CHAPTER 1: The Democratic Republic MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The Bill of Rights includes the following rights for criminal defendants a. the right to speedy and public trial. b. the right to silence. c. the right to due process. d. the right to a lawyer. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 4
NOT: Applied
2. If the U.S. Constitution had no Bill of Rights a. rights would be dependent on the political process. b. unpopular rights would be in danger. c. popular rights would be safe. d. some rights would be protected by state constitutions. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 4
NOT: Conceptual
3. According to the Sixth Amendment, the accused a. have a right to a speedy trial. b. can be compelled to be a witness against himself. c. have a right to a private trial. d. have no right to due process. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 4
NOT: Factual
4. Politics is a. a process that resolves conflict within a society. b. a struggle over power or influence within organizations or informal groups. c. a type of anti-social behavior by individuals. d. fundamentally irrelevant. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 5
NOT: Conceptual
5. Harold Lasswell defined politics as a. the allocation of benefits in society. b. the way conflict in society is solved. c. who gets what, when, and how. d. promoting equality among citizens. e. None of the above is true. ANS: C
REF: 5
NOT: Factual
6. As an institution, a government is unique in that a. it has a life separate from the lives of the individuals who are part of it at any given moment in time. b. it has the ultimate authority for making decisions and establishing political values. c. it performs certain functions for society.
d. it is an ongoing organization, rather than an intermittent organization. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 5
NOT: Conceptual
7. Politics a. is the process of resolving conflicts. b. is the struggle for power in organizations. c. is the process of deciding who gets what, when, and how. d. is involved in all levels of government. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 5
NOT: Applied
8. Politics exists a. only in government institutions. b. in every community that makes decisions. c. in schools, social groups, and organized groups of individuals. d. only in formal settings. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 5
NOT: Applied
9. Government is necessary because a. groups compete for power in society. b. there needs to be a means to maintain order in society. c. a central authority is necessary to provide for the common defense. d. a central authority is necessary to promote economic development. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 7
NOT: Applied
10. Government strives to protect members of society from a. violence. b. criminal activity. c. instability. d. insecurity. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 7
NOT: Factual
11. The total collapse of government a. is a common event. b. is a cyclical event. c. is an uncommon event. d. is accompanies every revolution. e. None of the above is true. ANS: C
REF: 8
NOT: Factual
12. Liberty is a. freedom to do whatever you want. b. available only in the United States of America. c. the greatest freedom of the individual consistent with the freedom of other individuals. d. incompatible with government authority. e. a uniquely American value.
ANS: C
REF: 8
NOT: Factual
13. Governments have authority a. because of special norms. b. because people always obey the law. c. because they control the media. d. because people accept the government’s right to establish rules and laws. e. Options A and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 8
NOT: Conceptual
14. Legitimacy is a. the condition of having too much government. b. popular acceptance of the right and power of a government or other entity to exercise liberty. c. popular acceptance of the right and power of a government or other entity to exercise authority. d. only needed in times of emergency. e. possible with a narrow base of support. ANS: C
REF: 9
NOT: Applied
15. To say that authority has legitimacy is to a. say that authority is recognized by a few. b. say that authority is broadly accepted. c. imply that the ruler has not always been perceived as the legal power. d. suggest that decisions are of little practical value. e. imply that those in power do not have the good of the public in mind when making important decisions. ANS: B
REF: 9
NOT: Applied
16. Totalitarianism as a concept means a. that the government controls all aspects of the political, social, and economic life of a nation. b. the condition of having no government and no laws. c. the ultimate political authority is vested in the people. d. a limited republic where people elect officials to make decisions for them for a specific period of time. e. a unified government. ANS: A
REF: 9
NOT: Factual
17. In authoritarian governments a. freedom of speech is usually allowed. b. the leaders may be voted out of office. c. the right to a fair trial is considered a fundamental right. d. government is fully controlled by a ruler. e. All the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 9
18. Aristocracy means rule by a. the majority. b. wealthy families.
NOT: Conceptual
c. highly qualified people. d. those who can read and write. e. religious leaders. ANS: B
REF: 9
NOT: Applied
19. Consent of the people means a. governments and laws derive their legitimacy from the consent of the governed. b. the people must consent to everything the government does. c. government must get consent of the people before it can go to war. d. pure democracy. e. direct democracy. ANS: A
REF: 10
NOT: Conceptual
20. The most important feature of Athenian democracy was that a. everyone could vote. b. elected delegates made the important decisions. c. it was an aristocracy. d. the legislature was composed of all the citizens. e. women had the right to vote. ANS: D
REF: 10
NOT: Factual
21. The initiative is a. a way to remove a public official from office before the end of his or her elected term. b. the same thing as a referendum. c. provided for in the Bill of Rights. d. a constitutional mechanism that takes place after a recall. e. a procedure whereby voters can propose a law or constitutional amendment within a state. ANS: E
REF: 10
NOT: Factual
22. A referendum takes place when a. Congress rejects a law passed by a state legislature. b. the United States Supreme Court rejects a law because it violates the U.S. Constitution. c. the president refers his or her budget plan to the Congress before the start of a fiscal year. d. a state legislature refers an act of legislation to the voters for approval or disapproval. e. voters choose the candidates that will represent their political party. ANS: D
REF: 10
NOT: Factual
23. A procedure allowing the people to vote to dismiss an elected official from state office before his or her term has expired is called a. a referendum. b. direct democracy. c. a recall. d. an initiative. e. popular sovereignty. ANS: C
REF: 10
NOT: Factual
24. The Founders were wary of direct democracy because a. the masses were considered too uneducated to self govern. b. too prone to the influence of demagogues. c. too likely to subordinate minority rights for majority rights.
d. might resort to mob rule. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 10
NOT: Factual
25. The type of government the United States has is a. a direct democracy. b. a representative democracy. c. a confederation. d. a constitutional monarchy. e. an anarchy. ANS: B
REF: 11
NOT: Factual
26. The concept of universal suffrage refers to a. the right of all adults to vote for a representative in government. b. the right of all citizens to run for office. c. the right of universal healthcare for all. d. the belief that all persons deserve a fair trial. e. a system of relationships between the states. ANS: A
REF: 11
NOT: Conceptual
27. A democratic republic is different from a representative democracy in that a. there is no king. b. the people are the only sovereign. c. there is a king. d. there is an authoritarian ruler. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 11
NOT: Conceptual
28. A majority vote means the support of a. two-thirds of the voters. b. the plurality of the voters. c. three-fifths of the voters. d. more than 50 percent of the voters. e. the voters from the major ethnic group. ANS: D
REF: 11
NOT: Factual
29. Popular sovereignty means a. that the sovereign is popular. b. that the sovereign is supported by the people. c. that ultimate political authority is based on the will of the people. d. only one sovereign can serve at a time. e. the sovereign can serve only two terms. ANS: C
REF: 11
NOT: Factual
30. All of the following are principles of democratic governments except a. universal suffrage. b. majority rule and protection of minority rights. c. free, competitive elections. d. limited government. e. limited suffrage.
ANS: E
REF: 11 | 12
NOT: Applied
31. The right to vote for all citizens has a. always been out of reach. b. expanded over time. c. been championed by the rich. d. has always included undocumented immigrants. e. has always included women. ANS: B
REF: 11 | 12
NOT: Applied
32. To ensure that majority rule does not become oppressive, modern democracies a. limit political participation to individuals who are properly educated. b. guarantee the rights of minorities. c. embrace the concept of majority rule. d. apply term limits to elected officials. e. require two-thirds support of the legislature before a law can be enacted. ANS: B
REF: 11 | 12
NOT: Conceptual
33. The political theory that states that in a democracy, the government ought to do what the majority of the people want is called a. elite theory. b. majoritarianism. c. pluralism. d. direct democracy. e. limited government. ANS: B
REF: 12
NOT: Factual
34. Versions of elite theory suggest that a. elites rely on the input from interest groups within society. b. a small elite class makes most of the important decisions. c. society is ruled by elites who exercise power for self-interest. d. children who are not part of the elite class can never enter it. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 12
NOT: Conceptual
35. Elite theory a. implies that the president must come from the party that holds the majority in Congress. b. emphasizes governmental control over economic policy, but not social institutions. c. is viewed by political scientists as a theory that works well as a description of both how democracies should function and how democracies actually do function. d. indicates that a single ruler controls all aspects of the government but not economic and social institutions. e. is the perspective that society is ruled by a small number of people who exercise power to further their self-interests. ANS: E
REF: 12
NOT: Conceptual
36. Theorists describe pluralism as a. the struggle between the poor and wealthy classes. b. the struggle among groups to gain benefits for their members. c. a theory of how democracy should not function.
d. a way to settle disputes by armed conflict. e. a way for one group to dominate the political process. ANS: B
REF: 13
NOT: Conceptual
37. The practical limitations of pluralism theory include a. the wealthy are overrepresented. b. one group may dominate the political process. c. conflict may divide the United States into hostile camps. d. individuals have more than one self-interest. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 13
NOT: Applied
38. A political culture is a a. written set of codes that dictate political action. b. process that transmits value to immigrants and children.. c. major problem for rulers of stable forms of government. d. patterned set of ideas, values, and ways of thinking about government and politics. e. manifestation of pluralism. ANS: D
REF: 13
NOT: Conceptual
39. The concept of political socialization refers to a. the process by which beliefs and values are transmitted to new immigrants and to our children. b. political movements in support of Socialism. c. the process by which religious values are transmitted only through the media. d. the gradual development of social programs within our national government. e. the government taking over the economic sector of the country. ANS: A
REF: 13
NOT: Conceptual
40. The theory that politics involves conflict among interest groups using bargaining and compromise is known as a. pluralism. b. elite theory. c. liberalism. d. majoritarianism. e. libertarianism. ANS: A
REF: 13
NOT: Conceptual
41. The two most important sources of political socialization are a. the Republican Party and the Democratic Party. b. the rapid growth of unemployment and uncontrolled immigration. c. the family and the educational system. d. television and the Internet. e. the Declaration of Independence and the U. S. Constitution. ANS: C
REF: 13 | 14
NOT: Applied
42. All of the following are fundamental values of American political culture except a. economic and personal liberty. b. private property. c. equality of race, gender and religion.
d. radical egalitarian beliefs. e. market based capitalism. ANS: D
REF: 13–17
NOT: Factual
43. In the United States, basic guarantees of liberty are found in a. the Declaration of Independence. b. the annual Congressional budget report. c. the Bill of Rights. d. the statement of Rights and Responsibilities. e. National Rights Foundation. ANS: C
REF: 14
NOT: Factual
44. The concept that all people are of equal worth a. was fixed at the time of the Constitutional Convention of 1787. b. expanded in the nineteenth century but narrowed in the twentieth century. c. was extended and elaborated over time. d. has been limited in recent years. e. was extended only in the last twenty years. ANS: C
REF: 15
NOT: Applied
45. Capitalism is a. a political theory developed by Karl Marx. b. an economic system marked by the private ownership of wealth-creating assets, free markets, and freedom of contract. c. incompatible with property rights as a wealth-creating mechanism. d. Named for the centralization of economic power in the capitol city. e. unpopular in the United States. ANS: B
REF: 16
NOT: Factual
46. The right to own property is all of the following except a. a widespread desire in America. b. likely to provide power and liberty to those who own it. c. a source of economic instability. d. fundamental to the capitalist system. e. promotes economic equality. ANS: E
REF: 16 | 17
NOT: Conceptual
47. Evidence that the gap between rich and poor has grown includes a. salaries have stagnated in the last ten years. b. the number of millionaires and billionaires has grown. c. it is harder to advance in the United States as compared to other developed nations. d. the income of the top 5 percent has grown faster than other sectors. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 17
NOT: Applied
48. Opposition to big government is in conflict with citizens’ desire for a. quality schools. b. safety and security. c. programs for the elderly. d. lower taxes.
e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 17 | 18
NOT: Applied
49. Tension over the size of government dates back to a. before the American Revolution. b. the Civil War. c. the Reagan Administration. d. the Bush Administration. e. the Great Depression. ANS: A
REF: 17 | 18
NOT: Applied
50. A comprehensive set of beliefs about the nature of people and the role of government is called a. a political culture. b. a dogma. c. an ideology. d. the political spectrum. e. political science. ANS: C
REF: 19
NOT: Factual
51. Conservatives endorse all of the following except a. a limited role for the national government in helping individuals. b. government action to support traditional values. c. patriotism. d. redistribution of income. e. the belief that the individual is responsible for his or her own well-being. ANS: D
REF: 19 | 20
NOT: Conceptual
52. The following statement would be compatible with __________ ideology. “The government should have no role in providing health care for the country. People should provide their own health care.” a. liberal b. conservative c. communist d. socialist e. extreme liberal ANS: B
REF: 19–23
NOT: Applied
53. Liberals endorse all of the following except a. civil rights. b. improving the welfare of individuals. c. a limited role for the government in helping individuals. d. government regulation of the economy. e. tolerance for political and social change. ANS: C
REF: 20 | 21
NOT: Conceptual
54. The word liberalism stems from the word liberty. Liberals in the nineteenth century a. were in favor of governmental solutions to social problems. b. were skeptical of government and in favor of traditional opinions. c. were in favor of organized labor and assistance to the poor. d. embraced religious influence in politics. e. were in favor of government spending in times of economic difficulty.
ANS: B
REF: 20 | 21
NOT: Conceptual
55. The following statement would be compatible with __________ ideology. “The government should act to create jobs during an economic crisis.” a. liberal b. conservative c. anarchist d. libertarian e. extreme conservative ANS: A
REF: 20–23
NOT: Applied
56. The following statement would be compatible with __________ ideology. “The government should only provide security and an environment conducive to capitalism.” a. liberal b. conservative c. communist d. socialist e. libertarian ANS: E
REF: 20–23
NOT: Applied
57. Which political ideology would support active government control over major economic sectors? a. Liberalism b. Conservatism c. Socialism d. Libertarianism e. Laissez-faire capitalism ANS: C
REF: 21
NOT: Applied
58. Unlike liberals or conservatives, socialists advocate a. personal liberties. b. private property rights. c. market capitalism. d. private investment in governmental systems. e. replacing investor ownership of businesses by government ownership. ANS: E
REF: 21 | 22
NOT: Conceptual
59. All of the following are true of libertarians except a. libertarians support personal civil liberties. b. libertarians advocate redistribution of income. c. libertarians support laissez-faire capitalism. d. libertarians oppose most government activities. e. libertarians more strongly support property rights. ANS: B
REF: 21–23
NOT: Applied
60. Political gridlock a. is a consequence of divided government. b. is caused by political polarization. c. is caused by increased discipline in the two parties. d. has caused political rhetoric to rise in media outlets. e. All of the above are true.
ANS: E
REF: 23
NOT: Conceptual
ESSAY 1. Describe the consequence to the daily life of an average citizen in a country without the Bill of Rights. ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Draw a diagram depicting the political spectrum in the United States incorporating information from the four major ideologies. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Do you believe that pluralism or elite theory is the more accurate description of American politics? Why? ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Why does the mandate of equal treatment for all groups of Americans sometimes come into conflict with the concept of liberty? ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Describe the origins of inequality in America today. How might inequality be addressed through governmental policies? ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Why do you think that socialism has made little headway in America, despite its popularity in other parts of the world? ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Describe the different viewpoints on the role of government in society as promoted by liberals and conservatives. ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Compare and contrast direct democracy to representative democracy. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each? In what situations might a direct democracy work? When is a representative democracy more feasible? ANS: Answers may vary.
9. Describe the problem of healthcare in the U.S. and how the two main ideologies would attempt to solve the problem.. ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Describe the origins of the Tea Party and the Occupy Together movements and explain their divergent viewpoints on important issues. ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 2: The Constitution MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. There are 538 electors in the electoral college; i.e., a. ten for every state. b. one for each member of the U.S. Senate. c. one for each member of Congress and three for the District of Columbia. d. one for each Senator and each Governor of the state. e. one for each U.S. Senator and three for Puerto Rico. ANS: C
REF: 32
NOT: Applied
2. The Founders designed the system of electors to select the president because a. they hoped the people would lobby the electors. b. they hoped the people would delegate the selection to a group of notable citizens. c. they believed in direct democracy. d. they wanted a system for selecting presidents identical to Britain. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 32
NOT: Applied
3. Under the electoral college system a. a presidential candidate can be elected without receiving a majority of the popular vote. b. a presidential candidate cannot win without receiving the majority of the popular vote. c. a presidential candidate can win with a majority of the popular vote but a minority of the electoral college vote. d. more than 20 presidents have failed to win over 50 percent of the popular vote. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 32
NOT: Applied
4. If the United States elected presidents by popular vote a. small states’ interests might be ignored. b. large states’ interests might be ignored. c. elections might be more certain with a wider margin of victory. d. there would be less recounts. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 32
NOT: Applied
5. As suggested by the text, one method of establishing a popularly elected president is a. through an interstate compact in which states agree to award electoral votes to the winner of the national popular vote. b. by abolishing the electoral college via a vote in Congress. c. by challenging the constitutionality of the electoral college in the Supreme Court. d. by giving each state an equal vote. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: A
REF: 32
NOT: Applied
6. The winner-take-all provision of the current presidential election system a. provides that the winner of the state’s popular vote takes all of the state’s electoral votes. b. is sometimes called the unit rule.
c. causes some candidates to skip safe states and only campaign in close contests. d. causes candidates to spend little time in California, Illinois, New York, and Texas. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 32
NOT: Applied
7. The number of electors required to win the presidential election is a. 270. b. 470. c. 170. d. 720. e. 538. ANS: A
REF: 32
NOT: Factual
8. In the voting booth, during presidential elections, citizens a. vote for candidates directly. b. vote for electors who are pledged to support one candidate or another. c. vote for a political party rather than a candidate. d. vote for a slate of presidential electors. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 32
NOT: Applied
9. The Jamestown colonists set a political precedent by a. allowing the governor to use a line-item veto. b. instituting a direct democracy. c. instituting a representative assembly. d. creating a judicial system. e. writing a constitutional document. ANS: C
REF: 33
NOT: Applied
10. The creative thinkers that designed the Constitution were most influenced by a. the historical and political context of the civil war. b. political philosophy of the time about how people should be governed. c. the historical experiences gained through trial of several forms of government during New World settlement. d. the historical experiences gained through trial of several forms of government during Old World settlement. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 33
NOT: Conceptual
11. The Jamestown colony was established as a. a trading post. b. a military fort. c. a settlement in Maryland. d. the first French settlement in the New World. e. a settlement for religious Separatists. ANS: A
REF: 33
NOT: Applied
12. The colonies in the New World provided for opportunities to a. promote trade. b. explore religious freedom.
c. practice limited self-government. d. implement the social contract. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 33 | 34
NOT: Applied
13. The major historical and political significance of the Mayflower Compact was that it a. served as a prototype for many similar compacts. b. was the start of the first settlement in America. c. depended on the consent of the individuals involved. d. established the colony of Massachusetts. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 34
NOT: Conceptual
14. Taxes were imposed on the colonists to a. pay for the coronation of King George III. b. pay for the establishment of more colonies. c. pay the costs of Britain’s defense of the colonies during the French and Indian War. d. to enrich wealthy British landowners. e. None of the above is true. ANS: C
REF: 35 | 36
NOT: Factual
15. Taxes that the British attempted to impose on the American colonies in the years leading up to the Revolutionary War included all of the following except a. the Sugar Act, which imposed a tax on sugar. b. the Stamp Act, which taxed legal documents and newspapers. c. duties on glass, lead, and paint. d. a tax on tea. e. an income tax. ANS: E
REF: 36
NOT: Factual
16. The colonists’ fury over taxation led to a. a boycott of British goods. b. the formation of the Stamp Act Congress. c. the closure of Boston Harbor. d. the Boston Tea Party. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 36
NOT: Factual
17. The First Continental Congress a. declared independence from Britain. b. was held in Boston, Massachusetts. c. urged colonists to purchase British goods to win favor with the King. d. encouraged the colonists to petition King George III to express their grievances. e. produced a document that the colonists found to be coercive. ANS: D
REF: 36
NOT: Factual
18. One of the main actions of the Second Continental Congress was a. to establish an army and appoint a commander in chief. b. to sign a treaty with Britain prohibiting trade with France. c. to sign a treaty with France to declare war on Britain.
d. the creation of a unitary government in America. e. to establish a document with ambitious designs to separate from Britain. ANS: A
REF: 36 | 37
NOT: Factual
19. Thomas Paine’s pamphlet Common Sense advocated a. the formation of a new government that would still be loyal to the king. b. the establishment of a government that would limit further immigration. c. an end of hostilities toward Britain. d. the idea that the formation of the country’s own government was a “natural right.” e. the repeal of all taxes, including those the colonists had imposed on themselves. ANS: D
REF: 36 | 37
NOT: Conceptual
20. The first draft of the Declaration of Independence was written by a. John Locke. b. John Adams. c. Thomas Jefferson. d. George Washington. e. Benjamin Franklin. ANS: C
REF: 37
NOT: Factual
21. “We hold these Truths to be self-evident, that all Men are created equal” are the first words of a. the Constitution of the United States of America. b. the Declaration of Independence. c. the Magna Carta. d. the United Nations Charter. e. the Bill of Rights. ANS: B
REF: 37 | 38
NOT: Factual
22. Which of the following is not true of the Declaration of Independence? a. It listed the colonists’ grievances against England. b. It established the legitimacy of the United States as a new nation. c. It listed reasons for dissolving the tie with Great Britain. d. It established a constitutional government. e. It gave the people the rights to life, liberty, the pursuit of happiness and to alter the government if it became destructive of the people’s rights. ANS: D
REF: 37–39
NOT: Factual
23. A voluntary agreement among individuals to secure their rights and welfare by creating a government and abiding by its rules is called a. a confederation. b. a social contract. c. a syndicate. d. a constitution. e. natural law. ANS: B
REF: 38
NOT: Factual
24. English philosopher John Locke believed that the main purpose of government was a. to defend against foreign enemies. b. to protect man’s natural rights of life, liberty, and property. c. to raise taxes to build an army.
d. to promote equality under the law. e. to promote religious separatism. ANS: B
REF: 38
NOT: Conceptual
25. The term confederation or confederal refers to a. a system in which most power is with the central government. b. a voluntary association in which states have most of the power. c. a system in which state and local governments have equal power with the central government. d. a national legislature. e. the southern states where slavery was legal. ANS: B
REF: 40
NOT: Conceptual
26. The Articles of Confederation a. provided for a bicameral legislature. b. established a strong executive branch. c. allowed the states to retain most of the power. d. created a way to raise taxes to fund an army. e. ended slavery. ANS: C
REF: 40
NOT: Factual
27. Which of the following was a weakness of the Articles of Confederation? a. Congress lacked the power to collect taxes directly from the people. b. Any amendments to the Articles required unanimous consent of the Congress and confirmation by every state legislature. c. Congress lacked the power to demand funds for the militia. d. Each state had one vote regardless of size. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 40 | 41
NOT: Factual
28. The Constitutional Convention in 1787 was brought on by the a. publication of the Treaty of Paris. b. request of President Washington. c. failure of the Articles of Confederation. d. publication of the Declaration of Independence. e. end of the Revolutionary War. ANS: C
REF: 42
NOT: Factual
29. Of the delegates at the Constitutional Convention a. most were members of the upper class. b. a majority came from professional backgrounds. c. most represented a cross section of American society. d. most were senior statesmen with governmental experience. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 42
NOT: Applied
30. The Virginia Plan a. called for a bicameral legislature. b. worked to the advantage of small states. c. provided for the direct election of a president by the people.
d. settled all controversy. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 43
NOT: Factual
31. The factions among delegates at the Constitutional Convention a. wanted a strong central government. b. were concerned about claims to western lands. c. had republican leanings. d. had nationalist leanings. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 43
NOT: Applied
32. The New Jersey Plan called for all of the following except a. Congress would elect several people to form an executive office. b. the elimination of a Supreme Court. c. the ability of Congress to regulate trade and impose taxes. d. acts of Congress would be the supreme law of the land. e. the principle of one state, one vote. ANS: B
REF: 44
NOT: Factual
33. The supremacy doctrine asserts the superiority of a. large states over small states. b. non-slave states over slave states. c. national law over state law. d. natural law over man-made law. e. None of the above is true. ANS: C
REF: 44
NOT: Conceptual
34. The Great Compromise a. was advanced by the delegates from Georgia. b. proposed a bicameral legislature with equal representation in the Senate. c. was presented too late to be considered. d. was proposed by Texas. e. proposed a unicameral legislature in which each state would have one vote. ANS: B
REF: 44
NOT: Factual
35. The Three-Fifths Compromise did all of the following except a. illustrate the power of the southern states at the convention. b. partially apportion the House of Representatives and the electoral college on the basis of property. c. give African Americans representation that was equal to what free whites received. d. give more voting power to southern slave owners. e. fail to address the slave trade directly. ANS: C
REF: 44 | 45
NOT: Applied
36. All of the following are true except a. the Three-Fifths Compromise did not end slavery. b. the compromise meant that slavery was never addressed directly. c. the representatives elected in the South did not represent slaves. d. the Three-Fifths Compromise allowed the immediate ban on the importation of slaves.
e. delegates believed that dismemberment of the union was a worse evil than slavery. ANS: D
REF: 44 | 45
NOT: Applied
37. The United States is among the few countries that do not tax their exports because a. it does not need the money. b. it encourages exports. c. the South obtained a promise that export taxes would not be imposed. d. the World Trade Organization prohibits it from doing so. e. the president of the United States vetoed the bill. ANS: C
REF: 45
NOT: Applied
38. The concept of separation of powers was included in the Constitution to prevent a. disputes between the federal and state governments. b. the imposition of export taxes. c. a major dispute over power between the House and the Senate. d. disputes over power between Congress and the president. e. tyranny by either the majority or by a minority. ANS: E
REF: 46
NOT: Conceptual
39. Which of the following is NOT correct under the concept of separation of powers? a. The president executes and carries out the law. b. The Supreme Court uses judicial review. c. The legislative branch’s job is lawmaking. d. Congress has the right to interpret the law. e. None of the above is true.. ANS: D
REF: 46
NOT: Applied
40. The concept of checks and balances allows a. Congress to declare presidential actions unconstitutional. b. the Supreme Court to break the tie on legislation. c. the President to veto legislation he/she does not support. d. Congress to remove members of the Supreme Court. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: C
REF: 46
NOT: Applied
41. The group that actually elects the president of the United States is called a. the Presidential Election Commission. b. the Congressional Election Forum. c. the Association of State Legislatures. d. the electoral college. e. the electorate at large. ANS: D
REF: 47
NOT: Factual
42. When the Constitution was approved in 1787, it included a. a federal system. b. separation of powers. c. popular sovereignty, or control by the people. d. a representative government. e. All of the above are true.
ANS: E
REF: 47 | 48
NOT: Conceptual
43. The Constitution included all of the following except a. a republican form of government. b. limited government with written laws. c. a unicameral legislature. d. protections for states’ rights. e. checks and balances. ANS: C
REF: 48
NOT: Applied
44. The Federalists a. supported the new Constitution. b. were mostly rural people from the lower classes. c. did not attend the Constitutional Convention. d. supported the status quo. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 48 | 49
NOT: Factual
45. Ratification of the Constitution required the a. approval of the thirteen state legislatures. b. approval by nine out of thirteen state conventions. c. approval of the thirteen state legislatures and two-thirds of Congress. d. approval by popular vote in nine states. e. None of the above is true. ANS: B
REF: 48–50
NOT: Factual
46. The Anti-Federalists a. lived in urban areas. b. attended the Constitutional Convention. c. supported a strong central government. d. opposed the new Constitution. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: D
REF: 49 | 50
NOT: Factual
47. National support for the Constitution was probably a. widespread as the wealthy landowners wanted to protect their property rights. b. widespread as a strong central government protected order. c. limited as the poor were oppressed by wealthy elite. d. limited as the wealthy did not want to extend voting rights to the masses. e. Both A and B. ANS: E
REF: 51
NOT: Applied
48. The Bill of Rights provided for a. the protection of individual liberties from state governments. b. the protection of individual liberties from the national government. c. equal protection under the law. d. protection against state infringements on the freedoms of conscience, the press, and jury trial. e. Options B and D are true. ANS: B
REF: 51–53
NOT: Conceptual
49. The Bill of Rights a. is sometimes called the Bill of Limits. b. is sometimes called the Bill of Attainder. c. is the first Ten Amendments to the Constitution. d. limited state power. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 51–53
NOT: Factual
50. A constitutional amendment can be proposed by a. a national convention called by Congress at the request of two-thirds of the state legislatures. b. a two-thirds vote in each chamber of Congress. c. the legislatures in two-thirds the states. d. a majority vote in both chambers of Congress provided the amendment is not vetoed by the president. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 53 | 54
NOT: Factual
51. A constitutional amendment can be ratified by a. a positive vote in conventions in three-fourths of the states. b. a positive vote in the legislatures of three-fourths the states. c. a two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress. d. the legislatures in two-thirds of the states. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 53 | 54
NOT: Factual
52. Which groups are involved in proposing and ratifying amendments to the Constitution? a. The states, the president, and Congress b. The Senate, the Supreme Court, and the House of Representatives c. Congress, the president, and the people d. The Senate, the House of Representatives, and the states e. The House of Representatives, the president, and the Senate ANS: D
REF: 53 | 54
NOT: Applied
53. The only formal method used so far to propose an amendment to the Constitution is a. the popular vote of the people. b. a two-thirds vote in favor of it by both houses of Congress. c. state legislatures or conventions in three-fourths of the states. d. a national convention. e. a proposal by the president. ANS: B
REF: 53 | 54
NOT: Factual
54. The framers of the Constitution set a. no time limit for the ratification process. b. a limit of twelve months for the ratification of an amendment. c. a limit of twenty-four months for ratification for the ratification of an amendment. d. a seven year limit for ratification of an amendment. e. a provision for extensions for ratification. ANS: A
REF: 54
NOT: Applied
55. The voting age of eighteen was set by a. Congress. b. the Twenty-sixth Amendment. c. the Nineteenth Amendment. d. the Supreme Court. e. the states. ANS: B
REF: 55
NOT: Factual
56. Informal methods of constitutional change include a. Congress proposing an amendment with a three-fourths majority of both houses. b. state governments changing their constitutions to give them supremacy. c. the use of judicial review by the courts. d. state governments agreeing to hold conventions to amend the Constitution. e. All of the above are true. ANS: C
REF: 56 | 57
NOT: Conceptual
57. The power of the Supreme Court to declare actions of the other branches of government to be unconstitutional is known as a. judicial review. b. judicial activism. c. legislative ratification. d. the supremacy doctrine. e. the Madisonian model. ANS: A
REF: 57
NOT: Factual
58. Judicial review is a. a method by which the president can check the judiciary. b. the process of confirmation of federal judges by Congress. c. the ability of the courts to declare acts of the legislative and executive branches of government unconstitutional. d. not applicable to actions by state governments. e. None of the above is true. ANS: C
REF: 57
NOT: Conceptual
59. International agreements between the president and a foreign head of state that do not require legislative approval are known as a. treaties. b. executive agreements. c. contracts. d. memoranda of understanding. e. executive orders. ANS: B
REF: 57
NOT: Factual
60. Opponents of the 2010 Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act a. believe that individuals should not be forced to buy health insurance by the government. b. believe that government will next tax those who are overweight, smoke or buy foreign cars. c. believe that healthcare is a right. d. believe that the government does not have the right to impose new taxes.
e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 59
NOT: Applied
ESSAY 1. Describe the purpose of the various colonial settlements and the motivations for emigration to the New World. ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Describe the colonists’ dissatisfaction with the British restrictions and steps they took to begin the road to the Constitutional Convention. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Describe the competing interests of the small states and the large states. How were these conflicting interests resolved in the final version of the Constitution in 1787? ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Describe the concepts of separation of powers and checks and balances and give examples of these checks in each branch of government. ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Describe the methods of proposing and ratifying a constitutional amendment. ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Compare and contrast the structures of government formed under the Articles of Confederation and the U.S. Constitution. How are the colonists’ historical experiences reflected in each document? How did the weaknesses of the Articles lead to a different structure in the Constitution? ANS: Answers may vary. 7. At the Constitutional Convention, several compromises were made to garner the support of various states. Describe these compromises and the debates that surrounded them. ANS: Answers may vary. 8. The Constitution’s ratification process included arguments for and against ratification by Federalists and Anti-Federalists, respectively. Describe and evaluate the arguments expressed by both of these groups. ANS:
Answers may vary. 9. The process of amending the U.S. Constitution is an intentionally difficult one. Yet those in each branch of government have found ways in which the Constitution can be changed informally. Describe the methods, both formal and informal, of constitutional change. ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Describe the demographic make-up of the delegates to the Constitutional Convention. Did they represent a cross-section of American Society? ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 3: Federalism MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The Defense of Marriage Act a. was passed by Congress in anticipation of states legalizing same-sex marriage. b. allows states to ignore same-sex marriages performed in other states. c. directs federal agencies not to recognize same-sex marriages, even if some states do. d. was ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 82
NOT: Factual
2. All of the following are true except a. several states including Massachusetts, Iowa, and New Hampshire have legalized same-sex marriage. b. several states including California, Pennsylvania, and Maine have legalized same-sex marriage. c. public opinion polls suggest that Americans who accept same-sex marriages now outnumber those who do not. d. the national government has traditionally left marriage laws to the states. e. states who refuse to recognize same-sex marriages are open to legal challenges in the courts due to the fact that some state recognize the unions. ANS: B
REF: 82
NOT: Factual
3. Which government system is used most in the world today? a. Unitary system b. Confederate system c. Federal system d. Bicameral system e. None of the above is true. ANS: A
REF: 83
NOT: Factual
4. In a unitary system of government, ultimate government authority is located a. at the state or provincial level. b. at the local or municipal level. c. at the regional level. d. at the national or central level. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: D
REF: 83
NOT: Factual
5. All of the following are true of a confederation or confederate political system, except a. a confederation is a league of independent states. b. in a confederation, a central government handles only matters delegated to it by the member states. c. the United States was a confederation. d. a confederation gives most of the power to the member states. e. a confederate system is the same thing as a federal system. ANS: E
REF: 83 | 84
NOT: Conceptual
6. All of the following are true except a. in unitary systems, the power is held by the central government. b. in confederal systems, the power is held by the subdivisional units or states. c. in federal systems, the power is held jointly by the national government and the subdivisional units or states. d. in federal systems the power is held by the national government. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: D
REF: 83 | 84
NOT: Factual
7. In a federal political system, authority is a. always vested in a bicameral legislature. b. divided between the central government and regional or sub-divisional governments. c. bestowed upon the central government, with no power being granted to the regional governments. d. concentrated in a unicameral legislature within a strong central government. e. exercised by the national government only insofar as these powers are granted by the states. ANS: B
REF: 84
NOT: Conceptual
8. Which of the following is NOT a defense of federalism? a. Political experimentation at the state level can be used to see if policies are workable. b. The government is in closer contact with the people because of the role given to state governments. c. It allows for differences among the regions of the country. d. The national government has all the power so states play a small role. e. It is a better system for the United States than a unitary system because of the size of the United States ANS: D
REF: 84–86
NOT: Applied
9. Which of the following is NOT true about the European Union (EU)? a. The EU is a confederation of twenty-seven countries. b. The EU is a federation of twenty-seven countries. c. Seventeen of the EU countries have adopted a common currency-the euro. d. EU countries like Greece, Portugal, and Ireland have had financial difficulties of late. e. The European Central Bank is prohibited from bailing out member countries in difficulty. ANS: B
REF: 85
NOT: Factual
10. The Greek financial crisis has its roots in a. overspending by previous Greek government officials. b. excessive borrowing by previous Greek government officials. c. the inability of Greece to devalue its currency. d. the inability of Greece to be able to borrow from the European Central bank. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 85
11. Constitutional powers can be classified as a. powers of the national government. b. powers of the states. c. prohibited powers. d. Options A, B, and C are true.
