TEST BANK for American Democracy Now 3e Brigid Harrison Jean Harris Michelle Deardorff by StudyGuide

TEST BANK for American Democracy Now 3e Brigid Harrison Jean Harris Michelle Deardorff

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 1: People, Politics, and Participation Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Electoral politics in the United States was much the same in 1990 as it had been in 1890. The advent of which technologies transformed electoral politics? a. cell phones and computers b. cell phones and the Internet c. personal computers and the Internet d. cell phones and PDAs e. PDAs and the Internet Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: y shd u stdy am dem now? Or, Why Should You Study American Democracy Now? Page: 5 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 2. Which decade saw a marked decline in American attitudes toward government? a. 1950s b. 1960s c. 1970s d. 1980s e. 1990s Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: y shd u stdy am dem now? Or, Why Should You Study American Democracy Now? Page: 5 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

3. Efficacy is citizens’ belief that Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 1 People, Politics, and Participation

a. they have the power to achieve something desirable, and that the government will listen to them. b. government should be run efficiently and effectively by a small group of bureaucrats. c. government exists for the maintenance of individual and general welfare. d. government policies should be based on the protection of individual rights and freedoms. e. government can and should work to benefit all sectors of society. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: y shd u stdy am dem now? Or, Why Should You Study American Democracy Now? Page: 5 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 4. After the 9/11 attacks in 2001, what percentage of young people supported U.S. military actions in Afghanistan? a. 50 percent b. 60 percent c. 70 percent d. 80 percent e. 90 percent Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: y shd u stdy am dem now? Or, Why Should You Study American Democracy Now? Page: 6 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 5. Which of the following are actions practiced by individuals who engage in civic life and public experience? a. active communication with representatives and policymakers b. advocating for one’s and others’ self-interest c. holding public officials accountable for their actions and decisions d. accumulation of knowledge about public issues e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: y shd u stdy am dem now? Or, Why Should You Study American Democracy Now? Page: 7 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

6. Political engagement can be defined as

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Chapter 1 People, Politics, and Participation

a. citizen actions intended to solve public problems through political means. b. citizen actions intended to address political or ideological differences through public interaction. c. individual and collective actions designed to address and identify issues of public concern. d. individual and collective efforts to influence political actions and outcomes. e. citizen actions intended to generate popular oversight of political actions and outcomes. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: y shd u stdy am dem now? Or, Why Should You Study American Democracy Now? Page: 7 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 7. a. b. c. d. e.

Buycotting is buying items produced by companies whose practices you agree with. refusing to buy items produced by companies whose policies you disagree with. buying items from companies who contribute donations to political parties you support. buying items from companies whose products you like. refusing to buy items from companies who contribute donations to political parties you do not support. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: y shd u stdy am dem now? Or, Why Should You Study American Democracy Now? Page: 7 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 8. Which of the following terms matches this description? “A quality conferred on government by citizens who believe that its exercise of power is right and proper.” a. authenticity b. legitimacy c. veracity d. populism e. right of exercise Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What Government Does Page: 10 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

9. What is the foundation of the legal structure of the United States?

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a. the Supreme Court b. the federal Constitution c. state constitutions d. local constitutions e. the federal court system Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What Government Does Page: 10 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 10. Which of the following services is provided by federal, state, and local governments? a. commerce b. entertainment c. air travel d. education e. communication Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: What Government Does Page: 10 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 11. Which of the following services is facilitated by federal, state, and local governments? a. health services b. roads c. bridges d. education e. communication Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What Government Does Page: 10 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

12. All of the following are considered public goods EXCEPT

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a. access to government-provided health care. b. roads and highways. c. bridges. d. clean air and water. e. access to air transportation. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What Government Does Page: 10-11 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 13. What rate of income tax is currently in place in the United States? a. between 15 and 25 percent of each dollar earned b. between 15 and 35 percent of each dollar earned c. between 25 and 35 percent of each dollar earned d. between 25 and 45 percent of each dollar earned e. between 35 and 45 percent of each dollar earned Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What Government Does Page: 11 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 14. Which of the following is NOT a commodity tax? a. sales tax b. property tax c. income tax d. sin tax e. luxury tax Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: What Government Does Page: 11 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

15. How many factors influence the way social scientists classify modern world governments?

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a. two b. three c. four d. five e. six Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Government Page: 11 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 16. Which of these types of government sees power held in the hands of an elite few? a. monarchy b. oligarchy c. democracy d. autocracy e. tyranny Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Government Page: 11 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 17. Which of these types of government places the supreme power of governance in the hands of citizens? a. tyranny b. oligarchy c. democracy d. monarchy e. autocracy Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Government Page: 12 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

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Chapter 1 People, Politics, and Participation

18. Which of these types of governmental structure essentially controls every aspect of citizens’ lives? a. totalitarian b. authoritarian c. constitutional d. libertarian e. anarchic Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Government Page: 11 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 19. Which of these types of governmental structure is limited, or restricted in its actions, so that citizens’ rights are protected? a. totalitarian b. authoritarian c. constitutional d. libertarian e. anarchic Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Government Page: 12 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 20. Which of these countries is considered an authoritarian state system? a. the United States b. North Korea c. Canada d. Japan e. China Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Government Page: 11 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

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Chapter 1 People, Politics, and Participation

21. Which of these countries is considered a totalitarian state system? a. the United States b. North Korea c. Canada d. Japan e. China Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Government Page: 11 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 22. Which of the following phrases best describes the form of government of the United States? a. oligarchy b. authoritarian democracy c. constitutional democracy d. constitutional monarchy e. directed democracy Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Government Page: 12 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 23. What does the Greek term demokratia translate to mean? a. democracy b. people power c. people’s will d. liberty e. freedom Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of American Democracy Page: 12 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

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Chapter 1 People, Politics, and Participation

24. In the Greek city-states, or poleis, which of the following groups were denied citizenship rights? a. women b. men born outside the polis c. slaves d. women and slaves e. slaves, and men born outside the polis Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of American Democracy Page: 12 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 25. Who was the chief advocate of divine-right monarchy, or the idea that monarchs and emperors ruled according to God’s will? a. Jean-Jacques Rousseau b. Baron de Montesquieu c. Jacques-Benigne Bossuet d. John Locke e. Thomas Hobbes Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of American Democracy Page: 12 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 26. A social contract can be defined as an agreement between people and their leaders in which a. the leaders agree to surrender some powers in exchange for popular support. b. the people agree to give up some liberties in exchange for the protection of their other liberties. c. the people agree to give up most of their liberties in exchange for security and protection. d. the leaders agree to surrender most of their powers to popular political structures. e. the people agree to surrender all of their liberties in exchange for security and protection. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of American Democracy Page: 13 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

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Chapter 1 People, Politics, and Participation

27. Who of the following constructed the concept of natural law, which asserts that standards that govern human behavior are derived from human nature and can be universally applied? a. Sir Isaac Newton b. Baron de Montesquieu c. Jacques-Benigne Bossuet d. John Locke e. Thomas Hobbes Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of American Democracy Page: 13 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 28. Who wrote Two Treatises on Civil Government in 1689, arguing against divine right monarchy and proposing the existence of inalienable individual rights? a. Sir Isaac Newton b. Baron de Montesquieu c. Jacques-Benigne Bossuet d. John Locke e. Thomas Hobbes Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of American Democracy Page: 13 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 29. According to Jean-Jacques Rousseau, government that is created by the people is dependent on the authority of the people to rule, which is otherwise known as a. legitimacy. b. the divine right. c. natural law. d. social contract theory. e. popular sovereignty. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of American Democracy Page: 13 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

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30. What structure of government, in which citizens decide policy through majority rule, was formed by the colonists in New England who fled religious persecution in England? a. indirect democracy b. representative democracy c. direct democracy d. oligarchy e. constitutional democracy Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of American Democracy Page: 14 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 31. What is another name for indirect democracy, where citizens elect representatives who decide policies on their behalf? a. representative democracy b. guided democracy c. limited democracy d. directed democracy e. constitutional democracy Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of American Democracy Page: 14 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 32. Political culture can be defined as the a. different political parties and ideologies that are formed within societies. b. groups and industries within our society that concern themselves with political issues. c. individual beliefs and opinions of citizens within large communities and societies. d. people’s collective beliefs and attitudes about political and government processes. e. people’s collective support or dislike of different political parties and governmental institutions. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Culture and American Values Page: 15 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

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Chapter 1 People, Politics, and Participation

33. Which of the following values is considered the most essential quality of American democracy? a. equality b. collectivism c. liberty d. security e. self-government Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Culture and American Values Page: 15 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 34. Which centuries saw the evolution of the modern concept of equality? a. sixteenth and seventeenth b. seventeenth and eighteenth c. eighteenth and nineteenth d. nineteenth and twentieth e. twentieth and twenty-first Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Culture and American Values Page: 16 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 35. The Occupy movements that arose in fall 2011 were an example of the disagreements that exist in the United States over the concept of a. political ideology. b. legal equality. c. liberty. d. economic equality. e. political culture. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Culture and American Values Page: 16 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

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Chapter 1 People, Politics, and Participation

36. In economic and legal senses, property is defined as a. land. b. material possessions. c. liquid or transferable capital assets. d. property, firms, or businesses. e. anything that can be owned. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Culture and American Values Page: 16 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 37. In a democracy, the idea of the consent of the governed argues that government power a. derives from the people’s consent. b. derives from its inherent right to promote law and order. c. is justified and necessary. d. derives from its security apparatus, particularly the army and the police force. e. is acceptable as long as individual rights are recognized. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Culture and American Values Page: 16 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 38. Which of the following statements about majority rule is NOT true? a. Only policies with 50 percent plus one vote are enacted. b. Only candidates with 50 percent plus one vote are elected. c. Political candidates in all democracies must win a majority of votes. d. Governments based on this rule believe in the right of self-governance. e. It is implicit within the concept of consent of the governed. Answer: c Difficulty: 2 Critical Thinking: Understand Text Answer Hint: Political Culture and American Values Page: 17 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

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39. Which of the liberties protected by the Constitution illustrates the intimate relationship between individual and community life favored by the Constitution’s framers? a. freedom of speech b. protection from search and seizure c. freedom of assembly d. freedom of religion e. right to bear arms Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Political Culture and American Values Page: 17 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 40. In 2010, the population of the United States was a. 134 million. b. 230 million. c. 281 million. d. 307 million. e. 322 million. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Changing Face of American Democracy Page: 17 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 41. Which regions of the United States are seeing increased elderly populations, as younger people leave these regions and seek opportunities elsewhere? a. West and Northeast b. South and Southwest c. Midwest and Plains d. Southwest and Northeast e. Southeast and Northeast Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Changing Face of American Democracy Page: 18 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

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Chapter 1 People, Politics, and Participation

42. Between 1990 and 2008, the total percentage of married couples in the United States a. declined significantly. b. declined slightly. c. remained static. d. increased slightly. e. increased significantly. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Knowledge Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Changing Face of American Democracy Page: 22 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 43. According to the 2010 census numbers, a likely result of the economic downturn is a a. decrease in single-person households. b. increase of young adults living in their parents’ home. c. increase in female households without spouses. d. decrease of male households without spouses. e. decrease in those living in nonfamily households. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Changing Face of American Democracy Page: 20 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 44. Which of the following are effects of changes in the U.S. population’s ethnic makeup? a. changes in national and local political culture b. changes in people’s political attitudes c. changes in terms of who governs d. changes in political campaigns and outreach e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Changing Face of American Democracy Page: 22 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 45. Political ideology provides a framework for which of the following? a. thinking about politics b. thinking about policy issues c. considering the role of government in everyone’s lives d. thinking about political structures

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e. thinking about politics, thinking about policy issues, and considering the role of government in everyone’s lives Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Ideology: A Prism for Viewing American Democracy Page: 22 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 46. Modern liberalism advocates which of the following principles? a. separation of church and state b. limited government authority c. unfettered market economy d. government ownership of the means of production e. maintenance of the status quo Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Ideology: A Prism for Viewing American Democracy Page: 22 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 47. Conservatism advocates which of the following principles? a. separation of church and state b. no prayer in public schools c. the importance of civil liberties d. recognition and protection of states’ rights e. government provided safety net Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Ideology: A Prism for Viewing American Democracy Page: 26 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 48. Libertarianism advocates which of the following principles? a. government provided safety net b. socialist economy c. “hands-on” government approach d. rights of property owners e. All these answers are correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Ideology: A Prism for Viewing American Democracy Page: 26

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Chapter 1 People, Politics, and Participation

Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 49. The key difference between modern liberals, conservatives, and libertarians is their view of a. political culture. b. representative democracy. c. the capitalist economy. d. fundamental human rights. e. the role of government. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Ideology: A Prism for Viewing American Democracy Page: 26 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation 50. What type of ideological scale have social scientists developed to accurately represent people’s ideologies? a. one-dimensional b. two-dimensional c. multidimensional d. linear spectrum e. circular chart Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Ideology: A Prism for Viewing American Democracy Page: 27 Teaching Emphasis: People, Politics, and Participation

Essay Questions: 51. Outline how technology has transformed politics since the mid-twentieth century. Answer: It is difficult to overstate the impact of technology on politics since the 1950s. Many different technologies, such as television, computers, the Internet, and mobile technologies have changed the ways parties communicate with voters and supporters, and even to conduct elections. In short, technology has fundamentally transformed American politics in the twentyfirst century. 52. Discuss the key trends and developments in political involvement in the United States since the 1970s. Answer: In the early 1970s, as a result of the Vietnam War’s unpopularity and the scandals of the Nixon administration, American attitudes toward government hit an all-time low and remained low for a generation. The events of September 11, 2001 jolted American politics and the nation, and provoked changes in popular views. Patriotism, particularly among the young, greatly

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increased, as did interest in politics. Voter turnouts also significantly increased. These trends have persisted, even though long wars have reduced public trust in government. 53. Identify and explain the key functions of the United States government. Answer: Government is defined as an institution that creates and implements policies and laws that guide a nation and its citizens. Among the functions of the United States government are: protecting its sovereign territory and providing national defense; preserving order and stability; establishing and maintaining a legal system; providing services; raising and spending money; and socializing new generations. 54. Outline the key features of monarchies, oligarchies, and democracies. Answer: Three types of government are mentioned. In a monarchy, a member of a royal family has absolute governmental authority. In a constitutional monarchy, monarchs play ceremonial roles but exercise little real power. In an oligarchy, an elite few hold power, and some are dictatorships, in which a small group supports a dictator. In a democracy, governmental power lies in the hands of citizens, and most are republics, or representative democracies. 55. Explain the difference between an authoritarian government and a totalitarian one, and identify examples of each. Answer: An authoritarian government holds strong powers, but they are checked by other forces in society. China and Cuba are examples of authoritarian states because their leaders are restrained by other powerful forces, such as the military. In a totalitarian state, governments enjoy far greater power, and basically control every aspect of their citizens’ lives. Examples of totalitarian regimes include North Korea, and Afghanistan under the Taliban. 56. Outline the evolution of modern American democracy over the last 500 years. Answer: American democracy has roots that stretch all the way back to the poleis, the Greek city-states who first developed democracy as a concept and political structure. In the last 500 years, it has evolved out of protests against established authority, such as the Protestant Reformation; natural law theory, developed by Isaac Newton and others; and the ideas of modern philosophers such as Thomas Hobbes, Jean-Jacques Rousseau, and John Locke. Beginning in colonies like New England, early colonists formed political structures based on direct democracy. Both direct and indirect democracies at the colonial level heavily influenced the formation of the United States’ representative democracy. 57. Compare and contrast the political philosophies of John Locke and Thomas Hobbes. Answer: Hobbes argued for absolute monarchy. He believed that the strong would always oppress the weak and that, through a social contract, individuals who relinquished their rights could enjoy the sovereign’s protection. Without the social contract, Hobbes believed, anarchy would prevail. In contrast, Locke rejected the notion of the divine-right monarchy. Locke believed that individuals possessed certain individual, inalienable rights, such as life, liberty, and property that superseded governmental authority. Like Hobbes, Locke believed in the social contract only, in which people agree to accept the government’s authority with the understanding that the government would protect their natural rights. If the government failed to do so, however, Locke believed the people had a right to rebel.

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58. Discuss and identify key features of the political culture of the United States. Answer: Political culture is defined as the people’s collective beliefs and attitudes about government and the political process. In the United States, several key features of this culture stand out over time: liberty, or the idea of individual freedom and protection from government interference; equality, or equality of opportunity for all, which has evolved slowly over the history of the United States; capitalism, or support for a free-market economic system; consent of the governed, including majority rule; emphasis on the individual; and the importance of family and community. 59. Identify and explain the significance of the demographic changes occurring in the United States during the twenty-first century. Answer: Several key demographic trends are discernable in the twenty-first century United States. First, the population continues to grow—between 1960 and 2000, it increased by more than 50 percent. Second, it is more mobile, with large movement into the South and the Southwest. The population is also aging, particularly in the Midwest and Plains. Ethnically, the United States is also changing rapidly—with minority groups such as Hispanics increasing in size. These changes are significant because they will affect voting patterns and political leadership patterns as the century continues. 60. Describe key beliefs and ideologies present in the United States today. Answer: Political ideology is an integrated system of ideas or beliefs about political values in general and the role of government in particular. Several ideologies are common, to various degrees, in the contemporary United States. These include liberalism, associated with ideas of liberty and political equality; conservatism, which supports preservation of tradition; socialism, which supports wealth redistribution; and libertarianism, which advocates a “hands-off” governmental approach.

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 2: The Constitution Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Which of these countries employs an unwritten constitution? a. the United States b. Great Britain c. Venezuela d. Kenya e. Germany Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: What Is a Constitution? Page: 34 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 2. Which of these features are contained within written constitutions? a. mission statements b. descriptions of foundational structures c. identification of core bodies d. details of essential operating procedures e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What Is a Constitution? Page: 34 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 3. How many foundational government bodies are described by the U.S. Constitution? a. one b. two c. three d. four e. six Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: What Is a Constitution? Page: 35 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

4. According to the Constitution, a. the legislature enforces the law. b. the executive makes the law. c. the Supreme Court interprets the law. d. the bureaucrats make the law. e. interest groups shape the law. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What Is a Constitution? Page: 36 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 5. Which of these dates marked the War for Independence? a. 1756–1763 b. 1765–1775 c. 1770–1780 d. 1775–1783 e. 1776–1785 Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 36 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 6. Which of the following statements best describes the eighteenth-century colonists’ desire for government by the people? a. popular sovereignty b. representational democracy c. universal suffrage d. government established to protect the people’s liberties e. a two-tiered system of government, with power split between Britain and the colonies Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 36 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

7. Indentured servants were those who worked for a number of years a. for a master in America, then returned to Europe. b. for a master in America who had paid for their passage. c. for a master in America after being transported against their will. d. in America, then gained access to land and other property. e. for a master in America, then left for the Caribbean and Mexico. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 23 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 36 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 8. In the two-tiered system of colonial government in the early eighteenth century, which group had authority over day-to-day matters? a. local officials and assemblies b. Parliament c. governors appointed by royal authority d. the king e. the British Cabinet Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 36 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 9. In the two-tiered system of colonial government in the early eighteenth century, which group had authority to enact laws that applied both to colonists and to people in Great Britain? a. local officials and assemblies b. Parliament c. governors appointed by royal authority d. the king e. the British Cabinet Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 36 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

10. The Seven Years’ War was fought between a. Britain and Holland. b. Britain and Russia. c. Britain and France. d. Britain and Spain. e. Britain and Portugal. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 37 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 11. The Sugar Act (1764) imposed tax increases on which of these commodities? a. sugar b. molasses c. coffee d. textiles e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 37 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 12. Which of the following chronologies is correct? a. Stamp Act, Sugar Act, Declaratory Act, Townshend Duties Act b. Sugar Act, Stamp Act, Declaratory Act, Townshend Duties Act c. Declaratory Act, Sugar Act, Stamp Act, Townshend Duties Act d. Sugar Act, Declaratory Act, Stamp Act, Townshend Duties Act e. Stamp Act, Declaratory Act, Sugar Act, Townshend Duties Act Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 37 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

13. In 1768, the ________ colonial legislature petitioned King George III to repeal the Townshend Act. a. New Hampshire b. Virginia c. Maryland d. Massachusetts e. Rhode Island Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 37 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 14. In 1770, how many British soldiers were quartered among the 16,000 civilians living in Boston? a. 400 b. 2,400 c. 4,000 d. 14,000 e. 20,000 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 37 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 15. Who formed the Massachusetts Committee of Correspondence in 1772? a. John Hancock b. Paul Revere c. Patrick Henry d. Samuel Adams e. Benjamin Franklin Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 38 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

16. Which group gained a monopoly over the tea trade after the passage of the Tea Act (1773)? a. a shipping cartel led by John Hancock b. the East India Tea Company c. business interests connected to King George III d. French and Dutch traders e. Mohawk Indians Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 38 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 17. What repercussions followed the Boston Tea Party of December 16, 1773? a. passage of the Coercive Acts b. closure of the port of Boston c. imposition of martial law d. prohibition of the colonial assembly and town meetings e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 38 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 18. In September 1774, all colonies sent delegates to the First Continental Congress EXCEPT a. Delaware. b. Georgia. c. Rhode Island. d. New York. e. New Hampshire. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 38 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

19. The assembled delegates at the Second Continental Congress a. called for a truce in the hostilities with the British. b. demanded participation in Parliament’s policy-making processes. c. empowered Congress to function as an independent government. d. appointed Samuel Adams to command the Continental Army. e. adopted the Declaration of Rights and Grievances. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 38 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 20. According to Thomas Paine’s Common Sense, ________ was the only option that would ensure American liberty and religious freedom. a. diplomacy b. civil disobedience c. parliamentary representation d. popular protest e. war Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 39 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 21. At the Second Continental Congress, who argued that “these united Colonies are, and of right ought to be free and independent States”? a. Richard Henry Lee b. Thomas Jefferson c. James Madison d. Samuel Adams e. John Hancock Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 39 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

22. Which of the following thinkers influenced the creation of the Declaration of Independence? a. Thomas Paine b. Thomas Hobbes c. Jean-Jacques Rousseau d. John Locke and Thomas Paine e. Jean-Jacques Rousseau and John Locke Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 39 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 23. Which of the following is a central principle of the Declaration of Independence? a. all men are equal b. natural rights are derived from the consent of the governed c. freedom is derived from the right to vote d. all men must relinquish their inalienable rights to the authority of the sovereign e. all men deserve the right to vote and gain parliamentary representation based on population numbers Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 39 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 24. Which of these states enacted state constitutions in 1777? a. New York, Georgia, and Vermont b. Georgia, Massachusetts, and Vermont c. New York, Connecticut, and Rhode Island d. Connecticut, Georgia, and Rhode Island e. Vermont, Georgia, and Massachusetts Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 40 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

25. Why were the new state constitutions revolutionary? a. They were unwritten but strictly followed, unlike the English constitution. b. They were the accumulation of laws written over time and based on customs and traditions. c. They were adopted at a specific moment in time. d. They established independence, yet still submitted to the rule of a king. e. They lacked the specified principles and structures of previous constitutions. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 40 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 26. Which state, the only one to do so, saw citizen voters ratify their state constitution? a. Georgia b. Vermont c. Rhode Island d. Connecticut e. Massachusetts Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 40 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 27. Bicameral legislatures contain two separate parts, known as a. departments. b. chambers. c. houses. d. parliaments. e. bodies. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 40 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

28. How many governing bodies were created for the United States within the Articles of Confederation? a. one b. two c. three d. four e. six Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 41 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 29. Which of the following statements reflect the constitutional structure within the Articles of Confederation (1781–1789)? a. Approval of policies and treaty ratification required nine affirmative votes. b. State courts retained jurisdiction over most legal matters, except in cases of inter-state conflict. c. State governments would implement and pay for congressionally-approved policies. d. Any constitutional amendments required unanimous approval of all 13 states. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 41 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 30. Which of the following chronological sequences of events is correct? a. Boston Tea Party; First Continental Congress; Declaration of Independence b. Shays’s Rebellion; Annapolis Convention; Declaration of Independence c. Declaration of Independence; Stamp Act; Philadelphia Convention d. Articles of Confederation; Declaration of Independence; Annapolis Convention e. First Continental Congress; Stamp Act; Articles of Confederation Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 38-42 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

31. Shays’s Rebellion a. was a successful revolt. b. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too powerful. c. convinced many political leaders that the national government was not powerful enough. d. reinforced public support for the Articles of Confederation. e. occurred after the Philadelphia Convention of 1787. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Creation of the United States of America Page: 42 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 32. Which state was the only one of the following that did NOT send delegates to the Constitutional Convention on 1787? a. New England b. Rhode Island c. New York d. New Jersey e. Maryland Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 42 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 33. Whose work, entitled The Spirit of the Laws (1748), provided the concept of separation of powers later adopted by the framers of the Constitution? a. John Locke b. Thomas Hobbes c. Jean-Jacques Rousseau d. Baron de Montesquieu e. François-Marie Arouet Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 43 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

34. At Philadelphia, who proposed the Virginia Plan, which included a three-branch government? a. James Madison b. William Paterson c. Benjamin Franklin d. George Washington e. John Hancock Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 43 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 35. The Connecticut Compromise (or Great Compromise) produced a. checks and balances. b. the abolition of slavery. c. a bicameral Congress. d. separation of powers. e. federalism. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 45 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 36. What issue led to the Three-Fifths Compromise? a. states rights b. individual liberty versus federal power c. slavery d. foreign treaties e. disagreement over separation of powers Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 46 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

37. The writers of the Constitution devised the Electoral College as the method of choosing presidents because a. direct election was impractical, due to the poor systems of communication and transportation that existed in the late 1700s. b. the method would shield executive power from popular majorities and Congress. c. the method guaranteed a majority winner. d. the method would give weight to the preferences of ordinary people. e. the framers had a great deal of faith in the wisdom of the masses. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 45 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 38. Under the original Constitution, Congress could not ban the slave trade until ________. a. 1808 b. 1818 c. 1828 d. 1857 e. 1865 Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 46 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 39. According to Article I of the Constitution, a proposed piece of legislation requires a ________ in both the House and Senate to become law. a. simple majority of votes b. three-fifths majority vote c. two-thirds majority vote d. three-quarters majority vote e. unanimous vote Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 47 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

40. According to Article II of the Constitution, which body of government checks the legislative authority of Congress? a. the judiciary b. the executive c. the president of the Senate d. the Electoral College e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 47 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 41. Article III of the Constitution describes the powers and structure of which of the following? a. legislative branch b. executive branch c. judicial branch d. state-to-state relations e. the amendment process Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 47 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 42. Marbury v. Madison is a landmark Supreme Court decision because it a. established national supremacy. b. set the precedent for judicial review. c. defined the scope of state powers under the Tenth Amendment. d. affirmed the necessary and proper clause. e. helped to end Thomas Jefferson’s political career. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 47 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

43. Article ________ of the Constitution details the process of constitutional amendment. a. IV b. V c. VI d. VII e. VIII Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 48 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 44. Which article of the Constitution describes the process of constitutional ratification? a. Article IV b. Article V c. Article VI d. Article VII e. Article VIII Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 48 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 45. The Federalist Papers were written by a. Washington, Adams, and Jefferson. b. Madison, Hamilton, and Jay. c. Marshall, Jefferson, and Madison. d. Jefferson, Washington, and Madison. e. Marshall, Jay, and Jefferson. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 50 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

46. Who among the following was considered, along with Thomas Jefferson, to be one of the most influential of the Anti-Federalists? a. George Washington b. Alexander Hamilton c. Mercy Otis Warren d. John Jay e. James Madison Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 51 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 47. What year saw the passage of the Bill of Rights? a. 1787 b. 1789 c. 1791 d. 1793 e. 1795 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 51 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 48. Which constitutional amendment indicated that the list of already-included civil liberties in previous amendments was not exhaustive? a. Sixth Amendment b. Seventh Amendment c. Eighth Amendment d. Ninth Amendment e. Tenth Amendment Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Crafting the Constitution: Compromise, Ratification, and Quick Amendment Page: 51 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

49. How many proposed constitutional amendments have been introduced in Congress since 1789? a. over 100 b. over 500 c. over 1,000 d. over 5,000 e. over 10,000 Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Constitution as a Living, Evolving Document Page: 52 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution 50. How many amendments have actually been ratified by the states since 1789? a. 23 b. 27 c. 29 d. 33 e. 35 Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Constitution as a Living, Evolving Document Page: 53 Teaching Emphasis: The Constitution

Essay Questions: 51. Define what a constitution is, and compare and contrast the structures of written and unwritten constitutions. Answer: A constitution presents the fundamental principles of a government and establishes the basic structures and procedures by which the government operates to fulfill those principles. Constitutions may be written or unwritten. An unwritten constitution, such as that of Great Britain, is a collection of written laws approved by a legislative body and unwritten common laws established by judges based on custom, culture, habit, and previous judicial decision. In contrast, a written constitution, such as the Constitution of the United States, is one specific document supplemented by judicial interpretations that clarify its meaning.

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

52. Outline the factors that led to increased friction between Britain and its North American colonial subjects during the eighteenth century. Answer: Unlike British subjects living in England in the period before the War for Independence, the colonists, who also regarded themselves as British, were largely excluded from participating in the political process. This exclusion alienated the American colonists, who since early colonization had become used to managing most of their local affairs. This changed after the Seven Years’ War, as Britain attempted to shift the costs of colonial governance onto the colonies themselves. A series of British laws such as the Stamp, Quartering, and Declaratory Acts were seen by the colonists as unreasonable and onerous. 53. Identify the factors that encouraged the formation of the Continental Congress. Answer: The Continental Congress emerged as a response to several issues: anger over the British government’s passage of laws that, in the eyes of opponents such as Samuel Adams, fundamentally infringed on colonial liberties; sympathy for Massachusetts, which after the “Boston Massacre” and the Tea Party, chafed under martial law; and finally, a realization of the growing shared consciousness of the colonials and their understanding of the need for collective action. 54. Discuss the intellectual origins of the Declaration of Independence. Answer: Created by Thomas Jefferson and unanimously endorsed by the Second Continental Congress on July 4, 1776, the Declaration of Independence drew upon the work of John Locke and Jean-Jacques Rousseau. Locke argued that all people are born free and equal, and enjoy inalienable rights, such as life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. Governments exist to protect and preserve these rights. Rousseau expanded this argument by stating that people create their governments, and therefore governments derive their authority from the people. 55. Outline the important features of the federal structure created by the Articles of Confederation. Answer: The Articles of Confederation were ratified by 13 states in 1781. The Articles created a unicameral legislature, the Congress. Each state had from two to seven delegates, but only one vote. The Articles did not create any other governing bodies, and the Congress had limited authority, with most matters remaining in the hands of the states. 56. Explain and discuss the important features of the system of dual sovereignty. Answer: The framers of the Constitution created an innovative system of government with dual sovereignty—a system of government in which governing authority is divided between two levels of government, a central government and regional governments, with each level having ultimate authority over different policy matters.

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Chapter 2 The Constitution

57. Discuss the formation of electors and the Electoral College, and discuss the role they play in the election of the president and vice president. Answer: In order to limit the threat of tyranny by the majority, the framers of the Constitution devised a system of electing the president and vice president. The Constitution delegates to states the authority to appoint individuals, known as electors, to elect the president and vice president. Today, in nearly every state, popular votes determine which political party’s slate of electors will participate on popular behalf in the Electoral College, the name given to the body of electors that selects the president and vice president. 58. Identify and explain the features of executive power that the Constitution grants as checks on legislative power. Answer: Executive power checks the legislative authority of Congress in two important ways. First, through the power of veto, the president can send bills back to Congress for amendment, with his objections noted. Second, the president, through his power to nominate—although not ratify—federal judges, can influence and shape the interpretation of federal law. 59. Discuss the chief issues of debate between Federalists and Anti-Federalists. Answer: Immediately after the publication of the 1787 Constitution, both supporters and opponents began to debate the merits of the stronger national government it had created. The Federalists, such as James Madison and Alexander Hamilton, supported the Constitution on the grounds that it provided the greatest likelihood of preserving individual liberties by preventing external encroachment. The Anti-Federalists, led by Thomas Jefferson, argued that the Constitution placed too much power with the federal government at the expense of the states and individual freedoms. 60. Identify the factors that have allowed for the continuous re-interpretation of the Constitution since its creation. Answer: Several factors have enabled the Constitution to remain relevant as society has changed. First, the role of judicial review, which grants courts the power to re-interpret constitutional law, has enabled considerable flexibility. Second, technological change has driven constitutional reinterpretation, as new technologies such as computers and the Internet encouraged the revision and re-interpretation of the Fourth Amendment.

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Chapter 3 Federalism

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 3: Federalism Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. American colonists experienced three different types of government in which of these sequences? a. unitary system, confederal system, federal system b. unitary system, federal system, confederal system c. confederal system, federal system, unitary system d. federal system, confederal system, unitary system e. confederal system, unitary system, federal system Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: An Overview of the U.S. Federal System Page: 82 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 2. Today, the majority of the world’s governments have which system of government? a. federal system b. confederal system c. unitary system d. authoritarian system e. representative system Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: An Overview of the U.S. Federal System Page: 83 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 3. Under which type of governmental structure do independent sovereign governments cooperate on specified governmental matters, but retain sovereignty over all other governmental matters within their jurisdictions? a. federal system b. confederal system c. representative system d. authoritarian system e. unitary system Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: An Overview of the U.S. Federal System Page: 83 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 3 Federalism

4. How many local governments are there in the United States? a. less than 8,000 b. approximately 8,900 c. approximately 58,000 d. approximately 80,000 e. more than 89,000 Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: An Overview of the U.S. Federal System Page: 84 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 5. Which body retains primary jurisdiction over local governments? a. none—local governments are sovereign b. state governments c. the federal government d. the Supreme Court e. the governor in each state Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: An Overview of the U.S. Federal System Page: 84 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 6. Most Americans live under the jurisdiction of how many governments simultaneously? a. three b. four c. five d. ten e. more than twelve Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: An Overview of the U.S. Federal System Page: 84 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

7. Which of the following are considered inherent or concurrent powers available to federal, state, and local governments? a. the authority to make policy b. the authority to raise money c. the authority to establish courts to interpret policy d. the authority to implement policy e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 86 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 8. Which of the following is most closely related to the concept of implied powers? a. necessary and proper clause b. supremacy clause c. Tenth Amendment d. the commerce clause e. the power to tax Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 86 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 9. The elastic clause is related to which of the following concepts? a. enumerated powers b. reserved powers c. implied powers d. concurrent powers e. All these answers are correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 86 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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10. The supremacy clause, which establishes the supreme law of the land, is mentioned in which article of the Constitution? a. Article I b. Article III c. Article IV d. Article V e. Article VI Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 87 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 11. What view does the Constitution take regarding the legal status of Native American nations? a. They are considered special interest groups. b. They are considered local governments. c. They are considered state governments. d. They are considered sovereign foreign nations. e. They are considered outside the Constitution’s legal framework. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 88 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 12. How many Native American nations are recognized today by the federal government? a. 5 b. 55 c. 355 d. 450 e. more than 550 Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 88 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

13. Where do most Native Americans live today? a. on reservations b. in rural areas c. in cities d. in mountainous states e. in the south and east Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 88 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 14. What percentage of states must ratify a constitutional amendment for it to pass? a. simple majority b. three-fifths c. two-thirds d. three-quarters e. seven-eighths Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 88-89 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 15. The powers accorded to the states in the Tenth Amendment are known as ________ powers. a. police b. reserved c. implied d. concurrent e. enumerated Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 89 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

16. McCulloch v. Maryland was decisive because it a. ruled in favor of state-centered federalism. b. asserted that the necessary and proper clause was a restriction on the power of the national government. c. affirmed that national law is supreme to conflicting state law. d. established the Supreme Court’s power to judge constitutional issues. e. allowed for a narrow reading of the Constitution. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 90 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 17. Which case saw the Supreme Court strike down the national Gun-Free School Zones Act as unconstitutional? a. Ogden v. Gibbons b. Marbury v. Madison c. Lochner v. Ellison d. United States v. Lopez e. Garcia v. San Antonio Transportation Authority Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 90 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 18. The impact of which event on Americans led to the passage of the Social Security Act of 1935? a. World War I b. the Great Depression c. the Spanish Civil War d. German hyperinflation e. the Florida real estate crash of 1929 Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 90 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

19. Collectively, state-to-state obligations and their mandated relationships are known as a. horizontal federalism. b. vertical federalism. c. confederalism. d. unitary federalism. e. privileges and immunities. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 91 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 20. Which branch of government oversees interstate compacts? a. Congress b. state governors in each affected state c. the federal judiciary d. state supreme courts e. the president Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 91 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 21. Which of the following has the power under the Constitution to request or refuse extradition? a. state legislatures b. state governors in each affected state c. the federal judiciary d. state supreme courts e. the Supreme Court Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 92 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

22. In most states, how long must new residents wait until they can register to vote? a. 3 days b. 7 days c. 30 days d. 90 days e. 180 days Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 92 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 23. The full faith and credit clause, which asserts states must recognize each other’s public acts, records, and judicial proceedings, is located in which article of the Constitution? a. Article II b. Article III c. Article IV d. Article VI e. Article VIII Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 92 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 24. What phrase is used by political scientists to describe the way state judges base decisions on state constitutions when those laws grant more liberties and rights than those guaranteed under the U.S. Constitution? a. horizontal federalism b. new judicial federalism c. judicial libertarianism d. judicial individualism e. interstate compacts Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 12 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 93 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

25. In which legal case did the U.S. Supreme Court side with the petitioners in their argument that their state constitution granted them greater freedom of expression than is guaranteed by the U.S. Constitution? a. Pruneyard Shopping Center and Fred Sahadi v. Michael Robins et al. b. Garcia v. San Antonio Transportation Authority c. United States v. Lopez d. Lochner v. Ellison e. Ogden v. Gibbons Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Constitutional Distribution of Authority Page: 93 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 26. Which type of power relationship prevailed between the national government and the states between 1789 and 1932? a. horizontal federalism b. new judicial federalism c. cooperative federalism d. dual federalism e. centralized federalism Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 93-94 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 27. Which of these eras saw the appearance of cooperative federalism? a. 1789–1861 b. 1861–1870 c. 1882–1932 d. 1932–1963 e. 1963–1969 Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 94 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

28. Whose presidency marked the appearance of centralized federalism, where the national government imposed its own policy preferences on state and local governments? a. Abraham Lincoln b. Ulysses Grant c. Theodore Roosevelt d. Franklin Roosevelt e. Lyndon Johnson Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 94 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 29. Which of these pairs of presidents are most closely associated with new federalism, or devolution? a. Andrew Jackson and William McKinley b. Ulysses Grant and Andrew Johnson c. Theodore Roosevelt and Woodrow Wilson d. Dwight Eisenhower and Harry Truman e. Richard Nixon and Ronald Reagan Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 94 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 30. What term has been coined to describe today’s national-state government relations? a. conflicted federalism b. new federalism c. centralized federalism d. cooperative federalism e. dual federalism Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 94 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

31. Which three constitutional amendments have been most influential in shaping the nationalstate power relationship? a. Fourth, Fifth, and Sixth b. Eighth, Ninth, and Fourteenth c. Tenth, Fourteenth, and Sixteenth d. Fourteenth, Sixteenth, and Seventeenth e. Sixteenth, Nineteenth, and Twentieth Answer: d Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 96 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 32. What event significantly influenced the national-state power relationship? a. the Louisiana Purchase b. the War of 1812 c. the Civil War d. the Spanish-American War e. World War I Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 96 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 33. The ________ Amendment legally ended slavery in every state. a. Twelfth b. Thirteenth c. Fourteenth d. Fifteenth e. Sixteenth Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 96 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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34. Which legal case saw the Supreme Court apply the Fourteenth Amendment’s equal protection clause? a. United States v. Lopez b. Garcia v. San Antonio Transportation Authority c. Pruneyard Shopping Center and Fred Sahadi v. Michael Robins et al. d. Lochner v. Ellison e. Bush v. Gore Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 96 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 35. Passed in 1913, which constitutional amendment powerfully enhanced the national government’s ability to raise money? a. Fourteenth b. Fifteenth c. Sixteenth d. Seventeenth e. Eighteenth Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 97 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 36. According to some scholars, passage of which amendment led to a loss of influence of state governments in national policy-making? a. Fourteenth b. Fifteenth c. Sixteenth d. Seventeenth e. Eighteenth Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 97 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

37. The provision of categorical and block grant money by the federal government to state and local governments has resulted in a relationship between the two of a. cooperative federalism. b. dual federalism. c. centralized federalism. d. horizontal federalism. e. fiscal federalism. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 97 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 38. Historically, which of these has been the most common form of national grant-in-aid to the states? a. categorical project grants b. matching funds grants c. block grants d. categorical formula grants e. national priority grants Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 97 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 39. Based on the 2010 Census data, how much money will the national government distribute to the states in grant dollars? a. 40 billion b. 140 billion c. 240 billion d. 340 billion e. over 400 billion Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 98 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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40. What type of national grant-in-aid requires state and local governments to compete for funding by writing needs-based proposals? a. national priority grants b. categorical formula grants c. categorical project grants d. block grants e. matching funds grants Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 98 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 41. Which type of governmental transfer of funds gives states the most latitude in the use of the money? a. categorical project grants b. matching funds grants c. block grants d. categorical formula grants e. national priority grants Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 98 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 42. Which 1923 court case saw state government opposition to conditions within national grants come to a head? a. Bush v. Gore b. Lochner v. Ellison c. United States v. Lopez d. Massachusetts v. Mellon e. South Dakota v. Dole Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 99 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

43. The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (AARA) that was enacted in February 2009 to stimulate the nation’s economy distributed money to state and local governments for specific government programs related to health, nutrition, and income security. This money was a a. block grant. b. categorical project grant. c. categorical formula grant. d. federal loan. e. conditional grant. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 99 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 44. Intergovernmental lobbying involves which of the following actions? a. individual and coordinated efforts to limit grant conditions b. efforts to ensure favorable grant formulas c. efforts to ensure the equal consideration of public and private interests d. efforts to ensure the survival of necessary grants-in-aid e. individual and coordinated efforts to limit grant conditions, efforts to ensure favorable grant formulas, and efforts to ensure the survival of necessary grants-in-aid Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 99 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 45. Clauses in national laws that direct state and local governments to do something specified by the national government are known as a. declarations. b. categorical grants. c. mandates. d. supplementary clauses. e. preemptive clauses. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 100 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

46. The fact that states must enforce a national law that is based on a constitutionally enumerated or implied power even if the state government has its own law on the matter is based on the principle of a. categorical grants. b. intergovernmental relations. c. mandates. d. fiscal federalism. e. preemption. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Evolution of the Federal System Page: 101 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 47. What features and abilities must a government have to govern effectively? a. authority to formulate and approve a plan of action b. authority to raise and spend money c. authority to hire workers to take action d. authority to raise and spend money, and to hire workers to take action e. The government must have all of these to govern effectively. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Intergovernmental Relations (IGR) Page: 101 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 48. What term is used by political scientists to describe the collaborative effort of two or more levels of government? a. federalism b. confederalism c. intergovernmental relations d. governmental collaboration e. inter-public partnership Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Intergovernmental Relations (IGR) Page: 101 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

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Chapter 3 Federalism

49. Which branch of government in the United States is responsible for education policy? a. state government b. local government c. federal government d. the president e. the Supreme Court Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Intergovernmental Relations (IGR) Page: 101 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism 50. Which levels of government provide funding for elementary and secondary education? a. state government b. local and state government c. federal and local government d. local and state governments e. federal, state, and local governments Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Intergovernmental Relations (IGR) Page: 101 Teaching Emphasis: Federalism

Essay Questions: 51. Outline the key features of a unitary system of government. Answer: In a unitary system, such as that of Great Britain, the central government is sovereign and can create other governments and delegate powers and responsibilities to them. The central government can unilaterally take away responsibilities it has delegated to the regional governments, and can even eliminate them. This system prevailed in America during the colonial period, and today, a majority of the world’s nations have unitary governments. 52. Explain the reasons behind the establishment of the federal system established after 1787. Answer: After the War for Independence, a confederal system under the Articles of Confederation was established. This system increasingly came into question, as the colonists realized that a stronger union would be necessary to preserve unity, ensure national defense, and protect certain guaranteed rights and liberties. In Philadelphia in 1787, delegates drafted a new federalist system that included dual sovereignty, and also modified the sovereignty of existing state governments.

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Chapter 3 Federalism

53. Explain the difference between enumerated and implied powers, and give examples of each. Answer: The Constitution distributes powers that are enumerated, or specifically listed, and implied for the national government’s three branches—legislative, judicial, and executive. Enumerated powers include Congress’s authority to make laws, oversight over interstate and foreign commerce, the money system, general welfare, and national defense. Congress’s implied powers—powers that are not specifically described but may be interpreted to be necessary to fulfill enumerated powers—are validated through the necessary and proper clause, or the elastic clause, which allows the national government to stretch its enumerated authority. 54. Outline the chief features of the Tenth Amendment, and provide examples of the powers it grants to the states. Answer: The Tenth Amendment grants numerous powers to the states, because many people feared the new national government might attempt to overreach it powers. It asserts that powers not delegated to the national government by the Constitution, nor those prohibited by it, are reserved to the states. This reserved-powers clause acknowledged the domestic matters and daily affairs that the states exercised authority over, such as births, deaths, and marriages. These reserved powers also included police powers, to protect health, safety, and property. 55. Discuss the significance of McCulloch v. Maryland in shaping the development of enumerated powers of the national government. Answer: The case of McCulloch v. Maryland was a Supreme Court ruling that established the use of implied powers by the national government to expand its enumerated authority. Based on Congress’s establishment of a national bank in Maryland, the Court ruled that Maryland had no power to tax the bank. The Court affirmed through this decision once and for all that in the event of a conflict between national legislation and state legislation, the national law is supreme as long as it complies with enumerated and implied powers. 56. Discuss and explain the full faith and credit clause, and provide examples of its application. Answer: The full faith and credit clause is a state-to-state obligation, and stems from Article IV, Section 1 of the Constitution. It asserts that each state must recognize as legally binding—valid and enforceable—the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of every other state. An example is driver’s licenses; another would be residency-based voting rights. 57. Outline the key features of the Seventeenth Amendment, and identify its effects on intergovernmental relations since its passage. Answer: Ratified in 1913, the Seventeenth Amendment shifted the power to elect senators away from state legislatures to a popular vote. Some scholars have argued this shift significantly lessened the influence of state governments and legislators over national policy-making. 58. Identify key features of the ARRA (American Recovery and Reinvestment Act) of 2009. Answer: Passed in February 2009, the ARRA (American Recovery and Reinvestment Act) was designed to stimulate the nation’s economy through provision of over $280 billion to state and local governments, part of a $499 billion package of government financing. Much of this money came in the form of categorical formula grants for specific programs related to health, nutrition, and income security. Where they had discretion, state governments used the funds to keep teachers and police, and also fund local construction projects.

