TEST BANK For American Government and Politics Today, Brief Edition, 2014-2015, 8th Edition. Steffen

Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic 1. In 2008, the United States faced the worst a. environmental b. national defense c. economic d. international relations e. elections fraud ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 11 TOPICS: The Proper Size of Government

crisis in 80 years.

2. Politics is a. the struggle over power or influence within organizations or informal groups. b. becoming an increasingly low-stakes game. c. a type of antisocial behavior by individuals. d. fundamentally irrelevant. e. the equitable distribution of power among organizations or informal groups.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 2 TOPICS: Politics and Government 3. Harold Lasswell defined politics as a. a necessary evil. b. the way conflict in society is perpetuated. c. who gets what, when, and how. d. promoting equality among citizens. e. a system for guiding individuals’ decision-making.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 2 TOPICS: Politics and Government 4. An institution can best be defined as a. a religious organization. b. an ongoing organization that performs certain functions for society. c. any organized group. d. a democratic government. e. part of an interest group.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 2 TOPICS: Politics and Government

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic 5. Government can be defined as a. an institution within which decisions are made that resolve conflicts. b. a figurehead institution with little actual authority. c. any club that sets up a platform. d. the same in most countries. e. a concept with a universally accepted interpretation.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 2 TOPICS: Politics and Government 6. One of the original purposes of government is a. maintaining security or order. b. ensuring liberty or freedom. c. promoting equality among citizens. d. promoting economic development. e. promoting development of cultural capital.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 2 TOPICS: Why Is Government Necessary?

7. Which of the following most accurately describes the Somali government? a. The Taliban were recently voted into office by the people. b. The current government has gained complete control over the country. c. The government has provided exceptional personal security for its citizens. d. The government has survived only because of the assistance provided by the U.S. and its allies. e. The issue of corruption has finally been effectively controlled by the government.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 2 TOPICS: Why Is Government Necessary?

8. A complete collapse of order and security is a. a disturbingly common event. b. actually an uncommon event. c. much more common than the reverse—too much government control. d. a part of every nation’s political development. e. a problem usually confined to highly urbanized countries.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 2 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic TOPICS:

Limiting Government Power

9. Liberty can be defined as a. freedom of individuals to do whatever they want. b. freedom of individuals to own and control property. c. the greatest freedom of the individual consistent with the freedom of other individuals. d. incompatible with government. e. a uniquely American value.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 3 TOPICS: Limiting Government Power 10. Governments have authority a. when they are first organized. b. when they are popular. c. when they are internationally recognized. d. when they have the right and power to enforce their decisions. e. when people choose to obey the laws they create.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 3 TOPICS: Authority and Legitimacy 11. Legitimacy in government is a. the condition of having no government. b. only applicable to democratic governments. c. popular acceptance of the right and power of a government or other entity to exercise authority. d. only needed in times of emergency. e. useful to control immigration.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 3 TOPICS: Authority and Legitimacy 12. To say that authority is legitimate is to a. state the obvious. b. say that authority is broadly accepted. c. imply that the ruler has not always been perceived as the legal power. d. suggest that decisions are of little practical value. e. imply that those in power do not have the good of the public in mind when making important decisions.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic REFERENCES: 3 TOPICS: Authority and Legitimacy 13. In 2011 in Egypt and Tunisia, regime change finally came when a. soldiers resorted to violence against demonstrators. b. the populace became more educated. c. international governments intervened. d. the rulers lost legitimacy. e. the rulers lost authority.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 3 TOPICS: Authority and Legitimacy 14. Totalitarianism as a concept means a. that every aspect of political, social, and economic life is controlled by the government. b. the condition of having no government and no laws. c. that ultimate political authority is vested in the people. d. a limited republic where people elect officials to make decisions for them for a specific period of time. e. a unified government.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 4 TOPICS: Types of Government 15. Authoritarianism differs from totalitarianism in that a. freedom of speech is allowed. b. the leaders may be voted out of office. c. it is considered a legitimate form of government. d. only the government itself is fully controlled by the ruler. e. all aspects of political, social, and economic life are controlled by the ruler.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 4 TOPICS: Types of Government 16. Aristocracy means rule by a. the majority. b. the “best.” c. the “few.” d. those who can read and write. e. religious leaders.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 4 TOPICS: Types of Government 17. The literal meaning of theocracy is a. rule by society’s elders. b. rule by the most educated. c. rule by God (or the gods). d. rule by the eldest son of the previous ruler. e. rule by priests.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 4 TOPICS: Types of Government 18. The most important feature of Athenian democracy was that a. everyone could vote. b. elected delegates made the important decisions. c. it was an aristocracy. d. the legislature was composed of all the citizens. e. women were included in the legislature.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 4 TOPICS: Direct Democracy as a Model 19. The initiative and the referendum are both a. ways to remove a public official from office before to the end of his or her elected term. b. procedures used in Congress to prevent the passage of a bill by talking it to death. c. provided for in the Bill of Rights. d. constitutional mechanisms that are unique to California. e. modern adaptations of direct democracy.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 4 TOPICS: Direct Democracy as a Model 20. A procedure allowing the people to vote to dismiss an elected official from office before his or her term has expired is called a. a referendum. b. direct democracy. c. a recall. d. an initiative.

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic e. popular sovereignty.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 4 TOPICS: Direct Democracy as a Model 21. Consent of the people means a. governments and laws derive their legitimacy from the consent of the governed. b. the people must consent to everything the government does. c. government must get consent of the people before it can go to war. d. universal suffrage. e. only Congress needs to get consent from the people.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 5 TOPICS: The Dangers of Direct Democracy 22. Regarding direct democracy, James Madison and other politicians of his time a. believed it would lead to a more educated population. b. believed it was the safest and most stable system of government. c. feared it would lead to a tyranny of the minority. d. championed it as the only acceptable form of government. e. feared it would deteriorate into mob rule.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 5 TOPICS: The Dangers of Direct Democracy 23. A republic is a. a conservative form of government. b. a direct democracy. c. a government in which sovereign power rests with the people, not a monarch. d. a totalitarian state. e. a government in which the people directly elect the president.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 5 TOPICS: A Democratic Republic 24. Popular sovereignty means a. that the sovereign is popular. b. that the sovereign is supported by the people. c. that ultimate political authority is based on the will of the people.

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic d. only one sovereign can serve at a time. e. the sovereign can serve only two terms.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 5 TOPICS: A Democractic Republic 25. The type of government the United States has is a. a direct democracy. b. a representative democracy. c. a confederation. d. a constitutional monarchy. e. an anarchy.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 6 TOPICS: A Democracy Republic 26. Unlike in a democratic republic, in a representative democracy a. there is no founding document. b. there is universal suffrage. c. all national policy decisions are made by the Senate. d. the monarchy may be retained in a largely ceremonial role. e. the people do not hold ultimate power over government.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 6 TOPICS: A Democratic Republic 27. The concept of universal suffrage refers to a. the right of all adults to vote for their representatives in government. b. the problems people face in countries that do not have democracy. c. the idea that political power should be used to eliminate food shortages throughout the world. d. the belief that the whole world will suffer if certain political and economic ideas are allowed to spread. e. a state of nature before governments existed.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 6 TOPICS: A Democratic Republic 28. In the United States, universal suffrage for all citizens has a. always been part of our election process. b. never been that important.

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic c. come under fire recently. d. developed over time. e. been available since the 1920s.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 6 TOPICS: A Democratic Republic 29. A majority vote means the support of a. two-thirds of the voters. b. more voters than any other alternative. c. three-fifths of the voters. d. more than 50 percent of the voters. e. the voters from the major ethnic group.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 6 TOPICS: A Democratic Republic 30. To ensure that majority rule does not become oppressive, modern democracies a. limit political participation to individuals who are properly educated. b. provide guarantees of minority rights. c. make voting mandatory. d. apply term limits to elected officials. e. require two-thirds support of the legislature before a law can be enacted.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 6 TOPICS: A Democratic Republic 31. All of the following are principles of democratic governments EXCEPT a. universal suffrage. b. majority rule and protection of minority rights. c. free, competitive elections. d. limited government. e. limited right to vote.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 6 TOPICS: A Democratic Republic 32. A limited government is one in which a. political participation is limited only to individuals who are educated.

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic b. government powers are limited, either through a written document or through widely shared beliefs. c. many seats in the legislature are vacant. d. government has the power only to make decisions regarding international and defense policy. e. there is no higher authority than the local level of government.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 6 TOPICS: A Democratic Republic 33. The heart of ________ theory is the proposition that in a democracy, the government ought to do what the majority of the people want. a. elite b. majoritarian c. pluralism d. aristocracy e. game ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 7 TOPICS: What Kind of Democracy Do We Have?

34. Elite theory suggests that a. elites rely on the input from interest groups within society. b. governments can control economic policy, but not social institutions. c. a single ruler from the elite class controls all aspects of the government. d. people who are not part of the elite class can never enter it. e. society is ruled by a small number of people who exercise power to further their self-interest.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 7 TOPICS: Democracy for Everyone 35. In the pluralist view, politics is a. only useful for the wealthy in society. b. the struggle among groups to gain benefits for their members. c. insignificant at the lower levels of government. d. marked by the division of society into two great classes. e. the major problem in modern society.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 8 TOPICS: Democracy for Groups Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic 36. A political culture is a a. written set of codes that dictate political action. b. club that attempts to influence governmental decisions. c. major problem for rulers of stable forms of government. d. patterned set of ideas, values, and ways of thinking about government and politics. e. manifestation of pluralism.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 8 TOPICS: Fundamental Values 37. The two most important sources of political socialization are a. the American Socialist Party and the Democratic Party. b. the rapid growth of the federal deficit and uncontrolled immigration. c. the family and the educational system. d. direct payments to individuals from Social Security and 401Ks. e. the Declaration of Independence and the U.S. Constitution.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 8 TOPICS: Fundamental Values 38. The concept of political socialization refers to a. the process by which political beliefs and values are transmitted to individuals. b. direct payments to individuals from the government through Social Security. c. individuals who are opposed to the development of a socialistic government. d. the gradual development of social programs within our national government. e. the government taking over the economic sector of the country.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 8 TOPICS: Fundamental Values 39. The dominant culture in the United States has it roots in a. American Indian civilization. b. Babylonian civilization. c. Norse civilization. d. Eastern European civilization. e. Western European civilization.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 8 TOPICS: Fundamental Values Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic 40. Those personal freedoms, including freedom of religion and of speech, that are protected for all individuals in a society are called a. civil liberties. b. human rights. c. God-given rights. d. American ideals. e. libertarian principles.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 9 TOPICS: Liberty versus Order 41. Many basic guarantees of liberty are found in a. the protection of personal property rights. b. the broadly defined rights of criminals, including protection from self-incrimination. c. the Bill of Rights. d. the rights of minorities. e. national security.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 9 TOPICS: Liberty versus Order 42. The right to privacy is a. an unimportant liberty. b. an agreed-upon part of American political culture. c. a particularly controversial liberty. d. explicitly stated in the Bill of Rights. e. a central concept of democracy.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 9 TOPICS: Liberty versus Order 43. The concept that all people are of equal worth is called a. popular sovereignty. b. equality. c. fraternity. d. liberty. e. liberalism.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic REFERENCES: 9 TOPICS: Liberty versus Equality 44. The assumption the government couldn’t (or shouldn’t) do anything about the division of society between rich and poor began to lose its force in the a. 1500s. b. 1600s. c. 1700s. d. 1800s. e. 1900s.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 10 TOPICS: Liberty versus Equality 45. The right to property is all of the following EXCEPT a. widespread in the United States. b. likely to provide power and liberty to those who own it. c. compatible with economic equality. d. fundamental to the capitalist system. e. a source of inequality in society.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 10 TOPICS: Liberty Versus Equality 46. Capitalism is a. a political theory developed by Karl Marx. b. an economic system marked by the private ownership of wealth-creating assets, free markets, and freedom of contract. c. incompatible with property rights, including personal possessions and wealth-creating assets. d. named for the centralization of economic power in the capitol. e. unpopular in the United States.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 10 TOPICS: Liberty Versus Equality 47. Americans are most likely to call for the benefits of big government when they are a. uneducated. b. experiencing low levels of unemployment. c. concerned about their perception abroad. d. experiencing an economic upturn.

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic e. reacting to a crisis.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 11 TOPICS: The Proper Size of Government 48. A comprehensive set of beliefs about the nature of people and the role of government is called a. a political culture. b. a dogma. c. an ideology. d. the political spectrum. e. political science.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 13 TOPICS: Political Ideologies 49. Conservatives generally place a high value on the principle of a. poverty reduction. b. government intervention. c. social innovation. d. order. e. equality.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 14 TOPICS: Conservatism 50. Liberals typically endorse all of the following EXCEPT a. civil rights. b. improving the welfare of individuals. c. a limited role for the government in helping individuals. d. government regulation of the economy. e. greater tolerance for social change.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 14 TOPICS: Liberalism 51. Unlike liberals or conservatives, socialists advocate a. civil liberties. b. economic liberty. c. capitalism.

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic d. property rights. e. ownership of businesses by the government or by cooperatives.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 15 TOPICS: The Traditional Political Spectrum 52. All of the following are true of libertarians EXCEPT a. libertarians oppose government attempts to promote moral values. b. libertarians advocate redistribution of income. c. libertarians support laissez-faire capitalism. d. libertarians oppose most government activities. e. libertarians more typically support the Republican party.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 15 TOPICS: The Traditional Political Spectrum 53. The following statement was probably made by a ______: “The government should have no role in providing health care for the country. It would be best to provide a tax rate cut to stimulate businesses to provide more people with health care insurance.” a. liberal b. conservative c. communist d. socialist e. populist ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 13 TOPICS: Conservatism 54. In what ways is the government involved in one’s daily life?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 2 TOPICS: Why Is Government Necessary?

55. How can the continued existence of a representative democracy be guaranteed?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 6 TOPICS: A Democratic Republic 56. Do you believe that pluralism theory or elite theory is the more accurate description of American politics? Why? Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 6-7 TOPICS: What Kind of Democracy Do We Have?

57. Why does the mandate of equal treatment for all groups of Americans sometimes come into conflict with the concept of liberty?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 8 TOPICS: Fundamental Values 58. How have labels such as “liberal” changed over time? How do American values affect the use of different ideological labels?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 13 TOPICS: Political Ideologies 59. Why do you think that socialism has made little headway in the United States, despite its popularity in other parts of the world?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 13 TOPICS: Political Ideologies 60. What are the issues liberals and conservatives tend to support and oppose?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 13, 14 TOPICS: Political Ideologies 61. Compare and contrast direct democracy to representative democracy. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each? In what situations might a direct democracy work? When is a representative democracy more feasible?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 4–6 TOPICS: Democracy and Other Forms of Government 62. THINK: Choose an important issue such as child care, health care, abortion, immigration, or welfare, and discuss a government policy a liberal and a conservative might design to help solve this issue.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 13, 14 TOPICS: Political Ideologies Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 - The Democratic Republic 63. Using the important American values of liberty, security, equality, and property, discuss the ways in which these values can be in conflict with each other. What role should government play in providing these things for all Americans?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 8–10 TOPICS: Fundamental Values

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution 1. The first permanent English colony in the Americas was a settlement at a. Massachusetts Bay. b. Roanoke. c. Jamestown. d. Charles Town. e. Philadelphia.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 21 TOPICS: The Colonial Background 2. According to the Separatists, the Mayflower Compact was necessary because it a. limited the power of women in the colonies. b. imposed some form of public authority on the colonists. c. protected the colonists from England. d. protected the colonists from other foreign governments. e. imposed religious order on the colonies.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 21 TOPICS: Separatists, the Mayflower, and the Compact 3. One element of the Mayflower Compact’s historical and political significance was that it a. served as a prototype for many similar compacts. b. shunned all previous forms of government. c. did not depend on the consent of the affected individuals. d. established the colony of Massachusetts. e. was a constitution.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 21 TOPICS: Separatists, the Mayflower, and the Compact.

4. All of the following developments took place in the colonial period EXCEPT a. the colonists developed a concept of limited government. b. the colonists exercised a large measure of self-government. c. the colonists passed the Pennsylvania Frame of Government, which foreshadowed our modern Constitution. d. Louisiana was established as the last of the thirteen colonies. e. the colonists acquired crucial political experience.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 21–23 TOPICS: Separatists, the Mayflower, and the Compact Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution 5. Which of the following factors BEST influenced the taxation of the British colonies after 1763? a. The coronation of King George III b. The establishment of more colonies c. The costs of defending the colonists during the French and Indian War d. The purchase of Canada (Quebec) from the French e. The Revolutionary War ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 23 TOPICS: British Restrictions and Colonial Grievances 6. Which of the following taxes did the British NOT impose on the colonists? a. The Sugar Act b. The Stamp Act, which taxed, among other things, legal documents and newspapers c. Duties on glass, lead, and paint d. A tax on tea e. An income tax ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 23 TOPICS: British Restrictions and Colonial Grievances 7. The colonists’ fury over taxation reached its peak over a. the French and Indian War. b. the repeal of the Stamp Act. c. the passage of the Pennsylvania Charter of Privileges. d. the Boston Tea Party. e. the Mayflower Compact.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 23 TOPICS: British Restrictions and Colonial Grievances 8. All of the following about the First Continental Congress is true EXCEPT a. it was comprised of delegates from twelve colonies. b. the delegates spoke very little about declaring independence. c. the delegates declared independence from Great Britain. d. it resolved to petition King George III. e. it was condemned by the British government as rebellious.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 23 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution TOPICS:

The First Continental Congress

9. The Second Continental Congress a. established an army. b. signed a treaty with Great Britain that avoided armed conflict. c. signed a treaty with France to declare war with the colonies on Great Britain. d. created a unitary government in the United States. e. brought the remaining seven colonies into its organization.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 24 TOPICS: The Second Continental Congresses 10. In Thomas Paine’s Common Sense, he argued that a. human affairs are naturally stable and self-correcting. b. immigration to the colonies should be outlawed. c. it is unwise and unsafe to rebel against the king. d. an independent colonial government of their own is a natural right. e. taxation is both important and necessary.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 25 TOPICS: The Colonial Response: The Continental Congresses 11. Who wrote drafts of the Declaration of Independence before the American Revolution formally started? a. John Locke b. John Adams c. Thomas Jefferson d. George Washington e. Benjamin Franklin ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 26 TOPICS: The Resolution for Independence 12. Which of the following documents contained the phrase: “That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just Powers from the Consent of the Governed...”? a. Constitution of the United States of America b. Declaration of Independence c. Magna Carta d. United Nations Charter e. Bill of Rights ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 26 TOPICS: July 4, 1776—The Declaration of Independence 13. A _________ is a voluntary agreement among individuals to secure their rights and welfare by creating a government and abiding by its rules. a. confederation b. social contract c. unitary govenrment d. constitution e. carte ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 27 TOPICS: July 4, 1776—The Declaration of Independence 14. The unalienable rights stipulated in the Declaration of Independence included the right a. of free speech and a free press. b. to freely associate and assemble. c. to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. d. to life, liberty, and property. e. to freedom of religion.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 26 TOPICS: July 4, 1776—The Declaration of Independence 15. Rights held to be inherent in natural law, not dependent on governments, are called a. constitutional rights. b. social benefits. c. implied rights. d. natural rights. e. enumerated rights.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 26 TOPICS: July 4, 1776—The Declaration of Independence 16. After American independence was recognized by Great Britain, General George Washington a. declared himself king. b. failed to mollify the grumblings of his officers. c. disbanded the Continental Army. d. spent seven more years ejecting the British from the Old Northwest by force.

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution e. retired completely from public life, never to return.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 27, 28 TOPICS: The Rise of Republicanism 17. The American Revolution ended when Britain recognized American independence in the a. Treaty of Paris. b. Treaty of Bretton Woods. c. Treaty of Geneva. d. Treaty of Stockholm. e. Declaration of Independence.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 27, 28 TOPICS: The Rise of Republicanism 18. In almost all states, the ________ branch was predominant. a. military b. bureaucratic c. judical d. executive e. legislative ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 28 TOPICS: The Rise of Republicanism 19. The term confederation refers to a. a system in which most power is with the central government. b. a voluntary association of independent states. c. a system in which state and local governments have equal power with the central government. d. a national legislature. e. the southern states where slavery was legal.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 28 TOPICS: The Articles of Confederation: Our First Form of Government 20. Which of the following was NOT true under the Articles of Confederation? a. Congress was a unicameral assembly. b. Congress lacked an independent source of revenue. c. Congress could regulate foreign affairs.

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution d. The president of the United States was chosen by Congress. e. Each state possessed a single vote in Congress.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 29 TOPICS: The Articles of Confederation: Our First Form of Government 21. Probably the most fundamental weakness of the Articles of Confederation, and the most basic cause of their eventual replacement by the Constitution, was the a. absence of an executive committee. b. lack of provision for a president of the United States. c. one-vote-per-state system. d. lack of ability to conduct foreign policy. e. lack of power to raise funds for the militia.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 29 TOPICS: The Articles of Confederation: Our First Form of Government 22. Which state refused to send delegates to the Constitutional Convention? a. Delaware b. South Carolina c. Rhode Island d. Maryland e. Virginia ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 30 TOPICS: The Constitutional Convention 23. A majority of the delegates at the Constitutional Convention were a. unaware that there were problems with the Articles of Confederation. b. against a strong central government. c. nationalists in favor of instituting a monarchy. d. moderates in favor of keeping the Articles of Confederation with very few changes. e. nationalists in favor of a stronger central government.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 30 TOPICS: The Constitutional Convention 24. The Virginia Plan a. called for a bicameral legislature.

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution b. worked to the advantage of small states. c. provided for the direct election of a president by the people. d. settled all controversy at the Constitutional Convention. e. lacked the creation of a national judiciary.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 31 TOPICS: Politicking and Compromises 25. Basically, the New Jersey Plan was a. the result of the Great Compromise. b. a way for large states to grab power. c. simply an amendment of the Articles of Confederation. d. simply an amendment of the Mayflower Compact. e. the Constitution.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 31 TOPICS: Politicking and Compromises 26. The supremacy doctrine asserts the priority of a. large states over small states. b. non-slave states over slave states. c. national law over state laws. d. natural law over man-made laws. e. the legislative body over the chief executive.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 32 TOPICS: Politicking and Compromises 27. The plan known as the Great Compromise a. was advanced by the delegates from Georgia. b. proposed a bicameral legislature. c. was presented too late to be considered. d. was proposed by Texas. e. proposed a unicameral legislature in which each state would have one vote.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 32 TOPICS: Politicking and Compromises 28. The three-fifths compromise illustrates the power of ______ at the Constitutional Convention.

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution a. the southern states b. the northern states c. the small states d. the large states e. women ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 32 TOPICS: Politicking and Compromises 29. Which of the following was NOT a compromise made in the Constitution? a. There was no ban on the importation of slaves before 1808. b. Only a Supreme Court was mandated, and the establishment of lower courts was left up to Congress. c. Slavery was outlawed. d. Representation in the House of Representatives was based on a state’s population. e. States were equally represented in the Senate.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 32, 33 TOPICS: Politicking and Compromises 30. The United States is among the few countries that does not tax their exports because a. it does not need the money. b. exportation is a natural right. c. the South obtained a promise that export taxes would not be imposed. d. the World Trade Organization prohibits it from doing so. e. the president of the United States of America vetoed the bill.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 33 TOPICS: Politicking and Compromises 31. The concept of separation of powers was included in the Constitution to prevent a. disputes between the federal and state governments. b. the imposition of export taxes. c. a major dispute over power between the House and the Senate. d. disputes over power between Congress and the president. e. the imposition of tyranny—either by the majority or by a minority.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 34 TOPICS: Working toward Final Agreement Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution 32. The separation of government powers into three branches (executive, legislative, and judicial) is sometimes called the a. Compromise model. b. American model. c. Washingtonian model. d. Madisonian model. e. Jeffersonian model.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 34 TOPICS: Working toward Final Agreement 33. The concept of checks and balances allows a. each branch of the government to be able to check the actions of the others. b. the president to veto judicial decisions. c. the president to pass laws during a time of crisis. d. Congress to select justices of the Supreme Court. e. the Treasury to print paper currency.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 34 TOPICS: Working toward Final Agreement 34. The group that officially elects the president of the United States is called a. the Presidential Election Commission. b. the Congressional Election Forum. c. the Association of State Legislatures. d. the Electoral College. e. the Electorate at Large.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 34 TOPICS: Working toward Final Agreement 35. The Constitution that was to be ratified established the following fundamental principles EXCEPT a. popular sovereignty, or control by the people. b. a republican government in which the people choose representatives to make decisions for them. c. limited government with written laws. d. a federal system that allows for states’ rights, because the states feared too much centralized control. e. presidential infallibility.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 35, 36 TOPICS: The Final Document Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution 36. Ratification of the Constitution was to occur when it was approved by a. the thirteen state legislatures. b. nine out of thirteen states. c. the thirteen state legislatures and two-thirds of Congress. d. popular vote in nine states. e. popular vote in all thirteen states.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 36 TOPICS: The Difficult Road to Ratification 37. The Federalists advocated a. preserving the status quo. b. returning to the Articles of Confederation. c. ratifying the new Constitution. d. a strong state government system. e. constitutional monarchy.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 36 TOPICS: The Difficult Road to Ratification 38. The Anti-Federalists advocated a. altering the Constitution to include guaranteed personal liberties. b. a strong central government. c. ratifying the new Constitution. d. an end to slavery. e. rule by the aristocracy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 36, 37 TOPICS: The Federalists Push for Ratification 39. The Bill of Rights was important for ratification of the Constitution because a. state constitutions already had such rights. b. such rights were stipulated in the Articles of Confederation. c. some states would not have voted to ratify the Constitution without the promise of amendments to protect individual liberties. d. the colonists wanted to conform to international standards. e. the Federalists were wary of a strong central government.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution REFERENCES: 37, 38 TOPICS: The Bill of Rights 40. The Bill of Rights provided for a. protection of individual liberties at the state level. b. protection of individual liberties at the national level. c. equal protection under the law. d. protection against state infringements on the freedoms of conscience, the press, and jury trial. e. separation of powers.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 38 TOPICS: The Bill of Rights 41. The U.S. Constitution is shorter than any state constitution EXCEPT that of a. Maryland. b. Vermont. c. South Carolina. d. Georgia. e. New York.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 38 TOPICS: Altering the Constitution 42. One of the two formal methods of proposing an amendment to the Constitution is by a. popular vote. b. a two-thirds vote in each chamber of Congress. c. approval of the legislatures in a majority of the states. d. a majority vote in both chambers of Congress, provided the amendment is not vetoed by the president. e. a judicial submission.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 38 TOPICS: The Formal Amendment Process 43. A constitutional amendment can be ratified by a. a majority of the popular vote. b. a positive vote in three-fourths of the legislatures of the various states. c. a two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress. d. approval of the legislatures in two-thirds of the states. e. presidential approval.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 38 TOPICS: The Formal Amendment Process 44. Which groups are involved in proposing and ratifying amendments to the Constitution? a. The state legislatures, the president, and Congress b. The Senate, the Supreme Court, and the House of Representatives c. Congress, the president, and the people d. The Senate, the House of Representatives, and the state legislatures e. The House of Representatives, the president, and the Senate ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 39 TOPICS: The Formal Amendment Process 45. Out of more than 11,000 amendments to the Constitution that have been considered by Congress, only ______ have been ratified. a. 10 b. 12 c. 18 d. 27 e. 33 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 38 TOPICS: Altering the Constitution 46. Judicial review is a. a method by which the president can check the judiciary. b. the process of confirmation of federal judges by Congress. c. the power of the courts to declare federal or state laws and other acts of government unconstitutional. d. not applicable to actions by state governments. e. restricted to the Supreme Court in overturning decisions by lower courts.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 40 TOPICS: Informal Methods of Constitutional Change 47. Article III, Section 1 of the Constitution gives Congress the power to a. override presidential vetoes. b. establish a system of courts below the Supreme Court. c. limit the power of local governments. d. regulate the media.

