentation B) Benefit segmentation C) Leisure marketing D) Behaviouristic segmentation

88)

89) Reference group members play many roles in the purchase decision-making process. Which of the following is NOT one of those roles? A) The influencer B) The consumer C) The associate D) The initiator

89)

90) ________ refers to relatively homogeneous divisions in a society into which people sharing similar lifestyles, values, norms, interests, and behaviours can be grouped. A) Market segment B) Culture C) Social class D) Target market

90)

91) Bell Canada uses ________ segmentation to segment consumers in terms of how much leisure telephone calling they do. A) behaviouristic B) demographic C) VALS D) lifestyle

91)

92) Which of the following attributes are probable evaluative criteria that students use to purchase a new smart phone? A) availability in local electronics stores B) a favourite with bloggers C) price, styling, and camera quality D) advertising on popular YouTube channels

92)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 3

1) C 2) A 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) D 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) B 14

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 3

43) A 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) C 48) B 49) B 50) D 51) A 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) C 56) A 57) D 58) C 59) A 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) B 64) D 65) B 66) C 67) B 68) C 69) B 70) B 71) B 72) B 73) A 74) C 75) B 76) A 77) D 78) A 79) C 80) A 81) A 82) B 83) A 84) B 15

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 3

85) D 86) D 87) A 88) A 89) C 90) C 91) A 92) C

Chapter 4 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Inez and Troy were just strolling through the mall when they saw a mattress with adjustable levels of firmness in a store window. Once they became aware that such a product existed, they were eager to talk to a salesperson and learn more about the mattresses. After talking to the salesperson for thirty minutes, Inez and Troy realized they wanted to own one. They used their credit card to order a mattress and to pay for its delivery to their home. In terms of the models of response process, Inez and Troy have just gone through the stages in the ________ model. A) AIDA B) learning C) adoption response D) hierarchy of effects

2) The field of experience of the receiver most heavily influences which component of the communication process? A) Decoding B) Noise C) Message D) Feedback

3) Which of the following would NOT be considered "noise" in the communication process? A) The use of a sign, symbol or words that are unfamiliar to the target audience B) The preponderance of commercials during a popular TV show C) A competitor's glossy magazine ad compared to your one-colour newspaper ad D) A decrease in your advertising expenditure versus last year

4) The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) was developed to explain the process by which persuasive communications influence: A) group norms B) attitudes C) dissonance formation D) attributions

5) Which of the following response hierarchy models depicts consumers as going through the stages of presentation - attention - comprehension - yielding - retention - behaviour? A) The low involvement model B) The information processing model C) The AIDA model D) The hierarchy of effects model

6) The experiences, perceptions, attitudes, and values a consumer brings to a communication situation is referred to as his or her: A) source characteristics. B) field of experience. C) selective perceptions. D) common ground.

7) Which of the following is NOT a basic element of the communication process? A) Message B) Channel C) Source D) Integration

8) Although there is no single precise definition of consumer involvement, most conceptualizations of it focus on: A) personal relevance B) consumer motives C) personal goals D) consumer wants

9) ________ is defined as a consumer's desire for a product category independent of the particular brand. A) Primary demand B) Alternative evaluation C) Competitive interest D) Category demand

10) ________ is the part of the receiver's response that is communicated back to the sender. A) Reciprocity B) Encoding C) Noise D) Feedback

10)

11) When considering the implications of social media on the traditional communication model (source, message, channel, receiver, feedback), which of the following is true? A) The planning model still applies. The source of the brand message in this case is another consumer rather than the promotional manager. B) It is very difficult to obtain meaningful feedback from a message delivered through social media. C) User-generated content is not considered as a brand message, and therefore the model does not apply. D) The model needs to be reconsidered, as social media is a two-way channel of communication.

11)

12) The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) is a function of two elements. They are the ________ to process the message. A) knowledge and technical skills B) motivation and ability C) encoding and decoding abilities D) attitude and linguistics skills

12)

13) Which of the following response hierarchy models depicts consumers as going through the stages of awareness - knowledge - liking - preference - conviction - purchase? A) The hierarchy of effects model B) The information processing model C) The purchaser learning model D) The AIDA model

13)

14) ________ is any unplanned distortion or interference in the communication process. A) Feedback B) Selective perception C) Noise D) Blocking

14)

15) ________ is a term used to describe a message receiver's feelings of favourability or unfavourability toward an advertisement. A) Brand attitude B) Source derogation C) Purchase intent D) Attitude toward the ad

15)

16) Successful communication depends on all of the following EXCEPT: A) the receiver's perception of the source of the message B) the environment in which a message is received C) the interpretation of the message by the sender D) the nature of the message

16)

17) ________ involves the target audience's overall evaluation of the brand in relation to its ability to satisfy the reason why they want it. A) Brand attitude B) Brand significance C) Brand value D) Brand preference

17)

18) John is watching television and sees a commercial in which LeBron James is endorsing a pair of basketball shoes. John thinks to himself, "Boy, is LeBron ever juvenile and obnoxious. I wouldn't buy anything he promotes." This is an example of a: A) support argument B) counterargument C) source derogation D) message blockage

18)

19) A study of the various consumer response models shows that each of the following factors in promotional decision making are true EXCEPT: A) Managers need to have a detailed profile of the target audience to whom their messages are being directed. B) Managers want to know if their messages are achieving the intended results of improving awareness or attitudes towards their brands. C) Managers should plan for both the cognitive and the affective responses of the message receiver. D) Managers should not be as concerned about a consumer's previous brand experience as much as the effect that the current message has on both previous and prospective buyers.

19)

20) ________ refer to the lasting brand impressions that remain with the target audience after the target audience processes the message. A) Preference effects B) Retention effects C) Communication effects D) Awareness effects

20)

21) Which response hierarchy views the consumer as engaging in passive learning and random information catching? A) Informative processing B) Dissonance/attribution C) Low-involvement D) Standard learning

21)

22) The three traditional hierarchy response models all consistently view that the consumer moves through three stages, even though the steps may vary. These stages, in order, are: A) cognitive, affective, behavioural B) awareness, interest, desire C) affective, cognitive, purchase D) knowledge, attention, conviction

22)

23) Marketers of ________ often must communicate with passive and uninterested consumers who may focus more on nonmessage elements such as music, slogans, and jingles than on message content. A) x-ray machines, road building equipment, and walk-in refrigeration units B) ketchup, mustard, margarine, and soy sauce C) personal computers D) employment services

23)

24) Mentos mint candy uses an advertising campaign that shows people solving problems by thinking outside of the box by taking a fresh look at a common problem. Freshness is the message that the ad is supposed to deliver, but if Dick and Bella Lestor think the ad is simply showing people being rude and boorish, then in terms of the communication process, the Lestors have ________ the message improperly. A) encoded B) interpreted C) channelled D) decoded

24)

25) Honda broadcasts a commercial during "Law & Order," a TV program that is seen by a large number of viewers. The broadcasting of this ad takes place in a(n) ________ channel of communication. A) individualized B) personal C) verbal D) nonpersonal

25)

26) The effectiveness of a celebrity endorser in an ad depends on: A) the music, visuals, and copy that surround the celebrity's image B) the receiver's involvement level C) the popularity of the celebrity D) whether the consumer uses the brand

26)

27) Negative thoughts about a spokesperson in an ad are called: A) message blockages B) source blockages C) source derogations D) counterarguments

27)

28) Which of the following statements best illustrates how important the source of a message can be to a communication campaign? A) Many perfume brands employ famous, beautiful actresses to represent them in advertising. B) Consumers only pay attention to spokespersons with whom they are familiar. C) When photos of Olympic swimmer Michael Phelps using drugs appeared on social media, many of his sponsors cancelled his contracts. D) Nike is a well-known, successful brand.

28)

29) According to the elaboration likelihood model (ELM), a receiver lacks the ability or motivation to process information under the ________ route to persuasion. A) peripheral B) cognitive C) central D) affective

29)

30) Each of the following statements about an advertising message is true EXCEPT: A) advertising messages are generally put into a transmittable form that is appropriate for the channel of communication being used. B) advertising messages can be verbal or nonverbal. C) the effectiveness of an advertising message may be determined by the impression or image it creates rather than the information it contains. D) advertising messages cannot be primarily visual.

30)

31) According to the ________ hierarchy, advertisers of products like light bulbs, ketchup, computer paper, nail clippers, and other items bought without a lot of thought need to use heavy repetition strategy. A) high-involvement B) three-orders response C) low-involvement D) dissonance-attribution

31)

32) The various models of the ways consumers respond to advertising and other forms of marketing communication show that: A) consumers are generally highly involved in the response process and engage in active information processing B) it is important that marketers try to determine which type of response process is most likely to occur so that they can tailor their programs to favourably influence consumer response C) the notion of a highly involved consumer who engages in active information processing and acts on the basis of higher-order beliefs and well-formed attitudes is appropriate for all purchase situations D) consumers never make purchase decisions based on a general awareness resulting from repetitive exposure to advertising

32)

33) Trial, purchase, adoption, and rejection are all examples of the ________ stage of the response process and appear in all of the models describing the consumer response process. A) affective B) cognitive C) motivational D) behavioural

33)

34) A comprehensive literature review suggests that the effects of advertising should be evaluated using the following three dimensions: A) cognition, affect, and experience B) cognition, preference, and retention C) attention, preference, and retention D) awareness, affect, and comprehension

34)

35) When Sidney Crosby appears in a commercial endorsing Gatorade, the message source is: A) consumers who view the commercial B) the television program that the advertising provides financial support for C) PepsiCo, the company that owns Gatorade D) Sidney Crosby

35)

36) According to the dissonance/attribution model, the consumer passes through which of the following response sequences during the decision-making process? A) Learn feel do B) Do learn feel C) Do feel learn D) Feel learn do

36)

37) The source and receiver each have a frame of reference that they bring to the communication situation. Effective communication is more likely when there is some ________ between the two parties. A) feedback mechanism B) common ground C) field of experience D) interpretative link

37)

38) The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) states that there are two basic routes to persuasion, the central route and the peripheral route. With the peripheral route to persuasion: A) the message should contain a lot of information B) the message will be more likely received if a popular celebrity endorser is used C) the receiver is viewed as very actively involved in the communication process D) the quality of the message claims is more important than the spokesperson, headline, pictures, or music bed

38)

39) Which of the following is NOT a controllable variable in the communication process? A) Source B) Receivers C) Message D) Channel

39)

40) Some people have questioned the fact that Nike maintained their endorsement contract with Tiger Woods after his personal "fall from grace". The ill feelings that some people have towards him and his behaviour could be an example of: A) source blockage B) message blockage C) source derogation D) counterargument

40)

41) ________ occurs when an unconditioned stimulus and a conditioned stimulus occur in close proximity in time and space. A) Association B) Contiguity C) Repetition D) Generalization

41)

42) Which of the following hierarchical response models views the receiver of a persuasive communication as a problem solver? A) The hierarchy of effects models B) The information processing model C) The low involvement model D) The AIDA model

42)

43) Marius is watching a suspenseful TV program with a group of friends. During the commercial break everyone starts discussing the show, and he cannot hear the commercials even though he really wanted to hear the Molson Canadian commercial. Marius's inability to receive the Molson Canadian message is an example of which element of the communication process? A) Decoding B) Noise C) Feedback D) Encoding

43)

44) According to the ________, the consumer is an active participant in the communication process and gathers information through active learning. A) maximum likelihood model B) dissonance/attribution model C) low-involvement hierarchy D) standard learning hierarchy

44)

45) To attract new customers, a promotional manager may consider brand messages that: A) appeal to the consumer's intellectual capacity B) give less detail, in favour of catchy jingles and visuals C) include strong peripheral clues D) support high-involvement processing

45)

46) The ________ model is a response model that was developed for setting and measuring advertising objectives. A basic premise of this model is that advertising effects occur over a period of time. A) AIDA B) diffusion rate C) information processing D) hierarchy of effects

46)

47) Which of the following statements about effective communication is true? A) Effective communication is unaffected by the reception environment. B) For effective communication, marketers must understand the meanings that words and symbols attach to consumers and how these words and symbols are interpreted. C) Whether an ad is in black and white or in colour has no impact on how effectively the message is communicated. D) Advertising communication is effective because marketers are able to tell consumers how to interpret their messages within the context of the communication.

47)

48) When marketers develop an advertising message, one of their primary goals is to encode the message: A) so that it will be understood and interpreted in a similar way by most consumers B) using nonverbal communication so as to eliminate problems with connotations and jargon C) in a way that makes its message unique to each individual who is exposed to the ad D) so that it can only be understood by members of the target audience

48)

49) For most marketers, the ultimate form of feedback is: A) sales B) consumer inquiries C) use of reply cards D) store visits

49)

50) The fact that marketing and advertising people have backgrounds and interests that are often quite different from consumers who comprise mass markets for many products and services makes it difficult to establish: A) response hierarchies B) common ground C) feedback mechanisms D) fields of experience

50)

51) Visits to websites, participation in contests, digital forwarding of ads or stories, and Facebook "likes" are all possible forms of: A) electronic commerce B) decoding mechanisms C) feedback D) interpersonal communication

51)

52) The ad for Jergens lotion indicated that it has both beta hydroxy to defoliate dry skin and alpha hydroxy to moisturize skin. Someone who knew something about how these additives work might respond to the ad by thinking, "If it has both those ingredients, it must be really good for my skin. I'm going to buy a bottle." The individual's response to the ad's copy would be an example of a: A) positive execution thought B) support argument C) counterargument D) negative ad execution thought

52)

53) Which of the following communication processes will most likely be influenced by the experiences, perceptions, attitudes, and values of the message recipient? A) Transmission B) Decoding C) Encoding D) Noise

53)

54) ________ are thoughts that occur to a consumer when reading, viewing, and/or hearing a communication. A) Cognitive responses B) Affective responses C) Conative impressions D) Elaborations

54)

55) Which of the following statements describes how the traditional hierarchy of effects model can be used as a measure for advertising effectiveness? A) Awareness and recall are the most important measures of ad effectiveness. B) Consumers must pass through each stage before making a purchase. C) The hierarchy is not useful because sales are the only appropriate goal of advertising. D) The stages of the hierarchy offer useful intermediate measures of advertising effectiveness.

55)

56) The Rossiter and Percy perspective summarizes four communication effects for the target audience. They are: A) level of involvement, brand attitude, reference group influence, and affective behaviour B) category need, brand awareness, brand attitude, and brand purchase intention C) choice, consumption, loyalty, and habits D) consumer memory, brand knowledge, feelings, and action

56)

57) Attention, awareness, and knowledge are all examples of the ________ stage of the response process and appear in all of the models describing the consumer response process. A) affective B) behavioural C) cognitive D) conative

57)

58) An ad for The Westin Hotel in Ottawa contains an 800-number that people interested in reserving rooms at the hotel or knowing more about the hotel can call. One way to determine the effectiveness of this ad is to count the number of phone calls it receives in response to its ad. This response count is an example of: A) feedback B) decoding C) qualitative research D) noise filtering

58)

59) Which of the following statements about word-of-mouth (WOM) communication is NOT TRUE? A) Electronic WOM tends to cut down overall shopping time and time considering a product purchase. B) Marketers will target trendsetters and other influencers because consumers tend to listen to others' opinions about a brand. C) Non-loyal customers may be more responsive to marketing campaigns designed to encourage them to spread the word about a product. D) Both opinion leadership and opinion seeking contribute to online forwarding and chatting about a message.

59)

60) Mentos mint candy uses an advertising campaign that shows people solving problems by thinking outside of the box–by taking a fresh look at a common problem. Freshness is the message that the ad is supposed to deliver. When Dick and Bella Lestor saw the ad, Dick said to Bella, "That ad is simply showing people being rewarded for being rude and boorish. How could any company think that sort of ad would appeal to decent people?" Dick's comment about the ad source represents a: A) positive execution thought B) negative ad execution thought C) counterargument D) source derogation

60)

61) The ________ is a model that addresses the differences in the ways consumers respond to persuasive messages. A) cognitive response model B) AIDA model C) elaboration likelihood model D) 5-W's model of communication

61)

62) ________ is a feedback dimension based on the outcomes of product purchase and usage. A) Preference B) Knowledge C) Motivation D) Experience

62)

63) Molly saw a television commercial that said that a specific brand of pain reliever was much more effective than the brand she had used and trusted for the last twenty years. As a result of this commercial, Molly is likely to engage in: A) support arguing B) negative dissonance C) counter arguing D) source blockage

63)

64) Loblaws supermarkets buy an insert to go into Saturday's Toronto Star. The newspaper is read by over 100,000 people. The newspaper is an example of a(n) ________ channel of communication. A) direct-response B) individualized C) nonpersonal D) direct response

64)

65) Arminda is watching a late night TV show when a low-budget commercial for a local restaurant comes on the air. She is turned off by the poor quality of the commercial and immediately tunes out the message without processing any of the information. Arminda is engaging in what type of message processing? A) Source blocking B) Support arguing C) Peripheral processing D) Central processing

65)

66) Two critical factors that influence how motivated or involved the audience would be when responding to promotional messages are: A) the consumer's previous brand experience and degree of brand loyalty B) whether the product satisfies a high or low level need, and the brand's popularity among reference groups C) how new the product is, and whether the consumer has previous experience with it D) the popularity and fit of the celebrity chosen to represent the brand

66)

67) The AIDA model is often used to represent what ideally happens during: A) sales promotions B) personal selling C) the decoding of direct marketing advertising pieces D) the introduction of innovative new consumer products

67)

68) ________ is likely to occur when a point-of-purchase display for OPI nail polish is teamed with a life-size portrait of Katy Perry, a woman many admire and want to emulate. A) Cognitive conditioning B) Affective modelling C) Classical conditioning D) Psychological conditioning

68)

69) Which of the following is an example of a personal channel of communication? A) Radio B) Magazines C) Online customer service personnel D) Newspaper

69)

70) The ________ model explains the purchase decision making process when a consumer buys a high-involvement product for which there is a high amount of differentiation among brands. A) dissonance/attribution B) hierarchy of needs C) cognitive response D) standard learning

70)

71) Nike conducts a marketing research study and finds that the majority of consumers can recall the company's "Just do it" ad slogan. Nike can safely assume that consumers: A) will probably buy Nike athletic shoes B) appear to be aware of Nike's advertising C) have favourable attitudes toward Nike D) understand the advertising message Nike is trying to communicate

71)

72) The communication process begins with the process of ________, which leads to the development of a ________ that contains the information or meaning a source hopes to convey. A) encrypting; transmission B) encoding; response C) decoding; transmission D) encoding; message

72)

73) The four communication effects for the target audience summarized in the Rossiter and Percy perspective are category need, brand awareness, brand attitude, and ________. A) brand significance B) brand purchase intention C) brand value D) brand recognition

73)

74) Which category of cognitive responses includes a message recipient's reactions to factors such as the creativity of an ad, the quality of the visual effects, colours, voice tones, and the like? A) Ad execution-related thoughts B) Attitude toward the brand C) Source derogations D) Support arguments

74)

75) According to a comprehensive literature review, what are the three critical intermediate effects between advertising and purchase in the consumers' response process? A) Cognition, preference, retention B) Awareness, affect, comprehension C) Attention, preference, retention D) Cognition, affect, experience

75)

76) The element of the communication process that closes the loop in the communication flow and allows the sender to monitor how a message is being received and interpreted is: A) reception B) response C) encoding D) feedback

76)

77) The source or sender of an advertising communication: A) is typically identified as the owner of the medium in which the communication appeared B) is never a nonpersonal entity C) can be an individual or a nonpersonal entity such as the corporation D) is typically a salesperson

77)

78) Bob Smythe sells women's clothes and is making a sales presentation to the buyer at a major department store. Which of the following would NOT be considered a form of feedback that Smythe might receive from the buyer? A) The questions the buyer asks B) The nonverbal responses the buyer makes such as frowns or gestures C) The size of the order the buyer is willing to make D) The buyer's availability to meet at short notice

78)

79) Gillette believes commercials for deodorants are processed primarily through a peripheral processing route. This might explain why the company would use which of the following advertising strategies? A) Ads that pay more attention to information in the copy than executional elements such as visual imagery B) Detailed ads with strong message arguments about Gillette brands C) Ads that use celebrity endorsers and memorable jingles D) Very detailed ads with a great deal of information about the causes of body odour

79)

80) The encoding process leads to the development of: A) noise B) a message C) feedback

80) D) a channel

81) Learning through ________ plays an important role in marketing. Buyers can be conditioned to form favourable impressions and images of various brands through the associative process. A) instrumental conditioning B) classical conditioning C) operant conditioning D) the elaboration likelihood model

81)

82) Of the categories of cognitive responses discussed in the text, which is most likely to predict a viewer's attitude toward the ad? A) Ad execution-related thoughts B) Purchase intention thoughts C) Brand attitudes D) Product/message thoughts

82)

83) ________ is the process of interpreting a sender's message into thought. A) Decoding B) Channeling C) Encoding D) Responding

83)

84) The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) states that there are two basic routes to persuasion, the central route and the peripheral route. Under the central route to persuasion, a message recipient is viewed as: A) lacking the motivation to process a message B) unlikely to engage in detailed cognitive processing C) having a low level of involvement and relying on imagery processing D) being a very active and involved participant in the communication process

84)

85) Counts of customer visits to a store, consumer inquiries, coupon redemption, and recall of advertising are all possible forms of: A) personal communication B) noise C) feedback D) decoding mechanisms

85)

86) The hierarchical model representing the stages a salesperson must take a customer through in the personal selling process is the ________ model. A) AIDA B) hierarchy of effects C) information processing D) innovation-adoption

86)

87) Riley told Terry and Bill, Terry told Melissa, and Melissa told Gwen, Andrew, and Beryl that the new Chinese restaurant in town had authentically prepared Chinese dishes. This word-of-mouth took place via a(n) ________ channel of communication. A) verbal B) nonpersonal C) individualized D) personal

87)

88) For which of the following products would an advertiser be more likely to use the low-involvement hierarchy to explain the consumer decision making process? A) Bar of soap B) Wedding dress C) Yard landscaping D) Digital camera

88)

89) Travis missed the small ad for Walker Nursery in the newspaper today because his attention was distracted by an ad for an estate sale that was on the same page. In terms of the communication process, the ad for the estate sale kept Travis from seeing the plant nursery ad and acted as: A) a decoding block B) a receptor block C) noise D) negative feedback

89)

90) For which of the following products would an advertiser be more likely to use the standard learning model to explain the consumer decision-making process? A) Computer disk B) Pickup truck C) Garden rake D) Bar of soap

90)

91) The basic function of the elements of the integrated communication program is to: A) communicate with a firm's target audience B) convince customers to pay a higher price for a product or service C) educate customers about the features of a product or service D) convince customers to make a purchase immediately

91)

92) According to the ________ model, the major impact of the mass media occurs after the purchase is made. A) dissonance/attribution B) cognitive response C) standard learning D) low-involvement

92)

93) Nonpersonal channels of communication include: A) salespeople, friends, relatives, and spokespeople B) reference groups, sales clerks, and telemarketers C) online television broadcasts, radio, newspapers, and magazines D) newspapers, magazines, billboards, and salespeople

93)

94) ________ assumes that learning is an associative process with an already existing relationship between a stimulus and a response. A) Instrumental conditioning B) Operant conditioning C) Classical conditioning D) Peripheral conditioning

94)

95) ________ is the passing of information, the exchange of ideas, or process of establishing a commonness of thought between a sender and receiver. A) Encoding B) Communication C) Decoding D) Advertising

95)

96) Marketers trying to sell ________ will find the use of a catchy jingle or ad slogan to be most effective. A) products characterized by a low-involvement response hierarchy B) services where differentiation is important C) consumer durables that require detailed information D) products characterized by high-involvement response hierarchy

96)

97) Which of the following provides the sender of an advertising message with a way of monitoring the effectiveness of the message? A) The channel B) Noise filters C) Feedback D) Encoding mechanisms

97)

98) Research on the elaboration likelihood model (ELM) has shown that: A) celebrities are effective peripheral cues in a high-involvement situation B) celebrities are effective peripheral cues in a low-involvement situation C) peripheral cues are more important than detailed messages in high-involvement situations D) the quality of message arguments is likely to be very important in a low-involvement situation

98)

99) During the 2016 Olympics, Royal Bank of Canada aired heart-warming ads showing athletes who had received financial assistance in order to train and compete. RBC is hoping to influence consumers in the ________ stage of the response process. A) cognitive B) purchase C) affective D) behavioural

99)

100) Arvin believes that using personal channels will be most effective for communicating the launch of his new restaurant. He should employ each of the following methods EXCEPT: A) visiting local school groups and seniors centres B) rewarding his kitchen and wait staff for recommending the restaurant to their friends and families C) promoting current, and asking for new, menu suggestions over Facebook and Twitter D) billboards in his neighbourhood

100)

101) The ________ is the method or medium by which communication travels from the source to the receiver. A) channel B) source derivation C) feedback mechanism D) message transmitter

101)

102) Two-way communication between a brand and its consumers on social media such as Twitter, Facebook and blogs are examples of a(n) ________ channel of communication. A) nonpersonal B) individualized C) verbal D) personal

102)

103) Putting thoughts, ideas or information together in symbolic form is called: A) shaping B) encoding C) deciphering D) decoding

103)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 4

1) A 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) D 8) A 9) A 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) D 26) B 27) C 28) C 29) A 30) D 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) B 38) B 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) B 17

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 4

43) B 44) D 45) D 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) C 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) D 56) B 57) C 58) A 59) A 60) D 61) C 62) D 63) C 64) C 65) C 66) A 67) B 68) C 69) C 70) D 71) B 72) D 73) B 74) A 75) D 76) D 77) C 78) D 79) C 80) B 81) B 82) A 83) A 84) D 18

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 4

85) C 86) A 87) D 88) A 89) C 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) C 94) C 95) B 96) A 97) C 98) B 99) C 100) D 101) A 102) D 103) B

Chapter 5 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) A new manufacturer of stereo speakers which has no brand awareness developed a statement of advertising objectives, which stated that the goal of the company's new ad campaign is "To make 30% of the audience aware of our new brand." This statement could serve as an example of a: A) short-term promotional objective B) benchmark measure C) communications task D) sales objective

2) The concept of advertising expenditures producing long term as well as immediate results is known as: A) the communication effect B) the carryover effect C) DAGMAR D) the halo effect

3) Procter & Gamble wishes to encourage trial usage of Pampers diapers among new parents. An effective way to do this would be to: A) distribute free diaper samples to parents of newborns in the hospital B) encourage testimonials from other parents C) create a strong comparison ad between Pampers and Huggies diapers D) insert coupons into Pampers packages

4) According to the information processing model, which type of research/test would help determine the effectiveness of a campaign designed to target exposure to the message? A) Indicators of purchase intent B) Message recall tests C) Measurement of Web page views D) Actual purchase levels

5) One characteristic of good objectives is that they: A) create memorable advertising. B) specify a method and criteria for determining how well the promotional program is working. C) create awareness for the company. D) can only be measured at the beginning of the campaign.

6) Which of the following is NOT a likely problem for a manager who uses sales as a measure of advertising effectiveness? A) Sales offer little guidance or direction to those responsible for planning and developing the advertising program. B) Other marketing mix variables besides sales can affect sales results. C) There is often a long period between when advertising is run and when sales actually occur. D) The marketing and competitive environment have very little influence on sales.

7) According to the hierarchy of effects model, the percentage of prospective customers will ________ at the higher pyramid levels. A) increase B) be other brand switchers C) come from current users D) decline

8) ________ is an approach to setting advertising objectives, which states that communication effects are the logical basis for advertising goals and objectives against which success or failure should be measured. A) Zero based communications planning B) The hierarchy of effects model C) Inside-out communications planning D) DAGMAR

9) Every single point of communication should contribute to a target audience's understanding and knowledge of the brand name. This universal communication objective is known as: A) brand attitude B) brand awareness C) brand insistence D) market saturation

10) Sprite soft drink sponsored "Flowrider" surfing exhibits at major summer events, offering free samples of their new citrus flavour to consumers who attended. The behavioural objective behind this campaign was: A) brand trial B) purchase timing C) brand awareness D) repeat purchase

10)

11) Kool-Aid drink mixes face an interesting dilemma. A study of consumers' pantries in households with young children indicated that Moms have multiple packages of the product in the home. Until she makes up a pitcher or two of the drink, however, no further purchases will occur. Kool-Aid needs to initiate a program to encourage: A) brand trial B) purchase frequency C) repeat purchase D) repeat consumption

11)

12) Brand ________ is often referred to as unaided brand awareness when measuring. A) recognition B) unawareness C) recall D) objectives

12)

13) The information processing model may be an effective framework for setting objectives and: A) evaluating the effects of a promotional campaign B) researching consumer needs C) determining whether consumers will follow through on their intended purchases D) allocating the advertising budget appropriately

13)

14) Which of the following is at the top of the communication effects pyramid? A) Knowledge B) Awareness C) Preference D) Purchase/repurchase

14)

15) McDonald's has developed a campaign to highlight their healthier menu items, such as the 290-calorie Egg McMuffin. In order to determine whether the target audience accepts that McDonald's does offer healthy food choices, according to the information processing model, which type of research/test should McDonald's employ? A) Changes in inventory levels B) Message recall tests C) Listener, reader, viewer recognition tests D) Measurement of brand attitudes and purchase intent

15)

16) Which of the following is NOT a communication objective option for brand attitude? A) Increase brand attitude B) Maintain brand attitude C) Favour brand attitude D) Create or establish brand attitude

16)

17) DAGMAR is: A) a model of consumer behaviour B) a method of setting sales objectives C) the most often used method of setting objectives D) a model of advertising goal setting

17)

18) Air Canada set the following objective for its new advertising campaign: "To increase the percentage of consumers who know that our fares are lower than the competitors from 55 percent to 75 percent over the next six months." Using the criteria associated in the DAGMAR approach to setting objective, what is wrong with this objective? A) It does not contain a benchmark measure and statement of the degree of change sought. B) It does not specify a well-defined target audience. C) It does specify a specific time period for accomplishing the objective. D) Nothing is wrong with this objective; it satisfies all of the criteria specified in the DAGMAR model.

18)

19) As the Marketing Manager for Hellmann's Mayonnaise you create a message reminding the target audience of how delicious Hellmann's has always tasted in a turkey sandwich. Your primary communication objective most likely is: A) to remind new category users of how much they have enjoyed Hellmann's in the past B) to increase repeat purchases from brand loyals C) to convince non-mayonnaise users to eat more turkey D) to educate other brand users about the use of mayonnaise

19)

20) Achieving marketing objectives depends on the coordination and execution of ________. A) regional channels B) non-specific corporate priorities C) promotional elements across multiple vehicles D) all marketing mix elements

20)

21) According to the DAGMAR model, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good objective? A) A good objective specifies a time period for accomplishment. B) A good objective is concrete and measurable. C) A good objective is based on sales results. D) A good objective specifies the target audience.

21)

22) Managers who use the communications effects pyramid to set objectives believe that: A) lower-level objectives such as purchase and reuse form the foundation of the communications program B) the foundation of the communications program is set by accomplishing lower-level objectives such as awareness, knowledge, and comprehension C) advertising and promotion cannot accomplish lower-order objectives D) advertising and promotion should first accomplish higher-order objectives such as trial and purchase and then create awareness and brand knowledge

22)

23) Before setting objectives for advertising and promotion, an organization should: A) conduct a situation analysis to identify marketing and promotional issues facing the firm B) develop communication goals C) develop creative objectives D) conduct surveys to develop the media objectives

23)

24) Oreo wishes to create awareness of its new Swedish Fish (gummy candy) filled cookies. According to the hierarchy of effects model, which of the following would be an effective tool to use? A) sponsorship of 3-on-3 hockey and basketball tournaments, with signage and product sampling B) bonus packages in store, offering 20% more for the same price as regular Oreos C) magazine ads in publications geared to their intended target audience D) flashy video content on Oreo's website, showing Swedish Fish "swimming to a store near you"

24)

25) ________ at the point of purchase based on past messages can be sufficient for brand consideration or purchase. A) Brand preference B) Brand recognition C) Brand recall D) Brand superiority

25)

26) Each of the following is a strategy for stimulating sales through growth in the product category EXCEPT: A) encouraging current users to use the product in different ways B) encouraging non-users to buy the product C) providing various packaging sizes and formats D) increasing consumption by current users

26)

27) Michelin creates a TV commercial showing how their HydroEdge tires stop an average of 14 feet shorter than Goodyear's ComforTred tires. Their primary communication objective most likely is: A) to persuade new car owners that they bought the wrong tires B) to convince other brand users about Michelin's superior safety performance to ensure that their next purchase is a set of Michelin tires C) to convince non-drivers to buy a car and put Michelin tires on it D) to increase repeat purchases from brand loyals

27)

28) Which of the following is the most plausible target audience when the main marketing objective is to increase market share? A) Brand loyals B) Other brand switchers C) Other brand loyals D) New category users

28)

29) Ace Computer has an objective of increasing its share of the home segment of the personal computer market by 5 percent during the upcoming year. This is an example of a(n) ________ objective. A) organizational B) functional C) advertising D) marketing

29)

30) According to DAGMAR, the basic function of advertising is to: A) generate action B) change behaviour C) communicate D) create sales

30)

31) In mature markets with limited growth, firms tend to focus on ________ as the key marketing objective. A) sales growth B) generating awareness C) winning market share from the competition D) profit

31)

32) Brand recall is often referred to as: A) unaided brand awareness C) product knowledge

32) B) message acceptance D) product demand

33) The consumer's overall evaluation of the brand is known as ________. A) brand value B) brand attitude C) brand consideration D) branding

33)

34) Successful communications objectives must be measurable, time specific, have benchmark measures and: A) a well-defined target market B) be different than the previous year's objectives C) be convincing to the sales force D) a specific market share goal

34)

35) The ________ brand attitude is when a marketer focuses on a new motive for purchasing the brand that the target audience will be receptive toward. A) modified B) established C) increased D) maintained

35)

36) ________ objectives are types of objectives that are usually stated in terms of specific, measurable outcomes such as sales volume, market share, or return on investment. A) Marketing B) Sales C) Communication D) Organizational

36)

37) For which of the following advertising communication tasks should the specified time period required be the longest? A) Increasing brand awareness levels B) Increasing knowledge levels about a brand attribute C) Repositioning a brand D) Creating knowledge regarding a brand attribute

37)

38) According to Rossiter & Percy's approach, the link between marketing objectives and communication objectives is: A) environmental analysis B) measurement of brand attitudes and purchase intent C) behavioural objectives D) geared to sales figures

38)

39) Campbell's Soup aired TV commercials and ran magazine ads featuring recipes "just like Mom used to make." The behavioural objective behind this campaign was: A) brand switching B) purchase intent C) repeat purchase D) brand re-trial

39)

40) Companies that develop integrated marketing communications (IMC) programs that do not contain specific objectives: A) will be more successful than companies that develop IMC programs with specific objectives B) will be able to save money since they won't spend too much time worrying about what they are trying to do C) may find it difficult to facilitate coordination of the efforts of various groups working on a promotional campaign D) will often have too many benchmark measures against which the success or failure of their programs can be assessed

40)

41) A firm in a fast-growing market may have ________ as its marketing objective. A) market share B) sales growth C) profit maximization D) generating awareness

41)

42) Many marketing managers prefer sales-oriented objectives for advertising for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) sales-oriented objectives help get everyone involved in the promotional program to think about how advertising and promotion will increase sales B) money spent on advertising and promotion can only show measurable results through sales and market share data C) objectives should be based on the achievement of sales results D) the reason a company spends money on advertising and promotion is to sell its products or services

42)

43) Before beginning its new advertising campaign, TD Canada Trust conducted a study to determine consumers' level of awareness and knowledge of the bank and its services as well as consumers' perceptions of the bank's image. These are examples of: A) marketing research goals B) DAGMAR objectives C) communication tasks D) benchmark measures

43)

44) Marketers may have a ________ objective when communicating with their current customers who have previously purchased the brand and have the product in their home or work. A) brand-switching B) purchase-related C) repeat-consumption D) category trial

44)

45) Under the DAGMAR model, a(n) ________ can be performed by, and attributed to, advertising rather than a combination of marketing factors. A) functional communication change B) advertising benchmark C) marketing task D) communication task

45)

46) The purpose of setting specific marketing communication objectives is to: A) forecast the market share level that can be attained by good advertising B) provide a benchmark against which the success or failure of the promotional campaign can be measured C) put constraints on the creative department D) have a method of determining when to delete products from the product line

46)

47) Shahida Rampal owns a neighbourhood restaurant specializing in foods from her native India. Her research has shown that consumers in the area come to her restaurant 2 or 3 times a year, along with their visits to 4 or 5 other establishments nearby. She would like to entice these consumers to visit her restaurant at least one extra time over the course of a year. Her behavioural objective could be described as: A) brand trial B) purchase timing C) brand awareness D) purchase frequency

47)

48) Which of the following is NOT an uncontrollable environmental factor? A) The state of the economy and consumers' level of disposable income B) The relative price of the item compared to the competition C) Changing consumer trends and preferences D) Laws and regulations affecting the industry

48)

49) Virgin Mobile is trying to reach consumers who never owned a cell phone. This is an example of: A) fulfilled need B) repressed need C) category need D) unfulfilled need

49)

50) The hierarchy of effects model suggests that consumers move through a series of steps en route to purchase. Which of the following shows the correct order of these steps? A) Awareness, Understanding, Preference, Liking, Agreement, Trial B) Awareness, Knowledge, Liking, Preference, Conviction, Purchase C) Knowledge, Trial, Preference, Word of Mouth, Conviction, Repurchase D) Knowledge, Awareness, Trial, Liking, Preference, Loyalty

50)

51) Determining a target market's present level of awareness, knowledge, and liking toward a product often requires the taking of ________ measures. A) quantitative awareness B) qualitative awareness C) sales interval D) benchmark

51)

52) Under the DAGMAR approach, the communication task is based on the hierarchical model ACCA, which stands for: A) awareness, comprehension, conviction, action B) awareness, consideration, cost, achievement C) audience, customer, consumer, acquisition D) advertise, create, consume, act

52)

53) Which of the following is the most plausible target audience when the main marketing objective is to increase sales volume? A) Other brand switchers B) Other brand loyals C) New category users D) Brand loyals

53)

54) Which of the following is an example of the carryover effect of promotional communication? A) Coke and Pepsi's battle for brand supremacy has been going on for decades, with their share of market both hovering around 45%. B) Betsy is tired of seeing ads for diapers, baby toys, and clothing, as she already has three grown children. C) Davis has seen many Honda ads on television, as well as on rink boards on NHL broadcasts. His car just broke down, and he will take a test drive this weekend at the Honda dealership based on the strong brand attributes he recalls. D) Parveen tried a perfume sample in the fashion magazine she was reading and liked it so much that she purchased it the following weekend.