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59. Identify at least two types of national mandates, and explain their key features. Answer: National mandates are clauses in national laws, including grants-in-aid, that direct state and local governments to do things specified by the national government. Preemption is often used to create them. Many mandates relate to civil rights and liberties, such as that of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 that required all government buildings to be disabled-accessible. Funded mandates are those paid for entirely by the national government, whereas unfunded mandates include costs to state and local governments. 60. Define the concept of intergovernmental relations, and provide examples of its application in the contemporary United States. Answer: In the United States, the responsibility for the three elements of any given policy—the policy statement, financing, and implementation—often may be shared in a collaborative effort by two or more levels of government. This is known as intergovernmental relations (IGR), and it defines a considerable amount of government action. The provision of services such as elementary and secondary public education, and also public health services, are examples of IGR.

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 4: Civil Liberties Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Which of the following pairs of terms are considered interchangeable? a. interstate compacts and extraditions b. enumerated powers and implied powers c. civil rights and civil liberties d. liberties and freedoms e. horizontal federalism and conflicted federalism Answer: d Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in the American Legal System Page: 110 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 2. The first ________ amendments to the Constitution explicitly limited the power of legislative, executive, and judicial branches of the national government. a. seven b. nine c. ten d. twelve e. fifteen Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in the American Legal System Page: 111 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 3. Which of the following forms of opinion-based communication is/are protected by the Constitution? a. political participation b. blogs and email c. rallies and speeches d. letters and pamphlets e. blogs and email, letters and pamphlets, and rallies and speeches Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in the American Legal System Page: 111 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

4. A legal safeguard that prevents the government from arbitrarily depriving citizens of life, liberty, or property is a a. First Amendment right. b. habeas corpus. c. bill of rights. d. Fifth Amendment right e. due process protection. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in the American Legal System Page: 111 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 5. Which branch of government did the framers of the Constitution seek to restrict in power with the Bill of Rights? a. national government b. state government c. local government d. national and state government e. national, state, and local government Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in the American Legal System Page: 112 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 6. The freedoms contained in the Bill of Rights are a. incontrovertible. b. broad principles. c. easily interpreted. d. specific rules. e. prohibitive of specific governmental action. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in the American Legal System Page: 112 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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7. The Supreme Court has selectively incorporated some of the Bill of Rights and applied them to state action through the a. Fifth Amendment. b. Second Amendment. c. First Amendment. d. Fourteenth Amendment. e. Thirteenth Amendment. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in the American Legal System Page: 114 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 8. Which of the following Bill of Rights protections has/have NOT been extended to the state level? a. prohibition of quartering of soldiers in citizens’ homes b. a provision for a grand jury indictment in criminal cases c. provision of a jury in a civil trial d. freedom of worship e. prohibition of quartering of soldiers in citizens’ homes, right to a grand jury indictment in criminal cases, and right to a jury in a civil trial Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in the American Legal System Page: 115 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 9. Which means of political expression is guaranteed under the Constitution? a. speech b. assembly c. petition d. the press e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 116 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

10. Which concept argues that true and free political discourse requires a forum for free and unrestrained political discussion? a. confederalism b. divine right theory c. marketplace of ideas d. horizontal federalism e. intergovernmental relations Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 116 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 11. The conflict between the Constitution’s competing goals of protecting freedom and ensuring order is most evident in which of the following? a. Alien and Sedition Acts b. habeas corpus c. Griswold v. Connecticut d. double jeopardy e. total incorporation Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 116 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 12. Which of the following protects an individual from being held in custody without the right to be heard in a court of law? a. right to privacy b. First Amendment right c. rendition d. habeas corpus e. double jeopardy Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 116 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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13. During the Civil War, which legal right did President Abraham Lincoln suspend as a means of silencing political dissidents? a. access to legal counsel b. the writ of habeas corpus c. access to early release and parole d. foreign residency status e. the right of assembly Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 116 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 14. Which legal case established the clear and present danger test in relation to free speech? a. Gitlow v. New York b. United States v. Lopez c. Schenck v. United States d. Lochner v. Ellison e. Marbury v. Madison Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 117 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 15. ________ established the bad tendency test, which made it easier to punish citizens for speech content. a. Gitlow v. New York b. United States v. Lopez c. Schenck v. United States d. Lochner v. Ellison e. Marbury v. Madison Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 118 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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16. Which piece of legislation barred individuals from advocating or teaching the overthrow of the United States? a. Alien and Sedition Acts b. Morrell Act c. Smith Act d. Patriot Act e. Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 118 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 17. Which 1969 legal case marked a reversal of the Supreme Court’s traditional position and also saw the establishment of the imminent lawless action test? a. Dennis v. United States b. Gitlow v. New York c. Schenck v. United States d. United States v. Lopez e. Brandenburg v. Ohio Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 118 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 18. Picketing, flag burning, or wearing an armband are all examples of a. pure speech. b. symbolic speech. c. commercial speech. d. unprotected speech. e. political speech. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 119 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

19. Which legal case concerned the burning of the American flag and led to a series of legal challenges? a. Dennis v. United States b. Gitlow v. New York c. Texas v. Johnson d. Brandenburg v. Ohio e. Tinker v. Des Moines Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 120 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 20. False written statements that harm the reputation of another person are known as a. obscenity. b. slander. c. libel. d. fighting words. e. slander and fighting words. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 120 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 21. Spoken words that are known to be false and harmful to a person’s reputation are an example of a. obscenity. b. slander. c. libel. d. fighting words. e. slander and fighting words. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 120 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

22. Which case saw the Supreme Court develop a three-part test to legally define obscenity, or indecent or offensive speech? a. Chaplinsky v. New Hampshire b. Dennis v. United States c. Virginia v. Black d. Miller v. California e. United States v. O’Brien Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 120 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 23. In 1973 the Supreme Court developed a test by which a book, film, or other form of expression would be considered legally obscene. Which of the following was among the measures of that test? a. The work depicts or describes, in a patently offensive way, a form of sexual conduct specifically prohibited by an antiobscenity law. b. The average person, applying historical standards, finds specific aspects of the work appeal to the prurient interest. c. The work has a verifiable history of having inspired additional works of an obscene nature or demands, in some manner, that obscenities be created. d. The work’s literary, artistic, political, or scientific value can be shown to be against the common good. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 120-121 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

24. A city ordinance that prohibits the use of bullhorns after midnight in residential neighborhoods would be a. an unconstitutional prohibition of the freedom of assembly. b. constitutional as long as it did not apply to protest speech. c. unconstitutional, unless it dealt specifically with fighting words. d. constitutional as long as it was content neutral. e. a matter of state and local law, not subject to the federal Constitution. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 121 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 25. The principle of prior restraint, established in the case of Near v. Minnesota, relates to a. freedom of speech. b. libel. c. slander. d. freedom of assembly. e. censorship. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Speech, Assembly, and the Press: First Amendment Freedoms Supporting Civic Discourse Page: 122 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 26. What do the religion clauses of the First Amendment achieve? a. bar the government from establishing a national religion b. bar the government from favoring one religious group over another c. ensure that individuals are not hindered in exercising their religion d. bar the practicing of religion on public property e. bar the government from establishing a national religion, from favoring one group over another, and from interfering with individual religious practices Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 123 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

27. Most Americans believe in ________ between religious organizations and the government. a. complete separation b. some degree of separation c. minor connections d. major connections e. a permanent supportive relationship Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 123 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 28. Which case saw the Supreme Court rule against the subsidization of parochial schools through cigarette taxes? a. Virginia v. Black b. United States v. O’Brien c. Loving v. Virginia d. Lemon v. Kurtzman e. Griswold v. Connecticut Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 124 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 29. Which case saw the Supreme Court rule against formalized prayer in schools? a. Virginia v. Black b. Engel v. Vitale c. Loving v. Virginia d. Lemon v. Kurtzman e. Griswold v. Connecticut Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 124 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

30. All of these groups tend to be involved in cases that involve the free exercise clause EXCEPT a. Mormons. b. Jehovah’s Witnesses. c. the Roman Catholic Church. d. the Amish. e. Christian Scientists. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 126 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 31. After the ruling on Employment Division, Department of Human Resources v. Smith, members of which church were excluded from several states’ controlled-substance laws? a. Mormons b. the Native American Church c. Roman Catholic Church d. the Amish e. Christian Scientists Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 126 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 32. Which case, decided in 1965, first firmly established the right to privacy? a. Griswold v. Connecticut b. Employment Division, Department of Human Resources v. Smith c. Lemon v. Kurtzman d. Loving v. Virginia e. Engel v. Vitale Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 127 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

33. What year saw the passage of Roe v. Wade, which first established abortion rights in the United States? a. 1962 b. 1963 c. 1971 d. 1973 e. 1978 Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 127 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 34. The recent development of online networking sites such as Facebook and YouTube has civil libertarians worried about the easy accessibility of people’s ________ history. a. financial b. personal c. employment d. legal e. financial, personal, employment, and legal Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 129 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 35. Which four amendments are known together as criminal due process rights? a. Fourth, Fifth, Sixth, Seventh b. Third, Fourth, Fifth, Sixth c. Fourth, Fifth, Sixth, Tenth d. Fourth, Fifth, Sixth, Eighth e. Sixth, Eighth, Tenth, and Fourteenth Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 130 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

36. Which 1961 decision extended exclusionary rules of search and seizure to state court proceedings? a. Griswold v. Connecticut b. Engel v. Vitale c. Employment Division, Department of Human Resources v. Smith d. Mapp v. Ohio e. Miranda v. Arizona Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 131 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 37. Since the ________, the U.S. Supreme Court has expanded the situations in which there is no reasonable expectation of privacy and thus no need for a search warrant. a. 1950s b. 1960s c. 1970s d. 1980s e. 1990s Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 131 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 38. In which of the following places has the Court ruled that there is no expectation of privacy? a. private homes b. cars and one’s trash c. hotels d. parks and stores e. cars and one’s trash, and parks and stores Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 131 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

39. What did the Supreme Court rule in United States v. Jones in regards to the warrantless placement of a GPS tracing device in a suspect’s car? a. It is a violation of the Fourth Amendment. b. It is permissible under the Fourth Amendment. c. It is a violation of the Fifth Amendment. d. It is permissible under the Fifth Amendment. e. It is not a violation of the Fourth or Fifth Amendments because the suspect has no reasonable expectation of privacy. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 131 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 40. The Fifth Amendment establishes a. freedom of speech. b. freedom of assembly. c. protection against search and seizure. d. protection against compelled self-incrimination. e. the right to counsel. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 132 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 41. Miranda v. Arizona legally established which of the following personal liberties? a. protection against cruel and unusual punishment b. protection against harassment, persecution, and forced confessions c. the right to counsel and information on charges against oneself d. protection against unlawful detention or imprisonment without charge e. protection against unlawful search and seizure Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 132 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

42. Which 1972 legal case saw the Supreme Court suspend the use of the death penalty? a. Miranda v. Arizona b. Furman v. Georgia c. Baze v. Rees d. Miller v. California e. Mapp v. Ohio Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 132 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 43. In 1878 the Supreme Court upheld what type of capital punishment method in Utah? a. lethal injection b. hanging c. electrocution d. firing squad e. lethal injection and electrocution Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms of Religion, Privacy, and Criminal Due Process: Encouraging Community and Civic Engagement Page: 133 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 44. Which city’s gun control laws were overturned in a 2008 5–2 Supreme Court decision that hinged on an interpretation of the Second Amendment? a. New York, NY b. Newark, NJ c. Philadelphia, PA d. Atlanta, GA e. Washington, DC Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Freedoms in Practice: Controversy over the Second Amendment Right to Bear Arms Page: 133, 135 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

45. Following September 11, 2001, the ________ has/have been accused by the media and civil liberties groups of spying on Americans without their knowledge or judicial authorization? a. National Security Administration b. Federal Bureau of Investigation c. Central Intelligence Agency d. Central Intelligence Agency and the Federal Bureau of Investigation e. National Security Administration and the Federal Bureau of Investigation Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in Post-9/11 America Page: 136 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 46. Which organization showed its criticism of the government’s recent domestic surveillance program by filing a lawsuit challenging the constitutionality of the 2008 FISA Amendment Act, which increased the federal government’s warrantless surveillance abilities? a. Anti-Defamation League b. American Civil Liberties Union c. Amnesty International d. Human Rights Watch e. Citizens Against Warrantless Surveillance Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in Post-9/11 America Page: 136 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 47. Since September 11, 2001, the federal government’s powers of surveillance and observance have a. grown significantly. b. grown marginally. c. stayed the same. d. declined marginally. e. declined significantly. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in Post-9/11 America Page: 135 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Chapter 4 Civil Liberties

48. Which piece of legislation passed in 2007 legally empowers the NSA to wiretap any communications that begin or end in a foreign country? a. Protect America Act b. USA PATRIOT Act c. FISA Amendment Act d. Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act e. NSA Empowerment Act Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in Post-9/11 America Page: 137 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 49. The practice of transferring custody of suspected terrorists to other nations for imprisonment and interrogation is known as a. extradition. b. rendition. c. extraction. d. redaction. e. omission. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in Post-9/11 America Page: 137 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties 50. Which of the following began in 2011 for the purpose of speaking out against economic inequality and the influence of unregulated financial actors in politics? a. American Civil Liberties Union b. Second Amendment Sisters c. Occupy Movement d. Million Mom March e. Sustainable Preservation Initiative Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Civil Liberties in Post-9/11 America Page: 138 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Liberties

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Essay Questions: 51. Explain and discuss the difference between civil liberties and civil rights. Answer: Civil liberties differ from civil rights. Civil liberties are constitutionally established guarantees that protect citizens, opinions, and property against arbitrary government interference. In contrast, civil rights reflect positive acts of government, in the form of provisions or statutes, for the purpose of protecting individuals against arbitrary or discriminatory actions. 52. Identify the reasons why the Anti-Federalists argued for a separate, written bill of rights. Answer: Although the original Constitution included articles and sections that codified citizens’ protections, the Anti-Federalists, led by Thomas Jefferson, argued for the inclusion of a separate, written bill of rights. The freedoms embodied in the Bill of Rights, although broad principles, offer the advantage of being subject to interpretation and re-interpretation by successive Supreme Courts. 53. Define selective incorporation, and discuss its historical development. Answer: Selective incorporation is the process through which the Supreme Court has preferred to interpret the application of the Bill of Rights protections to the states. Rather than apply all the protections contained in the Bill of Rights simultaneously, the Court has preferred to rule on each individually, in a process that began only in 1925, with Gitlow v. New York. Several liberties still have not been applied to the states. 54. Discuss the creation of the clear and present danger test, and explain the government powers established under this standard. Answer: The clear and present danger test, a standard developed after the Supreme Court’s decision in the 1919 case Schenck v. United States, allows the government to silence free speech or expression, but only if there is a clear and present danger that such speech will bring about some harm that the government has the power to prevent. In the Schenck case, the Court ruled that the circumstances of war permit greater restrictions over freedom of speech than in peacetime. 55. Compare and contrast the Court’s interpretations and treatments of symbolic and commercial speech. Answer: The Supreme Court has developed different positions with regard to symbolic speech, which is nonverbal speech in the form of an action, and commercial speech, which it defines as commercial statements that describe or market products and services. The Court has traditionally protected symbolic speech through decisions such as Tinker v. Des Moines, while it extended far less support to commercial speech. However, the Supreme Court revised its previous rulings in the 2010 case Citizens United v. Federal Elections Commission, which legalized corporate election contributions as free speech.

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56. Identify and discuss the impact of time, place, and manner restrictions on freedom of assembly and political expression. Answer: Although the First Amendment allows people to assemble peacefully and to seek redress of grievances, the Court has consistently upheld the standard of time, place, and manner restrictions with regard to decisions in this area. These restrictions are regulations regarding when, where, or how expression may occur. These restrictions cannot target speech based on content, and must be applied in a content-neutral manner. 57. Outline and explain key features of the three interpretations of the establishment clause. Answer: The establishment clause focuses on the relationship between church and state, and argues that “Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion.” Originally designed to ensure that no national religion would be created, over time the establishment clause has generated three separate interpretations of its meaning. The first, separationism, argues for a strict separation of state and church. The second, neutrality or the preferential treatment standard, permits state support as long as it is applied equally to all groups. The third, accommodationism, also advocates support, provided this support does not rise to official recognition. 58. Discuss the implications of Griswold v. Connecticut for the Court’s interpretation of privacy rights. Answer: Until the landmark case of Griswold v. Connecticut, the Supreme Court had never legally codified the right to privacy, arguing that it was implied in all the other liberties in the Bill of Rights. This case, which centered around the state’s ability to regulate private couples’ access to birth control, established a zone of privacy around every person in the United States, and that government could not pass laws that encroached upon this zone. 59. Identify important features of the Fourth, Fifth, and Sixth Amendments. Answer: These amendments together are known as criminal due process rights. They establish the guidelines that the federal government must follow in investigating, bringing to trial, and punishing individuals guilty of violating criminal law. Each amendment guides the government in administering a section of this process, and all are intended to ensure justice and fairness for all. The Fourth Amendment protects against unreasonable searches and seizures, the Fifth Amendment guarantees the right to a fair trial, and the Sixth Amendment guarantees the right to counsel, promoted by the Miranda rights that emerged from the Court’s ruling in Miranda v. Arizona (1966). 60. Outline the course of public discussion on the balance between freedom and public safety since the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks. Answer: Since the September 11, 2001 attacks, public discussion on the proper and correct balance between personal freedoms and public safety has become increasingly intense, as the government has deployed a range of surveillance activities based on the concerns of national security and the desire to prevent another terrorist attack. Federal, state, and local governments argue these measures are necessary to ensure public safety, while civil libertarians worry about unprecedented violations of individual rights and freedoms.

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 5: Civil Rights Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. The Constitution imposes responsibilities, or civil rights, on which of the following groups? a. government officials b. private citizens c. private organizations d. government employees e. government officials and government employees Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Meaning of Equality under the Law Page: 146 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 2. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits businesses from making discriminatory hiring decisions based on which inherent characteristics? a. age and disability b. race, color, and sex c. religion and national origin d. sexual orientation e. race, color, sex, religion, and national origin Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Meaning of Equality under the Law Page: 147 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 3. Which tests do the courts apply to determine when unequal treatment is legal? a. imminent lawless action test and incitement test b. strict scrutiny test and ordinary scrutiny test c. strict scrutiny test, heightened scrutiny test, and ordinary scrutiny test d. imminent lawless action test and strict scrutiny test e. incitement test and heightened scrutiny test Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Meaning of Equality under the Law Page: 147 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

4. Which test is applied by the courts in cases related to suspect classifications? a. ordinary scrutiny test b. imminent lawless action test c. heightened scrutiny test d. strict scrutiny test e. incitement test Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Meaning of Equality under the Law Page: 147 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 5. Which 1967 case determined unconstitutional state laws barring interracial marriage? a. Loving v. Virginia b. Dear v. Minnesota c. Furman v. Georgia d. Minor v. Happersett e. Bradwell v. Illinois Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Meaning of Equality under the Law Page: 147 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 6. Sex-based discrimination cases are subject to which legal treatment test? a. incitement test b. strict scrutiny test c. heightened scrutiny test d. imminent lawless action test e. ordinary scrutiny test Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Meaning of Equality under the Law Page: 147-148 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

7. Using the ordinary scrutiny test, courts have been willing to allow what type of differential treatment? a. sex-based b. age-based c. race-based d. ethnic-based e. religion-based Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Meaning of Equality under the Law Page: 148 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 8. In what year were women granted the right to vote in the United States? a. 1909 b. 1916 c. 1920 d. 1929 e. 1930 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Meaning of Equality under the Law Page: 148 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 9. Which of the following did NOT help to sway public opinion in favor of the abolitionists in the 1850s? a. the Underground Railroad b. Uncle Tom’s Cabin c. Dred Scot v. Sandford d. John Brown’s execution e. Plessy v. Ferguson Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Slavery and Its Aftermath Page: 149 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

10. In which year did Congress pass the Missouri Compromise, which sought to regulate slavery in the western territories? a. 1810 b. 1820 c. 1830 d. 1840 e. 1850 Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Slavery and Its Aftermath Page: 150 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 11. The active yet nonviolent refusal to comply with morally-objectionable laws, used by abolitionist organizations like the American Anti-Slavery Society and civil rights activists like Martin Luther King, Jr., is known as what? a. affirmative action b. intersectionality c. strict scrutiny d. affirmative disobedience e. civil disobedience Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Slavery and Its Aftermath Page: 149,156 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 12. Which 1857 Supreme Court decision set the stage for the Civil War by mobilizing the abolitionist movement? a. Brown v. Board of Education b. Marbury v. Madison c. Dred Scott v. Sandford d. Lochner v. Ellison e. Loving v. Virginia Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Slavery and Its Aftermath Page: 149-150 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

13. Which constitutional amendments were passed in the aftermath of the Civil War, and codified the victory of the North? a. Twelfth and Thirteenth b. Twelfth, Thirteenth, and Fourteenth c. Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth d. Fourteenth, Fifteenth, and Sixteenth e. Fifteenth and Sixteenth Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Slavery and Its Aftermath Page: 151 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 14. Laws passed immediately after the Civil War by southern states that limited the rights of “freemen,” or former slaves, were known as a. Reconstruction laws. b. Jim Crow laws. c. voting rights laws. d. Black Codes. e. freedmen’s regulations. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Slavery and Its Aftermath Page: 151 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 15. Another name for the Civil Rights Act of 1872, which made it a federal crime to deprive individuals of their rights, is the a. Enforcement Act. b. Anti-Ku Klux Klan Act. c. Voting Rights Act. d. Equal Voting Rights Act. e. Equal Opportunity Act. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Slavery and Its Aftermath Page: 151 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

16. Which of the following were used in southern states during the Jim Crow era to deny African Americans their voting rights? a. white primaries b. literacy tests c. poll taxes d. grandfather clauses e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Slavery and Its Aftermath Page: 153 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 17. Which Court ruling created the separate but equal doctrine, which upheld state laws that mandated racial separation in schools and all public accommodations? a. Dred Scott v. Sandford b. Plessy v. Ferguson c. Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka d. Craig v. Boren e. Bowers v. Hardwick Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Slavery and Its Aftermath Page: 153 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 18. Which African American writer, scholar, and social activist is considered the father of social science? a. Oswald Garrison Villard b. William Lloyd Garrison c. Richard Wright d. Ralph Ellison e. W. E. B. Du Bois Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Civil Rights Movement Page: 154 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

19. Which aspect of racial discrimination became the primary target of the NAACP (National Association for the Advancement of Colored People) in its first decades of existence? a. Black Codes b. Jim Crow laws c. separate but equal doctrine d. de jure segregation e. standing to sue Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Civil Rights Movement Page: 154 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 20. Which Supreme Court decision ended the federal government’s support for separate but equal practices in the southern states? a. Plessy v. Ferguson b. Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka c. Loving v. Virginia d. Miller v. California e. Minor v. Happersett Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Civil Rights Movement Page: 155 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 21. Who was the first African American to sit on the U.S. Supreme Court? a. Thurgood Marshall b. Clarence Thomas c. W. E. B. Du Bois d. Oswald Garrison Villard e. Richard Wright Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Civil Rights Movement Page: 155 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

22. Southern miscegenation laws that banned interracial marriage or cohabitation are an example of a. a grandfather clause. b. de jure segregation. c. de facto segregation. d. the separate but equal doctrine. e. the Black Codes. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Slavery and Its Aftermath Page: 152 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 23. The Montgomery bus boycott began after the arrest of whom for refusing to give up a seat on the bus for a white man? a. Martin Luther King, Jr. b. Rosa Parks c. Homer Plessy d. Fannie Lou Hamer e. Thurgood Marshall Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Civil Rights Movement Page: 155 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 24. In what city was Martin Luther King, Jr. assassinated in 1968, setting off riots in more than 100 cities? a. Montgomery, Alabama b. Atlanta, Georgia c. Memphis, Tennessee d. Dallas, Texas e. Watts, California Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Civil Rights Movement Page: 157 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

25. ________, part of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, establishes a standard of equality in employment opportunity, and establishes a body of law that regulates legal employment practices. a. Title III b. Title IV c. Title V d. Title VI e. Title VII Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Government’s Response to the Civil Rights Movement Page: 158 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 26. Which civil rights legislation banned discriminatory voter registration practices, and mandated federal intervention in any county with less than 50 percent of those eligible registered to vote? a. Civil Rights Act of 1964 b. Voting Rights Act of 1965 c. Civil Rights Act of 1965 d. Civil Rights Act of 1968 e. Voting Rights Act of 1968 Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Government’s Response to the Civil Rights Movement Page: 159 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 27. Segregation that happens because of the tendency of people to live in neighborhoods with others of their own race, religion, or ethnic group is known as a. steering. b. de facto segregation. c. de jure segregation. d. Jim Crow. e. the Black Codes. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Government’s Response to the Civil Rights Movement Page: 159 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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28. In 1848, Lucretia Mott and Elizabeth Cady Stanton organized the first meeting of the U.S. women’s rights movement at a. Seneca Falls, New York. b. Chicago, Illinois. c. St. Louis, Missouri. d. Philadelphia, Pennsylvania. e. Charleston, South Carolina. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Movement for Women’s Civil Rights Page: 160 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 29. Where did most of the initial battles for women’s rights take place? a. at the federal level b. in the courts c. in the home d. with the president e. at the state level Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Movement for Women’s Civil Rights Page: 160 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 30. Which legal case was the first to argue that the Fourteenth Amendment’s protections also applied to women? a. Bradwell v. Illinois b. Minor v. Happersett c. Reed v. Reed d. Craig v. Boren e. Lawrence v. Texas Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Movement for Women’s Civil Rights Page: 160-161 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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31. Which amendment to the Constitution prohibits the federal government from abridging or denying citizens the right to vote on account of sex? a. Twentieth b. Twenty-First c. Nineteenth d. Eighteenth e. Fourteenth Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Movement for Women’s Civil Rights Page: 162 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 32. When did the second wave of the women’s movement begin? a. 1930s b. 1940s c. 1950s d. 1960s e. 1970s Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Movement for Women’s Civil Rights Page: 162 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 33. Women were provided equal protection under the law by a. the Equal Pay Act. b. Title VII. c. Title IX. d. the Equal Rights Amendment. e. Title VII, Title IX, and the Equal Pay Act. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Movement for Women’s Civil Rights Page: 163 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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34. Under the 1976 case of Craig v. Boren, in order for different treatment in a sex-based discrimination case to be legal it must be a. necessary to achieve a compelling public interest. b. a reasonable means for achieving a legitimate public interest. c. substantially related to an important government interest. d. rationally related to a legitimate government interest. e. narrowly tailored because it deals with a suspect classification. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Movement for Women’s Civil Rights Page: 163 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 35. The experience of facing discrimination for multiple reasons, such as because you are black, low-income, and female is known as a. steering. b. de facto segregation. c. de jure segregation. d. intersectionality. e. heightened scrutiny. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Movement for Women’s Civil Rights Page: 164 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 36. What outcome resulted from most of the 370 treaties entered into between Native American tribes and the federal government between 1778 and 1870? a. The tribes received access to land. b. The tribes were granted resource and occupancy rights, but not land. c. The tribes and the federal government reached financial settlements. d. The federal government reneged on its promises, and tribes received no land. e. The tribes sued the federal government for increased lands, and often won. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Other Civil Rights Movements Page: 165 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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37. Which Native American movement, formed in 1968, pursued aggressive tactics in an attempt to gain full legal equality? a. American Indian Movement b. American Indian Defense Association c. Indian Rights Association d. Society of American Indians e. Native Americans for Justice Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Other Civil Rights Movements Page: 165 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 38. Which is the largest minority group in the United States? a. African Americans b. Asian Americans c. Latinos d. Native Americans e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Other Civil Rights Movements Page: 166 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 39. Which 1971 Court decision established Latinos as a legally recognized minority group in the United States? a. Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka b. United States v. Lopez c. Mendez v. Westminister d. Corpus Christi Independent School District v. Cisneros e. Lawrence v. Texas Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Other Civil Rights Movements Page: 168 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

40. The mass movement for Mexican American civil rights, of which Cesar Chavez was a leader, is known as a. the Latino Movement. b. LULAC. c. the Chicano Movement. d. NALEO. e. the Lambda Legal Movement. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Other Civil Rights Movements Page: 167 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 41. From which country of origin does the largest percentage of Asian Americans derive? a. India b. China c. Japan d. Korea e. the Philippines Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Other Civil Rights Movements Page: 168 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 42. Which minority group enjoys the highest median income? a. African Americans b. Mexican Americans c. Asian Americans d. Native Americans e. Latinos Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Other Civil Rights Movements Page: 169 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

43. What year saw the passage of the Americans with Disabilities Act, which enhances the federal prohibition of discrimination against people with disabilities? a. 1968 b. 1973 c. 1988 d. 1990 e. 2008 Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Other Civil Rights Movements Page: 169 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 44. Which of the following statements about legal protections of LGBT citizens’ legal rights is the most accurate? a. Most LGBT-based discrimination is prohibited under federal law. b. Pursuant to executive order, most LGBT discrimination is illegal. c. Most LGBT legal protection comes from state antidiscrimination laws. d. Outside of Supreme Court jurisprudence, there is no other prohibition against LGBT-based discrimination. e. Legal protection for the LGBT community comes from both federal and the majority of state laws. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Other Civil Rights Movements Page: 171 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 45. Attacks against individuals are considered hate crimes under most state law based on all the following biases EXCEPT a. race or color. b. religious persuasion. c. nationality or ethnicity. d. disability. e. gender identity or sexual orientation. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Other Civil Rights Movements Page: 172 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

46. Which U.S. president was the first to define and use the term affirmative action? a. Franklin Roosevelt b. Dwight Eisenhower c. John F. Kennedy d. Lyndon Johnson e. Jimmy Carter Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Affirmative Action: Is It Constitutional? Page: 172 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 47. Private companies, nonprofit organizations, and government agencies that receive federal government contracts worth at least ________ are required by law to have an affirmative action plan. a. $1,000 b. $5,000 c. $10,000 d. $50,000 e. $100,000 Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Affirmative Action: Is It Constitutional? Page: 172 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 48. Colleges and universities use affirmative action policies to ensure a student body that is diverse in a. race. b. color. c. economic status. d. place of origin. e. race, color, economic status, and place of origin. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Affirmative Action: Is It Constitutional? Page: 173 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

49. Critics of affirmative action argue that it a. unreasonably favors certain minority groups over others. b. discriminates against Caucasian Americans. c. is a waste of federal resources. d. contains too many loopholes and exceptions. e. is no longer needed, as no discrimination exists in America today. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Affirmative Action: Is It Constitutional? Page: 172 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights 50. In Grutter v. Bollinger the Supreme Court ruled that in making admissions decisions universities could consider race a. not at all. b. as long as it was rationally related to a reasonable university policy. c. as a factor, but not an overriding factor. d. as its sole consideration. e. only if the university could show a lack of diversity. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Affirmative Action: Is It Constitutional? Page: 174 Teaching Emphasis: Civil Rights

Essay Questions: 51. Identify the three tests used by the federal government to determine the legality of suspect classifications. Answer: Because civil rights are not absolute, the national courts have created “tests” that can be used to determine when unequal treatment is legal. The strict scrutiny test is used to determine the legality of differential treatment based on a suspect classification (race, ethnic origin, religion). The heightened, or intermediate, scrutiny test is used to determine the legality of sexbased discrimination. The ordinary scrutiny or rational basis test is the weakest of the three tests and used in all other cases of differential treatment, such as in age-based discrimination cases. 52. Discuss the origins and features of Jim Crow laws. Answer: Jim Crow laws appeared in the South as a means of mandating racial segregation after the Civil War and Reconstruction. These laws required the strict separation of racial groups, with whites and “nonwhites” attending separate schools, working in different jobs, and using segregated public accommodations. These laws provided de jure segregation, and reflected the white view that the two societies should be separate.

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

53. Explain the key features of the separate but equal doctrine created by the Court’s ruling in Plessy v. Ferguson. Answer: The separate but equal doctrine resulted from the Plessy v. Ferguson decision in 1896. In a 7–1 ruling, the Court declared that separate but equal facilities did not violate the Fourteenth Amendment’s equal protection clause. Under this doctrine, the Court upheld state laws mandating separation of the races in schools and all public accommodations such as businesses, transport, restaurants, hotels, swimming pools, and other recreational facilities. 54. Discuss the role played by Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. in developing effective strategies against racial discrimination. Answer: Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. was a key individual within the civil rights movement of the 1960s. He was only 27 years old when he led a bus boycott in Montgomery, Alabama, to protest against Rosa Parks’s arrest and segregated public facilities. He went on to lead the national movement, and advocated protest through civil disobedience and peaceful demonstrations. His “I Have a Dream” speech attracted hundreds of thousands of people to Washington, D.C. His strategy was effective, even after his assassination in Memphis in 1968. 55. Outline the important provisions of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Answer: The government reacted to the civil rights movement by passing the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Simultaneously expanding many Americans’ rights and providing protections from discrimination, the act included many provisions that mandate equality. It outlaws arbitrary discrimination in voter registration practices; bans discrimination in all public accommodations and prohibits state authorities from imposing such prohibitions; empowers the U.S. Attorney General to sue to desegregate public schools; bars government agencies from discrimination; and establishes a standard of equality in employment opportunity. 56. Explain the impact of the civil rights movement on voter registration in the southern states. Answer: The civil rights movement was the culmination of many acts by individuals and groups that worked to increase voter turnout and registration in the South, as well as other goals. In terms of voter registration, the movement was an unqualified success, with many southern states seeing a greater percentage of African American voters registered than whites. 57. Discuss the reasons behind the failure to ratify the ERA (Equal Rights Amendment). Answer: The ERA was written by Alice Paul in 1923. By the 1970s, lobbying pressure encouraged Congress to consider the ERA for passage into law. Congress approved the ERA, but when it was sent to the states for ratification opponents argued against it, arguing that it duplicated the Fourteenth Amendment and was unnecessary. It would also make women subject to the draft, make all institutions integrated, including bathrooms, and would legalize public abortions. These arguments, true or not, proved effective, and the ERA failed to gain enough state support by its 1982 deadline.

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Chapter 5 Civil Rights

58. Identify the purpose and impact of the 1988 Indian Gaming Regulatory Act. Answer: The act was designed to provide economic opportunities for Native Americans by authorizing them to establish gaming operations on their property. The money raised must be used for education, economic development, infrastructure, law enforcement, and courts. In 2008, gross revenues exceeded $26 billion. Despite this influx, many Native Americans remain behind other Americans in education and economic wealth. 59. Discuss the development and impact of the Chicano Movement on the process of achieving equal rights for Hispanic Americans. Answer: Born in the 1960s, the Chicano Movement was composed of a variety of Latino organizations focusing on a variety of issues, including equal employment rights and equal access to education. Led by individuals such as Cesar Chavez and Dolores Huerta, and engaging in protests and boycotts, they succeeded by the early 1970s in getting Latinos recognized as a racial minority group, covered by all appropriate laws and protections. 60. Discuss the effects of the ADA (Americans with Disabilities Act) of 1990 on the civil rights of disabled Americans. Answer: The ADA transformed the range of opportunities for people with disabilities, who as a result of the act now enjoy equal access to all public accommodations and facilities, including public transportation. The act also means that disabled Americans also enjoy mandated equal employment opportunities.

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Chapter 6 Political Socialization and Public Opinion

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 6: Political Socialization and Public Opinion Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. The process by which individuals acquire their opinions is called a. popular culture. b. social communication. c. socioeconomic change. d. political socialization. e. political assimilation. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Socialization and Civic Participation Page: 182 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 2. Studies indicate that children whose parents participate in civic life are ________ to do so themselves. a. much more likely b. more likely c. less likely d. much less likely e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Socialization and Civic Participation Page: 183 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 3. Which factors have social scientists argued exert the strongest influence on political socialization? a. family and school b. family and the media c. school and the media d. school and civic participation e. civic participation and the media Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Socialization and Civic Participation Page: 183 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 6 Political Socialization and Public Opinion

4. Since 1956, the first- through twelfth-grade Weekly Reader student poll has correctly predicted the outcome of every presidential election. What is the best explanation for this? a. Children mimic that behavior of their parents. b. The media have a strong influence on children. c. Stratified sampling is used. d. It is a highly effective random sample. e. Children are likely to vote like the majority of their community, therefore making the poll an accurate predictor. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 184 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 5. When are children in the United States first exposed to socialization by being encouraged to believe in democracy and express patriotism? a. preschool and daycare b. kindergarten c. elementary school d. middle school e. high school Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 185 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 6. Which of the following is NOT a way in which the media contributes to political socialization of Americans? a. The media aid in shaping societal norms. b. The media help determine the national agenda. c. The media educate the public about policy issues. d. The media play a stronger role than any other agent of socialization. e. The media can skew people’s perception of public policy priorities. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 185 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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7. Among white voters, a large proportion of highly religious people are a. Republican. b. Democrat. c. Independent. d. inactive in politics. e. more likely to switch back and forth between parties. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 186 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 8. No matter how religious they are, ________ are likely to identify themselves as Democrats. a. white Americans b. African Americans c. Asian Americans d. Hispanic Americans e. Native Americans Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 186 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 9. The increased priority among average Americans for health care reform demonstrates the prominent role that the ________ plays in shaping Americans’ views. a. speaker of the House b. House majority leader c. House minority leader d. president e. vice president Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 188 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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10. Whites, African Americans, Latinos, and Asian Americans hold ________ political views. a. identical b. very similar c. somewhat similar d. different e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 188 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 11. Sixty percent of all ________ are registered Democrats. a. whites b. African Americans c. Native Americans d. Latinos e. Asian Americans Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 189 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 12. Out of the following groups, which youth cohort is the most politically engaged? a. whites b. African Americans c. Native Americans d. Latinos e. Asian Americans Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 189 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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13. Out of the following groups, which youth cohort is more likely to be involved in community activities? a. whites b. African Americans c. Native Americans d. Latinos e. Asian Americans Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 189 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 14. Which youth cohort, out of the following groups, is the most likely to have engaged in political protests? a. whites b. African Americans c. Native Americans d. Latinos e. Asian Americans Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 189 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 15. Which youth cohort, out of the following groups, is LEAST likely to have engaged in political protests? a. whites b. African Americans c. Native Americans d. Latinos e. Asian Americans Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 189 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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16. Public polls and voting behavior indicate that men and women have ________ views on many issues. a. largely identical b. very similar c. somewhat similar d. somewhat different e. very different Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 189 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 17. Which presidential election first revealed the existence of the gender gap? a. 1968 b. 1976 c. 1980 d. 1984 e. 1992 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 189 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 18. Which recent president’s election had the smallest gender gap, with woman voters only favoring him by 4 percent over his opponent? a. Ronald Reagan b. George Bush c. Bill Clinton d. George W. Bush e. Barack Obama Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 189 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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19. Women are more likely to vote than men in every age group EXCEPT a. those under 25. b. those aged 25–34. c. those aged 35–44. d. those aged 45–54. e. those over 55. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 190 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 20. As compared to men, women are more likely to be attracted to all of these forms of activism EXCEPT a. volunteering. b. running, walking, and biking. c. charity fund-raising activities. d. neighborhood and community mediation. e. voting and political activism. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 191 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 21. On the issue of ________, men’s and women’s opinions differ very little. a. gun ownership b. abortion c. government activism d. gender equality e. women’s rights Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 191 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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22. Men are about ________ more likely to favor the death penalty than women. a. 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 15 percent d. 20 percent e. 25 percent Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 191 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 23. Generational effects tend to be felt most strongly by which group? a. old people b. women c. young people d. men e. Latinos Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 191 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 24. Which of these events is a strong example of the generational effect on the oldest Americans? a. Great Depression b. September 11, 2001 c. the Vietnam War d. the Civil War e. the Persian Gulf War Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 191 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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25. Among the important regional differences in political outlook in the United States is that between a. the Northeast and the South. b. the Northeast and the West. c. the Midwest and the West. d. the South and the Midwest. e. the South and the West. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 192 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 26. Which regions tend to favor the Democrats? a. the Northeast and the Midwest b. the West Coast and the South c. the South and the West Coast d. most major cities and the West e. the Northeast, the West Coast, and most major cities Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 192 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 27. Which regions tend to favor the Republicans? a. the West and most major cities b. the West Coast and the South c. the South and most major cities d. the Midwest and the Northeast e. the South, the West, and the Midwest Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 192 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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28. Which region is the most Protestant compared to other regions in the United States? a. the West b. the West Coast c. the South d. the Midwest e. the Northeast Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 191 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 29. Which region has the largest Catholic and Jewish populations compared to other regions in the United States? a. the West b. the West Coast c. the South d. the Midwest e. the Northeast Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 193 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 30. Which region has the largest population of those without a religious affiliation, compared to other regions in the United States? a. the West b. the major cities c. the South d. the Midwest e. the Northeast Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Agents of Socialization Page: 193 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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31. Public opinion and ________ are inextricably linked because the latter is the prism through which people view all political issues. a. tradition b. ideology c. religion d. family dynamics e. personal belief Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 193 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 32. Which of the following are examples of manifestations of popular opinion? a. public demonstrations b. looting and destruction of public property c. writing letters to the editor in local newspapers d. writing to congressmen and other federal officials e. public demonstrations; writing letters to the editor in local newspapers; and writing to congressmen and other federal officials Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 193 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 33. Which of the following statements about public opinion is NOT true? a. Public opinion is itself a socializing agent. b. Public opinion is measured through the act of voting. c. Public opinion is used to craft policies to help politicians gain reelection. d. Public opinion is newly important to American politics. e. Public opinion is manifested in many ways. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 193 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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34. Which of the following best describes a straw poll? a. representative b. unscientific c. credible d. random e. stratified Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 194 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 35. Which presidential election destroyed the credibility of the Literary Digest poll? a. 1924 election b. 1928 election c. 1932 election d. 1936 election e. 1940 election Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 194 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 36. Who founded the American Institute of Public Opinion in 1935? a. Alf Landon b. Herbert Asher c. Walter Lippmann d. George Gallup e. Thomas E. Dewey Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 194 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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37. Which was the only presidential election in which the Gallup poll erred badly? a. 1928 Hoover-Smith b. 1936 Roosevelt-Landon c. 1948 Truman-Dewey d. 1964 Johnson-Goldwater e. 2000 Bush-Gore Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 194 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 38. What is the first thing someone who is conducting a poll needs to do? a. construct unbiased questions b. determine a target population c. select a sample d. pick a survey measurement instrument e. group participants by ideology Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 195 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 39. Because it is impossible to measure everyone’s opinions, pollsters frequently rely on a. random sampling. b. quota sampling. c. stratified sampling. d. qualitative sampling. e. quantitative sampling. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 196 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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40. Pollsters that structure a sample so that it is representative of the characteristics of a target population are using what type of sampling? a. random sampling b. quota sampling c. stratified sampling d. qualitative sampling e. quantitative sampling Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 196 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 41. For the purposes of stratified sampling, how many sampling regions are there in the United States? a. two b. three c. four d. five e. six Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 196 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 42. Most national polling organizations rarely poll more than ________ respondents. a. 100 b. 150 c. 500 d. 1,000 e. 1,500 Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 197 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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43. The key to a successful sample is to have a sample that a. accurately reflects the population. b. is exactly five percent of the population that is being polled. c. is under 100 participants. d. each participant is hand selected according to political views. e. is polled only when it is ensured that they have enough time to answer the questions. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 197 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 44. A poll that measures changes in public opinion over time is known as a a. straw poll. b. Gallup poll. c. tracking poll. d. push poll. e. exit poll. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 198 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 45. A poll that provides campaigns with information on candidate strengths and weaknesses is a a. straw poll. b. Gallup poll. c. tracking poll. d. push poll. e. exit poll. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 198 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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46. A poll of which type would be most likely to ask the following question? “If you found out that Representative Jones participated in several unsavory financial transactions, would it affect your vote?” a. straw poll b. Gallup poll c. tracking poll d. push poll e. exit poll Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 198 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 47. ________ are frequently sponsored by news organizations, who use them to help predict outcomes of presidential or other national races. a. Straw polls b. Gallup polls c. Tracking polls d. Push polls e. Exit polls Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Public Opinion Page: 198 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 48. Since 2008, which of the following issues has been identified by respondents as the “most important problem” facing the country? a. jobs b. the housing market c. the economy d. foreign wars e. the threat of terrorism Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What Americans Think about Politics Page: 199 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

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49. The recent decline in trust in the institution of the presidency is closely related to a. anxiety over the direction of America’s foreign policy. b. concerns over whether the executive branch can be a force for positive change. c. worries over government corruption and waste. d. public approval of individual presidents. e. public perceptions of America’s economic health. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What Americans Think about Politics Page: 200 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion 50. Which branch of the federal government consistently scores higher in levels of public trust than others? a. federal bureaucracy b. executive branch c. judicial branch d. legislative branch e. Department of Justice Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What Americans Think about Politics Page: 206 Teaching Emphasis: Political Socialization and Public Opinion

Essay Questions: 51. Identify the two main influences of political socialization that we experience from early childhood. Answer: Historically, social scientists have identified the family and school as the two major influences on political socialization. Our families teach us that it is—or is not—valuable to be an informed citizen, and they coach us in civic participation. Schools influence our political socialization by teaching us shared cultural values. Both family and schools establish within us our foundations of political and civic awareness. 52. Discuss the ways in which the media act as an agent of political socialization. Answer: As ever-present fixtures in our daily lives, and particularly in the lives of young Americans, the media contribute to our political socialization in several ways. They help shape social norms, and impart and distribute values. They also help determine the national agenda, help educate people about public policy issues, and can skew people’s perception of public policy priorities and challenges.

