TEST BANK For An Introduction to Physical Science, 14e James Shipman, Jerry Wilson, Charles Higgins.

Chapter 01 - Measurement 1. A pint of water (on Earth) is approximately a. 1 pound. b. 1 gram. c. 1 kilogram. d. 1 quart.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. Historically, which measurement may have been defined as the distance from the royal nose to the thumb of the royal outstretched arm? a. 1 foot b. 1 yard c. 1 meter d. 1 kilometer ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. In a debate, is the statement "It's only a theory" a valid argument point against a theory (as in "The theory of evolution is wrong because it's only a theory")? a. Yes, theories are weak. b. No, theories are strong. c. No, theories are weak. d. Yes, theories are meaningless.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Which of the following is not considered a major physical science: a. Physics b. Astronomy c. Geology d. Biology e. Meteorology ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. The word science comes from the Latin word meaning a. "experiment." b. "investigate."

Chapter 01 - Measurement c. "knowledge." d. "debate."

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. The most information about our environment comes to us through the sense of a. smell. b. sight. c. hearing. d. touch.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. Our senses may obtain less-than-accurate information concerning our physical world because they a. have limited sensitivity. b. have a limited range. c. are useless. d. can be deceived.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. A quantitative observation that is the basis of scientific investigation is a(n) a. experiment. b. measurement. c. explanation. d. number.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. A scientific law describes a. the scientific method. b. a fundamental relationship of nature. c. the behavior of nature. d. an experiment.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement 10. A very tentative explanation of observations of some regularity of nature is a(n) a. scientific law. b. theory. c. experiment. d. hypothesis.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. A successfully tested hypothesis may take on the status of a(n) a. experimental result. b. theory. c. scientific law. d. concept. e. superior hypothesis.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. A standard unit a. is the same in all systems of units. b. may not be fixed in value. c. is found only in the British system. d. is used for taking accurate measurements. e. is found only in the metric system.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. The standard unit of time is the a. hour. b. day. c. second. d. minute.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. Which of the following is not a fundamental quantity? a. Weight b. Length c. Time Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement d. Mass ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. Which fundamental quantity does the average person measure most often every day? a. Mass b. Length c. Time d. Electric charge ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. Which has a larger mass, a liter of water or a liter of mercury (a liquid metal)? a. mercury b. water c. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. Which has a larger volume, a liter of water or a liter of mercury (a liquid metal)? a. water b. mercury c. none of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. The mass of a cubic meter of water is a. 1 metric ton. b. 100 kg. c. 100 L. d. 1 lb.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. Which statement is incorrect? a. A kilogram has an equivalent weight greater than that of a pound. b. A kilometer is longer than a mile.

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Chapter 01 - Measurement c. A meter is longer than a yard. d. A liter is larger than a quart.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. Which has more volume, a liter or a quart? a. A liter b. A quart c. Both are the same d. Neither describes volume ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. Which of the following is not a standard metric unit? a. Kilogram b. Meter c. Second d. Gram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. The standard unit of mass in the mks system is the a. meter b. kilogram c. pound d. second e. gram ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. The standard unit of time in the mks system is the a. meter b. kilogram c. second d. minute e. microsecond ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. The standard unit of distance in the mks system is the a. centimeter b. inch c. kilometer d. meter e. second ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. The standard unit of length, the meter, is now defined with reference to a. a meridian on the Earth. b. the French meter. c. the speed of light. d. a platinum-iridium bar. e. a member of the royal family.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. The standard unit of time, the second, is now defined with reference to a. the Earth's revolution period. b. the mean solar day. c. the cesium-133 atom. d. the Earth's rotation period.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. The current definition of a kilogram is the mass of a platinum-iridium cylinder kept in a. the United States. b. France. c. England. d. Japan.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. In what year did the United States officially adopt the metric system?

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Chapter 01 - Measurement a. 1893 b. 1995 c. 2011 d. 1776 e. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. The meter was defined originally as a. one ten-millionth of the diameter of Earth. b. one ten-millionth of the distance from the equator to the North Pole. c. the wavelength of a line in the spectrum of krypton-86. d. the length of a platinum-iridium bar.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. The meter is presently defined as a. one ten-millionth of the diameter of Earth. b. the wavelength of a line in the spectrum of krypton-86. c. the length of a platinum-iridium bar. d. the distance light travels in a vacuum in a very short time.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. The metric prefix that means one-hundredth (1/100) is a. kilo-. b. centi-. c. mega-. d. milli-.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. The metric prefix that means one-thousandth (1/1000) is a. kilo-. b. centi-. c. milli-. d. nano-.

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Chapter 01 - Measurement ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. The metric prefix that means one thousand (1000) is a. kilo-. b. centi-. c. mega-. d. milli-.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. The metric prefix that means one million (1,000,000) is a. centi-. b. mega-. c. milli-. d. nano-.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. The metric prefix that means ten (10) is a. deci b. deka c. milli d. centi e. kilo ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. The metric prefix that means one tenth (1/10) is a. deka b. deci c. centi d. milli e. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement 37. A cubic centimeter of pure water at maximum density has a mass of a. 1 g. b. 1 kg. c. 1 cg. d. 1 lb. e. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. In the SI, m is the symbol for a. mass. b. meter. c. mole. d. metric.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. Which of the following is a unit of mass density? a. kg/m3 b. g/cm2 c. lb/ft3 d. lb/ft2 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. One kilogram is the same as a. 1000 g. b. 1/1000 kg. c. 10,000 g. d. 0.001 g.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. An object's weight would be different on Earth and on the Moon. Which of the following would also be different? a. Mass density b. Mass c. Length Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement d. Volume e. None of these ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. An object transported from Earth's surface to the surface of the Moon has a. the same mass, but different weight. b. the same weight, but different mass. c. the same mass and the same weight. d. different mass and different weight. e. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. In buying a product, a shopper has a choice of the following amounts, all at the same price. Which is the best buy? a. 432 cc b. 1 pint c. 1 half-liter d. 450 mL ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. A hydrometer is used to measure a. the time for an object to sink. b. water (hydro). c. the volume of a quantity of water. d. liquid density.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. Which of the following is not a derived quantity? a. Volume b. Speed c. Mass d. Density ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The International System of Units (SI) has ______________ base units. a. four b. six c. seven d. five ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. What is the mass of 25 cm3 of pure water? a. None of these b. 25 kg c. 25 g d. 25 mL ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. A derived unit a. involves only length. b. is a combination of units. c. applies only to density. d. is not found in the metric system.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. A metric ton (or tonne) is a. the same as a British ton. b. not defined. c. a mass unit. d. a weight unit.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. Which of the following quantities expressed in derived units includes the unit of length? a. Area b. Volume c. Speed Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement d. Density e. All of these ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. Density describes a. mass per unit volume. b. length per unit time. c. volume per liter. d. weight per mass.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. A relationship such as 1 in. = 2.54 cm is a(n) a. equivalence statement. b. base unit. c. derived unit. d. fundamental quantity.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. A method of expressing the accuracy of measured quantities is a. metric prefixes. b. derived units. c. significant figures. d. conversion factors.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. When multiplying and/or dividing quantities, you should report a. the result rounded to the same number of digits as there are in the quantity with the greatest number of significant figures. b. all the digits that show on your calculator.

c. only whole numbers. d. the result rounded to the same number of digits as there are in the quantity with the least number of significant figures.

ANSWER: POINTS:

d 1

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Chapter 01 - Measurement QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. Rounding the number 200.601 to three significant figures a. gives 199. b. gives 200. c. gives 200.601 d. gives 201. e. cannot be done.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. Expressed in standard powers-of-10 notation and rounded to four significant figures, the number 0.00023648 is a. 2.364 × 103. b. 2.365 × 104. c. 2.365 × 10-4. d. 236.4 × 10-6.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. One microgram (μg) contains how many grams? a. 10-3 b. 10-6 c. 10-9 d. 103 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. One megawatt contains how many watts? a. 103 b. 10-6 c. 106 d. 10-3 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. The speed of light in a vacuum is 300,000,000 m/s. Represented in powers-of-10 notation, this is a. 30 × 108m/s.

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Chapter 01 - Measurement b. 3 × 107m/s. c. 30 × 106m/s. d. 3 × 108m/s.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. A measurement of 0.00254 g is the same as a. 0.254 mg. b. 25.4 mg. c. 254 mg. d. 2.54 mg. e. none of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. For the multiplication of 4.769 m times 7.20 m, the result should be reported with how many significant figures? a. Two b. One c. Three d. Four e. Seven ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. For the multiplication of 7.443 m times 8.5 m, the result should be reported with how many significant figures? a. Two b. One c. Three d. Four e. Seven ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. For the multiplication of 4.4 m times 1.5 m, the result should be reported with how many significant figures? a. Two Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement b. One c. Three d. Four e. Seven ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. For the multiplication of 4.212 m divided by 7.60 m, the result should be reported with how many significant figures? a. Two b. One c. Three d. Four e. Seven ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. For the multiplication of 2.817 m divided by 6.3 m, the result should be reported with how many significant figures? a. Two b. One c. Three d. Four e. Seven ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. For the multiplication of 6.3 m divided by 2.8 m, the result should be reported with how many significant figures? a. Two b. One c. Three d. Four e. Seven ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. When the measured quantity 45.67 kg is divided by the measured quantity 3.42 L, the answer should have Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement how many significant figures? a. Three b. One c. Four d. Two ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. The natural sciences are divided into ______________ sciences and biological sciences.

ANSWER: physical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 69. The natural sciences are divided into physical sciences and ______________ sciences.

ANSWER: biological POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 70. A scientific law is a concise statement that describes a(n) ______________ of nature.

ANSWER: relationship (or regularity) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 71. The scientific method holds that no theory is valid unless its predictions are in accord with ______________.

ANSWER: experiment POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 72. A hypothesis is a very tentative explanation of some ______________ of nature.

ANSWER: regularity (or relationship) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 73. A(n) ______________ is a tested explanation of a broad segment of basic natural phenomena.

ANSWER: theory POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 74. A proposed concept or model of nature is tested using the ______________.

ANSWER: scientific method POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 75. The three fundamental quantities studied in Chapter 1 are length, mass, and ______________.

ANSWER: time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 76. The measurement of space in any direction is called ______________.

ANSWER: length POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 77. ______________ is the continuous forward flow of events.

ANSWER: Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 78. ______________ is a measurement of the quantity of matter.

ANSWER: Mass POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 79. An object's ______________would be the same on Earth and on the Moon, but its weight would be different.

ANSWER: mass POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 80. An object's mass would be the same on Earth and on the Moon, but its ______________ would be different.

ANSWER: weight POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 81. In the metric mks system of units, the letter k stands for ______________.

ANSWER: kilogram POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. In the metric mks system of units, the letter m stands for ______________.

ANSWER: meter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 83. In the metric mks system of units, the letter s stands for ______________.

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Chapter 01 - Measurement ANSWER: second POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 84. Time is sometimes thought of as a fourth dimension of ______________.

ANSWER: space POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 85. SI stands for the ______________ of units.

ANSWER: International System POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. On a computer, a megabyte of memory is ______________ bytes.

ANSWER: one million (106) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 87. The meter is defined in terms of the speed of ______________.

ANSWER: light POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 88. A metric ton is ______________ kg.

ANSWER: 1000 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. There are 10 mm in a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: centimeter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. In the metric system, a penny might be called a(n) ______________ dollar.

ANSWER: centiPOINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 91. The metric system is a(n)______________ system.

ANSWER: decimal, or base-10 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement 92. The British system is a(n) ______________ , or base-12 system.

ANSWER: duodecimal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. Given that 1 L = 0.266 gal, the conversion factor for converting gallons to liters would be ______________.

ANSWER: 0.266 gal/L POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. The ratio of mass to volume is known as ______________.

ANSWER: density POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. Liquid density may be measured with a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: hydrometer POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 96. The standard unit of mass in the SI is the ______________.

ANSWER: kilogram POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 97. One liter of pure water at its maximum density has a mass of 1 ______________.

ANSWER: kg POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 98. The unit of density in the mks system is ______________.

ANSWER: kg/m3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 99. A set value for a fundamental quantity is called a(n) ______________ unit.

ANSWER: standard POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. A combination of one or more fundamental units is called a(n) ______________ unit.

ANSWER: derived Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 101. A(n) ______________ is a comparison of an unknown physical quantity with the standard unit.

ANSWER: measurement POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 102. A liter has a volume of ______________ cubic centimeters.

ANSWER: 1000 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. Which is longer, a meter or a yard?

ANSWER: A meter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 104. Which is larger, a liter or a quart?

ANSWER: A liter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 105. In ratio form, the equivalence statement 1 mi = 1.61 km would be expressed as ______________.

ANSWER: 1.61 km/mi (or 1 mi/1.61 km) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 106. For the multiplication of 8.704 m × 3.14 m, the result should be reported with ______________ significant figures.

ANSWER: three POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 107. If the decimal point is shifted to the left in a number expressed in powers-of-10 notation, the exponent, or power of 10, is ______________.

ANSWER: increased POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. If the decimal point is shifted to the right in a number expressed in powers-of-10 notation, the exponent, or power of 10, is ______________.

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Chapter 01 - Measurement ANSWER: decreased POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 109. A student's height is 170 cm. Determine that student's height in inches.

ANSWER: 66.9 in.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 110. A friend from Europe asks what the length of a 100-yd football field would be in meters. After doing the conversion, what would you tell her?

ANSWER: 91.4 m POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 111. How long is a 10.0-ft pole in meters?

ANSWER: 3.05 m POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 112. A cubic container 20 cm on a side is filled with water. What is the mass of the water?

ANSWER: 8 kg POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 113. Dry air has a density of 1.29 kg/m3. What would be the volume of a metric ton of air?

ANSWER: 775 m3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 114. Perform the operation of 147.02/0.338, and report the result with the proper number of significant figures in standard powers-of-10 notation.

ANSWER: 4.35  102 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 115. Express 100 megadollars in standard powers-of-10 notation.

ANSWER: 1.0  108 dollars POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01 - Measurement 116. Calculate the product of 2.1 × 102 and 1.9 × 107. Express the answer in standard powers-of-10 notation.

ANSWER: 3.99  109 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 117. Calculate the approximate number of seconds that a(n) 30-year-old student has lived.

ANSWER: 9.5  108 s POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 118. If there are 2.54 cm/in., how many inches are there per centimeter?

ANSWER: 1/2.54 = 0.394 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 119. Write 0.000852 in standard powers-of-10 notation.

ANSWER: 8.52  10–4 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 120. What does 4 × 10-12 times 3 × 10-8 divided by 2 × 1024 equal?

ANSWER: 6  10–44 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 121. What does 6 × 1012 times 3 × 10-9 divided by 2 × 10-17 equal?

ANSWER: 9  1020 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer

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Chapter 02 - Motion 1. Which one of the following is not an area of physics? a. Mechanics b. Optics c. Algebra d. Acoustics ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. Motion necessarily involves a. a change in velocity. b. a change in speed. c. a change in direction. d. a change in position. e. all of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. The magnitude of a displacement is ______________ the magnitude of the distance traveled. a. always unequal to b. less than or equal to c. always equal to d. greater than or equal to e. none of these; the two cannot be compared.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Displacement divided by time gives a. average acceleration. b. average velocity. c. average speed. d. average distance.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. Average speed multiplied by time gives a. average acceleration. b. displacement. c. instantaneous speed.

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Chapter 02 - Motion d. distance.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. Distance covered per unit of time is called a. speed. b. acceleration. c. velocity. d. displacement.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. The straight-line distance and direction between two points are, together, called a. velocity. b. displacement. c. distance. d. acceleration.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. The magnitudes of two horizontal displacements are 4 m and 9 m, respectively. Given that the vectors may be in either the plus or the minus direction, they cannot be added together to give a total displacement of a. –13 m. b. –5 m. c. 5 m. d. 13 m. e. 4 m.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. A speedometer indicates ______________ if the automobile is traveling forward. a. instantaneous acceleration b. instantaneous speed c. instantaneous velocity d. average speed e. average acceleration ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02 - Motion QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. If an object moves with constant velocity, a. its speed is constant. b. its direction is constant. c. its average speed is constant. d. its distance traveled per unit time is constant. e. all of these ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. If the instantaneous velocity of an object is constant, then so is its a. velocity. b. distance. c. acceleration. d. displacement.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. The rate at which an object's velocity changes with time is called its a. instantaneous velocity. b. motion. c. speed. d. acceleration.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. An automobile's acceleration may be changed by using the a. windshield wipers. b. steering wheel. c. radio. d. horn.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. An automobile's acceleration cannot be changed by using the a. gas pedal. b. brake pedal.

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Chapter 02 - Motion c. steering wheel. d. stick shift. e. turn signal.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. An acceleration may result from a. a change in speed. b. a change in direction. c. a change in both speed and direction. d. all of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. For which of the following is the acceleration constant? a. Nonuniform speed b. Free fall c. Uniform circular motion d. None of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. Velocity is similar to speed, but a ________ is also involved in velocity. a. acceleration b. direction c. position d. scalar ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. Which one of the following is true for deceleration? a. The acceleration is in the direction opposite the motion. b. The acceleration is zero. c. The acceleration is necessarily negative. d. The velocity remains constant.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02 - Motion QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. The distance traveled by an automobile moving at a constant velocity is a. directly proportional to the time. b. directly proportional to the time squared. c. inversely proportional to the time squared. d. inversely proportional to the time. e. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. An object that is moving in a linear path with an acceleration in the direction opposite to the motion has a(n) ______________ velocity. a. constant b. increasing c. decreasing d. none of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. An object that is moving in a linear path with an acceleration at a right angle to the motion has a(n) ______________ velocity. a. changing b. increasing c. decreasing d. constant ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. An object that is moving in a linear path with an acceleration in the direction of motion has a(n) ______________ velocity. a. constant b. increasing c. decreasing d. none of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02 - Motion 23. As a block slides down a 33° frictionless incline, its acceleration a. decreases with distance. b. remains constant. c. is greatest at the bottom of the incline. d. is greatest at the top of the incline.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. Which of the following is a possible unit of acceleration? a. m/s2 b. m × s c. m2/s d. m/s ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. If the magnitude of the velocity of an object increases, we may be sure that during the time of this increase, a. the object is accelerated. b. the acceleration of the object increases. c. the object is moving in a straight path. d. the object is changing direction. e. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. A freely falling object a. has a uniformly increasing velocity. b. is unaffected by gravity. c. has a uniformly increasing acceleration. d. has a uniformly increasing displacement.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. An object in free fall has a. a constant speed. b. a constant velocity. c. a velocity that changes 9.8 m/s each second. d. an acceleration that depends on its mass.

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Chapter 02 - Motion ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. An object with a mass of 5 kg is dropped and takes 9 s to hit the ground. Then another object with a mass of 10 kg is dropped from the same point. How long does it take to hit the ground? a. 9 s b. 18 s c. 5 s d. 81 s e. 729 s ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. A car is moving down a freeway in a straight line at a constant rate of 32.0 m/s for 3.0 s. Its acceleration is a. 9.8 m/s2. b. 9.8 m/s. c. zero. d. 32.0 m/s. e. 11.0 m/s2.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. An object is dropped from a vertical distance of 25.5 m above the ground, and it takes 2.28 sec to fall that distance. A second identical object to launched from the same height, with a horizontal velocity of 45.9 m/s.

How long does the second object take to fall the 25.5 m? a. More than 2.28 sec b. Almost 2.28 sec. c. Less than 2.28 sec d. Exactly 2.28 sec e. Much less than 2.28 sec ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. A freely falling object has a constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. This means that a. the object's displacement changes by 9.8 m every second squared. b. the object's speed increases by 9.8 m/s each second. c. the object's acceleration increases by 9.8 m/s2 each second. d. the object travels 9.8 m each second.

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Chapter 02 - Motion ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. An object that is moving with an acceleration different from zero will always have a(n) ______________ velocity. a. changing b. increasing c. constant d. decreasing ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. The distance traveled by a dropped object in free fall is directly proportional to a. the time squared. b. its weight. c. its mass. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Displacement has a direction and a magnitude. b. Acceleration has a magnitude only. c. Speed has a magnitude only. d. Velocity has a magnitude and a direction.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. All the following may be represented by vectors except a. velocity. b. acceleration. c. speed. d. displacement.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. An object in uniform circular motion has Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02 - Motion a. constant acceleration. b. variable radial distances. c. constant velocity. d. constant speed.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. In the equation ac= v2/r for centripetal acceleration, the r stands for a. diameter. b. distance. c. radius. d. rate.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. In the equation ac= v2/r for centripetal acceleration, the v stands for a. volume. b. very. c. speed. d. velociraptor.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. An object travels in a circle of radius 2.0 m with a constant speed of 4.0 m/s. What is the direction of its acceleration? a. Toward the center of the circle b. Normal to the plane of the circle c. Insufficient data given for determination d. Tangential to the circle e. None of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. Centripetal means a. center seeking b. pulls outward c. constant Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02 - Motion d. fast e. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. The magnitude of the acceleration of an object moving in a circle at constant speed is a. variable. b. directly proportional to the speed squared. c. directly proportional to the speed. d. directly proportional to the radius of the circle squared.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. The direction of the acceleration of an object moving in a circle at constant speed is a. changing, but pointing in a predictable direction. b. constant and pointing in only one direction. c. constant and pointing in two directions. d. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The magnitude of the acceleration of an object moving in a circle at constant speed is a. inversely proportional to the speed squared. b. inversely proportional to the speed. c. inversely proportional to the radius of the circle squared. d. inversely proportional to the radius of the circle.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. If the speed of an object in circular motion is increased by a factor of 3, its centripetal acceleration for the same radius will be multiplied by a factor of a. 0.111. b. 0.333. c. 1.73. d. 9. e. 3.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02 - Motion QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. A projectile's vertical velocity component a. changes most rapidly near the top of its trajectory. b. changes at a constant rate. c. changes most rapidly near the bottom of its trajectory. d. does not change.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. A projectile's horizontal velocity component (ignoring air resistance) a. does not change. b. changes most rapidly near the bottom of its trajectory. c. changes at a variable rate. d. changes at a constant rate.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. In projectile motion, which of the following is not constant? a. Vertical velocity b. Horizontal velocity c. Acceleration d. None of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. A golfer hits a ball on a level fairway at an angle of 60° relative to the horizontal, and it lands on the green.

Another golfer hits a ball with the same speed but at another angle, and it lands on the green by the other ball.

What was the launch angle for the second golfer? a. 30° b. 20° c. 45° d. 40° e. 10° ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. A golfer hits a ball on a level fairway at an angle of 30° relative to the horizontal, and it lands on the green.

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Chapter 02 - Motion Another golfer hits a ball with the same speed but at an angle of 60°, and it lands on the green by the other ball.

Which statement is accurate for this situation? a. One ball is in the air longer than the other. b. One ball experiences a greater acceleration while in free flight. c. One ball experiences a smaller acceleration while in free flight. d. Two balls hit at the same speed but different angles will always land in the same location. e. Two balls hit at the same speed but different angles can never land in the same location.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. When running and jumping to score, a basketball player seems to “hang” in the air because a. his or her acceleration is zero. b. his or her horizontal velocity is quite small. c. both components of motion are zero. d. his or her vertical velocity is quite small. e. levitation is possible with practice.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. A continuous change in position is called ______________.

ANSWER: motion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 52. The straight-line distance and direction between two points are, together, called ______________.

ANSWER: displacement POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 53. Distance is a(n) ______________ quantity.

ANSWER: scalar POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 54. A speedometer registers ______________.

ANSWER: instantaneous speed POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 55. A compass registers ______________.

ANSWER: direction Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02 - Motion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 56. Speed is a(n) ______________ quantity.

ANSWER: scalar POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 57. For there to be an acceleration, there must necessarily be a change in ______________.

ANSWER: velocity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 58. If an object has a constant velocity, then its acceleration is ______________.

ANSWER: zero POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 59. In free fall, the ______________ is constant.

ANSWER: acceleration POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 60. Physics deals with matter, motion, force, and ______________.

ANSWER: energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 61. Physics deals with force, energy, motion, and ______________.

ANSWER: matter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 62. Free-fall motion neglects ______________.

ANSWER: frictional effects, or air resistance POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 63. A rifle bullet shot horizontally has a vertical acceleration of ______________.

ANSWER: 9.8 m/s2, or 32 ft/s2 (gravity) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02 - Motion 64. Dropped objects on the Moon fall at a slower rate than on Earth because of a smaller ______________.

ANSWER: acceleration due to gravity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 65. The distance a dropped object travels is proportional to the ______________ of the time.

ANSWER: square POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 66. In straight-line motion, if a moving object slows down, the direction of the acceleration is ______________ the direction of the velocity.

ANSWER: opposite to, or antiparallel to POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 67. In straight-line motion, if a moving object speeds up, the direction of the acceleration is ______________ the direction of the velocity.

ANSWER: along, the same as, or parallel to POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 68. On Earth, the magnitude of the acceleration of a vertical projectile at its maximum height is equal to ______________.

ANSWER: g, or 9.8 m/s2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 69. On Earth, the magnitude of the velocity of a vertical projectile at its maximum height is equal to ______________.

ANSWER: zero POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 70. A(n) ______________ quantity has both magnitude and direction.

ANSWER: vector POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 71. A(n) ______________ quantity has only magnitude.

ANSWER: scalar POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02 - Motion 72. Temperature is an example of a(n) ______________ quantity.

ANSWER: scalar POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 73. An object moving in a circle with a constant speed has a(n) ______________ directed toward the center of the circle.

ANSWER: acceleration POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 74. ______________ acceleration is necessary for uniform circular motion.

ANSWER: Centripetal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 75. What two quantities are constant in uniform circular motion? ______________ and ______________ ANSWER: radial distance (radius); speed POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 76. The SI unit of centripetal acceleration is ______________. meters per second squared (m/s2) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer ANSWER:

77. The centripetal acceleration of an automobile in uniform circular motion on a flat circular track is supplied by ______________.

ANSWER: friction POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 78. For an object in uniform circular motion, the acceleration points toward ______________.

ANSWER: the center of the circle POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 79. A rifle bullet shot horizontally at a velocity of 9.8 m/s has a horizontal acceleration of ______________.

ANSWER: zero POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 80. Two objects are in uniform circular motion at the same speed but at different radii. The one with the Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02 - Motion ______________ radius has the largest centripetal acceleration.

ANSWER: smallest or least POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 81. At the maximum height of a projectile launched at an angle to the horizontal, the projectile's velocity is in a ______________ direction.

ANSWER: horizontal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. Under ideal conditions, a projectile with a given initial speed at an angle of 15° has the same range as a projectile at an angle of ______________ with the same initial speed.

ANSWER: 75° POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 83. Because of air resistance, an object falling a great distance may reach a ______________ velocity.

ANSWER: terminal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 84. A student travels from St. Louis to Indianapolis, a distance of 210 mi, in 6.0 h. The return trip over the same route takes 7.0 h. What is the average speed for a. the first half of the trip? b. the second half of the trip? c. the total trip?

ANSWER: a. 35 mi/h b. 30 mi/h c. 32 mi/h POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 85. On a trip, a family travels 200 km in 2.5 h on the first day, 300 km in 4.0 h on the second day, and 250 km in 3.5 h on the third day. What was the average speed, in kilometers per hour, for the total trip?

ANSWER: 75 km/h POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. An automobile traveling on a straight, level road at 25 km/h speeds up to 70 km/h in 20 s. What was the magnitude of the auto's acceleration, in meters per second squared?

ANSWER: 0.62 m/s2 POINTS:

1

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Chapter 02 - Motion QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 87. An object is dropped (g = 9.80 m/s2) and falls for 5.00 s before hitting the ground. a. How far has the object fallen? b. What is the final velocity? c. What is the final acceleration?

ANSWER: a. 123 m b. 49 m/s, downward c. 9.80 m/s2, downward POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 88. A ball is thrown up in the air with an initial velocity of 58.8 m/s upward. How long does it take the ball a. to go up? b. to come down after reaching maximum height?

ANSWER: a. 6.0 s b. 6.0 s POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 89. The following data refer to a car traveling west: t (s) 0 1 2 3 4 -------------------------v (m/s) 30 25 20 15 10 Find the magnitude and direction of the acceleration.

ANSWER: –5.0 m/s2, or 5.0 m/s2 east POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 90. A car travels at a constant speed of 95.0 km/h around a circular track with a diameter of 1.00 km. What is the magnitude of the car's centripetal acceleration, and what supplies this?

ANSWER: 1.39 m/s2, friction POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 91. The following are data for an accelerating car: t (s) 0 5 10 15 20 -----------------------v (m/s) 0 3 6 9 12 a. Is this car undergoing uniform acceleration? b. If so, what is the acceleration?

ANSWER: a. Yes b. 0.6 m/s2 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02 - Motion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 92. A ball dropped from the top of a building hits the ground 9.0 s later. How high is the building (in meters)?

ANSWER: 400 m (rounded to two significant figures) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. On the Moon, what is the approximate value for the acceleration due to gravity?

ANSWER: 1.6 m/s2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 94. A stone is dropped from the top of a well that has water in it at a depth of 30.0 m. How long does it take the stone to reach the water?

ANSWER: 2.5 s POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. A rock dropped down a well takes 1.8 s to hit the water. How far below the top of the well is the surface of the water?

ANSWER: 16 m POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 96. What is the displacement of a hiker who travels 3.0 km east and then 4.0 km north?

ANSWER: 5.0 km POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 97. An ant on a picnic table travels 30 cm eastward, then 15 cm northward, then 20 cm westward, and finally 15 cm southward. What is the magnitude of its net displacement?

ANSWER: 10 cm POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion 1. The essentials of the first law of motion were initially developed by a. Aristotle. b. Galileo. c. Newton. d. an unknown scientist.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. The natural tendency of an object to remain at rest or in motion with a constant velocity is called a. an external force. b. an unbalanced force. c. inertia. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. A mass is accelerated when ______________ acts upon the mass. a. a balanced force b. any force c. no force d. an unbalanced force e. none of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Mass is a measure of a. inertia. b. force. c. grams. d. weight. e. kilograms.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. Two equal and opposite forces of 6.0 N act on an object. The unbalanced force on the object a. is 6.0 N. b. is 0 N. c. is 8 N. Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion d. is 12 N. e. cannot be determined from given information.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. An automobile travels due north with a constant speed of 81 km/h. All forces considered, the unbalanced force acting on the auto is a. zero. b. southward. c. northward. d. downward. e. upward.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. An automobile travels due north with a speed of 68 km/h and an acceleration of 1.5 m/s2. All forces considered, the unbalanced force acting on the auto is a. zero. b. southward. c. northward. d. downward. e. upward.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. An automobile travels due north with a speed of 77 km/h that is decreasing. All forces considered, the unbalanced force acting on the auto is a. zero. b. southward. c. northward. d. downward. e. upward.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. A constant net force acting on an object that is free to move will produce a constant a. speed. b. velocity.

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion c. displacement. d. acceleration. e. distance.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. The acceleration produced by an unbalanced force acting on an object is a. inversely proportional to the mass of the object. b. directly proportional to the magnitude of the force. c. in the direction of the force. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. The SI base units making up the newton are a. kg m/s. b. g m/s2. c. kg m/s2. d. kg2/s.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. When a net force on a moving object increases, the object will a. maintain the same velocity. b. always show an increase in speed. c. exhibit a change in speed and/or direction. d. maintain a constant acceleration.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. Mass and weight on Earth's surface a. are the same thing. b. are defined solely by inertia. c. are explained by Newton's third law. d. differ in magnitude by a constant. e. are explained by Kepler's second law.

ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. A spacecraft in space keeps going at the same velocity, even without firing its rockets, in accordance with the _______________ law of motion. a. fourth b. first c. second d. third ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. If a person weighs 108 lb on Earth, that person's weight on the Moon would be a. 648 lb. b. 54 lb. c. 18 lb. d. 108 lb. e. 54 lb.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. If an object of mass 6 kg has an acceleration of 9 m/s2, what is the unbalanced force acting on it? a. 54 N b. 0.67 N c. 1.5 N d. 15 N e. cannot be determined ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. When you push on a stationary object on a horizontal surface and it doesn't move, what kind of force is most likely opposing your efforts? a. Static friction force b. Sliding friction force c. Lubricant friction force d. Gravitational force e. Normal Force ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. It is generally easier to push an object once it is moving than when you are getting it started. This is because a. sliding friction is zero. b. sliding friction is less than static friction. c. static friction is less than sliding friction. d. static friction is zero.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. An automobile air bag a. increases the contact time in stopping a person. b. reduces the impact force in a collision. c. increases the surface area of the impact force. d. does all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. On which planet (other than Earth) have air bags been deployed? a. Venus b. Mars c. Mercury d. Saturn ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. An object will ______________ in a fluid if its average density is ______________ the density of the fluid. a. float; greater than b. float; less than c. sink; less than d. sink; equal to ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. An object will ______________ in a fluid if its average density is ______________ the density of the fluid. a. sink; greater than b. float; equal to c. sink; less than Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion d. float; twice ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. The buoyant force of an object is equal to the ______________ of the ______________ it displaces. a. mass; fluid b. weight; fluid c. mass; solid d. weight; solid ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. ______________ principle explains why objects float or sink in a fluid. a. Newton's b. Pascal's c. Bernoulli's d. Archimedes' ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. If an object of mass 8 kg has a velocity of 7 m/s, what is its linear momentum? a. 56 kg-m/s b. 1.1 kg-m/s c. 0.88 kg-m/s d. 15 kg-m/s e. cannot be determined ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. If the lever arm of a 9-N force is 6 m, what is the torque acting on the object due to this force? a. 54 Nm b. 1.5 Nm c. 0.67 Nm d. 15 Nm e. cannot be determined ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. If an unbalanced force of 8 N force acts on a 7-kg object, what is its acceleration? a. 56 m/s2 b. 1.1 m/s2 c. 0.88 m/s2 d. 15 m/s2 e. cannot be determined ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. If an object on Earth weighs 100 N, what is its weight in pounds? a. 22 b. 100 c. 10 d. 220 e. 450 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. Which of the following would be different for a person on the Moon rather than on Earth? a. Weight b. Height c. Volume d. Mass ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. Which of the following would be the same for a person on the Moon rather than on Earth? a. Maximum jumping height b. Weight c. The amount of time for an object to fall 2 meters from rest d. Mass e. Gravitational acceleration ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. The relationship between mass and weight is given by the equation Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion a. m = wg. b. w = m/g. c. g = mw. d. w = mg.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. “For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction” is a statement of Newton's a. law of universal gravitation. b. first law. c. second law. d. third law.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. Newton's third law of motion states that the force pair acting on different objects consists of two forces that a. are under the influence of gravity. b. are equal and in the same direction. c. always produce an acceleration. d. are equal and in opposite directions.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. According to Newton's second law, the force required to accelerate an object is equal to a. its acceleration divided by its mass. b. its mass times the acceleration. c. its mass divided by the velocity. d. its weight times the velocity.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. In the equation A = B/C, the A and C are said to be _______________ proportional. a. directly b. inversely c. not d. exactly ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. In the equation A = B/C, the A and B are said to be _______________ proportional. a. directly b. inversely c. not d. exactly ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. In the equation A = B/C, the B and C are said to be _______________ proportional. a. directly b. inversely c. not d. exactly ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. Newton's law of universal gravitation is believed to be applicable a. to the Milky Way only. b. on Earth and the Moon only. c. throughout the universe. d. to the solar system only. e. on Earth only.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. “Weightlessness” occurs when an object a. has zero acceleration. b. is in free fall. c. is midway between Earth and the Moon. d. loses weight.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. The gravitational pull of Earth acting on an object is zero when the object a. has zero acceleration.

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion b. is in free fall. c. is midway between Earth and the Moon. d. is in orbit around Earth. e. none of these ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. Two of your classmates, each 82 kg, are separated by 4 meters. The gravitational force of attraction between them in nano-newtons is a. 1.4 nN b. 0.3 nN c. 0.0 nN d. 41.2 nN e. 28.0 nN ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. The constant G that appears in the equation F = Gm1m2/r2 is a. smaller on the Moon than on Earth. b. the force of gravity. c. equal to g. d. the acceleration due to gravity. e. a universal constant.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The constant G that appears in the equation F = Gm1m2/r2 is a. smaller on the Moon than on Earth. b. the force of gravity. c. equal to 9.8 m/s2. d. the acceleration due to gravity. e. equal to 6.67 x 10-11 Nm2/kg2.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. The variable r that appears in the equation F = Gm1m2/r2 is a. the straight-line distance between the centers of the two masses.

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion b. the rate at which both objects are moving. c. the radius of the first mass. d. the radius of the second mass.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. The variables m1 and m2 that appear in the equation F = Gm1m2/r2 are a. the straight-line distance between the centers of each object. b. the rate at which each object is moving. c. the mass of each object. d. the diameter of each object.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The acceleration of an object acted on by a net force perpendicular to the direction of the object's original motion a. causes a change in direction. b. is described by Newton's laws. c. causes a change in velocity. d. all of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. To cause an object to move in a circle, a ______________ force is necessary. a. balanced b. functional c. centripetal d. centrifugal ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. The force required to move a 90.0 kg object in a 85.0 m circle at a constant speed of 8.10 m/s is a. 0.0 N b. 69.5 N c. 0.77 N d. 8.58 N ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. The linear momentum of an object can be determined by taking the product of the mass and the a. acceleration of the object. b. velocity of the object. c. distance the object moves. d. displacement of the object.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. The quantity mvr is an object's a. inertia. b. torque. c. linear momentum. d. angular momentum.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. Linear momentum a. has the units of mass times acceleration. b. has magnitude and direction. c. is a scalar quantity. d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. The linear momentum of a 100.0 kg object moving around a 30.0 m circle at a constant speed of 2.20 m/s is a. 0.0 N b. 220 N c. 242 N d. 6600 N ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. The angular momentum of a 100.0 kg object moving around a 75.0 m circle at a constant speed of 3.90 m/s is a. 0.0 N Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion b. 29250 N c. 761 N d. 390 N ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. In an equation, the symbol m generally stands for a. inertia. b. torque. c. momentum. d. mass. e. meters.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. What must be exerted on an object to change the angular momentum? a. Linear momentum b. Torque c. A force parallel to the motion d. Inertia ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. The total linear momentum of an isolated system of masses remains the same if there are no external ______________ acting on the system. a. forces b. torques c. unbalanced forces d. unbalanced torques ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. The angular momentum of a body is constant if the a. net torque is zero. b. net force is constant. c. net torque is constant. d. net force is zero.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. The speed of a comet in its orbit around the Sun is ______________ when its distance from the Sun is greatest (aphelion). a. zero b. reversed c. greatest d. least ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. The speed of a comet in its orbit around the Sun is ______________ when its distance from the Sun is least (perihelion). a. zero b. reversed c. greatest d. least ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. A change in motion requires a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: force (unbalanced or net) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 61. To initiate motion, a(n) ______________ force is necessary.

ANSWER: unbalanced, or net POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 62. A quantity that is capable of producing motion or a change in motion is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: force POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 63. Force is a(n) ______________ quantity.

ANSWER: vector POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion 64. An acceleration is evidence of ______________.

ANSWER: an unbalanced (net) force POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 65. a = F/m is a statement of ______________.

ANSWER: Newton's second law POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 66. An indication of an object's inertia is given by its ______________.

ANSWER: mass POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 67. The natural tendency of an object to remain at rest or in uniform straight-line motion is called ______________.

ANSWER: inertia POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 68. In keeping with Newton's second law of motion, if the force acting on a moving object is doubled, then its ______________ is doubled.

ANSWER: acceleration POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 69. An astronaut on the Moon has the same mass as when on Earth,but has a different ______________.

ANSWER: weight POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 70. Forces always occur in ______________.

ANSWER: pairs POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 71. The acceleration of an object with a zero net force acting on it is ______________.

ANSWER: zero POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 72. In the SI, weight is expressed in units of ______________.

ANSWER: newtons Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 73. An apple weighs approximately one ______________.

ANSWER: newton (N) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 74. Newton's third law force pair acts on ______________ objects.

ANSWER: different POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 75. For Newton's third law, the action and reaction forces are equal in ______________ and opposite in direction.

ANSWER: magnitude POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 76. A student stands on a chair. The forces acting on her or him are supplied by gravity acting downward and by the ______________ acting upward.

ANSWER: chair POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 77. Jet propulsion can be explained in terms of Newton's third law and the ______________.

ANSWER: conservation of momentum POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 78. Newton's third law of motion states that whenever one object exerts a force upon a second object, the second object exerts a(n) ______________ and ______________ force upon the first object.

ANSWER: equal; opposite POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 79. A(n) ______________ force is necessary for uniform circular motion.

ANSWER: centripetal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 80. In Newton's law of universal gravitation, F = Gm1m2/r2 for uniform objects, the quantity r is______________.

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion ANSWER:

the distance between the centers of m1 and m2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 81. ______________ is the symbol for the universal gravitational constant.

ANSWER: G POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. For Newton's third law, the action and reaction forces are equal in magnitude and ______________ in direction.

ANSWER: opposite POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 83. Newton's law of gravitation applies to all ______________.

ANSWER: particles POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 84. Linear momentum is the product of mass times ______________.

ANSWER: velocity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 85. Linear momentum has units of ______________.

ANSWER: kg-m/s POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. G (big G) is not a(n) ______________, as g (little g) is.

ANSWER: acceleration POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 87. Angular momentum has units of ______________.

ANSWER: kg-m2/s POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 88. The linear momentum of an object is conserved if there are no ______________ forces acting on it.

ANSWER: unbalanced, or net POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. The law of conservation of angular momentum states that the angular momentum of an object remains constant if there are no external ______________ torques acting.

ANSWER: unbalanced (or net) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. An unbalanced force of 42 N is applied to a mass of 7.0 kg. What will be the resulting acceleration?

ANSWER: 6.0 m/s2 (in the direction of the force) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 91. What is the mass in kilograms of an astronaut on the Moon who weighs 185 lb on Earth?

ANSWER: 84 kg POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. What is the force of gravity acting on a 1-kg mass? (g = 9.8 m/s2) ANSWER: 9.8 N POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. Calculate the force on a string tied to a ceiling with a 9.0-kg mass attached.

ANSWER: 88 N POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. An automobile with a mass of 2000 kg is moving north on a level, straight highway with a constant velocity of 80 km/h. What is the unbalanced force acting on the automobile?

ANSWER: F=0 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. A force of 100 N applied to an object produces an acceleration of 4.00 m/s2. Determine the force needed to give the object an acceleration of 16.0 m/s2.

ANSWER: 400 N POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion 96. Calculate the centripetal force on a 3.0-kg object moving in a horizontal circular path of 20-m radius with a speed of 8.0 m/s.

ANSWER: 9.6 N POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 97. A 6.0-kg object exerts a force of 8.0 N on a 2.0-kg object. What is the magnitude of the force on the 6.0-kg object?

ANSWER: 8.0 N POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 98. To increase the force of gravity between two masses by a factor of 9, how would the objects have to be moved?

ANSWER: 3 times closer together POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 99. Two carts (A's mass = 4.5 kg and B's mass = 1.5 kg) are held against a strong, compressed spring. The carts are released simultaneously, and B moves off to the right with a speed of 2.0 m/s. What is A's initial velocity?

ANSWER: 0.67 m/s to the left POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. A stationary but movable 450-kg cannon is fired, and the 12-kg cannonball moves off to the right with a velocity of 20.0 m/s. What is the cannon's velocity (neglecting friction or any restraints)?

ANSWER: 0.53 m/s to the left POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 101. A 0.065-kg bullet travels with a velocity of magnitude 90 km/h. What is the bullet's linear momentum?

ANSWER: 1.6 kg-m/s in the direction of the velocity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 102. When you push on a stationary object and it doesn't move, what kind of force is most likely to be opposing your efforts?

ANSWER: POINTS:

Static friction 1

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Chapter 03 - Force and Motion QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. It is generally easier to push an object once it is moving than when one is getting it started. Why is this?

ANSWER: Sliding friction is less than static friction.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 104. What is the purpose of having automobile air bags?

ANSWER: Answers may vary: -Reduce the impact force in a collision -Increase the contact time in stopping a person -Increase the surface area of the impact force -Increase survivability -Decrease injuries POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 105. A comet is traveling at a speed of 50,000 mi/h when it is 100 million miles from the Sun. Compute its speed when it is 25 million miles from the Sun. ANSWER: 200,000 mi/h POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy 1. Work is defined as force times a. distance. b. time. c. parallel distance. d. perpendicular distance.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. A joule/meter (J/m) is a unit of a. force. b. work. c. energy. d. power.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. A joule per second (J/s) is a a. Watt. b. Newton. c. Kilogram. d. Second.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Which of the following is not a unit of work? a. ft · lb b. N · m c. joule d. watt ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. Work requires a. motion. b. zero net force. c. zero momentum. d. a force perpendicular to the direction of motion.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. The ______________ distance is used in calculating work. a. normal b. square of c. perpendicular d. parallel ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. Which of the following is a vector quantity? a. Energy b. Power c. Work d. None of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. Which of the following is a vector quantity? a. Force b. Power c. Work d. Time e. None of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. The quantity

is known as

a. kinetic energy. b. potential energy. c. work. d. energy. e. power.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy 10. The energy of motion is called a. inertia. b. power. c. kinetic energy. d. potential energy.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. An object of mass 2 kg has a speed of 8 m/s and moves a distance of 6 m. What is its kinetic energy in joules? a. 64 b. 48 c. 289 d. 16 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. An object has kinetic energy of 324 J. If its speed is 9 m/s, what is its mass? a. 8 b. 36 c. 1620 d. 324 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. A 4-kg object falls vertically a distance of 5 m. Its potential energy has changed by approximately how much? a. It has increased by 20 J. b. It has decreased by 200 J. c. It has decreased by 20 J. d. It has increased by 200 J. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. When a 6-kg object increases its potential energy by 180 J, approximately how has its position changed? a. It has risen vertically 3 m. b. It has fallen vertically 3 m. c. It has risen vertically 30 m.

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy d. It has moved horizontally 30 m.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. A 1000-kg car traveling at 70 m/s takes 3 m to stop under full braking. The same car under similar road conditions, traveling at 140 m/s, takes ______________ m to stop under full braking. a. 6 b. 1 c. 3 d. 12 e. 11 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. A student weighing 300 N climbed a flight of stairs 5.0 m high in 6 s. How much work was done by the student? a. 1500 J b. 1800 J c. 1500 W d. 1800 W e. 50 W ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. A student weighing 200 N climbs a flight of stairs 9.0 m high in 4 s. What power is required to perform this task? a. 1800 J b. 800 J c. 1800 W d. 800 W e. 450 W ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. The kinetic energy of a pendulum is greatest a. when its potential energy is greatest. b. at the top of its swing. c. at the bottom of its swing.

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy d. when its total energy is greatest.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. The potential energy of a pendulum is least a. when its potential energy is greatest. b. at the top of its swing. c. at the bottom of its swing. d. when its total energy is greatest.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. The kinetic energy of a pendulum is least a. when its potential energy is least. b. at the top of its swing. c. at the bottom of its swing. d. when its total energy is greatest.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. The potential energy of a pendulum is greatest a. when its potential energy is least. b. at the top of its swing. c. at the bottom of its swing. d. when its total energy is greatest.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. Which of the following four objects has the greatest kinetic energy? a. An object of mass m moving with speed 4v b. An object of mass 3m moving with speed 2v c. An object of mass 4m moving with speed v d. An object of mass 2m moving with speed 3v e. None of these; all four objects have the same kinetic energy.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy 23. Which of the following four objects has the least kinetic energy? a. An object of mass m moving with speed 4v b. An object of mass 3m moving with speed 2v c. An object of mass 4m moving with speed v d. An object of mass 2m moving with speed 3v e. None of these; all four objects have the same kinetic energy.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. Which of the following four objects has different kinetic energy? a. An object of mass m moving with speed 4v b. An object of mass 4m moving with speed 2v c. An object of mass 16m moving with speed v d. An object of mass 2m moving with speed 3v e. None of these; all four objects have the same kinetic energy.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. The energy of position is called a. potential energy. b. power. c. kinetic energy. d. heat.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. Potential-energy values may be a. positive only. b. negative only. c. zero only. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. If you lift a 15-N weight vertically 30 m above the ground, you are a. doing work against gravity. b. doing work against friction. c. doing work against inertia.

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy d. doing none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. We define the total mechanical energy of an object as a. potential energy plus kinetic energy. b. inertial energy plus kinetic energy. c. gravitational energy plus potential energy. d. mental energy plus physical energy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. The energy of a system a. always increases. b. always remains constant. c. decreases when work is done by the system. d. decreases when work is done on the system.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. The energy of a system a. always increases. b. always remains constant. c. increases when work is done by the system. d. increases when work is done on the system.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. Mechanical energy a. is always the total energy of a system. b. is the sum of the energies of motion and position. c. is always conserved. d. necessarily involves gravitational potential energy.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. Mechanical energy Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy a. is the automobile energy. b. is the sum of kinetic and potential energies. c. is the kinetic energy. d. is the potential energy.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. A system may a. be isolated. b. have real boundaries. c. have imaginary boundaries. d. all of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. Power is a. work divided by time. b. velocity multiplied by time. c. momentum divided by time. d. energy multiplied by time.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. Power is a. the time rate of doing work. b. the time rate of doing velocity. c. the time rate of doing momentum. d. the time rate of doing force.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. One watt is equal to ______________ per second. a. one kilogram b. one newton c. one joule d. one meter ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. One ______________ is equal to one joule per second. a. kilogram b. newton c. pound d. watt ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. One watt is equal to one joule per ______________. a. second b. newton c. hour d. kilogram ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. Which of the following is not a unit of power? a. ft · lb/s b. N · m c. J/s d. watt ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. Which of the following is not a unit of power? a. ft · lb/s b. kW · h c. J/s d. watt ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. What is bought from an electric company? a. Electrical energy b. Electric charge Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy c. Electrical power d. None of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. A kilowatt-hour is a unit that measures a. work per unit of time. b. energy. c. power. d. work × time.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. Which of the following is a unit of power? a. kilowatt-hour b. newton c. joules per second d. foot-pound e. none of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. Which of the following is a unit of energy? a. kilowatt-hour b. newton c. joules per second d. newton-second e. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity? a. Kinetic energy b. Potential energy c. Power d. Work e. None of these; that is, they are all scalar quantities.

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The average adult radiates heat energy at the same rate as a. a 10-W light bulb. b. a 100-kW light bulb. c. a 100-W light bulb. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. The largest reserve of energy in the United States is in what form? a. Oil b. Natural gas c. Coal d. Nuclear ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. Currently, in the United States, which fuel has the largest consumption? a. Oil b. Natural gas c. Coal d. Nuclear ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. Currently, in the United States, which fuel is utilized to produce the majority of electrical power? a. Oil b. Natural gas c. Coal d. Nuclear ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. Currently, in the United States, which sector of the economy uses the most energy? a. Industry Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy b. Transportation c. Commercial d. Residential ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. Although the United States has less than 5% of the world's population, it accounts for approximately ______________ of the world's annual consumption of fossil fuels. a. 15% b. 25% c. 35% d. 45% ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. "Ice that burns" is better known as a. propane. b. frozen oil. c. coal. d. methane hydrate.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. Which of the following is(are) drawbacks to the use of methane hydrate as a fuel? a. When melted, it produces methane, a greenhouse gas. b. It is difficult to mine as a solid located at the bottom of the oceans. c. It is mixed with water. d. All of these are drawbacks associated with methane hydrate.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. One positive aspect of the potential use of methane hydrate as a fuel is that a. there is more of it than there is of coal, oil, and natural gas. b. it is easy to mine. c. its use will never contribute to global warming. d. it exists in a pure form ready for use.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. It is estimated that the global reserve of methane hydrate is ______________ the global reserves of coal, oil, and natural gas. a. equal to b. less than c. twice d. ten times ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. Some food costs may rise in the future as a consequence of the increased use of which food-based fuel? a. Ethanol b. Gasoline c. Oil d. Coal ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. A mixture of ethanol and gasoline is called a. ethaline. b. gasanine. c. gasohol. d. gethanine.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. For which of the following reasons is production of ethanol unwise? a. Pollutants aren't significantly reduced. b. It takes twice as much fossil-fuel energy to produce ethanol than the ethanol that is produced supplies. c. It can drive costs of corn higher. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. Which of the following sources of energy presents the fewest pollution problems under normal operating conditions? a. Coal Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy b. Natural gas c. Nuclear fission d. Hydroelectric power ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. Energy provided directly from Earth's interior is called a. groundwater energy. b. geothermal energy. c. artesian energy. d. thermionic energy.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. The process by which electricity can be generated by using running or falling water is known as a. groundwater generation. b. hydroelectric generation. c. geothermal generation. d. steam generation.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. Work is the process by which energy is ______________.