54)

55) The "category need" communication objective is also known as: A) demand build B) brand switching C) market share growth D) non-user stimulation

55)

56) Steven owns a card and gift shop. Recent research shows that the average sale in his store is $7.50. That is, consumers on average spend $7.50 each time they visit. Steven has initiated a loyalty card program which offers one free greeting card for every 10 that a consumer buys in the hope that can increase his store's average sale to $8.50 per visit. This is an effective tactic to use with what kind of repeat purchase objective? A) category building B) purchase timing C) purchase frequency D) purchase amount

56)

57) Which of the following behavioural objectives is more likely to be selected when a firm plans to increase its profit? A) Brand trial B) Category trial C) Repeat purchase D) Brand switching

57)

58) Using the DAGMAR approach, which of the following is NOT a stage of commercial communication? A) Awareness B) Action C) Conviction D) Sales

58)

59) Kraft distributes baking recipes on the labels of their peanut butter, in order to: A) add value to the peanut butter purchase B) show new peanut butter consumers what to do with it C) steal away other brand loyals D) encourage current users to consume more Kraft peanut butter

59)

60) Assume that the Greyhound Bus Company runs a six-month advertising campaign promoting its convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service without conducting any sort of marketing research. At the end of the six-month period, Greyhound conducts a study and finds that 80 percent of its frequent travellers agree that the bus company has convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service. Greyhound can conclude that: A) without benchmark measures, it will never know if the campaign was a success or a failure B) its advertising is working C) the campaign was successful in changing perceptions regarding its service D) the campaign was not successful since it should have nearly 90 percent of riders agreeing that it offers convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service

60)

61) Which of the following is NOT one of the four communication objectives accommodated by the R&P framework? A) Category need B) Brand attitude C) Market share growth D) Brand purchase intention

61)

62) The carryover effect: A) can be particularly long-lasting with mature, low-priced, and frequently purchased products B) encourages the use of nonspecific objectives C) has no effect on the relationship between advertising and sales D) has no impact on sales objectives

62)

63) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between marketing and communication objectives? A) Marketing objectives and communication objectives are synonymous. B) For a successful campaign, communication objectives can be developed before or after the development of marketing objectives. C) Communication objectives are derived from marketing objectives. D) There is no relationship between the two.

63)

64) Brands increasingly encourage website visits, interaction with other customers on social media and viewing or posting videos in content communities. This digital fostering of brand experience is a current form of: A) brand experience B) multi-level marketing C) shopper marketing D) purchase timing

64)

65) To many marketing managers, the basic reason a firm spends money on advertising and promotion is to: A) create awareness of the company B) position the company and its brands C) create a positive corporate image D) generate sales

65)

66) The use of sales as an advertising objective can be ineffective due to: A) the fact that advertising objectives emphasizing sales are generally the best operational guides to decision making B) the fact that there is often a lagged effect whereby the effect of advertising on sales is not immediate C) the fact that they offer sufficient guidance for those responsible for planning and developing promotional programs D) the fact that it is easy to isolate the effects of advertising on sales

66)

67) Which of the following is an example of a "smart" marketing objective? A) Skittles will target 17-year-old boys in order to increase consumption by 80,000 lbs. in the next calendar year. B) The purpose of Mr. Clean's advertising is to show home owners how it can be used to fight grime all around the house. C) Heinz plans to increase ketchup sales in Ontario by 6% this year. D) Bob has been told by his manager to grow his number of clients this year.

67)

68) According to the criteria outlined in DAGMAR, which of the following is the best quantitative benchmark statement? A) "Increase the number of female millennials mentioning the brand name when asked for brand preference from 40 percent to 50 percent." B) "Win new customers from our core competitor and increase sales volume by 15 percent." C) "Increase sales revenue by 10 percent." D) "Increase awareness of the brand in this calendar year."

68)

69) According to the DAGMAR model, a good advertising objective does NOT: A) specify degree of change sought B) indicate a starting point C) specify a time period D) target a diversified audience

69)

70) Procter & Gamble wishes to encourage trial usage of Pampers diapers among parents who currently use another brand, but might be willing to switch. An effective way to do this would be to: A) insert coupons into Pampers packages B) distribute free diaper samples to parents of newborns in the hospital C) create a strong comparison ad between Pampers and Huggies diapers D) encourage testimonials from other parents

70)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 5

1) C 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) D 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) B 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) C 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) A 42) B 13

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 5

43) D 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) A 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) D 57) C 58) D 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) A 63) C 64) C 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) A 69) D 70) C

Chapter 6 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The decisions within the brand positioning strategy are based on market definition, differential advantage, target audience brand attitude, and: A) economic considerations B) competitive activities C) consumer purchase motive D) demographic changes

2) Marketers will sometimes focus on additional brand benefits that have not been communicated previously. This multiattribute strategy is called: A) add new attribute belief B) add attribute beliefs C) influence brand functionality D) influence attribute importance

3) Brand position diagrams should show a comparison of competing brands on the basis of: A) previous response to advertising B) consumers' salient beliefs C) salient attributes D) consumers' aspirations

4) The key factor in communicating information about the brand and differentiating it from competitors is: A) the market positioning strategy assigned by its manufacturer B) the benefits the brand offers C) its integrated promotional strategy D) its perceived price differential

5) With its go anywhere for $69 ad campaign, Greyhound shows how inexpensively one can travel especially when compared to the cost of flying. Greyhound is using positioning by: A) product attributes B) product category C) cultural symbols D) brand name

6) Bounty paper towels' claim to be "the quicker picker-upper" is an attempt to: A) add new attribute benefits B) influence attribute importance C) influence attribute belief of competitor brand D) influence attribute beliefs

7) A(n) ________ positioning strategy occurs where the individual is motivated for social or individual reasons, and the ads emphasize how good the consumer feels while using the brand. A) product category B) user C) end benefit D) central brand

8) While developing its market positioning strategy: A) the firm generally chooses the market with the fewest competitors. B) the marketer will emphasize the improvement of product appearance. C) the marketer will choose a single category in which to compete. D) the firm considers as many feasible options as possible in order not to miss a market opportunity.

9) A&W's advertising focuses on their use of 100% beef raised without hormones or steroids in their hamburgers, a fact that seems to resonate positively with consumers. A&W are using a ________ positioning strategy. A) product category B) brand benefit C) central brand D) user

10) What is the distinction between the brand's positioning strategy and its actual brand image? A) Brand image is determined by actual sales figures. B) A well-conceived brand positioning strategy will guarantee a strong brand image in the hearts and minds of consumers. C) Actual brand image is the target audience's overall assessment of the brand versus what brand management had intended them to feel and think about the brand. D) Competitive activity will impact on brand positioning strategy but not actual brand image.

10)

11) With end benefit positioning, marketers make a direct link between a particular brand attribute and the consumer's: A) derived benefit B) usage situation C) product awareness D) brand preference

11)

12) Hellmann's "Real Food Movement" emphasized the fact that the mayonnaise was made from only pure ingredients, unlike other sandwich spreads. Prior to this, consumers had chosen spreads based mainly on taste. This focus on the health benefits of "real" food was an attempt to: A) influence negative beliefs B) influence brand recognition C) influence attribute importance D) influence attribute beliefs

12)

13) Dawn dish detergent claims to remove grease residue that other detergents leave behind. This focuses on consumers' ________ motives. A) mixed approach-avoidance B) social approval C) normal depletion D) incomplete satisfaction

13)

14) In addition to salient attributes, brand position diagrams should also compare brands on the basis of ________, such as overall satisfaction or social fulfillment. A) previous purchase decisions B) salient benefits to the consumer C) communication effectiveness D) personal needs assessment

14)

15) A market positioning statement: A) reflects the firm's market share in relation to the competition B) provides direction for each of the marketing mix decision areas C) divides potential segments into viable targets D) concerns both the business and consumer markets

15)

16) Prior to deciding on the most effective selling message, the marketer can use positioning to determine: A) the most inexpensive media buy, and then develop messages accordingly B) what competitive space the brand is competing in, as illustrated in a perceptual map C) whether specific brand characteristics are as relevant to consumers as price D) their relative market share in comparison to the competition

16)

17) All of the following are transformational motives EXCEPT: A) intellectual stimulation or mastery B) sensory gratification C) social approval D) incomplete satisfaction

17)

18) The market position diagram is also called a(n) ________. A) research plot B) perceptual map C) opportunity diagram D) perception indicator

18)

19) The Florida Orange Juice Commission's advertising campaign based around the slogan, "It's not just for breakfast anymore," reflects positioning by: A) usage situation B) product user C) product category D) cultural symbol

19)

20) Markets are partitioned by each of the following EXCEPT: A) brand name B) end benefit C) competitive dynamics D) usage situation

20)

21) DC Shoes emphasized the fact that their skateboard shoes minimize heel bruising when doing tricks, which is important to hardcore skaters. DC was using a ________ positioning strategy. A) user B) central brand C) brand name D) product category

21)

22) When Philadelphia cream cheese educated consumers on how to cook with the product, it partitioned the market according to: A) product category B) brand name C) usage situation D) end benefit

22)

23) Brand awareness, purchase intention, changes in consumer perception, and advertising are all factors considered in this stage of the brand positioning strategy decision process: A) monitor brand positioning strategy B) implement brand positioning strategy C) develop a market position D) assess brand position

23)

24) Each of the following scenarios is an example of repositioning EXCEPT: A) Molson re-introduced its Canadian Light brand as Canadian 67, to focus on the caloric content of the beer. B) Mercedes-Benz capitalizes on precision German engineering. C) Subaru Outback reversed sales declines by suggesting that consumers deserved to be outdoors more. D) Tetley tea began associating its flavours to different moods a consumer might have prior to consumption.

24)

25) Subaru Outback took a ________ position when they showed viewers that life outdoors was better than sitting at home. A) brand benefit B) central C) differential D) user

25)

26) ________ motives occur when consumers anticipate a problem if they do not take preemptive action through the purchase of a product. A) Problem removal B) Sensory gratification C) Problem avoidance D) Incomplete satisfaction

26)

27) Beliefs concerning specific attributes or benefits that are activated and form the basis of an attitude are referred to as: A) salient beliefs B) salient attitudes C) salient benefits D) salient attributes

27)

28) ________ motives are based on the product providing a positive experience via one of the five senses. A) Incomplete satisfaction B) Sensory gratification C) Normal depletion D) Social approval

28)

29) The first step in the development of a brand positioning strategy is: A) determine brand positioning strategy B) develop a market partition C) assess competitors' position D) assess brand position

29)

30) Which of the following illustrates how the use of positioning in a marketing communication context is distinct from positioning in a marketing strategy context? A) A marketer will use IMC tools that speak to a very specific target audience with a particular competitive reference point. B) A marketer will use the same message and set of IMC tools with every target segment in order to ensure integrated communication. C) There is no distinction. D) Only the communication positioning is relevant to the target market.

30)

31) Peter has been asked to partition the restaurant market by brand. Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate sub-division of this market by brand? A) Chinese vs Mexican cuisine B) casual vs fine dining C) drive-through vs dine in D) family dining vs corporate occasion

31)

32) Brand position indicates its: A) image C) relative market share

32) B) location on store shelves D) distribution intensity

33) Black & Decker introduced its Snakelight as an innovative solution to the problem of trying to hold a flashlight while working. This is an example of positioning by: A) product category B) brand name C) salient attitudes D) end benefit

33)

34) Gatorade's new G Series moved the brand from a hydration platform to a sports nutrition brand for serious athletes. This repositioning essentially expanded on their current brand benefit positioning into a ________ positioning strategy. A) brand attitude B) user C) product category D) brand name

34)

35) The headline on the ad for Broilmaster Grill read, "The Most Durable Grill Known to Man." Broilmaster is using a positioning strategy based on: A) product class B) competitor C) brand name D) end benefit

35)

36) All of the following are steps in the development of a brand positioning strategy decision process EXCEPT: A) assess brand position B) assess consumer income levels C) develop a market partition D) determine brand positioning strategy

36)

37) The criteria for market partitioning include the type of product, end benefit, usage situation, and: A) individual choice B) salient attitude C) competitive position D) brand name

37)

38) All of the following are informational motives EXCEPT: A) social approval B) normal depletion C) incomplete satisfaction D) problem removal

38)

39) A(n) ________ positioning strategy is possible when the brand can claim and deliver on the most salient benefits. A) brand name B) central brand C) end benefit D) product category

39)

40) A ________ strategy relates to the intended image of the product or brand relative to a competing brand. A) concentration B) differentiation C) market positioning D) brand positioning

40)

41) New Balance, which advertises that their shoes are best used for the court, for running, or for walking, is using positioning based on: A) product user B) usage situation C) product category D) brand name

41)

42) Informational motives are: A) based on non-users' states B) based on the consumer's normal state C) based on the consumer's negative state D) based on the consumer's neutral state

42)

43) Reactine's "Fluffy Kittens" ad repositioned the brand using a ________ strategy. A) sensory gratification B) multiple target C) problem-solution D) purchase frequency

43)

44) Which of the following is NOT a good example of a specific competitive space within a broader product category? A) sport coupés within the camping category B) anti-dandruff shampoos within the shampoo category C) chocolate bars within the chocolate category D) Windows Surface vs. iPads within the personal computer category

44)

45) Walmart has been very effective in positioning itself as a store that offers quality products at a very good price. Their strategy reflects positioning based on: A) demographic segmentation B) product category C) brand name D) psychographic segmentation

45)

46) Hellmann's used the healthy positioning of its "Real Food Movement" campaign to partition the market according to: A) product category B) usage situation C) brand name D) end benefit

46)

47) HP is partitioning the laptop market into work vs pleasure. They are partitioning by: A) usage situation B) type of product C) end benefit D) brand name

47)

48) Dove changed the face of the personal care market with its Campaign for Real Beauty, in which the brand took a ________ position with their focus on "real beauty" rather than "cosmetic beauty." A) central B) differential C) user D) brand benefit

48)

49) The ________ model studies consumer attitudes toward the brand, their beliefs about a brand's performance, the number of brand attributes, and the importance attached to each attribute. A) competitive positioning B) brand belief C) multiattribute attitude D) attribute consideration

49)

50) Ads for sunscreen in the summer and sidewalk salt in the winter are examples of messages focusing on ________ motives. A) mixed approach-avoidance B) normal depletion C) social approval D) problem avoidance

50)

51) When preparing perceptual maps, marketers will name the vertical and horizontal axes based on ________. A) salient attributes B) consumers' salient beliefs C) quality and price only D) previous response to advertising

51)

52) Shoppers Drug Mart positions its Life Brand products as a leader within the generic drug store brand category. Shoppers is using a ________ positioning strategy. A) differential brand B) user C) product category D) central brand

52)

53) The market position of a firm represents: A) the intended or unintended consumer belief in the organization's marketing efforts B) the firm's position in the global economy C) the way that the company has responded to the competition D) an expansion of the consumer's past impressions of the firm's marketing efforts

53)

54) Which of the following is NOT one of the ways that marketers use the multiattribute model to persuade attitudes of target audiences regarding brand characteristics? A) influence brand functionality B) influence attribute beliefs C) influence attribute importance D) influence attribute belief of competitor brand

54)

55) Which of the following is NOT an example of a base for implementing a positioning strategy? A) brand name B) distribution intensity C) usage situation D) product category

55)

56) Cheerios ran competitive ads that suggested people eat the cereal as a snack while watching TV, instead of chips and other salty products. This is an example of positioning by: A) product category B) salient attribute C) end benefit D) brand name

56)

57) Multiattribute models are used to gauge consumer attitudes toward a brand and the importance of the brand's ________ to the consumer's purchase decision. A) sales B) benefits C) promises D) name

57)

58) When consumers do not strongly believe that the brand possesses a particular important attribute, the market will attempt to: A) add a new attribute belief B) influence attribute importance C) influence attribute beliefs D) influence brand functionality

58)

59) ________ motives are active for consumers in purchase situations where they enjoy some elements of a product but dislike other parts and are seeking alternative solutions. A) Problem removal B) Incomplete situation C) Problem avoidance D) Mixed approach-avoidance

59)

60) Consumers looking for a shampoo to help with their dandruff problems are exhibiting: A) normal depletion motives B) problem removal motives C) sensory gratification motives D) social approval motives

60)

61) Organizations often involve themselves in sponsorship activities to signal that they are socially responsible. This is especially effective when positioning: A) competitively inferior brands B) business-to-business products C) consumer services D) corporate brands

61)

62) Ingrained brand attitudes and consumer familiarity with the market structure makes ________ difficult to achieve. A) perception monitoring B) response evaluation C) sensory gratification D) brand repositioning

62)

63) Apple Computers positioned itself as user friendly and thus gained an advantage over IBM. Apple used positioning by: A) product user B) end benefit C) cultural symbols D) brand name

63)

64) McDonald's has historically employed ________ with communication directed to children featuring Ronald McDonald, while parents received messages of the special time they could enjoy with their family. A) single target audiences B) positioning C) repositioning D) multiple target audiences

64)

65) Via Rail is in competition with the airlines and uses positioning by: A) product category B) brand name C) usage situation D) distribution intensity

65)

66) In light of consumers' beliefs that all banks were pretty much the same, Scotiabank repositioned itself on the basis of enhanced financial services. After building loyalty among its own customers, it used the phrase "You're richer than you think" to differentiate itself from other banks and connect with: A) other brand loyals B) lobby groups C) new home buyers D) category non-users

66)

67) Comparative advertising based on specific product attributes is an attempt to: A) influence attribute importance B) influence attribute belief of competitor brand C) add new attribute benefits D) influence attribute beliefs

67)

68) Consumers who visit websites to gather information while searching for a replacement computer might be considered to be: A) inquisitive B) brand switchers C) non-category users D) loyal customers

68)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 6

1) C 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) C 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) B 15) B 16) B 17) D 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) B 40) D 41) B 42) C 11

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 6

43) C 44) A 45) C 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) A 52) D 53) A 54) A 55) B 56) A 57) B 58) C 59) D 60) B 61) D 62) D 63) B 64) D 65) A 66) A 67) B 68) B

Chapter 7 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The computer software company Intuit runs an advertising campaign for Quicken that promotes the fact that it is the most preferred and bestselling brand of financial software. This is an example of what type of advertising appeal? A) emotional B) product popularity C) transformational D) teaser

2) A number of years ago Shell advertised its premium grade of gasoline as the only brand with "Platformate," a special ingredient that helped clean the engine and yield higher gas mileage. This is an example of what type of approach to a major selling idea? A) Transformation B) Inherent drama C) Brand image D) Unique selling proposition

3) Trout and Ries originally described ________ as the image consumers have of a brand in relation to competing brands. A) positioning B) brand image C) inherent drama D) unique selling proposition

4) A study by Roobina Ohanian of consumers' perceptions of celebrity endorsers found that the characteristic that most influenced consumers' intentions to purchase a product endorsed by a celebrity was perceived: A) attractiveness B) expertise C) likeability D) trustworthiness

5) Which of the following is the best example of a USP, as defined by Rosser Reeves of the Ted Bates agency? A) Energizer uses their iconic battery-operated bunny to demonstrate how much longer their batteries work than the competition. B) Tesla is building the Model 3, a small, completely electric battery-fueled vehicle, as their entry into this growing market. C) Pepsi-Cola now offers a zero calorie, zero carb beverage to compete with Coke. D) Nike has many entries in the professional sports shoe market.

6) Unlike other alkaline batteries and traditional rechargeable batteries, Rayovac Renewal alkaline battery is reusable 25 times or more. The ad headline read, "Introducing the Best-Performing Battery System in All of Creation." This ad was based on the Rayovac Renewal alkaline battery's: A) brand image B) brand equity C) inherent drama D) unique selling proposition

7) Account planners are responsible for the conducting and analysis of research in order to drive the creative process from a(n) ________ point of view. A) customer B) incubation C) historical D) head office

8) Research shows that consumers perceive Molson's Export beer as strong, bold, and outdoorsy. This is an example of how consumers assign a ________ to a brand. A) product benefit B) unique selling proposition C) personality D) product features

9) Which of the following is NOT an example of a favourable price appeal? A) McDonald's restaurant promotes its $2.99 meal deal. B) Walmart stores advertise their everyday low prices. C) Nissan advertises the 2008 Altima as the lowest priced car in its class. D) The Bay department store announces a new line of women's sportswear.

10) The creative team ________ when creating ads because clients can feel uncomfortable with advertising that is too different. A) follows proven formulas B) doesn't divulge their divergent ideas until they are ready for final production C) includes the client at every step of the process D) copies last year's campaign

10)

11) The ________ reduces the creative theme or idea into a few words or a brief statement that reinforces the branding message. A) consistent message B) slogan or tagline C) product illustration D) brand logo

11)

12) Which of the following statements about the use of corporate leaders as advertising spokespersons is true? A) The use of corporate leaders as spokespersons can create problems if the firm's image becomes too closely tied to this individual. B) Many companies believe the use of a company president or CEO is an ineffective way of expressing the company's commitment to quality and customer service. C) Only major Fortune 500 type companies use corporate leaders as spokespersons. D) Corporate spokespersons are ineffective for consumer products.

12)

13) Some marketers avoid the use of humour in their advertising because: A) humour can put the consumer in a good mood and increase liking of the ad B) effective humour is difficult to produce C) humour compels the receiver to engage in counterarguing D) humour can draw attention away from the product

13)

14) The end result of the creative process is the written document referred to as the ________. It specifies the basic elements of the creative strategy and other relevant information. A) animatic B) selling idea C) creative brief D) working document

14)

15) In order for a creative message to be considered a "campaign": A) it must be a new creative idea B) it must be scientifically proven to have longevity C) there should be multiple executions D) it needs to include many products in the mix

15)

16) The notion that a low credibility source may be just as effective as a high credibility source with the passing of time is known as the: A) time/place consequence B) identification outcome C) sleeper effect D) decay effect

16)

17) Dara is the creative director for the Wise-Humphrey advertising agency. She spends an hour every morning reading publications such as Marketing Magazine, Strategy, and The National Post to gain a better understanding of what is happening in the world of marketing and advertising. This activity can be characterized as: A) general preplanning input B) product specific preplanning input C) problem detection research D) verification research

17)

18) David participated in a study done by an advertising agency. During his interview, he was asked to gauge the services provided by a regional airline on the basis of his experiences and what others had told him. The interviewer asked David specific questions about the food, the seating arrangements, the ease with which he entered and exited the plane, and the service provided by the airplane attendants. Since the ad agency doing the research is the one that will be the creative strategy for the airline's new ad campaign, you know that David most likely provided the agency with: A) quantitative data which will be used by the client to determine market development strategies B) product/service specific preplanning inputs C) secondary external data D) general product inputs to be stored and used later

18)

19) This brand established itself as a cultural icon through its creatively divergent ads depicting its uniquely shaped bottle and thought-provoking visions of the world. A) Crown Royal Canadian whisky B) Natrel pure-filtered milk C) Absolut vodka D) Monster energy drink

19)

20) On a global level, the ________ is widely considered the most prestigious advertising award competition. A) Extra Awards B) Cassies C) Marketing Awards D) Cannes

20)

21) Consistency across time may be beneficial to attract the brand's non-customers because: A) the familiarity of the creative theme is recognizable when the non-customers may be entering the product category, or considering switching from their current brand B) consumers these days exhibit very little brand loyalty, especially the young adult demographic C) to be considered an effective communications campaign, brands should follow the "rule of 3" D) consumers tend to have longer recall when they are loyal to a brand

21)

22) The product's ________ says to the consumer, "Buy this product and you will get this benefit." A) copy platform B) brand equity C) unique selling proposition D) jingle

22)

23) The ongoing tales of Salty the personified salt shaker in Knorr Sidekicks ads is an example of the use of the ________ approach to determining the creative theme. A) consistency across time B) unique selling proposition C) inherent drama D) brand image

23)

24) Retailers wanting to announce sales, special offers, or everyday low prices often use a ________ appeal. A) favourable price B) news C) promotional D) popularity

24)

25) The ________ are awards given to celebrate Canadian advertising success stories. A) Bessies B) Cassies C) Extra Awards D) Marketing Awards

25)

26) An ad campaign to convince people to stop smoking uses three teens bungee jumping off a bridge. When they reach the ground, each grabs a soda can, opens it, and takes a drink. As the third person takes a drink, the can explodes and kills him. The final screen reads, "No other product but tobacco kills every third consumer." This ad is using a ________ appeal. A) humourous B) comparative C) nonverbal D) fear

26)

27) The source characteristic of attractiveness encompasses: A) comfort, recognizability, and beauty B) expertise, familiarity, and comfort C) beauty, familiarity, and recognizability D) similarity, likeability, and familiarity

27)

28) Golda has to create an ad campaign for an online subscription encyclopedia. She has gathered together all the relevant environmental information and has studied the product as closely as possible. Now it is time for the ________ stage of the creative process. She needs to work on another project and put the encyclopedia project completely out of her conscious mind. A) digestion B) illumination C) immersion D) incubation

28)

29) Which of the following statements about image advertising is true? A) Advertisers often use image advertising when their products or services offer a unique attribute or benefit to consumers. B) Image advertising is used most often when there are significant functional or performance differences among brands. C) Image advertising is often used when competing brands are difficult to differentiate on a functional or performance basis. D) Image advertising is most commonly used for business-to-business products.

29)

30) Clients give effective direction to their agency by developing a(n) ________ that summarizes important information about the brand's positioning strategy. A) information session B) campaign strategy C) brand mantra D) creative brief

30)

31) Advertising appeals that focus on the consumer's practical, functional or utilitarian needs and emphasize product features and benefits are known as ________ appeals. A) price B) emotional C) rational D) inherent drama

31)

32) Focus groups can be used during the advertising creative process for each of the following purposes EXCEPT: A) evaluate creative concepts, ideas, and campaign themes B) gain detailed insight into how and why consumers use a product or service C) find any special needs that are not being satisfied D) predict sales figures for a particular period

32)

33) Because of the ________ model, marketers may experience negative publicity if their product endorser is involved in controversy. A) meaning transfer B) endorsement shift C) celebrity popularity D) celebrity expertise

33)

34) According to James Webb Young, a former creative director at the J. Walter Thompson agency, the production of creative advertising ideas: A) is a definitive process that can be learned and controlled B) does not follow a definitive plan C) has as many different routes as there are different forms of creativity D) is a random process that cannot be taught

34)

35) A spokesperson who delivers an advertising message and/or demonstrates a product or service is known as a(n): A) indirect source B) direct source C) source mirage D) message shaper

35)

36) Which of the following statements describes one of the findings of research on the use of decorative or physically attractive models? A) Their effectiveness is limited solely to cosmetics and fashion products. B) The relevancy of the model to the product being advertised is not important. C) A decorative model can facilitate recognition of the ad but not enhance readership or recall of the message. D) They do not result in favourable evaluations of an advertisement.

36)

37) Marketers try to select spokespeople whose traits will maximize their message influence. The three categories of source attributes that should be considered during the selection process are: A) credibility, recognizability, and individuality B) power, image, and knowledge C) credibility, attractiveness, and power D) consistency, credibility, and continuity

37)

38) ________ appeals are often used for brands with a small market share. A) Feature B) Emotional C) Reminder D) Comparative

38)

39) The Dial soap ad campaign that used the slogan, "Aren't you glad you use Dial? Don't you wish everybody did?" is a good example of: A) a refutational appeal B) comparative advertising C) a mild fear appeal D) an irrational appeal

39)

40) A potential problem of using advertising with a strong fear appeal message to try and discourage drug abuse by teenagers is that: A) a message with a high level of fear may have inhibiting effects and be tuned out by teenagers B) parents may be offended if the message is perceived as too frightening C) fear appeals never work with teenagers D) there is no appropriate medium

40)

41) Each of the following describes the creative theme, EXCEPT: A) represents the central message of a marketing communication program B) comprises a variety of unrelated messages pulled together by strong visuals C) directly communicates the brand positioning strategy to its intended target audience D) reflects the market positioning strategy

41)

42) Rational and emotional advertising appeals: A) are essentially the same B) are used together only for low-involvement products C) represent two distinctive approaches which can never be combined D) can be combined since consumers' purchase decisions are often made on the basis of rational and emotional motives

42)

43) The creative themes of advertising are usually developed with the intention of being used for a long time period. This statement falls under the category of: A) consistency across media B) consistency across executions C) consistency across products D) consistency across time

43)

44) The first three sections of the creative brief are: A) a considered response to competitive activities B) derived from the client's marketing plan and discussions among brand management and creative specialists C) an extension of the previous year's communications plan D) independently developed by the agency creative team

44)

45) When Corona beer used their "Find Your Beach" creative on billboards, Instagram, YouTube videos, subway and transit posters, and in-store signage, they were employing a ________ strategy. A) consistency across media B) consistency across products C) consistency across time D) consistency across executions

45)

46) Source attractiveness leads to persuasion through a process of: A) identification B) comprehension C) compliance D) internalization

46)

47) The ________ approach is a method to determine the creative theme/idea that uses consumer benefits as a foundation with an emphasis on presenting these benefits in a dramatic way. A) positioning B) benefit C) brand image D) inherent drama

47)

48) Which of the following statements about celebrity endorsers is true? A) Consumers may more strongly believe the message conveyed by a celebrity endorser because they know that they are paid to deliver it. B) Research found that college-age students were more likely to have a positive attitude toward a product endorsed by a celebrity than were older consumers. C) The strongest impact on advertising effectiveness is positive information about the celebrity endorser. D) Consumers who are very knowledgeable about a product or service tend to be most persuaded by celebrity endorsers.

48)

49) Marketers who try to select spokespeople whose traits will maximize their message influence are concerned about their credibility. The two important dimensions associated with credibility are: A) consistency and image B) recognizability and expertise C) image and expertise D) expertise and trustworthiness

49)

50) Which of the following statements is NOT a reason for why marketers may use emotional appeals? A) The favourable feeling created by the appeal may transfer to the brand. B) Research has proven that emotional messages should be based on factual data. C) Emotional appeals can create favourable mood states, which make consumers more receptive to an advertising message. D) Emotional appeals can create feelings or images that are activated when consumers use the brand.

50)

51) A financial services company who wants to use a spokesperson would agree that expertise and trustworthiness are very important when focusing on source ________, one of the categories of source attributes. A) identification B) credibility C) image D) attractiveness

51)

52) Which of the following statements about feature appeals is true? A) Feature appeals focus on consumers' affective responses rather than on product attributes or benefits to the consumer. B) Feature appeals tend to be very informative and present a number of attributes that can be used as the basis for a rational purchase decision. C) Feature appeals can be used for advertising a product but not a service. D) Feature appeals are rarely used for technical and high-involvement products.

52)

53) Which of the following statements about the use of teaser advertising is true? A) Teaser ads cannot be used to draw attention to and generate publicity for an upcoming advertising campaign. B) Teaser ads are used by marketers to draw attention to upcoming advertising campaigns and generate interest and publicity for them. C) Teaser ads usually offend consumers. D) Teaser ads do not work well because consumers really do not pay much attention to advertising.

53)

54) A pharmaceutical company wants to promote a new over-the-counter cough medicine. The company has hired as its spokesperson an actor who has played a physician for several years on a popular soap opera. The first line of the commercial is, "Hi. I play a doctor on television." For people who are unfamiliar with this actor, the message source lacks ________, one of the source attribute categories. A) charisma B) power C) positive image D) credibility

54)

55) One way that a supermarket can make its ads seem more trustworthy is to: A) show customers talking about the supermarket on hidden cameras B) hire attractive actors and actresses who look like people wished they looked C) use cartoon characters in humourous shopping experiences D) use soothing music or an attractive colour combination

55)

56) Fear appeal ads promoting ________ would stress negative physical consequences or outcomes while appeals for ________ would stress the threat of social disapproval or rejection. A) deodorant soap; mouthwash B) safe driving; life insurance C) seat belts; deodorant D) anti-smoking; seat belts

56)

57) Which of the following statements gives a reason why a marketer might want to emphasize creativity in the development of an advertising campaign? A) Creative advertising cannot create positive feelings that transfer to the product or service. B) Creative advertising is effective even if it is irrelevant to the target audience. C) Creative advertisements that are creative for the sake of being creative often fail to produce a sale. D) Creative advertising can break through the clutter and make an impression on consumers.

57)

58) For weeks, Jill had been trying to come up with a creative approach to advertise shampoo. She had decided to try not to think about it for a while to see if her subconscious could figure something out. As she was relaxing in her bath one night, a great idea for a creative shampoo advertising campaign just seemed to pop into her head. She leapt out of the tub and began to write it all down before she forgot it. In terms of the creative process, she has just gone through the ________ stage. A) immersion B) digestion C) verification D) illumination

58)

59) A commercial for MADD (Mothers Against Drunk Driving) shows viewers the havoc that is caused by drunk drivers. The factual, newslike nature of the ad indicates it is using a(n) ________ appeal. A) refutational B) emotional C) fear D) rational

59)

60) To be appropriate and effective, a creative idea must be relevant to the: A) creative advertising team B) marketing objectives C) target audience D) corporate plan

60)

61) Which of the following statements describes a good reason for using celebrities in ads and having them endorse a company's product or service? A) Celebrities may be unable to enhance the target audience's perceptions of the products' image or performance. B) Consumers may focus attention on the celebrity and not attend to the product and advertising message. C) Celebrities cannot draw attention to advertising messages in a very cluttered media environment. D) The respect, popularity, or admiration a celebrity enjoys may carry over to the product she or he endorses.