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53. Explain the relationship between peer groups, diversity, and norms and values. Answer: Friends, neighbors, coworkers, and other peers influence political socialization, particularly at younger ages. Through peers, we learn about community, political climate, and local values. Most research indicates peers reinforce our pre-existing values, largely because we tend to select peers with similar norms and values. 54. Define the gender gap, and provide examples of its visibility on certain issues. Answer: The gender gap is the term used to describe the differences in views and voting patterns between men and women. Public opinion polls and voting data confirm this gap, which indicates that men and women hold very different views on certain issues. Voter turnout patterns increase the effect of the gap. Issues where it is visible include the optimal role of government, terrorism policy, and foreign military conflicts. 55. Identify the role geographic region plays in forming public opinion. Answer: Geographic region plays a significant role in shaping political attitudes. These differences stem from historical migration patterns, and reveal significant regional differences, such as that between the Northeast and the South. Along with migration, religious affiliation plays a role in shaping these regional differences, with Protestants dominant in the South, and large numbers of Jews and Catholics in the Northeast. 56. Explain the role of the public opinion poll in American politics. Answer: Public opinion polls are used for various purposes in the United States. Defined as surveys of a given population’s opinion on an issue at a particular point in time, public opinion polls are used by policy makers, political candidates, the general public, and the media. All these groups see public opinion polls as indicators of public approval or disapproval of policy and governance. 57. Define quota sampling, and explain its uses. Answer: Quota sampling is a form of sampling used in public opinion polls. This method is considered more statistically accurate than random sampling; it structures the sample so that it is representative of the target population. This method is particularly useful in diverse demographic environments such as cities. Pollsters and others routinely rely on quota sampling. 58. Identify issues associated with Internet sampling techniques. Answer: Although Internet polls are becoming increasingly popular, they present their own set of obstacles, including issues associated with equal access—not everyone owns or has access to Internet-ready devices—and multiple repeat responses. Internet polls can also be skewed due to their use as part of “membership” programs, which reward respondents for completing surveys that help create representative samples of target populations.

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59. Identify the types of information that can be derived from tracking polls, and which organizations or individuals employ them. Answer: Tracking polls measure changes in public opinion over the course of days, weeks, and months by repeatedly asking respondents the same questions, and measuring changes in opinion. They have been seen as an accurate indicator in presidential elections since 1992. They are also useful in indicating the effectiveness of media strategies and campaigning, or whether the campaign’s message is working. 60. Outline how Americans have changed their responses to the “most important problem” question in public opinion polls between 2001 and 2010. Answer: Between 2001 and 2010, respondents to the “most important problem” facing America question have shifted their emphases. Early in the decade, foreign wars, such as those in Iraq and Afghanistan, were the most common responses. However, since 2007, the economy has eclipsed foreign entanglements as the most commonly cited response to this question. Other problems cited include immigration, terrorism, health care, and gas prices.

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 7: Interest Groups Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. What phrase did Alexis de Tocqueville coin to describe Americans in his 1835 work Democracy in America? a. “a nation of warriors” b. “a nation of workers” c. “a nation of shopkeepers” d. “a nation of joiners” e. “a nation of dreamers” Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Value of Interest Groups Page: 210 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 2. What percentage of Americans belong to voluntary groups or associations? a. 40 percent b. 50 percent c. 60 percent d. 70 percent e. 80 percent Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Value of Interest Groups Page: 210 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 3. Relationships that improve our individual lives by giving us social connections to solve common problems are forms of a. intellectual capital. b. social capital. c. leveraged networks. d. associative relationships. e. empowering networks. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Value of Interest Groups Page: 210 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

4. In what way do interest groups succeed in channeling civic participation? a. They offer ways for people to act collectively. b. They involve individuals more actively in politics. c. They assist in engaging communities in political issues. d. They offer an alternative participatory option over the two-party system. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Value of Interest Groups Page: 211 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 5. All of the following are tenets of pluralist theory EXCEPT that a. it is important for democracy to have a large, diverse set of interest groups. b. policy-making is a competition among diverse interest groups. c. policy-making is an elite business, staffed by the powerful and highly educated. d. interest groups provide a structure for political participation. e. interest groups’ varying assets tend to counterbalance one another. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Value of Interest Groups Page: 212 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 6. As opposed to pluralist theory, elite theory posits that a. those in power should raise and spend money to influence the outcome of elections. b. change is favorable and elite power must be used to protect the economic interests of the public at large. c. interest groups should compete to ensure representation of their interest in policy. d. there is no mobility in the power structure, and that accessibility is an issue. e. wealthy, educated individuals control the direction of major policy. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Value of Interest Groups Page: 212 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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7. Most Americans have a ________ impression of interest groups. a. very positive b. somewhat positive c. neutral d. somewhat negative e. generally negative Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Value of Interest Groups Page: 213 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 8. All of the following are positive aspects of interest groups’ political activity EXCEPT a. performing electoral functions. b. making money an issue in politics. c. educating the public about policy issues. d. providing average citizens with access to activism. e. mobilizing citizens to participate in civic affairs. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Value of Interest Groups Page: 213 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 9. Which of the following statements about interest groups and their political action committees (PACs) is most accurate? a. Money from PACs makes campaigns more engaging. b. Participation of PACs in a campaign tend to make it more even and less expensive. c. Interest groups tend to strengthen the advantages of incumbency. d. Interest group activity makes the electoral process more egalitarian. e. Corporate and labor interest groups are legally limited in their ability to spend money on political ads in favor of or against political candidates. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Value of Interest Groups Page: 214 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

10. Which social group is likely to be overrepresented in interest groups? a. the wealthy b. whites c. the upper-middle class d. the educated e. All these groups are likely to be overrepresented in interest groups. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Value of Interest Groups Page: 214 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 11. Which demographic characteristics are the best predictors of interest group membership? a. color and education b. income and gender c. race and social class d. social class and income e. income and education Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Joins Interest Groups, and Why? Page: 214 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 12. Which of the following occupations are represented by professional organizations? a. doctors and lawyers b. teachers and tradespeople c. executives in business and industry d. federal and state employees e. truck and taxi drivers Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Joins Interest Groups, and Why? Page: 215 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

13. Which of the following occupations are represented by labor unions? a. doctors and lawyers b. teachers and tradespeople c. executives in business and industry d. federal and state officials e. soldiers and security personnel Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Joins Interest Groups, and Why? Page: 215 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 14. Which of the following occupations are represented by industry-specific organizations? a. nurses and paralegals b. teachers and tradespeople c. executives in business and industry d. federal and state officials e. soldiers and security personnel Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Joins Interest Groups, and Why? Page: 215 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 15. For a range of reasons, children from working-class families are ________ to have been socialized to participate in interest groups. a. much more likely b. more likely c. neither more nor less likely d. less likely e. much less likely Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Joins Interest Groups, and Why? Page: 215 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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16. One recent study indicated that college students are ________ to join a politically motivated interest group than their peers who do not attend college. a. more than twice as likely b. more likely c. neither more nor less likely d. less likely e. less than half as likely Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Joins Interest Groups, and Why? Page: 215 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 17. Which type of incentives for joining interest groups is closely linked to Robert Putnam’s idea of social capital? a. purposive incentives b. solidary incentives c. economic incentives d. ethical incentives e. moral incentives Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Joins Interest Groups, and Why? Page: 216 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 18. Belief in a group’s cause is an example of which type of incentive? a. purposive incentive b. solidary incentive c. economic incentive d. ethical incentive e. moral incentive Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Joins Interest Groups, and Why? Page: 216 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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19. Many people over 50 join the AARP (American Association of Retired Persons) in order to enjoy the discounts provided to its members. This is an example of which incentive? a. purposive incentive b. solidary incentive c. economic incentive d. ethical incentive e. moral incentive Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Joins Interest Groups, and Why? Page: 217 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 20. Which factor influences and decides an interest group’s political effectiveness? a. membership size b. cohesion c. intensity d. demographics e. All these factors influence and decide an interest group’s political effectiveness. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: How Interest Groups Succeed Page: 217-218 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 21. The Occupy Movement that protested income inequality reached a crescendo of activism in 2011, but activity has quieted significantly since that time. This is an example of what facet of interest group membership? a. intensity b. demographics c. financing d. membership size e. leadership Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: How Interest Groups Succeed Page: 218 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

22. Separate entities formed by interest groups whose specific goal is to raise and spend money to influence election outcomes are known as a. political action committees. b. electoral committees. c. booster clubs. d. caucuses. e. roundtables. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: How Interest Groups Succeed Page: 218 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 23. In elections, PAC funding shapes electoral outcomes by tending to favor which type of candidate? a. incumbents b. mostly incumbents, but some challengers c. equal support for incumbents and challengers d. mostly challengers, but some incumbents e. challengers Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: How Interest Groups Succeed Page: 218 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 24. Which of the following are key factors in an interest groups’ organizational environment? a. financing and opposition b. leadership and opposition c. membership and resources d. resources and leadership e. demographics and intensity Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: How Interest Groups Succeed Page: 219 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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25. The U.S. Chamber of Commerce represents a collective group of large and small business; it is an example of what type of interest group? a. labor interest group b. consumer interest group c. umbrella organization d. political action committee e. solidary organization Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 219-220 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 26. Which of the following best describes union membership in the United States since the 1960s? a. It has remained steady. b. It has declined dramatically. c. It has increased dramatically. d. It has moderately declined. e. It has moderately increased. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 220 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 27. Of all the different types of U.S. interest groups, which of the following tends to have the most disproportionate amount of influence? a. labor unions b. corporate and business interests c. agricultural interest groups d. trade and professional interests e. environmental interest groups Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 220 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

28. All of these are examples of public interest groups EXCEPT a. the National Taxpayers Union. b. the AFL-CIO. c. the Sierra Club. d. Common Cause. e. Public Citizen. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 222 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 29. The benefits of interest group activity are most often not limited to the group’s membership, but rather result in a. collective goods. b. the rational choice effect. c. the umbrella problem. d. consumer interests. e. the limited interest effect. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 222 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 30. The problem of someone deriving a benefit from the actions of others is known as the a. collective good. b. free rider problem. c. umbrella problem. d. collective good effect. e. limited interest effect. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 222 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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31. The theory that it does not make economic sense for someone to participate in collective action when they can receive a benefit without participating is known as a. rational choice theory. b. elite theory. c. a purposive incentive. d. a solidary incentive. e. pluralist theory. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 222 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 32. Ralph Nader is best known for his involvement with ________ interest groups. a. environmental b. professional c. religious d. consumer e. agricultural Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 223 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 33. Today, religious interests are among the most influential interest groups in U.S. politics, but for a long time organized religious interests were uninvolved in politics. Why? a. They were prevented from doing so by Supreme Court jurisprudence. b. They were afraid of losing their tax-exempt status. c. They were virtually ignored by the two major parties. d. They were afraid of losing their First Amendment freedoms. e. They were discouraged from doing so by their congregations. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 223 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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34. Which religious interest organization was instrumental in Ronald Reagan’s 1980 election to the presidency? a. Common Cause b. the Christian Coalition c. the Moral Majority d. Pax Christi USA e. B’nai Brith Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 223 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 35. Which group is recognized as the national Catholic peace movement? a. Common Cause b. the Christian Coalition c. the Moral Majority d. Pax Christi USA e. B’nai Brith Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 224 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 36. Which of the following best describes the emphasis of the Christian Coalition’s platform? a. separation of church and state b. protection of civil liberties c. protection of business interests d. interpretation of the Constitution as a “living” document e. pro-family values Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 224 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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37. In 2010, which religious interest group advocated the construction of an Islamic center at the site of the World Trade Center? a. Moral Majority b. Christian Coalition c. Pax Christi d. CAIR (Council on American-Islamic Relations) e. B’nai Brith Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 224 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 38. For what reason is a foreign interest most likely to lobby the U.S. government? a. labor policies b. goodwill c. immigration policies d. human rights policies e. trade policies Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 224 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 39. President Ulysses S. Grant coined which of the following terms after walking through the Willard Hotel and commenting on the presence of people who represented various interests and were waiting to speak to members of Congress? a. buttonholing b. lobbyist c. issue network d. iron triangle e. public outreach Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Strategies Page: 225 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

40. Which of the following is/are employed by special interest representatives to gain access to policymakers? a. face-to-face meetings b. “buttonholing” in the Capitol c. telephone calls d. receptions and special events e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Strategies Page: 225 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 41. When lobbyists employ former members of government, they are creating a. an iron triangle. b. an issue network. c. a mutually beneficial network. d. a lobbying network. e. a direct action network. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Strategies Page: 225 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 42. The interaction of mutual interests involving interest groups, government officials, and members of Congress is known as the a. iron triangle. b. issue network. c. mutually beneficial network. d. lobbying network. e. direct action network. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Strategies Page: 225 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

43. Which of the following Supreme Court decisions drastically altered the political landscape by allowing corporate and union election financing? a. Federal Election Commission v. Wisconsin Right to Life b. McConnell v. Federal Election Commission c. SpeechNow.org v. Federal Election Commission d. Federal Election Commission v. Jones e. Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Strategies Page: 225-226 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 44. In order to attract greater attention, which group is often used by interest groups to testify before Congress as a means of raising public awareness? a. academics b. experts c. policy critics d. celebrities e. corporate executives Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Strategies Page: 227 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 45. In the iron triangle, which of the following is a benefit Congress derives from its relationship with interest groups? a. the enactment of friendly legislation b. electoral support c. favorable enforcement d. supportive oversight e. special favors Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Strategies Page: 227 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

46. The practice of using public outreach to build favorable public opinion of an organization or company is known as a. issue networking. b. environmental triangulation. c. climate control. d. electioneering. e. reputation management. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Strategies Page: 227 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 47. When interest groups engage in indirect strategies to support candidates supportive of their agendas, it is known as a. issue networking. b. environmental triangulation. c. climate control. d. electioneering. e. reputation management. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Strategies Page: 228 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 48. Who uses interest group ratings to measure a candidate’s popularity or legislative performance? a. voters b. the media c. candidates themselves d. electoral officials e. voters, the media, and candidates themselves Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Strategies Page: 228 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

49. All of the following are examples of indirect strategies used by interest groups to advance their cause EXCEPT a. buttonholing. b. use of citizen grassroots lobbyists. c. electioneering. d. protests and civil disobedience. e. endorsements and ratings. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Strategies Page: 227-228 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups 50. Which organizations are now able to bypass PACs and use financial resources to directly purchase federal campaign advertisements? a. voters associations b. corporations c. labor unions d. professional organizations e. labor unions and corporations Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Interest Groups, Politics, and Money: The Influence of Political Action Committees Page: 228 Teaching Emphasis: Interest Groups

Essay Questions: 51. Define social capital, and explain its relationship to the benefits generated by participation in interest groups. Answer: Social capital was a term coined by the political scientist Robert Putnam; it refers to the relationships that improve our lives by giving us social connections with which to solve common problems. This social capital, of which membership in interest groups is an example, improves individual lives in concrete ways, and encourages communication and interaction with each other and the government. 52. Identify at least two positive effects of interest groups on the policy-making process. Answer: Interest groups perform a number of positive functions in relation to policy making. They educate the public about policy issues, and provide the average citizen with agency, helping to mobilize and stimulate wider civic and public involvement. They also provide information and expertise to policy makers, and can help to protect the common good as an executor of checks and balances. Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

53. Compare and contrast pluralist and elite theories of interest group formation. Answer: While both these theories seek to explain patterns of interest group behavior, they do so from different perspectives. Scholars of pluralist theory emphasize that interest groups are essential to a democracy, because they ensure the representation of individual interests even if some individuals do not participate. Elite theorists dispute these claims, and argue that an elite class dominates political activity, including interest groups. In other words, the system is far less pluralistic than it appears. Both theories have some basis in fact. 54. Identify at least two negative effects of interest groups on policy formation. Answer: Because of the role they play in infusing money into the political process, interest groups are often criticized as corrupting the policy-making process. Many recent presidents have commented on this reality, and have called for limits on financial contributions to candidates and incumbents. This influx of money also makes campaigns expensive and one-sided, and strengthens incumbents at the expense of challengers. 55. Outline the relationship between interest-group participation and social class. Answer: Although differentiating between patterns of interest-group participation based on either income or social class can be difficult, most data suggests that working-class people are generally less likely to have been politically socialized than those from more privileged groups. Extenuating factors that account for this include access to childcare and disposable income, and access to computers and the Internet. 56. Explain the key features and functions of PACs (political action committees). Answer: Political action committees are groups that raise and spend money to influence electoral outcomes. Often connected to other interest groups, or to political campaigns and candidates, PACs shape the composition of government, usually by favoring incumbents who are likely to succeed. 57. Identify at least two public interest groups, and explain their functions and issues. Answer: Public interest groups are generally concerned with a broad range of issues that affect the populace at large. These include social or economic issues such as health care or Social Security, as well as environmental causes such as clean air and water. Examples of public interest groups include the National Taxpayers Union, Common Cause, and the Sierra Club. 58. Discuss lobbying, and identify tactics used by lobbyists to communicate with and influence policy makers. Answer: Interest groups hire professionals to lobby, or communicate directly with and attempt to influence, policy makers on the interest groups’ behalf. Lobbyists are usually lawyers, and their job is to cultivate ongoing relationships with federal policymakers. They do their work through face-to-face meetings, telephone calls, “buttonholing” members of Congress as they walk throughout the Capitol building, and hosting special events and functions.

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Chapter 7 Interest Groups

59. Define and explain the effects of the formation of iron triangles. Answer: When interest groups form good relationships with policy makers, they create an issue network. One particularly effective issue network is known as an iron triangle, which involves a trio of interactions among mutual interests. These are comprised of members of Congress, executive departments and agencies, and organized interest groups. The iron triangles often seek policy outcomes that are mutually beneficial, and also make it difficult for outside interests to penetrate them. 60. Explain why interest groups use celebrities to publicly communicate their message. Answer: Interest groups are interested in communicating their message to the widest possible audience in order to build larger support for their cause. To encourage this, they often hire celebrities as “experts” or “spokespeople,” knowing that their notoriety will attract much greater public attention than ordinary policy experts.

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 8: Political Parties Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. An organization of ideologically similar people that nominates and elects its members to office is known as a political a. action committee. b. party platform. c. interest group. d. party. e. issue network. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Parties Today and Their Functions Page: 238 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 2. Generally, political parties have ________ concerns. a. single issue b. very narrow issue c. somewhat narrow issue d. somewhat broad issue e. broad issue Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Parties Today and Their Functions Page: 238 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 3. Which of the following best describes the status of political parties? a. quasi-public b. federal c. private d. public e. quasi-private Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Parties Today and Their Functions Page: 239 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

4. Which of these features is a characteristic of political parties? a. They run candidates under a label. b. They seek to govern. c. They have broad concerns. d. They have a special relationship with the government. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Parties Today and Their Functions Page: 238-239 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 5. Today, political parties are accessible to a. powerful interest groups. b. government and elected officials. c. Fortune 500 corporations. d. virtually everyone. e. labor unions and workers’ organizations. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Parties Today and Their Functions Page: 239 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 6. Registering, canvassing, and mobilizing voters is an example of a. interest group activity. b. grassroots organizing. c. the responsible party model. d. party in the electorate. e. party organization. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Parties Today and Their Functions Page: 239 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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7. Media attention on political parties tends to highlight their a. differences on ideological and policy issues. b. shared interests and combined successes. c. similarities on ideological and policy issues. d. legislative achievements, particularly across party lines. e. legislative shortcomings and failures. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Parties Today and Their Functions Page: 240 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 8. a. b. c. d. e.

What role is undertaken by the majority party in legislatures at all levels? elects the legislature’s leaders makes committee assignments holds a majority on committees leads oversight and criticism of ruling party policies elects legislative leaders, makes committee assignments, and holds the majority on committees Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Parties Today and Their Functions Page: 240 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 9. What is arguably the most important role of political parties in the American political system? a. They promote responsibility among elected officials and provide a “check” on their powers. b. They serve as training grounds for members and promote minority opportunity. c. They ensure the government runs smoothly. d. They foster cooperation between divided interests and factions. e. They encourage citizen engagement and political participation. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Parties Today and Their Functions Page: 240 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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10. The theory that it is the function of a political party to give voters a clear choice by establishing priorities or policy stances that are different from the rival party is known as a. patronage. b. populism. c. the responsible party model. d. the winner-take-all system. e. dealignment. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Parties Today and Their Functions Page: 240 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 11. How many “faces,” or spheres of operation, do American political parties have? a. two b. three c. four d. five e. six Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 240 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 12. Party identifiers are typically measured by a. online surveys. b. entry and exit polls. c. party registration during voting. d. telephone surveys. e. postal surveys. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 241 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

13. The technical term for a voter who does not belong to any organized political party is a. populist. b. loyal opposition. c. party in the electorate. d. unaffiliated voter. e. independent. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 241 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 14. Of the following, which are most likely to vote for Republicans? a. whites and men b. people with some college education c. ethnic minorities and women d. people with no college education e. whites, men, and people with some college education Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 241 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 15. Of the following, which are most likely to vote for Democrats? a. whites and men b. people with some college education c. ethnic minorities and women d. people with a college degree e. Asian Americans Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 241 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

16. What is the best predictor of a person’s party identification? a. education b. income c. ethnicity d. ideology e. age Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 241 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 17. What decade do political scientists argue first cemented the ideological differences between today’s Democrats and Republicans? a. 1930s b. 1940s c. 1950s d. 1960s e. 1970s Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 241 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 18. Which of the following is a major priority for the Republican Party today? a. enlarging and strengthening the federal government b. government regulation of traditional moral values c. expansion of social welfare programs d. both enlarging and strengthening the federal government and expansion of social welfare programs e. both government regulation of traditional moral values and enlarging and strengthening the federal government Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 241 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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19. Which of the following is a major priority for the Tea Party movement? a. enlarging and strengthening the federal government b. government regulation of traditional moral values c. expansion of social welfare programs d. a smaller government that performs fewer social welfare functions e. a smaller government that strengthens its involvement in regulation of traditional moral values Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 241 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 20. All of the following are key Democratic positions EXCEPT a. environmental protection. b. abortion choice. c. a larger role for state governments. d. gay rights. e. social welfare programs. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 241 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 21. All of the following are key Republican positions EXCEPT a. environmental protection. b. a pro-life stance on abortion. c. a larger role for state governments. d. the protection and support of business. e. limiting or reducing social welfare programs. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 242 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

22. Despite the differences between the Democratic and Republican parties, which of the following areas is a high priority for both parties? a. social welfare b. terrorism c. immigration d. the economy e. income disparities Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 242 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 23. Which of the following have usually composed the base of the Republican Party? a. women b. African Americans c. small-business owners d. religious citizens e. upper-middle-class voters, religious citizens, and small-business owners Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 242 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 24. The formal party apparatus is known as the party a. identifiers. b. affiliates. c. organization. d. committee. e. caucus. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 242 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

25. With respect to real political power, which of the following describes the most important component of a party organization? a. national party b. regional party c. state party d. county party e. county and local party Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 242 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 26. Recently, regardless of whether the party’s nominee for president has won or lost, the most important role of the national party chair is a. raising money. b. making public appearances in support of candidates. c. controlling the state and local party committees. d. managing and directing the national campaign staff. e. overseeing day-to-day party operations. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 243 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 27. Which 1976 Supreme Court decision created the soft-money loophole, through which political parties could raise unlimited funds at the state level? a. Buckley v. Valeo b. Citizens United v. Federal Electoral Commission c. United States v. Lopez d. Miller v. California e. Roe v. Wade Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 243 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

28. Once elected into office, the party in government exerts ________ power. a. enormous b. some amount of c. very little d. almost no e. no Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 244-245 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 29. Divided government occurs when a. different parties control the executive and legislative branches. b. the same party controls both the executive and legislative branch. c. different parties vie for control of one branch of government. d. different parties vie for control of all branches of government. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 246 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 30. In 2010, the Republicans gained control of the U.S. House of Representatives, while the Democrats maintained control of the Senate, and Barack Obama, a Democrat, was in office. This situation is known as a. divided government. b. loyal opposition. c. party in the electorate. d. truncated government. e. proportional representation. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Three Faces of Parties Page: 246 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

31. What term is used by political scientists to describe a shift in party allegiances or electoral support? a. transference b. realignment c. reconstruction d. reorganization e. reconsideration Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 246 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 32. Which founding father, as founder of the Anti-Federalists, instigated the process of direct communication with voters? a. John Adams b. Thomas Jefferson c. Alexander Hamilton d. George Washington e. James Madison Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 247 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 33. During the Era of Good Feelings, there was widespread popular support for the presidents who were members of which party? a. Democratic-Republican b. Democratic c. Republican d. Federalist e. Jeffersonian Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 247 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

34. During the era of the Second Party System, which political party rose to power? a. Federalists b. Anti-Federalists c. Jeffersonian Republicans d. Whigs e. Jacksonian Democrats Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 247 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 35. Which of the following was NOT a philosophy of the Jacksonian Democrats? a. populism b. spoils system c. politicization of the masses d. elitism e. leadership through the merit Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 247 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 36. Which issue dominated party politics in the 1850s? a. foreign policy b. economic growth c. slavery d. states’ rights e. westward expansion Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 248 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

37. Which party rose to dominance for several elections after 1860? a. Jacksonian Democrats b. Whigs c. Antislavery Republicans d. Know-Nothings e. Anti-Federalists Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 248 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 38. During the era of political machines, party leaders used ________ as a device to reward political supporters. a. promotions b. cash c. patronage d. land e. business advantages Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 248 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 39. Which party backed the presidential campaign of Theodore Roosevelt in 1912? a. Know-Nothings b. Populist Democrats c. Antislavery Republicans d. Progressives e. Populist Republicans Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 249 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

40. How many times was Franklin D. Roosevelt elected president? a. once b. twice c. three times d. four times e. five times Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 249 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 41. Since 1968, political scientists have argued that ________ is a notable feature of the new party politics. a. realignment b. the New Deal coalition c. dealignment d. patronage e. populism Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 250 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 42. All of the following characterize the party system in the United States since 1968 EXCEPT a. divided government. b. patronage. c. intense party competition. d. dealignment. e. candidate-centered politics. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in U.S. History Page: 250 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

43. Which voting system rewards political parties with a number of seats equal to the percentage of the vote it receives? a. winner-take-all b. proportional representation c. cumulative voting d. partial-list voting e. transferable voting Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Two-Party Domination in U.S. Politics Page: 251 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 44. Which of the following best describes the electoral system in the United States? a. proportional representation b. winner-take-all c. party-list system d. ranked voting e. sequential voting Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Two-Party System Today: In Decline or in Resurgence? Page: 251 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 45. Over the last several decades, political scientists have agreed that the power of political parties has a. declined significantly. b. declined slightly. c. remained static. d. increased slightly. e. increased significantly. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Two-Party System Today: In Decline or in Resurgence? Page: 253 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

46. What factor do scholars identify as supportive of the current two-party system? a. increased public interest in politics b. favorable laws that directly subsidize existing party structures c. solid corporate and foreign support d. a new cohort of young and dynamic candidates e. lack of a viable alternative Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Two-Party System Today: In Decline or in Resurgence? Page: 254 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 47. Which of the following parties is an example of an issue advocacy party? a. Green Party b. Libertarian Party c. Socialist Party d. States’ Rights Party e. Progressive Party Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Third Parties in the United States Page: 254 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 48. Because of its sometimes fractured relationship with the Republican Party, which of the following has caused people to wonder whether or not it might become a splinter party? a. Green Party b. Libertarian Party c. Tea Party d. States’ Rights Party e. Progressive Party Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Third Parties in the United States Page: 256 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

49. Which of the following are key principles of Tea Party supporters? a. less government and more fiscal responsibility b. lower taxes and states’ rights c. national security and border defense d. access to education and access to employment opportunities e. less government, fiscal responsibility, lower taxes, states’ rights, and national security Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: New Ideologies, New Technologies: The Parties in the Twenty-First Century Page: 259 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties 50. On which of the following do voters increasingly rely for political information and knowledge? a. the Internet and cellular phones b. newspapers and television c. magazines and periodicals d. public meetings and candidate appearances e. postal information and peer groups Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: New Ideologies, New Technologies: The Parties in the Twenty-First Century Page: 260 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties

Essay Questions: 51. Define a political party’s platform, and identify some prominent issues that are included. Answer: The platform of a political party contains several features. It includes a formal statement of both the party’s principles, and the party’s policy objectives. This includes the party’s stance on issues like war, abortion rights, environmental protection, and the minimum wage. 52. Outline the responsible party model, and provide an example of legislation enacted according to these principles. Answer: The responsible party model is a term used by political scientists to describe their view of the functions of political parties. According to this view, the function of political parties is to offer a clear choice to voters by establishing priorities or policy stances that differ from those of other parties.

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

53. Identify the three faces of political parties in the United States. Answer: American political parties have three faces, or spheres of operation. The three components include the party in the electorate (all those who identify with or tend to support the party), the party organization (the formal staff apparatus, at all levels of government), and the party in government (the partisan identifications of elected leaders in local, county, state, and federal government). 54. Discuss the party organization of major parties and identify where most power lies. Answer: Party organization refers to the formal party apparatus, including committees, headquarters, conventions, party leaders, staff, and volunteers. These structures are most visible at the local level, and it is there that most power lies, due to the relative size and reach of local structures and staffs. 55. Explain how the party in government influences government operations at all levels. Answer: The party in government, or majority party, exercises overwhelming influence over government operations. The majority party exercises functions such as selecting governmental leaders, staffing paid professional positions, controlling governmental committees and regulatory boards, organizing government work, and setting the legislative agenda. 56. Identify important features of the party system that have emerged since 1968. Answer: Scholars argue that a new party system has emerged in the United States since 1968. This new system includes several features, such as intense party competition, divided government, dealignment, and ticket-splitting. This period has also been characterized by the growing importance of candidate-centered politics, encouraged by the rise of candidate committees—organizations that candidates form to support their individual election campaigns. 57. Discuss the rise of candidate committees and their influence on the political process. Answer: Since 1968, American politics has seen the growth of candidate committees, organizations that candidates form to support their individual election campaigns. These organizations compete with political parties at many levels; they raise and spend money, organize campaigns, and attempt voter mobilization. These efforts have seen elected officials become less indebted to parties than in previous eras, and have also seen less party loyalty in legislative voting patterns. 58. Explain the structural factors that favor the maintenance of the two-party system. Answer: Several factors favor the maintenance of the two-party system. One is tradition, and the continuation of a two-party voting culture that has held sway since the 1790s. Both these forces work against the development of a viable third party. The other factor is the existence of election laws at both the federal and state level, such as ballot restrictions that benefit the two major parties.

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Chapter 8 Political Parties

59. Outline the arguments that suggest a decline in the two-party system. Answer: Scholars that argue that a decline has occurred in the two-party system point to several factors. These include the elimination of political patronage due to civil service qualification requirements, and the government’s increased social and community role as provider of social welfare benefits, many of which formerly came from the parties. Primary elections have also diluted party power by allowing candidates to take their messages directly to voters, and shifts in media coverage toward individual candidates have also taken their toll. 60. Identify key principles of the Tea Party movement. Answer: The Tea Party movement coalesced in 2009 after the election of President Barack Obama. Outraged by what they saw as excessive government spending, the movement’s supporters have embraced five key principles: less government, fiscal responsibility, lower taxes, states’ rights, and national security.

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 9: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Direct forms of political participation include a. voting. b. volunteering on a campaign. c. running for office. d. answering Internet political surveys. e. volunteering on a campaign, running for office, and voting. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Participation: Engaging Individuals, Shaping Polities Page: 268 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 2. Which of the following is the best example of grassroots organizing? a. fund-raising b. candidate selection c. drafting the party’s platform d. GOTV activities e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Participation: Engaging Individuals, Shaping Polities Page: 268 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 3. Identify the correct chronological order among the following, starting with which comes first. a. primary election, general election, candidate nomination b. candidate nomination, primary election, general election c. primary election, candidate nomination, general election d. general election, candidate nomination, primary election e. general election, primary election, candidate nomination Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 269 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

4. All of the following are influential factors in general election competitiveness EXCEPT a. the presence of incumbency. b. the strength of incumbency. c. party competition. d. candidate party affiliation. e. level of office. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 269 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 5. Which of the following statements about who can vote in primary elections is the most accurate? a. All registered voters can vote in primary elections. b. Only registered party members are eligible to vote in primary elections. c. Who can vote in primary elections varies from state to state. d. All citizens can vote in primary elections, regardless of registration status or party affiliation. e. Only popularly nominated delegates can vote in primaries. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 269 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 6. In U.S. presidential primaries, who decides which candidate receives the national party nomination? a. party-registered voters b. local party leaders c. state party organizations d. national party leaders e. locally-selected delegates Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 269 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

7. Which year saw both parties make significant reforms that increased party–voter influence for candidate selection? a. 1948 b. 1960 c. 1968 d. 1972 e. 1988 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 269-270 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 8. Today, party voters select delegates at state party meetings known as a. caucuses. b. congresses. c. secretariats. d. commissions. e. GOTV rallies. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 270 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 9. Who can vote in an open primary election? a. anyone, even unregistered voters b. any registered voter of any party, and independents c. any registered voter of any party except independents d. only registered voters of members of that party e. only preapproved registered voters of members of that party Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 270 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

10. Who can vote in a closed primary election? a. anyone, even unregistered voters b. any registered voter of any party, and independents c. any registered voter of any party except independents d. only registered voters of members of that party e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 270 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 11. Which of these groups controls the timing of primary elections? a. registered voters b. national party organizations c. the states d. the Federal Election Commission e. the Supreme Court Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 270 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 12. In which month is Super Tuesday, the day on which most presidential primary elections take place? a. February b. March c. October d. November e. June Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 270 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

13. In the United States, most general elections are held in what month? a. February b. March c. October d. November e. June Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 271 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 14. In general elections for Congress, how many votes must a candidate receive in order to win? a. 50 percent of the vote b. a majority of the vote c. the most votes d. 50 percent of the vote, plus one e. a preponderance of the votes Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 271 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 15. In many states, what percentage of votes must a candidate receive in a general election to avoid a runoff election? a. 50 percent b. 55 percent c. 60 percent d. 65 percent e. 70 percent Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 272 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

16. What technology has facilitated the use of instant runoff elections? a. computers b. mobile technologies and devices c. cellular phones d. computerized voting machines e. touch-screen voting portals Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 272 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 17. In a referendum, voters in a state can vote for or against a measure proposed by whom? a. citizens b. interest groups c. county governments d. state legislatures e. state Supreme Courts Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 272 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 18. Which groups typically sponsor initiatives, or initiative petitions? a. citizens’ groups b. interest groups c. county governments d. state legislatures e. citizens’ and interest groups Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 272 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

19. Which of the following best describes a proposition? a. a special election b. a proposed measure c. a referendum d. an instant runoff election e. a winner-take-all election Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 272 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 20. What type of election allows voters to cut an officeholder’s term short? a. recall election b. runoff election c. instant runoff election d. primary election e. runoff primary election Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Elections in the United States Page: 272 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 21. All of the following are true about balloting in the United States EXCEPT that a. the secret ballot is used. b. the government prepares the ballot. c. when balloting is complete, the ballots are counted by government officials. d. methods of balloting are constitutionally stipulated. e. the Australian ballot is used. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Act of Voting Page: 273 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

22. During the presidential election of 2000, which state’s voting system came under enormous scrutiny because of paper perforations known as chads? a. California b. New York c. South Carolina d. Florida e. Ohio Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Act of Voting Page: 273 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 23. Which type of ballot generally leads to the coattail effect, where down-ballot candidates benefit from the popularity of those listed above them? a. party-column ballot b. Australian ballot c. butterfly ballot d. office-block ballot e. absentee ballot Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Act of Voting Page: 274 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 24. Which of the following is an effect of the office-block ballot? a. Candidates for lower-level offices are more likely to benefit from the popularity of a top-ofticket nominee. b. Voters are less likely to know which party the candidates represent. c. Voters are more likely to split their ticket. d. The secrecy of the ballot is more difficult to maintain. e. Voters are more likely to vote absentee. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Act of Voting Page: 274 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

25. Due to the popularity of voting by mail, which state has recently abandoned voting in polling places on Election Day? a. Washington b. California c. Oregon d. Idaho e. Nevada Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Act of Voting Page: 275 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 26. All of the following are factors cited by some scholars as disadvantages of voting by mail EXCEPT a. a lack of access to late information about candidates. b. that it may undermine feelings of civic engagement. c. that chances of fraud are increased. d. that it leads to a reduction of privacy. e. a likely decrease in voter participation. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Act of Voting Page: 275 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 27. Which of the following best describes what motivates individuals to run for office? a. a sense of civic responsibility b. party loyalty and allegiance c. desire for financial and personal gain d. personal goals and a desire for greater name recognition e. civic responsibility, party allegiance, personal goals, and desire for greater name recognition Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Running for Office: The Choice to Run Page: 275 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

28. What age limit for presidential office is codified by Article I of the Constitution? a. at least 25 years old b. at least 28 years old c. at least 30 years old d. at least 35 years old e. at least 38 years old Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Running for Office: The Choice to Run Page: 276 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 29. What age limit for senatorial office is codified by Article I of the Constitution? a. at least 25 years old b. at least 28 years old c. at least 30 years old d. at least 35 years old e. at least 38 years old Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Running for Office: The Choice to Run Page: 276 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 30. What age limit for election to the House of Representatives is codified by Article I of the Constitution? a. at least 25 years old b. at least 28 years old c. at least 30 years old d. at least 35 years old e. at least 38 years old Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Running for Office: The Choice to Run Page: 276 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

31. Which of the following describes a factor or factors in determining eligibility and qualifications for elected office at the state level? a. citizenship b. residency c. age d. place of birth, and gender e. age, residency, and citizenship Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Running for Office: The Choice to Run Page: 276 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 32. All of the following are considered informal qualifications for federal office EXCEPT a. possession of a college degree. b. considerable professional experience. c. strong communications skills. d. age and gender. e. ethnicity and religious affiliation. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Running for Office: The Choice to Run Page: 277 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 33. Today, most political campaigns are conducted and managed by a. party volunteers. b. unpaid campaign consultants. c. paid campaign consultants. d. local electoral officials. e. political party organizations. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Nature of Political Campaigns Today Page: 277 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

34. Which of the following conducts focus groups to determine candidate strengths and weaknesses? a. campaign manager b. pollster c. fundraising consultant d. media consultant e. campaign strategist Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Nature of Political Campaigns Today Page: 278 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 35. Efforts to limit the influence of money on political campaigns started after a. the Supreme Court’s ruling in Citizens United v. The Federal Election Commission during Barack Obama’s presidency. b. the Teapot Dome scandal during Warren Harding’s presidency. c. passage of the McCain-Feingold legislation during George W. Bush’s presidency. d. passage of the Hatch Act during the presidency of Franklin D. Roosevelt. e. Congress passed the Federal Election Campaign Act during Richard Nixon’s presidency. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Money and Politics Page: 280 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 36. Which anticorruption reform is also known as the Hatch Act of 1939? a. Federal Corrupt Practices Act b. Political Activities Act c. Federal Election Campaign Act d. Bipartisan Campaign Finance Reform Act e. McCain-Feingold Act Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Money and Politics Page: 280 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

37. Lacking in the original legislation, what was the most important provision in the 1974 amendments to the Federal Election Campaign Act? a. a voluntary tax return check-off for qualified presidential candidates b. limits on campaign expenditures c. creation of an enforcement mechanism d. limits on campaign finances e. public financing for all candidates Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Money and Politics Page: 280-281 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 38. What is the major significance of the Supreme Court’s ruling in Buckley v. Valeo? a. All political expenditures are protected by the First Amendment. b. PACs can legally coordinate expenditures with political campaigns. c. A PAC’s contributions to a political candidate cannot be limited. d. Congress can limit overall campaign spending. e. Independent expenditures are protected by law against limitations. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Money and Politics Page: 281 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 39. Contributions to political parties designated for so-called party-building activities are known as a. PAC donations. b. soft money. c. independent expenditures. d. grants-in-kind. e. extra-campaign contributions. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Money and Politics Page: 281 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

40. The Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of the McCain-Feingold Act in McConnell v. the Federal Election Commission. What portion of that act did the Supreme Court invalidate in its 2007 ruling in Federal Election Commission v. Wisconsin Right to Life, Inc.? a. ban on independent expenditures b. ban on limits to overall campaign expenditures c. ban on issue-based ads within the 30- and 60-day election window d. limitations on advertisements and donations from corporations and labor unions e. restriction on public funding of political candidates Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Money and Politics Page: 282 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 41. Tax-exempt groups that raise money for political activities are known as ________. a. 527s b. 501c3s c. 502s d. 501c4s e. 521s Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Money and Politics Page: 282 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 42. Which of the following is a major result of the Supreme Court’s ruling in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission? a. decreased importance of money in politics b. growth of the Super PACs c. candidates having a more difficult time soliciting individual donors d. decreased influence of traditional PACs e. All of these answers are correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Money and Politics Page: 283-284 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

43. How many electors are there in the Electoral College? a. 100 b. 103 c. 435 d. 535 e. 538 Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Campaigns Page: 285 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 44. Which of these factors is most important in determining voter participation? a. age b. income level c. education level d. gender e. ethnicity Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Votes? Factors in Voter Participation Page: 286 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 45. Which of the following statements about age and voting in the United States is most accurate? a. Because of initiatives like MTV’s Rock the Vote, young people are more likely to vote than the middle-aged. b. The youth turnout rate for President Obama’s 2008 election broke turnout-rate records. c. Since the 2008 presidential election, youth turnout rates have continued to rise. d. Eighteen-year-olds were first given the right to vote in 1972. e. As Americans age, they are less likely to vote. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Votes? Factors in Voter Participation Page: 287-288 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

46. A voter who evaluates candidates based on the candidates’ positions and votes for the candidate that best represent his or her views is a(n) a. retrospective voter. b. salient voter. c. issues voter. d. prospective voter. e. absentee voter Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: How Voters Decide Page: 289 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 47. On which of these types of issues are voters willing to base their vote? a. party-based issues b. personal issues c. liberty issues d. salient issues e. controversial issues Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: How Voters Decide Page: 290 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 48. Over the last few years, political campaigns have grown a. increasingly positive. b. somewhat more positive. c. neither positive nor negative. d. somewhat more negative. e. increasingly negative. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: How Voters Decide Page: 290 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

49. In the United States, the length of presidential campaigns tends to lead to voter fatigue. How long do presidential campaigns in the United States generally last? a. over three years b. over one year c. up to a year d. six to nine months e. three to six months Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Why Some People Do Not Vote Page: 291 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting 50. What theory states that making the conscious choice not to vote is rational and logical? a. rational abstention thesis b. voter fatigue thesis c. cumulative cost thesis d. rational actor thesis e. nonvoter rationalization thesis Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Why Some People Do Not Vote Page: 292 Teaching Emphasis: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

Essay Questions: 51. Outline how elections offer opportunities for citizen involvement in the political process. Answer: Elections offer citizens a wealth of opportunities for citizen involvement. Members of political parties recruit candidates to run for elections. Volunteers organize campaign events, including fundraisers, rallies, and neighborhood leafleting; phone-bank volunteers try to persuade others to participate, and other volunteers focus on GOTV (get out the vote) activities such as voter registration drives and provision of absentee ballots. 52. Define a caucus, and explain its function in elections. Answer: A caucus is a meeting of party members that is held to select delegates to national political party conventions. Caucuses often place restrictions on their selected delegates that require them to pledge their vote for a specific candidate, although this pledge is not legally binding.

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

53. Compare and contrast open and closed primary elections. Answer: Two types of primary election are used in the United States. The main difference lies in who can vote in each contest. In an open primary election, any registered voter can vote in any party’s primary, as can independent voters. Parties’ ballots are available in the voting booth, and the voter selects his or her preferences. In contrast, a closed primary limits voting to members of that party only. In some states, voters must declare their party affiliation up to 60 days in advance to be eligible to vote. 54. Explain the difference between a referendum and an initiative. Answer: Although both referendums and initiatives allow citizens to directly decide policy questions, they are quite different in structure and process. A referendum is an election in which voters in a state can vote for or against a measure proposed by the state legislature. In contrast, an initiative, or initiative petition, is a citizen-sponsored proposal that seeks either new or amended legislation, or a state constitutional amendment. These measures are placed on the ballot if 10 percent or more of the voters in the previous election sign a petition agreeing to its placement. 55. Outline and discuss the key features of the Australian ballot system. Answer: The Australian ballot system is the type of secret ballot used in elections in the United States. This secret ballot is prepared by the government, distributed to all eligible voters, and, once balloting is completed, counted by government officials in an unbiased fashion, without corruption or regard to individual preferences. 56. Identify the chief advantages of absentee voting. Answer: Absentee voting is a long-standing tradition that allows voters to vote in advance by mail when circumstances prevent voting in person. Advantages of the system include an easier voting process and experience, reduced election costs, and perhaps more representative elected officials due to higher voter turnout. 57. Outline the four types of motivation generally in play when individuals run for political office. Answer: Political scientists have identified four major types of motivation that encourage individuals to run for political office. These include: a sense of civic responsibility, or an obligation to govern; a sense of party loyalty, to fill the need for parties to run viable candidates; personal goals, and an interest in office-holding as a career; and interest in increasing personal name recognition, often for business reasons. 58. Discuss the increased use of, and various functions performed by, political consultants in recent elections. Answer: As campaigns have become more expensive and complex, political consultants have become important parts of recent election campaigns. Professionals, who often maintain partisan loyalties throughout their careers, may serve as campaign managers, campaign strategists, fundraising consultants, or media consultants. Consultants focus on getting their candidates elected, and are usually well compensated for their services.