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution e. levy income taxes.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 40 TOPICS: Informal Methods of Constitutional Change 48. All of the following is widely considered to be an informal method of amending the Constitution EXCEPT a. Supreme Court decisions. b. Congressional legislation. c. Presidential action. d. interpretation, custom, and usage. e. the formal amendment process.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 39-41 TOPICS: Informal Methods of Constitutional Change 49. In 1803, the Supreme Court claimed the power of ______ for itself in Marbury v. Madison. a. judicial review b. constitutional amendment c. legislative ratification d. executive review e. appeal ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 40 TOPICS: Informal Methods of Constitutional Change 50. The law is what ______ says it is at any point in time, generally speaking. a. the Senate b. the Supreme Court c. the president d. the press e. the academic community ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 40 TOPICS: Informal Methods of Constitutional Change 51. What institutions had the most impact on the founding of state governments and the Federal Government of the United States of America?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution REFERENCES: 21 TOPICS: The Colonial Background 52. Did the founders intend the United States to be a Christian nation? Describe both sides of the argument.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 24 TOPICS: The Colonial Background 53. What significance does the Declaration of Independence have to Americans today, relative to the Constitution or other famous American documents?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 26 TOPICS: July 4, 1776—The Declaration of Independence 54. Did the government under the Articles of Confederation do more to preserve individual liberty than that of the federal government under the Constitution? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 28 TOPICS: The Articles of Confederation: Our First Form of Government 55. Describe the controversy surrounding the slavery issue. How was this resolved at the Constitutional Convention?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 31 TOPICS: Politicking and Compromises 56. Describe the concepts of separation of powers and checks and balances, and explain why the Founding Fathers included these concepts in the framework of the Constitution.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 32 TOPICS: Politicking and Compromises 57. At the Constitutional Convention, several compromises were made to garner the support of various states. Describe these compromises and the debates that surrounded them.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 32 TOPICS: Politicking and Compromises 58. The Constitution’s ratification process included arguments for and against ratification by Federalists and AntiFederalists, respectively. Describe and evaluate the arguments expressed by both of these groups.

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Chapter 2 - Forging a New Government: The Constitution ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 36 TOPICS: The Federalists Push for Ratification 59. Describe the two formal methods of proposing an amendment to the Constitution.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 38 TOPICS: The Formal Amendment Process 60. The process of amending the U.S. Constitution is an intentionally difficult one. Yet those in each branch of government have found ways in which the Constitution can be changed informally. Describe the methods, both formal and informal, of constitutional change.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 39 TOPICS: Informal Methods of Constitutional Change

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Chapter 3 - Federalism 1. Which government system is the most popular, both historically and today? a. A unitary system b. A confederal system c. A federal system d. A bicameral system e. A grassroots system ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 46 TOPICS: Federalism and It’s Alternatives 2. In unitary government systems, ultimate authority resides at the ________ level. a. state or provincial b. local or municipal c. regional d. national or central e. individual ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 46 TOPICS: A Unitary System 3. All of the following is true about a confederal system EXCEPT a. it is opposite of a unitary system. b. it was the form of government used in the United States under the Articles of Confederation. c. the central government has only those powers granted to it by the states. d. it is the form of government used in the United States today. e. few, if any, true confederations exist.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 46 TOPICS: A Confederal System 4. All of the following statements concerning a federal system of government are true EXCEPT a. they always have a bicameral legislature. b. they are divided between a central government and regional, or subdivisional, governments. c. some powers are bestowed upon the central government, and others are granted to the regional governments. d. power is not concentrated in a unicameral legislature within a strong central government. e. power is exercised by the national government only insofar as these powers are granted by the states.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 47 TOPICS: A Federal System Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 - Federalism 5. The federal system in the United States occurred because of a. disputes involving freedom of religion. b. consensus that unitary government threatens liberty. c. unitary failure. d. a series of compromises. e. copying the continental European political model.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 47 TOPICS: Why Federalism?

6. Which of the following is NOT a sound argument for a federalist system of government? a. The large area or population of some nations makes it impractical to locate all political authority in one place. b. Federalism brings government closer to the people. c. Federalism offers a “training ground” for national leaders. d. States are testing grounds for new government initiatives. e. Federalism allows powerful state and local interests to block progress and impede national plans.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 48 TOPICS: Other Arguments for Federalism 7. Which of the following is an argument against federalism? a. That too much inequity exists between states in a federal system b. That it prevents creation of a strong party system c. The rigidity of the national government in confronting change d. That it is difficult for governors to become president e. That it is too simplistic for a nation with a large geographic area and population ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 49 TOPICS: Arguments against Federalism 8. According to the Constitution, if a state or local law conflicts with a national law, a. the law must be put to a popular vote. b. the law is null and void. c. the local law prevails. d. the national law supercedes the state or local law. e. the state law will prevail.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 49 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 - Federalism TOPICS:

The Constitutional Basis for American Federalism

9. A special category of national powers that is not implied by the necessary and proper clause consists of what have been labelled _____ powers of the national government. a. the inherent b. the enumerated or expressed c. reserved d. concurrent e. in the necessary and proper clause.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 49 TOPICS: Powers of the National Government 10. Which clause of the Constitution allows Congress to carry out whatever law it needs to in order to carry out the Constitution’s provisions? a. Necessary and proper clause b. Supremacy clause c. Concurrent clause d. Reserved powers clause e. Due process clause ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 49 TOPICS: Powers of the National Government 11. Examples of enumerated powers belonging exclusively to the national government include a. declaring war and coining money. b. taxation and establishment of courts. c. regulating commerce and crime within states. d. regulating public schools and divorces. e. taxing exports and holding elections.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 49 TOPICS: Powers of the National Government 12. Inherent powers derive from the fact that the United States is a. a democratic republic. b. a confederation formed by state governments. c. a sovereign power among nations. d. a federal system. e. explicitly entitled by the Constitution to annex new territory.

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Chapter 3 - Federalism ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 50 TOPICS: Powers of the National Government 13. The Tenth Amendment states that the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are a. the sole authority of Congress. b. reserved to the central government. c. reserved to the states, or to the people. d. the sole authority of the executive branch. e. subject to judicial review.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 50 TOPICS: Powers of the State Governments 14. Their ________ power enables states to pass laws governing such activities as marriage, contracts, education, and land use. a. commerce clause b. enumerated c. emergency d. necessary and proper e. police ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 50 TOPICS: Powers of the State Governments 15. Powers held jointly by the national and state governments are called a. cooperative powers. b. statutory powers. c. reserved powers. d. concurrent powers. e. inherent powers.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 51 TOPICS: Concurrent Powers 16. States may NOT a. license marriages. b. pass laws regulating contracts.

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Chapter 3 - Federalism c. regulate divorce. d. negotiate treaties with foreign nations. e. impose taxes on income.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 51 TOPICS: Prohibited Powers 17. Constitutionally, which two sets of powers do state governments have? a. Enumerated and expressed powers b. Reserved and concurrent powers c. Direct and inherent powers d. Expressed and implied powers e. Inherent and police powers ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 51 TOPICS: The Supremacy Clause 18. The supremacy clause of the Constitution means that a. the original Constitution is superior to any amendment. b. the original states have a superior status when dealing with states created after 1789. c. states cannot use their powers to thwart national policies. d. Congress cannot pass legislation that would violate state laws or constitutions. e. treaties with foreign governments cannot overturn state laws.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 51 TOPICS: The Supremacy Clause 19. Which is an example of an interstate compact? a. The rules set forth in Article IV of the Constitution b. The Bill of Rights c. The Alien and Sedition Acts d. The Marbury v. Madison decision e. The Port Authority of New York and New Jersey ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 53 TOPICS: Interstate Relations 20. Each state must do all of the following concerning other states EXCEPT a. give full faith and credit to one another’s public civil acts.

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Chapter 3 - Federalism b. enforce each other’s laws. c. give full faith and credit to each other’s public records. d. gve full faith and credit to one another’s public legal proceedings. e. return people fleeing from justice to the state where the crime occurred.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 53 TOPICS: Interstate Relations 21. Under what circumstances may states enter into agreements with one another? a. The agreements may not increase the power of the contracting states relative to other states or to the federal government. b. All states in that region must approve of the agreement. c. Three-fourths of both states’ legislators must approve the agreement. d. A majority of the people in each state must approve of the agreement. e. The combined population of the two agreeing states must be smaller than the population of the largest U.S. state.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 53 TOPICS: Interstate Relations 22. In the early years, most of the disputes over the boundaries of national versus state power involved a. different interpretations of the inherent powers of the national government. b. the role of the national government in mediating disputes between the states. c. the ability of the states to enter into international treaties. d. the enforcement of the Bill of Rights. e. the necessary and proper clause and the powers of the national government to regulate interstate commerce.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 54 TOPICS: Defining Constitutional Powers—The Early Years 23. From 1801 to 1835, the Supreme Court was headed by Chief Justice __________. a. Henry Clay. b. Samuel Alito. c. John Jay. d. John Marshall. e. Roger Taney.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 53 TOPICS: Defining Constitutional Powers—The Early Years Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 - Federalism 24. All of the following are true about the case of McCulloch v. Maryland EXCEPT a. the case dealt with the issue of implied powers of the federal government. b. one issue was whether the federal government could create a national bank. c. the decision allowed the federal government to grow and expand. d. the decision upheld the right of the federal government to use the necessary and proper clause. e. the Supreme Court ruled the national government could only use its express powers.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 54 TOPICS: Defining Constitutional Powers—The Early Years 25. In his ruling on Gibbons v. Ogden, Marshall defined commerce as a. any business dealings between legally incorporated organizations. b. any business dealing requiring an operating license. c. all business dealings having to do with the physical exchange of currency. d. all business dealings, including navigation and the transport of people. e. only the shipment of goods.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 54 TOPICS: Defining Constitutional Powers—The Early Years 26. The section of the Constitution in which Congress is given the authority to regulate trade among the states and with foreign countries is called the a. oversight clause. b. commerce clause. c. supremacy clause. d. necessary and proper clause. e. interstate compact clause.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 55 TOPICS: Defining Constitutional Powers—The Early Years 27. In the 1930s and subsequent decades, the ______ became the primary constitutional basis for national government regulation. a. commerce clause b. Bill of Rights c. necessary and proper clause d. Treaty of Versailles e. Work Projects Administration (WPA) ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 - Federalism POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 55 TOPICS: Defining Constitutional Powers—The Early Years 28. The controversy over slavery that led to the Civil War took the form of a dispute over a. national government supremacy versus the rights of the separate states. b. interstate commerce. c. the application of the Bill of Rights to the states. d. taxation. e. the admission of Texas into the Union.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 55 TOPICS: States’ Rights and the Resort to Civil War 29. During the Jacksonian era (1829–1837), a shift toward ______ began. a. a service sector-based economy b. women’s suffrage c. more activist international intervention d. a strong national government e. states’ rights ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 56 TOPICS: States’ Rights and the Resort to Civil War 30. On December 20, 1860, ______ formally repealed its ratification of the Constitution and withdrew from the Union. a. Alabama b. South Carolina c. Louisiana d. Georgia e. Virginia ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 56 TOPICS: States’ Rights and the Resort to Civil War 31. Ultimately, the Civil War resulted in a. the end of the idea that social problems should be dealt with by the national government. b. the expansion of the agricultural sector of the U.S. economy. c. a shift from a federal to a confederal system of government. d. an increase in states’ rights. e. an increase in the political power of national government.

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Chapter 3 - Federalism ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 56 TOPICS: States’ Rights and the Resort to Civil War 32. A model of federalism that looks on national and state governments as co-equal sovereign powers, neither of which should interfere in the other’s sphere is called a. confederalism. b. cooperative federalism. c. dual federalism. d. separate-but-equal federalism. e. post-war federalism.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 57 TOPICS: Dual Federalism 33. Post Civil War, the doctrine of dual federalism meant a. a significant increase in the powers of the national government. b. a “return to normalcy” for many. c. continued expansion of the North’s wartime powers. d. allowing the national government to regulate all state actions affecting African Americans. e. allowing the state and national governments to interfere in each other’s areas of influence.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 57 TOPICS: Dual Federalism 34. During the Civil War crisis, the Supreme Court a. was drastically reduced in its influence within the United States. b. continued as the legitimate constitutional umpire. c. gained additional power, along with the rest of the national government. d. ruled that the initial plan of Congress to reconstruct the South was unconstitutional. e. had supported the abolition of slavery in the years leading up to the war.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 57 TOPICS: Dual Federalism 35. In 1918, the Supreme Court ruled that an earlier national law banning child labor was unconstitutional, because a. the rights of children are no different from those of adults. b. it attempted to regulate a local problem. c. it gave too much discretion to states.

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Chapter 3 - Federalism d. it was unenforceable. e. it interfered with national security.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 57 TOPICS: Dual Federalism 36. The doctrine of dual federalism receded into the background as the nation attempted to deal with a. growing international pressure. b. the aftermath of World War I. c. the aftermath of the Civil War. d. the Great Depression. e. rampant political corruption.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 57 TOPICS: The New Deal and Cooperative Federalism 37. A model of federalism in which the states and the national government work together to solve problems is called a. New Deal federalism. b. compromise federalism. c. continental federalism. d. dual federalism. e. cooperative federalism.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 58 TOPICS: The New Deal and Cooperative Federalism 38. ________ have traditionally favored the allocation of power to the states. a. Liberals b. Conservatives c. Libertarians d. Civil rights activists e. Political independents ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 58 TOPICS: The Politics of Federalism 39. Expanded authority of the national government has traditionally been preferred by a. liberals. b. conservatives.

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Chapter 3 - Federalism c. libertarians. d. social conservatives. e. southern conservatives.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 58 TOPICS: The Politics of Federalism 40. The transfer of powers from a national or central government to a state or local government is called a. reduction of burden. b. identity politics. c. devolution. d. evolution. e. dissemination.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 58 TOPICS: The Politics of Federalism 41. The No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 a. gave the states more control of their schools. b. established a school voucher system. c. increased the local school boards’ freedom in evaluating student achievement. d. increased federal control over education. e. was enacted by Congress under Democratic President Bill Clinton.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 58 TOPICS: The Politics of Federalism 42. All are true of federal grants EXCEPT a. that they increased significantly during the twentieth century. b. that they have been used for education, pollution control, recreation, and highway construction. c. that they quadrupled in dollar amount in the 1960s. d. that they are given by the states for national projects. e. that they have been accompanied by a multitude of restrictions and regulations.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 59 TOPICS: Methods of Implementing Cooperative Federalism 43. Categorical grants are a. federal grants to states or local governments for specific programs or projects.

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Chapter 3 - Federalism b. emergency grants to states for unforeseen circumstances. c. a very recent form of national government support to school districts. d. unconstitutional because of separation of powers. e. federal grants to states or local governments for general operating expenses.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 59 TOPICS: Methods of Implementing Cooperative Federalism 44. In the 1980s and 1990s, the federal government used ______ to force the states to raise their minimum alcoholic beverage drinking age to 21. a. new legislation b. conditions attached to federal highway grants c. a Supreme Court ruling d. international standards e. a series of lawsuits ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 60, 61 TOPICS: Methods of Implementing Cooperative Federlism 45. A federal grant that provides funds to a state or local government for a general functional area is called a a. project grant. b. block grant. c. community action grant. d. basic grant. e. categorical grant.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 60 TOPICS: Methods of Implementing Cooperative Federalism 46. One major set of ______ provides aid to state welfare programs. a. categorical grants b. program grants c. federal mandates d. block grants e. municipal grants ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 60 TOPICS: Methods of Implementing Cooperative Federalism Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 - Federalism 47. All of the following statements regarding federal mandates are true EXCEPT a. requirements in federal legislation have been passed that force states to comply with certain rules. b. the Federal Government has mandated that states take action with respect to voter registration. c. federal mandates always are accompanied by federal funding. d. an Act of Congress requires the Congressional Budget Office to identify mandates that cost more than $50 million to implement. e. states may not ignore federal mandates.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 61 TOPICS: Methods of Implementing Cooperative Federalism 48. The 1995 case, ______, marked the first time in sixty years that the Supreme Court had placed a limit on the national government’s authority under the commerce clause. a. McCulloch v. Maryland b. Roe v. Wade c. Gibbons v. Ogden d. United States v. Lopez e. Brown v. Board of Education ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 61 TOPICS: A Trend toward States' Rights?

49. When the Supreme Court heard cases involving federalism in the last decade, the rulings they gave can best be perceived as a. in line with decisions of previous decades. b. unconstitutional. c. supporting a strong federal government. d. supporting states’ rights. e. sending mixed messages.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 61 TOPICS: A Trend toward States' Rights?

50. Individual health insurance mandates and the ability of states to ban same-sex marriage are two issues that a. have been decided by the Supreme Court recently. b. are currently being decided by the Supreme Court. c. the Supreme Court has refused to consider. d. can only be decided by the states. e. have been criticized for being unfunded mandates.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 - Federalism POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 62 TOPICS: Recent Decisions 51. What three models exist for organizing relations between a central government and local or subnational governments?

Compare and contrast each model in terms of their advantages and disadvantages.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 46 TOPICS: Federalism and It's Alternatives 52. What are implied powers? Describe several examples.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 49 TOPICS: Powers of the National Government 53. Analyze the provisions of full faith and credit, privileges and immunities, and extradition in the U. S. Constitution.

What do they have in common? How are they different?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 49 TOPICS: The Constitutional Basis for American Federalism 54. From 1801–1835, the Supreme Court was headed by Chief Justice John Marshall, a Federalist who advocated a strong central government. Using cases heard by the Supreme Court during that period, show how John Marshall’s political beliefs affected the relationship between states and the federal government.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 53 TOPICS: Defining Constitutional Powers—The Early Years 55. Explain the important issues in McCulloch v. Maryland and Gibbons v. Ogden. What has been the impact of these decisions on the relationship between the federal and state governments?

ANSWER: Student’s answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 54 TOPICS: Defining Constitutional Powers—The Early Years 56. Why is there a concern in some states with the full faith and credit provision of the Constitution if some states allow gay marriages?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 50, 52 TOPICS: Powers of the State Governments Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 - Federalism 57. Describe the effects of the Civil War on states’ rights and the size of the national government.

ANSWER: Student’s answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 55 TOPICS: States’ Rights and the Resort to Civil War 58. Compare and contrast the categorical and block grants. How do federal mandates have an impact on the states? How can different types of federal grants be used to influence states’ policies?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 59, 60 TOPICS: Methods of Implementing Cooperative Federalism 59. Explain why liberals have traditionally endorsed national authority.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 58 TOPICS: The Politics of Federalism 60. Since the ratification of the Constitution, there has been controversy between the federal government and state governments about the appropriate division of power. Explain how the federal government has gained power at the expense of state governments. Indicate what state governments could do to regain power from the federal government.

ANSWER: Student’s answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 58 TOPICS: The Politics of Federalism

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties 1. Which of the following BEST defines civil liberties? a. Civil liberties are not particularly important. b. Civil liberties restrain the actions of government against individuals. c. Civil liberties allow the government the liberty to do what it likes. d. Civil liberties are values that libertarians do little to try to defend. e. Civil liberties are guaranteed at the state level, but not the federal level.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 66 TOPICS: Introduction 2. Before 1868, The Bill of Rights a. applied to people’s rights relative to the Federal Government, but not to people’s rights relative to the states wherein they resided. b. applied to people’s rights relative to the Federal Government as well as the states. c. applied to people’s rights relative to the states. d. limited the power of state governments. e. included two amendments that were proposed but never ratified.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 67 TOPICS: Extending the Bill of Rights to State Governments 3. It was not until the _______ was ratified that the Bill of Rights began to be applied to the states. a. Twelfth Amendment b. Thirteenth Amendment c. Fourteenth Amendment d. Fifteenth Amendment e. Sixteenth Amendment ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 68 TOPICS: Incorporation of the Fourteenth Amendment 4. The Supreme Court held that the Fourteenth Amendment protected freedom of speech from state infringement in the _________ case. a. Schenk v. United States b. McCulloch v. Maryland c. Gibbons v. Ogden d. Gitlow v. New York e. Marbury v. Madison ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties REFERENCES: 68 TOPICS: Incorporation of the Fourteenth Amendment 5. Incorporation theory refers to a. the view that the Bill of Rights applies to the states as well as the Federal Government. b. when corporations are treated as people in terms of free speech in political campaigns. c. what allows the government to practice eminent domain. d. when state constitutions are used exclusively to define civil rights. e. what destroyed the glass ceiling as it related to women in the 1970s.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 68 TOPICS: Incorporation of the Fourteenth Amendment 6. The part of the First Amendment prohibiting the national government from interfering with religious practices is called the a. church-state separation clause. b. diversity clause. c. free exercise clause. d. religious freedom clause. e. establishment clause.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 73 TOPICS: The Free Exercise Clause 7. In the Everson v. Board of Education case, the Supreme Court held that a. school prayer is legal. b. no tax can be levied to support any religious activities or institutions. c. government-funded schools may support religion. d. states may take action against people practicing their religion. e. state or federal government authorities may participate in the affairs of religious groups.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 69 TOPICS: The Separation of Church and State—The Establishment Clause 8. All of the following concerning the Lemon v. Kurtzman case is true EXCEPT a. government aid to religious schools is constitutional. b. the nature of government aid to schools must be secular. c. government aid to schools could not have the primary effect of advancing or inhibiting religion. d. government, in aiding schools, cannot become excessively entangled with religion. e. government aid to religious schools has to be religious in nature.

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 69 TOPICS: The Separation of Church and State—The Establishment Clause 9. State funding to private or parochial schools has raised issues involving the _______ of the Constitution. a. First Amendment. b. Second Amendment. c. Third Amendment. d. Fourth Amendment. e. Fifth Amendment.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 69 TOPICS: Freedom of Religion 10. In Engel v. Vitale (1962), the Supreme Court ruled that a. established guidelines for school prayers is ok. b. the Regents’ Prayer used in New York public schools was constitutional. c. if school prayer did not refer to God, then it's constitutional. d. government is not constitutionally allowed to compose official prayers. e. parents must be involved in the composition of any school prayers.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 71 TOPICS: The Separation of Church and State—The Establishment Clause 11. State and local attempts to forbid the teaching of evolution in schools a. have not passed constitutional muster in the eyes of the Supreme Court. b. are a recent development, occurring only in the past decade. c. have been successful about half of the time. d. have been permanently halted by the Epperson v. Arkansas Supreme Court case. e. are brought about by concerns over shortages of science teachers.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 72 TOPICS: The Separation of Church and State—The Establishment Clause 12. All of the following are true about religious displays on public property EXCEPT that a. court cases over these issues have been ruled upon under the establishment clause. b. religious displays have been allowed in certain situations. c. displays of a crèche at Christmastime may be allowed if secular displays are also being shown. d. nativity scenes have been allowed as stand-alone displays.

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties e. acceptability of displays of the Ten Commandments depends on whether the context is overtly religious.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 72, 73 TOPICS: The Separation of Church and State—The Establishment Clause 13. The free exercise clause guarantees a. the free exercise of religion. b. the free exercise of armed self-defense. c. free speech, particularly as related to religious beliefs. d. freedom to choose private education paid for by the state. e. the free endorsement of candidates by religious groups.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 73 TOPICS: The Free Exercise Clause 14. Which of the following best describes prior restraint? a. Refusing to read a suspect's Miranda rights. b. Restraining activities in the process of occurring. c. Restraining an activity after that activity has actually occurred. d. Restraining an activity before that activity has actually occurred. e. Detaining people before they appear before a judge.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 73 TOPICS: No Prior Restraint 15. The New York Times v. United States case a. affirmed the no-prior-restraint doctrine. b. upheld the government’s right to provide the public with information about Vietnam. c. punished the New York Times for publishing secret documents. d. affirmed the free speech of students in public schools. e. ruled against the right of newspapers to protect their reporters’ identities.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 74 TOPICS: No Prior Restraint 16. Which of the following best defines symbolic speech? a. Vaguely worded speech b. Unprotected speech c. Nonverbal expression Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties d. Obscenity e. Hate speech ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 74 TOPICS: The Protection of Symbolic Speech 17. The Flag Protection Act of 1989 a. is the constitutional amendment that prohibits flag burning. b. was a Texas state law prohibiting the burning of the American flag. c. is an example of legislation made possible by the establishment clause. d. was a bill that failed to pass in Congress. e. was ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 74 TOPICS: The Protection of Symbolic Speech 18. Advertising statements are known as a. unprotected speech. b. commercial speech. c. symbolic speech. d. profit-seeking speech. e. public speech.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 75 TOPICS: The Protection of Commercial Speech 19. According to the clear and present danger test, expression could be restricted if a. it does not deal with a political question. b. it is found to be offensive to religious organizations. c. and only if the United States is at war. d. the speaker is not a citizen of the United States. e. evidence exists that such expression would cause a dangerous condition that Congress has the power to prevent.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 75 TOPICS: Attempts to Ban Subversive or Advocacy Speech 20. The bad tendency rule meant that a. speech may be curtailed if there is a possibility that such expression might lead to some evil.

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties b. Congress could prevent any speech it did not like. c. if some people could be hurt by what was said, such speech was not protected. d. anyone could advocate the overthrow of the U.S. government. e. repeat criminal offenders could be preemptively detained.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 75, 76 TOPICS: Attempts to Ban Subversive or Advocacy Speech 21. Some claim that the United States did not achieve true freedom of ______ until 1969, when the Supreme Court overturned the conviction of a Ku Klux Klan leader in Brandenburg v. Ohio. a. symbolic speech b. commercial speech c. hate speech d. political speech e. the press ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 76 TOPICS: Attempts to Ban Subversive or Advocacy Speech 22. Obscenity was legally defined by Chief Justice Burger in a. United States v. Williams. b. Osborne v. Ohio. c. Reno v. American Civil Liberties Union. d. Miller v. California. e. Flynt v. Falwell.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 76 TOPICS: Unprotected Speech: Obscenity 23. To be considered obscene, a work must a. be offensive to a specific religious group. b. lack serious redeeming literary, artistic, political, or scientific merit. c. be determined to be commercial speech. d. employ graphics, as opposed to mere text. e. portray actual sexual intercourse.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 76 TOPICS: Unprotected Speech: Obscenity Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties 24. In Osborne v. Ohio, the Supreme Court ruled that states can outlaw the possession of child pornography in the home a. because owning the material perpetuates commercial demand for it and for the exploitation of children involved. b. to protect children who may be living in the home. c. because it universally violates community standards. d. because it encourages deviant and exploitive behavior. e. because it employs graphics, as opposed to mere text.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 77 TOPICS: Unprotected Speech: Obscenity 25. At the federal level, the Child Online Protection Act (COPA) of 1990 made it a crime to a. create sexually explicit illustrations of children. b. distribute child pornography overseas. c. offer child pornography that does not actually exist. d. knowingly receive sexually explicit depiction of children through the mail. e. sell child pornography on the Internet.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 77 TOPICS: Unprotected Speech: Obscensity 26. The Communications Decency Act (CDA) of 1996 and the Children’s Online Protection Act of 1998 a. were both ruled constitutionally acceptable. b. require public schools to block adult Internet content through filtering devices. c. were vetoed by President Clinton. d. have been blocked on constitutional grounds. e. outlaw computer-generated images of minors engaging in lewd behavior.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 77 TOPICS: Unprotected Speech: Obscensity 27. Defamation of character is defined as a. committing obscene acts using another person’s name. b. publishing false statements about a person in a newspaper, book, or magazine. c. hate speech. d. making false statements about famous people. e. wrongfully hurting a person’s good reputation.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 77 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties TOPICS:

Unprotected Speech: Slander

28. Slander is a. an attempt to do bodily harm. b. the public uttering of a false statement that harms the good reputation of another. c. printed material that cannot be proven true. d. a law that prohibits the public from making negative statements about elected officials. e. a criminal offense.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 77 TOPICS: Unprotected Speech: Slander 29. In the area of freedom of speech, which of the following is NOT true? a. High schools can impose restrictions on speech that are not allowed in colleges. b. High school officials may censor school publications. c. Some universities have prohibited “hate speech.” d. Campus speech restrictions have usually been ruled unconstitutional. e. The Supreme Court ruled that universities may not impose mandatory student activity fees.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 78, 79 TOPICS: Student Speech 30. Libel is a. the amount of insurance one must have on a motor vehicle. b. defamation in writing. c. printed material that cannot be proved true. d. untrue rumors spread by word-of-mouth. e. another word for slander.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 79 TOPICS: Freedom of the Press 31. When a person has either knowledge of a defamatory statement’s falsity or a reckless disregard for the truth, he or she is said to have a. actual malice. b. malignant intent. c. creative license. d. unauthorized information. e. criminal intent.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 79 TOPICS: Freedom of the Press 32. For a public official to obtain damages under libel laws, he or she must a. show that the article is about their private life. b. sue in federal court under the Public Official Libel Act. c. prove their chances for reelection were completely lost because of the article. d. prove the statement was made with actual malice. e. present the same type of evidence that a private person would be required to offer.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 79 TOPICS: Freedom of the Press 33. Gag orders have been used to a. prohibit one criminal from testifying against another. b. restrict the publication of news about a pretrial hearing. c. restrict what a juror may say to the press after the trial. d. restrict what evidence must be shown to defense lawyers. e. prevent publication of obscene material depicting bondage.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 80 TOPICS: Freedom of the Press 34. The type of media that has the least First Amendment protection is a. motion pictures. b. radio and television broadcasting. c. newspapers. d. magazines. e. self-published pamphlets.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 81 TOPICS: Freedom of the Press 35. In Griswold v. Connecticut, the Supreme Court held that a. prohibiting contraceptives violated a right to personal privacy. b. laws banning contraceptives are legal. c. abortion was illegal. d. parts of the Fourteenth, Fifteenth, and Sixteenth Amendments contributed to a constitutional right to privacy. e. abortion became more likely to be illegal as a pregancy advanced to term.