NOT: Factual
e. None of the above is true. ANS: D
REF: 87
NOT: Conceptual
12. The expressed or enumerated powers include the ability of the federal government to a. coin money, set standards for weights and measures, and determine rules for citizenship. b. declare war and establish post offices. c. increase the number of federal courts. d. set up the national central banking system. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 87
NOT: Applied
13. The clause in the Constitution that grants Congress the power to do whatever is necessary to execute its enumerated or expressed powers is called a. the elastic or necessary and proper clause. b. the supremacy clause. c. the concurrent clause. d. the reserved powers clause. e. due process clause. ANS: A
REF: 87 | 88
NOT: Factual
14. The necessary and proper clause of the Constitution was first used by the Supreme Court in what case to develop the concept of implied powers? a. Marbury v. Madison b. McCulloch v. Maryland c. Madison v. Jefferson d. Gibbons v. Ogden e. California v. Miller. ANS: B
REF: 87 | 88
NOT: Factual
15. Inherent powers derive from the fact that the United States is a. a democratic republic. b. a confederation formed by state governments. c. a sovereign power among nations. d. a federal system. e. explicitly entitled by the Constitution to annex new territory. ANS: C
REF: 88
NOT: Conceptual
16. The police power is a. the authority to legislate for the health, welfare, safety, and morals of the people. b. reserved for the federal government to fight terrorism. c. delegated to the states to make laws not prohibited by the national or state constitutions. d. the power of local police to stop drivers suspected of being illegal immigrants. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 88
NOT: Applied
17. Which two sets of powers do state governments have? a. Enumerated and expressed powers b. Reserved and concurrent powers c. Direct and inherent powers d. Expressed and implied
e. None of the above is true. ANS: B
REF: 88 | 89
NOT: Factual
18. Powers held jointly by the national and state governments are called a. cooperative powers. b. statutory powers. c. reserved powers. d. concurrent powers. e. inherent powers. ANS: D
REF: 89
NOT: Factual
19. All are true of concurrent powers except a. concurrent powers are generally not listed specifically in the Constitution. b. concurrent powers are expressly written in the Constitution. c. concurrent powers include the power to borrow funds, pass laws, and levy taxes. d. concurrent powers of states are generally limited to state borders. e. concurrent powers include the power to establish courts and charter banks. ANS: B
REF: 89
NOT: Conceptual
20. States may not a. license marriages. b. pass laws regulating contracts. c. make laws on divorce. d. make treaties with foreign nations. e. impose taxes on income. ANS: D
REF: 89
NOT: Applied
21. State cannot use their reserved or concurrent powers to thwart national policies due to the a. Bill of Rights. b. supremacy clause. c. necessary and proper clause. d. elastic clause. e. unitary system of government. ANS: C
REF: 89
NOT: Applied
22. The national government cannot create a national divorce law system because a. certain powers are reserved for the states. b. the Constitution prohibits a number of powers to the national government. c. regulation of marriage is explicitly reserved for state government in the Constitution. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 89
NOT: Applied
23. Examples of vertical checks and balances include a. the reserved powers of the states. b. administration of many national programs and policies by the states. c. the requirement that Constitutional amendments be ratified by the states. d. the power of the national government to shape state policies by federal grant program requirements. e. All of the above are true.
ANS: D
REF: 90
NOT: Applied
24. In their dealings with each other, each state is required to do all of the following except a. give full faith and credit to other states’ official acts. b. extend to citizens of other states the privileges and immunities of its own citizens. c. return persons fleeing from justice back to the state that requests them. d. Options A and C are true. e. refrain from making agreements that do not include all fifty states. ANS: E
REF: 90 | 91
NOT: Factual
25. An agreement between two or more states is a. shared governance. b. an interstate compact. c. an intrastate treaty. d. a cooperative agreement. e. unconstitutional. ANS: B
REF: 91
NOT: Factual
26. States may enter into agreements called interstate compacts a. with congressional approval on major matters. b. without congressional approval on minor matters. c. to settle matters in chronic dispute between two or more states. d. to manage water resources that cross state lines. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 91
NOT: Applied
27. In the early years of the nation’s history, most of the disputes over the boundaries of national versus state power involved a. different interpretations of the inherent powers of the national government. b. the role of the national government in mediating disputes between the states. c. the ability of the states to enter into international treaties. d. the enforcement of the Bill of Rights. e. the necessary and proper clause and the powers of the national government to regulate interstate commerce. ANS: E
REF: 91
NOT: Conceptual
28. All of the following are true about the case of McCulloch v. Maryland except that a. the case dealt with the issue of implied powers of the federal government. b. one issue was whether the federal government could create a national bank. c. the decision allowed the federal government to grow and expand. d. the decision upheld the right of the federal government to use the necessary and proper clause. e. the Supreme Court ruled the national government could only use its express powers. ANS: E
REF: 91
NOT: Conceptual
29. The section of the Constitution in which Congress is given the authority to regulate trade among the states and with foreign countries is called the a. oversight clause. b. commerce clause. c. supremacy clause.
d. necessary and proper clause. e. interstate compact clause. ANS: B
REF: 91
NOT: Factual
30. In the case of Gibbons v. Ogden a. the national government lost the power to regulate intrastate commerce. b. state governments won the right to control navigation in interstate waters. c. the power to regulate interstate commerce was determined to be an exclusive national power of the federal government. d. the ruling provided the national government with decreasing power over economic affairs throughout the land. e. the Supreme Court found that commerce was defined as the exchange of goods and not navigation or transport of people. ANS: C
REF: 91 | 92
NOT: Applied
31. When Congress passed a tariff in 1828, South Carolina tried to nullify it to a. assert the power of the state governments over the national government. b. indicate that a state should have the ultimate authority over its citizens. c. protect slavery. d. to increase the price of exported and imported goods. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 92
NOT: Applied
32. After early rulings by the Supreme Court increased the power of the national government, states sought a shift back to states’ rights due to a. increasing divisions between the North and the South over the slavery issue. b. conflict over Congressional passage of a tariff on trade in 1828. c. concern over expanding power by the federal government in the regulation of commerce. d. conflict over the role of the national government and that of the states. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 92 | 93
NOT: Applied
33. The controversy that led to the Civil War was a. the dispute over states’ rights and national supremacy. b. interstate commerce. c. the application of the Bill of Rights to the states. d. taxation. e. the admission of Texas into the union. ANS: A
REF: 93
NOT: Conceptual
34. Outcomes of the Civil War included a. a dramatic increase in the federal budget. b. the implementation of the first income tax on citizens. c. the end of slavery. d. new amendments to the Constitution that allowed African American males the right to vote. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 93
35. The Civil War amendments
NOT: Factual
a. b. c. d. e.
abolished slavery. sought to guarantee equal rights under state laws. gave the right to vote to African Americans. defined who was a citizen of the United States. All the above are true.
ANS: E
REF: 93
NOT: Factual
36. The doctrine of dual federalism meant a. an increase in the powers of the national government. b. that the states and the federal government should each exercise authority as co-equal sovereign powers. c. continued wartime expansion of the North’s powers. d. allowing the national government to regulate state actions affecting African Americans. e. allowing the state and national governments to interfere in each other’s areas of influence. ANS: B
REF: 93 | 94
NOT: Conceptual
37. As a result of the Civil War crisis, the Supreme Court a. was drastically reduced in influence. b. voted exclusively against the Civil War. c. gained additional power, along with the state governments. d. ruled that the initial plan of Congress to reconstruct the South was unconstitutional. e. None of the above is true. ANS: A
REF: 94
NOT: Conceptual
38. After the Civil War, the Supreme Court a. limited the police power to the national government. b. declared a ban on child labor as unconstitutional. c. allowed Congress great latitude in regulating commerce. d. supported a strong central government and reduced state power. e. tended to oppose dual federalism and supported single federalism. ANS: B
REF: 94
NOT: Applied
39. All of the following are true of the New Deal except that a. new federal laws regulating economic activity were introduced. b. new federal laws were struck down by the Supreme Court because they regulated intrastate commerce, not interstate commerce. c. the Supreme Court’s actions caused Roosevelt to propose legislation that would allow him to choose more justices for the Court. d. almost one-half of the labor force was unemployed. e. the commerce clause became an important tool for justifying the economic regulation of the country. ANS: D
REF: 94 | 95
NOT: Factual
40. The Supreme Court ceased to interfere with national legislation on the economy after a. Congress impeached the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. b. Roosevelt removed six justices from the Court. c. Congress voted to expand the Court to twelve justices. d. Roosevelt named six new justices to the Court. e. Roosevelt tried but failed to expand the Court by adding six new justices. ANS: E
REF: 95
NOT: Applied
41. All are true of federal grants except that they a. increased significantly during the twentieth century. b. have been used for education, pollution, and highway construction. c. have quadrupled in the amount of dollars given by the national government. d. are given by the states for national projects. e. have given the national government a much greater role in state government. ANS: D
REF: 95 | 96
NOT: Factual
42. The federal government supplies a. an increasing share of state and local government revenues. b. a decreasing share of the state and local government revenue. c. revenue to state governments in the form of block and categorical grants. d. revenue to state governments in the form of federal mandates. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 95–97
NOT: Applied
43. Categorical grants are a. federal grants to states or local governments for specific programs. b. emergency grants to states for unforeseen circumstances. c. a very recent form of national government support to school districts. d. unconstitutional because of separation of powers. e. None of the above is true. ANS: A
REF: 96
NOT: Factual
44. Formula grants a. are a form of categorical grant. b. dispense funds based on variables such as state population and need. c. were more common than program grants before the 1960s. d. are unconstitutional. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 96
NOT: Factual
45. Since the Great Depression a. local government spending is greater than central government spending in total dollars. b. central government spending is greater than local government spending in total dollars. c. government spending has decreased in both the local and central government sectors. d. spending has increased faster as a percentage of all government spending at the local level than at the national level. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 96
NOT: Applied
46. A federal grant for a specific project or program is called a a. project grant. b. block grant. c. community action grant. d. basic grant. e. categorical grant. ANS: E
REF: 97
NOT: Factual
47. A federal grant that funds a general functional area with fewer restrictions on the states is a a. matching grant. b. program grant. c. federal mandate. d. block grant. e. waiver. ANS: D
REF: 97
NOT: Factual
48. In recent years states have faced budget difficulties due to a. a reduction in state aid from the federal government. b. a reduction in tax revenue due to the Great Recession. c. a reduction in property tax revenue due to decreased housing values. d. an increase in demands for services due to high unemployment. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 98
NOT: Applied
49. Strings attached to federal grants a. are called federal mandates. b. are designed to force states to comply with federal policies. c. are designed to force states to save money. d. are called federal rules. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 98 | 99
NOT: Applied
50. Federal mandates are a. rules for operation in the Supreme Court. b. requirements attached to state laws to dispense state grants. c. requirements in federal legislation that force states to comply with federal rules. d. always accompanied by ample federal funding to cover costs of the mandate. e. are unconstitutional. ANS: C
REF: 98 | 99
NOT: Conceptual
51. National authority has traditionally been preferred by a. liberals. b. conservatives. c. libertarians. d. those who are culturally conservative but economically liberal. e. the southern states. ANS: A
REF: 99
NOT: Factual
52. Competitive federalism can cause a. states to compete for business investment. b. financial pressures as states try respond to demands for services. c. state revenue shortfalls for essential programs like pension funds. d. states to cooperate for business investment. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 99
NOT: Applied
53. __________ have traditionally favored state government over federal government. a. Liberals
b. c. d. e.
Conservatives Socialists Southern states Individuals who are culturally conservative but economically liberal
ANS: B
REF: 99
NOT: Conceptual
54. In regard to federalism, a. conflicts between states and the federal government have largely subsided. b. expansion of national authority has typically been an engine of social change. c. often states’ rights are not used to support the status quo. d. All of the above are true. e. None of the above is true. ANS: B
REF: 99–101
NOT: Conceptual
55. In the years after 1968, there was a transfer of power from the national government to the state governments. This transfer of power is called a. cooperative federalism. b. revolution. c. regression. d. devolution. e. dual federalism. ANS: D
REF: 100
NOT: Factual
56. The United States Supreme Court a. has the final say on constitutional issues. b. plays a significant role in determining the line between federal and state powers. c. has given increased emphasis to state powers under the Tenth Amendment. d. All of the above are true. e. None of the above is true. ANS: D
REF: 101 | 102
NOT: Conceptual
57. In recent years, the Supreme Court a. has given greater weigh to states’ rights. b. struck down the Gun-Free School Zones Act because Congress exceeded its Constitutional authority in relation to the commerce clause. c. bolstered state government positions in cases where former state employees had filed suit. d. invalidated provisions of federal law that required state employees to do background checks on prospective handgun purchasers. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 102
NOT: Factual
58. In United States v. Lopez (1995), the Supreme Court a. held that Congress exceeded its constitutional authority. b. said that Congress, in passing the Gun-Free School Zones Act, attempted to regulate an area that had nothing to do with commerce. c. placed a limit on national government authority under the commerce clause. d. All of the above are true. e. None of the above is true. ANS: D
REF: 102
NOT: Factual
59. Since the mid-1990s, the Supreme Court’s decisions on federalism have a. continued the precedents established by John Marshall in McCulloch v. Maryland and Gibbons v. Ogden. b. provided a broad interpretation of the commerce clause that justifies extensive national involvement in many areas. c. allowed the federal government to involve itself in areas that are primarily local in character. d. shown a willingness to allow the federal government to extend its power when it deals with sensitive areas such as gun control and violence against women. e. been establishing limits on the powers of the national government under the commerce clause. ANS: E
REF: 102
NOT: Conceptual
ESSAY 1. There are three different models for organizing relations between a central government and local or subdivisional governments. Define all three models and list advantages of each model. ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Describe the Constitutional issues surrounding the debate on same-sex marriage. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. From 1801–1835, the Supreme Court was headed by Chief Justice John Marshall, a Federalist, who advocated a strong central government. Using cases heard by the Supreme Court during that period, show how John Marshall’s political belief affected the relationship between states and the federal government. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Explain the concept of concurrent powers and provide examples. ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Provide examples of vertical checks and balances between federal and state government. ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Compare and contrast categorical and block grants. How do federal mandates have an impact on the states when getting grant money and different types of federal grants? ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Explain why liberals have traditionally endorsed national authority.
ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Give examples of powers reserved for state governments and provide the Constitutional source of that power. ANS: Answers may vary. 9. Explain how the federal government has gained power at the expense of state governments at different points in American history. Describe the essential elements in some court cases where the states have regained power from the federal government. ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Provide arguments for and against a federal form of government. ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 4: Civil Liberties MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If the Supreme Court overturned Roe v. Wade, a. abortions would be illegal in the U.S. b. health insurance companies would determine eligibility for abortions. c. the authority to regulate abortion would fall to the states. d. abortions would only be legal in the first trimester of the pregnancy. e. abortions would be deemed “an invasion of privacy.” ANS: C
REF: 112
NOT: Applied
2. A woman living in a conservative state a. may not be able to access an abortion if she determines she needs one. b. may be required to travel great distances to secure an abortion. c. may be subject to a waiting period after counseling before accessing an abortion. d. may be required to listen to counseling with inaccurate information before accessing an abortion. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 112
NOT: Factual
3. Civil liberties a. are not particularly important in the United States. b. limit government actions against individuals. c. allow the government the freedom or liberty to do what is necessary to run the country. d. are a threat to libertarians. e. None of the above is true. ANS: B
REF: 113
NOT: Conceptual
4. As originally presented in the Constitution, the Bill of Rights a. limited only the power of the national government, not that of the states. b. protected citizens from all forms of government. c. protected citizens from the national and state governments, but not from local governments. d. limited only the power of state governments. e. contained no language on religion. ANS: A
REF: 113
NOT: Conceptual
5. The Bill of Rights a. protects individual religious freedom. b. allows state government to regulate religion. c. allows the national government to regulate religion. d. provides for an official state religion. e. provides protection for street drug use in religious ceremonies. ANS: A
REF: 113–119
NOT: Applied
6. The Supreme Court began applying the Bill of Rights to state governments a. immediately. b. only after the impeachment of various justices was debated in Congress.
c. only in 1880, in cases dealing with criminal procedure. d. only in 1925, in Gitlow v. New York, a case dealing with free speech. e. only in 1940, in a case dealing with freedom of religion. ANS: D
REF: 114
NOT: Factual
7. The incorporation theory a. provides for Congressional oversight into multi-national corporations. b. allows companies to incorporate through government application. c. provides for government oversight to corporations doing business with the government. d. is the view that the provisions of the Bill of Rights are extended to individuals for protection against state actions. e. holds the view that most of the protections of the Bill of Rights apply to foreign government activities through the Fourteenth Amendment. ANS: D
REF: 114
NOT: Applied
8. Gun rights advocates a. were disappointed when a 2008 Supreme Court case ruled that only state militias should be allowed to carry guns, not individuals. b. were encouraged by a 2010 Supreme Court case that prevented state and local governments from completely banning guns. c. advocate that local and state governments should determine gun restrictions. d. support bans on concealed carry permits that cross state lines. e. argue that states that widely allow concealed carry have higher murder rates. ANS: B
REF: 115
NOT: Applied
9. Supreme Court decisions make it clear that a. all citizens have a right to protect themselves. b. all citizens should be able to conceal weapons in any state. c. local governments have the right to ban guns. d. that individuals may not own a gun if they have a violent temper. e. individuals may only own one gun in certain states. ANS: A
REF: 115
NOT: Applied
10. The concept of the separation of church and state a. was referred to by Thomas Jefferson as “the wall of separation.” b. covers conflicts about the legality of giving state and local government aid to religious organizations and schools. c. refers to the establishment clause of the First Amendment to the Constitution. d. forbids the government from establishing an official religion. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 116
NOT: Applied
11. In the Supreme Court case Lemon v. Kurtzman, the Court found that a. government assistance to religious institutions must advance religious activities. b. government programs may advance one particular religion over another. c. the government must avoid excessive entanglement with religion. d. government aid may be used to purchase prayer books and religious music. e. government funding may support religious (non-secular) activities. ANS: C
REF: 116 | 117
NOT: Applied
12. The establishment clause in the First Amendment a. has been applied to questions of the legality of state and local government aid to religious organizations and schools. b. means that neither the federal government nor state governments can set up a church. c. is different than the free exercise clause. d. has been used to decide the actions of government allowing or prohibiting school prayer. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 116–118
NOT: Applied
13. A concern with school vouchers is that they may be used at religious schools and, therefore, violate the a. establishment clause. b. supremacy clause. c. free exercise clause. d. Fifth Amendment. e. exclusionary rule. ANS: A
REF: 117
NOT: Conceptual
14. In Engel v. Vitale (1962), the Supreme Court threw out the Regents’ prayer used in New York public schools because a. it failed to follow established guidelines for school prayers. b. many of the children were adherents of other non-Christian religions. c. it did not refer to God. d. it is no part of the business of government to compose official prayers. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: D
REF: 117 | 118
NOT: Factual
15. The teaching of evolution in public schools a. violates the establishment clause of the Constitution. b. may be taught side by side with creationist theory. c. violates the free exercise clause of the Constitution. d. was addressed in Epperson v. Arkansas and various court cases since 1968. e. All the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 118
NOT: Applied
16. All of the following are true about religious displays on public property except a. court cases over these issues have been ruled upon under the establishment clause. b. religious displays have been allowed in certain situations. c. displays of a crèche at Christmastime may be allowed if non-secular displays are also being shown. d. nativity scenes have been allowed to be displayed by themselves. e. displays such as lights, Santa Claus, and reindeer have been allowed. ANS: D
REF: 118 | 119
NOT: Factual
17. The free exercise clause, protecting freedom of religious practice is found in the a. Fifth Amendment. b. First Amendment. c. establishment clause. d. Second Amendment. e. religious amendment. ANS: B
REF: 119
NOT: Factual
18. The free exercise clause a. limits the national government from prohibiting people from practicing their religions. b. is part of the First Amendment. c. allows the national government to exercise control over free speech. d. helps state governments to provide charter schools. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 119
NOT: Conceptual
19. Prior restraint is a. used by Congress to hold secret committee meetings. b. a method used by the government to get terrorists to talk. c. another term for censorship, when expression is involved. d. restraining an activity, such as expression, before that activity has actually occurred. e. Options C and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 120
NOT: Conceptual
20. New York Times v. United States a. affirmed the no-prior-restraint doctrine in the Pentagon Papers case. b. upheld the government’s right to let the public have information about Vietnam. c. punished the New York Times for publishing secret documents. d. affirmed the free speech of students in public schools. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 120
NOT: Factual
21. Symbolic speech is a. a law that is worded in a vague manner. b. an area of expression that is not protected by the First Amendment. c. the nonverbal expression of beliefs. d. usually an expression of obscenity. e. not applicable to flag burning. ANS: C
REF: 120
NOT: Conceptual
22. All of the following are true of flag burning except a. flag burning was outlawed in Texas and other states in the 1980s. b. it is protected by the First Amendment’s freedom of expression (speech). c. Congress passed legislation against flag burning that was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. d. it is considered symbolic speech. e. a constitutional amendment has been passed outlawing flag burning. ANS: E
REF: 120
NOT: Conceptual
23. The Supreme Court will consider restrictions on commercial speech valid as long as a. the restrictions seek to implement a substantial government interest. b. the restrictions directly advances government interests. c. the restrictions go no further than necessary to advance governmental interests. d. companies continue to try to publish factual inaccuracies. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 121
NOT: Factual
24. Commercial speech is usually defined as a. any speech conducted via films, radio or television. b. advertising statements. c. speech made by public corporations as opposed to private organizations. d. business-related speech. e. speech made by organizations as opposed to private citizens. ANS: B
REF: 121
NOT: Factual
25. Intellectual property piracy is a. growing and negative affects sales of CDs, Blu-ray discs, and DVDs. b. mainly being fought by online sites such as Google, YouTube, and Facebook. c. declining since the Stop Online Piracy Act of 2012 was enacted. d. is mostly perpetrated by criminal elements. e. markedly decreasing the production of creative works. ANS: A
REF: 122
NOT: Applied
26. Obscenity a. has been given constitutional protection. b. was effectively defined by the Supreme Court in Miller v. California. c. is considered legal free expression. d. can be illegal if it is found to violate a four-part test established by the U.S. Supreme Court. e. Options B and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 123
NOT: Factual
27. The Supreme Court reintroduced the bad tendency rule in 1969 which a. modified the clear and present danger rule. b. placed limitations on speech if such expressions might lead to some “evil.” c. allowed the police to round up teenagers who might be gang members for wearing tattoos. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 123
NOT: Applied
28. In 1969, the Supreme Court in Brandenburg v. Ohio a. overturned a statute that prohibited anyone from advocating violence as a means to political reform. b. upheld the conviction of a member of the Ku Klux Klan. c. banned free speech protections for organizations like the Ku Klux Klan. d. required the government to prove lawless activities followed free speech activities. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: A
REF: 123
NOT: Conceptual
29. Which of the following is one of the requirements that must be met in order to consider a work obscene? a. It must be offensive to a specific religious group. b. It must lack serious redeeming literary, artistic, political, or scientific merit. c. It must be determined to be commercial speech. d. It must employ graphics, as opposed to mere text. e. It must portray actual sexual intercourse. ANS: B
REF: 123
NOT: Conceptual
30. In Osborne v. Ohio, the Supreme Court ruled that states can outlaw the possession of child pornography in the home a. because owning the material perpetuates commercial demand for it and for the exploitation of the children involved. b. to protect children who may be living in the home. c. because it universally violates community standards. d. because it encourages deviant behavior. e. when it employs graphics, as opposed to mere text. ANS: A
REF: 123 | 124
NOT: Factual
31. The Communications Decency Act of 1996 and the Children’s Online Protection Act of 1998 a. were designed to protect children from online pornography. b. were found to violate protections against free speech. c. used community standards to determine if materials were offensive. d. were both challenged in the courts. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 124
NOT: Conceptual
32. Slander is a. an attempt to do bodily harm. b. the public uttering of a false statement that harms the good reputation of another. c. printed material that cannot be proven true. d. a law that prohibits the public from making negative statements about elected officials. e. making false statements about another person in writing. ANS: B
REF: 124
NOT: Factual
33. In the area of freedom of speech, a. high schools can impose restrictions on speech that would not be allowed in colleges. b. high school officials may censor school publications. c. some universities continue to prohibit “hate speech.” d. campus speech restrictions have usually been ruled unconstitutional. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 125 | 126
NOT: Factual
34. Libel is a. the amount of insurance one must have on a motor vehicle. b. defamation of character, reputation, business or property rights in writing. c. printed material that cannot be proved true. d. a form of civil rights for indigents. e. another word for slander. ANS: B
REF: 126
NOT: Factual
35. The First Amendment prevents Congress from a. making any law that abridges “the right of the people to peaceably assemble.” b. making any law that bridges the right to petition the government for a redress of grievances.” c. making any law that regulates the right to bare arms. d. making any law that regulates criminal rights. e. Options A and B are true.
ANS: E
REF: 126
NOT: Factual
36. The Supreme Court rulings on freedom of speech a. forbid municipalities from banning Nazi marches. b. allow municipalities to ban sound trucks in the late evening hours. c. forbid anti-loitering ordinances to cut down on gang activity. d. allow municipalities to require parade permits for crowd control. e. All of the above are true. ANS: C
REF: 126
NOT: Applied
37. For a public figure to obtain a damage award under libel laws, he or she must a. show that he or she has access to the public medium to disprove the charge. b. show that the statement in question contained a reckless disregard for the truth. c. prove that he or she suffered from the falsehood just as much as a private person. d. prove the case beyond a shadow of a doubt. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: B
REF: 127
NOT: Applied
38. Gag orders have been used to a. prohibit one criminal from testifying against another. b. restrict the publication of news about a trial in progress or a pre-trial hearing. c. restrict what a juror may say to the press after the trial. d. restrict what evidence must be shown to defense lawyers. e. Options C and D are true. ANS: B
REF: 127
NOT: Factual
39. In 1965, in Griswold v. Connecticut, a case involving the legality of contraceptives, the Supreme Court a. held that the law violated the right to privacy. b. found that laws against contraceptives were legal. c. guaranteed all women access to abortion. d. ruled that the Court cannot establish a right unless it is specifically mentioned in the Constitution. e. Options B and D are true. ANS: A
REF: 128
NOT: Conceptual
40. The Court has based the right to privacy on a. the First Amendment. b. the Third and Fourth Amendments. c. the Fifth Amendment. d. the Ninth Amendment. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 128
NOT: Factual
41. According to the Supreme Court ruling in Roe v. Wade, which of the following restrictions may the state place on abortions? a. During the first trimester, the state can prevent some abortions for reasons relating to the mother’s health. b. During the second trimester, the state can prevent all abortions. c. During the third trimester, the state cannot regulate abortion except to require that it be performed by a doctor.
d. During the third trimester, the state may regulate or outlaw abortions except when necessary to preserve the life or health of the mother. e. The states may place no restrictions on abortions. ANS: D
REF: 129
NOT: Factual
42. In Webster v. Reproductive Health Services and Planned Parenthood v. Casey, the Supreme Court ruled that states may a. ban the use of public hospitals for abortions and require a 24-hour waiting period. b. require public employees to assist in abortions and require taxpayer money to provide abortions. c. ban second trimester abortions even if the woman’s life is at risk and require spousal consent. d. not prevent abortions that use tax-funded facilities and allow all abortions. e. None of the above is true. ANS: A
REF: 129
NOT: Applied
43. The 1994 Freedom of Access to Clinic Entrances Act a. was found unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. b. prohibits protestors from blocking entrances to abortion clinics. c. prohibits protestors from speaking to patients entering abortion clinics. d. cannot be used to establish “buffer zones” around clinics. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: B
REF: 129
NOT: Factual
44. Right-to-life advocates a. continue to push for laws restricting abortion. b. endorse candidates who support their views. c. organize protests. d. argue that bans on specific procedures are not effective. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 129 | 130
NOT: Applied
45. Which of the following are true of the decision in Roe v. Wade? a. It extended the right to privacy to cover a woman’s personal decision on abortion. b. The decision has not been challenged or redefined by subsequent cases. c. It limited abortions to the first trimester of pregnancy. d. State legislatures have the right to decide if abortions will be performed. e. It allows for abortions to be performed by licensed nurse practitioners. ANS: A
REF: 129 | 130
NOT: Factual
46. Following Cruzan v. Director, Missouri Department of Health, a. living wills became common. b. it was established that life-sustaining treatment can be withdrawn from comatose patients at the simple request of the closest relatives. c. living wills became unconstitutional. d. it was established that patients cannot refuse treatment that might save their lives. e. parents, rather than spouses, were given responsibility for medical decisions regarding comatose persons. ANS: A
REF: 130 | 131
NOT: Applied
47. With regard to physician-assisted suicide, the Supreme Court has said that a. the liberty interest protected by the Constitution does not include a right to commit suicide. b. states must prosecute those who assist in suicides. c. states must provide counseling to those who wish to commit suicide. d. if an individual wishes to commit suicide, a physician must be present with family members. e. The federal government is the final authority regarding laws on physician-assisted suicide. ANS: A
REF: 131
NOT: Applied
48. Some criticism of the Patriot Act’s strengthening of governmental investigatory powers reflects a. the framers’ desire to encourage general searches. b. the fear that the increased powers may be used to silence government critics. c. concern about the right to bear arms as provided in the Second Amendment. d. strong public support of warrantless surveillance. e. defendant rights stemming from Miranda v. Arizona. ANS: B
REF: 132
NOT: Conceptual
49. The Patriot Act, which strengthened the government’s investigatory powers, a. is the most significant antiterrorism legislation in the United States. b. bans the government from opening a suspect’s mail. c. includes warrantless surveillance, which has strong public support. d. was designed to fight organized crime. e. was designed to create territorial barriers between government agencies to protect secrecy. ANS: A
REF: 132 | 133
NOT: Applied
50. A defendant’s pretrial rights include all of the following except a. to be informed of the charges. b. the right to legal counsel. c. the right to remain silent. d. the right to an impartial jury. e. prompt arraignment. ANS: D
REF: 134
NOT: Factual
51. The writ of habeas corpus is a. the right to be brought before a court and have the reasons for detention explained. b. the right to legal counsel. c. the right to remain silent. d. the requirement that for a murder conviction, the police must find the dead body. e. the right to reasonable bail. ANS: A
REF: 134
NOT: Factual
52. In Gideon v. Wainwright the Supreme Court ruled that a. a lawyer does not have to be supplied in a state case. b. search warrants are always needed to gather evidence. c. lawyers only need to be appointed in death penalty cases. d. there can be no cruel and unusual punishment. e. if one cannot afford an attorney, the government must provide one. ANS: E
REF: 134
NOT: Factual
53. The Miranda rule a. was overturned by a Supreme Court decision. b. forbids the admission of illegally seized material evidence at trial. c. cannot be used to prevent confessions from being introduced as evidence. d. requires that suspects be read their rights before questioning. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 135
NOT: Applied
54. The exclusionary rule is a policy a. forbidding the admission of illegally seized evidence at trial. b. that prohibits the arresting officer from serving as a character witness at a hearing or trial. c. that prohibits the detention of a suspect for more than forty-eight hours without the suspect being charged. d. limited to the federal courts. e. None of the above is true. ANS: A
REF: 135
NOT: Applied
55. If the police search a suspect’s home, a. the police must first have obtained a warrant. b. the police may submit illegally obtained evidence at trial if they can prove they would have obtained the evidence legally anyway. c. the police must have demonstrated probable cause to a judge. d. Options A and C are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 135 | 136
NOT: Applied
56. Cruel and unusual punishment is prohibited by a. the separation of powers. b. judicial review. c. the Fifth Amendment. d. the Eighth Amendment. e. the Tenth Amendment. ANS: D
REF: 136
NOT: Factual
57. All of the following are true of the death penalty except a. the Supreme Court struck down all existing death penalties in 1972 but invited the states to pass new legislation that would apply the penalty more consistently. b. the death penalty is supported by a majority of Americans, though support has recently fallen. c. thirty-four states permit the punishment. d. in 2002, the Court ruled that only juries, not judges, could impose the penalty. e. in 2002, the Court ruled that persons under the age of nineteen cannot be put to death. ANS: E
REF: 136 | 137
NOT: Factual
58. If stopped in your car by a police officer, it is best a. to insist on a lawyer before complying with any instructions to show identification. b. to behave politely and be prepared to present identification. c. to explain where you have been and what you have been doing to save time. d. to ask what criminal activity is going on in the neighborhood so you can assist in the effort to find the perpetrators.
e. to tell the police officer that you give to local police charities. ANS: B
REF: 139
NOT: Applied
59. If the police appear at your door and ask to enter a. ask to see a warrant before the police enter. b. read the warrant for the details of the search and observe the police activities, once inside without hindering the search. c. ask that the police to wait until your lawyer arrives. d. suggest that the police search your roommate’s room. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 139
NOT: Applied
60. The police may enter your home without a warrant a. if pursuing a suspected felon into your house. b. if your landlord lets them in. c. if you refuse to show identification. d. if they have a general suspicion of illegal activity. e. only if you are home. ANS: A
REF: 139
NOT: Applied
ESSAY 1. Describe the religious freedom protections afforded in the First Amendment of the Bill of Rights. ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Explain how the Fourteenth Amendment and incorporation theory affected the Bill of Rights. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Discuss the recent Supreme Court rulings that are based on the Second Amendment and describe the positions of the pro-gun lobby to further expand gun rights. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Under which circumstances is the government able to interfere with freedom of speech? ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Explain what symbolic speech is and give examples of Supreme Court decisions on this type of speech. ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Explain under what conditions the Supreme Court will consider a restriction on commercial speech.
ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Identify and explain the civil rights of criminal suspects. ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Explain the positions of those for and those against the Patriot Act. ANS: Answers may vary. 9. What are the Miranda rights? What exceptions have been allowed to these rights? ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Explain the legal outcome of the 1973 Supreme Court decision, Roe v. Wade. What additional restrictions have survived legal scrutiny since the initial decision? ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 5: Civil Rights MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Today, there are approximately __________ unauthorized immigrants living in the United States. a. 11 million b. 111 million c. 200 million d. 1 million e. 35 million ANS: A
REF: 146
NOT: Factual
2. If the United States deported most of the unauthorized immigrants, a. the government would need to hire hundreds of thousands of additional immigration officers. b. new prisons would need to be built. c. expenditures would increase by billions of dollars per year. d. other government programs would need to be cut to fund the initiative. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 146
NOT: Conceptual
3. The impact of illegal immigrant labor on the economy is a. positive because the number of the jobs in the economy are not fixed. b. positive because immigrants spend money on goods and services. c. negative because immigrants require services paid for by taxpayers. d. positive because immigrants pay state taxes. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 146
NOT: Applied
4. Which of the following regarding immigration is true? a. Today, most immigrants to the United States come from Europe. b. Major issues include debate about whether illegal immigrants should be given amnesty and be allowed to become U.S. citizens. c. The number of multiracial persons has been declining in recent years. d. All Hispanics are from Mexico. e. Options C and D are true. ANS: B
REF: 146 |165 | 166
NOT: Factual
5. The term civil rights refers to a. the rights of all Americans provided for in the Fourteenth Amendment. b. civil liberties like freedom of religion, speech or assembly. c. what the government must do to ensure freedom from discrimination. d. limitations on what the government may not do to interfere with individual liberties. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 147
NOT: Applied
6. Civil rights a. include women’s rights. b. resulted in legislation that secured basic rights for all Americans.
c. have not always been accorded to certain groups such as Native Americans, African Americans, women, and older Americans. d. are concerned with protecting groups from discrimination. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 147
NOT: Conceptual
7. The Thirteenth Amendment to the Constitution a. abolished slavery. b. forced states to alter their constitutions to end slavery by making the children of slave free while allowing slavery for existing slaves. c. mandated that all persons “will be treated as total equals from this date forward.” d. allowed slavery to continue for twenty years at which time it would be ended. e. allowed slavery but banned the importation of slaves immediately. ANS: A
REF: 148
NOT: Factual
8. The Thirteenth Amendment a. ended slavery but not involuntary servitude. b. provides that all persons born in the United States are citizens of the United States. c. does not apply to illegal immigrants. d. provides that neither slavery nor involuntary servitude shall exist in the United States. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 148
NOT: Applied
9. The American Indian population declined mostly due to a. infectious diseases from the Old World. b. the French and Indian War. c. intertribal warfare and murder. d. westward territorial expansion by the Native Americans throughout the nineteenth century. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 148
NOT: Applied
10. Today there are __________ Native Americans living in the United States. a. 30 million b. 13 million c. 800 thousand d. 3.2 million e. 300 million ANS: D
REF: 148
NOT: Factual
11. The Civil Rights Acts passed by Congress between 1865 and1875 a. were designed to enforce the Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments. b. implemented the extension of citizenship to anyone born in the United States. c. made it illegal to use law or custom to deprive anyone of rights, privileges, or immunities secured by the Constitution. d. declared that everyone is entitled to full and equal enjoyment of public accommodations. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 149
NOT: Conceptual
12. The Fifteenth Amendment provides that a. citizens will not be denied the right to vote based on skin color.
b. c. d. e.
children born in the United States will be granted U.S. citizenship. slavery and involuntary servitude would end. the right to vote will not be denied on the basis of religion or gender. the right to vote shall be determined by state laws.
ANS: A
REF: 149
NOT: Applied
13. The Fifteenth Amendment a. outlawed slavery. b. provided equal protection under the law. c. gave eighteen-year-olds the right to vote. d. states that the right to vote shall not be abridged on account of race. e. gave women the right to vote. ANS: D
REF: 149
NOT: Factual
14. After the Civil War, civil rights legislation was passed by Congress a. but much of it was very ineffective and parts were declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. b. and it played a major role in creating equality for African Americans. c. and was accepted by the American public. d. that prevented African Americans from being extended equal public accommodations. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 149 | 150
NOT: Conceptual
15. In 1896, the United States Supreme Court case of Plessy v. Ferguson a. ruled that African Americans are not persons for the purposes of the Constitution. b. tried to stop the development of legal racial segregation known as Jim Crow laws. c. stated that schools may not practice any type of racial segregation. d. agreed that separation of races is not a violation of the Constitution. e. ruled that the practice of slavery must cease before the end of the century. ANS: D
REF: 149 | 150
NOT: Factual
16. The white primary in southern states allowed a. all races to participate in elections on an equal basis. b. whites to exclude African Americans from voting in Democratic primaries. c. voters to select ballots for each party based on different skin colors. d. African Americans the opportunity to vote for the first time. e. whites to exclude African Americans from voting in the general elections. ANS: B
REF: 150
NOT: Factual
17. In the 1944 case of Smith v. Allwright, the United States Supreme Court ruled the _________ to be a violation of the Fifteenth Amendment. a. literacy test b. poll tax c. grandfather clause d. white primary e. black primary ANS: D
REF: 150
NOT: Factual
18. The tests commonly administered as a precondition for voting were called a. poll tests.
b. c. d. e.
constitutional exams. literacy tests. primary tests. registration tests.
ANS: C
REF: 150
NOT: Factual
19. A poll tax was used to a. prevent northern immigrants from moving to the South and voting in local elections. b. determine who was intelligent enough to vote. c. dissuade African Americans and poor whites from voting. d. force individuals to buy property in order to be eligible to vote. e. raise funds for voter registration among the minority community. ANS: C
REF: 150
NOT: Applied
20. In the case of Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954), the U.S. Supreme Court held that a. ethnic minorities have no rights to equal treatment by the government. b. public school segregation of races violates the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. c. the national government does not have the power to force any type of action on local school boards. d. separation of races for a reason such as education is not a violation of the Constitution. e. African Americans could not be denied the right to a college education. ANS: B
REF: 151
NOT: Conceptual
21. The Supreme Court ruling in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954), held that a. school integration was to take place immediately. b. school integration was to occur with all deliberate speed. c. school integration was to take place using the school transportation system. d. school integration was to take place within two years. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 151
NOT: Factual
22. De facto segregation means a. segregation because of residential racial patterns and concentration of populations, not because of laws. b. segregation based on different native languages. c. racial segregation based on law. d. segregation of southern European immigrants. e. segregation to a minor degree. ANS: A
REF: 151 | 152
NOT: Conceptual
23. One method employed by the federal courts to address segregation was a. busing students from black neighborhoods in to white neighborhoods. b. busing students from white neighborhoods to black neighborhoods. c. integrating the police force. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D 24. De facto segregation
REF: 151 | 152
NOT: Factual
a. b. c. d. e.
occurred in northern school districts. occurred in northern residential neighborhoods. confined African Americans to mixed neighborhoods determined by the courts. confined African Americans to all-black districts. Options A, B, and D are true.
ANS: E
REF: 151 | 152
NOT: Applied
25. In an attempt to achieve integration, a. students were sent to the school that was near to where they lived. b. busing students across neighborhoods was ordered by the courts. c. methods were determined by local committees of parents. d. busing was peacefully accomplished in many big cities. e. All the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 152
NOT: Applied
26. The civil rights movement led by Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. was based on the philosophy of a. nonviolent civil disobedience. b. divide and conquer. c. “equality for all, through strong force when necessary.” d. equality of practice that did not have to exclude racial segregation. e. equality “by any means necessary.” ANS: A
REF: 152
NOT: Conceptual
27. Which of the following about the civil rights movement is true? a. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. advocated nonviolent civil disobedience as a means to rational justice. b. African Americans were alone in the nonviolent demonstrations for civil rights. c. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. led the black power movement. d. Advocates of the black power movement only advocated peaceful racial assimilation. e. The March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom celebrated the passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 ANS: A
REF: 152 | 153
NOT: Conceptual
28. The use of __________ was (were) instrumental in bringing about the integration of lunch counters, buses, and trains. a. sit-ins b. roadblocks at night in rural areas c. court injunctions that prohibited interstate travel in areas threatened by violence d. the threat of armed force e. public demonstrations featuring violence against whites ANS: A
REF: 153
NOT: Factual
29. African American leader Malcolm X a. supported the group known as the Underground Railroad. b. agreed with King’s philosophy of nonviolence. c. believed in “black power” and racial separation. d. believed in the philosophy of “turn the other cheek.” e. was one of King’s closest colleagues. ANS: C
REF: 153
NOT: Conceptual
30. All of the following are true of the 1964 and 1968 Civil Rights Acts except a. the right to equality of opportunity in employment was included. b. discrimination in public accommodations was banned. c. it allowed state governments to control school integration. d. discrimination in housing was banned. e. it provided penalties for those attempting to interfere with civil rights workers. ANS: C
REF: 153 | 154
NOT: Applied
31. A major consequence of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 was a. the elimination of discriminatory voter registration tests. b. the establishment of federal voter registrars. c. the establishment of federally administered voter registration procedures. d. limitations on the abilities of counties in the South to change voter registration procedures without federal approval. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 154
NOT: Factual
32. The civil rights movement a. only benefited African Americans. b. has eliminated the economic disparities between whites and minority groups. c. has eliminated poverty in most minority groups. d. has benefited many different minority groups. e. All the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 154 | 155
NOT: Factual
33. African Americans make up about _________ of the U.S. population. a. 3 percent b. 5 percent c. 13 percent d. 23 percent e. 33 percent ANS: C
REF: 157
NOT: Factual
34. The Fourteenth Amendment a. contains a due process clause. b. contains language that is similar to that found in the Fifth Amendment. c. contains language that is similar to that found in the First Amendment. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 157
NOT: Conceptual
35. Which of the following is true about women’s rights? a. The struggle for women’s rights first began in earnest at a convention in Seneca Falls, New York in 1848. b. Women’s voting rights are found in the Nineteenth Amendment to the Constitution. c. Women’s suffrage is the right to equal pay for equal work. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 159 | 160
NOT: Conceptual
36. Betty Friedan’s The Feminine Mystique a. provided the credo for the National Federation of Business and Professional Women’s Clubs. b. described the unequal status of women in the United States. c. argued that women should not work outside the home. d. advocated socialism as a solution to women’s problems. e. presented the position that birth control should not be readily available because it would encourage women to engage in marital infidelity and premarital sex. ANS: B
REF: 160
NOT: Conceptual
37. Feminism is a. a movement supported by women but not men in the United States. b. the movement that supports political, economic, and social equality for women. c. supported by all women in the United States. d. a movement that began with the founding of the National Organization for Women (NOW) in 1966. e. Options B and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 160
NOT: Applied
38. In the 1960s and 1970s, women’s groups became divided over issues including a. the Equal Rights Amendment. b. pornography. c. abortion rights. d. Options A and C are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 161
NOT: Applied
39. Any practice, policy, or procedure that denies equality of treatment to an individual or to a group because of gender a. is sexual harassment. b. is gender discrimination. c. violates Title IV. d. violates the Civil Rights Act of 1968. e. is considered illegal if engaged in by a private corporation but acceptable if engaged in by the government. ANS: B
REF: 161 | 162
NOT: Factual
40. Which of the following statements about women’s rights is true? a. The Supreme Court has ruled that certain jobs cannot establish arbitrary rules on weight and height requirements that would keep women out of the professions. b. Title IX guaranteed women’s participation in high schools and collegiate athletics. c. Women have been allowed to serve as combat pilots. d. State-financed military academies cannot exclude women students. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 161 | 162
NOT: Applied
41. On the issue of sexual harassment, the Supreme Court has ruled that a. employers are not responsible for harassment undertaken by their employees. b. individuals cannot be sexually harassed by members of their own gender. c. it is considered sexual harassment when words or actions of a sexual nature interfere with
the employee’s work or create a “hostile environment.” d. it is not illegal to condition promotions on sexual favors. e. laws against sexual harassment violate the First Amendment’s protection of free speech. ANS: C
REF: 163
NOT: Applied
42. Women have risen to power due to a. their place in monarchies based on heredity. b. their place as the spouse or daughter of a recently deceased elected official. c. through winning elections without succeeding male relatives. d. Options, A, B, and C are true. e. through constitutional requirements to balance the sexes in office. ANS: D
REF: 163
NOT: Applied
43. All of the following are true of women in the work place today except a. the glass ceiling refers to the fact that only a small percentage of the top corporate officer positions are held by women. b. for every dollar earned by men, women earn about 59 cents. c. jobs that are traditionally held by women pay more than those traditionally held by men. d. pay discrimination is still an issue in the workplace for women. e. the Equal Pay Act states that there should be equal pay for equal work. ANS: B
REF: 164
NOT: Factual
44. The Equal Pay Act of 1963 a. requires employers to provide equal pay for substantially equal work. b. requires employers to re-grade the pay scales for the comparable but different jobs held by women and men to make them more equitable. c. requires that employers promote more women into managerial positions. d. allows for men to be paid more than women with the same job responsibilities if they have families. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 164
NOT: Applied
45. Hispanics a. may be of any race according to the U.S. Census Bureau. b. have fewer rights than other minority groups because they are not citizens. c. are a diverse population, originating from primarily Spanish-speaking countries. d. are the second largest minority group in the United States behind African Americans. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 165
NOT: Factual
46. The policy in admissions or hiring that gives special consideration to traditionally disadvantaged groups to overcome the present effects of past discrimination is known as a. affirmative action. b. legislative mandate. c. civil liberties. d. civil rights. e. the Lincoln dilemma. ANS: A
REF: 166
NOT: Conceptual
47. The charge that some affirmative action programs discriminate against non-minorities is called
a. b. c. d. e.
racial profiling. reverse discrimination. quota-busting. anti-bias civil rights. adverse minority preference.
ANS: B
REF: 167
NOT: Factual
48. The Supreme Court ruled in the Bakke case that a. affirmative action programs were allowable in law schools but not to be utilized in medical schools. b. race cannot be the sole factor in admissions decisions. c. all affirmative action programs were ruled unconstitutional. d. race cannot be considered as a factor at all in making admissions decisions. e. quota systems are constitutional. ANS: B
REF: 167
NOT: Factual
49. The Supreme Court’s decision in Adarand Constructors, Inc. v. Peña ruled that an affirmative action program a. must not use preferences or quotas for unqualified persons. b. may use racial or ethnic classifications in limited circumstances. c. must be changed or dropped once the program has succeeded. d. must meet strict scrutiny by the courts. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 168
NOT: Conceptual
50. In 2003, the United States Supreme Court considered two different admissions policies adopted at the University of Michigan Law School and a. for the first time, ruled that an affirmative action was unconstitutional. b. ruled that “diversity” could not be a compelling government interest. c. approved affirmative action plans that took race into consideration as part of a complete examination of the applicant’s background. d. approved a plan that automatically awarded points toward admission to minority applicants. e. ruled that the time had come for all affirmative action programs to end, since government could do nothing more to alleviate the effects of past discrimination. ANS: C
REF: 168
NOT: Factual
51. The Americans with Disabilities Act does NOT apply to a. blindness. b. AIDS. c. alcoholism. d. cancer. e. carpal tunnel syndrome. ANS: E
REF: 169
NOT: Factual
52. The riot at Stonewall Inn that began the modern movement for equality for Gay Males and Lesbians was sparked by a. a raid by police on a bar popular with gay men and lesbians. b. a feeling in the gay and lesbian community that the police were targeting them for harassment.
c. anti-gay protestors who showed up at the bar. d. an attempt by a gay couple to hold a marriage ceremony at the bar. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 170
NOT: Factual
53. In the 2003 decision of Lawrence v. Texas, the United States Supreme Court a. upheld a Texas law that made homosexual conduct a crime. b. overturned laws against sodomy between consenting adults in private to be unconstitutional. c. invalidated anti-discrimination laws that protect homosexuals. d. upheld the Court’s previous decision in Bowers v. Hardwick. e. indicated that states could declare homosexuality a crime. ANS: B
REF: 171
NOT: Conceptual
54. In the 1996 decision of Romer v. Evans, the Supreme Court a. overturned a Georgia law that declared homosexual conduct a crime. b. discouraged states from repealing sodomy laws. c. invalidated Colorado anti-discrimination laws that protect homosexuals. d. invalidated a Colorado law that denied homosexuals the right to seek specific protection of the law. e. ruled that the federal government could not refuse to hire gay men or lesbians. ANS: D
REF: 171
NOT: Factual
55. “Don’t ask, don’t tell”, the policy of requiring gay men and lesbians in the U.S. Military to hide their sexual orientation a. is still the policy of the U.S. Department of Defense. b. was first implemented during the Clinton Administration. c. required that enlistees be questioned about their sexual orientation. d. did not end expulsion of gay and lesbian military personnel. e. Options B and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 171
NOT: Conceptual
56. The Defense of Marriage Act of 1996 was passed in response to a. a ruling by the Hawaii Supreme Court that might have allowed same-sex couples to marry. b. the passage of Vermont’s civil union law. c. the legalization of same-sex marriages in Massachusetts. d. the Supreme Court’s striking down of anti-sodomy laws in Lawrence v. Texas. e. the establishment of civil unions in Minnesota. ANS: A
REF: 172
NOT: Factual
57. The repeal of “don’t ask, don’t tell” came, a. into full enforcement in 2011. b. as a result of a U.S. District Court ruling. c. due to quick action by Congress after the 2008 elections. d. because of a change in public opinion on the issue. e. Options A and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 172
NOT: Factual
58. The Supreme Court case, In re Gault provided that a. eighteen year olds be given the right to vote.
b. c. d. e.
children have a Constitutional right to counsel. children have a right to divorce their parents. children have a right to marry at age seventeen. children are the property of their parents.
ANS: B
REF: 174
NOT: Conceptual
59. The law has given children certain defenses against criminal prosecution because a. parents punish children more effectively than the criminal justice system. b. of their presumed inability to have criminal intent. c. the Constitution does not provide for criminal prosecution of juveniles. d. juveniles are too costly to incarcerate. e. constitutional protections regarding education shield a number of juvenile behaviors. ANS: B
REF: 175
NOT: Conceptual
60. When reaching the age of majority a. a person is entitled to handle one’s own affairs without parental interference. b. an individual is not legally liable for contracts signed. c. a person may be subject to more serious penalties for crimes committed. d. an immigrant is eligible to become an American citizen. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 175
NOT: Applied
ESSAY 1. Explain the consequences of a policy that required the deportation of all unauthorized immigrants. ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Describe the significance of the Dred Scott Case and the legal status of slaves in the United States prior to the Civil War. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Explain the significance of the constitutional amendments enacted in the five years following the end of the Civil War. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Describe the barriers to voting faced by African Americans after the Civil War. ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Explain the Supreme Court’s decision in Brown v. Board of Education and the impact it had on education and the new problems it created. ANS: Answers may vary.
6. Contrast the approaches of Martin Luther King, Jr. and Malcolm X. ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Explain the difference between de jure and de facto segregation. Provide examples of each in practice, ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Compare and contrast the struggle for women’s rights with the struggle for civil rights. ANS: Answers may vary. 9. Describe the consequences of civil rights legislation in terms of political participation of African Americans and other minorities. ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Explain the arguments both for and against affirmative action. ANS: Answers may vary. 11. Describe the issue of disparity in incarceration rates for African Americans as compared to whites. Is the justice system fair or discriminatory in its application of the law? ANS: Answers may vary. 12. Explain the Americans with Disabilities Act and what impact it has had. ANS: Answers may vary. 13. How have courts and legislative bodies at both the federal and state level attempted to address issues concerning the rights and status of homosexuals? ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 6: Public Opinion and Political Socialization MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following are true of public opinion except a. it plays a small role in our political system. b. it can be expressed by letters written to newspapers. c. it is shared in online forums. d. it can be powerful. e. it can be shaped by political leaders. ANS: A
REF: 185
NOT: Applied
2. Typically, public opinion a. is distributed between several different positions on issues. b. is united in one position on important issues. c. is a powerful force that influences policymakers. d. is unimportant to political leaders. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 185
NOT: Applied
3. General agreement among the citizenry on an issue is a. a consensus. b. divisive opinion. c. reconciliation. d. poll agreement. e. no longer public opinion. ANS: A
REF: 185
NOT: Factual
4. Here are the results of a 2012 opinion poll that measured public support for gay marriage. (Favor: 48%; Oppose: 44%. Don’t know/No answer: 8%.) The results show an example of __________ opinion. a. consensus b. divided c. dubious d. favorable e. unified ANS: B
REF: 185
NOT: Applied
5. Private opinion becomes public opinion when a. that opinion, regardless of its subject matter, is publicly expressed. b. it concerns public issues and is publicly expressed. c. an individual is polled by a major polling organization. d. it is not divided. e. it is articulated to at least ten other people. ANS: B
REF: 186
NOT: Conceptual
6. The process by which people acquire political beliefs and attitudes is called a. opinion leadership. b. political socialization.
c. agenda setting. d. peer grouping. e. consensus building. ANS: B
REF: 186
NOT: Conceptual
7. Political socialization is the process by which a. people form identification with their political party. b. people acquire political values. c. people acquire political beliefs. d. people acquire political opinions and attitudes. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 186
NOT: Applied
8. The transfer of political values is a. more likely to occur from children to the parents. b. more likely to occur from parents to children. c. just as likely to occur from children to parents as it is to occur from parents to children. d. exceptionally rare in families. e. never occurs from children to parents. ANS: B
REF: 187
NOT: Applied
9. Studies suggest that parents’ political influence over their children is due to a. the strong need of children for parental approval. b. the ability of parents to communicate frequently with their children. c. the ability of parents to communicate feelings and preferences to their children. d. family links to other factors that affect opinion, such as race, social class, education, and religious beliefs. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 187
NOT: Factual
10. The Internet a. serves as a gateway to online political activity. b. serves as a gateway to offline political activity. c. leads to a decrease in online political activity. d. leads to a decrease in offline political activity. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 188
NOT: Applied
11. Researchers report that they can now predict election winners by a. seeing if they have a Google+ account or not. b. measuring the candidate’s Twitter momentum. c. measuring the number of attendees at their rallies. d. measuring their number of Facebook friends. e. None of the above is true. ANS: B
REF: 188
NOT: Applied
12. Peer groups are most likely to influence political attitudes when a. people are over the age of fifty. b. it is not an election year. c. people within the peer group do not have strong party identification.
d. the peer group is actively involved in political activities. e. members of the peer group are all of the same gender. ANS: D
REF: 188 | 189
NOT: Factual
13. An opinion leader is a. one who is able to influence the opinions of others because of position, expertise, or personality. b. a pollster. c. always someone whose job is to sway public opinion, such as a member of Congress. d. a public relations expert. e. someone who relies on position or expertise, rather than something like personality. ANS: A
REF: 189
NOT: Factual
14. In a recent study, high school students most often said they base their views on information they obtained from a. mass media. b. family. c. peers. d. school. e. church. ANS: A
REF: 189
NOT: Factual
15. The Fairness Doctrine a. is a rule that requires media outlets to avoid coverage of controversial. b. was abolished in 1987. c. encourages programming like modern conservative and liberal talk radio. d. was implemented in the early 1900s by the Federal Election Commission. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 189
NOT: Factual
16. Determining which public policy questions will be debated or considered is known as a. consensus building. b. opinion leadership. c. public opinion. d. agenda setting. e. political socialization. ANS: D
REF: 189
NOT: Factual
17. The new forms of media a. have brought Americans closer to each other politically. b. such as talk radio have been dominated by liberals. c. like blogs have often changed people from liberals to conservatives. d. like blogs, talk radio and cable news channels have increased political polarization. e. All the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 190
NOT: Applied
18. Which of the following is true? a. Older Americans tend to be more liberal than younger Americans. b. Older Americans tend to be less concerned with their economic situations and are likely to have grown out of the social values they were taught in their youth.
c. More important than age is the impact of significant political events that shape the political attitudes of an entire generation. d. The 1960s and 1970s, dominated by events such as Vietnam and Watergate, gave rise to widespread support of the government. e. Based upon the economic prosperity that occurred under Ronald Reagan in the 1980s, many young people chose to identify with the Democratic Party. ANS: C
REF: 190
NOT: Applied
19. The generational effect refers to the a. way in which political socialization produces opinions. b. increased tension between the two major political parties. c. tendency for persons to become more conservative as they grow older. d. long-lasting impact of significant events of a particular time on the generation that came of age at that time. e. way in which the family influences opinions. ANS: D
REF: 190
NOT: Conceptual
20. Researchers now believe they can make generalizations about the mood of the country as a. it swings to the political right or left. b. it tends to swing in a more liberal direction when the federal government successfully intervenes in difficult economic times. c. it tends to swing in a more conservative direction when government fails in controlling gas prices or consumer interest rates. d. the electorate tends to move away from a President who proposes very liberal or conservative policies. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 190 | 191
NOT: Applied
21. Having a college education a. no longer means that an individual is likely to vote for a particular party. b. is associated with a greater tendency to vote Democratic. c. is associated with a greater tendency to vote Republican. d. is associated with opposition to cultural liberalism. e. is associated with a greater tendency to abstain from voting. ANS: A
REF: 191 | 192
NOT: Factual
22. In recent years, a. businesspersons have moved toward supporting the Democrats. b. professionals with advanced degrees have moved toward supporting the Democrats. c. businesspersons have remained largely Democratic. d. professionals with advanced degrees have remained largely Republican. e. it has become clear that there is no relationship between whether a person is a businessperson or a professional and the party they will endorse. ANS: B
REF: 191 | 192
NOT: Factual
23. The rich tend to be a. economically and socially conservative. b. economically and socially liberal. c. economically liberal and socially conservative. d. economically conservative and socially liberal.
e. similar to the overall population in political preferences. ANS: D
REF: 193
NOT: Factual
24. In presidential elections, manual laborers, factory workers and union members are a. more likely to vote for Republican candidates. b. more likely to vote for Democratic candidates. c. likely to split their vote between the two major parties. d. more likely to vote for socialist candidates. e. more likely to vote for communist libertarian candidates. ANS: B
REF: 193
NOT: Factual
25. Jewish voters tend to a. vote for candidates that are politically conservative. b. vote at a lower rate than Protestants. c. focus almost totally on domestic issues. d. be more liberal than average on economic and cultural issues. e. be similar to the overall population in political preferences. ANS: D
REF: 193 | 194
NOT: Factual
26. Social Scientist Charles Murray suggests in a recent book that a. America is becoming more polarized in matters of race. b. America is becoming a two-caste society with an increasing gap between rich and poor. c. America is becoming more diverse, which is narrowing the income gap between rich and poor. d. America is becoming more traditional in terms of family structure. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 194
NOT: Applied
27. With regard to voting, a. African American voters strongly support Democrats. b. evangelicals are split politically between liberals and conservatives. c. fundamentalists most often are conservative. d. church attendance seems to influence voting patterns. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 194 | 195
NOT: Conceptual
28. African Americans today tend to be a. more conservative than whites on all issues. b. less liberal than whites on all issues. c. supportive of the Republican party. d. somewhat conservative on certain cultural issues such as gay marriage and abortion. e. Independents and not supportive of either Republicans or Democrats. ANS: D
REF: 195
NOT: Factual
29. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? a. Overall, Hispanics have favored the Democrats. b. Cuban Americans are more likely to support Republicans than Democrats. c. Asian American groups have usually leaned to the Democrats. d. Muslim Americans today represent one of the nation’s most Democratic blocs. e. Most African Americans have supported the Republican Party since the 1930s.
ANS: E
REF: 195
NOT: Factual
30. The gender gap a. was first revealed in polling in the 1980s. b. was first revealed in polling in the 1960s. c. is the difference between the percentage of women and men who vote for a particular candidate. d. is the difference between the number of men and women who turn out to vote in elections. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 196
NOT: Conceptual
31. American women are more likely to support a. capital punishment. b. restrictions on access to abortions. c. social welfare programs. d. military interventions abroad. e. legislation restricting the rights of homosexuals. ANS: C
REF: 196
NOT: Factual
32. Currently, which of the following regions are more supportive of the Democrats than the Republicans? a. The South and the Rocky Mountain states b. The South and the Great Plains c. The Great Plains, and the Rocky Mountain states d. The Northeast and the West Coast e. The South, Great Plains, and the Rocky Mountain states ANS: D
REF: 196
NOT: Factual
33. People’s attitudes toward a candidate a. are affected by emotions such as trust towards a candidate. b. can be influenced by a recent political scandal. c. can be affected by the candidate’s personality or image. d. can be influenced by the candidate’s stance on economic issues. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 197
NOT: Applied
34. In the twentieth century, the magazine, Literary Digest a. enjoyed readership across the economic spectrum and provided accurate polling data of prospective voters. b. was popular with wealthier subscribers and polling by the journal inaccurately predicted Franklin D. Roosevelt’s defeat in the 1936 presidential election. c. was popular with factory workers and a survey of subscribers predicted the election of Franklin D. Roosevelt in 1936. d. held a perfect record of presidential election predictions based on polling from questionnaires. e. Options A and D are true. ANS: B
REF: 197 | 198
NOT: Applied
35. Modern polling techniques using market research was developed in the a. 1890s by George Orwell and Theodore Roosevelt. b. 1930s by George Gallup, Elmo Roper and Archibald Crossley.
c. 1940s at Harvard University. d. 1960s at the Census Bureau. e. 1970s by Zogby. ANS: B
REF: 198
NOT: Factual
36. A random sample means that a. every person in the target population has an equal chance of being selected. b. there is no pre-planning in the selection process. c. every person in the target population who is encountered is selected. d. researchers decide how many persons of certain types they need in the survey. e. the poll is unscientific. ANS: A
REF: 198
NOT: Conceptual
37. Usually, the Gallup or Roper polls interview a. people three to four times to insure accuracy. b. about 1,500 people in a nationwide sample. c. over 100,000 people in each random sample for presidential elections. d. people who have been selected based on their intelligence. e. using quota samples. ANS: B
REF: 198
NOT: Factual
38. The results of an opinion poll a. are usually reported in terms of a specific number. b. should be reported as a range of numbers to be more accurate. c. usually are accompanied by a specific margin of error. d. may be reported daily as a tracking poll. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 198 | 199
NOT: Applied
39. To accurately represent the target population, a small sample should be a. randomly selected. b. representative of the whole group. c. representative in terms of demographic traits (age, region, religion, race, and the like). d. representative in terms of opinions. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 198 | 199
NOT: Conceptual
40. Polls may be more accurate if the sample is a. truly random. b. weighted to correct missing data from underrepresented groups. c. weighted to make up for day to day swings in public sentiment. d. corrected for pollster bias. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 199
NOT: Applied
41. A consistent difference between polling results between firms is a. caused by secret in-house weighting schemes. b. caused by inaccurate sampling. c. known as the house effect. d. Options A and C are true.
e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 199 | 200
NOT: Factual
42. All of the following are true of public opinion polls except a. poll results are not equally good or equally believable. b. knowing what makes a poll accurate is not as important as the results of the poll. c. polls based on scientific or random samples are the most valid. d. polls that consist of shopping mall interviews may produce inaccurate results. e. well-designed polls based on probability samples may result in ninety-five percent accuracy. ANS: B
REF: 199–210
NOT: Applied
43. One of the problems with polls is a. they may fail to measure the impact of undecided voters. b. because they are a snapshot in time, polls may fail to detect last minute shifts in the electorate. c. they are based on a random sample. d. the results are affected by the news media. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 200
NOT: Conceptual
44. The answers given by respondents to poll questions are influenced by all of the following except a. the order in which questions are asked. b. poorly designed questions that tip respondents in a particular direction. c. a yes/no format that restricts the respondents’ choices. d. compensation offered to the respondents. e. the possible range of answers to the questions presented. ANS: D
REF: 201
NOT: Conceptual
45. Recent allegations of polling fraud have included a. concerns about secret in-house weights being added to results. b. concerns that results were fabricated. c. concerns that reader surveys are being published as scientific polls. d. Skype users flooding poll results with duplicate entries. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 201 | 202
NOT: Conceptual
46. Respondents are given misleading information in the questions they are asked in order to persuade them to vote against a candidate in a. convention polls. b. publicity polls. c. push polls. d. scientific polls. e. pundit polls. ANS: C
REF: 202
NOT: Factual
47. Push polls a. have been determined to be illegal in 23 states. b. are always conducted face-to-face rather than by telephone. c. are so controversial that very few candidates have chosen to use them.
d. were used widely in the 1960s and 1970s, but when they became associated with the dirty politics of those eras, they were disregarded by most candidates. e. are now used throughout all levels of U.S. politics—local, state, and federal. ANS: E
REF: 202
NOT: Factual
48. Which of the following is true about technology and opinion poll? a. It is easy to secure phone numbers due to Skype and voice-over-Internet services. b. Polling firms can survey all phone numbers regardless of the service provider. c. Many pollsters are using scripts read by a machine called robopolls. d. Robopolls are more accurate than live interviews. e. Most Americans are eager to participate in telephone polling dealing with political issues. ANS: C
REF: 202 | 203
NOT: Applied
49. Which of the following is true? a. Telephone polling began to predominate over in-person polling in the 1940s. b. Telephone polling remains a popular option even though it is more expensive and takes more time than in-person polling. c. With the pervasiveness of telemarketing, people have now grown accustomed to being solicited over the telephone and respond well to telephone polling. d. Those conducting telephone polls have designed technological improvements that allow them to bypass caller ID and other forms of call screening. e. Cell phone numbers are not included in random digit dialing programs or listed in telephone directories, limiting the ability of telephone polls to reach many people. ANS: E
REF: 203
NOT: Factual
50. American political culture a. can be described as a set of attitudes and ideas about the nation and government. b. consists of symbols such as the American flag, the Liberty Bell, and the Statue of Liberty. c. provides support for the political system. d. All of the above are true. e. None of the above is true. ANS: D
REF: 204
NOT: Conceptual
51. Public opinion affects the political process a. because it is a source of power for elected officials who take positions supported by the people. b. despite the fact that most candidates dismiss public opinion as an effective means of identifying issues of concern. c. because it allows the media to control the government. d. because it is more important than elections in bringing about change in the government. e. despite the fact that public opinion polls hardly ever reflect public opinion accurately. ANS: A
REF: 204 | 205
NOT: Conceptual
52. The values that shape American political culture include all of the following except a. freedom. b. liberty. c. equality. d. property. e. government control of the economy. ANS: E
REF: 204–206
NOT: Conceptual
53. The degree to which individuals express trust in the government is called a. partisan identification. b. political trust. c. universal suffrage. d. public opinion. e. political culture. ANS: B
REF: 205
NOT: Conceptual
54. Since the early 1990s the American people have consistently shown more confidence in _________ than any other institution. a. public schools b. organized labor c. big business d. the military e. television news ANS: D
REF: 205 | 206
NOT: Applied
55. Public confidence in a. the military has increased likely due to the military’s role in the war on terrorism. b. religion has decreased due to sex scandals. c. in Congress has increased due to the passage of healthcare reform. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 205 | 206
NOT: Applied
56. All are true of public opinion and polls except a. polls show that people give Congress a high rating. b. in 2009 and 2010 polls showed that “most important problems” in the United States were the economy and unemployment. c. public opinion can have an impact on government policies. d. public opinion can put limits on what government does. e. polls indicate that a majority of the public believe that public opinion should influence public policy. ANS: A
REF: 206
NOT: Applied
57. Public opinion polls a. give exact guidance on how policy makers should act. b. provide information that sets a limit on government actions. c. over time, push policymakers to change their position on most issues. d. are helpful to policymakers because they transmit the public’s clear opinion on every issue. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 207
NOT: Applied
58. The 2012 contraception insurance policy controversy can be described as a debate over a. whether employers should cover contraception in insurance plans for employees. b. whether religious organizations such as churches that oppose birth control should pay for such coverage. c. whether institutions like schools and hospitals must offer coverage for contraception.
d. Options A and C are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 208
NOT: Applied
59. Spending on public schools a. has risen several times to an average of $12,500 per students. b. is favored by a majority of those surveyed. c. has a been a point of contention between Republicans and Democrats. d. has dipped recently due to budget issues. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 209
NOT: Conceptual
60. Public opinion supports a. the general idea of paying more for education. b. increasing the spending per student to more than the current $12,922 per year. c. spending more on education across political parties. d. the idea that U.S. public schools are doing a good job in educating our children. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 209
NOT: Applied
ESSAY 1. Describe the concept of a generational effect and provide examples of its impact on public opinion. ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Describe the ways in which social media on the Internet can be employed by candidates and political groups. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Explore the means by which political socialization occurs in the United States. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Explain how demographic influences shape voting behavior. ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Explain the generalizations that can be made about the swings in political mood of the electorate. ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Describe the significance and possible origins of the gender gap. ANS:
Answers may vary. 7. Discuss four things that influence one’s public opinion. ANS: Answers may vary. 8. When conducting a public opinion poll, what things must be taken into consideration and what problems might there be? ANS: Answers may vary. 9. Describe the history of public opinion polls and explain why they have sometimes been inaccurate in major electoral contests. ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Which institutions in the United States hold American’s trust and which do not? Explain the reasons why some institutions are held in high esteem and others are not. ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 7: Interest Groups MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Lobbyists a. are persons hired to attempt to influence members of Congress. b. date back to colonial times. c. are deeply unpopular with the general public. d. represent special interests. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 216
NOT: Factual
2. Which is true? a. A lobbyist is hired to influence political officeholders. b. A lobbyist improves the debate by providing expert information on important issues. c. Lobbying is a recent phenomenon. d. A lobbyist actively and effectively represents the poor and the young. e. Options A and B are true ANS: E
REF: 216
NOT: Conceptual
3. An interest group is a. any association of individuals. b. a group of people who want to gain control of the government. c. an organization that actively attempts to influence government policy. d. any organization that requires members to pay dues. e. an organization set up to support a specific candidate for public office. ANS: C
REF: 217
NOT: Applied
4. The Constitution protects interest groups a. through the First Amendment’s right to “petition the Government for a redress of grievances.” b. through the First Amendment’s right to “peaceably assemble.” c. through the Fourth Amendment’s protection against illegal search and seizure. d. through the Fifth Amendment’s right against self-incrimination. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 217
NOT: Applied
5. All of the following are true of interest groups except a. the structure of American government gives interest groups a number of areas in which to attempt to influence government policies. b. interest groups attempt to influence government at all levels—local, state, and national. c. interest groups only seek to influence government through campaign contributions. d. the First Amendment encourages Americans to form and participate in interest groups. e. membership in an interest group makes individual opinion appear more powerful. ANS: C
REF: 217
NOT: Applied
6. A lobbyist is a. any association of individuals. b. inevitably affiliated with one of the two major political parties.
c. an individual or organization who attempts to influence legislation and the administrative decisions of government. d. a member of Congress who challenges the majority position. e. a member of the congressional leadership who is in a position to shape the legislative agenda in a way that benefits powerful interest groups. ANS: C
REF: 217
NOT: Conceptual
7. Interest groups are a. an organized group of individuals who actively attempt to influence policymakers. b. an organized group of individuals sharing common objectives. c. a branch of a political party. d. an organized group of individuals who attempt to win seats in government to influence policy from within for their members. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 217
NOT: Applied
8. Social movements, a. are spawned most often by political parties or those in society with formal representation. b. may be the authentic voice of the weak or oppressed in society. c. are generally organized by a single powerful interest group. d. generally last for five to ten years. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 218
NOT: Applied
9. A public-policy interest that is not recognized or represented by a group is a a. free rider. b. common interest. c. public benefit. d. rational incentive. e. latent interest. ANS: E
REF: 218
NOT: Factual
10. A free rider is a. an interest group member. b. a participant in a social movement. c. someone granted free passage to Washington to lobby or demonstrate. d. someone who benefits from the actions of a group without joining it. e. a civil rights activist. ANS: D
REF: 219
NOT: Conceptual
11. People who become members of interest groups for solidary incentives are joining a. for a sense of belonging to the group. b. to improve their economic opportunities. c. for ethical beliefs or ideological reasons. d. to obtain political, economic, or social change. e. as free riders. ANS: A
REF: 219
NOT: Conceptual
12. All of the following are true of the AARP except a. most people who join AARP are doing so based on material incentives.
b. c. d. e.
the AARP is the largest interest group in the United States. the AARP provides discounts and insurance plans for members. the AARP can claim it represents millions of senior citizens. most people join the AARP because of its free rider policy.