61)

62) ________ is the ability to generate fresh, unique, and appropriate ideas that can be used as solutions to communication problems. A) Advertising creativity B) Positioning C) Promotional uniqueness D) A unique selling plan (USP)

62)

63) The Taxi advertising agency works to test a creative idea they have for a new commercial before moving ahead with the production of the spot. To make the test more realistic it wants to test both the visual layout of the commercial as well as the audio portion of the message. The commercial should be tested in which of the following forms? A) Animatic B) Print copy C) Reaction profile D) Storyboard

63)

64) The ________ sponsored by Marketing Magazine identify the top creative communication launched each year in a number of categories. A) Cassies B) Bessies C) Extra Awards D) Marketing Awards

64)

65) Petra is the creative director for an ad agency. The agency has just taken on a manufacturer of women's shoes for aqua aerobics as a client. As part of her preparation for developing a creative strategy, Petra reviews some studies conducted on the overall fitness and exercise market as well as a report on the changing roles of women in society. This information is part of the: A) general preplanning input B) illumination studies C) problem detection studies D) product specific preplanning input

65)

66) The ________ determine(s) what the advertising message will communicate, while the ________ lay(s) out how the message will be executed. A) creative strategy; creative tactics B) creative brief; media plan C) marketing plan; advertising plan D) consumer insights; consumer behaviour

66)

67) It is important that marketers ensure that all ads feature a similar "look and feel." This statement falls under the category of: A) consistency across time B) consistency across products C) consistency across executions D) consistency across media

67)

68) The creative brief is developed by: A) the account planner B) the brand manager on the client side C) the Institute of Communications and Advertising D) the agency's creative team

68)

69) Reading anything related to the product or market is a part of the ________ stage of the creative process. A) immersion B) reality check C) incubation D) verification

69)

70) Which of the following does NOT make a good advertising slogan? A) is complex and mystifying B) is distinct from the competition C) includes the key benefit of the brand D) evokes positive feelings

70)

71) A(n) ________ is a series of drawings used to present the visual plan or layout of a proposed commercial along with a description of the audio for each scene. A) animatic B) rough layout C) creative map D) storyboard

71)

72) According to the sleeper effect phenomenon: A) the impact of persuasive messages from low-credibility sources can increase over time since the message content becomes disassociated from the source B) people instinctively disassociate low-credibility sources from messages when they are paying less than full attention to the message C) the impact of persuasive messages diminishes over time D) people retain advertising messages when they see them right before going to bed and rehearse them in their sleep

72)

73) Dell computer has developed a significant technological breakthrough that will make its computers easier to use for novices. Dell will probably use which of the following types of appeals to announce the breakthrough? A) News appeal B) Favourable price appeal C) Emotional appeal D) Popularity appeal

73)

74) All Nippon Airways (ANA) is the largest airline in the Far East. Its ads focus on the Japanese hospitality that is offered on its planes everything from elegant tableware to the finest in Far Eastern cuisine. If comfort and fine food is important to you when you travel, then you should think ANA next time you are booking a flight to Asia. This development of a strong, memorable identity for ANA is an example of: A) unique selling proposition B) inherent drama C) image advertising D) attribute-based positioning

74)

75) Which of the following statements about research done by advertising agency about the use of humour in advertising is NOT true? A) Humour confuses awareness. B) Humour should not be used for advertising sensitive products. C) Humour may aid name and simple copy registration. D) Radio and television are the best media for executing humour.

75)

76) The theme for the advertising campaign is usually expressed in the ad through a slogan or ________. A) positioning statement B) tagline C) consistent illustration D) product shot

76)

77) Hubba Bubba bubble gum is the only chewing gum that lets you blow great big bubbles that won't stick to your face. This statement represents the gum's: A) brand image B) unique selling proposition C) inherent drama D) brand equity

77)

78) An ad for Neutrogena's Healthy Skin Anti-Wrinkle cream uses a(n) ________ appeal by noting that it is the brand most recommended by dermatologists. A) favourable price B) emotional C) product popularity D) comparative

78)

79) The creative director of an agency has chosen three likely creative ideas to concept test through focus groups in a couple of major markets. The findings of this research will guide the final tweaking of the creative concept. This represents the ________ stage of the creative process. A) digestion B) verification C) incubation D) reality check

79)

80) Nizoral A-D shampoo is the only dandruff shampoo made with the number one doctor-prescribed ingredient, an ingredient that its manufacturer holds the patent on. This is the product's unique selling proposition (USP). Which of the following statements about this USP is true? A) This USP does not benefit a large enough target market. B) This USP can be easily imitated. C) This USP creates a sustainable competitive advantage. D) This USP allows for the creation of a strong brand personality.

80)

81) The content of advertising with ________ appeals emphasizes facts, learning, and the logic of persuasion. A) subliminal B) transformational C) emotional D) rational

81)

82) A dental hygienist in an ad for toothpaste is quoted as saying, "If patients could see what I see, they'd all use Colgate Total." Since everyone who goes to a dentist regularly is worried about plaque, gingivitis, and cavities, and her statement implies that other brands do a poorer job than Colgate Total at preventing dental problems, Colgate is using a(n) ________ appeal. A) irrational B) comparative C) humourous D) nonverbal

82)

83) Studies show that creative advertising can positively impact emotional responses and get consumers' attention by: A) providing a reason to purchase B) breaking through the cluttered media environment C) fulfilling marketing objectives D) establishing new grounds for communication

83)

84) At the beginning of summer when the weather begins to get hot, the makers of Kool-Aid beverages wish to ensure that moms will stock up on their kids' favourite flavours. They should use a(n) ________ appeal. A) teaser B) reminder C) emotional D) rational

84)

85) Research by Environics suggests that Canadian and American ________ are not exactly the same, so marketers need to come up with uniquely Canadian executions. A) values B) emotions C) motives D) thoughts

85)

86) ________ research is a qualitative research method where 10 to 12 consumers from a target market are led through a discussion about a topic such as women's shoes or hunting. A) Psychographic B) Focus group C) Preparation D) Problem detection

86)

87) The use of celebrities in commercials is generally based on the source characteristics of ________ and represents an attempt to induce persuasion through the ________ process. A) attractiveness; internalization B) expertise; yielding C) expertise; identification D) attractiveness; identification

87)

88) ________ is the extent to which an ad contains novel, different, or unusual characteristics. A) Divergence B) Relevance C) Creativity D) Positioning

88)

89) Which of the following is NOT one of the responsibilities of the account planner? A) develop the core creative concept on which the campaign will be built B) provide key agency and client personnel with information required to make strategic decisions C) conduct research and gather all relevant information about the brand and the target market D) lay the strategic foundation and influence the way that the advertising turns out

89)

90) From the perspective of a brand manager, a commercial is likely to be judged as creative if it: A) wins creative awards B) communicates the message clearly and leaves favourable impressions among the target audience C) is unlike anything currently in the marketplace D) has a high level of artistic or aesthetic value

90)

91) Judy, the creative director for YTT ad agency, is observing a focus group for four-wheel drive SUVs. She is gathering ________ before she begins to develop creative strategy for an SUV manufacturer. A) secondary internal data B) illumination research C) product specific preplanning input D) general preplanning input

91)

92) ________ is defined as an attraction for a source based on a resemblance between the source and receiver. A) Likeability B) Familiarity C) Expertise D) Similarity

92)

93) The Bessies are awards celebrating the use of ________ as an effective medium. A) sponsorship B) television C) newsprint D) crowd-sourcing

93)

94) A copywriter in the Creative Edge agency has just been assigned to the Wendy's fast food restaurant account. One of the first things he may want to do is: A) try to come up with some big ideas that can be the basis of a creative ad campaign B) sit down and begin writing copy for sample ads C) come up with alternative positioning concepts for Wendy's D) spend some time visiting fast food restaurants, eating their food and talking to consumers about some of their specific likes and dislikes of Wendy's and their competitors

94)

95) Which of the following is NOT a form of qualitative research? A) Focus groups B) In-depth interviews C) Associative tests D) Mall-intercept surveys

95)

96) The relevance of the creativity to the target audience supports the: A) marketer's main objectives. B) efforts of the creative team. C) brand positioning strategy. D) message transmission.

96)

97) Technical and high-involvement products often use a(n) ________ appeal. A) popularity B) feature C) subliminal D) news

97)

98) Which of the following is likely to suffer when a celebrity endorses too many products and is seen too often by consumers? A) Credibility B) Power C) Expertise D) Internalization

98)

99) Attitude studies and perceptual mapping would be examples of: A) product/service specific preplanning inputs B) verification studies C) general preplanning inputs D) revision studies

99)

100) ________ of a commercial has been proven to be a major determinant of success in changing brand preferences. A) Frequent airing B) Uniqueness C) Likeability D) Length

100)

101) Each of the following examples uses an emotional appeal EXCEPT: A) Hallmark Cards' advertising focuses on people's reactions to receiving a greeting card for special occasions. B) Current commercials for the smart fortwo compact car show how easy it is to park in small urban spaces. C) Penningtons is a women's clothing store specializing in larger sizes. Their advertising shows plus size models "owning" their day, thus empowering women of all sizes. D) Old Spice used humour to update the image of their men's personal care products.

101)

102) Advertisements that focus on the dominant attributes or characteristics of a product or service are known as ________ appeals. A) price B) feature C) news D) product popularity

102)

103) The Extra Awards celebrate the use of ________ as an effective medium. A) television B) newsprint C) sponsorship D) crowd-sourcing

103)

104) Andrew is the creative director for an agency that has just taken on a golf ball manufacturer as a client. Before starting to develop creative ideas, Andrew reads some golfing magazines and spends time talking to some friends and co-workers who play golf. These activities are part of which stage of the creative process? A) illumination B) verification C) incubation D) immersion

104)

105) Advertising appeals that relate to the consumers' social and/or psychological needs for purchasing a product or service are known as ________ appeals. A) informational B) irrational C) rational D) emotional

105)

106) Each of the following statements regarding the relevance of advertising creativity is true EXCEPT: A) The creative can stray from the brand's positioning strategy if the advertising idea is original and has artistic value. B) Relevance has to create brand associations through specific cognitive and emotional responses. C) Relevant creativity will establish brand benefits and reasons why the target consumer should purchase it. D) The target audience experiences selective comprehension when faced with many competing promotional messages.

106)

107) Information from a credible source influences beliefs, opinions, attitudes, and/or behaviours through a process known as: A) conformity B) internalization C) identification D) compliance

107)

108) An advertising creative specialist wants to learn as much as possible about the market for a calcium-enhanced sports drink that can be used to develop the creative strategy. Which of the following should he NOT do first? A) Talk to nutritionists about the actual nutritional value of the added calcium. B) Brainstorm some ideas with colleagues to develop potential slogans. C) Get a group of athletes to sample the drink and give their opinions about its taste and consistency. D) Talk to coaches and trainers to get their reactions to the new product.

108)

109) Advertising appeals that express or imply some type of physical or emotional danger and try to arouse consumers to take steps to remove the threat are known as ________ appeals. A) fear B) nonverbal C) irrational D) comparative

109)

110) Before deciding to use a fear-appeal message strategy, an advertiser should consider the level of fear to use in the message because: A) a low to medium level of fear can attract attention and interest and may motivate the receiver to act to resolve the threat B) defensive reactions such as tuning out a message or perceiving it selectively may occur if the level of fear is low C) the message recipient may be motivated to act to resolve the threat if the level of fear is quite low D) fear appeals have only inhibiting effects on consumer behaviour

110)

111) To make a creative layout of a commercial more realistic, a(n) ________ may be produced by making a videotape of the ________ along with an audio soundtrack. A) animatic; copy platform B) storyboard; animatic C) animatic; storyboard D) campaign; storyboard

111)

112) An advertising campaign theme: A) is always tactical in nature and design B) is usually used in ads that run in only one type of media vehicle C) is typically designed by the client and implemented by the agency D) is a strong idea, as it is the central message that will be communicated in all the advertising and other promotional activities

112)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 7

1) B 2) D 3) A 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) C 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) D 27) D 28) D 29) C 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) D 19

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 7

43) D 44) B 45) A 46) A 47) D 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) B 53) B 54) D 55) A 56) C 57) D 58) D 59) D 60) C 61) D 62) A 63) A 64) D 65) A 66) A 67) C 68) B 69) A 70) A 71) D 72) A 73) A 74) C 75) A 76) B 77) B 78) C 79) B 80) C 81) D 82) B 83) B 84) B 20

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 7

85) A 86) B 87) D 88) A 89) A 90) B 91) C 92) D 93) B 94) D 95) D 96) C 97) B 98) A 99) A 100) C 101) B 102) B 103) B 104) D 105) D 106) A 107) B 108) B 109) A 110) A 111) C 112) D

Chapter 8 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) "You always have time for Tim Hortons" is an example of a: A) subhead B) needledrop C) catchy jingle

1) D) voiceover

2) ________ is an advertising execution technique whereby the focus is on using excitement and suspense to tell a short story with the product as the star of the ad. A) Slice-of-life B) Dramatization C) Imagery D) Animation

3) The physical arrangement of the various parts of an ad including headlines, subheads, illustrations, body copy, and identifying marks is known as: A) art direction B) visualization C) copy writing D) the layout

4) A ________ is a written version of a video message that provides a detailed description of its video and audio content. A) layout B) script C) storyboard D) concept

5) The audio portion of a commercial is often presented through the use of a(n): A) illustration B) voiceover C) layout D) headline

6) An ad for the Dodge Caravan shows how effectively the minivan handles the requirements of a family on the go. Which ad execution technique is being used in this ad? A) Straight-sell B) Demonstration C) Scientific evidence D) Comparison

7) When an advertiser cites technical information such as the results of laboratory studies in an advertisement, a(n) ________ execution is being used. A) scientific/technical evidence B) dramatization C) animation D) testimonial

8) A series of drawings used to present the visual plan or layout of a commercial is known as a: A) layout B) voiceover C) storyboard D) script

9) ________ is the words in the leading position of an advertisement that are likely to be read first. A) Primary copy B) Body copy C) Subheads D) Headline

10) A one-sided message can be effective when: A) the marketer presents negative information involuntarily B) the target audience holds an opposing opinion C) a company acknowledges its shortcomings and communicates how it has improved D) the target audience is highly educated

10)

11) Which of the following statements about the humourous execution technique is NOT true? A) Humour can be combined with other executional techniques but should not counteract other kinds of appeal techniques. B) Humour can be combined with other executional techniques for greater effectiveness. C) Humour used to garner attention without any direct brand connection is not as persuasive as when used with brand linkages. D) Humour can be effective across various mediums, such as TV, print, and even online.

11)

12) A widely used advertising execution style for packaged-goods products which attempts to portray a situation consumers might face in their daily lives is known as: A) slice-of-life B) peace of mind C) a demonstration D) dramatization

12)

13) Each of the following is a source of guidelines for the emotional portrayal of motive found in the creative tactics suggestions of the R&P planning model EXCEPT: A) intensity of benefit claim B) execution style C) like ad D) authenticity

13)

14) Each of the following statements describes microfilm advertising EXCEPT: A) It is used to motivate online viewing, discussion and distribution, and is intended to persuade. B) A shorter version of video messages emerged due to social media and the sharing of video messages online. C) The inverted U-shaped relationship with purchase intent suggests that brand identification should come before the entertainment, and not after. D) It is important that viewers enjoy the story, as this will motivate them to forward it, and it strengthens brand attitude.

14)

15) ________ is an advertising execution technique where some ads contain little or no information about the brand and are almost totally visual. A) Imagery B) Slice-of-life C) Demonstration D) Animation

15)

16) When a person speaks on the behalf of a product or service based on his or her personal use of and/or experiences with it, a ________ execution is being used. A) testimonial B) slice-of-life C) dramatization D) demonstration

16)

17) The manufacturer of Smucker's jams and jellies used the following slogan for years: "With a name like Smucker's, it has to be good." The ad implies that the brand name is poorly chosen and is a negative attribute that is overcome by the high quality of the product. This is an example of a: A) two-sided message B) one-sided message C) confrontational appeal D) refutational message

17)

18) Each of the following is a source of guidelines for the benefit claim of the brand message found in the creative tactics suggestions of the R&P planning model EXCEPT: A) information of benefit B) intensity of benefit claim C) number of benefits D) repetition of benefit claim

18)

19) A commercial that places the strongest points at the end of the message assumes a ________, whereby the last arguments presented are the most persuasive. A) primacy effect B) recency effect C) sleeper effect D) credibility effect

19)

20) ________ are the print ad components that are used to break up large amounts of copy and highlight key selling points. A) Subheads B) Layouts C) Headlines D) Illustrations

20)

21) Which of the following is true about audio messages? A) The voiceover speaker or actors should maintain an even tone to ensure comprehension. B) Music is not as much of a key component in audio messages, as it can muddle the meaning of the message. C) Brands employ unique sound effects to allow the visual to take hold in the receiver's mind. D) Jingles work best when they are introduced in a video ad first, before translating it to an audio-only format.

21)

22) The province of New Brunswick wants to encourage Canadians to visit their beautiful beaches during the summer. They want to give tourists the impression that a vacation in New Brunswick would be an ideal, and idyllic, experience. The marketing team should consider a(n) ________ execution style. A) animation B) imagery C) dramatization D) testimonial

22)

23) Which of the following statements about the dramatization execution technique is NOT true? A) The dramatization execution technique often relies on the problem/solution approach. B) The goal of the dramatization execution technique is to use testimonials to get the audience involved in the advertising story. C) The dramatization execution technique is similar to a slice-of-life execution but uses more excitement and suspense. D) The dramatization execution technique is particularly well suited to television.

23)

24) ________ are catchy songs about a product or service that usually carry the advertising theme and a simple message. A) Theme songs B) Voiceovers C) Needledrops D) Jingles

24)

25) Which of the following statements about the use of slice-of-life executions is NOT true? A) Slice-of-life executions have also been used in ads for financial institutions that try to show how their products and services can allow a customer to reach their future aspirations. B) Slice-of-life executions often present a problem consumers encounter and suggest a solution. C) Slice-of-life executions feature a real person talking on the behalf of a product or service based on his or her personal use of and/or experiences with it. D) Slice-of-life executions are sometimes criticized for being unrealistic and irritating.

25)

26) The visual portion of an advertisement may reduce its persuasiveness because: A) processing stimulated by the picture may be less controlled and less favourable than the processing stimulated by words B) verbal is always more effective than nonverbal communications C) pictures are always low in imagery value D) pictures may not attract attention to the product

26)

27) According to the R&P planning model, in order for ________ to be fully established, the target audience needs to understand how and why the brand exists (i.e. the message context). A) purchase intent B) ad recall C) brand loyalty D) brand awareness

27)

28) A study showed that the use of pictures providing examples increased message recall when: A) the pictures attracted attention to the product B) the consumer was loyal to a competing product C) the verbal information was low in imagery value D) the pictures were low in imagery value

28)

29) Straight-sell message executions are commonly used with ________ advertising appeals. A) rational B) transformational C) emotional D) teaser

29)

30) During which stage of the commercial production process do activities such as editing, recording of sound effects, audio/video mixing, and agency approval occur? A) Preproduction B) Preparation C) Postproduction D) Production

30)

31) On a cost-per-minute basis, ________ messages are the most expensive messages to produce. A) audio B) print C) video D) celebrity

31)

32) An ad for Lipton tea states that according to laboratory research, "a serving of tea has more antioxidants than a serving of carrots or broccoli." Which type of ad execution is being used in this example? A) Comparison B) Scientific/technical evidence C) Testimonial D) Dramatization

32)

33) In a television ad, actress and noted animal lover Betty White praised a flea and tick treatment called Frontline for the way it protected both her dogs and cats. These ads are an example of the use of what type of execution? A) Demonstration B) Humour C) Testimonial D) Slice-of-life

33)

34) Which of the following is a basic component of a print advertisement? A) Testimonial B) Slice of life C) Layout D) Endorsement

34)

35) The R&P planning model argues that ________ is a necessary precursor to ________. A) brand exposure; behaviour change B) previous purchase; brand satisfaction C) brand awareness; brand attitude D) creativity; ad recall

35)

36) Which of the following statements describes a potential problem associated with the use of indirect headlines in a print ad? A) Indirect headlines must always be accompanied by an engaging visual appeal in order to be effective. B) Indirect headlines rarely generate interest or curiosity and thus motivate the reader to become involved with the remainder of the ad. C) Indirect headlines may not be provocative enough to get the readers' attention and offer a reason for reading the remainder of the message. D) Indirect headlines only work when readers are already interested in the product or service being advertised.

36)

37) The R&P view of consumer attitudes is framed as a planning grid, with dimensions representing ________. A) brand recall and attitude B) affective and cognitive response C) involvement and motivation D) satisfaction and purchase intent

37)

38) Which of the following is an advertising execution approach designed to illustrate key advantages or features of a product by showing it in actual use? A) Straight-sell B) Demonstration C) Comparison D) Scientific evidence

38)

39) The ________ portion of an ad must attract attention and work in a synergistic fashion with the headline and body copy to produce an effective message. A) subheads B) jingles C) trademarks D) visuals

39)

40) During which stage of the commercial production process do cost estimating, casting, location selection, and selecting a director occur? A) Preproduction B) Production C) Preparation D) Postproduction

40)

41) Historically, radio has been referred to as: A) appropriate for local audiences only B) the theatre of the mind C) a low-budget alternative to television D) a cost-effective way to deliver technical information

41)

42) When an advertiser has something important or new to announce to a target audience, a(n) ________ headline will be used. A) direct B) affective C) visual D) indirect

42)

43) A marketer may not want to put weak arguments at the beginning of an advertising message because this action may: A) lead to a high level of counterarguing B) reduce the level of counterarguing C) increase retention of the message D) deter recipients from drawing their own conclusions

43)

44) Which of the following criteria are advertisers less likely to use in evaluating the creative work of their agencies? A) Appropriateness for the target audience B) Consistency with the brand's marketing and advertising objectives C) Likeability of the message D) Appropriateness for the media

44)

45) It is important for marketers to carefully select actors for audio and video messages because: A) incorrect associations may be made if the audience recognizes the celebrity from another ad. B) overexposure of the celebrity can strongly enhance the brand's message. C) visuals may not match the voices of the actors. D) celebrities may require more money than the commercial is projected to bring in.

45)

46) ________ are secondary headlines that usually appear in a type size smaller than the main headline but larger than the body copy of a print ad. A) Subheads B) Direct headlines C) Body copy D) Indirect headlines

46)

47) A written version of a commercial that provides a detailed description of its video and audio content is known as a: A) storyboard B) voiceover C) script D) layout

47)

48) "The ________ must be long enough to communicate the advertiser's message yet short enough to hold readers' interest." A) layout B) body copy C) subhead D) headline

48)

49) ________ is considered the heart of a print ad but is often difficult to get people to read. A) The headline B) The body copy C) The subhead D) The logo

49)

50) An ad shows dandruff on Jim's shoulder. He is rebuffed by his girlfriend. He then applies Head and Shoulders, and his dandruff disappears. His girlfriend is attracted to him again. This is an example of: A) slice-of-life advertising B) a response-stimuli execution C) demonstration D) testimonial

50)

51) Which of the following is NOT a critical point of a message structure? A) Message sidedness B) Verbal versus visual message characteristics C) Order of presentation D) Body copy

51)

52) Standard poster format, portrait orientation, landscape orientation, vertical or horizontal splits are all terms used to describe: A) layouts B) trademarks C) illustrations D) subheads

52)

53) Which of the following is an example of an advertising personality symbol? A) Tiger Woods B) Michael Jordan C) Snap, Crackle, and Pop characters D) Shaquille O'Neal

53)

54) Research has shown that the first thing people look at in a print ad is the: A) body copy B) headline C) visuals D) illustration

54)

55) A Tide detergent ad showing how a high school team manager easily removed all the grass and dirt stains from two dozen or more baseball uniforms by simply throwing them in a washer and adding Tide. The ad creator used which execution style? A) Dramatization B) Demonstration C) Slice-of-life D) Testimonial

55)

56) Which of the following is NOT one of R&P's suggestions regarding building brand awareness through recognition and recall? A) A bizarre or unusual execution style can be used if it is consistent with the brand attitude objective. B) The brand and the category need should be connected in the primary benefit claim. C) A jingle or similar memory tactic should be included. D) The primary benefit claim in the ad should be lengthy in order to be easily understood.

56)

57) Most advertisers refuse to use two-sided messages because they: A) have been proven ineffective by a number of different advertising research studies B) are concerned about the impact of a two-sided message on source credibility C) are concerned over presenting only the negative attributes of their brands D) are concerned over the negative effects of acknowledging a weakness in their brand

57)

58) When a target audience already holds a favourable opinion on a topic or issue a(n) ________ is most effective. A) two-sided message B) one-sided message C) open-ended message D) nonverbal appeal

58)

59) The function of music in a commercial is to do all of the following EXCEPT: A) create a mood state that will make consumers more receptive to the message B) help establish or communicate a key selling point C) showcase a famous music artist D) provide a pleasant background for the message

59)

60) A strong example of imagery execution style would be: A) a prosperous looking gentleman in a high-end restaurant, wearing a Rolex watch. B) Mr. Clean helping to clean up a huge kitchen mess. C) a dentist recommending Trident gum for his patients who chew gum. D) a happy, active family going on vacation in a new Chevy van.

60)

61) Presenting the strongest arguments at the beginning of the commercial message assumes a ________ is operating. A) primacy effect B) recency effect C) sleeper effect D) credibility effect

61)

62) ________ is the way a message appeal is presented. A) Creative structure B) Creative execution style C) Message structure D) Creative theme

62)

63) The function of a headline in a print ad is to do all of the following EXCEPT: A) lead readers to click on the link to the brand's website B) attract readers' attention C) perform a segmentation function by attracting the attention and interest of consumers who are the best prospects for a product or service D) put forth the main theme, appeal, or proposition of the ad in a few words

63)

64) ________ is a type of advertising execution style that involves creating a central character who can deliver the advertising message and with whom the product or service can be identified. A) Slice-of-life B) Testimonial C) Personality symbol D) Demonstration

64)

65) An advertising execution technique that is particularly popular for creating commercials targeted at children is: A) slice-of-life B) testimonial C) animation D) demonstration

65)

66) A special type of two-sided message is known as a(n) ________ message. The communicator presents both sides of an issue and then shows the opposing viewpoint to be false. A) emotional B) rational C) nonverbal D) refutational

66)

67) Which of the following statements about conclusion drawing is NOT true? A) Letting the customer draw their own conclusion should only be done when the marketer is looking for immediate action from the target. B) Whether to draw a conclusion for the audience depends on the complexity of the topic. C) Messages with explicit conclusions are more effective in influencing attitudes. D) Less educated people may make incorrect inferences from a message where a conclusion is not stated.

67)

68) An ad campaign to convince people to stop smoking uses three teens bungee jumping off a bridge. When they reach the ground, each grabs a can, opens it, and takes a drink. As the third person takes a drink, the can explodes and kills him. The final screen reads, "No other product but tobacco kills every third consumer." By placing the strongest point in the ad at the end, the ad's source is hoping its message benefits from the: A) primacy effect B) recency effect C) sleeper effect D) credibility effect

68)

69) A print ad for Titleist golf balls uses the headline "Do you ever wonder why Mike Weir can hit a golf ball so far?" This is an example of a(n): A) direct headline B) question C) indirect headline D) jingle

69)

70) A recent trend among major advertisers is to have ________ do the voiceovers for their commercials. A) singing groups B) people with accents C) celebrities with distinctive voices D) everyday people

70)

71) What is the main text portion of a print ad called? A) Body copy B) Subhead C) Headline

71) D) Layout

72) Common types of ________ headlines include those offering a specific benefit and making a promise. A) straight-sell B) indirect C) direct D) rational

72)

73) An advertising execution technique that relies on a straightforward presentation of information concerning the product or service is called a(n): A) demonstration execution B) animation execution C) straight-sell execution D) dramatization execution

73)

74) Which of the following is an example of an advertising personality symbol? A) Celine Dion B) The Man from Glad C) William Shatner D) Wayne Gretzky

74)

75) A television ad features a brand's particular advantage over its competitors. This is an example of a: A) dramatization B) demonstration C) straight sell D) comparison

75)

76) ________ headlines may be risky if the headline is not strong enough to get the reader to read the body copy. A) Rational B) Straight-sell C) Indirect D) Direct

76)

77) Research shows that items presented first and last are ________ than those presented in the middle. A) understood better B) liked better C) less effective D) remembered better

77)

78) Timberland Co. sells all-weather gear. For its advertising, it has developed an imaginary place called Timber Land, which is a utopian setting of extraordinary landscapes and crystal-clear water. Its ads use a(n) ________ execution style to get the audience to envision themselves in Timber Land. A) animation B) demonstration C) slice-of-life D) imagery

78)

79) Many advertising experts consider that the most important part of a print ad is the: A) body copy B) layout C) headline D) illustration

79)

80) The Old Spice Man is an example of advertising that uses which of the following advertising execution techniques? A) Demonstration B) Testimonial C) Imagery D) Personality symbol

80)

81) A commercial showing trucks and SUVs navigating tough terrain is an example of ________ advertising execution. A) imagery B) testimonial C) slice-of-life D) animation

81)

82) Drawing a ________ in the message may make sure that the target audience gets the point the marketer intended. A) primacy effect B) conclusion C) picture D) recency effect

82)

83) Some marketers have moved to using ________ which is a lower-cost and highly engaging way to show regular people interacting with the brand. A) reality-type filming of customers in purchase and consumption situations B) still photos C) consumer-generated ads D) lesser-known actors

83)

84) Recent television commercials for Buckley's Mixture invited consumers to "show us your Buckley's face". Their contorted expressions conveyed the idea that Buckley's tasted awful, with the implied suggestion that it was effective against coughs. This is an example of a(n): A) nonverbal appeal B) one-sided message C) two-sided message D) open-ended message

84)

85) Research suggests that Maytag's or Travelocity's employment of ________ is an effective tactical element to ensure awareness. A) laboratory results B) demonstration C) imagery D) personality symbols

85)

86) ________ is an occupational term in the advertising and music industries that refers to prefabricated, multipurpose music that is often used as the background audio portion of a commercial. A) Voiceover B) Needledrop C) Jingle D) Stock music

86)

87) Marketers who rely on image executions have to be sure that the ________ with which they associate their brand evokes the right feelings and reactions from the target audience. A) usage or user imagery B) location C) dramatization D) testimonial

87)

88) Advertisements for M&M candy featuring various colours of the candy taking on human personifications are examples of which type of creative execution? A) Dramatization B) Testimonial C) Straight-sell D) Animation

88)

89) A marketer may NOT want to use a message that draws an explicit conclusion for a target audience if: A) the message is high in complexity B) the audience is highly involved with the topic C) the product is highly personal or involves ego issues D) the audience is highly educated

89)

90) Skier Tommy Moe appears in ads for Dynastar skis in which he notes how the company's Coupe S Super Sidecut model helped him win the gold medal in the downhill race at the Winter Olympics. This is an example of which type of advertising execution? A) Scientific evidence B) Slice-of-life C) Demonstration D) Testimonial

90)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 8

1) C 2) B 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) C 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) A 27) D 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) A 14

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 8

43) A 44) C 45) A 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) B 50) A 51) D 52) A 53) C 54) B 55) C 56) D 57) D 58) B 59) C 60) A 61) A 62) B 63) A 64) C 65) C 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) C 70) C 71) A 72) C 73) C 74) B 75) D 76) C 77) D 78) D 79) C 80) D 81) A 82) B 83) A 84) C 15

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 8

85) D 86) B 87) A 88) D 89) A 90) D

Chapter 9 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) ________ is the laboratory method of pretesting ads which exposes a group of respondents to both control and test advertisements. A) Millward-Brown's link copy test B) Commercial testing C) The Flesch test D) Portfolio testing

2) A disadvantage of ________ is that there is always the fear that competitors may discover and intervene in the research process. A) test marketing B) inquiry testing C) a Flesch test D) recognition testing

3) Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe a disadvantage associated with the theatre testing of ads? A) The setup will be viewed as phony by many participants. B) The environment is very close to a natural advertising scenario. C) Participants will answer like they think they're supposed to not as a reflection of how they really feel. D) The group effect may cause some to react to an ad when they would not have ordinarily.

4) What should ad testing focus on? A) Creative tactics decisions B) Creative design and creative tactics decisions C) Creative strategy and creative tactics decisions D) Creative strategy decisions

5) In ________, people are brought to a particular location where they are shown ads and/or commercials. A) pretests only B) pretests and posttests C) tracking studies D) test marketing

6) Commercials and print ads are posttested to: A) determine if a campaign is accomplishing the objectives sought B) avoid the use of surveys C) determine if the organization's mission statement needs to be modified D) gain relatively inexpensive feedback

7) ________ studies are used to measure the effects of advertising on awareness, recall, interest, and attitudes toward an ad. A) Tracking B) Beta C) Alpha D) Portfolio

8) ________ tests are tests of the ad or commercial under natural viewing situations. A) Field B) Tracking study C) Laboratory D) Posttests

9) ________ measures electrical frequencies in the brain as the individual being tested responds to ads he or she is viewing. A) Cerebral response B) Pupillometric C) Electrodermal D) Electroencephalographic

10) The portfolio test for ads assumes that: A) the consumer will closely scrutinize all ads that he or she sees B) reliability and validity are the most important part of the testing process C) field and laboratory tests produce the same results D) the ad that yields the highest recall is the most effective

10)

11) Which of the following is NOT an application of eye tracking technology for measuring advertising effectiveness? A) Allows the researcher to determine whether the viewer will purchase the product based on what they saw in the ad B) Allows the researcher to determine what viewers actually look at when viewing an ad C) Allows the researcher to analyze the effectiveness of an ad's copy and visuals D) Allows the researcher to analyze the effectiveness of Web designs, print ads and televisions commercials

11)

12) Advertising testing that studies dilation or constriction of the eye in response to stimuli is called: A) the reactive test B) galvanic eye responses C) Flesch testing D) pupillometrics

12)

13) Which testing method should Starbucks employ to measure the recall of their first television advertising campaign in over a decade? A) Starch recognition method B) day-after recall C) portfolio tests D) comprehension and reaction tests

13)

14) From a decision-making point of view, research is integrated into communication planning with a three-step process. Which of the following is NOT one of those steps? A) optimization B) allocation C) attribution D) elaboration

14)

15) Which of the following is a pretest classification used for measuring advertising effectiveness? A) Concept tests B) Single-source tracking studies C) Recognition tests D) Association measures

15)

16) Disadvantages associated with laboratory tests include: A) a too effective level of communication B) lack of control C) lack of realism D) the expense associated with collecting feedback information

16)

17) Testing whether the impact and use of a product spokesperson has lost effectiveness over time is a focus on what decision? A) Creative strategy B) Creative tactics C) Choice of media vehicle D) Brand positioning

17)

18) Which one of the following statements about the Starch test is NOT true? A) The effectiveness of competitors' ads cannot be compared. B) The Starch test is a posttest. C) The pulling power of various aspects of an ad can be assessed. D) Readership scores are a useful indication of consumers' involvement in the ad.