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 81 TOPICS: The Right to Privacy 36. Before the latter half of the nineteenth century, abortion was a. legal at any point before the onset of labor. b. a criminal offense at any point in the pregnancy. c. not a criminal offense before the first movement of the fetus in the uterus. d. not a criminal offense if the woman’s husband agreed to it. e. completely unregulated by the legal system.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 81 TOPICS: Privacy Rights and Abortion 37. According to the Supreme Court ruling in Roe v. Wade, which of the following restrictions may the state place on abortions? a. During the first trimester, the state can prevent some abortions for reasons relating to the mother’s health. b. During the second trimester, the state can prevent all abortions. c. During the third trimester, the state cannot regulate abortion except to require that it be performed by a doctor. d. During the third trimester, the state may regulate or outlaw abortions except when necessary to preserve the life or health of the mother. e. The states may place no restrictions on abortions.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 81 TOPICS: Privacy Rights and Abortion 38. In Webster v. Reproductive Health Services, the Supreme Court ruled that states may a. ban the use of public hospitals for performing abortions. b. require public employees to assist in abortions. c. ban second trimester abortions even if the woman’s life is at risk. d. require a waiting period of twenty-four hours. e. prevent teenagers from obtaining contraceptives without parental consent.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 82 TOPICS: Privacy Rights and Abortion 39. The 1994 Freedom of Access to Clinic Entrances Act a. was found unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. b. prohibits protestors from blocking entrances to abortion clinics.

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties c. required public hospitals to provide abortions. d. failed to pass in Congress. e. required clinics to provide multiple entrances for abortion seekers.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 82 TOPICS: Privacy Rights and Abortion 40. In 2000, the Supreme Court addressed the abortion issue directly when it reviewed a Nebraska law banning a. first trimester abortions. b. “partial-birth” abortions. c. abortions in cases of incest or rape. d. abortions for women under the age of eighteen. e. the “morning-after” pill.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 83 TOPICS: Privacy Rights and Abortion 41. With regard to physician-assisted suicide, the Supreme Court has said that a. the liberty interest does not include a right to commit suicide. b. states have a right to protect the families of those who choose physician-assisted suicide. c. doctors must comply if a terminal patient asks for physician-assisted suicide. d. the Constitution protects a person’s right to make all decisions regarding his or her death. e. it is permissible in all jurisdictions.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 83, 84 TOPICS: Privacy Rights and the “The Right to Die” 42. Legislation that allows the government to conduct “roving” wiretaps has raised issues under the a. time, place, and manner test. b. First Amendment. c. conflict-with-legitimate-governmental-or-social-interests test. d. “fighting words” test. e. clear and present danger test.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 86 TOPICS: Civil Liberties Versus Security Issues 43. Shortly after September 11, 2001, President George W. Bush issued an executive order authorizing the ______ to conduct secret surveillance without court warrants.

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties a. Immigration and Customs Enforcement Agency (ICE) b. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) c. Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) d. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) e. National Security Agency (NSA) ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 87 TOPICS: Civil Liberties Versus Security Issues 44. In 1903, the Supreme Court ruled that the government could not deport someone without a. giving them ninety days notice. b. a special type of hearing with less strict due process standards than those set forth in the Constitution. c. a hearing that meets constitutional due process standards. d. informing their family. e. ensuring they will be safe in their home country.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 87 TOPICS: National Security and the Civil Liberties of Immigrants 45. In Reno v. American-Arab Anti-Discrimination Committee, the Supreme Court ruled that aliens have a. the right to object to deportation only if they have been in the United States for ten years or more. b. the right to object to deportation only if they have children born in the United States. c. no Fourth Amendment protection against unreasonable search and seizure. d. no First Amendment rights to object to deportation. e. all the First Amendment rights granted to U.S. citizens.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 88 TOPICS: National Security and the Civil Liberties of Immigrants 46. A defendant’s pretrial rights include all of the following EXCEPT a. to be informed of the charges. b. the right to legal counsel. c. the right to remain silent. d. negotiable bail. e. prompt arraignment.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 84 TOPICS: Rights of the Accused Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties 47. A writ of habeas corpus is an order that requires a. jailers to bring a prisoner before a court and explain why they are being held. b. prisoners to be provided with legal counsel. c. prisoners to be informed of their right to remain silent. d. police to find the dead body in order for a court to deliver a murder conviction. e. prisoners to be provided with an opportunity to confess.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 84 TOPICS: Rights of the Accused 48. In ___________, the Supreme Court held that if a person accused of a felony cannot afford an attorney, one must be made available to the accused at the government’s expense. a. United States v. Jones b. Lemon v. Kurtzman c. Washington, D.C. v. Heller d. Miranda v. Arizona e. Gideon v. Wainwright ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 85 TOPICS: Extending the Rights of the Accused 49. An individual’s trial rights include all of the following EXCEPT a. the right to an impartial jury selected from a cross-section of the community. b. the right to a speedy and public trial before a jury. c. the right not to be subject to lengthy questioning. d. no compulsory self-incrimination. e. a trial atmosphere free of prejudice.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 85 TOPICS: Rights of the Accused 50. The exclusionary rule is a policy that a. prohibits the admission of illegally seized evidence at trial. b. prohibits the arresting officer from serving as a character witness at a hearing or trial. c. prohibits the detention of a suspect for more than forty-eight hours without the suspect being charged. d. is limited to the federal courts. e. was ruled unconstitutional in 1914.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 85 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties TOPICS:

The Exclusionary Rule

51. How has the Fourteenth Amendment and the idea of selective incorporation affected the Bill of Rights? Provide examples.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 68 TOPICS: Incorporation of the Fourteenth Amendment 52. Discuss the establishment clause and give examples of Supreme Court rulings based on this clause.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 69 TOPICS: The Separation of Church and State—The Establishment Clause 53. Under which circumstances is the government able to interfere with freedom of speech?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 73 TOPICS: Freedom of Expression 54. Explain what symbolic speech is and give examples of Supreme Court decisions on this type of speech.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 74 TOPICS: The Protection of Symbolic Speech 55. Define slander and libel and describe the differences between them. Discuss how the protections against them are applied differently to different members of society.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 77, 79 TOPICS: Unprotected Speech: Slander Freedom of the Press 56. Explain in detail how the “right to privacy” evolved into the issue of abortion and indicate the legal problems that have developed since the Roe v. Wade decision by the Court in 1973.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 81 TOPICS: Privacy Rights and Abortion 57. Given Supreme Court rulings that declared parts of the USA Patriot Act unconstitutional, has the issue of government intrusion into the private lives of Americans been resolved? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

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Chapter 4 - Civil Liberties POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 86 TOPICS: Civil Liberties Versus Security Issues 58. What rights do immigrants have? Address both legal and illegal noncitizens. How have these rights changed in recent decades?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 86 TOPICS: National Security and the Civil Liberties of Immigrants 59. What basic rights do all Americans accused of a crime have? Are they uniformly enforced across racial, ethnic, or gender lines? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 84 TOPICS: Rights of the Accused 60. What are the Miranda rights? What exceptions have been allowed to these rights?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 85 TOPICS: Extending the Rights of the Accused

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights 1. All of the following are true EXCEPT that a. civil liberties and civil rights are the same thing. b. civil rights refer to the rights of Americans to equal protection under the law. c. civil liberties are limitations on the government—what government cannot do. d. civil rights specify what government must do to ensure freedom from discrimination. e. most minorities in this nation have suffered from discrimination.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 92 TOPICS: Introduction 2. Which of the following did NOT happen after, or as a result of, the Civil Rights Cases of 1883? a. Official state actions that violated people’s civil rights was considered illegal. b. Private civil-rights violations by individual citizens were not illegal. c. Whites largely approved of the decisions made by the Supreme Court. d. African Americans earned equality with whites. e. Other civil-rights laws passed by Congress went unenforced.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 94 TOPICS: The Ineffectiveness of the Early Civil Right Laws 3. According to the Thirteenth Amendment, a. neither slavery nor involuntary servitude shall exist within the United States. b. the states must alter their constitutions to end slavery by making the children of slaves free, while allowing slavery for existing slaves. c. all persons “will be treated as total equals from this date forward.” d. slavery would continue for twenty years, at which time it would be ended. e. the importation of slaves shall be immediately banned, but slave owners may keep their existing slaves.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 93 TOPICS: Ending Servitude 4. The Fourteenth Amendment does all of the following EXCEPT a. proclaims that all persons born in the United States are citizens of the United States. b. provides that no state shall make any law that abridges the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States. c. states that the right to vote shall not be denied or abridged on account of race. d. dictates that no state shall deny any person of life, liberty, or property without due process of law. e. provides that no state shall deny any person equal protection of the laws.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights REFERENCES: 93, 94 TOPICS: Ending Servitude 5. Provisions of the Fifteenth Amendment a. outlaw slavery. b. provide equal protection under the law. c. make it illegal to deny housing to citizens of any race. d. state that the right to vote shall not be abridged on account of race. e. say that the right to vote shall not be abridged on account of gender.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 94 TOPICS: Ending Servitude 6. Which of the following statements concerning the Civil Rights Act of 1866 is FALSE? a. It implemented the extension of citizenship to anyone born in the United States. b. It gave African Americans full equality before the law. c. It authorized the President to enforce the law with the national armed forces. d. It was quickly vetoed by President Andrew Johnson. e. It was passed to attempt to enforce the Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 94 TOPICS: Ending Servitude 7. The Reconstruction statutes, or civil rights acts, ultimately a. did little to secure equality for African Americans. b. created lasting equality for African Americans. c. made it more difficult for African Americans to achieve equality. d. resulted in more political involvement for African Americans. e. nullified the Thirteenth and Fourteenth Amendments.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 94 TOPICS: The Ineffectiveness of the Early Civil Rights Laws 8. The Supreme Court’s ruling in the Civil Rights Cases of 1883 meant that a. discriminatory official actions taken by the states were not illegal. b. discriminatory acts of private citizens were not illegal. c. interfering with a citizen’s right to vote was now a federal offense. d. interfering with a citizen’s right to vote was still illegal, but could only be punished with a small fine. e. it was only illegal to discriminate against minors.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 94 TOPICS: The Ineffectiveness of the Early Civil Rights Laws 9. In Plessy v. Ferguson, the Court held that a. African Americans are not U.S. citizens. b. the Fourteenth Amendment enforced social equality. c. schools are not allowed to segregate on the basis of race. d. social segregation did not violate the Constitution. e. Homer Plessy’s legal position was a valid one.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 94, 95 TOPICS: The Ineffectiveness of the Early Civil Rights Laws 10. The doctrine that was born of the Plessy v. Ferguson case was known as a. equal opportunity. b. affirmative action. c. separate-but-equal. d. full equality under the law. e. equal suffrage.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 95 TOPICS: The Ineffectiveness of the Early Civil Rights Laws 11. U.S. laws that required separate drinking fountains, separate seats in theaters, and separate waiting rooms for the two races were known as a. personal liberty laws. b. illegal laws. c. anti-civil-rights laws. d. civil rights laws. e. “Jim Crow” laws.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 95 TOPICS: The Ineffectiveness of the Early Civil Rights Laws 12. In the 1944 case of Smith v. Allwright, the United States Supreme Court ruled the ______ to be a violation of the Fifteenth Amendment. a. literacy test b. poll tax c. grandfather clause Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights d. white primary e. black primary ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 95 TOPICS: The Ineffectiveness of the Early Civil Rights Laws 13. The ______ kept blacks from voting in the Democratic Party’s primaries. a. grandfather clause b. white primary c. separate-but-equal doctrine d. literacy tests e. poll tax ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 95 TOPICS: The Ineffectiveness of the Early Civil Rights Laws 14. The tests commonly administered as a precondition for voting were called a. poll tests. b. constitutional exams. c. literacy tests. d. primary tests. e. registration tests.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 95 TOPICS: The Ineffectiveness of the Early Civil Rights Laws 15. A poll tax was used to a. prevent northern immigrants from moving to the South and voting in local elections. b. determine who was intelligent enough to vote. c. exclude poor African Americans, as well as poor whites, from voting. d. force individuals to buy property in order to be eligible to vote. e. raise funds for voter registration among the minority community.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 95 TOPICS: The Ineffectiveness of the Early Civil Rights Laws 16. An attempt to maintain white supremacy included a. lynching. b. the Civil Rights Act of 1866.

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights c. the Civil Rights Act of 1875. d. the Civil Rights Cases of 1883. e. the Enforcement Act of 1870.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 95 TOPICS: The Ineffectiveness of the Early Civil Rights Laws 17. In Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954), the U.S. Supreme Court a. declared that minorities have no rights to equal treatment. b. ruled that segregation of races in the public schools is unconstitutional. c. prohibited the national government from taking action against local school boards. d. allowed that segregation for educational purposes is constitutional. e. declared that African Americans could be denied the right to a college education.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 96 TOPICS: The End of the Separate-but-Equal Doctrine 18. All of the following are true regarding the aftermath of Brown v. Board of Education EXCEPT a. the Supreme Court declared that integration was to take place “with all deliberate speed.” b. there was resistance to integration in Little Rock, Arkansas, and other southern states. c. the district courts were instructed to consider revising school districts in order to achieve desegregation. d. combat troops were needed to integrate the University of Mississippi. e. almost all schools achieved racial balance within a decade.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 96 TOPICS: The End of the Separate-but-Equal Doctrine 19. Which of the following best describes de facto segregation? a. Segregation that occurs because of patterns of racial residence and similar social conditions b. Segregation based on laws c. Segregation that happens because of administrative decisions d. Segregation based on physical characteristics e. Partial segregation ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 97 TOPICS: DeJure and DeFacto Segregation 20. Which of the following best describes de jure segregation? a. Segregation that occurs because of patterns of racial residence and similar social conditions Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights b. Segregation based on laws c. Segregation that occurs because of laws or administrative decisions by public agencies d. Segregation based on physical characteristics e. Complete segregation ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 97 TOPICS: DeJure and DeFacto Segregation 21. In the context of civil rights, ______ is the transportation of public school students from areas where they live to schools in other areas. a. educational exchange b. busing c. de jure segregation d. de facto segregation e. redistricting ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 97 TOPICS: DeJure and DeFacto Segregation 22. The Brown decision applied to a. public and private schools. b. public schools and public buses. c. public schools and interstate railways. d. public schools and government offices. e. only public schools.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 97 TOPICS: The Civil Rights Movement 23. In his leadership of the civil rights movement, Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., advocated a. nonviolent civil disobedience. b. divide and conquer. c. “equality for all, through strong force when necessary.” d. economic equality through the undermining of capitalism. e. equality “by any means necessary.”

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 97 TOPICS: The Civil Rights Movement Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights 24. A nonviolent, public refusal to obey allegedly unjust laws is called a. pacifism. b. civil disobedience. c. criminal disobedience. d. defensible criminality. e. taking the moral high ground.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 97 TOPICS: The Civil Rights Movement 25. The contrasting image of nonviolent African Americans and violent, hostile whites created a. strong public support for the civil rights movement. b. strong public resentment toward the civil rights movement. c. public indifference toward the civil rights movement. d. strong public support for the assassination of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. e. strong public support for the rights of individuals to bear arms.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 97 TOPICS: The Civil Rights Movement 26. ______ forbade discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, gender, or national origin. a. Plessy v. Ferguson b. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 c. The Fourteenth Amendment d. The Civil Rights Act of 1968 e. The Equal Opportunity Act ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 98 TOPICS: Modern Civil Rights Legislation 27. One major provision of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 was that it a. outlawed discriminatory voter-registration tests. b. permitted state governments to pass laws that allowed considerable discrimination toward ethnic minorities. c. created the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. d. expanded the power of the Civil Rights Commission. e. included a constitutional amendment changing the voting age.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 99 TOPICS: Modern Civil Rights Legislation Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights 28. The legislation resulting from the Civil Rights Movement a. only benefited African Americans. b. has corrected economic disparities between whites and minority groups. c. has eliminated poverty in most minority groups. d. ultimately benefited almost all minority groups. e. has had less of an impact on minority rights than anticipated.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 100 TOPICS: Modern Civil Rights Legislation 29. All of the following regarding women’s rights is false EXCEPT a. women first started agitating for equal rights in 1970. b. women’s rights are listed in the Constitution. c. women have had to struggle for equality just like African Americans and other minorities. d. the first political right that women fought for was for the right to make a decision about military service. e. women started struggling first for anti-sexual-harassment laws.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 100 TOPICS: Women’s Struggle for Equal Rights 30. The Congressional Union for Woman Suffrage was founded by a. Susan B. Anthony and Elizabeth Cady Stanton. b. Betty Friedan. c. Gloria Steinem. d. Hillary Clinton. e. Alice Paul.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 101 TOPICS: Early Women’s Political Movements 31. Betty Friedan’s The Feminine Mystique a. provided the credo for the National Federation of Business and Professional Women’s Clubs. b. focused national attention on the unequal status of women in American life. c. argued that women should not work outside the home. d. advocated Marxism as a solution to women’s problems. e. acknowledged that birth control should not be readily available because it would encourage women to engage in marital infidelity and premarital sex.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights REFERENCES: 101 TOPICS: The Modern Women’s Movement 32. Many observers consider the ______ to be the beginning of the feminist movement. a. founding of American Woman Suffrage Association b. passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1968 c. passage of the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) d. founding of the Congressional Union e. founding of the National Organization for Women (NOW) ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 101 TOPICS: The Modern Women’s Movement 33. The Equal Rights Amendment was a. ratified by the final state and became part of the Constitution on July 13, 1981. b. not ratified by the necessary thirty-eight states. c. vetoed by President Ronald Reagan. d. not approved by the Senate. e. first introduced in Congress in 1972.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 101 TOPICS: The Modern Women’s Movement 34. A practice, policy, or procedure that denies equality of treatment to an individual or to a group because of gender a. is sexual harassment. b. is gender discrimination. c. is feminism. d. violates the Civil Rights Act of 1968. e. is considered illegal if engaged in by a private corporation but acceptable if engaged in by the government.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 102 TOPICS: The Modern Women’s Movement 35. When President ______ appointed Sandra Day O’Connor to the United States Supreme Court, the appointment was an historic first. a. Richard Nixon b. Jimmy Carter c. Ronald Reagan d. Bill Clinton e. Barack Obama Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 103 TOPICS: Women in Politics Today 36. ______ occurs when an employee is subjected to sexual conduct or comments that interfere with the employee’s job performance. a. Gender discrimination b. Wage discrimination c. Hostile-environment harassment d. Suffrage e. Criminal sexual assault ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 103 TOPICS: Gender-Based Discrimination in the Workplace 37. Enacted in 1963, the ______ requires employers to provide equal pay for substantially equal work. a. Gender Equality Act b. Equal Pay Act c. Civil Rights Act d. Equal Pay for Women Policy e. Equal Rights Amendment ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 104 TOPICS: Gender-Based Discrimination in the Workplace 38. Today, most immigrants to the United States come from a. Europe. b. Latin America and Asia. c. Canada. d. Africa and the Middle East. e. India and the Middle East.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 104 TOPICS: Immigration, Latinos, and Civil Rights 39. The fertility rate is best defined as the average number of children a. born to each family during a given year. b. born during a specified census period. c. women in a particular group will have during a given year.

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights d. women in a particular group will have over a lifetime. e. born in relation to the average number of deaths in a given year.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 104 TOPICS: Immigration, Latinos, and Civil Rights 40. Immigrants who are not yet citizens possess a. all the same civil rights as U.S. citizens. b. all the civil rights granted to them by their home country, plus most of the rights granted to U.S. citizens. c. fewer civil rights than any other identifiable group in the United States. d. more civil rights than American Indians. e. no civil rights.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 105 TOPICS: Immigration, Latinos, and Civil Rights 41. The policy in admissions or hiring that gives special consideration to traditionally disadvantaged groups to overcome the present effects of past discrimination is known as a. affirmative action. b. legislative mandate. c. civil liberties. d. civil rights. e. the Lincoln dilemma.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 107 TOPICS: Civil Rights: Extending Equal Protection 42. Discrimination against individuals who are NOT members of a minority group is called a. racial profiling. b. reverse discrimination. c. quota-busting. d. anti-bias civil rights. e. adverse minority preference.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 108 TOPICS: The Bakke Case 43. In the Regents of the University of California v. Bakke case, the Supreme Court held that a. affirmative action programs were allowable in business schools but not in law schools.

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights b. race cannot be the only factor in an admissions decision. c. affirmative action was ruled unconstitutional. d. race cannot be considered as a factor in making admissions decisions. e. quotas are legal.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 108 TOPICS: The Bakke Case 44. The Supreme Court’s opinion in Adarand Constructors, Inc. v. Peña means that once an affirmative action program has succeeded in achieving the purpose it was tailored to meet, the program a. must be changed or dropped. b. should continue unchanged. c. should be extended to other minority groups. d. should be phased out over 18 months. e. must be subjected to unannounced audits.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 109 TOPICS: Additional Limits on Affirmative Action 45. In 2003, the United States Supreme Court considered two different admissions polices adopted at the University of Michigan and a. for the first time, ruled that affirmative action was unconstitutional. b. ruled that “diversity” could not be a compelling government interest. c. approved affirmative action plans that took race into consideration as part of a complete examination of the applicant’s background. d. approved a plan that automatically awarded a substantial number of points to applicants based on minority status. e. ruled that the time had come for all affirmative action programs to end, since government could do nothing more to alleviate the effects of past discrimination.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 109 TOPICS: Additional Limits on Affirmative Action 46. The modern movement for gay and lesbian rights began a. when gay veterans of World War II organized in the 1950s. b. with the growth of the Civil Rights Movement in the early 1960s. c. in 1969, following the Stonewall Inn incident. d. in 1986, with a campaign against sodomy laws. e. in 1996, with the campaign for same-sex marriage.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 110 TOPICS: The Rights and Status of Gay Males and Lesbians 47. The phrase “don’t ask, don’t tell” refers to a policy toward gay men and lesbians a. governing their employment by the CIA and the FBI. b. allowing them to serve in the military so long as they did not declare that they were gay or commit homosexual acts. c. regulating when they are allowed to adopt. d. allowing them to serve in Congress so long as they did not declare that they were gay or commit homosexual acts. e. adopted by the Hollywood movie industry.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 111 TOPICS: “Don’t Ask, Don’t Tell” 48. In the 2003 decision of Lawrence v. Texas, the United States Supreme Court a. upheld a Texas law that made homosexual conduct a crime. b. held that laws against sodomy violate the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. c. invalidated antidiscrimination laws that protect homosexuals. d. upheld the Court’s previous decision in Bowers v. Hardwick. e. indicated that states could declare homosexuality a crime.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 110 TOPICS: State and Local Laws Targeting Gay Men and Lesbians 49. Which of the following best describes President Obama’s original stand on gay men and lesbians in the military? a. He promised to repeal the “don't ask, don't tell” policy. b. He stood against gays and lesbians in the military. c. He supported the Defense of Marriage Act. d. He advocated not questioning gay and lesbian recruits about their sexual orientation.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 111 TOPICS: “Don’t Ask, Don’t Tell” 50. The Defense of Marriage Act of 1996 a. bans federal recognition of lesbian and gay couples. b. requires states to recognize same-sex marriages performed in other states. c. requires states to offer civil unions to same-sex couples. d. bans states from performing same-sex marriages.

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights e. requires the federal government to recognize same-sex marriages performed in states where they are legal.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 111 TOPICS: Same-Sex Marriage 51. What impact did the Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments have on the United States?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 93 TOPICS: Ending Servitude 52. How was the promise of equality enshrined in the Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments consistently denied to African Americans for over a century? Include examples in your answer.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 93 TOPICS: Ending Servitude 53. How did the Supreme Court’s decision in Brown v. Board of Education impact education? Did it create any new problems? If so, what were they, and why?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 96 TOPICS: The End of the Separate-but-Equal Doctrine 54. Describe the importance of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.’s advocacy of nonviolent civil disobedience to protest racial injustice.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 97 TOPICS: The Civil Rights Movement 55. Explain the goals of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, the Voting Rights Act of 1965, and the Civil Rights Act of 1968.

Have these goals been realized?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 98, 99 TOPICS: Modern Civil Rights Legislation 56. Compare and contrast the struggle for women’s rights with the struggle for civil rights.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 100 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 - Civil Rights TOPICS:

Women’s Struggle for Equal Rights

57. In what ways have women been discriminated against in the workplace? What court rulings or legislation have tried to address this discrimination?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 103 TOPICS: Gender-Based Discrimination in the Workplace 58. Explain the arguments both for and against affirmative action.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 108 TOPICS: Affirmative Action 59. Explain the basis of affirmative action and the manner in which it has been addressed by the Supreme Court.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 108 TOPICS: Affirmative Action 60. How have courts and legislative bodies at both the federal and state level attempted to address issues concerning the rights and status of homosexuals?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 110 TOPICS: The Rights and Status of Gay Males and Lesbians

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media 1. Which of the following BEST describes public opinion? a. When a number of people generally feel the same way about something b. Polling data c. How people feel about something d. What people think e. The aggregate of individual attitudes or beliefs shared by some portion of the adult population ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 117 TOPICS: Public Opinion and Political Socialization 2. Because so many people are in the United States and it’s impracticable to poll everyone, people interested professionally in looking at public opinion describe the ______ of opinions about a particular question. a. number b. reliability c. validity d. distribution e. standard deviation ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 117 TOPICS: Public Opinion and Political Socialization 3. When people generally agree on an issue, the agreement itself is called a. a consensus. b. an opinion. c. unanimity. d. reliability. e. validity.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 117 TOPICS: Consensus and Divided Opinion 4. If the results of an opinion poll look like the following: (Favor: 44%; Oppose: 45%; No opinion: 11%), the results show an example of _______ opinion. a. consensus b. divided c. dubious d. favorable e. unified ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media REFERENCES: 117, 118 TOPICS: Consensus and Divided Opinion 5. Private opinion becomes public opinion when a. that opinion, regardless of its subject matter, is publicly expressed. b. it is publicly expressed and concerns public issues. c. an individual is polled by a major polling organization. d. it is not divided. e. it is articulated to at least ten other people.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 117 TOPICS: Consensus and Divided Opinion 6. Political socialization is a. what people think about something. b. the process by which people acquire political beliefs and attitudes. c. when people’s beliefs and attitudes give politicians an idea of when to address those issues. d. when people are categorized based on what they believe. e. when people generally agree on an issue.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 117, 118 TOPICS: Forming Public Opinion: Political Socialization 7. Transmitting political values a. is more likely to happen from parents to children. b. is less likely to happen from educators to students. c. is equally likely to happen from educators as from parents. d. most likely happens when children, influenced by educators, influence parents in turn. e. never happens from children to parents.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 118 TOPICS: Forming Public Opinion: Political Socialization 8. Which of the following best explains the relationship between education and interest in politics? a. The less education a person has, the more likely s/he will be interested in politics. b. The more education a person has, the more likely s/he will be interested in politics. c. The more interest a person has in politics impacts the amount of education s/he will receive. d. Uneducated people vote the most. e. Highly educated people are the most apathetic about politics.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 119 TOPICS: Forming Public Opinion: Political Socialization 9. Political attitudes are more likely to be shaped by peer groups when a. people are over the age of fifty. b. it is not an election year. c. people within the peer group do not have strong party identification. d. the peer groups are involved directly in political activities. e. members of the peer group are all of the same gender.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 119 TOPICS: Forming Public Opinion: Political Socialization 10. An opinion leader is a. one who is able to influence the opinions of others because of position, expertise, or personality. b. a pollster. c. always someone whose job is to sway public opinion, such as a member of Congress. d. a public relations expert. e. someone who relies on position, or expertise, rather than something like personality.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 119 TOPICS: Forming Public Opinion: Political Socialization 11. Determining which public policy questions will be debated or considered is a process known as ______. a. roll call b. subconscious influence c. lobbying d. media dominance e. agenda setting ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 119 TOPICS: The Media and Public Opinion 12. Many people contend that the media’s influence on public opinion a. has remained constant. b. is decreasing. c. has grown to equal the influence of the family. d. is negligible. e. is not, nor has it ever been, a significant factor.