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Chapter 9 Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

59. Outline how new technologies have changed the conduct of political campaigns in recent years. Answer: With contemporary technologies providing unprecedented access to information for most citizens, political parties and individual candidates have been quick to utilize these technologies, such as the Internet, blogs, social media, and the 24-hour news cycle to further their political interests. Today, candidates use all these technologies, as well as campaign websites, to raise money, galvanize supporters, and attract new voters to their cause. 60. Explain the relationship between party competitiveness and voter turnout. Answer: Researchers have demonstrated a connection between party competitiveness and voter turnout. This is due to voters’ perception that in tight races, their votes count for more than in a race where the result is a foregone conclusion. Competitive races also draw increased media attention, increasing voter awareness and encouraging the perception among voters that every vote counts.

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Chapter 10 The Media

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 10: The Media Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. How can today’s media consumers be sure that the information that they are receiving is accurate? a. Consumers should depend more on the Internet to gain accurate news. b. Consumers should gather news from media outlets with a track record of adhering to journalistic standards. c. Consumers should rely on citizen journalists, rather than corporately held media news outlets. d. Consumers need not worry about accuracy because the media is sworn to uphold journalistic standards. e. Consumers should only rely on the traditional news networks to gather their news. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Modern Media Page: 303 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 2. The media perform which of the following political functions? a. providing political information b. helping interpret policy and events, and influencing the national policy agenda c. providing a forum for political conversations d. socializing children to political culture e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Political Functions of the Media Page: 303 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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Chapter 10 The Media

3. Shows such as Jon Stewart’s The Daily Show and Stephen Colbert’s The Colbert Report that unite comedy and political content can be described as a. docudrama. b. yellow journalism. c. narrowcasting. d. infotainment. e. media framing. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Political Functions of the Media Page: 304 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 4. The sheer quantity and constant availability of information, which may cause media consumers to dismiss the significance of particular events, is known as a. media framing. b. infotainment. c. muckraking. d. information overload. e. information priming. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Political Functions of the Media Page: 304 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 5. Political scientist Shanto Iyengar argues that a process known as ________ sets a context that helps people understand important events and matters of shared interest. a. infotainment b. the 24/7 news cycle c. media framing d. media consumption e. priming Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interpreting Matters of Public Interest and Setting the Public Agenda Page: 304 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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Chapter 10 The Media

6. Which issue has been identified by political scientist Pippa Norris as a common frame through which journalists generate political stories? a. age b. gender c. income d. ethnicity e. race Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interpreting Matters of Public Interest and Setting the Public Agenda Page: 304 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 7. Which of the following is the best way to describe the manner in which the media influence the setting of the public agenda? a. priming b. framing c. yellow journalism d. information overload e. fairness doctrine Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interpreting Matters of Public Interest and Setting the Public Agenda Page: 304 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 8. Before the advent of non-print media, the most notable exception to the historically one-way tradition of people forming opinions based on what they read, heard, and saw was a. the political broadside. b. the letter to the editor. c. the colonial leaflet. d. the forum. e. printed ephemera. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interpreting Matters of Public Interest and Setting the Public Agenda Page: 306 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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Chapter 10 The Media

9. Which of the following has had the greatest influence on enabling people to communicate their views? a. the Internet b. cell phone technology c. newspaper d. television e. radio Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Interpreting Matters of Public Interest and Setting the Public Agenda Page: 306 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 10. Which of the following is the dominant medium by which young children receive both entertainment and socialization? a. radio b. the Internet c. television d. children’s books e. preschool Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Interpreting Matters of Public Interest and Setting the Public Agenda Page: 306 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 11. Which pre-Revolutionary British legislation directly attacked colonial American newspapers? a. Navigation Acts b. Declaratory Act c. Tea Act d. Stamp Act e. Townshend Act Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 306 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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12. Which of the following statements about the press in the 1830s is NOT true? a. The field of journalism was flourishing. b. Advertising first became part of the newspaper business. c. The consumption of media was becoming an increasingly elite pursuit. d. Newspaper circulation increased. e. New technology made possible the advent of cheaper newspapers. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 307 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 13. Early in the nineteenth century, advances in technology allowed newspapers to drop their prices, which made possible newspapers known as the a. penny press. b. daily dime. c. nightly nickel. d. quarter quarterly. e. ten-cent chronicle. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 307 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 14. What major factor, in addition to new technology, caused newspapers in the 1830s to lower their prices? a. increased readership among the elite b. decreased literacy rates c. sale of advertising d. falling circulation e. lack of journalistic standards Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 307 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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15. The Spanish-American newspaper war is the most famous example of what type of journalism? a. analytic journalism b. citizen journalism c. tabloid journalism d. muckraking e. yellow journalism Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 307-308 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 16. Where was the battleship Maine when it exploded in February 1898? a. Puerto Rico b. the Philippines c. Cuba d. Spain e. Jamaica Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 308 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 17. Which of the following best describes the journalists in the era of muckraking? a. highly technological, reporting on the scientific knowledge of the day b. sensational, writing about lurid stories to increase readership c. completely objective, reporting only about government policy from a unbiased view d. critical, writing exposés of corruption in government and industry e. overly-supportive, biased commentary about the government and industry Answer: d Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 308 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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18. Whose exposé of the meat-packing industry led to the establishment of the Food and Drug Administration? a. Joseph Pulitzer b. William Randolph Hearst c. Ida Tarbell d. Upton Sinclair e. Lincoln Steffens Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 308 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 19. Whose exposé of the oil industry between 1902 and 1904 appeared in McClure’s magazine? a. Joseph Pulitzer b. William Randolph Hearst c. Ida Tarbell d. Upton Sinclair e. Lincoln Steffens Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 308 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 20. Which media technology dominated between the 1940s and 1980? a. newspapers b. radio c. broadcast television d. cable television e. satellite television Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 308 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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21. All these technologies are considered new media EXCEPT a. the Internet. b. blogs. c. television. d. cable television. e. satellite television. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 308 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 22. The age of new media began in the a. 1980s. b. 1970s. c. 1990s. d. 2000s. e. 1960s. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 308 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 23. Which of the following statements about the newspaper industry today is the most accurate? a. Newspaper readership is increasing. b. Large cities are more likely to have smaller weekly publications that target specific demographic audiences. c. With the new technologies, revenue has steadily increased. d. Within the newsroom, women are most likely to be employed in the visual arts. e. Minorities are much more likely to be employed by smaller-circulation newsrooms. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 309 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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24. In 2012, how many newsroom supervisors were women? a. one-fifth b. one-quarter c. one-third d. two-fifths e. one-half Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 309 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 25. In general, minority journalists are more likely to be employed at newspapers with circulations of a. less than 10,000. b. 10,000–50,000. c. 50,000–125,000. d. 125,000–250,000. e. 250,000–500,000. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Press and Politics: A Historical View Page: 309 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 26. American radio listeners first heard news in real time in which decade? a. 1920s b. 1930s c. 1940s d. 1950s e. 1960s Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Media Go Electronic: The Radio and Television Revolutions Page: 310 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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Chapter 10 The Media

27. Which U.S. president’s fireside chats were the first to exploit the value of radio as a device for political communication? a. Dwight D. Eisenhower b. Franklin D. Roosevelt c. Herbert Hoover d. Harry S. Truman e. Theodore Roosevelt Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Media Go Electronic: The Radio and Television Revolutions Page: 310 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 28. When did talk radio—a format featuring call-ins from listeners—bring about a renaissance in radio? a. 1950s and 1960s b. 1960s and 1970s c. 1970s and 1980s d. 1980s and 1990s e. 1990s and 2000s Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Media Go Electronic: The Radio and Television Revolutions Page: 311 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 29. Which of the following was a major factor in the growth of partisan radio programming? a. the switch from the AM to FM band b. the use by presidents to address the country c. adoption of the FCC’s fairness doctrine d. repeal of the FCC’s fairness doctrine e. a lack of outlets for civic discourse Answer: d Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Media Go Electronic: The Radio and Television Revolutions Page: 311 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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30. One of the ways that talk radio promotes civic discourse is that it a. allows for a real-time exchange of information. b. appeals to a diversified market of media consumers. c. provides neutral and objective journalism. d. promotes the understanding of various ideological viewpoints. e. is less argumentative and emotional than similar programming on television. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Media Go Electronic: The Radio and Television Revolutions Page: 311 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 31. Between 1977 and 2003, viewer audiences for network television a. declined significantly. b. declined marginally. c. remained steady. d. increased marginally. e. increased significantly. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Media Go Electronic: The Radio and Television Revolutions Page: 312 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 32. Which of the following statements about traditional network television is the most accurate? a. Despite the competition, network television is gaining viewers. b. The majority of the prime-time TV viewing audience still watches network television. c. Among the networks’ non-nightly news shows, viewership has stagnated. d. Viewership of the network’s nightly news is the only area in which viewership has increased. e. When comparing audience share, the three major networks still dominate. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Media Go Electronic: The Radio and Television Revolutions Page: 312 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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33. The term narrowcasting means the practice of aiming media content at a. many segments of the public. b. specific segments of the public. c. groups based on age or gender. d. groups based on ethnicity or socioeconomic status. e. groups based on religious affiliation. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Media Go Electronic: The Radio and Television Revolutions Page: 313 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 34. The ability of advertisers to target African Americans on Black Entertainment Television or Latinos on Telemundo is due to a. media segmentation. b. narrowcasting. c. media telegenism. d. media convergence. e. media consolidation. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Media Go Electronic: The Radio and Television Revolutions Page: 313 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 35. In the first ever televised presidential debate, which president was the first to display telegenic qualities? a. Richard Nixon b. John F. Kennedy c. Ronald Reagan d. Bill Clinton e. George W. Bush Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Media Go Electronic: The Radio and Television Revolutions Page: 313 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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36. The emergence of the multimedia start-up Politico is an example of the merging of various forms of media under one corporate roof with one set of business and editorial leaders. This is known as a. consolidation. b. narrowcasting. c. convergence. d. media segmentation. e. new media. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Convergence and Consolidation Page: 314 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 37. The number of corporations that supply the majority of news to Americans has shrunk from 50 in 1983 to just 6 today. This is a result of a. consolidation. b. convergence. c. media segmentation. d. new media. e. narrowcasting. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Convergence and Consolidation Page: 314 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 38. The use of portable cellular technology like phones and tablets has a. decreased news consumption as a whole. b. increased consumption of news briefs, but decreased consumption of “long form” news. c. increased the traffic on major newspaper websites. d. decreased the relevant timeframe of the news. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Convergence and Consolidation Page: 315 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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39. Like the penny papers of the 1830s, blogs often lack a. a large following. b. advertisements. c. political content. d. neutrality. e. professional journalists. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Convergence and Consolidation Page: 315 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 40. Which of the following statements about blogs is NOT accurate? a. Blogs play a role in shaping the agenda of the traditional media establishment. b. Blogging has dramatically increased in the past five years. c. Blogs are an important platform for citizen journalists. d. Bloggers often break new stories that then become a traditional media firestorm. e. Despite a heavy individual following, the media establishment is mostly uninfluenced by blogs. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Convergence and Consolidation Page: 315 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 41. Traditionally, media outlets and journalists have been labeled a. mostly conservative. b. somewhat conservative. c. both conservative and liberal. d. somewhat liberal. e. mostly liberal. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Biased Media? Page: 315 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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42. Studies by various political scientists have found that most news stories a. actually contain a conservative bent. b. are liberally biased. c. take the form of a debate. d. present only one point of view. e. are tinged by the journalist’s personal viewpoint. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Biased Media? Page: 316 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 43. Which of the following statements about the ideological bias in the media is correct? a. Democratic elected officials believe that newer media outlets are dominated by conservatives. b. Democratic and Republican officials believe that newer media outlets are controlled by independents. c. Democratic officials believe that newer media outlets are controlled by corporate interests. d. Republican officials believe that newer media outlets are controlled by liberal media interests. e. Republican officials believe that the newer media are liberally biased in the same ways as traditional media. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Biased Media? Page: 315 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 44. Which of the following public perspectives on media bias gained the highest response rate? a. too liberal b. just about right c. too favorable toward special interests d. too conservative e. too extreme Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Biased Media? Page: 316 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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Chapter 10 The Media

45. Which of the following ideological perspectives are favored by giant media conglomerates? a. strong liberal bias b. mild liberal bias c. ideological neutrality d. mild conservative bias e. strong conservative bias Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Biased Media? Page: 316 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 46. All of the following are powerful media audience attractors EXCEPT a. celebrity and sports news. b. fires and violent crime. c. political and sports scandals. d. good news reports. e. sex scandals. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Biased Media? Page: 316 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 47. Most of the FCC’s rules deal with media a. ownership. b. content. c. participants. d. profits. e. access. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Regulation of the Media: Is It Necessary? Page: 317 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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Chapter 10 The Media

48. The Telecommunications Act of 1996 did which of the following? a. resulted in a limiting of options for consumers b. provided specific enforcement provisions to root out indecency c. approved consolidation of several news outlets d. defined what content was “decent” for broadcast e. opened communications markets to telephone companies Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Regulation of the Media: Is It Necessary? Page: 317 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 49. All of the following are concerns about large corporate conglomerate control over the media EXCEPT that a. too much competition will dilute the quality of the news. b. this type of control will deter balanced reporting. c. it will impact the unbiased presentation of issues. d. it will remove a valuable check on what the media does. e. large corporations exert too much influence over the news the average American reads on a given day. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Regulation of the Media: Is It Necessary? Page: 317 Teaching Emphasis: The Media 50. Which of the following words best describes the evolutionary development of the U.S. media industry ownership over the last several decades? a. diversification b. devolution c. consolidation d. deleveraging e. cross-pollination Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Regulation of the Media: Is It Necessary? Page: 317 Teaching Emphasis: The Media

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Essay Questions: 51. Identify various forms of media that are present today. Answer: There are many different forms of media present today, including print media such as newspapers and magazines; electronic media, including radio and television; and new media, including websites and social networking sites such as Facebook, Twitter, and YouTube. Additionally, other forms of media such as blogs, and Internet and satellite radio and television, also offer knowledge and information to their readers, listeners, and subscribers. 52. Explain and identify the political functions performed by the media. Answer: The media perform several political functions. They provide political information, help us to interpret events and policies, and influence the national policy agenda through reporting and commenting on important issues. They also provide a forum for political conversations, and socialize children to the political culture. 53. Outline the early role of the press in the United States. Answer: In the early years of the republic, the press served primarily as a vehicle for the leaders of political parties, who expressed their opinions through newspapers known to reflect their viewpoints in reporting the news. The circulation of these newspapers was small, but so was their audience, as most people were not literate and did not vote. These circumstances changed by the 1830s; more people could read and write, and new technology made the penny press— newspapers that sold for only a penny—available. 54. Define yellow journalism, and explain its impact. Answer: Yellow journalism was a term coined to describe the sensational, sometimes irresponsible approach to journalism and news reporting that held sway during the last part of the nineteenth century. Publishers like Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst encouraged this trend as a means to sell newspapers. Such reporting encouraged the Spanish-American War of 1898, due to the large role played by the press in influencing President McKinley’s decision to go to war. 55. Outline how radio altered the relationship between politicians and their constituents. Answer: When radio first appeared as a political communications device, politics was revolutionized. From the early 1920s on, radio allowed listeners to hear news in real time, which altered the relationship between politicians and their constituents. This was particularly true of presidents, as radio brought listeners into direct contact with their leaders. Franklin D. Roosevelt was the first politician to take advantage of the new medium, and the golden age of radio ran from the 1920s to the 1960s. 56. Explain the effects of the ending of the fairness doctrine by the FCC. Answer: In 1987, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) ended its support of the fairness doctrine, which had required stations to provide equal time to all sides regarding important public issues, and equal airtime access for candidates. Since the law’s repeal, partisan radio programming—particularly talk radio—has proliferated, and most listeners today tend to prefer radio stations that share and/or reinforce their viewpoint.

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Chapter 10 The Media

57. Define and discuss narrowcasting, and explain how it has changed political media content. Answer: Since the 1980s, cable news programming has grown dramatically, and many channels that represent a wide range of ideological viewpoints compete for audiences. As stations such as Fox News and MSNBC have increased their viewing audiences, observers have coined the term narrowcasting, meaning the practice of aiming political media content at specific segments of the public according to ideology, party affiliation, or economic interests. Political parties have begun to follow this trend, aiming more narrowly at certain groups. 58. Discuss the changing nature of the business of news. Answer: In addition to changing the way in which people gather the news, technology has also impacted the business of the news. Increasingly, various forms of media (newspapers, television stations, radio networks, and blogs) have merged under one corporate roof, in a process known as convergence. Corporations are also progressively seeking to become a universal provider of digital needs. As such, the consolidation of smaller companies into large corporations occurs, which results in the reduction of available products. 59. Discuss the role of the blogosphere as an influence on contemporary politics. Answer: The blogosphere refers to the community, or social network, of bloggers. Blogs are increasingly sophisticated in terms of variety and credibility. Politics is a major topic in the blogosphere, and bloggers themselves believe that they are and will remain politically influential. Blogs argue that they are the most up-to-date source of information, and can make information available to large numbers of people instantly. 60. Does the media have an ideological bias? Answer: One of the most common complaints about the media is that it has an ideological bias. Most often heard is the complaint that the media exhibits a liberal bias. In fact, when asked about partisan bias, 47 percent of the public thought the media was “too liberal.” Studies by several political scientists, however, refute the charge that the personal viewpoints of newsroom journalists tinge the content of the news in a liberal way. In fact, studies suggest that most news stories take the form of a debate, where the journalist presents both sides and leaves the conclusion up to the readers’ interpretation.

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Chapter 11 Politics and Technology

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 11: Politics and Technology Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Reflecting the change in political campaigning, how did President Obama announce his bid for reelection in April, 2011? a. prime-time address b. in front of hometown crowds in Illinois c. before the first caucus in the state of Iowa d. by tweet e. through a YouTube video Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Politics and Technology Page: 326 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 2. The modern media revolution began with the advent of a. television. b. radio. c. social networking. d. the Internet. e. cellular technology. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Modern Technological Revolution: The Internet and Cellular Technology Page: 326 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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Chapter 11 Politics and Technology

3. The ability of cellular technology to make the Internet portable and constantly available has been revolutionary. What percentage of American adults own a smartphone today? a. less than 20 percent b. nearly 25 percent c. almost 35 percent d. nearly 50 percent e. about 75 percent Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Modern Technological Revolution: The Internet and Cellular Technology Page: 327 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 4. Unequal access to computer technology is known as a. the digital divide. b. hacktivism. c. Foursquare. d. netroots. e. Net neutrality. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Modern Technological Revolution: The Internet and Cellular Technology Page: 327 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 5. Which of the following has been most instrumental in decreasing the income-based digital divide? a. wired broadband technology b. Internet technology c. access to high-speed services d. unlimited data plans e. cellular technology Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Modern Technological Revolution: The Internet and Cellular Technology Page: 327 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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Chapter 11 Politics and Technology

6. Which of the following is a cause of the digital divide? a. earnings levels b. lack of high-speed Internet access c. geography d. consumer disability e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Modern Technological Revolution: The Internet and Cellular Technology Page: 327-328 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 7. Which of the following statements about who uses the Internet is most accurate? a. Internet usage is skewed toward older, high-income earners. b. Because of its universality, there is no correlation between educational attainment and Internet use. c. The younger the person, the more likely they are to use the Internet. d. Hispanics are less likely to use the Internet than are African Americans or whites. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Modern Technological Revolution: The Internet and Cellular Technology Page: 328 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 8. Who of the following would be most likely to use the Internet? a. a 65-year-old African American man from a large city b. a 25-year-old, college-educated Hispanic female from the suburbs c. a white, middle-aged farm worker from a small agricultural town d. a 30-year-old, white urban dweller without a high school diploma e. a 70-year-old, white high-school graduate from the suburbs Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Modern Technological Revolution: The Internet and Cellular Technology Page: 328 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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Chapter 11 Politics and Technology

9. With respect to civic engagement and participation, online groups a. perform different, often more negative, civic functions than offline groups. b. are less effective in mobilizing political participation. c. perform work that is very different than that of the face-to-face groups that preceded them. d. spur activism that may not have been possible through offline groups. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Modern Technological Revolution: The Internet and Cellular Technology Page: 329 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 10. Considerable research indicates that the use of social media ________ civic engagement and participation in the real world. a. decreases b. has no impact on c. rarely increases d. increases e. drastically decreases Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Modern Technological Revolution: The Internet and Cellular Technology Page: 328-329 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 11. Which of the following was a watershed event in the use of new technology in politics? a. passage of the Affordable Health Care Act in 2010 b. Bill Clinton’s 1996 campaign c. John McCain’s 2008 presidential bid d. passage of the McCain-Feingold campaign finance reform in 2002 e. Barack Obama’s 2008 presidential bid Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Modern Technological Revolution: The Internet and Cellular Technology Page: 329-330 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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Chapter 11 Politics and Technology

12. All of the following are news aggregators EXCEPT a. Google News. b. Huffington Post. c. network television news. d. Yahoo News. e. Drudge Report. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 330 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 13. A service that compiles all the news that we want from various outlets into one location is known as a a. news aggregator. b. micro-blog. c. wiki. d. vlog. e. bandwidth. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 330 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 14. Which of the following has had the biggest influence on the increase in sophistication of Web content? a. users b. bandwidth c. blogs d. social networking e. email Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 332 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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Chapter 11 Politics and Technology

15. Which decade brought about the advent of the Internet as we know it (graphic Web browsers, email)? a. 2000s b. 1980s c. 1990s d. 1970s e. 1960s Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 332 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 16. ________ helped spur the Internet revolution with the invention of hypertext. a. Bill Gates b. Steve Jobs c. Al Gore d. Tim Berners-Lee e. the U.S. government Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 332 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 17. As a result of new technology, communication is now a. a two-way street. b. mediated by news outlets. c. less direct. d. a one-way street. e. about information reception. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 332 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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Chapter 11 Politics and Technology

18. Which of the following can be described as a platform that enables users to construct a profile, specify other users with whom they have a connection, and view others’ connections? a. social networking b. vlog c. blogosphere d. wiki e. netroots Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 333 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 19. Which of the following is the best example of the way new technology has enabled the exchange of information between elected leaders and constituents? a. Google.com b. the Drudge Report c. congressional Facebook pages d. CNN.com e. YouTube’s Town Hall Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 333 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 20. Which of the following statements about the blogosphere is most accurate? a. The popularity of blogs peaked in 2005 and remains steady. b. Blogs lack variety, as most deal with political issues. c. The traditional media discourage blogs. d. Some blogs are written by professional journalists. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 335 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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Chapter 11 Politics and Technology

21. Which of the following best defines the term netroots? a. the use of social networking sites in campaigns b. mobilizing voters through the Internet c. websites that enable short communications d. Internet-centered political efforts for candidates and causes e. the homepage on a candidate’s website Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 335 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 22. Which of the following is a part of netroots? a. grassroots organizing b. blogs c. political activism d. online media e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 335 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 23. A site that enables short communications that are often specifically targeted at on-the-move audiences is known as a a. netroot. b. micro-blog. c. promoted tweet. d. cyber-cascade. e. vlog. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 335 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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Chapter 11 Politics and Technology

24. To mobilize supporters, organizers of the “Occupy” protests used sites like Twitter to distribute information to a large amount of people. This is known as a. e-campaigning. b. remarketing. c. promoted tweets. d. a cyber cascade. e. micro-blogging. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 335 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 25. Professional wrestler Jesse Ventura credits the mobilization of voters through the Internet, or _______, for being elected governor of Minnesota despite his being a political outsider. a. blogging b. tweeting c. remarketing d. e-campaigning e. netroots Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 335 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 26. The success of which candidate in using the Internet to recruit volunteers and raise money in 2004 brought into sharp focus the potential of the Internet as a force in political campaigns? a. Barack Obama b. Bill Clinton c. Howard Dean d. Jesse Ventura e. Michael Dukakis Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 336 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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27. Recognizing the role it plays in political campaigns, which of the following sites provides tips for the use of social networking as a campaign tool? a. Yahoo.com b. the Huffington Post c. U.S. Politics page on Facebook d. CNN.com e. YouTube’s Town Hall Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 336 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 28. What has been the effect of the rapid expansion of Internet technology on the ability of presidential campaigns to manage the news? a. It has made managing the news somewhat easier. b. The effect is mostly neutral. c. It has made managing favorable news easier and unfavorable news more difficult. d. It has made managing the news more difficult. e. It has had no effect on the ability of presidential campaigns to manage the news. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 336 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 29. Which of the following is the best way to describe a promoted tweet? a. targeted advertisement b. e-campaign c. cyber cascade d. e-mobilization e. microtarget Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 336-337 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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30. When a Google advertisement for a political candidate appears on your screen based on cookies that you have dropped on other websites, Google is participating in a. e-campaigning. b. remarketing. c. e-mobilizing. d. hacktivism. e. Foursquare. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 337 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 31. A canvasser for a candidate using E-motive software on a smartphone to survey potential supporters and then syncing the phone with a database that tracks citizens’ preferences and concerns is participating in a. an e-petition. b. a macro-protest. c. e-mobilization. d. an e-campaign. e. microtargeting. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 337 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 32. When an electronic document “goes viral,” as in the case of the computer-altered image of Mitt Romney with five children whose T-shirts spell out the word “money,” it becomes part of a. a remarketing campaign. b. e-mobilization. c. a cyber cascade. d. the blogosphere. e. a macro-protest. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 337 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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33. In what way was a 22-year-old woman able to pressure Bank of America to drop their plan to levy a monthly fee on debit cards in 2011? a. cyber cascade b. e-petition c. macro-protest d. promoted tweet e. hacktivism Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 337 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 34. Which of the following is an example of a macro-protest? a. collection of 300,000 signatures on an e-petition b. mobilization of like-minded voters c. the destruction of electronic files in pursuit of a political goal d. cyber cascade of campaign photos e. coordinated blackout of websites to influence legislation Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 338 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 35. Which of the following industries was instrumental in the defeat of the Internet Piracy Act (SOPA) and the Protect IP Act (PIPA) through their use of a macro-protest? a. the traditional media b. the entertainment industry c. international hactivist groups d. the technology industry e. the legal profession Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 338 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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36. Spawned by frustration over the partisan bickering surrounding President Clinton’s impeachment hearings, two Silicon Valley entrepreneurs started MoveOn.org, which is now best known for its successful a. e-mobilization. b. hacktivism. c. Foursquare. d. micro blogging. e. wiki. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 338 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 37. The WikiLeaks website, which released millions of secret government documents, is an example of what mode of political participation? a. e-campaigning b. macro-protesting c. hacktivism d. microtargeting e. e-mobilization Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 339 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 38. Which government agency played a major role in the development of the Internet? a. Department of Commerce b. Department of Defense c. Central Intelligence Agency d. State Department e. Treasury Department Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 339 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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39. Through the use of e-Government, the United States government hopes to a. offer services more efficiently. b. offer services cost-effectively. c. increase transparency. d. provide more information about government services and processes. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 339 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 40. The old way the government did things, in paper form or via outdated computer systems, is part of the government’s a. Foursquare. b. legacy system. c. transparency. d. wiki. e. e-mobilization Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 339 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 41. Which of the following services will enable government to provide direct services to residents and visitors so that they can search nearby restaurants by health-department grade or access timely emergency services? a. Foursquare b. wiki c. legacy systems d. Twitter e. Facebook Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 339 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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42. To eliminate the need for cumbersome streams of emails containing revised versions of documents, some government officials rely on an Internet-based editing tool that allows documents to be created and edited online by multiple individuals. This is known as a a. Foursquare. b. wiki. c. micro-blog. d. vlog. e. virtual community. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Technology Now: Changing How Politics is Done Page: 340 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 43. Which of the following is evidence of the change in the nature of political advertising? a. negative ads b. data-driven Internet ads c. 60-second ads d. television ads e. the need for a media strategy Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What’s Next: How Technology Will Continue to Transform the Political Landscape Page: 341 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 44. The on-demand news cycle has done which of the following? a. increased the news cycle b. made candidates more capable of manipulating the news cycle c. allowed candidates to be better able to manage unanticipated media coverage d. made it necessary for candidates to be constantly ready to spin events in their favor e. All these answers are correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What is the Impact of Technology on Political Life? Page: 343 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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45. Which of the following statements about new technology and democracy is NOT accurate? a. New technology has created an uneven playing field for candidates and political groups. b. New technology makes mobilization more affordable. c. New technology has made young people more interested in the news. d. New technology increases the likelihood of unanticipated negative media coverage. e. New technology can be a tool to bring democracy to the masses. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What is the Impact of Technology on Political Life? Page: 342-343 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 46. Which of the following statements about the use of the Internet in politics is most accurate? a. The massive volume of information available on the Internet makes it easy for people to become accurately informed. b. The use of the Internet has allowed for more personal privacy. c. Media consumers need to think less critically about the political information they get on the Internet. d. Political slander is much easier to root out and stop on the Internet. e. The Internet has contributed to the decline in civility in political discourse. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What is the Impact of Technology on Political Life? Page: 343-345 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 47. The result of the Internet’s selective exposure is a. less political discourse. b. more moderate viewpoints. c. increased polarization. d. broader exposure to contradictory views. e. increased desire to compromise. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What is the Impact of Technology on Political Life? Page: 344 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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48. The ability to geographically target a specific cell phone signal using directional data from cell towers is known as a. recognition biometrics. b. tower triangulation. c. cloud computing. d. hacktivism. e. remote servicing. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What is the Impact of Technology on Political Life? Page: 345 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 49. Which of the following is true of the Internet and the American guarantee of freedom of speech? a. The vastness of the Internet has overwhelmed the American guarantee of free speech. b. The United States does not regulate hate speech on the Internet. c. A large number of hate sites register their domains in the United States because of the country’s free speech protections. d. Free speech on the Internet becomes problematic because it allows extremists to spread their message. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: What is the Impact of Technology on Political Life? Page: 345-346 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology 50. The idea that Internet traffic should flow through the Internet pipeline without interference or discrimination by those who own or are running the pipeline is known as a. bandwidth. b. the digital divide. c. netroots. d. Net neutrality. e. remarketing. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Regulation of the Internet: Is It Necessary? Page: 346 Teaching Emphasis: Politics and Technology

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Essay Questions: 51. Who uses the Internet? Discuss the digital divide. Answer: Demographic factors including region, income, education, race, and age play a role in predicting who will use the Internet. High-income earners are more likely to use the Internet, and Internet usage is highly correlated with educational attainment. African Americans are less likely to use the Internet than whites or Hispanics, and those living in rural areas are less likely to use the Internet than suburbanites or urban-dwellers. Youth is also highly correlated to Internet usage. Unequal access to technology creates the digital divide. Several factors including income, geography, disability, and high-speed access contribute to the digital divide. The use of cellular technology and free Wi-Fi services has been instrumental in attempts to shrink the digital divide. 52. Describe virtual communities and discuss their impact on civic engagement and participation in the real world. Answer: Virtual communities are online networks where individuals perform as leaders, information and opinions can be shared, and strategies can be planned, priorities organized, and roles assigned. A lot of research indicates that the use of media sources like Facebook increases civic engagement and participation in the real world. Online groups perform many of the same civic functions as offline groups, especially in the areas of mobilizing and political participation. In many ways, social networking sites spur activism that may not have been possible in offline groups. 53. How did the use of technology in the 2008 presidential election make it different from previous presidential elections? Answer: The 2008 presidential campaign was a watershed event in terms of technology. Barack Obama’s campaign used groundbreaking technological innovation on many fronts, including a website that made it easy for users to actively participate in the campaign. Obama’s campaign also relied on social networking sites to familiarize voters with his campaign message. The campaign also used new cellular and software platforms to provide a sophisticated get-out-thevote effort on Election Day. Obama’s success demonstrated how crucial it was for campaign organizers to leverage emerging technology for strategic advantage. 54. Discuss the transformation of media from a “one-way” format of information transmission to “two-way” street of information exchange. Answer: The traditional media and the Internet in the early years functioned as a “one-way” means for people to receive information. As Internet bandwidth increased, so did the sophistication of Web content. The result has been a new pattern of twenty-first century communication in which communication is a two-way street that is no longer mediated by media outlets. This “two-way” communication enables conversations about information, rather than just information reception, and has created a hybrid of producers and consumers of the news.

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55. What has been the effect of the rapid expansion of Internet technologies on the ability of presidential campaigns to manage the news? Answer: The rapid expansion of Internet technologies has made it more difficult for presidential campaigns and administrations to manage the news. Campaigns must be on top of information because the Internet has the ability to drive political news in unexpected directions. White House candidates must aggressively monitor audio and video to stay on top of trends. The Internet has created an on-demand news cycle that means that candidates must constantly be ready to spin events in their favor because relatively obscure events can go viral at any moment. 56. Outline some of the new modes of political participation brought about by technology. Answer: Technology has the ability to put the tools of democracy into the hands of the masses. Some of the new modes of political participation that have been enabled by technology include email campaigns, e-petition drives, macro-protests, e-mobilization, and hacktivism. Technological changes allow everyday people a greater ability to influence and access information. 57. In what ways can technology be an equalizer in political campaigns? Answer: Before information technology, the cost of running a campaign could be prohibitive. Information technology allows candidates and organizations to mobilize in a much more affordable way. Things like networking through social media can provide a cost-effective and efficient means of reaching out to like-minded citizens. 58. What are some of the downsides of the use of technology in politics? Answer: Despite its positive effects, technology presents a series of challenges to both users and society. Given the abundance of information on the Internet, one key concern is the accuracy of information. As technology grows more sophisticated, privacy issues also become a concern. Finally, finding a balance between free speech rights and the protection of the rights of individuals who face physical threats or threats to their reputations is also a challenge. 59. Discuss the free speech concerns that have arisen because of the rapid rise of the Internet and related technologies. Answer: The rise of the Internet has overwhelmed American guarantees of free speech because the volume and content of speech on the Internet is growing faster than society’s ability to digest its impact. It is a political conundrum, as Americans try to to balance free speech rights with the ability of the government to protect those whose persons or reputations have been threatened by someone’s speech. Americans have always tolerated language and believe that fringe groups can flourish in a democracy without risking tears in the fabric of society, but the use of worldwide communications technology as a tool for terrorists has begun to put doubt on these notions.

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60. What is Net neutrality? Should those who own or are running the Internet pipeline be able to control the information that flows through it? Answer: Net neutrality is the idea that Internet traffic should flow through the Internet pipeline without interference or discrimination by those who own or are running the pipeline. Currently, Congress is considering the question of control over the business of the media. Critics, including Tim Berners-Lee, inventor of the World Wide Web, charge that congressional passage of legislation supporting the service providers would destroy the neutrality and openness of the Internet.

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American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 12: Congress Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. When creating the Congress, the founders of the United States strove to create a legislature that could check the power of the a. president. b. Supreme Court. c. military. d. federal bureaucracy. e. federal courts. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of Congress Page: 354 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 2. Which of the following best describes the makeup of the legislature in the United States? a. unicameral b. parliamentary c. bicameral d. executive e. unichamber Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of Congress Page: 354 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 3. Which branch of government was specifically created to closely represent the people’s views? a. Senate b. House of Representatives c. Supreme Court d. president e. president of the Senate Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of Congress Page: 354 Teaching Emphasis: Congress Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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4. Because of the constitutional duties of the Senate, in which of the following policy sectors do many members of the Senate specialize? a. health care policy b. energy policy c. agriculture policy d. revenue policy e. foreign policy Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of Congress Page: 335 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 5. How often are House members elected? a. every two years, in even-numbered years b. every two years, in odd-numbered years c. every three years, in even-numbered years d. every three years, in odd-numbered years e. every four years, in even-numbered years Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Elections Page: 355 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 6. Which constitutional amendment shifted the power to elect senators from state legislators to popular elections? a. Fifteenth b. Sixteenth c. Seventeenth d. Eighteenth e. Nineteenth Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Elections Page: 355 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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7. In 2010, how much did it cost, on average, to make a successful bid for the U.S. Senate? a. $174,000 b. $560,000 c. $1.1 million d. $5.6 million e. $8.3 million Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Elections Page: 355 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 8. Of the following, which would be the most important determinant in a successful congressional campaign? a. the candidate’s policy specialization b. the candidate’s personal wealth c. the candidate’s party affiliation d. the candidate’s prior experience e. the candidate’s incumbency Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Elections Page: 355 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 9. Which of these factors makes it more likely that incumbents will prevail in congressional elections? a. stronger name recognition b. easier access to media c. the privilege of franking, or sending mail free of charge d. larger campaign contributions e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Elections Page: 356 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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10. Which of the following statements about reapportionment is NOT accurate? a. It redraws the congressional district boundaries within the state. b. It is a reallocation of seats in the House of Representatives. c. It is based on the federal census. d. It can diminish the advantage of incumbency. e. It may cause a state to gain or lose congressional representatives. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Elections Page: 357 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 11. How often does reapportionment and redistricting of seats occur in the House of Representatives? a. every 2 years b. every 4 years c. every 6 years d. every 10 years e. every 12 years Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Elections Page: 357 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 12. The practice of redrawing electoral boundaries for political advantage is known as a. majority-minority district formation. b. gerrymandering. c. reapportionment. d. redistricting. e. casework. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Elections Page: 357 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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13. Under Supreme Court jurisprudence, the drawing of legislative district boundaries for the purpose of benefitting an incumbent, political party, or another group is unconstitutional a. whenever it is applied. b. when it is clearly partisan. c. when it creates a majority-minority district. d. when it eliminates the minority party’s influence in the district. e. when it eliminates the minority party’s influence statewide. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Elections Page: 357 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 14. The most precise way to describe attempts by state legislatures to address racial imbalance in the House of Representatives is a. by reapportionment. b. by redistricting. c. through the creation of majority-minority districts. d. through the creation of minority-majority districts. e. through gerrymandering. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Powers of Congress Page: 357 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 15. Which of these powers is/are granted to Congress by the Constitution? a. to borrow money and regulate currency b. taxation, spending, and establishment of tariffs c. administration of post offices d. punishing illegal acts on the high seas e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Powers of Congress Page: 359 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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16. Because of the elastic clause, Congress exercises a ________ scope of authority. a. broad b. reasonable c. limited d. restricted e. tenuous Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Powers of Congress Page: 359 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 17. Which of the following is/are a source of congressional power and authority? a. the Constitution b. Supreme Court decisions c. the media d. the people e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Powers of Congress Page: 359 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 18. Which of the following was an important consideration during the shaping of congressional functions? a. interventionist government b. checks and balances c. the consolidation of powers d. creation of a confederal system e. All these answers are correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 359 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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19. Which eighteenth-century political theorist espoused the trustee model of political representation, in which congressional members follow their own conscience when deciding issue positions? a. Edmund Burke b. Baron de Montesquieu c. Thomas Jefferson d. Jean-Jacques Rousseau e. Voltaire Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 360 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 20. Within the instructed delegate model, elected representatives act a. according to their conscience at all times. b. mostly according to their conscience, and occasionally in line with constituents. c. equally according to conscience and in line with constituents. d. in line with constituents, unless constituents’ views contradict representatives’ personal views. e. in line with constituents, even if those views contradict representatives’ personal views. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 360 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 21. Most representatives in Congress employ ________ in their approach to governance. a. the trustee model b. mostly the trustee model c. a combination of the trustee model and delegate model d. mostly the instructed delegate model e. the instructed delegate model Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 360 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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22. Appropriations of funds by congressional legislators for projects in their districts are known as a. pork barrel projects. b. earmarks. c. preferred bills. d. block grants. e. categorical block grants. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 360 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 23. What type of bills are commonly used as a means for legislators to appropriate funds to special projects within their congressional districts? a. health and human services bills b. veterans administration funding bills c. transportation bills d. communications bills e. energy bills Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 360 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 24. In what way have congressional legislators sought to circumvent a recent moratorium on earmarks? a. gerrymandering b. pork barreling c. delegating d. lettermarking e. caseworking Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 360 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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25. What has been the result of the recent moratorium on pork barrel projects? a. not effective, with only a small reduction in such projects b. somewhat effective, with a reduction in about half of such projects c. not effective, because legislators have been extremely successful in circumventing the moratorium d. not effective, because of problems caused by large loopholes e. effective, with a large decrease in the amount of dollars spent on such projects Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 361 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 26. A special form of representation, personal aid to a constituent or group of constituents, is known as a. private billing. b. pork. c. bringing home the bacon. d. earmarks. e. casework. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 361 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 27. When a member of Congress advocates on behalf of a constituent who has an issue with a bureaucratic agency, he or she is playing the role of a. legislator. b. caseworker. c. ombudsperson. d. trustee. e. instructed delegate. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 361 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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28. Which former senator and vice president warned of the constituent service dilemma? a. Dick Cheney b. Al Gore c. Walter Mondale d. Harry Truman e. Richard Nixon Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 361 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 29. ________ is the process by which Congress “checks” the executive branch to ensure that laws are being administered in keeping with legislators’ intentions. a. Supervision b. Oversight c. Engagement d. Regulation e. Casework Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 362 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 30. All of the following are tools that Congress uses to “check” the executive branch EXCEPT a. congressional hearings. b. budgetary appropriations. c. legislative veto. d. congressional investigations. e. confirmation hearings. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Functions of Congress Page: 363 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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31. In many congressional districts, particularly urban areas, House members’ constituencies tend to have fairly ________ positions on many issues. a. unified b. similar c. different d. diverse e. conflicted Answer: a Critical Thinking: Comprehension Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The House and the Senate Compared Page: 364 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 32. Identify the correct chronological order of a legislative bill’s passage. a. introduction, committee review, conference committee reconciliation, House and Senate approval, presidential approval b. introduction, conference committee reconciliation, committee review, House and Senate approval, presidential approval c. introduction, committee review, House and Senate approval, conference committee reconciliation, presidential approval d. committee review, introduction, conference committee reconciliation, House and Senate approval, presidential approval e. introduction, conference committee reconciliation, House and Senate approval, committee review, presidential approval Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Legislative Process Page: 365 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 33. The wooden box into which House members insert proposed bills is known as the a. matchbox. b. hopper. c. earmark. d. jumper. e. casket. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Legislative Process Page: 366 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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34. What process replaced the practice of joint referral, which had allowed bills to be referred for consideration to two House committees simultaneously, after it was abolished in 1995 by the 104th Congress? a. placement in the hopper b. transfer to the standing committee c. assignment to a select committee d. referral to the lead committee e. allocation to the joint committee Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Legislative Process Page: 367 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 35. Permanent committees with a defined legislative jurisdiction are known as a. lead committees. b. subcommittees. c. select committees. d. standing committees. e. joint committees. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Legislative Process Page: 367 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 36. Advisory committees, like the specially created House committee on Energy Independence and Global Warming that held hearings on the issue of climate change, are examples of a. lead committees. b. subcommittees. c. select committees. d. standing committees. e. joint committees. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Legislative Process Page: 367 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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37. Committees that include members of both chambers of Congress are known as a. lead committees. b. subcommittees. c. select committees. d. standing committees. e. joint committees. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Legislative Process Page: 367 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 38. Identify the correct chronological sequence of subcommittee procedures in Congress. a. hearings, markup, agency review, report b. hearings, agency review, markup, report c. agency review, markup, hearings, report d. agency review, hearings, markup, report e. markup, agency review, hearings, report Answer: d Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Legislative Process Page: 367 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 39. How many House members’ signatures are necessary to execute a discharge petition, where a bill is extracted from committee for full House consideration? a. a majority b. three-fifths c. two-thirds d. three-quarters e. absolute majority Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Legislative Process Page: 367 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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40. In what way does the House of Representatives determine the terms of debate and the scope of amendments that will be allowed on a bill? a. through the Rules Committee b. by unanimous consent c. through cloture d. by joint committee e. through markup Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Legislative Process Page: 367 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 41. In an attempt to block the Civil Rights Act of 1957, the former Republican senator from South Carolina Strom Thurmond spoke for 24 hours and 18 minutes on the Senate floor. This set the record for the Senate’s longest a. cloture. b. filibuster. c. consent agreement. d. discharge petition. e. markup. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Legislative Process Page: 368 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 42. Which of the following is NOT required for an effective presidential pocket veto? a. The bill was passed at end of the legislative session. b. The president does not sign the bill. c. The president has waited 10 days. d. Congress has adjourned. e. The president sends a message to Congress explaining why the bill should not become law. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Legislative Process Page: 369 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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43. In what position in the line of presidential succession is the Speaker of the House? a. second b. third c. fourth d. fifth e. sixth Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Leadership Page: 369 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 44. Which of the following leaders is responsible for developing party strategy, working with minority party leadership, and encouraging unity among majority party legislators? a. House majority leader b. Speaker of the House c. House majority whip d. House minority leader e. House minority whip Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Leadership Page: 370 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 45. Which of the following leaders acts as a go-between with the leadership and the majority party members in the House? a. House majority leader b. Speaker of the House c. House majority whip d. House minority leader e. House minority whip Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Leadership Page: 370 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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46. Who is the constitutional president of the Senate? a. vice president b. president pro tempore c. Senate majority leader d. Senate majority whip e. Senate minority leader Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Congressional Leadership Page: 370 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 47. Using computer-driven mapmaking technology, most congressional seats are configured to ensure a “safe seat.” This tends to increase congressional a. earmarks. b. independence. c. partisanship. d. casework. e. lettermarking. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Decision Making in Congress: The Legislative Context Page: 372 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 48. The reciprocal practice of trading votes, or ________, is widely used in Congress. a. earmarking b. filibustering c. cloture d. log-rolling e. markup Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Decision Making in Congress: The Legislative Context Page: 373 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

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Chapter 12 Congress

49. Which of the following wields the most influence in congressional decision making? a. the president b. the Speaker of the House c. the constituency d. interest groups e. congressional staff Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Decision Making in Congress: The Legislative Context Page: 374 Teaching Emphasis: Congress 50. Which of the following statements about members of Congress is most accurate? a. Latino representation in Congress is proportional to their percentage of the population. b. African Americans are more likely to be elected to the Senate. c. Congress is less diverse today than at any other point in history. d. The composition of Congress closely resembles the leadership of other realms, like the corporate world and academia. e. Congress is not demographically representative of the American public. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The People and Their Elected Representatives Page: 376 Teaching Emphasis: Congress

Essay Questions: 51. Discuss the framers’ differing visions for the roles of the House and the Senate. Answer: When the framers constructed the Congress, different priorities influenced their construction of the House of Representatives and the Senate. The bicameral legislature would be one in which the House of Representatives would be based on population, while the Senate would be based on state representation. The House was designed to be closer to the people and represent their views, while the Senate was configured as a more elite, deliberative institution, less subject to mass politics. 52. Identify the advantages of incumbency in congressional elections. Answer: Incumbents, who are returned to congressional office over 90 percent of the time, enjoy a series of advantages over their challengers. These include stronger name recognition, easier access to media coverage, franking (or being able to mail for free), easier access to campaign contributions, and repayment for casework. Incumbents generally are able to raise far more money as a result, and usually win reelection.