18)

19) ________ is a technique for measuring print advertising effectiveness. With this method, three measures of a particular ad appearing in a magazine are taken to determine if the ad was noticed and read. A) Burke Day-After Recall method B) Split-run test C) Starch recognition method D) Tracking

19)

20) The fact that people brought in to a lab setting to look at ad mockups may look at the ads more closely than they might look at it if it was included in a magazine that was delivered to their home is an example of a(n): A) lack of realism B) environmental proclivity C) vision myopic perception D) perceptual propensity

20)

21) Laboratory methods of testing for advertisement effectiveness generally offer high: A) feedback B) control C) external validity D) response

21)

22) A methodology in which viewers are asked to view an ad while a sensor aims a beam of infrared light at the eye is called: A) eye tracking B) electrodermal response C) EEG D) pupil dilation

22)

23) Some firms conducting theatre testing also insert the commercial into actual TV programs in certain test markets. This is called: A) readability tests B) concept tests C) tracking D) on-air tests

23)

24) Research to measure advertising effectiveness can be used to evaluate alternative strategies under consideration because: A) strategies used in the past may no longer be interesting to the consumer B) typically a firm would only be considering one main communication strategy C) marketers wish to determine which promotional element would provide their most effective monetary expenditure D) they want to be sure that sales objectives will be met through the promotional strategies they employ

24)

25) In Starch tests, respondents may want to impress the interviewer or fear looking unknowledgeable. This is called: A) validity concerns B) interviewer sensitivities C) recall bias D) false claiming

25)

26) The use of pupillometrics has waned over the past decade because: A) pupil dilation has little correlation to a consumer's affective response to an ad B) some consumers are able to control their physiological responses, which skews the data C) involuntary consumer responses are not good indicators of effectiveness D) high costs and some methodological problems have made it less effective than other methods

26)

27) When two or more ads are used in a ________, viewers are usually asked to rate or rank order the ads according to their preferences. A) readability test B) reaction test C) consumer jury test D) comprehension test

27)

28) Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage associated with DAR tests? A) DAR tests may favour emotional appeals by asking respondents to verbalize the message. B) Program content may influence recall. C) Thinking messages may be easier to recall than emotional communication. D) Pre-recruited respondents may pay increased attention to the program and ads.

28)

29) The disadvantages of a ________ are that the results are not quantifiable and group influences may bias participants' responses. A) laboratory test B) recall test C) focus group D) concept test

29)

30) One method of testing how consumers relate to an ad and process the information it contains is to measure ________, the degree of brain activation that occurs when they look at the ad. A) beta activity B) cerebral response C) alpha activity D) electrodermal response

30)

31) Research shows that in Starch recognition tests, respondents may claim to have seen an ad when they did not. This is an example of: A) validity problems B) reliability and validity problems C) reliability problems D) false claiming

31)

32) The most popular method of posttesting employed in the broadcast industry for decades was: A) mall intercepts B) (DAR) Day-After Recall method C) Starch recognition method D) consumer juries

32)

33) The primary measure used in on-air testing is: A) comprehension and reaction tests B) recall scores C) focus group results D) portfolio analysis

33)

34) One example of a(n) ________ is the number of coupons returned or phone calls generated from the print ad. A) Flesch test B) inquiry test C) portfolio test D) recognition test

34)

35) The most commonly employed method for posttesting print ads is: A) Indirect methods B) Consumer juries C) The recognition method D) Inquiry testing

35)

36) One disadvantage of ________ is that mock-ups, storyboards, or animatics may not communicate as effectively as the final product. A) recall tests B) concept tests C) posttesting D) pretesting

36)

37) Which of the following is one of the nine principles of Positioning Advertising Copy Testing (PACT)? A) Use a convenience sample. B) Provide measurements that are relevant to the objectives of the advertising. C) Realize that a single measurement is adequate to assess an ad's performance. D) Provide controls to avoid the biasing effects of the ad content.

37)

38) Each of the following is an argument against measuring advertising effectiveness EXCEPT: A) the objections of creative people B) disagreement as to what to test C) research problems D) assessing effectiveness can avoid costly mistakes

38)

39) The set of nine principles adopted by large advertising agencies to improve preparation and testing of ads is referred to as: A) Post-Advertising Commercial Testing (PACT) B) Positioning Advertising Copy Testing (PACT) C) Principles of Advertising Consumer Testing (PACT) D) Promotional Advertising Content Testing (PACT)

39)

40) ________ take posttest measures of an advertising campaign's effectiveness at regular intervals. A) Tracking studies B) Recognition tests C) Recall tests D) In-depth interviews

40)

41) ________ distinguishes between alpha activity in the left and right sides of the brain. A) Hemispheric lateralization B) Cerebral response testing C) Electrodermal activity D) Gamma activity

41)

42) Which of the following is NOT a guideline for an effective testing of an ad? A) Establish communications objectives B) Use multiple measures C) Use a consumer response model D) Use mainly pretests

42)

43) The advantage of the ________ method is that it provides a more natural setting than the portfolio test. A) Burke's reflection test B) contextual test C) vehicle source testing D) dummy advertising vehicle

43)

44) ________ suggests that copy is best understood when sentences are short, words are concrete and familiar, and personal references are drawn. A) Inquiry testing B) Readability testing C) Portfolio analysis D) Focus group research

44)

45) ________ is a rough commercial test in which a succession of photographs are shown to the receiver. A) Photomatic rough testing B) Animatic rough testing C) Finished product testing D) Live-action rough testing

45)

46) ________ track the behaviours of consumers from the television set to the supermarket checkout counter. A) Single-source tracking methods B) Multi-source tracking methods C) Consumer ride-alongs D) In-depth interviews

46)

47) BMW has developed two new print ads designed to appeal to women. One ad uses local scenes from around Toronto, Montreal, Edmonton, and Vancouver. The other ad uses a spokesperson and emphasizes the safety of the car. Which type of ad effectiveness measure should BMW use to test which ad is most effective? A) Consumer juries B) Day-after recall C) Physiological measures D) Split-run testing

47)

48) Asking consumers for their reactions to the message structure, the body copy, or the music used in a communication piece is a test of what decision? A) Creative strategy B) Creative tactics C) Choice of media vehicle D) Brand positioning

48)

49) Pretesting of finished ads can consist of each of the following EXCEPT: A) dummy advertising vehicles B) portfolio tests C) inquiry tests D) readability tests

49)

50) Which of the following is NOT a pretest classification used for measuring advertising effectiveness? A) Readability tests B) Concept tests C) Comprehension and reaction tests D) Test marketing

50)

51) A ________ is conducted very early in the campaign development process in order to explore the consumer's response to a potential ad. A) field test B) recognition test C) laboratory test D) concept test

51)

52) Which of the following is used in field posttesting of ad effectiveness? A) Rough tests B) Consumer juries C) Readability tests D) Recognition tests

52)

53) An advantage offered by field test measures is: A) more realistic testing conditions B) avoidance of potential sabotage C) greater control of noise D) the ability to isolate the causes of the viewers' evaluations

53)

54) Sometimes, participants rate an ad as good on all characteristics because they like a few characteristics and overlook specific weaknesses. This is called: A) bias B) halo effect C) distortion D) prejudice

54)

55) ________ is a readability test which examines the average number of syllables per 100 words. A) Burke's reflections test B) Contextual testing C) The Flesch formula D) Portfolio analysis

55)

56) Which of the following questions is more likely to be asked in a consumer jury test? A) Is the ad layout convincing? B) Will you buy this product after seeing this ad? C) Which ad did you like best? D) How did you like the music?

56)

57) Good tests of advertising effectiveness must address the nine principles established by PACT. One of the easiest ways to do this is to follow a decision sequence model. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in this sequence? A) Use a consumer response model B) Decide whether to use pretests or posttests C) Establish communication objectives D) Use multiple measures

57)

58) One advantage of pretesting is: A) mock-ups, storyboards, or animatics may not communicate as effectively as the final execution B) feedback is relatively inexpensive C) it is difficult to correlate positive reactions to messages with actual effects on sales D) pretesting takes time, and can impact final in-field dates

58)

59) Samsung, maker of the Galaxy Note, is interested in measuring consumers' movement through the adoption hierarchy. It should employ which of the following ad effectiveness measures? A) Recognition test B) Day-after recall tests C) Portfolio testing D) Ad tracking study

59)

60) A live-action rough: A) uses a rapid sequence of panning and/or zooming to simulate movement B) uses the live motion of stand-in, nonunionized talent to "act out" the creative concept C) is a succession of photographs depicting the intended scenes D) is a series of drawings or cartoons to depict a commercial idea

60)

61) The day-after recall test would be the most appropriate measure of effectiveness for: A) a full-page ad in a trade journal aimed at the textile industry B) the back outside cover position of the May issue of Chatelaine C) a 30-second commercial on the CTV network D) a transit ad on the back of the envelope that contains airplane tickets

61)

62) Subaru wishes to conduct pretest research to determine which of a number of concepts developed by their agency they should choose to launch first. An effective method of testing to determine this ranking would be: A) focus group B) consumer jury C) field test D) mall intercept

62)

63) Focus group methodology is attractive to marketers for the following reasons EXCEPT: A) consumer participants' reactions are directly observable B) results are easily obtained C) immediate feedback from participants means that marketers don't have to delay progress on communication development D) each focus group will tend to examine a single topic per session

63)

64) Each of the following is an argument for measuring advertising effectiveness EXCEPT: A) money spent on research could go to improved ad production or additional media buys B) assessing ad effectiveness can help avoid costly mistakes that minimize return on marketing investment C) research can assist the manager to determine which competing strategies might be most effective D) posttesting will establish whether objectives were met, and whether similar programs should be run in future

64)

65) Which of the following is the most likely reason why a small firm would NOT want to measure the effectiveness of promotional programs it designed? A) Lack of time B) The objections of creative people C) Costs D) Disagreement as to what to test

65)

66) Galvanic skin response is also known as: A) electrodermal response C) pupillometrics

66) B) alpha beta activity D) dermal resolution

67) One of the measures included in in-studio AD*VANTAGE/ACT surveys is ________, which asks, "will the commercial inspire non-users to try the product, and will it enhance brand loyalty among existing customers?" A) memorability B) branding C) persuasion D) visibility

67)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 9

1) D 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) D 11) A 12) D 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) B 26) D 27) C 28) A 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) A 41) A 42) D 10

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 9

43) D 44) B 45) A 46) A 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) D 52) D 53) A 54) B 55) C 56) C 57) B 58) B 59) D 60) B 61) C 62) B 63) D 64) A 65) C 66) A 67) C

Chapter 10 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Each of the following is a media-usage characteristic which may affect the achievement of specific communication objectives EXCEPT: A) amount of processing time B) control for selective exposure C) creativity for emotional responses D) cost efficiency

2) Given that a message is complex as far as comprehension is concerned, the strategy should be to maximize ________ at the expense of ________. A) Reach; GRPs B) Frequency; reach C) Frequency; CPM D) Reach; frequency

3) ________ helps marketers factor the rate of product usage by geographic area into the decision process. A) The Category Development Index B) The Brand Development Index C) The ratio of product usage to availability D) Statistics Canada's population growth analysis

4) The primary objective of ________ is to develop a framework that will deliver the message to the target audience in the most efficient, cost-effective manner possible. A) market segmentation B) organizational planning C) target marketing D) media planning

5) Which of the following is a limitation of transit as a media choice? A) Absolute cost B) Amount of processing time C) Cost efficiency D) Clutter

6) Recreation vehicles (RVs) advertise throughout the year but typically advertise more heavily June and in September. This pattern represents which scheduling method? A) Continuity B) Oscillating C) Flighting D) Pulsing

7) Defining the communications objectives to be accomplished and estimating the costs associated with the performance of determined strategies and tasks are steps in the ________ method of budgeting. A) return on investment B) payout planning C) competitive parity D) objective and task

8) Old Navy is planning a new print campaign. Which of the following media vehicles represents the most attractive CPM? A) The cost of a single-page ad in Canadian Living Magazine (circulation - 425,000) is $53,000. B) The cost of a single-page ad in The Toronto Star (circulation - 309,000) is $58,000. C) The cost of a single-page ad in Today's Parent Magazine (circulation - 116,000) is $22,000. D) The cost of a single-page ad in Metro Toronto newspaper (circulation - 205,000) is $22,500.

9) Which of the following is NOT an advantage inherent in the flighting method of schedule advertising? A) Extra strength during "on" periods B) Continuous target coverage C) Ability to include more than one advertising vehicle D) Cost efficiency

10) The ________ method is difficult to employ for a new company if no sales history is available, there is no basis of establishing the budget. A) ROI B) percentage of sales C) objective and task D) affordable

10)

11) The ________ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated according information gathered to determine industry averages for advertising. The budget is set to maintain a level consistent with industry spending. A) objective and task B) percentage of sales C) competitive parity D) return on investment

11)

12) Which of the following is a limitation of outdoor as a media choice? A) Cost efficiency B) Media image C) Geographic coverage D) Frequency

12)

13) As a result of ________, large advertisers can maintain advertising shares that are smaller than their market shares because they get lower advertising rates and accrue the advantages of advertising several products jointly. A) economies of scale B) competitive parity C) differential advertising advantages D) a concave-downward response

13)

14) The most commonly utilized method of budget determination by large firms is: A) competitive parity B) objective and task C) the affordable method D) percentage of sales

14)

15) ________ is the number of times the target audience reached by a media vehicle is exposed to the vehicle over a specified period of time. A) Average frequency B) Average reach C) Effective frequency D) Unduplicated reach

15)

16) ________ is the measure of the number of different audience members exposed at least once to a media vehicle. A) Frequency B) Reach C) Exposure D) Viewer number

16)

17) A company has a limited promotional budget. The target market is highly concentrated and has already been shown to have high awareness and interest in the project. The goal of the promotional strategy should be to: A) sacrifice frequency for reach B) increase frequency C) maximize reach D) maximize coverage

17)

18) Media selected to ensure that a certain percentage of the target audience has favourable beliefs about the brand's benefits are most likely satisfying a ________ media objective. A) profit maximization B) category need C) brand awareness D) brand attitude

18)

19) A company with a substantial advertising budget with little or no awareness in the target market should: A) sacrifice reach for continuity B) maximize reach C) maximize coverage D) maximize frequency and sacrifice reach

19)

20) The situation in which media coverage exceeds the targeted audience is called: A) waste coverage B) underexposure C) excess media expenditure D) audience fragmentation

20)

21) Which of the following situations offers the advertiser the least attractive marketing opportunity? A) High BDI; low CDI B) Low BDI; low CDI C) High BDI; high CDI D) Low BDI; high CDI

21)

22) The S-shaped response function implies that: A) sales effects will follow the microeconomic law of diminishing returns B) sales will immediately decrease then increase C) sales will immediately increase then decrease D) initial advertising expenditures will have little impact on sales

22)

23) To calculate gross ratings points (GRPs), you will need to: A) divide reach times frequency by costs B) divide average frequency by costs C) multiply reach times frequency D) multiply CPM times average frequency

23)

24) All of the following are components of the objective and task method EXCEPT: A) a re-evaluation of objectives B) determination of competitor's expenditures C) estimation of required expenditures D) monitoring

24)

25) The comparative cost figure used for broadcast media is: A) the same as for print media, cost per thousand (CPM) B) cost per ratings point (CPRP) C) cost per point of contact (CPPC) D) gross ratings point (GRP)

25)

26) The major advantage of the ________ method is that the budget is derived by the objectives to be attained. A) competitive parity B) percentage of sales C) ROI D) objective and task

26)

27) Each of the following satisfies a brand awareness media objective EXCEPT: A) Provide sufficient number of exposures to ensure that 60 percent of the target audience recognizes the brand name when it's suggested to them. B) Provide sufficient number of exposures to ensure that 60 percent of the target audience recognizes the need for the product category. C) Select media to provide coverage of 80 percent of the target audience this quarter. D) Concentrate advertising during the target audience's peak purchasing time.

27)

28) Which of the following statements provides a good rule of thumb for setting the advertising budget for a new product? A) Its advertising budget should be equal to that of the largest shareholder in the market. B) Its advertising budget should be 10 percent greater than the average budget planned for the entire payout period. C) Its advertising budget should be as much as the firm can afford. D) Its advertising budget should be double that needed to maintain the desired market share.

28)

29) In the marginal analysis approach to media budgeting, all of the following should be considered EXCEPT: A) fixed costs of advertising B) gross margin net worth C) sales D) advertising expenditures and other variable costs

29)

30) For which of the following products is an advertiser most likely to use a flighting schedule? A) Newspaper subscriptions B) Snow tires C) Shampoo D) Cake mixes

30)

31) Which of the following is a strength of transit as a media choice? A) Target audience coverage B) Scheduling flexibility C) Target audience selectivity D) Creativity for cognitive responses

31)

32) Which of the following indices reflects a company with low market share in a given market? A) High brand development index (BDI) B) Low brand development index (BDI) C) Low category development index (CDI) D) High category development index (CDI)

32)

33) Which of the following is a limitation of magazines as a media choice? A) Creativity for cognitive responses B) Selective exposure C) Cost efficiency D) Target audience selectivity

33)

34) In calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development Index (CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: Low BDI and High CDI. What do these results imply? A) High market share; monitor for sales decline B) Low market share; poor market potential C) Low market share; good market potential D) High market share; good market potential

34)

35) ________ refers to the potential audience that might receive the message through a vehicle. A) Frequency B) Coverage C) Exposure D) Reach

35)

36) Category need, brand awareness, brand attitude and brand trial are all examples of: A) media objectives B) creative execution C) media strategies D) communication strategies

36)

37) The two models that are commonly used to explain the relationship between advertising and sales are the: A) S-shaped response function and the concave-upward function B) S-shaped demand function and the convex-downward function C) concave-downward function and the S-shaped response function D) marginal utility function and the S-shaped demand function

37)

38) When executives determine the budget amounts to be allocated for each department's advertising expenditures, a ________ approach is being used. A) top-down B) bottom-up C) contribution forecast D) marginal contribution

38)

39) A product that may be consumed throughout the year, but has seasonal periods where consumption is higher might best employ a(n) ________ scheduling method. A) pulsing B) flighting C) continuous D) oscillating

39)

40) CPM is an expression of ________ for various media vehicles. A) mode B) absolute cost C) compared reach D) relative cost

40)

41) No one knows the exact number of ________ necessary for an ad to make an impact, although advertisers have settled on ________ as the minimum. A) GRPs; ten B) frequency; one C) reach; two D) exposures; three

41)

42) According to Media Digest's research on Canadian media expenditures, the media type which earns the highest revenues is: A) television B) magazines C) daily newspapers D) online

42)

43) ________ is a summary measure that combines reach and frequency. A) The Brand Development Index (BDI) B) Target ratings points (TRPs) C) The Category Development Index (CDI) D) Gross ratings points (GRPs)

43)

44) Which scheduling method would be inappropriate for the product named? A) Soft drinks pulsing B) Snow blower flighting C) Accounting services pulsing D) Spring-blooming bulbs continuous

44)

45) The wide variety of media available to advertisers is called: A) the media strategy B) multi-media C) the media mix D) the media profile

45)

46) According to the S-shaped response curve: A) the carryover effect is especially true for low-priced, frequently purchased consumer products B) sales are not directly related to the size of the advertising budget C) initial outlays of the advertising budget have a substantial impact on sales D) the effects of advertising quickly begin to diminish

46)

47) ________ is the number of times a receiver is exposed to a message in a given time period. A) Frequency B) Coverage C) Reach D) Potency

47)

48) The ________ the brand share, the ________ the frequency level required. A) higher; higher B) lower; higher C) lower; lower D) higher; lower

48)

49) The major problem with the ________ budgeting method is a reversal of the cause and effect relationship. A) competitive parity B) objective and task method C) rapidly diminishing returns D) percentage of sales

49)

50) ________ is the employment of periods of advertising along with periods of non-advertising. A) Continuity B) Flighting C) Weighting D) Pulsing

50)

51) New brands need a very high level of ________, since the objective is to make all potential buyers aware of the brand. A) CPM B) reach C) GRPs D) frequency

51)

52) A marketing firm decides to purchase media time in an attempt to sell its new product. After purchasing approximately $1 million of time, it has noticed no impact on the sales of the product. However, at $3 million, a substantial increase is shown. This might best be explained by: A) the objective and task method B) competitive parity C) arbitrary allocation D) an S-shaped response

52)

53) It is generally felt that consumers should get exposure to the message as close as possible to when they are going to make the purchase. On the basis of this idea, which would be the most effective scheduling method for winter boots? A) Pulsing B) Continuous C) Flighting D) Behavioural

53)

54) ________ is a method for allocating budgets designed to determine the investment value of the advertising appropriation. A) Percent of sales method B) Arbitrary allocation C) Objective and task D) Payout planning

54)

55) The S-shaped response curve suggests that: A) very low spending levels will not work B) sales and spending on advertising are not directly related C) advertising effectiveness will not be related to spending D) advertising effectiveness will vary according to spending levels

55)

56) Under what conditions are advertisers more likely to achieve full audience coverage with their media buy? A) When media coverage reaches people who are not potential buyers or current users B) In a high-involvement purchase situation C) When the audience is fragmented D) When they are targeting a small number of customers or potential customers

56)

57) Disney World advertises itself as a vacation spot throughout the year, but it advertises more heavily during the summer months and during the Christmas season when most people are vacationing. This is an example of ________ scheduling. A) continuity B) flighting C) geographical weighting D) pulsing

57)

58) To set an advertising budget, Entree cologne first examines competitors' advertising to sales ratios published in trade magazines, and then allocates a percentage of sales dollars to the advertising effort. Which two budgeting methods are being employed? A) Competitive parity and percentage of sales B) Percentage of sales and objective and task C) Competitive parity and payout planning D) Payout planning and percentage of sales

58)

59) Which of the following is a strength of magazines as a media choice? A) Reach B) Audience involvement C) Lack of processing time D) Frequency

59)

60) To evaluate the ________ cost of print media, ________ is used. A) relative; CPRP B) relative; CPM C) absolute; CPM D) absolute; CPRP

60)

61) Which of the following is NOT a part of the media plan? A) Determination of media coverage B) Media objectives C) Frequency estimates D) Marketing strategies

61)

62) All of the following are considered top-down approaches to determining budgets EXCEPT: A) the percentage of sales method B) arbitrary allocation C) the affordable method D) the objective and task method

62)

63) The ________ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated after an experienced marketing department manager responds to a new employee's question, "How was the ad budget established in years past?" by saying, "The same way it's always been done. I just have an instinct for how much should be budgeted where." A) percentage of sales B) ROI C) competitive parity D) arbitrary allocation

63)

64) Which of the following is a strength of radio as a media choice? A) Clutter B) Absolute cost C) Amount of processing time D) Selective exposure

64)

65) Which of the following explains why media planners have difficulty measuring the effectiveness of advertising and promotions? A) An opportunity to advertise within a new media vehicle might arise, requiring movement of advertising dollars from one vehicle to another. B) There is a debate as to whether media planning buying should be part of an advertising agency or an independent agency. C) The media planner must usually balance quantitative data with subjective judgements based on experience. D) Procurement specialists often put pressure on the media decisions in an effort to save money.

65)

66) Which of the following statements about the effects of the size of the market on advertising spending is NOT true? A) High growth potential is more important than the actual size of the market. B) Audience fragmentation is evident in large markets, therefore advertisers must spend more to reach their target. C) It is less expensive to reach the target audience in a large market, due to economies of scale. D) Excessive advertising expenditures in a small market will lead to wasted coverage.

66)

67) In calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development Index (CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: High BDI and Low CDI. What do these results imply? A) High market share and good market potential B) Low market share and poor market potential C) Low market share and good market potential D) High market share and monitor for sales decline

67)

68) Which of the following is a strength of television as a media choice? A) Creativity for cognitive responses B) Target audience selectivity C) Amount of processing time D) Audience involvement

68)

69) Which of the following is a strength of outdoor as a media choice? A) Amount of processing time B) Audience involvement C) Target audience coverage D) Reach

69)

70) My product is silk ties, which are purchased at any time of the year, but more often at Christmas and on Father's day. Given a limited budget, which strategy would likely be the most effective if I wanted to try to stimulate trial and/or sales? A) Flighting B) Share C) Continuous D) Pulsing

70)

71) As a result of economies of scale, smaller advertisers: A) can maintain advertising shares that are smaller than their market shares B) are likely to enjoy more favourable advertising time and space than large advertisers C) have declining average costs of product D) get higher advertising rates than large advertisers

71)

72) The media plan: A) includes sales and marketing forecasts and potentials B) requires the development of specific media objectives C) includes product development D) has five formalized stages that cannot be omitted from the process

72)

73) The ________ method of budget setting consists of three steps: (1) defining the communication objectives, (2) determining the strategies and tasks to attain them, and (3) estimating the costs associated with performance of these strategies and tasks. A) return on investment B) percentage of sales C) objective and task D) arbitrary allocation

73)

74) Tesla's research shows that approximately 65 percent of their target audience subscribes to The Globe & Mail newspaper. If that is their only media vehicle, they will experience: A) full market coverage B) less media coverage than desired (underexposure) C) media overexposure D) excess media expenditure

74)

75) Media planning is not an easy task. Each of the following explains one of the difficulties inherent in the process EXCEPT: A) insufficient information on audience figures B) difficulty in measuring the effectiveness of a medium C) indifference of creative directors to the type of media chosen D) inconsistent terminology

75)

76) The ________ method budgetary allocation method is designed to promote stability and minimize marketing warfare as well as taking advantage of the collective wisdom of the industry. A) competitive parity B) percentage of sales C) objective and task D) arbitrary allocation

76)

77) Which of the following is NOT a top-down approach to budget setting? A) Payout planning B) Return on investment C) The affordable method D) Competitive parity

77)

78) The concept of ________ is based on the assumption that one exposure to an ad may not be enough to convey the desired message. A) effective reach B) average frequency C) average reach D) GRPs

78)

79) Nordstrom placed advertising for the launch of their new Toronto stores on mall posters within the Eaton Centre, Yorkdale Plaza, and Sherway Gardens. These posters were seen by many people apart from typical Nordstrom customers. This is an example of: A) audience fragmentation B) media underexposure C) media overexposure D) excess media expenditure

79)

80) Which top-down budgeting method is being employed when expenditures are allocated by assigning a budget based on gut feelings? A) Percentage of sales B) Affordable method C) Payout planning D) Arbitrary allocation

80)

81) Chrysler would probably wish to pursue a ________ scheduling strategy, while Rossignol Skis would use a ________ schedule. A) flighting; pulsing B) pulsing; flighting C) continuous; pulsing D) continuous; continuous

81)

82) Campbell Soup is the market share leader in Canada, but many new competitors have entered the market. In order to protect their leadership position and minimize consumers' switching to one of the new brand entries, Campbell should set a ________ media objective. A) brand leadership B) head-to-head C) brand repeat purchase D) brand trial

82)

83) A major problem with the use of cost per thousand figures is: A) determining an efficient way to estimate the effects of sweep periods B) determining pass-along rates C) determining time spent reading the magazine D) calculating cost estimates efficiently

83)

84) In terms of advertising, scheduling constant advertising without variation is referred to as: A) continuity B) geographical weighting C) circulation D) flighting

84)

85) The media planning process concludes with the ________, which summarizes many of the media strategy and media tactics decisions. A) CPM B) marketing plan C) advertising plan D) blocking chart

85)

86) Which of the following is NOT true about media planning? A) The choice of medium generally does not influence the consumer decision-making process. B) The creative strategy being used may be the driving force behind the media strategy. C) The characteristics of the product or service may dictate which media type would be most appropriate. D) The media strategy being used may be the driving force behind the creative strategy.

86)

87) The Globe & Mail, Maclean's, and The National Post are all examples of: A) communications decoders B) media vehicles C) distribution channels D) media strategies

87)

88) In which of the following methods of budget determination is advertising considered an investment, similar to plant and equipment? A) Percentage of sales B) Payout planning C) ROI D) Objective and task

88)

89) Which of the following is a strength of newspapers as a media choice? A) Creativity for emotional responses B) Creativity for cognitive responses C) Lack of clutter D) Target audience selectivity

89)

90) ________ is the number of target audience individuals exposed at least once to media vehicle in a specific time period. A) Frequency B) Reach C) Coverage D) Continuity

90)

91) The estimated number of people who read the magazine without buying it is called: A) pass-along rate B) absolute cost C) unduplicated reach D) overexposure

91)

92) Which of the following is a limitation of newspapers as a media choice? A) Absolute cost B) Selective exposure C) Target audience selectivity D) Amount of processing time

92)

93) The ________ is the specific carrier within a media class. A) media vehicle B) medium C) media type D) television message

93)

94) Which of the following is a limitation of television as a media choice? A) Selective exposure B) Frequency C) Cost efficiency D) Scheduling flexibility

94)

95) Media buyers might choose to live with a relatively high degree of waste coverage because: A) it allows for more specific targeting B) the media employed are likely to be the most effective means of message delivery available C) repetition is the most effective method for pioneering advertising D) it best supports a flighting media schedule

95)

96) If the advertiser selects media to allow immediate purchase of the brand, the media objective is most likely: A) brand attitude B) brand trial C) category need D) media optimization

96)

97) Which of the following is NOT relevant to the vehicle source effect? A) People perceive ads differently depending on their context. B) Certain media vehicles enhance the message because they create a mood that carries over to the communication. C) If the advertising message is relevant and compelling to the target audience, the choice of media vehicle is less important. D) Media planners consider the most suitable media class and media vehicle for the target audience and the message.

97)

98) Which of the following budgeting procedures would be used if a firm wanted a method that is simple to understand and financially safe? A) Percentage of sales B) Marginal analysis C) Objective and task D) Competitive parity

98)

99) Unduplicated reach is: A) average reach multiplied by average frequency B) duplicated reach plus total reach C) total reach less duplicated reach D) total market coverage less duplicated reach

99)

100) Which of the following media strategies is suitable for a lesser-known product with a target audience concentrated in a small area in Canada? A) One that uses a high cost per thousand approach B) One that emphasizes reach rather than frequency C) One that balances reach and frequency D) One that emphasizes frequency rather than reach

100)

101) Which of the following is a limitation of radio as a media choice? A) Target audience selectivity B) Audience attention C) Geographic coverage D) Media image

101)

102) Each of the following is a media characteristic which may affect the achievement of specific communication objectives EXCEPT: A) target audience selectivity B) audience reach C) geographic coverage D) audience involvement

102)

103) In a review of the literature on how allocation decisions are made between advertising and sales promotion, it was concluded that ________ factors play an important role in determining how communication dollars are spent. A) economic B) psychological C) political D) organizational

103)

104) Which of the following scenarios indicates that the brand is not doing well and it would be worthwhile to determine the reasons and make some changes? A) Even though the popularity of Asian fast-food restaurants is on the rise, the Flying Wok has seen a fifteen percent decline in sales over the past three months. B) Nestle's Quik has a high market share in a declining powdered flavour market. C) Just when Stephanie entered the specialty textile flooring market people don't seem to want shag carpeting anymore. D) iPhone's share of the growing mobile phone market is at an all-time high.

104)

105) In calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development Index (CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: Low BDI and Low CDI. What do these results imply? A) High market share and monitor for sales decline B) Low market share and good market potential C) Low market share and poor market potential D) High market share and good market potential

105)

106) According to the competitive parity budgeting method, the firm: A) matches the competition's percentage-of-sales expenditures B) spends the same total amount as its major competitors spend C) allocates some portion of planned sales for the period to advertising D) spends as much as it can

106)

107) When advertising scheduling involves constant advertising with heavier efforts being made at certain times, a(n) ________ schedule is being employed. A) intermittent B) weighting C) pulsing D) flighting

107)

108) Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the choice of media used? A) The characteristics of the product or service B) Insufficient information on audience figures C) The size of the budget D) The behavioural objectives

108)

109) For which of the following products is an advertiser most likely to use continuity scheduling? A) Tickets to a hockey game B) Swimming pool chemicals C) Wood burning stoves D) Laundry detergent

109)

110) The objective and task method is most difficult to utilize when: A) the product to be promoted is intangible and in the maturity stage of its product life cycle B) the product to be promoted is new to the market C) a service is being promoted D) the product to be promoted is a cash cow

110)

111) If the circulation of the National Post is 400,000 readers, and the advertising cost per page is $50,000, the CPM is: A) $125 B) $0.008 C) $8 D) $0.125

111)

112) Each of the following statements about frequency is true EXCEPT: A) The more unique the message, the higher the frequency level required. B) New brands generally require higher frequency levels. C) Continuous scheduling requires less frequency than does pulsing or flighting. D) The lower the brand's share of voice, the higher the frequency required.

112)

113) Seasonal products such as Hallowe'en decorations and Valentine flowers would best make use of which scheduling alternative? A) Pulsing B) Continuous C) Flighting D) Weighted ratings

113)

114) Which strategy would be most likely to be used by a marketer of dishwashing detergent? A) Flighting B) Share growth C) Continuous D) Pulsing

114)

115) Which of the following is true about the Brand Development Index (BDI)? A) BDI indicates where a brand should maximize promotional spending, given their success in a particular geographic area. B) BDI measures the ratio of product usage to availability in a particular market. C) BDI and CDI measure the same consumer behaviours. D) BDI compares the brand's total sales in a given market area with the percentage of the total population in that market.

115)

116) The ________ function is based on the microeconomic law of diminishing returns. A) marginal utility B) concave-downward C) S-shaped demand D) concave-upward

116)

117) The ________ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated by looking at the revenue generated from sales of the product during one year. The information gathered from this examination is used to determine the next year's dollar amounts. A) return on investment B) arbitrary allocation C) payout planning D) percentage of sales

117)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 10

1) D 2) B 3) B 4) D 5) D 6) D 7) D 8) D 9) B 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) D 27) B 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) D 42) D 18

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 10

43) D 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) D 55) D 56) D 57) D 58) A 59) B 60) B 61) D 62) D 63) D 64) B 65) C 66) C 67) D 68) A 69) D 70) D 71) D 72) B 73) C 74) B 75) C 76) A 77) A 78) A 79) C 80) D 81) B 82) C 83) B 84) A 19

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 10

85) D 86) A 87) B 88) C 89) B 90) B 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) A 95) B 96) B 97) C 98) A 99) C 100) D 101) B 102) D 103) D 104) A 105) C 106) A 107) C 108) B 109) D 110) B 111) A 112) A 113) C 114) C 115) D 116) B 117) D

Chapter 11 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Saturday morning television programming consists largely of cartoons that are watched by children, while sports programming that is watched mostly by young men is prevalent on Saturday and Sunday afternoons. These are examples of ways television offers: A) market penetration B) geographic selectivity C) ways of breaking through advertising clutter D) scheduling flexibility

2) Daytime TV generally attracts: A) young adults C) women

2) B) children D) empty nesters

3) Morning, daytime, prime time, and late fringe are all examples of: A) spot times B) radio dayparts C) television dayparts D) run-of-station spots

4) ________ are individuals who act as salespersons for a number of local stations and represent them in their dealings with national advertisers. A) Affiliates B) Station reps C) Negotiators D) Station managers

5) When a national advertiser runs a commercial on a prime time program that is seen all over the country, ________ advertising is being used. A) aggregated B) affiliate C) spot D) network

6) The amount of money that a station can charge for commercial time is based on: A) prime-time viewership B) program ratings C) daytime viewership D) pre-negotiated purchases

7) ________ are less likely to be heavy users of local radio advertising. A) Auto dealers B) Restaurants C) Local retailers D) Grocery product manufacturers

8) The buying period for television advertising time that runs throughout the television season is known as the ________ market. A) up-front B) scatter C) local D) continual

9) Because most TV commercials last only 30 seconds or less and leave nothing tangible for the viewer to consider, the amount of ________ time must be considered. A) processing B) emotive C) selective D) creative

10) Television can offer advertisers selective coverage of target audiences through: A) program content with broad audience appeal B) volume buying C) broadcast time periods that reach specific types of audiences D) national networks which reach groups with general interests

10)

11) Which television daypart has the highest rates? A) morning B) late news C) late fringe

11) D) prime-time

12) The relatively low cost of radio advertising time makes it an effective medium through which advertisers can build more ________ into their media schedules. A) creativity B) audience selectivity C) reach and frequency D) inherent drama

12)

13) The largest radio audiences occur during which of the following times? A) early morning and late evening B) early morning and late afternoon drive times C) daytime and evening drive time D) evenings when people are at home

13)

14) Which of the following statements about commercial length is true? A) Most advertisers believe that shorter commercials cannot deliver a message as effectively as longer commercials. B) Fifteen-second spots typically sell for about the same amount as 30-second spots. C) Spiralling media costs have resulted in advertisers preferring shorter commercials. D) Fifteen-second spots are the most common commercial lengths.