ANSWER: transferred POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 63. The product of force times parallel distance is called ______________.

ANSWER: work POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 64. The product of one ______________ and one meter is one joule.

ANSWER: newton POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 65. The units of work are the same as those of ______________.

ANSWER: energy Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 66. In lifting an object, work is done against ______________.

ANSWER: gravity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 67. In pushing an object on a level surface, work is done against ______________.

ANSWER: friction POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 68. The two types of mechanical energy are ______________ and ______________.

ANSWER: kinetic energy; potential energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 69. The kinetic energy of a pendulum is ______________ at the bottom of its swing.

ANSWER: maximum (or greatest) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 70. The sum of the kinetic energy and potential energy is called ______________ energy.

ANSWER: mechanical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 71. Kinetic and potential energies are forms of ______________ energy.

ANSWER: mechanical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 72. Energy resulting from motion is called ______________.

ANSWER: kinetic energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 73. A system for which there are no outside effects is said to be ______________.

ANSWER: isolated POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy 74. In changing from one form to another, energy is always ______________.

ANSWER: conserved POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 75. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of ______________.

ANSWER: energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 76. According to the law of conservation of energy, energy cannot be ______________ or ______________.

ANSWER: created; destroyed POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 77. When the kinetic energy of a simple pendulum decreases, the ______________ of the pendulum increases.

ANSWER: potential energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 78. When a moving object's velocity doubles, its kinetic energy increases by a factor of ______________.

ANSWER: 4 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 79. When the height of an object is doubled, its gravitational potential energy is increased by a factor of ______________.

ANSWER: 2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 80. The value of an object's gravitational potential energy depends on the ______________.

ANSWER: reference point POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 81. A negative potential energy may be made positive by changing the ______________ point.

ANSWER: reference POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. Gravitational potential energy is equal to the ______________ of an object times its height.

ANSWER: weight, or milligrams Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 83. With a constant braking force, the stopping distance of a car is proportional to ______________.

ANSWER: the square of the velocity (v2) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 84. The time rate of doing work is called ______________.

ANSWER: power POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 85. A horsepower is a unit of power equal to 550 ______________.

ANSWER: ft-lb/s POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. A 2-hp motor can do the same amount of work as a 1-hp motor in ______________ the time. n ANSWER: half POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 87. A watt is one ______________ per second.

ANSWER: joule POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 88. The SI unit of power is the ______________.

ANSWER: watt POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. The United States' most abundant fuel supply is ______________.

ANSWER: coal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. Energy sources that would be nonpolluting supplements to our energy are called ______________ fuels.

ANSWER: alternative POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy 91. Besides fossil fuels, the only other significant commercial sources of energy are ______________ and ______________.

ANSWER: nuclear; hydropower POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. A force of 7.2 N acting on a 1.0-kg object initially at rest moves it through a parallel distance of 2.5 m. How much work is done on the object?

ANSWER: 18 J POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. A force of 7.2 N acting on a 1.0-kg object initially at rest moves it through a parallel distance of 2.5 m.

Neglecting friction, what is the speed of the object when it is moved 2.5 m?

ANSWER: 6.0 m/s POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. A stone is dropped from a bridge 15 m above a river. With what speed does the stone hit the water?

ANSWER: 17 m/s POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. A 0.10-kg ball is dropped from a height of 10 m and rebounds to a height of 8.0 m. a. Is energy conserved in the ball? b. If not, how much energy was lost, and what happened to it?

ANSWER: a. No b. 2.0 J, lost primarily to frictional heat POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 96. A student weighing 700 N climbs a flight of stairs 5.0 m high. Calculate the work done.

ANSWER: 3.5  103 J POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 97. A student weighing 700 N climbs a flight of stairs 5.0 m high in 10 s. What power was required?

ANSWER: 3.5  102 W POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy 98. A ball is dropped from an upper-story dorm window. Neglecting air resistance, what is the speed of the ball when it has fallen 2.5 m?

ANSWER: 7.0 m/s POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 99. The bob of a simple pendulum is 0.50 m above the floor at its lowest position. Calculate the maximum speed of the bob when it is held at a maximum height of 2.5 m and released.

ANSWER: 6.3 m/s POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. A student with a 5.0-kg book bag on her way to class climbs two flights of stairs (a 10-m vertical distance) in 15 s. At what rate did the student do work in carrying the book bag up the stairs?

ANSWER: 33 W POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 101. Given 10 kWh of electricity and assuming no losses, how much work, in joules, could be done?

ANSWER: 3.6  107 J POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 102. A force of 12 N acts on a 2.0-kg object through a parallel distance of 1.5 m. How much work is done on the object?

ANSWER: 18 J POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. A 5.0-kg object is lifted 1.1 m from the floor to a table. What is the object's gravitational potential energy relative to the floor?

ANSWER: 54 J POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 104. A 5.00-kg object is lifted from the floor to a shelf. The object's new gravitational potential energy relative to the floor is 102 J. What is the height of the shelf?

ANSWER: POINTS:

2.08 m 1

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Chapter 04 - Work and Energy QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 105. Work in the amount of 280 J is done in lifting an object a distance of 4.0 m in a time of 7.0 s. a. How much force did it take to lift the object? b. What was the power input?

ANSWER: a. 70 N b. 40 W POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 106. Car B is traveling twice as fast as car A, but car A has twice the mass of car B. Which car has the greater kinetic energy and by what factor is it greater?

ANSWER: Car B, greater by a factor of 2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat 1. A temperature of degrees 290 Fahrenheit is equivalent to _____ degrees Celsius. a. 62.6 b. 554.0 c. 143.3 d. 17.0 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. A temperature of degrees 250 Celsius is equivalent to _____ degrees Fahrenheit. a. –9.4 b. 482.0 c. 121.1 d. –23.0 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. A temperature of degrees 260 Celsius is equivalent to _____ Kelvin. a. 8.6 b. 533.2 c. 126.7 d. –13.0 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. A temperature of degrees 5 Fahrenheit is equivalent to _____ Kelvin. a. 258.2 b. 278.0 c. –15.0 d. –268.0 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. A temperature of –65 Kelvin is equivalent to _____ degrees Celsius. a. 219.1 b. 208.0 c. –53.9 d. –338.2 ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. A temperature of –65 Kelvin is equivalent to _____ degrees Fahrenheit. a. –576.7 b. 208.0 c. –53.9 d. –338.0 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. Temperature is a relative measure of a. latent heat. b. hotness and coldness. c. internal energy. d. specific heat.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. A digital thermometer can make readings to the tenth of a degree at either the Celsius setting or the Fahrenheit setting. Which reading would be more precise? a. The Fahrenheit setting, since 1 degree Fahrenheit is smaller than 1 degree Celsius b. The Fahrenheit setting, since 1 degree Celsius is smaller than 1 degree Fahrenheit c. The Celsius setting, since 1 degree Fahrenheit is smaller than 1 degree Celsius d. The Celsius setting, since 1 degree Celsius is smaller than 1 degree Fahrenheit ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. The Celsius degree is a. the same size as the Fahrenheit degree. b. larger than the kelvin. c. the same size as the kelvin. d. smaller than the Fahrenheit degree.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. Which of the following temperature scales has the smallest unit interval? a. Celsius Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat b. Kelvin c. Fahrenheit d. None of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. In measuring any temperature less than 500 Fahrenheit, which of the following scales will have the highest numeric reading? a. Fahrenheit b. Celsius c. Kelvin d. None of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. One kelvin unit is equivalent to a. 9/5 Fahrenheit degrees. b. 1 Fahrenheit degree. c. 2 Celsius degrees. d. 1.8 Celsius degrees.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. The average kinetic energy of the molecules in a gas is a measure of a. volume. b. density. c. temperature. d. heat content.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. A large calorie (Cal) is the amount of heat needed to change the temperature of one ______________ of water by one Celsius degree. a. dekagram b. centigram c. gram d. kilogram ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. The SI unit of heat is the a. calorie. b. joule. c. kilocalorie. d. Btu. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. The units of specific heat are a. kcal-kg/°C. b. J/kg-°C. c. kcal-kg. d. J/kg.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. The amount of heat necessary to change the temperature of 1 kg of a substance 1°C is a. 1 cal. b. the specific heat. c. the heat difference. d. 1 J. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. Heat transfer that involves mass movement is a. temperature. b. conduction. c. convection. d. radiation.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. The Sun's rays are transmitted to Earth by means of a. radiation. b. convection.

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat c. temperature. d. conduction.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. The heating of a room by a fire in a fireplace is chiefly due to a. vaporization. b. radiation. c. convection. d. conduction.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. The insulation in walls uses which of the following methods to prevent heat transfer? a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. Conduction and convection e. All of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. Heat transfer from hot or cold liquids in a thermos bottle is prevented by ______________. a. convection b. conduction c. radiation d. all of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. A circular hole is drilled into an aluminum sheet. When the sheet is heated, the diameter of the hole will a. become smaller. b. become larger. c. depend on the thickness of the sheet. d. not be affected.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. Which of the following has the lowest thermal conductivity? a. Glass b. Iron c. Wood d. Styrofoam ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity? a. Air b. A newspaper c. A rug d. An aluminum saucepan ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. How much heat is necessary to change 10 g of ice at –20°C into water at 10°C? a. 0.02 kcal b. 0.2 kcal c. 1 kcal d. 0.08 kcal ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. How much heat is necessary to change 30 g of water at 10°C into water at 80°C? a. 0.21 kcal b. 2.1 kcal c. 4.5 kcal d. 0.51 kcal ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. On a winter day the temperature drops from –15°C to –25°C overnight. If a pan sitting outside contains 0.20 kg of ice, how much heat is removed from the ice for this temperature change? a. 0.1 kcal b. 1 kcal Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat c. 4 kcal d. 0.4 kcal ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. How much heat is required to melt 3.0 kg of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C? a. 240 kcal b. 0 kcal c. 1620 kcal d. 360 kcal ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. An ideal gas is confined to a container with an adjustable volume. If the number of molecules and the temperature are held constant, by what factor will the volume change when the pressure is quintupled? a. 25 b. 0.2 c. 0.04 d. 5 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. The number of molecules in a container is quadrupled and the Kelvin temperature quadrupled. The volume remains unchanged. The new pressure will be how many times greater than the original pressure? a. 16 b. 1 c. 20 d. 32 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. A sample of gas has its number of molecules quadrupled, its Kelvin temperature doubled, and its volume tripled. By what factor has the new pressure changed relative to the original pressure? a. 2.7 b. 1.7 c. 24.3 d. 24 ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. How much heat is necessary to change 10 g of water at 30°C into steam at 100°C? a. 0.07 kcal b. 0.7 kcal c. 6.1 kcal d. 0.67 kcal ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. How much heat is necessary to change 20 g of water at 100°C into steam at 100°C? a. 0.16 kcal b. 10800 kcal c. 10.8 kcal d. 1.6 kcal ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. A home fireplace loses most of its heat by a. radiation into the room. b. convection up the chimney. c. radiation up the chimney. d. conduction to the sides of the fireplace.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. A change of phase takes place at a constant a. temperature. b. volume. c. heat. d. pressure.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. The amount of heat necessary to change 1 kg of a solid into a liquid at the same temperature is called the a. entropy. b. melting point.

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat c. latent heat of vaporization. d. latent heat of fusion.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. The amount of heat necessary to change 1 kg of a liquid into a gas at the same temperature is called the a. entropy. b. boiling point. c. latent heat of vaporization. d. latent heat of fusion.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. The energy involved in a phase change is called the a. specific heat. b. thermal energy. c. internal energy. d. latent heat.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. Which laboratory observation would most support the kinetic theory's assumption that gas molecules have little attraction for one another? a. A gas expands when the pressure on it is released. b. A gas with a lower formula mass diffuses more rapidly than one with a higher formula mass. c. A gas exerts the same pressure on each part of a container's wall. d. A gas has mass.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. Which laboratory observation would most support the kinetic theory's assumption that molecules in a gas are widely separated? a. A gas exerts the same pressure on each part of a container's wall. b. A gas is highly compressible. c. A gas with a lower formula mass diffuses more rapidly than one with a higher formula mass. d. A gas expands when the pressure on it is released.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. At approximately what temperature does water have its greatest density? a. 4°C b. 100°C c. 0°C d. None of these; the density of water is constant at all temperatures.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. What happens to a sample of water when it is heated between 0°C and 4°C? a. Its volume increases. b. Its volume is reduced. c. It vaporizes. d. Nothing changes except its temperature.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. What happens to a sample of water when it is heated between 4°C and 100°C? a. Its volume increases. b. Its volume is reduced. c. It vaporizes. d. Nothing changes except its temperature.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. A constant volume and mass of helium gas at 77°C is heated so that the pressure of the gas doubles. What is the new temperature of the gas in Celsius degrees? a. 154°C b. 273°C c. 427°C d. 700°C ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. What happens to a sample of water when its temperature is reduced between 0°C and 4°C? a. Its density increases. b. It vaporizes.

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat c. Its density decreases. d. Its density remains constant.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. What happens to a sample of water when its temperature is reduced between 4°C and 100°C? a. Its density increases. b. It vaporizes. c. Its density decreases. d. Its density remains constant.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. When a material is found to have a definite volume but no definite shape, and when it assumes the shape of the container in which it is placed, what is the phase of the material? a. Gas b. Liquid c. Plasma d. Solid ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. When a material is found to have a definite volume and definite shape, and when it doesn't require a container to maintain its shape, what is the phase of the material? a. Gas b. Liquid c. Plasma d. Solid ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. When a material is found to have no definite volume and no definite shape, what is the phase of the material? a. Gas b. Liquid c. Plasma d. Solid ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. A ______________ is an ultra-hot collection of electrically charged particles. a. gas b. liquid c. plasma d. solid ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. If the temperature of a quantity of ideal gas increases, then a. the number of molecules must increase. b. the pressure must increase. c. the volume must increase. d. the product of the pressure and volume must increase.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. When heat is added to a closed system, it goes into a. work only. b. entropy only. c. internal energy only. d. either (A) or (C) or both.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. Which of the following is not directly involved in the second law of thermodynamics? a. Spontaneous heat flow b. Converting all heat input into work c. Conservation of energy d. Entropy ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. For every natural process, the entropy of the universe a. is destroyed. b. decreases.

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat c. increases. d. remains constant.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. A quantity that gives the direction of a thermodynamic process is a. entropy. b. efficiency. c. specific heat. d. energy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. A heat engine a. converts heat to work. b. converts heat to internal energy. c. transfers heat from a low-temperature reservoir. d. converts work to heat.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. The impossibility of reaching a temperature of absolute zero is incorporated in a. the third law of thermodynamics. b. the first law of thermodynamics. c. the second law of thermodynamics. d. an increase in entropy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. If 700 Joules of heat is added to a system, and the internal energy increases by 450 Joules, how much work is done by the system? a. –1150 J b. –250 J c. 700 J d. 250 J e. 1150 J ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. If 700 Joules of heat is added to a system, while the system does 550 Joules, by how much does the internal energy increase? a. –1250 J b. –150 J c. 700 J d. 150 J e. 1250 J ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. In a heat pump, a. heat is used to do work. b. heat flows spontaneously. c. the same process is used as in a heat engine. d. work is used to transfer heat.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. The Fahrenheit scale has a ______________ degree size than the Celsius scale.

ANSWER: smaller POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 63. The ______________ temperature scale has no negative readings.

ANSWER: Kelvin, or absolute POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 64. A common property used to measure temperature is the ______________ of materials.

ANSWER: thermal expansion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 65. Below 4°C, water ______________ with decreasing temperature.

ANSWER: expands POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 66. The ice point and the steam point of water are commonly called the ______________ point and the Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat ______________ point, respectively.

ANSWER: freezing (or melting); boiling POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 67. The SI unit of heat is the ______________.

ANSWER: joule (J) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 68. Water has a specific heat value of ______________.

ANSWER: 1.00 kcal/kg • C° POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 69. Solids, liquids, and gases are called ______________ of matter.

ANSWER: phases POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 70. ______________ is the process whereby energetic molecules escape from a liquid.

ANSWER: Boiling, or Evaporation POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 71. A ______________ has a definite volume and assumes the shape of its container.

ANSWER: liquid POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 72. The amount of heat necessary to change a liquid to a solid at constant temperature is the ______________.

ANSWER: latent heat of fusion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

73.

Reference: Ref 5-1

The substance is entirely a liquid between points ______________ and ______________.

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat ANSWER: C, D POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

74.

Reference: Ref 5-1

Temperatures 1 and 2 are the ______________ and the ______________, respectively.

ANSWER: melting point; boiling point POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

75.

Reference: Ref 5-1

The substance is entirely a gas between points ______________ and ______________.

ANSWER: E, F POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

76.

Reference: Ref 5-1

The substance is entirely a solid between points ______________ and ______________.

ANSWER: A, B POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat

77.

Reference: Ref 5-1

The latent heat of fusion is the amount of energy per kilogram necessary to go from point ______________ to point ______________.

ANSWER: B; C POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 78. On bare feet, a tile floor feels colder than a rug because the tile has a greater ______________.

ANSWER: thermal conductivity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 79. The energy needed to change the phase of a substance is called ______________.

ANSWER: latent heat POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 80. Gas pressure is caused by molecular ______________ with the walls of the container.

ANSWER: collisions POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 81. In the gas laws, the ______________ temperature scale must be used.

ANSWER: Kelvin (or absolute) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. If the temperature and number of molecules remain constant for a gas, a pressure increase results in a volume ______________.

ANSWER: decrease POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 83. If the volume and the number of molecules remain constant for a gas, a temperature increase causes the pressure to ______________.

ANSWER: increase POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 84. For an ideal gas with N and T held constant, an increase in volume will result in a(n) ______________ in pressure.

ANSWER: decrease POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 85. The first law of thermodynamics states that heat added to a closed system can change the internal energy of the system and/or do ______________.

ANSWER: work POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. The energy balance in a thermodynamic process is expressed in the ______________.

ANSWER: first law of thermodynamics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 87. The second law of thermodynamics forbids a heat engine to have thermal efficiency of ______________.

ANSWER: 100% POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 88. The entropy of an isolated system always ______________ when natural processes occur.

ANSWER: increases POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. A(n) ______________ transfers heat from a low-temperature reservoir to a high-temperature reservoir.

ANSWER: heat pump POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. It is 23°F outside. a. What is the Celsius temperature? b. If this Fahrenheit temperature were doubled, what would the new Celsius temperature be?

ANSWER: a. –5.0°C b. 7.8°C POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 91. For a temperature of –40°F, what are the corresponding temperatures on the a. Celsius scale?

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat b. Kelvin scale?

ANSWER:

a. –40°C b. 233.15 K

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 92. To what temperature does 0°F correspond on the Celsius scale?

ANSWER: –17.8°C POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 93. When 10 kcal of heat is added to 2.0 kg of a substance, its temperature increases 20 C°. What is the specific heat of the substance?

ANSWER: 0.25 kcal/kg · C° POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 94. A liter of water at room temperature (20°C) is heated to its boiling temperature. How many kilocalories of heat are required?

ANSWER: 80 kcal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. An ice tray with 150 g of water at 30°C is placed in a freezer at –5°C. How much energy must be removed from the water to lower its temperature to the freezing point?

ANSWER: 4.5  103 cal = 4.5 kcal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 96. On a winter day the temperature drops from –5°C to –15°C overnight. If a pan sitting outside contains 0.40 kg of ice, how much heat is removed from the ice for this temperature change?

ANSWER: 2.0 kcal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 97. How much heat is necessary to change 20 g of ice at –10°C into water at 20°C? ANSWER: 2.1 kcal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 98. How much heat is required to melt 5.0 kg of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C? Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat 4.0  102 kcal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer ANSWER:

99. How many kilocalories of heat would be needed to melt 0.12 kg of ice at 0°C and increase the temperature to 25°C? ANSWER: 13 kcal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. A constant volume and mass of helium gas at 27°C is heated so that the pressure of the gas doubles. What is the new temperature of the gas in Celsius degrees?

ANSWER: 327°C POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 101. A sample of gas has its number of molecules halved, its Kelvin temperature doubled, and its volume halved. What is the new pressure, relative to the original pressure?

ANSWER: It is double the original.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 102. The number of molecules in a container is tripled and the Kelvin temperature doubled. The volume remains unchanged. The new pressure will be how many times greater than the original pressure?

ANSWER: 6 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. An ideal gas is confined to a container with an adjustable volume. If the number of molecules and the temperature are held constant, by what factor will the volume change when the pressure is tripled?

ANSWER: 0.33 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 104. The piston of a cylinder containing a quantity of ideal gas is advanced so that the volume of the gas is decreased by one-half. A pressure gauge on the cylinder shows the pressure of the gas to have increased threefold in the process. By what factor does the temperature of the gas change?

ANSWER: It increases by a factor of 3/2 (T2 = 3/2 T1).

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05 - Temperature and Heat 105. A quantity of ideal gas in a rigid container has a pressure of 1.00 × 106 Pa at 0°C. If the pressure is increased to 1.75 × 106 Pa, what is the temperature of the gas after this is done?

ANSWER: 204.75°C POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound 1. Which of the following characterize(s) a wave? a. Wavelength b. Amplitude c. Period d. All of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. Wave frequency is inversely proportional to a. amplitude. b. period. c. wave velocity. d. all of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. Wave period is the reciprocal of a. amplitude. b. frequency. c. wave velocity. d. all of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Wave velocity is inversely proportional to a. period. b. wavelength. c. amplitude. d. all of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. Wave amplitude is related to a. wave velocity. b. frequency. c. energy. d. wavelength.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. Wave frequency could be given in a. 1/s. b. s-1 c. Hz. d. any of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. If a wave has a frequency of 15 Hz, it has a period of a. 1/15 s. b. 3.9 s. c. 225 s. d. 15 s.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. If a wave has a period of 0.077 sec, it has a frequency of a. 1/13 Hz. b. 3.6 Hz. c. 169 Hz. d. 13 Hz. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. A series of ocean waves, each 24.0 m from crest to crest and moving past an observer at a rate of 6.0 waves per second, has what speed? a. 144 m/s b. 4 m/s c. 6 m/s d. 0.25 m/s ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. A series of ocean waves are moving past a surfer at a frequency of 40 waves per hour. Approximately how many waves would the surfer expect during 48 minutes?

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound a. 1920 waves b. 32 waves c. 40 waves d. 50 waves ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. If a wave has a frequency of 6 Hz, it has a period of a. 1/6 s. b. 6.5 s. c. 6 s. d. 3 s.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. The major difference between transverse and longitudinal waves is the a. direction of the wave motion. b. phase difference. c. direction of the particle displacement with respect to the direction of wave motion. d. size of the waves.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. If a piece of ribbon were tied to a stretched string carrying a transverse wave, how would the ribbon be observed to oscillate? a. Perpendicular to the wave motion b. Parallel to the wave motion c. Neither (A) nor (B) d. Both (A) and (B) ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. For a transverse mechanical wave, the particle motion is a. both parallel and perpendicular to the direction of the wave velocity. b. parallel to the direction of the wave velocity. c. perpendicular to the direction of the wave velocity. d. in all directions.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. For a longitudinal mechanical wave, the particle motion is a. parallel to the direction of the wave velocity. b. perpendicular to the direction of the wave velocity. c. both parallel and perpendicular to the direction of the wave velocity. d. in all directions.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. A disturbance in particle motion parallel to the wave velocity is called a a. transverse wave. b. acoustic wave. c. standing wave. d. longitudinal wave.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. A disturbance in particle motion perpendicular to the wave velocity is called a a. transverse wave. b. acoustic wave. c. standing wave. d. longitudinal wave.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. Which of the following radiations has the longest wavelength? a. Infrared b. Visible c. Ultraviolet d. X-rays ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. Which of the following radiations has the smallest wavelength? a. Infrared b. Visible Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound c. Ultraviolet d. X-rays ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. Which of the following radiations has the smallest frequency? a. Infrared b. Visible c. Ultraviolet d. X-rays ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. Which of the following radiations has the greatest frequency? a. Infrared b. Visible c. Ultraviolet d. X-rays ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has the greatest frequency? a. Ultraviolet b. Infrared c. Radio d. Visible ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. Electromagnetic waves are a. longitudinal. b. reverse. c. transverse. d. a combination of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound 24. A radar pulse returns 9.0 × 10-4 s after it was sent out and reflected by an object. What is the separation distance of the radar source and the object? a. 2.7 × 105 m b. 1.4 × 105 m c. 7.4 × 10–4 m d. 3.7 × 10–4 m ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. Light waves travel fastest in a. water. b. glass. c. a vacuum. d. air. e. none of these; they travel at the same speed in all these media.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. The region of the electromagnetic spectrum with wavelengths just greater than those in the infrared region is the ______________ region. a. microwaves b. x-rays c. gamma rays d. radio waves e. ultraviolet ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. The region of the electromagnetic spectrum with frequencies just less than those in the visible region is the ______________ region. a. infrared b. gamma rays c. radio waves d. microwaves e. x-rays ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound 28. The region of the electromagnetic spectrum with wavelengths just less than those in the ultraviolet region is the ______________ region. a. x-rays b. radio waves c. microwaves d. infrared e. gamma rays ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. The region of the electromagnetic spectrum with frequencies just greater than those in the ultraviolet region is the ______________ region. a. x-rays b. radio waves c. microwaves d. infrared e. gamma rays ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. A sound with a frequency of 11 Hz is in the ______________ region of the sound spectrum. a. infrasonic b. ultrasonic c. audible d. visible ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. A sound with a frequency of 1000 Hz is in the ______________ region of the sound spectrum. a. infrasonic b. ultrasonic c. audible d. visible ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. A sound with a frequency of 25 kHz is in the ______________ region of the sound spectrum. a. infrasonic Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound b. ultrasonic c. audible d. visible ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. The radiation given off by the nucleus of an atom is called a. a microwave. b. a gamma ray. c. an X-ray. d. any of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. Sound is a(n) a. longitudinal wave. b. electromagnetic wave. c. transverse wave. d. standing wave.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. Which of the following sound frequencies lie(s) in the audible range? a. 23 Hz b. 9 kHz c. 3100 Hz d. All of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. Which of the following sound frequencies lie(s) in the audible range? a. 26 Hz b. 27 kHz c. 1 MHz d. All of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. Which of the following sound frequencies lie(s) in the audible range? a. 13 Hz b. 5 kHz c. 1 MHz d. All of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. Which of the following sound frequencies lie(s) outside the audible range? a. 20 Hz b. 47 kHz c. 4300 Hz d. All of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. Which of the following sound frequencies lie(s) outside the audible range? a. 14 Hz b. 11 kHz c. 2700 Hz d. All of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. An increase of 20 dB increases the sound intensity by a factor of a. 10. b. 200. c. 100. d. 20.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. An increase of 40 dB increases the sound intensity by a factor of a. 1000. b. 40000. c. 10000.

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound d. 4000.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. A sound level of 19 dB is how many times as intense as one of 10 dB? a. 8 b. 9 c. 3 d. 18 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The intensity of a 50-dB whistle is doubled. What is the new decibel level? a. 50 dB b. 47 dB c. 53 dB d. 100 dB ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. The intensity of a 80-dB whistle is quadrupled. What is the new decibel level? a. 80 dB b. 68 dB c. 89 dB d. 320 dB ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. If a sound level increases by 40 dB, the intensity increases by a factor of ______________. a. one hundred thousand b. ten thousand c. one thousand d. one million ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The threshold of hearing is Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound a. 0 dB. b. 140 dB. c. 40 dB. d. 110 dB. e. 1 dB. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. A Doppler red shift indicates a. a shift toward higher frequencies. b. a shift toward shorter wavelengths. c. that a light source is approaching relative to the observer. d. none of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. A Doppler red shift indicates a. a shift toward lower frequencies. b. a shift toward longer wavelengths. c. that a light source is receding relative to the observer. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. A Doppler red shift indicates a. a shift toward higher frequencies. b. a shift toward shorter wavelengths. c. that a light source is receding relative to the observer. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. A Doppler red shift indicates a. a shift toward higher frequencies. b. a shift toward longer wavelengths. c. that a light source is approaching relative to the observer. d. none of these.

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. A Doppler red shift indicates a. a shift toward lower frequencies. b. a shift toward shorter wavelengths. c. that a light source is approaching relative to the observer. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. How many times greater is the speed of infrared light (λ = 800 nm) than the speed of violet light (λ = 400 nm) in a vacuum? a. 2 b. 1/2 c. 400 d. 1; that is, both have the same speed.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. How many times greater is the speed of red light (λ = 700 nm) than the speed of violet light (λ = 400 nm) in a vacuum? a. 1.75 , the first color of light is faster b. 0.57 , the second color of light is faster c. 3.00 x 108 , the first color of light is faster d. 1.00 , both colors of light have the same speed e. 3.00 x 108 , the second color of light is faster ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. Light can travel to Earth from a distant star, but sound cannot. Why is this? a. Light is an electromagnetic wave, and sound requires a medium. b. The Sun does not make sound. c. Light is a longitudinal wave, and sound is a transverse wave. d. The statement is false; both light and sound can travel in empty space.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound 55. The Doppler effect is observed only when a. the source of a wave moves toward a stationary observer. b. there is relative motion between the source of a wave and an observer. c. an observer moves toward the stationary source of a wave. d. both the source of a wave and an observer are moving toward each other.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. During a thunderstorm, an observer notes that 10 s elapsed between the lightning flash and the sound of the thunder. What is the approximate distance, in miles, from the observer to the lightning? a. 10 mi b. 50 mi c. 2 mi d. 100 mi ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. A train sounding its horn is moving toward an observer. The pitch of the horn's sound relative to its normal pitch is a. lower. b. sometimes higher and sometimes lower. c. higher. d. the same.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. For the Doppler effect to occur, there must be a. a moving source. b. a moving observer. c. relative motion between a source and an observer. d. no motion.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. Standing waves can be set up in a string when two waves that are a. of the same frequency and amplitude, but are opposite in direction of travel, meet each other. b. of the same frequency, amplitude, and direction of travel are also 180° out of phase.

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound c. of the same frequency, amplitude, and direction of travel meet each other. d. of the same frequency, amplitude, and velocity meet each other.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. Resonance occurs when a. two different objects vibrate with different frequencies. b. two different objects produce beats. c. an object having a certain natural frequency is set in vibration by a second object vibrating at that frequency. d. an object produces a sound.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. When an oscillator is driven in resonance, a. there are no standing waves. b. any driving frequency may be used. c. all natural frequencies are present. d. there is maximum energy transfer.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. A stretched string can have ______________ natural frequency(ies). a. one b. 10 times its length in c. 5 times its length in d. many ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. What is the frequency, in hertz, of a sound wave (v = 340 m/s) with a wavelength of 68 m? a. 5 Hz b. 23120 Hz c. 340 Hz d. 0.2 Hz ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound 64. What is the wavelength in meters, of a sound wave (v = 340 m/s) with a frequency of 4 Hz? a. 85 Hz b. 1360 Hz c. 340 Hz d. 0.012 Hz ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. A wave is a propagation of ______________.

ANSWER: energy, or disturbance POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 66. All waves transfer ______________.

ANSWER: energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 67. A wave with a frequency of 5 Hz will have a period of ______________ s.

ANSWER: 1/5, or 0.2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 68. The SI unit of frequency is ______________.

ANSWER: 1/s, or s-1, or Hz POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 69. The relationship of wave speed, wavelength, and frequency is given by ______________.

ANSWER: v = f POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 70. If the wave frequency is doubled, the period of the wave is ______________.

ANSWER: reduced by one-half POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 71. The frequency and the wavelength of a wave are ______________ proportional.

ANSWER: inversely POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound 72. A wave in which the particle displacement is perpendicular to the wave motion is called a(n) ______________ wave.

ANSWER: transverse POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 73. A wave in which the particle displacement is parallel to the wave motion is called a(n) ______________ wave.

ANSWER: longitudinal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 74. Of the two main types of waves, light is a(n) ______________ wave.

ANSWER: transverse POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 75. For a wave with a constant speed, the greater the frequency of the wave, the ______________ its wavelength.

ANSWER: smaller POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 76. For a wave with a constant speed, the smaller the period, the ______________ its wavelength.

ANSWER: greater POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 77. The audible range of sound is from 20 Hz to ______________ kHz. ANSWER: 20 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 78. The minimum sound intensity that can be detected by the human ear is called the ______________ of hearing.

ANSWER: threshold POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 79. Light in a vacuum has a speed of ______________ m/s.

ANSWER: 3.00  108 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound 80. A sound with a frequency of 15 Hz is in the ______________ region of the sound spectrum.

ANSWER: infrasonic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 81. Sounds with frequencies higher than the human ear can detect are in the ______________ range.

ANSWER: ultrasonic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. Sound is a(n) ______________ wave.

ANSWER: longitudinal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 83. In general, the speed of sound increases as the density of a medium ______________.

ANSWER: increases POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 84. The loudness of a sound wave is determined by its ______________.

ANSWER: amplitude POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 85. Watts per square meter is a unit for measuring the ______________ of a sound wave.

ANSWER: intensity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. When a jet plane exceeds the speed of sound, a(n) ______________ forms, resulting in a sonic boom.

ANSWER: shock wave POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 87. If a sound level increases by 30 dB, the intensity increases by a factor of ______________.

ANSWER: 1000 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 88. An observer moving toward a stationary sound source hears a(n) ______________ in frequency.

ANSWER: increase Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. As a truck moves away from a person with its horn blowing, the person hears a frequency ______________ than that of the horn.

ANSWER: lower POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. For a standing wave in a rope or string, the points that remain stationary are called ______________.

ANSWER: nodes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 91. When a system is being driven at a natural frequency, it is said to be driven in ______________.

ANSWER: resonance POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. A pendulum has how many natural frequencies?

ANSWER: One POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. What is the wavelength, in meters, of radio waves produced by a radio station with a frequency of 1400 kHz? (c = 3.00 × 108 m/s) ANSWER: 2.1  102 m POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 94. What is the frequency, in hertz, of a sound wave (v = 340 m/s) with a wavelength of 0.20 m?

ANSWER: 1.7  103 Hz POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 95. A series of ocean waves, each 6.0 m from crest to crest and moving past an observer at a rate of 2.0 waves per second, has what speed?

ANSWER: 12 m/s POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound 96. A certain radio wave has a wavelength of 6.0 × 10-2m. What is its frequency in hertz?

ANSWER: 5.0  105 Hz POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 97. A certain radio wave has a frequency of 1.03 MHz. What is the wavelength?

ANSWER: 2.91  102 m POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 98. A radar pulse returns 3.0 × 10-4 s after it was sent out and reflected by an object. What is the separation distance of the radar source and the object?

ANSWER: 4.5  104 m POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 99. What are the wavelength limits, in meters, of the audible region of the sound spectrum (v = 344 m/s)?

ANSWER: 0.017 m to 17 m POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. How many times greater is the speed of red light (λ = 700 nm) than the speed of violet light (λ = 400 nm) in a vacuum?

ANSWER: Both have the same speed, c.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 101. Approximately how many times faster is the speed of light in vacuum than the speed of sound in air?

ANSWER: 106 times POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 102. During a thunderstorm, an observer notes that 10 s elapsed between the lightning flash and the sound of the thunder. What is the approximate distance, in miles, from the observer to the lightning?

ANSWER: 2 mi POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. A sound wave in air travels at a speed of 340 m/s. If the wavelength is 0.100 m, in what range of the sound spectrum is the wave?

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Chapter 06 - Waves and Sound ANSWER: Audible (3400 Hz) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 104. What is the frequency of yellow-green light that has a wavelength of 550 nm?

ANSWER: 5.5  1014 Hz POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 105. The intensity of a 70-dB whistle is doubled. What is the new decibel level?

ANSWER: 73 dB POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 106. A particular sound with large intensity is reduced 1000-fold. What is the decibel reduction?

ANSWER: 30 dB POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 107. A sound level of 93 dB is how many times as intense as one of 73 dB? ANSWER: 100 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. A sound level of 96 dB is how many times as intense as one of 90 dB? ANSWER: 4 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 109. If the intensity of a sound is increased by a factor of 100, how is the decibel level affected?

ANSWER: Increase of 20 dB POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects 1. The law of reflection applies to a. specular reflection. b. diffuse reflection. c. irregular reflection. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. The angle of incidence of a light wave is a. different depending on whether there is diffuse or specular reflection. b. measured from a normal to the surface. c. equal to the angle of refraction. d. measured relative to the surface of the material.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. A light wave traveling in air strikes a plane mirror surface at an angle of 30° relative to the normal. The wave is reflected at an angle of a. 30° relative to the surface. b. 30° relative to the normal. c. 60° relative to the normal. d. none of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. A reflected ray of light leaves a plane mirror's surface at an angle of 30° relative to the normal. The angle of incidence was a. 30° relative to the surface. b. 60° relative to the normal. c. 90° from the surface. d. none of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. A reflected ray of light leaves a plane mirror's surface at an angle of 60° relative to the normal. The angle of incidence was a. 60° relative to the surface. b. 60° relative to the normal.

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects c. 90° from the surface. d. none of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. The angles of incidence and reflection a. are not related. b. can never be equal. c. are measured from a normal to the reflecting surface. d. add to 90°.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. Which of the following statements is true of the angles of incidence and reflection? a. They are not related b. They can never be equal c. They are always equal d. They add to 90°.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. A rainbow results from a. both reflection and refraction. b. refraction only. c. neither reflection nor refraction. d. reflection only.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. A ray of light in water strikes an air–water interface at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle.

The ray a. emerges but is bent away from the normal. b. travels along the interface. c. emerges but is bent toward the normal. d. is totally reflected into the water.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects 10. When the Sun is on the horizon, it is actually lower than it appears because of a. refraction. b. dispersion. c. scattering. d. reflection.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. A pencil partially submerged in a glass of water appears broken or offset because of a. polarization. b. diffraction. c. interference. d. refraction.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. The bending of waves around corners is called a. reflection. b. refraction. c. diffraction. d. interference.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. A flashlight beam is seen because of a. specular reflection. b. diffuse reflection. c. dispersion. d. refraction.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. The law of reflection a. applies only to plane mirrors. b. is limited to regular reflection. c. must be modified for diffuse reflection. d. applies to all reflecting surfaces.

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. The bending of light because of a speed change as it moves from one medium to another is called a. diffraction. b. refraction. c. reflection. d. the Doppler effect.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is known as the index of a. reflection. b. refraction. c. diffraction. d. none of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. The speed of light in a material is 1.74 × 108 m/s. What is the index of refraction of this material? a. 1.72 b. 0.58 c. 1.74 d. 0.218 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. A particular material has an index of refraction of 2.75. What percent of the speed of light in vacuum is the speed of light in the material? a. 36% b. 10% c. 8% d. 89% ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. The speed of light in a particular transparent medium is 2/8 the speed of light in a vacuum. What is the Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects index of refraction of the material? a. 1.3 b. 0.75 c. 4 d. 0.25 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. The index of refraction of transparent materials is a. equal to 1. b. greater than 1. c. less than 1. d. any of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. When light enters a denser medium and is refracted, a. the wavelength is unchanged. b. the wave speed increases. c. the frequency is unchanged. d. the wavelength increases.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. The separation of white light into its component colors is called a. polarization. b. diffraction. c. dispersion. d. refraction.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. The observation of a “wet spot” on a hot highway in the summer is caused by a. dispersion. b. diffraction. c. refraction. d. reflection.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. If a ray of light passes from air into glass, the angle of incidence will be a. less than the angle of refraction. b. sometimes greater and sometimes less than the angle of refraction. c. greater than the angle of refraction. d. equal to the angle of refraction.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. If a ray of light passes from air into glass, the light will a. travel along the normal. b. bend toward the normal. c. bend away from the normal. d. continue traveling in the same direction.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. Dispersion occurs in a medium because a. the index of refraction depends on wave amplitude. b. of regular reflection. c. of diffuse reflection. d. the index of refraction depends on the wavelength.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. The trapping of light in “light pipes,” or fiber optics, is due to a. total internal reflection. b. refraction. c. absorption of the outside light. d. diffraction.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. Polarization involves a. the orientation of field vectors. b. only longitudinal waves.

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects c. diffraction. d. interference.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. A liquid crystal display (LCD) using a “twisting” effect in the display involves a. polarization. b. interference. c. refraction. d. diffraction.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. Light for which the electric field vector is restricted to one plane is said to be a. linearly polarized. b. linearly refracted. c. linearly reflected. d. unpolarized.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. The bending of light rays around corners is called a. reflection. b. refraction. c. interference. d. diffraction.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. The change in the direction of a wave resulting from its encountering a small slit is known as a. interference. b. diffraction. c. reflection. d. polarization.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects 33. The greatest diffraction occurs for a. λ < d. b. λ = d. c. λ > d. d. none of these; that is, it makes no difference.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. The least diffraction occurs for a. λ < d. b. λ = d. c. λ > d. d. none of these; that is, it makes no difference.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. An object is placed 10 cm to the left of a converging spherical lens. The lens has a focal length of f = 5 cm.

Where is the image formed? a. 3.3 cm to the left of the lens b. 3.3 cm to the right of the lens c. 10 cm to the left of the lens d. 10 cm to the right of the lens ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. An object is placed 5 cm to the left of a converging spherical lens. The lens has a focal length of f = 15 cm.

Where is the image formed and what kind of image is formed? a. 7.5 cm to the right of the lens, Real b. 7.5 cm to the left of the lens, Virtual c. 7.5 cm to the right of the lens, Virtual d. 7.5 cm to the left of the lens, Real ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. An object is placed 5 cm to the left of a converging spherical lens. The lens has a focal length of f = 10 cm.

What kind of image is formed and what is its orientation? a. Real/Upright b. Virtual/Upright Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects c. Virtual/Inverted d. Real/Inverted ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. An example of a diverging spherical mirror is a. a bathroom mirror. b. a round Christmas tree ornament. c. a flashlight reflector. d. none of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. An example of a converging spherical mirror is a a. flashlight reflector. b. bathroom mirror. c. spherical truck mirror. d. hubcap.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. A concave mirror will produce a. only inverted images. b. real or virtual images. c. only virtual images. d. only real images.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. All real images a. cannot be focused on a screen. b. are erect. c. can be focused on a screen. d. are inverted.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects 42. An object is placed at the center of curvature of a concave mirror. The image is a. inverted, real, and the same size as the object. b. virtual and the same size as the object. c. virtual and smaller than the object. d. virtual and enlarged. e. erect, real, and the same size as the object.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. A lens that is thicker at the center than at the edge is a. a diverging lens only. b. a convex lens only. c. a converging lens only. d. both a convex lens and a converging lens.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. A lens that is thicker at the edge than at the center is a. a diverging lens only. b. a convex lens only. c. a converging lens only. d. both a convex lens and a converging lens.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. Images of objects are formed by lenses because of a. refraction. b. diffraction. c. internal reflection. d. all of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The image of an object at the focal point of a concave spherical mirror a. looks the same as the object. b. is said to be formed at infinity. c. is real. d. is reduced.

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. The image of a convex mirror is always a. virtual, inverted, and larger. b. virtual, upright, and smaller. c. real, upright, and smaller. d. real, inverted, and larger.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. A(n) ______________ image is defined as one that can be brought to a focus on a screen. a. virtual b. real c. upright d. inverted ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. A(n) ______________ image is defined as one that cannot be brought to a focus on a screen. a. virtual b. real c. upright d. inverted ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. The image formed by a diverging spherical lens is always a. upright. b. reduced. c. virtual. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. A diverging lens produces an image of a real object. This image is a. reduced, upright, and virtual.

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects b. enlarged, inverted, and real. c. reduced, inverted, and virtual. d. enlarged, upright, and real. e. enlarged, upright, and virtual.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. The image of a real object formed by a single converging lens cannot be a. real, inverted, and enlarged. b. real, inverted, and the same size as the object. c. virtual, upright, and enlarged. d. real, inverted, and reduced. e. virtual, upright, and reduced.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. A visual defect wherein a person can see distant objects clearly but not nearby objects is called a. dispersion. b. destructive interference. c. farsightedness. d. nearsightedness.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. A visual defect wherein a person can see nearby objects clearly but not distant objects is called a. dispersion. b. destructive interference. c. farsightedness. d. nearsightedness.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. For normal vision, an object can be seen clearly when it is beyond the a. far point. b. nearsighted point. c. farsighted point. d. near point.

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. The photoreceptors responsible for color vision are called a. rods. b. cylinders. c. cones. d. cans.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. The photoreceptors responsible for "twilight" vision are called a. rods. b. cylinders. c. cones. d. cans.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. For total internal reflection, light is ______________ and none is ______________. a. refracted; reflected b. refracted; transmitted c. reflected; transmitted d. transmitted; reflected ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. For total internal reflection, light is ______________ and none is ______________. a. reflected, refracted b. refracted; transmitted c. transmitted, refracted d. transmitted; reflected ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. Optics is divided into ray optics and ______________ optics.

ANSWER: physical, or wave Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 61. A change in the direction of a wave resulting from its meeting an opaque material is called ______________.

ANSWER: reflection POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 62. Reflection from smooth surfaces is called ______________ reflection.

ANSWER: specular POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 63. Reflection from rough surfaces is called ______________ reflection.

ANSWER: diffuse POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 64. According to the law of reflection, the angle of reflection is equal to ______________.

ANSWER: the angle of incidence POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 65. When a wave is ______________, the angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence.

ANSWER: reflected POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 66. A change in the direction of a wave because of a change in the velocity of the wave is called ______________.

ANSWER: refraction POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 67. When light strikes a transparent medium, some light is reflected and some is ______________.

ANSWER: transmitted or refracted POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 68. When light enters a denser medium, the speed of the light ______________.

ANSWER: decreases POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 69. Light traveling from a more dense to a less dense medium is refracted ______________ the normal.

ANSWER: away from POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 70. Total internal reflection occurs when the angle of incidence of the light is greater than the ______________ angle.

ANSWER: critical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 71. For total internal reflection, light is reflected and none is ______________.

ANSWER: transmitted or refracted POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 72. If we restrict the vibrations of the electric field vector of a wave to one direction, the wave is said to be linearly ______________.

ANSWER: polarized POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 73. The preferential orientation of the EM field vectors of light is called ______________.

ANSWER: polarization POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 74. Polarizing sunglasses have the transmission axis oriented ______________.

ANSWER: vertically POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 75. Liquid crystal displays (LCDs) make use of the wave phenomenon called ______________.

ANSWER: polarization POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 76. ______________ waves cannot be polarized.

ANSWER: Longitudinal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects 77. A change in the direction of a wave as a result of its encountering a sharp edge or a slit is called ______________.

ANSWER: diffraction POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 78. A diamond is said to have “fire” because of ______________.

ANSWER: dispersion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 79. The change in wave motion produced by phase and amplitude relations of two or more waves is called a(n) ______________ effect.

ANSWER: interference POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 80. A(n) ______________ consists of many narrow parallel slits very close together.

ANSWER: diffraction grating POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 81. FM radio reception may be blocked by buildings because the wavelengths are too short to be ______________ around buildings.

ANSWER: diffracted POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. Complete destructive interference occurs for two waves of the same amplitude and frequency when the waves are ______________ degrees out of phase.

ANSWER: 180 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 83. The waveform of interfering waves is described by the principle of ______________.

ANSWER: superposition POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 84. A(n) ______________ image is defined as one that can be brought to a focus on a screen.

ANSWER: real POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects 85. A(n) ______________ image cannot be focused on a screen.

ANSWER: virtual POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. A lens that is thicker at the center than at the edge is called a(n) ______________ lens.

ANSWER: convex, or converging POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 87. A person who can clearly see nearby objects but not distant ones is ______________.

ANSWER: nearsighted POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 88. When an object is inside the focal point of a concave mirror, a(n) ______________ image always results.

ANSWER: virtual POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. The image of a convex mirror is always virtual, ______________, and smaller.

ANSWER: upright, or erect POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. Unlike spherical mirrors, spherical lenses do not have a focal length equal to ______________.

ANSWER: R/2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 91. For normal vision, an object can be seen clearly when it is beyond the ______________.

ANSWER: near point POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. The photoreceptors responsible for color vision are called ______________.

ANSWER: cones POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. The speed of light in diamond is 1.24 × 108m/s. What is the index of refraction of diamond?

ANSWER:

2.42

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Chapter 07 - Optics and Wave Effects POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. A particular material has an index of refraction of 1.25. What percent of the speed of light in a vacuum is the speed of light in the material?

ANSWER: 80% POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. The speed of light in a particular transparent medium is 5/8 the speed of light in a vacuum. What is the index of refraction of the material?

ANSWER: 1.6 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 96. A plane mirror stands vertically on a table. A ruler lies on the table in such a position as to make an angle of 30° with the mirror. Determine the angle between the ruler and its image.

ANSWER: 60° POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 97. An object 30 cm in front of a concave spherical mirror (f = 10 cm) is moved toward the mirror until it is 20 cm from it. Sketch ray diagrams for these cases and estimate the factor by which the image magnification changes.

ANSWER: Increases by a factor of 2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 98. A simple magnifying glass has a focal length of 6.0 cm. An object is placed 4.0 cm from it. Sketch a ray diagram and give the characteristics of the image.

ANSWER: Virtual, upright, and enlarged POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 99. A double convex lens has a focal length of 0.10 m. An object 0.05 m high is placed 0.15 m from the lens surface on the principal axis. Sketch a ray diagram and give the characteristics of the image.

ANSWER: Real, inverted, and smaller POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism 1. Electric charge is measured in units of a. coulombs. b. watts. c. volts. d. newtons.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. The mathematical form of Coulomb's law is similar to that of a. the second law of thermodynamics. b. the second law of motion. c. Kepler's second law. d. the law of gravitation.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. A system of an electron, a proton, and a neutron has a net charge of a. +1.6 × 10-19 C. b. –1.6 × 10-19 C. c. 3.2 × 10-19 C. d. zero.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. A system of 8 electrons, 18 protons, and 4 neutrons has a net charge of a. 16.0 × 10-19 C. b. –16.0 × 10-19 C. c. 22.4 × 10-19 C. d. 10.0 × 10-19 C. e. –22.4 × 10-19 C. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. A system of 12 electrons and 18 protons has a net charge of a. 9.6 × 10-19 C. b. –9.6 × 10-19 C. c. 17.6 × 10-19 C. Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism d. 6.0 × 10-19 C. e. –17.6 × 10-19 C. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. A system of 11 protons and 15 neutrons has a net charge of a. 17.6 × 10-19 C. b. –17.6 × 10-19 C. c. 41.6 × 10-19 C. d. 11.0 × 10-19 C. e. –41.6 × 10-19 C. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. A system of 18 electrons and 11 neutrons has a net charge of a. –28.8 × 10-19 C. b. 28.8 × 10-19 C. c. –11.2 × 10-19 C. d. –18.0 × 10-19 C. e. 11.2 × 10-19 C. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. A system of an electron and a neutron has a net charge of a. +1.6 × 10-19 C. b. –1.6 × 10-19 C. c. 3.2 × 10-19 C. d. zero.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. A system of a proton and a neutron has a net charge of a. +1.6 × 10-19 C. b. –1.6 × 10-19 C. c. 3.2 × 10-19 C. d. zero.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. A system of a proton and an electron has a net charge of a. +1.6 × 10-19 C. b. –1.6 × 10-19 C. c. 3.2 × 10-19 C. d. zero.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. An object that is negatively charged will a. attract a rubber rod stroked with fur. b. attract a glass rod stroked with silk. c. be polarized. d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. An object that is positively charged will a. attract a rubber rod stroked with fur. b. attract a glass rod stroked with silk. c. be polarized. d. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. An object that is negatively charged will a. repel a rubber rod stroked with fur. b. repel a glass rod stroked with silk. c. be polarized. d. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. An object that is positively charged will a. repel a rubber rod stroked with fur. b. repel a glass rod stroked with silk.