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 119 TOPICS: The Media and Public Opinion 13. New forms of media a. have decreased the polarization that characterizes American politics. b. are all Internet based. c. were made possible by the enforcement of the Fairness Doctrine. d. include talk radio and cable television. e. are all equally influential.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 120 TOPICS: The Media and Public Opinion 14. Which of the following is true regarding political socialization? a. Older Americans tend to be more liberal than younger Americans. b. The experience of marriage and raising a family has a measurable liberalizing effect. c. A more important factor than age is the impact of momentous political events that shape the political attitudes of an entire generation. d. Voters who grew up during the Great Depression were likely to form lifelong attachments to the Republican Party. e. The years of economic prosperity under Ronald Reagan in the 1980s led many young people to identify with the Democratic Party.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 121 TOPICS: Political Events and Public Opinion 15. The generational effect in politics refers to a. the way in which political socialization produces opinions. b. the increased tension between the two major political parties. c. the tendency for persons to become more conservative as they grow older. d. the long-lasting effect of the events of a particular time on the political opinions of those who came of age at that time. e. the way in which the family influences voting.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 121 TOPICS: Political Events and Public Opinion 16. Recently, having more than a bachelor’s degree a. is associated with a greater tendency to vote for Republicans.

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media b. is associated with a greater tendency to vote for Democrats. c. is associated with a greater tendency to vote for Independents. d. has no influence on voting behavior. e. is associated with a greater tendency to abstain from voting.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 121 TOPICS: Educational Achievement 17. Those with high incomes tend to a. lean toward the left. b. vote Democratic. c. favor government action to promote economic equality. d. oppose government intervention in the economy. e. favor government action to benefit the poor.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 121 TOPICS: Economic Status 18. Which of the following groups are more likely to vote Republican? a. Factory workers b. Union members c. Small-business owners d. Attorneys e. College instructors ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 123 TOPICS: Economic Status 19. Jewish voters are notably a. more likely to vote for candidates that are politically conservative. b. more liberal than members of other groups on cultural issues, but more conservative on economic issues. c. focused almost totally on domestic issues. d. more liberal than members of other groups on both economic and cultural issues. e. similar to the overall population in their political preferences.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 123 TOPICS: Religious Denomination 20. In recent years, Protestants and Catholics have Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media a. both become more likely to abstain from voting. b. both become more likely to vote Democratic. c. moved toward Jewish voters politically. d. moved farther apart from each other politically. e. grown closer to each other politically.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 123 TOPICS: Religious Denomination 21. African Americans of all religious tendencies have been a. more likely than Catholics, but less likely than Protestants, to vote Republican. b. in line with non-African American religious voters with regard to their voting tendencies. c. evenly split between Republicans and Democrats. d. strongly supportive of Democrats. e. strongly supportive of Republicans.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 123 TOPICS: Religious Commitment and Beliefs 22. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. The majority of Hispanic Americans vote Democratic. b. Cuban Americans are usually Republican. c. Most Asian American groups lean toward the Democrats. d. A majority of Muslim Americans of Middle Eastern ancestry voted Republican in 2000. e. African Americans have voted principally for Democrats since the 1880s.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 123, 124 TOPICS: Race and Ethnicity 23. The difference between the percentage of women who vote for a particular candidate and the percentage of men who vote for the candidate is called a. the feminization of politics. b. political socialization. c. the ideology spectrum. d. an opinion poll. e. the gender gap.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 125 TOPICS: The Gender Gap Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media 24. Politically speaking, American women are a. more likely than men to support capital punishment. b. less likely than men to be concerned about the environment. c. more likely than men to support social welfare programs. d. more likely than men to support interventions abroad. e. less likely than men to support extending civil rights to gay men and lesbians.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 125 TOPICS: The Gender Gap 25. Scholars began to detect the gender gap following the election of a. Ronald Reagan. b. Gerald Ford. c. Jimmy Carter. d. George W. Bush.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 125 TOPICS: The Gender Gap 26. Currently, which of the following regions are more supportive of the Republicans than the Democrats? a. The West Coast and the Northeast b. The South and the Northeast c. The South, the Great Plains, and several of the Rocky Mountain states d. The Midwest and the West Coast e. The West Coast, the Great Plains, and several of the Rocky Mountain states ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 125 TOPICS: Geographic Region 27. People in large cities tend to be a. evenly split between Republican and Democratic voters. b. conservative and Republican. c. liberal but vote Republican. d. conservative but vote Democratic. e. liberal and Democratic.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 125 TOPICS: Geographic Region Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media 28. During the 1800s, certain American newspapers and magazines spiced up their political coverage by a. letting a coin flip determine the outcome of elections. b. republishing the poll results of the magazine Literary Digest. c. conducting face-to-face polls or mail surveys of readers’ opinions. d. fabricating poll results. e. conducting accurate representative surveys of Americans’ opinions.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 125 TOPICS: The History of Opinion Polls 29. Which of the following best describes an opinion poll? a. The amount of deviation in the sample of the population chosen from the real opinion b. A method of systematically questioning a small, selected sample of respondents who are deemed representative of the total population c. The total number of people surveyed d. When the people surveyed have an inherent bias that affects the results of the poll e. When pollsters take voter information and analyze it to predict other trends than simple opinions ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 126 TOPICS: The History of Opinion Polls 30. The principle of randomness in sampling means that a. every person should have a known chance, and especially an equal chance, of being sampled. b. there is no preplanning in the selection process. c. every person in the target population who is encountered is selected. d. researchers decide how many persons of certain types they need in the survey. e. the poll is unscientific.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 126 TOPICS: Sampling Techniques 31. Which of the following best describes sampling error? a. Any given poll will result in as certain percentage point variation from the true answer as pollsters could not really interview everyone. b. Researchers take a random number of people and survey them. c. Pollsters get a sample of people using demographic or geographical software to yield a high level of accuracy. d. Researchers take a sample of voters and slant the results in order to influence future polls. e. Pollsters make up the survey results.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 127 TOPICS: Measuring Public Opinion 32. Usually, the Gallup and Roper polls interview a. 3 percent of the U.S. population. b. about 1,500 individuals. c. over 100,000 individuals in each random sample for presidential elections. d. people who have been selected based on their intelligence. e. using quota samples.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 126 TOPICS: The History of Opinion Polls 33. Sampling error occurs when a. a whole generation of voters uniformly believe that something is based on a commonly shared experience. b. socioeconomic status influences what types of answers are given in a survey. c. an interviewer presents survey questions with a good deal of bias. d. there is a difference between the sample result and what the sample really responded. e. there is a difference between a sample result and the true result if the entire population had been interviewed.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 127 TOPICS: Sampling Techniques 34. Which of the following methods is most likely to control sampling error? a. Surveying the least educated b. Processing survey results quickly c. Conducting a telephone poll d. Taking a large random sample e. Taking a large quota sample ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 127 TOPICS: Sampling Techniques 35. The answers given by respondents to poll questions are influenced by all of the following EXCEPT a. the order in which questions are asked. b. wanting to please the interviewer. c. a yes/no format that restricts the respondents’ choices. d. the size of the sample. e. the possible answers from which the respondents are allowed to choose.

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 128 TOPICS: Additional Problems with Polls 36. Critical consumers should watch out for surveys with ______ and other types of skewed samples. a. margins of error greater than one percent b. large numbers of respondents c. quota-sampled respondents d. randomly-sampled respondents e. self-selected respondents ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 129 TOPICS: Additional Problems with Polls 37. All of the following about American political culture is true EXCEPT a. it is a set of attitudes and ideas about the nation and government. b. it consists of symbols such as the American flag, the Liberty Bell, and the Statue of Liberty. c. it supports the political system. d. it is only shared by Americans of similar backgrounds. e. shared beliefs exist about values such as liberty, equality, and property.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 129 TOPICS: Political Culture and Public Opinion 38. Which of the following best describes political trust? a. People identifying themselves as Democrats, Republicans, or independents b. Degree to which individuals express trust in political institutions c. Everyone having the right to vote d. People’s thinking about somethings. e. Huge majority of Americans demanding the nation do something about a given issue ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 130 TOPICS: Political Culture and Public Opinion 39. Political culture, to some extent, consists of symbols, such as a. the American flag. b. the Liberty Bell. c. the Empire State Building. d. Both options A and B are true.

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media e. None of the above is true.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 130 TOPICS: Political Culture and Public Opinion 40. The public tends to emphasize problems that are a. long-term. b. immediate. c. education-related. d. easily solved. e. most likely to affect future generations.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 130 TOPICS: The Most Important Problems 41. Today, ______ of Americans use television news as their primary source of information. a. less than 10 percent b. 25 percent c. 55 percent d. 78 percent e. 69 percent ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 131 TOPICS: The Roles of the Media 42. By far, the greatest number of radio and television hours are dedicated to a. identifying public problems. b. reporting the news. c. entertaining the public. d. providing a political forum. e. educating the public.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 132 TOPICS: The Roles of the Media 43. The public agenda is a. decided by the public through ballot initiatives. b. issues that are perceived by the political community as meriting public attention and governmental action. c. never influenced by the mass media.

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media d. also called the Massachusetts ballot. e. an explicit agreement among media providers about what topics to cover and how.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 132 TOPICS: The Roles of the Media 44. The media tends to depend on ______ for their income. a. subscriptions b. Internet taxes c. government spending d. advertisers e. contributions ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 133 TOPICS: The Roles of the Media 45. A brief, memorable comment that can easily be fit into news broadcasts is a a. falsehood. b. story line. c. multimedia platform. d. sound bite. e. unit of analysis.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 135 TOPICS: Television versus the New Media 46. Negative political ads can backfire when a. there are only two candidates in the race. b. there are three or more candidates in the race. c. they mention atomic attacks. d. they decrease the profitability of television station owners. e. they are run by Democratic candidates.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 136 TOPICS: Political Advertising 47. A political advisor who tries to convince journalists of the truth of a particular interpretation of events is called a a. news consultant. b. flip-flopper.

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media c. spin doctor. d. fact checker. e. win engineer.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 137 TOPICS: Management of News Coverage 48. Blogs and the Internet have a. improved candidates’ management of sound bites. b. made it more difficult for candidates to manage the news coverage of their campaigns. c. prevented news organizations from using video clips and other online materials. d. had little effect on campaigns. e. made it more difficult for campaigns to raise funds.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 137 TOPICS: Management of News Coverage 49. Which of the following best describes bias? a. An inclination or preference that interferes with impartial judgment b. Information that is the personal property of someone c. The news media injecting opinions into reporting to reflect the political attitudes of its consumers d. Networks such as the Corporation for Public Broadcasting e. None of the above ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 138 TOPICS: Bias in the Media 50. Studies of bias in the media have reached a. different conclusions: some found a liberal bias, whereas others found a conservative bias. b. a clear conclusion: there is a liberal bias in the media. c. a clear conclusion: there is a conservative bias in the media. d. a clear conclusion: there is no bias in the media. e. the conclusion that it is impossible to test for bias.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 138 TOPICS: Bias in the Media 51. Describe the difference between consensus and divided opinions. Can politicians use either one more effectively than the other to form public policy? Why or why not?

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 117 TOPICS: Consensus and Divided Opinion 52. How does political socialization occur in the United States? Explain the various means by which Americans obtain their political beliefs.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 117 TOPICS: Forming Public Opinion: Political Socialization 53. How do demographic influences shape voting behavior? Use specific examples in your answer.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 121 TOPICS: The Influence of Demographic Factors 54. When conducting a public opinion poll, what things must be taken into consideration and what problems might there be? What measures help ensure accurate results?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 125 TOPICS: Measuring Public Opinion 55. What trends can be seen in public opinion about institutions? Describe factors that drive these trends.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 125 TOPICS: Measuring Public Opinion 56. Identify the functions performed by the mass media in the United States. Are certain functions more important than others? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 131 TOPICS: The Roles of the Media 57. How important is it that newspapers are struggling? Are online sources of news such as blogs a good replacement for print news? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 134 TOPICS: The Roles of the Media Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 - Public Opinion, Political Socialization, and the Media 58. Describe the ways television has been used in, and influenced, political campaigns.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 135 TOPICS: The Media and Political Campaigns 59. Provide an example of media “spin” about a current political issue or campaign. What tactics have been most effective in shaping public opinion?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 135 TOPICS: Management of News Coverage 60. Describe the ways in which the government is involved in regulating the media. Why is regulation necessary? What effects does it have on what information we receive?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 135 TOPICS: Government Regulation of the Media

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties 1. An interest group is a. any association of individuals. b. an organized group of individuals who want to gain control of the government. c. an organized group of individuals sharing common objectives who actively attempt to influence policymakers. d. any organization that requires members to pay dues. e. an organized group of individuals who support a specific candidate for public office.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 143 TOPICS: Introduction 2. A political party is a group of political activists who a. agree on all policy issues. b. organize to win elections, operate the government, and determine public policy. c. pay monthly dues to an ideological organization. d. have been previously elected to office. e. organize to stage protests.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 144 TOPICS: Introduction 3. Which of the following best describes how a political party differs from an interest group? a. Political parties want to operate the government, but interest groups do not aim to do so. b. Political parties do not want to operate the government, but interest groups do. c. Interest groups share common objectives and attempt to influence policymakers. d. A political party tries to win elections, but interest groups do not. e. Political parties and interest groups determine public policy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 144 TOPICS: Introduction 4. Lobbyists are best defined as a. any association of individuals. b. representatives of one of the two major political parties. c. organizations or individuals that attempt to influence legislation and the government’s administrative decisions. d. members of Congress who challenge the majority position. e. members of the congressional leadership who are in a position to shape the legislative agenda in a way that benefits powerful interest groups.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties REFERENCES: 144 TOPICS: Introduction 5. Which of the following best defines a social movement? a. A group of people on the fringes of U.S. society b. A group bent on subverting the government c. A movement of people d. A demand by a vast majority of the population to do something e. A movement that represents the demands of a large segment of the population for political, economic, or social change ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 145 TOPICS: Interest Groups and Social Movements 6. Most interest groups form to represent __________ interests. a. economic b. agricultural c. foreign d. environmental e. professional ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 146 TOPICS: Economic Interest Groups 7. “Umbrella groups” represent a. collections of businesses or other entities. b. umbrella manufacturers. c. only small businesses. d. only manufacturing businesses. e. only international entities looking to do business with U.S. companies.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 146 TOPICS: Economic Interest Groups 8. Which types of interest groups are defined as economic interest groups? a. Business, labor, and public-interest groups b. Labor, agriculture, and single-issue groups. c. Business, labor, and professional organizations. d. Business, labor, and foreign governments. e. Professionals, agriculture, and foreign governments.

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 146 TOPICS: Economic Interest Groups 9. Which type of interest group has probably been more successful in obtaining U.S. government subsidies than any other? a. Public safety b. Environmental c. Professional d. Economic e. Agricultural ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 146 TOPICS: Economic Interest Groups 10. Because of the decline in the ______ sector of the economy, national unions are looking to nontraditional areas for their membership. a. nonprofit b. migrant worker c. agricultural d. industrial e. service ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 146 TOPICS: Economic Interest Groups 11. The American Bar Association and the American Medical Association are examples of a. interest groups that do not engage in lobbying. b. interest groups with small memberships (less than 1,000 members). c. interest groups with relatively little influence. d. interest groups of professionals. e. public-interest groups.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 147 TOPICS: Economic Interest Groups 12. The system of interest group politics has been accused of leaving out which of the following groups? a. The middle class b. The unorganized poor Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties c. Professionals d. The public sector e. Consumers ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 148, 149 TOPICS: Economic Interest Groups 13. The Audubon Society and the National Wildlife Federation are examples of __________ interest groups. a. environmental b. economic c. agricultural d. relatively ineffective e. professional ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 149 TOPICS: Environmental Groups 14. All of the following statements about public-interest groups are true EXCEPT a. a variety of lobbying organizations have been formed “in the public interest.” b. the best-known and perhaps most effective public-interest groups are those founded under the leadership of consumer activist Ralph Nader. c. public-interest groups work for issues that will benefit only the narrow interests of a particular group. d. public-interest groups are concerned with the overall community. e. conservative public-interest groups have formed in response to Nader organizations.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 149 TOPICS: Public-Interest Groups 15. Which of the following best describes what Common Cause does? a. It helped establish, then repeal, Prohibition. b. It has led to an overhaul of the Internal Revenue Service. c. It works to make governmental institutions more responsive to the needs of the public. d. It is the smallest interest group in the country in terms of numbers. e. It strives to ignore national priorities of the public.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 149, 150 TOPICS: Public-Interest Groups 16. The National Right to Life Committee and the National Rifle Association are examples of Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties a. economic interest groups. b. single-interest groups. c. public-interest groups. d. foreign interest groups. e. fringe interest groups.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 150 TOPICS: Additional Types of Interest Groups 17. When it comes to influencing the U.S. government, foreign governments a. only engage in lobbying when the nation they are representing is large. b. frequently hire former members of Congress to promote their positions on Capitol Hill. c. engage only in official diplomatic processes. d. are rarely interested in policy debates concerning trade issues. e. are prohibited by law from attempting to influence U.S. policy.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 151 TOPICS: Foreign Interest Groups 18. The key to success for interest groups is a. using a narrow range of strategies. b. access to government officials. c. having a small number of members. d. having members that are concentrated in one area. e. focusing on a broad range of issues.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 151 TOPICS: Interest Group Strategies 19. Successful interest groups and their representatives try to cultivate long-term relationships with a. foreign ambassadors. b. legislators and government officials. c. federal judges. d. business leaders. e. police commissioners and chiefs of police.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 151 TOPICS: Interest Group Strategies Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties 20. When an interest group and its lobbyists approach officials personally to present their case, they are engaging in a. closed-door negotiations. b. a breach of trust. c. illegal fraternizing. d. indirect techniques. e. direct techniques.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 151 TOPICS: Interest Group Strategies 21. Which of the following best describes indirect techniques employed by an interest group? a. Testifying before a Congressional committee b. Lobbying for legislation that the members of a group might not approve of c. Using the general public or individual constituents to influence government officials d. Approaching officials personally to try to influence them e. Suggesting nominations for federal appointments ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 151 TOPICS: Interest Group Strategies 22. ______ are a shorthand way of describing congressional members’ voting records for interested citizens. a. Newspaper op-eds b. Official legislator evaluations c. Ratings d. “Astroturf lobbying” activities e. Power rankings ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 151 TOPICS: Interest Group Strategies 23. Interest groups recognize that the greatest concern of legislators is to a. support the principles of their political party. b. be reelected. c. vote for the ideas of the constituents. d. be totally informed on issues requiring their vote. e. please the congressional leadership.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 152 TOPICS: Interest Group Strategies Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties 24. Which of the following best describes why interest groups try to generate public pressure? a. To convince policymakers that public opinion supports the group’s position b. To get the public to support only environmental initiatives c. To avoid the legislative process d. To make bureaucrats testify before Congress e. To directly lobby lawmakers ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 153 TOPICS: Indirect Techniques 25. Title III of the Legislative Reorganization Act of 1946 a. was Congress’ first attempt to control lobbyists and lobbying activities. b. is also known as the Lobbying Disclosure Act. c. provided for regulation more than for disclosure. d. failed to include a definition of “lobbyist.” e. proved to be very effective.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 153 TOPICS: Regulating Lobbyists 26. Legislation to reform the regulation of federal lobbying in 1995 resulted in all of the following EXCEPT a. lobbyists were forced to register. b. lobbying efforts had to be disclosed in semiannual reports. c. the Senate adopted a flat ban on gifts provided by lobbyists. d. a lobbyist was defined as someone who spent at least 20 percent of his or her time lobbying Congress, their staffs, or executive-branch officials. e. the House adopted a flat ban on gifts provided by lobbyists.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 153, 154 TOPICS: Regulating Lobbyists 27. An independent is a a. contrarian voter. b. voter or a candidate who does not identify with a political party. c. voter or a candidate who votes Democratic. d. voter or a candidate who votes Republican. e. voter or a candidate who votes Libertarian.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties REFERENCES: 154 TOPICS: Political Parties in the United States 28. Which of the following is true regarding political party membership? a. One must pay dues to be a member of a political party. b. An oath of allegiance is required by most political parties from its members. c. To be a member of a political party, one must be a card-carrying member. d. Nothing is required to be a member of a political party. e. One must pass an examination to be a member of a political party.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 154 TOPICS: Political Parties in the United States 29. A group or bloc in a legislature or political party acting in pursuit of some special interest or position is called a(n) a. minority opinion. b. independent party. c. exclusive committee. d. interest group. e. faction.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 166 TOPICS: The Role of Minor Parties in U.S. Politics 30. Which of the following is NOT a function of U.S. political parties? a. Taking the responsibility of operating the government b. Acting as the organized opposition to the party in power c. Signing up large numbers of committed, dues-paying members d. Recruiting political candidates e. Presenting alternative policies ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 154, 155 TOPICS: Functions of Political Parties in the United States 31. A political system in which only two parties have a reasonable chance of winning is called a. a bipartisan government. b. a two-party system. c. a bicameral system. d. bifurcated government. e. representative democracy.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 157 TOPICS: A History of Political Parties in the United States 32. George Washington viewed political parties as a a. necessity for the functioning of democracy. b. tradition from colonial times that would always exist. c. threat to national unity and the concept of popular government. d. legitimate means for interest groups to attempt to gain control of the government. e. vestige of politics under Great Britain and thus a thing of the past.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 157 TOPICS: The Formative Years: Federalists and Anti-Federalists 33. Which of the following statements about the early Republican Party is false? a. Thomas Jefferson initially led it. b. It favored a strong national government. c. Artisans and farmers supported the party. d. It was a staunch advocate of states' rights. e. When it was in office, its members acquired the Louisiana Territory and established a national bank.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 158 TOPICS: The Formative Years: Federalists and Anti-Federalists 34. All of the following statements about the early Democratic Party are true EXCEPT a. it came into existence when the Republican Party split in two. b. it was organized by supporters of Andrew Jackson. c. it favored personal liberty and opportunity for the “common man.” d. its hostility toward African Americans was an important force holding it together. e. it supported a policy of federal spending on “internal improvements” such as roads.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 158 TOPICS: Democrats and Whigs 35. The modern Republican Party was founded when the issue of ______ divided both existing political parties. a. income taxation b. export taxation c. slavery d. the stagnant domestic economy e. government response to public health issues Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 158 TOPICS: The Civil War Crisis 36. Which of the following best describes a national political realignment? a. When voters abandon a political party in droves b. When there is a major sea change c. A large-scale, lasting change in the types of voters who support each of the major political parties d. A major exodus from a political party to the point that it disappears e. A change in the dominant school of thought of the time ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 159 TOPICS: The Post–Civil War Period 37. Under Woodrow Wilson, the Democratic Party a. rejected progressivism. b. continued to adhere to the same basic policies that it did in the nineteenth century. c. began a radical change by becoming at least as receptive as the Republicans to government action in the economy. d. permanently split into three antagonistic factions. e. adopted a policy of isolating the United States from the affairs of the rest of the world.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 159, 160 TOPICS: The Progressive Interlude 38. Which of the following is true regarding politics and the Great Depression? a. The Great Depression shattered the working-class belief in Democratic economic competence. b. Hoover supported federal relief for the unemployed and the destitute. c. Roosevelt’s relief programs were generally not available to African Americans, resulting in African Americans’ antagonism toward the Democratic Party that lasted for decades. d. The Great Depression shattered the working-class belief in Republican economic competence. e. The Republican ascendancy lasted from the early 1930s until the late 1960s.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 160 TOPICS: The New Deal Era 39. Which of the following best describes the realignment of 1968? a. After 1968, the country was much less divided than before. b. After 1968, the country shifted to a majority of independents.

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties c. After 1968, the country shifted to a Democratic majority. d. After 1968, the country shifted to a Republican majority. e. After 1968, there was a slow-motion realignment that left the nation almost evenly divided in politics.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 160, 161 TOPICS: An Era of Divided Government 40. A major development in the run-up to the 2010 elections was the growth of the ______ movement. a. Tea Party b. Socialist c. Atheist d. Neo-Whig e. Labor ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 162 TOPICS: The Parties Today 41. The party organization is a. the members of the general public who identify with a political party. b. the formal structure and leadership of a political party. c. all of the elected and appointed officials who identify with a party. d. the urban machines that distribute social benefits. e. responsible only for mundane matters such as printing signs and scheduling events.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 155 TOPICS: Party Organization 42. The national convention of a national political party a. is held every nine years. b. officially nominates the presidential and vice-presidential candidates. c. works behind closed doors. d. purges its membership regularly. e. promotes the development of third parties.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 155 TOPICS: Party Organization 43. The document drawn up at each national convention outlining the policies, positions, and principles of the party is called the Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties a. rulebook. b. statement of intent. c. party platform. d. national promise. e. political covenant.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 155 TOPICS: Party Organization 44. For a political party, the national committee a. is not authorized to play any role in financing the party’s activities. b. is the strongest and most powerful part of the party. c. is dissolved after presidential elections. d. chooses the party’s nominee for president. e. directs and coordinates party activities between national party conventions.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 156 TOPICS: Party Organization 45. Which of the following best describes patronage? a. The practice of rewarding faithful party workers and followers with government employment and contracts b. Putting family members in government jobs c. Committing to voting for something in exchange for a favorable vote in return d. Equal opportunity without regard to race, creed, gender, national origin, or sexual orientation e. Giving people a reason to do something ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 156 TOPICS: Party Organization 46. Divided government is best understood as a. the situation when a person votes for candidates of two parties for different offices. b. the situation when the presidency and Congress are controlled by different parties. c. another name for federalism. d. increasing the control of the winning party in an election. e. the indication of a strong party identification among voters.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 157 TOPICS: Party Organization Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties 47. What is a plurality system? a. Whoever gets the most votes wins. b. Candidates must get more than 50 percent of votes cast to win. c. Votes are allocated to candidates on a proportional basis. d. Only parties receiving more than 5 percent of the vote are allocated seats. e. A party must have competed in a previous election to be placed on the ballot.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 164 TOPICS: The Winner-Take-All Electoral System 48. The ______ is one by which all of a state’s electoral votes are cast for the presidential candidate who receives a plurality of the votes in that state. a. patronage rule b. straight-ticket rule c. apportionment rule d. winner-take-all rule e. unit rule ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 164 TOPICS: The Winner-Take-All Electoral System 49. Many political scientists believe that third parties a. have consistently failed because they never reflect the political mood of the nation. b. have acted as safety valves for dissident groups, preventing major confrontations and political unrest. c. can only come into existence if they are organized around a single charismatic leader. d. can only come into existence if they split off from one of the major political parties. e. are incapable of being formed from scratch by individuals who are committed to a particular issue or ideology.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 165 TOPICS: The Role of Minor Parties in U.S. Politics 50. One of the main ways third parties have influenced American politics is by a. refusing to allow their policies to be adopted by a major party. b. sometimes determining the outcome of an election by pulling votes from one of the major-party candidates. c. focusing their efforts on getting judges appointed to the bench rather than winning elections for the executive or legislative branches. d. winning elections to state legislative bodies. e. gaining control of several municipal governments.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties REFERENCES: 166 TOPICS: The Role of Minor Parties in U.S. Politics 51. Contrast the various economic interest groups that exist in the nation. Does one group (or groups) stand a better chance of success than others to succeed in influencing public policy? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 146 TOPICS: Types of Interest Groups 52. Explain how economic interest groups, public-interest groups, and single-issue interest groups differ from each other.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 146 TOPICS: Types of Interest Groups 53. Identify which groups are most likely to be left out of the system of interest group politics. What significance does this have for society?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 146 TOPICS: Types of Interest Groups 54. What direct techniques are used by interest groups? Why do you think they choose a particular technique over others that they may employ?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 151 TOPICS: Interest Group Strategies 55. Explain the indirect techniques used by interest groups. Which techniques are more influential?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 152 TOPICS: Interest Group Strategies 56. Should there be more regulation of lobbyists and interest groups? Explain your answer.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 153 TOPICS: Regulating Lobbyists 57. Explain the importance of political parties to the U.S. political system in terms of the functions they perform.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 - Interest Groups and Political Parties REFERENCES: 154 TOPICS: Functions of Political Parties in the United States 58. Describe the evolution of political parties in the United States.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 157 TOPICS: A History of Political Parties in the United States 59. Explain the activities of political parties at the national, state, and local levels.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 155 TOPICS: Party Organization 60. Why do we only have two major parties? Explain the factors that have perpetuated the two-party system in the United States.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 162 TOPICS: Why Has the Two-Party System Endured

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections 1. Which of the following statements about recruiting candidates is true? a. Recruiting candidates is easier for Republicans. b. Recruiting candidates is easier for higher offices with more prestige. c. Recruiting candidates is harder for the office of register of deeds. d. Recruiting candidates is harder for the office of county treasurer. e. Recruiting candidates is easier for local offices than any other.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 171 TOPICS: Introduction 2. The people who wanted to be the Republican candidate in the 2012 presidential campaign first needed to raise enough funds to a. win the title of highest-funded candidate. b. put up billboards in urban areas. c. run for local office. d. tour the nation to see if they had enough local supporters. e. air attack ads on television.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 172 TOPICS: The Twenty-First-Century Campaign 3. Constitutionally, the President must be a. a citizen for at least twenty-one years. b. a citizen for at least thirty-five years. c. a naturalized immigrant to the United States. d. at least twenty-one years old. e. at least thirty-five years old.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 172 TOPICS: Who Is Eligible?