14)

15) The pendulum that took viewers away from cable services to satellite broadcasts swung back the other way with ________, allowing consumers access to similar extensive channel choices. A) public broadcasters B) advertising consortiums C) CRTC guidelines around competition between telco providers D) digital cable

15)

16) Radio is a very effective medium for reaching all of the following EXCEPT: A) teenagers and university students B) infrequent television viewers C) frequent readers of magazines and newspapers D) non-English-speaking ethnic groups

16)

17) Which of the following is NOT a reason why national advertisers might use spot television advertising? A) concentrate advertising in areas where more ad support is needed B) offer support and cooperative advertising to local dealers and retailers C) concentrate advertising in areas where market potential is the greatest D) advertise a product with wide-spread distribution

17)

18) Each of the following is true about Portable People Meters (PPMs) EXCEPT: A) The PPM measures on an individual level instead of a household or television basis. B) The PPM collects data nationally and in large local markets. C) The PPM is used to collect television viewing data only. D) The PPM is also capable of receiving the signal from radio and cinema.

18)

19) All non-network television advertising done by a national advertiser is known as ________ advertising. A) local B) spot C) regional D) up-front

19)

20) CFTO in Toronto and CFCF in Montreal show CTV programming. These local television stations that are associated with national television networks are known as: A) local nets B) affiliates C) regional networks D) satellite networks

20)

21) Companies prefer sponsorship arrangements for buying advertising time because sponsorship: A) broadens advertising reach, saves money, and reaches a more aggregated market when compared to buying national spots B) means the advertiser can run more commercials per hour since time regulations do not apply C) allows companies to capitalize on the prestige of a high-quality program D) is relatively inexpensive

21)

22) Each of the following is a benefit of buying network radio time EXCEPT: A) it reduces advertisers' flexibility in selecting stations B) lower costs C) minimized negotiation and administration work required D) opportunities for national and regional coverage

22)

23) TV viewing is thriving for several reasons EXCEPT: A) current TV shows are very good, as evidenced by how many people want to watch them online. B) watching sports on TV is better than watching it live because you have the added benefit of TV announcers calling the plays. C) online content is not even in the same league as first-run TV content. D) people have no awareness of TV shows until they are on TV first.

23)

24) Cable subscribers can access shows not seen during regularly scheduled times through a service called: A) Time shifting B) On-demand C) Self-administered programming D) Cable your way

24)

25) A tactic used by TV networks to hold viewers' attention and inhibit zapping is to: A) show previews of the next week's program B) shorten the commercial breaks C) change the standard commercial format to 10-seconds D) increase the number of commercials during a break

25)

26) A toy company runs commercials for its products on the Sponge Bob Square Pants show on Saturday mornings because Saturday morning TV caters to kids. This is an example of how ________ is possible through television. A) geographic diversity B) selectivity C) creativity D) product exclusivity

26)

27) ________ refers to the practice of fast-forwarding through commercials on prerecorded programs, while ________ refers to channel changing to avoid commercials. A) Zipping; time shifting B) Zapping; zooming C) Zipping; zapping D) Time shifting; zipping

27)

28) Studies show that distrust is generally the highest for which of the following types of advertising? A) magazines B) newspapers C) personal selling D) television

28)

29) With ________, advertisers assume responsibility for the production and usually the content of the program as well as the advertising that appears within it. A) adjacencies B) syndications C) sponsorships D) countertrades

29)

30) Which of the following does NOT limit radio's effectiveness as an advertising medium? A) flexibility in producing and scheduling commercials B) limited research data on listening audiences C) difficulty in retaining listener attention to commercials D) creative limitations because of the absence of a visual image

30)

31) Numeris also uses ________ for collecting television audience information in a number of local markets. A) audiometer B) video monitor C) people meter D) diary research

31)

32) ________ is defined as one percent of all the television households in a particular area tuned to a specific program. A) Household using television (HUT) B) A program rating C) A ratings point D) Share of audience

32)

33) An advertiser has a limited budget and wants to reach a well-defined target audience in a local market area. Which of the following would you recommend? A) local radio B) superstations C) network radio D) network television

33)

34) Compared to television, radio has: A) longer buyer lead times for preparing and placing ads B) more of a local flavour C) greater reach and lower frequency opportunities with individual stations D) fewer segmentation opportunities

34)

35) One of the biggest threats to the cable television industry in the 1990s was: A) the creation of consortiums of advertisers for the purpose of improving network television B) competition from direct broadcast satellite (DBS) services C) CRTC rulings on lengths and commercial placements D) the exponential growth of the use of PVRs

35)

36) While watching "Entertainment Tonight," Bruce became frustrated by all the commercials and promotions for the 11:00 news and upcoming programs. This is an example of the problem created by: A) message source alienation B) clutter C) the limited viewer attention for commercials D) the fleeting nature of television commercials

36)

37) The proliferation of specialty channels has influenced the nature of TV as an advertising medium. Expanded viewing options have led to considerable audience ________. A) hostility B) fragmentation C) confusion D) happiness

37)

38) In the early days of television, the production and content of most television programs was the responsibility of: A) corporations who sponsored the shows B) independent production companies C) the local affiliate D) the networks

38)

39) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of advertising on specialty networks? A) lower overall advertising rates B) consumer popularity enhances viewership numbers C) mass appeal of specialty programming fits shotgun approach to reach objectives D) no large up-front commitment is necessary

39)

40) Radio survived as an advertising medium by: A) competing directly with television B) charging higher rates than television C) evolving into a primarily local advertising medium D) evolving into a national advertising medium

40)

41) Programs such as "The Tonight Show starring Jimmy Fallon" and "Jimmy Kimmel Live" are aired during the ________ daypart. A) prime-time B) late fringe C) evening D) prime-time access

41)

42) Which of the following factors make it difficult for companies with small advertising budgets to use television as part of their media mix? A) the high costs of producing and airing television commercials B) the fact that television programs do not reach their target markets C) the fact that small ad agencies generally do not know how to produce TV commercials D) the limited creative options available through television

42)

43) In Canada, television audiences are measured by: A) BBM Canada B) BBC Canada and Reuters C) Numeris D) CCAB and ABC

43)

44) The reason for a company using ________ is that the company has control over the number, placement, and content of its commercials. A) countertrade B) participation C) sponsorship D) syndication

44)

45) A network assembles a series of ________ local TV stations, to which it supplies programming and services. A) hostile B) successful C) remote D) affiliated

45)

46) Which of the following statements about program ratings and share of audience measures is true? A) Share of audience is always higher than the program rating unless all of the households in a market have their set in use. B) Unlike share of audience measures, program ratings consider variation in the number of sets in use since they are based only on those households that have their sets in use. C) Program ratings are always higher than share of audience. D) Program ratings and share of audience are usually the same.

46)

47) The heaviest users of radio as an advertising medium are: A) national service providers B) local advertisers C) tobacco and alcohol advertisers D) national retail chains

47)

48) Each of the following describes the strength of television's reach EXCEPT: A) Those "watching television" only through Internet streaming services hit 12 percent in 2015. B) Television reaches virtually every Canadian on a weekly basis. C) Advertisers can place ads in a combination of shows to reach as many in their target audience as they wish. D) The average Canadian watches 28 hours of TV per week, thereby consuming this medium more than any other.

48)

49) A device worn by individuals that records a silent signal emitted from programming is called a(n): A) electronic diary B) prime-time access device C) portable people meter D) media exposure device

49)

50) Which of the following is NOT a limitation associated with the use of television as an advertising medium? A) high costs for production of quality commercials B) unlimited creative options for developing and presenting advertising messages C) commercial clutter D) high costs for airtime

50)

51) Which of the following statements about spot advertising is true? A) Spot advertising is confined to station breaks between programs on network originated shows. B) Only local advertisers use spot advertising. C) Spot advertising is subject to less clutter than network advertising. D) Spot advertising offers flexibility in adjusting to local market conditions.

51)

52) Television is a popular advertising medium among companies selling products and services that are consumed by mass markets because it: A) has a high level of geographic selectivity B) is very easy to develop creative television advertising C) has the ability to reach large audiences in a relatively cost efficient manner D) has such a low absolute cost

52)

53) Which of the following statements about the length of television commercials is true? A) Commercial length is increasing and 60-second spots will become dominant by the end of the decade. B) Commercials became shorter because advertisers turned to shorter spots as a way of controlling their media costs. C) Commercials have become longer as the demand for broadcast time has dwindled. D) Fifteen-second commercials account for over half of the ads seen on network television.

53)

54) The television daypart that attracts the largest viewing audience is: A) daytime B) prime-time C) prime-time access D) late news

54)

55) The ________ is the average number of people estimated to have listened to a radio station for a minimum of five minutes during any quarter-hour in a time period expressed as a percentage of the survey area population. A) relative quarter hour share B) average quarter-hour figure C) average quarter-hour rating D) cumulative audience

55)

56) Research has shown that the demographic group that engages in the highest level of commercial zapping is: A) preteens B) young adult females C) young adult males D) older adults

56)

57) Tom prerecords "CSI" which is shown on Wednesday nights on CTV, so he can fast forward through the commercials. Tom engages in: A) zipping B) zapping C) zooming D) time shifting

57)

58) Which of the following statements about radio as an advertising medium is NOT true? A) Radio is a high cost medium relative to TV. B) A radio commercial is ideal for long copy when detailed information is called for. C) Radio is characterized by highly specialized programming that generally appeals to narrow segments of the population. D) Radio has evolved into primarily a local advertising medium.

58)

59) Numeris provides information on radio listenership using a ________ method. A) computer B) telephone feedback C) people meter method and a diary D) people meter

59)

60) ________ is just as much a problem with radio as with other advertising media, because radio stations can play as many minutes of advertising as they like. A) Flexibility B) Clutter C) Cost D) Geographic selectivity

60)

61) The majority of radio ads are ________ in length. A) 60 seconds B) 30 seconds C) 10 seconds

61) D) 15 seconds

62) Branded content programming, where corporations are responsible for developing program content, is moving toward: A) executive sponsorship B) the Internet C) multi-brand participation D) syndication

62)

63) Advertising rates on radio are negotiable, according to each of the following factors EXCEPT: A) number of spots purchased B) competitive television rates C) level of audience selectivity required D) availability

63)

64) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of television as an advertising medium? A) the creative options available B) the intrusive nature of television, which imposes advertising on viewers while watching their favourite programs C) its mass coverage and cost effectiveness for reaching large markets D) its processing time

64)

65) This daypart occurs seven days a week between 7:00 p.m. and 11:00 p.m.: A) Late fringe B) Prime time C) Day time D) Popular evening

65)

66) Most national advertisers: A) do not need to concern themselves with spot advertising B) use both network and spot advertising and try to effectively combine the two C) use only network advertising D) prefer spot advertising because of lower rates, less clutter, and more flexibility

66)

67) Radio offers high levels of audience selectivity because of: A) the broadcast overlap of local radio stations. B) the wide variety of program formats offered by different stations. C) the transmission capability of the various stations. D) image transfer capabilities.

67)

68) Advertisers can inhibit consumers' zapping commercials by: A) devising shorter commercial formats B) advertising more on cable television C) producing creative commercials that are meaningful to consumers and that attract and hold their attention D) lobbying to have remote control devices banned

68)

69) Advertisers who want the ability to demonstrate how their product operates and actually show its uses are likely to choose: A) magazines B) radio C) television D) direct mail

69)

70) Tom likes to watch WWE wrestling on TSN and the police car chase videos on Fox. Both shows are on Friday night at the same time. When commercials start on one of the shows, he immediately switches to the other. Tom is engaged in: A) zapping B) time shifting C) zooming D) zipping

70)

71) The program rating is calculated by dividing ________ by ________. A) the number of people tuned to a particular show; the total number of people in the geographic area B) the share of audience; the number of ratings points assigned C) the total population; the total television audience D) the overall television audience; the viewers who indicate that they like the program

71)

72) The traditional approach to sponsorship, with corporations being responsible for developing program content, has been updated, under the name: A) original content B) branded entertainment C) branded production D) advertiser ownership

72)

73) Prime time draws about ________ of per capita television consumption. A) twenty-five percent B) twenty percent C) forty percent D) sixty percent

73)

74) ________ are the various time periods or segments into which a broadcast day is divided. A) Viewing hours B) Spots C) Dayparts D) Adjacencies

74)

75) Which of television's strengths applies to the advertiser's ability to match strategy according to the brand's BDI or CDI? A) Target audience coverage B) Geographic coverage C) Cost efficiency D) Scheduling flexibility

75)

76) A Numeris study suggests that TV watchers watch ________ percent of their viewing from prerecorded programming and view about ________ percent of the ads. A) 40; 20 B) 50; 10 C) 60; 50 D) 20; 50

76)

77) There are approximately 6 million television households in Canada. During a "Hockey Night in Canada" broadcast, 50 percent of the households had their television sets turned on and 1 million were watching the Montreal Canadiens versus the Toronto Maple Leafs hockey game on CBC. The share of audience for the game would be: A) 33 B) 43 C) 23 D) cannot be determined from information given

77)

78) While most network commercials are 30- or 15-second spots, direct-response advertisers often use these longer ads to describe their products and encourage viewers to order: A) late-night spot ads B) B-to-C specialty ads C) infomercials D) interstitials

78)

79) Since firms that advertise during prime time must pay premium rates, this daypart tends to be dominated by: A) government sponsored causes B) large national advertisers C) spot advertising purchased at the last minute D) late news and other network promotions

79)

80) Which of the following is NOT true about radio streaming? A) Approximately 25% of all English Canadians listen to radio via Internet streaming. B) The largest group of Canadians to stream live radio, is Millennials (Gen Y, 26-34 years old). C) Subscription based satellite radio services, such as SiriusXM, offer advertising opportunities as well. D) Many radio stations stream their broadcast online so that an Internet listener is exposed to the same ads as the broadcast listener.

80)

81) If an advertiser wished to obtain greater reach during prime time, she might choose to place commercials in the following shows: A) Jeopardy and Wheel of Fortune, every week night for four weeks. B) Gotham, Dragons' Den, and Global News. C) How to Get Away with Murder and Criminal Minds. D) Chicago Hope, Chicago Med, and Chicago Fire.

81)

82) The pervasiveness and intrusive nature of ________ as an advertising medium contributes to the high level of distrust consumers have for the ads that appear in it. A) newspapers B) direct response C) radio D) television

82)

83) ________ is the term used for local television station commercials in which various individual stations negotiate directly with the advertisers. A) Spot advertising B) Regional advertising C) Network advertising D) Syndication

83)

84) Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Smart TV? A) Consumers are able to connect their TV sets to the Internet through Smart TVs. B) Smart TV is changing the advertising experience for TV viewers by allowing interactivity and extended brand content. C) Consumers may soon be able to avoid ads altogether through Smart TVs. D) Penetration of Smart TVs in the U.S. is still quite low, less than 20% in 2015.

84)

85) The most watched specialty channel in Canada in terms of total hours is: A) Food Network Canada B) TSN C) CBC News Network D) SportsNet

85)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 11

1) D 2) C 3) C 4) B 5) D 6) B 7) D 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) B 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) A 13

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 11

43) C 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) B 54) B 55) C 56) C 57) A 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) B 62) B 63) B 64) D 65) B 66) B 67) B 68) C 69) C 70) A 71) A 72) B 73) C 74) C 75) B 76) C 77) A 78) C 79) B 80) B 81) B 82) D 83) A 84) D 14

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 11

85) B

Chapter 12 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Advertisers who are seeking broad reach and frequency in their media schedules: A) will find broad reach and frequency an easy goal to accomplish with magazines B) need to advertise repeatedly in the same magazine C) must purchase space in a number of different magazines since most publications have thin penetration of households D) find magazines very effective since individual publications reach a very broad target audience

2) Which of the following does NOT describe preprinted newspaper inserts? A) They must comply with certain printing specs like size and page numbers for efficient insertion. B) Promotional inserts can be used to provide information and/or drive readers to online sources. C) They can be used in specific circulation zones to reach shoppers in particular trade areas. D) They are printed by the advertiser and sent to the newspaper for insertion before delivery.

3) Because they generally require some attention and effort on the part of the consumer to process the information they provide, ________ are often referred to as high-involvement media. A) newspapers and magazines B) newspapers and television C) radio and television D) magazines and radio

4) Which of the following statements about newspapers and magazines as advertising media vehicles is TRUE? A) Magazines are primarily a local advertising medium. B) Because of the difference in media format, there is no competition between broadcast and print media. C) Newspapers are exclusively a local advertising medium. D) Newspapers are primarily a local advertising medium but are also used by national advertisers.

5) The Globe & Mail and The National Post are examples of ________ newspapers. A) regional B) weekly C) national D) weekday

6) Most ________ reach broad and very diverse groups of consumers, which makes it difficult for marketers to focus on narrowly defined market segments. A) magazines B) daytime television dramas C) radio stations D) newspapers

7) An ad for PEI potatoes is a close-up view of a baked potato covered in sour cream swirls and bacon bits. The swirls extend to the very edge of the page. This ad is an example of a(n): A) bleed page B) gatefold C) maximum coverage ad D) total page ad

8) The ________ is a market area composed of a city where the paper is published and contiguous areas similar in character to the city. A) consolidated market zone B) retail trading zone C) MSA D) city zone

9) Which of the following statements about clutter in magazine advertising is true? A) Clutter is a more serious issue for magazines than it is for either television or radio. B) The clutter problem for a magazine increases as they become more successful since they attract more ad pages. C) Most magazines devote less than 30% of their pages to advertising so clutter is not really a problem. D) Clutter is not really a problem at all in magazine advertising.

10) One of the greatest limitations of newspapers as an advertising medium is: A) its poor reproduction quality B) the lack of reader interest and involvement C) consumer distrust of newspapers as a credible source D) its lack of creative ad formatting

10)

11) ________ newspapers originate in small towns or suburbs and usually focus on news, sports, and events relevant to a local area or community. A) Regional B) Daily C) Community D) Special-audience

11)

12) The flipside of magazine selectivity is: A) cost efficiency C) extensive coverage

12) B) scheduling flexibility D) narrow coverage

13) After newspapers, ________ ads are likely to be received most favourably by consumers. A) billboard B) TV C) radio D) magazine 2

13)

14) Simone rides the subway to work every day. In the morning, she picks up a copy of Metro for free at the subway station. Metro is an example of: A) a free daily newspaper B) an advertising-free news magazine C) a special-audience newspaper D) a supplement to a full daily newspaper

14)

15) A company hired a celebrity to be a spokesperson for the company and developed a print advertising campaign featuring the celebrity. In the interim, it was discovered that the celebrity was involved in embarrassing behaviour. The company immediately dismissed him as a spokesperson. However, this spokesperson could cause serious embarrassment to the company if the organization had already negotiated with several magazines to run these ads. Which characteristic of magazines would be the major source of the problem? A) Loss of publication prestige B) Clutter C) Long lead time D) Lack of publication permanence

15)

16) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with advertising in newspapers? A) High reproduction quality B) High geographic flexibility C) High level reader involvement D) High degree of market coverage

16)

17) When the advertiser allows its ad to be placed on any page or position the publisher desires, it will be quoted a(n) ________ rate. A) open position B) run of paper C) preferred position D) custom placement

17)

18) An advertiser might use an island ad as a way to: A) promote the specific brands of clothing carried by the store B) reduce overall costs of newspaper advertising C) create high reproduction ads D) break through the clutter typically found in newspapers

18)

19) A creative technique for newspaper advertising whereby an ad is surrounded by editorial material is known as a(n): A) gatefold B) ink-set image C) offset page D) island ad

19)

20) The Hathaway Shirt Company uses most of its media budget to advertise in publications such as Elm Street and Esquire magazines. The company feels that these magazines are very well respected and provide a favourable environment that helps enhance the image of its products. This example demonstrates which advantage of magazines as an advertising medium? A) Permanence B) Prestige C) Creative flexibility D) Geographic selectivity

20)

21) Which of the following statements about the use of colour in magazine advertising is true? A) Research has shown that colour ads are superior to black and white ads in terms of attracting and holding attention. B) Black and white ads are generally considered superior to colour in terms of recall, awareness, and retention. C) There is no difference in audience recall, awareness, and attention between black and white and colour ads. D) Advertisers prefer using black and white because of the greater visual impact it makes.

21)

22) Which of the following statements about the reach and frequency of consumer magazines is true? A) Popular consumer magazines have broad reach and frequency. B) Advertisers seeking broad reach through the use of magazines cannot accomplish this goal by making media buys in a number of different publications. C) Using multiple ads in the same issue of a magazine is a viable way of increasing the reach of the publication. D) While a high percentage of adults in Canada read one or more magazines, the percentage reading any individual publication is quite low.

22)

23) ________ describes a situation where a primary subscriber or purchaser of a magazine gives it to another person to read or where a magazine is read in public places. A) Guaranteed readership B) Primary readership C) Total readership D) Pass-along readership

23)

24) Which media type does research suggest holds the most audience attention? A) Browsing a social media site B) Reading a print magazine C) Watching television D) Browsing a general website

24)

25) Marketers can achieve geographic selectivity in magazine advertising by advertising in: A) national editions of major magazines that cover the entire country B) magazines that are targeted at people who enjoy gardening C) general-interest business publications D) magazines that are edited for and targeted toward particular regions, cities, or areas

25)

26) Clutter is viewed as less of a problem for magazines than radio or television because: A) consumers tend to be less receptive to print advertising than they are to broadcast advertising B) exposure to magazine ads is easier to control as the consumer can simply turn a page if uninterested in an ad C) consumers have been trained to expect more ad messages than they can decode D) print ads are always more creative and interesting than television ads

26)

27) Magazine advertisements that extend to the end of the page rather than leaving a margin around the ad are called: A) gatefolds B) bleed pages C) overruns D) maximum coverage ads

27)

28) Process Equipment and Control News is an example of a(n) ________ publication. A) trade B) professional C) general business D) industrial

28)

29) Elena Tomassi is an avid skier and likes to take a weeklong ski vacation every winter. To help plan her vacation, she keeps all of the past issues of Skiing magazine she has received so she can consult them as she makes her selection of a ski resort. Elena's use of the magazines in this way demonstrates which advantage of magazines as an advertising medium? A) Permanence B) Prestige C) Services D) Geographic selectivity

29)

30) ________ will find newspapers very inefficient because of the wasted circulation. A) Fishing rod manufacturers B) Home electronics retailers C) Supermarkets D) Hotels

30)

31) Selectivity, reproduction quality, creative flexibility, and prestige are all potential advantages of which advertising medium? A) Local radio B) Billboards C) Magazines D) Place-based media

31)

32) "Used a coupon," "switched to a different brand," and "discussed an ad with a friend" are all behavioural effects of which strength of magazine advertising? A) Clutter B) Cost efficiency C) Target audience coverage D) High involvement processing

32)

33) Consumers purchase ________ as much for their advertising as for their editorial content. A) travel books B) subscriptions to blogs C) magazines D) pay-for-view movies

33)

34) Zoomer, a magazine targeted to adults over 40, offers advertisers ________ selectivity. A) geographic B) behavioural C) lifestyle D) demographic

34)

35) The high ratio of advertising to editorial content in most magazines causes magazines to have a problem with: A) long lead times B) loss of publication prestige C) high costs D) clutter

35)

36) One of the primary advantages of using magazines as an advertising medium is their: A) low clutter level B) low absolute costs C) selectivity D) limited reach and frequency

36)

37) According to Canadian Advertising Rates and Data, magazines can be classified as ________ publications. A) agrarian, ethnic, industrial, and specialized B) consumer, ethnic, farm, and business C) regional, ethnic, national, and international D) general, ethnic, specialized, and niche

37)

38) An advertiser can obtain a specific position on a newspaper page by paying a ________ rate. A) preferred position B) run of paper C) frequent advertiser D) custom placement

38)

39) Iryna overheard a conversation in which the following terms were used: Short closing times, high penetration, and ad reproduction limitations. Which media vehicle was being discussed in the conversation that Iryna overheard? A) Magazines B) Billboards C) Newspapers D) Direct mail

39)

40) ________ provides media planners with reliable figures about the size and distribution of a magazine's circulation that helps the planners evaluate its worth as a media vehicle. A) The Canadian Circulations Audit Board B) Standard Rate and Data Service C) Mediamark Research, Inc. D) A circulation verification service

40)

41) A company that manufactures ski boots might prefer to advertise in specialized publications such as Ski or Skiing rather than general interest magazines and sports magazines such as Sports Illustrated because of: A) the broader reach of the specialized publications B) fewer ads and less clutter in the specialized publications C) the greater audience selectivity of the specialized publications D) the creative flexibility available in specialized magazines and not available in more general-interest publications

41)

42) ________ in reaching specific target audiences is available in magazines on the basis of demographics, geographic area, lifestyle and interests. A) Selectivity B) Credibility C) Flexibility D) Ad rates

42)

43) New Balance's marketing research has shown that there are a large number of serious runners living in the western region of Canada. These individuals would be willing to pay over $100 for a pair of running shoes. To reach this market the best media option would probably be: A) regional editions of general interest magazines such as Time or Maclean's B) regional editions of specialty magazines such as Runner's World C) regional editions of general sports magazines such as Sports Illustrated D) the sports section of national newspapers such as The Globe & Mail

43)

44) ________ advertising is a category of advertising that is found throughout a newspaper and generally uses illustrations, headlines, white space, and other visual devices in addition to the copy text. A) Supplement B) Branded C) Display D) Classified

44)

45) Which of the following is NOT true about Internet newspapers? A) Readers go to online newspapers seeking content that they can trust. B) Newspapers developed apps so that readers could access their content on new reading and mobile devices. C) Newspaper publishers are concerned about having to charge for a free online service. D) So far, social media has not impacted the reporting of news through Internet newspapers.

45)

46) Healthy Pet and PhotoLife are examples of: A) trade publications B) special interest business magazines C) general interest consumer magazines D) special interest consumer magazines

46)

47) ________ are the most specialized of all advertising media. A) TV B) Newspapers C) Magazines

47) D) Radio

48) Why do advertising rates in ethnic magazines tend to be lower than in general interest publications? A) The majority of them are written in English. B) They tend to have low or unauthenticated circulation figures. C) National advertisers do not tend to market to ethnic minorities. D) There tend to be only four to seven publications in some of the non-dominant languages.

48)

49) Most major publications are audited by ________. A) Business Publications Audit B) Alliance for Audited Media C) Standard Rate and Data Service D) Audit Bureau of Circulations

49)

50) Which of the following would NOT affect the cost of advertising in a consumer magazine? A) the size of the advertisement B) special production requirements C) the circulation of the magazine D) the number of ads in the magazine

50)

51) Because of the medium's ability to turn information around quickly and deliver a detailed message, many companies who provide critical services to consumers often choose to advertise in ________ to respond to natural disasters such as earthquakes or hurricanes. A) newspapers B) television C) radio D) direct mail

51)

52) Which of the following statements does NOT describe community newspapers? A) National advertisers prefer the geographic focus and lower absolute cost of community newspapers. B) These papers focus on primarily on news, sports, and events relevant to the local area. C) These papers appeal primarily to local advertisers. D) They usually ignore content covered by the city-based daily newspaper.

52)

53) Floral Management is a publication aimed at providing information to retail florists so they manage their stores more efficiently and more profitably. It is an example of a(n) ________ publication. A) industrial B) trade C) professional D) general business

53)

54) The fact that most magazines are published for special-interest groups gives them a high degree of: A) reach B) flexibility C) selectivity D) permanence

54)

55) Why are farm publications not classified with business publications? A) The number of farm magazines, if added to the number of business magazines, would make the category too large. B) Historically farms have not been perceived as businesses. C) Canadian laws require the breakout of farm magazines because subscriptions to these magazines help to determine farm allowances. D) Farm magazines are a hybrid of consumer and business magazines.

55)

56) Advertisers may be skeptical about placing ads in magazines sold at less than full value for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) If a magazine is not audited, there is less data for measuring the success of the message. B) The editorial content in controlled circulation magazines is less targeted than in other consumer publications. C) Subscribers who pay for a magazine are more likely to read it than are those who get it at a discount or free. D) Advertising rates may not be lower even though the price of the magazine is discounted.

56)

57) Information on the characteristics of magazine audiences in Canada is primarily provided by: A) A.C. Nielsen B) the magazines themselves C) SRDS's Business Publication Advertising Source D) Magazines Canada

57)

58) Magazine publishers attempt to control the ________ problem by maintaining a reasonable balance of editorial pages to advertising. A) creativity B) clutter C) colour D) quality

58)

59) Based on the circulation figures of 2012-13, what is the major U.S. based magazine in Canada? A) O, The Oprah Magazine B) Martha Stewart Living C) National Geographic D) Men's Health

59)

60) Each of the following statements about readers' selective exposure and attention to newspapers ads is true EXCEPT: A) Readers may not even open certain sections, and will miss seeing an ad altogether. B) Consumers tend to spend a short amount of time reading the paper each day, so exposure to ads is limited. C) A daily newspaper is rarely kept around the home for more than a day. D) Advertisers can't specify a specific section of the paper in which to place their ad, which might at least lessen the lack of exposure.

60)

61) The ________ is a market outside of a city whose residents regularly do business within the city. A) retail trading zone B) city zone C) MSA D) designated market area

61)

62) A magazine's ________ is one of the primary considerations for an advertiser selecting a particular magazine for advertising. A) price at the newsstand B) clutter C) lead time D) circulation

62)

63) Linn's Stamp News is a newspaper written specifically for stamp collectors and published monthly. It does not contain any information that would not be of interest to people who collect stamps. It is an example of a: A) demographically-oriented newspaper B) special-audience newspaper C) trade newspaper D) newspaper supplement

63)

64) The vast majority of newspapers are: A) daily publications serving a local community B) national business newspapers C) weekly community newspapers D) special-audience newspapers

64)

65) The Globe and Mail publishes Report on Business magazine monthly, and it is included with the newspaper. This magazine is called a: A) community newspaper B) newspaper supplement C) special audience newspaper D) national newspaper

65)

66) Most consumers rely heavily on ________ not only for news, information, and entertainment, but also for the advertising it contains. A) magazines B) newspapers C) direct mail D) newsletters

66)

67) Which of the following would Canadian Advertising Rates and Data (CARD) classify as a general business magazine? A) Drug Store News B) Canadian Business C) Restaurant News D) Architectural Digest

67)

68) A magazine such as Farm Journal is an example of a ________ while a publications such as National Hog Farmer is a ________. A) general interest business magazine; general interest farm publication B) general interest farm publication; special interest consumer magazine C) specialized farm publication; trade magazine D) general interest farm publication; specialized farm publication

68)

69) Which of the following statements about the role of magazines is true? A) Magazines generate most of their total revenue from advertising. B) The advantages and disadvantages associated with the use of magazines as an advertising media vehicle are the same. C) Business magazines generate most of their revenue from subscriptions and single copy sales and are not really dependent on advertising. D) Individual magazines reach a very selective audience and are very valuable for reaching specific types of consumers or market segments.

69)

70) Traditionally, newspaper advertising space has been sold by the: A) cost per thousand (CPM) B) agate line C) open rate structure D) absolute cost method

70)

71) Many magazines are sent to and/or provided free to individuals a publisher feels are appropriate members of a target audience for products and services advertised in the publication. This is known as: A) controlled circulation B) free circulation C) primary circulation D) guaranteed circulation

71)

72) All of the following may result in additional costs for a magazine advertisement EXCEPT: A) four-colour illustrations B) large volume purchases of advertising space in the same magazine C) bleed pages D) gatefolds

72)

73) Advertisers who want to achieve geographic selectivity in their magazine media schedule can do so by advertising in: A) international editions of magazines only B) trade publications C) special-interest farm publications D) magazines like Toronto Life and Vancouver Magazine

73)

74) In terms of ethnic publications in Canada, in which language are the majority written? A) French B) English C) Chinese D) Arabic

74)

75) Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with advertising in magazines? A) Limited reach and frequency B) Lack of consumer receptivity to ads C) Lack of prestige D) Lack of permanence

75)

76) Which of the following would be an example of special-audience newspaper? A) The Calgary Herald B) The newspaper published by a college C) The Sunday Sun D) The Halifax Herald

76)

77) A magazine with a circulation of 2.5 million and 3 readers per copy would have a total audience or readership of ________ million. A) 2.5 B) 7.5 C) 4.5 D) 5.5

77)

78) Which of the following is a disadvantage inherent in advertising in magazines? A) Poor reproduction quality B) Long lead time C) Low publication prestige D) Lack of demographic selectivity

78)

79) Magazines such as Martha Stewart Living, O The Oprah Magazine, and Men's Journal are succeeding because: A) the magazines have very large circulation bases B) the magazines appeal to the conspicuous consumption lifestyle of today's consumers C) the publications have large editorial staffs D) the magazines have editorial platforms that appeal to the interests, lifestyles, and demographics of the consumer

79)

80) While ________ can offer geographic selectivity, it is not a selective medium in terms of demographics or lifestyle characteristics. A) newspapers B) radio C) magazines D) television

80)

81) Which of the following comparisons of primary in-home readers of a magazine and pass-along readers is true? A) Advertisers generally attach greater value to pass-along readers. B) Pass-along readers generally spend more time with a magazine and pick it up more often than do primary readers. C) Pass-along readers should be totally discounted in evaluating magazine readership. D) Advertisers generally attach greater value to primary in-home readers.

81)

82) Gatefolds, bleed pages, inserts, and creative space buys are ways of increasing: A) the creativity of magazine ads and their ability to attract readers' attention B) the geographic flexibility of magazines C) the selectivity of magazines D) the cost efficiency of magazines

82)

83) Which of the following is an example of a trade journal? A) Chatelaine B) Maxim C) Canadian Grocer D) Maclean's

83)

84) When newspapers offer discounts, they are using a(n) ________ structure. A) illegal B) open rate C) unfavourable D) favourable

84)

85) One of the core purposes of Newspapers Canada is to: A) attract more newspaper advertising dollars from national advertisers in specific product categories by facilitating the purchasing process B) publish research information about Canadian daily newspapers C) make sure that national advertisers who use newspapers on a limited basis pay higher rates than those who are already regular users D) make newspaper advertising rates the same for everyone

85)

86) The advertising manager for a fashionable, upscale women's clothing line is concerned over an ad agency recommendation to run ads for the brand in People magazine. She feels the editorial environment of the magazine may not be appropriate to the high fashion and trendy positioning strategy being used for the brand. This reflects concern over what specific aspect of magazine advertising? A) Creative options B) Media image C) Reproduction quality D) Permanence

86)

87) A magazine can be categorized by each of the following EXCEPT: A) the fact that it is only available by subscription B) its geographic coverage C) the fact that it is a monthly publication D) the advertisers who place ads in the publication

87)

88) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the reproduction quality of magazine advertising? A) Printing processes that provide excellent reproduction of black and white pictures B) The high quality of the paper stock used in magazines C) Prevalent use of colour in magazine ads D) Creativity developed to evoke an emotional response

88)

89) Which of the following about advertising in foreign publications is NOT true? A) About 90% of foreign publications sold in Canada are U.S. based. B) Foreign publications can accept a greater amount of Canadian advertising if the majority of editorial content is Canadian. C) Canadian businesses are not allowed to advertise in foreign magazines sold in Canada. D) Foreign publications can accept up to 18% of their advertising space from Canadian advertisers for magazines sold in Canada.