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism c. be polarized. d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. The unit for current is the a. ampere. b. ohm. c. coulomb. d. volt.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. Ohm's law gives the relationship between a. current and voltage. b. work and current. c. current and charge. d. force and current.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. In a conductor, what moves? a. Electrons b. Neutrons c. Quarks d. Protons ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. One ampere × one second is a unit of a. power. b. current. c. voltage. d. electric charge. e. resistance.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. The unit of resistance is called a(n) a. volt. b. ampere. c. coulomb. d. ohm. e. watt.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. The abbreviation of the unit of resistance is a. b. c. d. e.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. Which of the following would be the least conductive? a. Copper b. Salt water c. Glass d. Mercury ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. For an ohmic conductor, current is a. inversely proportional to voltage. b. inversely proportional to resistance. c. independent of resistance. d. independent of voltage.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. For an ohmic conductor, current is a. directly proportional to voltage.

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism b. directly proportional to resistance. c. independent of resistance. d. independent of voltage.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. The electrical power dissipated by a resistance R is a. inversely proportional to I. b. directly proportional to I2. c. directly proportional to I. d. none of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. The electrical power dissipated in an appliance depends on a. voltage. b. current. c. resistance. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. If work is done on an electric charge, a ______________ is present. a. resistance b. current c. voltage d. transformer e. bigger charge ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. A component in an automobile 12-V electrical system has a resistance of 90 Ω. How much current is in the component when in operation? a. 100 A b. 0.13 A c. 7.5 A d. 1100 A ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. A component in an automobile 12-V electrical system has a resistance of 20 Ω. How much energy is dissipated by the component each second? a. 0.14 J b. 7.2 J c. 1.7 J d. 0.6 J ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. Voltage is defined as the ______________ per unit ______________. a. charge; current b. work; current c. charge; work d. work; charge ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. The electric company charges a home on the basis of consumption of a. resistance. b. energy. c. current. d. voltage. e. power.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. If the voltage across a resistor is doubled, the current will a. remain the same. b. be cut to one-fourth. c. be cut in half. d. be doubled. e. be quadrupled.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism 32. If the voltage across a resistor is tripled, the current will a. remain the same. b. be cut to one-third. c. be cut by one-third. d. be tripled. e. be multiplied by nine.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. Three resistors, 90 Ω, 40 Ω, and 60 Ω, are wired in series and connected to a 120-V battery. What is the equivalent resistance for this circuit? a. 190 Ω b. 19 Ω c. 0.053 Ω d. 216000 Ω ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. Three resistors, 30 Ω, 20 Ω, and 60 Ω, are wired in series and connected to a 120-V battery. What is the equivalent resistance for this circuit? a. 110 Ω b. 10 Ω c. 0.1 Ω d. 36000 Ω ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. Three resistors, 80 Ω, 10 Ω, and 70 Ω, are wired in parallel and connected to a 120-V battery. How much current flows in this circuit? a. 0.75 Α b. 15 Α c. 950 Α d. 0.0021 Α ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. Three resistors, 20 Ω, 10 Ω, and 80 Ω, are wired in series and connected to a 120-V battery. How much current flows in this circuit?

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism a. 1.1 Α b. 20 Α c. 740 Α d. 0.0075 Α ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. In a battery circuit with different resistors in parallel, a. the total resistance is larger than the value of the largest resistor. b. the current is the same through each resistor. c. the total resistance is larger than the value of the smallest resistor. d. the voltage is the same across each resistor.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. For electrical safety, a. electrical shocks caused by 1 A of current are of no concern. b. fuses or circuit breakers are wired in series in circuits. c. fuses larger than the rated value can be placed in a circuit. d. fuses and circuit breakers are wired in parallel in circuits.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. The source of magnetism is a. polarization. b. magnetic monopoles. c. electrons. d. protons.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. Magnetism results from a. the movement of magnetic particles. b. the movement of electric charge. c. Earth's magnetic field. d. the movement of magnetic charge.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. The direction of the magnetic field of a bar magnet is a. in the direction a compass would point. b. in any direction. c. away from the south pole. d. toward the north pole.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. The direction of the magnetic field of a bar magnet is a. in the direction opposite to that in which a compass would point. b. in any direction. c. toward the south pole. d. toward the north pole.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The direction of the magnetic field of a bar magnet is a. in the direction opposite to that in which a compass would point. b. in any direction. c. away from the south pole. d. away from the north pole.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. Earth's magnetic field a. results from a huge bar magnet within the planet. b. is believed to arise from currents within the planet's core. c. is always parallel to the planet's surface. d. is always in the same direction.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. A ferromagnetic material is magnetized by the alignment of a. domains. b. atoms.

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism c. single magnetic dipoles. d. poles.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The angle between true north and the direction in which a compass needle points is called the angle of a. attack. b. inclination. c. declination. d. dip.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. A ferromagnetic material loses this property above the ______________ temperature. a. domain b. Faraday c. Curie d. Coulomb ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. A motor converts a. electricity into magnetism. b. electrical energy into mechanical energy. c. mechanical energy into electrical energy. d. force into power.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. Consider a wire at rest in a magnetic field as shown in the following figure. What will happen to the wire?

a. A current will flow in the wire.

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism b. The wire will be pushed perpendicular to the plane of the magnetic field. c. The wire will be pushed toward the north pole. d. Nothing will happen.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. Consider a wire in a magnetic field, as shown in the following figure, with a current flowing through it.

What will happen to the wire?

a. The wire will be forced toward the north pole. b. The wire will be forced perpendicular to the plane of the magnetic field. c. The current will cease flowing. d. Nothing will happen.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. Consider a wire in a magnetic field, as shown in the following figure, with a current flowing upward through it. What will happen to the wire?

a. The wire will be forced toward the north pole. b. The wire will be forced perpendicular to the plane of the magnetic field, into the page. c. The wire will be forced perpendicular to the plane of the magnetic field, out of the page. d. The current will cease flowing. e. The wire will be forced toward the south pole.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. Consider a wire in a magnetic field, as shown in the following figure, with a current flowing downward through it. What will happen to the wire?

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism

a. The wire will be forced toward the north pole. b. The wire will be forced perpendicular to the plane of the magnetic field, into the page. c. The wire will be forced perpendicular to the plane of the magnetic field, out of the page. d. The current will cease flowing. e. The wire will be forced toward the south pole.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. A transformer with 600 turns on the primary coil is used to decrease the voltage from 3000 V to 120 V for home use. How many turns should be in the secondary coil? a. 600 turns b. 15000 turns c. 24 turns d. 3720 turns ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. An ac voltage can be increased or decreased easily using a a. battery. b. transformer. c. fuse. d. motor. e. generator.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. A generator is a device that converts a. heat energy into mechanical energy. b. chemical energy into electrical energy. c. mechanical energy into electrical energy. d. electrical energy into mechanical energy.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. A(n) ______________ is an elementary particle with a charge of +1.6 × 10-19 C. a. electron b. neutron c. proton d. atom ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. A(n) ______________ is an elementary particle with no charge. a. electron b. neutron c. proton d. atom ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. A(n) ______________ is an elementary particle with a charge of –1.6 × 10-19 C. a. electron b. neutron c. proton d. atom ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. An insulator has a positive electric charge of 8 × 10 -17 C. How many electrons were added or removed? a. 500 electrons removed b. 20 electrons removed c. 500 electrons added d. 20 electrons added ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. An insulator has a negative electric charge of 2.4 × 10 -17 C. How many electrons were added or removed? a. 150 electrons removed Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism b. 67 electrons removed c. 150 electrons added d. 67 electrons added ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. If a negatively charged object is brought near a suspended, positively charged object, the suspended object will be a. repelled. b. charged more. c. discharged. d. attracted.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. If a positively charged object is brought near a suspended, positively charged object, the suspended object will be a. repelled. b. charged more. c. discharged. d. attracted.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. If a negatively charged object is brought near a suspended, negatively charged object, the suspended object will be a. repelled. b. charged more. c. discharged. d. attracted.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. If a positively charged object is brought near a suspended, negatively charged object, the suspended object will be a. repelled. b. charged more. c. discharged.

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism d. attracted.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. A(n) ______________ is an elementary particle with a charge of +1.6 × 10-19 coulomb.

ANSWER: proton POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 66. If a negatively charged object is brought near a suspended, positively charged object, the suspended object will be ______________.

ANSWER: attracted POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 67. Two oppositely charged particles ______________ one another.

ANSWER: attract POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 68. The rate of flow of electric charge is measured in units called ______________.

ANSWER: amperes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 69. The unit of electric current is the ______________.

ANSWER: ampere (A) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 70. According to the law of charges, unlike charges ______________.

ANSWER: attract POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 71. An object may be electrically neutral, but regions may be charged by ______________.

ANSWER: polarization POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 72. In a(n) ______________, electrons do not move freely.

ANSWER: insulator Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 73. Another name for electric potential difference is ______________.

ANSWER: voltage POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 74. Voltage has the units of ______________, which is called a volt.

ANSWER: joules per coulomb, J/C POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 75. The expression that mathematically describes the force between two static electric charges is called ______________.

ANSWER: Coulomb's law POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 76. The resistances are added in a(n) ______________ circuit.

ANSWER: series POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 77. The expression V = IR is called ______________.

ANSWER: Ohm's law POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 78. Power may be expressed as _____________ times resistance.

ANSWER: I2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 79. The maximum current would flow in a set of resistors connected in ______________.

ANSWER: parallel POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 80. To prevent a home electric circuit from overheating because of too much current, a(n) ______________ is used.

ANSWER: circuit breaker, or fuse POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 81. The voltage for typical home appliances is ______________.

ANSWER: 110-120 V POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. A circuit breaker is connected in ______________ in a circuit.

ANSWER: series POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 83. Zero potential in household electricity is called ______________.

ANSWER: ground POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 84. According to the law of poles, like poles ______________.

ANSWER: repel POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 85. The law of poles states that like magnetic poles ______________ and unlike magnetic poles ______________.

ANSWER: repel; attract POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. Magnetic fields can deflect ______________ charges.

ANSWER: moving POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 87. The north pole of a compass points toward Earth's magnetic ______________ pole.

ANSWER: south POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 88. A ferromagnetic material loses this property above the ______________ temperature.

ANSWER: Curie POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. A moving electric charge or a current in a magnetic field may experience a(n) ______________.

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism ANSWER: force POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. A(n) ______________ converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

ANSWER: generator POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 91. A(n) ______________ converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.

ANSWER: motor POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. In a dc motor, the polarity and current are reversed by a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: (split-ring) commutator POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. A step-down transformer has more windings on the ______________ coil.

ANSWER: primary POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. AC voltage may be stepped up or stepped down using a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: transformer POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. Three resistors, 10 Ω, 20 Ω, and 30 Ω, are wired in series and connected to a 120-V battery. How much current flows in the circuit?

ANSWER: 2.0 A POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 96. An insulator has a positive electric charge of 2.4 × 10 -17 C. How many electrons were added or removed?

ANSWER: 150 electrons removed POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 97. If two protons are moved 3 times farther apart, the electrical force between them is what factor of the original force?

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism ANSWER: One-ninth POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 98. If two protons are moved 3 times closer together, the electrical force between them is what factor of the original force?

ANSWER: 9 times greater POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 99. A steady current of 0.15 A exists in a wire for 20 s. a. How much net charge passes by a point in the wire? b. How many electrons does this charge represent?

ANSWER: a. 3.0 C b. 1.9  1019 electrons POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 100. A component in an automobile 12-V electrical system has a resistance of 20 Ω. a. How much current is in the component when the system is in operation? b. How much energy is dissipated by the component each second?

ANSWER: a. 0.60 A b. 7.2 J POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 101. A current of 6.0 A flows through a resistance of 50 Ω. How much power is dissipated?

ANSWER: 1.8  103 W POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 102. In a 12-V battery circuit, a 10-Ω resistor and a 30-Ω resistor are connected in series. How much current does the battery supply to the circuit?

ANSWER: 0.30 A POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. A 20-Ω resistor and a 30-Ω resistor are wired in parallel and connected to a 9.0-V battery. a. How much current is drawn from the battery? b. How much power is dissipated in the circuit?

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism ANSWER:

a. 0.75 A b. 6.8 W

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 104. Three resistors, 10 Ω, 20 Ω, and 30 Ω, are wired in series and connected to a 120-V battery. How much current flows in the circuit?

ANSWER: 2.0 A POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 105. Three resistors, 10 Ω, 20 Ω, and 30 Ω, are wired in parallel and connected to a 12-V battery. How much current flows in the circuit?

ANSWER: 22 A POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 106. A 10-Ω resistor and a 20-Ω resistor are connected in parallel, and this combination is connected in series to a 30-Ω resistor. If the arrangement is hooked to a 12-V battery, how much current flows in the circuit?

ANSWER: 0.033 A POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 107. A transformer with 800 turns on the primary coil is used to decrease the voltage from 2000 V to 120 V for home use. How many turns should be in the secondary coil?

ANSWER: 48 turns POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. A doorbell has an input voltage of 120 V. A transformer that steps the voltage down to 12 V has 500 turns on its primary. What is the number of turns on the secondary?

ANSWER: 50 turns POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 109. The voltage in a house is measured to be 122.5 V. What is the current drawn by a 75.0-W light bulb?

ANSWER: 0.612 A POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08 - Electricity and Magnetism

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics 1. The ancient Greek who is known for championing the concept of atom was named ______________. a. Democritus b. Socrates c. Plato d. Zeus ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. Who discovered the electron in 1897? a. Dalton b. Bohr c. Rutherford d. Thomson ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. Who discovered the nucleus of the atom in 1911? a. Thomson b. Rutherford c. Dalton d. Bohr ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. The ""billiard ball model" of the atom is associated with a. Bohr. b. Thomson. c. Rutherford. d. Dalton.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. The "plum pudding model" of the atom is associated with a. Bohr. b. Rutherford. c. Dalton. d. Thomson.

ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. The development of physics since about 1900 is called a. neoclassical physics. b. Newtonian physics. c. classical physics. d. modern physics.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. Atomic physics deals mainly with phenomena involving which particles in atoms? a. Quarks b. Protons c. Electrons d. Neutrons ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. Aristotle's “continuous” model of matter was proved wrong about 1807 by a. Bohr. b. Thomson. c. Dalton. d. Rutherford.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. Removal of an electron from an atom leaves a a. neutron. b. positive ion. c. free quark. d. negative ion.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. Addition of an electron to an atom leaves a a. neutron. b. positive ion.

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics c. free quark. d. negative ion.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. The number of electrons in an atom of an element is the same as the element's a. atomic number. b. period number. c. mass number. d. group number.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. According to Planck's hypothesis, the energy of an oscillator is directly proportional to its a. amplitude. b. wavelength. c. momentum. d. frequency.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. The greater the frequency of light, the greater the ______________ of its photons. a. velocity b. speed c. wavelength d. energy ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. Which of these colors of light has photons of greatest energy? a. Green b. Red c. Blue d. Yellow ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics 15. Which of these colors of light has photons of greatest energy? a. Violet b. Red c. Blue d. Yellow ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. Which of these colors of light has photons of greatest energy? a. Red b. Orange c. Green d. Yellow ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. Calculate the frequency in hertz of photons of light with energy of 8.10 × 10-19 J. a. 0.82 × 1014 Hz b. 0.82 × 1015 Hz c. 1.22 × 1015 Hz d. 1.22 × 1014 Hz ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. What is the energy of a photon with a frequency of 5.2 × 1014 Hz? a. 3.4 × 10-19 J b. 1.3 × 10-20 J c. 0.8 × 10-20 J d. 0.3 × 10-21 J ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. Which of these colors of light has photons of lowest energy? a. Blue b. Green c. Yellow d. Red Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. Which of these colors of light has photons of lowest energy? a. Blue b. Green c. Yellow d. Violet ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. Which of these colors of light has photons of lowest energy? a. Yellow b. Green c. Blue d. Violet ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. A quantum is a a. discrete amount. b. fundamental property. c. unit of momentum. d. proton.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. Who won the Nobel Prize for explaining the photoelectric effect? a. Bohr b. Planck c. de Broglie d. Einstein ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. Einstein won the Nobel Prize for explaining a. general relativity.

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics b. special relativity. c. the photoelectric effect. d. quantum mechanics.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. Who developed the quantum theory in 1900 and has a constant named for him? a. de Broglie b. Bohr c. Planck d. Einstein ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. Dispersing light from a hot wire gives what type of spectrum? a. Line absorption b. Continuous c. Line emission d. Ultraviolet ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. Dispersing light that has traveled from a hot wire through a cool gas gives what type of spectrum? a. Line absorption b. Continuous c. Line emission d. Ultraviolet ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. The calculation of electron energy levels in the hydrogen atom was done first by a. Schrödinger. b. de Broglie. c. Bohr. d. Heisenberg.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. For a specific element, photons of how many different energies could be emitted by electrons in the n = 2 level as they return to the n = 1 level? a. 3 b. 4 c. 2 d. 1 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. For a specific element, photons of how many different energies could be emitted by electrons in the n = 3 level as they return to the n = 1 level? a. 1 b. 4 c. 2 d. 3 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. For a specific element, photons of how many different energies could be emitted by electrons in the n = 6 level as they return to the n = 1 level? a. 15 b. 21 c. 6 d. 1 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. Calculate the energy En (in eV) of a hydrogen atom's electron with n = 4. a. –54 eV b. –3.4 eV c. –0.85 eV d. –1.7 eV ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. If the energy of n = 6 is –0.378 eV and that of n = 5 is –0.544 eV in a hydrogen atom, a transition from n = 6 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics to n = 5 will _______________ a photon with an energy of approximately ______________. a. absorb; 0.922 eV b. emit; 0.166 eV c. absorb; 0.166 eV d. emit; 0.922 eV ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. Discrete wavelengths of light are emitted by an excited gas because a. the speed of light is constant in a given medium. b. light can behave either as a wave or as a particle. c. electron energy levels are quantized. d. the intensity of radiation is proportional to the second power of the frequency.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. Niels Bohr focused his attention on the element hydrogen because it a. could be obtained in extremely high purity. b. was so abundant. c. had the simplest atom. d. was inexpensive.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. The lines in the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum are known as the a. Lyman series. b. Balmer series. c. Paschen series. d. Bohr series.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. The transitions of an electron in the hydrogen atom to the n = 1 level result in the a. Lyman series. b. Balmer series. c. Paschen series. d. Bohr series.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. The transitions of an electron in the hydrogen atom to the n = 2 level result in the a. Lyman series. b. Balmer series. c. Paschen series. d. Bohr series.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. The transitions of an electron in the hydrogen atom to the n = 3 level result in the a. Lyman series. b. Balmer series. c. Paschen series. d. Bohr series.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. The lines in the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum arise from transitions from higher levels back to the level where n equals a. 3. b. 1. c. 2. d. 4.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. Fluorescence occurs when samples of some materials are exposed to rays of which EMR region? a. Ultraviolet b. Infrared c. Visible d. Microwave ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. When an electron in an atom falls from a higher energy level to a lower one, a ______________ is ______________.

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics a. proton; absorbed b. proton; emitted c. photon; absorbed d. photon; emitted ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. When an electron in an atom is excited from a lower energy level to a higher one, a ______________ is ______________. a. proton; absorbed b. proton; emitted c. photon; absorbed d. photon; emitted ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. In terms of energy levels of electrons, a potential well has a. a negative value. b. a positive or a negative value. c. a positive value. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. The removal of an electron from an atom is called a. binding affinity. b. atomizing. c. electron affinity. d. ionization.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The lowest energy level of a hydrogen atom (n = 1) is called a. the ground state. b. the potential state. c. the ionization state. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. Which is a possible value for the principal quantum number n? a. 3.14 b. 7 c. 2.5 d. None of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. Which is not a possible value for the principal quantum number n? a. 3 b. 7 c. 3/2 d. None of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. How much energy must be absorbed to ionize a hydrogen atom whose electron is in the ground state (n = 1)? a. Zero b. 1 eV c. 0.053 eV d. 13.6 eV ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. When a hydrogen electron is in its ground state, its principal quantum number is a. zero. b. –13.6 eV. c. 1. d. +13.6 eV. e. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. When an electron goes from an excited state to the ground state, Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics a. energy is absorbed. b. a photon is absorbed. c. a photon is emitted. d. none of these occur.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. When an electron goes from the ground state to an excited state, a. energy is emitted. b. a photon is absorbed. c. a photon is emitted. d. none of these occur.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. The most important force in the hydrogen atom is a. the nuclear force. b. the gravitational force. c. the electromagnetic force. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. An electron is in its lowest energy level when a. it is free of nuclear forces. b. its momentum is zero. c. it is in its ground state. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. Which of the following principal quantum number values is impossible? a. 2.5 b. 16 c. 3 d. 1 ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. The energy differences in some of the rotational energy levels of the water molecule allow a. X-rays to be produced. b. cooking with microwaves. c. visible spectral lines to be formed. d. lasers to operate.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. The interior of a large mass of food in a microwave oven must be heated mainly by a. radiation. b. conduction. c. convection. d. radioactivity.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. Wilhelm Roentgen discovered a. X-rays. b. gamma rays. c. radio waves. d. microwaves.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. When fast electrons strike a metal target, what are produced? a. Radio waves b. Gamma rays c. X-rays d. Microwaves ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. When many of the atoms or molecules in a sample have been excited into a metastable state, a(n) ______________ has occurred. a. ultraviolet catastrophe Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics b. population inversion c. coherent emission d. incoherent absorption ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. The key process of a laser is a. stimulated emission. b. Bremsstrahlung. c. electron diffraction. d. microwave absorption.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. According to the hypothesis of de Broglie, any moving particle has a. energy. b. a magnetic force field. c. an electric force field. d. a wavelength.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. As the speed of an object increases, its wavelength a. remains unchanged. b. decreases. c. increases. d. is zero.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. As the speed of an object decreases, its wavelength a. remains unchanged. b. decreases. c. increases. d. is zero.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. Matter waves were confirmed when it was found that electrons a. diffract. b. have a plus or minus spin quantum number. c. possess a negative charge. d. have mass.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. Who, in 1925, postulated that matter, as well as light, has properties of both waves and particles? a. Planck b. Heisenberg c. de Broglie d. Einstein ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. Calculate the de Broglie wavelength for an electron (m = 1 × 10-30 kg) moving at 3.1 × 106 m/s. a. 1.8 × 10–10m b. 2.4 × 10–10m c. 1.9 × 10–10m d. 2.1 × 10–10m ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to both its speed and its a. spin. b. electric charge. c. volume. d. mass.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. Which of these instruments is based on the theory of matter waves? a. Microwave oven b. X-ray tube Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics c. Electron microscope d. Cathode ray tube ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. With which object would the wave nature of matter be significant? a. A hard-thrown baseball b. A speeding truck c. A moving electron d. An orbiting planet ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. The smaller the frequency of light, the smaller the ______________ of its photons. a. wavelength b. speed c. mass d. energy ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. Doubling the wavelength of a photon would ______________ its energy. a. halve b. double c. quadruple d. not change ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. Doubling the wavelength of a photon would ______________. a. reduce its energy to one-half b. double its energy c. triple its energy d. not change ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics 74. The unit called the hertz (Hz) is equivalent to a. 1/s only. b. a reciprocal second only. c. s-1 only. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 75. The planetary model of the atom is associated with a. Bohr. b. Thomson. c. Dalton. d. Rutherford.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. The dilemma known as the ultraviolet catastrophe was resolved in 1900 by a. Bohr. b. Rutherford. c. Einstein. d. Planck.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. Which is another name for quantum mechanics? a. Classical mechanics b. Wave mechanics c. Optical mechanics d. Spherical mechanics ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. Addition of an electron to an atom gives a a. negative ion. b. neutron. c. new element. d. positive ion.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. The development of physics prior to 1900 is called a. classical physics. b. neoclassical physics. c. Galilean physics. d. ancient physics.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 80. Which phenomenon shows that quanta of light, or photons, exist? a. Diffraction b. Polarization c. The photoelectric effect d. Interference ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. According to the Schrödinger equation, the probability of finding a hydrogen atom's ground-state electron 0.053 nm from the proton is a. zero. b. high, but not 100%. c. low, but not zero. d. 100%.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. According to the Bohr theory, the probability of finding a hydrogen atom's ground-state electron 0.053 nm from the proton is a. low, but not zero. b. 100%. c. zero. d. high, but not 100%.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 83. Calculate the radius in nanometers of the orbit of a hydrogen atom's electron with n = 5.

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics a. 0.27 b. 2.7 c. 1.3 d. 0.13 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. When a hydrogen atom's electron goes from an energy state of n = 1 to n = 3, a. the radius of the electron's orbit is unchanged. b. the radius of the electron's orbit is increased. c. the radius of the electron's orbit is decreased. d. the radius of the electron's orbit is infinite.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. When a hydrogen atom's electron goes from an energy state of n = 2 to n = 1, a. the radius of the electron's orbit is unchanged. b. the radius of the electron's orbit is increased. c. the radius of the electron's orbit is decreased. d. the radius of the electron's orbit is infinite.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. Dispersing light from a gas-discharge tube produces what type of spectrum? a. Ultraviolet b. Line absorption c. Continuous d. Line emission ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 87. For a specific element, photons of how many different energies could be emitted by electrons in the n = 4 level as they return to the n = 1 level? a. 3 b. 5 c. 2 d. 6 ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 88. For a specific element, photons of how many different energies could be absorbed by electrons to jump from the n = 1 to n = 5 level? a. 20 b. 10 c. 6 d. 1 e. 4 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 89. Which element was detected in the Sun before it was found on Earth? a. Hydrogen b. Promethium c. Helium d. Argon ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 90. Charged particles from the Sun enter Earth's atmosphere close to the magnetic poles and cause a. global cooling. b. global warming. c. auroras. d. ozone depletion.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 91. When an electron in an atom moves from a lower energy level to a higher one, a ______________ is ______________. a. photon; emitted b. proton; emitted c. photon; absorbed d. proton; absorbed ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics 92. When a hydrogen electron is in its first excited state, its principal quantum number is a. zero. b. 2. c. –13.60 eV. d. 1.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 93. A beam of laser light is a. neither monochromatic nor coherent. b. monochromatic but not coherent. c. coherent but not monochromatic. d. both monochromatic and coherent.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 94. The term stimulated emission would be used in explaining the operation of a. an electron microscope. b. an X-ray tube. c. a microwave oven. d. a laser.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 95. Einstein's special theory of relativity deals with objects that are a. being hit by X-rays. b. entering intense gravitational fields. c. moving close to the speed of light. d. being hit by energetic photons.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 96. One prediction of Einstein's special theory of relativity is that objects traveling close to the speed of light a. get lighter. b. get more massive. c. get longer. d. disappear.

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 97. Which of the following is the de Broglie equation? a. E = mc2 b. E = hf c. mΔvΔx ≈ h d. λ = h/mv ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 98. Glow-in-the-dark materials exhibit the phenomenon called a. phosphorescence. b. simulated absorption. c. fluorescence. d. stimulated emission.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 99. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is most important for a. very large objects, such as the Moon. b. very large distances. c. very small particles, such as electrons. d. very small angular momentum.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 100. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that it is impossible to know simultaneously which two properties of a particle? a. Momentum and energy b. Position and velocity c. Position and charge d. Time and place ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 101. The term probability is associated with the model of the atom proposed by a. Schrödinger.

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics b. Heisenberg. c. de Broglie. d. Einstein.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 102. Theoretical limits on measurement accuracy are set by a principle associated with which scientist? a. de Broglie b. Schrödinger c. Heisenberg d. Pauli ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 103. The Bohr theory was developed to explain which of these phenomena? a. The photoelectric effect b. Line spectra c. Quantum numbers d. X-rays ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 104. The nuclear model of the atom is associated with a. Thomson. b. Dalton. c. Bohr. d. Rutherford.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 105. A quantum of electromagnetic radiation is called a(n) a. photon. b. electron. c. positron. d. proton.

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 106. The development of physics prior to about 1900 is called ______________ physics.

ANSWER: classical, or Newtonian POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 107. Thomson discovered the ______________ in 1897.

ANSWER: electron POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. The "billiard ball model" of the atom is associated with a scientist named ______________.

ANSWER: Dalton POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 109. In both the Bohr model and the Schrödinger model of the atom, the letter n is called the ______________.

ANSWER: principal quantum number POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 110. The “particle” of light given off by an excited electron when it loses energy is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: photon POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 111. The quantity h in the Bohr theory is called ______________.

ANSWER: Planck's constant POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 112. The concept of the dual nature of light indicates that light acts sometimes like a(n) ______________ and sometimes like a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: wave; particle (or vice versa) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 113. According to Planck's hypothesis, the energy of an oscillator is directly proportional to its ______________.

ANSWER: frequency POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics 114. The color of the light in the visible region that has photons of the lowest energy is ______________.

ANSWER: red POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 115. The nucleus of an ordinary hydrogen atom consists of a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: proton POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 116. The number of electrons in a hydrogen atom is ______________.

ANSWER: one POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 117. The n = 2 energy level is known as the (two words) ______________ ______________ state.

ANSWER: first excited POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 118. Dispersing light from a hot, low-pressure gas gives a spectrum of the type known as (two words) ______________ ______________.

ANSWER: line emission POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 119. Bohr's revolutionary step in his theory was to ______________ the angular momentum of the electron.

ANSWER: quantize POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 120. Niels Bohr reasoned that a discrete line spectrum must be the result of a(n) ______________ effect.

ANSWER: quantum POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. Niels Bohr postulated that the hydrogen electron radiates energy only when it makes a(n) ______________ from one allowed orbit to another.

ANSWER: transition, or quantum jump POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 122. When the energy state of an atom changes by ΔE, the frequency of the photon emitted or absorbed is Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics calculated by dividing ΔE by ______________.

ANSWER: h, or Planck's constant POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 123. In common physics terminology, a particle with a negative potential energy is in a(n) potential ______________.

ANSWER: well POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 124. The energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom has only certain ______________ values.

ANSWER: discrete, or allowed POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 125. The lowest energy level of an atom (n = 1) is called the ______________.

ANSWER: ground state POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 126. The principal quantum number is symbolized by the letter ______________.

ANSWER: n POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 127. The second excited state for an electron in a hydrogen atom would be where n equals ______________.

ANSWER: 3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 128. When an electron changes from n = 3 to n = 2, a(n) ______________ is given off.

ANSWER: photon POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 129. The energy differences in some of the rotational energy levels of the water molecule allow cooking with ______________.

ANSWER: microwaves POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 130. Optical scanners at the grocery store often use He-Ne ______________.

ANSWER: lasers Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 131. Black light is a common name for the region of the EMR spectrum known as ______________.

ANSWER: ultraviolet POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 132. The concept of matter waves reflects the observation that particles such as electrons sometimes act like ______________.

ANSWER: waves POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 133. Matter waves are also called ______________ waves.

ANSWER: de Broglie POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 134. In terms of a combination of three other symbols, the wavelength (λ) of a moving particle is equal to ______________.

ANSWER: h/mv POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 135. Another name for quantum mechanics is ______________ mechanics.

ANSWER: wave POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 136. The concept of the dual nature of light indicates that electromagnetic waves sometimes act like ______________.

ANSWER: particles POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 137. Both line emission and line ______________ spectra are characteristic for a specific element.

ANSWER: absorption POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 138. Tripling the frequency of a photon would ______________ its energy.

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 139. Doubling the wavelength of a photon would ______________ its energy.

ANSWER: halve POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 140. The frequency and energy of a photon are ______________ proportional.

ANSWER: directly POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 141. The energy of a photon is ______________ proportional to its wavelength.

ANSWER: inversely POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 142. The energy of a photon equals ______________ multiplied by the frequency.

ANSWER: h, or Planck's constant POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 143. The energy levels of electrons in atoms are ______________, which means that only certain values of energy are allowed.

ANSWER: quantized POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 144. A beam of light can be thought of as consisting of a stream of particles called ______________.

ANSWER: photons POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 145. The element named ______________ was detected spectroscopically on the Sun before it was found on Earth.

ANSWER: helium POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 146. The ancient Greek who is known for championing the concept of the atom was named ______________.

ANSWER: Democritus, or Leucippus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics 147. An excited gas in a gas-discharge tube emits light that disperses into a(n) ______________ spectrum.

ANSWER: line emission, or bright line POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 148. Light from an incandescent wire disperses into a(n) ______________ spectrum.

ANSWER: continuous POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 149. Light from an incandescent wire travels through a cool gas and is then dispersed into a(n) ______________ spectrum.

ANSWER: line absorption, or dark line POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 150. In the electron cloud model, or quantum model, of the atom, the focus is on the ______________ nature of the electron.

ANSWER: wave POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 151. In the quantum model of the atom, the location of the electron is described in terms of ______________.

ANSWER: probability POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 152. The wave function Ψ mathematically represents the ______________ associated with a particle.

ANSWER: wave POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 153. The term probability is associated with the model of the atom proposed by ______________.

ANSWER: Schrödinger POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 154. The most modern model of the atom is known as the ______________ model.

ANSWER: quantum, or electron cloud POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 155. In the Bohr model, the higher the value of n, the farther from the nucleus the electron is located. In the quantum model, the higher the value of n, the farther from the nucleus the electron ______________ is located.

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics ANSWER: probably POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 156. The principle that states that the exact position and the velocity of an object can never be known simultaneously is called ______________ principle.

ANSWER: Heisenberg's uncertainty POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 157. A useful instrument that makes use of the wavelike properties of electrons is the electron ______________.

ANSWER: microscope POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 158. The “X” in X-ray stands for ______________.

ANSWER: “unknown” POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 159. Microwave ovens work mainly by exciting molecules of the substance named ______________.

ANSWER: water POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 160. When an electron is added to an atom, a(n) ______________ ion is formed.

ANSWER: negative POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 161. Calculate the energy, in joules, of photons of light with frequency 6.00 × 1014 Hz. ANSWER: 39.8  10–20 J, or 3.98  10 –19 J POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 162. Calculate the frequency, in hertz, of photons of light with energy of 2.00 × 10-19 J. ANSWER: 0.302  1015 Hz, or 3.02  1014 Hz POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 163. Calculate the energy En, in electron volts, of a hydrogen atom's electron with n = 5.

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics ANSWER: -0.544 eV POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 164. Calculate the radius in nanometers of the orbit of a hydrogen atom's electron with n = 5.

ANSWER: 1.3 nm POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 165. If the energy of n = 4 is –0.85 eV and that of n = 2 is –3.40 eV in a hydrogen atom, a transition from n = 4 to n = 2 will release a photon of what energy?

ANSWER: 2.55 eV (-0.85 eV + 3.40 eV) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 166. Calculate the energy in electron volts of the photon emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom goes from n = 2 to n = 1.

ANSWER: 10.20 eV (-3.40 eV + 13.60 eV) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 167. Calculate the de Broglie wavelength for an electron (m = 1 × 10-30 kg) moving at 2.4 × 106 m/s.

ANSWER: 2.8  10-10 m POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 168. Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of a 0.145-kg baseball moving at a speed of 45.2 m/s.

ANSWER: 1.01  10-34 m POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 169. A CD player uses a laser whose light frequency is 3.85 × 1014 Hz. Calculate the energy, in joules, of the photons.

ANSWER: 2.55  10–19 J POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 170. Calculate the energy En, in electron volts, of a hydrogen atom's electron with n = 6.

ANSWER: POINTS:

-0.378 eV 1

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Chapter 09 - Atomic Physics QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 171. Calculate the radius in nanometers of the Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom's electron with n = 6.

ANSWER: 1.91 nm POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 172. If the energy of n = 5 is –0.544 eV and that of n = 2 is –3.40 eV in a hydrogen atom, a transition from n = 2 to n = 5 will absorb a photon of what energy?

ANSWER: 2.86 eV (or -2.86 eV, the minus indicating absorption) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 173. If the energy of n = 6 is –0.378 eV and that of n = 4 is –0.850 eV in a hydrogen atom, a transition from n = 6 to n = 4 will emit a photon of what energy?

ANSWER: 0.472 eV (the positive value indicating emission) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 1. How many protons are there in an atom of

?

a. 12 b. 34 c. 23 d. 11 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. How many neutrons are there in an atom of

?

a. 19 b. 20 c. 39 d. 58 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. How many electrons are there in a neutral atom of

?

a. 26 b. 30 c. 82 d. 56 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. How many electrons are there in a neutral atom of

?

a. 26 b. 30 c. 82 d. 56 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. What is the symbol for the element whose atoms have 40 electrons each? a. Ge b. Zr Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics c. Ar d. None of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. What is the symbol for the element whose atoms have 92 protons each? a. Nb b. U c. Zn d. None of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. What is the symbol for the element whose atoms have 3 protons each? a. Mn b. Li c. Sr d. Li e. Cm ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. How many protons does Tc have? a. 93 b. 58 c. 48 d. 107 e. 43 ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. How many protons does Radon have? a. 6 b. 101 c. 31 d. 103 e. 86 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. What is the symbol used on the periodic table for the element Rubidium? a. Rf b. Hs c. Rb d. No e. U ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. How many nucleons are there in an atom of

?

a. 92 b. 143 c. 235 d. None of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. How many neutrons are there in an atom of

?

a. 92 b. 143 c. 235 d. None of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. How many protons are there in an atom of

?

a. 92 b. 143 c. 235 d. None of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 14. The atomic number (Z) of an element is equal to the number of ______________ in one of its atoms. a. protons b. neutrons c. protons plus neutrons d. neutrons plus electrons ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. The mass number (A) of a nuclide is equal to the number of ______________ in one of its nuclei. a. protons plus neutrons b. protons c. neutrons d. neutrons plus electrons ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. Who discovered the electron in 1897? a. Ernest Rutherford b. James Chadwick c. J. J. Thomson d. Niels Bohr ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. Who discovered the atomic nucleus in 1911? a. Marie and Pierre Curie b. Henri Becquerel c. Ernest Rutherford d. Niels Bohr ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. The various isotopes of an element all have a. the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. b. the same total number of neutrons and protons. c. the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons. d. the same number of neutrons and the same number of protons.

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. The diameter of an average nucleus is about a. 10-5 m. b. 10-7 m. c. 10-10 m. d. 10-14 m.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. The diameter of an average atom is about a. 10-7 m. b. 10-10 m. c. 10-5 m. d. 10-14 m.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. Which type of atom is the standard on which the atomic mass scale is based? a. 12C b. 16O c. 1H d. 56Fe ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. The average mass of the atoms of an element in naturally occurring samples is called the ______________ mass of the element. a. atomic b. average c. relative d. molecular ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. The nucleus makes up about what percentage of the mass of an atom?

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics a. 99.9% b. 50% c. 90% d. 5% ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. The strong nuclear force is a. strongly repulsive for distances less than 10-14 m and strongly attractive for larger distances. b. zero for distances less than 10-14 m and strongly attractive for larger distances. c. strongly attractive for distances less than 10-14 m and zero for larger distances. d. strongly attractive for distances less than 10-14 m and repulsive for larger distances.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. The most important force between a proton and a neutron is the ______________ force. a. strong nuclear b. quark c. electromagnetic d. gravitational ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. Which isotope of hydrogen is radioactive? a. Protium b. Tritium c. Deuterium d. Hydronium ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. Radioactive decay was discovered in 1896 by a. Ernest Rutherford. b. Niels Bohr. c. Henri Becquerel. d. Marie and Pierre Curie.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. When an oxygen-19 nucleus undergoes beta decay, the nucleus formed is that of a. nitrogen-18. b. oxygen-18. c. fluorine-19. d. carbon-14.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. When an unstable Lutetium nucleus undergoes beta decay, the nucleus formed is that of a. Lutetium. b. Tantalum. c. Ytterbium. d. Thulium. e. Hafnium.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. When an unstable Co nucleus undergoes beta decay, the nucleus formed is that of a. Co. b. Cu. c. Fe. d. Mn. e. Ni. ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. When an unstable O nucleus undergoes beta decay, the nucleus formed is that of a. Oxygen. b. Neon. c. Nitrogen. d. Carbon. e. Fluorine.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 32. When an unstable Arsenic nucleus undergoes alpha decay, the nucleus formed is that of a. Arsenic. b. Bromine. c. Germanium. d. Gallium. e. Selenium.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. When an unstable Zr nucleus undergoes alpha decay, the nucleus formed is that of a. Zr. b. Mo. c. Y. d. Sr. e. Nb. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. When an unstable U nucleus undergoes alpha decay, the nucleus formed is that of a. Uranium. b. Plutonium. c. Protactinium. d. Thorium. e. Neptunium.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. When an unstable Nickel nucleus undergoes gamma decay, the nucleus formed is that of a. Nickel. b. Zinc. c. Cobalt. d. Iron. e. Copper.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. When an unstable W nucleus undergoes gamma decay, the nucleus formed is that of a. W. Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics b. Os. c. Ta. d. Hf. e. Re. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. When an unstable Cd nucleus undergoes gamma decay, the nucleus formed is that of a. Cadmium. b. Tin. c. Silver. d. Palladium. e. Indium.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. When

undergoes alpha decay, the daughter is

a.

.

b.

.

c. d.

. .

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. When

decays to

, a(n) ______________ is emitted.

a. beta particle b. deuteron c. gamma ray d. alpha particle ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. When

decays to

, a(n) _____________ is emitted.

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics a. alpha particle b. neutron c. gamma ray d. beta particle ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. What happens to the atomic number (Z) and the mass number (A) when a nucleus emits a beta particle (electron)? a. Z increases by 1; A is unchanged. b. Z is unchanged; A is unchanged. c. Z decreases by 2; A decreases by 4. d. Z decreases by 1; A is unchanged.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. What happens to the atomic number (Z) and the mass number (A) when a nucleus emits an alpha particle? a. Z increases by 1; A is unchanged. b. Z is unchanged; A is unchanged. c. Z decreases by 2; A decreases by 4. d. Z decreases by 1; A is unchanged.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. What happens to the atomic number (Z) and the mass number (A) when a nucleus emits a gamma ray? a. Z increases by 1; A is unchanged. b. Z is unchanged; A is unchanged. c. Z decreases by 1; A is unchanged. d. Z decreases by 2; A decreases by 4.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. When a. b.

undergoes beta decay, the daughter is . .

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics c.

.

d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. Most stable types of nuclei have an ______________ number of protons and an ______________ number of neutrons. a. even; odd b. odd; odd c. odd; even d. even; even ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. When the number of protons in a nucleus exceeds ______________, the nucleus is unstable. a. 65 b. 56 c. 83 d. 103 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. With only two exceptions, if a nucleus contains fewer ______________ than ______________, it is unstable. a. protons; neutrons b. neutrons; protons c. protons; alpha particles d. protons; beta particles ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. Which of the following nuclides would be stable? a. b. c.

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics d.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. Which of the following nuclides would be radioactive? a. b. c. d.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. Who discovered radium? a. Marie and Pierre Curie b. Ernest Rutherford c. Henri Becquerel d. Niels Bohr ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. Radioactivity was discovered in a. Berlin. b. Berkeley. c. Paris. d. Cambridge.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. Which two isotopes of bromine would you predict to be stable? a. and

b. c.

and and

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics d.

and

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. No radionuclides decay by emitting a. protons. b. alpha particles. c. electrons. d. gamma rays.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. If the activity of a sample of 232Th decreases from 1000 cpm to 500 cpm in 60 min, in another 60 min its activity will be a. 500 cpm. b. 0 cpm. c. 250 cpm. d. 125 cpm.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. After three half-lives have elapsed, what fraction of the original amount of radionuclide remains? a. 1/3 b. 1/4 c. 1/8 d. None of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. After seven half-lives have elapsed, what fraction of the original amount of radionuclide remains? a. 1/7 b. 1/14 c. 1/128 d. None of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 57. After seven half-lives have elapsed, what fraction of the original amount has changed into another element? a. 6/7 b. 13/14 c. 127/128 d. None of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. After two half-lives have gone by, what fraction of the original sample of a radionuclide remains? a. 1/8 b. 1/4 c. 1/3 d. None of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. The half-life of 3H is 12 years. About how long does it take for 7/8 of a sample of that radionuclide to decay? a. 3 years b. 24 years c. 4 years d. 36 years ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. The half-life of 3H is 12 years. About how long does it take for 127/128 of a sample of that radionuclide to decay? a. 7 years b. 11.9 years c. 12.1 years d. 84 years ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. The half-life of 20F is 11 s. What fraction of a sample of 20F will remain after 44 s have elapsed? a. 1/4 b. 1/16 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics c. 1/8 d. None of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. The half-life of 20F is 11 s. What fraction of a sample of 20F will remain after 99 s have elapsed? a. 1/10 b. 1/9 c. 1/400 d. 1/512 e. None of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. Which of the following instruments detects and measures radioactivity? a. Geiger counter b. Cyclotron c. Tokamak d. Mass spectrometer ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. Which of the following is a transuranium element? a. Am b. Pa c. Ra d. Tc ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. The smallest amount of a fissionable material that will give a self-sustaining chain reaction is called the a. mass defect. b. mass number. c. atomic mass. d. critical mass.

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. Plutonium-239 and uranium-235 undergo fission when bombarded by a. protons. b. neutrons. c. alpha particles. d. electrons.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. If the bombardment of a

nucleus with an alpha particle produces a deuteron, the other product is

a. b. c. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. When an alpha particle hits a

nucleus, one of the products is a proton. The other product is

a. b. c. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. When a neutron hits a

nucleus, one of the two products is an alpha particle. The other product is

a. b. c.

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics d. e. none of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. A positron is symbolized by a. b. c. d.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. An electron is symbolized by a. b. c. d.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. Artificial transmutations are generally achieved using a. Geiger counters. b. particle accelerators. c. tokamaks. d. mass spectrometers.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. The analytical procedure that bombards a sample with neutrons and measures the frequency of gamma rays emitted is called a. the alpha scattering technique.

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics b. carbon dating. c. neutron activation analysis. d. Geiger counting.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 74. Which of the following is a transuranium element? a. Tc b. Pu c. Tm d. Pm ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 75. Neutrons are good “projectiles” for inducing nuclear reactions because they a. have no electric charge. b. are themselves unstable. c. are highly energetic. d. have no mass.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. The process of obtaining energy by splitting a large nucleus is called a. nucleogenesis. b. fusion. c. bombardment. d. fission.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. The fission of 235U nuclei is initiated by a. electrons. b. protons. c. alpha particles. d. neutrons.

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. An amount of fissionable material that will not sustain a chain reaction is called a. a subatomic mass. b. a subisotopic mass. c. a subcritical mass. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. Breeder reactors a. produce plutonium from 238U. b. use 238U as a fuel. c. produce 235U from 238U. d. produce 238U from 235U. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 80. The primary function of a moderator in a nuclear reactor is to a. absorb neutrons. b. cool the fuel rods. c. slow down neutrons. d. transfer heat.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. Which of the following four elements is a neutron-absorbing material used in controlling nuclear reactors? a. Gold b. Boron c. Iron d. Carbon ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. Natural uranium contains about what percentage of the fissionable isotope 235U? a. 50% b. 99% Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics c. 1% d. 19% ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 83. Enriched uranium is a better nuclear reactor fuel than natural uranium because enriched uranium contains a greater proportion of a. 239Pu. b. 235U. c. 238U. d. 2H. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. The “splitting” of the atom was first discovered in a. 1952. b. 1869. c. 1938. d. 1905.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. Oak Ridge, Tennessee, was built to separate a. 235U from 238U. b. 14C from 12C. c. 2H from 1H. d. 239Pu from 238U. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. The reaction

is an example of

a. alpha emission. b. naturally occurring neutron decay. c. fusion. d. fission.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 87. The reaction

is an example of

a. fission. b. alpha emission. c. naturally occurring neutron decay. d. fusion.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 88. The process of obtaining energy by merging small nuclei is called a. fission. b. fusion. c. nucleogenesis. d. bombardment.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 89. Fusion reactors of the future are likely to use ______________ as fuel. a. enriched uranium b. plutonium c. americium d. deuterium ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 90. The nuclide at the top of the "relative stability of nucleus versus mass number" curve is a. iron-56. b. uranium-235. c. uranium-238. d. helium-4.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 91. An exoergic reaction a. absorbs energy. b. requires a high temperature.

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics c. releases energy. d. occurs only in stars.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 92. An endoergic reaction a. releases energy. b. requires a high temperature. c. occurs only in stars. d. absorbs energy.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 93. Thermonuclear warheads, or hydrogen bombs, are powerful mainly because of the a. fission process. b. fusion process. c. absorption of neutrons by 238U. d. emission of protons by 238U. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 94. In nuclear fusion, a. light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus. b. a large nucleus splits into two smaller ones. c. an initial reaction triggers a chain reaction. d. protons are converted into neutrons and energy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 95. Which of the following has not yet been proved practical? a. Fusion reactor b. Fusion bomb c. Fission bomb d. Fission reactor ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 96. Any nuclear process that leads ______________ on the "mass defect per nucleon versus mass number" curve will release nuclear energy. a. right b. up c. down d. left ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 97. Which of the following types of radiation has the greatest ability to penetrate matter? a. Gamma rays b. Beta particles c. Alpha particles d. Protons ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 98. Which of the following types of radiation has the least ability to penetrate matter? a. Alpha particles b. Gamma rays c. X-rays d. Beta particles ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 99. In which unit would it be best to state the dosage of radiation absorbed, with regard to its effects on humans? a. Roentgens b. Curies c. Becquerels d. Rems ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 100. Short-term and long-term effects of radiation on the health of the recipient are called ______________ effects. a. threshold b. somatic Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics c. latent d. genetic ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 101. Defects in the subsequent offspring of the recipient of radiation are called ______________ effects. a. genetic b. latent c. somatic d. threshold ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 102. What is the symbol for the element copper? a. Co b. Ce c. Cr d. Cu ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 103. What is the symbol for the element Actinium? a. Ac b. Tl c. B d. Md e. He ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 104. The symbol notation now used for elements was developed by a. Dalton. b. Berzelius. c. Rutherford. d. Bohr.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 105. What type of decay changes only the energy of a nucleus and not its identity? a. Positron b. Alpha c. Gamma d. Beta ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 106. Which type of hydrogen is referred to as “heavy hydrogen”? a. Tritium b. Hydronium c. Protium d. Deuterium ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 107. Isotopes of an element differ in their numbers of ______________.

ANSWER: neutrons POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. The number of neutrons in a deuteron is ______________.

ANSWER: 1 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 109. The number of neutrons in a triton is ______________.

ANSWER: 2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 110. The number of neutrons in an atom of ANSWER: 10 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

is ______________.

111. The number of protons in an atom of ANSWER: 9

is ______________.

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 112. The number of electrons in an atom of ANSWER: 9 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

is ______________.

113. The number of nucleons in an atom of ANSWER: 19 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

is ______________.

114. A scientist named ______________ discovered the proton in 1919.

ANSWER: Ernest Rutherford POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 115. A scientist named ______________ discovered the neutron in 1932.

ANSWER: James Chadwick POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 116. The symbol for the element whose atoms contain 28 protons is ______________.

ANSWER: Ni POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 117. The alpha scattering experiment resulted in the discovery of the ______________.

ANSWER: nucleus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 118. The diameter of the average atom is about ______________ m.

ANSWER: 2.55  10–19 J POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 119. The diameter of the average nucleus is about ______________ m.

ANSWER: 10-14 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 120. The central core of the atom is called the ______________.

ANSWER: nucleus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. The collective name for neutrons and protons is ______________.