4. As detailed in the Constitution, the formal requirements for the office of senator include that he or she must be a. a citizen for at least seven years. b. a natural-born citizen. c. a resident of the state from which elected. d. a resident of a different state from the president. e. at least twenty-five years old.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 172 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections TOPICS:

Who Is Eligible?

5. The qualifications for state legislators are a. set by the state constitutions. b. set by the U.S. Constitution. c. usually higher for those in the lower chamber of the legislature. d. usually much more stringent than the legal qualifications for serving as governor. e. usually just an age requirement.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 172 TOPICS: Who Is Eligible?

6. Which of the following statements about political officeholders is true? a. Officeholders represent the general public. b. Officeholders are fairly evenly divided between men and women. c. Officeholders are mostly white and male. d. Officeholders are diverse, racially and ethnically speaking. e. Officeholders are Roman Catholics.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 172 TOPICS: Who Runs?

7. As a result of ______, the number of African American public officials has increased throughout the United States. a. improved educational opportunities b. public-awareness campaigns c. the Tenth Amendment d. major civil rights legislation in the 1960s e. decreasing interest in holding political office among whites ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 172 TOPICS: Who Runs?

8. With regard to candidates for office, all of the following are true EXCEPT a. until recently, women were considered to be appropriate candidates only for lower-level offices. b. today, only 35 percent of Americans say they would vote for a qualified woman for president. c. most candidates are white and male. d. the number of women running for office is increasing. e. candidates are likely to be professionals.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections REFERENCES: 173 TOPICS: Who Runs?

9. Which of the following statements best describe why lawyers are more likely to campaign for and hold political office? a. They have more flexible schedules, and political involvement can make a valuable contribution to their careers. b. The patients they see can wait for them, or see other professionals. c. They usually have summers off, which aids in campaigning. d. The money they make in political office is usually far more than what they make as blue collar workers. e. The connections they make in politics allow them to easily become CEOs when they eventually leave.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 173 TOPICS: Who Runs?

10. State and national candidates are typically nominated through a a. general election. b. primary election. c. judicial appointment. d. runoff election. e. party leader appointment.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 173 TOPICS: Managing the Campaign 11. Before the advent of ______, a strong party organization at the local, state, or national level could furnish most of the services candidates needed. a. Democratic dominance b. widespread political scandal c. political apathy d. television campaigning e. print media campaigning ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 174 TOPICS: Managing the Campaign 12. Why do campaigns no longer depend on political parties? a. Election laws make political parties irrelevant. b. Many candidates become liberals. c. Fewer people identify with them. d. Many candidates become independents.

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections e. Interest groups regulate campaign expenditures.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 174 TOPICS: Managing the Campaign 13. In 1954, fewer than 20 percent of adults identified themselves as ______, whereas today that share is about 40 percent. a. Republicans b. Democrats c. Libertarians d. Socialists e. Independents ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 174 TOPICS: Managing the Campaign 14. Today, in national elections, most campaign tasks are handled by a. former successful politicians. b. professionals who donate their time for free. c. amateur politicians. d. paid professionals. e. volunteers.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 174 TOPICS: Managing the Campaign 15. The job of a political consultant may include all of the following EXCEPT a. choosing the candidate’s official portrait. b. choosing campaign colors. c. overseeing campaign advertising. d. nominating a candidate for office. e. devising a campaign strategy.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 174 TOPICS: Managing the Campaign 16. If a candidate is a highly visible incumbent seeking reelection, a. name recognition may be a serious problem. b. they should leave the major parties and run as an independent. c. there may be little need for campaigning except to remind the voters of the officeholder’s good deeds.

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections d. the strategy will be to keep as low a profile as possible. e. the incumbent must devote almost every moment to campaigning to avoid seeming overly confident and arrogant.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 175 TOPICS: Managing the Campaign 17. Tracking polls are a. taken on a nearly daily basis as the election approaches. b. used by the government to determine if candidates receive illegal contributions. c. only relevant early in the campaign. d. usually not reliable sources of information. e. taken only by the regular pollsters (such as Roper, Harris, and Gallup).

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 175 TOPICS: Managing the Campaign 18. Which of the following best describes a focus group? a. A poll carried out on a regular basis to analyze long-term trends b. When professional consultants organize a discussion about candidates or certain political issues among small groups of ordinary citizens c. Phone calls that are made to certain likely voters d. A group that measures the national mood e. A census taken of a group ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 175 TOPICS: Managing the Campaign 19. In 2012, total campaign spending for ______ reached $2.6 billion. a. the presidential candidates alone b. the presidential and congressional candidates c. all national and state candidates for office combined d. all national, state, and local candidates for office combined e. the candidates for governor of California ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 175 TOPICS: Financing the Campaign 20. The Hatch Act of 1939 is best known for Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections a. facilitating the growth of political action committees. b. placing no limit on overall campaign spending. c. restricting the political activities of civil servants. d. being the first law designed to regulate campaign financing. e. its many loopholes and general ineffectiveness.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 176 TOPICS: The Evolution of the Campaign Finance System 21. Which Supreme Court ruling limited the amount that candidates could spend on their own campaigns, but was later found unconstitutional? a. Citizens United v. FEC (2010) b. Buckley v. Valeo (1976) c. The Hatch Act of 1939 d. The Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 e. The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 176 TOPICS: The Evolution of the Campaign Finance System 22. Reforms to the Federal Election Campaign Act in 1974 did NOT a. limit campaign contributions. b. provide public funding for presidential elections. c. provide public funding for congressional elections. d. require disclosure of contributions and spending. e. create the Federal Election Commission (FEC).

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 176 TOPICS: The Evolution of the Campaign Finance System 23. Which of the following statements about the Buckley v. Valeo case is true? a. The Supreme Court ruled that issue advocacy advertising was unconstitutional. b. The Supreme Court ruled that the use of focus groups in political campaigns was unconstitutional. c. The Supreme Court got rid of the Federal Election Commission. d. The Supreme Court ruled that the amount candidates could spend on their own campaigns cannot be limited. e. The Supreme Court ruled that it was unconstitutional to restrict in any way the amount congressional candidates could spend on their own behalf.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 176 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections TOPICS:

The Evolution of the Campaign Finance System

24. A committee set up by and representing a corporation, labor union, or special interest group to raise campaign donations is a a. focus group. b. political action committee. c. volunteer clearinghouse. d. special interest committee. e. political party organization.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 176 TOPICS: The Evolution of the Campaign Finance System 25. The number of political action committees (PACs) a. has remained stable since the 1970s. b. grew after 1976 but declined in the 1990s. c. grew significantly after 1976 but has leveled off since the 1990s. d. grew significantly between 1900 and 1950 but leveled off in the 1960s. e. has grown exponentially since 1976 to more than 20,000 today.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 176 TOPICS: The Evolution of the Campaign Finance System 26. “Soft money” in political campaigns is best described as a. campaign contributions made by foreigners. b. matching grants made by the federal government. c. small campaign donations. d. campaign contributions to political parties that escaped limits of federal or state election law. e. money obtained from illegal sources.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 177 TOPICS: The Evolution of the Campaign Finance System 27. The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002 banned a. soft money contributions to national parties. b. campaign ads by special interest groups. c. independent expenditures by special interests. d. the practice of lobbying. e. interference in presidential elections by the Federal Election Commission.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 177 TOPICS: The Evolution of the Campaign Finance System 28. Independent expenditures by special interests are a. coordinated by law with a candidate’s campaign. b. unregulated political expenditures by PACs, organizations, and individuals that are not coordinated with candidate campaigns or political parties. c. only allowed by labor and agricultural interests, not business interests. d. less important in the 2004 elections than in previous election years. e. no longer visible during modern political campaigns.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 177 TOPICS: The Current Campaign Finance Environment 29. Which of the following statements about “527” groups is true? a. They have not impacted campaigns. b. They were named after the number of members legally required to form the group. c. They run issue ads to energize voters. d. They must pay taxes which fund elections. e. They are no longer active.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 178 TOPICS: The Current Campaign Finance Environment 30. Advertising paid for by interest groups that support or oppose a candidate (or a candidate’s position on an issue) without mentioning voting or elections is called a. a PAC advertisement. b. a soft-money contribution. c. issue advocacy advertising. d. a hard-money expenditure. e. payola profiteering and pilfering.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 177 TOPICS: The Evolution of the Campaign Finance System 31. Under the 2010 Supreme Court ruling in Citizens United v. FEC, a. corporations and unions are allowed to make direct contributions of $100,000 or less to candidates. b. corporations and unions are allowed to make direct contributions of any amount to candidates. c. corporations and unions are banned from spending money on issue ads.

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections d. corporations and unions are limited to spending $100,000 per issue ad. e. corporations and unions are allowed to spend whatever they wish on issue ads.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 178 TOPICS: The Evolution of the Campaign Finance System 32. When or why were primary elections were first mandated? a. Primary elections were mandated by President Andrew Jackson. b. Primary elections were conducted to eliminate the practice of “beauty contests.” c. Primary elections strengthen the influence of party bosses. d. Primary elections started in 1968 in Chicago. e. Primary elections started in 1904 in Wisconsin.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 181 TOPICS: Running for President: The Longest Campaign 33. A meeting of party members designed to select candidates and propose policies is called a. an open primary. b. a caucus. c. a winner-take-all primary. d. a local election. e. a blanket primary.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 181 TOPICS: Reforming the Primaries 34. Superdelegates are a. party leaders or elected officials who are given the right to vote at the party’s national convention. b. the five delegates who raise the most money for the party. c. no longer permitted at national conventions. d. elected at the state level. e. appointed by the president.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 181 TOPICS: Reforming the Primaries 35. Candidates in state and local elections are mostly chosen by a. who looks the best on TV. b. Republican Party caucuses.

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections c. superdelegates from the Democratic Party. d. direct primaries. e. indirect primaries.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 181 TOPICS: Primaries and Caucuses 36. In 2012, most Republican Party presidential primaries and caucuses allocated delegates a. in a 70/30 split between Barack Obama and Hillary Clinton. b. on a winner-take-all basis. c. on a proportional basis. d. according to the results of “beauty contests.” e. according to the results of a poll among superdelegates.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 182 TOPICS: Primaries and Caucuses 37. When only declared party members can vote in a primary election, it is called a. a closed primary. b. an open primary. c. a run-off primary. d. a blanket primary. e. a caucus.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 182 TOPICS: Primaries and Caucuses 38. Which of the following best describes an open primary? a. Voters are allowed to vote for any candidate of their own political party. b. Voters can vote in either party primary without disclosing their party affiliation. c. Candidates have to compete in a single election of the top two vote-getters. d. The vote takes place on only one day. e. Voters can vote in a party caucus.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 182 TOPICS: Primaries and Caucuses 39. When the top two candidates in a primary compete in another primary for a majority of votes, it is called a. a closed primary.

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections b. an open primary. c. a run-off primary. d. a blanket primary. e. a caucus.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 182 TOPICS: Primaries and Caucuses 40. The process in which more and more states move their primaries into the first months of the year is known as a. impact-minimization. b. holding a “top-two” primary. c. holding blanket primaries. d. front-running. e. front-loading.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 183 TOPICS: Front-Loading the Primaries 41. What does each poltical party use to determine which delegates may participate in the national convention? a. A grassroots coalition b. A caucus committee c. A credentials committee d. A secret ballot e. A “beauty contest” ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 184 TOPICS: On to the National Convention 42. The selection of electors is governed by a. the Bill of Rights. b. the Freedom of Information Act. c. the National Electoral College Selection Act. d. local laws. e. state laws.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 185 TOPICS: The Electoral College 43. The number of members each state will have in the Electoral College Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections a. cannot exceed fifty members. b. cannot be changed without a constitutional amendment. c. changes every four years. d. equals that state’s number of senators plus its number of representatives. e. is the same so as to ensure that each state plays an equal role in selecting the president of the United States.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 185 TOPICS: The Electoral College 44. The Australian ballot is best described as a a. secret ballot prepared, distributed, and tabulated by government officials at public expense. b. color-coded ballot made by the political parties to show poll watchers who a voter is voting for. c. ballot manufactured in Geneva, Switzerland. d. voice vote, in lieu of a secret ballot. e. ballot used by the Democratic Party only.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 186 TOPICS: How Are Elections Conducted?

45. The two major parties prefer a(n) ______ ballot because it encourages straight-ticket voting. a. absentee b. oral c. open d. party-column e. office-block ballot ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 186 TOPICS: Office-Block and Party-Column Ballots 46. Some observers argue that an excessive concern with voting fraud makes it harder for a. Republicans to get voted into office. b. tracking polls to accurately predict election results. c. people to take election results seriously. d. women to vote. e. minorities and poor people to vote.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 186, 187 TOPICS: Voting Fraud and Voter ID Laws Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections 47. The number of eligible voters who cast ballots on Election Day is referred to as the a. political education rate. b. voter turnout. c. political participation rate. d. voter dissatisfaction rate. e. voter impact.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 188 TOPICS: Turning Out to Vote 48. Felons and ex-felons, and new immigrants who are not yet citizens, are included in the a. voting-age population. b. vote-eligible population. c. local election turnout numbers. d. state election turnout numbers. e. demographics usually targeted by minor parties.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 189 TOPICS: Turning Out to Vote 49. Regarding voter requirements, each state a. has different qualifications for voting and registration. b. must have identical voter registration qualifications. c. can impose residency requirements of any length in order for voters to register. d. requires voters to register by mail. e. allows voters to register up to the day of the election.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 190 TOPICS: Legal Restrictions on Voting 50. Compared to past campaigns, how different is campaigning in the twenty-first century? Use specific examples in your answer.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 172 TOPICS: The Twenty-First-Century Campaign 51. Explore the strategies devised by interest groups and parties to get around campaign finance reform legislation.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections REFERENCES: 175 TOPICS: Financing the Campaign 52. Describe the different kinds of primaries. How does the type of primary, and the timing of primaries, impact election results?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 180 TOPICS: Running for President: The Longest Campaign 53. The Electoral College is central to the American presidential electoral system. Explain how it works, when it has engendered controversial results, the criticisms it has endured, and why it has largely survived since 1804.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 185 TOPICS: The Electoral College 54. Describe the two schools of thought concerning the importance of low voter turnout.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 188 TOPICS: Turning Out to Vote 55. Explain how the right to vote has been expanded since the Constitution was written.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 190 TOPICS: Legal Restrictions on Voting 56. Voter fraud has been considered by some to be a serious issue. What reforms are needed, in your opinion, to set both qualifications for voting and deter or prevent fraudulent voting?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 186 TOPICS: Voting Fraud and Voter ID Laws 57. Many states have prohibited convicted felons from voting. Should this practice be continued, in your opinion? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 188 TOPICS: Turning Out to Vote 58. Describe the factors that influence political preferences. Which appear to be the most important? Why might this be?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

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Chapter 8 - Campaigns and Elections POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 191 TOPICS: How Do Voters Decide?

59. Some suggest that American adolescence is now widening into the early twenties. Should the voting age, therefore, be raised to 21 years of age? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 190 TOPICS: Legal Restrictions on Voting 60. Accordingly to the text, some argue that registration requirements are responsible for much of the nonparticipation in our political process. Do you agree? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students' answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 190 TOPICS: Legal Restrictions on Voting

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Chapter 9 - The Congress 1. In recent years, polls show that ______ of respondents have favorable opinions about Congress as a whole. a. fewer than 5 percent b. as few as 9 percent c. about 50 percent d. about 75 percent e. more than 90 percent ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 196 TOPICS: Introduction 2. The people represented by a legislator or other elected or appointed official are called a. delegates. b. trustees. c. constituents. d. representatives. e. members.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 197 TOPICS: Introduction 3. The framers of the Constitution assumed that most national power would be held by the a. executive branch. b. legislative branch. c. Department of Defense. d. bureaucracy. e. judicial branch.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 197 TOPICS: The Nature and Functions of Congress 4. The division of a legislature into two separate assemblies is called a. representative democracy. b. checks and balances. c. a two-party system. d. bicameralism. e. dual executives.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 197 TOPICS: Bicameralism Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 - The Congress 5. The practice of logrolling is a. an arrangement in which members of Congress agree in advance to support each others’ bills. b. when members of Congress undermine the personal credibility of their opponents. c. when members of Congress use unlimited debate as a delaying tactic to block a bill. d. when members of Congress attach amendments to bills. e. the process of putting together a budget.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 198 TOPICS: The Lawmaking Function 6. Congress’s main function is to a. enforce the laws. b. make laws. c. impeach high government officials. d. use its oversight power. e. decide whether or not laws are constitutional.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 197 TOPICS: Introduction 7. A majority of the bills that Congress acts on originate a. in congressional committees. b. with constituents from the district or state. c. in the executive branch. d. with individual members of Congress. e. with focus groups.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 198 TOPICS: The Lawmaking Function 8. A special provision in legislation to set aside funds for projects that have not passed an impartial evaluation by agencies in the executive branch is called a(n) a. unfunded mandate. b. backdoor clause. c. amendment. d. rider. e. earmark.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 - The Congress REFERENCES: 198 TOPICS: The Lawmaking Function 9. Which of the following statements best explain why the representation function is often a source of conflict for individual lawmakers? a. The interests of constituents in a specific district may be at odds with the demands of national policy. b. The laws they make might be what their constituents want. c. Trading votes might be useful in getting constituents what they need. d. The House often helps the Senate members meet the needs of constituents. e. The President often meddles in the affairs of individual states or House districts.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 198 TOPICS: The Representation Function 10. A representative who is performing the role of a trustee is a. mirroring the views of the majority of the constituents who elected him or her. b. supporting the president on all of his or her legislative programs. c. acting according to the broad interests of the entire society. d. supporting his or her political party. e. representing other members of Congress.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 198 TOPICS: The Representation Function 11. A representative who is performing the role of an instructed delegate is a. mirroring the views of the majority of the constituents who elected him or her. b. supporting the president on all of his legislative programs. c. acting according to the broad interests of the entire society. d. supporting his or her political party. e. representing other members of Congress.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 198 TOPICS: The Representation Function 12. Which of the following best describes a major problem with the role of the instructed delegate function of a member of Congress? a. The public might not support the President's policies. b. The constituents likely do not actually have well-formed views on the issues that are decided in Congress. c. Constituents may not be in the same political party as the representative. d. Members of Congress are often clueless about legislation.

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Chapter 9 - The Congress e. Congressmen and women have a hard time cooperating.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 198 TOPICS: The Representation Function 13. A legislator from Florida who votes, against his or her personal beliefs, to support subsidies for orange growers would be acting a. as a trustee. b. as a logroller. c. as an instructed delegate. d. on what he or she believes is best for the entire society. e. as an executive.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 198 TOPICS: The Representation Function 14. For a member of Congress, casework is a. logrolling. b. personal work for constituents. c. lawmaking. d. oversight. e. an enumerated power.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 199 TOPICS: Service to Constituents 15. Oversight is a. the process by which Congress follows up on the laws it has enacted. b. the process by which Congress reviews the actions of subcommittees. c. the time of the year that Congress chooses its leadership. d. when the President supervises the activity of the judicial branch. e. when Congress passes legislation.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 199 TOPICS: The Oversight Function 16. Which of the following is NOT a function of Congress? a. Determining if laws are constitutional b. Educating the public through hearings and debates Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 - The Congress c. Carrying out and executing the laws it has passed d. Representing constituents e. Resolving conflicts between different groups ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 197–200 TOPICS: The Nature and Functions of Congress 17. Determining which public policy questions will be debated or considered is the process of _____. a. oversight b. filibustering c. casework d. agenda setting e. logrolling ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 199 TOPICS: The Public-Education Function 18. Enumerated powers are a. powers that the executive branch has. b. powers that allow the president to do whatever he likes, as long as it carries out the Constitution. c. powers that are specifically granted to the national government by the Constitution. d. Supreme Court decisions. e. spelled out in the Necessary and Proper Clause of the Constitution.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 200 TOPICS: The Powers of Congress 19. The rights to collect taxes, to spend, and to regulate commerce are a. powers that have only recently been granted to Congress. b. powers reserved exclusively for the states. c. powers reserved for the president. d. the most important domestic powers of Congress. e. the most important foreign policy powers of Congress.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 200 TOPICS: The Powers of Congress 20. The necessary and proper clause a. has provided the basis for an expanded role of the national government.

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Chapter 9 - The Congress b. has greatly expanded the presidential powers. c. was in the original Constitution, but was eliminated as a consequence of the Twenty-Seventh Amendment. d. has served to limit the expansion of national authority. e. is located in the Constitution in the text of the Tenth Amendment.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 201 TOPICS: The Powers of Congress 21. Because of the large number of Representatives in the House of Representatives, a. House members tend to filibuster. b. the Senate acts on legislation far more quickly than the House. c. more formal rules are needed to govern how Congress operates. d. House members invoke cloture more often. e. a constitutional amendment has been proposed to decrease the size of the House and to increase the number in the Senate.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 201 TOPICS: Size and Rules 22. A filibuster is a. the use of unlimited debate as a delaying tactic to block a bill. b. an attempt to persuade others to vote for a particular bill in return for a favor at a later date. c. used in the House to force a standing committee to release a bill. d. a method used by the Speaker of the House to promote the majority party’s legislation. e. a technique that is unique to the House.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 201 TOPICS: Debate and Filibustering 23. The concept of cloture refers to a. a method used to defeat legislation in Congress. b. a process that shuts off discussion on a bill in the Senate. c. closed meetings held by both parties to elect their leadership or resolve other important issues. d. action taken by the House Rules Committee that must be approved by the Speaker. e. the resolution that adjourns Congress.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 201 TOPICS: Debate and Filibustering Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 - The Congress 24. Which of the following statements about the filibuster is false? a. Filibusters were rare. b. Recently, filibusters could start without senators having to make any speeches. c. Senators threaten to filibuster almost every significant piece of legislation that comes before the Senate. d. A new rule has been made to mandate that sixty Senators support major pieces of legislation, because of constant filibuster threats. e. Senators like filibusters, and do not want to abolish the practice.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 202 TOPICS: Debate and Filibustering 25. The largest occupational group among members of Congress is a. lawyers. b. educators. c. businesspersons. d. lobbyists. e. clergy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 202 TOPICS: Congresspersons and the Citizenry: A Comparison 26. The process of electing members of Congress is a. conducted at the national level by the federal government. b. conducted at the local level by municipal governments. c. decentralized and conducted by individual state governments. d. not subject to any national statutes. e. not mentioned anywhere in the Constitution.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 204 TOPICS: Congressional Elections and Apportionment 27. Which of the following statements about midterm elections is true? a. Voter turnout increases in midterm elections. b. The President’s party will usually gain seats in Congress. c. Voter turnout falls sharply in midterm elections. d. The President’s party will always be unaffected by midterm elections. e. Incumbents are more likely to lose midterm elections.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 205 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 - The Congress TOPICS:

Candidates for Congressional Elections

28. Reapportionment is a. the allocation of seats in the House to each state after each census. b. the redrawing of district boundaries within each state. c. a court order to hold new elections because of voting irregularities. d. altering a legislative formula that apportions spending among the states. e. a budget procedure used in the House.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 205 TOPICS: Apportionment of the House 29. Redistricting is a. the allocation of seats in the House to each state after each census. b. the redrawing of district boundaries within each state. c. a court order to hold new elections because of voting irregularities. d. altering a legislative formula that apportions spending among the states. e. an illegal method used by parties to gain political advantage.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 205 TOPICS: Apportionment of the House 30. The U.S. Supreme Court in 1962 made the redistricting of state legislative seats a. illegal. b. a justiciable question. c. unable to be reviewed in court. d. legal only in Illinois. e. the sole power of the President.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 205 TOPICS: Apportionment of the House 31. Gerrymandering is a. legislation passed in southern states to limit African American participation in elections. b. the drawing of legislative district boundary lines to give the dominant party an advantage. c. known to give the minority party an electoral advantage at the expense of the dominant party. d. a process that attempts to limit debate on a bill in the Senate. e. a method used by the president when he wants to prevent the passage of legislation.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 - The Congress REFERENCES: 206 TOPICS: Gerrymandering 32. Members of Congress are granted generous franking privileges that a. permit them to mail letters to their constituents for free. b. allow them to charge items to a special expense account. c. allow members unlimited phone calls to their district without charge. d. permit them to receive four, round-trip airfares to their district. e. allow them to hold events such as barbeques in their districts at taxpayer expense.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 202 TOPICS: Perks and Privileges 33. Which of the following statements about the people who work for Congress is false? a. They include office clerks, assistants, and professionals who deal with media relations and draft legislation. b. There are a larger number of staffers for House members than for senators. c. The total number of staff members has increased dramatically since 1960. d. About half of the people employed in the Capitol Hill bureaucracy are personal and committee staff members. e. Some staffers maintain local offices in the member’s home state or district.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 203 TOPICS: Perks and Privileges 34. The “speech or debate” clause in Article I, Section 6, of the Constitution means that a member of Congress a. may make any allegations in connection with official duties and normally not be sued for defamation. b. cannot be arrested for misdemeanors while Congress is in session. c. must agree to public debates with announced opponents during the campaign. d. cannot engage in foreign diplomacy without the approval of the administration. e. cannot be served with parking tickets issued within the District of Columbia.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 204 TOPICS: Perks and Privileges 35. Most of the actual work of legislating is a. performed by interest groups and then acted on by Congress. b. done in the Rules Committee of the Senate. c. performed on the floor of the House of Representatives. d. performed by the committees and subcommittees within Congress. e. done when the president signs it.

ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 - The Congress POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 209 TOPICS: How Congress Is Organized?

36. Standing committees are a. permanent bodies that are established by the rules of each chamber and that continue from session to session. b. committees that handle issues that the most important committees in Congress do not consider. c. committees that work with counterparts in the other house of Congress. d. committees that reconcile differences in an action. e. committees inside committees, which handle tasks that the main committee has no time for.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 210 TOPICS: Types of Congressional Committees 37. A _______ is formed by the concurrent action of both chambers of Congress and consists of members from each chamber. a. legislative union b. select committee c. standing committee d. joint committee e. conference committee ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 211 TOPICS: Types of Congressional Committees 38. The foremost power holder in the House of Representatives is the a. President of the House. b. majority leader. c. president pro tempore. d. Speaker of the House. e. chief whip.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 213 TOPICS: Leadership in the House 39. An important function of the House majority leader is to a. report all legislation to the president. b. deliver the bill to the White House. c. provide opposition to the president pro tempore of the Senate. d. foster cohesion among party members.

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Chapter 9 - The Congress e. preside over meetings of the House of Representatives.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 213 TOPICS: Leadership in the House 40. The whips assist the party leaders by a. voting to support the party platform at the national convention. b. attempting to convince the general public that congresspersons should vote the party line. c. passing information down from the leadership to party members and ensuring that members cast their votes on important issues. d. gathering research information. e. pressuring them to take positions popular among the party rank-and-file.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 214 TOPICS: Leadership in the House 41. The president of the Senate is a. the leader of the majority party in the Senate. b. the senator with the most seniority, regardless of party. c. the fourth person in line to succeed the president. d. the vice president of the United States. e. always a member of the majority party in the Senate.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 214 TOPICS: Leadership in the Senate 42. The de facto power in the Senate belongs to a. President of the Senate. b. President pro tempore of the Senate. c. Senator designate selected by the president. d. Senate majority and minority leaders and their respective whips. e. the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 214 TOPICS: Leadership in the Senate 43. The ______ of the Senate is mostly a ceremonial position. a. president pro tempore b. majority leader Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 - The Congress c. minority leader d. majority whip e. minority whip ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 214 TOPICS: Leadership in the Senate 44. “Budget bills” must originate a. in the Senate. b. in the House. c. in conference committee. d. with the president. e. from any of the above sources.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 215 TOPICS: Lawmaking and Budgeting 45. Once a bill gets referred to a committee, a. a vote is held immediately in both houses of Congress on whether the bill should become law. b. it cannot make changes in the wording of the bill. c. it usually goes to a specialized subcommittee for hearings, revisions, and approval. d. it immediately goes to the other house of Congress. e. the committee must work with the President to report or table the legislation.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 215, 216 TOPICS: Lawmaking and Budgeting 46. The job of a conference committee is to a. originate appropriations bills. b. write a compromise bill, if the House and Senate bills contain different provisions. c. set the rules of debate for a bill. d. determine the committee path of a bill. e. override a presidential veto.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 215 TOPICS: Lawmaking and Budgeting 47. The Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 requires a. each member of Congress to inform constituents of their votes on appropriations measures.