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Chapter 12 Congress

53. Define gerrymandering, and discuss its use in congressional redistricting. Answer: Gerrymandering, named after nineteenth-century Massachusetts governor Elbridge Gerry, is the practice of drawing legislative district boundaries to benefit an incumbent, political party, or some other group. Most forms of gerrymandering are legal, and since 1990, only once has it been successfully challenged. Today it is widely used in congressional redistricting. 54. Compare and contrast the trustee and instructed delegate models of representation. Answer: The trustee and instructed delegate models both consider the relationship between representatives and their constituents, but they resolve this issue in different ways. The trustee model involves a representative in the House or Senate following his or her own conscience when deciding issue and voting positions, while the instructed delegate model maintains that a legislator should vote in keeping with constituent views, even if those views violate the representative’s personal views on those issues. 55. Outline the process of casework as a form of congressional representation. Answer: Casework is a special form of representation provided by a legislator in the form of personal aid to a constituent or a group of constituents, typically by getting the government to do something the government wants done. Casework generates enormous goodwill between constituents and legislators, and usually leads to beneficiaries consistently supporting reelection bids. 56. Identify the types of tools employed by Congress to fulfill its oversight functions. Answer: Congress has a series of tools it employs to fulfill its oversight functions. These include congressional hearings, in which various groups testify on policy implementation and impact; confirmation hearings on presidential appointees to oversee executive departments; investigations of law, policy, and bureaucratic or governmental misconduct; and budgetary appropriations that determine funding of governmental agencies. 57. Outline the five sequential features of the congressional legislative process, or how a bill becomes law. Answer: A bill must generally pass through five steps to become law: introduction, when a legislator formally proposes it; committee review, when subgroups within the House or Senate review it; House and Senate approval, where a majority of members in both houses must approve it; conference committee reconciliation, which reconciles House and Senate versions; and presidential approval, when the bill is signed by the president. 58. Explain the role and functions of congressional subcommittees. Answer: Subcommittees, of which there are dozens in both the House and Senate, typically handle specific areas of other, larger committees’ jurisdictions. For example, the House Committee on Foreign Affairs is a standing committee with seven subcommittees. Each subcommittee handles bills relevant to its specific jurisdiction, and applies agency review, hearings, markup, and reports in its processing of legislation.

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Chapter 12 Congress

59. What is a filibuster, and when is it applied? Answer: A filibuster is unique to the Senate and occurs when unanimous consent is not reached over a particular bill or piece of legislation. It is a procedural move that attempts to halt passage of a bill. During a filibuster, a Senator can speak for an unlimited amount of time on the Senate floor, and he or she can speak on any subject. Filibusters end with the invoking of cloture, a supermajority of 60 senators which agrees to end debate. 60. What is the attentive public, and what is its impact on congressional politics? Answer: The attentive public is a term given to a small percentage of voters who pay careful attention to the public policies being debated by Congress and to the votes cast by their representatives and senators. Although this number is small, it can be influential in holding incumbents accountable to their constituents, particularly in closely fought contests or in newly reapportioned districts.

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 13: The Presidency Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. In what month do general presidential election campaigns generally begin? a. June b. July c. August d. September e. October Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Elections Page: 384 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 2. How many electors must a presidential candidate secure in the Electoral College to be elected president? a. 270 b. 288 c. 435 d. 438 e. 538 Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Elections Page: 384 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 3. What is the date of presidential inauguration ceremonies? a. January 4 b. January 10 c. January 20 d. January 24 e. February 4 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Elections Page: 385 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

4. Which of the following is NOT an example of the legislative powers of the president? a. exerting influence through lobbying Congress on pending legislation b. defining the ongressional agenda through the State of the Union address c. submitting the budget for the federal government d. creating laws relating to the federal budget e. signing or vetoing legislation passed by Congress Answer: d Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Roles in the Domestic Sphere Page: 386 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 5. What majority is needed for Congress to check presidential power by overriding a presidential veto? a. majority b. three-fifths c. two-thirds d. three-quarters e. four-fifths Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Roles in the Domestic Sphere Page: 386 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 6. a. b. c.

Which of the following best describes presidential use of the line-item veto? It has not been as effective as hoped, because it cannot be used on appropriations bills. It has become a common tool among modern presidents. It is virtually unused by modern presidents, because they fear encroaching on congressional power. d. It is no longer in use because the Supreme Court ruled it unconstitutional. e. Is tends to be used mostly by presidents during the election cycle. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Roles in the Domestic Sphere Page: 386 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

7. Modern presidents are generally ________ to issue vetoes than their predecessors. a. much more likely b. somewhat more likely c. neither more nor less likely d. somewhat less likely e. much less likely Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Roles in the Domestic Sphere Page: 386 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 8. Which president issued more vetoes than any other during his tenure? a. Franklin Roosevelt b. Bill Clinton c. Lyndon Johnson d. Harry Truman e. George W. Bush Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Roles in the Domestic Sphere Page: 386 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 9. Which president issued over 750 signing statements, or written messages included in the bill signature process, during his tenure? a. Franklin Roosevelt b. Bill Clinton c. Lyndon Johnson d. Harry Truman e. George W. Bush Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Roles in the Domestic Sphere Page: 386 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

10. Which position, appointed by the president, plays a significant role in managing and supervising the national economy? a. comptroller of the currency b. chairman of the Federal Reserve Board c. adjutant-general d. secretary of the Treasury e. secretary of state Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Roles in the Domestic Sphere Page: 388 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 11. Which of the following is NOT a party role performed by the president? a. serves as national party leader b. serves as the party’s premier fundraiser c. acts as party head in day-to-day operations of the executive branch d. campaigns in support of the party nominee at the end of his or her term e. acts as national party chair Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Roles in the Domestic Sphere Page: 388-389 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 12. Executive agreements are considered to be in force for how long? a. forever—they are the same as treaties b. for 100 years c. for as long as that political party retains presidential power d. for 8 years e. for the term of the administration that negotiates them Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Roles in the Foreign Policy Sphere Page: 390 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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13. As chief diplomat, the president performs all of the following EXCEPT a. conducting executive agreements with other nations. b. approving treaties with other nations. c. appointing ambassadors. d. hosting state dinners at the White House. e. formally receiving the ambassadors of other nations. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Roles in the Foreign Policy Sphere Page: 390 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 14. Which of the following is NOT a power vested in the president by the Constitution? a. serve as supreme military commander in times of war b. the power to declare war c. power over troop deployments in military campaigns d. control over military strategy e. act as commander in chief over the four military services Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Roles in the Foreign Policy Sphere Page: 390 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 15. Which of the following pairs of presidential functions and roles often overlap? a. commander in chief and chief executive b. commander in chief and chief diplomat c. chief diplomat and chief of state d. chief executive and chief of state e. chief executive and chief diplomat Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Overlap in the Domestic and Foreign Policy Roles: Chief Executive and Chief of State Page: 391 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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16. Which of the following presidential roles is mostly ceremonial and symbolic? a. chief executive b. commander in chief c. chief of state d. chief diplomat e. party leader Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Overlap in the Domestic and Foreign Policy Roles: Chief Executive and Chief of State Page: 391 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 17. Many vice presidents serve a largely ________ role. a. political b. ideological c. ceremonial d. informal e. bureaucratic Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 392 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 18. Most would-be presidents choose their vice presidential running mate based on their desire for a “________” approach that provides diversity and maximizes electoral appeal. a. balanced ticket b. solid foundation c. equal partnership d. complementary duo e. party first Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 392 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

19. Which of the following vice presidents succeeded in becoming president? a. George H. W. Bush and Lyndon B. Johnson b. George H. W. Bush and Al Gore c. Al Gore and Richard Nixon d. Richard Nixon and Gerald Ford e. Lyndon B. Johnson and Walter Mondale Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 392 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 20. How many departments serve under the cabinet, the group of experts chosen as advisers by the president? a. 10 b. 12 c. 15 d. 24 e. 28 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 394 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 21. The head of the Department of Justice is called the a. secretary of justice. b. chief attorney. c. solicitor general. d. head lawyer. e. attorney general. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 393 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

22. Which president began the practice of using a cabinet to assist in executive governance? a. George Washington b. James Madison c. Thomas Jefferson d. John Adams e. Andrew Jackson Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 393 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 23. Which is the most recently created cabinet department? a. Finance b. Energy c. Veterans Affairs d. Homeland Security e. Health and Human Services Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 393 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 24. Janet Reno, the first woman to be appointed to a “big four” cabinet position, was appointed by which president? a. Jimmy Carter b. Ronald Reagan c. George H. W. Bush d. Bill Clinton e. George W. Bush Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 393 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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25. Who was the first black secretary of state? a. Clarence Thomas b. Thurgood Marshall c. Colin Powell d. Eric Holder e. Lisa Jackson Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 393 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 26. Which of these offices acts as the launch pad for the implementation of presidential policy? a. Executive Office of the President (EOP) b. Council of Economic Advisors c. National Security Council d. Office of Management and Budget e. White House counsel Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 393 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 27. All these positions are within the White House Office EXCEPT a. chief of staff. b. presidential secretary. c. press secretary. d. Office of Management and Budget director. e. White House counsel. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 393, 395 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

28. The National Security Council (NSC) is a group of top foreign policy advisors and relevant cabinet officials that advise the president on foreign policy and national security issues. Who is the official chair of the NSC? a. vice president b. president c. head of the Central Intelligence Agency d. secretary of state e. secretary of defense Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 395 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 29. Which office within the Executive Office of the President is responsible for the creation of the president’s annual budget? a. Bureau of the Budget b. Office of Management and Budget c. Department of the Treasury d. Office of the Chief of Staff e. Federal Reserve Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The President and the Executive Branch Page: 396 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 30. Which constitutional amendment, passed in 1967, determines the course of action in the case of a president being incapacitated? a. Twenty-Third b. Twenty-Fourth c. Twenty-Fifth d. Twenty-Sixth e. Twenty-Seventh Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Succession Page: 396 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

31. Which event prompted codified procedures for dealing with an incapacitated president? a. the shooting of President James Garfield b. the assassination of President William McKinley c. the illness of President Woodrow Wilson d. the assassination of President John Kennedy e. the shooting of President Ronald Reagan Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Succession Page: 397 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 32. If both the president and vice president die or are unable to govern, which of the following accurately describes the line of succession? a. secretary of state; Speaker of the House; attorney general; Senate president pro tem b. Speaker of the House; Senate president pro tem; secretary of state; secretary of the treasury c. Senate president pro tem; Speaker of the House; secretary of state; secretary of defense d. secretary of state; attorney general; Speaker of the House; secretary of defense e. Speaker of the House; secretary of state, Senate president pro tem; secretary of the treasury Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Presidential Succession Page: 397 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 33. Which of the following presidential powers are granted by the Constitution? a. expressed powers b. inherent powers c. statutory powers d. expressed powers and inherent powers e. expressed powers and statutory powers Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Sources of Presidential Power Page: 398 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

34. Which of the following presidential powers are granted by Congress? a. expressed powers b. inherent powers c. statutory powers d. expressed powers and inherent powers e. expressed powers and statutory powers Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Sources of Presidential Power Page: 398 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 35. Which of the following presidential powers have been granted by decisions of the Supreme Court? a. expressed powers b. inherent powers c. statutory powers d. expressed powers and inherent powers e. emergency powers Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of Presidential Power Page: 398 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 36. All of the following are presidential powers codified in Article II of the Constitution EXCEPT the power to a. serve as commander in chief. b. issue executive orders. c. pardon crimes. d. convene the Congress. e. commission all officers of the United States. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of Presidential Power Page: 398 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

37. Which clause has been cited by presidents as the basis for the assertion of inherent powers? a. the take care clause b. the commerce clause c. the establishment clause d. the necessary and proper clause e. the supremacy clause Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of Presidential Power Page: 398 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 38. Thomas Jefferson’s decision to initiate the Louisiana Purchase in 1803 was an early example of the exercising of ________ presidential powers. a. expressed b. statutory c. inherent d. emergency e. declaratory Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of Presidential Power Page: 398 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 39. The president can exert all of the following powers through the use of executive order EXCEPT a. direction of enforcement of congressional statutes or Supreme Court rulings. b. enforcement of special provisions of the Constitution. c. the creation of new taxes and laws. d. the creation of or adjustments to regulatory guidelines or practices of executive departments and agencies. e. guidance of the administration of treaties with foreign governments. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Sources of Presidential Power Page: 399 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

40. Generally, executive orders have ________ limitations and stipulations. a. no b. very few c. some d. many e. many clearly defined Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of Presidential Power Page: 400 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 41. During the Civil War, President Lincoln suspended the civil liberties of alleged agitators and drafted state militias into national service. He did this using what set of powers that are used during times of national crisis? a. emergency powers b. statutory powers c. inherent powers d. executive privilege e. executive orders Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of Presidential Power Page: 400 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 42. On occasion, which of the following special presidential powers has/have been successfully challenged by the judiciary, such as in Watergate-era case United States v. Richard M. Nixon? a. emergency powers b. statutory powers c. inherent powers d. executive privilege e. executive orders Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of Presidential Power Page: 400 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

43. Modern presidents use the bully pulpit to persuade the public on a(n) ________ basis. a. extremely rare b. rare c. sporadic d. consistent e. virtually continuous Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The People as a Source of Presidential Power Page: 401 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 44. President Bush’s high approval ratings after his response to the September 11 attacks are an example of the ________ effect. a. signing statement b. balanced ticket c. commander in chief d. honeymoon period e. rally ‘round the flag Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The People as a Source of Presidential Power Page: 403 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 45. How often do modern presidents sustain continuously high public approval ratings? a. never b. rarely c. infrequently d. often e. always Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The People as a Source of Presidential Power Page: 403 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

46. Which president first emphasized the doctrine of populism, a political philosophy that emphasizes the needs of the common person? a. Thomas Jefferson b. Andrew Jackson c. Martin Van Buren d. Abraham Lincoln e. Ulysses Grant Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of Presidential Power Page: 404 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 47. Which president initiated the New Deal, a series of social programs that dramatically transformed people’s views of the role of the federal government? a. Herbert Hoover b. Franklin Roosevelt c. Harry Truman d. Dwight Eisenhower e. Lyndon Johnson Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of Presidential Power Page: 405 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 48. What event led to a deep decline in popular perceptions of the presidency? a. the assassination of President John F. Kennedy b. the end of the Vietnam War c. publication of the Pentagon Papers by the New York Times d. the Watergate scandal e. the Iran-Contra scandal Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of Presidential Power Page: 405 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

49. During impeachment, which federal body conducts the trial of the president? a. House of Representatives b. Senate c. Supreme Court d. National Security Council e. White House Office Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of Presidential Power Page: 407 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency 50. In 2005, what percentage of those polled said they would vote for a female presidential candidate? a. 33 percent b. 49 percent c. 65 percent d. 89 percent e. 92 percent Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Women in the White House Page: 409 Teaching Emphasis: The Presidency

Essay Questions: 51. Explain the rise and fall of the line-item veto as a presidential power. Answer: During the Bill Clinton administration, Congress granted the president a new kind of veto power. The line-item veto statutorily allowed the president to strike out specific line items on an appropriations bill while allowing the rest of the bill to become law. The next year, the Supreme Court declared the line-item veto unconstitutional, asserting that it violated the constitutional separation of powers. 52. Define signing statement, and discuss the use of signing statements by George W. Bush during his two-term administration. Answer: During his administration, President George W. Bush employed more than 750 presidential signing statements. These are written messages that the president issues upon signing a bill into law. Some critics argued that President Bush’s large use of signing statements effectively invoked the principle of the line-item veto in some pieces of legislation.

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

53. Discuss the importance and key powers of the president’s role as chief economist. Answer: Presidents fulfill numerous economic roles and act as strong influences on national economic policy. They submit budgets, which shape where tax dollars are spent and thereby set the economic priorities of the legislative agenda. Presidents also appoint the chairman of the Federal Reserve Board, who plays a crucial role in managing the economy. Presidents, through their choices in selecting cabinet members in economically significant departments, also influence national economic priorities. 54. Compare and contrast the presidential functions and responsibilities as chief executive and chief of state. Answer: A good example of spillover of presidential functions occurs in the president’s functions as chief executive—where the president, as head of the executive branch, appoints advisers and staff—and chief of state, the ceremonial function of the president. As chief executive, the president appoints numerous officials, and as chief of state, he serves as symbolic leader of the nation. In both cases, the president serves as the focus of national leadership. However, the difference in effective executive powers is significant. 55. Outline the chief roles and functions of the vice president in a presidential administration. Answer: The vice president, often chosen by presidential candidates to construct a balanced ticket, performs a variety of ceremonial and functional roles. They are often chosen because of their previous policy experience, as in the cases of Joe Biden, a foreign policy expert, and Dick Cheney, whose expertise lay in national security. 56. Describe the structure and primary functions of the Executive Office of the President. Answer: The Executive Office of the President (EOP), which often acts as the launch pad for presidential policy implementation, consists of several offices. They help the president carry out day-to-day presidential responsibilities and also assist the First Lady and vice president. Their offices include the White House Office, the National Security Council, the Office of Management and Budget, and the Council of Economic Advisors. 57. Identify the members and composition of the National Security Council (NSC). Answer: The members of the National Security Council (NSC), created in 1947, include the president, vice president, secretary of defense, secretary of state, the Central Intelligence Agency, various branches of the military, and diplomatic officials. They advise presidents on national security policy decisions and assist in the implementation of these decisions by coordinating policy administration among different agencies. 58. Outline the origins and passage of the Twenty-Fifth Amendment. Answer: The Twenty-Fifth Amendment clarifies the course of action taken when a president is alive but unable to carry out the responsibilities of the office. It was ratified in 1967, and codified procedures for dealing with an incapacitated president. When a president is incapable of relinquishing office, the vice president and a majority of the cabinet notify Congress, and the vice president becomes the acting president. If questions arise as to whether the president is fit to resume the duties of office, a two-thirds vote is required for the acting president to remain.

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Chapter 13 The Presidency

59. Discuss the role played by approval ratings in shaping presidential agency. Answer: Approval ratings are used by presidents to encourage adoption of executive policies and to maximize the influence of their bully pulpit. These successes lead to greater control over national policy. High approval ratings usually occur in the early, honeymoon period of a president’s term, as shown through the administrations of George W. Bush and Barack Obama. 60. Describe and discuss the process of presidential impeachment. Answer: Impeachment is the power of the House of Representatives to formally accuse the president of crimes, and is a crucial check on presidential power. An impeachment is much like an indictment in a criminal case. If a majority in the House of Representatives votes to impeach, they forward the articles of impeachment, or the formal charges against the president, to the Senate for trial. Only two presidents have faced impeachment, Andrew Johnson and Bill Clinton.

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Chapter 14 The Bureaucracy

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 14: The Bureaucracy Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Most people think of bureaucrats in a ________ sense. a. very negative b. negative c. neutral d. positive e. very positive Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Bureaucrats and Bureaucracy Page: 416 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 2. Based on studies cited by public administration scholar Charles Goodsell, which of the following statements is correct? a. Most government employees are very motivated and hard workers. b. Most government employees are very unmotivated, lazy workers. c. Most government employees are motivated by higher salaries. d. Most government employees are motivated by shorter work hours. e. Most government employees have lower levels of formal education than employees in the private sector. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Bureaucrats and Bureaucracy Page: 417 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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Chapter 14 The Bureaucracy

3. As compared to private-sector employees, all of the following statements about public servants are accurate EXCEPT that public servants a. have higher levels of formal education. b. must comply with more stringent codes of behavior. c. are far less satisfied in their positions. d. express a greater concern for public service. e. tend to hold more professional jobs than all industries as a whole. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Bureaucrats and Bureaucracy Page: 417 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 4. All of the following are associated with the process in which the government contracts private business or organizations to provide public services EXCEPT a. shadow bureaucrats. b. contracting-out. c. outsourcing. d. the plum book. e. privatizing. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Bureaucrats and Bureaucracy Page: 418 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 5. Those workers who do the work of government but don’t get a government paycheck are known as ________ bureaucrats. a. silent b. covert c. stealth d. shadow e. temporary Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Bureaucrats and Bureaucracy Page: 418 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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6. According to Max Weber, bureaucracies possess which of the following features? a. division of labor and specialization of job tasks b. hiring systems based on worker competency c. hierarchy with a vertical chain of command d. standard operating procedures e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Bureaucrats and Bureaucracy Page: 418 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 7. What factor or factors do political scientists use to distinguish among national bureaucrats? a. how much they earn b. how they are hired c. how they can be fired d. how long their term is e. how they are hired, and how they can be fired Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 418 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 8. Before the establishment of the civil service system in 1883, what system of hiring was used to staff the federal bureaucracy? a. Bureaucrats were hired permanently and remained in office until they died. b. Congressional representatives rewarded their supporters with appointments. c. The Supreme Court oversaw the staffing of the federal bureaucracy. d. The president hired bureaucrats through the patronage system. e. After election victory, political parties rewarded their supporters with federal bureaucratic posts. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 418 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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9. What is the name given to the book, published every four years, that lists the federal positions available through presidential patronage? a. the book of civil service b. the plum book c. the peach book d. the jobs book e. the patronage book Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 418 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 10. What is the biggest downside to patronage positions in the federal bureaucracy? a. no access to the president b. no real benefits c. no chance of promotion d. no job security e. no opportunity to shape policy Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 419 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 11. The assassination of which president by an unsuccessful seeker of a patronage position spurred passage of the Pendleton Civil Service Act in1883? a. President Ulysses S. Grant b. President Andrew Johnson c. President Rutherford B. Hayes d. President James Garfield e. President Chester Arthur Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 419 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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12. The Pendleton Civil Service Act introduced a civil service system for the national government based on a. cause. b. merit. c. need. d. patronage. e. clout Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 419 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 13. The civil service system created by Pendleton Civil Service Act is guided by which hiring principle(s)? a. open competition b. political experience c. competence d. bureaucratic experience and political partisanship e. open competition, competence, and political neutrality Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 419 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 14. What criterion determines a federal job’s salary? a. status b. rank c. title d. location e. area of responsibility Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 419 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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15. Which title of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination in personnel practices based on race, color, ethnicity, age, and disabilities that can be reasonably accommodated? a. Title I b. Title III c. Title V d. Title VI e. Title VII Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 419 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 16. Which title of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits federally-funded institutions from discriminating in educational opportunities on the basis of race, color, ethnicity, age, and disabilities that can be reasonably accommodated? a. Title I b. Title III c. Title V d. Title VI e. Title VII Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 419 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 17. On the whole, the interaction between Titles VI, VII, and IX has changed the demographics of the bureaucracy, fostering a movement toward a. merit-based civil service. b. shadow bureaucracy. c. representative bureaucracy. d. independent administrative agencies. e. sunshine laws. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 419 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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18. Federal employees can be fired for poor work quality, or a. incompetence. b. recalcitrance. c. misfeasance. d. malfeasance. e. nonfeasance. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 419 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 19. Federal employees can be fired for not doing their work, or a. incompetence. b. recalcitrance. c. misfeasance. d. malfeasance. e. nonfeasance. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 419 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 20. Federal employees can be fired for violating rules or regulations that guide their work, or a. incompetence. b. recalcitrance. c. misfeasance. d. malfeasance. e. nonfeasance. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 419 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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21. In 1939 Congress passed the Hatch Act, which did what? a. limited all restrictions on federal bureaucrats’ rights to engage in political activity b. allowed for political considerations to be made in bureaucratic hiring c. maintained the rules of the patronage system in regards to bureaucrats’ political activity d. limited federal bureaucrats’ rights to engage in political activity e. required federal bureaucrats to indicate their party loyalty upon hiring Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 420 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 22. Which president proposed the civil service reforms that led to passage of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978? a. Lyndon Johnson b. Richard Nixon c. Gerald Ford d. Jimmy Carter e. Ronald Reagan Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 420 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 23. The Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 created or supported the creation of all these agencies EXCEPT a. the Civil Service Commission (CSC). b. the Office of Personnel Management (OPM). c. the Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA). d. the Merit System Protection Board (MSPB). e. the American Federation of Government Employees (AFGE). Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 420 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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24. Which of the following federal agencies has the highest percentage of union members? a. State Department b. Department of the Treasury c. U.S. Postal Service d. National Park Service e. Department of Defense Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 421 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 25. Which of the following rights is denied to national civil servant unions? a. the right to bargain for improved training opportunities b. the right to strike c. the right to bargain for enhanced due process protections in disciplinary matters d. the right to negotiate certain aspects of work conditions e. the right to strike and to negotiate salaries and work hours Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 421 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 26. Senior executive service (SES) positions are a. political appointments. b. civil service positions. c. congressionally appointed. d. hybrids of political appointments and civil service positions. e. congressionally appointed civil service positions. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 421 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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27. Which of the following statements about career civil servants in senior executive service positions is NOT true? a. They can be moved from job to job. b. They give up job security for higher pay. c. They hold most of the top policy-related patronage positions. d. They can be moved between agencies. e. They are immune from firing except for misfeasance, nonfeasance, and malfeasance. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats Page: 421 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 28. The process by which the federal government shifts greater responsibility to state and local governments, thereby putting the implementation of national policy in the hands of state and local bureaucrats, is known as a. outsourcing. b. government contracting. c. preemption. d. devolution. e. the shadow bureaucracy. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: State, Local, and Shadow Bureaucrats Page: 423 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 29. What title is given to the top political appointee who heads each of the national government’s 15 departments? a. director b. secretary c. director-general d. general secretary e. deputy secretary Answer: b Critical Thinking: Knowledge Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of the Federal Bureaucracy Page: 426 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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30. Which of the following is the newest of the national government’s 15 federal departments? a. Department of Energy b. Department of Education c. Department of Housing and Urban Development d. Department of Homeland Security e. Department of Veterans Affairs Answer: d Critical Thinking: Knowledge Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of the Federal Bureaucracy Page: 426 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 31. All of the following are considered independent administrative agencies EXCEPT a. the Smithsonian Institution. b. the National Science Foundation. c. the Product Safety Commission. d. the General Services Administration. e. the Office of Personnel Management. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of the Federal Bureaucracy Page: 446 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 32. Which of the following best describes the business of an independent regulatory agency? a. the selling of services to create financial independence b. development of standards for specific industries and businesses c. responsibility for broadly defined policy areas d. accountability for a narrowly defined function e. researching policy areas, and reporting to the relevant cabinet agency Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of the Federal Bureaucracy Page: 428 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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33. Which of the following was the first independent regulatory commission established by the federal government? a. Interstate Commerce Commission b. Food and Drug Administration c. Consumer Product Safety Commission d. General Services Administration e. Office of Personnel Management Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of the Federal Bureaucracy Page: 428 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 34. Which of the following statements about the boards of independent regulatory commissions is accurate? a. The boards of independent regulatory agencies are loyal to presidential preferences. b. Independent regulatory agencies are under the direction of bipartisan boards. c. To reduce undue influence, board members of independent regulatory agencies are appointed to life terms. d. Board members are usually nominated from the career bureaucrats within the agency and approved by the Office of the President. e. Because of their independence, the boards of independent regulatory commissions do not need congressional support for survival. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of the Federal Bureaucracy Page: 428 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 35. Which of the following is expected to make enough money to cover its own costs? a. independent regulatory agency b. cabinet department c. independent administrative agency d. Executive Office of the President e. government corporation Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of the Federal Bureaucracy Page: 428 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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36. Which of the following is an example of a hybrid agency that fits into more than one category of federal agency? a. Consumer Product Service Commission b. Food and Drug Administration c. Office of Personnel Management d. General Services Administration e. Executive Office of the President Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Evolution of the Federal Bureaucracy Page: 429 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 37. According to political scientists, how many stages are there in the public policy cycle? a. three b. four c. five d. six e. seven Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats’ Roles in Public Policy Page: 429 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 38. According to the politics–administration dichotomy, who implements public policy? a. politically neutral bureaucrats b. congressionally nominated bureaucrats c. presidentially nominated bureaucrats d. partisan bureaucrats e. elected politicians Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats’ Roles in Public Policy Page: 429 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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39. Which of the following is NOT a part of the agenda-setting stage of the public policy cycle? a. Elected officials place issues on their agendas. b. Bureaucrats may work to create issue networks. c. Elected officials formulate a policy. d. Elected officials establish a plan. e. Bureaucrats work to create an iron triangle. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats’ Roles in Public Policy Page: 429 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 40. Which of the following is the second stage in the public policy cycle? a. agenda setting b. resource allocation c. policy formulation d. policy approval e. policy implementation Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats’ Roles in Public Policy Page: 429 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 41. Which of the following refers to laws that provide plans of action to address societal concerns and identify the executive units that will put them into effect? a. appropriation laws b. authorization bills c. authorization laws d. administrative discretions e. administrative adjudications Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats’ Roles in Public Policy Page: 430 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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42. Under what authority do bureaucrats have the power to use their expertise and judgment to implement public policy? a. appropriations laws b. authorization laws c. administrative discretion d. administrative rule making e. administrative adjudication Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats’ Roles in Public Policy Page: 431 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 43. Which of the following mechanisms is used by bureaucrats to determine if their rules have been broken and to impose penalties on violators? a. appropriations laws b. authorization laws c. administrative discretion d. administrative rule making e. administrative adjudication Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats’ Roles in Public Policy Page: 431 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 44. The legal means to monitor bureaucrats’ work and hold them accountable is possessed by a. the media and private citizens. b. special-interest groups. c. Congress. d. the president. e. Congress, the president, and the federal judiciary. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucrats’ Roles in Public Policy Page: 431 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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45. Which of the following open up government functions and documents to the public, ensuring transparency and public access to decision making? a. authorization laws b. executive orders c. appropriations laws d. sunshine laws e. sunset clauses Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucratic Accountability Page: 432 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 46. Which of the following was one of the first laws designed to enhance federal bureaucratic accountability to the people? a. Federal Register b. Administrative Procedure Act c. Consumer Product Safety Act d. Sunshine Act e. American Recovery and Reinvestment Act Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucratic Accountability Page: 432 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 47. Which act of Congress, passed in 1976, requires most multi-headed national agencies to conduct open, public meetings? a. Administrative Procedure Act b. Freedom of Information Act c. Government in the Sunshine Act d. Hatch Act e. E-Government Act Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucratic Accountability Page: 432 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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48. Which of the following is NOT a way in which Congress encourages bureaucratic accountability? a. by making rulings as to whether agency policies comply with the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments b. by approving the legislation that creates, regulates, and funds bureaucracies c. through Senate confirmation of top bureaucrats d. thorough legislative oversight of agency policies e. by investigating the concerns of citizens, media, or interest groups regarding agency policy implementation Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucratic Accountability Page: 434 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 49. What type of clause forces the expiration of a program or policy after a specified number of years without congressional reauthorization? a. sunshine clause b. exit clause c. sunset clause d. finite clause e. temporary clause Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucratic Accountability Page: 434 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy 50. Which piece of legislation established the Office of Government Ethics (OGE), which is charged with preventing bureaucratic conflicts of interest? a. Ethics in Government Act b. Administrative Procedure Act c. Freedom of Information Act d. Sunshine Act e. E-Government Act Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucratic Accountability Page: 435 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

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51. Which piece of legislation provided protection to whistle-blowers, employees who disclose government misconduct, waste, or abuses of authority? a. Ethics in Government Act b. Inspector General Act c. Freedom of Information Act d. Sunshine Act e. Civil Service Reform Act Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Federal Bureaucratic Accountability Page: 435 Teaching Emphasis: The Bureaucracy

Essay Questions: 52. Define bureaucrats, and identify their key functions and roles. Answer: Bureaucrats are government employees at the local, state, and federal levels that you interact with and are affected by on a daily basis. Bureaucrats are hired into executive branch agencies to implement public policy, provide the public services that elected officials authorize, and make decisions that influence people’s daily lives. 53. Explain the role of shadow bureaucrats in the exercise of modern government. Answer: In addition to the local, state, and federal bureaucrats, shadow bureaucrats—employees on the payroll of private, for-profit businesses and private non-profit organizations with government contracts—help complete the business of government at all levels. Through the contracting-out process (also known as outsourcing or privatizing) the government signs work contracts with these organizations to do the work of government, but they do not receive a government paycheck. Shadow bureaucrats help deliver government services. 54. Outline the development of the merit-based civil service system. Answer: For much of the early history of the republic, presidents appointed federal bureaucrats at will through the patronage system. After the assassination of President James Garfield by a disgruntled patronage-seeker, his successor Chester Arthur and Congress passed the Pendleton Civil Service Act of 1883, which introduced a merit-based civil service system. This system, which included hiring principles of open competition, competence, and political neutrality, remains in existence today. 55. Who are SES bureaucrats, and how are they appointed to office? Answer: Senior executive service (SES) bureaucrats are a separate category of civil servant created by the Civil Service Reform Act (CSRA) of 1978. They are hybrid positions of political appointees and civil service positions, and staff most of the top managerial, supervisory, and policy positions that are not appointed through patronage. They can be moved from job to job, do not face open competition, and do not enjoy civil servant job protections.

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56. Explain the rationale behind the government’s contracting-out process. Answer: The national government employs contracting-out, or outsourcing, with the expectation that the expense of government will be reduced. This occurs through overhead cost elimination or reduction, and a more flexible hiring and expert retention and firing process, and also through more efficient and effective operation of government functions by private and non-profit sector employees. 57. Identify the five categories of executive branch organizations used by political scientists. Answer: Political scientists distinguish among five categories of executive branch organizations based on their structure and the type of work they perform. These are departments, independent administrative agencies, independent regulatory commissions, government corporations, and agencies in the Executive Office of the President (EOP). Each category varies in size, structure, and function, and new agencies are created by Congress and the president when a pressing need arises. 58. Discuss the purpose and structure of government corporations. Answer: Like private businesses, government corporations sell a service or product, but unlike private businesses, they are government-owned. They are created by Congress and the president when they believe it is in the public interest to engage in a commercial activity, such as the selling of stamps. Unlike other bureaucratic categories, government corporations are expected to make enough money to cover their costs. They are structured to operate independently, and are directed by bipartisan boards, whose members are appointed by the president to staggered fixed terms. 59. Outline the process of administrative rule-making, and provide an example of its use. Answer: Administrative rule-making is the process by which upper-level bureaucrats use their administrative discretion and their policy expertise to create rules, regulations, and standards that the bureaucracy will then enforce. For example, Congress delegated the Environmental Protection Agency the authority to establish policy on water and air quality, leading to the EPA pollution emissions standards as part of the Clean Air and Water Acts. 60. Describe the purpose and features of the E-Government Act of 2002. Answer: In order to enhance citizen access to government information and services through the Internet, in 2002 Congress and President Bush passed the E-Government Act of 2002, which established a Federal Chief Information Officer within the Office of Management and Budget. It also required national agencies to use Internet-based information technology. 61. Who are inspectors general, and what is their function? Answer: In an attempt to impose increased internal accountability in the workings of national government, in 1978 Congress approved the Inspector General Act. This act created government watchdogs known as inspectors general, who are appointed by the president and embedded in government agencies to monitor policy implementation and investigate alleged misconduct. They are appointed without regard to their political affiliation, and strictly on the basis of their abilities in accounting, auditing, or investigation.

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Chapter 15 The Judiciary

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 15: The Judiciary Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. According to the compromise reached by the framers of the Constitution, which of the following was empowered to establish federal district courts? a. the president b. the Supreme Court c. Congress d. the Department of Justice e. the Attorney General of the United States Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of the U.S. Judiciary Page: 445 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 2. The Supreme Court predominately acts as a court of a. original jurisdiction. b. dual jurisdiction. c. supreme jurisdiction. d. appellate jurisdiction. e. mandamus jurisdiction. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of the U.S. Judiciary Page: 445 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 3. Initially, the federal judiciary was a. very strong, with significant authority. b. quite strong, with moderate authority. c. quite weak, with little authority. d. very weak, with almost no authority. e. dependent on the states for its existence. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of the U.S. Judiciary Page: 445 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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4. The Judiciary Act of 1789 did which of the following? a. gave the district courts exclusive appellate jurisdiction b. created circuit courts with geographic jurisdictions that matched state boundaries c. created four regional federal courts d. gave Congress the power to organize the federal court system e. created a federal court system with three tiers Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of the U.S. Judiciary Page: 445 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 5. Which early landmark case granted the Supreme Court its most significant power? a. Marbury v. Madison b. Dred Scott v. Sanford c. Lochner v. Ellison d. McCulloch v. Maryland e. Bowers v. Hardwick Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of the U.S. Judiciary Page: 445 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 6. The authority of the Supreme Court to determine the constitutionality of governmental action is known as a. jurisdiction. b. judicial review. c. precedent. d. common law. e. stare decisis Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of the U.S. Judiciary Page: 445 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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7. Today, there are ________ courts of appeals with appellate jurisdiction over designated geographical regions. a. 6 b. 9 c. 12 d. 14 e. 15 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Origins of the U.S. Judiciary Page: 447 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 8. The common law is based on which of the following? a. legislation b. statute c. earlier court decisions d. previous decisions of British Parliament e. administrative rulings Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Sources and Types of U.S. Law Page: 447 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 9. The principle of stare decisis, a Latin phrase that means “let the decision stand,” is the basis of the modern legal concept of a. jury trials. b. precedent. c. code law. d. judicial statute. e. the primacy of common law. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Sources and Types of U.S. Law Page: 447 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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10. The landmark case Cruzan v. Missouri Department of Health established which of the following individual rights? a. the right to discontinue food and hydration without government interference b. the right to end life support without government interference c. the right to deny resuscitation without government interference d. the right to deny blood and plasma transfusions without government interference e. the right to cite religion as justification for refusal of treatment without government interference Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Sources and Types of U.S. Law Page: 448 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 11. Which of the following statements about constitutional law is accurate? a. Constitutional law is binding only on the actions of the federal government. b. The law of state constitutions is supreme, but the U.S. Constitution is next. c. Constitutional law arises from federal statutes. d. All laws in the United States must comply with the U.S. Constitution. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Sources and Types of U.S. Law Page: 448 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 12. Which of the following are considered the highest form of law? a. statutes b. judicial decisions c. executive orders d. administrative and regulatory laws e. constitutions Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of U.S. Law Page: 448 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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13. Statutes are authored by a. Congress. b. legislatures. c. the president. d. the Supreme Court. e. Congress and other legislatures. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of U.S. Law Page: 449 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 14. What is the hallmark of any code-law system? a. judicial decisions b. Supreme Court jurisprudence c. statutory lawmaking d. administrative decision making e. executive orders Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of U.S. Law Page: 449 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 15. The compilation of all the laws passed by the U.S. Congress is known as a. the Federal Register. b. United States Reports. c. constitutional law. d. the U.S. Code. e. the U.S. common law. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of U.S. Law Page: 449 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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16. Which of the following statements about executive orders is accurate? a. Executive orders do not have the force of law. b. Executive orders are a type of presidential lawmaking. c. Legislative input is necessary for executive order enactment. d. Presidents rarely issue executive orders. e. Executive orders are not subject to judicial review. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of U.S. Law Page: 449 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 17. In the process of administrative rule making, which of the following uses their discretion to establish rules and regulations to implement policy? a. federal bureaucrats b. the Supreme Court c. federal appeals courts d. state high courts e. the Supreme Court and state high courts Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of U.S. Law Page: 449 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 18. Which of the following statements about administrative rule making is NOT accurate? a. It is a quasi-legislative process. b. The rules that result from administrative rule making have the force of law. c. Administrative rules can be put into effect upon legislative approval. d. Administrative rule making gives bureaucrats discretion to establish the necessary rules and regulations to implement policy. e. It fleshes out the broad principles of statutory law. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of U.S. Law Page: 449 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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19. Who files suit in a case dealing with a violation of criminal law? a. the victim b. any concerned citizen c. the plaintiff d. the government e. the accuser Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of U.S. Law Page: 449 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 20. Which of the following issues serves as the basis for most common civil lawsuits? a. the family b. contractual matters c. commercial disputes d. medical malpractice e. traffic accidents Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Basis of U.S. Law Page: 450 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 21. In a civil lawsuit, negligence that causes harm to another person’s body or property is known as a. a tort. b. a statutory violation. c. certiorari. d. stare decisis. e. common law. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Basis of U.S. Law Page: 450 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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22. Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding state law? a. When there is a conflict between state and federal law, federal law always rules. b. Each state government is sovereign and has the authority to make and enforce laws. c. Citizens are only subject to the laws in the state in which they reside. d. State laws are not subject to review by the U.S. Supreme Court. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of U.S. Law Page: 450 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 23. What type of court system exists in the United States? a. single court system b. dual court system c. triple court system d. quadruple court system e. multiple court system Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Federal Court System Page: 450 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 24. Which of the following are considered courts of last resort, whose opinions carry the force of law? a. federal district courts b. supreme courts c. federal appeals courts d. state high courts e. the Supreme Court and state high courts Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of U.S. Law Page: 450 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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25. A federal court would be authorized to hear all of the following cases EXCEPT a. a case between two states. b. a question of law based on an interpretation of the U.S. Constitution. c. a case between individuals who are from different states. d. any trial to determine the facts no matter who the parties are. e. a case in which a U.S. citizen and a foreign government are parties. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Analysis Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Sources of U.S. Law Page: 451 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 26. How many federal district courts are there in the U.S. court system? a. 13 b. 39 c. 56 d. 76 e. 94 Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Federal Court System Page: 451 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 27. The U.S. circuit courts of appeals a. hold trials to determine the evidence. b. review the legal procedures of a preceding case. c. are courts of discretionary jurisdiction. d. are constitutional courts of last resort. e. decide all cases after an oral hearing on the matter. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Federal Court System Page: 452 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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28. Which of these special courts has come under increased media scrutiny due to its use since the 9/11 attacks? a. Court of International Trade b. U.S. Court of Military Appeals c. U.S. Tax Court d. FISA (Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act) Court e. U.S. Court of Veterans’ Appeals Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Federal Court System Page: 453 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 29. The leading justice on the Supreme Court, who provides both organizational and intellectual leadership, is known as the a. chief justice. b. associate justice. c. official justice. d. advisory justice e. head justice. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Federal Court System Page: 453 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 30. Which of the following Supreme Court appointees were nominated by President Obama? a. Sonia Sotomayor and Samuel Alito b. Elena Kagan and Sonia Sotomayor c. John Roberts and Samuel Alito d. John Roberts and Elena Kagan e. John Paul Stevens and David Souter Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Selecting Judges for the Federal Bench Page: 453 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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31. To date, how many women have served on the bench of the Supreme Court? a. two b. three c. four d. five e. six Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Selecting Judges for the Federal Bench Page: 455 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 32. The term symbolic representation refers to which of the following in the selection of federal judges? a. judicial qualifications of the candidate b. the candidate’s ideological views c. the demographic represented by the candidate d. opinions of constituents regarding the candidate e. All these answers are correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Selecting Judges for the Federal Bench Page: 455 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 33. The attempt to ensure that governing bodies are representative of major demographic groups in proportions similar to their representation in the population at large is known as a. descriptive representation. b. substantive representation. c. proportional representation. d. symbolic representation. e. delegate representation. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Selecting Judges for the Federal Bench Page: 455 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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34. Which of the following share power in the selection of federal court judges? a. the House of Representatives and the Senate b. the House of Representatives and the president c. the Senate and the Supreme Court d. the Supreme Court and the House of Representatives e. the Senate and the president Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Selecting Judges for the Federal Bench Page: 456 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 35. Senatorial courtesy gives senators of the same political party as the president the right to veto judicial appointments to which of the following courts? a. state high courts b. federal district courts c. state courts of appeals d. federal circuit courts of appeals e. the Supreme Court Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Selecting Judges for the Federal Bench Page: 456 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 36. Which of the following is/are the most significant in the selection procedure for federal circuit courts of appeals? a. the Supreme Court b. the president c. the House Judiciary Committee d. the Senate Judiciary Committee e. the president and the Senate Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Selecting Judges for the Federal Bench Page: 456-457 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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37. Which factor influences senators as they appoint federal judges? a. judicial qualifications of the candidate b. the candidate’s ideological views c. the demographic represented by the candidate d. opinions of constituents regarding the candidate e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Selecting Judges for the Federal Bench Page: 454-455 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 38. What term is used to describe a court made up of a group of judges who must evaluate a case together and decide on an outcome? a. collegial court b. combined court c. conflated court d. concurrent court e. corporate court Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The U.S. Supreme Court Today Page: 457 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 39. A request to the Supreme Court that they review a case that was already decided is done via a(n) a. discuss list. b. writ of certiorari. c. certiorari petition. d. amicus curiae. e. brief. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The U.S. Supreme Court Today Page: 457 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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40. Who is charged with drafting pool memos, which summarize the facts, describe the legal arguments, and make a recommendation as to whether the court should take the case? a. the chief justice b. the associate justices c. the Attorney General of the United States d. Supreme Court clerks e. the U.S. Attorney’s Office in each state Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The U.S. Supreme Court Today Page: 457 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 41. For the Supreme Court to hear a case, how many of the nine justices must want to hear it? a. four b. five c. six d. seven e. all nine Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The U.S. Supreme Court Today Page: 457 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 42. Once a case is placed on the Supreme Court docket, petitioners have ________ days to file a written brief with the Court. a. 14 b. 21 c. 30 d. 45 e. 60 Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The U.S. Supreme Court Today Page: 458 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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43. Which phases of the Supreme Court’s hearing and deliberations process offer the most opportunities for civic engagement? a. pool memos and discuss lists b. discuss lists and “friend of the court” briefs c. “friend of the court” briefs and oral arguments d. oral arguments and closed conference e. discuss lists and closed conference Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The U.S. Supreme Court Today Page: 458 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 44. The view that judicial decision making is guided by the ideology of individual judges is known as the a. attitudinal model. b. legal model. c. dissenting opinion. d. strategic model. e. concurring opinion. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The U.S. Supreme Court Today Page: 459 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 45. Which of the following best describes the ideological distribution of the Supreme Court today? a. heavily conservative b. slightly conservative c. ideologically neutral, with equal numbers of conservatives and liberals d. slightly liberal e. heavily liberal Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The U.S. Supreme Court Today Page: 460-462 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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46. Which of the following chief justices led a particularly activist Supreme Court? a. Earl Warren b. Thurgood Marshall c. William Rehnquist d. John Roberts e. Warren Burger Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Judges as Policy Makers Page: 464 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 47. Which of the following is/are given power under the Constitution to grant individual pardons? a. the House b. the Senate c. the Supreme Court d. the federal circuit courts of appeals e. the president Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Checks on the Courts Page: 465 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 48. Article I of the Constitution grants ________ the right to control the Supreme Court’s appellate docket. a. Congress b. the Senate c. the Supreme Court d. the Attorney General of the United States e. the president Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Checks on the Courts Page: 465 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

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49. Which of the following issues articles of impeachment for federal judges? a. the House b. the Senate c. the Supreme Court d. the Attorney General of the United States e. the president Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Checks on the Courts Page: 465 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary 50. Which of the following conducts impeachment trials for federal judges? a. the House b. the Senate c. the Supreme Court d. the Attorney General of the United States e. the executive through the White House counsel Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Checks on the Courts Page: 465 Teaching Emphasis: The Judiciary

Essay Questions: 51. Outline the Federalist–Anti-Federalist dispute over the Supreme Court, and explain its effects. Answer: During the debates over the Constitution’s ratification, Federalists and Anti-Federalists disputed the powers of the national judiciary. Anti-Federalists feared that a too-powerful national judiciary would erode states’ rights. For their part, the Federalists argued that a strong national court was necessary to moderate inter-state conflicts. Ultimately, both sides compromised by creating the U.S. Supreme Court as the highest court of the land, but the framers deliberately left the court’s powers vague, and empowered Congress to create all lower national courts. 52. Compare and contrast civil and criminal law. Answer: Civil law and criminal law differ in terms of their process and the identities of both parties. In civil law, which deals with the rights of private citizens, conflicts between private individuals and resulting injuries are decided by the court. In criminal law, individuals commit conduct deemed so harmful to society that it is prohibited by statute, and this behavior is prosecuted and punished by the government. Criminal law cases are always filed by the government against the defendant, whereas civil cases are filed by individuals against each other.