ANS: E
REF: 219
NOT: Factual
13. People who become members of interest groups for material incentives are joining a. for a sense of belonging to the group. b. to improve their economic opportunities or gain economic benefits. c. for ethical beliefs or ideological reasons. d. to institute change for political, economic, or social impact on the whole society. e. because they have been pressured to do so. ANS: B
REF: 219 | 220
NOT: Conceptual
14. People who become members of interest groups for purposive incentives are joining a. for a sense of belonging to the group. b. as free riders. c. for ethical beliefs or ideological reasons. d. to improve their economic opportunities. e. because they have been pressured to do so. ANS: C
REF: 220
NOT: Conceptual
15. The most numerous types of interest groups in the United States are a. economic interest groups. b. social interest groups. c. liberal interest groups. d. environmental interest groups. e. public-interest interest groups. ANS: A
REF: 220
NOT: Factual
16. Which of the following groups are economic interest groups? a. The U.S. Chamber of Commerce b. The American Dairy Association c. The AFL-CIO d. The American Federation of Teachers e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 220–224
NOT: Factual
17. Which types of interest groups are defined as economic interest groups? a. Business, labor, and public interest groups b. Labor, agriculture, and environmental groups c. Business, labor, and foreign governments d. Business, labor, and professionals e. Professionals, agriculture, and foreign governments ANS: D
REF: 220–224
NOT: Conceptual
18. Which of the following would not properly be called an interest group? a. American Association of Retired Persons b. National Farm Bureau c. Sierra Club
d. American Federation of Labor-Congress of Industrial Organizations (AFL-CIO) e. Unorganized poor ANS: E
REF: 220–228
NOT: Applied
19. Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. The U.S. Chamber of Commerce and the National Association of Manufacturers are known as “umbrella groups.” b. The U.S. Chamber of Commerce and the National Association of Manufacturers combine with other types of interest groups, such as public interest groups and professional organizations, in order to achieve their objectives. c. The U.S. Chamber of Commerce represents more than three million businesses. d. The National Association of Manufacturers can mobilize articulate lobbyists to promote the concerns of members. e. The AARP promotes the interests of American agricultural rural producers. ANS: E
REF: 221
NOT: Factual
20. American farmers and their workers represent less than one percent of the U.S. population. This fact supports the proposition that a. because of their size, farmers have been unsuccessful as interest groups. b. there are more farmers today than there were forty years ago. c. most farmers are too busy to be politically active. d. even a small percentage of the populace can be effective if they organize. e. geographical dispersion works against the formation of effective interest groups. ANS: D
REF: 221 | 222
NOT: Applied
21. All of the following are true about labor unions except a. the number of members in labor unions has been declining. b. American labor unions continue to support candidates for Congress. c. labor unions provide volunteers for campaigns and campaign contributions. d. a large turnout of union members will increase the final vote totals for Republicans. e. there has been a growth in the unionization of public employees. ANS: D
REF: 222
NOT: Factual
22. The age of automation and the rise of the service sector have a. led to increased power for labor unions. b. eliminated the need for interest groups for workers. c. led to an increase in the percentage of blue-collar workers in the total working population. d. led to attempts to unionize migrant farm workers, service workers, and public employees. e. caused the collapse of all labor interest groups. ANS: D
REF: 222
NOT: Factual
23. U.S. agricultural subsidies a. are the highest in the world. b. are greater as a percentage of production value than those provided the European Union. c. are about 30 percent of production values. d. are smaller that those provided by South Korea and the European Union. e. Option C and D are true. ANS: D
REF: 223
NOT: Applied
24. Since 1960, the greatest growth in unionization has occurred among
a. b. c. d. e.
military personnel. professional athletes. public employees. private sector employees. information technology employees.
ANS: C
REF: 223 | 224
NOT: Factual
25. Labor unions a. are embraced by business-oriented conservatives. b. are not popular in Southern states like Georgia and North Carolina. c. are popular in states like New York and California. d. Options B and C are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 224
NOT: Factual
26. All of the following statements about professional interest groups are true except a. they include the American Medical Association and the American Bar Association b. members, such as doctors and lawyers, are influential because of their social status. c. the attorneys within these groups have an advantage because many members of Congress are also attorneys. d. the AMA spends large amounts of money on lobbying. e. they include police officers, fire fighters, teachers, and college instructors. ANS: E
REF: 224 | 225
NOT: Factual
27. All of the following statements about the representation of poor people are true except a. their representation comes largely from business groups. b. representation is difficult because the poor often cannot afford the time or money needed to join groups. c. the poor depend largely on indirect representations. d. most efforts on behalf of the poor come from a policy network of groups. e. many people who are classified as poor do not have the ability to find out which group might represent them. ANS: A
REF: 225
NOT: Applied
28. The Sierra Club and the Nature Conservancy are examples of a. agricultural interest groups. b. interest groups of professionals. c. economic interest groups. d. environmental interest groups. e. public interest groups. ANS: D
REF: 225
NOT: Conceptual
29. The issue of global warming a. creates conflict between environmentalists and industrial interest groups. b. creates conflict between wildlife conservation groups and hunters. c. has transformed electoral politics in states like California. d. Options A and C are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 225 | 226
NOT: Factual
30. Opponents of the Keystone XL oil pipeline contend a. the pipeline will transport the cleanest oil on earth. b. that the process used to extract oil from tar sands creates the dirtiest oil on earth. c. that oxygen emitted in the process will cause damage to the atmosphere. d. that the process uses little energy to extract the oil, but is too costly to produce. e. that the Canadian oil flooding the market will raise gas prices. ANS: B
REF: 226
NOT: Applied
31. Supporters of the Keystone XL pipeline contend that it will reduce the importation of “conflict” oil which a. comes to the United States from countries in the Middle East without liberties due to repressive governments. b. comes to the United States from countries that are ruled by dictators. c. comes to the United States from the oil sands of Canada. d. comes from the Gulf of Mexico. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 226
NOT: Applied
32. The Consumer Movement a. began in the 1960s during the anti-war and civil rights movements. b. began in the early part of the twentieth century due to unsafe and unsanitary workplace conditions. c. was founded by Ralph Nader who pioneered increased safety testing of commercial airliners. d. is funded by business and industrial interests. e. was inspired by the book, Silent Spring by Rachel Carson. ANS: B
REF: 227
NOT: Factual
33. Common Cause, a public-interest group, a. helped with ratification of the Eighteenth Amendment to the Constitution, establishing prohibition. b. is concerned with passing legislation to obtain a major revision of the Internal Revenue Service. c. works to make governmental institutions more responsive to the public. d. is one of the smallest public-interest groups. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: C
REF: 227
NOT: Factual
34. The League of Women Voters a. is officially non-partisan. b. lobbies for government reform. c. lobbied for the Equal Rights Amendment. d. was founded in 1920. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 227
NOT: Factual
35. The National Abortion Rights Action League (NARAL) and the National Rifle Association (NRA) are examples of a. economic interest groups. b. single-interest groups.
c. public-interest groups. d. foreign interest groups. e. fringe interest groups. ANS: B
REF: 227 | 228
NOT: Applied
36. Single-issue interest groups a. include the American Association of Retired Persons (AARP). b. include the Common Cause, which lobbies for government reform. c. are narrowly focused, usually on just one issue. d. have members who tend to care intensely about their issues. e. Options C and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 227 | 228
NOT: Conceptual
37. Foreign governments a. often contribute large sums of money to key members of Congress. b. sometimes hire former members of Congress as lobbyists. c. provide expensive gifts to members of Congress who travel to a country on official government business. d. are rarely interested in the policy debates concerning trade issues. e. are prohibited by law from attempting to influence U.S. policy. ANS: B
REF: 228
NOT: Factual
38. Which of the following is true of interest groups? a. Only a few interest groups attempt to influence public officials in the government at the same time. b. Interest groups only lobby the national government because at that level issues are more important than at other levels of government. c. Having a large number of members helps an interest group have influence with government officials. d. All interest groups need members to pay high dues so they can have a strong financial base. e. All of the above are true. ANS: C
REF: 229
NOT: Applied
39. Interest groups attain a reputation for being powerful through all of the following except a. their membership size. b. their financial resources. c. cohesiveness. d. charismatic leadership. e. their willingness to formally link themselves to a specific party. ANS: E
REF: 229 | 230
NOT: Conceptual
40. All of the following are true of interest groups except that they a. use a wide range of techniques and strategies to promote their policy goals. b. are extremely successful in persuading the president to endorse their programs completely. c. may try to block or weaken legislation. d. provide officials with information and assistance when needed. e. may lobby officials personally or use the general public to influence government on their behalf. ANS: B
REF: 230
NOT: Applied
41. Successful interest groups and their representatives try to cultivate long-term relationships with a. foreign ambassadors. b. legislators and government officials. c. federal judges. d. business leaders. e. police commissioners and chiefs of police. ANS: B
REF: 230
NOT: Conceptual
42. The number of lobbyists in Washington has _________ since 2000. a. decreased slightly b. decreased extensively c. stayed the same d. increased slightly e. more than doubled ANS: E
REF: 231
NOT: Factual
43. All of the following are true of lobbyists except that they a. may help draft legislation for public officials. b. may be members of some of Washington, D.C.’s law firms that specialize in providing services to government officials. c. they fabricate the truth when providing information to public officials. d. meet with public officials to inform them of the interests of their clients. e. may testify before congressional committees. ANS: C
REF: 231
NOT: Applied
44. One of the ways in which lobbyists make themselves valuable to decision makers is by a. threatening to campaign against them in upcoming elections. b. providing bribes. c. threatening to withhold campaign contributions. d. providing information and expertise whenever asked. e. inviting them to parties. ANS: D
REF: 231
NOT: Conceptual
45. Lobbyists provide advisory assistance to legislators by a. testifying before legislative committees b. assisting legislators with the drafting of bills. c. providing technical expertise to legislators. d. providing exotic vacations for legislators. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 231
NOT: Applied
46. Interest groups often hire former government employees or former members of Congress as lobbyists for all of the following reasons except a. the lobbyists “know their way around Washington.” b. these individuals often retain friendships with former colleagues. c. the groups cannot possibly be effective if they do not hire these people. d. these lobbyists often have expert knowledge. e. these lobbyists often understand the regulatory process. ANS: C
REF: 231
NOT: Factual
47. “Model Bills” created by the American Legislative Exchange Council (ALEC) a. tend to address issues of concern to liberal legislators. b. try to reduce or prevent the growth of state and local regulation on business. c. try to prevent business failure through more comprehensive regulation. d. tend to promote the public funding of entities that compete with private corporations. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 232
NOT: Applied
48. Groups recognize that the greatest concern of legislators is to a. support the principles of their political party. b. be reelected. c. vote for the ideas of the constituents. d. be totally informed on issues they will have to vote on. e. please the congressional leadership. ANS: B
REF: 233
NOT: Factual
49. Political endorsements by interest groups are a. important because the group can publicize its choices in its membership publication. b. not very important because while candidates can publicize the fact that their campaign is endorsed by groups, they cannot identify the specific source of the endorsement. c. relatively ineffective today. d. a violation of campaign finance reform laws. e. allowed only in local elections, but forbidden in races for federal office. ANS: A
REF: 233
NOT: Applied
50. Indirect techniques used by interest groups include a. approaching officials personally to press a case. b. strategies that use the general public or individuals to influence the government for the interest group. c. illegal tactics like bribes and payoffs. d. paying members of Congress as consultants in return for favorable votes on issues important to the interest group. e. testifying before congressional committees. ANS: B
REF: 234
NOT: Conceptual
51. Generating public pressure and awareness may a. convince policymakers that public opinion overwhelmingly supports the interest group’s position. b. mislead the public on environmental issues. c. bypass the legislative process. d. force bureaucrats to answer to Congressional committees. e. lobby lawmakers directly. ANS: A
REF: 234
NOT: Applied
52. Legislators and government officials are often more impressed by contacts from a. constituents than interest groups. b. aides to the Supreme Court than the bar association in their district. c. lobbyists who threaten to take their case to the public than their constituents. d. reporters who leak classified information to the press than the media in general.
e. representatives from foreign governments than lobbyists from American interests. ANS: A
REF: 234
NOT: Factual
53. To generate public pressure, interest groups may a. use advertisements in national magazines and newspapers. b. generate mail to elected officials. c. organize rallies. d. work with like-minded organizations. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 234
NOT: Applied
54. All of the following are techniques used by interest groups to involve the general public except a. attempting to mobilize large numbers of constituents to write, phone, or send e-mails and tweets to their legislators. b. using demonstrations, rallies, and marches. c. violently protesting so officials will know the unhappiness of the public. d. getting people to boycott a business. e. commissioning polls and publicizing the results for the public to see. ANS: C
REF: 234 | 235
NOT: Applied
55. All of the following statements about demonstrations are true except a. if peaceable, they are protected by the First Amendment. b. they were used to great effect by the Civil Rights Movement. c. they were used by the movement against the Vietnam War. d. they are organized refusals to buy the products of a particular company. e. if violent, they can backfire and alienate the public. ANS: D
REF: 235
NOT: Applied
56. Legislation to regulate lobbying in 1946 resulted in a. a minimal number of individuals registered as lobbyists. b. a large number of lobbyists decided to reveal their tactics. c. a significant decrease in the influence of special interests. d. an increase in reporting requirements for lobbyists at federal agencies and the courts. e. a public record of all lobbyists active that year. ANS: A
REF: 236
NOT: Applied
57. Legislation to reform the regulation of federal lobbying in 1995 resulted in all of the following except a. lobbyists were forced to register. b. lobbyists had to produce semiannual reports. c. religious groups had to register as lobbyists. d. a lobbyist was defined as someone who spent more than twenty percent of his or her working time lobbying Congress or the executive branch. e. an accompanying move was made to limit gifts to members of Congress. ANS: C
REF: 236
NOT: Factual
58. The Honest Leadership and Open Government Act of 2007 a. requires lobbyists to report their activities annually. b. requires Congress to post lobbying information on the Internet. c. significantly changed the culture in Washington. d. requires that all pork spending proposals be reported to the President.
e. limits spending by lobbyists to $100,000 per quarter. ANS: B
REF: 236 | 237
NOT: Applied
59. The existence of interest groups a. shows that public-interest groups and civil rights make up a large percentage of interest groups lobbying Congress. b. shows that leaders are from the lower social-economic groups. c. demonstrates the validity of the elite theory model of our political system. d. can be problematic for democracy because members of the middle or upper classes often dominate interest groups. e. is required by the Constitution. ANS: D
REF: 237
NOT: Conceptual
60. Interest groups a. have equal resources to influence legislation. b. possess different combinations of resources to use in the policymaking process. c. always begin as social movements. d. are always comprised of members who have high social status. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 237 | 238
NOT: Applied
ESSAY 1. What would be the unintended consequences if lobbying was abolished? ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Explain the different incentives Americans have for joining interest groups. What are some examples of the types of groups Americans join? ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Describe the categories of economic interest groups and provide examples of each. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Explain how economic interest groups, public-interest groups, and single-issue interest groups differ from each other. ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Explain the factors that make an interest group powerful. ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Explain the direct techniques used by interest groups.
ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Explain the indirect techniques used by interest groups. ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Describe legislative efforts to regulate the activities of lobbyists. ANS: Answers may vary. 9. Describe the three different techniques used by interest groups that you think are the most important. Then explain why the techniques you have chosen are important. ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Describe the role played by interest groups in shaping public policy. ANS: Answers may vary. 11. What are the differences between a social movement and an interest group? How are they related? ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 8: Political Parties MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If we chose candidates through a “top two” bipartisan primary election a. candidates would have to appeal to a wider range of public opinion. b. it would increase voter participation. c. the major political parties might lose some of their influence. d. it would be the end of the open primary system. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 246
NOT: Applied
2. During primary elections a. voters chose the candidates who will represent each party in the November general election. b. candidates compete to be the advocate of the party’s philosophy. c. competition between candidates results in severe polarization. d. campaigning can result in “purity” contests. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 246
NOT: Conceptual
3. In primary elections a. candidates appeal to a wide range of opinion to get votes. b. candidates tend make moderate stands on issues. c. partisan campaigning leads to less overall spending on campaigns. d. candidates try to appeal to the more extreme members of their party. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 246
NOT: Applied
4. Today about how many voters call themselves independents? a. 20 percent b. 40 percent c. 10 percent d. 50 percent e. 75 percent ANS: B
REF: 247
NOT: Factual
5. A voter or a candidate who does not identify with a political party is called a. a naysayer. b. an independent. c. a liberal. d. a conservative. e. a libertarian. ANS: B
REF: 247
NOT: Conceptual
6. Political parties differ from factions in that a. factions are large social movements. b. factions are groups that left the party to start a new party. c. factions are groups within parties that follow a particular leader or share an
ideological viewpoint. d. factions are a newer phenomenon than political parties. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: C
REF: 247
NOT: Applied
7. A political party is a group of individuals who a. agree on all policy issues. b. organize to win elections and operate the government. c. pay monthly dues to an ideological organization. d. have been elected to office and have obtained positions of power. e. accept the decisions of the party’s leaders. ANS: B
REF: 247
NOT: Conceptual
8. A political party differs from an interest group in that a. political parties want to operate the government and interest groups do not. b. political parties do not want to operate the government and interest groups do. c. individuals must pay dues to a political party but not to an interest group. d. individuals in a political party agree on all major policy issues. e. interest groups select candidates to run for office, political parties do not. ANS: A
REF: 247
NOT: Applied
9. The primary goal of an American political party is a. peaceably influencing the American public. b. signing up large numbers of deeply committed members. c. getting the party’s candidates elected to office by winning elections. d. collecting member dues. e. trying to find the other party doing “bad” things. ANS: C
REF: 247 | 248
NOT: Factual
10. Functions of political parties in the United States include all of the following except a. operating the government. b. acting as an organized opposition to the party in power. c. signing up large numbers of dues-paying committed members. d. recruiting candidates for public office. e. presenting alternative policies to the electorate. ANS: C
REF: 248
NOT: Conceptual
11. The two-party system a. emerged as a consequence of the form of government created by the Constitution. b. is a requirement in the Constitution. c. emerged in the twentieth century. d. was favored by George Washington. e. Options A and D are true. ANS: A
REF: 248
NOT: Factual
12. The major functions of American political parties are carried out by a. elected party leaders. b. leaders chosen by the President. c. a small, relatively loose-knit nucleus of party activists. d. a large group of highly organized volunteers.
e. dues-paying members. ANS: C
REF: 248
NOT: Applied
13. A political system in which only two parties have a reasonable chance of winning is called a. a bipartisan government. b. a two-party system. c. a bicameral system. d. bifurcated government. e. representative democracy. ANS: B
REF: 248
NOT: Factual
14. Which if the following is true? a. Political parties organize voter registration drives. b. Political parties recruit volunteers to work at the polls on election day. c. Political parties raise money for campaign materials. d. Political parties work to raise awareness for their candidates and increase voter turnout. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 248
NOT: Applied
15. The first partisan political division in the United States was between a. the Democrats and the Republicans. b. the Whigs and the Democrats. c. the Federalists and the Anti-Federalists. d. the Whigs and the Tories. e. the Whigs and the Republicans. ANS: C
REF: 248 | 249
NOT: Factual
16. George Washington viewed political parties as a a. necessity for the functioning of democracy. b. tradition from colonial times that would always exist. c. threat to national unity and popular government. d. legitimate means for interest groups to attempt to gain control of the government. e. vestige of politics under Great Britain and thus a thing of the past. ANS: C
REF: 248 | 249
NOT: Applied
17. All of the following statements about the early Republican Party are true except a. it was initially led by Thomas Jefferson. b. it supported a strong, more active central government. c. it was supported by artisans and farmers. d. it supported states’ rights. e. in office, its members acquired Louisiana and established a national bank. ANS: B
REF: 249
NOT: Conceptual
18. All of the following statements about the early Democratic Party are true except a. it was an anti-slavery party. b. it favored federal spending on internal improvements. c. it was the party of the wealthy elites. d. it was a branch of the Anti-Federalist Party e. None of these statements are true.
ANS: E
REF: 249
NOT: Applied
19. During the Civil War a. the issue of slavery did not affect the political party alignment. b. the political parties realigned to form new parties, one in support of slavery and one opposed. c. political parties were suspended until the end of the war. d. the political parties unified behind President Lincoln. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 249
NOT: Applied
20. All of the following are true except a. the Republican Party was founded by uniting northern Whigs, antislavery Democrats, and members of the Free Soil Party. b. southerners resented Republicans’ role in defeating the South in the Civil War. c. the Republicans after the Civil War supported business interests and evangelical Protestant cultural values. d. the Republicans turned to supporting states’ rights after the Civil War. e. the Republicans opposed the prohibition of alcoholic beverages after the Civil War. ANS: D
REF: 250
NOT: Conceptual
21. The presidential election of 1912 was unique because a. the Democratic Party temporarily split in two. b. the “Bull Moose” ticket candidate won the election. c. the Republican Party was temporarily split that allowed Democrat Woodrow Wilson to be elected. d. all of the major parties opposed progressivism. e. the Socialist candidate almost won. ANS: C
REF: 251
NOT: Factual
22. Under Woodrow Wilson, the Democratic Party a. rejected the policies of progressivism. b. continued to adhere to the same basic policies that it did in the nineteenth century. c. began a radical change by endorsing the idea that government should become involved in the economy. d. shattered into three very distinct parties that were extraordinarily antagonistic toward each other. e. adopted a policy of isolating the United States from the affairs of the rest of the world. ANS: C
REF: 251
NOT: Factual
23. Progressivism was a. a response to the growing power of corporations. b. embraced by Teddy Roosevelt. c. a belief that honest, impartial government could regulate the economy. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 251
NOT: Conceptual
24. Which of the following is true? a. The Great Depression shattered the working-class belief in Democratic
economic competence. b. The Great Depression solidified the Republican Party as the dominant and most trusted party in American government and politics. c. Roosevelt’s relief programs were generally not available to African Americans, resulting in African Americans’ antagonism toward the Democratic Party that lasted for decades. d. The Great Depression shattered the working-class belief in Republican economic competence. e. Republicans held the presidency from the early 1930s until the late 1960s. ANS: D
REF: 251
NOT: Applied
25. Which is (are) true of the New Deal period? a. President Roosevelt’s programs were open to whites and African Americans. b. The Great Depression shattered working class voters’ confidence in the Republican Party. c. Roosevelt’s coalition of whites and blacks was large enough to establish the Democrats as the majority party. d. Democrats made major interventions in the economy to combat the Great Depression. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 251
NOT: Factual
26. During the late 1960s, a. economically liberal, socially conservative voters left the Republican Party. b. the Democrats gained strength in the South. c. the Republican ascendance came to an end.. d. Republicans gained a majority in Congress. e. urban riots and anti-Vietnam War protests pushed many voters towards conservatism. ANS: E
REF: 251
NOT: Conceptual
27. All of the following are true of the elections of 2000 and 2004 except a. Al Gore won the popular vote for president in 2000. b. George W. Bush became president in 2004. c. commentators began to use the terms “red states” for those that had voted Democratic and “blue states” for those that voted Republican. d. only three states changed their votes for president in 2004 from the 2000 election. e. the Republican and Democratic Parties were very close in the number of votes each got. ANS: C
REF: 252
NOT: Factual
28. In “Wave Elections” a. dissatisfaction with the performance of one part or another can produce a wave of support for the other party. b. the effects of the election results are temporary. c. support for the major parties realign. d. the results are landslide victories for Republicans or Democrats. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 252
NOT: Applied
29. Which is true of the election of 2008? a. The collapse of the economy in 2007 was a major factor in the election outcome. b. President Obama won with one of the narrowest margins in recent history. c. The Republicans gained seats in the U.S. House and Senate. d. The Democrats obtained 51 seats in the U.S. Senate.
e. President Obama was able to capitalize on President Bush’s high approval ratings before the election. ANS: A
REF: 253
NOT: Applied
30. In general, the Democrats have been known as the party of a. well-educated, professional individuals. b. economic depression. c. the economic elite. d. conservative political ideas. e. states’ rights. ANS: A
REF: 254–258
NOT: Factual
31. In general, the Republicans have been known as the party of a. liberal political ideas. b. social welfare programs. c. business. d. the working class. e. racial and ethnic minorities. ANS: C
REF: 254–258
NOT: Factual
32. Republicans have emphasized a. the need for governmental regulation of the economy. b. the importance of the marketplace, with less emphasis on social programs. c. social freedoms like the proposed Equal Rights Amendment. d. the need to increase taxes on the wealthy and large corporations. e. national authority versus the states’ authority. ANS: B
REF: 254–258
NOT: Conceptual
33. Democrats have emphasized a. limited government. b. a flat tax that would eliminate the progressive income tax system. c. social welfare and protection of seniors’ benefits. d. a major reduction in most social programs that result in direct payments to individuals. e. conservative political ideas. ANS: C
REF: 254–258
NOT: Conceptual
34. Which of the following is false? a. The Jewish electorate tends to be heavily Democratic. b. Hispanics are strongly Republican. c. Urban people tend to vote Democratic. d. Rural voters support Republicans. e. Union members tend to vote Democratic. ANS: B
REF: 255
NOT: Factual
35. All of the following are true except that a. During the administrations of Bill Clinton and George W. Bush, it appeared that the parties had come to a consensus on the size of government. b. During the Obama administration, both parties reverted to their traditional positions on the size of government. c. The Rise of the Tea Party may push the Republicans to maintain a strong stance on
reducing government spending. d. President Bill Clinton increased spending by reforming the welfare system. e. President George W. Bush increased spending by embarking in two wars and adding prescription drug benefits for seniors to Medicare. ANS: D
REF: 255 | 256
NOT: Factual
36. In regard to cultural politics which is true? a. Economic conservatism is associated with higher incomes. b. Social conservatism is more common among lower income groups. c. Cultural conservatives view themselves as embattled “ordinary Americans” under threat from liberal, cosmopolitan elites. d. The election of President Obama and a Democratic Congress magnified conservatives fear, resulting in the Tea Party movement. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 256
NOT: Conceptual
37. Which of the following is true about the 2008 elections? a. Fourteen out of the fifteen wealthiest states tended to vote Republican. b. Southern states voted for Democratic candidates more than for Republicans. c. Thirteen out of the fifteen poorest states voted Republican. d. The reverse-income effect proved that those with lower incomes usually vote for independent candidates. e. In the Democratic presidential primaries, working-class voters voted for Obama rather than for Hillary Clinton. ANS: C
REF: 256
NOT: Factual
38. The elements of the reverse-income effect include a tendency for a. wealthier states and regions to support the Democratic Party. b. less wealthy states or regions to support the Republican Party. c. less wealthy states and regions to support the Democratic Party. d. wealthy states or regions to support the Republican Party. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 257
NOT: Applied
39. The party-in-the-electorate is made up of a. the members of the general public who identify with a political party. b. the formal structure and leadership of a political party. c. all of the elected and appointed officials who identify with a party. d. the members of the electoral college. e. the individuals who choose the members of the electoral college. ANS: A
REF: 258
NOT: Conceptual
40. The party organization is a. the members of the general public who identify with a political party. b. the formal structure and leadership of a political party. c. all of the elected and appointed officials who identify with a party. d. the urban machines that distribute social benefits. e. responsible only for mundane matters such as printing signs and scheduling events. ANS: B
REF: 258
NOT: Factual
41. The party-in-government is made up of a. the members of the general public who identify with a political party. b. the formal structure and leadership of a political party. c. all of the elected and appointed officials who identify with a political party. d. pledged to support all of the party’s political positions. e. no longer significant due to candidate-centered elections. ANS: C
REF: 258
NOT: Conceptual
42. The national convention a. is held every two years. b. nominates the presidential and vice-presidential candidates and develops the party platform. c. selects all candidates for office running on the party label. d. gets rid of members who have failed to support the party. e. passes legislation that will prevent the development of third parties. ANS: B
REF: 258
NOT: Factual
43. The lowest layer of official party machinery is a. the local organization supported by district leaders, precinct or ward captains, and party workers. b. the state party chairperson and committees. c. the national campaign chairperson’s volunteers. d. the White House interns. e. the National Convention Delegates. ANS: A
REF: 262
NOT: Applied
44. Local party organizations are still important to local campaigns today because a. they provide foot soldiers for political campaigns. b. local party leaders are influential in determining the party’s candidates for national elections. c. national parties are dependent on money from the local party leaders. d. the local party leaders control social services. e. they receive substantial coverage in the media. ANS: A
REF: 262
NOT: Factual
45. Divided government a. reflects a situation when a person votes for candidates of two parties for different offices. b. exists when the presidency and Congress are controlled by different parties. c. is another name for federalism. d. increases the control of the winning party in an election. e. is a strong indication of the emergence of a new third party. ANS: B
REF: 262 | 263
NOT: Conceptual
46. Most candidates for public office in the United States are chosen a. by party “bosses.” b. by dues-paid party members. c. as a result of the candidate’s hard work and personal organization. d. at party conventions. e. in such a way that the party leadership can be sure that the candidates will support the party’s platform.