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Chapter 9 - The Congress b. the president to spend the funds that Congress has appropriated. c. a balanced budget by the 2030 fiscal year. d. the president to present an executive budget. e. budgets to receive the approval of the American people before they go into effect.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 217 TOPICS: How Much Will the Government Spend?

48. One of the most powerful agencies in Washington, the _______ assembles the budget documents and monitors federal agencies throughout each year. a. Council of Economic Advisers b. Senate Budget Committee c. Department of Budget and Commerce d. House Ways and Means Committee e. Office of Management and Budget ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 217 TOPICS: Preparing the Budget 49. The actual passage of a spending bill specifying the amount of authorized funds that will be allocated for an agency’s use is called a. authorization. b. appropriation. c. allocation. d. reconciliation. e. consolidation.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 218 TOPICS: Preparing the Budget 50. A temporary funding law that Congress passes when an appropriations bill has NOT been passed by the beginning of the fiscal year is a. the Emergency Revenue Generation Act. b. a continuing resolution. c. an Emergency Fall Review. d. a Second Temporary Budget Resolution. e. a spring review.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 219 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 - The Congress TOPICS:

Budget Resolutions and Crises

51. Identify and describe the three most important powers Congress has, and explain why you think they rank as such.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 197–201 TOPICS: The Nature and Functions of Congress 52. Compare and contrast the trustee and instructed-delegate theories of representation.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 198 TOPICS: The Representation Function 53. How does the filibuster affect the workings of Congress, positively and negatively?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 201 TOPICS: Debate and Filibustering 54. Compare the membership of Congress and the “typical” American citizen.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 202 TOPICS: Congresspersons and the Citizenry: A Comparison 55. Explain reapportionment and redistricting, and describe how they can affect political outcomes.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 205 TOPICS: Apportionment of the House 56. Identify and describe the different types of committees and their functions, and assess their function in the lawmaking process.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 210 TOPICS: Types of Congressional Committees 57. Explain the roles played by the members of the House and Senate leadership.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 212–215 TOPICS: Leadership in the House Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 - The Congress 58. Explain how and where a bill can be stopped in the legislative process.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 215 TOPICS: How Much Will the Government Spend?

59. Explain how a bill becomes a law.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 216 TOPICS: How Much Will the Government Spend?

60. Describe the budget cycle.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 217 TOPICS: Preparing the Budget

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency 1. Regarding the chief executive, the writers of the Constitution a. were all in agreement about the necessity of a powerful executive for the new republic. b. modeled the presidency of the United States after the Prime Minister of France. c. had no models to follow when they created the presidency of the United States. d. originally wanted a king. e. created a leader with unchecked powers.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 224 TOPICS: Introduction 2. According to the Constitution, the minimum age to be President is a. twenty-five years. b. thirty years. c. thirty-five years. d. forty years. e. forty-five years.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 225 TOPICS: A “Natural Born Citizen” 3. Who was the youngest person to be elected president of the United States? a. John F. Kennedy b. George W. Bush c. Theodore Roosevelt d. Ronald Reagan e. Abraham Lincoln ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 225 TOPICS: A “Natural Born Citizen” 4. Which of the following best describes the people who have been elected president? a. Older and from western states b. Primarily Catholics and Jews c. Military commanders from the South d. White, male, Protestants e. California natives ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 225 TOPICS: A “Natural Born Citizen” Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency 5. To be elected president, a candidate must obtain a. a majority of the popular vote. b. a majority of the electoral vote. c. more popular votes than any other candidate. d. more electoral votes than any other candidate. e. every electoral vote.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 226 TOPICS: The Process of Becoming President 6. When the Electoral College fails to elect a president, what happens? a. The current president serves two more years and another general election is held. b. The candidate who receives a plurality of the popular vote is elected. c. The electors cast a second ballot to determine who will be elected. d. The election is decided in the House of Representatives. e. The election is decided in the Senate.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 226 TOPICS: The Process of Becoming President 7. Which of the following is true regarding presidential election campaigns? a. One can become president without winning the popular vote. b. So far, all of the presidents have had a majority of the popular vote when elected. c. A third candidate for the presidency has never had any impact on the outcome of the election. d. The House of Representatives is incapable of making a decision on who will be president. e. There have not yet been any occasions on which the Electoral College has failed to give any candidate a majority.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 226 TOPICS: The Process of Becoming President 8. Which Amendment required that the President and the Vice President be chosen separately? a. Marbury v. Madison b. The Executive Voting Act c. The Third Amendment d. The Sixth Amendment e. The Twelfth Amendment ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency REFERENCES: 226 TOPICS: The Process of Becoming President 9. The president, in the role of head of state, is responsible for a. determining which countries the United States will have diplomatic relations. b. acting as the ceremonial head of the government. c. conducting the foreign policy of the country. d. leading the legislative process by submitting legislation. e. administering the laws.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 226 TOPICS: Head of State 10. Which Presidential power or duty is most likely to give the president tremendous public exposure, which can be an important asset in a campaign for reelection? a. Chief oversight officer b. Chief legislator c. Independent status d. Head of state e. Resident of the White House ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 226 TOPICS: Head of State 11. As chief executive, the president is constitutionally bound to a. enforce the acts of Congress, treaties signed by the United Staes, and judgments of federal courts. b. submit a balanced budget to Congress. c. engage in preemptive military action. d. oversee actions of state governments. e. honor pronouncements of the United Nations.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 227 TOPICS: Chief Executive 12. The collective term for the body of employees working for the government, generally understood to apply to all those who gain employment through a merit system, is a. civil service employees. b. political appointees. c. the political rank-and-file. d. the nonpartisan employee pool.

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency e. the bureaucratic troops.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 227 TOPICS: Chief Executive 13. Which of the following best describes the President's appointment power? a. The President has executive power to enforce the laws. b. The President appoints cabinet and subcabinet jobs, federal judgeships, agency heads, and several thousand lesser jobs. c. The President can veto laws. d. The President can terminate appointments with a three-quarter Congressional approval. e. The President can receive ambassadors or other foreign officials.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 227 TOPICS: Chief Executive 14. Which of the following aspects of the President's role as chief executive is false? a. The president fills cabinet and subcabinet positions. b. The president may, to a limited extent, fire certain government employees. c. The president is owed political allegiance by all 2.7 million federal employees. d. The president must “take care that the laws be faithfully executed.” e. The federal bureaucracy assists the President in carrying out various tasks.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 227 TOPICS: Chief Executive 15. The granting of release from the punishment for a crime is called a. a reprieve. b. a congressional sanction. c. a pardon. d. executive privilege. e. impeachment.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 227 TOPICS: Chief Executive 16. A reprieve is a. when the President forgives someone of a crime. b. when the President issues a formal postponement of the execution of a sentence imposed by a court of law.

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency c. when the President makes a sentence less severe. d. when Congress metes out a symbolic punishment delivered to any of its members who criticize the president. e. unconstitutional.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 228 TOPICS: Chief Executive 17. As commander in chief, the president is a. only a symbolic leader of the military. b. the ultimate decision maker in military matters. c. allowed to make military decisions, but only with the approval of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. d. not responsible for military decisions. e. one of five people with the power to order the use of nuclear force.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 228 TOPICS: Commander in Chief 18. Which of the following best describes the War Powers Resolution? a. The Supreme Court’s decision in United States v. Curtiss-Wright Export Corp. b. The requirement that the President report to Congress within forty-eight hours of sending troops into action, and then obtain the approval of Congress within sixty days c. An Act of Congress that gives the President sweeping powers to defend the nation against terrorists, subversives, and any enemy combatant of the United States d. A policy pronounced by President Ronald Reagan that supported aid to any country or people resisting Communism e. Resolution explained in Article II of the Constitution ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 228, 229 TOPICS: Commander in Chief 19. The presidential power known as diplomatic recognition a. is a relatively meaningless tradition. b. has seldom been used by any president. c. is the power of the president to recognize, or not recognize, foreign governments. d. is a simple and uncontroversial part of the president’s duties. e. has been used more by Congress than by the president.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 229 TOPICS: Chief Diplomat Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency 20. In order for a treaty to go into effect, it must be a. signed by the members of the UN Security Council. b. approved by three-fourths of the state legislatures. c. passed by a Supreme Court majority. d. approved by a two-thirds vote in the Senate. e. approved by a majority vote in both houses of Congress.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 229 TOPICS: Chief Diplomat 21. An international agreement with the head of a foreign state made by the president without Senate approval is a. a treaty. b. an executive agreement. c. a signing statement. d. constitutionally required to be funded by Congress. e. subject to expiration after one year.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 230 TOPICS: Chief Diplomat 22. The State of the Union message is a. delivered by the president to the General Assembly of the United Nations at least once every four years. b. a policy statement of Congress over which the president seldom has influence. c. required by the Constitution and gives a broad view of what the president wishes the legislature to accomplish during its session. d. an effective tool used by the president to limit other countries’ foreign policy endeavors in this hemisphere. e. constitutionally limited to reviewing the events of the last year.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 231 TOPICS: Chief Legislator 23. In order for the President to veto a law, he a. must propose an alternative bill to Congress. b. cannot veto again until ten days have passed. c. must have the approval of the leadership of both houses of Congress. d. must return the bill to Congress with a veto message. e. does it free of being overridden by Congress.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 231 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency TOPICS:

Chief Legislator

24. If the president refuses to sign a bill and Congress adjourns within ten working days after the bill has been submitted to the president, it is called a a. line-item veto. b. pocket veto. c. political statement. d. signing statement. e. legislative postponement.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 231, 232 TOPICS: Chief Legislator 25. Which of the following happens when the president signs a bill? a. He or she cannot include any instructions as to how to administer the law. b. He or she is exercising the right to a pocket veto. c. It goes back to the Senate for ratification. d. It goes back to Congress, which has ten days to modify it. e. It becomes law.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 231 TOPICS: Chief Legislator 26. Which of the following statements about the line-item veto is true? a. It was used only in treaty ratification. b. It was found to be unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court in 1998. c. It was given to the president of the United States, but prohibited to state governors. d. It was denied to the president by an act of Congress. e. It was frequently used on specific spending provisions by President George W. Bush.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 232 TOPICS: Chief Legislator 27. A veto is a. usually employed to punish members of the president’s party who disagree with him. b. more likely when the president’s party controls Congress. c. a clear-cut indication of the president’s dissatisfaction with legislation. d. likely to be overridden about half the time. e. required to be used at least once during each president’s term.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 231 TOPICS: Chief Legislator 28. Which of the following is true about signing statements? a. They are written declarations that a president may make when signing a bill into law regarding the law’s enforcement. b. They can only be used to make rhetorical statements. c. They cannot be used to praise or denounce political parties. d. They were used frequently in the nineteenth century, but are rarely used today. e. They were used by President Reagan to make more sweeping claims on behalf of presidential power than any other president.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 237 TOPICS: Signing Statements 29. Which of the following best defines statutory power? a. Powers that are given to the President by the Constitution b. Powers that are given to the Congress c. Power created for the president through laws enacted by Congress d. Temporary powers e. Inherent powers ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 235 TOPICS: Presidential Powers 30. Rewarding faithful party workers with government employment is called a. “going public.” b. pork. c. patronage. d. executive privilege. e. civil service.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 232 TOPICS: Party Chief and Politician 31. Which of the following is TRUE regarding presidential fundraising? a. The president of the United States is prohibited from engaging in fund-raising activities by Article II of the Constitution. b. By the 1990s and early twenty-first century, presidents were no longer willing to lower themselves to “begging for money” and limited their fund raising.

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency c. Most presidents rely on others to raise money for them because it is not part of the role of the president to raise money. d. Barack Obama had spectacular success in raising funds as a candidate. e. Congress has enacted legislation prohibiting a sitting president from engaging in fund-raising activities.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 233 TOPICS: Party Chief and Politician 32. Which of the following statements best explain the use of Presidential popularity as it affects the legislative process? a. It is irrelevant to Congress or bureaucrats. b. It is rarely measured by pollsters. c. It is of little concern to second-term presidents. d. It is required before a president may claim executive privilege. e. It is an extra resource to use to persuade Congress to pass legislation.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 233 TOPICS: Party Chief and Politician 33. Which of the following is true concerning presidential popularity? a. President Bush enjoyed high popularity ratings throughout his presidency. b. President Obama’s approval numbers have always been lower than President Bush’s. c. President Obama’s approval ratings peaked in August 2010. d. President Bush had only a 25 percent public approval rating by the time he left office. e. President Bush’s approval ratings in 2004 were the highest ever recorded.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 233 TOPICS: Party Chief and Politician 34. Which of the following is true about Presidential emergency powers? a. They are listed in the Twenty-second Amendment. b. They have never been exercised. c. They are listed in each amendment of the Bill of Rights. d. They were first enunciated in the Supreme Court’s decision in United States v. Curtiss-Wright Export Corp. e. They are not outlined in the Constitution.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 235 TOPICS: Emergency Powers 35. A rule or regulation issued by the president that has the effect of law is a(n) Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency a. legislative declaration. b. presidential statute. c. Congressional override. d. emergency provision. e. executive order.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 236 TOPICS: Executive Orders 36. An executive order must be a. published in the Federal Register. b. approved by Congress. c. approved by a majority of the cabinet. d. issued only when Congress is not in session. e. avoided in matters concerning foreign policy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 236 TOPICS: Executive Orders 37. Which of the following statements best defines executive privilege? a. The President can withhold some information from Congress or the courts. b. Members of the executive branch are free from prosecution. c. The President employs the pocket veto at will. d. The president makes political appointments. e. It stipulates that requests from the President has the force of law.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 236 TOPICS: Executive Orders 38. In United States v. Nixon, the Supreme Court ruled that a. a sitting president cannot be sued in civil court for offenses that occurred before the president took office. b. executive privilege could not be used to prevent evidence from being heard in criminal proceedings. c. congressional approval must be granted before presidents make use of executive privilege. d. the president is immune from criminal prosecution except for impeachable crimes. e. members of the Secret Service cannot be required to testify against the president.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 237 TOPICS: Executive Privilege Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency 39. According to the Constitution, impeachment a. cannot be used against an incumbent president. b. can only be applied to a president who has committed treason. c. can only be used against a president who has committed a violation of criminal law. d. charges are voted on by the House of Representatives and, if approved, go to the Senate for a trial. e. has been used against only one president.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 237 TOPICS: Abuses of Executive Power and Impeachment 40. In the history of the United States, no president has ever a. been impeached and acquitted. b. died while in office. c. been impeached and convicted. d. resigned from office. e. been impeached.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 237 TOPICS: Abuses of Executive Power and Impeachment 41. _____ and _____ are the only presidents in American history to have been impeached and acquitted. a. Andrew Johnson; Bill Clinton b. Richard Nixon; Franklin Roosevelt c. Andrew Jackson; Herbert Hoover d. Thomas Jefferson; Martin Van Buren e. Andrew Jackson; Jimmy Carter ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 237, 238 TOPICS: Abuses of Executive Power and Impeachment 42. Today, the members of the cabinet a. are an informal group of presidential advisers. b. are limited to the heads of the fifteen executive departments. c. include fourteen department secretaries and the attorney general, plus other top officials chosen by the president. d. include only the heads of the Departments of State, Justice, Defense, and Treasury, plus the heads of the EPA, CIA, and FBI. e. are a subset of any six executive department heads, chosen by the president.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency REFERENCES: 238 TOPICS: The Cabinet 43. Informal advisers to the president are referred to as a. FOP, or friends of the President. b. the kitchen cabinet. c. the Executive Counsel. d. the cabinet. e. the brain trust.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 239 TOPICS: The Cabinet 44. All of the following are true of the president’s cabinet EXCEPT a. originally, it consisted of only four officials. b. they usually have some experience in the area of the cabinet position. c. they are heads of executive departments. d. it is thoroughly detailed in the Constitution as to what the cabinet should do. e. the cabinet is an advisory group selected by the president to aid in making decisions.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 238 TOPICS: The Executive Organization 45. The organization established by President Franklin D. Roosevelt to assist the president in carrying out major duties is called a. the kitchen cabinet. b. the cabinet. c. the Executive Office of the President. d. the Council of Presidential Advisors. e. the system of checks on executive power.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 239 TOPICS: The Executive Office of the President 46. The personal office of the president is a. the Office of Economic Advisers. b. the cabinet. c. the Executive Office of the President. d. the White House Office. e. the Domestic Policy Council.

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 240 TOPICS: The Executive Office of the President 47. The Office of Management and Budget is charged with a. helping Congress write the budget. b. helping the president prepare the annual budget. c. revising the budget passed by Congress. d. reducing the scope of the federal budget. e. replacing the House Appropriations Committee.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 241 TOPICS: The Executive Office of the President 48. The National Security Council is a link between a. Congress and the president. b. leaders of foreign governments and the president. c. the Securities and Exchange Commission and the president. d. the president’s key foreign and military advisers and the president. e. state governments and the president.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 241 TOPICS: The Executive Office of the President 49. According to the Twenty-fifth Amendment, if a president’s ability to discharge his normal functions is in question and he is unable to communicate, a. the Supreme Court is empowered to select a physician to certify whether or not the president is able to perform the functions of his office. b. the Speaker of the House becomes acting president until the matter is resolved. c. a majority of the cabinet, including the vice president, can declare the president incapable. d. the president must be permanently removed from office. e. the vice president has the exclusive power to determine the president’s capability.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 242 TOPICS: Presidential Succession 50. After the Speaker of the House, the next person in the line of succession to the presidency is the a. Senate president pro tempore. b. Secretary of State.

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency c. Chief of Staff. d. Attorney General. e. Secretary of Homeland Security.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 243 TOPICS: Preidential Succession 51. What are the constitutional requirements to run for the presidency? Should more be added? Explain.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 225 TOPICS: The Age of the President 52. Explain the president’s role as head of state.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 226 TOPICS: Head of State 53. Describe the president’s role as chief executive, and outline any Constitutional limitations of this power.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 227 TOPICS: Chief Executive 54. How have presidents exercised their role as commander in chief? How did Congress attempt to limit this power in the War Powers Resolution?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 228 TOPICS: Commander in Chief 55. Examine the president’s role as chief diplomat.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 229 TOPICS: Chief Diplomat 56. Examine the president’s role as chief legislator, and outline the impact of the other two branches of government on this role.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 230 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - The Presidency TOPICS:

Chief Legislator

57. Analyze the president’s functions as party chief and superpolitician.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 232 TOPICS: Party Chief and Politician 58. Explain the concept of executive privilege and how it has been used by the presidents.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 236 TOPICS: Executive Privilege 59. Compare the two impeachment occurrences in U.S. history with the near-impeachment of President Nixon. Should any of the three Presidents involved have been impeached and convicted? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 236, 237 TOPICS: Executive Privilege 60. Contrast the importance of the cabinet and the Executive Office of the President.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 238–241 TOPICS: The Cabinet The Executive Office of the President

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy 1. Polls consistently report that the majority of Americans support a. “big government.” b. “less government.” c. removing protections for endangered species. d. defunding Medicare. e. eliminating most social programs.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 247 TOPICS: Introduction 2. Bureaucracy is the name given to a. a large organization, structured hierarchically, that carries out specific functions. b. any organization that has major problems when attempting to accomplish its goals. c. a group of people who work to enforce policies in a way that prevents quick results. d. any large branch of a government that has power to interpret laws. e. government organizations, but not to corporate or university organizations.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 248 TOPICS: The Nature and Scope of the Federal Bureaucracy 3. The units of organization inside a bureaucracy are divided a. by Congressional committee jurisdiction. b. by Congressional mandate. c. according to the desires of the President. d. according to the specialization and expertise of the employees. e. along the pay grade of the employees.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 248 TOPICS: The Nature and Scope of the Federal Bureaucracy 4. In contrast to government bureaucracies, private corporations a. are subject to the dictates of Congress for their funding. b. have a single set of leaders. c. require a division of labor to handle complex problems, while governments do not. d. are supposed to perform their functions efficiently to conserve taxpayer dollars. e. cannot be considered bureaucratic organizations.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 248 TOPICS: Public and Private Bureaucracies Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy 5. One of the important differences between public bureaucracies and private corporations is that government bureaucracies a. are not organized to make a profit, whereas private corporations are. b. have a single set of leaders, whereas private corporations do not. c. are much larger than private corporations. d. are not intended to serve the citizenry as private corporations are. e. present an opportunity for career advancement, whereas private corporations do not.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 248 TOPICS: Public and Private Bureaucracies 6. Which of the following statements best describe how much the President has changed the structure and function of the bureaucracy? a. Presidents have been somewhat able to do this. b. Presidents have been very reluctant to change anything, much less the bureaucracy. c. Presidents have not tried to do so. d. Presidents have changed the structure and function of the bureaucracy significantly. e. Presidents have not changed the structure and function of the bureaucracy.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 249 TOPICS: Public and Private Bureaucracies 7. In 1789, the government’s bureaucracy was a. nonexistent. b. miniscule. c. about half the size it is today. d. organized around five departments. e. funded privately by wealthy politicians.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 249 TOPICS: The Size of the Bureaucracy 8. The original government bureaucracy included the Attorney General’s Office and the departments of a. Security, Treasury, and the Interior. b. State, War, and Energy. c. State, War, and Treasury. d. Treasury and Transportation. e. Defense and Education.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 249 TOPICS: The Size of the Bureaucracy 9. How many employees are there in the federal bureaucracy, excluding members of the armed forces? a. 200,000 b. 500,000 c. 1 million d. 2.7 million e. 14 million ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 249 TOPICS: The Size of the Bureaucracy 10. Excluding military members, the number of federal government employees has a. increased significantly in the last several decades. b. remained relatively stable for the last several decades. c. decreased substantially in the last few decades.. d. grown to exceed the number of local government employees. e. grown to exceed the number of state government employees.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 249 TOPICS: The Size of the Bureaucracy 11. Since 1952, government employment has a. grown mostly at the state and local levels. b. grown at the state level but decreased at the local level. c. grown at the local level but decreased at the state level. d. decreased at every level. e. decreased at the state and local levels but increased at the federal level.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 250 TOPICS: The Size of the Bureaucracy 12. Government spending in 2007 increased mostly due to legislation designed to address a. infrastructure spending. b. education spending cuts. c. foreign aid. d. the “Great Recession.” e. the stock market crash of 1929.

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 250 TOPICS: The Federal Budget 13. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major types of structures within the executive branch? a. Independent regulatory agencies b. Cabinet departments c. Privatized bureaucracies d. Government corporations e. Independent executive agencies ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 251–258 TOPICS: Cabinet Departments 14. Which part of the federal government employs most of the government’s staff? a. The judiciary b. The legislative branch c. The federal courts d. The executive branch e. The Internal Revenue Service ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 251, 254, 255 TOPICS: Cabinet Departments 15. Which of the following is true about the cabinet departments? a. All were described and mandated by the Constitution. b. All are privatized bureaucracies. c. All are directly accountable to the president. d. All consist of agencies that set up rules for Congress in passing laws. e. The official cabinet departments cannot ever number more than ten, according to the Constitution.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 251 TOPICS: Cabinet Departments 16. In terms of management, the cabinet departments are considered a. line organizations. b. lacking personnel. c. the watchdogs for independent agencies. d. part of the judicial branch.

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy e. accountable directly to Congress.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 251 TOPICS: Cabinet Departments 17. Which of the following is true regarding the establishment of cabinet departments? a. The first cabinet department to be created was Treasury and the most recently created was Education. b. The first cabinet department to be created was State and the most recently created was Homeland Security. c. The first cabinet department to be created was War and the most recently created was Energy. d. The first cabinet department to be created was Treasury and the most recently created was Health and Human Services. e. The first cabinet department to be created was State and the most recently created was Veterans Affairs.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 251 TOPICS: Cabinet Departments 18. Which of the following Cabinet departments is not headed by a Secretary of that department? a. Defense. b. State. c. Justice. d. Treasury. e. Interior.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 251 TOPICS: Cabinet Departments 19. Labor, Agriculture, and Interior are examples of a. cabinet departments. b. government corporations. c. independent regulatory agencies. d. independent executive agencies. e. corporations subject to regulation.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 252 TOPICS: Cabinet Departments 20. In terms of numbers, each cabinet department is served by a. a handful of individuals, selected directly by the president. b. dozens of individuals.

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy c. hundreds of individuals, a few of whom are under Presidential control. d. thousands of individuals, a few of whom are under Presidential control. e. hundreds of individuals.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 251 TOPICS: Cabinet Departments 21. Independent executive agencies are a. private organizations. b. responsible for regulating major aspects of the economy. c. federal agencies that are not part of a cabinet department, but report directly to the president. d. responsible directly to Congress. e. staffed entirely by political appointees.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 251 TOPICS: Independent Executive Agencies 22. Typically, an independent regulatory agency is responsible for a. monitoring the actions of the cabinet department heads. b. national defense-related legislation. c. monitoring the lower courts. d. a specific type of public policy. e. monitoring the actions of Congress.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 253 TOPICS: Independent Regulatory Agencies 23. Because Congress felt it was unable to handle the complexities and technicalities required to carry out specific laws in the public interest, it created a. cabinet departments. b. independent executive agencies. c. independent regulatory agencies. d. government corporations. e. private associations.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 254, 255 TOPICS: Independent Regulatory Agencies 24. Which of the following independent regulatory agencies was the first one created by Congress?