ANSWER: nucleons POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 122. The atomic mass of a hypothetical element consisting of 50% 30X and 50% 32X would be about ______________ u.

ANSWER: 31 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 123. The symbolic notation for an alpha particle is ______________.

ANSWER: POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 124. The symbolic notation for a beta particle is ______________.

ANSWER: POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 125. An electron is emitted by an atomic nucleus in the process called ______________ decay.

ANSWER: beta POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 126. A scientist named ______________ discovered radioactivity in 1896.

ANSWER: Henri Becquerel POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 127. Only four nuclides having an ______________ number of protons and an ______________ number of neutrons are stable.

ANSWER: odd; odd POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 128. Except for 1H and 3He, all nuclei having fewer ______________ than ______________ are radioactive.

ANSWER: neutrons; protons POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 129. No nuclide with an atomic number greater than ______________ is stable.

ANSWER: 83 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 130. Only the energy of a nucleus, and not its identity, is changed when it undergoes ______________ decay.

ANSWER: gamma POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 131. The four stable odd-odd nuclides are ANSWER:

and ______________.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer * 132. Complete the equation: ANSWER:  POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer

133. Complete the equation: ANSWER:

______________

______________

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 134. Complete the equation: ANSWER:

______________

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 135. Complete the equation: ANSWER:

______________

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 136. Isotopes of the element named ______________ probably will be the fuel for the first commercial fusion reactors.

ANSWER: hydrogen POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 137. If a radionuclide has a half-life of 8 h, ______________ half-lives would go by during 40 h.

ANSWER: 5 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 138. Copper-66 decays to zinc-66 when it emits a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: beta particle POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 139. The time it takes for one-half of a sample of a radionuclide to decay is called its ______________.

ANSWER: half-life POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 140. The name of the transuranium element commonly used in smoke detectors is ______________.

ANSWER: americium POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 141. Complete the equation: ANSWER:

______________

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 142. Complete the equation: ANSWER:

______________

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 143. Complete the equation: ANSWER:

______________

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 144. Complete the equation: ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 145. Complete the equation: ANSWER:

______________

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 146. The antiparticle of the electron is called the ______________.

ANSWER: positron POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 147. The number of neutrons available to cause fission in a nuclear reactor is adjusted by inserting or withdrawing the ______________.

ANSWER: control rods POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 148. The first self-sustaining nuclear fission reaction was achieved in Chicago in 1942 under the direction of a scientist named ______________.

ANSWER: Enrico Fermi POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 149. The United States' effort to build an atomic bomb was named the ______________ Project.

ANSWER: Manhattan POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 150. A gas of electrons and protons or other nuclei is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: plasma POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 151. Plasmas are controlled and manipulated using an approach called ______________ confinement.

ANSWER: magnetic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 152. The c in E = mc2 stands for ______________.

ANSWER: the speed of light POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 153. The common unit of radiation absorbed dosage is the ______________.

ANSWER: rem (or roentgen equivalent, man) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 154. The scientist who developed the modern symbol notation for elements was named ______________.

ANSWER: Berzelius POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 155. Short-term and long-term effects of radiation on the health of the recipient are called ______________ effects.

ANSWER: somatic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 156. The number of nucleons in a nucleus is the same as the number of neutrons plus the number of ______________.

ANSWER: protons POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 157. A positron is the ______________of an electron.

ANSWER: antiparticle POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 158. The percentage of a radionuclide that would remain after 4 half-lives is ______________.

ANSWER: 6.25% POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 159. State the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in an atom of

.

ANSWER: 33 p, 33 e, 42 n POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 160. Determine the atomic mass of a hypothetical element that occurs on Earth as a mixture of 20.00% 32X (atomic mass of isotope = 32.00 u) and 80.00% 34X (atomic mass of isotope = 34.00 u).

ANSWER: 33.60 u POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 161. Determine the atomic mass of a hypothetical element that occurs on Earth as a mixture of 30.00% 44X (atomic mass of isotope = 44.00 u) and 70.00% 46X (atomic mass of isotope = 46.00 u).

ANSWER: 45.40 u POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 162. Which one of the following isotopes of gallium would you expect to be radioactive? Explain your choice.

ANSWER:

has an odd number of protons and an odd number of neutrons (37), so it will be radioactive.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 163. Tell why each nuclide shown is unstable. Explain your reasoning in each case.

33Cl has fewer neutrons than protons and so is unstable. 64Cu is odd-odd and so is unstable. 223Fr has Z greater than 83 and so is unstable.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer ANSWER:

164. The half-life of 30.0 h have elapsed?

is 6.0 h. What fraction of an original sample of this radionuclide would remain after

ANSWER: 1/32 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 165. The half-life of is 14 min. How many minutes would it take for the activity of a sample of this radionuclide to decrease from 1200 cpm to 150 cpm?

ANSWER: 42 min POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics 166. After 8.0 years have elapsed, 15/16 of a sample of a specific radionuclide has decayed. What is the halflife of the radionuclide?

ANSWER: 2.0 years POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 167. Complete the equation, and state what type of decay is occurring. _____________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 168. Complete the equation, and state what type of decay is occurring. * _____________ + γ ANSWER: POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 169. Complete the equation, and state what type of decay is occurring. _____________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 170. Complete the equation. _____________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 171. Write the equation for the alpha decay of ANSWER:

.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 172. Write the equation for the beta decay of ANSWER: POINTS:

.

1

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Chapter 10 - Nuclear Physics QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 173. Write the equation for the reaction of a deuteron with a triton to form a neutron and another particle.

ANSWER: POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 174. A fusion reaction occurring in the interior of some stars is shown below. Calculate the mass lost, in atomic mass units, and the energy produced, in millions of electron volts. (Recall that 931 MeV is the energy obtained from the conversion of 1 u of mass.)

4.00260 u

12.0000 u

15.9949 u

ANSWER: 0.0077 u; 7.2 MeV POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements 1. Which of the following is not matter? a. Air b. Heat c. Charcoal d. Electrons ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. Which of the five major divisions of chemistry is generally considered the most fundamental? a. Organic chemistry b. Inorganic chemistry c. Analytical chemistry d. Physical chemistry e. Biochemistry ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. Which science deals with the composition, structure, properties, and reactions of matter? a. Thermodynamics b. Geology c. Physics d. Chemistry ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Which of the following is not one of the five major divisions of chemistry? a. Nuclear chemistry b. Physical chemistry c. Biochemistry d. Inorganic chemistry ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. If all samples of a material have identical properties and composition, it is a. a compound. b. an element. c. a homogeneous mixture. d. an element or compound.

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. Aluminum is an example of a. a compound. b. a solution. c. an element. d. an alloy.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. Neptunium is an example of a. A compound b. A solution c. An alloy d. An element ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. A sample of matter that contains atoms that all have the same number of protons is a. an element. b. a substance. c. a compound. d. a homogeneous mixture.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. The most modern definition of element is a. a substance that cannot be further separated by chemical methods. b. the simplest form of matter. c. a substance in which all the atoms have the same number of protons. d. a substance that contains no neutrons.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. The identity of an atom is determined by its number of a. valence bonds.

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements b. neutrons. c. electrons. d. protons.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. A nonchemical combination of two or more substances in variable proportions is called a. a mixture. b. a compound. c. an ion. d. a molecule.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. A chemical combination of two or more substances in variable proportions is called a. a mixture. b. a compound. c. an ion. d. a molecule.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. A substance composed of two or more elements chemically combined in a definite, fixed proportion by mass is a. a molecule. b. a compound. c. an ion. d. a mixture.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. Mouthwash is a good example of a. a compound. b. a heterogeneous mixture. c. a homogeneous mixture. d. an element.

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. A cola drink is a good example of a. a compound. b. a heterogeneous mixture. c. a homogeneous mixture. d. an element.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. A watermelon is a good example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a homogeneous mixture. d. a heterogeneous mixture.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. A chocolate chip cookie is a good example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a homogeneous mixture. d. a heterogeneous mixture.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. Chloroform can be broken down by chemical means but not by physical methods. Thus chloroform is a. a homogeneous mixture. b. an element. c. a compound. d. a heterogeneous mixture.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. The greater amount of substance in a solution is generally called the a. salt. b. solute. c. molar concentrate.

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements d. solvent.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. The smaller portion of a solution is generally called the a. salt. b. solute. c. molar concentrate. d. solvent.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. Solutions are a. homogeneous mixtures. b. heterogeneous mixtures. c. nonuniform mixtures. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. Take a cup of water, add sugar, and stir. If the resulting solution no longer contains sugar crystals, the solution is said to be a. an unsaturated solution. b. a saturated solution. c. a heterogeneous solution. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. Take a cup of water, add sugar, and stir. If the resulting solution contains sugar crystals that do not dissolve, the solution is said to be a. an unsaturated solution. b. a saturated solution. c. a homogeneous solution. d. none of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements 24. Take a cup of water, add sugar, and stir. Continue adding sugar and stirring until the sugar crystals no longer dissolve. Then apply heat to dissolve the remaining crystals. If the resulting solution is allowed to slowly cool, the solution is said to be a. an unsaturated solution. b. a saturated solution. c. a supersaturated solution. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. Living next to a lake near volcanic activity can be deadly. There can be large amounts of CO2 dissolved in the water. An earthquake, landslide, or even rapid cooling can trigger the release of the CO2, causing death nearby. The water of the lake in these cases is a. an unsaturated solution. b. a saturated solution. c. a supersaturated solution. d. a completely unsaturated solution.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. A bubble-producing soda is an example of a. an unsaturated solution. b. a saturated solution. c. a supersaturated solution. d. a completely unsaturated solution.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. A metal alloy, such as steel, is a. a compound. b. a heterogeneous mixture. c. a homogeneous mixture. d. an element.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. A gold-plated (gold-covered) piece of jewelery, such as a bracelet, is Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements a. a compound. b. a heterogeneous mixture. c. a homogeneous mixture. d. an element.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. In 1661, who developed a definition of element that made the concept subject to laboratory investigation? a. Berzelius b. Boyle c. Lavoisier d. Davy ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. What was the nationality of the first persons who we know speculated about “elements”? a. Chinese b. Egyptian c. Greek d. Roman ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. How many elements occur naturally on Earth? a. 102 b. 88 c. 112 d. 82 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. The symbol for Erbium is a. Er. b. Yb. c. Ho. d. Dy. e. Tm. Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. The symbol for carbon is a. Ca. b. Cr. c. Co. d. C. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. The symbol for potassium is a. Pm. b. Po. c. P. d. K. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. The symbol for tin is a. Sn. b. Ti. c. Sb. d. In. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. The symbol for tungsten is a. W. b. Ti. c. Ag. d. Tb. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. The symbol for lead is a. Pb. Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements b. La. c. Li. d. Xe. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. The symbol for copper is a. C. b. Co. c. Cr. d. Cu. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. The symbol for oxygen is a. Ox. b. On. c. O. d. Xy. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. What scientist discovered more elements than any other person? a. Lavoisier b. Boyle c. Berzelius d. Davy ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. When the atoms of two or more elements react chemically, they usually join together to form a. isotopes. b. new elements. c. molecules. d. isomers.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. About 74% by mass of Earth's crust is composed of the two elements a. oxygen and iron. b. aluminum and iron. c. oxygen and silicon. d. silicon and aluminum.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. About 99% by mass of Earth's atmosphere is composed of the two elements a. nitrogen and oxygen. b. oxygen and carbon dioxide. c. oxygen and silicon. d. hydrogen and helium.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. About 85% by mass of Earth's core is composed of the element(s) a. iron b. nickel c. oxygen. d. silicon. e. iron and nickel.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. About 15% by mass of Earth's core is composed of the element(s) a. iron b. nickel c. oxygen. d. silicon. e. iron and nickel.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. Nearly 100% by mass of Earth's core is composed of the two elements a. iron and nickel Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements b. aluminum and silicon c. oxygen and aluminum d. silicon and oxygen.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. About 75% of the mass of the visible universe is composed of which element? a. Helium b. Iron c. Hydrogen d. Silicon ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. Only two elements, mercury and ______________, are liquid at room temperature and atmospheric pressure. a. sodium b. bromine c. phosphorus d. iodine ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. Diamond and graphite are a. similar in physical properties. b. composed of the same element. c. of the same crystalline structure. d. bonded in the same manner.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. Diamond, graphite, and buckyballs are a. isotopes. b. allotropes. c. isomeres. d. diatomic.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. Pencil “lead” (graphite) is made primarily of a. oil. b. PbO2. c. carbon. d. Pb. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. An example of a diatomic molecule of a compound is a. P4. b. NO2. c. N2. d. CO. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. Which of the following, along with O2, is an allotrope of oxygen? a. O3 b. O2c. O d. O4 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. The most abundant element in the universe is a. hydrogen. b. iron. c. oxygen. d. carbon.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. Two or more forms of the same element that have different bonding structures in the same physical phase are called a. isobars. b. allotropes.

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements c. isotopes. d. isomers.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. “Buckyball” is an allotrope of the element a. carbon. b. oxygen. c. phosphorus. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. The second most abundant element in the Earth's atmosphere is a. oxygen. b. argon. c. nitrogen. d. carbon dioxide.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. The periodic table is most easily understood in terms of the ______________ configurations of the elements. a. periodic b. proton c. neutron d. electron ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. The horizontal rows of elements in the periodic table are called a. periods. b. groups. c. families. d. series.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements 60. The vertical columns of elements in the periodic table are called a. periods. b. groups. c. families. d. series.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. The major credit for the development of the periodic table goes to a. Berzelius. b. Lavoisier. c. Boyle. d. Mendeleev.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. The chemical properties of chlorine and bromine are similar because both a. are nonmetals and they are close together in the periodic table. b. have seven valence electrons. c. have two electrons in the first shell. d. are in the same period.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. The chemical properties of calcium and strontium are similar because both a. are located on the left side the periodic table. b. are in the same group. c. have four electrons in the first shell. d. are in the same period.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. An element that is malleable, ductile, and a good conductor of heat and electricity would be classified as a a. metalloid. b. semimetal. c. metal. d. nonmetal.

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. In general, elements that have four to eight electrons in their valence shell are a. semimetals. b. metalloids. c. nonmetals. d. metals.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. In 1869, a major event in the history of chemistry occurred; it was the a. discovery of the law of definite proportions. b. discovery of the octet rule. c. discovery of the law of conservation of mass. d. development of the periodic table.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. Electrons in the outermost shell are referred to as ______________ electrons. a. valence b. orbital c. f shell d. s shell ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. In a given period, the element of which group has the highest ionization energy? a. 2A b. 8A c. 7A d. 1A ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. Which of the following Group 1A elements has the largest atom? a. Rb Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements b. Na c. K d. Li ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. Which of the following Group 1A elements has the smallest atom? a. Rb b. Na c. K d. Li ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. Which of the following Period 4 elements has the smallest atom? a. Kr b. Ga c. Ca d. Br ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. Which of the following Period 4 elements has the largest atom? a. Kr b. Ga c. Ca d. Br ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. The periodic law states that the properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic a. radii. b. shells. c. numbers. d. masses.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 74. How many valence electrons do the Group 6A elements have? a. 7 b. zero c. 6 d. 1 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 75. How many valence electrons does an atom of phosphorus have? a. 15 b. 5 c. zero d. 3 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. Which of the following Period 3 atoms has the smallest radius? a. Ar b. Al c. S d. Na ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. Which of the following elements has the lowest ionization energy? a. Ar b. Na c. Ne d. Li ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. How many shells in an atom of silicon contain electrons? a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements d. 4 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. Elements in Period 2 of the periodic table have electrons in how many shells? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 2 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 80. In addition to those of Groups 1A and 2A, three common elements that form only one ion each are a. Sc, Ti, and Hg. b. Pb, Sn, and Cu. c. Al, Zn, and Ag. d. Ga, Ni, and Fe. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. The ______________ for compounds are written by putting the composing elements' symbols adjacent to each other, with subscripts indicating the number of atoms of each. a. equations b. molecules c. isotopes d. formulas ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. An atom that has more electrons than protons is a ______________ ion. a. neutral b. positive c. negative d. polyatomic ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements 83. An atom that has more protons than electrons is a ______________ ion. a. neutral b. positive c. negative d. polyatomic ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. An atom that has equal amounts of protons and electrons is a ______________ ion. a. neutral b. positive c. negative d. polyatomic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. The hydroxide ion has a charge of a. 1–. b. zero. c. 1+. d. 2+.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. Which of the following is a positively charged polyatomic ion? a. Potassium ion b. Sulfide ion c. Ammonium ion d. Sulfate ion ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 87. Which of the following is a negatively charged polyatomic ion? a. Ammonium ion b. Oxide ion c. Sodium ion d. Nitrate ion ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 88. The preferred name for Cl2O7 is a. chlorine(II) oxide. b. chlorine oxide. c. dichlorine heptoxide. d. chlorine(VII) oxide.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 89. The preferred name for N2O (commonly called nitrous oxide) is a. nitrogen(II) oxide. b. nitric acid. c. nitric oxide. d. dinitrogen oxide.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 90. Which of the following polyatomic ions has a single minus charge? a. Acetate b. Sulfate c. Phosphate d. Ammonium ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 91. Which of the following polyatomic ions has a doubly negative charge? a. Acetate b. Sulfate c. Phosphate d. Ammonium ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 92. What is the preferred name for Mg3N2? a. Magnesium trinitride Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements b. Magnesium nitride c. Dimagnesium trinitride d. Manganese nitrate ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 93. Which is the formula for baking soda? a. NaHCO3 b. NaOH c. (NH4)2 SO4 d. HC2H3O2 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 94. Which of the following gases is monatomic? a. Nitrogen b. Argon c. Hydrogen d. Chlorine ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 95. Atoms of which group of elements have seven electrons in the outer shell? a. Noble gases b. Alkali metals c. Alkaline earth metals d. Halogens ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 96. Which group is the nearest neighbor to the noble gases in the periodic table? a. Noble gases b. Alkaline earth metals c. Halogens d. Alkali metals ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 97. The most reactive of all elements is a. hydrogen. b. fluorine. c. chlorine. d. sodium.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 98. The element barium should produce compounds most similar to those of a. sodium. b. nitrogen. c. carbon. d. calcium.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 99. A compound of which element is used as a diet supplement to prevent thyroid problems? a. Chlorine b. Calcium c. Carbon d. Iodine ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 100. Hydrogen is generally classified as a a. semimetal. b. nonmetal. c. metal. d. noble gas.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 101. Calcium carbonate is the major component of each of the following except a. limestone. b. seashells. c. stalagmites.

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements d. bones.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 102. Which element is used in safety flares and fireworks because it burns so brightly? a. Potassium b. Magnesium c. Carbon d. Chlorine ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 103. The Group 7A element astatine (85At) would be predicted to occur in what phase? a. Liquid b. Solid c. Plasma d. Gas ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 104. Which of the following is the symbol for an alkali metal? a. Al b. Cl c. K d. Ca ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 105. The element potassium should produce compounds most similar to those of a. Tc. b. Na. c. Al. d. Sr. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 106. Homogeneous mixtures are Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements a. heterogeneous mixtures. b. compounds. c. nonuniform mixtures. d. solutions.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 107. An equilibrium between solute dissolving and solute crystallizing is characteristic of which of the following solution types? a. Saturated b. Unsaturated c. Supersaturated d. Concentrated ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 108. In a supersaturated solution, a. the solvent has become the solute. b. the normal solubility is exceeded. c. more solute than solvent is present. d. the dissolved and undissolved solute are in equilibrium.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 109. Generally, the solubility of gases in liquids increases with a. decreasing temperature and increasing pressure. b. increasing temperature and decreasing pressure. c. decreasing temperature and decreasing pressure. d. increasing temperature and increasing pressure.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 110. Which of the following is the shell electron configuration for sulfur? a. 2, 4, 10 b. 10, 6 c. 2, 8, 6 d. None of these ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 111. An atom of chlorine has how many valence electrons? a. 1 b. 7 c. 4 d. 17 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 112. Which of the five major divisions of chemistry deals exclusively with carbon compounds? a. Physical chemistry b. Inorganic chemistry c. Analytical chemistry d. Organic chemistry e. Biochemistry ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 113. The lesser amount of a substance in a solution is generally called the a. solute. b. salt. c. solvent. d. alloy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 114. An example of a diatomic molecule of an element is a. He b. N2 c. P4 d. CO ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 115. Which of the following is the shell electron configuration for carbon? a. 3, 3 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements b. 6 c. 2, 4 d. 1, 5 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 116. The first shell of an atom can hold a maximum of how many electrons? a. 1 b. 2 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 117. When salt is dissolved in water, the salt is called the ______________.

ANSWER: solute POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 118. A solution in which more of the solute could be dissolved at the same temperature is called a(n) ______________ solution.

ANSWER: unsaturated POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 119. A solution that contains more dissolved solute than its normal solubility is called a(n) ______________ solution.

ANSWER: supersaturated POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 120. The second shell of an atom can hold a maximum of ______________ electrons.

ANSWER: 8 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. The ______________ of a given solute is the amount of solute that will dissolve in a specified mass of solvent at a given temperature to produce a saturated solution.

ANSWER: solubility POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements 122. Group ______________A elements have two valence electrons.

ANSWER: 2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 123. The shell electron configuration for an argon atom is ______________.

ANSWER: 2, 8, 8 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 124. ______________ chemistry is the most fundamental of the five major divisions of chemistry.

ANSWER: Physical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 125. ______________ are substances that cannot be decomposed by chemical processes.

ANSWER: Elements POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 126. Homogeneous mixtures are those mixtures that have variable but ______________ composition.

ANSWER: uniform POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 127. All specimens of a pure ______________ have identical properties and composition.

ANSWER: substance POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 128. Homogeneous mixtures are also called ______________.

ANSWER: solutions POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 129. A solid solution of two or more metals is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: alloy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 130. Matter can be defined as anything that ______________ ______________ and ______________ ______________.

ANSWER: has mass; occupies space Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 131. A(n) ______________ is a substance composed of two or more elements chemically combined in a definite, fixed proportion by mass.

ANSWER: compound POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 132. A(n) ______________ is a nonchemical combination of two or more substances in variable proportions.

ANSWER: mixture POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 133. Humphry Davy was able to discover six elements by using a new invention called the ______________.

ANSWER: battery POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 134. The molecular formula of “buckyball” is ______________.

ANSWER: C60 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 135. O3 and O2 are the two ______________ of the element oxygen.

ANSWER: allotropes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 136. An electrically neutral particle composed of two or more atoms chemically combined is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: molecule POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 137. Earth's atmosphere is 78% ______________.

ANSWER: nitrogen POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 138. Hydrogen, nitrogen, and chlorine are among the elements that occur as molecules made up of ______________ atoms.

ANSWER: two Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 139. In a neutral atom, the number of protons is equal to the number of ______________.

ANSWER: electrons POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 140. The three allotropes of carbon are graphite, the fullerenes, and ______________.

ANSWER: diamond POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 141. Over 99.9% of dry air at sea level is composed of the gases N2, O2, and ______________.

ANSWER: Ar POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 142. In a given period, the element of Group ______________ has the lowest ionization energy.

ANSWER: 1A POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 143. Elements that display some properties of both metals and nonmetals are called ______________.

ANSWER: semimetals, or metalloids POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 144. An element that tends to lose its valence electrons during chemical reactions is classified as a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: metal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 145. An element that tends to gain or share electrons during chemical reactions is classified as a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: nonmetal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 146. The major credit for the development of the periodic table goes to a scientist named ______________.

ANSWER: Mendeleev POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 147. The amount of energy necessary to remove an electron from an atom is called that atom's ______________.

ANSWER: ionization energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 148. Elements have similar chemical properties because they have the same number of electrons in their ______________.

ANSWER: valence shells, or outer shells POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 149. The second period of the periodic table is composed of ______________ (how many?) elements.

ANSWER: 8 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 150. The horizontal rows of the periodic table are called ______________.

ANSWER: periods POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 151. The electrons in the outermost shell are called ______________ electrons.

ANSWER: valence POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 152. The vertical columns in the periodic table are called ______________.

ANSWER: groups POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 153. For an atom of 12Mg, the number of shells containing electrons is ______________.

ANSWER: 3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 154. The common name for NH3 is ______________.

ANSWER: ammonia POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements 155. An aqueous solution of the colorless gas HCl is called ______________.

ANSWER: hydrochloric acid POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 156. The numerals that follow the symbols in chemical formulas are called ______________.

ANSWER: subscripts POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 157. An atom or chemical combination of atoms with a net electric charge is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: ion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 158. The compound BeF2 is named ______________.

ANSWER: beryllium fluoride POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 159. The pale-green, gaseous element named ______________ was used as a poisonous gas in World War I. ANSWER: chlorine POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 160. The element ______________ was the gas used in the Hindenburg.

ANSWER: hydrogen POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 161. The elements of Group ______________ are the most chemically active metals.

ANSWER: 1A POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 162. The element ______________ displays some chemical properties of both Group 1A and Group 7A elements.

ANSWER: hydrogen POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 163. The elements that hardly ever react with other elements to form compounds are called the ______________.

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements ANSWER: noble gases POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 164. The alkali metals have ______________ valence electron(s).

ANSWER: 1 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 165. Elements in which the outer shell contains 8 electrons are known as the ______________.

ANSWER: noble gases POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 166. The element ______________ is a purple-black solid that sublimes readily.

ANSWER: iodine POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 167. The element ______________ is a soft, active metal and forms a compound called lye.

ANSWER: sodium POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 168. The formula for sulfuric acid is _________________.

ANSWER: H2SO4 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 169. H3PO4 is the formula for ______________acid.

ANSWER: phosphoric POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 170. The major division of chemistry that deals with what substances are present and in what quantities is called ______________chemistry.

ANSWER: analytical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 171. The common name for CH4 is ______________.

ANSWER: methane POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 172. Give the chemical symbol for each element.

ANSWER: B, Pb, Cu, Kr POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 173. Give the name for each element.

ANSWER: chlorine, iron, silicon, sodium POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 174. Give the common ionic charge for each of the following elements, and classify each as a metal or a nonmetal.

ANSWER: 1+, metal; 1–, nonmetal; 2+, metal; 2–, nonmetal; 3+, metal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 175. Use the periodic table to find the atomic number, number of protons, number of electrons, and number of valence electrons for each of the following elements. a. barium b. tin c. phosphorus ANSWER: a. 56, 56, 56, 2 b. 50, 50, 50, 4 c. 15, 15, 15, 5 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 - The Chemical Elements POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 176. Arrange the atoms calcium, barium, chlorine, and bromine in order of increasing atomic radius.

ANSWER: chlorine, bromine, calcium, barium POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 177. Arrange the atoms magnesium, fluorine, strontium, and sulfur in order of increasing ionization energy.

ANSWER: strontium, magnesium, sulfur, fluorine POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 178. Give the formula, including the ionic charge, for each of the following polyatomic ions. a. hydroxide b. sulfate c. ammonium d. phosphate ANSWER: a. OH– b. SO4–2 c. NH4+ d. PO4–3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 179. Name the following compounds. a. NO2 b. N2O3 c. Zn(NO3)2 d. ICl5 ANSWER:

a. nitrogen dioxide b. dinitrogen trioxide c. zinc nitrate d. iodine pentachloride

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding 1. The force responsible for chemical bonding is a. nuclear. b. electromagnetic. c. none of these. d. gravitational.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. What person is known as the “father of chemistry” for his many contributions, including the law of conservation of mass? a. Boyle b. Lavoisier c. Mendeleev d. Dalton ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. A substance of unknown composition is heated in an open container. As a result, the mass of the container and its contents a. decreases. b. remains the same. c. increases. d. Any of these could occur.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. A substance of unknown composition is heated in a sealed container. As a result, the mass of the container and its contents a. increases. b. decreases. c. remains the same. d. Any of these could occur.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. An element that tends to gain electrons during chemical reactions is probably a. a semimetal. b. a nonmetal.

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding c. an actinide. d. a metal.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. What is the formula mass of ammonium phosphide, (NH4)3P? a. 85.0 u b. 49.0 u c. 48.0 u d. 57.0 u ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. The formula mass of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2, is a. 74.1 u. b. 38.1 u. c. 57.1 u. d. 58.1 u.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. The formula mass of water, H2O, is a. 18 u. b. 9 u. c. 10 u. d. 17 u.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. The formula mass of sulfuric acid, H2SO4, is a. 98 u. b. 100 u. c. 66 u. d. 7 u.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding 10. The percentage composition by mass of water is approximately a. 2% H and 1% O. b. 11% H and 89% O. c. 1% H and 99% O. d. 2% H and 16% O. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. The percentage composition by mass of nitrogen dioxide is approximately a. 43% N and 57% O. b. 33% N and 67% O. c. 30% N and 70% O. d. 47% N and 53% O. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. The ratio by mass of carbon to hydrogen in 100 g of a certain compound is 6 to 1. The ratio in 200 g of the same compound will be a. 24 to 1. b. 6 to 1. c. 12 to 1. d. none of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. The percentage by mass of hydrogen in methane, CH4, is about a. 25%. b. 75%. c. 80%. d. 20%.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. The percentage by mass of carbon in methane, CH4, is about a. 25%. b. 75%. c. 80%.

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding d. 20%.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. The percentage by mass of carbon in diamond is about a. 25%. b. 75%. c. 100%. d. 20%.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. The law of definite proportions states that different samples of a pure compound always contain the same elements in the same proportion by a. mass. b. atoms. c. atomic number. d. volume.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. The percentage by mass of chlorine a. would be the same in FeCl3 as in FeCl2. b. would be greater in FeCl3 than in FeCl2. c. would be less in FeCl3 than in FeCl2. d. cannot be determined without additional information.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. The percentage by mass of carbon a. would be the same in CO as in CO2. b. would be greater in CO than in CO2. c. would be less in CO than in CO2. d. cannot be determined without additional information.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding 19. Another name for solid carbon dioxide is a. heavy water. b. Epsom salt. c. dry ice. d. quicksilver.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. A compound consists of only magnesium, carbon, and oxygen. If the percentage by mass of Mg is 28.8% and that of C is 14.2%, what is the percentage by mass of O? a. 16.0% b. 57.0% c. 43.0% d. 22.5% e. None of the above ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. A compound consists of only magnesium, carbon, and oxygen. If the percentage by mass of Mg is 63.9% and that of C is 12.2%, what is the percentage by mass of O? a. 76.1% b. 23.9% c. 51.7% d. 70.9% e. None of the above ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. Suppose 25 g of reactant A is mixed with 45 g of reactant B. After a chemical reaction takes place between A and B, which statement is correct? a. The total mass of products plus any unreacted reactants will be 70 g. b. The total mass of products plus any unreacted reactants will be less than 70 g. c. The total mass of products plus any unreacted reactants will be more than 70 g. d. The total mass of products will be 70 g.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. Suppose 39 g of reactant A is mixed with 40 g of reactant B. After a chemical reaction takes place between Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding A and B, which statement is correct? a. The total mass of products plus any unreacted reactants will be 79 g. b. The total mass of products plus any unreacted reactants will be less than 79 g. c. The total mass of products plus any unreacted reactants will be more than 79 g. d. The total mass of products will be 79 g.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. When potassium and sulfur react to form potassium sulfide, an ionic compound, a. each sulfur atom loses two electrons. b. each sulfur atom loses one electron. c. each potassium atom loses one electron. d. each potassium atom loses two electrons.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. When sodium and chlorine react to form sodium chloride, an ionic compound, a. each sodium atom loses two electrons. b. each sodium atom loses one electron. c. each chlorine atom loses one electron. d. each chlorine atom loses two electrons.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. When sodium and chlorine react to form sodium chloride, an ionic compound, a. each sodium atom gains two electrons. b. each sodium atom gains one electron. c. each chlorine atom gains one electron. d. each chlorine atom gains two electrons.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. Element A, mass 5.00 g, reacts exactly with 2.00 g of element B to form 7.00 g of compound AB. If 10.00 g of element A are reacted with 2.00 g of element B to form the same compound, what mass of compound AB will be formed? a. 7.00 g b. 5.00 g c. 17.00 g Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding d. 12.00 g ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. Element A, mass 10.00 g, reacts exactly with 2.00 g of element B to form 12.00 g of compound AB. If 5.00 g of element A is reacted with 2.00 g of element B to form the same compound, what mass of compound AB will be formed? a. 7.00 g b. 6.00 g c. 17.00 g d. 12.00 g ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. Element A, mass 9.00 g, reacts exactly with 5.00 g of element B to form 14.00 g of compound AB. If 36.00 g of element A is reacted with 41.00 g of element B to form the same compound, what mass of compound AB will be formed? a. 9.00 g b. 56.00 g c. 9.00 g d. 30.00 g ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. A likely ratio of the masses of oxygen in two different compounds of tin and oxygen, both of which contain the same mass of tin, is a. 1.42 to 1. b. 3.11 to 1. c. 3.77 to 1. d. 2 to 1.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. The atomic theory was revived and put on a solid experimental foundation in about 1803 by a. Proust. b. Dalton. c. Boyle. d. Lavoisier.

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. For a compound composed of ions, the smallest combination of ions that gives the formula of the compound is called a a. molecule. b. polyionic atom. c. polyatomic ion. d. formula unit.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. Which of the following was not a part of Dalton's atomic theory? a. Each element is composed of atoms, which are identical for that element. b. The reactivity of elements involves changes in their electron configuration. c. Chemical combination is the bonding of a definite number of atoms of each of the combining elements. d. No atoms are gained, lost, or changed in identity during a chemical reaction.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. A general principle of ionic compound formation is that the total ionic charge in the formula unit must be a. 0. b. no greater than that of the metal ion. c. between +4 and –4. d. no less than that of the nonmetal ion.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. The octet rule states that the formula for a compound is derived by a. using a minimum of 8 atoms. b. using exactly 8 bonds in the formula unit. c. having all atoms or ions get noble gas electron configurations. d. having a net charge of magnitude 8.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. What electric charge is characteristic for an ion of O? Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding a. 6+ b. 0 c. 2– d. 2+ ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. What electric charge is characteristic for an ion of Cl? a. 7+ b. 0 c. 1– d. 1+ ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. What electric charge is characteristic for an ion of F? a. 7+ b. 0 c. 1– d. 1+ ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. What electric charge is characteristic for an ion of S? a. 6+ b. 0 c. 2– d. 2+ ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. What is the formula of a compound formed from the ions M1+ and X3-? a. M3X b. MX3 c. MX d. None of these ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. What is the formula of a compound formed from the ions M2+ and X2-? a. M2X b. MX c. M2X2 d. MX2 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. What is the formula of a compound formed from the ions M3+ and X2-? a. M2X b. MX c. M2X3 d. MX2 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. What is the formula of a compound formed from the ions M3+ and X3-? a. M2X b. MX c. M2X3 d. MX2 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. What is the formula of a compound formed from the ions M3+ and X1-? a. M3X b. MX c. M2X3 d. MX3 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. What is the formula of a compound formed from the ions M2+ and X3-?

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding a. MX b. M3X2 c. M2X3 d. M6X6 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. What is the formula of a compound formed from the ions M1+ and X1-? a. M2X b. MX c. M2X2 d. MX2 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. What is the formula of the compound formed from the ions of aluminum and oxygen? a. Al2O3 b. AlO c. AlO3 d. None of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. What is the formula of the compound formed from the ions of calcium and bromine? a. CaBr3 b. CaBr c. CaBr2 d. Ca2Br3 e. None of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. The Lewis symbol •X• would be characteristic of which group? a. 2A b. 4A c. 6A d. 1A Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. The Lewis symbol X• would be characteristic of which group? a. 2A b. 4A c. 6A d. 1A ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice

51. The Lewis symbol

would be characteristic of which group?

a. 2A b. 4A c. 6A d. 1A ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. The Lewis symbol

would be characteristic of which group?

a. 2A b. 4A c. 3A d. 1A ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. The Lewis symbol a. 2A b. 4A c. 3A d. 5A ANSWER: POINTS:

would be characteristic of which group?

d 1

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice

54. The Lewis symbol

would be characteristic of which group?

a. 6A b. 2A c. 3A d. 5A ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice

55. The Lewis symbol

would be characteristic of which group?

a. 6A b. 1A c. 3A d. 7A ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice

56. The Lewis symbol

would be characteristic of which group?

a. 6A b. 8A c. 3A d. 7A ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice

57. The Lewis symbol

would be characteristic of which group?

a. 6A b. 8A c. 3A d. 7A Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. If atoms unite by transfer of electrons, they form a. an organic compound. b. an ionic compound. c. a polar molecule. d. a covalent compound.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. If a compound is solid, has a high melting point, conducts electricity in the liquid phase, and dissolves in water, it is most likely to be a(n)______________ compound. a. intermediate b. organic c. covalent d. ionic ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. Combinations of atoms from the far right side of the periodic table with atoms from the far left side usually form ______________ compounds. a. organic b. ionic c. covalent d. polar ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. Except for hydrogen and helium, atoms in chemical combination tend to have ______________ electrons in their outer shell. a. 8 b. 14 c. 6 d. 2 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding 62. The ionic charge of the nitrite ion in Al(NO2)3, aluminum nitrite, must be a. 3+. b. 1–. c. 3–. d. 1+.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. A Group 6A nonmetal would be most likely to form an ionic bond with an element of Group a. 4A. b. 8A. c. 2A. d. 5A. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. The Lewis symbol of which of the following elements has a single dot on each of the four sides of the element's symbol? a. Helium b. Carbon c. Beryllium d. None of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. Which of the following ions is not isoelectronic with the other three? a. Clb. K+ c. Brd. P3ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. Which of the following ions is isoelectronic with a neon atom? a. N3b. Li+ c. ClCengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding d. F2ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. Which of the following ions would never form in chemical reactions? a. F2b. Al3+ c. O2d. N3ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. Which two elements are most likely to combine with one another to form an ionic compound? a. B and Cl b. Ra and Br c. Mg and Ca d. S and O ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. The ionic compound made of Fe3+ and CO32- ions would have the formula a. Fe3(CO3)2. b. FeCO3. c. Fe2(CO3)3. d. none of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. Which of the following elements commonly forms an ion with a 1– charge? a. Ag b. N c. Br d. Na ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding 71. The anion in the common ionic substance NaHCO3 is a. CO32-. b. H+. c. Na+. d. HCO3-.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. What is the correct formula for calcium phosphate? a. Ca3P2 b. Ca2(PO4)3 c. Ca3(PO4)2 d. Ca2P3 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. Which of the following compounds would be expected to be hard and brittle and to have a high melting point? a. H2SO4 b. KBr c. H2C2O4 d. IF7 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 74. The sharing of two electrons by unlike atoms generally forms a(n) ______________ bond. a. ionic b. metallic c. nonpolar d. polar covalent ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 75. When atoms unite by transferring electrons, they should form a. a polar molecule. b. a covalent compound. c. an ionic compound.

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding d. an organic compound.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. When hydrogen, from Group 1A, unites with chlorine, it forms a(n) ______________ compound. a. ionic b. metallic c. covalent d. organic ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. A pair of electrons shared by two atoms forms a. a metallic bond. b. a double covalent bond. c. a single covalent bond. d. an ionic bond.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. If two atoms have five electrons in the valence shell and are covalently bound, the molecule has a ______________ bond. a. quadruple b. double c. triple d. single ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. If two atoms have equal electronegativity, a bond formed between them is generally a. ionic. b. nonpolar. c. very weak. d. polar.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding 80. Two atoms of hydrogen bond with an atom of oxygen to form a water molecule. This bonding is a. covalent only. b. polar only. c. both covalent and polar. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. Compounds tend to be ______________ compounds if they are formed from two or more nonmetals. a. covalent b. organic c. polar d. ionic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. A Group 7A element would be most likely to form a covalent bond with elements of Group a. 2A. b. 1A. c. 8A. d. 6A. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 83. A carbon dioxide molecule is a. linear and polar. b. angular and polar. c. linear and nonpolar. d. angular and nonpolar.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. An ammonia molecule is a. pyramidal and polar. b. pyramidal and nonpolar. c. flat and polar. d. flat and nonpolar.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. A methane molecule is a. flat and polar. b. flat and nonpolar. c. tetrahedral and nonpolar. d. pyramidal and polar.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. When atoms of two elements with a great difference in electronegativity bond together, the bonding is probably a. ionic. b. polar covalent. c. covalent. d. metallic.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 87. When atoms of two elements with a medium difference in electronegativity bond together, the bonding is probably a. ionic. b. covalent. c. polar covalent. d. metallic.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 88. Which pair of elements is least likely to form an ionic bond? a. K and H b. Al and F c. N and Cl d. S and Sr ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 89. The CO molecule would Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding a. probably be nonpolar. b. definitely be nonpolar. c. definitely be polar. d. probably be polar.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 90. Which of the following compounds contains both ionic and covalent bonds? a. CaSO4 b. CHCl3 c. HNO3 d. C12H22O11 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 91. Compound A is a liquid and compound B is a solid. Which statement is justified? a. Compound A is covalent; compound B is ionic. b. Compound A is ionic; compound B is covalent. c. Compound A could be ionic or covalent; compound B is ionic. d. Compound A is covalent; compound B could be ionic or covalent.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 92. In the HCl molecule, the bonding electrons spend a. equal time around both atoms. b. all their time around only one of the atoms. c. more time around the H atom. d. more time around the Cl atom.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 93. Compounds formed when the atoms involved share electrons are a. electrovalent. b. covalent. c. ionic. d. organic.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 94. Which compound is the major component of table salt? a. HC2H3O2 b. NH4Cl c. MgCO3 d. NaCl ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 95. Which gas gives the characteristic odor to smelling salts and some household cleaners? a. Ammonia b. Carbon dioxide c. Chlorine d. Ozone ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 96. In the liquid phase, covalent compounds generally conduct electricity a. not at all. b. very well. c. better than metals. d. better than ionic compounds in the liquid phase.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 97. A stream of a certain liquid compound is attracted to an electrically charged rod. The compound is probably a. metallic. b. nonpolar covalent. c. ionic. d. polar covalent.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 98. Electronegativity increases ______________ across a period and ______________ in a group. a. right to left; bottom to top b. left to right; top to bottom Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding c. right to left; top to bottom d. left to right; bottom to top ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 99. A stream of a certain liquid compound is not attracted to an electrically charged rod. The compound is probably a. metallic. b. ionic. c. nonpolar covalent. d. polar covalent.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 100. Which of these compounds would be ionic? a. NO2 b. CCl4 c. LiF d. H2S ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 101. A water molecule is a. angular and nonpolar. b. linear and polar. c. linear and nonpolar. d. angular and polar.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 102. In chlorine gas, the bond between the two chlorine atoms is a. ionic. b. single covalent. c. triple covalent. d. double covalent.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 103. In which of the following compounds would hydrogen bonding not be expected among the molecules? a. NH3 b. CH4 c. H2O d. HF ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 104. A hydrogen bond can be formed between a. an atom of H and one of C, P, or Cl in the same molecule. b. an H atom in one molecule and an O, F, or N atom in another. c. an atom of H in one water molecule and an atom of H in another. d. the H atoms in H2 molecules.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 105. Ammonia, NH3, boils at a higher temperature than phosphine, PH3. This is probably due to a. ammonia being more dense than PH3. b. ammonia having the lower formula mass. c. hydrogen bonding among the NH3 molecules. d. ammonia being ionic and phosphine being covalent.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 106. Ion-dipole interactions are responsible for a. the dissolving of salt in water. b. ice being less dense than water. c. the ease of electrolysis of water. d. metallic bonding in steel.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 107. The Stock system of nomenclature uses a. Roman numerals. b. Greek prefixes.

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding c. Arabic numerals. d. Egyptian hieroglyphics.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 108. Which of the following compounds should be named using the Stock system? a. Ag2O b. Au2S c. ZnO d. Al2O3 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 109. The preferred name of NiS is a. nickel(III) sulfide. b. nickel(II) sulfide. c. nickel(I) sulfide. d. nickel sulfide.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 110. The formula for iron(II) sulfate is a. Fe2SO4. b. Fe2(SO4)2. c. Fe(SO4)2. d. FeSO4.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 111. The formula mass of Na2S is a. 55.1 u. b. 30.1 u. c. 78.1 u. d. 57.1 u.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding 112. Which of the following ions is isoelectronic with an argon atom? a. Clb. Na+ c. Fd. S2+ ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 113. Which of the following elements commonly forms an ion with a 2+ charge? a. Li b. Al c. S d. Ca ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 114. In 400 B.C., a Greek named ______________ championed the idea that if matter were repeatedly cut into smaller divisions, eventually an indivisible particle would be reached.

ANSWER: Democritus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 115. In the Lewis symbol for an atom of bromine, there are ______________ (how many?) dots around the Br. ANSWER: seven POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 116. Before it was found that when a substance burns, it is combining with oxygen, it was hypothesized that the burning material released a substance called ______________.

ANSWER: phlogiston POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 117. The statement “No detectable change in the total mass occurs during a chemical reaction” is known as the law of ______________.

ANSWER: conservation of mass POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 118. The ______________ of a compound is the sum of the atomic masses given in the formula of the Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding compound.

ANSWER: formula mass POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 119. The formula mass of acetic acid, HC2H3O2, is ______________ u.

ANSWER: 60.0 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 120. The statement “Different samples of a pure compound always contain the same elements in the same proportion by mass” is known as the law of ______________.

ANSWER: definite proportions POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. The percentage composition by mass (to the nearest 0.1) of C in sugar, C12H22O11, is ______________.

ANSWER: 42.1% POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 122. If 20.0 g of compound XY decomposes to form 12.0 g of element X and 8.00 g of element Y, ______________ g of element X will be formed by the decomposition of 40.0 g of compound XY. ANSWER: 24.0 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 123. If aluminum arsenate is AlAsO4, the ionic charge on the arsenate ion must be ______________.

ANSWER: 3– POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 124. Mn is a transition element and can form several ions. Its ionic charge in MnF3 must be ______________.

ANSWER: 3+ POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 125. The concept that atoms tend to get eight electrons in their outer shell when forming molecules or ions is called the ______________.

ANSWER: octet rule POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding 126. When forming ionic compounds, atoms ______________ electrons.

ANSWER: transfer POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 127. In the ______________ phase, ionic compounds conduct electricity.

ANSWER: liquid (gas is also correct) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 128. A compound formed from atoms from the far left and the far right of the periodic table is probably a(n) ______________ compound.

ANSWER: ionic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 129. The formula for the ionic compound sodium nitride is ______________.

ANSWER: Na3N POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 130. A positively charged ion is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: cation POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 131. The crucial test of whether a compound is ionic is whether, when melted, it ______________.

ANSWER: conducts electricity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 132. The symbol for the element with the highest electronegativity is ______________.

ANSWER: F POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 133. When forming covalent compounds, atoms ______________ electrons.

ANSWER: share POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 134. In a covalent molecule, each atom (except hydrogen) generally has ______________ electrons in its outer shell.

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding ANSWER: eight POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 135. Compounds that occur in gaseous form at room temperature are ______________ compounds.

ANSWER: covalent POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 136. ______________ is the measure of the ability of an atom to attract shared electrons to itself.

ANSWER: Electronegativity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 137. A(n) ______________ covalent bond is one in which the electrons are shared unequally.

ANSWER: polar POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 138. The dipole arrow in an F—O bond would point toward the ______________ atom.

ANSWER: fluorine, or F POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 139. The dipole arrow in an S—Se bond would point toward the ______________ atom.

ANSWER: sulfur, or S POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 140. Ice is less dense than liquid water because of ______________ bonding.

ANSWER: hydrogen POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 141. The symbol for the element that is the major component of steel is ______________.

ANSWER: Fe POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 142. A solid solution of two or more metals is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: alloy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding 143. Water has unusual physical properties, as compared with H2S, H2Se, and H2Te, because of ______________ bonding.

ANSWER: hydrogen POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 144. The preferred name of Cu2S is ______________.

ANSWER: copper(I) sulfide POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 145. The formula for nickel(II) nitrate would be ______________.

ANSWER: Ni(NO3)2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 146. The formula mass for C2H6 is ______________.

ANSWER: 30.0 u POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 147. The formula for dry ice is _______________.

ANSWER: CO2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 148. The formula for ammonia is ______________.

ANSWER: NH3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 149. Calculate the percentage composition by mass (to the nearest 0.1) of each element in aspirin, C9H8O4.

ANSWER: 60.0% C, 4.4% H, 35.6% O POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 150. Calculate the percentage composition by mass (to the nearest 0.1) of each element in sodium sulfide, Na2S. ANSWER: POINTS:

58.9% Na, 41.1% S 1

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 151. Predict the formula and draw the Lewis structure of magnesium bromide.

ANSWER: POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 152. Predict the ionic charge for an ion of each of the following representative elements. a. Li b. Se c. Kr d. N ANSWER: a. 1+ b. 2– c. 0 d. 3– POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 153. How many covalent bonds would be formed by an atom of each of the following elements? a. C b. H c. F d. Ne ANSWER: a. 4 b. 1 c. 1 d. 0 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 154. Identify each of the following compounds as either ionic or covalent. a. KBr b. CCl4 c. NaF d. C2H4 ANSWER:

a. ionic b. covalent c. ionic d. covalent

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 - Chemical Bonding 155. Identify each of the following molecules as either polar or nonpolar. a. ClO b. N2 c. Cl2 d. CH4 ANSWER:

a. polar b. nonpolar c. nonpolar d. nonpolar

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 156. Draw the Lewis structure for Freon-12, CF2Cl2.

ANSWER:

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions 1. One product of photosynthesis is a. hydrogen. b. oxygen. c. carbon dioxide. d. methane.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. One reactant of photosynthesis is a. hydrogen. b. oxygen. c. carbon dioxide. d. methane.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. Which one of the following is not a physical property of matter? a. Specific heat b. Boiling point c. Density d. Flammability ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Which one of the following is a physical change? a. Rusting of iron b. Fermenting of grape juice c. Souring of milk d. Sharpening a pencil ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. The process of melting lead is an example of a. a physical change. b. a chemical change. c. a physical property. d. a chemical property.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. Which of the following is an example of a chemical property? a. Al has a density of 2.70 g/cm3. b. Diamond is the hardest substance known. c. Limestone will yield CO2 when heated. d. CO2 will freeze at –78°C. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. Which of the following is a chemical change? a. Dry ice subliming b. Limestone being crushed to powder c. Paper being shredded d. Sulfur burning ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. Which of the following does not take place in a chemical reaction? a. New substances are formed. b. Neutrons are released. c. Energy is released or absorbed. d. Reactants disappear.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when a. no reactants are changing to products. b. the forward and reverse reactions proceed at the same rate. c. the total mass has become constant. d. the temperature is no longer changing.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. The substances that are formed by a chemical reaction are called the a. products. b. reactants.

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions c. chemicals. d. precipitates.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. The substances that are diminished in a chemical reaction are called the a. products. b. reactants. c. chemicals. d. precipitates.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. A chemical reaction generally has a great effect on an atom's a. nuclear structure. b. mass. c. nuclear binding energy. d. electron configuration.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. A chemical reaction is balanced by applying all except which of the following principles? a. No atoms are gained, lost, or changed in identity. b. Only the numbers preceding formulas can be changed. c. The set of smallest whole numbers should be used. d. Subscripts in the formulas may be changed if necessary.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. A balanced chemical equation will have the same ______________ on each side. a. number of moles b. number of molecules c. mass of each compound d. number of atoms of each element ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions 15. The equation 1/2 N2 + 3/2 H2→ NH3 is not appropriately written because a. the number of atoms of each element on each side is not the same. b. fractional coefficients are not generally used. c. nitrogen is not diatomic. d. the product is N2H4, not NH3.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. The equation 4H2O2 → 4H2O + 2O2 is not appropriately written because a. oxygen is not diatomic. b. fractional coefficients are not generally used. c. the number of atoms of each element on each side is not the same. d. the simplest set of coefficients has not been used.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. The equation 1H2SO4 → 1H2O + 4O2 is not appropriately written because a. oxygen is not diatomic. b. fractional coefficients are not generally used. c. the number of atoms of each element on each side is not the same. d. the simplest set of coefficients has not been used.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. The equation H2O2 → H2O + O is not correctly written because a. the number of atoms of each element on each side is not the same. b. the mass indicated on each side is not the same. c. oxygen is diatomic. d. hydrogen peroxide decomposes to H2O and H. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. When the equation NH4NO3→ N2O + H2O is balanced, the total of all the coefficients (both written and “understood”) is a. 3. b. 4. c. 7.