ANS: C
REF: 263
NOT: Factual
47. Examples of party polarization include all of the following except a. party-line voting. b. the end of overlapping party ideologies. c. the rise of extreme ideology in the Republican Party. d. the rise of liberal Republicans. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 263
NOT: Conceptual
48. The two-party system has dominated the American political landscape for all of the following reasons except a. political socialization and practical considerations. b. the winner-take-all electoral system. c. state and federal laws favor the two major parties. d. historical foundations of the system. e. third parties are illegal in many jurisdictions. ANS: E
REF: 264
NOT: Conceptual
49. A major reason for the two-party system is the electoral system, which is based on a. the winner-take-all, or plurality, system. b. proportional representation. c. one-party dominance of elections. d. majoritarianism. e. multi-member constituencies. ANS: A
REF: 264
NOT: Conceptual
50. In the winner-take-all system, a. the candidate that gets the most votes wins. b. one must get a majority of votes cast to win. c. votes are allocated on a proportional basis. d. only parties receiving more than five percent of the vote are allocated seats. e. a party must have competed in a previous election to be placed on the ballot. ANS: A
REF: 264 | 265
NOT: Factual
51. Which is true of federal and state laws? a. They have encouraged third parties to get candidates on the ballot. b. They let third parties get fewer signatures to place their candidates on the ballot than major parties. c. The two major parties have a clear advantage because the laws have fewer obstacles for them. d. The federal laws have made it easy for third or minor-party candidates to get federal matching funds. e. All of the above are true. ANS: C
REF: 266
NOT: Applied
52. Many political scientists contend that third parties a. have consistently failed because they never reflect the political mood of the nation. b. serve as a safety valve for dissident political groups, preventing major confrontations and political unrest.
c. can only come into existence if they are organized around a single charismatic leader. d. can only come into existence if they split off from one of the major political parties. e. are incapable of being formed from scratch by individuals who are committed to a particular issue or ideology. ANS: B
REF: 266
NOT: Conceptual
53. Third parties a. are minor parties. b. can act as critics of the major parties. c. can be spoilers in an election. d. often start because of an idea or person. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 266–269
NOT: Factual
54. Third parties have influenced American politics by a. refusing to allow their policies to be adopted by a major party. b. sometimes determining whether the Republicans or Democrats win an election. c. focusing their efforts on getting judges appointed to the bench rather than winning elections for the executive or legislative branches. d. winning elections to state legislative bodies. e. gaining control of several municipal governments. ANS: B
REF: 266–269
NOT: Factual
55. Which of the following is true about third parties? a. The Green Party favors globalization. b. The Libertarian Party favors governmental intervention into overseas conflicts. c. The Progressive Party was an advocate of federal regulation to protect consumers. d. The Socialist Party favors small business interests and is growing in size. e. The Populist Party was initiated by businessman Ross Perot in an effort to combat federal budget deficits ANS: C
REF: 267
NOT: Conceptual
56. Realignment a. is of necessity tied to specific elections. b. takes place when a substantial group of voters switches party allegiance. c. takes place when one dominant party replaces another one. d. took place on schedule in 2004. e. has been predicted as inevitable in the foreseeable future. ANS: B
REF: 269 | 270
NOT: Conceptual
57. One example of realignment was when a. antislavery Republicans left to join the Democratic Party before the Civil War. b. working-class voters abandoned the Republican Party in 1896 due to the Republicans’ populist politics. c. the New Deal Democratic Coalition brought African Americans and ardent segregationists into the same party in 1932. d. cultural conservatives abandoned the Republicans in 1968, especially in the South. e. evangelical Christians abandoned the Republican Party and voted for Jimmy Carter in 1976. ANS: C
REF: 270
NOT: Applied
58. Which is true? a. Straight-ticket voting is now nearly universal. b. The number of people identifying as independents has grown in recent years. c. Party identification has been increasing. d. The rise in Democratic identification may be because of the southern voter. e. Split-ticket voting is declining. ANS: B
REF: 270 | 271
NOT: Factual
59. Tipping takes place a. when a substantial group of voters switches party allegiance. b. when increasing numbers of voters call themselves “independents.” c. when a group that is becoming more numerous over time grows large enough to change the political balance in a state. d. as a result of immigration or differential birth rates. e. only in countries that employ a multiparty system. ANS: C
REF: 271
NOT: Conceptual
60. Which is true about independents? a. True independents, those that are open to candidates of both parties, make up a relatively large share of the voters. b. In times of economic crisis, the independent vote can decide elections. c. All independents tend to stick with one party despite claiming to be open to all viewpoints. d. Independents helped elect President Obama. e. Options B and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 272
NOT: Factual
ESSAY 1. Which do you consider yourself—a Democrat, Republican, or Independent? Explain your answer by discussing your viewpoints on the issues that align with one of the above ideologies. ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Describe the different functions of political parties in our system. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Describe the history of political parties in the United States. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Explain the phenomenon of “wave” elections and provide examples. ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Contrast the two major parties in the United States today.
ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Analyze the role of cultural politics in recent elections. ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Explain the differences between the party-in-the-electorate, the party organization, and the party-in-government. ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Why do we only have two major parties? Explain the circumstances that have perpetuated the two-party system. ANS: Answers may vary. 9. Explore the role played by third parties in the United States. ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Explain the activities of political parties at the national, state, and local levels. ANS: Answers may vary. 11. Describe the importance of independent voters and provide examples of their impact in recent elections. ANS: Answers may vary. 12. How can an individual voter become involved with a political party? Outline some party activities that are available for individual voters. ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 9: Campaigns, Elections, and the Media MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All are true except a. since 1994 the number of people who read a daily newspaper has dropped. b. more people now obtain their national and international news from the Internet. c. what you see online is very different from what you see in print. d. some major newspapers have gone bankrupt in recent years. e. if newspapers disappear, people will get their news from cable stations and the Internet. ANS: C
REF: 280
NOT: Factual
2. Which of the following statements is false? a. Campaign fund-raising has grown due to a reduction in limits on the process. b. Recent Supreme Court decisions have made it easier to raise large donations. c. The media play a minor role in the political process. d. Newspapers have become less important as new media have become involved in the political process. e. Political campaigns are long, bitter, and expensive. ANS: C
REF: 281
NOT: Applied
3. Political parties a. have difficulty finding candidates for some local offices. b. have difficulty finding candidates to run for office in some regions of the country. c. have difficulty finding candidates when winning that office is unlikely. d. have an easier time finding candidates when the office has prestige. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 281
NOT: Conceptual
4. Naturalized citizens are constitutionally barred from running for the office of a. United States senator. b. United States representative. c. President of the United States. d. governor. e. chief justice of the United States Supreme Court. ANS: C
REF: 281
NOT: Factual
5. Candidates for president face obstacles to winning for all of the following reasons except a. they must have great personal wealth in order to win. b. they must be able to garner enough support to win the early primaries. c. they must be able to organize, staff ,and fund a campaign organization. d. they must be must be able to find local volunteers in each state to win primary votes. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 281–285
NOT: Applied
6. Holders of political office in the United States today are usually a. representative of the general public. b. evenly divided between men and women. c. white and male.
d. younger than the candidates elected in the 1800s. e. Roman Catholics. ANS: C
REF: 282
NOT: Factual
7. With regard to candidates for office, all of the following are true except a. until recently, women were usually considered to be appropriate candidates only for lower-level office. b. the number is evenly divided between men and women. c. most candidates are white and male. d. the number of women and minorities running for office is increasing. e. candidates are likely to be professionals, especially lawyers. ANS: B
REF: 282 | 283
NOT: Applied
8. All of the following are reasons why many candidates for office are lawyers except a. lawyers have a more flexible work schedule. b. holding office is good publicity for their law practice. c. political connections can help a lawyer later in his/her career. d. lawyers have trouble finding work in most states. e. lawyers may have long-term career aspirations for positions that require political appointment such as judgeships or jobs in federal agencies. ANS: D
REF: 283
NOT: Applied
9. One of the reasons that campaigns no longer depend on political parties is a. recent changes in election laws have stripped parties of their power over elections. b. resentment that candidates feel about the control that parties demand regarding the kinds of campaigns the candidates will run. c. fewer people identify with them. d. the fact that so many candidates are choosing to run as independents, rejecting the labels of both Democrat and Republican. e. the control of interest groups over campaign regulations. ANS: C
REF: 284
NOT: Factual
10. A striking feature of today’s political campaigns is the a. large number of people who are willing to volunteer their time. b. positive theme that most candidates use exclusively through the election. c. lack of money contributed to candidates for major political office. d. importance of paid professionals rather than volunteers. e. refusal of so many candidates to take advantage of the media. ANS: D
REF: 284
NOT: Applied
11. All of following are true except a. today’s campaigns are centered on the candidate rather than on the party. b. the goal of a campaign is to convince voters to choose the party’s candidate. c. to run a successful campaign the candidate’s organization must be able to raise funds, produce political commercials, and get voters to the polls. d. campaigns are concerned with getting the support of their party members, but not too concerned with independent voters. e. campaigns no longer depend on parties because fewer people identify with political parties. ANS: D
REF: 284
NOT: Applied
12. If a candidate is a highly visible incumbent seeking reelection, a. the strategy will be to get the incumbent’s name before the voters as much as possible. b. a front porch campaign has been proven most effective. c. there may be little need for campaigning except to remind the voters of the officeholder’s good deeds. d. the strategy will be to keep as low a profile as possible. e. the incumbent must devote almost every moment to campaigning to avoid seeming overly confident and arrogant. ANS: C
REF: 284
NOT: Conceptual
13. Tracking polls are used a. on a daily basis to determine last-minute changes in the mood of the electorate. b. by the government to determine if a candidate is receiving illegal campaign contributions. c. to encourage voter turnout. d. primarily in countries that have a multiparty political structure. e. by the media throughout the election year. ANS: A
REF: 285
NOT: Conceptual
14. Which campaign financing reform was best known for restricting the political activities of civil servants? a. Corrupt Practices Act b. Federal Election Campaign Act c. Supreme Court decision in Buckley v. Valeo d. Hatch Act e. McCain-Feingold Act ANS: D
REF: 285
NOT: Factual
15. Facts show that a. there is a connection between money and elections. b. the new lower limits on campaign donations are having a positive effect on election outcomes. c. spending in the 2011–2012 election cycle was lower than in previous election cycles. d. All of the above are true. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 285
NOT: Factual
16. Political Action Committees a. are not covered by federal election laws. b. are committees created under federal or state law for the purpose of collecting political donations. c. coordinate all expenditures directly with the candidate. d. collect funds from the candidate and transfer them to the political party. e. are limited in how much they spend. ANS: B
REF: 285
NOT: Applied
17. The 1974 Federal Election Campaign Act a. created the Federal Election Commission. b. placed limits on the sums that individuals and committees can contribute to candidates. c. created an effective way to enforce campaign rules.
d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 286
NOT: Factual
18. Independent expenditures are a. funds spent by the party independent without permission of the candidate. b. personal funds spent by the candidate on campaign activities. c. funds spent by political action committees that are not coordinated directly with a candidate’s campaign. d. funds spent by the Federal Election Commission. e. funds spent by groups of independent voters. ANS: C
REF: 286
NOT: Factual
19. Advertising paid for by interest groups that support or oppose a candidate (or a candidate’s position on an issue) without mentioning voting or elections is called a. a PAC advertisement. b. a soft-money contribution. c. issue advocacy advertising. d. a hard money expenditure. e. payola profiteering and pilfering. ANS: C
REF: 286
NOT: Factual
20. The 2010 Supreme Court decision, Citizen’s United v. FEC a. increased the political power of corporations. b. was supported by Republicans on the basis of free speech. c. was opposed by Democrats because it gave corporations some political rights given to individual citizens. d. ruled that corporations, unions and nonprofits may spend freely to support or oppose candidates as long as those expenditures are not coordinated with the candidate campaigns. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 287
NOT: Conceptual
21. Independent expenditures a. must be made from the candidate’s personal funds. b. are unregulated funds spent by interest groups on advertising or other campaign activities. c. were banned by the Supreme Court decision, Citizens United v. FEC. d. were less important in the 2012 presidential election than in previous years. e. were widely supported by the McCain-Feingold Act. ANS: B
REF: 287
NOT: Factual
22. The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002 a. bans soft money contributions to national parties. b. bans campaign ads by special interest groups. c. bans independent expenditures. d. bans the practice of lobbying. e. eliminated the Federal Election Commission. ANS: A
REF: 287
NOT: Factual
23. The 2010 Supreme Court decision Citizens United v. FEC allows
a. corporations, unions, and individuals to donate unlimited funds to presidential campaigns. b. corporations, unions, and individuals to donate unlimited funds to entities that are “independent” of the candidates. c. corporations, unions, and individuals to donate unlimited funds to political parties. d. political parties to create special funds to donate to candidates from federal monies. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: B
REF: 287
NOT: Applied
24. Super PACs a. allow America’s millionaires and billionaires to donate unlimited funds to influence elections. b. are political advertising councils that design political campaigns. c. are limited to raising no more than ten million dollars per campaign cycle. d. raise money to run both positive and negative campaign ads. e. Options A and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 287 | 288
NOT: Applied
25. The organizations that came to be known as “527s” a. have become eclipsed in importance since the rise of super PACs. b. were set up by political parties for anonymous donors’ contributions. c. run ads that are coordinated with the candidate’s campaign ads. d. are more powerful than super PACs. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 288
NOT: Applied
26. Which statement about primaries is true? a. Candidates for the presidency go through two elections—the primaries and the general election. b. Most delegates to the national party conventions are chosen in primary elections. c. Most primaries are winner-take-all. d. In recent years, the Democrats have used a proportional system in the presidential primaries. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 291–293
NOT: Conceptual
27. Which of the following are true of superdelegates? a. A superdelegate is a party leader or elected official who is given the right to vote at the national convention. b. Their votes are ceremonial and do not count in the delegate total. c. They are members of the media who cover the national convention. d. They are elected at the state level. e. They participate as delegates to the state convention. ANS: A
REF: 292
NOT: Applied
28. The difference between a closed primary and an open primary is that in a closed primary a. all people can vote for either party’s candidates. b. party leaders meet to choose the candidates. c. candidates from both parties are on the same ballot. d. only pre-registered party members can vote. e. people can vote in the primary even if they are independents.
ANS: D
REF: 293
NOT: Factual
29. When only declared party members can vote in a primary election, it is called a. a closed primary. b. an open primary. c. a run-off primary. d. a blanket primary. e. a caucus. ANS: A
REF: 293
NOT: Conceptual
30. When voters can vote in either party primary without disclosing their party affiliation, it is called a. a closed primary. b. an open primary. c. a run-off primary. d. a blanket primary. e. a caucus. ANS: B
REF: 293
NOT: Conceptual
31. When the top two candidates in a primary compete in a second primary for the majority of votes, it is called a. a closed primary. b. an open primary. c. a run-off primary. d. a blanket primary. e. a caucus. ANS: C
REF: 293
NOT: Factual
32. With regard to presidential candidates, a. Iowa and New Hampshire have the first caucus and primary, respectively, in voting for presidential candidates. b. many states are moving their primaries to earlier dates in order to have more input into the selection of presidential candidates. c. moving state primaries into the first months of the year is known as front-loading. d. in 2008, twenty-four states had primaries on the same day. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 294
NOT: Factual
33. At the national convention, a. upon arrival most delegates are undecided as to whom they would like to see as the party’s candidate. b. the delegates from those states that had early primaries and caucuses are seated closest to the front of the convention center. c. the presidential candidate is chosen by the party delegates. d. elites within the political parties are entrusted with making the determination of an appropriate candidate based upon electability. e. it usually take three ballots for the party to choose the presidential candidate. ANS: C
REF: 295
34. In presidential elections, a. voters elect the president directly.
NOT: Factual
b. the number of electors equals each state’s number of senators (two) plus its number of representatives. c. electors have always voted for the candidate who won their state’s vote. d. Options A, B, and C are true. e. None of the above is true. ANS: B
REF: 296
NOT: Conceptual
35. The number of members each state will have in the electoral college a. cannot exceed fifty members. b. cannot be changed without a Constitutional amendment. c. changes every four years. d. is determined by adding the number of representatives and the number of senators a state has in Congress. e. is the same so as to ensure that each state plays an equal role in selecting the president of the United States. ANS: D
REF: 296
NOT: Factual
36. The manner in which members of the electoral college are selected within each state is currently governed by a. state laws. b. the Federal Electoral Selection Act. c. Article II of the United States Constitution. d. congressional oversight. e. federal district court judges. ANS: A
REF: 296
NOT: Factual
37. Which of the following statements about the electoral college is true? a. Although it is theoretically possible for a candidate to win the electoral vote while losing the popular vote, this has never happened in our history. b. The Framers ensured that it would be impossible for a candidate to win the electoral vote without also winning the popular vote. c. The Constitution requires that the members of the electoral college vote in a manner consistent with their states’ popular vote. d. The only way that our nation could cease to use the electoral college is through the process of constitutional amendment. e. The members of the electoral college are required by the Constitution to be at least thirty-five years old and of good moral character. ANS: D
REF: 296
NOT: Applied
38. In the presidential elections a. electors meet in the state’s capital in December to cast their votes for the president. b. a joint session of Congress meets in early January (after the presidential election) and the electoral votes are counted. c. one can win the majority of the popular vote and not become president. d. one can win the electoral college vote without winning the majority of the popular vote. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 296
NOT: Factual
39. A party-column ballot is a form of general election ballot a. that is used by only a few states today.
b. c. d. e.
that focuses attention on the office instead of the party. in which the candidates are arranged in one column under their respective party. that was held to be unconstitutional in 1948. in which all candidates for each elective office are grouped under the title of the office.
ANS: C
REF: 297
NOT: Conceptual
40. Voter fraud a. is regularly suspected but seldom proved. b. was more common in the 1800s when votes were openly purchased than today. c. is the argument frequently cited by supporters of voter I.D. laws. d. may be overstated by some. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 297
NOT: Factual
41. All of the following statements are true except a. Voter I.D. laws are likely to suppress the vote of low-income voters. b. The U.S. Supreme Court upheld the Indiana voter ID law. c. Voter I.D. laws are favored by Republicans. d. Voter I.D. laws are favored by Democrats. e. Voter I.D. laws are likely to suppress the vote of minority voters. ANS: D
REF: 297 | 298
NOT: Applied
42. In midterm elections a. voters choose all members of the U.S. House of Representatives. b. national elections are held in which candidates for president are not on the ballot. c. voters choose one-third of the members of the U.S. Senate. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 299
NOT: Factual
43. All of the following statements about low voter turnout are true except a. people do not vote because they feel the media is too focused on who is winning, rather than on policy. b. it is much more common in most other countries to have low voter turnout than in the United States. c. people feel their vote will not impact the election. d. it results in the election of candidates who have received the votes of a small part of the voting-age population. e. negative advertising turns people off to voting. ANS: B
REF: 299 | 300
NOT: Applied
44. Some observers believe the following about low voter turnout: a. Too few individuals are wielding too much political power. b. Low turnout is a sign of satisfaction with the status quo. c. Low turnout is a sign of political apathy in the voting public. d. Potential voters do not want to take the time to learn about the issues. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 299 | 300
NOT: Conceptual
45. Which of the following groups tends to be overrepresented in the electorate?
a. b. c. d. e.
Wealthier people People under the age of sixty-five Very young voters aged eighteen to twenty-four The poor and homeless Hispanics
ANS: A
REF: 300
NOT: Applied
46. Reported voter turnout _________ as education __________. a. increases, decreases b. randomly swings, increases c. stabilizes, increases d. decreases, decreases e. stabilizes, decreases ANS: D
REF: 300
NOT: Applied
47. Reported voter turnout _________ as age __________. a. increases, increases b. increases, decreases c. stabilizes, increases d. stabilizes, decreases e. decreases, increases ANS: A
REF: 300
NOT: Applied
48. The right to vote a. has been expanded since the writing of the Constitution. b. has not been extended to those without property. c. has been given to aliens as long as they are registered to vote. d. can never be taken away. e. is taken away if one doesn’t vote in five elections. ANS: A
REF: 301
NOT: Factual
49. Voter registration drives a. are a noncontroversial political activity. b. became political issue when Acorn, a community organizing group was accused of violating election laws. c. operate under very loose laws in Republican-controlled states. d. are organized by public-interest and political organizations in the week before an election. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 302
NOT: Applied
50. Today (2012), most Americans obtain their national and international news from a. television news. b. newspapers. c. news radio. d. the Internet. e. news magazines. ANS: A
REF: 303
NOT: Factual
51. The mass media perform all of the following functions except a. funding media watchdog groups.
b. c. d. e.
entertainment. making profits. socializing new generations. reporting the news.
ANS: A
REF: 303–305
NOT: Conceptual
52. Newspapers online a. sell enough advertising to cover their costs. b. cover all of their costs by requiring all viewers to buy a subscription. c. lose advertising revenue to services like Google and Yahoo. d. provide content for free to services like Google and Yahoo. e. All of the above are true. ANS: C
REF: 305
NOT: Applied
53. A campaign advisor who tries to convince journalists of the truth of a particular interpretation of events is called a a. news consultant. b. flip-flopper. c. spin doctor. d. fact checker. e. win engineer. ANS: C
REF: 308
NOT: Conceptual
54. Campaign blogs and podcasts a. have improved candidates’ ability to deliver their message to voters without media filter. b. have made it more difficult for candidates to control their campaigns. c. are not followed by mainstream news media. d. are sometimes created for the candidate by professional strategists. e. Options A and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 310
NOT: Applied
55. News blogs a. are a dangerous new invention. b. are only produced by paid journalists. c. can be produced inexpensively. d. provide the same high quality information as traditional newspapers. e. are the main source of news to a majority of Americans. ANS: C
REF: 310
NOT: Applied
56. The concerns about concentrated media ownership include a. concentration could lead to a decline in the democratic debate. b. media owners might steer the debate. c. cable news viewers will be lost to newspapers owned by the parent company. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 312
57. Government control of media content a. has evolved over time. b. is limited by the First Amendment.
NOT: Applied
c. includes a limited ability to control indecent programming. d. includes greater control over electronic media than print media. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 312 | 313
NOT: Conceptual
58. Studies of bias in the media have reached a. different conclusions: some found a liberal bias, while others found a conservative bias. b. a clear conclusion: there is a liberal bias in the media. c. a clear conclusion: there is a conservative bias in the media. d. a clear conclusion: there is no bias in the media. e. different conclusions: there is an ideological bias but there is no racial bias. ANS: A
REF: 313
NOT: Applied
59. To become a critical news viewer, you must a. develop a critical eye for stories given prominence at the top of newspaper Web sites. b. visit the sites of publications with specific contrasting points of view. c. investigate the source of information in blogs. d. analyze news programs for time spent on news versus happy talk. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 314
NOT: Applied
60. Becoming a critical news viewer requires that you a. compare and contrast news from one source. b. compare and contrast news from many different sources. c. analyze the news from your ideological vantage-point. d. analyze the news for foreign influences. e. compare and contrast the news only from American outlets. ANS: B
REF: 314
NOT: Applied
ESSAY 1. Describe the evolution of campaign regulation in the United States. Include details about efforts by Congress to reform the ways in which campaigns are financed. ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Explore the strategies devised by interest groups and parties to get around campaign finance reform legislation. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Explain how the electoral college works, the situations in which it has produced controversial results, and the criticisms leveled against it. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Explain the ways in which new media (Internet, blogs, podcasts) are used in campaigns.
ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Which people are least likely to vote? How does this affect government policies? ANS: Answers may vary. 6. How has the right to vote been expanded since the Constitution was written? ANS: Answers may vary. 7. What are the theories of media bias? Is there evidence to support the claims of media bias? ANS: Answers may vary. 8. What should be the qualifications for voting in the United States? How tight should election rules be to prevent voter fraud? What would you do to prevent voter fraud? ANS: Answers may vary. 9. How has the advent of online fundraising changed the process of raising campaign funds? Which candidates have used the technique with great success? ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Describe the steps you can take to become a critical news consumer. ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 10: The Congress MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If the race for congressional seats were more competitive a. candidates would likely become more extreme in their positions. b. the gerrymandering of district lines would be increased. c. extreme partisanship would be reduced because winning candidates would need to find a broader appeal to voters outside their party. d. higher turnover would increase the number of experienced members in the U.S. House of Representatives. e. incumbents would be able to spend less on campaign ads. ANS: C
REF: 322
NOT: Applied
2. If congressional races were more competitive a. there would be greater turnover in each election year. b. incumbents would need to spend more to retain their seats. c. new members might result in the loss to those with experience on important issues. d. those elected might be less partisan because in order to win, they would need a broad appeal to all types of voters. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 322
NOT: Applied
3. Polls show that a. Congress as a whole has very low approval ratings. b. most individual members of Congress receive high ratings from voters in their district. c. Congress as a whole has very high approval ratings. d. most individual members of Congress receive low ratings from voters in their district. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 323
NOT: Factual
4. The people that a legislator represents and spends considerable time and effort serving are called a. delegates. b. trustees. c. constituents. d. representatives. e. members. ANS: C
REF: 323
NOT: Conceptual
5. The founders of the American republic believed that most of the power that would be exercised by a national government should be in the hands of a. the chief executive. b. the legislature. c. the electoral college. d. the bureaucracy. e. the judiciary. ANS: B
REF: 323
NOT: Factual
6. All of the following are true of bicameralism except
a. it establishes two bodies in the legislature. b. the Framers wished to balance the interests and the numerical superiority of the common citizens with the property interests of the less numerous landowners, bankers, and merchants. c. it provided for House members to be directly elected by the people. d. it set up different ways to amend the Constitution. e. originally, senators were to be chosen by elected representatives in the state legislatures who would more likely be members of the elite. ANS: D
REF: 323
NOT: Applied
7. All of the following are true of Congress except a. it is a bicameral legislative body. b. it is held in high esteem by the public. c. members spend considerable time serving constituents. d. its functions include lawmaking and oversight. e. its individual members are valued by home district voters. ANS: B
REF: 323 | 324
NOT: Applied
8. The major function of Congress is a. enforcing laws. b. lawmaking. c. using the impeachment power. d. investigating other branches of government through oversight. e. judging whether laws are constitutional. ANS: B
REF: 324
NOT: Conceptual
9. The process of compromise by offering to trade support for a legislator’s bill if they support yours is called a. logrolling. b. earmarking. c. lawmaking. d. horse trading. e. pork trading. ANS: A
REF: 324
NOT: Conceptual
10. A representative who is performing the role of a trustee a. votes in the interest of his or her home constituents. b. votes in support of his or her political party agenda. c. votes on the basis of his or her own conscience in the broad interests of society. d. votes in accordance with opinion polls. e. votes based on vote trades. ANS: C
REF: 324
NOT: Applied
11. A representative who is performing the role of an instructed delegate is a. primarily representing the wishes of his or her constituents. b. supporting the president on all of his legislative programs. c. representing the broad interests of the entire society. d. supporting his or her political party. e. representing other members of Congress. ANS: A
REF: 324
NOT: Conceptual
12. One major problem with implementing the role of the instructed delegate is that a. the president’s program may not have the support of the public. b. the constituents may not actually have well-formed views on many issues. c. a majority of the constituents may be of a different political party than the representative. d. few members of Congress are knowledgeable about most legislation. e. members of Congress find it difficult to cooperate. ANS: B
REF: 324 | 325
NOT: Factual
13. A legislator from Florida who votes, against her better judgment, to support subsidies for orange growers would be acting a. as a trustee. b. as a logroller. c. as an instructed delegate. d. on what she believes is best for the entire society. e. None of the above is true. ANS: C
REF: 324 | 325
NOT: Applied
14. Casework is a. logrolling. b. constituent service. c. lawmaking. d. oversight. e. providing advice and consent. ANS: B
REF: 325
NOT: Factual
15. Oversight is the process by which Congress a. follows up on the laws it has enacted. b. reviews the actions of subcommittees. c. chooses its leadership. d. supervises the activity of the judicial branch. e. passes legislation. ANS: A
REF: 325
NOT: Conceptual
16. Which of the following is not a function of Congress? a. Spending time serving constituents b. Educating the public through hearings and debates c. Carrying out and executing the laws it has passed d. Representing constituents e. Resolving conflicts between different groups ANS: C
REF: 325 | 326
NOT: Applied
17. All of the following are enumerated or expressed powers except a. the power to impose a variety of taxes. b. the power to coin money. c. the power to declare war. d. the power to create a national bank. e. the power to establish posts offices. ANS: D
REF: 326
NOT: Applied
18. The necessary and proper clause a. has expanded the role of the national government relative to the states. b. has increased the powers of the state governments at the expense of Congress’ powers. c. was in the original Constitution, but was eliminated as a consequence of the Twenty-seventh Amendment. d. has served to limit the expansion of national authority. e. is located in the Constitution in the text of the Tenth Amendment. ANS: A
REF: 327
NOT: Conceptual
19. Unlike the U.S. Senate, which is more powerful than the U.S. House of Representatives, the upper legislative bodies are weaker than the lower house in the following country (countries): a. Great Britain b. France c. Canada d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 327
NOT: Factual
20. The committee in the House that proposes time limitations on debate for bills is called the a. Debate Committee. b. Rules Committee. c. House Ways and Means Committee. d. Debate and Censure Committee. e. Issues Committee. ANS: B
REF: 328
NOT: Factual
21. One major difference between the House and Senate is the total number of members. As a result, a. the House will spend much more time on a bill on the floor as opposed to the Senate. b. the Senate is able to decide on the proper action on a bill quicker than the House. c. a greater number of formal rules are needed to govern activity in the House. d. House members must sit on more committees than senators. e. a constitutional amendment has been proposed to increase the size of the House and to reduce the numbers in the Senate. ANS: C
REF: 328
NOT: Applied
22. A filibuster is a. an attempt to prevent the passage of a bill through the use of unlimited debate. b. an attempt to persuade others to vote for a particular bill in return for a favor at a later date. c. used in the House to force a standing committee to release a bill. d. a method used by the Speaker of the House to promote the majority party’s legislation. e. a technique that is unique to the House. ANS: A
REF: 328
NOT: Conceptual
23. All of the following are true of the Senate except a. the Senate has a tradition of unlimited debate as a blocking tactic. b. the Senate can end debate by invoking cloture. c. the Senate cannot pass budget bills without first allowing a filibuster. d. the Senate can circumvent a filibuster by using reconciliation. e. the Senate use of filibuster has expanded.
ANS: C
REF: 328 | 329
NOT: Factual
24. The concept of cloture refers to a. a method used to defeat legislation in Congress. b. a process that attempts to limit debate on a bill in the Senate. c. closed meetings held by both parties to elect their leadership or resolve other important issues. d. action taken by the House Rules Committee that must be approved by the Speaker. e. the resolution that adjourns Congress. ANS: B
REF: 329
NOT: Conceptual
25. All of the following are true of reconciliation except a. traditionally, the use of reconciliation is rare. b. budget bills can be handled under special rules that prevent filibusters. c. reconciliation can be used to circumvent the Constitution. d. reconciliation is sometimes used when the majority party in the U.S. Senate does not have sixty votes on a measure. e. under the rules, reconciliation is only to be used on budget matters. ANS: C
REF: 329 | 330
NOT: Applied
26. The members of Congress are a. representative of the voting public in terms of income. b. representative of the voting population in terms of race. c. not representative of the voting population in terms of gender. d. not representative of the voting population in terms of political viewpoint. e. All of the above are true. ANS: C
REF: 330
NOT: Applied
27. Members of Congress are granted generous franking privileges that a. permit them to mail letters to their constituents without charge. b. allow them to charge items to a special expense account. c. allow members unlimited phone calls to their district without charge. d. permit them to receive four round-trip airfares to their district. e. allow them to hold events such as barbeques in their districts at taxpayer expense. ANS: A
REF: 330
NOT: Applied
28. The use of the franking privilege has a. increased in recent years due to postage costs. b. decreased in recent years due to the growth of web pages, email, blogs, and social media. c. dropped to about $2 million per year. d. helped opponents oust incumbent candidates. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 330
NOT: Factual
29. All of the following are true of the people who work for Congress except a. they include office clerks and assistants as well as professionals who deal with the media, who draft legislation and work with constituency requests. b. they are larger in number for House members than for Senators. c. the number has increased dramatically since 1960. d. the professional staffs provide information for members of the House and Senate.
e. some of these people maintain local offices in the member’s home state or district. ANS: B
REF: 330 | 331
NOT: Factual
30. Congressional caucuses are formed around a. ideological points of view such as the Tea Party and the Progressive Caucus. b. special agricultural interest such as potatoes and corn growers. c. racial or ethnic interests. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 331 | 332
NOT: Factual
31. The “speech or debate” clause in Article I, Section 6, of the Constitution means that a member of Congress a. is normally immune from libel or slander charges if the speech is connected with official duties. b. cannot be arrested for misdemeanors while Congress is in session. c. must agree to public debates with announced opponents during the campaign. d. cannot engage in foreign diplomacy without the approval of the administration. e. cannot be served with parking tickets issued within the District of Columbia. ANS: A
REF: 332
NOT: Applied
32. In midterm congressional elections, a. voter turnout increases sharply. b. the president’s political party will usually gain seats in Congress. c. voter turnout falls sharply. d. the president’s political party will be unaffected unless the president campaigns for congressional candidates. e. incumbents are more likely to lose. ANS: C
REF: 333
NOT: Factual
33. Reapportionment is a. the allocation of seats in the House to each state after each census. b. the redrawing of district boundaries within each state to ensure equal district populations. c. a court order to hold new elections because of voting irregularities. d. altering a legislative formula that apportions spending among the states. e. normally a bipartisan exercise. ANS: A
REF: 333
NOT: Conceptual
34. Redistricting is a. the allocation of seats in the House to each state after each census. b. the redrawing of district boundaries within each state to ensure equal district populations. c. a court order to hold new elections because of voting irregularities. d. altering a legislative formula that apportions spending among the states. e. normally a bipartisan exercise. ANS: B
REF: 333
NOT: Conceptual
35. If congressional districts were not redistricted after the census a. it would be much more difficult for incumbents to be reelected. b. it would be possible for one district to have twice the number of people of another district. c. voters would be able to vote in any congressional district as long as they were registered.
d. members of Congress would not have to reside in the district they represent. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: B
REF: 333
NOT: Applied
36. All of the following statements are true about gerrymandering except a. the issue of gerrymandering has been resolved. b. the term originates with tactics used by a governor of Massachusetts named Gerry. c. the tactic of gerrymandering is used to create districts to the advantage of one political party or another. d. the tactic of gerrymandering has been used for racial discrimination. e. the practice can cause excessive manipulation of the shape of a district. ANS: A
REF: 335
NOT: Applied
37. In most states, Congressional district lines are drawn by a. a small group of party leaders in the state legislature. b. a non-partisan state panel of commissioners. c. a non-partisan panel elected in special elections. d. a group of retired judges elected by political party leaders. e. at a forum chaired by the state’s U.S. Senators. ANS: A
REF: 335
NOT: Factual
38. If a Congressional district is challenged based on evidence that the lines were drawn as a racial gerrymander, a. the U.S. Supreme Court will determine whether the evidence is sufficient to order the district lines to be redrawn. b. the U.S. House of Representatives will determine whether the evidence is sufficient to order the district lines to be redrawn. c. the U.S. Senate will determine whether the evidence is sufficient to order the district lines to be redrawn. d. a review committee created every two years by the President will determine whether the evidence is sufficient to order the district lines to be redrawn. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 335 | 336
NOT: Conceptual
39. Gerrymandering a. is typically used by congressional and state political party leaders to shape voting districts in such a way as to increase the chances of winning more seats. b. employs two main techniques; packing and cracking. c. is even more accurate due to the advances of computer technology. d. helps protect the seats of incumbents. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 335 | 336
NOT: Conceptual
40. Minority-majority districts a. are unconstitutional. b. were allowed after the Voting Rights Act of 1965. c. are districts in which a racial minority is the majority of the voting population. d. decrease the voting power of minority groups. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 336
NOT: Factual
41. A procedure by which a bill in the House of Representatives can be forced out of committee to the floor for a vote is called a a. standing vote. b. committee release. c. discharge petition. d. filibuster. e. cloture vote. ANS: C
REF: 337
NOT: Conceptual
42. The most important committees in Congress are _________ committees, permanent bodies that possess an expertise resulting from their jurisdiction over certain policy areas. a. standing b. select c. joint d. conference e. legislative ANS: A
REF: 337
NOT: Conceptual
43. A temporary legislative committee established for a limited time period and for a special purpose is a a. joint committee. b. conference committee. c. standing committee. d. select committee. e. rules committee. ANS: D
REF: 338
NOT: Conceptual
44. The seniority system provides that a. members are awarded additional committee assignments in line with their seniority. b. the committee member of the majority party with the longest continuous service normally becomes the committee chairperson. c. members become party whips in order of seniority. d. members of the House can be appointed to the Senate to fill vacancies. e. the Speaker of the House is the member of the majority party with the longest continuous service. ANS: B
REF: 339
NOT: Applied
45. The most powerful person in the House of Representatives is the a. president of the House. b. majority leader. c. president pro tempore. d. Speaker of the House. e. chief whip. ANS: D
REF: 339 | 340
NOT: Conceptual
46. All of the following statements regarding the Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives are true except a. the Speaker is elected by a vote in the U.S. House of Representatives every two years. b. the Speaker must be an elected member of the House. c. the Speaker presides over house meetings.
d. the Speaker is the most influential member of the U.S. House of Representatives. e. the Speaker schedules legislation for vote. ANS: B
REF: 339–342
NOT: Factual
47. The House majority leader is a. elected by the caucus of the majority party. b. selected by the president. c. chosen by seniority. d. chosen by the national party chairperson. e. chosen soon after their first election to Congress. ANS: A
REF: 340
NOT: Factual
48. The whips assist the party leaders by a. voting to support the party platform at the national convention. b. attempting to convince the general public that congresspersons should vote the party line. c. passing information to and from members of Congress in accordance with the desires of the leadership of the party. d. gathering research information. e. pressuring them to take positions popular among the party rank-and-file. ANS: C
REF: 341
NOT: Factual
49. The president of the Senate is a. an honorary position held by the most senior member of the majority party. b. the vice president of the United States. c. third in line to succeed the president. d. selected by party leaders in the Senate. e. the president of the United States. ANS: B
REF: 341
NOT: Applied
50. The real leadership power in the Senate rests in the hands of the a. president of the Senate. b. president pro tempore of the Senate. c. senator designate selected by the president. d. Senate majority leader. e. speaker of the Senate. ANS: D
REF: 341
NOT: Factual
51. The Speaker of the House and the Senate majority leader a. influence committee assignments and schedule legislation for debate. b. are elected to these constitutional jobs by the entire House and Senate. c. are the longest-serving members of the Senate and House. d. are symbolic positions. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 341
NOT: Conceptual
52. After a bill has been introduced and referred to a committee, a. the committee to which it has been referred is required to pass the bill on to the entire house. b. the committee is not allowed to make changes in the wording of the bill. c. the committee may hold hearings and discussions to explore the merits of the bill.
d. that committee may give some bills to a subcommittee, although the Constitution requires that subcommittee involvement in legislation not exceed twenty-five percent of the total congressional workload. e. the committee is required by the Constitution to consult with the president of the United States or the president’s officially designated legislative liaison. ANS: C
REF: 342 | 343
NOT: Applied
53. After being reported by a committee but before being sent to the House floor, bills are given to the _________, which defines the conditions under which the bills are to be considered by the House. a. select committee b. joint committee c. Rules Committee d. determination committee e. definitional committee ANS: C
REF: 343
NOT: Factual
54. The job of a conference committee is to a. originate appropriations bills. b. reconcile House and Senate versions of a bill. c. set the rules of debate for a bill. d. determine the committee path of a bill. e. override a presidential veto. ANS: B
REF: 343
NOT: Conceptual
55. The Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 requires a. each member of Congress to inform constituents of their votes on appropriations measures. b. the president to spend the funds that Congress has appropriated. c. a balanced budget by the 2030 fiscal year. d. the president to present an executive budget. e. budgets to receive the approval of the American people before they go into effect. ANS: B
REF: 344
NOT: Applied
56. The federal government operates on a fiscal year that runs from a. January to December. b. April to March. c. October to September. d. July to June. e. September to August. ANS: C
REF: 344
NOT: Factual
57. The federal budget deficit a. is caused by the federal government spending less than it takes in tax revenue. b. is caused by increases in tax rates by President George W. Bush. c. grew after the Great Recession due to increased spending and falling tax revenue. d. decreased after the end of the War in Iraq. e. decreased after President George W. Bush reduced taxes on investment income, inheritance, and earned income. ANS: C
REF: 345
NOT: Applied
58. One of the most powerful agencies in Washington, the __________ assists in the preparation of the federal budget and monitors federal agencies throughout the year. a. Council of Economic Advisers b. Office of Management and Budget c. Department of Budget and Commerce d. House Ways and Means Committee e. Senate Budget Committee ANS: B
REF: 346
NOT: Factual
59. The formal declaration by the appropriate congressional committee that a certain amount of funding may be made available to an agency is called a. authorization. b. appropriation. c. allocation. d. reconciliation. e. consolidation. ANS: A
REF: 346
NOT: Conceptual
60. A temporary law that Congress passes when an appropriations bill has not been decided by the beginning of the fiscal year is a(n) a. emergency resolution. b. budget extension. c. continuing resolution. d. preview budget. e. temporary budget. ANS: C
REF: 347
NOT: Factual
ESSAY 1. Compare and contrast the trustee and instructed-delegate theories of representation. ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Describe the enumerated or expressed power of Congress. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Compare the House of Representatives and the Senate by discussing four ways in which they are different. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Explain the functions and rules regarding filibuster, cloture, and reconciliation. ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Explain the difference between reapportionment and redistricting.
ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Describe the history of the term “gerrymandering” and how it has been used in practice. ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Explain the different types of committees and their functions. ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Explain the roles played by the members of the House and Senate leadership. ANS: Answers may vary. 9. Explain how a bill becomes a law. ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Explain the causes of the increase in the federal deficit during the presidencies of George W. Bush and Barack Obama. ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 11: The President MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following statements is true? a. The founders created the electoral college to allow voters to directly elect the U.S. president. b. In a parliamentary system, the voters directly elect a prime minister, premier, or chancellor as the chief executive. c. In a parliamentary system, the executive and the majority in the legislature must be of the same party or a coalition of parties. d. Much of the time, the majority in the U.S. Congress and the president have been from the same party. e. Most European nations have electoral college systems similar to the United States. ANS: C
REF: 354
NOT: Conceptual
2. Which of the following is true? a. A person that is born in another country but becomes a U.S. citizen may run for president. b. A person born in U.S. territories is not considered a natural born citizen. c. A person born in the United States but has lived abroad for fourteen years may not become president. d. A person who is born on U.S. soil or is born to American parents may become president. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 355
NOT: Applied
3. The Constitution states that the required minimum age for the presidency is a. twenty-five years. b. thirty years. c. thirty-five years. d. forty years. e. forty-five years. ANS: C
REF: 356
NOT: Factual
4. Who was the youngest person to be elected president of the United States? a. Jimmy Carter b. John F. Kennedy c. Harry Truman d. William Clinton e. Barack Obama ANS: B
REF: 356
NOT: Factual
5. Which of the following best describes the people who have been elected president? a. Older and from western states b. Primarily Catholics and Jews c. Military commanders from the South d. White, male Protestants e. California natives ANS: D
REF: 356
NOT: Applied
6. Which of the following is true? a. The religious faith of most all presidents have been of the Protestant tradition. b. Five presidents have been Roman Catholics. c. No presidents have been Roman Catholics. d. One president has been an avowed atheist. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 356
NOT: Factual
7. When no presidential candidate receives a majority of the electoral vote, the a. current president serves two more years and another general election is held. b. candidate who receives a plurality of the popular vote is elected. c. electors cast a second ballot to determine who will be elected. d. election is decided in the House of Representatives. e. Options B and D are true. ANS: D
REF: 356
NOT: Conceptual
8. A constitutional amendment to clarify the way votes are cast in the electoral college was necessary because a. there was no way to tell which votes were for president and which were for vice president. b. there was a tie in the electoral votes in the election of 1800. c. large states did not have fair representation in the electoral college. d. in three elections no candidate received a majority of votes for the president. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 356 | 357
NOT: Factual
9. Which of the following statements about presidential elections is true? a. One can become president without winning the popular vote. b. The Twelfth Amendment requires that the president and the vice president be chosen separately. c. Twenty-one presidents have served only one term in office. d. The electoral college has twice failed to give any candidate a majority and the election was decided in the House of Representatives. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 356 | 357 | 361
NOT: Factual
10. The president, in the capacity as head of state, is responsible for a. determining the countries for which the United States will have diplomatic relations. b. engaging in activities that are largely symbolic or ceremonial in nature. c. conducting the foreign policy of the country. d. leading the legislative process by submitting legislation. e. administering the laws. ANS: B
REF: 358
NOT: Conceptual
11. In most democratic governments, the head of state is a. the chief executive officer of the nation. b. an office without any significant duties. c. the prime minister. d. someone other than the chief executive. e. the chief justice or other top judicial official. ANS: D
REF: 358
NOT: Conceptual
12. Which of the following is an example of the president acting as head of state? a. Sending new legislation on healthcare to Congress for consideration b. Appointing a new person to be Secretary of State c. Hosting the Queen of Great Britain and Northern Ireland at a special dinner in her honor d. Sending troops and a hospital ship into an international disaster zone e. Receiving a new ambassador from Russia ANS: C
REF: 358
NOT: Applied
13. As chief executive, the president is constitutionally bound to a. enforce laws, treaties, and court orders. b. submit a balanced budget to Congress. c. inform Congress prior to any military action. d. oversee actions of state governments. e. honor pronouncements of previous presidents. ANS: A
REF: 358
NOT: Conceptual
14. The number of political appointments available to the president a. is constrained by the civil service system. b. puts the president in charge of deciding which individuals will occupy more than fifty thousand jobs in government. c. allows the president to appoint a majority of the civilian appointments in the bureaucracy. d. is confined mainly to the military. e. has been dramatically limited by the use of the constitutional amendment process. ANS: A
REF: 358 | 359
NOT: Factual
15. All of the following are true of the president as chief executive except a. the president uses the appointment power to fill cabinet and subcabinet positions. b. the president may remove from office those who are not doing a good job. c. the president may remove members of congressional committee that are against his/her policies. d. the president must “faithfully execute the laws.” e. the president has the federal bureaucracy to assist in carrying out various tasks. ANS: C
REF: 358–360
NOT: Applied
16. The granting of release from punishment for a crime is called a(n) a. reprieve. b. congressional sanction. c. pardon. d. executive privilege. e. impeachment. ANS: C
REF: 359
NOT: Conceptual
17. With regard to presidential pardons, all of the following statements are true except a. the Supreme Court has ruled that presidents can grant pardons or reprieves for all offenses. b. presidents may grant a pardon only if the person to be pardoned has been convicted of a crime. c. President Ford pardoned President Richard Nixon for his role in the Watergate affair. d. President Carter issued a blanket pardon for Vietnam War-era military draft resisters. e. the Constitution gives the president the power to grant reprieves and pardons.
ANS: B
REF: 359 | 360
NOT: Factual
18. As commander-in-chief, the president is a. only a symbolic leader of the military. b. the ultimate decision maker in military matters. c. allowed to make military decisions, but only with the approval of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. d. not responsible for military decisions. e. obligated to sit on the Board of Regents for the military, naval, and air force academies. ANS: B
REF: 360 | 361
NOT: Conceptual
19. Which action(s) is (are) part of the president’s role as commander in chief? a. President Clinton meeting with heads of other countries b. President Reagan signing a law allowing the United States to give aid to Egypt c. President Ford pardoning President Nixon for his involvement in Watergate d. President Bush ordering the invasion of Iraq and Afghanistan e. All are part of the president’s role as commander in chief. ANS: D
REF: 360 | 361
NOT: Applied
20. The requirement that the president must report to Congress within forty-eight hours of sending troops into hostilities and then obtain the approval of Congress within sixty days is established by a. the Supreme Court’s decision in United States v. Curtiss-Wright Export Corp. b. the War Powers Resolution. c. the National Security Act. d. the Nixon Protocol. e. Article II of the Constitution. ANS: B
REF: 361
NOT: Factual
21. As chief diplomat, the president a. is responsible for selecting judges to federal courts. b. is responsible for all actions within the executive branch. c. selects leaders of his or her party in Congress. d. negotiates treaties, recognizes foreign governments, and makes executive agreements. e. ratifies treaties. ANS: D
REF: 361–363
NOT: Conceptual
22. With regard to President Obama’s policies against terrorism, a. his policies on terrorism are as tough as those employed during the Bush Administration. b. he is concerned with how anti-terrorism policy is presented at home and abroad. c. he initiated a major campaign to assassinate Taliban and al Qaeda leaders in Pakistan. d. he continued the policy of indefinite detention without charges for prisoners held at Guantanamo Bay during the Bush Administration. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 362
NOT: Factual
23. Before a treaty can become legally binding, the treaty must be a. signed by the justices of the World Court. b. approved by three-fourths of the state governments. c. ratified by the Supreme Court. d. approved by a two-thirds vote in the Senate. e. approved by a majority vote in both chambers of Congress.
ANS: D
REF: 363
NOT: Factual
24. Executive agreements are a. not valid in foreign policy matters unless approved by the Senate. b. agreements between the president and a head of foreign government that do not have to be approved by the Senate. c. an unconstitutional expansion of the power of the president. d. binding upon future presidents. e. used to achieve trivial matters, since the most significant issues must be addressed by the Senate. ANS: B
REF: 363
NOT: Conceptual
25. All of the following are true except a. President Carter was successful in securing passage of a treaty to return the Panama Canal to Panama. b. President Clinton persuaded Congress to ratify the North America Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) in 1993. c. At the close of World War I, President Wilson withdrew the Treaty of Versailles from the Senate because of extensive revisions demanded by senators. d. President George W. Bush signed a unilateral foreign policy treaty after September 11, 2001. e. President George W. Bush signed a nuclear arms reduction treaty with Russia in 2002. ANS: D
REF: 363
NOT: Factual
26. The State of the Union message a. helps the President transmit his legislative agenda to Congress and the American people. b. is as much a message to the American people and the world as it is to Congress. c. is required by the Constitution and is usually delivered in January. d. has spawned many customs including the tradition that one cabinet member, a “designated survivor,” not attend the ceremony in case of national emergency. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 364
NOT: Factual
27. If the president uses a veto, he or she a. must submit legislation that would accomplish the same goal through a different means. b. cannot use another veto for ten working days. c. must have the approval of the Senate majority leader and the Speaker of the House. d. must return the bill to Congress with a veto message. e. cannot be overridden by Congress. ANS: D
REF: 364
NOT: Conceptual
28. Which of the following statements about the president’s veto power is most accurate? a. The president’s veto is final and gives him/her complete control over legislation. b. Because vetoes are usually overridden, the power has become unimportant. c. The threat of a veto gives the president significant influence over Congress and legislation. d. The veto has been used by Congress to stop the president from signing legislation. e. Because vetoes are rarely overridden, the power has become unimportant. ANS: C
REF: 364 | 365
29. When the president receives a bill,
NOT: Factual
a. b. c. d. e.
he/she can do nothing and in ten days the bill becomes a law without his/her signature. it automatically becomes a law. the bill goes back to Congress to make sure it is good enough to become a law. he/she can sign it and it will become law. Options A and D are true.
ANS: E
REF: 364 | 365
NOT: Factual
30. A veto is a. usually employed to punish members of the president’s party who disagree with him. b. more likely when the president’s party controls Congress. c. a clear-cut indication of the president’s dissatisfaction with legislation. d. likely to be overridden about half the time. e. required to be used at least once during each president’s term. ANS: C
REF: 364 | 365
NOT: Conceptual
31. The line-item veto a. allows the veto of specific spending provisions in legislation. b. was found to be an unconstitutional delegation of legislative powers to the executive branch by the U.S. Supreme Court. c. was used by President Bill Clinton from 1996 to 1998. d. Options A and B are true. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 365
NOT: Factual
32. A pocket veto a. can be used by a president only once during a term in office, although the veto can be used twice if the president serves two terms. b. can only be used when Congress adjourns for the session within ten days of the bill being submitted to the president. c. means that the legislation cannot be reintroduced in the next Congress. d. was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 1936. e. is a veto in which the president does not send a veto message back to Congress. ANS: B
REF: 365
NOT: Factual
33. Rewarding faithful party workers with government employment is called a. nepotism. b. pork barrel employment. c. executive perks. d. patronage. e. civil service. ANS: D
REF: 367
NOT: Factual
34. Which of the following about presidential fund-raising is true? a. The president of the United States is prohibited from engaging in fundraising activities by Article II of the Constitution. b. By the 1990s and early twenty-first century, presidents were no longer willing to lower themselves to “begging for money” and limited their fundraising. c. Most presidents rely on others to raise money for them because it is not part of the role of the president to raise money. d. President Obama has had spectacular success in raising funds.
e. Congress has enacted legislation prohibiting a sitting president from engaging in fundraising activities. ANS: D
REF: 367
NOT: Applied
35. Presidential popularity a. is irrelevant to bureaucrats. b. has stayed within a small range since Gallup began measuring it. c. is of little concern to second-term presidents. d. is required before a president may claim executive privilege. e. is an important resource for presidents to use to persuade Congress to pass legislation. ANS: E
REF: 368
NOT: Factual
36. Researchers have found that the a. state of the economy is important when incumbent presidents run for reelection. b. state of the economy is not as important as social issues when presidents run for reelection. c. unemployment rate is a good predictor of electoral outcomes. d. perception among voters that the economy is getting better or worse may have an impact on voter behavior. e. Options A and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 369
NOT: Conceptual
37. “Going public” a. means that presidents take their case to the public to persuade members of Congress to support their agenda. b. was rarely used by presidents in the 1800s. c. allows a president to explain complicated or controversial topics to voters directly. d. forces Congress to support presidential priorities. e. Options A, B and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 369 | 370
NOT: Applied
38. Inherent presidential powers a. depend on the statement in the Constitution that “the executive Power shall be vested in a President” and that the president should “take care that laws be faithfully executed.” b. are sometimes called expressed powers. c. are powers that come from statues or laws passed by Congress. d. include the power to veto legislation. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 370
NOT: Applied
39. All of the following are true of emergency powers except a. they have allowed presidents to exercise their powers during times of crisis, particularly in foreign affairs. b. they were used by President Truman when he authorized the seizure of steel plants during the Korean War. c. the Supreme Court ruled against President Truman’s use of the emergency powers when he seized the steel plants during the Korean War. d. the Supreme Court upheld Truman’s seizing of the steel plants in the Korean War. e. emergency powers were used by Lincoln during the Civil War. ANS: D
REF: 370 | 371
NOT: Applied
40. Executive orders a. issued by the President have the force of law. b. are used to enforce legislative statutes. c. represent the president’s legislative power. d. have been used to establish rules for executive administrative agencies. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 371
NOT: Conceptual
41. An executive order a. must be published in the Federal Register. b. is not valid unless both chambers of Congress approve it. c. must be approved by a majority of the cabinet. d. can only be issued when Congress is not in session. e. cannot be overturned by Congress. ANS: A
REF: 371
NOT: Factual
42. Executive privilege a. involves the ability of the president and executive branch officials to withhold certain information from Congress and the courts. b. means that members of the executive branch cannot be prosecuted for official acts. c. is the concept that has been applied to the president’s use of the pocket veto. d. allows the president discretion in making political appointments. e. was ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 1974. ANS: A
REF: 371
NOT: Applied
43. In United States v. Nixon, the Supreme Court ruled that a. the practice of making secret recordings in the White House violated citizens’ right to privacy. b. all White House communications must be made public. c. Richard Nixon could not use executive privilege to withhold secret Oval Office tapes. d. Executive agreements signed by Richard Nixon with White House staff could be used to withhold secret recordings made in his office. e. Evidence that was obtained by the FBI through secret recordings must be made public. ANS: C
REF: 371 | 372
NOT: Applied
44. According to the Constitution, impeachment a. cannot be used against an incumbent president. b. can only be applied to a president who has committed treason. c. can only be used against a president who has committed a violation of the criminal law. d. charges are voted on by the House of Representatives and, if approved, go to the Senate for a trial. e. has been used against four presidents. ANS: D
REF: 372
NOT: Factual
45. In the history of the United States, no president has ever a. been impeached and acquitted. b. died while in office. c. been impeached and convicted. d. resigned.
e. been impeached. ANS: C
REF: 372
NOT: Factual
46. A signing statement a. is a written declaration that a president may make when signing a bill into law. b. usually points to sections of a law that the president thinks may be unconstitutional. c. must accompany treaties submitted to the Senate by the president when seeking advice and consent. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 372
NOT: Factual
47. The following two presidents are the only ones in American history to have actually been impeached. a. Andrew Johnson and Bill Clinton b. Richard Nixon and Franklin Roosevelt c. Andrew Jackson and William McKinley d. Thomas Jefferson and Martin Van Buren e. Andrew Jackson and Jimmy Carter ANS: A
REF: 372
NOT: Factual
48. Informal advisors to the president are called a. FOP, or Friends of the President. b. the kitchen cabinet. c. the Executive Counsel. d. the cabinet. e. the brain trust. ANS: B
REF: 373
NOT: Conceptual
49. All of the following are true of the president’s cabinet except a. they are usually members of the president’s political party. b. they usually have some experience in the area of the cabinet position. c. they are heads of executive departments. d. it is thoroughly detailed in the Constitution as to what the cabinet should do. e. the cabinet is an advisory group selected by the president to aid in making decisions. ANS: D
REF: 373
NOT: Applied
50. The members of the cabinet a. are friends of the president that he invites to conferences on specific issues. b. are expressly identified in the Constitution. c. are all department secretaries who oversee administrative functions for the president. d. may include the vice president and other advisors if the president chooses to include them. e. are limited to one presidential term and then leave government service. ANS: D
REF: 373
NOT: Applied
51. The White House Office, the National Security Council, and the Office of Management and Budget are all part of a. the kitchen cabinet. b. the cabinet. c. the Executive Office of the President. d. the Council of Presidential Advisors.
e. the system of checks on executive power. ANS: C
REF: 374
NOT: Factual
52. The office that includes most of the key personal and political advisers to the president is the a. Council of Economic Advisers. b. cabinet. c. Executive Presidential Office. d. White House Office. e. Domestic Policy Council. ANS: D
REF: 375
NOT: Factual
53. The Office of Management and Budget a. is a nonpartisan department. b. clearly affects the greater scope of the federal budget. c. publishes the budgets prepared by Congress. d. helps the president prepare the annual budget. e. is currently in the Department of the Treasury. ANS: D
REF: 375 | 376
NOT: Applied
54. The National Security Council is a link between a. Congress and the president. b. leaders of foreign governments and the president. c. the Security and Exchange Commission and the president. d. key foreign and military advisors and the president. e. state governments and the president. ANS: D
REF: 376
NOT: Factual
55. Presidential candidates have asked individuals to join the ticket as vice presidential candidates for all of the following reasons except a. to balance the ticket by region or political philosophy. b. to attract groups of voters or appease party factions. c. to reinforce one of the presidential candidate’s strong points. d. to shore up the presidential candidate’s perceived weaknesses. e. to serve as a co-president. ANS: E
REF: 376
NOT: Applied
56. The Constitution gives the vice president a. the job of presiding over the Senate and voting in case of a tie. b. many responsibilities independent of presidential authority. c. the job of chief of staff to the president. d. the right to use the veto if he has the approval of the president. e. Options A and D are true. ANS: A
REF: 376
NOT: Factual
57. According to the Twenty-fifth Amendment, if a president’s ability to discharge his normal functions is in question and he is unable to communicate, a. the Supreme Court is empowered to select a physician to certify whether or not the president is able to perform the functions of his office. b. the Speaker of the House becomes acting president until the matter is resolved. c. a majority of the cabinet, including the vice president, can declare the president incapable.
d. the president must be permanently removed from office. e. the vice president has the exclusive power to determine the president’s capability. ANS: C
REF: 378
NOT: Factual
58. If the office of vice president becomes vacant, a. it remains unfilled until the next election, and the Speaker of the House becomes president if the president dies. b. the president nominates a replacement who must be approved by both chambers of Congress. c. the president names a replacement that is not subject to congressional approval. d. the president nominates a replacement who must be approved by the Senate. e. the secretary of state becomes vice president. ANS: B
REF: 378
NOT: Applied
59. The Twenty-fifth Amendment a. was first used when President Ford appointed Nelson Rockefeller as vice-president. b. has never been used. c. was a result of the long illness of President Carter. d. is only used when the Constitution explicitly says that it is applicable. e. was used by President Nixon when he appointed Ford as vice president. ANS: E
REF: 378
NOT: Factual
60. Voters may attempt to influence presidential policies by a. writing to the president. b. participating in national opinion polls. c. joining an interest group that lobbies the White House. d. calling the White House and leaving a message. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 379
NOT: Applied
ESSAY 1. Describe the requirements and the process for becoming president. Include an explanation of the changes to that process after the passage of the Twelfth Amendment in 1824. ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Describe the difference between the president’s role as chief diplomat and head of state. Provide examples to support your argument. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Discuss the role of the president as chief executive focusing on the appointment power. ANS: Answers may vary.
4. Describe the evolution of the president’s wartime powers, providing examples from various military activities through American history ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Describe the process by which the president has the power to say no to legislation. ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Analyze the president’s functions as party chief and superpolitician. ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Thoroughly describe four roles of the president. In your opinion, which two are the most important and why do you think this? ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Explain the concept of executive privilege and how it has been used by the presidents. ANS: Answers may vary. 9. Analyze the circumstances in which impeachment has been used throughout our history. ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Contrast the importance of the cabinet and the Executive Office of the President. ANS: Answers may vary. 11. Discuss the evolution of antiterrorism policies under President George W. Bush and President Barack Obama. ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 12: The Bureaucracy MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Advocates of privatization of government services believe that a. some government-owned agencies should be sold to investors. b. the Central Intelligence Agency would be more effective if it was sold to the highest bidder. c. government agencies like the Tennessee Valley Authority and the National Weather Service should start charging their customers more for services. d. private companies could provide cheaper mail service to remote rural customers. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 386
NOT: Applied
2. Some options for privatization of government agencies or services include a. issuing shares in the agency and selling them to the public. b. selling the agency to an existing company in a similar business. c. inviting foreign governments to purchase and run the agencies. d. asking the public employee labor unions to run the agencies. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 386
NOT: Applied
3. The concept of a bureaucracy a. isn’t unique to government. b. applies to large corporations and universities. c. applies to the U.S. military d. applies to any large organization that requires a division of labor. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 387
NOT: Applied
4. The Endangered Species Act is a. supported by citizens that believe in wildlife preservation. b. cited by some as an example of infringement on the rights of landowners. c. an example of the tension between the desire for small government and the desire for benefits large government can provide. d. an example of a law with bureaucratic implications. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 387
NOT: Factual
5. Bureaucracy is the name given to a. a large organization, structured hierarchically, that carries out specific functions. b. any organization that has major problems when attempting to accomplish its goals. c. a group of people who work to enforce policies in a way that prevents quick results. d. any large branch of a government that has power to interpret laws. e. government organizations, but not to corporate or university organizations. ANS: A
REF: 387
NOT: Conceptual
6. The government bureaucracy is a. managed by the President in his/her role as chief administrator.
b. c. d. e.
funded by acts of Congress. authorized by voter referendums. Options A and B are true. Options A, B, and C are true.
ANS: D
REF: 387
NOT: Conceptual
7. One of the important differences between public bureaucracies and private corporations is that government bureaucracies a. are not organized to make a profit, whereas private corporations are. b. have a single set of leaders, whereas private corporations do not. c. are much larger than private corporations. d. are not intended to serve the citizenry as private corporations are. e. present an opportunity for career advancement, whereas private corporations do not. ANS: A
REF: 387
NOT: Applied
8. The Weberian model of bureaucracy a. says that with a complex society the formation of bureaucracies is inevitable. b. says that most bureaucracies are hierarchical organizations. c. shows that power flows from the top downward. d. says that bureaucrats are specialists who attempt to resolve problems through logical reasoning and data analysis. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 387 | 388
NOT: Conceptual
9. According to Max Weber, a bureaucracy should be all of the following except a. an apolitical organization. b. made up of unspecialized staff to avoid delays in policy implementation. c. an organization where decisions are based on logic and analysis. d. an organization that makes promotions on the basis of merit, not politics. e. an organization that applies similar decisions to similar situations. ANS: B
REF: 388
NOT: Conceptual
10. The acquisitive model of bureaucracy holds that a. decision-making should be a rational process. b. advancement should be based on merit. c. leaders of bureaucracies seek expanded budgets and larger staffs. d. bureaucracies should apply similar decisions to similar situations. e. bureaucracies should hold hearings before taking action. ANS: C
REF: 388
NOT: Conceptual
11. The monopolistic model of bureaucracy states that a. bureaucracies have no competitors and are therefore inefficient. b. decision making should be a rational process. c. advancement should be based on merit. d. bureaucracies seek expanded budgets and increased size. e. bureaucracies should apply similar decisions to similar situations. ANS: A
REF: 388
NOT: Conceptual
12. Which of the following is true? a. From the viewpoint of the monopolistic model, the bureaucracy is penalized for chronic
inefficiency. b. From the viewpoint of the acquisitive model, bureaucrats are motivated by the trappings of power and wish to expand their budgets and staff sizes. c. From the viewpoint of the Weberian model, the power of the bureaucracy flows upward from the bottom to the top of the organization. d. From the viewpoint of the Weberian model, bureaucrats are generalists who attempt to resolve problems by consensus. e. From the viewpoint of the monopolistic model, more competition would make bureaucracies less efficient, but more productive with their resources. ANS: B
REF: 388
NOT: Applied
13. Most federal agencies a. have shunned social media. b. have established a social media presence. c. dispense zombie apocalypse advice. d. Options A and B are true. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: B
REF: 388
NOT: Factual
14. Conventional attempts to measure the size of the bureaucracy a. leave out the 2.9 million members of the Armed Forces. b. leave out the 1.4 million members of the Armed Forces. c. include the Armed Forces in the total number of 7.9 million federal employees. d. include the Armed Forces in the total number of 2.9 million federal employees. e. include the Armed Forces but leave out the U.S. Postal Workers because they work for a government corporation. ANS: B
REF: 389
NOT: Applied
15. During the Great Recession a. the Obama Administration increased social spending due to high rates of employment. b. the Obama Administration’s stimulus programs decreased the percentage of government spending in the economy. c. the number of state and local government workers was increased to deal with the crisis. d. the economy responded quickly and government spending was decreased. e. government spending was about 25 percent of the economic activity. ANS: A
REF: 389
NOT: Applied
16. The federal bureaucracy a. numbers around 200,000 people. b. numbers of employees has changed dramatically in the last few decades. c. employs about twenty-five percent of all workers. d. agencies also work at the state and local levels. e. consists of approximately 2.9 million employees. ANS: E
REF: 389
NOT: Factual
17. The number of federal government employees has a. increased significantly in the last several decades. b. remained relatively stable for the last several decades. c. decreased substantially in the last ten years. d. grown to exceed the number of local government employees.
e. grown to exceed the number of state government employees. ANS: B
REF: 389
NOT: Factual
18. The percentage of the total U.S. workforce that is employed by local, state, and federal governments is a. 10 percent. b. 25 percent. c. 16 percent. d. 50 percent. e. 6 percent. ANS: C
REF: 389
NOT: Factual
19. The two bodies that employ by far the largest number of federal civilian employees are a. the Executive Office of the President and the judiciary. b. the Department of Education and the National Science Foundation. c. the Department of Housing and Urban Development and the Food and Drug Administration. d. the Department of Energy and the Federal Reserve System. e. the U.S. Postal Service and the Department of Defense. ANS: E
REF: 389 | 390
NOT: Factual
20. Which of the following statements are true about federal spending? a. The Social Security Administration administers Social Security and Medicare benefits. b. The U.S. Postal Service employees comprise 50 percent of the federal workforce. c. The U.S. Postal Service has been self-supporting for decades. d. About 50 percent of all government spending goes to the elderly each year. e. Veteran’s services make up about five percent of annual federal spending. ANS: C
REF: 389 | 390
NOT: Applied
21. Controversies that have led some to question whether Army rules have added to military fatalities include a. the requirement that all Army medevac helicopters be accompanied by a gunship. b. an incident when the Army supplied inappropriate ammunition for M-16 rifles that caused them to jam. c. a failure to provide armor to military vehicles at the beginning of the Iraq War. d. failure of the Army to equip medevac helicopters with the proper medical equipment. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 391
NOT: Applied
22. Which part of the federal government employs most of the government’s staff? a. Judiciary b. Legislative branch c. Federal courts d. Executive branch e. Internal Revenue Service ANS: D
REF: 392
NOT: Factual
23. All of the following statement are true about cabinet departments except a. there are fifteen cabinet departments. b. new cabinet departments are created by the president. c. cabinet departments perform government functions like printing money and
training troops. d. the most recent department to be created was the Department of Homeland Security. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 392
NOT: Conceptual
24. The cabinet departments, in terms of organization, are a. line organizations. b. staffed by thousands of individuals, all of who are under the direct control of the president. c. responsible for the actions of independent agencies. d. part of the legislative branch. e. responsible for monitoring the president. ANS: A
REF: 392
NOT: Conceptual
25. Which of the following was the first cabinet department created? a. The first cabinet department to be created was the Department of Justice and the most recently created was Energy. b. The first cabinet department to be created was War and the most recently created was the Environmental Protection Agency. c. The first cabinet department to be created was State and the most recently created was Homeland Security. d. The first cabinet department to be created was State and the most recently created was The Federal Emergency Management Administration. e. The first cabinet department to be created was Defense and the most recently created was Veterans Affairs. ANS: C
REF: 392
NOT: Applied
26. The only cabinet department not headed by a secretary is a. Defense. b. State. c. Justice. d. Treasury. e. Interior. ANS: C
REF: 392
NOT: Factual
27. Which of the following is not one of the four major types of structures within the executive branch? a. Independent regulatory agencies b. Cabinet departments c. Privatized bureaucracies d. Government corporations e. Independent executive agencies ANS: C
REF: 392–400
NOT: Applied
28. With regard to cabinet departments and the president, a. presidents theoretically have considerable control over the cabinet departments. b. presidents are able to appoint or fire all of the top officials. c. cabinet departments do not always respond to the president’s wishes. d. below the top political levels, cabinet departments are staffed by permanent employees—many who resist change. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 393
NOT: Conceptual
29. Education, Commerce, and Energy are examples of a. cabinet departments. b. government corporations. c. independent regulatory agencies. d. independent executive agencies. e. corporations subject to regulation. ANS: A
REF: 393
NOT: Applied
30. Independent executive agencies are a. the most recent cabinet departments. b. responsible for regulating major aspects of the economy. c. federal agencies that are not part of cabinet departments, but report directly to the president. d. responsible directly to Congress. e. staffed entirely by political appointees. ANS: C
REF: 395
NOT: Conceptual
31. The Social Security Administration, Small Business Administration, and the Smithsonian Institution are examples of a. cabinet departments. b. independent executive agencies. c. independent regulatory agencies. d. government corporations. e. corporations subject to regulation. ANS: B
REF: 395
NOT: Applied
32. _________ were set up because Congress felt it was unable to handle the complexities and technicalities required to carry out specific laws in the public interest; these entities were given executive, legislative, and judicial functions by Congress. a. Cabinet departments b. Independent executive agencies c. Independent regulatory agencies d. Government corporations e. Courts of limited jurisdiction ANS: C
REF: 395 | 396
NOT: Conceptual
33. Independent regulatory agencies a. are administered independently of all three branches. b. make rules that have the force of law. c. provide enforcement of the rules they have passed. d. decide disputes over the rules they have made. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 396
NOT: Conceptual
34. When the industry that is being regulated gains control over the agency that is supposed to regulate it, the process is called a. cooption. b. capture. c. complacency.
d. collusion. e. pork. ANS: B
REF: 396
NOT: Conceptual
35. The Federal Trade Commission, the Federal Communications Commission, and the Nuclear Regulatory Commission are all examples of a. cabinet departments. b. independent regulatory agencies. c. government corporations d. independent executive agencies. e. corporations subject to regulation. ANS: B
REF: 397
NOT: Applied
36. Amtrak, the U.S. Postal Service, and the FDIC are examples of a. cabinet departments. b. independent executive agencies. c. independent regulatory agencies. d. government corporations e. private corporations. ANS: D
REF: 398
NOT: Applied
37. Which of the following statements is true about government corporations? a. Profits from government corporations are distributed as dividends. b. Government corporations must pay taxes on profits. c. Government corporations do not employee many people. d. You can invest in both a private corporation as well as a government corporation. e. Government corporations do not usually have any stockholders. ANS: E
REF: 398
NOT: Conceptual
38. The FDIC can take over a private bank by a. purchasing the bank directly from its owner. b. purchasing preferred stock in the bank to keep the bank afloat while a new owner is found. c. stacking government employees on the bank’s board of directors. d. taking the bank’s profits and giving them to depositors. e. closing the bank and opening a shopping mall in that location. ANS: B
REF: 399
NOT: Applied
39. Which of the following statements about terrorism is true? a. Fewer people are killed each year in automobile accidents than were killed in the terrorist attacks in 2001. b. Federal government agencies are the best positioned to see and respond to terrorist activities. c. Ordinary people have not been effective in preventing terrorist activities. d. In response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, billions have been spent to create a bureaucracy designed to protect Americans. e. Other than terrorism, there are few threats to the lives of Americans. ANS: D
REF: 399
NOT: Applied
40. In 2008, the Trouble Asset Relief Program (TARP) a. was used to create the government-sponsored enterprises, Freddie Mac and Fannie Mae.
b. c. d. e.
provided bailouts to homeowners who were upside down in their home loans. was the first time the government intervened in a business failure in American history. provided a bailout to banks, automobile companies, and the AIG insurance company. helped small businesses expand during the economic downturn.