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy a. The National Wildlife Service. b. The Federal Reserve. c. The Department of Health and Human Services. d. The Office of Management and Budget. e. The Interstate Commerce Commission.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 253, 254 TOPICS: Independent Regulatory Agencies 25. Regulatory agencies and commissions perform a. only executive functions. b. only legislative functions. c. only judicial functions. d. some functions of all branches of government—legislative, executive, and judicial. e. private corporate functions.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 255 TOPICS: Independent Regulatory Agencies 26. Heads of regulatory agencies and members of agency boards or commissions are a. hired through a merit-based open hiring system. b. appointed by the House of Representatives. c. appointed by the Senate. d. appointed by the president. e. legally required to be all from the same political party.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 255 TOPICS: Independent Regulatory Agencies 27. Agency capture is when a. an agency takes over an industry. b. the industry that is being regulated gains control over the agency that is supposed to regulate it. c. the agency completely ignores an industry that it is supposed to regulate. d. the agency abolishes a private corporation and merges it with itself. e. pork-barrel spending occurs.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 255, 256 TOPICS: Independent Regulatory Agencies Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy 28. Significant deregulation was initiated during the presidency of a. John F. Kennedy. b. Richard Nixon. c. Jimmy Carter. d. George H.W. Bush. e. Barack Obama.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 256 TOPICS: Independent Regulatory Agencies 29. Which of the following statements is true regarding government corporations? a. Profits from government corporations are distributed as dividends. b. Government corporations must pay taxes on profits. c. Government corporations do not employee many people. d. You can buy shares of stock in both a private corporation and a government corporation. e. Government corporations do not have any stockholders.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 257 TOPICS: Government Corporations 30. Which of the following is the largest and most famous government corporation? a. Amtrak b. The Department of Homeland Security c. The U.S. Postal Service d. The Reconstruction Finance Corporation e. The Corporation for Public Broadcasting ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 257 TOPICS: Government Corporations 31. One type of government corporation is the ______, a business created by the federal government itself, which then sells part or all of the corporation’s stock to private investors. a. collaborative company b. temporary agency c. federal takeover d. government-sponsored enterprise e. public-private partnership ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 258 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy TOPICS:

Government Corporations

32. The two categories of bureaucrats are _____ and _____ . a. partisan appointees; nonpartisan appointees. b. congressional appointees; presidential appointees. c. civil servants; private employees. d. political appointees; patronage employees. e. political appointees; civil servants.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 258 TOPICS: Staffing the Bureaucracy 33. After each presidential election, all of the jobs that usually go to the politically well-connected are listed in what is informally known as the a. Most Wanted List. b. Beige Book. c. Congressional Quarterly. d. Federal Register. e. Plum Book.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 258 TOPICS: Staffing the Bureaucracy 34. The average term of service for political appointees is a. less than one year. b. less than two years. c. more than two years but less than a president’s full term in office. d. four years. e. more than ten years.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 258 TOPICS: Political Appointees 35. What percent of federal employees have been fired for incompetence in recent years? a. Fewer than 0.1% b. 10% c. 12% d. 5% e. More than 50% ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 259 TOPICS: Political Appointees 36. Which of the following BEST defines the spoils system? a. Using civil service exams to hire qualified individuals b. The brainchild of President Abraham Lincoln c. Making the impounding of federal spending illegal d. The awarding of government jobs to political supporters and friends e. Cutting entire agencies that are considered “spoiled” by corruption ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 259 TOPICS: History of the Federal Civil Service 37. The merit system refers to a. job appointment based on competitive examinations. b. a system of checks on Congress intended to prevent discrimination. c. a process of selecting policies based on their value. d. a system that was used for hiring bureaucrats under Andrew Jackson. e. using work experience in lieu of educational qualifications when applying for federal positions.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 259 TOPICS: History of the Federal Civil Service 38. The Pendleton Act established a. federal civil service protections to the states. b. the judicial appointment system. c. the maximum number of government employees selected by the spoils system. d. the principle of employment on the basis of open, competitive examinations. e. a merit system during the Civil War. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 259 TOPICS: History of the Federal Civil Service 39. Which of the following agencies is the initial central personnel agency of the national government? a. The Civil Service Commission b. The Office of Personnel Management c. The Department of Social Services d. The Plum Agency e. Department of Human Resources Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 259, 260 TOPICS: History of the Federal Civil Service 40. In 1978, the ______ was created to oversee promotions, employees’ rights, and other employment matters. a. Civil Service Commission b. Office of Personnel Management c. Ministry of Personnel d. Civilian Employment Agency e. Merit Systems Protection Board ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 260 TOPICS: History of the Federal Civil Service 41. The Government in the Sunshine Act required that a. all federal agencies headed by committees hold their meetings regularly in public session. b. all federal agencies terminate after five years unless Congress grants the agency an extension. c. all federal agencies hold at least half of their public meeting outside of Washington, D.C. d. at least forty percent of upper level positions within an agency be filled by females or ethnic minorities. e. all federal agency meetings on personnel problems or court proceedings be held in public session.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 261 TOPICS: Sunshine Laws before and after 9/11 42. Which of the following requirements exist under the Freedom of Information Act? a. Government agencies have to tell the media if budgets are exceeded. b. Federal agencies must disclose to individuals information contained in government files. c. The Act made obsolete the Government in the Sunshine Act. d. Executive agencies must release all information to congressional committees. e. Surveillance by the National Security Agency on individual Americans is prohibited.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 261 TOPICS: Sunshine Laws before and after 9/11 43. The major beneficiaries of the Freedom of Information Act have been a. members of Congress. b. people with criminal records. c. news organizations. d. nonprofit organizations.

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy e. health insurance companies.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 261 TOPICS: Sunshine Laws before and after 9/11 44. Laws requiring that existing programs be reviewed regularly for their effectiveness and be terminated unless specifically extended are called a. trial legislation. b. interim legislation. c. sunshine legislation. d. termination legislation. e. sunset legislation.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 261 TOPICS: Sunset Laws 45. Privatization is a. the replacement of government services with services provided by private firms. b. when the Small Business Administration gives loans to individuals. c. hiring practices of the bureaucracy. d. the replacement of private services with state or local government services. e. the abolition of entire government departments.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 262 TOPICS: Privatization, or Contracting Out 46. A whistleblower is a. a worker who does not accomplish his or her tasks by the end of a day. b. someone who brings public attention to gross governmental inefficiency or illegal action. c. a worker hired in excess of the labor requirements of an agency. d. an ombudsman. e. someone who leaks the contents of a presidential speech to the press before it is given.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 263 TOPICS: Helping Out the Whistleblowers 47. A statute enacted by Congress that authorizes the creation of an administrative agency is a. an appropriations authorization. b. enabling legislation.

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy c. an executive order. d. statutory authorization. e. the Civil Service Act of 1978.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 264 TOPICS: Bureaucrats as Politicians and Policymakers 48. Through negotiated rulemaking, federal agencies have begun encouraging businesses and public-interest groups to become directly involved in a. taking responsibility for their own self-regulation. b. drafting the regulations that affect them. c. lobbying Congress to relax regulations. d. lobbying the president concerning bureaucratic reorganization. e. administering regulations.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 265 TOPICS: Negotiated Rulemaking 49. Iron triangles are made up of a. economic interests, citizen activists, and government interest groups. b. lobbyists, interest groups, and court cases used to promote government action to help the interest of these groups. c. legislators, bureaucrats, and interest groups that make or preserve policies that benefit their respective interests. d. political parties, interest groups, and voters who want their candidates to win. e. watchdog citizens, presidential advisors, and members of the federal bureaucracy that make policies that benefit their respective interests.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 266 TOPICS: Bureaucrats as Policymakers 50. A major power that Congress has over the federal bureaucracy is the a. authority to select high-level bureaucrats. b. power to refuse to appropriate funds for a particular agency. c. authority to fire bureaucrats for not executing policy passed by Congress. d. power to find agency actions unconstitutional. e. power to appoint agency heads.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 267 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy TOPICS:

Congressional Control of the Bureaucracy

51. Contrast government corporations with their private-sector counterparts. Should the Federal Government privatize government corporations? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 248 TOPICS: Public and Private Bureaucracies 52. Describe the following organizations of the executive branch: cabinet departments, independent executive agencies, independent regulatory agencies, and government corporations.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 250 TOPICS: The Organization of the Federal Bureaucracy 53. Explain agency capture and give some examples. What are the negative consequences of agency capture? How can it be prevented?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 255 TOPICS: Independent Regulatory Agencies 54. Explain how the civil service came to be what it is today.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 259 TOPICS: History of the Federal Civil Service 55. How has 9/11 affected reforms such as sunshine laws and the Freedom of Information Act? ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 261 TOPICS: Sunshine Laws before and after 9/11 56. Analyze the impact of the government in the Sunshine Act on the operations of the bureaucracy today.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 261 TOPICS: Sunshine Laws before and after 9/11 57. Describe the legislation affecting whistleblowers. How much protection does it offer? Why should whistleblowers be protected?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Bureaucracy REFERENCES: 263 TOPICS: Helping Out the Whistleblowers 58. Describe the concept of an iron triangle, and analyze its impact on the Federal Government.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 266 TOPICS: Bureaucrats as Policymakers 59. Define issue networks, and assess whether they are a positive or negative influence on the general welfare of the country.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 266, 267 TOPICS: Bureaucrats as Policymakers 60. Describe the manner(s) in which Congress attempts to control the bureaucracy.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 267 TOPICS: Congressional Control of the Bureaucracy

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary 1. Alexis de Tocqueville, a commentator on American society in the 1800s, noted that Americans rely on courts a. to resolve most political questions. b. to a much lesser degree than Europeans. c. only if there is no other alternative. d. to resolve economic questions, but not political ones. e. to provide a form of entertainment.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 271 TOPICS: Introduction 2. Supreme Court justices are a. appointed by the Senate. b. elected every ten years. c. appointed by the president. d. confirmed by the House of Representatives. e. elected in the same manner as federal court judges.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 281 TOPICS: The Selection of Federal Judges 3. Most American law is based on a. the writings of Friedrich Engels. b. the ideas of Thomas Paine. c. Roman custom and tradition. d. the English legal system. e. the Bible.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 272 TOPICS: Introduction 4. The body of judge-made law that originated in England from decisions shaped according to prevailing custom is known as a. administrative regulations. b. criminal law. c. judicial maxims. d. common law. e. statutory law.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 272 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary TOPICS:

The Common Law Tradition

5. A court rule bearing on subsequent legal decisions in similar cases is called a a. precedent. b. criminal law. c. judicial maxim. d. common law. e. statutory law.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 272 TOPICS: The Common Law Tradition 6. Which of the following best describes the doctrine of stare decisis? a. Higher courts can reverse lower court rulings. b. Courts do not have jurisdiction in a case. c. The court may refer a case to the next lowest court. d. Judges must follow the precedents established by past decisions. e. Judges must be guided by strict interpretation.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 272 TOPICS: The Common Law Tradition 7. When the Supreme Court decides an issue, ______ are obligated to abide by the Court’s decision. a. only other federal courts b. only individual state supreme courts c. all of the nation’s courts d. all courts in every country with a common law tradition e. only Washington, D.C. courts ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 272 TOPICS: The Common Law Tradition 8. Sources of American law include all of the following EXCEPT a. the U.S. Constitution and state constitutions. b. case law. c. statutes passed by legislatures. d. administrative law. e. the charter of the United Nations.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary REFERENCES: 273 TOPICS: Case Law 9. Which of the following statements best describes the role of the United States Constitution? a. The United States Constitution is the supreme law of the land, with the exception of presidential mandates. b. The United States Constitution is also considered case law. c. The United States Constitution is the supreme law of the land. d. The United States Constitution is limited by statutes that are passed by legislatures. e. The United States Constitution is less powerful than state constitutions.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 273 TOPICS: Constitutions 10. Case law includes all of the following EXCEPT a. constitutional amendments. b. judicial interpretations of common law principles and doctrines. c. judicial interpretations of constitutional provisions. d. judicial interpretations of statutes. e. judicial interpretations of administrative agency regulations.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 273 TOPICS: Case Law 11. Jurisdiction refers to a. rules and principles announced in court decisions. b. the authority of a court to hear and decide certain cases. c. the constitutionality of a law. d. statutory law. e. the common law.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 274 TOPICS: Basic Judicial Requirements 12. Which of the following courts has jurisdiction in cases involving diversity of citizenship or federal questions? a. All courts b. FISA Courts c. Appeals courts d. State courts e. Federal courts ANSWER: e Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 274 TOPICS: Basic Judicial Requirements 13. Standing to sue is a. determined by whether or not a court has jurisdiction over the matter. b. determined by whether or not the Supreme Court will hear a case. c. determined by whether or not a person or group has suffered a harm or has been threatened harm as a result of the action that led to the dispute in question. d. the decorum that is expected in dealing with the Supreme Court during trial. e. also known as stare decisis.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 274 TOPICS: Basic Judicial Requirements 14. Justiciable controversies are those which a. are no longer valid. b. are real and substantial, as opposed to hypothetical or academic. c. arise when the opinions on the Supreme Court are unanimous. d. can be found in a case’s dissenting opinion. e. are hypothetical or academic questions, as opposed to controversies that are real and substantial.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 274 TOPICS: Basic Judicial Requirements 15. Why do interest groups play an important role in our judicial system? a. They veto judicial nominations. b. They fund federal judges' campaigns. c. James Madison defined what they do in The Federalist, No. 10. d. They bring to trial cases of discrimination, civil liberties cases, and more than one-third of cases involving business matters. e. They frequently are defendants in class-action suits.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 274 TOPICS: Parties to Lawsuits 16. The term amicus curiae (friend of the court) brief refers to a. a legal argument supporting a desired outcome of a case, filed by an interested third party not directly involved in the case. b. a request that the Supreme Court order a lower court to send up the records of a case.

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary c. a Supreme Court order barring further testimony during oral arguments. d. the belief that the Supreme Court should actively practice judicial review. e. a legal argument made regarding a hypothetical or purely academic question.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 274 TOPICS: Parties to Lawsuits 17. A lawsuit seeking damages for “all persons similarly situated” is called a. a class-action suit. b. an amicus curiae suit. c. a writ of certiorari. d. a criminal suit. e. a procedural motion.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 274 TOPICS: Parties to Lawsuits 18. Which of the following are the three levels of federal courts in the United States? a. Appellate courts, the U.S. Supreme Court, and state supreme courts b. State municipal courts, U.S. district courts, and the U.S. Supreme Court c. U.S. district courts, intermediate U.S. courts of appeal, and the U.S. Supreme Court d. Municipal courts, intermediate U.S. courts of appeal, and the U.S Supreme Court e. Municipal courts, state courts, and the U.S. Supreme Court ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 275, 276 TOPICS: Types of Federal Courts 19. U.S. district courts are considered a. intermediate appellate courts. b. courts of last resort. c. state courts. d. trial courts of the federal system. e. courts of limited jurisdiction.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 276 TOPICS: Types of Federal Courts 20. The federal appeals court process involves a. witnesses and testimony presented to a jury.

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary b. grand juries who decide if there is enough evidence to have a trial. c. a panel of judges that reviews the case record and determines whether the trial court committed an error. d. attorneys from both sides who submit to binding arbitration. e. preliminary review by the U.S. Supreme Court.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 277 TOPICS: Types of Federal Courts 21. Which of the following statements best describes the George W. Bush Administration’s stand on enemy combatants? a. Enemy combatants could be held indefinitely. b. Enemy combatants are treated like prisoners of war. c. Enemy combatants are not supposed to be detained by military tribunals. d. Enemy combatants could request warrants without having to justify the request. e. Enemy combatants were reclassified as enemy aliens.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 278 TOPICS: Federal Courts and the War on Terrorism 22. In 2009, the Obama administration abolished a. the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act. b. the Anti-Terrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act. c. the alien “removal courts.” d. the category of enemy combatant. e. the Guantánamo prison, and released the prisoners.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 279 TOPICS: Federal Courts and the War on Terrorism 23. All of the following are true of the Supreme Court EXCEPT a. the Supreme Court’s term begins on the first Monday in October. b. of all the cases decided each year in U.S. courts, the number of cases reviewed by the Supreme Court represent less than one in four thousand. c. decisions of the Supreme Court profoundly affect our lives. d. the Supreme Court has never heard a case involving the issue of capital punishment. e. the Supreme Court has decided cases involving freedom of speech, the right to bear arms, campaign finance, and abortion.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 279 TOPICS: The Supreme Court at Work Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary 24. Which of the following best describes the Supreme Court’s rationale for deciding to hear a particular case? a. They must select from a list of acceptable reasons for refusing a case, due to an act of Congress. b. They have to explain their reasons to the President, but do not have to do so publicly. c. They explain their reasons through press statements. d. They must reveal their reasoning. e. They never explain their reasons.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 280 TOPICS: Which Cases Reach the Supreme Court?

25. A writ of certiorari by the Supreme Court orders a. both parties in a case to reach agreement without further litigation. b. state courts to abide by the decisions of the Supreme Court. c. a lower court to send up the record of a case for review. d. Congress to rewrite unconstitutional legislation. e. that a prisoner be brought before the court and the reasons for the detention be provided.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 280 TOPICS: Which Cases Reach the Supreme Court?

26. A procedure used by the Supreme Court in determining which cases it will hear is called ______, after the number of justices who must vote to grant a petition for review. a. the rule of four b. the gang of four c. the sign of four d. the rule of six e. the sign of five ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 280 TOPICS: Which Cases Reach the Supreme Court?

27. A written opinion of the Supreme Court is best described as a. a press release. b. a recommendation to Congress. c. advice to the President. d. the Court’s ruling on the issue presented, its reasoning, and applicable law. e. a ruling when it hears oral arguments.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary REFERENCES: 281 TOPICS: Decisions and Opinions 28. If a case is remanded, it a. is sent to the supreme court of the state in question. b. is sent back to the court that originally heard the case. c. can only be of a civil nature—criminal cases cannot be remanded. d. must be decided within the calendar year. e. is not subject to any further action by the courts.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 281 TOPICS: Decisions and Opinions 29. If a case is affirmed, it a. means the case cannot be appealed to a higher court. b. is sent back to the court that originally heard the case. c. means a court ruling is valid and must stand. d. will result in a new trial for the defendant. e. is accepted as a case that the U.S. Supreme Court will hear.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 281 TOPICS: Decisions and Opinions 30. What characterizes an opinion per curiam (“by the court”)? a. When the Supreme Court’s written opinion is unsigned b. When a ruling is invalidated c. When an opinion is ruled temporary, pending future decisions d. When an opinion is valid only for academic use e. When an opinion is an indication that the Court plans to review the case at a later date ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 281 TOPICS: Decisions and Opinions 31. A Supreme Court justice who disagrees with the majority opinion may a. ask the Court to hear the case again. b. send the case back to a lower court. c. may ask that the case be put aside to be reviewed at a later time. d. write a dissenting opinion. e. file an amicus curiae brief.

ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 281 TOPICS: Decisions and Opinions 32. A dissenting opinion can be important because a. it represents the position of the chief justice of the Supreme Court. b. it is the statement of the defendant’s attorney to the Court. c. in criminal law it must be carried out by local police. d. it often forms the basis of the arguments used later if the Court reverses the previous decision and establishes a new precedent. e. it means that the case cannot be used as a precedent.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 281 TOPICS: Decisions and Opinions 33. Which of the following statements best describes the number of signed opinions issued by the Supreme Court each term in the twentieth century? a. They have increased dramatically since the early 1950s. b. They have hovered around 150 cases since the mid-1980s. c. They have remained constant since the Civil War. d. They dwindled notably since the 1980s. e. They have fallen 50 percent since Barack Obama became president.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 281 TOPICS: Decisions and Opinions 34. Once appointed to a judgeship, federal judges a. cannot be removed from their position for any reason. b. must face annual performance reviews. c. must face recall elections every 4 years. d. must face recall elections every 10 years. e. hold that job for life.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 282 TOPICS: The Selection of Federal Judges 35. The concept of senatorial courtesy refers to the a. Senate approving judges only if they belong to the same party that is in control of the Senate. b. practice of allowing senators to have the exclusive right to nominate candidates for the federal district courts in their state.

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary c. practice of allowing members of the House to participate in the nomination process. d. practice of allowing a senator to veto a judicial appointment for federal district courts in his or her state. e. Senate’s deferring to the president and routinely approving his or her nominees.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 282 TOPICS: Judicial Appointments 36. Which of the following statements about appointments to federal appeals courts is true? a. Appeals court judges are far more numerous than federal district court appointments. b. Appeals court judges are usually selected because of their important position in state governments. c. Appeals court judges are usually Senators. d. Appeals court appointments are often “stepping-stones” to the Supreme Court. e. Appeals court judges are less influential than federal district judges.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 282 TOPICS: Judicial Appointments 37. The most common occupational background of Supreme Court justices at the time of their appointment has been a. U.S. attorney general. b. U.S. senator. c. professors of law. d. federal executive posts. e. private legal practice or state or federal judgeship.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 283 TOPICS: The Selection of Federal Judges 38. All of the following are true about presidential appointments to the Supreme Court EXCEPT a. presidents usually appoint people who belong to the president’s political party. b. presidents see their appointments as a way to institutionalize their political views long after they have left office. c. President Obama’s appointments to the Supreme Court changed the ideological balance of the Court. d. President Bush appointed two justices to the Supreme Court. e. President Clinton appointed many judges to the district and appeals courts.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 284 TOPICS: Partisanship and Judicial Appointments 39. Which of the following is true regarding Barack Obama’s appointments to the Supreme Court?

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary a. The appointments did not change the ideological balance of the Court. b. The appointments strengthened the rightward movement of the Supreme Court. c. The appointments were two women. d. The appointments were Harriet Miers and Samuel Alito. e. The appointments were made possible by the death of two justices.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 285 TOPICS: Partisanship and Judicial Appointments 40. Which of the following is true regarding Barack Obama’s appointments to the Supreme Court? a. The appointments were Sonia Sotomayor and Elena Kagan. b. The appointments changed the ideological balance of the Court. c. The appointments included the third Hispanic on the Court. d. The appointments were made possible by the retirements of Sandra Day O’Connor and David Souter. e. The appointments were unable to be confirmed by the Senate.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 285 TOPICS: Partisanship and Judicial Appointments 41. The power of the courts to determine whether a law or action is constitutional is called a. judicial review. b. appellate review of fact. c. precedent. d. the writ of judicial appeal. e. habeas corpus.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 286 TOPICS: Judicial Review 42. Which of the following best describes judicial activism? a. The Supreme Court should review as many cases as they can. b. The federal judiciary should actively check the activities of governmental bodies when they exceed their authority. c. The Supreme Court exercises judicial review. d. The courts should not play politics. e. that the members of the Supreme Court should “go public” as much as possible.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 286 TOPICS: Judicial Activism and Judicial Restraint Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary 43. Justices who believe in ______ look to the “letter of the law” when they attempt to interpret the Constitution or a particular statute. a. Democratic ideology b. Republican ideology c. judicial activism d. broad construction e. strict construction ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 287 TOPICS: Judicial Activism and Judicial Restraint 44. The doctrine of ______ rests on the assumption that the courts should defer to the decisions made by the legislative and executive branches. a. judicial restraint b. judicial activism c. habeas corpus d. the rule of four e. stare decisis ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 287 TOPICS: Judicial Activism and Judicial Restraint 45. When Sonia Sotomayor was appointed to the Supreme Court, a. she became the second female Supreme Court justice ever appointed to the Court. b. justices became more conservative in their ideological orientations. c. the commerce clause was struck down by liberal justices. d. she became the first Hispanic Supreme Court justice. e. the Supreme Court lost its swing votes.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 285 TOPICS: Partisanship and Judicial Appointments 46. During its first term, the Roberts Court a. accepted few controversial cases for review. b. accepted many controversial cases for review. c. began a leftward drift. d. struck down a federal law banning partial-birth abortion. e. struck down the use of lethal injection as an execution method.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 288 TOPICS: Policymaking and the Courts 47. In terms of judicial implementation or enforcement of Supreme Court rulings, the Court a. has now acquired it own police force. b. has no enforcement powers and depends on the cooperation of the other two branches of government to carry out its decisions. c. does not make decisions that have to be enforced. d. allows Congress to set up legislative review. e. originally had enforcement powers, but those powers have since been eroded by federal legislation.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 289 TOPICS: What Checks Our Courts?

48. The Supreme Court’s rulings can a. never be overturned. b. be enforced by the Court itself. c. be overturned by constitutional amendment at the state level, but not at the federal level. d. be overturned by constitutional amendments at both the federal and state levels. e. be overturned by constitutional amendment and the federal level, but not at the state level.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 291 TOPICS: What Checks Our Courts?

49. Public opinion can serve as a check on the judiciary because a. people have the ability to vote federal judges out of office if they do not approve of the rulings of the courts. b. a court may lose stature if it decides a case in a way that markedly diverges from public opinion. c. the Supreme Court typically polls the public as a basis for their decisions. d. the president will veto a Supreme Court decision if it is politically unpopular. e. Congress will override a decision of the Supreme Court with a majority vote in both houses.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 292 TOPICS: What Checks Our Courts?

50. An issue that a court believes should be decided by the executive or legislative branch is a(n) a. unpopular question. b. ineligible question. c. political question. d. hypothetical question.

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary e. public question.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 293 TOPICS: What Checks Our Courts?

51. Contrast the various sources of American law. Which of them can be said to prevail over all the others? Why? ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 272 TOPICS: Sources of American Law 52. Describe the structure of the federal court system by describing the three levels of courts and what happens at each level.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 275 TOPICS: Types of Federal Courts 53. Explain the process by which the United States Supreme Court decides to hear cases.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 279 TOPICS: The Supreme Court at Work 54. Explain how the United States Supreme Court decides cases and explains its decisions.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 279 TOPICS: The Supreme Court at Work 55. Should federal judges be elected, as in other branches of the Federal Government? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 281 TOPICS: The Selection of Federal Judges 56. Describe how partisan politics affects the federal courts.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 286 TOPICS: Policymaking and the Courts 57. Is it legitimate that the United States Supreme Court possesses the power of judicial review? Why, or why not?

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Chapter 12 - The Judiciary ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 286 TOPICS: Judicial Review 58. Compare and contrast the theories of judicial activism and judicial restraint, and theories of strict construction and broad construction.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 286 TOPICS: Judicial Activism and Judicial Restraint 59. Given the current composition of the Supreme Court, in which ideological direction is it currently leaning? What evidence, based on recent decisions it has made, supports your answer?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 286 TOPICS: Policymaking and the Courts 60. Explain three ways in which the courts can be checked.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 289 TOPICS: What Checks Our Courts?

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy 1. How best to protect our environment and what the speed limit should be on interstate highways are both a. foreign policy questions. b. domestic policy questions. c. insoluble questions. d. local questions. e. questions for the courts.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 297 TOPICS: Introduction 2. Domestic policy is best defined as a. policies that affect major economic variables. b. all policies that affect housing. c. all the laws, government planning, and government action that concern internal issues of national importance. d. matters relating to law enforcement. e. the activities of the government concerning relations with foreign countries.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 297 TOPICS: Introduction 3. Regulatory policy a. seeks to define what is and is not legal. b. seeks to make income more evenly distributed across socioeconomic classes. c. tries to promote the best interests of various groups over others. d. attempts to maintain the status quo between different countries. e. is created by cooperation between Democrats and Republicans.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 297 TOPICS: Introduction 4. ______ policy transfers income from certain individuals or groups to others. a. Regulatory b. Redistributive c. Promotional d. Foreign e. Bipartisan ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 297, 298 TOPICS: Introduction Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy 5. ______ policy seeks to foster or discourage various economic or social activities, typically through subsidies or tax breaks. a. Regulatory b. Redistributive c. Promotional d. Foreign e. Bipartisan ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 297 TOPICS: Introduction 6. From which of the following sources do American policymakers get a great deal of their information? a. Academia b. Local leaders c. Family d. Close associates e. The media ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 298 TOPICS: The Policymaking Process: Health Care as an Example 7. Which of the following is NOT a step in the policymaking process? a. Policy implementation b. Judicial review c. Policy formulation d. Agenda building e. Policy evaluation ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 298 TOPICS: The Policymaking Process: Health Care as an Example 8. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act was a. passed in the House but died in the Senate. b. vetoed by President Obama, but the veto was overridden by Congress. c. signed into law by President Reagan. d. signed into law by President Bush. e. signed into law by President Obama.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy REFERENCES: 298 TOPICS: The Policymaking Process: Health Care as an Example 9. Which of the following statements best defines agenda building? a. Making Congress aware that a problem requires congressional action b. When government officials and the people discuss a proposal c. When a specific proposal is discussed d. When policymaking is implemented by bureaucrats, the courts, police, and individual citizens e. When action is taken by Presidential officials when Congress passes a law ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 298 TOPICS: Health Care: Agenda Building 10. Measured by percentage of GDP devoted to health care, the United States spends a. less than it did in 1965. b. about as much as Japan. c. about as much as Britain. d. almost twice as much as Britain or Japan. e. more than all other countries combined.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 298 TOPICS: Health Care: Agenda Building 11. As of 2010, about 50 percent of total health-care spending was paid for by a. the government. b. private insurance. c. individuals. d. charity. e. the Health Care for Americans endowment.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 299 TOPICS: Health Care: Agenda Building 12. The Medicare program is a. the government health care program set up primarily for the poor. b. the most costly domestic spending program. c. the government health care program set up primarily for children. d. the second largest domestic spending program. e. part of New Deal legislation introduced by Franklin Roosevelt in the 1930s.

ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 300 TOPICS: Health Care: Agenda Building 13. Which of the following statements about the Medicare system is false? a. It pays for hospital and physician bills for U.S. residents aged 65 years or over. b. It pays part of elderly people’s prescription drug benefits. c. Some health-care providers have become reluctant to accept Medicare patients, because the Federal Government has cut back on reimbursement rates. d. Reimbursement rates and caps are set according to international standards. e. It is funded by taxes on wages and salaries.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 299 TOPICS: Health Care: Agenda Building 14. The Medicaid program is funded a. in equal shares by every state. b. by a tax on private insurance companies. c. by a combination of state and federal taxpayers. d. exclusively by the federal government. e. exclusively by state governments.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 299 TOPICS: Health Care: Agenda Building 15. Throughout the twentieth century, most economically advanced nations adopted ______ systems. a. self-pay health-care b. Medicaid c. Medicare d. employer-sponsored health insurance e. universal health insurance ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 300 TOPICS: Health Care: Agenda Building 16. Policy formulation is a. the process of making the government aware that an issue requires action. b. the discussion of proposals between governmental officials and the public. c. choosing a specific policy proposal from among the alternatives that have been discussed. d. concerned with the implementation of policy by bureaucrats, the courts, police, and individual citizens.