89)

90) The U.S. magazine with the largest paid circulation in Canada is: A) National Geographic B) O, The Oprah Magazine C) Prevention D) Readers Digest

90)

91) The use of a third page that folds out to create an extra large advertising spread in a magazine is called a: A) premium size ad B) page manipulator C) printacular D) gatefold

91)

92) The cost of advertising space in magazines is primarily a function of: A) the size of the advertisement B) the ad's position in the magazine C) the circulation of the publication D) the frequency of ad insertions

92)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 12

1) C 2) A 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) D 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) D 26) B 27) B 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) D 41) C 42) A 15

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 12

43) B 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) C 48) B 49) B 50) D 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) B 57) D 58) B 59) C 60) D 61) A 62) D 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) B 67) B 68) D 69) D 70) B 71) A 72) B 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) B 77) B 78) B 79) D 80) A 81) D 82) A 83) C 84) B 16

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 12

85) B 86) B 87) D 88) D 89) C 90) A 91) D 92) C

Chapter 13 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Transit media is sold: A) on a four-week basis with a certain desired level of GRPs. B) to the highest bidder in any particular time period. C) bus-by-bus and station-by-station. D) according to level of exposure.

2) Research companies offer data for all of the following measurements EXCEPT: A) viewers' attitudes about product placement in TV shows B) sales generated from high exposure product placement in television and movies C) product placement vs television commercial cost/value comparisons for each hundredth of a second of exposure D) recall of product placement in the previous night's network television shows

3) ________ posters are those that have a light behind them so that they are more clearly illuminated. A) Superboard B) Spectacular C) Rear-projection D) Backlit

4) Which of the following is NOT true about superbus advertising? A) Advertisers purchase space on an entire fleet of buses, thus making a "super" impression. B) The advertiser "owns" the bus for the time of the contract. C) The entire surface of the bus is covered in a vinyl ad. D) Often an advertiser must take a contract of a half- or full year.

5) When watching an NHL game on television, the digital advertising around the rink boards changes when the camera cuts away from the boards. This is a form of: A) place-based advertising B) product placement C) specialty advertising D) video advertising

6) Which support media should be employed if the product/service is an expensive hotel that is attempting to appeal to an international audience? A) advertising specialties B) product placements C) in-flight advertising D) billboards

7) Which of the following is NOT an example of place-based media? A) a poster in a sports stadium B) consumer magazines in dentists' offices C) ads inside washrooms D) televisions in doctors' offices

8) These are sold on a per location basis due to their size and the low number of options available in major Canadian markets. A) street-level posters B) mobile signage C) transit shelters D) spectaculars

9) Which of the following forms of support media has a low degree of waste coverage? A) transit advertising B) mobile billboards C) outdoor advertising D) promotional products marketing

10) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with outdoor advertising? A) a very competitive CPM B) the ability to present very creative messages C) high levels of frequency D) low absolute cost

10)

11) In many ________, the advertiser has no say over when and how often the product will be shown. A) TV commercials B) movies C) radio commercials D) infomercials

11)

12) ________ ads have a unique opportunity to communicate for a longer period of time than a TV ad. A) Radio B) Yellow Pages C) Movie theatre D) Transit

12)

13) It is very difficult for movie theatre audiences to physically avoid the ________ unless they physically leave the theatre. A) publicity B) product placement C) sales promotion D) TV exposure

13)

14) ________ is targeted at the millions of people who are exposed to commercial transportation facilities including buses, subways, light-rail trains, and airplanes. A) Place-based media B) Transit advertising C) Point-of-purchase media D) Outdoor advertising

14)

15) ________ ads usually have a very competitive CPM when compared to other media. A) Magazine B) Newspaper C) Radio D) Outdoor

15)

16) A company wishing to advertise to a very specific target market with a message designed to aid comprehension of the product benefits offered should use: A) rolling boards B) billboards C) transit advertising D) specialty magazine advertising

16)

17) According to research, which category of promotional products is the largest in terms of sales? A) wearables/apparel B) coffee cups and other drinkware C) writing instruments D) desk/office accessories

17)

18) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of movie theatre advertising? A) audience mood is happy and excited to be going to the movies B) ability to develop creative ads that evoke emotional responses in the audience C) perceived waste of audience's time creates negative reaction to ad D) captive audience removes control for avoidance

18)

19) Air Canada wishes to advertise in a medium with wide coverage of local markets and high levels of frequency. Which type of media should they choose? A) in-store and out-of-store B) airport advertising and mobile billboards C) newspaper and transit D) outdoor

19)

20) Which of the following is an example of a disadvantage associated with promotional products marketing? A) intrusive nature of the advertising B) ability to support other IMC tools C) potential saturation of the marketplace D) designed for retention

20)

21) Research indicates that the greatest strength of ________ lies in maintaining existing loyalty of current customers who see the product they consume actually being used in a realistic situation. A) product placement B) an in-flight magazine ad C) movie theatre advertising D) transit shelter advertising

21)

22) ________ delivers advertising messages that we experience while moving about our town or city and accomplishing our day-to-day activities. A) Motion advertising B) Indirect communications C) Support media D) Out-of-home advertising

22)

23) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with promotional products marketing? A) short lead time B) generates goodwill C) designed for retention D) high degree of target audience selectivity

23)

24) Which of the following is the best example of the limitations of transit advertising around target audience coverage? A) A trendy clothing store believes that transit advertising would be a cost effective way to reach their target shopper. B) A jewelry store is concerned that buses, streetcars and subways have so many interior cards that their core customer may not pay attention to their ad. C) A furniture store is considering advertising on interior transit cards, but is concerned that not all riders will fit into their target market. D) It is always a concern for technology firms that their message on the sides of buses won't be comprehensive enough to convince consumers of their products' superiority.

24)

25) Which of the following statements about product placement advertising is true? A) The brand personality and its positioning must "fit" with the characters and plot of the story. B) The power of product placement is such that it is not necessary to run other product advertising. C) While television advertising can be both visual and verbal, product placement relies on visual exposure only. D) The more a brand pays for product placement, the longer its exposure in the movie will be.

25)

26) Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with the use of product placements? A) limited reach B) high exposure C) little clutter D) low CPM costs

26)

27) Most placed-based media typically offer the opportunity for promotional planners to achieve: A) brand purchase intention B) brand attitude C) category need D) brand awareness

27)

28) Which of the following is NOT a limitation of product placement? A) The correct placement of the product has direct relevance for the character or situation. B) There is no potential for discussing product benefits or providing detailed information. C) Some product placements only last for a few seconds. D) There is no guarantee that viewers will notice the product.

28)

29) Which of the following is an example of an advantage associated with product placement? A) high absolute cost B) maintaining existing loyalty of current customers C) lack of control D) negative public reaction

29)

30) What are the two primary objectives of advertising in outdoor, transit, and place-based media? A) brand awareness and brand attitude B) category need and brand purchase intention C) brand awareness and brand purchase intention D) brand attitude and brand purchase intention E) category need and purchase facilitation

30)

31) The Canadian Out-of-Home Measurement Bureau (COMB) does all of the following EXCEPT: A) publishes circulation and market data for out-of-home facings across the country B) tends to bias results towards the brands that are paying for the research C) maintains a national database of outdoor and place-based media D) comprises members from advertisers, advertising agencies, and media firms

31)

32) Which support media should be employed if the objective is to achieve high levels of retention and have the communication serve as a frequent reminder? A) promotional product marketing items B) mall posters C) trade promotions D) product placements

32)

33) The use of Nike shoes in the movie "Forrest Gump" and the appearance of the Marriott Hotel logo in the movie "True Lies" are both examples of: A) specialty advertising B) free-form marketing C) product placement D) transactional advertising

33)

34) Which of the following is NOT an example of an out-of-home medium? A) a sign for Calvin Klein jeans inside a bus shelter B) an ad in the subway C) an ad in a college newspaper D) posters located in high-traffic areas

34)

35) Manny is the product manager for a leading brand of men's outer wear. He feels that his message will be best received when his potential consumer is actually shopping for a new jacket. He should use this form of media in his next campaign. A) mall posters B) radio C) Internet banner ads D) sports television

35)

36) People tend to speed past outdoor ads, so the most effective messages will be limited to an impactful visual and a few words. This is a function of: A) high cost per impression. B) executional limitations of outdoor advertising. C) short processing time. D) limited selectivity.

36)

37) Bringing an advertising medium to consumers wherever they may be is the strategy behind: A) specific location media. B) place-based media. C) multi-location insertions. D) indoor as well as outdoor media.

37)

38) What time of day do most workers shop, according to OMAC studies? A) weekends and days not at work B) on their way to work C) on their way home from work D) after they get home from work

38)

39) Promoting a product by having it used in a movie is known as: A) product placement B) out-of-home advertising C) publicity D) a direct response promotion

39)

40) Those vehicles used to reinforce communications messages that may have been received from other forms of advertising are called: A) advertising accessories B) out-of-home advertising C) support media D) indirect communications

40)

41) Place-based media options include all of the following EXCEPT: A) cinema B) mall C) office building D) backlit poster

41)

42) Which form of support media provides a high degree of geographic selectivity? A) outdoor advertising and transit advertising B) product placement and mobile billboards C) aerial advertising D) movie theatre advertising and video advertising

42)

43) When a video or piece of music is created by an advertiser in an attempt to entertain viewers while advertising their products, this is called: A) editorial content B) blurred promotion C) branded entertainment D) brand-generated content

43)

44) A percentage of the traffic passing a particular billboard will not be interested in what is being promoted on it. This is known as ________. A) over indexing B) waste coverage C) clutter D) excess reach

44)

45) Which of the following statements about audience measurement in promotional products marketing is true? A) Donnelly Marketing has established an acceptable method for measuring the impact of promotional products marketing on sales. B) There is no established ongoing audience measurement system for promotional products marketing. C) Companies that use promotional products marketing are not interested in sales; they only want to create goodwill. D) Reach and frequency are as easy to measure with promotional products marketing as with print advertising.

45)

46) Which of the following is true about the usefulness of street-level posters? A) Large amounts of text and pictures of people enhance product recognition. B) Short headlines, longer body text and a product shot enhance the creative appeal. C) The use of humour accelerates brand recognition. D) Specifying a brand name in the headline enhances message appeal.

46)

47) Which support media should be employed if the objective is to associate the product with a very specific type of user and to appear as though it's really not being advertised at all? A) product placements B) mall posters C) advertising specialties D) in-flight advertising

47)

48) Philips Electronics is considering a media mix that will allow for high exposure for its new flat screen television. A major concern of the company is that it maintains a favourable image in the market. Because of the nature of the medium, which of the following might lead to image problems if employed by Philips for its new television? A) promotional product marketing and transit advertising B) product placement and Internet marketing C) aerial advertising and print advertising D) Internet advertising, print advertising, and mobile billboards

48)

49) Which support media should be employed if the product is expensive cologne, and the target audience for the product is upscale businesspeople? A) billboards B) product placements C) in-flight advertising D) Yellow Pages

49)

50) Which of the following is NOT considered transit advertising? A) Air Canada's in-flight magazine B) superboards C) station domination D) in-flight radio

50)

51) A liqueur company wants to advertise in an in-flight commercial. What are the disadvantages associated with using this form of in-flight advertising? A) high costs B) an audience feeling that such ads are intrusive C) lack of wearout D) inability to segment market

51)

52) Where do consumers report the highest awareness of place-based media? A) office elevators B) restaurants C) public transit D) shopping malls

52)

53) Studies show that urban commuters are exposed as much by this media as by Internet or television advertising. A) radio B) daily newspapers C) out-of-home D) special interest magazines

53)

54) The anxious, irritated, or disinterested state of many potential customers when exposed to ________ advertising may limit the effectiveness of such advertising. A) transit B) radio C) movie D) specialty

54)

55) Which of the following is NOT one of the top three most used promotional products? A) coffee mugs B) writing instruments C) calendars D) wearables/apparel

55)

56) Useful articles of merchandise, such as sports bottles, calendars, and pens, imprinted with an advertiser's name, message, or logo are examples of: A) product placements B) promotional product marketing items C) premiums D) trade promotions

56)

57) The use of products such as pens, calendars, and coffee mugs, featuring advertising and used as promotional tools is referred to as: A) promotional product marketing B) publicity C) giveaways D) sales promotions

57)

58) An advertiser might decide to NOT use outdoor advertising because the medium: A) does not command attention B) does not produce a high level of product or brand awareness C) has a low level of frequency D) is prone to wearout

58)

59) Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage associated with transit advertising? A) waste coverage B) extensive reach C) media image D) clutter

59)

60) A liqueur company wants to advertise in an in-flight commercial. What are the advantages associated with using this form of in-flight advertising? A) lack of clutter B) low wearout C) a captive audience D) high attention from target audience

60)

61) Advertisers can be confident that out-of-home media reach a substantial portion of the population while they are planning to or actually shopping, because OMAC studies showed: A) Many urban workers use a car to get to work. B) More than 50 percent of people shop on their way to work or home. C) Consumers commute to work for an average of 65 minutes per day. D) The average person spends 55 percent of their day out of the home.

61)

62) Which of the following is an advantage associated with outdoor advertising? A) large geographic coverage B) image problems C) clutter D) high degree of waste coverage

62)

63) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with transit advertising? A) long exposure time for interior transit cards B) target audience selectivity C) geographic selectivity D) high frequency of exposure

63)

64) Interior cards, exterior posters, station domination are all examples of what kind of media? A) airport B) shopping mall C) movie theatre D) transit

64)

65) The Out-of-Home Marketing Association of Canada (OMAC) investigated time spent inside and outside the home, out-of-home exposure, commuting habits, and shopping behaviour in two studies called: A) "Out-of-Home Media Exposure" studies B) "Day in the Life" studies C) "Slice of Life" studies D) "Consumer Behaviour" studies

65)

66) Which of the following statements about outdoor billboards is true? A) Outdoor billboards lack the ability to deliver a lengthy, comprehensive message. B) Lengthy, large headlines enhance brand recognition. C) Outdoor billboards are perfect for providing promotional price information in a timely fashion. D) Animation is possible only in indoor locations due to weather conditions and glare.

66)

67) Two Visa decals which were placed on the front window on a travel agency where Toula worked in My Big Fat Greek Wedding is an example of: A) sales promotion B) promotional products marketing C) specialty advertising D) product placement

67)

68) The term used to describe ads on trucks or other vehicles is: A) spectaculars B) mobile signage C) street-level posters D) video-display units

68)

69) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with place-based media ads? A) scheduling flexibility B) reasonable absolute costs C) audience selectivity D) generate more in-depth cognitive responses

69)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 13

1) A 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) D 9) D 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) B 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) B 38) A 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) A 11

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 13

43) C 44) B 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) A 56) B 57) A 58) D 59) B 60) C 61) B 62) A 63) B 64) D 65) B 66) A 67) D 68) B 69) A

Chapter 14 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) ________ are used to distribute coupons through newspapers. A) Freestanding inserts (FSIs) B) Classified ads C) Coupon pages D) Editorials

2) ________ is a practice used by retailers whereby they stock-up on a product at a low deal or off-invoice price and resell it to consumers at higher prices when a promotional period has ended. A) Discount trading B) Promotional discounting C) Diverting D) Forward buying

3) Duncan Hines printed a 50 cents-off coupon on the inside of their brownie boxes. They distributed 200,000 promotional packages, at a cost of $9,900 for design and production. They predict that the redemption rate will be 3%. They pay retailer handling and processing costs of 10¢ per coupon redeemed. What is the cost per coupon redeemed to Duncan Hines? A) $1.25 B) $0.57 C) $2.25 D) $0.50

4) Eastern Canadian Sea Foods devotes most of its marketing budget to trade discounts in the form of off-invoice and promotional allowances so its canned tuna and salmon brands can remain price competitive with private label brands. The heavy emphasis on trade promotion makes it difficult to: A) build an Eastern Canadian brand identity and image B) encourage consumers to buy on the basis of price C) encourage retailers to use Eastern Canadian's planograms D) build and maintain store equity for retailers that carry the Eastern Canadian brand

5) Ralston Purina offers its retail accounts a $3.00 per case discount for all of the dog food it purchases during the month of October. This discount will be deducted straight from the bill. This is an example of: A) push money. B) a coop allowance. C) a slotting allowance. D) an off-invoice allowance.

6) Each of the following is a reason for marketers to encourage repeat purchase EXCEPT: A) induce consumers to establish ongoing purchase patterns B) persuade non-users of the category to try the product C) retain current customer base D) reduce the likelihood that consumers will switch brands in response to a competitor's promotion

7) Which of the following would be the best example of a premium offer that contributes to consumer-franchise building efforts for a brand? A) A pack of baseball cards in a box of Cheerios cereal B) A crystal figurine in a box of Tide laundry detergent C) A free sport bottle with the purchase of a four-pack of Gatorade D) A free tube of Colgate toothpaste in a box of Life cereal

8) Which of the following is an example of a sales promotion that can be used to contribute to franchise building? A) A sweepstakes or contest that uses a theme which is consistent with the image or positioning of the brand. B) A price reduction of $5 on a pair of Lee jeans. C) A bonus jar of Hellmann's Mayonnaise, offering 1 L for the price of 750 mL. D) A 50-cents off coupon on a box of Minute Rice to encourage repurchase.

9) A(n) ________ is an offer of an item of merchandise or service either free or at a reduced price that is used to provide an extra to purchase. A) premium B) rebate C) off-price deal D) coupon

10) Uncle Ben's Rice attached a $1-off coupon to the outside of their packaging. They distributed 1,000,000 promotional packages, at a cost of $20,000 for design and production. They predict that the redemption rate will be 5%. They pay retailer handling and processing costs of 10¢ per coupon redeemed. What is the cost per coupon redeemed to Uncle Ben's? A) $1.00 B) $1.10 C) $0.75 D) $1.50

10)

11) Which of the following promotions is targeted toward the trade rather than consumers? A) Coupons B) Premiums and sweepstakes C) Bonus packs D) Spiffs

11)

12) When calculating the costs of a couponing program, marketers should consider all of the following EXCEPT: A) the face value of the coupon redeemed B) production and distribution costs C) handling costs D) the copy and layout of the coupon

12)

13) Monies that must be paid to a retailer so they will take on a company's new product are known as: A) new product fees B) trade discounts C) spiffs D) slotting allowances

13)

14) Which of the following is NOT a downside to running a promotion in a specific geographic region? A) Additional managerial commitment required B) Greater expenses resulting from fragmented efforts C) National accounts' reluctance to run different promotions in different regions D) Consumer confusion when they shop at their local store

14)

15) Gillette's market research shows that most consumers decide upon a brand of deodorant at the point-of-purchase rather than before entering the store. Based on these findings, what form of promotion is most effective for Gillette's Right Guard brand? A) In-store coupons B) Coupons distributed through freestanding inserts in newspapers C) Direct mail coupons D) Event marketing

15)

16) Programs involving cash payments directly to the sales force to reward them for selling the manufacturer's products involve the use of: A) pull monies B) push money C) slotting fees D) promotional allowances

16)

17) A(n) ________ is an important promotional tool because it can help an advertiser obtain more in-store merchandising of products. A) point-of-purchase display B) in-pack coupon C) trade allowance D) off-invoice allowance

17)

18) Perhaps the most successful in-package ________ in Canada in 2001 was a General Mills giveaway of six CD-ROM computer games. A) bonus pack B) premium C) contest D) coupons

18)

19) Which of the following is NOT a tactical decision the marketer faces when planning a sales promotion? A) Seasonality of purchase and length of promotion B) The value of the free in-pack premium C) The prime time evenings that attract the biggest percentage of the brand's target market D) The percentage discount that the face value of checkout coupons represents

19)

20) Duncan Hines printed a 50 cents-off coupon on the inside of their brownie boxes. They distributed 200,000 promotional packages, at a cost of $9,900 for design and production. They predict that the redemption rate will be 3%. They pay retailer handling and processing costs of 10¢ per coupon redeemed. What is the total cost of the coupon promotion to Duncan Hines? A) $16,500 B) $34,000 C) $3,500 D) $13,500

20)

21) ________ is advertising supported by raw materials or component part manufacturers to help establish end products making use of their materials. A) Vertical cooperative advertising B) Horizontal cooperative advertising C) Support advertising D) Ingredient-sponsored cooperative advertising

21)

22) Kellogg's is introducing a new brand of breakfast cereal that is high in fibre and targeted at adults between the ages of 25 and 50. The marketing objectives for the introduction are to generate trial and repeat purchase during the 3-month product launch. Which of the following sales promotion tools work best for Kellogg's? A) High value coupons and sampling B) Rebates and high value checkout coupons C) Bonus packs, trade allowances, and slotting fees D) Sampling and rebates

22)

23) ________ is advertising sponsored in common by a group of retailers or other organizations offering a product or service to the market. A) Indirect advertising B) Vertical cooperative advertising C) Dyadic communication D) Horizontal cooperative advertising

23)

24) ________ has/have become very popular in recent years as marketers develop integrated marketing programs that create experiences for consumers in an effort to associate their brands with certain lifestyles and activities. A) Event marketing B) Contests C) Premiums D) Bonus packs

24)

25) ________ is a common sampling technique for small, lightweight products that are non-perishable. A) Door-to-door sampling B) Location sampling C) Sampling through the mail D) On-package sampling

25)

26) Crashed Ice is an event featuring a new sport, downhill ice-cross, which was established by: A) Orange Crush. B) Bauer Hockey Skates. C) Smirnoff Vodka. D) Red Bull Energy Drink.

26)

27) Which of the following is NOT true regarding slotting fees or allowances? A) Even large manufacturers with popular brands and large promotional budgets always have to pay slotting fees. B) Retailers argue they are justified because there are costs associated with taking on a new product, such as entering the product into the computer and finding warehouse space. C) Retailers argue they are justified because they are assuming some risks in taking on a new product, and so many new products fail. D) Retailers can charge slotting fees because of their power and the limited availability of shelf space in many retail stores.

27)

28) Tropicana suspended shipments of its products to a retail store that was taking advantage of promotional deals and then selling the product to other stores in another part of the country. The retailer was engaged in: A) slotting B) transference charging C) forward buying D) diverting

28)

29) How has the view of sales promotions changed during the past decades? A) Sales promotions are now believed to be an ineffective tool for creating brand image. B) Sales promotions are now considered an essential part of an organization's branding strategies. C) Sales promotion tactics are now developed exclusively to provide incentives to purchase. D) There is no difference between how marketers used to treat sales promotions and how they treat them now.

29)

30) When a brand moves to the ________ stage of the product life cycle, advertising is primarily a reminder to keep consumers aware of the brand. Consumer sales promotions such as coupons, price-offs, premiums, and bonus packs may be needed periodically to maintain consumer loyalty, attract new users, and protect against competition. A) early decline B) growth C) decline D) maturity

30)

31) A discount or deal that is offered to a retailer or wholesaler to encourage them to stock, promote, or display a manufacturer's product is known as: A) merchandising support B) a trade allowance C) a spiff D) push money

31)

32) Catelli might use a specially marked price-off deal on their pasta sauces for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) The attention that the lower price attracts can be a strong influence at the point of purchase when price comparison shopping occurs. B) Price-off deals present a readily apparent value to shoppers. C) Price-off deals tend to attract current users of the brand instead of attracting non-users. D) This ensures that the discount will go right to the consumer rather than being kept by the retailer.

32)

33) Which of the following is an advantage of digital coupon distribution? A) Technology associated with smartphones is inexpensive. B) Digital coupons can offer a lower coupon value because the consumer doesn't have to go to too much trouble to redeem them. C) Digital coupons enjoy a higher redemption rate because consumers can access a coupon for a desired brand right while shopping. D) Retailers prefer digital coupons because they don't have as much paper to manage when claiming their handling fees.

33)

34) All the following are advantages associated with the use of trade allowances EXCEPT: A) ensure greater in-store exposure. B) permit a brand to obtain prominent placement where high traffic occurs. C) provide brands that sell in retail stores the opportunity to have specialized displays to feature their product. D) strengthen the brand image.

34)

35) When a marketer distributes coupons for a brand with a specific expiration date, they are attempting to use sales promotion as a(n): A) promotional marketing tool B) value added tool C) acceleration tool D) brand equity building promotion

35)

36) In order to encourage a current user to purchase Campbell's chicken broth instead of private label brands, which of these sales promotion tools would work best? A) In-store sampling B) Promotional pricing of 2 packages for $2.99 instead of the $1.69 regular price C) Trade promotion D) Image advertising

36)

37) Sampling would be an appropriate promotional strategy to do each of the following EXCEPT: A) increase the market share of an established brand B) induce trial of a new brand that is clearly superior to the competition C) assist consumers to experience the brand directly D) provide the marketer with an immediate gauge as to how well the product will do in the marketplace

37)

38) An in/on package coupon that is redeemable for a future purchase of the same brand is known as a(n) ________ coupon. A) same purchase B) cross-ruff C) bounce-back D) instant

38)

39) Which of the following developments has resulted in a transfer of power from manufacturers to retailers? A) The advent of optical scanners and computers gave manufacturers access to sales information. B) Manufacturers are spending more money on media advertising. C) Manufacturers are introducing more private-label brands. D) Retailers have access to data concerning how quickly products turn over, and which products make money.

39)

40) If Beth experiences a positive outcome when buying a product with a sales promotion, the likelihood that she will buy this product again increases. This is explained by the theory of: A) intermittent incentive B) operant conditioning C) path of least resistance D) continuous reinforcement

40)

41) Which of the following statements about on-package sampling is NOT true? A) This can be a very costly sampling method, particularly for multiproduct companies. B) A limitation of this sampling method is that the sample is distributed only to purchasers of the carrier brand. C) The distribution of on-package samples can be broadened by attaching them to multiple brands or to products made by other companies. D) On-package samples can be distributed by attaching them to products not made by the distributing company.

41)

42) Another term used for push money that is given to retailers' or wholesalers' sales staff to encourage them to promote and sell a company's product is: A) a rebate B) pull money C) an off-invoice allowance D) a spiff

42)

43) Which of the following sales promotion techniques is impacted negatively by the presence of professionals or hobbyists who take advantage of the promotion without making a purchase? A) Event sponsorships B) Sampling C) Premiums D) Contests and sweepstakes

43)

44) Consumers have become more sensitive and responsive to sales promotion for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) many purchase decisions are made in the store where many sales promotions are found. B) marketers are offering consumers more promotions to attract and maintain customers. C) consumers purchase more on the basis of price, value, and convenience than brand. D) consumers tend to be loyal to their favourite brands.

44)

45) ________ is generally considered the most effective method for generating trial of a new product. A) Couponing B) A bonus pack C) Sampling D) A rebate award

45)

46) MolsonCoors's heavy financial involvement with and support of freestyle skiing competitions, beach volleyball tournaments, and other sporting events is an example of: A) exhibitions B) trade shows C) event marketing D) premiums

46)

47) The redemption rate for refunds is lower than that for coupons because: A) more effort is required. B) the reinforcement is immediate. C) the payoff is larger. D) the payoff is smaller.

47)

48) Which of the following statements about the coordination of advertising and sales promotion efforts is true? A) A sales promotion works best when its theme is not an integrated part of the organization's marketing communications. B) Product trial created through sales promotion techniques such as sampling or couponing is more likely to result in long-term use of the brand when accompanied by advertising. C) Consumers are less likely to redeem a coupon or respond to a price-off deal for a brand they are familiar with than one they know nothing about. D) To integrate advertising and sales promotion programs successfully, different themes should be used for each.

48)

49) Which of the following would be NOT an example of a nonfranchise-building promotion? A) Bonus packs B) Trade promotions C) Price-off deals D) Image advertising

49)

50) Which of the following sales promotion techniques would be most effective for loading current users with large amounts of its product, making them less susceptible to a competitor's promotional efforts? A) Price-off deals B) Contests/sweepstakes C) Coupons D) Bonus packs

50)

51) The toy company Hasbro teamed with the retailer Toys R Us to create direct mail booklets offering discounts on Hasbro toys good only at Toys R Us stores. This is an example of: A) account-specific marketing B) a franchise building promotion C) brand equity building D) incentive marketing

51)

52) ________ is defined as a direct inducement that offers an extra value or incentive for the product to the salesforce, distributors, or to ultimate consumer with the primary objective of creating an immediate sale. A) Promotional allowance B) Sales promotion C) Brand advertising D) Direct marketing

52)

53) All of the following are examples of consumer-oriented sales promotion activities EXCEPT: A) trade shows B) bonus packs C) refunds/rebates D) samples

53)

54) Which of the following is a reasonable objective for consumer-oriented sales promotions? A) To enhance advertising and marketing efforts B) To obtain trial of a new brand C) To encourage off-shelf displays in major grocery stores D) To increase consumption of an established brand

54)

55) A survey estimates that approximately ________ of consumer purchase decisions are unplanned, i.e. made in the store. A) 24% B) 55% C) 6% D) 15%

55)

56) Which of the following statements describes a major concern marketers have with trade allowances? A) Consumers pocket most of the savings from trade promotion discounts. B) Trade allowances are detracting from the image of the retailers who carry their brands. C) Trade allowances often are not passed on to consumers in the form of lower prices. D) Trade allowances are encouraging retailers to stock and promote their products on a regular basis.

56)

57) The sales promotion tool that critics contend is most guilty of detracting from brand equity and at the same time being detrimental to a brand franchise is: A) frequent patronage programs B) event sponsorships C) trade promotions D) sweepstakes and contests

57)

58) Kraft is concerned that families consume Miracle Whip only on sandwiches, using a tablespoon or two at a time. In order to increase consumption, which of the following sales promotion tools would work best for Kraft? A) Sampling and rebates B) Bonus packs, trade allowances, and slotting fees C) In-store coupons for $1.00 off Miracle Whip D) Recipe books showing alternative uses for Miracle Whip

58)

59) Which of the following promotion tools is less likely to be used when the goal of the marketer is to stimulate trial? A) Mail-in refunds and rebates B) Sampling C) Loyalty programs D) Instant coupons

59)

60) An appliance manufacturer offers a $50 payment to salespeople who work at Culligan's Appliance if they sell one of the company's new refrigerators. This payment is known as: A) push money. B) a slotting fee. C) pull money. D) a trade allowance.

60)

61) Which of the following statements describes how brand equity is affected by the increased role of sales promotion? A) There is strong agreement that any type of sales promotion activity detracts from brand equity. B) There is a belief that sales promotion can be over used by too much frequency, resulting in a decrease in brand equity. C) Sales promotions do not contribute to the erosion of brand equity. D) Critics argue that trade promotions generally result in higher brand equity.

61)

62) The oldest, most widely used, and most effective sales promotion tool is: A) event sponsorship B) rebates C) sampling D) coupons

62)

63) Sampling for a product such as expensive skin cream that is designed to reduce wrinkles over a long period of time might not be feasible because: A) it may be too difficult to find a way to distribute the samples B) it cannot be broken down into small sizes C) consumers may think it is of poor quality since samples are being given away D) it may be too expensive to give away sample sizes that would be adequate to demonstrate the cream's benefits since it has to be used repeatedly

63)

64) One problem resulting from the overuse of sales promotion is a decrease in: A) retailer power B) promotional traps C) ad readership scores D) brand equity

64)

65) Event ________ is where a brand creates themed experiences for consumers by linking to an event, whereas event ________ is where the brand develops actual relationships and provides financial support for the event in exchange for signage and other promotional elements. A) marketing; sponsorship B) sponsorship; marketing C) experience; advertising D) linkages; ownership

65)

66) Payments offered by manufacturers to retailers for performing certain promotional or merchandising activities in support of their brands are called: A) push monies B) advertising subsidies C) promotional allowances D) cooperative advertising

66)

67) Promotional activities that are designed to accelerate the purchase process and generate an immediate increase in sales without communicating information about a brand's unique features or benefits are known as: A) trade promotions B) consumer franchise-building promotion C) sweepstakes D) nonfranchise-building promotion

67)

68) An effective sampling program meets three criteria. Which of these is NOT one of them? A) The brand being sampled must be a packaged good such as food or health care products. B) The cost of the sample being provided should be relatively low. C) The purchase cycle should be short enough that the consumer will consider an immediate purchase. D) A small sample must be able to adequately demonstrate the product's core features and benefits.

68)

69) ________ is an exhibition or forum where manufacturers can display their products to current and prospective buyers. A) Event marketing B) An end-of-aisle display C) A trade show D) A trade layout

69)

70) Which of the following is NOT an advantage inherent in the use of coupons as a sales promotion tool? A) Coupons can encourage non-users to try a brand. B) Coupons are an effective way of generating trial of a new product. C) Coupons are often used by consumers who already use the brand and would purchase it without a coupon. D) Coupons offer price reductions to consumers who are price sensitive.

70)

71) Quaker Oats cereal included tubes of Colgate Junior toothpaste inside each box of Life cereal. This is an example of a: A) rebate B) bonus pack C) free premium D) self-liquidating premium

71)

72) The building or reinforcement of consumer-franchise or equity for a brand: A) is really not very important given the prolonged economic prosperity that Canadians have enjoyed B) can really only be accomplished through advertising C) can be done more easily through trade-oriented promotions than through consumer-oriented promotions D) can be done with carefully planned sales promotion programs

72)

73) Which of the following is NOT a sampling distribution method? A) Door-to-door sampling B) Self-liquidating sampling C) Sampling through the mail D) In-or on-package sampling

73)

74) Jeff ran a promotion offering a box of fifteen Pinnacle golf balls for the same regular price as twelve balls. This is an example of a: A) bonus pack. B) rebate. C) premium. D) price-off deal.

74)

75) Which of the following sales promotion techniques would be most effective for generating excitement or interest in a brand? A) Bonus packs B) Contests/sweepstakes C) Price-off deals D) Coupons

75)

76) Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with the use of contests and sweepstakes? A) Professional entrants often defeat the purpose of contest and sweepstakes and undermine their effectiveness. B) The contest or sweepstakes offer may overshadow the brand. C) The contest or sweepstakes can create excitement and interest in a brand. D) The contest or sweepstakes often fails to contribute to the brand franchise.

76)

77) Which of the following is NOT an example of a point-of-purchase display? A) Wall display B) End-of-aisle display C) TV display D) Mall poster

77)

78) Dare makes Breton snack crackers, which compete with many other brands in the category. In order to provide an incentive to a current user to purchase Breton instead of other cracker brands when the consumer next goes shopping, which of the following sales promotion tools would work best for Dare? A) High value checkout coupons B) Sponsorship of the local Easter parade C) In-store sampling D) In-pack coupons for any variety of Breton crackers

78)

79) ________ is a recent development whereby companies are customizing their sale promotion programs for key retailers. A) Trade marketing B) Account-specific marketing C) Accountability marketing D) Incentive marketing

79)

80) Tropicana developed a "Win the Perfect Vacation" sweepstakes to complement an advertising campaign theme promoting its grapefruit juice as the perfect beverage. This is an example of: A) high-involvement sales promotion B) franchise building promotion C) sales promotion trap D) event marketing

80)

81) The "Intel Inside" logo which appears on many computers is an example of: A) vertical cooperative advertising B) ingredient-sponsored cooperative advertising C) a rebate cooperative advertising D) horizontal cooperative advertising

81)

82) In the ________ stage of the product life cycle, a large amount of the promotion budget may be allocated to sales promotion techniques such as sampling and couponing to induce trial. A) maturity B) decline C) growth D) introduction

82)

83) Five Paradise Island, Bahamas Resort Hotels combining efforts to sponsor an "It's better in the Bahamas" ad campaign, is an example of: A) integrated dyadic communications B) a joint trade promotion C) vertical cooperative advertising D) horizontal cooperative advertising

83)

84) ________ generate(s) much higher trial rates than advertising and other sales promotion techniques. A) Sampling B) Bonus packs C) Contests D) Sweepstakes

84)

85) Which of the following statements about the slotting allowances charged by many retailers is true? A) Large companies with popular brands are the most likely to have to pay slotting allowances. B) Retailers are not justified in charging slotting allowances since most new products are successful. C) Slotting allowances are illegal and banned by the federal government. D) Retailers justify slotting allowances by pointing to the costs associated with taking on a new product.