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions d. 8.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. When the equation NH4NO3→ N2O + H2O is balanced, the coefficient of H2O is a. 3. b. 4. c. 2. d. 1.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. When the equation NH4NO3→ N2O + H2O is balanced, the coefficient of N2O is a. 3. b. 4. c. 2. d. 1.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. When the equation Sb2S3 + HCl → SbCl3 + H2S is balanced, the total of all the coefficients (both written and “understood”) is a. 10. b. 14. c. 9. d. 12.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. When the equation Sb2S3 + HCl → SbCl3 + H2S is balanced, the coefficient of HCl is a. 1. b. 6. c. 2. d. 4.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions 24. When the equation Sb2S3 + HCl → SbCl3 + H2S is balanced, the coefficient of H2S is a. 3. b. 1. c. 2. d. 4.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. When the equation Sb2S3 + HCl → SbCl3 + H2S is balanced, the coefficient of SbCl3 is a. 3. b. 1. c. 2. d. 4.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. When the equation Al + O2→ Al2O3 is balanced, the coefficient of Al is a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. When the equation Al + O2→ Al2O3 is balanced, the coefficient of O2 is a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. When the equation Al + O2→ Al2O3 is balanced, the coefficient of Al2O3 is a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions d. 4 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. The coefficients needed to balance the reaction Sb2S3 + HCl → SbCl3 + H2S are, respectively, a. 1, 2, 1, and 1. b. 2, 1, 3, and 1. c. 1, 2, 1, and 3. d. 1, 6, 2, and 3. e. 1, 1, 1, and 1.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. Which type of reaction is 4Al + 3O2→ 2Al2O3? a. Decomposition b. Combination c. Double-replacement d. Single-replacement ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. Which type of reaction is 2Cu(NO3)2→ 2CuO + 4NO2 + O2? a. Single-replacement b. Double-replacement c. Combination d. Decomposition ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. What basic type of reaction is illustrated by the general equation AB → A + B? a. Combination b. Decomposition c. Double-replacement d. Single-replacement ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions 33. What basic type of reaction is illustrated by the general equation A + B → AB? a. Combination b. Decomposition c. Double-replacement d. Single-replacement ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. What basic type of reaction is illustrated by the general equation A + BC → B + AC? a. Combination b. Decomposition c. Double-replacement d. Single-replacement ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. What basic type of reaction is illustrated by the general equation AB + CD → AD + BC? a. Combination b. Decomposition c. Double-replacement d. Single-replacement ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. In general, slow reactions a. are exothermic. b. are endothermic. c. have low activation energies. d. have high activation energies.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. In general, fast reactions a. are exothermic. b. are endothermic. c. have low activation energies. d. have high activation energies.

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. When a hydrocarbon or carbon-hydrogen-oxygen compound is burned completely, the products are a. CO2 and H2O. b. CH2 and O2. c. CO and H2. d. C and H2.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. The energy necessary to start a chemical reaction is called the ______________ energy. a. exothermic b. activation c. endothermic d. combustion ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. When there is a net absorption of energy in a chemical reaction, it is called a(n) ______________ reaction. a. exothermic b. activation c. endothermic d. combustion ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. When there is a net release of energy in a chemical reaction, it is called a(n) ______________ reaction. a. exothermic b. activation c. endothermic d. combustion ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. The coefficients needed to balance the equation Ga + Br2 → GaBr3 are, respectively, Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions a. 4, 3, and 2. b. 2, 3, and 2. c. 1, 3, and 2. d. 2, 1, and 2.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. When the equation Ga + Br2 → GaBr3 is balanced, the total of all the coefficients (both written and “understood”) is a. 4. b. 3. c. 6. d. 7.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. A substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction but is not consumed in the reaction is called a. an oxidizing agent. b. a catalyst. c. an activation agent. d. a reducing agent.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. Increased reactant concentration usually leads to an increase in reaction rate, because collisions are a. more violent only. b. more frequent only. c. both more violent and more frequent. d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. Increased temperature usually leads to an increase in reaction rate because collisions are a. more violent only. b. more frequent only. c. both more violent and more frequent. d. none of these Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. When carbon combines with oxygen, energy is released to the surroundings. Thus this reaction a. is an acid–base reaction. b. is endothermic. c. never reaches equilibrium. d. is exothermic.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. For an exothermic reaction, the energy barrier is ______________ on the reactant side than on the product side. a. smaller b. not different in size c. greater ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. For an endothermic reaction, the energy barrier is ______________ on the reactant side than on the product side. a. greater b. not different in size c. smaller ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. The rate of a chemical reaction would be decreased by a. stirring the reactants. b. increasing the concentration of the reactants. c. adding a catalyst to the reactants. d. cooling the reactants.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. The rate of a chemical reaction would be increased by a. increasing the surface area of the reactants.

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions b. increasing the concentration of the reactants. c. adding a catalyst to the reactants. d. heating the reactants. e. all of the above.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. What type of reaction gives CO2 and H2O as the only products? a. Complete hydrocarbon combustion b. Acid–base reaction c. Acid–carbonate reaction d. Single-replacement, with an acid and an active metal ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. A solution with a pH of 1 is a. strongly acidic. b. weakly basic. c. strongly basic. d. weakly acidic.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. A solution with a pH of 6 is a. strongly acidic. b. weakly basic. c. strongly basic. d. weakly acidic.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. A solution with a pH of 8 is a. strongly acidic. b. weakly basic. c. strongly basic. d. weakly acidic.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. A solution with a pH of 14 is a. strongly acidic. b. weakly basic. c. strongly basic. d. weakly acidic.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. Which of the following is not a property of an aqueous solution of an acid? a. Reacts with many metals to liberate hydrogen gas b. Changes the color of litmus dye from red to blue c. Tastes sour d. Conducts an electric current ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. Which answer is incorrect? A base is a substance that, when dissolved in water, a. reacts with an acid to neutralize its properties. b. reacts with many metals to liberate O2. c. changes the color of litmus dye from red to blue. d. conducts electricity.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. An acid added to a base will produce a a. salt and hydrogen ions. b. salt and hydroxide ions. c. salt and water. d. stronger acid and base.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. A compound that contains water molecules as part of its formula is called a. a hydrate. b. an anhydride.

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions c. a hydride. d. a hydroxide.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. Acids give what ions in aqueous solutions? a. SO42b. Clc. OHd. H+ ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. An ionic compound composed of a cation other than H+ and an anion other than OH- is called a(n) a. salt. b. precipitate. c. conjugate base. d. electrolyte.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. Which acid is present in vinegar? a. HCl b. H3PO4 c. H2SO4 d. HC2H3O2 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. Which of the following compounds would you expect to be soluble in water? a. PbCO3 b. Ag2CO3 c. CuCO3 d. K2CO3 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions 65. Which of the following compounds would not precipitate from an aqueous solution during a doublereplacement reaction? a. Cu(NO3)2 b. CuCO3 c. AgCl d. AlPO4 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. In the reaction between HCl and Na2CO3, which gas is formed? a. H2 b. CH4 c. CO2 d. O2 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. Which of the following is a weak acid? a. Hydrochloric acid b. Nitric acid c. Sulfuric acid d. Acetic acid ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. Which of the following is a strong acid? a. Citric acid b. Nitric acid c. Phosphoric acid d. Acetic acid ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. A weak acid is one that does not a. taste very sour. b. ionize appreciably in water. c. form hydrogen gas when a metal is dropped in.

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions d. neutralize OH- ions.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. Which of the following is a weak base? a. NH3 b. NaOH c. KOH d. Ca(OH)2 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. Water solutions of which of the following are basic? a. Soft drinks b. Baking soda c. Lemonade d. Vinegar ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. Which type of reaction is AlCl3 + 3KOH → Al(OH)3 + 3KCl? a. Single-replacement b. Double-replacement c. Decomposition d. Combination ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. The compound Mg(OH)2 is commonly known as a. Epsom salt. b. Alka-Seltzer. c. smelling salts. d. milk of magnesia.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions 74. What is the identity of stomach acid? a. HC2H3O2 b. H2CO3 c. HCl d. H3PO4 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 75. Which type of reaction is Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2? a. Decomposition b. Combination c. Double-replacement d. Single-replacement ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. Which type of reaction is 2Fe2O3+ 3C→ 4Fe+ 3CO2? a. Decomposition b. Combination c. Double-replacement d. Single-replacement ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. Hydrogen gas would be a product of the reaction of a. vinegar and baking soda. b. iron and hydrochloric acid. c. oxygen and methane. d. HCl and NaOH. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. All but the most inactive metals react with acids to give a. hydrogen and the metal salt. b. hydrogen and the metal hydroxide. c. hydrogen and the metal oxide. d. oxygen and the metal hydride.

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. By definition, the loss of electrons by an atom or ion is called a. neutralization. b. reduction. c. oxidation. d. displacement.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 80. By definition, the removal of oxygen from a compound is called a. neutralization. b. reduction. c. oxidation. d. displacement.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. By definition, the addition of oxygen to a substance is called a. neutralization. b. reduction. c. oxidation. d. displacement.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. By definition, the gain of electrons by an atom or ion is called a. neutralization. b. reduction. c. oxidation. d. displacement.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 83. In order, from top to bottom, in the activity series come K, Zn, Pb, H, Cu, and Au. Therefore, a. adding Pb to ZnCl2 will release Zn. Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions b. adding Cu to HCl will release hydrogen. c. adding Au to HCl will release hydrogen. d. adding Cu to AuCl3 will release Au. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. In order, from top to bottom, in the activity series come Li, K, Ba, Na, Al, Zn, Sn, and Pb. Therefore, a. tin is more active than lead. b. zinc is more active than aluminum. c. potassium is more active than lithium. d. sodium is more active than barium.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. In the activity series, Zn is more active than Pb. This means that a. Zn is a better catalyst than Pb. b. Zn loses its electrons more easily than Pb. c. Pb is more readily oxidized than Zn. d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. In the reaction 2Al + 3F2→ 2AlF3, the aluminum a. is reduced. b. gains electrons. c. is oxidized. d. is the catalyst.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 87. In the reaction 2Al + 3F2→ 2AlF3, the fluorine a. is reduced. b. loses electrons. c. is oxidized. d. is the catalyst.

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 88. Avogadro's number has a numerical value of a. 6.02 × 1023. b. 1.00 × 1023. c. 3.01 × 1023. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 89. How many moles would 44 g of carbon dioxide, CO2, be? a. 3.0 b. 2.0 c. 1.0 d. None of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 90. How many atoms of oxygen are contained in 44 g of carbon dioxide, CO2? a. 3.01 × 1023 b. 12.0 × 1023 c. 6.02 × 1023 d. None of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 91. How many molecules are in 1.00 mol of sulfur dioxide, SO2? a. 64.1 b. 64.1 × 6.02 × 1023 c. 12.0 × 1023 d. 6.02 × 1023 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 92. How many atoms of oxygen are in 1.00 mol of sulfur dioxide, SO2? a. 64.1 b. 64.1 × 6.02 × 1023 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions c. 12.0 × 1023 d. 6.02 × 1023 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 93. How many atoms are in 1.00 mol of Mg? a. 24.3 b. 6.02 × 1023 c. 24.3 × 6.02 × 1023 d. 24.3 × 1023 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 94. How many moles of He would 3.01 × 1023 helium atoms be? a. 2.00 b. 4.00 c. 0.50 d. 1.00 e. None of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 95. Reacting an acid with a base gives water and a. a carbonate. b. ammonia. c. carbon dioxide. d. a salt.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 96. When solutions of AgNO3 and CaCl2 are mixed, which type of reaction is likely? a. Combination b. Double-replacement c. Decomposition d. Single-replacement ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 97. Which scientist first postulated the existence of ions? a. Lewis b. Dalton c. Arrhenius d. Berzelius ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 98. ______________ properties are those that do not describe the chemical reactivity of the substance.

ANSWER: Physical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 99. Changes that do not alter the chemical composition of a substance are called ______________ changes.

ANSWER: physical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. Changes that alter the chemical composition of a substance are known as ______________ changes.

ANSWER: chemical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 101. The original substances in a chemical reaction are called the ______________.

ANSWER: reactants POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 102. The substances formed in a chemical reaction are called the ______________.

ANSWER: products POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. 6.02 × 1023 is known as ______________.

ANSWER: Avogadro's number POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 104. When the forward and reverse reactions are proceeding at the same rate, the reaction is said to have reached ______________.

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions ANSWER: equilibrium POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 105. In chemical equations, numbers placed before formulas are known as ______________.

ANSWER: coefficients POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 106. When the equation H2O + NO2 → NO + HNO3 is balanced, the sum of all the coefficients (both written and “understood”) is ______________.

ANSWER: 7 (coefficients in order are 1, 3, 1, 2) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 107. When the equation Ca + H3PO4→ Ca3(PO4)2 + H2 is balanced, the sum of all the coefficients (both written and “understood”) is ______________.

ANSWER: 9 (coefficients in order are 3, 2, 1, 3) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. One mole of aluminum consists of ______________ aluminum atoms.

ANSWER: 6.02  1023 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 109. Most ______________ do their jobs by decreasing the activation energy for a reaction.

ANSWER: catalysts POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 110. A reaction in which a substance reacts with oxygen, bursts into flame, and forms an oxide is called a(n) ______________ reaction.

ANSWER: combustion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 111. A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction but is not consumed is a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: catalyst POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 112. When energy is released in a chemical reaction, the reaction is called a(n) ______________ reaction.

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions ANSWER: exothermic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 113. The human body contains thousands of catalysts called ______________.

ANSWER: enzymes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 114. The formula for the hydronium ion is ______________.

ANSWER: H3O+ POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 115. When aqueous solutions of Na2CO3 and BaCl2 are mixed, the products are NaCl and ______________.

ANSWER: BaCO3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 116. An ionic compound formed from a cation other than H+ and an anion other than OH- is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: salt POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 117. According to the Arrhenius theory, basic properties are caused by ______________ ions.

ANSWER: hydroxide, or OHPOINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 118. The H3O+ ion is called the ______________ ion.

ANSWER: hydronium POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 119. If two clear solutions are mixed and solid particles form, the particles are called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: precipitate POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 120. The definitions of an acid and a base as substances that give H+ and OH- ions, respectively, in water were Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions proposed by the chemist named ______________.

ANSWER: Arrhenius POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. When an acid reacts with a carbonate or hydrogen carbonate, the products are water, ______________, and a salt.

ANSWER: carbon dioxide POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 122. When an acid reacts with a base, the products are ______________ and a salt.

ANSWER: water POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 123. A reaction will occur when a piece of Mg is placed in aqueous Zn(NO3)2 if Mg is ______________ Zn in the activity series.

ANSWER: above, or higher than POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 124. When an element is oxidized, it ______________ electrons.

ANSWER: loses POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 125. The loss of oxygen or gain of electrons by an atom or ion is called ______________.

ANSWER: reduction POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 126. When an atom or ion gives up electrons, it is said to be ______________.

ANSWER: oxidized POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 127. A solution of pH 5 is ______________ times as acidic as a solution of pH 6.

ANSWER: ten POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 128. A solution with pH greater than 7 is classified as a(n) ______________.

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions ANSWER: base POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 129. A neutral aqueous solution has a pH of ______________.

ANSWER: 7 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 130. The reaction Fe + CuSO4 → Cu + FeSO4 is a(n) ______________-replacement reaction.

ANSWER: single POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 131. The molarity of a solution is the number of moles of solute per liter of ______________.

ANSWER: solution POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 132. The number of moles of solute per liter of solution is called the ______________ of the solution.

ANSWER: molarity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 133. When an acid reacts with a carbonate or hydrogen carbonate, the products are ______________, carbon dioxide, and a salt.

ANSWER: water POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 134. When an acid reacts with a carbonate or hydrogen carbonate, the products are water, carbon dioxide, and ______________.

ANSWER: a salt POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 135. Balance the chemical equation: NO2 + H2O → HNO3 + NO ANSWER: 3NO2 + H2O → 2HNO3 + NO POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 136. Balance the chemical equation: Al2S3+ H2O → Al(OH)3 + H2S Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions Al2S3 + 6H2O → 2Al(OH)3 + 3H2S POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer ANSWER:

137. Balance the chemical equation: Cu + Al2O3 → CuO + Al ANSWER: 3Cu + Al2O3 → 3CuO + 2Al POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 138. Balance the chemical equation: PCl5 + H2O → H3PO4 + HCl ANSWER: PCl5 + 4H2O → H3PO4+ 5HCl POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 139. Balance the chemical equation: Bi2S3+ O2 → Bi2O3 + SO2 ANSWER: 2Bi2S3 + 9O2→ 2Bi2O3 + 6SO2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 140. Each of the following general equations illustrates what basic type of chemical reaction? a. AB + CD → AD + CB ______________ b. A + B → AB ______________ c. A + BC → AC + B ______________ d. AB → A + B ______________ ANSWER: a. double-replacement b. combination c. single-replacement d. decomposition POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 141. Name four factors that influence the rate of chemical reactions.

ANSWER: Temperature, concentration, surface area, catalyst POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 142. Write the balanced chemical equation for the complete combustion of pentane, C5H12.

ANSWER: C5H12 + 8O2→ 5CO2 + 6H2O POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions 143. Complete and balance the equation: Ba(NO3)2(aq) + K2CO3(aq) → ______________________ ANSWER: Ba(NO3)2(aq) + K2CO3(aq) → BaCO3(s) + 2KNO3(aq) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 144. Complete and balance the following equations: a. HNO3 + Ba(OH)2 → ____________________. b. H3PO4 + CaCO3 → _____________________.

ANSWER: a. 2HNO3 + Ba(OH)2 → 2H2O + Ba(NO3)2 b. 2H3PO4 + 3CaCO3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 145. Complete and balance the equation: Mg + HC2H3O2 → _____________________ ANSWER: Mg + 2HC2H3O2 → H2+ Mg(C2H3O2)2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 146. Complete and balance the equation: Al + HCl → ____________________ ANSWER: 2Al + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 147. Complete and balance the equation: Zn + AgNO3(aq) → ____________________ ANSWER: Zn + 2AgNO3(aq) → 2Ag + Zn(NO3)2(aq) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 148. State which element is oxidized and which is reduced in the reaction Fe + Cl2→ FeCl2.

ANSWER: Fe is oxidized; Cl is reduced.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 149. State which element is oxidized and which is reduced in the reaction Al + 3F2 → 2AlF3.

ANSWER: Al is oxidized; F is reduced.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 - Chemical Reactions 150. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 2 mol of solute in 4 L of solution?

ANSWER: 0.5 M POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry 1. Organic chemistry studies chemical compounds that contain at least one atom of a. nitrogen. b. oxygen. c. carbon. d. hydrogen. e. silicon.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. Which of the following atoms normally has one covalent bond to it? a. Br b. O c. C d. P e. Ne ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. Which of the following atoms normally has one covalent bond to it? a. I b. O c. C d. P e. Kr ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Which of the following atoms normally has one covalent bond to it? a. At b. Se c. Si d. P e. Ne ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. Which of the following atoms normally has one covalent bond to it? a. Cl Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry b. Te c. Si d. N e. Ne ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. The study of compounds that contain carbon is called a. biochemistry. b. inorganic chemistry. c. polymer chemistry. d. organic chemistry. e. physics.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. In organic molecules, a carbon atom will normally form how many bonds? a. 1 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2 e. 0 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. In organic molecules, an oxygen atom will normally form how many bonds? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. 4 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. In organic molecules, a sulfur atom will normally form how many bonds? a. 0 b. 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry c. 2 d. 3 e. 4 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. In organic molecules, a chlorine atom will normally form how many bonds? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1 e. 0 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. In organic molecules, a bromine atom will normally form how many bonds? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1 e. 0 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. In organic molecules, a fluorine atom will normally form how many bonds? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1 e. 0 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. Hydrocarbons containing only single bonds are a. alkanes. b. alkenes. c. aromatics.

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry d. alkynes. e. ketones.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. Hydrocarbons containing carbon-carbon double bonds are a. alkenes. b. cycloalkanes. c. alkynes. d. alkanes. e. ketones.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. Hydrocarbons containing carbon-carbon triple bonds are a. alkenes. b. cycloalkanes. c. alkynes. d. alkanes. e. ketones.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. Hydrocarbons containing all single bonds and a ring in their structural formulas are a. alkenes. b. cycloalkanes. c. alkynes. d. alkanes. e. ketones.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. Which of the following is a methyl group? a. CH3CH2b. CH3– c. CH2=CH– d. CH2CH3– Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry e. CH CH– ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. Which of the following is an ethyl group? a. CH3CH2– b. CH2=CH– c. CH2CH3– d. CH3– e. CH CH– ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. C3H4 is an example of a(n) a. aromatic. b. alkene. c. alkyne. d. alkane. e. cycloalkane ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. When a carbon atom forms four single bonds, the bonds are at what angle to one another? a. 109.5° b. 90° c. 120° d. 23.5° e. 60° ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. Compounds that have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas are called structural, or constitutional, a. isomers. b. derivatives. c. congeners. d. isotopes.

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry e. progeners.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. Which of the following could be the molecular formula for an alkane? a. C3H3 b. C7H14 c. C4H7 d. C10H18 e. C6H14 ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. Which of the following could be the molecular formula for an alkane? a. C7H7 b. C6H12 c. C5H9 d. C9H16 e. C3H8 ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. Which of the following could be the molecular formula for an alkane? a. C5H5 b. C7H14 c. C4H7 d. C10H18 e. C4H10 ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. Which of the following could be the molecular formula for an alkane? a. C4H4 b. C7H14 c. C3H5 d. C9H16 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry e. C5H12 ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. Which of the following could be the molecular formula for an alkene? a. C7H7 b. C8H16 c. C2H3 d. C2H2 e. C2H6 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. Which of the following could be the molecular formula for an alkene? a. C9H9 b. C6H12 c. C9H17 d. C5H8 e. C2H6 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. Which of the following could be the molecular formula for an alkene? a. C8H8 b. C9H18 c. C5H9 d. C5H8 e. C8H18 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. Which of the following could be the molecular formula for an alkene? a. C5H5 b. C2H4 c. C3H5 d. C9H16 e. C4H10 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. Which pair are isomers? a. CH3 CH2 CH(NH2) CH3 and CH3 CH(NH2) CH2 CH3 b. CH3CH(Cl)CH3 and CH3CH2CH(Cl)CH3 c. (CH3)3 N and CH3CH2CH2NH2 d. CH3 (CH2)2 CH3 and CH3 CH2CH(CH3)2 e. CH3CH2CH(Cl)CH3 and CH3 CH(NH2) CH2 CH3 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. Which pair are actually the same compound? a. (CH3)3 N and CH3CH2CH2NH2 b. CH3CH2CH(NH2)CH3 and CH3CH(NH2)CH2CH3 c. CH3CH(Cl)CH3 and CH3CH2CH(Cl)CH3 d. CH3(CH2)2CH3 and CH3CH2CH(CH3)2 e. CH3CH2CH2NH2 and CH3CH2CH2N2H2 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. How many constitutional isomers that are dibromocyclopropanes exist? a. 3 b. 8 c. 4 d. 2 e. 5 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. How many constitutional isomers that are trifluoroethanes exist? a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. 5 ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. How many constitutional isomers that are dibromopropanes exist? a. 5 b. 4 c. 7 d. 3 e. 6 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. How many constitutional isomers that are dibromoethanes exist? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 2 e. 6 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. Which organic compound is represented by a triangle? a. Trianol b. Cyclopropane c. Benzene d. Cyclobutane e. Methane ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. Which organic compound is represented by a pentagon? a. Benzene b. Cyclopentane c. Cyclopropane d. Cyclobutane e. Methane ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. When hydrogen reacts with ethene, what is the product? a. Cycloethene b. Ethane c. Propene d. Ethyne e. Methane ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. 1-Chlorobutane and 2-chlorobutane are a. isomers. b. the same compound. c. neither isomers nor the same compound.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. 4-Fluoroheptane and 5-fluoroheptane are a. isomers. b. the same compound. c. neither isomers nor the same compound.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. 4-Fluoroheptane and 3-fluoroheptane are a. isomers. b. the same compound. c. neither isomers nor the same compound.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. Ethene and ethane are a. isomers. b. the same compound. c. neither isomers nor the same compound.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. 1-Bromobutane and 4-bromobutane are a. the same compound. b. neither isomers nor the same compound. c. isomers.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. 2-Bromobutane and 4-bromobutane are a. the same compound. b. neither isomers nor the same compound. c. isomers.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. A hydrocarbon that is not classified as aromatic must be classified as a. nucleophilic. b. synthetic. c. aliphatic. d. carboxylic.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. A hydrocarbon that contains one or more benzene rings must be classified as a. an alkane. b. a cycloalkane. c. aromatic. d. an alkene. e. an alkyne.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. The most common aromatic hydrocarbon is a clear, colorless liquid named a. naphthalene. b. hexane. c. benzene. d. ethanol.

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry e. methane.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. What is the molecular formula for benzene? a. C6H6 b. C6H12 c. C6H14 d. C6H8 e. None of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. What organic compound is represented by a hexagon with a circle inside? a. Cyclohexane b. Cycloheptane c. Benzene d. Ethanol e. Methane ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. Alkyl halides are distinguished by the fact that at least one hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon has been replaced by a(n) a. alkyl group. b. OH group. c. halogen atom. d. oxygen atom. e. CH3 group.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. CFCs are a. alcohols. b. hydrocarbons. c. alkyl halides. d. amides.

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. Acetic acid consists of a(n) ______________ group attached to a carboxyl group. a. amino b. methyl c. hydroxyl d. ethyl ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. A solution of 5% acetic acid and 95% water is called a. chloroform. b. antifreeze. c. vinegar. d. gasohol. e. alcohol.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. When a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol, the products are water and a(n) a. aldehyde. b. ester. c. salt. d. amide. e. ketone.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. When a carboxylic acid reacts with an amine, the products are water and a(n) a. aldehyde. b. ester. c. amide. d. salt. e. ketone.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. Methyl salicylate is an ester commonly called a. glycerine. b. oil of wintergreen. c. heroin. d. chloroform. e. methamphetamine.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. Cholesterol belongs to what class of organic compounds? a. Alkyl halides b. Esters c. Carboxylic acids d. Alcohols ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. CH3 CONHCH2 CH3 is an example of a(n) a. amide. b. amine. c. ester. d. carboxylic acid.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. Chlorine is not present in a. CFCs. b. chloroform. c. Freon-12. d. Teflon.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. Alcohols are distinguished by the fact that at least one hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon has been replaced by a(n) a. carboxyl group.

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry b. alkyl group. c. hydroxyl group. d. oxygen atom.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. Which alcohol is used in beverages? a. 2-Propanol b. Ethylene glycol c. Ethanol d. Methanol ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. Which simplest alcohol is used in race cars as fuel? a. 2-Propanol b. Ethylene glycol c. Ethanol d. Methanol ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. Which alcohol is used in rubbing alcohol? a. 2-Hydroxypropane b. Ethylene glycol c. Ethanol d. Methanol ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. Which alcohol is used as an antifreeze? a. 2-Hydroxypropane b. Ethylene glycol c. Ethanol d. Methanol ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. Which of the following is a carbohydrate? a. Maltose b. Glycine c. Ribonucleic acid d. Glyceryl tristearate ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate? a. Maltose b. Glycine c. Fructose d. Glucose ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate? a. Maltose b. Glucose c. Fructose d. Glyceryl tristearate ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. The suffix -ose in a compound's name signifies a(n) a. amide. b. alcohol. c. carbohydrate. d. enzyme.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. Which sugar is found in greater than normal amounts in the blood of a diabetic? a. Sucrose b. Lactose c. Glucose Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry d. Fructose ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. Which sugar is the sweetest of all sugars? a. Sucrose b. Lactose c. Glucose d. Fructose ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. Which sugar is a chemically bonded combination of two other sugars? a. Sucrose b. Lactose c. Glucose d. Fructose ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. The suffix -ol in a compound's name signifies a. an enzyme. b. an amide. c. an alcohol. d. a carbohydrate.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. We get sucrose and water if we chemically combine a. fructose and maltose. b. glucose and fructose. c. maltose and lactose. d. glucose and lactose.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 74. Starch is a polymer that consists of long chains of ______________ units.

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry a. lactose b. fructose c. maltose d. glucose ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 75. What are the basic building blocks of proteins? a. Amino acids b. Starches c. Sugars d. Carboxylic acids ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. An advantage of synthetic detergents over soaps is that they a. do not contain sulfur. b. dissolve grease. c. do not form scum in hard water. d. are more readily biodegradable.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. Another name for glucose is a. dextrose. b. malt sugar. c. sucrose. d. lactose.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. Triesters of long-chain acids with glycerol are called a. condensation polymers. b. fats. c. soaps. d. synthetic detergents.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. The general formula RNH2 is that of a. an ester. b. an amine. c. an amide. d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 80. Which compound has three hydroxyl groups? a. Ethylene glycol b. Ethanol c. Cholesterol d. Glycerol ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. Which carbohydrate cannot be digested by humans as a direct source of energy? a. Fructose b. Glucose c. Sucrose d. Cellulose e. Starch ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. Which of the following compounds has two hydroxyl groups? a. Ethylene glycol b. Ethanol c. Glycerol d. Cholesterol ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 83. The process by which liquid fats, such as vegetable oils, can be converted to solid fats is called a. hydrogenation.

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry b. saturation. c. carbonation. d. oxygenation.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. The general formula R-X is that of a. an amine. b. an alkyl halide. c. an alcohol. d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. The general formula ROH is that of a. an amine. b. an alkyl halide. c. an alcohol. d. none of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. The general formula R-NH2 is that of a. an amine. b. an alkyl halide. c. an alcohol. d. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice

87. The general formula

is that of

a. an amide. b. an alkyl halide. c. an alcohol. d. none of these ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 88. During ester formation, the –OH is removed from the a. carboxylic acid. b. amine. c. alcohol. d. sugar.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 89. A solution of what sugar is used for intravenous feeding in a hospital? a. Sucrose b. Fructose c. Glucose d. Lactose ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 90. Polymers are formed from fundamental repeating units called a. groups. b. amino acids. c. complexes. d. monomers.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 91. Which of the following was the first synthetic compound to be made? a. Neoprene b. Polyethylene c. Bakelite d. Nylon ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 92. Which of the following polymers is a hydrocarbon? a. Polyethylene b. PVC Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry c. Teflon d. Dacron ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 93. To which group of polymers does nylon belong? a. Natural b. Hydrolytic c. Addition d. Condensation ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 94. To which group of polymers does Dacron belong? a. Natural b. Hydrolytic c. Addition d. Condensation ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 95. To which group of polymers does Mylar belong? a. Natural b. Hydrolytic c. Addition d. Condensation ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 96. To which group of polymers does polystyrene belong? a. Natural b. Hydrolytic c. Addition d. Condensation ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry 97. To which group of polymers does Teflon belong? a. Natural b. Hydrolytic c. Addition d. Condensation ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 98. To which group of polymers does PVC belong? a. Natural b. Hydrolytic c. Addition d. Condensation ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 99. Which of the following could be the monomer of an addition polymer? a. CCl4 b. Cl2C=CH2 c. CHCl3 d. Cl3C=CCl3 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 100. A functional group is a. exemplified by the R in ROH. b. a vertical column in the periodic table. c. exemplified by the COOH in RCOOH. d. a horizontal row in the periodic table.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 101. Molecules of which monomer could, by themselves, form a condensation polymer? a. HO–CH2–CH2–NH2 b. H2N–CH2–COOH c. HO–CH2–CH2–OH d. HOOC–COOH Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 102. Addition polymers are formed from a. diacids only. b. alkenes. c. dialcohols only. d. diacids and dialcohols together.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 103. 1-Fluoropentane and 5-fluoropentane are a. isomers. b. neither isomers nor the same compound. c. the same compound.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 104. Socrates died from ingesting the alkaloid named a. nicotine. b. caffeine. c. quinine. d. coniine.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 105. Which of the following could be the formula of an alkyne? a. C6H6 b. C6H10 c. C6H12 d. C6H14 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 106. Propene and cyclopropane are a. the same compound. b. isomers.

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry c. neither isomers nor the same compound.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 107. ______________ is the study of the compounds and reactions that occur in living cells.

ANSWER: Biochemistry POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. An oxygen atom can bond to ______________ other atom(s).

ANSWER: two POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 109. Ethyne, H–C≡C–H, is also named ______________.

ANSWER: acetylene POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 110. The continuous-chain alkane with the formula C6H14 is named ______________.

ANSWER: hexane POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 111. If a hydrocarbon is not aliphatic, it is ______________.

ANSWER: aromatic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 112. Alkanes minus one hydrogen atom are called ______________ groups.

ANSWER: alkyl POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 113. A(n) ______________ is formed by replacing a hydrogen atom in a hydrocarbon with a halogen atom.

ANSWER: alkyl halide POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 114. Compounds containing only carbon and hydrogen are known as ______________.

ANSWER: hydrocarbons POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 115. n-Butane and isobutane are the two ______________ of C4H10.

ANSWER: isomers POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 116. Compounds of carbon are classified as ______________ compounds.

ANSWER: organic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 117. Hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2 are called ______________.

ANSWER: alkanes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 118. Hydrocarbons with a carbon-carbon triple bond are called ______________.

ANSWER: alkynes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 119. Hydrocarbons that have the composition that satisfies the general formula CnH2n can be either alkenes or ______________.

ANSWER: cycloalkanes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 120. A saturated hydrocarbon contains only ______________ bonds, and its hydrogen content is at a maximum.

ANSWER: single POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. The hydrocarbon symbolized by a square is called ______________.

ANSWER: cyclobutane POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 122. The simplest member of the aromatic hydrocarbons is named ______________.

ANSWER: benzene POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry 123. Any chemical that can cause cancer is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: carcinogen POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 124. An alcohol is distinguished by having one or more ______________ groups in the molecule.

ANSWER: hydroxyl, or -OH POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 125. A carboxylic acid reacting with an alcohol forms water and a(n)______________.

ANSWER: ester POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 126. Carboxylic acids are characterized by the molecular arrangement –COOH, called the ______________ group.

ANSWER: carboxyl POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 127. Sugars, starches, and cellulose are all classified as compounds called ______________.

ANSWER: carbohydrates POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 128. When a fat is treated with NaOH, the ester bonds break to form glycerol and the sodium salts of fatty acids, which are known as ______________.

ANSWER: soap POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 129. The complex chemical combinations of amino acids that are essential ingredients in living cells are called ______________.

ANSWER: proteins POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 130. ______________ has the general formula (C6H10O5)n, where n may take on values up to 3000.

ANSWER: Starch, or Cellulose POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 131. The main component of the cell walls of plants is the carbohydrate called ______________.

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry ANSWER: cellulose POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 132. When cottonseed oil (a liquid) is hydrogenated, the solid fat called ______________ is obtained.

ANSWER: margarine POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 133. The term detergent means “cleansing agent” and commonly refers to a(n) ______________ substitute.

ANSWER: soap POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 134. The sodium salt of a fatty acid is known as a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: soap POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 135. In large molecules, the fundamental repeating units are called ______________.

ANSWER: monomers POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 136. Nylon is a polyamide; Dacron is a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: polyester POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 137. Synthetic compounds that can be molded and hardened are called ______________.

ANSWER: plastics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 138. A monomer may be repeated many times in the formation of a chainlike molecule called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: polymer POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 139. A(n) ______________ is a material whose basic molecule has no duplicate in nature.

ANSWER: synthetic POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 140. CH3CH2OH is the structural formula for the compound named ______________.

ANSWER: ethyl alcohol, or ethanol POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 141. CH3OH is the structural formula for the compound named ______________.

ANSWER: methyl alcohol, or methanol POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 142. CH3COOH is the structural formula for the compound named ______________.

ANSWER: acetic acid POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 143. CH2 OHCHOHCH2 OH is the structural formula for the compound named ______________.

ANSWER: glycerol, or glycerin POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 144. The compound methyl salicylate is commonly called ______________.

ANSWER: oil of wintergreen POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 145. Chemically combining glucose and fructose produces the compound named ______________.

ANSWER: sucrose (sugar, or table sugar) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 146. Both starch and cellulose are polymers of the monomer named ______________.

ANSWER: glucose POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 147. The simplest member of the alkane series is named ______________.

ANSWER: methane POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry 148. The second member of the alkane series, CH3CH3, is named ______________.

ANSWER: ethane POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 149. Hydrocarbons are first divided into aromatic and ______________ hydrocarbons.

ANSWER: aliphatic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 150. Draw the structural formula for 3-hexene.

ANSWER: CH3CH2CH=CHCH2CH3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 151. Draw the structural formula for 1-chloro-2-methylpentane.

ANSWER:

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 152. Draw the structural formula for 1,1-dimethylcyclopropane.

ANSWER:

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 153. Complete the equation: CH3C≡CCH3 + 2 H2 → ____________________ ANSWER: CH3CH2CH2CH3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 154. Complete the equation: CH3CH = CH2+ H2→ ____________________ ANSWER: CH3CH2CH3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 155. Draw the two structural isomers for propanol.

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry ANSWER:

CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CHOHCH3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 156. Match the general formula with the name of the class. ______ a. esters 1. ROH ______ b. carboxylic acids 2. RCOOR′ ______ c. amides 3. RX ______ d. amines 4. RCOOH ______ e. alcohols 5. RNH2 ______ f. alkyl halides 6. RCONHR′ ANSWER: 2a, 4b, 6c, 5d, 1e, 3f POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 157. Complete the equation:

ANSWER:

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 158. Complete the equation:

ANSWER: POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 159. Polypropylene forms from the monomer CH3CH=CH2. Show the structure of the polymer, in the usual “bracket” format.

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry ANSWER:

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 160. Kevlar forms from the monomers shown. Show the structure of the polymer, in the usual “bracket” format.

ANSWER:

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 161. Draw the two structural formulas for the molecular formula C2H7N. ANSWER: CH3CH2NH2 and CH3NHCH3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 162. Draw the three structural formulas for the molecular formula C3H8O. ANSWER: CH3CH2CH2OH, CH3CH(OH)CH3, and CH3CH2OCH3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 163. Draw the structural formula for glycine, the simplest amino acid.

ANSWER: H2NCH2COOH POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 164. Draw the structural formula for glycerol.

ANSWER: CH2 (OH)CH(OH)CH2OH POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 165. Draw the structural formula for methyl alcohol.

ANSWER: CH3OH POINTS:

1

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Chapter 14 - Organic Chemistry QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 166. Draw the structural formula for 2-pentene.

ANSWER: CH3CH = CHCH2CH3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time 1. The imaginary line encircling Earth at its surface, halfway between the north and south geographic poles, is called the a. meridian. b. equator. c. International Date Line. d. longitude. e. latitude.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. Parallels of latitude are parallel to the a. longitude. b. International Date Line. c. equator. d. meridian.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. An imaginary line from one geographic pole to the other along the surface of Earth perpendicular to the equator is called a. a longitude. b. a meridian. c. the International Date Line. d. a parallel.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. An imaginary line from one geographic pole to the other along the surface of Earth perpendicular to the equator, and that passes through Greenwich, England, is called a. a longitude. b. a meridian. c. the International Date Line. d. a parallel. e. the prime meridian.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. The International Date Line in theory is ___________, with variations to accommodate the needs of various Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time countries. a. a longitude b. a meridian c. a latitude d. a parallel e. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. When one travels west while passing over the International Date Line, a. the date is decreased one day. b. the time is decreased one hour. c. the time is advanced one hour. d. the date is advanced one day. e. none of these occurs.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. When one travels east while passing over the International Date Line, a. the date is decreased one day. b. the time is decreased one hour. c. the time is advanced one hour. d. the date is advanced one day. e. none of these occurs.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. When one travels east while passing over a time zone boundary (ignoring daylight savings time issues), a. the date is decreased one day. b. the time is decreased one hour. c. the time is advanced one hour. d. the date is advanced one day. e. none of these occurs.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. When one travels west while passing over a time zone boundary (ignoring daylight savings time issues), a. the date is decreased one day.

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time b. the time is decreased one hour. c. the time is advanced one hour. d. the date is advanced one day. e. none of these occurs.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. ______________ is defined as the angular measurement, in degrees, east or west of the Greenwich, or prime, meridian. a. The equator b. The International Date Line c. Latitude d. Longitude ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. The zeroth latitude is at a. 90°N. b. 90°S. c. the equator. d. the Greenwich Meridian.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. The international time standard is a. GMT. b. UTC. c. solar time. d. Zulu.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. The maximum east or west longitude possible is also called the a. meridian. b. longitude. c. International Date Line. d. equator.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. A line of equal longitude is called a a. meridian. b. zone. c. circle. d. parallel.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. An attempt to remedy the difference in apparent solar days was the calculation of a a. meridian day. b. 24-hour day. c. sidereal day. d. mean solar day.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. The apparent amount of time it takes for Earth to complete a rotation on its axis is called a a. meridian day. b. 24-hour day. c. sidereal day. d. mean solar day. e. solar day.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. The actual amount of time it takes for Earth to rotate 360° on its axis is called a a. meridian day. b. 24-hour day. c. sidereal day. d. mean solar day. e. solar day.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. A ______________ is always longer than a ______________ .

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time a. solar day; sidereal day b. solar day; mean solar day c. sidereal day; solar day d. mean solar day; solar day ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. A ______________ is always shorter than a ______________ . a. solar day; sidereal day b. solar day; mean solar day c. sidereal day; solar day d. mean solar day; solar day ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. The ______________ angle is measured between the horizon and the line of sight to the object. a. declination b. altitude c. inclination d. zenith ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. The ______________ angle added to the altitude angle equals 90°. a. inclination b. declination c. altitude d. zenith ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. The complementary angle of the angle of an object above the horizon is the a. zenith angle. b. altitude. c. latitude. d. noon angle.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. On December 21, the noonday Sun is overhead at what latitude? a. 0° b. 23.5°N c. 23.5°S d. That of the Tropic of Cancer ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. On March 21, the noonday Sun is overhead at what latitude? a. 0° b. 23.5°N c. 23.5°S d. That of the Tropic of Cancer ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. On June 21, the noonday Sun is overhead at what latitude? a. 0° b. 23.5°N c. 23.5°S d. That of the Tropic of Cancer ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. On September 22 or 23, the noonday Sun is overhead at what latitude? a. 0° b. 23.5°N c. 23.5°S d. That of the Tropic of Cancer ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. An observer measures the North Star (Polaris) at an altitude of 30°. The observer's latitude is a. 40°N. b. none of these.

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time c. 60°N. d. 30°N. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. An observer measures the North Star (Polaris) at an altitude of 70°. The observer's latitude is a. 25°N. b. 20°N. c. 105°N. d. 70°N. e. none of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. The longest day (daylight) of the year for the Northern Hemisphere occurs at the time of the a. autumnal equinox. b. vernal equinox. c. winter solstice. d. summer solstice.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. If it is 10:00 A.M. EST in Washington, D.C., what is the time in Denver, Colorado, the longitude of which is 30° more westerly? a. 12 noon MST b. 8:00 A.M. MST c. 10:00 A.M. MST d. 9:00 A.M. MST ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. If it is 1:00 P.M. EST in Washington, D.C., what is the time in Denver, Colorado, the longitude of which is 30° more westerly? a. 9:00 A.M. MST b. 11:00 A.M. MST c. 3:00 P.M. MST d. Noon. MST ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. If it is 10:00 A.M. EST in Washington, D.C., what is the time in San Diego, California, the longitude of which is 45° more westerly? a. 1:00 P.M. PST b. 7:00 A.M. PST c. 10:00 A.M. PST d. 9:00 A.M. PST ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. If it is 2:00 P.M. EST in Washington, D.C., what is the time in San Diego, California, the longitude of which is 45° more westerly? a. 1:00 P.M. PST b. 11:00 A.M. PST c. Noon PST d. 5:00 P.M. PST ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. At noon on June 21, the Sun is directly overhead at a latitude of a. 23.5°N. b. 23.5°S. c. 32.5°N. d. 0°.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. At which latitude is the noonday Sun overhead twice a year? a. 30°S b. 23°S c. 24°N d. 30°N ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. At which latitude is the noonday Sun overhead only once a year?

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time a. 10°S b. 23°S c. 4°N d. 30°N ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. The 75°W longitude meridian is the center of the ______________ Standard Time zone in the United States. a. Pacific b. Mountain c. Eastern d. Central ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. The 90°W longitude meridian is the center of the ______________ Standard Time zone in the United States. a. Pacific b. Mountain c. Eastern d. Central ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. The 105°W longitude meridian is the center of the ______________ Standard Time zone in the United States. a. Pacific b. Mountain c. Eastern d. Central ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. The 120°W longitude meridian is the center of the ______________ Standard Time zone in the United States. a. Pacific b. Mountain Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time c. Eastern d. Central ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. Most of the Rocky Mountains, in the western United States, lie in the ______________ Standard Time zone. a. Mountain b. Eastern c. Central d. Pacific ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. Los Angeles, California, is in the ______________ Standard Time zone. a. Mountain b. Pacific c. Central d. Eastern ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The ______________ occurs on June 21. a. autumnal equinox b. winter solstice c. summer solstice d. vernal equinox ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. The Sun appears to travel daily in the sky a. one degree in 4 minutes. b. 7 ° in one hour. c. 360° in 12 hours. d. 23.5° in one year.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. The Sun is at the vernal equinox within one or two days of which of the following dates? a. March 21 b. September 22 c. December 22 d. June 21 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The most southern latitude from which an observer on Earth can see the North Star (Polaris) is a. 66.5°S. b. 23.5°S. c. 0°. d. 23.5°N. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. The ______________ calendar is most used around the world. a. Roman b. Julian c. Gregorian d. Babylonian ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. The Julian calendar, which has 365 days and a leap day every 4 years, was no longer used in Europe after 1582 because a. it is slightly inaccurate and after 1600 years of use caused large problems. b. leap years are rough on people born on February 29. c. people realized that the Roman calendar is better. d. it had 13 months, which is unlucky. e. none of the above; we still use it.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. Pope Gregory XIII decreed that 10 days would be skipped in 1582 because a. the calendar and the seasons were out of sync.

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time b. of a meteor impact. c. he was insane. d. skipping his birthday would prevent his removal.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. Latitude is the angular measurement in degrees a. east or west of the prime meridian. b. north or south of the prime meridian. c. north or south of the equator. d. north or south of the celestial equator.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. Six months of darkness at the South Pole begins when the Sun is at the a. winter solstice. b. summer solstice. c. autumnal equinox. d. vernal equinox.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. Six months of daylight at the South Pole begins when the Sun is at the a. winter solstice. b. summer solstice. c. autumnal equinox. d. vernal equinox.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. Six months of daylight at the North Pole begins when the Sun is at the a. winter solstice. b. summer solstice. c. autumnal equinox. d. vernal equinox.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. Six months of darkness at the North Pole begins when the Sun is at the a. winter solstice. b. summer solstice. c. autumnal equinox. d. vernal equinox.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. The Greenwich meridian is also known as the a. zero, or prime, meridian. b. reference circle. c. east–west coordinate parallel. d. hour meridian.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. At the time of the summer solstice, in the United States, a. the number of hours of daylight is greater than the number of hours of darkness. b. the number of hours of daylight is equal to the number of hours of darkness. c. the number of hours of daylight is less than the number of hours of darkness. d. none of the above is true.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. The four seasons—spring, summer, fall, and winter—are caused by the Sun's changing its daily altitude over a period of 1 year. The Sun's altitude changes a. simply because Earth revolves eastward about the Sun. b. simply because Earth rotates on its axis. c. simply because Earth's axis is tilted 23.5° from the normal to the ecliptic plane. d. because of the combined effects of (A) and (C).

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. The present standard for time is based on a. the transition of an electron between two energy levels of the cesium-133 atom. b. Earth's rotation.

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time c. Earth's orbit. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. Which of the following is true? The number of daylight hours depends on a. the International Date Line. b. the longitude. c. the latitude. d. all of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. The number of hours of daylight at any place on Earth depends on a. the latitude only. b. the day of the year only. c. both the latitude and the day of the year. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. The number of daylight hours at 40°S is greatest during the month of a. June. b. December. c. September. d. March.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. The number of daylight hours before 12 noon is ______________ the number of daylight hours past 12 noon. a. greater than b. less than c. approximately the same as ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time 63. The number of daylight hours at 35°N is greatest during the month of a. May. b. August. c. June. d. July.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. The longest-daylight day for people in the Southern Hemisphere at latitudes greater than 30°S occurs at the a. summer solstice. b. vernal equinox. c. winter solstice. d. autumnal equinox.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. The longest-daylight day for people in the Northern Hemisphere at latitudes greater than 30°N occurs at the a. summer solstice. b. vernal equinox. c. winter solstice. d. autumnal equinox.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. The shortest-daylight day for people in the Southern Hemisphere at latitudes greater than 30°S occurs at the a. summer solstice. b. vernal equinox. c. winter solstice. d. autumnal equinox.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. The shortest-daylight day for people in the Northern Hemisphere at latitudes greater than 30°N occurs at the a. summer solstice. b. vernal equinox. c. winter solstice. d. autumnal equinox.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. The longest-daylight day for people in the Northern Hemisphere at latitudes greater than 25°N occurs when the noon Sun is overhead at the a. Greenwich meridian. b. Tropic of Cancer. c. equator. d. Tropic of Capricorn.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. At different times of the year, the Sun appears to be in different parts of the sky among different groups of stars. This is so because a. Earth revolves about the Sun. b. the Sun rotates on its axis. c. the Sun moves through space. d. stars move. e. Earth rotates on its axis.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. The altitude of the North Star (Polaris) is approximately a. 90°. b. equal to the observer's local latitude. c. equal to the observer's local longitude. d. dependent on the time of day. e. none of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. The plane of Earth's equator is tilted ______________° with respect to the plane of Earth's orbit about the Sun. a. 90 b. 18 c. 5 d. 23.5 e. 180 ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. The tropical year is shorter than the sidereal year because Earth's a. orbit is an ellipse rather than a true circle. b. axis precesses westward. c. orbital speed is not constant. d. axis is tilted by 23.5°.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. If Earth's axis were tilted at 30°, the daylight hours in Washington, D.C., in June would a. remain the same. b. be greater. c. be less. d. be equal to the hours of darkness.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 74. If Earth's axis were tilted at 10°, the seasons of the year would a. be shorter. b. be harsher. c. be longer. d. not change. e. be milder.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 75. If Earth's axis were tilted at 40°, the seasons of the year would a. be shorter. b. be harsher. c. be longer. d. not change. e. be milder.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. Earth's axis completes a precession every Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time a. 25,800 years. b. 30 days. c. day. d. 365 days.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. It is generally believed that there are 7 days in a week because a. there are 7 stars in the Big Dipper. b. it is necessary to have 52 weeks in a year. c. there are 7 visible bodies in the sky that move against the background of the fixed stars. d. it is easy to multiply by 7.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. Consider the following pairs of points: F: 0°N, 40°W G: 70°N, 60°W 0°N, 20°W 70°N, 40°W H: 20°S, 130°E 20°S, 150°E

J: 30°S, 170°E 30°S, 170°W

Which pair is closest together? a. J b. F c. G d. H e. All are the same distance apart.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. Consider the following pairs of points: F: 0°N, 40°W G: 10°N, 60°W 0°N, 20°W 10°N, 40°W H: 20°S, 130°E 20°S, 150°E

J: 30°S, 170°E 30°S, 150°E

Which pair is closest together? a. J Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time b. F c. G d. H e. All are the same distance apart.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 80. The Julian calendar assumed that there were ______________ days in a year. a. 365 b. 365 c. 366 d. 354.2422 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. The Gregorian calendar assumed that there were ______________ days in a year. a. 365 b. 365 c. 366 d. 365.2422 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. Which of the following divisions of time cannot be changed by a human decision? a. 60 minutes in an hour b. 365.2422 days in a year c. 7 days in a week d. 24 hours in a day ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 83. The elapsed time between two successive crossings of the same meridian by the Sun is known as ______________ day. a. one sidereal b. an apparent solar c. a 24-hour d. a mean solar Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. The time interval from one vernal equinox to the next is called one ______________ year. a. sidereal b. celestial c. solar d. tropical ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. The farthest point of the Sun from the equator is known as the a. declination. b. solstice. c. latitude. d. equinox.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. The elapsed time between two successive crossings of the same meridian by a star other than the Sun is known as a. the tropical year. b. one sidereal day. c. the sidereal year. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 87. When Daylight Saving Time is initiated in the spring, people in the United States who continue to go to work at the same time leave a. when it is lighter (more daylight). b. with the same light. c. when it is darker.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 88. The ______________ of a surface position on Earth can be defined as the angular measurement, in degrees, Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time north or south of the equator.