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53. Define and discuss the principle of stare decisis. Answer: To construct the American judicial system, colonists relied on the common law principle of stare decisis, a Latin phrase that means “let the decision stand.” This means that judges must abide by precedent, or the legal authority established by earlier, similar cases, when deciding later cases. The principle of stare decisis ensures that common law changes slowly, and also ensures a consistency of legal expectations for individuals and the community. 54. Compare and contrast original and appellate jurisdiction. Answer: When a court has original jurisdiction over a case that means that no other court has heard the case or its legal issues. In these instances, the court must decide what happened, and must apply existing law to resolve the dispute. In contrast, appellate jurisdiction empowers a court to review the decision of the court that has earlier heard the case. Usually, this means not deciding what happened, but rather whether the first court correctly applied or interpreted the law. 55. Outline the evolution of the Supreme Court’s original jurisdictional authority since the framing of the Constitution. Answer: Originally the framers limited the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction to only those cases that concerned ambassadors, public ministers, and consuls, and those involving two or more states. But over time Congress, in cooperation with the Court, has decided that the Court should retain original jurisdiction only in cases involving suits between two or more states. 56. Describe the function of oral arguments in the process of the Supreme Court. Answer: Once a case has been placed on the Supreme Court docket, and written briefs have been filed with the court by both sides, the justices then proceed with oral arguments—the attorneys’ formal spoken arguments that lay out why the Court should rule in their client’s favor, and they have 30 minutes to complete those arguments. These hearings take place before the full bench of the Supreme Court in its public gallery, and transcriptions are available of all testimony from both sides and the justices themselves. 57. Identify the differences between concurring opinions and dissenting opinions. Answer: At the opinion-writing stage of the case process in the Supreme Court, the justice writing the majority opinion is aware that several other draft opinions may be circulating among his/her peers. These other opinions may be concurring opinions, which agree with the majority opinion in some areas but disagree in others, and dissenting opinions, which not only disagree with the majority arguments and conclusions but also reject the underlying decision in the case. 58. Define judicial activism, and provide an example of a Supreme Court decision that resulted from this stance. Answer: Judicial activism refers to the courts’ practice of applying their authority to bring about particular social goals. It reflects the notion that the role of the courts is to check the power of the federal and state executive and legislative branches when those governmental entities exceed their authority. During the Warren Court between 1953 and 1969, the Supreme Court took an activist stance, most notably in rejecting the constitutionality of racial segregation. The Miranda v. Arizona decision, handed own during the Warren Court’s tenure, is an example of judicial activism.

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59. Discuss judicial restraint, and why some judges choose to practice it. Answer: Some judges, following from the notion that judges, like other federal officials, are elected to carry out the people’s will, exercise judicial restraint—the limiting of their own power as judges. Practitioners believe that the judiciary, as the least democratic branch of government, should not check the power of the democratically elected branches unless their actions clearly violate the Constitution. 60. Explain and discuss the role of intra-court restraint on judicial actions and decisions. Answer: Intra-court restraints, such as previous rulings and higher court decisions, affect the judicial actions of federal court judges. For example, federal district court and appeals court judges rarely stray far from Supreme Court precedent, for fear that their decisions will be overturned. Even within the Supreme Court itself, internal dynamics are also a factor, as the justices must seek compromise through negotiation if they hope to convince their colleagues of their opinion.

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Chapter 16 Economic Policy

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 16: Economic Policy Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Which of the following features is/are part of the American dream? a. financial security b. personal happiness and health c. upward social mobility d. success through hard work and persistence e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Health and the American Dream Page: 474 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 2. If all other factors were equal, which of following is the most important step one can take in the quest for the American dream? a. buying a home b. having a strong work ethic c. staying loyal to an employer d. starting a business e. getting at least a college degree Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Health and the American Dream Page: 475 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 3. Economists cite all these factors as evidence of a healthy economy EXCEPT a. low unemployment. b. stable consumer goods’ prices. c. improvements in individual productivity. d. increased overall economic productivity. e. a decrease in the national tax base. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Health and the American Dream Page: 475 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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4. What type of economy is the U.S. economy? a. pure capitalist economy b. regulated capitalist economy c. limited capitalist economy d. limited mercantilist economy e. regulated mercantilist economy Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The American Economy Page: 475-476 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 5. Which of the following is a hallmark of a pure capitalist economy? a. public ownership of modes of production b. government-mandated business practices c. economic policy that is influenced by concern for the public good d. government-free marketplace transactions e. national policies that are enacted to influence the economy Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The American Economy Page: 476 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 6. Who wrote Wealth of Nations, which argued in favor of a laissez-faire (hands-off) economic system? a. Adam Smith b. Benjamin Franklin c. Thomas Hobbes d. Jean-Jacques Rousseau e. John Locke Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 476 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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Chapter 16 Economic Policy

7. Which era saw the national government take steps to regulate workplace rules and conditions? a. late eighteenth century b. early nineteenth century c. late nineteenth century d. early twentieth century e. late twentieth century Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 476 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 8. Which event led to the end of balanced budgets and the onset of deficit spending? a. the War of 1812 b. the Mexican-American War c. the Civil War d. World War I e. the Great Depression Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 477 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 9. Who argued that national governments should increase their spending to stimulate the economy during an economic recession? a. Karl Marx b. Adam Smith c. David Ricardo d. John Maynard Keynes e. Milton Friedman Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 477 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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10. According to Keynesian economics, what should the government do during an economic boom? a. decrease government spending and possibly increase taxes b. increase taxes and government spending c. decrease taxes and possibly government spending d. increase government spending and decrease taxes e. increase government spending despite decreased revenues Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 477 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 11. Fiscal policy is a combination of a. tax policy and currency policy. b. tax policy and economic policy. c. tax policy and spending policy. d. economic policy and currency policy. e. budget policy and spending policy. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 478 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 12. In 2009, President Obama and Congress passed the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act. This “stimulus package” is based on what type of economic theory? a. supply-side b. pure-capitalism c. Keynesian d. deregulation e. monetarism Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 478 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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13 Which president introduced supply-side economics, which advocated tax cuts and a decrease in government regulation? a. Franklin Roosevelt b. George H. W. Bush c. George W. Bush d. Barack Obama e. Ronald Reagan Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 478 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 14. What caused President H. W. Bush to abandon supply-side economic policies and increase taxes? a. political pressure to increase social services b. need for increased military funding c. the pressure to deregulate major industries d. the growing national debt e. the emergent belief in monetarism Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 479 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 15. Which economist developed the theory of monetarism? a. John Maynard Keynes b. Adam Smith c. David Ricardo d. Milton Friedman e. Walt Rostow Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 479 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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Chapter 16 Economic Policy

16. Which of the following statements about monetarism is accurate? a. It argues for the deregulation of the money supply. b. It believes that too much money in circulation leads to high inflation. c. It believes that too much money in circulation creates deflationary pressures on the economy. d. It is based on the belief that discretionary spending by the government is necessary for a healthy economy. e. It advocates cutting taxes and deregulating business to stimulate the economy. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 479 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 17. What yearly inflation rate do monetarists argue ensures an adequate money supply for a healthy economy? a. less than 1 percent b. 1–3 percent c. 3–5 percent d. 5–7 percent e. 7–9 percent Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Theories That Shape Economic Policy Page: 479 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 18. All of these are considered features of a healthy economy by economists and government officials EXCEPT a. an increase in currency supply. b. low poverty and high literacy rates. c. a low inflation rate. d. expanding gross domestic product (GDP). e. a low unemployment rate. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Economic Health Page: 480 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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19. The total value of all goods and service that are produced within a country’s borders is known as a. productive resources. b. the gross national product. c. the economic system. d. the gross domestic product. e. durable goods. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Economic Health Page: 480 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 20. Which of the following products and goods is/are part of the Bureau of Labor Statistics’ consumer price index, or CPI? a. food b. clothing and shelter c. fuel and transportation costs d. selected medical costs e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Economic Health Page: 480 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 21. Which of the following is/are among the criteria used by the United Nations to comparatively assess global living standards in the Human Development Index (HDI)? a. a long and healthy life, educational opportunities, and decent standard of living b. access to food, clothing, and shelter c. living, fuel, and transportation costs d. physical health, income levels, and educational access e. access to adequate medical care, food, and shelter Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Economic Health Page: 480 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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Chapter 16 Economic Policy

22. Which of the following is income adjusted for inflation so that it can be compared across years? a. per capita income b. average income c. real income d. household income e. median household income Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Economic Health Page: 481 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 23. Which of the following is the total pretax earnings of all residents over the age of 15 living in a home? a. per capita income b. average income c. real income d. household income e. median household income Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Economic Health Page: 481 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 24. Which of the following is the income level in the middle of all household incomes? a. per capita income b. average income c. real income d. household income e. median household income Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Economic Health Page: 481 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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25. Which of these terms describes the percentage of the population with income below the nationally designated poverty level? a. poverty level b. poverty rate c. poverty threshold d. poverty mark e. poverty median Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Measuring Economic Health Page: 482 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 26. What date signals the beginning of the national government’s fiscal year (FY)? a. January 1 b. April 1 c. July 1 d. August 1 e. October 1 Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 482 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 27. Which governmental body has the constitutionally delegated power of the purse? a. president b. judiciary c. Congress d. federal reserve e. department of the treasury Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 482 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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28. What type of tax takes a larger percentage of wealthier taxpayers’ income and a smaller percentage of the income of those who earn less? a. progressive tax b. proportional tax c. regressive tax d. direct tax e. indirect tax Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 483 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 29. What type of tax takes the same percentage of each taxpayer’s income? a. progressive tax b. proportional tax c. regressive tax d. direct tax e. indirect tax Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 483 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 30. What type of tax takes a larger percentage of lower income earners’ income and a smaller percentage of the income of those who earn more? a. progressive tax b. proportional tax c. regressive tax d. direct tax e. indirect tax Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 483 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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31. Which of the following provides the largest share of tax revenue in the FY 2013 budget? a. social insurance receipts b. individual income tax c. corporate tax d. excise taxes e. estate and gift taxes Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 483 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 32. Through its power to grant tax expenditures, the national government provides financial support to which of the following groups? a. homeowners b. individual taxpayers c. businesses, colleges, and universities d. state and local governments e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 483 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 33. All of the following are considered nonsecurity discretionary expenditures EXCEPT a. justice. b. energy. c. environment. d. international affairs. e. transportation. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 483 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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34. Which of the following programs is among those defined as mandatory spending obligations? a. Social Security b. Medicare c. Medicaid d. national debt payments e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 484 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 35. When is the president required by law to submit the executive budget to Congress? a. first Monday in January b. first Monday in February c. first Monday in March d. first Monday in April e. first Monday in May Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 485 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 36. When must both the House and Senate agree to the concurrent budget resolution each fiscal year? a. March 1 b. March 15 c. April 1 d. April 15 e. May 1 Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 485 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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37. The deadline for Congress to complete budget reconciliation, the annual process of rewriting authorization legislation to comply with the concurrent budget resolution, is a. May 15. b. June 15. c. July 15. d. August 1. e. August 15. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 485 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 38. How many appropriations bills must Congress approve by the end of June to fund the national government each fiscal year? a. 6 b. 10 c. 12 d. 16 e. 26 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 485 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 39. Which of these agencies monitors the implementation of the previous fiscal year’s budget? a. Office of Management and Budget (OMB) b. House Budget Committee c. Senate Budget Committee d. Congressional Budget Office (CBO) e. Government Accountability Office (GAO) Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 485 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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40. During the summer of 2011, a political debate over the need to decrease deficit spending centered on the need of Congress and the president to a. sequester spending. b. increase the debt ceiling. c. control inflationary monetary spending. d. spend the budget surplus. e. approve a continuing resolution. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Fiscal Policy and Economic Health Page: 487 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 41. Congress and which president established the Federal Reserve System in 1913? a. William McKinley b. Theodore Roosevelt c. Woodrow Wilson d. Calvin Coolidge e. Herbert Hoover Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Monetary Policy and the Federal Reserve System Page: 488 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 42. All of the following are responsibilities of today’s Fed EXCEPT a. enacting regulations for the purpose of decreasing the national debt. b. setting monetary policy aimed at price stability. c. maintaining the stability of financial markets. d. providing financial services to depository institutions. e. supervising and regulating banking institutions. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Monetary Policy and the Federal Reserve System Page: 488 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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Chapter 16 Economic Policy

43. All of the following are tools used by the Fed for setting monetary policy EXCEPT a. lowering the reserve requirement. b. authorizing a government spending sequester. c. lowering the discount rate. d. selling Treasury Securities to decrease the money supply. e. increasing the reserve requirement and discount rate. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Monetary Policy and the Federal Reserve System Page: 488 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 44. Which of the following is the newest of the business-regulating government agencies that was established to help protect consumers of banking and financial industries? a. Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC) b. Federal Trade Commission (FTC) c. Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) d. Congressional Budget Office (CBO) e. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Regulatory Policy Page: 489 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 45. Social regulatory policy a. is fully funded by the government. b. increases the cost of doing business. c. does not have an economic impact, unlike business regulation. d. deals exclusively with issues of public health. e. aims to preserve competition in the marketplace. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Regulatory Policy Page: 490 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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46. Which of the following was/were established as part of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938? a. standards for a legal workweek b. overtime pay c. minimum wages d. limits on child labor e. standards for a legal workweek, overtime pay, minimum wages, recordkeeping of hours, and child labor limits Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Regulatory Policy Page: 491 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 47. To navigate the global economy, each country has its own ________, a collection of tax laws and regulations to support its international commerce. a. business regulations b. trade barriers c. tariffs d. subsidies e. trade policy Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Trade Policy in the Global Economy Page: 492 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 48. After World War II, the United States and its international partners have pursued which type of trade policy? a. subsidy-based b. protectionist c. limited protectionist d. regional free trade e. free trade Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Trade Policy in the Global Economy Page: 492 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

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49. Which of the following was not among the basic objectives established by the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)? a. nondiscrimination in trade matters b. elimination of regulatory barriers to trade c. imposition of nontariff trade barriers d. negotiation of trade conflicts with one another e. removal of special taxes on imported goods Answer: c Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Trade Policy in the Global Economy Page: 492 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy 50. What organization, which came into existence in 1995, continues the free trade advocacy of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade? a. the North American Free Trade Organization b. the World Trade Organization c. the United Nations d. the International Trade Organization e. the North American Treaty Organization Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The U.S. Economy, the Global Economy, and the American Dream Today Page: 492 Teaching Emphasis: Economic Policy

Essay Questions: 51. Identify the factors necessary for people to live the American dream today. Answer: Many factors make up the ability to live the American dream, starting with money. For most individuals, the ability to earn enough money to attain and sustain the American dream lifestyle is the product of several factors, including their education level, work ethic, and the availability of well-paying jobs. This last circumstance is directly tied to the overall health of the national economy. 52. Discuss the difference between a pure capitalist economy and a regulated capitalist economy. Answer: Several differences exist between a pure capitalist economy and a regulated capitalist economy, like that of the United States. In a pure capitalist economy, private individuals and companies own the modes of producing goods and services, and the government enacts no laws aimed at marketplace regulation. In contrast, a regulated capitalist economy includes many national policies enacted to influence the economy and mandate certain business practices.

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53. Outline the key features of Keynesian economic theory. Answer: During the Depression, economist John Maynard Keynes developed a new theory of government fiscal policy based on deficit spending. Keynesian economics recommends that during a recession and other economic downturns, the government should increase its spending to create jobs, and decrease taxes to encourage more consumer spending. It advocates using fiscal policy, the combination of tax policy and spending policy, to ensure a healthy economy. 54. Explain the main features and arguments of supply-side economics. Answer: Supply-side economics were introduced by President Ronald Reagan. Supporters advocate tax cuts and a decrease in government regulation to stimulate the economy in times of recession. They argue that high taxes drain people’s ability to save and corporations’ ability to invest in productivity improvements. Supply-siders also argue that deregulation will contribute to increased production at the same cost, thus increasing the supply of goods. These policies were initially continued by George H. W. Bush, but were broken off in an attempt to address the growing national debt. 55. Outline the theories of monetarism and identify monetarists’ ideal level of inflation. Answer: Monetarism, a theory developed by economist Milton Friedman, advocates that the government’s proper role in promoting a healthy economy is the regulation of the money supply to ensure low inflation rates. Monetarists target an inflation rate of between 1–3 percent per year to ensure an adequate money supply for a healthy economy. 56. What is the CPI, and what is it used for by the national government? Answer: The CPI is the consumer price index. The Bureau of Labor Statistics publishes the CPI, which measures the average changes in prices over time of a “market basket” of goods and services, including food, clothing, shelter, fuel, transportation costs, and selected medical costs. The CPI is the most commonly used method of measuring inflation’s impact on people. 57. Compare and contrast the two forms of discretionary spending programs. Answer: There are two types of discretionary programs: security programs and nonsecurity programs. Security programs, which take up a larger part of the budget, include expenditures for the Department of Defense, Homeland Security, and international affairs. Nonsecurity expenditures include the administration of justice, agriculture, energy, environment, education, health, housing, income security, and transportation. 58. Within the budgetary process, what is a continuing resolution, and by when must it be approved? Answer: Continuing resolutions occur when the president and Congress fail to approve one of more of the twelve appropriation bills that fund the government for the upcoming fiscal year. Continuing resolutions must be approved by Congress by October 1 of each year. They grant authorization to federal agencies not covered by approved appropriations laws to continue to spend money within their previous budget year’s levels.

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59. Describe the features of business regulation and social regulation in the U.S. economy today. Answer: In today’s economy, the government regulates marketplace practices to protect the public. This regulation occurs in two broad categories: business regulation and social regulation. Business regulation includes government policies that aim to preserve marketplace competition. Social regulation refers to government policies directed at protecting workers, consumers, and the environment from harm caused by marketplace competition. 60. Discuss the course and identify benefits of the pursuit of free trade policy by the United States after World War II. Answer: After World War II, the United States and its partners increasingly moved toward a free trade policy, which aims at lowering or eliminating tariffs and nontariff barriers to trade. Free trade policies decrease the costs of bringing products to markets throughout the world, and open markets to greater product diversity and brisker competition. This allows American companies to participate in the global marketplace at a lower cost, leading to an increase in goods production and the size of the national economy.

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Chapter 17 Domestic Policy

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 17: Domestic Policy Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. People with NIMBY (“not-in-my-backyard”) syndrome take which of the following stances on civic engagement? a. They never participate until directly threatened by government action. b. They rarely participate, viewing government as corrupt and ineffective. c. They often participate, but form narrow ideological positions. d. They often participate in an attempt to limit government authority. e. They often participate in an attempt to expand government authority. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Citizen Engagement and Domestic Policy Page: 504 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 2. Government-supported safety nets a. are generally supported by those with a conservative ideology. b. deal with the economic well-being of citizens. c. are a group of policies that concern public safety and national security issues. d. are programs that ensure that the physiological needs of citizens are met. e. are rarely supported by those that are liberal in inclination, like Democrats. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Citizen Engagement and Domestic Policy Page: 504 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 3. Since 1789, when the states ratified the U.S. Constitution, the national government’s scope of responsibility for domestic matters has a. rapidly contacted. b. gradually contracted. c. remained constant. d. gradually expanded. e. rapidly expanded. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Citizen Engagement and Domestic Policy Page: 527 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 17 Domestic Policy

4. Which current policy area is viewed by some as a national security issue, by others as an economic issue, and still others as a humanitarian cause? a. environmental policy b. immigration policy c. energy policy d. health policy e. financial reform policy Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Tools of Domestic Policy Page: 506 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 5. Which of these groups does the government rely on to assist in overseeing compliance, and in reporting violators of national laws and regulations? a. public officials b. citizens c. interest groups d. the media e. public officials, citizens, interest groups, and the media Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Tools of Domestic Policy Page: 506 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 6. Using the domestic policy tool of ________, governments hire public servants to dispense services. a. direct provision b. indirect provision c. cash transfer d. in-kind assistance e. direct subsidy Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Tools of Domestic Policy Page: 506 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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7. All of the following are considered in-kind assistance cash transfers EXCEPT a. unemployment checks. b. social security checks. c. Pell grants to college students. d. Medicaid services. e. Stafford Loans. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Tools of Domestic Policy Page: 508 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 8. Government benefits guaranteed to all who meet the eligibility requirements are known as a. entitlement programs. b. contributory programs. c. social insurance programs. d. noncontributory programs. e. limited-access programs. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Tools of Domestic Policy Page: 508 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 9. How are entitlement programs funded? a. by tax revenue collected specifically for these programs b. by the general revenues of the government c. by direct subsidies form particular people and companies d. by money paid from all taxpayers e. by loans from the U.S. Treasury Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Tools of Domestic Policy Page: 508 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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10. Which of the following was instrumental in bringing awareness to the dangers of pesticides, and resulted in the creation of a presidential panel to investigate them? a. the fire on Cuyahoga River in northeast Ohio b. Earth Day festivities in 1970 c. the creation of the Environmental Protection Agency d. the publication of Rachel Carson’s Silent Spring e. the passage of the Clean Air Act Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policy Page: 509 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 11. Which of the following was so successful at bringing attention to environmental concerns that many consider it the beginning of the environmental movement? a. the fire on Cuyahoga River in northeast Ohio b. Earth Day festivities in 1970 c. the creation of the Environmental Protection Agency d. the publication of Rachel Carson’s Silent Spring e. the passage of the Clean Air Act Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policy Page: 510 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 12. All of the following came as a result of the new environmental awareness that followed the first Earth Day in April 1970, EXCEPT a. the publication of Rachel Carson’s Silent Spring. b. the creation of the Environmental Protection Agency. c. the passage of the Environmental Protection Act. d. a cascade of groundbreaking environmental legislation. e. the increasing activism of environmental interest groups. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policy Page: 510 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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13. Under the provisions of the Clean Air Act of 1970, who was given enforcement responsibility for air quality standards? a. local governments b. the states c. the Department of the Interior d. the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) e. the Department of Energy Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policy Page: 510 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 14. Which of the following statements about the compliance provisions of the Clean Air Act is accurate? a. The law gives citizens the right to sue those who are violating standards. b. Under the law, only states have the right to sue those who are violating standards. c. The law gives only the Environmental Protection Agency the right to sue those who are violating standards. d. Under the law, only environmental interest groups have the right to sue those who are violating standards. e. The law does not provide any legal right to sue with regard to the violation of its standards. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policy Page: 510 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 15. The higher incidence of environmental threats and subsequent health problems in lowerincome communities is referred to as environmental a. terrorism. b. segregation. c. racism. d. discrimination. e. exclusion. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policy Page: 512 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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16. Which piece of environmental legislation regulates the disposal of solid and hazardous wastes and encourages recycling? a. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act b. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act c. Federal Water Pollution Control Act d. Clean Air Act e. Environmental Protection Act Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policy Page: 512 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 17. Which piece of environmental legislation is also known as the Superfund law, and pays for cleanup of the nation’s most toxic waste dumps? a. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act b. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act c. Federal Water Pollution Control Act d. Clean Air Act e. Environmental Protection Act Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policy Page: 512 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 18. Which of the following events served as a catalyst for the development of a U.S. energy policy? a. election of Ronald Reagan b. explosion of toxic waste site in Elizabeth, New Jersey c. construction of the Keystone XL pipeline d. oil spill from the Exxon Valdez e. OPEC oil embargo Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policy Page: 513 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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19. Which president declared an “energy crisis” and promoted conservation and energy efficiency measures? a. Gerald Ford b. Jimmy Carter c. Ronald Reagan d. George H. W. Bush e. Bill Clinton Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Energy Policy Page: 513 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 20. What was the federal government’s response to lower oil prices during the 1990s? a. the use of excess funds to research alternative fuels b. the construction of a new gas pipeline from Canada to Texas c. increased tax incentives to incentivize use of alternative energy d. reduced funding for research and development of alternative energy e. decreased production of fossil fuels for conservation Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Energy Policy Page: 513 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 21. What was President Bush’s response to the 2001 alarm sounded by Secretary of Energy Spencer Abraham over an “energy-supply crisis” in the United States? a. a policy that increased research and development for alternative energy b. a recommendation that the country decrease its use of domestically produced coal c. a renewed commitment to the energy policies of his predecessors d. a policy that increased the production of fossil fuels e. All of these answers are correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Energy Policy Page: 513 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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Chapter 17 Domestic Policy

22. The gradual increase in the earth’s temperature is known as a. the greenhouse effect. b. climate change. c. global warming. d. the hothouse effect. e. the heating effect. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Energy Policy Page: 514 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 23. Which of the following statements about the Kyoto Protocol is accurate? a. It was created because of international concerns for clean air. b. It calls on countries to work toward decreasing carbon emissions. c. It cast doubt on the science behind theories of global warming. d. The United States and 191 other nations are signatories. e. All of these answers are correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Energy Policy Page: 514 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 24. All of the following are considered nonrenewable energy sources EXCEPT a. crude oil. b. natural gas. c. coal. d. nuclear power. e. biomass. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Energy Policy Page: 515 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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Chapter 17 Domestic Policy

25. All of the following are considered renewable energy sources EXCEPT a. solar. b. natural gas. c. geothermal. d. hydropower. e. biomass. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Energy Policy Page: 515 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 26. Which of the following is the largest source of petroleum product imports to the United States? a. Canada b. Saudi Arabia c. Venezuela d. Nigeria e. Mexico Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Energy Policy Page: 515 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 27. Which of the following was created by President Franklin Roosevelt’s New Deal policies? a. publicly-supported job creation b. establishment of a more regulated capitalist economy c. income security for retired citizens d. a safety net for people in financial need e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 516 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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28. The amount of a worker’s earnings that are subject to the Social Security tax is called a. sheltered income. b. covered income. c. indexed benefit. d. the living wage. e. earned income. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 516 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 29. ________ are government benefits with an automatic cost of living increase based on inflation. a. Indexed benefits b. Progressive benefits c. Fixed benefits d. Means-tested benefits e. Annuitized benefits Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 517 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 30. Which of the following statements about social security payments is NOT accurate? a. Current workers contribute to social security through FICA contributions. b. Current workers’ contributions are paid out to today’s beneficiaries. c. Most people collect less from Social Security than they pay into the fund. d. Money left over after today’s payments are made is invested. e. The pay-as-you-go system will eventually be unable to cover the full costs of OASI. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 517 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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31. What age limit is included in the provisions of the Social Security Disability Act of 1956, which provides benefits to workers disabled before the OASI-designated retirement age? a. after age 40 b. after age 45 c. after age 50 d. after age 55 e. after age 57 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 517 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 32. Like OASI, Social Security Disability Insurance is a a. direct subsidy. b. noncontributory program. c. non-indexed benefit. d. means-tested program. e. contributory program. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 517 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 33. Established in 1972, the Supplementary Security Income (SSI) program involves which type of benefit? a. indexed benefit b. progressive benefit c. fixed benefit d. means-tested benefit e. annuitized benefit Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 517 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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34. The unemployment compensation program created by the Social Security Act of 1935 is funded by a. employees. b. employers. c. the federal government. d. state governments. e. employees, employers, and both the federal and state governments. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 518 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 35. For how many weeks can an employee who is fired through no fault of his or her own receive unemployment compensation? a. no more than 36 weeks b. 365 days c. 13 weeks d. until gainfully employed e. 26 weeks Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 518 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 36. What share of a regular employee’s hourly wage must employers pay for overtime work, or all hours worked over 40 hours in a week? a. one and a quarter times b. one and a half times c. one and three quarter times d. two times e. two and a quarter times Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 518 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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37. In what way is the minimum wage increased? a. yearly, with cost of living adjustment to keep up with inflation b. through new legislation approved by Congress and the president c. through an index, like OASI d. after the beneficiary is means-tested e. automatically, when it is determined that it will no longer keep workers out of poverty Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 518 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 38. Which of the following statements about the minimum wage is accurate? a. The minimum wage guarantees workers a living wage. b. Those earning minimum wage automatically receive COLA adjustments. c. Only the federal government can set a minimum wage. d. Commissioned sales employees are exempt from minimum wage requirements. e. The minimum wage ensures that workers do no live in poverty. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 518 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 39. ________ is an example of a tax break that the government uses to keep low-wage earners out of poverty. a. The American Opportunity Tax Credit b. The Work Opportunity Tax Credit c. Temporary Assistance to Needy Families d. Aid to Dependent Children e. The Earned Income Tax Credit Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 519 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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40. As mandated by federal law, which of the following was an eligibility requirement for Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC) benefits in every state? a. a single parent b. presence in the home of a child under 18 c. parent stays at home with child(ren) d. no assistance from absent parent e. All of these answers are correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 519 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 41. Beginning in the late ________, the number of woman-headed households with children living in poverty began to increase, a phenomenon known as the feminization of poverty. a. 1930s b. 1940s c. 1950s d. 1960s e. 1970s Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 520 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 42. Under the 1996 Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act (PRWORA), Temporary Assistance to Needy Families (TANF) replaced the AFDC program. TANF is different from AFDC because it a. deals with both single family and two-family households. b. is not an entitlement program. c. takes all flexibility away from the states and replaces it with strict federal regulations. d. does not have work requirements. e. is not concerned with children’s parentage. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 520 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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43. How do government agencies determine eligibility for most in-kind assistance safety-net programs? a. HHS’s poverty guidelines b. Census Bureau’s poverty thresholds c. PRWORA recommendations d. Family Support Act guidelines e. Congressional Budget Office poverty thresholds Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: Income Security Programs Page: 550 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 44. Which president’s “Great Society” plan created government programs such as Medicare and Medicaid? a. Dwight Eisenhower b. John F. Kennedy c. Lyndon Johnson d. Richard Nixon e. Jimmy Carter Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Health Care Policy Page: 521 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 45. What is the minimum age at which a person can receive Medicare health insurance benefits? a. 55 years of age b. 57 years of age c. 60 years of age d. 63 years of age e. 65 years of age Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Health Care Policy Page: 522 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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46. In what year will most of the provisions of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010, such as the one requiring everyone to purchase health insurance, come into force? a. 2014 b. 2015 c. 2016 d. 2017 e. 2018 Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Health Care Policy Page: 523 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 47. Homeland security can succeed only as an intergovernmental effort involving which of the following actors? a. local and state law enforcement b. federal intelligence agencies c. first responders and local officials d. federal assistance agencies such as the Office of Domestic Preparedness e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Homeland Security Page: 523 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 48. All of the following are challenges policy makers face in their considerations over homeland security EXCEPT a. the amount of intrusion into citizens’ lives. b. whether to coordinate initiatives under one federal agency. c. the appropriate amount of funding for improved communications and response. d. how to handle the intergovernmental aspect of homeland security. e. how to coordinate efforts to respond to homeland disasters. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Immigration Policy Page: 523-524 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

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49. Which of the following is the largest category of immigrants who are authorized to come permanently to the United States? a. those who are seeking humanitarian protection from persecution b. those with special employment skills c. those seeking to reunify with family who are U.S. citizens or permanent residents d. those who became eligible pursuant to a lottery e. those who come over to work as farm laborers Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Immigration Policy Page: 525 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy 50. Which of the following groups is/are excluded from permanent immigration to the United States? a. foreign anarchists or political extremists b. foreign nationals with a terrorist history c. foreign nationals with a criminal history d. foreign nationals perceived as health risks e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Immigration Policy Page: 525 Teaching Emphasis: Domestic Policy

Essay Questions: 51. Outline the factors that complicate the formation of national domestic policy. Answer: Several factors complicate the efforts of domestic U.S. policy makers. The sheer diversity of citizens’ needs and expectations for government action is one issue. Added to this is the reality that almost any call for government action results in a call for either a different action or no action. The plurality of citizens’ needs, individuals’ constantly changing priorities and range of political ideologies, combined with Republican and Democratic disagreement over policy priorities, greatly complicate the process of domestic policy formation. 52. Define direct provision, and provide examples of its application. Answer: In order to provide government services and benefits, governments use the domestic policy tool of direct provision—the hiring of public servants, or bureaucrats who earn a government paycheck, to dispense the services or benefits. For example, veterans’ hospitals hire doctors and nurses and physical therapists to administer health care to veterans, and the U.S. Postal Service hires mail carriers, postal clerks, and postal processing machine operators to deliver mail.

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53. Identify examples of direct subsidies created by the U.S. government. Answer: With direct subsidies, a form of cash transfer, the government provides financial support to specific persons or organizations that engage in activities that the government believes benefit the public good. Individual farmers and agricultural corporations are one example of direct subsidy recipients; they are paid either to grow specific crops or to limit how much they grow. College students receiving Pell grants, which do not need to be repaid, are also direct subsidy recipients. 54. Describe the circumstances that led to the creation of Earth Day. Answer: During the 1960s and 1970s, a series of mounting environmental crises and additional government studies brought amplified calls to action from both citizens’ groups and elected officials. U.S. Senator Gaylord Nelson (D-Wisconsin) responded by founding Earth Day. He inspired a huge grassroots movement with a day of educational rallies in Washington D.C.; on April 22, 1970, more than 200,000 people gathered on the National Mall. Today, Earth Day continues, and now involves yearly celebrations and teach-ins involving millions of people worldwide. 55. Outline the relationship between energy use and global warming. Answer: Most energy consumed in the United States is produced by burning fossil fuels—such as oil, coal, and natural gas. Burning fossil fuels pollutes the air, and is a global problem. Mounting evidence indicates that pollution from burning fossil fuels has increased temperatures worldwide, creating a greenhouse effect—like in a greenhouse, where the walls and roof trap solar heat, warming the inside temperature and not allowing the interior air to escape. Global warming, the gradual average increase in the earth’s temperature, is the result of pollution that traps solar heat in the earth’s atmosphere. 56. Discuss the circumstances that led to the development of national energy policy in the United States. Answer: In 1973, the Arab members of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) implemented an embargo on oil supplies in reaction to U.S. support of Israel in the Yom Kippur War of 1973. This five-month embargo, followed by OPEC production limits that kept oil prices high and produced hours-long waits in gas station lines, forced the United States to set national energy policies, including the creation of a Strategic Petroleum Reserve, and the introduction of fuel-efficiency standards for passenger cars and light trucks. 57. Identify and discuss important features of the OASI Program established by the Social Security Act. Answer: The Social Security Act established the Old-Age and Survivors Insurance (OASI) Program, which initially provided income to individuals or families when a worker retired. This contributory cash transfer program is the traditional retirement insurance component of Social Security. OASI is a social insurance entitlement program, funded by contributions that employees as well as employers make. Each year, the federal government establishes the amount of earnings subject to the Social Security tax. In 2012, income up to $110,100 was subject to the tax.

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58. Discuss the purposes and features of the minimum wage, and identify groups of workers not guaranteed it. Answer: Congress in 1938 enacted the Fair Labor Standards Act, which established a minimum wage. The aim was to guarantee most employed workers a living wage—a wage high enough to keep them out of poverty. The federal government has amended this law several times to expand minimum wage coverage to additional job categories, yet there are still many exceptions to it. Workers not guaranteed the federal minimum wage include full-time students, youths under 20 years of age for the first 90 days of their employment, workers who earn tips, commissioned sales employees, farm laborers, and seasonal and recreational workers. 59. Define food insecurity, and explain the programs designed to address food insecurity. Answer: Administrators recognize that families with even those income levels experience difficulties in meeting their basic needs. Programs that use the Health and Human Services poverty guidelines as the basis for determining eligibility include the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) and the National School Lunch Program. These programs target the problem of food insecurity, the situation in which people have limited or uncertain ability to obtain, in socially acceptable ways, enough nutritious food to sustain a healthy and active life. 60. Explain the purposes of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010 regarding people’s access to health insurance. Answer: The law mandates that by 2014, everyone (with some exceptions for low-income people) must purchase health insurance, if it is not provided through their employer or a government program, or face an annual fine. The federal government will make subsidies available to individuals with income between 133 percent and 400 percent of the federal poverty level to help them purchase insurance. The law also calls for the establishment of health insurance exchanges in which uninsured and self-employed individuals will be able to purchase health insurance with federal subsidies.