85)

86) ________ is a practice used by some retailers and wholesalers whereby they take advantage of a promotional deal and then sell some of the product purchased at the low price to another store outside of its area or a middleman who will resell the products. A) Forward buying B) Everyday low pricing C) Discount trading D) Diverting

86)

87) Why can on- or in-pack incentive programs like Pepsi Points or iCoke Rewards be problematic for brands? A) Consumer switching behaviour is curtailed. B) The consumer may experience negative reinforcement when comparing competitive prices. C) If the promotion is ongoing, it is difficult to predict consumer behaviour should the reinforcement ever stop. D) Retailers are not happy having to purchase large amounts of product to support the promotion.

87)

88) Because they are easier to enter, ________ attract more entries than ________ and have become a more widely used sales promotion technique. A) sweepstakes; premiums B) contests; rebates C) sweepstakes; contests D) contests; sweepstakes

88)

89) Which of the following statements about measuring the effectiveness of sales promotion activities is NOT true? A) Pre- or post-surveys can be employed to assess brand awareness and/or attitude. B) Levels of attention and emotional responses to the promotion can be measured, whereas there is no method for assessing switching and loyalty behaviours. C) Tracking of commentary in social media provides guidance of attitudinal effects of the promotional offer. D) The same four communication goals as for advertising can be used for measuring sales promotion.

89)

90) Which of the following helps to explain the increase in sales promotion activities over the last decade? A) The increase of brand loyalty in many product categories B) The tremendous decrease in the number of new products C) The growing power of retailers and their demands for sales performance D) The increased emphasis on long term strategy and performance by most companies

90)

91) In the ________ stage of the product life cycle, promotional dollars may be used primarily for advertising to stress differences and keep the brand name in consumers' minds. A) maturity B) growth C) decline D) introduction

91)

92) Which of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the relationship between building brand equity and sales promotion? A) Companies are asking their promotion agencies to think strategically and develop programs that do more than increase short-term sales. B) Sales promotion techniques such as contests and premium offers are often used to draw attention to an ad, increase involvement with the ad, and help build relationships with consumers. C) Sales promotion is an ineffective tool for building brand equity. D) Companies want promotions that require consumer involvement with their brands.

92)

93) Consumers must pay the manufacturer's out-of-pocket costs for a ________ premium. A) self-liquidating B) cost-covered C) cost-plus D) subsidized

93)

94) Which of the following promotion tools is less likely to be used when the goal of the marker is to build brand equity? A) Loyalty programs B) Sweepstakes C) Price-off deals D) Self-liquidating premiums

94)

95) Which of the following statements about sales promotion programs is true? A) A promotional push strategy is directed at current and prospective consumers, in an attempt to push them into retailers who sell their product. B) Sales promotion programs are targeted only at consumers. C) Sales promotion dollars for most companies are allocated equally between consumers and the trade. D) Many sales promotion programs are designed to motivate distributors and retailers to carry a product and push it through to their customers.

95)

96) Consumer-franchise or image building for a brand: A) can be accomplished through consumer promotions that help build its brand equity B) is accomplished through short-term price-oriented promotions C) is the exclusive responsibility of advertising D) is becoming less important to marketers as competition intensifies

96)

97) Which of the following statements about rebates is true? A) Rebates are used only for consumer durables such as automobiles and appliances. B) Nonusers of rebates have been shown to perceive the rebate redemption process as too complicated. C) Most retailers want to be involved with rebate programs. D) Rebates are increasing in popularity among both manufacturers and retailers.

97)

98) Why are organizations like McDonald's, Wendy's, and Labatt placing more emphasis on sales promotions than ever before? A) Because consumers have less time to shop B) Because sales promotions can be used to provide extra incentives for purchasing a brand C) Because the use of sales promotions allows them to cut back and/or completely eliminate their use of coupons D) Because they want to use sales promotions rather than engage in price wars

98)

99) What advantage does distribution of coupons through direct mail have over other forms of coupon delivery? A) Lower cost B) Lower redemption rate C) Most redeemers of direct mail coupons are non-users D) Targeted to specific geographic or demographic segments

99)

100) Advertising implemented by retailers and paid for by a manufacturer is called: A) joint sales promotions B) horizontal cooperative advertising C) joint trade promotions D) vertical cooperative advertising

100)

101) Advil ran a promotional bonus pack that provided 120 tablets for the price of 100. Their objective behind this incentive was to encourage: A) brand equity B) retention of their current customer base C) stronger trade relations D) trial purchase among non-users

101)

102) Companies such as ________ manufacturers with wide product lines use cross-ruff coupons to encourage consumers to try other products or brands. A) car B) beer C) baby stroller D) cereal

102)

103) Consumer-oriented sales promotions are part of a promotional ________ strategy. A) premium B) push C) pull D) trade

103)

104) Salomon provides sales personnel in ski shops with training classes, detailed manuals, and other tools to help them better understand how to sell the company's skis and boots. This is an example of: A) spiffs B) sales training programs C) slotting fee D) cooperative advertising

104)

105) When New Balance sponsors a campaign advertising the availability of its running shoes at Foot Locker stores, this is an example of ________ advertising. A) dyadic B) vertical cooperative C) aggregated D) horizontal cooperative

105)

106) When reductions from the regular price of a product are offered at the point-of-purchase through specially marked packages, a marketer is using a: A) price-off deal B) bounce back coupon C) bonus pack D) refund offer

106)

107) A recent study of coupon redemption patterns found that: A) most consumers do not use coupons B) many coupons are redeemed just before the expiration date rather than in the period following the initial drop C) most coupons are redeemed on Thursdays D) most coupons are redeemed immediately following the initial coupon drop

107)

108) Which of the following is NOT a strength of refunds and rebates? A) A rebate on a vehicle at the end of the model year might be perceived as an effort to sell off a car that is not performing well. B) When refund offers require multiple proofs of purchase, this encourages repeat purchase. C) The rebate may be perceived as an immediate savings even though consumers do not follow through on the offer. D) They can encourage non-users of the brand to switch and try the promotional brand.

108)

109) With a ________, consumers compete for prizes and/or money on the basis of skills or ability, while with a(n) ________, winners are determined purely by chance. A) sweepstakes; event sponsorship B) sweepstakes; contest C) contest; rebate D) contest; sweepstakes

109)

110) ________ occurs at venues such as concerts, cultural festivals, and at a brand's marketing activities. A) Door-to-door sampling B) Sampling through the mail C) Sampling through the media D) Event sampling

110)

111) Which of the following types of sales promotions would NOT be used to help in the introduction of a new product? A) Rebates and refunds B) Premiums C) Sampling D) New usage suggestions

111)

112) A package of Gillette Sensor razor blades contains a 75-cent-off coupon for Gillette Foamy shaving cream. This is an example of a(n) ________ coupon. A) same purchase B) instant C) cross-ruff D) bounce back

112)

113) An effective premium is one that: A) has no impact on an organization's pioneering advertising B) induces one-time trial purchase of a brand for which there is low awareness C) reflects the overall quality of the product and is consistent with its image and positioning D) distracts consumers from the firm's main reason for existing

113)

114) Which of the following statements about the use of premiums as a sales promotion tool is true? A) The use of premiums is very popular in fast food restaurants such as McDonald's. B) Redemption rates for mail-in premium offers are very high. C) Premiums are not subject to restrictions from industry and government agencies. D) Mail-in premiums offer immediate reinforcement to the purchaser.

114)

115) All of the following are examples of trade-oriented sales promotion activities EXCEPT: A) dealer contests B) coupons C) point-of-purchase displays D) trade allowances

115)

116) Research indicates that the average Canadian household redeems approximately ________ percent of the coupons they receive in a year. A) 40 B) 4 C) 15 D) There is no general number associated with coupon redemption.

116)

117) Coupons, bonus packs, premiums, and samples are promotional offers that are targeted toward: A) salespeople B) retailers C) consumers D) wholesalers

117)

118) Kellogg's places a 50-cent-off coupon for Rice Krispies cereal in a box of its Frosted Mini-Wheats brand of cereal. This is an example of a(n) ________ coupon. A) cross-sell B) bounce-back C) cross-ruff D) instant

118)

119) Uncle Ben's Rice attached a $1-off coupon to the outside of their packaging. They distributed 1,000,000 promotional packages, at a cost of $20,000 for design and production. They predict that the redemption rate will be 5%. They pay retailer handling and processing costs of 10¢ per coupon redeemed. What is the total cost of the coupon promotion to Uncle Ben's? A) $75,000 B) $150,000 C) $55,000 D) $7,500

119)

120) An advantage of coupons is that they: A) allow a marketer to offer a price reduction to consumers who are price sensitive without having to reduce the price for everyone B) generally elicit immediate response from consumers C) are very effective even without brand name awareness D) build brand loyalty

120)

121) In order to expand usage beyond just sandwiches, the Kraft peanut butter brand team included baking recipes on the jar label. This is an example of which promotional objective? A) retention of their current customer base B) brand equity C) increased consumption D) trial purchase among non-users

121)

122) Which of the following is NOT a limitation of rebates? A) Rebates can encourage brand switching or repeat purchase behaviour. B) When small refunds are being offered, marketers may find other promotional incentives, such as coupons, more effective. C) Consumers do not want to be bothered saving cash register receipts and proofs of purchase. D) Nonusers of rebates are likely to perceive the redemption process as too complicated.

122)

123) Bonus packs: A) are not an effective way of loading consumers with a product and reducing their susceptibility to a competitor's promotional offer. B) are always welcome by retailers since bonus packs increase their profit margins. C) offer consumers an extra amount of a product or service but at a higher than normal price. D) provide marketers with a way to provide extra value to consumers without having them do anything other than purchase the product.

123)

124) Over the past decade, the amount of money consumer products firms devote to ________ has been declining while the amount spent on ________ has been increasing. A) trade promotions; consumer promotions B) media advertising; sales promotions C) trade promotions; media advertising D) consumer promotions; media advertising

124)

125) Which of the following statements does NOT describe an aspect or characteristic of sales promotion? A) One reason for the decrease in sales promotion is the power shift from manufacturers to retailers. B) Sales promotion offers may end up being used by current users of a brand rather than attracting new users. C) A sales promotion is an acceleration tool designed to speed up the selling process. D) Sales promotion can be targeted to different parties in the marketing channel.

125)

126) All of the following are reasonable objectives for trade-oriented sales promotions EXCEPT: A) to obtain distribution and support for new products. B) to differentiate a brand through image enhancement. C) to encourage the trade to display and support established brands. D) to maintain trade support for established brands.

126)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 14

1) A 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) C 8) A 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) D 13) D 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) C 33) C 34) D 35) C 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) D 40) B 41) A 42) D 22

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 14

43) D 44) D 45) C 46) C 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) D 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) C 57) C 58) D 59) C 60) A 61) B 62) D 63) D 64) D 65) A 66) C 67) D 68) A 69) C 70) C 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) D 78) D 79) B 80) B 81) B 82) D 83) D 84) A 23

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 14

85) D 86) D 87) C 88) C 89) B 90) C 91) B 92) C 93) A 94) C 95) D 96) A 97) B 98) B 99) D 100) D 101) B 102) D 103) C 104) B 105) B 106) A 107) B 108) A 109) D 110) D 111) D 112) C 113) C 114) A 115) B 116) B 117) C 118) C 119) A 120) A 121) C 122) A 123) D 124) B 125) A 126) B 24

Chapter 15 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is NOT an example of cause-related marketing? A) sponsoring a televised sports tournament B) making outright monetary donations to a non-profit cause C) donating building materials to Habitat for Humanity D) running public service announcements

2) Which of the following is NOT a reason for conducting research to determine public attitudes? A) It serves as an "early warning system" to detect problems. B) It leads directly to more product sales. C) It provides input into the planning process. D) It results in more internal support.

3) Which of the following communications is most likely to have more credibility among its receivers? A) Volvo's television ad promoting new standard safety features B) GM's magazine ads introducing its latest models C) The magazine Motor Trend announcing the "Car of the Year" D) Celine Dion's appearance in Air Canada commercials

4) For many companies, the PR function is moving more and more toward a "new role" which is much closer to a(n) ________ function than a traditional one. A) marketing B) industrial relations C) accounting D) production

5) Organizational newsletters, notices on intranet resources, mail/e-mail, and annual reports are methods used to communicate with: A) employees of the firm B) suppliers C) current customers D) the media

6) Which of the following promotional activities would best exemplify the new role of public relations? A) sponsorship of a marathon B) donation of money to support a local children's soccer team C) use of Shaquille O'Neal as a spokesperson for Pepsi D) initiation of a contest to find a new spokesperson for a brand

7) Which of the following groups would most likely be the target of public relations efforts designed to increase communications with external audiences? A) the media and current customers B) current customers and employees of the firm C) potential investors and the media D) suppliers and employees of the firm

8) Which of the following statements describes a major difference between publicity and public relations? A) Publicity is always positive. B) Publicity is typically a short-term strategy. C) Public relations is typically a short-term strategy. D) Publicity always originates within the firm.

9) The new role of public relations is one characterized by: A) a tighter, more tightly defined role B) a broader, more marketing-oriented role C) less of a communication role D) less of a marketing orientation

10) In public relations targeting, external audiences include: A) the public at large B) suppliers C) stockholders D) customers

10)

11) Becel has supported the Heart and Stroke Foundation for 20 years. This is an example of: A) cause-related marketing B) advertorial marketing C) publicity D) advocacy advertising

11)

12) When determining relevant target audiences for public relations efforts, all of the following groups are considered internal audiences EXCEPT: A) suppliers B) current customers C) employees of the firm D) the media

12)

13) Which of the following statements about sponsorship is NOT true? A) Growth in sponsorship investments has led to a corresponding emergence of measuring the effectiveness of sponsorships. B) Many marketers are attracted to event sponsorship because it gets their company names in front of consumers. C) Golf tournaments are a popular event for sponsorship by marketers of luxury automobiles and other upscale products. D) The Arts receive the majority of event sponsorship monies.

13)

14) Marketing public relations (MPR) are activities designed to support marketing objectives in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A) incentivizing immediate product sales B) creating news about a new advertising campaign C) defending products at risk with a message of reassurance D) building marketplace excitement

14)

15) Which of the following is NOT a limitation of cause-related marketing? A) The results are difficult to quantify. B) It takes time and effort to establish credibility with consumers. C) Cause-related marketing may generate a great deal of publicity. D) Companies may support causes that offer little connection or relation to their brands.

15)

16) In the new role of ________, both marketing and PR departments work together, blending their talents to provide the best overall image of the firm and its product or service offerings. A) sales promotion B) interactive media C) advertising D) public relations

16)

17) Publicity is: A) typically a long-term strategy. B) news about a person, product, or service that appears in broadcast or print media, and now on the Internet. C) always under the control of the firm. D) designed to provide positive information about the competition.

17)

18) Each of the following is a limitation of media publicity EXCEPT: A) Media publicity may also misfire through mismanagement and a lack of coordination with the marketing department. B) A firm's PR efforts are rarely associated with its sponsors in the public mind. C) Timing of the publicity is not always completely under the control of the marketer. D) The fact that media are not being compensated for providing the information may lead receivers to consider the news more truthful and credible.

18)

19) Cause-related marketing refers to: A) corporate advertising designed to change the image of an organization B) all advertising designed to cause sales C) companies linking with charities through financial and/or in-kind support D) all advertising designed to cause attitude change

19)

20) ________ is usually controlled by the firm whereas ________ is neither always positive nor under the control of the firm. A) Marketing programming; advertising B) Public relations; publicity C) Publicity; public relations D) Strategy; news conferences

20)

21) Which of the following is NOT a consideration around public relations tactics? A) Decisions need to be made regarding alternative media such as news conferences, seminars, and events. B) The marketer needs to focus on maximizing paid media. C) The marketer needs to make a choice of news media or corporate advertising. D) The marketer needs to know how to issue a press release and make a media presentation.

21)

22) Each of the following is a strength of event sponsorship EXCEPT: A) Many marketers need evidence that event sponsorship is effective and a good return on their investment. B) Effective IMC programs can be built around them at the local, regional or national level. C) Sponsorship of an event that interests the brand's target consumer can help form emotional attachments to the brand. D) The brand can be positioned to a well-defined target audience.

22)

23) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with media publicity? A) ability to build positive image B) greater credibility C) timing is entirely up to the media D) low absolute and relative cost

23)

24) In terms of public relations, the marketer tries to apply certain ________ like "buying into the idea" in order to measure success. A) key benefit statements B) research methods C) behavioural objectives D) brand-building objectives

24)

25) Esso ran an ad campaign that addressed the potential problem of global warming. The ad encouraged others to take time to truly understand the problem and to not act hastily. This ad is an example of: A) advocacy advertising B) public relations advertising C) image advertising D) a sponsorship

25)

26) The following are some of the reasons for which firms are concerned with the public's attitudes EXCEPT: A) no one wants to be perceived as bad citizen B) firms regularly change their positioning C) firms exist in communities where their employees work and live D) negative attitudes carry over to employee moral

26)

27) Ads that focus on recruiting new employees, that show the company adopting a position on a particular social issue, or that create goodwill both internally and externally are examples of: A) sponsorship B) advocacy advertising C) public relations advertising D) image advertising

27)

28) Because media publicity communications are typically perceived as ________, they are not subject to the problems with clutter that are common to other forms of promotional communication. A) image building B) corporate-sponsored advertisements C) altruistic D) news items

28)

29) Companies, like products, need to establish an image in the marketplace. ________ activities are one way to accomplish this objective. A) Trade deal B) Sales promotion C) Corporate advertising D) Personal selling

29)

30) Marketers seek attainment of corporate advertising's objectives by implementing all the following EXCEPT: A) television sponsorship B) cooperative advertising C) image advertising D) cause-related advertising

30)

31) The information in a press release will not be used unless: A) the company pays for media placement B) the content is of interest to the users of the medium it is sent to C) the release is several pages long D) it is provided in digital format

31)

32) When companies establish a worthy cause themselves rather than working with an existing organization it is called: A) advertorial marketing B) publicity C) advocacy advertising D) cause-related marketing

32)

33) Which of the following is NOT a strength associated with the marketer's use of media publicity? A) image building B) avoidance of clutter C) long-lasting communication effects D) credibility

33)

34) Which of the following is NOT one of the ten questions suggested for use in evaluating public relations plans? A) Do the PR people understand the product's strengths and weaknesses? B) Are the objectives specific and measurable? C) Does the plan include analysis of recent editorial coverage? D) Will the tactics be perceived as silly or gimmicky by the public?

34)

35) Communications activities designed to promote a firm overall, without reference to a specific product, are called: A) lobbying B) advocacy advertising C) corporate advertising D) advertorials

35)

36) Which of the following best reflects an example of corporate advertising? A) Titleist golf equipment signing of golfer Tiger Woods as a spokesperson B) Bank of Montreal promoting its concern for the environment C) Home Depot giving out free calendars to all of its regular customers D) M&M conducting a contest to determine the new colour for M&M candies

36)

37) Public relations often attempts to influence government bodies directly at both local and national levels. This is called ________. A) lobbying B) flighting C) politicking D) filibustering

37)

38) Public relations activities are less likely to give support to the following marketing objective: A) gaining understanding B) raising awareness C) building trust D) increasing short term sales

38)

39) Public relations activities directed to employees of the firm often have this objective: A) distribute the company's annual report B) demonstrate loyalty to suppliers and customers C) create goodwill and boost morale D) explain shareholder value

39)

40) Marketing public relations activities are less likely to be used in the following ways: A) defending products at risk with a message of reassurance B) providing information to opinion leaders C) building brand preference D) creating news about a new advertising campaign

40)

41) Which of the following is an advantage associated with media publicity? A) effectiveness at completing the communications product B) ability to reach small market segments and/or specific audiences C) ease with which PR activities are coordinated with other promotional activities, even when the activities are performed in different departments D) high absolute cost but low relative cost

41)

42) Important research into the persuasion effects of event sponsorship has uncovered all of the following recommendations EXCEPT: A) The sponsorship should offer true value to the audience. B) Planners should avoid multiple-sponsor events where their message might be lost in the clutter. C) Event sponsorships are deemed ineffective if there is no mechanism for product sales. D) Sponsorship content should be "visible", so that participants are aware of the sponsoring brand.

42)

43) ________ receive the majority of event sponsorship monies. A) Festivals and fairs B) Sports C) Arts D) Causes

43)

44) The way companies and organizations use public relations might be best viewed as: A) a waste of corporate expenditure, as it does not appear to assist in brand building B) the opportunity to provide rationale or excuses for activities that the public views as undesirable C) whitewashing key issues D) a continuum between a traditional non-marketing function and a more marketing-oriented perspective

44)

45) Companies are finding ________ an excellent platform from which to build equity and gain affinity with target audiences as well as a good public relations tool for the corporation in general. A) event sponsorships B) personal selling C) sales promotion D) advertising

45)

46) A video news release (VNR) is: A) video footage uploaded to the company's website or YouTube channel by the marketing department B) video footage uploaded to the company's website or YouTube channel by members of the public C) a publicity story developed by the media and aired on the local news channel D) a piece produced by publicists so that stations can air it as a news story

46)

47) ________ is the management function that executes a program of action and communication to earn public understanding and acceptance. A) Public relations B) Sales promotion C) Advertising D) Branding

47)

48) Which of the following is NOT one of the communication objectives on which public relations can deliver? A) enhance image as a good corporate citizen B) generate brand awareness C) support a cause through financial or physical involvement D) strengthen positive attitudes towards the brand

48)

49) In public relations, internal audiences include all of the following EXCEPT: A) suppliers B) customers C) stockholders D) the public at large

49)

50) Offering a press release to only one particular medium may be termed: A) an advertorial B) lobbying C) an exclusive D) advocacy advertising

50)

51) While still seeking the objective of portraying an image for the company or organization, ________ does so indirectly by adopting a position on a particular issue rather than by promoting the organization itself. A) advocacy advertising B) a sponsorship C) image advertising D) consumer relations

51)

52) Although most public relations efforts seek a variety of channels for distribution, an alternative strategy is to offer one particular medium ________ rights to the story if that medium reaches a substantial number of people in the target audience. A) exclusive B) legitimate C) limited D) legal

52)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 15

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) D 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) D 28) D 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) D 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) C 9

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 15

43) B 44) D 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) C 51) A 52) A

Chapter 16 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) CRM stands for: A) customer relationship management C) customer relationship marketing

1) B) customized relationship marketing D) Canadian relations management

2) Which of the following statements about direct marketing is NOT true? A) Direct marketing is only used when the identity of the receiver is known. B) Direct marketing is especially useful to target current customers. C) Direct marketing is effective in targeting competitors' customers. D) Direct marketing can generate trial among prospects.

3) Which of the following statements about infomercials is NOT true? A) Studies indicate that infomercials get watched and sell products. B) Infomercials are mandated to fill a 30 minute time slot. C) Infomercials are popular with small firms, but large firms are beginning to use them as well. D) It is possible to target specific audiences at a low cost via specialty channels.

4) For market segmentation and targeting, direct marketers rely most heavily on: A) a database B) primary qualitative research C) census data D) survey responses

5) Information about consumers with precise purchase patterns can be sourced through: A) public relations B) consumer promotions C) broadcast advertising D) loyalty programs

6) On average, each Canadian is a member of about ________ loyalty programs. A) eleven B) twenty C) seven D) four

7) A successful direct mail program relies on: A) the use of an external specialty agency for the development and execution of the program B) the recreation of the in-store experience in order to fully engage the consumer C) a higher level of marketing dollars than a print campaign D) a database which may be a purchased mailing list from an external source

8) Which of the following describes an advantage that an advertiser using direct marketing is likely to enjoy? A) high overall costs relative to sales B) less planning time required as compared to other forms of media use C) limited segmentation capabilities D) difficulty in measuring effectiveness

9) When databases are used to identify the most relevant profile variables to ensure the highest response rate possible among unknown receivers, the marketer is most likely going to: A) consult an in-house list B) send to previous responders C) use sweeps marketing D) send unaddressed direct mail

10) When she subscribed to a cooking magazine, Betty was offered the opportunity to buy a set of cookware, an electric can opener, and a coffee maker that were featured in the publication and selected by the magazine editors as the best value for the money. This is an example of: A) cross-selling B) renewal marketing C) remarketing D) an unethical business practice

10)

11) An ad for pet health insurance contains both a toll-free number to call and a website to visit for more information. This ad is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A) personal selling B) consumer promotion C) public relations D) advertising

11)

12) All of the following are advantages of direct marketing EXCEPT: A) segmentation capabilities B) ability to personalize C) creative flexibility D) image factors

12)

13) The interactive use of advertising media to stimulate an immediate behaviour modification is called: A) telemarketing B) direct marketing C) database marketing D) consumer marketing

13)

14) The two-step approach to direct marketing: A) uses the first contact to screen potential buyers B) is commonly found in direct sales C) asks for an immediate sale D) is followed by a professional sales call

14)

15) Which of the following describes a disadvantage associated with direct marketing? A) inability to measure effectiveness B) poor media image C) high costs D) lack of creative flexibility

15)

16) The growth of electronic communication has given marketers the ability to capture: A) hackers and spammers B) monetary transactions between the consumer and the marketer C) consumers' email addresses and social media identification D) private information not previously available

16)

17) Direct marketing lets the advertiser reach a large number of people and reduces or eliminates waste coverage through its strength of: A) target audience coverage. B) flexibility. C) segmentation capabilities. D) frequency.

17)

18) Loyalty programs achieve each of the following objectives EXCEPT: A) They help increase the dollar amount of goods purchased by light and medium users. B) They preclude members from purchasing any other competitive brand. C) They encourage consumers to use their products or services on a continual basis. D) They assist in creating strong consumer relationships and loyalty.

18)

19) Shoppers Drug Mart gives customers Optimum cards, which allow customers to take advantage of additional discounts on certain products and to be notified of special, customer-only sales. In addition, customers can accrue points each time they present their cards. These points can be used to purchase goods. Shoppers is using a: A) bonus program B) self-liquidating promotion C) customer rewards contest D) loyalty program

19)

20) Every time Beth buys a book at Chapters, she presents her Chapters card, and the sales associate enters her purchase in a database. When she has purchased five books at regular price, she is sent a coupon for a free book to be picked out on her next visit to the store. This is an example of a: A) subsidized program B) bonus program C) loyalty program D) customer rewards contest

20)

21) Databases are used in all of these ways EXCEPT: A) to improve the selection of market segments B) to pre-determine purchase intention C) to assist in the stimulation of repeat purchases D) with CRM programs

21)

22) Advertisers can measure the relative effectiveness of a direct marketing campaign quickly by looking at the: A) net sales B) cost per thousand (CPM) C) breakeven point D) cost per order (CPO)

22)

23) Which of the following statements about catalogues is NOT true? A) In some instances in the consumer market, the catalogue and retail divisions are treated as separate entities. B) In some instances in the consumer market, the catalogue merchandise is available in retail stores as well. C) Catalogues are now available on the Internet for both consumers and business-to-business customers. D) Most catalogue companies now operate only in physical retail locations.

23)

24) ________ are a way of encouraging consumers to buy a company's products or services on a continual basis and to develop strong long-term relationships. A) Interactive websites B) Refunds and rebates C) Loyalty programs D) Sweepstakes and contests

24)

25) Which of the following is NOT an example of direct response media? A) telemarketing B) Internet C) direct mail D) interior transit boards

25)

26) When Melissa purchased a Maytag dryer, she was given a warranty card to fill out and return to the manufacturer. The warranty card serves two purposes. The first is to protect the consumer in case the dryer operates faultily within the first year of ownership. The second purpose is to: A) create a database for Maytag B) provide information for Statistics Canada C) establish a two-step marketing relationship between Maytag and Melissa D) There is no second purpose; the warranty is simply a service offered by Maytag.

26)

27) When a direct advertising medium is designed to directly obtain an order, the ________ approach is being used: A) one-step B) direct C) two-step D) indirect

27)

28) Information on Canada's privacy legislation that places limitations on what marketers can do with information stored in their databases can be found at: A) www.promotions.gc.ca B) www.canadaprivacy.gc.ca C) www.privcom.gc.ca D) www.canadaleg.gc.ca

28)

29) What do Statistics Canada, Canada Post, Info Canada, and The Canadian Marketing Association all have in common? A) They all have loyalty programs. B) They are all government agencies. C) They are all sources of information for direct-marketing databases. D) They are all marketing research houses.

29)

30) No other advertising medium can personalize the message as well as: A) magazines B) television C) newspapers D) direct mail

30)

31) In direct marketing situations, when it is necessary to screen or qualify potential buyers, it is advisable to use: A) direct mail rather than telemarketing B) the two-step approach C) the one-step approach D) Canada Post's data on direct marketing purchasers

31)

32) The National Geographic Society offers a variety of products to its subscribers through direct marketing. This is an example of: A) cross-selling B) renewal marketing C) membership-based marketing D) an unethical business practice

32)

33) When the University of Western Ontario calls its alumni and asks them to make contributions to pay for the remodelling of Alumni House, it is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A) public relations B) personal selling C) a trade promotion D) advertising

33)

34) A television commercial in which Publishers Clearing House urges consumers to look in their mailboxes for coming sweepstakes entries is an example of: A) sweeps marketing B) the two-step approach C) the one-step approach D) add-on marketing

34)

35) A press conference called by the Maritime Museum of the Atlantic informed the public of the need for major repairs to prevent water damage to the museum's collection of primitive paintings. During the conference, the museum representative announced that each family in Halifax County and the neighbouring counties could expect to receive a donation envelope in the mail within the next few days. This is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A) advertising B) personal selling C) consumer promotion D) public relations

35)

36) The announcer on the television commercial said, "Get your credit card and call now to order the 'Monster Ballads of Rock & Roll' CD." This is an example of the ________ direct marketing approach. A) secondary B) two-step C) primary D) one-step

36)

37) Which effectiveness measure is most commonly employed in direct marketing? A) sales per database name (SDN) B) cost per man-hour (CPMH) C) cost per thousand (CPM) D) cost per order (CPO)

37)

38) Air Miles currently offers consumers the option of using points collected as cash when making purchases at a point of sale: A) in order to lessen the time delay associated with collecting points for big-ticket items. B) because forcing the collection of points in order to achieve non-monetary rewards did not effectively build brand equity among the partners. C) because some of the partners would rather give out cash than merchandise. D) in order to enhance the rewarded-behaviour mechanism.

38)

39) All of the following statements about direct e-mail are true EXCEPT: A) It is difficult to finely target the recipients. B) Permission-based e-mail is essentially the opposite of spam. C) Consumers can opt to have specific types of e-mail sent to them. D) It is basically an electronic version of regular mail.

39)

40) A typical objective for direct marketing is a response rate of: A) 10 percent B) 2 to 3 percent C) 25 percent D) the same as the response for an in-store coupon

40)

41) Which of the following is NOT a finding of Canada Post research about direct mail? A) Direct mail ads have a short life span in the home. B) A high percentage of consumers read their mail the same day they receive it. C) Direct mail messages contribute to ad recall. D) Consumers are curious to find out what is in their mailbox.

41)

42) The National Post calls its subscribers to tell them of a contest that they can enter to win a trip to Bermuda. This is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A) personal selling B) public relations C) advertising D) sales promotion

42)

43) Which off the following is NOT related to telemarketing? A) negotiated purchase of broadcast time B) potential for fraud and deception C) inbound and outbound calling D) call centre management

43)

44) Functional satisfaction with loyalty programs is strongly associated with each of the following EXCEPT: A) appeal of the rewards or benefits B) ability to reach desired reward levels in a timely manner C) amount of reward "points" accumulated per $1 spent D) proximity of the store to the consumer's home

44)

45) Cookware, music CDs, and exercise videos are being advertised on television for purchase by calling a toll-free telephone number. Viewers are instructed to have their credit cards handy when they call to place the order. This form of direct marketing is referred to as: A) the two-step approach B) the one-step approach C) telemarketing D) support marketing

45)

46) Which of the following is NOT true about direct-response TV? A) Infomercials range from 3 to 60 minutes. B) The television spots are also referred to as short-term programs. C) It encompasses direct-response TV spots, infomercials, and home shopping shows. D) The process is always one-step; the consumer sees the product she likes and calls a 1-800 number to order.

46)

47) With databases containing current customer purchase history, the direct marketer can attempt to influence all of the following EXCEPT: A) the timing and amount of the next purchase B) repeat consumption or visits C) the customer's decision to forward a message to a friend or colleague D) the rate of purchase

47)

48) An RFM scoring method is often used to measure the effectiveness of a database. RFM stands for: A) rough, fine-tuned, maximized database updates B) recency, frequency, and monetary transactions between the company and the customer C) recent, fortnightly, monthly transactional data compiled D) rebates, free premiums, and multiple purchases engaged in by the consumer

48)

49) To segment and target their audiences, direct marketers use a ________, a listing of customers and/or potential customers. A) CRM B) cross/sell technique C) catalogue D) database

49)

50) Which of the following companies employs a one-step approach to direct marketing? A) The Shopping Channel B) a company asking if a household is interested in an estimate for a new pool C) an ad advising television viewers to watch their mailboxes for a way to earn free calling cards D) a magazine subscription service that sends an announcement of a forthcoming contest

50)

51) The aim of ________ is to establish and maintain a relationship with one's customers through personalized communication and customized product/service offerings. A) transactional marketing B) customer relationship marketing C) customized business relationships D) customer relationship management

51)

52) In a study comparing the communication effects of a one-minute ad, a 15-minute infomercial, a 30-minute infomercial, and a direct interactive experience with the product, researchers found: A) Infomercials provided a similar cognitive and emotional experience as a direct interaction with the brand. B) Because television is such a passive medium, respondents suggested that an infomercial's message tended to get lost in the "noise". C) Specific targeting was not available with infomercials; hence they were much less effective than television advertising. D) Infomercials were deemed to be too long and one-minute ads provided the best results.

52)

53) Direct marketing: A) seeks the same objectives as advertising, sales promotion, and personal selling strategies B) is one of the slowest growing forms of promotion in terms of dollar expenditures C) is not a useful tool for a company that is using an integrated marketing communications plan D) can generate immediate behavioural response

53)

54) Database marketing is criticized because it is: A) unmonitored and uncontrolled by any internal or external forces B) really unnecessary if the advertiser has properly targeted their marketing efforts C) an invasion of privacy D) still a largely unsophisticated process

54)

55) Disadvantages inherent in the use of direct marketing include: A) audience exerts control for selective exposure B) lack of flexibility C) difficulty in acquiring TV time D) difficulty in obtaining effectiveness measurements

55)

56) This phenomenon describes when consumers earn points and then realize they are close to achieving a reward level, so they make additional purchases to achieve it: A) the rewarded-behaviour mechanism B) the personalized marketing mechanism C) the points-pressure mechanism D) the last-minute accelerator mechanism

56)

57) In direct response advertising, the "direct response" sought is: A) awareness B) sales C) attitude change D) return on investment (ROI)

57)

58) Which of the following statements about direct e-mail is true? A) The chance of a consumer passing along a commercial message using email is quite high. B) Today's marketers use permission-based email instead of having to maintain a comprehensive website. C) The majority of research respondents suggest that branded content makes no impact on whether they forward a message. D) Studies show that the use of direct mail via e-mail messages has no corresponding effect on visits to the retail location of the sender.