ANSWER: latitude POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. The maximum value of longitude is ______________.

ANSWER: 180° POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 90. A line of equal latitude is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: parallel POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 91. ______________ is defined as the angular measurement, in degrees, east or west of the reference meridian.

ANSWER: Longitude POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. When the Sun is on the meridian, it is by definition ______________ local solar time.

ANSWER: 12:00 noon POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. In the United States, the southernmost point of the Sun is known as the ______________.

ANSWER: winter solstice POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. A line of equal longitude is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: meridian POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. The slow, 25,800-year rotation of Earth's axis is called ______________.

ANSWER: precession POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 96. A time zone is theoretically ______________° wide.

ANSWER: 15 POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 97. Some people mistakenly call noon and midnight ______________ and ______________.

ANSWER: 12 A.M.; 12 P.M. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 98. “Zulu” is the designation for ______________ time.

ANSWER: Greenwich Mean POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 99. The international standard time is called ______________.

ANSWER: Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is based on ______________.

ANSWER: atomic clocks POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 101. When the ______________ is crossed traveling westward, the date is advanced to the next day.

ANSWER: International Date Line POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 102. The Sun is at the autumnal equinox on ______________.

ANSWER: September 21 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. The elapsed time between two successive crossings of the same meridian by the Sun is known as the ______________ solar day.

ANSWER: apparent POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 104. The elapsed time between two successive crossings of the same meridian by a star other than the Sun is known as the ______________ day.

ANSWER: sidereal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time 105. A sidereal day is ______________ than a solar day.

ANSWER: longer POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 106. The International Date Line is a theoretical line following approximately the ______________ meridian.

ANSWER: 180° POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 107. The flat, distorted maps of the world are ______________.

ANSWER: (Mercator) projections POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. For a period after June 21 for locations above 23 ______________ each day.

ANSWER: later POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

° N, sunrise in the conterminous United States occurs

109. For a period after June 21, in Hawaii sunrise occurs ______________ each day.

ANSWER: earlier POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 110. The number of daylight hours at any place on Earth's oceans depends on the ______________ and the ______________ of the year.

ANSWER: latitude; day POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 111. The number of daylight hours before 12 noon is approximately the ______________ as the number after 12 noon.

ANSWER: same POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 112. The equator has approximately ______________ hours of daylight every day of the year.

ANSWER: 12 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 113. The calendar we presently use is the ______________ calendar.

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time ANSWER: Gregorian POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 114. Longitude can be defined as the angular measurement, in degrees, east or west of the ______________ meridian.

ANSWER: prime, or Greenwich POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 115. The angle measured from the horizon to the line of sight to the celestial object is called the ______________.

ANSWER: altitude POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 116. The point in the sky directly above an observer's head is called the ______________.

ANSWER: zenith POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 117. The angle or arc distance of a point on the celestial sphere from the zenith is called the ______________ angle.

ANSWER: zenith POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 118. A two-dimensional coordinate system is called a(n) ______________ coordinate system.

ANSWER: Cartesian POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 119. A(n) ______________ is any circle on the surface of a sphere whose center is at the center of the sphere.

ANSWER: great circle POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 120. All meridians are one-half of a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: great circle POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. The parallel that is a great circle is the ______________.

ANSWER: equator Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 122. At the time of the summer solstice, all latitudes from ______________ to 90°N are having 24 hours of daylight.

ANSWER: 66.5° N POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 123. Daylight hours and night hours are equal in duration throughout the year at the ______________.

ANSWER: equator POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 124. Our present days of the week are related to the names of the Sun, the Moon, and ______________ planets.

ANSWER: five visible POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 125. Our current calendar is the______________ calendar.

ANSWER: Gregorian POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 126. When one crosses the International Date Line traveling eastward, one day is ______________ the present date.

ANSWER: subtracted from POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 127. When the IDL is crossed going from east to west, a day is ______________.

ANSWER: added POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 128. The main purpose of DST is to save ______________.

ANSWER: energy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 129. Daylight Saving Time begins on the first Sunday of ______________ and ends on the last Sunday in ______________.

ANSWER: April; October POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 130. Determine the distance in nautical miles between point A, located at 45°N, 75°W, and point B, located at 30°S, 75°W. ANSWER: Points A and B are on the same great circle separated by 75°.

75°  60 n mi/1 = 4500 n mi POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 131. Which two of the following places are nearest to each other?

Place A at latitude 20°N, longitude 90°W Place B at latitude 30°N, longitude 90°W Place C at latitude 30°N, longitude 75°W Place D at latitude 20°N, longitude 75°W ANSWER: Places B and C POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 132. What are the latitude and longitude of a place on Earth directly opposite Columbia, South Carolina, which is at 81°W, 34°N? ANSWER: 99°E, 34°N POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 133. Suppose you start at Washington, D.C. (39°N, 77°W), and travel 400 nautical miles due south, then 400 nautical miles due east, then 400 nautical miles due north, and then 400 nautical miles due west. Where will you arrive with respect to Washington, D.C.? That is will you be at the starting point, or north, south, east, or west of the starting point?

ANSWER: At the starting point POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 134. During one year, what is the apparent change in the noonday Sun's overhead latitude?

ANSWER: 47° POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 135. When the noonday Sun is overhead in London, England, on April 15, what are the standard time and date in San Francisco?

ANSWER: 4 A.M., April 15 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 - Place and Time 136. What are the standard time and date (time of day and day of month) in Kyoto, Japan (135°E, 35°N), when it is 11 A.M. EST on March 10 in Washington, D.C. (39°N, 77°W)?

ANSWER: 1 A.M., March 11 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 137. When it is 12 noon, May 6, in Perth, Australia (33°S, 116°E), what are the standard time and date in Ottawa, Canada (44°N, 76°W)?

ANSWER: 11 P.M., May 6 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 138. Determine the maximum altitude of the Sun on June 21 for an observer located at 30°N. ANSWER: 83.5° POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 139. Determine the maximum altitude of the Sun on December 22 for an observer located at 30°N. ANSWER: 36.5° POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 140. It is June 21 and the Sun is to the south. Using a sextant, a ship's captain measures the altitude of the noonday Sun to be 55o. What is the latitude of the ship?

ANSWER: 58.5°N POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 141. The first mate of a pirate ship shoots the noonday Sun with a sextant and measures the altitude to be 50o to the south on December 21. The time on the ship’s clock is 4 P.M. (GMT). What are the longitude and latitude of the ship?

ANSWER: 16.5°N, 60°W POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System 1. The study of astronomy involves a. space. b. energy. c. matter. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. The geocentric model of the solar system is attributed to a. Kepler. b. Brahe. c. Copernicus. d. Aristotle.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. The heliocentric model of the solar system was developed by a. Brahe. b. Kepler. c. Copernicus. d. Newton.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Kepler's second law of planetary motion is known as the law of a. ellipses. b. equal areas. c. harmonic periods. d. gravitation.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. That a planet moves with different speeds in its orbit is given by which of Kepler's laws? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. Kepler's first law states that the orbits of the planets around the Sun are a. circles. b. ellipses. c. all lying in the same plane. d. none of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. The name given to the point of a planet's orbit that is closest to the Sun is a. aphelion. b. focus. c. perihelion. d. solstice.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. The name given to the point of a planet's orbit that is farthest from the Sun is a. aphelion. b. focus. c. perihelion. d. solstice.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. Kepler's third law of planetary motion is also known as the ______________ law. a. periodic b. elliptical path c. harmonic d. heliocentric ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. Retrograde motion of a planet refers to ______________ motion. a. west-to-east b. east-to-west Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System c. circular d. elliptical ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. Earth's axis is tilted ______________ degrees from the normal to the ecliptic plane. a. zero b. 90 c. 45 d. 23.5 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. The motion of a Foucault pendulum proves that Earth is a. rotating. b. revolving. c. precessing. d. an oblate spheroid.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. Stellar paralax proves that Earth is a. rotating. b. revolving. c. precessing. d. an oblate spheroid.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. The closest planet to Earth is a. Mars. b. Venus. c. Mercury. d. Saturn.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System 15. The planet Earth a. has retrograde motion. b. is the closest planet to Venus. c. is the smallest of the terrestrial planets. d. has a unique circular orbit.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. The planet Mercury a. has retrograde motion. b. is the closest planet to Venus. c. is the smallest of the terrestrial planets. d. has a uniquely circular orbit.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. The aberration of starlight gives proof that Earth is a. rotating. b. revolving. c. precessing. d. none of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. Which planet moves the fastest? a. Earth b. Mars c. Venus d. Mercury ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. Which of the following planets moves the slowest in its orbit around the Sun? a. Earth b. Mars c. Venus d. Mercury ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. The terrestrial planets have a. relatively high densities. b. solid surfaces. c. weak magnetic fields. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. Which of the following planets can be in opposition? a. Mercury b. Venus c. Earth d. Mars ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. Which of the following planets can be in opposition? a. Mercury b. Venus c. Earth d. Uranus ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. Which of the following planets can be in opposition? a. Mercury b. Venus c. Earth d. Neptune ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. Which of the following planets can be in opposition? a. Mercury b. Venus Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System c. Earth d. Saturn ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. Which of the following planets cannot be in opposition? a. Venus b. Jupiter c. Saturn d. Mars ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. Which of the following planets cannot be in opposition? a. Mercury b. Jupiter c. Saturn d. Mars ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. According to today's classification system, how many major planets are there in the solar system? a. 10 b. 9 c. 8 d. 11 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. How many minor planets are known to exist in the solar system, using today's classification system? a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System 29. Which of the following is not a terrestrial planet? a. Earth b. Mars c. Saturn d. Venus ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. Which of the following is not a terrestrial planet? a. Earth b. Mars c. Jupiter d. Venus ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. Which of the terrestrial planets has rings? a. Mercury b. Venus c. Mars d. None of the terrestrial planets has rings.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. The third brightest object in the sky is a. the Sun. b. the Moon. c. Venus. d. Mars.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. The second brightest object in the sky is a. the Sun. b. the Moon. c. Venus. d. Mars.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. The brightest object in the sky is a. the Sun. b. the Moon. c. Venus. d. Mars.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. A terrestrial planet that has seasonal changes is a. Venus. b. Mars. c. Mercury. d. Saturn.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. The Jovian planets a. are composed mainly of hydrogen and helium. b. have no solid surface. c. have rings. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. The terrestrial planets and the Jovian planets are distinguished from each other in terms of a. density only. b. size only. c. temperature only. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. The most distant planet that can be seen with the unaided eye is a. Jupiter. b. Saturn.

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System c. Uranus. d. Neptune.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. The planet whose axis of rotation lies almost in its orbital plane is a. Neptune. b. Uranus. c. Saturn. d. Jupiter.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. The planet with the Great Red Spot is a. Jupiter. b. Neptune. c. Uranus. d. Saturn. e. Mars.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. The largest planet in the solar system is a. Jupiter. b. Neptune. c. Uranus. d. Saturn. e. Mars.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. The planet with Red Spot Junior is a. Jupiter. b. Neptune. c. Uranus. d. Saturn. e. Mars.

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The planet with a hexagonally shaped storm at its pole is a. Jupiter. b. Neptune. c. Uranus. d. Saturn. e. Mars.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. The planet with the Great Dark Spot is a. Jupiter. b. Saturn. c. Uranus. d. Neptune.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. The planet with the largest number of moons is a. Jupiter. b. Saturn. c. Uranus. d. Neptune.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The planet with the most prominent rings is a. Jupiter. b. Saturn. c. Uranus. d. Neptune.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. The planet with the largest volcano in the solar system is Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System a. Earth. b. Mars. c. Venus. d. Mercury.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. Which of the following is not a dwarf planet? a. Ceres b. Mercury c. Pluto d. Eris ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. Which of the following is the largest dwarf planet? a. Ceres b. Mercury c. Pluto d. Eris ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. Which of the following is the smallest dwarf planet? a. Ceres b. Mercury c. Pluto d. Eris ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. The smallest major planet in the solar system lacks a. a surface. b. a solid surface. c. a moon. d. a gravitational field.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. The Venus lacks a. an atmosphere. b. a solid surface. c. a moon. d. a gravitational field.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. The flattened, rotating disk of gas and dust around the protosun, from which planets were believed to have formed, is called the a. solar nebula. b. planetary nebula. c. condensation nebula. d. primordial nebula.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. At present, the formation of the solar system is believed by most astronomers to have begun with a large, swirling volume of cold gas and dust called the ______________ nebula. a. condensation b. primordial c. accretion d. celestial ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. Which of the following is believed to have played a major role in the condensation process predicted by the condensation theory? a. Dust b. Temperature c. Retrograde motion d. Protosuns ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System 56. Which of the following is a technique used by astronomers in their search for other planetary systems? a. Observation of the star's rotation only b. Observation of the Doppler shifts in the star's spectrum only c. Both (A) and (B) d. The search for alien signals ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. Planets in a planetary system other than the solar system a. have never been detected. b. have been detected. c. are an impossibility. d. are universally present.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. Other planetary systems are best detected by the Doppler shifts that change the pattern of the star's a. spectrum. b. brightness. c. rotational period. d. twinkling.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. The solar system is a complex system of moving masses held together by ______________ forces.

ANSWER: gravitational POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 60. The dominant mass of the solar system is the ______________.

ANSWER: Sun POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 61. Kepler's first law states that Earth's orbit around the Sun takes the shape of a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: ellipse POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System 62. The solar system model of Copernicus is known as the ______________ model.

ANSWER: heliocentric POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 63. The Earth-centered model of the solar system is called the ______________ model.

ANSWER: geocentric POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 64. T2 = kR3 is known as ______________.

ANSWER: Kepler's third law, or harmonic law POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 65. Kepler's first law of planetary motion is known as the law of ______________ paths.

ANSWER: elliptical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 66. The distance between Earth and the Sun is 93,000, 000 miles, or one ______________.

ANSWER: astronomical unit (AU) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 67. Kepler's second law of planetary motion gives a relationship concerning equal ______________ in equal periods of time.

ANSWER: areas POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 68. When a planet has the same meridian as a star, the planet is said to be in ______________.

ANSWER: conjunction POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 69. The point of a planet's orbit farthest from the Sun is called the ______________.

ANSWER: aphelion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 70. The fraction of incident sunlight reflected by a celestial body is called its ______________.

ANSWER: albedo Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 71. Earth's albedo is ______________.

ANSWER: 0.33, or 33% POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 72. The Moon's albedo is ______________.

ANSWER: 0.07, or 7% POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 73. In 1851, Earth's rotation was demonstrated using a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: Foucault pendulum POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 74. ______________ is the apparent motion that occurs between two fixed objects when the observer changes position.

ANSWER: Parallax POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 75. The apparent displacement in the direction of light coming from a star because of Earth's orbital motion is called the ______________.

ANSWER: aberration of starlight POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 76. Proof that Earth revolves around the Sun is obtained by the use of ______________ and the ______________.

ANSWER: parallax; aberration of starlight POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 77. The fourth planet from the Sun is ______________.

ANSWER: Mars POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 78. The planet that most resembles Earth is ______________.

ANSWER: Mars POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 79. The surface of the terrestrial planet ______________ cannot be seen from Earth.

ANSWER: Venus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 80. “Canals” are a feature once associated with the planet ______________.

ANSWER: Mars POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 81. The largest volcano in the solar system is on ______________.

ANSWER: Mars POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. The largest volcano on Earth is in ______________.

ANSWER: Hawaii POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 83. The planet with the polar “ice caps” of frozen carbon dioxide is ______________.

ANSWER: Mars POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 84. Part of Pluto's orbit is inside the orbit of ______________.

ANSWER: Neptune POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 85. The planets with known rings are Saturn, Neptune, ______________, and Jupiter.

ANSWER: Uranus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. The planet ______________ contains more than half the mass of the solar system not in the Sun. ANSWER: Jupiter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 87. The Great Red Spot is a feature of ______________.

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System ANSWER: Jupiter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 88. The Great White Spot is a feature of ______________.

ANSWER: Saturn POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. The Great Dark Spot is a feature of ______________.

ANSWER: Neptune POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. The rings of Saturn were discovered by ______________.

ANSWER: Galileo POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 91. The most distant planet that can be seen with the unaided eye is ______________.

ANSWER: Uranus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. The planet ______________ has retrograde motion.

ANSWER: Uranus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. The planet that is normally farthest from the Sun, but sometimes is not, is ______________.

ANSWER: Pluto POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. Gravity acting on ______________ played an important role in the condensation process of forming nebulae.

ANSWER: dust POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. The large, central portion of a swirling solar nebula is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: protosun POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 96. Our solar system is thought to have evolved from a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: solar nebula POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 97. Other planetary systems are best detected by the Doppler shifts that change the pattern of the star's ______________.

ANSWER: spectrum POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 98. Other planetary systems are detected by a “wobbling" of the star as a consequence of ______________ effects of a planet.

ANSWER: gravitational POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 99. The ______________ effect provides evidence of motions within other planetary systems.

ANSWER: Doppler POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. What percentage of the total mass of the 8 planets exists in Jupiter?

ANSWER: Relative mass of Jupiter: 318; relative mass of all the other 7 planets: 128

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 101. Suppose a small, new planet were discovered at a distance of 4 AU from the Sun. According to Kepler's third law, what would be its period?

ANSWER: 8 years POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 102. Calculate the value of the constant k in Kepler's harmonic law, using values for Earth from Table 16.1 in the textbook (1 year can be used for the period, and 1 AU can be used for the mean distance to the Sun).

ANSWER:

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Chapter 16 - The Solar System POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 103. Halley's comet has a sidereal period of 76.2 years. Determine the value of the semimajor axis of its orbit.

(Use Kepler's third law.)

ANSWER:

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 104. Determine the sidereal period of a planet that is located 5.2 AU from the Sun. ANSWER:

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies 1. Saturn's moon named ______________ is the second largest moon in the solar system. a. Titan b. Europa c. Ganymede d. Phobos e. Diamos ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. The major moons of ______________ were named after literary characters. a. Mars b. Jupiter c. Saturn d. Uranus e. Neptune ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. ______________ is the major moon of Neptune. a. Triton b. Titan c. Ganymede d. Europa e. Callisto ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. ______________ is the only moon in the solar system to have retrograde motion. a. Ganymede b. Europa c. Callisto d. Titan e. Triton ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. Nix and Hydra are moons of ______________ . a. Earth Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies b. Venus c. Neptune d. Mars e. Pluto ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. Charon is a moon of ______________ . a. Earth b. Venus c. Neptune d. Mars e. Pluto ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. ______________ is the largest known asteroid. a. Pluto b. Mars c. Ceres d. Vesta e. Mercury ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. When a meteoroid enters Earth's atmosphere, it is called a(n) ______________. a. meteor or “shooting star” b. asteroid c. star d. planet e. dwarf planet ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. When a meteor strikes Earth's surface, it is called a(n) ______________. a. asteroid b. star Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies c. planet d. meteorite e. ball ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. The seriousness of an asteroid collision is gauged by the ______________ scale. a. Torino b. Richter c. Decibel d. Sunami e. Star ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. A meteor ______________ results when a large number of meteoroids enter Earth's atmosphere. a. fall b. landing c. group d. explosion e. shower ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. The ______________ surrounds the nucleus of a comet. a. head or coma b. cloud c. fuzz d. cover e. epinucleus ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. Comets are composed of ______________. a. dust and ice b. rock c. helium Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies d. lead e. iron ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. Probably the best-known comet is ______________ Comet. a. Sally's b. Bally's c. Bailey's d. Malley's e. Halley's ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. Halley's Comet returns about every ______________ years. a. 4 b. 12 c. 1000 d. 10,000 e. 76 ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. As comets approach and move around the Sun, the coma and the tail ______________ in size. a. decrease b. increase c. remain the same d. none of the above ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. Long-period comets are believed to come from ______________. a. the Oort cloud b. interstellar space c. the asteroid belt d. the Great Red Spot ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. Short-period comets, such as Halley's comet, are believed to come from ______________. a. the Kuiper Belt b. the Oort cloud c. the asteroid belt d. Earth ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. The particles of interplanetary dust are called ______________. a. micrometeoroids b. asteroids c. meteors d. meteorites ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. The local solar time at 135°W is 12:00 noon. What is the longitude of an observer who sees the full moon on her meridian at this time? a. 45°E b. –45°E c. 135°E d. 135°W e. None of the above ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. The local solar time at 75°W is 12:00 noon. What is the longitude of an observer who sees the full moon on her meridian at this time? a. 105°E b. 75°E c. 15°E d. 15°W e. None of the above ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies 22. At what longitude is an observer who sees the last-quarter moon on his meridian when it is 12:00 noon local solar time at 75°W? a. 165°W b. 15°E c. 15°W d. 165°E e. 75°E ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. It is 12:00 noon local solar time at 75°W. The date is March 21. At which of the following longitudes would an observer be able to see the last-quarter moon rising? a. 105°W b. 75°E c. 15°W d. 105°E ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. A high tide is occurring at Charleston, South Carolina (80°W, 33°N). At approximately what other longitude is a high tide occurring? a. 100°E b. 80°E c. 60°E d. 40°E e. 20°E ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. A high tide is occurring at Charleston, South Carolina (151°W, 36°N). At approximately what other longitude is a high tide occurring? a. 29°E b. 151°E c. 61°E d. 61°W e. 29°W ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. A high tide is occurring at Charleston, South Carolina (70°W, 12°N). At approximately what other longitude is a high tide occurring? a. 110°E b. 70°E c. 20°E d. 20°W e. 110°W ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. A high tide is occurring at Charleston, South Carolina (45°W, 64°N). Which listed longitude is experiencing a low tide occurring? a. 135°E b. 65°E c. 45°E d. 45°W e. 145°W ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. A high tide is occurring at Charleston, South Carolina (36°W, 59°N). Which listed longitude is experiencing a low tide occurring? a. 144°E b. 36°E c. 54°E d. 54°W e. 144°W ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. A high tide is occurring at Charleston, South Carolina (80°W, 33°N). What two longitudes are experiencing low tide? a. 10°E and 170°E b. 10°W and 170°W c. 10°E and 170°W d. 10°W and 170°E ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. If a person weighs 150 lb on Earth, what will the person weigh on the Moon? a. 25 lb b. 900 lb c. 150 lb d. 75 lb e. 300 lb ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. If a person weighs 252 lb on Earth, what will the person weigh on the Moon? a. 42 lb b. 1512 lb c. 252 lb d. 126 lb e. 25.2 lb ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. The diameter of the Moon is approximately a. 800 mi. b. 239,000 mi. c. 93,000,000 mi. d. 2200 mi.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. The far side of the Moon a. has never been seen. b. has more craters than the near side. c. looks just like the near side. d. is always dark.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. Pulverized rock is believed to make up the Moon's Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies a. rays. b. craters. c. rills. d. plains (maria).

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. Which of the following is not a general feature of the Moon's surface? a. Dry ocean plains b. Multiring basins c. Secondary craters d. None of these; that is, all these features are present ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. Moonquakes are believed to have caused the Moon's a. rays. b. craters. c. rills d. plains (maria).

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. The Moon is thought to be a. older than Earth. b. the same age as Earth. c. younger than Earth. d. infinitely old.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. Craters on the Moon are believed to have been caused by a. wind erosion. b. water erosion. c. the impact of meteorites. d. volcanic action.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. The impact of meteorites on the Moon has caused a. craters only. b. rays only. c. rills only. d. both rays and craters.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. The oldest rocks on the Moon were formed about how many years ago? a. 1.5 million b. 4.4 million c. 1.5 billion d. 4.4 billion ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. The Moon's average density is a. greater than Earth's. b. less than Earth's. c. approximately the same as Earth's. d. nonexistent because water is not present.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. Rills on the Moon are believed to have been caused by a. moonquakes. b. meteorite impacts. c. volcanoes. d. expansion and contraction of the Moon's surface.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The Moon a. revolves about Earth from west to east. b. has a day equal to 29.5 Earth days.

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies c. has an elliptical orbit about Earth. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. The Moon completes one orbit around Earth about every a. 29.5 days. b. 7 days. c. 365 days. d. sidereal day.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. The Moon's orbital plane is inclined to Earth's orbital plane by a. 0°. b. 5°. c. 23.5°. d. 30°.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The Moon rises 50 minutes later each day because a. the tidal forces on the Moon slow Earth's rotation, causing its period to be longer. b. the Moon revolves eastward around Earth. c. the Moon rotates on its axis. d. the Moon revolves westward around Earth.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. The direction of the Moon's orbit about Earth is a. westward. b. eastward. c. clockwise, as viewed from above Earth's North Pole. d. none of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies 48. The Moon revolves around Earth a. in a clockwise direction, as viewed from above Earth's North Pole. b. once every day. c. once every 7-3/8 days. d. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. The Moon always presents the same face to Earth because a. the Moon does not rotate on its axis. b. the Moon rotates on its axis at same rate at which it revolves around Earth. c. the Moon revolves around the Sun in one month. d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. The phase of the Moon that one observes on the overhead meridian at 10 P.M. local time is a ______________ moon. a. waxing crescent b. waning crescent c. waxing gibbous d. waning gibbous ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. The full moon by definition occurs a. for only a day. b. for 7-3/8 days. c. only for an instant. d. only once every month.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. On March 21, the Moon is in its first-quarter phase. An observer who sees this Moon on his or her meridian at this time a. cannot see the Sun. b. sees the Sun setting. c. sees the Sun rising.

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. At the time of a full moon, an astronaut on the Moon looking at Earth would see a a. full Earth moon. b. first-quarter Earth moon. c. last-quarter Earth moon. d. new Earth moon.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. The first-quarter Moon sets at approximately a. midnight. b. noon. c. 6 P.M. d. 6 A.M. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. The last-quarter Moon rises approximately at a. 6 A.M. b. noon. c. 6 P.M. d. midnight.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. When the Moon is on an observer's meridian at 9 A.M., the Moon is in the ______________ phase. a. waning crescent b. waning gibbous c. waxing crescent d. waxing gibbous ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. When the Moon rises at approximately 12 noon, it is in the ______________ phase.

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies a. first-quarter b. last-quarter c. new d. full ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. A solar eclipse occurs at or near the time of a a. first-quarter moon. b. last-quarter moon. c. new moon. d. full moon.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. A lunar eclipse can occur only when the Moon is in or near the ______________ phase. a. new b. first-quarter c. last-quarter d. full ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. During a solar eclipse, the umbra moves across Earth's surface generally from a. east to west. b. west to east. c. south to north. d. north to south.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. Tides are caused by a. the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun. b. Earth's rotation. c. the Moon keeping the same face toward Earth. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. Spring tides occur a. only in March. b. when Earth, the Moon, and the Sun line up. c. fewer than 10 times a year. d. once a month.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. Spring tides occur close to the time of ______________ moon. a. the new b. the first-quarter c. both the new and the full d. the last-quarter ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. Someone on the near side of the Moon would observe Earth rise once every a. 24 hours. b. 24 hours and 50 minutes. c. 29.5 Earth days. d. None of these, the observer would never see Earth rise or set.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. Someone on the far side of the Moon would observe Earth rise once every a. 24 hours. b. 24 hours and 50 minutes. c. 29.5 Earth days. d. None of these, the observer would never see Earth rise.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. Tides occur later each day because of a. Earth's rotation with respect to the Sun. b. the Moon's rotation with respect to Earth.

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies c. Earth's rotation with respect to the Moon. d. a change in gravitational attraction.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. The “horns” of the crescent moon point a. always away from the Sun. b. in random directions. c. down toward Earth. d. always away from Earth.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. In exactly 14 days after a full moon, one would see a a. new moon. b. waxing crescent moon. c. first-quarter moon. d. waning crescent moon.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. An observer on the Moon looking at Earth would a. always see a fully illuminated Earth. b. always see a half-illuminated Earth. c. see phases of Earth. d. see continuous darkness.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. A waxing phase of the Moon can be seen a. 10 days after a full moon. b. 10 days after a new moon. c. 10 days before a new moon. d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies 71. Suppose you live on the near side of the Moon in the crater Copernicus. How often will the Sun set below your horizon? a. Every 12 hours b. Every 24 hours c. Every 29.5 days d. Never ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. Which of the following has the most moons? a. Mercury b. Venus c. Earth d. Mars ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. Which of the Jovian planets has the most moons? a. Jupiter b. Saturn c. Uranus d. Neptune ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 74. Which of the following is Jupiter's largest moon? a. Io b. Europa c. Ganymede d. Callisto ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 75. Which of the Galilean moons has volcanic activity? a. Io b. Europa c. Ganymede d. Callisto Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. Which of Jupiter's moons is believed to be covered with water ice and possibly have life sustaining conditions? a. Io b. Europa c. Ganymede d. Callisto ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. Which planet has the second largest moon in the solar system? a. Jupiter b. Saturn c. Uranus d. Neptune ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. Which planet's major moons were named after literary characters? a. Jupiter b. Saturn c. Uranus d. Neptune ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. Which of the following moons has retrograde motion? a. Ganymede b. Titan c. Miranda d. Triton ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 80. Which planet has a large moon with retrograde motion?

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies a. Jupiter b. Saturn c. Uranus d. Neptune ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. The asteroid belt is between the orbits of a. Earth and Mars. b. Mars and Jupiter. c. Earth and Venus. d. Jupiter and Saturn.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. Which of the following is(are) found mainly between Mars and Jupiter? a. Asteroids b. Meteoroids c. Comets d. Interplanetary dust ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 83. Which of the following is(are) believed to be material that never collected into a single planet? a. Asteroids b. Meteoroids c. Comets d. Interplanetary dust ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. Which of the following is believed to have caused the extinction of the dinosaurs on Earth? a. An asteroid b. A meteoroid c. A comet d. Interplanetary dust ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. Which of the following is usually burned up in Earth's atmosphere? a. Asteroid b. Meteoroid c. Meteor d. Meteorite ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. The tail of a comet is longest when the comet is a. closest to the Sun. b. farthest from the Sun. c. closest to Earth. d. farthest from Earth.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 87. The tail of a comet is shortest when the comet is a. closest to the Sun. b. farthest from the Sun. c. closest to Earth. d. farthest from Earth.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 88. A comet consists of a. a nucleus only. b. a coma only. c. a tail only. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 89. A large volume of the solar system's space is occupied by a. meteors. b. micrometeoroids.

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies c. asteroids. d. comets ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 90. The Moon's maria, or plains, are believed to have been caused by ______________.

ANSWER: volcanic eruptions POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 91. The ______________ on the Moon are believed to have been caused by moonquakes.

ANSWER: rills POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. The largest impact features on the surface of the Moon are the ______________ basins.

ANSWER: multiring POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. The Moon's average distance from Earth is about ______________ km.

ANSWER: 387,000 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. The oldest Moon rocks are about ______________ years old.

ANSWER: 4.4 billion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. The Moon revolves eastward around Earth every ______________ solar days.

ANSWER: 29.5 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 96. The orbital period of the Moon with respect to a star (other than the Sun) is called a(n) ______________ month.

ANSWER: sidereal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 97. During the 7-3/8 days between the new and first-quarter phases, the Moon is called a(n) ______________ Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies moon.

ANSWER: waxing crescent POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 98. When the Moon appears on an observer's meridian at midnight, it is called a(n) ______________ moon.

ANSWER: full POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 99. When the Moon is 90° west of the Sun, the Moon is in the ______________ phase.

ANSWER: last-quarter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. When the Moon appears on an observer's meridian at 4 A.M., the Moon is in the ______________ phase.

ANSWER: waning gibbous POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 101. The bright side of the waxing crescent moon is toward the ______________.

ANSWER: west POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 102. A waning crescent moon can appear on an observer's meridian between ______________ and ______________. (Answers in times of day.)

ANSWER: 12 midnight and 6 A.M. POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. A(n) ______________ moon occurs when more than one-half of the Moon's surface appears illuminated.

ANSWER: gibbous POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 104. When the Moon is 90° east of the Sun, it will be in the ______________ phase.

ANSWER: first-quarter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 105. Looking at the Moon, the “horns” of a waning crescent moon point toward the ______________.

ANSWER: right Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 106. A lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon is in the ______________ phase.

ANSWER: full-moon POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 107. The central, completely dark portion of a shadow is call the ______________.

ANSWER: umbra POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. The portion of a shadow from which only part of the light is excluded by an opaque object is called the ______________.

ANSWER: penumbra POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 109. The highest tides are called ______________ tides.

ANSWER: spring POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 110. ______________ tides occur during the first-quarter and last-quarter moon phases.

ANSWER: Neap POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 111. The Moon is on an observer's meridian about ______________ minutes later each day.

ANSWER: 50 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 112. At the time of a solar eclipse, the Moon is in ______________ phase.

ANSWER: full POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 113. The moons of Mars are believed to be captured ______________.

ANSWER: asteroids POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies 114. The moons of Mars are ______________; that is, they always keep the same face toward the planet.

ANSWER: synchronous POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 115. The names of the moons of Mars are ______________ and ______________.

ANSWER: Phobos; Deimos POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 116. The names of the Martian moons, Phobos and Deimos, mean ______________ and ______________.

ANSWER: Fear; Panic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 117. ______________ is the largest moon in the solar system.

ANSWER: Ganymede POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 118. The planet ______________ has the largest moon in the solar system.

ANSWER: Jupiter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 119. Because Jupiter's four large moons were discovered by Galileo, they are called ______________ moons.

ANSWER: Galilean POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 120. Jupiter's moon named ______________ is volcanically active.

ANSWER: Io POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. Other than Earth, the only known object in the solar system to have surface water and ice is ______________.

ANSWER: Io POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 122. A huge bull's-eye formation is a distinctive feature of Jupiter's moon ______________.

ANSWER: Callisto Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 123. Saturn's moon named ______________ is the second largest moon in the solar system.

ANSWER: Titan POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 124. The major moons of ______________ were named after literary characters.

ANSWER: Uranus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 125. ______________ is the major moon of Neptune.

ANSWER: Triton POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 126. ______________ is the only moon in the solar system to have retrograde motion.

ANSWER: Triton POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 127. Charon is ______________ only moon.

ANSWER: Pluto's POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 128. Asteroids are sometimes referred to as ______________ planets.

ANSWER: minor POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 129. ______________ is the largest known asteroid.

ANSWER: Ceres POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 130. When a meteoroid enters Earth's atmosphere, it is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: meteor, or “shooting star” POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies 131. When a meteor strikes Earth's surface, it is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: meteorite POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 132. The seriousness of an asteroid collision is gauged by the ______________ scale.

ANSWER: Torino POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 133. A meteor ______________ results when a large number of meteoroids enter Earth's atmosphere.

ANSWER: shower POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 134. The ______________ surrounds the nucleus of a comet.

ANSWER: head, or coma POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 135. Comets are composed of ______________ and ______________.

ANSWER: dust; ice POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 136. Probably the best-known comet is ______________ Comet.

ANSWER: Halley's POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 137. Halley's Comet returns about every ______________ years.

ANSWER: 76 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 138. Comets are visible chiefly because of reflected ______________.

ANSWER: sunlight POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 139. As comets approach and move around the Sun, the coma and the tail ______________ in size.

ANSWER: increase POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 140. Sunlight reflected from interplanetary dust results in the appearance of ______________.

ANSWER: zodiacal light, or Gegenshein POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 141. Long-period comets are believed to come from the ______________.

ANSWER: Oort cloud POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 142. Short-period comets, such as Halley's Comet, are believed to come from the ______________.

ANSWER: Kuiper Belt POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 143. Solar system space is occupied by very small, solid particles that are called ______________.

ANSWER: interplanetary dust POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 144. The particles of interplanetary dust are called ______________.

ANSWER: micrometeoroids POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 145. The local solar time at 75°W is 12:00 noon. What is the longitude of an observer who sees the full moon on her meridian at this time?

ANSWER: 105°E POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 146. At what longitude is an observer who sees the last-quarter moon on his meridian when it is 12:00 noon local solar time at 75°W? ANSWER: 165°W POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 147. A high tide is occurring at Charleston, South Carolina (80°W, 33°N). At approximately what other longitude is a high tide occurring?

ANSWER: 100°E POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 - Moons and Small Solar System Bodies 148. A high tide is occurring at Charleston, South Carolina (80°W, 33°N). What two longitudes are experiencing low tide?

ANSWER: 10°E and 170°W POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 149. If a person weighs 150 lb on Earth, what will the person weigh on the Moon?

ANSWER: 25 lb POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 18 - The Universe 1. What is the visible surface of the Sun called? a. Photosphere b. Atmosphere c. Stratosphere d. Glowing sphere ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. What is the temperature in kelvins of the visible surface of the Sun? a. 600 K b. 6 million K c. 6 billion K d. 6000 K ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. What is the name given to all matter, energy, and space? a. Universe b. Galaxy c. Local group d. Solar system ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. The Sun is a(n) a. cluster. b. planet. c. star. d. galaxy.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. What is the pseudoscience that contends the planets' positions in the sky at the time of a person's birth affect the individual's personality or future? a. Astronomy b. Card reading c. Physics d. Astrology Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. The number of _______________ on the Sun varies over an 11-year cycle. a. sunspots b. rays c. canals d. valleys ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. What is the value for the total energy that reaches each square meter of Earth from the Sun each second called? a. Solar constant b. Solar maximum c. Sunspots d. Solar wind ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. The heliosphere is defined as the volume of space over which the ______________ extends. a. solar wind b. solar constant c. magnetic field d. gravitational field ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. The apparent path that the Sun traces annually along the celestial sphere is known as the ______________. a. parabolic b. elliptic c. ecliptic d. eclipse ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. Six trillion miles is equivalent in distance to one ______________.

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Chapter 18 - The Universe a. light-year b. astronomical unit c. parsec d. billion meters ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. The angular measure in degrees north or south of the celestial equator is called _______________. a. declination b. azimuth c. altitude d. latitude ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. The angular measurement in hours, minutes, and seconds from the celestial prime meridian eastward is called _______________. a. sundial b. protractor c. declination d. right ascension ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. The imaginary, huge, apparently moving sphere on which the stars appear to be mounted is called the _______________ sphere. a. celestial b. global c. universal d. galactic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. One ______________ is the distance to a star when the star exhibits a parallax of one second of arc. a. parsec b. light-year c. astronomical unit d. million miles Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. In a star, the condition of balance between the inward force of gravity and the outward force of thermal and radiation pressure is known as _______________ equilibrium. a. hydrostatic b. thermal c. photostatic d. magnetostatic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. A star of magnitude 1 appears _______________ times brighter than a star of magnitude 2. a. 5.21 b. 3.14 c. 10 d. 2.51 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. The closest star to the Sun is named _______________. a. Proxima Centauri b. Sol c. Jupiter d. Polaris ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. The stars of highest photospheric temperature are those of spectral class _______________. a. O b. M c. K d. C ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. The Greek astronomer who assigned the stars to six magnitudes was named _______________.

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Chapter 18 - The Universe a. Aristotle b. Socrates c. Hipparchus d. Panos ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. Eighty-eight prominent groups of stars in the sky are called the _______________. a. constellations b. local groups c. clusters d. galaxies ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. When the absolute magnitudes, or brightnesses, of stars are plotted against their surface temperatures or colors, we obtain a(n) a. Hertzsprung-Russell (or H-R) diagram. b. straight line. c. random pattern. d. none of the above ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. The creation of elements inside a star is called _______________. a. nucleosynthesis b. fission c. production d. transmutation ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. Gas and dust distributed among the stars is known as the _______________. a. interstellar vacuum b. interstellar void c. Oort cloud d. interstellar medium ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. The greater the mass of a star, the _______________ it moves through its life cycle. a. faster b. slower c. Neither of these; mass has no effect on the life cycle of a star.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. The two types of bright nebulae are emission nebulae and _______________ nebulae. a. photonic b. absorption c. refraction d. reflection ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. When the Sun moves off the main sequence, it will next become a _______________. a. red giant b. dwarf star c. white dwarf d. black hole ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. The remaining core of a planetary nebula is called a _______________. a. white dwarf b. neutron star c. black hole d. red giant ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. An incredibly dense star so massive that light cannot escape from its surface is called a _______________. a. red giant b. black hole c. white dwarf Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe d. pulsar ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. The cataclysmic explosion of a star that throws most of its matter into space is called a _______________. a. supernova b. solar flare c. solar blast d. novaton ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. The “surface” of a black hole is known as the _______________. a. core b. corona c. photosphere d. event horizon ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. A point in the universe where the density of matter and the gravitational field are theoretically infinite is called a _______________. a. singularity b. duality c. prominence d. photon ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. A Type II supernova can form a _______________ or a black hole. a. neutron star b. red giant c. white dwarf d. planet ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe 33. Another name for a pulsar is _______________. a. neutron star b. black hole c. quasar d. red giant ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. Our home galaxy is called _______________. a. M31 b. the solar system c. the Milky Way d. Andromeda ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. The letters LMC refer to the galaxy named _______________. a. Light Magellanic Collection b. Large Magellanic Collection c. Large Magellanic Cloud d. Light Magellanic Cloud ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. The cluster of galaxies that includes our Milky Way is called the _______________. a. Local Group b. universe c. solar system d. Milky Cluster ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. Clusters containing clusters of galaxies are called _______________. a. superclusters b. galactic clusters c. universe clusters d. quasar clusters ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. An extremely large collection of stars bound together by gravitational attraction and occupying a huge volume of space is called a _______________. a. planetary nebula b. solar system c. universe d. galaxy ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. By definition, the universe consists of a. all energy only. b. all space only. c. all matter only. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. The Sun is a. a self-luminous sphere. b. energized by nuclear fusion. c. a plasma. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. The Sun's photosphere is, by mass, about 75% a. helium. b. carbon. c. hydrogen. d. oxygen.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. The Sun's photosphere is, by mass, about 25% a. helium.

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Chapter 18 - The Universe b. carbon. c. hydrogen. d. oxygen.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. Patches of cooler material on the Sun's surface are called a. flares. b. prominences. c. cool spots. d. sunspots.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. It is not true that the neutrino a. is an elementary particle. b. interacts extensively with other particles. c. has no electric charge. d. travels at or near the speed of light.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. The temperature of the Sun's interior is estimated to be about how many kelvins? a. 1500 b. 15 million c. 5 billion d. 60,000 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The Sun's energy is generated from the fusion of a. uranium to form lead, Pb. b. helium nuclei to form carbon nuclei. c. hydrogen nuclei to form helium nuclei. d. carbon nuclei to form magnesium nuclei.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. The Sun is a a. moon. b. galaxy. c. planet. d. star.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. The sunspot cycle has a period of a. 19 years. b. 11 years. c. 38 years. d. 24 years.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. What is the name of the Sun's outermost solar atmosphere, which can be seen during a solar eclipse? a. Solar wind b. Heliosphere c. Photosphere d. Corona ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. The Sun's high-speed charged nuclei and electrons form a fourth phase of matter known as a a. neutrino. b. sunspot. c. plasma. d. fusion pool.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. The Sun projects charged particles into space, giving rise to a flow of radiation called the a. heliosphere. b. solar wind. c. corona.

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Chapter 18 - The Universe d. chromosphere.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. The three fusion reactions in the Sun that form helium from hydrogen are together called the a. proton-proton chain. b. hydrogen cycle. c. helium sequence. d. neutrino exchange.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. What elementary particle has no charge, travels at or near the speed of light, and hardly ever interacts with other particles? a. Positron b. Plasmon c. Deuteron d. Neutrino ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. Enormous filaments of excited gas arching over the Sun's surface and extending hundreds of thousand of kilometers outward are called a. sunspots. b. solar flares. c. prominences. d. coronal arcs.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. The three space coordinates that determine a star's position are the a. celestial sphere, celestial prime meridian, and celestial equator. b. zodiac, constellation, and star name. c. distance, declination, and right ascension. d. astronomical unit, parsec, and light-year.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe 56. It is not true that right ascension is a. measured in units of hours, minutes, and seconds. b. an angular measurement. c. a coordinate for measuring celestial longitude. d. how high a star is above the celestial equator.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. The celestial equator is a. a great circle. b. coplanar with the terrestrial equator. c. perpendicular to lines of right ascension. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. The stellar parallax of many stars is too small to be measured. This is evidence that these stars a. move in very small orbits. b. are almost in line with the Sun. c. are very distant. d. do not move.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. Astronomers measure stellar distances in three different units. The smallest of these is a. the light-year. b. the absolute magnitude. c. the astronomical unit. d. the parsec.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. The celestial prime meridian is an imaginary half-circle running from the north celestial pole to the south celestial pole and crossing perpendicular to the celestial equator at the point of the a. autumnal equinox. b. summer solstice. c. vernal equinox.

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Chapter 18 - The Universe d. winter solstice.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. One parsec is defined as the distance to a star when the star exhibits a parallax of what angle of arc? a. One degree b. One second c. One millimeter d. One minute ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. The half-circle that defines the starting point for designating longitude on the celestial sphere is called the a. vernal equinox. b. ecliptic. c. celestial prime meridian. d. Greenwich meridian.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. Twelve hours of daytime and twelve hours of nighttime occur at every location on Earth whenever the Sun reaches the a. north or south celestial pole. b. celestial prime meridian. c. vernal or autumnal equinox. d. ecliptic.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. The apparent path that the Sun traces annually along the celestial sphere is called the a. ecliptic. b. heliosphere. c. solstice circle. d. celestial prime meridian.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe 65. Celestial latitude is called a. declination. b. right ascension. c. the parsec value. d. the zenith angle.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. Celestial longitude is called a. declination. b. the parsec value. c. the zenith angle. d. right ascension.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. One parsec is equivalent in distance to how many light-years? a. 3.26 b. 1.61 c. 1.00 d. 4.35 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. Which of the following represents the longest distance? a. One parsec b. One astronomical unit c. One light-year d. One right ascension ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. Which of the following represents the shortest distance? a. One parsec b. One astronomical unit c. One light-year d. One right ascension ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. The apparent motion of an object when it is viewed from two different positions against a fixed background is called a. Hubble's effect. b. parallax. c. paradox. d. Brighton's effect.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. Taking the reciprocal of a star's parallax angle in arcsec gives the star's a. energy output in joules. b. absolute magnitude in watts. c. solar constant in watts. d. distance in parsecs.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. The Sun has an apparent magnitude of about a. minus 1.4. b. minus 27. c. 1.4. d. 15.6.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. The color of a star reveals its a. apparent brightness. b. component elements. c. density. d. surface temperature.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 74. Stars lying above the main sequence that are relatively cool but very bright are called a. red giants.

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Chapter 18 - The Universe b. white dwarfs. c. brown dwarfs. d. pulsars.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 75. The apparent brightness of stars is ranked according to magnitude. The brightest stars were originally ranked as what magnitude? a. Zero b. Sixth c. First d. None of the above ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. The majority of stars are small, cool, type-M stars called a. brown dwarfs. b. blue dwarfs. c. red dwarfs. d. white dwarfs.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. The closest star to the Sun is about how far away? a. 17.7 light-years b. 0.52 light-years c. 33.6 light-years d. 4.3 light-years ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. The closest star to the Sun is named a. Polaris. b. Sirius. c. Betelgeuse. d. Proxima Centauri.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. Familiar groups of stars that are parts of a constellation or parts of different constellations are called a. configurations. b. asterisms. c. major sequences. d. local groups.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 80. In a star, the balance between the inward force of gravity and the outward force of thermal and radiation pressure is called a. the neutrino bonding point. b. hydrostatic equilibrium. c. the plasma equality condition. d. strong nuclear binding.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. How many constellations encompass the complete celestial sphere? a. 88 b. 360 c. 180 d. 100 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. The Big Dipper is a(n) a. cluster of galaxies. b. constellation. c. galaxy. d. asterism.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 83. Taurus the Bull is a(n) a. star. b. asterism.

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Chapter 18 - The Universe c. galaxy. d. constellation.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. Antiquity's greatest observer of stars was named a. Hipparchus. b. Eratosthenes. c. Aristotle. d. Imhotep.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. Stars of what magnitude are just barely visible to the unaided eye? a. 4 b. 6 c. 2 d. 0 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. If the magnitude difference between one star and another is 1, the stars differ in brightness by a factor of a. 10. b. 100. c. 2.51. d. 4.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 87. If the magnitude difference between one star and another is 5, the stars differ in brightness by a factor of a. 2.51. b. 10. c. 4. d. 100.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe 88. If the magnitude difference between one star and another is 8, the stars differ in brightness by a factor of a. 2.51. b. 20. c. 7. d. 1580.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 89. If the magnitude difference between one star and another is 7, the stars differ in brightness by a factor of a. 2.51. b. 18. c. 6. d. 628.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 90. The brightest star (apparent magnitude –1) in the night sky in the Northern Hemisphere is named a. Polaris. b. Sirius. c. Deneb. d. Alpha Centauri.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 91. The brightest planet has an apparent magnitude of about – 4 and is named a. Jupiter. b. Saturn. c. Mars. d. Venus.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 92. The absolute magnitude of a celestial object is the apparent magnitude it would have if it were placed how far from the Earth? a. 10 parsecs b. 3.26 light-years c. 1 astronomical unit d. None of the above Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 93. The name of which astronomer is most closely linked with that of Ejnar Hertzsprung? a. Johannes Kepler b. Henrietta Leavitt c. Henry Russell d. Edwin Hubble ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 94. The name of which astronomer is most closely linked with that of Henry Russell? a. Henrietta Leavitt b. Johannes Kepler c. Ejnar Hertzsprung d. Edwin Hubble ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 95. What color are the stars with the hottest photosphere? a. White b. Yellow c. Red d. Blue ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 96. White dwarfs are relatively a. hot and dim. b. cool and dim. c. hot and bright. d. cool and bright.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 97. What spectral class of star fits between a type G and a type M? a. L Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe b. K c. A d. F ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 98. The Sun will finally become a a. brown dwarf. b. neutron star. c. black hole. d. white dwarf.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 99. The Sun has been on the main sequence a. for about 10 million years. b. for about 5 billion years. c. forever. d. for about 14 billion years.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 100. The next phase in the life cycle of the Sun will be a. the formation of a red giant. b. a move to the main sequence. c. collapse to a white dwarf. d. a supernova explosion.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 101. The two major types of nebulae are a. emission nebulae and dark nebulae. b. bright nebulae and dark nebulae. c. bright nebulae and reflection nebulae. d. reflection nebulae and emission nebulae.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 102. What type of nebula is the Horsehead? a. Primitive b. Bright emission c. Bright reflection d. Dark ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 103. Stars in the process of forming are called a. giant planets. b. brown dwarfs. c. red supergiants. d. protostars.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 104. For low-mass stars, the life cycle phase that just precedes white dwarf formation is a. planetary nebula. b. variable star. c. main-sequence star. d. red giant.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 105. Sirius is a binary star, consisting of Sirius A and Sirius B. Sirius B is a a. red giant. b. white dwarf. c. planetary nebula. d. neutron star.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 106. Brown dwarfs are often described as a. quasars. b. giant planets. c. failed stars.