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 18: Foreign Policy and National Security Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Which of the following is/are among the tools U.S. foreign policy makers have at their disposal to compel foreign governments to conform to the will of the United States? a. trade policies b. economic aid c. economic penalties d. covert military action e. trade policies, and economic aid or penalties Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Tools of U.S. Foreign Policy Page: 534 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 2. Which country has become a focal point of the U.S. war on terrorism and has seen its aid support from the United States increase rapidly since the 9/11 attacks? a. Pakistan b. Iraq c. Iran d. Jordan e. Lebanon Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Tools of U.S. Foreign Policy Page: 535 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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3. When a country offers another country the same, least-restrictive trade policies that it offers to other nations within in a trade network, it is a. using diplomacy. b. conferring normal trade relations status. c. treating the country as a “most favored nation.” d. offering the country its lowest tariff rates. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Tools of U.S. Foreign Policy Page: 534-535 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 4. To voice its objection to Iran’s pursuit of nuclear weapons, the Obama administration developed a host of penalties that halted economic relations. These penalties are best described as a. diplomacy. b. deterrence. c. sanctions. d. intermestics. e. containment. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Tools of U.S. Foreign Policy Page: 536 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 5. Al-Qaeda is a radical international Islamic fundamentalist terrorist organization. The name of the organization means ________ in English. a. “Single-Front” b. “Association for Peace” c. “Red Army” d. “Holy War” e. “the Base” Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Tools of U.S. Foreign Policy Page: 536 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

6. The 9/11 terrorists came from all of these countries EXCEPT a. Saudi Arabia. b. United Arab Emirates. c. Egypt. d. Iran. e. Lebanon. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Tools of U.S. Foreign Policy Page: 536 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 7. What is the primary goal of U.S. foreign policy makers when a military action is less concerned with changing a nation’s policies than with deposing its leaders? a. conquest of territory b. resource acquisition c. regime change d. policy change e. protection of human rights Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Tools of U.S. Foreign Policy Page: 537 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 8. Which of the following conflicts involving U.S. military forces centered on an attempt to halt ethnic cleansing? a. Iraq in 2003 b. Afghanistan in 2001 c. Somalia in 1992 d. Panama in 1989 e. Kosovo in 1999 Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Tools of U.S. Foreign Policy Page: 537 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

9. Which of the following is the foremost foreign policy actor in the United States? a. the president b. the State Department c. Congress d. the Department of Defense e. the vice president Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 537 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 10. Which of the following executive departments have the largest role in shaping United States foreign policy? a. State and Homeland Security b. State and Defense c. State and the Treasury d. Treasury and Defense e. Defense and Homeland Security Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 538 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 11. What criterion is used (or what criteria are used) to organize and assign State Department employees? a. political or ideological leaning b. topical specialty c. language proficiency d. geographic area specialty e. topical specialty and geographical specialty Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 538 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

12. The official operation of the U.S. government in each country that has diplomatic ties to the United States is the a. diplomatic mission. b. attaché. c. country desk. d. consulate. e. embassy. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 538 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 13. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the formulation of foreign policy? a. The State Department and the National Security Council focus on long-term objectives, while the president tends to focus on short-term goals. b. The State Department tends to take a long-term view of world affairs while the National Security Council focuses on short-term objectives. c. The State Department, National Security Council, and the president all maintain the same foreign policy objectives and are careful not to have competing viewpoints. d. The president focuses on long-term objectives, while the State Department and the National Security Council tend to focus on short-term goals. e. The National Security Council tends to take a long-term view of world affairs while the State Department focuses on short-term objectives. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 538 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 14. Like the National Security Council, the Central Intelligence Agency was formed in response to the beginning of what world event? a. the Cold War b. World War I c. World War II d. Cuban Missile Crisis e. the Berlin Blockade Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 538 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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15. Which of the following was the result of the 1975 Church Committee investigations into whether the CIA and FBI had engaged in illegal activities while gathering intelligence? a. appointment of a national intelligence czar b. creation of the National Security Council c. staffing of more diplomatic missions to certain areas d. creation of the Senate Select Committee on Intelligence e. All these answers are correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 539 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 16. Which of the following came about as a result of the 9/11 Commission’s findings? a. creation of the House Intelligence Community b. consolidation of all intelligence agencies under the CIA c. creation of the post of director of national intelligence d. less congressional and more executive oversight over national intelligence e. All these answers are correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 539 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 17. In response to which conflict, in which the president used U.S. troops without a formal congressional declaration of war, did Congress pass the War Powers Act? a. the Korean War b. the Vietnam War c. the Gulf War of 1990–1991 d. the Iraq War of 2003–2011 e. Operation Enduring Freedom, 2001– Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 539 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

18. With the passage of the War Powers Act, Congress limited presidential use of military force to ________ days. a. 20 b. 30 c. 60 d. 90 e. 100 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 539 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 19. All of the following are congressional powers with respect to foreign relations EXCEPT a. oversight and direction of military operations during a conflict. b. treaty ratification. c. confirmation of presidential appointees to ambassadorial positions. d. confirmation of presidential appointees to cabinet posts. e. control of the budget. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 539 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 20. Which president first warned of the rising influence of the military-industrial complex? a. Franklin D. Roosevelt b. Harry S. Truman c. Dwight D. Eisenhower d. John F. Kennedy e. Lyndon B. Johnson Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 541 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

21. Which of the following best describes the members of the military-industrial complex? a. U.S. armed forces, president, defense industry b. defense industry, president, Congress c. Congress, Department of Veterans Affairs, U.S. armed forces d. president, Congress, Department of Defense e. U.S. armed forces, defense industry, Congress Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 541 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 22. When did the U.S. government begin using the news media to promote its foreign policy priorities? a. early nineteenth century b. mid-nineteenth century c. during the Civil War d. late nineteenth century e. early twentieth century Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 541 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 23. Until the ________, news media worked hand in hand with the government, generally taking a highly patriotic and supportive stance. a. Korean War b. Vietnam War c. First Gulf War d. Kosovo Intervention e. Iraq War of 2003 Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 542 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

24. Generally, public opinion plays a ________ role in shaping and influencing foreign policy. a. very small b. small c. moderate d. significant e. highly significant Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 542 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 25. What term is used for the influence of domestic politics on foreign policy? a. intermestics b. inter-foreign relations c. isolationism d. interventionism e. pre-emption Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Who Decides? The Creators and Shapers of Foreign Policy Page: 542 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 26. In drafting the Constitution, the founders sought which of the following in terms of foreign policy? a. to insert the United States forcefully in world affairs b. to develop a moderate position for the United States in world affairs that included regional hegemony c. to forge alliances with the European powers d. to expand the United States westward and southward as rapidly as possible e. to remove the United States from world affairs Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy in Historical Context: Isolationism and Interventionism Page: 543 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

27. In his farewell address, President George Washington warned against membership in entangling alliances, generally keeping with the founders’ foreign policy emphasis of a. isolationism. b. interventionism. c. neutrality. d. militarism. e. pacifism. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy in Historical Context: Isolationism and Interventionism Page: 543 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 28. What was the earliest primary activity of the United States in the international arena? a. diplomacy b. piracy c. trade d. war e. tax collection Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy in Historical Context: Isolationism and Interventionism Page: 543 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 29. During the Napoleonic Wars (1792–1815), the United States sold raw materials and supplies to which of the following? a. Britain b. France c. the Ottoman empire and Russia d. the North African Barbary States e. all sides and participants Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy in Historical Context: Isolationism and Interventionism Page: 544 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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30. In 1801, the United States went to war with which of the following after a number of its ships were seized? a. Britain b. France c. the Ottoman empire d. the North African Barbary States e. Spain Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy in Historical Context: Isolationism and Interventionism Page: 544 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 31. Throughout the early eighteenth century, which European power practiced impressments, or kidnapping, of U.S. sailors? a. Britain b. France c. the Ottoman empire d. the North African Barbary States e. Spain Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy in Historical Context: Isolationism and Interventionism Page: 544 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 32. The early nineteenth-century view in American foreign policy circles that the United States should establish hegemony over its own hemisphere resulted in the declaration of what in 1823? a. war against Spain b. the Treaty of Ghent c. the Monroe Doctrine d. the Roosevelt Corollary e. manifest destiny Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy in Historical Context: Isolationism and Interventionism Page: 544 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

33. Which European power supported the United States’ role in the Americas as described by the Monroe Doctrine? a. Britain b. France c. Holland d. Spain e. Portugal Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy in Historical Context: Isolationism and Interventionism Page: 544 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 34. Which president introduced the notion of the United States as an “international police power”? a. William McKinley b. Theodore Roosevelt c. William Howard Taft d. Woodrow Wilson e. Herbert Hoover Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy in Historical Context: Isolationism and Interventionism Page: 545 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 35. Which system of international alliances dominated the world’s foreign policy decisions from 1815 until 1918? a. bilateral power system b. Westphalian system c. balance of power system d. collective security system e. multilateral power system Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy in Historical Context: Isolationism and Interventionism Page: 545-546 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

36. After World War II, which powers emerged as superpowers, leader nations with dominating influence in international affairs? a. the Soviet Union and the United States b. the United States and Britain c. the United States and China d. Britain and China e. China and the Soviet Union Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Postwar Era: The United States as Superpower Page: 547 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 37. The U.S. program that provided the funds necessary for Western European countries to rebuild after World War II was known as the a. League of Nations. b. Roosevelt Corollary. c. Monroe Doctrine. d. Marshall Plan. e. United Nations. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Postwar Era: The United States as Superpower Page: 547 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 38. Which of the following best identifies the premise behind the creation of the United Nations? a. manifest destiny b. containment c. collective security d. globalism e. interventionism Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Postwar Era: The United States as Superpower Page: 547-548 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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39. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is an example of which of the following? a. international financial organization b. brinksmanship c. détente d. regional security alliance e. mutually assured destruction Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Postwar Era: The United States as Superpower Page: 549 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 40. What was the Soviet Union’s response to the creation of NATO? a. enactment of the policy of détente b. refusal to sit on the United Nations’ Security Council c. institution of the use of containment d. formation of the Warsaw Pact e. refusal to contribute to the Marshall Plan Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Postwar Era: The United States as Superpower Page: 549 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 41. Which of these international financial organizations regulates the monetary relationship among nations and establishes exchange rates for the world’s major currencies? a. World Bank b. World Trade Organization c. International Monetary Fund d. North Atlantic Treaty Organization e. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Postwar Era: The United States as Superpower Page: 549 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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42. In 1995, the World Trade Organization replaced which of the following? a. the World Bank b. the International Monetary Fund (IMF) c. the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) d. the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) e. the Bretton Woods Agreement Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Postwar Era: The United States as Superpower Page: 549 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 43. Which Cold War-era policy was designed to prevent the spread of communism? a. massive retaliation b. engaged diplomacy c. containment d. détente e. brinksmanship Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Postwar Era: The United States as Superpower Page: 550 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 44. Which of the following events is the best example of brinksmanship? a. the Korean War b. the launching of the Sputnik satellite by the Soviet Union c. the Cuban Missile Crisis d. President Nixon’s visit to China e. the Vietnam War Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Postwar Era: The United States as Superpower Page: 551 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

45. Which presidential doctrine emphasized the responsibility of U.S. allies to provide for their own national defense and sought to improve relations with the Soviet Union and China, the two communist world powers? a. the Truman Doctrine b. the Eisenhower Doctrine c. the Nixon Doctrine d. the Carter Doctrine e. the Reagan Doctrine Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Postwar Era: The United States as Superpower Page: 552 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 46. Which of these agreements, signed in 1987, led to the first destruction of nuclear weapons by the United States and the Soviet Union? a. SALT I treaty b. SALT II treaty c. START talks d. INF treaty e. START II talks Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 3 Text Answer Hint: The Postwar Era: The United States as Superpower Page: 553 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 47. Which presidential doctrine emphasized the right of the United States to take unilateral action against enemies? a. the Eisenhower Doctrine b. the Carter Doctrine c. the Reagan Doctrine d. the Clinton Doctrine e. the Bush Doctrine Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy After 9/11 Page: 554 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

48. Which conflict saw the introduction of the concept of preventive war, the strategy of waging war on countries regarded as threats to avoid future conflicts? a. the First Gulf War b. the Bosnian Wars c. the Kosovo Intervention d. the invasion of Somalia e. the Iraq War Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: U.S. Foreign Policy After 9/11 Page: 555 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 49. Which of the following is an ongoing challenge for U.S. foreign policy in the twenty-first century? a. terrorism b. nuclear proliferation c. rapid global climate change d. chemical and biological weapons proliferation e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Future Challenges in American Foreign Policy Page: 556-557 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security 50. Which of the following was instrumental in the organization of the populist uprisings against oppressive regimes that toppled governments in Tunisia and Egypt in 2011? a. social networking technology b. military overthrow of existing regimes c. foreign intervention d. door-to-door canvassing for support e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Future Challenges in American Foreign Policy Page: 557 Teaching Emphasis: Foreign Policy and National Security

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Chapter 18 Foreign Policy and National Security

Essay Questions: 51. Outline the important features of normal trade relations between the United States and other countries. Answer: In international trade, conferring normal trade relations (NTR) status means that a country grants to a particular trading partner the same, least restrictive trade conditions (that is, the lowest tariff rates) that the country offers to its other favored trading partners—its “most favored nations.” U.S. foreign policy makers can bestow most favored nation status on a country to influence it to enact policies the United States prefers, or withhold this status to punish a nation that does not institute policies supportive of the United States’ goals. 52. Define regime change as a foreign policy objective, and identify examples of its application by the United States. Answer: When they use the military as an instrument of foreign policy, policy makers send a strong signal. When military conflict occurs on a grand scale—for the United States, that would include today’s wars in the Middle East, as well as the Gulf War (1990–1991), the Vietnam War (1965–1975), the Korean War (1950–1953), and the two world wars (1914–1918 and 1939– 1945), the goal often is regime change, the replacement of a country’s government with another government by facilitating the deposing of its leader or leading political party. That is, rather than attempting to change another nation’s policies, the wars are fought to end the reign of the enemy nations’ leaders. 53. Compare and contrast the approaches of the Department of State and the National Security Council to global foreign policy issues. Answer: A recent addition to the foreign policy apparatus, the national security adviser has traditionally competed with the secretary of state for influence over foreign policy—and for influence over the president as well. The tension between the two advisers also stems from the differing approaches each agency takes in shaping foreign policy. Frequently, the State Department has a long-term view of world affairs and advocates foreign policies in keeping with long-term goals. In contrast, the National Security Council focuses more on short-term crises and objectives. These competing viewpoints have at times sparked media wars between the leaders of these foreign policy bureaucracies. 54. Outline the creation of the position of director of national intelligence (DNI), and explain this position’s function and responsibilities. Answer: In the aftermath of the 9/11 attacks, Congress, the media, and the independent 9/11 Commission pointed fingers at both the domestic intelligence service—the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)—and the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) for failing to anticipate and to avert the terrorist strikes. Spurred by the 9/11 Commission’s findings, in 2005 President Bush announced the appointment of a national intelligence czar, called the director of national intelligence (DNI). This individual is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all the intelligence agencies within the executive branch.

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55. Explain the purpose and features of the War Powers Act of 1973. Answer: In response to the presidential tactic of bypassing congressional approval to initiate military actions, Congress passed the War Powers Act in 1973. This law limits presidential use of military forces to 60 days, with an automatic extension of 30 additional days if the president requests such an extension. However, the nature of modern warfare has quickly made the War Powers Act less effective than in the days of traditional warfare due to the fact that modern warfare is often measured in days, not in months. 56. Identify ways the media can influence the conduct and substance of foreign policy. Answer: The news media’s influence over the conduct and substance of foreign policy can take a variety of forms. Included is the media’s ability to conduct agenda setting and public awareness through coverage of controversial foreign policy events and issues. Another way is in the form of media investigations, such as the investigations into abuses at the Abu Ghraib prison in Iraq, that can influence and shape popular opinion in both directions. 57. Explain why public opinion has little influence over the conduct of U.S. foreign policy. Answer: When it comes to foreign policy matters, public opinion is rarely the strong force that it can be in setting the domestic policy agenda. In general, people tend to be less concerned, less informed, and less interested in foreign policy matters than in domestic issues. Thus the public at large is likely to accept the views and actions of the individuals who make their country’s foreign policy. Public opinion plays a comparatively small role in shaping foreign policy for several reasons. First, foreign policy is made incrementally, over years and decades, and keeping up with international developments in different parts of the world is not something that many individuals or even news organizations do. Many Americans also feel less connected to foreign policy decisions than they do to domestic policy issues. 58. Outline the important features of the Roosevelt Corollary to the Monroe Doctrine. Answer: As president from 1901 to 1909, Theodore Roosevelt added his own famous dictum to the Monroe Doctrine: the Roosevelt Corollary. He announced that to ensure stability in the region, the United States had the right to act as an “international police power” and intervene in Latin America—and indeed, the entire Western Hemisphere—if the situation in any country warranted the intervention of a “civilized society.” 59. Explain the doctrine of mutual assured destruction (MAD). Answer: Beginning in the early 1960s, the United States and the Soviet Union engaged in a nuclear arms race in which each country attempted to surpass the other’s nuclear capability. According to the doctrine of mutual assured destruction (MAD), if one nation attacked another with nuclear weapons, the other would be capable of retaliating, and would retaliate, with such force as to assure mutual annihilation. The advent of intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs) meant that both the United States and the Soviet Union were capable of sending nuclear warheads through space to targets in their rivals’ homelands.

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60. Outline the Bush Doctrine, and provide examples of its application. Answer: According to the Bush Doctrine, unilateral action (action by the United States alone) directly targeted at enemies is both justifiable and feasible. The Bush Doctrine also asserted that the United States should use its role as the world’s only remaining superpower to spread democracy and to create conditions of security that will benefit itself and its allies. This doctrine was employed in the invasions of Afghanistan in 2001 and Iraq in 2003.

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Chapter 19 Introduction to Texas Government

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 19: Introduction to Texas Government Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Spanish settlement was most prominent in which section of Texas? a. South Texas b. North Texas c. the Hill Country d. West Texas e. East Texas Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Society Page: 567 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 2. The two groups of Texas settlers who generally took opposing sides in the Texas Revolution were the a. Anglo Catholics and Spanish Protestants. b. Anglo Protestants and Spanish Catholics. c. northern Americans and southern Americans. d. free blacks and slaveholders. e. Catholic slaveholders and Protestant slaveholders. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Society Page: 567 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government

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Chapter 19 Introduction to Texas Government

3. The settlements of Anglo southerners did not extend much beyond the line running from the Red River to present-day Fort Worth and south through Waco and Austin to San Antonio, otherwise known at the a. Rio Grande Valley. b. Trans Pecos. c. Edwards Plateau. d. Llano Estacado. e. Balcones Escarpment. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Society Page: 567 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 4. The area west of the line separating the Coastal Plain and pine forest regions of Texas from the middle and High Plains was not settled until after the Civil War. Why? a. settlers ignorance of how well plantations would flourish in the landscape b. lack of interest c. Indian domination of the area d. geographical barriers that prevented settlers from reaching the area e. All these answers are correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Society Page: 568 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 5. Which of the following statements is true about German immigrants to Texas before the Civil War? a. They were primarily slave owners. b. They assimilated into the local Anglo population. c. Many of them fought for the Union. d. Some of them fled to Mexico during the Civil War. e. Most of them opposed Republican efforts to reconstruct the South after the Civil War. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Society Page: 568 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government

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Chapter 19 Introduction to Texas Government

6. Which of the following is true about Texas? a. Most of its population lives in the state’s urban counties. b. Most of the counties in the state are urban. c. Despite differing demographics, there is very little conflict in Texas politics. d. Despite its size, it has a comparatively small population. e. Its urban and rural contrasts are becoming more severe. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Society Page: 568 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 7. Which of the following statements about the population of Texas is true? a. It is declining. b. It has remained stagnant in recent decades. c. It is growing more slowly than most other states. d. It is growing at an average rate in comparison to other states. e. It is growing faster than most other states. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Population Growth and the Changing Political Climate Page: 569 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 8. Which of the following statements about the changing political climate in Texas is most accurate? a. The state has always had and continues to have a solidly Democratic political climate. b. The state has always had and continues to have a solidly Republican political climate. c. The state used to lean solidly Republican, but immigration has changed its political climate so that it leans Democratic. d. Immigration into the state is changing the politics from Democratic to Republican domination. e. The state has a strong history of an independent political climate. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Population Growth and the Changing Political Climate Page: 569 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government

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Chapter 19 Introduction to Texas Government

9. Which of the following best characterizes the racial makeup of the population of Texas? a. It is a majority-minority state. b. There are more Mexican Americans and African Americans than Anglos. c. Anglos are a minority in Texas. d. There is a concentration of minority groups in urban areas of the state. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Society Page: 570 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 10. In Texas politics, Latinos a. have been unsuccessful at electing officials to city and county governments. b. have never had a Latino member of Congress. c. had their first successful candidate for governor in 2002. d. dominate politics in San Antonio and the border areas. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Population Growth and the Changing Political Climate Page: 571 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 11. Which of the following statements is true about the political influence of African Americans in Texas? a. It is limited to the state’s major cities. b. It is limited to the state’s Democratic Party. c. It lags behind the influence of the state’s Latinos. d. It is being bolstered by an increased African American population in the state. e. It has increased dramatically in the last decade. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Population Growth and the Changing Political Climate Page: 571 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government

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Chapter 19 Introduction to Texas Government

12. Asian Americans were ________ percent of the population of Texas in 2010. a. less than 1 b. 2.6 c. 4.5 d. 8 e. 11 Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Population Growth and the Changing Political Climate Page: 571 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 13. Political culture includes which of the following? a. people’s collective attitudes about government b. people’s collective attitudes about political processes c. the values people expect the government to support d. the role people think ordinary people should play in the political process e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Political Culture of Texas Page: 572 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 14. Texas’s political culture includes elements of which of the following subcultures? a. moralistic b. individualistic c. traditionalistic d. moralistic and individualistic e. individualistic and traditionalistic Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Political Culture of Texas Page: 573 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government

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Chapter 19 Introduction to Texas Government

15. What type of role do Texans generally believe ordinary citizens should have in the political process? a. limited b. highly active c. The answer depends on their social class. d. The answer depends on their race and ethnicity. e. The answer depends on their gender. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Political Culture of Texas Page: 573 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 16. Which of the following is the most accurate comparison of the party platforms of the Democratic governors in the 1940s and 1950s and the Republican governors of the 1990s and 2000s? a. They are similar, except the Democratic platform sought to expand civil rights. b. They are similar, except the Republican platform seeks to expand civil rights. c. The party platforms are completely different. d. The party platforms are virtually the same. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Political Culture of Texas Page: 573-574 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 17. Where does Texas rank among the 50 states in voter participation? a. first b. near the top c. just about average d. near the bottom e. last Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Political Culture of Texas Page: 574 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government

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Chapter 19 Introduction to Texas Government

18. Although it was so for most of its history, over the past several decades Texas has become less of a a. manufacturing-based economy. b. land-based economy. c. technology-based economy. d. trade-based economy. e. finance-based economy. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Economy of Texas Page: 575 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 19. Petrochemical industries dominate which economic region of Texas? a. the Piney Woods b. the Plains c. the Gulf Coast d. the Border e. the Metroplex Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Economy of Texas Page: 575 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 20. The decline of which industry during the 1980s convinced Texans of the need to diversify their economy? a. agriculture b. cattle c. oil d. high-tech e. manufacturing Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Economy of Texas Page: 576-577 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government

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Chapter 19 Introduction to Texas Government

21. Which of the following statements about the impact of the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) on the Texas economy is most accurate? a. Despite promises, exports in Texas dropped after the passage of NAFTA. b. NAFTA resulted in significant economic growth for Texas. c. The economic impact of NAFTA in Texas has been negligible. d. Despite NAFTA, Texas’s major trading partners are still European countries. e. Due to competition from Mexico, NAFTA resulted in significant economic decline in Texas. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Economy of Texas Page: 577 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 22. Texas leads the nation in which of the following indicators? a. exports b. imports c. gross domestic product d. gross wages per capita e. taxation revenue Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Economy of Texas Page: 577 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 23. Which of the following is true about Texas’s economy? a. High oil prices have enabled the state to avoid the impact of the recession of 2008. b. High oil prices have enabled the state to avoid several of the most recent national recessions. c. Low oil prices have made the impact of the recession of 2008 worse in Texas than in most other states. d. Low oil prices have made Texas more susceptible to recessions than most other states in recent decades. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Economy of Texas Page: 578 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government

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Chapter 19 Introduction to Texas Government

24. Which of the following is the biggest political issue that the Texas government must address? a. illegal immigration b. unfair trading practices among its NAFTA counterparts c. falling oil prices d. increased urbanization and poverty e. the need to increase exports Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Economy of Texas Page: 578 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government 25. What attempt to deal with the transportation issues caused by a growing population was defeated by the Texas legislature in 2011? a. Rio Grande Passage b. Trans-Texas Corridor c. Texas Toll Road d. Cross-Texas Access e. NAFTA Pathway Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Economy of Texas Page: 580 Teaching Emphasis: Introduction to Texas Government

Essay Questions: 26. Explain what the history of settlement in Texas reveals about the state. Answer: The history of settlement in Texas reveals not only the reasons for the cultural diversity of Texas’s population, but also the reasons for the economic diversity within the state. Certain groups of settlers, such as southern Anglos, migrated to specific regions because those areas allowed them to pursue the same livelihoods as in their home regions. Conflicts among settlers, such as those between Germans and Anglos, also influenced the creation of distinct economic and cultural regions within the state. 27. How has the increasing population of the state affected its political climate? Answer: The increasing population of Texas has created a number of different political issues within the state. Increased population has led to pressures on the state’s health care and educational systems, creating the need for additional expenditures that has burdened the state’s traditionally limited government system. Population increases have also increased the presence of minorities in Texas, making it a majority-minority state and thus complicating the traditional patterns of how politics unfolded within the state.

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Chapter 19 Introduction to Texas Government

28. Within which political subcultures does Texas generally belong, and what do those subcultures mean for the state’s governance? Answer: Texas is generally seen as a blend of individualistic and traditionalistic political subcultures. This combination, which combines the state’s southern and western political heritages, results in a belief in limited, conservative government that discourages broad political participation among ordinary citizens and encourages people to rely on government services only when absolutely necessary. 29. What are the most prominent structural features of Texas’s state government? Answer: Texas’s state government is structured to limit political power. Power is divided among many officials, and the power of the governor is very limited. Most political power lies in the state legislature, which generally protects the status quo, placing few restrictions on business or lobbying and offering little money for expenditures. 30. Describe the most prominent changes in the economy of Texas in recent decades. Answer: Texans have successfully diversified their economy since the 1970s so that the state regularly outperforms most of the nation economically. While agriculture, ranching, and oil remain important, Texas has become a center of research and development, filing for more patents than nearly any other state. The passage of NAFTA has also made Texas a center for international trade; it now exports more than any other state in the nation.

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Chapter 20 The State Constitution

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 20: The State Constitution Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Texas has been governed by how many constitutions? a. 2 b. 5 c. 7 d. 11 e. 14 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Constitutions Page: 586 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 2. Which of the following statements about the constitution of Texas under Mexico is true? a. It allowed for free exercise of religion. b. It prohibited the establishment of a state religion. c. It provided for a federal government, in contrast to the centralized government of Spain. d. It legalized slavery. e. It included a bill of rights. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Constitutions Page: 586 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 3. Which of the following was a reason for the Texas revolution of 1836? a. the abolition of slavery b. the suspension of the constitution of 1824 c. Mexican army attacks on Anglo farms d. the imposition of Catholicism as the state religion of Mexico e. All these answers are correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Texas Constitutions Page: 586 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution

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Chapter 20 The State Constitution

4. Which of the following statements about the Texas constitution of 1836 is NOT true? a. It legalized slavery. b. It instituted free exercise of religion. c. It strengthened the power of the executive branch. d. It provided a unitary form of government. e. It drew upon the state constitutions of other southern states. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Texas Constitutions Page: 586 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 5. Which of the following statements about the Texas constitution of 1845 is true? a. It granted women property rights equal to those of men. b. It granted women the right to vote. c. It granted women the right to hold political office. d. It granted women the right to sole custody of their children. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Constitutions Page: 587 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 6. Which of the Texas constitutions is known as the “carpetbagger’s constitution” because it was imposed under federal military rule? a. 1845 constitution b. 1861 constitution c. 1866 constitution d. 1869 constitution e. 1876 constitution Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Constitutions Page: 587 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution

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Chapter 20 The State Constitution

7. Which of the following is true about the 1869 constitution? a. It allowed former slaves to vote. b. It abolished county courts. c. It centralized public schools under state control. d. It gave the governor strong appointive authority. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Constitutions Page: 587-588 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 8. The Constitutional Convention of 1876 included which of the following? a. former slaves b. carpetbaggers c. men who had participated in the constitutional convention of 1869 d. former high-ranking officers of the Confederacy e. supporters of centralized government Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Texas Constitutions Page: 588 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 9. Among the most significant Spanish contributions to the Texas constitutions was a. free exercise of religion. b. community property rights for women. c. a bill of rights. d. a strong executive branch. e. limitations on the powers of the judicial branch. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Constitutions Page: 589 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution

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Chapter 20 The State Constitution

10. Texas constitutions have historically provided for a. limited government with strong centralized power. b. limited government with little centralized power. c. active government with carefully balanced power. d. active government with little centralized power. e. active government with strong centralized power. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Texas Constitutions Page: 588 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 11. Which of the following is the driving force in the shaping of political institutions in a state? a. demographics b. political culture c. division of wealth d. race relations e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Culture and Constitutions Page: 589 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 12. Constitutions are based on which of the following principles? a. popular sovereignty b. limited government c. individual liberty d. popular sovereignty and limited government e. individual liberty and popular sovereignty Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Principles of State Constitutions Page: 590 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution

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Chapter 20 The State Constitution

13. Constitutions are inherently a(n) ________ the powers of government. a. explication of b. limitation upon c. expansion of d. starting point for e. final say on Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Principles of State Constitutions Page: 590 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 14. Constitutions are a contract between which of the following? a. the state and local governments b. the state and the people c. the people and the legislature d. the state legislature and Congress e. the branches of government Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Principles of State Constitutions Page: 590 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 15. Its “Bill of Rights” might suggest that the Texas Constitution is a(n) ________ document. a. conservative b. liberal c. libertarian d. reactionary e. ethnocentric Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Principles of State Constitutions Page: 591 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution

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Chapter 20 The State Constitution

16. Which of the following is true about the right to bear arms under the Texas Constitution? a. It is unlimited. b. It is restricted on college campuses. c. It is restricted at all educational institutions. d. The legislature may limit this right in order to reduce crime. e. The executive may limit this right in order to reduce crime. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Structure of State Constitutions Page: 593 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 17. Which of the following is a common characteristic of state constitutions? a. popular sovereignty b. compact theory c. limited government d. clarification of governmental authority e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Structure of State Constitutions Page: 590 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 18. Legal experts and political theorists generally agree that constitutions should be a. detailed. b. brief. c. specific. d. easily amendable. e. narrow in the granting of powers. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Structure of State Constitutions Page: 591 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution

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Chapter 20 The State Constitution

19. Which of the following statements is generally true about the structure of state constitutions? a. They create weak executives and strong legislatures. b. They contain articles that limit how taxes may be spent. c. They often earmark taxes for specific purposes. d. They prohibit deficit spending unless approved by voters in a special bond election. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Structure of State Constitutions Page: 592 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 20. Amending the Texas Constitution requires which of the following? a. a majority vote in each house of the legislature b. the vote of two-thirds of each house in the legislature c. the vote of two-thirds of each house of the legislature and majority approval by the voters d. a majority vote in each house of the legislature and approval by two-thirds of the voters e. the vote of two-thirds of each house in the legislature and approval by two-thirds of the voters Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Revising State Constitutions Page: 592 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 21. Which of the following is true about states that allow constitutional amendment by voter initiative? a. Almost all of them are states that were formerly part of the Confederacy. b. Almost all of them are west of the Mississippi. c. Almost all of them are in the Northeast. d. Almost all of them were created before 1850. e. Almost all of them have shorter constitutions than non-initiative states. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Revising State Constitutions Page: 592 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution

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Chapter 20 The State Constitution

22. In Texas, most constitutional amendments appear on the ballot a. in years when almost no statewide offices are up for election. b. during presidential election years. c. during midterm election years. d. during midterm or presidential election years. e. during any year the amendments receive enough support to appear on the ballot. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Revising State Constitutions Page: 595 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 23. Which of the following statements about the amendment process for the Texas Constitution is most accurate? a. As little as 5 percent of the population has passed an amendment to change the Texas Constitution. b. Voter turnout for amending the Texas Constitution tends to be higher than turnout during presidential elections. c. Texas voters tend to reject most proposals to amend the Texas Constitution. d. The information regarding any proposed amendment to the Texas Constitution is always readily apparent from the wording on the ballot. e. The Texas initiative process screens out potential constitutional amendments that do not have broad public support. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Revising State Constitutions Page: 595-596 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution 24. Most constitutional amendments in Texas are pushed through by a. political parties. b. grass-roots political movements. c. interest groups. d. the governor. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Revising State Constitutions Page: 596 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution

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Chapter 20 The State Constitution

25. An amendment that passed despite the opposition of the traditionalistic-individualistic political culture was one providing government funds for cancer research, which was supported by a. George W. Bush. b. George H. W. Bush. c. Laura Bush. d. Lance Armstrong. e. Nolan Ryan. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Revising State Constitutions Page: 597 Teaching Emphasis: The State Constitution

Essay Questions: 26. What were the most prominent features of the post-independence, pre-Civil War constitutions in Texas? Answer: The constitutions that Texas produced between its independence and the Civil War reflected the citizens’ distrust of government. They limited the power of the executive, instituted biennial sessions for the legislature, and introduced term limits. One feature in the Texas Constitution that distinguished it from the other southern states of the era was the introduction of equal property rights for women, a legacy of the state’s Spanish legal heritage. 27. How did Texas’s 1869 constitution differ significantly from its previous and subsequent constitutions? Answer: The 1869 constitution, which was also known as the Reconstruction or “carpetbagger’s” constitution, reflected the trend toward government centralization in the North during this era. It significantly strengthened the power of the governor, and reduced local control over areas from the courts to education. It created significant civil rights, including voting rights for African Americans, and disfranchised whites who had participated in the Confederacy. Most of these structures were removed when the constitution was rewritten in 1876. 28. What are some of the legal principles that underlie state constitutions in the United States? Answer: All constitutions in the United States are based on the concepts of popular sovereignty and limited government, and all of them are compacts between the people and the government. Constitutions limit governmental power both through grants and denials of power, and they protect citizens from overreaching government through separation of powers. Like the U.S. Constitution, most state constitutions have strong statements about protecting civil liberties in a bill of rights or similar document; in fact, many state constitutions, including Texas’s, offer more protections of civil liberties than does the U.S. Constitution. State constitutions also have supremacy clauses that guarantee state law supremacy over various forms of local law.

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Chapter 20 The State Constitution

29. Discuss how the process of amending constitutions is different at the state level than it is at the federal level. Answer: Amending the constitution is a much more frequent process in most states than it is at the national level. While the U.S. Constitution has only 27 amendments, many states have several hundred amendments to their constitution (Texas currently has 467). States tend to treat their constitutions more as statutory or legislative acts rather than as the nearly sacred document that most Americans perceive the U.S. Constitution to be. Depending on the state, amendments can be introduced either through the legislature or through the initiative process. In Texas, these amendments tend to serve to protect special interest groups, and they rarely face significant opposition from the general population. 30. Why do many legal experts believe that Texas needs a new state constitution? Answer: Many legal experts believe Texas, like many other states, needs a new state constitution because they view its current version as excessively long, excessively detailed, and confusingly worded. A number of efforts to replace the current constitution have been attempted, but most political leaders have little impetus to replace a document that has placed them into power and created little opposition to their continuing in positions of prominence within the state government.

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Chapter 21 Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 21: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. a. b. c. d. e.

Which of the following statements about voter participation in Texas in most accurate? Texas ranks high in voter participation in both state and national elections. A history of restrictive voter registration laws still effects political participation in Texas. The political culture in Texas encourages political participation. Texas has always had very liberal laws when it comes to ballot access. The political participation of citizens makes Texas an unfriendly environment for interest groups to operate. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legacy of Restricted Ballot Access Page: 604 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 2. Each of the following is characterized as political participation EXCEPT a. running for office. b. wearing a button or displaying a bumper sticker. c. attending a political meeting. d. working for a candidate. e. discussing politics with friends and colleagues. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Legacy of Restricted Ballot Access Page: 604 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 3. In the 2008 presidential election, Texas ranked ________ in voter turnout. a. 2nd b. 13th c. 23rd d. 37th e. 47th Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legacy of Restricted Ballot Access Page: 605 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

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Chapter 21 Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

4. Which of the following outlawed use of a poll tax in federal elections? a. Civil Rights Act of 1964 b. Fifteenth Amendment c. Brown v. Board of Education d. Twenty-Fourth Amendment e. Fourteenth Amendment Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legacy of Restricted Ballot Access Page: 605 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 5. Even after the elimination of the poll tax, Texas maintained a very restrictive system of a. annual voter registration. b. permanent voter registration. c. periodic voter registration. d. automatic voter registration. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legacy of Restricted Ballot Access Page: 605 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 6. What did the Supreme Court decide about the Democratic Party of Texas’s decision to ban blacks from all party activities? a. It determined that such an action was unconstitutional under the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. b. It determined that such an action was unconstitutional under the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. c. It determined that such an action was an unconstitutional violation of the Fifteenth Amendment. d. It refused to hear the case, effectively letting the law stand. e. It found the action constitutional because a political party is a private organization. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Legacy of Restricted Ballot Access Page: 606 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

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Chapter 21 Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

7. The Supreme Court decision of Smith v. Allwright determined which of the following? a. Political parties are public organizations, but their white primaries were not violations of the U.S. Constitution. b. Political parties are state agents and thus cannot exclude people from participating in primaries because of race. c. Political parties are private parties who are not subject to the Fourteenth Amendment. d. Political parties are private parties who must only provide equal facilities for political participation for African Americans. e. Political parties are quasi-public organizations that are subject to some but not complete scrutiny under the Constitution. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legacy of Restricted Ballot Access Page: 606 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 8. Restrictive voter registration laws and property ownership requirements were eliminated in Texas during the ________. a. 1930s b. 1940s c. 1950s d. 1960s e. 1970s Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legacy of Restricted Ballot Access Page: 606 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 9. What impact has the elimination of voter restrictions and easier access to voter registration had on political participation in Texas? a. It has translated into a significant increase in participation. b. It has not translated into a significant increase in participation. c. It has caused Texas to rank near the top in voter turnout in elections. d. It caused a significant decrease in political participation. e. None of these answers are correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legacy of Restricted Ballot Access Page: 606 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

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Chapter 21 Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

10. All of the following factors will decrease the likelihood of voter participation EXCEPT a. a decrease in party competition. b. the timing of elections. c. the passage of voter identification laws. d. a voter’s high level of educational attainment. e. the voter being African American or Latino. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Factors That Affect Voter Participation Today Page: 607-608 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 11. The lack of citizen participation in elections heightens the importance of ________ in Texas politics. a. political parties b. corporations c. interest groups d. economic elites e. minorities Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 609 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 12. Public employees in Texas are not allowed to belong to a. labor unions. b. professional associations. c. political parties. d. interest groups. e. private organizations that discriminate on the basis of race or gender. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 611 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

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Chapter 21 Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

13. Texas has a(n) ________ law, which prohibits shops in which all workers must join the union within 90 days of gaining employment. a. anti-union b. right-to-work c. freedom of employment d. workers’ choice e. public employment Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 611 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 14. Ethnic groups are particularly concerned with all of the following issues EXCEPT a. improving government services. b. gaining political power. c. prohibiting the sale of alcohol. d. advancing civil rights. e. ending discrimination. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 612 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 15. Fundamentalist religious groups control which of the following institutions in Texas? a. the Republican Party State Executive Committee b. the Texas State Board of Education c. the state legislature d. the Republican Party State Executive Committee and the Texas State Board of Education e. the state legislature, the Republican Party State Executive Committee, and the Texas State Board of Education Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 612-613 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

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Chapter 21 Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

16. The Texas State Board of Education received intense criticism for revising history textbooks to a. deemphasize the importance of the civil rights movement. b. deemphasize religious freedom. c. remove Thomas Jefferson as one of the great thinkers studied in world history. d. deemphasize the importance of the civil rights movement and of religious freedom; and remove Thomas Jefferson as one of the great thinkers studied in world history. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 613 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 17. State and local interest groups (SLIGs) share which of the following goals? a. providing for the security of Texas’s borders b. providing for the education of Texas’s children c. protecting local government interests from state interference d. shifting judicial authority to local courts e. gaining more money from state and federal agencies Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Types of Interest Groups Page: 613 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 18. The most prominent approach to lobbying political officials today involves a. entertaining members of the legislature. b. providing information and public relations tactics. c. convincing judges to interpret laws in ways that support the interests of special interests. d. grassroots campaigning efforts on behalf of candidates. e. large donations to candidates’ discretionary funds. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Tactics and Their Regulation Page: 614 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

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Chapter 21 Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

19. Which of the following statements is true about political action committees (PACs) in Texas? a. They may be created by a corporation to support or oppose a candidate for office. b. They do not need to register with any state agency. c. Employees of corporations may not make individual contributions to PACs. d. PACs do not need to disclose the names of their donors. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Interest Group Tactics and Their Regulation Page: 614 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 20. Which of the following statements about interest groups in Texas politics is true? a. Because the Texas economy is more diverse, interest groups have less power than in previous eras. b. Because the Texas economy is more diverse, interest groups have more power than in previous eras. c. Because the Texas economy has remained fairly static over recent decades, so has the power of interest groups. d. Because the Texas economy is less diverse, interest groups have more power than in previous decades. e. Because the Texas economy is less diverse, interest groups have less power than in previous decades. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Strength of Interest Groups in Texas Page: 615 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 21. Which of the following statements is true about Texas’s political party system? a. It has a long history of intense and balanced competition between the two parties. b. Candidates need to ensure that their primary loyalty is to their party in order to win elections. c. Party structures are fairly weak, leaving room for interest groups to exert significant influence. d. Members of the legislature consistently place their party’s welfare above the influence of interest groups. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Strength of Interest Groups in Texas Page: 615 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

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Chapter 21 Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

22. Texas, like the majority of states in the nation, is a state in which interest groups are a. dominant. b. dominant but complementary. c. complementary. d. complementary but subordinate. e. subordinate. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Strength of Interest Groups in Texas Page: 616 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 23. Which of the following statements is true about legislative staffs in Texas? a. Most members of the legislature do not have full-time staff. b. Committee staffs have decreased in recent decades. c. The state spends less money on staff than most other states. d. The more professional a legislature, the less likely it is to be influenced by interest groups. e. Texas lacks high-quality research and advisory services. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Strength of Interest Groups in Texas Page: 616 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics 24. Which of the following statements about regulatory agencies in Texas is true? a. The governor exerts significant influence over their policies. b. Most agencies are controlled by the industry they regulate. c. Industries are not allowed to place their former executives into regulatory positions. d. They lack control to institute significant regulatory oversight. e. Members of state licensing boards are generally professionals in the field. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Strength of Interest Groups in Texas Page: 617 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

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Chapter 21 Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

25. All of the following impact the influence of interest groups on Texas state government EXCEPT the a. number of legislators in the legislature. b. fragmented nature of the state government. c. many independent boards and commissions. d. separately elected state agency heads. e. professionalism of the legislature. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Strength of Interest Groups in Texas Page: 616-617 Teaching Emphasis: Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

Essay Questions: 26. What are some of the reasons the text highlights for low voter participation in Texas? Answer: The text highlights two reasons that Texas’s voter participation is consistently among the lowest in the nation. First, Texas’s individualistic and traditionalistic political culture discourages widespread political participation by ordinary citizens. Second, a long history of restricted ballot access for poor whites and African Americans has had a continuing legacy in their limited participation in the political process. 27. What are some of the ways previous generations of Texans attempted to limit access to voting? Answer: Among the strategies previous generations of Texans (and Americans in many other states, particularly in the South) used to limit voter participation were the use of poll taxes, which made it too expensive for poor citizens to vote, and annual registrations that created additional bureaucracy as an obstacle to voting. The state also used white primaries that forbid African Americans from participating in Democratic Party primary elections, property ownership restrictions, and gender discrimination, all of which made the pool of active voters much smaller than the total voting-age population in the state. 28. Describe some of the citizens’ groups that are among the most active in Texas politics. Answer: Many of the citizens’ groups that are active in Texas politics are groups representing minority or religious interests. Both African Americans and Latinos have a variety of interest groups that often pursue conflicting interests. Religious groups also play a prominent role in Texas politics. Catholic organizations have significant influence, particularly in areas with large Latino populations, and fundamentalist Protestant groups have gained control over some crucial political and educational institutions, including most controversially the Texas State Board of Education.

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Chapter 21 Participation and Interest Groups in Texas Politics

29. What are some of the ways that interest groups become involved in Texas elections? Answer: In Texas, as in other states, interest groups do much more than just contribute money to campaigns. They recruit candidates to run for office, often from both parties to ensure their interests are served regardless of which party wins. They provide research that promotes their agendas to candidates, political organizations, and the public. They offer speaking engagements and give awards to candidates who protect their interests. For these reasons and more, many observers of politics believe that politicians are more beholden to interest groups than to either their constituency or their political party. 30. What are some of the factors that determine the influence of interest groups, and based on those criteria, how strong is that influence over Texas politics? Answer: Factors such as the economic diversity of the state, the strength of political party competition, the professionalism of the legislature, and the fragmentation of the government help to determine the influence of interest groups. In Texas, the relative weakness of party competition, and particularly the fragmentation of government, makes the influence of interest groups quite strong.

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Chapter 22 Political Parties and Elections in Texas

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 22: Political Parties and Elections in Texas Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. The first four-year terms for officeholders in Texas were instituted in ________. a. 1846 b. 1877 c. 1918 d. 1954 e. 1978 Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: State Party Systems Page: 624 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 2. a. b. c.

When did the Republican Party become the dominant party in Texas politics? in both the state and national elections during the 1950s in national elections during the 1950s and in state elections during the 1980s in national elections during the 1950s and in state elections after the turn of the twenty-first century d. in national elections during the 1980s and in state elections after the turn of the twenty-first century e. in both the state and national elections after the turn of the twenty-first century Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: State Party Systems Page: 624 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 3. The Republican Party’s ability to keep control will depend on which of the following? a. the state of the Texas economy b. the state of the national economy c. the vote of Texas’s white population d. the vote of Texas’s minority population e. the vote of Texas’s female population Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: State Party Systems Page: 624 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 22 Political Parties and Elections in Texas

4. In terms of party competition, Texas is currently a a. one-party Republican state. b. modified one-party Republican state. c. two-party competitive state. d. modified one-party Democratic state. e. one-party Democratic state. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: State Party Systems Page: 625 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 5. The shift from Democratic to Republican control of Texas state politics has resulted in a. no significant change in governing policy or philosophy. b. no significant change in governing policy or philosophy regarding economics, but a much more active agenda on social policy. c. no significant change in governing policy or philosophy regarding social policy, but a much more active agenda on economics. d. a much more active agenda on both economic and social policies. e. a much more limited agenda on both economic and social policies. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: State Party Ideologies Page: 626 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 6. The first hints of a shift toward the Republican Party in Texas occurred when the state voted for ________ for president. a. Eisenhower b. Kennedy c. Nixon d. Reagan e. George H. W. Bush Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: State Party Ideologies Page: 627 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas

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Chapter 22 Political Parties and Elections in Texas

7. The real beginning of two-party politics in Texas began with the 1978 election of a. Allan Shivers. b. John Tower. c. Bill Clements. d. Mark White. e. Phil Gramm. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in Texas Page: 627 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 8. What role did race play in Texas politics before the 1960s? a. It was the primary issue in most elections. b. It was a primary issue in rural regions, but less so in urban areas. c. It was an important issue, but subordinate to economics. d. It was an important issue during times of prosperity, but not during difficult economic times. e. It was less important in Texas than in other southern states. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in Texas Page: 627 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 9. Which of the following statements about straight ticket voting in Texas is true? a. It is not allowed in Texas elections. b. It has been made more difficult by a party column format on electronic ballots. c. It has helped the Republicans, particularly in state judicial elections. d. It has helped the Democrats, particularly in state judicial elections. e. It has not had a significant impact on Texas elections. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in Texas Page: 630 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas

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Chapter 22 Political Parties and Elections in Texas

10. Which of the following is part of the profile for the average Republican voter in Texas? a. young b. prosperous c. Anglo d. suburban e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in Texas Page: 630-631 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 11. Democrats in Texas are typically all of the following EXCEPT a. young. b. native Texans. c. minorities. d. less prosperous. e. less educated. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in Texas Page: 630-631 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 12. Governor Bush made a particular effort to appeal to which group of voters? a. whites b. Mexican Americans c. African Americans d. Asian Americans e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in Texas Page: 634 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas

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Chapter 22 Political Parties and Elections in Texas

13. What happened in the Dallas County elections in 2006? a. Republicans swept countywide offices for the first time ever. b. African Americans and Latinos voted Republican in record numbers. c. Republicans won their first majority of countywide offices. d. Democrats won their first countywide election in 20 years. e. African American and Latino votes helped Democrats to win most countywide elections for the first time in 20 years. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in Texas Page: 631 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 14. When voters cease to identify with either major party and begin to identify as independents, it begins the process of a. straight ticket voting. b. party dealignment. c. crossover voting. d. party realignment. e. party alignment. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in Texas Page: 635 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 15. Which of the following is true about third parties in Texas? a. They have never had much influence. b. They had influence in the past, but very little in the present. c. They had very little influence in the past, but have a growing influence in the present. d. The individualistic political culture in Texas makes it easier for them to emerge than in other states. e. The Texas state constitution makes it more difficult for them to emerge than in other states. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in Texas Page: 633 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas

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Chapter 22 Political Parties and Elections in Texas

16. Currently, the only party in Texas that qualifies as a minor party is the a. Raza Unida Party. b. Socialist Party. c. Grange. d. Libertarian Party. e. Greenback Party. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in Texas Page: 634 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 17. To run as an independent candidate for county office, an individual must collect signatures equal to ________ percent of the votes cast for that office in the last election. a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 8 e. 10 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Political Parties in Texas Page: 633 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 18. Which of the following is NOT true about the election of precinct chairs in Texas? a. They are usually uncontested elections. b. Candidates must file signature petitions to run for the office. c. Candidates have been elected with as little as one vote. d. Write-in candidates often win these elections. e. Any registered voter may have his or her name placed on the ballot. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Party Organization in Texas Page: 635 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas

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Chapter 22 Political Parties and Elections in Texas

19. The role of the precinct chair includes all of the following EXCEPT a. identifying party supporters. b. turning out voters on election day. c. raising money for campaign ads. d. making sure party supporters are registered to vote. e. promoting the interests of the party at the local level. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Party Organization in Texas Page: 635 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 20. County chairs are responsible for which of the following? a. maintaining party headquarters b. fundraising c. conducting primary elections d. officially counting the ballots in a primary election. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Party Organization in Texas Page: 635 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 21. Which of the following statements about positions on the state executive committee is true? a. These positions are considered breeding grounds for new political talent. b. These positions are customarily evenly divided between men and women. c. There is one member for every senatorial district in the state. d. They are primarily fundraising positions. e. They are largely ceremonial positions. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Party Organization in Texas Page: 635-636 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas

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Chapter 22 Political Parties and Elections in Texas

22. A primary that allows voters to register or change their registration on election day is known as a(n) ________ primary. a. open b. semiopen c. blanket d. semiclosed e. closed Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Primary Elections Page: 636 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 23. What type of primary does Texas hold? a. open b. semiopen c. nonpartisan d. semiclosed e. closed Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Primary Elections Page: 636 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas 24. Which of the following is true about states that use a caucus system? a. Their outcomes are more likely to coincide with the preference of the majority of voters in the state. b. They tend to favor wealthier candidates. c. They tend to favor candidates with well-organized, active volunteers. d. They tend to favor more conservative candidates. e. They tend to favor outsider candidates. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Primary Elections Page: 639 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas

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Chapter 22 Political Parties and Elections in Texas

25. Groups of average citizens that are asked to react to issues or words in order to help campaign consultants “package candidates” are called a. focus groups. b. crossover voters. c. yellow pups. d. permanent party organizations. e. state executive committees. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Primary Elections Page: 642 Teaching Emphasis: Political Parties and Elections in Texas

Essay Questions: 26. Explain the relationship between state and national party structures. Answer: In most cases, there is little interaction between state and national party structures. Even the ideology of a state party may have little connection to the ideology of the same party in other states. In Texas, state politics remained dominated by Democrats for decades after the state had begun to vote Republicans into national offices. In fact, most political scientists argue that the way a state votes for presidential candidates is not a valid measure of party strength within a state. 27. What were the reasons for Texas’s original one-party political system? Answer: Texas’s long period as a one-party Democratic state traces its origins to antiRepublicanism during the Civil War and Reconstruction. Like many other southerners, Texans felt a strong resentment toward the Republican Party; calling someone in Texas a Republican during this period was an insult. Not until the 1960s did Texans’ opposition to Republicans on a state level begin to fade. 28. What are some of the primary demographic distinctions between Republicans and Democrats in Texas? Answer: Republicans in Texas tend to be young, prosperous, Anglo suburbanites who have moved into the state fairly recently. Democrats tend to be older, poorer, less educated, minority, and native Texans. One of the keys to continued Republican control of Texas politics will be gaining some support from the growing percentage of minority population in the state. 29. What are some of the reasons for reduced party strength in Texas? Answer: Party strength in Texas has declined for a number of reasons. First, a number of other institutions, such as the media, interest groups, and professional campaign managers, have taken over roles traditionally assumed by the party. Second, the institution of the primary system has weakened parties because the parties no longer control the process of candidate selection, nor do they perform traditional fundraising and campaigning functions. As a result, candidates increasingly have been able to mount viable campaigns from outside traditional party structures. Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 22 Political Parties and Elections in Texas

30. Explain some of the ways that campaign activity in Texas has changed over the past few decades. Answer: In the last 20 to 30 years, campaigning in Texas, as in most of the rest of the nation, has become less about localized efforts and more about statewide, media-oriented campaigns. Reporters follow candidates for statewide office more closely than in the past, making campaign speeches more homogenized in order to avoid public pronouncements about the candidate’s inconsistencies. Television ads have become crucial components of any campaign, and the expense of these ads has led to a focus on sound bites rather than statements of policy. The use of the Internet and political consultants has also instituted dramatic changes in recent campaign strategies.