58)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 16

1) A 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) B 9) D 10) A 11) D 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) A 27) A 28) C 29) C 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) D 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) D 10

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 16

43) A 44) D 45) B 46) D 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) D 52) A 53) D 54) C 55) A 56) C 57) B 58) C

Chapter 17 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) One example of the use of ________ on the Internet is provided by Chrysler. Working with reporters, Chrysler developed a one-stop information source for the media. A) public relations B) personal selling C) sales promotion D) direct marketing

2) Loyal customers can be awarded with ________ such as ringtones, wallpapers, emoticons, etc. A) digital treats B) promotional overlays C) contest overlays D) branded content

3) Promotional planners consider social media to be a media type, just like television or radio. Carrying that notion through would mean that social networking would be the ________, and Twitter would be an example of a ________. A) media vehicle; media strategy B) objective; social media site C) mobile strategy; tactic D) media class; media vehicle

4) Banner ads: A) are the reason why click rates in Canada are extremely high. B) cannot be measured for effectiveness, and this is the reason why advertisers are moving to other forms of Internet advertising. C) are mainly found at the top of the home page of Internet portal sites. D) have a link embedded allowing users to move to another digital location.

5) Rating products, joining a brand's social network page, and commenting in brand blogs are all part of this consumers' online brand-related activity (COBRA). A) critiquing B) contributing C) creating D) consuming

6) A website's ________ is the extent to which someone involved in communication over the Internet perceives the communication to be reciprocal, responsive, speedy, and characterized by the use of nonverbal information. A) effectiveness B) interactivity C) impact D) stickiness

7) Which of the following statements about display advertising on the Internet is NOT true? A) Canada's top advertisers put half of their display ad expenditures in social media. B) Internet display ads tend to look like the ads found in print media. C) Display ads are placed on virtually any Internet site, including social media and within e-mail messages. D) While display advertising revenue has grown substantially, it is still nowhere near the revenues generated by magazine advertising.

8) Which of the following is NOT a key question that marketers are asking in relation to using Twitter for advertising? A) How frequently should the messages be sent? B) What message should be sent via Twitter? C) Why would someone be motivated to receive our Twitter feed? D) Is the consumer-generated content on our Twitter feed be something that we need to monitor?

9) Blogs are a multifaceted brand communication tool, in that it provides all of the following opportunities EXCEPT: A) owned media akin to the brand's website. B) a friendly public relations face to the general public. C) paid media through ad placement within the blog. D) user-generated content allowing for only positive feedback, as the blogger monitors and controls added content.

10) Bloggers act similarly to journalists who feature product stories in traditional print media. This gives them: A) access to free products and passes to events. B) the ability to charge whatever they wish for ad space within their blogs. C) the space to write as much as they wish about a particular subject or experience. D) source credibility with consumers.

10)

11) This type of Internet ad accounted for one-third of total Internet media advertising revenues in 2014: A) paid search ads B) content marketing C) display ads D) pay-for-click ads

11)

12) A keyword-targeted advertising program using short text-only ads to maximize page loading speed is called: A) AdWords B) rich media C) interstitial D) AdSense

12)

13) The Internet can be used for branding purposes: A) with the use of consumer-generated content, which resonates more closely with the audience. B) as long as these efforts stand alone as a communication piece. C) since there are many tools such as videos and animation that can create a transformational experience for the consumer. D) because it is fairly simple to adapt this medium to branding and image-creating strategies.

13)

14) Virtual game world advertising is most closely aligned with which traditional media vehicle? A) public relations B) billboards C) product placement D) cinema advertising

14)

15) TV broadcasters are developing apps to foster enhanced viewer experiences while watching TV shows on their mobile devices. This relatively new phenomenon is referred to as: A) mobile direct streaming. B) TV-to-mobile video viewing. C) second-screen experience. D) auxiliary advertising.

15)

16) The ________ of the Internet make it possible to carry on one-to-one marketing with increased success in both the business and the consumer markets. A) costs B) media image C) interactive capabilities D) creativity

16)

17) The Internet may not be the optimal medium for awareness in many situations due to its limited ________. A) frequency B) reach C) branding D) recall

17)

18) ________ is a medium that uses the Internet to distribute audio and video files for downloading to various portable handheld devices for learning or entertainment purposes. A) Podcasting B) Paid search C) Video on demand D) Digital video ads

18)

19) Which of the following is true about measuring the effectiveness of Internet media? A) Technical procedures for accurately reporting whether an ad impression has occurred are in place. B) In order to address concerns about how to measure Internet media effectiveness, one advertiser took on the challenge on behalf of the rest of the industry. C) Industry representatives have agreed upon guidelines for disclosure of research methodology. D) A standardized method for determining the size of the audience has been developed.

19)

20) Advertisements that appear on the screen when someone is browsing on the Internet are known as: A) interstitials B) banners C) pop-ups D) pop-unders

20)

21) The Lakeside Bistro places an ad on www.penticton.ca, a website directing consumers to interesting sites and services around Penticton, BC. This is an example of ________ targeting. A) behavioural B) contextual C) time of day D) psychographic

21)

22) ________ are ads that appear underneath the Web page and become visible only when the user leaves the site. A) Interstitials B) Pop-unders C) Pop-ups D) Cookies

22)

23) In 2014, Internet media advertising revenue: A) surpassed television ad spending B) was about the same as total print advertising revenue C) reached $2.5 billion D) reached $3.8 billion, almost as high as television ad spending

23)

24) As of 2014, ________ was the dominant provider of paid search advertising. A) Google B) Yahoo C) Microsoft D) Facebook

24)

25) YouTube channels host branded video messages, thus offering an organization a form of ________ media. A) owned B) consumption C) earned D) social

25)

26) ________ are ads found on Internet sites such as Kijiji and Auto Trader, where consumers search for information when comparison shopping. A) Banner ads B) Used goods advertising C) Pay-per-click ads D) Classified and directory ads

26)

27) A substantial form of advertising on the Internet is ________, in which advertisers pay only when a consumer clicks on their ad or link from a search engine page. A) banners B) paid search C) content sponsorship D) pop-ups

27)

28) Marketers use ________ to reward loyal customers with various types of points, badges, opportunities to play extended games and other incentives through: A) wikis and sales promotions B) digital treats C) electronic overlays D) virtually continuity programs

28)

29) The most common form of display advertising on the Web is: A) interstitials B) banner ads C) pop-ups

29) D) sponsorships

30) Mobile access to Internet media via smartphones hit ________ percent in 2015. A) 50 B) 77 C) 68 D) 85

30)

31) Ad products such as promoted accounts, promoted tweets, and promoted trends are all associated with which social media application? A) Twitter B) Tumblr C) Foursquare D) Facebook

31)

32) Each of the following is a social media class resulting from user-generated content EXCEPT: A) virtual game worlds B) collaborative projects C) podcasts D) blogs

32)

33) Which of the following statements about the Internet's objective of disseminating information is true? A) In business-to-business markets, having a website has become a necessity, especially for buyers to get detailed information about the seller's offerings. B) Consumer-generated content, as a means of disseminating information, suffers from lack of credibility. C) Many consumer companies no longer use their websites as a means of communicating information about their products and services. They are turning instead to various forms of social media. D) Due to privacy issues, certain levels of government have reduced their use of the Internet to provide citizens with information.

33)

34) At the website for iVillage.com, there is an ad that stretches across the top of the page for Clinique cosmetics. If you click on the ad, it will take you to the Clinique website where you can purchase Clinique cosmetics. The Clinique ad that appears at the iVillage website is an example of a(n): A) pop-up B) sponsorship C) banner D) interstitial

34)

35) ComScore 2015 data shows which type of Internet media having the most ad impressions? A) Web portals B) news/information sites C) entertainment sites D) social media sites

35)

36) Because a branded Instagram account further promotes the brand's image and extends the content of the brand's website, one might call it a form of ________ media. A) earned B) owned C) consumption D) social

36)

37) The targeting that allows advertisers to adjust their brand messages depending upon where the user is located is known as: A) latitudinal targeting B) geographic targeting C) environmental targeting D) contextual targeting

37)

38) Extensive use of pictures, sounds, and animation in a website demonstrates ________. A) reciprocity B) nonverbal information C) interactivity D) responsiveness

38)

39) Marketers use their websites to invite consumers to sign up for a newsletter, go to a retail location, try a simulation, or participate in a game or promotion in order to achieve the objective of: A) building brand image B) generating online sales C) creating awareness D) facilitating interaction

39)

40) Who is required to pay when a person retweets, replies, favourites, or clicks on a brand's promoted tweet? A) Twitter B) the consumer C) the advertiser D) There is no cost to do these things.

40)

41) ________ is/are newer computer software technology that permit(s) user interaction such as expansion of the ad, additional product description or movement that appears video-like. A) Rich media B) Pop-ups C) Secure sites D) Interstitials

41)

42) Procter & Gamble's website, Vocalpoint, provides moms access to information, products, and samples and is a forum for feedback on new ideas and products. It was established to achieve the objective of: A) facilitating interaction. B) creating business-to-business opportunities. C) generating on-line sales. D) disseminating information.

42)

43) Research has defined consumers' online brand-related activities (COBRAs) as being each of the following EXCEPT: A) consuming B) contributing C) creating D) critiquing

43)

44) Which of the following is NOT one of the four broad communication objectives of a website? A) create awareness B) stimulate category purchase C) disseminate information D) build brand image

44)

45) A ________ is a Web-based publication consisting primarily of periodic articles. A) social networking site B) sales promotion C) podcast D) blog

45)

46) Internet media advertising is so pervasive that specialized recognition now happens in the form of which awards? A) E-Promo Awards B) Canadian Marketing Association Interactive Awards of Excellence C) Webby Awards D) Interactive Marketing Awards

46)

47) Vehicles on the Internet where users can share video, photo images, and audio media are called: A) podcasts. B) social networking sites. C) content communities. D) interactive activity zones.

47)

48) Yesterday when Enrique checked his e-mail, he had an offer to buy software that would make it easier for him to file his income tax next year. This e-mail offer is an example of how the Internet and ________ can complement each other. A) personal selling B) sales promotion C) public relations D) direct marketing

48)

49) Which of the following scenarios might lead one to consider sites like Facebook to be "earned" media? A) Consumers visit a branded Facebook page, "like" it, and further communicate their positive consumption experiences. B) The brand develops a Facebook page with similar content to its branded website, in order to extend the brand's image. C) Ads on Facebook pages are targeted according to the visitor's online surfing behaviour. D) Ads are displayed on third-party Facebook pages.

49)

50) One of the newest and fastest growing forms of electronic advertising is: A) video advertising. B) digital billboards. C) sponsorships. D) mobile advertising.

50)

51) The most prominent form of advertising on podcasts at this time is: A) interstitials. B) sponsorship. C) paid search. D) There is no advertising on podcasts.

51)

52) Online directories such as Kijiji and Auto Trader have stolen a significant portion of ad revenue as a direct substitution for: A) Newspaper classifieds. B) Google search ads. C) Yellow Pages ads. D) Local radio ads.

52)

53) A related communication to apps and SMS codes is the 2-dimensional barcode called a(n): A) 2-dimensional mobile code. B) 2-D SMS code. C) Smart-code. D) quick response code.

53)

54) Research shows that ________ is the number one activity on the Internet for most Canadians. A) general Internet search B) visiting social media C) banking online D) sending or receiving email

54)

55) Which of the following statements is true regarding behavioural targeting? A) Research has determined that a consumer's leisure-oriented Internet behaviour is more indicative of one's purchase patterns than their business-oriented behaviour. B) Clickstream data and Internet protocol information can help identify segments of potential buyers in order to direct ads specifically to them. C) Behaviour is not a critical variable when applying audience segmentation to Internet advertising. D) There is a one-to-one correlation between a consumer's Internet surfing behaviour and their intention to purchase.

55)

56) Which of the following is NOT a way that companies are using video advertising on the Internet? A) Companies create new video messages for the Internet. B) Companies generally run longer video ads, of two minutes or more, on hosted sites such as YouTube and others, because of the captive audiences found there. C) Companies run the same spots they show on TV, using a hosting site such as YouTube. D) Companies run a television spot and then direct consumers to their website in order to view it, or a sequel to it, again.

56)

57) Which of the following statements about Instagram are NOT true? A) The creative potential of sequencing images for owned and earned media is strong with Instagram. B) Many of the targeting features found with Facebook are also available on Instagram since Facebook owns Instagram. C) Most Instagram use is on desktops and laptops, as display ads don't work well on the small screens of smartphones. D) Instagram pushes ads through the newsfeed, with ads having the same look as the media content.

57)

58) Much of the content on a branded Facebook page: A) is developed by the advertising agency B) mirrors the brand's website almost exactly C) contains images and comments contributed by consumers but controlled by the advertiser D) is a form of advertising or another kind of marketing communication message

58)

59) ________ targeting is the practice of advertising on a particular Internet site based on its content. A) Contextual B) Behavioural C) Time of day D) Subject matter

59)

60) The most significant media trend in recent years is: A) the melding of sales promotion and advertising activities. B) the consumer adoption of social media. C) video gaming. D) the incidence of multiple television sets in the majority of Canadian households.

60)

61) A website demonstrates ________ if it offers multiple opportunities for the consumer to act upon, such as links, buttons, or connections to other utilities like social media. A) responsiveness B) nonverbal information C) reciprocity D) stickiness

61)

62) The majority of Instagram users are: A) men, aged 35-50 years C) men, aged 18-34 years

62) B) women, aged 35-50 years D) women, aged 18-34 years

63) Which of these has been cited as a disadvantage associated with using the Internet? A) poor reach B) interactive capabilities C) limited creativity D) message tailoring

63)

64) A collaborative project which permits users to add, remove, or change text-based content is known as: A) a tweet. B) a user-generated promotion. C) a group think. D) a wiki.

64)

65) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding time of day targeting? A) Internet accessing declines during the afternoon and dinner time and then peaks again during the evening for leisure purposes. B) Time of day targeting allows advertisers to direct a message to consumers when they are consuming certain Internet media vehicles. C) Recent Canadian data suggest that the biggest growth in Internet media use is evening access of news and information sites. D) Working people are accessing Internet media during the day for business purposes, primarily in the morning.

65)

66) Facebook as a media vehicle is an attractive advertising opportunity for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) A company can place ads directly into the consumers' newsfeed or on the right-hand rail. B) Facebook allows for substantial segmentation precision. C) The newsfeed is cluttered with both ads and content from friends. D) Advertising on Facebook is a series of simple "point and click" steps.

66)

67) Targeting consumers according to their website-surfing conduct is known as: A) contextual targeting B) site-loyalty targeting C) behavioural targeting D) attitudinal targeting

67)

68) The amount of time Canadians consumed Internet media attained just over ________ hours per week, compared to ________ hours for TV. A) 20; 29 B) 27; 34 C) 12; 20 D) 16; 24

68)

69) ________ reflect(s) the writings of an individual, a community, a political organization, or a corporation. A) Promoted tweets B) Video overlays C) User-generated content D) Blogs

69)

70) In what form of social media advertising does the message from a customer during a performance of Cirque du Soleil act as a testimonial so that potential customers can virtually experience the spectacle? A) promoted account B) social networking exchange C) promoted tweet D) blog post

70)

71) Recent research into video ads on the Internet found that: A) Video streaming penetration has reached its maximum in Canada and is actually a little bit on the decline. B) The most ad impressions were achieved for ads shown on desktop/laptop only. C) Most video ads are 30 seconds long. D) Total ad impressions for mobile only advertising surpassed those achieved on desktop/laptops only.

71)

72) Which of the following is NOT one of the top four Internet media activities using a smartphone? A) checking the weather B) searching the Internet C) accessing a map D) making an online purchase

72)

73) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with using the Internet? A) its ability to target very specific groups of individuals B) lack of clutter C) interactive capabilities of the medium D) potential for creativity

73)

74) Approximately ________ percent of all Canadians accessed Internet media from any location in 2015, with nearly universal access for those under ________ years of age. A) 98; 40 B) 92; 35 C) 80; 50 D) 86; 55

74)

75) YouTube generates revenue through each of the following EXCEPT: A) standard banner display ads. B) in-video overlay ads. C) rich media ads. D) viewing fees.

75)

76) Air Miles sending permission-based text alerts customized by transaction activity to encourage shopping at affiliated sponsors is an example of: A) cooperative advertising. B) mobile display advertising. C) digital partnership. D) SMS advertising.

76)

77) How does Kijiji make money? A) Kijiji doesn't charge to post a classified ad, but takes a 2% commission on all sales. B) Kijiji has yet to earn revenue. C) Consumers now have to pay a small amount to post their classified ad. D) Kijiji sells ad space on its directory on a CPM basis.

77)

78) Each of the following is a form of mobile advertising EXCEPT: A) short message service (SMS) B) display/sponsorship C) search D) pay-per-view

78)

79) Planning to direct display ads to any other Internet site relies on ________ to determine which sites would be appropriate. A) contextual targeting B) results from second-screen experiences C) media planners D) mobile direct streaming media

79)

80) Almost all of Google's revenue comes from selling advertisements associated with: A) name brands. B) banner ads. C) retailers. D) search keywords.

80)

81) In terms of sales promotional tools such as contest entries and other incentives, Internet media: A) is not very useful due to audience fragmentation. B) is a buffer between more credible branded content and short-term promotional hype. C) acts as the delivery or execution mechanism. D) ensures continued use of the product beyond the promotional timing.

81)

82) The increased use of streaming video advertising messages is a direct result of: A) the fact that young viewers are looking for more exciting and engaging content. B) the increased penetration of broadband into households. C) the decreased readership of newspapers among young adults in Canada. D) the decreased viewership of television shows across all age groups.

82)

83) Which of the following is NOT a social bookmarking site? A) Tumblr B) Reddit C) Pinterest

83) D) Facebook

84) While Annie waited for the Mendocino apparel site to download, a small ad encouraging her to check out the summer clothes at the Hudson's Bay website appeared on her computer screen. The Hudson's Bay ad is an example of: A) push technology B) a pop-up C) an interstitial D) content sponsorship

84)

85) ________ is the process of improving the volume of traffic driven to one's site by a search engine through unpaid results as opposed to paid inclusions. A) Popularity detection B) Keyword targeting C) Google AdSense D) Search engine optimization

85)

86) Which of the following is true about banner ad click through rates? A) Click through rates are slightly higher for social media and mobile ads. B) There is no difference in click through rates according to ad size. C) The use of flash technology makes no difference in click through rates. D) In Canada, the average click through rate is 10 percent.

86)

87) Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for search success? A) Optimize customization through past search history. B) Provide unique and valuable content to appeal to designers of other sites so they will include a link on their site. C) Pay extra money for the search terms to increase the site's ranking. D) Embed keyword text in visuals on the company's Web page.

87)

88) A preliminary page that precedes the homepage of an Internet site is known as a(n): A) sponsored link. B) pop-up. C) splash page. D) interstitial.

88)

89) All of the following are results of the IAB task force formed to address issues surrounding Internet effectiveness measures EXCEPT: A) Agreed upon guidelines for the disclosure of research methodology were put into place. B) Metrics were developed to determine the size of the target audience. C) Developed accepted procedures for auditing the data which are different from those of traditional major media. D) Identified technical procedures for accurately reporting when an ad impression had occurred.

89)

90) The need for digital ad placement firms is supported by the fact that: A) celebrities are charging exorbitant rates to add their voice to a brand's social media presence. B) specialized vehicles like blogs and YouTube channels are selling their advertising space far too cheaply to be effective. C) personal bloggers wield a great deal of influence over consumers when describing their brand experiences. D) the blogosphere is very fragmented, which makes it difficult to determine where to place one's ads.

90)

91) Which of the following is true about cellphone apps? A) Apps act as ads since they generally carry brand identification and a brand experience. B) The banking industry has experienced the fastest app growth among smartphone users in Canada. C) The highest use of cellphone apps is for social networking. D) Mobile apps do not appear to influence shopping behaviour.

91)

92) Each of the following is a limitation of SMS codes EXCEPT: A) Marketers are concerned with not having the proper metrics with which to measure success. B) Cell phone carriers are not all fully able to work with each type of code. C) There is a time delay for registration with the Canadian Wireless Telecommunications Association to protect consumers against spam. D) The relatively low penetration of smart phones in Canada does not ensure that the use of SMS advertising will deliver a favourable ROI to advertisers.

92)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 17

1) A 2) A 3) D 4) D 5) B 6) B 7) D 8) D 9) D 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) C 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) D 27) B 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) C 35) D 36) B 37) B 38) B 39) D 40) C 41) A 42) A 15

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 17

43) D 44) B 45) D 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) A 53) D 54) D 55) B 56) B 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) B 61) C 62) D 63) A 64) D 65) C 66) C 67) C 68) A 69) D 70) C 71) B 72) D 73) B 74) B 75) D 76) D 77) D 78) D 79) A 80) D 81) C 82) B 83) D 84) C 16

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 17

85) D 86) A 87) D 88) C 89) C 90) D 91) A 92) D

Chapter 18 Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Advertising Standards Canada gender portrayal guidelines pertain to each of the following overall clauses EXCEPT: A) sexuality B) decision making C) violence D) ageism

2) Which of the following is NOT a clause contained in the Canadian Code of Advertising Standards? A) bait and switch B) subliminal tactics C) testimonials D) superstitions and fears

3) Many advertising experts argue that what underlies the increased use of shock appeal is: A) actually, the reduction in clutter has made shock appeal less necessary. B) that sexual appeal is having less of an effect on audiences. C) it is a new type of appeal that consumers tend to react to. D) the pressure on marketers and their agencies to do whatever it takes to get their ads noticed.

4) Critics of advertising claim that it can have a(n) ________ effect on consumer values by encouraging ________, which is a preoccupation with material things rather than intellectual or spiritual concerns. A) adverse; materialism B) negative; cocooning C) detrimental; stereotyping D) positive; corporeality

5) Recent ads showing men as dumb, goofy, or inept in the kitchen or around their children have been criticized under the Advertising Standards Council's clause regarding: A) accuracy and clarity B) unacceptable depictions and portrayals C) sexual exploitation D) price claims

6) Which of the following media would be most vulnerable to influence and pressure from advertisers on the type of stories the medium covers? A) a major television network such as CBC B) a growing newspaper or magazine which receives a high amount of advertising from a particular industry C) a major newspaper such as The Globe and Mail D) a major magazine such as Time or Maclean's

7) Procter & Gamble spends millions of dollars a year on advertising for its various consumer products and can make large media purchases at rates lower than its smaller competitors. This is an example of how a large advertiser can achieve a competitive advantage based on: A) market aggrandizement B) differentiation C) discrimination D) economies of scale

8) The mandate that allows the CRTC to preclude Canadian Super Bowl fans from seeing some of the U.S. ads broadcast during the big game is the issue of: A) Canadian protectionism. B) signal substitution. C) advertising time limits. D) cross-border exchange.

9) Critics of advertising argue that: A) consumers are only willing to purchase heavily advertised brands and thus will end up paying more for them B) advertising makes markets more competitive, which in turns requires more advertising and more price competition C) advertising makes consumers purchase products and services for irrational reasons D) monies spent on advertising is an expense that must be covered and is generally passed on to the consumer

10) From an economic perspective, advertising might lower the cost of a product by: A) allowing firms to advertise at high levels along with competitors B) creating barriers to entry for less efficient firms C) moving consumers to the consumer socialization stage of the buying process D) making it possible for firms to realize economies of scale through expansion of sales volume

10)

11) Defenders of advertising that argue that advertising is NOT a barrier to market entry contend that: A) large volumes of advertising are necessary to compete in many industries B) there is no relationship between intensity of advertising and market share C) there are economies of scale in advertising D) advertising is only one factor amongst many that contribute to the success of a product

11)

12) A situation where a company creates conditions that makes it difficult for other firms to enter a market is known as: A) a barrier to entry B) economies of scale C) market dominance D) a market blockade

12)

13) Which of the following describes the use of sexual appeals in advertising? A) Networks have the right to scrutinize commercials carefully when it comes to sexually oriented advertising since they are similarly diligent with their programs. B) Sexual appeals are often criticized because they are not even relevant or appropriate for the product being advertised. C) Sexual appeals are less often criticized for containing nudity or using suggestive dialogue as consumers become more used to these elements in movies and video games. D) Sexual appeals are never criticized because they are demeaning to men.

13)

14) Many economists argue that advertising can have a detrimental effect on competition by: A) creating barriers to entry that results in less competition and higher prices B) lessening the importance of good budgeting strategies C) minimizing the importance of pricing and distribution strategy D) allowing unfair comparative advertising

14)

15) Defenders of advertising take issue with the argument that it should be limited to dealing with basic needs. One of their reasons is: A) In our society, most higher-level needs are already satisfied for most people. B) It is natural to move from higher-order needs to basic ones. C) Wise advertisers associate their products and services with lower-level needs like safety and food. D) Consumers are free to choose the degree to which they attempt to satisfy their desires.

15)

16) Which of the following DOES NOT express a valid conclusion about the truthfulness of advertising? A) National advertisers are likely to risk consumer trust and confidence by intentionally deceiving them. B) It is difficult to determine what constitutes untruthful or misleading advertising since deception can occur in subtle ways. C) One of the major complaints about advertising is that many ads are misleading. D) Most advertisers do not intentionally mislead or deceive consumers, but some will test the limits of various rules and regulations to gain a competitive advantage.

16)

17) What is the traditional defense for advertising's role in our economic system? A) Advertising increases competition and prevents monopolies. B) Advertising provides useful information for buying decisions. C) Advertising stimulates new product development. D) Advertising leads to an increased standard of living.

17)

18) According to author and marketing theorist, Shelby Hunt, the purpose of all advertising is to: A) persuade B) enhance brand image C) change attitude D) inform

18)

19) The ________ approves all infomercials for any television station and network. A) Competition Act B) Consumer Protection Act C) CRTC D) Advertising Standards Canada

19)

20) Which of the following principles is NOT one of the guidelines that a member of the Association of Canadian Advertisers should use in preparing and evaluating its ads? A) advertisers make an important contribution to the Canadian economy of culture B) advertisers forego their right to freedom of speech in order to not offend or mislead consumers C) advertisers support a vibrant, competitive economy D) advertisers must behave responsibly

20)

21) Acquiring the skills needed to function in the marketplace is called the ________ process. A) caveat emptor B) needs-focus C) consumer education D) consumer socialization

21)

22) Which of the following statements can be used to refute the argument that advertising reduces the number of choices available to consumers? A) Heavily advertised brands dominate the market in certain product categories such as soft drinks, beer, and cereal. B) Dominant brands can afford to spend more on advertising and that makes it difficult for smaller brands to compete against them. C) When a successful new product is introduced, competitors quickly follow and use advertising to inform consumers about their brand. D) Advertising can be used to create and maintain brand loyalty for dominant brands.

22)

23) The belief that advertising equals ________ sees advertising as providing consumers with useful information, increasing their price sensitivity, and increasing competition in the market. A) market power B) competitive advantage C) materialism D) information

23)

24) According to those who believe that advertising does NOT have an adverse effect on consumer values, advertising: A) is solely accountable for the increase in materialism due to its nature and power B) cannot create needs but only exploit existing ones C) is merely a reflection of society's tastes and values D) is a major determinant of society's taste and values

24)

25) Which of the following expresses a valid conclusion about the truthfulness of advertising? A) Even though most advertisers intend to deliberately mislead consumers, they often present only information that is favourable to their position. B) It can be difficult to determine if an ad is misleading consumers since deception is partly dependent on how a consumer perceives an advertising message. C) Many critics of advertising feel that advertising should include puffery or embellished messages. D) Many critics of advertising do not believe that advertising can or should be informative.

25)

26) ________ are moral principles and values that govern the actions and decisions of an individual or group. A) Ethics B) Guidelines C) Regulations D) Social criticisms

26)

27) Stereotypical portrayals of adult women in North American television and print advertising emphasize their: A) power B) ability to achieve under any circumstances C) activism and autonomy D) passivity and deference

27)

28) Each of the following statements describes advertising that can be perceived as irritating or distasteful EXCEPT: A) Ads using sexual appeals or nudity offend many consumers. B) Consumers tend to dislike ads for products they don't use or brands they don't buy. C) Consumers can be offended by the mere fact that certain products such as contraceptives are even advertised. D) A study of prime time commercials found that consumers have become used to ads for personal care products, and they seldom perceive them as irritating or distasteful any more.

28)

29) For which of the following products might one argue that advertising has created needs rather than responded to them? A) designer jeans B) automobiles C) canned soup D) calculators

29)

30) Which of the following is NOT a social criticism of advertising? A) Advertising is controls the media. B) Advertising makes consumers buy things they don't need. C) Advertising perpetuates stereotypes. D) Advertising increases product costs and reduces competition.

30)

31) The ________ is a not-for-profit, self-regulatory industry body with a mandate to create and maintain community confidence in advertising. A) Consumer protection Act B) Competition Act C) Advertising Standards Canada D) CRTC

31)

32) Which of the following does NOT relate to the use of fear appeals? A) an ad exploiting the fear of social rejection for having bad breath B) an ad depicting a radio about to commit suicide on the edge of a bathtub C) a series of ads showing the gory consequences of poor safety regulations at work D) an ad for a luxury power boat with a gorgeous female model in a low-cut gown draped over the front of the boat

32)

33) Which of the following would NOT fall under the Competition Act? A) Xerox portraying women in non-leadership roles B) Triscuit showing misleading portrayals of package size and number of portions in a box C) Bell hiding mandatory fees in fine-print disclaimers D) Mr. Clean making false claims of product performance

33)

34) A recent study suggests that minorities in Canadian advertising are ________. A) reflecting the Canadian population B) under-represented C) very overrepresented D) not represented at all

34)

35) The CRTC is involved in the regulation of: A) advertising time limits C) alcohol and drugs

35) B) misleading ads D) false ads

36) In the 1950s and 1960s, many auto shops gave away promotional calendars to customers. The calendars typically showed some buxom beauty that was scantily clothed and posed in some atypical position in or on an automobile. Critics of advertising today would call such calendars: A) asocial B) unfair C) offensive and in bad taste D) deceptive

36)

37) The CRTC ensures that specialty services carry a maximum of ________ minutes of advertising per hour during the broadcast day. A) 15 B) 5 C) 12 D) There is no advertising time limit for specialty TV services.

37)

38) Which of the following ads would likely be considered irritating or distasteful to many consumers? A) ads for weight loss products B) infomercials for acne remedies C) ads for online dating services D) ads for feminine hygiene products

38)

39) The Advertising Standards Canada guidelines do not cover product evaluations and reviews found on the Internet because: A) the Internet is too new a medium to be included in guidelines crafted twenty years ago. B) there have not yet been any complaints against this type of communication. C) the guidelines make certain concessions for more innovative media types. D) product reviews on websites and blogs are not considered advertising.

39)

40) Which one of the following statements about the Advertising Standards Canada is NOT true? A) The ASC represents advertisers, media organizations, and advertising industry suppliers. B) The ASC (Advertising Standards Canada) is a not-for-profit, self-regulatory, industry body with a mandate to create and maintain community confidence in advertising. C) Its Standards Division administers government-regulated codes. D) Its Advertising Clearance Division previews advertisements in five industry categories, as well as ads directed toward children.

40)

41) According to the Consumer Protection Act of Quebec, it is illegal to direct commercial advertising messages to persons younger than: A) 10 B) 13 C) 6 D) 15

41)

42) Mattel advertised a Parisian Barbie doll, complete with chic outfit, a designer purse, a convertible sports car and a tiny Eiffel Tower. While the outfit was included with the doll, the ad failed to mention that the other accessories were sold separately. This false impression would fall under the jurisdiction of: A) the Competition Act B) Advertising Standards Canada C) the Association of Canadian Advertisers D) the CRTC

42)

43) Critics of advertising aimed at children use all of the following arguments to explain why it is wrong EXCEPT: A) preschool children cannot discriminate between commercials and television programs B) children lack an understanding of how advertising works and thus cannot effectively use cognitive defences against it C) advertising is a part of life, and children must learn to deal with it as part of the consumer socialization process D) children do not perceive the selling or persuasive intent of commercials

43)

44) The decision to advertise on "better-for-you" products to children stems directly from: A) McDonald's being the first to offer fruit snacks as a substitute for french fries. B) elementary schools deciding not to provide high-sugar snacks in their vending machines and cafeterias. C) criminal investigations into food product development. D) the growing obesity problem among children.

44)

45) The consumer socialization process: A) explains why consumers will never completely abandon department store shopping for Internet shopping B) is the acquiring of skills needed to function in the marketplace C) explains how marketers engage in relationship marketing D) refers to how consumers satisfy their need to belong

45)

46) For many years, Hershey's spent very little money on advertising, yet its chocolate bar was a successful brand. This success can be interpreted as evidence that: A) luck plays a major role in the success of a product B) product quality and image are important determinants of success C) advertising increases product costs and prices D) advertising is really not needed for a brand to be successful

46)

47) The belief that advertising equals ________ reflects traditional economic thinking that views advertising as a way to change consumers' tastes, lower their sensitivity to price, and build brand loyalty among buyers of the advertised brand. A) materialism B) market power C) economies of scale D) competitive advantage

47)

48) ________ is advertising which praise the item to be sold with subjective opinions, superlatives, or exaggerations, stating no specific facts. A) Misleading advertising B) Embellishment C) Puffery D) A false claim

48)

49) The CRTC ensures that conventional TV and radio stations carry a maximum of ________ minutes of advertising per hour during the broadcast day. A) 8 B) 15 C) 5 D) There is no advertising time limit for conventional TV and radio stations.

49)

50) Which of the following is an argument that supports the charge that advertisers can and do control the media? A) There is no such argument; it is in the best self-interest of the media not to be influenced or controlled by the advertiser. B) Many media have a broad base of advertiser support and can afford to lose advertisers attempting to exert control over them. C) The media are very dependent on advertising as the source of their income. D) Advertisers need the media more than the media needs any individual advertisers.

50)

51) Which area is NOT regulated by the CRTC (Canadian Radio-Television and Telecommunications Commission)? A) Advertising time limits B) Signal substitution C) False or misleading ads D) Infomercials

51)

52) Young children may be especially vulnerable to advertising for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) they lack the experience and knowledge required to understand and evaluate persuasive messages B) they cannot distinguish between reality and fantasy C) their parents do not always perceive the selling intent of commercials D) they often have trouble differentiating between commercials and programs

52)

53) The federal Competition Act addresses ________. A) advertising limits for TV commercials during the broadcast day B) Internet C) false or misleading advertising D) infomercials

53)

54) Using economic censorship, applying pressure to limit the coverage of a controversial story that might reflect negatively on a company and trying to control the editorial content of magazines are all ways that: A) media controls content on television. B) consumer advocates fight for the rights of the masses. C) media manipulates advertisers. D) advertisers exert influence on the media.

54)

55) By creating needs rather than merely fulfilling them, by surrounding consumers with images of the good life, and by showing products as symbols of status and success, advertising can create: A) ethnocentricity B) materialism C) consumer socialization D) informative ads

55)

56) Which of the following is NOT an area from which complaints to the Standards Division of the ASC arise? A) Contravention of government guidelines B) Advertiser disputes C) Consumer complaints D) Special interest group complaints

56)

57) Which of the following statements describing how advertising portrays women is NOT the case? A) Advertising is often criticized for portraying women in strong leadership roles. B) Stereotypical portrayals of women show them as lacking intelligence and credibility. C) Many advertisers depict women in a diversity of roles since their place in society has changed in recent years. D) While sexism and stereotyping of women still exists, advertising's portrayal of women has improved in recent years.

57)

58) The type of advertising appeal that has received the most criticism for being in poor taste is: A) humourous appeals used to make fun of people who are socially inept B) fear appeals used to sell shampoos and deodorants C) personal computer ads targeted at children D) ads using sex and/or nudity

58)

59) Economists argue that advertising can have a negative effect on consumer choice by: A) reducing the opportunities for new products to be introduced B) creating brand monopolies C) using market aggregation D) adding to the cost of products and discouraging competition and market entry

59)

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 18

1) D 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) D 8) B 9) D 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) C 25) B 26) A 27) D 28) D 29) A 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) C 41) B 42) A 12

Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 18

43) C 44) D 45) B 46) B 47) B 48) C 49) D 50) C 51) C 52) C 53) C 54) D 55) B 56) A 57) A 58) D 59) D