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Chapter 18 - The Universe d. pulsars.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 107. The end stage of the life cycle of an extremely high-mass star is a a. quasar. b. neutron star. c. black hole. d. white dwarf.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 108. The radial distance to the event horizon from the singularity of a black hole is called a. the Roche limit. b. the Schwarzschild radius. c. the Hubble unit. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 109. A faint white dwarf that temporarily increases in brightness as a consequence of nuclear explosions on its surface is termed a. a nova. b. a Type II supernova. c. a bright nebula. d. a red giant.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 110. The explosion of a Type II supernova leaves behind a. just a black hole. b. a neutron star or a black hole. c. just a neutron star. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe 111. In the middle of the Crab Nebula (M1) is a. a black hole. b. a pulsar. c. a quasar. d. a white dwarf.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 112. Which of the following is thought to be a black hole? a. Gleise 229B b. Sirius B c. Orion Nebula d. Cygnus X-1 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 113. When the term singularity is mentioned, the object under discussion is probably a a. white dwarf. b. black hole. c. neutron star. d. nova.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 114. Which of the following is not a name used in the classification of galaxies? a. Irregular b. Regular c. Spiral d. Elliptical ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 115. The estimated number of stars in the Milky Way is about how many billion? a. 1 to 2 b. 100 to 200 c. 10 to 20 d. 1000 to 2000 ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 116. The longest diameter of the Milky Way is about how many light-years? a. 10 b. 10,000 c. 100 d. 100,000 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 117. Our solar system lies about how many light-years from the center of the nuclear bulge of the Milky Way? a. 2400 b. 28,000 c. 110 d. 4.3 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 118. What type of galaxy is the Milky Way? a. Spiral b. Elliptical c. Regular d. Irregular ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 119. What astronomer established the present system for classifying galaxies? a. Henrietta Leavitt b. Harlow Shapley c. Edwin Hubble d. Hipparchus ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 120. The Andromeda Galaxy (M31) is what type? a. Spiral b. Irregular Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe c. Elliptical d. Regular spiral ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 121. Which of the following is an irregular galaxy that can be seen from the Southern Hemisphere? a. The Crab Nebula b. The Sagittarius Dwarf c. The Small Magellanic Cloud d. The Horsehead Nebula ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 122. In a halo around the Milky Way's nuclear bulge lie about 200 a. brown dwarfs. b. quasars. c. red supergiants. d. globular clusters.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 123. The most distant objects yet detected in the universe are a. quasars. b. pulsars. c. superclusters. d. globular clusters.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 124. The universe seems to be about how many years old? a. 232 billion b. 6 billion c. 13.7 billion d. 1 billion ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe 125. Most cosmologists favor the Big Bang theory over other cosmological theories because of a. a 3-to-1 ratio of hydrogen to helium in stars and interstellar matter. b. cosmological redshifts. c. the cosmic microwave background. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 126. Hubble's law is the major basis for the concept that the universe is a. static. b. evaporating. c. contracting. d. expanding.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 127. The modification of the standard Big Bang theory is known as the a. cosmic model. b. Hubble-Leavitt model. c. inflationary model. d. Hertzsprung-Russell model.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 128. The majority of stars are a. white dwarfs. b. giants. c. main-sequence stars. d. neutron stars.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 129. Which of the following is part of the Sun's structure? a. Globular cluster b. Accretion disk c. Singularity d. Corona ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 130. The visible surface of the Sun is called the ______________.

ANSWER: photosphere POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 131. The visible surface of the Sun has a temperature of about ______________ K. ANSWER: 6000 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 132. The ______________ is the name given to all matter, energy, and space.

ANSWER: universe POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 133. The Sun is a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: star POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 134. The pseudoscience called ______________ contends that the planets' positions in the sky at the time of a person's birth affect the individual's personality or future.

ANSWER: astrology POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 135. The number of ______________ appearing on the Sun varies over an 11-year cycle.

ANSWER: sunspots POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 136. The three fusion reactions used by the Sun to generate energy are together known as the ______________.

ANSWER: proton-proton chain POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 137. The value for the total energy that reaches each square meter of Earth from the Sun each second is called the ______________.

ANSWER: solar constant POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 138. The volume of space over which the ______________ extends is called the heliosphere.

ANSWER: solar wind POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 139. The apparent path that the Sun traces annually along the celestial sphere is known as the ______________.

ANSWER: ecliptic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 140. Six trillion miles is equivalent in distance to one ______________.

ANSWER: light-year POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 141. The angular measure in degrees north or south of the celestial equator is called ______________.

ANSWER: declination POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 142. The angular measurement in hours, minutes, and seconds from the celestial prime meridian eastward is called ______________.

ANSWER: right ascension POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 143. The imaginary, huge, apparently moving sphere on which the stars appear to be mounted is called the ______________ sphere.

ANSWER: celestial POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 144. One ______________ is defined as the distance to a star when the star exhibits a parallax of one second of arc.

ANSWER: parsec POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 145. In a star, the condition of balance between the inward force of gravity and the outward force of thermal and radiation pressure is known as ______________ equilibrium.

ANSWER: hydrostatic POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 146. A star of magnitude 1 appears ______________ times brighter than a star of magnitude 2.

ANSWER: 2.51 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 147. The closest star to the Sun is named ______________.

ANSWER: Proxima Centauri POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 148. The stars of highest photospheric temperature are those of spectral class ______________.

ANSWER: O POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 149. On the H-R diagram, the Sun lies on the ______________.

ANSWER: main sequence POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 150. The Greek astronomer who assigned the stars to six magnitudes was named ______________.

ANSWER: Hipparchus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 151. Eighty-eight prominent groups of stars in the sky are called the ______________.

ANSWER: constellations POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 152. Familiar groups of stars that are part of a constellation or parts of different constellations are called ______________.

ANSWER: asterisms POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 153. When the absolute magnitudes, or brightnesses, of stars are plotted against their surface temperatures or colors, we obtain a(n) ______________ diagram.

ANSWER: Hertzsprung-Russell, or H-R POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe 154. The creation of elements inside a star is called ______________.

ANSWER: nucleosynthesis POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 155. Gas and dust distributed among the stars is known as the ______________.

ANSWER: interstellar medium POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 156. The greater the mass of a star, the ______________ it moves through its life cycle.

ANSWER: faster POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 157. The two types of bright nebulae are emission nebulae and ______________ nebulae.

ANSWER: reflection POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 158. When the Sun moves off the main sequence, it will next become a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: red giant POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 159. The remaining core of a planetary nebula is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: white dwarf POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 160. An incredibly dense star so massive that light cannot escape from its surface is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: black hole POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 161. The cataclysmic explosion of a star that throws most of its matter into space is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: supernova POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 162. The “surface” of a black hole is known as the ______________.

ANSWER: event horizon Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 163. A point in the universe where the density of matter and the gravitational field are theoretically infinite is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: singularity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 164. A Type II supernova can form a(n) ______________ or a black hole.

ANSWER: neutron star POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 165. Another name for a pulsar is ______________.

ANSWER: neutron star POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 166. Our home galaxy is called the ______________.

ANSWER: Milky Way POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 167. The letters LMC refer to the galaxy named ______________.

ANSWER: Large Magellanic Cloud POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 168. The cluster of galaxies that includes our Milky Way is called the ______________.

ANSWER: Local Group POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 169. Clusters containing clusters of galaxies are called ______________.

ANSWER: superclusters POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 170. An extremely large collection of stars bound together by gravitational attraction and occupying a huge volume of space is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: galaxy POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 171. Astronomers believe that most of the matter that makes up the universe is not detected by any part of the electromagnetic spectrum. This mysterious matter is called ______________.

ANSWER: dark matter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 172. The most distant known objects in space are called ______________.

ANSWER: quasars POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 173. “All distant galaxies are moving away from us, and the farther away a galaxy is from us, the faster it is moving” is a statement of ______________ law.

ANSWER: Hubble's POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 174. The fundamental components in the structure of the universe are the ______________.

ANSWER: galaxies POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 175. The recent modification of the standard Big Bang model is called the ______________ model.

ANSWER: inflationary POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 176. The dying glow of the Big Bang is called the ______________.

ANSWER: cosmic microwave background POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 177. The branch of astronomy that studies the structure and evolution of the entire universe is called ______________.

ANSWER: cosmology POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 178. According to the ______________ theory, the universe began from a single point 13.7 billion years ago.

ANSWER: Big Bang POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 - The Universe 179. The lifetime of a star is determined by its initial ______________.

ANSWER: mass POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 180. A(n) ______________is denser than a neutron star.

ANSWER: black hole POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 181. The ______________ is the remnant of a supernova explosion observed in A.D. 1054.

ANSWER: Crab Nebula POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 182. The Sun remains stable because the inward pull of ______________ balances the outward push from nuclear fusion.

ANSWER: gravity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 183. A(n) ______________ is equivalent to 3.26 light-years.

ANSWER: parsec POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 184. Proxima Centauri, the nearest star to the Sun, exhibits an annual parallax of 0.76 arcsec. Determine the distance to Proxima Centauri in parsecs.

ANSWER: d = 1/0.76 s = 1.3 parsecs POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 185. Determine the distance to Proxima Centauri in light-years, if it is 1.3 pc away.

ANSWER: d(ly) = 1.3 pc  3.26 ly/1 pc = 4.3 ly POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 186. Calculate the distance to the Sun in light-minutes.

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Chapter 18 - The Universe ANSWER:

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 187. Polaris, the pole star, is 208 parsecs away. Calculate the distance to Polaris in kilometers.

ANSWER:

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 188. The Ulysses space probe of the Sun encountered the planet Jupiter in 1998 and returned to make a second sweep over the Sun's poles in 2000–2001. Determine the time (in seconds and minutes) that it took a radio signal to reach Earth when the space probe was at Jupiter. (Use 778 × 106 km for the distance from the space probe to Earth. The distance varies because Earth and Jupiter are orbiting the Sun.) ANSWER: t = d/v = 778  106 km/3.00  105 km/s = 2590 s = 43.2 min POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 189. A star of magnitude 2 is how many times brighter than a star of magnitude 4?

ANSWER: B = (2.51) M = (2.51)2 = 6.30 times brighter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 190. A star of magnitude 3 is how many times brighter than a star of magnitude 5?

ANSWER: B = (2.51) M = (2.51)2 = 6.30 times brighter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 191. A star of magnitude 0 is how many times brighter than a star of magnitude 6?

ANSWER: B = (2.51) M = (2.51)6 = 250 times brighter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere 1. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is a. oxygen. b. nitrogen. c. water vapor. d. carbon dioxide.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. The second most abundant gas in the atmosphere is a. oxygen. b. nitrogen. c. water vapor. d. carbon dioxide.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. Which of the following gases is a trace natural constituent of the air? a. Ar b. SO2 c. CO d. NO2 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Which of the following gases is a trace natural constituent of the air? a. CO b. SO2 c. CO2 d. NO2 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. Oxygen is supplied to the atmosphere by a. ozone. b. incomplete combustion. c. photosynthesis.

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere d. complete combustion.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. Photosynthesis produces ______________ in the atmosphere. a. carbon dioxide b. oxygen c. argon d. carbon monoxide ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. Which of the following is the most variable constituent of air? a. Argon b. Oxygen c. Water vapor d. Nitrogen ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. The ozone layer lies in the a. stratosphere. b. troposphere. c. mesosphere. d. thermosphere.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. Exploration of this part of the atmosphere was conducted in the nineteenth century with hot-air balloons. a. Stratosphere b. Troposphere c. Mesosphere d. Thermosphere ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. About 80% of the mass of the atmosphere and most of the clouds and water vapor are located in the Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere a. stratosphere. b. troposphere. c. mesosphere. d. thermosphere.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. The transition between the troposphere and the stratosphere is called the a. stratopause. b. tropopause. c. mesopause. d. thermopause.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. The top of the troposphere is called the a. stratopause. b. tropopause. c. mesopause. d. thermopause.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. The bottom of the stratosphere is called the a. stratopause. b. tropopause. c. mesopause. d. thermopause.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. The top of the stratosphere is called the a. stratopause. b. tropopause. c. mesopause. d. thermopause.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. The top of the thermosphere is called the a. stratopause. b. tropopause. c. mesopause. d. thermopause.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. Weather occurs in the a. stratosphere. b. troposphere. c. mesosphere. d. thermosphere.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. Jet planes avoid bad weather by flying above it in the a. stratosphere. b. troposphere. c. mesosphere. d. thermosphere.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. The coldest region of the atmosphere is the a. stratosphere. b. troposphere. c. mesosphere. d. thermosphere.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. At 1800 degrees Fahrenheit, this part of atmosphere is heated almost directly by the Sun's rays. a. Stratosphere b. Troposphere Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere c. Mesosphere d. Thermosphere ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. Some of Earth's artificial satellites orbit in the a. stratosphere. b. troposphere. c. mesosphere. d. thermosphere. e. exosphere.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. The stratosphere and the troposphere account for ______________ of the mass of the atmosphere. a. 80% b. 90% c. 99.9% d. 78.1% ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. The process that effectively regulates Earth's average temperature is a. the greenhouse effect. b. Rayleigh scattering. c. the dew point. d. auroras.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. The reason why the sky is blue is best explained by a. the greenhouse effect. b. Rayleigh scattering. c. the dew point. d. auroras.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. Which of the following radiations is absorbed in the greenhouse effect? a. Ultraviolet only b. Visible only c. Infrared only d. All of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. The principal gases responsible for the greenhouse effect are a. water vapor and oxygen. b. oxygen and nitrogen. c. carbon dioxide and nitrogen. d. carbon dioxide and water vapor.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. Radio waves, of sufficient frequency, pass through which of the following ion layers? a. C b. D c. E d. F ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. Radio waves are reflected by which of the following ion layers? a. C b. D c. E d. B ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. Radio waves are reflected by which of the following ion layers? a. C b. D c. F Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere d. A ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. Ions trapped in Earth's magnetic field give rise to a. photosynthesis. b. auroras. c. ultraviolet radiation. d. ozone.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. The ozone layer causes a temperature increase in the a. thermosphere. b. mesosphere. c. troposphere. d. stratosphere.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. A phenomenon that occurs in the ionosphere is a. the greenhouse effect. b. photosynthesis. c. Rayleigh scattering. d. auroras.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. The blueness of the sky results from a. preferential scattering of light by gas molecules. b. the lapse rate. c. the greenhouse effect. d. latent heat.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. The troposphere derives energy by means of Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere a. latent heat of condensation only. b. absorption of terrestrial radiation only. c. conduction from Earth's surface only. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. The fraction of incident light that a body reflects is known as its a. Rayleigh scattering. b. insolation. c. albedo. d. humidity.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. Which of the following has the largest albedo? a. Water b. Polar ice c. Fresh snow d. Dry sand e. Dark soil ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. Which of the following has the smallest albedo? a. Water b. Polar ice c. Fresh snow d. Dry sand ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. When the relative humidity is 100%, the air temperature is equal to a. the lapse rate. b. 100°F. c. the dew point temperature. d. none of these.

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. When measuring air temperature, it is best to avoid a. shade. b. shadows. c. direct sunlight. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. Every square inch of our body, at sea level, sustains ______________ of atmospheric pressure. a. 14.7 lb b. 1.47 g c. 14.7 g d. 1.47 lb ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. The inventor of the mercury barometer was a. Newton. b. Galileo. c. Bergeron. d. Torricelli.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. To avoid toxic vapor, one can use a(n) ____________ barometer to measure pressure. a. mercury b. Galileo c. aneroid d. Torricelli ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. The tallest column of water able to be supported by using atmospheric pressure is a. about 10 m.

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere b. about 1 m. c. about 100 m. d. about 1 cm.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. In attempting to pipe water to elevated heights, ______________ investigated atmospheric pressure. a. Newton b. Galileo c. Bergeron d. Torricelli ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. Which of the following units is used to express atmospheric pressure? a. Torr only b. Millibar only c. Inches of Hg only d. All of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. The relative humidity is 100% when a. the psychrometer wet-bulb temperature is depressed. b. the actual moisture content is equal to the maximum moisture capacity. c. the air temperature is above the dew point temperature. d. the air temperature is 100°F. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The relative humidity (for a given volume of air), expressed as a decimal fraction, is a. the actual water vapor content divided by the maximum water vapor content. b. the maximum water vapor content divided by the actual water vapor content. c. the air temperature divided by the dew point temperature. d. the dew point temperature divided by the air temperature.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. For normal household temperatures, a comfortable relative humidity is a. 100% b. 0% c. 25% d. 50% ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. The heat index accounts for the "real feel" due to the effects of a. temperature and perspiration. b. temperature and pressure. c. temperature and humidity. d. humidity and pressure.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. Wind speed is measured by means of a. a psychrometer. b. an anemometer. c. a wind vane. d. a barometer.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. A line drawn through locations of equal atmospheric pressure is a(n) a. equipress. b. anemometer. c. wind vane. d. isobar.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. Precipitation is measured with a. a psychrometer. b. an anemometer. c. a rain gauge.

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere d. a barometer.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. Doppler radar is replacing conventional radar in weather forecasting because a. it can measure wind speeds. b. Doppler radar is widely used in police cars. c. it is cheaper. d. government agencies are required to use the latest equipment.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. The horizontal movement of air is called a. an anticyclone. b. wind. c. air currents. d. a hurricane.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. A primary force that produces air motion is a. gravity. b. the Coriolis force. c. friction. d. the electromagnetic force.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. Air circulation around a cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere as viewed from above is a. counterclockwise. b. the same as in the Southern Hemisphere. c. toward the center of the low-pressure area. d. along isobars.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. A sea breeze on a coast is the result of Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere a. Rayleigh scattering. b. a convection cycle. c. the Coriolis force. d. friction or drag.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. Land and sea breezes result from a. the Coriolis force. b. convection cycles. c. low-pressure areas. d. high-pressure areas.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. The rate at which air temperature changes with altitude is called a. the inversion rate. b. vertical development. c. the lapse rate. d. an isotherm.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. The conterminous United States lies predominantly in which wind zone? a. Westerlies b. Northeast tradewinds c. Polar easterlies d. Doldrums ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. Clouds described as “artist's brushes” or “mare's tails” belong to what cloud family? a. Middle b. Low c. High d. None of these ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. Which of the following is not a member of the low-cloud family? a. Nimbostratus cloud b. Fog c. Stratus cloud d. Cirrus cloud ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. An altocumulus cloud belongs to which cloud family? a. Low b. Clouds of vertical development c. High d. Middle ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. Nimbus means a. “poorly formed.” b. “curl.” c. “heap.” d. none of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. Nimbus means a. “poorly formed.” b. “rain forming cloud.” c. “heap.” d. none of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. A type of cloud composed of ice crystals is the a. altostratus. b. cirrostratus.

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere c. stratus. d. nimbostratus.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. An average lapse rate of 2.7 °F/1000 ft is equivalent to a. 1.5 °C/m. b. 4.0 °C/1000 ft. c. 5.0 °C/km. d. 6.5 °C/1000 m.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. A normal lapse rate of 3.5 °F/1000 ft is equivalent to a. 3.5 °C/m. b. 4 °C/1000 ft. c. 3.5 °C/km. d. 6.5 °C/1000 m.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. A normal lapse rate of 2.7 °F/1000 ft is equivalent to a. 3.5 °C/m. b. 1.5 °C/1000 ft. c. 5.0 °C/1000 ft. d. 6.5 °C/1000 ft.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. A normal lapse rate of 3.5 °F/1000 ft is equivalent to a. 3.5 °C/m. b. 1.9 °C/1000 ft. c. 3.5 °C/1000 ft. d. 6.5 °C/1000 ft.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere 70. Cloud dissipation results from a. an inverted lapse rate. b. hygroscopic nuclei. c. supercooled vapor. d. descending air.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. The study of all aspects of the atmosphere is called ______________.

ANSWER: atmospheric science POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 72. After nitrogen and oxygen, the major constituent of the air is______________.

ANSWER: argon (Ar) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 73. Carbon dioxide is removed from the air by ______________.

ANSWER: photosynthesis POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 74. The term weather refers to the atmospheric conditions of the ______________.

ANSWER: lower troposphere POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 75. The ozone layer absorbs ______________ radiation.

ANSWER: ultraviolet POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 76. Radio waves are reflected by layers in the ______________.

ANSWER: ionosphere POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 77. The fraction of incident light that a body reflects is called its ______________.

ANSWER: albedo POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere 78. The ______________ lies below the stratosphere.

ANSWER: troposphere POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 79. The atmospheric division that lies directly above the stratosphere is the ______________.

ANSWER: mesophere POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 80. Relative humidity is measured with a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: hygrometer POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 81. A barometer that does not use mercury is a(n) ______________ barometer.

ANSWER: aneroid POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. The principal greenhouse gases are ______________ and ______________.

ANSWER: water; carbon dioxide POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 83. The relative humidity is 100% at the ______________ temperature.

ANSWER: dew point POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 84. The rate of temperature decrease with altitude is called the ______________.

ANSWER: lapse rate POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 85. A wind vane points in the direction ______________ the wind is blowing.

ANSWER: from which POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. The major contribution in heating the troposphere comes from ______________.

ANSWER: absorption of terrestrial radiation Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 87. Meteorologists commonly measure and report (on radio and television) pressure in units of ______________.

ANSWER: inches (of Hg) POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 88. The blueness of the sky results from ______________.

ANSWER: Rayleigh scattering POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. Ideally, the wind direction is ______________ to isobars.

ANSWER: perpendicular POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. Doppler radars at airports are capable of detecting dangerous, downward ______________.

ANSWER: wind bursts, or wind shears POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 91. The cloud root name meaning “heap” is ______________.

ANSWER: cumulus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. Stratocumulus clouds belong to the ______________ cloud family.

ANSWER: low POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. The rate at which the temperature decreases with altitude is called the ______________.

ANSWER: lapse rate POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. The velocity-dependent force that produces air motion and is associated with Earth's rotation is called the ______________.

ANSWER: Coriolis force POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 - The Atmosphere QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. Vertical air movements are referred to as ______________.

ANSWER: air currents POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 96. If the ground-level air temperature is 20°C, what is the air temperature at the top of the troposphere (16 km), assuming a normal lapse rate?

ANSWER: –84°C POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 97. A meteorologist getting ready for a weather report notes that the wet bulb of a psychrometer has a reading of 60°F when the air temperature is 70°F. What would be the resulting reports for (a) the relative humidity and (b) the dew point temperature?

ANSWER: a. 55% b. 62°F POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 98. On a particular day, the air temperature is 75°F. If lowering the air temperature by 9° would cause the air to be saturated, what is the relative humidity?

ANSWER: 74% POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 99. The absolute moisture content of the air is 7.7 g/ft3 on a day when the air temperature is 75°F. What is the relative humidity?

ANSWER: 82% POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. The air pressure is 14.8 lb/in2. a. What is the approximate height, in centimeters, of a mercury column that this pressure would support? b. What would be the height, in meters, of the column for a water barometer?

ANSWER: a. 76.5 cm b. 10.4 m POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects 1. When air is cooled below its dew point without condensation, it is said to be a. wet. b. dry. c. supersaturated. d. unsaturated.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. In the Bergeron process, condensation occurs on a. ice crystals. b. dust. c. carbon dioxide. d. oxygen.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. The process by which raindrops are formed by the collision of droplets is called a. the Bergeron process. b. fusion. c. fission. d. coalescence.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. An air mass derives its characteristics from its a. temperature. b. surroundings. c. location. d. source region.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. An air mass forming over the Gulf of Mexico would be classified as a. mE. b. mT. c. aP. d. cE. ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. The boundary between two air masses is called a a. division. b. border. c. front. d. storm.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. Lightning between a cloud and the surrounding air is called a. air discharges. b. cloud discharges. c. ground discharges. d. intracloud discharges.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8.

derives its name from a. what it does.

b. when it arrives. c. how strong it is. d. how weak it is.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. An usually results in more rainfall for South America. a. b. warmer water in the western Pacific. c. less rainfall for Australia. d. all of the above. e. none of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. Rain that freezes on striking a cold surface gives rise to a(n) ______________ storm.

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects a. hail b. rain c. ice d. snow ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. Rain drops that freeze prior to striking the warm ground is a(n) ______________ storm. a. hail b. rain c. ice d. snow ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. A tornado ______________ is issued when a tornado has been sighted or indicated on radar. a. warning b. notice c. advisory d. ticket ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. Conditions opposite to those of El Niño conditions are called a. La Niña. b. La Niño. c. El Niña. d. Anti-Niño.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. The low-pressure center of a hurricane is called the a. eye. b. vortex. c. lid. d. cap.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. Hurricanes derive their energy from a. latent heat. b. hot air. c. cold water. d. wind.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. Hurricanes gain strength when over a. warm water. b. hot air. c. cold water. d. wind.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. A hurricane, in other parts of the world, is also known as a. a cyclone. b. a willy-willy. c. a typhoon. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. The dome of water associated with a hurricane making landfall is called a a. storm surge. b. tide. c. tidal wave. d. flood.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. When at home during a tornado warning, you should seek shelter in ______________ of the building. a. the basement or lowest central level b. the attic Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects c. a doorway d. the garage ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. Snowstorms accompanied by high winds and low temperatures are called a. blizzards. b. ice storms. c. hail storms. d. tornados.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. Lightning that illuminates clouds with flickering flashes is called a. heat lightning. b. flash lightning. c. ball lightning. d. bolt lightning.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. Coal, gas, and oil are ______________ fuels. a. fossil b. renewable c. human-made d. infinite ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. A high-pressure air mass that moves over a region and becomes stationary may give rise to a. a pressure inversion only. b. a radiation inversion only. c. a subsidence inversion only d. all of the above ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects 24. A natural agent of chemical weathering that is enhanced by CO2 pollution is a. sulfur dioxide, SO2. b. carbon monoxide, CO. c. ozone, O3. d. carbonic acid, H2CO3.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. Air pollution results from ______________ combustion of impure fuels. a. incomplete b. complete c. overheated d. none of the above ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. Smog is a mixture of smoke and a. fog. b. CO2. c. O2. d. CO. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. A class of pollutants formed at high temperatures (nearly complete combustion) in the presence of air is a. sulfur oxides. b. carbon oxides. c. iron oxides. d. nitrogen oxides.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. A common fuel impurity in fossil fuels is a. sulfur. b. radon. c. carbon. d. hydrogen.

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. The type of smog that forms in Los Angeles is called ______________ smog. a. photochemical b. exhaust c. biochemical d. exhaugenic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. How good or bad (in terms of pollution) the air is, is rated by a color-coded ________ Index. a. Irritant b. Pollution c. Air Quality d. Pollen ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. In the amended Montreal Protocol, many nations agreed to phase out, by the year 2000, a. trash burning. b. hydrocarbons. c. gasoline automobiles. d. CFCs. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. The component in CFCs that is responsible for destroying ozone is a. chlorine. b. oxygen. c. carbon. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. Albedo changes may result from ______________ pollution. a. smog Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects b. particulate c. gas d. noise ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. During the approach of a severe thunderstorm, workers on a project see lightning and then hear the resulting thunder 55 s later. Approximately how far away, in miles, is the storm? a. 11 mi b. 22 mi c. 12 mi d. 13 mi ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. For water droplets to form, what must be present? a. Smog b. Hygroscopic nuclei c. Carbon dioxide d. Ozone ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. A form of precipitation that results from convection cycles in clouds is a. sleet. b. rain. c. hail. d. fog.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. When the dew point is below 0°C, which of the following is likely to form? a. Sleet b. Snow c. Hail d. Dew ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. Which of the following is formed by direct freezing of water droplets? a. Dew b. Snow c. Sleet d. Frost ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. Which of the following is an essential agent of the Bergeron process? a. Wind b. Carbon dioxide c. Mixing d. Rain ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. The Pacific Ocean southwest of the United States is the source region for the ______________ type of air mass. a. cP b. mA c. mT d. mP ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. Hawaii's weather is chiefly affected by what type of air mass? a. mA b. mP c. cP d. mT ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. When a cold front advances under a warm front, this results in a(n) a. stationary front. b. anticyclone.

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects c. cold front occlusion. d. warm front occlusion.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. When two advancing fronts meet, a typical result is a. a stationary front. b. a warm front. c. a cold front. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. The northern Atlantic Ocean is the source region for the ______________ type of air mass. a. cA b. cP c. mP d. mT ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. Lightning damage comes chiefly from ______________ discharge. a. intracloud b. air c. cloud-to-cloud d. cloud-to-ground ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. A tropical storm becomes a hurricane when its wind speed reaches a. 50 mi/h. b. 120 mi/h. c. 74 mi/h. d. 100 mi/h.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects 47. A hurricane watch is issued when a. a tropical storm begins to form. b. a hurricane has been sighted. c. a storm surge has hit the coast. d. there is a threat of hurricane conditions within 24 to 36 h.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. Storms a. develop as a consequence of frontal activity. b. are atmospheric disturbances. c. develop within a single air mass. d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. El Niño a. increases the rainfall for the South American coastal countries. b. means “little girl” in Spanish. c. gives rise to colder ocean water in the eastern Pacific. d. occurs when trade winds blow from east to west.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. During a severe thunderstorm, it is advisable to a. seek shelter under a tree. b. do laundry or watch TV. c. call someone on the phone. d. do none of these things.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. The safest place in the home to seek shelter from a tornado is the a. basement. b. kitchen. c. bedroom. d. attic.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. A tornado warning is issued a. when weather conditions suggest that a tornado might form. b. only when a tornado has been sighted. c. only when a tornado has been indicated on radar. d. when a tornado has been either sighted or indicated on radar.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. Hurricanes derive their energy from a. gravity. b. specific heat. c. the Coriolis force. d. latent heat.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. The greatest cause of hurricane deaths is a. the storm surge. b. panic. c. the eye. d. high winds.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. The boundary between two air masses is called a a. squall line. b. blizzard. c. tornado. d. front.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel? a. Uranium b. Oil Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects c. Coal d. Gas ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. A product of incomplete combustion that is a major air pollutant is a. H2O. b. O2. c. NOx. d. CO. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. One of the best indicators of photochemical smog is a. CO2. b. HC. c. O3. d. NOx. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. A compound resulting from a major fuel impurity is a. CO2. b. CO. c. SO2. d. HC. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. The major source of CO pollution is a. combustion for electrical generation. b. industry. c. domestic heating. d. transportation.

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects 61. The major source of NOx pollution is a. combustion for electrical generation. b. industry. c. transportation. d. domestic heating.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. Atmospheric sulfur pollution gives rise to a. acid snow only. b. acid fog only. c. acid rain only. d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. The pollutant primarily responsible for acid rain is a. NO2. b. CO2. c. O3. d. SO2.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. The pollutant that affects the oxygen-carrying capability of the blood is a. CO. b. SOx. c. CO2. d. NOx ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. It is believed that excessive CO2 emissions will cause a. a decrease in Earth's average temperature. b. a decrease in Earth's average rainfall. c. an increase in Earth's average rainfall. d. an increase in Earth's average temperature.

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. When air is cooled below its dew point without condensation, it is said to be ______________.

ANSWER: supersaturated, or supercooled POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 67. In the Bergeron process, condensation occurs on ______________.

ANSWER: ice crystals POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 68. The process by which raindrops are formed by the collision of droplets is called ______________.

ANSWER: coalescence POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 69. An air mass derives its characteristics from its ______________.

ANSWER: source region POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 70. An air mass forming over the Gulf of Mexico would be classified as ______________.

ANSWER: mT POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 71. The boundary between two air masses is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: front POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 72. Lightning between a cloud and the surrounding air is called ______________.

ANSWER: air discharges POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 73. Rain that freezes upon striking a cold surface gives rise to a(n) ______________ storm.

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects 74. A tornado ______________ is issued when a tornado has been sighted or indicated on radar.

ANSWER: warning POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 75. Conditions opposite to those of El Niño conditions are called ______________.

ANSWER: La Niña POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 76. The low-pressure center of a hurricane is called the ______________.

ANSWER: eye POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 77. Hurricanes derive their energy from ______________.

ANSWER: latent heat POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 78. The dome of water associated with a hurricane making landfall is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: storm surge POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 79. When at home during a tornado warning, you should seek shelter in the ______________ of the building.

ANSWER: basement or lowest central level POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 80. Snowstorms accompanied by high winds and low temperatures are called ______________.

ANSWER: blizzards POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 81. Flashes from unseen lightning are called ______________.

ANSWER: heat lightning POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. Coal, gas, and oil are ______________ fuels.

ANSWER: fossil Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 83. A high-pressure air mass that moves over a region and then becomes stationary may give rise to a(n) ______________ inversion.

ANSWER: subsidence POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 84. A natural agent of chemical weathering that is enhanced by CO2 pollution is ______________.

ANSWER: carbonic acid, or H2CO3 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer 85. Air pollution results from ______________ combustion of ______________ fuels.

ANSWER: incomplete; impure POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. Smog is a mixture of ______________ and ______________.

ANSWER: smoke; fog POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 87. A class of pollutants formed at high temperatures (nearly complete combustion) in the presence of air is ______________.

ANSWER: nitrogen oxides POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 88. A common fuel impurity in fossil fuels is ______________.

ANSWER: sulfur POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. The type of smog that forms in Los Angeles is called ______________ smog.

ANSWER: photochemical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. A color-coded ______________ Index is used to indicate how good or bad the air is, in terms of pollution.

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 91. In the amended Montreal Protocol, many nations agreed to phase out ______________ by the year 2000.

ANSWER: CFCs POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. The component in CFCs that is responsible for destroying ozone is ______________.

ANSWER: chlorine POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. Albedo changes may result from ______________ pollution.

ANSWER: particulate POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. Changes in Earth's thermal balance by decreasing the transparency of the atmosphere to insolation can result from ______________ pollution.

ANSWER: particulate POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. A cold front traveling at an average speed of 35 km/h eastward is 280 km due west of you. Approximately how long will it be before your location experiences a sudden temperature drop?

ANSWER: 8.0 h POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 96. During the approach of a severe thunderstorm, workers on a project see lightning and then hear the resulting thunder 5.0 s later. How far away, in kilometers, is the storm?

ANSWER: 1.7 km POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 97. Picnickers see a lightning flash of an approaching thunderstorm and hear the thunder 8.0 s later. a. Approximately how far away, in miles, is the storm? b. If the storm is moving at a speed of 10 mi/h and the picnickers take 20 minutes to finish eating and pack, will they get wet?

ANSWER: a. 1.6 mi b. Yes POINTS:

1

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Chapter 20 - Atmospheric Effects QUESTION TYPE: Subjective Short Answer

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics 1. Geologic evidence that supports the theory of continental drift does not include a. glaciation in the Southern Hemisphere. b. drag marks on the ocean floor. c. continuity of geologic structures. d. the discovery of the same fossils on different continents.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. Alfred Wegener speculated that the present continents were once part of a single supercontinent that he named a. Landusia. b. Atlantis. c. Pangaea. d. Gondaland.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. The idea of continental drift was not generally accepted when Wegener proposed it because a. the Bible did not support it. b. Wegener was a meteorologist, not a geologist. c. Wegener was not well known. d. no satisfactory mechanism was proposed.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Pangaea is believed to have broken up about how many years ago? a. 2000 million b. 2 million c. 20 million d. 200 million ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. Evidence for the existence for Pangaea includes a. biological evidence only. b. continuity of geologic features only. c. glacial evidence only. d. all of the above.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. Evidence of seafloor spreading along the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is given by a. sea life. b. remanent magnetism. c. ocean currents. d. glaciation.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. The theory of seafloor spreading was proposed in 1960 by a. Alfred Wegener. b. Harry Hess. c. Albert Einstein. d. Andrija Mohorovicic.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. Studies of remanent magnetism in rocks spreading from the Mid-Atlantic Ridge reveal symmetric bands of magnetic anomalies. These anomalies provide a. support for the idea of continental drift. b. evidence of Earth's magnetic pole reversals. c. both (A) and (B). d. neither (A) nor (B).

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. Remanent magnetism is present in rocks that contain the mineral named a. magnetite. b. quartz. c. hematite. d. calcite.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. Earth's mantle is Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics a. metallic. b. very dense gas. c. solid. d. liquid.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. A modern geologic theory that considers Earth's lithosphere to be made up of moving plates is known as a. the principle of uniformity. b. the law of superposition. c. the Moho concept. d. plate tectonics.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. The plastic-like substratum on which the lithospheric plates move is called the a. outer core. b. endosphere. c. isosphere. d. asthenosphere.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. Earth's core is believed to be composed of a. iron and nickel. b. silicate rocks. c. carbon and silicon. d. uranium and lead.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. A mid-ocean ridge is formed at the boundary of two plates a. that are separating from one another. b. that are sliding horizontally past one another. c. where one is pushing over the top of the other. d. that are basically at rest.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. Which of the following is not one of the three types of plate boundaries? a. Diverging b. Converging c. Fault-block d. Transform ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. The lithosphere “floats” on the asthenosphere, and the parts of lower density float higher. This state of buoyancy is called a. specific continuity. b. isostasy. c. the syncline anomaly. d. remanent balance.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. The deflection of one lithospheric plate under another is called a. subduction. b. seafloor spreading. c. convergence. d. continental drift.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. The lithosphere consists of a. all of the crust's depth. b. all of the crust's depth and part of the mantle's depth. c. part of the crust's depth. d. all of the crust's depth and all of the mantle's depth.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. The location on Earth's surface directly above an earthquake's focus is called a. the shadow zone.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics b. the epicenter. c. ground zero. d. the subduction zone.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. The basic mechanism for plate movement is thought to be a. earthquake surface waves. b. the tidal force of the Moon. c. convection cells in the asthenosphere. d. earthquake body waves.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. The San Andreas fault in California is thought to be a boundary of two plates a. that are separating from one another. b. where one is pushing over the top of the other. c. that are sliding horizontally past one another. d. that are basically at rest.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. Most earthquakes are caused by a. explosive volcanic eruptions. b. body waves. c. movement of lithospheric plates. d. tsunamis.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. The point of the initial energy release of an earthquake is called the a. shadow zone. b. subduction zone. c. focus. d. epicenter.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. The Mohorovicic discontinuity is the boundary between a. the lithosphere and the asthenosphere. b. the crust and the mantle. c. the outer core and the inner core. d. the mantle and the outer core.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. Each whole-number step on the Richter scale represents about how many times more energy release that the preceding whole-number step? a. 10 b. 31 c. 18 d. 2 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. 3 steps on the Richter scale represents about how many times more energy? a. 32 b. 32000 c. 30000 d. 300 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. The Mercalli scale was used to measure a. tornados. b. earthquakes. c. tsunamis. d. hurricanes.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. Most earthquake damage is caused by a. tsunamis. b. surface waves.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics c. P waves. d. S waves.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. Seismic waves that propagate through Earth are known as a. focus waves. b. surface waves. c. gravity waves. d. body waves.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. S waves and P waves are earthquake body waves. S and P stand for a. sudden and post. b. sigma and pi. c. slow and proper. d. secondary and primary.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. Earthquake S waves are a. transverse. b. sometimes longitudinal and sometimes transverse. c. longitudinal. d. neither longitudinal nor transverse.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. Earthquake P waves are a. neither longitudinal nor transverse. b. transverse. c. longitudinal. d. sometimes longitudinal and sometimes transverse.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics 33. The waves of an earthquake are detected by an instrument called a a. seismometer. b. seismogram. c. seismograph. d. seismoscope.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. The difference in time between the arrival of S waves and the arrival of P waves can be used to determine a. the magnitude of an earthquake. b. the epicenter of an earthquake. c. the damage caused by an earthquake. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. What is the name of the earthquake scale that gives an absolute measure of the energy released by an earthquake? a. Modified Mercalli scale b. Mohs scale c. Torino scale d. Richter scale ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. What is the name of the earthquake scale that describes the severity of an earthquake by noting the amount of damage it causes? a. Richter scale b. Mohs scale c. Torino scale d. Modified Mercalli scale.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. An earthquake P wave travels through a. the inner core only. b. the mantle only. c. the outer core only.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics d. all of these.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. An earthquake S wave travels through a. the inner core only. b. the mantle only. c. the outer core only. d. all of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. An earthquake of what magnitude on the Richter scale is the smallest felt by humans? a. 1 b. 2 c. 0 d. 4 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. Earth's radius is about a. 3600 km. b. 5800 km. c. 6400 km. d. 4400 km.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. About what percent of Earth's radius do the crust and mantle together constitute? a. 15% b. 70% c. 45% d. 30% ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. The structural region of Earth that is a viscous liquid is the Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics a. mantle. b. outer core. c. inner core. d. lithosphere.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The structural region of Earth that has the greatest volume is the a. crust. b. outer core. c. mantle. d. inner core.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. Earth's thin, rocky, outer layer on which we live is called the a. seismosphere. b. geosphere. c. asthenosphere. d. crust.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. Earth's continental crust ranges in thickness from about a. 98 to 140 km. b. 19 to 40 km. c. 5 to 26 km. d. 8 to 16 km.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. Earth's oceanic crust ranges in thickness from about a. 98 to 140 km. b. 5 to 11 km. c. 19 to 98 km. d. 18 to 26 km.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. Earth's core is a. liquid. b. part solid and part liquid. c. solid. d. molten.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. Earth's inner core is a. liquid. b. part solid and part liquid. c. solid. d. molten.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. Earth's outer core is a. liquid. b. part solid and part liquid. c. solid. d. frozen.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. The radius of Earth's mantle is about a. 870 km. b. 2900 km. c. 1050 km. d. 5800 km.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. The lithosphere is a. a collection of plates separated by oceans. b. a collection of close-fitting plates.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics c. viscous, flowing magma. d. a solid, unbroken, spherical shell.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. The layer of rock immediately below the lithosphere is called the a. outer core. b. asthenosphere. c. Moho. d. lower mantle.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. Folded rock layers that resemble an arch are called a. inclines. b. synclines. c. anticlines. d. paraclines.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. Folded rock layers that resemble a trough are called a. anticlines. b. inclines. c. synclines. d. paraclines.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. Which of the following is not a general type of faulting? a. Forward b. Normal c. Strike-slip d. Reverse ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics 56. What type of faulting is expected along transform faults? a. Reverse b. Forward c. Strike-slip d. Normal ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. What type of forces result in normal faulting? a. Shear b. Compressional c. Expansive d. Parallel ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. What type of forces result in reverse faulting? a. Expansive b. Compressional c. Parallel d. Shear ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. What type of forces result in strike-slip faulting? a. Expansive b. Compressional c. Parallel d. Gravitational ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. What type of faulting results from compressional stresses? a. Reverse b. Abnormal c. Strike-slip d. Normal ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. What type of faulting results from stresses parallel to the fault plane? a. Reverse b. Normal c. Abnormal d. Strike-slip ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. What type of faulting results from expansive stresses? a. Reverse b. Normal c. Strike-slip d. Abnormal ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. What is the name of the surface along which rock formations move? a. Fault plane b. Transform plane c. Tension plane d. Fold plane ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. Which is not a general classification of mountains? a. Fault-block b. Fold c. Continental d. Volcanic ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. A simplified explanation of mountain building is provided by the theory of a. orogenesis. b. plate tectonics.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics c. continental accretion. d. epiorogenic movement.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. The Andes are examples of which type of mountain? a. Fault-block b. Volcanic c. Fold d. None of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. The Grand Tetons are examples of which type of mountain? a. Fold b. Fault-block c. Volcanic d. None of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. The Alps are examples of which type of mountain? a. Fold b. Volcanic c. Fault-block d. None of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. The geologist Harry Hess proposed the theory of a. plate tectonics. b. continental drift. c. seafloor spreading. d. mountain building.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics 70. In the early 1900s, the scientist named __________ revived the idea of continental drift. a. Alfred Wegener b. Harry Hess c. Andrija Mohorovicic d. None of the above ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. In 1960, the scientist named __________ proposed the concept of seafloor spreading. a. Andrija Mohorovicic b. Harry Hess c. Alfred Wegener d. None of the above ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. Alfred Wegener postulated that the continents were once part of a single supercontinent that he called ______________. a. Pangaea b. Africasia c. Amerasia d. Atlantis ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. Seafloor spreading occurs along ______________. a. fault lines b. subduction zones c. mid-ocean ridges d. none of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 74. Remanent magnetism refers to the magnetism of rocks that contain the mineral named ______________. a. magnetite b. lodestone c. pyrite d. none of these Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 75. The lowest places on Earth's surface are called __________ trenches. a. plateau b. mid-oceanic c. deep-sea d. none of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. The discovery of seafloor spreading led to acceptance of the theory of a. plate tectonics. b. volcanism. c. convergence. d. divergence.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. Geologists view the part of our planet that is called the ______________ as consisting of a number of closefitting plates. a. mesosphere b. lithosphere c. asthenosphere d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. The three types of plate boundaries are called convergent, divergent, and ______________ boundaries. a. strike b. slip c. transform d. none of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. The three types of plate boundaries are convergent, __________, and transform boundaries.

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics a. divergent b. slip c. strike d. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 80. The three types of plate boundaries are ______________, divergent, and transform boundaries. a. slip b. strike c. punch d. none of these ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. One plate pulls away from another and new ocean rock is formed at the type of plate boundary called ______________. a. divergent b. convergent c. transform d. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. The type of plate boundary at which one plate collides with another and subduction occurs is called ______________. a. transform b. divergent c. convergent d. none of these ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 83. One plate slides horizontally past another plate at the type of plate boundary called ______________. a. convergent b. transform c. divergent d. none of these Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. The lithospheric plates are believed to be put into motion by the driving force of ______________ cells in the asthenosphere. a. cyclonic b. convection c. subduction d. none of these ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. The place, or zone, where one plate descends under another plate and into the asthenosphere is called a ______________ zone. a. subduction b. convection c. Mohorovic d. none of these ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. A(n) ______________ is manifested by the vibrating and sometimes violent movement of Earth's surface. a. Moho b. volcano c. earthquake d. asthenosphere ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 87. Large fractures in Earth's surface that are associated with the movement of lithospheric plates are called ______________. a. canyons b. trenches c. subduction zones d. faults ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics 88. The radius of Earth is about __________ mi. a. 6000 b. 8000 c. 4000 d. 2000 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 89. After a major earthquake, the rocks may continue to adjust to their new positions, causing additional vibrations called a. aftershocks. b. reverberations. c. echoes. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 90. When an earthquake occurs, the location on Earth's surface above the point of initial energy release is called the earthquake's a. fault line. b. focus. c. epicenter. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 91. When an earthquake occurs, the point of initial energy release is called the earthquake's ______________. a. epicenter b. fault line c. focus d. none of the above ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 92. Seismic waves that travel through our planet are called ______________ waves. a. Earth b. planet Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics c. body d. ground ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 93. Longitudinal seismic body waves are known by the letter ______________. a. P b. S c. T d. B ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 94. Transverse seismic body waves are known by the letter ______________. a. B b. P c. S d. T ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 95. Secondary seismic waves travel ______________ primary waves in solids. a. in the direction opposite to the movement of b. slower than c. faster than d. at right angles to ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 96. S seismic waves can travel only through ______________. a. solid material b. liquid c. gas d. plasma ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics 97. P seismic waves can travel through ______________. a. solid material b. liquid c. gas d. plasma e. solid and liquid material ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 98. The sharply defined boundary that separates the crust from the mantle is called ______________. a. the lithosphere b. the asthenosphere c. the Mohorovicic discontinuity d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 99. The part of the mantle located directly below the lithosphere is called the ______________. a. stratosphere b. Mohorovicic discontinuity c. mesosphere d. asthenosphere ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 100. In the early 1900s, a scientist named ______________ revived the idea of continental drift.

ANSWER: Alfred Wegener POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 101. In 1960, ______________ proposed the concept of seafloor spreading.

ANSWER: Harry Hess POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 102. Alfred Wegener postulated that the continents were once part of a single supercontinent that he called ______________.

ANSWER: Pangaea POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. Seafloor spreading occurs along ______________.

ANSWER: mid-ocean ridges POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 104. Remanent magnetism refers to the magnetism of rocks that contain the mineral named ______________.

ANSWER: magnetite POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 105. The lowest places on Earth's surface are called ______________ trenches.

ANSWER: deep-sea POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 106. The discovery of seafloor spreading led to acceptance of the theory of ______________.

ANSWER: plate tectonics, or continental drift POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 107. Geologists view the section of Earth called the ______________ as consisting of a number of close-fitting plates.

ANSWER: lithosphere POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. The three types of plate boundaries are convergent, divergent, and ______________ boundaries.

ANSWER: transform POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 109. The three types of plate boundaries are convergent, ______________, and transform boundaries.

ANSWER: divergent POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 110. The three types of plate boundaries are ______________, divergent, and transform boundaries.

ANSWER: convergent POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 111. One plate pulls away from another and new ocean rock is formed at the type of plate boundary called Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics ______________.

ANSWER: divergent POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 112. The type of plate boundary at which one plate collides with another and subduction occurs is called ______________.

ANSWER: convergent POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 113. One plate slides horizontally past another plate at the type of plate boundary called ______________.

ANSWER: transform POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 114. The lithospheric plates are believed to be put into motion by the driving force of ______________ cells in the asthenosphere.

ANSWER: convection POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 115. The place, or zone, where one plate descends under another plate and into the asthenosphere is called a(n) ______________ zone.

ANSWER: subduction POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 116. A(n) ______________ is manifested by the vibrating and sometimes violent movement of Earth's surface.

ANSWER: earthquake POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 117. Large fractures in Earth's surface that are associated with movement of lithospheric plates are called ______________.

ANSWER: faults POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 118. Earth's radius is about ______________ mi.

ANSWER: 4000 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics 119. After a major earthquake, the rocks may continue to adjust to their new positions, causing additional vibrations called ______________.

ANSWER: aftershocks POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 120. When an earthquake occurs, the location on Earth's surface above the point of initial energy release is called the earthquake's ______________.

ANSWER: epicenter POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. When an earthquake occurs, the point of initial energy release is called the earthquake's ______________.

ANSWER: focus POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 122. Seismic waves that travel through Earth are called ______________ waves.

ANSWER: body POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 123. Longitudinal seismic body waves are known by the letter ______________.

ANSWER: P POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 124. Transverse seismic body waves are known by the letter ______________.

ANSWER: S POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 125. Secondary seismic waves travel ______________ (slower or faster?) than primary waves in solids.

ANSWER: slower POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 126. S seismic waves can travel only through ______________ material.

ANSWER: solid POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 127. The sharply defined boundary that separates the crust from the mantle is called the ______________.

ANSWER: Moho, or Mohorovicic discontinuity Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 128. The part of the mantle located directly below the lithosphere is called the ______________.

ANSWER: asthenosphere POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 129. Earthquake waves are monitored by an instrument called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: seismograph POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 130. An earthquake of magnitude ______________ on the Richter scale is the smallest that can be felt by humans.

ANSWER: 2 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 131. The two general types of earthquake waves are ______________ waves and body waves.

ANSWER: surface POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 132. The Japanese word tsunami means “______________ wave.”

ANSWER: harbor POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 133. Tsunami is the correct term for what was formerly referred to as a(n) ______________ wave.

ANSWER: tidal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 134. Because of the ______________ zones formed by S and P waves as they travel through Earth, the outer core is thought to be a viscous liquid.

ANSWER: shadow POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 135. The ______________ scale gives an absolute measure of the energy released by an earthquake.

ANSWER: Richter POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 136. A description of the severity of the damage caused by an earthquake is given by its ranking on the ______________ scale.

ANSWER: modified Mercalli POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 137. Between the crust and the outer core lies the region called the ______________.

ANSWER: mantle POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 138. The San Andreas fault lies on the boundary of the Pacific plate and the ______________ plate.

ANSWER: North American POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 139. The rock on the upper side of an inclined fault plane is called the hanging wall, and the rock on the underside is called the ______________.

ANSWER: footwall POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 140. The rock on the underside of an inclined fault plane is called the footwall, and the rock on the upper side is called the ______________.

ANSWER: hanging wall POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 141. Folded rock layers that resemble an arch are called ______________.

ANSWER: anticlines POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 142. Folded rock layers that resemble a trough are called ______________.