ANS: D
REF: 399 | 400
NOT: Applied
41. Which of the following is true of political appointees? a. The president makes political appointments to most of the top jobs in the federal bureaucracy. b. Ambassadors to foreign countries are political appointees. c. Their powers are often exaggerated. d. Most have little background for their positions and may be mere figureheads e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 400 | 401
NOT: Factual
42. All of the following statements about political appointees are true except a. they have been called the “aristocracy” of the federal government. b. they are sometimes appointed as a reward for campaign contributions or other political favors. c. they will probably occupy their position for a brief time compared to career civil servants. d. career civil servants sometimes ignore their wishes. e. their major source of authority is the ease with which they can fire civil servants. ANS: E
REF: 401
NOT: Conceptual
43. The spoils system is sometimes called a. nepotism. b. political capital. c. patronage. d. the civil service. e. the Pendleton system. ANS: C
REF: 402
NOT: Factual
44. The merit system refers to a. the selection, retention, and promotion of government employees on the basis of examinations. b. a system of checks on Congress intended to prevent discrimination. c. a process of selecting policies based on their value. d. a system that was used for hiring bureaucrats under Andrew Jackson. e. using work experience in lieu of educational qualifications when applying for federal positions. ANS: A
REF: 402
NOT: Conceptual
45. The Pendleton Act a. extended federal civil service protections to the states. b. reorganized the federal government and exempted a substantial number of government employees from civil service protections. c. increased the number of government employees selected by the spoils system. d. established the principle of employment on the basis of open competitive examinations. e. established a merit system during the Civil War. ANS: D
REF: 402
NOT: Factual
46. All of the following statements about the civil service are true? a. Civil service positions are filled based on networking and political connections. b. Civil service jobs are filled based on political party affiliation. c. Reform of the civil service first began under President Jimmy Carter in 1978. d. Since 1993, civil service employees are allowed to participate in voter registration drives. e. Today, civil service employees may make donations to political campaigns. ANS: C
REF: 402 | 403
NOT: Applied
47. The Hatch Act, adopted by Congress in 1939, was created to a. encourage federal employees to run for state but not federal government. b. prohibit federal employees from switching political parties. c. prohibit federal employees from active involvement in political campaigns. d. increase federal employee participation in running voter registration drives. e. establish a patronage system during the Great Depression. ANS: C
REF: 403
NOT: Applied
48. The Government in the Sunshine Act required that a. all federal agencies run by committees conduct their business regularly in public session. b. all federal agencies terminate after five years unless Congress grants the agency an extension. c. all federal agencies hold at least half of their public meeting outside of Washington, D.C. d. at least forty percent of upper-level positions within an agency be filled by females or ethnic minorities. e. all federal agency meetings on personnel problems or court proceedings be held in public session. ANS: A
REF: 403
NOT: Conceptual
49. The Freedom of Information Act a. requires government agencies to notify the media if they are exceeding their budget for the fiscal year. b. requires federal agencies to disclose information on file about an individual to that individual upon his/her request. c. provides for a statute of limitations on the Government in the Sunshine Act. d. requires executive agencies to release information to congressional oversight committees. e. was repealed after 9/11. ANS: B
REF: 403
NOT: Factual
50. All of the following are true of the Freedom of Information Act except a. requests for information can come from news organizations as well as from individuals. b. reporters have gotten information that has uncovered waste, scandals, and incompetence. c. since the 9/11 terrorists attacks the government has been even more open about giving out information so that people will know of terrorist threats. d. information on Internet sites, in public libraries, and the reading rooms in various federal government departments have been removed since the 9/11 terrorists acts. e. the removal of information by state and local governments may be challenged in court once the threat of terrorism has decreased. ANS: C
REF: 403 | 404
NOT: Applied
51. All of the following statements are true about Sunset legislation except
a. all federal legislation must incorporate sunset provisions of ten years. b. legislation with sunset provisions must be reauthorized at the end of the designated period or the program created by the legislation will end. c. Sunset provisions were first recommended during the creation of President Roosevelt’s New Deal agencies. d. many state governments have adopted sunset provisions in legislation. e. Sunset provisions allow Congress and state legislatures to revisit legislation at a later date to determine if the legislation needs revision or should be abandoned. ANS: A
REF: 404 | 405
NOT: Conceptual
52. The concept of privatization refers to a. the replacement of government services with services provided by private firms. b. federal loan guarantees for small businesses. c. the hiring practices of the civil service. d. the replacement of federal government services with state or local government services. e. reducing the number of levels in the federal hierarchy. ANS: A
REF: 405
NOT: Conceptual
53. All of the following are true of national ID cards except a. the American public has never accepted the concept of a national ID card. b. many other countries in the world require citizens to obtain a national ID card. c. the lack of ID is a burden on the world’s poorest people. d. national ID cards are not privacy concerns because they cannot collect data. e. a national ID card might be a convenient way to avoid having to carry different types of identification such as a driver’s license and a Social Security card. ANS: D
REF: 406 | 407
NOT: Applied
54. The Whistleblower Protection Act a. allows whistleblowers to take time off from their jobs if they are concerned with actions of their supervisors. b. allows the government to prosecute whistleblowers whose accusations have been unfounded. c. penalizes federal bureaucrats who participate in political activities. d. prohibits reprisals against whistleblowers by their superiors. e. for the first time established a relatively swift method for firing civil servants. ANS: D
REF: 406–408
NOT: Factual
55. Which of the following is true? a. A release of classified information that may endanger American soldiers is called whistleblowing. b. A release of classified information that may endanger American soldiers is called a leak. c. A release of information that calls attention to inefficiency or illegal action is called whistleblowing. d. The Obama administration has charged fewer people with leaking government secrets than most previous presidencies. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 406 | 408
NOT: Applied
56. Enabling legislation a. provides appropriations to federal agencies.
b. c. d. e.
is proposed by departments wishing to increase their budgets. is enacted by the president. provides authorization for new federal agencies. All of the above are true.
ANS: D
REF: 408
NOT: Conceptual
57. Through negotiated rulemaking, federal agencies have begun encouraging businesses and public interest groups to become directly involved in a. taking responsibility for their own self-regulation. b. drafting the regulations that affect them. c. lobbying Congress to relax regulations. d. lobbying the president concerning bureaucratic reorganization. e. administering regulations. ANS: B
REF: 409 | 410
NOT: Applied
58. Iron triangles are made up of a. economic interests, citizen activists, and government interest groups. b. lobbyists, interest groups, and court cases used to promote government action to help the interest of these groups. c. interest groups, legislators, and members of the bureaucracy working to promote and protect their mutual interests. d. political parties, interest groups, and voters who want their candidates to win. e. citizens who have contacted members of Congress, presidential advisors, and members of the federal bureaucracy. ANS: C
REF: 410
NOT: Conceptual
59. The investigative power of Congress is often a. abused by both the House and Senate. b. delegated to the Government Accountability Office. c. blocked by the president. d. used to limit the power of state governments. e. declared unconstitutional by the courts. ANS: B
REF: 411
NOT: Factual
60. The federal government a. collects billions of pieces of information on tens of millions of Americans each year. b. through the Privacy Act of 1974, must give a person access to the information it has collected on that person. c. is required by the Freedom of Information Act to release, at your request, any information it has on you. d. cannot give out information on personal medical files. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 412
NOT: Factual
ESSAY 1. Describe the different models of bureaucracy. ANS: Answers may vary.
2. Describe three of the four following organizations of the executive branch: cabinet departments, independent executive agencies, independent regulatory agencies, or government corporations. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Describe the evolution of the civil service with particular emphasis on legislation that implemented reforms in government employment policies. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Describe the difference between Sunshine laws and Sunset provisions. ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Describe the difference between whistleblowers and leaks. Provide examples of each. ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Explain the concepts of iron triangles and issue networks. What could be done to change the iron triangles? ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Describe the manner(s) in which Congress attempts to control the bureaucracy. ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Describe the ways in which bureaucracy both controls and benefits your life. ANS: Answers may vary. 9. Explain both sides of the issue of the privatization of government. Provide examples of ways privatization might make government more efficient and some of the unintended consequences of privatization. ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Describe the pros and cons of India’s biometric ID system. ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 13: The Courts MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Alexis de Tocqueville, an observer of nineteenth-century American society, indicated that Americans rely on courts a. to resolve political questions. b. very rarely when compared to Europe. c. only if there is no other alternative. d. to resolve economic questions, but not political ones. e. to provide a form of entertainment. ANS: A
REF: 419
NOT: Factual
2. In the United States a. the judiciary is not part of the political arena. b. judges interpret the law becoming actors in the political arena. c. judges work outside of the political system to resolve disputes. d. judges are not policymakers when they interpret the law. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: B
REF: 419
NOT: Applied
3. Most American law is based on a. French philosophy regarding the rights of man. b. the Bible. c. the English common law tradition. d. Roman law. e. the writings of Thomas Jefferson. ANS: C
REF: 419
NOT: Conceptual
4. The body of judge-made law is known as a. administrative regulations. b. criminal law. c. judicial maxims. d. common law. e. statutory law. ANS: D
REF: 419
NOT: Conceptual
5. A previous court decision that influences and is the basis for deciding later, similar cases is called a. a precedent. b. criminal law. c. a judicial maxim. d. common law. e. statutory law. ANS: A
REF: 419
NOT: Conceptual
6. The doctrine of stare decisis a. means to reverse the decision of a lower court. b. says that the court does not have jurisdiction in a case. c. allows the court to refer a case to the next highest court.
d. is the policy of following precedent established by past decisions to decide cases. e. means strict interpretation. ANS: D
REF: 419
NOT: Conceptual
7. Most court cases are decided on precedent because a. it is important to set a uniform common set of rules for the country. b. judges would rather play it safe and reuse old decisions. c. it is easier for recording-keeping purposes. d. the established body of judge-made law covers all cases that might come up. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 419
NOT: Applied
8. Sources of American law include all of the following except a. the U.S. Constitution and state constitutions. b. case law. c. statutes passed by legislatures. d. administrative regulations. e. the charter of the United Nations. ANS: E
REF: 419 | 420
NOT: Factual
9. The United States Constitution a. is the supreme law of the land. b. is subordinate to State Constitutions in many matters. c. does not specify the details of state and federal powers, instead leaving that up to Congress. d. outlines the details of various state criminal codes. e. outlines the details of court case law. ANS: A
REF: 420
NOT: Applied
10. Case law a. plays a minor role in decisions made by the courts. b. includes judicial interpretations of common law principles and doctrines. c. includes interpretations of constitutional provisions, statues, and administrative agency. d. rules are determined by the president and Congress. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 420
NOT: Conceptual
11. The United States has a dual court system, meaning there are a. civil courts and criminal courts. b. misdemeanor and felony courts. c. state and federal courts. d. state and local courts. e. district courts and territorial courts. ANS: C
REF: 421
NOT: Factual
12. Which of the following are important requirements that must be met before a case can be brought to court? a. Issues must be political questions. b. Jurisdiction and standing to sue c. Precedents and stare decisis
d. Judicial maxims e. Requirements for legislation ANS: B
REF: 421
NOT: Conceptual
13. Jurisdiction refers to a. rules and principles announced in court decisions. b. the authority of a court to hear and decide a particular class of cases. c. the constitutionality of a law. d. statutory law. e. the common law. ANS: B
REF: 421
NOT: Conceptual
14. Sharia law applied to mediation and arbitration in a divorce within the Muslim community a. is supreme over state laws if both parties agree. b. is supreme over the Constitution if both parties agree. c. is reviewed by a court to determine if the decision is not grossly unfair or undermines public policy. d. can be applied if one party agrees and the other disagrees. e. All of the above are true. ANS: C
REF: 421
NOT: Applied
15. Diversity of citizenship a. is when a citizen holds dual citizenships and must choose one. b. exists when the parties to a lawsuit are from different states. c. exists when the parties to a lawsuit are from different countries. d. None of the above is true. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 422
NOT: Conceptual
16. A question that has to do with the U.S. Constitution, acts of Congress, or treaties is known as a __________ question. a. justiciable b. political c. federal d. national e. legal ANS: C
REF: 422
NOT: Factual
17. Standing to sue is a. determined by whether or not a court has jurisdiction over the matter. b. determined by whether or not the Supreme Court will hear a case. c. determined by whether or not a person or group has suffered harm as a result of the action that led to the dispute in question. d. the decorum that is expected in dealing with the Supreme Court during trial. e. also known as stare decisis. ANS: C
REF: 422
NOT: Conceptual
18. Which of the following is true? a. Most lawsuits are heard in state rather than federal courts. b. Most lawsuits are heard in federal rather than state courts.
c. All cases heard in state court may be appealed to federal courts. d. Cases heard in state court may be appealed to federal court if they case involves a federal question. e. Options A and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 422
NOT: Applied
19. To engage in legal proceedings or seek relief in a court of law is to a. negotiate. b. submit a brief of amicus curiae. c. litigate. d. exercise judicial review. e. exercise jurisdiction. ANS: C
REF: 422
NOT: Conceptual
20. Interest groups play an important role in our judicial system because a. they have the opportunity to veto judicial nominations. b. they help to fund the judicial review board. c. Madison stipulated their role in Federalist #10. d. they bring to trial cases of discrimination, civil liberties cases, and more than a third of cases involving business matters. e. they frequently are defendants in class-action suits. ANS: D
REF: 422
NOT: Conceptual
21. The term amicus curiae (friend of the court) brief refers to a. arguments by those interested in the outcome of a case but who are not parties to the case. b. a request that the Supreme Court order a lower court to send up the records of a case. c. a Supreme Court order barring further testimony during oral arguments. d. the belief that the Supreme Court should actively practice judicial review. e. None of the above is true. ANS: A
REF: 422
NOT: Conceptual
22. A lawsuit seeking damages for “all persons similarly situated” is called a. a class-action suit. b. an amicus curiae suit. c. a writ of certiorari. d. a civil suit. e. a procedural motion. ANS: A
REF: 422
NOT: Conceptual
23. The three tiers of the federal court system are a. appellate court, Supreme Court, state Supreme Court. b. the state municipal courts, district courts, Supreme Court. c. federal district courts, intermediate courts of appeal, Supreme Court. d. municipal courts, intermediate courts of appeal, Supreme Court. e. city courts, state courts, Supreme Court. ANS: C
REF: 423
NOT: Factual
24. U.S. district courts a. are courts of intermediate appellate courts. b. have final appellate jurisdiction to review cases.
c. are the state courts. d. are the trial courts of the federal system. e. are courts of limited jurisdiction. ANS: D
REF: 423
NOT: Factual
25. Each state a. has at least one federal district court. b. has exactly one federal district court. c. has three federal district courts. d. has several federal district courts and one federal appeals court. e. makes up part of the jurisdiction of a federal district court. ANS: A
REF: 423
NOT: Factual
26. In the appeals court, a. witnesses and testimony are presented to the jury. b. grand juries decide if there is enough evidence to have a trial. c. attorneys from both sides try to work out an agreement. d. judges review lower court case records to determine if there is evidence of an error. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 424
NOT: Applied
27. The U.S. Supreme Court can review a state supreme court decision a. if there are damages in excess of $50,000. b. only if a federal question is involved. c. if the solicitor general asks them to do so. d. in all cases. e. in cases in which the state is a party. ANS: B
REF: 425
NOT: Factual
28. According to the Constitution, the Supreme Court can exercise original jurisdiction a. in matters where the United States is a party. b. in cases where jurisdiction has been granted by statute. c. to intervene in a federal case. d. in cases affecting foreign diplomats and in cases in which the state is a party. e. over cases appealed from state supreme courts. ANS: D
REF: 425
NOT: Conceptual
29. How many justices are on the Supreme Court? a. Five b. Six c. Seven d. Eight e. Nine ANS: E
REF: 425
NOT: Factual
30. The FISA court can a. issue warrants without revealing the information used to justify the warrant. b. deprive American citizens of their citizenship. c. rule laws enacted by Congress to be unconstitutional. d. strike certain provisions from the Constitution.
e. direct the president to take certain actions in order to protect national security. ANS: A
REF: 425
NOT: Factual
31. The Anti-Terrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act that created an alien removal court, was passed a. in 1996 as a response to the bombing of a federal building in Oklahoma City. b. in 2001 as a response to the 911 attacks in New York, Washington D.C., and Pennsylvania. c. in 2010 as a solution to dealing with prisoners at the Guantanamo Bay detention center. d. in 2000 as a response to the attack of the naval ship, the USS Cole. e. in 1993 as a response to the first attack on the World Trade Center in New York. ANS: A
REF: 426
NOT: Factual
32. In 2006, the Supreme Court ruled that the Bush administration’s treatment of Guantánamo detainees violated the U.S. Constitution. In response to this, a. Congress passed legislation that said prisoners’ challenges to their detention would be reviewed by military commissions. b. new measures passed by Congress to restrict the federal courts’ jurisdiction over detainees were declared illegal. c. the Obama administration abolished the category of enemy combatant in 2009. d. President Obama claimed in May 2009 the right to detain certain accused terrorists held at Guantánamo indefinitely without trial, possibly in a prison on the mainland. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 426
NOT: Factual
33. All of the following are true of the Supreme Court except a. the Supreme Court’s term begins on the first Monday in October. b. less than one in four thousand of all cases are decided by the Supreme Court. c. decisions of the Supreme Court profoundly affect our lives. d. over half of all cases in the federal court system make it to the Supreme Court. e. the Supreme Court has decided cases involving freedom of speech, the right to bear arms, campaign finance, and abortion. ANS: D
REF: 427
NOT: Factual
34. The Supreme Court’s decision to take a case is based on the following factor a. if there is disagreement between how different lower courts decided the legal question. b. if a lower court’s ruling conflicts with a previous ruling by the Supreme Court. c. if the Court determines the issue has significance beyond the parties in the dispute. d. if the solicitor general, representing the president, requests that the Court hear the case. e. All of the above are factors that the Supreme Court considers. ANS: E
REF: 427
NOT: Applied
35. The most common way for the Supreme Court to take care of cases appealed to it is to a. decide on the case but not give an opinion. b. refuse to hear a case. c. grant a mistrial. d. hear the case. e. return it to the state court. ANS: B
REF: 427 | 428
NOT: Applied
36. A procedure used by the Supreme Court in determining which cases it will hear is
a. b. c. d. e.
the rule of four. the gang of four. the sign of four. the rule of six. the sign of five.
ANS: A
REF: 428
NOT: Conceptual
37. A writ of certiorari by the Supreme Court orders a. both parties in a case to reach agreement without further litigation. b. state courts to abide by the decisions of the Supreme Court. c. a lower court to send up the record of a case for review. d. Congress to rewrite unconstitutional legislation. e. that a prisoner be brought before the court and the reasons for the detention be provided. ANS: C
REF: 428
NOT: Conceptual
38. If a case is remanded, it a. is sent to the supreme court of the state in question. b. is sent back to the court that originally heard the case. c. can only be of a civil nature—criminal cases cannot be remanded. d. must be decided within the calendar year. e. is not subject to any further action by the courts. ANS: B
REF: 428
NOT: Conceptual
39. If a case is affirmed, it a. means all justices unanimously agree on an opinion. b. is sent back to the court that heard the case. c. means the decision is valid and must stand. d. will result in a new trial for the defendant. e. is accepted as a case that the Supreme Court will hear. ANS: C
REF: 428
NOT: Conceptual
40. The last step in the decision-making process of the Supreme Court is a. announcing its decision to the public and the reasons for it. b. assigning a justice to write an opinion. c. deciding if the Court will hear the case. d. hearing oral arguments in the case. e. asking the lower court to sent the records of the case for review. ANS: A
REF: 429
NOT: Factual
41. Federal Judges are a. appointed. b. elected for four-year terms. c. may be removed by the President for poor performance. d. are appointed to the Supreme Court but elected to district courts. e. Options C and D are true. ANS: A
REF: 429
NOT: Applied
42. A dissenting opinion can be important because a. it represents the position of the chief justice of the Supreme Court. b. it is the statement of the defendant’s attorney to the Court.
c. in criminal law it must be carried out by local police. d. it often forms the basis of the arguments used later to reverse the previous decision and establish a new precedent. e. it means that the case cannot be used as a precedent. ANS: D
REF: 429
NOT: Applied
43. The number of cases that the Supreme Court reviews each term has a. increased dramatically since the early 1950s. b. hovered around 150 cases since the mid-1980s. c. remained constant since the Civil War. d. dropped significantly since the 1980s. e. increased fifty percent after George W. Bush became president. ANS: D
REF: 429
NOT: Factual
44. Federal judges a. serve lifetime terms. b. are appointed by the president. c. may be impeached and removed from office. d. are approved by the Senate. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 429
NOT: Factual
45. The concept of senatorial courtesy refers to the a. Senate approving judges only if they belong to the same party that is in control of the Senate. b. practice of allowing senators to have the exclusive right to nominate candidates for the federal district courts in their state. c. practice of allowing members of the House to participate in the nomination process. d. practice of allowing senators to veto candidates for federal district courts in their state. e. Senate’s deferring to the president and routinely approving his or her nominees. ANS: D
REF: 430 | 431
NOT: Conceptual
46. Appointments to the federal courts of appeal a. are far less numerous than federal district court appointments. b. are usually selected because of their important position in state government. c. are less important than federal district court appointments. d. are often “stepping-stones” to the Supreme Court. e. Options A and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 431
NOT: Applied
47. All of the following are true about presidential appointments to the Supreme Court except a. presidents usually appoint people who belong to the president’s political party. b. presidents see their appointments as a way to institutionalize their political views long after they have left office. c. Republican presidents have usually appointed liberal justices. d. President Bush appointed two justices to the Court. e. President Clinton appointed many judges to the district and appeals courts. ANS: C
REF: 431 | 432
NOT: Applied
48. The Bork Supreme Court confirmation battle
a. occurred when the Senate agreed to confirm a justice that was not qualified. b. involved a speech by Senator Edward Kennedy suggesting that the nominee had a poor record. c. was a brief episode that had little impact on succeeding confirmation hearings. d. ended in a rejection of the nominee due to his controversial believes on issues of civil rights and privacy. e. Options B and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 432
NOT: Applied
49. Appointments to the Supreme Court by President Obama a. were Sonia Sotomayor and Elena Kagan. b. changed the philosophical composition of the Court. c. included the first Hispanic on the Court. d. strengthened the conservative movement of the Court. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 432
NOT: Factual
50. The power of the courts to determine the constitutionality of a law or action is called a. judicial review. b. appellate review of fact. c. precedent. d. the writ of judicial appeal. e. habeas corpus. ANS: A
REF: 433
NOT: Conceptual
51. President Obama has a. had ease in getting his judicial candidates approved by the Senate. b. had difficulty in getting his judicial candidates approved by the Senate. c. had ease in getting his judicial candidates approved by the House of Representatives. d. had difficulty in getting his judicial candidates approved by the House of Representatives. e. had difficulty finding qualified candidates for judicial appointments. ANS: B
REF: 433
NOT: Factual
52. The result of partisanship in judicial nominations is a. that federal judgeships are filled quickly as presidents rush to fill open seat during their term. b. that nominees are chosen strictly based on qualifications, not political affiliation. c. that nomination hearings in the U.S. Senate can sometimes seem like dramas where the process plays out on cable news channels. d. that fifty percent of all federal judgeships are vacant. e. that all nominations are effectively blocked by the political parties. ANS: C
REF: 434
NOT: Applied
53. A doctrine holding that the courts defer to the decisions of elected officials is called a. judicial activism. b. judicial restraint. c. strict construction. d. broad construction. e. conservative activism. ANS: B
REF: 435
NOT: Applied
54. Judicial activism means a. the Supreme Court should accept as many cases for decision as it can. b. the Supreme Court should actively check the other branches of government when they exceed their authority. c. the Supreme Court should have the power of judicial review. d. the courts should defer to decisions made by the elected representatives of the people whenever possible. e. the members of the Supreme Court should deliver as many public speeches as possible, in an effort to engage and inform the American people. ANS: B
REF: 435
NOT: Conceptual
55. When William Rehnquist was appointed chief justice in 1986, a. Supreme Court decisions had always been in line with conservative ideology. b. justices became even more fixed in their ideological orientations. c. the commerce clause was struck down by liberal justices. d. the Supreme Court began a shift toward greater conservatism. e. the Supreme Court lost its swing votes. ANS: D
REF: 436
NOT: Applied
56. Indications are that the Roberts Court will a. continue the Burger Court’s shift to the left. b. moderate conservative ideology on the environment and capital punishment. c. sustain the Reagan Court’s moderation on defendants’ rights. d. flip-flop ideologically. e. continue the Rehnquist Court’s shift to the right. ANS: E
REF: 436
NOT: Applied
57. The Supreme Court cases, Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission and McDonald v. Chicago, were victories for the a. political left. b. political right. c. gun control advocates. d. government reform advocates. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: B
REF: 437
NOT: Applied
58. If Congress disagrees with a decision of the Supreme Court concerning the interpretation of the U.S. Constitution, it can do all of the following except a. not fund the decision. b. require that the president veto the decision. c. pass a new law that negates the Court’s ruling. d. propose an amendment to the Constitution that would negate the Court’s ruling. e. amend an existing law that negates the Court’s ruling. ANS: B
REF: 438 | 439
NOT: Factual
59. Public opinion can serve as a check on the judiciary because a. people have the ability to vote federal judges out of office if they do not approve of the rulings of the courts. b. the public may pressure elected officials not to enforce an unpopular ruling.
c. the Supreme Court typically polls the public as a basis for their decisions. d. the president will veto a Supreme Court decision if it is politically unpopular. e. Congress will override a decision of the Supreme Court with a majority vote in both houses. ANS: B
REF: 439
NOT: Factual
60. The Ledbetter Fair Pay Act of 2009 a. specifies penalties to employers for discriminating based on gender. b. resets the statue of limitations for filing an equal-pay lawsuit each time an employer issues a discriminatory paycheck. c. reaffirms the decision in the Supreme Court case, Ledbetter v. Goodyear. d. defines fair pay standards for different job classifications. e. was passed in response to employers dismissing female employees when becoming pregnant. ANS: B
REF: 439
NOT: Applied
ESSAY 1. Describe the sources of American law. ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Describe the changes to the federal court system in an effort to fight terrorism ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Explain the process by which the United States Supreme Court decides to hear cases. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Explain how the United States Supreme Court decides cases and explains its decisions. ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Describe the process of appointing judges to the federal courts. Explain how the process is fraught with partisan bickering. ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Is it legitimate that the United States Supreme Court possesses the power of judicial review? Why, or why not? ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Compare and contrast the theories of judicial activism and judicial restraint and theories of strict construction and broad construction.
ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Should federal judges serve for lifetime or be term-limited? Thoroughly explain your answer. ANS: Answers may vary. 9. How do recent Supreme Court decisions show how the Court has moved rightward? ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Describe some of the judicial traditions and doctrines that act as a restraint of the courts. ANS: Answers may vary. 11. Is Sharia Law really an issue in the American Court System? Describe states’ responses to this issue and provide an example were sharia law is in use. ANS: Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 14: Domestic and Economic Policy MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The Gold Standard a. was a law that set the value of a currency in terms of a specified quantity of gold. b. was used by much of the world until the 1930s. c. was finally eliminated in the United States by Richard Nixon in 1971. d. is popular with some conservatives today. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 448
NOT: Conceptual
2. Which of the following are true? a. Those arguing for the gold standard tend to be supporters of conservative ideology. b. A gold standard may cause deflation. c. Those in favor of the gold standard argue that the system can prevent inflation. d. A gold standard may cause inflation due to the increase in the price of gold. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 448
NOT: Applied
3. Domestic policy a. is limited to policies that affect major economic variables. b. can be defined as all policies that affect housing. c. can be defined as all the laws, government planning, and government actions that concern internal issues of national importance. d. is limited to matters relating to law enforcement. e. relates to the activities of the government in its relations with foreign countries. ANS: C
REF: 449
NOT: Conceptual
4. All of the following are true of domestic policy except a. domestic policy ranges from speed limits on interstate highways, to how best to protect our environment, to what should be done about unemployment. b. domestic policy is formulated and implemented only by the federal government. c. regulatory policy is a type of domestic policy which seeks to define what is and is not legal. d. redistributive policy is a type of domestic policy which transfers income from certain individuals or groups to others. e. Social Security is an example of domestic policy. ANS: B
REF: 449
NOT: Applied
5. Ways in which issues come to be identified as problems include a. a crisis occurring. b. letters from the constituents to members of Congress. c. information provided by interest groups. d. reading the local newspaper. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 449
NOT: Applied
6. An example of policymaking is the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, which
a. b. c. d. e.
was a government take over of the healthcare industry. seeks to provide health insurance to all Americans. had its share of opponents. Options B and C are true. All of the above are true.
ANS: D
REF: 449
NOT: Factual
7. Agenda building a. is making Congress aware that a problem requires congressional action. b. may occur as a result of a crisis. c. may occur as a result of a technological change. d. may occur through a mass media campaign. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 449
NOT: Conceptual
8. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act a. requires services to be paid for by reducing the services to the rich to benefit the poor. b. allows for health coverage for unauthorized immigrants. c. is a massive overhaul of the nation’s health-care funding system. d. was passed after two months of debate in Congress. e. All of the above are true. ANS: C
REF: 449
NOT: Factual
9. Which of the following is a step in the policymaking process? a. Policy implementation b. Policy adoption c. Policy formation d. Agenda building e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 449–454
NOT: Conceptual
10. Health-care spending a. by the government in 2010 constituted about 50 percent of health-care spending in the United States. b. by private insurers in 2010 made up about 30 percent of health-care spending in the United States. c. through Medicare and Medicaid cover about one-third of all Americans. d. is higher in the United States as a percentage of the gross domestic product than many European countries. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 450
NOT: Factual
11. Medicare a. is the government program set up for the poor. b. costs the government more than Social Security. c. was created by President George W. Bush in 2002. d. is a federal health insurance program that covers Americans over the age of sixty-five. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 450
NOT: Factual
12. All of the following statements about the Medicare system are true except a. it pays for hospital and physician bills for almost all U.S. residents over sixty-five years of age. b. it helps pay for prescription drugs for those over sixty-five. c. because of caps on reimbursements, some seniors refuse to participate in the program. d. it is funded out of general government revenues. e. it is funded by a special tax on wages and salaries. ANS: D
REF: 450
NOT: Applied
13. Which of the following is true? a. In fiscal year 2013, the total cost of Medicaid and the Children’s Health Insurance Program was about $325 billion. [[ED Note: Changed to match textbook.]] b. The number of enrollees in the Medicaid program has dropped from 34 million in 1999 to 24 million today. c. The federal government funds the entire cost of the Medicaid Program. d. The new healthcare programs passed in 2010 will cover more people, drastically shrinking the number of enrollees on Medicaid. e. Both options B and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 450
NOT: Applied
14. Policy formulation is a. the process of making the government aware that an issue requires action. b. the discussion of proposals between governmental officials and the public. c. the process of deciding on a specific proposal. d. concerned with the implementation of policy by bureaucrats, the courts, police, and individual citizens. e. the process of examining how a policy has worked in practice. ANS: B
REF: 451
NOT: Conceptual
15. All of the following are concerns about health care in the United States except a. in 2010, more than 49 million Americans did not have health insurance. b. in 2011 employer-provided health insurance cost $5,429 for single coverage and $15,073 for family coverage. c. younger workers find it harder to get coverage because they are employed in entry-level jobs without benefits. d. the cost of healthcare has been growing at a rapid pace, especially for those over age 65. e. new medical technology and services have made health care less expensive. ANS: E
REF: 451
NOT: Factual
16. Universal health insurance a. is a new concept that developed within the last 20 years. b. began in the United States. c. is, by definition, insurance provided by the central government itself. d. provides help from the government for businesses. e. had been adopted by all advanced industrial countries by the twenty-first century except the United States. ANS: E
REF: 451
NOT: Factual
17. The part of the policymaking process that involves choosing a specific policy from among the proposals that have been discussed is known as
a. b. c. d. e.
policy formulation. policy implementation. policy adoption. policy choices. policy determination.
ANS: C
REF: 452
NOT: Conceptual
18. In regard to adopting a health-care reform policy, President Obama a. was against any form of major health-care reform. b. delegated the drafting of a health-care plan to Congress. c. took the lead in developing the health-care plan as Presidents Bush and Clinton had. d. eliminated a tug-of-war between the executive branch and Congress. e. Both options B and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 452
NOT: Factual
19. The individual mandate a. is a way to pool resources from the healthy and the sick to cover all of the insured. b. was supported by Republicans because it required each person to take personal responsibility for their coverage. c. was supported by Congressional Democrats as a way to force parents to cover their children. d. required reduction in taxes for those in the middle income range to allow families to pay for mandated coverage. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 452
NOT: Applied
20. The health-care reform legislation that was passed in 2010, a. had most of the major provisions in place by the end of 2010. b. bars insurance companies from dropping people when they get sick. c. was passed by a majority of Republicans and Democrats. d. lets young adults stay on their parents’ health plans until age twenty-six. e. Both options B and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 453
NOT: Factual
21. Policy implementation is a. concerned with how policies are carried out by bureaucrats, the courts, police, and individual citizens. b. the process of making the media aware of the issue. c. the discussion of proposals between governmental officials and the public. d. concerned with a specific strategy for the proposal. e. when studies are conducted to see what happens after a policy is implemented. ANS: A
REF: 453
NOT: Conceptual
22. Which is true of policy evaluation? a. If the policy is not working at the time of evaluation, then the policy is always repealed. b. It is the fourth step in policymaking and comes directly after policy adoption. c. When a policy has been in place for a while, evaluations are made inside and outside the government to determine if the program is working. d. Obamacare has had extensive policy evaluation to date. e. There is a time limit to the period of policy evaluation.