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Chapter 23 The Texas Legislature

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 23: The Texas Legislature Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Which of the following is generally true about legislative politics in Texas? a. The Senate is generally dominated by its leadership. b. The House of Representatives is generally dominated by its leadership. c. The lieutenant governor does not play a significant role in the legislature. d. The legislature generally defers to the governor. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Methods of Election Page: 650 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 2. Multimember districts are generally seen to be particularly favorable toward a. minorities. b. the majority. c. incumbents. d. the party establishment. e. outsider candidates. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Methods of Election Page: 650 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 3. In the 1960s, how many states in the nation had equity of representation based on their distribution of urban and rural populations? a. 0 b. 2 c. 11 d. 27 e. 48 Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Methods of Election Page: 651 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature

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Chapter 23 The Texas Legislature

4. One method used to increase minority representation in legislatures is the creation of ________ districts. a. minority b. majority-minority c. minority-majority d. proportionally representative e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Methods of Election Page: 651 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 5. What sparked the state’s redistricting conflict in 2001? a. Texas lost two seats in the U.S. Congress based on the 2000 Census. b. Texas gained two seats in the U.S. Congress based on the 2000 Census. c. Republicans gained a majority in the Texas legislature for the first time in decades. d. Democrats gained back control of the state Senate. e. The governor imposed a new redistricting plan after the legislature failed to agree upon one. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Methods of Election Page: 652 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 6. Which of the following statements is true of the special court decision about the 2003 redistricting plan? a. The decision’s logic essentially set aside the Voting Rights Act. b. The decision explicitly allowed for racial gerrymandering. c. The decision was set aside by the federal Circuit Court of Appeals. d. The decision was set aside by the U.S. Supreme Court. e. The decision sets a dangerous precedent for other states. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Methods of Election Page: 655 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature

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Chapter 23 The Texas Legislature

7. a. b. c.

What has been a consequence of the Texas redistricting plan of 2003? Texas has taken control of designing such plans away from the legislature. Other states have taken control of designing such plans away from the legislature. An amendment to the state constitution is now under consideration that would invalidate the plan. d. An amendment to the U.S. Constitution is under consideration that would ban mid-decade redistricting. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Methods of Election Page: 655 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 8. Pursuant to the 2010 Census, which of the following statements about Texas representation in the U.S. House of Representatives is accurate? a. Texas gained four seats in the U.S. House, giving it a total of 36 congressional seats. b. The Texas legislature adopted a redistricting plan that created no new minority-majority districts. c. Texas sought and was denied approval of its redistricting plan by a three-judge panel. d. A three-judge panel created a redistricting plan that created three new minority-majority districts, bringing the total in Texas to 13. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Methods of Election Page: 656-657 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 9. Which of the following is among the formal qualifications to become a Texas state senator? a. The candidate must be at least 35 years of age. b. The candidate must be at least 21 years of age. c. The candidate must have lived in the district for three years. d. The candidate must have lived in the state for five years. e. The candidate must have a college degree. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Getting Elected Page: 657 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature

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Chapter 23 The Texas Legislature

10. In 2010, what percentage of state legislators nationwide was female? a. 11 b. 19 c. 24 d. 37 e. 45 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Getting Elected Page: 657 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 11. Which of the following statements about Texas state legislators is most accurate? a. Most legislators are upwardly mobile minorities. b. Compared to their population, both African Americans and Latinos are underrepresented in the Texas legislature. c. Due to conflicts of interest, very few attorneys serve in the Texas legislature. d. Among Texas legislators, there are a large number of teachers. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Getting Elected Page: 657-658 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 12. An African American legislator who is racially representative of but more educated than most of his constituency shares ________ with that constituency. a. birthright characteristics b. informal qualifications c. formal qualifications d. birthright characteristics and informal qualifications e. informal qualifications and formal qualifications Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Getting Elected Page: 657 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature

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Chapter 23 The Texas Legislature

13. What is the annual salary for a Texas legislator? a. $7,200 b. $23,000 c. $47,000 d. $79,000 e. $113,000 Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Getting Elected Page: 658 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 14. The size of a representative’s legislative district matters because it affects the a. amount the legislator is paid. b. process of getting elected. c. legislator’s job security. d. future political career of the legislator. e. likelihood of competition. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Getting Elected Page: 658 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 15. Legislative power in Texas is very much concentrated in the hands of the a. governor. b. speaker of the House and majority leader of the Senate. c. governor and the speaker of the House. d. lieutenant governor and majority leader of the Senate. e. lieutenant governor and speaker of the House. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legislative Procedures Page: 662 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature

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Chapter 23 The Texas Legislature

16. Which of the following is a power held by the speaker of the House? a. appointing the chairs of all committees b. appointing members of calendar and procedural committees c. serving as presiding officer over all sessions d. referring all bills to committees e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Legislative Procedures Page: 662 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 17. Which of the following is true about incumbent speakers? a. They traditionally serve only one term. b. They have usually served until defeated. c. They are rarely defeated for reelection. d. They have recently sought more bipartisan support. e. Several of them have been removed in the middle of their term. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legislative Procedures Page: 663 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 18. In the 2009 session, Tom Craddick was ousted as speaker of the House. He was replaced by Joe Strauss, whose first real test came over what issue? a. concealed weapons b. school funding c. legislative appointments d. voter ID cards e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legislative Procedures Page: 663 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature

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Chapter 23 The Texas Legislature

19. Which of the following is NOT a power held by the lieutenant governor in Texas? a. appointing the chairs of all Senate committees b. selecting all members of Senate committees c. acting primarily as a figurehead for the governor d. serving as presiding officer over all sessions e. referring all bills to committees Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legislative Procedures Page: 664 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 20. Which of the following might diminish the powers of the lieutenant governor? a. if both the lieutenant governor and the speaker of the House come from the same party b. if the lieutenant governor and the speaker of the House come from different parties c. if the lieutenant governor is from a different party than the Senate majority d. if the lieutenant governor and governor come from different parties e. All these answers are correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legislative Procedures Page: 664 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 21. Which of the following types of committee is most powerful in the legislative process? a. interim committee b. subcommittee c. temporary committee d. standing committee e. conference committee Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legislative Procedures Page: 664 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature

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Chapter 23 The Texas Legislature

22. Before the 60th day of a legislative session, a bill needs a ________ to clear the Senate; after the 60th day, it needs ________. a. simple majority; a two-thirds vote b. simple majority; a three-quarters vote c. two-thirds vote; a three- quarters vote d. simple majority; to be reintroduced at the next session e. two-thirds vote; to be reintroduced at the next session Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legislative Procedures Page: 667 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 23. Which of the following is NOT true about local bills? a. They must not affect more than one of the state’s 254 counties. b. They are considered minor bills. c. They may not be debated for more than 10 minutes on the floor of the legislature. d. They are placed on the same calendar with all other bills. e. They must receive unanimous support in the substantive committee handling the bill. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legislative Procedures Page: 667 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 24. Most bills in the Texas legislature are passed during what part of the legislative session? a. the first 2 weeks b. the first 100 days c. the last month d. the last 2 weeks e. the last 3 days Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Legislative Procedures Page: 668 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature

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Chapter 23 The Texas Legislature

25. Where does Texas rank among the 50 states in funds spent on legislative staffs? a. 1st b. 4th c. 25th d. 42nd e. 49th Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Rating the Texas Legislature Page: 670 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature 26. Who has the authority to call special sessions? a. the speaker of the House b. the lieutenant governor c. a majority of the House of Representatives d. the governor e. a majority of the Senate Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Rating the Texas Legislature Page: 673 Teaching Emphasis: The Texas Legislature

Essay Questions: 27. Why was the Texas redistricting plan of 2003 so controversial? Answer: The Texas redistricting plan created national controversy for two major reasons. First, the state Republican Party undertook a redistricting plan in mid-decade, which was an unprecedented policy. Second, the state Democratic Party, which did not have the votes to block the plan, decided to deprive the Texas House of a quorum by removing Democratic representatives across state lines into Oklahoma. After much political drama, the Republican plan was approved and the anticipated legal challenge did not arise because the Bush administration issued a statement indicating it was not opposed to the plan. 28. What is the difference between formal and informal characteristics for political candidates? Which criteria are generally more important for getting elected? Answer: Formal characteristics for political candidates are usually few and easily attainable. They generally include such criteria as age, citizenship, and time of residency in the state and district. Informal characteristics are more important. They include factors such as ethnicity, income, occupation, education, and gender.

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Chapter 23 The Texas Legislature

29. What are some of the reasons so many elections for the Texas legislature are noncompetitive? Answer: Although the amount of competition for seats in the Texas legislature has increased recently, for the most part the majority of these races remain noncompetitive. A number of reasons exist for this problem, including gerrymandering of districts, money that incumbents receive from PACs, and the low salary for Texas legislators that limits the number of people who can afford to run for the seats. 30. Who holds the most power in the legislative process in Texas? Answer: The speaker of the House and the lieutenant governor hold the most power in the legislative process. The speaker controls committee assignments and which bills reach the floor in the House; the lieutenant governor holds very similar powers in the Senate. The speaker probably holds more power than the lieutenant governor, since powers of the latter position are supplied by the rules of the Senate, which can be amended if the legislators wish to do so. 31. How does the Texas legislature rate in comparison to the legislatures of other states? Answer: The record of the Texas legislature is a mixed bag when compared to the legislatures of other states. Texas excels at the level of staff assistance and the facilities of the legislature. On the other hand, the low salaries paid to legislators and the fact that the legislature meets only every other year reduce its level of professionalism. In a survey conducted in 1994, the Texas legislature was rated as a moderate professional/citizen legislature.

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Chapter 24 The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 24: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Which of the following is NOT a role a governor performs? a. chief legislator b. passage of laws c. party chief d. ceremonial duties e. intergovernmental coordinator Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Roles of the Governor Page: 680-681 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 2. As an intergovernmental coordinator, the governor works with a. the president. b. the state’s congressional delegation. c. cabinet officials. d. other governors. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Roles of the Governor Page: 681 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 3. Which of the following is a formal qualification for a candidate for governor in Texas? a. being a registered voter b. being 35 years of age c. being a resident of the state for 10 years d. previous experience as a public servant e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Roles of the Governor Page: 681 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

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Chapter 24 The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

4. Which of the following statements about Texas governors, and those nationwide, is generally true? a. Most are white, male, and Protestant. b. Most hold elected office before becoming governor. c. They receive higher pay than state legislators. d. They can be removed through impeachment. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Roles of the Governor Page: 683 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 5. Which region of the country has had the fewest female governors? a. the Northeast b. the Southeast c. the Midwest d. the Mountain West e. the West Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Roles of the Governor Page: 682 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 6. How many African Americans have served as governors in the United States? a. 0 b. 4 c. 11 d. 17 e. 21 Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Roles of the Governor Page: 682 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

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Chapter 24 The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

7. How does the salary of the governor of Texas rate in comparison to governors of other states? a. It is the lowest of all the states. b. It is the highest of all the states. c. It is below the mean. d. It is above the mean. e. It is exactly at the mean. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Roles of the Governor Page: 683 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 8. Governor Jim Ferguson of Texas was impeached and removed from office because a. he tried to break up the Ku Klux Klan. b. of his support for the Ku Klux Klan. c. he vetoed the appropriations bill for the University of Texas. d. he made comments that sparked race riots. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Roles of the Governor Page: 683 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 9. Which of the following statements about recall of the governor is NOT true? a. Texas has recalled eight of its governors. b. It requires a petition signed by a required number of registered voters. c. If a majority of voters approve a recall, the governor is removed from office. d. Nationwide, only two governors have been recalled. e. Many Texas home-rule cities allow recall of city councils and mayors. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Roles of the Governor Page: 684 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

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Chapter 24 The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

10. As it relates to tenure of office, Governor Perry’s tenure a. was cut short by term limit requirements. b. caused Texans to call for abolishment of term limits. c. was the first time a governor served three consecutive four-year terms. d. was the first time a governor lost a bid for a third term. e. makes him second to Ann Richards in length of service as governor. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Roles of the Governor Page: 684 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 11. Which of the following is true about the tenures of Texas governors? a. Few of them have served more than four years in office. b. Most of them have served two four-year terms. c. Many of them have failed to complete their first term in office. d. They have had some of the longest tenures of any state in the nation. e. They have longer than average tenures in office. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Roles of the Governor Page: 712 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 12. Which of the following is a way governors can exercise executive power? a. appointing officials b. removing officials from office c. issuing executive orders d. shaping budgets e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Governor’s Powers Page: 685 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

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Chapter 24 The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

13. Which of the following is true about plural executive structures? a. They increase the governor’s power. b. They decrease the governor’s power. c. They require the governor to appoint heads of executive departments. d. They require the legislature to appoint heads of executive departments. e. They require the legislature to approve the governor’s appointments to heads of executive departments. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Governor’s Powers Page: 686 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 14. Which of the following executive officials is appointed by the governor? a. attorney general b. state land commissioner c. comptroller of public accounts d. secretary of state e. lieutenant governor Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Governor’s Powers Page: 686 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 15. Which of the following factors does NOT limit the governor’s power of appointment? a. senatorial courtesy b. requirements of geographical representation or boards c. term limits d. interest groups e. professional requirements for the appointed position Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Governor’s Powers Page: 686-687 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

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Chapter 24 The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

16. Which of the following is true about the governor of Texas’s power to remove appointed officials? a. The governor may remove any appointed officials working for executive agencies. b. The governor may remove his or her own appointments to executive agencies. c. The governor may not remove appointed officials; that is a role for the legislature. d. The governor may remove any official he or she personally appointed with a majority vote of the Senate. e. The governor may remove any official he or she personally appointed with a two-thirds vote of the Senate. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Governor’s Powers Page: 687 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 17. Which of the following is NOT a possible limit on the governor’s budgetary powers? a. the extent to which the governor shares the budget formation power with the legislature and executive agencies b. the extent to which the governor shares the budget execution power with the legislature and executive agencies c. the extent to which earmarks are used to limit the use of funds d. the legislature’s power to pass laws excluding the governor from the budgetary process e. the limits on the governor’s use of a line-item veto Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Governor’s Powers Page: 688 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 18. In Texas, the governor’s budgetary powers are weak in all the following areas EXCEPT a. budgetary formation. b. budgetary execution. c. the line-item veto. d. inter-agency authority. e. the ability to avoid earmarks. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Governor’s Powers Page: 688 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

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Chapter 24 The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

19. Which of the following veto powers do the governors of Texas have? a. general veto and line-item veto b. partial veto, line-item veto, and pocket veto c. pocket veto and line-item veto d. partial veto and line-item veto e. The Texas governor does not have any veto powers. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Governor’s Powers Page: 689 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 20. In Texas, which of the following increases the governor’s veto power? a. the legislature’s power of partial veto b. inability of the legislature to override vetoes c. the governor’s judicial powers d. the ability to call a special session e. the ability to call extraordinary sessions Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Governor’s Powers Page: 689 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 21. Which of the following is true about the power of the governor of Texas? a. It is limited in administrative power. b. It is limited in budgetary power. c. It is strong on tenure. d. It is strong on veto authority. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Governor’s Powers Page: 685-690 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

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Chapter 24 The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

22. Which of the following is the best example of the political function of the attorney general? a. collecting child support payments b. investigation of Medicare fraud c. offering opinions on legal questions d. administration of the Crime Victims Compensation Program e. collection of delinquent state taxes Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Administrative Agencies of State Government Page: 694 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 23. Which of the following executive officers is responsible for generating funds from oil and gas production? a. the comptroller b. the secretary of Energy c. the land commissioner d. the railroad commissioner e. the secretary of Commerce Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Administrative Agencies of State Government Page: 695 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas 24. Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the Texas Railroad Commission? a. regulating the railroads b. regulating the trucking industry c. regulating the oil and gas industry d. regulating the shipping industry e. regulating all forms of public transportation Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Administrative Agencies of State Government Page: 696 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

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Chapter 24 The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

25. Which of the following agencies has control over environmental and natural resources in Texas? a. Railroad Commission b. General Land Office c. Water Development Board d. Department of Agriculture e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Administrative Agencies of State Government Page: 698 Teaching Emphasis: The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

Essay Questions: 26. What are some of the important roles assumed by the governor? Answer: Whether the office has a great deal of power or (as in Texas) is limited in its power, the governor is the most prominent political actor in the state. Governors serve as chief legislators, party chiefs, ceremonial leaders, and intergovernmental coordinators. In states where the governor’s power is relatively weak, perhaps the most important role the governor assumes is as informal leader, with the ability to persuade others through rhetoric and negotiation. 27. What are the formal and informal qualifications for getting elected as governor? Answer: The formal qualifications for running for governor are few. In Texas, they include citizenship, being at least 30 years of age, and being a resident of the state for at least 5 years. Informal qualifications include being white, male, Protestant, well-educated, and wealthy. 28. In what ways are the powers of the governor of Texas weak? In what ways are they strong? Answer: In comparison with chief executives of other states, governors in Texas have relatively weak powers to appoint and remove employees of executive agencies. The plural executive means that many of the major heads of executive agencies are elected rather than appointed, and the governor has the power to remove people he or she appointed only after a two-thirds vote of the legislature. On the other hand, the governors of Texas have a stronger tenure of office than governors in many other states, and their veto power is also relatively strong. Overall, the governor of Texas rates as having slightly less power than most governors in the United States. 29. What is the primary role of the Texas Railroad Commission? Why has the commission been so widely criticized? Answer: The most significant power of the Railroad Commission is its power to regulate the natural gas and oil industries. Much of the criticism of the commission has come from its close ties to (and the large political donations it receives from) industry leaders. In addition, the commission is responsible for both the promotion of the industries in the state and the regulation of those industries, which many critics have viewed as an inherent conflict of interest.

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Chapter 24 The Office of Governor and State Agencies in Texas

30. Why are the state agencies in Texas so decentralized? Answer: The decentralization of government agencies in Texas is part of the state’s traditionalistic-individualistic political culture. By distributing governmental power in so many different places, the state prevents any single or small group of government officials from exercising too much control over the lives of its citizens. Such a system also aids the economic elites who control so much of the state government, because they have no formidable agency regulating their actions.

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Chapter 25 The Court System in Texas

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 25: The Court System in Texas Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Which of the following distinguishes courts’ approaches to decision making from those of the legislature and the executive? a. Courts must maintain a passive appearance. b. Courts have strict rules of access. c. Courts have strict procedural rules. d. Courts must maintain a passive appearance, have strict rules of access, and strict procedural rules. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Structure of State Courts Page: 708 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 2. Which level of courts in Texas has the most judges? a. municipal b. justice c. county d. district e. appellate Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Structure of State Courts Page: 709 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 3. Which of the following is NOT true about trial courts in Texas? a. Their jurisdiction is statewide. b. Citizens participate in their proceedings. c. Each court is presided over by one judge. d. They announce their decisions immediately after the end of the trial. e. They deal primarily with the facts of a case. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Structure of State Courts Page: 708 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 25 The Court System in Texas

4. A court in Texas that holds a preliminary hearing for a person that is charged with a serious criminal offense is performing a. its power under the Missouri system. b. appellate review. c. an administrative hearing. d. a trial de novo. e. magistrate functions. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: The Structure of State Courts Page: 709 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 5. Major criminal and civil trials in Texas are heard in ________ courts. a. de novo b. magistrate c. district d. appellate e. county Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: The Structure of State Courts Page: 710 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 6. How do trial court judges in Texas assume their seats? a. by partisan election b. by nonpartisan election c. by merit system d. through an application process e. through legislative appointment Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Judicial Selection and Removal Page: 711 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas

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Chapter 25 The Court System in Texas

7. Electoral issues that have arisen due to straight-ticket voting, such as the loss of incumbent judges to unknown challengers, have caused some to call for a. partisan elections. b. nonpartisan elections. c. judicial appointments. d. the merit system. e. a judicial application process. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Judicial Selection and Removal Page: 712 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 8. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. A majority of Texans believe that campaign donations influence judges’ decision-making process. b. A majority of Texas lawyers believe that campaign donations influence judges’ decisionmaking process. c. A majority of Texas court personnel believe that campaign donations influence judges’ decision-making process. d. Almost half of all Texas judges believe that campaign donations influence judges’ decisionmaking process. e. Court personnel do not believe that campaign donations influence judges’ decision-making processes. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Judicial Selection and Removal Page: 712 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 9. Which of the following systems of judicial selection appears to result in the most qualified judges? a. popular election b. the Missouri (or merit) system c. executive appointment d. legislative election e. There is no best system for selecting judges. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Judicial Selection and Removal Page: 714 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas

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Chapter 25 The Court System in Texas

10. What government institution in Texas may remove any judge from office? a. the governor b. the state legislature c. the state supreme court d. the State Commission on Judicial Conduct e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Judicial Selection and Removal Page: 714 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 11. What individual tends to dominate grand jury proceedings? a. the judge b. the district attorney c. the defense attorney d. the defendant e. the foreman Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Juries Page: 715 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 12. What is the main job of a petit jury? a. decide if the court should accept a plea bargain b. decide if a person should be charged with a crime c. decide if a person should stand trial d. decide guilt or innocence in a criminal trial e. All these answers are correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 715 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas

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Chapter 25 The Court System in Texas

13. The use of an administrative hearing in a criminal trial replaces the need for a a. plea bargain. b. judge. c. district attorney. d. petit jury. e. grand jury. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 715 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 14. Since 1989, the crime rate in Texas has been reduced. This is due in part to the a. decrease in young men aged 18–24. b. increased population in urban areas. c. decreased rates of incarceration. d. total increase in the population aged 26–32. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 718 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 15. Which of the following statements about crime prevention in Texas is true? a. Juries in Texas give longer sentences than the national average. b. The average time served in Texas is less than the national average. c. Texas executes more prisoners than any other state. d. Texas has one of the highest incarceration rates in the nation. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 718-749 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas

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Chapter 25 The Court System in Texas

16. African Americans constitute about ________ percent of the U.S. population; yet they constitute almost ________ percent of those arrested for crimes in the nation. a. 8; 15 b. 10; 20 c. 12; 30 d. 15; 40 e. 18; 50 Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 718 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 17. Which of the following states has a higher incarceration rate than Texas? a. Florida b. California c. New York d. Louisiana e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 719 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 18. Which of the following statements about the death penalty is true? a. It was outlawed in 1976 by Gregg v. Georgia. b. Most executions take place in midwestern states. c. The number of people sentenced to death has declined recently. d. The death penalty is more likely in states with moralistic cultures. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 720-721 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas

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Chapter 25 The Court System in Texas

19. Which of the following is/are among the reasons the death penalty seems to be in decline in Texas? a. money b. negative publicity c. the changing values of the citizenry d. money and negative publicity e. All these answers are correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 720 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 20. Proponents of tort reform in Texas argue that substantial verdicts in favor of plaintiffs are driving ________ out of the state. a. doctors b. businesses c. defense lawyers d. doctors and businesses e. All these answers are correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 721 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 21. In 2003, the Texas legislature capped punitive damages in civil suits at ________. a. $250,000 b. $500,000 c. $1 million d. $5 million e. $10 million Answer: a Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 721 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas

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Chapter 25 The Court System in Texas

22. What happened to the number of new medical licenses granted in the state of Texas between 2003 and 2007? a. They declined 18 percent. b. They declined 9 percent. c. They remained stable. d. They increased 9 percent. e. They increased 18 percent. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 721 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 23. Which of the following has NOT been the result of tort reform in Texas? a. decreased number of injury and damage cases b. decreased amount of insurance companies operating in the state c. increased number of patient complaints and disciplinary actions d. more affordable insurance rates e. increase in those seeking to practice medicine Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 721 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas 24. Voters in Texas have proven supportive of which of the following for reducing crime? a. funding alternative treatment programs b. funding expanded programs for probation and parole c. funding new prisons d. reducing the number of crimes for which the death penalty is an applicable sentence e. eliminating the death penalty Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 722 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas

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Chapter 25 The Court System in Texas

25. One way the state has worked to accommodate its increasing caseload is by a. adopting new information technologies. b. hiring more judges. c. hiring more non-judicial court personnel. d. making it more difficult to file lawsuits. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Issues in the Justice System Page: 722 Teaching Emphasis: The Court System in Texas

Essay Questions: 26. What is the fundamental conflict inherent in most citizens’ views of the role of the judicial system? Answer: Most citizens believe that judges should be above politics and rule in a neutral manner. At the same time, citizens want judges to be responsive to the will of the electorate, which requires judges to attune their decisions to public opinion. Although most citizens do not see it this way, judges cannot both be above politics and respond to the concerns of the electorate. 27. What are some of the controversies surrounding the system for selecting judges in Texas? Answer: In Texas, the system of judicial selection has come under significant criticism because it has led to the election of unqualified candidates or candidates who are qualified but who some people believe are overly indebted to the legal interest groups that have made significant campaign contributions. In addition, the current system of electing judges appears to make it difficult for minority candidates to get elected to the bench. 28. What are some of the trends in criminal sentencing in Texas, and how if at all are those trends changing? Answer: Texas has traditionally been and remains a state that incarcerates more people and for longer amounts of time than the national average. It has also been the leading user of the death penalty in the United States. However, the cost of incarceration and particularly of death penalty cases, along with negative publicity for prosecutions in a few notable cases, has caused some regression toward the national mean in the state in recent years.

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Chapter 25 The Court System in Texas

29. What have been some of the reasons for the tort reform movement in Texas, and what have been some of the results of this movement? Answer: After juries delivered a number of large punitive damage awards in cases in Texas, politicians including Governor Rick Perry argued that the state needed tort reform in order to keep corporations, insurance companies, and doctors from leaving the state. The legislature passed a law capping punitive damages at $250,000, and called for a constitutional amendment to validate their power to pass such a law. Proposition 12, which was the result of that call, passed narrowly, and since then insurance companies have returned to Texas and the number of new doctors licensed in the state has risen significantly. 30. What are some of the major challenges facing Texas’s judicial system in the twenty-first century? Answer: In part because of its growing population, Texas’s court system faces a number of significant challenges in future decades. Along with the continuing controversies over the judicial selection process, the state faces the financial challenge of its large incarceration rate and particularly of keeping a large number of prisoners on death row. In addition, the larger population has meant an increasing caseload, which will continue to increase pressure on judges and court personnel across the state.

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Chapter 26 Public Policy in Texas

American Democracy Now, Texas Edition Chapter 26: Public Policy in Texas Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Texas tends to pursue more ________ public policy choices in comparison with other states. a. liberal b. libertarian c. conservative d. radical e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 728 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 2. Spending in which of the following areas takes up almost 75 percent of Texas’s budget? a. education and public safety b. health and human services and natural resources c. public safety and business development d. education and health and human services e. education and business development Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 729 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 3. Sales tax constituted just over 56 percent of Texas’s projected tax revenue for 2012–2013. What source of income was next, at just over 10 percent? a. franchise taxes b. motor fuels taxes c. cigarette, tobacco, and alcohol taxes d. motor vehicle sales and rental taxes e. oil and natural gas production taxes Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 729 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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Chapter 26 Public Policy in Texas

4. Texas is one of the few states in the nation that does not have a. property taxes. b. any form of personal income tax. c. graduated income tax. d. estate taxes. e. consumer taxes. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 730 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 5. Service charges, tuition, and funds from the lottery are examples of a. sales taxes. b. nontax revenue. c. consumer taxes. d. investment income. e. franchise fees. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 730 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 6. Gasoline taxes are an example of which of the following? a. a benefit-based tax b. an ability-to-pay tax c. an environmental tax d. a regressive tax e. an excise tax Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 731 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas

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Chapter 26 Public Policy in Texas

7. How regressive is Texas’s tax structure? a. It is the least regressive tax structure in the nation. b. It is the most regressive tax structure in the nation. c. It is one of the 10 least regressive tax structures in the nation. d. It is one of the 10 most regressive tax structures in the nation. e. It ranks near the middle of the 50 states. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 731 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 8. Which of the following is the only tax that may NOT be shifted onto others? a. sales tax b. property tax c. personal income tax d. franchise tax e. motor fuels tax Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 732 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 9. Most revenues are earmarked for specific items, called fixed revenues, or a. discretionary funding. b. budget fixes. c. nontax revenue. d. tax capacity. e. tax incidence. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 733 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas

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Chapter 26 Public Policy in Texas

10. Which of the following is NOT a way in which revenues are fixed? a. by constitutional provision b. by federal government rules c. by interest groups d. by funding formula e. by statutory provision Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 733 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 11. Which of the following is the LEAST income-elastic? a. sales tax b. excise tax c. property tax d. oil and gas production taxes e. income tax Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 733 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 12. Which of the following states relies most heavily on sales taxes for revenues? a. Texas b. Massachusetts c. New York d. Washington e. California Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Economic Policies Page: 734 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas

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Chapter 26 Public Policy in Texas

13. How did tuition deregulation change the average cost of education at state universities in Texas between 2002 and 2012? a. The cost did not change significantly. b. The cost was cut in half. c. The cost was cut by 10 percent. d. The cost doubled. e. The cost became five times more expensive. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Education Policies Page: 735 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 14. Funds for the operating budgets of institutions of higher education in Texas come from the a. capital of two separate funds, divided between the University of Texas and Texas A&M. b. Higher Education Assistance Fund. c. Permanent University Fund. d. fixed revenues in the budget. e. discretionary funding in the regular budget. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Education Policies Page: 735 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 15. Which of the following statements about the 10 percent rule in Texas state colleges and universities is true? a. The top 10 percent of minority students in the state automatically receive admission to a state university of their choice. b. Students in the top 10 percent of their class gain automatic admission to state colleges or universities, as long as their SAT scores are above 1,000. c. Students in the top 10 percent of their class gain automatic admission to state colleges or universities, regardless of their SAT scores. d. The 10 percent rule has not increased minority admissions at Texas state colleges and universities. e. The 10 percent rule has made Texas’s state colleges and universities more expensive. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Education Policies Page: 736-737 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas

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Chapter 26 Public Policy in Texas

16. Which landmark case ruled that the Texas law banning abortions was unconstitutional? a. Lawrence v. Texas b. Hopwood v. Texas c. Grutter v. Bollinger d. Roe v. Wade e. Planned Parenthood v. Casey Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Social Policies Page: 739 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 17. Every year the Texas legislature passes approximately 25 bills that impact women’s right to abortion. In 2011, it passed a law a. that increased the funding for Planned Parenthood to provide abortion counseling. b. prohibiting doctors from performing abortion unless it is medically necessary. c. that any requirement relating to abortion must not constitute an undue burden. d. requiring a sonogram by a physician two days before an abortion could be performed. e. barring any restrictions on women’s right to choose an abortion. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Social Policies Page: 739 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 18. Which of the following statements about abstinence-only sex education in Texas is most accurate? a. In 2009, most schools in Texas did not teach any form of sex education. b. Students that receive abstinence-only sex education are more likely to use contraceptives. c. Students that receive abstinence-only sex education are less likely to contract sexually transmitted diseases. d. Sexual participation rates in students that receive abstinence-only sex education are less than those who receive no sex education at all. e. In 2009, a study reported that 94 percent of Texas districts provided only abstinence-only sex education. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Social Policies Page: 740 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas

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Chapter 26 Public Policy in Texas

19. In 2005, where did Texas rank among the 50 states in teen pregnancy rates? a. 1st b. 4th c. 17th d. 32nd e. 49th Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Social Policies Page: 740 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 20. Which of the following is an example of Texas’s “get your laws off my body” social policy? a. the state’s restrictive birth control laws b. the state’s restrictive abortion laws c. the state’s antisodomy laws (which have since been invalidated by the Supreme Court) d. the opposition to vaccinating girls against the human papillomavirus e. All these answers are correct. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Social Policies Page: 740 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 21. Which of the following statements is true about the earnings gap between genders in Texas? a. The earnings gap is greater than the national median. b. The earnings gap is about the same as the national median. c. Nationally, the earnings gap is the greatest in the North. d. The earnings gap is smaller than other southern states with well-developed high-tech industries. e. The earnings gap is the greatest of any state in the nation. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Social Policies Page: 740 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas

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Chapter 26 Public Policy in Texas

22. Which of the following statements is true about pollution in Texas? a. Texas emits more greenhouse gases than any other state in the nation. b. Texas emits more carbon dioxide than the next two biggest polluters. c. If Texas was an independent nation, it would be the seventh-largest emitter of greenhouse gases in the world. d. The state’s emissions have loaded lakes and rivers across the state with hazardous levels of mercury. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policies Page: 741 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 23. Which of the following is NOT a prediction the Environmental Defense Fund made about the effects of global warming on Texas? a. Malaria will spread into northern regions of the state. b. Coastal lands will be inundated by rising seas. c. Cotton will become much more difficult to grow in the state. d. Corn will become much more difficult to grow in the state. e. Droughts will threaten the water supply. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policies Page: 741 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas 24. Which of the following statements about Texas’s efforts to curb its pollution problem is true? a. Many political leaders deny that a problem exists. b. The state is among national leaders in pollution legislation. c. The state has reduced the number of coal-burning plants it builds. d. The state has begun to focus on the potential of solar power. e. The state has decided that wind power is not a realistic alternative to traditional forms of energy. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policies Page: 740-741 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas

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Chapter 26 Public Policy in Texas

25. Texas ranks ________ among the 50 states in wind power generation. a. 1st b. 8th c. 19th d. 37th e. 43rd Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Environmental Policies Page: 742 Teaching Emphasis: Public Policy in Texas

Essay Questions: 26. What are some of the most prominent features of Texas’s tax policy? Answer: Perhaps the most prominent feature of Texas’s tax policy is its lack of a personal income tax. That means that Texas relies heavily on regressive taxes such as sales tax, which enables wealthy people in the state to pay a much lower percentage of taxes in Texas than they do in most other states. 27. What are some of the reasons that Texas has suffered from recurring budget crises over the past several decades? Answer: Due to its lack of a personal income tax, Texas’s revenue is more income-elastic than that of most other states. That means when the economy is in a down cycle, the state loses a significant percentage of its revenue. In conjunction with the rapidly growing population of the state, this tax policy has led to persistent budget problems over recent decades. 28. Why has the cost of public education in Texas risen so dramatically in recent decades? Answer: There are a number of reasons that the cost of public education has risen in recent decades, including the universities’ demands for more funding from the legislature. The primary reason, though, is that tuition from the state’s colleges and universities, unlike most other funds the state receives, is not earmarked for specific expenses, making it a particularly attractive source of income for a state that is constantly dogged by budget crises. 29. What seem to be the driving factors in the state’s social policies, particularly when it comes to issues of abortion, birth control, sexuality, and homosexuality? Answer: While many in the Texas legislature claim that the state follows a “get your laws off my body” position when it comes to such social issues, in fact the state hews closely to the current line of conservative Republican policies. Most schools in the state teach an abstinence-only sex education curriculum, the state has restrictive policies toward abortion and birth control, and until the Supreme Court invalidated it in 2003, the state was one of the few states in the nation that still had an antisodomy law on the books. Only when it fits with conservative policies, such as the debate over whether to inoculate girls against the human papillomavirus, has the state maintained a “hands off” policy. Harrison: American Democracy Now, Texas Edition, 3e

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30. What are some of the energy-related challenges facing Texas in the twenty-first century? Answer: Texas faces a wide variety of pollution problems in the twenty-first century because of a combination of the state’s growing population, rising energy costs, and the government’s opposition to passing protective environmental legislation. Scarcity of water, flooding of coastal lands, mercury poisoning in the water, and the spread of malaria are just a few of the current or potential catastrophes that the state faces because of its energy policies.

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Chapter 27 Local Governments in Texas

American Democracy Now, Chapter 27 Chapter 27: Local Governments in Texas Multiple-Choice Questions: 1. Which of the following is a responsibility of local government? a. fixing water mains b. collecting garbage c. impounding stray animals d. fixing potholes e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: State and Local Authority Page: 748 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 2. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of local government? a. fire protection b. police protection c. public schools d. zoning e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: State and Local Authority Page: 748 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 3. Government organizations such as school districts that have restricted authority and minimal control over their finances are known as a. general-purpose governments. b. limited-purpose governments. c. regulated governments. d. deregulated governments. e. semi-regulated governments. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: State and Local Authority Page: 748 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas

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Chapter 27 Local Governments in Texas

4. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about local governments in Texas? a. Local governments generally have very broad authority. b. Local governments generally have very narrow authority. c. Cities generally have very broad authority. d. Cities generally have very narrow authority. e. None of these statements is accurate. Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: State and Local Authority Page: 749 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 5. Which of the following is true about home-rule cities in Texas? a. Home-rule cities must have at least 5,000 residents. b. Home-rule cities do not require a charter. c. Under home rule, local citizens must adopt a mayor-council government. d. Regardless of state law, home-rule cities can adopt any ordinance they want. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 750 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 6. Which of the following is true about city ordinances banning open containers of alcohol in motor vehicles? a. They violate an implicit prohibition on city ordinance power. b. They violate an explicit prohibition on city ordinance power. c. They violate home-rule city charters. d. They violate general-law city charters. e. They violate the process of incorporation. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 750 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas

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7. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for incorporation of a city in Texas? a. a population density of at least 201 people within a two-square-mile area b. a petition signed by 10 percent of the voters and 50 percent of the landowners in the area c. legislative approval of the petition d. an election called by a county judge e. approval by the voters Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 750 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 8. The town of Impact, Texas, is an example of which of the following? a. a dry town b. a town created to avoid the impact of extra territorial jurisdiction c. a town that spurred the creation of extra territorial jurisdiction for Texas cities d. the weakness of home-rule forms of local government e. the weakness of general-law forms of local government Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 750-751 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 9. The traditional form of city government, developed in the nineteenth century, is a. mayor-council. b. council-manager. c. commission. d. municipal. e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 751 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas

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Chapter 27 Local Governments in Texas

10. Which of the following large cities uses the mayor-council form of government? a. Dallas b. San Antonio c. Houston d. Austin e. Galveston Answer: c Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 751 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 11. The commission form of government was successful in responding to which of the following circumstances? a. a hurricane that destroyed the city of Galveston b. an economic downturn that bankrupted the city of Dallas c. a corruption scandal that tainted the city government of Houston d. a terrorist attack that threatened the city of Waco e. union strikes that shut down the city of Austin Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 752 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 12. Which of the following is the most popular form of city government in Texas? a. mayor-council b. council-manager c. commission d. municipal e. None of these answers is correct. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 752 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas

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13. What is the most important responsibility of a mayor in a council-manager city government? a. controlling the budget b. managing the city administration c. exerting informal political leadership d. limiting the power of the city council e. supervising municipal elections Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 752 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 14. Which of the following was the traditional method for electing city council members? a. the single-member district system b. the at-large elective system c. cumulative voting d. preferential voting e. instant runoff voting Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 754 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 15. Cities that have changed from at-large election systems to ________ voting have substantially increased the number of minority candidates elected to city councils. a. single-member district b. multi-member district c. cumulative d. preferential e. instant runoff Answer: a Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 755 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas

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Chapter 27 Local Governments in Texas

16. Which of the following statements about nonpartisan elections is true? a. They are used in all local elections in Texas. b. They were adopted because the state was one-party Republican for so many years. c. They require candidates to sever their partisan ties. d. They have largely resulted in the elimination of partisanship in local politics. e. They are used in all city elections in Texas. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 755 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 17. Voter turnout for city elections in Texas commonly drops to as low as ________ percent. a. 1 b. 4 c. 10 d. 15 e. 22 Answer: b Critical Thinking: Remember Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 755 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 18. The primary source of revenue for school districts is which of the following? a. sales taxes b. property taxes c. state contributions d. federal contributions e. income taxes Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 756 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas

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Chapter 27 Local Governments in Texas

19. Which of the following statements about property taxes in Texas is NOT accurate? a. There is no state-level property tax in Texas. b. Recently, property taxes have decreased dramatically. c. Local government has become increasingly dependent on property taxes. d. Among the top 12 states, Texas has the sixth highest property tax per $1,000 of personal income. e. All but a small portion of property taxes go to local governments. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand. Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 757 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 20. Which of the following is a problem with the mandates faced by local governments in Texas? a. Mandates are often unfunded or underfunded. b. Mandates often regulate events that are beyond the municipality’s control. c. Local governments face challenges finding the revenue to meet federal and state mandates. d. Cities that fail to abide by mandates face penalties or loss of funds. e. All these answers are correct. Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 2 Text Answer Hint: Municipal Governments Page: 758 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 21. The oldest type of government, adapted from the British, is the a. council-manager government. b. commission form of government. c. mayor-council government. d. county government. e. special district government. Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: County Governments Page: 758 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas

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Chapter 27 Local Governments in Texas

22. The governing body of the county is the a. constitutional county judge. b. county commissioner’s court. c. county commissioner. d. county precinct. e. county department. Answer: b Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: County Governments Page: 759 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 23. Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of special district government in existence in Texas? a. fire b. water, sewer, street repair c. metropolitan transit d. municipal utility e. septic system Answer: e Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: Special District Governments Page: 762-763 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas 24. Which of the following is NOT a reason for increased school district consolidation in Texas? a. demands for improved curriculum b. state financial incentives c. busing d. demands for better football teams e. improved road conditions Answer: d Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: School Districts Page: 764 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas

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Chapter 27 Local Governments in Texas

25. The 1968 Supreme Court case Rodriguez v. San Antonio Independent School District dealt with what issue that is still salient for Texas schools today? a. creation of charter and independent schools b. affirmative action in admissions c. inadequate and unequal school financing d. teaching of intelligent design e. bilingual education in Texas curriculum Answer: c Critical Thinking: Understand Difficulty: 1 Text Answer Hint: School Districts Page: 765 Teaching Emphasis: Local Governments in Texas

Essay Questions: 26. What are some of the roles of local government in the United States? Answer: Since the United States is the most decentralized nation in the world, local governments play a crucial role in the everyday lives of U.S. citizens. Local governments provide many of the basic services that are expected, including fire and police protection, public schools, and garbage collection. Local governments do not control all aspects of these services; in many cases the state and federal governments restrict their authority and control their funding. Yet local governments are largely responsible for the execution of these crucial services. 27. What category of governments do Texas cities fall under, and what are some of the strengths of this approach to governance? Answer: Texas cities are examples of general-purpose governments. This means they have the power to pass any ordinance not prohibited under state law. It also means they have many sources of revenue. General-purpose governments tend to give cities a broad degree of discretion and flexibility in coping with local problems. 28. What is the most common form of municipal government in Texas, and why has this form become so popular? Answer: While originally the most popular form of city government was mayor-council, the most popular contemporary form is the council-manager structure. Under this form, a small city council, including the mayor, is elected to shape policies, and this group hires a city manager to oversee the administration of local government. This form of government is often viewed as more efficient, because the city manager is generally a trained professional rather than a partisan politician.

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Chapter 27 Local Governments in Texas

29. Why has the county form of government proven so problematic in Texas? Answer: County governments face a number of problems that make their administration particularly problematic. First, the weakness of the plural executive system means that county officials are often working independently of and sometimes in contradiction to each other. Second, county governments were designed to meet the needs of rural counties, and have proven inadequate for providing necessary services in large, urban counties. Finally, and perhaps most importantly, political patronage has resulted in county officials who lack the skills and motivation necessary to efficiently fulfill their responsibilities to local citizens. 30. What are some of the primary challenges that face Texas school districts? Answer: Perhaps the most significant problem that faces Texas school districts is a lack of funding, particularly in less wealthy districts. A number of court cases have challenged the various methods for funding school districts, and in many cases these challenges have sparked political controversies on the local and state levels. Another hot political topic has been the effort to improve the quality of education in public schools, which has led to controversies over a requirement for teachers to take competency tests as well as “pass to play” requirements that do not let students play sports if they fail a class. Other challenges have occurred at the curriculum level, where controversies over sex education, evolution, and bilingual education have caused tremendous conflict.

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