ANSWER: synclines POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 143. A(n) ______________ fault occurs as the result of compressional forces.

ANSWER: reverse POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics 144. A(n) ______________ fault occurs as the result of expansive forces.

ANSWER: normal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 145. ______________ faulting occurs as the result of forces parallel to the fault plane.

ANSWER: Strike-slip POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 146. Strike-slip faulting takes place along the ______________ boundary of two plates.

ANSWER: transform POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 147. ______________ mountains are believed to have been built by normal faulting in which giant pieces of Earth's crust were tilted and uplifted.

ANSWER: Fault-block POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 148. Mountains characterized by folded rock strata are known as ______________ mountains.

ANSWER: fold POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 149. Wyoming's Grand Tetons are examples of ______________ mountains.

ANSWER: fault-block POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 150. California's Sierra Nevada are examples of ______________ mountains.

ANSWER: fault-block POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 151. The Wasatch Mountains in Utah are examples of ______________ mountains.

ANSWER: fault-block POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 152. The Cascade Mountains in the northwestern United States are examples of ______________ mountains.

ANSWER: volcanic Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 153. The Andes Mountains in South America are examples of ______________ mountains.

ANSWER: volcanic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 154. The mountains of the Alps in Europe are examples of ______________ mountains.

ANSWER: fold POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 155. The Himalayas in Asia are examples of ______________ mountains.

ANSWER: fold POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 156. The Appalachian Mountains in the eastern United States are examples of ______________ mountains.

ANSWER: fold POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 157. A(n) ______________ ridge system stretches through the major oceans of the world.

ANSWER: mid-ocean POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 158. The deflection of one plate under another is called ______________.

ANSWER: subduction POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 159. The three principal types of mountain building are fold, fault-block, and ______________.

ANSWER: volcanic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 160. The three principal types of mountain building are fold, volcanic, and ______________.

ANSWER: fault-block POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 - Structural G eology and P late Tectonics 161. The three principal types of mountain building are volcanic, fault-block, and ______________.

ANSWER: fold POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes 1. The study of planet Earth is known as a. mineralogy. b. petrology. c. geology. d. paleontology.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. About what percent of Earth's surface is covered by land? a. 70% b. 10% c. 50% d. 30% ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. The study of minerals is called a. paleontology. b. geology. c. mineralogy. d. petrology.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Any naturally occurring, inorganic, crystalline substance with a fairly definite chemical composition is called a(n) a. element. b. compound. c. rock. d. mineral.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. The element that is most abundant in Earth's crust is a. silicon. b. iron. c. oxygen. d. nitrogen.

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. The element that is the second most abundant in Earth's crust is a. oxygen. b. iron. c. nitrogen. d. silicon.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. The mineral that is most abundant in Earth's crust is a. quartz. b. feldspar. c. calcite. d. pyrite.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. One main type of feldspar that contains potassium is a. quartz. b. orthoclase. c. plagioclase. d. pyrite.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. The two elements silicon and oxygen, taken together, make up about what percent of Earth's crust by mass? a. 25% b. 64% c. 50% d. 75% ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. The fundamental unit of the silicon-oxygen minerals is in the shape of a a. cone.

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes b. tetrahedron. c. cube. d. sphere.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. Hardness is a comparative property that refers to the ability of a mineral to resist a. fracturing. b. cleaving. c. scratching. d. crushing.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. Which of the following statements is false? a. The majority of surface rocks are igneous. b. The study of rocks is called petrology. c. Rocks are classified as igneous, sedimentary, or metamorphic. d. Rocks are composed of one or more minerals.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. Which of the following is the hardest mineral? a. Quartz b. Diamond c. Talc d. Gypsum ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. Which of the following is ranked 7 on the Mohs scale? a. Talc b. Gypsum c. Diamond d. Quartz ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. Which of the following is the softest mineral on the Mohs scale? a. Talc b. Gypsum c. Diamond d. Quartz ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. What is the hardness of talc on the Mohs scale? a. 1 b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. What is the hardness of diamond on the Mohs scale? a. 1 b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. What is the hardness of quartz on the Mohs scale? a. 1 b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. What is the hardness of fluorite on the Mohs scale? a. 1 b. 4 c. 7 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes d. 10 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. Rocks solidified from molten material above ground are classified as ______________ igneous rocks. a. extrusive b. intrusive c. superior d. inferior ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. Rocks solidified from molten material below ground are classified as ______________ igneous rocks. a. extrusive b. intrusive c. superior d. inferior ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. A general name for an intrusive igneous rock formation is ______________. a. discordant b. dike c. concordant d. pluton ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. The scientist ______________ is generally regarded as “the father of geology.” a. David Johnston b. Friedrich Mohs c. James Hutton d. Henry Beston ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. The saying "The present is the key to the past" is a simple way to state the basic geologic concept called Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes ______________. a. presentarianism b. prepostanarism c. uniformitarianism d. formitarianism ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. The physical characteristic that is used to distinguish intrusive igneous rocks from extrusive igneous rocks is _____________. a. silica content b. hardness c. color d. grain size ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. Intrusive igneous rock formations that lie more or less parallel to older formations are said to be ______________. a. recordant b. discordant c. concordant d. precordant ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. Intrusive igneous rock formations that cut more or less vertically across older formations are said to be ______________. a. recordant b. discordant c. concordant d. precordant ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. Laccoliths and sills are examples of ______________ plutons. a. recordant b. precordant Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes c. discordant d. concordant ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. Dikes are examples of ______________ plutons. a. discordant b. concordant c. recordant d. precordant ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. The largest plutons are called ______________. a. dikes b. sills c. batholiths d. laccoliths ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. Dripstone formations that form on cavern floors are called _____________. a. stalactites b. pool stones c. stalagmites d. sedimentary ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. Stalagmites are a. Rocks solidified from molten material below ground. b. Consolidated sediment deposited in layers. c. Dripstone formations that form on cavern floors. d. Dripstone formations that form on cavern ceilings.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes 33. Stalactites are a. Rocks solidified from molten material below ground. b. Consolidated sediment deposited in layers. c. Dripstone formations that form on cavern floors. d. Dripstone formations that form on cavern ceilings.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. Dripstone formations that form on cavern ceilings are called _____________. a. stalactites b. stalagmites c. quartz d. feldspar ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. Rocks formed from consolidated sediment deposited in layers are known as _____________ rocks. a. crystalized b. foliated c. igneous d. sedimentary ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. The sedimentary rock known as ______________ consists of deposits of calcium carbonate (calcite). a. coal b. sandstone c. limestone d. lodestone ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. The sedimentary rock known as ______________ consists of rounded pebbles cemented together by silica, calcium carbonate, or iron oxide. a. conglomerate b. breccia c. limestone d. shale Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. The sedimentary rock known as ______________ consists of angular pebbles cemented together by silica, calcium carbonate, or iron oxide. a. conglomerate b. breccia c. limestone d. shale ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. Silicates a. are minerals. b. contain silicon and oxygen. c. consist of tetrahedra. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. A common scale for denoting a mineral's hardness is the a. Ores scale. b. Mohs scale. c. Homs scale. d. Ohms scale.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. If iron floats in liquid mercury, then the specific gravity of iron is a. less than that of mercury. b. greater than that of mercury. c. about equal to that of mercury. d. in no way related to that of mercury.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. Which of the following is not generally used in mineral identification?

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes a. Size b. Cleavage c. Specific gravity d. Color ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The term cleavage refers to the tendency of some minerals to a. resist scratching. b. break along definite smooth planes. c. break into equal-sized halves. d. scratch other minerals.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. The term hardness refers to the ability of a mineral to a. resist scratching. b. break along definite smooth planes. c. break into equal-sized halves. d. scratch other minerals.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. Rhombohedral cleavage is displayed by the mineral named a. quartz. b. fluorite. c. calcite. d. hematite.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. Orthoclase and plagioclase are the two main types of a. silica. b. feldspars. c. calcite. d. sulfides.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. Which of the following is not one of the most common nonsilicate groups of minerals? a. Sulfides b. Oxides c. Chlorides d. Carbonates ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. Which mineral is a hard and brittle silica that shows conchoidal fracture? a. Feldspar b. Quartz c. Calcite d. Mica ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. The color of the powder of a mineral is known as the mineral's a. index of refraction. b. hardness. c. specific gravity. d. streak.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. A mineral that has a vitreous luster looks a. glassy. b. metallic. c. earthy. d. pearly.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. The brilliancy of a gem is a function of its a. index of refraction. b. index of reflection.

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes c. size. d. luster.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. A cohesive aggregate of one or more minerals is called a a. crystal. b. gem. c. silicate. d. rock.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. Which of the following scientists is generally designated “the father of geology”? a. Friedrich Mohs b. James Hutton c. Alfred Wegener d. Edwin Hubble ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. James Hutton formulated the concept of a. catastrophism. b. superposition. c. plate tectonics. d. uniformitarianism.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. The study of rocks is called a. petrology. b. mineralogy. c. paleontology. d. geology.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes 56. The most abundant rocks in Earth's crust are the a. sulfides. b. oxides. c. carbonates. d. silicates.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. Rocks are classified into three types on the basis of their a. process of formation. b. age. c. geographic origin. d. color.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. Which of the following is not one of the types into which rocks are classified? a. Igneous b. Orthoclase c. Metamorphic d. Sedimentary ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. The interrelationship among the processes that produce the three classes of rock is referred to as a. the rock cycle. b. the bedding principle. c. the principle of cross-cutting relationships. d. metamorphism.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. Another name applied to the grain size in a rock is a. specific gravity. b. porosity. c. texture. d. streak.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. Igneous rock that formed below Earth's surface by solidification of magma is known as a. extrusive rock. b. intrusive rock. c. metamorphic rock. d. silicate rock.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. Igneous rock that formed on Earth's surface by solidification of lava is known as a. extrusive rock. b. intrusive rock. c. metamorphic rock. d. silicate rock.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. Which of the following statements is false? a. Dikes are discordant rock bodies. b. Dikes are formed from magma. c. Dikes are tabular in shape. d. Dikes consist of extrusive igneous rock.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. Which of the following statements is false? a. Sills are discordant rock bodies. b. Sills are formed from magma. c. Sills are tabular in shape. d. Sills consist of intrusive igneous rock.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. The most common rocks on Earth's surface are a. discordant. b. concordant.

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes c. metamorphic. d. sedimentary.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. The most common rocks in Earth's crust are a. sedimentary. b. metamorphic. c. igneous. d. lava.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. Molten rock material beneath Earth's surface is called a. magma. b. lava. c. silica. d. pluton.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. Molten rock material on Earth's surface is called a. magma. b. lava. c. pluton. d. silica.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. The deflection of one lithospheric plate beneath another plate with which it is colliding is called a. subduction. b. superposition. c. cross-cutting. d. plutonic movement.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes 70. Beneath Earth's lithosphere is a semimolten layer known as the a. divergent boundary. b. asthenosphere. c. batholith. d. flood basalt.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. The largest plutons are called a. sills. b. dikes. c. laccoliths. d. batholiths.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. The existence of the Ring of Fire is best explained by the a. theory of plate tectonics. b. principle of superposition. c. concept of uniformitarianism. d. law of catastrophism.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. That each successive layer of sediments is deposited on top of the previous layer, and hence is younger than the lower layer, is a statement of the a. theory of plate tectonics. b. principle of superposition. c. concept of uniformitarianism. d. law of catastrophism.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 74. Volcanoes that explode violently tend to have magmas of a. high temperature and low silica content. b. high temperature and high silica content. c. low temperature and low silica content. d. low temperature and high silica content.

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 75. The Columbia Plateau in the northwestern United States is an example of a(n) a. flood basalt. b. batholith. c. monolith. d. sill.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. Rocks that formed from the cooling of molten material are classified as a. discordant. b. metamorphic. c. sedimentary. d. igneous.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. An example of igneous rock is a. marble. b. shale. c. slate. d. granite.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. Which of the following is not an igneous rock? a. Andesite b. Granite c. Gneiss d. Basalt ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. Which igneous rock has dark color (low silica content) and small grains (fine texture)? a. Gabbro Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes b. Granite c. Rhyolite d. Basalt ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 80. Which igneous rock has light color (high silica content) and large grains (coarse texture)? a. Gabbro b. Granite c. Rhyolite d. Basalt ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. Plutons are a. bodies of intrusive igneous rocks. b. solids made of tephra. c. active volcanoes. d. extinct volcanoes.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. The process of transforming sediment into sedimentary rock is called a. lithification. b. striation. c. metamorphism. d. hardening.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 83. Which of the following classes of rock is most likely to contain fossils? a. Igneous b. Foliated c. Metamorphic d. Sedimentary ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. Chemical sedimentary rocks are classified into what two categories? a. Organic and inorganic b. Fine and coarse c. Intrusive and extrusive d. Concordant and discordant ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. An example of a sedimentary rock is a. granite. b. gneiss. c. gabbro. d. shale.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. Which of the following rocks is not a sedimentary rock? a. Shale b. Sandstone c. Marble d. Conglomerate ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 87. Which of the following rocks is a sedimentary rock? a. Slate b. Granite c. Marble d. Conglomerate ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 88. New rocks that have had their original form altered by heat and pressure, but without melting, are classified as a. sedimentary. b. metamorphic.

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes c. igneous. d. all of these.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 89. Metamorphism occurs for which class of rocks? a. Metamorphic only b. Sedimentary only c. Igneous only d. All of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 90. The metamorphosis of limestone leads to a. marble. b. slate. c. schist. d. gneiss.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 91. Which of the following is not one of the three basic types of materials emitted when a volcano erupts? a. Lava b. Breccia c. Gas d. Pyroclastics ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 92. Which of the following is not a volcano or the result thereof? a. A batholith b. A mountain peak that spews lava c. A cinder cone d. A caldera ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes 93. What type of volcano forms a layered, composite cone? a. Fumarole b. Cinder cone c. Stratovolcano d. Shield volcano ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 94. Which of the following volcanoes is in the United States? a. Paracutin b. Surtsey c. Mount Pelée d. Mount Saint Helens ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 95. Crater Lake, atop Mount Mazama in Oregon, occupies a volcanic a. caldera. b. fissure. c. vent. d. fumarole.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 96. A volcano with a low, gently sloping profile is a a. composite volcano. b. stratovolcano. c. shield volcano. d. cinder cone.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 97. A volcano with a high, steep slope is a a. composite volcano. b. stratovolcano. c. shield volcano. d. cinder cone.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 98. The most violent volcanic eruption in recorded history was that of a. Paracutin. b. Mount Saint Helens. c. Tambora. d. Mount Pelée.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 99. Four kinds of metamorphism are a. contact, thermal, hydrothermal, and regional. b. thermal, shear, hydrothermal, and dynamic. c. contact, shear, hydrothermal, and regional. d. dynamic, contact, hydrothermal, and thermal.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 100. Which of the following is not a metamorphic rock? a. Sandstone b. Schist c. Slate d. Marble ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 101. Which of the following is not one of the major types of metamorphism? a. Contact b. Fold c. Shear d. Regional ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 102. Sediments are classified according to the source of their constituents into two main groups. One is chemical. What is the other? a. Physical Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes b. Clastic c. Detrital d. Inorganic ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 103. The Mohs scale is based on how many minerals? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 15 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 104. ______________ is the study of planet Earth.

ANSWER: Geology POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 105. The study of minerals is called ______________.

ANSWER: mineralogy POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 106. The fundamental silicon-oxygen compound is silicon dioxide, which is also called ______________.

ANSWER: silica, or quartz POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 107. The appearance of a mineral's surface in reflected light is called its ______________.

ANSWER: luster POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. The color of a mineral's powder is called its ______________.

ANSWER: streak POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 109. The term ______________ refers to the way in which a mineral breaks into splinters, irregularly shaped pieces, or shell-shaped surfaces.

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes ANSWER: fracture POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 110. Orthoclase and plagioclase are the two major types of ______________.

ANSWER: feldspars POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 111. A set of ten minerals used as reference standards in determining hardness is called the______________ hardness scale.

ANSWER: Mohs POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 112. The hardest mineral on the Mohs hardness scale is named ______________.

ANSWER: diamond POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 113. The softest mineral on the Mohs hardness scale is named ______________.

ANSWER: talc POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 114. When a mineral's surface reflects light in a manner similar to a smooth metal, the mineral is said to have a(n) ______________ luster.

ANSWER: metallic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 115. The ratio of a mineral sample's weight to the weight of an equal volume of water is called the mineral's ______________.

ANSWER: specific gravity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 116. The size and shape assumed by the crystal faces when a mineral crystal has time and space to grow are known as the mineral's ______________.

ANSWER: crystal form POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 117. The term ______________ refers to the tendency of some mineral to break along flat planes at definite Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes angles.

ANSWER: cleavage POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 118. A(n) ______________ is any mineral or other precious or semiprecious stone valued for its beauty.

ANSWER: gem POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 119. The brilliancy of a gem is a function of its index of ______________.

ANSWER: refraction POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 120. A(n) ______________ is a cohesive aggregate of one or more minerals.

ANSWER: rock POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. Silicates are minerals that have the oxygen and silicon ______________ as their basic structure.

ANSWER: tetrahedron POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 122. Underground molten rock material is known as ______________.

ANSWER: magma POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 123. Molten rock material on Earth's surface is known as ______________.

ANSWER: lava POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 124. Rocks solidified from molten material, either below or above ground, are classified as ______________ rocks.

ANSWER: igneous POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 125. Rocks solidified from molten material above ground are classified as ______________ igneous rocks.

ANSWER: extrusive Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 126. Rocks solidified from molten material below ground are classified as ______________ igneous rocks.

ANSWER: intrusive POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 127. A general name for an intrusive igneous rock formation is ______________.

ANSWER: pluton POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 128. The scientist ______________ is generally regarded as “the father of geology.”

ANSWER: James Hutton POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 129. The saying "The present is the key to the past" is a simple way to state the basic geologic concept of ______________.

ANSWER: uniformitarianism POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 130. The physical characteristic that is used to distinguish intrusive igneous rocks from extrusive igneous rocks is ______________.

ANSWER: texture, or grain size POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 131. Igneous rocks are classified according to their silica content, or color, and their ______________.

ANSWER: texture, or grain size POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 132. Intrusive igneous rock formations that lie more or less parallel to older formations are said to be ______________.

ANSWER: concordant POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 133. Intrusive igneous rock formations that cut more or less vertically across older formations are said to be ______________.

ANSWER: discordant Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 134. Laccoliths and sills are examples of ______________ plutons.

ANSWER: concordant POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 135. Dikes are examples of ______________ plutons.

ANSWER: discordant POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 136. The largest plutons are called ______________.

ANSWER: batholiths POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 137. Dripstone formations that form on cavern floors are called ______________.

ANSWER: stalagmites POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 138. Dripstone formations that form on cavern ceilings are called ______________.

ANSWER: stalactites POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 139. Rocks formed from consolidated sediment deposited in layers are known as ______________ rocks.

ANSWER: sedimentary POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 140. The sedimentary rock known as ______________ consists of deposits of calcium carbonate (calcite).

ANSWER: limestone POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 141. The sedimentary rock known as ______________ consists of rounded pebbles cemented together by silica, calcium carbonate, or iron oxide.

ANSWER: conglomerate POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes 142. The sedimentary rock known as ______________ consists of angular pebbles cemented together by silica, calcium carbonate, or iron oxide.

ANSWER: breccia POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 143. Particles of sand, mud, and rock fragments deposited along rivers, in lakes, and on the seafloors are called by the general term ______________.

ANSWER: sediments POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 144. Sediments that are transported to the sea in solution are known as ______________ sediments.

ANSWER: chemical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 145. Sediments that are composed of solid fragments derived from preexisting rocks are called ______________ sediments.

ANSWER: detrital POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 146. Stratification, or ______________, is the layering that develops at the time sediments are deposited.

ANSWER: bedding POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 147. Rocks formed by changes in structure or mineral content while remaining in the solid phase are classified as ______________.

ANSWER: metamorphic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 148. The two principal agents of metamorphism are heat and ______________.

ANSWER: pressure POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 149. Regional metamorphism causes a parallel arrangement of mineral grains that results in a pronounced layering of the rock. The layering is known as ______________.

ANSWER: foliation POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes 150. The two principal agents of metamorphism are pressure and ______________.

ANSWER: heat POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 151. The sequence of interrelated events by which rocks are formed, altered, destroyed, and re-formed is known as the ______________.

ANSWER: rock cycle POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 152. The theory that Earth's lithospheric plates are in constant, slow motion is called plate ______________.

ANSWER: tectonics POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 153. Volcanoes are so numerous along the margins of the Pacific Ocean that the region has been dubbed the ______________.

ANSWER: Ring of Fire POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 154. The asthenosphere is the region of Earth directly below the ______________.

ANSWER: lithosphere POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 155. Gas, lava, and pyroclastics are the three general products emitted during a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: volcanic eruption POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 156. Gas, lava, and ______________ are the three general products emitted during a volcanic eruption.

ANSWER: pyroclastics, or tephra POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 157. Gas, ______________, and pyroclastics are the three general products emitted during a volcanic eruption.

ANSWER: lava POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 158. ______________, lava, and pyroclastics are the three general products emitted during a volcanic eruption.

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes ANSWER: Gas POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 159. Solids emitted by volcanoes can range in size from fine dust to boulders. Such solids are known collectively as ______________.

ANSWER: pyroclastics, or tephra POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 160. A(n) ______________ is the surface expression of magma that originates in the asthenosphere and deeper.

ANSWER: hot spot POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 161. The Hawaiian Islands and the Emperor seamount chain were formed when the Pacific plate rode over a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: hot spot POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 162. Magma viscosity depends on the silica content and the ______________ of the magma.

ANSWER: temperature POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 163. Magma viscosity depends on the ______________ content and the temperature of the magma.

ANSWER: silica POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 164. Volcanoes are formed by the eruptions of both lava and pyroclastics form steeply sloping, layered cones called ______________.

ANSWER: stratovolcanoes, or composite volcanoes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 165. Mount Saint Helens is the type of volcano known as a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: stratovolcano POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 166. Conglomerate and breccia are classified as ______________ rocks.

ANSWER: sedimentary Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 - Minerals, Rocks, and Volcanoes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 167. Gabbro and rhyolite are classified as ______________rocks.

ANSWER: igneous POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 168. Marble and gneiss are classified as ______________ rocks.

ANSWER: metamorphic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 169. A mineral that looks glassy is said to have a(n) ______________ luster.

ANSWER: vitreous POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 170. The chemical alteration of preexisting rocks by chemically reactive, hot-water solutions is called ______________ metamorphism.

ANSWER: hydrothermal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes 1. The process of leveling of the Earth by the wearing away of high places and the transportation to and deposition of sediments at lower levels is called a. gradation. b. weathering. c. erosion. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. The physical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rock at or near Earth's surface is called a. weathering. b. gradation. c. erosion. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. The physical disintegration or fracturing of rock is called a. mechanical weathering. b. gradation. c. chemical weathering. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Subsurface soil that remains permanently frozen is called a. a swamp. b. a bogg. c. permafrost. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. The most important acid involved in chemical weathering is a. carbonic acid. b. sulfuric acid. c. hydrochloric acid. d. none of these.

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. The most important climatic factors that affect the rate of chemical weathering are heat and a. moisture. b. wind. c. clouds. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. The downslope movement of surface materials as a result of gravity and of the agents that cause such movement is called a. erosion. b. gradation. c. landslides. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. A depression on the land surface caused by the collapse of a cavern is called a. a sinkhole. b. a shrink pit. c. a culvert. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. Any flow of water occurring between well-defined banks is defined by geologists as a. a stream. b. a meander. c. a lake. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. A loop-like bend in a river channel is called Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes a. a meander. b. a stream. c. a detour. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. Which of the following terms is(are) used to describe a division of a stream's load? a. Bed load only. b. Suspended load only. c. Dissolved load only. d. All of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. A river's suspended and bed loads may accumulate at its mouth and form a. a delta. b. a meander. c. a stream. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. The principal landform resulting from a stream's erosive power is its ______________-shaped valley. a. V b. W c. M d. I ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. A large ice mass that flows on a land surface under the influence of gravity is called a. a glacier. b. a land slide. c. an ice river. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. Small glaciers that form along mountains in hollow depressions that are protected from the Sun are called a. cirque glaciers. b. moraines glaciers. c. permanent glaciers. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. At the end and along the sides of a glacier, the sediment deposits may form ridges known as a. moraines. b. cirque. c. hills. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. Greenland and Antarctica are covered with glacial ice sheets called a. valley glaciers. b. mountain glaciers. c. continental glaciers. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. The object above a valley floor that consists of glacial ice is called a. a valley glacier. b. a gulley glacier c. a canyon glacier. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. When material is transported and deposited by ice, the process is called a. glacial drift. b. gradation.

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes c. erosion. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. The process of leveling of the Earth by the wearing away of high places and the transportation of sediment to lower places is known as a. mass wasting. b. the hydrologic cycle. c. degradation. d. gradation.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. The physical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rock at or near Earth's surface is called a. the disintegration chain. b. erosion. c. the decomposition cycle. d. weathering.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. Which of the following is a common type of mechanical weathering? a. Frost wedging b. Delta formation c. Sinkhole formation d. Moraine disintegration ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. The two major types of weathering studied in this chapter are mechanical weathering and ______________ weathering. a. stream b. chemical c. abrasion d. adverse ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. An important agent in chemical weathering is a. carbonic acid. b. permafrost. c. wind. d. frost.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. Chemical weathering is most prevalent in what type of climate? a. Moist and cold b. Dry and cold c. Dry and hot d. Moist and hot ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. The type of rock most susceptible to chemical weathering is a. sandstone. b. basalt. c. shale. d. limestone.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. Which of the following phenomena results from limestone being dissolved by rainwater? a. Caverns b. Delta formation c. Sea arches d. Beaches ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. In latitudes where the subsurface layer of soil always remains frozen, the frozen layer is called a. an aquifer. b. the frost table. c. a glacier.

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes d. permafrost.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. Which of the following is not a main agent of erosion? a. Permafrost b. Ice c. Wind d. Streams ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. The wearing away of soil and rock and the subsequent downslope movement of the fragments are called a. erosion. b. weathering. c. cross-cutting. d. deposition.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. Which of the following is not a component of a stream's load? a. Mother load b. Dissolved load c. Suspended load d. Bed load ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. The limiting level below which a stream cannot erode the land is called its a. base level. b. ultimate level. c. bed level. d. erosion level.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. A loop-like bend in a river channel is called a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes a. rounder. b. cirque. c. wander. d. meander.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. A river's suspended load and bed load may accumulate at its mouth and form a(n) a. delta. b. flood plain. c. moraine. d. abyssal plain.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. Small glaciers that form along mountains in hollow depressions are called a. cirque glaciers. b. mountain glaciers. c. caldera glaciers. d. moraines.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. By which of the following characterisitcs is a desert defined? a. High winds b. High temperature c. Lack of precipitation d. Hot days and cold nights ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. What type of glacier is formed when a valley floor is covered with compressed glacial ice? a. Continental glacier b. Stream glacier c. Valley glacier d. Cirque glacier ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. Glaciers are being considered as a source of a. scarce metals. b. fresh water. c. salt. d. fertile soil.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. Which of the following statements is not true of glaciers? a. They cause little erosion. b. They are made of ice. c. They form when more snow falls than melts. d. They flow.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. At the ends and along the sides of a glacier, the sediment deposits may form ridges known as a. deltas. b. levees. c. drifts. d. moraines.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. The driest of Earth's regions are known as a. hot spots. b. deserts. c. wastelands. d. scablands.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. The general geologic term for the downslope movement of soil and rock under the influence of gravity is a. mass wasting. b. slump.

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes c. creep. d. landslide.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The fast, downslope movement of large blocks of weathered materials is known as a a. solifluction. b. slump. c. rock flow. d. landslide.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. The slow, particle-by-particle movement of weathered debris down a slope is called a. an avalanche. b. a landslide. c. slump. d. creep.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. Which of the following is not a form of downslope movement? a. Creep b. Mudflow c. Overburden d. Slump ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The natural sequence through which water from the oceans evaporates into the atmosphere and ultimately returns to the oceans is known as the a. hydrous cycle. b. aqueous cycle. c. climactic cycle. d. hydrologic cycle.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes 47. The upper boundary of the region in which the soil is saturated with water is known as the a. water table. b. aquifer level. c. zone of aeration. d. Moho discontinuity.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. A material's capacity to transmit fluids is called its a. permeability. b. solifluction. c. drift. d. porosity.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. The percentage volume of unoccupied space in a material is called its a. traction. b. porosity. c. permeability. d. salinity.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. About what percent of Earth's water is fresh water? a. 8% b. 18% c. 2% d. 15% ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. Most of Earth's fresh water is in a. the atmosphere. b. lakes and rivers. c. glacial ice sheets. d. aquifers.

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. Hard water is due primarily to dissolved salts of which elements? a. Zinc and copper b. Calcium, iron, and magnesium c. Sodium and potassium d. Sodium and chlorine ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. A body of permeable rock through which groundwater moves is called a. an aquifer. b. a water table. c. a porosity level. d. a zone of aeration.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. The unsaturated zone of soil above the water table is known as the zone of a. permeability. b. unsaturation. c. presaturation. d. aeration.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. Which of the following is not one of the three major types of seawater movement? a. Waves b. Tides c. Currents d. Creep ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. After the Pacific and Atlantic oceans, the next largest ocean on Earth is which ocean? a. Arctic Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes b. Indian c. Antarctic d. Mediterranean ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. What is the largest ocean on Earth? a. Atlantic b. Indian c. Antarctic d. Mediterranean e. Pacific ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. What is the second largest ocean on Earth? a. Atlantic b. Indian c. Antarctic d. Mediterranean e. Pacific ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. How many tidal bulges “move” around Earth daily? a. Two b. Six c. One d. Four ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. The formation of which of the following is not directly caused by erosive wave action? a. Wave-cut cliffs b. Sea stacks c. Pocket beaches d. Sea caves Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. Which of the following are not a common depositional feature of shoreline topography? a. Barrier islands b. Pocket beaches c. Sea arches d. Spits ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. Large, flat areas of sediments on the ocean basins are called a. abyssal plains. b. guyots. c. continental shelves. d. atolls.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. About what percent of Earth's surface is covered with water? a. 70% b. 10% c. 50% d. 30% ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. Isolated, submarine, volcanic mountains are known as a. reefs. b. atolls. c. seamounts. d. spits.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. A common depositional feature of shoreline topography is a a. spit.

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes b. guyot. c. seamount. d. sea arch.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. A common feature of coastal erosion is a a. spit. b. guyot. c. seamount. d. sea arch.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. The continuous circulation of Earth's water is known as the a. hydrologic cycle. b. aqua cycle. c. redistribution cycle. d. hydrogeologic cycle.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. A river's suspended load and bed load may accumulate at its mouth and form a a. sea arch. b. guyot. c. delta. d. sea mount.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. The process of leveling of the Earth by the wearing away of high places and the transportation of sediments to, and their deposition at, lower levels is called ______________.

ANSWER: gradation POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 70. The physical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rock at or near Earth's surface is called ______________.

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes ANSWER: weathering POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 71. The physical disintegration or fracturing of rock is called ______________.

ANSWER: mechanical weathering POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 72. Subsurface soil that remains permanently frozen is called ______________.

ANSWER: permafrost POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 73. The most important acid involved in chemical weathering is ______________ acid.

ANSWER: carbonic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 74. The most important climatic factors that affect the rate of chemical weathering are heat and ______________.

ANSWER: moisture, or humidity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 75. ______________ is the downslope movement of surface materials as a result of gravity and of the agents that cause such movement.

ANSWER: Erosion POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 76. A depression on the land surface caused by the collapse of a cavern is called a(n)______________.

ANSWER: sinkhole POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 77. Geologists define a(n) ______________ as any flow of water occurring between well-defined banks.

ANSWER: stream POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 78. A loop-like bend in a river channel is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: meander Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 79. A stream's load is divided into three components: dissolved load, suspended load, and ______________ load.

ANSWER: bed POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 80. A stream's load is divided into three components: ______________ load, suspended load, and bed load.

ANSWER: dissolved POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 81. A stream's load is divided into three components: dissolved load, ______________ load, and bed load.

ANSWER: suspended POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 82. A river's suspended load and bed load may accumulate at its mouth and form a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: delta POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 83. The principal landform resulting from a stream's erosive power is its ______________-shaped valley.

ANSWER: V POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 84. A large ice mass that flows on a land surface under the influence of gravity is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: glacier POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 85. Small glaciers, called ______________ glaciers, form along mountains in hollow depressions that are protected from the Sun. ANSWER: cirque POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 86. At the end and along the sides of a glacier, the sediment deposits may form ridges known as ______________.

ANSWER: moraines POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 87. Greenland and Antarctica are covered with glacial ice sheets called ______________ glaciers.

ANSWER: continental POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 88. A(n) ______________ glacier is one in which a valley floor is covered with glacial ice.

ANSWER: valley POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. Material that is transported and deposited by ice is called ______________.

ANSWER: glacial drift POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. Regions on Earth that have the driest climates are known as ______________.

ANSWER: deserts POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 91. The downslope movement of soil and rock under the influence of gravity is known, in general, as ______________.

ANSWER: mass wasting POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. The fast, downslope movement of large blocks of weathered materials is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: landslide POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. The downslope movement of an unbroken block of rock or soil, which leaves a curved depression on the slope, is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: slump POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. The slow, particle-by-particle movement of weathered debris down a slope is called ______________.

ANSWER: creep POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes 95. The movement of Earth's water supply from the oceans to the atmosphere and back again is called the ______________.

ANSWER: hydrologic cycle POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 96. Water that soaks into the soil and collects in the subsurface is called ______________.

ANSWER: groundwater POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 97. The percentage volume of unoccupied space in a material is called the material's ______________.

ANSWER: porosity POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 98. The measure of a material's capacity to transmit fluids is called the material's ______________.

ANSWER: permeability POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 99. The unsaturated zone of soil or rock above the water table is called the zone of ______________.

ANSWER: aeration POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. The upper boundary of the zone of saturation is called the ______________.

ANSWER: water table POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 101. Water must be pumped out of water-table wells but not out of ______________ wells.

ANSWER: artesian POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 102. A large body of permeable rock or soil through which groundwater moves is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: aquifer POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. If a water sample contains 2 ppm of dissolved salt, it contains 2 g of salt in every ______________ g of water.

ANSWER: million Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 104. Earth's largest ocean is the ______________ Ocean.

ANSWER: Pacific POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 105. Earth's second largest ocean is the ______________ Ocean.

ANSWER: Atlantic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 106. Earth's third largest ocean is the ______________ Ocean.

ANSWER: Indian POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 107. The three major types of seawater movement are waves, ______________, and tides.

ANSWER: currents POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. The three major types of seawater movement are ______________, currents, and tides.

ANSWER: waves POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 109. The three major types of seawater movement are waves, currents, and ______________.

ANSWER: tides POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 110. ______________ (how many?) tidal bulges “move” around Earth daily.

ANSWER: Two POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 111. Seawater movement that arises from incoming ocean waves that break at an angle to the shore is called a(n) ______________ current.

ANSWER: long-shore POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes 112. An isolated, submarine, volcanic peak on the ocean floor is called, in general, a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: seamount POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 113. Seamounts with flat tops are known as ______________.

ANSWER: guyots POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 114. A large, flat, sediment-covered area on the ocean floor is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: abyssal plain POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 115. The shallowly submerged areas that border the continental landmasses are called the ______________.

ANSWER: continental shelves POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 116. The true edges of the continental landmasses are called the ______________.

ANSWER: continental slopes POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 117. The leveling of the Earth's surface is known as ______________.

ANSWER: gradation POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 118. Frost wedging is a common type of ______________ weathering.

ANSWER: mechanical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 119. ______________ water has a high content of calcium, magnesium, and iron salts.

ANSWER: Hard POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 120. Collapsed cavern ceilings can cause ______________ to appear on the land's surface.

ANSWER: sinkholes POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 23 - Surface Processes QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. Carbonic acid is the main agent of ______________ weathering.

ANSWER: chemical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time 1. The study of fossils is called a. cryptology. b. petrology. c. paleontology. d. historical biology.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 2. Paleontology is the study of a. animals. b. plants. c. fossils. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 3. Fossilized tree resin is known as a. coal. b. amber. c. opal. d. stromatolite.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 4. Amber is fossilized a. bone. b. tree resin. c. shell. d. plant.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 5. Tracks, borings, and burrows are examples of a. replaced remains. b. index fossils. c. trace fossils. d. microfossils.

ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 6. Trace fossils are a. tracks only. b. borings only. c. burrows only. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 7. Another name for cyanobacteria, the earliest evidence of ancient life, is a. blue-green algae. b. amber. c. foraminifera. d. coal.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 8. The earliest evidence of ancient life, blue-green algae, are a. cyanobacteria. b. amber. c. foraminifera. d. coal.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 9. Sedimentary layer A is found above sedimentary layer B, and the two are separated by a horizontal layer of ash, C. Therefore, the order from oldest to youngest is a. B, C, A. b. C, B, A. c. A, C, B. d. none of these.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 10. Sedimentary layer A lies above sedimentary layer B, and both are cut by an igneous dike, C. Therefore, the order from oldest to youngest is Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time a. A, B, C. b. C, B, A. c. B, A, C. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 11. Breaks, or gaps, in the rock record at a given locality are called a. unconformities. b. preconformities. c. nonconformities. d. disconformities.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 12. The oldest evidence of life on Earth dates back to about how many years ago? a. 65 million b. 3.8 million c. 3500 million d. 570 million ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 13. The oldest evidence of life on Earth dates back to about how many years ago? a. 65 million b. 3.8 million c. 3.5 billion d. 570 million ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 14. The process of matching up rock layers in different localities by such means as index fossils is called a. conformational analysis. b. correlation. c. indexation. d. cross-cutting.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 15. Fossils that are useful in correlating rock layers are called a. index fossils. b. trace fossils. c. range fossils. d. tracing fossils.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 16. Which of the following is not a feature of a good index fossil? a. Numerous specimens found b. Occurrence limited to a few localities c. Easily identified species d. Limited time span of existence ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 17. The largest units of geologic time are the a. eons. b. periods. c. eras. d. epochs.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 18. The smallest units of geologic time are the a. eons. b. periods. c. eras. d. epochs.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 19. Eons are divided first into a. eras. b. periods.

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time c. millennia. d. epochs.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 20. A group of eras are called a(n) a. eon. b. period. c. millennia. d. epoch.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 21. Eras are divided first into a. epochs. b. millennia. c. periods. d. eons.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. A group of periods is called a(n) a. epoch. b. millennia. c. era. d. eon.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. Periods are divided into a. eons. b. epochs. c. millennia. d. eras.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time 24. A number of epochs is called a(n) a. eon. b. period. c. millennia. d. era.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. The Paleocene is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. The Cenozoic is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. The Mesozoic is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. The Paleozoic is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. The Cretaceous is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. The Jurassic is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. The Permian is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. The Devonian is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. The Cambrian is a(n) a. epoch. b. era.

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. The Phanerozoic is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. The Triassic is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. The Quarternary is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. The Holocene is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time 38. The Pleistocene is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. The Pliocene is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. The Miocene is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. The Oligocene is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. The Tertiary is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The Eocene is a(n) a. epoch. b. era. c. eon. d. period.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. Which of the following is the era sometimes called the age of reptiles? a. Mesozoic b. Paleozoic c. Cenozoic d. Phanerozoic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. Which of the following is a period of the Cenozoic era? a. Eocene b. Quaternary c. Cretaceous d. Cambrian ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. In Europe, the combined Mississippian and Pennsylvanian periods are known as the a. Carboniferous. b. Devonian. c. Pliocene. d. Tertiary.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. The fundamental concept of geology that was developed by James Hutton is a. radiometric dating. b. the principle of superposition.

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time c. the principle of cross-cutting relationships. d. uniformitarianism.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. Starting with a sample of pure parent radionuclide, what would be the ratio of the parent radionuclide to its daughter after one half-life has elapsed? a. 1 to 1 b. 1 to 2 c. 1/2 to 1 d. 2 to 1 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. Starting with a sample of pure parent radionuclide, what would be the ratio of the parent radionuclide to its daughter after two half-lives have elapsed? a. 1 to 1 b. 1 to 2 c. 1 to 3 d. 1 to 4 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. Geology's best tool for establishing absolute geologic time is a. index fossils. b. radiometric dating. c. the principle of superposition. d. the principle of cross-cutting relationships.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. If a rock sample contains uranium and lead, but no lead-204 is present, then a. all the lead is radiogenic. b. all the lead is primordial. c. both radiogenic and primordial lead are present. d. neither radiologic nor primordial lead is present.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. If a rock sample contains uranium and lead, and lead-204 is present, then a. both radiogenic and primordial lead are present. b. all the lead is primordial. c. neither radiologic nor primordial lead is present. d. all the lead is radiogenic.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. Potassium-40, one of the six major radionuclides used for radiometric dating, decays to a. nitrogen. b. strontium. c. lead. d. argon.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. Which of the following radionuclides is used to date once-living material? a. Rubidium-87 b. Potassium-40 c. Thorium-232 d. Carbon-14 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. Which of the following radionuclides has the shortest half-life? a. Potassium-40 b. Uranium-238 c. Carbon-14 d. Uranium-235 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. The Shroud of Turin, the Iceman, and the Dead Sea Scrolls were dated by use of a. Rubidium-87. b. Potassium-40. c. Carbon-14.

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time d. Uranium-238.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. Geologists think that Earth is how old? a. 4560 billion years b. 45.6 thousand years c. 45.6 million years d. 4.56 billion years ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. Geologists have principally used which class of rocks to establish the relative time scale? a. Igneous b. Foliated c. Metamorphic d. Sedimentary ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. Geologists have principally used which class of rocks for radiometric dating? a. Sedimentary b. Igneous c. Foliated d. Metamorphic ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. In which of the following eons do we live? a. Phanerozoic b. Hadean c. Proterozoic d. Archean ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. Which of the following eons is the oldest?

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time a. Proterozoic b. Phanerozoic c. Hadean d. Archean ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. The term Cambrian explosion refers to a. an asteroid impact. b. the breakup of a supercontinent. c. intense, widespread volcanic activity. d. a proliferation of life forms.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. The Paleozoic era began about how many million years ago? a. 65 b. 545 c. 245 d. 3 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. The Mesozoic era began about how many million years ago? a. 3 b. 545 c. 245 d. 65 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. The Cenozoic era began about how many million years ago? a. 65 b. 545 c. 3 d. 245 ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. The first 87% of geologic time is often called a. Hadean time. b. Pangaean time. c. Precambrian time. d. Proterozoic time.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. Trilobites lived during which era? a. Paleozoic b. Cenozoic c. Mesozoic d. Archeozoic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. The Paleozoic era ended with an event called the a. Chicxulub Impact. b. Cambrian Explosion. c. Great Dying. d. Pangaean Rift.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. We live in the period called the a. Cenozoic. b. Holocene. c. Ordovician. d. Quaternary.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. We live in the epoch called the a. Quaternary. b. Ordovician.

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time c. Holocene. d. Cenozoic.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. The Holocene epoch began when a. the glaciers last retreated from North America. b. a period of intense volcanic activity ended. c. an asteroid hit Chicxulub. d. Pangaea began breaking up.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. Which epoch is also called the Ice Ages? a. Permian b. Holocene c. Pleistocene d. Cretaceous ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. About how long ago was the last retreat of the glaciers from North America and Europe? a. 60,000 years b. 10,000 years c. 2 million years d. 6000 years ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 74. The oldest known fossils of the genus Homo date from about how long ago? a. 6000 years b. 2 million years c. 10,000 years d. 65,000 years ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time 75. Which occurrence is associated with the demise of the dinosaurs? a. The Great Dying b. The Cambrian explosion c. The breakup of Pangaea d. The K-T event ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 76. The K-T impact is thought to have occurred at what site? a. Iridium b. Chicxulub c. Gubbio d. Alvarez ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 77. Archaeopteryx fossils are those of a prehistoric a. bird. b. crinoid. c. trilobite. d. ground sloth.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 78. Stromatolites are structures created by a. algae. b. brachiopods. c. sea worms. d. trilobites.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 79. Which of the following were marine invertebrates that looked like plants and left fossil segments sometimes called “Indian money”? a. Trilobites b. Gastropods c. Crinoids d. Brachiopods Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 80. The Triassic period is part of which era? a. Cenozoic b. Mesozoic c. Paleozoic d. Jurrasic ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 81. The Petrified National Forest is found in the state of a. Nevada b. New Mexico c. Arizona d. Utah ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 82. The hollow depression left when a shell or bone is dissolved completely out of a rock is called a(n) a. groove. b. hole. c. cast. d. mold.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 83. New material filling a mold forms a ______________ of the original shell or bone. a. cast b. mold c. hole d. groove ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 84. Any indication of prehistoric life preserved in rock is called a. a shale.

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time b. a radionuclide. c. a fossil. d. none of these.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 85. Wood from an ancient stump has a ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12 that is one-eighth that of new wood.

About how old is the stump? (Carbon-14's half-life is 5730 years.) a. 17,190 years b. 11,460 years c. 5730 years d. 2865 years ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 86. The study of fossils is called a. paleontology. b. biology. c. geology. d. history.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 87. A(n) ______________ is any indication of prehistoric life preserved in rock.

ANSWER: fossil POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 88. The study of fossils is called ______________.

ANSWER: paleontology POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 89. Fossilized tree resin is called ______________.

ANSWER: amber POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 90. The Petrified National Forest is found in the state of ______________.

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time ANSWER: Arizona POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 91. The hollow depression left when a shell or bone is dissolved completely out of a rock is called a(n) ______________.

ANSWER: mold POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 92. New material filling a mold forms a(n) ______________ of the original shell or bone.

ANSWER: cast POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 93. The earliest evidence of prehistoric life is the single-celled organisms called ______________.

ANSWER: cyanobacteria, or blue-green algae POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 94. The oldest algal fossils are found on the continent of ______________.

ANSWER: Australia POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 95. A fossil imprint made by the movement of an animal is called a(n) ______________ fossil.

ANSWER: trace POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 96. Petrified wood is a common type of ______________ fossil.

ANSWER: replacement POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 97. When rocks and geologic events are placed in chronological order without regard to actual dates, ______________ geologic time is obtained.

ANSWER: relative POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 98. The ______________ states that an igneous rock is younger than the rock layers it has disturbed.

ANSWER: principle of cross-cutting relationships Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 99. The ______________ states that in a sequence of undisturbed sedimentary rocks, lavas, or ash, each layer is younger than the layer beneath it.

ANSWER: principle of superposition POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 100. Because sediments are not deposited continuously in a given locality over time, breaks called ______________ occur in the rock record.

ANSWER: unconformities POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 101. The process of matching up rock layers in different localities by the use of index fossils or other means is called ______________.

ANSWER: correlation POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 102. ______________ fossils are those typical of a particular limited time segment of Earth's history.

ANSWER: Index POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 103. The largest units of geologic time are called ______________.

ANSWER: eons POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 104. Eons are subdivided first into ______________.

ANSWER: eras POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 105. We live in the ______________ eon.

ANSWER: Phanerozoic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 106. The time before the Phanerozoic eon is collectively called ______________ time.

ANSWER: Precambrian POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 107. The oldest era in the Phanerozoic eon is the ______________ era.

ANSWER: Paleozoic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 108. The term age of reptiles is sometimes used to refer to the ______________ era.

ANSWER: Mesozoic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 109. The term age of mammals is sometimes used to refer to the ______________ era.

ANSWER: Cenozoic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 110. The term age of ancient life is sometimes used to refer to the ______________ era.

ANSWER: Paleozoic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 111. Eras are divided first into smaller time units called ______________.

ANSWER: periods POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 112. The Jurassic period is part of the ______________ era.

ANSWER: Mesozoic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 113. The organisms called ______________ were the first organisms with eyes and were wiped out at the end of the Paleozoic era.

ANSWER: trilobites POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 114. The Cenozoic era consists of only two periods: the ______________ and the Quaternary.

ANSWER: Tertiary POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 115. The earliest (oldest) period in the Paleozoic era is the ______________.

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time ANSWER: Cambrian POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 116. Much of our energy comes from coal that was formed from plants that lived during the ______________ period.

ANSWER: Pennsylvanian, or Carboniferous POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 117. The actual age of rock layers and geologic events is referred to as ______________ geologic time.

ANSWER: absolute, or numerical POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 118. The concept of uniformitarianism was developed by ______________, the "father of geology."

ANSWER: Hutton POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 119. Geology's best tool for establishing absolute (numerical) geologic time is called ______________ dating.

ANSWER: radiometric POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 120. Atomic nuclei that decay of their own accord are said to be ______________.

ANSWER: radioactive, or radionuclides POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 121. The span of time required for the radioactive decay of half the parent nuclei in a sample is known as the ______________.

ANSWER: half-life POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 122. Naturally occurring uranium ultimately decays to isotopes of the element named ______________.

ANSWER: lead POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 123. Lead that comes from radioactive decay is called ______________ lead.

ANSWER: radiogenic Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 124. Primordial lead contains the isotope lead-______________, whereas radiogenic lead does not.

ANSWER: 204 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 125. An important radiometric dating process is the decay of potassium-40 to ______________-40.

ANSWER: argon POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 126. Rubidium-______________ dating is an important radiometric dating tool.

ANSWER: strontium POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 127. ______________ dating is used specifically to establish the absolute age of organic remains.

ANSWER: Carbon POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 128. Carbon dating was used to establish the age of the Shroud of ______________.

ANSWER: Turin POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 129. Lack of knowledge of the phenomenon called ______________ led Lord Kelvin to an incorrect estimate of the age of Earth.

ANSWER: radioactivity, or radioactive decay POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 130. Geologic evidence places Earth's age at ______________ million years.

ANSWER: 4560 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 131. Relative and absolute geologic times are combined to give the ______________ scale.

ANSWER: geologic time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time 132. Reasonable values for the absolute ages of sedimentary rocks are frequently determined by relating them to ______________ rocks whose absolute ages have been determined.

ANSWER: igneous POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 133. The Phanerozoic eon and the Paleozoic era began about ______________ million years ago.

ANSWER: 545 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 134. The Paleozoic era ended and the Mesozoic era began about ______________ million years ago.

ANSWER: 245 POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 135. The Great Dying occurred at the end of the ______________ era.

ANSWER: Paleozoic POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 136. The periods of the Cenozoic era are divided into time units called ______________.

ANSWER: epochs POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 137. The Pleistocene epoch is also referred to as the ______________.

ANSWER: Ice Ages POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 138. We live in the ______________ epoch.

ANSWER: Holocene POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 139. The finding of an abnormally high concentration of the element named ______________ was the first clue to the probable cause of the K-T event.

ANSWER: iridium POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 140. The K-T event occurred about ______________ million years ago.

ANSWER: 65 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 141. The Eocene is a geologic______________.

ANSWER: epoch POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 142. The Cenozoic era consists of the Tertiary and ______________ periods.

ANSWER: Quaternary POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 143. Sea lilies are more scientifically called ______________.

ANSWER: crinoids POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 144. Layers of sediment, lava, and ash are originally laid down in a(n) ______________ position.

ANSWER: horizontal POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 145. A dike that intrudes a bed of sedimentary rock is ______________ than the sedimentary rock.

ANSWER: younger POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 146. Sedimentary layer A lies above sedimentary layer B. Fault C cuts through B but does not affect A. Arrange A, B, and C in order of oldest first to youngest last.

ANSWER: B, C, A POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 147. Wood from an ancient stump has a ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12 that is one-eighth that of new wood.

About how old is the stump? (Carbon-14's half-life is 5730 years.)

ANSWER: 17,190 years POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer 148. A lava flow radiometrically dated at 300 million years lies just below sedimentary layer A and just above sedimentary layer B. What can be said of the ages of beds A and B? Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 24 - Geologic Time ANSWER: Layer A is younger than 300 million years, whereas layer B is older than 300 million years.

POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Objective Short Answer

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