ANS: C
REF: 454
NOT: Applied
23. Regarding immigration, which of the following is true? a. Most immigrants come from Latin America or Asia. b. Hispanics have overtaken African Americans as the largest minority group in the United States. c. By 2050, collectively, minority groups will become the majority in the United States. d. If minority groups grow and form coalitions, their political power will also grow. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 454
NOT: Factual
24. Immigration a. at current rates will create a United States where the “white majority” no longer dominates American politics. b. is regarded by some as a plus for the United States because it offsets the low birthrate and aging population. c. helps expand the workforce and the taxes paid help to support government programs that benefit older Americans. d. will result in jobs that pay lower wages for Americans with few skills, some argue. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 454 | 455
NOT: Factual
25. Which of the following statements regarding illegal immigrants is true? a. The majority of illegal immigrants coming to the United States are from Cuba. b. Most illegal immigrants, once in the United States, stay for the rest of their lives. c. Many illegal immigrants send money back to relatives in their homeland. d. Few immigrants throughout American history have returned to their homelands. e. The laws against hiring illegal immigrants have always been strictly enforced. ANS: C
REF: 455
NOT: Applied
26. Regarding immigration reform a. most Republicans are opposed to immigration reform. b. some pro-business conservatives do favor reform. c. most Democrats oppose reform. d. Options A and B are true. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: A
REF: 456
NOT: Factual
27. In 2012, the Supreme Court ruled that a. Arizona could not make it a felony for illegal immigrants to work. b. Arizona could not arrest people without warrants just because they might be deportable under federal law. c. Arizona could not investigate the immigration status of people they stop for routine traffic violations. d. Both options A and B are true. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: D
REF: 456 | 457
NOT: Applied
28. Explanations for the decline in crime rates since 1995 include all of the following except a. a booming economy.
b. c. d. e.
increased federal expenditures to combat crime. an increase in the prison population. the legalization of abortion. a lack of concern about crime among American citizens.
ANS: E
REF: 457
NOT: Applied
29. Which of the following is true? a. The United States experienced a great crime wave during the 1920s and early 1930s due to prohibition. b. Crime rates grew steadily in the twentieth century. c. According to historians, industrialization and urbanization contributed to the rise of crime. d. The Western part of the United States had less crime in the nineteenth century due to the fact that all citizens carried guns. e. During the Civil War, there was little crime as everyone focused on the war effort. ANS: A
REF: 457
NOT: Applied
30. Theft rates in the United States a. have declined substantially during the last two decades. b. are at their highest levels ever. c. have declined moderately since 1995 after rising rapidly for two decades. d. have remained constant for thirty years. e. have risen moderately since 1995 after declining rapidly for two decades. ANS: A
REF: 458
NOT: Factual
31. Which of the following statements regarding incarceration in the United States is true? a. Many Americans believe that the best solution to the nation’s crime problem is to impose stiff prison sentences on offenders. b. The number of incarcerated persons has grown rapidly in recent years. c. By 2013, U.S. prisons and jails held 2.4 million people. d. Males are ten times more likely to be incarcerated than women. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 458
NOT: Factual
32. The number of incarcerated persons in the United States a. includes an equal number of African-American males and females. b. has increased requiring more prisons to be built. c. has declined in recent years. d. is greater in federal prisons than state prisons. e. is growing mostly due to arrests to prevent terrorism. ANS: B
REF: 458
NOT: Applied
33. The population group with the highest incarceration rate is a. non-Hispanic white men, ages 30–34. b. non-Hispanic African American men, ages 30–34. c. non-Hispanic Asian American men ages 30–34. d. Hispanic men aged 25–29. e. non-Hispanic African American women ages 30–35. ANS: B
REF: 458
NOT: Factual
34. The number of persons held in jail or prison for every 100,000 persons in a particular population group is known as the a. prison rate. b. imprisonment numbers. c. capacity figures. d. incarceration rate. e. recidivism rate. ANS: D
REF: 458
NOT: Conceptual
35. Which of the following statements regarding incarceration is true? a. Incarceration does not prevent average predatory street criminals from committing additional crimes once they are out of prison. b. The majority of prisoners are incarcerated for their full sentence. c. Incarceration rates for African Americans are much lower than for any other ethnic group. d. The majority of people arrested and sent to jail have committed the crime of theft. e. Overcrowding is not an issue in prisons. ANS: A
REF: 459
NOT: Applied
36. High prices of commodities like oil a. provide an incentive to produce more of it. b. provide an incentive for producers to slow production to boost prices higher. c. provide an incentive to protect the environment. d. provide an incentive to develop new technology to extract the oil. e. Both options A and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 460
NOT: Applied
37. With regard to the issue of oil and energy, a. the United States’ dependence on foreign oil is down sharply from just a few years ago. b. a new technology called fracking is allowing more oil to be extracted from domestic and Canadian sources. c. fracking can only extract oil, not natural gas. d. the United States gets nearly 80 percent of its oil and gas from foreign sources. e. Both options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 460
NOT: Factual
38. All of the following are true of global warming except a. in the 1990s, scientists working on climate change began to conclude that the average world temperatures would rise significantly in the twenty-first century. b. in an effort to stop global warming, the government allowed filling or dredging of wetlands without a permit. c. global warming has become a major political issue between conservatives and liberals. d. former Vice-President Al Gore won a Nobel Peace Prize for his work on environmental issues. e. a major share of the American electorate does not believe that global warming is happening, or if it is happening, that it is caused by human activities. ANS: B
REF: 461 | 462
NOT: Applied
39. Despite the lack of federal government action, in 2011 a. CO2 emissions in the United States were down due to newer fuel-efficient cars. b. CO2 emissions in the United States were down due to new power plants coming on line
that used natural gas instead of coal. c. CO2 emissions in the United States were down due to tougher emissions laws passed by states. d. CO2 emissions in the United States were down due to a colder winter. e. Options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 462
NOT: Applied
40. Which of the following statements regarding unemployment is true? a. When unemployment is increasing, it is a sign of a recession. b. Unemployment figures that estimate the number of unemployed are prepared by the U.S. Department of Labor. c. The published unemployment numbers fail to reflect the number of discouraged workers and “hidden unemployed.” d. Unemployment is defined as the inability of those in the workforce to find a job. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 462
NOT: Applied
41. Which of the following is true? a. A recession is defined as two or more successive quarters in which the economy shrinks instead of grows. b. A recession is defined as two or more quarters in which unemployment rates are above 7 percent. c. Unemployment is defined as the total number of workers who are not in the work force in any given quarter. d. Inflation is defined as a sudden rise in prices for hot commodities like gasoline and electronics. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 462
NOT: Conceptual
42. Keynesian economics advocates a. government control of markets. b. manipulation of monetary policy. c. the use of government spending and taxing to help stabilize the economy. d. acceptance of the theories of Adam Smith. e. laissez-faire economics. ANS: C
REF: 464
NOT: Conceptual
43. Long-term unemployment has remained historically high a. due to the slow recovery after the Great Recession of 2008. b. due to discrimination of those who have been unemployed longer than six months. c. causing a decrease in the number of participants in food stamp programs. d. Options A and B are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: 464
NOT: Applied
44. The Great Recession of 2008 caused a. an increase in the number of long-term unemployed. b. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program expenditures (food stamps) to soar. c. an increase in discrimination of the long-term unemployed. d. a decrease in requests for food assistance because unemployment insurance benefits were
extended. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 464
NOT: Applied
45. Until 2002, the food stamp program imposed an assets test on potential recipients a. causing those who had an asset like a car or home to be ineligible. b. making it impossible for many recently unemployed to collect food stamps c. because the government did not want food prices affected by give aways. d. Both options A and B are true. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: D
REF: 464
NOT: Applied
46. Fiscal policy a. is popular with conservatives. b. is an approach to stabilize the economy through control of the money supply. c. is controlled by the Federal Reserve Bank d. is an approach to stabilizing the economy through government spending and taxing. e. requires that, during economic slowdowns, the government tighten its belt on spending. ANS: D
REF: 464
NOT: Conceptual
47. The net public debt is defined as a. the total amount owed by all individuals, corporations, and governments in the United States. b. the total amount owed by the federal government to individuals, businesses, and foreigners. c. a percentage of the gross national product not to exceed ten percent of all gross sales. d. money not available for use. e. the total amount owed by the federal government to individuals, businesses, and foreigners, as well as interagency borrowings within the government. ANS: B
REF: 466
NOT: Conceptual
48. Monetary policy includes a. using changes in the rate at which new money is put into circulation to alter national economic variables. b. using changes in the size of the federal budget deficit to alter national economic variables. c. regulating tax rates to ensure controlled growth and low inflation. d. the economic policies of the president and Congress. e. linkage of the consumer price index and the gross national product. ANS: A
REF: 467 | 468
NOT: Applied
49. Tight monetary policy theory dictates that when the economy is faced with inflation, the government should a. increase the supply of credit. b. increase taxes. c. decrease the supply of credit. d. decrease taxes. e. take complete control of the economy. ANS: C
REF: 468
NOT: Applied
50. The highest rate of taxation that one pays on the last dollar they make is called the
a. b. c. d. e.
progressive tax rate. regressive tax rate. marginal tax rate. tax liability rate. temporary tax rate.
ANS: C
REF: 469 | 470
NOT: Conceptual
51. In comparing the total amount of taxes collected as a percentage of gross domestic product, a. Sweden’s rate is the lowest in the world . b. one of the countries with the highest rate is the United States. c. most countries in Europe have lower rates than the United States. d. the rate of the United States is around 25 percent. e. Both options A and C are true. ANS: D
REF: 470
NOT: Applied
52. Tax loopholes allow individuals and corporations to a. reduce their taxable income legally. b. choose the state to which they will pay taxes. c. register formal complaints to the Internal Revenue Service. d. pay taxes only on investment income. e. commit crimes without fear of incarceration. ANS: A
REF: 470
NOT: Conceptual
53. With a progressive tax, a. all taxpayers pay taxes at the same percentage rate. b. people with higher incomes pay taxes at a higher percentage rate. c. people with higher incomes pay taxes at a lower percentage rate. d. the tax burden consists mostly of property and sales taxes. e. tax rates increase by a set percentage every year. ANS: B
REF: 470
NOT: Applied
54. Which of the following is not a regressive tax? a. Social security tax b. Medicare tax c. State sales tax d. Federal income tax e. Local real estate tax ANS: D
REF: 471
NOT: Applied
55. Because of the __________, the United States does indeed have a(n) __________. a. income tax, progressive tax system b. income tax, regressive tax system c. property tax, progressive tax system d. Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC), regressive tax system e. sales tax, progressive tax system ANS: A
REF: 471
NOT: Applied
56. Which of the following is true? a. In the last decade, the rich have increased their share of the nation’s income. b. In the last decade, after adjusting for inflation, the hourly wages of average workers have
remained flat. c. At the end of the last decade, there are more millionaires and billionaires. d. The top 50 percent of earners pay nearly 100% of the federal income tax. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 472
NOT: Conceptual
57. The earned income tax credit a. allows families making up to $48,000 per year to pay only 50 percent of their annual tax bill. b. Is a tax refund that allows families making up to $48,000 per year to pay no income tax and earn a credit towards their social security tax bill. c. assists 25 million families each year with their tax bills. d. is available to all wage earners regardless of income. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 472
NOT: Applied
58. Which of the following is not an entitlement program? a. Medicare b. Social Security c. Income tax refunds d. Unemployment compensation e. They all are entitlement programs. ANS: C
REF: 473
NOT: Conceptual
59. Which is true? a. If you meet certain requirements such as age and income you are entitled to specific benefits from the government. b. From past experience the federal government is able to set an exact figure in advance on how much entitlement programs will cost. c. Entitlement programs make up a rather small portion of the federal budget. d. Most Americans are not affected by entitlement programs. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 473
NOT: Applied
60. Which of the following statements regarding entitlement programs is accurate? a. Along with national defense, entitlement programs make up the greatest share of the federal budget. b. Entitlement spending will determine how much you pay in taxes throughout your working lifetime. c. Entitlement programs were initiated in the 1990s. d. Entitlement spending does not affect the federal budget. e. Both options A and B are true. ANS: E
REF: 473
NOT: Factual
ESSAY 1. Describe the measures in recent health care reform legislation that was passed by Congress, which takes effect in 2014. ANS:
Answers may vary. 2. Explain the stages of the policymaking process. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Explain the rising cost of entitlement programs and what should be done in the future. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Explain the problem of long-term unemployment and the affect on government spending. ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Discuss the Arizona Immigration Legislation. Why was it passed? What measures were struck down by the Supreme Court and why? ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Assess the advantages and disadvantages of a nation having a substantial immigrant population. ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Examine the federal budget deficit, why it occurred and what measures should be taken to bring it down. ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Explain the impact of Keynesian economics on fiscal policy in the United States. ANS: Answers may vary. 9. Explain the difference between “loose” and “tight” monetary policy and when they would be appropriate policy options. ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Explain the difference between progressive and regressive taxes. Would we be better served by simply employing a flat tax across the board? ANS: Answers may vary. 11. Should the rich pay more in taxes? Describe the arguments on both sides of the issue. ANS:
Answers may vary.
CHAPTER 15: Foreign Policy MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The draft a. was used for the first time during the war in Vietnam. b. if started today, would not provide enough men for the U.S. military. c. wouldn’t prevent troop shortages unless women were drafted too. d. requires approval of the Supreme Court. e. is forced military conscription. ANS: E
REF: 480
NOT: Factual
2. Which of the following is true about reinstating a military draft? a. The draft would have no affect on long and repeat deployments for National Guard troops. b. Children of wealthy people would be able to buy deferments from the draft. c. A draft requires draftees to serve in the military. No civilian assignments would be allowed as substitution for the service requirement. d. A draft would decrease the cost of the military because draftees would be paid less than military recruits are paid today. e. A draft would provide too many troops and those with no deployments would spend too much time waiting at bases. ANS: D
REF: 480
NOT: Applied
3. Which of the following statements is true of the terror attacks of 9/11? a. Americans were forced to change their views of national security. b. One of the major challenges for U.S. foreign and national security policy became how best to respond to an attack on the United States by China. c. Americans found that the attacks on the World Trade Center had been planned and carried out by a terrorist network called al Qaeda. d. Americans still knew that regional conflicts in other parts of the world had no direct impact on the United States. e. Options A and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 481
NOT: Factual
4. By foreign policy, we mean a. a nation’s external goals and the techniques and strategies to achieve them. b. the formal agreements that are approved by the World Court. c. interactions with other countries that are not related to economics. d. the treaties that are ratified by the Senate. e. the manner in which the armed forces are deployed. ANS: A
REF: 481
NOT: Conceptual
5. U.S. foreign policy may be carried out through a. diplomacy. b. economic aid. c. technical assistance. d. military intervention. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 481
NOT: Conceptual
6. Assistance to other nations in the form of grants, loans, or credits to buy the assisting nation’s products is called a. an in-kind subsidy. b. a tariff. c. exports. d. economic aid. e. military aid. ANS: D
REF: 481
NOT: Conceptual
7. With regard to national security, a. the National Security Council acts as an advisory body to the president and has become a rival to the State Department in influencing the foreign policy process. b. the policy itself is determined by the Department of Defense, the Department of State, and a number of other federal agencies. c. it is concerned with the defense of the United States against actual or potential future enemies. d. it is designed to protect our country’s independence and political integrity. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 481
NOT: Conceptual
8. Diplomacy refers to a. a title given to senior members of the State Department. b. a philosophy that sees nations as normally willing to cooperate. c. formal public meetings held by heads of government. d. the settling of disputes and conflicts among nations by peaceful methods. e. the manner in which the armed forces are deployed. ANS: D
REF: 481
NOT: Conceptual
9. The practice of sending experts with technical skills to aid other nations is called a. an in-kind subsidy. b. a tariff. c. technical assistance. d. exports. e. military aid. ANS: C
REF: 481
NOT: Factual
10. A member of the National Security Council (NSC) a. may advise the president on foreign policy matters. b. must serve on a Senate subcommittee on foreign affairs. c. may serve as an advisor to foreign diplomats. d. also serves as an advisor to the Secretary of the Army. e. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: 481
NOT: Applied
11. The set of policies having to do with the U.S. armed forces is called a. the foreign policy process. b. defense policy. c. military-industrial policy. d. foreign assistance policy.
e. diplomacy. ANS: B
REF: 481
NOT: Factual
12. Moral idealism is a philosophy that a. sees nations as normally willing to cooperate and agree on moral standards for conduct. b. mandates noninterference with the internal policies of sovereign nations. c. supports steps to establish a single world government. d. sees each nation as acting in its own interest regardless of moral considerations. e. contends that spreading Christianity ought to be a major goal of U.S. foreign policy. ANS: A
REF: 482
NOT: Conceptual
13. Political realism is a philosophy that a. sees nations as normally willing to cooperate and agree on moral standards for conduct. b. mandates noninterference with the internal policies of sovereign nations. c. supports steps to establish a single world government. d. sees each nation as acting in its own interest regardless of moral considerations. e. contends that spreading Christianity ought to be a major goal of U.S. foreign policy. ANS: D
REF: 482
NOT: Conceptual
14. At times idealism and realism are at conflict in foreign affairs. Which of the following is true about the Arab Spring? a. During the recent uprisings, the United States had to sustain its longstanding alliance with a dictator in Egypt and ended up on the wrong side when the rebels won. b. The King of Saudi Arabia demanded that the United States support the rebels seeking democracy in Egypt and Tunisia. c. The United States and European Allies intervened with airpower to assist the rebels in Libya to liberate their country from a long-standing dictatorship. d. The United States and European allies intervened with airpower to assist the rebels in Iran to liberate their country from a long-standing dictatorship. e. All of the above are true. ANS: C
REF: 482 | 483
NOT: Applied
15. Terrorism a. is a systematic attempt to inspire fear to gain political ends. b. typically includes indiscriminate use of violence against noncombatants. c. is a term that was coined to refer to radicals who were in control of the government at the height of the French Revolution (1789–1799). d. Both options A and B are true. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 483 | 484
NOT: Conceptual
16. Which of the following statements is true regarding terrorism? a. The 911 attacks were the only attacks on civilians by Islamic extremists. b. In 2004, Islamic extremists killed nearly 200 people in a railroad bombing in Spain. c. Al Qaeda affiliates have not been active in Islamic nations, preferring to focus on western targets. d. Al Qaeda’s ultimate goals are limited to forcing the United States to withdraw from the Middle East. e. The Basque terrorists in Spain have no clear objectives. ANS: B
REF: 484
NOT: Applied
17. Goals of the al Qaeda terrorist network have apparently included a. getting U. S. forces out of countries in the Middle East. b. ending U.S. support for Egypt. c. independence for the Basque region of Spain. d. getting Turkish forces out of Cyprus. e. forcing the United States to withdraw troops from South Korea. ANS: A
REF: 484
NOT: Factual
18. In 2002, President George W. Bush enunciated a new foreign policy doctrine, the “Bush Doctrine,” which held, in part, that a. the United States was prepared to wage preemptive war against perceived threats, with or without allies. b. the United States would go to war with any country that attacked it. c. Islamists would not be allowed to take power in any additional nations. d. America would leave the United Nations if that body did not support its military initiatives. e. the United States would no longer participate in the World Trade Organization or in the World Bank. ANS: A
REF: 485
NOT: Conceptual
19. Critics of the Bush Doctrine a. believed that a preemptive attack was better than what President Bush had proposed as part of his new doctrine. b. cited the damage it would do to the domestic economy. c. pointed out that preemptive wars against other nations have traditionally been waged by dictator and rogue states, not democratic nations. d. claimed that launching preemptive war would allow the United States to pursue world peace by eliminating terrorism. e. believed that by endorsing such a policy, the United States could argue against decisions of other nations to do the same when they felt threatened. ANS: C
REF: 485
NOT: Conceptual
20. The first Gulf War a. restored to Iraq a province that had been separated by the British after World War II. b. was supported by large-scale demonstrations in Kuwait City. c. was undertaken after Hussein reached a diplomatic agreement with Saudi Arabia. d. began with Saddam Hussein’s annexation of Kuwait in 1990. e. remained in effect until George W. Bush initiated the Second Gulf War in 2003. ANS: D
REF: 485
NOT: Factual
21. All of the following are true of the Second Gulf War except a. President Bush decided to take unilateral action against Iraq. b. the UN Security Council was not convinced that UN forces should take action to enforce resolutions that had been passed against Iraq. c. the war began when the United States invaded Iraq in 2003. d. establishing order and creating a new government in Iraq turned out to be extraordinarily difficult for the United States. e. Coalition forces put an immediate halt to looting and disorder in the country. ANS: E
REF: 485 | 486
NOT: Factual
22. Sunnis and Shiites a. are two major ethnic groups in Iraq who speak different languages. b. are two branches of the religion of Islam with somewhat different beliefs and traditions. c. are two branches of the Kurdish-speaking people of northern Iraq. d. are two political parties in the Arab world. e. are the names of two refugee camps that were destroyed by Israel. ANS: B
REF: 485 | 486
NOT: Conceptual
23. A majority of the population of Iraq is a. Sunni Arab. b. Kurdish. c. Shiite Arab. d. Turkoman. e. Baathist. ANS: C
REF: 485 | 486
NOT: Factual
24. Which of the following statements regarding the end of the Iraq War is true? a. By late 2006, two-thirds of Americans wanted to see an end to the Iraq War. b. President Obama supported the Iraq War and argued for more troops to gain an upper hand in the conflict when he was a candidate for president. c. President Bush ordered a major decrease in U.S. troops in Iraq in early in 2007. d. President Obama announced that all combat troops would withdraw from Iraq by 2014. e. Both options A and D are true. ANS: A
REF: 485 | 486
NOT: Applied
25. Which is true in regard to Afghanistan? a. The invasion of Afghanistan soundly defeated the Taliban extremists who had ruled the country since 1996. b. There was no collaboration between the Taliban and Al Qaeda in Afghanistan. They had different objectives. c. The United States and other members of the international community fostered the creation of an elected Afghan government. d. The Taliban returned to strength after the invasion in 2001 and began again to attack American soldiers but avoided civilian casualties to win them over to their cause. e. President Obama has not announced a date for the commencement of troop withdrawals because of the ongoing violence. ANS: C
REF: 487
NOT: Applied
26. President Obama a. in his presidential campaign called for reducing American troop levels in Afghanistan. b. recalled 50,000 troops in 2009, in the wake of increased violence in Afghanistan. c. discouraged Pakistan from attempting to root out Taliban and Al Qaeda operatives because it was causing more terrorists to cross the border into Afghanistan. d. sent an additional 30,000 troops to Afghanistan in a surge to calm the violence in 2009. e. began using drones to attack drug lords in Afghanistan to reduce the opium traffic. ANS: D
REF: 487
NOT: Applied
27. To which international issues has the United States applied diplomacy instead of military force? a. The proliferation of nuclear weapons
b. c. d. e.
The growing power of China. The Israeli-Palestinian conflict The global economic crisis All of the above.
ANS: E
REF: 487–495
NOT: Applied
28. North Korea a. has been of little concern for the United States since the U.S. involvement in Iraq and Afghanistan. b. has dismantled all of its nuclear weapons in exchange for food. c. pulled back on its treaty obligations and in 2009 tested a long-range missile capable of delivering a nuclear warhead. d. ordered UN inspectors to come back to the country to verify that all nuclear missiles had been destroyed and that it was only using nuclear devices for creating electricity. e. had its navy attacked by South Korean and a North Korean ship was sunk. ANS: C
REF: 489
NOT: Factual
29. All of the following are true of China and the United Sates except a. since 1972, American policy has hoped to gradually engage the Chinese in diplomatic and economic relationships to move China in a pro-Western direction. b. there are large and growing trade ties between the United States and China. c. instead of goods and services, China has imported United States securities. d. China exports substantially more goods and services to the United States than it imports. e. in 1980, China was not given most-favored-nation status by the United States and this has hurt their relationship. ANS: E
REF: 490
NOT: Factual
30. Which of the following statements regarding China’s economy is true? a. China’s economy has grown at a rate of about 10 percent annually for the past several decades. b. In 2007, China manufactured more passenger automobiles than did the United States. c. The growth of the Chinese economy during the last thirty-five years is one of the most important developments in world history. d. Both options B and C are true. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 490
NOT: Factual
31. The internationally recognized solution to the Israeli-Palestinian dispute is that a. the Palestinians resettle in Jordan with full compensation. b. Israel yields the West Bank and Gaza Strip to the Palestinians in return for security guarantees and Palestinian abandonment of any right of return to Israel proper. c. Israelis and Palestinians should both be part of a single state in which all citizens have equal rights. d. Israel yields the West Bank and Gaza Strip to the Palestinians; both Israelis and Palestinians may settle in either country. e. Israel should yield up all territory not granted to it by the UN in 1948, including all of Jerusalem. ANS: B
REF: 491–493
32. Examples of cyberattacks include
NOT: Factual
a. Chinese government operatives are suspected of subverting computer networks of American corporations to steal software code and other industrial secrets. b. the Chinese Government has hacked the codes of the U.S. missile launch system in order to launch an attack on a third party and blame it on the United States. c. The United States is suspected of launching an attack worm to damage the Iranian nuclear program. d. Both options A and C are true. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: D
REF: 492
NOT: Applied
33. In January 2006, __________ won a majority of the seats in the Palestinian legislature, an alarming development since it has called for the destruction of Israel. a. the militant group Hamas b. the Kurdish People’s Liberation Front c. the militant group Hezbollah d. the Palestine Liberation Organization e. the extremist group Free Jerusalem Now ANS: A
REF: 493
NOT: Factual
34. The economic crisis in Europe is complicated by the fact that a. seventeen nations share a common currency. b. Greece and Portugal had borrowed excessively. c. in Ireland and Spain, many real estate loans went sour, threatening the banks that made them. d. the Euro-periphery countries could not borrow from the European central bank to shore up money supplies. e. All of the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 494 | 495
NOT: Applied
35. Humanitarian efforts a. and assistance have been a major component of America’s foreign policy. b. during the Bush administration more than doubled the value of U.S. foreign aid provided to African nations. c. given to African nations have been aimed at combating AIDS. d. were carried out by the United States in Haiti after a major earthquake in 2010. e. All the above are true. ANS: E
REF: 495 | 496
NOT: Factual
36. Presidents have been largely successful in getting treaties a. approved by the World Court. b. through both the House and the Senate. c. approved by the Supreme Court. d. through the Senate. e. approved by the State Department. ANS: D
REF: 496
NOT: Factual
37. The State Department is a. directly responsible to Congress. b. not involved in short-term foreign policy. c. the executive agency that is most directly concerned with foreign affairs.
d. responsible for making foreign policy, not the president. e. one of the largest cabinet departments. ANS: C
REF: 497
NOT: Factual
38. One of the problems for the State Department domestically is that a. it has “negative constituents”—citizens who oppose the government’s policies. b. it is responsible for the CIA. c. it answers to Congress first and only then to the president. d. no new president will retain senior-level diplomats who are not of his political party. e. it is criticized for not spending enough on foreign aid. ANS: A
REF: 497
NOT: Conceptual
39. The influence of the Secretary of State on the President of the United States a. has frequently been weakly exercised. b. has been greater than normal for Secretary Hillary Clinton in the Obama Administration. c. has generally been greater than the National Security Council. d. Both options A and B are true. e. Options A, B, and C are true. ANS: D
REF: 497
NOT: Applied
40. The government agencies that are involved in gathering information about the capabilities and intentions of foreign governments are collectively known as a. the Washington community. b. the armed services consortium. c. the intelligence community. d. the National Security Council. e. regulatory agencies. ANS: C
REF: 498
NOT: Conceptual
41. The key official member of the intelligence community is the a. Central Intelligence Agency. b. Department of Defense. c. Federal Bureau of Investigation. d. Drug Enforcement Administration. e. National Security Agency. ANS: A
REF: 498
NOT: Factual
42. Intelligence activities a. consist mostly of overt information gathering. b. are administered by the Department of Education since the main focus is intelligence gathering. c. play a rather small role in foreign policy formation. d. include covert actions carried out in secret that most Americans rarely find out about. e. Both options A and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 498
NOT: Conceptual
43. The Department of Defense a. is smaller than the State Department. b. was created in 1947, to gather all military activities under one department secretary. c. is headed by the military joint chiefs of staff.
d. has consistently grown in size under every president. e. is staffed entirely by uniformed personnel. ANS: B
REF: 499
NOT: Applied
44. In 1973, Congress passed the War Powers Resolution, which a. required congressional approval before the president could dismiss the Secretary of Defense. b. limited the president’s use of troops in military action without congressional approval. c. extended the president’s power over the military. d. was necessary because of the increased threat of nuclear war. e. allowed the president to declare an unlimited national emergency. ANS: B
REF: 499
NOT: Conceptual
45. The power of the purse means that a. the president controls the budget appropriations process. b. the Congress retains the Constitutional power on spending authority. c. The military branch heads determine the budget allocations for defense spending depending on the cost of weapons systems. d. the president has the power to raise taxes in time of war. e. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: 500
NOT: Applied
46. One potential congressional tool for ending a war is a. cutting funding for the war. b. negotiating peace treaties. c. replacing the Secretary of Defense. d. canceling weapons system orders. e. Sending an ultimatum with unanimous signatures to the president. ANS: A
REF: 500
NOT: Conceptual
47. A major theme in U.S. foreign policy a. in the early years, was aimed at getting very involved in foreign entanglements. b. in the twentieth century, has been increasing global involvement. c. has been inconsistent and changes with the current president. d. attempts to make the United States a major supporter of pollution control and global warming. e. today focuses on bringing immigrants from other countries to the United States to help fill low paying jobs. ANS: B
REF: 500
NOT: Conceptual
48. A major determinant of U.S. foreign policy in the formative years was a. that this country was destined to become a very powerful nation. b. that the United States has been very weak militarily. c. the influence of religion. d. the strength of the new navy. e. our interest in the Pacific. ANS: B
REF: 500
NOT: Factual
49. During the 1800s, the United States generally a. stayed out of European conflicts and politics but pursued an expansionist policy in the
Western hemisphere. b. pursued an expansionist and activist policy in both European conflicts and in this hemisphere. c. pursued an expansionist policy in European conflicts but stayed out of matters in this hemisphere. d. stayed out of both European conflicts and matters in this hemisphere. e. has been characterized as Pax Americana. ANS: A
REF: 500
NOT: Conceptual
50. The Monroe Doctrine stated that a. the United States would not accept any new European intervention in the Western Hemisphere and the United States would not meddle in European affairs. b. the United States had the authority to intervene in the affairs of European nations if American interests were at stake. c. the United States would take action against the Barbary pirates in order to protect American lives and commerce. d. the United States would not wait to be attacked, but rather would take preemptive action against clear and present dangers. e. the United States would only conduct business with other nations by employing treaties. ANS: A
REF: 500
NOT: Applied
51. United States foreign policy toward Europe during most of 1800s was a. isolationism. b. interventionist. c. internationalist. d. one of détente. e. multilateral. ANS: A
REF: 501
NOT: Conceptual
52. After World War I, the United States returned to a state of “normalcy” in foreign policy, which meant a. a continued commitment to international peacekeeping. b. reassuring the public that the United States would act in the role of world policeman. c. a sharp increase in military spending in order to honor commitments made to the allied powers. d. a reduction in military forces and defense spending and a return to isolationism. e. the annexation of additional territory in the western hemisphere. ANS: D
REF: 501
NOT: Applied
53. American isolationism permanently ended a. with the onset of the Great Depression. b. with the bombing of the U.S. naval base at Pearl Harbor. c. when the United States entered the United Nations. d. when France and the United States signed a mutual alliance pact. e. with the Korean War. ANS: B
REF: 501
NOT: Factual
54. The United States was the only major country to emerge from World War II with a. an addition to its territory. b. operational nuclear weapons. c. the same leader of government that it had when it started World War II.
d. a weakened economy. e. an intention to expand its role in the world. ANS: B
REF: 501
NOT: Factual
55. Which of the following is true of the Soviet bloc? a. Its formation was the turning point in World War II. b. It helped to improve relations between the Soviet Union and the United States. c. It consisted of the Soviet Union and Eastern European countries with Communist regimes. d. It was designed to prevent supplies from entering West Berlin in 1948. e. It was the alliance set up by the United States and Western Europe to counter the Soviet Union. ANS: C
REF: 501
NOT: Factual
56. The doctrine of containment set forth by George F. Kennan a. proposed that the United States should seek to “roll back” Communism in Eastern Europe. b. was expressed in the Truman Doctrine enunciated by President Harry Truman in 1947. c. called for the United States to initiate arms reduction talks. d. said that the United States should seek to block the spread of Communism to additional countries. e. Both options B and D are true. ANS: E
REF: 501
NOT: Conceptual
57. During the Cold War, there was (were) a. continuous conversation between United States and Soviet military advisors. b. no direct military conflict between the United States and the Soviet Union. c. an occasional exchange of artillery fire across the East German/West German border. d. direct fighting between United States and Soviet ground troops during the Korean War. e. occasional dogfights between United States and Soviet fighter planes over Europe. ANS: B
REF: 502
NOT: Applied
58. All of the following statements about the war in Vietnam are true except a. the war was an effort to exercise containment policy. b. the war was between the pro-west North and the pro-Communist South Vietnam. c. more than 58,000 American forces were killed. d. the U.S. involvement in the war caused contention at home and led to Congressional efforts to limit the war powers of the presidency. e. the war greatly expanded during the Johnson Administration. ANS: B
REF: 502 | 503
NOT: Applied
59. The concept of détente a. comes from a Spanish word meaning peace. b. comes from a French word meaning a relaxation of tensions. c. came to symbolize the relationship between the United States and the Soviet Union in the 1970s. d. Both options B and C are true. e. None of the above is true. ANS: D
REF: 503 | 504
NOT: Conceptual
60. In recent years, the United States a. believes that Russia is ending its aggressive attitude towards its neighboring countries.
b. angered Russia by its plans for antimissile defenses in Eastern Europe. c. needed Russian assistance with curbing Iran’s nuclear program. d. under President Obama developed a new, largely land-based, missile program aimed at Iran. e. Options B and C are true. ANS: E
REF: 505
NOT: Factual
ESSAY 1. What problems might there be if the draft was used again in the United States? ANS: Answers may vary. 2. Describe the difference between moral idealism and political realism and provide examples of each from the history of American foreign policy. ANS: Answers may vary. 3. Describe the various uprisings in the Arab Spring countries and the outcomes of each revolt to date. ANS: Answers may vary. 4. Explain the role that China has come to play in the world. How should the United States interact with China? ANS: Answers may vary. 5. Describe the conflict between Israel and the Palestinians and the efforts to bring peace to this troubled part of the world. ANS: Answers may vary. 6. Explain the constitutional clash of powers between the president and Congress in the area of foreign policymaking. ANS: Answers may vary. 7. Explain the urgency of containing Iran’s efforts to build a nuclear weapon. Which path do you suggest at this point in time to stop the weapons program? What are the consequences (intended and unintended) of the action that you advocate? ANS: Answers may vary. 8. Explain the intervention of the United States in Afghanistan and the problems encountered there by the U.S. Forces.
ANS: Answers may vary. 9. In what ways has the United States offered humanitarian assistance in different parts of the world? ANS: Answers may vary. 10. Will the relationship between the United States and Russia be substantially different from the relationship that existed between the United States and the Soviet Union during the Cold War? Why or why not? ANS: Answers may vary. 11. Describe U.S. efforts to handle international issues with diplomacy rather than armed force. In your examples, were these efforts largely successful or failures? ANS: Answers may vary.