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy e. the process of examining how a policy has worked in practice.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 300 TOPICS: Health Care: Policy Formulation 17. During his first two years in office, President ______ attempted to steer a national health-insurance proposal through Congress, but his plan failed. a. Jimmy Carter b. Franklin D. Roosevelt c. Ronald Reagan d. Barack Obama e. Bill Clinton ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 300, 301 TOPICS: Health Care: Policy Adoption 18. The part of the policymaking process that involves choosing a specific policy from among the proposals that have been discussed is known as policy _____. a. formulation b. implementation c. adoption d. choices e. consultation ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 300 TOPICS: Health Care: Policy Adoption 19. In health-care reform, the requirement that all citizens obtain health-care insurance coverage from some source, public or private, is called a(n) a. mixed system. b. dual mandate. c. federal monopoly. d. single-payer system. e. individual mandate.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 301 TOPICS: Health Care: Policy Adoption 20. All of the following statements about the new health-care legislation are true EXCEPT Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy a. excluding people with preexisting conditions from insurance plans is banned. b. Medicaid coverage is guaranteed for individuals making up to $250,000 a year. c. health insurance companies pay a new tax. d. employers that do not offer health insurance coverage are taxed. e. state health-insurance exchanges will be created where individuals and small businesses can buy insurance.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 302 TOPICS: Health Care: Policy Adoption 21. Policy implementation is a. concerned with how policies are carried out by bureaucrats, the courts, police, and individual citizens. b. the process of making the media aware of an issue. c. the discussion of proposals between governmental officials and the public. d. concerned with a specific strategy for a proposal. e. a study conducted to see what happens after a policy is first established.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 302 TOPICS: Health Care: Policy Implementation 22. Which of the following statements is true of policy evaluation? a. After a policy has been implemented, it is often challenged in the Supreme Court. b. Policy evaluation is just an academic exercise and has no real-world consequences. c. Groups inside and outside government conduct studies to determine how the program actually works after a policy has been in place for a period of time. d. By 2011, the health-care reforms had been thoroughly evaluated. e. After a period of evaluation, the president implements and executes the law.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 303 TOPICS: Health Care: Policy Evaluation 23. Which of the following statements about immigration rates in the United States is true? a. Immigration rates are at their lowest since the 1950s. b. Immigration rates are falling dramatically. c. Immigration rates are stable since they peaked in the 1980s. d. Immigration rates are among the highest they have been since their peak in the early twentieth century. e. Immigration rates are lower than ever before.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 303 TOPICS: Immigration Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy 24. Those who were born on foreign soil now constitute about ______ of the U.S. population. a. 1.5 percent b. 6 percent c. 13 percent d. 23 percent e. 46 percent ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 303 TOPICS: Immigration 25. Since 1977, four out of five immigrants to the United States come from a. Latin America or Europe. b. Asia or Africa. c. Latin America or Asia. d. Europe or Asia. e. Africa or Latin America.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 303 TOPICS: Immigration 26. The number of unauthorized immigrants in the United States is estimated to be around a. 50,000. b. 3 million. c. 90 million. d. 11 million. e. 150 million.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 304 TOPICS: The Issue of Unauthorized Immigration 27. Critics of immigration fear that immigrants to the United States may a. take jobs away from American workers. b. offset the low birthrate and aging population. c. expand the workforce and help support, through their taxes, government programs such as Medicare. d. become Americanized. e. pay into the Social Security program.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 304 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy TOPICS:

Immigration Legislation

28. During his campaign, Barack Obama supported reforms that would a. automatically grant citizenship to all illegal immigrants currently in the United States. b. give illegal immigrants a path toward citizenship. c. eliminate crackdowns on employers who hire illegal immigrants. d. automatically send all illegal immigrants currently in the United States back to their home countries. e. close the U.S.–Mexico border.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 304 TOPICS: Immigration Legislation 29. Which of the following statements about Arizona’s 2010 immigration law is false? a. Other states made tougher immigration laws soon afterward. b. Opponents of the law claimed the act would lead to harassment of Latinos. c. It required police to stop and question anyone suspected of being in the country illegally. d. It criminalized the failure to carry immigration documents. e. The decision that the Supreme Court made about it left the door open for future challenges to the law based on equal protection principles.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 304 TOPICS: Immigration Legislation 30. Of all the petroleum the United States consumes, how much is imported? a. One-half b. Three-fourths c. Three-fifths d. Nine-tenths e. One-fifth ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 305 TOPICS: Energy Independence—A Strategic Issue 31. About 13 percent of all U.S. oil imports come from a. Venezuela and Iran. b. Argentina. c. Canada and Mexico. d. Russia. e. Brazil.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 305 TOPICS: Energy Independence—A Strategic Issue 32. With regard to the issue of oil and energy, a. President Obama has not been active in supporting new policies. b. the world’s largest oil exporters are all friends of the United States. c. President Obama opposes using nuclear power. d. in recent years, the practice of fracking stands to reduce America’s dependence on foreign oil. e. the government mandated a requirement that cars and trucks to have a maximum rate of 100 miles per gallon by 2016.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 305, 306 TOPICS: Energy Independence—A Strategic Issue 33. What has resulted from the 2010 BP Deepwater Horizon oil spill disaster? a. The Environmental Protection Agency announced it would no longer inspect oil facilities. b. Senate Democrats championed legislation promoting the expansion of new drilling sites. c. House Republicans introduced legislation promoting a variety of new green-energy initiatives. d. A moratorium on new offshore drilling was instituted. e. Foreign oil imports were banned.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 306 TOPICS: Energy Independence—A Strategic Issue 34. In the 1990s, scientists working on climate change began to conclude that gases released by human activity, principally CO2, are producing a. a “greenhouse effect.” b. acid rain. c. “El Niño.” d. a “heat index effect.” e. methane poisoning.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 307 TOPICS: Global Warming 35. ______ scientists who perform research on the world’s climate believe that global warming will be significant. a. Virtually, none of the b. A minority of c. About half of all Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy d. A slight majority of e. Almost all ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 307 TOPICS: Global Warming 36. Which of the following statements concerning attitudes toward global warming is true? a. A majority of Republicans believe that global warming does not exist. b. A majority of Democrats believe that global warming is a myth. c. Disblief of global warming among Democrats rose by 11 percentage points between 2001 and 2002. d. Disblief of about global warming among Republicans fell by 11 percentage points between 2001 and 2002. e. Republican opinion about global warming has not changed in recent years.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 307 TOPICS: Global Warming 37. An economic downturn, usually characterized by a fall in the GDP and rising unemployment, is called a. a Keynesian economy. b. “hidden unemployment.” c. inflation. d. a depression. e. a recession.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 308 TOPICS: Good Times, Bad Times 38. A sustained rise in the general price level of goods and services is called a. a Keynesian economy. b. “hidden unemployment.” c. inflation. d. a depression. e. a recession.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 308 TOPICS: Good Times, Bad Times 39. Which of the following statements best defines discouraged workers? a. People who work in businesses that they created b. People who took control of businesses from someone else Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy c. People who work less than forty hours a week d. People who are ineligible to work in the United States e. People who have dropped out of the labor force and are no longer looking for a job ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 308 TOPICS: Good Times, Bad Times 40. Which of the following statements regarding the economy is true? a. Rising prices are referred to as deflation. b. An extremely severe recession is called a depression. c. The United States has not experienced a recession since 1933. d. In effect, today’s dollar is the same as a 1910 dollar. e. The inflation rate is an indicator of average interest rates.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 309 TOPICS: Good Times, Bad Times 41. Keynesian economics advocates a. government control of markets. b. elimination of all national debt. c. the use of government spending and taxing to help stabilize the economy. d. acceptance of the theories of Adam Smith. e. laissez-faire economics.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 309 TOPICS: Fiscal Policy 42. Which of the following best defines deficit spending? a. When the government receives more than it spends. b. When the government spends more than it receives c. When the government controls the amount of money in the economy d. When the government buys Treasury securities e. When the government decreases marginal tax rates ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 309 TOPICS: Fiscal Policy 43. Which of the following statements regarding the federal budget is true? a. The federal government has spent more than it has received every year since it began.

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy b. The federal budget deficit amounts to almost nothing. c. The United States had a budget surplus each year from 1998 to 2002. d. The budget deficit peaked during World War II and has continued to decrease since then. e. The federal budget deficit was helped by President Bush’s tax cuts.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 311, 312 TOPICS: Deficit Spending and the Public Debt 44. Monetary policy includes a. using changes in the amount of money in circulation to alter credit markets, employment, and the rate of inflation. b. using changes in the size of the federal budget deficit to alter national economic variables. c. regulating tax rates to ensure controlled growth and low inflation. d. continually increasing the size of the national debt. e. linkage of the consumer price index and the gross national product.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 312 TOPICS: Monetary Policy 45. When the economy is faced with inflation, according to monetary policy, what should the government do? a. It should follow a loose monetary policy. b. It should raise taxes. c. It should follow a tight monetary policy. d. It should lower taxes. e. It should take total control of the economy.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 313 TOPICS: Monetary Policy 46. The responsibility of the Federal Open Market Committee is to a. seek a balanced trade policy. b. negotiate with Congress in developing a budget. c. decide how monetary policy should be carried out. d. develop a rational trade policy through the United Nations Trade Information Commission. e. regulate the markets for stocks and bonds.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 313 TOPICS: Monetary Policy Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy 47. The value of all taxes collected by the various levels of government in the United States is a. over half of the nation’s income. b. higher than what most other countries collect. c. subject to a ceiling imposed by Congress. d. about 27 percent of the gross domestic product. e. inevitably enough to run the government and still have a budget surplus.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 314 TOPICS: The Politics of Taxation 48. What do tax loopholes allow individuals and corporations to do? a. They allow them to reduce their tax liabilities legally. b. They choose the state where they pay taxes. c. They complain to the IRS. d. They only pay taxes on investment income. e. They commit crimes without getting tried.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 315 TOPICS: Loopholes and Lowered Taxes 49. Which of the following happens with a progressive tax system? a. All taxpayers pay taxes at the same percentage rate. b. People with higher incomes pay taxes at a higher rate. c. People with higher incomes pay taxes at a lower rate. d. The tax burden consists mostly of property and sales taxes. e. The tax rates increase by a set percentage every year.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 315 TOPICS: Loopholes and Lowered Taxes 50. The Social Security payroll tax can best be described as a a. state tax. b. victimless tax. c. excise tax. d. regressive tax. e. progressive tax.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 315 TOPICS: Loopholes and Lowered Taxes Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy 51. Describe each stage of the policymaking process. Are there any reforms that could be implemented to make it more responsive to the American people? If so, what are they? If not, why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 298 TOPICS: The Policymaking Process: Health Care as an Example 52. Describe health care’s role in the American economy, including recent trends in coverage and costs.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 298–300 TOPICS: Health Care: Agenda Building 53. Examine the health-care reform legislation that was passed by Congress in 2010. Explain the political process that led to its passage.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 298 TOPICS: Health Care: Agenda Building 54. What advantages and disadvantages exist for a nation that has a large immigrant population?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 303 TOPICS: Immigration 55. Describe recent efforts aimed at reducing American dependence on foreign oil.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 305 TOPICS: Energy and the Environment 56. Examine the federal budget deficit, why it occurred, and what measures should be taken to bring it down.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 308 TOPICS: Economic Decision Making 57. Examine the idea of the government guaranteeing every adult a job. What problems may there be? What other kinds of policies can help combat unemployment?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 308 TOPICS: Good Times, Bad Times Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Domestic and Economic Policy 58. Could the Obama Administration be said to have carried out true Keynesian economic policy? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 309 TOPICS: The Politics of Economic Decision Making 59. Explain the difference between loose and tight monetary policy, and describe when they would be appropriate policy options.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 313 TOPICS: Monetary Policy 60. Explain the difference between progressive and regressive taxes. Would we be better served by simply employing a flat tax across the board? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 315 TOPICS: Loopholes and Lowered Taxes

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy 1. The best definition of foreign policy is a. a nation’s external goals as well as the techniques and strategies used to achieve them. b. the formal agreements that are approved by the World Court. c. interactions with other countries that are not related to economics. d. the collection of treaties that are ratified by the Senate. e. the manner in which the armed forces are deployed.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 321 TOPICS: Facing the World: Foreign and Defense Policy 2. The process by which states carry on political relations with each other is called a. interventionism. b. diplomacy. c. economic policy. d. The Geneva Convention. e. development efforts.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 321 TOPICS: Facing the World: Foreign and Defense Policy 3. U. S. foreign policy may be carried out through all of the following techniques EXCEPT a. diplomatic relations. b. foreign aid. c. technical assistance. d. military invasions. e. by municipal taxation.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 321 TOPICS: Facing the World: Foreign and Defense Policy 4. The practice of sending of experts in areas such as agriculture, engineering, or business to aid other nations is called a. an in-kind subsidy. b. a tariff. c. technical assistance. d. exports. e. military aid.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 321 TOPICS: Facing the World: Foreign and Defense Policy Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy 5. As one aspect of overall foreign policy, ______ concerns itself with the defense of the United States against actual or potential future enemies. a. diplomacy b. preemptive policy c. anticipatory policy d. national security policy e. domestic policy ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 321 TOPICS: National Security and Defense Policies 6. Which of the following statements best describes the role of the National Security Council? a. It is an advisory body to the president on foreign policy matters. b. It works for the State Department. c. It serves as a Congressional standing committee. d. It is a military advisory body. e. It is a private research council that provides analysis of world events to businesses and individuals.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 321 TOPICS: National Security and Defense Policies 7. The set of policies that direct the nature and activities of the U.S. armed forces is called a. intelligence policy. b. defense policy. c. military-industrial policy. d. foreign assistance policy. e. diplomacy.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 321 TOPICS: National Security and Defense Policies 8. Moral idealism is a philosophy that a. views nations as normally willing to cooperate and agree on moral standards for conduct. b. mandates noninterference with the internal policies of sovereign nations. c. supports steps to establish a single world government. d. views each nation as acting in its own interest regardless of moral considerations. e. contends that spreading Christianity ought to be a major goal of U.S. foreign policy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy REFERENCES: 322 TOPICS: Idealism versus Realism in Foreign Policy 9. Which of the following statements best describes political realism? a. This philosophy views nations as normally willing to cooperate and agree on moral standards for conduct. b. This philosophy is a neo-isolationist one. c. This philosophy wants to create a single world government. d. This philosophy views each nation as acting in its own interest regardless of moral considerations. e. This philosophy advocates the spread of Islam.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 322 TOPICS: Idealism versus Realism in Foreign Policy 10. Which of the following statements is true regarding foreign policy? a. The United States used to be guided by a mix of political realism and moral idealism, but is now guided solely by political realism. b. The United States used to be guided solely by moral idealism, but is now guided mostly by political realism. c. The United States used to be guided solely by political realism, but is now guided mostly by moral idealism. d. The United States has always been guided solely by political realism. e. The United States has always been guided by a mix of moral idealism and political realism.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 322 TOPICS: Idealism versus Realism in Foreign Policy 11. In the past, terrorism was a strategy typically employed by radicals who a. wanted to change the status of a particular nation or province. b. were religiously motivated. c. were uneducated. d. did not have clear-cut aims. e. were part of the al Qaeda network.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 323 TOPICS: The Emergence of Terrorism 12. Which of the following was an apparent goal of al-Qaeda? a. Getting the United States to withdraw its troops from countries in the Middle East b. Overthrowing Egypt c. Independence for Basque Spain d. Removing Greek forces out of Cyprus e. Forcing the United States to withdraw troops from Nigeria Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 324 TOPICS: The Emergence of Terrorism 13. Which President introduced the concept of “preemptive war.” a. Ronald Reagan b. George Busch c. George W. Busch d. Lyndon B. Johnson e. Bill Clinton ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 325 TOPICS: The War on Terrorism 14. The Bush Doctrine supports the strategy of a. preemptive war. b. U.S. isolationism. c. moral idealism. d. withdrawal from the United Nations. e. Islamic containment.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 325 TOPICS: The War on Terrorism 15. According to critics of the Bush Doctrine, a. it does not go far enough in protecting U.S. interests. b. it does not protect U.S. interests. c. it is a contradiction of democratic values. d. it violates the idea of political realism. e. it signals U.S. weakness.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 325 TOPICS: The War on Terrorism 16. A month after invading Iraq in 2003, U.S. and British forces a. still had not had any effect on Saddam Hussein’s regime. b. had ended Saddam Hussein’s decades-old dictatorship. c. were finally able to convince the UN Security Council that military force was necessary in Iraq. d. were able to withdraw.

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy e. formally recognized that the war had been a mistake.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 325 TOPICS: Wars in Iraq 17. ______ controlled the Iraqi government under Hussein. a. Kurds b. Sunnis c. Shiites d. Sunnis and Shiites e. al Qaeda ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 325 TOPICS: Wars in Iraq 18. Which of the following groups comprise a majority of the population of Iraq? a. Sunni Arabs b. Kurds c. Shiite Arabs d. Turkoman e. Baath ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 325 TOPICS: Wars in Iraq 19. The “surge” in April 2007 a. was probably perpetrated by Iraqi Kurds. b. greatly increased the number of casualties among coalition troops. c. killed Saddam Hussein. d. was a major turning point in the insurgency in Iraq. e. ended the war in Iraq.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 326 TOPICS: Wars in Iraq 20. In 1980, China was granted _____ for tariffs and trade policy on a year-to-year basis. a. normal trade relations status b. most-favored nation status c. favorite nation status Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy d. superior trade relations status ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 328 TOPICS: The New Power: China 21. The ideological, political, and economic confrontation between the United States and the Soviet Union following World War II was called a. the Iron Curtain. b. the Red Scare. c. the Orange Revolution. d. East-meets-West. e. the Cold War. ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 327 TOPICS: Nuclear Weapons 22. More than ______ nuclear warheads are known to be stockpiled worldwide. a. 80 b. 900 c. 6,000 d. 22,000 e. 500,000 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 327 TOPICS: Nuclear Weapons 23. In 2009, ______ tested a long-range missile capable of delivering a nuclear warhead. a. Iran b. Pakistan c. Afghanistan d. North Korea e. South Africa ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 328 TOPICS: Nuclear Weapons 24. All of the following are true of relations between China and the United Sates EXCEPT a. since 1972, American policy has been to gradually engage the Chinese in diplomatic and economic relationships in the hope of turning China in a more pro-Western direction.

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy b. there are large and growing trade ties between the United States and China. c. instead of goods and services, China has imported U.S. securities. d. China exports substantially more goods and services to the United States than it imports. e. China was denied normal trade relations (NTR) status by the United States, which has hurt their relationship.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 328 TOPICS: Challenges in World Politics 25. China’s position is that sooner or later, Taiwan a. must rejoin the rest of China. b. will be granted permanent independence. c. must join with Hong Kong as a single independent territory. d. will be returned to the United Kingdom. e. will be divided into several smaller territories and distributed among the region’s major powers.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 330 TOPICS: The New Power: China 26. Which of the following best describes the internationally recognized solution to the Israeli-Palestinian dispute? a. The Palestinians should be resettled in Israel with full compensation. b. Israel yields the West Bank and Gaza Strip to the Palestinians in return for security guarantees and Palestinian abandonment of any right of return to Israel proper. c. Israelis and Palestinians should both be part of a single state in which both enjoy equal rights. d. Israel should cease to exist, because its creation happened illegally. e. Israel should yield up all territory not granted to it by the UN in 1948, including all of Jerusalem.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 330 TOPICS: Israel and the Palestinians 27. In January 2006, ____ won a majority of the seats in the Palestinian legislature, an alarming development since it has called for the destruction of Israel. a. the militant group Hamas b. the Kurdish People’s Liberation Front c. the militant group Hezbollah d. the Palestine Liberation Organization e. the extremist group Free Jerusalem Now ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 331 TOPICS: Israel and the Palestinians Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy 28. The Israeli blockade of Gaza in May 2010 directly resulted in a. the militant group Hamas being voted out of office in Palestine. b. elections in Israel establishing a new government willing to bring peace to the area. c. widespread condemnation of the blockade, and ultimately, an increase in allowed imports. d. the Palestine Liberation Organization invading southern Israel. e. the extremist group Free Jerusalem Now taking over the West Bank and Gaza.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 331, 332 TOPICS: Israel and the Palestinians 29. President Obama was among a number of world leaders calling for a. a lifting of sanctions against Iran. b. the dissolution of the European Union. c. trade sanctions against China. d. an attack on Taiwan. e. a German change of course in EU monetary policy.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 333 TOPICS: The Economic Crisis in Europe 30. In regard to control over the foreign policy process, Edwin S. Corwin once observed that the U.S. Constitution created between the president and Congress a(n) a. “unchecked union.” b. “patriotic display of cooperation.” c. “symbiotic partnership.” d. “opportunity for compromise.” e. “invitation to struggle.”

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 333 TOPICS: Who Makes Foreign Policy?

31. Starting with ______, all presidents have interpreted their authority as “Commander in Chief of the Army and Navy of the United States” dynamically and broadly. a. John F. Kennedy b. Franklin D. Roosevelt c. George Washington d. Abraham Lincoln e. Theodore Roosevelt ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 333 TOPICS: Constitutional Powers of the President 32. Which of the following statements about executive agreements is true? a. They are unconstitutional. b. They are only used when the World Court rejected a treaty. c. They accounted for almost 95 percent of the understandings reached between the United States and other nations. d. The House and the Senate overwhelmingly ratifies them. e. They are obsolete.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 334 TOPICS: Constitutional Powers of the President 33. The responsibilities of the State Department include a. formulating defense policy. b. appointing the Secretary of State. c. directly overseeing U.S. intelligence agencies. d. staffing U.S. embassies and consulates worldwide. e. overseeing U.S. military operations.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 334 TOPICS: The Executive Branch and Foreign Policymaking 34. Which of the following is NOT a member of the National Security Council? a. The president of the United States b. The vice president of the United States c. The secretary of state d. The director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation e. The secretary of defense ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 334, 335 TOPICS: Constitutional Powers of the President 35. Which of the following best describes the intelligence community? a. The people in Washington who make policy b. The armed services c. The government agencies that gather information about the capabilities and intentions of foreign governments d. The people who report directly to the President Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy e. Regulatory agencies ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 335 TOPICS: The Executive Branch and Foreign Policymaking 36. In 2004, the legislature established the ______ to oversee the intelligence community. a. Department of Homeland Security b. National Security Council c. vice presidency d. Office of the Director of National Intelligence e. State Department ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 336 TOPICS: The Executive Branch and Foreign Policymaking 37. Although larger than any other federal department, the Department of Defense a. declined in size after the fall of the Soviet Union in 1991. b. declined in size after the end of World War II. c. significantly increased in size with the election of Barack Obama. d. significantly increased in size after the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001. e. declined significantly in size after the withdrawal of troops from Iraq in 2011.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 336 TOPICS: The Executive Branch and Foreign Policymaking 38. Which of the following was a major foreign policy development during the Vietnam War? a. Another Cuban Missile Crisis of sorts involving China and the United States b. An improvement in U.S. foreign policy c. A new interest in the balance of power between Congress and the president on foreign policy questions d. The creation of the U.S. Navy SEALS e. Border clashes that almost resulted in full-blown nuclear war between the USSR and Iran ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 336 TOPICS: Congress Balances the Presidency 39. In 1973, Congress passed the War Powers Resolution, which a. required congressional approval before the president could dismiss the Secretary of Defense. b. limited the president’s use of troops in military action without congressional approval. c. expanded the president’s power over the military.

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy d. was necessary because of the increased threat of nuclear war. e. allowed the president to declare an unlimited national emergency.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 337 TOPICS: Congress Balances the Presidency 40. If the president orders that a certain action be taken, but Congress blocks the action from being executed by refusing to fund it, Congress is exercising a. conscientious objection. b. its power of the purse. c. it veto power. d. its right to free speech. e. its override power.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 337 TOPICS: Congress Balances the Presidency 41. Which of the following statements best generalizes United States foreign policy during the 1800s? a. The United States mostly stayed out of European conflicts and politics, but pursued an expansionist policy in the Western Hemisphere. b. The United States expanded around the globe. c. The United States intervened in Europe, but stayed isolated from the Western Hemisphere. d. The United States acted completely isolationist. e. The United States did not engage in any wars in the 1800s.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 337, 338 TOPICS: The Formative Years: Avoiding Entanglements 42. The Monroe Doctrine stated that a. European nations should not establish new colonies in the Western Hemisphere or intervene in the affairs of independent nations of the Western Hemisphere. b. the United States had the authority to intervene in the affairs of European nations if American interests were at stake. c. the United States would take action against the Barbary pirates in order to protect American lives and commerce. d. the United States would not wait to be attacked, but rather would take preemptive action against clear and present dangers. e. the United States would only conduct business with other nations by employing treaties.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 338 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy TOPICS:

The Formative Years: Avoiding Entanglements

43. After World War I, the United States returned to a state of “normalcy” in foreign policy, which meant a. a continued commitment to international peacekeeping. b. reassuring the public that the United States would act in the role of world policeman. c. a sharp increase in military spending in order to honor commitments made to the allied powers. d. a reduction in military forces and defense spending and a return to isolationism. e. the annexation of additional territory in the Western Hemisphere.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 338 TOPICS: The Formative Years: Avoiding Entanglements 44. U.S. foreign-policy isolationism can be said to have ended completely when a. The Great Depression began. b. Japan attacked the U.S. naval base at Pearl Harbor. c. the United Nations was founded. d. France and the United States signed a mutual alliance pact during the American Revolution. e. the Korean War started.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 338 TOPICS: The Era of Internationalism 45. The United States was the only major country to emerge from World War II with a. an addition to its territory. b. operational nuclear weapons. c. less than 2,000 casualties. d. a weakened economy. e. an intention to expand its role in the world.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 338 TOPICS: The Era of Internationalism 46. Which of the following is true about the Soviet bloc? a. Its formation was the turning point in World War II. b. It was made up of countries that had seceded from the Soviet Union. c. It consisted of the Soviet Union and Eastern European countries with Communist regimes. d. It was designed to prevent supplies from entering West Berlin in 1948. e. It was the alliance set up by the United States and Western Europe to counter the Soviet Union.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy REFERENCES: 338 TOPICS: The Era of Internationalism 47. The doctrine of containment set forth by George F. Kennan a. proposed that the United States should seek to “roll back” Communism in Eastern Europe. b. was expressed in the Truman Doctrine enunciated by President Harry Truman in 1947. c. called for the United States to initiate arms reduction talks. d. said that the United States should seek to contain Communist power by invading the Soviet Union. e. was discredited by NATO. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 339 TOPICS: The Era of Internationalism 48. During the Cold War, there was a. a continuous diplomatic exchange between U.S. and Soviet military advisors. b. never any direct military conflict between the United States and the Soviet Union. c. an occasional exchange of artillery fire across the East German/West German border. d. direct fighting between U.S. and Soviet ground troops during the Korean War. e. occasional dogfights between U.S. and Soviet fighter planes over Europe.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 339 TOPICS: Superpower Relations 49. Perhaps the closest the United States and the Soviet Union came to a nuclear confrontation was the a. Cuban missile crisis. b. Battle of the Bulge. c. Tet Offensive. d. Khmer Rouge massacre. e. Warsaw standoff.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 339, 340 TOPICS: Superpower Relations 50. Should the United States practice a foreign policy more oriented toward moral idealism or political relativism, and why?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 322 TOPICS: Idealism versus Realism in Foreign Policy

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy 51. Explain the emergence of terrorism as the strategy of choice for groups in the late-twentieth and early-twenty-first centuries and how governments have attempted to battle terrorists.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 323 TOPICS: The Emergence of Terrorism 52. Analyze the two Iraq wars in terms of both causes and consequences, and assess the impact of both on the future of the Middle East.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 325 TOPICS: Wars in Iraq 53. Explain the role of the United States in Afghanistan and the problems encountered there.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 326 TOPICS: Afghanistan 54. Explain the problem of nuclear proliferation in relation to Iran and North Korea.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 327, 328 TOPICS: Nuclear Weapons 55. Explain the role that China has come to play in the world. How should the United States interact with China in the future?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 328 TOPICS: The New Power: China 56. Describe the conflict between Israel and the Palestinians and the efforts to bring peace to this troubled part of the world.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 330 TOPICS: Israel and the Palestinians 57. In what ways has the United States made humanitarian efforts in different parts of the world?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 322 TOPICS: Idealism versus Realism in Foreign Policy Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Foreign Policy 58. Explain the constitutional clash of powers between the president and Congress in the area of foreign policymaking.

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 333 TOPICS: Who Makes Foreign Policy?

59. How important is the relationship between the United States and Russia compared to other countries today?

ANSWER: Students’ answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 341 TOPICS: Superpower Relations 60. Why did the United States turn to China when North Korea conducted a second nuclear test? Was this a good idea?

Why or why not?

ANSWER: Students' answers may vary.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 328 TOPICS: Nuclear weapons

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